chapter-309•OAR Chapter 309 — Oregon Health Authority, Health Systems Division: Behavioral Health Services
OAR Chapter 309 — Oregon Health Authority, Health Systems Division: Behavioral Health Services
chapter-309OAR Chapter 309Regulation
Division 1 PROCEDURAL RULES
Or. Admin. R. 309-001-0000 Model Rules of Procedure
The Oregon Health Authority (Authority), Health Systems Division (Division), Addiction Services, chapter 309, shall comply with Authority rules in chapter 943 regarding Model Rules of Procedure, Notices of Rulemaking, adoption of Temporary Rules, and Delegation of Rulemaking Authority.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.042
- BHS 7-2018, adopt filed 03/21/2018, effective 04/11/2018
Division 8 CERTIFICATION OF BEHAVIORAL HEALTH TREATMENT SERVICES
Or. Admin. R. 309-008-0100 Purpose and Scope
(1) These rules establish procedures for the application, initial certification, certification renewal, review, and other actions on a certificate including revocation, denial, suspension, and placement of conditions for the behavioral health treatment services for the types listed in section (2) of this rule.
(2) These rules apply to providers seeking certification to provide behavioral health treatment services under the following service delivery rules:
(a) OAR 309-014-0000 to 0040 (Community Mental Health Programs);
(b) OAR 309-019-0100 to 0220 (Outpatient Behavioral Health Services);
(c) OAR 309-022-0100 to 0190 (Intensive Treatment Services for Children and Adolescents), but not including Integrated or IPSR (Child and Adolescent Integrated Psychiatric and Substance Use Disorders Residential Treatment Program) licenses;
(d) OAR 309-022-0195 to 0230 (Children's Emergency Safety Intervention Specialist);
(e) OAR 309-033-0200 to 0970 (Involuntary Commitment Proceedings);
(f) OAR 309-039-0500 to 0580 (Standards for the Approval of Providers of Non-Inpatient Mental Health Treatment Services);
(g) OAR 415-020-0000 to 0090 (Standards for Outpatient Opioid Treatment Programs); and
(h) OAR 415-057-0020 to 0150 (Standards for Department of Corrections-Based Alcohol and Other Drugs Treatment Programs).
(3) These rules do not establish procedures for other health care services types or licenses not listed in section (2) of this rule and specifically do not establish procedures for:
(a) Licensing a residential facility under ORS 443.410 or 443.725;
(b) Licensing or certifying an individual behavioral health care practitioner otherwise licensed to render behavioral health care services in accordance with applicable statutes by the applicable licensing board;
(c) Licensing or certifying a behavioral health treatment services provider comprised exclusively of health care practitioners or behavioral health care practitioners otherwise licensed to provide behavioral health care services in accordance with applicable statutes by the applicable licensing board; or
(d) Licensing Integrated or IPSR (Child and Adolescent Integrated Psychiatric and Substance Use Disorders Residential Treatment) programs.
(4) These rules apply to applications, initial certifications, renewals of certification, reviews, and other actions that were pending or initiated on or after July 1, 2016.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, ORS 413.042, ORS 413.032-413.033, ORS 426.072, ORS 426.236, ORS 426.500, ORS 430.021, ORS 430.256, ORS 430.357, ORS 430.560, ORS 430.640, ORS 430.870 & ORS 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.520, ORS 426.060, ORS 426.140, ORS 430.010, ORS 430.254, ORS 430.335, ORS 430.590, ORS 430.620 & ORS 430.637
- BHS 23-2018, amend filed 12/26/2018, effective 01/09/2019
- BHS 15-2018, temporary amend filed 07/17/2018, effective 08/01/2018 through 01/27/2019
- BHS 8-2018, amend filed 03/22/2018, effective 04/01/2018
- MHS 17-2017, amend filed 12/28/2017, effective 01/01/2018
- MHS 15-2017, temporary amend filed 12/01/2017, effective 12/01/2017 through 05/29/2018
- MHS 16-2016, f. 11-28-16, cert. ef. 11-30-16
- MHS 12-2016(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 7-29-16 thru 12-27-16
- MHS 6-2016(Temp), f. 6-28-16, cert. ef. 7-1-16 thru 12-27-16
Or. Admin. R. 309-008-0200 Definitions
(1) “ASAM Criteria” means the most current publication of the American Society of Addiction Medicine criteria; Treatment Criteria for Addictive, Substance-Related, and Co-Occurring Conditions, which is a clinical guide used in matching individuals to appropriate levels of care, and incorporated by reference in these rules.
(2) “Applicant” means any provider with an existing certificate listed in OAR 309-008-0100(2) to provide behavioral health treatment services or any person, organizational provider, tribal organization, or Community Mental Health Program seeking initial certification listed in OAR 309-008-0100(2) by submitting an application to provide behavioral health treatment services.
(3) “Behavioral Health” means mental health, mental illness, addictive health, and addiction and gambling disorders.
(4) “Behavioral Health Treatment Services” means mental health treatment, substance use disorder treatment, and problem gambling treatment services.
(5) “Certificate” means the document issued by the Division that identifies and declares provider certification. A letter accompanying issuance of the certificate shall detail the scope and approved service delivery locations of the certificate.
(6) “Certification Review” means an assessment of a provider or applicant by the Division or by another state agency or contractor on behalf of the Division for the purpose of assessing compliance with these rules with applicable service delivery rules and other applicable regulations.
(7) “Community Mental Health Program” (CMHP) means the organization of various services for individuals with a mental health diagnosis or addictive disorders operated by or contractually affiliated with a local mental health authority and operated in a specific geographic area of the state under an agreement with the Division pursuant to OAR 309-014-0000.
(8) “Condition" means a provision attached to a new or existing certificate that limits or restricts the scope of the certificate or imposes additional requirements on the applicant or provider.
(9) “Coordinated Care Organization” (CCO) means an entity that has been contracted by the Authority to provide coordinated and integrated health services.
(10) “Director” means the Director of the Oregon Health Authority or designee.
(11) “Division” means the Health Systems Division of the Oregon Health Authority or designee.
(12) “Division Staff” means those staff employed by the Division to conduct certification activities under these rules or a contracted entity delegated the authority by the Division to conduct certification activities under these rules.
(13) “Individual” means the person requesting or receiving behavioral health treatment services from a provider certified by the Division.
(14) “Individual Services Records” means documentation, written or electronic, regarding an individual including information relating to entry, assessment, orientation, services and supports planning, services and supports provided, and transfer.
(15) “Initial Certification” means a certificate issued to a new provider.
(16) “Non-Inpatient Provider” means a provider not contractually affiliated with the Division, a CMHP, or other Division contractor, providing behavioral health treatment services under group health insurance coverage that seeks or maintains Division approval under ORS 743A.168.
(17) “Oregon Health Authority” (Authority) means the agency established in ORS Chapter 413 that administers the funds for Titles XIX and XXI of the Social Security Act. It is the single state agency for the administration of the medical assistance program under ORS chapter 414. For purposes of these rules, divisions of the Oregon Health Authority include the Public Health Division and the Health Systems Division.
(18) “Plan of Correction” (POC) means a written plan and attached supporting documentation created by the provider when required by the Division to address findings of noncompliance with these rules or applicable service delivery rules.
(19) “Provider” means an individual, organizational provider as defined in ORS 430.637(1)(b), tribal organization, or CMHP that holds a current certificate listed in OAR 309-008-0100(2) to provide behavioral health treatment services pursuant to these and applicable service delivery rules.
(20) “Program Staff” includes employees of the provider, individuals who provide services by contract with the provider, program administrators, directors, or others who manage the provision of services, and the provider itself when the provider is an individual or group of individuals.
(21) “Program Director” means an individual with appropriate professional qualifications and experience as regulated by the applicable service delivery rules listed on the certificate who is designated to manage the operation of a program.
(22) “Public Funds” means financial support, in part or in full, provided directly or indirectly by a local, state, or federal government.
(23) "Regulatory Standard" means a rule, condition, or requirement describing the following information for products, systems, or practices:
(a) Classification of components;
(b) Specification of materials, performance, or operations; or
(c) Delineation of procedures.
(24) “Service Delivery Rules” means the OARs describing the specific regulatory standards for each of the types of behavioral health treatment services the Division certifies.
(25) “Service Delivery Location” means the office, facility, location, or other physical premises where the applicant or provider intends to provide or currently provides behavioral health treatment services.
(26) "Services" means those activities and treatments intended to assist the individual's transition to recovery from a substance use disorder, gambling disorder, or mental health condition, and to promote resiliency and rehabilitative and functional individual and family outcomes.
(27) "Substantial Compliance" means a level of adherence to applicable administrative rules, statutes, and other applicable regulations that even if one or more requirements is not met in the determination of the Division does not:
(a) Constitute a danger to the health, welfare, or safety of any individual or to the public;
(b) Constitute a willful, negligent, or ongoing violation of the rights of any individuals as set forth in administrative rules; or
(c) Constitute impairment to the accomplishment of the Division’s purposes in approving or supporting the applicant or provider.
(28) "Substantial Failure to Comply" means a level of adherence to applicable administrative rules, statutes, contractual requirements, and other applicable regulations that in the determination of the Division:
(a) Constitutes a danger to the health, welfare, or safety of any individual or to the public;
(b) Constitutes a willful, negligent, or ongoing violation of the rights of individuals as set forth in applicable administrative rules; or
(c) Constitutes impairment to the accomplishment of the Division’s purposes in approving or supporting the applicant or provider.
(29) "Treatment" means the planned, medically appropriate, individualized program of medical, psychological, and rehabilitative procedures, and experiences and activities designed to remediate symptoms of a DSM diagnosis.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 179.505, ORS 413.042, 413.032-413.033, 426.072, 426.175, 426.236, 426.500, 430.010, 430.021, 430.256, 430.357, 430.560, 430.640, 430.870, ORS 743A.168 & 743.556
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.520, 426.060, 426.140, 430.010, 430.254, 430.335, 430.590, 430.620 & 430.637
- BHS 11-2018, amend filed 05/10/2018, effective 05/10/2018
- MHS 15-2017, temporary amend filed 12/01/2017, effective 12/01/2017 through 05/29/2018
- MHS 16-2016, f. 11-28-16, cert. ef. 11-30-16
- MHS 6-2016(Temp), f. 6-28-16, cert. ef. 7-1-16 thru 12-27-16
Or. Admin. R. 309-008-0250 Required Certifications for Behavioral Health Treatment Services
(1) A current certificate is required for each provider offering behavioral health treatment services by contract with the Division, by contract with a public body, or by receipt of other public funds except as provided in subsection (4) of this rule. A provider is considered to contract with a public body or receive public funds where:
(a) The provider operates under an intergovernmental agreement, a direct contract with the Division, or a direct contract with one or more CCOs;
(b) The provider receives funds administered by the Division or one or more CCOs;
(c) The provider is a community hospital, regional acute care psychiatric facility, or nonhospital facility providing care, custody, and treatment for a committed person in custody, or a person on diversion pursuant to ORS 426.070 & 426.140; and
(d) The provider is a CMHP operating under 309-014-0000.
(2) A current certificate is required for each provider offering behavioral health treatment services by contract with the Division, by contract with a public body, or by receipt of other public funds.
(3) An applicant or provider not described in subsection (1) or (2) of this rule offering behavioral health treatment services regulated by the service delivery rules listed in 309-008-0100(2), and reimbursable under group health coverage as set forth in ORS 743A.168, may seek certification pursuant to these rules in order to establish reimbursement eligibility.
(4) A certificate under these rules is not required for the following types of providers regardless of whether public funds are received:
(a) An individual behavioral health care practitioner otherwise licensed to render behavioral health care services in accordance with applicable statutes by the applicable licensing board; or
(b) A behavioral health treatment services provider comprised exclusively of health care practitioners or behavioral health care practitioners otherwise licensed to render behavioral health care services in accordance with applicable statutes by the applicable licensing board; independent of payer or funding source.
(5) Certificates are not a substitute for a required license, such as those required in ORS 443.410 and 443.725 for residential facilities.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390, 161.392, 179.040, 179.505, 413.042, 413.032-413.033, 426.072, 426.140, 426.175, 426.236, 426.500, 430.010, 430.021, 430.256, 430.357, 430.560, 430.640, 430.870 & 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: 413.520, 426.060, 426.140, 430.010, 430.254, 430.335, 430.590, 430.620, 430.637, 743.556, 813.021 & 813.260
- MHS 16-2016, f. 11-28-16, cert. ef. 11-30-16
- MHS 12-2016(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 7-29-16 thru 12-27-16
- MHS 6-2016(Temp), f. 6-28-16, cert. ef. 7-1-16 thru 12-27-16
Or. Admin. R. 309-008-0300 Terms of Certification
(1) Each applicant and provider shall:
(a) Permit Division staff to inspect the service delivery location where the applicant or provider intends to provide or currently provides behavioral health treatment services:
(A) During regular business hours and at any other reasonable hour verify information contained in the application or ensure compliance with all applicable statutes, administrative rules, other applicable regulations, or contractual obligations; and
(B) Allow immediate entry and inspection, extending to any premises the Division has reason to believe a provider provides behavioral health treatment services.
(b) Permit Division staff to inspect, audit, assess, and collect data or copies from all records maintained by the applicant or provider in relation to the certificate including but not be limited to:
(A) Financial records;
(B) Individual service records;
(C) Records related to the supply, storage, disbursement, and administration of prescribed and over-the-counter medications;
(D) Records of utilization and quality assurance reviews conducted by the applicant, provider, or other accredited entity;
(E) Employee records including but not limited to:
(i) Academic degrees;
(ii) Professional licenses;
(iii) Supervision notes, disciplinary actions, and logs;
(iv) Criminal background checks;
(v) All documentation required by applicable service delivery rules, statute, other applicable regulations, and administrative rules;
(vi) Additional documentation deemed necessary by the Division to determine compliance with this or any other applicable administrative rules, statutes, or other applicable regulations.
(c) Assure the provider is certified to provide only those services that are specified in the scope of services and conditions listed on the certificate;
(d) Post the certificate or a legible copy and any accompanying letter noting approved service delivery locations or applicable conditions in a public space of each approved service delivery location to be available for inspection at all times;
(e) Ascertain the certificate does not create an express or implied contract in the absence of a fully executed written contract; and
(f) Ensure that the certificate is not transferable to any other individual, provider, or service delivery location without Division approval.
(2) The Division may not discriminate in its review procedures or services on the basis of race, color, national origin, age, or disability. The Division may issue certificates to specialized programs to assure maximum benefit for special populations, in which case the Division may identify that special population in the certificates and impose applicable program criteria under the applicable service delivery rules.
(3) A certificate is void immediately:
(a) Upon voluntary closure by a provider;
(b) Upon change in the provider’s majority or controlling ownership; or
(c) Upon the listed expiration date of the certificate if the provider fails to timely submit a complete application for certification renewal pursuant to these rules.
(4) Discontinuation of services:
(a) A provider discontinuing services voluntarily must:
(A) Notify the Division at least 60 days prior to the date of voluntary closure and provide a written plan to comply with record retention standards set out in OAR 309-014-0035(4) and 42 CFR Part 2, “Federal Confidentiality Regulations” as applicable;
(B) Make reasonable and timely efforts to obtain alternative treatment placement or other services for individuals currently being served; and
(C) Make reasonable and timely efforts to contact individuals on waitlists and refer them to other treatment services; and
(b) A provider discontinuing services must provide individuals with a minimum 30-day written notice regarding discontinuation of services. In circumstances where undue delay might jeopardize the health, safety, or welfare of individuals or the public, including where the Division has revoked or immediately suspended the certificate pursuant to OAR 309-008-1100, the provider must notify individuals regarding the discontinuation of services as soon as possible.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 179.505, ORS 413.042, 413.032-413.033, 426.072, 426.175, 426.236, 426.500, 430.010, 430.021, 430.256, 430.357, 430.560, 430.640, 430.870, ORS 743A.168 & 743.556
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.520, 426.060, 426.140, 430.010, 430.254, 430.335, 430.590, 430.620 & 430.637
- BHS 11-2018, amend filed 05/10/2018, effective 05/10/2018
- MHS 15-2017, temporary amend filed 12/01/2017, effective 12/01/2017 through 05/29/2018
- MHS 16-2016, f. 11-28-16, cert. ef. 11-30-16
- MHS 6-2016(Temp), f. 6-28-16, cert. ef. 7-1-16 thru 12-27-16
Or. Admin. R. 309-008-0400 The Application Process
(1) An applicant seeking initial certification or certification renewal and an existing provider seeking to expand its certified scope of services, relocate an existing service delivery location, or open new service delivery location must submit a completed application to the Division.
(2) The Division shall furnish an application with instructions and provide appropriate technical assistance to facilitate completion of the application upon:
(a) Request from an applicant seeking initial certification;
(b) Request from an existing provider seeking certification renewal congruent with timelines established by these rules;
(c) Request from an existing provider seeking to add or relocate service delivery locations; and
(d) Request from an existing provider seeking to change the scope of services approved on the current certificate.
(3) An applicant with multiple service delivery locations must submit documentation with the application sufficient for the Division to evaluate each service delivery location. A separate application for each service delivery location is not required.
(4) The application must be legible and completed on the forms furnished by the Division in the manner specified by the Division. Each application must include:
(a) A detailed plan outlining the implementation of the proposed services congruent with these rules, applicable service delivery rules, other applicable regulations, and OAR and ORS noted herein;
(b) Written attestation by the applicant that all applicable rules of the Division for provision of the proposed services shall be met and maintained in substantial compliance with applicable service delivery rules;
(c) Other documentation required by applicable OAR, ORS, other applicable regulations, local regulations, contract or by judgment of the Division to assess applicant’s compliance; and
(d) Complete and current copies of the following documents:
(A) A description of the applicant’s service delivery locations describing the type and scope of behavioral health treatment services provided or proposed by the applicant at each service delivery location;
(B) Applicant’s policies regarding credentialing practices of individual practitioners;
(C) Applicant’s liability insurance coverage listing all covered service delivery locations;
(D) Applicant’s policies and procedures regarding seclusion and restraint practices; and
(E) Applicant’s Code of Conduct.
(e) Identification of financial interest of any individual including stockholders who have an incident of ownership in the applicant representing an interest of five percent or more. For purposes of these rules, an individual with a five percent or more incident of ownership is presumed to have an effect on the operation of the provider, unless the individual establishes that the individual has no involvement in the operation of the provider;
(f) Background information on all licenses, certifications, and letters of approval held or previously held by the applicant or by any owner disclosed under subsection (e) of this rule to provide care or treatment or engage in a profession or trade. The list shall include every license, certification, and letter of approval regardless of whether it was issued by the Authority or another regulatory body:
(A) The type of license or certification;
(B) The name of the issuing regulatory body;
(C) The name of the individual or business to whom it was issued;
(D) The start and end date of the period of license or certification;
(E) A list of the dates of any suspensions, revocations, conditions, penalties, denials, nonrenewal, or other adverse actions initiated or taken on a license or certificate, including documentation of the final resolution of those actions;
(F) Disclosure of whether any of the licenses or certificates had expired or were relinquished while a suspension, revocation, condition, penalty, denial, nonrenewal, or other adverse action was pending or proposed; and
(G) Copies of all current licenses or certificates.
(g) Disclosure of any substantiated findings of abuse, neglect, or mistreatment by the applicant, owner, or program staff.
(5) Where applicable, the Division shall maintain copies of the documents listed in section (4)(d) of this rule within the Division’s CCO document bank.
(6) Timeframe for application submission:
(a) An applicant seeking initial certification under these rules must submit a completed application at least six months in advance of the applicant’s desired date of certification;
(b) An applicant seeking to renew its certificate must:
(A) Request an application from the Division; and
(B) Submit a complete application at least six months prior to the expiration of the existing certificate.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 179.505, ORS 413.042, 413.032-413.033, 426.072, 426.175, 426.236, 426.500, 430.010, 430.021, 430.256, 430.357, 430.560, 430.640, 430.870, ORS 743A.168 & 743.556
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.520, 426.060, 426.140, 430.010, 430.254, 430.335, 430.590, 430.620 & 430.637
- BHS 11-2018, amend filed 05/10/2018, effective 05/10/2018
- MHS 15-2017, temporary amend filed 12/01/2017, effective 12/01/2017 through 05/29/2018
- MHS 16-2016, f. 11-28-16, cert. ef. 11-30-16
- MHS 6-2016(Temp), f. 6-28-16, cert. ef. 7-1-16 thru 12-27-16
Or. Admin. R. 309-008-0500 Response to Application
(1) Within 60 days upon receipt of application materials, the Division shall conduct a comprehensive audit of the application materials to determine compliance with these rules:
(a) If the application is found to be complete and the materials demonstrate compliance with applicable administrative rules, the Division may contact the applicant to schedule a certification review;
(b) If the application is not complete or does not demonstrate compliance, the Division shall provide written notice of the incomplete or noncompliant application describing any necessary amendment to the application. The applicant must submit an amended application to the Division within 14 calendar days of receipt of the Division’s notice.
(2) The Division shall issue a written notice of intent to deny completed applications in accordance with ORS 183.
(3) An application for certification may be denied when:
(a) The applicant’s proposed behavioral health treatment services are not subject to the service delivery rules listed in OAR 309-008-0100(2) and, therefore, are not subject to certification under these rules;
(b) The applicant fails to demonstrate the ability to sustain substantial compliance with applicable statutes, administrative rules, or other applicable regulations;
(c) The applicant’s operation would threaten the health, welfare, or safety of one or more individuals or the public; or
(d) The applicant submits an application within 180 days of a prior application denial or certificate revocation under these rules by the Division.
(4) The Division may issue a notice of intent to deny a completed application when:
(a) The applicant has previously had any certification or license suspended or revoked by the Division, the Authority, the Department of Human Services, or any other similar state agency outside of Oregon;
(b) The applicant employs or contracts with any program staff for whom there is substantiated evidence of abuse, neglect, or mistreatment;
(c) The applicant is listed on any current Medicaid exclusion list under OAR 410-120-1380; or
(d) The applicant submits false or inaccurate information to the Division.
(5) An applicant may withdraw an initial or renewal application at any time prior to the Division acting on the application unless the Division has determined that the applicant submitted false or misleading information in which case the Division may refuse to accept the withdrawal and may issue a notice of proposed denial in accordance with this rule.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 179.505, ORS 413.042, 413.032-413.033, 426.072, 426.175, 426.236, 426.500, 430.010, 430.021, 430.256, 430.357, 430.560, 430.640, 430.870, ORS 743A.168 & 743.556
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.520, 426.060, 426.140, 430.010, 430.254, 430.335, 430.590, 430.620 & 430.637
- BHS 11-2018, amend filed 05/10/2018, effective 05/10/2018
- MHS 15-2017, temporary amend filed 12/01/2017, effective 12/01/2017 through 05/29/2018
- MHS 16-2016, f. 11-28-16, cert. ef. 11-30-16
- MHS 6-2016(Temp), f. 6-28-16, cert. ef. 7-1-16 thru 12-27-16
Or. Admin. R. 309-008-0600 Appealing Denial of Application for Certification
(1) When the Division has denied an application, the Division shall notify the applicant within 30 days of the denial determination in writing and provide the applicant the opportunity to request a hearing under ORS Chapter 183.411 to 500. Any request for a contested case hearing must be submitted in writing to the Division by the applicant according to the deadline set out in the notice of denial.
(2) When the Division has issued a notice of intent to deny an application under these rules in addition to or in lieu of a hearing under ORS Chapter 183, an applicant may request in writing an informal conference with the Division as set forth in OAR 309-008-1200.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 179.505, ORS 413.042, 413.032-413.033, 426.072, 426.175, 426.236, 426.500, 430.010, 430.021, 430.256, 430.357, 430.560, 430.640, 430.870, ORS 743A.168 & 743.556
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.520, 426.060, 426.140, 430.010, 430.254, 430.335, 430.590, 430.620 & 430.637
- BHS 11-2018, amend filed 05/10/2018, effective 05/10/2018
- MHS 15-2017, temporary amend filed 12/01/2017, effective 12/01/2017 through 05/29/2018
- MHS 16-2016, f. 11-28-16, cert. ef. 11-30-16
- MHS 6-2016(Temp), f. 6-28-16, cert. ef. 7-1-16 thru 12-27-16
Or. Admin. R. 309-008-0700 Types of Reviews
(1) The Division may conduct the following types of certification reviews:
(a) After receipt of a complete application, the Division shall complete a comprehensive audit of the required application documentation and the service delivery locations. The Division may not issue an initial certification without a completed Initial Certification Review;
(b) After receipt of a complete application, the Division shall complete a comprehensive audit of the required application documentation and the service delivery locations. For continued certification, Certification Renewal Reviews must occur prior to the expiration of the existing certificate and at least once every three years;
(c) The Division may conduct Discretionary Certification Reviews with reasonable notice to ensure compliance with applicable statute, administrative rules, other applicable regulations, and contractual obligations. Discretionary Certification Reviews may be conducted by the Division with or without notice for the following reasons:
(A) The Division has reasonable concern the provider may act to alter records or make them unavailable for inspections;
(B) The Division received a complaint or information that suggests or alleges conditions or practices that could threaten the health, safety, rights, or welfare of individuals; or
(C) The Division has reason to believe a certification review is necessary to ensure a provider is in substantial compliance with these rules, service delivery rules, other applicable administrative rules, contractual obligations, or with conditions placed upon the certificate.
(2) If the Division is not permitted access to records or service delivery locations for the purpose of conducting a certification review, the Division may take action on the certificate up to and including the application of conditions, suspension, or revocation.
(3) A provider or applicant must permit state or local fire inspectors and state or local health inspectors to enter and inspect the service delivery locations as required by administrative rule, state fire code, or local regulations.
(4) At the sole discretion of the Division, the Division may complete a certification review partially or fully via a desk review process. A desk review process is when the Division conducts a certification review based on the provider or applicant’s submission of required documentation and telephonic interviews when the Division does not physically visit the service delivery locations:
(a) The Division shall furnish a list of documentation necessary to complete the desk review to the applicant or provider;
(b) The applicant or provider must submit all requested documents to the Division in compliance with state and federal privacy and data transmission regulations;
(c) The Division may elect to schedule telephone interviews deemed necessary to fulfill the objectives of a certification review; and
(d) Upon completion of the desk review, the Division shall securely dispose of documentation containing protected health information submitted by the applicant or provider.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 179.505, ORS 413.042, 413.032-413.033, 426.072, 426.175, 426.236, 426.500, 430.010, 430.021, 430.256, 430.357, 430.560, 430.640, 430.870, ORS 743A.168 & 743.556
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.520, 426.060, 426.140, 430.010, 430.254, 430.335, 430.590, 430.620 & 430.637
- BHS 11-2018, amend filed 05/10/2018, effective 05/10/2018
- MHS 15-2017, temporary amend filed 12/01/2017, effective 12/01/2017 through 05/29/2018
- MHS 16-2016, f. 11-28-16, cert. ef. 11-30-16
- MHS 6-2016(Temp), f. 6-28-16, cert. ef. 7-1-16 thru 12-27-16
Or. Admin. R. 309-008-0800 Conduct of Certification Reviews
(1) The Division shall employ review procedures deemed adequate to determine applicant or provider compliance with applicable administrative rules, statutes, other applicable regulations, and as necessary, contractual obligations. These procedures may include but are not limited to:
(a) Entry and inspection of any service delivery location;
(b) Document review; and
(c) Interviews with or a request for completion of a questionnaire by individuals knowledgeable about the provider or applicant. Individuals interviewed may include program staff, managers, governing or advisory board members, allied agencies, individuals, their family members, and significant others.
(2) Program staff must cooperate with the Division during a certification review.
(3) Within 30 days following the completion of each discretionary review, the Division may at its discretion issue a report and require a Plan of Correction (POC) congruent with section (4) of this rule.
(4) Within 30 days following the completion of each initial or renewal certification review, the Division shall issue a report that includes:
(a) A statement of any deficiency including a description of the review findings related to non-compliance with applicable administrative rules, statutes, other applicable regulations, and any required corrective actions where applicable;
(b) Pursuant to a certification review when the Division determines a provider or applicant is not operating in substantial compliance with all applicable statutes, administrative rules, and other regulations, and the POC process is appropriate, the Division may require the provider or applicant to submit a POC. The Division shall provide written notice of the requirement to submit a POC, and the provider or applicant shall prepare and submit a POC according to the following terms:
(A) The provider or applicant shall submit the POC to the Division within 30 days of receiving the statement of deficiency. The Division may issue up to a 90-day extension to the existing certification to allow the provider or applicant to complete the POC process;
(B) The POC shall address each finding of non-compliance and shall include:
(i) The planned action already taken or to be taken to correct each finding of non-compliance;
(ii) The anticipated or requested timeframe for the completion of each corrective action not yet complete at the time of POC submission to the Division;
(iii) A description of and plan for quality assurance activities intended to ensure ongoing compliance; and
(iv) The name of the individual responsible for ensuring the implementation of each corrective action within the POC.
(c) If the Division finds that clarification or supplementation to the POC is required prior to approval, the Division shall contact the provider or applicant to provide notice of requested clarification or supplementation, and the provider or applicant shall submit an amended POC within 14 calendars days of notification;
(d) The provider shall submit a sufficient POC approved by the Division prior to receiving a certificate. Upon the Division’s approval of the POC, the Division shall issue the appropriate certification;
(e) The Division may deny, revoke, not renew, or place conditions on an applicant or provider’s certification if the provider fails to submit an adequate POC within the timeframes established in this rule.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 179.505, ORS 413.042, 413.032-413.033, 426.072, 426.236, 426.500, 430.010, 430.021, 430.256, 430.357, 430.560, 430.640, 430.870 & 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: 413.520, 426.060, 426.140, 430.010, 430.254, 430.335, 430.590, 430.620 & 430.637
- BHS 11-2018, amend filed 05/10/2018, effective 05/10/2018
- MHS 15-2017, temporary amend filed 12/01/2017, effective 12/01/2017 through 05/29/2018
- MHS 4-2017, f. 5-23-17, cert. ef. 6-1-17
- MHS 30-2016(Temp), f. 12-30-16, cert. ef. 1-1-17 thru 6-29-17
- MHS 16-2016, f. 11-28-16, cert. ef. 11-30-16
- MHS 6-2016(Temp), f. 6-28-16, cert. ef. 7-1-16 thru 12-27-16
Or. Admin. R. 309-008-0900 Issuing Certificates
(1) The Division shall issue an approved applicant a certificate to provide behavioral health treatment services. Every certificate shall:
(a) Be signed by the Director;
(b) Apply to all approved service delivery locations listed in the accompanying letter;
(c) List the service delivery rules under which the applicant or provider is approved to provide services;
(d) List the effective and expiration dates of the certificate;
(e) List any conditions applied to the certificate;
(f) List any variances approved by the Division; and
(g) Be accompanied by a letter from the Division noting:
(A) All service delivery locations approved under the certificate; and
(B) Approved alternative practices related to variances listed on the certificate.
(2) After conduct of the certification review, the Division shall issue initial certificates to new applicants that demonstrate substantial compliance with applicable administrative rules and statutes:
(a) For up to one calendar year from the date of initial certification; and
(b) Initial certifications may be issued with conditions pursuant to this rule.
(3) After conduct of the certification review and the plan of correction process where applicable, the Division shall renew the certificate of an applicant with a current certification that demonstrates substantial compliance with applicable administrative rules or statutes:
(a) For up to three calendar years from the date of renewal; and
(b) Renewal certifications may be issued with conditions pursuant to these rules.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390, 161.392, 179.040, 179.505, 413.042, 413.032-413.033, 426.072, 426.236, 426.500, 430.010, 430.021, 430.256, 430.357, 430.560, 430.640, 430.870 & 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.520, 426.060, 426.140, 430.010, 430.254, 430.335, 430.590, 430.620, 430.637, 813.021 & 813.260
- MHS 4-2017, f. 5-23-17, cert. ef. 6-1-17
- MHS 30-2016(Temp), f. 12-30-16, cert. ef. 1-1-17 thru 6-29-17
- MHS 16-2016, f. 11-28-16, cert. ef. 11-30-16
- MHS 6-2016(Temp), f. 6-28-16, cert. ef. 7-1-16 thru 12-27-16
Or. Admin. R. 309-008-0905 Conditions
(1) The Division may elect at any time and at its discretion to place conditions on a certificate upon a finding that:
(a) The applicant or provider employs or contracts with any program staff for whom there is substantiated evidence of abuse, neglect, or mistreatment;
(b) The applicant or provider employs or contracts with any program staff that fails to meet relevant minimum qualifications described in these rules, service delivery rules, or other applicable law;
(c) There is substantiated evidence of abuse, neglect, or mistreatment;
(d) The applicant or provider operates such that there is a threat to the health, welfare, or safety of an individual or the public;
(e) The applicant or provider has substantially failed to comply with these rules, service delivery rules, or other applicable law;
(f) The applicant or provider fails to fully implement a POC or adequately maintain a corrective action;
(g) The Division has issued the applicant or provider through two or more consecutive certification reviews substantially similar findings of non-compliance with these rules, service delivery rules, or other applicable administrative rules, statutes, or regulations;
(h) There is a need for increased regulatory oversight of the applicant or provider; or
(i) The applicant or provider fails to comply with any reporting requirements relating to funding certification.
(2) The Division shall consider the sum of the circumstances including but not limited to the following criteria when deciding whether to impose conditions as opposed to denying, suspending, refusing to renew, or revoking a certificate:
(a) The expressed willingness and demonstrated ability of the applicant or provider to gain and maintain compliance with all applicable administrative rules and law;
(b) Submission of a POC prescribing reasonable, sustained, and timely resolution to areas of non-compliance;
(c) The relative availability of alternative providers to address any service needs that would be unmet if the applicant or provider is not issued a certificate with conditions as an alternative to revocation or refusal to award a certificate; or
(d) The applicant or provider’s historical compliance with Division rules, previous conditions placed on certificates, and previous POC’s.
(3) Conditions to the certificate may include:
(a) Requiring corrective actions with associated timeframes for completion necessary for the applicant or provider to correct areas of non-compliance or concerns identified by the Division;
(b) Limiting the total number of individuals enrolled in services or on a waitlist for services;
(c) Limiting the population such as narrowing the age range of individuals who the applicant or provider may serve;
(d) Limiting the scope and type of services that the applicant or provider may provide;
(e) Other conditions deemed necessary by the Division to ensure the health and safety of individuals and the public; and
(f) Other conditions deemed necessary by the Division for the purpose of ensuring regulatory compliance with this or other applicable administrative rules and law.
(4) The Division may issue a notice of intent to impose conditions as described in section (15) of this rule or may impose conditions on a certificate with notice or without notice as described in sections (4) to (8). In imposing conditions with notice or without notice, a provider or an applicant may request an informal conference:
(a) The Division may issue the conditions with notice by issuing a Notice of Impending Imposition of Certificate Condition (Notice) at least 48 hours prior to issuing an Order Imposing Certificate Condition (Order) to a provider or an applicant. After the Order is issued, the Division shall revise the certificate to indicate the conditions that have been ordered;
(b) The Division may impose the conditions without notice only if the Division determines that there is an imminent threat to individuals such that the Division determines it is not safe or practical to give an applicant or a provider advance notice. The Division may impose the conditions without notice by issuing an Order to a provider or an applicant. After the Order is issued, the Division shall revise the certificate to indicate the conditions that have been ordered.
(5) The Notice may be provided in writing or orally. When the Notice is provided in writing, it shall be sent by certified or registered mail or delivered in person to the applicant or provider. If the Notice is provided orally, it may be provided by telephone or in person to the applicant, provider, or person represented as being in charge of the program. When the Notice is delivered orally, the Division shall subsequently provide written notice to the applicant or provider by registered or certified mail. The Notice shall:
(a) Generally describe the acts or omissions of the applicant or provider and the circumstances that led to the finding that the imposition of a certificate condition is warranted;
(b) Generally describe why the acts or omissions and the circumstances create a situation for which the imposition of a condition is warranted;
(c) Provide a brief statement identifying the impending condition;
(d) Identify a person within the Division whom the applicant or provider may contact and who is authorized to enter the Order or to make recommendations regarding issuance of the Order;
(e) Specify the date and time the Order is scheduled to take effect; and
(f) Offer that the applicant or provider may request an informal conference prior to the issuance of the Order Imposing Certificate Condition, or if the provider has already requested an informal conference, specify the date and time that an informal conference shall be held.
(6) If an informal conference is requested regarding conditions, the conference shall be held at a location designated by the Division. If determined to be appropriate by the Division, the conference may be held by telephone. Following the informal conference, the Division may modify the conditions. The timing of the informal conference is described as follows:
(a) If a Notice is issued, the applicant or provider may request an informal conference to object to the Division’s proposed action before the condition is scheduled to take effect. The request for an informal conference shall be made prior to the date the conditions are intended to be effective. If timely requested, the informal conference shall be held within seven days of the request. The Order Imposing Condition may be issued at any time after the informal conference;
(b) If an Order Imposing Condition is issued without a prior Notice, the applicant or provider may within 48 hours of the issuance of the Order request an informal conference. If timely requested, the informal conference shall be held within two business days of receipt of the request. Following the informal conference, the Division at its discretion may modify the conditions.
(7) When an Order is issued, the Division must serve the Order either personally or by registered or certified mail. The Order must include the following statements:
(a) The authority and jurisdiction under which the condition is being issued;
(b) A reference to the particular sections of the statute and administrative rules involved;
(c) The effective date of the condition;
(d) A short and plain statement of the nature of the matters asserted or charged;
(e) The specific terms of the certificate condition;
(f) Right to request a contested case hearing under ORS Chapter 183.411 to 500;
(g) A statement that if a request for hearing is not received by the Division within 21 days of the date of the Order, the applicant or provider shall have waived the right to a hearing under ORS Chapter 183.411 to 500;
(h) Findings of specific acts or omissions of the applicant or provider that are grounds for the condition and the reasons the acts or omissions create a situation for which the imposition of a certificate condition is warranted; and,
(i) A statement that the Division may combine the hearing on the Order with any other proceeding affecting the certificate. The procedures for the combined proceeding must be those applicable to the other proceedings affecting the certificate.
(8) Hearing:
(a) If the Division serves an Order Imposing Condition, the applicant or provider is entitled to a contested case hearing.;
(b) The Division must receive the request for a hearing within 21 days of the date of Order. If a request for hearing is not received by the Division within 21 days of the date of the Order, the applicant or provider shall have waived the right to a hearing;
(c) The applicant or provider may request a contested case hearing regarding the imposition of the conditions in addition to or in lieu of an informal conference. Requesting a contested case hearing may not delay the effective date of the conditions.
(9) When a restriction of enrollment or intake is in effect pursuant to an Order, the Division in its sole discretion may authorize the provider to admit or serve new individuals for whom the Division determines that alternate placement or provider is not feasible.
(10) Conditions may be imposed for the duration of the certificate or limited to some other shorter period of time. If the condition corresponds to the certificate period, the reasons for the condition shall be considered at the time of renewal to determine if the conditions are still appropriate. The effective date and expiration date of the condition shall be indicated on the certificate.
(11) When the applicant or provider determines that the circumstances leading to imposition of the condition no longer exist and that effective systems are in place to ensure that similar deficiencies do not recur, the applicant or provider may make written request to the Division for re-inspection.
(12) Re-inspection:
(a) If the Division finds that the situation for which the condition was imposed has been corrected and finds that systems are in place to ensure that similar deficiencies do not recur, the condition shall be withdrawn, and the Division must revise the certificate accordingly. Following re-inspection, the Division shall notify the facility by telephone of the decision to withdraw the condition. Telephone notification shall be followed by written notification;
(b) If the Division determines after a re-inspection that the situation for which the condition was imposed continues to exist or that there are not sufficient systems in place to prevent similar deficiencies, the certificate condition may not be withdrawn, and the Division is not obligated to re-inspect again for at least 45 days. A decision not to withdraw the Order shall be given to the applicant or provider in writing, and the applicant or provider shall be informed of the right to a contested case hearing. Nothing in this rule is intended to limit the Division’s authority to conduct a certification review at any time.
(13) The Division may deny and refuse to renew or revoke the certificate when the provider or applicant fails to comply timely with the condition.
(14) When the Division orders a condition be placed on a certificate With Notice or Without Notice under the provisions of this rule, the applicant or provider is entitled to request a contested case hearing.
(15) In addition to or instead of imposing conditions With Notice or Without Notice as described in sections (4) to (8) and (14), the Division may issue a notice of intent to impose a condition with the opportunity for a contested case hearing prior to imposing the condition. Notices of intent to impose a condition shall be issued consistent with sections (1)-(3) and (9)-(13).
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 179.505, ORS 413.042, 413.032-413.033, 426.072, 426.236, 426.500, 430.010, 430.021, 430.256, 430.357, 430.560, 430.640, 430.870 & 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.520, 426.060, 426.140, 430.010, 430.254, 430.335, 430.590, 430.620 & 430.637
- BHS 11-2018, amend filed 05/10/2018, effective 05/10/2018
- MHS 15-2017, temporary amend filed 12/01/2017, effective 12/01/2017 through 05/29/2018
- MHS 4-2017, f. 5-23-17, cert. ef. 6-1-17
- MHS 30-2016(Temp), f. 12-30-16, cert. ef. 1-1-17 thru 6-29-17
Or. Admin. R. 309-008-1000 Modification to Certification
(1) A provider with a current certificate seeking to open new service delivery locations, relocate current service delivery locations, or provide additional types of treatment services under different service delivery rules must submit a written request for Division approval prior to any such changes:
(a) The Division must receive the written request for such changes at least 60 days prior to the desired effective date for any such changes;
(b) The Division shall make reasonable efforts to make final determination for approval or disapproval of changes to the certificate within 45 days of receiving the written request.
(2) A provider with a current certificate seeking to designate a new program director must submit a written request for Division approval prior to making such a designation:
(a) The provider must include copies of relevant qualifications with its written request when designating a new program director;
(b) The Division shall make every reasonable effort to review documents and make a final determination regarding whether the proposed program director meets applicable service delivery rule requirements and qualifications within 30 days of receipt of the provider’s written request. The Division shall provide written notice of its determination;
(c) When an emergency requires a provider to designate a new program director prior to Division approval:
(A) The provider must make every reasonable effort to expediently designate a new program director and must submit a request for the designation to the Division within 15 calendar days of the new designation and include copies of relevant qualifications of the new program director; and
(B) The Division shall make every reasonable effort to expediently review the provider’s request for the designation and make a final determination whether the proposed program director meets applicable service delivery rule requirements. The Division shall provide written notice of its determination.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 179.505, ORS 413.042, 413.032-413.033, 426.072, 426.175, 426.236, 426.500, 430.010, 430.021, 430.256, 430.357, 430.560, 430.640, 430.870, ORS 743A.168 & 743.556
- Statutes/Other Implemented: 413.520, 426.060, 426.140, 430.010, 430.254, 430.335, 430.590, 430.620 & 430.637
- BHS 11-2018, amend filed 05/10/2018, effective 05/10/2018
- MHS 15-2017, temporary amend filed 12/01/2017, effective 12/01/2017 through 05/29/2018
- MHS 16-2016, f. 11-28-16, cert. ef. 11-30-16
- MHS 6-2016(Temp), f. 6-28-16, cert. ef. 7-1-16 thru 12-27-16
Or. Admin. R. 309-008-1100 Nonrenewal, Suspension, and Revocation of Certification
(1) Immediate suspension of a certificate may occur if there is a serious danger to the public health and safety during a period of time the Division sets forth specific reasons for its finding. The provider may request a contested case hearing to contest the immediate suspension order. Requests for a hearing must be received by the Division within 90 days from the date the immediate suspension order was served on the provider personally or was mailed by certified or registered mail. If the provider requests a hearing, the hearing shall be held as soon as practicable:
(a) The Division finds there is substantial failure to comply with applicable statutes, administrative rules, service delivery rules, or other applicable regulations;
(b) There is a threat to health or safety of individuals.
(2) The Division may revoke or refuse to renew a certificate of one or more service delivery locations listed on the certificate when the Division determines that there is substantiated evidence of abuse, neglect, or mistreatment or determines that a provider:
(a) Demonstrates substantial failure to comply with these administrative rules or with applicable state or federal law;
(b) There is a threat to the health or safety of individuals;
(c) Fails to maintain any State of Oregon license that is a prerequisite for providing services that were approved;
(d) Has a direct contract with the Division, and the Division terminates its agreement or contract with the provider;
(e) Fails to comply with the requirements of one or more conditions on the certificate;
(f) Fails to submit and or implement a POC sufficient to come into substantial compliance with these and other applicable rules or regulations;
(g) Submits falsified or incorrect information to the Division;
(h) Refuses to allow access to information for the purpose of verifying compliance with applicable statutes, administrative rules, or other applicable regulations within a specified date or fails to submit such information following the date specified for such a submission in the written notification;
(i) Fails to maintain sufficient staffing or fails to comply with staff qualification requirements;
(j) The provider fails to demonstrate the ability to meet and sustain compliance with all applicable statutes, rules, and regulations.
(3) When the Division determines the need to revoke or deny renewal of a certificate issued under these rules, a notice of intent to take action on the certificate shall be issued to the provider.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 430.870, ORS 743A.168, ORS 179.040, 179.505, ORS 413.042, 413.032-413.033, 426.072, 426.236, 426.500, 430.010, 430.021, 430.256, 430.357, 430.560 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.520, 426.060, 426.140, 430.010, 430.254, 430.335, 430.590, 430.620 & 430.637
- BHS 11-2018, amend filed 05/10/2018, effective 05/10/2018
- MHS 15-2017, temporary amend filed 12/01/2017, effective 12/01/2017 through 05/29/2018
- MHS 4-2017, f. 5-23-17, cert. ef. 6-1-17
- MHS 30-2016(Temp), f. 12-30-16, cert. ef. 1-1-17 thru 6-29-17
- MHS 16-2016, f. 11-28-16, cert. ef. 11-30-16
- MHS 6-2016(Temp), f. 6-28-16, cert. ef. 7-1-16 thru 12-27-16
Or. Admin. R. 309-008-1200 Informal Conference
(1) When the Division issues an Order of Suspension, a notice of intent to revoke, notice of intent to deny an application or notice of refusal to renew the certificate to an applicant or provider pursuant to these rules, the Division shall offer the applicant or provider an opportunity for an informal conference. The applicant or provider shall make its request for an informal conference in writing within 14 calendar days of the issuance of the notice of intent and within 14 calendar days of an Order of Suspension. Upon receipt of a timely written request, the Division shall select a location and time for such a conference.
(2) Following the conference, the Division may:
(a) Withdraw or amend the notice of intent or suspension order; or
(b) Choose not to withdraw the notice of intent or suspension order.
(3) The Division shall provide written notice of its decision under section (2) of this rule within 14 calendar days of the informal conference.
(4) Informal conferences regarding conditions are not described in this rule and instead are described in OAR 309-008-0905.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 179.505, ORS 413.042, 413.032-413.033, 426.072, 426.236, 426.500, 430.010, 430.021, 430.256, 430.357, 430.560, 430.640, 430.870 & ORS 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.520, 426.060, 426.140, 430.010, 430.254, 430.335, 430.590, 430.620 & 430.637
- BHS 11-2018, amend filed 05/10/2018, effective 05/10/2018
- MHS 15-2017, temporary amend filed 12/01/2017, effective 12/01/2017 through 05/29/2018
- MHS 4-2017, f. 5-23-17, cert. ef. 6-1-17
- MHS 30-2016(Temp), f. 12-30-16, cert. ef. 1-1-17 thru 6-29-17
- MHS 16-2016, f. 11-28-16, cert. ef. 11-30-16
- MHS 6-2016(Temp), f. 6-28-16, cert. ef. 7-1-16 thru 12-27-16
Or. Admin. R. 309-008-1300 Hearings
(1) An applicant or provider who issued a notice of intent to revoke, impose conditions, or refuse to renew its certificate under these rules shall be entitled to request a hearing in accordance with ORS Chapter 183.
(2) When the Division orders the imposition of a condition or orders immediate suspension of a certificate under the provisions of this rule, the provider shall be entitled to request a hearing in accordance with ORS Chapter 183.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 179.505, ORS 413.042, 413.032-413.033, 426.072, 426.236, 426.500, 430.010, 430.021, 430.256, 430.357, 430.560, 430.640, 430.870 & 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.520, 426.060, 426.140, 430.010, 430.254, 430.335, 430.590, 430.620 & 430.637
- BHS 11-2018, amend filed 05/10/2018, effective 05/10/2018
- MHS 15-2017, temporary amend filed 12/01/2017, effective 12/01/2017 through 05/29/2018
- MHS 4-2017, f. 5-23-17, cert. ef. 6-1-17
- MHS 30-2016(Temp), f. 12-30-16, cert. ef. 1-1-17 thru 6-29-17
- MHS 16-2016, f. 11-28-16, cert. ef. 11-30-16
- MHS 6-2016(Temp), f. 6-28-16, cert. ef. 7-1-16 thru 12-27-16
Or. Admin. R. 309-008-1400 Information to CCOs and Other Health Plans
(1) Upon completion of the site review process and the issuance of a certificate, the Division will make copies of the following information available to Coordinated Care Organizations and other health plans for the purpose of credentialing a provider:
(a) A current program description that reflects the type and scope of behavioral health treatment services provided by the provider;
(b) Provider policies and procedures regarding the provider’s credentialing practices of individual clinicians;
(c) Statements of provider’s liability insurance coverage;
(d) An attestation from the Division verifying that the provider has passed a screening and meets the minimum requirements to be a Medicaid provider, where applicable;
(e) Reports detailing the findings of the Division’s certification review of the provider;
(f) The provider’s Medicaid Vendor Identification Number issued by the Division, where applicable;
(g) Copies of the provider’s policies and procedures regarding seclusion and restraint practices; and
(h) Copies of the provider’s Code of Conduct.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390, 161.392, 179.040, 179.505, 413.042, 413.032-413.033, 426.072, 426.175, 426.236, 426.500, 430.010, 430.021, 430.256, 430.357, 430.560, 430.640, 430.870, 743A.168 & 743.556.
- Statutes/Other Implemented: 413.520, 426.060, 426.140, 430.010, 430.254, 430.335, 430.590, 430.620, 430.637, 813.021 & 813.260.
- MHS 16-2016, f. 11-28-16, cert. ef. 11-30-16
- MHS 6-2016(Temp), f. 6-28-16, cert. ef. 7-1-16 thru 12-27-16
Or. Admin. R. 309-008-1500 Complaints
(1) Any individual may file a complaint with the Division concerning a provider holding a certificate under these rules. The Division may require the complainant to exhaust grievance procedures available through the provider and, if applicable, the Medicaid payer, prior to initiating an investigation.
(2) The Division shall only investigate a complaint concerning a provider falling within the Division’s scope and regulatory authority:
(a) The Division shall investigate and respond to a complaint pursuant to Division policies and procedures;
(b) The Division shall refer the complainant to the appropriate entity if the complaint pertains to a provider falling outside the Division’s scope or regulatory authority or otherwise regulated by another state or local entity.
(3) Consequences of a substantiated complaint related to the health, safety or welfare of an individual or the public may result in the suspension, revocation, denial or nonrenewal of an applicant or provider’s application or certificate.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 179.505, ORS 413.042, 413.032-413.033, 426.072, 426.175, 426.236, 426.500, 430.010, 430.021, 430.256, 430.357, 430.560, 430.640, 430.870, ORS 743A.168 & 743.556
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.520, 426.060, 426.140, 430.010, 430.254, 430.335, 430.590, 430.620 & 430.637
- BHS 11-2018, amend filed 05/10/2018, effective 05/10/2018
- MHS 15-2017, temporary amend filed 12/01/2017, effective 12/01/2017 through 05/29/2018
- MHS 16-2016, f. 11-28-16, cert. ef. 11-30-16
- MHS 6-2016(Temp), f. 6-28-16, cert. ef. 7-1-16 thru 12-27-16
Or. Admin. R. 309-008-1600 Variance
(1) An applicant or provider may request a variance to these rules, applicable service delivery rules, or other applicable regulations.
(2) The applicant or provider must submit the variance request directly to the Division along with the application documents submitted to the Division. The variance request must include:
(a) A description and applicable details of the variance requested, including the applicable section of the rule for which the variance is sought;
(b) The rationale and necessity for the requested variance;
(c) The alternative practice proposed, where relevant; and
(d) The proposed duration of the variance, including a plan and timetable for compliance with the rule exempted or adjusted by the variance.
(3) The Director, whose decision is final, shall approve or deny the variance request and include an expiration date for the variance not to exceed the length of the provider’s current certificate.
(4) A variance granted by the Division becomes part of the certificate. Continuance of the variance will not be automatic and will be reconsidered at the expiration of the variance or when the certification is being considered for renewal, whichever comes first.
(5) Requesting renewal of a variance in advance of current variance expiration is the responsibility of each provider.
(6) Failure by the provider to implement approved alternative practices or otherwise demonstrate noncompliance with an approved variance may result in the Division withdrawing approval for a variance.
(7) Failure by the provider to implement approved alternative practices or otherwise demonstrate noncompliance with an approved variance such that the health or safety of individuals is jeopardized to the degree that cessation of services by the provider is considered necessary to prevent harm to the individual may result in the Division taking action on the certificate pursuant to OAR 309-008-1100.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 179.505, ORS 413.042, 413.032-413.033, 426.072, 426.175, 426.236, 426.500, 430.010, 430.021, 430.256, 430.357, 430.560, 430.640, 430.870, ORS 743A.168 & 743.556
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.520, 426.060, 426.140, 430.010, 430.254, 430.335, 430.590, 430.620 & 430.637
- BHS 11-2018, amend filed 05/10/2018, effective 05/10/2018
- MHS 15-2017, temporary amend filed 12/01/2017, effective 12/01/2017 through 05/29/2018
- MHS 16-2016, f. 11-28-16, cert. ef. 11-30-16
- MHS 6-2016(Temp), f. 6-28-16, cert. ef. 7-1-16 thru 12-27-16
Division 9 CERTIFIED COMMUNITY BEHAVIORAL HEALTH CLINIC (CCBHC) PROGRAM
Or. Admin. R. 309-009-0000 Purpose and Scope
(1) These rules establish the Certified Community Behavioral Health Clinics (CCBHC) and define the criteria and process that the Authority must use to recognize, verify status, and certify provider organizations as CCBHCs. These rules specify the standards for the CCBHC application and certification process.
(2) In addition to meeting all state and federal criteria outlined in Chapter 309 Division 009 and the “Oregon Certified Community Behavioral Health Clinic (CCBHC) Program Requirements Manual - Version 1”, only organizations certified under OAR 309-008-0100 to 309-008-1600 (Standards for Certification of Behavioral Health Treatment Services) for the following certifications may become certified:
(a) Outpatient mental health (Chapter 309 Division 019),
(b) ASAM 0.5 (OAR 309-019-0181),
(c) ASAM 1 (OAR 309-019-0182);
(d) ASAM 2.1 (OAR 309-019-0183;
(e) If directly providing mobile crisis services, Mobile Crisis Intervention Services and Crisis Stabilization Services (Chapter 309 Division 072).
(3) The “Oregon Certified Community Behavioral Health Clinic (CCBHC) Program Requirements Manual- Version 1” should be used as the primary source outlining CCBHC requirements and duties. Should there be a perceived conflict between rules and manual, CCBHCs and applicants should defer to “Oregon Certified Community Behavioral Health Clinic (CCBHC) Program Requirements Manual - Version 1”.
[ED. NOTE: To view attachments referenced in rule text, click here to view rule.]
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & HB 4002 (2024)
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.042
- BHS 22-2025, amend filed 09/30/2025, effective 10/01/2025
- OHP 10-2018, renumbered from 409-062-0000, filed 08/01/2018, effective 08/01/2018
- OHP 14-2016, f. & cert. ef. 9-26-16
- OHP 7-2016(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 4-22-16 thru 10-18-16
Or. Admin. R. 309-009-0010 Definitions
The following definitions apply to Oregon Administrative Rules (OAR) 309-009-0000 to 309-009-0060:
(1) “Access facility” means an outpatient setting owned and operated by a CCBHC and subject to approval by the Authority that provides low barrier services that facilitate engagement and access to care within the scope of CCBHC. Access facilities offer unscheduled, voluntary services.
(2) “Applicant” means any provider with an existing certificate listed in OAR 309-008-0100(2) to provide behavioral health treatment services or any person, organizational provider, tribal organization, or Community Mental Health Program seeking initial certification listed in OAR 309-008-0100(2) by submitting an application to provide behavioral health treatment services.
(3) “Authority” means the Oregon Health Authority.
(4) “Certification” means the process which the Authority uses to determine if an applicant has met the criteria in OAR chapter 309 division 009 and in the document titled “Oregon Certified Community Behavioral Health Clinic (CCBHC) Program Requirements Manual - Version 1” found on the Oregon CCBHC website.”
(5) “Certified Community Behavioral Health Clinic” means an organizational provider that the Authority has affirmed substantially meets the federal and Oregon CCBHC standards as outlined in “Oregon Certified Community Behavioral Health Clinic (CCBHC) Program Requirements Manual- Version 1” and these rules, OAR chapter 309 division 009.
(6) “Designated Collaborating Organization (DCO)” means an entity that is not under the direct supervision of the CCBHC but is engaged in formal Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) to deliver one or more of the required services.
(7) “Full application” means the formal application provided by the Authority to verify provider organizations meet all of the requirements to be a CCHBC.
(8) “Organizational provider” means an organization that provides mental health treatment or chemical dependency treatment and is not a coordinated care organization.
(9) Oregon CCBHC website” means http://www.oregon.gov/oha/HPA/CSI-BHP/Pages/Community-BH-Clinics.aspx.
(10) “Preliminary application” means a limited review of prerequisites to meet CCBHC certification requirements intended to determine if an organizational provider is ready to apply for CCBHC certification.
(11) “Qualified Satellite facility” means a facility that was established by the CCBHC, operates under the governance and financial control of that CCBHC, and provides the following services: crisis services, except mobile crisis; screening, diagnosis, and risk assessment; service planning; and outpatient mental health and substance use services.
(12) “Service area” means the county in which applicant’s or CCBHC’s main organizational provider site is located.
(13) “Site Improvement Plan (SIP)” means a written plan using the provided template on the CCBHC website addressing deficiencies to CCBHC requirements.
(14) “Verification” means the process that the Authority shall conduct to ensure that an organizational provider has submitted accurate information to the Authority for purposes of CCBHC certification.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & HB 4002 (2024)
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.042
- BHS 22-2025, amend filed 09/30/2025, effective 10/01/2025
- OHP 10-2018, renumbered from 409-062-0010, filed 08/01/2018, effective 08/01/2018
- OHP 14-2016, f. & cert. ef. 9-26-16
- OHP 7-2016(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 4-22-16 thru 10-18-16
Or. Admin. R. 309-009-0020 Program Certified Community Behavioral Health Clinic (CCBHC) Administration
(1) Oregon Health Authority (Authority) must develop and implement a uniform application and process for certifying CCBHCs throughout the state of Oregon.
(2) The Authority must recognize provider organizations as certified CCBHCs upon meeting criteria set forth in Oregon Administrative Rules (OAR) 309-009-0040.
(3) The Authority must administer CCBHC program requirements, including:
(a) Data collection and analysis;
(b) Verification that a provider organization meets the defined CCBHC criteria outlined in OAR 309-009-0040, including requirements outlined in “Oregon Certified Community Behavioral Health Clinic (CCBHC) Program Requirements Manual- Version 1”; and
(c) Technical assistance.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & HB 4002 (2024)
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.042
- BHS 22-2025, amend filed 09/30/2025, effective 10/01/2025
- OHP 10-2018, renumbered from 409-062-0020, filed 08/01/2018, effective 08/01/2018
- OHP 14-2016, f. & cert. ef. 9-26-16
- OHP 7-2016(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 4-22-16 thru 10-18-16
Or. Admin. R. 309-009-0030 Application and Certification Process
(1) An applicant seeking initial certification, certification renewal, or changes to existing certification must submit a completed Oregon Health Authority (Authority) designated application to the Authority.
(a) Applicants seeking initial certification must attend orientation prior to submitting application.
(b) Applicants seeking certification renewal or changes to existing certification must submit application 90 days prior to the desired effective date and must receive approval via certification prior to the change being implemented. Changes to certification include:
(A) Changing the scope of services provided at any certified CCBHC facility location, including access facilities and qualified satellite facilities;
(B) Changes to Designated Collaborating Organizations (DCO);
(C) Relocating a certified CCBHC facility location; or
(D) Adding or removing a facility location from the current CCBHC certification, including satellite facilities and/or access facilities.
(2) A qualified satellite facility is a facility owned and operated by a CCBHC that does not provide all required CCBHC services but at minimum:
(a) Provides the following CCBHC services:
(A) Crisis services, except mobile crisis;
(B) Screening, diagnosis, and risk assessment;
(C) Service planning; and
(D) Outpatient mental health and substance use services;
(b) Ensures individuals receiving services at satellite facilities have access to all CCBHC services not provided at the facility.
(c) The satellite facility location is within the service area of the CCBHC and appropriately certified and/or licensed for the services provided there.
(3) A CCBHC access facility is an outpatient setting owned and operated by a CCBHC and subject to approval by the Authority that provides low barrier services that facilitate engagement and access to care within the scope of CCBHC. Access facilities offer unscheduled, voluntary services and are differentiated from CCBHC satellite facilities which must provide a set of required services. Access facilities must:
(a) Ensure individuals receiving services at the access facility have access to all CCBHC services not provided at the facility; and
(b) Be within the service area of the CCBHC and be appropriately certified and/or licensed for the services provided there.
(4) An applicant with multiple facility locations under the same management must have each facility approved for CCBHC certification. Each facility location is independently considered for CCBHC certification. An applicant must submit documentation with the application sufficient for the Authority to evaluate each facility location. A separate application for each facility location is not required as long as the provider structure, including but not limited to policies and procedures, governs all locations.
(5) For initial certification, applicants must complete the following:
(a) Verification and attendance at a Certified Community Behavioral Health Clinic (CCBHC) orientation hosted by the Authority;
(b) Complete and submit the preliminary application provided by the Authority:
(A) If not already certified in one of the following certifications, the applicant must first submit an application following chapter 309 division 008 rules. CCBHC certification is contingent on approval of the following certifications:
(i) Outpatient mental health (chapter 309 division 019)
(ii) ASAM 0.5 (OAR 309-019-0181)
(iii) ASAM 1 (OAR 309-019-0182)
(iv) ASAM 2.1 (OAR 309-019-0183)
(v) If directly providing mobile crisis services, Mobile Crisis Intervention Services and Crisis Stabilization Services (chapter 309 division 072)
(B) Community needs assessment plan
(C) If applicant intends to partner with a Designated Collaborating Organization (DCO):
(i) Draft or finalized Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) with each DCO; and
(ii) Documentation of each DCO’s applicable certifications and Medicaid provider enrollments authorizing the DCO to provide the services outlined in the MOU
(D) Applicants who are not Community Mental Health Programs (CMHP) must submit:
(i) Documentation of outreach to CMHP within service area notifying the CMHP of intent to apply for CCBHC; or
(ii) Draft or finalized written agreement meeting requirements outlined in the “CMHP-CCBHC Written Agreement Guidance” found on the CCBHC website between applicant and CMHP.
(6) The Authority shall review the preliminary application within 30 days of its submission to determine whether it is accurate, complete, and meets the certified requirements.
(a) If the application is found not complete and/or does not demonstrate compliance, the Authority shall provide written notice of the incomplete or noncompliant application describing any necessary amendments to the application. The applicant must submit an amended application to the Authority within 14 calendar days of receipt of the Authority’s notice
(b) If the Authority determines the applicant has met the requirements of these rules, the Authority shall inform the applicant in writing that the preliminary application has been approved as a potential CCBHC, send a full application form to be completed and submitted by the applicant, and send information regarding site visit planning.
(7) Initial applicants and applicants applying for recertification must complete a full application form provided by the Authority:
(a) Complete full application form for all required certifications outlined in OAR 309-009-0000(2)
(A) Applicants that are not a community mental health program (CMHP) must submit a finalized written agreement between the applicant and CMHP, meeting the requirements outlined in the “CMHP-CCBHC Written Agreement Guidance,” found on the CCBHC website.
(i) If the non-CMHP and CMHP are unable to reach a mutual agreement on the coordination of services, either entity is permitted to request a meeting with the Authority;
(ii) For recertification, agreement need only be submitted if changes are made to the agreement since last submission
(B) Community needs assessment and staffing plan
(C) Supporting documents as required by the Authority
(b) Complete a site visit
(c) If required by the Authority, complete a Site Improvement Plan
(8) The Authority may deny CCBHC certification if an applicant does not meet the requirements of these rules, including the requirements outlined in “Oregon Certified Community Behavioral Health Clinic (CCBHC) Program Requirements Manual- Version 1”. A practice may request that the Authority reconsider the denial of CCBHC certification
(9) An applicant may request that the Authority reconsider the denial of CCBHC certification:
(a) A request for reconsideration must be submitted in writing to the Authority within 30 days of the date of the denial or approval letter and must include a detailed explanation of why the practice believes the Authority’s decision is in error along with any supporting documentation.
(b) The Authority shall inform the practice in writing whether it has reconsidered its decision.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & HB 4002 (2024)
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.042
- BHS 22-2025, amend filed 09/30/2025, effective 10/01/2025
- OHP 10-2018, renumbered from 409-062-0030, filed 08/01/2018, effective 08/01/2018
- OHP 14-2016, f. & cert. ef. 9-26-16
- OHP 7-2016(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 4-22-16 thru 10-18-16
Or. Admin. R. 309-009-0040 Certification Criteria
An applicant seeking Certified Community Behavioral Health Clinic (CCBHC) certification must meet the following criteria:
(1) CCBHCs must conform to at least one of the following criteria for organizational authority:
(a) Is a non-profit organization exempt from tax under Section 501(c)(3) of the United States Internal Revenue Code
(b) Is part of a local government behavioral health authority. An applicant is considered part of a local government behavioral health authority when a locality, county, region, or state maintains authority to oversee behavioral health services at the local level and utilizes the clinic to provide those services;
(c) Is operated under the authority of the Indian Health Service, an Indian tribe, or tribal organization pursuant to a contract, grant, cooperative agreement, or compact with the Indian Health Service pursuant to the Indian Self-Determination Act (25 U.S.C. 450 et seq.); or
(d) Is an urban Indian organization pursuant to a grant or contract with the Indian Health Services, under Title V of the Indian Health Care Improvement Act (25 U.S.C 1601 et seq.)
(2) Meet designation requirements for “Ready to Certify” or “Mostly ready to certify, with assistance” as defined in OAR 309-009-0050,
(3) Meet state criteria stated in the document titled “Oregon CCBHC Program Requirements Manual - Version 1” located on the CCBHC website;
(4) Hold certifications as outlined in Oregon Administrative Rules (OAR) 309-009-0000(2);
(5) Provide directly or through designated collaborating organization, all required services:
(a) 24-hour crisis behavioral health services, including mobile crisis outreach;
(b) Screening, assessment, and diagnosis;
(c) Person-centered and family-centered treatment planning;
(d) Outpatient mental health and substance use disorder services;
(e) Primary care screening and monitoring;
(f) Targeted case management;
(g) Psychiatric rehabilitation services;
(h) Peer and family support services; and
(i) Intensive, community-based mental health care for members of the armed forces and veterans;
(6) Agree to site visit and follow up activities with the CCBHC site review team.
(7) Applicants that are not a community mental health program (CMHP) must submit a finalized written agreement between the applicant and CMHP, meeting the requirements outlined in the “CMHP-CCBHC Written Agreement Guidance,” found on the CCBHC website. If the non-CMHP and CMHP are unable to reach a mutual agreement on the coordination of services, either entity is permitted to request a meeting with the Authority.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & HB 4002 (2024)
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.042
- BHS 22-2025, amend filed 09/30/2025, effective 10/01/2025
- OHP 10-2018, renumbered from 409-062-0040, filed 08/01/2018, effective 08/01/2018
- OHP 14-2016, f. & cert. ef. 9-26-16
- OHP 7-2016(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 4-22-16 thru 10-18-16
Or. Admin. R. 309-009-0050 Level of Readiness
(1) The Authority must review CCBHC criteria using a level of readiness tool to specify a level of readiness designation as follows:
(a) Ready to certify: Demonstrates substantial conformance to the criteria, current operation has capacity to be maintained and/or improved, demonstrates ongoing quality improvement. May require a Site Improvement Plan (SIP) for only a few criteria.
(b) Mostly ready to certify, with assistance: Demonstrates conformance to many of the standards, has significant areas for improvement but evidence of the organization's capability to improve and commitment to progress. Requires a SIP for multiple criteria to achieve compliance.
(2) Not ready to certify: Does not demonstrate sufficient conformance.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & HB 4002 (2024)
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.042
- BHS 22-2025, amend filed 09/30/2025, effective 10/01/2025
- OHP 10-2018, renumbered from 409-062-0050, filed 08/01/2018, effective 08/01/2018
- OHP 14-2016, f. & cert. ef. 9-26-16
- OHP 7-2016(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 4-22-16 thru 10-18-16
Or. Admin. R. 309-009-0055 Types of Certifications
Based on level of readiness designation, Certified Community Behavioral Health Clinics (CCBHC) will receive the following certification types:
(1) Full certification is given when CCBHC receives level of readiness designation of “ready to certify”. Full certification is effective for 3 years.
(a) Prior to certification, the CCBHC will have 30 calendar days to submit a Site Improvement Plan (SIP) to address areas of deficiency. The SIP must include a plan to achieve compliance which must not to exceed a duration of 3 years.
(A) When access or care to persons served is a serious issue, the CCBHC site may be given a much shorter period to initiate SIPs, and this condition may be established, in writing, as part of the Authority findings
(B) If the Authority identifies an issue that places a person served in imminent risk to health or safety, the Authority may require immediate response based on risk.
(b) The Authority will review the SIP, seek clarifying or additional information from the CCBHC site as needed, and issue a response within 30 calendar days of receipt.
(c) The Authority will take steps to monitor the CCBHC site’s implementation of the SIP as part of performance monitoring, including but not limited to annual check-ins over a 3-year period.
(2) Provisional certification is given when the CCBHC receives a level of readiness designation of “mostly meets, needs support”. Provisional certification is effective for 1 year.
(a) Prior to certification, the CCBHC will have 30 calendar days to submit a Site Improvement Plan (SIP) to address areas of deficiency. The SIP must include a plan to achieve compliance which must not to exceed a duration of 12 months.
(A) When access or care to persons served is a serious issue, the CCBHC site may be given a much shorter period to initiate SIPs, and this condition may be established, in writing, as part of the Authority findings
(B) If the Authority identifies an issue that places a person served in imminent risk to health or safety, the Authority may require immediate response based on risk.
(b) The Authority will review the SIP, seek clarifying or additional information from the CCBHC site as needed, and issue a response within 30 calendar days of receipt.
(c) The Authority will take steps to monitor the CCBHC site’s implementation of the SIP as part of performance monitoring, including but not limited to conducting quarterly check-ins over 12 months.
(d) Following 12 months, if the CCBHC site still fails to meet requirements for full certification, provisional certification will continue for an additional six (6) months of monitoring with quarterly check-ins required;
(e) If deficiencies are resolved, and full certification criteria has been met by the CCBHC at the conclusion of the SIP process, the CCBHC is given full certification.
(3) CCBHCs with full certification must submit a recertification application to the Authority in conjunction with their Chapter 309 Division 008 certifications.
(4) The Authority will use the level of readiness tool to review each application and verify CCBHC certification.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & HB 4002 (2024)
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.042
- BHS 22-2025, adopt filed 09/30/2025, effective 10/01/2025
Or. Admin. R. 309-009-0060 Variances
(1) The Authority may grant a variance to a CCBHC applicant or provider if:
(a) There is a lack of resources to meet the criteria required in these rules; or
(b) Implementation of the proposed alternative services, methods, concepts or procedures would result of in improved outcomes for the individual.
(2) CCBHC applicants must submit the variance request directly to the Authority using the approved “Application for Continued Variance” form.
(3) The authority must approve or deny the request for a variance and must notify the provider in writing of the decision to approve or deny the requested variance.
(4) Granting a variance for one request does not set a precedent that must be followed by the Authority when evaluating subsequent requests for variance. Variances are only approved for a specified duration of time as established in the variance approval.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & HB 4002 (2024)
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.042
- BHS 22-2025, amend filed 09/30/2025, effective 10/01/2025
- OHP 10-2018, renumbered from 409-062-0060, filed 08/01/2018, effective 08/01/2018
- OHP 14-2016, f. & cert. ef. 9-26-16
- OHP 7-2016(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 4-22-16 thru 10-18-16
Division 11 ADMINISTRATIVE PRACTICES
Or. Admin. R. 309-011-0024 Purpose and Scope
The purpose of these rules is to implement ORS 430.073, related to the Oregon Health Authority’s Oregon Consumer Advisory Council (OCAC). The scope of these rules is limited strictly to the OCAC, and will clarify OCAC’s purpose, scope, membership, roles, and responsibilities, and those of the Oregon Health Authority.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 430.073
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.073
- BHS 16-2024, amend filed 06/27/2024, effective 07/01/2024
- MHS 25-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-27-16
- MHS 17-2012, f. & cert. ef. 12-28-12
Or. Admin. R. 309-011-0026 Definitions
(1) “Administrative Support” means the tasks provided by the Oregon Health Authority, which are detailed in OAR 309-011-0230(b) below.
(2) “Advise” means to recommend, suggest, or inform.
(3) “OCAC” means the Consumer Advisory Council authorized by ORS 430.073 and comprised of consumers appointed by the Director.
(4) “Consumer” means a person who is receiving, or has received services for a mental health condition, substance use disorder, or problem gambling disorder; or identifies as having lived experience with a mental health condition, substance use disorder, process addictions or problem gambling disorder; or is currently or formerly the parent or caregiver of a similarly qualifying youth (up to age 25).
(5) “Director” means the Director of the Oregon Health Authority.
(6) Director’s Designee means the OHA staff member with delegated authority from the Director as liaison to the OCAC.
(7) “Majority Vote” means a decision agreed upon by the majority of appointed council members.
(8) “Oregon Health Authority Representative” means the individual(s) identified by Oregon Health Authority to provide administrative support to the OCAC.
(9) “Present” in relation to meetings means being physically present, or connected to the meeting process via conference call, tele-conference, audio, or video connection.
(10) “Public Meeting” means those meetings open to the public and governed by ORS 192.610 through 192.690.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 430.073
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.073
- BHS 16-2024, amend filed 06/27/2024, effective 07/01/2024
- MHS 25-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-27-16
- MHS 17-2012, f. & cert. ef. 12-28-12
Or. Admin. R. 309-011-0028 CAC Roles
(1) The role of OCAC is to provide the Oregon Health Authority feedback and recommendations from the independent, consumer and community voices of People with Lived and Living Experience, through recommendations on the provision of Behavioral Health services under the scope of the Oregon Health Authority.
(2) OCAC shall work cooperatively with the Director’s Designee or other designated OHA representatives to provide feedback and recommendations on the provision of Behavioral Health services.
(3) OCAC shall adhere to public meeting laws.
(4) OCAC may develop a vision statement and goals, in alignment with ORS 430.073.
(5) Once per year, OCAC shall, in consultation with the OHA Representative, develop and adopt a work plan for the ensuing twelve months.
(6) OCAC may establish committees to investigate specific areas of interest related to Behavioral Health services.
(7) OCAC shall not establish OHA policies, rules, internal directives, or procedures.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 430.073
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.073
- BHS 16-2024, amend filed 06/27/2024, effective 07/01/2024
- MHS 25-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-27-16
- MHS 17-2012, f. & cert. ef. 12-28-12
Or. Admin. R. 309-011-0031 CAC Responsibilities
(1) OCAC shall have a full council meeting at least once every two months.
(2) A meeting may continue without a quorum participating, but authorities granted to OCAC may not be exercised without a quorum.
(3) Recommendations to Oregon Health Authority shall be provided in writing when OCAC has a recommendation accepted by a majority of the council.
(4) Recommendations to the Oregon Health Authority shall be signed and dated by the chairs or vice-chairs.
(5) OCAC in collaboration with the OHA Representative may determine the procedures related to conducting OCAC business.
(6) OCAC shall provide guidance and mentorship to new members.
(7) OCAC shall adhere to the Oregon Health Authority’s equity statement.
(8) OCAC shall adhere to the Oregon Health Authority’s workplace policies and codes of conduct.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 430.073
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.073
- BHS 16-2024, amend filed 06/27/2024, effective 07/01/2024
- MHS 25-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-27-16
- MHS 17-2012, f. & cert. ef. 12-28-12
Or. Admin. R. 309-011-0032 Memberships: Selection and Terms
(1) Members shall be appointed by the OHA Director or their designee after considering OCAC recommendations and shall be appointed for a three-year term following a written acceptance of the offer.
(2) OCAC shall consist of between 15 and 25 consumers or People with Lived and Living Experience, and selection shall strive to represent:
(a) Members with Lived and Living experience of representing the family voice.
(b) Youth in transition (ages 16 to 25)
(c) Adults ages 55 and older
(d) A variety of cultures and ethnicities;
(e) Diverse gender identity;
(f) A balance of geographic areas within the state, and
(g) Members with lived and living experience of a variety of behavioral health experiences.
(3) Members may be reappointed for one additional three-year term. An OCAC member may submit an application for review, and OHA may appoint.
(4) No person shall be excluded from serving as a member of OCAC due to affiliation with any organization or institution, or based on race, ethnic origin, religious affiliation, gender, age, disability, or sexual orientation.
(5) Only the Director or their designee may remove a person from OCAC.
(6) Members of OCAC are entitled to compensation and travel expenses as permitted under ORS 292.495 and 430.073(7).
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 430.073
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.073
- BHS 16-2024, amend filed 06/27/2024, effective 07/01/2024
- MHS 25-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-27-16
- MHS 17-2012, f. & cert. ef. 12-28-12
Or. Admin. R. 309-011-0034 Chair and Vice-Chair: Election and Duties
(1) The OCAC shall elect, by a majority vote, one of its members as chair and one as vice-chair, to serve for a two year term each, with the possibility of re-election for one additional consecutive term. The role of chair or vice-chair may be shared by two members, acting as co-chairs or co vice-chairs.
(2) The chair shall have the powers and duties necessary for the performance of the office. These duties shall include, but not be limited to the following:
(a) Facilitation of OCAC meetings;
(b) Ensuring that the content of OCAC meetings remains within the boundaries of its scope, purpose and authorities;
(c) Identifying meeting agenda items, in collaboration with the OHA representative;
(d) Calling special meetings
(e) Signing documents from OCAC as may be required by these rules;
(f) Making membership recommendations, in collaboration with OCAC, the OHA representative, and a 7 person committee of independent consumers and people with lived and living experience in behavioral health services., as defined in ORS 430.073; and
(g) With approval from the OHA Representative, the Chair may represent OCAC by responding to requests for information or participation pertaining to OCAC.
(3) The vice-chair or co-vice-chairs shall be responsible for the chair’s or co-chair’s duties in their absence.
(4) Early termination or resignation of a chair or vice-chair’s position shall be filled by a majority vote, to serve a two-year term.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 430.073
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.073
- BHS 16-2024, amend filed 06/27/2024, effective 07/01/2024
- MHS 25-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-27-16
- MHS 17-2012, f. & cert. ef. 12-28-12
Or. Admin. R. 309-011-0036 OHA Responsibilities
(1) OHA may provide the following to OCAC members:
(2) OHA’s mission, vision, goals, roles and scope of business.
(3) Lobbying restriction information;
(4) Conflict of interest information;
(5) Public meeting law information;
(6) These administrative rules; and
(7) Other administrative rules, OHA policies and procedures, internal management directives, and state and federal laws related to topics OCAC is considering as part of a recommendation to the Director’s Designee.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 430.073
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.073
- BHS 16-2024, amend filed 06/27/2024, effective 07/01/2024
- MHS 25-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-27-16
- MHS 17-2012, f. & cert. ef. 12-28-12
Or. Admin. R. 309-011-0040 Purpose and Statutory Authority
(1) Purpose. These rules describe the organization and responsibilities of the Mental Health Advisory Board.
(2) Statutory Authority. These rules are authorized by ORS 413.042 and carry out the provisions of ORS 430.050.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.050
- MHD 3-1990, f. 4-26-90, cert. ef. 4-30-90
- MHD 6-1982, f. & ef. 3-23-82
Or. Admin. R. 309-011-0045 Definitions
As used in these rules:
(1) “Administrator” means the Assistant Director of the Addictions and Mental Health Division, Oregon Health Authority.
(2) “Consumer” means a person receiving or eligible to receive services under rules of the Division.
(3) “Division” means the Addictions and Mental Health Division of the Oregon Health Authority.
(4) “Mental Health Advisory Board” means a board appointed by the Administrator and approved by the Governor to study the problems of persons with mental illness or developmental disabilities, assist in planning, and make recommendations to the Administrator for the development of policies and procedures with respect to the state mental health services, and developmental disabilities services programs.
(5) “Disabled Person” means any person who:
(a) Has a physical or mental impairment which substantially limits one or more major life activities;
(b) Has a record of such an impairment; or
(c) Is regarded as having such an impairment.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 430.050
- Statutes/Other Implemented: 430.050
- MHD 4-1995, f. 5-31-95, cert. ef. 6-1-95
- MHD 3-1990, f. 4-26-90, cert. ef. 4-30-90
- MHD 6-1982, f. & ef. 3-23-82
Or. Admin. R. 309-011-0050 Organization
(1) The Mental Health Advisory Board shall be composed of at least 15 but not more than 20 lay and professionally trained individuals.
(2) The Administrator, with the approval of the Governor, shall appoint the board members.
(3) Board members shall provide a balanced representation of program areas and populations served, and shall reflect the diverse ethnic, age and disability characteristics of consumers of services provided in Division programs.
(4) At least two members of the Board shall be disabled persons, one of whom is a consumer of mental health services and one of whom is a consumer of developmental disability services. Two additional members of the Board shall be consumers or family members of consumers.
(5) Members of the board shall serve for terms of four years expiring on the last day of odd numbered years.
(6) Members are entitled to compensation and expenses as provided in ORS 292.495.
(7) The Administrator may remove any member of the board for misconduct, incapacity or neglect of duty. Any member who is absent from three consecutive meetings of the Board may be removed, at the Administrator’s discretion.
(8) The Administrator may make provision for technical and clerical assistance to the Mental Health Advisory Board and for the expense of such assistance.
(9) The board shall meet at least twice each year.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 430.050
- Statutes/Other Implemented: 430.050
- MHD 4-1995, f. 5-31-95, cert. ef. 6-1-95
- MHD 3-1990, f. 4-26-90, cert. ef. 4-30-90
- MHD 6-1982, f. & ef. 3-23-82
Or. Admin. R. 309-011-0055 Responsibilities
(1) The board shall assist the Division in planning and preparation of administrative rules for the assumption of responsibility for psychiatric care in state and community hospitals by community mental health programs, in accordance with ORS 430.630.
(2) The board shall study the problems of mental health services, and developmental disabilities services and make recommendations for the development of policies and procedures with respect to these programs.
(3) The board shall review state laws and legislative concepts relative to state mental health services and developmental disabilities services programs.
(4) The board shall review and consider funding of state mental health services, and developmental disabilities services programs and make recommendations.
(5) The board shall advise the Administrator on the relationship of mental health and developmental disability programs to other state, local and private services and make recommendations for collaborative or joint program developments.
(6) The board shall serve as a consulting body to the Administrator.
(7) The board shall encourage public understanding and acceptance of state mental health services, and developmental disabilities services programs.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 430.050
- Statutes/Other Implemented: 430.050 & 430.630
- MHD 3-1990, f. 4-26-90, cert. ef. 4-30-90
- MHD 6-1982, f. & ef. 3-23-82
Or. Admin. R. 309-011-0105 Purpose
(1) The purpose of OAR 309-011-0105 to 309-011-0115 is to establish the standards by which the Health Systems Division approves payments to licensed residential programs funded by the Division for adults diagnosed with mental health disorders.
(2) OAR 309-011-0105 to 309-011-0115 facilitate a system of residential services and supports driven by individual needs promoting recovery and wellness.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 430.210, 413.042 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 443.400 - 443.460 & 443.991
- BHS 3-2019, minor correction filed 03/06/2019, effective 03/06/2019
- BHS 2-2019, amend filed 02/08/2019, effective 02/08/2019
- BHS 20-2018, temporary amend filed 08/13/2018, effective 08/13/2018 through 02/08/2019
- MHS 9-2010, f. 6-30-10, cert. ef. 7-1-10
Or. Admin. R. 309-011-0110 Definitions
(1) "Adult" means an individual 18 years of age or older, or an emancipated minor, conditioned upon the following:
(a) An individual with Medicaid eligibility who is in need of services specific to children, adolescents, or young adults in transition must be considered a child until age 21.
(b) Adults who are between the ages of 18 and 21 who are considered children must have all rights afforded to Adults as specified in these rules.
(2) “Community Mental Health Program (CMHP)” means an entity that is responsible for planning and delivery of services for individuals with substance use disorders or a mental health diagnosis, operated in a specific geographic area of the state under an Intergovernmental Agreement or direct contract with the Division as defined in OAR 309-019-0105.
(3) "Division" means the Health Systems Division of the Oregon Health Authority or designee.
(4) “Occupied” means a specific individual is actively residing in a designated program living space and is receiving services as defined in OAR 410-172-0730.
(5) “Occupancy Rate” means the calculated minimum rate of occupancy in a residential program’s operating budget that reflects the percentage of occupancy needed to meet expenses.
(6) “Operating Budget” means a Division approved budget utilizing Division prescribed forms for setting rates in Residential Programs.
(7) “Population Designation” means any term used to describe an individual in terms of their legal status or other category to include but not limited to those who are civilly committed, admitted voluntarily, or under the jurisdiction of the Psychiatric Security Review Board (PSRB).
(8) “Provider” means the program administrator, individual, or organizational entity licensed by the Division that operates the program and provides services to individuals.
(9) “Residential Program” means all licensed Secure Residential Treatment Facilities, Residential Treatment Facilities, and Residential Treatment Homes funded by the Health Systems Division or its designee to provide services for Adults diagnosed with a mental health disorder.
(10) "Service Plan" means a comprehensive plan for services and supports provided to or coordinated for an individual and their family that is reflective of the comprehensive plan and the intended outcomes of service.
(11) “Services and Supports” means those services defined as habilitation services and psychosocial rehabilitation services under OAR 410-172-0700(1) (2) and 410-172-0710(1)(2).
(12) "Supervision" means a program staff’s observation and monitoring of an individual or oversight of a program staff by the program administrator applicable to the context.
(13) “Vacancy Rate” means the vacancy percentage calculated in a Residential Program’s operating budget that reflects the vacant days available per month without impact on funding.
(14) “Wellness” means an approach to healthcare that emphasizes good physical and mental health, preventing illness, and prolonging life.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.210, 443.400 - 443.460 & 443.991
- BHS 4-2019, minor correction filed 03/06/2019, effective 03/06/2019
- BHS 2-2019, amend filed 02/08/2019, effective 02/08/2019
- BHS 20-2018, temporary amend filed 08/13/2018, effective 08/13/2018 through 02/08/2019
- MHS 9-2010, f. 6-30-10, cert. ef. 7-1-10
Or. Admin. R. 309-011-0115 Provider Compensation
(1) Residential Program providers shall be compensated for services as defined in OAR 410-172-0710 to 410-172-0730.
(2) Individuals absent from a residential program on activities under the supervision of the program staff shall be considered as occupying their designated living space.
(3) The Division may make a Reserved Service Capacity Payment (RSCP) due to:
(a) An individual’s admission to an acute care hospital,
(b) An individual’s admission to a respite facility to avoid re-hospitalization or revocation of a conditional release order,
(c) An Order of Revocation issued by the Psychiatric Security Review Board (PSRB),
(d) An individual awaiting a court proceeding, a PSRB hearing, or for conditional release.
(e) Facilitating a planned transfer from a hospital, another residential setting, jail; or
(f) Temporary displacement due to unforeseen circumstances.
(4) In order to receive such funding, the provider must:
(a) Notify the Division within 48 hours by submitting an (RSCP) Request form via email to: car.amh@state.or.us. Upon receipt of the form, the Division shall review and respond by email within two business days of receiving the request, or as soon as possible thereafter.
(b) Receive final approval from the Division prior to receiving such payment. RSCP approvals are subject to correction or denial upon secondary review by the Division, if the approval is inconsistent with this rule or Division policy.
(c) For payment request, submit a contract amendment request (CAR) and the approved RSCP request form with the Client Status portion completed at the end of each approval period, as noted on the Division’s initial RSCP request response; and
(d) Use policies, procedures, and forms prescribed by the Division for the notification and request for payment.
(5) All Residential Program living spaces funded by the Division shall be available to any consumer approved by the Division without regard to their population designation or County of Responsibility.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.210, 443.400 - 443.460 & 443.991
- BHS 5-2019, minor correction filed 03/07/2019, effective 03/07/2019
- BHS 2-2019, amend filed 02/08/2019, effective 02/08/2019
- BHS 20-2018, temporary amend filed 08/13/2018, effective 08/13/2018 through 02/08/2019
- MHS 9-2010, f. 6-30-10, cert. ef. 7-1-10
Or. Admin. R. 309-011-0120 Purpose
These rules prescribe standards to be implemented by the Addictions and Mental Health (AMH) Division in order to establish the Self-Determination Policy as used in ORS 430.071.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 430.078
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.078
- MHS 17-2012, f. & cert. ef. 12-28-12
- MHS 10-2010, f. & cert. ef. 7-22-10
Or. Admin. R. 309-011-0125 Definitions
As used in these rules:
(1) "Director" means the Director of the Addictions and Mental Health (AMH) Division of the Oregon Health Authority (Authority), or his or her designee.
(2) "Consumer” means a person who has received or is receiving mental health or addiction services.
(3) "Consumer Advisory Council" means the council appointed by the Assistant Director to advise the Division on the provision of mental health services.
(4) "Division" means the Addictions and Mental Health (AMH) Division of the Oregon Health Authority.
(5) “Olmstead v. L.C.” means the 1999 Supreme Court decision under which states are required to place persons with disabilities in community settings rather than in institutions when the State’s treatment professionals have determined that community placement is appropriate, the transfer from institutional care to a less restrictive setting is not opposed by the affected individual and the placement can be reasonably accommodated, taking into account the resources of the State and needs of others with disabilities.
(6) As used in ORS 430.075, these terms have the following meanings:
(a) "Task force" means a group or committee, usually composed of experts or specialists, formed for analyzing, investigating, or solving a specific problem or objective;
(b) "Commission" means a group of individuals that meet on a regular basis, and that are officially authorized to perform certain duties or functions;
(c) "Advisory group" means a collection of individuals who bring unique knowledge and skills, and who are appointed to support a particular service or function, or to investigate, report on, or act upon a particular matter; and
(d) "Committee" means a body of persons that are officially delegated or assigned to consider, investigate, act on, or report on a particular service or function.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 430.078
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.078
- MHS 17-2012, f. & cert. ef. 12-28-12
- MHS 10-2010, f. & cert. ef. 7-22-10
Or. Admin. R. 309-011-0130 Policy
The Addictions and Mental Health (AMH) Division shall adopt a policy that supports and promotes self-determination for persons receiving mental health services. The policy shall be designed to remove barriers that:
(1) Segregate persons with disabilities from full participation in the community in the most integrated setting in accordance with the United States Supreme Court decision in Olmstead v. L.C., 527 U.S. 581 (1999); and
(2) Prevent persons with disabilities from enjoying a meaningful life, the benefits of community involvement and citizen rights guaranteed by law.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 430.078
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.078
- MHS 17-2012, f. & cert. ef. 12-28-12
- MHS 10-2010, f. & cert. ef. 7-22-10
Division 12 ADMINISTRATIVE PRACTICE AND PROCEDURE
Or. Admin. R. 309-012-0025 Procedures for Appeals of Reimbursement Orders
(1) Purpose. This rule prescribes procedures for appeals of Reimbursement Orders issued by the Division.
(2) Statutory Authority and Procedure. This rule is authorized by ORS 179.640, 413.042 & 179.040 and carries out the provisions of ORS 179.610 to 179.770.
(3) Definitions. As used in this rule:
(a) “Administrator” means the Administrator of the Addictions and Mental Health Division;
(b) “Authorized Representative” means those parties named in ORS 305.240, or those parties who are determined to have the authority to represent the person;
(c) “Division” means the Addictions and Mental Health Division of the Oregon Health Authority;
(d) “Hearing” means the hearing authorized by ORS 179.640 for the purpose of review of Reimbursement Orders and modified Reimbursement Orders issued pursuant to ORS 179.640;
(e) “Hearings Officer” means any person designated by the Administrator to hold hearings on matters coming before the Division. Staff of the Reimbursement Section of the Division may not be designated as hearings officers;
(f) “Informal Conference” means a proceeding held before the appeal hearing to allow the person to obtain a review of the action or proposed action without the necessity of a formal hearing;
(g) “Person” means:
(A) A patient who is receiving or has received treatment or care at a state institution for the mentally ill;
(B) A current or former resident at a state institution for the mentally retarded;
(C) The estate of the person;
(D) Any other individual or entity having a financial interest in contesting a Reimbursement Order.
(h) “Reimbursement Order” means the order issued to determine the person’s ability to pay pursuant to ORS 179.640;
(i) “Service” means deposit of a Reimbursement Order by U.S. mail, state mail, or deposit with a state institution for hand delivery;
(j) “State Institution” means Dammasch State Hospital in Wilsonville, Oregon State Hospital in Salem, Fairview Training Center in Salem, and Eastern Oregon Hospital and Training Center in Pendleton.
(4) Authorization for Hearing: A hearing before the Administrator or a Hearings Officer shall be granted to a person who appeals to the Administrator in the following instances:
(a) A person may appeal the Division’s determination or redetermination of the person’s ability to pay the state’s charges for institutional care and maintenance. The appeal must be submitted within 60 days of the service of the Reimbursement Order;
(b) The Division, on or about the time of the person’s discharge, shall determine whether or not any of the funds previously paid by the person or on his or her behalf to the State of Oregon to cover his or her cost of care should be reimbursed to the person to satisfy his or her financial needs upon release, or whether any of the previous Reimbursement Orders for the current hospitalization should be modified. This redetermination may be appealed within 60 days of service.
(5) Request for Hearing:
(a) No particular format for a request for a hearing is required, but, to be considered, each request must be in writing and must specify:
(A) The name and address of the person requesting the hearing;
(B) The action being appealed, including:
(i) The year or years involved;
(ii) A reference to any Division correspondence on the subject known to the person;
(iii) Why the action being appealed is claimed to be incorrect;
(iv) The specific relief requested.
(b) The request for a hearing must be signed by the person or his or her authorized representative;
(c) All requests for hearings shall be filed by mailing or delivering the appeal to the Reimbursement Section, Addictions and Mental Health Division, 500 Summer St. NE, E-86, Salem, OR 97301;
(d) If the request for a hearing is considered insufficient in content by the Division, the Division may require the request to be reasonably supplemented with additional information before any further action is taken on the appeal;
(e) Prior to the time of an appeal hearing, if there is no objection by the person, the Hearings Officer may refer the matter in controversy for an informal conference for settlement or simplification of issues.
(6) Authorization for Informal Conference:
(a) A person who has requested an appeal hearing pursuant to section (5) of this rule may request that he or she have an informal conference with a representative from the Reimbursement Section before the formal appeal hearing. Any request for an informal conference may be granted at the discretion of the Division;
(b) Such conferences are informal. A person may represent himself or herself or may choose someone to act as his or her representative. The purpose of the conference is to allow a person to obtain a review of the action or proposed action (without the necessity of a formal appeal hearing), if he or she believes that an action made or proposed by the Division is incorrect;
(c) Payment of the proposed charge for institutional care and maintenance will not jeopardize a conference request or decision.
(7) Request for Informal Conference:
(a) A conference request may be filed either with a hearing request required in section (5) of this rule or subsequent to the hearing request but at least 14 days before the date of a scheduled hearing;
(b) The conference request shall be in writing and must specify:
(A) The name and address of the person requesting the conference;
(B) The reason for the request, including:
(i) In what respect the action or proposed action of the Division is erroneous;
(ii) Reference to any prior Division correspondence on the subject.
(c) If a hearing has been requested, the material submitted as part of the request for a hearing may be used at the informal conference;
(d) The conference request should be addressed to the Reimbursement Section, Addictions and Mental Health Division, 500 Summer St. NE, E-86, Salem, OR 97301.
(8) Conduct of Informal Conference. A conference shall be held at a place designated by the Division. To the extent practical, the conference will be held at a location convenient to the person. The conference shall begin with a statement from the Division. The person requesting the conference shall then state his or her position, the facts as he or she knows them, and his or her questions of persons present to clarify the issues.
(9) Disposition of Informal Conference:
(a) After the conference, the Reimbursement Section will issue a proposed order disposing of the appeal for approval by the Administrator. The written order, approved by the Administrator, will be sent to the person within 14 days of the conference, unless during the conference the Division action is conceded by the person to be correct;
(b) The person’s request for a hearing will be stayed pending the outcome of the conference, at which time the request for a hearing will either be withdrawn by the person should he or she no longer desire to proceed, or the hearing will be rescheduled;
(c) When a decision favors the person, the person will receive a refund;
(d) The person may request within 30 days that the decision made at an informal conference be reconsidered by the Administrator. The person should set forth the specific ground or grounds for requesting the reconsideration.
(10) Subpoenas and Depositions:
(a) The Division shall issue subpoenas to any party to a hearing upon request. Witnesses appearing pursuant to subpena, other than parties or employees of the Division, shall receive fees and mileage as prescribed by law for witnesses in a civil action;
(b) Depositions may be taken on petition of any party to a hearing.
(11) Conduct of Appeal Hearing:
(a) To the extent practical, the Division, in designating the location of the hearing, shall designate a place convenient for the person;
(b) The hearing shall be conducted by and shall be under the control of the Hearings Officer;
(c) The Hearings Officer shall administer an oath or affirmation of the witnesses;
(d) A verbatim record shall be made of all testimony and rulings. Parties who wish a transcription of the proceedings should make arrangements with the Division. If the Division determines the record is no longer needed, the Division may destroy the record after 180 days following the issuance of a final order, unless within the 180-day period arrangements are made by the person for further retention by the Division;
(e) The hearing shall begin with a statement of the facts and issues involved. The statement shall be given by a person requested to do so by the Hearings Officer;
(f) The Hearings Officer may set reasonable time limits for oral presentation and may exclude or limit testimony that is cumulative, repetitious or immaterial.
(12) Evidentiary Rules:
(a) All evidence of a type commonly relied upon by reasonably prudent persons in conduct of their serious affairs shall be admissible;
(b) The Hearings Officer shall receive all physical and documentary evidence presented by parties where practicable. All offered evidence is subject to the Hearings Officer’s power to exclude or limit cumulative, repetitious or immaterial matter;
(c) Evidence objected to may be received by the Hearings Officer, and rulings on its admissibility or exclusion may be made at the time a final order is issued;
(d) At the time of the hearing, the person will be notified that any exhibit introduced as evidence at the hearing will be destroyed after 180 days following the issuance of a final order, unless within the 180-day period, written request is made by the person presenting the exhibit for the return of the exhibit;
(e) The burden of presenting evidence to support a fact or position in a hearing rests on the proponent of the fact or position.
(13) Disposition of Appeal:
(a) After a hearing has been held, the Hearings Officer shall issue a proposed order, including findings of fact and conclusions of law. If the proposed order is adverse to the person, it shall be served upon the person and an opportunity afforded to the person to file exceptions and present written argument to the Administrator before a final order is issued. A person has a ten-day period in which to file exceptions and/or written argument to a proposed order;
(b) Final orders on a hearing shall be in writing and shall include:
(A) Rulings on admissibility of offered evidence;
(B) Findings of fact — Those matters which are either agreed as fact or which, when disputed, are determined by the Administrator, on substantial evidence, to be a fact over contentions to the contrary;
(C) Conclusions of law — Applications of the controlling law to the facts found and the legal results arising there from;
(D) The action taken by the Division as a result of the findings of fact and conclusions of law; and
(E) Notice of the person’s right to judicial review of the order.
(c) Parties to a hearing and their attorneys shall be mailed a copy of the final order and accompanying findings and conclusions.
(14) Administrative Review of Final Order:
(a) A person may file a petition for administrative review of the final order with the Division within 30 days after the order is served. The petition shall set forth the specific ground or grounds for requesting the review. The petition may be supported by a written argument. Examples of sufficient grounds are:
(A) The Division action is not supported by the written findings, or the written findings are inaccurate; or
(B) Pertinent information was available at the time of the original hearing which, through no fault of the party, was not considered; or
(C) The action of the Division is inconsistent with its rules or policies or is contrary to law; and
(D) The matters raised on appeal may have an effect on the original decision.
(b) The Division may grant a rehearing petition if sufficient reason therefore is made to appear. The rehearing may be limited by the Division to specific matters. If a rehearing is held, an amended order shall be entered;
(c) If the Division denies the appeal, it shall inform the person in writing of the denial;
(d) If the administrative review has been requested, the Division order is not final until the administrative review is granted or denied.
(15) Time Extensions. Where any provision of this rule specifies a particular time period in which a person must act, for good cause shown, the Hearings Officer may, in his or her discretion, allow a reasonable extension of time if so doing is not inconsistent with ORS 179.640 to 179.650.
(16) Appeal. An appeal from the final order of the Division may be taken as provided by law. Caution: Either ORS 179.650 or 183.482 may be applicable. See League of Women Voters v. Lane County Boundary Commission, 32 Or. App. 53, 573P.2d 1255, rev. denied, 283 Or. 503 (1978).
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.770, 413.042 & 430.021
- Statutes/Other Implemented: 179.610 – 179.770
- MHD 1-1980, f. & ef. 1-14-80
- MHD 6-1979(Temp), f. & ef. 9-20-79
Or. Admin. R. 309-012-0030 Purpose and Statutory Authority
(1) Purpose. Individuals admitted to the Division institutions are liable for the full cost of their care, but are required to pay only what they are able to pay. This rule establishes guidelines for determining a person’s ability to pay for the cost of care in a state institution.
(2) Statutory Authority. This rule is made necessary by ORS 179.610, authorized by ORS 413.042 and carries out the provisions of ORS 179.610 to 179.770.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.770 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.610 – 179.770
- MHD 9-1991, f. 12-13-91, cert. ef. 12-16-91
- MHD 14-1980, f. & ef. 6-24-80
- MHD 5-1980(Temp), f. & ef. 4-18-80
Or. Admin. R. 309-012-0031 Definitions
As used in these rules:
(1) “Ability to Pay” means the ability of a person in a state institution to pay past, current, or ongoing cost of care, as determined by the Division in accordance with these rules.
(2) “Assets” means, excluding income, the total value of an individual’s equity in real and personal property of whatever kind or nature. Assets include, but are not limited to the individual’s stocks, bonds, cash, accounts receivable, moneys due, or any other interests, whether they are self-managed, or held by the individual’s authorized representative, or by any other individual or entity on behalf of the individual. “Assets” held in trust are subject to laws generally applicable to trusts.
(3) “Authorized Representative” means an individual or entity appointed under authority of ORS 125, as guardian or conservator of a person, who has the ability to control the person’s finances, and any other individual or entity holding funds or receiving benefits or income on behalf of any person.
(4) “Benefits from Health Insurance” means payments from insurance programs with the limited purpose of paying for the cost of care provided to an individual by a hospital or other health care provider. Benefits of this type include, but are not limited to payments from:
(a) Private and group health insurance policies;
(b) The Medicare and Medicaid programs;
(c) Any other policies or programs with the purpose of paying for the costs of inpatient and/or outpatient care.
(5) “Charges” means the amount the Division has determined that the person is required to pay toward the cost of care based on his or her ability to pay.
(6) “Cost of Care” means the person’s full liability for care as determined by the Division using the rates established in accordance with ORS 179.701.
(7) “Dependents” means individuals whom a person has a legal duty to support. “Dependents” may include non-emancipated children and spouse of a person, as well as any other individual for whom a person would be allowed a personal exemption under federal or Oregon personal income tax laws.
(8) “Division” means the Addictions and Mental Health Division of the Oregon Health Authority.
(9) “Fair Market Value” means the cash price a capable and diligent individual could obtain in a reasonable amount of time for an asset after negotiating with those accustomed to buying such property.
(10) “Funds for Personal Support Following Release” means the cash that a person will need following his/her release from a state institution to live in the community in a reasonable manner for a period of time, not normally to exceed six months.
(11) “Income” means all funds received by an individual, or for an individual by his or her authorized representative, from any source, whether earned or unearned, after making applicable deductions for state and federal taxes. “Income” includes benefits from both income protection insurance which replaces the person’s earned income when he or she is unable to work, and governmental retirement or disability insurance, such as Social Security, Veterans, and Railroad Retirement benefits.
(12) “Legal Obligations” means any financial duty imposed by law. “Legal obligations” include, but are not limited to, loan or mortgage contracts for which an individual is responsible, as well as liabilities arising out of other contracts or legal duties to pay money. “Legal obligations” include administratively or judicially ordered child and/or spousal support.
(13) “Moral Obligations” means any payments that an individual feels a moral duty to pay, but for which the individual does not have a legal duty to pay.
(14) “Person” means:
(a) A current or former patient at a state institution for the mentally and emotionally disturbed;
(b) A current or former resident at a state institution for the developmentally disabled.
(15) “Person’s Representative” means:
(a) Any individual who is the person’s authorized representative as defined in section (3) of this rule; and/or
(b) Any other individual who has the person’s written authority to represent the person.
(16) “Personal Expense Allowance” means the cash allowed for the reasonable miscellaneous expenses the person has while he or she is in the state institution, including but not limited to expenses for personal grooming and hygiene items; books, newspapers, or other publications; snacks or refreshments not provided by the state institution; and minor entertainment or excursions.
(17) “Primary Personal Automobile” means the automobile, if the person has more than one, which the person would choose to keep if required to sell all but one. If the person has only one, it is the primary personal automobile.
(18) “Primary Personal Residence” means the home the person owns, or is purchasing, and in which the person lived prior to entering the state institution, and/or in which the person will live after leaving the state institution.
(19) “Special Authorized Expense Allowance” means the cash needed for the reasonable personal expenses of the person which cannot be met by the personal expense allowance, and which the Division determines are necessary.
(20) “State Institution” means Dammasch State Hospital in Wilsonville; Eastern Oregon Psychiatric Center in Pendleton; Eastern Oregon Training Center in Pendleton; Fairview Training Center in Salem; and Oregon State Hospital in Salem.
(21) “Support for Dependents” means the cash necessary to meet the reasonable needs of the dependents, less the amounts the dependents receive from any other sources. Support for dependents excludes administratively or judicially ordered child and/or spousal support.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.770 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.610 – 179.770
- MHD 9-1991, f. 12-13-91, cert. ef. 12-16-91
- MHD 14-1980, f. & ef. 6-24-80
- MHD 5-1980(Temp), f. & ef. 4-18-80
Or. Admin. R. 309-012-0032 Requirements for Obtaining Financial Information
(1) Information Obtained from the Person and/or the Person’s Representative. The Division shall require the person and/or the person’s representative to submit financial information on forms provided by the Division. Financial information required by the Division shall include, but shall not be limited to the following:
(a) A description of the person’s assets, and their values;
(b) A description of the person’s liabilities, the dates they were incurred, the total amounts owing, and a schedule of actual or planned payment dates and amounts;
(c) The sources and amounts of the person’s income;
(d) The sources of available benefits from health insurance;
(e) A description and the amounts of the person’s expenses;
(f) The names and ages of any dependents, and the sources and amounts of income and assets, other than those of the person, which are available for their support; and
(g) The income, assets, and liabilities of the person’s spouse or other individual who shares the person’s expenses;
(h) Other information the person and/or the person’s representative considers important to the determination of the person’s ability to pay.
(2) Information Obtained from Other Sources. In addition, the Division may obtain financial information regarding the person from other sources the Division considers to be reliable. These sources may include, but are not limited to, the Social Security and Veterans Administrations, Oregon Department of Revenue, and other Oregon Health Authority agencies.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.770 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.610 – 179.770
- MHD 9-1991, f. 12-13-91, cert. ef. 12-16-91
- MHD 14-1980, f. & ef. 6-24-80
- MHD 5-1980(Temp), f. & ef. 4-18-80
Or. Admin. R. 309-012-0033 Procedures for Determining Ability-to-Pay for Cost of Care
(1) Ability-to-Pay Orders — Based on the financial information received or obtained, the Division will determine the person’s ability to pay. If the person, and/or the person’s authorized representative fails to provide sufficient information to show the person cannot pay the full cost of care, the Division may determine the person has the ability to pay the full cost of care. The determination of the person’s ability to pay shall be set forth in an Ability-to-Pay Order. The four types of Ability-to-Pay orders are Determination of Charges, Modification to Charges, Return of Funds for Personal Support Following Release, and Waiver of Charges. Each Order shall be given one of these titles to identify the type of determination it sets forth, and it shall be based on the factors and criteria described in the following sections.
(2) Limit on Charges — The amount determined by the Division to be the person’s charges shall not exceed the full cost of care for the dates of service covered by the Ability-to-Pay Order, less payments and/or credits from any other sources the Division has received, or reasonably anticipates receiving.
(3) Determination of Charges — An Ability-to-Pay Order which sets forth a determination of the person’s charges for the care received which is made either while the person is in the state institution, or after the person’s release from the state institution. A Determination of Charges may be issued any time during the person’s stay in the state institution. A Determination of Charges will be issued after the person’s release if none was issued during the person’s stay, or if the person’s financial circumstances change to enable the person to pay cost of care which exceeds amounts charged by previous Ability-to-Pay Orders. When issuing a Determination of Charges, the Division will consider the following factors:
(a) Factors relating to the person’s eligibility for and coverage by benefits from health insurance;
(b) Factors relating to the person’s assets:
(A) Except as otherwise provided in this section, charges will be assessed using the person’s equity in all assets whether the asset is controlled by the person, or by the person’s authorized representative. The Division will determine the person’s equity in each asset by deducting from the fair market value of the asset any bona fide encumbrance against the asset;
(B) Charges will be assessed using the person’s equity in a primary personal residence only if:
(i) Information is provided by the treatment staff at the state institution stating the person cannot reasonably be expected to return to the residence to live at any time following discharge from the institution; and
(ii) None of the following individuals is residing in the residence:
(I) The person’s spouse;
(II) The person’s child or children under age 21, or blind or disabled;
(III) The person’s sibling or siblings who own an interest in the residence, and who lived in the residence for at least one year immediately prior to the person’s admission to the state institution;
(IV) The person’s parents or emancipated children who are unable to work to maintain themselves as declared in ORS 109.010.
(C) No charge will be assessed using the person’s equity in a primary personal automobile;
(D) The value of an asset which has great sentimental value to the person (such as a family heirloom or gift from a loved one) may be disregarded if selling the asset would cause the person great emotional distress. The Division shall confer with the person’s treatment staff to decide whether or not to make this disregard;
(E) When assets are used as the basis for ongoing charges, the Division will estimate the length of time the assets are expected to last. During the final 60 days of that time period, the Division will review the person’s financial circumstances in preparation for modifying the person’s charges.
(c) Factors relating to the person’s income:
(A) Charges will be assessed using the total amount of all income received either by the person, or for the person by the person’s authorized representative;
(B) Income received at intervals other than monthly may be prorated for use in a calculation of a monthly charge to the person.
(d) Factors relating to the person’s legal and moral obligations:
(A) For legal obligations other than administratively or judicially ordered child and/or spousal support, the person must have demonstrated an intent to pay the obligation, either by showing a history or regular payments toward the full amount owing, or by providing a plan showing dates and amounts of payments to be made in the future;
(B) The Division shall seek the advice of treatment staff as to whether or not, in the interest of the person’s rehabilitation, welfare, and/or treatment, the person’s need to satisfy declared moral obligations should be given priority over the person’s obligation to pay the cost of care;
(C) Any deduction allowed by the Division for legal or moral obligations must be used to satisfy the current obligation. It may not be accumulated by, or on behalf of the person, or used for purposes other than that for which it was approved.
(e) Factors relating to the person’s obligation to provide financial support for dependents:
(A) Before approving a deduction for financial support for a dependent, the Division shall determine how much money is required to reasonably support the dependent. From that amount, the Division shall subtract any funds available from sources other than the person, such as the dependent’s own income and assets, or any form of governmental aid such as public assistance payable to, or on behalf of the dependent;
(B) Any deduction allowed by the Division for the financial support of dependents must be used to provide current support. It may not be accumulated by, or on behalf of the person, and it may not be used for other purposes.
(f) Factors relating to the person’s personal and special authorized expenses while in the state institution:
(A) The personal expense allowance while the person is in the state institution shall be established by the Division to reflect the Supplemental Security Income Program’s payment limit for institutionalized individuals (The allowance was $30 per month as of July 1, 1988.);
(B) Special authorized expense allowances while the person is in the state institution shall be approved based on the following criteria:
(i) The state institution treatment staff’s advice that satisfying the need will not interfere in any way with the successful treatment or general welfare of the person, and it may enhance the person’s ability to meet the goals of the treatment plan; and
(ii) There are no other resources available to meet the need.
(g) Factors related to the person’s need for funds for personal support following release from the state institution when the Division is issuing any Ability-to-Pay Order after release or when release is scheduled within 30 days:
(A) As necessary, funds for personal support following release will be allowed to pay for the following items:
(i) Rental costs including the monthly rent payment, as well as one time deposits or fees, or mortgage payments related to the purchase of a residence;
(ii) Food for the person and dependents;
(iii) Utilities such as heating fuel, water, electricity, garbage service, basic telephone service, and basic television cable service;
(iv) Transportation and related insurance coverage;
(v) Routine household maintenance and insurance coverage;
(vi) Health and dental care and related insurance coverage for the person and dependents;
(vii) Clothing and entertainment for the person and dependents; and
(viii) Other personal expenses which the person shows to be reasonable and necessary, including payments toward moral obligations and legal obligations (other than mortgage contracts), as described in subsection (d) of this section.
(B) The funds allowed for personal support following release shall be based on what a reasonable and prudent individual would spend for the items given the resources available to the individual;
(C) The amount approved for support of the dependents shall take into consideration all other resources available to meet the dependent’s needs.
(h) Factors relating to the time period during which the Division may assess charges, and the time period during which the person is required to pay assessed charges:
(A) Ability-to-Pay Orders issued after release which establish an ongoing monthly charge based on the person’s ability to pay after release shall not add new charges beyond the 36th month following the month in which the person was released from the state institution;
(B) The person is required to pay beyond the 36 month period, any assessed charges not paid prior to release or during the 36 month period after release.
(4) Modification to Charges — An Ability-to-Pay Order which sets forth a modification to the person’s charges established by a prior Ability-to-Pay Order. A Modification to Charges will be made to reflect either a change in the person’s financial circumstances which affects the person’s ability-to-pay ongoing monthly charges, or the Division’s receipt of benefits from health insurance that were not recognized in a prior Ability-to-Pay Order, which cause established charges to exceed the maximum cost of care chargeable to the person in accordance with section (2) of this rule. When issuing a Modification to Charges, the Division will consider the same factors used for a Determination of Charges as described in section (3) of this rule.
(5) Return of Funds for Personal Support Following Release — An Ability-to-Pay Order which sets forth a determination by the Division regarding the return of funds paid toward the person’s charges to provide the person with adequate funds for personal support following his or her release from the state institution. When issuing a Return of Funds for Personal Support Following Release, the Division will use the following criteria:
(a) A Return of Funds for Personal Support Following Release is subject to the following conditions:
(A) The person or the person’s representative has made payments toward the cost of care provided by the state institution.
NOTE: Returned funds for personal support following release cannot exceed the total amount paid from the person’s own income and assets. Benefits from health insurance are not included in the amounts paid.
If charges are due, but the person or the person’s representative has made no payment, funds for personal support following release will be considered under the provisions for Waiver of Charges;
(B) The person will be discharged from the state institution within the next 30 days, or he/she was discharged from the state institution within the last 60 days;
(C) The person has financial obligations following release from the state institution as described in subsection (3)(g) of this rule which cannot be immediately satisfied with other available resources.
(b) Funds for personal support following release will be provided for a limited amount of time, not normally to exceed six months, during which time the person will be expected to become otherwise supported through employment, public assistance, or other available programs;
(c) Funds for personal support following release for a period of time exceeding six months will be considered only if the Division receives information which shows the person’s circumstances require such consideration.
(6) Waiver of Charges — An Ability-to-Pay Order which sets forth a determination by the Division regarding waiver of collection of part or all of the person’s unpaid charges based upon the best interest of the person or the Division:
(a) A waiver of charges should be granted when the Division, after considering information regarding extraordinary circumstances pertaining either to the person’s financial situation, or the person’s physical, psychological, or sociological well-being, determines:
(A) Charges assessed by prior Ability-to-Pay Orders are unpaid, and a subsequent change in the person’s circumstances shows that collection of all or part of the unpaid charges would be detrimental to the best interests of the person or of the Division;
(B) Charges assessed by prior Ability-to-Pay Orders are unpaid, and the Division either receives a written statement from the person’s treating physician, or accepts, on a case-by-case basis, a non-physician mental health professional’s written statement, which indicates the person’s physical, psychological, and/or sociological condition is interfering with the person’s ability to satisfy the outstanding obligation, and further efforts by the Division to collect the unpaid charges would be harmful to the person; or
(C) Charges have not been assessed by a prior Ability-to-Pay Order extraordinary circumstances as described in paragraph (A) and/or (B) of this subsection are present, and based on those circumstances the charges should not be assessed.
(b) In accordance with ORS 179.640(4), charges may be assessed or reassessed at a later time by a new Determination of Charges Ability-to-Pay Order if the basis for waiver under this section ceases to exist.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.770 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.610 – 179.770
- MHD 9-1991, f. 12-13-91, cert. ef. 12-16-91
- MHD 14-1980, f. & ef. 6-24-80
- MHD 5-1980(Temp), f. & ef. 4-18-80
Or. Admin. R. 309-012-0034 Delivery of Ability-to-Pay Orders and Factors Relating to Appeals
(1) Delivery to the Person — The original Ability-to-Pay Order shall be delivered to the person, unless the person has an authorized representative.
(2) Delivery to the Authorized Representative — If the person has an authorized representative, the original Ability-to-Pay Order shall be delivered to the authorized representative, and a copy shall be delivered to the person. Any Ability-to-Pay Order delivered to an authorized representative shall include an explanation of the Division’s right to demand payment of the charges assessed by the Order, and the consequences to the authorized representative of failing to comply, as provided by ORS 179.653.
(3) Appeal Rights — The Ability-to-Pay Order shall include an explanation of the person’s right to appeal the determination set forth by the Order.
(4) Successor Authorized Representative — If the person’s authorized representative does not pay or appeal the charges assessed by an Ability-to-Pay Order, and he or she is subsequently replaced by a new authorized representative, the successor authorized representative shall be provided with the opportunity to either pay the assessed charges, or to appeal the determination set forth by the Order. The Division will take the following actions when notified there is a successor authorized representative:
(a) Deliver copies of all Ability-to-Pay Orders not fully paid to the successor authorized representative with a letter which describes the delivery of the Order(s) to the previous authorized representative(s), and any actions taken by the previous representative(s) with regard to the Order(s);
(b) Include with the Order copies, an explanation of the successor authorized representative’s right to appeal the determination(s) set forth by the Ability-to-Pay Order(s).
(5) Resolving Appeals — If the person or the person’s authorized representative appeals a determination set forth by an Ability-to-Pay Order, the Division will attempt to resolve the appeal by issuing a new Ability-to-Pay Order which takes into consideration the information on which the appeal is based. If the appeal cannot be resolved by issuing a new Order, it will be addressed through the contested case appeal process.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.770 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.610 – 179.770
- MHD 9-1991, f. 12-13-91, cert. ef. 12-16-91
Or. Admin. R. 309-012-0035 Enforcement of Recoupment Liens
(1) Purpose. This rule establishes procedures for implementing recoupment liens used in carrying out Reimbursement Orders issued by the Division.
(2) Statutory Authority and Procedure. This rule is authorized by ORS 179.770 and carries out the provisions of ORS 179.653 and 179.655.
(3) Definitions. As used in this rule:
(a) “Cost of Care” means the cost determined by the Division in accordance with ORS 179.701;
(b) “Division” means the Addictions and Mental Health Division of the Oregon Health Authority;
(c) “Person” means:
(A) A patient who is receiving or has received treatment or care at a state institution for the mentally ill;
(B) A current or former resident at a state institution for the mentally retarded.
(d) “Person’s Representative” means a conservator, guardian of the person, or estate of the person in a state institution, or an individual who has been appointed by a court in this or another state or by Federal Court to serve as the legal representative of a person in a state institution, and also includes an individual whom a person in a state institution has designated to receive the notice of information involved in the particular transaction;
(e) “Recoupment Lien” means a charge or security or encumbrance upon real or personal property that can be used to satisfy the amount due for the person’s cost of care;
(f) “Reimbursement Order” means the order issued to determine the person’s ability to pay pursuant to ORS 179.640(1) and (2);
(g) “State Institution” means Dammasch State Hospital in Wilsonville, Oregon State Hospital in Salem, Fairview Training Center in Salem, and Eastern Oregon Hospital and Training Center in Pendleton;
(h) “Warrant” means the document issued by the Division directed to the sheriff of any county of the state commanding the sheriff to levy upon and sell the real and personal property which is subject to satisfaction of the recoupment lien.
(4) Enforcement of Lien by Issuance of Warrant. The Division shall enforce its recoupment lien created by ORS 179.653 by issuance of a warrant in the manner stated in 179.655. Any warrant issued by the Division pursuant to 179.655 shall clearly provide that the sheriff or other person executing the warrant shall not levy upon and sell any real or personal property that would be exempt under Oregon law from execution pursuant to a judgment. However, the Division shall not issue a warrant pursuant to 179.655 where:
(a) The amount due to the Division for the cost of care of a person in a state institution is not at least 30 days overdue;
(b) Provision has been made to secure the payment by bond or deposit or otherwise in conformance with section (5) of this rule;
(c) The person has exercised the right to appeal the Reimbursement Order pursuant to OAR 309-012-0025(6) and that appeal is still pending;
(d) Sixty-one days have not passed since the issuance of the Reimbursement Order;
(e) The person or the person’s representative has not been given at least ten days’ prior written notice that the Division intends to issue such a warrant.
(5) Methods of Securing Satisfaction of Reimbursement Order:
(a) The issuance of a warrant to the sheriff to enforce collection of delinquent money due the Division for the cost of care for a person in a state institution will be stayed either by paying the amount due and accrued interest after it becomes due or by securing payment of that amount by bond or deposit or otherwise;
(b) The bond given by the person must be for an amount not less than the amount due, plus interest for a reasonable period determined by the Division:
(A) The bond must be executed by:
(i) A surety company which is registered with, and under the supervision of, the Insurance Commissioner of the State of Oregon; or
(ii) By two or more individual sureties, each of whom shall be a resident and homeowner or holder of an interest in land within the state and each of whom shall be worth sums specified in the under-taking, exclusive of property exempt from execution and over and above all valid debts and liability.
(B) The Division may allow more than two sureties to justify several amounts less than that expressed in the undertaking, if the whole justification is equivalent to that of two sufficient undertakings.
(c) Any one of the following items, or combination of items acceptable to the Division, equal to the amount due, plus accrued interest thereon, may be deposited with the Division:
(A) A deposit of money;
(B) A certified check or checks on any state or national bank within the State of Oregon payable to the Division;
(C) Satisfactory bonds negotiable by delivery, or obligations by the U.S. Government negotiable by delivery; or
(D) Any other security satisfactory to the Division.
(d) The Division may require additional security whenever, in its opinion, the value of the security pledged is no longer sufficient to adequately secure the payment of the amount due, plus accrued interest thereon.
(6) Release of Tax Lien and Clouds on Title. Any request made to the Division for the release of a warrant, where such warrant is not in fact a lien on title to the real property in question but merely a cloud on the title to such real estate, shall be accompanied by a statement. This statement shall show the facts affecting the title to the real property in question that render the Division’s warrant a cloud on the title to such real property and the reasons the warrant does not actually constitute a lien thereon:
(a) This type of request for release of a warrant should be accompanied by a current title report;
(b) The Division may require other documentary proof showing the present condition of the title to the property in question.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.770 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.610 – 179.770
- MHD 15-1980, f. & ef. 6-24-80
- MHD 8-1980(Temp), f. & ef. 4-18-80
Or. Admin. R. 309-012-0070 Policy
(1) Requests for copies of medical records must be made in writing with proper consent and must be specific to assure that only the essential portions of the medical record are copied and released.
(2) A patient or resident shall not be denied access to the medical record because of inability to pay. The patient may review his or her record in the Medical Record Department at no charge.
(3) A copy of the most recent release summary shall be furnished free of charge to authorized persons or agencies providing follow-up care.
(4) A copy of required portions of medical records may be provided without charge to the following agencies and individuals. When a substantial part or all of a medical record is requested, the Division may charge for copies in accordance with OAR chapter 943-003:
(a) Community mental health programs;
(b) Courts;
(c) Hospitals;
(d) Individuals or agencies providing follow-up care for the patient;
(e) Insurance carriers paying for patient's or resident's care; and
(f) Physicians.
(5) All other requests for public records shall be charged in accordance with OAR 943-003.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.770, 413.042 & 431.120
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.610 – 179.770
- MHS 4-2007, f. & cert. ef. 5-25-07
- MHD 10-1983, f. & ef. 6-8-83
- MHD 2-1983(Temp), f. & ef. 2-18-83
Or. Admin. R. 309-012-0100 Purpose and Statutory Authority
(1) Purpose. These rules establish the amount of earned income the Division excludes when calculating ability-to-pay for cost of care at a mental health institution. The purpose of this earned income exclusion is to reduce the disincentive to work for patients and residents.
(2) Statutory Authority. These rules are authorized by ORS 413.042 and carry out the provisions of ORS 179.770.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.770 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.610 – 179.770
- MHD 11-1985, f. & ef. 6-19-85
Or. Admin. R. 309-012-0105 Definitions
As used in these rules:
(1) “Earned Income” means money received by a patient or resident in a mental health institution in return for services rendered, while receiving care or treatment at the institution.
(2) “Mental Health Institution” means Dammasch State Hospital in Wilsonville, Oregon State Hospital in Salem, Fairview Training Center in Salem, and Eastern Oregon Psychiatric Center and Eastern Oregon Training Center in Pendleton.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.770 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.610 – 179.770
- MHD 11-1985, f. & ef. 6-19-85
Or. Admin. R. 309-012-0110 Earned Income in Calculation of Ability-to-Pay
The Division includes earned income as income in the calculation of ability-to-pay, as described in OAR 309-012-0030.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.770 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.610 – 179.770
- MHD 11-1985, f. & ef. 6-19-85
Or. Admin. R. 309-012-0115 Earned Income Exclusion
The Division allows a patient or resident to retain a portion of any income earned while in a mental health institution. The amount of earned income to be excluded in the calculation of ability-to-pay is determined by subtracting $65 from earned income. An additional $25 will be subtracted from the total income (both earned and unearned) as an allowance for personal need.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.770 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.610 – 179.770
- MHD 11-1985, f. & ef. 6-19-85
Or. Admin. R. 309-012-0235 Termination of Relative Foster Care Funding
(1) This rule is adopted in coordination with the Oregon Health Authority’s (Authority) work with counties to transition participating individuals from relative adult foster care to Medicaid-funded services or other available programs.
(2) Effective December 31, 2017, the Authority shall no longer fund relative adult foster care directly or through Service Element 34A of its contracts with community mental health programs.
(3) Relative adult foster care does not include the services provided in licensed adult foster homes pursuant to OAR chapter 309, division 040.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & ORS 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.042 & ORS 430.610-430.651
- MHS 16-2017, adopt filed 12/26/2017, effective 12/31/2017
- MHS 14-2017, temporary adopt filed 11/21/2017, effective 11/21/2017 through 05/19/2018
Division 13 ACCOUNTING AND BUSINESS PRACTICES
Or. Admin. R. 309-013-0030 Management of Trust Accounts and Patient Funds in State Institutions
(1) Purpose. This rule establishes standards and procedures to be observed by Superintendents and their employees in the management of trust accounts and patient funds in state institutions, as well as make applications on behalf of patients for Social Security or Veterans Administration benefits or be appointed representative payee for a patient’s Social Security or Veterans Administration benefit payments.
(2) Statutory Authority and Procedure. This rule is authorized by ORS and carries out the provisions of ORS 179.510 to 179.530.
(3) Definitions. As used in this rule:
(a) “Agency trust account” means an account established in the name of a patient by the Superintendent of a state institution under ORS 179.510 to retain funds deposited with the Superintendent by or for the named patient;
(b) “Division” means the Addictions and Mental Health Division of the Oregon Health Authority;
(c) “Patient’s Designee” means a person designated by the patient in a state institution in writing to receive duplicate copies of documents sent to the patient relating to the patient’s funds;
(d) “Representative or Indirect Payee Trust Account” means a trust account established in the name of a patient by the Superintendent of a state institution or other staff representative or indirect payee to retain the patient’s Social Security or Veterans benefits paid to the representative payee;
(e) “State Institution” means Dammasch State Hospital in Wilsonville, Oregon State Hospital in Salem, Fairview Training Center in Salem, and Eastern Oregon Hospital and Training Center in Pendleton;
(f) “Superintendent” means the executive head of the state institution as listed in subsection (3)(e) of this rule;
(g) “Treatment Team” means the group whose membership consists of professional and direct care staff.
(4) Admission to State Institution. Upon admission or readmission to a state institution, the patient, a guardian or conservator, and the patient’s designee, if any, shall be provided with written notices containing the following information:
(a) The patient’s obligation under state law to reimburse the state for the actual cost of the patient’s care and maintenance, according to the patient’s ability to pay, whichever is less;
(b) The patient’s option to place money in either an agency trust account or other suitable depository outside the state institution. The agency trust account withdrawal and deposit procedures and the Superintendent’s powers with respect to such accounts shall be explained therein;
(c) In the event the patient requests the state institution to forward funds outside the state institution to other than a bank or secure financial institution and, in the clinical judgment of the Superintendent, the patient is not able to understand the implications of the patient’s request, the Superintendent shall provide notice that the patient’s funds have been placed in an agency trust account; and a proceeding to have a conservator appointed will be commenced within ten days from the date of the notice;
(d) Copies of all relevant state laws and rules regarding handling of patient funds and institutional reimbursement shall be made available to the patient, a guardian or conservator, and the patient’s designee on request;
(e) The patient, a guardian, or a conservator may designate another responsible person to be representative or indirect payee for benefits and/or to receive duplicate copies of all further documents detailing procedures, agency trust account transactions, applications by the Superintendent for patient benefits, or documents otherwise related to the institutional reimbursement process as it affects the patient. A form for designating one other person to receive such documents shall be provided upon request.
(5) Agency Trust Account Transactions. A monthly statement indicating the deposits and withdrawals during the prior month of the agency trust account shall be delivered to the patient, a guardian or conservator, and the patient’s designee, if any.
(6) Representative or Indirect Payee Trust Account Transactions. A monthly statement indicating the deposits and withdrawals during the prior month of the representative or indirect payee trust account shall be delivered to the patient, a guardian or conservator, and the patient’s designee, if any.
(7) Determination of Patient’s Capability to Manage Funds:
(a)(A) If an investigation indicates the patient is incapable of managing his or her funds, the relevant Social Security Administration or Veterans Administration form and recommendation shall be forwarded to the Superintendent’s office. Upon receiving the form, the Superintendent or the Superintendent’s designee shall cause notice of the proposed application to be sent as indicated in section (8) of this rule;
(B) Inquiries may be made of attending doctors and other reliable persons who deal with the patient frequently.
(b) When, after investigation, in the opinion of the Superintendent, a patient is or has become incompetent and/or incapable of making an informed consent or incapable of managing funds, and there is no person legally responsible for the patient (such as a guardian or conservator), the Superintendent may:
(A) Apply to have a representative or indirect payee appointed under section (8) of this rule; and/or
(B) Commence proceedings to establish a guardianship or conservatorship.
(8) Application for Benefits or Notification of Incapacity to Manage Funds:
(a) When, after investigation pursuant to section (7) of this rule, the Superintendent determines that such a step would be in the best interests of the patient, the Superintendent or the Superintendent’s designee may apply for Social Security or Veterans benefits on behalf of a patient. Before each application, the patient, a guardian or conservator, and the patient’s designee, if any, shall be mailed notice of the proposed application. Notice shall include the following:
(A) A statement of the intention to apply for such benefits;
(B) A copy of the proposed application, indicating the reason for the application and the evidence relied upon in determining that an application is warranted;
(C) If the applicant seeks to be selected as representative or indirect payee, a statement that this will mean that the representative of the federal agency concerned will determine whether it is in the best interests of the patient that a payee be appointed;
(D) A statement that the patient, a guardian or conservator, or the patient’s designee, if any, may submit to the Superintendent a written statement including written evidence why the application should not be made. This statement and evidence must be submitted not more than 12 days from the date of the notice; and
(E) A statement that any such written statement submitted on behalf of the patient and received within the time specified shall be considered by the Superintendent or other official in the decision to submit the proposed application.
(b) After such notice has been given, and either:
(A) Twelve days have elapsed without response from the patient, a guardian or conservator, or the patient’s designee, if any; or
(B) The statement or written evidence submitted pursuant to paragraph (8)(a)(D) of this rule has been received, the Superintendent or the Superintendent’s designee shall consider all the evidence submitted and decide whether an application would be in the patient’s best interest. If it is decided that the application should be made, the patient, a guardian or conservator, and the patient’s designee, if any, shall receive copies of the application and any supporting materials thereof.
(c) The response of the Social Security Administration or Veterans Administration to the application shall likewise be forwarded, along with information concerning the rights of patients and other interested persons regarding Social Security or Veterans Administration benefits, to the patient, a guardian or conservator, and the patient’s designee, if any.
(9) Deposit of Social Security Administration and Veterans Administration Checks:
(a) Checks for which the patient is the payee must be deposited directly into the patient’s agency trust account if the patient has elected to have such an account. In the event the patient has elected a suitable depository outside the state institution, arrangements for forwarding the patient’s funds to that depository are the responsibility of the patient, a guardian or conservator, or the patient’s designee, if any. Notification of receipt of the check and the deposit thereof in the agency trust account shall be made in the next monthly statement to the patient, a guardian or conservator, and the patient’s designee, if any. When such Social Security or Veterans funds are deposited in the agency trust account, the funds shall be clearly designated as Social Security Administration or Veterans Administration benefit money;
(b) Social Security or Veterans funds in the agency trust account may be taken to pay the patient’s bill for care and maintenance at the state institution only when the patient (if not judicially or factually incompetent) or the patient’s guardian or conservator has executed a written consent for that particular transaction. “Blanket” or continuing consents will not be honored insofar as they affect Social Security or Veterans benefits;
(c) Checks payable to the Superintendent or the Superintendent’s designee as indirect or representative payee may be deposited directly into the patient’s representative or indirect payee trust account. Notification of receipt of the check and the deposit thereof in the representative or indirect payee trust account shall be made in the next quarterly statement to the patient, a guardian or conservator, and the patient’s designee, if any.
(10) Discharge from State Institution. At or before discharge from a state institution, each patient, a guardian or conservator, and the patient’s designee, if any, shall be provided with a statement containing the following information:
(a) The patient’s continuing obligation under state law to reimburse the state for the actual cost of the patient’s care and maintenance, according to the patient’s ability to pay;
(b) The patient may contest payments made to the State of Oregon for charges for institutional care and maintenance during the period of recent hospitalization;
(c) Copies of the relevant state laws and administrative rules regarding the patient’s post-discharge right to contest payments made to the State of Oregon for charges for institutional care and maintenance will be made available to the patient or other interested party on request;
(d) Copies of monthly statements of transactions concerning the activity in the patient’s agency trust account and quarterly statement of representative or indirect payee trust account may be made available to the patient, legal representative, or other designated person not otherwise prohibited from seeing them upon request.
(11) Incapacity to Perform:
(a) The patient’s treatment team at the state institution may certify in writing that a patient’s mental illness or mental retardation has rendered the patient incapable of even minimal understanding of any of the notices provided for in this rule. Notwithstanding any other provision of this rule, should such certification occur, the Division or state institution is not required to provide the patient with the various forms of notice otherwise required by this rule;
(b) Certification that a patient’s mental illness or mental retardation renders the patient incapable of understanding the notice provided by this rule shall be reviewed and redetermined annually by the Superintendent as part of the patient’s annual plan of care.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.510 – 179.530
- MHD 16-1980, f. & ef. 6-24-80
- MHD 9-1980(Temp), f. & ef. 4-18-80
- MHD 42(Temp), f. & ef. 9-9-76
Or. Admin. R. 309-013-0035 Purpose and Statutory Authority
(1) Purpose. The Pay for Patient and Resident Workers Program was established to support the goals or the patient’s or resident’s treatment/training plan. These rules establish standards and procedures for administering the agency payroll system for patient and resident workers in state institutions.
(2) Statutory Authority. These rules are authorized by ORS 413.042, and carry out the provisions of ORS 179.440, 426.385 and 427.031.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.385 & 179.440
- MHD 2-1985, f. & ef. 2-7-85
- MHD 2-1981, f. & ef. 6-25-81
Or. Admin. R. 309-013-0040 Definitions
As used in these rules:
(1) “Appointment Notice” means the form used at the institution to enter a patient or resident worker into the agency payroll system.
(2) “Division” means the Addictions and Mental Health Division of the Oregon Health Authority.
(3) “Patient Worker” means a person in a state institution for the mentally or emotionally disturbed who performs work for pay that is of therapeutic benefit to the patient.
(4) “Resident Worker” means a person in a state institution for the mentally retarded and other developmentally disabled who performs work for pay that is of training benefit to the resident.
(5) “State Institution” means all Oregon State Hospital campuses.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.385 & 179.440
- BHS 2-2021, amend filed 01/15/2021, effective 01/15/2021
- BHS 7-2020, temporary amend filed 04/21/2020, effective 04/21/2020 through 10/17/2020
- MHD 2-1985, f. & ef. 2-7-85
- MHD 2-1981, f. & ef. 6-25-81
Or. Admin. R. 309-013-0045 Wage Standards
(1) State institutions shall ensure a fair and equitable system to calculate reasonable compensation for work performed by patient and resident workers.
(a) The compensation rate shall reflect the community pay rates for similar jobs;
(b) Be calculated using labor market information through Oregon Employment Department; and
(c) Be adjusted annually by January 31 of each year.
(2) Patients and residents will be allowed, upon request, to review their record used to calculate their reasonable wage.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.385 & 179.440
- BHS 2-2021, amend filed 01/15/2021, effective 01/15/2021
- BHS 7-2020, temporary amend filed 04/21/2020, effective 04/21/2020 through 10/17/2020
- MHD 2-1985, f. & ef. 2-7-85
- MHD 2-1981, f. & ef. 6-25-81
Or. Admin. R. 309-013-0055 Hiring Procedure
(1) Prior to employment, all patient and resident workers must be informed verbally, and in writing, of their rights with respect to their working relationship with the state institution. Those rights are as follows:
(a) To receive reasonable compensation for all work performed, other than personal housekeeping chores;
(b) To receive overtime compensation for work performed in excess of an eight hours per day or 40 hours per week;
(c) To refuse any work except personal housekeeping chores and, that which is essential for their treatment or training;
(d) To review their productivity rating if less than 100 percent.
(2) The institution must complete an appointment notice for each patient and resident worker.
(3) Each patient worker and resident worker must complete a Form W-4.
(4) Each patient and resident worker without a Social Security number must apply for and receive one prior to employment.
(5) Each patient and resident worker who receives Social Security benefits (SSI or SSD), or is eligible for Title XIX, must be informed that an earnings record will be sent to those offices for possible payment adjustment.
(6) Each patient and resident worker under 18 years of age must have a work permit prior to employment.
(7) If applicable, the patient or resident worker must sign, in the presence of a witness, the Notice to Patient/Resident Worker form, (MHD-ADM-0169), prior to beginning work. No billing for cost of care based on agency earnings will predate the delivery of this notice.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.385 & 179.440
- MHD 2-1985, f. & ef. 2-7-85
- MHD 2-1981, f. & ef. 6-25-81
Or. Admin. R. 309-013-0060 Payroll Procedure
(1) Each state institution will use a gross payroll system for processing the agency payroll for patient and resident workers. Biennial budgets for agency payroll will be based on expected gross payroll expenses.
(2) The work supervisor will keep a record of each patient or resident worker’s work times and/or specific tasks completed.
(3) Each institution shall adopt written procedures, approved by the Division Administrator, to prepare, distribute, and account for agency payroll payments.
(4) Payroll records will be maintained in accordance with the appropriate record retention requirements of the Secretary of State’s Archives Division.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.385 & 179.440
- MHD 2-1985, f. & ef. 2-7-85
- MHD 2-1981, f. & ef. 6-25-81
Or. Admin. R. 309-013-0075 Purpose and Statutory Authority
(1) Purpose. These rules prescribe procedures for handling cases of fraud and embezzlement involving Division employees working in the central office or state institutions, persons working under personal service contracts with the Division, and service providers and subcontractors of service providers contracting with the Division.
(2) Statutory Authority. These rules are authorized by ORS 179.040 and 413.042, and carry out the provisions of 430.021(2).
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.021
- MHD 18-1982, f. & ef. 8-6-82
Or. Admin. R. 309-013-0080 Definitions
As used in these rules:
(1) “Central Office” means all organizational elements of the Addictions and Mental Health Division which are not a part of a state institution.
(2) “Division” means the Addictions and Mental Health Division of the Oregon Health Authority.
(3) “Embezzlement” means any action to willfully take or convert to one’s own use, money or property of another, which the wrongdoer acquired lawfully through some office or employment or position of trust.
(4) “Fraud” means any action by an individual to knowingly, willfully and with deceitful intend take or use for their own personal gain money or property which does not belong to them.
(5) “Service Provider” means a public or private community agency or organization that provides a particular mental health service (such as preschool services for the developmentally disabled, a detoxification center, or a day treatment program) approved by the Division. An agency organization may provide more than one service element, and more than one agency or organization in a county may provide the same service element.
(6) “State Institution” means Dammasch State Hospital in Wilsonville, Oregon State Hospital in Salem, Fairview Training Center in Salem, and Eastern Oregon Hospital and Training Center in Pendleton.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.021
- MHD 18-1982, f. & ef. 8-6-82
Or. Admin. R. 309-013-0085 Reporting of Suspected Fraud and Embezzlement
(1) Upon discovery, all cases of suspected fraud and embezzlement related to the central office shall be referred, along with all related information, to the Administrator. The Administrator shall review the case, call upon appropriate sources to investigate, and notify appropriate authorities.
(2) In case of suspected fraud or embezzlement involving a state institution, the superintendent of the institution shall review the case, call upon appropriate sources to investigate, and notify appropriate authorities. All cases under review shall be reported to the Administrator.
(3) Each service provider contracting with the Division shall report in writing the details of all cases of suspected fraud and embezzlement involving its employees and/or the employees of its subcontractors to the Division’s Administrator not later than one working day after the date the alleged activity comes to their attention. The report shall describe the incident and action being taken to resolve the problem.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.021
- MHD 18-1982, f. & ef. 8-6-82
Or. Admin. R. 309-013-0090 Investigation of Suspected Fraud and Embezzlement
(1) In cases of suspected fraud and embezzlement involving funds and resources of the Division:
(a) The Administrator shall begin the investigation immediately and may, in the course of investigation, call upon the services of appropriate law enforcement agencies, the Attorney General, the Division Audit Unit, and/or other who may be of assistance in developing the case;
(b) A service provider which has contracted with the Division is responsible for developing cases of suspected fraud and embezzlement involving its employees and/or the employees of its subcontractors, and is responsible for referral to the proper authorities. However, the Division may assume control of any case not handled to the Division’s satisfaction.
(2) In cases of suspected fraud and embezzlement which do not involve funds and resources of the Division:
(a) The aggrieved parties shall seek their own resolution, and the Division will not become involved in development of the case or prosecution, except it may intervene in cases involving resources of clients of service providers;
(b) The Division shall review the case to determine whether the lack of internal controls which allowed fraud or embezzlement to occur might also endanger Division resources. If that possibility exists, the service provider shall be required to adopt and follow procedures which the Division decides are needed to minimize chances for recurrence of the fraud or embezzlement. Failure of the service provider to adopt and follow such procedures shall constitute grounds for refusing to contract with the service provider in the future, and for terminating the existing contract.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.021
- MHD 18-1982, f. & ef. 8-6-82
Or. Admin. R. 309-013-0095 Consequences of Failure to Adopt Procedures
Failure of a service provider to adopt and follow procedures which the Division decides are needed to minimize chances for fraud and embezzlement of Division resources shall constitute grounds for terminating any contract between the Division and that service provider. If the service provider is a subcontractor of a service provider contracting with the Division, then such failure on the part of the subcontractor shall constitute grounds for stipulation by the Division that no Division managed funds be used for payment to that subcontractor.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.021
- MHD 18-1982, f. & ef. 8-6-82
Or. Admin. R. 309-013-0100 Disclosure Requirement
Disclosure must be made to the Division before a contract is entered into, or at the time it becomes known, of the name of any person who has ownership or control interest of five percent or more, or is an officer, director, agent, or managing employee, and has been convicted of a criminal offense related to the involvement of such person in any such program, including theft of patient funds. Failure to make this disclosure shall constitute grounds for terminating that contract.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.021
- MHD 18-1982, f. & ef. 8-6-82
Or. Admin. R. 309-013-0105 Disciplinary Action
Fraud or embezzlement of Division resources and/or patient or resident funds committed by Division employees shall constitute grounds for disciplinary action. The type and extent of disciplinary action will be determined in accordance with the Division’s collective bargaining agreements and “Personnel Relations Law, Personnel Rules and Personnel Policies.” Notwithstanding any portion of these rules, existing agreements with unions representing the employee(s) involved, governing complaint investigation, shall be observed.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.021
- MHD 18-1982, f. & ef. 8-6-82
Or. Admin. R. 309-013-0120 Purpose and Statutory Authority
(1) Purpose. These rules establish a Division procedure for audits of community mental health programs, mental health organizations and their subcontractors and vendors and any service provider agreeing to offer services through direct contract with the Division. These rules also establish basic record keeping standards for programs subject to audit under these rules, establish procedures for appealing audit findings, and set out a process to implement the findings of the final audit report.
(2) Statutory Authority. These rules are authorized by ORS 179.040, 413.042 & 430.640 and are promulgated to enable the Division to carry out its responsibilities under ORS 414.018 to 414.024 and 430.610 through 430.695.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 413.042 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 414.018 & 430.610–430.695
- MHD 15-1998, f. 8-12-98, cert. ef. 9-1-98, Renumbered from 309-013-0020
- MHD 9-1978, f. & ef. 12-11-78
Or. Admin. R. 309-013-0130 Definitions
(1) “Audit” means the examination of documents, records, reports, systems of internal control, accounting and financial procedures, and other evidence for one or more of the following purposes:
(a) To ascertain whether the financial statements present fairly the financial position and the results of financial operations of the fund types and/or account groups in accordance with Generally Accepted Accounting Principles and federal and state rules and regulations;
(b) To determine compliance with applicable laws, rules, regulations and contract provisions;
(c) To review the efficiency and economy with which operations are carried out; and
(d) To review effectiveness in achieving program results.
(2) “Capital Construction” is an expenditure related to construction or remodeling of physical facilities with a projected cost of $250,000 or more.
(3) “Capital Improvement” is an expenditure related to construction or remodeling of physical facilities with a projected cost of more than $5,000 but less than $250,000.
(4) “Capital Outlay” are purchases of equipment and tangible personal property of a non-expendable nature which have a useful life of more than one year. The minimum dollar threshold for determining if a purchase is capital outlay can not exceed the amount set for state purchases of capital outlay. The current threshold for the State of Oregon is $5,000, however, a lessor amount may be used.
(5) “Community Mental Health Program (CMHP)” means the organization of all services for individuals with mental or emotional disturbances, developmental disabilities or chemical dependency, operated by, or contractually affiliated with, a local mental health authority, operated in a specific geographic area of the state under an intergovernmental agreement or direct contract with the Division.
(6) “Direct Contractor” means a person or organization which operates under a direct contract with the Division to provide services to persons with mental or emotional conditions and/or developmental disabilities.
(7) “Internal Auditor” means auditors within the Audit Unit of the Division.
(8) “Internal Control Structure” means the plan of organization including all of the methods and measures adopted within a business to safeguard its assets, check the accuracy and reliability of its accounting data, and promote operational efficiency and adherence to management’s policies.
(9) “Local Mental Health Authority (LMHA)” means the county court or board of county commissioners of one or more counties who choose to operate a CMHP; or, if the county declines to operate or contract for all or part of a CMHP, the board of directors of a public or private corporation which contracts with the Division to operate a CMHP for that county.
(10) “Addictions and Mental Health Division (Division)” means the Oregon Health Authority (Authority) Agency responsible for the administration of the State mental health and developmental disability services to persons who qualify for certain programs under federal and state laws, rules and regulations.
(11) “Mental Health Organization (MHO)” means a Prepaid Health Plan under contract with the Division to provide covered services under the Oregon Health Plan Medicaid Demonstration Project. MHOs can be Fully Capitated Health Plans (FCHPs), CMHPs or private MHOs or combinations thereof.
(12) “Non-allowable Expenditures” means expenditures made by a contractor or subcontractor of the Division which are not consistent with relevant federal and state laws, rules, regulations and contract provisions. To be allowable, expenditures must be necessary and reasonable for the proper and efficient performance of the contracted services. If only state funds are involved, expenditures will be evaluated based on state laws and rules, the contract provisions, and whether they are necessary and reasonable for the proper and efficient performance of the contracted services. When federal funds are involved, determination of allowable expenditures includes, but is not limited to, those rules and regulations itemized and referred to in applicable Office of Management and Budget circulars.
(13) “Office of Medical Assistance Programs (OMAP)” means the office of the Oregon Health Authority responsible for coordinating the Medical Assistance Program within the State of Oregon.
(14) “Reasonable Cost” means a cost that in nature or amount does not exceed that which would be incurred by a prudent person under the circumstance prevailing at the time the decision was made to incur the cost. Consideration shall be given to whether the cost is of a type generally recognized as ordinary and necessary for the operation of the organization; what restraints or requirements exist such as those imposed by factors of generally accepted sound business practices, federal and state laws and regulations, and terms and conditions of the contract; whether the individuals concerned acted with prudence in the circumstances, considering their responsibilities to the organization, their employer, their clients, the public and the governments; and whether significant deviations from the organization’s established practices unjustifiably increase costs.
(15) “Service Element” means a distinct service or combination of services as defined in Part III of the Intergovernmental Agreement for persons with mental or emotional conditions and or developmental disabilities provided in the community setting by a contract with the Division or through a subcontract with a local mental health authority.
(16) “Service Provider” means a public or private community agency or organization contracted by the Division that provides recognized mental health or developmental disability service(s) and is approved by the Division or other appropriate agency to provide these service(s). For the purpose of this rule, “provider” or “program” is synonymous with “service provider.”
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 413.042 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 414.018 & 430.610–430.695
- MHD 15-1998, f. 8-12-98, cert. ef. 9-1-98, Renumbered from 309-013-0020
- MHD 9-1978, f. & ef. 12-11-78
Or. Admin. R. 309-013-0140 Scope and Application of the Rule
Under these rules, the Division may audit any service provider that provides any part of the community mental health program including the community mental health program itself, Mental Health Organizations providing services under the Oregon Health Plan including subcontractors and vendors providing mental health services, or any direct contractor. The scope of the audit shall include only Division funds or related matching funds. However, Division may include other funds in its tests to the extent necessary to audit Division funds or matching funds. These rules shall be read and applied consistently with OAR 309-014-0000 (Community Mental Health Contractors) or the Division of Medical Assistance Programs general rules (OAR 410-120-0000 through 410-120-1980) when these are applicable.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.610–430.695
- MHD 15-1998, f. 8-12-98, cert. ef. 9-1-98, Renumbered from 309-013-0020
- MHD 9-1978, f. & ef. 12-11-78
Or. Admin. R. 309-013-0150 Revenue
(1) A service provider shall maintain a revenue account for each income source which results from the operation of the service or is used to support the service. For example, separate revenue accounts shall be established for each service element for which the provider receives payment from Division or the Division of Medical Assistance Programs, direct federal payments, donations, fees, interest earned, rentals collected from subleases and parking lots, sales of capital equipment, training grants or any other source of income.
(2) Only cash revenue may be used to match state funds unless the Division gives prior authorization in writing to use contributed services or property to match state funds.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 413.042 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 414.018 & 430.610–430.695
- MHD 15-1998, f. 8-12-98, cert. ef. 9-1-98, Renumbered from 309-013-0020
- MHD 9-1978, f. & ef. 12-11-78
Or. Admin. R. 309-013-0160 Expenses
(1) A service provider subject to audit under these rules shall keep its accounting records consistent with Generally Accepted Accounting Principles. Accounting records shall be retained for three years from the date of the expiration of the Division’s agreement or from the finalization of an audit, whichever comes later. Allocation methods for expenses shall be documented. Relevant calculations representing allocations shall be shown. The allocation method shall reasonably distribute expenses which are shared by service providers or service elements. Charges assessed against a service provider by a related organization shall be justified by the related organization as to the method and reason for relevant cost allocation. The expense invoice shall list the location where services and supplies purchases are delivered for any item in excess of $1,000.
(2) Record requirements for Personal Services:
(a) Reports reflecting the distribution of labor of each employee must be maintained for all staff members, professional and nonprofessional, whose compensation is charged in whole or in part to Division funds. To support the allocation of indirect costs, such reports must also be maintained for other employees whose work involves two or more functions or activities if a distribution of their compensation between such functions or activities is needed in the determination of the organization’s indirect cost rate(s). Reports maintained to satisfy these requirements must meet the following standards:
(A) The reports must reflect an after-the-fact determination of the actual activity of each employee. Budget estimates (i.e., estimates determined before the services are performed) do not qualify as support for charges to Division funds;
(B) Each report must account for the total activity for which employees are compensated and which is required in fulfillment of their obligations to the organization;
(C) The reports must be signed by the individual employee, or by a responsible supervisory official having first-hand knowledge of the activities performed by the employee, to attest that the distribution of activity represents a reasonable distribution of the actual work performed by the employee during the periods covered by the reports;
(D) The reports must be prepared at least monthly and must coincide with one or more pay periods;
(E) Periodic time studies, in lieu of ongoing time reports, may be used to allocate salary and wage costs. However, the time studies used must meet the following criteria:
(i) A minimally acceptable time study must encompass at least one full week per month of the cost reporting period;
(ii) Each week selected must be a full work week (e.g., Monday to Friday, Monday to Saturday or Sunday to Saturday);
(iii) The weeks selected must be equally distributed among the months in the cost reporting period, e.g., for a 12 month period three of the 12 weeks in the study must be the first week beginning in the month, three weeks the second week beginning in the month, three weeks the third and three weeks the fourth;
(iv) No two consecutive months may use the same week for the study, (e.g., if the second week beginning in April is the study week for April, the weeks selected for March and May may not be the second week beginning in those months);
(v) The time study must be contemporaneous with the costs to be allocated. Thus, a time study conducted in the current cost reporting year may not be used to allocate the costs of prior or subsequent cost reporting years;
(vi) The time study must apply to a specific provider. Thus, chain organizations may not use a time study from one provider to allocate the costs of another provider or a time study of a sample group of providers to allocate the costs of all providers within the chain.
(b) Any person being compensated for services to a service provider who is not an employee of the organization shall have a written contract with the service provider. The contract shall set forth the specific services being purchased, the contract time period, the rate at which compensation will be paid and an hourly rate where applicable.
(3) Record Requirements for Capital Expenditures:
(a) Depreciation for capital outlay, capital improvements, and capital construction shall be documented in a depreciation schedule. The depreciation schedule at a minimum shall include a description of the asset, date of acquisition, cost basis, depreciation method, estimated useful life, annual depreciation expense and accumulated depreciation.
(b) Any capital expenditures purchased by a service provider using Division funds shall be listed on an inventory system showing location of item and reference to purchase invoice and payment receipt location. The inventory shall be checked annually and verification of the inventory list signed by the inventory control person. All capital items purchased with Division funds must be used in an Division approved program.
(4) Reasonable Procedures will be established to ensure the security of cash, blank checks, purchase orders, check protector machines, and signature stamps.
(5) A service provider must expend funds consistent with an intergovernmental agreement or direct contract, these rules, the required program or licensing rule, and federal and state requirements. For service elements contracted with a predetermined rate, Division funds not used in delivering the service of the required quantity and quality shall be classified as carryover. Carryover of Division administered funds shall be spent for Division services. These funds shall be kept in restricted accounts in the financial records. Funds spent on unallowed costs shall be considered noncompliance and shall be returned to Division.
(6) All travel expenses shall be supported by a system of authorized trip reports, receipts, and/or other documentation. Authorization is indicated by approval of the travel expenditure by the Director (or person with delegated authority) of the service provider.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 413.042 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 414.018 & 430.610–430.695
- MHD 15-1998, f. 8-12-98, cert. ef. 9-1-98, Renumbered from 309-013-0020
- MHD 9-1978, f. & ef. 12-11-78
Or. Admin. R. 309-013-0170 Audit Process and Reports
(1) Any person, organization, or agency, including the Division, may request an audit of a community mental health program or any service provider offering a service thereunder or any direct contractor by submitting an audit request in writing to the Division Internal Audit Unit Coordinator. The request shall clearly identify the service provider to be audited, setting forth its name, location, program director, the period for which the audit is requested and the reason for the request.
(2) The Internal Audit Unit Coordinator shall review the request and arrange for scheduling if an audit is considered appropriate. The Internal Audit Unit Coordinator shall notify appropriate Assistant Administrators of the audit schedule.
(3) The Assistant Administrator of the Division for the Office of Finance has the discretion to notify the appropriate community mental health program director of the scheduled audit in advance. The Division retains the right to perform an audit without prior notice to the subject service provider.
(4) Upon completion of the audit, the Internal Audit Unit Coordinator shall prepare a report setting forth the findings, recommendations, and auditee responses where applicable. Audit work papers shall be available showing the details of the audit findings.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 413.042 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 414.018 & 430.610–430.695
- MHD 15-1998, f. 8-12-98, cert. ef. 9-1-98, Renumbered from 309-013-0020
- MHD 9-1978, f. & ef. 12-11-78
Or. Admin. R. 309-013-0180 Disposition of Audit Findings
(1) To the extent an audit documents non-allowable expenditures in non-capitated programs, the Division shall recover such funds.
(2) To the extent an audit report evidences non-compliance with applicable program and/or licensing rules, the audit findings may be referred to the Administrator of the Division to assess civil penalties, where applicable, or for other corrective action deemed necessary by the program office.
(3) Notwithstanding any other provisions of these rules, to the extent an audit report reveals non-compliance with Generally Accepted Accounting Principles or these rules, the Division may require corrective action to bring the deficiencies into compliance with state and federal rules and regulations. Non-compliance which results in substantial misrepresentation of financial activities may result in termination of the license and/or contract upon consultation with Division program offices and/or the local mental health authority.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 413.042 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 414.018 & 430.610–430.695
- MHD 15-1998, f. 8-12-98, cert. ef. 9-1-98, Renumbered from 309-013-0020
- MHD 9-1978, f. & ef. 12-11-78
Or. Admin. R. 309-013-0190 Provider Appeals
(1) A provider may appeal certain decisions affecting the provider by making a written request to the Division Assistant Administrator for the Office of Finance. The request must state whether the provider wants an administrative review, and/or a contested case hearing, as outlined in the OMAP General Rules OAR 410-120-1560, Provider Appeals, through 410-120-1840, Provider Hearings-Role of Hearings Officer. If the subject service provider decides to appeal the audit, it shall set forth in writing the reasons for its appeal within 30 days of receipt of the report.
(2) When the Division seeks to recover funds under these rules, the Division shall negotiate the terms and conditions of repayment with the audited service provider, after consultation with the community mental health program director or the MHO director (if applicable).
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 413.042 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 414.018 & 430.610–430.695
- MHD 15-1998, f. 8-12-98, cert. ef. 9-1-98, Renumbered from 309-013-0020
- MHD 9-1978, f. & ef. 12-11-78
Or. Admin. R. 309-013-0200 Basic Accounting Records
A service provider subject to audit under these rules shall maintain a chart of accounts that defines all items included in determining the cost for each service element. The chart of accounts shall list all revenues and expense accounts. The organization shall have bank deposit records and documentation to verify the source of revenue. Revenue and expense accounts, with related asset, liability, and equity accounts, shall account for all expenditures related to delivery of the service. All basic accounting records shall be retained for at least three years following the expiration of the contract or from the finalization of an audit including any appeal, whichever is later.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 413.042 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 414.018 & 430.610–430.695
- MHD 15-1998, f. 8-12-98, cert. ef. 9-1-98, Renumbered from 309-013-0020
- MHD 9-1978, f. & ef. 12-11-78
Or. Admin. R. 309-013-0210 Internal Controls
Establishing and maintaining an internal control structure is the responsibility of the service provider. Effective internal controls are considered essential to achieving the proper conduct of business with full accountability for the resources made available. Internal controls shall be implemented and maintained to provide reasonable assurance that:
(1) The provider identifies, assembles, classifies, records, analyzes, and reports its transactions in conformity with Generally Accepted Accounting Principles or appropriate regulatory requirements for preparing financial statements and other required financial reports;
(2) Losses or misappropriations of assets due to errors or irregularities in processing transactions and handling the related assets are prevented or detected;
(3) Noncompliance with applicable federal and state laws and rules and regulations and terms of the contract is prevented or detected;
(4) State and federal funds are reasonably, prudently and economically spent; and
(5) All costs are appropriately allocated among programs, departments, and other benefiting units.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 413.042 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 414.018 & 430.610–430.695
- MHD 15-1998, f. 8-12-98, cert. ef. 9-1-98, Renumbered from 309-013-0020
- MHD 9-1978, f. & ef. 12-11-78
Or. Admin. R. 309-013-0220 Independent Audit Reports
The Division may, in its discretion, accept an independent audit, in lieu of a Division audit, if it determines the workpapers and procedures of the independent auditor meet Government Auditing Standards (where applicable), Generally Accepted Auditing Standards and other audit standards which may be adopted by the Division.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 413.042 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 414.018 & 430.610–430.695
- MHD 15-1998, f. 8-12-98, cert. ef. 9-1-98, Renumbered from 309-013-0020
- MHD 9-1978, f. & ef. 12-11-78
Division 14 COMMUNITY MENTAL HEALTH PROGRAMS
Or. Admin. R. 309-014-0000 Purpose and Statutory Authority
(1) Purpose. These rules prescribe general administrative standards for Division community mental health programs.
(2) Certificate Required: To receive a certificate for the provision of behavioral health treatment services a Community Mental Health Program must meet the criteria under OAR 309-008-0100 to 309-008-1600; in addition, the Opioid Treatment Program must:
(3) Renewal: The renewal of a Certificate shall be governed by OAR 309-008-0100 to 309-008-1600.
(4) Denial, Revocation, Nonrenewal, Suspension: The denial, revocation, nonrenewal, or suspension of a letter of approval or license for an opioid treatment program may be based on any of the grounds set forth in OAR 309-008-1100.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.610 – 430.695
- MHS 23-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-1-16
- MHD 13-2000, f. 9-15-00, cert. ef. 9-16-00
- MHD 14-1982, f. & cert. ef. 7-7-82, Sec. (3) thru (13) Renumbered to 309-014-0005 thru 309-014-0040
- MHD 39, f. 5-20-76, cert. ef. 6-11-76
Or. Admin. R. 309-014-0005 Definitions
As used in these rules:
(1) “Certificate” means the document or documents issued by the Division, which identifies and declares certification of a provider pursuant to OAR 309-008-0100 to 309-008-1600. A letter accompanying issuance of the certificate will detail the scope and approved service delivery locations of the certificate.
(2) “Chief Officer” means the Chief Health Systems Officer of the Oregon Health Authority, or his or her designee.
(3) “CMHP” means "Community Mental Health Program": an entity that is responsible for planning and delivery of safety net services for persons with mental or emotional disturbances, drug abuse problems, and alcoholism and alcohol abuse in a specific geographic area of the state under a contract with the Division or a local mental health authority.
(4) "CMHP Program Area" means the organization of all services for persons with either mental or emotional disturbances, drug abuse problems, or alcoholism and alcohol abuse problems, operated by, a local mental health authority, operated in a specific geographic area of the state under a contract with the Division.
(5) "CMHP Director" means the director of a CMHP who operates or contracts for all services for persons with mental or emotional disturbances, drug abuse problems, and alcoholism and alcohol abuse problems under the omnibus contract with the Division.
(6) "Community Mental Health Advisory Committee" means the advisory committee to a local mental health authority.
(7) "Division" means the Health Systems Division of the Oregon Health Authority.
(8) "Individual" means a person receiving services under these rules. (9) "Local Mental Health Authority" means the county court or board of county commissioners of one or more counties who operate a community mental health program, or in the case of a Native American reservation, the tribal council, or if the county declines to operate or contract for all or part of a community mental health program, the board of directors of a public or private corporation.
(9) "Local Revenues" means all money, other than state or federal grant or contract funds, expended by a local mental health authority and any of its subcontractors for community mental health services and included in the approved community mental health contractor plan and budget. However, federal funds expended for alcoholism treatment and rehabilitation services provided under ORS 430.345 to 430.380 in accordance with ORS 430.359(3) by community mental health contractors shall be considered local revenues.
(10) "Omnibus Contract" means the Financial Assistance Grant Agreement or contract between the Health Systems Division and a local mental health authority for all services for persons with mental or emotional disturbances, drug abuse problems, and alcoholism and alcohol abuse problems, operated in a specific geographic area.
(11) "Quality Assurance" means a systematic procedure for assessing the effectiveness, efficiency, and appropriateness of services provided by the community mental health contractor.
(12) "Service Element" means a distinct service or group of services for person with mental or emotional disturbances, drug abuse problems, and alcoholism and alcohol abuse problems, operated in the community under a contract with the Health Systems Division, or under contract with a local mental health authority.
(13) "Service Provider" means an entity or person that delivers services funded wholly or in part by the Division under a contract with the Division.
(14) "State Institution" means Oregon State Hospital in Junction City and Salem.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.610 – 430.640
- MHS 23-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-1-16
- MHD 13-2000, f. 9-15-00 cert. ef. 9-16-00
- MHD 8-2000(Temp), f. 3-20-00, cert. ef. 3-21-00 thru 9-16-00
- MHD 14-1982, f. & ef. 7-7-82, Renumbered from 309-014-0000(3)
- MHD 39, f. 5-20-76, ef. 6-11-76
Or. Admin. R. 309-014-0010 Purpose of a Community Mental Health Program
The purpose of a CMHP is to provide a system of appropriate, accessible, coordinated, effective, efficient safety net services to meet the mental health needs of the citizens of the community.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.610 – 430.640
- MHS 23-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-1-16
- MHD 13-2000, f. 9-15-00, cert. ef. 9-16-00
- MHD 14-1982, f. & ef. 7-7-82, Renumbered from 309-014-0000(4)
- MHD 39, f. 5-20-76, ef. 6-11-76
Or. Admin. R. 309-014-0015 Division Responsibility for Community Addictions and Mental Health
The Division shall assist the local mental health authority in establishing and operating community mental health services and shall integrate such services with other mental health system components in the state by:
(1) Assessing needs for community mental health services in the state.
(2) Identifying priorities among needs and preparing state plans for community mental health disability services.
(3) Conducting the Division's activities in the least costly and most efficient manner so that delivery of services to the mentally or emotionally disturbed, alcohol abuser, alcoholic, drug abuser and drug-dependent persons shall be effective, coordinated and integrated with other services within the Oregon Health Authority.
(4) Obtaining resources and contracting with local mental health authorities for the operation of community mental health safety net service.
(5) Subject to the availability of funds, providing public information, program consultation, technical assistance, and training concerning community mental health services.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.610 – 430.640
- MHS 23-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-1-16
- MHD 13-2000, f. 9-15-00, cert. ef. 9-16-00
- MHD 14-1982, f. & cert. ef. 7-7-82, Renumbered from 309-014-0000(4) & (7)
- MHD 39, f. 5-20-76, cert. ef. 6-11-76
Or. Admin. R. 309-014-0020 Program Director Qualifications
(1) The CMHP Director shall be a full time employee of the local mental health authority or the public or private corporation operating the community mental health program;
(2) The CMHP Director shall meet the following requirements:
(a) Hold at least a master's degree in a behavioral, social, health science, special education, public administration, or human service administration; and
(b) Have a minimum of five years of experience in human services programs, two of which are in community mental health and two of which are program managerial experience in human services; and
(c) Present references documenting experience, training, and ability to manage a community mental health program.
(3) When the position of community mental health program director becomes vacant, an interim director shall be appointed to serve until a permanent director is appointed.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.610 – 430.640
- MHS 23-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-1-16
- MHD 13-2000, f. 9-15-00, cert. ef. 9-16-00
- MHD 8-2000(Temp), f. 3-20-00, cert. ef. 3-21-00 thru 9-16-00
- MHD 14-1982, f. & cert. ef. 7-7-82, Renumbered from 309-014-0000(5), (6), (9), (10) & (12)
- MHD 39, f. 5-20-76, cert. ef. 6-11-76
Or. Admin. R. 309-014-0021 Management Functions
(1) In addition to other duties as may be assigned in the area of developmental disability services, the CMHP shall, at a minimum, assure the following duties are performed:
(a) Develop plans as may be needed to provide a coordinated and efficient use of resources available to serve people with developmental disabilities;
(b) Develop positive and cooperative working relationships with families, advocates, service providers, the Division, and other state and local agencies with an interest in developmental disability services;
(c) Assure collection and timely reporting of information as may be needed to conduct business with the Division, including but not limited to information needed to license foster homes, to collect federal funds supporting services, and to investigate complaints related to services or suspected individual abuse; and
(2) Management Plan. The CMHP shall maintain a plan assigning responsibility for the management functions and duties described in this section. The community mental health program shall assure that the functions and duties are assigned to people who have the knowledge and experience necessary to perform them.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.610 – 430.640
- MHS 23-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-1-16
Or. Admin. R. 309-014-0022 Contracts
(1) In keeping with the principles of family support expressed in ORS 417.342, and notwithstanding 430.670(2) or 291.047(3), an entity operating a CMHP may purchase services for an individual from a service provider without first providing an opportunity for competition among other service providers if the service provider is selected by the individual, the individual’s family or the individual’s guardian, as long as the service provider has been approved by the Division to provide such service.
(2) Limit on contract requirements. When a CMHP contracts with a public agency or private corporation for delivery of developmental disability services, the CMHP shall include in the contract only terms that are substantially similar to model contract terms established by the Division. The CMHP may not add contractual requirements, including qualifications for contractor selection, which are nonessential to the service element(s) being provided under the contract. The CMHP shall specify in contracts with service providers that disputes, which arise from these limitations, shall be resolved according to procedures contained in these rules. For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
(a) "Model contract terms established by the Division" means all applicable material terms and conditions of the omnibus contract, as modified to appropriately reflect a contractual relationship between the service provider and the CMHP, and any other requirements approved by the Division as local options under procedures established in these rules.
(b) "Substantially similar to model contract terms" means that the terms developed by the CMHP and the model contract terms require the service provider to engage in approximately the same type activity and expend approximately the same resources to achieve compliance.
(c) "Nonessential to the service element(s) being provided" means requirements that are not substantially similar to model contract terms developed by the Division.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.610 – 430.640
- MHS 23-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-1-16
Or. Admin. R. 309-014-0023 The Appeal Process
(1) Notice of Appeal.
(a) If a service provider believes that the contract offered by the CMHP contains terms or conditions that are not substantially similar to those established by the Division in the model contract, the service provider may appeal imposition of the disputed terms or conditions by sending a written notice of appeal to the Division’s Chief Officer within 30 calendar days after the effective date of the contract requirement. The notice of appeal shall include:
(A) A copy of the contract and any pertinent contract amendments;
(B) Identification of the specific term(s) that are in dispute; and
(C) A complete written explanation of the dissimilarity between terms.
(D) The service provider shall send a copy of its notice of appeal to the CMHP. Upon receipt of this notice, the CMHP shall suspend enforcement of compliance with any contract requirement under appeal by the contractor until the appeal process is concluded.
(2) The Chief Officer or designee, shall offer to meet with both to mediate a solution. If a solution cannot be mediated, the Chief Officer shall declare an impasse through written notification to all parties and immediately appoint a panel to consider arguments from both parties.
(3)(a) The Mediation Panel The panel shall include, at a minimum, a representative from the Division, a representative from another CMHP, and a representative from another service provider organization.
(b) The panel shall meet with the parties, consider their respective arguments, and send written recommendations to the Chief Officer of the Division within 45 business days after an impasse was declared. If an appeal requiring panel consideration has been received from more than one contractor, the Division may organize materials and discussion in any manner it deems necessary, including combining appeals from multiple contractors, to assist the panel in understanding the issues and operating efficiently.
(c) The Chief Officer shall notify all parties of his/her decision within 15 business days after receipt of the panel’s recommendations. The decision of the Administrator is final. The CMHP shall take immediate action to amend contracts as needed to comply with the Administrator’s decision.
(3)(a) Expedited Appeal Process. The CMHP or the contractor may request an expedited appeal process that provides a temporary resolution, if it can be shown that the time needed to follow procedures to reach a final resolution would cause imminent risk of serious harm to individuals or organizations.
(b) The request shall be made in writing to the Division’s Chief Officer. It shall describe the potential harm and level of risk that will be incurred by following the appeal process. The Division shall notify all parties of its decision to approve an expedited appeal process within two business days.
(c) If an expedited process is approved, the Chief Officer shall notify all parties of his/her decision concerning the dispute within three additional business days. The Chief Officer’s decision resulting from an expedited appeal process shall be binding, but temporary, pending completion of the appeal process. All parties shall act according to the Chief Officer’s temporary decision until notified of a final decision.
(4) Exception to Facility Requirements. The CMHP may add contract requirements that the CMHP considers necessary to ensure the siting and maintenance of residential facilities in which individual care is provided. These requirements shall be consistent with all applicable state and federal laws and regulations related to housing.
(5) Needs Assessment and Planning. The CMHP shall assess local needs for services to persons with mental or emotional disturbances, drug abuse problems, mental retardation or other developmental disabilities, and alcoholism and alcohol abuse problems. The CMHP shall plan for meeting those needs within the constraints of resources available. The local mental health authority shall review and approve the plan before it is submitted to the Division.
(6) Monitoring. The local mental health authority shall monitor all CMHP service elements to assure that:
(a) Service elements are provided as specified in the contract with the Division; and
(b) Service elements are in compliance with these rules and other applicable Division administrative rules.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.610 – 430.640
- MHS 23-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-1-16
Or. Admin. R. 309-014-0025 Management of Community Mental Health Program Areas
Each CMHP contractor providing a community mental health program area under a contract with the Division is required to meet the following standards for management:
(1) Organizations:
(a) Each CMHP area contractor shall have an up-to-date organization chart showing the line of authority and responsibility from the local mental health authority to the CMHP area director and to each of the components of the CMHP area contractor;
(b) For all components of the community mental health program area contractor operated by agencies other than the local mental health authority, there shall be a contract between the local mental health authority and the subcontract agency specifying the authorities and responsibilities of each party and conforming to the requirements of any Division rule pertaining to contracts.
(2) Needs Assessment and Planning: When the Division contracts for a CMHP program area, the contractor shall assess local needs for services to persons within that program area, and shall plan to effectively and efficiently meet those needs within the constraints of available resources. The local mental health authority shall review and approve the plan before it is submitted to the Division.
(3) Monitoring: The local mental health authority shall monitor all community mental health service elements within the program area to assure that:
(a) Service elements are provided as specified in the contract with the Division; and
(b) Service elements are in compliance with these rules and other applicable Division administrative rules.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.610 – 430.640
- MHS 23-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-1-16
- MHD 13-2000, f. 9-15-00, cert. ef. 9-16-00
- MHD 14-1982, f. & cert. ef. 7-7-82, Renumbered from 309-014-0000(5) & (6)
- MHD 39, f. 5-20-76, cert. ef. 6-11-76
Or. Admin. R. 309-014-0030 Management of All Service Elements
All contractors providing community mental health service elements under a contract with the Division are required to meet the following standards for management:
(1) Fee Policy. For all community mental health service elements, except local administration and those provided by a public education district, the agency providing the service element shall:
(a) Determine the cost of each type of service element provided;
(b) Establish a schedule of fees for service elements based on the costs of the service elements, adjusted on the basis of the client's ability to pay;
(c) At the time the service elements is initiated, inform the client of the agency fee policy, the agency fee schedules, and the fee rate to be collected from the client in the event that third party payments do not cover the cost of the client's service elements;
(d) Billings for Title XIX funds shall in no case exceed the customary charges to private clients for any like item or service charged by the service element; and
(e) Charge fees for service elements as follows:
(A) Except where expressly prohibited by federal law or regulation, when third party payments do not cover the full fee for the service elements provided, charge the client or those legally responsible for the cost of the client's care, in an amount which is the lesser of:
(i) The balance of the fee charged to but not paid by the third party payor(s); or
(ii) A fee adjusted on the basis of the client's ability to pay.
(B) Charge any third party payor in the amount of the full fees for the service elements provided. Should the sum of any third party payments and client payments exceed the fee, a refund of the excess payment shall be given to the client.
(2) Quality Assurance. Each provider of community mental health and developmental disability service elements shall implement and maintain a quality assurance program.
(3) Internal Management. Each provider of CMHP service elements funded by the Division shall meet the following internal management standards:
(a) There shall be an up-to-date organization chart showing lines of authority and responsibility for the services within the agency;
(b) There shall be up-to-date, written position descriptions for all staff providing community mental health and developmental disability services;
(c) If four or more staff provide CMHP services, there shall be written personnel policies and procedures concerning:
(A) Recruitment and termination of employees;
(B) Compensation plan;
(C) Performance appraisals, promotions and merit increases, and staff development;
(D) Employee benefits; and
(E) Grievance procedures.
(d) Each employee providing CMHP services shall have the opportunity for in-service training with pay;
(e) There shall be up-to-date accounting records for each mental health service element accurately reflecting all revenue by source, all expenses by object of expense, and all assets, liabilities, and equities, consistent with generally accepted accounting principles and conforming to the requirements of OAR 309-013-0120 to 309-013-0220;
(f) There shall be written statements of policy and procedure as are necessary and useful to assure compliance with any administrative rule pertaining to fraud and embezzlement and abuse of patients, residents, and clients; and
(g) There shall be such other written statements of policy and procedure as are necessary and useful to enable the agency to accomplish its mental health service objectives and to meet the requirements of these rules and other applicable standards and rules.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.610 – 430.640
- MHS 23-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-1-16
- MHD 13-2000, f. 9-15-00, cert. ef. 9-16-00
- MHD 14-1982, f. & cert. ef. 7-7-82, Renumbered from 309-014-0000(5) & (6)
- MHD 39, f. 5-20-76, cert. ef. 6-11-76
Or. Admin. R. 309-014-0035 Delivery of CMHP Service Elements
All community mental health contractors providing community mental health service elements under a contract with the Division are required to meet the following general standards for delivery of community mental health service elements:
(1) Eligibility for Service:
(a) In accordance with the Civil Rights Act of 1964, community mental health services shall not be denied any person on the basis of race, color, creed, sex, national origin or duration of residence. Community mental health contractors shall also comply with Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 as implemented by 45 CFR 84.4, which states in part, "No qualified person shall, on the basis of handicap, be excluded from participation in, be denied benefits of, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity which receives or benefits from federal financial assistance";
(b) No person shall be denied services or be discriminated against on the basis of age or diagnostic or disability category unless predetermined clinical or program criteria for service restrict the service to specific age or diagnostic groups or disability category;
(c) No person shall be denied community mental health services based on ability to pay;
(d) Any person eligible for community mental health services provided by one agency shall also be eligible for other CMHP services provided by any other agency, unless admission to the service is subject to diagnostic or disability category or age restrictions based on predetermined criteria.
(2) Continuity and Coordination:
(a) Each agency providing community mental health services shall make pertinent clinical and financial eligibility information concerning a client of the agency readily available to other community mental health service agencies responsible for the client's care, consistent with state statutes and federal laws and regulations concerning confidentiality;
(b) In the event that a person seeking or receiving services from one community mental health contractor requires services not provided by the contractor, the person shall be referred to an available appropriate agency which can provide the needed services;
(c) Planning and implementation of service for clients of the community mental contractor shall be coordinated between components of the community mental health and developmental disability contractor, and other human service agencies, and between components of the community mental health contractor and state institutions. Each CMHP or community mental health program area contractor shall maintain a written agreement with state institutions serving the county. The agreement shall include, but need not be limited to:
(A) The procedures to be followed to assure necessary communication between the state institution and the community mental health program or CMHP area contractor when a client is admitted to, and discharged from, the state institution and during the period of care, treatment or training;
(B) The type of client information which will be shared by the CMHP area contractor and the state institution, the manner in which the information will be transmitted and the times when such information will be provided;
(C) The names of the staff members from the state institution and the CMHP area contractor, who will have principal responsibility for liaison and implementation of the agreement; and
(D) Each agreement between the state institution and a CMHP, or program area contractor, shall be reviewed and renewed at least once a year.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.610 – 430.640
- MHS 23-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-1-16
- MHD 13-2000, f. 9-15-00, cert. ef. 9-16-00
- MHD 14-1982, f. & cert. ef. 7-7-82, Renumbered from 309-014-0000(8) & (11)
- MHD 39, f. 5-20-76, cert. ef. 6-11-76
Or. Admin. R. 309-014-0036 Records
(1) Service Records. A record shall be maintained for each client who receives direct treatment training and/or care services. The record shall contain client identification, problem assessment, treatment, training and/or care plan, medical information when appropriate; and progress notes.
(2) Retention of Records. Records shall be retained in accordance with OAR 166-005-0000 through 166-040-0010 (State Archivist). Financial records, supporting documents, statistical records, and all other records (except client records) shall be retained for a minimum of three years after the close of the contract period, or until audited. Client records shall be kept for a minimum of seven years.
(3) Confidentiality of Client Records. Client records shall be kept confidential in accordance with ORS 179.505, 45 CFR 205.50 and 42 CFR Part 2, any Division administrative rule pertaining to client records, and the most current edition of the Division Handbook on Confidentiality.
(4) Client Rights. Each agency providing any community mental health service shall have written procedures to assure:
(a) Protection of client privacy and dignity;
(b) Confidentiality of records consistent with state statutes and federal statutes and regulations;
(c) Involvement of the client in planning the service through the provision of information, presented in general terms, which explains the following:
(A) The treatment to be undertaken;
(B) Alternative treatment methods available, if any; and
(C) Risks that may be involved in the training or treatment, if any.
(d) Client's right to refuse service unless otherwise ordered by a court; and
(e) Client is provided with information, presented in general terms, concerning the agency fee policies.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.610 – 430.640
- MHS 23-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-1-16
Or. Admin. R. 309-014-0037 Dispute Resolution
(1) The CMHP shall adopt a dispute resolution policy that pertains to disputes that may arise from contracts with service providers that deliver services funded by the Division for the CMHP. Procedures implementing this policy shall be included in the contract with any such service provider.
(2) When a dispute exists between a county or a CMHP and a service provider regarding the terms of their contract or the interpretation of an administrative rule of the Division relating to Division programs under ORS Chapter 430, and local dispute resolution efforts have been unsuccessful, either party may request assistance from the Division in mediating the dispute.
(a) Procedure. The parties shall demonstrate a spirit of cooperation, mutual respect, and good faith in all aspects of the mediation process. Mediation shall be conducted as follows:
(A) Request. The party requesting mediation shall send a written request to the Division Chief Officer, the CMHP director, and the provider agency director, unless other persons are named as official contact persons in the specific rule or contract under dispute. The request shall describe the nature of the dispute and identify the specific rule or contract provisions that are central to the dispute.
(B) Arrangements. The Chief Officer or designee, shall arrange the first meeting of the parties at the earliest possible date. The agenda for the first meeting should include:
(i) Consideration of the need for services of an outside mediator. If such services are desired, agreement should be made on arrangements for obtaining these services.
(ii) Development of rules and procedures that will be followed by all parties during the mediation;
(iii) Agreement on a date by which mediation will be completed, unless extended by mutual agreement.
(C) Cost. Unless otherwise agreed to by all parties:
(i) Each party shall be responsible for the compensation and expenses of their own employees and representatives; and
(ii) Costs that benefit the group, such as services of a mediator, rental of meeting space, purchase of snack food and beverage, etc. shall be shared equally by all parties.
(b) Final Report. A written statement documenting the outcome of the mediation shall be prepared. This statement shall consist of a brief written statement signed by all parties or separate statements from each party declaring their position on the dispute at the conclusion of the mediation process. In the absence of written statements from other parties, the Division representative shall prepare the final report. The final report on each mediation shall be retained on file at the Division. The Division will, from time to time, or as requested by the legislature or others, prepare summary reports that describe the success of mediation in resolving disputes.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.610 – 430.640
- MHS 23-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-1-16
- MHD 13-2000, f. 9-15-00, cert. ef. 9-16-00
- MHD 8-2000(Temp), f. 3-20-00, cert. ef. 3-21-00 thru 9-16-00
Or. Admin. R. 309-014-0040 Variances
(1) Requirements and standards for requesting and granting variances or exceptions are found in OAR 309-008-1600.
(2) Division Review and Notification: The Division must approve or deny the request for a variance to these rules within the scope and authority The Division must be made in writing using the Division approved variance request form and following the variance request procedure compliant with OAR 309-008-1600.
(3) Granting a variance for one request does not set a precedent that must be followed by the Division when evaluating subsequent requests for variance.
(4) A variance granted by the Division shall be attached to, and become part, of the contract for that year.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.610 – 430.640
- MHS 23-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-1-16
- MHD 13-2000, f. 9-15-00, cert. ef. 9-16-00
- MHD 14-1982, f. & cert. ef. 7-7-82, Renumbered from 309-014-0000(13)
- MHD 39, f. 5-20-76, cert. ef. 6-11-76
Or. Admin. R. 309-014-0300 Purpose and Scope
These rules relate to the implementation of Chapter 418, Oregon Laws 2011 sections 13 through 20. The scope is limited to the creation of the Central Health Council and the implementation of the Central Oregon Health Improvement Plan.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: 2011 OL Ch. 418 & Sec. 13-19
- MHS 3-2012, f. & cert. ef. 2-23-12
- MHS 6-2011(Temp), f. 8-26-11, cert. ef. 9-1-11 thru 2-28-12
Or. Admin. R. 309-014-0310 Definitions
(1) “Authority” means the Oregon Health Authority (OHA).
(2) “Central Oregon Health Council” (COHC) means a council which shall, as a minimum, conduct a regional health assessment and adopt a regional health improvement plan to serve as a strategic population health and health care system service plan for the region served by the council.
(3) “Commission” means the Commission on Children and Families.
(4) “Council” means the Central Oregon Health Council (COHC).
(5) “Plan” means the Regional Health Improvement Plan.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: 2011 OL Ch. 418 & Sec. 13-19
- MHS 3-2012, f. & cert. ef. 2-23-12
- MHS 6-2011(Temp), f. 8-26-11, cert. ef. 9-1-11 thru 2-28-12
Or. Admin. R. 309-014-0320 Regional Health Improvement Plan
(1) The Regional Health Improvement Plan (RHIP) submitted by the Central Oregon Health Council, defined in OAR 309-014-0300, must include, but need not be limited to the following:
(a) Federally required components;
(b) Health policy;
(c) System design;
(d) Outcome and quality improvement;
(e) Integration of service delivery and
(f) Workforce development.
(2) Any additional requirements to the RHIP will be agreed upon in advance by the Council, the Authority and the Commission.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: 2011 OL Ch. 418 & Sec. 13-19
- MHS 3-2012, f. & cert. ef. 2-23-12
- MHS 6-2011(Temp), f. 8-26-11, cert. ef. 9-1-11 thru 2-28-12
Or. Admin. R. 309-014-0330 Central Oregon Health Council
(1) The council may not convene until the governing body of each county adopts a resolution signifying the body’s intention to do so.
(2) Subsequent to the formation of the council, a county that is adjacent to Crook, Deschutes or Jefferson County may join the council if:
(a) The governing body of the county seeking to join the council adopts a resolution signifying the body’s intention to include a portion of that county in the region served by the council;
(b) The portion of the county to be included in the region is part of a natural health care referral pattern with the other counties on the council; and
(c) The authority and the council approve.
(3) The COHC shall consist of no more than 11 members, including:
(a) A formative council consisting of:
(A) One member each from the governing bodies of Crook, Deschutes and Jefferson Counties, appointed by each body;
(B) The chief executive officer, or a designee of the chief executive officer, of the health care system serving the region; and
(C) The chief executive officer, or a designee of the chief executive officer, of the Medicaid contractor serving the region; and
(b) At least three members appointed by the formative council established under paragraph (3)(a)(A) of this rule. Members appointed under this section shall be representatives of:
(A) Consumers of physical and behavioral health services;
(B) Health care professionals;
(C) School districts or educational service districts;
(D) The business community; or
(E) A member from the governing body of each county that joins the council defined in (3)(a)(A) of this rule.
(4) The term of office of the members of the council is four years.
(5) A majority of the members of the council constitutes a quorum for the transaction of business.
(6) The council shall elect a member of the council to serve as the chairperson.
(7) If there is a vacancy for any cause, the appointing authority shall make an appointment to the vacated position to become effective immediately.
(8) The council may enter into necessary contracts, apply for and receive grants, hold and dispose of property and take other actions necessary to carry out the activities, services and responsibilities assumed by the council.
(9) The council may adopt rules necessary for the operation of the council.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: 2011 OL Ch. 418 & Sec. 13-19
- MHS 3-2012, f. & cert. ef. 2-23-12
- MHS 6-2011(Temp), f. 8-26-11, cert. ef. 9-1-11 thru 2-28-12
Or. Admin. R. 309-014-0340 Central Oregon Health Improvement Plan (COHIP)
(1) The COHC shall develop a health improvement plan as detailed in OAR 309-017-0030.
(2) The COHIP will replace all prior plans required by the Authority in ORS 430.630, 430.640, 431.385 and 624.510 and plans required by the State Commission on Children and Families under ORS 417.705 through 417.801.
(3) The COHC will submit the plan no later than March 1, 2012 to the Authority.
(4) The Authority shall have 45 days from the date the plan is submitted to review the plan and return it to the Council either approved or with suggested modifications.
(a) If modifications are suggested the Council will have 45 days to respond to the suggestions and resubmit the plan.
(b) The Authority will have a final 30 days to review the plan.
(5) The plan is effective July 1, 2012.
(6) New plans must be submitted every four years if the sunset in the enabling legislation is removed by the Legislative Assembly.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: 2011 OL Ch. 418 & Sec. 13-19
- MHS 3-2012, f. & cert. ef. 2-23-12
- MHS 6-2011(Temp), f. 8-26-11, cert. ef. 9-1-11 thru 2-28-12
Division 15 MEDICAID PAYMENT FOR PSYCHIATRIC HOSPITAL INPATIENT SERVICES
Or. Admin. R. 309-015-0000 Purpose and Statutory Authority
(1) Purpose. These rules prescribe the eligibility criteria, methods, and standards for payments to psychiatric hospitals through the Division of Medical Assistance Programs, Oregon Health Authority. The rules apply to provision of psychiatric hospital inpatient services for persons eligible for medical assistance under the Basic Health Program (Section 1331 of the Affordable Care Act), which the Authority calls OHP Bridge – Basic Health Program, and Medicaid (Title XIX of the Social Security Act).
(2) Statutory Authority. These rules are authorized by ORS 413.042 and HB 4035 (2022) and carry out the provisions of ORS 414.025, 414.065, and 414.085 and Title XIX of the Social Security Act and 42 CFR 441, Subparts C and D and Section 1331 of the Affordable Care Act.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 414.025 & 414.065 & 414.241
- BHS 12-2024, amend filed 05/29/2024, effective 06/01/2024
- MHD 2-1994, f. & cert. ef. 2-24-94
- MHD 12-1990, f. & cert. ef. 10-15-90
- MHD 7-1987, f. & ef. 12-30-87
- Reverted to MHD 21-1983, f. & ef. 12-5-83
- MHD 12-1985(Temp), f. & ef. 7-1-85
- MHD 21-1983, f. & ef. 12-5-83
- MHD 17-1983(Temp), f. 9-30-83, ef. 10-1-83
Or. Admin. R. 309-015-0005 Definitions
(1) “Active Treatment” means implementation of a professionally developed and supervised plan of care that is in effect within 14 days of admission and designed to achieve the patient’s discharge at the earliest possible time. Custodial care is not active treatment.
(2) “Actual Costs” means all legitimate Medicaid expenditures. Since Oregon’s Addictions and Behavioral Health Division utilizes Medicare cost finding principles, actual costs must be the same as “Medicaid Allowable Costs” as defined in this rule.
(3) “Allowable Costs” means the costs applicable to the provision of psychiatric inpatient services as described in OAR 309-015-0050(3). They are derived using the Medicare cost finding principles located in the Medicare Provide Reimbursement Manual.
(4) “Annual Cost Report” means a financial report submitted to the Medicare/Medicaid Fiscal Intermediary by a hospital, on forms provided by the Fiscal Intermediary. This report details the actual revenues and expenses of the hospital during the latest fiscal period.
(5) “Base Year” means July 1, 1981 through June 30, 1982.
(6) “Basic Health Program” means Section 1331 of the Affordable Care Act, which the state calls “OHP Bridge – Basic Health Program.”
(7) “Disproportionate Share Adjusted Medicaid Rate” (DSR) means the weighted average Medicaid per diem rate (interim, year-end settlement or final settlement) for disproportionate share hospitals. This rate does not include the disproportionate share payment of uncompensated costs of participating hospital programs as provided in these rules.
(8) “Disproportionate Share Costs” means costs that are reimbursable under federal disproportionate share statutes and regulations. These costs are limited to costs of participating hospital programs which have not already been reimbursed by Medicare, Medicaid, insurance, or the patient’s own resources.
(9) “Disproportionate Share Hospital” means a psychiatric hospital which has a low-income utilization rate exceeding 25 percent as described in OAR 309-015-0035(5).
(10) “Disproportionate Share Payment” means the payment made quarterly to reimburse participating hospital programs for disproportionate share costs. This payment is subject to recalculation at the time of each year-end or final settlement payment.
(11) “Distinct Program” means a specialized inpatient psychiatric treatment program with unique admission standards approved by the Division. If a participating psychiatric hospital has a specialized program based upon patient age or medical condition, contains 50 or more beds, has a nursing staff specifically assigned to the program which has experience or training in working with the specialized population, and has record keeping systems adequate to separately account for expenditures and revenue to that program relative to the entire hospital, the Division may approve it as a distinct program.
(12) “Division” means the Addictions and Behavioral Health Division of the Oregon Health Authority.
(13) “Fiscal Intermediary” means:
(a) Blue Cross of Oregon for Medicare, Parts A and B; and
(b) Division for Medicaid services provided under the provisions of this rule;
(c) The Division’s Assistant Administrator for Administrative Services, is the designated Fiscal Intermediary.
(14) “Inpatient Psychiatric Services” means active treatment services provided under the direction of a licensed physician by a participating psychiatric hospital.
(15) “Interim Per Diem Rate” means the daily rate established with and paid to each provider for the agreement period during which reimbursable services are to be provided.
(16) “Low Income Utilization Rate” means the sum of the ratio of a hospital’s Medicaid revenues (plus governmental subsidies) to total revenue added to the ratio of a hospital’s proportion of charity care expenditures (less governmental subsidies) to total inpatient psychiatric services charges (as outlined in OAR 309-015-0035(5)).
(17) “Maximum Allowable Rate” means the statewide average per diem cost for services as derived in accordance with OAR 309-015-0020 and 309-015-0021.
(18) “Medicaid” means Title XIX of the Social Security Act.
(19) “Medicaid Allowable Costs” means that portion of total costs determined to be eligible for Medicaid reimbursement. Medicaid allowable costs are determined based on the amount of allowable cost for inpatient services by making the following calculations:
(a) For all providers, determine the reasonable cost of covered services furnished by multiplying the ratio of Medicaid patient days to total patient days by total allowable inpatient costs;
(b) For proprietary providers, determine the allowable return on equity capital invested and used for the provision of patient care by following the general rule outlined in 42 CFR 413.157(b);
(c) Adding the results of the calculations in subsections (a) and (b) of this section to establish the full Medicaid allowable cost.
(20) “Medicaid Intermediary” for the purpose of services provided under this rule, means the Assistant Administrator for Administrative Services, Addictions and Behavioral Health Division.
(21) “Medicaid Patient Days” means the accumulated total number of days, including therapeutic leave days, during which psychiatric inpatient services were provided to Medicaid eligible patients during a cost reporting period. The Fiscal Intermediary must determine the total number of Medicaid patient days on the basis of dates of service per patient by provider and fiscal period.
(22) “Medicaid Inpatient Utilization Rate” means the following fraction (expressed as a percentage) for a hospital:
(a) “Numerator”: The hospital’s number of inpatient days attributable to patients who (for such days) were eligible for Title XIX medical assistance under the state Medicaid plan and for whom the Division of Medical Assistance Programs made payment during the fiscal period;
(b) “Denominator”: The total number of the hospital’s inpatient days for the same period.
(23) “Medicare Market Basket Percentage Increase” means the annual allowable increase factor for a standard array of hospital services nationwide as published annually by the Health Care Financing Administration. The percentage is a component of the “Target Rate Percentage Increase” as defined in section (29) of this rule.
(24) “Non-Allowable Costs” means any costs excluded under the provisions of state and federal statutes, regulations, and administrative rules.
(25) “Participating Psychiatric Hospital” means those portions of a licensed psychiatric hospital certified to provide services to Medicaid patients.
(26) “Patient Eligibility” means persons eligible for medical assistance under Medicaid who meet the criteria for admission to psychiatric hospital inpatient services as defined in these rules and OAR 309-031-0200 through 309-031-0255.
(27) “Resident in the Hospital” means a patient who is in the facility at least 12 hours of each day, including the hours of sleep. The day of admission is exempt from this 12 hour rule; however, to be counted for residence purposes, the day of admission must extend through midnight (2,400 hours). The day of discharge is not counted.
(28) “Sanction” means:
(a) Termination of contract with the Division to provide psychiatric hospital services for Medicaid eligible patients;
(b) Suspension of contract with the Division to provide psychiatric hospital services for Medicaid eligible patients; or
(c) Suspension or withholding of payments to a provider. (See OAR 309-015-0052 for further information.)
(29) “Separate Cost Entity” means an entity of a hospital for which Medicare has approved the submission of a separate cost report.
(30) “Target Rate Percentage Increase” means the annual allowable increase factor applied to the previous year’s maximum allowable rate for psychiatric hospitals and hospital units excluded from the prospective payment system. This percentage includes the Medicare market basket percentage increase as a component and is published annually by the Health Care Financing Administration.
(31) “Therapeutic Leave Days” means a planned and medically authorized period of absence from the hospital not exceeding 72 hours in seven consecutive days.
(32) “Total Patient Days” means the accumulated total number of days, excluding non-Medicaid therapeutic leave days, during which psychiatric inpatient services were provided to patients during a cost reporting period. The fiscal intermediary must determine the total number of patient days on the basis of dates of service per patient by provider and fiscal period.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 414.025 & 414.065 & 414.241
- BHS 12-2024, amend filed 05/29/2024, effective 06/01/2024
- MHD 2-1994, f. & cert. ef. 2-24-94
- MHD 12-1990, f. & cert. ef. 10-15-90
- MHD 6-1989, f. & cert. ef. 11-17-89
- MHD 7-1987, f. & ef. 12-30-87
- MHD 21-1983, f. & ef. 12-5-83
- MHD 17-1983(Temp), f. 9-30-83, ef. 10-1-83
Or. Admin. R. 309-015-0007 General Conditions of Eligibility and Treatment
In order for payment to be made by the Division, the following conditions must be met:
(1) Medicaid-eligible age. The patient must be eligible for Medicaid benefits, be aged 65 or over, aged 20 or under, or aged 21 and receiving services at the time of reaching age 21.
(2) Written plan of care. A professionally developed written plan of care for each patient will describe treatment objectives and prescribe an integrated program of appropriate therapy activities and experiences designed to improve the patient’s condition to the extent that inpatient care is no longer necessary.
(3) Unemancipated minor consultation. If the patient is under 18 years of age and not emancipated, the facility shall consult with the parent(s), legal guardian or others into whose care or custody the person will be released following discharge. The consultation shall be documented in the hospital records.
(4) Conformance with these rules. The Division has determined that admission and care of the patient who is eligible for Medicaid benefits is in accordance with these rules and regulations as evidenced by the hospital record.
(5) Service provider requirements. The service provider must meet all requirements for participation under OAR 309-015-0010.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 414.025 & 414.065
- MHD 6-1989, f. & cert. ef. 11-17-89
- MHD 7-1987, f. & ef. 12-30-87
Or. Admin. R. 309-015-0010 Conditions of Service Provider Participation
(1) Medicaid certification. A service provider must be certified by the responsible state or federal authority as meeting federal Medicaid certification requirements for psychiatric hospital inpatient services.
(2) Written agreement with the Division. A service provider must provide medically prescribed psychiatric hospital inpatient services to patients eligible for Medicaid benefits under terms of a written agreement with the Division. The agreement must assure that the psychiatric hospital and the services provided comply with all applicable state and federal requirements. No billing for Medicaid payment will be paid until a service provider has fully executed a written agreement with the Division.
(3) Legislative compliance. A service provider must be in compliance with:
(a) Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964;
(b) Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973;
(c) The Age Discrimination Act of 1975;
(d) The Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990; and
(e) Any other applicable federal and state laws.
(4) Medicaid vendor number. A service provider must request a vendor number from the Division. No billing for Medicaid payment will be paid until a service provider has secured a Medicaid vendor number.
(5) Patient admission. A service provider must obtain approval for the admission of patients to the psychiatric hospital as required by Addictions and Mental Health Division’s OARs 309-031-0200 through 309-031-0255 (Admission and Discharge of Mentally Ill Persons).
(6) Clinical records. A service provider must maintain clinical records which are adequate to document the need for psychiatric hospital inpatient services, and the specific services provided, including mental health assessment, diagnosis, and treatment plans.
(7) Fiscal records. A service provider must maintain fiscal records in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles.
(8) Patient funds. A service provider must provide an accounting for any funds accepted from the patient for safekeeping. Such accounts will be available for inspection by personnel designated by the Division.
(9) Records review. A service provider must maintain the availability of financial and treatment records for review without notice by authorized personnel of the Medicaid Intermediary and of the United States Department of Health and Human Services during normal business hours at the location of its licensed psychiatric hospital.
(10) Reimbursement for services. A service provider must accept payment from the Division through the Division of Medical Assistance Programs as full and total reimbursement for the Medicaid services provided.
(11) Annual cost reports. A service provider must submit annually to the Division a Medicaid cost report accompanied by a copy of the provider’s Medicare cost report.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 414.025 & 414.065
- MHD 12-1990, f. & cert. ef. 10-15-90
- MHD 6-1989, f. & cert. ef. 11-17-89
- MHD 7-1987, f. & ef. 12-30-87
- MHD 21-1983, f. & ef. 12-5-83
- MHD 17-1983(Temp), f. 9-30-83, ef. 10-1-83
Or. Admin. R. 309-015-0020 Establishing the Base Year and the Initial Maximum Allowable Rate
(1) Base year. In order to establish a base year rate, the Medicaid Intermediary used cost statements which overlapped the base period (July 1, 1981 through June 30, 1982) for all Oregon hospitals who were either:
(a) Licensed as psychiatric hospitals on the effective date of these rules (10-1-83) and in operation during the base period; or
(b) Were applicants for Joint Commission on Accreditation of Hospitals (JCAH) accreditation as a psychiatric hospital on the first effective date of these rules and had operated as a licensed hospital during the base period.
(2) Reporting period adjustments. If a psychiatric hospital’s cost report was for a period either longer or shorter than 12 months, the Medicaid allowable costs were reduced or increased, as appropriate, by multiplying the total allowable costs by the ratio that 12 months bore to the number of months in the hospital’s report period. This procedure resulted in a prorated 12-month cost projection for use in establishing the statewide average per diem rate for the base period.
(3) Inflation factor adjustments. If a psychiatric hospital had a fiscal period other than the base period, the hospital’s Medicaid allowable costs were adjusted by applying the relevant inflation factors from the Medicare market basket index so that the Medicaid costs corresponded to the base period. The inflation factors were applied to the interval between the mid-point of the hospital’s fiscal period and the mid-point of the base period. The number of Medicaid patient days in the hospital’s fiscal period were used as the number of days in the base period.
(4) Rate calculation. The total Medicaid allowable costs from all hospitals included in the base period divided by the total number of Medicaid patient days from all hospitals included in the base period yielded the statewide average per diem cost (maximum allowable rate) for the base period.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 414.025 & 414.065
- MHD 6-1989, f. & cert. ef. 11-17-89
- MHD 21-1983, f. & ef. 12-5-83
- MHD 17-1983(Temp), f. 9-30-83, ef. 10-1-83
Or. Admin. R. 309-015-0021 Establishing the Maximum Allowable Rate for Years Following the Base Period
(1) Base rate usage. The statewide average per diem cost for the base period has been used as the fixed base for determining the maximum allowable reimbursement rate for all fiscal periods following the base period.
(2) Subsequent period rate calculations. The maximum allowable reimbursement rate for each new fiscal period affected by these rules is now calculated by inflating the maximum allowable reimbursement rate for the previous period by the annual Health Care Financing Administration target percentages for PPS — excluded hospitals (as published in the Federal Register). This percentage increase is applied from the mid-point of the previous period to the mid-point of the 12-month period for which the rate is being established.
(3) Hospitals with other fiscal periods. When a psychiatric hospital has a fiscal period other than that used by the State of Oregon, July 1 through June 30, the applicable maximum allowable rate for each month will be the same as the maximum allowable rate in effect that month for hospitals operating under the state fiscal period.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 414.025 & 414.065
- MHD 12-1990, f. & cert. ef. 10-15-90
- MHD 6-1989, f. & cert. ef. 11-17-89
Or. Admin. R. 309-015-0023 Interim Rate Setting
Rate establishment process. At least annually, the Medicaid intermediary will establish an interim Medicaid per diem rate for each participating psychiatric hospital, separate cost entity or distinct program within a hospital:
(1) A hospital may request an interim per diem rate or rates. If a review of the hospital’s prior year Medicaid cost report (adjusted for inflation, changes in patient populations and programs and other relevant factors) does not justify the requested rate(s), the Medicaid Intermediary may establish different interim rate(s):
(a) Actual expenditures for the most recent fiscal period available will be used to determine salary and wage and total expense distribution for each cost center included in the total expenditures. Any other directly relevant event, such as facility restructuring, will be considered as well;
(b) The Division will apply the proportions from subsection (a) of this section to total anticipated expenditures for the new period to determine salary and wage expense distribution for each cost center during the new period;
(c) The Division will establish and apply capital allowances and other adjustments to total anticipated expenditures for the new period from subsection (b) of this section;
(d) If the hospital has separate cost entities or distinct programs, the hospital will provide estimates to the Division of a weighted average interim rate. The average will be developed by multiplying each proposed interim rate by estimated Medicaid patient days for that rate, summing all of the products, and dividing that sum by the total annual estimated Medicaid patient days for the hospital;
(e) The interim or weighted average interim per diem rate may not exceed the maximum allowable rate unless the hospital meets the criteria for reimbursement above the maximum allowable rate as a disproportionate share hospital (see OAR 309-015-0035(5)). In that case, the interim or average interim Disproportionate Share adjusted Medicaid Rate (DSR) may include estimated costs up to 135 percent of the maximum allowable Medicaid rate except for hospitals meeting criteria set forth in the following paragraph;
(f) If a psychiatric hospital has a low-income rate of 60 percent and also receives 60 percent or more of its service revenue from any combination of the following:
(A) Public funds, excluding Medicare and Medicaid;
(B) Bad debts; or
(C) Free care.
(g) The hospital qualifies to receive disproportionate share payment at a rate based on 100 percent of the costs of uncompensated care during the facility’s previous fiscal year, subject to a disproportionate share allotment established for Oregon by the Health Care Financing Administration;
(h) The Division will base quarterly disproportionate share reimbursements on the estimated costs for each facility during the current fiscal year and will review and adjust the reimbursements, after conclusion of the fiscal period, to correspond with actual costs encountered during the period. Total reimbursement from disproportionate share and other sources will not exceed actual costs.
(2) If a hospital does not request an interim rate, the Medicaid Intermediary will establish an interim rate based on the hospital’s prior year cost report using the same factors listed in section (1) of this rule.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 414.025 & 414.065
- MHD 2-1994, f. & cert. ef. 2-24-94
- MHD 12-1990, f. & cert. ef. 10-15-90
- MHD 6-1989, f. & cert. ef. 11-17-89
- MHD 7-1987, f. & ef. 12-30-87, Renumbered from 309-015-0015
- Reverted to MHD 21-1983, f. & ef. 12-5-83
- MHD 12-1985(Temp), f. & ef. 7-1-85
- MHD 21-1983, f. & ef. 12-5-83
- MHD 17-1983(Temp), f. 9-30-83, ef. 10-1-83
Or. Admin. R. 309-015-0025 Retrospective Settlement Rate Setting (Year End and Final)
(1) Year-end settlement process. The year-end settlement process will be as follows:
(a) Upon receipt of an audited Medicaid cost report from the Supervisor of the Division Audit Section, the Revenue and Rates Manager of the Institutional Revenue Section will determine a retrospective year-end settlement rate for each participating hospital, separate cost entity or distinct program within a hospital on the basis of Division review of actual allowable Medicaid costs reported in the hospital’s cost statement for the previous year;
(b) The year-end settlement rate for a non-disproportionate share hospital will be calculated by using the following procedure:
(A) Divide the applicable Title XIX allowable costs for each participating hospital, separate cost entity, or distinct program by the applicable number of Title XIX patient days, including therapeutic leave days;
(B) If the hospital has more than one distinct program, divide the applicable Medicaid allowable costs by the applicable number of Medicaid patient days, including therapeutic leave days for each program. Then determine the weighted average Medicaid settlement rate for the entire hospital. This is accomplished by multiplying each proposed year-end settlement rate by Medicaid patient days for that rate, adding the products together, and dividing the resulting sum by total Medicaid patient days for the hospital;
(C) If the year-end Medicaid settlement rate or the average year-end Medicaid settlement rate from above is less than the maximum allowable Medicaid rate for psychiatric hospitals during the current fiscal year, use the lower rate;
(D) If the year-end Medicaid settlement rate or the average year-end settlement rate from above exceeds the maximum allowable rate established for psychiatric hospitals during the current fiscal year, use the maximum allowable rate as the retrospective year-end settlement rate for the hospital.
(c) The year-end settlement rate may exceed the maximum allowable rate if the Division determines the hospital meets the criteria listed in OAR 309-015-0035(5) as a disproportionate share hospital;
(d) In that case, the disproportionate share adjusted year-end settlement rate will be calculated as follows:
(A) Actual costs up to 135 percent of the maximum allowable rate; or
(B) Actual costs up to 100 percent of the cost of uncompensated care during the facility’s previous fiscal year, subject to a disproportionate share allotment established yearly by the Health Care Financing Administration, if the psychiatric hospital has a low-income rate of 60 percent and also receives 60 percent or more of its service revenue from any combination of the following:
(i) Public funds, excluding Medicare and Medicaid;
(ii) Bad debts; or
(iii) Free care.
(e) The year-end settlement will be determined by multiplying the settlement “rate” calculated above by the total number of Medicaid patient days, including therapeutic leave days or, for disproportionate share hospitals, multiplying the disproportionate share adjusted rate by the total number of Medicaid patient days, including therapeutic leave days. The result will be compared to the amount of reimbursement paid to the hospital during the fiscal period. If the result favors the hospital, the Division will pay the difference to the hospital. If the result favors the Division, the hospital will pay the difference to the Division. In either case, payments shall be made within 30 days approval of the year-end Medicaid cost report by the Medicaid Intermediary.
(2) Final settlement process. The final settlement process will be as follows:
(a) Upon receipt of the final Medicare Cost Report from the Medicare Intermediary, the hospital provider will prepare the final Medicaid cost report. The Medicaid report will reflect all relevant adjustments made to the Medicare cost report;
(b) Using the final Medicaid cost report developed in subsection (a) of this section, the Division will calculate the final settlement rate and settlement for each participating hospital, separate cost entity or distinct program within a hospital, following the steps outlined in subsections (1)(a) through (d) of this rule.
(3) Upon completion of each settlement, both year-end and final, the Division will review the disproportionate share costs and make any necessary adjustments to quarterly disproportionate share payments. The Division will review all factors relevant to the disproportionate share payments, including actual costs of services, amounts already paid and charges reimbursed from other sources during the time period included in the Medicaid cost settlement.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 414.025 & 414.065
- MHD 2-1994, f. & cert. ef. 2-24-94
- MHD 12-1990, f. & cert. ef. 10-15-90
- MHD 6-1989, f. & cert. ef. 11-17-89
- MHD 7-1987, f. & ef. 12-30-87
- MHD 21-1983, f. & ef. 12-5-83
- MHD 17-1983(Temp), f. 9-30-83, ef. 10-1-83
Or. Admin. R. 309-015-0030 Billing Requirements
(1) Bill submission time limits. Bills shall be submitted to the Division through the Division of Medical Assistance Programs, on forms designated by the Medicaid Intermediary, as soon as possible after the date service is rendered. Payment shall not be made for services which were provided more than 12 months prior to presentation of the claim unless the hospital shows that the delay was caused by factors outside its control.
(2) Billing charge limits. Billings to the Division shall in no case exceed the customary charges to private patients for any like item or service charged by the hospital.
(3) Customary charge criteria. In determining the customary charges to a private patient for use in billings or calculating interim or settlement rates, the following criteria will be applied:
(a) The private patient billing rate must be for items and services comparable to the items and services included in the rate for Medicaid services;
(b) When private patient rates are based on the number of beds in a room, the Medicaid intermediary considers the lowest room charge as the usual and customary charge for services;
(c) When ancillary charges are made to private patients in addition to a basic charge, the Medicaid Intermediary considers the usual and customary charge to be the lowest basic room charge plus the average ancillary charge for those items included in the Medicaid rate. The average ancillary charge is determined by dividing the ancillary costs by the number of patient days; or
(d) Where charges are based on the classification of the patient (i.e., Medicare, Medicaid and Private), the Medicaid Intermediary considers the usual and customary charge to be the rate for private patients exclusive of ancillary charges.
(4) Payment restrictions. Payment will be made only for those days a patient is actually in residence at the hospital in active treatment or when a patient is on therapeutic leave.
(5) Payment credit. Any payment received by the hospital prior to the submission of an invoice to the Division of Medical Assistance Programs shall be indicated as a credit on the invoice.
(6) Post-payment receipt of funds. Any payments to the provider from any source subsequent to payment by the Division of Medical Assistance Programs shall be reported to that Division on an adjustment form specified by the Division of Medical Assistance Programs, giving full particulars. Failure to report such payments will be considered concealment of material facts and is grounds for recovery and/or sanction (see OAR 309-015-0052).
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 414.025 & 414.065
- MHD 2-1994, f. & cert. ef. 2-24-94
- MHD 12-1990, f. & cert. ef. 10-15-90
- MHD 6-1989, f. & cert. ef. 11-17-89
- MHD 7-1987, f. & ef. 12-30-87
- MHD 21-1983, f. & ef. 12-5-83
- MHD 17-1983(Temp), f. 9-30-83, ef. 10-1-83
Or. Admin. R. 309-015-0035 Payments
(1) Timing. Payments to providers will be made following the month of service, based on the invoice submitted by the provider to the Division of Medical Assistance Programs.
(2) Eligible services. Payments will be made for the provision of active psychiatric inpatient treatment services for persons eligible for such services under Medicaid.
(3) Non-eligible services. If review of a psychiatric hospital’s Medicaid patient records by a Professional Standards Review Organization reveals that a patient received an inappropriate level of care, (i.e., less than active treatment), payment will not be allowed under these rules. Any payments to the provider for patients receiving an inappropriate level of care shall be recovered by the Division. Such payments shall be reported to the Division of Medical Assistance Programs on an adjustment form specified by the Division of Medical Assistance Programs. Failure to report such payments will be considered concealment of material facts and is grounds for sanction (see OAR 309-015-0052).
(4) Payment to non-disproportionate share hospitals. The Division shall not pay more in total for psychiatric hospital inpatient services for hospitals which do not serve a disproportionate number of low-income patients with special needs than would be paid under the Medicare principles of reimbursement.
(5) Payment to disproportionate share hospitals. A participating psychiatric hospital may be reimbursed for allowable costs in excess of the maximum rate if it meets the following criteria as described in Section 1923(b)(3) of the Social Security Act: The hospital serves disproportionate numbers of low-income persons; i.e., has a low income utilization rate which exceeds 25 percent using the following formula:
(a) The total Medicaid in-patient revenues paid to the hospital, plus the amount of the cash subsidies received as payment for inpatient services directly from state and local governments in a cost reporting period, divided by the total amount of revenues of the hospital for in-patient psychiatric services (including the amount of such cash subsidies) in the same cost reporting period. The percentage derived in paragraph (a) of this subsection shall be added to the following percentage;
(b) The total amount of the hospital’s charges for in-patient psychiatric services attributable to charity care (care provided to individuals who have no source of payment, third-party or personal resources) in a cost reporting period, less the portion of any cash subsidies for in-patient services received directly from state and local governments described in paragraph (A) of this subsection in the period attributable to in-patient hospital services, divided by the total amount of the hospital’s charges for in-patient psychiatric services in the hospital in the same period. The total in-patient charges attributed to charity care shall not include contractual allowances and discounts (other than for indigent patients not eligible for Medical Assistance under an approved Medicaid State Plan);
(c) The sum of percentages derived in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this subsection shall exceed 25 percent in order to qualify as a disproportionate share hospital; and
(d) The hospital is efficiently and economically operated and is in compliance with treatment and program standards for psychiatric inpatient services as required by the state and federal statutes and regulations.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 414.025 & 414.065
- MHD 2-1994, f. & cert. ef. 2-24-94
- MHD 12-1990, f. & cert. ef. 10-15-90
- MHD 6-1989, f. & cert. ef. 11-17-89
- MHD 7-1987, f. & ef. 12-30-87
- MHD 21-1983, f. & ef. 12-5-83
- MHD 17-1983(Temp), f. 9-30-83, ef. 10-1-83
Or. Admin. R. 309-015-0040 Accounting and Record Keeping
(1) Records retention. The provider shall maintain, for a period of not less than three years following the date of submission of the annual Medicaid cost report to the Medicaid Intermediary, financial and statistical records of the period covered by such statement which are accurate and in sufficient detail to substantiate the cost data reported. If there are audit issues, the records shall be maintained for three years after the final audit settlement. The records shall be maintained in a condition that can be audited for compliance with generally accepted accounting principles and provisions of these rules. Failure to maintain records in such condition shall result in disallowance of costs.
(2) Documentation of allowable costs. Expenses reported as allowable costs must be adequately documented in the financial records of the provider or they shall be disallowed.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 414.025 & 414.065
- MHD 6-1989, f. & cert. ef. 11-17-89
- MHD 7-1987, f. & ef. 12-30-87
- MHD 21-1983, f. & ef. 12-5-83
- MHD 17-1983(Temp), f. 9-30-83, ef. 10-1-83
Or. Admin. R. 309-015-0045 Filing of Annual Medicaid Cost Report
(1) Timing of report. The provider shall file annually with the Medicaid Intermediary, an annual Medicaid cost report covering actual costs based on the latest fiscal period of operation of the facility. If the provider has separate cost entities or distinct programs, an annual Medicaid cost report shall be filed for each entity. A Medicaid cost report will be filed for less than an annual period only when necessitated by facilities terminating their agreement with the Division, or by a change in ownership, or by a change in fiscal period. The provider is to use the same fiscal period for the Medicaid cost report as that used for the Medicare cost report and the federal tax return. The Medicaid cost report is due within 90 days of the end of the normal fiscal period, change of ownership, or withdrawal from the program except when Medicare grants an extension of the Medicare cost report (upon which the Medicaid cost report relies). In that case, the due date for the Medicaid cost report may be extended by the Medicaid Intermediary for the same number of days as the due date for the Medicare cost report.
(2) Contents of report. The annual Medicaid cost report is a uniform cost report containing an itemized list of allowable costs to be used by all providers. It shall report the hospital’s actual financial data and be completed in accordance with instructions provided by the Medicaid intermediary.
(3) Application of Medicare principles of reimbursement. Providers filing annual Medicaid cost reports with the Medicaid Intermediary shall apply Medicare principles of reimbursement.
(4) Signature. Each required annual Medicaid cost report shall be signed by the individual who normally signs the provider’s federal income tax return or other reports. If the report is prepared by someone other than an employee of the provider, the individual preparing the report shall also sign and indicate his or her status with the provider.
(5) Improperly completed reports. The Medicaid Intermediary shall return improperly completed or incomplete annual Medicaid cost reports to the provider for proper completion. All providers shall return corrected or completed reports to the Division within 30 days or become subject to the same penalty as for failure to submit the cost statement.
(6) Reduction of interim per diem rate — Late reports. If the original submission of the Medicaid cost report is not made within the required 90-day time period or extended period (see section (1) of this rule), the interim per diem rate then in effect will be reduced to 80 percent of the hospital’s current interim per diem rate or the rate established from the last audited or desk reviewed cost statement, whichever is lower. This rate will remain in effect until submission of the Medicaid cost report.
(7) Late-billed services. If a hospital bills for services provided during a fiscal period for which the hospital has submitted an annual Medicaid cost report, the days which are late-billed may be included in the hospital’s next fiscal period.
(8) False reports. If a provider knowingly, or with reason to know, files a report containing false information, such action constitutes cause for termination of its agreement with the Division. Providers filing false reports may be referred for prosecution under applicable statutes (see OAR 309-015-0052).
(9) Maintenance of report. The Medicaid Intermediary shall maintain each required annual Medicaid cost report submitted by a provider for three years following the date of submission. In the event there are audit questions, the cost statement shall be maintained for three years after the final audit settlement.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 414.025 & 414.065
- MHD 6-1989, f. & cert. ef. 11-17-89
- MHD 7-1987, f. & ef. 12-30-87
- MHD 21-1983, f. & ef. 12-5-83
- MHD 17-1983(Temp), f. 9-30-83, ef. 10-1-83
Or. Admin. R. 309-015-0050 Auditing
(1) Desk review of annual Medicaid cost report. The Medicaid intermediary will analyze by desk review each annual Medicaid cost report after it has been properly completed and filed.
(2) Scope of desk review. The scope of the desk review will verify, to the extent possible:
(a) That the provider has properly included its allowable costs on the annual Medicaid cost report on the basis of generally accepted accounting principles and the provisions of these rules;
(b) That the provider has properly applied the cost finding method specified by the Medicaid Intermediary to its allowable costs determined in subsection (a) of this section; and
(c) Whether or not the analysis indicates that further auditing of the provider’s financial and statistical records is needed.
(3) Allowable costs. The costs considered allowable may include part or all of the following (worksheet form numbers are correct as of the effective date of this rule):
(a) The costs stated as final values on Worksheet B, HCFA-2552, Cost Allocation for General Services Costs;
(b) Physician costs as determined by completing Worksheet A-8-2, HCFA-2552;
(c) Return on equity as determined by completing the applicable portions of Worksheet F, HCFA-2552.
(4) Ownership changes. Payments to providers shall not be increased, solely as a result of a change of ownership, in excess of the increase which would result from applying Section 1861(v)(1)(O) of the Social Security Act as applied to owners of record on or after July 18, 1984.
(5) Field audit. All filed annual Medicaid cost reports are subject to a field audit.
(6) Scope of field audit. The scope of the field audit will, at a minimum, be sufficiently comprehensive to verify that in all material respects:
(a) Generally accepted accounting principles and the provisions of these rules have been adhered to;
(b) Reported data is in agreement with supporting records; and
(c) The report is reconcilable to the appropriate Medicare report, federal tax return, and payroll tax reports.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 414.025 & 414.065
- MHD 2-1994, f. & cert. ef. 2-24-94
- MHD 6-1989, f. & cert. ef. 11-17-89
- MHD 7-1987, f. & ef. 12-30-87
- MHD 3-1985, f. & ef. 2-25-85
- MHD 10-1984(Temp), f. & ef. 12-21-84
- MHD 21-1983, f. & ef. 12-5-83
- MHD 17-1983(Temp), f. 9-30-83, ef. 10-1-83
Or. Admin. R. 309-015-0052 Provider Sanctions
(1) Basis for sanctioning. The Division will follow the Division of Medical Assistance Program rules OAR 410-120-0000 through 410-120-1980 and Section 1902 of the Social Security Act for provider sanctions. The basis for sanctioning will include:
(a) Criminal convictions;
(b) Exclusion, by the Secretary of Health and Human Services, from participation in the Medicare program;
(c) Not meeting the federal regulatory requirements for services in an institution for mental diseases or a psychiatric hospital as set forth at 42 CFR 435.1009 and 42 CFR 441, Subparts C and D;
(d) Having deficiencies which immediately jeopardize, or may jeopardize, the health and safety of patients;
(e) Abuse and misutilization, as described in OAR 410-120-0000 through 410-120-1980;
(f) Termination:
(A) From another governmental health/medical program;
(B) For failure to repay identified overpayments; or
(C) Due to commission, by a provider formerly suspended by the Division, of additional abuse or misutilization.
(2) Sanctions. The following sanctions may be imposed on a provider by the Division, based on grounds specified in this rule and may include:
(a) Termination from participation in Oregon’s Medical Assistance Program and possible initiation of appropriate civil or criminal proceedings;
(b) Suspension from participation in Oregon’s Medicaid Assistance Program;
(c) Suspension or withholding of payments to a provider;
(d) Required attendance at provider education sessions.
(3) Notice to providers. The Division will notify a deficient provider of action the Division plans to take at least 15 days prior to commencement of the action; the notification will include an explanation of the provider’s right to appeal the proposed action (see OAR 309-015-0055).
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 414.025 & 414.065
- MHD 2-1994, f. & cert. ef. 2-24-94
- MHD 12-1990, f. & cert. ef. 10-15-90
- MHD 6-1989, f. & cert. ef. 11-17-89
Or. Admin. R. 309-015-0055 Appeals
(1) Rate appeals. A letter will be sent notifying the provider of the interim per diem rate, the year-end settlement rate, or the final settlement rate. A provider shall notify the Division in writing within 15 days of receipt of the letter if the provider wishes to appeal the rate. Letters of appeal must be postmarked within the 15-day limit and addressed to the Assistant Administrator, Administrative Services (the Medicaid Intermediary).
(2) The Medicaid Intermediary will forward all rate appeals to the Manager of the Division’s Audit Section for initial consideration. If no resolution is forthcoming, the provider will be given an opportunity for administrative review or a contested case hearing as outlined in OAR 410-120-1400 through 410-120-1600, except that final orders shall be issued by the Administrator of the Division.
(3) Monetary recovery, sanctions, or other appeals. A provider may appeal the Division’s proposed action by letter within the same 15-day period as allowed for rate appeals above; address the letter to the Assistant Administrator, Administrative Services (the Medicaid Intermediary).
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 414.025 & 414.065
- MHD 2-1994, f. & cert. ef. 2-24-94
- MHD 12-1990, f. & cert. ef. 10-15-90
- MHD 6-1989, f. & cert. ef. 11-17-89
- MHD 7-1987, f. & ef. 12-30-87
- MHD 21-1983, f. & ef. 12-5-83
- MHD 17-1983(Temp), f. 9-30-83, ef. 10-1-83
Or. Admin. R. 309-015-0060 Emergency Services in Non-Participating Hospitals
Reimbursable services. Emergency services provided in licensed psychiatric hospitals not participating in Medicaid will be reimbursed if the Division determines they meet federal requirements for Medicare reimbursement of emergency services as outlined in Subpart G, Part 424 of the Medicare regulations.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 414.025 & 414.065
- MHD 2-1994, f. & cert. ef. 2-24-94
- MHD 6-1989, f. & cert. ef. 11-17-89
- MHD 7-1987, f. & ef. 12-30-87
Division 18 RESIDENTIAL SUBSTANCE USE DISORDERS AND PROBLEM GAMBLING TREATMENT AND RECOVERY SERVICES
Or. Admin. R. 309-018-0100 Purpose and Scope
(1) Purpose: These rules prescribe minimum standards for services and supports provided by addictions and mental health providers approved by the Health Systems Division of the Oregon Health Authority.
(2) Scope: In addition to applicable requirements in OAR 410-120-0000 through 410-120-1980 and 943-120-0000 through 943-120-1550, these rules specify standards for services and supports provided in:
(a) Residential Substance Use Disorders Treatment and Recovery Services; and
(b) Residential Problem Gambling Treatment and Recovery Services.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390, 413.042, 430.256, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.640 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 109.675, 179.505, 413.520 - 413.522, 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955, 443.400 - 443.460, 443.991, 461.549, 743A.168, 813.010 - 813.055 & 813.200 - 813.270
- MHS 17-2016, f. 11-28-16, cert. ef. 11-30-16
- MHS 10-2016(Temp), f. 6-29-16, cert. ef. 7-1-16 thru 12-27-16
- MHS 3-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 10-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-018-0105 Definitions
(1) “Abuse of an Adult” means the circumstances defined in ORS 430.735 and OAR Chapter 407, Division 45 for abuse of an adult with mental illness or who is receiving residential substance use disorder treatment or withdrawal management services.
(2) “Abuse of a Child” means the circumstances defined in ORS 419B.005 and ORS 418.257
(3) “Active Supervision” means a designated supervisor is physically present who provides direct or indirect observation of the program staff, to determine if the service or task is being completed properly and providing intervention and consultation as needed.
(4) “Activities of Daily Living or Instrumental Activities of Daily Living (IADL)” means those personal functional activities required by an individual for continued well-being, which are essential for health and safety. Activities include eating, dressing, and grooming, bathing and personal hygiene, mobility, elimination, and cognition.
(5) “Admission” means the act or process of enrollment into services as regulated by Chapter 309 Division 18 rules.
(6) “Adolescent” means an individual from 12 through 21 years of age or those individuals who are determined to be developmentally appropriate for such services.
(7) "Adult" means an individual 18 years of age or older or an emancipated minor. An individual with Medicaid eligibility, who is in need of services specific to children, adolescents, or young adults in transition, shall be considered a child until age 21 for the purposes of these rules. Adults who are between the ages of 18 and 21, who are considered children for purposes of these rules, shall have all rights afforded to adults as specified in these rules.
(8) "The ASAM Criteria " means the criteria in the Third edition of The American Society of Addiction Medicine (ASAM) for the assessment, level of care placement and treatment of addictive, substance-related, and co-occurring conditions. The ASAM Criteria is a clinical guide to developing patient-centered service plans and making objective decisions about admission, continuing care, and transfer or discharge for individuals. The ASAM Criteria is incorporated by reference in these rules.
(9) “ASAM Dimensional Admission Criteria” means the specifications described in the ASAM Criteria for determining that an individual is appropriately admitted to a program based on six ASAM assessment dimensions. The criteria, dimensions and number of dimensions indicated differs per level of care and is described within The ASAM Criteria, Third Edition.
(10) “ASAM Level of Care” means one of several discrete intensities of services and supports, as described within The ASAM Criteria, Third Edition, within a substance use disorders program that are delivered in a structured, programmatic fashion, by a Division certified outpatient or licensed residential provider.
(11) “ASAM Level of Care 3.1” Clinically Managed Low-Intensity Residential Substance Use Disorder Services means a licensed residential setting as described in The ASAM Criteria, Third Edition with 24-hour structure and support that offers at least 5 hours per week of low-intensity substance use treatment services. Services and supports are designed to facilitate the uptake of recovery skills, relapse prevention, and emotional coping skills. Services and the milieu support individuals in addressing reintegration into family, work, education and other pro-social activities and communities. Programs facilitate reintegration and transition to lower levels of care.
(12) “ASAM Level of Care 3.3” Clinically Managed Population-Specific High-Intensity Substance Use Disorder Residential Services means a licensed residential setting as described in The ASAM Criteria, Third Edition with a 24-hour, structured recovery environment and high-intensity substance use treatment services and supports that meet the functional limitations of the individuals. The functional limitations appropriate for placement in this level of care are primarily cognitive and can be either temporary or permanent. When nursing supervision adequate to the identified needs is available, individuals who also have medical conditions may be placed in this level of care.
(13) “ASAM Level of Care 3.5” Clinically Managed High-Intensity Substance Use Disorder Residential Services means a 24-hour supportive living environment with a habilitative focus with a reliance on the treatment community. Severe substance use and social or emotional limitation(s) are treated in this level of care, where an emphasis on targeted interventions reduces the risk of relapse, reinforces prosocial behaviors, assists with integration into a health community, and offers basic life skills training. Duration at this level of care is marked by the acquisition of coping and relapse prevention skills so that relapse is no longer imminently dangerous. Individuals admitted to this level of care meet the DSM-5-TR criteria for moderate or severe substance use disorder(s) and may have co-occurring mental health disorder(s) meeting DSM-5-TR criteria or experience difficulties with mood, behavior or cognition that are problematic but do not meet diagnostic criteria.
(14) “ASAM Level of Care 3.7” Medically Monitored Intensive Substance Use Disorder Inpatient Services, means a planned and structured program of 24-hour, professionally directed evaluation, observation, medical monitoring and substance use treatment. Individuals admitted to this level of care have subacute biomedical and emotional or cognitive conditions that are severe enough to need a residential setting but not need medically managed inpatient services. This level of care addresses the needs of individuals who have functional limitations in Dimensions 1, 2 and 3. Services are delivered by an interdisciplinary staff that are appropriately credentialed. See also, “Bio-medical Enhanced ASAM Level of Care 3.7” and “Co-Occurring Enhanced ASAM Level of Care 3.7”
(15) “ASAM Level of Care Determination” means documentation in the service record that justifies the change in a Level of Care placement, whether the placement is more intensive or less intensive, completed in a multidimensional format that captures what has changed for the individual and resulted in the change in placement. It is the result of an evaluation of the level of care rating for each dimension, the interactions of each dimension, and the individual’s preferred level of care. These are used together to inform the determination of overall level of care assessment and placement decisions, with a rationale for any discrepancy.
(16) “Assessment” means the process of obtaining sufficient information through a face-to-face interview to determine a diagnosis and to plan individualized services and supports. For residential substance use disorder treatment programs, the assessment is multidimensional and consistent with The ASAM Criteria third edition
(17) “Authority” means the Oregon Health Authority.
(18) “Baseline evaluation” means an identification of the current status that an individual expresses a desire to change in order to identify the starting point(s) for measuring progress by using pre-determined benchmarks, such as a Likert Scale. Progress can then be determined by using the same benchmarks to obtain additional ratings of the identified status, and using the additional ratings to make comparisons between the starting rating and subsequent ratings, from which a measure of change can be assessed.
(19) “Behavioral Health Clinician” means a practitioner of behavioral health services whose authorized scope of practice includes substance use and mental health diagnosis and treatment.
(20) “Behavioral Health Treatment” means treatment for mental health, substance use disorders, and problem gambling.
(21) “Bio-medical Enhanced ASAM Level of Care 3.1” means ASAM Level of Care 3.1 Clinically Managed Low-Intensity Residential Substance Use Disorder Services programs that also offers onsite or closely facilitates off-site the medical services needed to assess and treat co-occurring bio-medical conditions, and the intensity of on-site nursing care meets each individual’s identified needs.
(22) “Bio-medical Enhanced ASAM Level of Care 3.3” means, in addition to the definition of ASAM Level of Care 3.3 Clinically Managed Population-Specific High-Intensity Substance Use Disorder Residential Services, medical services are rendered by medical staff working within their scope and staffed in a manner that meets the identified needs.
(23) “Bio-medical Enhanced ASAM Level of Care 3.5” means, in addition to the definition of ASAM Level of Care 3.5 Clinically Managed High-Intensity Substance Use Disorder Residential Services these programs offer medical services that are rendered by medical staff working within their scope, and the medical services are staffed in a manner such that the medical oversight and treatment meet the identified needs.
(24) “Bio-medical Enhanced ASAM Level of Care 3.7” means in addition to the definition of ASAM Level of Care these programs offer medical services that are rendered by medical staff working within their scope, and the medical services are staffed in a manner such that the medical oversight and treatment meet the identified needs.
(25) “Brief Intervention” means an early intervention for individuals using substances, by utilizing tribal-based, evidence-based, or culturally based practice designed to engage and motivate individuals at risk of substance use disorder and related health problems to seek services and/or support. Brief interventions can also be used to encourage those with more serious dependence or disorders to accept more intensive treatment. Brief interventions are intended to address problematic or risky substance use that presents with or without a previous diagnosis.
(26) “Care Coordination” means a process-oriented activity to facilitate ongoing communication and collaboration to meet multiple needs. Care coordination includes facilitating communication between the person or family served, natural supports, community resources, and involved providers and agencies; organizing, facilitating, and participating in team meetings; and providing for continuity of care by creating linkages to and managing transitions between levels of care and transitions for young adults in transition to adult services.
(27) "Case Management" or “Targeted Case Management” means the services provided to assist individuals who reside in a community setting or are transitioning to a community setting in gaining access to desired medical, social, educational, entitlement, and other applicable services.
(28) “Certificate” means the document or documents issued by the Division, which identifies and declares certification of a provider pursuant to OAR 309-008-0100 to 309-008-1600. A letter accompanying issuance of the certificate shall detail the scope and approved service delivery locations of the certificate.
(29) "Child" means an individual under the age of 18. An individual with Medicaid eligibility, who is in need of services specific to children, adolescents, or young adults in transition, shall be considered a child until age 21 for purposes of these rules.
(30) "Clinical Supervision" means oversight by a qualified clinical supervisor of the rendering of physical health, substance use, problem gambling, and mental health services and supports, according to these rules, including ongoing evaluation and improvement of the effectiveness of those services and supports.
(31) "Clinical Supervisor" means program staff qualified to oversee and evaluate the rendering of physical health, substance use, problem gambling, or mental health services and supports.
(32) "Community Mental Health Program (CMHP)" means the organization of various services for individuals with a mental health diagnosis or addictive disorders operated by or contractually affiliated with a local mental health authority and operated in a specific geographic area of the state under an agreement with the Division an entity that is responsible for planning and delivery of safety net services for persons with mental or emotional disturbances, drug abuse problems, and alcoholism and alcohol abuse in a specific geographic area of the state under a contract with the Division or a local mental health authority and pursuant to OAR 309-014.
(33) "Cognition" refers to how the individual is able to use information, make decisions, and ensure their daily needs are met. There are four components to cognition: self-preservation, decision-making, ability to make one’s self understood, and unsafe behaviors.
(34) “Cognitive Ability” means a general mental capability involving reasoning, problem solving, planning, abstract thinking, complex idea comprehension and learning from experience.
(35) “Cognitive Impairment” means a behavioral health condition or disability which impacts the individual’s cognitive abilities to perform Activities of Daily Living (ADL) or Instrumental Activities of Daily Living (IADL), regardless of whether the individual may be physically capable of performing ADLs or IADLs. For example, a cognitive impairment could prevent an individual from knowing when or how to carry out the task.
(36) Collaborative Educational Agreement” means an individualized written arrangement between an accredited college or university and a Division-certified provider pertaining to a student’s internship or field placement experience.
(37) “Consistent with ASAM Criteria” means containing information that demonstrates use of and adherence to the description of components contained within The ASAM Criteria, Third Edition.
(38) “Co-Occurring Enhanced ASAM Level of Care 3.1” means ASAM Level of Care 3.1 Clinically Managed Low-Intensity Residential Substance Use Disorder Services programs that also offer onsite or closely facilitate off-site psychiatric services that meet the individual’s identified needs, including medication evaluation and laboratory services. Individuals admitted to this care have documented mental health disorder(s) that may or may not meet criteria for a DSM-5-TR diagnosis.
(39) “Co-Occurring Enhanced ASAM Level of Care 3.3” means in addition to the definition of ASAM Level of Care 3.3 Clinically Managed Population-Specific High-Intensity Substance Use Disorder Residential Services, psychiatric services are rendered by psychiatrists and other qualified behavioral health clinicians trained in the interactions between psychotropic medications and substance use.
(40) “Co-Occurring Enhanced ASAM Level of Care 3.5” means in addition to the definition of ASAM Level of Care 3.5 Clinically Managed High-Intensity Substance Use Disorder Residential Services, these programs offer onsite or closely facilitate off-site psychiatric, medication evaluation and laboratory services that meets the individual’s identified needs within 24 hours, as indicated by the severity and urgency of the condition. These programs are staffed by psychiatrists and other qualified behavioral health clinician trained in the interactions between psychotropic medications and substance use. Individuals admitted to this level of care meet the diagnostic criteria for a mental health disorder as well as a substance use disorder, as defined by the DSM-5-TR.
(41) “Co-Occurring Enhanced ASAM Level of Care 3.7” means in addition to the definition of ASAM Level of Care these programs offer onsite psychiatric and medication evaluation, and nursing observation and care that meets the individual’s identified needs, as indicated by the severity and urgency of the condition. These programs are staffed by psychiatrists and other qualified medical and behavioral health clinicians trained in the interactions between psychotropic medications and substance use. Individuals admitted to this level of care meet the diagnostic criteria for a mental health disorder as well as a substance use disorder, as defined by the DSM-5-TR.
(42) “Co-occurring Enhanced Substance Use Disorder Programs” means, consistent with The ASAM Criteria, Third Edition, a setting where integrated services address concurrently unstable mental health and substance use disorder conditions. There is a focus on the integration of mental health and substance use disorders throughout the staffing, services, and program content, as well as the use of Motivational Enhancement therapies throughout services.
(43) “Co-occurring Substance Use, Problem Gambling, and Mental Health Disorders (COD)” means the existence of a diagnosis for a substance use disorder, problem gambling disorder, and/or a mental health disorder.
(44) “Community Health Worker (CHW)” means personnel who meets qualification criteria adopted by the authority under ORS 414.665 and who is certified pursuant to the requirements in OAR 410-180-0310.
(45) "Court" means a criminal court, drug court, circuit court, juvenile court or last convicting or ruling court in this state with jurisdiction over the individual.
(46) "Criminal Records Check" means documenting the criminal background check results for all employees, contracted staff, interns and volunteers considered to be program staff that render medical or behavioral health services and supports or have access to protected health information such as service records or billing information.
(47) "Crisis" means either an actual or perceived urgent or emergent situation that occurs when an individual’s stability or functioning is disrupted and there is an immediate need to resolve the situation to prevent a serious deterioration in the individual’s mental or physical health or to prevent referral to a significantly higher level of care or death.
(48) “Crisis Plan” means an individualized document designed in collaboration with the individual served to help anticipate and prevent future crisis episodes and to direct interventions in the instance of a crisis.
(49) “Crisis Stabilization Services” means providing evaluation and treatment to individuals experiencing a crisis. Crisis Services may be provided prior to completion of an intake. These services are intended to stabilize the individual in crisis, prevent further deterioration and provide immediate treatment and intervention in a location best suited to meet the needs of the individual and in the least restrictive environment available.
(50) "Cultural Competence" means the process by which people and systems respond respectfully and effectively to people of all cultures, languages, classes, races, ethnic backgrounds, disabilities, religions, genders, sexual orientations, and other diversity factors in a manner that recognizes, affirms, and values the worth of individuals, families, and communities and protects and preserves the dignity of each.
(51) “Culturally Responsive” means services that are respectful of and relevant to the beliefs, practices, culture and linguistic needs of diverse populations and communities whose members identify as having particular cultural or linguistic affiliations. Cultural responsiveness describes the capacity to respond to the issues of diverse communities and requires knowledge and capacity at different levels of intervention: systemic, organizational, professional, and individual.
(52) “Culturally Specific Program” means a program that is designed to meet the unique service needs of a specific culture and that provides services to a majority of individuals representing that culture.
(53) "Diagnosis" means the principal mental health, substance use or problem gambling diagnosis listed in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, fifth edition (DSM-5-TR). The diagnosis is determined through the assessment and any examinations, tests, or consultations suggested by the assessment and are the medically necessary reason for services.
(54) “Division” means the Health Systems Division of the Oregon Health Authority, or its designee.
(55) “Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, DSM-5-TRFifth Edition, (DSM-5-TR)” means the textbook used to diagnose and classify mental disorders that is published by the American Psychiatric Association.
(56) “Emergent” means the onset of symptoms requiring attention within 24 hours to prevent serious deterioration in mental or physical health or threat to safety.
(57) “Employment Support Services” means services approved by the division, determined to be necessary and provided to an individual to obtain and maintain employment in the community as they are transitioning from an inpatient or residential facility that provides substance use disorder treatment.
(58) “Entry” means the act or process of acceptance and enrollment into services regulated by this rule.
(59) “Episode of Care” means care that begins at treatment admission and ends at discharge.
(60) “Face-to-Face” means a personal interaction where both words can be heard and facial expressions can be seen in person or through telehealth services where there is a live streaming audio and video, if clinically appropriate.
(61) “Family” means the biological or legal parents, siblings, other relatives, foster parents, legal guardians, spouse, domestic partner, caregivers, and other primary relations to the individual whether by blood, adoption, legal, or social relationships. Family also means any natural, formal, or informal support persons identified as important by the individual.
(62) “Gender Identity” means an individual’s self-identification of gender without regard to legal or biological identification, including but not limited to an individual identifying themselves as male, female, transgender, and transsexual.
(63) “Gender Expression” means the external characteristics and behaviors that are socially defined as either masculine or feminine, such as dress, mannerisms, speech patterns, and social interactions.
(64) “Grievance” means a formal complaint submitted to a provider verbally or in writing by an individual or the individual’s chosen representative.
(65) “Guardian” means an individual appointed by a court of law to act as guardian of a minor or a legally incapacitated person.
(66) “Habilitation or Habilitative” means medically necessary for the maintenance, learning or improving skills and function for daily living. Services are designed to help an individual improve their level of independence and includes, but is not limited to, services provided in order to help an individual acquire, retain, or improve skills in Activities of Daily Living (ADL) and Instrumental Activities of Daily Living (IADL), community survival skills, communication, self-help, socialization, and adaptive skills necessary to reside successfully in an individual’s home or a community-based setting.
(67) "Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)” means the federal[MSM1] Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 and the regulations published in Title 45, parts 160 and 164, of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR).
(68) “Health Systems Services and Supports” means all services and supports including but not limited to Outpatient Community Mental Health Services and Supports for Children and Adults, Intensive Treatment Services for Children, Outpatient and Residential Substance Use Disorders Treatment Services, and Outpatient and Residential Problem Gambling Treatment Services.
(69) “Housing Support Services” means services approved by the division, provided to an individual to obtain and reside in an independent community setting and are tailored to the goal of maintaining an individual’s personal health and welfare in a home and community-based setting as they are transitioning from an inpatient or residential facility that provides substance use disorder treatment.
(70) “Immediate Need Profile” means the portion of an assessment that includes the identification of the most severe and destabilizing or life-threatening conditions, in order to inform the determination of the level of risk, the level of care placement and need for immediate intervention(s).
(71) “Institutions of Mental Disease (IMD)” means a hospital, nursing facility, or other institution of more than 16 beds that is primarily engaged in providing diagnosis, treatment, or care of persons with mental diseases, which includes substance use disorders (SUDs).
(72) “Incident” means any event involving an individual or the child of an individual receiving services occurring on the premises of the program or involving program staff or any individual, occurring on the premises of the program, or during a service plan activity and including, but not limited to death, injury, major illness or medical event, accident, act of physical aggression, medication error, suspected abuse or neglect, or any other type of unusual or critical event that presents a risk to the health and/ or safety of any person. Critical incidents are reported to the Division.
(73) “Incident Report” means a written description of any incident.
(74) “Individual” means any individual being considered for or receiving services and supports regulated by these rules.
(75) "Informed Consent for Services" means that the service options, risks and benefits have been explained to the individual and guardian, if applicable, in a manner that they comprehend, and the individual and guardian, if applicable, have consented to the services on, or prior to, the first date of service.
(76) “Intensive Case Management” means the management of an array of services and supports that assist the individual in meeting service plan objectives, includes an evaluation of needs and offers to meet those needs through skill building, outreach, advocation, and arranging support services through the provider or external community providers.
(77) “Interim Referral and Information Services” means services provided by a substance use disorders treatment provider to individuals on a waiting list and whose services are funded by the Substance Use Prevention Treatment Recovery (SUPTR) Block Grant to reduce the adverse health effects of substance use, promote the health of the individual, and reduce the risk of disease transmission.
(78) “Institution” means an establishment that furnishes (in single or multiple facilities) food, shelter, and some treatment or services to four or more persons unrelated to the proprietor.
(79) “Institutions of Mental Disease (IMD)” means a hospital, nursing facility, or other institution of more than 16 beds that is primarily engaged in providing diagnosis, treatment, or care of individuals with mental diseases, which includes substance use disorders (SUDs).
(80) "Level of Care" means the type, frequency, and duration of medically necessary services provided from the most integrated setting to the most restrictive and intensive inpatient setting.
(81) “Level of Care Determination” means documentation in the service record that justifies the change in a Level of Care placement, whether the placement is more intensive or less intensive, completed in a 6-Dimensional format that captures what has changed for the individual and resulted in the change in placement. The Level of Care Determination shall include the assessed level of care, the placed level of care, the individual’s preferred level of care, and a rationale if there is a difference between the assessed and placed levels of care.
(82) "Licensed Health Care Professional" means a practitioner of the healing arts acting within the scope of their practice under State law who is licensed by a recognized governing board in Oregon.
(83) "Licensed Medical Practitioner (LMP)” means aperson who meets the following minimum qualifications as documented by the Local Mental Health Authority (LMHA) or designee:(a) Physician licensed to practice in the State of Oregon; or
(b) Nurse practitioner licensed to practice in the State of Oregon; or
(c) Physician's Assistant licensed to practice in the State of Oregon; and
(d) Whose training, experience, and competence demonstrates the ability to conduct a medical exam, a mental health assessment and provide medication management.
(84) “Local Mental Health Authority (LMHA)” means one of the following entities:
(a) The board of county commissioners of one or more counties that establishes or operates a CMHP;
(b) The tribal council in the case of a federally recognized tribe of Native Americans that elects to enter into an agreement to provide mental health services; or
(c) A regional local mental health authority comprised of two or more boards of county commissioners.
(85) "Low-Barrier” means the absence of programmatic barriers to service delivery including practice induced stigma. Fundamental elements of Low Barrier services:
(a) Take a harm reduction approach, including the immediate goal of improving quality of life and protecting against loss of life;
(b) Offer treatment that meets the unique needs of each individual;
(c) Recognize unique recovery trajectories that are personal to each individual and are not dictated by treatment providers;
(d) Enable individuals to engage in treatment services, including medication for substance use disorders, without administrative delays or lengthy intake processes;
(e) Provide treatment without appointment requirements, prior missed appointments cannot be used to hinder access to treatment;
(f) Address transportation barriers;
(g) Facilitate access to treatment, services and supports including mental, physical, dental and other ancillary health care services and supports throughout the treatment episode of care;
(h) Eliminate or facilitate minimal travel between multiple service providers; and
(i) Involve service providers in outreach services and community engagement.
(86) “Low-intensity” means a term used by The ASAM Criteria, Third Edition, in the title for ASAM Level 1 services, which are described in The ASAM Criteria, Third Edition, as generally less than 9 treatment contact hours per week and delivered by non-physician addiction professionals to individuals who are able to control their use or maintain abstinence with minimal support while pursuing recovery goals.
(87) "Mandatory Reporter" means anyone required by law, as defined in ORS 419B.005 or 430.735, who is required to report suspected abuse or neglect of a child, elderly person, or other adult as required by law in ORS 430.765, or ORS 419B.010, or ORS 124.060.
(88) "Medicaid" means the federal grant-in-aid program to state governments to provide medical assistance to eligible persons under Title XIX of the Social Security Act.
(89) "Medical Director" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in the State of Oregon and who is designated by a substance use disorders treatment program to be responsible for the program's medical services, either as an employee or through a contract.
(90) “Medical Treatment Staff” means program staff who are properly trained, educated, and credentialed to deliver medical services and who, while working within their scope of practice, are directly responsible for the delivery or oversight of withdrawal management services. “
(91) "Medically Necessary” means health services and items that are required for an individual to address one or more of the following:
(a) The prevention, diagnosis, or treatment of an individual’s condition or disorder that results in behavioral health impairments; or
(b) The ability for a client or member to achieve age-appropriate growth and development; and
(c) A medically necessary service must also be medically appropriate.
(92) "Medication" means any drug, chemical, compound, suspension, or preparation in suitable form for use as a curative or remedial substance either internally or externally by any patient.
(93) “Medication Administration Record” means the documentation of the administration of written or verbal orders for medication, laboratory, and other medical procedures issued by an LMP acting within the scope of his or her license.
(94) “Medication Assisted Treatment (MAT)” means the use of medication in combination with counseling and behavioral therapies for the treatment of substance use disorders.
(95) “Mental Health Intern” means mental health program staff who meet qualifications for QMHA and are currently enrolled in a graduate program approved by the Division-approved certification or licensing body but does not have the necessary graduate degree in psychology, social work, or related field of behavioral science, or have an equivalent degree as determined by the Division-approved certification or licensing body.
(96) “Milieu Staff” means the type of staff providing support to program staff and the individuals receiving services by monitoring the common areas, providing direction and redirection to individuals receiving services, assisting individuals in getting requests and needs met, taking actions to maintain the safety of the individuals, and informing Substance Use Disorders Treatment Staff of events as to assist in the holding a trauma-informed environment.
(97) “Motivational Enhancement Therapy” (MET) means a person-centered approach to therapy that focuses on improving an individual's motivation to change.
(98) “Non-Institutions of Mental Disease (non-IMD)” means a hospital, nursing facility, or other institution with less than 16 beds that is primarily engaged in providing diagnosis, treatment, or care of persons with mental diseases, which includes substance use disorders (SUDs).
(99) “Non-Medicaid Service Data” means data collected through the mandated state data system regarding services paid for by any source other than Medicaid and includes, but is not limited to:
(a) Diagnosis;
(b) Date of service;
(c) Place of service;
(d) Procedure code;
(e) Modifier;
(f) Number of service units; and
(g) Billed charges.
(100) “Nursing Services” means services that are provided by a registered nurse (RN) or a licensed practical nurse (LPN), Advanced Practice Nurse including Clinical Nurse Specialist, or Certified Nurse Practitioner, licensed by the Oregon Board of Nursing within the scope of practice as defined in OAR chapter 851 division 045.
(101) “On-site” means staff are physically present within the licensed facility, on duty, readily accessible and available to assist individuals.
(102) “Oregon Health Authority (Authority) or (OHA)” means the Oregon Health Authority of the State of Oregon.
(103) "Outreach" means the delivery of behavioral health services, referral services, and case management services in non-traditional settings, including but not limited to the individual's residence, shelters, streets, jails, transitional housing sites, drop-in centers, single room occupancy hotels, child welfare settings, educational settings, or medical settings. It also refers to attempts made to engage or re-engage an individual in services by such means as letters or telephone calls.
(104) “Peer” means any person supporting an individual or the individual's family member who has similar life experience, either as a current or former recipient of substance use, problem gambling, or mental health services, or as a family member of an individual who is a current or former recipient of substance use, problem gambling, or mental health services.
(105) “Peer-Delivered Services” are community-based services and supports provided by peers, peer support specialists, and peer wellness specialists to individuals or family members with similar lived experience. These services are intended to support individuals and families to engage individuals in ongoing treatment and to live successfully in the community.
(106) “Peer-Delivered Services Supervisor" means qualified program staff, with at least one year of experience as a PSS or PWS in behavioral health services, who is responsible for evaluating and guiding PSS and PWS program staff in the delivery of peer-delivered services and supports.
(107) “Peer Support and Peer Wellness Specialist Supervision" means supervision by a qualified clinical supervisor and a qualified peer-delivered services supervisor as resources are available. The supports provided include guidance in the unique discipline of peer-delivered services and the roles of peer support specialists and peer wellness specialists.
(108) "Peer Support Specialist" means a qualified program staff providing peer-delivered services to an individual or family member with similar life experience under the supervision of a qualified clinical supervisor and a qualified peer-delivered services supervisor as resources are made available.
(109) “Peer Wellness Specialist” means a program staff who supports an individual in identifying behavioral health service and support needs through community outreach, assisting individuals with access to available services and resources, addressing barriers to services, and providing education and information about available resources and behavioral health issues in order to reduce stigma and discrimination toward consumers of behavioral health services and to provide direct services to assist individuals in creating and maintaining recovery, health, and wellness under the supervision of a qualified clinical supervisor and a qualified peer-delivered services supervisor as resources are made available.
(110) “Problem Gambling Approved Certification Consultant” means program staff who is a Certified Gambling Addiction Counselor, level II (CGACII) for a minimum of two years and has a minimum of ten hours of clinical supervision education. The purpose of the position is to provide consultation for CGAC candidates on 1) Fundamentals of Problem Gambling Treatment case conceptualization 2) the process and requirements of earning certification as a CGAC. This is a Mental Health and Addiction Certification Board of Oregon (MHACBO) distinction.
(111) “Problem Gambling Treatment Staff” means program staff certified or licensed by a Division recognized credentialing body to provide problem gambling treatment services that include assessment, development of a Service Plan, group and family counseling.
(112) "Program" means an organized system of services and supports delivered by a provider designed to address the treatment needs of individuals and families.
(113) "Program Administrator" or "Program Director" means program staff with appropriate professional qualifications and experience who is designated to manage the operation of a program.
(114) "Program Staff" means personnel who renders a clinical service or support. Program staff could include, for example, be an employee, contractor, intern, or volunteer who is rendering or assisting with rendering clinical services or supports.
(115) "Provider" means an organizational entity or qualified person that is certified or licensed by the Division for the direct delivery of substance use, problem gambling, or mental health services and supports.
(116) “Publicly Funded” means financial support, in part or in full, with revenue generated by a local, state, or federal government.
(117) Psychiatrist" means a physician licensed by the Oregon Medical Board and who has completed an approved residency training program in psychiatry.
(118) "Psychologist" means a person who is currently licensed to practice psychology by the Oregon Board of Psychology.
(119) "Qualified Mental Health Associate (QMHA)” means mental health program staff delivering services under the direct supervision of a QMHP who meets the minimum qualifications as authorized by the LMHA or designee and specified in OAR 309-019-0125.
(120) "Qualified Mental Health Professional (QMHP)" means mental health program staff LMP or any other program staff meeting the minimum qualifications as authorized by the LMHA or designee and specified in OAR 309-019-0125.
(121) "Quality Assessment and Performance Improvement" means the structured, internal monitoring and evaluation of services to improve processes, service delivery, and service outcomes.
(122) “Recovery” means a process of healing and transformation for an individual to achieve full human potential and personhood in leading a meaningful life as they define it in communities of their choice.
(123) “Recovery Environment” means the quality and extent of the services and supports, offered within and coordinated by a program, that influence treatment outcomes and connect the individual to external recovery supports.
(124) "Rehabilitative Behavioral Health Services” means medical or remedial services recommended by a licensed medical practitioner or other licensed practitioner to reduce impairment to an individual’s functioning associated with the symptoms of a mental disorder or substance use disorder and are intended to restore functioning to the highest degree possible.
(125) "Representative" means someone who acts on behalf of an individual at the individual’s request with respect to a grievance, including but not limited to a relative, friend, employee of the Division, attorney, or legal guardian.
(126) “Resilience” means the universal capacity that an individual uses to prevent, minimize, or overcome the effects of adversity. Resilience reflects a person’s strengths as protective factors and assets for positive development.
(127) “Residential Substance Use Disorders Treatment Program" means a publicly or privately operated program as defined in ORS 430.010 that provides assessment, treatment, rehabilitation, and twenty-four hour observation and monitoring for individuals with substance use dependence, consistent with Level 3 of The ASAM Criteria, Third Edition.
(128) “Residential Problem Gambling Treatment Program” means a publicly or privately operated program that is licensed in accordance with OAR 415-012-0000 through 415-012-0090 that provides assessment, treatment, rehabilitation, and twenty-four-hour observation and monitoring for individuals with gambling related problems.
(129) “Risk Assessment” means an evaluation of the level or severity of risk the individual is experiencing and how each interact, resulting in an overall risk assessment rating.
(130) “Safety Plan” means a best practice, research-based, individualized, and directive document developed through a collaborative process in which the provider assists the individual in listing strategies to use when self-harm, harm to others or suicide ideation is elevated or following suicidal or parasuicidal behavior.
(131) "Screening" means the process to determine whether the individual needs further assessment to identify circumstances requiring referrals or additional services and supports.
(132) "Seclusion" means the involuntary confinement of a resident alone in a room or an area from which the resident is physically prevented from leaving.
(133) “Service Delivery Rules” means the OAR describing specific regulatory standards for the possible array of services covered by certificates issued under OAR 309-008.
(134) “Service Note” means the written record of services and supports provided, including documentation of progress toward intended outcomes, consistent with the timelines stated in the service plan.
(135) "Service Plan" means a comprehensive plan for services and supports provided to or coordinated with an individual and his or her family, as applicable, that is reflective of the assessment and the intended outcomes of service.
(136) “Service Plan Review” means a documented, clinical review by a Substance Use Disorders Treatment Staff of the individual’s response to the services and supports provided thus far and includes a current ASAM Level of Care recommendation.
(137) “Service Record” means the documentation, written or electronic, regarding an individual and resulting from entry, assessment, orientation, services and supports planning, services and supports provided, and transfer.
(138) "Services" means those activities and treatments described in the Service Plan that are intended to assist the individual's transition to recovery from a substance use disorder, problem gambling disorder, or mental health condition and to promote resiliency and rehabilitative and functional individual and family outcomes.
(139) “Signature” means any written or electronic means of entering the name, date of authentication, and credentials of the person providing a specific service or the person authorizing services and supports. Signature also means any written or electronic means of entering the name and date of authentication of the individual receiving services, the guardian of the individual receiving services, or any authorized representative of the individual receiving services.
(140) "Skills Training” or “Skills Restoration" means providing information and training to individuals and families designed to assist with the development of skills in areas including but not limited to anger management, stress reduction, conflict resolution, self-esteem, parent-child interactions, personal relationships, drug and alcohol awareness, behavior support, symptom management, accessing community services, and daily living.
(141) “Specialty Program” means a licensed Residential Substance Use Disorder treatment program that focuses on providing treatment to specialized populations. Treatment programming and planning must be specialized to the population and individual being served.
(142) “Stabilization” means the application of medical and psychosocial services and supports in a manner that results in the reduction of symptomology and increase in skill level to support and redirect patients to the most appropriate and least restrictive setting. Services are directed at restoring patients’ ability to maintain safety while enhancing their recovery, so they can successfully reintegrate into identified community settings.
(143) “Status Data” means data collected through the mandated state data system and includes, but is not limited to:
(a) Initial admission, diagnostic, and demographics data;
(b) Updates and changes as needed through the individual’s enrollment in services; and
(c) Discharge or other discontinuation of services.
(144) “Student Intern” or “Intern” means a program staff who provides a paid or unpaid program service and does not qualify as a Mental Health Intern.
(145) "Substance Use, Prevention, Treatment and Recovery Block Grant” or “SUPTR Block Grant” or “SUPTR” means the federal block grants for prevention and treatment of substance abuse under Public Law 102-321 (31 U.S.C. 7301-7305) and the regulations published in Title 45 Part 96 of the Code of Federal Regulations.
(146) "Substance Use Disorders” (SUD) as defined in DSM-5-TR, means disorders related to the taking of a drug of abuse including alcohol, the side effects of a medication, or a toxin exposure. The disorders include substance use disorders and substance-induced disorders, which include substance intoxication and withdrawal, and substance-related disorders such as delirium, neuro-cognitive disorders, and substance-induced psychotic disorder.
(147) “Substance Use Disorders Treatment and Recovery Services” means outpatient, intensive outpatient, and residential services and supports for individuals with substance use disorders.
(148) “Substance Use Disorders Treatment Staff” means one type of program staff certified by a Division-approved certification body to render substance use disorders treatment services.
(149) “Supports” means activities, referrals, and supportive relationships designed to enhance the services delivered to individuals and families for the purpose of facilitating progress toward intended outcomes.
(150) “Transfer” means the process of assisting an individual to transition from the current services to the next identified setting or ASAM level of care.
(151) “Transitioning” means a 90-day period which begins when an individual is discharged from an inpatient or residential stay back to a community setting.
(152) “Trauma Informed Services” means services that reflect the consideration and evaluation of the role that trauma plays in the lives of people seeking mental health, substance use, or problem gambling services, including recognition of the traumatic effect of misdiagnosis and coercive treatment. Services are responsive to the vulnerabilities of trauma survivors and are delivered in a way that avoids inadvertent re-traumatization and facilitates individual direction of services.
(153) "Treatment" means the planned, medically necessary, individualized program of medical, psychological, and rehabilitative procedures, experiences and activities designed to remediate symptoms of a DSM-5-TR-TR diagnosis.
(154) “Unethical” means any conduct that is incongruent with the American Counseling Association’s (ACA) Code of Ethics. The fact that a given conduct is not specifically addressed by an ethical standard does not mean that it is necessarily either ethical or unethical. Lack of awareness or misunderstanding of an ethical standard is not itself a defense to a charge of unethical conduct.
(155) "Urinalysis Test" means a sensitive, rapid, and inexpensive immunoassay screen that identifies the presence of a specific drug or metabolite in a urine specimen to eliminate "true negative" specimens from further consideration.
(156) "Urgent" means the onset of symptoms requiring attention within 48 hours to prevent a serious deterioration in an individual's mental or physical health or threat to safety.
(157) "Variance" means an exception from a provision of these rules granted in writing by the Division pursuant to the process regulated by OAR 415-012-0090 upon written application from the provider. Approval and duration of a variance is determined on a case-by-case basis.
(158) "Volunteer" means a person who performs a service willingly and without pay.
(159) “Wellness” means an approach to healthcare that emphasizes good physical and mental health, preventing illness, and prolonging life.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 430.256, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.640 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 109.675, 179.505, 413.520 - 413.522, 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955, 443.400 - 443.460, 443.991, 461.549, 743A.168, 414.025 & 14.665
- BHS 10-2023, amend filed 04/07/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- BHS 1-2022, amend filed 01/05/2022, effective 01/05/2022
- MHS 4-2018, amend filed 02/27/2018, effective 03/01/2018
- MHS 10-2017(Temp), f. 9-15-17, cert. ef. 9-15-17 thru 3-13-18
- MHS 17-2016, f. 11-28-16, cert. ef. 11-30-16
- MHS 10-2016(Temp), f. 6-29-16, cert. ef. 7-1-16 thru 12-27-16
- MHS 3-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 10-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-018-0107 Certification Required
Entities providing or seeking to provide residential treatment services under these rules shall also hold or successfully obtain from the Division a certificate to provide behavioral health treatment services under OAR 309-008-0100 to 309-008-1600 if they intend to provide an outpatient service regulated by the Division’s service delivery rules.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.640 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 109.675, 161.390 - 161.400, 179.505, 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.240 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955, 443.400 - 443.460, 443.991, 461.549 & 743A.168
- MHS 4-2018, amend filed 02/27/2018, effective 03/01/2018
- MHS 10-2017(Temp), f. 9-15-17, cert. ef. 9-15-17 thru 3-13-18
- MHS 17-2016, f. 11-28-16, cert. ef. 11-30-16
- MHS 10-2016(Temp), f. 6-29-16, cert. ef. 7-1-16 thru 12-27-16
Or. Admin. R. 309-018-0108 Licensing Standards
(1) Residential Substance Use Disorders Treatment and Recovery Services Programs shall be licensed by the Division in accordance with OAR 415-012 in order to render residential substance use disorder treatment and recovery services. A License issued to a program shall be effective for a duration not to exceed two years from the date of issue and may be renewed, conditioned, denied, suspended, or revoked by the Division in the manner set forth in OAR 415-012. Licensed programs shall meet the standards set forth in these rules and all applicable statutes.
(2) Adolescent and adult programs shall be licensed separately.
(3) Effective January 1, 2022, the following designations shall be contained within the residential substance use disorder treatment and recovery services license, as applicable:
(a) For all residential substance use disorder treatment and recovery programs, the IMD status shall be determined by the Division to be either:
(A) IMD Residential; or
(B) NON-IMD Residential.
(b) Optional residential substance use disorder treatment Specialty Service(s) a residential substance use disorder treatment and recovery services provider may apply to be approved to render:
(A) Pregnant and/ or parenting with dependent children; and
(B) Culturally Specific.
(4) Currently licensed providers shall submit complete residential substance use disorder treatment and recovery services applications to render each selected ASAM Level(s) of Care and any optional Enhanced ASAM Service Designation(s) no later than October 1, 2023.
(5) Division approved ASAM level(s) of Care and optional Enhanced ASAM Service designation(s), if any, shall be added to the residential substance use disorder treatment and recovery services licenses starting January 1, 2024.
(6) Effective April 1, 2024, all residential substance use disorder treatment programs must have a valid license designating each the following ASAM Level(s) of Care and any optional Enhanced ASAM Service designation(s) that they are licensed by the Division to provide:
(a) At a minimum, the program shall demonstrate compliance with at least one of the following residential substance use disorder ASAM Level(s) of Care in order for the Division to approve licensure:
(A) Adult Clinically Managed Low-Intensity Residential Substance Use Disorder Services, ASAM Level of Care 3.1;
(B) Adolescent Clinically Managed Low-Intensity Residential Substance Use Disorder Services, ASAM Level of Care 3.1;
(C) Adult Clinically Managed Population-Specific High-Intensity Substance Use Disorder Residential Services, ASAM Level of Care 3.3;
(D) Adult Clinically Managed High-Intensity Substance Use Disorder Residential Services, ASAM Level of Care 3.5;
(E) Adolescent Clinically Managed Medium-Intensity Substance Use Disorder Residential Services, ASAM Level of Care 3.5;
(F) Adult Medically Monitored Intensive Substance Use Disorder Inpatient Services, ASAM Level of Care 3.7; or
(G) Adolescent Medically Monitored High-Intensity Substance Use Disorder Inpatient Services, ASAM Level of Care 3.7.
(b) ASAM Enhanced Service designation(s) are service types that the program may choose to apply to render to either adults or adolescents when it corresponds to an ASAM Level of Care that is licensed by the Division:
(A) Co-occurring Capable ASAM Level of Care 3.1;
(B) Co-Occurring Enhanced ASAM Level of Care 3.1;
(C) Bio-medical Enhanced ASAM Level of Care 3.1;
(D) Co-Occurring Enhanced ASAM Level of Care 3.3;
(E) Biomedical Enhanced ASAM Level of Care 3.3;
(F) Co-Occurring Enhanced ASAM Level of Care 3.5;
(G) Biomedical Enhanced ASAM Level of Care 3.5;
(H) Co-Occurring Enhanced ASAM Level of Care 3.7; or
(I) Biomedical Enhanced ASAM Level of Care 3.7
(7) Each program must operate within the scope of the service types listed on their license. Unless otherwise limited by the Division, programs with valid licenses for any of the following ASAM Levels of Care may render Clinically Managed Low-Intensity Residential Substance Use Disorder Services, ASAM Level of Care 3.1:
(a) Adult Clinically Managed Population-Specific High-Intensity Substance Use Disorder Residential Services, ASAM Level of Care 3.3;
(b) Adolescent Clinically Managed Medium-Intensity Substance Use Disorder Residential Services, ASAM Level of care 3.5;
(c) Adult Clinically Managed High-Intensity Substance Use Disorder Residential Services, ASAM Level of Care 3.5; or
(d) Adolescent Medically Monitored High-Intensity Impatient Services, ASAM Level of Care 3.7;
(e) Adult Medically Monitored Intensive Substance Use Disorder Inpatient Services, ASAM Level of Care 3.7.
(8) Applicants providing or seeking to provide residential treatment services under these rules who also intend to provide an outpatient service regulated by the Division’s service delivery rules, shall also have and maintain a Division certificate to provide behavioral health treatment services under OAR 309-008-0100 to 309-008-1600.
(9) The License shall be posted in a common area, able to be viewed at all times.
(10) At least every two years the Division shall inspect the facility and conduct a review of the program.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390, 413.042, 430.256 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 161.390-161.400, 428.205-428.270, 430.010, 430.205-430.210, 430.254-430.640, 430.850-430.955 & 743A.168
- BHS 10-2023, adopt filed 04/07/2023, effective 04/07/2023
Or. Admin. R. 309-018-0110 Provider Policies
(1) All providers shall develop and implement written policies and procedures compliant with these rules.
(2) Policies shall be available to individuals, guardians, and family members upon request.
(3) Providers shall develop and implement written policies and procedures including but not limited to:
(a) Personnel qualifications, credentialing and training;
(b) Criminal Records Checks that address program and milieu staff, compliant with ORS 181.533 through 181.575 and OAR 943-007-0001 through 0501, where applicable;
(c) Fraud, waste and abuse in Federal Medicaid and Medicare programs compliant with OAR 410-120-1380 and 410-120-1510;
(d) Alcohol, Drug and Gambling free workplace;
(e) Fee agreements;
(f) Confidentiality and compliance with , Federal Confidentiality Regulations (42 CFR, Part 2), and state confidentiality regulations as specified in ORS 179.505 and 192.518 through 192.530;
(g) Compliance with Title 2 of the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 (ADA);
(h) Per ORS 413.046; Grievances and appeals, including an example grievance form;
(i) Individual rights;
(j) Quality assessment and performance improvement;
(k) Crisis prevention and response;
(l) Incident and critical incident reporting;
(m) Family involvement;
(n) Trauma-informed service delivery, consistent with the Division’s Trauma Informed Services Policy;
(o) Provision of culturally and linguistically appropriate services;
(p) Medical protocols;
(q) Medication administration, storage, and disposal;
(r) Facility standards;
(s) General safety and emergency procedures to include an evacuation plan and emergency plan in case of fire, explosion, accident, death, or other emergencies. The evacuation and emergency procedures and plans shall be current and posted in a common area;
(t) Delivery of services and supports consistent with The ASAM Criteria, Third Edition for each licensed level of care;
(u) Code of conduct that includes professional boundaries and ethics; and
(v) Referral, Care Coordination and Transfer of Services.
(4) Additionally, providers shall establish written policies that:
(a) Prohibit psychological and physical discipline of an individual;
(b) Prohibit seclusion, personal restraint, mechanical restraint, and chemical restraint;
(c) Prohibit withholding shelter, regular meals, medication, clothing, or supports for physical functioning;
(d) Prohibit discipline of one individual receiving services by another; and
(e) Prohibit titration of medications prescribed for the treatment of opioid dependence as a condition of receiving or continuing to receive treatment.
(f) Opportunity for individuals over 18 years of age to declare advanced directive for their mental health treatment per ORS 127.700 to 127.736
(g) Opportunity for individuals over 18 years of age to register to vote by making voter registration cards available.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.640 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 109.675, 161.390 - 161.400, 179.505, 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955, 443.400 - 443.460, 443.991, 461.549 & 743A.168
- BHS 25-2024, amend filed 10/25/2024, effective 10/27/2024
- BHS 10-2023, amend filed 04/07/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- MHS 4-2018, amend filed 02/27/2018, effective 03/01/2018
- MHS 10-2017(Temp), f. 9-15-17, cert. ef. 9-15-17 thru 3-13-18
- MHS 3-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 10-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-018-0115 Individual Rights
(1) In addition to all applicable statutory and constitutional rights, every individual receiving services has the right to:
(a) Choose from available services and supports, those that are consistent with the Service Plan, culturally competent, provided in the most integrated setting in the community and under conditions that are least restrictive to the individual’s liberty, that are least intrusive to the individual, and that provide for the greatest degree of independence;
(b) Be treated with dignity and respect;
(c) Participate in the development of a written Service Plan, receive services consistent with that plan, and participate in periodic review and reassessment of service and support needs, assist in the development of the plan, and receive a copy of the written Service Plan;
(d) Have all services explained, including expected outcomes and possible risks;
(e) Confidentiality, and the right to consent to disclosure in accordance with ORS 107.154, 179.505, 179.507, 192.515, 192.507, 42 CFR Part 2 and 45 CFR Part 205.50;
(f) Give informed consent in writing prior to the start of services, except in a medical emergency or as otherwise permitted by law. Minor children may give informed consent to services in the following circumstances:
(A) Under age 18 and lawfully married;
(B) Age 16 or older and legally emancipated by the court; or
(C) Age 14 or older for outpatient services only. For purposes of informed consent, outpatient service does not include service provided in residential programs or in day or partial hospitalization programs.
(g) Inspect their Service Record in accordance with ORS 179.505;
(h) Refuse participation in experimentation;
(i) Receive medication specific to the individual’s diagnosed clinical needs, including medications used to treat opioid dependence;
(j) Receive prior notice of transfer, unless the circumstances necessitating transfer pose a threat to health and safety;
(k) Be free from abuse or neglect and to report any incident of abuse or neglect without being subject to retaliation;
(L) Have religious freedom;
(m) Be free from seclusion and restraint;
(n) Be informed at the start of services, and periodically thereafter, of the rights guaranteed by this rule;
(o) Be informed of the policies and procedures, service agreements and fees applicable to the services provided, and to have a custodial parent, guardian, or representative assist with understanding any information presented;
(p) Have family and guardian involvement in service planning and delivery;
(q) Have an opportunity to make a declaration for mental health treatment, when legally an adult;
(r) File grievances, including appealing decisions resulting from the grievance;
(s) Exercise all rights set forth in ORS 109.610 through 109.697 if the individual is a child, as defined by these rules;
(t) Exercise all rights set forth in ORS 426.385 if the individual is committed to the Authority; and
(u) Exercise all rights described in this rule without any form of reprisal or punishment.
(2) In addition to the rights specified in section (1) of this rule, every individual receiving residential services has the right to:
(a) A safe, secure, and sanitary living environment;
(b) A humane service environment that affords reasonable protection from harm, reasonable privacy, and daily access to fresh air and the outdoors;
(c) Keep and use personal clothing and belongings and to have an adequate amount of private, secure storage space. Reasonable restriction of the time and place of use of certain classes of property may be implemented if necessary to prevent the individual or others from harm, provided that notice of this restriction is given to individuals and their families, if applicable, upon entry to the program, documented, and reviewed periodically;
(d) Express sexual orientation, gender identity, and gender presentation;
(e) Have access to and participate in social, religious, and community activities;
(f) Private and uncensored communications by mail, telephone, and visitation, subject to the following restrictions:
(A) This right may be restricted only if the provider documents in the individual’s record that there is a court order to the contrary or that in the absence of this restriction, significant physical or clinical harm will result to the individual or others. The nature of the harm shall be specified in reasonable detail, and any restriction of the right to communicate shall be no broader than necessary to prevent this harm; and
(B) The individual and his or her guardian, if applicable, shall be given specific written notice of each restriction of the individual’s right to private and uncensored communication. The provider shall ensure that correspondence can be conveniently received and mailed, that telephones are reasonably accessible and allow for confidential communication, and that space is available for visits. Reasonable times for the use of telephones and visits may be established in writing by the provider.
(g) Communicate privately with public or private rights protection programs or rights advocates, clergy, and legal or medical professionals;
(h) Have access to and receive available and applicable educational services in the most integrated setting in the community;
(i) Participate regularly in indoor and outdoor recreation;
(j) Not be required to perform labor;
(k) Have access to adequate food and shelter; and
(L) A reasonable accommodation if, due to a disability, the housing and services are not sufficiently accessible.
(3) The provider shall give to the individual and, if appropriate, the guardian, a document that describes the applicable individual’s rights as follows:
(a) Information given to the individual shall be in written form or, upon request, in an alternative format or language appropriate to the individual’s need;
(b) The rights and how to exercise them shall be explained to the individual, and if appropriate, to her or his guardian; and
(c) Individual rights shall be posted in writing in a common area.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 430.256, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.640 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 109.675, 161.390 - 161.400, 179.505, 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955, 443.400 - 443.460, 443.991, 461.549 & 743A.168
- MHS 4-2018, amend filed 02/27/2018, effective 03/01/2018
- MHS 10-2017(Temp), f. 9-15-17, cert. ef. 9-15-17 thru 3-13-18
- MHS 3-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 10-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-018-0125 Specific Staff Qualifications and Competencies
Provider must assure that staff in the following positions meet applicable qualifications, credentialing or licensing standards and competencies, including those set forth in these rules:
(1) Program staff providing treatment services or Peer-Delivered Services in substance use disorders or problem gambling treatment programs shall be trained in and familiar with strategies for the delivery of trauma informed and culturally responsive treatment services. All treatment services shall be provided in a trauma informed and culturally responsive manner.
(2) Medical Directors shall be licensed under ORS 677 or 685 and may perform health maintenance and restoration measures consistent with generally recognized and accepted principles of medicine, including but not limited to:
(a) Administering, dispensing, or writing prescriptions for medications;
(b) Recommending the use of specific and appropriate over-the-counter pharmaceuticals;
(c) Ordering diagnostic tests; and
(d) Perform tasks required by OAR 309-019-0200.
(3) Clinical supervisors in all programs shall demonstrate competence in leadership, wellness, oversight and evaluation of services, staff development, service planning, case management and coordination, utilization of community resources, group, family and individual therapy or counseling, documentation, and rationale for services to promote intended outcomes and implementation of all provider policies.
(4) Clinical supervisors in substance use disorders treatment and recovery programs shall be certified or licensed by a health or allied provider agency as follows:
(a) For supervisors holding a certification or license in substance use counseling, qualifications for the certificate or license shall have included at least:
(A) 4000 hours of supervised experience in substance use counseling;
(B) 300 contact hours of education and training in substance use related subjects; and
(C) Successful completion of a written objective examination or portfolio review by the certifying body.
(b) For supervisors holding a health or allied provider license, the license or registration shall have been issued by one of the following state bodies, and the supervisor shall possess documentation of at least 120 contact hours of academic or continuing professional education in the treatment of substance use disorders:
(A) Oregon Medical Board;
(B) Board of Psychologist Examiners;
(C) Board of Licensed Social Workers;
(D) Board of Licensed Professional Counselors and Therapists; or
(E) Oregon State Board of Nursing.
(c) Additionally, clinical supervisors in substance use disorders programs shall have one of the following qualifications:
(A) Five years of paid full-time experience in the field of substance use disorders counseling; or
(B) A Bachelor's degree and four years of paid full-time experience in the social services field with a minimum of two years of direct substance use disorders counseling experience; or
(C) A Master's degree and three years of paid full-time experience in the social services field with a minimum of two years of direct substance use disorders counseling experience.
(5) Clinical supervisors in problem gambling treatment and recovery programs shall meet the requirements for clinical supervisors in either mental health or substance use disorders treatment and recovery programs and have completed twelve hours of gambling specific training within two years of designation as a problem gambling services supervisor.
(6) Clinical supervisors of mental health services shall meet Qualified Mental Health Professional (QMHP) requirements and have completed two years equivalent of post-graduate clinical experience in a mental health treatment setting.
(7) Peer Delivered Services Supervisors shall be a certified Peer Support Specialist (PSS) or Peer Wellness Specialist (PWS) with at least one year experience as a PSS or PWS in behavioral health treatment services.
(8) Substance use disorders treatment staff shall:
(a) Demonstrate competence in the use of The ASAM Criteria, Third Edition , in treatment of substance-use disorders including individual assessment to include identification of health and safety risks to self or others; individual, group, family and other counseling techniques; program policies and procedures for service delivery and documentation and identification; development of a safety plan; implementation and coordination of services identified to facilitate intended outcomes; and
(b) Receive clinical supervision that documents progress towards certification and recertification; or
(c) At the date of first hire to provide substance use disorder treatment, if the program staff is not certified to provide substance use disorder treatment, they shall register with the Division recognized credentialing body within 30 days of hire and obtain professional substance use disorder treatment certification within two years from the date of first hire unless they obtain a variance from the Division before that time has elapsed;
(d) For program staff holding certification in substance use disorder counseling, qualifications for the certificate shall have included at least:
(A) 1000 hours of supervised experience in substance use counseling;
(B) 150 contact hours of education and training in substance use related subjects; and
(C) Successful completion of a professional psychometric examination by a Division recognized credentialing body. A substantively equivalent portfolio evaluation by Division recognized credentialing body may be accepted in lieu of a professional psychometric examination using procedures approved by the Division.
(e) Substance use disorder treatment staff not holding certification from a Division recognized credentialing body in substance use disorder counseling shall have a license or registration from a Division recognized credentialing body and at least 60 contact hours of academic or continuing professional education in the treatment of substance use disorders. The license or registration shall have been issued by one of the following state bodies:
(A) Oregon Medical Board;
(B) Board of Psychologist Examiners;
(C) Board of Licensed Social Workers;
(D) Board of Licensed Professional Counselors and Therapists; or
(E) Oregon State Board of Nursing.
(9) Problem gambling treatment staff shall:
(a) Demonstrate competence in treatment of problem gambling including individual assessment to include identification of health and safety risks to self or others; individual, group, family and other counseling techniques; program policies and procedures for service delivery and documentation, implementation and coordination of services identified to facilitate intended outcomes and cultural responsiveness;
(b) Receive clinical supervision that documents progress towards certification and recertification;
(c) At the date of first hire to provide problem gambling treatment, if the program staff is not certified to provide problem gambling treatment, they shall register with the Division recognized credentialing body within 30 days of hire and obtain professional problem gambling treatment certification within two years from the date of first hire unless they obtain a variance from the Division before that time has elapsed;
(d) For program staff holding certification in problem gambling counseling, qualifications for the certificate shall have included at least:
(A) 500 hours of supervised experience in problem gambling counseling;
(B) 30 contact hours of education and training in problem gambling related subjects; and
(C) 24 hours of face-to-face, telephone, email or other electronic communication, of certification consultation from a problem gambling approved certification consultant; and
(D) Successful completion of a professional psychometric examination by a Division recognized credentialing body or a substantively equivalent portfolio evaluation by a Division recognized credentialing body may be accepted in lieu of a professional psychometric examination using procedures approved by the Division.
(e) Program staff not holding certification in gambling addiction counseling by a Division recognized credentialing body shall have at least 30 contact hours of academic or continuing professional education in the treatment of gambling addiction. The license or registration shall have been issued by one of the following state bodies:
(A) Oregon Medical Board;
(B) Board of Psychologist Examiners;
(C) Board of Licensed Social Workers;
(D) Board of Licensed Professional Counselors and Therapists; or
(E) Oregon State Board of Nursing.
(10) Rehabilitative Behavioral Health Service Providers, including medical treatment staff, shall demonstrate cultural responsiveness and meet the requirements and qualifications in OAR 410-172-0660.
(11) Behavioral health clinicians shall meet one of the following qualifications and maintain the corresponding credential in the State of Oregon:
(a) A licensed psychiatrist;
(b) A licensed psychologist;
(c) A licensed nurse practitioner with a specialty in psychiatric mental health;
(d) A licensed clinical social worker;
(e) A licensed professional counselor or licensed marriage and family therapist;
(f) A certified clinical social work associate;
(g) A Mental Health Intern or resident who is working under a board-approved supervisory contract in a clinical mental health field;
(h) A Qualified Mental Health Practitioner (QMHP); or
(i) Any other clinician whose authorized scope of practice includes mental health diagnosis and treatment.
(12) Qualified Mental Health Associates (QMHA) program staff shall:
(a) Demonstrate the following minimum competencies: cultural responsiveness, effective communication, care coordination, inter- and intra-agency collaboration, working alliances with individuals, assist in the gathering and compiling of information to be included in the assessment, screen for suicide and other risks, and implement timely interventions, teach skill development strategies, case management, and transition planning;
(b) Render services and supports within their scope to individuals engaged in a Division approved behavioral health services provider; and
(c) Shall meet the following minimum qualifications:
(A) Bachelor's degree in psychology, social work, or behavioral science field;
(B) An equivalent degree as evidenced by providing transcripts indicating applicable coursework meeting the required competencies and approved by a Division certified behavioral health provider; or
(C) A combination of at least three years of relevant work, education, training, or experience.
(d) Receive clinical supervision that documents progress towards certification and recertification.
(13) Qualified Mental Health Professional (QMHP) program staff shall:
(a) Demonstrate the following minimum competencies: cultural responsiveness, effective communication, care coordination, inter- and intra-agency collaboration, working alliances with individuals, suicide and other risk assessments and interventions, creating and monitoring safety plans, completion of bio-psycho-social assessments and additional assessments, updating assessments when clinical circumstances change, generating a differential DSM-5-TR diagnosis, prioritizing health, wellness and recovery needs, writing measurable service objectives, creating, monitoring and revising service plans, delivery of mental health and recovery treatment services in individual, group and family formats within their scope, gathering and recording data that measures progress toward the service objectives and documenting services, supports and other information supportive of the service plan.
(b) Render services and supports within their scope to individuals engaged in a Division approved behavioral health services program;
(c) Meet the following minimum qualifications:
(A) Bachelor’s degree in nursing and licensed by the State of Oregon. Nurses are accountable to abide by the Oregon Nurse Practice Act to determine if job descriptions are compliant with the competencies listed above;
(B) Bachelor’s degree in occupational therapy and licensed by the State of Oregon;
(C) Graduate degree in psychology, social work, recreational art or music therapy, or behavioral science field;
(D) An equivalent degree as evidenced by providing transcripts indicating applicable coursework meeting the required competencies and approved by a Division certified behavioral health provider; or
(E) Qualify as a Mental Health Intern, as described in these rules.
(d) Receive clinical supervision that documents progress towards certification and recertification.
(14) Mental Health Intern (MHI) program staff shall:
(a) Be currently enrolled in a graduate program for a master’s degree in psychology, social work, or related field of behavioral science;
(b) Have a collaborative educational agreement between the Division certified provider and the graduate program for the student;
(c) Demonstrate cultural responsiveness, effective communication and competence in care coordination, development of working alliances with individuals, inter- and intra-agency collaboration, and the rendering of services and supports within their scope and in accordance with the service plan, including transition planning; and
(d) Work within the scope of practice and competencies identified by collaborative educational agreement and the policies and procedures for the credentialing of clinical staff as established by the provider and the graduate program;
(15) Student Intern program staff shall:
(a) Be currently enrolled in an educational program for an undergraduate degree in a behavioral health field;
(b) Have a collaborative education agreement between the Division certified provider and the educational institute for the student;
(c) Demonstrate cultural responsiveness, effective communication and competence in care coordination, development of working alliances with individuals, inter- and intra-agency collaboration, and the rendering of services and supports within their scope and in accordance with the service plan, including transition planning;
(d) Work within the scope of practice and competencies identified by the collaborative educational agreement and the policies and procedures for the credentialing of clinical staff as established by the provider; and
(e) Receive, at a minimum, weekly individual supervision by a qualified clinical supervisor employed by the provider of services.
(f) Render services and supports under the direct supervision of a qualified supervisor employed by the provider of services, within the scope of practice and competencies identified by the collaborative educational agreement, and within the policies and procedures for the credentialing of program staff as established by the provider.
(16) Intern program staff shall:
(a) Be working towards obtaining a behavioral health credential;
(b) Demonstrate cultural responsiveness, effective communication and competence in care coordination, development of working alliances with individuals, inter-and intra-agency collaboration, and the rendering of services and supports within their scope and in accordance with the service plan, including transition planning;
(c) Work within the scope of practice and competencies identified by the applicable Division recognized credentialing body and the policies and procedures for the credentialing of clinical staff as established by the provider; and
(d) Render services and supports under the direct supervision of a qualified supervisor employed by the provider of services, within the scope of practice and competencies identified by the applicable Division recognized credentialing body, and within the policies and procedures for the credentialing of program staff as established by the provider.
(17) Community Health Workers working in substance use disorders treatment and recovery programs shall be certified as described in OAR 410-180-0310 and who:
(a) Has expertise or experience in behavioral health;
(b) Works in an urban or rural community, either for pay or as a volunteer in association with a local health care system;
(c) To the extent practicable, shares ethnicity, language, socioeconomic status and life experiences with the members of the community where the worker serves;
(d) Assists members of the community to improve their health and increases the capacity of the community to meet the health care needs of its residents and achieve wellness;
(e) Provides health education and information that is culturally appropriate to the individuals being served;
(f) Assists community members in receiving the care they need;
(g) CHW staff may:
(A) Give peer assistance and guidance on health including behavioral health behaviors; and
(B) Provide skills restoration services.
(18) Peer Support Specialists and Peer Wellness Specialists, including family and youth support and wellness specialists, shall meet the requirements in OAR 410-180-0300 to 0380 for certification and continuing education, and:
(a) A Peer Support Specialist and Peer Wellness Specialist shall be:
(A) Someone self-identified as currently or formerly receiving mental health, problem gambling or substance use services;
(B) Someone self-identified as in recovery from a substance use disorder;
(C) Someone self-identified as in recovery from problem gambling; or
(D) Someone who has experience parenting a child who:
(i) Is a current or former recipient of mental health or substance use treatment; or
(ii) Is facing or has faced difficulties in accessing education and health and wellness services due to a mental health or other behavioral health barrier.
(b) A Peer Support Specialist and Peer Wellness Specialist shall demonstrate:
(A) The ability to support others in their recovery or resiliency;
(B) Personal life experience and tools of self-directed recovery and resiliency; and
(C) Demonstrate cultural responsiveness and effective communication.
(19) “Youth support specialist” means an individual who meets qualification criteria adopted by the authority under ORS 414.665 and who, based on a similar life experience, provides supportive services to an individual who:
(a) Is not older than 30 years of age; and
(b) Is a current or former consumer of mental health or addiction treatment; or
(c) Is facing or has faced difficulties in accessing education, health and wellness services due to a mental health or behavioral health barrier.
(d) A “youth support specialist” may be a peer wellness specialist or a peer support specialist.
(20) Program staff include:
(a) Oregon Licensed Medical Professional (LMP) licensed by the Oregon Medical Board;
(b) Oregon Licensed Practical Nurse (LNP) licensed by the Oregon Board of Nursing;
(c) Oregon Registered Nurse (RN) licensed by the Oregon Board of Nursing;
(d) Advanced Practice Nurse including Clinical Nurse Specialist and Certified Nurse Practitioner licensed by the Oregon Board of Nursing;
(e) Psychologist licensed by the Oregon Board of Psychology;
(f) Professional Counselor (LPC) or Marriage and Family Therapist (LMFT) licensed by the Oregon Board of Licensed Professional Counselors and Therapists;
(g) Clinical Social Worker (CSW) licensed by the Oregon Board of Licensed Social Workers;
(h) Licensed Master Social Worker (LCSW) licensed by the Oregon Board of Licensed Social Workers as described in OAR 877-015-0105;
(i) Licensed Psychologist Associate granted independent status as described in OAR 858-010-0039;
(j) Licensed Occupational Therapist licensed by the Oregon Occupational Therapy Licensing Board;
(k) Board registered interns, including:
(A) Psychologist Associate Residents as described in OAR 858-010-0037;
(B) Licensed Psychologist Associate under continued supervision as described in OAR 858-010-0038;
(C) Licensed Professional Counselor Associate or Marriage and Family Therapist Associate registered with the Oregon Board of Licensed Professional Counselors and Therapists as described in OAR 833-050-0011;
(D) Certificate of Clinical Social Work Associate issued by the Oregon Board of Licensed Social Workers as described in OAR 877-020-0009;
(E) Registered Bachelor of Social Work issued by the Oregon Board of Licensed Social Workers as described in OAR 877-015-0105.
(l) Qualified Mental Health Professional (QMHP) as defined in OAR 309-019-0125(8);
(m) Qualified Mental Health Associate (QMHA) as defined in OAR 309-019-0125(7);
(n) Mental health intern as defined in OAR 309-019-0105;
(o) Problem Gambling treatment staff registered with the Mental Health and Addiction Certification Board of Oregon (MHACBO), which includes:
(A) Certified Gambling Addiction Counselor-Registered (CGAC-R);
(B) Certified Gambling Addiction Counselor-I (CGAC-I); or
(C) Certified Gambling Addiction Counselor-II (CADC-II).
(p) Substance Use Disorders (SUD) Treatment Staff, which includes:
(A) Certified Alcohol and Drug Counselor-Registered (CADC-R);
(B) Certified Alcohol and Drug Counselor-I (CADC-I);
(C) Certified Alcohol and Drug Counselor-II (CADC-II); and
(D) Certified Alcohol and Drug Counselor-III (CADC-III).
(q) Peer-Support Specialist (PSS) as defined in OAR 410-180-0305;
(r) Peer Wellness Specialist;
(s) Peer Delivered Services Supervisor;
(t) Tribal Traditional Health Worker; and
(u) Youth Support Specialist.
(21) Milieu staff are not required to have credentials. Milieu staff shall have or obtain training and education in de-escalation, mental health symptoms, substance use disorder symptoms, and suicide ideation identification to maintain a safe, supportive and effective treatment environment, and shall demonstrate effective:
(a) Knowledge of substance use disorders, including the ability to identify drugs and paraphernalia, post-acute withdrawal symptoms, triggers and relapse warning signs;
(b) Interpersonal boundaries, communication and coordination within the interdisciplinary team;
(c) Application of the program’s Code of Conduct, philosophy, guidelines, policies, procedures, standards and expectations;
(d) Safe, trauma informed and respectful interpersonal communications and behaviors; and
(e) Identification of symptoms, behaviors and circumstances that require notification of or consultation with a program or medical treatment staff.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 430.640 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955, 443.400 - 443.460, 443.991, 461.549 & 743A.168
- BHS 25-2024, amend filed 10/25/2024, effective 10/27/2024
- BHS 10-2023, amend filed 04/07/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- BHS 1-2022, amend filed 01/05/2022, effective 01/05/2022
- BHS 20-2019, amend filed 12/24/2019, effective 01/01/2020
- MHS 4-2018, amend filed 02/27/2018, effective 03/01/2018
- MHS 10-2017(Temp), f. 9-15-17, cert. ef. 9-15-17 thru 3-13-18
- MHS 3-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 10-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-018-0130 Documentation, Training, and Supervision
(1) Providers shall maintain personnel records for each program and milieu staff that contain all of the following documentation:
(a) The results of a criminal records check applicable to the current position or title, and:
(A) For personnel who render mental health services or have access to mental health protected health information such as service records or billing information, the program shall use The Oregon Criminal Records Check and those processes and procedures required by OAR 943-007-0001 through 0501; and
(B) For personnel who render only substance use disorder treatment services or have access to only substance use disorder protected health information such as service records or billing information, the program shall use national and state-wide criminal records check processes.
(b) A current job description that includes applicable competencies;
(c) Copies of relevant licensure or certification, diploma, or certified transcripts from an accredited college, indicating that the program staff meets applicable qualifications;
(d) Periodic performance appraisals;
(e) Program orientation documentation;
(f) Disciplinary documentation;
(g) Results of a Tuberculosis screening as per OAR 333-071-0057;
(h) Documentation of trainings required by this or other applicable rules; and
(i) Documentation of clinical and non-clinical supervision. Documentation shall include the date supervision took place, the amount of supervision time, and a brief description of relevant topics discussed.
(2) Program Orientation: Providers shall ensure that each program staff receive training applicable to the specific population for whom services are planned, delivered, or supervised. The provider shall document that the following orientation was completed for each program staff providing or supervising the provision of services or supports within 30 days of the hire date, unless otherwise specified. At a minimum, program orientation training for all program staff shall include but not be limited to:
(a) A review of crisis prevention and response procedures;
(b) A review of emergency evacuation procedures;
(c) A review of program policies and procedures and the procedures for each licensed ASAM Level of Care for each certified ASAM Level of Care for substance use disorder treatment program staff;
(d) A review of rights for individuals receiving services and supports;
(e) A review of mandatory abuse reporting procedures;
(f) A review of confidentiality policies and procedures;
(g) A review of Fraud, Waste and Abuse policies and procedures;
(h) A review of care coordination procedures;
(i) A review of and agreement to abide by the Code of Conduct; and
(j) Substance use disorders treatment staff and substance use disorders clinical supervisors shall complete a training on The ASAM Criteria, Third Edition within the first 3 months of employment or have it documented as completed within the most recent two years.
(3) Milieu Staff Program Orientation: Providers shall ensure that each Milieu staff receive training applicable to the specific population for whom services are planned, delivered, or supervised. The provider shall document that at a minimum, the following orientation training was completed for each staff or person providing or supporting the provision of services or supports within 30 days of the hire date. At a minimum, program orientation training for all program staff shall include but not be limited to:
(a) A review of crisis prevention and response procedures;
(b) A review of emergency evacuation procedures;
(c) A review of program policies and procedures, including medical protocols and the procedures for each licensed ASAM Level of Care;
(d) A review of rights for individuals receiving services and supports;
(e) A review of mandatory abuse reporting procedures;
(f) A review of confidentiality policies and procedures;
(g) A review of an agreement to abide by the Code of Conduct; and
(h) For Milieu Staff, the personnel record shall contain verification of the completion of the following trainings within the first 6 months of employment:
(A) De-escalation;
(B) Overview of substance use disorders;
(C) Overview of mental health symptomology; and
(D) Suicide risk and prevention.
(4) Clinical supervision and non-clinical supervision: program staff including applicable volunteers and interns providing direct services and or supports, and milieu staff, shall receive documented clinical supervision or non-clinicial supervision, and oversight by a qualified clinical supervisor or manager, as applicable and as defined in these rules. Part time program staff shall receive supervision prorated to reflect the average number of hours worked. Half the total supervision hours required may be accomplished through group supervision. Individual face-to face contact may include real time, two-way audio or audio-visual conferencing, and:
(a) Clinical Supervision and non-clinical supervision shall be related to the development of the staff and the services, and the implementation and outcome of the services. Supervision shall be provided to assist staff to:
(b) Increase their skills within their scope of practice;
(c) Improve quality of services or supports to individuals;
(d) Ensure understanding and application of the code of conduct and program policies and procedures; and
(e) Documentation shall include the date, amount of time per session and a brief description of the topics addressed and shall demonstrate the following minimum amounts of clinical supervision:
(A) Non-licensed program staff and volunteers meeting the definition of program staff shall receive at least two hours per month of clinical supervision. The two hours shall include one hour of individual face-to-face supervision;
(B) Program staff holding a license issued by a Division recognized credentialing body shall receive at least two hours of clinical supervision quarterly;
(C) Mental Health Interns, Interns and Student Interns shall receive one-hour of individual clinical supervision per week;
(D) When available, a qualified Peer Delivered Services Supervisor shall provide one of the two hours of required monthly supervision to program staff providing direct Peer Delivered Services. Remaining hours of supervision shall be provided by a qualified clinical supervisor; and
(E) Non-clinical, group supervision shall be provided to milieu staff by the managing staff or clinical supervisor at least one hour per month.
(f) Mental health interns, interns and student interns shall render services and supports under the active supervision of a qualified supervisor, as defined in these rules; and
(g) Individualized, non-clinical supervision shall be utilized as needed and documented.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 430.640 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955, 443.400 - 443.460, 443.991, 461.549 & 743A.168
- BHS 10-2023, amend filed 04/07/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- MHS 4-2018, amend filed 02/27/2018, effective 03/01/2018
- MHS 10-2017(Temp), f. 9-15-17, cert. ef. 9-15-17 thru 3-13-18
- MHS 3-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 10-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-018-0135 Entry
(1) The provider must utilize and document an entry procedure that at a minimum will ensure the following:
(a) Individuals shall be considered for entry without regard to race, ethnicity, gender, gender identity, gender presentation, sexual orientation, religion, creed, national origin, age, except when program eligibility is restricted to children, adults or older adults, familial status, marital status, source of income, and disability;
(b) Individuals shall receive services a manner consistent and appropriate with their presenting life circumstances; and
(c) The provider may not deny entry to individuals based on the individual’s decision to continue their currently prescribed medication to treat opioid dependence while receiving residential substance use disorder services.
(2) Except as permitted by law in emergencies, informed consent for services must be obtained prior to services. Written, voluntary informed consent for services shall be obtained from the individual or guardian, if applicable, prior to the start of services. If such consent is not obtained, the reason and any further attempts to obtain informed consent shall be documented in the service record.
(3) Per CFR 440.230, the provider shall develop and maintain service records and other documentation that demonstrates amount, duration and scope of each specific services and supports provided for each individual.
(4) The provider shall submit the identified status and service data, including Non-Medicaid Service Data where required, in the mandated state data system according to the timelines required by the Division for each individual whose services are paid for in-full or in-part by public funds and for individuals enrolled in DUII services within 10 days of the start of services
(5) An authorization for the release of information shall be obtained and contained in the service record for the release of any confidential information concerning the individual being considered for or receiving services.
(6) Except as permitted by law in emergencies, prior to or at the start of treatment services, , the program must obtain written, voluntary informed consent for services from the individual or guardian, if applicable. The provider shall offer to the individual and guardian, if applicable, written program information. The written program information shall be in a language understood by the individual and must include disclosures and description of services to be provided, as well as other information regarding the program. The written program information shall include:
(a) A description of individual rights consistent with these rules; and
(b) Notice of privacy practices; and
(c) Disclosure of opportunity to declare Advanced Directive for Mental Health Treatment, including description on how to access this opportunity.
(7) Entry requirements for providers that receive the Substance Use, Prevention, Treatment and Recovery (SUPTR) Block Grant:
(a) Providers shall maintain waitlist documentation demonstrating that individuals are prioritized for entry in the following order:
(A) Individuals who are pregnant and using substances intravenously;
(B) Individuals who are pregnant;
(C) Individuals who are using substances intravenously; and
(D) Individuals or families with dependent children.
(b) Entry of pregnant individuals shall occur no later than 48 hours from the date of first contact and entry of individuals using substances intravenously shall occur no later than 14 days after the date of first contact. If services are not available within the required timeframes, the provider shall document the reason and provide interim referral and informational services, as defined in these rules, within 48 hours; and
(c) Individuals using substances intravenously shall receive interim resource recommendations and information prior to entry to reduce the adverse health effects of substance use, promote the health of the individual, and reduce the risk of transmission of disease. At a minimum, interim resource recommendations and informational services shall include:
(A) An opportunity for the individual to engage in routine services through care coordination, peer services or other interactive supports.
(B) Educational material about blood borne pathogens including Hepatitis, HIV, STDs, and Tuberculosis (TB); the risks of needle and paraphernalia sharing; and the likelihood of transmission to sexual partners and infants;
(C) Educational information about steps that can decrease the likelihood of Hepatitis, HIV, STD, and TB transmission;
(D) Resource recommendations for addressing Hepatitis, HIV, STD, and TB testing, vaccine, or care services if necessary; and
(E) For pregnant individuals, counseling and educational information addressing the likelihood of blood borne pathogen transmission as well as the effects of alcohol, tobacco, and other drug use on the fetus and referral for prenatal care.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.640 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 109.675, 161.390 - 161.400, 179.505, 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955, 443.400 - 443.460, 443.991, 461.549 & 743A.168
- BHS 25-2024, amend filed 10/25/2024, effective 10/27/2024
- BHS 10-2024, temporary amend filed 05/21/2024, effective 05/21/2024 through 10/27/2024
- BHS 8-2024, temporary amend filed 04/30/2024, effective 05/01/2024 through 10/27/2024
- BHS 10-2023, amend filed 04/07/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- MHS 4-2018, amend filed 02/27/2018, effective 03/01/2018
- MHS 10-2017(Temp), f. 9-15-17, cert. ef. 9-15-17 thru 3-13-18
- MHS 3-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 10-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-018-0140 Assessment
(1) Prior to, or at the time of entry, an assessment must be initiated and by a qualified program staff.
(a) Assessments must record diagnostic information derived from any combination of clinical observation, self-report interview, or collateral information (such as assessments from other programs or previous treatment episodes).
(b) Providers may minimize the number and length of assessments through use of collateral information to inform the current assessment, such as previous assessments on file.
(c) Any changes to the ASAM Level of Care placement decision must be justified within an update to the multidimensional assessment on file;
(d) Providers must update assessments within the scope of their practice when there are changes in clinical circumstances;
(e) At a minimum, each of following must be documented during initial assessment interview(s):
(A) A medically necessary reason for services, including supporting information;
(B) Appropriateness for treatment by the program;
(C) Current risk(s), including suicide risk;
(D) Immediate risk(s);
(E) Identification of current physical and psychological trauma; and
(2) In addition, for individuals entering residential substance use disorder services, each assessment and update thereof must be a multidimensional assessment that is consistent with The ASAM Criteria, Third Edition, and include, at a minimum, the following components, each consistent with The ASAM Criteria, Third Edition :
(a) The Level of Care recommendation for each ASAM dimension based on current and available information;
(b) A consideration of the history of each substance use-related risk as well as the present substance use related risk concern(s);
(c) A severity of risk for each dimension;
(d) An overall determination of the severity of risk the individual currently is experiencing.
(3) Assessments and assessment updates are considered complete when the following information has also been added to assessment documentation as soon as possible, but within a timeline that prioritizes the individual’s immediate needs:
(a) Clinically relevant current and historical biological, psychological, social information;
(b) Documentation of the presence of a DSM-5-TR diagnosis that is the medically necessary reason for services, including identification of each DSM-5-TR criteria established per diagnosis, and the symptoms supporting each criteria;
(c) Screening for the presence of suicide risk and documented interventions, as indicated;
(d) A determination of immediate need for follow-up actions, additional services and supports; and
(e) The identification of psychological and physical trauma and risk to the individual or to others.
(f) Current Substance use;
(g) Current Problem Gambling Behavior;
(h) Current Mental Health conditions, including currently prescribed psychiatric medications, as clinically relevant;
(i) Current Medical conditions, including currently prescribed treatments and medications, as clinically relevant;
(j) When indicated, documentation must contain recommendations for each identified need, indicating further assessment, planning, and intervention from an appropriate professional, either with the same provider or with a collaborative community provider.
(k) ASAM Level of Care determination per dimension, overall, and noting any applicable discrepancies.
(l) If the provider cannot document a medically necessary reason for services that includes a DSM-5-TR diagnosis at entry, the provider must at minimum, document a screening for suicide risk, immediate needs, safety risk and current impact of trauma on daily functioning. The provider can render the following routine services for up to 3 business days without a documented medically necessary reason for services, or at any appropriate time during a treatment episode:
(A) Care co-ordination;
(B) Case Management; and
(C) Peer Mentoring.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.640 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955, 443.400 - 443.460, 443.991, 461.549 & 743A.168
- BHS 25-2024, amend filed 10/25/2024, effective 10/27/2024
- BHS 10-2024, temporary amend filed 05/21/2024, effective 05/21/2024 through 10/27/2024
- BHS 8-2024, temporary amend filed 04/30/2024, effective 05/01/2024 through 10/27/2024
- BHS 10-2023, amend filed 04/07/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- MHS 4-2018, amend filed 02/27/2018, effective 03/01/2018
- MHS 10-2017(Temp), f. 9-15-17, cert. ef. 9-15-17 thru 3-13-18
- MHS 3-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 10-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-018-0145 Service Plan and Service Notes
(1) The Service Plan shall be a written, individualized plan to improve the individual’s condition to the point where the individual’s continued participation in the program or level of care is no longer necessary.
(2) Routine services may be provided prior to completion of a Service Plan. Per Services not documented in a Service Plan may be provided with documented explanation. The Service Plan is included in the individual’s service record and shall:
(a) Be started prior to the rendering of treatment services, and provider must document reason for any delay in the service record ;
(b) Reflect the assessment in its’ most updated form;
(c) Address areas of concern identified in the assessment that the individual agrees to address;
(d) Include a safety plan when the assessment indicates risk to the health and safety of the individual or to others and be updated as circumstances change. The safety plan may be a separate document from the Service Plan;
(e) Include the participation, and reflect agreement, of the individual and family members as applicable; and
(f) Be completed and signed by qualified program staff as follows:
(A) Supervisory or treatment staff in substance use disorders treatment and recovery programs; and
(B) Supervisory or treatment staff in problem gambling treatment and recovery programs.
(3) At minimum, each service plan, in addition to requirements in 309-018-0145 (2) above, each service plan shall include:
(a) Treatment goals that are:
(A) Individualized to meet the assessed needs of the individual.
(B) Completed within ten business days from entry.
(C)Measurable, with inclusion of baseline measurements, for the purpose of evaluating individual progress, as well as include;
(b) The specific services and supports that shall be used to meet the treatment objectives;
(c) The expected frequency, and duration of each type of planned service or support; and
(d) A schedule for re-evaluating the service plan.
(3) Providers shall document in a service note each service and support that includes the following:
(a) The specific services rendered;
(b) The specific service plan objectives being addressed by the services provided;
(c) The date, time of service, and the actual amount of time the services were rendered;
(d) The personnel rendering the services, including the name, credentials and signature;
(e) The setting in which the services were rendered; and
(f) Periodic updates describing the individual’s progress.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.640 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955, 443.400 - 443.460, 443.991, 461.549 & 743A.168
- BHS 25-2024, amend filed 10/25/2024, effective 10/27/2024
- BHS 10-2024, temporary amend filed 05/21/2024, effective 05/21/2024 through 10/27/2024
- BHS 8-2024, temporary amend filed 04/30/2024, effective 05/01/2024 through 10/27/2024
- BHS 10-2023, amend filed 04/07/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- MHS 4-2018, amend filed 02/27/2018, effective 03/01/2018
- MHS 10-2017(Temp), f. 9-15-17, cert. ef. 9-15-17 thru 3-13-18
- MHS 3-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 10-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-018-0150 Service Record
(1) Documentation shall be appropriate in quality and quantity to meet professional standards applicable to the provider and any additional standards for documentation in the provider’s policies and any pertinent contracts.
(2) All providers shall develop and maintain a Service Record for each individual. The record shall, at a minimum, include:
(a) Identifying information or documentation of attempts to obtain the information, including:
(A) The individual's first and last name, preferred name, address, telephone number, date of birth, sex, gender identity, and for adults, marital status, and military status;
(B) First and last name,, address, and telephone number of the parent or legal guardian, primary care giver or emergency contact; and
(C) Contact information for medical and dental providers.
(b) Informed Consent for Service including medications or documentation specifying why the provider could not obtain consent by the individual or guardian as applicable;
(c) Written refusal of any services and supports offered, including medications;
(d) A signed fee agreement, when applicable;
(e) A personal belongings inventory created upon entry and updated whenever an item of significant value is added or removed or on the date of transfer;
(f) Background information including strengths and interests, all available previous mental health or substance use assessments, previous living arrangements, service history, behavior support considerations, education service plans if applicable, and family and other support resources;
(g) Medical information including a brief history of any health conditions, documentation from a LMP or other qualified health care professional of the individual's current physical health, and a written record of any prescribed or recommended medications, services, dietary specifications, and aids to physical functioning;
(h) Copies of documents relating to guardianship or any other legal considerations, as applicable;
(i) Documentation of the individual’s ability to evacuate the home consistent with the program’s evacuation plan developed in accordance with the Oregon Structural Specialty Code and Oregon Fire Code;
(j) Documentation of any safety risks;
(k) Documentation of follow-up actions and referrals when an individual reports symptoms indicating risk of suicide; and
(l) Critical Incidents shall be reported to the Division through submission of an incident report and as applicable, to the Office of Training Investigation and Safety (OTIS), and other authorities:
(A) In at least the following examples of circumstances:
(i) Death, including by suicide or overdose;
(ii) Severe injury, overdose resulting in hospitalization or needing medical attention, and emergency services needed;
(iii) Ongoing risk to health (for example: environmental risks such as certain molds that pose risks to health);
(iv) Police involvement;
(v) Extensive damage to the facility or other substantial change in living conditions; and
(vi) Where abuse or neglect is suspected, including unethical client and staff relationships; and
(vii) Relationships between individuals that result in harm to at least one individual or that are sexual in nature.
(B) Within 24 hours of the event;
(C) On the original, unredacted incident report;
(D) All incident reports shall be maintained in the corresponding service record and in a common file for quality improvement purposes and review by the Division; and
(E) In accordance with privacy rules and regulations, incident reports filed in service records shall not contain protected health information belonging to any other individual.
(3) Incident reports shall contain, at a minimum, the following information:
(a) The time and date of the event;
(b) The time and date of when the incident report form was completed;
(c) Name and title of staff who filled out the report;
(d) Identification of all staff involved in the incident and the response to the incident, and their titles;
(e) Identification of each individual involved;
(f) Description of event;
(g) Description of program response;
(h) Description of which policies and procedures were followed and when appliable, any that were not followed;
(i) Identification of staff who were notified, and their titles;
(j) Identification of which authorities the event was reported to; and
(k) Description of administrative response and follow-up.
(4) When medical services are provided by the program or a community provider, the following documents shall be part of the Service Record as applicable:
(a) Medication administration records as per these rules;
(b) Laboratory reports;
(c) LMP orders for medication, protocols or procedures; and
(d) Documentation of medical screenings, assessments, consultations, interventions, and procedures.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.640 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955, 443.400 - 443.460, 443.991, 461.549 & 743A.168
- BHS 25-2024, amend filed 10/25/2024, effective 10/27/2024
- BHS 10-2024, temporary amend filed 05/21/2024, effective 05/21/2024 through 10/27/2024
- BHS 8-2024, temporary amend filed 04/30/2024, effective 05/01/2024 through 10/27/2024
- BHS 10-2023, amend filed 04/07/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- MHS 4-2018, amend filed 02/27/2018, effective 03/01/2018
- MHS 10-2017(Temp), f. 9-15-17, cert. ef. 9-15-17 thru 3-13-18
- MHS 3-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 10-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-018-0155 Transfer and Continuity of Care
(1) Providers shall maintain direct affiliation with or close coordination for referral to other levels of care and other types of services and supports to coordinate biomedical, psychological, pharmacotherapy, laboratory, community engagement, educational, vocational and other such services and supports that are not offered by the provider.
(2) Prior to transfer, providers shall:
(a) When applicable, coordinate and provide appropriate referrals for medical care and medication management. The transferring provider shall assist the individual to identify the medical provider who provides continuing care and to arrange an initial appointment with that provider;
(b) Document a transfer summary of treatment services; and
(c) Report all instances of transfers on the mandated state data system.
(3) A transfer summary of treatment services shall include:
(a) The date of transfer;
(b) The reason for the transfer;
(c) When transfer is to another provider, identify the provider where services are to be transferred, including contact information and date of admission or description of steps for the individual to access services;
(d) For substance use disorder treatment services, a summary of the current ASAM data for all dimensions, risk assessment, the ASAM assessed Level of Care established for the purposes of transfer of services, and any other recommendation(s) for the next assessed ASAM Level of Care, including other community services; and
(e) A summary statement describing the effectiveness of services to assist the individual and, when applicable, their family in achieving the objectives contained in the service plan.
(4) A transfer summary of support services shall be made available in writing to the individual as requested and include:
(a) Where appropriate, a plan for personal wellness and resilience, including relapse prevention;
(b) Identification of resources to assist the individual and family, if applicable, in accessing recovery and resiliency services and supports;
(c) Referrals to follow up services and other behavioral health providers; and
(d) When services are transferred due to the absence of the individual, the provider shall document outreach efforts made to re-engage the individual or document the reason why such efforts were not made.
(5) To the extent permitted or required by applicable confidentiality laws, when the transfer summary of treatment services is sent to another provider or level of care, it shall be sent in advance of the individual’s entry into services at another provider or the next level of care. To the extent permitted by law, all other documentation contained in the Service Record that is requested by the receiving provider shall be furnished, within 14 days of receipt of a written request for the documentation.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.640 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955, 443.400 - 443.460, 443.991, 461.549 & 743A.168
- BHS 10-2023, amend filed 04/07/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- MHS 4-2018, amend filed 02/27/2018, effective 03/01/2018
- MHS 10-2017(Temp), f. 9-15-17, cert. ef. 9-15-17 thru 3-13-18
- MHS 3-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 10-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-018-0160 Co-Occurring Mental Health and Substance Use Disorders (COD)
Services shall be integrated and address treatment and recovery for co-occurring Mental Health, Substance Use and/or Gambling Disorders. In addition to requirements in OAR Chapter 309, these rules specify standards and requirements for providers delivering co-occurring mental health, substance use disorder and problem gambling services and supports.
(1) Access to services shall:
(a) Be trauma informed, culturally relevant, linguistically, and developmentally appropriate, and utilize a harm reduction model where indicated and appropriate; and
(b) Be adapted for individuals with intellectual and developmental disabilities.
(2) All assessments shall:
(a) Be consistent with the most recent version of the ASAM (American Society of Addiction Medicine) criteria and document a level of care determination consistent with ASAM;
(b) Provide sufficient information to justify the presence of at least two behavioral health disorders --Mental Health Disorders, Substance Use Disorders and/or Gambling Disorder diagnoses that are the medically appropriate reason for services, using the most recent version of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM); and
(c) Identify any other co-morbid risk factors.
(3) Service Plans shall:
(a) Accommodate the individual’s identified holistic needs and preferences, as appropriate for Residential Level of Care;
(b) Utilize a harm reduction approach where indicated and appropriate for Residential Level of Care;
(c) Address long term wellness needs as identified and appropriate for Residential Level of Care; and
(d) Be in alignment with participant’s current stage of change in regard to substance use disorder recovery, gambling disorder recovery and mental health disorder recovery.
(4) The following services shall be made available, as indicated through assessment and service plan:
(a) Case Management ;
(b) Peer Support Services;
(c) Family therapy and/or recovery support services; and
(d) Psychiatric medication and evaluation services.
(5) Integrated Co-Occurring Disorders Programs shall screen for gambling disorder at time of entry. Should Gambling Disorder be a identified;
(a) a diagnosis and supporting information will be documented in the assessment and service plan by a qualified Problem Gambling Counselor or Integrated Co-Occurring Disorders Problem Gambling Specialist;
(b) Problem Gambling shall be treated in Integrated Co-Occurring Disorders Residential setting by a qualified Problem Gambling Counselor or Integrated Co-Occurring Problem Gambling Specialist;
(c) Should Problem Gambling be identified as more severe than presenting co-occurring mental health and substance use disorders, participant shall be referred to a specialty problem gambling residential treatment provider.
(6) Integrated Co-Occurring Disorders Program Staff Qualifications shall align with the provisions described in 309-018-0125 and ensure that:
(a) All treatment staff providing Integrated Co-Occurring Disorders treatment services shall hold, at minimum, a qualifying credential to provide treatment services in mental health or substance use disorders treatment. Treatment staff holding one credential shall be limited to providing treatment services in alignment with their credential;
(b) Interns and student interns are permitted to provide services during the duration of their candidacy or internship as described in OAR 309-018-0105;
(c) Progression towards additional certifications must be documented on an ongoing basis in the personnel record;
(d) The program must retain a credentialed problem gambling treatment provider OR designate a Co-Occurring Problem Gambling Specialist. A Co-Occurring Problem Gambling Specialist must have:
(A) Fourteen hours minimum of problem gambling specific training within twelve months of being named as a problem gambling provider, with a minimum of two hours in each of the following seven content areas; Gambling Client Assessment/Intake, Gambling Financial Planning and Budgeting, Gambling Counseling (Individual, Group, Family), Gambling Case Management, Professional Responsibility and Ethics in Gambling Counseling, Crisis Intervention in Gambling Counseling, Co-Occurring Disorders and Problem Gambling; and
(B) Documentation of required trainings shall be contained in the personnel file.
(e) Peer – Delivered Services providers shall be certified as Peer Wellness Specialists (PWS) or Peer Support Specialist (PSS);
(f) Supervisors must:
(A) Be credentialed in Mental Health and/or Substance Use Disorder treatment provision;
(B) Limit their supervision to providers within the scope of their professional credentials.
(C) Supervisors must demonstrate completion of 12 CEU’s in approved Problem Gambling training for supervisors within twelve months of beginning to supervise program staff rendering Problem Gambling Treatment Services in Integrated Co-Occurring Disorders Treatment programming;
(g) The program must employ or contract with a Licensed Medical Provider (LMP) that shall provide psychiatric medication services to program participants. The LMP shall acquire Division approved Integrated Co-Occurring Disorders training within twelve months of hire or appointment to these services. Approved training will be published by the Division on the OHA Integrated Co-Occurring Disorders website yearly on or before January 1st;
(h) The program shall be certified by the Division as either ASAM Co-Occurring Capable or ASAM Co-Occurring Enhanced;
(i) All Supervisors, Treatment Service Providers and Peer Services Providers delivering services in Integrated Co-Occurring Disorders Programs shall complete Integrated Co-Occurring Disorders trainings required and provided by OHA and shall ensure certificates of completion are documented in staff personnel files, according to the following conditions:
(A) Within twelve months of beginning to render Co-Occurring Disorders services or supports; and
(B) On a continuing two-year basis for all Supervisors and Treatment Providers and a continuing three-year basis for Peer Staff rendering Co-Occurring Disorders services or supports for more than one year.
(j) Continuing Education training required by the Oregon Health Authority (OHA) shall consist of at least two hours but no more than six hours every two years following the initial training year for supervisors and treatment providers, and every three years following the initial training year for peer services providers:
(A) Integrated Co-Occurring Disorders trainings required by OHA will be published by the Division yearly on or before January 1st on the OHA Integrated Co-Occurring Disorders website;
(B) OHA training will include – but will not be limited to – content relevant to providing integrated treatment, and specialty training on providing treatment services for community members who are marginalized, underserved, and oppressed by structural and systemic racism and injustices, Severe Mental Illness and Intellectual and Developmental Disabilities.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 430.640 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 743A.168, ORS 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955, 443.400 - 443.460, 443.991 & 461.549
- BHS 15-2023, amend filed 06/28/2023, effective 07/01/2023
- MHS 4-2018, amend filed 02/27/2018, effective 03/01/2018
- MHS 10-2017(Temp), f. 9-15-17, cert. ef. 9-15-17 thru 3-13-18
- MHS 17-2016, f. 11-28-16, cert. ef. 11-30-16
- MHS 10-2016(Temp), f. 6-29-16, cert. ef. 7-1-16 thru 12-27-16
- MHS 3-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 10-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-018-0162 Residential Specialty Programs
Residential Specialty Programs focused on treatment programming and planning must be specialized to the population and individuals being served. The majority of the population being served within the program must fall within the specific specialty population. The Specialty populations recognized under publicly funded services and supports include:
(1) Pregnant and/or parenting with dependent children. Programs shall be designed to meet the unique service needs of this population and shall ensure:
(a) Individuals receiving services:
(A) That are pregnant or;
(B) Have their infant(s) and/or toddler(s)/ young child(ren) reside with them in the treatment facility, or;
(C) Are complying with a Department of Human Services (DHS) plan to regain custody of their child(ren) and have a recommendation from the DHS caseworker to attend a parenting program;
(b) Day Care be accessible for every infant and toddler;
(c) Evidence-based parenting practices are made available to all individuals;
(d) Family counseling is made available to all individuals;
(e) Screening and counseling services are made available for each child;
(f) School-aged children attend school regularly and are provided assistance with their schoolwork or a tutor or other support as identified by the school, parent, DHS or program;
(g) Transportation is arranged or provided for medical and educational and other necessities; and
(h) Peer-Delivered Services are made available.
(2) Culturally Specific programs shall be designed to meet the unique service needs of a specific culture and provide services designed to meet the needs of the majority of individuals representing that culture.
(a) Types of culturally specific programs include:
(A) LGBTQIA2S+;
(B) Specific cultural, racial and/or ethnic group(s) including tribal members;
(C) Military community members inclusive of those who have served in the Armed Forces or National Guard, and their families.
(b) All Culturally specific programs shall:
(A) Be approved and designated as culturally specific programs and meet all criteria in OAR 309-018-0170; and
(B) Provide Peer-Delivered Services.
(c) Military Culturally specific programs shall ensure:
(A) All individuals receiving care have received:
(i) Screening for brain injury;
(ii) Screening for military sexual trauma;
(iii) Information and instruction on lethal means safety planning;
(iv) Information on how to access Oregon Senior Health Insurance Benefits Assistance (SHIBA) if approaching 65, or older; and
(v) Appropriate referrals, as determined by screenings
(B) Transportation is arranged or provided for medical and educational and other necessities
(C) Individuals identifying as members of the military community are offered assistance to enroll in Veteran Health Administration (VHA) for the delivery of health and behavioral health services
(D) Staff delivering services to individuals of the military community have completed training on the subject of military culture
(E) The culturally specific program has an agreement establishing care coordination expectations with the nearest Department of Veterans Affairs medical center, independent clinic, drop-in center, or other facility of the Department
(F) Care provided to military community members is consistent with minimum clinical mental health guidelines promulgated by the VHA
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & ORS 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.042, ORS 430.640, ORS 414.025, ORS 414.065, ORS 430.640, ORS 430.705 & ORS 430.715
- BHS 14-2022, adopt filed 07/20/2022, effective 07/20/2022
Or. Admin. R. 309-018-0165 Residential Problem Gambling Treatment Services
Residential problem gambling treatment services shall include group, individual, and family treatment consistent with the following requirements:
(1) Service sessions shall address the challenges of the individual as they relate, directly or indirectly, to the problem gambling behavior.
(2) Providers may provide telephone counseling when person-to-person contact involves an unwise delay, as follows:
(a) Individuals shall be currently enrolled in the problem gambling treatment program;
(b) Phone counseling shall be provided by a qualified program staff within their scope of practice;
(c) Service notes for phone counseling shall follow the same criteria as face-to-face counseling and identify the session was conducted by phone and the clinical rationale for the phone session;
(d) Telephone counseling shall meet HIPAA and 42 CFR standards for privacy; and
(e) There shall be an agreement of informed consent for phone counseling that is discussed with the individual and documented in the individual’s service record.
(3) Family counseling includes face-to-face or non-face-to-face service sessions between a program staff member delivering the service and a family member whose life has been negatively impacted by gambling:
(a) Service sessions shall address the problems of the family member as they relate directly or indirectly to the problem gambling behavior; and
(b) Services to the family shall be offered even if the individual identified as a problem gambler is unwilling or unavailable to accept services.
(4) Twenty-four hour crisis response shall be accomplished through agreement with other crisis services, on-call program staff, or other arrangement acceptable to the Division.
(5) A financial assessment shall be included in the entry process and documented in the assessment.
(6) The service plan shall include a financial component, consistent with the financial assessment.
(7) A risk assessment for suicide ideation shall be included in the entry process and documented in the assessment as well as appropriate referrals made.
(8) The service plan shall address suicidal risks if determined within the assessment process or throughout services.
(9) For individuals at risk, the service notes shall contain documented evidence that suicidal risk is continually assessed and that follow-up safety plan activities are being monitored.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 428.205 - 428.270, 430.640 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955, 443.400 - 443.460, 443.991, 461.549, 743A.168, 813.010 - 813.055 & 813.200 - 813.270
- MHS 4-2018, amend filed 02/27/2018, effective 03/01/2018
- MHS 10-2017(Temp), f. 9-15-17, cert. ef. 9-15-17 thru 3-13-18
- MHS 3-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 10-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-018-0170 Culturally Specific Substance Use Disorders Treatment and Recovery Services
Programs approved and designated as culturally specific programs shall meet the following criteria:
(1) Serve a majority of individuals representing culturally specific populations;
(2) Maintain a current demographic and cultural profile of the community;
(3) Ensure that individuals from the identified cultural group receive effective and respectful care that is provided in a manner compatible with their cultural health beliefs, practices, and preferred language;
(4) Implement strategies to recruit, retain, and promote a diverse staff at all levels of the organization that are representative of the population being served;
(5) Ensure that staff at all levels and across all disciplines receive ongoing education and training in culturally and linguistically appropriate service delivery;
(6) Ensure that a majority of the substance use disorders treatment staff be representative of the specific culture being served;
(7) Ensure that individuals are offered customer satisfaction surveys that address all areas of service and that the results of the surveys are used for quality improvement;
(8) Consider race, ethnicity, and language data in measuring customer satisfaction;
(9) Develop and implement cultural competency policies;
(10) Ensure that data on individual’s race, ethnicity, and spoken and written language are collected in health records, integrated into the organization’s management information systems, and periodically updated;
(11) Develop and maintain a governing or advisory board as follows:
(a) Have a majority representation of the culturally specific group being served;
(b) Receive training concerning the significance of culturally relevant services and supports;
(c) Meet at least quarterly; and
(d) Monitor agency quality improvement mechanisms and evaluate the ongoing effectiveness and implementation of culturally relevant services (CLAS) and supports within the organization.
(12) Maintain accessibility to culturally specific populations including:
(a) The physical location of the program shall be within close proximity to the culturally specific populations;
(b) Where available, public transportation shall be within close proximity to the program; and
(c) Hours of service, telephone contact, and other accessibility issues shall be appropriate for the population.
(13) The physical facility where the culturally specific services are delivered shall be trauma informed for the group including:
(a) Materials displayed shall be culturally relevant; and
(b) Mass media programming (radio, television, etc.) shall be sensitive to cultural background.
(14) Other cultural differences shall be considered and accommodated when possible, such as the need or desire to bring family members to the facility, play areas for small children, and related accommodations; and
(15) Ensure that grievance processes are culturally and linguistically sensitive and capable of identifying, preventing and resolving cross-cultural conflicts or complaints.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.640 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955, 443.400 - 443.460, 443.991, 461.549 & 743A.168
- MHS 4-2018, amend filed 02/27/2018, effective 03/01/2018
- MHS 10-2017(Temp), f. 9-15-17, cert. ef. 9-15-17 thru 3-13-18
- MHS 3-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 10-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-018-0180 Residential Substance Use Disorders Treatment and Recovery Programs
(1) Programs approved to provide residential substance use disorders treatment services shall meet the following standards:
(a) The assessment shall contain an evaluation that identifies and assesses needs such as social isolation, self-reliance, parenting issues, domestic violence, physical health, housing, and financial considerations;
(b) The service plan shall address all areas identified in the assessment and applicable service coordination details to address the identified needs;
(c) The program shall provide or coordinate services and supports that meet the special access needs such as childcare, mental health services, and transportation, as indicated; and
(d) The program shall provide or coordinate the following services and supports unless clinically contraindicated:
(A) Gender-specific services and supports;
(B) Family services, including therapeutic services for children in the custody of individuals in treatment;
(C) Reintegration with family;
(D) Peer delivered supports;
(E) Smoking cessation;
(F) Housing;
(G) Transportation; and
(H) Housing and Employment support services for those who qualify under OAR 309-019-0105.
(2) Services shall include the participation of family and other agencies as appropriate, such as social service, child welfare, or corrections agencies.
(3) The program shall coordinate services with the following, if indicated:
(a) Agencies providing services to individuals who have experienced physical abuse, sexual abuse, or other types of domestic violence; and
(b) Parenting training; and
(c) Continuing care treatment services shall be consistent with the ASAM PPC and shall include referrals to support groups where available.
(4) Providers that receive SAPT block grant funding shall provide or coordinate the following services for pregnant women and individuals with dependent children, including individuals who are attempting to regain custody of their children:
(a) Primary medical care, including referral for prenatal care and child care;
(b) Primary pediatric care, including immunizations for their children;
(c) Gender specific substance use treatment and other therapeutic interventions for individuals that may include but are not limited to:
(A) Relationship issues;
(B) Sexual and physical abuse;
(C) Parenting;
(D) Access to child care while the individuals are receiving these services; and
(E) Therapeutic interventions for children in the custody of individuals in treatment that may include but are not limited to:
(i) Their developmental needs;
(ii) Any issues concerning sexual and physical abuse and neglect; and
(iii) Sufficient case management and transportation to ensure that individuals and their children have access to services.
(5) Providers who deliver adolescent substance use disorders treatment services or those with adolescent-designated service funding shall meet the following standards:
(a) Development of service plans and case management services shall include participation of parents, other family members, schools, children's services agencies, and juvenile corrections, as appropriate.
(b) Services or appropriate referrals shall include:
(A) Family counseling;
(B) Education services;
(C) Community and social skills training; and
(D) Smoking cessation service.
(c) Continuing care services shall be of appropriate duration and designed to maximize recovery opportunities. The services shall include:
(A) Reintegration services and coordination with family and schools;
(B) Youth dominated self-help groups where available;
(C) Linkage to emancipation services when appropriate; and
(D) Linkage to physical or sexual abuse counseling and support services when appropriate.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.640 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955, 443.400 - 443.460, 443.991, 461.549 & 743A.168
- BHS 1-2022, amend filed 01/05/2022, effective 01/05/2022
- MHS 4-2018, amend filed 02/27/2018, effective 03/01/2018
- MHS 10-2017(Temp), f. 9-15-17, cert. ef. 9-15-17 thru 3-13-18
- MHS 3-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 10-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-018-0181 SUD Residential ASAM Level of Care 3.1
Clinically Managed Low-Intensity Residential Substance Use Disorder Services ASAM Level of Care 3.1 In addition to any other requirements described in these rules and applicable statutes, programs licensed to render adolescent or adult residential ASAM Level of care 3.1 services shall, at a minimum, meet and maintain documentation demonstrating ongoing compliance with each of the following standards:
(1) ASAM Level 3.5 programs shall ensure:
(a) ASAM dimensional admission criteria:
(A) The individual meets ASAM dimensional admission criteria in each of the Dimensions;
(B) Dimensions 1, 2 and 3 symptoms are assessed as mild to moderate risk, or are stabilized by this 24-hour structured environment;
(C) Dimensions 4, 5 and 6 are assessed as moderate to high risk;
(D) Individual needs 24-hour structured environment to make therapeutic gains;
(E) Individual is able to tolerate and benefit from a planned program of therapeutic services and supports; and
(F) Individual meets diagnostic criteria for a moderate or severe substance use or addictive disorder, per DSM-5-TR, or the probability of such a diagnosis is determined through collateral information.
(b) Program is able to consult with an LMP daily.
(c) Program has direct affiliation with other levels of care and with other service providers.
(2) In addition to any other requirements described in these rules and applicable statutes, programs licensed to render residential adolescent Clinically Managed Low-Intensity Substance Use Disorder Residential Services, ASAM Level of care 3.1 services shall meet and maintain documentation demonstrating ongoing compliance with the following requirements:
(a) Adolescents may be placed in ASAM Level 3.1 while concurrently receiving ASAM Level 2.5 services;
(b) Adolescent ASAM dimensional admission criteria:
(A) Adolescent meets criteria in at least two of the Dimensions;
(B) Adolescent is able to tolerate and benefit from a planned program of therapeutic services and supports; and
(C) Adolescent meets diagnostic criteria for a moderate or severe substance use or addictive disorder, per DSM-5-TR, or the probability of such a diagnosis is determined through collateral information.
(c) Adolescent ASAM Level 3.1 programs shall ensure the structure of services includes each of the following:
(A) Offer at least 5 hours per week of low-intensity substance use disorders treatment services and supports in a Recovery Environment to assist the individual in stabilization and developing recovery and relapse prevention skills;
(B) When clinically indicated, the program shall facilitate the continuation of or opportunity to obtain medications to treat opioid use disorders; and
(C) Facilitate individuals in obtaining low-barrier mental, physical, dental and other ancillary health care services and supports throughout the treatment episode of care.
(d) Staff are knowledgeable about adolescent development and in therapeutic engagement. Staffing shall be made available as follows:
(A) At least one milieu or program staff shall be present on the premises of the program and readily accessible and responsive to residents 24 hours a day, 7 days per week;
(B) Substance use disorders treatment staff are onsite rendering services 5 days per week;
(C) 24 hour, 7 day per week consultation available with a substance use disorders treatment staff, or a supervising or managing staff; and
(D) Program staff are able to consult with a LMP daily.
(e) Program shall offer an array of services and supports to meet the documented needs of the individual, including at minimum;
(A) Individual and group counseling sessions;
(B) Urinalysis screening when clinically indicated; and
(C) Psychoeducation, motivational enhancement and skill building.
(3) Co-occurring Capable ASAM Level of Care 3.1 license. Only programs licensed to render Clinically Managed Low-Intensity Residential Substance Use Disorder Services ASAM Level of Care 3.1 may choose to apply to also be licensed to render Co-Occurring Capable ASAM Level of Care 3.1 services. When licensed as such, in addition to all requirements for ASAM Level of Care 3.1 services, programs shall, at a minimum, meet and maintain documentation demonstrating ongoing compliance with each of the following requirements:
(a) Demonstrate that each individual placed at this ASAM Level of Care meets the following criteria:
(A) ASAM Dimensional criteria required for ASAM Level of Care 3.1;
(B) Describe how the individual meets diagnostic criteria for a co-occurring mental health disorder, per DSM-5-TR, that meet the stability criteria for placement in a co-occurring capable program, or emotional, behavioral or cognitive symptomology that are troubling or suggestive of a mental health disorder are causing the individual distress but do not meet the threshold for a DSM-5-TR diagnosis; and
(C) The mental health condition or symptoms are stable, or concerns are stabilized when in a 24-hour recovery environment.
(b) Offer mental health evaluation and counseling services;
(c) Offer or coordinate psychiatric services when clinically indicated, including medication management and the opportunity to obtain medications to treat mental health conditions; and
(d) Document within the service plan the individual’s mental health symptoms, the relationship between the mental health and substance use and addictive disorders and disorders, and describe the individual’s mental health status.
(4) Co-occurring Enhanced ASAM Level of Care 3.1 license. Only programs licensed to render Clinically Managed Low-Intensity Residential Substance Use Disorder Services ASAM Level of Care 3.1 may choose to apply to also be licensed to render Co-Occurring Enhanced ASAM Level of Care 3.1 services. When licensed as such, in addition to the requirements for ASAM Level of Care 3.1 services, programs shall, at a minimum, meet and maintain documentation demonstrating the ongoing compliance with the following requirements:
(a) Individuals placed at this ASAM Level of Care shall meet the following ASAM admission criteria:
(A) ASAM dimensional criteria required for ASAM Level of Care 3.1; and
(B) Individual meets diagnostic criteria for a co-occurring mental health disorder, per DSM-5-TR, that meet the stability criteria for placement in a co-occurring capable program or the probability of such a diagnosis is determined through collateral information.
(b) Offer mental health evaluation and counseling;
(c) Offer psychiatric services, including when clinically indicated, medication management and the opportunity to obtain medications to treat mental health conditions; and
(d) Document within the service plan the individual’s mental health symptoms, the relationship between the mental health and substance use and addictive disorders and describe the individual’s mental health status.
(5) Biomedical Enhanced ASAM Level of Care 3.1 license. Only programs licensed to render Clinically Managed Low-Intensity Residential Substance Use Disorder Services ASAM Level of Care 3.1 may choose to also apply to be licensed to render Biomedical Enhanced ASAM Level of Care 3.1 services. When licensed as such, in addition to all requirements for ASAM Level of Care 3.1 services, programs shall, at a minimum, meet and maintain documentation demonstrating ongoing compliance with each of the following requirements:
(a) Individuals placed at this ASAM Level of Care shall meet the following criteria:
(A) ASAM Dimensional criteria required for ASAM Level of Care 3.1; and
(B) Biomedical condition is stable or does not require medical or nursing monitoring and individual is capable of self-administering medications; or
(C) Biomedical condition is not severe enough to warrant impatient treatment but is sufficient to distract from treatment or recovery efforts and requires medical or nursing monitoring by the program or through an established arrangement with another provider.
(b) Medical treatment staff assess, treat and monitor biomedical disorders and monitor medication administration;
(c) The intensity of medical and nursing oversight and care meets the individual’s needs; and
(d) Program staff have access to consult a LMP 24 hours a day, 7 days a week.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390-161.400, 413.042, 428.205-428.270, 430.640 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.010, 430.205-430.210, 430.254-430.640, 430.850-430.955, 443.400-443.460, 443.991, 461.549 & 743A.168
- BHS 10-2023, adopt filed 04/07/2023, effective 04/07/2023
Or. Admin. R. 309-018-0182 SUD Residential ASAM Level of Care 3.3
Clinically Managed Population-Specific High-Intensity Substance Use Disorder Residential Services, ASAM Level of Care 3.3 In addition to any other requirements described in these rules and applicable statutes, programs licensed to render residential adolescent and adult Clinically Managed Population-Specific High-Intensity Substance Use Disorder Residential Services, ASAM Level of Care 3.3 shall, at a minimum, meet and maintain documentation demonstrating ongoing compliance with each of the following standards programming:
(1) ASAM Level 3.3 programs shall ensure:
(a) ASAM dimensional admission criteria:
(A) Dimensions 1, 2 and 3 symptoms are assessed as mild to moderate risk, or are stabilized by this 24-hour structured environment;
(B) Dimensions 4, 5 and 6 are assessed as moderate to high risk;
(C) Individual needs 24-hour structured environment to make therapeutic gains;
(D) Individual is able to tolerate and benefit from a planned program of therapeutic services and supports; and
(E) Individual meets diagnostic criteria for a moderate or severe substance use or addictive disorder, per DSM-5-TR, or the probability of such a diagnosis is determined through collateral information.
(b) Provide a structured, supportive, recovery environment with a less intensive milieu that treats both the substance use and supports the functional limitations of a co-occurring cognitive disorder or impairment, and:
(A) Programs shall either accept documentation from a medical or mental health professional describing a cognitive condition, or a program staff working within their scope shall document the condition;
(B) Program shall match the pace of delivery of information and services to the cognitive ability of the individual;
(C) Program shall deliver concrete information in an intentionally repetitive manner to the extent assistive to the individual; and
(D) Program shall facilitate the individual in obtaining low-barrier access to mental, physical, dental and other ancillary health care services throughout the episode of care and in a timeframe that meets the urgency of the condition; and
(c) Staffing shall be made available as follows:
(A) 24-hour, 7 day per week staffing that is responsive to the number of individuals present and the severity of symptoms;
(B) Program shall be trained in substance use disorders, able to identify signs and symptoms of concern as related to substance use, mental health and suicidality, and able to stabilize imminent danger; and
(C) At least one LMP is available for staff consultation on-site or by phone 24 hours per day.
(d) The program shall offer services in a manner described above that include:
(A) Urinalysis screening when clinically indicated;
(B) Intensive case management;
(C) Individual counseling; and
(D) Group counseling and skill building services.
(2) Co-occurring Enhanced ASAM Level of Care 3.3 services are an additional type of ASAM Level of Care 3.3 services. Only programs licensed to render Clinically Managed Population-Specific High-Intensity Substance Use Disorder Residential Services, ASAM Level of Care 3.3 may apply to also be licensed to render Co-occurring Enhanced ASAM Level of Care 3.3 services. When licensed as such, in addition to all requirements for ASAM Level of Care 3.3 services, programs shall, at a minimum, meet and maintain documentation demonstrating ongoing compliance with each of the following requirements:
(a) Individuals placed at Co-occurring Enhanced ASAM Level of Care 3.3 shall meet the following criteria:
(A) ASAM Dimensional criteria required for ASAM Level of Care 3.3; and
(B) Individual meets diagnostic criteria for a co-occurring mental health disorder, per DSM-5-TR, that meet the stability criteria for placement in a co-occurring capable program or the probability of such a diagnosis is determined through documented collateral information.
(b) Offer psychiatric services:
(A) Including medication consultation and laboratory services;
(B) Psychiatric services shall be made available within 8 hours by telephone, or off-site within 24 hours. Off-site services shall be closely coordinated; and
(C) Be staffed by credentialed psychiatrists and behavioral health clinicians working within their scope. Program staff shall:
(i) Assess and treat co-occurring disorders; and
(ii) Have specialized training in behavior management techniques specific to assessing and treating co-occurring disorders.
(c) Program staff shall render a psychiatric history, examination, and diagnostic assessment within two weeks of entry and continue to reassess, as determined by the urgency of the individual’s mental health condition.
(3) Biomedical Enhanced ASAM Level of Care 3.3 services are an additional and optional type of ASAM Level of Care 3.3 services. Only programs licensed to render Clinically Managed Population-Specific High-Intensity Substance Use Disorder Residential Services, ASAM Level of Care 3.3 may apply to also be licensed to render Biomedical Enhanced ASAM Level of Care 3.3 services. When licensed as such, in addition to all requirements for ASAM Level of Care 3.3 services, programs shall, at a minimum, meet and maintain documentation demonstrating ongoing compliance with each of the following requirements:
(a) Individuals placed at Biomedical Enhanced ASAM Level of Care 3.3 shall meet the following criteria:
(A) ASAM Dimensional criteria required for ASAM Level of Care 3.3; and
(B) Individual meets diagnostic criteria for a co-occurring biomedical condition, that is sufficient to distract from treatment or recovery efforts and requires medical monitoring, or the probability of such a diagnosis is determined through documented collateral information.
(b) Ensure a physical examination is provided and documented within two weeks of entry, or sooner as determined by the individual’s medical condition;
(c) Be staffed by credentialed medical treatment staff who assess and treat co-occurring disorders and have access to consult a LMP 24 hours a day, 7 days a week; and
(d) Ensure nursing care and observation are provided and meet the intensity of the individual’s needs.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390-161.400, 413.042, 428.205-428.270, 430.640 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.010, 430.205-430.210, 430.254-430.640, 430.850-430.955, 443.400-443.460, 443.991, 461.549 & 743A.168
- BHS 10-2023, adopt filed 04/07/2023, effective 04/07/2023
Or. Admin. R. 309-018-0183 SUD Residential ASAM Level of Care 3.5
Adolescent Clinically Managed Medium-Intensity Substance Use Disorder Residential Services, ASAM Level of Care 3.5 and Adult Clinically Managed High-Intensity Substance Use Disorder Residential Services, ASAM Level of Care 3.5. In addition to any other requirements described in these rules and applicable statutes, programs licensed to render residential adolescent or adult Clinically Managed High-Intensity Substance Use Disorder Residential Services, ASAM Level of care 3.5 services shall, at a minimum, meet and maintain documentation demonstrating ongoing compliance with each of the following requirements:
(1) ASAM Level 3.5 programs shall ensure:
(a) ASAM dimensional admission criteria:
(A) Dimensions 1 and 2 are stable or can be managed at this Level of Care; and
(B) Dimensions 3, 4, 5 and 6 are rated as moderate to severe risk without the structure of this setting.
(b) ASAM Level of Care 3.5 programs shall ensure the structure of services includes each of the following:
(A) Provide a 24-hour, structured, supportive recovery environment that both treats the substance use and supports the functional limitations of an individual with co-occurring social and psychological conditions;
(B) Offer services and supports that are primarily habilitative, addressing educational and vocational limitations, and social and emotional dysfunctional behaviors through use of targeted interventions such as evidence based therapeutic interventions and skills training;
(C) Program shall pace the delivering of information and services to the meet the ability of the individual; and
(D) Documentation shall include a description of the individual’s co-occurring condition(s), the relationship between the co-occurring condition(s) and substance use, and the individual’s mental health status.
(c) Staffing shall be made available as follows:
(A) Utilize an interdisciplinary team approach as demonstrated through regular, documented meetings;
(B) Staff shall include substance use disorders treatment staff, milieu staff, and medical treatment staff including LMP;
(C) Program staff and milieu staff are on-site 24-hours, 7 days per week in staffing levels that are responsive to the number of the individuals present and the severity of symptoms, and at least one program staff is readily available to respond to and assist individuals;
(D) Medical treatment staff are knowledgeable about biomedical, mental health, substance use, and the interactions of those conditions, have training in behavior management techniques, and are staffed to meet the needs of each individual;
(E) LMP shall be available for consult 24-hours per day, 7 days per week; and
(F) Supervisory or Management staff who are trained in substance use disorders treatment are available on-site or by phone 24 hours per day, 7 days per week.
(d) A variety of services and supports shall be offered daily. Each week the services and supports offered shall include the following:
(A) Stabilization services;
(B) Motivational and engagement strategies and interventions;
(C) Occupational or recreational activities;
(D) Skill building to address Activities of Daily Living (ADL) and Instrumental Activities of Daily Living (IADL):
(E) Health and medication education and management;
(F) Close observation and monitoring of the individual’s adherence to medications administered by the program;
(G) Relapse prevention, interpersonal, coping and community reintegration skills;
(H) Family services, including services just for families or identified support persons;
(I) Urinalysis screening when clinically indicated;
(J) Intensive case management; and
(K) Individual and group counseling sessions.
(2) In addition to any other requirements described in these rules and applicable statutes, programs licensed to render residential Adolescent Clinically Managed Medium-Intensity Substance Use Disorder Residential Services, ASAM Level of care 3.5 services shall, at a minimum, meet and maintain documentation demonstrating ongoing compliance with the following requirements:
(a) Adolescent ASAM dimensional admission criteria:
(A) The adolescent meets ASAM Diagnostic Admission Criteria specifications in at least two dimensions;
(B) If the adolescent is at risk of or experiencing acute or subacute intoxication or withdrawal, the symptoms are mild to moderate;
(C) The adolescent needs 24-hour structured environment to make therapeutic gains;
(D) The adolescent is able to tolerate and benefit from a planned program of therapeutic services and supports; and
(E) The adolescent meets diagnostic criteria for a moderate or severe substance use or addictive disorder, per DSM-5-TR, or the probability of such a diagnosis is determined through collateral information.
(b) The facility and milieu shall be a 24-hour, safe, contained, and structured recovery environment. Services and supports are primarily habilitative, addressing behavioral, social, and emotional dysfunction through use of targeted interventions such as evidence based, pro-social, therapeutic interventions and skills training to facilitate healthy reintegration into the community.
(c) Utilize an interdisciplinary team approach, as demonstrated through regular, documented meetings and by ensuring:
(A) Milieu staff are on-site 24-hours, 7 days per week in staffing levels that are responsive to the number of the individuals present and the severity of symptoms and at least one program staff is readily available to respond to and assist individuals;
(B) Behavioral health clinician(s) trained in recognizing the signs and symptoms of intoxication and withdrawal and the monitoring and treating of those conditions, and behavioral health crisis prevention and response;
(C) Medical treatment staff able to implement protocols are staffed to meet the intensity of the oversight and treatment of each individual’s needs;
(D) LMP with training in adolescence shall be available for emergency consult 24-hours per day, 7 days per week; and
(E) Supervisory or Management staff who are trained in substance use disorders treatment are available on-site or by phone 24 hours per day, 7 days per week.
(d) Services shall be offered daily and include the following:
(A) Educational services shall be provided in accordance with local regulations and provide opportunities to remedy educational deficits;
(B) Stabilization services, including:
(i) Daily monitoring of withdrawal symptoms; and
(ii) Close observation and monitoring of the individual’s adherence to medications administered by the program.
(C) Relapse prevention, coping and community reintegration skills;
(D) Family services, including services just for families or identified support persons;
(E) Motivational and engagement strategies and interventions;
(F) Urinalysis screening when clinically indicated;
(G) Individual counseling sessions; and
(H) Skill building, including teaching and practicing pro-social behaviors.
(e) Address co-occurring conditions when applicable:
(A) Arrange for or provide appropriate medical procedures, including laboratory and toxicology testing;
(B) Arrange for or provide appropriate medical and psychiatric treatment through consultation, referral to a community provider or transfer to another Level of Care;
(C) Have direct affiliation with other ASAM Levels of Care;
(D) Pace the delivering of information and services to the meet the ability of the adolescent; and
(E) Documentation shall include a description of the adolescent’s co-occurring conditions, the relationship between the co-occurring condition(s) and substance use, and the individual’s mental health status.
(3) Adolescent ASAM Level of Care 3.5-WM Withdrawal Management Services are an additional and optional version of ASAM Level of Care 3.5 services for adolescents. Only programs licensed to render Adolescent Clinically Managed Medium-Intensity Substance Use Disorder Residential Services, ASAM Level of Care 3.5 may also apply to be licensed to render Adolescent ASAM Level of Care 3.5-WM services. When licensed as such, in addition to all requirements for Adolescent ASAM Level of Care 3.5 services, programs shall, at a minimum, meet and maintain documentation demonstrating ongoing compliance with each of the following requirements:
(a) Medical protocols developed by a physician knowledgeable in withdrawal management that are used to:
(A) Determine the nature of the medical monitoring and other interventions required, such as when medical oversight or services are needed;
(B) Determine when to transfer to a higher or lower level of care; and
(C) Administration of over-the-counter medication protocols.
(b) Program staff provide an organized service that includes 24-hour supervision, observation and support to adolescents who are intoxicated or experiencing mild withdrawal;
(c) Program staff are trained to implement those ASAM Level of care 3.2-WM physician protocols that are not required to be rendered by medical staff and that include:
(A) Administration of over-the-counter medications for symptomatic relief;
(B) Monitoring withdrawal symptoms and alert medical staff as indicated;
(C) Identification when an adolescent requires a higher level of care and facilitate the transfer to that level of care; and
(D) Prompt communication with medical staff when there is an indication that medical care is needed.
(c) Medical services shall include:
(A) Provision of 24-hour per day, 7-days per week program staff access to medical consultation;
(B) Availability for 24-hour per day, 7-days per week medical evaluation; and
(C) Monitoring the safety and outcome of the withdrawal management services.
(d) There is an emphasis on staff, peer and social supports.
(4) Co-occurring Enhanced ASAM Level of Care 3.5 services are an additional and optional version of ASAM Level of Care 3.5 services. Only programs licensed to render Clinically Managed High-Intensity Substance Use Disorder Residential Services, ASAM Level of Care 3.5 may also apply to be licensed to render Co-occurring Enhanced ASAM Level of Care 3.5 services. When licensed as such, in addition to all requirements for ASAM Level of Care 3.5 services, programs shall, at a minimum, meet and maintain documentation demonstrating ongoing compliance with each of the following requirements:
(a) Individuals placed at this ASAM Level of Care shall meet the following criteria:
(A) ASAM Dimensional criteria required for ASAM Level of Care 3.5;
(B) The individual meets diagnostic criteria for a co-occurring mental health disorder, per DSM-5-TR, or the probability of such a diagnosis is determined through collateral information; and
(C) The individual is experiencing a range of psychiatric symptoms that require active monitoring that are assessed as posing a risk of harm to self or others if the individual is not contained within a 24-hour structured environment.
(b) Offer or coordinate psychiatric, medication evaluation, and laboratory services;
(c) Be staffed by medical treatment staff or behavioral health clinicians. Program staff must be;
(A) Able to assess and treat co-occurring disorders;
(B) Trained in the biological and psychosocial aspects of substance use disorders and mental health disorders and treatment;
(C) Trained in behavior management techniques specific to assessing and treating co-occurring disorders;
(D) Able to identify the signs and symptoms of acute psychiatric decompensation; and
(E) Ensure individuals receiving ASAM Level of Care 3.5 have access to a LMP 24 hours a day, 7 days a week for consultation.
(5) Biomedical Enhanced ASAM Level of Care 3.5 services are an additional and optional version of ASAM Level of Care 3.5 services. Only programs licensed to render Clinically Managed High-Intensity Substance Use Disorder Residential Services, ASAM Level of Care 3.5 may apply to be licensed to render Biomedical Enhanced ASAM Level of Care 3.5 services. When licensed as such, in addition to all requirements for ASAM Level of Care 3.5 services, programs shall, at a minimum, meet and maintain documentation demonstrating ongoing compliance with each of the following requirements:
(a) Individuals placed at this ASAM Level of Care shall meet the following criteria:
(A) ASAM Dimensional criteria required for ASAM Level of Care 3.5;
(B) Individual meets diagnostic criteria for a co-occurring biomedical condition, that is sufficient to distract from treatment or recovery efforts and requires medical monitoring, or the probability of such a diagnosis is determined through documented collateral information; and
(C) The individual has a biomedical condition that requires a degree of staff attention by medical treatment staff that is not available in other Level 3.5 programs.
(b) Ensure a physical examination is provided and documented within two weeks of entry, sooner if determined by the individual’s medical symptoms and condition;
(c) Medical treatment staff assess and treat co-occurring disorders and have access to a LMP 24 hours a day, 7 days a week; and
(d) Ensure nursing care and observation meet the intensity of the individuals’ needs.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390-161.400, 413.042, 428.205-428.270, 430.640 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.010, 430.205-430.210, 430.254-430.640, 430.850-430.955, 443.400-443.460, 443.991, 461.549 & 743A.168
- BHS 10-2023, adopt filed 04/07/2023, effective 04/07/2023
Or. Admin. R. 309-018-0184 SUD Residential ASAM Level of Care 3.7
Medically Monitored Intensive Substance Use Disorder Inpatient Services, ASAM Level of Care 3.7. In addition to any other requirements described in these rules and applicable statutes, programs approved to render Adult Medically Monitored Intensive Inpatient Services, ASAM Level of Care 3.7, or Adolescent Medically Monitored High-Intensity Impatient Services, ASAM Level of Care 3.7, offer a planned and structured regimen of 24-hour professionally directed evaluation, observation, medically monitoring and substance use disorder treatment to in an inpatient setting, and shall, at a minimum, meet and maintain documentation demonstrating ongoing compliance with each of the following requirements:
(1) ASAM Level 3.7 programs shall ensure:
(a) ASAM dimensional admission criteria:
(A) Meet specifications for at least two of the six dimensions and one of those two dimensions is Dimension 1, 2, or 3.
(B) The individual meets diagnostic criteria for a co-occurring mental health disorder, per DSM-5-TR, that meet the stability criteria for placement in a co-occurring capable program, or are experiencing difficulties with mood, behavior, or cognition related to a substance use or mental health condition, or mood, behavior, or cognition symptoms are problematic but do not meet DSM-5-TR criteria for a mental health disorder; and
(C) Individual needs 24-hour structured environment to make therapeutic gains;
(D) Individual is able to tolerate and benefit from a planned program of therapeutic services and supports; and
(E) Individual meets diagnostic criteria for a moderate or severe substance use or addictive disorder, per DSM-5-TR, or the probability of such a diagnosis is determined through collateral information.
(b) Biomedical assessment shall include:
(A) A comprehensive nursing assessment at the time of entry; and
(B) A physical examination, or a review of physical examination conducted within the past 7 calendar days, performed by a physician within 24 hours of entry.
(c) At a minimum, ensure staffing as follows:
(A) Program staff or milieu staff are on-site 24-hours, 7 days per week in staffing levels that are responsive to the number of the individuals present and the severity of symptoms and at least one program staff is readily available to respond to and assist individuals;
(B) Utilize an interdisciplinary team approach, as demonstrated through regular, documented meetings and by ensuring:
(i) LMP(s) trained in addiction medicine or addiction psychiatry oversee the treatment process and assures the quality of care, and shall be onsite daily and available for consultation 24-hours per day, 7 days per week;
(ii) Medical treatment staff that have training to identify signs and symptoms of acute psychiatric conditions, including psychiatric decompensation, and to intervene using crisis prevention and response protocols, shall be available on-site 24-hours per day, 7 days per week;
(iii) Supervisory or Management staff, which may include LMP, who are trained in substance use disorders treatment are available on-site or by phone 24 hours per day, 7 days per week; and
(iv) Behavioral health clinician(s) render services on-site at least 5 days per week.
(d) Program shall provide daily medical and behavioral services and supports that meet the documented needs of the individual as identified in the assessments and service plan, and include;
(A) Medical monitoring, including close observation and monitoring of the individual’s adherence to medications;
(B) Medical stabilization services when medical staffing meets the needs of the individuals; and
(C) Planned behavioral, skill building and other supportive service program activities that are adapted as needed to the individual’s level of comprehension and include;
(i) Health and medication education and management;
(ii) Individual and group counseling and skill building;
(iii) Motivational and engagement strategies and interventions;
(iv) Relapse prevention, interpersonal, coping and community reintegration skills;
(v) Urinalysis screening when clinically indicated; and
(vi) Intensive case management.
(e) Programs shall facilitate access to medical, psychiatric, laboratory, toxicology, mental health, physical, dental and other ancillary health care services and supports according to the severity of the individual’s condition and throughout the episode of care.
(2) In addition to any other requirements described in these rules and applicable statutes, programs licensed to render residential Adolescent Medically Monitored High-Intensity Inpatient Services, ASAM Level of Care 3.7 services shall meet and maintain documentation demonstrating ongoing compliance with, at a minimum, the following requirements:
(a) Adolescents placed at ASAM Level of Care 3.7 shall meet the following dimensional admission criteria:
(A) ASAM Diagnostic Admission Criteria specifications in at least two dimensions, one of which is Dimension 1, 2 or 3;
(B) Intoxication or withdrawal is manageable at this level of care, as described by The ASAM Criteria, Third Edition ;
(C) The adolescent needs 24-hour structured environment to stabilize and make therapeutic gains;
(D) The adolescent meets diagnostic criteria for a moderate or severe substance use or addictive disorder, per DSM-5-TR, or the probability of such a diagnosis is determined through collateral information.
(b) The facility and milieu shall be a 24-hour, safe, contained, and structured recovery environment. Services and supports are primarily habilitative, addressing behavioral, social, and emotional dysfunction through use of targeted interventions such as evidence based, pro-social, therapeutic interventions and skills training to facilitate healthy reintegration into the community.
(c) Utilize an interdisciplinary team approach, as demonstrated through regular, documented meetings and by ensuring:
(A) Milieu staff are on-site 24-hours, 7 days per week in staffing levels that are responsive to the number of the individuals present and the severity of symptoms, and at least one milieu staff is readily available to respond to and assist adolescents;
(B) Behavioral health clinician(s) trained in adolescent development, recognizing the signs and symptoms of intoxication and withdrawal and the monitoring and treating of those conditions, and behavioral health crisis prevention and response;
(C) Medical treatment staff, knowledgeable about adolescent development, are able to implement protocols are staffed to meet the intensity of the oversight and treatment of each individual’s needs;
(D) LMP with training in adolescent development shall be available to assess the adolescent within 24 hours of admission and thereafter as medically necessary, and available for emergency consult 24-hours per day, 7 days per week; and
(E) Supervisory or Management staff who are trained in substance use disorders treatment are available for consult on-site or by phone 24 hours per day, 7 days per week.
(d) Services shall be offered daily and include the following:
(A) Educational services shall be provided in accordance with local regulations and provide opportunities to remedy educational deficits;
(B) Daily stabilization services by medical treatment staff, including, at a minimum:
(i) Daily assessment, treatment and close monitoring of withdrawal symptoms;
(ii) Close observation and monitoring of the adolescent’s adherence to medications administered by the program; and
(iii) Any adjustments to protocols made by LMP are documented.
(C) Relapse prevention, coping and community reintegration skills;
(D) Family services, including services just for families or identified support persons;
(E) Motivational and engagement strategies and interventions;
(F) Urinalysis screening when clinically indicated;
(G) Individual counseling sessions; and
(H) Skill building, including teaching and practicing pro-social behaviors.
(e) Address co-occurring conditions when applicable:
(A) Arrange for or provide appropriate medical procedures, including laboratory and toxicology testing;
(B) Arrange for or provide appropriate medical and psychiatric treatment through consultation, referral to a community provider or transfer to another Level of Care;
(C) Have direct affiliation with other ASAM Levels of Care;
(D) Pace the delivering of information and services to the meet the ability of the adolescent; and
(E) Documentation shall include a description of the adolescent’s co-occurring conditions, the relationship between the co-occurring condition(s) and substance use, and the individual’s mental health status.
(3) Co-occurring Enhanced ASAM Level of Care 3.7 services are an additional type of ASAM Level of Care 3.7 services. Only programs licensed to render Medically Monitored Intensive Substance Use Disorder Inpatient Services, ASAM Level of Care 3.7 may apply to be licensed to render Co-occurring Enhanced ASAM Level of Care 3.7 services to adolescents or adults. When licensed as such, in addition to all requirements for ASAM Level of Care 3.7 services, programs shall, at a minimum, meet and maintain documentation demonstrating ongoing compliance with each of the following requirements:
(a) Individuals placed at ASAM Level of Care 3.7 shall meet each of the following criteria:
(A) Dimensional admission specifications for 3.7;
(B) Diagnostic criteria for a co-occurring mental health disorder, per DSM-5-TR, or the probability of such a diagnosis is determined through collateral information;
(C) Experiencing a range of psychiatric symptoms that require active monitoring and which are assessed as posing a risk of harm to self or others if the individual is not contained within a 24-hour structured environment.
(b) Co-occurring Enhanced ASAM Level of Care 3.7 programs shall ensure the structure of services includes each of the following:
(A) Promote the stabilization of the individual’s substance and mental health needs and symptoms through integration and coordination of substance use, mental health and physical health services;
(B) Services are delivered by medical treatment staff and behavioral health clinicians who are trained to assess and treat co-occurring psychiatric disorders, and implement behavioral modification interventions;
(C) A comprehensive psychiatric history, an examination and a psychodiagnostic assessment are performed within a reasonable time, as determined by the individual’s needs;
(D) Active reassessment of the individual’s mental status at a frequency determined by the urgency of symptoms;
(E) Symptom management through mental health treatment and medication management services; and
(F) Document the individual’s co-occurring disorders, the relationship between the mental health and substance use disorders, and the overall assessment of functioning and mental health status
(4) Biomedical Enhanced ASAM Level of Care 3.7 services are an additional type of ASAM Level of Care 3.7 services. Only programs licensed to render Medically Monitored Intensive Substance Use Disorder Inpatient Services, ASAM Level of Care 3.7, may apply to be licensed to render Biomedical Enhanced ASAM Level of Care 3.7 services to adolescents or adults. When licensed as such, in addition to all requirements for ASAM Level of Care 3.7 services, programs shall, at a minimum, meet and maintain documentation demonstrating ongoing compliance with each of the following requirements:
(a) Individuals placed at ASAM Level of Care 3.7 have a biomedical condition that requires a degree of staff attention or intervention that is not available in other Level 3.7 programs;
(b) Ensure the services are delivered by medical treatment staff who can monitor, assess and treat co-occurring biomedical conditions;
(c) Ensure the intensity of nursing care and observation is adaptive to sufficiently meet the needs of all individuals; and
(d) Promote the stabilization of the individual’s behavioral and physical health needs and symptoms.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390-161.400, 413.042, 428.205-428.270, 430.640 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.010, 430.205-430.210, 430.254-430.640, 430.850-430.955, 443.400-443.460, 443.991, 461.549 & 743A.168
- BHS 10-2023, adopt filed 04/07/2023, effective 04/07/2023
Or. Admin. R. 309-018-0185 Medical Protocols in Residential Substance Use Disorders Treatment Programs
Medical protocols shall be approved by a medical director under contract with a program or written reciprocal agreement with a medical practitioner under managed care. The protocols shall:
(1) Require a medical history be included in the assessment;
(2) Designate those medical symptoms and conditions that, when found, require further investigation, physical examinations, treatment, or laboratory testing;
(3) Require that individuals admitted to the program who are currently injecting or intravenously using a drug, or have injected or intravenously used a drug within the past 30 days, or who are at risk of withdrawal from a drug, or who may be pregnant, shall be referred for a physical examination and appropriate lab testing within 30 days of entry to the program. This requirement may be waived by the medical director if these services have been received within the past 90 days and documentation is provided;
(4) Require pregnant women be referred for prenatal care within two weeks of entry to the program;
(5) Require that the program provide HIV and AIDS, TB, sexually transmitted disease, Hepatitis, and other infectious disease information and risk assessment, including any needed referral, within 30 days of entry;
(6) Specify the steps for follow up and coordination with physical health care providers in the event the individual is found to have an infectious disease or other major medical problem.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.640 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955, 443.400 - 443.460, 443.991, 461.549 & 743A.168
- MHS 4-2018, amend filed 02/27/2018, effective 03/01/2018
- MHS 10-2017(Temp), f. 9-15-17, cert. ef. 9-15-17 thru 3-13-18
- MHS 3-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 10-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-018-0190 Administration of Medications
The following guidelines shall be followed in policies on administration of medications in residential programs:
(1) Medications prescribed for one individual may not be administered to or self-administered by another individual or program staff.
(2) When an individual self-administers medication in a residential program, self-administration shall be approved in writing by a physician and closely monitored by the residential program staff.
(3) No unused, outdated, or recalled drugs shall be kept in a program. On a monthly basis any unused, outdated, or recalled drugs shall be disposed of in a manner that assures they cannot be retrieved.
(4) A written record of all disposal of prescription drugs in a residential program shall be maintained in the program and shall include:
(a) A description of the drug, including the amount;
(b) The individual for whom the medication was prescribed;
(c) The reason for disposal; and
(d) The method of disposal.
(5) All prescription drugs stored in the residential program shall be kept in a locked stationary container. Medications requiring refrigeration shall be stored in a refrigerator using a locked container.
(6) Written documentation of medications prescribed for the individual by an LMP shall be maintained in the Service Record. Documentation for each medication prescribed shall include the following:
(a) A copy or detailed written description of the signed prescription order;
(b) The name of the medication prescribed;
(c) The prescribed dosage and method of administration;
(d) The date medications were prescribed, reviewed, or renewed;
(e) The date and the signature and credentials of program staff administering or prescribing medications;
(f) Observed side effects including laboratory findings; and
(g) Medication allergies and adverse reaction.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.640 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955, 443.400 - 443.460, 443.991, 461.549 & 743A.168
- MHS 4-2018, amend filed 02/27/2018, effective 03/01/2018
- MHS 10-2017(Temp), f. 9-15-17, cert. ef. 9-15-17 thru 3-13-18
- MHS 3-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 10-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-018-0200 Facility Standards for Substance Use Disorders and Problem Gambling Residential Treatment and Recovery Programs
(1) Residential programs shall meet the following standards:
(a) Maintain up-to-date documentation verifying that they meet and comply with all applicable local business license, zoning and building codes, and federal, state, and local fire and safety regulations. It is the responsibility of the provider to check with local government to make sure all applicable local codes have been met;
(b) Prior to construction of a new building or major alteration of or addition to an existing building:
(A) One set of plans and specifications shall be submitted to the State Fire Marshal for approval;
(B) Plans shall be in accordance with the State of Oregon Structural Specialty Code and Fire and Life Safety Regulations;
(C) Plans for construction containing 4,000 square feet or more shall be prepared and bear the stamp of an Oregon licensed architect or engineer; and
(D) The water supply, sewage, and garbage disposal system shall be approved by the agency having jurisdiction.
(2) All rooms used by individuals shall have floors, walls, and ceilings that meet the interior finish requirements of the State of Oregon Structural Specialty Code and Fire and Life Safety Regulations:
(a) A separate dining room or area shall be provided for exclusive use of individuals, program staff, and invited guests and shall:
(A) Seat at least one-half of the individuals at a time with a minimum of 15 square feet per occupant; and
(B) Be provided with adequate ventilation.
(b) A separate living room or lounge area shall be provided for the exclusive use of individuals, program staff, and invited guests and shall:
(A) Provide a minimum of 15 square feet per occupant; and
(B) Be provided with adequate ventilation.
(c) Bedrooms shall be provided for all individuals and shall:
(A) Be separate from the dining, living, multi-purpose, laundry, kitchen, and storage areas;
(B) Be an outside room with a window that can be opened and is at least the minimum required by the State Fire Marshal;
(C) Have a ceiling height of at least seven feet, six inches;
(D) Provide a minimum of 60 square feet per individual with at least three feet between beds;
(E) Provide permanently wired light fixtures located and maintained to give light to all parts of the room; and
(F) Provide a curtain or window shade at each window to assure privacy.
(d) Bathrooms shall be provided and conveniently located in each building containing a bedroom and shall:
(A) Provide a minimum of one toilet and one hand-washing sink for each eight individuals and one bathtub or shower for each ten individuals;
(B) Provide one hand-washing sink convenient to every room containing a toilet;
(C) Provide permanently wired light fixtures located and maintained to give adequate light to all parts of the room;
(D) Provide personal privacy for individuals;
(E) Provide a privacy screen at each window;
(F) Provide a mirror; and
(G) Be provided with adequate ventilation and reasonable measures to prevent mold. .
(e) A supply of hot and cold water installed and maintained in compliance with rules of the Authority, the Division, and Public Health Division shall be distributed to taps conveniently located throughout the residential program;
(f) All plumbing shall comply with applicable codes;
(g) Laundry facilities, when provided, shall be separate from:
(A) Resident living areas, including bedrooms;
(B) Kitchen and dining areas; and
(C) Areas used for the storage of unrefrigerated perishable foods.
(h) Storage areas shall be provided appropriate to the size of the residential program. Separate storage areas shall be provided for:
(A) Food, kitchen supplies, and utensils;
(B) Clean linens;
(C) Soiled linens and clothing;
(D) Cleaning compounds and equipment; and
(E) Poisons, chemicals, insecticides, and other toxic materials that shall be properly labeled, stored in the original container, and kept in a locked storage area.
(i) Furniture shall be provided for each individual and shall include:
(A) A bed with a frame and a clean mattress and pillow;
(B) A private dresser or similar storage area for personal belongings that is readily accessible to the individual; and
(C) Access to a closet or similar storage area for clothing.
(j) Linens shall be provided for each individual and shall include:
(A) Sheets and pillowcases;
(B) Blankets, appropriate in number and type for the season and the individual's comfort; and
(C) Towel and washcloth.
(3) The residential program shall meet the requirements of the State of Oregon Sanitary Code for Eating and Drinking Establishments relating to the preparation, storage, and serving of food. At minimum:
(a) Menus shall be prepared in advance to provide a sufficient variety of foods served in adequate amounts for each resident at each meal;
(b) Records of menus as served shall be filed and maintained in the residential program records for at least 30 days;
(c) All modified or special diets shall be ordered by a physician;
(d) At least three meals shall be provided daily;
(e) Supplies of staple foods for a minimum of one week and of perishable foods for a minimum of a two-day period shall be maintained on the premises;
(f) Food shall be stored and served at proper temperature;
(g) All utensils, including dishes, glassware, and silverware used in the serving or preparation of drink or food for individuals shall be effectively washed, rinsed, sanitized, and stored after each individual use to prevent contamination in accordance with Division standards; and
(h) Raw milk and home-canned vegetables, meats, and fish may not be served or stored in a residential program.
(4) The residential program shall meet the following safety requirements:
(a) At no time shall the number of individuals served exceed the approved capacity;
(b) A written emergency plan shall be developed and posted next to the telephone used by program staff and shall include:
(A) Instructions for the program staff or designated resident in the event of fire, explosion, accident, death, or other emergency and the telephone numbers of the local fire department, law enforcement agencies, hospital emergency rooms, and the residential program's designated physician and on-call back-up program staff;
(B) The telephone number of the administrator or clinical supervisor and other persons to be contacted in case of emergency; and
(C) Instructions for the evacuation of individuals and program staff in the event of fire, explosion, or other emergency.
(c) The residential program shall provide fire safety equipment appropriate to the number of individuals served and meeting the requirements of the State of Oregon Structural Specialty Code and Fire and Life Safety regulations:
(A) Fire detection and protection equipment shall be inspected as required by the State Fire Marshal;
(B) All flammable and combustible materials shall be properly labeled and stored in the original container in accordance with the rules of the State Fire Marshal; and
(C) The residential program shall conduct unannounced fire evacuation drills at least monthly. At least once every three months the monthly drill shall occur between 10 p.m. and 6 a.m. Written documentation of the dates and times of the drills, time elapsed to evacuate, and program staff conducting the drills shall be maintained.
(d) At least one program staff who is trained in First Aid and CPR shall be onsite at all times.
(5) The residential program shall meet the following sanitation requirements:
(a) All floors, walls, ceilings, window, furniture, and equipment shall be kept in good repair, clean, neat, orderly, and free from odors;
(b) Each bathtub, shower, hand-washing sink, and toilet shall be kept clean and free from odors;
(c) The water supply in the residential program shall meet the requirements of the rules of the Public Health Division governing domestic water supplies;
(d) Soiled linens and clothing shall be stored in an area separate from kitchens, dining areas, clean linens and clothing, and unrefrigerated food;
(e) All measures necessary to prevent the entry into the program of mosquitoes and other insects shall be taken;
(f) All measures necessary to control rodents shall be taken;
(g) The grounds of the program shall be kept orderly and free of litter, unused articles, and refuse;
(h) Garbage and refuse receptacles shall be clean, durable, water-tight, insect- and rodent proof and kept covered with a tight-fitting lid;
(i) All garbage solid waste shall be disposed of at least weekly and in compliance with the rules of the Department of Environmental Quality; and
(j) Sewage and liquid waste shall be collected, treated, and disposed of in compliance with the rules of the Department of Environmental Quality.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.640 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955, 443.400 - 443.460, 443.991, 461.549 & 743A.168
- MHS 4-2018, amend filed 02/27/2018, effective 03/01/2018
- MHS 10-2017(Temp), f. 9-15-17, cert. ef. 9-15-17 thru 3-13-18
- MHS 3-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 10-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-018-0205 Quality Assessment and Performance Improvement
Providers shall develop and implement a structured and ongoing process to assess, monitor, and improve the quality and effectiveness of services provided to individuals and their families.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.640 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955, 443.400 - 443.460, 443.991, 461.549 & 743A.168
- MHS 4-2018, amend filed 02/27/2018, effective 03/01/2018
- MHS 10-2017(Temp), f. 9-15-17, cert. ef. 9-15-17 thru 3-13-18
- MHS 3-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 10-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-018-0210 Grievances and Appeals
(1) Any individual receiving services or the parent or guardian of the individual receiving services may file a grievance with the provider, the individual’s managed care plan, or the Division.
(2) The provider’s grievance process shall:
(a) Notify each individual or guardian of the grievance procedures by reviewing a written copy of the policy upon entry;
(b) Assist individuals and parents or guardians, as applicable, to understand and complete the grievance process and notify them of the results and basis for the decision;
(c) Encourage and facilitate resolution of the grievance at the lowest possible level;
(d) Complete an investigation of any grievance within 30 calendar days;
(e) Implement a procedure for accepting, processing, and responding to grievances including specific timelines for each;
(f) Designate a program staff person to receive and process the grievance;
(g) Document any action taken on a substantiated grievance within a timely manner; and
(h) Document receipt, investigation, and action taken in response to the grievance.
(3) The provider shall post a Grievance Process Notice in a common area stating the telephone numbers of:
(a) The Division;
(b) Disability Rights Oregon;
(c) The applicable coordinated care organization; and
(d) The Governor’s Advocacy Office.
(4) In circumstances where the matter of the grievance is likely to cause harm to the individual before the grievance procedures outlined in these rules are completed, the individual or guardian of the individual may request an expedited review. The program administrator shall review and respond in writing to the grievance within 48 hours of receipt of the grievance. The written response shall include information about the appeal process.
(5) A grievant, witness, or staff member of a provider may not be subject to retaliation by a provider for making a report or being interviewed about a grievance or being a witness. Retaliation may include but is not limited to dismissal or harassment; reduction in services, wages or benefits; or basing service or a performance review on the action.
(6) The grievant is immune from any civil or criminal liability with respect to the making or content of a grievance made in good faith.
(7) Individuals and their legal guardians, as applicable, shall have the right to appeal entry, transfer, and grievance decisions as follows:
(a) If the individual or guardian is not satisfied with the decision, the individual or guardian may file an appeal in writing within ten working days of the date of the program administrator's response to the grievance or notification of denial for services as applicable. The appeal shall be submitted to the Division as applicable;
(b) If requested, program staff shall be available to assist the individual;
(c) The Division shall provide a written response within ten working days of the receipt of the appeal; and
(d) If the individual or guardian is not satisfied with the appeal decision, he or she may file a second appeal in writing to the Division Director within ten working days of the date of the written response.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.640 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955, 443.400 - 443.460, 443.991, 461.549 & 743A.168
- MHS 4-2018, amend filed 02/27/2018, effective 03/01/2018
- MHS 10-2017(Temp), f. 9-15-17, cert. ef. 9-15-17 thru 3-13-18
- MHS 17-2016, f. 11-28-16, cert. ef. 11-30-16
- MHS 10-2016(Temp), f. 6-29-16, cert. ef. 7-1-16 thru 12-27-16
- MHS 3-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 10-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-018-0215 Variances
(1) Variances may be granted to a provider holding a license under this rule:
(a) If there is a lack of resources to implement the standards required in these rules; or
(b) If implementation of the proposed alternative services, methods, concepts, or procedures results in improved outcomes for the individual.
(2) Application for a variance:
(a) Providers may submit their variance request directly to the Division;
(b) Providers requesting a variance shall submit a written application to the Division; and
(c) Variance requests shall contain the following:
(A) The section of the rule from which the variance is sought;
(B) The reason for the proposed variance;
(C) The alternative practice, service, method, concept, or procedure proposed;
(D) A proposal for the duration of the variance; and
(E) A plan and timetable for compliance with the section of the rule for which the variance applies.
(3) The Division shall approve or deny the request for a variance and shall notify the provider in writing of the decision to approve or deny the requested variance within 30 days of receipt of the variance. The written notification shall include the specific alternative practice, service, method, concept, or procedure that is approved and the duration of the approval.
(4) Appeal of the denial of a variance request shall be made in writing to the Chief Officer of the Division, whose decision shall be final and shall be provided in writing within 30 days of receipt of the appeal.
(5) The LMHA, CMHP, or provider may implement a variance only after written approval from the Division.
(6) The provider shall submit a request to extend a variance in writing prior to a variance expiring. Extensions shall be approved in writing by the Division.
(7) Granting a variance for one request does not set a precedent that shall be followed by the Division when evaluating subsequent requests for variance.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.640 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955, 443.400 - 443.460, 443.991, 461.549 & 743A.168
- MHS 4-2018, amend filed 02/27/2018, effective 03/01/2018
- MHS 10-2017(Temp), f. 9-15-17, cert. ef. 9-15-17 thru 3-13-18
- MHS 17-2016, f. 11-28-16, cert. ef. 11-30-16
- MHS 10-2016(Temp), f. 6-29-16, cert. ef. 7-1-16 thru 12-27-16
- MHS 3-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 10-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Division 19 OUTPATIENT BEHAVIORAL HEALTH SERVICES
Or. Admin. R. 309-019-0100 Purpose and Scope
(1) These rules prescribe minimum service delivery standards for services and supports provided by providers certified by the Health Systems Division (Division) of the Oregon Health Authority (Authority).
(2) In addition to applicable requirements in OAR 410-120-0000 through 410-120-1980 and 943-120-0000 through 943-120-1550, these rules specify standards for behavioral health treatment services and supports provided in:
(a) Outpatient Community Mental Health Services and Supports for Children and Adults;
(b) Outpatient Substance Use Disorders Treatment Services; and
(c) Outpatient Problem Gambling Treatment Services.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390, 413.042, 430.256 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 109.675, 161.390 - 161.400, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955, 461.549 & 743A.168
- MHS 6-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
- MHS 18-2016, f. 11-28-16, cert. ef. 11-30-16
- MHS 11-2016(Temp), f. 6-29-16, cert. ef. 7-1-16 thru 12-27-16
- MHS 4-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 6-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-019-0105 Definitions
(1) "Abuse of an Adult" means the circumstances defined in ORS 430.735, OAR Chapter 943, Division 45 and OAR Chapter 407, Division 45 for abuse of an adult with mental illness or who is receiving residential substance use disorder treatment or withdrawal management services.
(2) “Abuse of a Child” means the circumstances defined in ORS 419B.005 and ORS 418.257.
(3) “Active Supervision” means a designated supervisor is physically present who provides direct or indirect observation of the program staff, to determine if the service or task is being completed properly and providing intervention and consultation as needed.
(4) “Activities of Daily Living (ADL) or Instrumental Activities of Daily Living (IADL)” means those personal functional activities required by an individual for continued well-being, which are essential for health and safety. Activities include eating, dressing, and grooming, bathing and personal hygiene, mobility, toileting, and cognition.
(5) “Acute Care Psychiatric Hospital” means a hospital or facility that provides 24 hours-a-day psychiatric, multi-disciplinary, inpatient, or residential stabilization, care, and treatment.
(6) “Adolescent” means an individual from 12 through 21 years of age or those individuals determined to be developmentally appropriate for such services.
(7) "Adult" means an individual 18 years of age or older or an emancipated minor. An individual with Medicaid eligibility who needs services specific to children, adolescents, or young adults in transition shall be considered a child until age 21 for the purposes of these rules. Adults who are between the ages of 18 and 21 who are considered children for purposes of these rules shall have all rights afforded to adults as specified in these rules.
(8) “ASAM” means The American Society of Addiction Medicine (ASAM).
(9) "The ASAM Criteria" means the criteria in the Third Edition of The American Society of Addiction Medicine (ASAM) for the assessment, level of care placement and treatment of addictive, substance-related, and co-occurring conditions. The ASAM Criteria is a clinical guide to developing patient-centered service plans and making objective decisions about admission, continuing care, and transfer or discharge for individuals. The ASAM Criteria is incorporated by reference in these rules.
(10) “ASAM Co-Occurring Capable” means an array of psychiatric and mental health services that meet the individuals’ needs are made available to individuals when indicated, by the program or coordinated by the program.
(11) “ASAM Co-occurring Enhanced” means mental health services that include psychiatric evaluation, medication management and therapy are made available to the individuals, when indicated, by the program. Program staff are cross trained on substance use disorders and mental health treatment and can document the relationship between the disorders and the individual’s level of functioning.
(12) “ASAM Dimensional Criteria” means the documented data demonstrates that the individual meets the criteria per ASAM dimension, as described in The ASAM Criteria, for the ASAM Level of Care assessed.
(13) “ASAM Enhanced Service designation(s)” as described in The ASAM Criteria, Third Edition, includes service types per ASAM Level of Care that the program may choose to apply and be approved by the Division to render, to either adults or adolescents, when it corresponds to an ASAM Level of Care that is certified by the Division.
(14) “ASAM Level of Care” means one of several discrete intensities of services and supports, as described within The ASAM Criteria, Third Edition, within a substance use disorders program that are delivered in a structured, programmatic fashion, by a Division certified outpatient or licensed residential provider.
(a) “Early Intervention ASAM Level of Care 0.5 (ASAM Level 0.5)” means organized services designed to explore and address problems or risk factors that may be related to substance use and assist individuals in recognizing the harmful consequences of high-risk substance use and addictive behavior. ASAM Level 0.5 may be delivered as a Driving Under the Influence of Intoxicants (DUII) service where the length and number of contacts may be mandated, and completion of the program may be a prerequisite to the reinstatement of driving privileges. Individuals eligible for this ASAM level of care do not meet DSM-5-TR diagnostic criteria for a substance use disorder.
(b) “Outpatient Substance Use Disorder Services ASAM Level of Care 1” means organized services delivered in a variety of settings and include a vast array of outpatient services and supports, which are tailored to the severity and function of the individual and typically are less than 9 contact hours per week. ASAM Level 1 programs enhance access to care and facilitate earlier engagement into treatment. Services and supports address major lifestyle, attitudinal and behavioral issues related to the substance use that detract from progress towards service plan goals.
(c) “Intensive Outpatient Substance Use Disorder Services ASAM Level of Care 2.1” means structured services and supports, mostly comprised of counseling and education. Mental health services are either offered by the program or tightly coordinated with a community provided. When planning a transition to ASAM Level 1 services, a program may provide less than the minimum number of contact hours for up to two weeks: 9 for adults and 6 for children.
(d) “Partial Hospitalization Services ASAM Level of Care 2.5” means clinically intensive programming of 20 contact hours or more per week, which is specified by the service plan. Needs identified in Dimensions 1, 2 and 3 warrant daily monitoring or management within an outpatient or combined in a residential setting. Programs staff interdisciplinary teams and offer intensive case management. Psychiatric and medical services are either offered by the program or coordinated.
(15) “ASAM Risk Assessment Component” means the portions of a substance use disorders assessment that include an Immediate Need Profile and a rating of severity for each of the ASAM dimensions in a multidimensional assessment, which inform the Level of Care placement decision and the services and supports included in the service plan.
(16) “ASAM Service Types” means the ASAM Levels of Care, Co-occurring Capable services, Co-occurring Enhanced services, and any other defined service that is described in The ASAM Criteria and when approved, included within the certificate.
(17) “Assertive Community Treatment (ACT)” means an evidence-based practice designed to provide comprehensive treatment and support services to individuals with serious and persistent mental illness. ACT is intended to serve individuals who have severe functional impairments and who have not responded to traditional psychiatric outpatient treatment. ACT services are provided by a single multi-disciplinary team, which typically includes a psychiatrist, a nurse, and at least two case managers and are designed to meet the needs of each individual and to help keep the individual in the community and out of a structured service setting, such as residential or hospital care. ACT is characterized by the following:
(a) Low client to staff ratios;
(b) Providing services in the community rather than in the office;
(c) Shared caseloads among team members;
(d) Twenty-four-hour staff availability;
(e) Direct provision of all services by the team (rather than referring individuals to other agencies); and
(f) Time-unlimited services.
(18) “Assessment” means the process of obtaining sufficient information through a face-to-face interview to determine a diagnosis and to plan individualized services and supports. For outpatient substance use disorders services, the assessment is multi-dimensional and consistent with The ASAM Criteria third edition.
(19) “Authority” means the Oregon Health Authority.
(20) “Baseline evaluation” means an identification of the current status that an individual expresses a desire to change in order to identify the starting point(s) for measuring progress by using pre-determined benchmarks, such as a Likert Scale. Progress can then be determined by using the same benchmarks to obtain additional ratings of the identified status and using the additional ratings to make comparisons between the starting rating and subsequent ratings, from which a measure of change can be assessed.
(21) “Behavioral health clinician” means a practitioner of behavioral health services whose authorized scope
of practice includes substance use and mental health diagnosis and treatment.
(22) “Behavioral Health Treatment” means treatment for mental health, substance use disorders, and problem gambling.
(23) "Behavior Support Plan" means the individualized proactive support strategies used to support positive behavior.
(24) “Behavior Support Strategies” means proactive supports designed to replace challenging behavior with functional, positive behavior. The strategies address environmental, social, neuro-developmental, and physical factors that affect behavior.
(25) “Best Practice Risk Assessment” has the meaning given that term in OAR 309-023-0110.
(26) “Board Registered Associate or Board Registered Intern” means a post-graduate who is listed as active on the applicable Oregon Board registry with one of the following qualifications:
(a) Psychologist Associate Residents as described in OAR 858-010-0037;
(b) Licensed Psychologist Associate under continued supervision as described in OAR 858-010-0038;
(c) Licensed Professional Counselor intern or Marriage and Family Therapist intern registered with the Oregon Board of Licensed Professional Counselors and Therapists as described in OAR 833-050-0011;
(d) Certificate of Clinical Social Work Associate issued by the Oregon Board of Licensed Social Workers as described in OAR 877-020-0009; or
(e) Registered Bachelor of Social Work issued by the Oregon Board of Licensed Social Workers as described in OAR 877-015-0105.
(27) “Brief Intervention” means an early intervention for individuals using substances, by utilizing tribal-based, evidence-based, or culturally based practice designed to engage and motivate individuals at risk of substance use disorder and related health problems to seek services and/or support. Brief interventions can also be used to encourage those with more serious dependence or disorders to accept more intensive treatment. Brief interventions are intended to address problematic or risky substance use that presents with or without a previous diagnosis.
(28) “Care Coordination” means a process-oriented activity to facilitate ongoing communication and collaboration to meet multiple needs. Care coordination includes facilitating communication between the person or family served, the family, natural supports, community resources, and involved providers and agencies; organizing, facilitating, and participating in team meetings; and providing for continuity of care by creating linkages to and managing transitions between levels of care and transitions for young adults in transition to adult services.
(29) "Case Management" or “Targeted Case Management” means the services provided to assist individuals who reside in a community setting or are transitioning to a community setting in gaining access to desired medical, social, educational, entitlement, and other applicable services.
(30) “Certificate of Approval” means the document issued by the Authority that identifies and declares certification of a provider pursuant to OAR chapter 309, division 008.
(31) “Chief Officer” means the Chief Health Systems Officer of the Division or designee.
(32) "Child" means an individual under the age of 18. An individual with Medicaid eligibility who needs services specific to children, adolescents, or young adults in transition shall be considered a child until age 21 for purposes of these rules.
(33) "Clinical Supervision" means oversight by a qualified clinical supervisor of the rendering of physical health, substance use, problem gambling, and mental health services and supports, according to these rules, including ongoing evaluation and improvement of the effectiveness of those services and supports.
(34) "Clinical Supervisor" means program staff qualified to oversee and evaluate the rendering of physical health, substance use, problem gambling, or mental health services and supports.
(35) "Cognition" refers to how the individual is able to use information, make decisions, and ensure their daily needs are met. There are four components to cognition: self-preservation, decision-making, ability to make one’s self understood, and unsafe behaviors.
(36) “Cognitive Ability” means a general mental capability involving reasoning, problem solving, planning, abstract thinking, complex idea comprehension and learning from experience.
(37) “Cognitive Impairment” means a behavioral health condition or disability which impacts the individual’s cognitive abilities to perform Activities of Daily Living (ADL) or Instrumental Activities of Daily Living (IADL), regardless of whether the individual may be physically capable of performing ADLs or IADLs. For example, a cognitive impairment could prevent an individual from knowing when or how to carry out the task.
(38) “Collaborative Educational Agreement” means an individualized written arrangement between an accredited college or university and a Division-certified provider pertaining to a student’s internship or field placement experience.
(39) “Co-occurring Capable Substance Use Disorder Programs” means, consistent with The ASAM Criteria, arrangements are in place for coordination and collaboration between addiction and mental health services, internally and with external community partners. Program staff must be trained and qualified to address the interaction between mental health symptoms or conditions and the substance use disorder, and the interactional effect on readiness to change, the severity of risk and the subsequent planning of services and supports.
(40) “Co-occurring Enhanced Substance Use Disorder Programs” means, consistent with The ASAM Criteria, Third edition, a setting where integrated services address concurrently unstable mental health and substance use disorder conditions. There is a focus on the integration of mental health and substance use disorders throughout the staffing, services, and program content, as well as the use of Motivational Enhancement therapies throughout services.
(41) “Co-occurring Substance Use, Problem Gambling, and Mental Health Disorders (COD)” means the existence of a diagnosis for a substance use disorder, problem gambling disorder, and/or a mental health disorder.
(42) “Community Health Worker (CHW)” means a person who meets qualification criteria adopted by the authority under ORS 414.665 and who is certified pursuant to the requirements in OAR 410-180-0310.
(43) "Community Mental Health Program (CMHP)" an entity that is responsible for planning and delivery of safety net services for persons with mental or emotional disturbances, drug abuse problems, and alcoholism and alcohol abuse in a specific geographic area of the state under a contract with the Division or a local mental health authority and pursuant to OAR Chapter 309, Division 014.
(44) "Conditional Release" means placement by a court or the Psychiatric Security Review Board (PSRB) of an individual found eligible under ORS 161.327 or 161.336 for supervision and treatment in a community setting.
(45) “Consistent with ASAM Criteria” means a documented intervention containing information that demonstrates use of and adherence to the description of components contained within The ASAM Criteria, Third Edition.
(46) “Coordinated Care Organization (CCO)” means a corporation, governmental agency, public corporation, or other legal entity that is certified as meeting the criteria adopted by the Authority under ORS 414.625 to be accountable for care management and to provide integrated and coordinated health care for each of the organization’s members.
(47) "Court" means a criminal court, drug court, circuit court, juvenile court or last convicting or ruling court in this state with jurisdiction over the individual.
(48) "Criminal Records Check" means documenting the criminal background check results for all employees, contracted staff, interns and volunteers considered to be program staff that render medical or behavioral health services and supports or have access to protected health information such as service records or billing information.
(49) "Crisis" means either an actual or perceived urgent or emergent situation that occurs when an individual’s stability or functioning is disrupted, and there is an immediate need to resolve the situation to prevent a serious deterioration in the individual’s mental or physical health or to prevent referral to a significantly higher level of care or death.
(50) “Crisis Intervention” has the meaning given that term in OAR 309-023-0110.
(51) “Crisis Line Services” means phone-based services that establish immediate communication links and provide supportive interventions and information for individuals in an urgent or emergent situation.
(52) “Crisis Plan” means an individualized document designed in collaboration with the individual served to help anticipate and prevent future crisis episodes and direct interventions in the instance of a crisis.
(53) “Crisis Stabilization Services” means providing evaluation and treatment to individuals experiencing a crisis. Crisis Services may be provided prior to completion of an intake. These services are intended to stabilize the individual in crisis, prevent further deterioration, and provide immediate treatment and intervention in a location best suited to meet the needs of the individual and in the least restrictive environment available.
(54) "Cultural Competence" means the process by which people and systems respond respectfully and effectively to people of all cultures, languages, classes, races, ethnic backgrounds, disabilities, religions, genders, sexual orientations, and other diversity factors in a manner that recognizes, affirms, and values the worth of individuals, families, and communities and protects and preserves the dignity of each.
(55) “Culturally Responsive” means services that are respectful of and relevant to the beliefs, practices, culture and linguistic needs of diverse consumer/client populations and communities whose members identify as having particular cultural or linguistic affiliations. Cultural responsiveness describes the capacity to respond to the issues of diverse communities and requires knowledge and capacity at different levels of intervention: systemic, organizational, professional, and individual.
(56) “Culturally Specific Program” means a program designed to meet the unique service needs of a specific culture and that provides services to a majority of individuals representing that culture.
(57) "Declaration for Mental Health Treatment" means a written statement of an individual’s preferences concerning their mental health treatment. The declaration is made when the individual is able to understand and legally make decisions related to such treatment. It is honored, as clinically appropriate, in the event the individual becomes unable to make such decisions.
(58) "Diagnosis" means the principal mental health, substance use, or problem gambling diagnosis listed in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth edition (DSM-5-TR). The diagnosis is determined through the assessment and any examinations, tests, or consultations suggested by the assessment and are medically necessary reason for services.
(59) “Division” means the Health Systems Division of the Oregon Health Authority, or its designee.
(60) “Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition, (DSM-5-TR)” means the textbook used to diagnose and classify mental disorders that is published by the American Psychiatric Association.
(61) “Driving Under the Influence of Intoxicants (DUII) Substance Use Disorders Rehabilitation Program” means a program of treatment and therapeutically oriented education services for an individual who is either:
(a) A violator of ORS 813.010 (Driving Under the Influence of Intoxicants); or
(b) A defendant participating in a diversion agreement under ORS 813.200.
(62) “Emergent” means the onset of symptoms requiring attention within 24 hours to prevent serious deterioration in mental or physical health or threat to safety.
(63) “Employment Support Services” means services approved by Division, determined to be necessary and provided to an individual to obtain and maintain employment in the community as they are transitioning from an inpatient or residential facility that provides substance use disorder treatment.
(64) “Enhanced Care Services (ECS)” and “Enhanced Care Outreach Services (ECOS)” means intensive behavioral and rehabilitative mental health services to eligible individuals who reside in Aging and People with Disabilities (APD) licensed homes or facilities.
(65) “Entry” means the act or process of acceptance and enrollment into services regulated by this rule.
(66) “Face to Face” means a personal interaction where both words can be heard and facial expressions can be seen in person or through telehealth services where there is a live streaming audio and video, if clinically appropriate.
(67) "Family" means the biological or legal parents, siblings, other relatives, foster parents, legal guardians, spouse, domestic partner, caregivers, and other primary relations to the individual whether by blood, adoption, or legal or social relationships. Family also means any natural, formal, or informal support persons identified as important by the individual.
(68) "Family Support" means the provision of peer-delivered services to people defined as family to the individual. It includes support to caregivers at community meetings, assistance to families in system navigation and managing multiple appointments, supportive home visits, peer support, parent mentoring and coaching, advocacy, and furthering efforts to develop natural and informal community supports.
(69) “Gender Identity” means an individual's self-identification of gender without regard to legal or biological identification including but not limited to individuals identifying themselves as male, female, transgender, gender transitioning and transitioned, non-binary, intersex, and gender diverse.
(70) “Gender Expression” means the external characteristics and behaviors that are socially defined as masculine, feminine, or androgynous such as dress, mannerisms, speech patterns, and social interactions.
(71) "Geographic Service Area" means the geographic area within the county boundaries in which the CMHP operates.
(72) "Grievance" means a formal complaint submitted to a provider verbally or in writing by an individual or the individual’s representative.
(73) "Guardian" means an individual appointed by a court of law to act as guardian of a minor or a legally incapacitated individual. Guardian may also mean legal representative.
(74) “Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)” means the federal Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 and the regulations published in Title 45, parts 160 and 164, of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR).
(75) “Health Systems Services and Supports” means all services and supports including but not limited to Outpatient Community Mental Health Services and Supports for Children and Adults, Intensive Treatment Services for Children, Outpatient and Residential Substance Use Disorders Treatment Services, and Outpatient and Residential Problem Gambling Treatment Services.
(76) “Housing Support Services” means services approved by Division, provided to an individual to obtain and reside in an independent community setting and are tailored to the goal of maintaining an individual’s personal health and welfare in a home and community-based setting as they are transitioning from an inpatient or residential facility that provides substance use disorder treatment.
(77) “Immediate Need Profile” means the portion of an assessment that includes the identification of the most severe and destabilizing or life-threatening conditions, in order to inform the determination of the level of risk, the level of care placement and need for immediate intervention(s).
(78) “Incident” means any event involving an individual or child of an individual receiving services occurring on the premises of the program or involving program staff or any individual occurring on the premises of the program, or during a Service Plan activity and including but not limited to death, injury, major illness, accident, act of physical aggression, medication error, suspected abuse or neglect, or any other type unusual or critical event that presents a risk to health and safety of any persons. Critical incidents are reported to the Division.
(79) “Incident Report” means a written description of any incident.
(80) “Institutions of Mental Disease (IMD)” means a hospital, nursing facility, or other institution of more than 16 beds that is primarily engaged in providing diagnosis, treatment, or care of persons with mental diseases, which includes substance use disorders (SUDs).
(81) “Individual” means any individual being considered for or receiving services and supports regulated by these rules.
(82) "Informed Consent for Services" means that the service options, risks and benefits have been explained to the individual and guardian, if applicable, in a manner that they comprehend, and the individual and guardian, if applicable, have consented to the services on, or prior to, the first date of service.
(83) “Institution” means an establishment that furnishes (in single or multiple facilities) food, shelter, and some treatment or services to four or more persons unrelated to the proprietor.
(84) “Intensive In-Home Behavioral Health Treatment (IIBHT) for Children” means an intensive, community-based level of care for youth ages 0-20 years with complex mental health needs who are at risk for an out of home placement or who are stepping down from a higher level of care. IIBHT includes access to an array of services including individual and family therapy, case management, psychiatric services, skills training, peer-delivered services, and proactive 24 hours 7 days a week crisis response. A Certificate of Approval from the Oregon Health Authority is required to render IIBHT services to eligible youth and families. For the purposes of IIBHT, “in home” means services delivered in the home, school, or other community setting, as specified by the individual and family.
(85) “Intensive Outpatient Services and Supports (IOSS)” means a specialized set of comprehensive in-home and community-based supports and mental health treatment services for children that are developed by the child and family team and delivered in the most integrated setting in the community.
(86) “Interdisciplinary Team (IDT)” means a group of program staff that have primary responsibility for the development of a Service Plan for an individual receiving services.
(87) “Interim Referral and Information Services” means services provided by a substance use disorders treatment provider to individuals on a waiting list and whose services are funded by the Substance Use, Prevention, Treatment and Recovery (SUPTR) block grant to reduce the adverse health effects of substance use, promote the health of the individual, and reduce the risk of disease transmission.
(88) “Juvenile Psychiatric Security Review Board (JPSRB)” means the entity described in ORS 161.385.
(89) “Legal Representative” means a person who has been legally designated by court order to make financial or health care decisions for another individual. The legal representative only has authority to act within the scope and limits of the legal representative’s authority as designated by the court or other agreement. Legal representatives acting outside of the legal representative’s authority or scope shall meet the definition of authorized representative.
(90) "Level of Care" means the type, frequency, and duration of medically necessary services provided from the most integrated setting to the most restrictive and intensive inpatient setting
(91) "Licensed Health Care Professional" means a practitioner of the healing arts acting within the scope of their practice under State law who is licensed by a recognized governing board in Oregon.
(92) "Licensed Medical Practitioner (LMP)” means a person who meets the following minimum qualifications as documented by the Local Mental Health Authority (LMHA) or designee:
(a) Physician licensed to practice in the State of Oregon;
(b) Nurse practitioner licensed to practice in the State of Oregon; or
(c) Physician's assistant licensed to practice in the State of Oregon;
(d) Whose training, experience, and competence demonstrate the ability to conduct a medical exam, a mental health assessment and provide medication management; and
(e) For IOSS and ITS providers, a Board-Certified or Child and Adolescent Psychiatrist licensed to practice in the State of Oregon or a Psychiatric Nurse Practitioner under the consultation of a board-certified or board-eligible child and adolescent psychiatrist licensed to practice in the State of Oregon.
(93) “Linkage agreement” has the meaning given that term in OAR 309-032-0860.
(94) “Local Mental Health Authority (LMHA)” means one of the following entities:
(a) The board of county commissioners of one or more counties that establishes or operates a CMHP;
(b) The tribal council in the case of a federally recognized tribe of Native Americans that elects to enter into an agreement to provide mental health services; or
(c) A regional local mental health authority composed of two or more boards of county commissioners.
(95) "Mandatory Reporter" means anyone required by law, as defined in ORS 419B.005 or 430.735, who is required to report suspected abuse or neglect of a child, elderly person, or other adult as required by law in ORS 430.765, or ORS 419B.010, or ORS 124.060.
(96) "Medicaid" means the federal grant-in-aid program to state governments to provide medical assistance to eligible individuals under Title XIX of the Social Security Act.
(97) "Medical Director" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in the State of Oregon and is designated by a substance use disorders treatment program to be responsible for the program's medical services, either as an employee or through a contract.
(98) “Medical Treatment Staff” means medical personnel directly responsible for the delivery or oversight of client care and treatment, and who are properly trained, educated, and credentialed to deliver withdrawal management and substance use disorders services.
(99) “Medically Necessary” means health services and items that are required for an individual to address one or more of the following:
(a) The prevention, diagnosis, or treatment of an individual’s condition or disorder that results in behavioral health impairments; or
(b) The ability for a client or member to achieve age-appropriate growth and development; and
(c) A medically necessary service must also be medically appropriate.
(100) “Medication Assisted Treatment (MAT)” means the use of medication in combination with counseling and behavioral therapies for the treatment of substance use disorders.
(101) “Mental Health Intern” means program staff who meet qualifications for QMHA and are currently enrolled in a graduate program approved by the Division-approved certification or licensing body but does not have the necessary graduate degree in psychology, social work, or related field of behavioral science, or have an equivalent degree as determined by the Division-approved certification or licensing body. The program staff shall:
(a) Be enrolled in a graduate program that will result in a degree in psychology, social work, or related field of behavioral science, or an equivalent degree as evidenced by providing transcripts indicating applicable coursework meeting the required competencies and approved by the OHA-approved certification or licensing body;
(b) Have a collaborative educational agreement between the Division-certified provider and the graduate program for the student; and
(c) Work under the direct and active supervision of a qualified supervisor employed or contracted by the provider of services, within the scope of practice and competencies identified by the collaborative educational agreement, and within the policies and procedures for the credentialing of program staff as established by the provider.
(102) "Mobile Crisis Services" means mental health services for individuals in crisis provided by mental health practitioners who respond to behavioral health crises onsite at the location in the community where the crisis arises and who provide a face-to-face therapeutic response. The goal of mobile crisis services is to help an individual resolve a psychiatric crisis in the most integrated setting possible and to avoid unnecessary hospitalization, inpatient psychiatric treatment, involuntary commitment, and arrest or incarceration.
(103) "Mobile Crisis Response Time" means the time from the point when a professional decision is made that a face-to-face intervention is required to the time the actual face-to-face intervention takes place in the community.
(104) “Mobility” means assisting the individual with mobility, transfers and repositioning including turning or adjusting padding for physical comfort or pressure relief and encouraging or assisting with range of motion exercises and the use of devises that assist with mobility.
(105) “Motivational Enhancement Therapy” (MET) means a person-centered approach to therapy that focuses on improving an individual's motivation to change.
(106) “Motivational Therapies” means evidence-based interventions for people experiencing substance use disorder, such as motivational interviewing, cognitive behavioral therapy, and motivational enhancement therapy.
(107) “Non-Institutions of Mental Disease (non-IMD)” means a hospital, nursing facility, or other institution with less than 16 beds that is primarily engaged in providing diagnosis, treatment, or care of persons with mental diseases, which includes substance use disorders (SUDs).
(108) “Non-Medicaid Service Data” means data collected through the mandated state data system regarding services paid for by any source other than Medicaid and includes, but is not limited to:
(a) Diagnosis;
(b) Date of service;
(c) Place of service;
(d) Procedure code;
(e) Modifier;
(f) Number of service units; and
(g) Billed charges.
(109) “Nursing Services” means services that are provided by a registered nurse (RN) or a licensed practical nurse (LPN) within the scope of practice as defined in OAR chapter 851 division 045.
(110) “Outpatient Problem Gambling Treatment Services” means all outpatient treatment services and supports provided to individuals with gambling related problems and their families.
(111) "Outreach" means the delivery of behavioral health services, referral services, and case management services in non-traditional settings including but not limited to the individual's residence, shelters, streets, jails, transitional housing sites, drop-in centers, single room occupancy hotels, child welfare settings, educational settings, or medical settings. It also means attempts made to engage or re-engage an individual in services by such means as letters or telephone calls.
(112) “Partial Hospitalization or Day Treatment Substance Use Disorder (SUD) Services ASAM Level 2.5” means a planned, structured array of services and supports, consistent with The ASAM Criteria for Level of Care 2.5, that offer 20 or more therapeutic contact hours of high intensity treatment per week. Contact is in a less restrictive level of care than residential SUD treatment, 24-hour care is not required.
(113) “Peer” means program staff supporting an individual or the individual's family member who has similar life experience, either as a current or former recipient of mental health or substance use, problem gambling, or mental health services, or as a family member of an individual who is a current or former recipient of substance use, problem gambling, or mental health services.
(114) “Peer-Delivered Services” are community-based services and supports provided by peers, peer support specialists, and peer wellness specialists to individuals or family members with similar lived experience. These services are intended to support individuals and families to engage individuals in ongoing treatment and to live successfully in the community.
(115) “Peer-Delivered Services Supervisor" means qualified program staff, with at least one year of experience as a PSS or PWS in behavioral health services, who is responsible for evaluating and guiding PSS and PWS program staff in the delivery of peer-delivered services and supports.
(116) “Peer Support Specialist (PSS)” means a qualified program staff providing peer-delivered services to an individual or family member with similar life experience under the supervision of a qualified clinical supervisor and a qualified peer-delivered services supervisor as resources are made available.
(117) “Peer Support and Peer Wellness Specialist Supervision" means supervision by a qualified clinical supervisor and a qualified peer-delivered services supervisor as resources are available. The supports provided include guidance in the unique discipline of peer-delivered services and the roles of peer support specialists and peer wellness specialists.
(118) “Peer Wellness Specialist (PWS)” means s program staff who supports an individual in identifying behavioral health service and support needs through community outreach, assisting individuals with access to available services and resources, addressing barriers to services, and providing education and information about available resources and behavioral health issues in order to reduce stigma and discrimination toward consumers of behavioral health services and to provide direct services to assist individuals in creating and maintaining recovery, health, and wellness under the supervision of a qualified clinical supervisor and a qualified peer-delivered services supervisor as resources are made available.
(119) “Pre-engagement Services” means services delivered prior to completion of an assessment, service plan, and/or commencement of formal treatment in order to engage high risk/high need individuals in ongoing treatment services and to avoid crisis events and higher levels of care.
(120) “Problem Gambling Approved Certification Consultant” means individual who is a Certified Gambling Addiction Counselor, level II (CGACII) for a minimum of two years and has a minimum of 12 hours of clinical supervision education. The purpose of the position is to provide consultation for CGAC candidates on 1) Fundamentals of Problem Gambling Treatment case conceptualization 2) the process and requirements of earning certification as a CGAC. This is a Mental Health and Addiction Certification Board of Oregon (MHACBO) distinction.
(121) “Problem Gambling Treatment Staff” means program staff certified or licensed by a Division recognized credentialing body to provide problem gambling treatment services that include assessment, development of a Service Plan, group and family counseling.
(122) "Program" means an organized system of services and supports delivered by a provider designed to address the treatment needs of individuals and families.
(123) "Program Administrator" or "Program Director" means program staff with appropriate professional qualifications and experience who is designated to manage the operation of a program.
(124) "Program Staff" means personnel who renders a clinical service or support. Program staff could include, for example, be an employee, contractor, intern, or volunteer who is rendering or assisting with rendering clinical services or supports.
(125) “Provider” means an organizational entity or qualified person that is certified or licensed by the Division for the direct delivery of substance use, problem gambling, or mental health services and supports.
(126) "Psychiatric Security Review Board (PSRB)" means the entity described in ORS 161.295 through 161.400.
(127) Psychiatrist" means a physician licensed by the Oregon Medical Board and who has completed an approved residency training program in psychiatry.
(128) "Psychologist" means a person who is currently licensed to practice psychology by the Oregon Board of Psychology.
(129) “Publicly Funded” means financial support, in part or in full, with revenue generated by a local, state, or federal government.
(130) "Qualified Mental Health Associate (QMHA)” means mental health program staff delivering services under the direct supervision of a QMHP who meets the minimum qualifications as authorized by the LMHA or designee and specified in OAR 309-019-0125.
(131) "Qualified Mental Health Professional (QMHP)" means mental health program staff LMP or any other program staff meeting the minimum qualifications as authorized by the LMHA or designee and specified in OAR 309-019-0125.
(132) "Qualified Person" means program staff who is a QMHP or a QMHA and is identified by the PSRB and JPSRB in its Conditional Release Order. This individual is designated by the provider to deliver or arrange and monitor the provision of the reports and services required by the Conditional Release Order.
(133) "Quality Assessment and Performance Improvement" means the structured, internal monitoring and evaluation of services to improve processes, service delivery, and service outcomes.
(134) “Recovery” means a process of healing and transformation for an individual to achieve their full human potential and personhood in leading a meaningful life as they define it in communities of their choice.
(135) "Representative" means someone who acts on behalf of an individual at the individual’s request with respect to a grievance including but not limited to a relative, friend, Division employee, attorney, or legal guardian.
(136) “Resilience” means the universal capacity that an individual uses to prevent, minimize, or overcome the effects of adversity. Resilience reflects an individual’s strengths as protective factors and assets for positive development.
(137) "Respite Care" means planned and emergency supports designed to provide temporary relief from care giving to maintain a stable and safe living environment. Respite care may be provided in or out of the home. Respite care includes supervision and behavior support consistent with the strategies specified in the service plan.
(138) "Risk Assessment" means an evaluation of the level or severity of risk the individual is experiencing and how each interact, resulting in an overall risk assessment rating.
(139) “Safety Plan” means a best practice, research-based, individualized and directive document developed through a collaborative process in which the provider assists the individual in listing actions to use when self-harm, harm to others or suicide ideation is elevated or following suicidal behavior.
(140) "Screening" means the process to determine whether the individual needs further assessment to identify circumstances requiring referrals or additional services and supports.
(141) “Screening Specialist” means a person who possesses valid certification issued by the Division to conduct DUII evaluations.
(142) "Service Plan" means a comprehensive plan for services and supports provided to or coordinated for an individual and their family, as applicable, that is reflective of the assessment and the intended outcomes of service.
(143) “Service Note” means the written record of services and supports provided, including documentation of progress toward intended outcomes consistent with the timelines stated in the service plan.
(144) “Service Record” means the written or electronic documentation regarding an individual and resulting from entry into services, assessment, orientation, services and supports planning, services and supports provided, and transfer.
(145) "Services" means those activities and treatments described in the service plan and rendered, that are intended to support the individual's transition to recovery from a substance use disorder, problem gambling disorder, or mental health condition and to promote resiliency and rehabilitative and functional individual and family’s desired outcomes.
(146) “Signature” means any written or electronic means of entering the name, date of authentication, and credentials of the program staff providing a specific service or the individual authorizing services and supports. Signature also means any written or electronic means of entering the name and date of authentication of the individual, guardian, or any authorized representative of the individual receiving services.
(147) "Skills Training" or “Skills Restoration" means providing information and training to individuals and families designed to assist with the development of skills in areas including but not limited to anger management, stress reduction, conflict resolution, self-esteem, parent-child interactions, personal relationships, drug and alcohol awareness, behavior support, symptom management, accessing community services, and daily living.
(148) “Stabilization” means the application of medical and psychosocial services and supports and in a manner that results in the reduction of symptomology and increase in skill level to support and redirect patients to the most appropriate and least restrictive setting. Services are directed at restoring patient’s ability to maintain safety while enhancing their recovery, so they can successfully reintegrate into identified community settings.
(149) “Status Data” means data collected through the mandated state data system and includes, but is not limited to:
(a) Initial admission, diagnostic, and demographics data;
(b) Updates and changes as needed through the individual’s enrollment in services; and
(c) Discharge or other discontinuation of services.
(150) “Student Intern” or “Intern” means a program staff who provides a paid or unpaid program service and does not qualify as a Mental Health Intern.
(151) "Substance Use, Prevention, Treatment and Recovery Block Grant” or “SUPTR Block Grant” or “SUPTR” means the federal block grants for prevention and treatment of substance abuse under Public Law 102-321 (31 U.S.C. 7301-7305) and the regulations published in Title 45 Part 96 of the Code of Federal Regulations.
(152) "Substance Use Disorders (SUDs)" as defined in DSM-5-TR, means disorders related to the taking of a drug of abuse including alcohol, the side effects of a medication, or a toxin exposure. The disorders include substance use disorders and substance-induced disorders, which include substance intoxication and withdrawal, and substance-related disorders such as delirium, neuro-cognitive disorders, and substance-induced psychotic disorder.
(153) “Substance Use Disorders Treatment and Recovery Services” means outpatient, intensive outpatient, and residential services and supports for individuals with substance use disorders.
(154) “Substance Use Disorders Treatment Staff” means one type of program staff certified by a Division-approved certification body to render substance use disorders treatment services.
(155) “Subsyndromal symptomology” means the individual demonstrates or complains of symptoms, suggesting a particular disorder or condition, that do not meet the threshold of the defined criteria for that disorder or condition, and so a diagnosis of that disorder or condition cannot be assigned.
(156) “Successful DUII Completion” means that the DUII program has documented in its records that for the period of service deemed necessary by the program, the individual has:
(a) Met the completion criteria approved by the Division;
(b) Met the terms of the fee agreement between the provider and the individual; and
(c) Demonstrated 90 days of continuous abstinence prior to completion.
(157) “Suicide Risk Assessment” means a comprehensive evaluation, usually performed by a clinician, to evaluate suspected suicide risk in an individual, estimate the immediate danger, and decide on a course of treatment. May also be called Risk Assessment.
(158) “Suicide Screening” means a procedure in which a validated tool, or protocol is used to identify individuals who may be at risk for suicide.
(159) “Supports” means activities, referrals, and supportive relationships designed to enhance the services delivered to individuals and families for the purpose of facilitating progress toward intended outcomes.
(160) “Transfer” means the process of assisting an individual to transition from the current services to the next identified setting or ASAM level of care.
(161) “Transitioning” means a 90-day period which begins when an individual is discharged from an inpatient or residential stay back to a community setting.
(162) “Trauma Informed Services” means services that reflect the consideration and evaluation of the role that trauma plays in the lives of people seeking mental health, substance use, or problem gambling services, including recognition of the traumatic effect of misdiagnosis and coercive treatment. Services are responsive to the vulnerabilities of trauma survivors and are delivered in a way that avoids inadvertent re-traumatization and facilitates individual direction of services.
(163) "Treatment" means the planned, individualized program of medical, psychological, and rehabilitative procedures, experiences, and activities designed to remediate symptoms of a DSM-5-TR diagnosis.
(164) “Triage” means a classification process to determine priority needs.
(165) "Urinalysis Test" means a sensitive, rapid, and inexpensive immunoassay screen that identifies the presence of a specific drug or metabolite in a urine specimen to eliminate "true negative" specimens from further consideration.
(166) "Urgent" means the onset of symptoms requiring attention within 24 hours to prevent a serious deterioration in an individual's mental or physical health or threat to safety.
(167) "Variance" means an exception from a provision of these rules granted in writing by the Division pursuant to the process regulated by OAR 309-008-1600 upon written application from the provider. Approval and duration of a variance is determined on a case-by-case basis.
(168) "Volunteer" means a person who performs a service willingly and without pay.
(169) “Warm Handoff” has the meaning given that term in OAR 309-032-0860.
(170) “Wellness” means an approach to healthcare that emphasizes good physical and mental health, preventing illness, and prolonging life.
(171) “Wraparound” means a high-fidelity model of team-based intensive care coordination for children and their families based on National Wraparound Initiative values and principles.
(172) “Young Adult in Transition” means an individual who is developmentally transitioning into independence, sometime between the ages of 14 and 25.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390, 413.042, 430.256 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 161.390 - 161.400, 428.205 - 270, 430.010, 430.205- 430.210, 430.254 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955, 743A.168 & 414.665
- BHS 12-2023, amend filed 05/16/2023, effective 05/16/2023
- BHS 11-2023, amend filed 04/07/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- BHS 27-2022, amend filed 12/20/2022, effective 12/20/2022
- BHS 1-2022, amend filed 01/05/2022, effective 01/05/2022
- BHS 11-2021, amend filed 06/16/2021, effective 06/16/2021
- MHS 4-2018, amend filed 02/27/2018, effective 03/01/2018
- MHS 10-2017(Temp), f. 9-15-17, cert. ef. 9-15-17 thru 3-13-18
- MHS 6-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
- MHS 26-2016(Temp), f. 12-27-16, cert. ef. 12-28-16 thru 6-23-17
- MHS 18-2016, f. 11-28-16, cert. ef. 11-30-16
- MHS 11-2016(Temp), f. 6-29-16, cert. ef. 7-1-16 thru 12-27-16
- MHS 4-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 6-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-019-0110 Provider Policies
(1) All providers shall develop and implement written service delivery policies and specific procedures for office-based, community-based and telehealth services and supports compliant with these rules, to be made available to individuals and family members upon request, and shall include, at a minimum, the following:
(a) Personnel qualifications, credentialing, and training;
(b) Mandatory abuse reporting compliant with ORS 430.735 - 430.768 and OAR chapter 943, division 45;
(c) Criminal Records Checks that address program and volunteer staff, compliant with ORS 181.533 through 181.575 and OAR 943-007-0001 through 0501, where applicable;
(d) Fraud, waste, and abuse in federal Medicaid and Medicare programs compliant with OAR 410-120-1380 and 410-120-1510;
(e) Alcohol, Drug and Gambling Free Workplace;
(f) Fee agreements;
(g) Confidentiality and compliance with HIPAA, Federal Confidentiality Regulations (42 CFR, Part 2), and state confidentiality regulations as specified in ORS 179.505 and 192.518 through 192.530;
(h) Compliance with Title 2 of the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 (ADA);
(i) Per ORS 413.046; Grievances and appeals, including an example grievance form;
(j) Individual rights;
(k) Quality assessment and performance improvement;
(l) Trauma informed service delivery consistent with the Division Trauma Informed Services Policy;
(m) Provision of culturally and linguistically appropriate services;
(n) Crisis prevention and response;
(o) Incident reporting;
(p) Peer delivered services;
(q) Prevention of communicable disease transmission;
(r) Emergency evacuation;
(s) Delivery of substance use disorders treatment services and supports consistent with The ASAM Criteria for each certified level of care;
(t) Code of conduct that includes professional boundaries and ethics;
(u) Referral, Care Coordination and Transfer of Services
(v) Medical Protocols consistent with these rules; and
(w) Urinalysis Testing.
(x) Opportunity for individuals over the age of 18 to declare advanced directive for their mental health treatment.
(y) Opportunity for individuals over the age of 18 to register to vote by making voter registration cards available.
(z) Quality Assurance Review process overseen and approved by designated Clinical Supervisor that includes, at minimum, quarterly review of;
(A) A pre-determined number of service plans for participants newly admitted to the program;
(B) A pre-determined number of service plans for participants engaged in services for more than one year; and
(C) A pre-determined number of assessments and other documentation demonstrating a medically necessary reason for services.
(2) All written service delivery policies and specific procedures shall prohibit the following:
(a) Psychological and physical abuse of an individual;
(b) Seclusion, personal restraint, mechanical restraint, and chemical restraint;
(c) Withholding shelter, regular meals, medication, clothing, or supports for physical functioning;
(d) Discipline of one individual receiving services by another; and
(e) Titration of medications prescribed for the treatment of opioid dependence as a condition of receiving or continuing to receive treatment.
(3) Providers of Enhanced Care Services (ECS) services shall develop behavior support policies consistent with OAR 309-019-0155(3).
(4) Community Mental Health Programs shall develop policies for linkage agreements compliant with OAR 309-032-0870.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390, 413.042, 430.256 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 161.390 - 161.400, 179.505, 413.520 - 413.522, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955 & 743A.168
- BHS 24-2024, amend filed 10/25/2024, effective 10/27/2024
- BHS 11-2023, amend filed 04/07/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- BHS 11-2021, amend filed 06/16/2021, effective 06/16/2021
- BHS 8-2020, temporary amend filed 04/30/2020, effective 04/30/2020 through 10/26/2020
- MHS 4-2018, amend filed 02/27/2018, effective 03/01/2018
- MHS 10-2017(Temp), f. 9-15-17, cert. ef. 9-15-17 thru 3-13-18
- MHS 6-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
- MHS 26-2016(Temp), f. 12-27-16, cert. ef. 12-28-16 thru 6-23-17
- MHS 18-2016, f. 11-28-16, cert. ef. 11-30-16
- MHS 11-2016(Temp), f. 6-29-16, cert. ef. 7-1-16 thru 12-27-16
- MHS 4-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 6-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-019-0115 Individual Rights
(1) In addition to all applicable statutory and constitutional rights, every individual receiving services has the right to:
(a) Choose from services and supports that are consistent with the assessment and service plan, culturally competent, provided in the most integrated setting in the community and under conditions that are least restrictive to the individual’s liberty, that are least intrusive to the individual, and that provide for the greatest degree of independence;
(b) Be treated with dignity and respect;
(c) Participate in the development of a written service plan, receive services consistent with that plan and participate in periodic review and reassessment of service and support needs, assist in the development of the plan, and receive a copy of the written service plan;
(d) Have all services explained, including expected outcomes and possible risks;
(e) Confidentiality and the right to consent to disclosure in accordance with ORS 107.154, 179.505, 179.507, 192.515, 192.507, 42 CFR Part 2 and 45 CFR Part 205.50;
(f) Give informed consent in writing prior to the start of services, except in a medical emergency or as otherwise permitted by law. Minor children may give informed consent to services in the following circumstances:
(A) Under age 18 and lawfully married;
(B) Age 16 or older and legally emancipated by the court; or
(C) Age 14 or older for outpatient services only. For purposes of informed consent, outpatient service does not include service provided in residential programs or in day or partial hospitalization programs.
(g) Inspect their service record in accordance with ORS 179.505;
(h) Refuse participation in experimentation;
(i) Receive medication specific to the individual’s diagnosed clinical needs, including medications used to treat opioid dependence;
(j) Receive prior notice of transfer, unless the circumstances necessitating transfer pose a threat to health and safety;
(k) Be free from abuse or neglect and to report any incident of abuse or neglect without being subject to retaliation;
(L) Have religious freedom;
(m) Be free from seclusion and restraint;
(n) Be informed at the start of services and periodically thereafter of the rights guaranteed by this rule;
(o) Be informed of the policies and procedures, service agreements and fees applicable to the services provided, and to have a custodial parent, guardian, or representative assist with understanding any information presented;
(p) Have family and guardian involvement in service planning and delivery;
(q) Have an opportunity to make a declaration for mental health treatment, when legally an adult;
(r) File grievances, including appealing decisions resulting from the grievance;
(s) Exercise all rights set forth in ORS 109.610 through 109.697 if the individual is a child, as defined by these rules;
(t) Exercise all rights set forth in ORS 426.385 if the individual is committed to the Authority; and
(u) Exercise all rights described in this rule without any form of reprisal or punishment.
(2) The provider shall give to the individual and, if appropriate, the guardian a document that describes the applicable individual’s rights as follows:
(a) Information given to the individual shall be in written form or, upon request, in an alternative format or language appropriate to the individual’s need;
(b) The rights and how to exercise them shall be explained to the individual, and if applicable the guardian; and
(c) Individual rights shall be posted in writing in a common area.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390, 413.042, 430.256, 426.495, 430.640 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 109.675, 161.390 - 161.400, 179.505, 413.520 - 413.522, 426.380- 426.395, 426.490 - 426.500, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955, 443.400 - 443.460 & 743A.168
- MHS 4-2018, amend filed 02/27/2018, effective 03/01/2018
- MHS 10-2017(Temp), f. 9-15-17, cert. ef. 9-15-17 thru 3-13-18
- MHS 6-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
- MHS 26-2016(Temp), f. 12-27-16, cert. ef. 12-28-16 thru 6-23-17
- MHS 4-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 6-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-019-0125 Staff Qualifications
Provider must ensure that staff in the following positions meet applicable qualifications, credentialing, andlicensing/certification standards and competencies, including those set forth in these rules:
(1) Program staff as identified in (21)(a-u) of this rule, providing treatment services and/or supports in mental health treatment programs, substance use disorders treatment programs, or problem gambling treatment programs must be trained in and familiar with strategies for the delivery of trauma informed and culturally responsive treatment services and supports in compliance with the program’s respective policies. All treatment services and supports must be provided in a trauma informed and culturally responsive manner. All Program staff must meet one of the following:
(a) Be licensed in Oregon by a Division recognized Oregon board:
(A) Oregon Medical Board;
(B) Oregon Board of Nursing;
(C) Oregon Board of Psychology;
(D) Oregon Board of Licensed Professional Counselors and Therapists;
(E) Oregon Board of Licensed Social Workers;
(F) Oregon Occupational Therapy Licensing Board;
(b) Be an Associate registered by a Division recognized Oregon board as identified in (1)(D-E) of this rule and be physically present in Oregon at the time of providing services or supports.
(c) Effective July 1, 2027, be under the outpatient (OAR 309, Division 019) certificate of approval (COA) if providing services to individuals under Medicaid;
(d) Be credentialed by an OHA approved entity and
(e) Be physically present in Oregon at the time of providing services or supports under the outpatient (OAR 309, Division 019) certificate; or.
(f) Credentialed as a QMHP or a QMHA as identified in (14) or (15) of this rule, and credentialed by the specific OHA-certified behavioral health program the individual is employed by, consistent with the program’s policy, and be physically present in Oregon.
(2) Program administrators and program directors must demonstrate competence in leadership, cultural responsiveness, program planning and budgeting, fiscal management, supervision of program staff, personnel management, program staff performance assessment, use of data, reporting, program evaluation, quality assurance, and developing and coordinating community resources.
(3) Medical Directors must be licensed under ORS 677 or 685 and may perform health maintenance and restoration measures consistent with generally recognized and accepted principles of medicine, including but not limited to:
(a) Administering, dispensing, or writing prescriptions for medications;
(b) Recommending the use of specific and appropriate over-the-counter pharmaceuticals;
(c) Ordering diagnostic tests; and
(d) Perform tasks required by OAR 309-019-0200.
(4) Clinical supervisors in all programs must demonstrate competence in leadership, cultural responsiveness, oversight and evaluation of services, staff development, assessment, person-centered treatment planning, case management and coordination, utilization of community resources; group, family, and individual therapy or counseling; documentation and rationale for services to promote intended outcomes; and implementation of all provider policies.
(5) Clinical supervisors in mental health programs must meet, at a minimum, Qualified Mental Health Professional (QMHP) requirements and have completed two years equivalent of post-graduate clinical experience in a mental health treatment setting. All clinical supervisors must:
(a) Be licensed in Oregon by a Division recognized Oregon board as identified in (1)(A-F) of this rule: or
(b) Be certified as a Qualified Mental Health Professional (QMHP) by an OHA approved entity, or per policy as described in (1)(d) of this rule, and be physically present in Oregon at the time of providing services or supports under the outpatient (OAR 309, Division 019) certificate.
(6) Clinical supervisors in substance use disorders treatment programs must be:
(a) Licensed in Oregon by a Division recognized Oregon board as identified in (1)(A-F) of this rule and be physically present in Oregon at the time of providing services, supports, and/or clinical supervision, under the outpatient (OAR 309, Division 019) certificate, or
(b) Be certified by a Division approved entity and be physically present in Oregon at the time of providing services, supports, and/or clinical supervision, under the outpatient (OAR 309, Division 019) certificate.
(c) For clinical supervisors holding a certification through an OHA approved entity in substance use disorder counseling, qualifications for the certification must have included at least:
(A) 4000 hours of supervised experience in substance use counseling;
(B) 300 contact hours of education and training in substance use related subjects; and
(C) Successful completion of a professional psychometric examination by a an OHA approved entity. A substantively equivalent portfolio evaluation by an OHA approved entity may be accepted in lieu of a professional psychometric examination as approved by the Division.
(d) Clinical supervisors not holding a certification in substance use disorder counseling must have a health or allied provider license. The license must have been issued in Oregon by a Division recognized Oregon board as identified in (1)(A-F) of this rule and the supervisor must possess documentation of at least 120 contact hours of academic or continuing professional education in the treatment of substance use disorders.
(e) Additionally, clinical supervisors in substance use disorders programs must have one of the following qualifications:
(A) Five years of paid full-time experience in the field of substance use disorders counseling; or
(B) A Bachelor's degree and four years of paid full-time experience in the social services field with a minimum of two years of direct substance use disorders counseling experience; or
(C) A Master's degree and three years of paid full-time experience in the social services field with a minimum of two years of direct substance use or co-occurring disorders counseling experience.
(7) Clinical supervisors in problem gambling treatment programs must meet the requirements for clinical supervisors in either mental health or substance use disorders treatment programs and have completed twelve hours of gambling specific training within six months of designation as a problem gambling services supervisor.
(8) Peer Delivered Services Supervisors must be a certified Peer Support Specialist (PSS) or Peer Wellness Specialist (PWS) with at least one year experience as a PSS or PWS in behavioral health treatment services and must:
(a) Be licensed in Oregon by a Division recognized Oregon board as identified in (1)(A-F) of this rule; or:
(b) Be an Associate registered by a Division recognized Oregon board as identified in (1)(D-E) of this rule and be physically present in Oregon at the time of providing services or supports.
(c) Be certified by an OHA approved entity and be physically present in Oregon at the time of providing services or supports under the outpatient (OAR 309, Division 019) certificate.
(9) Substance use disorders treatment staff must:
(a) Be licensed in Oregon by a Division recognized Oregon board as identified in (1)(A-F) of this rule;
(b) Be an Associate registered by a Division recognized Oregon board as identified in (1)(D-E) of this rule and be physically present in Oregon at the time of providing services or supports.
(c) Effective July 1, 2027, be under the outpatient (OAR 309, Division 019) certificate of approval (COA) if providing services to individuals under Medicaid;
(d) Be certified by OHA approved entity and be physically present in Oregon at the time of providing services or supports under the outpatient (OAR 309, Division 019) certificate.
(e) Demonstrate competence in the use of The ASAM Criteria, Third Edition, in treatment of substance-use disorders including individual assessment to include identification of health and safety risks to self or others; individual, group, family and other counseling techniques; program policies and procedures for service delivery and documentation and identification; development of a safety plan; implementation and coordination of services identified to facilitate intended outcomes; and
(f) Receive clinical supervision that documents progress towards certification and recertification; or
(g) At the date of first hire to provide substance use disorder treatment, if the program staff is not certified to provide substance use disorder treatment, they must register with the Division recognized credentialing body within 30 days of hire and obtain professional substance use disorder treatment certification within two years from the date of first hire unless they obtain a variance from the Division before that time has elapsed;
(h) For program staff holding certification in substance use disorder counseling, qualifications for certification must have included at least:
(A) 1000 hours of supervised experience in substance use counseling;
(B) 150 contact hours of education and training in substance use related subjects; and
(C) Successful completion of a professional psychometric examination by an OHA approved entity. A substantively equivalent portfolio evaluation by an OHA approved entity may be accepted in lieu of a professional psychometric examination using procedures approved by the Division.
(i) Program staff not holding certification/credential from an OHA approved entity in substance use disorder counseling must be licensed in Oregon by an Oregon board as identified in (1)(A-F) and at least 60 contact hours of academic or continuing professional education in the treatment of substance use disorders. (10) Problem Gambling treatment staff must:
(A) Be licensed in Oregon by a Division recognized Oregon board as identified in (1)(A-F) of this rule; or
(B) Be an Associate registered by a Division recognized Oregon board as identified in (1)(D-E) of this rule and be physically present in Oregon at the time of providing services or supports.
(C) Effective July 1, 2027, be under the outpatient (OAR 309, Division 019) certificate of approval (COA) if providing services to individuals under Medicaid; or
(D) Be certified by an OHA approved entity and be physically present in Oregon at the time of providing services or supports under the outpatient (OAR 309, Division 019) certificate.
(j) Demonstrate competence in the following areas: treatment of problem gambling and gambling disorder including individual assessment to include identification of health and safety risks to self or others; individual, group, family, and other counseling techniques; program policies and procedures for service delivery and documentation, implementation and coordination of services identified to facilitate intended outcomes and cultural responsiveness;
(k) Complete a minimum of two hours every two years or three hours every three years of training in suicide risk screening, suicide risk assessment, treatment and management;
(l) Receive clinical supervision that documents progress towards certification and recertification;
(m) At the date of first hire to provide problem gambling treatment, if the program staff is not certified to provide problem gambling treatment, they must register with the Division recognized credentialing body within 30 days of hire and obtain professional problem gambling treatment certification within two years from the date of first hire unless they obtain a variance from the Division before that time has elapsed;
(n) For program staff holding certification in gambling addiction counseling, qualifications for certification must include at least:
(A) 500 hours of supervised experience in gambling addiction counselor domains;
(B) 30 contact hours of education and training in problem gambling;
(C) 24 hours of face-to-face, telephone, or video conferencing communication, of certification consultation from a problem gambling approved certification consultant; and
(D) Successful completion of a professional psychometric examination by a Division recognized credentialing body or a substantively equivalent portfolio evaluation by a Division recognized credentialing body may be accepted in lieu of a professional psychometric examination using procedures approved by the Division.
(E) Program staff not holding a certification/credential in gambling addiction counseling by an OHA approved entity must have at least 30 contact hours of academic or continuing professional education in the treatment of gambling addiction. The license or registration must be issued in Oregon by a Division approved Oregon board as identified in (1)(A-F) of this rule.
(10) Rehabilitative Behavioral Health Service Providers, including medical treatment staff, must demonstrate cultural responsiveness and meet the requirements and qualifications in OAR 410-172-0660.
(11) Behavioral health clinicians must have one of the following corresponding license or designation:
(a) A licensed psychiatrist;
(b) A licensed psychologist;
(c) A licensed nurse practitioner with a specialty in psychiatric mental health;
(d) A licensed clinical social worker;
(e) A licensed professional counselor or licensed marriage and family therapist;
(f) A professional counselor associate
(g) A marriage and family therapist associate
(h) A certified clinical social work associate (CSWA);
(i) A Mental Health Intern as described in (14)(a-g) of this rule;
(j) A psychology resident who is working under a board-approved supervisory contract in a clinical mental health field;
(k) A Qualified Mental Health Practitioner (QMHP); or
(l) Any other clinician whose authorized scope of practice includes mental health diagnosis and treatment.
(12) A Board Registered Associate must:
(a) Be physically present in Oregon at the time of providing services or supports under the outpatient (OAR 309, Division 019) certificate;
(b) Be an Associate registered by a Division recognized Oregon board as identified in (1)(D-E) of this rule and be physically present in Oregon at the time of providing services or supports.
(c) Effective July 1, 2027, be under the outpatient (OAR 309, Division 019) certificate of approval (COA) if providing services to individuals under Medicaid;
(d) Provide services consistent with the QMHP scope of work;
(e) Demonstrate the following minimum competencies: cultural responsiveness, effective communication, care coordination, inter- and intra-agency collaboration, working alliances with individuals, suicide and other risk assessments and interventions, creating and monitoring safety plans, completion of bio-psycho-social assessments and additional assessments, updating assessments when clinical circumstances change, generating a differential DSM-5-TR diagnosis, prioritizing health, wellness, and recovery needs, writing measurable service objectives, creating, monitoring and revising service plans, delivery of mental health and recovery treatment services in individual, group and family formats within their scope, gathering and recording data that measures progress toward the service objectives and documenting services, supports, and other information supportive of the service plan;
(f) Render services and supports within their scope to individuals engaged in a Division approved behavioral health services program if billing or rendering services under Medicaid; and
(g) Document a minimum of two hours every two years or three hours every three years of suicide risk screening, suicide risk assessment, treatment and management training.
(13) Qualified Mental Health Associates (QMHA) program staff must:
(a) Be credentialed by an OHA approved entity and be physically present in Oregon at the time of providing services or supports under the outpatient (OAR 309, Division 019) certificate; or
(b) Be credentialed as a QMHA by the specific OHA-certified behavioral health program the individual is employed by, consistent with the program’s policy and be physically present in Oregon at the time of providing services or supports under the outpatient (OAR 309, Division 019) certificate;
(c) Demonstrate the following minimum competencies: cultural responsiveness, effective communication, care coordination, inter- and intra-agency collaboration, working alliances with individuals, assist in the gathering and compiling of information to be included in the assessment, screen for suicide and other risks, and implement timely interventions, teach skill development strategies, case management, and transition planning;
(d) Render services and supports within their scope to individuals engaged in a Division approved behavioral health services provider; and
(e) Must meet the following minimum qualifications:
(A) Bachelor's degree in psychology, social work, or behavioral science field and documentation of a minimum of two hours every two years or three hours every three years of suicide risk screening, Intervention, and management training;
(B) An equivalent degree as evidenced by providing transcripts indicating applicable coursework meeting the required competencies and approved by a Division certified behavioral health provider and documentation of a minimum of two hours every two years or three hours every three years of suicide risk screening, Intervention and management training; or
(C) A combination of at least three years of relevant work, education, training, or experience and documentation of a minimum of two hours every two years or three hours every three years of suicide risk screening, Intervention and management training.
(f) Receive clinical supervision that documents progress towards certification and recertification.
(14) Qualified Mental Health Professional QMHP program staff must:
(a) Be credentialed by an OHA approved entity and be physically present in Oregon at the time of providing services or supports under the outpatient (OAR 309, Division 019) certificate; or
(b) Be credentialed as a QMHP by the specific OHA-certified behavioral health program the individual is employed by, consistent with the program’s policy and be physically present in Oregon at the time of providing services or supports under the outpatient (OAR 309, Division 019) certificate;
(c) Demonstrate the following minimum competencies: cultural responsiveness, effective communication, care coordination, inter- and intra-agency collaboration, working alliances with individuals, suicide and other risk assessments and interventions, creating and monitoring safety plans, completion of bio-psycho-social assessments and additional assessments, updating assessments when clinical circumstances change, generating a differential DSM-5-TR diagnosis, prioritizing health, wellness and recovery needs, writing measurable service objectives, creating, monitoring and revising service plans, delivery of mental health and recovery treatment services in individual, group and family formats within their scope, gathering and recording data that measures progress toward the service objectives and documenting services, supports and other information supportive of the service plan.
(d) Render services and supports within their scope to individuals engaged in a Division approved behavioral health services program;
(e) Document a minimum of two hours every two years or three hours every three years of suicide risk screening, suicide risk assessment, treatment and management training;
(f) Meet the following minimum qualifications:
(A) Bachelor’s degree in nursing and licensed by the State of Oregon. Nurses are accountable to abide by the Oregon Nurse Practice Act to determine if job descriptions are compliant with the competencies listed above;
(B) Bachelor’s degree in occupational therapy and licensed by the State of Oregon;
(C) Graduate degree in psychology, social work, recreational art or music therapy, or behavioral science field;
(D) An equivalent degree as evidenced by providing transcripts indicating applicable coursework meeting the required competencies
(g) Receive clinical supervision that documents progress towards certification and recertification.
(15) Mental Health Intern (MHI) program staff must:
(a) Be currently enrolled in a graduate program for a master’s degree in psychology, social work, or related field of behavioral science;
(b) Have a collaborative educational agreement between the provider and the graduate program for the student;
(c) Be physically present in Oregon while providing services or supports;
(d) Demonstrate cultural responsiveness, effective communication and competence in care coordination, development of working alliances with individuals, inter- and intra-agency collaboration, and the rendering of services and supports within their scope and in accordance with the service plan, including transition planning; and
(e) Work within the scope of practice and competencies identified by collaborative educational agreement and the policies and procedures for the credentialing of clinical staff as established by the provider and the graduate program;
(f) Document of a minimum of two hours every two years or three hours every three years of suicide risk screening, suicide risk assessment, treatment and management training.
(16) Student Intern program staff must:
(a) Be physically present in Oregon while providing services or supports;
(b) Be currently enrolled in an educational program for an undergraduate degree in a behavioral health field; or
(c) Demonstrate cultural responsiveness, effective communication and competence in care coordination, development of working alliances with individuals, inter- and intra-agency collaboration, and the rendering of services and supports within their scope and in accordance with the service plan, including transition planning;
(d) Have a collaborative education agreement between the Division certified provider and the educational institute for the student;
(e) Work within the scope of practice and competencies identified by the collaborative educational agreement and the policies and procedures for the credentialing of clinical staff as established by the provider; and
(f) Receive, at a minimum, weekly individual supervision by a qualified clinical supervisor employed by the provider of services.
(17) Intern program staff must:
(a) Render services and supports under the direct supervision of a qualified supervisor employed by the provider of services, within the scope of practice and competencies identified by the collaborative educational agreement.
(b) Be physically present in Oregon at the time of providing services or supports.
(c) Be working towards obtaining a behavioral health credential;
(d) Receive, at a minimum, weekly individual supervision by a qualified clinical supervisor employed by the provider of services; and
(e) Demonstrate cultural responsiveness, effective communication and competence in care coordination, development of working alliances with individuals, inter-and intra-agency collaboration, and the rendering of services and supports within their scope and in accordance with the service plan, including transition planning.
(18) Peer Support Specialists, Peer Wellness Specialists, Youth Support Specialists, and Family Support Specialists working or volunteering in health treatment programs must be certified by OHA’s Equity and Inclusion Division and be physically present in Oregon at the time of providing services or supports under the outpatient (OAR 309, Division 019) certificate of approval.
(19) Behavioral Health program staff include, but are not limited to:
(a) Licensed Medical Professional (LMP);
(b) Licensed Practical Nurse (LNP);
(c) Registered Nurse (RN);
(d) Advanced Practice Nurse including Clinical Nurse Specialist and Certified Nurse Practitioner licensed by the Oregon Board of Nursing;
(e) Psychologist licensed by the Oregon Board of Psychology;
(f) Professional Counselor (LPC) or Marriage and Family Therapist (LMFT) licensed by the Oregon Board of Licensed Professional Counselors and Therapists;
(g) Clinical Social Worker (CSW) licensed by the Oregon Board of Licensed Social Workers;
(h) Licensed Master Social Worker (LCSW) licensed by the Oregon Board of Licensed Social Workers as described in OAR 877-015-0105;
(i) Licensed Psychologist Associate granted independent status as described in OAR 858-010-0039;
(j) Licensed Occupational Therapist licensed by the Oregon Occupational Therapy Licensing Board;
(k) Board registered associates, including:
(A) Psychologist Associate Residents as described in OAR 858-010-0037;
(B) Licensed Psychologist Associate under continued supervision as described in OAR 858-010-0038;
(C) Professional Counselor Associate or Marriage and Family Therapist Associate registered with the Oregon Board of Licensed Professional Counselors and Therapists as described in OAR 833-050-0011;
(D) Certificate of Clinical Social Work Associate issued by the Oregon Board of Licensed Social Workers as described in OAR 877-020-0009;
(E) Registered Bachelor of Social Work issued by the Oregon Board of Licensed Social Workers as described in OAR 877-015-0105.
(l) Qualified Mental Health Professional (QMHP) as defined in OAR 309-019-0105;
(m) Qualified Mental Health Associate (QMHA) as defined in OAR 309-019-0105;
(n) Mental health intern as defined in OAR 309-019-0105;
(o) Student intern as defined in OAR 309-019-0105;
(p) Problem Gambling treatment staff registered with an OHA approved entity include:
(A) Certified Gambling Addiction Counselor-Registered (CGAC-R);
(B) Certified Gambling Addiction Counselor-I (CGAC-I); Certified Gambling Addiction Counselor-II (CAGC-II).
(q) SUD Treatment Staff credentialed/registered by an OHA approved entity include:
(A) Certified Alcohol and Drug Counselor-Registered (CADC-R);
(B) Certified Alcohol and Drug Counselor-I (CADC-I);
(C) Certified Alcohol and Drug Counselor-II (CADC-II);
(D) Certified Alcohol and Drug Counselor-III (CADC-III).
(r) Behavioral Health treatment Staff credentialed by the OHA Equity and Inclusion Division include:
(A) Peer Wellness Specialist
(B)Youth Support Specialist
(C) Family Support Specialist
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390, 413.042, 430.256 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 428.205-428.270, 430.010, 430.254-430.640, 430.850-430.955 & 743A.168
- BHS 18-2026, amend filed 06/30/2026, effective 07/01/2026
- BHS 24-2024, amend filed 10/25/2024, effective 10/27/2024
- BHS 12-2023, amend filed 05/16/2023, effective 05/16/2023
- BHS 11-2023, amend filed 04/07/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- BHS 27-2022, amend filed 12/20/2022, effective 12/20/2022
- BHS 1-2022, amend filed 01/05/2022, effective 01/05/2022
- BHS 11-2021, amend filed 06/16/2021, effective 06/16/2021
- BHS 15-2020, temporary amend filed 12/17/2020, effective 12/18/2020 through 06/15/2021
- BHS 14-2020, amend filed 11/12/2020, effective 11/12/2020
- BHS 8-2020, temporary amend filed 04/30/2020, effective 04/30/2020 through 10/26/2020
- MHS 4-2018, amend filed 02/27/2018, effective 03/01/2018
- MHS 10-2017(Temp), f. 9-15-17, cert. ef. 9-15-17 thru 3-13-18
- MHS 6-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
- MHS 26-2016(Temp), f. 12-27-16, cert. ef. 12-28-16 thru 6-23-17
- MHS 18-2016, f. 11-28-16, cert. ef. 11-30-16
- MHS 11-2016(Temp), f. 6-29-16, cert. ef. 7-1-16 thru 12-27-16
- MHS 3-2015, f. & cert. ef. 5-28-15
- MHS 1-2015(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 3-25-15 thru 9-20-15
- MHS 4-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 6-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-019-0130 Personnel Documentation, Training, and Supervision
(1) All program staff who render services and supports or bill for services and supports and all personnel who have access to protected health information that are associated with the Certificate must be identified on the provider’s organizational chart through a hierarchical chart or through a spreadsheet. If utilizing a spreadsheet, must also indicate reporting structure that demonstrates who is supervising the position. Information must include the individuals:
(a) Full legal name;
(b) Licensure and/or credential (based on their certification);
(c) Position title;
(d) Full-time or part-time status;
(e) Remote, Office, or Hybrid
(2) Providers must maintain personnel records for each program staff that contains all of the following documentation:
(a) The results of a criminal records check applicable to the current position or title, and:
(A) For personnel who render mental health services or have access to mental health protected health information such as service records or billing information, the program must use The Oregon Criminal Records Check and those processes and procedures required by OAR 943-007-0001 through 0501; and
(B) For personnel who render only substance use disorder treatment services or have access to only substance use disorder protected health information such as service records or billing information, the program must use national and state-wide criminal records check processes.
(b) A current job description that includes applicable competencies;
(c) Copies of relevant licensure or certification, registration for licensure or certification, diploma, or certified transcripts from an accredited college, indicating that the program staff meets applicable qualifications;
(d) Documentation of Employment Eligibility Verification, form I-9;
(e) Documentation of a minimum of two hours every two years or three hours every three years of training in suicide risk screening suicide risk assessment, treatment and management;
(f) Periodic performance appraisals;
(g) Program orientation documentation;
(h) Disciplinary documentation;
(i) Documentation of trainings required by this or other applicable rules; and
(j) Documentation of clinical supervision.
(3) Program Orientation: Providers must ensure that program staff receive training applicable to the specific population for whom services are planned, delivered, or supervised. The Provider must document that the following orientation was completed for each program staff providing or supervising services or supports within 30 days of the hire date, unless otherwise specified. At a minimum, program orientation and training for all program staff must include but not be limited to:
(a) A review of crisis prevention and response procedures;
(b) A review of emergency evacuation procedures;
(c) A review of program policies and procedures, including the procedures for each certified ASAM Level of Care for substance use disorder treatment program staff;
(d) A review of rights for individuals receiving services and supports;
(e) A review of mandatory abuse reporting procedures;
(f) A review of confidentiality policies and procedures;
(g) A review of Fraud, Waste and Abuse policies and procedures;
(h) A review of care coordination policies and procedures;
(i) A review of and agreement to abide by the Code of Conduct;
(j) Substance use disorders treatment staff and substance use disorders clinical supervisors must complete a training on The ASAM Criteria within the first three months of employment rendering substance use disorder services or supports or have it documented as completed within the most recent two years; and
(k) For Enhanced Care Services, positive behavior support training.
(4) Clinical Supervision is required for all program staff. providing direct services or supports and must receive documented clinical supervision by a qualified clinical supervisor related to the development, implementation, and outcome of services. Staff licensed by an Oregon Board must be clinically supervised by another individual licensed by an Oregon Board. Unlicensed staff must be clinically supervised by an individual who is licensed by an Oregon Board and who is is physically present in Oregon at the time of clinical supervision, or a QMHP that qualifies as a clinical supervisor and who is physically present in Oregon at the time the services and supports are provided, and while providing clinical supervision. Part time staff must receive supervision no less than, half the total supervision hours required for full time staff. Individual face-to face contact may include real time, two-way audio or audio-visual conferencing, and:
(a) Documentation must include:
(A) The date;
(B) Amount of time per session; and
(C) A brief description of the topics addressed.
(b) Clinical Supervision must be provided to assist staff to:
(A) Increase their skills within their scope of practice;
(B) Improve quality of services to individuals; and
(C) Ensure understanding, application and compliance with the code of conduct and program policies and procedures.
(c) Documentation must demonstrate the following minimum hours of clinical supervision for full-time staff per month:
(A) Non-licensed program staff, including Board Registered Associates, must receive at least two hours per month of clinical supervision. The two hours must include at minimum one hour of individual face-to-face supervision, and may include one hour of group supervision;
(B) Mental Health Interns and Student Interns must receive one-hour of individual clinical supervision per week; and
(C) When available, a qualified Peer Delivered Services Supervisor must provide one of the two hours of required monthly supervision to program staff providing direct Peer Delivered Services. Remaining hours of supervision must be provided by a qualified clinical supervisor.
(d) Mental Health Interns and Student Interns must render services and supports under the active supervision of a qualified supervisor, as defined in these rules; and
(e) Individualized non-clinical supervision must be utilized as needed and documented.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390, 413.042, 430.256 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 109.675, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955 & 743A.168
- BHS 18-2026, amend filed 06/30/2026, effective 07/01/2026
- BHS 12-2023, amend filed 05/16/2023, effective 05/16/2023
- BHS 11-2023, amend filed 04/07/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- BHS 27-2022, amend filed 12/20/2022, effective 12/20/2022
- BHS 11-2021, amend filed 06/16/2021, effective 06/16/2021
- MHS 4-2018, amend filed 02/27/2018, effective 03/01/2018
- MHS 10-2017(Temp), f. 9-15-17, cert. ef. 9-15-17 thru 3-13-18
- MHS 6-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
- MHS 26-2016(Temp), f. 12-27-16, cert. ef. 12-28-16 thru 6-23-17
- MHS 18-2016, f. 11-28-16, cert. ef. 11-30-16
- MHS 11-2016(Temp), f. 6-29-16, cert. ef. 7-1-16 thru 12-27-16
- MHS 4-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 6-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-019-0135 Entry and Assessment
(1) The provider must utilize and document an entry procedure that at a minimum must ensure the following:
(a) Individuals must be considered for entry without regard to race, ethnicity, gender, gender identity, gender expression, sexual orientation, religion, creed, national origin, age (except when program eligibility is restricted to children, adults, or older adults), familial status, marital status, source of income, and disability;
(b) The provider will not deny entry to individuals based on their decision to continue currently prescribed or dispensed medications for opioid use disorder (MOUD) while receiving outpatient behavioral health services and supports;
(c) Individuals must receive services in a manner consistent and appropriate with their presenting life circumstances;
(d) The provider must develop and maintain service records and other documentation that demonstrates the amount, duration and scope of each specific services and supports provided for each individual.
(e) The provider must submit the identified status and service data, including Non-Medicaid Service Data where required, in the mandated state data system according to the timelines required by the Division for each individual whose services are paid for in-full or in-part by public funds and for individuals enrolled in DUII services as soon after entry as possible but no later than 90 day from date of entry;
(f) The provider must obtain an authorization for the release of information for the release of any confidential information concerning the individual being considered for or receiving services;
(g) Except as permitted by law in emergencies, the provider must obtain written, voluntary informed consent for services from the individual, or guardian if applicable prior to – or at the start of services.
(h) Prior to or at the start of treatment services, the program must offer to the individual and guardian, if applicable, written description of services provided. The written description must be in the individual’s preferred language and must include disclosures regarding risks and benefits to services provided. The written program information shall include:
(A) Disclosure of availability of assistance by program in completing a Declaration for Mental Health Treatment, including information on how to request assistance.
(B) A description of individual rights consistent with these rules, and;
(C) Notice of privacy practices;
(D) If written program description information, disclosures, notice of privacy practices, consents and individual rights documents are not provided prior or at the start of treatment services, the reason, and any further attempts to provide written information and consent, must be documented in the service record.
(2) Entry requirements for providers that receive the Substance Use Prevention, Treatment and Recovery (SUPTR) Block Grant:
(a) Document that individuals are prioritized for entry in the following order:
(A) Individuals who are pregnant and using substances intravenously;
(B) Individuals who are pregnant;
(C) Individuals who are using substances intravenously; and
(D) Individuals or families with dependent children.
(b) Individuals using substances intravenously must receive interim resource recommendations and information prior to entry to reduce the adverse health effects of substance use, promote the health of the individual, and reduce the risk of transmission of disease. At a minimum, interim resource recommendations and informational services must include:
(A) An opportunity for the individual to engage in counseling through care coordination, peer services or other interactive supports.
(B) Educational material about blood borne pathogens including Hepatitis, HIV, STDs, and Tuberculosis (TB); the risks of needle and paraphernalia sharing; and the likelihood of transmission to sexual partners and infants;
(C) Educational information and resources about steps that can decrease the likelihood of Hepatitis, HIV, STD, and TB transmission;
(D) For pregnant individuals, counseling and educational information addressing the likelihood of blood borne pathogen transmission as well as the effects of alcohol, tobacco, and other drug use on the fetus and referral for prenatal care; and
(E) Peer Delivered Services that address parenting and youth in transition support, as indicated
(3) At the time of entry, an assessment must be initiated by qualified program staff.
(a) An assessment may be completed over more than one session and must be completed within 90 days.
(b) Assessments must record diagnostic information derived from any combination of clinical observation, self-report interview, or collateral information (such as assessments from other programs or previous treatment episodes).
(c) Providers may reduce the number and length of assessments through use of collateral information to inform the current assessment, such as previous assessments on file.
(d) Any changes to the ASAM Level of Care placement decision must be justified within an update to the multidimensional assessment on file, including the ASAM Dimensional Admission Criteria;
(e) Providers must update assessments within the scope of their practice when there are changes in clinical circumstances;
(f) For mental health treatment services, documentation demonstrating an ongoing medically necessary reason for services and progression in treatment must be completed at least annually by qualified program staff.
(4) When an assessment is completed in more than one encounter, documentation from the first encounter must include, at a minimum :
(a) A medically necessary reason for services, including supporting information. Medical necessity includes a DSM-5-TR diagnosis that is evidenced by diagnostic criteria and the symptoms that support each identified criteria.
(b) If the provider cannot document a DSM-5-TR diagnosis as part of a medically necessary reason for services at entry, the provider must -- at minimum -- document a screening for suicide risk, immediate needs, safety risk and current impacts of trauma on daily functioning..
(c) Appropriateness for treatment by the program;
(d) Suicide and other current safety risk(s);
(e) Immediate need(s);
(f) Identification of current physical and psychological trauma; and
(g) Intoxication and withdrawal symptoms, when applicable;
(h) Referrals to meet risk and immediate needs, including withdrawal management services, when applicable.
(5) Assessments and assessment updates are considered complete when the following information is contained in assessment documentation:
(a) Clinically relevant current and historical biological, psychological, social information;
(b) Documentation of the presence of a DSM-5-TR that is the medically necessary reason for services, including identification of each diagnostic criteria established per diagnosis, and the symptoms supporting each criteria;
(c) Screening for the presence of suicide risk and documented interventions, as indicated;
(d) The identification of psychological and physical trauma and risk to the individual or to others.
(e) Current Substance use, in mental health assessments when an ASAM Dimensional assessment is not needed;
(f) Current Problem Gambling Behavior;
(g) Current Mental Health conditions, including currently prescribed psychiatric medications, as clinically relevant;
(h) Current Medical conditions, including currently prescribed treatments and medications, as clinically relevant;
(i) When indicated, documentation must contain recommendations for each identified need, indicating further assessment, planning, and intervention from an appropriate professional, either with the same provider or with a collaborative community provider.
(j) In addition, for individuals entering substance use disorder services, each complete assessment and update thereof must be a multidimensional assessment that is consistent with The ASAM Criteria, Third Edition, and include, at a minimum, the following components, each consistent with The ASAM Criteria, Third Edition :
(A) ASAM Level of Care determination per ASAM Dimension;
(B) An overall ASAM Level of Care determination, with justification for any applicable discrepancies between level of care assessed and level of care placement;
(C) Corresponding ASAM Dimensional Admission Criteria;
(D) Historical and present substance use-related risk(s);
(E) A severity of risk for each dimension; and
(F) An overall determination of the severity of risk the individual currently is experiencing.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390, 413.042, 430.256 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 161.390 - 161.400, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.010, 430.205- 430.210, 430.254 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955 & 743A.168
- BHS 24-2024, amend filed 10/25/2024, effective 10/27/2024
- BHS 11-2024, temporary amend filed 05/21/2024, effective 05/21/2024 through 10/27/2024
- BHS 9-2024, temporary amend filed 04/30/2024, effective 05/01/2024 through 10/27/2024
- BHS 11-2023, amend filed 04/07/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- BHS 11-2021, amend filed 06/16/2021, effective 06/16/2021
- MHS 4-2018, amend filed 02/27/2018, effective 03/01/2018
- MHS 10-2017(Temp), f. 9-15-17, cert. ef. 9-15-17 thru 3-13-18
- MHS 6-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
- MHS 26-2016(Temp), f. 12-27-16, cert. ef. 12-28-16 thru 6-23-17
- MHS 18-2016, f. 11-28-16, cert. ef. 11-30-16
- MHS 4-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 6-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-019-0140 Service Plan and Service Notes
(1) The service plan must be a written, individualized plan designed to improve the individual’s condition to the point where the individual’s continued participation in the program or level of care is no longer necessary.
(a) Service plans shall be started following the completion of an assessment, or portion thereof, and prior to treatment services being rendered. Provider must document reason for any delay in the service record.
(b) Routine services may be rendered prior to a completion of a service plan or documentation of a medically necessary reason for services. These services can be provided without a service plan or medical necessity, or at any time during a treatment episode:
(i) Care Coordination
(ii) Case Management
(iii) Peer Services
(c) Service plans must reflect the assessment in its’ most updated form;
(d) Address areas of concern identified in the current assessment that the individual or guardian – if relevant and appropriate -- agrees to address;
(e) Include a safety plan when the assessment indicates risk to the health and safety of the individual or to others and be updated as circumstances change. The safety plan may be a separate document from the service plan;
(f) Include the participation, and reflect agreement, of the individual and family members, as applicable;
(g) Be completed and signed by qualified program staff as follows:
(A) A QMHP or appropriately licensed provider in mental health programs;
(B) Supervisory or treatment staff in substance use disorders treatment programs; and
(C) Supervisory or treatment staff in problem gambling treatment programs.
(h) Approval of services and supports shall be demonstrated through operationalization of provider policy described above, in OAR 309-019-0110 (1)(z).
(2) At minimum, each service plan must include:
(a) Treatment goals that are individualized;
(b) Treatment goals that meet the assessed needs of the individual.
(c) Measurable for the purpose of evaluating individual progress, including a baseline.
(3) Service plans must reflect the most updated assessments on file, and must include:
(a) Goals that are measurable for the purpose of evaluating individual progress – including baseline measurement as well as include;
(b) The specific services and supports that will be used to meet the treatment goals;
(c) Expected frequency, amount, and duration of each type of planned service or support;
(d) A schedule for re-evaluating the service plan; and
(e) the type of personnel that will be furnishing each of the services.
(4) Providers must document the following in a service note for each service and support :
(a) The specific service or support rendered;
(b) The relationship of the services to the treatment regimen described in the service plan;
(c) The date, time of service or support, and the actual amount of time the service or support was rendered;
(d) The personnel rendering the services, including their name, credentials, and signature;
(e) The setting in which the service or support was rendered; and
(f) Periodic updates describing the individual’s progress, or lack thereof
(5) Decisions to transfer individuals must be documented including:
(a) The date of the transfer;
(b) The reason for the transfer;
(c) For substance use disorder and co-occurring services, ASAM level of care recommendation and overall determination of the severity of risk the individual is experiencing at the time of transfer;
(d) Referrals to follow up services and other behavioral health providers; and
(e) Outreach efforts made as applicable and as defined in these rules.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390, 413.042, 430.256 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 161.390 - 161.400, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.010, 430.205- 430.210, 430.254 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955 & 743A.168
- BHS 24-2024, amend filed 10/25/2024, effective 10/27/2024
- BHS 13-2024, temporary amend filed 06/11/2024, effective 06/11/2024 through 10/27/2024
- BHS 11-2024, temporary amend filed 05/21/2024, effective 05/21/2024 through 10/27/2024
- BHS 9-2024, temporary amend filed 04/30/2024, effective 05/01/2024 through 10/27/2024
- BHS 11-2023, amend filed 04/07/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- BHS 5-2022, amend filed 03/04/2022, effective 03/18/2022
- BHS 19-2021, temporary amend filed 09/14/2021, effective 09/14/2021 through 03/12/2022
- MHS 4-2018, amend filed 02/27/2018, effective 03/01/2018
- MHS 10-2017(Temp), f. 9-15-17, cert. ef. 9-15-17 thru 3-13-18
- MHS 6-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
- MHS 26-2016(Temp), f. 12-27-16, cert. ef. 12-28-16 thru 6-23-17
- MHS 18-2016, f. 11-28-16, cert. ef. 11-30-16
- MHS 11-2016(Temp), f. 6-29-16, cert. ef. 7-1-16 thru 12-27-16
- MHS 4-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 6-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-019-0145 Co-Occurring Mental Health and Substance Use Disorders (COD)
This rule is effective January 1, 2023. Services shall be integrated and address treatment and recovery for co-occurring Mental Health, Substance Use and/or Gambling Disorders. In addition to requirements in OAR Chapter 309, these rules specify standards and requirements for providers delivering co-occurring mental health, substance use disorder and problem gambling services and supports.
(1) Access to services shall:
(a) Be trauma informed, culturally relevant, linguistically, and developmentally appropriate, and utilize a harm reduction model where needed; and
(b) Be adapted for individuals with intellectual and developmental disabilities.
(2) All assessments shall:
(a) Be consistent with the most recent version of the ASAM (American Society of Addiction Medicine) criteria and document a level of care determination consistent with ASAM;
(b) Provide sufficient information to justify the presence of the Mental Health and Addiction (Substance Use Disorders and/or Gambling Disorder) diagnoses that are the medically appropriate reason for services, using the most recent version of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM); and
(c) Identify any other co-morbid risk factors.
(3) Service Plans shall:
(a) Accommodate the individual’s holistic needs and preferences;
(b) Utilize a harm reduction approach where indicated;
(c) Address long term wellness needs; and
(d) Be in alignment with participant’s current stage of change in regard to both addiction disorder recovery and mental health disorder recovery.
(4) The following services shall be made available:
(a) Case Management & Service navigation support;
(b) Harm reduction services;
(c) Peer Support Services;
(d) Family therapy services; and
(e) Psychiatric medication and evaluation services, as indicated.
(5) Integrated Co-Occurring Disorders Program Staff Qualifications shall align with the provisions described in 309-019-0125 and ensure that:
(a) All treatment staff providing Integrated Co-Occurring Disorders treatment services shall hold, at minimum, a qualifying credential to provide treatment services in mental health or substance use disorders treatment. Treatment staff holding one credential shall be limited to providing treatment services in alignment with their credential;
(b) Registrants and student interns are permitted to provide services during the duration of their candidacy or internship as described in OAR 309-019-0105;
(c) Progression towards additional certifications must be documented on an ongoing basis in the personnel record;
(d) The program must retain a credentialed problem gambling treatment provider OR designate a Co-Occurring Problem Gambling Specialist. A Co-Occurring Problem Gambling Specialist must have:
(A) Fourteen hours minimum of problem gambling specific training within twelve months of being named as a problem gambling provider, with a minimum of two hours in each of the following seven content areas; Gambling Client Assessment/Intake, Gambling Financial Planning and Budgeting, Gambling Counseling (Individual, Group, Family), Gambling Case Management, Professional Responsibility and Ethics in Gambling Counseling, Crisis Intervention in Gambling Counseling, Co-Occurring Disorders and Problem Gambling; and
(B) Documentation of required trainings shall be contained in the personnel file.
(e) Peer providers shall be certified as Peer Wellness Specialists (PWS) or Peer Support Specialist (PSS);
(f) Supervisors must:
(A) Be credentialed in Mental Health and/or Substance Use Disorder treatment provision;
(B) Limit their supervision to providers within the scope of their professional credentials.
(C) Supervisors must demonstrate completion of 12 CEU’s in approved Problem Gambling training for supervisors within twelve months of beginning to supervise program staff rendering Problem Gambling Treatment Services in Integrated Co-Occurring Disorders Treatment programming;
(g) The program must employ or contract with a Licensed Medical Provider (LMP) that shall acquire Division approved Integrated Co-Occurring Disorders training within twelve months of hire or appointment to these services. Approved training will be published by the Division on the OHA Integrated Co-Occurring Disorders website yearly on or before January 1st;
(h) All Supervisors, Treatment Service Providers and Peer Services Providers delivering services in Integrated Co-Occurring Disorders Programs shall complete Integrated Co-Occurring Disorders trainings required and provided by OHA and shall ensure certificates of completion are documented in staff personnel files, according to the following conditions:
(A) Within twelve months of beginning to render Co-Occurring Disorders services or supports; and
(B) On a continuing two-year basis for all Supervisors and Treatment Providers and a continuing three year basis for Peer Staff rendering Co-Occurring Disorders services or supports for more than one year.
(i) Continuing Education training required by the Oregon Health Authority (OHA) shall consist of at least two hours but no more than six hours every two years following the initial training year for supervisors and treatment providers, and every three years following the initial training year for peer services providers.
(A) Integrated Co-Occurring Disorders trainings required by OHA will be published by the Division yearly on or before January 1st on the OHA Integrated Co-Occurring Disorders website;
(B) OHA training will include – but will not be limited to – content relevant to providing integrated treatment, and specialty training on providing treatment services for community members who are marginalized, underserved and oppressed by structural and systemic racism and injustices, Severe Mental Illness and Intellectual and Developmental Disabilities.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254 - 430.640 & 430.850 - 430.955
- BHS 1-2023, amend filed 01/11/2023, effective 01/11/2023
- MHS 4-2018, amend filed 02/27/2018, effective 03/01/2018
- MHS 10-2017(Temp), f. 9-15-17, cert. ef. 9-15-17 thru 3-13-18
- MHS 6-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
- MHS 26-2016(Temp), f. 12-27-16, cert. ef. 12-28-16 thru 6-23-17
- MHS 18-2016, f. 11-28-16, cert. ef. 11-30-16
- MHS 11-2016(Temp), f. 6-29-16, cert. ef. 7-1-16 thru 12-27-16
- MHS 4-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 6-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-019-0150 Community Mental Health Programs (CMHP)
(1) Crisis services must be provided directly or through linkage to a local crisis services provider and must include the following:
(a) Twenty-four hours, seven days per week telephone or face-to-face screening within one hour of notification of the crisis event to determine an individual's need for immediate community mental health services; and
(b) Twenty-four hours, seven days per week capability to conduct, by or under the supervision of a QMHP, an assessment, resulting in a plan that includes the crisis services necessary to assist the individual and family to stabilize and transition to the appropriate level of care.
(2) Case management services must be provided to assist individuals with the following:
(a) Gaining access to and maintaining resources such as Social Security benefits, general assistance, food stamps, vocational rehabilitation, and housing;
(b) Arrangement of transportation to help them apply for benefits;
(c) Referral and coordination to help individuals gain access to services and supports identified in the service plan to include but may not be limited to individuals at risk of suicide;
(d) Care coordination and warm handoff processes; and
(e) Assist with a follow-up visit within seven days of discharge from an acute care psychiatric hospital.
(3) When significant health and safety concerns are identified, program staff must ensure that necessary services or actions occur to address the identified health and safety needs for the individual, including services to individuals at imminent risk of suicide as determined by the assessment.
(4) Peer Delivered Services must be made available.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.630, 109.675, 161.390 - 161.400, 413.520 - 413.522, 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955, 461.549 & 743A.168
- BHS 27-2025, amend filed 12/23/2025, effective 01/01/2026
- BHS 20-2025, temporary amend filed 09/15/2025, effective 09/15/2025 through 03/13/2026
- BHS 33-2024, temporary amend filed 12/27/2024, effective 01/01/2025 through 06/29/2025
- MHS 4-2018, amend filed 02/27/2018, effective 03/01/2018
- MHS 10-2017(Temp), f. 9-15-17, cert. ef. 9-15-17 thru 3-13-18
- MHS 6-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
- MHS 1-2017(Temp), f. 1-17-17, cert. ef. 1-18-17 thru 7-16-17
- MHS 26-2016(Temp), f. 12-27-16, cert. ef. 12-28-16 thru 6-23-17
- MHS 4-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 6-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-019-0155 Enhanced Care Services (ECS) and Enhanced Care Outreach Services (ECOS)
(1) To be eligible for Enhanced care Services (ECS) an individual shall:
(a) Be Medicaid eligible;
(b) Meet the diagnostic criteria of severe mental illness with complex behaviors and be approved by the enhanced care services team;
(c) Require intensive community mental health services to be in the most integrated setting available;
(d) Have a history of unsuccessful placements due to complex behaviors; and
(e) be at risk of psychiatric hospitalization; and
(f) have a history of or be currently exhibiting two or more of the following: self-endangering behavior, aggressive behavior, intrusive behavior, refractory psychiatric symptoms, complex medication needs, sexually inappropriate behavior, and elopement behavior.
(2) ECS providers shall:
(a) provide staffing to support the behavioral health needs of the clients within Enhanced Care Unit as outlined in the MOU, with no fewer than four hours a day for programs with 8 or less beds and no fewer than six hours per day for programs with 9-16 beds. ECS mental health staffing shall be available seven days per week provided by or arranged for by the contracted mental health provider;
(b) ECS programs who are not able to meet staff hour requirements must submit in writing to the State Enhanced Care Providers a plan of how services are going to delivered and a plan of how they are going to correct the issue.
(c) Coordinate weekly interdisciplinary team meetings (IDT) to develop the service plan, and to coordinate care planning with the Department of Human Services (Department) licensed provider staff, APD case manager, QMHP, prescriber, individual consumer, or their representative and related professionals such as the Department licensed facility or program direct care staff, the Department licensed facility RN, and facility administrator.
(d) Coordinate quarterly behavioral health trainings as agreed upon in the MOU for Department-licensed providers and related program staff providing services to ECS; and
(e) Ensure the availability of consultation and crisis services staffed by a QMHP/QMHA or the local CMHP, with an accessible written plan on how to access these services available to the ECS provider and the Department licensed facility direct care staff 24-hours per day
(f) provide reports of critical incidences to the Enhanced Care State Coordinators within 72 business hours. A critical incident can be defined as an actual or alleged event or behavior that can or does result in a negative outcome for a consumer including- Death from unknown causes; Emergency Medical Care; Missing Person; Unplanned Hospitalization; Neglect/Abuse/Exploitation/Mistreatment; Damage or theft of property; medication management issues; criminal justice involvement. ; and
(g) submit monthly census reports to the Enhanced Care State Coordinators no later than the 10th day of every calendar month; and
(h) submit referral outcome forms within 7 calendar days of date sent referral to the Enhanced Care State Coordinators; and
(i) submit Database I forms within 15 calendar days of an individual’s admission to the program; and
(j) submit Database II forms within 15 calendar days of an individual’s discharge from the program; and
(k) Provide collaboration and support to ODHS Department-licensed providers on their development of behavior support plans.
(3) ECS program staffing requirements include:
(a) Each ECS program may have services provided by a QMHPs, QMHA’s, CADCs, Peer Delivered Services, and LMP’s. ECS programs staff are responsible for coordinating program entries, transitions, and required IDT’s; assuring the completion of individual assessments and mental health service; ECS programs are responsible for providing supervision of QMHP’s and QMHA’s; and coordinating services and trainings with facility staff;
(b) Each CMHP ECS program shall have a QMHA or QMHP available during CMHP ECS provider program hours as outlined in the MOU;
(c) Each ECS program shall have LMP consultation available. For ECS programs serving more than ten individuals, the LMP shall participate.
(d) ECS programs who are not able to meet staffing requirements must submit in writing to the State Enhanced Care Providers a plan of how services are going to delivered and a plan of how they are going to correct the problem.
(4) In ECS programs, the CMHP and the Department licensed provider shall develop a written collaborative agreement that addresses at a minimum: risk management, census management, staff levels, training, treatment and activity programs, entry and transition procedures, a process for reporting and evaluating critical incidents, record keeping, policy and procedure manuals, dispute resolution, and service coordination. This should be reviewed on an annual basis.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390, 413.042, 430.640 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 161.390 - 161.400, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955 & 743A.168
- BHS 23-2024, amend filed 10/14/2024, effective 10/15/2024
- MHS 4-2018, amend filed 02/27/2018, effective 03/01/2018
- MHS 10-2017(Temp), f. 9-15-17, cert. ef. 9-15-17 thru 3-13-18
- MHS 6-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
- MHS 26-2016(Temp), f. 12-27-16, cert. ef. 12-28-16 thru 6-23-17
- MHS 4-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 6-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-019-0157 Enhanced Care Outreach Services (ECOS)
(1) To be eligible for Enhanced Care Outreach Services (ECOS), an individual must:
(a) Be Medicaid eligible;
(b) Meet the diagnostic criteria of severe mental illness with complex behaviors or be approved by the enhanced care services team;
(c) Require intensive community mental health services to accomplish or maintain community integration in the least restrictive environment;
(d) Be at risk of losing or have a history of failed placement.
(e) Have a history of or currently exhibiting two or more of the following: self-endangering behavior, aggressive behavior, intrusive behavior, refractory psychiatric symptoms, complex medication needs, sexually inappropriate behavior, and elopement behavior;
(f) Be placed in a community-based residential setting or attempting to gain access to a community-based residential setting that is approved under state or local authorities;
(g) Or be at risk of being denied placement due to a history of these factors.
(2) ECOS providers must:
(a) Provide person-centered, individualized services outlined in the service plan.
(b) Provide Care Coordination based on individual needs;
(c) Offer resources or trainings specific to the behavioral health needs to in-home or Department licensed facility staff.
(d) Ensure the availability of consultation and crisis services staffed by a QMHP/A or the local CMHP available to ECOS provider and the Department licensed facility direct care staff 24-hours per day.
(e) Provide services that are in the residence or community based to the fullest extent possible. These services shall be available based off the consumers preference and choice;
(f) Provide reports of critical incidences to the Enhanced Care State Coordinators within 72 business hours. A critical incident can be defined as an actual or alleged event or behavior that can or does result in a negative outcome for a consumer including- Death from unknown causes; Emergency Medical Care; Missing Person; Unplanned Hospitalization; Neglect/Abuse/Exploitation/Mistreatment; Damage or theft of property; medication management issues; criminal justice involvement;
(g) Submit monthly census reports to Enhanced Care State Coordinators no later than the 10th day of every calendar month.
(3) Staffing requirements include:
(a) Each ECOS program may have services provided by QMHPs, QMHAs, CADCs, Peer delivered services, and LMPs as indicated in the individual service plan;
(b) Each ECOS program must have LMP consultation available;
(c) ECOS providers must ensure that CMHP program staff, contractors, volunteers, and interns providing ECOS services are trained and familiar with strategies for delivery of trauma informed and culturally responsive services.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390, 413.042, 430.640 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 161.390 - 161.400, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.010 - 430.210, 430.254 -430.640, 430.850 - 430.955 & 743A.168
- BHS 23-2024, adopt filed 10/14/2024, effective 10/15/2024
Or. Admin. R. 309-019-0160 Psychiatric Security Review Board and Juvenile Psychiatric Security Review Board
(1) Services and supports must include all appropriate services, including peer delivered services, determined necessary to assist the Individual in maintaining community placement that are consistent with Conditional Release Orders and the Agreement of Conditional Release.
(2) Providers of PSRB services acting through the designated qualified Individual must submit reports to the PSRB as follows:
(a) For Individuals under the jurisdiction of the PSRB, providers must take the following action upon receipt of an Order for Evaluation of Conditional Release from the PSRB:
(A) Must appoint a Qualified Mental Health Professional (QMHP) to schedule and complete the evaluation interview;
(B) Following completion of the evaluation interview, the QMHP must submit the Evaluation Report and, if the Individual is accepted to the placement, the Summary of Conditional Release Plan (SCRP), as follows:
(i) The Evaluation Report and the SCRP, when applicable, must be submitted to OHA, the Oregon State Hospital (OSH), or other treatment provider, and the PSRB;
(ii) When submitting the Evaluation Report and the SCRP when applicable to OHA, the provider must use the cover sheet provided by OHA and;
(iii) The Evaluation Report and the SCRP, when applicable, must be complete and submitted within 30 days of the receipt of the PSRB Order for Evaluation of Conditional Release.
(C) If supervision by the provider is recommended, notify the PSRB of the name of the Individual designated to serve as the Individual’s qualified person who will be primarily responsible for delivering or arranging for the delivery of services and the submission of reports under these rules.
(b) Monthly reports consistent with PSRB reporting requirements as specified in the Conditional Release Order that summarize the Individual’s adherence to Conditional Release requirements and general progress; and
(c) Interim reports including immediate reports by phone, if necessary, to ensure the public or Individual’s safety including:
(A) At the time of any significant change in the Individual’s health, legal, employment, or other status that may affect compliance with Conditional Release orders;
(B) Upon noting major symptoms requiring psychiatric stabilization or hospitalization;
(C) Upon noting any other major change in the Individual’s service plan;
(D) Upon learning of any violations of the Conditional Release Order; and
(E) At any other time when in the opinion of the qualified person, such an interim report is needed to assist the Individual.
(3) An Annual Comprehensive Review must be completed each 364 days to determine if an Individual’s current Conditional Release Order is in alignment with the Individual’s current level of care. If upon completion of the Annual Comprehensive Review it is determined the current Conditional Release Order is not in alignment with the Individuals current level of care, a modification request must be submitted to the PSRB.
(4) Providers must submit copies of interim reports to the PSRB.
(5) Providers must submit copies of interim reports to the Division upon request.
(6) Providers must include the following documents as part of the Individual’s service record:
(a) Monthly reports;
(b) Interim reports;
(c) Serious Incident Reports as described in OAR 859-010-0005(11)(a)(b)(c)(d);
(d) The Individual’s most recent Conditional Release Evaluation; and
(e) The Individual’s most recent Conditional Release Order.
(f) All copies of submissions to the PSRB for modifications of the Conditional Release Order.
(g) The electronic submission of the Annual Comprehensive Review that includes an attestation from the provider that verifies the required Collateral Documentation has been reviewed when completing the annual review. The following is the list of Collateral Documentation that must be in the Individual’s service record for each year the Annual Comprehensive Review is completed.
(A) Mental Health Treatment Plan that must have not been completed more than 364 days prior to the date of the Annual Comprehensive Review.
(B) Conditional Release Order that has been approved by the PSRB.
(C) Short-Term Assessment of Risk and Treatability (START) that has been completed no more than 180 days prior to the date of the Annual Comprehensive Review.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: 430.640, 443.450, 426.490 - 426.500, ORS 161.390, 413.042, 430.256, 426.490 - 426.500 & HB 2804 (2024)
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 161.390 - 161.400, 179.505, 426.380 - 426.395, 426.490 - 426.500, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955 & 443.400 - 443.460
- BHS 1-2026, amend filed 03/03/2026, effective 03/03/2026
- BHS 16-2025, amend filed 06/25/2025, effective 06/30/2025
- BHS 6-2025, temporary amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025 through 08/27/2025
- MHS 4-2018, amend filed 02/27/2018, effective 03/01/2018
- MHS 10-2017(Temp), f. 9-15-17, cert. ef. 9-15-17 thru 3-13-18
- MHS 6-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
- MHS 26-2016(Temp), f. 12-27-16, cert. ef. 12-28-16 thru 6-23-17
- MHS 4-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 6-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-019-0162 Youth Wraparound Definitions
(1) "Child and Adolescent Needs and Strengths Assessment or CANS" means a multi-purpose tool developed to support decision making, including level of care and person-centered service planning, to facilitate quality improvement initiatives, and to monitor outcomes of services and supports. It utilizes a communication perspective to facilitate the linkage between the assessment process and the design of individualized Wraparound plans of care, including the application of evidence-based practices.
(2) "Child-Serving Systems" means agencies that serve children, youth and families. Agencies include but are not limited to: DHS Child Welfare, Intellectual/Developmental Disabilities, Education, Juvenile Justice, Oregon Youth Authority, Behavioral Health programs, tribal entities, agencies serving homeless youth, and Primary Care.
(3) "Crisis and Safety Plan" means a document developed by the youth and family and the Wraparound team to address potential crises that could occur for the youth and their family, and to ensure everyone's safety. It shall include 24-hour, 7-days-a-week response; formal, informal, and natural supports; respite or back-up care; details leading to crises; successful strategies that have worked in the past; and strength-based strategies that prevent escalation and maintain safety. Crisis stabilization occurs during the first phase of Wraparound and crisis and safety planning occurs in phase two.
(4) "Family Partner" means an individual certified and listed on the registry as a Family Support Specialist in accordance with ORS 410-180-0305, and who has completed specialized training approved by the Authority, in the Wraparound process. A Family Partner is a formal member of the Wraparound team whose role is to support the family.
(5) "Fidelity" means the degree to which the principles, phases, core elements and activities of Wraparound, and supports at the organizational and system level, are implemented as recommended through training, consultation and best practices dissemination.
(6) "Formal Supports" means services and supports provided by professionals or individuals who are financially compensated for their time.
(7) "Informal Supports" means supports provided by individuals or organizations through citizenship and work on a volunteer basis under a structure of certain qualifications, training and oversight.
(8) "Linguistically Responsive" means that individuals are informed of the availability of language assistance services in their preferred language, both verbally and in writing. Individuals are provided with easy to understand print and multi-media materials and signage appears in the languages commonly used by the populations in the service area.
(9) "Natural Supports" means individuals or organizations in the youth and family's own community, social, cultural or spiritual networks, such as friends, extended family members, neighbors, and other individuals as identified by the youth and family, providing supports, who are not financially compensated for their time.
(10) "Oregon Health Plan or OHP" has the meaning provided for in OAR 410-120-0000(170).
(11) "Peer Partner Coach" means an individual with Youth Partner or Family Partner expertis certified and listed on the registry in accordance with OAR 410-180-0300, who has a specific intentional focus in supporting Youth Partners or Family Partners to ensure the meaningful engagement of youth and family voices in the Wraparound plan, to develop their practice skills in Wraparound principles and participation in the Wraparound process and who works in connection with other Peer Support Specialists or peer delivered services.
(12) "Phases of Wraparound" means the four distinct phases of Wraparound: Engagement, initial plan development, implementation, and transition. The activities within each phase of Wraparound are part of fidelity practice.
(13) "Strength-based" means based on functional assets, skills, capacities, and talents of a person, family or group.
(14) "Strengths and Needs Summary" means a comprehensive "strengths and needs assessment” and summary process that begins immediately when a youth and their family are referred into Wraparound. This process is complemented by other Division-approved assessment tools, such as the Child and Adolescent Needs and Strengths Assessment (CANS).
(15) "Ten Wraparound Principles" means these principles associated with Wraparound supports: family- driven and youth-guided, collaboration, persistence, culturally and linguistically responsive, community based, team based, natural supports, individualized, strength-based, and outcome-based.
(16) "Wraparound" means a voluntary and definable care planning process that results in a unique set of community services and supports individualized for a youth and family to achieve a positive set of outcomes.
(17) "Wraparound Care Coordinator or WCC" means a QMHA or QMHP, as defined in OAR 309-019-0125, who is completing or has completed a Division-approved Wraparound foundational training program. The WCC is a member of the Wraparound team specifically trained to coordinate and facilitate the components of a Wraparound team meeting to fidelity, in each phase of the Wraparound process, for an individual family.
(18) "Wraparound Coach" means an individual with Wraparound expertise in relation to Wraparound principles and in strategies to facilitate a Wraparound meeting to fidelity. Wraparound Coaches provide clear and constructive feedback regarding fidelity components and facilitation skills to Wraparound Care Coordinators.
(19) "Wraparound Flexible Funding" means a financial resource for purchasing one-time or occasional needed goods or services for youth or their families, when the goods and services cannot be provided by another funding source, and the services or goods are directly tied to meeting needs and outcomes in the Wraparound plan of care.
(20) "Wraparound Plan of Care" means a dynamic document which describes the youth, the family, the team, and the goals and action plan to be undertaken to meet the youth and family's needs, achieve the team mission and work toward the family's long-term vision.
(21) “Wraparound Provider” means a certified entity that hires and trains staff to provide coordination and facilitation of Fidelity Wraparound for youth and families.
(22) "Wraparound Review Committee" means a local community group representing Child Welfare, Juvenile Justice, Intellectual Developmental Disabilities, Education, Behavioral Health, Federally Recognized Tribes or tribal entities, Youth and Family members or youth and family advocates who convene with the goal of reviewing and determining Wraparound eligibility.
(23) "Wraparound Supervisor" means an individual responsible for supervising a Wraparound Care Coordinator, Wraparound Coach, Family Partner, or Youth Partner through their respective agency.
(24) "Wraparound Team" means a group of people chosen by the youth and family and connected to them through natural, community, and formal supports. The Wraparound team develops and implements the youth and family's plan, addresses unmet needs, and works toward the family's vision and team mission together with the youth and family.
(25) "Wraparound Team Meeting" means a meeting where members of the Wraparound team convene to address the family and youth's mission, vision, strengths and needs identified by the team.
(26) "Youth" means a person who participates in Wraparound. Youth is the accepted term in statewide Wraparound to describe children, adolescents, teenagers and young adults. Youth who participate in Wraparound may remain in Wraparound as young adults if they entered/ enrolled prior to age 18.
(27) "Youth Partner" means an individual certified and on the registry as a Youth Support Specialist in accordance with OAR 410-180-0305. A Youth Partner is a formal member of the Wraparound team whose role is to support the youth.
(28) "Youth Support Specialist" has the meaning defined in OAR 410-180-0305. Youth support specialists provide peer delivered services, as defined in these rules.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 430.630 & ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.630 & ORS 413.042
- BHS 20-2022, amend filed 11/30/2022, effective 11/30/2022
- BHS 20-2021, renumbered from 309-019-0324, filed 10/14/2021, effective 10/14/2021
- BHS 3-2020, adopt filed 02/14/2020, effective 02/14/2020
Or. Admin. R. 309-019-0163 Youth Wraparound Program Rules
(1) Wraparound providers shall:
(a) Make eligibility criteria and referral processes available to the public. At a minimum, the following categories of youth shall be eligible:
(A) Youth served in two or more child-serving systems and experiencing complex needs;
(B) Youth who have been approved by the Wraparound Review Committee.
(b) Obtain a mental health assessment within one year of Wraparound referral for youth being served under Medicaid;
(c) Provide Wraparound to Medicaid Oregon Health Plan (OHP) members;
(d) Implement peer delivered services in accordance with OAR chapter 410, division 180 for youth and families participating in Wraparound;
(e) Ensure that youth have access to Wraparound if they are Medicaid-eligible and enrolled in any of the following: Secure Children's Inpatient Program, Secure Adolescent Inpatient Program, Psychiatric Residential Treatment Services, or the Commercial Sexually Exploited Children's residential program funded by the Division;
(f) Ensure that program staff, contractors, volunteers, and interns providing Wraparound programs are trained in and familiar with strategies for delivery of trauma informed and culturally responsive treatment services. At a minimum, completion of an online foundational course for trauma informed care approved by the Division shall be required of program staff, contractors, volunteers and interns;
(g) Ensure that Youth Partner and Family Partner services have been offered to the youth and family;
(h) Ensure team members are selected with the youth and family’s direct involvement and approval;
(i) Provide capacity to serve all eligible OHP members into Wraparound.
(2) Wraparound providers may not:
(a) Require Medicaid-eligible youth to receive services or supports prior to receiving Wraparound;
(b) Place any youth on a waitlist.
(3) Wraparound team meetings shall:
(a) Be facilitated face-to-face or by two-way audio-visual conference or by telephone;
(b) Be conducted in the preferred language of the youth and family. Professional interpretation services must be used, if requested by the youth and family;
(c) Be scheduled with the youth and family's direct involvement and approval;
(d) Ensure decisions are made with the youth and family’s direct involvement and approval.
(4) The Wraparound team shall include a Wraparound Care Coordinator (WCC). The WCC shall:
(a) Facilitate the Wraparound process to fidelity standards, in accordance with any procedures and standards established by the Authority;
(b) Implement the Wraparound process in collaboration with Youth Partners, Family Partners, and other Wraparound team members;
(c) Facilitate the Wraparound process for no more than 15 families at any time when in a full-time position;
(d) Provide other service or support roles for youth on the Wraparound team they facilitate only when a variance has been approved;
(e) Complete a Division-approved Wraparound foundational training within 90 days of the hire date;
(f) Receive clinical supervision in accordance with OAR chapter 309, division 019; and
(g) Receive orientation and shadowing opportunities, be observed, have documents reviewed, and be coached by a Wraparound Coach as defined in these rules and in accordance with any procedures and standards established by the Authority.
(5) Family Partners shall meet the requirements for Family Support Specialists outlined in OAR 410-180-0305. They may receive support or technical assistance from a family organization and shall, at a minimum:
(a) Complete a Division-approved Wraparound foundational training within 90 days of the hire date;
(b) Receive peer supervision in accordance with OAR 309-019-0130;
(c) Provide peer delivered services and supports to no more than 15 families at any time when in a full-time position;
(d) Support family members and guardians to:
(A) Navigate the child-, youth-, and family-serving systems;
(B) Communicate effectively with family members, their support system, and agency representatives; and
(C) Make informed decisions to direct the Wraparound process.
(e) Provide individual and group support to enable and facilitate meaningful engagement with Wraparound team and service providers; and
(f) Assist in connecting the family to resources within the community, support the family through barriers, help family members to acquire tools and strategies for success and advocate for the family's needs, interests, voice, and vision to be heard and thoughtfully considered.
(6) Youth Partners shall meet the requirements outlined for Youth Support Specialists in OAR 410-180-0305. They may receive support or technical assistance from a youth organization, and shall, at a minimum:
(a) Complete a Division-approved Wraparound foundational training within 90 days of the hire date;
(b) Receive peer supervision in accordance with OAR 309-019-0130;
(c) Provide peer delivered services and supports to no more than 15 youth at any time when in a full-time position;
(d) Have at least one year of relevant lived experience, knowledge of the child- and youth-serving systems, and the ability to navigate the system;
(e) Assist the youth to engage in the Wraparound process and support them in expressing themselves to members of their Wraparound team;
(f) Assist the youth in identifying community resources, navigating barriers, acquiring tools and strategies for success and bridging the gap between the youth and the adults on the Wraparound team; and
(g) Advocate for the youth's needs, interests, voice and vision to be heard.
(7) The Wraparound provider shall, gather and compile a strengths and needs summary that is complemented by the Division-approved assessment tools for ages 0-5 and 6-20, as described below as a part of Fidelity Wraparound. Strengths and needs information to gather and compile shall include:
(a) Conversations with the youth and family, which shall be conducted at a reasonable time and location chosen by the youth and family;
(b) Conversations with team members including formal and natural supports;
(c) A review of referral documentation; and
(d) Consideration of each one of the following domains: family and relationships, home and a place to live, psychological and emotional, health and medical, crisis and safety, financial, educational and vocational, legal, cultural and spiritual, daily living, substance abuse and addictions, social and recreational.
(8) The Wraparound provider shall conduct a strengths and needs assessment tool for each youth enrolled in Wraparound services and supports. The assessment tool shall:
(a) Be started within 30 days of enrollment in Wraparound, and updated at least every 90 days thereafter and upon a change in clinical circumstances or other significant event;
(b) Be a Division-approved strengths and needs assessment tool for ages 0-5 and 6-20;
(c) Be completed by a Wraparound Care Coordinator, Family Partner, or Youth Partner certified in the Division-approved strengths and needs assessment tool;
(d) Include strengths and needs of the youth;
(e) Incorporate input from the youth, family, and all team members; and
(f) Be used to develop a Wraparound plan of care.
(9) Wraparound Crisis and Safety Plans shall at a minimum:
(a) Be developed and approved by the youth and family in consultation with the Wraparound team;
(b) Document the youth and family's definition of crisis;
(c) Include within the initial crisis and safety plan at least one strategy to prevent a crisis situation and at least one strategy to use during a crisis situation;
(d) Include a list of triggers, warning signs, and recommended de-escalation strategies and supports identified by the youth and family in consultation with the Wraparound Team;
(e) Document strategies for risk prevention for existing or anticipated safety concerns; this shall include strategies developed through lethal means counseling to help individuals at risk for suicide and their families to reduce access to lethal means, including but not limited to firearms;
(f) Include strength-based strategies for addressing the youth and family's needs when in crisis;
(g) Document natural and formal supports approved by the youth and family for crisis response;
(h) Be updated at the request of the youth or family, or when clinical circumstances change, including following any placement change, psychiatric crisis, overdose, suicide attempt, police involvement, or other situations identified by the youth or family;
(i) Document safety requirements from other child-serving or legal systems;
(j) Be culturally and linguistically responsive;
(k) Include contact information for resources that the youth and family may use before or during a crisis event;
(l) Be provided to the youth and family in a format chosen by the youth and family; and
(m) Be available to Wraparound team members.
(10) A Wraparound Plan of Care shall:
(a) Include a family vision statement developed by the youth and family;
(b) Include a team mission statement developed by the Wraparound team;
(c) Include strengths and needs derived from the youth, family, the Child and Adolescent Strengths and Needs Assessment, and the strengths and needs summary;
(d) Include goals(s) for each prioritized need;
(e) Include strategies to achieve the desired outcomes;
(f) Include action steps that team members will undertake to meet the needs identified by the youth and family;
(g) Documented use of Wraparound flexible funding that supports the mission statement, needs and goals;
(h) Be reviewed and updated at each team meeting;
(i) Be culturally and linguistically responsive;
(j) Be approved by the youth and family;
(k) Be made available to the youth and family within five business days of the Wraparound team meeting in the format and language chosen by the youth and family;
(l) If desired by the youth or family, include a blend of formal and informal supports;
(m) Include a list of team members and contact information; and
(n) Be present and discussed at each team meeting.
(11) Peer Partner Coaches shall:
(a) Be a certified Family Support Specialist or a certified Youth Support Specialist who has, at a minimum, two years of experience as a Traditional Health Worker as defined in OAR 410-180-0305;
(b) Demonstrate understanding of the core elements of Fidelity Wraparound such as the ten Wraparound principles and the four phases of Wraparound;
(c) Provide peer supervision in accordance with OAR 309-019-0130, including face to face individual and group coaching to Youth or Family Partners a minimum of one time per month;
(d) Uphold Wraparound principles as evidenced by coaching notes;
(e) Be rater certified in use of the Division-approved assessment tools for ages 0-5 and 6-20;
(f) Ensure that Youth and Family Partners are delivering Wraparound to youth and families in a culturally and linguistically responsive manner;
(g) Create documentation which demonstrates that coaching is responsive to diverse cultural beliefs, practices, languages, learning styles, and communication as evidenced by written feedback from Youth and Family Partners and Peer Delivered Service Supervisors;
(h) be available to provide coaching in the language spoken by the family, when possible, to bilingual Youth and Family Partners and be able to observe meetings and perform document review in the family's primary language without impact on the youth, family or WCC;
(i) seek out additional resources when the coach does not have lived experience to provide culturally specific coaching to the Youth or Family Partner;
(j) Adapt caseload size to provide adequate time to complete tasks if a WCC is working with a youth or family that requires an interpreter, bilingual services, and other accessibility needs.
(12) Wraparound Coaches shall:
(a) Have at a minimum two years of experience as a Wraparound Care Coordinator;
(b) Demonstrate understanding of the core elements of Fidelity Wraparound such as the ten Wraparound principles, the four phases of Wraparound, and the activities associated with each phase of Wraparound;
(c) Complete a Division-approved Wraparound Coaches and Supervisors training within 90 days of the hire date;
(d) Meet with the Wraparound Supervisor at least monthly;
(e) Provide the following coaching to Wraparound Care Coordinators:
(A) For WCCs with less than one year of Wraparound experience:
(i) 20 hours of individual coaching, 10 hours of group coaching, and five hours of document review within one year of the WCC's hire date, using the coaching model approved by the Division;
(ii) At least 5 of the 20 hours of individual coaching shall occur within the 90-day period before the WCC receives the Division approved foundational training; if the Division approved foundational training is not available or if the WCC is unable to attend during the first 90 days of employment, the WCC must receive biweekly individual coaching until the foundational training takes place;
(iii) Within the first twelve months of the WCC beginning to work with youth and families, observe four Wraparound team meetings for each WCC, including one meeting representing each phase of the Wraparound process.
(B) For WCCs with at least one year of Wraparound experience, provide 10 hours of individual coaching, 10 hours of group coaching and two to four Wraparound team meeting observations within one calendar year.
(f) Utilize the coaching plan created with the Wraparound coach and document to include the names of the Coach and the WCC, the date, and the content of the coaching session;
(g) Create documentation which demonstrates that coaching is responsive to diverse cultural beliefs, practices, languages, learning styles, and communication as evidenced by written feedback from WCC and Wraparound Supervisor;
(h) Be available to provide coaching to bilingual WCCs inf the language spoken by the family and be able to observe meetings and perform document review in the family's primary language without impact on the youth, family;
(i) Seek out additional resources when the Coach does not have shared lived experience to provide culturally responsive coaching to a WCC; and
(j) Be rater-certified in the use of the Division-approved assessment tools for ages 0-5 and 6-20.
(13) Wraparound Supervisors shall:
(a) Demonstrate through experience the ability to understand and articulate core elements of Fidelity practice such as the ten Wraparound principles, the four Wraparound phases, and facilitation components associated with each phase of Wraparound;
(b) Be informed of and implement their agency's Wraparound policies and procedures;
(c) Complete a Division-approved Wraparound foundational training and Wraparound Coaches and Supervisors training within 90 days of the hire date;
(d) Conduct or provide for clinical supervision, in accordance with OAR 309-019-0130, of Wraparound Care Coordinators, Wraparound Coaches, Family Partners, and Youth Partners, and uphold Wraparound principles as evidenced by notes in a supervision log that includes: name, date, and content of supervision;
(e) Ensure coaching is provided by the Wraparound Coach and Peer Support Coach;
(f) Ensure a coaching plan is written for each WCC, Family Partner, and Youth Partner per the Division-approved Coaches and Supervisor training;
(g) Ensure that the provision of Wraparound is culturally and linguistically responsive to the needs of Wraparound Care Coordinators, Youth Partners, Family Partners, youth and families;
(h) Adapt caseload size to provide adequate time to complete tasks if a WCC is working with a youth or family that requires an interpreter, bilingual services, or if there are other accessibility needs;
(i) Ensure Wraparound Coaches implement coaching plans that are culturally and linguistically responsive; and
(j) Be rater-certified in use of the Division-approved assessment tools for ages 0-5 and 6-20.
(14) A Fidelity Monitoring Tool (FMT) approved by the Division shall be used to assess fidelity to Wraparound;
(a) The FMT shall be offered to youth and caregivers no sooner than six months after a youth has been enrolled in Wraparound;
(b) Any youth over the age of eleven may complete the FMT;
(c) A parent, guardian, or legal caregiver who knows the youth best and has also participated in Wraparound may complete the FMT;
(d) The youth and parent, guardian or legal caregiver shall complete the FMT without the team's Wraparound Care Coordinator present;
(e) The FMT shall be offered to wraparound team members when approved of by the youth or family;
(f) The FMT shall be administered electronically or in written form, as chosen by the youth and family; and
(g) Other approved fidelity tools in addition to the FMT may be administered by the Division.
(15) Transitions from Wraparound:
(a) Upon completing the Wraparound team's mission statement, the team shall create a transition plan outlining the tasks required for Wraparound to be completed and shall implement the plan;
(b) The Wraparound transition plan shall:
(A) Outline the mix of formal and natural supports that the youth and family have chosen; and
(B) Include a post-transition crisis management plan.
(c) The WCC supports the team in creating a transition document that summarizes and highlights the youth and family's functional strengths, lessons learned and successfully used strategies;
(d) The team conducts a culturally appropriate activity that acknowledges the end of formal Wraparound;
(e) A young adult shall not be made to transition out of Wraparound solely due to attaining the age of 18. Young adults who reach the age of 18 while enrolled in Wraparound shall be offered the option to remain in Wraparound until their mission statement is achieved.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & ORS 430.630
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.042 & ORS 430.630
- BHS 20-2022, amend filed 11/30/2022, effective 11/30/2022
- BHS 20-2021, renumbered from 309-019-0326, filed 10/14/2021, effective 10/14/2021
- BHS 19-2019, adopt filed 12/24/2019, effective 12/27/2019
- BHS 7-2019, temporary adopt filed 06/21/2019, effective 07/01/2019 through 12/27/2019
Or. Admin. R. 309-019-0170 Outpatient Problem Gambling Treatment and Recovery Services
Outpatient problem gambling treatment services include group, individual, and family treatment consistent with the following requirements:
(1) Service sessions shall address the challenges of the individual as they relate directly or indirectly to the problem gambling behavior.
(2) Providers may provide telephone counseling when face-to-face contact involves an unwise delay, as follows:
(a) The individual shall be currently enrolled in the problem gambling treatment program;
(b) Phone counseling shall be provided by a qualified program staff within their scope of practice;
(c) Service notes for phone counseling shall follow the same criteria as face-to-face counseling and identify the session was conducted by phone and the clinical rationale for the phone session;
(d) Telephone counseling shall meet HIPAA and 42 CFR standards for privacy; and
(e) There shall be an agreement of informed consent for phone counseling that is discussed with the individual and documented in the individual’s service record.
(3) Family counseling includes face-to-face or non-face-to-face service sessions between a program staff member delivering the service and a family member whose life has been negatively impacted by gambling:
(a) Service sessions shall address the problems of the family member as they relate directly or indirectly to the problem gambling behavior; and
(b) Services to the family shall be offered even if the individual identified as a problem gambler is unwilling or unavailable to accept services.
(4) Twenty-four hour crisis response shall be accomplished through agreement with other crisis services, on-call program staff, or other arrangement acceptable to the Division.
(5) A financial assessment shall be included in the entry process and documented in the assessment.
(6) The service plan shall include a financial component consistent with the financial assessment.
(7) A risk assessment for suicide ideation shall be included in the entry process and documented in the assessment as well as appropriate referrals made.
(8) The service plan shall address suicidal risks if determined within the assessment process or throughout services.
(9) For individuals at risk, the service notes shall contain documented evidence that suicidal risk is continually assessed and that follow-up safety plan activities are being monitored.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390, 430.640 & 461.549
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 161.390 - 161.400, 179.505, 413.520 - 413.522, 426.380- 426.395, 426.490 - 426.500, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955 & 443.400 - 443.460
- MHS 4-2018, amend filed 02/27/2018, effective 03/01/2018
- MHS 10-2017(Temp), f. 9-15-17, cert. ef. 9-15-17 thru 3-13-18
- MHS 6-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
- MHS 3-2015, f. & cert. ef. 5-28-15
- MHS 1-2015(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 3-25-15 thru 9-20-15
- MHS 4-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 6-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-019-0175 Culturally Specific Substance Use Disorders Treatment and Recovery Services
Programs approved and designated as culturally specific programs shall meet the following criteria:
(1) Serve a majority of individuals representing culturally specific populations;
(2) Maintain a current demographic and cultural profile of the community;
(3) Ensure that individuals from the identified cultural group receive effective and respectful care that is provided in a manner compatible with their cultural health beliefs, practices, and preferred language;
(4) Implement strategies to recruit, retain, and promote a diverse staff at all levels of the organization that are representative of the population being served;
(5) Ensure that staff at all levels and across all disciplines receive ongoing education and training in culturally and linguistically appropriate service delivery;
(6) Ensure that a majority of the substance use disorders treatment staff be representative of the specific culture being served;
(7) Ensure that individuals are offered customer satisfaction surveys that address all areas of service and that the results of the surveys are used for quality improvement;
(8) Consider race, ethnicity, and language data in measuring customer satisfaction;
(9) Develop and implement cultural awareness policies;
(10) Ensure that data on an individual’s race, ethnicity, and spoken and written language are collected in health records, integrated into the organization’s management information systems, and periodically updated;
(11) Develop and maintain a governing or advisory board as follows:
(a) Have a majority representation of the culturally specific group being served;
(b) Receive training concerning the significance of culturally relevant services and supports;
(c) Meet at least quarterly; and
(d) Monitor agency quality improvement mechanisms and evaluate the ongoing effectiveness and implementation of culturally relevant services (CLAS) and supports within the organization.
(12) Maintain accessibility to culturally specific populations including:
(a) The physical location of the program shall be within close proximity to the culturally specific populations;
(b) Where available, public transportation shall be within close proximity to the program; and
(c) Hours of service, telephone contact, and other accessibility issues shall be appropriate for the population.
(13) The physical facility where the culturally specific services are delivered shall be psychologically comfortable for the group including:
(a) Materials displayed shall be culturally relevant; and
(b) Mass media programming shall be sensitive to cultural background.
(14) Other cultural differences shall be considered and accommodated when possible, such as the need or desire to bring family members to the facility, play areas for small children, and related accommodations; and
(15) Ensure that grievance processes are culturally and linguistically sensitive and capable of identifying, preventing, and resolving cross-cultural conflicts or complaints.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 430.640 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 428.205 - 428.270, 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955 & 443.400 - 443.460
- MHS 4-2018, amend filed 02/27/2018, effective 03/01/2018
- MHS 10-2017(Temp), f. 9-15-17, cert. ef. 9-15-17 thru 3-13-18
- MHS 6-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
- MHS 26-2016(Temp), f. 12-27-16, cert. ef. 12-28-16 thru 6-23-17
- MHS 18-2016, f. 11-28-16, cert. ef. 11-30-16
- MHS 4-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 6-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-019-0181 Early Intervention ASAM Level 0.5
Programs shall be certified by the Division in accordance with OAR 309 Division 008 in order to render outpatient substance use disorder treatment and recovery services. A certificate issued to a program shall be effective for a duration not to exceed three years from the date of issue and may be renewed, conditioned, denied, suspended, or revoked by the Division in the manner set forth in OAR 309-008. Certified programs shall meet the standards set forth in these rules and all applicable statutes.
(1) Currently certified providers shall submit complete outpatient substance use disorder treatment and recovery services applications to render each selected ASAM Level(s) of Care no later than October 1, 2023.
(2) Division approved ASAM level(s) of Care shall be added to the outpatient substance use disorder treatment and recovery services certificate starting January 1, 2024.
(3) Effective April 1, 2024, all outpatient substance use disorder treatment programs must have a valid certificate designating each ASAM Level(s) of Care that they are certified by the Division to provide.
(4) Each program shall operate within the scope of the service(s) and ASAM Level of Care types listed on their certificate.
(5) In addition to any other requirements described in these rules and applicable statutes, programs certified to render adolescent or adult Early Intervention ASAM Level 0.5 services shall, at a minimum, meet and maintain documentation demonstrating ongoing compliance with each of the following standards; Individuals placed at this ASAM Level of Care shall meet the following ASAM admission criteria:
(a) ASAM dimensional admission criteria in at least one of Dimensions 4, 5, or 6;
(b) Identifiable concerns in Dimensions 1, 2 and 3 are stable or being addressed through program or other community-based services;
(c) Evidence of concern or risk factors that appear to be related to substance use behavior; and
(d) Risk factors for developing a substance use disorder when the information is insufficient to diagnose a DSM-5-TR substance use, substance induced or other type of addictive disorder.
(6) Programs approved to render ASAM Level 0.5 programs shall meet the following standards:
(a) The Medical Director or an LMP shall be available for complex case consultation;
(b) Staff in adolescent programs shall be knowledgeable about adolescent development and in engaging adolescents.
(c) Program shall offer an array of services and supports, including the following:
(A) Individual, group and family counseling;
(B) Motivational Interventions;
(C) Education; and
(D) Referrals, to relevant community social services, healthcare and behavioral healthcare.
(d) When it is determined an individual meets criteria for a higher ASAM Level of Care, the program shall provide care coordination to assist the individual in concurrently completing any applicable education requirements at Early Intervention ASAM Level 0.5 and treatment in an Outpatient Level of Care or transitioning to the identified services.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390, 413.042, 430.256 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 161.390-161.400, 428.205-428.270, 430.010, 430.205-430.210, 430.254-430.640, 430.850-430.955 & 743A.168
- BHS 11-2023, adopt filed 04/07/2023, effective 04/07/2023
Or. Admin. R. 309-019-0182 Outpatient Substance Use Disorder Services ASAM Level 1
Programs shall be certified by the Division in accordance with OAR 309 Division 008 in order to render outpatient substance use disorder treatment and recovery services. A certificate issued to a program shall be effective for a duration not to exceed three years from the date of issue and may be renewed, conditioned, denied, suspended, or revoked by the Division in the manner set forth in OAR 309-008. Certified programs shall meet the standards set forth in these rules and all applicable statutes.
(1) Currently certified providers shall submit complete outpatient substance use disorder treatment and recovery services applications to render each selected ASAM Level(s) of Care and any optional Enhanced ASAM Service Designation(s) no later than October 1, 2023.
(2) Division approved ASAM level(s) of Care and optional Enhanced ASAM Service designation(s), if any, shall be added to the outpatient substance use disorder treatment and recovery services certificate starting January 1, 2024.
(3) Effective April 1, 2024, all outpatient substance use disorder treatment programs must have a valid certificate designating each the following ASAM Level(s) of Care and any optional Enhanced ASAM Service designation(s) that they are certified by the Division to provide.
(4) Each program shall operate within the scope of the service and ASAM Level of Care types listed on their certificate.
(5) In addition to any other requirements described in these rules and applicable statutes, programs certified to render adolescent or adult residential ASAM Level 1 services shall, at a minimum, meet and maintain documentation demonstrating ongoing compliance with each of the following standards:
(a) ASAM Level of Care 1 programs shall ensure the individual meets ASAM dimensional admission criteria:
(A) ASAM dimensional admission criteria in each of the Dimensions;
(B) Diagnostic criteria for a substance use, substance-induced or other addictive disorder, per DSM-5-TR, or the probability of such a diagnosis is determined through collateral information; and
(C) When the ASAM Level of Care placement is not the same as the ASAM Level of Care assessed, the documentation shall include a rationale for this discrepancy.
(b) Program staffshall include:
(A) Medical Director or LMP who shall be available for complex case consultation; and
(B) Adolescent programs shall have program staff knowledgeable about adolescent development and experienced in engaging and working with adolescent.
(c) Arrange transfer of individuals to all other ASAM Levels of Care as indicated; and
(d) Provide instruction on accessing emergency services by telephone 24 hours per day, 7 days per week.
(6) Programs shall provide an arrayof weekly services and supports that are designed to meet the needs of the individual and their clinical severity through the number of planned hours per week and the type of planned services and supports. Programs shall ensure the following minimum standards:
(a) Less than 9 hours of weekly treatment contact for adults;
(b) Less than 6 hours of weekly treatment contact for adolescent;
(c) Designed to meet the needs of the individual and their clinical severity through the number of planned hours per week and the type of planned services and supports;
(d) Address lifestyle, thinking, belief, and behavioral patterns that are identified as barriers to the improvement of functioning;
(e) Offer education, monitoring and disease management;
(f) Offer or coordinate access to medical, psychiatric, including medication management, psychological services in a timeframe that matches the severity of the need;
(g) Offer or coordinate access to urinalysis testing and other toxicology and laboratory testing services; and
(h) Have direct affiliation or referral relationship with higher levels of care and medication management.
(7) ASAM Enhanced Service designation(s) are service types that the program may choose to apply to render to either adults or adolescents when it corresponds to an ASAM Level of Care that is certified by the Division. Programs certified to render Outpatient Substance Use Disorder ServicesASAM Level 1 may choose to also be certified to render any of the following Enhanced Service types:
(a) ASAM Level 1 Co-occurring Capable services. Programs certified to render Co-occurring Capable ASAM Level 1 services shall render ASAM Level of Care 1 services as described in this rule and also, at a minimum:
(A) Individuals admitted have co-occurring mental disorders that meet the stability criteria for a co-occurring capable program, or experience troublesome but subsyndromal symptomology; and
(B) The mental health services are either rendered by community partners and closely coordinated or rendered by program staff who are qualified, credentialed and working within their scope.
(b) ASAM Level 1 Co-occurring Enhanced services. Programs certified to render Co-occurring Enhanced ASAM Level 1 services shall render ASAM Level of Care 1 services as described in this rule and also, at a minimum:
(A) Be certified to render services in accordance with OAR 309-019-0145 Intensive Co-occurring Disorders Services;
(B) Render services as described in ASAM Level 2.5 Co-occurring Capable Program rules;
(C) Include individuals whose co-occurring disorders are documented as either:
(i) Moderate severity and needing ongoing monitoring; or
(ii) High severity and chronic but have stabilized to the extent where these services are potentially beneficial.
(D) Offer the following services:
(i) Monitor and manage psychotropic medication;
(ii) Mental health treatment; and
(iii) Services that address the interaction between mental health and substance use disorders.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390, 413.042, 430.256 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 161.390-161.400, 428.205-428.270, 430.010, 430.205-430.210, 430.254-430.640, 430.850-430.955 & 743A.168
- BHS 11-2023, adopt filed 04/07/2023, effective 04/07/2023
Or. Admin. R. 309-019-0183 Intensive Outpatient Substance Use Disorder Services ASAM Level 2.1
Programs shall be certified by the Division in accordance with OAR 309 Division 008 in order to render outpatient substance use disorder treatment and recovery services. A certificate issued to a program shall be effective for a duration not to exceed three years from the date of issue and may be renewed, conditioned, denied, suspended, or revoked by the Division in the manner set forth in OAR 309-008. Certified programs shall meet the standards set forth in these rules and all applicable statutes.
(1) Currently certified providers shall submit complete outpatient substance use disorder treatment and recovery services applications to render each selected ASAM Level(s) of Care and any optional Enhanced ASAM Service Designation(s) no later than October 1, 2023.
(2) Division approved ASAM level(s) of Care and optional Enhanced ASAM Service designation(s), if any, shall be added to the outpatient substance use disorder treatment and recovery services certificate starting January 1, 2024.
(3) Effective April 1, 2024, all outpatient substance use disorder treatment programs must have a valid certificate designating each the following ASAM Level(s) of Care and any optional Enhanced ASAM Service designation(s) that they are certified by the Division to provide.
(4) Each program shall operate within the scope of the service(s) and Level(s) of Care listed on their certificate. ASAM Level 2.1 services and supports may be rendered within an ASAM Level 3.1 service setting that is owned and operated by the same provider.
(5) In addition to any other requirements described in these rules and applicable statutes, programs certified to render adolescent or adult residential ASAM Level 2.1 services shall, at a minimum, meet and maintain documentation demonstrating ongoing compliance with each of the following standards:
(a) The individual meets ASAM dimensional admission criteria for ASAM Level 2.1 when:
(A) Adult ASAM dimensional admission criteria is met in Dimensions 2, 3 and one of 4, 5, or 6;
(B) Adolescent ASAM dimensional admission criteria is met in Dimensions 1 and 2, and the severity specifications in at least one of Dimensions 3, 4, 5, or 6;
(C) Diagnostic criteria for a substance use or other addictive disorder, per DSM-5-TR, or the probability of such a diagnosis is determined through collateral information; and
(D) When the ASAM Level of Care placement is not the same as the ASAM Level of Care assessed, the documentation shall include a rationale for this discrepancy.
(b) Program staff include:
(A) A Medical Director or LMP with credentialing, training or experience in addiction medicine be available for complex case consultation; and
(B) Adolescent programs shall have program staff knowledgeable about adolescent development and experienced in engaging and working with adolescents.
(c) Arrange transfer of individuals to all other ASAM Levels of Care as indicated; and
(d) Provide instruction on accessing emergency services by telephone 24 hours per day, 7 days per week.
(6) Programs shall provide an array of weekly services and supports that are designed to meet the needs of the individual and their clinical severity through the number of planned hours per week and the type of planned services and supports. Programs shall ensure the following minimum standards:
(a) 9 to 19 hours of weekly treatment contact for adults;
(b) 6 to 19 hours of weekly treatment contact for adolescents;
(c) Services rendered by the program:
(A) Individual, group and family therapy; and
(B) Psychoeducation and motivational strategies.
(d) Services rendered by the program or coordinated through consultation and referral:
(A) Offer or coordinate access to urinalysis testing and other toxicology and laboratory testing services;
(B) Psychiatric and medical services;
(C) Medication management;
(D) Occupational or recreational;
(E) Skill-building;
(F) Case management; and
(G) Peer delivered services.
(e) If an adult individual no longer requires 9 or more hours of structured programming per week or adolescent no longer requires 6 or more hours of structured programming per week and is not yet stable enough to transition to ASAM Level 1, the program may lessen the minimum required hours per week for a maximum of two weeks while focusing on stabilization and transition to Level 1.
(7) ASAM Enhanced Service designation(s) are service types that the program may choose to apply to render to either adults or adolescents when it corresponds to an ASAM Level of Care that is certified by the Division. Programs certified to render Outpatient Substance Use Disorder ServicesASAM Level 2.1 may choose to also be certified to render any of the following Enhanced Service types:
(a) ASAM Level 2.1 Co-occurring Capable services. Programs certified to render Co-occurring Capable ASAM Level 2.1 services shall render ASAM Level of Care 2.1 services as described in this rule and also, at a minimum:
(A) Ensure individuals admitted have documented co-occurring mental disorders and are able to tolerate and benefit from a co-occurring capable program, or experience troublesome but subsyndromal symptomology.
(B) Be certified to render services in accordance with OAR 309-019-0145 Intensive Co-occurring Disorders Services;
(C) Be appropriate for individuals with co-occurring disorders when the services are integrated into the program; and
(D) Arrange medical and psychiatric consultation and medication management.
(b) ASAM Level 2.1 Co-occurring Enhanced services. Programs certified to render Co-occurring Enhanced ASAM Level 2.1 services shall render ASAM Level of Care 2.1 services as described in this rule and also, at a minimum:
(A) Render services as described by ASAM Level of Care 2.1 Co-occurring Capable program rules.
(B) Have access to consult with an LMP; and
(C) Render a comprehensive assessment with history and examination by an LMP within a reasonable timeframe given the current risk assessment and immediate needs profile.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390, 413.042, 430.256 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 161.390-161.400, 428.205-428.270, 430.010, 430.205-430.210, 430.254-430.640, 430.850-430.955 & 743A.168
- BHS 11-2023, adopt filed 04/07/2023, effective 04/07/2023
Or. Admin. R. 309-019-0184 Partial Hospitalization Substance Use Disorder Services ASAM Level 2.5
Programs shall be certified by the Division in accordance with OAR 309 Division 008 in order to render outpatient substance use disorder treatment and recovery services. A certificate issued to a program shall be effective for a duration not to exceed three years from the date of issue and may be renewed, conditioned, denied, suspended, or revoked by the Division in the manner set forth in OAR 309-008. Certified programs shall meet the standards set forth in these rules and all applicable statutes.
(1) Currently certified providers shall submit complete outpatient substance use disorder treatment and recovery services applications to render each selected ASAM Level(s) of Care and any optional Enhanced ASAM Service Designation(s) no later than October 1, 2023.
(2) Division approved ASAM level(s) of Care and optional Enhanced ASAM Service designation(s), if any, shall be added to the outpatient substance use disorder treatment and recovery services certificate starting January 1, 2024.
(3) Effective April 1, 2024, all outpatient substance use disorder treatment programs must have a valid certificate designating each the following ASAM Level(s) of Care and any optional Enhanced ASAM Service designation(s) that they are certified by the Division to provide.
(4) Each program shall operate within the scope of the service and Level of Care types listed on their certificate. ASAM Level 2.5 services and supports may be rendered within an ASAM Level 3.1 service setting that is owned and operated by the same provider.
(5) In addition to any other requirements described in these rules and applicable statutes, programs certified to render adolescent or adult residential ASAM Level 2.1 services shall, at a minimum, meet and maintain documentation demonstrating ongoing compliance with each of the following standards:
(a) The individual meets ASAM dimensional admission criteria for ASAM Level 2.5 when:
(A) Adult ASAM dimensional admission criteria is met in Dimensions 2, 3 and one of 4, 5, or 6;
(B) Adolescent ASAM dimensional admission criteria is met when:
(i) Stability specifications are met in Dimensions 1 and 2; and
(ii) The severity specifications in at least one of Dimensions 3, 4, 5, or 6.
(C) Diagnostic criteria for a substance use or other addictive disorder, per DSM-5-TR, or the probability of such a diagnosis is determined through collateral information; and
(D) When the ASAM Level of Care placement is not the same as the ASAM Level of Care assessed, the documentation shall include a rationale for this discrepancy.
(b) Program staff include those who are qualified and, when applicable, credentialed according to these rules and working within their scope, and shall include:
(A) A Medical Director or LMP with credentialing, training or experience in addiction medicine or addiction psychiatry. The Medical Director or an LMP addiction specialist is available for complex case consultation; and
(B) Adolescent programs shall have program staff knowledgeable about adolescent development and experienced in engaging and working with adolescent.
(c) Arrange transfer of individuals to all other ASAM Levels of Care as indicated; and
(d) Provide instruction on accessing emergency services by telephone 24 hours per day, 7 days per week.
(6) Programs shall provide an array of weekly services and supports that are designed to meet the needs of the individual and their clinical severity through the number of planned hours per week and the type of planned services and supports. Programs shall ensure the following minimum standards:
(a) 20 or more hours of weekly contact for adults;
(b) 20 or more hours of weekly contact hours for adolescents;
(c) ASAM Level 2.5 program includes an array of structured service and support treatment contacts per week, offered in a planned format, that are adapted to the individual’s developmental stage and comprehension level. Services and supports offered by the program shall include:
(A) Individual, Group and Family therapy;
(B) Psychoeducation and Motivational strategies;
(C) Skill-building; and
(D) Case management.
(d) Services either offered by the program or coordinated through consultation and referral, which shall include:
(A) Offer or coordinate access to urinalysis testing and other toxicology and laboratory testing services;
(B) Medical consultation and examination, laboratory and toxicology services;
(C) Occupational therapy;
(D) Recreational therapy;
(E) Peer delivered services; and
(F) Psychiatric services that are available within a timeframe reflective of the urgency of the symptoms.
(7) ASAM Level 2.5 Co-occurring Capable Programs provide an additional and optional version of the services provided in Partial Hospitalization Substance Use Disorder Services ASAM Level of Care 2.5. Programs certified to render Partial Hospitalization Substance Use Disorder Services ASAM Level 2.5 may choose to also be certified to render ASAM Level 2.5 Co-occurring Capable services. All certified service types are listed on one certificate for the program.
(8) ASAM Level 2.5 Co-occurring Capable services. Programs certified to render Co-occurring Capable ASAM Level 2.5 services shall render ASAM Level of Care 2.5 services as described in this rule and also, at a minimum:
(a) Ensure individuals admitted have documented co-occurring mental disorders who are able to tolerate and benefit from a co-occurring capable program, or experience troublesome but subsyndromal symptomology;
(b) Be certified to render services in accordance with OAR 309-019-0145 Intensive Co-occurring Disorders Services;
(c) Include program staff working within their scope to document the mental health conditions, the relationship between the mental and substance use disorders, and the individual’s current level of functioning;
(d) Offer intensive case management; and
(e) Offer medication management and psychotherapy either by the program or through consultation and referral.
(9) ASAM Level 2.5 Co-occurring Enhanced Programs provide an additional and optional version of the services provided in Partial Hospitalization Substance Use Disorder Services ASAM Level of Care 2.5. Programs certified to render Partial Hospitalization Substance Use Disorder Services ASAM Level 2.5 may choose to also be certified to render ASAM Level 2.5 Co-occurring Enhanced services. All certified service types are listed on one certificate for the program.
(10) ASAM Level 2.5 Co-occurring Enhanced services. Programs certified to render Co-occurring Enhanced Programs ASAM Level 2.5 shall render ASAM Level of Care 2.5 services as described in this rule and also, at a minimum:
(a) Render services as described by ASAM Level 2.5 Co-occurring Capable Program rules;
(b) Have the capacity to effectively treat individuals who have complex co-occurring conditions. These programs shall provide:
(A) Psychiatric services;
(B) Medication management;
(C) A review of the recent psychiatric history;
(D) A mental status examination; and
(E) A comprehensive psychiatric history examination and assessment performed within a timeframe determined by the individual’s psychiatric condition.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390, 413.042, 430.256 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 161.390-161.400, 428.205-428.270, 430.010, 430.205-430.210, 430.254-430.640, 430.850-430.955 & 743A.168
- BHS 11-2023, adopt filed 04/07/2023, effective 04/07/2023
Or. Admin. R. 309-019-0185 Outpatient Substance Use Disorders Treatment and Recovery Programs
(1) Programs approved to provide outpatient substance use disorders treatment services shall meet the following standards:
(a) Programs shall ensure documentation at the time of entry contains an evaluation that identifies and assesses needs such as social isolation, self-reliance, parenting issues, domestic violence, physical health, housing, and financial considerations;
(b) Programs shall ensure the service plan addresses all areas of concern identified in the assessment that the individual agrees to address, and applicable service coordination details to address the identified needs;
(c) The program shall provide or coordinate services and supports that meet special access needs such as childcare, mental health services, and transportation; and
(d) The program shall provide or coordinate the following services and supports that the individual agrees to address:
(A) Gender-specific services and supports;
(B) Family services, including therapeutic services for children in the custody of women in treatment;
(C) Reintegration with family or community;
(D) Peer delivered services;
(E) Smoking cessation;
(F) Housing;
(G) Transportation; and
(H) Housing and Employment support services for those who qualify under OAR 309-0190-0105.
(2) Services shall include the participation of family and other agencies as appropriate, such as social service, child welfare, or corrections agencies.
(3) The program shall coordinate referral services with the following:
(a) Agencies providing services to individuals who have experienced physical abuse, sexual abuse, or other types of domestic violence;
(b) Parenting training;
(c) Continuing care treatment services shall be consistent with The ASAM Criteria and shall include referrals to support groups where available.
(4) Programs that receive SUPTR block grant funding shall provide or coordinate the following services for individuals:
(a) Primary medical care, including referral for prenatal care if applicable, and childcare and transportation where needed;
(b) Primary pediatric care, including immunizations for their children;
(c) Gender specific substance use disorders treatment and other therapeutic interventions that may include but are not limited to:
(A) Relationship issues;
(B) Sexual and physical abuse;
(C) Parenting;
(D) Access to childcare and transportation while receiving these services; and
(E) Therapeutic interventions for children in the custody of women or men in treatment that may include but are not limited to:
(i) Their developmental needs;
(ii) Any issues concerning sexual and physical abuse and neglect; and
(iii) Sufficient case management and transportation to ensure that individuals and their children have access to services.
(5) Providers that deliver adolescent substance use disorders treatment services or those with adolescent-designated service funding shall meet the following standards:
(a) Development of service plans and case management services shall include participation of parents, other family members, schools, children's services agencies, and juvenile corrections;
(b) Services or appropriate referrals shall include:
(A) Family counseling;
(B) Community and social skills training; and
(C) Smoking cessation service.
(6) Continuing care services shall be of appropriate duration and designed to maximize recovery opportunities. The services shall include:
(a) Reintegration services and coordination with family and schools;
(b) Adolescent self-help groups where available;
(c) Referral to emancipation services when appropriate;
(d) Referral to physical or sexual abuse counseling and support services when appropriate; and
(e) Referral for peer delivered services.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390, 413.042 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 161.390 - 161.400, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254- 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955 & 743A.168
- BHS 11-2023, amend filed 04/07/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- BHS 1-2022, amend filed 01/05/2022, effective 01/05/2022
- MHS 4-2018, amend filed 02/27/2018, effective 03/01/2018
- MHS 10-2017(Temp), f. 9-15-17, cert. ef. 9-15-17 thru 3-13-18
- MHS 6-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
- MHS 26-2016(Temp), f. 12-27-16, cert. ef. 12-28-16 thru 6-23-17
- MHS 4-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 6-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-019-0190 Community-Based Substance Use Treatment Programs for Individuals in the Criminal Justice System
(1) For individuals in the criminal justice system, community-based substance use treatment services and supports are for individuals who are under the supervision of a probation officer or on parole or post-prison supervision or participating in a drug treatment court program or otherwise under the direct supervision of the court.
(2) Services and supports shall incorporate interventions and strategies that target criminogenic risk factors and include:
(a) Cognitive behavioral interventions;
(b) Motivational interventions;
(c) Relapse prevention; and
(d) Healthy relationships education.
(3) Providers shall demonstrate coordination of services with criminal justice partners through written protocols, program staff activities, and individual record documentation.
(4) Program directors or clinical supervisors shall have experience in community-based offender treatment programs and have specific training and experience applying effective, evidence-based clinical strategies and services for individuals receiving community-based substance use disorders treatment services to individuals in the criminal justice system.
(5) Within the first six months of hire, program staff shall:
(a) Receive training on effective principles of evidenced-based practices for individuals with criminogenic risk factors; and
(b) Have documented knowledge, skills, and abilities demonstrating treatment strategies for individuals with criminogenic risk factors.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390, 413.042 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 161.390 - 161.400, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955 & 743A.168
- MHS 4-2018, amend filed 02/27/2018, effective 03/01/2018
- MHS 10-2017(Temp), f. 9-15-17, cert. ef. 9-15-17 thru 3-13-18
- MHS 6-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
- MHS 4-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 6-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-019-0195 DUII Services Providers
(1) Outpatient Substance Use Disorders (SUD) Treatment Programs approved by the Division as DUII Services Providers and for ASAM Levels of Care 0.5 and 1.0,, shall provide DUII Education and DUII Rehabilitation as outlined in this rule.
(2) A DUII Services Provider may not provide Alcohol and Other Drug Screening Specialist (ADSS) services except as allowed in OAR 415-054-0545 through 415-054-0570.
(3) DUII Services Providers shall assess, as outlined in OAR 309-019-0135(3), all individuals seeking DUII services. Level of care, diagnosis, frequency of contact, and duration of treatment services shall be consistent with the current DSM-5-TR diagnostic and The ASAM Criteria .
(4) DUII Education shall be provided for individuals who:
(a) Do not currently meet DSM-5-TR diagnostic criteria for a SUD; and
(b) Meet ASAM Level of Care 0.5; and
(c) Have never been diagnosed with a SUD; and
(d) Have never been enrolled in a DUII or SUD treatment program.
(5) DUII Education shall include a minimum of four sessions over a four-week period and include the provision of a minimum of 12 hours of didactic education. The minimum 12 hours does not include diagnostic assessment, service planning, or transfer planning. DUII Education shall include but is not limited to:
(a) Completion of a Division approved DUII Education Pre and Post Test;
(b) DUII Laws and Consequences in Oregon;
(c) Use of alcohol and other drugs, and their effects on driving;
(d) Physical and psychological effects of alcohol and other drugs of abuse;
(e) SUD signs and symptoms;
(f) SUD recovery support services; and
(g) Alternatives to intoxicated driving.
(6) No more than four of the 12 minimum hours shall be conducted utilizing educational films or pre-recorded audio-visual presentations.
(7) DUII Rehabilitation shall be provided for individuals who:
(a) Meet DSM-5-TR diagnostic criteria for a SUD; or
(b) Meet ASAM Level of Care 1.0 or higher; or
(c) Have been previously diagnosed with a SUD; or
(d) Have previously been enrolled in a DUII or SUD treatment program.
(8) DUII Rehabilitation shall include:
(a) DUII Education as described in section (5) of this rule; and
(b) SUD treatment services as outlined in the individual’s service plan.
(9) DUII Service Providers shall use urinalysis testing for use of substances of abuse following procedures in OAR 309-019. Urinalysis tests shall be conducted as deemed clinically appropriate, but no less than:
(a) At the time of assessment; and
(b) Twice per calendar month with no more than 14 calendar days between tests; and
(c) Within two weeks prior to completion; and
(d) Within 72 hours of receipt of laboratory results indicating that a urinalysis sample was identified as out of range for Creatinine, pH, or Specific Gravity as defined by the urinalysis laboratory results;
(10) Urinalysis shall, at a minimum, test for the following substances of abuse:
(a) Alcohol;
(b) Marijuana;
(c) Cocaine;
(d) Amphetamines;
(e) Opiates; and
(f) Benzodiazepines.
(11) In addition to the substances of abuse outlined in section (10), an EtG/EtS test for alcohol shall be conducted, at a minimum, at the time of assessment and within two weeks prior to completion.
(12) Individuals enrolled in DUII Education are expected to demonstrate abstinence from use of intoxicants as evidenced by negative urinalysis reports, except as allowed in ORS 813.200. Individuals who provide a positive urinalysis test or who self-report use of a substance shall be required to complete DUII Rehabilitation.
(13) Individuals enrolled in DUII Rehabilitation are expected to maintain abstinence from use of intoxicants as evidenced by negative urinalysis tests, except as allowed in ORS 813.200, while outside of a controlled environment for no less than the final 90 days of the DUII Rehabilitation program.
(14) Notwithstanding sections (9)-(11), DUII Services Providers may issue a DUII Treatment Completion Certificate for individuals convicted of DUII or proof of completion for individuals under a diversion agreement, if the individual has fulfilled all other requirements of this rule except for submission of urinalysis testing as required due to a state of emergency declared by the state or county in which the individual or DUII Services Provider is located. The individual’s service record must clearly document the reason the state of emergency prevented submission of urinalysis as required in sections (9)-(11).
(15) Division approved DUII Services Providers shall issue a DUII Treatment Completion Certificate (DTCC) for individuals convicted of a DUII using Division approved forms and procedures after:
(a) Receipt of referral from an ADSS; and
(b) Completion of DUII Education or DUII Rehabilitation, including applicable abstinence requirements, as outlined in these rules; and
(c) Compliance with the terms of the fee agreement between the provider and the individual.
(16) The Division shall issue a DTCC for individuals completing an out-of-state intoxicated driving program after:
(a) Documentation of the individual’s residency in a state other than Oregon; and
(b) Receipt of a copy of the individual’s referral from an ADSS; and
(c) Documentation of completion of an intoxicated driving program as allowed for the equivalent conviction in the individual’s state of residence. Residents of states that do not require DUII treatment shall complete a program that is substantially equivalent to Oregon’s standards.
(17) Division approved DUII Services Providers must report:
(a) To the Division using the mandated state data system; and
(b) To the referring ADSS as allowed by HIPPA and 42 CFR Part 2:
(A) No later than 30 calendar days from the date of referral;
(B) Every 30 calendar days while enrolled in DUII Rehabilitation;
(C) No later than 14 calendar days from the date of discharge;
(D) No later than seven calendar days from the written request of the ADSS.
(18) The individual’s Service Record must include all information necessary to document the individual’s successful or unsuccessful completion of DUII Services.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 430.640, 430.254, 430.256 & 430.357
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.010, 743A.168, 430.030 & 430.254-430.640
- BHS 11-2023, amend filed 04/07/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- BHS 17-2021, amend filed 08/13/2021, effective 08/13/2021
- BHS 7-2021, amend filed 03/18/2021, effective 03/19/2021
- BHS 12-2020, temporary amend filed 09/22/2020, effective 09/22/2020 through 03/20/2021
- BHS 4-2020, temporary amend filed 03/23/2020, effective 03/23/2020 through 09/18/2020
- BHS 8-2018, amend filed 03/22/2018, effective 04/01/2018
- MHS 6-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
- MHS 18-2016, f. 11-28-16, cert. ef. 11-30-16
- MHS 11-2016(Temp), f. 6-29-16, cert. ef. 7-1-16 thru 12-27-16
- MHS 4-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 6-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-019-0200 Medical Protocols in Outpatient Substance Use Disorders Treatment and Recovery Programs
Medical protocols shall be approved by a medical director under contract with a program or written reciprocal agreement with a medical practitioner under coordinated care. The protocols shall:
(1) Require a medical history be included in the assessment.
(2) Designate those medical symptoms and conditions that, when found, require further investigation, physical examinations, treatment, or laboratory testing.
(3) Require that individuals admitted to the program who are currently injecting or intravenously using a drug or have injected or intravenously used a drug within the past 30 days or who are at risk of withdrawal from a drug or who may be pregnant shall be referred for a physical examination and appropriate lab testing within 30 days of entry to the program. This requirement may be waived by the medical director if these services have been received within the past 90 days and documentation is provided.
(4) Require pregnant women be referred for prenatal care within two weeks of entry to the program.
(5) Require that the program provide HIV and AIDS, TB, sexually transmitted disease, Hepatitis and other infectious disease information and risk assessment, including any needed referral, within 30 days of entry.
(6) Specify the steps for follow up and coordination with physical health care providers in the event the individual is found to have an infectious disease or other major medical problem.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 430.640 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 428.205 - 428.270, 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955 & 443.400 - 443.460
- MHS 4-2018, amend filed 02/27/2018, effective 03/01/2018
- MHS 10-2017(Temp), f. 9-15-17, cert. ef. 9-15-17 thru 3-13-18
- MHS 6-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
- MHS 4-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 6-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-019-0205 Building Requirements in Behavioral Health Programs
All behavioral health treatment programs must:
(1) Comply with all applicable state and local building, electrical, plumbing, fire, safety, and zoning codes.
(2) Maintain up-to-date documentation verifying that they meet applicable local business license, zoning, and building codes and federal, state, and local fire and safety regulations. It is the responsibility of the program to check with local government to make sure all applicable local codes have been met.
(3) Provide space for services including but not limited to intake, assessment, counseling, and telephone conversations that assure the privacy and confidentiality of individuals and is furnished in an adequate and comfortable fashion including plumbing, sanitation, heating, and cooling.
(4) Provide rest rooms for individuals, visitors, and staff that are accessible to individuals with disabilities pursuant to Title II of the Americans with Disabilities Act if the program receives any public funds or Title III of the Act if no public funds are received.
(5) Adopt and implement emergency policies and procedures, including an evacuation plan and emergency plan in case of fire, explosion, accident, death, or other emergency. The policies and procedures and emergency plans must be current and posted in a conspicuous area.
(6) Outpatient programs may not allow tobacco use in program facilities and on program grounds.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 430.640 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 428.205 - 428.270, 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.524 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955 & 443.400 - 443.460
- MHS 4-2018, amend filed 02/27/2018, effective 03/01/2018
- Suspended by MHS 10-2017(Temp), f. 9-15-17, cert. ef. 9-15-17 thru 3-13-18
- MHS 6-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
- MHS 4-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 6-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-019-0210 Quality Assessment and Performance Improvement
Providers shall develop and implement a structured and ongoing process to assess, monitor, and improve the quality and effectiveness of services provided to individuals and their families.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254 - 430.640 & 430.850 - 430.955
- MHS 6-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
- MHS 18-2016, f. 11-28-16, cert. ef. 11-30-16
- MHS 4-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 6-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-019-0215 Grievances and Appeals
(1) Any individual or parent or guardian receiving services may file a grievance with the provider, the individual’s coordinated care plan, or the Division.
(2) The provider’s grievance process shall:
(a) Notify each individual or guardian of the grievance procedures by reviewing a written copy of the policy upon entry;
(b) Assist individuals and parents or guardians to understand and complete the grievance process and notify them of the results and basis for the decision;
(c) Encourage and facilitate resolution of the grievance at the lowest possible level;
(d) Complete an investigation of any grievance within 30 calendar days;
(e) Implement a procedure for accepting, processing, and responding to grievances including specific timelines for each;
(f) Designate a program staff individual to receive and process the grievance;
(g) Document any action taken on a substantiated grievance within a timely manner; and
(h) Document receipt, investigation, and action taken in response to the grievance.
(4) The provider shall post a Grievance Process Notice in a common area stating the telephone numbers of:
(a) The Division;
(b) Disability Rights Oregon;
(c) Any applicable coordinated care organization; and
(d) The Governor’s Advocacy Office.
(5) In circumstances where the matter of the grievance is likely to cause harm to the individual before the grievance procedures are completed, the individual or guardian of the individual may request an expedited review. The program administrator shall review and respond in writing to the grievance within 48 hours of receipt of the grievance. The written response shall include information about the appeal process.
(6) A grievant, witness, or staff member of a provider may not be subject to retaliation by a provider for making a report or being interviewed about a grievance or being a witness. Retaliation may include but is not limited to dismissal or harassment, reduction in services, wages, or benefits, or basing service or a performance review on the action.
(7) The grievant is immune from any civil or criminal liability with respect to the making or content of a grievance made in good faith.
(8) Individuals and their legal guardians may appeal entry, transfer, and grievance decisions as follows:
(a) If the individual or guardian is not satisfied with the decision, the individual or guardian may file an appeal in writing within ten working days of the date of the program administrator's response to the grievance or notification of denial for services. The appeal shall be submitted to the Division;
(b) If requested, program staff shall be available to assist the individual;
(c) The Division shall provide a written response within ten working days of the receipt of the appeal; and
(d) If the individual or guardian is not satisfied with the appeal decision, they may file a second appeal in writing within ten working days of the date of the written response to the Division Director.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390, 413.042, 430.256 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: 430.254 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955, 743A.168, ORS 161.390 - 161.400, 179.505, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.010 & 430.205 - 430.210
- MHS 4-2018, amend filed 02/27/2018, effective 03/01/2018
- MHS 10-2017(Temp), f. 9-15-17, cert. ef. 9-15-17 thru 3-13-18
- MHS 6-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
- MHS 26-2016(Temp), f. 12-27-16, cert. ef. 12-28-16 thru 6-23-17
- MHS 18-2016, f. 11-28-16, cert. ef. 11-30-16
- MHS 11-2016(Temp), f. 6-29-16, cert. ef. 7-1-16 thru 12-27-16
- MHS 4-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 6-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-019-0220 Variances
(1) Requirements and standards for requesting and granting variances or exceptions are found in OAR 309-008-1600.
(2) The Division’s chief officer or designee shall approve or deny the request for a variance to these rules. The request shall be made in writing using the Division approved variance request form and following the variance request procedure pursuant to OAR 309-008-1600.
(3) Granting a variance for one request does not set a precedent that shall be followed by the Division when evaluating subsequent requests for variance.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390, 413.042, 430.256 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 161.390 - 161.400, 179.505, 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955 & 743A.168
- MHS 4-2018, amend filed 02/27/2018, effective 03/01/2018
- MHS 10-2017(Temp), f. 9-15-17, cert. ef. 9-15-17 thru 3-13-18
- MHS 6-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
- MHS 18-2016, f. 11-28-16, cert. ef. 11-30-16
- MHS 11-2016(Temp), f. 6-29-16, cert. ef. 7-1-16 thru 12-27-16
- MHS 4-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 6-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-019-0225 Assertive Community Treatment (ACT) Definitions
(1) In addition to the definitions in OAR 309-019-0105, when used and not otherwise defined in OAR 309-019-0225 through OAR 309-019-0255, the following terms shall have the meaning given in this section.
(2) 24/7 Crisis Coverage” means the ACT Team will develop internal procedures to ensure ACT participants have access to the on-call ACT staff if they are experiencing a mental health crisis 24 hours a day, 7 days a week, 365 days a year:
(a) ACT Teams must be readily available to assist with de-escalation strategies and have direct access to the participants treatment & crisis plans created to ensure full ACT benefit of service. This could include dispatching out to the individual in need;
(b) The ACT Team is required to document all received crisis coverage calls and dispatches by the ACT Team as part of this service delivery.
(3) “Admission” means for ACT services, when a person is deemed fully eligible by going through the entire Standardized Referral Process for ACT services and is approved for entry. This includes notification of first appointment.
(4) “Assertive Community Treatment” or “ACT” means an intensive and highly integrated Community-Based outpatient service. It is expected in Oregon that a certified ACT Program upholds the integrity of the evidence-based practice and recovery-oriented mental health service by being held to a fidelity standard based on the Division approved fidelity scale. This service is a trauma-informed & person-centered approach with a Multidisciplinary Team concept.
(5) “Community-Based” means services and supports that must be provided in a setting that is not the ACT Teams office space or building. The term “Community” is intended to be centered on the participant’s dwelling and/or locations the participant deems or approves as having a common characteristic or other form of connection. This includes but not limited to virtual telehealth, or public settings where the participant feels comfortable.
(6) “Competitive Integrated Employment” means full-time or part time work with the following criteria:
(a) At minimum wage or higher;
(b) At a rate that is not less than the customary rate paid by the employer for the same or similar work performed by other employees;
(c) With eligibility for the level of benefits provided to other employees;
(d) Internships that are open to anyone. This includes work-study opportunities with colleges and or trade schools;
(e) Seasonal employment that is consistent with that industry of work;
(f) Self-Employment if income is reported to the government and taxes could be filed;
(g) Employment gained through temporary agencies that other community members utilize is counted only if that temporary agency and/or the industry of employment typically hires from that temporary services. This avenue does not replace the Employment Specialists roles nor can tasks that are expected to be provided by the Employment Specialist be delegated to that temporary agency. The temporary agency’s tasks or coordination on behalf of the participant will not count nor be taken into consideration during a fidelity review.
(h) When the work or employment supports are integrated by way of being added to an existing or become part of a new Mental Health treatment plan.
(7) “Comprehensive Evaluation” means the analytic evaluation process that the ACT clinician must do when they are determining if ACT services are the appropriate level of care. This evaluation is evident during the Screening phase within the Standardized Referral Process or if a transfer of care is warranted (either heighten or reduced acuity level). This evaluation may include gathering collateral information in the form of additional documentation or through verbal communication by way of. interviewing key stakeholders consisting of both Informal & Natural Supports.
(a) The methods of how this evaluation is conducted is at the discretion of the ACT clinician and or their behavioral health agency policy to allow autonomy in making final determinations on referrals, or closure of services.
(b)This evaluation is a key component if any final determinations are also in need of additional level of care recommendation(s).
(c) Information to be gained during this evaluation should at minimum include the following:
(A) Current and/or past mental health symptom(s) and executive functional status;
(B) Effectiveness of past treatment(s);
(C) Current treatment, rehabilitation, and/or what support would be needed in order to achieve person-centered and self-directed goals and recovery; and
(D) The range of the persons individual strengths (e.g., knowledge gained from dealing with adversity, personal attributes, professional roles, talents, personal traits, etc).
(8) “Co-Occurring Disorders (COD) Specialist” means the staff identified within the ACT Team as the core staffing requirement, to conduct integrated assessments and create treatment strategies for ACT Participants who have been identified as having a co-occurring mental health and substance use condition(s). This team member must have proper credentials per Behavioral Health Outpatient OAR’s: Chapter 309, Division 019 Section 0145 in the State of Oregon.
(9) Crisis Plan: A document securely stored for proper accessibility by all ACT Team members and/or the identified entity who is delegated for any crisis response for ACT participants which is meant to maintain integrity of the ACT model and treatment service delivery. The document must clearly be identifiable as the Crisis Plan for that individual, however, could be included/identified as a section within the Strength-Based Treatment plan or a completely separate document at minimum, it must include:
(a) Identification of known triggers or known risk factors (e.g. history of aggression, self-harm etc.)
(b) Intervention tactics or strategies that are recommended to defuse, de-escalate participants to reduce the likelihood of self-inflicted harm or harm to bystanders present during the crisis.
(c) Current medications and any known allergies.
(d) Key contacts that may be needed during a crisis event such as emergency-medical personnel, relevant staff/person to contact if situation warrants the need for judicial escalation pathway or emergency commitment and Participant’s Guardian, Power of Attorney and/or emergency contact(s).
(e) All recommended interventions or strategies need to be precise language and written in a way for quick referencing for adequate implementation to promote safety for participant, bystanders and ACT/crisis staff.
(10) “Division” means the Behavioral Health Division within Adult Mental Health of the Oregon Health Authority.
(11) “Division Approved Reviewer” means the entity that is selected by the Division to conduct selected ACT functions based on the Divisions discretion to support ACT programs statewide.
(12) “Employment Specialist” means for ACT, the staff identified on the ACT Team to provide Employment Support Services per (39) of this ruleset and is considered part of the ACT Multidisciplinary Team based on fidelity. This staff can be a contracted position or employed within the behavioral health agency that offers ACT services.
(13) “Face to Face” means fa personal interaction, where communication between at least two-person(s) can be had either physically in-person or virtually through telehealth services per Medicaid OAR 410-120-1990 rule set. Virtual Telehealth meetings for Face-to-Face therapy fidelity measurement purposes will be counted and accepted as face-to-face if documentation supports the meeting followed Medicaid standards including verification of client. If telehealth is used in any manner to deliver quality ACT services, the ACT Team Member is required to have their camera on for the full duration of encounter to promote presence & commitment to rapport building, transparency for HIPAA compliance on participants right to know who they are meeting with and allowing visibility of non-verbal cues.
(14) “Fidelity” means the ACT Program is able to reproduce intended outcomes by delivering services that are aligned with the evidence-based model and guidance within the Chapter 309, Division 19 ACT rule set 0225 through 0255.
(15) “Fidelity Tool(s)” are any documents used when initiating or conducting a fidelity review for a behavioral health provider who is certified to implement ACT service. They can include, but not limited to approved fidelity scale, team or client survey’s or anything that contributes to gaining information to fully evaluate programs for fidelity based on the Division approved fidelity scale. All tools must be approved through appropriate Division Designee prior to becoming part of the fidelity process.
(16) “Fixed Point of Responsibility” means the ACT Team provides essentially all needed mental health treatment services, rather than sending participants to different service deliveries. The term “different” in this context includes other service deliveries even if they are within the same agency of the ACT team. If the ACT Team cannot provide a needed treatment service as a result of lacking the specialty licensure requirement for the treatment, the program will accommodate and delegate this treatment service to appropriate service support, despite any impacts to their fidelity rating to avoid negative impacts to the participant(s) health & wellbeing if that treatment was unavailable.
(17) “Frontier ACT Team” for ACT services means the ACT Team capacity or clients served is predominantly in a geographical area with six or fewer people per square mile.
(18) “Full-Time Equivalent” or “FTE” means for ACT fidelity purposes, is a way to calculate and measure the client to staff ratio for an ACT Team. Staff members identified to dedicate time to ACT specific duties will be measured based on a 40-hour work week regardless of their job description or agency policies for FTE status. The consistency of using 40 hours ensures equitable evaluation and ratings for all Teams within the State.
(19) “Hospital Discharge Planning” means the collaboration between the ACT Team, the Oregon State Hospital (OSH) or any other acute care psychiatric hospital for care coordination, and discharge planning, through a person-centered planning process for active ACT Participant’s or individuals seeking to receive ACT services through the Standardized Referral Process.
(20) “Informal Support System” means a person(s) outside of ACT Team that is identified as a key influence or involved person(s) by the participant or ACT staff for the purposes of treatment planning. This person (often another professional) can include a, landlord, shelter staff, or employer
(21) “Large ACT Team” means an ACT team that has between 80 to 120 individuals actively enrolled in services.
(22) “Life Skills Training” means the modeling & training from the ACT staff to support Participants in developing the necessary and meaningful skills and delivered with the intention to promote independence, self-direction and contribute to enhancement of Participants quality of life within their community and social environments.
(23) “Medication Administration” means for ACT services when an ACT team member dispenses and must take several action steps directly with the participant by way of required intended use of the medication in order for the participant to receive and/or ingest the medication. This can include dispensing single or multiple doses, injections or direct application.
(a) This can also include if ACT Team need to provide verbal cues or step by step instructions during the active motion of taking the medication because of the Participants limited executive function capabilities or if there are other factors that contribute to the need for a safety protocol. Safety protocols must be documented by an Oregon qualified medical or clinical licensed professional.
(b) Administration does not include a hand-to-hand transfer, pass off or drop off to a participant.
(24) “Medication Management” means for ACT services can include the prescribing, storing and evaluating and/or monitoring for side effects. In addition, this can also include providing medication education by way of life-skills training tasks that will support a Participant learn to become independent in all medication needs which requires full knowledge of proper management. For the purposes of ACT, Medication Management is a collaborative effort to promote shared decision making between the Participant and the prescribing psychiatrist or psychiatric nurse practitioner. Other staff who contribute to this task:
(a) The nurse or staff with proper licensing on the ACT team is recommended to manage & coordinate the overall medication system including ensuring adherence and compliance of storage & accountability tracking if the agency stores medications on site
(b) Other staff may contribute to Medicaid Management by way of verifying pill count during home visits, physically brining medications to the participant for hand off or drop off and other minimal avenues based on Oregon standards per their credentials.
(25) “Mid-Size Act Team” means an ACT team that has between 41 and 79 individuals actively enrolled.
(26) “Natural Supports” means personal associations and relationships typically developed in the community that enhance the quality and security of life for Participants. This includes but not limited to family relationships, friendships reflecting the diversity of the neighborhood and the community, association with fellow students or coworkers in regular classrooms, and associations developed though participation in clubs, organizations, and other civic activities.
(27) “Priority Service Population” for ACT services is the criteria for triaging purposes to ensure those individuals with a serious and persistent mental illness are connected to services as quickly as possible and prioritized based on acuity level. ACT services are designed for is adults 18years of age or older who have a primary diagnosis per the current DSM of at least one of the following:
(a) Schizophrenia Spectrum Disorders including Schizoaffective;
(b) Bipolar
(c) Major Depressive Disorder and/or Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder present with psychotic symptomatic features that negatively impact daily living or level of functioning.
(d) Obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD) inclusive with persistent & intrusive thoughts contributing to long-term poor insight that negatively impacts daily living activities.
(28) “Projection Fidelity” is a mock or unofficial fidelity review with the objective of providing a hypothetical fidelity score. This report is intended to provide a baseline snapshot of that Teams implementation mirroring a rehearsal or preparation training. to create a Technical Assistance plan with identified steps the ACT Team can take to replicate the service delivery model, while also providing highlights of accomplishments.
(29) “Psychiatry Services” means the prescribing, administering and reviewing of medications and their side effects, including both pharmacological management as well as supports and training to the individual. Psychiatry services shall be provided by a psychiatrist, or a psychiatric nurse practitioner licensed by the Oregon Medical Board.
(30) “Rural ACT Team” means the ACT Team’s capacity or clients served, are predominantly in a geographical area with ten or more miles from a population center of 40,000 people or more.
(31) “Screening” for ACT services is the second step of the Standardized Referral Process. It is the comprehensive evaluation per (21) of this rule set. At minimum screenings must include a Face-to-Face interview conducted by an ACT clinician with qualified credentials to evaluate both the diagnostic and level of functioning eligibility criteria. The Screening phase may also include:
(a) Obtaining additional information from other sources that are not the referring party;
(b) Care Coordination meetings or community networking to identified legal authority (e.g. parole, probation offer, etc.) who could later become Informal Supports if admission is granted.
(c) If efforts are made to obtain additional items listed in (a) & (b) of this ruleset, there cannot be any delay in communication or final determination per the Standardized Referral Process’ in 0248.
(32) “Single Point of Contact (SPOC)” means the entity that is not directly part of the certified ACT Team and designated to orchestrate the receipt of the Universal Referral Form on behalf of the ACT Team to streamline ease of access for the community. This coordination of supports can be in collaboration with the Coordinated Care Organizations (CCO) or even within the same agency as the ACT Team. Team.
(33) “Small ACT Team” means an ACT team that has between 10 to 40 individuals actively enrolled.
(34) “Strength-Based treatment Plan” means for ACT a document that has the clinical and health relevant information about the participant and is, stored in a secured, central location so that ACT Team members can gain access as needed to support them in planning interactions with participant. It is an evolving document and be updated as often as necessary to ensure content is current. This includes at minimum, any information deemed relevant during the Comprehensive Evaluation, (7) of this rule set, in addition to the following:
(a) Itemized person-centered and/or self-directed goals that clearly identify realistic benchmark(s) for achievement based on participants executive functioning levels and future oriented thinking capacity to ensure their contribution to agreement and to support when/if treatment plan is referenced to participant by any of the ACT Team members.
(b) The benchmarks will be focused on participant preferences and cannot be used as a mechanism for enforcing any sort of compliance to receive or maintain ACT services.
(c) It must be formatted in a culturally and linguistically specific way as identified by the ACT Participant.
(35) “Telehealth” means ACT Team provides Face-to-Face services that are delivered using secure HIPAA compliant audio and video communication. All allowable accommodations will be made for any individuals with any hearing, visual or physical impairments or disabilities who agree to utilize services in this manner per Medicaid compliance within OAR 410-120-1990 rule set.
(36) “Time-unlimited Services” means services that are not provided based on predetermined timelines but based on medically appropriateness.
(37) “Urban ACT Team” means for ACT services the ACT Team capacity or clients served is predominantly in a geographical area that is less than 10 miles from the center of a population center of 40,000 people or more.
(38) “Vocational Services” means the duties performed by the Employment Specialist that leads to Competitive Integrated Employment as defined in this rule set (6).
(39) “Waitlisted” means for ACT services when an individual is deemed eligible for ACT services, however, cannot be admitted as a result of the ACT Team having an active enrollment count at the highest capacity per their team size ratio size based on OAR 309-019-0225(21,24,30).
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.630
- BHS 29-2025, amend filed 12/29/2025, effective 01/01/2026
- BHS 17-2025, amend filed 06/25/2025, effective 06/29/2025
- BHS 32-2024, temporary amend filed 12/27/2024, effective 01/01/2025 through 06/29/2025
- BHS 44-2023, amend filed 12/22/2023, effective 01/01/2024
- MHS 4-2018, amend filed 02/27/2018, effective 03/01/2018
- MHS 10-2017(Temp), f. 9-15-17, cert. ef. 9-15-17 thru 3-13-18
- MHS 6-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
- MHS 1-2017(Temp), f. 1-17-17, cert. ef. 1-18-17 thru 7-16-17
- MHS 26-2016(Temp), f. 12-27-16, cert. ef. 12-28-16 thru 6-23-17
- MHS 18-2016, f. 11-28-16, cert. ef. 11-30-16
- MHS 11-2016(Temp), f. 6-29-16, cert. ef. 7-1-16 thru 12-27-16
Or. Admin. R. 309-019-0226 Assertive Community Treatment (ACT) Overview
(1) The ACT Model is an evidence-based practice with a specified Service Priority Population per 309-019-0225(28) and is implemented as a Community Based service. This service delivery is designed to be a long-term support; therefore, is not intended to be a solution for an immediate or short-term crisis. The clinical evaluation is comprised of specific criteria Oregon’s ACT Teams are expected to:
(a) Operate as a Multidisciplinary Team and Fixed-Point of Responsibility per OAR 309-019-0225(16);
(b) Operate as close to recommended best practice of at least 10:1 client to staff ratio for Urban teams and 7:1 for Rural and Frontier, to consistently provide necessary staffing diversity and coverage.
(c) Provide time-unlimited services;
(d) Be flexible with service delivery;
(e) 24/7 crisis availability.
(2) ACT Programs must adhere to the following:
(a) Providing explicit admission criteria that aligns with Oregon Administrative Rules (OAR) with the Service Priority Population as defined in 309-019- 0225 (28) utilizing the Universal Referral Form provided by the Division per 309-019-0248;
(b) The admission process and Universal Referral Form must be published for any public person(s) and/or community partners to freely access on program websites to ensure equitable access. This includes promoting the no-wrong-door concept by providing quality customer service for requests of services from non-behavioral health individuals (family members, shelter staff or self-referrals) then routing appropriately to eliminate unintended barriers due to lack of knowledge of the complexities of behavioral health system.
(c) Provide a space for group therapy and/or skill building workshops for participants. These spaces can be in agency owned buildings; however, majority of other service delivery of ACT need to take place within a community setting outside of an office-like atmosphere as intended.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390, 413.042, 430.256 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 161.390 - 161.400, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.010, 430.205- 430.210, 430.254 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955 & 743A.168
- BHS 29-2025, amend filed 12/29/2025, effective 01/01/2026
- BHS 17-2025, amend filed 06/25/2025, effective 06/29/2025
- BHS 32-2024, temporary amend filed 12/27/2024, effective 01/01/2025 through 06/29/2025
- BHS 44-2023, amend filed 12/22/2023, effective 01/01/2024
- MHS 4-2018, amend filed 02/27/2018, effective 03/01/2018
- MHS 10-2017(Temp), f. 9-15-17, cert. ef. 9-15-17 thru 3-13-18
- MHS 6-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
- MHS 1-2017(Temp), f. 1-17-17, cert. ef. 1-18-17 thru 7-16-17
- MHS 26-2016(Temp), f. 12-27-16, cert. ef. 12-28-16 thru 6-23-17
Or. Admin. R. 309-019-0231 ACT Program Operational Standards
(1) Operate continuous 24/7 crisis coverage as defined in OAR 309-019-0225. That includes direct after-hours on-call system with staff experienced in skilled crisis intervention procedures.
(a) The ACT team will ensure that ACT Participant crisis calls are triaged and if needed, the ACT Team is available to respond accordingly depending on the level of urgency of the crisis. This availability includes de-escalation through telephone or virtual platform or in person dispatch depending on the initial method of communication the participant(s) utilized to reach out for supports and protocol for escalation. This will require staff who are responsible for triaging to have direct access to Crisis Plan per 309-019-0225(9).
(b) ACT Participants shall have information provided to them, as often as needed for retention purposes, and a single crisis access pathway for them to seek support if/when needed. If the ACT Team is utilizing a third party to assist in meeting this requirement, ; the ACT Team will need to ensure appropriate HIPAA agreements are in place to release the Crisis Plan to the third party and that the ACT Participants are aware that respondents of this portion of services will not be from the ACT Team.
(c) ACT program staff shall document any crisis dispatches or calls the team receives within the participant’s chart as soon as possible. Items to include but not limited to identify location, description of situation & individual, any relevant parties and outcome. If the ACT Team receives care coordination notification that a third party received a crisis call or responded to a crisis call for an ACT Participant, the ACT Team will document in participants chart all forwarding information from third party within 24hrs of receiving information so that proper follow up from ACT Team can occur.
(d) If the ACT staff respond to a call and are in need of additional supports, ACT staff may coordinate with other Mental Health community programs and/or Law Enforcement to ensure the crisis is properly handled for safety of the individual and any bystanders. Collaboration and resourcing out to obtain additional supports during a crisis will exempt an ACT Team from adhering to being a Fixed Point of Responsibility per OAR 309-019-0225(16) as long as it is documented why additional supports were needed.
(2) Service Intensity:
(a) The ACT team shall have the capacity to provide the frequency and duration of staff-to-participant Face to Face contacts as clinically deemed necessary in alignment with evidence-based model which is captured on the fidelity scale.
(b) The ACT team shall have the capacity to increase and decrease Face to Face contacts based upon assessment needs as the goal is to maximize independence when possible;
(c) The team shall have the capacity to provide multiple contacts to participants in high need and a rapid response to early signs of relapse.
(d) Natural supports and Informal Support System contacts as defined in OAR 309-019-0225 will be utilized as part of the treatment goal at the participants discretion of communicating HIPAA protected information.
(e) The ACT team Psychiatrist and the Psychiatric Nurse Practitioner (PNP) shall have scheduling flexibility to accommodate individual needs. If the participant approves & is comfortable, the Psychiatrist or PNP can provide services as clinically indicated for through Telehealth.
(f) The ACT team shall have the capacity to provide services via group modalities that are at minimum, Face to Face as defined 309-019-0225(13).
(3) The ACT Team shall ensure that services are designed to meet participants cultural and linguistic needs and are developmentally appropriate. This includes collaboration and/or MOUs with local Tribal Communities or other diverse community partners within the ACT program’s service area that would benefit participants treatment goals.
(4) Core staffing requirements for ACT teams:
(a) ACT is a low client/staff ratio that is recommended to not exceed 10:1; if there is a vacancy longer than 30 calendar days that impacts this ratio, the program must communicate this to Division Approved Reviewer to discuss possibility of submitting a Variance to The Division per 309-019-0240 and seek Technical Assistance and support on filling that core position to ensure quality of evidence-based services.
(b) A single ACT program will not serve more than 120 participants.
(c) ACT Program must hire the appropriate number of staff to meet the minimum 1:10 staff ratio for individuals served.
(d) Programs may not create multiple teams unless the program is at or above the 120 individuals served unless:
(A) this was permitted by The Division under the previous rules update prior to 2023;
(B) The service area spans across large geographical landscape or
(C) The program expands services to a specialized targeted population that is person centered, and an additional team is needed to meet that need.
(e) A Small ACT Team per OAR 309-019-0225(34) is recommended to have no more than 10 staff
(f) A Mid-Size ACT Team per OAR 309-019-0225(26 is recommended to have no more than 12 staff
(g) A Large ACT Team per OAR 309-019-0225(22) is recommended to have no more than 14 staff.
(5) No individual ACT staff member shall be assigned less than .20 FTE for their role on the team.
(6) ACT Team must include at minimum, the following Core team members in order to fully implement ACT services:
(a) A primary Team Lead position per team. The team leader is a certified QMHP per OAR 309-019-0125 who is qualified to provide supervision for the clinical ACT staff.
(b) A Psychiatric Care Provider (Psychiatrist or PNP) whose FTE is calculated using the client to staff ratio based on geographical area of services and The Division approved fidelity scale. This staff must be licensed by the State of Oregon.
(c) A Nurse whose FTE is calculated using the client to staff ratio based on geographical area of services and The Division approved fidelity scale. The nurse must be licensed by the Oregon Board of Nursing. If there are more than two nursing staff for the ACT Team, it is recommended to have at least one Registered Nurse
(d) An Integrated Co-Occurring Specialist (ICOD) whose FTE is calculated using the client to staff ratio based on geographical area of services and on The Division approved fidelity scale. The ICOD must maintain compliance with OAR 309-019-0145.
(e) An Employment Specialist FTE is calculated using the client to staff ratio based on geographical area of services based on The Division Approved Fidelity Scale. An Employment Specialist competency shall include all Vocational Services for the ACT Participants by;
(A) Completing a Career Profile and document any sort of follow-along;
(B) Utilizing skillset for job exploration and matching potential Competitive Employment, per OAR 309-019-0225 rule set, opportunities to Participants based on self-directed decisions
(C) Maintain data and tracking of job start & end dates for all ACT participants who utilized this service.
(D) Support Participants in mitigating employment obstacles by way of transparency and networking to ensure participants have been properly informed of all legal rights as it pertains to earned income and required reporting.
(f) Certified Peer Support Specialist or Peer Wellness Specialist as described in OAR 410-180-0300 to 0380 and defined in OAR 309-019-0105(81) and 309-019-0105(84). A registry of certified Peer Support Specialist Specialists and Peer Wellness Specialists may be found at the Office of Equity and Inclusion’s Traditional Health Worker’s website.
(g) The ACT Team may identify other mental health Generalists staff as deemed necessary to account for treatment needs and client/staff ratio calculations. These staff will have identified roles per the evidence-based practice to account for being a Fixed-Point of Responsibility.
(7) ACT Team Staffing Core Competencies:
(a) Upon hiring, all clinical staff on an ACT team shall have experience in providing direct services related to the treatment and recovery of individuals with a serious and persistent mental illness. Clinical staff shall have demonstrated competencies in clinical documentation and engagement interventions;
(b) All new staff shall complete ACT 101 within the first three-months of hire from the Division Approved Reviewer. Any staff who are a direct part of the referral & intake process shall complete the Standardize Referral Process training from the Division within two-months of hire.
(c) Attend & complete identified trainings within the ACT Programs technical assistance plan.
(8) The ACT team shall conduct organizational staff meetings with intention to include as many ACT Team Members as possible.
(a) The ACT team will go over the roster of the participants served with triaging highest acuity in the program; and
(b) Make necessary updates to document contacts made by multidisciplinary team that have occurred during the last 24 hours and a concise, behavioral description of the individual’s status.
(9) The ACT team shall conduct treatment planning meetings under the supervision of the team lead that include the input from the Psychiatrist or PNP. These treatment planning meetings shall maintain compliance with ASAM or Certificate of Approval. If participants need have a significant fluctuation the ACT Team will make appropriate updates. The Division recommends more frequent meetings on new admissions. The ACT Participants presence is needed to ensure the identified treatment plan is an approved pathway for the individual and attainable;
(10) A Comprehensive Assessment and Strength-Based Treatment Plan is completed upon each individual’s admission to the ACT program
(11) Service note or episode content need to include at minimum:
(a) Any relevant intervention tactics used, activity of event, or goal-oriented skill building;
(b) Be entered any time the ACT team has contact with participants. Other information that can be included:
(A) Type of contact;
(B) Place of service;
(C) Purpose of the contact or how contact was initiated;
(D) Assessment of the effectiveness of the intervention and the individual’s progress towards the individual’s goal.
(E) Identify the ACT Team member who provided the service.
(12) Medication Management provided by the ACT Program shall include at minimum the following:
(a) A written order signed by a prescribing practitioner is required for any medical treatment and medications managed by the Multidisciplinary Team.
(b) A logbook that is kept in a secure location that has at minimum:
(A) The name of the medication
(B) The format of ingestion of the medication;
(C) The dosage and quantity of the medication;
(D) The frequency of need for the medication;
(c) Medications held and/or stored by the ACT Program must all be clearly labeled and properly secured utilizing a locking mechanism with clear protocols to track access. This needs to include at minimum the following:
(E) Documentation tracker of access of staff retrieving medications, staff who will be providing the Medication Supports for self-administers and full count of what is taken off site; then compared upon return what medications were accepted by the participant and what medications the participant declined.
(F) Written protocols for disposal of medications per all state and federal laws so that disposal of these medications to prevent anyone from retrieving the discarded medications.
(G) Medications held and/or stored by the ACT Program may not be withheld or used as reinforcement or punishment or in quantities that are excessive in relation to the amount prescribed to attain the participants best possible functioning.
(13) If the participant is able to self-administer but requires verbal interventions such as directions or cueing support for safety in order to self-administer the medication; the ACT Program staff must document information in the participants record what medications were given, any relevant observations and/or any identified risk factors that transpired during medication supports. This will allow for improvement efforts for medication education and proper administrative oversite of task.
(a) Any ACT staff who provides Medication Administration per OAR 309-019-0225(25) to ACT Participant must have proper the appropriate medical training, credentials and be licensed in Oregon and comply with all federal and state requirements.
(b) Any staff who provides Medication Administration or Medication Management by means of hand-to-hand drop off must have proper first aid and CPR training and ensure all communication, changes or concerns are communicated to ACT Medical team members.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.630
- BHS 29-2025, adopt filed 12/29/2025, effective 01/01/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-019-0233 Initiating ACT Certification
(1) In order to be eligible for Medicaid or State General Funds for ACT reimbursement, ACT services shall be provided only by those programs meeting the following minimum qualifications:
(2) The provider shall hold and maintain an official Accreditation issued by the Division established in OAR Chapter 309, Division 008 and maintain compliance with Outpatient Certificate of Agreement; and
(3) The provider must maintain compliance with OAR’s 309-019-0225 through 309-019-0255 for the purposes of providing ACT services as intended; and
(4) A provider certified to provide ACT services must be reviewed for fidelity adherence by the Division Approved Reviewer and may not bill Medicaid nor use General Funds for the provision of ACT services unless they complete the fidelity review process as outlined within OAR 309-019-0235.
(5) Re-certification is driven by the program's compliance with the required fidelity review process as outlined in 309-019-0235. Failure to comply with the fidelity review; will result in automatic de-certification and the program will no longer be allowed to promote themselves as an ACT provider within the State of Oregon nor or able to obtain funding that is specified for ACT Services.
(6) A program seeking to become a Provisional Provider can do so by following the outlined procedure:
(a) A program must already hold a certification of approval under OAR chapter 309, division 008;
(b) At minimum, the program must have the Team Lead, ICOD and one of the two core medical specialty staff hired. The hired staff must attend and complete ACT 101 training from the Division or the Division Approved Reviewer prior to letter of request per this OAR set (4).
(7) Provisional status must be requested in writing on agency letter head by the intended program leadership and submitted to the Division Designee and at minimum include the following:
(a) Geographical location(s) of intended service areas
(b) First and last names of hired staff including their credentials, role on ACT Team and full-time equivalent status dedicated to implementing ACT services.
(A) If said program only has the minimum required staff at time of provisional letter submission, they must include identifying which core specialized staff positions are vacant and
(B) Identify the platform those vacant positions are advertised on to reflect their intent to hire.
(c) Intended size of ACT team per OAR 309-019-0225(34,26,22), this is not to be mistaken as the intended capacity. If the team size is not referenced, the letter will be considered incomplete and returned.
(d) Any specific/specialized target population demographic’s (i.e. Young Adult, culturally specific, etc.),
(e) Letter of support from Division Approved Reviewer that confirms 1(c)(A)(B) and (C) of this rule set.
(f) The request must be submitted outlining the anticipated or goal of start that in the future as the Division Designee has 30 days to evaluate status of certificate of agreement and verify staff credentials.
(8) If approved, the newly Provisional Provider will have full access to ongoing intensive Technical Support will on a weekly basis There is an expectation to have all core staff hired per OAR 309-019-0230_ within four-months of Provisional Status approval. This will be tracked through TA check-ins.
(9) In the sixth month of Provisional status, the ACT Program will receive a condensed Projection Fidelity review per OAR 309-019-0225(27) to properly build a comprehensive technical assistance plan and prepare for the first fidelity review.
(10) The Division may extend Provisional status for up to one-year from the projection date if the outcome is reflective of a high-fidelity functioning team.
(11) Provisional Providers are allowed to obtain ACT funding if maintaining per requirements.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390, 413.042, 430.256, ORS 109.675 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: 161.390 - 161.400, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955 & 743A.168
- BHS 29-2025, amend filed 12/29/2025, effective 01/01/2026
- BHS 17-2025, amend filed 06/25/2025, effective 06/29/2025
- BHS 32-2024, temporary amend filed 12/27/2024, effective 01/01/2025 through 06/29/2025
- BHS 44-2023, adopt filed 12/22/2023, effective 01/01/2024
Or. Admin. R. 309-019-0235 ACT Fidelity Requirements
(1) All programs Certified or granted Provisional Status to provide ACT services shall be reviewed for fidelity adherence by the Division Approved Reviewer and may not bill Medicaid or use General Funds for the provision of ACT services unless they achieve a rating at the minimum benchmark or higher per this rule set based on the Division approved fidelity scale. Extension of a certification period has no bearing on the frequency or scope of fidelity reviews or re-certification reviews required under OAR chapter 309, division 008.
(2) All changes to any fidelity or best practice guidance tools or fidelity procedures by the Division Approved Reviewer must be communicated to the Division per contractual agreements prior to being implemented or promoted to ACT Programs.
(3) All applicable Fidelity Tools used to create the comprehensive fidelity outcome report shall be provided to an ACT Program at least 45 calendar days prior to scheduled fidelity review. The only exception to this notification will be if a provider has received a Plan of Correction per OAR chapter 309, division 008 that was created outside the scope of an ACT fidelity review and the Division requires ACT fidelity as an addendum with the noted violations or non-compliance items.
(4) Every ACT Program will be provided a comprehensive fidelity review report within 30 calendar days of the last day of the onsite fidelity review conducted by the Division Approved Reviewer.
(5) If the ACT Program is currently serving participants from a designated CCO, that CCO can request to be included when the report is published to the ACT Program and Division.
(6) To comply with Oregon Transparency statutes, any requests made by a public citizen for past fidelity reports shall comply with the Request for Information and Public Records Request per chapter 410, division 120 and will not be granted permission from the Division Approved Reviewer under any circumstances. These requests, if made, will be transferred to the Division Designee for appropriate response and guidance to obtain public records. Any reports provided through the Request for Information and Public Records Request protocols will ensure that proper actions be taken to de-identify data and include redacting Individually Identifying Information per 943-014-0000 prior to releasing.
(7) All ACT Programs, whether certified or have Provisional approval, must achieve the following minimum ratings on the Division approved fidelity scale in order to continue being recognized as an ACT Provider:
(a) Urban area ACT programs per OAR 309-019-0225(38) rating of no less than 3.4 out of a 5
(b) Rural and Frontier ACT programs per OAR 309-019-0225(17 & 31) _ rating no less than 3.2 out of a 5.
(8) If the ACT Program successfully accomplishes a 4.2 out of a 5-fidelity rating, they will be deemed a High Functioning ACT Program and incentivized with a three-year ACT Certification.
(a) During this three-year period, the ACT Program will have conditions within their certification to maintain contact with The Division Approved Reviewer,
(b) Uphold the integrity of ACT model and
(c) Any other items deemed necessary by the Division.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390, 413.042, 430.256 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: 430.254 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955, 743A.168, ORS 161.390 - 161.400, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.010 & 430.205 - 430.210
- BHS 29-2025, amend filed 12/29/2025, effective 01/01/2026
- BHS 17-2025, amend filed 06/25/2025, effective 06/29/2025
- BHS 32-2024, temporary amend filed 12/27/2024, effective 01/01/2025 through 06/29/2025
- BHS 44-2023, amend filed 12/22/2023, effective 01/01/2024
- MHS 4-2018, amend filed 02/27/2018, effective 03/01/2018
- MHS 10-2017(Temp), f. 9-15-17, cert. ef. 9-15-17 thru 3-13-18
- MHS 6-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
- MHS 1-2017(Temp), f. 1-17-17, cert. ef. 1-18-17 thru 7-16-17
- MHS 18-2016, f. 11-28-16, cert. ef. 11-30-16
- MHS 11-2016(Temp), f. 6-29-16, cert. ef. 7-1-16 thru 12-27-16
Or. Admin. R. 309-019-0240 ACT Failure to Meet Fidelity Standards
(1) If a Certified or Provisional Status ACT program does not achieve the minimum fidelity rating per their geographical service area based on OAR 309-019-0235 the following shall occur:
(a) Within 14 calendar days, unless otherwise extended by the Division, the Division Approved Reviewer will coordinate & host a meeting with The ACT Program and the Division Designee, to discuss the outcome of the fidelity review and collectively develop a technical assistance plan.
(b) If a CCO requests to be involved, the host/scheduler shall forward the invite to the CCO timely.
(c) The technical Assistance (TA) plan must include all items within the fidelity comprehensive report that received a rating of a two or below in the following subscale categories:
(A) Operations and Structure,
(B) Core Practices Subscale,
(C) Evidence-Based Practices Subscale and
(D) Person-Centered Planning & Practices Subscale.
(d) If the Division has identified any non-compliance or other regulatory violations per OAR’s 309-019-0225 through 0255 or any other applicable statutes, administrative rules, or other regulations, these items will be added to the TA plan as addendum items by the Division Designee and/or the Division Licensing and Certification;
(2) The Division Approved Reviewer must provide technical assistance for a period of 90 calendar days from the date of the fidelity review publication to address areas identified in the technical assistance plan.
(3) The Division will extend certification on a temporary basis for the 90 days period to ensure there are no impacts to billing during the technical assistance period with anticipation that corrections to program operations will be made.
(4) At the end of the 90-day technical assistance period, The Division Approved Reviewer shall conduct a follow-up re-review which will include only the identified subscale topics identified within the TA Plan created within this rule set in addition to the Core Team Subscale section to verify integrity and intent to implement the other subscale items on fidelity scale.
(5) Within 30 calendar days following the fidelity re-review, the Division Approved Reviewer shall provide a comprehensive amended fidelity report to the Division and the ACT program.
(a) If the ACT Program currently serves participants who are members of a CCO, unless otherwise specified in a private contract with that CCO, the ACT Program shall send a copy of the amended fidelity re-review report to the appropriate CCO within 7 calendar days following issuance of that amended fidelity report.
(b) If the ACT Program achieves the minimum rating or higher per OAR 309-019-0235 on the fidelity re-review and all other applicable statutes, administrative rules, or other regulations, the Division can approve the program for ACT Accreditation for two-years of original fidelity month.
(6) If a Provisional Status Provider per OAR 309-019-0233 does not achieve the minimum fidelity rating on their first fidelity review, the provider has seven calendar days to communicate to the Division one of the following:
(a) Accept conclusion and reapply for Provisional Status;
(b) Appeal the conclusion in writing on their agency letter head with date stamp to the Division Designee and request a re-assessment.
(c) No longer publicize or in any way promote agency as an ACT accredited service provider and agree to follow all necessary steps per OAR 309-019-0250 Transitions to lower level of care or care coordinate transfer of clients to a neighboring accredited ACT Team.
(7) Re-Reviews for Provisional Providers must occur within 45 calendar days of appeal receipt by the Division.
(8) The Division may deny, revoke, suspend or place conditions on the programs ACT Accreditation if the re-review results in a rating that is below 2.5 out of 5 or the Division has identified a regulatory non-compliance issue per certificate of approval.
(9) Congruent with the process outlined in section (1) above, if the Division determines a program is operating outside of compliance with all applicable statutes, administrative rules or other regulations, the Division may require the program to submit a Plan of Correction (POC). The Division shall provide written notice of the requirement to submit a POC and the program shall submit a POC according to the following terms:
(a) The program shall submit a POC to the Division and the appropriate CCO within 30 days of receiving a notice of requirement to submit a POC. The Division may issue up to a 90-day extension to the existing certification to allow the program to complete the POC process; and
(b) The POC shall address each finding of non-compliance and shall include:
(A) The planned action already taken, or to be taken, to correct each finding of non-compliance.
(B) The anticipated or requested timeframe for the completion of each corrective action not yet complete at the time of POC submission to the Division;
(C) A description of and plan for quality assurance activities intended to ensure ongoing compliance; and
(D) The name and role of the individual responsible for ensuring the implementation of each corrective action within the POC.
(10) If the Division finds that clarification or supplementation to the POC is required prior to approval, the Division shall contact the program to provide notice of requested clarification or supplementation, and the program shall submit an amended POC within 14 calendar days of receiving notification.
(a) The program must submit a sufficient POC approved by the Division prior to receiving a certificate. Upon the Division’s approval of the POC, the Division shall issue the appropriate certification.
(b) The Division may deny, revoke, suspend, not renew, or place conditions on the program’s certification and or accreditation if the program fails to submit an adequate POC within the timeframes established in this rule.
(11) When the Division determines the need to deny, revoke, not renew, or place conditions on the program’s accreditation issued under these rules, a notice of intent to take action on the accreditation shall be issued to the program.
(12) Immediate suspension may occur if the Division finds there is a serious danger to the public health and safety during a specified period of time and/or there is a substantial failure to comply with applicable statutes, administrative rules, or other applicable regulations.
(a) The program may request a contested case hearing to contest the immediate suspension order in accordance with ORS Chapter 183.
(b) Requests for a hearing must be received by the Division within 90 days from the date the immediate suspension order was served on the program personally, or by certified or registered mail.
(13) When the Division issues an Order of Suspension, a notice of intent to revoke, notice of intent to deny an application or notice of refusal to renew the certificate to a program pursuant to these rules, the Division shall offer the program an opportunity for an informal conference. The program shall make its request for an informal conference in writing within 14 calendar days of the issuance of the notice of intent or Order of Suspension.
(a) Upon receipt of a timely written request, the Division shall select a location and time for such conference. Following the conference, the Division may:
(A) withdraw or amend the notice of intent or suspension order; or
(B) not withdraw the notice of intent or suspension order.
(b) the Division shall provide written notice of its decision within 14 calendar days following the informal conference.
(14) A program who is issued a notice of intent to deny, revoke, refuse to renew, or apply a condition on programs certificate under these rules shall be entitled to request a hearing in accordance with ORS Chapter 183.
(15) A Variance per OAR 309-019-0220 and 309-008-1600 is not an allowable avenue in response to an agency’s inability to meet minimum fidelity rating for ACT service accreditation and may only be used for ACT Programs within context of OAR 309-019-0241.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 430.256 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 428.205 - 428.270, 430.010, 430.205- 430.210, 430.254 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955 & 743A.168
- BHS 29-2025, amend filed 12/29/2025, effective 01/01/2026
- BHS 17-2025, amend filed 06/25/2025, effective 06/29/2025
- BHS 32-2024, temporary amend filed 12/27/2024, effective 01/01/2025 through 06/29/2025
- BHS 44-2023, amend filed 12/22/2023, effective 01/01/2024
- MHS 4-2018, amend filed 02/27/2018, effective 03/01/2018
- MHS 10-2017(Temp), f. 9-15-17, cert. ef. 9-15-17 thru 3-13-18
- MHS 6-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
- MHS 26-2016(Temp), f. 12-27-16, cert. ef. 12-28-16 thru 6-23-17
- MHS 18-2016, f. 11-28-16, cert. ef. 11-30-16
- MHS 11-2016(Temp), f. 6-29-16, cert. ef. 7-1-16 thru 12-27-16
Or. Admin. R. 309-019-0241 Modification Requests to Existing Certification& Substitution Alternatives
(1) The Division may at its discretion, grant a waiver or variance of minimum ACT fidelity requirements and extend an ACT program’s certification period if the identified substitution or modification or program operations does not diminish the effectiveness of the ACT model, violate the purposes of the program, or adversely affect the program participants’ health and welfare:
(2) Waivers and Variances shall not be granted if they are inconsistent with the individual participant’s rights per OAR 309-019-0115 or any federal, state, or local laws and regulations;
(3) The Division shall review waivers and variances based on minimum fidelity requirements on a case-by-case basis.
(4) Waivers will be requested no later than the date of the fidelity follow up meeting per OAR 309-019-0240. The Division Designee will provide the appropriate form with instructions & deadline to submit Waiver request back to Division Designee.
(5) If the Waiver is approved by the Division, the provider will remain eligible to receive Medicaid and State General Fund reimbursement for ACT services as long as the provider engages and makes efforts to comply with technical assistance guidance by both the Division Approved Reviewer and Division Designee
(6) If the Waiver is approved, the extension to accreditation may not exceed 180 calendar days. As part of approval, the Division will acknowledge in writing that the 90-day re-review requirement in OAR 309-019-0240 will be suspended.
(a) At the end of the 180-day waiver period, the Division Approved Reviewer shall conduct a fidelity re-review of all areas on initial fidelity report that had a two or below rating and any areas that are out of compliance with OAR’s 309-019-0225 through 0255.
(b) If the program achieves the minimum rating on this fidelity re-review and meets the requirements of all applicable statutes, administrative rules or other regulations, the Division shall renew ACT Accreditation per OAR 309-019-0240.
(7) A waiver of minimum fidelity requirements may only be granted to ACT programs one time during their renewal of accreditation.
(8) If a program does not meet fidelity after a Waiver period the Division may immediately suspend or revoke certification.
(9) A Variance to communicate a modification or adaption to ACT operations must be done as a proactive step in order for the program to maintain the quality and integrity of ACT model standards as laid out in OAR’s 309-019-0225 through 0255.
(10) A Variance can be used to substitute core staffing and/or contract core staffing needs per OAR 309-019-0226 (1) & (2) and If a program does formulate a contract with a separate entity for core staffing positions to fulfill the ACT fidelity standards, a Variance must be submitted to Division within 30 calendar days of known agreement to ensure to identify ACT Multidisciplinary team includes external partners. The Variance submission should not include copies of private contracts or MOUs for ACT substitutions.
(11) A Variance submission must be submitted in at least 30 days prior to a scheduled fidelity review.
(12) The ACT Provider must be in good standing with Certificate of Approval per chapter 309, division 008 to be approved for a Variance.
(13) Variance approval period cannot exceed one calendar year.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 430.256 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.010, 430.205- 430.210, 430.254 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955 & 743A.168
- BHS 29-2025, amend filed 12/29/2025, effective 01/01/2026
- BHS 17-2025, amend filed 06/25/2025, effective 06/29/2025
- BHS 32-2024, temporary amend filed 12/27/2024, effective 01/01/2025 through 06/29/2025
- BHS 44-2023, amend filed 12/22/2023, effective 01/01/2024
- MHS 4-2018, amend filed 02/27/2018, effective 03/01/2018
- MHS 10-2017(Temp), f. 9-15-17, cert. ef. 9-15-17 thru 3-13-18
- MHS 6-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
- MHS 26-2016(Temp), f. 12-27-16, cert. ef. 12-28-16 thru 6-23-17
Or. Admin. R. 309-019-0245 ACT Admission Criteria
(1) ACT Programs will triage referrals based on the Service Priority Population per OAR 309-019-0225(28) and medically appropriate standard as designated in OAR 309-019-0105 with the following characteristics:
(a) Participants who meet the Service Priority Population per OAR 309-019-0225(28) are the primary target population for ACT services per evidence-based model; however, individuals with serious mental illness’ that are not listed as Service Priority Population should not be ruled out as a possible candidate for admission until properly evaluated. Primary diagnosis outside of the priority population will still need to meet the heightened acuity level of psychosis symptoms ACT model is designed to support.
(b) Individuals with a primary diagnosis of a substance use disorder intellectual developmental disabilities, traumatic brain injury, personality disorder, or an autism spectrum disorder are not the intended recipients of ACT. Diagnostic must include a primary within the Service Priority Population.
(2) Participants with significant level of executive functioning s as demonstrated by the following circumstances that is either reoccurring or confirmed to not be an isolated brief-episode as the interventions or circumstances would require minimum of 6 service hours a week:
(a) Significant difficulty consistently performing on an ongoing daily basis, the range of practical daily living tasks required for basic adult functioning or conflict with basic survival instincts (e.g., caring for personal business affairs; obtaining medical, legal, housing services; recognizing common dangers or hazards meeting nutritional needs; maintaining personal hygiene).
(b) Significant negative impacts to living situations pr ability to maintain at a self-sustaining level as a direct result of lack of self-awareness, forward thinking resulting in safety or health risks due to inability to plan or recognize needs (e.g., repeated evictions or loss of housing) that is beyond a poor choice decision.
(c) High use of acute care psychiatric hospitals or emergency departments for psychiatric reasons, including psychiatric emergency services as defined in OAR 309-023-0110(18) (e.g., two or more readmissions in a six-month period);
(d) Intractable (e.g., persistent or very recurrent) severe major symptoms, affective, psychotic, suicidal;
(e) Coexisting Substance Use Disorder of significant duration (e.g., greater than six months);
(f) High risk of judicial involvement or history of criminal justice involvement (e.g., arrest, incarceration); with the exception of violence or assault directed at the ACT staff during the screening process only if action results in physical injury of the staff member or significantly impairs the ability to provide treatment services to the individual
(g) Residing in an inpatient or supervised community residence in the community, and clinically assessed to be able to live in a more independent living situation if intensive services are provided or requiring a residential or institutional placement if more intensive services are not available;
(h) Difficulty effectively utilizing traditional office-based outpatient services.
(3) The ACT program shall provide community-based, long-term, and time-unlimited services.
(4) If an individual is unable to maintain in community without 1:1 constant care; this is beyond the scope of what ACT could provide. ACT program may deny if the care requires 1:1 intervention on a continuum of care that is beyond the scope of ACT and make proper recommendations for higher level of care.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390, 413.042, 430.256 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 161.390 - 161.400, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955 & 743A.168
- BHS 29-2025, amend filed 12/29/2025, effective 01/01/2026
- BHS 17-2025, amend filed 06/25/2025, effective 06/29/2025
- BHS 32-2024, temporary amend filed 12/27/2024, effective 01/01/2025 through 06/29/2025
- BHS 44-2023, amend filed 12/22/2023, effective 01/01/2024
- MHS 4-2018, amend filed 02/27/2018, effective 03/01/2018
- MHS 10-2017(Temp), f. 9-15-17, cert. ef. 9-15-17 thru 3-13-18
- MHS 6-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
- MHS 26-2016(Temp), f. 12-27-16, cert. ef. 12-28-16 thru 6-23-17
- MHS 18-2016, f. 11-28-16, cert. ef. 11-30-16
- MHS 11-2016(Temp), f. 6-29-16, cert. ef. 7-1-16 thru 12-27-16
Or. Admin. R. 309-019-0248 ACT Admission Process
(1) The ACT Program shall complete a Comprehensive Assessment that demonstrates medical appropriateness prior to the provision of this service. If a substantially equivalent assessment is available that reflects current level of functioning and contains standards consistent with OAR 309-019-0135 to include sufficient information and documentation to justify the presence of a diagnosis that is the medically appropriate reason for services, the equivalent assessment may be used to determine admission eligibility for the ACT program.
(2) A referral for The ACT Program is managed and coordinated, as defined in these rules and is referred to as the Standardized Referral Process
(3) The CCO, Single Point of Contact (SPOC) and or ACT Program shall accept all referrals utilizing the Universal Referral Form provided by the Division and verify the documentation that supports ACT criteria. The referral must include when an approximate, reasonable date of admission and/or Intake for further evaluation for the ACT program is anticipated.
(4) Based on the ACT Teams published referral process, the deciding entity shall have 14 calendar days from the date of request to respond to referring party for the purposes of Care Coordination.
(a) Care coordination within the Standardized Referral Process consists of notifying participant and referring party if the referral will be moved forward to the second step or if the referral is denied. Once this communication occurs, the care coordination step has been completed.
(A) if there is insufficient information within the referral that eliminates ability to properly evaluate for next steps, the SPOC or designated ACT Team staff may send the referring party requesting that information.
(B) During Care Coordination step, “ pending ” a referral can only be used if there is a realistic expectation for the referring party to have access to the additional information.
(C) If additional information is needed from another source, this request would be made during the Screening Phase, or second step in the Standardized Referral Process.
(D) It is recommended to maintain stewardship within the local community and care coordination process by identifying a “date to return by” of no less than 14 calendar days.
(E) If the referral is returned, the Standardized Referral Process will begin all over from (4)(a) of this rule with the exception that pending is no longer an option and a decision needs to be made if the referral moves on to second phase or it is denied. If it is denied, the denial procedures in 309-019-0248 (5) (a-c) of this ruleset must be followed.
(b) If referral is moving forward within the Standardized Referral Process the Screening phase begins immediately. This process can include several orchestrated arrangements made by the ACT Team-staff and is a designated period to gather information as a hypothetical if the individual would be approved for services and require a Strength-Based Treatment plan, however, must include written notification on the Universal Referral Form to the referring party (if HIPAA allows) & individual.
(A) The Screening Phase must at minimum, include a Face-to-Face interview between the designated ACT staff member and the individual applying for services This interview cannot be delegated to a SPOC or third party under any circumstances to ensure ACT Teams maintain as the gatekeeper for all admits.
(B) Collateral information may be sought out as needed from other sources if the designated ACT staff member deems relevant. Collateral information can come by way of verbal/interviews, request for documentation from past treatment providers, judicial staff, etc.
(c) A referral can be reflected as “pending” if there is more than 60 days until discharge from an acute care setting and the ACT Team requests monitoring for progression. If this option is utilized, the ACT program must document and site this OAR while also continuing to be actively involved in care coordination and will ensure to provide a final determination in good faith prior to discharge or end of jurisdiction date to maintain stewardship and due-diligence that their decision does not negatively interfere or impact discharge progress.
(5) The final determination on the referral is communicated per best practice standards within 30 calendar days from the date care coordination communication for Screening Phase was initiated. ACT Clinicians may expedite this process based on severity of needs, symptoms and/or the circumstances of the individual.:
(6) Final determination must at minimum be completed by the ACT Team member who completed the face-to-face interview;
(a) It shall notify the individual if the final decision is that of admission, waitlist or denial.
(b) The final determination must be in written format per the individuals preferred language and capacity of understanding on the agency letterhead;
(c) The letter must cite applicable administrative rules and criteria to support conclusion and must be signed by the Decision Maker.
(7) If individual is approved for admission; the written response must have an anticipated start date less than seven 7 calendar days of letter or discharge date; whichever comes first. In anticipation of entry to services the ACT Program shall, in good faith, coordinate any additional documentation that can legally be provided proactively that will support in Strength based treatment planning. Items considered is verifying medication and/or possible refill needs as close to discharge or entry to services as possible and verify residency or living situation status prior to first official appointment with an ACT Team Member.
(8) Given the severity of mental illness symptoms, executive functioning level that ACT services are intended for, if a referral is denied, the care coordination may rest with the CCO.
(9) An individual’s decision not to take psychiatric medication cannot be used for denying admission to an ACT program;
(10) ACT Program Capacity in a geographic region or identified service area is not a sufficient reason to deny a referral. The referral must adhere to all required steps within the Standardized Referral Process so that level of care and medical necessity may be established timely.
(a) If an individual is deemed ACT eligible but cannot be served or become active in services as a result of an ACT Team being at the max ratio capacity per Team Size in 0225 (22,26,34), the individual will be placed on a Waitlist per OAR 309-019-0225(40).
(b) If an individual is waitlisted, the responsible entity who manages or maintains oversite of the waitlist shall provide the individual or legal representative avenues to monitor the status on the waitlist.
(11) While an ACT eligible individual is on the waitlist due to Team size capacity, they shall be offered alternative community-based rehabilitative services as described in the Oregon Medicaid State Plan that includes evidence-based practices to the best extent possible per OAR 410-141-3515(21).
(12) The Division shall monitor each regional waiting list until sufficient ACT program capacity is developed to meet the needs of the ACT eligible population per OAR 410-141-3515(21) by means of data collection strategies.
(13) In addition, if an individual is denied ACT services, they or their guardian may appeal the decision if they do not agree with the denial. The grievance process will follow OAR 309-019-0215 by filing a grievance directly with the behavioral health agency that provides ACT services. Escalated grievances may resort to appeals per Medicaid standards; however, the objective of the grievance process will be to ensure all Individual Rights are intact and honored equitably.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390, 413.042, 430.256 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 161.390 - 161.400, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.010, 430.205- 430.210, 430.254 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955 & 743A.168
- BHS 29-2025, amend filed 12/29/2025, effective 01/01/2026
- BHS 17-2025, amend filed 06/25/2025, effective 06/29/2025
- BHS 32-2024, temporary amend filed 12/27/2024, effective 01/01/2025 through 06/29/2025
- BHS 44-2023, amend filed 12/22/2023, effective 01/01/2024
- MHS 4-2018, amend filed 02/27/2018, effective 03/01/2018
- MHS 10-2017(Temp), f. 9-15-17, cert. ef. 9-15-17 thru 3-13-18
- MHS 6-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
- MHS 1-2017(Temp), f. 1-17-17, cert. ef. 1-18-17 thru 7-16-17
- MHS 18-2016, f. 11-28-16, cert. ef. 11-30-16
- MHS 11-2016(Temp), f. 6-29-16, cert. ef. 7-1-16 thru 12-27-16
Or. Admin. R. 309-019-0250 Closure of ACT Services
(1) Planned transitions to less intensive services shall occur if the individual has confirmed they no longer require or want ACT level of care and requests a voluntarily discharge.
(2) The ACT Program may transition a participant to lower level of care and graduate when the participant has:
(a) Successfully maintained a baseline for the identified self-directed goals within the Strength-based treatment plan in a way that supports improvement of their level of functioning capabilities and enhanced self-awareness that reflect ACT services are no longer needed;
(b) Successfully demonstrated an ability to function in all major role areas including but not limited to work, social, and self-care without ongoing intervention assistance from the ACT Program;
(c) Moves outside of the geographic area of the ACT program’s responsibility. In such cases, the ACT team shall arrange for transfer of mental health service responsibility to an ACT provider or another provider wherever the individual is moving. The ACT team shall maintain contact with the individual until this service is implemented.
(3) If the Individual is incarcerated or institutionalized for more than two months with a date of discharge and/or release longer than three months out, the ACT Team may discharge & close services as this time duration would warrant a closure of Medicaid medical benefits.
(4) The ACT Program may discharge and close ACT services if a Participant displays behavior that is abusive to the extent that any continuation efforts would no longer be trauma informed care & impaired to the extent of no longer being effective. This includes but not limited to:
(a) The Participant commits or attempts to inflict physical violence & harm directed at ACT staff;
(b) The Participant conducts themselves in a way of verbal threats of harm towards ACT staff that could be realistically carried out at any sporadic moment eliminating ACT staff to properly safeguard themselves or bystanders if the threat escalated from verbal to physical action.
(c) If an ACT Program discharges a participant for based on this rule, they must provide a copy of the discharge notice per 309-019-0250(4) to The Division Designee, legal guardian and appropriate CCO.
(5) Discharge and closure of services can occur if there have been several unsuccessful documented attempts to contact the participant by the ACT program that last up to 90 days. This discharge reason is referred to as whereabouts unknown and must include the following;
(a) All attempts must be documented by the ACT Team in good faith, and various different methods of those attempts that could include:
(A) Seeking out the individual in-person with identified locations of search,
(B) Mail to last known address,
(C) Phone calls to participant or relevant Natural and Informal Supports in attempt to locate any new information.
(b) If an individual is discharged for whereabouts unknown and they make contact after the discharge date, the program has discretion on readmittance or re-referral.
(6) Documentation for discharge including transition to lower levels of care even for graduation purposes shall follow OAR 410-120-1865 and include at minimum the following:
(a) The reasons for discharge citing administrative rule or highlighting accomplishments that warranted graduation;
(b) The individual’s biopsychosocial status at discharge, transition or last known (if whereabouts unknown applies).
(c) The identified new provider if known and effective date.
(d) The ACT program, in good faith, must provide a copy of discharge or transition to lower level of care to the participant:
(A) Mailed or electronic copy as long as HIPAA approved/permission given to communicate electronically.
(B) Mailed or faxed to facility of known incarceration/institutionalization.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390, 413.042, 430.256 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 161.390 - 161.400, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.010, 430.205- 430.210, 430.254 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955 & 743A.168
- BHS 29-2025, amend filed 12/29/2025, effective 01/01/2026
- BHS 17-2025, amend filed 06/25/2025, effective 06/29/2025
- BHS 44-2023, amend filed 12/22/2023, effective 01/01/2024
- MHS 4-2018, amend filed 02/27/2018, effective 03/01/2018
- MHS 10-2017(Temp), f. 9-15-17, cert. ef. 9-15-17 thru 3-13-18
- MHS 6-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
- MHS 1-2017(Temp), f. 1-17-17, cert. ef. 1-18-17 thru 7-16-17
- MHS 18-2016, f. 11-28-16, cert. ef. 11-30-16
- MHS 11-2016(Temp), f. 6-29-16, cert. ef. 7-1-16 thru 12-27-16
Or. Admin. R. 309-019-0255 ACT Reporting Requirements
(1) ACT service data shall be submitted on a quarterly basis for objectives of measuring outcomes per the procedures prescribed by the Division.
(2) ACT service delivery data shall be submitted based on the Division mandated state data system per 309-022-0135: Additional fidelity and program specific data outside of state data system will include quantitative data submission of the following:
(a) Number of Participants served:
(b) Qualitative data those through Medicaid and non- Medicaid.
(c) Referral data:
(A) Number of total referrals received during each quarter;
(B) Number of participants on the waitlist during each quarter and length of duration on the waitlist;
(C) Number of participants admitted during each quarter; and
(D) Number of participants denied during each quarter and the reason for each denial;
(d) Number of participants no longer on services. Two categories will be:
(A) Graduated with successful transition to lower level of care
(B) Discharged without meeting all goals to graduate.
(e) Crisis calls and dispatches by ACT Team for ACT Participants. This does not include any other crisis service delivery that an ACT Team member may be part of.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390, 413.042, 430.256 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 161.390 - 161.400, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955 & 743A.168
- BHS 29-2025, amend filed 12/29/2025, effective 01/01/2026
- BHS 17-2025, amend filed 06/25/2025, effective 06/29/2025
- BHS 32-2024, temporary amend filed 12/27/2024, effective 01/01/2025 through 06/29/2025
- BHS 44-2023, amend filed 12/22/2023, effective 01/01/2024
- MHS 4-2018, amend filed 02/27/2018, effective 03/01/2018
- MHS 10-2017(Temp), f. 9-15-17, cert. ef. 9-15-17 thru 3-13-18
- MHS 6-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
- MHS 18-2016, f. 11-28-16, cert. ef. 11-30-16
- MHS 11-2016(Temp), f. 6-29-16, cert. ef. 7-1-16 thru 12-27-16
Or. Admin. R. 309-019-0270 IPS Purpose and Definitions
(1) Purpose: These rules establish the standards and procedures for an Individual Placement and Support (IPS) Employment Services that will be certified by the Division. The IPS program uses an evidence-based model and integrates employment and Vocational Services with clinical mental health and non-vocational support.
(2) “Career Profile” means the approved form(s) completed by program staff during the first weeks of meeting with a participant. Information must include at least;
(a) Name of individual
(b) Address
(c) Contact information; this can include email and cell phone number;
(d) Names of treatment team points of contact; if the individual is participating in any outpatient therapy;
(e) Preference of type of work
(f) Any relevant information about current diagnosis and potential limitations in work environments
(g) Strengths and skills
(h) Historical work experiences
(i) Any career path goals
(3) “Competitive Integrated Employment” means full-time or part time work that is:
(a) At minimum wage or higher rate that is not less than the customary rate paid by the employer for the same or similar work performed by other employees;
(b) With eligibility for level of benefits provided to other employees.
(c) Paid Internships open to the public.
(d) An unpaid internship that is directly tied to higher education or trade school, including work-study opportunities with colleges.
(e) Seasonal Employment that is consistent with that industry of work.
(f) Self-Employment if:
(A)Income is reported to the government; and
(B) Taxes must be filed should income generated meet threshold requirements.
(g) Temporary Employment from an Oregon-authorized temporary staffing agency as defined in OAR 331-995-0000.
(4) “Division Approved Reviewer” means the Division’s contracted entity responsible for conducting IPS Supported Employment fidelity reviews, training, and technical assistance to support new and existing IPS Supported Employment programs statewide.
(5) “Face to Face” means that a personal interaction where communication between at least two-person(s) can be had. This will include any interactions through telehealth services where there is secured Health Insurance Portability and Accountability (HIPAA) approved live streaming audio and video.
(6) “Fidelity” for the purposes of the IPS Supported Employment program means the Program is providing services that are faithful to the evidence-based practice model and obtains a satisfactory score from the Division Approved Reviewer for IPS Supported Employment as part of their regular reviews.
(7) “Fidelity Tool” means the documents used to score and evaluate a programs fidelity that is based on the Division approved evidence-based fidelity scale.
(8) “Full Time Employment” or “FTE” means a way to measure how many full-time employees are required to provide the appropriate level of service to fulfill minimum fidelity requirements per the employer standards. FTE must be reflected in job description
(9) “Individual Placement and Support (IPS) Employment Services” means the evidence-based model of Supported Employment Services for people with SPMI per 309-019-0270(12). IPS helps people identify and acquire part-time or full-time employment of their choice in their community.
(10) “Person-Centered Planning” means the IPS program services are based on individual preferences and choices for employment. This includes but is not limited to culturally, linguistically, and developmentally appropriate for that participant.
(11) “Rapid Job Search” means an approach utilized to help participants obtain jobs directly, training, and or job counseling .
(12) Serious Mental Illness (SMI) means for IPS programs, the current Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM) diagnostic criteria as a primary diagnosis for an adult 18 years of age or older:
(13) “Systematic Job Development” means the IPS program creates an employer network based on participants’ interests and developing relationships and partnerships with local employers.
(14) “Work Incentive Planning” means a document that is personalized to fit the need of a participant to ensure that individuals receive information regarding an array of benefits that may or may not be available to them and how employment could impact those services. This can include but not limited to: SNAP, Medical Benefits, Veteran Affairs benefits, subsidies housing, dependent benefits, transportation assistance etc. This can be also referred to as Personalized Benefit Planning however IPS model reflects as “Work Incentive Planning”
(15) “Vocational Services” means employment support that will contribute to gaining competitive integrated employment. This service will include a vocational profile that includes information about the participants preferences, experiences, skills, strengths, person contacts etc. This will include input from participant, treatment team, clinical records, and any others the participant identifies per preference.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.630
- BHS 3-2024, amend filed 01/27/2024, effective 02/01/2024
- MHS 6-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
- MHS 1-2017(Temp), f. 1-17-17, cert. ef. 1-18-17 thru 7-16-17
- MHS 26-2016(Temp), f. 12-27-16, cert. ef. 12-28-16 thru 6-23-17
Or. Admin. R. 309-019-0275 Individual Placement and Support (IPS) Supported Employment Overview
(1) IPS Supported employment is an evidence-based practice for individuals with SMI per 309-019-0270(12).
(2) IPS Supported employment is characterized by:
(a) Emphasis on Competitive Integrated Employment;
(b) Every individual interested in work is eligible for services regardless of symptoms, substance use disorders, treatment decisions, or any other issue which can also be referred to as “Zero exclusion” in the fidelity tools.
(c) Employment services is integrated with mental health treatment
(d) Participants have access to Work Incentive Planning by a Certified Benefits Planner
(e) Rapid Job search should begin within 30 days of program entry.
(f) Client preferences for jobs are honored and included in the Career Profile;
(g) Employment Specialists systematically collaborate with employers who are selected based on job seeker preferences to learn about their business needs and hiring preferences;
(h) Job supports continue for as long as each participant benefits from the support.
(3) IPS Supported Employment services include but are not limited to:
(a) Job development;
(b)Job training and or Job coaching
(c) Consultation with the employer;
(d) Employment and/or education Counseling;
(e) Skills training;
(f) Transportation assistance per certified IPS program’s internal policy. This can include staff transport, gas vouchers, bus passes, planning and/or training or other internal policies the program has identified and
(g) Transition planning to less intensive employment supports
(h) Follow along supports
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.630
- BHS 3-2024, amend filed 01/27/2024, effective 02/01/2024
- MHS 6-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
- MHS 1-2017(Temp), f. 1-17-17, cert. ef. 1-18-17 thru 7-16-17
- MHS 26-2016(Temp), f. 12-27-16, cert. ef. 12-28-16 thru 6-23-17
Or. Admin. R. 309-019-0280 IPS Program Requirements and Operational Standards
(1) To be eligible for Medicaid or State General Fund reimbursement, IPS Supported Employment Services shall be provided only by those programs meeting the following minimum qualifications:
(a) The program shall hold and maintain a certificate, in good standing and not subject to any adverse action issued by the Division under OAR chapter 309, division 008 for the purpose of providing Outpatient Behavioral Health Services; and
(b) The program shall hold and maintain a certificate issued by the Division under OAR 309-019-0270 through 309-019-0295 for the purposes of providing IPS services.
(2) The IPS program shall be reviewed annually for fidelity adherence by the Division Approved Reviewer. IPS programs may not bill Medicaid or use general funds for the provision of IPS unless they achieve a minimum score of 100 on the fidelity scale as outlined in OAR 309-019-0285.
(3) An IPS program must include, at minimum the following staff:
(a) an IPS Supervisor and/or Team Leader, who may carry a case load if needed to ensure case load ratio per(3)(b)(B) of this ruleset.
(b) At least one Employment Specialists.
(A)The primary focus of this position will be on Vocational Service-related tasks.
(B) Case load size should not exceed more than 20:1 ratio. If case load exceeds this amount, it is recommended that the team adapt with additional staffing in attempt to ensure case loads are manageable per evidence-based model.
(4) A Peer Support FTE is optional staff as defined in OAR 410-173-0005(27) and/or Peer Wellness Specialist FTE, as described in ORS 414.025(21). A registry of certified Peer Support Specialist Specialists and Peer Wellness Specialists may be found at the Office of Equity and Inclusion’s Traditional Health Worker’s website.
(5) Community Collaboration requirements:
(a) IPS staff need to attend at least one weekly relevant meeting for treatment planning with any mental health providers identified that participants are working with. These collaborations can be in-house to the IPS program/agency or with community partners as identified. These meetings must be routinely attended and documented.
(b) Identify any other employment services and collaborate on behalf of participant. This can include but not limited to Vocational Rehab, State Unemployment Office etc.
(6) Progress or chart notes will be updated at least monthly or as needed by IPS staff
(7) All IPS Program staff shall attend IPS 101 from the Division Approved Reviewer within four months of hire. Staff’s competency will be evaluated during the annual fidelity review process.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.630
- BHS 3-2024, amend filed 01/27/2024, effective 02/01/2024
- MHS 4-2018, amend filed 02/27/2018, effective 03/01/2018
- MHS 10-2017(Temp), f. 9-15-17, cert. ef. 9-15-17 thru 3-13-18
- MHS 6-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
- MHS 1-2017(Temp), f. 1-17-17, cert. ef. 1-18-17 thru 7-16-17
- MHS 26-2016(Temp), f. 12-27-16, cert. ef. 12-28-16 thru 6-23-17
Or. Admin. R. 309-019-0282 IPS Program Certification
(1) Ongoing certification is driven by compliance with annual fidelity review by the Division Approved Reviewer per OAR 309-019-0285. If a program does not cooperate with annual fidelity review, Division will take necessary actions that could include suspension and/or termination of IPS certification.
(2) Programs seeking IPS certification shall submit a letter of request for Provisional Status to the Division with the following information:
(a) Statement detailing current certificates in good standing and not subject to any adverse action issued by the Division;
(b) Intended service area and or geographical identifiers of services.
(c) Intended population if there intends to be any demographical specific services. This can include but not limited to culturally specific, age specific and/or other population identifiers;
(d) Intended capacity;
(e) Name of program lead.
(3) Letters for Provisional Status must be submitted to the Division no later than 60 days prior to projected provisional start date.
(4) Included in submission for Provisional Status, the intended program must have a letter of support from the Division Approved Reviewer.
(5) All certifications (Provisional and ongoing) shall be effective for one year from the date of approval by the Division.
(6) At the end of one year, the program must achieve a passing fidelity score per OAR 309-019-0285.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- BHS 3-2024, adopt filed 01/27/2024, effective 02/01/2024
Or. Admin. R. 309-019-0285 IPS Fidelity Requirements
(1) A certified IPS Program shall be reviewed annually for fidelity adherence by the Division Approved Reviewer and reach a benchmark of at least a score of 100. A program may not bill Medicaid unless certification is current.
(2) Fidelity reviews shall be conducted utilizing the Division approved fidelity scale which the Division Approved Reviewer shall make available to programs electronically at least 45 calendar days prior to scheduled fidelity review.
(3) Within 30 calendar days following the fidelity review, the Division Approved Reviewer shall provide a comprehensive fidelity review report to the Division and the IPS Program.
(4) Within seven calendar days following issuance of the fidelity review report, the IPS Program shall send a copy of the fidelity review report to the appropriate Coordinated Care Organization (CCO) unless otherwise specified in program/CCO contract.
(5) Within 14 calendar days of the issuance of fidelity review report, The Division, The Division Approved Reviewer, and program will meet to discuss the outcome of the comprehensive report findings. The CCO can be invited and attend the meeting if the CCO requests.
(6) The Division may deny, revoke, suspend, or not renew an IPS Program Certification for failure to participate in an annual fidelity review.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.630
- BHS 3-2024, amend filed 01/27/2024, effective 02/01/2024
- MHS 4-2018, amend filed 02/27/2018, effective 03/01/2018
- MHS 10-2017(Temp), f. 9-15-17, cert. ef. 9-15-17 thru 3-13-18
- MHS 6-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
- MHS 1-2017(Temp), f. 1-17-17, cert. ef. 1-18-17 thru 7-16-17
- MHS 26-2016(Temp), f. 12-27-16, cert. ef. 12-28-16 thru 6-23-17
Or. Admin. R. 309-019-0290 Failure to Meet Fidelity Standards
(1) If an IPS program does not achieve minimum score of 100 on a fidelity review, the following shall occur:
(a) Once meeting is held per OAR 309-019-0285(5), Technical assistance (TA) shall be made available by the Division Approved Reviewer for a period of 90 days to address areas identified in the fidelity review that require attention and/or improvement.
(A)From this meeting a Technical Assistance Plan will be created by the Division Approved Reviewer for the IPS program to follow;
(B)The Technical Assistance Plan will consist of recommendations and goals the program can follow to help them achieve the benchmark for fidelity per OAR 309-019-0285(1).
(b) At the end of the 90-day period, a follow-up re-review shall be conducted by the Division Approved Reviewer of all areas identified in the Technical Assistance Plan; and
(c) The Division approved reviewer shall forward a copy of the fidelity re-review report to the Division and program within 30 calendar days of the re-review.
(d)The program shall forward a copy of the amended fidelity review report to the appropriate CCO within seven calendar days of issuance unless otherwise specified in CCO/Program contract.
(e)Within 14 business days after issuance of re-review, the Division, The Division Approved Review, the program and CCO if CCO requests, will have a meeting to discuss findings in the comprehensive re-review report.
(2) If the Division determines an IPS Program is not operating in substantial compliance with all applicable statutes and administrative rules, the Division may require the IPS Program submit a Plan of Correction (POC). The Division shall provide written notice of the requirement to submit a POC and the IPS Program shall submit a Plant of Correction according to the following requirements:
(a) The IPS Program shall submit a Plan of Correction to the Division within 30 calendar days of receiving a notice of requirement to submit a Plan of Correction. The Division may not approve a PLant of Correction that would exceed 90-days. The Division will ensure the extension to the existing certification is completed upon approval of Plant of Correction to allow the program to complete the Plan of Correction process and ensure billing can continue; and
(b) The Plan of Correction shall address each finding of non-compliance and shall include:
(A) The planned action already taken, or to be taken, to correct each finding of non-compliance;
(B) The anticipated or requested timeframe for the completion of each corrective action not yet complete at the time of Plan of Correction submission to the Division;
(C) A description of and plan for quality assurance activities intended to ensure ongoing compliance; and
(D) The name and title of the individual responsible for ensuring the implementation of each corrective action within the Plan of Correction.
(E) Include the appropriate CCO in submission.
(c) If the Division finds that clarification or supplementation to the Plan of Correction is required prior to approval, the Division shall contact the IPS Program to provide notice of requested clarification or supplementation, and the IPS Program shall submit an amended Plan of Correction within 14 calendar days of receiving notification;
(d) The IPS Program shall submit an adequate Plan of Correction approved by the Division prior to receiving a certificate. Upon the Division’s approval of the Plan of Correction, the Division shall renew the IPS certification.
(e) The Division may deny, revoke, suspend, not renew, or place conditions on the program’s certification if the program fails to submit an adequate Plan of Correction within the timeframes established in this rule.
(3) When the Division determines the need to deny, revoke, not renew, or place conditions on the program’s certificate issued under these rules, a notice of intent to take action on the certificate shall be issued to the program.
(4) Immediate suspension may occur if the Division finds there is a serious danger to the public health and safety during a specified period of time and/or there is a substantial failure to comply with applicable statutes, administrative rules, or other applicable regulations.
(a) The program may request a contested case hearing to contest the immediate suspension order in accordance with ORS Chapter 183.
(b) Requests for a hearing must be received by the Division within 90 days from the date the immediate suspension order was served on the program personally, or by certified or registered mail.
(5) When the Division issues an Order of Suspension, a notice of intent to revoke, notice of intent to deny an application or notice of refusal to renew the certificate to a program pursuant to these rules, the Division shall offer the program an opportunity for an informal conference. The program shall make its request for an informal conference in writing within 14 calendar days of the issuance of the notice of intent or Order of Suspension.
(a) Upon receipt of a timely written request, the Division shall select a location and time for such conference. Following the conference, the Division may:
(A) withdraw or amend the notice of intent or suspension order; or
(B) not withdraw the notice of intent or suspension order.
(6) A provider who is issued a notice of intent to apply a condition, revoke, suspend, or refusal to renew its certificate may request a hearing in accordance with ORS Chapter 183 and OAR 309-008-1300.
(7) When the Division evaluates the Plan of Correction and determines there is a satisfactory of compliance and improvement by the program to uphold the IPS Model; the Division shall recertify the program from the date of their original annual fidelity review.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.630
- BHS 3-2024, amend filed 01/27/2024, effective 02/01/2024
- MHS 6-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
- MHS 1-2017(Temp), f. 1-17-17, cert. ef. 1-18-17 thru 7-16-17
- MHS 26-2016(Temp), f. 12-27-16, cert. ef. 12-28-16 thru 6-23-17
Or. Admin. R. 309-019-0295 IPS Reporting Requirements
(1) Providers of IPS Supported Employment Services shall submit quarterly outcome reports using forms and procedures prescribed by the Division within 45 days following the end of each subject quarter to the Division or the Division approved reviewer.
(2) Each quarterly report shall provide the following information including but not limited to:
(a) All individuals who received IPS services in the reporting quarter;
(b) Individuals who received IPS Services who are employed in competitive employment; and
(c) Individuals who discontinued receiving IPS services and are employed in competitive employment; and
(d) Individuals who received IPS and also were participating in other outpatient treatment models.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.630
- BHS 3-2024, amend filed 01/27/2024, effective 02/01/2024
- MHS 6-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
- MHS 1-2017(Temp), f. 1-17-17, cert. ef. 1-18-17 thru 7-16-17
- MHS 26-2016(Temp), f. 12-27-16, cert. ef. 12-28-16 thru 6-23-17
Or. Admin. R. 309-019-0300 Service Requirements
(1) Crisis line services shall be provided directly or through linkages to a crisis line services provider 24/7.
(2) Crisis line services shall include but is not limited to:
(a) 24/7 accessibility to a QMHP;
(b) 24/7 bi-lingual or interpreter availability;
(c) 24/7 telephone screening to determine the need for immediate intervention;
(d) 24/7 linkage to emergency service providers, including first responders and mobile crisis services;
(e) Best practice risk assessment, including suicide risk assessment;
(f) Suicide intervention and prevention;
(g) Lethal means counseling and safety planning for individuals at risk for suicide;
(h) Crisis intervention;
(i) Crisis plan development;
(j) Triage;
(k) Providing information regarding services and resources in the community; and
(L) Procedures for de-escalation for calls from suicidal individuals.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.630, 430.640 & 430.644 - 430.646
- MHS 4-2018, amend filed 02/27/2018, effective 03/01/2018
- MHS 10-2017(Temp), f. 9-15-17, cert. ef. 9-15-17 thru 3-13-18
- MHS 6-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
Or. Admin. R. 309-019-0305 Provider Standards
(1) Crisis line services providers shall develop and implement written policies and procedures to address provider standards.
(2) Provider standards shall include but is not limited to:
(a) Training curriculum and ongoing education programs to meet training requirements;
(b) Coordination with other treatment providers including mobile crisis services and other crisis line services providers to support seamless transitions of care;
(c) Linkages to emergency services providers including first responders to address imminent risks and to support seamless transitions of care;
(d) De-escalation procedures;
(e) Follow-up procedures when indicated and appropriate;
(f) Documentation;
(g) Code of ethics; and
(h) Security of information protocols.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.630, 430.640 & 430.644 - 430.646
- MHS 4-2018, amend filed 02/27/2018, effective 03/01/2018
- MHS 10-2017(Temp), f. 9-15-17, cert. ef. 9-15-17 thru 3-13-18
- MHS 6-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
Or. Admin. R. 309-019-0310 Minimum Staffing Requirements
(1) At least one QMHP shall be available by phone or face-to-face 24/7 for consultation.
(2) At least one QMHP shall provide regular clinical supervision to staff.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.630, 430.640 & 430.644 - 430.646
- MHS 4-2018, amend filed 02/27/2018, effective 03/01/2018
- MHS 10-2017(Temp), f. 9-15-17, cert. ef. 9-15-17 thru 3-13-18
- MHS 6-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
Or. Admin. R. 309-019-0315 Training Requirements
(1) Staff training curriculum shall include but is not limited to:
(a) Triage protocol;
(b) Referral resources;
(c) Crisis plan development;
(d) Screening for a Declaration for Mental Health Treatment.
(2) Staff training curriculum shall include best practices for the following:
(a) Risk assessment, including suicide risk assessment;
(b) Suicide intervention and prevention;
(c) Safety planning;
(d) Lethal means counseling;
(e) De-escalation methods;
(f) Crisis intervention;
(g) Recovery support, including peer delivered services;
(h) Trauma informed care; and
(i) Cultural awareness.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.630, 430.640 & 430.644 - 430.646
- MHS 6-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
Or. Admin. R. 309-019-0320 Documentation Requirements
(1) Documentation of calls shall include but is not limited to:
(a) Summary of presenting concern, assessment of risk factors, interventions, evaluation of interventions, the plan for the management and resolution of the crisis or emergency situation reported, referrals to other services, and collaboration that occurred with emergency services providers or other treatment providers, when appropriate;
(b) If a suicide risk assessment was completed;
(c) Summary of safety planning and lethal means counseling, as appropriate.
(2) A log or report of all contacts with the provider, including the name of each caller, when available, the crisis line worker, and the time and duration of the call shall be maintained for quality assurance review and ongoing staff supervision.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.630, 430.640 & 430.644 - 430.646
- MHS 6-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
Division 20 PEER RESPITE PROGRAMS
Or. Admin. R. 309-020-0100 Purpose
These rules prescribe general minimum operational standards for services and supports provided by Peer Respite Programs.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 430.275 & HB 2980 (2021)
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.275
- BHS 2-2023, adopt filed 01/11/2023, effective 01/12/2023
- BHS 15-2022, temporary adopt filed 08/08/2022, effective 08/08/2022 through 02/03/2023
Or. Admin. R. 309-020-0105 Definitions
(1) “Culturally and linguistically responsive services” means the provision of effective, equitable, understandable, and respectful quality care and services that are responsive to diverse cultural beliefs and practices, preferred languages, health literacy, and other communication needs.
(2) “Culturally and linguistically specific services” means provision of culturally and linguistically responsive services (defined in section (1) of this rule set) designed for and delivered to a specific population by a provider who shares the culture, language, or identity with the individual seeking services. Culturally and linguistically specific services are grounded in the cultural values of minoritized communities to elevate their voices and experiences, with the aim of enhancing emotional safety, belonging, and a shared collective cultural experience for healing and recovery of the community served.
(3) “Gender-affirming and responsive services” means services that holistically attends to but is not limited to transgender, gender-nonconforming, non-binary, Two Spirit and intersex people’s physical, mental, and social health needs and well-being while respectfully affirming their gender identity. Gender affirming care is sensitive and responsive to an individual’s gender identities and expressions. Gender affirming care complies with non-discrimination laws.
(4) “LGBTQIA2S+ affirming and inclusive services” means services that proactively create an environment that intentionally and purposefully supports members of the LGBTQIA2S+ community. LGBTQIA2S+ community members are treated with respect, dignity and have equitable access to services, supports, and opportunities in a manner that sustains their whole selves.
(5) “Peer respite services” means voluntary, non-clinical, short-term residential peer support as defined in ORS 430.275.
(6) “Peer-run organization” means a community-based organization as defined in ORS 430.275.
(7) “Peer support” means assistance as defined in ORS 430.275.
(8) “Recovery principles” means a set of principles and values that are holistic, strengths-based, mutually supportive, respectful, individualized and person-directed, and that support self-direction, empowerment, responsibility, and hope for people.
(9) “Trauma-informed practices” means strengths-based practices that seek to understand trauma and how it impacts people’s lives. Trauma-informed practices emphasize physical, psychological, and emotional safety for everyone and support people in having choice and control of their own lives.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 430.275 & HB 2980 (2021)
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.275
- BHS 2-2023, adopt filed 01/11/2023, effective 01/12/2023
- BHS 15-2022, temporary adopt filed 08/08/2022, effective 08/08/2022 through 02/03/2023
Or. Admin. R. 309-020-0120 Operational, Policy, and Service Support Requirements
(1) Peer Respite programs must:
(a) Be operated by peer-run organizations;
(b) Ensure participation is voluntary and self-directed;
(c) Provide peer respite services and peer support according to recovery principles.
(2) Peer respite programs must maintain, implement, and formalize organizational policies and procedures that detail the following standards of service. Peer respite programs must make these policies and procedures available to the Oregon Health Authority and program participants:
(a) Peer values and recovery principles;
(b) Culturally and linguistically responsive services;
(c) Culturally and linguistically specific services, when offered by the program;
(d) Accessibility for people with intellectual and developmental disabilities;
(e) Accessibility for people with physical disabilities;
(f) Gender-affirming and responsive services;
(g) LGBTQIA2S+ affirming and inclusive services;
(h) Trauma-informed practices;
(i) Incident and emergency response plan;
(j) Minimum staff training certification and continuing education requirements;
(k) Medication management policy;
(l) Minimum staffing requirements; and
(m) Employee wellness and support plan.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 430.275 & HB 2980 (2021)
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.275
- BHS 2-2023, adopt filed 01/11/2023, effective 01/12/2023
- BHS 15-2022, temporary adopt filed 08/08/2022, effective 08/08/2022 through 02/03/2023
Or. Admin. R. 309-020-0130 Data Collection and Reporting Requirements
(1) Financial recordkeeping and reporting is required as follows:
(a) Programs must keep accurate books, records and accounts that are subject to inspection and audit by the Oregon Health Authority upon request; and
(b) Additional financial reporting requirements must be followed as outlined and pre-negotiated in each grant or funding agreement or contract.
(2) Participant demographics and participant service and support reporting is required. Each program must, at a minimum, collect and report on the following:
(a) Number of people served;
(b) Average duration of participant stay;
(c) Demographic data on people served, including self-reported demographic data on race, ethnicity, gender identity, and age. Each program must collect data in accordance with OAR 943 Division 070;
(d) Grievances and safety concerns; and
(e) Additional outcome reporting requirements must be followed as outlined and pre-negotiated in each grant or funding agreement or contract.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 430.275 & HB 2980 (2021)
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.275
- BHS 2-2023, adopt filed 01/11/2023, effective 01/12/2023
- BHS 15-2022, temporary adopt filed 08/08/2022, effective 08/08/2022 through 02/03/2023
Division 21 COMMUNITY BASED SERVICES FOR YOUTH AND YOUNG ADULTS
Or. Admin. R. 309-021-0100 IIBHT Purpose and Scope
(1) The Intensive In-Home Behavioral Health Treatment (IIBHT) is a community based, multidisciplinary mental health treatment program for youth and young adults under the age of 21 and anyone covered under Early and Periodic Screening. Diagnostic and Treatment (EPSDT) or Youth with Special Health Care Needs (YSHCN) and their families. IIBHT offers a menu of therapeutic services and supports for youth, young adults and their families delivered in a community-based setting. The intent of IIBHT is to work collaboratively with youth, young adults and their families to address complex mental health concerns, reduce emergency department use, avoid out of home placement or facility-based treatment where possible, and support youth, young adults and their families when returning home from out of home placement or facility-based treatment.
(2) IIBHT Providers shall have program staff that includes Licensed Medical Providers (LMP), Qualified Mental Health Professionals (QMHP), Qualified Mental Health Associates (QMHA) and Peer Support Specialists available and sufficient to meet the individual needs and preferences of the youth, young adults, and their families enrolled in services.
(3) IIBHT providers shall coordinate care with internal and external partners as needed to support the mental health needs and supports of the youth/young adult and their family.
(4) IIBHT Services shall include, at a minimum, the following types of services:
(a) Child Psychiatric Services provided by:
(A) A Board Eligible or Certified Child and Adolescent Psychiatrist; or
(B) A Psychiatric Mental Health Nurse Practitioner (PMHNP) with at least 3 years of experience working with youth, young adults, and families.
(b) Skills training;
(c) Individual therapy;
(d) Family therapy;
(e) In-home Proactive Support and Crisis Response available 24 hours each day;
(f) Case Management
(g) Peer Delivered Services:
(A) Family Support Specialists; and
(B) Youth Support Specialists.
(h) Care Coordination; and
(i) 90 Day Treatment Review Meetings
(5) All providers must operate in compliance with these rules. These rules create the minimum service delivery standards for services and supports delivered by providers certified by the Behavioral Health Division of the Oregon Health Authority.
(6) Before a provider can apply to render IIBHT services, providers must hold a current Certificate of Approval for outpatient mental health services in accordance with OAR Chapter 309, Division 008 (309-008-0100 – 309-008-1600) Certification of Behavioral Health Treatment Services.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 430.640 & 430.705
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.010, 430.205 & 430.708
- BHS 3-2025, adopt filed 02/27/2025, effective 03/01/2025
Or. Admin. R. 309-021-0110 IIBHT Definitions
(1) “Authority” means the Oregon Health Authority.
(2) “Behavioral Health Treatment” means treatment for mental health, substance use disorders, and problem gambling.
(3) “Best Practice Risk Assessment” has the meaning given that term in OAR 309-023-0110.
(4) “Care Coordination” means a process-oriented activity to facilitate ongoing communication and collaboration to meet multiple needs. Care coordination includes facilitating communication between the person or family served, the family, natural supports, community resources, and involved providers and agencies; organizing, facilitating, and participating in team meetings; and providing for continuity of care by creating linkages to and managing transitions between levels of care and transitions for young adults in transition to adult services.
(5) "Case Management” means the services provided to assist individuals who reside in a community setting or are transitioning to a community setting in gaining access to desired medical, social, educational, entitlement, and other applicable services.
(6) “Certificate of Approval” means the document issued by the Authority that identifies and declares certification of a provider pursuant to OAR chapter 309, division 008.
(7) "Clinical Supervision" means oversight by a qualified clinical supervisor of the rendering of physical health, substance use, problem gambling, and mental health services and supports, according to these rules, including ongoing evaluation and improvement of the effectiveness of those services and supports.
(8) "Clinical Supervisor" means program staff qualified to oversee and evaluate the rendering of physical health, substance use, problem gambling, or mental health services and supports.
(9) “Coordinated Care Organization (CCO)” means a corporation, governmental agency, public corporation, or other legal entity that is certified as meeting the criteria adopted by the Authority under ORS 414.625 to be accountable for care management and to provide integrated and coordinated health care for each of the organization’s members.
(10) "Crisis" means either an actual or perceived urgent or emergent situation that occurs when an individual’s stability or functioning is disrupted, and there is an immediate need to resolve the situation to prevent a serious deterioration in the individual’s mental or physical health or to prevent referral to a significantly higher level of care or death.
(11) "Crisis and Safety Plan" means an individualized document developed by the youth/young adult and their family in collaboration with the IIBHT team to address potential crises that could occur for the youth and their family, and to ensure everyone's safety. It shall include 24-hour, 7-days-a-week response; formal, informal, and natural supports; back-up care, as applicable; details leading to crises; successful strategies that have worked in the past; and strength-based strategies that prevent escalation and maintain safety
(12) "Diagnosis" means the principal mental health, substance use, or problem gambling diagnosis listed in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth edition (DSM-5-TR). The diagnosis is determined through the assessment and any examinations, tests, or consultations suggested by the assessment and are medically necessary reason for services.
(13) “Division” means the Behavioral Health Division of the Oregon Health Authority, or its designee.
(14) “Entry” means the act or process of acceptance and enrollment into services regulated by this rule.
(15) "Family" means the biological or legal parents, siblings, other relatives, foster parents, legal guardians, spouse, domestic partner, caregivers, and other primary relations to the individual whether by blood, adoption, or legal or social relationships. Family also means any natural, formal, or informal support persons identified as important by the individual.
(16) "Family Support" means the provision of peer-delivered services to people defined as family to the individual. It includes support to caregivers at community meetings, assistance to families in system navigation and managing multiple appointments, supportive home visits, peer support, parent mentoring and coaching, advocacy, and furthering efforts to develop natural and informal community supports.
(17) "Family Support Specialist” means an individual certified and listed on the registry as a Family Support Specialist in accordance with ORS 410-180-0305, and who has completed specialized training approved by the Authority. A Family Support Specialist is a formal member of the IIBHT team whose role is to support the family
(18) “In-Home” means that IIBHT services shall be delivered at times and locations that are convenient to the youth and their family and IIBHT staff are available to provide services in the home, school, or other community setting, as specified by the individual and family.
(19) “Incident Report” means a written description of any incident.
(20) “Individual” means any individual being considered for or receiving services and supports regulated by these rules.
(21) "Informed Consent for Services" means that the service options, risks and benefits have been explained to the individual and guardian, if applicable, in a manner that they comprehend, and the individual and guardian, if applicable, have consented to the services on, or prior to, the first date of service.
(22)“Intensive In-Home Behavioral Health Treatment (IIBHT)” means an intensive, community-based level of care for youth and young adults under the age of 21, with complex mental health needs who requiring multiple weekly, mental health services and supports to maintain in the community. They may be at risk for an out of home placement or may be stepping down from a higher level of care IIBHT includes access to an array of services including individual and family therapy, case management, psychiatric services, skills training, peer-delivered services, and proactive 24 hours 7 days a week crisis response. A Certificate of Approval from the Oregon Health Authority is required to render IIBHT services to eligible youth and families.
(23) “Intensive In-Home Behavioral Health Treatment (IIBHT) team” means any staff member assigned by the Certified IIBHT Provider that has been identified to provide services and supports as outlined in the service plan to a youth, young adult and/or their family while enrolled in IIBHT services
(24) "Level of Care" means the type, frequency, and duration of medically necessary and medically appropriate services provided from the most integrated setting to the most restrictive and intensive inpatient setting
(25) "Licensed Medical Practitioner (LMP)” means a person who meets the following minimum qualifications as documented by the Local Mental Health Authority (LMHA) or designee:
(a) Physician licensed to practice in the State of Oregon;
(b) Nurse practitioner licensed to practice in the State of Oregon; or
(c) Physician's assistant licensed to practice in the State of Oregon;
(d) Whose training, experience, and competence demonstrate the ability to conduct a medical exam, a mental health assessment and provide medication management; and
(26) “Natural Supports” means individuals in the youth and family’s own community, social, cultural or spiritual networks, such as friends, extended family members, neighbors, and other individuals as identified by the youth and family, providing supports, who are not financially compensated for their time.
(27) “Peer” means program staff supporting an individual or the individual's family member who has similar life experience, either as a current or former recipient of mental health or substance use, problem gambling, or mental health services, or as a family member of an individual who is a current or former recipient of substance use, problem gambling, or mental health services.
(28) “Peer-Delivered Services” are community-based services and supports provided by peers, peer support specialists, and peer wellness specialists to individuals or family members with similar lived experience. These services are intended to support individuals and families to engage individuals in ongoing treatment and to live successfully in the community.
(29) “Peer Support Specialist (PSS)” means a qualified program staff providing peer-delivered services to an individual or family member with similar life experience under the supervision of a qualified clinical supervisor and a qualified peer-delivered services supervisor as resources are made available.
(30) “Proactive Support and Crisis Response” means that youth and their families have 24/7/365 access to program staff via phone support and that a face-to-face response is available to the youth and families as needed to assist the youth and family and prevent unnecessary emergency room visit and law enforcement. Program staff must have access to the youth’s Crisis and Safety Plan and complete the required documentation.
(31) "Program" means an organized system of services and supports delivered by a provider designed to address the treatment needs of individuals and families.
(32) "Program Staff" means personnel who renders a clinical service or support. Program staff could include, for example, be an employee, contractor, intern, or volunteer who is rendering or assisting with rendering clinical services or supports.
(33) “Provider” means an organizational entity or qualified person that is certified or licensed by the Division for the direct delivery of substance use, problem gambling, or mental health services and supports.
(34) Psychiatrist" means a physician licensed by the Oregon Medical Board and who has completed an approved residency training program in psychiatry.
(35) "Qualified Mental Health Associate (QMHA)” means mental health program staff delivering services under the direct supervision of a QMHP who meets the minimum qualifications as authorized by the LMHA or designee and specified in OAR 309-019-0125.
(36) "Qualified Mental Health Professional (QMHP)" means mental health program staff LMP or any other program staff meeting the minimum qualifications as authorized by the LMHA or designee and specified in OAR 309-019-0125.
(37) "Risk Assessment" means an evaluation of the level or severity of risk the individual is experiencing and how each interact.
(38) "Screening" means the process to determine whether the individual needs further assessment to identify circumstances requiring referrals or additional services and supports.
(39) "Service Plan" means a comprehensive plan for services and supports provided to or coordinated for an individual and their family, as applicable, that is reflective of the assessment and the intended outcomes of service.
(40) “Service Note” means the written record of services and supports provided, including documentation of progress toward intended outcomes consistent with the timelines stated in the service plan.
(41) “Service Record” means the written or electronic documentation regarding an individual and resulting from entry into services, assessment, orientation, services and supports planning, services and supports provided, and transfer.
(42) "Services" means those activities and treatments described in the service plan and rendered, that are intended to support the individual's transition to recovery from a substance use disorder, problem gambling disorder, or mental health condition and to promote resiliency and rehabilitative and functional individual and family’s desired outcomes.
(43) "Skills Training" means providing information and training to individuals and families designed to assist with the development of skills in areas including but not limited to anger management, stress reduction, conflict resolution, self-esteem, parent-child interactions, personal relationships, drug and alcohol awareness, behavior support, symptom management, accessing community services, and daily living.
(44) “Suicide Risk Assessment” means a comprehensive evaluation, usually performed by a clinician, to evaluate suspected suicide risk in an individual, estimate the immediate danger, and decide on a course of treatment. May also be called Risk Assessment.
(45) “Suicide Screening” means a procedure in which a validated tool, or protocol is used to identify individuals who may be at risk for suicide.
(46) “Supports” means activities, referrals, and supportive relationships designed to enhance the services delivered to individuals and families for the purpose of facilitating progress toward intended outcomes.
(47) “Transfer” means the process of assisting an individual to transition from the current services to the next identified setting or ASAM level of care.
(48) “Trauma Informed Services” means services that reflect the consideration and evaluation of the role that trauma plays in the lives of people seeking mental health, substance use, or problem gambling services, including recognition of the traumatic effect of misdiagnosis and coercive treatment. Services are responsive to the vulnerabilities of trauma survivors and are delivered in a way that avoids inadvertent re-traumatization and facilitates individual direction of services.
(49) "Treatment" means the planned, individualized program of medical, psychological, and rehabilitative procedures, experiences, and activities designed to remediate symptoms of a DSM-5-TR diagnosis.
(50) “Wraparound" means a voluntary and definable care planning process that results in a unique set of community services and supports individualized for a youth and family to achieve a positive set of outcomes.
(51) “Youth” is the universal term used to describe all individuals, children, adolescents, and teenagers from birth through the age of 17 enrolled in IIBHT services.
(52) “Youth Peer Support Specialist” means an individual certified and listed on the registry as a Youth Peer Support Specialist in accordance with ORS 410-180-0305, and who has completed specialized training approved by the Authority.
(53) “Young adults” is the accepted term to describe individuals between the ages of 18 and 20 years of age enrolled in IIBHT services.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 430.640 & 430.705
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.010, 430.205 & 430.708
- BHS 3-2025, adopt filed 02/27/2025, effective 03/01/2025
Or. Admin. R. 309-021-0120 IIBHT General Requirements
(1) Each provider must meet the requirements contained within the following Oregon Administrative Rules (OAR) as applies to the type of service delivered:
(a) OAR 309-008 Certification of Behavioral Health Treatment Services
(b) OAR 309-019-0110 Provider Policies;
(c) OAR 309-019-0115 Individual Rights;
(d) OAR 309-019-0125 Specific Staff Qualifications and Competencies;
(e) OAR 309-019-0130 Personnel Documentation, Training, and Supervision;
(f) OAR 309-019-0135 Entry and Assessment;
(g) OAR 309-019-0140 Service Plans and Service Notes;
(h) OAR 309-019-0205 Building Requirements in Behavioral Health Programs
(i) OAR 309-019-0210 Quality Assessment and Performance Improvement;
(j) OAR 309-019-0215 Grievances and Appeals
(2) Providers billing Medicaid must meet the requirements contained within the following Oregon Administrative Rules (OAR) as applies to the type of service delivered:
(a) OAR Chapter 410, Division 120 Medical Assistance Programs;
(b) OAR Chapter 410, Division 172 Medicaid Payment for Behavioral Health Services.
(c) OAR Chapter 410 Division 151 Early and Periodic Screening, Diagnostic and Treatment
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 430.640 & 430.705
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.010, 430.205 & 430.708
- BHS 3-2025, adopt filed 02/27/2025, effective 03/01/2025
Or. Admin. R. 309-021-0130 IIBHT Staff Qualifications and Requirements
(1) Due to the complex needs of youth and young adults enrolled in IIBHT, IIBHT providers must have policies and procedures in place that address the following:
(a) How the agency will ensure that IIBHT staff have access to a QMHP or Clinical Supervisor to provide time sensitive consultation and support, as needed during working hours, outside of their required monthly supervision.
(b) How the agency will assess the ongoing training needs of IIBHT staff members and ensure access to trainings during working hours, and include how the agency plans to support the use of evidence based and/or promising practices for complex cases requiring individual and family therapy.
(c) How the agency will determine which staff attend IIBHT related meetings, trainings, and the OHA sponsored IIBHT Learning Collaboratives.
(2) QMHP Requirements:
(a) Qualify as a Qualified Mental Health Professional as defined in OAR 309.019.0150
(b) Participate in weekly IIBHT meetings to review complex cases and review clinical supports and safety plans
(c) Have no more than 12 total youth/families assigned per QMHP, at any given time, regardless of serving multiple programs
(3) Skills Trainer requirements:
(a) Qualify as a Qualified Mental Health Associate as defined in OAR 309.019.0150
(b) Participate in weekly IIBHT meetings to review complex cases, clinical interventions and supports and review crisis and safety plan, as needed
(4) IIBHT Youth Support Specialists and Family Support Specialists requirements:
(a) Qualify as a Youth Support Specialist or Family Support Specialist as outlined in 309-019-0125
(b) Has obtained certification as a Youth Peer Support Specialists or Family Support Specialist and is listed on the Oregon Health Authority’s Traditional Health Worker Registry within 90 days of hire.
(c) Participate in weekly IIBHT meetings to review complex cases and review clinical supports and safety plan
(d) Receive supervision from a staff trained in an OHA approved training on Peer Supervision.
(5) IIBHT Clinical Supervisor Requirements:
(a) Meet qualifications as a mental health clinical supervisor under OAR 309-019-0125
(b) Demonstrate additional competence in:
(A) Communication and collaboration within interdisciplinary clinical teams
(B) Clinical expertise with individual and family interventions for youth and families experiencing complex dynamics and/or presentations
(C) Trauma informed philosophy and practices
(D) Adaptation of clinical practices for individuals with intellectual and/or developmental disability
(E) Adaptation of clinical practices to address the cultural, racial, and/or ethnic needs of youth and families
(c) Utilize the IIBHT Program and Practice Standards and an OHA approved clinical supervision tool
(d) Attend training on supervision of Family Support Specialists and/or Youth Support Specialists through an Oregon Health Authority-approved training.
(e) Attend OHA-sponsored quarterly IIBHT Supervisor Learning Collaborative.
(f) Provide weekly meetings or group supervision to coordinate treatment supports, review safety plans, and coordinate crisis response between IIBHT staff members.
(g) Have access to clinical consultation with an LMP, as needed.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 430.640 & 430.705
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.010, 430.205 & 430.708
- BHS 3-2025, adopt filed 02/27/2025, effective 03/01/2025
Or. Admin. R. 309-021-0140 IIBHT eligibility criteria
(1) IIBHT eligibility for youth and young/adults based on the following eligibility criteria as assessed and documented by a QMHP or LMP with recent and direct experience treating or assessing the youth:
(a) Youth and family are experiencing intensive mental health needs which lead to increased conflict and crisis in the home, school and or community; or
(b) Youth has a history of traumatic experiences that are impacting their ability to function in multiple domains; or
(c)Youth is at risk of psychiatric hospitalization or residential treatment due to intense behavioral health challenges; or
(d)Youth is at risk of losing their current living situation due to intense behavioral health challenges; or
(e) Youth is transferring back to their home or community from an out of home placement and increased services to support of their mental health are needed for successful transition; or
(f) Youth is at high risk of harm to themselves or others; or
(g) Youth requires an increased frequency and intensity of services and is exceeding what can be offered in the Outpatient level of care setting; or
(h) Other risk factors impacting the safety in the home or community
(2) The following additional criteria shall be considered when determining program eligibility for young adults between the ages of 18 and 20 yeas of age:
(a) Young adult is living with family; and/or
(b) Young adult is under ODHS custody; and/or
(c) Young adult is enrolled in high school; and/or
(d) Young adult is assessed to be developmentally appropriate for IIBHT
(3) IIBHT Services shall include the provision and documentation of the following:
(a) Youth/Young adults are considered for IIBHT services without regard to race, ethnicity, gender, gender identity, gender presentation, sexual orientation, religion, creed, national origin, age, intellectual and/or developmental disability, IQ score, or physical disability.
(b) IIBHT services shall be available to a youth/young adult in their home, school, or other community environment as determined by the youth/young adult and their family and are offered at times and frequencies that are convenient to the youth/young adult and family as agreed upon in the signed Service Plan.
(c) Youth/young adults and their families shall not be required to participate in other services or supports, including Wraparound, in order to receive IIBHT.
(d) Youth/young adults shall not be denied for IIBHT services due to lack of biological family involvement or an identified parent/caregiver. IIBHT providers will coordinate services with Oregon Department of Human Services, foster families and other natural supports as appropriate.
(e) IIBHT providers may not require a youth/young adult or their family to terminate services with an external behavioral health provider in order to access IIBHT services.
(f) IIBHT services shall not be duplicative, unless clinically appropriate and medically necessary and requested by the youth/young adult or their family. If a youth is assigned a Youth Peer Support Specialists through a different program, IIBHT shall not assign another Youth Peer Support Specialist.
(g) If a youth/young adult is enrolled in Fidelity Wraparound, the IIBHT QMHP shall coordinate with the Wraparound Care Coordinator assigned to the youth. The Wraparound Care Coordinator shall continue to provide care coordination services for the youth/young adult during the time they are enrolled in IIBHT services.
(h) Youth/Youth adults are eligible to receive IIBHT services in congregate care settings including Behavior Rehabilitation Services, Treatment Foster Care, Temporary Placements, and/or Developmental Disability group if the youth/young adult’s behavioral health needs and meets medical necessity and appropriateness for IIBHT.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 430.640 & 430.705
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.010, 430.205 & 430.708
- BHS 3-2025, adopt filed 02/27/2025, effective 03/01/2025
Or. Admin. R. 309-021-0150 IIBHT Referrals and Admissions
(1) IIBHT providers must have policies and procedures in place which outline their process for reviewing and responding to referrals as quickly as possible in order to address the needs of complex youth and young adults in crisis and avoid the need for emergency department use or higher level of care.
(2) IIBHT Providers must have policies and procedures in place which outline their response to referrals and admissions in accordance with these rules and for partnering with local hospital emergency departments (EDs) and local school districts to address youth mental health crises and referrals.
(3) Providers shall accept completed referrals from mental health outpatient programs, residential treatment facilities, Community Mental Health Programs, Coordinated Care Organizations, Oregon Department of Human Services, youth/young adults and/or their families, and other community partners when accompanied by the following:
(a) All referrals must utilize the IIBHT Universal Referral Form provided by OHA; and
(b) Include documentation by a QMHP or LMP with recent and direct experience treating or assessing the youth which include clinical justification for this level of care.
(4) IIBHT providers shall track all referrals to IIBHT services including at a minimum the date of the referral, approval or denial date, and either the denial reason or estimated date of admission. IIBHT providers will submit documentation to OHA quarterly or as requested.
(5) Per the CCO and IIBHT program’s referral policies, the deciding entity shall communicate the determination decision within 5 business days of receipt of an IIBHT referral to the referring party. This determination shall reference appropriate medical necessity and appropriateness standards for acceptance or denial. If there is insufficient information to process the referral, the deciding entity will respond to the referring party requesting the additional information.
(6) Youth shall be enrolled into IIBHT services within 14 days of the referral being approved. If the provider is unable to enroll the youth/young adult into IIBHT services within 14 days, the provider must notify their CCO immediately. The CCO shall work with the youth/young adult and their family to:
(a)provide ongoing care coordination and support,
(b) ensure that interim alternative community-based services are in place,
(c) communicate with the IIBHT provider to facilitate IIBHT enrollment as soon as possible to prevent the need for higher levels of care.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 430.640 & 430.705
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.010, 430.205 & 430.708
- BHS 3-2025, adopt filed 02/27/2025, effective 03/01/2025
Or. Admin. R. 309-021-0160 IIBHT Entry, Assessment and Engagement
(1) The IIBHT Entry, Assessment and Engagement process must occur in accordance with OAR 309-019-0135.
(2) IIBHT providers shall create and utilize a written entry procedure to ensure youth/young adults and their families are offered an intake in the timeliest manner feasible, consistent with the youth/young adult and family’s presenting circumstances once approved.
(3) IIBHT providers shall provide a written description of the IIBHT program which includes at a minimum the available services and supports offered and the treatment review meeting expectations and timelines.
(4) IIBHT assessments shall be completed or updated in collaboration with the youth/young adult and their family at the time of entry, prior to development of the service plan
(5) A Crisis and Safety Plan shall be developed and approved by the youth/young adult and their family in consultation with the IIBHT team and shall, at a minimum include the provision and documentation of the following:
(a) The youth/young adult and family’s definition of crisis;
(b) At least one strategy to prevent a crisis situation and at least one strategy to use during a crisis situation;
(c) A list of antecedents , warning signs, and recommended de-escalation strategies and supports identified by the youth/young person and their family in consultation with the IIBHT team;
(d) Strategies for risk prevention for existing or anticipated safety concerns. This shall include strategies developed through lethal means counseling to help individuals at risk for suicide and their families to reduce access to lethal means, including but not limited to firearms and medications;
(e) Strength-based strategies for addressing the youth/young adult and their family’s needs when in crisis;
(f) Natural and formal supports approved by the youth/young adults and their family for crisis response;
(g) Be updated at the request of the youth/young adult or family, or when clinical circumstances change, including following any placement change, psychiatric crisis, overdose, suicide attempt, police involvement, or other situations identified by the youth/young adult or family;
(h) Safety requirements from other child-serving or legal systems;
(i) Be culturally and linguistically responsive;
(j) Contact information for resources that the youth/young adult and their family may use before or during a crisis event, including IIBHT 24/7/365 crisis supports;
(k) Be provided to the youth/young adult and their family in a format and languages chosen by the youth/young adult and their family no more than 10 days from start of services;
(l) The IIBHT team members working with the family must have access to the most up to date version of the Crisis and Safety Plan.
(6) The IIBHT provider shall administer an OHA approved outcome measures tool for each youth/young adult:
(a) Within 30 calendar days of entry to IIBHT services;
(b) Within 30 calendar days prior to discharge from IIBHT services; and
(c) Results from the Authority approved outcome measurement tool shall be entered into the Authority-approved data system within 30 days of entry.
(8) A referral to Fidelity Wraparound shall be offered to eligible youth/young adults enrolled in IIBHT services at the time of entry and throughout enrollment in services as applicable.
(9) A Service Plan shall be completed in accordance with OAR 309-019-0140, in collaboration with the youth/young adult and their family and additionally:
(a) A LMP shall approve the Service Plan at least annually for everyone receiving mental health services for one or more continuous years. The LMP may designate annual clinical oversight by documenting the designation to a specific licensed health care professional, per service record.
(b) The IIBHT Service Plan at a minimum shall include treatment objectives that are agreed to by the youth/young adult or family through signed, informed consent; and
(c) Documentation that a minimum of two hours a week, of specific type of IIBHT services have been recommended and documented within the Service Plan, as agreed by the child and family.
(d) Locations and time preferences for service delivery, convenient to the youth/young adult and their family. Telehealth may be utilized when requested by the youth/young adult and their family but shall not be the primary mode of service delivery.
(e) Projected timeline of IIBHT services and supports for a successful transfer from IIBHT to a lower level of care
(f) Name and contact information for all external service providers outside of IIBHT that the family chooses to maintain while enrolled in IIBHT. Provider must document all care coordination efforts in the youth/young adults service record.
(g) A copy of the Service Plan must be provided to the youth/young adult and their family in the most developmentally and culturally appropriate language.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 430.640 & 430.705
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.010, 430.205 & 430.708
- BHS 3-2025, adopt filed 02/27/2025, effective 03/01/2025
Or. Admin. R. 309-021-0170 Treatment Review Meetings
(1) IIBHT Treatment Review meetings shall meet the following requirements:
(a) Treatment Review meetings shall include, at minimum:
(A) The youth/young adult (when clinically appropriate) and their family;
(B) Natural supports as approved by the youth/young adult and their family;
(C) The youth/young adult’s assigned IIBHT QMHP; and
(D) Any other internal or external providers working with the youth/young adult and their family, including mobile crisis representatives if offered by an external organization, or that are chosen by the youth/young adult and their family.
(b) An IIBHT treatment review meeting shall be held as often as requested by the youth/young adult and their family, but no less than one time every 90 calendar days. At each meeting, the team shall document the review of:
(A) Successes and strengths of the youth/young adult and their family
(B) Review of progress towards Service Plan goals, objectives, and interventions;
(C) Any updates to the services and supports as determined by the review;
(D) Any updates to psychiatric services and recommendations since the last review;
(E) Any updates to the Crisis and Safety Plan as determined by the review;
(F) Additional interventions to meet the needs of the youth/young adult and their family;
(G) Any updates to discharge criteria and transition plan timelines needed for a successful transition from IIBHT services;
(H) Youth/young adult and their family’s overall satisfaction with services and supports and any requested changes, updates or adjustment requested.
(2) If the youth/young adult is a participant in Fidelity Wraparound, the IIBHT Treatment Review meeting may be included in the regular scheduled Wraparound meeting. The IIBHT provider shall ensure that all IIBHT documentation requirements are met.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 430.640 & 430.705
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.010, 430.205 & 430.708
- BHS 3-2025, adopt filed 02/27/2025, effective 03/01/2025
Or. Admin. R. 309-021-0180 Proactive Phone Support and In-person Crisis Response
(1) IIBHT shall include 24/7/365 support for youth/young adults and their families in the event of a behavioral health crisis.
(a) Crisis support shall be available as outlined in the youth/young adult’s individualized Crisis and Safety Plan to provide proactive support and use of skills to deescalate crises
(b) Support shall be available by phone at a minimum, and many crises may be managed proactively by phone. When appropriate and requested by the youth/young adult and/or family, support will be offered in person.
(2) IIBHT proactive phone support and in-person crisis response shall include the provision and documentation of the following:
(a) IIBHT providers shall maintain a policy outlining their procedure that insures youth/young adults and their families enrolled in IIBHT are able to access 24/7/365 proactive phone support and in-person crisis response.
(b) IIBHT providers that are unable to provide 24/7/365 in person crisis response shall establish a Memo of Understanding (MOU) with their local Mobile Crisis Intervention team to provide crisis response to IIBHT-enrolled youth/young adults and their families between the hours of midnight and 7am.
(c) IIBHT providers must ensure that any staff covering the proactive phone support and/or in-person crisis response for IIBHT meets the following requirements:
(A) Staff must be trained in crisis intervention, suicide screening and de-escalation; and
(B) Staff must have access to a QMHP who can provide clinical support and consultation; and
(C) Staff must have access to the youth/young adult’s most up to date crisis and safety plan
(d) All crisis responses must be clearly documented in the youth/young adult’s service record. Documentation must include the following:
(A) A description of the incident;
(B) A description of the interventions used;
(C) A summary of the debrief with the child and family; and
(D) Any recommendations for updates to the Crisis and Safety Plan and/or the Service Plan, and a timeframe for the next team meeting.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 430.640 & 430.705
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.010, 430.205 & 430.708
- BHS 3-2025, adopt filed 02/27/2025, effective 03/01/2025
Or. Admin. R. 309-021-0190 Transition of Care and Transfer Summary
(1) IIBHT is a time limited intervention. Youth/young adults and their families may transition to other services when one of the following situations is present:
(a) The youth/young person and their family have successfully reached their established goals and objectives in the Service Plan; or
(b) The youth/young person and their family requests a transition to a lower level of care; or
(c) The youth/young person transitions to a higher level of care, such as residential treatment; or
(d) The youth/young person and their family choose to end treatment or move out of the area
(2) IIBHT services may overlap with, but shall not duplicate other services, for continuity of care in the following circumstances:
(a) prior to the youth/young adult’s discharge from a higher level of care including residential treatment or inpatient hospitalization; or
(b) When a youth/young person is temporarily placed in juvenile detention; or
(c) When admitted to a brief inpatient psychiatric hospitalization, subacute, or psychiatric residential treatment stay.
(3) At the time of transition from IIBHT, the QMHP will complete the IIBHT Transfer Summary in collaboration with the youth/young person and their family, and at a minimum shall document the following:
(a) Final Treatment Review Meeting that includes at a minimum the youth/young person, their family, IIBHT QMHP and their next provider (whenever possible);
(b) The date and reason for transition;
(c) Successes and strengths of youth/young adult and their family;
(d) Review of progress made toward goals and objectives in Service Plan;
(e) Review of the current Crisis and Safety Plan;
(f) Recommendations for the next level of care, goals, and objectives for ongoing treatment;
(g) A brief summary of the frequency and types of services the youth/young person and their family received while enrolled in IIBHT;
(h) Any established appointments, including dates, times, and contact information for providers taking over ongoing treatment, when applicable.
(4) The IIBHT provider shall administer an OHA-approved outcome measures tool:
(a) At the final Treatment Review meeting or any time within 30 calendar days prior to discharge from IIBHT services; and
(b) Results from the OHA-approved outcome measurement tool shall be entered into the OHA-approved data system within 30 days of entry.
(5) The IIBHT Provider shall provide a copy of the Transfer Summary and the Crisis and Safety Plan to:
(a) The youth/young adult and their family, in the most developmentally and culturally appropriate language, prior to the end of services but not more than 14 business days when translation services are required.
(b) The next service provider, no later than seven calendar days following the last day of IIBHT services.
(c) IIBHT provider shall document in the youth’s service record that these documents were provided and clearly document reasons if they were not.
(6) If the IIBHT provider is unable to contact the youth/young person and their family after multiple attempts during at least a two week time period and it is determined that the youth/young person will be disenrolled from IIBHT services without a final Treatment Review meeting and transition planning, the IIBHT provider must document attempts to contact the youth/young person and their family and send a copy of the Transfer Summary and Crisis and Safety Plan to the youth/young person and their family, no later than seven calendar days of closure.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 430.640 & 430.705
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.010, 430.205 & 430.708
- BHS 3-2025, adopt filed 02/27/2025, effective 03/01/2025
Division 22 CHILDREN & ADOLESCENTS: INTENSIVE TREATMENT SERVICES; INTEGRATED LICENSES; CHILDREN'S EMERGENCY SAFETY INTERVENTION SPECIALISTS
Or. Admin. R. 309-022-0100 Purpose and Scope
(1) OAR 309-022-0100 through OAR 309-022-0192 prescribe minimum standards for services and supports provided by addictions and mental health providers approved by the Health Systems Division (Division) of the Oregon Health Authority (Authority) to operate under:
(a) An Intensive Treatment Services (ITS) certificate; or
(b) A Child and Adolescent Integrated Psychiatric Residential Treatment Facility and Residential Substance Use Disorders Treatment Program license (also called an “Integrated license” or “IPSR” program or license).
(2) OAR 309-022-0100 through OAR 309-022-0105 and OAR 309-022-0195 through OAR 309-0122-0230 prescribe minimum standards for services and supports provided by addictions and mental health providers approved by the Division to serve as a Children’s Emergency Safety Intervention Specialist (CESIS).
(3) In addition to applicable requirements in OAR 410-120-0000 through 410-120-1980 and OAR 943-120-0000 through 943-120-1550, these rules specify standards for services and supports provided in Intensive Treatment Services (ITS) for children and adolescents.
(4) Entities providing or seeking to operate a child and adolescent Integrated Psychiatric Residential Treatment Facility and Residential Substance Use Disorders Treatment Program (IPSR) shall:
(a) Meet all the requirements for ITS providers;
(b) Meet all the requirements for residential substance use disorder treatment programs in OAR 309-018-0100 through 309-018-0215, except as described in subsection (d) below;
(c) Not be required to obtain a separate license under OAR 309-018-0100 through 309-018-0215 as long as the entities have a valid IPSR license under OAR chapter 309, division 022;
(d) Meet the requirements for individual rights set forth in OAR 309-018-0115, except that seclusion and restraint may be administered as set forth in OAR 309-022-0175;
(e) Comply with the requirements of OAR 309-022-0175 and OAR chapter 309, division 022 to the extent that seclusion and restraint is administered; and
(f) Be subject to the rules in OAR chapter 415, division 012 with respect to the IPSR/Integrated license or application for a license.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390, 413.042, 430.256, 426.490 - 426.500, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.640 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 109.675, 161.390 - 161.400, 179.505, 413.520 - 413.522, 426.380 - 426.395, 426.490 - 426.500, 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.240 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955, 443.400 - 443.460, 443.991 & 743A.168
- BHS 10-2021, temporary amend filed 05/12/2021, effective 05/12/2021 through 11/07/2021
- BHS 24-2018, amend filed 12/27/2018, effective 01/25/2019
- BHS 16-2018, temporary amend filed 07/17/2018, effective 08/01/2018 through 01/27/2019
- MHS 21-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-1-16
- MHS 9-2016(Temp), f. 6-28-16, cert. ef. 7-1-16 thru 12-27-16
- MHS 5-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 8-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-022-0105 Definitions
(1) “Abuse of a Child” means the circumstances defined in ORS 419B.005.
(2) “Adolescent” means an individual from 12 through 17 years of age, or individuals determined to be developmentally appropriate for youth services.
(3) "ASAM Criteria" means the most current edition of the American Society of Addiction Medicine (ASAM) for the treatment of addictive, substance-related, and co-occurring conditions, which is a clinical guide to develop patient-centered service plans and make objective decisions about admission, continuing care, and transfer or discharge for individual.
(4) “Assessment” means the process of obtaining sufficient information through a face-to-face interview to determine a diagnosis and to plan individualized services and supports.
(5) “Authority” means the Oregon Health Authority.
(6) “Behavioral Health” means mental health, mental illness, addictive health, and addiction disorders.
(7) “Behavior Support Plan” means the individualized proactive support strategies that are used to support positive behavior.
(8) “Behavior Support Strategies” mean proactive supports designed to replace challenging behavior with functional, positive behavior. The strategies address environmental, social, neuro-developmental, and physical factors that affect behavior.
(9) “Care Coordination” means a process-oriented activity to facilitate ongoing communication and collaboration to meet multiple needs. Care coordination includes facilitating communication between the family, natural supports, community resources, and involved providers and agencies; organizing, facilitating, and participating in team meetings; and providing for continuity of care by creating linkages to and managing transitions between levels of care and transitions for young adults in transition to adult services.
(10) “Certificate” means the document issued by the Division that identify and declare certification of a provider pursuant to OAR 309-008-0100 to 309-008-1600. A letter accompanying issuance of the certificate details the scope and approved service delivery locations of the certificate.
(11) “Chemical Restraint” means the administration of medication for the acute management of potentially harmful behavior.
(12) “Chief Officer or Director” means the Chief Health Systems Officer of the Authority or designee.
(13) “Child” means an individual under the age of 18. An individual with Medicaid eligibility in need of services specific to children, adolescents, or young adults in transition shall be considered a child until age 21.
(14) “Children’s Emergency Safety Intervention Specialist (CESIS)” means a Qualified Mental Health Professional (QMHP) licensed to order, monitor, and evaluate the use of seclusion and restraint in accredited and certified facilities providing intensive mental health treatment services to individuals less than 21 years of age.
(15) “Clinical Supervision” means oversight by a qualified clinical supervisor of addictions and mental health services and supports, including ongoing evaluation and improvement of the effectiveness of those services and supports.
(16) “Clinical Supervisor” means an individual qualified to oversee and evaluate addictions or mental health services and supports.
(17) “Community Mental Health Program (CMHP)” means the organization of various services for individuals with a mental health diagnosis or addictive disorders, operated by or contractually affiliated with a local mental health authority and operated in a specific geographic area of the state under an agreement with the Division pursuant to OAR 309-014-0000.
(18) “Co-occurring Substance Use and Mental Health Disorders (COD)” means the existence of both a substance use disorder and a mental health disorder.
(19) “Coordinated Care Organization (CCO)” means a corporation, governmental agency, public corporation, or other legal entity that is certified as meeting the criteria adopted by the Authority under ORS 414.625 to be accountable for care management and to provide integrated and coordinated health care for each of the CCO’s members.
(20) “Criminal Records Check” means the Oregon Criminal Records Check and the processes and procedures required by OAR 943-007-0001 through 943-007-0501.
(21) “Crisis” means an actual or perceived urgent or emergent situation that occurs when an individual’s stability or functioning is disrupted and there is an immediate need to resolve the situation to prevent a serious deterioration in the individual’s mental or physical health or to prevent referral to a significantly higher level of care.
(22) “Cultural Competence” means the process by which people and systems respond respectfully and effectively to individuals of all cultures, languages, classes, races, ethnic backgrounds, disabilities, religions, genders, sexual orientations, and other diversity factors in a manner that recognizes, affirms, and values the worth of individuals, families, and communities and protects and preserves the dignity of each.
(23) “Declaration for Mental Health Treatment” means a written statement of an individual’s preferences concerning their mental health treatment. The declaration is made when the individual can understand and legally make decisions related to the treatment. It is honored, as clinically appropriate, in the event the individual becomes unable to make treatment decisions.
(24) “Diagnosis” means the principal mental health, substance use, or problem gambling diagnosis listed in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM). The diagnosis is determined through the assessment and any examinations, tests, or consultations suggested by the assessment and is the medically appropriate reason for services.
(25) “Division” means the Health Systems Division.
(26) “DSM” means the most recent version of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders published by the American Psychiatric Association.
(27) “Emergency Safety Intervention” means the use of seclusion or personal restraint as an immediate response to an unanticipated threat of violence or injury to an individual or others.
(28) “Emergency Safety Intervention Training” means a Division-approved course that includes an identified instructor, a specific number of face-to-face instruction hours, a component to assess competency of the course materials, and an established curriculum including the following:
(a) Prevention of emergency safety situations using positive behavior support strategies identified in the individual’s behavior support plan;
(b) Strategies to safely manage emergency safety situations; and
(c) De-escalation and debriefing.
(29) “Emergency Safety Situation” means an unanticipated behavior that places the individual or others at serious threat of violence or injury if no intervention occurs and that calls for an emergency safety intervention.
(30) “Emergent” means the onset of symptoms requiring attention within 24 hours to prevent serious deterioration in mental or physical health or threat to safety.
(31) “Entry” means the act or process of acceptance and enrollment into services regulated by this rule.
(32) “Face to Face” means a personal interaction where all participants can see, hear, or otherwise perceive accordingly to their ability, the words and facial expressions of each other in person or through telehealth services where there is a live streaming audio and video, if clinically appropriate.
(33) “Family” means the biological or legal parents, siblings, other relatives, foster parents, legal guardians, spouse, domestic partner, caregivers, and other primary relations to the individual whether by blood, adoption, or legal or social relationships. Family also means any natural, formal, or informal support persons identified as important by the individual.
(34) “Family Support” means the provision of peer delivered services to individuals defined as family to the individual. It includes support to caregivers at community meetings, assistance to families in system navigation and managing multiple appointments, supportive home visits, peer support, parent mentoring and coaching, advocacy, and furthering efforts to develop natural and informal community supports.
(35) “Family Support Specialist” means an individual who meets qualification criteria under OAR chapter 410 division 180 and provides peer delivered services to a family member who has experience parenting a child who is a current or former consumer of mental health or addiction treatment or is facing or has faced difficulties in accessing education, health, and wellness services due to a mental health or behavioral health barrier.
(36) “Gender Identity” means an individual’s self-identification of gender without regard to legal or biological identification, including but not limited to individuals identifying themselves as male, female, transgender, and transsexual.
(37) “Gender Presentation” means the external characteristics and behaviors that are socially defined as either masculine or feminine, such as dress, mannerisms, speech patterns, and social interactions.
(38) “Grievance” means a formal complaint submitted to a provider verbally or in writing by an individual or the individual’s chosen representative pertaining to the denial or delivery of services and supports.
(39) “Guardian” means an individual appointed by a court of law to act as guardian of a minor or a legally incapacitated individual.
(40) “Health Systems Services and Supports” means all services and supports including but not limited to Outpatient Community Mental Health Services and Supports for Children and Adults, Intensive Treatment Services for Children, Outpatient and Residential Substance Use Disorders Treatment Services, and Outpatient and Residential Problem Gambling Treatment Services.
(41) “HIPAA” means the federal Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 and the regulations published in Title 45, parts 160 and 164, of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR).
(42) “Individual” means any person being considered for or receiving services and supports regulated by these rules.
(43) “Informed Consent for Services” means that the service options, risks, and benefits have been explained to the individual and guardian, if applicable, in a manner that they comprehend, and the individual and guardian have consented to the services on or prior to the first date of service.
(44) “Integrated Psychiatric Residential Treatment Facility and Residential Substance Use Disorders Treatment Program” or “IPSR” or “Integrated Program” means a residential program that is licensed to provide both residential substance use disorders treatment and psychiatric residential treatment services to children and adolescents in the same facility.
(45) “Intensive Outpatient Services and Supports (IOSS)” means a specialized set of comprehensive in-home and community-based supports and mental health treatment services for children that are developed by the child and family team and delivered in the most integrated setting in the community.
(46) “Intensive Treatment Services (ITS)” means the range of services in the system of care comprised of Psychiatric Residential Treatment Facilities (PRTF) and Psychiatric Day Treatment Services (PDTS), or other services as determined by the Division that provide active psychiatric treatment for children with severe emotional disorders and their families.
(47) “Interdisciplinary Team” means the group of people designated to advise in the planning and provision of services and supports to individuals receiving ITS services and may include multiple disciplines or agencies. For Psychiatric Residential Treatment Facilities (PRTF), the composition of the interdisciplinary team shall be consistent with the requirements of 42 CFR Part 441.156.
(48) “Interim Referral and Information Services” means services provided by a substance use disorders treatment provider to individuals on a waiting list and whose services are funded by the Substance Abuse Prevention and Treatment (SAPT) Block Grant to reduce the adverse health effects of substance use, promote the health of the individual, and reduce the risk of disease transmission.
(49) “Intern” or “Student” means an individual who provides a paid or unpaid program service to complete a credentialed or accredited educational program recognized by the State of Oregon.
(50) “Juvenile Psychiatric Security Review Board (JPSRB)” means the entity described in ORS 161.385.
(51) “Level of Care” means the range of available services provided from the most integrated setting to the most restrictive and most intensive in an inpatient setting.
(52) “License” means a document or documents issued by the Division that identify and declare the provider to be licensed pursuant to OAR chapter 415 division 012 and applicable provider rules.
(53) “Licensed Health Care Professional” means a practitioner of the healing arts acting within the scope of their practice under state law who is licensed by a recognized governing board in Oregon.
(54) “Licensed Medical Practitioner (LMP)” means an individual who meets the following minimum qualifications as documented by the Local Mental Health Authority (LMHA) or designee:
(a) Physician licensed to practice in the State of Oregon; or
(b) Nurse practitioner licensed to practice in the State of Oregon; or
(c) Physician’s assistant licensed to practice in the State of Oregon; and
(d) Whose training, experience, and competence demonstrate the ability to conduct a mental health assessment and provide medication management.
(e) For IOSS and ITS providers, LMP means a board-certified or board-eligible child and adolescent psychiatrist licensed to practice in the State of Oregon.
(55) “Local Mental Health Authority (LMHA)” means one of the following entities:
(a) The board of county commissioners of one or more counties that establishes or operates a CMHP;
(b) The tribal council in the case of a federally recognized tribe of Native Americans that elects to enter into an agreement to provide mental health services; or
(c) A regional local mental health authority comprised of two or more boards of county commissioners.
(56) “Mandatory Reporter” means any public or private official, as defined in ORS 419B.005(3), who comes in contact with or has reasonable cause to believe that an individual has suffered abuse or that any individual with whom the official comes in contact with has abused the individual. Pursuant to ORS 430.765(2), psychiatrists, psychologists, clergy, and attorneys are not mandatory reporters for information received through communications that are privileged under ORS 40.225 to 40.295.
(57) “Mechanical Restraint” means any device attached or adjacent to the resident’s body he or she cannot easily remove and that restricts freedom of movement or normal access to their body. Mechanical restraint is prohibited in the services regulated by these rules.
(58) “Medicaid” means the federal grant-in-aid program to state governments to provide medical assistance to eligible persons under Title XIX of the Social Security Act.
(59) “Medical Director” means a physician licensed to practice medicine in the State of Oregon and who is designated by a substance use disorders treatment program to be responsible for the program’s medical services, either as an employee or through a contract.
(60) “Medical Supervision” means an LMP’s review and approval, at least annually, of the medical appropriateness of services and supports identified in the service plan for each individual receiving mental health services for one or more continuous years.
(61) “Medically Appropriate” means services and medical supplies required for prevention, diagnosis, or treatment of a physical or behavioral health condition or injuries and that are:
(a) Consistent with the symptoms of a health condition or treatment of a health condition;
(b) Appropriate regarding standards of good health practice and generally recognized by the relevant scientific community and professional standards of care as effective;
(c) Not solely for the convenience of an individual or a provider of the service or medical supplies; and
(d) The most cost effective of the alternative levels of medical services or medical supplies that can be safely provided to an individual.
(62) “Mental Health Intern” means an individual who meets qualifications for QMHA but does not have the necessary graduate degree in psychology, social work, or a behavioral science field to meet the educational requirement of QMHP. The individual shall:
(a) Be currently enrolled in a graduate program for a master’s degree in psychology, social work, or in a behavioral science field;
(b) Have a collaborative educational agreement with the CMHP or other provider and the graduate program;
(c) Work within the scope of their practice and competencies identified by the policies and procedures for credentialing of clinical staff as established by the provider; and
(d) Receive, at minimum, weekly supervision by a qualified clinical supervisor employed by the provider of services.
(63) “Outreach” means the delivery of behavioral health services, referral services, and case management services in non-traditional settings including but not limited to the individual’s residence, shelters, streets, jails, transitional housing sites, drop-in centers, single room occupancy hotels, child welfare settings, educational settings, or medical settings. It also refers to attempts made to engage or re-engage an individual in services by means such as letters or telephone calls.
(64) “Peer” means any individual supporting an individual or a family member who has similar life experience, either as a current or former recipient of substance use or mental health services, or as a family member of an individual who is a current or former recipient of substance use or mental health services.
(65) “Peer Delivered Services” means community-based services and supports provided by peers and peer support specialists to individuals or family members with similar lived experience. These services are designed to support individuals and families and to engage individuals in ongoing treatment to live successfully in the community.
(66) "Peer Support Specialist" means a qualified individual providing peer-delivered services to an individual or family member with similar life experience under the supervision of a qualified clinical supervisor and a qualified peer-delivered services supervisor. A peer support specialist shall be certified by the Authority’s Office of Equity and Inclusion as required by OAR 410-180-0300 to 0380 and be:
(a) A self-identified individual currently or formerly receiving substance use or mental health services;
(b) A self-identified individual in recovery from a substance use disorder who meets the abstinence requirements for recovering staff in substance use disorders treatment and recovery programs;
(c) A self-identified individual in recovery from problem gambling; or
(d) An individual with experience parenting a child who:
(A) Is a current or former consumer of mental health or substance use treatment; or
(B) Is facing or has faced difficulties in accessing education and health and wellness services due to a mental health or behavioral health barrier.
(67) “Personal Restraint” means the application of physical force without the use of any device for the purpose of restraining the free movement of an individual’s body to protect the individual or others from immediate harm. Personal restraint does not include briefly holding without undue force an individual to calm or comfort him or her or holding an individual’s hand to safely escort him or her from one area to another. Personal restraint may be used only in approved ITS or Integrated/IPSR programs as an emergency safety intervention under OAR 309-022-0175.
(68) “Problem Gambling Treatment Staff” means an individual certified or licensed by a health or allied provider agency to provide problem gambling treatment services that include assessment, development of a service plan, and group and family counseling.
(69) “Program” means a particular type or level of service that is organizationally distinct.
(70) “Program Administrator” or “Program Director” means an individual with appropriate professional qualifications and experience who is designated to manage the operation of a program.
(71) “Program Staff” means an employee or individual who by contract with the program provides a service and has the applicable competencies, qualifications, or certification required in these rules to provide the service.
(72) “Prone restraint” means a restraint in which a child in care is held face down on the floor.
(73) “Provider” means an individual or organizational provider as defined in ORS 430.637(1)(b), tribal organization, or CMHP that holds a current certificate listed in OAR 309-008-0100 or license under OAR 415-012-0000 to provide behavioral health treatment services pursuant to these and applicable service delivery rules.
(74) “Psychiatric Day Treatment Services (PDTS)” means the comprehensive, interdisciplinary, non-residential, community-based program certified under these rules consisting of psychiatric treatment, family treatment, and therapeutic activities integrated with an accredited education program.
(75) “Psychiatric Residential Treatment Facility (PRTF)” means facilities that are structured residential treatment environments with daily 24-hour supervision and active psychiatric treatment including Psychiatric Residential Treatment Services (PRTS), Secure Children’s Inpatient Treatment Programs (SCIP), Secure Adolescent Inpatient Treatment Programs (SAIP), and Sub-acute Psychiatric Treatment for children who require active treatment for a diagnosed mental health condition in a 24-hour residential setting.
(76) “Psychiatric Residential Treatment Services (PRTS)” means services delivered in a PRTF that include 24-hour supervision for children who have serious psychiatric, emotional, or acute mental health conditions that require intensive therapeutic counseling and activity and intensive staff supervision, support, and assistance.
(77) “Psychiatrist” means a physician licensed pursuant to ORS 677.010 to 677.228 and ORS 677.410 to 677.450 by the Board of Medical Examiners for the State of Oregon and who has completed an approved residency training program in psychiatry.
(78) “Psychologist” means a psychologist licensed by the Oregon Board of Psychologist Examiners.
(79) “Publicly Funded” means financial support, in part or in full, with revenue generated by a local, state, or federal government.
(80) “Qualified Mental Health Associate (QMHA)” means an individual delivering services under the direct supervision of a QMHP who meets the minimum qualifications as authorized by the LMHA or designee.
(81) “Qualified Mental Health Professional (QMHP)” means a LMP or any other individual meeting the minimum qualifications as authorized by the LMHA or designee.
(82) “Quality Assessment and Performance Improvement” means the structured, internal monitoring and evaluation of services to improve processes, service delivery, and service outcomes.
(83) “Recovery” means a process of healing and transformation for an individual to achieve full human potential and personhood in leading a meaningful life in communities of their choice.
(84) “Reportable Incident” means a serious incident involving an individual in an ITS program that shall be reported in writing to the Division within 24 hours of the incident, including but not limited to serious injury or illness, act of physical aggression that results in injury, suspected abuse or neglect, involvement of law enforcement or emergency services, or any other serious incident that presents a risk to health and safety.
(85) “Representative” means an individual who acts on behalf of an individual at the individual’s request with respect to a grievance, including but not limited to a relative, friend, Division employee, attorney, or legal guardian.
(86) “Residential Problem Gambling Treatment Program” means a publicly or privately-operated program licensed in accordance with OAR 415-012-0100 through 415-012-0225 that provides assessment, treatment, rehabilitation, and twenty-four-hour observation and monitoring for individuals with gambling related problems.
(87) “Residential Substance Use Disorders Treatment Program" has the meaning given that term in OAR 309-018-0105.
(88) “Resilience” means the universal capacity that an individual uses to prevent, minimize, or overcome the effects of adversity. Resilience reflects an individual’s strengths as protective factors and assets for positive development.
(89) “Respite Care” means planned and emergency supports designed to provide temporary relief from care giving to maintain a stable and safe living environment. Respite care may be provided in or out of the home. Respite care includes supervision and behavior support consistent with the strategies specified in the service plan.
(90) “Screening” means the process to determine whether the individual needs further assessment to identify circumstances requiring referrals or additional services and supports.
(91) “Seclusion” means the involuntary confinement of a resident alone in a room or an area from which the resident is physically prevented from leaving. Seclusion may be used only in approved ITS programs as an emergency safety intervention.
(92) “Secure Children’s Inpatient Programs (SCIP) and Secure Adolescent Inpatient Programs (SAIP)” means ITS programs that are designed to provide inpatient psychiatric stabilization and treatment services to children up to age 14 for SCIP services and individuals under the age of 21 for SAIP services who require a secure intensive treatment setting.
(93) “Secure Transportation Services” means a child-caring agency licensed by the Oregon Department of Human Services (ODHS) that provides secure transportation or secure escort services for children on defined by ORS 418.205.
(94) “Service Note” means the written record of services and supports provided, including documentation of progress toward intended outcomes consistent with the timelines stated in the service plan.
(95) “Service Plan” means a comprehensive plan for services and supports provided to or coordinated for an individual and their family that is reflective of the assessment and the intended outcomes of service.
(96) “Service Record” means the documentation, written or electronic, regarding an individual and resulting from entry, assessment, orientation, services and supports planning, services and supports provided, and transfer.
(97) “Services” means the activities and treatments described in the service plan that are intended to assist the individual’s transition to recovery from a substance use disorder, problem gambling disorder, or mental health condition and to promote resiliency and rehabilitative and functional individual and family outcomes.
(98) “Signature” means any written or electronic means of entering the name, date of authentication, and credentials of the individual providing a specific service or the individual authorizing services and supports. Signature also means any written or electronic means of entering the name and date of authentication of the individual receiving services, the guardian of the individual receiving services, or any authorized representative of the individual receiving services.
(99) “Skills Training” means providing information and training to individuals and families designed to assist with the development of skills in areas including but not limited to anger management, stress reduction, conflict resolution, self-esteem, parent-child interactions, peer relations, drug and alcohol awareness, behavior support, symptom management, accessing community services, and daily living.
(100) “Sub-Acute Psychiatric Care” means services that are provided by nationally accredited providers to children who need 24-hour intensive mental health services and supports provided in a secure setting to assess, evaluate, stabilize, or resolve the symptoms of an acute episode that occurred as the result of a diagnosed mental health condition.
(101) "Substance Abuse Prevention and Treatment Block Grant" or “SAPT Block Grant” means the federal block grants for prevention and treatment of substance abuse under Public Law 102-321 (31 U.S.C. 7301-7305) and the regulations published in Title 45 Part 96 of the Code of Federal Regulations.
(102) "Substance Use Disorders" means disorders related to the taking of a drug of abuse such as alcohol, the side effects of a medication, or toxin exposure. The disorders include but are not limited to substance use disorders including but not limited to substance dependence and substance abuse and substance-induced disorders, including substance intoxication, withdrawal, delirium, and dementia, as well as substance induced psychotic disorder and mood disorder, as defined in DSM criteria.
(103) “Substance Use Disorders Treatment and Recovery Services” means outpatient, intensive outpatient, or residential services and supports for individuals with substance use disorders.
(104) “Substance Use Disorders Treatment Staff” means an individual certified or licensed by a health or allied provider agency to provide substance use disorders treatment services such as assessment, development of a service plan, and individual, group, and family counseling.
(105) “Supine restraint” means a restraint in which a child in care is held face up on the floor.
(106) “Supports” means activities, referrals, and supportive relationships designed to enhance the services delivered to individuals and families for facilitating progress toward intended outcomes.
(107) “Transfer” means the process of assisting an individual to transition from the current services to the next appropriate setting or level of care.
(108) “Trauma Informed Services” means services that are reflective of the consideration and evaluation of the role that trauma plays in the lives of people seeking mental health and substance use services, including recognition of the traumatic effect of misdiagnosis and coercive treatment. Services are responsive to the vulnerabilities of trauma survivors and are delivered in a way that avoids inadvertent re-traumatization and facilitates individual direction of services.
(109) “Treatment” means the planned, medically appropriate, individualized program of medical, psychological, and rehabilitative procedures, experiences, and activities designed to remediate symptoms of a DSM diagnosis that are included in the service plan.
(110) “Urgent” means the onset of symptoms requiring attention within 48 hours to prevent a serious deterioration in an individual’s mental or physical health or threat to safety.
(111) "Urinalysis Test" means an initial test or, if positive, a confirmatory test conducted by a laboratory meeting the requirements of OAR 333-024-0305 to 333-024-0365:
(a) An initial test shall include, at a minimum, a sensitive, rapid, and inexpensive immunoassay screen to eliminate "true negative" specimens from further consideration;
(b) A confirmatory test is a second analytical procedure used to identify the presence of a specific drug or metabolite in a urine specimen. The confirmatory test shall be by a different analytical method from that of the initial test to ensure reliability and accuracy.
(112) “Variance” means an exception from a provision of these rules granted in writing by the Division upon written application from the provider. Duration of a variance is determined on a case-by-case basis.
(113) “Volunteer” means an individual who provides a program service or who takes part in a program service and who is not an employee of the program and is not paid for services. The services shall be non-clinical unless the individual has the required credentials to provide a clinical service.
(114) “Wellness” means an approach to healthcare that emphasizes good physical and mental health, preventing illness, and prolonging life.
(115) “Wraparound” means a voluntary and definable care planning process that results in a unique set of community services and supports individualized for a youth and family to achieve a positive set of outcomes.
(116) “Young Adult in Transition” means an individual who is developmentally transitioning into independence, sometime between the ages of 14 and 25.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390, 413.042, 430.256, 426.490 - 426.500, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.640 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 109.675, 161.390-161.400, 179.505, 413.520 - 413.522, 426.380 - 426.395, 426.490 - 426.500, 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.240 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955, 443.400 - 443.460, 443.991 & 743A.168
- BHS 5-2023, minor correction filed 01/31/2023, effective 01/31/2023
- BHS 4-2023, amend filed 01/27/2023, effective 02/01/2023
- BHS 24-2018, amend filed 12/27/2018, effective 01/25/2019
- BHS 16-2018, temporary amend filed 07/17/2018, effective 08/01/2018 through 01/27/2019
- MHS 7-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
- MHS 27-2016(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 12-29-16 thru 6-26-17
- MHS 21-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-1-16
- MHS 9-2016(Temp), f. 6-28-16, cert. ef. 7-1-16 thru 12-27-16
- MHS 5-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 8-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-022-0110 Provider Policies
(1) All providers shall develop and implement written personnel policies and procedures compliant with these rules, including:
(a) Personnel qualifications and credentialing;
(b) Mandatory abuse reporting, compliant with ORS 430.735-430.768 and OAR 943-045-0250 through 943-045-0370;
(c) Criminal records checks, compliant with ORSs 181.533 through 181.575 and OAR 943-007-0001 through 0501; and
(d) Fraud, waste, and abuse in federal Medicaid and Medicare programs compliant with OAR 410-120-1380 and 410-120-1510.
(e) Drug Free Workplace.
(2) All providers shall develop and implement written service delivery policies and procedures compliant with these rules:
(a) Policies shall be available to individuals and family members upon request; and
(b) Service delivery policies and procedures shall include at a minimum:
(A) Fee agreements;
(B) Confidentiality and compliance with HIPAA, Federal Confidentiality Regulations (42 CFR, Part 2), and state confidentiality regulations as specified in ORSs 179.505 and 192.518 through 192.530;
(C) Compliance with Title 2 of the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 (ADA);
(D) Grievances and appeals;
(E) Individual rights;
(F) Quality assessment and performance improvement;
(G) Crisis and suicide prevention and response;
(H) Incident reporting;
(I) Family involvement;
(J) Trauma-informed service delivery consistent with the Division Trauma Informed Services Policy;
(K) Provision of culturally and linguistically appropriate services; and
(L) Peer delivered services.
(3) In addition to the personnel and service delivery policies required of all providers, residential program providers shall develop and implement written policies and procedures for the following:
(a) Medical protocols and medical emergencies;
(b) Medication administration, storage, and disposal;
(c) General safety and emergency procedures to include an evacuation plan and emergency plan in case of fire, explosion, accident, death, or other emergencies. The evacuation and emergency procedures and plans shall be current and posted in a common area;
(d) Suicide risk assessment;
(e) Emergency safety interventions in ITS programs; and
(f) Proactive and positive behavior support consistent with OAR 309-022-0165.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390, 413.042, 430.256, 426.490 - 426.500, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.640 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 109.675, 161.390 - 161.400, 179.505, 413.520 - 413.522, 426.380 - 426.395, 426.490 - 426.500, 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.240 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955, 443.400 - 443.460, 443.991 & 743A.168
- BHS 24-2018, amend filed 12/27/2018, effective 01/25/2019
- BHS 16-2018, temporary amend filed 07/17/2018, effective 08/01/2018 through 01/27/2019
- MHS 7-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
- MHS 27-2016(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 12-29-16 thru 6-26-17
- MHS 8-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-022-0115 Individual Rights
(1) In addition to all applicable statutory and constitutional rights, every individual receiving services has the right to:
(a) Choose from available services and supports those that are consistent with the service plan, culturally competent, provided in the most integrated setting in the community, and under conditions that are least restrictive to the individual’s liberty, least intrusive to the individual, and provide for the greatest degree of independence;
(b) Be treated with dignity and respect;
(c) Have access to peer delivered services;
(d) Participate in the development of a written service plan, receive services consistent with that plan, and participate in periodic review and reassessment of service and support needs, assist in the development of the plan, and receive a copy of the written service plan;
(e) Have all services explained, including expected outcomes and possible risks;
(f) Confidentiality and the right to consent disclosure in accordance with ORS 107.154, 179.505, 179.507, 192.515, 192.507, 42 CFR Part 2, and 45 CFR Part 205.50;
(g) Give informed consent in writing prior to the start of services, except in a medical emergency or as otherwise permitted by law. Minor children may give informed consent to services in the following circumstances:
(A) Under age 18 and legally married;
(B) Age 16 or older and legally emancipated by the court; or
(C) Age 14 or older for outpatient services only. For purposes of informed consent, outpatient service does not include service provided in residential programs or in day or partial hospitalization programs.
(h) Inspect their service record in accordance with ORS 179.505;
(i) Refuse participation in experimentation;
(j) Receive medication specific to the individual’s diagnosed clinical needs, including medications used to treat opioid dependence;
(k) Receive prior notice of transfer, unless the circumstances necessitating transfer pose a threat to health and safety;
(L) Be free from abuse or neglect and can report any incident of abuse or neglect without being subject to retaliation;
(m) Have religious freedom;
(n) Be free from seclusion and restraint, except as set forth in OAR 309-022-0175;
(o) Be informed at the start of services and periodically thereafter of the rights guaranteed by this rule;
(p) Be informed of the policies and procedures, service agreements, and fees applicable to the services provided and to have a custodial parent, guardian, or representative assist with understanding any information presented;
(q) Have family and guardian involvement in service planning and delivery;
(r) Make a declaration for mental health treatment when legally an adult;
(s) File grievances, including appealing decisions resulting from the grievance;
(t) Exercise all rights set forth in ORS 109.610 through 109.697 if the individual is a child, as defined by these rules;
(u) Exercise all rights set forth in ORS 426.385 if the individual is committed to the Authority; and
(v) Exercise all rights described in this rule without any form of reprisal or punishment.
(2) In addition to the rights set forth in section (1) of this rule, every individual receiving residential services has the right to:
(a) A safe, secure, and sanitary living environment;
(b) A humane service environment that affords reasonable protection from harm, reasonable privacy, and daily access to fresh air and the outdoors;
(c) Keep and use personal clothing and belongings and have an adequate amount of private, secure storage space. Reasonable restriction of the time and place of use of certain classes of property may be implemented if necessary to prevent the individual or others from harm, provided notice of this restriction is given to individuals and their families, if applicable, upon entry to the program, documented, and reviewed periodically;
(d) Express sexual orientation, gender identity, and gender presentation;
(e) Have access to and participate in social, religious, and community activities;
(f) Private and uncensored communications by mail, telephone, and visitation, subject to the following restrictions:
(A) This right may be restricted only if the provider documents in the individual’s record that there is a court order to the contrary or that in the absence of this restriction, significant physical or clinical harm may result to the individual or others. The nature of the harm shall be specified in reasonable detail, and any restriction of the right to communicate shall be no broader than necessary to prevent this harm; and
(B) The individual and their guardian, if applicable, shall be given specific written notice of each restriction of the individual’s right to private and uncensored communication. The provider shall ensure that correspondence can be conveniently received and mailed, that telephones are reasonably accessible and allow for confidential communication, and that space is available for visits. Reasonable times for the use of telephones and visits may be established in writing by the provider.
(g) Communicate privately with public or private rights protection programs or rights advocates, clergy, and legal or medical professionals;
(h) Have access to and receive available and applicable educational services in the most integrated setting in the community;
(i) Participate regularly in indoor and outdoor recreation;
(j) Not be required to perform labor;
(k) Have access to adequate food and shelter; and
(L) A reasonable accommodation if due to a disability the housing and services are not sufficiently accessible.
(3) The provider shall give to the individual and, if appropriate, the guardian a document that describes the applicable individual’s rights as follows:
(a) Information given to the individual shall be in written form or upon request in an alternative format or language appropriate to the individual’s need;
(b) Rights and how to exercise them shall be explained to the individual and if appropriate to their guardian; and
(c) Individual rights shall be posted in writing in a common area.
(4) In addition to the rights described in section (3), applicants and providers of Integrated (IPSR) Programs shall meet the requirements for Individual Rights specified in OAR 309-018-0115, except that seclusion and restraint may be administered as set forth in OAR 309-022-0175.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390, 413.042, 430.256, 426.490 - 426.500, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.640 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 109.675, 161.390 - 161.400, 179.505, 413.520 - 413.522, 426.380 - 426.395, 426.490 - 426.500, 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.240 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955, 443.400 - 443.460, 443.991 & 743A.168
- BHS 24-2018, amend filed 12/27/2018, effective 01/25/2019
- BHS 16-2018, temporary amend filed 07/17/2018, effective 08/01/2018 through 01/27/2019
- MHS 7-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
- MHS 27-2016(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 12-29-16 thru 6-26-17
- MHS 5-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 8-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-022-0120 Licensing and Credentialing
Program staff in the following positions must meet applicable credentialing or licensing standards, including those outlined in these rules:
(1) CESIS;
(2) Clinical Supervisor;
(3) LMP;
(4) Medical Director;
(5) QMHA; and
(6) QMHP.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390, 413.042, 426.490 - 426.500, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.256, 430.640 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 109.675, 161.390 - 161.400, 179.505, 413.520 - 413.522, 426.380 - 426.395, 426.490 - 426.500, 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.240 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955, 443.400 - 443.460, 443.991 & 743A.168
- MHS 5-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 8-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-022-0125 Specific Staff Qualifications and Competencies
Program staff in the following positions must meet applicable credentialing or licensing standards.
(1) Program administrators or program directors shall demonstrate competence in leadership, program planning and budgeting, fiscal management, supervision of program staff, personnel management, program staff performance assessment, use of data, reporting, program evaluation, quality assurance, and developing and coordinating community resources.
(2) Clinical supervisors in all programs shall demonstrate competence in leadership, wellness, oversight and evaluation of services, staff development, service planning, case management and coordination, and utilization of community resources; group, family, and individual therapy or counseling; and documentation and rationale for services to promote intended outcomes and implementation of all provider policies.
(3) Clinical supervisors in mental health programs shall meet QMHP requirements and complete two years of post-graduate clinical experience in a mental health treatment setting.
(4) Clinical supervisors in Substance Use Disorders Treatment Programs shall meet the requirements as specified in OAR 309-018-0125 (3).
(5) Peer Delivered Services Supervisors shall be a certified Peer Support Specialist (PSS) or Peer Wellness Specialist (PWS) with at least one-year experience.
(6) QMHAs shall demonstrate the ability to communicate effectively; understand mental health assessment, treatment, and service terminology and apply each of these concepts; implement skills development strategies; and identify, implement, and coordinate the services and supports identified in a service plan. QMHAs shall meet the following minimum qualifications:
(a) Bachelor's degree in a behavioral science field; or
(b) A combination of at least three years of relevant work, education, training, or experience; or
(c) A qualified mental health intern, as defined in OAR 309-022-0105.
(7) QMHPs shall demonstrate the ability to conduct an assessment, including identifying precipitating events, gathering histories of mental and physical health, substance use, past mental health services, and criminal justice contacts; assessing family, cultural, social, and work relationships; and conducting a mental status examination, completing a DSM diagnosis, writing and supervising the implementation of a service plan; and providing individual, family, or group therapy within the scope of their training. QMHPs shall meet the following minimum qualifications:
(a) Bachelor’s degree in nursing and licensed by the State of Oregon;
(b) Bachelor’s degree in occupational therapy and licensed by the State of Oregon;
(c) Graduate degree in psychology;
(d) Graduate degree in social work;
(e) Graduate degree in recreational, art, or music therapy;
(f) Graduate degree in a behavioral science field;
(g) A qualified mental health intern, as defined in OAR 309-022-0105.
(8) Peer support specialists and peer wellness specialists, including family and youth support and wellness specialists, shall be certified and meet the requirements in OAR 410-180-0300 to 0380 for certification and continuing education and demonstrate:
(a) The ability to support others in their recovery or resiliency; and
(b) Personal life experience and tools of self-directed recovery and resiliency.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390, 413.042, 426.490 - 426.500, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.256, 430.640 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 109.675, 161.390 - 161.400, 179.505, 413.520 - 413.522, 426.380 - 426.395, 426.490 - 426.500, 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.240 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955, 443.400 - 443.460, 443.991 & 743A.168
- BHS 24-2018, amend filed 12/27/2018, effective 01/25/2019
- BHS 16-2018, temporary amend filed 07/17/2018, effective 08/01/2018 through 01/27/2019
- MHS 7-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
- MHS 27-2016(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 12-29-16 thru 6-26-17
- MHS 5-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 8-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-022-0130 Documentation, Training, and Supervision
(1) Providers shall maintain personnel records for each program staff that contains all the following documentation:
(a) An employment application;
(b) Verification of a criminal record check pursuant to OAR 943-007-0001 through 943-007-0501;
(c) A current job description that includes applicable competencies;
(d) Copies of relevant licensure or certification, diploma, or certified transcripts from an accredited college, indicating that the program staff meets applicable qualifications;
(e) Periodic performance appraisals;
(f) Staff orientation and development activities;
(g) Program staff incident reports;
(h) Disciplinary documentation;
(i) Reference checks;
(j) Emergency contact information; and
(k) Documentation of a tuberculosis screening pursuant to OAR 333-071-0057.
(2) Providers shall maintain the following documentation for contractors, interns, or volunteers, as applicable:
(a) A contract or written agreement;
(b) A signed confidentiality agreement;
(c) Service-specific orientation documentation; and
(d) Verification of a criminal records check pursuant to h OAR 943-007-0001 through 943-007-0501.
(3) Providers shall ensure program staff receive training applicable to the specific population for whom services are planned, delivered, or supervised. The program shall document orientation training for each program staff or individual providing services within 30 days of the hire date. At a minimum, orientation training for all program staff shall include but not be limited to:
(a) A review of individual crisis prevention and response procedures;
(b) A review of emergency procedures, including emergency evacuation;
(c) A review of program policies and procedures;
(d) A review of rights for individuals receiving services and supports;
(e) A review of mandatory abuse reporting procedures;
(f) A review of confidentiality policies and procedures;
(g) A review of fraud, waste and abuse policies and procedures;
(h) A review of care coordination procedures; and
(i) Positive behavior support training.
(4) Individuals providing direct services shall receive supervision by a qualified clinical supervisor, as defined in these rules, related to the development, implementation, and outcome of services. Clinical supervision shall be provided to assist program staff and volunteers to increase their skills, improve quality of services to individuals, and supervise program staff and volunteers’ compliance with program policies and procedures, including:
(a) Documentation of clinical supervision for QMHP staff of no less than two hours per month. The two hours shall include one hour of face-to-face contact for each individual supervised or a proportional level of supervision for part-time QMHP staff. Face-to-face contact may include real time, two-way audio-visual conferencing; or
(b) Documentation of two hours of quarterly supervision for program staff holding a health or allied provider license, including at least one hour of face-to-face contact for each individual supervised;
(c) Documentation of clinical supervision for each QMHA staff supervised of no less than two hours per month. The two hours shall include one hour of face-to-face contact for each individual supervised related to direct care responsibilities or a proportional level of supervision for part-time QMHA staff. Face-to-face contact may include real time, two-way audio-visual conferencing. Clinical supervision of a QMHA may be conducted by a lead QMHA staff;
(d) Documentation of weekly supervision for program staff meeting the definition of mental health intern. Documentation shall include:
(A) The date supervision took place;
(B) The amount of supervision time;
(C) A brief description of relevant topics discussed.
(e) For individuals providing direct Peer Delivered Services, one of the two hours of required supervision shall be provided by a qualified Peer Delivered Services Supervisor.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390, 413.042, 426.490 - 426.500, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.256, 430.640 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 109.675, 161.390 - 161.400, 179.505, 413.520 - 413.522, 426.380 - 426.395, 426.490 - 426.500, 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.240 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955, 443.400 - 443.460, 443.991 & 743A.168
- BHS 24-2018, amend filed 12/27/2018, effective 01/25/2019
- BHS 16-2018, temporary amend filed 07/17/2018, effective 08/01/2018 through 01/27/2019
- MHS 7-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
- MHS 27-2016(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 12-29-16 thru 6-26-17
- MHS 5-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 8-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-022-0135 Entry and Assessment
(1) The program shall utilize a written entry procedure to ensure the following:
(a) Individuals shall be considered for entry without regard to race, ethnicity, gender, gender identity, gender presentation, sexual orientation, religion, creed, national origin, age, except when program eligibility is restricted to children, adults or older adults, familial status, marital status, source of income, and disability;
(b) Individuals shall receive services in the timeliest manner feasible consistent with the presenting circumstances;
(c) Written informed consent for services shall be obtained from the individual or guardian, if applicable, prior to the start of services. If such consent is not obtained, the reason shall be documented and further attempts to obtain informed consent shall be made as appropriate;
(d) The provider shall develop and maintain service records and other documentation for each individual that demonstrates the specific services and supports and the applicable date;
(e) The provider shall report the entry of all individuals on the mandated state data system;
(f) In accordance with ORS 179.505 and HIPAA, an authorization for the release of information shall be obtained for any confidential information concerning the individual being considered for or receiving services.
(2) At the time of entry, the program shall offer to the individual and guardian, if applicable, written program orientation information. The written information shall be in a language understood by the individual and shall include:
(a) A description of individual rights consistent with these rules; and
(b) Policies concerning grievances and appeals, including an example grievance form: and
(c) Policies concerning confidentiality.
(3) Entry of children in community-based mental health services shall be prioritized in the following order:
(a) Children who are at immediate risk of psychiatric hospitalization or removal from home due to emotional and mental health conditions;
(b) Children who have severe mental health conditions;
(c) Children who exhibit behavior that indicates high risk of developing conditions of a severe or persistent nature; and
(d) Any other child who is experiencing mental health conditions that significantly affect the child’s ability to function in everyday life but not requiring hospitalization or removal from home in the near future.
(4) Assessment:
(a) At the time of entry, an assessment shall be completed prior to development of the service plan;
(b) The assessment shall be completed by a QMHP. A QMHA may assist in the gathering and compiling of information to be included in the assessment;
(c) Each assessment shall include:
(A) Sufficient information and documentation to justify the presence of a DSM diagnosis that is the medically appropriate reason for services;
(B) Suicide potential shall be assessed and service records shall contain follow-up actions and referrals when an individual reports symptoms indicating risk of suicide;
(C) Screening for the presence of co-occurring disorders and chronic medical conditions; and
(D) Screening for the presence of symptoms related to physical or psychological trauma.
(d) When the assessment process determines the presence of co-occurring substance use and mental health disorders or any significant risk to health and safety:
(A) Additional assessments shall be used to determine the need for additional services and supports and the level of risk to the individual or to others; and
(B) All providers shall document referral for further assessment, planning, and intervention from an appropriate professional, either with the same provider or with a collaborative community provider.
(e) In addition to periodic assessment updates based on changes in the clinical circumstance, any individual continuing to receive mental health services for one or more continuous years shall receive an annual assessment by an LMP.
(f) Integrated/IPSR providers shall also meet the requirements specified in OAR 309-018-0140 for conducting assessments.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390, 413.042, 430.256, 426.490 - 426.500, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.640 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 109.675, 161.390 - 161.400, 179.505, 413.520 - 413.522, 426.380 - 426.395, 426.490 - 426.500, 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.240 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955, 443.400 - 443.460, 443.991 & 743A.168
- BHS 24-2018, amend filed 12/27/2018, effective 01/25/2019
- BHS 16-2018, temporary amend filed 07/17/2018, effective 08/01/2018 through 01/27/2019
- MHS 21-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-1-16
- MHS 9-2016(Temp), f. 6-28-16, cert. ef. 7-1-16 thru 12-27-16
- MHS 5-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 8-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-022-0140 Service Planning and Coordination
(1) The provider shall deliver or coordinate for each individual appropriate services and supports to collaboratively facilitate intended service outcomes as identified by the individual and family:
(a) Qualified program staff shall facilitate a planning process, resulting in a service plan that reflects the assessment;
(b) A service plan shall be completed prior to the start of services;
(c) A licensed health care professional shall recommend the services and supports by signing the service plan;
(d) Individuals and family members shall be invited to participate in the development of the service plan;
(e) Providers shall fully inform the individual and guardian when applicable of the proposed services and supports in developmentally and culturally appropriate language, obtain informed consent for all proposed services, offer peer delivered services, and give the individual and guardian a written copy of the service plan;
(f) Providers shall collaborate with community partners to coordinate or deliver services and supports identified in the service plan;
(g) Providers shall collaborate to exchange information with any applicable physical health care providers for the individual to promote regular and adequate health care.
(2) The service plan shall be a written, individualized plan to improve the individual’s condition to the point where the individual’s continued participation in the program is no longer necessary. The service plan is included in the individual’s service records and shall:
(a) Be completed prior to the start of services;
(b) Reflect the full assessment and the level of care to be provided;
(c) Include the participation of the individual and family members;
(d) Be completed by a QMHP;
(e) A QMHP who is also a licensed health care professional shall recommend the services and supports by signing the service plan within ten business days of the start of services; and
(f) An LMP shall approve the service plan at least annually for everyone receiving mental health services for one or more continuous years. The LMP may designate annual clinical oversight by documenting the designation to a specific licensed health care professional.
(3) At a minimum, each service plan shall include:
(a) Treatment objectives that are:
(A) Individualized to meet the assessed needs of the individual; and
(B) Measurable for evaluating individual progress, including a baseline evaluation.
(b) The specific services and supports indicated by the assessment that shall be used to meet the treatment objectives;
(c) A projected schedule for service and support delivery, including the expected frequency and duration of each type of planned service or support;
(d) The credentials of the personnel providing each service and support; and
(e) A projected schedule for re-evaluating the service plan;
(f) Proactive safety and crisis planning; and
(g) A behavior support plan.
(4) The interdisciplinary team shall conduct a review of progress and transfer criteria at least every 30 days from the date of entry and shall document the member’s present, progress, and changes made. For Psychiatric Day Treatment Services, the review shall be conducted every 30 days, and the LMP shall participate in the review at least every 90 days.
(5) Providers shall document each service and support in a service note. A service note, at minimum, shall include:
(a) The specific services rendered;
(b) The specific service plan objectives being addressed by the services provided;
(c) The relationship of the services provided to the treatment objective described in the service plan;
(d) The date, time of service, and the actual amount of time the services were rendered;
(e) The personnel rendering the services, including the name, credential, and signature;
(f) The setting in which the services were rendered; and
(g) Periodic updates describing the individual’s progress.
(6) Decisions to transfer individuals shall be documented and include:
(a) The reason for the transfer;
(b) Referrals to follow up services and other behavioral health providers; and
(c) Outreach efforts made.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390, 413.042, 430.256, 426.490 - 426.500, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.640 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 109.675, 161.390 - 161.400, 179.505, 413.520 - 413.522, 426.380 - 426.395, 426.490 - 426.500, 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.240 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955, 443.400 - 443.460, 443.991 & 743A.168
- BHS 24-2018, amend filed 12/27/2018, effective 01/25/2019
- BHS 16-2018, temporary amend filed 07/17/2018, effective 08/01/2018 through 01/27/2019
- MHS 7-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
- MHS 27-2016(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 12-29-16 thru 6-26-17
- MHS 5-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 8-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-022-0145 Service Record
(1) All providers shall develop and maintain a service record for each individual upon entry.
(2) Documentation shall be appropriate in quality and quantity to meet professional standards applicable to the provider and any additional standards for documentation in the provider’s policies and any pertinent contracts.
(3) The service record shall, at a minimum, include:
(a) Identifying information or documentation of attempts to obtain the information, including:
(A) The individual's name, address, telephone number, date of birth, and gender;
(B) Name, address, and telephone number of the parent or legal guardian, primary care giver, or emergency contact;
(C) Contact information for medical and dental providers.
(b) Informed Consent for Service, including medications or documentation specifying why the provider could not obtain consent by the individual or guardian as applicable;
(c) Written refusal of any services and supports offered, including medications;
(d) A signed fee agreement, when applicable;
(e) Assessment and updates to the assessment;
(f) A service plan, including any applicable behavior support or crisis intervention planning;
(g) Service notes;
(h) A transfer summary, when applicable;
(i) Applicable signed consents for release of information.
(4) When medical services are provided, the following documents shall be part of the service record as applicable:
(a) Medication administration records;
(b) Laboratory reports; and
(c) LMP orders for medication, protocols, or procedures.
(5) Providers shall maintain additional service record documentation as follows:
(a) A personal belongings inventory created upon entry and updated whenever an item of significant value is added or removed or on the date of transfer;
(b) Documentation indicating that the individual and guardian, as applicable, were provided with the required orientation information upon entry;
(c) Background information including strengths and interests, all available previous mental health or substance use assessments, previous living arrangements, service history, behavior support considerations, education service plans if applicable, and family and other support resources;
(d) Medical information including a brief history of any health conditions, documentation from a LMP or other qualified health care professional of the individual's current physical health, and a written record of any prescribed or recommended medications, services, dietary specifications, and aids to physical functioning;
(e) Copies of documents relating to guardianship or any other legal considerations, as applicable;
(f) A copy of the individual’s most recent service plan, if applicable, or in the case of an emergency or crisis-respite entry, a summary of current addictions or mental health services and any applicable behavior support plans;
(g) Documentation of the individual’s ability to evacuate the home consistent with the program’s evacuation plan developed in accordance with the Oregon Structural Specialty Code and Oregon Fire Code;
(h) Documentation of any safety risks;
(i) Incident reports, when required, including:
(A) The date of the incident, the persons involved, the details of the incident, and the quality and performance actions taken to initiate investigation of the incident and correct any identified deficiencies; and
(B) Any child abuse reports made by the provider to law enforcement or to the Department’s Child Welfare Programs documenting the date of the incident, the individuals involved and, if known, the outcome of the reports.
(j) Level of service intensity determination;
(k) Names and contact information of the members of the interdisciplinary team;
(L) Documentation by the interdisciplinary team that the child's service plan has been reviewed, the services provided are medically appropriate for the specific level of care, and changes in the plan recommended by the interdisciplinary team, as indicated by the child's service and support needs, have been implemented;
(m) Emergency safety intervention records in a separate section or in a separate format documenting each incident of personal restraint or seclusion, signed and dated by the qualified program staff directing the intervention and, if required, by the psychiatrist or clinical supervisor authorizing the intervention; and
(n) A copy of the written transition instructions provided to the child and family on the date of transfer.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390, 413.042, 430.256, 426.490 - 426.500, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.640 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 109.675, 161.390 - 161.400, 179.505, 413.520 - 413.522, 426.380 - 426.395, 426.490 - 426.500, 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.240 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955, 443.400 - 443.460, 443.991 & 743A.168
- BHS 24-2018, amend filed 12/27/2018, effective 01/25/2019
- BHS 16-2018, temporary amend filed 07/17/2018, effective 08/01/2018 through 01/27/2019
- MHS 5-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 8-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-022-0150 Minimum Program Requirements
ITS providers shall meet the following general requirements:
(1) Maintain the organizational capacity and interdisciplinary treatment capability to deliver clinically and developmentally appropriate services in the medically appropriate amount, intensity, and duration for each child specific to the child's diagnosis, level of functioning, and the acuity and severity of the child's psychiatric symptoms.
(2) Maintain 24-hour, seven days per week treatment responsibility for children in the program.
(3) Non-residential programs shall maintain on-call capability at all times to respond directly or by referral to the treatment needs of children, including crises, 24 hours per day, and seven days per week.
(4) Inform the Division and the legal guardian within twenty-four hours of reportable incidents.
(5) Maintain linkages with primary care physicians, CMHPs, and MHOs and the child's parent or guardian to coordinate necessary continuing care resources for the child.
(6) Maintain linkages with the applicable education service district or school district to coordinate and provide the necessary educational services for the children and integrate education services in all phases of assessment, service and support planning, active treatment, and transition planning.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390, 413.042, 430.256, 426.490 - 426.500, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.640 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 109.675, 161.390 - 161.400, 179.505, 413.520 - 413.522, 426.380 - 426.395, 426.490 - 426.500, 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.240 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955, 443.400 - 443.460, 443.991 & 743A.168
- BHS 24-2018, amend filed 12/27/2018, effective 01/25/2019
- BHS 16-2018, temporary amend filed 07/17/2018, effective 08/01/2018 through 01/27/2019
- MHS 5-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 8-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-022-0155 General Staffing Requirements
(1) ITS providers shall have the clinical leadership and sufficient QMHP, QMHA, and other program staff to meet the 24-hour, seven days per week treatment needs of children and shall establish policies, procedures, and contracts to assure:
(a) Availability of psychiatric services to meet the following requirements:
(A) Provision of medical oversight of the clinical aspects of care in nationally accredited sub-acute and psychiatric residential treatment facilities and provide 24-hour, seven days per week psychiatric on-call coverage, or consult on clinical care and treatment in psychiatric day treatment; and
(B) Assessment of each child's medication and treatment needs, prescribe medicine or otherwise assure that case management and consultation services are provided to obtain prescriptions, and prescribe therapeutic modalities to achieve the child's service plan goals.
(b) There shall be at least one program staff who has completed First Aid and CPR training on duty at all times.
(2) Residential ITS providers shall ensure overnight program staff visually monitor clients at specified intervals as per agency policy during sleeping hours for signs of life. This includes monitoring for breathing and movement.
(3) ITS providers shall ensure that the following services and supports are available and accessible through direct service, contract, or by referral:
(a) Active psychiatric treatment and education services shall be functionally integrated in a therapeutic environment designed to reflect and promote achievement of the intended outcomes of each child’s service plan;
(b) Continuity of the child’s education when treatment services interrupt the child's day to day educational environment;
(c) Family therapy provided by a QMHP. The family therapist to child ratio shall be at least one family therapist for each 12 children;
(d) Psychiatric services;
(e) Individual, group, and family therapies provided by a QMHP. There shall be no less than one family therapist available for each 12 children;
(f) Medication evaluation, management, and monitoring;
(g) Pre-vocational or vocational rehabilitation;
(h) Therapies supporting speech, language, and hearing rehabilitation;
(i) Individual and group psychosocial skills development;
(j) Activity and recreational therapies;
(k) Nutrition;
(L) Physical health care services or coordination;
(m) Recreational and social activities consistent with individual strengths and interests;
(n) Educational services coordination and advocacy; and
(o) Behavior support services.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390, 413.042, 430.256, 426.490 - 426.500, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.640 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 109.675, 161.390 - 161.400, 179.505, 413.520 - 413.522, 426.380 - 426.395, 426.490 - 426.500, 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.240 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955, 443.400 - 443.460, 443.991 & 743A.168
- BHS 24-2018, amend filed 12/27/2018, effective 01/25/2019
- BHS 16-2018, temporary amend filed 07/17/2018, effective 08/01/2018 through 01/27/2019
- MHS 7-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
- MHS 27-2016(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 12-29-16 thru 6-26-17
- MHS 5-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 8-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-022-0160 Program Specific Requirements
In addition to the general requirements for all ITS providers set forth in OAR 309-022-0150 and 0155, the facilities and programs shall meet the following requirements:
(1) Psychiatric Residential Treatment Facilities (PRTF):
(a) Children shall either have or be screened for an Individual Education Plan, Personal Education Plan, or an Individual Family Service Plan;
(b) PRTFs shall maintain one or more linkages with acute care hospitals or CCOs to coordinate necessary inpatient care;
(c) Psychiatric residential clinical care and treatment shall be under the direction of a psychiatrist and delivered by an interdisciplinary team of board-certified or board-eligible child and adolescent psychiatrists, registered nurses, psychologists, other qualified mental health professionals, and other relevant program staff. A psychiatrist shall be available to the unit 24-hours per day, seven days per week; and
(d) PRTFs shall be staffed at a clinical staffing ratio of not less than one program staff for three children during the day and evening shifts at all times. At least one program staff for every three program staff members during the day and evening shifts shall be a QMHP or QMHA. For overnight program staff there shall be a staffing ratio of at least one program staff for six children at all times for each program unit. At least one of the overnight program staff shall be a QMHA. For units that by this ratio have only one overnight program staff, there shall be additional program staff immediately available within the facility or on the premises. At least one QMHP shall be on site or on call at all times. At least one program staff with designated clinical leadership responsibilities shall be on site at all times.
(2) Programs providing PRTS shall meet the requirements for PRTF’s listed in section (1)(a).
(3) Programs providing SCIP and SAIP services shall meet the requirements for PRTFs listed in section (1). They shall also establish policies and practices to meet the following:
(a) The staffing model shall allow for the child’s frequent contact with the child psychiatrist a minimum of one hour per week;
(b) Psychiatric nursing staff shall be provided in the program 24 hours per day;
(c) A psychologist, psychiatric social worker, rehabilitation therapist, and psychologist with documented training in forensic evaluations shall be available 24 hours per day as appropriate; and
(d) Program staff with specialized training in SCIP or SAIP shall be available 24 hours per day;
(e) The program shall provide all medically appropriate psychiatric services necessary to meet the child’s psychiatric care needs;
(f) The program shall provide secure psychiatric treatment services in a manner that ensures public safety to youth who are under the care and custody of the Oregon Youth Authority, court ordered for psychiatric evaluation, or admitted by the authority of the PSRB; and(g) The program may not rely on external entities such as law enforcement or acute hospital care to assist in the management of the SCIP or SAIP setting.
(4) In addition to the services provided as indicated by the assessment and specified in the service plan, Sub-Acute Psychiatric Care providers shall:
(a) Provide psychiatric nursing staffing at least 16 hours per day;
(b) Provide nursing supervision and monitoring and psychiatric supervision at least once per week; and
(c) Work actively with the child and family team and multi-disciplinary community partners to plan for the long-term emotional, behavioral, physical, and social needs of the child to be met in the most integrated setting in the community.
(5) Residential Adolescent Substance Use Disorders Treatment and Recovery Services Programs approved to provide adolescent substance use disorders treatment services or those with adolescent-designated service funding shall meet the following standards:
(a) Development of service plans, and case management services shall include participation of parents, other family members, schools, children's services agencies, and juvenile corrections, as appropriate;
(b) Services or appropriate referrals shall include:
(A) Family counseling;
(B) Education services;
(C) Community and social skills training; and
(D) Smoking cessation service.
(c) Continuing care services shall be of appropriate duration and designed to maximize recovery opportunities. The services shall include:
(A) Reintegration services and coordination with family and schools;
(B) Youth dominated self-help groups where available;
(C) Linkage to emancipation services when appropriate; and
(D) Linkage to physical or sexual abuse counseling and support services when appropriate.
(6) Psychiatric Day Treatment Services (PDTS):
(a) PDTS shall be provided to children who remain at home with a parent, guardian, or foster parent by qualified mental health professionals and qualified mental health associates in consultation with a psychiatrist;
(b) An education program shall be provided, and children shall be screened for an Individual Education Plan, Personal Education Plan, or Individual Family Service Plan; and
(c) Psychiatric Day Treatment programs shall be staffed at a clinical staffing ratio of at least one QMHP or QMHA for three children.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390, 413.042, 430.256, 426.490 - 426.500, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.640, 443.450 & HB 2804 (2024)
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 109.675, 161.390 - 161.400, 179.505, 413.520 - 413.522, 426.380 - 426.395, 426.490 - 426.500, 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.240 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955, 443.400 - 443.460, 443.991 & 743A.168
- BHS 1-2026, amend filed 03/03/2026, effective 03/03/2026
- BHS 24-2018, amend filed 12/27/2018, effective 01/25/2019
- BHS 16-2018, temporary amend filed 07/17/2018, effective 08/01/2018 through 01/27/2019
- MHS 7-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
- MHS 27-2016(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 12-29-16 thru 6-26-17
- MHS 5-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 8-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-022-0165 Behavior Support Services
Behavior support services shall be proactive, recovery-oriented, individualized, and designed to facilitate positive alternatives to challenging behavior, as well as to assist the individual in developing adaptive and functional living skills. All providers shall:
(1) Develop and implement individual behavior support strategies, based on a functional or other clinically appropriate assessment of challenging behavior.
(2) Document the behavior support strategies and measures for tracking progress as a behavior support plan in the service plan.
(3) Establish a framework that assures individualized positive behavior support practices throughout the program and articulates a rationale consistent with the philosophies supported by the Division, including the Division’s Trauma-informed Services Policy.
(4) Obtain informed consent from the parent or guardian, when applicable, in the use of behavior support strategies and communicate both verbally and in writing the information to the individual and guardian in a language understood by the individual and in a developmentally appropriate manner.
(5) Establish outcome-based tracking methods to measure the effectiveness of behavior support strategies in:
(a) Reducing or eliminating the use of emergency safety interventions; and
(b) Increasing positive behavior.
(6) Require all program staff to receive annual training in Collaborative Problem Solving, Positive Behavior Support or other Evidence-based Practice to promote positive behavior support.
(7) Review and update behavior support policies, procedures, and practices annually.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390, 413.042, 430.256, 426.490 - 426.500, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.640 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 109.675, 161.390 - 161.400, 179.505, 413.520 - 413.522, 426.380 - 426.395, 426.490 - 426.500, 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.240 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955, 443.400 - 443.460, 443.991 & 743A.168
- BHS 24-2018, amend filed 12/27/2018, effective 01/25/2019
- BHS 16-2018, temporary amend filed 07/17/2018, effective 08/01/2018 through 01/27/2019
- MHS 5-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 8-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-022-0170 Emergency Safety Interventions
Providers of ITS services shall:
(1) Adopt policies and procedures for emergency safety interventions as part of a crisis prevention and intervention policy. The policy shall be consistent with the provider’s trauma-informed services policies and procedures.
(2) Inform the individual and their parent or guardian of the provider’s policy regarding the use of personal restraint and seclusion during an emergency safety situation by both furnishing a written copy of the policy and providing an explanation in the individual’s primary language that is developmentally appropriate.
(3) Obtain a written acknowledgment from the parent or guardian that they are informed of the provider’s policies and procedures regarding the use of personal restraint and seclusion.
(4) Prohibit the use of mechanical restraint, chemical restraint and prone restraints.
(5) Prohibit the use of supine restraints unless licensed as a SCIP or SAIP program.
(6) Establish an emergency safety interventions committee or designate this function to an already established quality assessment and performance improvement committee. Committee membership shall minimally include a program staff with designated clinical leadership responsibilities, the person responsible for staff training in crisis intervention procedures, and other clinical personnel not directly responsible for authorizing the use of emergency safety interventions. The committee shall:
(a) Monitor the use of emergency safety interventions to assure that individuals are safe-guarded and their rights are always protected;
(b) Meet at least monthly and shall report in writing to the provider’s quality assessment and performance improvement committee at least quarterly regarding the committee’s activities, findings, and recommendations;
(c) Analyze emergency safety interventions to determine opportunities to prevent their use, increase the use of alternatives, improve the quality of care and safety of individuals receiving services, and recommend whether follow up action is needed;
(d) Review and update emergency safety intervention policies and procedures annually;
(e) Conduct individual and aggregate review of all incidents of personal restraint and seclusion; and
(f) Report the aggregate number of personal restraints and incidents of seclusion to the Division within 30 days of the end of each calendar quarter.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390, 413.042, 430.256, 426.490 - 426.500, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.640 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 109.675, 161.390 - 161.400, 179.505, 413.520 - 413.522, 426.380 - 426.395, 426.490 - 426.500, 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.240 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955, 443.400 - 443.460 & 443.991
- BHS 4-2023, amend filed 01/27/2023, effective 02/01/2023
- BHS 24-2018, amend filed 12/27/2018, effective 01/25/2019
- BHS 16-2018, temporary amend filed 07/17/2018, effective 08/01/2018 through 01/27/2019
- MHS 5-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 8-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-022-0175 Restraint and Seclusion
(1) Providers shall meet the following general conditions of personal restraint and seclusion:
(a) Personal restraint and seclusion shall be used only in an emergency safety situation to prevent immediate injury to an individual who is in danger of physically harming himself or herself or others in situations, such as the occurrence of or serious threat of violence, personal injury, or attempted suicide;
(b) Any use of personal restraint or seclusion shall respect the dignity and civil rights of the individual;
(c) The use of personal restraint or seclusion shall be directly related to the immediate risk related to the behavior of the individual and may not be used as punishment, discipline, or for the convenience of staff;
(d) Personal restraint or seclusion shall be used only for the length of time necessary for the individual to resume self-control and prevent harm to the individual or others, even if the order for seclusion or personal restraint has not expired, and shall under no circumstances exceed four hours for individuals ages 18 to 21, two hours for individuals ages 9 to 17, or one hour for individuals under age 9;
(e) An order for personal restraint or seclusion may not be written as a standing order or on an as needed basis;
(f) Personal restraint and seclusion may not be used simultaneously;
(g) Providers shall notify the individual’s parent or guardian of any incident of seclusion or personal restraint within 24 hours;
(h) Notification must include verbal and written notification and must include:
(A) A description of the restraint or involuntary seclusion;
(B) The date of the restraint or seclusion;
(C) The times when the restraint or seclusion began and ended and the location of the restraint or seclusion;
(D) Description of the individual’s activity that necessitated the use of restraint or seclusion;
(E) De-escalation efforts used;
(F) The names of each staff person involved.
(i) If an individual in care suffers a reportable injury arising from the use of physical restraint or seclusion notification must include any photographs, audio or video recordings of the incident;
(j) If incidents of personal restraint or seclusion used with an individual cumulatively exceed five interventions over a period of five days or a single episode of one hour within 24 hours, the psychiatrist or designee shall convene by phone or in person program staff with designated clinical leadership responsibilities to:
(A) Discuss the emergency safety situation that required the intervention, including the precipitating factors that led up to the intervention and any alternative strategies that might have prevented the use of the personal restraint or seclusion;
(B) Discuss the procedures, if any, to be implemented to prevent any recurrence of the use of personal restraint or seclusion;
(C) Discuss the outcome of the intervention including any injuries that may have resulted; and
(D) Review the individual’s service plan making the necessary revisions and documenting the discussion and any resulting changes to the individual’s service plan in the service record.
(2) Personal Restraint:
(a) Each personal restraint shall require an immediate documented order by a physician, licensed practitioner, or a licensed CESIS;
(b) The order shall include:
(A) Name of the individual authorized to order the personal restraint;
(B) Date and time the order was obtained; and
(C) Length of time for which the intervention was authorized.
(c) Each personal restraint shall be conducted by program staff that completed and used Division-approved crisis intervention training. If in the event of an emergency, a non-Division approved crisis intervention technique is used, the provider’s on-call administrator shall review immediately the intervention and document the review in an incident report to be provided to the Division within 24 hours;
(d) At least one program staff trained in the use of emergency safety interventions shall be physically present, continually assessing and monitoring the physical and psychological well-being of the individual and the safe use of the personal restraint throughout the duration of the personal restraint;
(e) Within one hour of the initiation of a personal restraint, a psychiatrist, licensed practitioner, or CESIS shall conduct a face-to-face assessment of the physical and psychological well-being of the individual;
(f) A designated program staff with clinical leadership responsibilities shall review all personal restraint documentation prior to the end of the shift in which the intervention occurred; and
(g) Each incident of personal restraint shall be documented in the service record. The documentation shall specify:
(A) Behavior support strategies and less restrictive interventions attempted prior to the personal restraint;
(B) Required authorization;
(C) Events precipitating the personal restraint;
(D) Length of time the personal restraint was used;
(E) Assessment of appropriateness of the personal restraint based on threat of harm to self or others;
(F) Assessment of physical injury; and
(G) The individual’s response to the emergency safety intervention.
(h) For PRTF, Sub-Acute, SCIP and SAIP programs within 24 hours after the use of restraint, staff involved in an emergency safety intervention and the resident must have a face-to-face discussion. This discussion must include all staff involved in the intervention except when the presence of a particular staff person may jeopardize the well-being of the resident. Other staff and the resident's parent(s) or legal guardian(s) may participate in the discussion when it is deemed appropriate by the facility. The facility must conduct such discussion in a language that is understood by the resident's parent(s) or legal guardian(s). The discussion must provide both the resident and staff the opportunity to discuss the circumstances resulting in the use of restraint or seclusion and strategies to be used by the staff, the resident, or others that could prevent the future use of restraint or seclusion.
(A) Within 24 hours after the use of restraint all staff involved in the emergency safety intervention, and appropriate supervisory and administrative staff, must conduct a debriefing session that includes, at a minimum, a review and discussion of:
(i) The emergency safety situation that required the intervention, including a discussion of the precipitating factors that led up to the intervention;
(ii) Alternative techniques that might have prevented the use of the restraint;
(iii) The procedures, if any, that staff are to implement to prevent any recurrence of the use of restraint; and
(iv) The outcome of the intervention, including any injuries that may have resulted from the use of restraint.
(B) Staff must document in the resident's record that both debriefing sessions took place and must include in that documentation the names of staff who were present for the debriefing, names of staff that were excused from the debriefing, and any changes to the resident's treatment plan that result from the debriefings.
(3) Providers shall be certified by the Division for the use of seclusion:
(a) Authorization for seclusion shall be obtained by a psychiatrist, licensed practitioner, or CESIS prior to or immediately after the initiation of seclusion. Written orders for seclusion shall be completed for each instance of seclusion and shall include:
(A) Name of the individual authorized to order seclusion;
(B) Date and time the order was obtained; and
(C) Length of time for which the intervention was authorized.
(b) Program staff trained in the use of emergency safety interventions shall be physically present continually assessing and monitoring the physical and psychological well-being of the individual throughout the duration of the seclusion;
(c) Visual monitoring of the individual in seclusion shall occur continuously and be documented at least every fifteen minutes or more often as clinically indicated;
(d) Within one hour of the initiation of seclusion, a psychiatrist or CESIS shall conduct a face-to-face assessment of the physical and psychological well-being of the individual;
(e) For PRTF, Sub-Acute, SCIP and SAIP programs within 24 hours after the use of seclusion, staff involved in an emergency safety intervention and the resident must have a face-to-face discussion. This discussion must include all staff involved in the intervention except when the presence of a particular staff person may jeopardize the well-being of the resident. Other staff and the resident's parent(s) or legal guardian(s) may participate in the discussion when it is deemed appropriate by the facility. The facility must conduct such discussion in a language that is understood by the resident's parent(s) or legal guardian(s). The discussion must provide both the resident and staff the opportunity to discuss the circumstances resulting in the use of seclusion and strategies to be used by the staff, the resident, or others that could prevent the future use of seclusion.
(A) Within 24 hours after the use of seclusion, all staff involved in the emergency safety intervention, and appropriate supervisory and administrative staff, must conduct a debriefing session that includes, at a minimum, a review and discussion of:
(i) The emergency safety situation that required the intervention, including a discussion of the precipitating factors that led up to the intervention;
(ii) Alternative techniques that might have prevented the use of the seclusion;
(iii) The procedures, if any, that staff are to implement to prevent any recurrence of the use of seclusion; and
(iv) The outcome of the intervention, including any injuries that may have resulted from the use of seclusion.
(B) Staff must document in the resident's record that both debriefing sessions took place and must include in that documentation the names of staff who were present for the debriefing, names of staff that were excused from the debriefing, and any changes to the resident's treatment plan that result from the debriefings.
(f) The individual shall have regular meals, bathing, and use of the bathroom during seclusion, and the provision of these shall be documented in the service record; and
(g) Each incident of seclusion shall be documented in the service record. The documentation shall specify:
(A) The behavior support strategies and less restrictive interventions attempted prior to the use of seclusion;
(B) The required authorization for the use of seclusion;
(C) The events precipitating the use of seclusion;
(D) The length of time seclusion was used;
(E) An assessment of the appropriateness of seclusion based on threat of harm to self or others;
(F) An assessment of physical injury to the individual, if any; and
(G) The individual's response to the emergency safety intervention.
(4) Any room specifically designated for the use of seclusion or time out shall be approved by the Division. If the use of seclusion occurs in a room with a locking door, the program shall be authorized by the Division for this purpose and shall meet the following requirements:
(a) A facility or program seeking authorization for the use of seclusion shall submit a written application to the Division;
(b) The application shall include a comprehensive plan for the need and use of seclusion of children in the program and copies of the facility's policies and procedures for the utilization and monitoring of seclusion, including a statistical analysis of the facility's actual use of seclusion, physical space, staff training, staff authorization, record keeping, and quality assessment practices;
(c) The Division shall review the application and, after a determination that the written application is complete and satisfies all applicable requirements, shall provide for a review of the facility by authorized Division staff;
(d) The Division shall have access to all records including service records, the physical plant of the facility, the employees of the facility, the professional credentials and training records for all program staff, and shall have the opportunity to fully observe the treatment and seclusion practices employed by the facility;
(e) After the review, the chief officer shall approve or disapprove the facility's application and upon approval shall certify the facility based on the determination of the facility's compliance with all applicable requirements for the seclusion of children;
(f) If disapproved, the facility shall be provided with specific recommendations and have the right of appeal to the Division; and
(g) Certification of a facility shall be effective for a maximum of three years and may be renewed thereafter upon approval of a renewal application.
(5) An ITS provider seeking certification shall have available at least one room that meets the following specifications and structural and physical requirements for seclusion:
(a) The room shall be of adequate size to permit three adults to move freely and allow for one adult to lie down. Any newly constructed room shall be no less than 64 square feet;
(b) The room may not be isolated from regular program staff of the facility and shall be equipped with adequate locking devices on all doors and windows;
(c) The door shall open outward and contain a port of shatterproof glass or plastic through which the entire room may be viewed from outside;
(d) The room shall contain no protruding, exposed, or sharp objects;
(e) The room shall contain no furniture. A fireproof mattress or mat shall be available for comfort;
(f) Any windows shall be made of unbreakable or shatterproof glass or plastic. Non-shatterproof glass shall be protected by adequate climb-proof screening;
(g) There may be no exposed pipes or electrical wiring in the room. Electrical outlets shall be permanently capped or covered with a metal shield secured by tamper-proof screws. Ceiling and wall lights shall be recessed and covered with safety glass or unbreakable plastic. Any cover, cap, or shield shall be secured by tamper-proof screws;
(h) The room shall meet State Fire Marshal fire, safety, and health standards. If sprinklers are installed, they shall be recessed and covered with fine mesh screening. If pop-down type, sprinklers shall have breakaway strength of under 80 pounds. In lieu of sprinklers, combined smoke and heat detectors shall be used with similar protective design or installation;
(i) The room shall be ventilated, kept at a temperature no less than 64°F and no more than 85°F. Heating and cooling vents shall be secure and out of reach;
(j) The room shall be designed and equipped in a manner that would not allow a child to climb off the floor;
(k) Walls, floor, and ceiling shall be solidly and smoothly constructed to be cleaned easily and have no rough or jagged portions; and
(L) Adequate and safe bathrooms shall be available.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390, 413.042, 430.256, 426.490 - 426.500, 428.205 - 28.270, 430.640 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 109.675, 161.390 - 161.400, 179.505, 413.520 - 413.522, 426.380 - 426.395, 426.490 - 426.500, 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.240 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955, 443.400 - 443.460, 443.991 & 743A.168
- BHS 4-2023, amend filed 01/27/2023, effective 02/01/2023
- BHS 21-2019, amend filed 12/24/2019, effective 01/01/2020
- BHS 24-2018, amend filed 12/27/2018, effective 01/25/2019
- BHS 16-2018, temporary amend filed 07/17/2018, effective 08/01/2018 through 01/27/2019
- MHS 7-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
- MHS 27-2016(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 12-29-16 thru 6-26-17
- MHS 21-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-1-16
- MHS 9-2016(Temp), f. 6-28-16, cert. ef. 7-1-16 thru 12-27-16
- MHS 5-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 8-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-022-0180 Transfer and Continuity of Care
(1) Providers shall meet the following requirements for planned transfer:
(a) Decisions to transfer individuals shall be documented in a transfer summary. The documentation shall include the reason for the transfer;
(b) Planned transfers shall be consistent with the transfer criteria established by the interdisciplinary team and documented in the service plan;
(c) Providers may not transfer services unless the interdisciplinary team in consultation with the child's parent or guardian and the next provider agree that the child requiresa more or less restrictive level of care; and
(d) If the determination is made to admit the child to acute care, the provider may not transfer services during the acute care stay unless the interdisciplinary team in consultation with the child's parent or guardian and the next provider agree that the child requires a more or less restrictive level of care following the acute care stay.
(2) Prior to transfer providers shall:
(a) Coordinate and provide appropriate referrals for medical care and medication management. The transferring provider shall assist the individual to identify the medical provider who provides continuing care and arrange an initial appointment with that provider;
(b) Coordinate recovery and ongoing support services for individuals and their families including identifying resources and facilitating linkage to other service systems necessary to sustain recovery including peer delivered services;
(c) Complete a transfer summary;
(d) When services are transferred due to the absence of the individual, the provider shall document outreach efforts made to re-engage the individual or document the reason why such efforts were not made;
(e) If the individual is under the jurisdiction of the PSRB, the provider shall notify the PSRB immediately and provide a copy of the transfer summary within 30 days;
(f) The provider shall report all instances of transfer on the mandated state data system; and
(g) At a minimum, the provider's interdisciplinary team shall:
(A) Integrate transfer planning into ongoing treatment planning and documentation from the time of entry and specify the transfer criteria that shall indicate resolution of the symptoms and behaviors that justified the entry;
(B) Review and, if needed, modify the transfer criteria in the service plan every 30 days;
(C) Notify the child's parent or guardian and the provider to which the child shall be transitioned of the anticipated transfer dates at the time of entry and when the service plan is changed;
(D) Include the parent or guardian peer support when requested by the parent or guardian and provider to which the child shall be transitioned in transfer planning and reflect their needs and desires to the extent clinically indicated;
(E) Finalize the transition plan prior to transfer and identify in the plan the continuum of services and the type and frequency of follow-up contacts recommended by the provider to assist in the child's successful transition to the next appropriate level of care;
(F) Assure that appropriate medical care and medication management shall be provided to individuals who leave through a planned transfer. The last service provider’s interdisciplinary team shall identify the medical personnel who provides continuing care and shall arrange an initial appointment with that provider;
(G) Coordinate appropriate education services with applicable school district personnel; and
(H) Give a written transition plan to the child's parent or guardian and the next provider if applicable on the date of transfer.
(3) A transfer summary shall include the following:
(a) The date and reason for the transfer;
(b) A summary statement that describes the effectiveness of services in assisting the individual and their family to achieve intended outcomes identified in the service plan;
(c) Where appropriate, a plan for personal wellness and resilience, including relapse prevention safety and suicide prevention planning; and
(d) Identification of resources to assist the individual and family including peer delivered services, if applicable, in accessing recovery and resiliency services and supports;
(e) If the transfer is to services with another provider, all documentation contained in the service record requested by the receiving provider shall be furnished, compliant with applicable confidentiality policies and procedures within 14 days of receipt of a written request for the documentation;
(f) A complete transfer summary shall be sent to the receiving provider within 30 days of the transfer.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390, 413.042, 430.256, 426.490 - 426.500, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.640, 443.45 & HB 2804 (2024)
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 109.675, 161.390 - 161.400, 179.505, 413.520 - 413.522, 426.380 - 426.395, 426.490 - 426.500, 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.240 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955, 443.400 - 443.460, 443.991 & 743A.168
- BHS 1-2026, amend filed 03/03/2026, effective 03/03/2026
- BHS 24-2018, amend filed 12/27/2018, effective 01/25/2019
- BHS 16-2018, temporary amend filed 07/17/2018, effective 08/01/2018 through 01/27/2019
- MHS 7-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
- MHS 27-2016(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 12-29-16 thru 6-26-17
- MHS 5-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 8-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-022-0185 Quality Assessment and Performance Improvement
(1) Each provider shall develop and implement a structured and ongoing process to assess, monitor, and improve the quality and effectiveness of services provided to individuals and their families, including:
(a) A quality improvement committee; and
(b) A performance improvement process documented in a performance improvement plan.
(2) The quality improvement committee shall include representatives of individuals served and their families and shall meet at least quarterly to:
(a) Identify and assess the following indicators of quality:
(A) Access to services;
(B) Outcomes of services;
(C) Systems integration and coordination of services; and
(D) Utilization of services.
(b) Review incident reports, emergency safety intervention documentation, grievances, and other documentation as applicable;
(c) Identify measurable and time-specific performance objectives and strategies to meet the objectives and measure progress;
(d) Recommend policy and operational changes necessary to achieve performance objectives; and
(e) Reassess and, if necessary, revise objectives and methods to measure performance on an ongoing basis to ensure sustainability of improvements.
(3) The quality assessment and performance improvement process shall be documented in a performance improvement plan that shall include:
(a) Performance objectives aimed at improving services; and
(b) Strategies designed to meet the performance objectives and measure progress.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390, 413.042, 430.256, 426.490 - 426.500, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.640 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 109.675, 161.390 - 161.400, 179.505, 413.520 - 413.522, 426.380 - 426.395, 426.490 - 426.500, 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.240 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955, 443.400 - 443.460, 443.991 & 743A.168
- BHS 24-2018, amend filed 12/27/2018, effective 01/25/2019
- BHS 16-2018, temporary amend filed 07/17/2018, effective 08/01/2018 through 01/27/2019
- MHS 5-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 8-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-022-0190 Grievances and Appeals
(1) Any individual receiving services or the parent or guardian of the individual may file a grievance with the provider, the individual’s managed care plan, or the Division.
(2) Medicaid grievances and appeals shall adhere to procedures set forth in OAR 410-141-0260 through 410-141-0266.
(3) For individuals whose services are not funded by Medicaid, providers shall:
(a) Notify each individual or guardian of the grievance procedures by reviewing a written copy of the policy upon entry;
(b) Assist individuals and parents or guardians, as applicable, to understand and complete the grievance process and notify them of the results and basis for the decision;
(c) Encourage and facilitate resolution of the grievance at the lowest possible level;
(d) Complete an investigation of any grievance within 30 calendar days;
(e) Implement a procedure for accepting, processing, and responding to grievances including specific timelines for each;
(f) Designate a program staff person to receive and process the grievance;
(g) Document any action taken on a substantiated grievance within a timely manner; and
(h) Document receipt, investigation, and action taken in response to the grievance.
(4) The provider shall have a grievance process notice that shall be posted in a conspicuous place stating the telephone number of:
(a) The Division;
(b) The CMHP;
(c) Disability Rights Oregon; and
(d) The applicable managed care organization.
(5) When the matter of the grievance is likely to cause harm to the individual before the grievance procedures are completed, the individual or individual’s guardian may request an expedited review. The program administrator shall review and respond in writing to the grievance within 48 hours of receipt of the grievance. The written response shall include information about the appeal process.
(6) A grievant, witness, or staff member of a provider may not be subject to retaliation by a provider for making a report or being interviewed about a grievance or being a witness. Retaliation may include but is not limited to dismissal or harassment; reduction in services, wages, or benefits; or basing service or a performance review on the action.
(7) The grievant is immune from any civil or criminal liability with respect to the making or content of a grievance made in good faith.
(8) Individuals and their legal guardians shall have the right to appeal entry, transfer, and grievance decisions as follows:
(a) If the individual or guardian is not satisfied with the decision, the individual or guardian may file an appeal in writing within ten working days of the date of the program administrator's response to the grievance or notification of denial for services. The appeal shall be submitted to the CMHP Director in the county where the provider is located or to the Division;
(b) If requested, program staff shall be available to assist the individual;
(c) The CMHP Director or Division, shall provide a written response within ten working days of the receipt of the appeal; and
(d) If the individual or guardian is not satisfied with the appeal decision, they may file a second appeal in writing within ten working days of the date of the written response to the Director.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390, 413.042, 430.256, 426.490 - 426.500, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.640 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 109.675, 161.390 - 161.400, 179.505, 413.520 - 413.522, 426.380 - 426.395, 426.490 - 426.500, 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.240 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955, 443.400 - 443.460, 443.991 & 743A.168
- BHS 24-2018, amend filed 12/27/2018, effective 01/25/2019
- BHS 16-2018, temporary amend filed 07/17/2018, effective 08/01/2018 through 01/27/2019
- MHS 5-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 8-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-022-0192 Variance
(1) Requirements and standards for requesting and granting variances or exceptions are found in OAR 309-008-1600 and OAR 415-012-0090.
(2) Granting a variance for one request does not set a precedent that must l be followed by the Division when evaluating subsequent requests for variance.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.390, 413.042, 430.256, 428.205 - 428.270 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 109.675, 161.390 - 161.400, 179.505, 413.520 - 413.522, 430.010, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.240 - 430.640, 430.850 - 430.955, 461.549 & 743A.168
- BHS 24-2018, amend filed 12/27/2018, effective 01/25/2019
- BHS 16-2018, temporary amend filed 07/17/2018, effective 08/01/2018 through 01/27/2019
- MHS 7-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
- MHS 27-2016(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 12-29-16 thru 6-26-17
Or. Admin. R. 309-022-0195 Licensure as a Children’s Emergency Safety Intervention Specialist (CESIS)
To obtain a license as a CESIS, an agency that is certified by the Division to provide intensive mental health treatment services for individuals less than 21 years of age shall make an application on behalf of the licensure applicant. The Division shall issue a license as a CESIS to each applicant who furnishes satisfactory evidence to the Division that the applicant meets the following qualifications:
(1) Is employed by or providing services under contract with a provider that is certified by the Division to provide intensive mental health treatment services for individuals under 21 years of age;
(2) Meets qualifications established by the Division by rule for Qualified Mental Health Professionals;
(3) Has successfully completed an emergency safety intervention training program approved by the Division within the past 12 months;
(4) Demonstrates the ability to assess the psychological and physical well-being of individuals less than 21 years of age;
(5) Demonstrates knowledge of federal and state rules governing the use of seclusion and personal restraint in intensive mental health treatment programs for individuals under 21 years of age.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 426.415
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.415
- Reverted to MHS 5-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 27-2016(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 12-29-16 thru 6-26-17
- MHS 5-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 8-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-022-0200 CESIS Scope of Licensure
(1) A licensed CESIS is authorized to:
(a) Order the least restrictive intervention, including seclusion and personal restraint that is most likely to be effective in resolving an emergency safety situation if the treatment team physician is not available.
(b) Provide the federally mandated face-to-face assessment of an individual under 21 years of age’s well-being within one hour of the initiation of the emergency safety intervention; and
(c) Accept verbal orders for seclusion and personal restraint from a physician or licensed practitioner who is authorized to order seclusion and personal restraint.
(2) Exclusions to Licensure:
(a) A licensed CESIS is not authorized to order or receive orders for the use of mechanical or chemical restraint.
(b) A CESIS license is only valid while the licensee is employed or contracted to provide services with the intensive mental health treatment services program that submitted the application on behalf of the licensee.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 426.415
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.415
- Reverted to MHS 5-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 27-2016(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 12-29-16 thru 6-26-17
- MHS 5-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 8-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-022-0205 CESIS License Applications
(1) Application for licensure as a CESIS shall be made to the Division and be on forms prescribed by the Division.
(2) Application for licensure shall be accompanied by a formal written request from a provider that is certified by the Division to provide intensive mental health treatment services for individuals under 21 years of age with which the applicant is employed or contracted. The request must include:
(a) Official transcripts and supporting documentation as necessary showing the applicant meets qualifications established by rule for a QMHP;
(b) Verification that an emergency safety intervention course approved by the Division has been successfully completed within the past 12 months;
(c) Verification of certification in CPR and First Aid by a recognized training agency;
(d) A signed Background Check Request form as described in OAR chapter 943 division 007. The Criminal Record Check form will request information regarding criminal history and other information;
(e) Verification of employment or contracted services with a provider that is certified by the Division to provide intensive mental health treatment services for individuals under 21 years of age;
(f) A copy of the completed examination or evaluation the provider used to determine the applicant’s competence to assess the psychological and physical well-being of individuals under 21 years of age; and
(g) A copy of the completed examination or evaluation the provider used to determine the applicants knowledge of the federal and state rules governing the use of seclusion and personal restraint in intensive mental health treatment programs for individuals less than 21 years of age.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 426.415
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.415
- Reverted to MHS 21-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-1-16
- MHS 27-2016(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 12-29-16 thru 6-26-17
- MHS 21-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-1-16
- MHS 9-2016(Temp), f. 6-28-16, cert. ef. 7-1-16 thru 12-27-16
- MHS 5-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 8-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-022-0210 Issuance of a License
(1) The Division shall issue a license within 30 days of the submission of a completed application. The license shall state the name of the licensee, the provider and expiration date.
(2) The license shall be placed in the licensee’s personnel file and be easily visible.
(3) An initial license is valid from the time of issuance until the expiration date, which will be September 30th of the following calendar year.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 426.415
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.415
- Reverted to MHS 5-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 27-2016(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 12-29-16 thru 6-26-17
- MHS 5-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 8-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-022-0215 Renewal and Expiration of License
(1) A license issued under these rules is subject to renewal every 2 years.
(a) All licenses will expire on September 30th. The issuance date of the licensee’s first license will determine if the license expires on an odd or even year.
(b) At least 30 days prior to the expiration of a license, a reminder notice will be sent by the Division to the licensee and the provider.
(c) A licensee seeking renewal of a license shall have a provider with whom they are employed or contracted submit on their behalf:
(A) Proof of fulfillment of the following requirements;
(i) Verification of current certification in CPR and First aid by a recognized training agency;
(ii) A copy of the evaluation completed within the last year of the applicants competence to assess the psychological and physical well-being of individuals less than 21 years of age.
(iii) A copy of the evaluation completed within the last year demonstrating the applicant’s knowledge of federal and state rules governing the use of seclusion and personal restraint in intensive mental health treatment services programs for individuals less than 21 years of age.
(B) Proof of continued employment or contract with a facility certified by the Division to provide intensive mental health treatment services for individuals less than 21 years of age.
(2) A licensee may not continue to practice as a licensed CESIS after expiration of the license.
(3) A licensee may not continue to practice as a licensed CESIS upon discontinuation of employment or contract with the provider of intensive mental health treatment services specified on the license.
(4) If the person’s previous license has expired, the person must apply and qualify for a new license in the same manner as a person who has never been licensed.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 426.415
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.415
- Reverted to MHS 5-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 27-2016(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 12-29-16 thru 6-26-17
- MHS 5-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 8-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-022-0220 Complaints
(1) Any person who believes these rules have been violated may file a compliant with the Division.
(2) The Division shall establish a protocol for investigation of complaints and make that information available to anyone who files a complaint or has a complaint filed against them. Following the Divisions investigation of a complaint, the Division may take action to:
(a) Dismiss the complaint;
(b) Issue a letter of reprimand;
(c) Direct the Provider to draft a plan of correction with the licensee; or
(d) Institute disciplinary action.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 426.415
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.415
- Reverted to MHS 5-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 27-2016(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 12-29-16 thru 6-26-17
- MHS 5-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 8-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-022-0225 Denial, Suspension, Revocation or Non-renewal of License
(1) The Division may deny, suspend, revoke or refuse to issue or to renew any license issued under these rules upon proof that the applicant for licensure or the licensee:
(a) Has been convicted of one or more crimes described in OAR 943-007 entitled “Criminal Records Checks”.
(b) Is unable to perform the duties of a CESIS by reason of mental illness, physical illness, drug addiction or alcohol abuse;
(c) Has been grossly negligent in the duties of a CESIS;
(d) Has violated one or more of the rules of the Division pertaining to the licensure of a CESIS;
(e) Has practiced outside the scope of activities for which the licensee has individual training and qualification; or
(f) Has been disciplined by a state licensing board or program in this or any other state for violation of competency or conduct standards.
(2) The Division may reprimand or impose probation on a licensee upon proof of any of the grounds for discipline provided in subsection (1) of this Section.
(3) If the Division elects to place a licensee on probation, the Division may impose:
(a) Restrictions on the scope of practice of the licensee;
(b) Requirements for specific training;
(c) Supervision of the practice of the licensee; or
(d) Other conditions the Division finds necessary for the protection of the public.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 426.415
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.415
- Reverted to MHS 5-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 27-2016(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 12-29-16 thru 6-26-17
- MHS 5-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 8-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-022-0230 Appeal Process
(1) An appeal of a denial, suspension, probation or revocation of a license may be requested in writing to the Division from a provider of intensive mental health treatment services for children less than 21 years of age on behalf of their employee or contractor.
(2) The Division’s Director or designee shall review all material relating to the denial, suspension, revocation or non-renewal, including any written documentation submitted by the licensee and provider. Based on review of the material, the Director will decide whether to sustain the decision. If the decision is not sustained, the denial, suspension, revocation or non-renewal shall be rescinded immediately. The decision of the Division is subject to a contested case hearing under ORS Chapter 183 if requested within 90 days of the decision.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 426.415
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.415
- Reverted to MHS 5-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 27-2016(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 12-29-16 thru 6-26-17
- MHS 5-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-3-14
- MHS 8-2013(Temp), f. 8-8-13, cert. ef. 8-9-13 thru 2-5-14
Division 23 PSYCHIATRIC EMERGENCY SERVICES (PES)
Or. Admin. R. 309-023-0100 Purpose and Scope
These rules prescribe standards of care and other requirements relating to psychiatric emergency services delivered in an emergency department at a licensed hospital or licensed hospital satellite.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.042
- MHS 29-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-29-16
- MHS 15-2016(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 10-6-16 thru 4-3-17
Or. Admin. R. 309-023-0110 Definitions
In addition to the definitions in OAR chapter 309 division 033 the following definitions apply to these rules:
(1) “Behavioral Health” means mental health, mental illness, substance use disorders, and gambling disorders.
(2) “Behavioral Health Assessment” means a process which determines a patient’s need for immediate crisis stabilization through evaluation of the patient’s strengths, goals, needs, and current level of functioning.
(3) “Best Practice Risk Assessment” means a research-informed methodology that provides guidelines or tools to determine an individual’s level of risk for attempting or completing self-inflicted injury or death and may include tools such as the Columbia Suicide Severity Rating Scale or other tools accepted for the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration National Registry of Evidence-based Programs and Practices or the Suicide Prevention Resource Center Best Practices Registry.
(4) “Care Coordination” means a process-oriented activity to facilitate ongoing communication and collaboration to meet multiple needs Including facilitating communication between family, natural supports, community resources, and involved providers and agencies; organizing, facilitating and participating in team meetings; and providing for continuity of care by creating linkages to and managing transitions between levels of care.
(5) "Case Management" means the services provided to assist individuals, who reside in a community setting, or are transitioning to a community setting, in gaining access to needed medical, behavioral health, social, educational, government entitlement programs, and other applicable community services.
(6) "Crisis" means either an actual, or perceived, urgent or emergent situation that occurs when an individual’s stability or functioning is disrupted and there is an immediate need to resolve the situation to prevent a serious deterioration in the individual’s mental or physical health or to prevent referral to a significantly higher level of care.
(7) "Crisis Intervention" means short-term services to address an immediate crisis need.
(8) “Crisis Stabilization Plan” means an individualized written plan defining specific short-term rehabilitation objectives and proposed crisis interventions derived from the patient’s mental and physical health assessment.
(9) “Family” has the meaning given that term in 309-018-0150.
(10) "Hospital" has the meaning given that term in ORS 442.015.
(11) “Lethal Means Counseling” means providers implement counseling strategies to help patients at risk for suicide, and their families, reduce access to lethal means, including but not limited to firearms. It includes but is not limited to several components; background on suicide data and lethal means, introduction to firearms, video presentation that models the counseling strategy, presentation and discussion on conducting a counseling session, optional role plays, and a course evaluation. (http://www.sprc.org/resources-programs/calm-counseling-access-lethal-means-0).
(12) “Living Room Setting” means a care setting that reflects the relaxed, warm, welcoming and non-clinical qualities of a typical living room.
(13) “Medically Appropriate Treatment” has the meaning given that term in OAR 410-172-0630.
(14) “Mental Status Examination” means an overall assessment of an individual’s mental functioning.
(15) “Peer” has the meaning given that term in OAR 410-180-0305.
(16) “Peer Delivered Services” has the meaning given that term in OAR 309-019-0100.
(17) “Peer Support Specialist” has the meaning given that term in OAR 410-180-0300 and also means an individual who has completed a Division approved training program (see OAR 410-180-0312) and is providing peer delivered services to an individual or family member with similar life experience, under the supervision of a qualified clinical supervisor.
(18) “Psychiatric Emergency Services (PES)” means medical and behavioral health services provided to individuals experiencing an acute disturbance of thought, mood, behavior, or social relationship that requires an immediate intervention as defined by the patient, family or the community, to prevent harm to the patient or others.
(19) “Safety Plan” means a patient directed document developed through a collaborative process in which the provider assists the patient in listing strategies for the patient to use when suicide ideation is elevated or after a suicide attempt. A safety plan template is available from the Suicide Prevention Resource Center at http://www.sprc.org/resources-programs/calm-counseling-access-lethal-means-0.
(20) “Transition of Care Coordination” also known as a Warm Handoff, means the process of transferring a patient from one provider to another, prior to discharge.
(21) “Trauma Informed Services” has the meaning given that term in OAR 309-018-0105(77). The Authority’s trauma informed service policy may be found at https://www.oregon.gov/oha/amh/pages/trauma.aspx.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.042
- MHS 29-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-29-16
- MHS 15-2016(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 10-6-16 thru 4-3-17
Or. Admin. R. 309-023-0120 PES Facility Requirements
(1) For purposes of these rules, psychiatric emergency services shall be delivered in an emergency department through a hospital or hospital satellite licensed in accordance with OAR chapter 333 division 500.
(2) The PES facility shall comply with the following:
(a) Standards for Regional Acute Care Psychiatric Services for Adults pursuant to OAR 309-032-0850 to 0870.
(b) Be approved as a hospital hold facility pursuant to OAR 309-033-0500 to 0550.
(c) Meet the structural and physical requirements set forth in OAR chapter 333 division 535 and 309-033-0727.
(3) The facility shall offer food and drink at regularly scheduled intervals and as needed, to patients receiving services.
(4) The facility shall develop policies and procedures annually that demonstrate collaboration with all local licensed ambulance service agencies and police departments that specify the role of each responder in managing medical, psychiatric and other emergencies. The policies and procedures shall also include a requirement for first responder training to determine if the appropriate setting for the patient should be a PES.
(5) The facility shall develop policies and procedures that demonstrate collaboration with the local community and local Coordinated Care Organizations.
(6) The facility shall have phone access available for the patient, when appropriate.
(7) The facility shall offer a care setting that is appropriate to the patient’s wishes and safety needs. Care settings should include a living room setting, which may accommodate the option for lying down comfortably and allowing for more privacy. Living room settings include comfortable seating, soft lighting, and are designed to encourage a sense of safety and belonging.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.042
- MHS 29-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-29-16
- MHS 15-2016(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 10-6-16 thru 4-3-17
Or. Admin. R. 309-023-0130 Services
(1) Psychiatric emergency services may include up to 23 hours of triage and assessment, observation and supervision, crisis stabilization, crisis intervention, crisis counseling, case management, medication management, safety planning, lethal means counseling, and mobilization of peer and family support and community resources.
(2) The facility shall deliver services that are individualized, recovery-oriented, trauma informed, developmentally and medically appropriate and consistent with best practices for suicide risk assessment, intervention and treatment.
(3) Staff must promptly conduct an assessment to determine the precipitating factors that lead to the crisis and a screening assessment which shall include a best practice evaluation of risk of harm to self or others, a mental status exam, need for immediate behavioral health assessment, including depression screening, need for emergency intervention, a medical screening exam, and collection of collateral information.
(4) Staff shall develop a crisis stabilization plan that provides the most effective treatment based on the patient’s provisional psychiatric condition and, to the maximum extent possible, incorporates patient or family preferences. For purposes of these rules, the term families includes families of choice. The facility shall offer peer delivered services to the patient and family and, if accepted, shall be incorporated in care coordination and crisis stabilization plan.
(5) The facility shall provide access to existing community based rehabilitation, reasonable access to peer and family support and social services that may be used to help the patient transition to the community and provide documentation of other needed interventions including crisis counseling and family counseling.
(6) Transition of care coordination shall include to the extent possible and when the patient agrees:
(a) A face-to-face meeting with a community provider and the patient, and if possible, family, and hospital staff prior to discharge.
(b) A face-to-face meeting may be accomplished via technology that provides secure, unrecorded, audio video in a private setting with a community provider and the patient, and if possible, family and hospital staff.
(7) Transition of care coordination shall include:
(a) A transitional team at the PES facility to support the patient, serve as a bridge between the hospital and a community provider and to the extent possible ensure that the patient connects with a community provider, and peer and family support services if desired by the patient and their family.
(b) For patients discharged to their home or other living environment, a member of the transition team shall determine through interviews with the patient, family, peer or family support specialists or lay caregiver the safety of that environment, potential mitigating factors to reduce risk, provide discharge instructions, including a safety plan, and lethal means counseling to the patient, peer and family support specialist and family.
(8) Facilities shall ensure that the rights of individuals are provided pursuant to OAR 309-032-0341.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.042
- MHS 29-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-29-16
- MHS 15-2016(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 10-6-16 thru 4-3-17
Or. Admin. R. 309-023-0140 Seclusion and Restraint
(1) The facility shall be certified as a Class 1 facility pursuant to OAR 309-033-0520. A Class 1 facility is a facility that is approved under applicable administrative rules to be locked to prevent a patient from leaving the facility, to use seclusion and restraint, and to involuntarily administer psychiatric medication.
(2) The facility shall comply with seclusion and restraint requirements set forth in OAR chapter 309 division 33.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.042
- MHS 29-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-29-16
- MHS 15-2016(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 10-6-16 thru 4-3-17
Or. Admin. R. 309-023-0150 Involuntary Detainment & Informed Consent
(1) For individuals who are in custody, under a civil commitment, hospital hold or on diversion, the PES facility must comply with the administrative rules in OAR chapter 309, division 33 which govern the administration, standards of care, standards for obtaining informed consent, administration of emergency procedures without informed consent, and transportation of individuals being held in custody, whether the individual is under a civil commitment order, a hospital hold, or on diversion from a civil commitment.
(2) The facility shall have written policies concerning the care, custody, and treatment of individuals in custody or on diversion. These policies shall be reviewed as part of the Division’s approval process, and be in accordance with OAR chapter 309 division 33.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.042
- MHS 29-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-29-16
- MHS 15-2016(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 10-6-16 thru 4-3-17
Or. Admin. R. 309-023-0160 Staffing Requirements
(1) An adequate number of clinical staff and on-site peer support specialists shall be available and specifically trained in psychiatric emergency services.
(2) A licensed psychiatrist shall be available to meet with patients as needed at any time and on site no less than 12 hours each day to assess individuals and initiate the development of a crisis stabilization plan and oversee patient care.
(3) At a minimum, one registered nurse, and one licensed mental health professional shall be on-site 24/7, and shall be dedicated to providing psychiatric emergency services to individuals in crisis.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.042
- MHS 29-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-29-16
- MHS 15-2016(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 10-6-16 thru 4-3-17
Or. Admin. R. 309-023-0170 Staff Training
(1) The facility shall have policies and procedures for ongoing educational programs to instruct staff regarding best practices in psychiatric emergency services.
(2) A staff training curriculum shall include, but is not limited to:
(a) Criteria for the admission of an individual who can safely be served by the facility;
(b) Recognition of indicators of violence to self or others, or assault and criteria for the transfer of the individual to or from the facility;
(c) Indicators of medical problems, identification of medication side effects, and indicators of medical problems and medical crisis;
(d) Management of aggressive behavior and de-escalation techniques;
(e) Trauma Informed care in accord with the Authority’s Trauma Informed Policy at https://www.oregon.gov/oha/amh/pages/trauma.aspx;
(f) Practices to provide psychoeducation and post-discharge safety to patients and families;
(g) Best practice treatment for substance use disorders
(h) Staff training in best practices for:
(A) Lethal means counseling which may include the CALM (http://www.sprc.org/resources-programs/calm-counseling-access-lethal-means) or similar curriculum;
(B) Collaboration with patients on development of safety plans which may include guidelines established by the Suicide Prevention Resource Center, http://www.sprc.org/sites/default/files/SafetyPlanningGuide%20Quick%20Guide%20for%20Clinicians.pdf; and
(C) Risk assessment.
(3) At a minimum, staff training shall be provided at time of hire and required annually, or more often if necessary.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.042
- MHS 29-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-29-16
- MHS 15-2016(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 10-6-16 thru 4-3-17
Or. Admin. R. 309-023-0180 Quality Assessment and Improvement and Patient Outcomes
(1) Facilities must comply with the quality assessment and improvement requirements set forth in OAR 309-032-0870 (10).
(2) In addition to the quality assessment requirements in section (1) facilities shall maintain records of outcomes, for each patient, outlined in the PES provider manual.
(3) Facilities shall report annually to the Authority regarding quality assessment information set forth in OAR 309-032-0870 and outcomes described in the PES provider manual. The report shall use data to demonstrate the quality, cost-effectiveness, and patient satisfaction with PES. The Authority shall review the PES facility reports annually and may make changes to PES policy or payment based on outcome performance.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.042
- MHS 29-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-29-16
- MHS 15-2016(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 10-6-16 thru 4-3-17
Division 27 YOUTH SUICIDE COMMUNICATION AND POST-INTERVENTION PLAN
Or. Admin. R. 309-027-0010 Purpose and Scope
(1) Oregon Administrative Rules (OAR) 309-027-0010 through 309-027-0060 implement Senate Bill (SB) 561 from Oregon’s 2015 Regular Session, and SB 485 and SB 918 from Oregon’s 2019 Regular Session.
(2) These administrative rules:
(a) Identify Local Mental Health Authorities (LMHAs) as the entities responsible for initiating and coordinating the community response to each case of suicide which meets the criteria established in SB 561 (2015):
(b) Identify what information shall be communicated to tribes, youth-serving entities, and individuals after a suspected youth suicide death by the LMHAs; and
(c) Describe the information public school districts, public universities listed in ORS 352.002, or private post-secondary institutions of education are required to report to LMHAs after a suspected youth suicide death.
(3) The four purposes of these administrative rules are:
(a) To establish minimum standards for the communication protocol and post-intervention protocol to address suspected youth suicide between LMHA’s, Oregon Health Authority, and youth-serving entities;
(b) To reduce the risk of contagion among individuals 24 years of age or younger after a suspected youth suicide by establishing overall guidelines for communication and postvention response protocols for effective communication and response by local agencies, groups, or individuals;
(c) To establish the process for LMHAs to report suspected youth suicides to the Oregon Health Authority within seven days of the death; and
(d) To establish the process for public school districts, public universities listed in ORS 352.002 or private post-secondary institutions of education are required to report suspected youth suicides to the Oregon Health Authority through LMHAs within seven days of the death.
(4) The Oregon Health Authority shall provide technical assistance to LMHAs in developing and implementing the protocols and reporting of suspected youth suicides.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 430.630 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 418.735
- BHS 6-2021, amend filed 02/24/2021, effective 02/24/2021
- MHS 24-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-5-16
Or. Admin. R. 309-027-0020 Definitions
(1) “Authority” means the Oregon Health Authority (OHA).
(2) “Authority’s Plan” means the Authority’s Youth Suicide Communication and Postvention Plan developed to implement SB 561 codified as ORS 418.735.
(3) “Communication Protocol” means the plan identifying information-sharing pathways to improve notifications and information-sharing regarding a suspected youth suicide between the LMHA and community partners, and the individuals within those entities to communicate or receive communications.
(4) “Community partners” includes local individuals, entities, and organizations including medical examiners, public school districts, public universities, private post-secondary institutions of education, or any facility or organization that provides services or resources to runaway or homeless youth.
(5) “Coordinator” means the Authority’s Youth Suicide Prevention Policy Coordinator or their designee.
(6) “Decedent” means an individual 24 years of age or younger who is no longer living as reported by a medical examiner or designee.
(7) “Designated Reporter” means the individual designated by the primary LMHA to report a suspected youth suicide to the Oregon Health Authority.
(8) “LMHA” means a Local Mental Health Authority as defined in ORS 430.630.
(9) “Medical examiner” has the same meaning given that term in ORS 146.003(10) or a physician appointed as provided by ORS 146.003 to 146.189 to investigate and certify the cause and manner of deaths requiring investigation, including the State Medical Examiner.
(10) “Post-Intervention” or “Postvention” means the activities implemented after a suspected youth suicide, including support for the bereaved family, friends, professionals, peers and those with geographic, social or social media ties to the decedent. “Post-intervention and “postvention” are used interchangeably. In order to meet the needs of those bereaved by a suicide, and to reduce the risk of suicide contagion “postvention” includes:
(a) Immediate postvention response implemented in the immediate days and weeks after a suspected youth suicide;
(b) Intermediate postvention response implemented in the several months after a suspected youth suicide; and
(c) Long-term postvention response implemented up to a year after the suspected youth suicide.
(11) “Primary LMHA” means the LMHA serving the county where the suspected youth suicide occurred.
(12) “Response Protocol” means the plan identifying the roles, responsibilities and actions of the LMHA and community partners that are activated in response to a suspected youth suicide.
(13) “Suicide Contagion” means the exposure to the suicide or suicidal behavior of one or more individuals that influences others to engage in suicidal behavior, including to attempt or complete suicide.
(14) “Suspected Youth Suicide” means a death of an individual 24 years of age or younger reported by a medical examiner or designee that is believed to have been caused by self-directed injurious behavior with an intent to die as a result of the behavior.
(15) “Traumatic Death” means a death that is sudden, unanticipated, violent, mutilating or destructive, random and/or preventable, involves multiple deaths, or one in which the mourner has a personal encounter with death. It may be caused by an accident, homicide, suicide or death in war.
(16) “Youth-serving entity” refers to any public school district, public university listed in ORS 352.002, private post-secondary institution of education, any facility that provides services or resources to runaway or homeless youth, the juvenile department, Oregon Youth Authority, community developmental disabilities programs, local child welfare and self-sufficiency agencies, local substance use disorder programs, organizations serving transitional-aged youth or any other organization or individual identified by the local mental health authority as necessary to receive notice to preserve public health.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 430.630 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 418.735
- BHS 6-2021, amend filed 02/24/2021, effective 02/24/2021
- MHS 24-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-5-16
Or. Admin. R. 309-027-0030 Communication Protocol
(1) Each LMHA, in collaboration with tribes and community partners, shall identify local pathways for information-sharing and shall establish a Communication Protocol to communicate across and within the LMHA and community partners, including tribes, to inform and mobilize postvention response. This includes both a protocol from the LMHA to youth-serving entities and from any public school district, public university listed in ORS 352.002, and private post-secondary institution of education to the LMHA in the event of a suspected youth suicide death.
(2) Communication Protocols from the LMHA to youth-serving entities shall, at the minimum:
(a) Identify the tribes, community partners, and youth-serving entities involved in developing and implementing the protocol;
(b) Identify the specific roles and responsibilities of the LMHA, community partners, and youth-serving entities for implementing the protocol;
(c) Identify how a Communication Lead will be identified for responding to each suspected youth suicide. The Communication Lead may vary among incidents, depending on the nature of the death, location of the death, age of the decedent, or other factors. The Communication Lead may be an individual designated by a tribe, school district or university, the LMHA, another facility, or another community partner. The Communication Lead is responsible for centralizing information-sharing activities in the event of a suspected youth suicide;
(d) Detail the communication-sharing process among community partners, including tribes; and
(e) Identify the process for determining the specific information and data that will be communicated from the LMHA via the Communication Lead to all relevant youth-serving entities or individuals. This may vary based on the specific circumstances of the youth suicide death, but must include:
(A) The name of the decedent;
(B) The birthdate of the decedent;
(C) The date of death of the decedent;
(D) Any other information that the local mental health authority determines is necessary to preserve the public health and that is not otherwise protected from public disclosure by state or federal law.
(3) The LMHA shall document the completed Communication Protocol in writing and submit to the Coordinator within 120 days of the effective date of these rules, and annually on or before December 15th.
(4) At least annually on or before December 15th, each LMHA, in collaboration with community partners, shall review the Communication Protocol and evaluate the protocol’s effectiveness over the past year, and provide a rationale for all revisions to the Coordinator. The Communication Protocol shall be updated and provided to the Coordinator within two weeks of a change of LMHA staff named in the protocol.
(5) The Coordinator shall:
(a) Review the communication protocols submitted by the LMHAs;
(b) Review any revisions to the communication protocols as submitted annually; and
(c) Provide feedback to the LMHA, including information on best practices, and offer technical assistance for preparation and implementation of the protocols.
(6) Communication Protocols from any public school district, public university listed in ORS 352.002, or private post-secondary institution of education to LMHAs shall, at the minimum:
(a) Identify the staff member responsible for notifying the LMHA of a suspected suicide death;
(b) Include the following information in the notification:
(A) The date of the death, or approximate date if not known;
(B) That the suspected manner of death is suicide; and
(C) A name, phone number, and email address for the school representative.
(c) No requirement of this section requires disclosure of information that is protected by state or federal public disclosure law.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 430.630 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 418.735
- BHS 6-2021, amend filed 02/24/2021, effective 02/24/2021
- MHS 24-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-5-16
Or. Admin. R. 309-027-0040 Response Protocol
(1) Each LMHA, in collaboration with community partners, shall develop a Response Protocol identifying tribes, community partners, programs, individuals and others within the community that may be notified of a suspected youth suicide or mobilized to provide post-intervention response to a suspected youth suicide.
(2) At minimum, the Response Protocol shall:
(a) Identify the community partners and youth-serving entities, which shall be involved in developing and implementing the Response Protocol;
(b) Identify the roles, responsibilities, services, and available resources of each community partner involved in implementing the Response Protocol including the immediate, intermediate and long-term postvention response;
(c) Identify the process for notification to local systems that had contact with the decedent individual in the event of a suspected youth suicide. This may include:
(A) Sample scripts for communication of death notification to local youth-serving entities;
(B) A description of the process to determine what information should be included in each notification.
(d) Identify how a Postvention Response Lead shall be identified for responding to each suspected youth suicide. The Postvention Response Lead may vary, depending on the circumstances and may be an individual designated by a tribe, school district or university, the LMHA, or another community partner. The Postvention Response Lead is responsible for coordinating postvention response and the notification process to local systems that had contact with the decedent in the event of a suspected youth suicide. The Postvention Response Lead for the Response Protocol also may be the Communication Lead;
(e) Establish and disseminate the postvention notification and response process among community partners and youth-serving entities or individuals connected to the decedent, including outreach to families, families of choice, and tribes, if applicable; and
(f) Identify the evaluation process used by community partners to debrief and assess the effectiveness of each suspected youth suicide response and the mechanism to adjust processes, as indicated, in the future. The evaluation process shall include an assessment of the effectiveness of meeting the needs of grieving families and families of choice; friends or others with relationships with the decedent; and the wider network of community members impacted by the suspected youth suicide;
(g) Identify how the Primary LMHA will notify other LMHAs linked to the decedent through residency, employment, school attendance, or significant family or social ties.
(3) The LMHA shall document the completed Response Protocol in writing and submit to the Coordinator.
(4) At least annually on or before December 15th, each LMHA in collaboration with community partners shall review the Response Protocol to debrief and evaluate the protocol’s effectiveness in the past year, and provide a rationale for all revisions to the Coordinator.
(5) For the purposes of Response Protocols, the Coordinator shall:
(a) Review the response protocols submitted by the LMHAs;
(b) Review any revisions to the response protocols submitted annually; and
(c) Provide feedback to the LMHA and offer technical assistance on best practices for development and implementation of the protocols.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 430.630 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 418.735
- BHS 6-2021, amend filed 02/24/2021, effective 02/24/2021
- MHS 24-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-5-16
Or. Admin. R. 309-027-0050 Technical Assistance
As part of the Authority’s plan for communication and response coordination among LMHAs and community partners, the Authority shall provide technical assistance for developing and updating protocols, including Coordinator assistance through:
(1) Providing comments regarding best practices to LMHAs on the content of communication and response protocols;
(2) Providing technical assistance regarding best practices in preparing the protocols;
(3) Providing technical assistance on best practices in implementing the protocols; and
(4) Providing technical assistance on best practices in responding to suspected youth suicides. This may include telephone assistance on a case by case basis, general information in the form of publications, web content, presentations or webinars.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 430.630, 430.634 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 418.735
- MHS 24-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-5-16
Or. Admin. R. 309-027-0060 Reporting To Coordinator
(1) Each LMHA shall designate a Designated Reporter assigned to timely report suspected youth suicides and postvention activities to the Coordinator. Each LMHA shall provide the name and all contact information (including email address and phone number) for the Designated Reporter. The LMHA shall also designate a backup Designated Reporter to assume those responsibilities in the event of the Designated Reporter’s absence. The LMHA shall maintain updated contact information of the Designated Reporter and backup with the Coordinator.
(2) Within seven days of a suspected or confirmed youth suicide the primary LMHA shall report to the Coordinator as follows or to the extent allowed by law.
(3) The LMHA in the county where the death occurred shall report the death to the Coordinator. The Primary LMHA and each impacted LMHA shall report their respective postvention activities. At a minimum, the reports to OHA shall include:
(a) Date of report;
(b) The author’s name, affiliated LMHA, email address and phone number;
(c) The date of the suspected youth suicide and the city and county in which the suspected youth suicide occurred;
(d) Age of the decedent;
(e) If a student, the name of the school, public or private university or college, or private post-secondary institution of education attended by the decedent.
(f) A narrative discussing the postvention activities completed or to be completed by the Primary LMHA, other impacted LMHAs, if available, and community partners. The narrative must include activities completed or planned for:
(A) The immediate postvention response;
(B) The intermediate postvention response; and
(C) The long-term postvention response, including how the interventions may change due to the end of a school year, at graduation, and at the anniversary of the death;
(g) If the LMHA has not determined intermediate or long-term postvention response activities at the time of the seven- day report, the LMHA shall provide the narrative described in subsection (f) to the Coordinator within 45 days of the date of the initial report.
(h) A request or decline of technical assistance from OHA.
(i) If assistance is requested, the LMHA shall make the request by phone or secure email and include as much of the following as is possible:
(A) The decedent’s age; race and/or ethnicity; gender; gender identity; and sexual orientation;
(B) Identify the agency with custody of the decedent, if applicable;
(C) Identify organizations or individuals that provided services or resources to the decedent if the decedent was a runaway or homeless youth at the time of death;
(D) Location of the suspected youth suicide (such as a public place or private residence);
(E) Any evidence of bullying (cyber or in person);
(F) The manner in which, if at all, social media were involved;
(G) Whether, within the previous year, the decedent’s family experienced another suicide;
(H) A description of all other traumatic deaths within the community, if known within the previous year;
(I) Whether the decedent was receiving mental or behavioral health services at or close to the time of death;
(J) Whether substance use or abuse was a factor in the death, if known; and,
(K) Any other information that the LMHAs deems necessary for the Coordinator to have in order to provide assistance.
(4) LMHAs shall notify the Coordinator if a death reported as a suspected youth suicide is later determined by the medical examiner or designee to not be a suicide.
(5) OHA shall provide LMHAs with a form for reporting the required information via e-mail to the Coordinator.
(6) Annually by December 15th, each LMHA shall report to the Coordinator an assessment of the effectiveness of the: communication and response protocols; post-intervention services provided, and procedures for reporting deaths to OHA. The LMHA may also include an estimate of the costs to the LMHA in implementing these rules that year.
(7) As part of the Authority’s Plan to improve communication and response to suspected youth suicides, the Coordinator shall use the information compiled from the LMHA annual reports to aid its efforts to serve as a resource to the LMHAs.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 430.630, 430.634 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 418.735
- BHS 6-2021, amend filed 02/24/2021, effective 02/24/2021
- MHS 24-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-5-16
Division 31 PROGRAMS FOR MENTAL OR EMOTIONAL DISTURBANCES
Or. Admin. R. 309-031-0010 Forensic Psychiatric Services
(1) Purpose. This rule prescribes procedures for state institutions serving persons committed to the Division by a court of criminal jurisdiction and persons ordered to a state institution by the Psychiatric Security Review Board or Oregon Health Authority. This rule also designates the state institution to receive other dangerous persons in certain instances.
(2) Statutory Authority and Procedure. This rule is authorized by ORS 161.390, 179.360, 179.040, and 413.042 and carries out the provisions of 161.295 through 161.370, 161.725 to 161.735, 426.005 to 426.680, 427.175, 427.180 & 430.610 to 430.725.
(3) Definitions. As used in this rule:
(a) “Administrator” means the Assistant Director, of the Addictions and Mental Health Division.
(b) “Division” means the Addictions and Mental Health Division of the Oregon Health Authority.
(c) “Patient” means a person who is receiving care and treatment in a state institution for the mentally ill.
(d) “Psychiatric Security Review Board” is the Board created by ORS 161.385.
(e) “Resident” means a person who is receiving care, treatment, and training in a state institution for the mentally retarded.
(f) “State Institution” means Dammasch State Hospital in Wilsonville, Oregon State Hospital in Salem, Fairview Training Center in Salem, and Eastern Oregon Hospital and Training Center in Pendleton.
(g) “Superintendent” means the executive head of the state institution as listed in subsection (3)(f) of this rule.
(4) Designation of State Institution for Serving Persons Under Jurisdiction of Court, the Oregon Health Authority, or Psychiatric Security Review Board:
(a) If a court orders a person committed to a state institution for an evaluation under ORS 161.365 to determine a defendant’s fitness to proceed to trial, under ORS 161.315 to determine a defendant’s criminal responsibility, or under ORS 161.725 to determine if a defendant is a habitual criminal, the person will be admitted to the Forensic Psychiatric Service of Oregon State Hospital according to conditions set forth in subsection (b) of this section, unless otherwise ordered by the Administrator;
(b) The Clinical Director of the Forensic Psychiatric Service may, upon finding that requests for admission to the Service pursuant to subsection (a) of this section are sufficient in number to require the establishment of a waiting list to govern admissions, establish a waiting list based on such factors as:
(A) Severity of the mental disorder;
(B) Degree to which the person presents an immediate and serious danger to others;
(C) Adequacy of the facility having custody to continue care and custody of the person; and
(D) Sequence in which the order or request for admission was received by the Forensic Psychiatric Service.
(c) If a court orders a person committed to the custody of the Superintendent of a state institution under ORS 161.370, or if a court, the Psychiatric Security Review Board, or the Oregon Health Authority orders a person committed to a state institution under ORS 161.327, 161.328, 161.336, 161.341, or 161.346, the Superintendent may:
(A) Admit the person to a state institution; or
(B) Treat the person at another facility, by agreement with the authority responsible for that facility, if the Superintendent determines that the medical needs of the person or the safety and welfare of the person or of others require that the person be served in another facility, unless otherwise ordered by the Administrator.
(5) Interinstitutional Transfers:
(a) If, in the opinion of the Superintendent of Oregon State Hospital or his designee, it is deemed to be required by the medical needs of the person or for the safety and welfare of the person or the safety of others that a patient of the Forensic Psychiatric Service be transferred within Oregon State Hospital, or to Dammasch State Hospital, Eastern Oregon Hospital and Training Center, or Fairview Training Center, the superintendent shall initiate a request for transfer on forms prescribed by the Division and, upon approval by the superintendent of the receiving institution, arrange for transfer. A patient of the Forensic Psychiatric Service may request such a transfer through a written request to the Superintendent of Oregon State Hospital. Transfers made to the Mental Retardation Section of Eastern Oregon Hospital and Training Center or Fairview Training Center shall comply with the eligibility requirements outlined in OAR 309-042-0000 to 309-042-0050 (Admission and Release of Residents), as determined by the Diagnosis and Evaluation Service of the Division;
(b) If, in the opinion of the superintendent of a state institution, it is deemed to be required by the medical needs of the person or for the safety and welfare of the person or the safety of others that a patient or resident be transferred to the Forensic Psychiatric Service, the superintendent shall initiate a request for transfer on forms prescribed by the Division and, upon approval by the Superintendent of Oregon State Hospital, arrange for transfer;
(c) If a request for transfer to or transfer from the Forensic Psychiatric Service of Oregon State Hospital is rejected by the receiving state institution, the referring institution may request the Administrator to convene the Interinstitutional Disposition Board to determine the placement consistent with the person’s needs and the safety of others. The Board shall be convened as expeditiously as possible but in no case later than two weeks after such request. The decision of the chairperson shall be final;
(d) In all cases, the patient or resident shall be informed in writing of the impending transfer or rejection of the transfer request and shall be given an opportunity to request a hearing. Within seven days after a patient or resident signs a request for hearing, a hearing shall be held before the Interinstitutional Disposition Board to determine whether the patient or resident shall be transferred. The patient or resident may be transferred on a emergency basis pending the decision of the Board for a period not to exceed 15 days;
(e) The Interinstitutional Disposition Board shall not consider the request for transfer or other written evidence or oral statements unless the patient or resident has the opportunity to cross-examine the person making the statement. At the hearing before the Board, the patient or resident shall have the right to present evidence, to cross-examine all witnesses, and to be represented by an attorney upon request. These rights shall only be denied when good cause is shown;
(f) The patient or resident shall have the right to be present at the Interinstitutional Disposition Board hearing on request, except when the Board finds that the testimony of the treating physician or any other witness in the presence of the patient or resident would be damaging to the future treatment and care of the patient or resident. In that instance, the testimony and cross-examination of those witnesses shall be conducted out of the presence of the patient or resident;
(g) Based upon the testimony given before the Interinstitutional Disposition Board, the Administrator of the Division or the Administrator’s designee shall determine the best placement for the patient or resident and issue a written order directing that the patient or resident be transferred or that the transfer be denied. The order shall contain a statement of the facts upon which the order is based.
(6) Interinstitutional Disposition Board:
(a) The Interinstitutional Disposition Board is composed of the following representatives:
(A) The Administrator of the Division or the Administrator’s designee, who shall serve as chairperson;
(B) The Superintendent of Oregon State Hospital or alternate;
(C) The Superintendent of Dammasch State Hospital or alternate;
(D) The Superintendent of Eastern Oregon Hospital and Training Center or alternate; and
(E) The Superintendent of Fairview Training Center or alternate.
(b) The Administrator may invite such other persons to sit with the Board as the Administrator believes may be helpful in reaching a decision;
(c) The Administrator shall inform all members of the Interinstitutional Disposition Board of the standards for confidentiality of records in ORS 179.505, 192.501 to 192.505, and 42 CFR Part 2, as well as prescribed penalties for failure to comply with these standards.
(7) Release of Patient or Resident. A patient or resident who is under a court having criminal jurisdiction, the Corrections Department, or the Psychiatric Security Review Board will not be released or otherwise discharged from the custody of the Division without the specific approval of the appropriate legal authority. This approval will be documented in the patient’s or resident’s clinical record.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161. 390, 179.360, 179.040 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 161 & 426.005 – 426.680
- MHS 4-2015, f. & cert. ef. 5-28-15
- MHS 16-2014(Temp), f. & cert. cert. ef. 12-12-14 thru 6-9-15
- MHD 13-1982, f. & cert. ef. 7-2-82
- MHD 7-1978, f. & cert. ef. 8-30-78
- MHD 38, f. 4-5-76, cert. ef. 4-26-76
Division 32 COMMUNITY TREATMENT AND SUPPORT SERVICES
Or. Admin. R. 309-032-0301 Purpose and Scope
These rules prescribe the standards for community-based programs that serve individuals with a serious mental illness experiencing homelessness under the Projects for Assistance in Transition from Homelessness (PATH) program.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.610 – 430.695
- MHS 2-2012, f. & cert. ef. 2-9-12
- MHS 9-2011(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-22-11 thru 5-18-12
- MHS 7-2011, f. & cert. ef. 9-26-11
Or. Admin. R. 309-032-0311 Definitions
(1) “Co-Occurring Disorders” (COD) means the existence of at least one diagnosis of a substance use disorder and one diagnosis of a serious mental illness.
(2) “Community Mental Health Program” (CMHP) means an entity that is responsible for planning and delivery of services for individuals with substance use or mental illness diagnoses operated in a specific geographic area of the state under an intergovernmental agreement or a direct contract with the Health Systems Division (Division).
(3) “Division” means the Health Systems Division (Division) of the Oregon Health Authority (OHA).
(4) “Eligible Individual” means an individual who, as defined in these rules:
(a) Is homeless or at imminent risk of becoming homeless; and
(b) Has or is reasonably assumed to have a serious mental illness;
(c) May also have a co-occurring substance use disorder.
(5) “Enrolled” means an eligible individual who:
(a) Receives services supported at least partially with PATH funds; and
(b) Has an individual service record that indicates enrollment in the PATH program.
(6) “Homeless Individual” means an individual who:
(a) Lacks housing without regard to whether the individual is a member of a family and whose primary residence during the night is a supervised public or private facility that provides temporary living accommodations; or
(b) Is a resident in transitional housing that carries time limits.
(7) “Individual” means an individual potentially eligible for or who has been enrolled to receive services described in these rules.
(8) “Individual Service and Support Plan” (ISSP) means a comprehensive plan for services and supports provided to or coordinated for an eligible individual that is reflective of the intended outcomes of service.
(9) “Imminent Risk of Homelessness” means that an individual is:
(a) Living in a doubled-up living arrangement where the individual’s name is not on the lease;
(b) Living in a condemned building without a place to move;
(c) In arrears in their rent or utility payments;
(d) Subject to a potential eviction notice without a place to move; or
(e) Being discharged from a health care or criminal justice institution without a place to live.
(10) “Individual Service Record” means the written or electronic documentation regarding an enrolled individual that summarizes the services and supports provided from point of entry to service conclusion.
(11) “Literally Homeless Individual” means an individual who lacks housing without regard to whether the individual is a member of a family, including an individual whose primary residence during the night is a supervised public or private facility that provides temporary living accommodations.
(12) “Local Mental Health Authority” (LMHA) means one of the following entities:
(a) The Board of County Commissioners of one or more counties that establishes or operates a CMHP;
(b) The tribal council of a federally recognized tribe of Native Americans that elects to enter into an agreement to provide mental health services; or
(c) A regional LMHA comprised of two or more boards of county commissioners.
(13) “Outreach” means the process of bringing individuals into treatment who do not access traditional services.
(14) “Person with serious mental illness” has the meaning given that term in OAR 309-036-0105.
(15) “Projects for Assistance in Transition from Homelessness” (PATH) means the Formula Grants, 42 U.S.C. 290cc-21 to 290-cc-35.
(16) “Qualified Mental Health Professional” (QMHP) means any person who meets one of the following minimum qualifications as authorized by the LMHA or designee:
(a) A Licensed Medical Practitioner;
(b) A graduate degree in psychology, social work, or recreational, art, or music therapy;
(c) A graduate degree in a behavioral science field;
(d) A bachelor’s degree in occupational therapy and licensed by the State or Oregon; or
(e) A bachelor’s degree in nursing and licensed by the State of Oregon.
(17) “Secretary” means the Secretary of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.610 – 430
- MHS 8-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
- MHS 2-2012, f. & cert. ef. 2-9-12
- MHS 9-2011(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-22-11 thru 5-18-12
- MHS 7-2011, f. & cert. ef. 9-26-11
Or. Admin. R. 309-032-0321 Eligible Services
(1) Effective outreach to engage people in the following array of services:
(a) Identification of individuals in need;
(b) Screening for symptoms of serious mental illness;
(c) Development of rapport with the individual;
(d) Offering support while assisting with immediate and basic needs;
(e) Referral to appropriate resources; or
(f) Distribution of information including but not limited to:
(A) Flyers and other written information;
(B) Public service announcements; or
(C) Other indirect methods of contact.
(2) Methods of active outreach including but not limited to face-to-face interaction with literally homeless people in streets, shelters, under bridges and in other non-traditional settings, in order to seek out eligible individuals.
(3) Methods of in-reach, including but not limited to placing outreach staff in a service site frequented by homeless people, such as a shelter or community resource center, where direct, face to face interactions occur, in order to allow homeless individuals to seek out outreach workers.
(4) Screening and diagnosis.
(5) Habilitation and rehabilitation services.
(6) Community mental health services.
(7) Alcohol or drug treatment services.
(8) Staff training, including the training of those who work in shelters, mental health clinics, substance abuse programs, and other sites where homeless individuals require services.
(9) Case management including the following.
(a) Preparing a plan for the provision of community mental health services to the eligible individual and reviewing the plan not less than once every three months;
(b) Assistance in obtaining and coordinating social and maintenance services for the eligible individual, including services related to daily living activities, personal financial planning, transportation, and housing services;
(c) Assistance to the eligible individual in obtaining income support services including housing assistance, food stamps and supplemental security income benefits;
(d) Referring the eligible individual for such other services as may be appropriate and
(e) Providing representative payee services in accordance with section 1631(a)(2) of the Social Security Act [42 U.S.C. 1383(a)(2)] if the eligible individual is receiving aid under title XVI of such act [42 U.S.C. 1381 et seq.] and if the applicant is designated by the Secretary to provide such services;
(10) Supportive and supervisory services in residential settings;
(11) Housing services, which shall not exceed twenty percent of all total PATH expenses and which may include:
(a) Minor renovation, expansion and repair of housing;
(b) Planning of housing;
(c) Technical assistance in applying for housing assistance;
(d) Improving the coordination of housing services;
(e) Security deposits;
(f) The costs associated with matching eligible individuals with appropriate housing situations; or
(g) One time rental payments to prevent eviction; and
(12) Referrals to other appropriate services or agencies, for those determined ineligible for other PATH services.
(13) Other appropriate services as determined by the Secretary.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.610 – 430.695
- MHS 2-2012, f. & cert. ef. 2-9-12
- MHS 9-2011(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-22-11 thru 5-18-12
- MHS 7-2011, f. & cert. ef. 9-26-11
Or. Admin. R. 309-032-0331 Staff Qualifications and Training Standards
(1) Staff delivering case management and outreach services to individuals shall have demonstrated ability to:
(a) Identify individuals who appear to be seriously mentally ill;
(b) Identify service goals and objectives and incorporate them into an ISSP; and
(b) Refer the individuals for services offered by other agencies.
(2) All staff delivering PATH services shall have training, knowledge and skills suitable to provide the services described in these rules.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.610 – 430.695
- MHS 2-2012, f. & cert. ef. 2-9-12
- MHS 9-2011(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-22-11 thru 5-18-12
- MHS 7-2011, f. & cert. ef. 9-26-11
Or. Admin. R. 309-032-0341 Rights of Eligible Individuals
(1) In addition to all applicable statutory and constitutional rights, every eligible individual receiving services has the right to:
(a) Choose from available services and supports;
(b) Be treated with dignity and respect;
(c) Have all services explained, including expected outcomes and possible risks;
(d) Confidentiality and the right to consent to disclosure in accordance with ORS 107.154, 179.505, 192.515 and 42 CFR Part 2 and 45 CFR Part 205.50;
(e) Give informed consent to services in writing prior to the start of services, except in a medical emergency or as otherwise permitted by law;
(f) Inspect their Individual Service Record in accordance with ORS 179.505;
(g) Not participate in experimentation;
(h) Receive medications specific to the individual’s diagnosed clinical needs;
(i) Receive prior notice of service conclusion or transfer, unless the circumstances necessitating service conclusion or transfer pose a threat to health or safety;
(j) Be free from abuse or neglect and to report any incident of abuse or neglect without being subject to retaliation;
(k) Have religious freedom;
(l) Be informed at the start of services and periodically thereafter of the rights guaranteed by these rules;
(m) Be informed of the policies and procedures, service agreements and fees applicable to the services provided, and to have a custodial parent, guardian or representative assist with understanding any information presented;
(n) Have family involvement in service planning and delivery;
(o) Make a declaration for mental health treatment, when legally an adult;
(p) File grievances, including appealing decisions resulting from the grievance; and
(q) Exercise all rights described in this rule without any form of reprisal or punishment.
(2) The provider will give to the individual and if applicable, to the guardian, a document that describes the preceding individual rights.
(a) Information given to the individual must be in written form or, upon request, in an alternative format or language appropriate to the individual’s need;
(b) The rights and how to exercise them will be explained and
(c) Individual rights will be posted in writing in a common area.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.610 – 430.695
- MHS 2-2012, f. & cert. ef. 2-9-12
- MHS 9-2011(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-22-11 thru 5-18-12
- MHS 7-2011, f. & cert. ef. 9-26-11
Or. Admin. R. 309-032-0351 Enrollment and Record Requirements
(1) An individual’s eligibility shall be determined and documented at the earliest possible date.
(2) A record shall be maintained for each enrolled individual receiving services under this rule. The record shall contain the following:
(a) An enrollment form which includes:
(A) The individual’s name and PATH enrollment date;
(B) A list or description of the criteria determining the individual’s PATH eligibility; and
(C) The individual’s PATH services discharge date.
(b) A plan defining the enrolled individual’s goals and service objectives including one or more of the following:
(A) Accessing community mental health services for the eligible individual, which includes reviewing the plan not less than once every three months;
(B) Accessing and coordinating needed services for the eligible individual, as detailed in these rules.
(C) Accessing income and income support services, including housing assistance, food stamps, and supplemental security income; and
(D) Referral to other appropriate services.
(c) Progress notes that provide an on-going account of contacts with enrolled individual, a description of services delivered, and progress toward the enrolled individual’s service plan goals; and
(d) A termination summary describing reasons for the enrolled individual no longer being involved in service.
(3) A record shall be maintained for individuals served but not yet enrolled under the provisions of these rules. The record shall contain:
(a) A description of the potentially eligible individual, which may include but not be limited to:
(A) A physical description of the individual;
(B) The location where the individual was served; and
(C) A description of the individual’s personal belongings.
(b) A preliminary assessment of the potentially eligible individual’s needs based on available information; and
(c) A record of where and when contacts with the potentially eligible individual were made and the outcome of those contacts.
(4) Records shall be confidential in accordance with ORS 179.505, 45 CFR Part 2 and OAR 309-032-1535 pertaining to individuals’ records.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.610 – 430.695
- MHS 2-2012, f. & cert. ef. 2-9-12
- MHS 9-2011(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-22-11 thru 5-18-12
- MHS 7-2011, f. & cert. ef. 9-26-11
Or. Admin. R. 309-032-0850 Purpose
These rules prescribe standards and procedures for regional acute care psychiatric services for adults.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.630 & 430.640
- MHS 8-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
- MHS 22-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-1-16
- MHD 8-1994, f. & cert. ef. 11-28-94
Or. Admin. R. 309-032-0860 Definitions
As used in these rules:
(1) “Adult” means an individual age 18 years or older.
(2) “Certificate” means the document issued by the Division that identifies and declares certification of a provider pursuant to OAR 309-008-0100 to 309-008-1600. A letter accompanying issuance of the certificate shall detail the certificate’s scope and approved service delivery locations.
(3) “Clinical Record” means a separate file established and maintained under these rules for each patient.
(4) “Community Mental Health Program” or “CMHP” means the organization of all services for individuals with mental or emotional disturbances, substance use problems, and developmental disabilities, operated by or contractually affiliated with a local mental health authority and operated in a specific geographic area of the state under an omnibus contract with the Division.
(5) “Council” means an organization of individuals with a mission statement and by-laws, comprised of representatives of the regional acute care psychiatric service, state hospital, community mental health programs served, consumers, and family members. The Council is advisory to the regional acute care facility for adults.
(6) “Diagnosis” means a DSM diagnosis determined through the mental health assessment and any examinations, laboratory, medical or psychological tests, procedures, or consultations suggested by the assessment.
(7) “Division” means the Health Systems Division of the Oregon Health Authority.
(8) “DSM” means the current edition of the “Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders” published by the American Psychiatric Association.
(9) “Goal” means the broad aspirations or outcomes toward which the patient is striving and toward which all services are intended to assist the patient.
(10) “Guardian” means an individual appointed by a court of law to act as a guardian of a legally incapacitated person.
(11) “Independent Medical Practitioner” means a medically trained individual licensed to practice independently in the State of Oregon and has one of the following degrees: MD (Medical Doctor), DO (Doctor of Osteopathy), or NP (Nurse Practitioner).
(12) “Legally Incapacitated” means having been found by a court of law under ORS 126.103 or 426.295 to be unable, without assistance, to properly manage or take care of one’s personal affairs.
(13) “Linkage Agreement” means a written agreement between regional acute care psychiatric facilities and other entities involved in patient care that includes, but is not limited to, CCOs, CMHPs, and state hospitals that describes the roles and responsibilities each entity assumes in order to assure that the goals of the regional acute care psychiatric services are achieved.
(14) “Medical Director” means a board eligible psychiatrist who oversees the patient care program. The medical director shall have the final authority concerning inpatient medical care including admissions, continuing care, and discharges.
(15) “Medical History” means a review of the patient’s current and past state of health as reported by the patient or other reliable sources, including, but not limited to:
(a) History of any significant illnesses, injuries, allergies, or drug sensitivities; and
(b) History of any significant medical treatments, including hospitalizations and major medical procedures.
(16) “Mental Health Assessment” means a process in which the individual’s need for mental health services is determined through evaluation of the individual’s strengths, goals, needs, and current level of functioning.
(17) “Mental Status Examination” means an overall assessment of an individual’s mental functioning that includes descriptions of appearance, behavior, speech, and mood, and affect suicidal or homicidal ideation, thought processes and content, and perceptual difficulties including hallucinations and delusions. Cognitive abilities are also assessed and include orientation, memory, concentration, general knowledge, abstraction abilities, judgment, and insight.
(18) “Objective” means an interim level of progress or a component step the specification of which is necessary or helpful in moving toward a goal.
(19) “OPRCS” means the Oregon Patient/Resident Care System. OPRCS is a Division operated, on-line computerized information system that accepts, stores, and returns information about patients from state operated institutions and other designated inpatient services.
(20) “Patient” means an individual who is receiving care and treatment in a regional acute care psychiatric service.
(21) “Person Committed to the Division” means a patient committed under ORS 161.327 or 426.130.
(22) “Person with Serious and Persistent Mental Illness (SPMI)” means, for the purposes of a warm handoff, an individual age 18 or older who meets the current DSM diagnostic criteria for at least one of the following conditions as a primary diagnosis:
(a) Schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders;
(b) Major depressive disorder;
(c) Bipolar disorder;
(d) Anxiety disorders, limited to OCD and PTSD;
(e) Schizotypal personality disorder;
(f) Borderline personality disorder.
(g) The applicable ICD 9 & 10 codes for SPMI diagnoses can be found at https://www.oregon.gov/oha/HPA/CSI-BHP/Pages/Oregon-Performance-Plan.aspx.
(23) “Program Administrator” means an individual with appropriate professional qualifications and experience appointed by the governing body to manage the operation of the regional acute care psychiatric services.
(24) “Psychiatrist” means a physician licensed pursuant to ORS 677.010 to 677.492 by the Board of Medical Examiners for the State of Oregon and who has completed an approved residency training program in psychiatry.
(25) “Qualified Mental Health Professional” or “QMHP” means an individual who is one of the following:
(a) Psychiatrist or physician licensed to practice in the State of Oregon; an individual with a graduate degree in psychology, social work, or other mental health related field; a registered nurse with a graduate degree in psychiatric nursing licensed in the State of Oregon; an individual with registration as an occupational therapist; an individual with a graduate degree in recreational therapy; or
(b) Any other individual whose education, experience, and competence have been documented by the CMHP director or designee as able to identify precipitating events; gather histories of mental and physical disabilities, alcohol and drug use, past mental health services, and criminal justice contacts; assess family, social, and work relationships; conduct a mental status assessment; document a DSM diagnosis; write and supervise a rehabilitation plan; and provide individual, family, or group therapy.
(26) “Regional Acute Care Psychiatric Service” or “Service” means a Division funded service provided under contract with the Division or county and operated in cooperation with a regional or local council.
(27) “Supervisor” means an individual with two years of experience as a qualified mental health professional and who, in accordance with OAR 309-032-0870, reviews the services provided to patients by qualified individuals.
(28) “Telehealth” means a technological solution that provides two-way, video-like communication on a secure line.
(29) “Treatment Plan” means an individualized, written plan defining specific rehabilitation objectives and proposed service interventions derived from the patient’s mental health assessment.
(30) “Warm Handoff” means the process of transferring a patient from one provider to another prior to discharge from an acute care psychiatric hospital that involves face-to-face meetings with the patient, either in person or through the use of telehealth, and that coordinates the transfer of responsibility for the patient’s ongoing care and continuing treatment and services. A warm handoff shall be offered to individuals with SPMI, defined in OAR 309-032-0860(22), as part of the discharge planning process.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.630 & 430.640
- MHS 8-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
- MHS 22-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-1-16
- MHD 8-1994, f. & cert. ef. 11-28-94
Or. Admin. R. 309-032-0870 Standards for Approval of Regional Acute Care Psychiatric Service
(1) The facility in which a regional acute care psychiatric service is provided shall maintain state certificates and licenses as required by Oregon law for the health, safety, and welfare of the individuals served. Non-hospital facilities shall be licensed by the Division as required by ORS 443.410. Non-hospital facilities shall be certified by the Division as required by OAR 309-008-0100 to 1600. The facility shall also be approved under OAR 309-033-0530 (Approval of Hospitals and Nonhospital Facilities that Provide Services to Committed Persons and to Persons in Custody or on Diversion) and OAR 309-033-0540 (Administrative Requirements for Hospitals and Nonhospital Facilities Approved to Provide Services to Persons in Custody, Psychiatric Hold or Certified for 14 Days of Intensive Treatment).
(2) A regional acute care psychiatric service shall include 24-hours a day psychiatric, multi-disciplinary, inpatient or residential stabilization care and treatment for adults ages 18 and older with severe psychiatric disabilities in a designated region of the state. For the purpose of these rules, a state hospital is not a regional acute care psychiatric service. The goal of a regional acute care service is the stabilization, control, and amelioration of acute dysfunctional symptoms or behaviors that result in the earliest possible return of the individual to a less restrictive environment.
(3) A regional acute care psychiatric service shall maintain clinical records as follows:
(a) Except as otherwise applicable, clinical records are confidential as set forth in ORS 179.505 and 192.502 and any other applicable state or federal law. For the purposes of disclosure from non-medical individual records, both the general prohibition against disclosure of “information of a personal nature” and limitations to the prohibition in ORS 192.502 shall apply;
(b) Clinical records shall be secured, safeguarded, stored, and retained in accordance with OAR 166-030-1015;
(c) Clinical record entries required by these rules shall be signed by the staff providing the service and making the entry. Each signature shall include the individual’s academic degree or professional status and the date signed.
(4) The clinical record shall contain:
(a) Identifying demographic information including, if available, who to contact in an emergency and the names of individuals who encompass the support system of the patient;
(b) Consent to release information and explanation of fee policies. At the time of admission, staff shall present the patient with forms for obtaining consent so that information may be shared with family and others. An explanation of fee policies shall also be provided in written form at the earliest time possible. The patient shall be asked to sign each. If the patient is unwilling or unable to sign, staff shall record that the patient is unable or unwilling to do so;
(c) An admitting mental health assessment shall be completed by or under the supervision of an independent medical practitioner with supervised training or experience in a mental health related setting within 24 hours of admission. The admitting mental health assessment shall include a description of the presenting problem, a mental status examination, an initial DSM diagnosis, and an assessment of the resources currently available to the individual. The assessment shall result in a plan for the initial services to be provided. The admitting mental health assessment shall also include documentation that a medical history and physical examination of the individual has been performed within 24 hours after admission by a physician, physician assistant, or nurse practitioner. If the independent medical practitioner believes a new medical history and physical examination are not necessary and if within 30 days of admission a complete physical history has been recorded and a complete physical examination has been performed, the signed report of the history and examination may be placed in the clinical record and may be considered to constitute an appropriate physical health assessment;
(d) A psycho-social assessment shall be completed for each patient within 72 hours of admission. If the patient stays less than 72 hours, a psycho-social assessment need not be written. The assessment must be completed by a qualified mental health professional or supervisor. The assessment does not need to be a single document but shall include the following elements:
(A) A description of events precipitating admission and any goals of the patient in seeking or entering services;
(B) When relevant to the patient’s service needs, historical information including: a current Declaration for Mental Health Treatment; mental health history; medical history; substance use history; developmental history; social history including family and interpersonal history; sexual and other abuse history; educational, vocational, and employment history; and legal history;
(C) An identification of the patient’s need for assistance in maintaining financial support, employment, housing, and other support needs;
(D) Recommendations for discharge planning and any additional services, interventions, additional examinations, tests, and evaluations that are needed;
(E) A copy of the patient’s Declaration for Mental Health Treatment if the patient elected to complete or provided one.
(e) A treatment plan individually developed with the patient from the findings of the admitting mental health assessment and psycho-social assessment must be completed by a QMHP or supervisor within 72 hours of the person’s admission. The plan must be written at a level of specificity that will permit its subsequent implementation to be efficiently monitored and reviewed. The recorded plan shall contain the following components:
(A) The rehabilitation and other goals, including those articulated by the patient;
(B) Specific objectives, including discharge objectives and the measurable or observable criteria for determining when each objective is attained;
(C) Specific services to be used to achieve each objective;
(D) The projected frequency and duration of services;
(E) Identification of the QMHP or supervisor assigned to the patient who is responsible for coordinating services;
(F) The signature of the patient indicating they have participated in the development of the plan to the degree possible. If the patient is unwilling or unable to sign the plan, staff shall record on the plan that the patient is unable or unwilling to do so;
(G) The plan must be reviewed weekly and updated with the participation of the patient when needed to reflect significant changes in the patient’s status and when significant new goals are identified;
(H) The patient’s anticipated continuing care needs, including need for housing, and for individuals with SPMI, the coordination needs for a warm handoff process.
(f) Progress notes shall document observations, treatment rendered, response to treatment, changes in the patient’s condition, and other significant information relating to the patient. All entries involving subjective interpretation of the patient’s progress shall be supplemented by a description of the actual behavior observed;
(g) Reports of medication administration, medical treatments, and diagnostic procedures;
(h) Telephone communications about the patient, releases of information, and reports from other sources;
(i) The record shall contain medical and mental health advance directives or note that the patient has been provided this information;
(j) The record shall contain documentation that the patient has been provided information on patient rights, grievance procedure, and abuse reporting;
(k) The record shall contain documentation including physician’s orders and reasons for all restraint and seclusion episodes;
(L) The discharge planning process shall begin at the time of admission with the participation of the patient and, when indicated, the family, guardian, or family of choice, and shall include, but is not limited to:
(A) An assessment of continuing care needs, including prescribed medications, behavioral and primary health care needs, and housing needs;
(B) Consultation with the individual’s CCO to address continuing care needs upon discharge, when applicable, and;
(C) Planning a follow-up visit with a community mental health provider within seven days of the anticipated discharge date.
(m) A warm handoff shall be offered to individuals with SPMI as part of the discharge planning process that involves a face-to-face meeting, either in person or through the use of telehealth, and includes either:
(A) A community provider, the patient, and if possible hospital staff, or;
(B) A transitional team, the patient, and if possible hospital staff to support the patient, to serve as a bridge between hospital staff and a community provider, and to ensure the patient connects with a community provider.
(n) The discharge plan shall be based on the patient’s treatment goals, clinical needs, and informed choice and shall include the results of the admitting mental health assessment, DSM diagnoses, summary of the course of treatment including prescribed medications, final assessment of the individual's condition, a summary of continuing care needs including prescribed medications, behavioral and primary health care needs, and housing needs. Documentation to support linkages to timely and appropriate community services upon discharge shall be detailed in the discharge plan including, but not limited to:
(A) The plan to address the patient’s need for immediate housing upon discharge, when applicable, including notifying the patient’s community provider regarding the need for housing; and
(B) The plan to address the patient’s need for a follow-up visit with a community mental health provider within seven days of the anticipated discharge date;
(C) For individuals with SPMI, the discharge plan shall also include:
(i) Whether a warm handoff occurred and the community provider or transitional team involved in the warm handoff process, when applicable; or
(ii) Whether the patient declined a warm handoff.
(5) The regional acute care psychiatric service shall supply the Division, using the Division’s on-line OPRCS via computer and modem, information about individuals admitted to and discharged from the service. The information shall include the patient’s name, DSM diagnosis, admission date, discharge date, legal status, Medicaid eligibility, Medicaid Prime Number, and various patient demographics. The information shall be entered on the day of admission and updated on the day of discharge.
(6) The regional acute care psychiatric service shall:
(a) Have sufficient appropriately qualified professional, administrative, and support staff to assess and address the identified clinical needs of individuals served, provide needed services, and coordinate the services provided;
(b) Designate a program administrator to oversee the administration of the services and carry out these rules;
(c) Designate a medical director to oversee the patient care program. The medical director shall have the final authority concerning inpatient medical care including admissions, continuing care, and discharges;
(d) Designate an individual responsible for maintaining, controlling, and supervising medical records and be responsible for maintaining the quality of clinical records;
(e) Designate an individual responsible for the development, implementation, and monitoring of a written safety management plan and program who shall keep records of identified concerns and problems and actions taken to resolve them;
(f) Designate an individual responsible for the development, implementation, and monitoring of a written infection control plan and program who shall keep records of identified concerns and problems and action taken to resolve them;
(g) Designate or contract with a licensed pharmacist to be responsible for the development of pharmacy policies and procedures and to assure that the service adheres to standards of practice and applicable state and federal laws and regulations;
(h) Maintain a schedule of unit staffing that shall be readily available to the Division for a period of at least the three previous years;
(i) Have on duty at least one registered nurse at all times;
(j) Maintain a personnel file for each patient care staff that includes a written job description; the minimum level of education or training required for the position; copies of applicable licenses, certifications, or degrees granted; annual performance appraisals; a biennial, individualized staff development plan signed by the staff; documentation of CPR training; documentation of annual training and certification in managing aggressive behavior, including seclusion and restraint; and other staff development and skill training received;
(k) A physician shall be available, at least on-call, at all times.
(7) The regional acute care psychiatric service shall have a policy and procedure manual. The policy and procedure manual must be made available to any individual upon request. The manual shall describe:
(a) The following policies and procedures:
(A) Governance and management, including a table of organization describing the agency structure and lines of authority, a plan for professional services, and a plan for financial management and accountability;
(B) Procedures for the management of disasters, fire, and other emergencies;
(C) Policies and procedures required under OAR 309-033-0700 through 0740, Standards for the Approval of Community Hospitals and Nonhospital Facilities to Provide Seclusion and Restraint to Committed Persons and to Persons in Custody or on Diversion, addressing seclusion and restraint;
(D) Patient rights, including informed consent, access to records, and grievance procedures. The manual shall assure rights guaranteed by ORS 426.380 to 426.395 for committed persons and ORS 430.205 to 430.210 for those not committed. The grievance procedure shall be in writing and include written responses, time limits for responses, use of a neutral party, and a method of appeal. Programs shall post copies of the rights and grievance procedures in places accessible to all individuals. Programs shall provide written copies of the rights and grievance procedures upon request;
(E) Abuse reporting for mentally ill or developmentally disabled as required by ORS 430.731 through 430.768;
(F) Clinical record content and management policies and procedures, including the requirements of these rules;
(G) Psychiatric, medical, and dental emergency services policies and procedures;
(H) Pharmacy services policies and procedures approved by a licensed pharmacist;
(I) Quality assessment and improvement processes;
(J) Procedures for documenting privileges granted by the service in personnel records or other records;
(K) Policies and procedures for transfer of patients to other hospitals.
(b) The following policies and procedures, developed and amended in consultation with the council:
(A) Patient admission and discharge criteria. Unless the service has a policy and procedure recommended by the council and approved by the Division, the service shall only admit individuals age 18 and older;
(B) Quality assessment and improvement processes relating to regional admissions and discharges;
(C) Patient admission, discharge, and aftercare planning, including scheduling and planning for transportation of patients to the service by the referring county and from the service to the county of residence;
(D) Procedures for admission and discharge of geropsychiatric patients and individuals with physical disabilities, including designation of a county or regional geropsychiatric liaison staff member;
(E) Linkage agreements with entities involved in patient care; (F) Medical and emergency care procedures approved by the Division;
(G) Criteria for accepting pre-admission medical screening;
(H) Billing and collecting reimbursement from patients and third-party payers.
(8) The service shall have an adequate number of hold rooms, but at least one holding room, and hold a current Certificate of Approval to hold and treat individuals alleged to be mentally ill under OAR 309-033-0500 through 0560, (Approval of Hospital and Nonhospital Facilities that Provide Services to Committed Persons or to Persons in Custody or on Diversion).
(9) The facility in which a service is operated shall comply with all applicable federal rules and regulations.
(10) If the facility in which the regional acute care psychiatric service is operated is not in a general hospital, it shall have a letter of agreement with a general hospital for both emergency and medical care that shall be renewed every two years.
(11) The regional acute care psychiatric service shall have an ongoing quality assessment and improvement program to objectively and systematically monitor and evaluate the quality of care provided to patients served, pursue opportunities to improve care, and correct identified problems. The program shall include:
(a) Policies and procedures that describe the quality assessment and improvement program’s objectives, organization, scope, and mechanisms for improving services;
(b) A written annual plan to monitor and evaluate services. The written plan shall result in reports of findings, conclusions, and recommendations. Reports shall address:
(A) The care of patients served, including admission and discharge planning;
(B) Resource utilization, including the appropriateness and clinical necessity of admissions and continued stay, services provided, staffing levels, space, and support services;
(C) Quality and content of clinical records;
(D) Medication usage, including records, adverse reactions, and medication errors;
(E) Accidents, injuries, safety of patients, and safety hazards; and
(F) Uses of seclusion and restraint;
(G) An annual needs assessment survey of individuals that have received services.
(c) A report to the governing board and council, at least annually, addressing:
(A) Findings and conclusions from studies;
(B) Recommendations, action taken, and results of the action taken; and
(C) An assessment of the effectiveness of the quality assessment and improvement program, including a review of the program’s objectives, scope, organization and effectiveness.
(12) The regional acute care psychiatric service shall have a council to ensure appropriate and effective care and treatment. The council shall meet to assess and collaboratively plan for improving care and treatment to patients, including patient transitions into and out of the service.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.630 & 430.640
- MHS 8-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
- MHS 22-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-1-16
- MHD 8-1994, f. & cert. ef. 11-28-94
Or. Admin. R. 309-032-0890 Variances
(1) The Division may grant variances to a regional acute care psychiatric service if implementation of the proposed alternative services, methods, concepts, or procedures would result in services or systems that meet or exceed the standards in these rules.
(2) Application for a variance to these or other applicable rules shall be obtained pursuant to the process governed by OAR 309-008-1600.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.630 & 430.640
- MHS 8-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17
- MHS 22-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-1-16
- MHD 8-1994, f. & cert. ef. 11-28-94
Division 33 CIVIL COMMITMENT PROCEEDINGS
Or. Admin. R. 309-033-0200 Statement of Purpose and Statutory Authority
(1) Purpose. These rules prescribe general standards and procedures relating to the involuntary civil commitment of persons with mental illness as defined in ORS 426.005.
(2) Statutory authority. These rules are authorized by ORS 426.005 through 426.395 and carry out the provisions of 426.005 through 426.395. These rules replace OAR 309-033-0100 through 309-033-0170, which were in effect from September 2, 1992 through August 31, 1994.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & ORS 426.005 - 426.395
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.005 - 426.395
- BHS 9-2023, amend filed 04/04/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- MHD 6-1998, f. 6-26-98, cert. ef. 7-1-98, Renumbered from 309-200-0000
Or. Admin. R. 309-033-0210 Definitions
(1) “Administrator” means the director or chief executive over behavioral health services in a community hospital or the person in charge of treatment and rehabilitation programs at nonhospital facilities. Whenever “administrator” appears it means the administrator or designee.
(2) “Assignment” means “placement” as defined in OAR 309-033-0210.
(3) “Attorney-in-fact” means a person, as appointed in a valid declaration for mental health treatment (DMHT), authorized to make mental health treatment decisions for the person who is subject of the DMHT.
(4) “Authority” or “OHA” means the Oregon Health Authority.
(5) “Capacity evaluator” means, in relation to a Declaration for Mental Health Treatment, a licensed independent practitioner (LIP) or a licensed psychologist who, with one other LIP or licensed psychologist, determines if a person is incapable or not incapable.
(6) “Caregiver” means the person who is appointed by the court under ORS 426.125 to be allowed to care for a person who has a mental illness and is in need of treatment on conditional release.
(7) “Certificate” means the document or documents issued by the Division, which identifies and declares certification of a provider pursuant to OAR 309-008-0100 to 309-008-1600. A letter accompanying issuance of the certificate will detail the scope and approved service delivery locations of the certificate.
(8) “Clinical record” means the record required by OAR 309-014-0035 documenting the mental health services delivered to clients by a CMHP or subcontractor.
(9) “Community-based civil commitment” means conditional releases pursuant to ORS 426.125, outpatient commitments pursuant to ORS 426.127, and trial visits pursuant to ORS 426.273.
(10) “Community Mental Health Program (CMHP)” means the entity responsible for organization of various services for persons with a mental health diagnosis or addictive disorders, operated by, or contractually affiliated with, a local mental health authority and operated in a specific geographic area of the state under an agreement with the Division pursuant to OAR 309-014-0000.
(11) “Community hospital” means any hospital that is not Oregon State Hospital.
(12) “Conditions of placement” means the set of expectations and guidelines that a person shall adhere to, as described in OAR 309-033-0280 and 309-033-0282, in order to be placed and remain on a community-based civil commitment and avoid revocation.
(13) “Council” means a regional acute care psychiatric facility organization with a mission statement and bylaws, comprised of facility representatives, consumers, and family members. The council is advisory to the facility.
(14) “County governing body” means the county court or the board of county commissioners of one or more counties who operate a CMHP, or in the case of a Native American Reservation, the Tribal Council, or if the county declines to operate or contract for all or part of a CMHP, the board of directors of a public or private corporation selected by the county.
(15) “County of commitment” means the county in which the person was initially placed under civil commitment, or the county to which the county of commitment was transferred as appropriate.
(16) “County of custody” means the county in which the person was initially detained by either a peace officer pursuant to ORS 426.228 or a CMHP director pursuant to ORS 426.233.
(17) “County of placement” means the county in which the person under civil commitment is residing for the purpose of treatment, care, and custody.
(18) “County of residence” means the county where the person currently maintains a mailing address or, if the person has no current mailing address within the state, the county where the person was taken into custody or the county in which a person under civil commitment has been conditionally released as defined by ORS 426.241 to 426.255.
(19) “Court” means the circuit court acting pursuant to ORS Chapter 426.
(20) “Custody” means the physical detention of a person pursuant to ORS 426.070, 426.228, 426.231, 426.232, and 426.233.
(21) “Declaration for Mental Health Treatment” or “DMHT” means the legal document as described in ORS 127.700 through 127.737 that describes a person’s preferences regarding mental health treatment and provides instructions to providers to meet the person’s care needs.
(22) "Director" means the director of the community mental health program and includes the director's designee, who must be a QMHP, or peace officer authorized by the director to act on their behalf for purposes of this rule.
(23) “Diversion from commitment” means the initial 14-day period of intensive treatment and, if offered and accepted, the 14-day extension of the initial diversion period, not exceeding 28 consecutive calendar days combined.
(24) “Division” means the Behavioral Health Division of the Oregon Health Authority.
(25) “Emergency” means, in the opinion of the treating licensed independent practitioner, immediate action is required to preserve the life or physical health of a person, or because the behavior(s) of that person creates a substantial likelihood of immediate physical harm to self or to others in the facility. The fact that a person is in custody under the provisions or ORS 426.072, 426.232 or 426.233 must not be the sole justification that an emergency exists.
(26) “Fresh air” means the inflow of air from outside the facility where the person under civil commitment is receiving services. “Fresh air” may be accessed through an open window or similar method as well as through access to the outdoors.
(27) “Health care facility” means, in relation to the Declaration for Mental Health Treatment, an inpatient setting, a residential facility, an adult foster home or a hospice program.
(28) “Healthcare supervisor” means the appointed licensed independent practitioner, master’s level registered nurse or registered nurse certified by the American Nursing Association who reviews and approves policies and procedures related to reporting medical concerns to a LIP and staff training on the administrative rules in OAR Chapter 33, Division 207.
(29) “Hospital” or “hospital facility” means the community hospital, or regional acute care psychiatric facility certified for the use of seclusion or restraints to committed persons and persons in custody or on diversion.
(30) “Hospital hold” means the notice of mental illness submitted to the court pursuant to ORS 426.232(1)(a) by one licensed independent practitioner at a hospital licensed by the Authority under ORS Chapter 441, and by which a person is physically detained in the community hospital.
(31) “Incapable” means, for the purpose of the DMHT and as determined by two capacity evaluators or a court, unable to make informed mental health treatment decisions.
(32) “Judicial day” means any day the court is open for business excluding Saturday, Sunday, and a legal holiday as described in ORS 187.010 and 187.020.
(33) “Legally incapacitated person” means a person who has been found by the court to be unable to give informed consent to medical treatment, and the court has appointed a guardian to make such decisions on the person’s behalf pursuant to ORS 126.127.
(34) “Licensed Independent Practitioner” or “LIP” means a physician, nurse practitioner, or naturopathic physician as defined in ORS 426.005.
(35) “Material risk” means the risk may have a substantial adverse effect on the patient’s psychological and/or physical health.
(36) “Mechanical restraint” means any device or equipment used to restrict a person’s freedom of movement.
(37) “Monitoring” as used in OAR 309-033-0280 and 309-033-0282 means the set of activities and tasks completed by a CMHP employee who is designated to support an individual successfully adhere to the conditions of placement or to a treatment plan related to assisted outpatient treatment, a diversion from commitment, an outpatient commitment, or a trial visit.
(38) “Next of kin” means one of the following people: a person’s spouse or domestic partner, adult child, parent, siblings, or any person related to the person.
(39) “Notice of Mental Illness (NMI)” is the notification required, pursuant to ORS 426.070, to be submitted to the director by any two persons, a county health officer, or a magistrate, and thereafter submitted by the director to the court or, pursuant to ORS 426.234, to be submitted by the LIP or the director to the court. Pursuant to ORS 426.070 and 426.234, the court commences proceedings pursuant to ORS 426.070 to 426.130 upon receipt of the NMI.
(40) “Nonhospital facility” means any facility, other than a hospital, that is certified by the Authority to provide adequate security, psychiatric, nursing, and other services to persons under ORS 426.232 or 426.233.
(41) “Nonhospital hold” means the emergency detention of a person at a nonhospital facility, and the approval for emergency care and treatment, pursuant to the provisions of ORS 426.232.
(42) “Nurse” means a registered nurse, or a psychiatric nurse practitioner licensed by the Oregon State Board of Nursing but does not include a licensed practical nurse or a certified nurse assistant.
(43) “Outdoors” means an area with fresh air that is not completely enclosed overhead. “Outdoors” may include a courtyard or similar area.
(44) “PAMI” means a person alleged to have a mental illness and who is in need of treatment, and refers to a person who is subject to a mental health investigation and pending a civil commitment hearing.
(45) “PRN” (pro re nata) means that a medication or medical treatment has been ordered to be given as needed.
(46) “Patient day” means the day of admission plus each additional day of stay, but not the day of discharge, unless it is also the day of admission.
(47) “Peace officer” means a sheriff, constable, marshal, municipal police officer, member of the Oregon State Police or investigator of the Criminal Justice Division of the Department of Justice and such other persons as may be designated by law.
(48) “Person with mental illness” means a person who has been found to have a mental disorder and, due to this mental disorder, is in need of treatment because the person is a danger to self, danger to others, unable to provide for basic personal needs, or has a chronic mental disorder.
(49) “Physical harm” means physical injury, physical pain or other physiological impairment, other than an injury, pain or impairment that is trivial in terms of pain or bodily impact.
(50) “Physician” means a person who holds a degree of Doctor of Medicine, Doctor of Osteopathy, or Doctor of Podiatric Medicine, if the context in which the term “physician” is used does not authorize or require the person to practice outside the scope of a license issued under ORS 677.805 through 677.840.
(51) “Physician Associate” means a person who is licensed by the Oregon Medical Board per ORS 677.495 through ORS 677.755.
(52) “Placement” means the assignment of persons alleged to have a mental illness and persons with mental illness to a facility, program, or provider, including the transfer of a person from one location where the person was in care, custody, or treatment to another location for the same purpose. Once placed, placement means the facility, program, or provider that provides care, custody, and treatment to a person alleged to have mental illness or a person with mental illness.
(53) “Post-Acute Intermediate Treatment Services” or “PAITS” means a level of care that is a mix of rehabilitation services designed for adults who have received acute psychiatric care services in a community hospital or Oregon State Hospital, who may or may not have been approved for long term psychiatric care, whose symptoms have improved, sufficiently, such that they no longer require hospital level of care, yet still require intensive treatment services to continue psychiatric stabilization, prior to lower level placement, in another community setting.
(54) “Prehearing period of detention” means the timeframe beginning when a person is taken into custody by a peace officer or director per ORS Chapter 426, or is detained by a LIP at a hospital or nonhospital facility who has held a person for up to 12 hours or who has filed a NMI with the court. The five judicial day period of time a person may be detained as referenced in ORS 426.095(2), 426.210, 426.232, 426.237(4)(a), and 426.275(2) encompasses the prehearing period of detention.
(55) “Psychiatrist” means a physician licensed as provided pursuant to ORS 677.010 to 677.450 by the Board of Medical Examiners for the State of Oregon and who has completed an approved residency training program in psychiatry.
(56) “Psychologist” means a psychologist licensed by the Oregon Board of Psychology.
(57) “Qualified Mental Health Associate” (QMHA) means, as defined in OAR 309-019-0125, a mental health professional who works under the supervision of a qualified mental health professional and who is certified by an appropriate board.
(58) “Qualified Mental Health Professional” (QMHP) means, as defined in OAR 309-019-0125, a mental health professional with a qualifying graduate degree or a bachelor’s degree in nursing, or is an occupational therapist, or is certified or licensed by an appropriate board.
(59) “Recertification” means the certification of continued civil commitment provided for under ORS 426.301. Recertification does not always result in a recommitment, though it is required to initiate the process.
(60) “Regional Acute Care Psychiatric Facility” means a facility certified by the Division to provide services for adults as described in OAR 309-032-0850 through 309-032-0890 and is operated in cooperation with a regional or local council. A regional acute care psychiatric facility must include 24 hour per day psychiatric, multi-disciplinary, inpatient, or residential stabilization, care and treatment, for adults aged 18 or older with severe psychiatric disabilities in a designated region of the state. For the purpose of these rules, a state hospital is not a regional acute care psychiatric facility. .
(61) "Restraint" means any manual method, physical or mechanical device, material, or equipment that immobilizes or reduces the ability of a patient to move his or her arms, legs, body, or head freely. Restraint may be used only for the management of violent or self-destructive behavior that jeopardizes the immediate physical safety of the patient, a staff member, or others.
(62) “Seclusion” is the involuntary confinement of a person alone in a room or area, from which the person is physically prevented from leaving. Seclusion may be used only for the management of violent or self-destructive behavior that jeopardizes the immediate physical safety of the person, patients, a staff member, or others.
(63) “Secure transport provider” means a secure transport provider approved according to OAR 309-033-0432.
(64) “Serious physical harm” means physical injury, physical pain or other physiological impairment that places a person at risk of or causes death, serious and irreversible deterioration of health, or serious and irreversible deterioration of any bodily organ.
(65) “Significant procedure” means a diagnostic or treatment modality which poses a material risk of substantial pain or harm to the patient or resident such as, but not limited to, electro-convulsive therapy.
(66) “State hospital” means any campus of the Oregon State Hospital system.
(67) “Superintendent” means the chief executive officer of the state hospital or their designee.
(68) “Warrant of detention” means a court ordering that a person be held in custody pending court proceedings or an investigation.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 426.005, 426.060, 426.110(2), 426.232, 426.236 & HB 2005 (2025)
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.005 - 426.395
- BHS 20-2026, minor correction filed 07/09/2026, effective 07/09/2026
- BHS 17-2026, amend filed 06/26/2026, effective 06/26/2026
- BHS 30-2025, temporary amend filed 12/29/2025, effective 01/01/2026 through 06/29/2026
- BHS 7-2024, amend filed 04/30/2024, effective 05/28/2024
- BHS 9-2023, amend filed 04/04/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- BHS 17-2022, temporary amend filed 10/14/2022, effective 10/14/2022 through 04/11/2023
- MHS 28-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-29-16
- MHD 9-2000, f. & cert. ef. 7-21-00
- MHD 2-2000(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 1-25-00 thru 7-22-00
- MHD 6-1998, f. 6-26-98, cert. ef. 7-1-98, Renumbered from 309-200-0010
Or. Admin. R. 309-033-0220 General Standards
(1) Goals. The goals of the Division in implementing these civil commitment standards are:
(a) To promote the well-being of persons alleged to have a mental illness and those who are a person with mental illness during involuntary care, custody and treatment of mental illness pursuant to ORS Chapter 426;
(b) To promote the protection of the civil rights of each person who is a person alleged to have amental illness and who is a person with mental illness;
(c) To encourage consistent application of ORS Chapter 426 as it specifically pertains to each of the following groups:
(A) Persons alleged to have a mental illness; and
(B) Persons with mental illness.
(d) To encourage voluntary enrollment of persons in available mental health services in lieu of pursuing involuntary treatment through civil commitment, whenever possible;
(e) To encourage the provision of care, custody, and treatment of persons in the least restrictive environment that currently is available within existing resources. A director or designee responsible for investigations of persons alleged to have a mental illness and for placement of persons with mental illness shall be expected to offer and encourage diversions whenever possible and feasible.
(f) To encourage that the director monitors the commitment process in their county, is knowledgeable of the statutes and administrative rules pertaining to civil commitment, provides leadership so that persons being held are afforded their civil rights and are treated with dignity in the implementation of ORS Chapter 426;
(g) To provide for the safety of the community when symptoms and behaviors of mental illness may present as a risk of danger to others;
(h) Support the de-stigmatization of mental illness and people living with mental illness(es).
(2) State’s interest. The state’s interest is to establish sufficient facts for the court to make a decision that is consistent with the intent of ORS Chapter 426.
(3) Declaration for mental health treatment (DMHT). The director shall establish procedure and written policy which assures that every person who has been investigated to be a person with mental illness as defined by ORS 426.005 is educated about the Declaration for Mental Health Treatment and is offered the opportunity to complete one by the end of the investigation period or end of the civil commitment, as applicable. The director shall make available to the Authority upon request a copy of the written policy and associated procedures.
(4) Data. The Authority aims to maintain consistent and reliable data collection methods from which the results can be utilized to monitor outcomes, inform program evaluation, guide program development, and promote program efficacy.
(a) Hospital and nonhospital facility administrators and CMHP directors shall ensure that all reporting requirements related to civil commitment proceedings as described in OAR Chapter 309 Division 33 and in statute in ORS Chapter 426 are met according to agreement, certification, contract, and licensing.
(b) CMHP directors shall comply with all reporting requirements for all provided civil commitment services via the Measures and Outcomes Tracking System (MOTS) and any of its successors.
(c) Hospital and nonhospital facilities operating as regional acute care psychiatric facilities shall comply with all reporting requirements for all provided civil commitment services in the online portal for the Acute Care Reporting (ACR) system or another preferred data collection program selected by the Oregon Health Authority. Data must be entered into ACR for each individual within 12 hours of the day of admission and updated within 12 hours of the day of discharge.
(5) Service of Citation and Return of Service. The Community Mental Health Program (CMHP) investigating the person alleged to have a mental illness will complete service of the citation issued by the judge, unless the judge orders personal service through different means, under ORS 426.090 and filing of the completed return of service of the citation under ORS 426.080, whether accomplished directly or through authorized third parties.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 426.060 & ORS 426.080
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.005 - 426.395
- BHS 17-2026, amend filed 06/26/2026, effective 06/26/2026
- BHS 7-2024, amend filed 04/30/2024, effective 05/28/2024
- BHS 9-2023, amend filed 04/04/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- MHD 6-1998, f. 6-26-98, cert. ef. 7-1-98, Renumbered from 309-200-0030
Or. Admin. R. 309-033-0222 Need for Treatment Considerations
(1) When a certified mental health investigator is making a hearing recommendation, or a certified mental health examiner is making a commitment recommendation, they must consider whether the person is a person with mental illness and is in need of treatment because the person:
(a) Is a danger to self;
(b) Is a danger to others;
(c) Is unable to provide for basic personal needs; or
(d) Has a chronic mental disorder.
(2) A danger to self, danger to others, or risk of serious physical harm due to inability to provide for basic personal needs must be reasonably foreseeable in the near future but need not be imminent.
(3) When a certified mental health investigator or examiner are preparing a report or testifying at a civil commitment hearing regarding the issue of whether the person is a person with mental illness and in need of treatment because they are a danger to themselves, they should consider:
(a) The person’s recent overt acts causing or attempting to cause serious physical harm to self;
(b) Recent acts placing the person in circumstances that resulted in or were likely to result in serious physical harm to self;
(A) The person’s recent threats to cause serious physical harm to self and the severity of the harm threatened;
(B) Absent treatment, the likelihood of such threats being carried out; and
(C) Absent treatment, the likelihood of such threats reoccurring.
(c) Any past behavior and patterns of deterioration resulting from a mental disorder that contributed to prior involuntary hospitalizations for being a danger to self, how recently the past behavior occurred and the frequency and severity of the past behavior.
(4) When a certified mental health investigator or examiner are preparing a report or testifying at a civil commitment hearing regarding the issue of whether the person is a person with mental illness and in need of treatment because they are a danger to others, they should consider:
(a) Recent overt acts causing or attempting to cause physical harm to another person and
(A) The frequency and severity of such acts.
(B) Recent destructive acts against property that were reasonably likely to place others at risk of physical harm.
(b) Recent threats to cause physical harm to another person;
(A) The severity of the harm threatened;
(B) Absent treatment, the likelihood of such threats being carried out; and
(C) Absent treatment, the likelihood of such threats reoccurring.
(c) Any past behavior and patterns of deterioration resulting from a mental disorder that contributed to prior involuntary hospitalizations for being a danger to others;
(A) How recently the past behavior occurred; and
(B) The frequency and severity of the past behavior.
(5) An inability to meet basic personal needs is demonstrated when a person, because of a mental disorder:
(a) Is unable to provide for basic personal needs that are necessary to avoid reasonably foreseeable serious physical harm in the near future; and
(b) Is not receiving such care that would be necessary to avoid serious physical harm, or for persons under a court commitment or other involuntary program for mental health treatment, it is reasonably foreseeable that the person will not, upon release, receive such care that would be necessary to avoid serious physical harm.
(6) A chronic mental disorder is demonstrated when:
(a) A person has a chronic mental illness as defined in ORS 426.495;
(b) Within the previous three years the person has been placed, at least twice, in a hospital or an approved inpatient unit as directed by the Authority or a CMHP director under ORS 426.060.
(c) The person is exhibiting symptoms or behaviors substantially similar to those that preceded and led to one or more of the placements; and
(d) To a reasonable medical probability, the person will, without treatment, continue to deteriorate physically or mentally so that the person will become a danger to self, a danger to others, or be unable to provide for the person’s basic personal needs.
(7) Certified mental health investigators and certified mental health examiners, when determining whether a person is in need of treatment because the person is a danger to self or a danger to others, are to consider:
(a) The person’s insight into their psychiatric needs and current circumstances;
(b) The person’s ability to, with their level of insight, follow a treatment plan; and
(c) How likely the person may become a danger to self, danger to others, or unable to provide for basic personal needs without sufficient and available mental health treatment.
(8) A need for assisted outpatient treatment (AOT) is demonstrated when:
(a) A person is at least 18 years old
(b) Has a mental disorder
(c) Cannot provide informed consent for mental health treatment, and
(d) Will not access mental health treatment on a voluntary basis and as a result:
(A) Is unable to safely live in the community without mental health treatment; and
(B) Must receive mental health treatment to prevent further deterioration or becoming a person who is a danger to self, is a danger to others, is unable to provide for basic personal needs, or has a chronic mental disorder.
(e) When determining whether a person has a need for AOT, a certified civil commitment investigator or a certified mental health examiner may consider:
(A) The person’s ability to access finances in order to get food or medicine.
(B) The person’s ability to obtain treatment for the person’s medical condition.
(C) The person’s ability to access necessary resources in the community without assistance.
(D) The degree to which there are risks to the person’s safety.
(E) The likelihood that the person will decompensate without immediate care or treatment.
(F) The person’s previous attempts to inflict physical injury on self or others.
(G) The person’s history of mental health treatment in the community.
(H) The person’s patterns of decompensation in the past.
(I) The person’s risk of being victimized or harmed by others.
(J) The person’s access to the means to inflict harm on self or others.
(f) The person’s history of accessing and engagement in mental health treatment in the community, including previous patterns of decompensation and the likelihood that the person will decompensate without immediate care or treatment.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 426.005, 426.060, 426.110(2), 426.232, 426.236 & HB 2005 (2025)
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.005 - 426.395
- BHS 17-2026, adopt filed 06/26/2026, effective 06/26/2026
- BHS 31-2025, temporary adopt filed 12/29/2025, effective 01/01/2026 through 06/29/2026
- BHS 30-2025, temporary adopt filed 12/29/2025, effective 01/01/2026 through 06/29/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-033-0225 Variances
(1) Criteria for a variance. Variances to rules in Oregon Administrative Rules Chapter 309, Division 33 may be granted to a Community Mental Health Program (CMHP), provider, or facility if there is a lack of resources to implement the standards required in this rule or if implementation of the proposed alternative services, methods, concepts, or procedures would result in services or systems that meet or exceed the standards in these rules and is pursuant to relevant Oregon Revised Statutes.
(2) Variance application. The CMHP, provider, or facility requesting a variance shall submit, in writing, an application to the Division which contains the following:
(a) The section of the rule from which the variance is sought;
(b) The reason for the proposed variance;
(c) The alternative practice, service, method, concept or procedure proposed;
(d) A plan and timetable for compliance with the section of the rule from which the variance is sought; and
(e) Signed documentation from the council indicating its position on the proposed variance.
(3) Division review. The Division or designee of the Division shall approve or deny the request for a variance.
(4) Notification. The Division shall notify the CMHP, provider, or facility of the decision. This notice shall be given to the CMHP, provider, or facility, with a copy to the council, within 30 days of the receipt of the request by the Division.
(5) Appeal application. Appeal of the denial of a variance request shall be made in writing to the Division, whose decision shall be final.
(6) Written approval. The CMHP, provider, or facility may implement a variance only after written approval from the Division. The Intergovernmental Agreement shall be amended to the extent that the variance changes a term in that agreement.
(7) Duration of variance. A variance shall be initially approved, at maximum, for a period not to exceed two years, though may be shorter depending on the Division’s decision. Variances shall be reviewed by the Division at least every two years for continued need.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 426.060-426.500
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.005-426.395
- BHS 9-2023, adopt filed 04/04/2023, effective 04/07/2023
Or. Admin. R. 309-033-0230 Custody
(1) Custody by a Licensed Independent Practitioner (LIP) pursuant to ORS 426.231. A LIP taking a person into custody pursuant to ORS 426.231 at a hospital approved under OAR 309-033-0550 shall detain the person for no more than 12 hours. During the initial 12 hours, the LIP shall do one of the following:
(a) Authorize the person for transportation to an approved hospital or nonhospital facility and provide transportation according to the agreement required under OAR 309-033-0550;
(b) Release the person if the LIP no longer believes that the person is dangerous to self or others; or
(c) If, after the 12-hour period of detention, the LIP believes the person remains a danger to self or others and is in need of emergency care or treatment for mental illness, the LIP may proceed with an emergency hold pursuant to ORS 426.232.
(2) Custody by a peace officer or secure transport provider. A peace officer taking a person into custody shall remove the person to an approved hospital as directed by the director in the county where the person was taken into custody. The peace officer or approved secure transport provider shall only take a person into custody under the provisions of one of the following:
(a) Custody on peace officer’s own initiative. A peace officer may take a person into custody pursuant to the provisions of ORS 426.228 when the peace officer has probable cause to believe that the person is dangerous to self or others, and is in need of immediate care, custody or treatment for a mental illness;
(b) Custody on the director’s authority. The director may direct, pursuant to the provisions of ORS 426.233, a peace officer or an approved secure transport provider to take into custody a person who is dangerous to self or others and in need of immediate care, custody or treatment for mental illness;
(c) Custody of a person under civil commitment on the director’s authority. The director may direct a peace officer or an approved secure transport provider to take into custody, pursuant to the provisions of ORS 426.233, a person under civil commitment who is on trial visit, outpatient commitment or conditional release in the community, who is dangerous to self or others or who is unable to provide for basic personal needs, who is not receiving the care that is necessary for health and safety, and who is in need of immediate care, custody or treatment for mental illness;
(d) A peace officer may transfer a person in custody under this section to the custody of an approved secure transport provider. The peace officer may meet the approved secure transport provider at any location that is in accordance with ORS 426.140 to effect the transfer. When transferring a person in custody to an authorized person, the peace officer shall deliver the report required under subsection (3) of this section to the authorized person.
(3) Peace officer’s written report. When taking a person into custody pursuant to ORS Chapter 426.228, by a peace officer’s own initiative, a peace officer shall prepare a written report which states:
(a) The reason for custody;
(b) The date, time and place the person was taken into custody; and
(c) The name of the director in the county where the person is taken into custody and a telephone number where the director may be reached at all times.
(4) Director’s written report. When a peace officer or approved secure transport provider takes a person into custody pursuant to ORS Chapter 426.228 at the direction of the director, a director shall prepare a written report which states:
(a) The reason for custody;
(b) The date, time and place the person was taken into custody; and
(c) The name of the director in the county where the person is taken into custody and a telephone number where the director may be reached at all times.
(5) Transportation to a hospital or nonhospital facility more than one hour away. If the peace officer determines that more than one hour is required to transport the person to a hospital or nonhospital facility approved by the Division, the peace officer or approved secure transport provider shall obtain a certificate, if possible, from a LIP prior to transporting the person. A LIP authorizing transport shall sign a certificate, on a form approved by the Division, only if the person’s condition, in the opinion of the LIP, meets all of the following requirements:
(a) The travel will not be detrimental to the person’s physical health;
(b) The person is dangerous to self or others; and
(c) The person is in need of immediate care or treatment for mental illness.
(6) The director directs peace officers or approved secure transport providers to appropriate facility. The director shall adopt written procedures for directing peace officers or approved secure transport providers to transport persons taken into custody, pursuant to ORS 426.228, to an approved hospital or nonhospital facility:
(a) The written procedures shall include one of the following, whichever, in the opinion of the director, serves the best interests of persons with mental illness and the community:
(A) A list of approved hospitals or nonhospital facilities where peace officers or approved secure transport providers are to transport persons;
(B) A procedure for contacting the director 24 hours-a-day, seven days-a-week.
(b) The director shall distribute copies of the written procedures to the sheriff and the chief of police of each municipality in the county and approved secure transport providers. The procedures shall be distributed as often as the procedure is amended;
(c) The director may develop a written agreement with the law enforcement agencies in the county which designates a site or sites where the director can safely evaluate the person and determine which facility, in the director’s opinion, can best serve the person’s needs within the resources available. If such an agreement exists in a county, the director may direct a peace officer to transport a person in custody under ORS 426.228 to a site designated in the agreement. Once the director makes a determination, the peace officer shall transport and deliver the person to a hospital or nonhospital facility as directed by the director. The agreement shall:
(A) Designate the site or sites where the director can safely evaluate the person’s needs for treatment;
(B) Define the minimum response time for the director meeting the peace officer at the site; and
(C) Be signed by all parties to the agreement.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 426.228, 426.231 & 426.236
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.005 - 426.395
- BHS 7-2024, amend filed 04/30/2024, effective 05/28/2024
- BHS 9-2023, amend filed 04/04/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- MHD 9-2000, f. & cert. ef. 7-21-00
- MHD 2-2000(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 1-25-00 thru 7-22-00
- MHD 6-1998, f. 6-26-98, cert. ef. 7-1-98, Renumbered from 309-200-0040
Or. Admin. R. 309-033-0240 Initiation of the Civil Commitment Process
(1) Initiation. The civil commitment process is initiated when a Notice of Mental Illness (NMI) is filed with the circuit court. The NMI shall be filed with the circuit court as directed below:
(a) Public petition. When an NMI is given to the director of the county where the person alleged to have a mental illness resides pursuant to ORS 426.070, the director shall immediately file the NMI with the court in the county where the person alleged to have a mental illness resides. If the person has no residence, then the NMI shall be given to the director in the county where the person is currently located. The director shall file the original NMI with the court on the day the NMI is received or, if the NMI is received outside the court’s routine business hours, the next day the court is open for business. The director shall retain a copy of the NMI in the clinical record as required by OAR 309-033-0930. The following persons may give an NMI to the director:
(A) Any two persons;
(B) A county health officer; or
(C) Any magistrate or judge.
(b) Hospital hold. When a Licensed Independent Practitioner (LIP) admits or retains a person in a hospital pursuant to ORS 426.232, the LIP shall:
(A) Immediately notify the director in the county in which the hospital is located unless the person resides in a county other than the county where the hospital is located, in which case the LIP shall immediately notify the director in the person’s county of residence and offer that director the first right of refusal; and
(B) File the NMI with the appropriate circuit court as follows:
(i) If the director of the person’s county of residence requests it, the LIP shall file the NMI with the circuit court in the person’s county of residence; or
(ii) If the director of the person’s county of residence does not request it, or the person does not maintain a residence in Oregon, the LIP shall file the NMI with:
(I) The circuit court in the county in which the hospital is located if the person did not arrive at the hospital under custody pursuant to ORS 426.228 or ORS 426.233; or
(II) The circuit court in the county of custody if the director of the county in which the hospital is located does not request that the NMI be filed in its circuit court.
(c) Nonhospital hold. When a director admits or retains a person in a nonhospital facility pursuant to ORS 426.233, the director shall file the NMI as follows:
(A) If the director of the person’s county of residence requests it, the NMI shall be filed with the circuit court in the county of residence; or
(B) If the director of the person’s county of residence does not request it, the NMI shall be filed with the circuit court in the county of custody.
(d) How a director requests where the NMI is filed. A director may request that the LIP, in the case of a hospital hold, or the director of the county of custody, in the case of a nonhospital hold, file the NMI according to the provisions of ORS 426.234 by either:
(A) Making the request immediately upon receipt of the notice required by ORS 426.234; or
(B) Sending a written general request to a hospital or a director.
(2) Initiation for a Person under the Jurisdiction of a Federally Recognized Tribe in Oregon. The civil commitment process may be initiated for a person under the jurisdiction of a federally recognized tribe located in Oregon by a tribal court pursuant to ORS 426.180, by a tribal court or other statutory grounds pursuant to ORS 426.070, or by a licensed independent practitioner (LIP) pursuant to ORS 426.232.
(a) Initiation by a Tribal Court in Oregon. When a person is received at a hospital or nonhospital facility pursuant to ORS 426.180, the LIP at the hospital or nonhospital facility shall immediately review the accompanying medical records and court documents.
(i) After reviewing the documentation, the receiving LIP may decline to hold the person if the LIP:
(I) Does not believe that an emergency exists; or
(II) Finds that the person is not a danger to self or others and is not in need of immediate care, custody, and treatment for mental illness.
(ii) If the LIP determines that an emergency exists or that the person is a danger to self or others and is in need of emergency care or treatment for mental illness, the LIP shall:
(I) Admit the person to the hospital or nonhospital facility by detaining the person pursuant to ORS 426.231 or placing an emergency hold pursuant to ORS 426.232;
(II) Provide the person with the warning in accordance with ORS 426.123; and
(III) Immediately file a NMI with the circuit court in the county in which the hospital is located and immediately notify the CMHP director in that county.
(iii) The director of the hospital or nonhospital facility or LIP shall notify the tribal court that found the person to be a danger to self or others of any action taken in accordance with ORS 426.180 through ORS 426.210 no later than 24 hours after the action is taken, except for information protected from disclosure by state or federal laws.
(b) Initiation Pursuant to ORS 426.070. If a NMI is filed under ORS 426.070(1) for a person under the jurisdiction of a federally recognized tribe located in Oregon, the NMI shall be provided to the CMHP director in the county where the person alleged to have a mental illness resides, unless the person is eligible for services provided by a tribal CMHP in which case the NMI shall be provided to the CMHP director in the county where the person is located. When the CMHP director receives a NMI pursuant to this rule, the director shall immediately notify the judge in the circuit court where the CMHP is located. The following persons may provide a NMI to the director:
(A) Any two persons;
(B) A county health officer; or
(C) Any magistrate or judge.
(c) Initiation Pursuant to ORS 426.232. When a person under the jurisdiction of a federally recognized tribe located in Oregon is received at a hospital or nonhospital facility pursuant to ORS 426.232, after an LIP has evaluated the person, the following shall occur:
(A) If the LIP determines that there likely is probable cause to believe the person is a danger to self or others and is in need of emergency care or treatment for mental illness, the LIP shall:
(i) Admit the person to a hospital where the LIP has admitting privileges or is on staff; or approve the person for emergency care or treatment at a nonhospital facility approved by the Authority;
(ii) Inform the person of their right to counsel and provide the warning in accordance with ORS 426.100 and 426.123;
(iii) Notify the CMHP director in the county where the person alleged to have a mental illness resides, unless the person lives on an Indian reservation located within Oregon in which case the NMI shall be provided to the CMHP director in the county where the person is located.
(iv) When the CMHP director receives the LIP’s notification as described in subsection (1)(e)(C)(3) of this rule, the director shall immediately notify the judge in the circuit court where the CMHP is located;
(B) If the LIP determines there likely is not probable cause to believe the person is a danger to self or others and that the person is in need of emergency care or treatment for mental illness, the LIP shall release the person unless otherwise directed by a state or federal court order or the person agrees to remain in the hospital voluntarily.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 426.070, 426.180, 426.228, 426.231 & 426.232 & 426.236
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.005 - 426.395
- BHS 7-2024, amend filed 04/30/2024, effective 05/28/2024
- BHS 42-2023, temporary amend filed 12/14/2023, effective 12/15/2023 through 06/11/2024
- BHS 9-2023, amend filed 04/04/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- MHD 9-2000, f. & cert. ef. 7-21-00
- MHD 2-2000(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 1-25-00 thru 7-22-00
- MHD 6-1998, f. 6-26-98, cert. ef. 7-1-98, Renumbered from 309-200-0050
Or. Admin. R. 309-033-0250 Standards for Custody, Hospital and Nonhospital Holds, Emergency Commitment and Emergency Hospitalization of Persons Under Warrant of Detention
(1) Criteria for placement into custody.
(a) Persons who are a danger to self or others, whether prior to being placed under civil commitment or during a period of civil commitment, and who are in need of mental health treatment shall be placed in custody at a facility approved by the Division.
(b) A person who has been placed on conditional release, outpatient commitment, or trial visit, in addition to the criteria in Section 1(a) of this rule number, may also be taken into custody if the person is unable to provide for basic personal needs that are necessary to avoid serious physical harm in the near future and is not receiving such care as is necessary to avoid such harm.
(2) Warrant of detention.
(a) If the court issues a warrant of detention to the director for the prehearing detention of a person alleged to have a mental illness, the director shall make arrangements to take the person into custody and arrange to transport the person to an OHA-approved community hospital or nonhospital facility that is licensed under ORS Chapter 441, other than an institution listed in ORS 426.010.
(A) The director is required to inform the person of their rights with regard to representation by or appointment of counsel as described in ORS 426.100 and be given the warning described under in ORS 426.070(5)(b)(B) and OAR 309-033-0540.
(B) The director shall make arrangements as applicable to transport the person to the civil commitment hearing, as directed in the warrant of detention or a subsequent court order.
(C) Unless otherwise directed by a court order or as provided for in these rules, the director shall place the person in an OHA-approved community hospital or nonhospital facility until the date indicated in the warrant of detention or any subsequent court order. The director shall seek to place the person in the least restrictive placement possible that will meet the person’s immediate health and safety needs.
(i) If the person represents an immediate and serious danger to the staff or physical facilities of an OHA-approved community hospital or nonhospital facility, the director, after providing written notice to OHA of the alternative placement, may confine the person in a non-OHA approved correctional setting that can meet the health and safety needs of the person pursuant to ORS 426.140(1). The notice must include contact information for the CMHP director authorizing the transfer to a correctional setting, the physical address and contact information for the placement site, and a description of the person’s behavior(s) that represent an immediate and serious danger to facility staff or property. The person may be placed in this alternative placement until the date indicated in the warrant of detention or subsequent court order, or until the person is transferred to an OHA-approved community hospital or nonhospital facility.
(ii) If no OHA-approved community hospital or nonhospital facility will admit the person, the director may place the person in a non-OHA approved setting that can meet the health and safety needs of the person pursuant to ORS 426.140(2). If the person is not placed in a community hospital, the director shall ensure that a care attendant is in direct charge of the person at all times while they are onsite at the alternative placement, that the placement is suitable for the comfortable, safe, and humane confinement of the person, and that the Authority is immediately notified in writing of the alternative placement. The person may be placed in this alternative placement until the date indicated in the warrant of detention or a subsequent court order, or until the person is transferred to an OHA-approved community hospital or nonhospital facility.
(b) If the court has issued the warrant of detention to the sheriff of the county to provide for the custody and transportation of the person alleged to have a mental illness, the director is not responsible for taking the person into custody, providing transportation to the treatment facility, or transportation to the civil commitment hearing. The director shall coordinate with the sheriff on the person’s placement and the ongoing civil commitment process.
(c) If the court has issued the warrant of detention to a hospital or nonhospital facility to provide for the custody of the person alleged to have a mental illness, the director is not responsible for taking the person into custody. The director shall coordinate with the hospital or nonhospital facility the transportation of the person to the indicated treatment setting, unless otherwise authorized under ORS 426.150(2), including notifying a peace officer or another authorized individual, pursuant to ORS 426.233(1)(b), to take custody of and transport the person to the hospital or nonhospital facility.
(d) In cases where the state hospital initiated the civil commitment proceeding and the person is already at the state hospital, the person shall remain at the state hospital upon receipt of the warrant of detention, unless otherwise indicated by the presiding judge.
(3) Hospital hold. Only a LIP with admitting privileges or on staff at a hospital approved by the Authority and who has completed a face-to-face examination of the person may retain the person in custody in the hospital as provided by ORS 426.232. When implementing a hospital hold, the LIP shall document the following information on the Notice of Mental Illness (NMI), retaining a copy of the NMI in the clinical record:
(a) Examples of indicators that support the LIP’s belief that the person is a danger to self or others due to symptoms and behaviors related to a mental disorder;
(b) Examples of thoughts, plans, actions, access to means, history of dangerousness, and other indicators that support the LIP’s belief that the person is imminently dangerous.
(4) Peace officer custody requested by director. A director may direct a peace officer to take into custody a person who the director has probable cause to believe is dangerous to self or any other person and who the director has probable cause to believe is in need of immediate care, custody or treatment for mental illness:
(a) A county governing body may authorize the director, or a person named and recommended by the director, to direct a peace officer or approved secure transport provider to take persons alleged to have a mental illness into custody. Such an authorization shall be made formally and in writing by the county governing body of the director. The director shall keep a copy of each authorization in each person’s personnel file;
(b) Prior to directing a peace officer or approved secure transport provider to take a person into custody, a director shall have face-to-face contact with the person and document on forms approved by the Division, the evidence for probable cause to believe that the person is:
(A) Dangerous to self or others; and
(B) In need of immediate care, custody or treatment for a mental illness.
(5) When a person in custody can be released. A person who is detained, in custody, or on a hold shall be released as described:
(a) LIP’s release of a person on peace officer custody. When a person is brought to a hospital by a peace officer or approved secure transport provider pursuant to ORS 426.228 the treating LIP shall release the person if, upon initial examination prior to admission, the LIP makes the determination that the person is not dangerous to self or others. It is not necessary to notify the court of the release;
(b) LIP’s release of a person on transport custody. At any time during the 12-hour detention period, the treating LIP shall release a person detained pursuant to ORS 426.231 if the LIP makes the determination that the person is not dangerous to self or others. It is not necessary to notify the court of the release;
(c) LIP’s release of a person on a hospital hold. The treating LIP shall release a person retained or admitted to a hospital pursuant to ORS 426.232 whenever the LIP makes the determination that the person is not dangerous to self or others. The treating LIP shall immediately notify the director and the circuit court where the NMI was filed. See OAR 309-033-0240; or
(d) Director’s release of a person on a nonhospital hold. The director shall release a person detained in a nonhospital facility, approved under OAR 309-033-0530, pursuant to ORS 426.233, whenever the director, in consultation with a LIP, makes the determination that the person is not dangerous to self or others. The director shall immediately notify the circuit court.
(6) When a person in custody cannot be released. If a person is taken into custody by order of a warrant of detention pursuant to ORS 426.070(5)(b)(A) and ORS 426.070(5)(b)(C), the person may only be released by the court. However, a person may be discharged from a hospital or nonhospital facility when the person is transferred to another approved facility.
(7) Commencement of the five judicial days. No person who is detained, in custody, or on a hold pursuant to ORS 426.070, ORS 426.228, ORS 426.232, or ORS 426.233 shall be involuntarily held for more than five judicial days without a hearing before a judge unless otherwise determined pursuant to ORS 426.237 or ORS 426.307.
(a) The first day of the prehearing period of detention is determined to be the judicial day immediately following the day:
(A) The person was placed in custody by the director or a peace officer pursuant to ORS 426.228 or ORS 426.233, if the person was not initially held pursuant to ORS 426.231; or
(B) A Notice of Mental Illness (NMI) was completed and submitted to a court pursuant to ORS 426.232, if the person was not detained or placed in custody prior to the NMI.
(b) The time limit is counted by the 24-hour day, regardless of the precise time a custody or NMI is completed. It is not counted by hour, minute, or second.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 426.070, 426.231, 426.232, 426.233 & 426.234
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.005 - 426.395
- BHS 7-2024, amend filed 04/30/2024, effective 05/28/2024
- BHS 9-2023, amend filed 04/04/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- BHS 23-2021, amend filed 12/13/2021, effective 12/13/2021
- BHS 16-2021, temporary amend filed 07/30/2021, effective 07/30/2021 through 01/25/2022
- MHD 9-2000, f. & cert. ef. 7-21-00
- MHD 2-2000(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 1-25-00 thru 7-22-00
- MHD 6-1998, f. 6-26-98, cert. ef. 7-1-98, Renumbered from 309-200-0060
Or. Admin. R. 309-033-0265 The Authority’s Denial of Payment for Services to Persons in Custody or on Diversion
(1) The Authority denial. The Authority shall deny part or all payment for services for a person in custody or on a diversion only when the Authority determines that there is insufficient evidence to reasonably support the belief that the person in custody demonstrated:
(a) Living with a mental disorder; and
(b) Dangerousness to self or others as evidenced by thoughts, plans, means, actions, history of dangerousness or other indicators of imminent dangerousness which Division believes are within accepted community standards of professional knowledge.
(2) The Authority consultation with Licensed Independent Practitioner (LIP). When making a determination under this rule which is primarily based on accepted community standards of professional knowledge, the Authority shall consult with a LIP.
(3) Information payer must submit. When making a request for denial of payment, the payer responsible for the services provided to the person in custody or on diversion under ORS 426.241 shall submit the following to the Authority:
(a) A statement requesting the Authority review the appropriateness of the hold or diversion for the purpose of approving denial of part or all payment for services rendered;
(b) An explanation of why the payer believes the services provided to the person in custody or on diversion do not meet criteria described in ORS 426.232, 426.233 or 426.237;
(c) Any documentation which supports the payer’s belief that the services provided to the person in custody or on diversion were inappropriate.
(4) Clinical records to be submitted. At the request of the Authority, as provided by ORS 426.241(5)(b), the following shall submit clinical records and other documents requested relating to the services in question to the Division:
(a) A hospital or a nonhospital facility approved under OAR 309-033-0530;
(b) A LIP or person providing services to the person in custody or on diversion.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: 413.042, 426.005, 426.060, 426.110(2), 426.232 & 426.236
- Statutes/Other Implemented: 426.241
- BHS 7-2024, adopt filed 04/30/2024, effective 05/28/2024
Or. Admin. R. 309-033-0270 Provision of Care, Custody and Treatment of Persons under Civil Commitment
(1) Persons under civil commitment have the rights provided under ORS 426.385, ORS 430.205 through 430.210, and this rule, including:
(a) A person under civil commitment’s right to fresh air.
(b) If a person under civil commitment requests access to fresh air and the outdoors or the person under civil commitment’s treating health care provider determines that fresh air or the outdoors would be beneficial to the person under civil commitment, the facility in which the person under civil commitment is receiving services shall provide daily access to fresh air and the outdoors unless this access would create a significant risk of harm to the person under civil commitment or others;
(c) The determination whether a significant risk of harm to the person under civil commitment or others exists shall be made by the person under civil commitment’s treating health care provider. The treating health care provider may find that a significant risk of harm to the person under civil commitment or others exists if:
(A) The person under civil commitment’s circumstances and conditions indicate an unreasonable risk of harm to the person under civil commitment or others which cannot be reasonably accommodated within existing programming should the person under civil commitment be allowed access to fresh air and the outdoors; or
(B) The facility’s existing physical plant or existing staffing prevent the provision of access to fresh air and the outdoors in a manner than maintains the safety of the person under civil commitment or others.
(d) If a facility determines that its existing physical plant prevents the provision of access to fresh air and the outdoors in a safe manner, the facility shall make a good faith effort at the time of any significant renovation to the physical plant that involves renovation of the unit or relocation of where persons under civil commitment are treated to include changes to the physical plan or location that allow access to fresh air and the outdoors, so long as such changes do not add an unreasonable amount to the cost of the renovation.
(2) Provision of care at a state hospital. The superintendent of the state hospital shall be responsible for all admissions to the state hospital pursuant to OAR 309-091-0015. The superintendent shall implement policies and procedures which afford a person under civil commitment placed in a state hospital the rights provided by ORS 426.385, 430.205 through 430.210 and this rule.
(3) Provision of care at a community hospital. The director shall place a person under civil commitment at a community hospital only if it is approved under OAR 309-033-0530:
(a) The Licensed Independent Practitioner (LIP), in consultation with the director, shall determine whether the best interests of a person under civil commitment are served by an admission to a community hospital;
(b) The administrator shall implement policies and procedures which afford a person under civil commitment placed in a community hospital the rights provided by ORS 426.385, 430.205 through 430.210 and this rule.
(4) Provision of care at a nonhospital facility or an outpatient program. The director shall only place a person under civil commitment in a nonhospital facility that is licensed or certified by the Division:
(a) The administrator, in consultation with the director, shall determine whether the best interests of a person under civil commitment are served by an admission to a nonhospital facility or an outpatient program;
(b) The administrator shall implement policies and procedures which afford a person under civil commitment placed in a nonhospital facility or an outpatient program the rights provided by ORS 426.385, 430.205 through 430.210 and this rule;
(c) The director may place the person under civil commitment on a trial visit when the person is discharged from Oregon State Hospital, a community hospital, or a level one facility to a lower level of care in accordance with OAR 309-033-0290 and 309-033-0300. A lower level of care may include treatment in another facility, outpatient care, or case management services;
(d) The director may place a person under civil commitment on outpatient commitment, who, at the time of the civil commitment hearing and immediately following it, is not initially placed in a level one facility or hospital setting. This may include treatment or services whereby the person resides in a residential behavioral health facility or their personal residence with outpatient or medication management services
(5) Provision of medical services for a person under civil commitment. The superintendent of the state hospital, the treating LIP at a community hospital or the director may transfer a person under civil commitment to a community hospital, or transfer a person under civil commitment from a psychiatric unit to a medical unit for medical care:
(a) The treating LIP shall only provide medical care with the consent of the person under civil commitment in accordance with OAR 309-033-0600 through 309-033-0650;
(b) The superintendent or treating LIP shall transfer a person under civil commitment to a community hospital for medical services on a pass or discharge the person from the state hospital when it is determined that the person will not return to the state hospital within a reasonable length of time, or that discharge is clinically appropriate and is required for the person to have access to third-party insurance benefits;
(c) The treating LIP shall immediately notify the director that a person was transferred to another hospital for medical care under this subsection.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 426.060, 426.385 & 430.205 - 430.210
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.005 - 426.395
- BHS 7-2024, amend filed 04/30/2024, effective 05/28/2024
- BHS 9-2023, amend filed 04/04/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- BHS 17-2022, temporary amend filed 10/14/2022, effective 10/14/2022 through 04/11/2023
- MHS 5-2009, f. & cert. ef. 12-17-09
- MHD 6-1998, f. 6-26-98, cert. ef. 7-1-98, Renumbered from 309-200-0080
Or. Admin. R. 309-033-0280 Procedures for Persons under Civil Commitment and on Outpatient Commitment or Trial Visit
(1) Outpatient commitment. At the time of the civil commitment hearing the director may place a person under civil commitment on an outpatient commitment if adequate treatment services are available.
(a) A director may place a person on outpatient commitment who also has professional or natural supports in the community that are willing and available to assist the person in adhering to the conditions of placement.
(b) The director of the county of commitment shall establish the initial conditions of placement for a person on outpatient commitment in accordance with OAR 309-033-0282, including enrolling the person in services. Thereafter, the director of the county of placement may modify the conditions without a hearing in accordance with OAR 309-033-0280(4)(a).
(c) The director of the county of commitment shall be responsible for monitoring the provision of care for a person on outpatient commitment, including documenting in the person’s clinical record the person’s progress toward discharge of the outpatient commitment.
(2) Trial visit. A director may, upon approval of the director of the county of placement, grant a trial visit to any person under civil commitment and placed at the state hospital, a community hospital, or level one facility approved by the Division. While it may be clinically advisable, the director is not required to obtain the consent or signature of the person under civil commitment.
(a) A trial visit shall not exceed the time remaining in the period of civil commitment, unless otherwise recommitted in accordance with ORS 426.307;
(b) The director of the county of placement, unless otherwise determined in accordance with ORS 426.278, shall be responsible for monitoring the provision of care for persons on trial visit, including documenting in the person’s clinical record progress toward successful discharge of the civil commitment.
(3) Nonadherence to conditions of placement. The director shall evaluate any complaints or concerns received from any person regarding the behavior or treatment of a person on a community-based civil commitment. A director may petition the court for a revocation hearing if the person who is placed on outpatient commitment or trial visit is unable to meet the conditions as set.
(4) Modifications to the conditions of placement. In accordance with ORS 426.127 and 426.273, the director of the county of placement shall be responsible for documenting in the person’s clinical record any modifications to the conditions, and reasons for such changes, and the distribution of revised conditions of placement as described in ORS 426.278. Modifications to the conditions of placement that are more restrictive require a revocation hearing before a judge prior to being adopted. The court maintaining jurisdiction shall be notified of the request for revocation hearing by:
(a) For outpatient commitments, the director of the county of residence.
(b) For trial visits, the director of the county of placement.
(c) The notice shall include the reason for revocation and include a copy of the conditions of placement if the person is placed on outpatient commitment or trial visit.
(5) Distribution of the conditions of placement. When a person under civil commitment is placed on outpatient commitment or trial visit, the following persons shall receive a copy of the initial conditions of placement and any subsequent modified conditions of placement:
(a) The person under civil commitment;
(b) The director of the county of placement where the person is to receive nonhospital or outpatient care;
(c) The director of any facility, program, service, or other provider who is designated to provide treatment;
(d) The court in the county of commitment; and
(e) The court in the county of placement, if different than the county of commitment.
(6) Transfer of trial visit or outpatient commitment to another county. The director may transfer a person on trial visit or outpatient commitment to another county only if the director for the county where the person will reside agrees to accept and provide for monitoring of the trial visit or outpatient commitment:
(a) The director of the county where the person currently resides shall provide the director of the county where the person will reside a copy of the current conditions of placement for the person on trial visit or outpatient commitment;
(b) The director of the transferring county of placement shall make every reasonable effort to enroll the person in available services prior to the transfer. The director of the transferring county of placement shall modify the conditions of placement to accommodate any necessary changes, except those that are more restrictive requiring a hearing, and distribute the modified conditions as required in Section 5 of this rule.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 426.127, 426.273 & 426.278
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.005 - 426.395
- BHS 7-2024, amend filed 04/30/2024, effective 05/28/2024
- BHS 9-2023, amend filed 04/04/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- MHD 6-1998, f. 6-26-98, cert. ef. 7-1-98, Renumbered from 309-200-0090
Or. Admin. R. 309-033-0282 Establishing and Monitoring Conditions of Placement
(1) The conditions of placement serve as the objective and legal civil commitment service goals documented as part of an electronic medical or health record.The conditions of placement shall be established prior to the person’s release from the more restrictive setting.
(a) The initial conditions of placement shall be established by the director of the county of commitment. Any subsequent changes to the conditions of placement shall be managed by the director of the county of placement.
(b) The conditions of placement shall include at minimum:
(A) Where the person is to physically reside. This may be a physical location description or physical address.
(B) The identified person responsible for ensuring monitoring tasks are completed including the person’s name, credential(s), and contact information, including email address and phone number.
(C) For outpatient commitment, the designation of a facility, program, or service where the person is to receive care, including contact information. Facilities, programs, and services providing mental health treatment shall be designated in accordance with OAR 309-033-0270(4). At least one of the following professional supports shall be identified in the conditions of placement:
(i) The identified provider for treatment or medication management, including contact information; or
(ii) The identified care coordinator, case manager, or outreach worker who maintains a therapeutic or supportive relationship with the person and assists the person with the following tasks, but not exclusively the following tasks: benefits coordination, ensuring housing needs are met, securing support in meeting instrumental activities of daily living (I/ADLs), money management, and meeting other identified needs.
(D) For trial visits pursuant to ORS 426.273(2), should outpatient care be a condition of placement Section (C) of this rule shall apply to the trial visit conditions of placement.
(E) A list of activities, behaviors, and tasks that the person on community-based placement shall be expected to adhere to, which may include but are not limited to:
(i) Mental health treatment and counseling services;
(ii) Co-occurring disorder or substance use disorder services or supports;
(iii) Residential treatment services;
(iv) Medication management;
(v) Case management and care coordination; and
(vi) Skills training.
(c) The director establishing the conditions of placement shall make reasonable efforts to obtain a release of information signed by the person under civil commitment that authorizes the sharing and exchange of the person’s protected health information (PHI), including mental health and substance use authorizations, between all parties associated with the conditions of placement. Any sharing or exchange of the person’s PHI shall be for care coordination purposes.
(d) Conditions of placement shall be distributed to individuals or entities in accordance with ORS 426.278:
(A) The committed person;
(B) The community mental health program director or designee of the county of placement;
(C) The director of any facility, service or other provider designated to provide care or treatment;
(D) The court of the county of commitment;
(E) The court of the county of placement if the person is living in a different county than the county of commitment.
(2) The Community Mental Health Program (CMHP) director shall identify in the conditions of placement a qualified CMHP employee to ensure monitoring services are sufficiently provided for individuals placed on outpatient commitment or trial visit. The identified person is responsible for notifying the court of nonadherence to the conditions of the placement and any request for revocation.
(a) Qualifications. A CMHP director shall only identify qualified persons to oversee monitoring services. A qualified person is a person who:
(A) Is certified at minimum as a Qualified Mental Health Associate (QMHA), unless otherwise provided for by OAR 309-033-0225, or be actively working toward the QMHA credential as verified by the CMHP director.
(B) Has completed the mental health investigator training as provided by the Division or is working toward completing the training.
(b) Monitoring services are intended to support the person under civil commitment in fulfilling the legal components of civil commitment by adhering to the conditions of placement and reduce barriers to success.
(c) Monitoring services shall be provided by direct contacts on a regular basis. A direct contact is considered a phone call or in-person visit with the person under civil commitment. Direct contacts do not include those with legal guardians, authorized representatives, or other surrogate decision makers. The aim of direct contacts is to obtain primary information regarding the person’s progress toward stabilization or in maintaining stabilization.
(d) Monitoring services shall also include indirect contacts. An indirect contact is considered any communication with a person other than the person placed under civil commitment and that is related to the person’s progress. Indirect contacts may include but not be limited to medical and behavioral health providers, prescribers, counselors, case managers, family members, friends, law enforcement, peers, and advocates.
(e) Direct and indirect contacts, including unsuccessful attempts, shall be documented in the person’s clinical record. Documentation must include but not be limited to changes to circumstance such as housing or health, observations of mood and behavior, successes or challenges adhering to the conditions of placement, descriptions of supportive services provided, and any recommendations or actions taken pertaining to need for revocation or early discharge of the civil commitment.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: 426.125, 426.127, 426.275 & 426.267
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 422.005 - 426.395
- BHS 17-2024, minor correction filed 06/27/2024, effective 06/27/2024
- BHS 7-2024, adopt filed 04/30/2024, effective 05/28/2024
Or. Admin. R. 309-033-0290 Placement of Persons under Civil Commitment
(1) Placement authority. The Authority, pursuant to ORS 426.060, delegates the responsibility for the placement of a person under civil commitment to the director of the county of commitment:
(a) The director, in consultation with the appropriate administrator, may place or transfer placement of a person under civil commitment to any facility or program approved by the Authority which, in the opinion of the director, will appropriately meet the mental health needs of the person under civil commitment and is consistent with applicable rules and statutes;
(b) Pursuant to ORS 426.300, the director of the county of placement may discharge a person from civil commitment by notifying, in writing, the court having jurisdiction, when voluntary status is in the best interest of the person, or if the director determines the person is no longer a person with mental illness as defined by ORS 426.005;
(c) Placement outside the county of residence. The director of the county of commitment may place the person under civil commitment at a facility in a county other than the county of residence or county of commitment if the director determines that such placement is in the best interest of the person under civil commitment;
(d) Placement at the state hospital. The director of the county of commitment shall only place a person under civil commitment in the state hospital with the consent of the superintendent.
(2) Placement procedure. The director of the county of commitment shall make the initial placement in writing immediately upon the civil commitment of a person by the court or at the time the person under civil commitment is transferred to another placement during the civil commitment period. The director shall:
(a) Retain an original placement order, as provided by the Division, on file in paper or electronic format, in safe keeping for seven years;
(b) Deliver a signed original copy, paper or electronic, of the placement order to the person under civil commitment prior to placement;
(c) Enter into the Division’s current electronic data systems a copy of the director’s written placement order, and information about the person under civil commitment including:
(A) Name and any known aliases;
(B) Date of birth;
(C) The physical location where the person can be found while under civil commitment. The physical location may be an address or description for those without an address;
(D) Address of the facility, hospital, or program where the person is placed for treatment, if different from physical location;
(E) Name and telephone number of the administrator of the hospital, facility, or program providing the person’s treatment; and
(F) Any other data as requested by the Division.
(d) Should the Division’s current electronic data system(s) be unavailable to upload and communicate the written placement order, within three business days the director shall submit a copy of the placement order to the Division by email at civil.commitment@odhsoha.oregon.gov;
(e) Petition for transfer of jurisdiction when placement is outside the county of commitment. The director of the transferring county of commitment shall petition its court to transfer jurisdiction to the court in the county where the person is to reside, pursuant to ORS 426.275.
(3) Appeal of placement procedure. At any time during the period of civil commitment, a person under civil commitment may appeal to the Authority for a change in placement made by a director. The Division shall, in addition to the person under civil commitment, accept completed and submitted appeals from advocates; a person’s legal representation, authorized healthcare representatives; a person’s social worker or caseworker; and others who submit the appeal on behalf of the person under civil commitment and with the person’s documented consent.
(a) How to make an appeal. The person under civil commitment shall make the appeal in writing and shall include the following information in the appeal:
(A) A statement that the person under civil commitment appeals the current placement;
(B) The reason(s) the person under civil commitment believes the current placement is inappropriate; and
(C) The proposed alternate placement and the reasons the person under civil commitment is requesting the alternate placement.
(b) Appeal of a placement. When an appeal to a placement has been made, the Authority shall determine the placement for the person under civil commitment and notify the person under civil commitment of the placement decision, in writing or verbally, within five judicial days of the receipt of the written appeal. The Authority’s determination shall be final:
(A) In determining an appealed placement, the Authority:
(i) Shall review the written appeal;
(ii) Shall contact the director making the placement, and consider the director’s reason(s) for making the placement;
(iii) Shall consider the opinion of the person’s treating licensed independent practitioner (LIP);
(iv) May require the director to submit a written statement which gives the reason(s) for the placement;
(v) May consider the consultation or opinion of any person that the Authority believes has knowledge relevant to the case; and
(vi) Shall consider whether the person has been accepted at the person’s preferred placement.
(B) The Authority shall consider the following criteria in making a determination of an appealed placement:
(i) The best interests of the person under civil commitment;
(ii) The safety of the person and the community; and
(iii) The availability of the least restrictive, most integrated setting depending on available resources.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 426.060
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.005 - 426.395
- BHS 7-2024, amend filed 04/30/2024, effective 05/28/2024
- BHS 9-2023, amend filed 04/04/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- BHS 17-2022, temporary amend filed 10/14/2022, effective 10/14/2022 through 04/11/2023
- MHD 6-1998, f. 6-26-98, cert. ef. 7-1-98, Renumbered from 309-200-0100
Or. Admin. R. 309-033-0300 Transfers Between Classes of Facilities
(1) Transfers between classes of facilities. The director may transfer a person under civil commitment from one class of facility to another in the same class or in a less restrictive class as provided by ORS 426.060. However, the director shall transfer a person under civil commitment who has voluntarily agreed to placement at the facility only with the written consent of the person. The director shall transfer persons under civil commitment as provided by OAR 309-033-0400 through 309-033-0440 and OAR 309-033-0290. The director shall modify the conditions of trial visit to reflect the change of placement and shall notify the following persons of the transfer:
(a) The person under civil commitment;
(b) The court in the county where the person was civilly committed;
(c) The court in the county where the person is to be placed;
(d) The director in the county where the person is to reside;
(e) The administrator of the facility designated to provide care or treatment; and
(f) Any other provider designated to provide care or treatment.
(2) Transfers restricted by rule. The director may transfer a person under civil commitment from a facility of one class to another facility of a same class or lower class by:
(a) Placing the person under civil commitment at the new facility; and
(b) Modifying the person’s civil commitment status as follows:
(A) Persons transferred to a Class 2 or Class 3 facility. When the director transfers a person under civil commitment to a Class 2 or Class 3 facility, the director shall place the person on trial visit (see OAR 309-033-0290);
(B) Transfers between Class 1 hospitals or facilities. The director shall transfer a person between Class 1 hospitals or facilities without placing the person on trial visit; or
(C) Transfer to any facility and discharged from civil commitment. When the director determines a person under civil commitment is no longer a person with mental illness as defined by ORS 426.005, or the person agrees to voluntary treatment and does so in good faith, the director of the county of placement shall discharge the person from civil commitment pursuant to OAR 309-033-0330 and enroll the person in services voluntarily at the receiving facility.
(3) Transfers from a facility of one class to a facility of a more restrictive class:
(a) Involuntary transfers of persons under civil commitment. The director shall transfer a person who is on trial visit to a facility of a more restrictive class only:
(A) By revocation as ordered by the court after a hearing, pursuant to ORS 426.275; or
(B) Initiate involuntary procedures as provided in OAR 309-033-0300(3)(c) and as provided by ORS 426.233.
(b) Voluntary transfers of persons on trial visit. The director may transfer a person who is on trial visit to a facility of a more restrictive class with the person’s consent. However, if the person revokes his/her consent to the current more restrictive placement and requests to be placed at another facility of a less restrictive class, as soon as reasonably possible the director shall:
(A) Transfer the person to a facility where the person consents to receive services; or
(B) Initiate involuntary procedures as provided in this paragraph and by ORS 426.233.
(c) Emergency transfers of persons on trial visit and outpatient commitment. As provided by ORS 426.233, the director may transfer a person who is on a community-based civil commitment to a hospital or nonhospital facility approved by the Division when the director has probable cause to believe the person is dangerous to self or others, or is unable to provide for basic personal needs that are necessary for health and safety and is in need of immediate care, custody, and treatment. Should the director or designee recommend revocation, the director or designee shall proceed as described in OAR 309-033-0320(3).
(4) Authority to retake persons. A Class 1 or Class 2 facility shall immediately notify a peace officer and the Division of any person who has left the facility without lawful authority and shall immediately request the assistance of a peace officer(s) in retaking and returning the person to a Division-approved hospital or facility. The director shall show the peace officer a copy of the order of civil commitment.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 426.060, 426.223, 426.233, 426.273, 426.275 & 426.278
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.005 - 426.395
- BHS 7-2024, amend filed 04/30/2024, effective 05/28/2024
- BHS 9-2023, amend filed 04/04/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- MHD 6-1998, f. 6-26-98, cert. ef. 7-1-98, Renumbered from 309-200-0110
Or. Admin. R. 309-033-0310 Recertification for Continued Civil Commitment.
(1) Recertification for continued civil commitment of persons placed in a state hospital:
(a) After consulting with the director of the person’s county of residence, the superintendent shall issue a recertification to:
(A) The person whose 180-day period of civil commitment is due to expire, if the person is still a person with mental illness as defined by ORS 426.005 and is in need of further treatment; and
(B) The director.
(C) The recertification shall inform the person of their right to an attorney and that the state will provide one if indicated, that a request for additional time under civil commitment will be given to the court, that the person may contest the recertification within 14 days of receiving the recertification otherwise, if not contested, the person may be recommitted for an additional period of up to 180 days.
(b) The superintendent shall notify the court concerning:
(A) The date the recertification was issued to the person; and
(B) Whether the person, within 14 days of the issuance of the recertification, protests to continued civil commitment.
(2) Recertification for continued civil commitment of persons placed in a community hospital or nonhospital facility:
(a) After consulting with the director of the person’s county of residence, the director shall issue a recertification to:
(A) The person whose 180-day period of civil commitment is due to expire, if the person is still a person with mental illness and in need of further treatment; and
(B) The director of the person’s county of residence.
(C) The recertification shall inform the person of their right to an attorney and that the state will provide one if indicated, that a request for additional time under civil commitment will be given to the court, that the person may contest the recertification within 14 days of receiving the recertification otherwise, if not contested, the person may be recommitted for an additional period of up to 180 days.
(b) The director shall notify the court concerning:
(A) The date recertification was issued to the person; and
(B) Whether the person, within 14 days of the issuance of the recertification, protests continued civil commitment.
(3) Documentation of recertification for continued civil commitment in the clinical record. The director or the superintendent making the recertification shall include in the clinical record:
(a) The date and time the director’s approval of continued civil commitment was obtained prior to the recertification being issued to the person;
(b) The date and time the recertification was issued to the person;
(c) A copy of the recertification issued to the person;
(d) Concerning the notification to the court of the date the recertification was issued to the person:
(A) The date and time that the court was notified of the issuance of the recertification to the person; and
(B) A copy of the notification.
(e) Concerning the notification to the court of whether the person, within 14 days of the issuance of the recertification, protests continued civil commitment:
(A) The date and time that the court was notified of whether the person protests; and
(B) A copy of the notification to the court whether the person protests.
(f) If an examination is requested by the person:
(A) The name of the psychiatrist or the certified mental health examiner ordered by the court to conduct the examination;
(B) The date that the examination was conducted; and
(C) A copy of the examination report sent to the court.
(g) If the court orders continued civil commitment, a copy of the order continuing the civil commitment; and
(h) If the court orders the release of the person:
(A) A copy of the order requiring release;
(B) If the person consents to services upon discharge, a copy of an aftercare plan signed by the person and the name of the case manager responsible for arranging outpatient services; or
(C) If the person refuses services upon discharge, a statement signed by the person indicating the person’s refusal of outpatient services; and
(D) The date and time the person was released from the facility.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 426.301 & 426.307
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.005 - 426.395
- BHS 7-2024, amend filed 04/30/2024, effective 05/28/2024
- BHS 9-2023, amend filed 04/04/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- MHD 6-1998, f. 6-26-98, cert. ef. 7-1-98, Renumbered from 309-200-0120
Or. Admin. R. 309-033-0320 Revocation of Conditional Release, Outpatient Commitment or Trial Visit
(1) Conditional release. A caregiver appointed by the court to care for a person under civil commitment while on conditional release is responsible for reporting to the court any violation of the conditions of placement. If a person on conditional release, whose conditions of placement include any service agreed to be provided by a Community Mental Health Program (CMHP), violates the conditions of conditional release, the director shall include in the clinical record a revocation report which documents the following:
(a) The person’s nonadherence to those conditions of placement that include services provided by the CMHP;
(b) Efforts by the CMHP to inform the caregiver of the nonadherence and the caregiver’s response to these efforts;
(c) Requests by the caregiver for the CMHP to assist in obtaining compliance from the person on conditional release, or in notifying the court of the person’s nonadherence to the conditions of placement, and the CMHP response to the requests for assistance;
(d) Documentation of the disposition made by the court, if the caregiver submits notification to the court; and
(e) The date the person was transported to a more restrictive facility, and the name of the facility, if appropriate.
(2) Outpatient commitment and trial visit. A monitor may request that a person’s community-based civil commitment be revoked due to nonadherence to the conditions of placement. Nonadherence occurs when a person:
(a) does not complete any one or more condition as agreed upon at the onset of the community-based placement; and/or
(b) is not receptive to one or more attempts at improvement plans to remedy conditions not met; and/or
(c) manifests a decompensated mental status and the monitor has good cause to believe the person will quickly become a danger to self or others or be unable to provide for basic needs without more intensive clinical intervention; and/or
(d) is, in good faith, determined to be better served by a placement that is in a more restrictive setting.
(3) Intent to revoke due to nonadherence. For persons on outpatient commitment or trial visit, the director or designee is responsible for reporting to the court any nonadherence to the conditions of placement. For persons on outpatient commitment or trial visit and for whom revocation will be requested, the director or designee shall:
(a) Provide notice to the court in the county with jurisdiction of intent to revoke by submitting a request for revocation hearing. Upon receipt of the request, the judge may issue a warrant of detention for the person under civil commitment to remain at a designated facility following the LIP evaluation; and
(b) Provide the person with written and verbal notice of intent to revoke in accordance with OAR 309-033-0300. The notice shall include:
(i) A statement of the person’s right to legal representation for the revocation hearing;
(ii) The name and email address of the director or designee who determined it was in the person’s best interest to seek revocation;
(iii) The individual condition(s) of placement to which the person is alleged to have been nonadherent and is serving as grounds to seek revocation; and
(iv) A summary of any effort(s) to resolve the concern in the community and the person’s response(s) to the intervention(s).
(c) Submit to the court:
(A) A request for revocation hearing; and
(B) A copy of the conditions of placement.
(d) Include in the clinical record a revocation report which includes the following:
(A) Documentation of the person’s nonadherence with the conditions of placement;
(B) Documentation of efforts from all parties attempting to obtain adherence from the person under civil commitment and the response of the person to these efforts;
(C) A copy of the request for revocation hearing as submitted to the court as notification of the person’s nonadherence to the conditions of placement;
(D) Documentation of the disposition made by the court;
(E) Documentation of the distribution of any modified conditions of placement or disposition placing the person in a higher level of care to all parties originally receiving copies of the conditions of placement; and
(F) Date the person was transported to a higher level of care, and the name of the facility, if appropriate.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 426.275
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.005 - 426.395
- BHS 7-2024, amend filed 04/30/2024, effective 05/28/2024
- BHS 9-2023, amend filed 04/04/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- MHD 6-1998, f. 6-26-98, cert. ef. 7-1-98, Renumbered from 309-200-0130
Or. Admin. R. 309-033-0330 Discharge of Civil Commitment for Persons under Civil Commitment and Placed in the Community
(1) Only the director of county of placement may discharge. Only the director of the county of placement may change the civil commitment status of a person under civil commitment who is placed in a community hospital or other community facility:
(a) The director shall discharge a person from civil commitment when:
(A) Release from treating facility. The director believes the person under civil commitment is no longer a person with mental illness as defined in ORS 426.005, and the person is to be released from the treating facility.
(B) Transfer to voluntary status. The director believes it is in the best interest of the person to transfer to voluntary status, but the person is to remain at the treating facility.
(b) The director shall discharge a person from civil commitment by notifying the last committing court and the court of residence, pursuant to the provisions of ORS 426.300.
(2) Persons required to notify director prior to discharge. The following persons shall notify the director of the county of commitment 48 hours before discharging a person from a hospital, nonhospital or residential facility, or outpatient treatment:
(a) If the person under civil commitment is in a state hospital, the superintendent or designee shall notify the director;
(b) If the person under civil commitment is in a hospital serving as a regional acute care hospital or a private hospital, the treating Licensed Independent Practitioner shall notify the director;
(c) If the person under civil commitment is placed in a nonhospital or residential facility, the administrator of the facility shall notify the director;
(d) If the person is placed with an outpatient treatment provider or program, the administrator of the program where the person is receiving outpatient treatment shall notify the director.
(3) Procedures for discharge. The director shall give written notice to the person under civil commitment within thirty days after the civil commitment was discharged. The notice shall state the date the civil commitment expired or was discharged. A copy of the notice shall be kept in the person’s clinical record.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 426.300
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.005 - 426.395
- BHS 9-2023, amend filed 04/04/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- BHS 17-2022, temporary amend filed 10/14/2022, effective 10/14/2022 through 04/11/2023
- MHD 6-1998, f. 6-26-98, cert. ef. 7-1-98, Renumbered from 309-200-0140
Or. Admin. R. 309-033-0400 Statement of Purpose and Statutory Authority
(1) Purpose. These rules prescribe standards and procedures relating to the care, custody, and treatment of persons under civil commitment and persons alleged to have a mental illness.
(2) Statutory authority. These rules are authorized by ORS 426.005 through 426.395 and carry out the provisions of ORS 426.005 through 426.395.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.005 - 426.395
- BHS 9-2023, amend filed 04/04/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- MHD 7-1998, f. 6-26-98, cert. ef. 7-1-98, Renumbered from 309-205-0000
Or. Admin. R. 309-033-0420 Transportation and Transfer of Persons in Custody or On Diversion
(1) Notification of court. The director shall immediately inform the court of a transfer and the location of the person and of the time the person is admitted to a new hospital or nonhospital facility.
(2) Transfer of persons in custody or on diversion. The director may transfer a person who is in custody or on diversion only when:
(a) The director believes there is a facility approved in accordance with OAR 309-033-0530available that can provide necessary care or treatment which is sufficient to meet the emergency psychiatric needs of the person;
(b) The director has obtained the consent required by OAR 309-033-0420(3) and 309-033-0420(4).
(3) Consent by treating Licensed Independent Practitioner (LIP) and receiving LIP or director for transfer between hospitals. If the transfer is from a hospital to another hospital or to a nonhospital facility, the director shall obtain the consent of the treating LIP and of the receiving LIP or the director of the nonhospital facility prior to transferring the person:
(a) The treating LIP shall give consent by documenting in the person’s clinical record an order over the LIP’s signature within 24 hours of giving verbal or written consent;
(b) The receiving LIP at a hospital or the administrator of a nonhospital facility shall accept the transfer verbally and shall document the acceptance in the clinical record of the person.
(4) Consent by treating LIP for transfer from nonhospital facility to hospital. If the transfer is from a nonhospital facility to a hospital, the director shall obtain the consent of the receiving LIP prior to transferring the person:
(a) The receiving LIP shall give consent by documenting in the person’s clinical record an order over the LIP’s signature within 24 hours of giving consent to the director to admit the person to the hospital;
(b) The director shall provide the nonhospital facility written approval of the transfer within 24 hours of giving verbal or written approval of the transfer;
(c) The administrator of the nonhospital facility shall document the director’s verbal approval and retain written approval of the transfer in the person’s clinical record.
(5) Consent by administrator for transfer between nonhospital facilities. If the transfer is from one nonhospital facility to another nonhospital facility, the director shall obtain the verbal or written consent of the administrator of the receiving nonhospital facility prior to transferring the person:
(a) The administrator of the receiving nonhospital facility shall consent to the transfer by documenting in the person’s clinical record the consent within 24 hours of giving verbal or written consent;
(b) The director shall provide the sending nonhospital facility written approval of the transfer within 24 hours of giving verbal or written approval of the transfer;
(c) The administrator of the sending nonhospital facility shall document the director’s verbal or written approval and retain written approval of the transfer in the person’s clinical record.
(6) Notice to person to be transferred. Except in cases of emergency, 24 hours before the transfer is to take place, the director shall provide a notice to the person to be transferred which includes:
(a) Transfer date and time;
(b) A statement that the person may use the grievance procedure and a brief description of how to initiate a grievance; and
(c) Justification for the transfer.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 426.060 & 426.235
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.005 - 426.395
- BHS 9-2023, amend filed 04/04/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- MHD 7-1998, f. 6-26-98, cert. ef. 7-1-98, Renumbered from 309-205-0030
Or. Admin. R. 309-033-0425 Provider Requirements for the Transportation and Transfer of Minors in Custody or by Consent of Legal Guardian
(1) Providers must be contracted to provide secure non-emergent medical transport (NEMT) services.
(2) Transportation of minor individuals (under the age 18) must be consistent with the requirement of 419-480-0010 through 419-480-0120 and must include disclosure in a noticeable location in any advertisements or promotional materials for its secure transportation services that the provider is authorized by the Oregon Health Authority to provide secure transportation services;
(a) The disclosure must also indicate that the secure transportation services provider is not licensed by the Department under ORS 418.215 or 418.240 to provide secure transportation services and, if applicable, the reason for the provider’s licensing exemption under 419-480-0020(2);
(b) Secure NEMT service providers can obtain an exemption from Oregon Department of Human Services (ODHS) to conduct secure transports within the parameters set forth in the legislation such as secure transport to/from Oregon when it originates or ends at a Child Care Agency (CCA), Oregon Developmental Disabilities Services (ODDS) residential facility or a Child Welfare certified foster home.
(3) When transporting minors, the provider must have a documented service agreement that describes:
(a) The services to be provided;
(b) The fee for the services;
(c) Any physical limitations, allergies, medications (prescribed or over the counter that are to be administered during transport);
(d) Any special needs of the child, any instructions from the child, parent or guardian, including but not limited to guidance on what would help the child feel comfortable, safe and secure while being transported;
(e) The route to be taken when requested;
(f) An inventory of personal belongings transported with the child; and
(g) A plan for how the provider will meet the child’s needs during transport.
(4) The provider must have clear policies and procedures addressing the following:
(a) Employee conduct;
(b) How protected health information will be kept secure and confidential;
(c) How medication, lodging, food, bathroom and personal needs will be met during transport;
(d) How the provider will coordinate with the parents/guardian if emergency conditions require any deviations from the planned itinerary; and
(e) Accessing roadside assistance 24/7 for emergency support or roadside assistance.
(5) The provider must have a policy describing the process by which referrals for the secure transport of children are received, reviewed, and approved. The policy must include:
(a) Information that is required to be submitted to ensure the safety of the child while being transported; and
(b) The identification of the individual responsible to take custody of the child after transport.
(6) The provider must maintain a record of each secure transport service provided to include the name and date of birth for the child being transported. The date(s) of transportation, the name, address and contact information for the parents/guardian, a copy of authorization (consent) to transport the child and a copy of the release of information (ROI) signed by the parent/guardian for health care information relating to the transport needs of the child.
(7) Incident Reporting. A written description of any injury involving a child in care must be placed in the individual child in care's record and a copy provided to the parent/legal guardian or identified caregiver responsible for the child’s care. Any critical incident, elopement or possible abuse must also be reported to the appropriate protective services agency, the Health Systems Division, the receiving agency, the parent/legal guardian and other partnering agencies as appropriate based on the reported information.
(8) The secure transportation services provider must ensure a child in care is properly secured in an age-appropriate safety seat when transported in a motorized vehicle and that all seatbelts in use not requiring an age-appropriate safety seat are designed to be operated by the passenger without the assistance of a third party. The provider will encourage the continued use of all seatbelts and safety seat mechanisms while in transport and will provide any assistance to properly adjust or release seatbelts or safety seat mechanisms when needed.
(9) The provider must prohibit any smoking, aerosolizing, or vaporizing of an inhalant in the presence of a child in care.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 426.005, 426.060, 426.110(2), 426.232, 426.236, 409.050, 418.005, 418.240 & 418.255
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.005-426.395 & 418.205-418.327
- BHS 28-2022, minor correction filed 12/21/2022, effective 12/21/2022
- BHS 24-2022, adopt filed 12/20/2022, effective 12/20/2022
Or. Admin. R. 309-033-0430 Transportation of a Person under Civil Commitment to a State Hospital, Community Hospital or Nonhospital Facility
(1) Transportation of a person under civil commitment to a state hospital, community hospital or nonhospital facility. The director of the county of commitment shall arrange for the transportation of persons under civil commitment to the hospital or nonhospital facility:
(a) Only persons under civil commitment who have received prior approval for admission by the superintendent may be transported to a state hospital;
(b) A guardian, friend or relative may transport the person under civil commitment to the designated facility if all of the following are met:
(A) The guardian, friend, or relative requests to transport the person to the designated facility prior to or at the time of the civil commitment hearing;
(B) The committing judge at the civil commitment hearing determines that the means of transportation would not be detrimental to the welfare of the person with mental illness or to the public.
(2) Medically unstable persons under civil commitment. The costs of providing care, custody, and treatment for a person under civil commitment who is unable to be transported or cannot be admitted to a state hospital because of medical necessity shall be paid by the county of residence from funds provided to it by the Division for the provision of mental health services. The hospital or other facility shall charge to and collect from the county of residence only after the hospital or other facility has charged to and collected from the person, third party payers or agencies otherwise legally responsible for the costs of emergency care, custody, and treatment, as it would for any other patient.
(3) Transfer of a person under civil commitment to another hospital. The administrator of a facility providing care, custody, and treatment to a person under civil commitment may transfer the person only with the recommendation of the director of the county of residence and the approval of the administrator of the receiving facility.
(4) Transfer of a person under civil commitment to voluntary status or discharge for civil commitment. The superintendent of a state hospital, on his/her own initiative or on the request of the person under civil commitment, shall transfer the person to voluntary status if the superintendent believes with reasonable medical certainty that the person will pursue voluntary treatment. The superintendent of a state hospital may discharge the person from civil commitment when the person is no longer a person with mental illness as defined in ORS 426.005.
(a) The administrator of a community hospital or nonhospital facility, other than a state hospital, providing care, custody, and treatment for the person under civil commitment, in consultation with the director, may transfer the person to voluntary status or discharge the person from civil commitment;
(b) When a person is transferred to voluntary status, the superintendent or administrator shall notify the director and the court of the county of current commitment of such action within 72 hours;
(c) Any person under civil commitment transferred to voluntary status shall be discharged from the treating facility, at the request of the person or the person’s legal guardian, within 72 hours of the request unless the person meets the criteria for prehearing custody and is placed in custody, thus initiating the civil commitment process.
(5) Grievance of transfer. The director and the superintendent shall have written procedures for resolving grievances about the transfer of persons under civil commitment from one facility to another. The director or the superintendent shall suspend the transfer of the person until the grievance procedure is completed, unless immediate transfer is necessary for health or safety, upon the written or verbal protest of one of the following persons:
(a) The person being transferred;
(b) The legal guardian of the person being transferred.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 426.150
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.005 - 426.395
- BHS 9-2023, amend filed 04/04/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- MHD 7-1998, f. 6-26-98, cert. ef. 7-1-98, Renumbered from 309-205-0040
Or. Admin. R. 309-033-0432 Standards for the Approval of a Secure Transport Provider to Transport a Person in Custody or On Diversion to an Approved Holding Hospital or Nonhospital Facility
(1) A secure transport provider must be approved by the Division under this rule in order to transport a person pursuant to the provisions of ORS 426.228, 426.231, and 426.233. A Secure transport provider approved under this rule may transport the person only to a hospital or nonhospital facility approved under OAR 309-033-0530 (Approval of Hospitals and Nonhospital Facilities to Provide Services to Committed Persons and to Persons in Custody and on Diversion).
(2) A secure transport provider shall submit a letter of application to the Division. If approved, the Division shall issue a certificate of approval to provide transportation services. This approval shall be renewed every two years subject to the application of the secure transport provider and review by the Division.
(3) Requirements for approval include all of the following:
(a) Secure transport providers must comply with the requirements in OAR 309-033-0435 (Client Rights with Regards to a Secure Transport Provider) and OAR 309-033-0437 (Mechanical Restraint by a Secure Transport Provider);
(b) The director of the county in which the secure transport provider is located will submit to the governing body of the county a letter formally identifying the secure transport provider as authorized to provide secure transport services for the county throughout the state as needed to transport persons in custody or on diversion;
(c) The director in the county in which the secure transport is to be used shall submit a letter of recommendation for approval to the Division on behalf of the secure transport provider with a copy of the letter submitted to the governing body identifying that the secure transport provider is authorized to provide secure transportation services for persons in custody or on diversion; and
(d) The secure transport provider’s vehicles must:
(A) Have a secured rear seat in an area separated from the driver;
(B) Have a safety shield that prohibits physical contact with the driver;
(C) Have plexiglass or secured window guards covering any windows in the secured area;
(D) Be washable and non-breakable in the secured area;
(E) Be absent of inside locks or door handles in the secured area;
(F) Have wrist and ankle restraints (preferably soft non-metal) for use when necessary to control violent or overt behavior;
(G) Be absent of any foreign items or instruments in the secured area that may be used by the client to inflict harm to self, attendant or person accompanying the client;
(H) Have an operating cellular phone or other communication device for use in transit;
(I) Have an operable flashlight;
(J) Have a First Aid kit with disposable gloves (universal precautions);
(K) Have tire traction devices when appropriate;
(L) Have an operable horn, windshield wipers, working turn signals, back-up lights, break lights, headlights, taillights, and safety mirrors;
(M) Have adequate ventilation and heating appropriate to the secured seating;
(N) Be licensed as an ambulance service in accordance with OAR 333-250-0040, if providing transportation to a Psychiatric Emergency Services (PES) facility.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.005 - 426.395
- BHS 24-2022, amend filed 12/20/2022, effective 12/20/2022
- MHS 28-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-29-16
- MHD 10-2000, f. & cert. ef. 7-21-00
- MHD 3-2000(Temp), f. 1-25-00, cert. ef. 1-25-00 thru 7-22-00
Or. Admin. R. 309-033-0435 Client Rights with Regards to a Secure Transport Provider
(1) A secure transport provider shall maintain written policies and procedures with regard to client rights. The policies and procedures must assure that a client has the right to be treated with consideration, respect, and full recognition of human dignity and individuality. These rights are in addition to any other rights provided for in law.
(2) The client care policies and procedures must include but are not limited to:
(a) Considerate and respectful care;
(b) Reasonable privacy concerning a client's transportation and care;
(c) Confidentiality of all communications and records relating to client transportation and care except to the extent otherwise required by law;
(d) An environment in the secure transport that is free from recognized hazards.
(3) A secure transport provider shall keep a record of any formal complaint or report of misconduct made against an employee. The record must contain a copy of the complaint or report or a detailed written summary of the allegation. A provider shall investigate the accuracy of the complaint, report, or allegation and shall include a summary of the investigation and resulting action taken, if any, in the record. These records must be included in the driver's file with a copy provided to the Division.
(4) A secure transport provider shall report any client abuse in accordance with:
(a) ORS 419B.005 to 419B.050 for child abuse;
(b) ORS 435.735 to 430.765 for abuse of an adult with mental illness or developmental disabilities; and
(c) ORS 124.050 to 124.095 for elderly or persons with disabilities.
(5) When alleged abuse or death of an individual has occurred, and a law enforcement agency, the Authority, the Department of Human Services or their designee in community mental health or developmental disabilities programs has determined to initiate an investigation, the secure transport provider may not conduct an internal investigation without prior authorization from the Division. For the purposes of this section, an "internal investigation" is defined as:
(a) Conducting interviews of the alleged victim, witness, accused person, or any other person who may have knowledge of the facts of the abuse allegation or related circumstances;
(b) Reviewing evidence relevant to the abuse allegation, other than the initial report; or
(c) Any other actions beyond the initial actions of determining:
(A) If there is reasonable cause to believe that abuse has occurred;
(B) If the alleged victim is in danger or in need of immediate protective services;
(C) If there is reason to believe that a crime has been committed; or
(D) What, if any, immediate personnel actions must be taken to assure individual safety.
(6) Upon completion of the abuse investigation, the secure transport provider may conduct an investigation without further Division approval to determine if any personnel actions are necessary.
(7) A secure transport provider shall obtain criminal offender information on all employees who are Transporting a Person in Custody or on Diversion in accordance with OAR chapter 407, division 007.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.005 - 426.395, 430.205 & 430.210
- BHS 24-2022, amend filed 12/20/2022, effective 12/20/2022
- MHS 5-2007, f. & cert. ef. 5-25-07
- MHD 10-2000, f. & cert. ef. 7-21-00
- MHD 3-2000(Temp), f. 1-25-00, cert. ef. 1-25-00 thru 7-22-00
Or. Admin. R. 309-033-0437 Mechanical Restraint by a Secure Transport Provider
(1) A mechanical restraint may be used by secure transport providers in emergency situations to prevent a person from inflicting immediate and serious harm to self or others, or property. A mechanical restraint shall only be used for health and safety reasons. Mechanical restraint that results in injury to the person requires immediate written notification to the Division.
(2) Checking a person in a mechanical restraint:
(a) The provider shall monitor the client’s need for adequate circulation;
(b) Staff shall document that the client was checked and appropriate attention paid to the person’s needs.
(3) A Secure transport provider shall have adequately trained employees who are transporting a person in custody or on diversion;
(a) The employee shall participate in four hours of training annually, in supportive interaction, redirection, de-escalation and the management of aggressive behavior, and the proper application of mechanical restraint and standards for the proper use of mechanical restraint;
(b) The employee shall not use threats, intimidation, coercion, or the display of defensive tools such as batons, mace, or weapons as behavioral interventions or to compel compliance;
(c) Annual training curriculum shall include: Job duties and responsibilities, a review of provider’s policies and procedures, universal precautions and infection control guidelines, and mandatory abuse reporting for children and adults;
(d) The employee shall maintain current certification in first aid and cardiopulmonary resuscitation;
(e) Within 90 days of the date of hire, the employee shall complete certification in a nationally recognized safe driving course and complete all activities required to maintain certification.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.005 - 426.395
- BHS 24-2022, amend filed 12/20/2022, effective 12/20/2022
- MHD 10-2000, f. & cert. ef. 7-21-00
- MHD 3-2000(Temp), f. 1-25-00, cert. ef. 1-25-00 thru 7-22-00
Or. Admin. R. 309-033-0500 Statement of Purpose and Statutory Authority
(1) Purpose. These rules prescribe standards for the approval of facilities that provide involuntary care, custody and treatment to persons in protective custody, in custody and on diversion.
(2) Statutory authority. These rules are authorized by ORS 426.395, and 426.005 through 426.395 and carry out the provisions of ORS 426.005 through 426.395.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 426.060 - 426.500
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.005 - 426.395
- MHD 8-1998, f. 6-26-98, cert. ef. 7-1-98, Renumbered from 309-210-0000
Or. Admin. R. 309-033-0520 Classes of Facility that Provide Care, Custody or Treatment to Persons under Civil Commitment or to Persons in Custody or on Diversion.
(1) Division to assign classification. The Division shall assign a classification to a facility approved to serve a person under civil commitment pursuant to ORS 426.130, or a person in custody pursuant to ORS 426.232, 426.233, or on diversion pursuant to 426.237.
(2) Class 1. A Class 1 facility is:
(a) A facility that is approved under applicable administrative rules to be locked to prevent a person from leaving the facility, to use seclusion and restraint, and to involuntarily administer psychiatric medication, including a hospital, regional acute psychiatric care facility or other nonhospital facility approved under OAR 309-033-0530;
(b) A state hospital or a residential facility operated by a state hospital on a state hospital campus; or
(c) A facility which, in the opinion of the Division, restricts the liberty of a person to substantially the same degree as other facilities in this class.
(3) Class 2. A Class 2 facility is a facility that is approved under applicable administrative rules to be locked to prevent a person from leaving the facility. This class of facility includes:
(a) A secure residential facility that is approved under OAR 309-035-0100 through 309-035-0190 and that is approved by the Division to be locked to prevent a person from leaving the facility;
(b) A facility which, in the opinion of the Division, restricts the liberty of a person to substantially the same degree as other facilities in this class.
(4) Class 3. A Class 3 facility is a residential facility that is approved under OAR 309-035-0100 through 0309-035-0190 that is not otherwise included in another class of facility. A Class 3 facility shall not lock its doors to prevent a person from leaving the facility.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 426.238
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.005 - 426.395
- BHS 9-2023, amend filed 04/04/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- BHS 12-2021, amend filed 06/16/2021, effective 06/16/2021
- BHS 13-2020, temporary amend filed 10/21/2020, effective 10/21/2020 through 04/18/2021
- MHD 8-1998, f. 6-26-98, cert. ef. 7-1-98, Renumbered from 309-210-0030
Or. Admin. R. 309-033-0530 Approval of Hospitals and Nonhospital Facilities to Provide Services to Persons under Civil Commitment and to Person in Custody and on Diversion
This section establishes rules for approval of hospital and nonhospital facilities which provide service to a person under civil commitment or to a person in custody or on diversion.
(1) Approved hospitals and other facilities. Only hospitals and nonhospital facilities, approved by the Division under this rule, shall provide care and treatment services for persons under civil commitment or for persons in custody or on diversion.
(2) Application for approval. Approval of hospitals or nonhospital facilities shall be accomplished by submission of a letter of application pursuant to OAR 309-008-0400. If approved, a certificate pursuant to OAR 309-008-0500 will be issued to the hospital or nonhospital facility to provide such services. This approval shall be reviewed on a biennial basis subject to application of the hospital or other facility and/or review by the Division.
(3) Requirements for approval. In undertaking review of the hospital or nonhospital facility for approval, the Division shall be satisfied that the hospital or nonhospital facility meets one of the following requirements:
(a) Approval to provide seclusion and restraint to persons under civil commitment and to persons in custody and on diversion. The Division shall approve, without further requirement, hospitals and nonhospital facilities currently approved under OAR 309-033-0700 through 309-033-0740;
(b) Requirements for facilities not approved to provide seclusion and restraint. The Division shall approve a nonhospital facility to serve persons under civil commitment and persons in custody and on diversion if the nonhospital facility is certified as a secure residential facility under Division rules and the nonhospital facility has the following:
(A) Written policies and procedures in place which assure that:
(i) The facility shall not admit a person who may require seclusion or physical restraint.
(ii) A person who develops the need for seclusion and restraint is immediately removed to a hospital or nonhospital facility approved under OAR 309-033-0700 through 309-033-0740.
(iii) Each person admitted to the facility has a Licensed Independent Practitioner (LIP) who is responsible for treating the person during the person’s stay at the facility and who examines the person within 24 hours of the person’s admission to the facility.
(iv) A staff person shall provide direct care for consumers only when that staff person is trained in the curriculum approved by the LIP. The staff shall receive the training within the last six months prior to providing direct consumer care.
(v) A staff person shall participate in the training approved by the LIP quarterly.
(B) A LIP, who is employed by the facility or has a contract with the facility, to provide medical oversight of admission policies and procedures, and staff training;
(C) A staff training curriculum which is approved by the LIP and includes:
(i) Criteria for the admission of a person who can safely be served by the nonhospital facility;
(ii) Recognition of indicators of violence or assault and criteria for the transfer of person to a more secure facility;
(iii) Indicators of medical problems, identification of medication side effects, and indicators of medical problems and medical crisis; and
(iv) Management of aggressive behavior and de-escalation techniques.
(D) At least two qualified mental health associates who are available on-site 24 hours-a-day, seven days-a-week;
(E) Alarmed doors and windows which have been approved by the Division;
(F) A written agreement with a law enforcement agency to respond to emergencies that provides:
(i) Emergency response time within 15 minutes of the nonhospital facility’s request;
(ii) Agreement by the law enforcement agency to retake a person who elopes and to return the person to the nonhospital facility or remove the person to a hospital or nonhospital facility approved under OAR 309-033-0700 through 309-033-0740, as directed by the administrator of the nonhospital facility.
(G) Documentation of fire marshal approval to operate as a secure facility.
(3) Data reporting. Hospital and nonhospital facilities, including CMHPs and facilities operating as regional acute care psychiatric facilities, approved to provide services to individuals placed under civil commitment for care, custody, and treatment shall complete, within 24 hours of hospital admission or discharge, the appropriate reporting requirements related to the care, custody, and treatment for persons under civil commitment as indicated in:
(a) The County Financial Assistance Agreement (CFAA):
(b) OAR 309-032-0870; and
(c) Any additional contract, agreement, or licensing requirement(s) necessary to maintain in order to continue providing for the care, custody, and treatment of persons under civil commitment.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 426.228, 426.232, 426.233 & 426.236
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.005 - 426.395
- BHS 7-2024, amend filed 04/30/2024, effective 05/28/2024
- BHS 9-2023, amend filed 04/04/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- MHS 28-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-29-16
- MHD 8-1998, f. 6-26-98, cert. ef. 7-1-98, Renumbered from 309-210-0040
Or. Admin. R. 309-033-0540 Administrative Requirements for Hospitals and Nonhospital Facilities Approved to Provide Services to Persons in Custody.
(1) Written policies. Each hospital or nonhospital facility shall have written policies concerning the care, custody, and treatment of persons in custody or on diversion. These policies shall be written to provide for the comfort and safety of the person being provided care and for the safety of the facility staff providing care to that person. These policies shall detail staff responsibilities, person’s rights, and emergency procedures. All staff involved in the care of these persons shall be fully familiar with these policies and procedures. These policies shall be reviewed as part of the Division’s approval process.
(2) Warning. Each hospital or nonhospital facility shall:
(a) Have a Licensed Independent Practitioner (LIP), nurse, or a Qualified Mental Health Professional (QMHP) give the person the following warning:
“You are being held in this hospital because someone is concerned that you may hurt yourself or other people. Anything the staff of this hospital observes you do or say while you are in custody here may be used as evidence in a court of law to determine whether you should be under civil commitment as a person with mental illness. You have a right to legal counsel. If you cannot afford an attorney one will be provided for you by the court.”
(b) Have the warning given at the time of admission and at times when it is determined that the person will reasonably understand the notice, and as often as it is determined necessary to assure that the person has been given an opportunity to be aware of the notice;
(c) Have the warning given to the person in writing, as required by ORS 426.123. An attempt shall be made to have the person sign the written warning. A copy of the signed written warning shall be given to the person and the original shall be kept in the clinical record. The person’s inability to sign the written warning or refusal to sign the written warning shall be documented on the written warning below the place where the person’s signature would be normally found, clearly stating the reasons the signature was not obtained. The written warning shall include a place where the person, by making a mark, may request legal counsel.
(3) Notification of next of kin. If the person consents, a LIP or QMHP at a hospital shall make every effort to notify the person’s next of kin of the location and condition of the person as required under ORS 426.234.
(4) Notification of the court of hospital hold. The admitting LIP, if the person is at a hospital, shall immediately notify the circuit court in writing. The admitting LIP shall also immediately notify the director in the county where the hospital is located so that an investigation can be conducted.
(5) Notification of the court of nonhospital hold. The director, if the person is at a nonhospital facility, shall notify, in writing, the circuit court in the county where the person was taken into custody.
(6) Log. Each hospital or nonhospital facility shall maintain a log of persons in custody that includes: name, date of birth, date of admission, type of admission, and a notation of the use of restraints.
(7) Posted warning and rights. Each hospital or nonhospital facility shall post a copy of the person’s rights in the holding room behind protective unbreakable plastic or in another location clearly visible from the holding room which, at a minimum, states:
(a) The warning described in OAR 309-033-0540;
(b) The person’s right to be free from electro-shock therapy or unduly hazardous procedures.
(8) Clinical records. Each hospital or nonhospital facility shall maintain a clinical record which accurately documents the care, custody, and treatment of a person in custody. These records shall include:
(a) A copy of the hold form which documents the reasons for the hold, including specific behaviors which indicate the person:
(A) Is dangerous to self or another person; and
(B) Is in need of immediate care, custody or treatment for mental illness.
(b) Documentation that the warning described in OAR 309-033-0540 has been given to the person;
(c) Documentation of the potential effects and the observed effects of any medication administered which may substantially affect the person to prepare for or function effectively at the commitment hearing, signed by the treating LIP;
(d) A report of physical examination and relevant laboratory tests
(e) Daily medical progress notes;
(f) 24 hour nursing notes;
(g) Documentation, signed by the treating LIP, of each use of any mechanical restraints and the specific reasons which justify the use;
(h) Documentation of the psychiatric history which, whenever possible, shall include:
(A) History of present illness, including specific prodromal symptoms;
(B) Medical history;
(C) Family history;
(D) Past psychiatric history;
(E) Substance use and abuse history;
(F) History of legal difficulties; and
(G) Social history including current support system.
(i) A report of mental status;
(j) A diagnostic impression;
(k) A treatment plan.
(9) Access to clothing before release of persons in custody. Each hospital or nonhospital facility shall allow the person in custody to have access to his/her clothing before being released to attend the commitment hearing.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 426.123, 426.232, 426.233, 426.234 & 426.236
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.005 - 426.395
- BHS 9-2023, amend filed 04/04/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- MHD 8-1998, f. 6-26-98, cert. ef. 7-1-98, Renumbered from 309-210-0050
Or. Admin. R. 309-033-0550 Standards for the Approval of Hospitals Detaining Persons in Custody Pending Transport to an Approved Holding Hospital or Nonhospital Facility.
(1) Approved hospitals. Only hospitals approved by the Division under this rule may detain a person pending transport pursuant to the provisions of ORS 426.231. A hospital approved under this rule may transport the person only to a hospital or nonhospital facility approved under OAR 309-033-0530. Hospitals approved under OAR 309-033-0530 are also approved under this rule to detain a person pending transport and may transport a person to another hospital or nonhospital facility approved under OAR 309-033-0530.
(2) Application for approval. Approval of hospitals shall be accomplished by submission of a letter of application in accordance with administrative rules on letters of approval. If approved, a certificate of approval will be issued to the hospital to provide such services. This approval shall be renewed on a biennial basis subject to the application of the hospital or review by the Division.
(3) Requirements for approval. The director in the county in which the hospital is located shall submit a letter of recommendation for approval on behalf of the hospital. The letter of recommendation shall clearly state that the director and the hospital have a written agreement which includes the following:
(a) The procedures to be followed when a person is detained or transported to another hospital or nonhospital facility, with the parties responsible for performing the procedures clearly identified. The procedures shall state whether the hospital is required to give notice to the director prior to the release of the person;
(b) The party or parties responsible for transporting the person to another hospital or nonhospital facility and the means through which such transportation is initiated and authorized;
(c) The services to be provided by the hospital when a person is detained and transported to another hospital or nonhospital facility, and the payment the hospital is to receive for these services;
(d) The hospital shall have a room which meets OAR 309-033-0720 or shall provide an attendant to provide continuous face-to-face oversight of the person.
(4) Responsibilities of the Licensed Independent Practitioner (LIP). The LIP shall complete a face-to-face examination of the person. Once the LIP determines that the person is dangerous to self or any other person and in need of emergency care or treatment for mental illness, the LIP shall:
(a) Assure the detention of the person in safe and humane quarters for no longer than 12 hours;
(b) Assure that the person is monitored face-to-face every 15 minutes;
(c) Consult with a LIP who has admitting privileges at a receiving hospital or nonhospital facility approved by the Division to determine that the receiving LIP:
(A) Agrees that the person appears to be dangerous to self or any other person; and
(B) Consents to receive the person for further evaluation for involuntary emergency care and treatment for mental illness.
(d) If the person is to be sent to the receiving hospital or nonhospital facility, complete a written statement that states:
(A) The LIP has examined the person within the preceding 12 hours;
(B) The reasons the LIP has found the person to be dangerous to self or any other person and is in need of emergency care or treatment for mental illness; and
(C) The name of the admitting LIP at the receiving hospital or nonhospital facility who has agreed to transporting the person for further evaluation and possible admission.
(e) Retain a copy of the written statement in the person’s clinical record. The original written statement shall accompany the person to the receiving hospital and shall serve as authorization for transport.
(5) Release of detained person awaiting transport. If the LIP at the hospital where the person is detained and is awaiting transport believes the person is no longer dangerous to self or any other person, then the LIP shall release the person as soon as possible. If the LIP cannot locate a receiving hospital where a LIP agrees to receive the person for evaluation, and if the LIP no longer believes the person is dangerous to self or others, then the person shall be released within twelve hours of the time the person was originally detained.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 426.231
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.005 - 426.395
- BHS 7-2024, amend filed 04/30/2024, effective 05/28/2024
- BHS 9-2023, amend filed 04/04/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- MHD 8-1998, f. 6-26-98, cert. ef. 7-1-98, Renumbered from 309-210-0060
Or. Admin. R. 309-033-0600 Statement of Purpose and Statutory Authority
(1) Purpose. These rules prescribe standards and procedures for community hospitals, nonhospital facilities and residential facilities relating to obtaining informed consent to treatment from a person under civil commitment, and for the administration of significant procedures without obtaining the informed consent of a person under civil commitment.
(2) Statutory authority. These rules are authorized by ORS 426.385 and carry out the provisions of 426.005 through 426.395.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 426.385
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.005 - 426.395
- BHS 30-2025, temporary amend filed 12/29/2025, effective 01/01/2026 through 06/29/2026
- BHS 9-2023, amend filed 04/04/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- MHD 9-1998, f. 6-26-98, cert. ef. 7-1-98, Renumbered from 309-215-0000
Or. Admin. R. 309-033-0620 Obtaining Informed Consent to Treatment from a Person and the Administration of Significant Procedures Without the Informed Consent of a Person under Civil Commitment.
(1) Basic rule for obtaining informed consent to treatment from a person. A person or a guardian, on behalf of a legally incapacitated person, may refuse any significant procedure and may withdraw at any time consent previously given to any significant procedure.
(2) Documentation of withdrawal of consent. Any refusal or withdrawal or withholding of consent shall be documented in the person’s record.
(3) Exceptions to obtaining informed consent from a person. Personnel of a facility shall not administer a significant procedure to a person under civil commitment unless informed consent is obtained from or on behalf of the person in the manner prescribed in OAR 309-033-0620, except as described in OAR 309-033-0630 and OAR 309-033-0630.
(4) Capacity of the person under civil commitment. Unless adjudicated legally incapacitated for all purposes or for the specific purpose of making treatment decisions, a person shall be presumed competent to consent to, or refuse, withhold, or withdraw consent to significant procedures.
(a) A Licensed Independent Practitioner (LIP) shall deem a person unable to consent to or refuse, withhold, or withdraw consent to a significant procedure only if the person currently demonstrates an inability to comprehend and weigh the risks and benefits of the proposed procedure, alternative procedures, or no treatment at all or other information disclosed pursuant to OAR 309-032-0620. Such inability is to be documented in the person’s record and supported by documented statement or behavior of the person.
(b) A person under civil commitment and court ordered to the custody of the Division shall not be deemed unable to consent to or refuse, withhold, or withdraw consent to a significant procedure merely by reason of one or more of the following facts:
(A) That the person has been involuntarily placed under civil commitment to the Division;
(B) That the person has been diagnosed with a mental disorder;
(C) That the person has disagreed or now disagrees with the treating LIP’s diagnosis; and
(D) That the person has disagreed or now disagrees with the treating LIP’s recommendation regarding treatment.
(c) If a court has determined that a person under civil commitment is legally incapacitated with regard to medical treatment decisions, then consent shall be sought from the legal guardian or healthcare representative as defined by ORS 127.505.
(5) Procedures for obtaining informed consent and information to be given.
(a) The person from whom informed consent to a significant procedure is sought, as required by ORS 677.097, shall be given information regarding:
(A) The nature and seriousness of the person under civil commitment’s mental illness or condition;
(B) The purpose and method of the significant procedure, its intended outcome and the risks and benefits of the procedure and when neuroleptic medication is prescribed, that tardive dyskinesia is a risk;
(C) Any alternatives that are reasonably available and reasonably comparable in effectiveness; and
(D) Any additional information concerning the proposed significant procedure requested by the person.
(b) The LIP intending to administer a significant procedure shall document in the person’s chart that the information required in OAR 309-033-0620 was explained and that the person or guardian of a legally incapacitated person or resident explicitly consented, refused, withheld, or withdrew consent.
(6) Voluntary consent. Consent to a proposed significant procedure must be given voluntarily, free of any duress or coercion. Subject to the provisions of OAR 309-033-0640 and 309-033-0260 the decision to refuse, withhold or withdraw consent previously given shall not result in the denial of any other benefit, privilege, or service solely on the basis of refusing withholding to or withdrawing consent. A voluntary person may be discharged from the facility if offered procedures are refused.
(7) Obtaining consent with respect to legally incapacitated persons. A facility may not administer a significant procedure to a person determined legally incapacitated and who is under civil commitment without the consent of the guardian, except in the case of an emergency.
(8) Reports of progress. The person or the guardian of a person determined legally incapacitated shall, upon request, be informed of the progress of the person during administration of the significant procedure.
(9) Right to appeal. A person has the right to appeal the application of any provision of these rules as provided in the grievance policies and procedures of the facility. If the person under civil commitment is also determined to be legally incapacitated, the guardian has the right to appeal the application of any provision of these rules by using the grievance procedures.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 426.385
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.005 - 426.395
- BHS 9-2023, amend filed 04/04/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- MHD 9-1998, f. 6-26-98, cert. ef. 7-1-98, Renumbered from 309-215-0030
Or. Admin. R. 309-033-0625 Administration of Medication and Treatment without the Informed Consent of a Person in Custody
(1) Hospitals or Nonhospital Facilities Authorized. Only a Licensed Independent Practitioner (LIP) at a hospital or nonhospital facility approved under OAR 309-033-0500 through 309-033-0560 may administer medication and treatment without the informed consent of a person in custody.
(2) Grounds for the administration of medication and treatment without informed consent. As provided by ORS 426.072(2)(c), a LIP shall administer medication and treatment to a person in custody without obtaining prior informed consent, only in the following circumstances:
(a) If an emergency exists as described in OAR 309-033-0210; or
(b) If the LIP, in consultation with another LIP or qualified mental health professional, the person is unable to give informed consent as described in OAR 309-033-0620.
(3) Procedures and limitations for the administration of medication or treatment without consent. When administering medication or treatment without the informed consent of a person in custody, the LIP shall:
(a) Administer medication and treatment in accordance with medical standards in the community;
(b) Not administer electro-shock therapy or unduly hazardous treatment as set forth in ORS 426.072;
(c) Document in the person’s clinical record the specific nature of each emergency and the procedure that was used to deal with the emergency, or if the person is unable to give consent, document that fact in the person’s clinical record;
(d) If the person is a minor or has a guardian, make a reasonable effort to contact the legal guardian prior to the administration of medication or treatment, but if efforts to contact the guardian are not successful, the LIP may only administer medication or treatment in an emergency and shall notify the legal guardian as soon as possible, otherwise the LIP shall not administer medication until consent is obtained from the guardian;
(e) Review the medication and treatment with the treatment team within a reasonable period of time after the medicine or treatment is administered without consent and, if applicable, administer medication or treatment designed to correct the behavior creating the emergency;
(f) Not continue to administer medication or treatment after the emergency has subsided or the person has regained the ability to consent to treatment, without obtaining the person’s informed consent; and
(g) Immediately proceed as provided in OAR 309-033-0600 through 309-033-0650 if the person who was in custody is under civil commitment and the LIP believes the person remains unable to give consent and it is necessary to continue involuntary administration of medication or treatment; the LIP may only continue the administration of medication or treatment under the provisions of 309-033-0625 for seven days pending a decision under 309-033-0640.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 426.072, 426.231 & 426.236
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.005 – 426.395
- BHS 9-2023, amend filed 04/04/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- MHS 5-2007, f. & cert. ef. 5-25-07
Or. Admin. R. 309-033-0630 Administration of Significant Procedures in Emergencies Without the Informed Consent of a Person under Civil Commitment
(1) Hospitals or nonhospital facilities authorized. The following facilities that serve persons under civil commitment and which administer significant procedures in emergencies, without obtaining informed consent, shall be subject to the provisions of 309-033-0630:
(a) A hospital or nonhospital facility approved under OAR 309-033-0700 through 309-033-0740.
(b) A hospital or nonhospital facility approved under OAR 309-033-0530.
(c) Secure residential facilities licensed by the Division or licensed by Aging and People with Disabilities (APD).
(d) Intermediate care facilities or enhanced care facilities licensed by the APD.
(2) Administering a significant procedure. If an emergency exists, the responsible physician or nurse may administer a significant procedure to a person under civil commitment without obtaining prior informed consent in the manner otherwise required by these rules, provided:
(a) The physician or designee shall document in the person’s clinical record the specific nature of each emergency and the procedure which was used to deal with the emerge;
(b) If the person is determined to be legally incapacitated or has a court-appointed guardian the physician or designee shall make reasonable effort to contact the legal guardian prior to the administration of the significant procedure. If contact is not possible, the physician or designee shall notify the legal guardian as soon as possible;
(c) Within a reasonable period of time after an emergency procedure is administered, the treatment team shall review the treatment and, if practicable, implement treatment designed to correct the behavior creating the emergency;
(d) The responsible physician or nurse shall not administer a significant procedure after the emergency situation has subsided, without obtaining informed consent.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 426.236
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.005 - 426.395
- BHS 9-2023, amend filed 04/04/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- MHD 9-1998, f. 6-26-98, cert. ef. 7-1-98, Renumbered from 309-215-0040
Or. Admin. R. 309-033-0640 Involuntary Administration of Significant Procedures to a Person under Civil Commitment with Good Cause
(1) Hospitals or nonhospital facilities authorized. Only the following facilities that serve persons under civil commitment shall involuntarily administer significant procedures with good cause under the provisions of 309-033-0640:
(a) A hospital or nonhospital facility approved under OAR 309-033-0700 through 309-033-0740;
(b) A hospital or nonhospital facility approved under OAR 309-033-0530;
(c) Secure residential facilities licensed by the Division or licensed by Aging and People with Disabilities (APD).
(d) Intermediate care facilities or enhanced care facilities licensed by APD which have a variance from APD to provide involuntary medication.
(2) Good cause. Good cause exists to administer a significant procedure to a person under civil commitment without said person’s informed consent if, in the opinion of the treating Licensed Independent Practitioner (LIP), after consultation with the treatment team:
(a) The person is deemed unable pursuant to OAR 309-033-0620 to consent to, refuse, withhold or withdraw consent to the significant procedure;
(b) The proposed significant procedure will likely restore, or prevent deterioration of, the person’s mental or physical health, alleviate extreme suffering, or save or extend the person’s life;
(c) The proposed significant procedure is the most appropriate treatment for the person’s condition according to current clinical practice, and all other less intrusive procedures have been considered and all criteria and information set forth in OAR 309-033-0620 are considered;
(d) The treating LIP has made a conscientious effort to obtain informed consent to the significant procedure from the person under civil commitment.
(3) Independent review. Prior to granting approval for the administration of a significant procedure for good cause to a person under civil commitment, the administrator shall obtain consultation and approval from an independent examining LIP.
(a) The administrator shall maintain a list of independent examining LIPs and shall seek consultation and approval from independent examining LIPs selected on a rotating basis from the list. The independent examining LIP shall:
(A) Be a psychiatrist;
(B) Not be in a position to provide primary or on-call care or treatment to the person who is subject of the independent review;
(C) Not be an employee of the facility;
(D) Have been subjected to review by medical staff executive committee as to qualifications to make such an examination; and
(E) Have read and received training from the medical staff regarding the meaning and the application of these rules.
(b) Prior to seeking consultation and approval of an examining LIP, the administrator shall provide written notice to the person under civil commitment who is subject to the proposed significant procedure without the person’s consent.
(4) Independent LIP activities. The LIP selected to conduct the independent consultation shall:
(a) Review the person’s clinical record, including the records of efforts made to obtain the person’s informed consent;
(b) Personally examine the person;
(c) Interview the person to determine the extent of the need for the procedure and the nature of the person’s refusal, withholding, or withdrawal or inability to consent to the significant procedure;
(d) Consider additional information, if any, presented prior to or at the time of examination or interview as may be requested by the person; and
(e) Make a determination whether the factors required under these rules exist for the particular person or that one or more factors are not present. If the LIP determines that the person does not have capacity to give consent to treatment, the LIP shall review the proposed significant procedure. The LIP shall make his/her determination of capacity, approval or disapproval of the proposed significant procedure to:
(A) The administrator; and
(B) The person to whom a significant procedure is proposed to be administered, with a copy being made part of the person’s record.
(5) Administrator determination. The administrator shall approve or disapprove of the administration of the significant procedure to a person under civil commitment based on good cause, provided:
(a) The administrator shall not approve the significant procedure and it shall not be performed when the independent examining LIP found that one or more of the factors required by OAR 309-033-0640 were not present or otherwise disapproved of the procedure;
(b) Approval of the significant procedure shall terminate if there is a substantial increase in risk, as determined by a LIP, of administering the significant procedure or at any time the person regains capacity to give informed consent/refusal. Approval of the significant procedure shall terminate at the end of the person’s civil commitment but in no case longer than 180 days. Disapproval shall be only so long as no substantial change occurs in the person’s condition;
(c) Written notice of the administrator’s determination shall be provided to the person and made part of the person under civil commitment’s clinical records;
(d) A copy of the independent examining LIP’s report shall be made part of the person under civil commitment’s clinical record.
(6) Ninety-day right to review. The administrator shall adopt procedures which assure that the person under civil commitment may request independent review of the approval once every ninety days after the initial approval. Within 14 days of a verbal or written request from the person under civil commitment, the administrator shall initiate an independent review of the approval, as in OAR 309-033-0640.
(7) Transfer of approval. The administrator, or the superintendent of a State hospital, shall transfer the approval of the administration of a significant procedure when a person under civil commitment is transferred to another hospital or nonhospital facility described in OAR 309-033-0640.
(a) The administrator, or the superintendent, of the sending hospital or nonhospital facility shall transfer the approval by sending copies of all approval documents to the administrator of the receiving facility.
(b) The administrator, or the superintendent, of the receiving hospital or nonhospital facility shall assure that the treating physician at that facility reexamines the person under civil commitment and verifies that the need for the approval continues to exist as described in OAR 309-033-0620and 309-033-0640. The receiving hospital or nonhospital facility may administer the significant procedure if the need for the procedure continues in accordance with OAR 309-033-0640.
(c) In no event shall the approval of a significant procedure continue beyond 180 days from the date of the original approval without reestablishing the need for the approval by following the procedures prescribed in OAR 309-033-0640.
(8) Administrative procedures.
(a) Utilization summary. Every four months the administrator shall make a summary of the use of OAR 309-033-0630 and 309-033-0640 that includes:
(A) Each type of proposed significant procedure for which consultation with an independent examining LIP was sought;
(B) The number of times consultation was sought from a particular independent examining LIP or disposition board for each type of proposed significant procedure;
(C) The number of times each independent examining LIP approved and disapproved each type of proposed significant procedure; and
(D) The number of times the approved and disapproved each type of proposed significant procedure.
(b) Outside reviewer’s access to summaries. The administrator shall provide a copy of a utilization summary to the federally-mandated advocacy and protection agency for Oregon, which is appointed by the Governor and which currently is the Oregon Advocacy Center, and the Division. The Division may only distribute the report to any other person or organization authorized by the Division which in the opinion of the Authority:
(A) Has substantial interest in the advocacy and protection of the rights of persons with mental illness; and
(B) Whose access to the summaries will provide a substantial and material benefit to the citizens of Oregon.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 426.385
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.005 - 426.395
- BHS 9-2023, amend filed 04/04/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- MHD 9-1998, f. 6-26-98, cert. ef. 7-1-98, Renumbered from 309-215-0050
Or. Admin. R. 309-033-0700 Purpose and Scope
(1) This section establishes rules pursuant to ORS 426.072, 426.236, 426.228, 426.232, 426.233 and 426.234, 426.385 for certification of hospitals and facilities which provide care, custody, and treatment to persons under civil commitment and to persons in custody or on diversion.
(2) Seclusion or restraint may be used only for the management of violent or self-destructive behavior that jeopardizes the immediate physical safety of the patient, a staff member, or other individuals.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 426.236, 426.385 & 430.021
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.005 - 426.395
- BHS 9-2023, amend filed 04/04/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- MHS 13-2014, f. & cert. ef. 9-29-14
- MHD 10-1998, f. 6-26-98, cert. ef. 7-1-98, Renumbered from 309-220-0000
Or. Admin. R. 309-033-0720 Application, Training and Minimum Staffing Requirements
(1) Only the following facilities shall be certified pursuant to this rule and the procedures found OAR 309-008-0100 to 309-008-1600 to use seclusion or restraint:
(a) Community hospitals licensed by the Public Health Division;
(b) Regional acute care facilities for adults certified by the Division pursuant to OAR 309-032-0850 through 309-032-0890; and
(c) Nonhospital facilities certified by the Division pursuant to OAR 309-033-0500 through 309-033-0550.
(2) Applications. Certification for the use of seclusion and restraints must be accomplished by submission of an application, and by the application process described in OAR 309-008-0100 to 309-008-1600. Continued certification is subject to hospital or facility reviews at frequencies determined by the Division.
(3) Requirements for Certification. In order to be certified for the use of seclusion and restraint, the Division must be satisfied that the hospital or facility meets the following requirements:
(a) Medical staffing. An adequate number of nurses, direct care staff, Licensed Independent Practitioners (LIP) or physician assistants shall be available at the hospital or facility, to provide emergency medical services which may be required. For hospitals, a letter from the chief of the medical staff or medical director of the hospital or facility, ensuring such availability, shall constitute satisfaction of this requirement. For nonhospital facilities, a written agreement with a local hospital, to provide such medical services may fulfill this requirement. When such an agreement is not possible, a written agreement with a local physician to provide such medical services may fulfill this requirement.
(b) Direct Care Staff Training. A staff person must be trained and able to demonstrate competency in the application of restraints and implementation of seclusion during the following intervals:
(A) A new staff person must be trained within the six months prior to providing direct patient care or as part of orientation; and
(B) Subsequently on a periodic basis consistent with the hospital or facility policy.
(c) Documentation in the staff personnel records must indicate the training and demonstration of competency were successfully completed.
(d) Trainer Qualifications. Individuals providing staff training must be qualified as evidenced by education, training, and experience in techniques used to address a person’s behaviors.
(e) Training Curriculum. The training required for direct care staff must include:
(A) Standards for the proper use of seclusion and restraints as described in OAR 309-033-0730;
(B) Identification of medication side effects;
(C) Indicators of medical problems and medical crisis;
(D) Techniques to identify staff and patient behaviors, events, and environmental factors that may trigger circumstances that require the use of a restraint or seclusion;
(E) The use of non-physical intervention skills;
(F) Choosing the least restrictive intervention based on an individualized assessment of the person’s medical, or behavioral status or condition;
(G) The safe application and use of all types of restraint or seclusion used in the hospital or facility, including training in how to recognize and respond to sign of physical or psychological distress;
(H) Clinical identification of specific behavioral changes that indicate that restraint or seclusion is no longer necessary;
(I) Monitoring the physical and psychological well-being of the patient who is restrained or secluded, including but not limited to respiratory and circulatory status, skin integrity, vital signs, and any special requirements specified by the hospital or facility policies and procedures; and
(J) The use of first aid techniques and certification in the use of cardio-pulmonary resuscitation, including periodic recertification.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 426.005, 426.060, 426.110(2), 426.232 & 426.236
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.005 - 426.395
- BHS 9-2023, amend filed 04/04/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- MHS 28-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-29-16
- MHS 13-2014, f. & cert. ef. 9-29-14
- MHD 10-1998, f. 6-26-98, cert. ef. 7-1-98, Renumbered from 309-220-0030
Or. Admin. R. 309-033-0725 Medical Services
(1) A Licensed Independent Practitioner (LIP) must be available 24 hours per day, seven days per week to provide medical supervision of the services provided.
(a) In accordance with state law, those LIPs authorized to order seclusion or restraint pursuant to the facility policy must at minimum have a working knowledge of the hospital policy regarding the use of seclusion and restraint;
(b) A LIP must examine a person admitted to the facility within 24 hours of the person’s admission.
(2) At least one registered nurse must be on duty at all times.
(3) The facility must maintain a personnel file for each patient care staff which includes a written job description; the minimum level of education or training required for the position; copies of applicable licenses, certifications, or degrees granted; annual performance appraisals; a biennial, individualized staff development plan signed by the staff; documentation of CPR training; documentation of annual training and certification in managing aggressive behavior, including seclusion and restraint; and other staff development and/or skill training received.
(4) Healthcare supervisor. The facility must appoint a Healthcare supervisor who shall review and approve policies and procedures relating to:
(a) The reporting of indicators of medical problems to a LIP; and
(b) Curriculum for the staff training, as identified in these rules; and
(c) The Restraint/Seclusion Review Committee as described in OAR 309-033-0733, including review of its findings. The healthcare supervisor shall make these reviews available to the Authority upon request.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 426.005, 426.060, 426.110(2), 426.232, 426.236 & 430.041
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.005 - 426.395
- BHS 7-2024, amend filed 04/30/2024, effective 05/28/2024
- BHS 9-2023, amend filed 04/04/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- MHS 13-2014, f. & cert. ef. 9-29-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-033-0727 Structural and Physical Requirements
(1) The hospital or other facility which provides care, custody, and treatment for persons with mental illness or persons alleged to have a mental illness have available at least one room which meets the following requirements:
(a) The room must be of adequate size, not isolated from regular staff of the facility, and provided with an adequate locking device on all doors and windows;
(b) The door must open outward and contain a port of shatterproof glass or plastic through which the entire room may be viewed from outside and before entering;
(c) The room shall contain no protruding objects, such as doorknobs, towel or clothes bars, hooks, or racks. There shall be no exposed curtains, drapes, rods, or furniture, except a portable bed which can be removed, if necessary. In case of the removal of the bed frame, a fireproof mattress shall be placed on the floor. Beds which are securely fastened to the floor must have no protrusions such as bed posts or sharp corners;
(d) Any windows shall be made of unbreakable or shatterproof glass, or plastic. Non-shatterproof glass shall be protected by adequate detention type screening, such as Chamberlain Detention Screen;
(e) There shall be no exposed pipes or electrical wiring in the room. Electric outlets shall be permanently capped or covered with a metal shield which opens with a key. Ceiling and wall lights shall be recessed and covered with safety-type glass or unbreakable plastic. Any cover, cap or shield shall be secured by tamper-proof screws or other means approved by the Division;
(f) The room shall contain no combustible material, such as matches, lighters, cigarettes, etc. Smoking shall not be allowed in the room, except under direct supervision of staff;
(g) The room shall meet fire, safety, and health standards. If sprinklers are installed, they shall be recessed and covered with a fine mesh metal screening. If pop-down type, sprinklers must have breakaway strength of under 80 pounds. In lieu of sprinklers, a combined smoke and heat detector shall be used. Documentation of the breakaway strength of sprinklers must be on file at the facility.
(2) Bathroom requirements include:
(a) Adequate toilet and sanitary facilities;
(b) The bathroom shall contain no shower rods, shower curtains, window curtain rods, curtains, or towel rods, unless used only with direct staff supervision;
(c) The bathroom shall not lock from the inside and, if connected to the room, shall be locked when not in use.
(3) No sharp objects, such as razor blades, scissors, knives, nail files, etc., shall be available to the patient, except under direct staff supervision. No poisons or cleaning materials shall be kept in the room or in the bathroom available for the room.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 426.236, 426.385 & 430.041
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.005 - 426.395
- BHS 9-2023, amend filed 04/04/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- MHS 13-2014, f. & cert. ef. 9-29-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-033-0730 Seclusion and Restraint Procedures
(1) Certified facilities shall not use seclusion and restraint except in an emergency and only then subject to the conditions and limitations of these rules.
(2) General procedures:
(a) Only a Licensed Independent Practitioner (LIP), physician assistant, or registered nurse may initiate seclusion or restraint procedures;
(b) Each use of seclusion or restraint shall be monitored and supervised by a LIP or a registered nurse;
(c) A LIP responsible for the patient’s care must order the use of seclusion or restraint within one hour of the administration of the procedure. This approval must be documented in the person's medical record. The LIP's order may occur by the following methods:
(A) Verbally, in person or via telephone;
(B) By Electronic Medical Record; or
(C) By a written order.
(d) Within one hour after the initiation of the seclusion or restraint intervention, the patient must be seen face-to-face by a LIP, a registered nurse or physician assistant who has been trained in accordance with these rules;
(e) If the face-to-face evaluation is performed by a registered nurse or physician assistant, the evaluator must consult with the attending LIP as soon as possible following the face-to-face evaluation;
(f) The face-to-face evaluation must include the following:
(A) An evaluation of the patient's immediate situation;
(B) The patient's reaction to the intervention;
(C) The patient's medical and behavioral condition; and
(D) The need to continue or terminate the restraint or seclusion.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 426.005, 426.060, 426.110(2), 426.232 & 426.236
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.005 - 426.395
- BHS 9-2023, amend filed 04/04/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- MHS 13-2014, f. & cert. ef. 9-29-14
- MHD 10-1998, f. 6-26-98, cert. ef. 7-1-98, Renumbered from 309-220-0040
Or. Admin. R. 309-033-0732 Time Limits
(1) The maximum time limit for each restraint or seclusion order — before consideration of a renewal, and up to a maximum of 24 hours — is as follows:
(a) 4 hours for adults 18 years of age or older;
(b) 2 hours for children and adolescents 9 to 17 years of age; or
(c) 1 hour for children under 9 years of age.
(2) Orders may be renewed according to time limits for a maximum 24 hours verbally or in writing, or through an electronic medical record. After each 24 hours of continuous restraint or seclusion, and prior to further extension of the restraint or seclusion, an examination and second opinion must occur by a second Licensed Independent Practitioner (LIP).
(3) The LIP responsible for the care of the patient shall examine a person within 24 hours of the administration of seclusion or restraint and the person must be examined by a registered nurse every two hours until such time as the LIP examines the person and either makes new orders for seclusion nor restraint or for releasing the patient from seclusion or restraint. The LIP must document reasons for the use of the seclusion or restraint over the LIP’s signature.
(4) A LIP shall not order physical restraint on an as required basis, i.e. a LIP shall not make "P.R.N." orders for physical restraint.
(5) No form of restraint shall be used as punishment, for the convenience of staff, or as a substitute for activities, treatment, or training.
(6) Medication will not be used as a restraint but will be prescribed and administered according to acceptable medical, nursing, and pharmaceutical practices.
(7) Patients shall not be permitted to use restraint on other patients.
(8) Physical restraint must be used in accordance with sound medical practice to assure the least risk of physical injury and discomfort. Any patient placed in physical restraint shall be protected from self-injury and from injury by others.
(9) 15 Minute Checks:
(a) A patient in restraint or seclusion must be checked at least every 15 minutes;
(b) Include circulation checks, during waking hours adequate range of motion, and partial release of restraint to permit motion and exercise without endangering the patient or staff;
(c) Attention must be paid to the patient's basic personal needs (such as regular meals, personal hygiene, and sleep) as well as the person's need for good body alignment and circulation;
(d) Staff must document that the patient was checked, and appropriate attention paid to the person's needs;
(e) The patient must be released as soon as the patient is assessed by a registered nurse or LIP to not present imminent dangerousness to themselves or others.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 426.005, 426.060, 426.110(2), 426.232, 426.236 & 430.041
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.005 - 426.395
- BHS 9-2023, amend filed 04/04/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- MHS 13-2014, f. & cert. ef. 9-29-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-033-0733 Documentation
(1) No later than the end of their work shifts, the persons who obtained authorization and carried out the use of restraint shall document in the person's chart including but not necessarily limited to the following:
(a) The specific behavior(s) which required the intervention of seclusion or restraint;
(b) Less restrictive alternatives used before deciding seclusion or restraint was necessary;
(c) The methods of intervention used and the patient's responses to the interventions; and
(d) Findings and recommendations from the face-to-face evaluation discussed in OAR 309-033-0730(d) through (f) above.
(2) Within 24 hours after the incident resulting in the use of restraint, the treating Licensed Independent Practitioner (LIP) who ordered the intervention must review and sign the order.
(3) Each use of restraint must be reported daily to the health care supervisor.
(4) Any death that occurs while a patient is in seclusion or restraint must be reported to the Division within 24 hours of the death.
(5) Restraint/Seclusion Review Committee. Each facility must have a Restraint/Seclusion Review Committee. The committee may be one formed specifically for the purposes set forth in this rule, or the duties prescribed in this rule may be assigned to an existing committee. The purpose and duty of the Restraint/Seclusion Review Committee is to review and evaluate, at least quarterly, the appropriateness of all such interventions and provide its findings to the healthcare supervisor in a written report:
(a) The committee shall evaluate incidents of seclusion and restraint for alternative approaches and interventions where a resident required seclusion or restraint.
(b) In Class 1 facilities, the committee shall evaluate all incidents wherein a resident requiring restraint or seclusion was transferred to another facility for the administration of seclusion and restraint.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 426.236, 426.385 & 430.021
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.005 - 426.395
- BHS 7-2024, amend filed 04/30/2024, effective 05/28/2024
- BHS 9-2023, amend filed 04/04/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- MHS 13-2014, f. & cert. ef. 9-29-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-033-0735 Quarterly Reports
(1) Every facility certified under these rules must report to the Division and to the Council within 30 days of each quarter’s end, the following information:
(a) The number of seclusion and the number of restraint incidents; and
(b) The number of patient days in the quarter.
(2) The Division must compile the information from all facilities approved under this rule and make available to the public statewide aggregate data. The information may be divided according to facility types.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 426.236, 426.385 & 430.021
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.005 - 426.309
- MHS 13-2014, f. & cert. ef. 9-29-14
- MHS 5-2008, f. & cert. ef. 6-27-08
- MHS 17-2007(Temp), f. 12-28-07, cert. ef. 1-1-08 thru 6-29-08
Or. Admin. R. 309-033-0811 Declaration for Mental Health Treatment (DMHT) Standards and Processes
(1) A DMHT communicates a person’s preferred mental health treatments, services, and supports so that, in the event a court or two capacity evaluators determine the person is incapable to make informed mental health treatment decisions:
(a) A provider is informed of the person’s wishes about treatment; or
(b) A provider can consult with an attorney-in-fact, if appointed, concerning the person’s wishes about mental health treatment.
(2) An LIP at a hospital or nonhospital facility approved under OAR 309-033-0500 to OAR 309-033-0570 must review a person’s DMHT if a DMHT is in the person’s clinical record or if presented with a copy of a DMHT.
(3) An LIP must follow the instructions for care provided in a DMHT when a person is determined to be incapable to make mental health treatment decisions by two capacity evaluators or a court unless:
(a) The person is under a civil commitment order pursuant to ORS 426.005 to 426.390, and 426.701;
(b) The treating provider does not believe that the preferred treatments are sufficient and available;
(c) The person is court committed to the Oregon State Hospital or a secure residential treatment facility pursuant to ORS 161.295, ORS 161.365, ORS 161.370, or ORS 419C.411;
(d) State law and administrative rule authorizes intervention due to an emergency that risks the life or health of the person; or
(e) As otherwise provided in ORS 127.720.
(4) When a CMHP director in a person’s county of residence receives a DMHT on behalf of the person, the CMHP director must: ensure that a copy:
(a) Be entered into the person’s clinical record maintained by the CMHP;
(b) If the person consents, submit a copy to submitted to, if the person chooses, the voluntary mental health database contained within the Law Enforcement Data System (LEDS) or its successor;
(c) If provided, give a copy to local hospital and nonhospital facilities, including those the person has identified in their declaration, with instructions to retain it.
(5) If a LIP suspects that a person may be incapable to make informed mental health treatment decisions, the LIP must: ensure that an incapable determination is made by:
(a) Petition The court to make a determination; or
(b) With one other capacity evaluator, make the determination in accordance with Two capacity evaluators under Subsection 6 of this rule, where one may be the treating LIP.
(6) An incapable determination by two capacity evaluators must be documented by each capacity evaluator in the person’s medical record within 24 hours of the determination being made. An incapable or not incapable determination must consider, and the documentation must attest to, the person’s:
(a) Knowledge of available mental health treatment options and their ability to understand the risks and benefits associated with each and in comparison, to each other;
(b) Understanding of factors other than mental health treatment that may be harmful or beneficial to the person’s mental health, including behavioral factors;
(c) Ability to communicate preferred outcomes related to treatment, and the person’s ability to consider new information and formulate new desired outcomes as appropriate; and
(d) Understanding of preferred outcomes on the person’s ability to create and maintain positive relationships, find and maintain adequate housing, secure and maintain employment; or avoid episodes of involuntary treatment or criminal-legal involvement including incarceration.
(7) If an incapable determination cannot be made under Subsections 5 and Subsection 6 of this rule, a LIP or treating provider must request an incapable determination be made by the court by submitting a petition to the court in which the Notice of Mental Illness was filed.
(8) When a person has been determined to be incapable and treatment is then provided in accordance with the DMHT, a LIP or CMHP director must provide care and treatment to the person as a voluntary admission to care.
(9) If a person declines to participate in the plan of care described in the person’s DMHT following an incapable determination, made by two capacity evaluators, either directly or following the attorney-in-fact’s decision to implement the DMHT:
(a) The LIP may petition the court for an incapable determination to be made; or
(b) If the LIP believes the person is a danger to self or a danger to others, the LIP must assess the person and determine whether to detain the person under ORS 426.232.
(10) If a PAMI disagrees with the incapable determination made by two capacity evaluators and the PAMI does not wish for the instructions in the DMHT to be followed or for the attorney-in-fact to make decisions, the PAMI may independently petition the court in the county in which the Notice of Mental Illness was filed to make a determination.
(11) If a person is determined to be incapable to make mental health treatment decisions through this process, the determination is only applicable to the validity of the DMHT and may not be used as evidence in the course of civil commitment proceedings.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 426.385 & HB 2005 (2025)
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.005 - 426.395
- BHS 17-2026, adopt filed 06/26/2026, effective 06/26/2026
- BHS 30-2025, temporary adopt filed 12/29/2025, effective 01/01/2026 through 06/29/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-033-0815 Diversion from Commitment
(1) 14-Day Diversion from Commitment. The CMHP director may offer a person a diversion at any time prior to the conclusion of a civil commitment hearing for an initial period of up to 14 calendar days.
(a) If the CMHP director and a LIP have probable cause to believe the person has a mental illness and is in need of treatment and they both agree that there is a hospital or nonhospital facility available to meet the person’s needs, then notice must be provided as follows:
(A) The CMHP director must provide notice of the diversion to the person alleged to have a mental illness and be in need of treatment, in writing and orally;
(B) The CMHP director must notify the court having jurisdiction of the investigation that the diversion from commitment will begin.
(b) A proper notice must include:
(A) An attestation of probable cause signed by the director and the LIP. An attestation may be: “I hereby declare that the above statement is true to the best of my knowledge and belief, and that I understand it is made for use as evidence in court.
(B) A diversion treatment plan.
(C) Notice of the person’s right to request and be provided a hearing at any time during the diversion treatment plan.
(D) Notice of the person’s right to counsel.
(E) Date and time the notice was given to the person alleged to have a mental illness and be in need of treatment.
(F) The notice nor attestation is required to be notarized.
(2) Diversion treatment plan. The director and the treating LIP shall prepare a diversion treatment plan that describes, in general terms, the types of treatment and medication to be provided during the diversion. The treatment plan must include, at a minimum:
(a) Mental health interventions, therapies or diagnostic procedures to be employed;
(b) The person’s preferences about medications and therapies and any limitations on the specific use of medications or therapies.
(c) Location where treatment is to be initiated and the type of hospital or nonhospital facilities where the person may be transferred during the diversion; or
(d) Other conditions or limitations agreed to by the person and the director concerning the care or treatment that is to be provided.
(3) If, following consultation with legal counsel and reviewing the proposed diversion treatment plan, the person:
(a) Does not accept the offer of diversion, a hearing as required by ORS 426.070 must be held no later than five judicial days following the person’s initial detention.
(b) Does accept the offer of diversion, the court must be immediately notified so that the hearing may be postponed for no more than 14 calendar days from the day the person accepted the offer of diversion.
(c) Should the CMHP director or designee and the LIP determine the person still fulfills the criteria in subsection (1)(a), the CMHP director may offer to extend the diversion from commitment by up to another period of 14 calendar days.
(A) If the person agrees to the extension, the CMHP director must immediately notify the court and the hearing will be postponed for an additional 14 calendar days.
(B) A person who agrees to the extension shall not be held for more than 28 days from the date of agreement to the initial period of diversion without a civil commitment hearing per ORS 426.130.
(4) Consent for non-psychiatric care. A treating LIP shall obtain the person’s consent for non-psychiatric medical care and treatments which may be prescribed during the diversion. The diversion treatment plan for psychiatric intervention shall not include plans for non-psychiatric medical care or treatment.
(5) LIP to provide information. The LIP shall provide the information described in OAR 309-033-0620 when administering a specific medication.
(6) Nonadherence to treatment plan or demand for discharge. The person on diversion may decline the psychiatric treatment described in the diversion treatment plan or demand discharge at any time during the initial or extended diversion by signing the form described in this paragraph or, if the person does not sign the form, by verbally declining treatment or demanding discharge to two known staff of the facility. In accepting the person’s disengagement with treatment or demand for discharge the staff of the facility shall:
(a) Provide the person a warning, both verbally and in writing, at the person’s first indication that they wish to decline treatment or demand discharge, which states: "If you decline psychiatric treatment described in the diversion treatment plan or demand to be discharged you may be required to appear at an involuntary civil commitment hearing. It is your right to request an involuntary civil commitment hearing at this time. If a judge finds that you have a mental disorder, are a danger to yourself or others, are unable to meet your basic personal needs, or otherwise meet civil commitment criteria, you may be civilly committed for up to 180 days. However, if a judge finds you do not meet those criteria, you may be released. The treatment in which you were to participate as a condition of avoiding a civil commitment hearing is described in your diversion treatment plan. You were given a copy of your diversion treatment plan when you accepted the diversion. You may see the copy of your diversion treatment plan on file with this facility at any time. You may talk with your attorney before you decline this treatment, demand discharge, or request a hearing."
(b) If, after receiving the warning regarding ending the diversion, the person still declines treatment, demands discharge, or requests a hearing, offer the person a form to sign with the following elements:
(A)Notice:
(B) If you decline psychiatric treatment described in your diversion treatment plan or demand discharge you may be required to appear at an involuntary civil commitment hearing. You have a right to request an involuntary civil commitment hearing at this time. If a judge finds that you have a mental disorder, are a danger to yourself or others, are unable to meet your basic personal needs, or otherwise meet civil commitment criteria, you may be civilly committed for up to 180 days. The psychiatric treatment in which you were to participate as a condition of avoiding a civil commitment hearing is described in your diversion treatment plan. You were given a copy of your diversion treatment plan when you accepted the diversion. You may see the copy of your diversion treatment plan on file with this facility at any time. You may talk with your attorney before you decline this treatment, demand discharge, or request a hearing.
(C)I decline the treatment described in my diversion treatment plan.
(D)I request a hearing before the circuit court.
(E)Signature of Person Alleged to Have a Mental Illness and be in need of treatment.
(c) If the person does not sign the form described in this section and verbally or nonverbally declines treatment, the staff of the facility shall document on the form and in the person’s clinical record, that the person did not sign the form;
(d) Immediately upon the person declining treatment, demanding discharge or requesting a hearing, the treating LIP shall treat the person as a person in custody, as provided under ORS 426.072, and shall immediately notify the director. The director shall immediately:
(A) Notify the person and the person’s legal counsel that refusal of treatment may result in a civil commitment hearing; and
(B) If, after providing the person one judicial day to re-engage the diversion treatment plan, the CMHP director determines that the person is not likely to re-engage meaningfully, the CMHP director may request a hearing.
(7) A person shall only be offered a diversion from commitment if payment for the care, custody and treatment is approved verbally by the director of the county of residence as provided under ORS 426.237. The director of the county of residence’s approval shall be documented by a written statement, signed by the director, and distributed by the end of the diversion period as follows:
(a) The original shall be filed in the clinical record at the Community Mental Health Program; and
(b) A copy shall be delivered to each facility serving the person during the diversion period.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 426.236, 426.237 & HB 2005 (2025)
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.005 - 426.395
- BHS 17-2026, adopt filed 06/26/2026, effective 06/26/2026
- BHS 30-2025, temporary adopt filed 12/29/2025, effective 01/01/2026 through 06/29/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-033-0900 Statement of Purpose and Statutory Authority
(1) Purpose. These rules prescribe standards and procedures relating to the investigation and examination of a person alleged to be a person with mental illness during the involuntary civil commitment process, including training, education, and certification of mental health investigators and examiners.
(2) Statutory authority. These rules are authorized by ORS 426.005–426.395 and carry out the provisions of 426.005–426.395.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 426.060 - 426.500
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.005 - 426.395
- BHS 7-2024, amend filed 04/30/2024, effective 05/28/2024
- BHS 9-2023, amend filed 04/04/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- MHD 12-1998, f. 6-26-98, cert. ef. 7-1-98, Renumbered from 309-230-0000
Or. Admin. R. 309-033-0920 Certification of Mental Health Investigators
(1) Investigation only by a certified investigator. Only a person certified by the Division shall conduct an investigation of a person alleged to be a person with mental illness as required by ORS 426.070(3)(c) and 426.074.
(2) Certification of a mental health investigator. The Division shall certify as a qualified mental health investigator, for three years or until such time as the Division terminates the certificate, any person who meets the following:
(a) Is recommended by a director for certification as a mental health investigator; and
(b) Is a Qualified Mental Health Provider (QMHP), or on January 1, 1988, has been employed by a Community Mental Health Program (CMHP) as an investigator for a minimum of two years; and
(c) Has established individual competence through training provided by the Division and within 6 months of the training has passed an examination conducted by the Division in the following areas:
(A) The role and duties of an investigator and the process of investigation;
(B) Oregon statutes and administrative rules relating to the civil commitment of persons with mental illness;
(C) Establishing probable cause for mental disorder;
(D) The mental status examination; and
(E) The assessment of suicidality, self-harm, dangerousness to self and others, and ability to care for basic needs.
(3) Certification of a senior mental health investigator. The Division shall certify as a senior mental health investigator, for five years or until such time as the Division terminates the certificate, a person who meets the following:
(a) Is recommended by a director for certification as a senior mental health investigator;
(b) Is a QMHP;
(c) Has been certified as a mental health investigator for three years; and
(d) Has completed the training required under OAR 309-033-0920 during the six months prior to application for certification.
(4) Certification of a mental health investigator resident. The Division shall certify as a mental health investigator resident for a non-renewable period of six months, or until such time as the Division terminates the certificate, a person who meets the following:
(a) Is recommended by a director for certification as a mental health investigator;
(b) Is a QMHP;
(c) Has passed an examination conducted by the Division regarding Oregon statutes and administrative rules relating to the civil commitment of persons with mental illness; and
(d) Is supervised by a certified senior mental health investigator. The senior mental health investigator shall review each investigation conducted by the mental health investigator resident and co-sign each investigation report as evidence that the senior mental health investigator believes the report meets OAR 309-033-0940, The Investigation Report.
(5) Qualifications for recertification. The Division may recertify a mental health investigator or a senior mental health investigator who is currently employed by a CMHP, is recommended by the director for recertification and who, during the period of certification, has maintained the QMHP certification or other equivalent licensure and completed eight hours of training provided by the Division covering civil commitment statutes, administrative rules, and procedures.
(6) Residents cannot be recertified. The Division shall not recertify a mental health investigator resident.
(7) Termination of certification. The Division may terminate the certification of a mental health investigator, senior mental health investigator, or a mental health investigator resident when, in the opinion of the Authority:
(a) The person no longer can competently perform the duties required by this rule, or
(b) The person has exhibited a behavior or a pattern of behavior which violates the rights, afforded by statute, of persons being investigated.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 426.060 - 426.500
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.005 - 426.395
- BHS 7-2024, amend filed 04/30/2024, effective 05/28/2024
- BHS 9-2023, amend filed 04/04/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- MHD 12-1998, f. 6-26-98, cert. ef. 7-1-98, Renumbered from 309-230-0030
Or. Admin. R. 309-033-0930 Investigation of Persons Alleged to Have a Mental Illness
(1) Upon receipt of a Notice of Mental Illness (NMI) the Community Mental Health Program (CMHP) must conduct an investigation of the person to determine probable cause for mental disorder. The person conducting the investigation must not be the same as the person filing the NMI.
(a) At a minimum, if the person can be located, the investigator must contact the person by telephone within three judicial days of the receipt of the NMI by the director.
(A) The investigator must complete an investigation and submit an investigation report to the circuit court within 15 calendar days of the director’s receipt of the NMI;
(B) The investigator may request an extension from the court if a treatment option less-restrictive than involuntary inpatient commitment is actively being pursued or if the person cannot be located.
(b) The investigator must investigate persons in a hospital or nonhospital facility and in custody under ORS 426.070, 426.232, or 426.233 as soon as reasonably possible but no later than one judicial day after the initiation of the detention and 24-hours prior to the hearing. Whenever feasible, the investigator must:
(A) Make face-to-face contact with the person within one judicial day of admission to a hospital or nonhospital facility; and
(B) Meet with the person one additional time prior to making a recommendation for the court to hold a commitment hearing.
(C) Ask whether the person has made a DMHT.
(2) Only certified mental health investigators, senior mental health investigators or mental health investigator residents are permitted to conduct an investigation of a PAMI.
(a) While conducting an investigation, the investigator must:
(A) Present photo identification, authorized and provided by the county mental health authority, to the person; and
(B) Verbally explain the reason for the investigation and, if doing so would not endanger the investigator, in writing.
(b) The investigator must seek information about the PAMI in electronic records or from next of kin and other people familiar with the PAMI, whenever feasible, including but not limited to:
(A) Information frm the Nine Federally Recognized Tribes of Oregon. When the person is identified as an enrolled member of a federally recognized tribe in Oregon, the investigator shall solicit information from that tribe, whenever feasible; and
(B) Whether the person has a made a DMHT.
(c) Disclosure of names. The investigator must disclose the names of the persons filing the NMI to the PAMI except when, in the opinion of the investigator, disclosure will jeopardize the safety of the persons filing the NMI. The investigator may withhold any information that is used in the investigation report, only until the investigation report is delivered to the court and others as required under ORS 426.074. The investigator may withhold any information that is not included in the investigation report if the investigator determines that release of the information would constitute a clear and immediate danger to any person.
(d) The director must maintain a clinical record for every person investigated under this rule. The clinical record must document to the extent possible the following:
(A) A brief summary of the events leading to the filing of an NMI, the circumstances and events surrounding the interview of the person and the investigator’s attempts to engage the person in voluntary mental health services;
(B) Identifying information about the person;
(C) A copy of the NMI;
(D) A copy of the investigation report submitted to the court;
(E) Names, addresses and telephone numbers of family, friends, relatives, or other persons who the investigator interviewed for pertinent information. This list must include the names of the persons filing the NMI with the director; and
(F) Summary of the disposition of the case.
(e) When appropriate, the investigator will attempt to voluntarily enroll a PAMI in the least restrictive community mental health services that can meet the person’s treatment needs, including:
(A) Diversion from civil commitment;
(B) Assisted outpatient treatment; or
(C) As declared in a person’s DMHT.
(f) If the investigator discovers a DMHT or otherwise has reason to believe the PAMI has a DMHT, the investigator must immediately disclose such information in a notice that also includes information about the incapable determination process to:
(A) The PAMI and to their legal counsel, if any; and
(B) The attorney-in-fact, if one has been appointed, and the investigator can locate the attorney-in-fact. The notice to the attorney-in-fact must also:
(i) Inform the attorney-in-fact that the PAMI is the subject of a mental health investigation; and
(ii) Provide notice of the PAMI’s right to counsel and right to appointment of counsel as provided in ORS 426.100.
(C) The court. The notice to the court must also include a copy of the DMHT and all information available to the investigator pertaining to the factors relevant to an incapable determination as described in OAR 309-033-0810(6). The investigator must give a copy of the court’s notice to:
(i) The state’s legal counsel;
(ii) The PAMI;
(iii) The PAMI’s legal counsel, if any; and
(iv) The attorney-in-fact appointed in the person’s DMHT, if any.
(g) When the investigator receives a judgment from the court that the PAMI has:
(A) Not been determined to be incapable, the investigator will continue with the investigation; or
(B) Been determined to be incapable, the investigator must immediately consult with the treating LIP and determine if the treatment options authorized in the DMHT are sufficient and available to meet the person’s needs:
(i) If an agreement that the DMHT authorizes treatment that is sufficient and available is not reached, the investigator must continue the investigation.
(ii) If the investigator, the LIP, and the court agree that the DMHT authorizes treatment that is sufficient and available, the investigator will stop the investigation and submit a report to the court per ORS 426.074.
(C) An investigator may request additional time under ORS 426.074(1)(c)(A) to complete the investigation.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 426.060 - 426.500 & HB 2005 (2025)
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.005 - 426.395
- BHS 17-2026, amend filed 06/26/2026, effective 06/26/2026
- BHS 30-2025, temporary amend filed 12/29/2025, effective 01/01/2026 through 06/29/2026
- BHS 7-2024, amend filed 04/30/2024, effective 05/28/2024
- BHS 9-2023, amend filed 04/04/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- MHD 12-1998, f. 6-26-98, cert. ef. 7-1-98, Renumbered from 309-230-0040
Or. Admin. R. 309-033-0940 The Investigation Report
(1) The investigator shall include in a report to the court, if relevant or available, evidence and the source of that evidence in the following areas:
(a) Evidence which describes the present illness and the course of events which led to the filing of the Notice of Mental Illness (NMI) and which occurred during the investigation of the person;
(b) Evidence to support or contradict the allegation that the person has a mental disorder;
(c) Evidence to support or contradict the need for treatment allegation(s).
(d) Any medical records that the investigator relied on to determine the presence of a mental disorder or if the PAMI has a need for treatment must be submitted with the investigation report when the investigation report is provided to the court.
(2) The evidence which describes the present illness shall include:
(a) The situation in which the person was found and the most recent behaviors displayed by the person which lead to and support the filing of an NMI;
(b) The sequence of events affecting the person during the investigation period including dates of admission, transfer or discharge from a hospital or nonhospital facility;
(c) Any change in the mental status of the person during the course of the investigation; and
(d) Attempts by the investigator to engage the person in voluntary treatment in lieu of civil commitment and their outcome.
(3) Documentation of mental disorder. Evidence to support or contradict the allegation that the person has a mental disorder shall include the results of a mental status examination and a psychosocial history.
(a) Mental status examination. A mental status examination shall review the presence of indicators of mental disorder in the following areas:
(A) Appearance. Features of the person’s dress, physical condition which may indicate the presence of a mental disorder.
(B) Behavior. Features of the person’s behavior, movement or rate of speech which may indicate the presence of mental disorder.
(C) Thought content. Features of the content of the person’s speech such as delusions and hallucinations which may indicate the presence of a mental disorder.
(D) Thought process. Features of the person’s expressed thoughts which may indicate that the person is unable to think in a clear logical fashion and which may indicate the presence of a mental disorder.
(E) Insight. Features of the person’s understanding and appreciation of his/her current mental state which may indicate the presence of a mental disorder.
(F) Judgment. Features of the person’s ability to make objectively safe decisions about social situations and dangerous situations which may indicate the presence of a mental disorder.
(G) Cognition. Features of the person’s ability to concentrate, ability to remember recent and historical events, ability to use abstract thinking, and ability to use or remember generally known information which may indicate the presence of a mental disorder.
(H) Emotions. Features of the person’s emotions, such as being inappropriate to the situation, which may indicate the presence of a mental disorder.
(b) Psychosocial History. A psychosocial history shall discuss the presence of indicators of mental disorder in the following areas:
(A) Psychiatric history:
(i) History of psychiatric or mental health treatment;
(ii) History of commitments for mental disorder including verification from the Division if available; and
(iii) Current participation in mental health treatment.
(B) Family history:
(i) Members of the person’s family who have a history of psychiatric or mental health treatment;
(ii) Members of the person’s family who have a history of commitment for mental disorder; or
(iii) Reports of family members who appear to have had an untreated mental disorder.
(C) Substance use history:
(i) History of alcohol or substance misuse;
(ii) Behaviors which the person may have displayed during the course of the investigation, which are substantially similar to behaviors that indicate the presence of a mental disorder, that may be attributable to the use of alcohol or drugs; or
(iii) If the person appears to have a mental disorder, the effect of the person’s current use of alcohol or drugs on behaviors that may indicate the presence of a mental disorder.
(D) History of a loss of function.
(E) Social function.
(F) Personal finances:
(i) Availability of financial resources to provide for basic personal needs such as food and shelter;
(ii) Use of financial resources to meet needs for food and shelter; or
(iii) Other features of the manner in which the person uses money which would indicate the presence of a mental disorder.
(G) Medical issues:
(i) Medical conditions that may produce behaviors which are substantially similar to behaviors that indicate the presence of a mental disorder; or
(ii) Medical conditions which contribute to the seriousness of a mental disorder which appears to be present.
(4) Documentation of one or more need for treatment. Evidence to support or contradict the need for treatment allegation(s) that the person is a danger to self, danger to others, is unable to provide for basic personal needs, or has a chronic mental illness, including, in addition to the considerations of OAR 309-033-0222:
(a) A danger to self-assessment including:
(A) Past and present self-harm behavior(s), and the potential and intended outcome, including death, of such behavior(s);
(B) History of thoughts, plans or attempts at suicide;
(C) Presence of thoughts, plans or attempts at suicide;
(D) Means and ability to carry out the plans for suicide;
(E) The potential lethality of the plan;
(F) The probable imminence of an attempt at suicide; and
(G) Available support systems which may prevent the person from acting on the plan.
(b) A danger to others assessment including:
(A) History of thoughts, plans, attempts or acts of assault or violence;
(B) Presence of thoughts, plans, attempts or acts of assault or violence;
(C) Means and ability to carry out the plans for assault or violence;
(D) The potential lethality of the plan;
(E) The probable imminence of an attempt at assault or violence; and
(F) Available support systems which may prevent the person from attempting an assault or an act of violence.
(c) An assessment of the person’s ability to provide for basic personal needs including:
(A) History of the person’s ability to provide for basic personal needs;
(B) The person’s current use of resources to obtain food, shelter, and health care necessary for health and safety;
(C) Behaviors which may result in the person being vulnerable to danger or making others vulnerable to danger;
(D) Available support systems which may provide the person care necessary for health and safety; and
(E) If the person appears to be unable to care for self, the availability of a guardian or other decision-maker who can assure the provision of such care.
(5) Additional report requirements. The investigation report shall also include the following:
(a) The person’s consent or objection to contact with specific third parties;
(b) If appropriate and if available from the Division, or as gathered by other sources in the course of the investigation, verification of the person having a chronic mental disorder; and
(c) Should a hearing be recommended, the investigator’s clinical opinion on whether inpatient civil commitment or outpatient civil commitment could meet the person’s treatment needs.
(6) Report availability. The investigation report shall be made available to:
(a) The facility with custody of the person if the person is under civil commitment; and
(b) The Authority upon request.
(7) The investigation report is the record of a CMHP completing its responsibilities as outlined in its local plan and pursuant to ORS 430.630(9)(e)(M). At the conclusion of an investigation, an investigator must submit an investigation report to the court having jurisdiction of the investigation.
(a) If an investigation is started, an investigation report is required.
(b) If the investigator recommends a hearing in the investigation report, the investigator must file the investigation report with the circuit court at least twenty-four hours before the hearing. The investigator must appear at the civil commitment hearing for the investigation report to be entered into evidence per ORS 426.095.
(c) If the investigator does not recommend a hearing in the investigation report, the investigator must file an investigation report with the circuit court within 14 calendar days of the investigated person being released from detention or the investigator having concluded the investigation, whichever is later.
(d) If an investigation is ended because a valid DMHT was discovered and implemented because the person was determined to be incapable, an investigation report is still required.
(e) If the PAMI agrees to and successfully completes an initial or extended diversion from commitment, an investigation report is still required to be submitted.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 426.060 - 426.500 & HB 2005 (2025)
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.005 - 426.395
- BHS 17-2026, amend filed 06/26/2026, effective 06/26/2026
- BHS 30-2025, temporary amend filed 12/29/2025, effective 01/01/2026 through 06/29/2026
- BHS 7-2024, amend filed 04/30/2024, effective 05/28/2024
- BHS 9-2023, amend filed 04/04/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- MHD 12-1998, f. 6-26-98, cert. ef. 7-1-98, Renumbered from 309-230-0050
Or. Admin. R. 309-033-0950 Certification of Mental Health Examiners
(1) Psychiatrists exempt from certification. A psychiatrist may serve as an examiner as provided by ORS 426.110. Division certification is not necessary for psychiatrists serving as mental health examiners.
(2) Qualifications for certification of persons other than psychiatrists. The Division shall certify, as a qualified mental health examiner for three years or until such time as the Division terminates the certificate, a person who meets all of the following:
(a) Has at least three years clinical experience in the diagnosis and treatment of adults with severe and persistent mental illness who primarily live with a psychotic disorder;
(b) Presents acceptable written references from two people who have the above qualifications and can demonstrate direct knowledge of the person’s qualifications;
(c) Is recommended by the CMHP director to be an examiner in the county; and
(d) Has established individual competence through training provided by the Division in the following areas:
(A) The role and duties of an examiner and the process of examination;
(B) Oregon statutes and administrative rules relating to the civil commitment of persons with mental illness;
(C) Establishing clear and convincing evidence for mental disorder;
(D) The mental status examination; and
(E) The assessment of suicidality, self-harm, risk of harm to self or others, and ability to care for basic needs.
(e) Is a Qualified Mental Health Provider (QMHP).
(3) Qualifications for recertification. The Division may recertify for three years, or until such time as the Division terminates the certificate of, any mental health examiner who meets the following:
(a) The examiner has been certified by the Division after July 1, 1988;
(b) The examiner has successfully maintained certification or licensure in accordance with credentials described in subsections (1) and (2) of this rule, and completed eight hours of training provided by the Division relating to the assessment and diagnosis of mental disorder and, changes in statutes and administrative rules relating to civil commitment; and
(c) The director recommends the person to be an examiner in the county.
(4) Examination. The examiner shall conduct an examination in a manner that elicits the data necessary for establishing a diagnosis and a plan for treatment. Only certified examiners shall conduct an examination of an alleged person with a mental illness.
(5) Termination of certification. The Division may terminate the certification of any mental health examiner when, in the opinion of the Division:
(a) The person no longer can competently perform the duties required by this rule; or
(b) The person has exhibited a behavior or a pattern of behavior which violates the rights, afforded by statute, of persons being investigated.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 426.060 - 426.500
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.005 - 426.395
- BHS 17-2026, amend filed 06/26/2026, effective 06/26/2026
- BHS 7-2024, amend filed 04/30/2024, effective 05/28/2024
- BHS 9-2023, amend filed 04/04/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- MHD 12-1998, f. 6-26-98, cert. ef. 7-1-98, Renumbered from 309-230-0060
Or. Admin. R. 309-033-0960 Mental Health Examiner’s Report to the Court
(1) Examiner assessment of evidence. The examiner shall provide in a report to the court the examiner’s opinion whether the evidence supports or contradicts:
(a) The allegation that the person has a mental disorder;
(b) The allegation that the person is a danger to self or others, or is unable to provide for basic personal needs and is not receiving such care as is necessary for health and safety; and
(c) That the person would cooperate with and benefit from voluntary treatment.
(2) Mental status examination and psychosocial history. In addition to considering other evidence presented at the hearing, the examiner shall conduct a mental status examination and a psychosocial history to determine whether the person alleged to have mental illness has a mental disorder:
(a) Mental status examination. A mental status examination shall include review of the presence of indicators of mental disorder in the following areas:
(A) Appearance. Features of the person’s dress, physical condition which may indicate the presence of a mental disorder.
(B) Behavior. Features of the person’s behavior, movement or rate of speech which may indicate the presence of mental disorder.
(C) Thought content. Features of the content of the person’s speech such as delusions and hallucinations which may indicate the presence of a mental disorder.
(D) Thought process. Features of the person’s expressed thoughts which may indicate that the person is unable to think in a clear logical fashion and which may indicate the presence of a mental disorder.
(E) Insight. Features of the person’s understanding of his/her current mental state which may indicate the presence of a mental disorder.
(F) Judgment. Features of the person’s ability to make objectively safe decisions about social situations and dangerous situations which may indicate the presence of a mental disorder.
(G) Cognitive testing. Features of the person’s ability to concentrate, ability to remember recent and historical events, ability to use abstract thinking, and ability to use or remember generally known information which may indicate the presence of a mental disorder.
(H) Emotions. Features of the person’s emotions, such as being inappropriate to the situation, which may indicate the presence of a mental disorder.
(b) Psychosocial history. A psychosocial history shall consider the presence of indicators of mental disorder in the following areas:
(A) Psychiatric history:
(i) History of psychiatric or mental health treatment;
(ii) History of commitments for mental disorder including verification from the Division if available; and
(iii) Current participation in mental health treatment.
(B) Family history:
(i) Members of the person’s family who have a history of psychiatric or mental health treatment;
(ii) Members of the person’s family who have a history of commitment for mental disorder; or
(iii) Reports of family members who appear to have had an untreated mental disorder.
(C) Substance use history:
(i) History of alcohol or drug misuse;
(ii) Behaviors the person may have displayed during the course of the investigation which are substantially similar to behaviors that indicate the presence of a mental disorder that may be attributable to the use of alcohol or drugs; or
(iii) If the person appears to have a mental disorder, the effect of the person’s current use of alcohol or drugs on behaviors that may indicate the presence of a mental disorder.
(D) History of a loss of function:
(E) Social function.
(F) Personal finances:
(i) Availability of financial resources to provide for basic needs such as food and shelter;
(ii) Use of financial resources to meet needs for food and shelter; and
(iii) Other features of the manner in which the person uses money which would indicate the presence of a mental disorder.
(G) Medical issues:
(i) Medical conditions that may produce behaviors which are substantially similar to behaviors that indicate the presence of a mental disorder; or
(ii) Medical conditions which contribute to the seriousness of a mental disorder which appears to be present.
(3) Assessment of dangerousness and ability to provide basic needs. In addition to considering other evidence presented at the hearing, the examiner shall conduct an assessment of the danger the person represents to self or others and an assessment of the person’s ability to provide for basic personal needs:
(a) An assessment of dangerousness to self shall consider the following areas:
(A) History of thoughts, plans or attempts at suicide;
(B) Presence of thoughts, plans or attempts at suicide;
(C) Means and ability to carry out the plans for suicide;
(D) The potential lethality of the plan;
(E) The probable imminence of an attempt at suicide; and
(F) Available support systems which may prevent the person from acting on the plan.
(b) An assessment of dangerousness to others shall consider the following areas:
(A) History of thoughts, plans, attempts or acts of assaultiveness or violence;
(B) Presence of thoughts, plans, attempts or acts of assaultiveness or violence;
(C) Means and ability to carry out the plans for assaultiveness or violence;
(D) The potential lethality of the plan;
(E) The probable imminence of an attempt at assault or violence; and
(F) Available support systems which may prevent the person from attempting an assault or an act of violence.
(c) An assessment of the person’s ability to provide for basic personal needs shall consider the following areas:
(A) History of the person’s ability to provide for basic personal needs;
(B) The person’s current use of resources to obtain food, shelter, and health care necessary for health and safety;
(C) Behaviors which result in exposure to danger to self or other;
(D) Available support systems which may provide the person care necessary for health and safety; and
(E) If the person appears to lack capacity to care for self, the availability of a guardian who can assure the provision of such care.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 426.060 - 426.500
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.005 - 426.395
- BHS 7-2024, amend filed 04/30/2024, effective 05/28/2024
- BHS 9-2023, amend filed 04/04/2023, effective 04/07/2023
- MHD 12-1998, f. 6-26-98, cert. ef. 7-1-98, Renumbered from 309-230-0070
Division 35 RESIDENTIAL TREATMENT FACILITIES AND RESIDENTIAL TREATMENT HOMES FOR ADULTS WITH MENTAL HEALTH DISORDERS
Or. Admin. R. 309-035-0100 Purpose and Scope
(1) These rules prescribe standards by which the Behavioral Health Division (Division) of the Oregon Health Authority (Authority) licenses community based residential treatment facilities and community based residential treatment homes for adults with serious mental illness The standards promote optimum health, mental and social well-being, and recovery for adults with serious mental illness through the availability of a wide range of home and community based residential settings and services. They prescribe how services will be provided in safe, secure, and homelike environments that recognize the dignity, individuality, and right to self-determination of each resident.
(a) These rules incorporate and implement the requirements of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services for Home and Community-Based Services (HCBS) authorized under section 1915(i) of the Social Security Act.
(b) These rules establish requirements to ensure individuals receive services in settings that are integrated in and support the same degree of access to the greater community as individuals not receiving HCBS, consistent with the standards set out in OAR chapter 410, division 173.
(2) These rules apply to all Residential Treatment Facilities (RTF) and Residential Treatment Homes (RTH) providing services to adults with serious mental illness regardless of whether the program receives public funds. These rules prescribe distinct standards in some areas for Secure Residential Treatment Facilities (SRTF), and Crisis Respite Services, or are based on the number of residents receiving services in the program.
(3) These rules recognize that some residents may have their rights limited through civil or forensic commitment processes as described in ORS chapters 161 and 426, guardianship proceedings as described in ORS chapter 125, or other legal mechanisms as described in ORS chapter 127.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 443.400 - 443.465 & 443.991
- BHS 6-2026, amend filed 04/30/2026, effective 05/01/2026
- BHS 5-2026, amend filed 04/30/2026, effective 06/01/2026
- BHS 4-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- BHS 6-2024, amend filed 04/11/2024, effective 04/11/2024
- BHS 41-2023, temporary amend filed 10/12/2023, effective 10/15/2023 through 04/11/2024
- MHS 5-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-8-17
- MHS 2-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
- MHS 13-2016(Temp), f. 9-6-16, cert. ef. 9-7-16 thru 3-3-17
- MHS 5-2012, f. 5-3-12, cert. ef. 5-4-12
- MHS 10-2011(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 12-5-11 thru 5-31-12
- MHS 4-2008, f. & cert. ef. 6-12-08
- MHD 4-2005, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-05
- MHD 4-1998, f. 5-21-98, cert. ef. 6-1-98
- MHD 9-1985, f. & ef. 6-7-85
- MHD 9-1984(Temp), f. & ef. 12-10-84
Or. Admin. R. 309-035-0105 Temporary rule language in effect until 11/25/2026. Definitions
As used in these rules, the following definitions apply:
(1) "Abuse" means abuse as defined in ORS 430.735.
(2) "Activities of Daily Living (ADL)" means those personal and functional activities required by a resident for continued well-being, that are essential for health and safety. ADLs include eating, bathing, dressing, toileting, transferring (including mobility and ambulation) and maintaining continence.
(3) "Adult" means an individual 18 years of age or older.
(4) “Advance Directive” or “Advance Directive for Health Care” means the legal document signed by a resident that provides health care instructions in the event the resident is no longer able to give directions regarding their wishes, as described in ORS 127.505 to 127.660. “Advance Directive for Health Care” does not include Physician Orders for Life-Sustaining Treatment (POLST).
(5) "Aid to Physical Functioning" means any special equipment ordered for a resident by a Licensed Medical Professional (LMP) or other qualified health care professional that maintains or enhances the individual’s physical functioning.
(6) "Applicant" means the individual or entity, including the Division, who owns, seeks to own or operate, or maintains and operates a program and is applying for a license.
(7) "Approved" means authorized or allowed by the Authority or designee.
(8) “Authority” means the Oregon Health Authority or designee.
(9) "Authorized Representative" means any adult with longstanding involvement in assuring the Individual's health and safety, appointed to participate in service planning process, and is:
(a) Chosen and appointed by the individual or their legal representative, if applicable
(b) Not a paid provider of Home and Community Based Services (HCBS) and supports;
(c) Authorized, in writing or other method that clearly indicates consenting choice, by the Individual or legal representative, if applicable, to serve as the Individual's representative in connection with the provision of funded supports; and
(d) Responsible to act as the authorized representative until the Individual, or legal representative, if applicable, modifies the authorization or notifies the authority or authority's contractor that the authorized representative is no longer authorized to act on their behalf.
(10) “Background Check” means criminal records check and an abuse check.
(11) "Building Code" means the Oregon Structural Specialty Code adopted by the Building Codes Division of the Oregon Department of Consumer and Business Services.
(12) "Care" means services including but not limited to supervision; protection; assistance with activities of daily living such as bathing, dressing, grooming or eating; management of money; transportation; recreation; and the provision of room and board.
(13) “Class I SRTF” means a facility that is approved under applicable administrative rules to be locked to prevent a person from leaving the physical premises without authorization, to use seclusion and restraint, and to involuntarily administer psychiatric medication, including a hospital, regional acute psychiatric care facility or other nonhospital facility approved under OAR 309-033-0530
(14) “Class II SRTF” means a facility that is approved under applicable administrative rules to be locked to prevent a person from leaving the physical premises without authorization. Class II facilities are not authorized to use seclusion or restraint but can use physical interventions to ensure the immediate safety of staff and residents in emergencies where there is an imminent threat of harm to staff or other residents. These facilities are approved under OAR 309-035-0100 through 309-035-0281 to be locked to prevent an individual from leaving the facility. These facilities, in the opinion of the Division, restrict the liberty of a person to substantially in comparison to other facilities in this same class.
(15) “CMS" means the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services.
(16) "Community Mental Health Program (CMHP)" means the organization of all or a portion of services for individuals with serious mental illness, operated by or contractually affiliated with a local mental health authority. CMHP’s operate in a specific geographic area of the state under an intergovernmental agreement or direct contract with the Division.
(17) "Competitive Integrated Employment" means full-time or part-time work:
(a) At minimum wage or higher, at a rate that is not less than the customary rate paid by the employer for the same or similar work performed by other employees who are not individuals with disabilities, and who are similarly situated in similar occupations by the same employer, and who have similar training, experience, and skill;
(b) With eligibility for the level of benefits provided to other employees;
(c) At a location where the employee interacts with other persons who are not individuals with disabilities (not including supervisory personnel or individuals who are providing services to such employee) to the same extent that individuals who are not individuals with disabilities and who are in comparable positions interact with other persons; and
(d) As appropriate, presents opportunities for advancement that are similar to those for other employees who are not individuals with disabilities and who have similar positions.
(18) "Contract" means a formal written agreement between the CMHP, CCO, Oregon Health Plan contractor, or the Division and a provider.
(19) “Coordinated Care Organization (CCO)” means a corporation, governmental agency, public corporation, or other legal entity that is certified as meeting the criteria adopted by the Authority under ORS 414.625 to be accountable for care management and to provide integrated and coordinated health care for each of the CCO's members.
(20) "Crisis-Respite Services" means a short-term crisis and stabilization service provided in a residential setting to stabilize the individual in crisis, prevent further deterioration, and provide immediate treatment and intervention in a location best suited to meet the needs of the individual and in the least restrictive environment available for up to 30 days.
(21) “Critical Incident” means any incident that caused harm or created a potential risk of harm to a resident including:
(a) Abuse, neglect, or exploitation;
(b) Misuse or unauthorized use of restraints or seclusion;
(c) Medication error resulting in consultation with a poison control center or medical professional, an emergency department or urgent care visit, hospitalization or death;
(d) Suspected overdose;
(e) Serious physical harm;
(f) Contact with law enforcement or emergency services; and
(g) Death.
(22) “Culturally Responsive” means services that are respectful of and relevant to the beliefs, practices, culture and linguistic needs of diverse consumer/client populations and communities whose members identify as having particular cultural or linguistic affiliations. Cultural responsiveness describes the capacity to respond to the issues of diverse communities. It thus requires knowledge and capacity at different levels of intervention: systemic, organizational, professional, and patient.
(23) “Deputy Director” means the deputy director of the Behavioral Health Division of the Oregon Health Authority.
(24) "Direct Care Staff" means program staff responsible for providing services for a resident.
(25) "Division" means the Behavioral Health Division of the Oregon Health Authority or designee.
(26) “Division Staff” means individuals employed by the Division or individuals delegated by the Division to conduct licensing activities under these rules.
(27) "DSM" means the most currently edition of the "Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders " published by the American Psychiatric Association.
(28) "Emergency Admission" means an admission to a program made on an urgent basis due to the pressing service needs of the individual.
(29) “Employee” means a person, not residing at the program, who is employed by a licensee who receives wages, a salary, or is otherwise paid by the licensee for providing the service.
(30) "Evacuation Capability" means the ability of occupants, including residents and program staff as a group, to evacuate the building or relocate from a point of occupancy to a point of safety as defined in the Oregon Structural Specialty Code.
(31) “Eviction” means a court action that may be initiated after the involuntary transfer or discharge process is complete by a program against a resident to remove the resident from their unit.
(32) "Exclusion Lists" mean the following federal lists that exclude listed individuals from receiving federal awards or monies, not limited to Medicaid and Medicare programs:
(a) The U.S. Office of Inspector General's Exclusion List at www.exclusions.oig.hhs.gov; and
(b) The U.S. General Services Administration's System for Award Management Exclusion List at www.sam.gov.
(33) "Fire Code" means the Oregon Fire Code as adopted by the State of Oregon Fire Marshal.
(34) “Gender expression” means a person’s gender-related appearance and behavior, whether or not these are stereotypically associated with the sex the person was assigned at birth.
(35) "Gender identity" means an individual’s internal, deeply held knowledge or sense of the individual’s gender, regardless of physical appearance, surgical history, genitalia, legal sex, sex assigned at birth, or name and sex as it appears in medical records or as it is described by any other individual, including a family member, guardian, or legal representative of the individual. An individual’s gender identity is the last gender identity expressed by an individual who lacks the present ability to communicate.
(36) "Gender nonconforming" means having a gender expression that does not conform to stereotypical expectations of one’s gender.
(37) "Gender transition" means a process by which an individual begins to live according to that individual’s gender identity rather than the sex the person was assigned at birth. The process may include changing the individual’s clothing, appearance, name or identification documents, or undergoing medical treatments.
(38) “Home and Community Based Service (HCBS)” means services and supports that assist eligible individuals to remain in their home or community in accordance with the Code of Federal Regulations, approved Medicaid State Plan authorities and Oregon Administrative Rules.
(39) “Home and Community-Based Settings” means a physical location meeting the qualities of 42 CFR §441.710(a)(1) and (2), OAR 410-173-035, and OAR 411-004-0020 where a resident receives Home and Community-Based Services.
(40) "Home-Like" means an environment that promotes the dignity, security, and comfort of residents through the provision of personalized care and services and encourages independence, choice, and decision-making by the resident.
(41) “Imminent Danger” means a situation in which a program’s non-compliance with one or more licensing requirements has caused or is likely to cause serious physical harm, harm, impairment, or death to one or more residents in the near future if the program does not take immediate action to correct and protect resident health and safety.
(42) “Incident Report” means a written description of any incident involving a resident receiving services including but not limited to injuries, major illness, accidents, acts of aggression, medication errors, or other incidents that present a risk to health and safety.
(43) “Independent and Qualified Agent (IQA)” means an entity meeting the provider qualification requirements identified in 42 CFR §441.730 and under contract with the Division who:
(a) Determines 1915(i) program eligibility initially, annually, when an individual’s circumstances or needs change significantly, or upon individual request;
(b) Provides education and technical assistance regarding HCBS and settings;
(c) Coordinates and assists the individual in directing the person-centered planning process;
(d) Drafts, documents, regularly reviews and updates person-centered service plans;
(e) Prior authorizes HCBS Residential Services as described in these rules;
(f) Conducts quality assurance and quality improvement activities;
(g) Completes the face-to-face needs-based assessment in person; and
(h) Performs transition management.
(44) "Individually Based Limitation (IBL)" means any limitation to the qualities outlined in OAR 309-035-0195 and OAR 410-173-0040 due to health and safety risks. An IBL is based on specific assessed needs and only implemented with the resident's or resident's representative's informed consent as described in OAR 309-035-0195 and OAR 410-173-0005.
(45) "Informed Consent" means: That options, risks, and benefits of the services outlined in these rules have been explained to the resident or the resident’s legal representative in a manner that they understand; and
(46) “Instrumental Activities of Daily Living (IADLs)” means those self-management activities performed by an individual on a day-to-day basis that are essential to basic self-care and independent living. IADLs include, but are not limited to, housekeeping, including laundry, shopping, transportation, medication management, and meal preparation.
(47) "Legal Representative" means a person who has been legally designated by court order to make financial or health care decisions for a resident. The legal representative only has authority to act within the scope and limits to the authority designated by the court or other agreement.
(48) “Licensed Independent Practitioner (LIP)” means a physician, nurse practitioner, or naturopathic physician as defined in ORS 426.005.
(49) "Licensed Medical Professional (LMP)" means an individual who meets the following minimum qualifications as documented by the Local Mental Health Authority (LMHA) or designee:
(a) Holds at least one of the following educational degrees and valid licensures:
(A) Physician licensed to practice in the State of Oregon;
(B) Nurse Practitioner licensed to practice in the State of Oregon; or
(C) Physician Assistant licensed to practice in the State of Oregon; and
(b) Whose training, experience, and competence demonstrate the ability to conduct a comprehensive mental health assessment and provide medication management.
(50) “Licensee” means the individual or entity who applied for and to whom a license has been issued to operate a residential treatment facility or residential treatment home.
(51) "Local Mental Health Authority (LMHA)" means a Local Mental Health Authority as defined in ORS 430.630.
(52) "LGBTQIA2S+" means lesbian, gay, bisexual, transgender, queer, intersex, asexual, Two Spirit, nonbinary, or other minority gender identity or sexual orientation. These terms are defined below:
(a) "Lesbian" means the sexual orientation of an individual who is female, feminine, or nonbinary and who is physically, romantically, or emotionally attracted to other women. Some lesbians may prefer to identify as gay, a gay woman, queer, or in other ways.
(b) "Gay" means the sexual orientation of an individual attracted to people of the same gender. Although often used as an umbrella term, it is used more specifically to describe men attracted to men.
(c) "Bisexual" means an individual who has the potential to be physically, romantically, or emotionally attracted to people of more than one gender, not necessarily at the same time, in the same way, or to the same degree.
(d) "Transgender" means having a gender identity or gender expression that differs from the sex one was assigned at birth, regardless of whether one has undergone or is in the process of undergoing gender-affirming care. Being transgender does not imply any specific sexual orientation. Therefore, transgender people may identify as straight, gay, lesbian, bisexual, etc.
(e) "Queer" means individuals who do not identify as exclusively straight or an individual who has non-binary or gender-expansive identities:
(A) Queer is often used as a catch-all to refer to the LGBTQIA2S+ population as a whole.
(B) This term was previously used as a slur but has been reclaimed by many parts of the LGBTQIA2S+ movement. It can also include transgender people who identify as male or female. The term should only be used to refer to a specific person if that person self-identifies as queer.
(f) "Intersex" means someone born with a variety of differences in their sex traits and reproductive anatomy. Intersex traits greatly vary, including differences in, but not limited to, hormone production and reproductive anatomy.
(g) "Asexual" or "Ace" means a complete or partial lack of sexual attraction or lack of interest in sexual activity with others. Asexuality exists on a spectrum, and asexual people may experience no, little, or conditional sexual attraction. Many people who are asexual still identify with a specific romantic orientation.
(h) "2S" or "Two-Spirit" is a term used within some Indigenous communities, encompassing cultural, spiritual, sexual, and gender identity. The term reflects complex indigenous understandings of gender roles, spirituality, and the long history of sexual and gender diversity in Indigenous cultures. The definition and common use of the term two-spirit may vary among Tribes and Tribal communities.
(i) The "+" means other identities and expressions of gender, romantic and sexual orientation, including minority gender identities.
(53) "Medication" means any drug, chemical, compound, suspension, or preparation in suitable form for use as a curative or remedial substance either internally or externally by any individual.
(54) "Mental or Emotional Disorder" means a primary Axis I or Axis II DSM diagnosis, other than an intellectual or developmental disability or a substance abuse disorder that limits a resident's ability to perform activities of daily living.
(55) "Mental Health Assessment" means the process of obtaining sufficient and clinically relevant information through face-to-face interview, observation, examination, testing, and review of previous treatment records to determine a diagnosis and to plan individualized services and supports. Mental health assessments must be completed by a provider meeting the qualifications of a Qualified Mental Health Professional (QMHP).
(56) “Naloxone” means an FDA-approved short-acting, non-injectable, opioid antagonist medication used for the emergency treatment and temporary rapid reversal of known or suspected opioid overdose.
(57) "Nonbinary" means an individual who does not identify exclusively as a man or a woman. Non-binary people may identify as being both a man and a woman, somewhere in between, or as falling completely outside these categories. While many also identify as transgender, not all non-binary people do. Non-binary can also be used as an umbrella term encompassing identities such as agender, bigender, genderqueer, or gender-fluid.
(58) "Nursing Care" means the practice of nursing by a licensed nurse, including tasks and functions that are delegated by a registered nurse to an individual other than a licensed nurse, which are governed by ORS Chapter 678 and rules adopted by the Oregon State Board of Nursing in OAR chapter 851.
(59) “Opioid” means natural, synthetic, or semi-synthetic chemicals normally prescribed to treat pain. This class of drugs includes, but is not limited to, illegal drugs such as heroin, natural drugs such as morphine and codeine, synthetic drugs such as fentanyl and tramadol, and semi-synthetic drugs such as oxycodone, hydrocodone, and hydromorphone.
(60) “Opioid Overdose” means a medical condition that causes depressed consciousness and mental functioning, decreased movement, depressed respiratory function and the impairment of the vital functions as a result of taking opiates in an amount larger than can be physically tolerated.
(61) “Opioid Overdose Kit” means an ultraviolet light-protected hard case containing a minimum of two doses of an FDA-approved short-acting, non-injectable, opioid antagonist medication, one pair non-latex gloves, one face mask, one disposable face shield for rescue breathing, and a short-acting, non-injectable, opioid antagonist medication administration instruction card.
(62) "Owner" means a:
(a) Shareholder of a corporation or of a professional corporation;
(b) Member or shareholder of a cooperative;
(c) Member of a limited liability company;
(d) Partner of a partnership; or
(e) General partner or limited partner of a limited partnership.
(63) “Person-Centered Service Plan (PCSP)” means the written document prepared by the IQA or the person-centered service plan coordinator that details the supports, desired outcomes, activities, and resources required for an Individual to achieve and maintain personal goals, health, and safety as described in OAR 410-173-0025. The PCSP must be completed and signed. The PCSP is not satisfied by a document primarily prepared by a provider.
(64) "Person-Centered Service Plan Coordinator" means the individual who may be a case manager, service coordinator, personal agent, or other individual designated by the Division to provide case management services or person-centered service planning for and with a resident.
(65) "Prescribing Practitioner" means a physician, nurse practitioner, physician assistant, chiropractor, dentist, ophthalmologist, or other healthcare practitioner with prescribing authority.
(66) "P.R.N. (pro re nata) Medications and Treatments" means those medications and treatments that have been ordered to be given as needed.
(67) "Program" means the Residential Treatment Facility or Residential Treatment Home licensed by the Division and may refer to the setting grounds, caregiver, staff, or services as applicable to the context.
(68) "Program Administrator" means the individual designated by the licensee as responsible for the daily operation and maintenance of the RTH or RTF or the program administrator’s designee.
(69) “Program Staff” means an employee, volunteer, direct care staff, or individual who, by contract with a program, provides a service to a resident.
(70) "Progress Notes" means the continuous notations in the resident’s record documenting significant information concerning the resident and summarizing progress made relevant to the objectives outlined in the residential service plan.
(71) "Protection" means the necessary actions taken by the program to prevent abuse, mistreatment, or exploitation of the resident to prevent self-destructive acts and to safeguard the resident’s property and funds when used in the relevant context.
(72) “Provider” means the program administrator, individual, or organizational entity licensed by the Division that operates the program and provides services to residents.
(73) "PSRB” means the Oregon Psychiatric Security Review Board.
(74) “Qualified Mental Health Professional (QMHP)” means mental health program staff LMP or any other program staff meeting the minimum qualifications as authorized by the LMHA or designee and specified in OAR 309-019-0125.
(75) “Representative” refers to both “Authorized Representative” and “Legal Representative” as defined in these rules, unless otherwise stated.
(76) "Residency Agreement" means the written, legally enforceable agreement between a provider and a resident or the resident’s legal representative when the resident receives services. The Residency Agreement identifies the rights and responsibilities of the resident and the provider. The Residency Agreement provides the resident protection from eviction substantially equivalent to landlord-tenant laws, unless otherwise required by administrative rule or statute.
(77) “Resident” means any individual being considered for placement or is currently residing in a licensed program receiving residential services regulated by these rules on a 24-hour basis, except as excluded under ORS 443.400.
(78) “Resident Service Record” means a resident’s records maintained by the program pursuant to OAR 309-035-0130(4).
(79) "Residential Service Plan" means an individualized, written plan outlining the care and treatment to be provided to a resident in or through the program based upon an individual assessment of needs. The residential service plan may be a section or subcomponent of the resident's overall mental health treatment plan when the program is operated by a mental health service agency that provides other services to the resident.
(80) "Residential Treatment Facility (RTF)" means a program licensed by the Division to provide services and supports on a 24-hour basis for six to 16 residents as described in ORS 443.400(11). An RTF does not include the entities set out in ORS 443.405.
(81) “Residential Treatment Home (RTH)” means a program that is licensed by the Division and operated to provide services and supports on a 24-hour basis for up to five residents as defined in ORS 443.400(12). A RTH does not include the entities set out in ORS 443.405.
(82) "Restraints" means any chemical or physical methods or devices that are intended to restrict or inhibit the movement, functioning, or behavior of a resident.
(83) "Room and Board" means compensation for the provision of meals, a place to sleep, basic utilities, and tasks such as housekeeping and laundry to residents.
(84) "Seclusion" means placing a resident in a locked room. A locked room includes a room with any type of door-locking device, such as a key lock, spring lock, bolt lock, foot pressure lock, or physically holding the door shut.
(85) "Secure Residential Treatment Facility (SRTF)" means any Residential Treatment Facility, or portion thereof, approved by the Division that restricts a resident’s exit from the setting using approved locking devices on exit doors, gates, or other closures.
(86) “Self-Administration of Medication” means the act of a resident placing a medication in or on the resident’s own body. The resident identifies the medication and the times and manners of administration and places the medication internally or externally on the resident’s own body without assistance.
(87) “Serious Mental Illness” means a major mental disorder under the DSM-5-TR including schizophrenic, mood, paranoid, panic or other severe anxiety disorder; somatoform disorder; personality disorder; other psychotic disorder; or another mental disorder that may lead to a chronic disability. Such disorder must be diagnosed by a physician or physician assistant licensed by the Oregon Medical Board, a psychiatrist, licensed by the Oregon Board of Psychology, a nurse practitioner licensed by the Oregon State Board of Nursing, a clinical social worker licensed by the State Board of Licensed Social Workers, a professional counselor or marriage and family therapist licensed by the Oregon Board of Licensed Professional Counselors and Therapists, a naturopathic physician licensed by the Oregon Board of Naturopathic Medicine, a Qualified Mental Health Professional, or a Community Mental Health Program established and operated pursuant to when approved to do so by the Oregon Health Authority pursuant to rule.
(88) “Serious Physical Harm” means injury that would warrant medical treatment beyond basic first aid.
(89) “Services and Supports” means those services defined as habilitation services and psychosocial rehabilitation services under OAR 410-172-0705(1)(j) and (v) and provided to residents as outlined in OAR 410-172-0710.
(90) "Setting" means one or more buildings and adjacent grounds on contiguous properties that are used in the operation of a program.
(91) ("Sexual orientation" means romantic or sexual attraction, or a lack of romantic or sexual attraction, to other people.
(92) “Stock supply” means any volume of medications that are not dispensed to a specific resident, and not labeled with the specific name of the resident.
(93) “Substantial compliance” means a level of compliance with state law and with rules of the Oregon Health Authority such that any identified deficiencies pose a risk of no more than negligible harm to the health or safety of residents.
(94) "Supervision" means a program staff’s observation and monitoring of a resident or oversight of a program staff by the program administrator applicable to the context.
(95) “Supervisory Entity” means the court or state agency that has the legal authority to place an individual with a provider or to set legal conditions for the individual to follow to be placed or remain in the community, as provided in ORS chapters 161 and 426. Supervisory entity includes the state agency’s designee, and any person or entity that is legally responsible for monitoring the individual, coordinating care, and providing status reports to the supervising court or state agency.
(96) “Residency Transfer" means the time at which the resident ceases to reside in the program and includes the transfer of the resident to another program but does not include absences from the program for the purpose of taking a planned vacation, visiting family or friends, or receiving time-limited medical or psychiatric treatment.
(97) “Transition Planning” means a strategic process designed to prepare residents for a successful move from the program into another living arrangement.
(98) "Treatment" means a planned, individualized program of medical, psychological or rehabilitative procedures, experiences and activities, designed to relieve or minimize mental, emotional, physical, or other symptoms or social, educational, or vocational disabilities resulting from or related to the mental or emotional disturbance, physical disability, or alcohol or drug problem.
(99) “Trial Visit” means the placement of a committed individual in a lower level of care under conditions established by the authority.
(100) "Unit" means the bedroom and other space of a resident receiving services from a program, as agreed to in the Residency Agreement. Unit includes private single occupancy and dual occupancy bedrooms shared with a roommate.
(101) “Volunteer” means an individual who provides a service or takes part in a service provided to one or more residents receiving supportive services in a program or other provider and who is not a paid employee of the program or other provider.
(102) “Weapon” means:
(a) A firearm;
(b) Any dirk, dagger, ice pick, slingshot, metal knuckles or similar instrument, or knife, except a kitchen knife, the use of which could inflict injury upon a person or property;
(c) Mace, tear gas, pepper mace or any similar deleterious agent as defined in ORS 163.211;
(d) An electrical stun gun or any similar instrument;
(e) A tear gas weapon as defined in ORS 163.211;
(f) A club, bat, baton, billy club, bludgeon, knobkerrie, nunchucks, nightstick, truncheon or any similar instrument, the use of which could inflict injury upon a person or property; or
(g) A dangerous or deadly weapon as those terms are defined in ORS 161.015.
(103) “Young Adults in Transition (YAT) Residential Treatment Homes (RTH)” means specialized programs for young adults, ages 17 to 25 years old, who experience complex behavioral health challenges.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 443.400 - 443.465 & 443.991
- BHS 13-2026, temporary amend filed 06/01/2026, effective 06/01/2026 through 11/25/2026
- BHS 7-2026, temporary amend filed 05/14/2026, effective 05/15/2026 through 05/31/2026
- BHS 6-2026, amend filed 04/30/2026, effective 05/01/2026
- BHS 5-2026, amend filed 04/30/2026, effective 06/01/2026
- BHS 32-2025, temporary amend filed 12/30/2025, effective 01/01/2026 through 06/27/2026
- BHS 4-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- BHS 6-2024, amend filed 04/11/2024, effective 04/11/2024
- BHS 1-2024, temporary amend filed 01/09/2024, effective 01/10/2024 through 04/11/2024
- BHS 41-2023, temporary amend filed 10/12/2023, effective 10/15/2023 through 04/11/2024
- BHS 5-2018, amend filed 03/21/2018, effective 03/30/2018
- MHS 5-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-8-17
- MHS 2-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
- MHS 13-2016(Temp), f. 9-6-16, cert. ef. 9-7-16 thru 3-3-17
- MHS 5-2012, f. 5-3-12, cert. ef. 5-4-12
- MHS 10-2011(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 12-5-11 thru 5-31-12
- MHS 4-2008, f. & cert. ef. 6-12-08
- MHS 13-2007, f. & cert. ef. 8-31-07
- MHS 6-2007(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 5-25-07 thru 11-21-07
- MHD 4-2005, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-05
- MHD 4-1998, f. 5-21-98, cert. ef. 6-1-98
- MHD 9-1985, f. & ef. 6-7-85
- MHD 9-1984(Temp), f. & ef. 12-10-84
Or. Admin. R. 309-035-0110 Required Home-like Qualities
(1) A program, except for a SRTF, must have all of the following qualities:
(a) The setting is integrated in and supports the resident’s same degree of access to the greater community as individuals’ not receiving HCBS including opportunities for a resident to:
(A) Seek employment and work in competitive integrated employment settings:
(i) For which a resident is compensated at a rate that:
(l) Is not less than the higher of the rate specified in federal, state, or local minimum wage law;
(ll) Is not less than the customary rate paid by the employer for the same or similar work performed by other employees who are not persons with disabilities and who are similarly situated in similar occupations by the same employer and who have similar training, experience, and skills; or
(lll) In the case of a resident who is self-employed, yields an income that is comparable to the income received by other individuals who are not individuals with disabilities and who are self-employed in similar occupations or on similar tasks and who have similar training, experience, and skills.
(ii) For which a resident is eligible for the level of benefits provided to other employees;
(iii) At a location where the resident interacts with other individuals who are not individuals with disabilities. This does not include supervisory personnel or individuals providing services to the individual to the same extent as individuals without disabilities and who are in comparable positions who interact with others; and
(iv) That present opportunities for advancement like those for other employees who are not individuals with disabilities and who have similar positions.
(B) Engage in greater community life;
(C) Control personal resources; and
(D) Receive services in the greater community.
(b) The program is selected by a resident or the resident’s legal representative from among available setting options for which the resident meets medical necessity criteria including non-disability specific settings and an option for a private unit in a residential setting. The setting options must be:
(A) Identified and documented in the residents' person-centered service plan;
(B) Based on the resident's needs and preference; and
(C) Based on the resident’s available resources for room and board.
(c) The program ensures resident rights of privacy, dignity, culturally responsive care, respect, and freedom from coercion and restraint;
(d) The program optimizes, but does not regiment, resident initiative, autonomy, self-direction, and independence in making life choices including but not limited to daily activities, physical environment, with whom to interact, and with whom to engage and maintain their culturally specific relationships with; and
(e) The provider must ensure that residents from the identified cultural group receive effective and respectful care that is provided in a manner compatible with their cultural beliefs and practices;
(f) The program facilitates resident choice regarding services and supports and resident choice as to who provides the services and supports.
(2) The resident or the resident’s legal representative must have the opportunity to select from among available setting options including non-disability specific settings and an option for a private unit in a setting. The setting options must be:
(a) Identified and documented in the person-centered service plan for the resident;
(b) Based on the resident's needs and preferences; and
(c) Based on the resident's available resources for room and board.
(3) The provider must take reasonable steps to ensure that the program maintains the qualities identified in sections (1) and (2) of this rule. Failure to take reasonable steps may include but is not limited to:
(a) Failure to maintain a copy of the person-centered service plan at the setting;
(b) Failure to cooperate or provide necessary information to the person-centered planning coordinator; or
(c) Failure to attend or schedule a person-centered planning meeting where applicable.
(4) A program must maintain the following:
(a) The setting must be physically accessible to a resident;
(b) The provider must provide the resident a unit of specific physical space that the resident may rent or occupy under a legally enforceable Residency Agreement;
(c) The provider must provide and include in the Residency Agreement that the resident has, at a minimum, the same responsibilities and protections from an eviction that a tenant has under the landlord-tenant law of Oregon and other applicable laws or rules of the county, city, or other designated entity. For a setting in which landlord-tenant laws do not apply, the Residency Agreement must provide substantially equivalent protections for the resident and address the involuntary transfer and discharge administrative hearing processes. The involuntary transfer and discharge administrative hearing processes must be substantially equivalent to the processes provided under landlord-tenant laws. The resident has a right to be free of retaliation after they have exercised their rights provided by law or rule;
(d) The provider must provide each resident with privacy in their own unit;
(e) The provider must maintain units with entrance doors lockable by the resident. The program must ensure that only the resident, the resident’s roommate, where applicable, and only appropriate staff as described in the resident’s person-centered plan have keys to access the unit;
(f) The provider must ensure that residents sharing units have a choice of roommates;
(g) The provider must provide and include in the Residency Agreement that residents have the freedom to decorate and furnish their own unit;
(h) The provider must allow each resident to have visitors of their choosing at any time;
(i) The provider must ensure each resident has the freedom and support to control their own schedule and activities; and
(j) The provider must ensure each resident has the freedom and support to have access to food at any time.
(5) A SRTF is not required to maintain the qualities or meet the obligations identified in section (4)(d)(e)(f)(h)(i) of this rule when these qualities are limited by the resident’s legal representative or supervisory entity. The SRTF provider is not required to seek an individually based limitation to comply with these rules.
(6) A supervisory entity or provider may modify or limit the rights identified in sections (1), (2), and 4(b) through (i) of this rule when providing services to a resident, who is placed with the provider by a court, OHA, CMHP or PSRB order under ORS chapters 161, 419C, or 426, as appropriate for the resident’s needs or as limited by the resident’s legal representative. When an activity is restricted by the supervisory entity, the conditional release evaluation or other documents describing the limitations, must be included in the application for an individually based limitation, when applicable, and incorporated in the resident’s Person-Centered Service Plan and included in the Residential Service Plan.
(7) When a provider is unable to meet the qualities outlined under section (4)(e) through (4)(j) of this rule due to threats to the health and safety of the resident or others, the provider may seek an individually based limitation with the consent of the resident or the resident’s legal representative. The provider may not apply an individually based limitation until the limitation is approved, consented, and documented as outlined in OAR 309-035-0195.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.032, 443.400 - 443.465 & 443.991
- BHS 6-2026, amend filed 04/30/2026, effective 05/01/2026
- BHS 5-2026, amend filed 04/30/2026, effective 06/01/2026
- BHS 32-2025, temporary amend filed 12/30/2025, effective 01/01/2026 through 06/27/2026
- BHS 4-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- BHS 6-2024, amend filed 04/11/2024, effective 04/11/2024
- BHS 41-2023, temporary amend filed 10/12/2023, effective 10/15/2023 through 04/11/2024
- MHS 5-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-8-17
- MHS 2-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
- MHS 13-2016(Temp), f. 9-6-16, cert. ef. 9-7-16 thru 3-3-17
- MHS 4-2008, f. & cert. ef. 6-12-08
- MHD 4-2005, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-05
- MHD 4-1998, f. 5-21-98, cert. ef. 6-1-98
- MHD 9-1985, f. & ef. 6-7-85
- MHD 9-1984(Temp), f. & ef. 12-10-84
Or. Admin. R. 309-035-0115 Temporary rule language in effect until 11/25/2026. Licensing
(1) The Division shall license a program that meets the definition of an RTF or RTH and demonstrates compliance with these and all applicable laws and rules. No person or governmental unit acting individually or jointly with any other person or governmental unit may establish, maintain, manage, or operate a program, including receiving referrals for potential residents, without a license issued by the Division.
(2) An applicant may not be licensed to operate additional programs without first demonstrating a history of substantial compliance for previous and currently licensed programs.
(3) An applicant who voluntarily withdraws an application containing willfully incomplete, inaccurate, or untruthful information may not submit an application for a license for three years from the date of the withdrawal. Withdrawal of an application does not limit or prevent the Authority or other state or federal regulators from leveling other penalties or continuing investigations into potential criminal violations or other violations.
(4) When a program serves or seeks to serve another category of residents in addition to adults with a serious mental illness, the directors of the Authority and the Department will determine the agency responsible for licensure.
(5) An initial application for a license must be accompanied by the required fee and submitted to the Division in the form and manner required by the Division. The following information must be included in the application packet:
(a) Full and complete information as to the identity and financial interest of each individual, including stockholders, having a direct or indirect ownership interest of five percent or more in the program and all officers and directors in the case of a program operated or owned by a corporation;
(b) Name and resume of the program administrator;
(c) Name and resume of psychiatric treatment services provider;
(d) Physical address of the setting and mailing address;
(e) Maximum number of residents to be served at any one time, their age range and evacuation capability;
(f) Proposed annual budget identifying sources of revenue and expenses;
(g) Signed current approved background check authorizations for all individuals involved in the operation of the program who has contact with the residents, including but not limited to caregivers, administrators, QMHAs, QMHPs, RNs, and LMPs;
(h) Written background information pertaining to any current or previous licensure or certification by a state agency, including those licenses or certificates granted to a business or person affiliated with the business, including:
(A) Copies of all current licenses or certificates;
(B) Documentation showing the final disposition of any suspension, denial, revocation, or other disciplinary actions initiated on any current or previous license or certificate, including settlement agreements, where applicable; and
(C) Documentation of any substantiated allegations of abuse or neglect pertaining to the applicant, or anyone employed by or contracted with the applicant.
(i) A complete set of policies and procedures specific to the operation of the proposed facility or home;
(j) A signed letter of acknowledgement from the Local Mental Health Authority or designee;
(k) A written statement describing the type and frequency of clinical services that will be offered to the program residents, including individual and group counseling, skills training, psychiatric treatment, and the contact information of the LMP that provides consultation and oversight of the services offered to the program residents;
(l) A copy of all proposed policies and procedures regarding:
(A) Personnel practices;
(B) Staffing requirements;
(C) Program staff and administrator training;
(D) Resident screening, admission, and transfer and discharge;
(E) Fire drills and emergency procedures;
(F) Resident and program safety;
(G) Abuse reporting;
(H) Health and sanitation;
(I) Records maintenance and confidentiality;
(J) Service planning;
(K) Behavior management interventions including the use of seclusion or restraints;
(L) Food preparation and distribution;
(M) Medication administration and storage;
(N) Weapons and reasonable cause searches;
(O) Resident belongings, storage and funds;
(P) Resident rights, freedoms, and protections;
(Q) Advanced mental health and medical health directives;
(R) Complaints and grievances;
(S) Setting maintenance;
(T) Evacuation capability determination;
(U) Fees and money management;
(V) Cultural competency;
(W) Limited English Proficiency (LEP) services;
(X) Facility closure; and
(Y) Secure settings must have a policy and procedure regarding resident leave authorization.
(m) Strategies to recruit, retain, and promote a diverse staff at all levels;
(n) A complete floor plan with all specifications for an existing structure without additions or alterations including the location, size and type of rooms, all exits, all secondary emergency egress, smoke and carbon monoxide alarms, fire extinguishers, planned evacuation routes, point of safety, any designated smoking areas outside the program; and
(o) Other information the Division may reasonably require.
(6) A complete set of plans and specifications must be submitted to the Division at the time of initial application, whenever a new structure or addition to an existing structure is proposed or when significant physical alterations to an existing program are proposed. Plans must meet the following criteria:
(a) Plans must be prepared in accordance with the Building Code and as outlined in OAR 309-035-0140;
(b) Plans must be to scale and sufficiently complete to allow full review for compliance with these rules; and
(c) Plans must bear the stamp of an Oregon licensed architect or engineer when required by the Building Code.
(7) Prior to approval of a license for a new or renovated setting, the applicant must submit the following to the Division:
(a) One copy of a written approved certificate of occupancy based on the change of use of the setting, issued by the city or county building codes authority having jurisdiction;
(b) One copy of the fire inspection report from the State Fire Marshal or local jurisdiction indicating that the setting complies with the Fire Code;
(c) When the setting is not served by an approved municipal water system, one copy of the documentation indicating that the state or county health agency having jurisdiction has tested and certified safe the water supply in accordance with OAR chapter 333, Public Health Division rules to public water systems;
(d) When the setting is not connected to an approved municipal sewer system, one copy of the sewer or septic system approval from the Department of Environmental Quality or local jurisdiction.
(8) The following fees must be submitted with an initial or renewal application:
(a) The RTF license application fee for initial or renewal licensing is $60. No fee is required in the case of a governmentally operated RTF;
(b) The RTH license application fee for initial or renewal licensing is $30. No fee is required in the case of a governmentally operated RTH.
(9) Incomplete initial applications are void after 60 calendar days from the date the Division receives the application and non-refundable fee, as applicable. The Division will deny the incomplete application if not withdrawn.
(10) A license is renewable upon submission of a complete renewal application packet in the form and manner required by the Division and a non-refundable fee as set out in section (6), except that no fee shall be required of a governmentally operated program:
(a) Filing of a complete application for renewal 60 days before the date of expiration extends the effective date of the current license until the Division acts upon the renewal application;
(b) The Division will deny renewal of a license if the program is not in substantial compliance with these rules or if the State Fire Marshal or authorized representative has given notice of noncompliance; and
(c) The Division will deny renewal of a license if the program does not submit a complete renewal application packet prior to the expiration of the license.
(11) Upon receipt of an application and fee, the Division shall conduct an application review. Initial action by the Division on the application must begin within 30 days of receipt of all application materials. The review must:
(a) Include a complete review of application materials;
(b) Determine whether the applicant meets the qualifications outlined in ORS 443.420 including:
(A) Demonstrates an understanding and acceptance of these rules;
(B) Is mentally and physically capable of providing services for residents;
(C) Employs or utilizes only persons whose presence does not jeopardize the health, safety, or welfare of residents; and
(D) Provides evidence satisfactory to the Division of financial ability to comply with these rules.
(c) Determine that the applicant is not excluded from receiving federal awards or monies including:
(A) The U.S. Office of Inspector General’s Exclusion List at www.exclusions.oig.hhs.gov; and
(B) The U.S. General Services Administration’s System for Award Management Exclusion List at www.sam.gov.
(d) Include a site inspection; and
(e) Conclude with a report stating findings and a decision on licensing of the program.
(12) The Division may deny an application prior to review when:
(a) The applicant has previously had any action taken on a certificate or license; or
(b) Action taken on a certificate or license includes denial, suspension, conditions, intent to revoke, or revocation by the Division, the Authority, the Oregon Department of Human Services, or any other state agency.
(c) If a license is denied for any reason other than the results of a test or an inspection, the applicant is entitled to a hearing if the applicant requests a hearing in writing within 60 calendar days from the date the notice was mailed. If no written request for a hearing is timely received, the Division shall issue a final order by default. The Division may designate its file as the record for purposes of default.
(13) The provider must submit and complete a plan of correction for each finding of noncompliance:
(a) If the findings of noncompliance substantially impact the welfare, health, and safety of residents, the provider must submit a plan of correction that must be approved by the Division prior to issuance of a license. In the case of a currently operating program, the findings may result in suspension or revocation of a license;
(b) If it is determined that the findings of noncompliance do not threaten the welfare, health, or safety of residents and the program meets other requirements of licensing, the Division may issue or renew a license with the plan of correction submitted and completed as a condition of licensing;
(c) The Division must specify required documentation and set the timelines for the submission and completion of plans of correction in accordance with the severity of the findings;
(d) The Division must review and evaluate each plan of correction. If the plan of correction does not adequately remedy the findings of noncompliance, the Division must require a revised plan of correction and may apply civil penalties or deny, revoke, or suspend the license;
(e) The provider may appeal the finding of noncompliance or the disapproval of a plan of correction within 10 calendar days of receipt of notification by submitting a written request for appeal to the Division. The Division must decide on the appeal within 30 days of receipt of the appeal request. The decision of the Division shall be final.
(14) The Division, in its discretion, may grant a variance to these rules based upon a demonstration by the applicant that an alternative method or different approach provides equal or greater program effectiveness and does not adversely impact the welfare, health, or safety of residents:
(a) The provider seeking a variance must submit in writing a request to the Division, with CMHP review, that identifies the section of the rules from which the variance is sought, the reason for the proposed variance, and the proposed alternative method or different approach;
(b) The director or designee must review and approve or deny the request for a variance;
(c) The Division must notify the provider of the decision in writing within 30 days after receipt of the request. A variance may be implemented only after receipt of written approval from the Division;
(d) With the exception of facilities operating within the Oregon State Hospital, the provider may appeal the denial of a variance request within 10 calendar days of receipt of notification by submitting a request for appeal in writing to the Division's Director or designee. The Division Director or their designee must decide within 30 days of receipt of the appeal. The decision of the Division Director or their designee is final;
(e) Facilities operating within the Oregon State Hospital may appeal the denial of a variance request within 10 calendar days of receipt of notification by submitting a request for appeal in writing to the Authority’s Director or designee. The Authority’s Director or their designee must make a decision within 30 days of receipt of the appeal. The decision of the Authority’s Director or their designee is final;
(f) A variance is not effective until granted in writing by the Division and are only valid for the length of the current issued license or shorter time as specified by the Division. The licensee must re-apply for a variance at the time of license renewal; and
(g) In seeking a variance, the burden of proof that the requirements of these rules have been met is upon the applicant or licensee.
(15) A provider seeking a variance to the waitlist prioritization rules must submit a written request to the Division that clearly outlines the individual for whom the variance is being requested and meets one of the following criteria under (a), (b), or (c):
(a) Is currently in a community hospital, and:
(A) No longer requires hospital level of care;
(B) Is stable and has had no incidents of crisis in the last 30 days;
(C) Has been in the hospital 180 days or more; and
(D) Has been on the facility waitlist 120 days or more.
(b) Has been issued a 30-day notice of involuntary transfer or discharge that:
(A) Clearly demonstrates the specific needs that can only be met in a higher level of care; and
(B) Includes a new assessment by the IQA demonstrating SRTF level of care is medically necessary.
(c) Has been issued a 30-day notice of involuntary transfer or discharge due to facility closure with a specific facility closure date.
(16) Upon finding that the applicant is in substantial compliance with these rules, the Division shall issue a license:
(a) The license issued must state the name of the provider, the name of the program administrator, the address of the setting to which the license applies, the maximum number of residents to be served at any one time and their evacuation capability, the type of program, and such other information as the Division deems necessary;
(b) A license must be effective for two years from the date issued unless sooner revoked or suspended; and
(c) A license is not transferable or applicable to any setting, location, or management other than that indicated on the application and license.
(17) The license remains valid only under the following conditions:
(a) The provider does not operate or maintain the program in combination with a nursing facility, hospital, retirement facility, or other occupancy unless licensed, maintained, and operated as a separate and distinct part.
(b) Each program must have sleeping, dining, and living areas for use only by its own residents, caregivers, and invited guests; and
(c) The provider must maintain the license posted in a prominent location accessible to the public within the setting.
(18) A license becomes void immediately upon suspension or final order of revocation or non-renewal of the license by the Division or if the operation is discontinued by voluntary action of the licensee or if there is a change of ownership.
(19) Division staff must conduct an in-person inspection of every program no less than 90 days and not more than 120 days after initial licensure, and at least once every two years to determine whether it is maintained and operated in accordance with ORS 443.416 and these rules. The provider must allow Division staff entry and access to the setting and residents for the purpose of conducting the inspections:
(a) Division staff must review methods of resident care and treatment, records, the condition of the setting and equipment, and other areas of operation;
(b) All records, unless specifically excluded by law, must be available to the Division for review; and
(c) The State Fire Marshal or authorized representatives shall, upon request, be permitted access to the setting, fire safety equipment within the setting, safety policies and procedures, maintenance records of fire protection equipment and systems, and records demonstrating the evacuation capability of setting occupants.
(20) Incidents of alleged abuse covered by ORS 430.735 through 430.765 and reported complaints are investigated in accordance with OAR 943-045-0000. The Division may delegate the investigation to a CMHP or other appropriate entity:
(a) When abuse is alleged or death of a resident has occurred and a law enforcement agency or the Division, Office of Training, Investigations, and Safety, Oregon Department of Human Services, or their designee has determined to initiate an investigation, the provider may not conduct an internal investigation without prior authorization from the Division. For the purposes of this section, an internal investigation is defined as conducting interviews of the alleged victim, witnesses, the alleged perpetrators, or any other persons who may have knowledge of the facts of the abuse allegation or related circumstances; reviewing evidence relevant to the abuse allegation, other than the initial report; or any other actions beyond the initial actions of determining:
(A) If there is reasonable cause to believe that abuse has occurred; or
(B) If the alleged victim is in danger or in need of immediate protective services; or
(C) If there is reason to believe that a crime has been committed; or
(D) What, if any, immediate personnel actions must be taken.
(b) When the program has been notified of the completion of the abuse investigation, the program may conduct an internal investigation without Division approval to determine if any other personnel actions are necessary.
(21) The provider must report promptly to the Division and the CMHP any significant changes to information supplied in the application or subsequent correspondence. Changes include but are not limited to changes in the setting or program name, provider, program administrator, telephone number, and mailing address. Changes also include but are not limited to changes in the physical nature of the setting, policies and procedures, or staffing pattern when the changes are significant or impact the resident's health, safety, or well-being.
(22) In accordance with ORS 443.402, the Division may deny, suspend, revoke or refuse to renew a license of a provider if the Division finds that the provider operates a separate facility that is not currently or has not been in substantial compliance with rules adopted under ORS 443.400 to 443.455 or 443.705 to 443.825.
(23) Prior to initial licensure or renewal of licensure, the provider and each owner, as defined in ORS 60.470, that has at least 20 percent ownership interest of a program must:
(a) Certify in writing, under penalty of perjury, that to the best of the person’s knowledge the provider or owner is not in violation of any tax laws described in ORS 305.380; and
(b) Submit a complete tax compliance certification issued by the Department of Revenue for each owner with 20 percent or more ownership, stating that as of the date of the certificate, the provider or owner is not in violation of any tax laws described in ORS 305.380.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, ORS 443.450 & ORS 443.420
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.032, ORS 443.400 - 443.465 & ORS 443.991
- BHS 13-2026, temporary amend filed 06/01/2026, effective 06/01/2026 through 11/25/2026
- BHS 7-2026, temporary amend filed 05/14/2026, effective 05/15/2026 through 05/31/2026
- BHS 6-2026, amend filed 04/30/2026, effective 05/01/2026
- BHS 5-2026, amend filed 04/30/2026, effective 06/01/2026
- BHS 32-2025, temporary amend filed 12/30/2025, effective 01/01/2026 through 06/27/2026
- BHS 4-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- BHS 5-2018, amend filed 03/21/2018, effective 03/30/2018
- MHS 11-2017, temporary amend filed 10/03/2017, effective 10/03/2017 through 03/30/2018
- MHS 5-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-8-17
- MHS 2-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
- MHS 13-2016(Temp), f. 9-6-16, cert. ef. 9-7-16 thru 3-3-17
- MHD 4-2005, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-05
- MHD 4-1998, f. 5-21-98, cert. ef. 6-1-98
- MHD 9-1985, f. & cert. ef. 6-7-85
- MHD 9-1984 (Temp), f. & cert. ef. 12-10-84
Or. Admin. R. 309-035-0120 Contracts and Rates
(1) A provider receiving Medicaid reimbursement for services provided, must enroll with OHA’s Medicaid Provider Enrollment program or enter into a contract with the local CMHP, statewide coordinated care organizations, the Division, or other Division-approved party. Enrollment or contracting does not guarantee that any number of residents eligible for Division funded services will be referred to or maintained in the program.
(2) The provider must specify in a fee policy and procedure rates for all services and the procedures for collecting payments from residents and payees. The fee policy and procedures must describe the schedule of rates, conditions under which rates may be changed, acceptable methods of payment, and the policy on refunds at the time of residency transfer or discharge:
(a) For residents whose services are funded by the Division, reimbursement for services shall be made according to the rate schedule outlined in Behavioral Health Rate Schedule or the contract. Room and board payments for residents receiving Social Security benefits or public assistance shall be in accordance with rates determined by the Division;
(b) For residents paying privately, the program must enter into a signed agreement with the resident, and, if applicable, the resident’s legal representative, if applicable. This agreement must include but is not limited to a description of the services to be provided, the schedule of rates, conditions under which the rates may be changed, and policy on refunds at the time of residency transfer or discharge; and
(c) Before increasing rates or modifying payment procedures, the program must provide a 30-day advance notice of the change to all residents, representatives, payees, guardians, or conservators.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS413.032, 443.400 - 443.465 & 443.991
- BHS 6-2026, amend filed 04/30/2026, effective 05/01/2026
- BHS 5-2026, amend filed 04/30/2026, effective 06/01/2026
- BHS 32-2025, temporary amend filed 12/30/2025, effective 01/01/2026 through 06/27/2026
- BHS 4-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- MHS 5-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-8-17
- MHS 2-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
- MHS 13-2016(Temp), f. 9-6-16, cert. ef. 9-7-16 thru 3-3-17
- MHS 4-2008, f. & cert. ef. 6-12-08
- MHD 4-2005, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-05
- MHD 4-1998, f. 5-21-98, cert. ef. 6-1-98
- MHD 9-1985, f. & ef. 6-7-85
- MHD 9-1984(Temp), f. & ef. 12-10-84
Or. Admin. R. 309-035-0125 Temporary rule language in effect until 11/25/2026. Administrative Management
(1) The licensee must ensure that the program and setting are maintained and operated in compliance with these rules and all other applicable federal, state, and local laws and regulations.
(2) The licensee must employ a program administrator who meets the following qualifications and complies with the following standards:
(a) Background including specialized training, experience, and other demonstrated ability in providing care and treatment appropriate to residents with serious mental illness served in the program. Such background must include:
(A) One (1) year or more of clinical experience working in a setting that provides treatment to individuals who are diagnosed with serious mental illness; or
(B) Two (2) years or more of residential experience working in a setting that was licensed to provide care and services to individuals who are diagnosed with serious mental illness;
(b) Documented current approved background checks processed in compliance with the procedures required by OAR 943-007-0001 through 0501;
(c) Ensure the program operates in accordance with the standards outlined in these rules;
(d) Oversee the daily operation and maintenance of the program and must be available to perform administrative duties at the setting for at least 20 hours per week;
(e) Develop and administer written policies and procedures to direct the operation of the program and the provision of services to residents;
(f) Ensure sufficient qualified program staff are available to provide direct services to residents in accordance with the staffing requirements specified in these rules to assure resident safety and resident rights, freedoms, and protections, provision of HCBS services, and that resident’s attain or maintain the highest practical physical, mental and psychosocial well-being as determined by the resident assessments and person-centered service plans, and considering the number, acuity and diagnoses of the program’s resident population;
(g) Supervise or provide for the supervision of program staff and others involved in the operation of the program;
(h) Maintain setting, personnel, and resident service records;
(i) Report regularly to the licensee on the operation of the program; and
(j) Delegate authority and responsibility for the operation and maintenance of the program to a responsible staff person whenever the program administrator is absent from the setting:
(A) This authority and responsibility may not be delegated to a resident.
(B) If the program administrator is absent from the setting for a period exceeding 60 days, an interim program administrator, who meets all qualification requirements, must be designated. Upon designating an interim program administrator, a notification must be made to the Division.
(3) The licensee, administrator and all caregivers must be literate in the English language and can understand and communicate orally and in writing with residents, medical professionals, care coordinators and others involved in the care of residents.
(4) The licensee, administrator, and all caregivers must not be listed on the U.S. Office of Inspector General’s or U.S. General Services Administration Exclusion lists:
(a) It is the licensee’s responsibility to ensure the administrator is not listed on either of the Exclusion Lists;
(b) It is the administrator’s responsibility to ensure that all caregivers must not be listed on either of the Exclusion Lists; and
(c) Verification of these requirements must be clearly documented in the program’s personnel records.
(5) The licensee must develop and update policies and procedures specific to the licensed setting, maintain a copy in a location easily accessible for staff reference and made available to others upon reasonable request. Policies and procedures must be consistent with requirements of these rules and must address at a minimum the following:
(a) Personnel practices;
(b) Program staff and administrator training;
(c) Resident screening, admission, and transfer and discharge;
(d) Fire drills and emergency procedures;
(e) Resident and program safety;
(f) Abuse reporting;
(g) Health and sanitation;
(h) Records maintenance and confidentiality;
(i) Service planning;
(j) Behavior management interventions including the use of seclusion or restraints;
(k) Food preparation and distribution;
(l) Medication administration and storage;
(m) Weapons and reasonable cause searches;
(n) Resident belongings, storage and funds;
(o) Resident rights, freedoms, and protections;
(p) Advanced mental health and medical health directives;
(q) Complaints and grievances;
(r) Setting maintenance;
(s) Evacuation capability determination;
(t) Fees and money management;
(u) Cultural competency;
(v) Limited English Proficiency (LEP) services;
(w) Facility closure; and
(x) Secure settings must have a policy and procedure regarding resident leave authorization.
(6) Any social covenants required by the program must be outlined in the residency agreement and must be posted in a prominent location in the common area. Social covenants may not conflict with resident rights and freedoms outlined in these rules.
(7) The provider must submit critical incident reports to the Division and the CMHP within 48 hours of the incident occurring.
(8) The provider must submit all incident reports to the CMHP within 48 hours of the incident occurring.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.032, 443.400 - 443.460 & 443.991
- BHS 13-2026, temporary amend filed 06/01/2026, effective 06/01/2026 through 11/25/2026
- BHS 7-2026, temporary amend filed 05/14/2026, effective 05/15/2026 through 05/31/2026
- BHS 6-2026, amend filed 04/30/2026, effective 05/01/2026
- BHS 5-2026, amend filed 04/30/2026, effective 06/01/2026
- BHS 32-2025, temporary amend filed 12/30/2025, effective 01/01/2026 through 06/27/2026
- BHS 4-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- MHS 5-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-8-17
- MHS 2-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
- MHS 13-2016(Temp), f. 9-6-16, cert. ef. 9-7-16 thru 3-3-17
- MHS 4-2008, f. & cert. ef. 6-12-08
- MHD 4-2005, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-05
- MHD 4-1998, f. 5-21-98, cert. ef. 6-1-98
- MHD 9-1985, f. & cert. ef.
- MHD 9-1984(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 12-10-84
Or. Admin. R. 309-035-0130 Records
(1) Records must be maintained to document the legal operation of the program, personnel practices, and resident services and supports provided. All records must be properly obtained, accurately prepared, safely stored, and readily available or electronically accessible within the setting. All entries in records required by these rules must be in ink, indelible pencil, or approved electronic equivalent prepared at the time or immediately following the occurrence of the event being recorded, be legible, and be dated and signed by the person making the entry. In the case of electronic records, signatures may be replaced by an approved, uniquely identifiable electronic equivalent.
(2) Records documenting the legal operation of the program must include but not limited to:
(a) Certificate of occupancy for proposed use of the setting by the county or city having jurisdiction, any building inspection reports, zoning verifications, fire inspection reports, or other documentation pertaining to the safe and sanitary operation of the program issued during the development or operation of the program;
(b) Application for license, related correspondence, and site inspection reports;
(c) Program operating budget and related financial records;
(d) Payroll records, program staff schedules and time sheets;
(e) Safety data sheets;
(f) Fire drill documentation;
(g) Fire alarm and sprinkler system maintenance and testing records;
(h) Incident reports; and
(i) Policy and procedure manual.
(3) Personnel records must document and include:
(a) Job descriptions for all positions; and
(b) Separate program staff records including, but not limited to:
(A) Written documentation of program staff identifying information and qualifications;
(B) Background check approval;
(C) Documentation that Hepatitis B inoculations have been given or made available;
(D) Performance appraisals; and
(E) Documentation of pre-service orientation and other training.
(4) Resident service records must be maintained for each resident and include:
(a) An easily accessible summary sheet that includes, but is not limited to, the resident's legal name for billing purposes, chosen name, previous address, date of admission to the program, pronouns, gender identity, date of birth, marital status, legal status, religious preference, health provider information, evacuation capability, DSM diagnosis, physical health diagnosis, allergy information, information indicating whether advance mental health and health directives have been executed, and the name of individuals to contact in case of emergency;
(b) The names, addresses, and telephone numbers of the resident's legal representative, legal guardian or conservator, parents, next of kin, supervisory entity, or other significant persons, physicians or other medical practitioners, dentist, case manager or therapist, day program, school, or employer, and any governmental or other agency representatives providing services to the resident, as applicable;
(c) A current mental health assessment, conducted within the last year, and background information identifying the resident's residential service needs;
(d) Advance mental health and medical health directives, burial plans, or location of these;
(e) A residential service plan and copy of plans from other service providers;
(f) A person-centered service plan;
(g) Documentation of the resident's progress as described in OAR 410-120-1360(2), OAR 410-172-0620, and OAR 410-172-0045 and any other significant information including, but not limited to, progress notes, progress summaries, any use of seclusion or restraints, and correspondence concerning the resident; and
(h) Health-related information and up-to-date information on medications.
(i) Current copies of documentation relating to guardianship, conservatorship, commitment status, advance directives, or any other legal restrictions;
(5) The program must retain all referral packets, screening materials, and screening responses-placement determinations for a minimum of three years from the date of the referral.
(6) The program must establish a resident service record upon the resident’s admission. Prior to admission or within five days after an emergency admission, the program must determine with whom communication needs to occur and make good faith efforts to obtain the needed authorizations for release of information. The record established upon admission must include the materials reviewed in screening the individual, the summary sheet, and any other available information.
(7) All resident service records must be kept confidential as required by law. A signed release of information must be obtained for any disclosure from a resident service record, except as otherwise authorized by law. Release of information is not required to provide information to the resident’s legal representative or supervisory entity.
(8) In accordance with ORS 179.505, the program must obtain authorizations for the disclosure of any confidential information concerning prospective residents, and maintain authorizations for the disclosure of any confidential information regarding current residents in the form and manner described in ORS 192.566:
(a) Unless required or allowed by state or federal law, a provider must not disclose any personally identifiable information regarding:
(A) A resident’s sexual orientation.
(B) Whether a resident is LGBTQIA2S+.
(C) A resident’s gender transition status.
(D) A resident’s human immunodeficiency virus status.
(b) Programs must take appropriate steps to minimize the likelihood of inadvertent or accidental disclosure of information described in subsection (a) of this section to other residents, visitors, or staff, except to the minimum extent necessary for staff to perform their duties. Appropriate steps may include policies and procedures, training, or other documented actions or plans that address record disclosure by the provider and staff. The licensee or administrator must notify the individual or individuals legal guardian or representative if a resident is affected by a disclosure of information.
(9) A resident or the resident’s legal representative must be allowed to review and obtain a copy of the resident service record as required by ORS 179.505(9).
(10) If a resident or the individual’s legal representative disagrees with the content of the individual service record, or otherwise desires to provide documentation for the record, the individual or the individual’s legal representative may provide material in writing that must become part of the individual service record.
(11) All resident service records must be stored in a weatherproof and secure location. Access to records must be limited to the program administrator and direct care staff unless otherwise allowed in these rules.
(12) Pertinent information from records of a resident being transferred to another program must be transferred with the individual. A signed release of information must first be obtained in accordance with applicable laws and rules.
(13) If a program changes ownership or program administrator, all individual and personnel records must remain at the setting. Prior to the dissolution of any program, the program administrator must notify the Division in writing as to the location and storage of individual service records or those records must be transferred with the individual.
(14) The program must keep all records, except those transferred with a resident, for a period of three years.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.032, 443.400 - 443.465 & 443.991
- BHS 6-2026, amend filed 04/30/2026, effective 05/01/2026
- BHS 5-2026, amend filed 04/30/2026, effective 06/01/2026
- BHS 32-2025, temporary amend filed 12/30/2025, effective 01/01/2026 through 06/27/2026
- BHS 4-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- BHS 6-2024, amend filed 04/11/2024, effective 04/11/2024
- BHS 41-2023, temporary amend filed 10/12/2023, effective 10/15/2023 through 04/11/2024
- MHS 5-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-8-17
- MHS 2-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
- MHS 13-2016(Temp), f. 9-6-16, cert. ef. 9-7-16 thru 3-3-17
- MHD 4-2005, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-05
- MHD 4-1998, f. 5-21-98, cert. ef. 6-1-98
- MHD 9-1985, f. & cert. ef. 6-7-85
- MHD 9-1984(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 12-10-84
Or. Admin. R. 309-035-0135 Temporary rule language in effect until 11/25/2026. Staffing
(1) The provider must maintain a written job description for each staff position that specifies the position’s qualifications and job duties:
(a) A direct care staff person must be:
(A) At least 18 years of age;
(B) Be capable of implementing the setting’s emergency procedures and disaster plan; and
(C) Be capable of performing other duties of the job as described in the job description;
(b) All program staff having contact with a resident must have a documented current approved background check in accordance with OAR 943-007-0001 through 943-007-0501 prior to working alone with residents. All program staff must have a preliminary background check prior to working with residents under supervision of qualified staff. The provider must maintain documentation of current approved or preliminary background checks for each applicable staff person.
(c) A new background check must be completed:
(A) Every three years;
(B) Prior to any subject individual’s change in employment position; and
(C) If the Division has reason to believe a new background check is needed.
(d) All program staff must meet other qualifications when required by a contract or financing arrangement approved by the Division.
(2) Personnel policies must be made available to all program staff and must describe hiring, leave, promotion, and disciplinary practices.
(3) The program administrator must provide or arrange a minimum of 16 hours pre-service orientation for each program staff within 60 days of hire and prior to working alone with residents. Pre-service orientation training for direct care staff must include, but is not limited to:
(a) A comprehensive tour of the setting;
(b) A review of emergency procedures developed in accordance with OAR 309-035-0145;
(c) A review of setting policies and procedures;
(d) Background on mental, emotional, or behavioral disorders and conditions;
(e) Behavior management including interventions and de-escalation techniques;
(f) An overview of resident rights;
(g) Medication management procedures;
(h) Food service arrangements;
(i) Grievances, complaints and an overview of the Oregon Residential Facilities Ombudsperson program;
(j) A summary of each resident's assessment and residential service plan;
(k) Culturally responsive care;
(l) Completion of the approved course Mandatory Reporting for Individuals Working in Community Mental Health Programs;
(m) Completion of an approved HCBS training course; and
(n) Other information relevant to the job description and scheduled shifts.
(4) The program administrator must provide or arrange a minimum of 8 hours annual in-service training for each program staff: Annual in-service training topics for direct care staff must include but are not limited to:
(a) Culturally responsive care;
(b) Implementing residential service plans;
(c) Behavior management including interventions and de-escalation techniques;
(d) Daily living skills development;
(e) Nutrition;
(f) Opioid overdose kits and administration of an FDA-approved short-acting, non-injectable, opioid antagonist medication;
(g) Understanding mental illness;
(h) Sanitary food handling;
(i) Resident rights, freedoms, and protections;
(j) Identifying health care needs;
(k) Complaints, grievances, incidents and abuse reporting; and
(l) Psychotropic medications.
(5) The licensee must ensure that all direct care staff have and maintain current Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPR) and First Aid certifications from a Division-approved entity within 60 days of hire and prior to working alone with residents:
(a) Accepted CPR and First Aid courses must be provided by or meet the standards of the American Heart Association or the American Red Cross.
(b) CPR or First Aid courses conducted online are only accepted by the Division when an in-person skills competency check is conducted by a qualified instructor meeting the standards of the American Heart Association or the American Red Cross.
(6) The licensee must ensure that all program staff and entities contracting with the program to provide direct care must complete a general worker safety training within 90 days of hire and at least two years thereafter:
(a) This training must focus on providing program staff and contracted entities with skills and knowledge regarding:
(A) The potential risks that program staff may face in the work environment of a particular behavioral health setting, including but not limited to behavioral health settings involving mobile crisis intervention teams, as defined in ORS 430.626;
(B) Protocols for using safety equipment, emergency communication devices and alert systems in emergency or crisis situations; and
(C) The available options for reporting alleged workplace safety violations and allegations of discrimination, retaliation or harassment to the Occupational Safety and Health Division of the Department of Consumer and Business Services, the Bureau of Labor and Industries and other relevant state agencies, including the rights and protections afforded to workers who engage in such reporting.
(b) The training must incorporate simulated scenarios and roleplaying to ensure program staff and contracted entities have an opportunity to apply the training principles in real-world scenarios.
(c) The program must retain records documenting the completion of the training required under this section. At a minimum, the records must include the date of training, topics covered and the names of the program staff and contracted entities who attended the training. The records shall be made available, upon request, to the Division.
(7) All program staff and entities contracting with the program to provide direct care must complete a Division-approved LGBTQIA2S+ training within 60 days of hire and prior to working alone with residents and every two years thereafter. This training must include the following elements:
(a) Caring for LGBTQIA2S+ residents and residents living with human immunodeficiency virus;
(b) Preventing discrimination based on a resident’s sexual orientation, gender identity, gender expression, or human immunodeficiency virus status;
(c) The defined terms commonly associated with LGBTQIA2S+ individuals and human immunodeficiency virus status;
(d) Best practices for communicating with or about LGBTQIA2S+ residents and residents living with human immunodeficiency virus, including the use of an individual’s chosen name and pronouns;
(e) A description of the health and social challenges historically experienced by LGBTQIA2S+ residents and residents living with human immunodeficiency virus, including discrimination when seeking or receiving care and the demonstrated physical and mental health effects within the LGBTQIA2S+ community associated with such discrimination; and
(f) Strategies to create a safe and affirming environment for LGBTQIA2S+ residents and residents living with human immunodeficiency virus, including suggested changes to policies and procedures, forms, signage, communication between residents and their families, activities, in-house services, and staff training.
(g) Proof of all training completion must be documented in the program staff member’s individual personnel file as outlined in OAR 309-035-0125. Proof of training completion for entities contracting with the program must be maintained in the program files.
(8) The provider must ensure that an adequate number of trained and qualified program and direct care staff are available at all times to meet the treatment, health, and safety needs of all residents. Program staff must be scheduled to meet the changing needs and ensure safety of residents. Minimum staffing requirements are as follows:
(a) There must be at least one direct care staff on duty at all times;
(b) In the case of a specialized program, staffing requirements outlined in the contractual agreement for specialized services must be implemented and maintained at all times;
(c) Class I and Class II SRTFs must ensure staffing levels meet the requirements set forth in chapter 309, divisions 32 and 33 as applicable; and
(d) Program and direct care staff on night duty must be awake, dressed, observant of program operations, and accessible to residents at all times.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.032, 443.400 - 443.465 & 443.991
- BHS 13-2026, temporary amend filed 06/01/2026, effective 06/01/2026 through 11/25/2026
- BHS 6-2026, amend filed 04/30/2026, effective 05/01/2026
- BHS 5-2026, amend filed 04/30/2026, effective 06/01/2026
- BHS 32-2025, temporary amend filed 12/30/2025, effective 01/01/2026 through 06/27/2026
- BHS 4-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- BHS 15-2024, amend filed 06/25/2024, effective 07/01/2024
- BHS 1-2024, temporary amend filed 01/09/2024, effective 01/10/2024 through 04/11/2024
- MHS 5-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-8-17
- MHS 2-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
- MHS 13-2016(Temp), f. 9-6-16, cert. ef. 9-7-16 thru 3-3-17
- MHD 4-2005, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-05
- MHD 4-1998, f. 5-21-98, cert. ef. 6-1-98
- MHD 9-1985, f. & ef. 6-7-85
- MHD 9-1984(Temp), f. & ef. 12-10-84
Or. Admin. R. 309-035-0140 Temporary rule language in effect until 11/25/2026. Setting Requirements
(1) The provider must ensure that the setting requirements are met for the occupancy classification designated by the Oregon Building Code and the Oregon Fire Code prior to initial licensure. When a change in setting use results in a new building occupancy classification, the program’s setting must meet the requirements of the building occupancy classification. The provider must provide the Division a certificate of occupancy for the setting use upon request.
(2) Programs must be accessible as follows:
(a) Those settings or portions of settings that are licensed, constructed, or renovated after January 26, 1992, and that are covered multi-family dwellings or public accommodations must meet the physical accessibility requirements in chapters 10 and 11 of the Oregon Structural Specialty Codes. These codes specify requirements for public accommodations as defined in the Americans with Disabilities Act under Title III and for buildings qualifying as multi-family dwellings as defined in the Fair Housing Act as amended in 1988;
(b) In order to ensure program accessibility under Title II of the Americans with Disabilities Act, the Division may require additional accessibility improvements; and
(c) Any accessibility improvements made to accommodate an identified resident must be in accordance with the specific needs of the resident.
(3) An accessible outdoor area is required and must be made available to all residents. For programs or portions thereof licensed on or after June 1, 1998, a portion of the accessible outdoor area must be covered and have an all-weather surface such as a patio or deck.
(4) The setting must have sufficient and safe storage areas that include but not limited to:
(a) Storage for a reasonable number of resident belongings beyond that available in the resident’s unit must be provided appropriate to the size of the setting;
(b) All maintenance equipment including yard maintenance tools must be maintained in adequate storage space. Locked storage for equipment and tools is to be utilized if necessary for the individualized safety of one or more residents; and
(c) Storage areas necessary to ensure a functional, safe, and sanitary environment consistent with OAR 309-035-0140 through 0155 and 309-035-0210 through 0215.
(5) The provider must provide a unit for each resident, although the program may maintain units to be shared by more than one resident consistent with these rules. The unit must include sleeping accommodations for the resident and be separated from other areas of the setting by an operable door with an approved latching device. The provider must maintain units as follows:
(a) For programs licensed prior to June 1, 1998, units must be a minimum of 60 square feet per resident and allow for a minimum of three feet between beds;
(b) For programs or portions thereof initially licensed on or after June 1, 1998, units must be limited to one or two residents. At least ten percent of units, but no less than one unit, must be accessible for residents with mobility disabilities. All units must include a minimum of 70 square feet per resident exclusive of closets, vestibules, and bathroom facilities and allow a minimum of three feet between beds;
(c) The provider must provide a lockable entrance door to each unit for the resident’s privacy, except as otherwise limited under OAR 309-035-0110(5), as follows:
(A) The locking device must release with a single-action lever on the inside of the room and open to a hall or common-use room;
(B) The provider must provide each resident with a personalized key that operates only the door to their unit from the corridor side;
(C) The provider must maintain a master key to access all the units that is easily and quickly available to the provider, program administrator, and appropriate program staff;
(D) The provider may not disable or remove a lock to a unit unless the provider has a signed consent to an individually-based limitation from the resident or the resident’s legal representative, or as permitted under OAR 309-035-0110(5) through (8) and OAR 309-035-0195; and
(d) A clothes closet with adequate clothes hanging rods must be accessible within each unit for each resident residing in the unit, for storage of each resident’s clothing and personal belongings. For programs initially licensed on or after June 1, 1998, built-in closet space must be provided totaling a minimum of 64 cubic feet for each resident. In an accessible unit, the clothes hanging rod height must be adjustable or no more than 54 inches in height to ensure accessibility for a resident using a wheelchair; and
(e) Each unit must have exterior windows with a minimum net clear opening of 5.7 square feet. The window must readily open from the inside without special tools and must provide a clear, unobstructed opening with the minimum dimensions not less than 24 inches in height and 20 inches in width. The bottom of the opening must not be greater than 44 inches from the floor.
(f) Unit windows must be equipped with curtains or blinds for privacy and light control. For programs or portions of programs initially licensed on or after June 1, 1998, an escape window must be provided consistent with building code requirements.
(6) For programs initially licensed on or after June 1, 1998, all resident use areas and resident units must:
(a) Be accessible through temperature controlled common areas or hallways;
(b) Meet the size requirements as established by the State of Oregon Building Codes Division or their designee; and
(c) Have accessible routes between accessible bedrooms and bathrooms and between common areas and required exits.
(7) The setting must have sufficient space for confidential storage of both resident service records and business records, for program staff use in completing record-keeping tasks, and for a telephone.
(8) Equipment, including fire alarm panels and other annunciators, must be installed in an area readily accessible to staff in accordance with the Oregon Fire Code.
(9) Bathing and toilet facilities must be conveniently located for resident use and must:
(a) Provide permanently wired light fixtures that illuminate all parts of the room;
(b) Provide individual privacy for residents;
(c) Provide a securely affixed mirror at eye level;
(d) Be adequately ventilated; and
(e) Include sufficient facilities specially equipped for use by residents with a physical disability in buildings serving such residents.
(10) In programs licensed prior to June 1, 1998, a minimum of one toilet and one lavatory must be available for each eight residents, and one bathtub or shower must be available for each ten residents; and
(11) In programs or portions of programs initially licensed on or after June 1, 1998, a minimum of one toilet and one lavatory must be available for each six residents, and a minimum of one bathtub or shower must be available for each ten residents, when these fixtures are not available in units. At least one centralized bathroom along an accessible route must be designed for disabled access in accordance with chapters 10 and 11 of the Oregon Structural Specialty Code.
(12) The setting must include lounge and activity areas for social and recreational use by residents, program staff and invited guests of residents totaling no less than 15 square feet per resident.
(13) Laundry facilities must be separate from food preparation and other resident use areas. When residential laundry equipment is installed, the laundry facilities may be located to allow for both resident and staff use. In programs initially licensed on or after June 1, 1998, separate residential laundry facilities must be provided when the primary laundry facilities are located in another building, are of commercial type, or are otherwise not suitable for resident use. The following must be included in the primary laundry facilities:
(a) Countertops or spaces for folding tables sufficient to handle laundry needs for the program;
(b) Locked storage for chemicals and equipment to be utilized if necessary for the for the individualized safety of one or more residents;
(c) Outlets, venting, and water hook-ups according to state building code requirements;
(d) Washers must have a minimum rinse temperature of 155 degrees Fahrenheit (160 degrees Fahrenheit recommended) unless a chemical disinfectant is used; and
(e) Sufficient storage and handling space to ensure that clean laundry is not contaminated by soiled laundry.
(14) Kitchen facilities and equipment in a setting may be of residential type except as required by the state building code and fire code or local agencies having jurisdiction. The setting’s kitchen must have the following:
(a) Dry storage space not subject to freezing in cabinets or a separate pantry for a minimum of one week's supply of staple foods;
(b) Sufficient refrigeration space for a minimum of two days’ supply of perishable foods. The space must be maintained at 40 degrees Fahrenheit or less and freezer space maintained at 0 degrees Fahrenheit or less;
(c) A dishwasher may be approved residential type with a minimum final rinse temperature of 155 degrees Fahrenheit (160 degrees recommended) unless chemical disinfectant is used;
(d) A separate food preparation sink, and hand washing sink;
(e) Smooth, nonabsorbent and cleanable counters for food preparation and serving;
(f) Appropriate storage for dishes and cooking utensils designed to be free from potential contamination;
(g) Stove and oven equipment for cooking and baking needs;
(h) Storage for a mop and other cleaning tools and supplies used for food preparation for dining and adjacent areas. Cleaning tools must be maintained separately from those used to clean other parts of the setting; and
(i) Locked storage for all kitchen knives.
(15) The setting must have a separate dining room or an area where meals are served for use by residents, employees, and invited guests of residents:
(a) In programs licensed prior to June 1, 1998, the setting’s dining area must seat at least half of the residents at one time with a minimum area of 15 square feet per resident; and
(b) In programs or portions of programs initially licensed on or after June 1, 1998, the setting’s dining space must seat all residents with a minimum area of 15 square feet per resident exclusive of serving facilities and required exit pathways.
(16) All details and finishes must meet the finish requirements of applicable sections of the Building Code and the Fire Code as follows:
(a) Surfaces of all walls, ceilings, windows, and equipment must be nonabsorbent and readily cleanable;
(b) The setting’s flooring, thresholds and floor junctures must be designed and installed to prevent a tripping hazard and to minimize resistance for passage of wheelchairs and other ambulation aids. In addition, hard surface floors and baseboards must be free from cracks and breaks, and bathing areas must have non-slip surfaces;
(c) In programs or portions of programs initially licensed on or after June 1, 1998, all doors to units, bathrooms, and common use areas must provide a minimum clear opening of 32 inches;
(d) In all programs, lever type door hardware must be provided on all doors used by residents;
(e) Locks used on doors to resident units must be interactive to release with operation of the inside door handle and comply with the requirements established by OAR 309-035-0140(7)(c)(A), (B) and (D);
(A) Exit doors must not include locks that prevent evacuation except in accordance with building code and fire code requirements and with written approval of the Division; and
(B) An exterior door alarm or other acceptable system may be provided for security purposes and to alert staff when residents or others enter or exit the setting.
(f) Handrails must be provided on all stairways as specified in the Building Code.
(17) All areas of the setting must be adequately ventilated, and temperature controlled in accordance with the Mechanical and Building Code requirements:
(a) Each setting must have and maintain heating and cooling equipment capable of maintaining a minimum temperature of 68 degrees Fahrenheit and a maximum temperature not exceeding 78 degrees Fahrenheit.
(b) All toilet and shower rooms must be adequately ventilated with a mechanical exhaust fan, window mounted exhaust fan, or central exhaust system that discharges to the outside;
(c) Where used, the design and installation of fireplaces, furnaces, wood stoves and boilers must meet standards of the Oregon Mechanical Specialty Code and the Oregon Boiler and Pressure Vessel Specialty Code, as applicable, in effect at the time of installation. Documentation of annual inspection noting safe and proper operation must be maintained at the setting; and
(d) In resident-use areas, hot water temperatures must be maintained within a range of 110 to 120 degrees Fahrenheit. Hot water temperatures in laundry and kitchen areas must be at least 155 degrees Fahrenheit.
(18) All wiring systems and electrical circuits must meet the standards of Oregon Electrical Specialty Code in effect on the date of installation.
(19) All electrical devices must be properly wired and in good repair. The provider must ensure the following:
(a) When not fully grounded, circuits in resident use areas must be protected by GFCI type receptacles or circuit breakers as an acceptable alternative;
(b) A sufficient supply of electrical outlets must be provided to meet resident and staff needs;
(c) No more than one power strip may be utilized for each electrical outlet;
(d) Connecting power strips to one another or use of other outlet expansion devices is prohibited; and
(e) Extension cord use in units and common use rooms is prohibited.
(20) Lighting fixtures must be provided in each resident unit and bathroom, switchable near the entry door and in other areas as required to meet task illumination.
(21) Lighting fixtures that illuminate evacuation pathways must be operable within ten seconds during a failure of the normal power supply and provide illumination for a period of at least two hours.
(22) All plumbing must meet the Oregon Plumbing Specialty Code in effect on the date of installation.
(23) All plumbing fixtures must be properly installed and in good repair.
(24) The program must provide adequate access to telephones for private use by residents. The program must not limit the hours of availability for telephone use. A program may establish guidelines for fair and equal use of a shared telephone. Each resident or resident’s representative is responsible for payment of long-distance phone bills where the calls were initiated by the resident, unless other mutually agreed arrangements have been made.
(25) Smoking and the use of smokeless tobacco is not allowed within the setting including within buildings or on the grounds.
(26) Secure settings must have the following security protocols in place:
(a) Exit doors which remain locked at all times to prevent residents from leaving the facility without authorization;
(b) Exterior doors and windows must be alarmed to notify staff of a resident leaving the facility; and
(c) A barrier or fence of solid construction around the outdoor area to prevent residents from leaving the property without authorization.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.032, 443.400 - 443.465 & 443.991
- BHS 13-2026, temporary amend filed 06/01/2026, effective 06/01/2026 through 11/25/2026
- BHS 7-2026, temporary amend filed 05/14/2026, effective 05/15/2026 through 05/31/2026
- BHS 6-2026, amend filed 04/30/2026, effective 05/01/2026
- BHS 5-2026, amend filed 04/30/2026, effective 06/01/2026
- BHS 32-2025, temporary amend filed 12/30/2025, effective 01/01/2026 through 06/27/2026
- BHS 4-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- BHS 6-2024, amend filed 04/11/2024, effective 04/11/2024
- BHS 41-2023, temporary amend filed 10/12/2023, effective 10/15/2023 through 04/11/2024
- MHS 5-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-8-17
- MHS 2-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
- MHS 13-2016(Temp), f. 9-6-16, cert. ef. 9-7-16 thru 3-3-17
- MHD 4-2005, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-05
- MHD 4-1998, f. 5-21-98, cert. ef. 6-1-98
- MHD 9-1985, f. & ef. 6-7-85
- MHD 9-1984(Temp), f. & ef. 12-10-84
Or. Admin. R. 309-035-0145 Temporary rule language in effect until 11/25/2026. Safety
(1) The provider must train all program staff in safety procedures prior to beginning their first regular shift.
(2) Every resident must be trained in resident safety procedures as soon as possible within the first 72 hours of residency.
(3) The program must develop and implement a written emergency procedure and disaster plan. The plan must cover such emergencies and disasters as fires, explosions, missing persons, accidents, earthquakes, lockdowns, infectious disease outbreaks, loss of utilities, hazardous air quality, floods, and extreme weather events. The plan must be immediately available at all times to the program administrator and program staff. The plan must include diagrams of the program’s evacuation egress routes, and these must also be posted along evacuation egress routes. The plan must specify short-range and long-range shelters where residents will reside and receive services from program staff if the setting becomes uninhabitable. This plan must be easily accessible to all program staff. The program must update the plan annually to include:
(a) Emergency instructions for employees;
(b) The telephone numbers of the local fire department, police department, the poison control center, the administrator, the administrator's designee, and other persons to be contacted in emergencies; and
(c) Instructions for the evacuation of residents and employees.
(4) Noncombustible and nonhazardous materials must be used whenever possible. When necessary to the operation of the program, flammable and combustible liquids and other hazardous materials must be safely and properly stored in clearly labeled, original containers in areas secure to prevent tampering by residents or vandals and in accordance with the Oregon Fire Code. Any quantities of combustible and hazardous materials maintained must be the minimum necessary:
(a) Oxygen and other gas cylinders in service or in storage must be adequately secured to prevent the cylinders from falling or being knocked over.
(b) No smoking signs must be visibly posted where oxygen is stored or used;
(c) Liquid propane gas must not be stored in an attached garage or enclosed storage space. Enclosed structures used for the storage of liquid propane gas may not share a wall or direct openings to the program.
(5) Non-toxic cleaning supplies must be used whenever possible. Poisonous and other toxic materials must be properly labeled and stored apart from all personal care supplies, personal hygiene supplies, food and medications.
(6) Evacuation capability categories are based upon the ability of the residents and program staff as a group to evacuate the building or relocate from a point of occupancy to a point of safety. Buildings must be constructed and equipped according to a designated evacuation capability for occupants:
(a) Only residents assessed to be capable of evacuating in accordance with the designated facility evacuation capability may be admitted to the program; and
(b) Residents experiencing difficulty with evacuating in a timely manner must be provided assistance from staff and offered environmental and other accommodations, as practical. Under such circumstances, the program must consider increasing staff levels, changing staff assignments, offering to change the resident’s room assignment, arranging for special equipment, and taking other actions to assist the resident. The program must assist residents who still cannot evacuate the building safely in the allowable period of time and must assist with transferring to another facility with an evacuation capability designation consistent with the resident's documented evacuation capability.
(7) The program must ensure that every resident participates in an unannounced evacuation drill at least once every three months:
(a) At least once every twelve months, the program must conduct a drill during resident sleeping hours between 10 p.m. and 6 a.m.;
(b) Drills must be scheduled at different times of the day, on different days of the week and with different locations designated as the origin of the fire for drill purposes;
(c) Any resident failing to evacuate within the established time limits must be provided with assistance as identified in OAR 309-035-0145(6)(b) above and a notation made in the resident service record; and
(d) Complete written evacuation records must be maintained for at least three years. Records must include documentation made at the time of the drill specifying the date and time of the drill, the location designated as the origin of the fire for drill purposes, weather conditions at the time of the drill, the names of all residents and staff present, the amount of time required for each individual and staff to evacuate to the point of safety, notes of any difficulties experienced, and the signature of the staff person conducting the drill.
(8) All stairways, halls, doorways, passageways, and exits from rooms and from the building must always remain unobstructed.
(9) The program must provide and maintain one or more 2-A:10-B:C rated fire extinguishers on each floor, including basements, in accordance with the Oregon Fire Code. Fire extinguisher must:
(a) Be inspected and maintained at least annually and in accordance with the requirements of the Oregon State Fire Marshal or local authority having jurisdiction;
(b) Be located in conspicuous locations along normal paths of travel where they will have ready access and be immediately available for use;
(c) Not be obscured from view. In rooms or areas in which visual obstruction cannot be completely avoided, signage must be provided to indicate the locations of extinguishers;
(d) Be installed on the hangers or brackets supplied. Hangers or brackets must be securely anchored to the mounting surface in accordance with the manufacturer’s installation instructions;
(e) Be installed so that the tops are not more than five (5) feet above the floor;
(f) Be installed so that the bottoms are not less than four (4) inches above the floor; and
(g) Not be locked.
(10) The program must provide and maintain at least one plug-in rechargeable flashlight available for emergency lighting in a readily accessible area on each floor.
(11) The program must provide and maintain evacuation route diagrams in each common room and hallway and immediately adjacent to every egress door. Evacuation diagrams must include fire exits, location of fire extinguishers, stairs, and escape routes.
(12) Approved fire detection and alarm systems, carbon monoxide alarms, and smoke alarms must be UL approved and installed according to Building Code and Oregon Fire Code requirements and the manufacturer’s instructions.
(13) Fire detection and alarm systems, carbon monoxide alarms and smoke alarms must be tested monthly.
(14) Programs initially licensed on or after February 1, 2025, must have fire detection and alarm systems, carbon monoxide alarms, and smoke alarms that are interconnected and permanently wired with battery back-up.
(15) Carbon monoxide alarms must be installed:
(a) In each bedroom or within 15 feet outside of each bedroom door; and
(b) On each level of the setting when bedrooms are on separate floor levels.
(16) The program must provide appropriate signal devices for persons with disabilities who do not respond to the standard auditory alarms. All assistive devices must be inspected and maintained in accordance with the requirements of the Oregon State Fire Marshal or local authority having jurisdiction.
(17) The program must install and maintain an automatic sprinkler system in compliance with Building Codes and Oregon Fire Code. The program must install an automated sprinkler system as follows:
(a) Programs initially licensed prior to July 1, 2016, are not required to install or maintain a sprinkler system if one was not present at the time of initial licensure;
(b) The Division recommends that all programs licensed prior to July 1, 2016, install and maintain sprinkler systems;
(c) Program initially licensed on or after July 1, 2016, must have and maintain an automated sprinkler system.
(d) The Building Code Authority or designee may determine that a program is not required to install and maintain a sprinkler system. Any determination made by the Building Code Authority or designee must be submitted to the Division in writing.
(18) The Division will not issue any variances related to automatic sprinkler systems in programs licensed on or after July 1, 2016.
(19) First aid supplies must be readily accessible to staff. All supplies must be properly labeled.
(20) Portable heaters are a recognized safety hazard and may not be used except as approved by the Oregon State Fire Marshal, or authorized representative.
(21) The provider must develop and implement a comprehensive safety plan to identify, prevent, and respond to hazards within the program. Hazards may include, but are not limited to, extreme heat, communicable diseases, dangerous substances, sharp objects, unprotected electrical outlets, use of extension cords or other electrical adapters, slippery floors or stairs, exposed heating devices, broken glass, inadequate water temperatures, unsafe ashtrays and ash disposal, and other potential fire hazards. The provider must update the plan as needed and it must include:
(a) Procedures for maintaining the safety of the built environment including, but not limited to how program staff can report structural security hazards and timelines for the program’s response to these identified hazards, methods for maintaining the safety of the built environment, and protocols to ensure the physical safety of lone workers; and
(b) Procedures for notifying the local public health agency when significant health risks are present, including but not limited to, communicable and noncommunicable diseases and conditions, pest infestations, and other environmental hazards.
(22) Safety equipment must be checked monthly, including but not limited to, fire extinguishers, flashlights, windows, dryer vents, and furnace filters.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.032, 443.400 - 443.465 & 443.991
- BHS 13-2026, temporary amend filed 06/01/2026, effective 06/01/2026 through 11/25/2026
- BHS 6-2026, amend filed 04/30/2026, effective 05/01/2026
- BHS 5-2026, amend filed 04/30/2026, effective 06/01/2026
- BHS 32-2025, temporary amend filed 12/30/2025, effective 01/01/2026 through 06/27/2026
- BHS 9-2025, minor correction filed 04/08/2025, effective 04/08/2025
- BHS 4-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- MHS 5-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-8-17
- MHS 2-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
- MHS 13-2016(Temp), f. 9-6-16, cert. ef. 9-7-16 thru 3-3-17
- MHS 4-2008, f. & cert. ef. 6-12-08
- MHD 4-2005, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-05
- MHD 4-1998, f. 5-21-98, cert. ef. 6-1-98
- MHD 9-1985, f. & ef. 6-7-85
- MHD 9-1984(Temp), f. & ef. 12-10-84
Or. Admin. R. 309-035-0150 Sanitation
(1) The water supply in the program must meet the requirements of the current rules of Oregon Health Authority Public Health Division governing domestic water supplies and:
(a) A municipal water supply must be utilized if available; and
(b) When the program is not served by an approved municipal water system and the program qualifies as a public water system according to OAR 333-061-0020(127) Public Health Division rules for public water systems, then the provider must comply with the OAR Chapter 333 rules of the Public Health Division pertaining to public water systems. These include requirements that the drinking water be tested for total coliform bacteria at least quarterly and nitrate at least annually and reported to the Public Health Division. For adverse test results, these rules require that repeat samples and corrective action be taken to assure compliance with water quality standards, public notice be given whenever a violation of the water quality standards occurs, and records of water testing be retained according to the Public Health Division requirements.
(2) All floors, walls, ceilings, windows, furniture, and equipment must be kept in good repair, clean, sanitary, neat, and orderly.
(3) Each bathtub, shower, lavatory, and toilet must be kept clean, in good repair, and regularly sanitized.
(4) No kitchen sink, lavatory, bathtub, or shower may be used for the disposal of cleaning wastewater.
(5) Soiled linens and clothing must be stored in an area or container separate from kitchens, dining areas, clean linens, clothing, and food.
(6) All necessary measures must be taken to prevent rodents and insects from entering the setting. The provider must take appropriate action to eliminate rodents or insects immediately.
(7) The grounds of the setting must be kept orderly and reasonably free of litter, unused articles, and refuse:
(a) Outdoor walkways must be free of trip hazards;
(b) Fencing, if present on the property, must be maintained to be safe and in good condition.
(c) Roofing and gutters must be free of debris and moss buildup; and
(d) Decks, railings, and siding must have a weather resistant coating and be free of cracks and chips.
(8) Garbage and refuse receptacles must be clean, durable, watertight, insect and rodent proof, and must be kept covered with tight-fitting lids. All garbage and solid waste must be disposed of at least weekly and in compliance with the current rules of the Oregon Department of Environmental Quality (DEQ).
(9) All sewage and liquid wastes must be disposed of in a municipal sewage system where such facilities are available. If a municipal sewage system is not available, sewage and liquid wastes must be collected, treated, and disposed of in compliance with the current rules of the DEQ. Sewage lines, septic tanks or other non-municipal sewage disposal systems must be maintained in good working order.
(10) Biohazardous waste must be safely stored and disposed of in compliance with the rules of the Oregon Department of Environmental Quality (DEQ).
(11) Precautions must be taken to prevent the spread of infectious or communicable diseases as defined by the U.S. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention to minimize or eliminate exposure to known health hazards; Program staff must employ universal precautions whereby all human blood and certain body fluids are treated if known to be infectious for HIV, HBV, or other blood borne pathogens.
(12) If pets or other household animals reside at the setting, sanitation practices must be implemented to prevent health hazards:
(a) Animals must be vaccinated in accordance with the recommendations of a licensed veterinarian. Documentation of vaccinations must be maintained on the premises;
(b) Animals not confined in enclosures must be under control and maintained in a manner that does not adversely impact residents or others; and
(c) No live animal may be kept or allowed in any portion of the setting where food is stored or prepared, except that aquariums and aviaries may be allowed if enclosed so as not to create a health hazard.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 443.400 - 443.465 & 443.991
- BHS 6-2026, amend filed 04/30/2026, effective 05/01/2026
- BHS 5-2026, amend filed 04/30/2026, effective 06/01/2026
- BHS 32-2025, temporary amend filed 12/30/2025, effective 01/01/2026 through 06/27/2026
- BHS 4-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- MHS 5-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-8-17
- MHS 2-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
- MHS 13-2016(Temp), f. 9-6-16, cert. ef. 9-7-16 thru 3-3-17
- MHS 4-2008, f. & cert. ef. 6-12-08
- MHD 4-2005, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-05
- MHD 4-1998, f. 5-21-98, cert. ef. 6-1-98
- MHD 9-1985, f. & ef. 6-7-85
- MHD 9-1984(Temp), f. & ef. 12-10-84
Or. Admin. R. 309-035-0155 Individual Furnishings
(1) The program must permit a resident to use the resident’s own furniture within space limitations of the resident’s unit. Otherwise, furniture must be provided or arranged for each resident, maintained in good repair, and must include the following:
(a) A bed including a frame, a clean mattress and pillow;
(b) A private dresser or similar storage area for personal belongings that is readily accessible to the resident; and
(c) Locked storage for the resident’s small, personal belongings. Additional locked storage may be provided in a place other than the resident’s unit. The provider must provide the resident with a key or other method to gain access to their locked storage space.
(2) The program must provide linens for each resident and must include the following:
(a) Sheets, pillowcase, and other bedding appropriate to the season and the resident’s comfort;
(b) Availability of a waterproof mattress or waterproof mattress cover; and
(c) Towels and washcloths.
(3) The provider must provide each resident culturally responsive personal hygiene items in accordance with individualized resident’s needs. Personal hygiene items must be stored in a clean and sanitary manner. Personal hygiene items include, but are not limited to, soap, shampoo, toilet paper, toothbrushes, toothpaste, menstrual supplies, combs, and hairbrushes.
(4) An adequate supply of furniture for resident use in living room, dining room, and other common areas must be provided and maintained in good condition.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 443.400 - 443.465 & 443.991
- BHS 4-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- MHS 5-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-8-17
- MHS 2-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
- MHS 13-2016(Temp), f. 9-6-16, cert. ef. 9-7-16 thru 3-3-17
- MHS 5-2009, f. & cert. ef. 12-17-09
- MHD 4-2005, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-05
- MHD 4-1998, f. 5-21-98, cert. ef. 6-1-98
- MHD 9-1985, f. & ef. 6-7-85
- MHD 9-1984(Temp), f. & ef. 12-10-84
Or. Admin. R. 309-035-0156 Temporary rule language in effect until 11/25/2026. Screening
(1) The provider must ensure the screening and referral policies and procedures process include:
(a) The program staff responsible for each component of the screening and referral information gathering and decision-making process. The program must allocate responsibilities to promote effective processing of referrals and completion of screenings.
(b) Considerations for the placement of prospective residents by a supervisory authority under ORS chapters 161 or 426 or by the informed consent of the prospective resident’s legal representative, the ability of the program to meet the service needs of both the prospective resident and current residents of the program, and the prospective resident’s right to select and choose from available service settings when the prospective resident has the capacity to engage in the treatment programs offered by the program. A prospective resident under civil commitment has the right to appeal the placement by the OHA designee as outlined in OAR 309-033-0290(5).
(2) The provider must support the prospective resident’s right to select a program by assisting the person-centered service plan coordinator in identifying and documenting program options in the person-centered service plan, including providing information regarding program services and rates. The prospective resident’s right to select a service setting may be limited by a court, OHA, CMHP, or PSRB order under ORS chapters 161 or 426, or by the informed consent of the prospective resident’s legal representative.
(3) Unless limited by contractual agreement with the Division, the program must accept and process referrals from:
(a) Oregon Health Authority or its designee;
(b) Hospitals;
(c) County Mental Health Programs;
(d) Licensed Residential Treatment Facilities and Homes; and
(e) Licensed Mental Health Adult Foster Homes.
(4) In accordance with ORS 179.505 and the 42 CFR, Part 2, the program shall obtain an authorization for the release of information for disclosure of any confidential information concerning a prospective individual.
(5) The provider must consider a prospective resident for admission and not discriminate based on race, color, sex, gender or sexual orientation, except as may be limited by room arrangement, religion, creed, national origin, age, except under 18 years, familial status, marital status, source of income, cultural identity, socioeconomic status, or disability in addition to the serious mental illness or other protected classes.
(6) Prior to accepting a prospective resident for admission to the program, the program administrator must determine the prospective resident meets admission criteria including the following:
(a) The provider must offer each prospective resident referred for placement at the program an opportunity to participate in a screening interview prior to being accepted or denied placement at a program, except as described in OAR 309-035-0157(10)(d). The screening is intended to provide information about the program and the services available as well as to obtain information from the prospective resident, a relative, and agencies currently providing services to the prospective resident sufficient to determine eligibility for admission and service needs; and
(b) The provider must receive screening packets for each prospective resident referred for placement. At a minimum, screening packets must include:
(A) Written documentation that the prospective resident has or is suspected of having a serious mental illness;
(B) Background information including a description of previous living arrangements, service history, behavioral support needs, service needs, historical health conditions, current physical condition, and any current or recommended medications, treatments, dietary specifications, and aids to physical functioning;
(C) Copies of documentation relating to guardianship, conservatorship, commitment status, advance directives, declaration for mental health treatment, conditions of placement if on a trial visit or outpatient commitment, or any other legal restrictions or jurisdiction;
(D) Documentation demonstrating the individual’s ability to pay for room and board and eligibility for Medicaid services as outlined in OAR 410-120-1140, or equivalent funds to pay for services.
(c) Providers are not required to screen incomplete referrals. The referring entity must:
(A) Be notified of the incomplete status within ten (10) business days of the referral's receipt; and
(B) The notification must include a description identifying information missing from the referral.
(d) The provider must ensure that screenings be conducted at the prospective program setting unless:
(A) Travel arrangements cannot be made due to inclement weather; or
(B) The prospective resident or their legal representative requests a remote screening or screening at the prospective resident’s current location.
(e) The provider must contact the referring agency to schedule a screening appointment within 48 hours of receipt of the referral packet;
(f) The provider must coordinate with the referring agency to schedule a screening appointment to occur within 14 calendar days from the date of receipt of the referral packet;
(g) The provider must provide the following to each prospective referred for placement:
(A) Materials explaining conditions of residency;
(B) Services available to resident residing in the program; and
(C) An opportunity to meet with a prospective roommate if the program uses a shared room model.
(h) The screening meeting must include the program administrator, the prospective resident, and the prospective resident’s legal representative, if applicable. With the consent of the prospective resident or the prospective resident’s legal representative, the meeting may also include family members, representatives of relevant service-providing agencies, and others with an interest in the prospective resident’s admission.
(7) If a prospective resident is referred for emergency admission, an amended or abbreviated screening process may be used to more quickly meet the needs of the prospective resident. Screening and admission information obtained may be less comprehensive than for regular admissions but must be sufficient to determine the prospective resident meets admission criteria and that the setting and program is appropriate considering the prospective resident’s needs. The program must document the reasons for incomplete information.
(8) Prior to admission, the provider must evaluate and determine whether a prospective individual is eligible for admission based on the following criteria. The prospective resident must:
(a) Be assessed to have a mental health disorder or a suspected mental health disorder;
(b) Be at least 18 years of age;
(c) Not require continuous nursing care unless a reasonable plan to provide the care exists, the need for residential treatment supersedes the need for nursing care, and the Division approves the placement;
(d) Have evacuation capability consistent with the setting's occupancy classification with or without assistance as described in OAR 309-035-0145(6)(b);
(e) Have a verified funding source for the purpose of receiving care and services in a licensed setting including verification of Medicaid eligibility and coverage, as applicable;
(f) Meet additional criteria required or approved by the Division through contractual agreement or condition of licensing.
(9) For admission to an SRTF, the provider must also evaluate and determine whether a prospective resident is eligible for admission, based on the prospective resident meeting all criteria in OAR 410-172-0720(7).
(10) The provider may only deny a prospective resident admission to its program for the following reasons:
(a) Failure to meet admission criteria established by these rules;
(b) Inability to pay for services due to lack of presumed Medicaid eligibility or other funds;
(c) Lack of availability of necessary medical services required to maintain the health and safety of the prospective resident and those services cannot be reasonably arranged; or
(d) The prospective resident declines the offer for screening, unless the placement of the prospective resident is by a supervisory authority under ORS chapters 161 or 426 or by the informed consent of the prospective resident’s legal representative.
(11) The provider may not deny a prospective resident admission to its program as follows:
(a) Prior to offering a face-to-face screening or other screening process as allowed by these rules unless the program waitlist is currently closed as outlined in OAR 309-035-0157(10)(d); or
(b) Due to county of origin, responsibility, or residency; or
(c) Due to supervisory entity.
(12) The provider’s decision must be based on review of screening materials, information gathered during the face-to-face screening meeting, and evaluation of the admission criteria.
(13) The program must inform the prospective resident, and the prospective resident’s legal representative, supervisory entity, and referring entity, as applicable, of the admission decisions within 72 hours of the screening meeting.
(14) When the program denies admission, the program shall provide written notification to the prospective resident and the prospective resident’s legal representative, supervisory entity, and referring entity, as applicable, of the specific basis for the decision and the prospective resident’s right to appeal the decision.
(15) When the program approves admission, the program must inform the prospective resident’s and the prospective resident’s legal representative, supervisory entity, and referring entity, as applicable, through an acceptance notification that must include:
(a) When not waitlisted or first on the waitlist, an estimated date of admission; and
(b) When waitlisted, the number on the waitlist
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & ORS 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.032, ORS 443.400 - 443.465 & ORS 443.991
- BHS 13-2026, temporary amend filed 06/01/2026, effective 06/01/2026 through 11/25/2026
- BHS 9-2026, temporary amend filed 05/21/2026, effective 05/21/2026 through 05/31/2026
- BHS 5-2026, adopt filed 04/30/2026, effective 06/01/2026
- BHS 32-2025, temporary adopt filed 12/30/2025, effective 01/01/2026 through 06/27/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-035-0158 Temporary rule language in effect until 11/25/2026. Waitlist Management
(1) Management of waitlists includes the following:
(a) The program must establish admission waitlists;
(b) The program must document actions taken in the management of the waitlist; and
(c) The program must verify and update their waitlist by contacting the waitlisted prospective resident, the prospective resident’s legal representative, and the referring entity, as applicable to confirm continued need for placement. All verifications must be documented.
(2) The program must prioritize admissions on a waitlist as follows:
(a) The program must give first priority consideration to each of those prospective residents who are seeking to transition from the Oregon State Hospital into the community and are:
(A) A candidate for court-ordered community restoration as an aid and assist defendant pursuant to ORS chapter 161; or
(B) Found guilty except for insanity of a criminal offense and is currently under the jurisdiction of the Psychiatric Security Review Board pursuant to ORS 161.327.
(b) The program must give second priority consideration to each of those prospective residents who are seeking to transition from the Oregon State Hospital into the community and are under a current civil commitment, voluntary by guardian, or extremely dangerous person commitment pursuant to ORS chapter 426.
(c) The program must give third priority consideration for admission to those prospective residents seeking admission to programs such as:
(A) A candidate for court-ordered community restoration as an aid and assist defendant
(B) A candidate for court-ordered conditional release who has been found guilty except for insanity of a criminal offense and will be placed under the jurisdiction of the Psychiatric Security Review Board pursuant to ORS 161.327; or
(C) A candidate for court-ordered commitment to a facility designated by OHA and who is found guilty except for insanity of a criminal offense pursuant to ORS 161.328.
(d) The program must give fourth priority consideration to those prospective residents seeking admissions to programs:
(A) As an alternative to or to prevent civil commitment or placement at the Oregon State Hospital;
(B) For the purpose of transitioning from a program or a secure residential treatment facility; or
(C) For the purpose of transitioning from a community hospital to a community placement.
(e) The program must give fifth priority consideration to those prospective residents who do not meet the criteria establish in subsection (2)(a), (b), (c), or (d) of this rule.
(3) The program must determine priority for admission based on the priorities described in OAR 309-035-0158(2) and based on the earliest date of receipt of the complete referral packet when prospective residents currently share equal priority. The program may not consider the prospective resident’s county of origin, responsibility, or residency.
(4) Within 72 hours of a provider learning of a pending opening, the program must provide written or electronic notification to the current highest priority prospective resident on the established waitlist, as well as their referring entity and their legal representative or supervisory entity, as applicable, of the expected opening. The referring entity is responsible to verify the prospective resident or their representative or supervisory entity, as applicable, received the notification of the opening and respond to the program within three business days of the provider’s notification. If any of the following occurs, the program may offer the opening to the next prospective resident on the wait list:
(a) The program receives no response from the prospective resident, the prospective resident’s legal representative, supervisory entity, or the referring entity, as applicable, within three business days;
(b) The individual will not be ready to transition into the program within one week; or
(c) The individual no longer desires placement at the program.
(5) The program may close their waitlist if there are five (5) or more prospective residents on the waitlist. When the waitlist is closed, the provider is not required to accept referrals, conduct screenings, or evaluate additional persons for admissions who are not already on the waitlist.
(6) Waitlists must be opened any time there are less than five (5) prospective residents.
(7) Providers are not required to accept more than five (5) referrals at one time when there is an opening on the waitlist.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & ORS 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.032, ORS 443.400 - 443.465 & ORS 443.991
- BHS 19-2026, temporary amend filed 07/02/2026, effective 07/03/2026 through 11/25/2026
- BHS 13-2026, temporary amend filed 06/01/2026, effective 06/01/2026 through 11/25/2026
- BHS 10-2026, temporary amend filed 05/21/2026, effective 05/21/2026 through 05/31/2026
- BHS 9-2026, temporary amend filed 05/21/2026, effective 05/21/2026 through 05/31/2026
- BHS 5-2026, adopt filed 04/30/2026, effective 06/01/2026
- BHS 32-2025, temporary adopt filed 12/30/2025, effective 01/01/2026 through 06/27/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-035-0163 Admission
(1) The program must specify in its admission policy and procedures the program staff responsible for each component of the admission process.
(2) The program must obtain informed consent for services from the prospective resident or the prospective resident’s legal representative prior to or upon admission to the program. Informed consent is not required for individuals placed at a program pursuant to a court, OHA, CMHP or PSRB order issued under ORS chapter 161 or 426.
(3) The program must maintain current copies of legal orders for residents placed at a program pursuant to a court, OHA, CMHP or PSRB order issued under ORS chapter 161 or 426.
(4) Upon admission, the program administrator must provide and document provision of an orientation to each new resident that includes, but is not limited to, the following:
(a) A complete tour of the setting;
(b) Introductions to other residents and program staff;
(c) Discussion of social covenants, if applicable;
(d) Explanation of the laundry and food service schedule and policies;
(e) Review of the resident’s rights;
(f) Review of grievance procedures;
(g) Review of the residency agreement;
(h) Discussion of the conditions under which residency would be involuntarily transferred or discharged;
(i) General description of available services and activities;
(j) Review and explanation of advance directives. If the resident does not already have any advance directives, the program must provide an opportunity to complete advanced directives;
(k) Emergency procedures in accordance with OAR 309-035-0145(2).
(l) Review of the person-centered planning process; and
(m) Review of the process for imposing individually-based limitations on certain program obligations to the individual.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & ORS 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.032, ORS 443.400 - 443.465 & ORS 443.991
- BHS 6-2026, amend filed 04/30/2026, effective 05/01/2026
- BHS 5-2026, amend filed 04/30/2026, effective 06/01/2026
- BHS 32-2025, temporary amend filed 12/30/2025, effective 01/01/2026 through 06/27/2026
- BHS 12-2025, amend filed 04/30/2025, effective 05/01/2025
- BHS 7-2025, temporary amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025 through 08/27/2025
- BHS 4-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- BHS 1-2025, temporary amend filed 01/17/2025, effective 01/17/2025 through 06/29/2025
- BHS 35-2024, temporary amend filed 12/31/2024, effective 01/01/2025 through 06/29/2025
- BHS 31-2024, temporary amend filed 12/27/2024, effective 01/01/2025 through 06/29/2025
- BHS 6-2024, amend filed 04/11/2024, effective 04/11/2024
- BHS 41-2023, temporary amend filed 10/12/2023, effective 10/15/2023 through 04/11/2024
- BHS 6-2019, amend filed 03/28/2019, effective 04/01/2019
- BHS 21-2018, temporary amend filed 10/25/2018, effective 10/28/2018 through 04/22/2019
- BHS 10-2018, temporary amend filed 04/24/2018, effective 05/01/2018 through 10/27/2018
- MHS 5-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-8-17
- MHS 2-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
Or. Admin. R. 309-035-0165 Temporary rule language in effect until 11/25/2026. Residency Agreement
(1) The provider must enter into a written residency agreement with each resident or the resident’s legal representative and be admitted to the program consistent with the placement type with the following procedures:
(a) The written residency agreement must be reviewed and signed by the program administrator, the resident, and the resident’s legal representative or supervisory entity, as applicable, prior to or at the time of admission, and at any time the agreement is updated. If the resident declines to sign the agreement after reviewing the agreement with the provider, the agreement is considered valid if signed by the resident’s legal representative or supervisory entity, as applicable.
(b) The provider must provide a copy of the signed agreement to the resident or the resident’s legal representative or supervisory entity, as applicable;
(c) The provider must retain the original signed agreement in the resident’s service record;
(d) The provider must give written notice to a resident or the resident’s legal representative at least 30 calendar days prior to any general rate increases, additions, or other modifications of the rates; and
(e) The provider must update residency agreements:
(A) At least annually; and
(B) When social security rates change; or
(C) a resident’s finances change such that the amount paid for room and board changes.
(2) The residency agreement must include, but is not limited to:
(a) The room and board rate;
(A) When a resident’s social security or other funding is not active at the time of admission to the program, the program must prepare the room and board agreement based upon the estimated benefit to be received by the resident; and
(B) If, when funding is later activated, actual income of the resident varies from the estimated income noted on the residency agreement, the agreement must be updated and resigned by all the applicable parties.
(b) Services and supports provided in exchange for payment of the room and board rate;
(c) Conditions under which the program may change the rates and apply charges or fees.
(d) The provider’s refund policy in instances of a resident's hospitalization, death, transfer to a nursing facility or other care facility, and voluntary or involuntary move from the program;
(e) A statement indicating that the resident is not liable for damages considered normal wear and tear;
(f) The program’s policies on voluntary moves and whether written notification of a non-Medicaid resident’s intent to not return is required;
(g) The potential reasons for involuntary transfer or discharge of residency in compliance with this rule and resident’s rights regarding the administrative hearing process;
(h) Any policies the program may have on the presence and use of alcohol, cannabis, and illegal drugs of abuse;
(i) Policy for prohibiting the possession and use of weapons on the program’s property by all residents, visitors, and staff;
(j) Policy describing reasonable causes and methods for conducting a safe search for weapons and required procedures to follow when a weapon is discovered. Reasonable cause must include, but is not limited to, direct observations and specific credible reporting. Search procedures must include, but are not limited to, conducting the search, safe removal of any weapons found, placement of weapons discovered in a designated secure area, and notifying the resident and their legal representative or supervisory entity, if applicable;
(k) Policy regarding tobacco smoking in compliance with the Tobacco Freedom Policy established by the Division;
(l) Policy addressing pet and service animals. The program may not restrict animals that provide assistance or perform tasks for the benefit of a person with a disability. These animals are often referred to as services animals, assistance animals, support animals, therapy animals, companion animals, or emotional support animals;
(m) Policy regarding the presence and use of legal medical and recreational marijuana at the setting;
(n) Schedule of mealtimes with no more than a 14-hour span between the evening meal and the following morning’s meal;
(o) Policy regarding refunds for residents eligible for Medicaid services, including pro-rating partial months and if the room and board payment is refundable;
(p) Any social covenants required by the program that may be included in the document or as an addendum that do not conflict with resident rights and freedoms as outlined in OAR 309-035-0110 and 309-035-0175;
(q) Description of the person-centered planning process; and
(r) Statement informing the resident of the freedoms authorized by 42 CFR 441.710(a)(1) that may not be limited without the informed, written consent of the resident, the resident’s legal representative, as applicable, or supervising entity when the resident is placed with the provider by a court, OHA, CMHP, or PSRB order, including:
(A) Live under a legally enforceable agreement with protections substantially equivalent to landlord-tenant laws;
(B) The freedom and support to access food at any time;
(C) To have visitors of the resident’s choosing at any time;
(D) Have a lockable door in the resident’s unit that may be locked by the resident;
(E) Choose a roommate when sharing a unit;
(F) Furnish and decorate the resident’s unit according to the Residency Agreement;
(G) The freedom and support to control the resident’s schedule and activities; and
(H) Privacy in the resident’s unit.
(3) The provider may not charge fees that are not clearly described in the residency agreement.
(4) The provider may not propose or enter into a residency agreement that:
(a) Charges or asks for:
(A) Application fees;
(B) Refundable deposits;
(C) Non-refundable deposits;
(D) Money or property for services other than the amount agreed upon as described in OAR 410-120-1280(1).
(b) Includes any illegal or unenforceable provisions or ask or require a resident to waive any of the resident's rights or the provider's liability for negligence; or
(c) Conflicts with resident rights and freedoms or these rules.
(5) Residents who are placed in programs by a supervisory entity under ORS chapter 161 or 426, must be given written information corresponding to each of their applicable rights and processes as described in subsection (1) and (2) of this section as part of the residency agreement.
(6) Providers are not required to obtain signed agreements from residents placed by a supervisory entity but must document all efforts to engage the resident in plan development. Providers must document in the resident’s record the information that was provided to the resident both orally and in writing. A copy of the residency agreement and the order under which the resident is placed under ORS chapter 161 or 426 must be placed in the resident’s record.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.032, 443.400 - 443.465 & 443.991
- BHS 13-2026, temporary amend filed 06/01/2026, effective 06/01/2026 through 11/25/2026
- BHS 7-2026, temporary amend filed 05/14/2026, effective 05/15/2026 through 05/31/2026
- BHS 6-2026, amend filed 04/30/2026, effective 05/01/2026
- BHS 5-2026, amend filed 04/30/2026, effective 06/01/2026
- BHS 32-2025, temporary amend filed 12/30/2025, effective 01/01/2026 through 06/27/2026
- BHS 4-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- BHS 6-2024, amend filed 04/11/2024, effective 04/11/2024
- BHS 41-2023, temporary amend filed 10/12/2023, effective 10/15/2023 through 04/11/2024
- MHS 5-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-8-17
- MHS 2-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
- MHS 13-2016(Temp), f. 9-6-16, cert. ef. 9-7-16 thru 3-3-17
- MHS 4-2008, f. & cert. ef. 6-12-08
- MHD 4-2005, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-05
- MHD 4-1998, f. 5-21-98, cert. ef. 6-1-98
- MHD 9-1985, f. & ef. 6-7-85
- MHD 9-1984(Temp), f. & ef. 12-10-84
Or. Admin. R. 309-035-0170 Temporary rule language in effect until 11/25/2026. Standards for Residency Transfers and Discharges
(1) Each provider’s transfer and discharge policy and procedure must designate the program staff responsible for each step of the process for transferring or discharging residency. The provider must designate responsibilities organized and assigned to promote a fair and efficient transfer and discharge process. Unless otherwise designated as a condition of licensing or in contract language approved by the Division, the program administrator is responsible for initiating and coordinating transfer and discharge proceedings. The provider must make reasonable efforts to prevent unnecessary transfer and discharges by making reasonable accommodations within the program and setting.
(2) A resident or a resident’s legal representative as applicable, may terminate residency in a program upon providing at least 30-days’ written notice. Upon mutual agreement between the administrator and the resident or resident’s legal representative as applicable, less than 30 days’ notice may be provided. This agreement may be limited under a court, OHA, CMHP, or PSRB order. The provider must immediately document the resident’s notification of intent to voluntarily move in the resident records.
(3) When circumstances arise providing grounds for issuing a notice of involuntary transfer or discharge under this section, the program administrator must discuss these grounds with the resident, the resident’s legal representative or the supervising entity, if applicable, and with the resident's or the resident’s legal representative’s permission, other persons with an interest in the resident's circumstances. If a decision is made to transfer or discharge the resident, the program administrator must provide at least 30 days’ written notice specifying the cause(s) for the notice in the form and manner required by the Division to the resident, the resident’s legal representative or supervisory entity, if applicable, the CMHP and the Division. This notice must specify the resident's right to an administrative hearing.
(4) When a resident’s behavior has directly resulted in serious physical harm to other residents in the program or program staff, the program administrator may initiate a less than 30 days but no less than 24 hours advance written notice in the form and manner required by the Division to the resident, the resident’s legal representative or the supervisory entity, if applicable, the CMHP, and Division specifying the cause(s) of an involuntary transfer or discharge. This notice must specify the resident’s right to an administrative hearing for involuntary transfer or discharge.
(5) Early transfer or discharge may occur with less than 30 days advance notice with the mutual agreement of the program administrator and the resident when the resident does not have a legal representative and is not under the jurisdiction of a supervisory entity, or the resident’s legal representative, if applicable, when the resident is not under the jurisdiction of a supervisory entity, or the supervisory entity, if applicable.
(6) Grounds for transfer or discharge include the following:
(a) The resident no longer needs or desires services provided by the program and expresses a desire to move to an alternative setting, unless the resident is placed with the provider by a supervisory entity, or with the consent of the resident’s legal representative;
(b) The resident is assessed by a Licensed Medical Professional or other qualified health professional to require services such as continuous nursing care or extended hospitalization that are not available or cannot be reasonably arranged at the program;
(c) The resident's behavior is continuously and significantly disruptive or poses a threat to the health or safety of self or others, and these behavioral concerns cannot be adequately addressed with services available at the setting or with services that can be arranged outside of the program setting;
(d) The resident cannot safely evacuate the setting in accordance with the setting's occupancy classification after efforts described in OAR 309-035-0145(6)(b) have been taken;
(e) Nonpayment of room and board fees in accordance with program's fee policy;
(f) The resident has moved from the setting or has been absent without notice for more than seven consecutive days and the provider has not been able to confirm the intent to continue or discontinue residency from the resident, the resident’s legal representative or the resident’s supervisory entity, if applicable. The transfer or discharge process must be voided if the resident returns to the program prior to the final date of residency indicated on the written notice;
(g) The resident has been incarcerated, and the provider has been notified by the supervisory entity that the resident will remain incarcerated for longer than 30 days. The transfer or discharge process must be voided if the resident returns to the program prior to the final date of residency indicated on the written notice;
(h) The IQA has determined services and supports from the program are no longer required;
(i) The resident’s revocation has been ordered by the supervisory entity; or
(j) The program has had its license revoked, not renewed, suspended, voluntarily surrendered, or has terminated its Medicaid contract.
(7) Except in the case of emergency transfer or discharge, or crisis-respite services, a pre-transfer and discharge meeting must be held with the resident, the resident’s legal representative or the supervising entity, if applicable, the CMHP, and with the resident's or the resident’s legal representative’s permission, others interested in the resident's circumstances. The purpose of the meeting is to plan any arrangements necessitated by the transfer and discharge decision. The meeting must be scheduled to occur at least two weeks prior to the transfer or discharge date. In the event a pre-transfer and discharge meeting is not held, the reason must be documented in the resident service record.
(8) Documentation of discussions and meetings held concerning transfer and discharge of a resident and copies of notices must be maintained in the resident service record.
(9) Except when a program has had its license revoked, not renewed, suspended, voluntarily surrendered, or terminates its Medicaid contract, a resident who received a notice of involuntary transfer and discharge is entitled to an administrative hearing:
(a) Provided the resident, the resident’s legal representative, if applicable, or the authorized representative, if applicable, completes and submits the administrative hearing request in the form and manner required by the Division to the CMHP and the Division:
(A) Within ten (10) business days from the date a 30-day notice of involuntary transfer and discharge was received; or
(B) Within five (5) business days from the date a less than 30-day notice of involuntary transfer and discharge was received.
(b) The resident may receive assistance in submitting the request for an administrative hearing. If requested by the resident, program staff must be available to assist the resident.
(c) The program remains responsible for the provision of care and services as identified in the person-centered service plan during the administrative hearing process unless and until the resident has moved. Care and services include the provision of one-to-one supervision if necessary to ensure the safety of all residents.
(d) The Division will review the notice of transfer or discharge to verify the notice meets the regulatory criteria. If the notice does not meet the regulatory criteria, the Division will notify the provider they must withdraw the notice.
(e) The resident has the right to remain in the program until due process is complete or the supervisory entity has ordered otherwise.
(10) If the notice of transfer and discharge meets the regulatory criteria, the Division will notify the Office of Administrative Hearings of the request for an administrative hearing and for less than 30-day notices, will request an expedited hearing be held within five (5) business days.
(11) At the time of transfer or discharge of a resident, the resident must be provided a written statement of account, any balance of funds held by the program, and all property held in trust or custody by the program. In the case of a resident’s property being left at the setting for longer than seven days after resident has moved, the program must make a reasonable attempt to contact the resident or the resident’s legal representative, if applicable. The program must allow the resident or the resident’s legal representative, if applicable, at least 15 calendar days to make arrangements concerning the property. If the program determines that the resident has abandoned the property, the program may then dispose of the property. If the property is sold, proceeds of the sale minus the amount of any expenses incurred and any amounts owed the program by or on behalf of the resident must be forwarded to the resident or the resident’s legal representative, if applicable.
(12) The end of a supervisory entity’s jurisdiction is not cause for a program to issue a notice of involuntary transfer or discharge.
(13) If a resident moves out of the setting without providing notice or is absent without notice for more than seven consecutive days, the provider may initiate the transfer or discharge process as described in 309-035-0170(3). The provider must make an attempt to contact the resident and must contact the resident’s legal representative or supervisory entity, if applicable, and with the resident’s or the resident’s legal representative’s permission, if applicable, others interested in the resident’s circumstances to confirm the resident’s intent to discontinue residency. The transfer or discharge process must be discontinued if the resident returns to the program prior to the final date of residency indicated on the written notice.
(14) When a resident's right to an administrative hearing for involuntary transfer or discharge is initiated, the Division may determine the notice was issued wrongfully and take action on the program’s license up to and including revocation as outlined in OAR 309-035-0280.
(15) Upon transfer or discharge from the program, program staff must offer two doses of an FDA-approved short-acting, non-injectable, opioid antagonist medication to the resident. If the resident accepts, program staff must:
(a) Provide the resident with an instruction card on the use of short-acting, non-injectable, opioid antagonist medication; and
(b) Document distribution of the short-acting, non-injectable, opioid antagonist medication in the resident’s record.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.032, 443.400 - 443.465 & 443.991
- BHS 13-2026, temporary amend filed 06/01/2026, effective 06/01/2026 through 11/25/2026
- BHS 8-2026, temporary amend filed 05/18/2026, effective 05/18/2026 through 05/31/2026
- BHS 7-2026, temporary amend filed 05/14/2026, effective 05/15/2026 through 05/31/2026
- BHS 6-2026, amend filed 04/30/2026, effective 05/01/2026
- BHS 5-2026, amend filed 04/30/2026, effective 06/01/2026
- BHS 32-2025, temporary amend filed 12/30/2025, effective 01/01/2026 through 06/27/2026
- BHS 11-2025, minor correction filed 04/12/2025, effective 04/12/2025
- BHS 10-2025, minor correction filed 04/08/2025, effective 04/08/2025
- BHS 4-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- BHS 6-2024, amend filed 04/11/2024, effective 04/11/2024
- BHS 1-2024, temporary amend filed 01/09/2024, effective 01/10/2024 through 04/11/2024
- BHS 41-2023, temporary amend filed 10/12/2023, effective 10/15/2023 through 04/11/2024
- MHS 5-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-8-17
- MHS 2-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
- MHS 13-2016(Temp), f. 9-6-16, cert. ef. 9-7-16 thru 3-3-17
- MHS 4-2008, f. & cert. ef. 6-12-08
- MHD 4-2005, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-05
- MHD 4-1998, f. 5-21-98, cert. ef. 6-1-98
- MHD 9-1985, f. & ef. 6-7-85
- MHD 9-1984(Temp), f. & ef. 12-10-84
Or. Admin. R. 309-035-0175 Rights, Freedoms, and Protections
(1) Each resident must be assured the same civil and human rights accorded to other citizens, except as otherwise limited by a court, OHA, CMHP, or PSRB order. These rights must be assured unless expressly limited by a court in the case of a resident who has been adjudicated incompetent and not restored to legal capacity. The rights described in paragraphs (2) and (3) of this section are in addition to and do not limit all other statutory and constitutional rights that are afforded to citizens including, but not limited to, the right to vote, marry, have or not have children, own and dispose of property, enter into contracts, and execute documents.
(2) A provider must actively work to support and ensure each resident’s rights described in this rule are not limited or infringed upon by the provider except where expressly allowed under these rules.
(3) The provider must ensure that residents receiving mental health services have the rights set forth in ORS 430.210, unless otherwise limited by court order, administrative rule, administrative order, or statute.
(4) A resident also has a right to the following:
(a) Adequate food, shelter, and clothing;
(b) A reasonable accommodation if, due to their disability, the housing and services are not sufficiently accessible;
(c) Confidential communication including receiving and opening personal mail, private visits with family members and other guests, and access to a telephone with privacy for making and receiving telephone calls, unless such access is legally restricted;
(d) Express sexuality in a socially appropriate and consensual manner;
(e) Access to community resources including recreation, religious services, agency services, employment, and day programs unless such access is legally restricted;
(f) Be free of discrimination in regard to race, color, national origin, gender, religion, sexual orientation, or disability;
(g)Have religious freedom;
(h) Be free from seclusion and restraint except as outlined in OAR 309-035-0205.
(i) To review the program's policies and procedures;
(j) Not participate in research without informed voluntary written consent; and
(k) Not be required to perform labor, except personal housekeeping duties, without reasonable and lawful compensation as outlined in ORS 430.210.
(5) A resident also has the following HCBS rights:
(a) Live under a legally enforceable residency agreement in compliance with protections substantially equivalent to landlord-tenant laws as described in this rule;
(b) Have visitors of the resident’s choosing at any time and the freedom to visit with guests within the common areas of the setting and the resident’s unit;
(c) The freedom and support to control the resident’s own schedule and activities including but not limited to accessing the community without restriction;
(d) Have a lockable door in the resident’s unit that may be locked by the resident, and only appropriate program staff have a key to access the unit;
(e) A choice of roommates when sharing a unit;
(f) Furnish and decorate the resident’s unit according to the Residency Agreement;
(g) The freedom and support to have access to food at any time; and
(h) Privacy in the resident’s unit.
(6) A SRTF is not required to maintain the qualities or obligations identified in section (5) (b), (c), (d), (e) and (h). The provider is not required to seek an individually-based limitation for any modified HCBS right but these modifications must be included in the person-centered service plan, if applicable, and the residential service plan.
(7) Programs may not take any of the following actions based, in whole or in part, on a resident’s actual or perceived sexual orientation, gender identity, gender expression, or human immunodeficiency virus status:
(a) Deny admission, transfer, or discharge, or refuse to transfer or discharge when requested by the resident;
(b) Deny a request by a resident to choose the resident’s roommate, when a resident is sharing a room;
(c) If rooms are assigned by gender, assign, reassign, or refuse to assign a room to a transgender or other LGBTQIA2S+ resident other than in accordance with the resident’s gender identity, unless at the request of the resident or if required by federal law;
(d) Prohibit a resident from using or harass a resident who seeks to use or does use, a restroom that is available to other individuals of the same gender identity as the resident, regardless of whether the resident is making a gender transition, has taken or is taking hormones, has undergone gender affirmation surgery, or presents as gender nonconforming;
(e) Repeatedly and willfully refuse to use a resident’s chosen name or pronouns after being reasonably informed of the resident’s chosen name or pronouns;
(f) Deny a resident the right to wear or be dressed in clothing, accessories or cosmetics, or to engage in grooming practices, that are permitted to any other resident;
(g) Restrict a resident’s right to associate with other residents or with visitors, including the resident’s right to consensual sexual relations or to display physical affection;
(h) Deny or restrict medical or nonmedical care that is appropriate to a resident's organs and bodily needs, or provide medical or nonmedical care that, to a similarly situated, reasonable person, unduly demeans the resident's dignity or causes avoidable discomfort;
(i) Fail to accept a resident's verbal or written attestation of the resident’s gender identity or require a resident to provide proof of the resident’s gender identity using any form of identification;
(j) Fail to take reasonable actions, within the provider's control, to prevent discrimination or harassment when the provider knows or should have known about the discrimination or harassment; or
(k) Refuse or willfully fail to provide any service, care, or reasonable accommodation to a resident or a proposed resident for services or care.
(8) A transgender resident must be provided access to any assessments, therapies, and treatments that are recommended by the resident's health care provider, including but not limited to, transgender-related medical care, hormone therapy, and supportive counseling.
(9) A provider may modify or limit the rights identified in sections (1), (3), and (5) of this rule when providing services to a resident, who is placed with the provider by a court, OHA, CMHP, or PSRB order under ORS chapters 161 or 426 when the order specifically identifies required limitations. The provider is not required to seek an individually-based limitation for such a resident to comply with these rules. The limitations must be included in the resident’s person-centered service plan, if applicable, and the residential service plan.
(10) For the purpose of this section, these terms have the following meanings:
(a) “Fresh air” means the inflow of air from outside the program where the resident is receiving services. “Fresh air” may be accessed through an open window or similar method as well as through access to the outdoors;
(b) “Outdoors” means an area with fresh air that is not completely enclosed overhead. “Outdoors” may include a courtyard or similar area;
(c) If a resident requests access to fresh air or the outdoors or the resident's treating health care provider determines that fresh air or the outdoors would be beneficial to the resident, the program in which the resident is receiving services must provide daily access to fresh air and the outdoors unless this access would create a significant risk of harm to the resident or others;
(d) The determination whether a significant risk of harm to the resident or others exists must be made by the resident's treating health care provider. The treating health care provider may find that a significant risk of harm to the resident or others exists if:
(A) The resident's circumstances and condition indicate an unreasonable risk of harm to the resident or others that cannot be reasonably accommodated by the program should the resident be allowed access to fresh air and the outdoors; or
(B) The program’s existing physical setting prevents the provision of access to fresh air and the outdoors in a manner that maintains the safety of the resident or others.
(e) If a provider determines that its existing physical setting prevents the provision of access to fresh air and the outdoors in a safe manner, the provider must make a good faith effort at the time of any significant renovation to the physical setting that involves renovation of the unit or relocation of where residents are treated to include changes to the physical setting or location that allows access to fresh air and the outdoors, so long as such changes do not add an unreasonable amount to the cost of the renovation.
(11) The program must have and implement written policies and procedures that protect residents' rights and freedoms and encourage and assist residents to understand and exercise their rights and freedoms. The program must post a listing of resident rights and freedoms under these rules in a place readily accessible to all residents and visitors.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.032, 443.400 - 443.465 & 443.991
- BHS 6-2026, amend filed 04/30/2026, effective 05/01/2026
- BHS 5-2026, amend filed 04/30/2026, effective 06/01/2026
- BHS 32-2025, temporary amend filed 12/30/2025, effective 01/01/2026 through 06/27/2026
- BHS 4-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- BHS 15-2024, amend filed 06/25/2024, effective 07/01/2024
- BHS 6-2024, amend filed 04/11/2024, effective 04/11/2024
- BHS 41-2023, temporary amend filed 10/12/2023, effective 10/15/2023 through 04/11/2024
- MHS 5-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-8-17
- MHS 2-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
- MHS 13-2016(Temp), f. 9-6-16, cert. ef. 9-7-16 thru 3-3-17
- MHD 4-2005, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-05
- MHD 4-1998, f. 5-21-98, cert. ef. 6-1-98
- MHD 9-1985, f. & ef. 6-7-85
- MHD 9-1984(Temp), f. & ef. 12-10-84
Or. Admin. R. 309-035-0183 Individual Grievances and Appeals
(1) The provider must post the Division complaint poster and abuse reporting information in a prominent location in the common area.
(2) The provider must develop and implement written policies and procedures concerning the grievance and appeal process. A copy of the grievance and appeal process must be posted in a place readily accessible to residents. A copy of the grievance and appeal process must be provided to each resident at the time of admission to the program in the resident’s primary language.
(3) A provider's process for grievances must, at a minimum, include the following:
(a) Residents must be encouraged to informally resolve complaints through discussion with program staff. Informal complaints and resolutions must be documented by staff and include the name of the resident, date of the complaint, description of the complaint, and how it was resolved; and
(b) If the resident is not satisfied with the informal process or does not wish to use it, the resident may proceed as follows:
(A) The resident may submit a formal grievance in writing to the program administrator. The resident may receive assistance in submitting the grievance from any person whom the resident chooses. If requested by the resident, program staff must be available to assist the resident;
(B) The written grievance must go directly to the program administrator without being read by other program staff unless the resident requests or permits other program staff to read the grievance;
(C) The grievance must include the reasons for the grievance and the proposed resolutions. No grievance shall be disregarded because it is incomplete;
(D) Within five calendar days of receipt of the grievance, the program administrator must meet with the resident to discuss the grievance. The resident may have an advocate or other person of their choosing present for this discussion;
(E) Within five calendar days of meeting with the resident, the program administrator must provide a written decision to the resident. As part of the written decision, the program administrator must provide information about the appeal process; and
(F) In circumstances where the matter of the grievance is likely to cause irreparable harm to a substantial right of the resident before the grievance procedures outlined in OAR 309-035-0183 are completed, the resident may request an expedited review. If an expedited review is requested, the program administrator must review and respond in writing to the grievance within 48 hours. The written decision must include information about the appeal process.
(4) A resident, a resident’s legal representative if applicable, the Division or other Division-approved party, shall have the right to appeal admission and grievance decisions as follows:
(a) If the resident or proposed resident is not satisfied with the decision, the resident, the resident’s legal representative if applicable, the Division or other Division-approved party may file an appeal in writing within ten calendar days of the date of the program administrator's decision to the grievance, or notification of admission denial
(b) If program services are delivered by a person or entity other than the Oregon State Hospital or the CMHP, the appeal must be submitted to the CMHP director or designee in the county where the program is located. The CMHP must hold an appeal conference no later than 10 calendar days after the request is received unless otherwise mutually agreed upon by the program and the resident or the resident’s legal representative, if applicable.
(A) The resident may receive assistance in submitting the request for an appeal conference. If requested by the resident, program staff must be available to assist the resident;
(B) If a resolution is reached at the appeal conference, the resolution must be documented in writing and the resolution considered final. The CMHP director or designee must provide the written resolution within ten calendar days of the appeal conference; and
(C) If a resolution is not reached at the appeal conference, the CMHP Director or designee must issue a written decision of the appeal and provide a copy to the provider, the resident, and the resident’s legal representative, if applicable or the proposed resident as applicable;
(D) If the resident is not satisfied with the appeal conference decision, the resident may request a second appeal in writing within ten calendar days of the date of the appeal conference decision to the Division. Any supporting documentation must be submitted with the request.
(E) The Division will review the appeal and all supporting documentation and issue a written decision within 10 calendar days of receipt of the appeal to the resident, the program and the CMHP. The Division’s decision shall be final.
(c) If program services are delivered by a CMHP, the appeal must be submitted to the Division:
(A) The resident may receive assistance in submitting the request for appeal. If requested by the resident, program staff must be available to assist the resident;
(B) The Division’s designee must review the appeal and all supporting documentation and issue a written decision within 10 calendar days of receipt of the appeal to the resident, the program and the CMHP; and
(C) If the resident is not satisfied with the Division designee’s decision, the resident, may submit a second appeal in writing within ten calendar days of the date of the written decision to the deputy director of the Division.
(D) The deputy director must review the appeal and all supporting documentation and issue a written decision within 10 calendar days of receipt of the appeal to the resident, the program and the CMHP. The deputy director’s decision shall be final.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.032, 443.400 - 443.465 & 443.991
- BHS 6-2026, amend filed 04/30/2026, effective 05/01/2026
- BHS 5-2026, amend filed 04/30/2026, effective 06/01/2026
- BHS 32-2025, temporary amend filed 12/30/2025, effective 01/01/2026 through 06/27/2026
- BHS 4-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- MHS 5-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-8-17
- MHS 2-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
Or. Admin. R. 309-035-0185 Individual Assessment and Residential Service Plan
(1) The program must complete an assessment for each resident within 14 days after admission to the program:
(a) The assessment must be based upon:
(A) An interview with the resident to identify strengths, preferences, and service needs;
(B) Observation of the resident's capabilities within the residential setting;
(C) A review of information in the resident service record; and
(D) Contact with representatives of other involved agencies, the supervisory entity or the resident’s legal representative if applicable, family members, and others, as appropriate. All contacts with others must be made with proper authorization for the release of information or as otherwise permitted by law.
(b) Assessment findings must be summarized in writing and included in the resident service record. Assessment findings must include but not be limited to:
(A) Diagnostic and demographic data;
(B) Identification of the resident's medical, physical, emotional, behavioral, and social strengths, preferences, and needs related to independent living and community functioning; and
(C) Recommendations for residential service plan goals; and
(c) The provider must provide assessment findings to the person-centered service plan coordinator to assist in the development of the person-centered service plan.
(2) The person-centered service plan coordinator under contract with the Division and assigned to the resident or program site must schedule and conduct an assessment of the resident for the purpose of developing a person-centered service plan. The provider must support the person-centered service plan coordinator’s efforts to develop the plan and provide information as necessary.
(3) The provider must develop and implement an individualized residential service plan for the purpose of implementing and documenting the provision of services and supports as well as any individually-based limitations contained within the person-centered service plan. The provider must also include the limitations imposed by a court, OHA, CMHP, or PSRB order, or the resident’s legal representative, and identification of the goals to be accomplished through the services provided. The provider must complete and implement an individualized residential service plan for each resident within 30 days of admission.
(4) Upon receipt of the person-centered service plan, the providers must amend the residential service plan as necessary to comply with this rule;
(5) The residential service plan must be based upon the findings of the resident assessment, be developed with participation of the resident, input from the resident’s legal representative or supervisory entity, as applicable, and be developed through collaboration with the resident's primary mental health treatment provider. With consent of the resident, resident’s legal representative if applicable, family members, representatives from involved agencies, and others with an interest in the resident's circumstances must be invited to participate. All contact with other persons must be made with proper, prior authorization from the resident or as otherwise permitted by law;
(6) The residential service plan must include:
(a) The necessary steps and actions of the provider for the implementation and provision of services consistent with and as required by the person-centered service plan;
(b) Identification of the resident’s service needs, desired outcomes, and service strategies to address transition planning, physical and medical needs, medication regimen, self-care, social-emotional adjustment, behavioral concerns, independent living capability, community navigation, and all areas identified in the person-centered service plan.
(c) Signatures of the resident or the resident’s legal representative if applicable, the program administrator or other designated program staff person, and others, as appropriate, to indicate mutual agreement with the course of services outlined in the plan.
(7) A copy of the signed plan must be provided to the legal representative or supervisory entity, if applicable.
(8) The provider must attach the residential service plan to the person-centered service plan within the resident record.
(9) The provider must maintain detailed progress notes within each resident's service record and document significant information relating to all aspects of the resident's functioning and progress toward desired outcomes identified in the residential service plan as described in OAR 410-120-1360, 410-172-0620 and 410-173-0045.
(10) The provider must enter a progress note in the resident's record at least once each month summarizing progress made relevant to the goals outlined in the residential service plan.
(11) The provider must review and update the assessment and residential service plan at least annually and as described in OAR chapter 410, Division 173. On an ongoing basis, the provider must update the residential service plan as necessary based upon changing circumstances or upon the resident’s request for reconsideration. The new plan must be signed by the resident or the resident’s legal representative, if applicable, the program administrator or other designated program staff person, and others, as appropriate, to indicate mutual agreement with the course of service outlined in the plan.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.032, 443.400 - 443.465 & 443.991
- BHS 6-2026, amend filed 04/30/2026, effective 05/01/2026
- BHS 5-2026, amend filed 04/30/2026, effective 06/01/2026
- BHS 32-2025, temporary amend filed 12/30/2025, effective 01/01/2026 through 06/27/2026
- BHS 4-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- BHS 6-2024, amend filed 04/11/2024, effective 04/11/2024
- BHS 41-2023, temporary amend filed 10/12/2023, effective 10/15/2023 through 04/11/2024
- BHS 6-2020, temporary amend filed 04/21/2020, effective 04/21/2020 through 10/09/2020
- BHS 5-2018, amend filed 03/21/2018, effective 03/30/2018
- MHS 5-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-8-17
- MHS 2-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
- MHS 13-2016(Temp), f. 9-6-16, cert. ef. 9-7-16 thru 3-3-17
- MHS 4-2008, f. & cert. ef. 6-12-08
- MHD 4-2005, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-05
- MHD 4-1998, f. 5-21-98, cert. ef. 6-1-98
- MHD 9-1985, f. & ef. 6-7-85
- MHD 9-1984(Temp), f. & ef. 12-10-84
Or. Admin. R. 309-035-0190 Person-Centered Service Plan
(1) A person-centered service plan must be developed through a person-centered service planning process. The person-centered service planning process:
(a) Is directed by the resident;
(b) Includes people chosen by the resident;
(c) Provides necessary information and support to ensure the resident directs the process to the maximum extent possible and is enabled to make informed choices and decisions, except as limited or required by a court order, an administrative order, the supervisory entity or the resident’s legal representative, if applicable;
(d) Reflects the services and supports, and delivery of those services and supports in a manner that is important to the resident;
(e) Is timely, responsive to changing needs, occurs at times and locations convenient to the resident, and is reviewed by the resident and the resident’s legal representative, if applicable, every ninety (90) days or more often as determined by the resident;
(f) Reflects the cultural considerations and values of the resident;
(g) Uses language, format, and presentation methods appropriate for effective communication according to the needs and abilities of the resident and the resident’s legal representative as applicable;
(h) Includes strategies for resolving disagreement within the process including clear conflict of interest guidelines for all planning participants such as:
(A) Discussing the concerns of the planning team members and determining acceptable solutions;
(B) Supporting the resident in arranging and conducting a person-centered service planning meeting;
(C) Utilizing any available greater community conflict resolution resources;
(D) Referring concerns to the Oregon Residential Facilities Ombudsperson; or
(E) Following existing, program-specific grievance processes.
(i) Offers choices to the resident regarding the services and supports the resident receives and from whom and records the alternative HCBS settings considered by the resident, except as limited by a court, OHA, CMHP, or PSRB order;
(j) Provides a method for the resident or the resident’s legal representative, if applicable, to request updates to the person-centered service plan;
(k) Is conducted to reflect what is important to the resident to ensure delivery of services in a manner reflecting personal preferences and ensuring health and welfare;
(l) Identifies the strengths and preferences, service and support needs, goals, and desired outcomes of the resident;
(m) Includes any resident identified goals and preferences related to relationships, greater community participation, employment, income and savings, healthcare and wellness, and education;
(n) Includes risk factors and plans to minimize any identified risk factors, including:
(A) Identification of back-up plans as needed; and
(B) Identification of procedures to follow when the primary provider is unable to deliver necessary services; and
(o) Results in a person-centered service plan documented by the person-centered services plan coordinator, signed by the resident or the resident’s legal representative, if applicable, the resident’s care coordinator, and all persons responsible for the implementation of the person-centered service plan, and implemented by the provider. The person-centered service plan must be distributed to the resident, the resident’s legal representative or the supervisory entity if applicable, and other people involved in the person-centered service plan.
(2) Person-Centered Service Plans:
(a) To avoid conflict of interest, the person-centered service plan may not be developed by the provider.
(b) The person-centered service plan includes the following:
(A) HCBS and setting options based on the resident's needs and preferences, and for residential settings, the resident's available resources for room and board;
(B) The HCBS and settings are chosen by the resident and are integrated in, and support full access to the greater community;
(C) Opportunities to seek employment and work in competitive integrated employment settings for those residents who desire to work. If the resident wishes to pursue employment, a non-disability specific setting option must be presented and documented in the person-centered service plan;
(D) Opportunities to engage in greater community life, control personal resources, and receive services in the greater community to the same degree of access as people not receiving HCBS;
(E) The strengths and preferences of the resident;
(F) The service and support needs of the resident;
(G) The goals and desired outcomes of the resident;
(H) The providers of services and supports including unpaid natural supports provided voluntarily and other alternative resources;
(I) Risk factors and measures in place to minimize each identified risk;
(J) Individually based limitations that limit or restrict HCBS settings to keep the resident and others safe from harm;
(K) Individualized backup plans and strategies, when needed;
(L) People who are important in supporting the resident;
(M) The person responsible for monitoring the person-centered service plan;
(N) Language, format, and presentation methods appropriate for effective communication according to the needs and abilities of the resident receiving services and the resident’s legal representative, if applicable;
(O) The written informed consent of the resident or the resident’s legal representative or supervisory entity, if applicable, indicating agreement with the information, services and supports identified;
(P) Signatures of the resident or the resident’s legal representative or supervisory entity, if applicable, or documentation of the resident’s verbal consent of services, participants in the person-centered service planning process, and all providers responsible for the implementation of the person-centered service plan; and
(Q) Provisions to prevent unnecessary or inappropriate services and supports.
(c) The provider must provide relevant information and provide necessary support for the person-centered service plan coordinator or other persons developing the plan to fulfill the characteristics described in subsection (b) of this section;
(d) The resident or the resident’s legal representative if applicable, decides on the level of information in the person-centered service plan that is shared with providers. To effectively provide services, providers must have access to the portion of the person-centered service plan that the provider is responsible for implementing;
(e) The person-centered service plan must be distributed to the resident and the resident’s legal representative and supervisory entity, as applicable, and others involved in the person-centered service plan;
(f) The person-centered service plan must justify and document any individually-based limitation(s) to be applied as described in OAR 410-173-0040 when the conditions described in OAR 410-173-0035(1)(d) and (2)(d-j) may not be met due to threats to the health and safety of the resident or others; and
(g) The person-centered service plan must be reviewed with and revised as directed by the resident or the resident’s legal representative, if applicable, every ninety (90) days or more often as determined by the resident as described in OAR 410-173-0025 (1).
(h) The person-centered service plan must be reviewed and revised:
(A) At the request of the resident or the resident’s legal representative;
(B) When the circumstances or needs of the resident change; and
(C) At least annually and upon reassessment of functional needs as described in OAR 410-173-0025 (3).
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.032, 443.400 - 443.465 & 443.991
- BHS 6-2026, amend filed 04/30/2026, effective 05/01/2026
- BHS 5-2026, amend filed 04/30/2026, effective 06/01/2026
- BHS 32-2025, temporary amend filed 12/30/2025, effective 01/01/2026 through 06/27/2026
- BHS 4-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- BHS 6-2024, amend filed 04/11/2024, effective 04/11/2024
- BHS 41-2023, temporary amend filed 10/12/2023, effective 10/15/2023 through 04/11/2024
- BHS 6-2020, temporary amend filed 04/21/2020, effective 04/21/2020 through 10/09/2020
- MHS 5-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-8-17
- MHS 2-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
- MHS 13-2016(Temp), f. 9-6-16, cert. ef. 9-7-16 thru 3-3-17
- MHS 4-2008, f. & cert. ef. 6-12-08
- MHD 4-2005, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-05
- MHD 4-1998, f. 5-21-98, cert. ef. 6-1-98
- MHD 9-1985, f. & ef. 6-7-85
- MHD 9-1984(Temp), f. & ef. 12-10-84
Or. Admin. R. 309-035-0195 Individually-Based Limitations
(1) When the program qualities described below create a threat to the health and safety of a resident or others, a provider may seek to apply an individually-based limitation through the process described in this rule. The program qualities subject to a potential individually-based limitation include the resident’s right to:
(a) The freedom and support to access food at any time;
(b) Have visitors of the resident’s choosing at any time;
(c) Have a unit entrance door that is lockable by the resident with only appropriate staff having access;
(d) Choose a roommate when sharing a unit;
(e) Furnish and decorate the resident’s unit as agreed to in the Residency Agreement;
(f) The freedom and support to control the resident’s schedule and activities; and
(g) Privacy in the resident’s unit.
(2) A provider may apply an individually-based limitation only if:
(a) The program quality threatens the health or safety of the resident or others;
(b) The individually-based limitation is supported by a specific assessed need;
(c) The resident or the resident’s legal representative consents, or the limitation is mandated by the resident’s supervisory entity;
(d) The limitation is directly proportionate to the specific assessed need; and
(e) The individually-based limitation will not cause harm to the resident.
(3) The provider must demonstrate and document that the individually-based limitation meets the requirements of section (2) of this rule and the measures described below in the person-centered service plan. The provider must sign and submit a Division-approved form that includes the following:
(a) The specific and individualized assessed need justifying the individually-based limitation;
(b) The positive interventions and supports used prior to consideration of any individually-based limitation;
(c) Records that document the provider or other entities have tried other less intrusive methods, but those methods did not work;
(d) A clear description of the limitation that is directly proportionate to the specific assessed need;
(e) Regular collection and review of documentation and data to measure the ongoing effectiveness of the individually-based limitation;
(f) Established time limits for periodic reviews of the individually-based limitation to determine if the limitation should be terminated or remains necessary;
(g) The informed consent of the resident or the resident’s legal representative, or the authorization of the resident’s supervisory entity, including any discrepancy between the wishes of the resident and the consent of the resident’s legal representative or the supervisory entity, if applicable; and
(h) An assurance that the interventions and support do not cause harm to the resident.
(4) The provider must:
(a) Not implement an incomplete individually-based limitation.
(b) Maintain a copy of the completed and signed form documenting the consent to the individually-based limitation described in section (4) of this rule. The form must be signed by the resident, the resident’s legal representative, or supervisory entity;
(c) Regularly collect and review the ongoing effectiveness of and the continued need for the individually-based limitation; and
(d) Request review of the individually-based limitation by the person-centered service plan coordinator when a new individually-based limitation is indicated, or an existing individually-based limitation is changed. The review of an individually-based limitation is as needed but not less than annually.
(5) The qualities described in section (1) (b), (c), (d), (f) and (g) do not apply to residents receiving services at a SRTF. A SRTF provider does not need to seek an individually-based limitation to comply with these rules.
(6) The qualities described in section (1) of this rule also apply to a residents receiving services under a court, OHA, CMHP, or PSRB order under ORS chapters 161 or 426 in an RTF or RTH, which may be modified or restricted by a supervisory entity. A provider is not required to seek an individually-based limitation for rights modified or restricted by the supervisory entity, which may be implemented without the authorization of the resident. When applicable, these modifications or restrictions must be documented in the person-centered service plan.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.032, 443.400 - 443.465 & 443.991
- BHS 4-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- BHS 6-2024, amend filed 04/11/2024, effective 04/11/2024
- BHS 41-2023, temporary amend filed 10/12/2023, effective 10/15/2023 through 04/11/2024
- MHS 5-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-8-17
- MHS 2-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
Or. Admin. R. 309-035-0200 Individual Services and Activities
(1) The provider must make services and activities available at the program including care and treatment consistent with ORS 443.400 and those services individually specified for the resident in the residential service plan developed as outlined in OAR 309-035-0185. The provider must encourage residents to care for their own needs to the extent possible. The provider must ensure all services and activities be provided in a manner that respects residents' rights, promotes recovery, and protects personal dignity.
(2) Services and activities to be available include, but are not limited to:
(a) Provision of adequate shelter;
(b) Provision of at least three meals per day, seven days per week, provided pursuant to OAR 309-035-0210;
(c) Assistance and support, as necessary, to enable residents to meet personal hygiene and clothing needs;
(d) Laundry services that may include access to washers and dryers so residents can do their own personal laundry;
(e) Housekeeping essential to the health and comfort of residents;
(f) Activities and opportunities for socialization and recreation both within the setting and in the larger community;
(g) Health-related services provided in accordance with OAR 309-035-0215;
(h) Assistance with community navigation and transportation arrangements;
(i) Assistance with money management when requested by a resident to include accurate documentation of all funds deposited and withdrawn when funds are held in trust for the resident;
(j) Assistance with acquiring skills to live as independently as possible;
(k) Assistance with accessing other additional services, as needed; and
(l) Any additional services required under contract with the Division.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.032, 443.400 - 443.465 & 443.991
- BHS 4-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- MHS 5-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-8-17
- MHS 2-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
Or. Admin. R. 309-035-0205 Use of Seclusion or Restraints
(1) The use of seclusion or restraints is prohibited except in SRTFs with the Division's approval.
(2) A SRTF provider or applicant may apply to the Division for approval to use seclusion or restraints pursuant to OAR 309-033-0700 through 309-033-0740. Approval by the Division is based upon the following:
(a) A determination that the residents served or proposed to be served have a history of behavioral concerns involving threats to the safety and well-being of themselves or others;
(b) The applicant demonstrates that the availability of seclusion or restraints is necessary to safely accommodate residents who would otherwise be unable to experience a community residential program; and
(c) The applicant demonstrates an ability to comply with OAR 309-033-0700 through 0740 and OAR 309-033-0500 through 0560. These rules include special requirements for staffing, training, reporting, policies and procedures, and the setting’s physical environment.
(3) Seclusion or restraints may only be used in an approved SRTF when an emergency occurs in accordance with OAR 309-033-0500 through 0560 and 309-033-0700 through 0740. In such emergency situations, seclusion and restraint may only be used as a last resort behavior management option after less restrictive behavior management interventions have failed, or in the case of an unanticipated behavioral outburst, to ensure safety within the program. An approved SRTF must implement policies and procedures approved by the Division outlining the circumstances under which seclusion or restraints may be used and the preventive measures to be taken before such use. All incidents involving the use of seclusion or restraints must be reported to the Division. To use seclusion or restraints with a resident who is not in state custody under civil commitment proceedings, the resident must be placed on a hold as outlined in OAR chapter 309, division 033.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.032, 443.400 - 443.465 & 443.991
- BHS 6-2026, amend filed 04/30/2026, effective 05/01/2026
- BHS 5-2026, amend filed 04/30/2026, effective 06/01/2026
- BHS 32-2025, temporary amend filed 12/30/2025, effective 01/01/2026 through 06/27/2026
- BHS 4-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- MHS 5-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-8-17
- MHS 2-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
Or. Admin. R. 309-035-0210 Food Services
(1) The provider must plan, prepare, and serve three meals daily at times consistent with those in the community. The meals must be culturally responsive to the residents and provided in accordance with the guidelines provided by the United States Department of Agriculture.
(2) The provider must obtain an order from an LMP for each resident who, for health reasons, is on a modified or special diet. The provider must plan such diets in consultation with the resident.
(3) The provider must support the resident’s right to access food at any time and must not restrict access to food. This includes accessing food outside of mealtimes and the ability to have food and beverages in the resident’s unit. The provider may only apply an individually-based limitation when the resident agrees, and the circumstances meet, and the provider complies with the standards and requirements of OAR 309-035-0195.
(4) If a resident misses a meal at a scheduled time, an alternative nutritionally equivalent meal must be made available.
(5) The provider must prepare and post menus for residents at least seven days in advance and must provide a sufficient variety of foods served in adequate amounts for each resident at each meal and adjusted for seasonal changes. Effective February 1, 2025, the provider must file and maintain records of menus of food as served in the program for at least two years:
(a) The provider must maintain reasonable access to common foods requested by the residents for personal use; and
(b) The provider must consider resident preferences and requests in menu planning. The provider must reasonably accommodate culturally responsive, religious, and other dietary preferences.
(6) The provider must maintain adequate supplies of staple foods for a minimum of one week and perishable foods for a minimum of two days at the setting.
(7) The provider must maintain at least seven gallons of potable water per resident and for emergency supply.
(8) The provider must store, prepare, and serve food in accordance with the Oregon Health Authority Food Sanitation Rules:
(a) all refrigerators and freezers in use must have a thermometer present and in working order; and
(b) Food storage areas and equipment must be such that food is protected from dirt and contamination and maintained at proper temperatures to prevent spoilage.
(9) The provider must not schedule meals with more than a 14-hour span between the evening meal and the following morning’s meal.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.032, 443.400 - 443.465 & 443.991
- BHS 6-2026, amend filed 04/30/2026, effective 05/01/2026
- BHS 5-2026, amend filed 04/30/2026, effective 06/01/2026
- BHS 32-2025, temporary amend filed 12/30/2025, effective 01/01/2026 through 06/27/2026
- BHS 4-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- MHS 5-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-8-17
- MHS 2-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
Or. Admin. R. 309-035-0215 Health Services
(1) The program administrator must ensure all residents are offered medical attention when needed. The provider must arrange for health services with the informed consent of the resident or the resident’s representative. The program must arrange for physicians to be available in the event the resident’s regular physician is unavailable. The provider must identify a hospital emergency room that may be used in case of emergency.
(2) The provider must ensure that each resident admitted to the program is screened by an LMP or a Registered Nurse to identify health problems and to screen for communicable disease. The provider must maintain documentation of the initial health screening in the resident service record:
(a) The health screening must include a brief history of health conditions, current physical condition, and a written record of current or recommended medications, treatments, dietary specifications, aids to physical functioning, and a statement of whether the resident must undergo testing for communicable illness prior to admission;
(b) For regular admissions, the health screening must be obtained no more than 90 days prior to the individual’s admission;
(c) For emergency admissions, the health screening must be obtained as follows:
(A) For individuals experiencing psychiatric or medical distress, a health screening must be completed by an LMP prior to the individual’s admission or within 24 hours of the emergency placement. The health screening must confirm that the individual does not have health conditions requiring continuous nursing care, hospital level of care, or immediate medical assistance.
(B) For residents who are admitted on an urgent basis due to a lack of alternative supportive housing, the health screening must be obtained within 72 hours after the resident’s admission;
(3) The program must ensure that each resident has a primary physician who is responsible for monitoring their health care. Regular health examinations must be offered in accordance with the recommendations of this primary health care professional but not less than once every three years. Newly admitted residents must be aided with coordinating a health examination within three months after admission. Documentation of findings from each examination must be placed in the resident’s service record.
(4) A transgender resident must be provided access to any assessments, therapies, and treatments that are recommended by the resident's health care provider, including but not limited to transgender-related medical care, hormone therapy, and supportive counseling.
(5) A written order signed by a prescribing practitioner is required for any medical treatment, special diet for health reasons, aid to physical functioning, and any limitation of physical activity.
(6) A written order signed by a prescribing practitioner is required for all medications administered or supervised by program staff including over-the-counter medications and prescribed supplements. This written order is required before any medication is administered to a resident. Signatures by a prescriber must be either ink, indelible pencil, or approved electronic equivalent:
(a) A written order must, at minimum, it includes the following information:
(A) The name of the medication to be provided;
(B) The form of the medication to be provided;
(C) The dosage of the medication to be provided;
(D) The frequency that the medication is to be provided;
(E) The route or method of administration for the medication to be provided; and
(F) Medication orders prescribed as P.R.N. must include the reason for administration of the medication.
(b) Medications for all residents must be labeled.
(c) Medications may not be used for the convenience of staff or as a substitute for supervision, care and treatment. Medications may not be withheld or used as reinforcement or punishment or in quantities that are excessive in relation to the amount needed to attain the resident's best possible functioning:
(d) Medications may be self-administered by the resident if the resident demonstrates the ability to self-administer medications in a safe and reliable manner, the program has received written orders from the prescriber and the residential service plan documents that medications will be self-administered. The self-administration of medications may be supervised by program staff who may prompt the resident to administer the medication and observe the fact of administration and dosage taken. When supervision occurs, program staff must document information in the resident’s record consistent with section (5)(h) below;
(e) Program staff who assist with administration of medication must be trained by a Licensed Medical Professional, Registered Nurse or Licensed Pharmacist on the use and effects of commonly used medications;
(f) Medications prescribed for one resident may not be administered to or self-administered by another resident;
(g) The program may not maintain stock supplies of prescription medications. The program may maintain a stock supply of non-prescription medications including FDA-approved short-acting, non-injectable, opioid antagonist medications;
(h) The program must develop and implement a policy and procedure that ensures all orders for prescription drugs are reviewed by a prescribing practitioner at least every six months. When this review identifies a contra-indication or other concern, the resident’s primary physician or LMP must be immediately notified. Each resident receiving psychotropic medications must be evaluated at least every three months by the LMP prescribing the medication, who must note for the resident’s record the results of the evaluation and any changes in the form and dosage of medication, the condition for which it is prescribed, when and how the medication is to be administered, common side effects, including any signs of tardive dyskinesia, contraindications or possible allergic reactions, and what to do in case of a missed dose or other dosing error;
(i) The provider must dispose of all unused, discontinued, outdated, or recalled medications and any medication containers with worn, illegible or missing labels. The provider must dispose of medications in a safe method consistent with any applicable state and federal requirements and designed to prevent diversion of these substances to persons for whom they were not prescribed.
(j) The provider must maintain a written record of all medication disposals within each resident service record. Disposals must specify the date of disposal, a description of the medication, its dosage potency, amount disposed, the name of the resident for whom the medication was prescribed, the reason for disposal, the method of disposal, and the signature of the program staff disposing of the medication. For any medication classified as a controlled substance in schedules 1 through 5 of the Federal Controlled Substance Act, the disposal must be witnessed by a second staff person who documents their observation by signing the disposal record;
(k) The provider must properly and securely store all medications in a locked space for medications only in accordance with the instructions provided by the prescriber or pharmacy except as otherwise permitted in OAR 309-035-0215(9).
(l) Medications requiring refrigeration must be stored in an enclosed, locked container within the refrigerator. The provider must ensure that residents have access to a locked, secure storage space for their self-administered medications. The program must note in its written policy and procedures which persons have access to this locked storage and under what conditions;
(m) For all residents taking prescribed medication, the provider must dispense, and record medications as described in the prescriber’s signed written order.
(n) The medication administration record must:
(A) Identify all medication and prescribed dietary supplements including the name, date, time, dosage and route;
(B) Identify any treatments and therapies provided including the type of treatment or therapy and the time the procedure must be performed;
(C) Be immediately signed or initialed or entered into the electronic health record system by the caregiver administering the medication, treatment, or therapy as it is completed. Each resident’s MAR must contain a legible signature that identifies each set of initials or electronic equivalent;
(D) Document changed and discontinued orders immediately showing the date of the change or discontinued order. A changed order must be written on a new line with a line drawn to the start date and time or entered into the electronic health record system; and
(E) Document missed or refused medications, treatments or therapies by circling the initials of the caregiver administering the medication, treatment or therapy and documenting a brief explanation on the back of the MAR or entered into the electronic health record system.
(o) All effects, adverse reactions, and medication errors must be documented in the resident’s service record. All errors, adverse reactions, or refusals of medication must be reported to the prescribing LMP within 48 hours;
(p) PRN medications, treatments and therapies must be documented on the resident’s MAR with the time, dose (as applicable), the reason the medication treatment or therapy was given and the outcome.
(q) Prescription medication, treatment or therapies ordered to be given “as needed” or “PRN” must have specific parameters indicating what the medication, treatment or therapy is for and specifically when, how much, and how often the medication, treatment or therapy may be administered. Any additional instructions must be available for the caregiver to review before the medication is administered to the resident.
(r) A Registered Nurse may write parameters to clarify to an existing physician or nurse practitioner order in accordance with Oregon State Board of Nursing in OAR chapter 851, division 45.
(s) In the event a prescribed medication or therapy needs to be modified due to urgent concerns for the resident’s safety or for administration of medication outside of prescribed medication window, and the prescribing physician is not available, program staff may follow the written advice of a practicing Pharmacist currently licensed by the State of Oregon to temporarily administer, modify, or hold a medication, medical treatment, or special diet. The prescribing physician must be notified in writing within 48 hours. Notification must be documented in the resident’s record.
(7) Nursing tasks may be trained or delegated by a registered nurse to direct care staff within the limitations of their classification and only in accordance with the administrative rules of the Oregon State Board of Nursing, chapter 851, division 45 and division 47.
(8) The program must ensure at least one unexpired opioid overdose kit for emergency response to a suspected overdose is available in the program at all times. Opioid overdose kits do not require a prescription and are not specific to a resident (see ORS 689.684).
(9) All opioid overdose kits must include an ultraviolet light-protected hard case and must contain, but not be limited to:
(a) Two doses of an FDA-approved short-acting, non-injectable, opioid antagonist medication;
(b) One pair non-latex gloves;
(c) One face mask;
(d) One disposable face shield for rescue breathing; and
(e) One short-acting, non-injectable, opioid antagonist medication administration instruction card.
(10) Opioid overdose kits must be:
(a) Installed in an easily accessible, highly visible, and unlocked location;
(b) At a height of no more than 48 inches from the floor;
(c) In a location without direct sunlight;
(d) In an area where temperatures are maintained between 59F and 77F; and
(e) Have a sign clearly indicating the location and content of the kit.
(11) Short-acting, non-injectable, opioid antagonist medication not within installed opioid overdose kits must be stored in a locked cabinet with other resident medications.
(12) Opioid overdose kits must be:
(a) Checked daily to ensure the required components have not been removed or damaged, with documentation of daily checks maintained for three years;
(b) Checked monthly to ensure the short-acting, non-injectable, opioid antagonist medication has not expired, with documentation of monthly checks maintained for three years; and
(c) Restocked immediately after use.
(13) Upon recognizing a person is likely experiencing an overdose, program staff must immediately respond based on the medical emergency procedures of the program.
(14) A person who has reasonable cause to believe a resident is experiencing an overdose, and in good faith administers short-acting, non-injectable, opioid antagonist medication to the resident, is protected against civil liability or criminal prosecution unless the person, while rendering care, acts with gross negligence, willful misconduct, or intentional wrongdoing as described in Oregon Revised Statute (ORS) 689.681.
(15) Program staff must fully cooperate with emergency medical service (EMS) personnel. Program staff must not interfere with or impede the administration of emergency medical services.
(16) Administration of short-acting, non-injectable, opioid antagonist medication must be documented in a critical incident report by the program staff who administered the medication. Documentation must be submitted to the Authority within 48 hours of the incident and must include:
(a) Name of the resident;
(b) Description of the incident including date, time, and location;
(c) Time 9-1-1 contacted;
(d) Time of administration(s) of short-acting, non-injectable, opioid antagonist medication;
(e) Resident’s response;
(f) Transfer of care to EMS; and
(g) Signature of program staff.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.032, 443.400 - 443.465 & 443.991
- BHS 6-2026, amend filed 04/30/2026, effective 05/01/2026
- BHS 5-2026, amend filed 04/30/2026, effective 06/01/2026
- BHS 32-2025, temporary amend filed 12/30/2025, effective 01/01/2026 through 06/27/2026
- BHS 4-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- BHS 6-2024, amend filed 04/11/2024, effective 04/11/2024
- BHS 1-2024, temporary amend filed 01/09/2024, effective 01/10/2024 through 04/11/2024
- MHS 5-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-8-17
- MHS 2-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
Or. Admin. R. 309-035-0217 Crisis Respite Services
Licensed programs provide crisis respite services must be in compliance with all prescribed standards of these rules except as provided in the following.
(1) When providing crisis respite services, a program:
(a) Is not required to enter into a legally enforceable residency agreement with a resident receiving crisis respite services;
(b) May not seek an individually-based limitation for a resident receiving crisis respite services;
(c) May accept a resident for admission without the most recent mental health assessment except for a summary of current mental health treatment;
(d) Must establish a resident service record within 24 hours of a crisis respite services admission;
(e) An amended or abbreviated screening process may be used to more quickly meet the needs of the prospective resident to receive crisis respite services. Screening and admission information obtained may be less comprehensive than for regular admissions but must be sufficient to determine that the prospective resident meets admission criteria and that the setting and program is appropriate considering the prospective resident's needs. The program must document the reasons for incomplete information on an individual basis; and
(f) Is not required to hold a pre-transfer meeting with a resident receiving crisis respite services;
(2) The planned end of crisis respite services may not be considered a transfer or discharge of residency and subject to requirements in OAR 309-035-0170(2)(4)(5). Upon admission to crisis respite services, the resident or the resident’s legal representative, if applicable, must be informed of the planned date for discontinuation of services. This date may be extended through a Division-approved variance and a mutual agreement between the program administrator and the resident or the resident’s legal representative;
(3) An assessment and residential service plan must be developed within 48 hours of admission that identifies service needs, desired outcomes, and the service strategies to be implemented to resolve the crisis or address other needs of the resident that resulted in the short-term service arrangement;
(4) The program is not required to develop a person-centered service plan for a resident receiving crisis respite services. At a minimum, the provider must develop an assessment and residential service plan as deemed appropriate to identify service needs, desired outcomes, and service strategies to resolve the crisis or address the resident’s other needs that caused the need for crisis respite services. The provider must provide relevant information and provide necessary support for the person-centered service plan coordinator;
(5) For emergency admissions including crisis respite admissions, the health screening must be obtained as follows:
(a) For residents experiencing psychiatric or medical distress, a health screening must be completed by an LMP prior to the resident's admission or within 24 hours of the emergency placement. The health screening must confirm that the resident does not have health conditions requiring continuous nursing care, hospital level of care, or immediate medical assistance. For each crisis respite services resident who continues in the program for more than seven consecutive days, a complete health examination must be arranged if any symptoms of a health concern exist;
(b) For other residents who are admitted on an urgent basis due to a lack of alternative supportive housing, the health screening must be obtained within 72 hours after the resident's admission;
(c) For residents admitted for crisis respite services who are under the active care of an LMP, a health screening must confirm that the resident does not have health conditions requiring continuous nursing care, hospital level of care, or immediate medical assistance. For each crisis respite resident who continues in the program for more than seven consecutive days, a complete health examination must be arranged if any symptoms of a health concern exist; and
(d) Programs are not required to ensure that a resident receiving crisis respite services are under the care of a primary physician.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.032, 443.400 - 443.465 & 443.991
- BHS 6-2026, amend filed 04/30/2026, effective 05/01/2026
- BHS 5-2026, amend filed 04/30/2026, effective 06/01/2026
- BHS 4-2025, adopt filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
Or. Admin. R. 309-035-0220 Civil Penalties
(1) For purposes of imposing civil penalties, programs licensed under ORS 443.400 to 443.455 are long-term care facilities subject to ORS 441.705 to 441.745.
(2) Violations of any requirement within any part of these rules may result in a civil penalty.
(3) Civil penalties will be assessed in accordance with the following guidelines:
(a) Civil penalties not to exceed $250 per violation to a maximum of $1,000 may be assessed for general violations of these rules. Such penalties will be assessed after the procedures outlined in OAR 309-035-0110(8) have been implemented;
(b) A mandatory penalty up to $500 must be assessed for falsifying individual service records or program records or causing another to do so;
(c) A mandatory penalty of $250 per occurrence must be imposed for failure to have direct care staff on duty 24 hours per day;
(d) Civil penalties up to $1,000 per occurrence may be assessed for substantiated abuse;
(e) In addition to any other liability or penalty provided by the law, the Division may impose a penalty for any of the following:
(A) Operating the program without a license;
(B) Operating with more individuals than the licensed capacity; and
(C) Retaliating or discriminating against an individual, family member, employee, or other person for making a complaint against the program.
(f) In imposing a civil penalty, the following factors must be taken into consideration:
(A) The history of the provider incurring the penalty in taking all feasible steps or procedures to correct the violation;
(B) Any prior violations of statutes, rules, or orders pertaining to the program;
(C) The economic and financial conditions of the provider incurring the penalty;
(D) The immediacy and extent to which the violation threatens or threatened the health, safety, or welfare of one or more residents; and
(E) The degree of harm caused to individuals.
(4) Any civil penalty imposed under this section becomes due and payable ten days after notice is received unless a request for a hearing is filed. The notice shall be delivered in person or sent by registered or certified mail and shall include a reference to the particular section of the statute or rule involved, a brief summary of the violation, the amount of the penalty or penalties imposed, and a statement of the right to request a hearing.
(5) The person to whom the notice is addressed has 20 days from the date of receipt of the notice to request a hearing. This request must be in writing and submitted to the Division. If the written request for a hearing is not received, the Division will issue a final order.
(6) All hearings must be conducted pursuant to the applicable provisions of ORS Chapter 183.
(7) Unless the penalty is paid within ten days after the order becomes final, the order constitutes a judgment and may be recorded by the County Clerk that becomes a lien upon the title to any interest in real property owned by the person. The Division may also take action to revoke the license upon failure to comply with a final order.
(8) Civil penalties are subject to judicial review under ORS 183.480.
(9) All penalties recovered under ORS 443.790 to 443.815 shall be paid into the State Treasury and credited to the General Fund.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.032, 443.400 - 443.465 & 443.991
- BHS 6-2026, amend filed 04/30/2026, effective 05/01/2026
- BHS 5-2026, amend filed 04/30/2026, effective 06/01/2026
- BHS 32-2025, temporary amend filed 12/30/2025, effective 01/01/2026 through 06/27/2026
- BHS 4-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- MHS 5-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-8-17
- MHS 2-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
Or. Admin. R. 309-035-0225 Criminal Penalties
(1) Violation of any provision of ORS 443.400 through 443.455 is a Class B misdemeanor.
(2) In addition, the Division may commence an action to enjoin operation of a program:
(a) When a program is operated without a valid license; or
(b) When a program continues to operate after notice of revocation has been received and a reasonable time has been allowed for placement of residents in other programs.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.032, 443.400 - 443.465 & 443.991
- BHS 4-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- MHS 5-2017, f. & cert. ef. 6-8-17
- MHS 2-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
Or. Admin. R. 309-035-0251 Procedures for Correction of Violations
(1) At any time after receipt of a statement of deficiency or an inspection report, the provider or the Division may request a conference in writing. The conference must be scheduled within ten days of a request by either party. The purpose of the conference is to discuss the deficiencies cited and to provide information to the provider to assist the provider in complying with the requirements of the rules. The written request by the provider or the Division for a conference may not extend any previously established time limit for correction.
(2) The provider must notify the Division of correction of deficiencies in writing no later than the date specified in the statement of deficiency.
(3) If, after inspection of the program, if the Division determines that the deficiencies have not been corrected by the date specified in the statement of deficiency or if the Division has not received a report of substantial compliance, the Division may institute one or more of the following actions:
(a) Imposition of an administrative sanction that may include revocation, suspension, or refusal to renew a license as deemed appropriate by the Division;
(b) Placement of conditions on the license as deemed appropriate by the Division; or
(c) Filing of a criminal complaint.
(4) If a resident is in serious and imminent danger, the Division may institute one or more of the following actions:
(a) If there is reliable evidence of abuse, neglect or exploitation, the license may be immediately suspended or revoked, and arrangements made to move the residents.
(b) The Division may order the removal of the resident; or
(c) Placement of conditions on the license as deemed appropriate by the Division.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.032, 443.400 - 443.465 & 443.991
- BHS 4-2025, adopt filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
Or. Admin. R. 309-035-0255 Administrative Sanctions
(1) An administrative sanction may be imposed for non-compliance with these rules.
(2) An administrative sanction includes one or more of the following actions:
(a) Civil penalties;
(b) Attachment of conditions to a license; and
(c) Denial, suspension, non-renewal, or revocation of a license. as set forth in OAR 309-040-0420.
(3) If the Division imposes an administrative sanction, the Division must serve a notice of administrative sanction upon the provider personally or by certified mail.
(4) The notice of administrative sanction must state the following:
(a) Each sanction imposed;
(b) A short and plain statement of each circumstance, act, or omission that constitutes non-compliance with the applicable rules;
(c) Each statute or rule allegedly violated;
(d) A statement of the provider right to a contested case hearing;
(e) A statement of the authority and jurisdiction under which the hearing is to be held;
(f) A statement that the Division files on the subject of the contested case automatically become part of the contested case record upon default for the purpose of proving a prima facie case; and
(g) A statement that the notice becomes a final order upon default if the provider fails to request a hearing within the specified time.
(5) All hearings are conducted in accordance with ORS 183.
(6) The provider must comply with any final order of the Division.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.032, 443.400 - 443.465 & 443.991
- BHS 4-2025, adopt filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
Or. Admin. R. 309-035-0265 Conditions
(1) Conditions may be attached to a license by order issued by the OHA director, and such order takes effect immediately upon issuance of the order. Conditions may be attached upon a finding that:
(a) Information on the application or initial inspection requires a condition to protect the health, well-being, and safety of residents;
(b) There exists a threat to the health, safety, and well-being of a resident;
(c) There is reliable evidence of abuse or neglect of a resident;
(d) The provider is substantially non-compliant with these rules; or
(e) The provider or caregivers demonstrate the inability to evacuate the program timely.
(2) Conditions that may be imposed on a provider include, but are not limited to:
(a) Restricting the maximum capacity of the setting;
(b) Restricting the number and impairment level of residents allowed based upon the ability of the provider and caregivers to meet the health and safety needs of all residents in the setting;
(c) Requiring additional caregivers or caregiver qualifications;
(d) Requiring additional training of the provider and caregivers;
(e) Restricting admissions when there is a threat to the health and safety of the current resident in the program; or
(f) Restricting a provider from allowing persons on the premises who may be a threat to resident health, safety or well-being.
(3) The provider must be notified in writing of any conditions imposed, the reason for the conditions, and be given an opportunity to request a contested case hearing under ORS chapter 183.
(4) The provider may request a contested case hearing in writing within 21 calendar days after the date the notice was personally served or mailed. Conditions take effect immediately and are a final order of the Division unless later rescinded through the hearings process.
(5) In addition to, or in lieu of a contested case hearing, a provider may request an informal conference with the Division to discuss the conditions imposed. The informal conference does not diminish the provider's right to a hearing or delay, extend, or otherwise affect the timeframe to request a hearing.
(6) Conditions remain in effect for the extent of the license period or until the Division has sufficient cause to believe the situation that warranted the condition has been remedied, whichever is sooner.
(7) If the provider believes the situation that warranted the condition has been remedied, the provider may request in writing the condition be removed.
(8) Reasons for the conditions must be considered at the time of renewal to determine if the conditions are still appropriate.
(9) Conditions must be posted with the license in a prominent place in the home and be available for inspection at all times.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.032, 443.400 - 443.465 & 443.991
- BHS 4-2025, adopt filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
Or. Admin. R. 309-035-0271 Temporary rule language in effect until 11/25/2026. Denial, Revocation, or Non-Renewal of License
(1) The Division must deny, revoke, or refuse to renew a license where it finds any of the following:
(a) There has been substantial non-compliance with these rules;
(b) There is substantial non-compliance with local codes and ordinances or any other state or federal law or rule applicable to the health and safety of residents; or
(c) A background check conducted by ODHS determined the applicant or provider is not approved;
(d) The provider allows a caregiver or any other person, excluding residents, who has been convicted of potentially disqualifying crimes and has been denied, or refused to cooperate with the Division, to reside or work in the program;
(e) The applicant or provider falsely represents they have not been convicted of a crime; or
(f) The Division has received notice from the Department of Revenue in accordance with ORS 305.385.
(g) The applicant or provider has had a certificate or license to operate a foster home, or residential facility denied, suspended, revoked, or refused to be renewed in this or any other state within three years preceding the present action if the denial, suspension, revocation, or refusal to renew was due in any part to:
(A) Abuse or neglect, creating a threat to the health, safety, or well-being of residents; or
(B) Failure of the applicant or provider to possess the physical health, mental health, or good judgement deemed necessary by the Division;
(h) The applicant or provider has had a certificate or license to operate a foster home, residential home or residential facility denied, suspended, revoked, or refusal to be renewed in this or any other state more than three years from the present action, the applicant or provider is required to demonstrate to the Division by clear and convincing evidence, the applicant or provider:
(A) Does not pose a threat to resident; and
(B) Posses the ability and fitness to operate a program in substantial compliance.
(i) The applicant or provider is associated with a person whose license for a foster home, residential home or facility denied, suspended, revoked, or refused to be renewed due to:
(A) Abuse or neglect, creating a threat to the health, safety, or well-being of residents; or
(B) Failure to possess physical health, mental health, or good judgement within three years preceding the present action, unless the applicant or provider can demonstrate to the Division by clear and convincing evidence that the person does not pose a threat to the residents.
(j) For purposes of this subsection, an applicant or provider is "associated with" a person as described above, if the applicant or provider:
(A) Resides with the person;
(B) Employs the person in the program;
(C) Receives financial backing from the person for the benefit of the program;
(D) Receives managerial assistance from the person for the benefit of the program;
(E) Allows the person to have access to the setting; or
(F) Rents or leases the setting from the person.
(k) For purposes of this section only, "present action" means the date of the notice of denial, suspension, revocation, or refusal to renew.
(2) (a) When a license is denied, revoked, or not renewed, the provider may request a hearing in writing within 21 calendar days after the date the notice was personally served or mailed. If the provider fails to request a hearing in writing, or the request is not timely, the notice will become a final order of the Division by default:
(b) In addition to, or in-lieu of, a contested case hearing, a provider may request an informal conference with the Division to discuss the administrative action. The informal conference does not diminish the provider’s right to a hearing. A request for informal conference does not delay, extend, or otherwise affect the 21 calendar days allowed to request a hearing.
(3) A license subject to revocation or non-renewal remains valid during the administrative hearing process even if the hearing and final order are not issued after the expiration date of the license. If the provider desires to continue operating the program, should they prevail at hearing, a complete renewal application and fee, as applicable, must be submitted to the Division prior to the expiration of the current license.
(4) An applicant who voluntarily withdraws an application during a denial process may not submit an application for a license for one year from the date of the withdrawal.
(5) An applicant whose license has been revoked, non-renewed, or voluntarily surrendered during a revocation or non-renewal process may not submit an application for a license for one year from the date the action was final, or for a longer period if specified in the final order.
(6) The Division may deny, suspend, revoke, or refuse to renew a license if the applicant or provider:
(a) Submits fraudulent, misleading or false information to the Division;
(b) Has a history of or demonstrates financial insolvency, such as bankruptcy, foreclosure, eviction due to failure to pay rent, or termination of utility services due to failure to pay bills;
(c) The Division has received written notice from the Oregon Department of Revenue in accordance with ORS 305.385;
(d) Has threatened the health, safety, or well-being of any resident;
(e) Has abused, neglected, or financially exploited a resident;
(f) Has a medical or psychiatric problem, which interferes with the ability to provide care;
(g) Refuses to allow access and inspection;
(h) Fails to comply with a final order of the Division to correct a violation of the rules for which an administrative sanction has been imposed;
(i) Fails to comply with a final order of the Division imposing an administrative sanction;
(j) Fails to report knowledge of the illegal actions of or disclose the known criminal history of a provider, administrator, direct care staff, or volunteer of the program;
(k) Interferes with a person who has made a good faith disclosure of information concerning the abuse or neglect of a resident receiving care and services in a licensed or certified facility;
(l) Has previously been cited for the operation of an unlicensed program;
(m) Has previously surrendered a license or certificate while under investigation or administrative sanction during the last three years; or
(n) Fails to operate the program or any other facility in substantial compliance.
(7) The Division may immediately suspend a license for reason of abuse, neglect, or exploitation of a resident if:
(a) The Division finds that the abuse, neglect, or exploitation causes an immediate threat to a resident; or
(b) The provider fails to operate the program in substantial compliance with ORS 443.400 to 443.465 causing an immediate threat to the health, safety or well-being of a resident.
(8) The Division must suspend a license upon written notice from the Oregon Department of Revenue in accordance with ORS 305.385, and after notice to the provider and a hearing if requested. Prior to reinstating a license suspended in this manner, the Division must take into consideration the provider’s good standing with the Department of Revenue and the residents’ continuity of care.
(9) If a license is suspended, the Division may arrange for resident to move for their protection.
(10) If a license is suspended, the provider may request a hearing in writing within 90 calendar days after the date the notice was personally served or mailed:
(a) If the provider fails to request a hearing in writing, or the request is not timely, the notice will become a final order of the Division by default; and
(b) In addition to, or in-lieu of, a contested case hearing, a provider may request an informal conference with the Division to discuss administrative action. The informal conference does not diminish the provider’s right to a hearing. A request for informal conference does not delay, extend, or otherwise affect the 90 calendar days allowed to request a hearing.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.032, 443.400 - 443.465 & 443.991
- BHS 13-2026, temporary amend filed 06/01/2026, effective 06/01/2026 through 11/25/2026
- BHS 6-2026, amend filed 04/30/2026, effective 05/01/2026
- BHS 5-2026, amend filed 04/30/2026, effective 06/01/2026
- BHS 32-2025, temporary amend filed 12/30/2025, effective 01/01/2026 through 06/27/2026
- BHS 4-2025, adopt filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
Or. Admin. R. 309-035-0275 Temporarily suspended until 11/25/2026. This rule language is not currently in effect. Suspension of License
(1) The Division may immediately suspend a license for reason of abuse, neglect, or exploitation of a resident if:
(a) The Division finds that the abuse, neglect, or exploitation causes an immediate threat to a resident; or
(b) The provider fails to operate the program in substantial compliance with ORS 443.400 to 443.465 causing an immediate threat to the health, safety or well-being of a resident.
(2) The Division must suspend a license upon written notice from the Oregon Department of Revenue in accordance with ORS 305.385, and after notice to the provider and a hearing if requested.
(3) If a license is suspended, the Division may arrange for resident to move for their protection.
(4) The provider may request a hearing in writing within 90 calendar days after the date the notice was personally served or mailed. If the provider fails to request a hearing in writing, or the request is not timely, the notice will become a final order of the Division by default.
(5) In addition to, or in-lieu of, a contested case hearing, a provider may request an informal conference with the Division to discuss the administrative action. The informal conference does not diminish the provider’s right to a hearing. A request for informal conference does not delay, extend, or otherwise affect the 90 calendar days allowed to request a hearing.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 443.450
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.032, 443.400 - 443.465 & 443.991
- BHS 14-2026, temporary suspend filed 06/01/2026, effective 06/01/2026 through 11/25/2026
- BHS 4-2025, adopt filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
Or. Admin. R. 309-035-0281 Removal of Residents
(1) The Division may order the removal of residents from a program to an alternative placement on the following grounds:
(a) When a violation of these rules is not corrected after time limit specified in notice;
(b) There is a violation of a resident’s rights;
(c) The number of residents currently in the program exceeds the maximum licensed capacity of the program;
(d) The program is operating without a license;
(e) There is evidence of abuse of a resident that presents a serious and immediate danger to residents.
(f) A final order of revocation or non-renewal has been issued to the provider; or
(g) The provider’s license to operate the program has been suspended.
(2) The CMHP must provide the resident assistance in locating and visiting alternative placements, if needed, and explain the resident’s right to contest the move.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.032, 443.400 - 443.465 & 443.991
- BHS 4-2025, adopt filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
Division 36 COMMUNITY MENTAL HEALTH HOUSING FUND
Or. Admin. R. 309-036-0100 Statement of Purpose
These rules prescribe standards for the development, renovation, and administration of the Community Mental Health Housing Program and the Community Mental Health Housing Fund under ORS 426.502–426.508. The Oregon Health Authority (Authority) through its Health Systems Division (Division) shall administer the Community Mental Health Housing Fund, supported in part by the Community Housing Trust Account.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.502–426.508
- BHS 13-2018, amend filed 06/05/2018, effective 06/05/2018
- BHS 12-2018, amend filed 05/30/2018, effective 06/01/2018
- MHS 7-2010, f. & cert. ef. 6-7-10
- MHD 7-2003, f. 8-15-03 cert. ef. 9-1-03
Or. Admin. R. 309-036-0105 Definitions
The following definitions apply to these rules:
(1) “Care Provider” means an individual or entity that provides services and support for an individual with serious mental illness or serious and persistent mental illness under a residential service agreement, contract, or other similar arrangement.
(2) “Community Housing” means real property, improvements, and related equipment that are used or could be used to house individuals with a serious and persistent mental illness in community-based settings consistent with ORS 426.502. It includes single-family housing, multiple-unit residential housing, and residential facilities. It does not include hospitals, nursing homes, correctional facilities, and other institutional housing except as provided in these rules. Consistent with the designated housing model, community housing may include accommodations for care providers and resident managers.
(3) "Community Housing Development" means efforts or assistance, financial or otherwise, that result in the establishment of community housing.
(4) "Community Housing Renovation" means efforts that result in the improvement of real property, the use of which is restricted to community housing for individuals with serious and persistent mental illness. Improvement includes but is not limited to replacing worn or non-functional components, making repairs to improve health and safety, expanding the building to accommodate more residents or provide more adequate living quarters, and installing equipment necessary to the operation of the community housing.
(5) "Community Mental Health Housing Fund" or "Fund" means the fund established by ORS 426.506.
(6) “Construct” includes but is not limited to building, installing, assembling, expanding, altering, converting, repairing, replacing or relocating community housing development, renovation, or administration. It may also mean to install equipment and necessary infrastructure to prepare a site.
(7) " Director" means the Director of the Health Systems Division.
(8) "Division" means the Health Systems Division of the Oregon Health Authority (Authority).
(9) “Equipment” means permanently installed fixtures or appliances acquired for the community housing.
(10) “Individual with Serious Mental Illness” means an individual who is:
(a) Diagnosed by a Qualified Mental Health Professional as suffering from a chronic mental disorder as defined by ORS 426.495 that includes but is not limited to conditions such as chronic schizophrenia, chronic affective disorder, chronic paranoid disorder, and other disorders that manifest symptoms that are not solely a result of mental retardation or other developmental disabilities, epilepsy, drug abuse, or alcoholism; which continue for more than one year, or on the basis of a specific diagnosis, are likely to continue for more than one year; and
(b) Impaired to an extent that substantially limits the individual's consistent functioning in one or more of the following areas:
(A) Home environment, independently attending to shelter needs, personal hygiene, nutritional needs, and home maintenance;
(B) Community negotiation, independently and appropriately utilizing community resources for shopping, recreation, and other needs;
(C) Social relations, establishing and maintaining supportive relationships;
(D) Vocational, maintaining employment sufficient to meet personal living expenses or engaging in other age appropriate activities.
(11) "Institutional Housing" means housing located at an Oregon State Hospital campus or the Blue Mountain Recovery Center, including buildings, grounds, leased facilities, infrastructure, and ancillary facilities.
(12) "Qualified Mental Health Professional (QMHP)" means a Licensed Medical Practitioner (LMP) or any other individual meeting one or more of the following minimum qualifications as authorized by the Local Mental Health Authority or designee:
(a) Bachelor’s degree in nursing and licensed by the State of Oregon;
(b) Bachelor’s degree in occupational therapy and licensed by the State of Oregon;
(c) Graduate degree in psychology;
(d) A Graduate degree in social work;
(e) A Graduate degree in recreational, art, or music therapy; or
(f) A Graduate degree in a behavioral science field.
(13) “Serious and Persistent Mental Illness” means the current Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders diagnostic criteria for at least one of the following conditions as a primary diagnosis for an adult age 18 or older:
(a) Schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders;
(b) Major depressive disorder;
(c) Bipolar disorder;
(d) Anxiety disorders limited to Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD) and Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD);
(e) Schizotypal personality disorder; or
(f) Borderline personality disorder.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.502–426.508
- BHS 13-2018, amend filed 06/05/2018, effective 06/05/2018
- BHS 12-2018, amend filed 05/30/2018, effective 06/01/2018
- MHS 7-2010, f. & cert. ef. 6-7-10
- MHD 7-2003, f. 8-15-03 cert. ef. 9-1-03
Or. Admin. R. 309-036-0110 Community Mental Health Housing Fund, Community Mental Health Housing Trust Account, Income and Expenditures
(1) The Community Mental Health Housing Fund shall be maintained in the State Treasury. All earnings on investments of moneys in the Fund, including earnings in the Community Housing Trust Account, shall accrue to the Fund. All moneys in the Fund shall be continuously appropriated to the Division to carry out the provisions of ORS 426.504 for the purpose of providing housing for individuals with serious and persistent mental illness:
(a) Income to the Fund shall consist of:
(A) The proceeds, less costs to the state, received from the sale of the F.H. Dammasch State Hospital property under ORS 426.508;
(B) Moneys appropriated to the Fund by the Legislative Assembly;
(C) Proceeds from the sale, transfer, or lease of any surplus real property owned, operated, or controlled by the Division and used for community housing;
(D) Money reallocated from other areas of the Division's budget;
(E) Interest and earnings credited to the fund; and
(F) Gifts of money or other property from any source to be used for the purposes of developing housing for individuals with serious and persistent mental illness. Except as provided in ORS 426.506, income to the fund may be restricted to deposit in the Community Housing Trust Account or may be available for expenditure.
(b) Gifts and other deposits may be designated by the contributor to be used for community housing purposes or institutional housing purposes. The deposits may also be restricted to the Community Housing Trust Account or may be non-restricted and available for expenditure from the Fund or may be designated for a specific expenditure purpose in the Fund. Any gifts restricted or designated by a contributor may not be available for re-allocation except as may be specified by the contributor;
(c) When it is determined that community housing established or assisted consistent with ORS 426.504 is no longer suitable for continued use as community housing, any proceeds realized from the disposition of the property shall be deposited into the Fund and used for community housing purposes.
(2) The Community Housing Trust Account exists within the Community Mental Health Housing Fund and shall consist of:
(a) At least 95 percent of the proceeds received from the sale of the F.H. Dammasch State Hospital property under ORS 426.508; and
(b) Any other funds deposited into the account for the restricted purpose of staying in the Fund for perpetuity.
(3) Amounts available from the Fund for expenditure shall consist of:
(a) Up to five percent of the sale proceeds received by the Authority for credit to the account from the Oregon Department of Administrative Services from the sale of the F.H. Dammasch State Hospital property; and
(b) All other deposited, unrestricted funds or account earnings unless a specific deposit is designated by its maker to be placed in the restricted portion of the Community Housing Trust Account.
(4) Interest earned on moneys in the Community Housing Trust Account may be expended in the following manner:
(a) Seventy percent of interest earned on deposits in the Community Housing Trust Account shall be expended for community housing purposes in accordance with these rules;
(b) Thirty percent of interest earned on deposits in the Community Housing Trust Account shall be expended for institutional housing purposes in accordance with these rules.
(5) Interest earned on deposits in the account may not be used to support Division operating expenses.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.502–426.508
- BHS 13-2018, amend filed 06/05/2018, effective 06/05/2018
- BHS 12-2018, amend filed 05/30/2018, effective 06/01/2018
- MHS 7-2010, f. & cert. ef. 6-7-10
- MHD 7-2003, f. 8-15-03 cert. ef. 9-1-03
Or. Admin. R. 309-036-0115 Funds for Community Housing
(1) The Division shall work through community partners to develop community housing and may not acquire or operate community housing directly. In circumstances where a particular type of community housing is desired and no community partner has been identified, the Division may acquire or directly operate community housing.
(2) The community housing to be assisted with funds from the Community Mental Health Housing Fund shall include a variety of types of housing integrated into residential neighborhoods of local communities throughout Oregon. The Division may establish priorities for the types of housing to be assisted based on an analysis of housing needs of individuals with serious and persistent mental illness. The community housing types to be considered for funding include but are not limited to single-family housing, multiple-unit residential housing, residential facilities, and other residences for individuals with serious and persistent mental illness. Housing for individuals with serious and persistent mental illness may include improvements and related equipment to enable a provider to offer services on site. When services are not offered on site, the community housing provider must demonstrate that access to services is available elsewhere in the community:
(a) Funds may be used to develop new community housing or to preserve or renovate existing community housing for individuals with serious and persistent mental illness. To this end, funding may be used toward acquisition, remodeling, maintenance, repair, permanently installed fixtures or appliances, and equipment;
(b) The community housing to be assisted with funds from the Community Mental Health Housing Fund must be made available for occupancy by individuals with serious and persistent mental illness. Consistent with the designated housing model, additional individuals such as resident managers, care providers, family members, and roommates may also reside in the housing to the extent allowed under ORS 426.502;
(c) Funds from the Community Mental Health Housing Fund may not be used to support service provision at the community housing.
(3) The Director shall identify annually the amount of funds available in the Community Mental Health Housing Fund for community housing purposes:
(a) The Director or designee shall establish with advice and input from the Community Mental Health Housing Fund Advisory Committee (CMHHFAC) a plan for allocating funds. This allocation plan shall designate amounts available for new development and renovation awards, geographic distribution goals, and any desired housing types or resident population priorities;
(b) As funds become available, it shall be the Division’s goal to distribute funds in a fair and equitable manner with respect to geographic and service population considerations. To this end, regional distribution goals shall be established by the Division with input from the CMHHFAC. These goals shall be established based upon the general population distribution in Oregon, Division data on the number of individuals with serious and persistent mental illness served in each region of the state, and other factors relating to housing needs. The distribution plan goals shall be published in the application materials. If after considering all applications for a region, the resulting awards do not award all funds in accordance with these goals, then remaining funds may be re-allocated to other regions.
(4) Unless targeted for a specific purpose by the Oregon Legislative Assembly, financial assistance for community housing by the Division shall be based on the assessment of housing needs for individuals with serious and persistent mental illness. In assessing housing needs, the Division shall conduct surveys, review available data, and seek input from advisory bodies that include consumers, family members, service providers, housing providers, citizens, and other interested individuals. The Division may prioritize types of housing and specify subpopulations of individuals with serious and persistent mental illness for occupation in the community housing that will receive financial assistance.
(5) The Division shall implement an application and award process that may include but is not limited to an open process such as a first come – first reviewed solicitation, a demonstration program, or a competitive application process. The Division may also award emergency funds when necessary to ensure the completion of development or continued operation of community housing. The application and award process shall be consistent with the following guidelines:
(a) For the open application process, the Division shall announce the availability of funding from the Community Mental Health Housing Fund and provide instructions for applying for such funding. The announcement of funding shall include a description of the fund, the allocation plan, eligible community housing, application rating criteria, and application materials;
(b) An application for funding shall contain all information required by the Division, including but not limited to:
(A) A description of the proposed community housing project, including but not limited to type of unit or units, number of residents who are individuals with serious and persistent mental illness, proposed rents, site location, the services to be available to residents, and project amenities;
(B) Documentation of the applicant's experience with developing and operating housing;
(C) A statement identifying the length of time the unit or units shall be dedicated for use by individuals with serious and persistent mental illness;
(D) An operating budget showing anticipated revenues and expenses;
(E) The development plan, including a development budget with all sources of funding identified; and
(F) Documentation describing how the proposed community housing is consistent with allocation plan priorities. Applicants shall have a minimum of sixty days to complete and return applications.
(c) Completed applications shall be submitted to the Director or designee:
(A) Applications shall be reviewed and rated by a review panel established by the Director or designee. The review panel shall include at least three members of the Community Mental Health Housing Fund Advisory Committee. The review panel shall make recommendations for funding decisions to the Director;
(B) For applications made on an emergency basis under these rules, the Division may use an expedited review process that includes review and comment by at least three members of the Community Mental Health Housing Fund Advisory Committee. Results of the review shall be presented to the Director who will make the final funding decisions. Applicants shall receive written notice of funding decisions.
(d) Applicants who disagree with funding decisions are encouraged to discuss their application with Division staff. If the issue is not resolved, applicants may submit a request for appeal of the decision to the Director or designee as follows:
(A) The applicant requesting an appeal shall submit a written request to the Director or designee within seven business days after receiving the written funding decision;
(B) The Director or designee shall approve or deny the request for an appeal and shall notify the applicant in writing of the decision to approve or deny the requested appeal within fifteen business days of receipt of the appeal. The decision shall be final;
(C) The decision to grant the appeal in favor of the applicant for one request does not set a precedent that must be followed by the Division when evaluating subsequent requests for appeal.
(6) The Division shall develop procedures for the disbursement of funds consistent with prudent accounting practices and the Division's financial procedures.
(7) All funds disbursed in amounts greater than $10,000 for the purpose of community housing shall be secured by a trust deed or other instrument to secure the investment and ensure continuing use of the property, improvements, and related equipment in accordance with the purposes of the award.
(8) Recipients of funding for community housing shall ensure that all eligible individuals with serious and persistent mental illness shall be considered for residency without regard to:
(a) Race;
(b) Color;
(c) Sex or sexual orientation, except as may be limited by room arrangement;
(d) Religion;
(e) Creed;
(f) National origin;
(g) Age;
(h) Familial status;
(i) Marital status;
(j) Source of income; or
(k) Disability in addition to the serious and persistent mental illness.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.502–426.508
- BHS 13-2018, amend filed 06/05/2018, effective 06/05/2018
- BHS 12-2018, amend filed 05/30/2018, effective 06/01/2018
- MHS 7-2010, f. & cert. ef. 6-7-10
- MHD 7-2003, f. 8-15-03 cert. ef. 9-1-03
Or. Admin. R. 309-036-0120 Funds for Institutional Housing
(1) The institutional housing to be assisted with 30 percent of interest earnings from the Community Housing Trust Account and any other funds restricted to institutional housing purposes shall be for occupancy by individuals with serious and persistent mental illness.
(2) The Division's Director or designee shall identify annually the amount of funds available in the Community Mental Health Housing Fund for institutional housing purposes:
(a) The superintendents of the state psychiatric hospital facilities shall submit prioritized requests for funding of institutional housing improvements to the Director or designee. The Director or designee shall create an allocation plan based on a consolidated prioritized list of requests;
(b) As funds become available, they shall be distributed to state psychiatric hospital facilities for improvements in accordance with the allocation plan.
(3) The Community Mental Health Housing Fund Advisory Committee shall review the allocation plan and make recommendations to the Director regarding distribution of funds for institutional housing purposes; the Director shall make the final funding decisions.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.502–426.508
- BHS 13-2018, amend filed 06/05/2018, effective 06/05/2018
- BHS 12-2018, amend filed 05/30/2018, effective 06/01/2018
- MHS 7-2010, f. & cert. ef. 6-7-10
- MHD 7-2003, f. 8-15-03 cert. ef. 9-1-03
Or. Admin. R. 309-036-0130 Real Property for Community Housing
(1) In accordance with ORS 426.508, the Oregon Department of Administrative Services in coordination with the City of Wilsonville and the Division shall reserve not more than ten acres from the sale of the property formerly known as the F.H. Dammasch State Hospital for transfer to the Division. The Division shall use the reserved land to develop community housing for individuals with serious mental illness. The Division shall coordinate with the City of Wilsonville to identify the specific real property reserved from the sale. Development of the land reserved for community housing shall be consistent with the Dammasch Area Transportation Efficient Land Use Plan described in ORS 426.508.
(2) When one or more specific lots of land reserved for community housing are confirmed on the proposed subdivision plat, the Division shall distribute the property through a process that may include but is not limited to an open process such as a first come–first reviewed solicitation, a demonstration program, a competitive review process, or as emergency funds when necessary to ensure development or continued operation of community housing on the site.
(3) Applications shall be reviewed and rated by a review panel established by the Director or designee. The review panel shall include at least three members of the Community Mental Health Housing Fund Advisory Committee. The review panel shall make recommendations for funding decisions to the Director who shall make the final funding decisions.
(4) The applicant selected as a result of the application process shall own the community housing site. The selected applicant shall be responsible for coordinating the development of the community housing designated for the site with oversight by the Division.
(5) In awarding the reserved land to the selected applicant, the Division shall restrict the property’s use to community housing for individuals with serious mental illness. The Division shall transfer the property title with a deed restriction or another legal restriction approved by the Oregon Department of Justice.
(6) When the property title is transferred to the selected applicant, the terms of the property transfer agreement, promissory note, and trust deed shall restrict the property’s use to community housing for individuals with serious mental illness and provide the Division with a right to reclaim the property in the event of non-performance.
(7) The Division shall develop procedures for the disbursement of funds consistent with prudent accounting practices and the Division's financial procedures.
(8) All funds disbursed in amounts greater than $10,000 for the purpose of community housing shall be secured by a trust deed or other instrument to secure the investment and ensure continuing use of the property, improvements, and related equipment in accordance with the purposes of the award.
(9) Recipients of funding for community housing shall ensure that all eligible individuals with serious mental illness shall be considered for residency without regard to:
(a) Race;
(b) Color;
(c) Sex or sexual orientation, except as may be limited by room arrangement;
(d) Religion;
(e) Creed;
(f) National origin;
(g) Age;
(h) Familial status;
(i) Marital status;
(j) Source of income; or
(k) Disability in addition to the serious mental illness.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.502–426.508
- BHS 13-2018, amend filed 06/05/2018, effective 06/05/2018
- BHS 12-2018, amend filed 05/30/2018, effective 06/01/2018
- MHS 7-2010, f. & cert. ef. 6-7-10
Or. Admin. R. 309-036-0135 Monitoring of Community Housing Awarded Financial Assistance
(1) The Division shall confirm annually, or more frequently at its discretion, that the community housing developed with financial assistance from the Division continues to operate according to the agreed terms of the financial assistance.
(2) If the Division determines that the community housing is not operating according to the agreed terms, the owner shall be provided with an opportunity for remedy. If the remedy proves unsuccessful, the Division shall consider the project in default.
(3) A project shall be considered in default when it is no longer operated consistent with the terms of the financial assistance after the operator has been provided an opportunity for remedy. When a project is in default, the Division shall take action to recover any payment or settlement owed per the terms of the executed security document or contractual agreement.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.502–426.508
- BHS 13-2018, amend filed 06/05/2018, effective 06/05/2018
- BHS 12-2018, amend filed 05/30/2018, effective 06/01/2018
- MHS 7-2010, f. & cert. ef. 6-7-10
Or. Admin. R. 309-036-0140 Community Mental Health Housing Fund Advisory Committee
(1) The Community Mental Health Housing Fund Advisory Committee (CMHHFAC) shall be comprised of not less than 11 members who shall be appointed by the Director or designee. Each member shall be appointed for a term of four years. Members may be reappointed for two additional four-year terms.
(2) CMHHFAC members shall consist of at least one Division employee who shall be responsible for convening the committee. The Division shall provide clerical support. Additional members shall include but not be limited to at least one state psychiatric hospital representative, three consumer advocates, one family advocate, one representative from the Housing and Community Services Department, one community mental health service provider, one nonprofit housing provider, and two members of the public at large.
(3) The CMMHFAC shall meet no less than two times per year.
(4) The CMHHFAC shall be responsible for:
(a) Recommending an allocation plan for funding awards from the Community Mental Health Housing Fund;
(b) Recommending maximum award amounts;
(c) Reviewing and evaluating the award decisions for community housing and institutional housing awards and making recommendations regarding the award process;
(d) Making policy recommendations for the operation and investment of the fund; and
(e) Such other advisory actions as might be assigned by the Director.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 430.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.502–426.508
- BHS 13-2018, amend filed 06/05/2018, effective 06/05/2018
- BHS 12-2018, amend filed 05/30/2018, effective 06/01/2018
- MHS 7-2010, f. & cert. ef. 6-7-10
Division 37 BEHAVIORAL HEALTH INVESTMENTS
Or. Admin. R. 309-037-0200 Purpose
(1) The purpose of these rules is to establish the requirements for the administration and compliance monitoring of grants and other funds awarded through the Oregon Health Authority (OHA) to fund the acquisition, development, construction, and/or rehabilitation of Behavioral Health Facilities and Community-Based Structured Housing.
(2) These rules are intended to ensure accountability, sustainability, stewardship of public resources and to build capacity for Oregon’s behavioral health programs.
(3) Programs funded with OHA funding must comply with all applicable state and federal laws, administrative rules, and requirements, including any licensing, certification, or accreditation standards associated with the funded program.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.042
- BHS 22-2026, adopt filed 07/27/2026, effective 08/01/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-037-0210 Definitions
For the purpose of these rules, the following definitions apply:
(1) “Adult Foster Home” has the meaning set forth in OAR 309-040-0305.
(2) “Behavioral Health Facility” means a licensed building or property intended to provide mental health or substance use disorder services, housing, or related supports.
(3) “Community-Based Structured Housing” has the meaning set forth in OAR 309-060-0105.
(4) “Declaration of Restrictive Covenants” means an agreement between OHA and a grantee whereby the Grantee agrees, among other things, to comply with a use restriction for a term of years that encumbers the real property acquired and/or improved with OHA funds and that is recorded against the real property in the real property records of the county in which the property is located and in accordance with local requirements.
(5) “Grantee” means any entity receiving OHA funds for the purposes of acquiring, constructing, or renovating a Behavioral Health Facility or Community-Based Structured Housing.
(6) “Opioid Treatment Program” has the meaning set forth in OAR 415-020-0005
(7) “Real Property” has the meaning set forth in ORS 308.240
(8) “Residential Treatment Facility” has the meaning set forth in OAR 309-035-0105.
(9) “Residential Treatment Home” has the meaning set forth in OAR 309-035-0105.
(10) “Secure Residential Treatment Facility” has the meaning set forth in OAR 309-035-0105.
(11) “Substance Use Disorder Residential Treatment Facility” or “SUD Residential Treatment Facility” means a facility that meets the definition of a Residential Treatment Facility for substance-dependent individuals under ORS 443.400(11) or a “detoxification center” as defined in ORS 430.306 with a certificate issued by OHA as described in OAR 410-172-0670.
(12) “Transitional Housing” means temporary housing for persons who lack permanent, safe shelter with onsite services and support.
(13) “Withdrawal Management” means services performed in a Behavioral Health Facility approved by OHA that provides withdrawal management services and emergency care to individuals experiencing withdrawal symptoms due to the cessation or reduction of substance use.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.042
- BHS 22-2026, adopt filed 07/27/2026, effective 08/01/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-037-0220 Declaration of Restrictive Covenants
The purpose of this rule is to establish requirements for Declarations of Restrictive Covenants (DRCs) to ensure that Behavioral Health Facilities and Community-Based Structured Housing funded with public resources remain dedicated and available for their intended public use. Declarations of Restrictive Covenants protect long-term public investment in Behavioral Health Facilities and Community-Based Structured Housing by ensuring continued availability and access.
(1) The requirement for a Declaration of Restrictive Covenants applies to all Grantees receiving OHA funding for the acquisition, construction, and/or renovation of real property for the development of Behavioral Health Facilities and Community-Based Structured Housing and, depending on the amount of OHA funding, imposes a use restriction from five (5) to twenty (20) years as described in this division. This does not apply if a recipient of the funding is a federally recognized tribe and the capital development project is on tribal land, or the land or building is owned or being purchased by the tribe.
(2) Duration of the Declaration of Restrictive Covenants. The use restriction period set forth in a Declaration of Restrictive Covenants is based on the total amount of OHA funding as follows:
(a) A Behavioral Health Facility or Community-Based Structured Housing with OHA funding in the amount of $0 to $499,999.99 requires a use restriction for a period of five (5) years.
(b) A Behavioral Health Facility or Community-Based Structured Housing with OHA funding in the amount of $500,000.00 to $1,499,999.99 requires a use restriction for a period of ten (10) years.
(c) A Behavioral Health Facility or Community-Based Structured Housing with OHA funding in the amount of $1,500,000.00 to $3,999,999.99 requires a use restriction for a period of fifteen (15) years.
(d) A Behavioral Health Facility or Community-Based Structured Housing with OHA funding in the amount of $4,000,000.00 or more requires a use restriction for a period of twenty (20) years.
(3) Requirement to Record a Declaration of Restrictive Covenants
(a) All Grantees receiving OHA funds for acquisition, construction, or renovation must execute a Declaration of Restrictive Covenants.
(b) The Grantee is responsible for all recording fees.
(c) The Declaration of Restrictive Covenants must be recorded in the real property records of the county in which the property is located before any capital improvement work commences on the property.
(4) Compliance and Monitoring
(a) Grantees must comply with and operate the property in accordance with the recorded Declaration of Restrictive Covenants for the duration of the use restriction period.
(b) Annual reporting will be required for the duration of the use restriction period.
(c) OHA may conduct monitoring to verify compliance, including review of facility operations, service capacity, population served, or program outputs.
(d) Grantees must notify OHA prior to any transfer, sale, or refinancing of the property.
(e) Regardless of any such sale or transfer, the use restriction is binding on successors and assigns in accordance with the terms of the Declaration of Restrictive Covenants.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.042
- BHS 22-2026, adopt filed 07/27/2026, effective 08/01/2026
Division 39 STANDARDS FOR THE APPROVAL OF PROVIDERS OF NON-INPATIENT MENTAL HEALTH TREATMENT SERVICES
Or. Admin. R. 309-039-0500 Purpose and Scope
These rules apply to certifications of provider organizations that render non-inpatient mental health treatment services. The certifications exist solely for the purpose of qualifying for insurance reimbursement. Agencies that contract with the Oregon Health Authority (OHA), subcontract with OHA, or contract with a Community Mental Health Program are not eligible for the “non-inpatient” certification.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 743A.160 & 743.168
- MHS 19-2016, f. 11-28-16, cert. ef. 11-30-16
- MHS 8-2016(Temp), f. 6-28-16, cert. ef. 7-1-16 thru 12-27-16
- MHS 11-2014, f. 6-17-14, cert. ef. 6-19-14
- MHS 13-2013(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 12-20-13 thru 6-18-14
- MHD 1-1993, f. 2-24-93, cert. ef. 2-26-93
- MHD 4-1989, f. & cert. ef. 8-25-89
- MHD 2-1989(Temp), f. 3-13-89, cert. ef. 3-14-89
Or. Admin. R. 309-039-0510 Definitions
As used in these rules:
(1) “Community Mental Health Program” means the organization of all services for persons with mental or emotional disturbances, drug abuse problems, mental retardation or other developmental disabilities, and alcoholism and alcohol abuse problems, operated by, or contractually affiliated with, a local mental health authority, operated in a specific geographic area of the state under an intergovernmental agreement or direct contract with the Division.
(2) “Certificate” means the document or documents issued by the Division, which identifies and declares certification of a provider pursuant to OAR 309-008-0100 to 309-008-1600. A letter accompanying issuance of the certificate will detail the scope and approved service delivery locations of the certificate.
(3) “Division” means the l Health Systems Division of the Oregon Health Authority.
(4) “Facility” means a corporate or other entity which provides services for the treatment of mental health conditions.
(5) “Non-Related Adult” means any person over 18 years of age who is not related by blood, marriage or living situation. Foster parents and adults co-habitating with a child may be considered to be related adults.
(6) “Outpatient Program” means a program that provides evaluation, treatment and rehabilitation on a regularly scheduled basis or in response to crisis in a setting outside an inpatient program, residential program, day treatment or partial hospitalization program which is certified by the Division pursuant to OAR 309-008-0100 to 309-008-1600.
(7) “Program” means a particular type or level of service that is organizationally distinct within a facility.
(8) “Provider” means a program operated by either a licensed business or a corporation that provides mental health services.
(9) "Qualified Mental Health Associate (QMHA)” means a person delivering services under the direct supervision of a QMHP who meets the minimum qualifications as authorized by the LMHA, or designee, and specified in 309-019-0125(7).
(10) "Qualified Mental Health Professional (QMHP)" means a LMP or any other person meeting the minimum qualifications as authorized by the LMHA, or designee, and specified in 309-019-0125(8).
(11) “Qualified Supervisor” means any person meeting the following qualifications:
(a) A medical or osteopathic physician licensed by the Board of Medical Examiners for the State of Oregon and who is board eligible for the practice of psychiatry;
(b) A psychologist licensed by the State Board of Psychologist Examiners;
(c) A registered nurse certified as a psychiatric nurse practitioner by the Oregon State Board of Nursing;
(d) A clinical social worker licensed by the State Board of Clinical Social Workers;
(e) A Licensed Professional Counselor (LPC) licensed by the State of Oregon; or
(f) A Licensed Marriage and Family Therapist (LMFT), licensed by the State of Oregon.
(12) “Residential Program” means a program that provides room, board, and an organized full-day program of mental health services in a facility for six or more persons who do not require 24-hour nursing care.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 743A.160 & 743.168
- MHS 19-2016, f. 11-28-16, cert. ef. 11-30-16
- MHS 8-2016(Temp), f. 6-28-16, cert. ef. 7-1-16 thru 12-27-16
- MHS 11-2014, f. 6-17-14, cert. ef. 6-19-14
- MHS 13-2013(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 12-20-13 thru 6-18-14
- MHD 1-1993, f. 2-24-93, cert. ef. 2-26-93
- MHD 4-1989, f. & cert. ef. 8-25-89
- MHD 2-1989(Temp), f. 3-13-89, cert. ef. 3-14-89
Or. Admin. R. 309-039-0520 Eligible Providers
(1) Agencies that currently hold a Certificate of Approval for the provision of mental health services as a contractor of OHA, a subcontractor of OHA, or a contractor of a Community Mental Health Program, or a license to provide residential or adult foster care services, are not eligible for the “non-inpatient” certification.
(2) Certification as a non-inpatient mental health provider is not a substitute for the certification and Medicaid provider enrollment processes that are required to render services to individuals enrolled in the Oregon Health Plan, or to individuals whose services are otherwise funded by the State.
(3) Only providers as defined in OAR 309-039-0510(10) are eligible for approval under 309-039-0500 through 309-039-0580. An eligible provider must:
(a) Control the office space, such as by owning, renting or leasing it;
(b) Control the intake to the program and determine which therapist provides assessment and treatment;
(c) Control all clinical records, including storage;
(d) Do all the billing and collect all fees, including deductibles and co-payments;
(e) Pay staff for clinical services provided; and
(f) Display the provider name on the premises so as to be clearly visible to clients.
(4) An individual operating as a private practitioner, whether or not a licensed business or corporation, is not eligible for approval under these rules.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 743A.160 & 743.168
- MHS 11-2014, f. 6-17-14, cert. ef. 6-19-14
- MHS 13-2013(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 12-20-13 thru 6-18-14
- MHD 1-1993, f. 2-24-93, cert. ef. 2-26-93
- MHD 4-1989, f. & cert. ef. 8-25-89
- MHD 2-1989(Temp), f. 3-13-89, cert. ef. 3-14-89
Or. Admin. R. 309-039-0530 Approval Process
(1) Request for initial certification or certification renewal shall be submitted to the Division compliant with the process governed by OAR 309-0080100 to 309-008-1600. In addition to the requirements set in OAR 309-008 the applicant will include with the application a check or money order in the amount of $600.00 payable to the Division. This application fee shall be non-refundable irrespective of whether the provider is issued a Certificate of Approval.
(a) Any provider submitting an application for initial certification or renewal after the effective date of this rule shall pay the application and certification fees;
(b) The fees shall be increased biennially at the same rate as approved by the Legislative Assembly or the Emergency Board for other services and programs of the Division.
(2) A Certificate is valid for up to three years, shall be issued to the provider when the administrative and certification reviews of the program by the Division indicate the provider is in compliance with the applicable parts of OAR 309-039-0500 through 309-039-0580. The Certificate will be issued pursuant to the process governed OAR 309-008-0100 to 309-008-1600.
(4) The award, renewal, and duration of Certificates of Approval as well as periodic and interim reviews, establishment of conditions, denial, revocation and hearings shall comply with OAR 309-008-0100 to 309-008-1600.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 743A.160 & 743.168
- MHS 19-2016, f. 11-28-16, cert. ef. 11-30-16
- MHS 8-2016(Temp), f. 6-28-16, cert. ef. 7-1-16 thru 12-27-16
- MHS 11-2014, f. 6-17-14, cert. ef. 6-19-14
- MHS 13-2013(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 12-20-13 thru 6-18-14
- MHD 1-1993, f. 2-24-93, cert. ef. 2-26-93
- MHD 4-1989, f. & cert. ef. 8-25-89
- MHD 2-1989(Temp), f. 3-13-89, cert. ef. 3-14-89
Or. Admin. R. 309-039-0540 General Standards
Each provider is required to meet all applicable standards from the following standards:
(1) Specific Staff Qualifications and Compentencies, detailed in OAR 309-019-0125; and
(2) Personnel Documentation, Training and Supervision, detailed in OAR 309-019-0130.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 743A.160 & 743.168
- MHS 11-2014, f. 6-17-14, cert. ef. 6-19-14
- MHS 13-2013(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 12-20-13 thru 6-18-14
- MHD 1-1993, f. 2-24-93, cert. ef. 2-26-93
- MHD 4-1989, f. & cert. ef. 8-25-89
- MHD 2-1989(Temp), f. 3-13-89, cert. ef. 3-14-89
Or. Admin. R. 309-039-0560 Standards for Mental Health Partial Hospitalization and Day Treatment Programs
In addition to OAR 309-039-0500 through 309-039-0540, each provider operating a mental health partial hospitalization or day treatment program shall comply with the following standards:
(1) Facility standards. The facility shall meet all applicable state and local fire, safety, and health standards.
(2) Treatment standards. Each provider shall provide four hours a day, five days a week, structured treatment activities which address mental health conditions and which includes the following services each week:
(a) Daily group therapy for mental health conditions;
(b) Individual counseling with a primary therapist;
(c) Family therapy, as appropriate to the individual needs of the client;
(d) Psychotropic medication management or monitoring; and
(e) Skills training, vocational training, socialization or structured recreational/physical fitness activities.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 743A.160 & 743.168
- MHS 11-2014, f. 6-17-14, cert. ef. 6-19-14
- MHD 1-1993, f. 2-24-93, cert. ef. 2-26-93
- MHD 4-1989, f. & cert. ef. 8-25-89
- MHD 2-1989(Temp), f. 3-13-89, cert. ef. 3-14-89
Or. Admin. R. 309-039-0570 Standards for Mental Health Residential Programs
In addition to meeting OAR 309-039-0500 through 309-039-0540 each provider operating a mental health residential program shall meet the following standards:
(1) Facility standards. Each provider shall meet OAR 309-035-0100 through 309-035-0190.
(2) Treatment standards. Each provider shall provide eight hours of structured services out of every 12 hours from 8 a.m. to 8 p.m. which, each week, includes:
(a) Daily group therapy which addresses the mental health or nervous condition;
(b) Individual counseling which addresses the mental health or nervous condition with a primary therapist two times per week;
(c) Family therapy, as appropriate to the individual needs of the client;
(d) Psychotropic medication management or monitoring, as appropriate to the individual needs of the client;
(e) One hour per day of structured recreational/physical fitness activities; and
(f) Structured skills training, vocational training, or socialization activities.
(3) Treatment standards for children and adolescents:
(a) Each provider shall comply with OAR 309-035-0100 through 309-035-0190;
(b) Each residential facility serving children or adolescents shall meet the standards described by OAR 413-210-0100 through 413-210-0250, Standards for reviewing, inspecting and licensing those private child caring agencies which are for residential care and treatment services for children and which are subject to the provisions of ORS Chapter 418, for licensure by the Children’s Services Division.
(4) Staffing standards. Each provider shall:
(a) Provide staff coverage 24 hours-a-day, seven days-a-week;
(b) Employ sufficient qualified mental health professionals to maintain a maximum caseload of no more than eight clients;
(c) Have a mental health associate on site, and awake, from 8 p.m. to 8 a.m.; and
(d) Have available a mental health professional on-call from 8 p.m. to 8 a.m.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 743A.160 & 743.168
- MHS 11-2014, f. 6-17-14, cert. ef. 6-19-14
- MHS 13-2013(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 12-20-13 thru 6-18-14
- MHD 4-1989, f. & cert. ef. 8-25-89
- MHD 2-1989(Temp), f. 3-13-89, cert. ef. 3-14-89
Or. Admin. R. 309-039-0580 Variance
A variance to these rules may be requested and granted to a provider via the process governed by OAR 309-008-1600.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 743A.160 & 743.168
- MHS 19-2016, f. 11-28-16, cert. ef. 11-30-16
- MHS 8-2016(Temp), f. 6-28-16, cert. ef. 7-1-16 thru 12-27-16
- MHD 1-1993, f. 2-24-93, cert. ef. 2-26-93
- MHD 4-1989, f. & cert. ef. 8-25-89
- MHD 2-1989(Temp), f. 3-13-89, cert. ef. 3-14-89
Division 40 ADULT FOSTER HOMES
Or. Admin. R. 309-040-0300 Purpose and Scope
(1) These rules prescribe minimum care and service standards by which the Health Systems Division (Division) of the Oregon Health Authority (Authority) licenses community-based Adult Foster Homes (AFHs) for adults with mental health conditions. The care and services standards are designed to promote the resident’s right to independence, choice, and decision making while providing a safe, secure, homelike environment. The provider must address the resident’s needs in a manner that enables the resident to function at the highest level of independence possible:
(a) These rules incorporate and implement the requirements of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services for home and community-based services authorized under section 1915(i) of the Social Security Act; and
(b) These rules establish requirements to ensure residents receive services in settings that are integrated in and support the same degree of access to the greater community as people not receiving these services consistent with the standards set out in Oregon Administrative Rule (OAR) chapter 411, division 004.
(2) These rules apply to adult foster homes providing care and services to five or fewer adults with mental health conditions, regardless of whether the provider receives public funds.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 413.032 & 413.085
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 443.705 - 443.825
- BHS 5-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- MHS 9-2017, f. 6-29-17, cert. ef. 7-1-17
- MHS 3-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
- MHS 14-2016(Temp), f. 9-6-16, cert. ef. 9-7-16 thru 3-3-17
- MHS 4-2012, f. 5-3-12, cert. ef. 5-4-12
- MHS 11-2011(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 12-5-11 thru 5-31-12
- Renumbered from 309-040-0000, MHD 3-2005, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-05
- MHD 6-1999, f. 8-24-99, cert. ef. 8-26-99
- MHD 1-1992, f. & cert. ef. 1-7-92 (and corrected 1-31-92)
- MHD 6-1986, f. & ef. 7-2-86
- MHD 19-1985(Temp), f. & ef. 12-27-85
Or. Admin. R. 309-040-0305 Temporary rule language in effect until 12/01/2026. Definitions
(1) "Abuse" means abuse as defined in ORS 430.735.
(2) "Abuse Investigation and Protective Services" means an investigation and any subsequent services or supports necessary to prevent further abuse as required by ORS 430.745 to 430.765 and OAR 943-045-0000, or any other rules established by the Authority applicable to allegations of abuse of residents residing at an AFH licensed by the Authority.
(3) "Activities of Daily Living (ADL)" means those personal and functional activities required by a resident for continued well-being, that are essential for health and safety. ADLs include eating, bathing, dressing, toileting, transferring (including mobility and ambulation) and maintaining continence.
(4) "Administration of Medication" means administration of medicine or a medical treatment to a resident as prescribed by a Licensed Medical Practitioner.
(5) “Adult” means a person 18 years of age or older with a severe and persistent mental illness who is receiving mental health treatment from a community program
(6) "Adult Foster Home (AFH)" means any home licensed by the Health Systems Division of the Authority in which residential care is provided to five or fewer residents who are not related to the provider by blood or marriage as described in ORS 443.705 through 443.825. An AFH or any person, organization, or business entity that advertises, including word-of-mouth advertising, to provide room, board, and care and services for adults is considered an AFH. For the purpose of these rules, an AFH does not include any house, institution, hotel or other similar place that supplies room and/or board only, if no resident thereof requires any element of care, or any residential facility as defined in ORS 443.400.
(7) “Advance Directive” or “Advance Directive for Health Care” means the legal document signed by a resident that provides health care instructions in the event the resident is no longer able to give directions regarding their wishes, as described in ORS 127.505 to 127.660. “Advance Directive for Health Care” does not include Physician Orders for Life-Sustaining Treatment (POLST).
(8) “Aid to egress” means an object used to access a window egress.
(9) "Aid to Physical Functioning" means any special equipment ordered for a resident by a Licensed Medical Professional (LMP) or other qualified health care professional that maintains or enhances the resident’s physical functioning.
(10) "Applicant" means any individual or entity that applies for a license to operate and AFH that is also the owner of the business.
(11) “Authority” means the Oregon Health Authority (OHA) or designee.
(12) "Back-Up Provider Agreement" means an agreement between the AFH provider and another AFH provider or resident manager, including an AFH provider or resident manager licensed by Aging and People with Disabilities or Office of Developmental Disability Services, who does not live in the home, has satisfied the testing requirements as described in 309-040-0335(3), and has agreed to oversee the operation of an AFH in the event of an emergency (See “Succession Plan”).
(13) “Background Check” means a criminal records check and an abuse check.
(14) “Bedroom” for the purposes of this rule means any room designated as the primary sleeping quarters of an individual, staff, guests, or any other person.
(15) "Behavioral Interventions" means interventions that are designed to modify the resident’s behavior or the resident’s environment.
(16) "Bill of Rights" means those rights delineated in the AFH Bill of Rights as outlined in OAR 309-040-0410.
(17) "Board of Nursing Rules" means the standards for Registered Nurse Teaching and Delegation and assignments to Unlicensed Persons according to the statutes and rule of the Oregon State Board of Nursing, chapter 851, division 047 and ORS 678.010 to 678.445.
(18) "Care" means the provision of, but is not limited to, services of room, board, services and assistance with ADLs, such as assistance with bathing, dressing, grooming, eating, money management, recreational activities, and medication management. “Care” also includes services that promote maximum resident independence and enhance quality of life.
(19) “Caregiver” means the provider, resident managers, or substitute caregivers who provide care and services to a resident.
(20) "Case Manager" means an individual employed by a local, regional, or state allied agency approved by the Division to provide case management services and assist in the development of the personal care plan. Case manager’s evaluate the appropriateness of services in relation to the consumer’s assessed need and review the residential care plan every 180 days.
(21) “Certificate of Occupancy” is a formal notice issued by a local building code authority confirming the building is allowed to be occupied for its intended use.
(22) “Change of Use” means a change in the use of a building or a portion of a building, within the same occupancy group classification, for which there is a change in application of the code requirements.
(23) "CMS" means the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services.
(24) "Community Mental Health Program (CMHP)" means an entity that is responsible for planning and delivery of safety net services for persons with mental or emotional disturbances, drug abuse problems, and alcoholism and alcohol abuse in a specific geographic area of the state under a contract with the Division or a local mental health authority, as described in ORS 430.620 and 430.630.
(25) "Compensation" means payments made by or on behalf of a resident to a provider in exchange for room and board, care and services, including services described in the resident’s residential care plan and person-centered service plan
(26) "Competitive Integrated Employment" means full-time or part-time work:
(a) At minimum wage or higher, at a rate that is not less than the customary rate paid by the employer for the same or similar work performed by other employees who are not residents with disabilities, and who are similarly situated in similar occupations by the same employer, and who have similar training, experience, and skill;
(b) With eligibility for the level of benefits provided to other employees;
(c) At a location where the employee interacts with other persons who are not individuals with disabilities (not including supervisory personnel or individuals who are providing services to such employee) to the same extent that individuals who are not individuals with disabilities and who are in comparable positions interact with other persons; and
(d) As appropriate, presents opportunities for advancement that are similar to those for other employees who are not individuals with disabilities and who have similar positions.
(27) "Complaint Investigation" means an investigation of any allegation that a provider has taken action, or inaction, that is perceived as contrary to law, rule, or policy but does not meet the criteria for an abuse investigation.
(28) "Condition" means a provision attached to a new or existing license that limits or restricts the scope of the license or imposes additional requirements on the provider.
(29) "Contested Case Hearing" means a hearing under ORS chapter 183.411-183.417.
(30) "Controlled Substance" means any drug classified as schedules one through five under the Federal Controlled Substance Act.
(31) "Criminal Records Check" means the Oregon Criminal Records Check and when required, a National Criminal History check or a State-Specific Criminal History check, and the processes and procedures required by the rules OAR 943-007-0001 through 943-007-0501 (Criminal History Checks).
(32) "Critical Incident" means those incidents involving acts of physical aggression, serious illnesses or accidents, any injury or illness of a resident triggering a non-routine visit to a health care practitioner, suicide attempts, death of a resident, a fire requiring the services of a fire department, or any incident that triggers an abuse investigation.
(33) "Day Care" means care and services in an AFH for a person who is not a resident of the AFH.
(34) "Declaration for Mental Health Treatment" means a document that states the resident’s preferences or instructions regarding mental health treatment as defined by ORS 127.700 through 127.737.
(35) "Delegation" means the process where a registered nurse teaches and supervises a nursing procedure to an unlicensed person. The Oregon State Board of Nursing defines an unlicensed person as any caregiver or certified nursing assistant (CNA). (See OAR chapter 851, division 047).
(36) “Designated Representative” means:
(a) Any adult who is not the resident’s paid provider, who:
(A) The resident has authorized to serve as his or her representative; or
(B) The resident’s legal representative is authorized to serve as the resident’s representative.
(b) The power to act as a designated representative is valid until the resident or the resident’s legal representative modifies the authorization and notifies the Division of the modification, the resident or the resident’s legal representative notifies the provider that the designated representative is no longer authorized to act the resident’s behalf, or there is a change in the legal authority upon which the designation was based. Notice must include the resident’s or the resident’s legal representative’s signature as appropriate; and
(c) A resident or the resident’s legal representative is not required to appoint a designated representative.
(37) "Director" means the Director of the Oregon Health Authority or designee.
(38) “Disaster” means a sudden emergency occurring beyond the control of the provider, whether natural, technological, or man-made, that renders the provider unable to operate the facility or renders the facility uninhabitable.
(39) "Discharge Summary" means a document that describes the conclusion of the planned course of services described in the resident’s residential care plan and person-centered service plan, regardless of outcome or attainment of goals described in the resident’s individualized personal care plan. In addition, the discharge summary addresses the resident’s monies, financial assets and monies, medication, and personal belongings at the time of discharge.
(40) “Division” means the Health Systems Division of the Oregon Health Authority or designee.
(41) "Division Staff" means an employee of the Division, the Division’s designee, or the designee of the local Community Mental Health Program.
(42) “Emergency Escape and Rescue Opening” means an operable exterior window or door that provides a means of escape and access for rescue in an emergency.
(43) "Emergency Preparedness Plan" means a written procedure that identifies a facility's response to an emergency or disaster for minimizing loss of life, mitigating trauma, and to the extent possible, maintaining services for residents, and preventing or reducing property loss.
(44) “Employee” means an individual employed by a licensed AFH and who receives wages, a salary, or is otherwise paid by the AFH for providing the service. The term also includes employees of other providers delivering direct services to a resident.
(45) "Evacuation Capability" means the ability to evacuate all residents from the facility within 3 minutes to a point of safety, which is exterior to and away from the structure, and has access to a public way.
(46) "Exclusion Lists" mean the following federal lists that exclude listed individuals from receiving federal awards, not limited to Medicaid and Medicare programs:
(a) The U.S. Office of Inspector General's Exclusion List at www.exclusions.oig.hhs.gov/; and
(b) The U.S. General Services Administration's System for Award Management Exclusion List at www.sam.gov.
(47) "Exempt Area" means a county agency that provides similar programs for licensing and inspection of AFH’s that the Director finds equal to or superior to the requirements of ORS 443.705 to 443.825 and that has entered into an agreement with the Division to license, inspect, and collect fees according to the provisions of 443.705 to 443.825.
(48) "Family Member" means a husband or wife, natural parent, child, sibling, adopted child, domestic partner, adopted parent, stepparent, stepchild, step-brother, step-sister, father-in-law, mother-in-law, son-in-law, brother-in-law, sister-in-law, grandparent, grandchild, aunt, uncle, niece, nephew, or first cousin.
(49) “Gender expression” means a person’s gender-related appearance and behavior, whether or not these are stereotypically associated with the sex the person was assigned at birth.
(50) “Gender identity” means a person’s internal, deeply held knowledge or sense of the person’s gender, regardless of physical appearance, surgical history, genitalia, legal sex, sex assigned at birth or name and sex as it appears in medical records or as it is described by any other person, including a family member, conservator, or legal representative of the person. A person’s gender identity is the last gender identity conveyed by a person who lacks the present ability to communicate.
(51) “Gender nonconforming” means having a gender expression that does not conform to stereotypical expectations of one’s gender.
(52) “Gender transition” means a process by which a person begins to live according to that person’s gender identity rather than the sex the person was assigned at birth. The process may include changing the person’s clothing, appearance, name or identification documents or undergoing medical treatments.
(53) “Harass” or “harassment” means to act in a manner that is unwanted, unwelcomed, or uninvited, or that demeans, threatens or offends a resident.
(a) This includes bullying, denigrating, or threatening a resident based on a resident’s actual or perceived status as a member of one of the protected classes in Oregon, as provided:
(A) Race.
(B) Color.
(C) National origin.
(D) Religion.
(E) Disability.
(F) Sex (includes pregnancy).
(G) Sexual orientation.
(H) Gender identity.
(I) Age.
(J) Marital status
(b) An example of “harassment” includes, but is not limited to, requiring a resident to show identity documents in order to gain entrance to a restroom or other area of a care facility that is available to other person of the same gender identity as the resident.
(54) “HCB” means Home and Community Based.
(55) "Home" means the Adult Foster Home (AFH) and as indicated by the context of its use may refer to the one or more buildings and adjacent grounds on contiguous properties used in the operation of the AFH.
(56) “Home and Community-Based Services” or “HCBS” means Home and Community Based Services as defined in OAR chapter 411, division 004 and OAR chapter 410, division 173. HCBS are services provided in the resident’s home or community.
(57) "Homelike" means an environment that promotes the dignity, security, and comfort of residents through the provision of personalized care and services and encourages independence, choice, and decision-making by the residents.
(58) "House Rules" means the written standards governing house activities developed by the provider and approved by the Division. These standards may not conflict with the AFH Bill of Rights or other resident rights set out by these rules.
(59) “Imminent Danger” means a situation in which a facility’s non-compliance with one or more licensing requirements has caused or is likely to cause serious injury, harm, impairment, or death to one or more residents in the near future if the facility does not take immediate action to correct and protect resident health and safety.
(60) "Incident Report" means a written description and account of any occurrence including but not limited to any injury, accident, acts of physical aggression, use of physical restraints, medication error, or any unusual incident involving an resident, the home, or provider.
(61) “Indirect Ownership Interest” means an ownership interest in an entity that has an ownership interest in the disclosing entity. This term includes an ownership interest in any entity that has an indirect –––––ownership interest in the disclosing entity.
(62) "Individual Care Services" means services prescribed by a physician or other designated individual in accordance with the individual's plan of treatment. The services are provided by a caregiver that is qualified to provide the service and is not a member of the individual's immediate family. For those AFH individuals who are Medicaid eligible, personal care services are funded under Medicaid.
(63) "Individually Based Limitation" means a limitation to the qualities outlined in OAR 309-040-0393(1)(a) through (g), due to health and safety risks. An individually based limitation is based on a specific assessed need and implemented only with the informed consent of the resident or the resident’s legal representative as outlined in 309-040-0393.
(64) "Informed Consent" means:
(a) Options, risks, and benefits of the services outlined in these rules have been explained to a resident and in a manner that the resident comprehends; and
(b) The resident consents to a person-centered service plan of action, including any individually based limitations to the rules, prior to implementation of the initial or updated person-centered service plan or any individually based limitation.
(65) “Initial License Application” or “New License” refers to a home or facility that is being licensed for the first time specific to a provider, setting type, and licensing authority.
(66) "Initial Residential Care Plan (IRCP)" means a written document developed for a resident, within 24 hours of admission to the home, that addresses the care and services to be provided for the resident during the first 30 days or less until the residential care plan can be developed.
(67) “Instrumental Activities of Daily Living (IADLs)” means those self-management activities performed by an individual on a day-to-day basis that are essential to basic self-care and independent living. IADLs include, but are not limited to, housekeeping, including laundry, shopping, transportation, medication management, and meal preparation.
(68) "Legal Representative" means an individual who has the legal authority to act for an individual and only within the scope and limits to the authority as designated by the court or other agreement. A legal representative may include the following:
(a) For a resident under the age of 18, the parent, unless a court appoints another person or agency to act as the guardian; or
(b) For a resident 18 years of age or older, a guardian appointed by a court order or an agent legally designated as the health care representative.
(69) “LGBTQIA2S+” means lesbian, gay, bisexual, transgender, queer, intersex, asexual, Two Spirit, nonbinary or other minority gender identity or sexual orientation.
(a) "Lesbian" means the sexual orientation of an individual who is female, feminine, or nonbinary and who is physically, romantically, or emotionally attracted to other women. Some lesbians may prefer to identify as gay, a gay woman, queer, or in other ways.
(b) "Gay" means the sexual orientation of an individual attracted to people of the same gender. Although often used as an umbrella term, it is used more specifically to describe men attracted to men.
(c) "Bisexual" means an individual who has the potential to be physically, romantically, or emotionally attracted to people of more than one gender, not necessarily at the same time, in the same way, or to the same degree.
(d) "Transgender" means having a gender identity or gender expression that differs from the sex one was assigned at birth, regardless of whether one has undergone or is in the process of undergoing gender-affirming care. Being transgender does not imply any specific sexual orientation. Therefore, transgender people may identify as straight, gay, lesbian, bisexual, etc.
(e) "Queer" means individuals who do not identify as exclusively straight or an individual who has non-binary or gender-expansive identities:
(A) Queer is often used as a catch-all to refer to the LGBTQIA2S+ population as a whole.
(B) This term was previously used as a slur but has been reclaimed by many parts of the LGBTQIA2S+ movement. It can also include transgender people who identify as male or female. The term should only be used to refer to a specific person if that person self-identifies as queer.
(f) "Intersex" means someone born with a variety of differences in their sex traits and reproductive anatomy. Intersex traits greatly vary, including differences in, but not limited to, hormone production and reproductive anatomy.
(g) "Asexual" or "Ace" means a complete or partial lack of sexual attraction or lack of interest in sexual activity with others. Asexuality exists on a spectrum, and asexual people may experience no, little, or conditional sexual attraction. Many people who are asexual still identify with a specific romantic orientation.
(h) "2S" or "Two-Spirit" is a term used within some Indigenous communities, encompassing cultural, spiritual, sexual, and gender identity. The term reflects complex indigenous understandings of gender roles, spirituality, and the long history of sexual and gender diversity in Indigenous cultures. The definition and common use of the term two-spirit may vary among Tribes and Tribal communities.
(i) The "+" means other identities and expressions of gender, romantic and sexual orientation, including minority gender identities.
(70) "Medication" means any drug, chemical, compound, suspension, or preparation in suitable form for use as a curative or remedial substance either internally or externally by any individual.
(71) "License" means a document issued by the Division to applicants who are determined by the Division to be in substantial compliance with these rules.
(72) "Licensed Medical Practitioner (LMP)" means any individual who meets the following minimum qualifications as documented by the CMHP or designee and holds at least one of the following educational degrees and a valid license:
(a) Physician licensed to practice in the State of Oregon; or
(b) Nurse practitioner licensed to practice in the State of Oregon; or
(c) Physician’s assistant licensed to practice in the State of Oregon.
(73) “Living Quarters” means accessible, occupiable non-bedroom space in a home not including bathroom, utility, or storage spaces.
(74) "Local Mental Health Authority (LMHA)" means the county court or board of county commissioners of one or more counties who choose to operate a community mental health program, or in the case of a Native American reservation, the tribal council, or if the county declines to operate or contract for all or part of a community mental health program, the board of directors of a public or private corporation that directly contracts with the Division to operate a CMHP for that county.
(75) “Means of Egress” means a continuous and unobstructed path to exit from a home without requiring travel through a garage or carport to a public way.
(76) "Medication" means any drug, chemical, compound, suspension, or preparation in suitable form for use as a curative or remedial substance taken either internally or externally by any individual or resident.
(77) “Mental Health Assessment” means the process of obtaining sufficient information through interview, observation, testing and review of medical and treatment records to determine a diagnosis and to plan personal care and individualized services and supports. Mental health assessment must be completed, signed and dated by a provider meeting the qualifications of Qualified Mental Health Professional (QMHP) who performed the assessment.
(78) "Mental or Emotional Disturbances (MED)" means a disorder of emotional reactions, thought processes, or behavior that results in substantial subjective distress or impaired perceptions of reality or impaired ability to control or appreciate the consequences of the person's behavior and constitutes a substantial impairment of the resident’s social, educational, or economic functioning. Medical diagnosis and classification must be consistent with the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders of the American Psychiatric Association (DSM-V). As used in these rules, this term is functionally equivalent to "serious and persistent mental illness."
(79) “Naloxone” means an FDA-approved short-acting, non-injectable, opioid antagonist medication used for the emergency treatment and temporary rapid reversal of known or suspected opioid overdose.
(80) "National Criminal History Check" means obtaining and reviewing criminal history outside Oregon's borders, such as information from the Federal Bureau of Investigation through the use of fingerprint cards and from other criminal information resources in accordance with OAR 943-007-0001 through 943-007-0501 (Criminal History Checks).
(81) "Nurse Practitioner" means a registered nurse who has been certified by the Oregon State Board of Nursing as qualified to practice in an expanded specialty role within the practice of nursing.
(82) "Nursing Care" means the practice of nursing by a licensed nurse, including tasks and functions relating to the provision of nursing care that are delegated under specified conditions by a registered nurse to individuals other than licensed nursing personnel, which is governed by ORS chapter 678 and rules adopted by the Oregon State Board of Nursing in OAR chapter 851.
(83) "Nursing Delegation" means the process where a registered nurse authorizes an unlicensed person to perform special tasks for residents in select situations and indicates that authorization in writing. The delegation process includes nursing assessment of a resident in a specific situation, evaluation of the ability of the unlicensed person, teaching the task, and ensuring supervision.
(84) “Occupancy Classification” means the formal building codes designation of the primary purpose of the building, structure, or portion thereof.
(85) “Occupant” includes any household member and anyone receiving or delivering services in the setting, including residents and staff.
(86) “Opioid” means natural, synthetic, or semi-synthetic chemicals prescribed to treat pain. This class of drugs includes, but is not limited to, illegal drugs such as heroin, natural drugs such as morphine and codeine, synthetic drugs such as fentanyl and tramadol, and semi-synthetic drugs such as oxycodone, hydrocodone, and hydromorphone.
(87) “Opioid Overdose” means a medical condition that causes depressed consciousness and mental functioning, decreased movement, depressed respiratory function and the impairment of the vital functions as a result of taking opiates in an amount larger than is physically tolerated.
(88) “Opioid Overdose Kit” means an ultraviolet light-protected hard case containing a minimum of two doses of an FDA-approved short-acting, non-injectable, opioid antagonist medication, one pair non-latex gloves, one face mask, one face shield for rescue breathing that is maintained according to manufacturer’s recommendations, and a short-acting, non-injectable, opioid antagonist medication administration instruction card.
(89) “Owner” means a:
(a) Shareholder of a corporation or of a professional corporation;
(b) Member or shareholder of a cooperative;
(c) Member of a limited liability company;
(d) Partner of a partnership; or
(e) General partner or limited partner of a limited partnership.
(90) “Ownership Interest” means the possession of equity in the capital, stock or profits of the adult foster home. Persons with an ownership or control interest mean a person or corporation that:
(a) Has an ownership interest totaling five percent or more;
(b) Has an indirect ownership interest equal to five percent or more;
(c) Has a combination of direct and indirect ownership interests equal to five percent or more;
(d) Owns an interest of 5 percent or more in any mortgage, deed of trust, note, or other obligation secured by the disclosing entity if that interest equals at least five percent of the value of the property or assets of the disclosing entity;
(e) Is an officer or director of an entity that is organized as a corporation; or
(f) Is a partner in an entity that is organized as a partnership.
(91) Person-Centered Service Plan" means written documentation that includes the details of the supports, desired outcomes, activities, and resources required for a resident to achieve and maintain personal goals, health, and safety as described in OAR 411-004-0030.
(92) "Person-Centered Service Plan Coordinator" means the individual, which may be a case manager, service coordinator, personal agent, and other individual designated by the Division to provide person-centered service planning for and with residents.
(93) “Point of Safety” means a location where occupants evacuate in the event of an emergency and for the purpose of conducting of evacuation drills that is no less than 25 feet away from the home and has unobstructed direct access to a public street or sidewalk. The point of safety may not be in the backyard of the home unless the backyard directly accesses a public street or sidewalk.
(94) “Prescribing Practitioner” means a physician, nurse practitioner, physician assistant, dentist, ophthalmologist, pharmacist, or other healthcare practitioner with prescribing authority.
(95) "PRN (pro re nata) Medications and Treatments" mean those medications and treatments that have been ordered by a qualified practitioner to be administered as needed.
(96) “Program Staff” means an employee or individual who by contract with an AFH provides a service to a resident.
(97) "Provider" means a qualified person or an organizational entity operated by or contractually affiliated with a community mental health program or contracted directly with the Division for the direct delivery of mental health services and supports to adults receiving residential and supportive services in an AFH.
(98) "Provisional License" means a 60-day license issued to a qualified person or organizational entity in an emergency situation when the licensed provider is no longer overseeing the operation of the adult foster home. The qualified person or organizational entity must meet the standards of OAR 309-040-0360.
(99) "Psychiatric Security Review Board (PSRB)" means the Board consisting of five members appointed by the Governor and subject to confirmation by the Senate under Section Four, Article 111 of the Oregon Constitution and described in ORS 161.295 through 161.400.
(100) "Registered Nurse" means an individual licensed and registered to practice nursing by the State of Oregon Board of Nursing in accordance with ORS chapter 678 and OAR chapter 851.
(101) "Related" means the following relationships: Spouse, domestic partner, natural parent, child sibling, adopted child, adopted parent, stepparent, stepchild, stepbrother, stepsister, father-in-law, mother-in-law, son-in-law, daughter-in-law, brother-in-law, sister-in-law, grandparent, grandchild, aunt, uncle, niece, nephew, or first cousin.
(102) "Relative" means any individual identified as a family member.
(103) “Representative” means both “Designated Representative” and “Legal Representative” as defined in these rules unless otherwise stated.
(104) "Residency Agreement" means the written, legally enforceable agreement between a provider and a resident or a resident’s representative when the resident receives services from the provider.
(105) “Resident” means any person who currently resides in an adult foster home who is receiving personal care, services or supports on a 24-hour basis.
(106) "Resident Manager" means an employee of the provider who is approved by the Division to live in the AFH and is responsible for the care and services of residents on a day-to-day basis.
(107) "Residential Care" means the provision of room, board, and services that assist the resident in activities of daily living such as assistance with bathing, dressing, grooming, eating, medication management, money management, or recreation. Residential care includes 24-hour supervision; being aware of the resident’s general whereabouts; monitoring the activities of the resident while on the premises of the AFH to ensure the resident’s health, safety, and welfare; providing social and recreational activities; and assistance with money management as requested.
(108) "Residential Care Plan (RCP)" means a written plan outlining the care and services to be provided to a resident. The RCP is based upon the review of current assessment, referral, observations, resident preference, and input from members of the residential care plan team. The plan identifies the care, services, activities, and opportunities to be provided by the caregiver to promote the resident’s recovery and independence.
(109) "Residential Care Plan Team (RCP Team)" means a group composed of the resident, the case manager or other designated representative, CMHP representative, the provider, resident manager, and others needed including the resident’s legal guardian, representatives of all current service providers, advocates, or others determined appropriate by the resident receiving services. If the resident is unable or does not express a preference, other appropriate team membership will be determined by the RCP team members.
(110) “Residential Setting” includes homes licensed by the Department or the Authority to serve individuals in accordance with OARs 309-035; 309-040; 411-050; 411-325; and 411-360.
(111) "Residents' Bill of Rights" means the civil, legal, or human rights AFH residents have as set forth in ORS 443.739.
(112) "Respite Care" means the provision of room, board, care, and services in an AFH for a period of up to 14 days. Respite care is not crisis respite care.
(113) "Restraints" means any physical hold, device, or chemical substance that restricts or is meant to restrict the movement or normal functioning of a resident.
(114) "Room and Board" means the provision of meals, a place to sleep, laundry, and housekeeping.
(115) “Screening” means the assessment process used to identify a resident’s ability to perform activities of daily living and address health and safety concerns.
(116) "Seclusion" means the involuntary confinement of a resident to a room or area where the resident is physically prevented from leaving.
(117) "Self-Administration of Medication" means the act of a resident placing a medication in or on the resident’s own body. The resident identifies the medication and the times and manners of administration and places the medication internally or externally on the resident’s own body without assistance.
(118) "Self-Preservation" means the ability of residents to respond to an alarm or emergent situation without additional cues and be able to reach a point of safety without assistance.
(119) "Services" means those activities that are intended to help the resident develop appropriate skills to increase or maintain their level of functioning and independence. Services include coordination and consultation with other service providers or entities to assure the resident’s access to necessary medical care, treatment, or services identified in the resident’s personal care plan.
(120) “Sexual orientation” means romantic or sexual attraction, or a lack of romantic or sexual attraction, to other people.
(121) “Staff” means any person responsible for care, services, and support of individuals. Staff includes providers, administrators, managers, supervisors, caregivers, and volunteers.
(122) "Substantial Compliance" means a level of compliance with federal and state law, and with these rules, such that any identified deficiencies pose no more than negligible harm to the health or safety of residents.
(123) “Succession Plan” means the provider or administrator’s written plan addressing coverage, continuance of care and services for residents, and AFH operations should the provider or administrator be unable to fulfill their duties due to illness, death, or other unexpected absence (See “Back-up Provider Agreement”).
(124) "Substitute Caregiver" means any person meeting the qualifications of a caregiver who provides care and services in an AFH under the Division's jurisdiction in the absence of the provider or resident manager. A resident may not be a substitute caregiver.
(125) “Transgender” means having a gender identity or gender expression that differs from the sex one was assigned at birth, regardless of whether one has undergone or is in the process of undergoing gender-affirming care. Being transgender does not imply any specific sexual orientation. Therefore, transgender people may identify as straight, gay, lesbian, bisexual, etc.
(126) "Unit" means the bedroom and sleeping space of a resident residing in an AFH as agreed to in the residency agreement. Unit includes the following:
(a) Private single occupancy spaces; and
(b) Shared units with roommates as allowed by these rules.
(127) "Variance" means an exception from a regulation or provision of these rules granted in writing by the Division upon written application from the provider.
(128) “Volunteer” means a person who provides a service or who takes part in a service provided to individuals receiving services in an AFH or other provider and who is not a paid employee of the AFH or other provider. The services must be non-clinical unless the person has the required credentials to provide a clinical service.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 413.032
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.072 & 443.705 - 443.825
- BHS 11-2026, temporary amend filed 05/28/2026, effective 06/05/2026 through 12/01/2026
- BHS 5-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- BHS 14-2024, amend filed 06/24/2024, effective 07/01/2024
- BHS 2-2024, temporary amend filed 01/09/2024, effective 01/10/2024 through 07/07/2024
- BHS 6-2018, amend filed 03/21/2018, effective 03/30/2018
- MHS 9-2017, f. 6-29-17, cert. ef. 7-1-17
- MHS 3-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
- MHS 14-2016(Temp), f. 9-6-16, cert. ef. 9-7-16 thru 3-3-17
- MHS 4-2012, f. 5-3-12, cert. ef. 5-4-12
- MHS 11-2011(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 12-5-11 thru 5-31-12
- MHS 13-2007, f. & cert. ef. 8-31-07
- MHS 6-2007(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 5-25-07 thru 11-21-07
- MHD 3-2005, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-05, Renumbered from 309-040-0005
- MHD 6-1999, f. 8-24-99, cert. ef. 8-26-99
- MHD 1-1992, f. & cert. ef. 1-7-92
- MHD 6-1986, f. & cert. ef. 7-2-86
- MHD 19-1985(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 12-27-85
Or. Admin. R. 309-040-0307 Required Home-like Qualities
(1) Each AFH must have all of the following:
(a) The home must be integrated in and supports the same degree of access to the greater community as people not receiving HCBS, including opportunities for a resident to:
(A) Seek employment and work in competitive integrated employment settings;
(B) Engage in greater community life;
(C) Control personal resources; and
(D) Receive services in the greater community.
(b) The resident or designated representative selects the AFH from among available setting options, including non-disability specific settings and an option for a private unit in a residential setting. The setting options must be:
(A) Identified and documented in the resident’s person-centered service plan;
(B) Based on the resident’s needs and preferences; and
(C) Based on the resident’s available resources for room and board.
(c) The AFH must ensure resident’s rights as described in ORS 443.739, including but not limited to rights of privacy, dignity, respect, and freedom from coercion and restraint;
(d) The AFH must promote, but not require, resident initiative, autonomy, self-direction, and independence in making life choices including but not limited to daily activities, physical environment, and with whom to interact;
(e) The AFH must facilitate resident choice regarding services and supports and who provides the services and supports.
(f) The AFH must make available at least six hours of activities each week which are of interest to and selected by the residents, not including television or movies, as described in ORS 443.738. Activities must be oriented to individual preferences as indicated in the resident’s person centered service plan. Documentation of the activities offered to each resident, the resident’s engagement in those activities, and the reasons the resident did not engage in those activities must be recorded in the individual resident’s record. Resident progress notes must reflect staff efforts to engage residents, such as surveying their interests, during times of non-engagement in activities being made available.
(2) The provider must maintain the AFH as follows:
(a) The home must be physically accessible to each resident;
(b) The provider must provide the resident with a unit of specific physical place that the resident may occupy under a legally enforceable residency agreement;
(c) The provider must provide and include in the residency agreement that the resident has, at a minimum, the responsibilities and protections from an involuntary transfer or discharge as described in ORS 443.738(7), (8), (11), (12), and (13).
(d) The provider must ensure that each resident has privacy in their own unit;
(e) The provider must maintain units with entrance doors lockable by the resident and ensure that only the resident, the resident’s roommate, and only appropriate staff, as identified in the resident’s person-centered service plan, have keys to access the unit;
(f) The provider must ensure that residents sharing units have a choice of roommates;
(g) The provider must provide that resident’s have the freedom to decorate and furnish their unit as agreed to within the Residency Agreement;
(h) The provider must permit each resident to have visitors of their choosing at any time;
(i) The provider must ensure each resident has the freedom and support to control their own schedule and activities;
(j) The provider must ensure each resident has the freedom and support to have access to a variety of food, condiments, snacks, and means of cooking/preparing food at any time, unless an individually based limitation applies. Providers may not restrict where food/beverages are consumed.
(3) When a provider is unable to ensure the qualities as outlined in section (2)(d) through (2)(j) of this rule due to threats to the health and safety of the resident or others, the provider may seek an individually based limitation with the resident’s consent through the process outlined in OAR 309-040-0393. The provider may not apply an individually based limitation until the limitation is approved and documented as required by OAR 309-040-0393.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 413.032
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.085 & 443.705 - 443.825
- BHS 5-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- MHS 9-2017, f. 6-29-17, cert. ef. 7-1-17
- MHS 3-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
Or. Admin. R. 309-040-0310 License Required
(1) In accordance with ORS 443.725, every provider of an adult foster home must be licensed by the Division before opening or operating an AFH or providing care for compensation to a resident.
(a) The provider must live in the home that is to be licensed or hire a resident manager to reside in and manage the daily operations of the home at least five days per week live in the home.
(b) There must be a provider, resident manager, or substitute caregiver on duty 24 hours per day in an AFH under the jurisdiction of the Division sufficient in number to meet the 24 hour needs of each resident.
(c) The provider must have a written succession plan or back-up provider agreement addressing care and services for residents in the event that the provider is unable to fulfill their duties in the AFH. The succession plan must be readily available to the Division upon request.
(2) A license is valid for one year unless the Division revokes the license, the provider relinquishes the license, or the provider stops operating the AFH.
(3) Placement. An AFH may not accept placement of an resident without first being licensed by the Division under these rules.
(4) Unlicensed AFH. No resident may be placed in an AFH that is not licensed.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 443.705 - 443.825
- BHS 5-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- MHS 9-2017, f. 6-29-17, cert. ef. 7-1-17
- MHS 3-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
- MHS 14-2016(Temp), f. 9-6-16, cert. ef. 9-7-16 thru 3-3-17
- Renumbered from 309-040-0010, MHD 3-2005, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-05
- MHD 6-1999, f. 8-24-99, cert. ef. 8-26-99
- MHD 1-1992, f. & cert. ef. 1-7-92 (and corrected 1-31-92)
- MHD 6-1986, f. & ef. 7-2-86
- MHD 19-1985(Temp), f. & ef. 12-27-85
Or. Admin. R. 309-040-0315 Temporary rule language in effect until 12/01/2026. License Application and Fees
(1) A completed, written application must be submitted by the applicant in a form and manner required by the Division along with the required $20 per bed non-refundable fee. The application is not complete until all information is received by the Division.
(2) Incomplete initial applications are void after 60 calendar days from the date the Division receives the application and non-refundable fee. The Division will deny the incomplete application if not withdrawn.
(3) An applicant must submit a separate complete application packet for each location operated as an AFH (Adult Foster Home)
(4) The application must include the following:
(a) The location of the AFH;
(b) A brief description of the physical characteristics of the home;
(c) The name, address, telephone number, and email address of the provider;
(d) The distinct name of the AFH;
(e) The maximum capacity requested and a written statement describing family members needing care, residents who receive respite care, persons who receive day care, or residents who receive room and board only;
(f) A written statement from a physician, nurse practitioner, or physician assistant regarding the mental and physical ability of the applicant to provide care and services to residents and to operate the AFH. If the applicant employs a resident manager, the applicant must provide a written statement from a physician, nurse practitioner, or physician assistant regarding the mental and physical ability of the resident manager to provide personal care and services to residents and to operate the AFH;
(g) A completed financial information form provided demonstrating to the Division the applicant’s financial ability and resources necessary to operate the AFH. Demonstration of financial ability must include, but is not limited to, providing the Division with a current credit report, list of unsatisfied judgments, pending litigation, unpaid taxes, and notifying the Division if the applicant is in bankruptcy. If the applicant is unable to demonstrate the financial ability and resources required, the Division may require the applicant to furnish a financial guarantee as a condition of initial licensure in accordance with ORS 443.735(3)(e);
(h) Certification in writing, under penalty of perjury, that to the best of the person’s knowledge the provider or owner is not in violation of any tax laws described in ORS 305.380
(i) A completed Tax Compliance Certification issued by the Oregon Department of Revenue for each owner with 20 percent or more ownership in the AFH, certifying the owner is not in violation of any tax laws described in ORS 305.380;
(j) A signed letter of acknowledgment from the Community Mental Health Program or designee for the applicant to be licensed to operate the AFH;
(k) Proof of experience providing direct care and services to adults with mental illness;
(l) Documentation of an approved check in accordance with OAR Chapter 943 Division 007 for the provider, the resident manager, caregivers, volunteers, and other occupants 16 years of age or older, excluding residents and other persons as defined in ORS 443.735;
(m) Written background information pertaining to any current or previous licensure or certification by a state agency, including those licenses or certificates granted to a business or person affiliated with the business, including:
(A) Copies of all current licenses or certificates;
(B) Disclosure of any adverse action taken or proposed on any current or previous license or certificate, and documentation showing the final disposition of any suspension, denial, revocation, or other disciplinary actions initiated on any current or previous license or certificate, including settlement agreements, where applicable; and
(C) Documentation of any substantiated allegations of abuse or neglect pertaining to the applicant or anyone employed by or contracted with the applicant.
(n) Verification of completion of all required trainings for the provider, resident manager if applicable, and all substitute caregivers including, but not limited to:
(A) Division-approved AFH Provider Orientation;
(B) All required training as outlined in OAR 309-040-0335(8) and (9).
(o) Verification of home ownership or copy of current lease or rental agreement that includes;
(A) The owner and landlord’s name;
(B) Verification that the rent is a flat rate; and
(C) Signatures of the landlord and applicant and the date signed.
(p) A floor plan of the AFH containing the required components as outlined in OAR 309-040-0370(3).
(q) One copy of written approved certificate of occupancy based on the change of use of the setting, issued by the city or county building codes authority having jurisdiction;
(r) A completed AFH Self-Inspection related to HCBS compliance and Fire Safety, using division approved forms;
(s) The AFH plan of operation, including:
(A) The use of substitute caregivers and other staff;
(B) A description of how the providers or substitute caregivers will be directly involved with residents daily;
(C) How the providers and substitute caregivers will be prepared to communicate with all residents who live in the home including residents with limited English proficiency; and
(D) Details of how transportation and community engagement will occur.
(t) Proposed policies and procedures regarding:
(A) Staff training,
(B) Service planning, medication administration, food preparation and distribution; and
(C) Safety, emergency response, succession planning and facility closure.
(D) Communication and services for persons with limited English proficiency.
(5) The Division must determine compliance with these rules based on receipt of the completed application material and fees, a review and investigation of information submitted, an in-person inspection of the AFH, and interviews with the applicant and other individuals as determined necessary by the Division.
(6) The applicant may withdraw the application at any time during the application process by notifying the Division in writing.
(7) The Division may elect to deny an application when the applicant, or any person with an ownership interest in the AFH, has:
(a) Previously had any adverse action taken on a certificate or license by an oversight body or action taken on a certificate or license which may include but is not limited to denial, suspension, conditions, intent to revoke, nonrenewal, or revocation by the Division, the Authority, the Oregon Department of Human Services, or any other state agency in this or any other state;
(b) The applicant fails to provide accurate information;
(c) Has been sanctioned by the Oregon Health Authority or is excluded, terminated, or suspended from the Medicaid program in Oregon;
(d) Is listed on any Office of Inspector General exclusion list under sections 1128 or 1128A of the Social Security Act; or
(e) Has been convicted of a criminal offense in the last 10 years related to the person's involvement in any program established under Medicare, Medicaid, or Title XX.
(8) The AFH must be in full compliance with all Home and Community Based required qualities of 42CFR §441.710(a)(1), OAR 410-173-0035, and OAR 411-004.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, ORS 443.420 & SB 739 (2025)
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 443.705 - 443.825
- BHS 11-2026, temporary amend filed 05/28/2026, effective 06/05/2026 through 12/01/2026
- BHS 26-2025, amend filed 12/23/2025, effective 01/01/2026
- BHS 5-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- BHS 6-2018, amend filed 03/21/2018, effective 03/30/2018
- MHS 12-2017, temporary amend filed 10/03/2017, effective 10/03/2017 through 03/30/2018
- MHS 9-2017, f. 6-29-17, cert. ef. 7-1-17
- MHS 3-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
- MHS 14-2016(Temp), f. 9-6-16, cert. ef. 9-7-16 thru 3-3-17
- Renumbered from 309-040-0015, MHD 3-2005, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-05
- MHD 6-1999, f. 8-24-99, cert. ef. 8-26-99
- MHD 1-1992, f. & cert. ef. 1-7-92 (and corrected 1-31-92)
Or. Admin. R. 309-040-0325 Capacity
(1) The Division must determine the number of residents permitted to reside in an AFH based on the ability of the provider to meet the care needs of the residents, the fire and life safety standards, and compliance with the physical structure standards of these rules. Determination of maximum licensed capacity may include consideration of total household composition including children. Sleeping requirements for children are:
(a) Sleeping arrangements for children must be safe and appropriate, based on the child's age, gender, special needs, behavior, and history of abuse and neglect;
(b) Each child must have a safe and adequate bed in which to sleep.
(2) The following limits apply:
(a) The maximum number of residents is limited to five;
(b) In the determination of the Division, the following persons may be included in the licensed capacity of five:
(A) Respite care residents;
(B) Day care persons;
(C) Adult family members of the provider or resident manager who need care; and
(D) Child family members of the provider or resident manager who need care.
(3) If the number of resident’s who receive care exceeds the ability of the provider to meet the care, health, life, and safety needs of the residents, the Division may reduce the AFH licensed capacity.
(4) The Division may place conditions, restrictions, or limitations on the AFH license as necessary to maintain the health, life, and safety of the residents.
(5) Providers may not exceed the licensed capacity of the AFH. However, respite care of no longer than two weeks duration may be provided an individual resident if the addition of the respite individual resident does not cause the total number of residents to exceed five. Thus, a provider may exceed the licensed number of residents by one respite individual resident for two weeks or less if approved by the CMHP or the Division, and if the total number of residents does not exceed five.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 443.705 - 443.825
- BHS 5-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- BHS 6-2018, amend filed 03/21/2018, effective 03/30/2018
- MHS 9-2017, f. 6-29-17, cert. ef. 7-1-17
- MHS 3-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
- MHS 14-2016(Temp), f. 9-6-16, cert. ef. 9-7-16 thru 3-3-17
- Renumbered from 309-040-0012, MHD 3-2005, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-05
- MHD 1-1992, f. & cert. ef. 1-7-92 (and corrected 1-31-92)
Or. Admin. R. 309-040-0330 Zoning for Adult Foster Homes
(1) An AFH is a residential use of property for zoning purposes. Under ORS 197.665, an AFH is a permitted use in any residential zone that allows a single family dwelling and in any commercial zone that allows a single family dwelling.
(2) No city or county may impose any zoning requirement on the establishment and maintenance of an AFH in residential or commercial zones that is more restrictive than that imposed on a single-family dwelling in the same zone.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 443.705 - 443.825
- MHS 9-2017, f. 6-29-17, cert. ef. 7-1-17
- MHS 3-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
- MHS 14-2016(Temp), f. 9-6-16, cert. ef. 9-7-16 thru 3-3-17
- Renumbered from 309-040-0100, MHD 3-2005, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-05
- MHD 6-1999, f. 8-24-99, cert. ef. 8-26-99
- MHD 1-1992, f. & cert. ef. 1-7-92 (and corrected 1-31-92)
- MHD 6-1986, f. & ef. 7-2-86
Or. Admin. R. 309-040-0335 Temporary rule language in effect until 12/01/2026. Training Requirements for Providers, Resident Managers, and Substitute Caregivers
(1) All providers, resident managers, and substitute caregivers must satisfactorily meet all educational requirements established by the Division. Providers and staff may not provide care to any resident prior to acquiring education or supervised training designed to impart the knowledge and skills necessary to maintain the health, safety, and welfare of the resident.
(2) The provider, resident manager, and substitute caregivers must be able to understand and communicate in oral and written English in accordance with ORS 443.730.
(3) Training for all licensees, resident managers, and substitute caregivers must comply with ORS 443.738. All providers must satisfactorily pass any testing requirements established by the Division before being licensed or becoming a resident manager or substitute caregiver. The test must be completed by the licensee, resident managers, and substitute caregivers without the help of any other person and must be proctored by the CMHP or Division. The licensee, resident manager, and substitute caregiver must have the ability to, but not be limited to, understand and respond appropriately to emergency situations, changes in medical conditions, physicians' orders and professional instructions, nutritional needs, and residents’ preferences and conflicts.
(4) The Division may make exceptions to the training requirements for individuals who are appropriately licensed medical care professionals in Oregon or who possess sufficient education, training, or experience to warrant an exception. The Division may not make any exceptions to the testing requirements.
(5) In accordance with ORS 443.738, the Division may permit a person who has not completed the training or passed the required test to act as a resident manager until the training and testing are completed or for 60 days, whichever is shorter, if the Division determines that an unexpected and urgent staffing need exists. The licensee must notify the Division of the situation and demonstrate that the licensee is unable to find a qualified resident manager, that the individual meets the requirements for a substitute caregiver for the AFH, and that the licensee must provide adequate supervision.
(6) Prior to providing care to any resident, the provider or resident manager must orient all caregivers to the home and to the residents. Orientation includes, but is not limited to:
(a) Location of all fire extinguishers;
(b) Demonstration of evacuation procedures;
(c) Instruction of the Emergency Preparedness Plan;
(d) Location of and documentation within resident records;
(e) Location of phone numbers for telephone numbers of the local fire department, police department, the poison control center, the provider, and the residents’ LMP;
(f) Location of medications, proper medication administration and proper documentation in medication administration records;
(g) Introduction to each resident;
(h) Review of care and services required for each resident; and
(i) Registered Nurse delegation necessary to provide care and services to residents.
(7) The provides or resident manager must maintain current documentation of the training, testing, and qualifications of substitute caregivers including but not limited to:
(a) Documentation of an approved background check in compliance with OAR Chapter 943 Division 007;
(b) A new background check must be completed:
(A) Every three years from the date of the subject individual’s last background check;
(B) Prior to any subject individual’s change in employment position for which there are different criminal records check requirements; and
(C) If the Division has reason to believe a new background check is needed.
(c) Documentation that a substitute caregiver has successfully completed the training required by the Division;
(d) Documentation that the provider has trained the caregiver to meet the routine and emergency needs of the residents;
(e) Documentation that the provider has oriented the caregiver to the residents in the AFH, their care needs and skills training, personal care plan, and the physical characteristics of the AFH.
(8) All providers, resident managers, and substitute caregivers of an AFH must complete required training directly related to care and services for residents with mental illness. The provider must document the training in the provider, resident manager, and substitute caregiver’s training records. This training is in addition to any orientation and must be completed prior to providing care to any resident. A minimum of twelve hours of training, directly related to care and services for residents with mental illness, is required annually. Pre-service and annual training content areas must include, but are not limited to:
(a) Understanding mental and emotional conditions;
(b) Understanding the mental health assessment and implementing the residential care plan
(c) Medication management;
(d) Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPR) which includes in-person competency check by a qualified instructor, and First Aid;
(A) Accepted CPR and First Aid courses must be provided by or meet the standards of the American Heart Association or the American Red Cross.
(B) CPR or First Aid courses conducted online are only accepted by the Department when an in-person skills competency check is conducted by a qualified instructor meeting the standards of the American Heart Association, the American Red Cross.
(e) Opioid overdose kits and administration of an FDA-approved short-acting, non-injectable, opioid antagonist medication.
(f) Resident rights;
(g) Safety, emergency, and emergency preparedness planning;
(h) Behavior management including positive engagement, redirection, and de-escalation techniques;
(i) Complaints, grievances, incident and abuse reporting;
(j) Nutrition and food services; and
(k) Other information relevant to the job description and scheduled shifts.
(l) All caregivers, including licensees, resident managers, and substitute caregivers are required to complete the Authority-approved HCBS training, as provided below:
(A) Effective June 30, 2025, all caregivers must have completed the required training.
(B) All new caregivers, hired on or after July 1, 2025, must complete the required training prior to beginning job responsibilities.
(9) Providers, resident managers, and substitute caregivers must complete the Authority approved LGBTQIA2S+ residents and residents living with human immunodeficiency virus training as mandated by ORS 441.111 to 441.122. The Authority approved training shall address the elements described in 309-040-0335(11)(c) of this rule. The following dates apply to the initial LGBTQIA2S+ residents and residents living with human immunodeficiency virus trainings:
(a) Effective June 30, 2025, all staff must have completed the required training.
(b) All new staff, hired on or after July 1, 2025, must complete the required training prior to beginning job responsibilities.
(10) Providers, resident managers, and caregivers are required to complete biennial training addressing LGBTQIA2S+ residents and residents living with human immunodeficiency virus protections, as described in this section. Providers are responsible for the cost of providing this training to all staff.
(a) The provider or administrator must select the LGBTQIA2S+ residents and residents living with human immunodeficiency virus training to be used by the AFH by either:
(A) Choosing to use the standard Authority-approved biennial LGBTQIA2S+ residents and residents living with human immunodeficiency virus training; or
(B) Applying to the Authority to request approval of a biennial LGBTQIA2S+ residents and residents living with human immunodeficiency virus training to be developed and provided by the licensee or administrator.
(b) ORS 441.116 requires all LGBTQIA2S+ residents and residents living with human immunodeficiency virus trainings address:
(A) Caring for LGBTQIA2S+ residents and residents living with human immunodeficiency virus; and
(B) Preventing discrimination based on a resident’s sexual orientation, gender identity, gender expression or human immunodeficiency virus status.
(C) The defined terms commonly associated with LGBTQIA2S+ individuals and human immunodeficiency virus status.
(D) Best practices for communicating with or about LGBTQIA2S+ residents and residents living with human immunodeficiency virus, including the use of an individual’s chosen name and pronouns.
(E) A description of the health and social challenges historically experienced by LGBTQIA2S+ residents and residents living with human immunodeficiency virus, including discrimination when seeking or receiving care at care facilities and the demonstrated physical and mental health effects within the LGBTQIA2S+ residents and residents living with human immunodeficiency virus community associated with such discrimination.
(F) Strategies to create a safe and affirming environment for LGBTQIA2S+ residents and residents living with human immunodeficiency virus, including suggested changes to care facility policies and procedures, forms, signage, communication between residents and their families, activities, in-house services and staff training.
(G) The individual or entity providing the training must demonstrate a commitment to advancing quality care for LGBTQIA2S+ residents and residents living with human immunodeficiency virus in this state.
(c) The proposal for training submitted by a provider, administrator, entity, or individual shall include:
(A) The regulatory criteria described in section 309-040-0335(11)(c).
(B) The following elements must be included in the proposal:
(i) A statement of the qualifications and training experience of the individual or entity providing the training.
(ii) The proposed methodology for providing the training either online or in person.
(iii) An outline of the training.
(iv) Copies of the materials to be used in the training.
(C) The Department will review the materials and determine whether to approve or deny the training. No later than 90 days after the request is received, the Department will inform the licensee or administrator in writing of the Department’s decision.
(11) The Division may require a provider, resident manager, or substitute caregiver to obtain additional training, whether or not the twelve-hour annual training requirement has already been met.
(12) Providers, resident managers, or substitute caregivers who perform delegated or assigned nursing care services as part of the residential care plan must receive training and appropriate monitoring from a registered nurse on performance and delivery of those services.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 443.705 - 443.825
- BHS 11-2026, temporary amend filed 05/28/2026, effective 06/05/2026 through 12/01/2026
- BHS 5-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- BHS 14-2024, amend filed 06/24/2024, effective 07/01/2024
- BHS 2-2024, temporary amend filed 01/09/2024, effective 01/10/2024 through 07/07/2024
- MHS 9-2017, f. 6-29-17, cert. ef. 7-1-17
- MHS 3-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
- MHS 14-2016(Temp), f. 9-6-16, cert. ef. 9-7-16 thru 3-3-17
- Renumbered from 309-040-0030, MHD 3-2005, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-05
- MHD 6-1999, f. 8-24-99, cert. ef. 8-26-99
- MHD 1-1992, f. & cert. ef. 1-7-92 (and corrected 1-31-92)
- MHD 6-1986, f. & ef. 7-2-86
- MHD 19-1985(Temp), f. & ef. 12-27-85
Or. Admin. R. 309-040-0340 Temporary rule language in effect until 12/01/2026. Issuance of a License
(1) The license must include but is not limited to the name of the applicant, name of the AFH, address of the home to which the license applies, the maximum number of residents, the name of the resident manager if applicable, conditions if applicable, license number, effective date, expiration date, and the signature of the Division’s designee. The license must be prominently posted in the AFH and available for inspection at all times.
(2) The Division may attach conditions to the license that limit, restrict, or specify other criteria for operation of the AFH. Conditions to a license may include but are not limited to care of a specifically identified resident. The conditions must be posted with the license in the AFH and be available for inspection at all times.
(3) The Provider must:
(a) Post the most recent inspection report in the entry of the home or an equally prominent place; and
(b) Upon request, provide a copy of the report to each resident, person applying for admission to the home, or the authorized or legal representative, guardian, or conservator of a resident.
(4) Each provider must report promptly to the Division any changes to information supplied in the application or subsequent correspondence. Changes include but are not limited to changes in the AFH name, owner entity, resident manager, telephone number, or mailing address, information discovered about past license or certification history, and staffing changes if those changes are significant or impact the health, safety, or well-being of residents.
(5) Before an AFH is sold, the prospective new owner must apply for a license in accordance with OAR 309-040-0315 if the new owner intends to operate an AFH.
(6) An AFH license is not transferable or applicable to any location or individuals other than those specified on the license.
(7) A license is valid for one year from the effective date on the license unless sooner revoked or relinquished.
(8) Applicants must be in substantial compliance with these rules before a license is issued. If cited deficiencies are not corrected within the time frames specified by the Division, the license application must be denied.
(9) The Division may not issue an initial license unless:
(a) The applicant and the AFH are in compliance with ORS 443.705 to 443.825 and the rules of the Division;
(b) The Division has completed an inspection of the AFH. If cited deficiencies are not corrected within the time frames specified by the Division, the application must be denied;
(c) The Division has received an approved background records check on the applicant, resident manager, substitute caregiver, and any occupant (other than a resident) 16 years of age or older or is identified in ORS 443.735 and who will be residing in or employed by the AFH, as identified in OAR chapter 943 division 007 and any other rules established by the Division;.
(d) The Division has determined that the registry maintained under ORS 441.678 contains no finding that the applicant or any person employed by the applicant has been responsible for abuse.
(e) The Division has determined the applicant is not excluded from receiving federal awards including:
(A) The U.S. Office of Inspector General’s Exclusion List at www.exclusions.oig.hhs.gov and
(B) The U.S. General Services Administration’s System for Award Management Exclusion List at www.sam.gov.
(f) An applicant may not be licensed to operate any additional programs without first demonstrating a history of substantial compliance for previous and current licenses and certificates.
(10) Notwithstanding any other provision of ORS 443.735, 443.725, or 443.738, the Division may issue a 60-day provisional license to a qualified applicant if the Division determines that an emergency situation exists after being notified that the licensed provider of an AFH is no longer overseeing operation of the AFH.
(11) At or about 90 days after initial licensure, but no more than 120 days after an initial license is issued, the Division will inspect the AFH to ensure compliant operation.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 443.705 - 443.825
- BHS 11-2026, temporary amend filed 05/28/2026, effective 06/05/2026 through 12/01/2026
- BHS 5-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- MHS 9-2017, f. 6-29-17, cert. ef. 7-1-17
- MHS 3-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
- MHS 14-2016(Temp), f. 9-6-16, cert. ef. 9-7-16 thru 3-3-17
- MHD 3-2005, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-05, Renumbered from 309-040-0020
- MHD 6-1999, f. 8-24-99, cert. ef. 8-26-99
- MHD 1-1992, f. & cert. ef. 1-7-92
Or. Admin. R. 309-040-0345 Temporary rule language in effect until 12/01/2026. Renewal
(1) The licensee must submit a complete renewal application packet and the required fee, as applicable, at least 120 days prior to the expiration date of the license. If the completed renewal application and fee are not submitted prior to the expiration date, the AFH will be treated as an unlicensed home subject to civil penalties.
(2) The renewal application must include the following:
(a) A renewed physician's statement and financial information form, if this information has changed;
(b) Certification in writing, under penalty of perjury, that to the best of the person’s knowledge the provider or owner is not in violation of any tax laws described in ORS 305.380
(c) A new Tax Compliance Certification issued by the Oregon Department of Revenue for each owner with 20 percent or more ownership in the AFH, certifying the owner is not in violation of any tax laws described in ORS 305.380;
(d) Disclosure of any adverse action taken or proposed on any current or previous license or certificate, and documentation showing the final disposition of any suspension, denial, revocation, or other disciplinary actions initiated on any current or previous license or certificate, including settlement agreements, where applicable;
(e) Updated floor plan and building permits for any physical changes to the home
(f) A completed AFH Self-Inspection related to HCBS compliance and Fire Safety, using division approved forms;
(g) Proposed policies and procedures regarding:
(A) Staff training,
(B) Service planning, medication administration, food preparation and distribution;
(C) Safety, emergency response, succession planning and facility closure; and
(D) Communication and services for persons with limited English proficiency.
(h) Current residency agreement and house rules;
(i) Current lease or rental agreement, as applicable; and
(j) Variance requests, as applicable.
(3) The Division may require the applicant to submit a current physician’s statement, a current approved background check, and a current financial information form if investigation by the Division for license renewal determines it is necessary.
(4) The Division must investigate any information in the renewal application and must conduct an in-person inspection of the AFH.
(5) The provider must be given a formal written report from the inspection citing any deficiencies and a time frame for correction that does not exceed 30 days from the date of the inspection report unless otherwise noted in the inspection report.
(6) The AFH provider must correct cited deficiencies prior to the Division issuing a renewed license. If cited deficiencies are not corrected within the time frame specified by the Division, the renewal application must be denied and administrative sanctions may be imposed.
(7) The Division must not renew a license unless:
(a) The applicant and the AFH are in compliance with ORS 443.705 to 443.825 and these rules;
(b) The Division has completed an inspection of the AFH;
(c) The Division has confirmed a current back[RC1] ground check has been completed, as required by ORS 181A.195, ORS 443.735 and OAR chapter 943, division 007, on the applicant and any occupant, other than a resident, 16 years of age or older or is identified in ORS 443.735(4)(c) and who will be residing in or employed by or otherwise acting as a provider, resident manager, substitute caregiver, or volunteer for the AFH provider.
(8) The Division will deny renewal of a license if the provider does not submit a complete renewal application packet and bed fee, if applicable, prior to the expiration of the license.
(9) The provider, resident manager, substitute caregiver, volunteer, or occupant residing in the AFH may continue to work or reside in the home pending the final fitness determination in accordance with OAR 407-007-0315.
(10) A background check must be completed for the applicant and any occupant, other than a resident, 16 years of age or older who must be residing in or employed by or otherwise acting as a provider, resident manager, substitute caregiver, or volunteer for the AFH provider if the Division believes there is reason to justify a new background check in accordance with OAR chapter 943, division 007.
(11) An AFH provider seeking initial licensing or that has been in operation for less than 24 months has the burden of proof to establish compliance with ORS 443.705 to 443.825 and the Division rules.
(12) The burden of proof is upon the Division to establish compliance with ORS 443.705 to 443.825 and the Division rules if an AFH provider is seeking renewal of a license and has been in continuous operation for more than 24 months.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 443.705 - 443.825
- BHS 11-2026, temporary amend filed 05/28/2026, effective 06/05/2026 through 12/01/2026
- BHS 5-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- MHS 9-2017, f. 6-29-17, cert. ef. 7-1-17
- MHS 3-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
- MHS 14-2016(Temp), f. 9-6-16, cert. ef. 9-7-16 thru 3-3-17
- Renumbered from 309-040-0025, MHD 3-2005, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-05
- MHD 6-1999, f. 8-24-99, cert. ef. 8-26-99
- MHD 1-1992, f. & cert. ef. 1-7-92 (and corrected 1-31-92)
- MHD 6-1986, f. & ef. 7-2-86
- MHD 19-1985(Temp), f. & ef. 12-27-85
Or. Admin. R. 309-040-0350 Variance
(1) A provider or applicant may apply to the Division for a variance from a provision of these rules using the Division’s Variance Request form. The provider must provide clear and convincing evidence the variance does not jeopardize the health, life, or safety of the residents and would not violate or compromise an applicable ORS.
(2) The Division may not grant a variance from a regulation or provision of these rules pertaining to:
(a) License capacity of the AFH;
(b) Minimum age of provider, resident manager and substitute caregivers;
(c) Background checks;
(d) Training requirements of the provider, resident manager and substitute caregivers
(e) Standards and practices for care and services;
(f) Inspections of the AFH;
(g) Civil, legal, and human rights; and
(h) Inspection of the public files.
(3) The Division may not grant a variance related to fire and life safety without prior consultation with the local fire authority or designee.
(4) The Division may not grant a variance related to Oregon Revised Statute 443.705 through 443.825.
(5) A provider or applicant may apply to the Division for a variance specific to each resident under ORS 443.725, subject to the following requirements:
(a) The variance is effective only for the specific resident who has been assessed and meets the safety requirements prescribed by the Division. This assessment must become part of the resident’s RCP;
(b) A variance allowing a specific resident to be in the AFH alone may not exceed four hours in a 24-hour period;
(c) No variance allows a provider to leave an resident alone in the AFH between the hours of 10 p.m. to 6 a.m.;
(d) No variance allows more than one resident to be alone in the AFH at any one time; and
(e) Twenty-four hour per day care must continue for any resident that does not qualify to be in the AFH alone.
(6) The Division must consider the provider’s history of compliance with the rules governing AFHs and other programs serving residents with mental health or substance abuse issues.
(7) Variances will be granted or denied in writing. Variances are not effective until granted in writing by the Division. All variances granted must be reviewed for continued approval with each license renewal under OAR 309-040-0345. A variance granted to one AFH provider or a variance granted regarding a specific resident does not constitute a precedent for any other AFH provider, applicant, or resident.
(8) The AFH provider or applicant may appeal the denial of a variance request by submitting a request for reconsideration in writing to the Division. The Division must make a decision on the appeal within 30 days of receipt of the appeal. The decision of the Division will be final.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 443.705 - 443.825
- BHS 5-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- MHS 9-2017, f. 6-29-17, cert. ef. 7-1-17
- MHS 3-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
- MHS 14-2016(Temp), f. 9-6-16, cert. ef. 9-7-16 thru 3-3-17
- MHS 12-2007, f. & cert. ef. 8-31-07
- MHS 2-2007(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 5-4-07 thru 10-31-07
- MHD 3-2005, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-05, Renumbered from 309-040-0035
- MHD 1-1992, f. & cert. ef. 1-7-92
- MHD 6-1986, f. & cert. ef. 7-2-86
- MHD 19-1985(Temp), f. & ef. 12-27-85
Or. Admin. R. 309-040-0355 Contracts
(1) Providers who care for residents who are or become eligible for Medicaid services must enter into a Medicaid Provider Enrollment Agreement with the Division and comply with Division rules and terms governing provider participation in the Oregon Medicaid program. Applicable Division rules in addition to these rules include, but are not limited to:
(a) OAR 407-120;
(b) OAR 410-120;
(c) OAR 410-172;
(d) OAR 410-173; and
(e) OAR 943-120.
(2) Providers must be qualified, professionally competent and actively licensed where required by law to perform work under the Medicaid Provider Enrollment Agreement.
(3) The rate established by the Division is considered payment in full. The licensee may not request or accept additional funds or in-kind payment from any source.
(4) An approved Medicaid provider enrollment agreement is valid so long as the license remains valid unless earlier terminated by the provider or the Division.
(5) The Division may terminate a Medicaid provider enrollment agreement under the following circumstances:
(a) The provider fails to maintain substantial compliance with all related federal, state and local laws, ordinances and regulations; or
(b) The license to operate the adult foster home has been voluntarily surrendered, revoked or non-renewed.
(6) The Division must terminate a Medicaid provider enrollment agreement under the following circumstances:
(a) The provider fails to permit access by the Department, the local licensing authority or the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services to any adult foster home licensed to and operated by the provider;
(b) The provider submits false or inaccurate information;
(c) Any person with five percent or greater direct or indirect ownership interest in the adult foster home did not submit timely and accurate information on the Medicaid provider enrollment agreement form or fails to submit fingerprints if required under OAR 407-007-0200 to 407-007-0370;
(d) Any person with five percent or greater direct or indirect ownership interest in the adult foster home has been convicted of a criminal offense related to the person’s involvement with Medicare, Medicaid or title XXI programs in the last 10 years; or
(e) Any person with an ownership or control interest or who is an agent or managing employee of the adult foster home fails to submit timely and accurate information on the Medicaid provider enrollment agreement form.
(7) If the provider submits notice of termination of the Medicaid provider enrollment agreement, the provider must concurrently issue the Division’s Notice of Involuntary Move, Transfer or Discharge of Resident form to each resident eligible for Medicaid services residing in the AFH and must issue written notification to all residents who pay with private funds. Provider must also immediately update the house policies.
(8) If either the provider or the Division terminates the Medicaid provider enrollment agreement, a new Medicaid provider enrollment agreement will not be approved for a period of no less than 180 days.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 443.705 - 443.825
- BHS 5-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- MHS 9-2017, f. 6-29-17, cert. ef. 7-1-17
- MHS 3-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
- MHS 14-2016(Temp), f. 9-6-16, cert. ef. 9-7-16 thru 3-3-17
- Renumbered from 309-040-0040, MHD 3-2005, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-05
- MHD 6-1999, f. 8-24-99, cert. ef. 8-26-99
- MHD 1-1992, f. & cert. ef. 1-7-92 (and corrected 1-31-92)
- MHD 6-1986, f. & ef. 7-2-86
- MHD 19-1985(Temp), f. & ef. 12-27-85
Or. Admin. R. 309-040-0360 Temporary rule language in effect until 12/01/2026. Qualifications for AFH Providers, Resident Managers, and Other Caregivers
(1) An AFH provider must meet the following qualifications:
(a) Be at least 21 years of age;
(b) Live in the AFH to be licensed, unless an approved resident manager lives in the AFH;
(c) Provide evidence satisfactory to the Division regarding experience, training, knowledge, interest, and concern in providing care to persons with severe and persistent mental illness. Evidence may include, but is not limited to the following:
(A) Certified nurse's aide training;
(B) Nursing home, hospital, or institutional work experience;
(C) Licensed practical nurse or registered nurse training and experience;
(D) Division approved training;
(E) Experience in caring for individuals with severe and persistent mental illness; and
(F) Home management skills.
(d) Have and maintain current CPR and First Aid certification.
(A) Accepted CPR and First Aid courses must be provided by or meet the standards of the American Heart Association or the American Red Cross.
(B) CPR or First Aid courses conducted online are only accepted by the Division when an in-person skills competency check is conducted by a qualified instructor meeting the standards of the American Heart Association or the American Red Cross.
(e) Possess the physical health and mental health determined necessary by the Division to provide 24-hour care for adults who are mentally ill. Applicants must have a statement from a physician, nurse practitioner, or physician assistant on the Division approved form that they are physically, mentally, and emotionally capable of providing care;
(f) Have an approved background check in accordance with OAR chapter 943 division 007;
(A) All subject individuals must self-report to the provider any potentially disqualifying condition as described in OAR 407-007-0280 and OAR 407-007-0290; and
(B) The provider must notify the Division of self-reported information within 24 hours.
(g) Provide evidence of sufficient financial resources to operate an AFH for at least two months, unless the application is for renewal of an AFH that is already in operation;
(h) Be proficient in the English language and capable of understanding and communicating orally and in writing with residents, medical professionals, case managers, and others involved in the care of residents;
(i) Be able to respond appropriately to emergency situations at all times;
(j) Not be listed on either of the Exclusion Lists.
(k) If transporting residents by motorized conveyance, have a current driver's license in compliance with the Department of Motor Vehicles laws and vehicle insurance as required by the State of Oregon.
(l) Provide evidence of completion of the approved course Mandatory Reporting for Individuals Working in Community Mental Health Programs, or another equivalent course; and
(m) Have a clear understanding of job responsibilities, have knowledge of the resident’s Residential Care Plans RCPs, and be able to provide the care specified for each resident.
(2) The resident manager must meet the provider qualifications listed in section (1) (a) through (l) of this rule. A resident manager applicant may work in the home pending outcome of the national criminal history check, if the Oregon background check was clear and no convictions were self-disclosed on the criminal record authorization.
(3) Substitute caregivers must have access to resident records and must meet the following qualifications:
(a) Be at least 18 years of age;
(b) Have an approved background check in accordance with OAR chapter 943 division 007. A substitute caregiver may work in the home pending outcome of the national criminal history check providing the Oregon background check was clear and no convictions were self-disclosed on the criminal record authorization;
(c) Be proficient in the English language and capable of understanding and communicating orally and in writing with residents, medical professionals, case managers, and others involved in the care of residents;
(d) Know fire safety and emergency procedures and have the ability to respond appropriately to emergency situations at all times;
(e) Have a clear understanding of job responsibilities, have knowledge of the resident’s Residential Care Plans, and be able to provide the care specified for each resident;
(f) Possess the physical health and mental health determined necessary by the Division to provide 24-hour care for adults who are mentally ill.
(g) Have and maintain current CPR and First Aid certification.
(A) Accepted CPR and First Aid courses must be provided by or meet the standards of the American Heart Association or the American Red Cross.
(B) CPR or First Aid courses conducted online are only accepted by the Division when an in-person skills competency check is conducted by a qualified instructor meeting the standards of the American Heart Association or the American Red Cross.
(h) Not be a resident; and
(i) Not be listed on either of the Exclusion Lists.
(A) The provider must verify the substitute caregiver is not listed on either of the Exclusion Lists; and
(B) Verification must be clearly documented in the facility’s records.
(j) If transporting residents by motorized conveyance, have a current driver's license in compliance with Department of Motor Vehicles laws and vehicle insurance as required by the State of Oregon.
(k) Provide evidence of completion of the approved course Mandatory Reporting for Individuals Working in Community Mental Health Programs, or another equivalent course.
(4) The provider may not hire or continue to employ a resident manager or substitute caregiver who does not meet the requirements of this rule.
(5) The provider must supervise and train resident managers and substitute caregivers and monitor their general conduct when acting within the scope of their employment or duties.
(6) After receipt of the completed resident manager application, and Division approval, a revised license must be issued in accordance with ORS 443.738(1) through (4).
(a) If a resident manager leaves during the period of the license, the provider must notify the Division immediately;
(b) and identify a plan for providing care to the residents.
(7) Volunteers, and occupants over the age of 16, excluding residents, must have documentation of an approved background check in accordance with ORS 181A.200, 443.735 and OAR 943-007-0001 through 0501.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 443.705 - 443.825
- BHS 11-2026, temporary amend filed 05/28/2026, effective 06/05/2026 through 12/01/2026
- BHS 5-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- MHS 9-2017, f. 6-29-17, cert. ef. 7-1-17
- MHS 3-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
- MHS 14-2016(Temp), f. 9-6-16, cert. ef. 9-7-16 thru 3-3-17
- Renumbered from 309-040-0045, MHD 3-2005, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-05
- MHD 6-1999, f. 8-24-99, cert. ef. 8-26-99
- MHD 1-1992, f. & cert. ef. 1-7-92 (and corrected 1-31-92)
- MHD 6-1986, f. & ef. 7-2-86
- MHD 19-1985(Temp), f. & ef. 12-27-85
Or. Admin. R. 309-040-0365 Facility Standards
(1) In order to qualify for or maintain a license, an AFH must meet and maintain the following provisions:
(a) Demonstrate compliance with Oregon Structural Specialty Code (OSSC) and Oregon Fire Code;
(b) Maintain up-to-date documentation verifying they meet applicable local business license, zoning, and building and housing codes and state and local fire and safety regulations. It is the responsibility of the provider to check with local government to be sure all applicable local codes have been met;
(c) For AFH's established on or after October 1, 2004, meet all applicable Americans with Disabilities Act standards, state building, mechanical, and housing codes for fire and life safety. The AFH must be inspected for fire safety by an inspector designated by the Division using the recommended standards established by the State Fire Marshal for facilities housing one to five persons as described in Chapter 49 of the Oregon Fire Code, the Oregon Residential Specialty Code, and the Oregon Structural Specialty Code. When deemed necessary by the Division, a request for fire inspection must be made to the State Fire Marshal;
(d) The building and furnishings must be clean and in good repair and grounds must be maintained. Walls, ceilings, and floors must be of such character to permit frequent washing, cleaning, or painting. There must be no accumulation of garbage, debris, rubbish, or offensive odors;
(e) Stairways must be provided with handrails. A functioning light must be provided in each room, stairway, and exit way; exterior light fixtures must be protected with appropriate covers as necessary. Yard and exterior steps must be accessible to residents;
(f) The heating system must be in working order. Areas of the AFH used by residents must be maintained at no less than 68 degrees Fahrenheit during the day and 60 degrees Fahrenheit during sleeping hours. During times of extreme summer heat, the provider must make a reasonable effort to make the residents comfortable using available ventilation, fans, or air conditioning;
(g) There must be at least 150 square feet of common space and sufficient comfortable furniture in the AFH to accommodate the recreational and socialization needs of all the occupants at one time. Common space must not be located in basements or garages unless such space was constructed for that purpose or has otherwise been legalized under permit. Additional space is required if wheelchairs are to be accommodated;
(h) Pools, hot tubs, and ponds must be equipped with sufficient safety barriers or devices to prevent accidental injury in accordance with the Oregon Residential Specialty Code.
(i) The address numbers of the adult foster home must be placed on the home or within 10 feet of the driveway to the home in a position that is legible and clearly visible from the street or road fronting the property. Address numbers must be a minimum of 4 inches in height, made of reflective material and contrast with their background.
(j) The AFH must have a minimum of two unobstructed exits to the exterior of the home, the use of which is accessible within the capabilities of the persons residing in the home.
(k) All doors in the means of egress must be maintained clear and unobstructed and have an obvious method of operation. Exterior exit doors must have latching-knob hardware. Hasp, sliding bolt, hook, and double-key dead bolts are not permitted.
(l) Any locks used inside of the home to secure space large enough for a person to fit inside must be single action. The single action release function must be installed in a manner that prevents a person from being locked into the space.
(m) Manufactured or mobile home units must have been built since 1976 and designed for use as a home rather than a travel trailer. The units must have a manufacturer’s label permanently affixed to the unit, which states it meets the requirements of the Department of Housing and Urban Development (HUD) or the authority having jurisdiction (AHJ).
(2) Any accessibility improvements made to accommodate an identified resident must be in accordance with the specific needs of the resident and comply with the applicable building code.
(3) An AFH must have an accessible outdoor area that must be made available to residents.
(4) Storage of a reasonable size for a resident’s belongings beyond that of the resident’s unit must be made available
(5) All yard maintenance equipment must be maintained in locked storage if such equipment poses a safety threat;
(6) A locked storage area for resident medications separate from food, laundry, and toxic or hazardous materials must be made accessible to all caregivers. For residents who have a self-administration order, the provider must make a secured locked box available to assure the safety of all occupants of the home;
(7) Nontoxic and nonhazardous materials must be used whenever possible. When necessary to the operation of the AHF, toxic or hazardous materials must be safely and properly stored in clearly labeled, original containers, separately from food and medications, and must be kept in locked storage.
(8) All bathroom equipment must be clean and in good repair, provide resident privacy, and must have but is not limited to, the following:
(a) A finished interior, a mirror, an operable window or other means of ventilation, and a window covering;
(b) Tubs or showers, toilets and sinks. A sink must be located near each toilet. A toilet and sink must be provided on each floor where rooms of non-ambulatory residents or residents with limited mobility are located. There must be at least one toilet, one sink, and one tub or shower for each six household occupants, including the provider and family;
(c) Hot and cold water in sufficient supply to meet the needs of residents for personal hygiene. Hot water temperature sources for bathing areas must not exceed 120 degrees Fahrenheit for residents identified as being at risk of personal injury associated with hot water access;
(d) Shower enclosures with nonporous surfaces. Glass shower doors must be tempered safety glass. Shower curtains must be clean and in good condition. Non-slip floor surfaces must be provided in tubs and showers;
(e) Grab bars for toilets, tubs, or showers for safety as required for by residents identified as having balance or mobility impairments.
(f) The AFH may not be designed to allow a resident or employee to walk through another resident’s bedroom to get to a bathroom. Residents must have barrier-free access to toilet and bathing facilities with appropriate fixtures.
(g) If there are non-ambulatory residents, alternative arrangements must be appropriate to meet the non-ambulatory resident’s needs for maintaining good personal hygiene.
(h) Resident must have appropriate racks or hooks for drying bath linens.
(9) All furniture and furnishings must be clean and in good repair.
(10) Units for all household occupants must have been constructed as a bedroom when the home was built or remodeled under permit; be finished, with walls or partitions of standard construction that go from floor to ceiling, and a door which opens directly to a hallway or common use room without passage through another unit or common bathroom; be adequately ventilated, heated, and lighted.
(a) Every sleeping room must have at least one operable window or door approved for emergency escape or rescue. Windows must have a net clear opening of not less than 5.7 square feet (0.53 m2) or 821 square inches (529 676 mm2). The net clear opening height of windows must be not less than 24 inches (610 mm). The net clear opening width of windows must be not less than 20 inches (508 mm). Where windows are provided as a means of egress, they must have a sill height of not more than 44 inches (1118 mm) above the floor. Grade floor windows with a clear opening of not less than 5 square feet (0.46 m2) or 720 square inches (464 515 mm2) with sill heights of 44 inches (1118 mm) may be accepted where approved by the local fire authority.
(b) Bedrooms and living quarters must have a minimum of two unobstructed exits.
(11) All units must include a minimum of 70 square feet of usable floor space for each resident or 120 square feet for two residents, have no more than two persons per room, and allow for a minimum of three feet between beds. In addition, the provider must ensure that:
(a) Each unit has an entrance door with an interior lock for the resident’s privacy:
(A) The locking device must release with a single-action lever on the inside of the unit and open to a hall or common use room;
(B) The provider must provide each resident with a personalized key that operates only the door to his or her unit door from the corridor side;
(C) The provider must maintain a master key to access all units that is quickly available to the provider and staff;
(D) The provider may not disable or remove a lock to a unit without first obtaining consent from the resident through the individually based limitations process outlined in OAR 309-040-0393.
(b) Providers, resident managers, or their family members must not sleep in areas designated as living areas or share units with residents;
(c) In determining maximum capacity, consideration must be given to whether children over the age of five have a bedroom separate from their parents;
(d) Units must be on ground level for residents who are non-ambulatory or have impaired mobility;
(e) Resident units must be in close enough proximity to alert the provider or resident manager to nighttime needs or emergencies or be equipped with a call bell or intercom. Child monitoring devices may not be used as a substitute.
(f) Bedrooms used by the provider, resident manager, and substitute caregiver, must be in the AFH and must have direct access to the individuals through an interior hallway or common use room.
(12) AFH's established on or after October 1, 2004, must meet all applicable state building, residential, fire, mechanical, and housing codes for fire and life safety. The AFH must be inspected for fire safety by an inspector designated by the Division using the recommended standards established by the State Fire Marshal for facilities housing one to five residents. Refer to Chapter 49 of the Oregon Fire Code, the Oregon Residential Specialty Code, and the Oregon Structural Specialty Code. When deemed necessary by the Division, a request for fire inspection must be made to the State Fire Marshal.
(13) Special hazards such as the following:
(a) Noncombustible and nonhazardous materials must be used whenever possible. When necessary to the operation of the AFH, flammable and combustible liquids, and hazardous materials must be safely and properly stored in original, properly labeled containers, or safety containers and secured to prevent tampering by resident or others.
(A) Firearms stored on the premises of an AFH must be stored in a locked gun safe, gun vault, or weapons locker. The firearms safe, vault or locker must be in an area of the home that is not readily accessible to residents; and
(B) All ammunition must be stored in a separate, locked location that is not readily accessible to residents.
(b) Smoking regulations must be adopted to allow smoking only in outside designated areas and in compliance with the Oregon Indoor Clean Air Act as outline in OAR 333-015-0035. Smoking must be prohibited in all indoor areas including sleeping rooms and on all outdoor upholstered furniture. Ashtrays of noncombustible material and safe design must be provided in areas where smoking is permitted;
(c) Cleaning supplies, poisons, and insecticides must be properly stored in original, properly labeled containers in a safe area away from food, preparation and storage of food, dining areas, and medications.
(14) All furniture and furnishings must be clean and in good repair. There must be at least 150 square feet of common space and sufficient comfortable furniture in the AFH to accommodate the recreational and socialization needs of all occupants at one time. Common space may not be located in basements or garages unless such space was constructed for that purpose or has otherwise been legalized under permit. Additional space must be required if wheelchairs are to be accommodated.
(15) All laundry equipment must be clean and in good repair. Laundry facilities must be separate from food preparation and other resident use areas. The provider must maintain the following:
(a) Locked storage area for chemicals that pose a safety threat to residents or family members identified to be at risk of personal injury;
(b) Sufficient, separate storage and handling space to ensure that clean laundry is not contaminated by soiled laundry; and
(c) Outlets, venting, and water hookups according to State Building Code requirements.
(16) All kitchen equipment must be clean and in good repair. The provider must maintain an area for dry storage, not subject to freezing, in cabinets or a separate pantry with a minimum of one week’s supply of staple foods. The provider must maintain the following:
(a) Sufficient refrigeration space maintained at 40 degrees Fahrenheit or less and freezer space maintained at 0 degrees Fahrenheit or less for a minimum of two days’ supply of perishable foods;
(b) A dishwasher
(c) Smooth, nonabsorbent and cleanable counters for food preparation and serving;
(d) Appropriate storage for dishes and cooking utensils designed to be free from potential contamination;
(e) Stove and oven equipment for cooking and baking needs;
(f) Storage for a mop and other cleaning tools and supplies used for food preparation, dining, and adjacent areas. Such cleaning tools must be maintained separately from those used to clean other parts of the home; and
(g) Dining Space where meals are served must be provided to seat all residents at the same seating.
(17) Exit doors may not have locks that prevent evacuation except as permitted by the applicable building code. An exterior door alarm or other acceptable system may be provided for security purposes and alert the provider when residents or others enter or exit the home.
(18) The heating and if applicable, air-conditioning system must be in good repair, used properly, and maintained according to the manufacturer’s or a qualified inspector’s recommendations:
(a) Areas of the AFH used by residents must be maintained at no less than 68 degrees Fahrenheit during daytime hours and no less than 60 degrees Fahrenheit during sleeping hours. During times of extreme summer heat, maximum temperatures must not exceed 78 degrees Fahrenheit. The provider must make reasonable effort to make the residents comfortable using available ventilation or fans;
(b) All toilets and shower rooms must be ventilated by a mechanical exhaust system or operable window;
(c) Design and installation of fireplaces, furnaces, pellet stoves, and wood stoves must meet standards of the Oregon Mechanical, Residential Specialty Code, the manufacturer’s specifications, under permit where applicable, and have annual inspections to assure no safety hazard exists;
(A) A provider who does not have a permit verifying proper installation of an existing wood stove, pellet stove, or gas fireplace must have it inspected by a qualified inspector, Certified Oregon Chimney Sweep Association member, National Fireplace Institute technician certified in wood or pellet stoves, or Oregon Hearth, Patio, and Barbecue Association member and follow the inspector’s recommended maintenance schedule.
(B) Approved and listed protective glass screens or metal mesh screens anchored top and bottom must be installed on working fireplaces and solid-fuel-burning appliances.
(C) Heat sources such as woodstoves, working fireplaces and solid-fuel-burning appliances must have a 36-inch buffer or barrier space.
(D) Unvented oil, gas, or kerosene heaters must not be used.
(19) Hot water temperatures must be maintained within a range of 110¼ to 140 120 degrees Fahrenheit.
(20) All electrical systems must meet the standards of the Oregon Electrical Specialty Code in effect on the date of installation, electrical equipment and wiring must be in accordance with Chapter 6 of the Oregon Fire Code and other nationally recognized standards. and all electrical devices must be properly wired and in good repair:
(a) When not fully grounded, GFI-type receptacles or circuit breakers as an acceptable alternative may protect circuits in resident areas;
(b) Circuit breakers or non-interchangeable circuit-breaker-type fuses in fuse boxes must be used to protect all electrical circuits. There must be a minimum clear radius of not less than 36 inches around electrical panels to permit safe operation and maintenance. Nothing may be stored in front of electrical panels;
(c) A sufficient supply of electrical outlets must be provided to meet resident and staff needs without the use of extension cords or outlet expander devices. Electrical outlets, light switches and other electrical box openings must have covers. Interior power outlets may not be sourced for power to exterior spaces. Listed and labeled re-locatable power strips or taps (RPTs) with circuit breaker protection are permitted for indoor use only and must be installed and used in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions. If RPTs are used, the RPT must be directly connected to an electrical outlet, never connected to another RPT (known as daisy-chaining or piggy-backing), never connected to an extension cord, and may not be used in place of permanent wiring;
(d) A functioning light must be provided in each room, stairway, and exit way. Lighting fixtures must be provided in each resident bedroom and bathroom with a light switch near the entry door and in other areas as required to meet task illumination needs;
(e) Incandescent light bulbs must be protected with appropriate covers, unless the bulb is designed by the manufacturer to be used without a cover.
(21) All plumbing must meet the Oregon Plumbing Specialty Code in effect on the date of installation, and all plumbing fixtures must be properly installed and in good repair.
(22) Telephones:
(a) A telephone must be available and accessible in a common area of the home 24 hours a day for residents’ use for incoming and outgoing calls in the AFH; Resident restrictions to phone access can only be implemented with an individually based limitation.
(b) A list of emergency telephone numbers and emergency contact information must be kept by the phone and must include:
(A) The name and emergency contact number for the provider;
(B) An alternate caregiver name and phone number if the provider is not available;
(C) The street address of the AFH;
(D) Emergency dispatch (911) and non-urgent police and fire contact numbers;
(E) Poison control;
(F) The local hospital;
(G) The Office of Training, Investigations, and Safety;
(H) Oregon SAFELINE [1-855-503-SAFE (7233)] and
(I) Non-emergency numbers for contacting caseworkers, the CMHP, the HSD, Disability Rights Oregon, the local public health office and emotional support lines available in the area.
(c) The provider may establish reasonable rules governing telephone use to ensure equal access by all residents. Each resident or guardian (as applicable) is responsible for payment of charges or fees associated with their phone use. Charges associated with phone use must be described in each resident’s residential agreement.
(23) LGBTQIA2S+ Protections and the LGBTQIA2S+ Nondiscrimination Notice, as described in OAR 411-049-0135(1)(i), must be posted in all places and on all materials where that notice or those written materials are posted.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & SB 739 (2025)
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 443.705 - 443.825
- BHS 26-2025, amend filed 12/23/2025, effective 01/01/2026
- BHS 5-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- MHS 9-2017, f. 6-29-17, cert. ef. 7-1-17
- MHS 3-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
- MHS 14-2016(Temp), f. 9-6-16, cert. ef. 9-7-16 thru 3-3-17
- MHD 3-2005, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-05, Renumbered from 309-040-0050
- MHD 6-1999, f. 8-24-99, cert. ef. 8-26-99
- MHD 1-1992, f. & cert. ef. 1-7-92, Sec. (8)-(10), Renumbered to 309-040-0052
- MHD 6-1986, f. & ef. 7-2-86
- MHD 19-1985(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 12-27-85
Or. Admin. R. 309-040-0370 Safety
(1) The provider must train all program staff in staff safety procedures prior to beginning their first regular shift. All residents must be trained in resident safety procedures during their first 24 hours of residency.
(2) Emergency Procedures:
(a) An emergency evacuation procedure must be developed, posted, and rehearsed with the residents residing in the home occupants. The emergency evacuation procedure must include training on when and how to safely evacuate the home, where to meet after the evacuation, who to contact, how to get assistance with evacuating if needed, and instructions for how to respond specifically to a smoke alarm, carbon monoxide alarm, or other emergency devices or notifications.
(b) A record must be maintained of evacuation drills. Evacuation drills must be scheduled at different times of the day, on different days of the week, with exit routes being varied, and with different locations designated as the origin of the fire for drill purposes:
(A) Evacuation drills must be held at least once a every 90 calendar days, with at least one drill per year conducted between the hours of 10:00 P.M. and 6:00 A.M;
(B) Evacuation drill records must include the date and time of the drill, the time for full evacuation and for each individual to evacuate, the location designated as the origin of the fire for drill purposes, the full names of all residents and staff present, comments on the drill results and any difficulties experienced, the names of residents requiring assistance for evacuation and the type of evacuation assistance provided by staff to individuals as specified in each individual's safety plan, and the signature of the staff person conducting the drill.;
(C) Evacuation drill records will also document safety checks of fire extinguishers, emergency lights, smoke and carbon monoxide alarms, protection equipment, egress paths, secondary egress points and furnace filters (to be changed per manufacturer instructions), number of staff present; and
(D) Evacuation drill records must be maintained for a minimum of three years.
(c) The residential care plan must document that within 24 hours of arrival, each new resident has received an orientation to basic safety and has been shown how to respond to a fire alarm and how to exit from the AFH in an emergency;
(d) The provider must demonstrate the ability to evacuate all residents from the facility to a point of safety exterior to and away from the structure, with access to a public way, within three minutes. If there are problems in demonstrating this evacuation time, the Division may apply conditions to the license that include, but may not be limited to, reduction of residents under care, additional staffing, or increased fire protection.
(3) The provider must provide to the Division, maintain as current, and post a floor plan on each floor containing room sizes, location of each resident’s sleeping room, resident manager or provider's sleeping room, the location of any ramps, any designated smoking areas, the location of all exits on each level of the residential setting including emergency exits such as windows, smoke and carbon monoxide alarms , fire extinguishers, escape routes and point of safety, and a list of major fire hazards associated with the normal use and occupancy of the premises. A copy of this drawing must be submitted with the application and updated to reflect any change;
(4) There must be at least one plug-in rechargeable flashlight available for emergency lighting in a readily accessible area on each floor including a basement.
(5) Evacuation capability categories are based upon the ability of the residents and staff to evacuate the facility or relocate to the point of safety:
(a) Documentation of a resident’s ability to safely evacuate from the facility, and the level of assistance needed to safely evacuate the home, must be maintained in the resident’s personal care plan;
(b) The provider must assess the resident's ability to evacuate the home in response to an alarm or simulated emergency:
(A) Prior to an individual's entry to the home; and
(B) Annually, or when there is a change in a resident’s support needs that would likely impact a resident’s emergency evacuation abilities, whichever occurs more frequently.
(c) Resident’s experiencing difficulty with evacuating in a timely manner must be provided assistance from staff and offered environmental and other accommodations, as practical. Under these circumstances, the provider must consider increasing staff levels, changing staff assignments, offering to change the resident’s room assignment, arranging for special equipment, and taking other actions that may assist the resident. The provider must document all actions and interventions attempted;
(d) Resident who regularly decline to participate in evacuation drills will be evaluated for their evacuation capability to determine whether or not they need special assistance to evacuate.
(e) Resident who cannot evacuate the home safely within three minutes must be assisted with transferring to another program with an evacuation capability designation consistent with the resident’s documented evacuation capability;
(f) Only ambulatory residents capable of self-preservation must be housed on a second floor or in a basement. Lifts or elevators must not be used as a substitute for a resident’s capability to ambulate stairs.
(g)The provider must develop a written individual fire safety and evacuation plan for residents who are unable to evacuate the residence within the required evacuation time or who decline to participate in fire drills on more than two occasions that includes the following:
(A) Documentation of the risk to the resident's medical and physical condition, and behavioral status;
(B) Identification of how the resident evacuates his or her residence, including level of support needed;
(C) The routes to be used to evacuate the resident to a point of safety;
(D) Identification of assistive devices required for evacuation;
(E) The frequency the plan is to be practiced and reviewed by the resident and staff;
(F) The alternative practices;
(G) Approval of the plan by the resident or resident's legal representative (as applicable), case manager, and the provider, licensee, or resident manager; and
(H) A plan to encourage future participation.
(h) The residential setting must maintain documentation of the practice and review of the individual fire evacuation safety plan by the individual and the staff.
(6) All stairways, halls, doorways, passageways, and exits from rooms and from the home must be unobstructed.
(7) At least one 2A-10BC rated fire extinguisher must be in a visible and readily accessible location within 75 feet of travel distance in the AFH, on each floor, including basements, and must be maintained in accordance with Section 906 of the Oregon Fire Code.
(8) Fire extinguishers must:
(a) Be serviced annually and tagged by a qualified company or technician. New extinguishers manufactured within the last 12 months are exempted from this requirement.
(b) Be located in conspicuous locations along normal paths of travel where they will have ready access and be immediately available for use;
(c) Not be obscured from view. In rooms or areas in which visual obstruction cannot be completely avoided, signage must be provided to indicate the locations of extinguishers;
(d) Be installed on the hangers or brackets supplied. Hangers or brackets must be securely anchored to the mounting surface in accordance with the manufacturer’s installation instructions;
(e) Be installed so that the tops are not more than 3.5 feet above the floor;
(f) Be installed so that the bottoms are not less than 4 inches above the floor; and
(g) Not be locked.
(9) Approved smoke detector systems or smoke alarms, and carbon monoxide alarms must be UL- approved, and installed according to Oregon Residential Specialty Code, Oregon Fire Code requirements, and manufacturer’s instructions. These alarms must be inspected and tested at least monthly, and during each evacuation drill. The provider must provide approved signal devices for resident’s with disabilities who do not respond to the standard auditory alarms. If a resident is deaf or hard of hearing, smoke alarm(s) consistent with the resident’s support needs must be provided. All of these devices must be inspected and maintained in accordance with the requirements of the State Fire Marshal or local agency having jurisdiction. Ceiling placement of smoke alarms or detectors is recommended. Alarms must be installed in each bedroom, adjacent hallways, common living areas, basements and in multilevel homes, at the top of each stairway or attic spaces accessible by an interior stairway. Carbon monoxide alarms must be installed and maintained in all areas with a fuel-burning appliance or carbon monoxide source, including attached garages, and in each bedroom or within 15 feet (4572 mm) outside each bedroom door. Bedrooms on separate floor levels in a structure consisting of two or more stories must have separate carbon monoxide alarms serving each story. Alarms must be equipped with a device that warns of low battery when battery operated. All smoke detectors and alarms must be maintained in functional condition;
(a) An AFH licensed on or after March 1, 2025 must have permanent, hard-wired, interconnected smoke alarms and carbon monoxide alarms with battery back-up.
(b) Alarms must be replaced when any of the following occur:
(A) The end-of-life signal is activated;
(B) The manufacturer’s replacement date is reached; or
(C) The alarm(s) fail to respond to operability tests.
(10) Special hazards:
(a) Flammable and combustible liquids and hazardous materials must be safely and properly stored in original, properly labeled containers or safety containers, and secured to prevent tampering by residents and vandals.
(A) Flammables and combustibles must not be stored in unvented rooms or spaces, or closets.
(B) Propane tanks must not be stored in the home interior
(C) Measures, including locking materials and incendiary devices, must be implemented, as appropriate, to address individually-identified safety risks related to fire, flammables, and combustibles.
(b) Oxygen and other gas cylinders in service or in storage must be adequately secured in accordance with the Oregon Fire Code to prevent the cylinders from falling or being knocked over. No smoking signs must be visibly posted on all doors leading to oxygen use and storage areas. In accordance with the Oregon Fire Code, oxygen cylinders must not be used or stored in rooms where wood stoves, fireplaces, or open flames are located.
(c) Generators and generator fuel may not be stored or operated in the home interior.
(A) A gasoline or propane generator may be stored in a garage when not in use.
(B) Liquid propane gas must not be stored in an attached garage or enclosed storage space. Enclosed structures used for the storage of liquid propane gas may not share a wall or direct openings to the home.
(d) Firearms stored on the premises of an AFH must be stored in a locked cabinet. The firearms cabinet must be located in an area of the home that is not readily accessible to clients, and all ammunition must be stored in a separate, locked location;
(e) Smoking regulations shall be adopted to allow smoking only in safe designated areas away from the building. Ashtrays of noncombustible material and safe design must be provided in areas where smoking is permitted; and
(f) Cleaning supplies, poisons, and insecticides must be properly stored in original, properly labeled containers in a safe area away from food, preparation and storage of food, dining areas, and medications.
(11) Sprinkler systems, if used, must be installed in compliance with the Oregon Structural Specialty Code and Oregon Fire Code and maintained in accordance with rules adopted by the State Fire Marshal.
(12) First aid supplies must be readily accessible to staff. All supplies must be properly labeled.
(13) Portable heaters must be listed, labeled, and approved per Oregon Fire Code and must be plugged directly into an approved outlet without the use of an extension cord, power strip or expander device. Heaters must be equipped with tip-over, shut-off capacity.
(14) Safety Plans must be developed and implemented to identify and prevent the occurrence of hazards. A safety plan will be developed identifying common hazards in the facility and that describes how staff should respond when specific hazards are identified. A safety record will be kept documenting the actions taken by staff to mitigate hazards when safety risks are identified. The safety plan should identify both environmental hazards and actions or behaviors of staff, residents, or guests that create an unsafe situation in the home. Potential situations that could cause health or safety risks in the home may include, the identification of dangerous substances or items; broken, chipped, or sharp objects, exposed electrical wiring or unprotected electrical outlets; the overuse of extension cords or other special plug-in adapters; slippery floors or stairs, damaged decks or walkways, exposed heating devices, broken glass, unsafe smoking areas, unsafe ashtrays and ash disposal, and other potential fire hazards. The safety plan must also document monthly safety checks of fire extinguishers, emergency flashlights, smoke and carbon monoxide alarms, egress paths, secondary egress points and furnace filters. Monthly documentation of these checks must be maintained for a minimum of three years. Furnace filters must be changed per manufacturer instructions.
(15) When hazards are identified concerning residents, the provider will determine if an incident report should be written or if behavior support plans need to be developed and included in the resident’s residential care plan. The Safety record should include a description of the identified concerns, and how staff resolved the concern and whether additional action may be needed.
(16) The provider must develop and implement a written Emergency Preparedness plan. The plan must include when emergency services will be contacted and describe procedures for staff to follow during such emergencies and disasters as fires, missing persons, accidents, earthquakes, floods, and tsunamis. The program must be immediately available to the program administrator and program staff. The plan must include diagrams of evacuation routes, and these must be posted. The plan must specify where staff and residents will reside if the setting becomes uninhabitable. Shelter plans should not depend on the availability of public shelters that may or may not be available at the time of an emergency. The program must update the plan and must include:
(a) Emergency instructions for employees;
(b) The telephone numbers of the local fire department, police department, the poison control center, the local public health office, the administrator, the administrator's designee, and other persons to be contacted in emergencies; and
(c) Instructions for the evacuation of residents and staff.
(d) Resources for sheltering in place.
(e) Alternative resources for utility outages.
(f) Procedures for notifying public health when significant health risks are present, including but not limited to communicable and noncommunicable diseases and conditions, pest infestations, and other environmental hazards as described in OAR 333.
(17) An Emergency Evacuation and Fire Safety Procedure shall be developed, posted, and practiced with all occupants. The procedure must:
(a) Meet standards consistent with Oregon Fire Code; and
(b) Be readily available at all times within the AFH in a prominent location with other postings and the license.
(18) An Emergency Evacuation and Fire Safety Procedure must include the following:
(a) Emergency egress and escape routes, including assembly point for occupants following egress;
(b) Procedures for assisting individuals who require support to use means of egress;
(c) Procedures for accounting for occupants of the home after evacuation has been completed;
(d) Preferred and any alternative means for notifying occupants of a fire or emergency;
(e) Preferred and any alternative means of reporting fires and other emergencies to the fire department or designated emergency response organization;
(f) Identification and assignment of personnel who can be contacted for further information or explanation of duties under the plan;
(g) A description of the emergency voice/alarm communication system alert tone and preprogrammed voice messages, where applicable.
(19) All staff must be trained in safety procedures including emergency evacuation procedures, and proper use of portable fire extinguishers prior to providing care.
(20) All staff must review their duties and responsibilities under the fire safety evacuation plan no less than every three months. Such review must be documented and maintained in the provider records.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 443.705 - 443.825
- BHS 5-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- MHS 9-2017, f. 6-29-17, cert. ef. 7-1-17
- MHS 3-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
- MHS 14-2016(Temp), f. 9-6-16, cert. ef. 9-7-16 thru 3-3-17
- MHD 3-2005, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-05
Or. Admin. R. 309-040-0375 Sanitation
(1) The water supply in the home must meet the requirements of the current Authority rules governing domestic water supplies:
(a) A municipal water supply must be utilized if available;
(b) When the home is not served by an approved municipal water system, a sanitarian or a technician from a laboratory accredited for well water testing must collect and test a sample for total coliform bacteria at least quarterly, and nitrate at least annually, and reported to the Division. For adverse test results, repeat samples and corrective action must be taken to assure compliance with water quality standards. Water testing and any necessary corrective action to ensure water is suitable for drinking must be completed at the provider’s expense. Public notice must be given whenever a violation of the water quality standards occurs, and records of water testing must be retained for three years.
(2) All floors, walls, ceilings, windows, furniture, and equipment must be kept in good repair, clean, neat, and orderly.
(3) Each bathtub, shower, lavatory, and toilet must be kept clean, in good repair, and regularly sanitized.
(4) Kitchen sinks may not be used for the disposal of cleaning wastewater.
(5) Soiled linens and clothing must be stored in an area or container separate from kitchens, dining areas, clean linens, clothing, and food.
(a) All soiled linens designated for cleaning and sanitation must be stored separately from soiled linens designated for personal hygiene.
(6) All necessary measures must be taken to prevent rodents and insects from entering the home. Should pests be found in the home, appropriate action must be taken to eliminate them. All occurrences of bedbugs must be reported to the local Public Health Division and the CMHP.
(7) The grounds of the facility must be kept orderly and reasonably free of litter, unused articles, and refuse.
(a) Outdoor walkways must be free of trip hazards.
(b) Fencing, if present on the property, must meet minimum standards for safety.
(c) Roofing and gutters must be free of debris and moss buildup
(d) All decks, railing, and siding must have a weather resistant coating free of cracks and chips.
(8) Garbage and refuse receptacles must be clean, durable, watertight, insect and rodent proof, and must be kept covered with tight-fitting lids. All garbage and solid waste must be disposed of at least weekly and in compliance with the current rules of the Department of Environmental Quality.
(9) All sewage and liquid wastes must be disposed of in accordance with the Plumbing Code to a municipal sewage system where such facilities are available. If a municipal sewage system is not available, sewage and liquid wastes must be collected, treated, and disposed of in compliance with the current rules of the Department of Environmental Quality. Sewage lines and septic tanks or other non-municipal sewage disposal systems, where applicable, must be maintained in good working order.
(10) Biohazard waste must be stored and disposed of in compliance with the rules of the Department of Environmental Quality as described in OAR 340-100-0002.
(11) Precautions must be taken to prevent the spread of infectious or communicable diseases as defined by the Centers for Disease Control and to minimize or eliminate exposure to known health hazards:
(a) In accordance with OAR 437-002-0368 through 2226of the Oregon Occupational Safety and Health Code, program staff must employ universal precautions whereby all human blood and certain body fluids are treated as if known to be infectious for HIV, HBV, and other blood borne pathogens;
(b) Bathroom facilities must be equipped with an adequate supply of toilet paper, soap, and towels.
(12) If pets or other household animals exist at the home, sanitation practices must be implemented to prevent health hazards:
(a) These animals must be vaccinated in accordance with the recommendations of a licensed veterinarian. Proof of such vaccinations must be maintained on the premises;
(b) Animals not confined in enclosures must be under control and maintained in a manner that does not adversely impact residents or others.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 443.705 - 443.825
- BHS 5-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- MHS 9-2017, f. 6-29-17, cert. ef. 7-1-17
- MHS 3-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
- MHS 14-2016(Temp), f. 9-6-16, cert. ef. 9-7-16 thru 3-3-17
- MHD 3-2005, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-05
Or. Admin. R. 309-040-0380 Individual Furnishings
(1) Bedrooms and Units:
(a) Bedrooms for all household occupants and units for residents must have been constructed as a bedroom when the home was built or remodeled under permit; be finished with walls or partitions of standard construction that go from floor to ceiling and a door that opens directly to a hallway or common use room without passage through another bedroom or unit or common bathroom; be adequately ventilated, heated and lighted with at least one operable window that meets the requirements of Section R310 of the Oregon Residential Specialty Code; have at least 70 square feet of usable floor space for each resident or 120 square feet for two residents and have no more than two residents per room;
(b) Providers, resident managers, or their family members may not sleep in areas designated as living areas, or share bedrooms or units with residents;
(c) There must be an individual bed for each resident consisting of a mattress in good condition and springs at least 36 inches wide. Cots, rollaway, bunks, trundles, couches, and folding beds may not be used for residents. Each bed must have clean bedding in good condition consisting of a bedspread, mattress pad, two sheets, a pillow, a pillowcase, and blankets adequate for the weather. Sheets and pillowcases must be laundered at least weekly, and more often if necessary. Waterproof mattress covers must be used for incontinent residents. Day care individuals may not use resident beds;
(d) Each unit must have sufficient separate, private dresser and closet space for each resident’s clothing and personal effects, including hygiene and grooming supplies. Residents must be allowed to keep and use reasonable amounts of personal belongings and to have private, secure storage space. Drapes or shades for windows must be in good condition and provider privacy for residents;
(e) Units must be on ground level for residents who are non-ambulatory or have impaired mobility;
(f) Units must be in close enough proximity to the provider to alert the provider to night time needs or emergencies or be equipped with a call bell or intercom.
(2) Each resident must be assisted in obtaining personal hygiene items in accordance with resident needs. Items must be stored in a clean and sanitary manner and may be purchased with the resident’s personal allowance. Personal hygiene items include, but are not limited to, a comb or hairbrush, a toothbrush, toothpaste, menstrual supplies (if needed), and washcloths.
(3) Sufficient supplies of soap, shampoo, toilet paper, and towels for all residents must be provided.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 443.705 - 443.825
- BHS 5-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- MHS 9-2017, f. 6-29-17, cert. ef. 7-1-17
- MHS 3-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
- MHS 14-2016(Temp), f. 9-6-16, cert. ef. 9-7-16 thru 3-3-17
- MHD 3-2005, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-05
Or. Admin. R. 309-040-0385 Food Services
(1) Providers must prepare and serve three nutritionally balanced meals and provide at least two snacks to residents each day at times consistent with those in the community.
(a) Meals must be prepared and served in the facility where the residents live.
(A) Meals eaten away from the AFH for the convenience of the provider (e.g. restaurants, community meal sites) must be paid for by the provider.
(B) Meals and snacks eaten as part of a resident’s own recreational outing must be paid for by the resident.
(b) Each meal must include food from the basic food groups according to the United States Department of Agriculture (USDAs) My Plate, and regularly include fresh fruit and vegetables.
(c) Meals and snacks must be planned and served with consideration for resident food preferences, allergies, and special or modified diets as well as cultural, religious and ethnic considerations.
(d) Meals will be offered in family style, however, residents may choose to eat in their personal living space.
(e) A menu for the meals for the coming week must be prepared and posted weekly.
(2) Foods purchased under the resident’s room and board agreement for meals and snacks will include dietary standards such breads, condiments, dairy products, fruits and vegetables and other common foods as may be requested by a resident for their use.
(3) Residents will have unrestricted access to food and drinks purchased for their use under the room and board agreement for meals or snacks and will have unrestricted access to common food preparation and storage appliances, equipment, cleaning supplies and preparation space needed for preparing food.
(4) Food must not be used as an inducement to control the behavior of a resident.
(5) An order from an LMP must be obtained for each resident who for health reasons is on a modified or special diet. These diets must be planned in consultation with the resident.
(6) Records of menus as served must be filed and maintained in the AFH for two years.
(7) The provider must maintain adequate supplies of staple foods for a minimum of one week and perishable foods for a minimum of two days at the setting. An emergency supply of potable water must be available such that the provider maintains seven gallons of water per resident.
(8) Food must be stored, prepared, and served in accordance with the Authority's Food Sanitation Rules:
(a) All working refrigerators and freezers must have a thermometer in working order;
(b) Food storage areas and equipment must be such that food is protected from dirt and contamination and maintained at proper temperatures to prevent spoilage.
(9) Food preparation areas must be clean, free of obnoxious odors, and in good repair.
(10) Equipment must be maintained in a safe and sanitary manner. Utensils, dishes, and glassware must be maintained in a sufficient number to accommodate the licensed capacity of the AFHs. Utensils, dishes, and glassware must be washed in hot soapy water, rinsed, and stored to prevent contamination. A dishwasher with sanitation cycle is recommended.
(11) The provider must support the resident’s right to access food at any time. The provider may only apply an individually-based limitation when there is a threat to the health and safety of a resident or others, and the provider complies with the requirements outlined in OAR 309-040-0393.
(12) The provider cannot restrict a resident’s right to have meals or snacks in their private living area unless an individual limitation is documented in their care plan based on a documented health or safety risk.
(13) If a resident misses a meal at a scheduled time, an alternative meal must be made available.
(14) The provider may not schedule meals with more than a 14-hour span between the evening meal and the following morning’s meal (see, OAR 411-050-0645)
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 443.705 - 443.825
- BHS 5-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- MHS 9-2017, f. 6-29-17, cert. ef. 7-1-17
- MHS 3-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
- MHS 14-2016(Temp), f. 9-6-16, cert. ef. 9-7-16 thru 3-3-17
- MHD 3-2005, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-05
Or. Admin. R. 309-040-0390 Standards and Practices for Care and Services
(1) The provider, resident manager and substitute caregivers must understand administration of each resident’s medications, including the reason the medication was ordered, route, frequency, parameters (such as when to hold or call the prescriber), required monitoring, how the medication is intended to work, common side effects, and adverse reactions.
(2) Medication resource material must be readily available in the AFH. Acceptable resource materials include prescription drug information sheets, drug fact labels for over-the-counter medications, supplement fact labels, nutritional fact labels, current drug manuals and drug references websites. Caregivers must be able to readily access the internet when drug reference websites are the chosen material.
(3) Medications and Prescriber's Orders:
(a) There must be a signed copy of all medications, dietary supplements, over-the-counter medications, treatments, or therapies ordered by a prescribing practitioner or requested by the resident in the resident’s file, except as otherwise permitted under OAR 309-040-0390(4)-(5) Visit summary documents that list current medications are not consider medical orders even if the prescribing practitioner signs the document. Written orders must include:
(A) Dated order;
(B) Name of the medication;
(C) Strength of the medication;
(D) Dose;
(E) Frequency;
(F) Administration route;
(G) Reason medication is being taken; and
(H) Prescriber’s signature or typed name.
(b) A provider, resident manager, or substitute caregiver must dispense medications, dietary supplements, over-the-counter medications, treatments, and therapies as prescribed unless the resident or the resident’s legal representative refuses to consent.
(c) The prescribing practitioner must be notified of refusal to consent to an order.
(d) Changes to orders may not be made without a prescribing practitioner order. Changes made over the phone must be followed-up with a, written or electronic copy of the order within 72 hours of the change notice.
(A) The provider, resident manager, or substitute caregiver must promptly notify the resident’s case manager of any request for a change in the resident’s orders for medications, treatments, or therapies;
(B) Changes in the dosage or frequency of an existing medication require a new properly labeled and dispensed medication container. If a new properly labeled and dispensed medication container is not obtained, the change must be written on an auxiliary label attached to the medication container, not to deface the existing original pharmacy label, and the information must match the new medication order.
(C) Changes for a medication packaged in a blister pack, must be made by the Pharmacist that filled the order.
(e) All medications, including over-the-counter medications must be in the original container and be clearly labeled with the pharmacist's label or the manufacturer's original label. Over-the-counter medications must be marked with the resident’s name.
(f) All medications, including over-the-counter medications, must be stored as directed by the manufacturer, and kept in a locked location except as otherwise permitted under OAR 309-040-0390(4)-(5), that is cool, clean, dry and not subject to direct sunlight or fluctuations in temperature.
(A) The provider or provider's family medication must be stored in a separate locked location.
(B) All medication for pets or other animals must be stored in a separate locked location.
(C) Medication requiring refrigeration must also be locked and stored separately from medications of others.
(4) The program must ensure at least one unexpired opioid overdose kit for emergency response to suspected overdose is available in the facility at all times. Opioid overdose kits do not require a prescription and are not specific to an individual (see ORS 689.800).
(a) All opioid overdose kits must include an ultraviolet light-protected hard case and must contain, but not be limited to:
(A) Two doses of an FDA-approved short-acting, non-injectable, opioid antagonist medication;
(B) One pair non-latex gloves;
(C) One face mask;
(D) One face shield for rescue breathing that is maintained according to manufacturer’s recommendations; and
(E) One short-acting, non-injectable, opioid antagonist medication administration instruction card.
(b) Opioid overdose kits must be:
(A) Installed in an easily accessible, highly visible, and unlocked location;
(B) At a height of no more than 48 inches from the floor;
(C) In a location without direct sunlight;
(D) In an area where temperatures are maintained between 59 degrees Fahrenheit and 77 degrees Fahrenheit; and
(E) Have a sign clearly indicating the location and content of the kit.
(c) Short-acting, non-injectable, opioid antagonist medication not within installed opioid overdose kits must be stored in a locked cabinet with other resident medications.
(d) Opioid overdose kits must be:
(A) Checked daily to ensure the required components have not been removed or damaged, with documentation of daily checks maintained for three years;
(B) Checked monthly to ensure the short-acting, non-injectable, opioid antagonist medication has not expired, with documentation of monthly checks maintained for three years; and
(C) Restocked immediately after use.
(e) Upon recognizing a person appears to be experiencing an overdose, program staff must immediate respond based on the medical emergency procedures of the facility.
(f) A person who has reasonable cause to believe and in good faith administers short-acting, non-injectable, opioid antagonist medication to a person experiencing an overdose, is protected against civil liability or criminal prosecution unless the person, while rendering care, acts with gross negligence, willful misconduct, or intentional wrongdoing as described in Oregon Revised Statute (ORS) 689.800.
(g) Administration of short-acting, non-injectable, opioid antagonist medication must be documented by the caregiver who administered the medication. Documentation must be submitted to the Authority within 48 hours of the incident and must include:
(A) Name of the individual;
(B) Description of the incident including date, time, and location;
(C) Time 9-1-1 contacted;
(D) Time of administration(s) of short-acting, non-injectable, opioid antagonist medication;
(E) Individual’s response;
(F) Transfer of care to EMS; and
(G) Signature of caregiver.
(h) Program staff must fully cooperate with emergency medical service (EMS) personnel. Program staff must not interfere with or impede the administration of emergency medical services.
(5) Opioid overdose medication and kits which are the personal property of a resident, do not need to be kept in a locked location or maintained as described under OAR 309-040-0390(4).
(6) Discontinued, outdated, or recalled medications may not be kept in the AFH and must be disposed in a manner advised by Department of Environmental Quality,
(a) The provider must document disposal of all discontinued, outdated, and recalled medication on resident’s drug disposal forms.
(b) Disposal must occur within 10 calendar days of expiration, discontinuation, or provider’s knowledge of recall.
(c) Prescription medications for resident’s who have died, must be disposed of within 24 hours. Prescription medications are not transferable to anyone other than the resident identified on the prescription label.
(7) Medications may only not be mixed together in another container prior to administration as directed by a physician order, or as packaged by the pharmacy.
(8) A written medication administration record (MAR) or electronic MAR must be maintained for each resident.
(a) The MAR must include:
(A) The name of all medications, treatments and therapies administered by the program staff to that resident, including over-the-counter medications and prescribed or dietary supplements.
(B) The name of all medications, treatments and therapies self-administered by the resident and indicate that they are self-administered. Resident do not have to document self-administrations on the MAR.
(C) The name of medication, dosage and frequency of administration, route or method, dates and times given, and any parameters for each prescribed medication, over-the-counter medication, and supplements.
(D) Scheduled medications must have a specific time assigned on the MAR when the medication will be administered. Medications administered “as needed” (also known as PRN medications) must be listed as “PRN” and not have a specific time.
(E) PRN medications must include what dosages not to exceed in a 24-hour period and may not include any dosage ranges.
(F) Documentation of any known allergy or adverse reactions to a food or medication.
(b) The MAR must be immediately initialed by the caregiver dispensing using only blue or black indelible ink.
(c) Treatments, therapies, and special diets must be immediately documented on the medication administration record including the specific time given, type of treatment or therapy, and initials of the caregiver giving it using only blue or black indelible ink.
(d) The medication administration record must have a legible signature for each set of initials using only blue or black indelible ink;
(e) The MAR must indicate when medications are provided to non-staff, alternate caregivers (e.g. family members) to administer when residents will be away from the home.
(f) The MAR must include , documentation and an explanation of why a PRN medication was administered and the results of such administration;
(g) Medication may not be used for the convenience of the caregiver and must never be used to discipline a resident.
(h) Changed or discontinued orders must be immediately documented on the MAR showing the date of the change or discontinued order. A changed order must be written on a new line.
(i) Missed or refused medication, treatment or therapy must be documented by circling the caregivers initials and completing a brief explanation in the results section of the MAR.
(j) The prescribing practitioner must be notified when there are observed side effects or concerns regarding the resident’s response to medication.
(9) Subcutaneous, intramuscular, and intravenous injections may be self-administered by the resident if the resident is fully independent in the task, administered by a relative of the resident, or administered by a current Oregon licensed registered nurse. A current Oregon licensed practical nurse may administer subcutaneous and intramuscular injections. Providers and caregivers who have been delegated and trained by a registered nurse in accordance with administrative rules of the Board of Nursing chapter 851, division 047 may administer subcutaneous injections. Intramuscular and intravenous injections may not be delegated except as allowed by (3)(S) of this rule. Documentation regarding the training or delegation must be maintained in the resident’s record;
(a) Intramuscular injections used to administer medications for lifesaving emergencies as outlined in ORS 433.800 to 433.830 and Chapter 333 Division 55 must be taught by a registered nurse, a pharmacist, or the prescriber, and the AFH provider must be given written detailed step-by-step instructions; and
(b) Precautions must be taken to prevent injuries caused by needles, scalpels, and other sharp instruments or devices during procedures. All sharps, including, but not limited to, needles and lancets, must be disposed of in approved sharps containers that:
(A) Are puncture-resistant;
(B) Are leak-proof;
(C) Are labeled or color-coded red to warn the contents are hazardous;
(D) Have a lid, flap, door, or other means of closing the container and inhibits the ability to remove sharps from the container;
(E) Are not overfilled;
(F) Are stored in an upright position in a secure location as close as practical to the use area. The container must be accessible to residents and not close to any food preparation or food storage area; and
(G) Must be closed immediately once full and properly disposed of within 10 days, according to the home’s waste management company’s or pharmacy’s instructions.
(10) Nursing tasks may be delegated by a registered nurse to providers and other caregivers only in accordance with administrative rules of the Board of Nursing chapter 851, division 47. This includes but is not limited to the following conditions:
(a) The registered nurse has assessed the resident’s condition to determine there is not a significant risk to the resident if the provider or other caregiver performs the task;
(b) The registered nurse has determined the provider or other caregiver is capable of performing the task;
(c) The registered nurse has taught the provider or caregiver how to do the task;
(d) The provider or caregiver has satisfactorily demonstrated to the registered nurse the ability to perform the task safely and accurately;
(e) The registered nurse provides written instructions for the provider or caregiver to use as a reference;
(f) The provider or caregiver has been instructed that the task is delegated for this specific person only and is not transferable to other residents or taught to other care providers;
(g) The registered nurse has determined the frequency for monitoring the provider or caregiver's delivery of the delegated task; and
(h) The registered nurse has documented a residential care plan for the resident including delegated procedures, frequency of registered nurse follow-up visits, and signature and license number of the registered nurse doing the delegating.
(11) The initial residential care plan must be developed within 24 hours of admission to the AFH.
(a) During the initial 30 calendar days following the resident’s admission to the AFH, the provider must continue to assess and document the resident’s preferences and care needs. The provider must complete and document the assessment in an RCP within 30 days after admission, unless the resident is admitted to the AFH for crisis-respite services;
(b) An RCP is an individualized plan intended to implement and document the provider’s delivery of services and identifies the goals to be accomplished through those services. The RCP must describe the resident’s needs, preferences, and capabilities relating to their activities of daily living and instrumental activities of daily living needs identified in their person centered service plan, and what assistance the individual requires for various tasks;
(c) The provider must develop the RCP based upon the findings of the resident assessment and the person-centered service plan with participation of the resident and through collaboration with the resident’s primary mental health treatment provider. With consent of the resident, family members, representatives from involved agencies, and others with an interest in the resident’s circumstances may be invited to participate in the development of the RCP. The provider must have proper, prior authorization from the resident or the resident’s representative prior to such contact;
(d) The RCP must adequately consider and facilitate the implementation of the resident’s person-centered service plan by addressing the following:
(A) The resident’s care needs including night care.
(B) The resident’s continued ability to evacuate the AFH in less than 3 minutes, and describe any supports that are needed to do so if applicable
(C) Any current self-administration for medications, treatments or therapies and describe the providers responsibilities to support the self-administration.
(D) Any approved individually based limitation and describe how the provider monitors resident progress in the area of the limitation.
(E) Address the implementation and provision of services by the provider consistent with the obligations imposed by the person-centered service plan;
(F) Identify the resident’s service needs, desired outcomes, and service strategies to advance all areas identified in the person-centered service plan to include, the resident’s physical and medical needs, medication regimen, self-care, social-emotional adjustment, behavioral concerns, independent living capability and community navigation, as well as any other area of concern or the other goals set by the resident;
(G) Document all behavior intervention program approvals;
(H) How the provider supports each identified services and support need identified in the Individual Services Plan including a description of what service/support is provide, and the duration and frequency of the support. Support services must include how the provider supports the resident in accessing community resources and engaging in community activities; and
(I) If the person-centered service plan is unavailable for use in developing the RCP, providers must still develop an RCP based on the information available. Upon receipt of the person-centered service plan , the providers must amend the RCP as necessary to comply with this rule
(e) The provider must attach the person-centered service plan to the RCP.
(f) The RCP must be signed by the resident, the provider, or the provider’s designee, and others, as appropriate, to indicate mutual agreement with the course of services outlined in the plan;
(g) The provider must review and update each resident’s RCP every six months and when a resident’s condition changes. The review must be documented in the resident’s record at the time of the review and include the date of the review and the provider’s signature. If a RCP changes the provider must write a new care plan.
(12) A person-centered service plan must be completed in the following circumstances:
(a) A person-centered service plan coordinator under contract with the Division must complete a person-centered service plan with each resident pursuant to OAR 411-004-0030. The provider must make a good faith effort to implement and complete all elements the provider is responsible for implementing as identified in the person-centered service plan;
(b) The person-centered service plan coordinator documents the person-centered service plan on behalf of the resident and provides the necessary information and supports to ensure the resident directs the person-centered service planning process to the maximum extent possible;
(c) The person-centered service plan must be developed by the resident, and as applicable, the legal or designated representative of the resident, and the person-centered service plan coordinator. Others may be included only at the invitation of the resident and, as applicable, the resident’s representative;
(d) To avoid conflict of interest, the person-centered service plan may not be developed by the provider for residents receiving Medicaid. The Division may grant exceptions when it determines that the provider is the only willing and qualified entity to provide case management and develop the person-centered service plan in a specific geographic area;
(e) For private pay residents, a person-centered service plan may be developed by the resident, or as applicable, the legal or designated representative of the resident, and others chosen by the resident. Providers must assist private pay residents in developing person-centered service plans when no alternative resources are available. Private pay residents are not required to have a written person-centered service plan.
(13) A person-centered service plan must be developed through a person-centered service planning process. The person-centered service planning process includes the following:
(a) Is driven by the resident;
(b) Includes people chosen by the resident;
(c) Provides necessary information and supports to ensure the resident directs the process to the maximum extent possible and is enabled to make informed choices and decisions;
(d) Is timely, responsive to changing needs, occurs at times and locations convenient to the resident, and is reviewed at least annually;
(e) Reflects the cultural considerations of the resident;
(f) Uses language, format, and presentation methods appropriate for effective communication according to the needs and abilities of the resident and, as applicable, the resident’s representative;
(g) Includes strategies for resolving disagreement within the process, including clear conflict of interest guidelines for all planning participants, such as:
(A) Discussing the concerns of the resident and determining acceptable solutions;
(B) Supporting the resident in arranging and conducting a person-centered service planning meeting;
(C) Utilizing any available greater community conflict resolution resources;
(D) Referring concerns to the Office of the Long-Term Care Ombudsman; or
(E) For Medicaid recipients, following existing, program-specific grievance processes.
(h) Offers choices to the resident regarding the services and supports the resident receives and from whom, and records the alternative HCB settings that were considered by the resident;
(i) Provides a method for the resident to request updates to the person-centered service plan for the resident;
(j) Is conducted to reflect what is important to the resident to ensure delivery of services in a manner reflecting personal preferences and ensuring health and welfare;
(k) Identifies the strengths and preferences, service and support needs, goals, and desired outcomes of the resident;
(l) Includes any services that are self-directed, if applicable;
(m) Includes but is not limited to individually identified goals and preferences related to relationships, greater community participation, employment, income and savings, healthcare and wellness, and education;
(n) Includes risk factors and plans to minimize any identified risk factors; and
(o) Results in a person-centered service plan documented by the person-centered services plan coordinator, signed by the resident, participants in the person-centered service planning process, and all individuals responsible for the implementation of the person-centered service plan, including the provider, as described in these rules. The person-centered service plan is distributed to the resident and other people involved in the person-centered service plan as described in these rules.
(14) Required contents of the person-centered service plan:
(a) When the provider is required to develop the person-centered service plan, the provider must ensure that the plan includes the following:
(A) HCBS and setting options based on the needs and preferences of the resident and for residential settings, the available resources of the resident for room and board;
(B) The HCBS and settings are chosen by the resident, or resident’s legal representative, and are integrated in and support full access to the greater community;
(C) Opportunities to seek employment and work in competitive integrated employment settings for those residents who desire to work. If the resident wishes to pursue employment, a non-disability specific setting option must be presented and documented in the person-centered service plan;
(D) Opportunities to engage in greater community life, control personal resources, and receive services in the greater community to the same degree of access as people not receiving HCBS;
(E) The strengths and preferences of the resident;
(F) The service and support needs of the resident;
(G) The goals and desired outcomes of the individual;
(H) The providers of services and supports, including unpaid supports provided voluntarily;
(I) Risk factors and measures in place to minimize risk;
(J) Individualized backup plans and strategies, when needed;
(K) People who are important in supporting the resident;
(L) The person responsible for monitoring the person-centered service plan;
(M) Language, format, and presentation methods appropriate for effective communication according to the needs and abilities of the resident receiving services;
(N) The written informed consent of the resident;
(O) Signatures of the resident, participants in the person-centered service planning process, and all people and providers responsible for the implementation of the person-centered service plan as described below in subsection (c) of this section;
(P) Self-directed supports; and
(Q) Provisions to prevent unnecessary or inappropriate services and supports.
(b) When the provider is not required to develop the person-centered service plan but provides services to the resident, the provider must provide relevant information and provide necessary support for the person-centered service plan coordinator or other persons developing the plan to fulfill the characteristics described in these rules;
(c) The resident decides on the level of information in the person-centered service plan that is shared with providers. To effectively provide services, providers must have access to the portion of the person-centered service plan that the provider is responsible for implementing;
(d) The person-centered service plan is distributed to the resident and other people involved in the person-centered service plan as described in these rules;
(e) The person-centered service plan must justify and document any individually-based limitation to be applied as outlined in OAR 309-040-0393 when a resident’s rights under OAR 309-040-0410(2)(b) through (i) may not be met due to threats to the health and safety of the resident or others;
(f) The person-centered service plan must be reviewed and revised:
(A) At the request of the resident:
(B) When the circumstances or needs of the resident change; or
(C) Upon reassessment of functional needs as required by 410-173-0025.
(15) For crisis respite service providers, the provider is not required to develop a person-centered service plan under these rules during the short period of residency, but the provider must, at a minimum, develop an initial care plan as required by section (7) of these rules to identify service needs, desired outcomes, and service strategies to resolve the crisis or address the resident’s other needs that caused the need for crisis-respite services. In addition, the provider must provide relevant information and provide necessary support for the person-centered service plan coordinator as described in section (11)(b) of this rule.
(16) The provider must develop a written resident record for each resident. The provider must keep the resident record current and available on the premises for each resident admitted to the AFH. The provider must maintain an resident record consistent with the following requirements:
(a) General Information, Retention, and Release:
(A) An easily accessible summary sheet that includes, but is not limited to, the resident’s name and pronouns, previous address, date of admission to the program, gender identity, biological sex, date of birth, marital status, legal status, religious preference, health provider information, mental health diagnoses, medical health diagnosis, medication allergies, food allergies, information specifying whether advance mental health and health directives and burial plan have been executed, the name of residents to contact in case of emergency,
(B) The names, addresses, and telephone numbers of the resident’s representative, legal guardian or conservator, parents, next of kin, or other significant persons including, but not limited to; physicians or other medical practitioners; dentist; case manager or therapist; day program, school, or employer; and any governmental or other agency representatives providing services to the resident;
(C) Copies of legal documents such as guardianships, power of attorney, advance mental health and medical health directives, PSRB requirements, burial plans, if applicable;
(D) Resident records must be immediately available to the Authority upon request as well as available to the resident or the resident’s representative;
(E) Original resident records must be kept for a period of three years after discharge or from when an resident no longer resides in the AFH;
(F) Resident records must include copies of release authorizations signed by the resident for the CMHP serving the resident, medication prescribers and any other release approved by the resident. Release authorizations must be dated, signed by the resident, and include initials authorizing the disclosure of protected information and indicate how long the authorization is to be in effect.
(G) All resident records must be kept confidential in compliance with applicable law and must be stored in a secure location which prohibits access by residents, guests, or other visitors in the home. In all other matters pertaining to confidential records and release of information, providers must comply with ORS 179.505, ORS 192.566, and ORS 441.114.
(b) Medical Information:
(A) History of physical, emotional, and medical problems, accidents, illnesses or mental status that may be pertinent to current care;
(B) Current orders for medications, treatments, therapies, use of restraints, special diets, dietary supplements, and any known food or medication allergies;
(C) Completed medication administration records for the last 12 months or from the date of admission, whichever is less;
(D) Name and claim number of medical insurance and any pertinent medical information such as hospitalizations, accidents, immunization records including previous TB tests, incidents or injuries affecting the health, safety, or emotional well-being of any resident.
(E) Documentation of current prescriber order for self-administration of medication, if applicable.
(F) Documentation the resident has been trained for self-administering of prescribed medication or treatment, who provided the training and when it was provided or documentation that the prescriber has determined that the training for the resident is unnecessary, if applicable;
(G) A description of how the resident manages his or her own medication regimen, or how the provider supports the resident’s medication management, and how the medications will be stored in an area that is inaccessible to others and locked when not on the resident’s person;
(H) Documentation of self-administration retraining when there is a change in dosage, medication, and time of delivery or documentation that the prescriber has determined that the training continues to be unnecessary; and
(I) The Residential Care plan must include a list of medications that can be self-administered by the resident and what services and supports the provider is required to provide to support the self-administration.
(c) Individual account record:
(A) Resident’s income sources;
(B) The resident or the resident’s representative must agree to specific costs for room and board and services within the pre-set limits of the state contract. A copy must be given to the individual, the individual's representative, and the original in the resident’s resident record;
(C) Resident’s record of discretionary funds including detailed receipts of all deposits and expenditures.
(d) If an individual maintains custody and control of his or her discretionary funds, then no accounting record is required;
(e) If a designee of the AFH maintains custody and control of an resident ‘s discretionary fund, the provider and resident must have a written agreement describing where funds will be maintained and how funds will be distributed. The agreement will include the resident’s right nullify the agreement at any time. The provider will maintain a signed and dated account and balance sheet that will accurately document the current balance and distribution of funds with initials indicating what staff distributed the funds and a signature of the resident receiving the funds.
(f) The provider must maintain a copy of the written house rules with documentation the provider discussed the house rules with the resident;
(g) Written incident reports of any unusual incidents relating to the resident including but not limited to resident care needs, safety concerns, conflicts with staff, or significant changes in the AFH environment. The incident report must include how and when the incident occurred, who was involved, what action was taken by staff, and the outcome to the resident. In compliance with HIPAA rules, only the resident’s name may be used in the incident report. Separate reports must be written for each resident involved in an incident. A copy of the incident report must be submitted to the CMHP within five working days of the incident. The original must be placed in the resident’s record;
(h) Any other information or correspondence pertaining to the resident;
(i) The provider or staff must document all services performed for the resident in the resident’s record, including all services for which Medicaid payment is being requested. Documentation must be compliant with OAR 410-120-1360, 410-172-0620 and 410-173-0045, and must include the service performed, the frequency the service was provided, the length of time each service is performed, and be initialed by the caregiver providing the service.
(j) General progress notes must be documented at least weekly and must be documented immediately as significant events or changes in behavior are identified. All entries must be signed and dated by the author.
(k) The provider must explain and document in the resident’s file that a copy of the Residents’ Bill of Rights was given to each resident at admission.
(17) The licensee must ensure qualified staff are available to provide direct services to residents to assure resident safety and resident’s attain or maintain the highest practical physical, mental and psychosocial well-being of each resident as determined by the resident assessments and person-centered service plans and considering the number, acuity and diagnoses of the resident population.
(18) The provider, resident manager and all substitute caregivers must provide care, services, and supports necessary to ensure the health, safety, and quality of life for each resident including activities of daily living, instrumental activities of daily living, services, and skills training.
(19) The provider must:
(a) Prominently post the State license and Abuse and Complaint poster where it can be seen by residents;
(b) Cooperate with Division personnel, Oregon Department of Human Services (ODHS), or their designee in complaint investigation procedures, abuse investigations, and protective services, planning for resident care, application procedures, and other necessary activities, and allow access of Division and ODHS personnel, or their designee to the AFH, its residents, and all records;
(c) Document all resident complaints, written or verbal and maintain a record of the complaint in both facility records and the resident’s personal records. The provider must document the date and time of the complaint, how they responded, how the complaint was resolved and whether the complaint was filed with another agency. The Provider may not retaliate in any manner when a complaint is filed.
(d) Provide care and services, as appropriate to the age and condition of the resident and as identified on the RCP. The provider must ensure that physicians' orders and those of other medical professionals are followed and that the resident’s physicians and other medical professionals are informed of changes in health status or if the resident refuses care. Additional staff may be required to safely evacuate the residents and all occupants from the AFH;
(e) Make available at least six hours of activities each week which are of interest to the residents, not including television or movies.
(f) Be directly involved with residents on a daily basis.
(g) Document their efforts to assist each resident to engage in activities of social, religious and community groups.
(h) Develop House Rules:
(A) The provider must develop reasonable written house rules that will be included in or attached to the residency agreement. House rules will address guidelines for visitors;, the use of cannabis and tobacco, and, mealtimes; guidelines for sharing the community telephones and kitchen appliances. No house rules shall restrict resident consumption of alcohol;
(B) The provider must discuss house rules with the resident and families at the time of arrival. and be posted in a conspicuous place in the facility.
(C) The provider must maintain written documentation in the resident record that the provider discussed the house rules with the resident along with a copy of the house rules;
(D) House rules are subject to review and approval by the Division and must not violate resident’s rights as stated in ORS 430.210 and ORS 443.739; and
(E) House rules must not restrict or limit the resident rights under OAR 309-040-0410(2).
(i) Ensure a qualified caregiver (the provider, a resident manager or a substitute caregiver) is present in the home at all times residents are present;
(j) Notify the CMHP of the name of the substitute caregiver for the provider or resident manager for absences greater than 72 consecutive hours;
(k) Allow and encourage residents to exercise all civil and human rights accorded to other citizens;
(l) Not allow or tolerate physical, sexual, or emotional abuse or punishment, or exploitation, or neglect of residents;
(m) Provide care and services as agreed to in the RCP;
(n) Keep information related to residents confidential as required under ORS 179.050;
(o) Ensure that the number of residents requiring nursing care does not exceed the provider's capability as determined by the Division or CMHP;
(p) Not admit residents who are clients of Aging and People with Disabilities without the express permission of the Division or its designee;
(q) Exercise reasonable precautions against any conditions that threatens the health, safety, or welfare of residents;
(r) Immediately notify the appropriate RCP Team members (in particular the CMHP representative and family or guardian) if:
(A) The resident has a significant change in medical status;
(B) The resident has an unexplained or unanticipated absence from the AFH;
(C) The provider becomes aware of alleged or actual abuse of the resident;
(D) The resident has a major behavioral incident, accident, illness, hospitalization;
(E) The resident contacts or is contacted by the police; or
(F) The resident dies, and follow-up with an incident report.
(20) The provider must write an incident report for any unusual incident and forward a copy of the incident report to the CMHP within five working days of the incident. Any incident that is the result of, or suspected of being abuse, must be reported to the Office of Training, Investigations, and Safety within 24 hours of occurrence.
(21) The provider must send critical incident reports to the Division within 48 hours of the incident occurring.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 443.705 - 443.825
- BHS 5-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- BHS 14-2024, amend filed 06/24/2024, effective 07/01/2024
- BHS 2-2024, temporary amend filed 01/09/2024, effective 01/10/2024 through 07/07/2024
- BHS 6-2018, amend filed 03/21/2018, effective 03/30/2018
- MHS 9-2017, f. 6-29-17, cert. ef. 7-1-17
- MHS 3-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
- MHS 14-2016(Temp), f. 9-6-16, cert. ef. 9-7-16 thru 3-3-17
- MHD 3-2005, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-05, Renumbered from 309-040-0052
- MHD 4-2002, f. 2-26-02, cert. ef. 2-27-02
- MHD 7-2001(Temp), f. 8-30-01, cert. ef. 9-1-01 thru 2-27-02
- MHD 6-1999, f. 8-24-99, cert. ef. 8-26-99
- MHD 1-1992, f. & cert. ef. 1-7-92, Renumbered from 309-040-0050(8)-(10)
Or. Admin. R. 309-040-0393 Individually-Based Limitations
(1) When the provider cannot meet the HCBS qualities described below due to a threat to the health and safety of a resident or others, the provider may seek to apply an individually based limitation through the process described in this rule. A provider must not otherwise limit HCBS qualities :
(a) The freedom and support to access food at any time;
(b) Have visitors of the resident’s choosing at any time;
(c) Have a unit entrance door that is lockable by the resident with only appropriate program staff having access;
(d) Choose a roommate when sharing a unit;
(e) Furnish and decorate the resident’s unit as agreed to in the Residency Agreement;
(f) The freedom and support to control the resident’s schedule and activities; and
(g) Privacy in the resident’s unit.
(2) The provider must demonstrate and document the individually-based limitation meets the elements described below in the person-centered service plan and the Division-approved consent form. The provider must submit and sign the consent form with the following:
(a) The specific and individualized assessed need justifying the individually-based limitation;
(b) The positive interventions and supports used prior to consideration or imposition of any individually-based limitation;
(c) Documentation the provider or other entities have considered or evaluated the effectiveness of other less intrusive methods; ;
(d) A clear description of the limitation that is directly proportionate to the specific assessed need;
(e) Regular collection and review of data to measure the ongoing effectiveness of the individually-based limitation;
(f) Established time limits for periodic reviews of the individually-based limitation to determine if the limitation should be terminated or remains necessary. The limitation must be reviewed at least annually;
(g) The informed consent of the resident or the resident’s legal representative, including any discrepancy between the wishes of the resident and the consent of the legal representative, and that the resident has been notified they may request a review of the limitation or withdraw consent at any time; and
(h) An assurance the interventions and support do not cause harm to the resident.
(3) The provider must:
(a) Maintain a copy of the completed and signed form documenting the consent to the individually based limitation described in section (2) of this rule. The form must be signed by the resident or the resident’s legal representative if applicable. The form must be available to the resident or the resident’s legal representative to access at any time; and.
(b) Request review of the individually based limitation by the person-centered service plan coordinator when a new individually based limitation is indicated, or change or removal of an individually-based limitation is needed.
(4) The qualities and obligations described in sections (1)(b)(g) do not apply to an resident receiving crisis-respite services, and a provider is not required to seek an individually-based limitation for such an resident to comply with these rules.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 443.705 - 443.825
- BHS 5-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- MHS 9-2017, f. 6-29-17, cert. ef. 7-1-17
- MHS 3-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
Or. Admin. R. 309-040-0394 Residency Agreement
(1) The provider must enter into a written residency agreement with each resident or the resident’s representative consistent with the following:
(a) The written residency agreement must be signed by the provider and the resident or the resident’s representative prior to or at the time of admission and anytime the agreement is updated;
(b) The provider must provide a copy of the signed agreement to the resident or the resident’s representative and must retain the original signed agreement within the resident’s record;
(c) The provider must give written notice to a resident and the resident’s representative at least 30 calendar days prior to any general rate increases, additions, or other modifications of the rates; and
(d) The provider must update residency agreements at least annually and anytime social security rates change or a resident’s finances change such that the amount paid for room and board changes; and
(e) The provider must not charge or ask for application fees or nonrefundable deposits and must not solicit, accept or receive money or property from a resident other than the amount agreed to for services, including for OHP clients as described in OAR 410-120-1280(1).
(2) The residency agreement must include, but is not limited to, the following:
(a) The room and board rate describing the estimated public and private pay portions of the rate:
(A) Where a resident’s social security or other funding is not active at the time of admission to the program, the program must prepare the room and board agreement based upon the estimated benefit to be received by the resident; and
(B) If, when funding is later activated, actual income of the resident varies from the estimated income noted on the residency agreement, the agreement must be updated and re-signed by all the applicable parties.
(b) Services and supports to be provided and the rate to be changed. For residents receiving Medicaid, the Residency Agreement may state the rate will be “as authorized by the Division”;
(c) Conditions under which the provider may change the rates;
(d) The provider’s refund policy in instances of a resident’s hospitalization, temporary absence, death, transfer to another care setting or other care facility, and voluntary or involuntary move from the home;
(e) If a resident dies or leaves an adult foster home for medical reasons and indicates in writing the intent to not return, the provider must not charge the resident for more than 15 days or the time specified in the provider contract, whichever is less, after the resident has left the adult foster home.
(f) The provider has an affirmative duty to take reasonable actions to reduce the charges by accepting a new resident.
(g) However, if a resident dies or leaves an adult foster home due to substantiated allegations of neglect or abuse by the provider or due to observable conditions of imminent danger to life, health or safety, the provider may not charge the resident beyond the resident’s last day in the home.
(h) If a resident eligible for Medicaid services dies and has no surviving spouse, the provider must forward all personal incidental funds (PIF) to the Estate Administration Unit, P. O. Box 14021, Salem, Oregon 97309-5024, within 10 business days of the death of an individual. (See Limits on Estate Claims, OAR 461-135-0835)
(i) The provider must refund any advance payments within 30 days after the resident dies or leaves the adult foster home.
(j) A statement indicating that the resident is not liable for damages considered normal wear and tear;
(k) The provider’s policies on voluntary moves and whether or not the provider requires written notification of a non-Medicaid resident’s intent to not return;
(l) The provider’s policies for involuntary transfer or discharge of residency in compliance with OAR 309-040-0395(5) and resident’s rights regarding the eviction and appeal process as outlined in OAR 309-040-0410;
(m) Any policies the provider may have on the use of , cannabis, and illegal drugs of abuse. No policy shall prohibit resident consumption of alcohol;
(n) Smoking policies in compliance with the Tobacco Freedom Policy established by the Division;
(o) Policy addressing pet and service animals. The provider may not restrict animals that provide assistance or perform tasks for the benefit of a resident with a disability. Such animals are often referred to as service animals, assistance animals, support animals, therapy animals, companion animals, or emotional support animals.
(p) Policy and procedures for resident requests for specific foods for meal planning and snacks purchased under the room and board agreement for the resident.
(q) Schedule of mealtimes. The provider may not schedule meals with more than a 14-hour span between the evening meal and the following morning’s meal ;
(r) Policy regarding refunds for residents eligible for Medicaid services, including prorating partial months, and if the room and board is refundable;
(s) Any house rules or social covenants required by the provider that may be included in the agreement or as an addendum.; The provider must not include any illegal or unenforceable provision in a contract with a resident and may not ask or require a resident to waive any of the Resident’s Rights;
(t) Statement informing the resident of the freedoms authorized by 42 CFR 441.301(c)(2)(xiii) & 42 CFR 441.530(a)(1)(vi)(F), and OAR 309-040-0410(2), which may not be limited without the informed, written consent of the resident and include the right to:
(A) Live under a legally enforceable residency agreement.
(B) The freedom and support to access food at any time;
(C) To have visitors of the resident’s choosing at any time;
(D) Have a lockable door in the resident’s unit that may be locked by the resident;
(E) Choose a roommate when sharing a unit;
(F) Furnish and decorate the resident’s unit according to the Residency Agreement;
(G) The freedom and support to control the resident’s schedule and activities; and
(H) Have privacy in the resident’s unit.
(u) Include a clear and precise statement of any limitation to the implementation of advance directives on the basis of conscience. This rule does not apply to medical professional or hospice orders for administration of medications. The statement must include:
(i) Description of conscientious objections as they apply to all occupants of the adult foster home;
(ii) The legal authority permitting such objections under Oregon Revised Statute 127.505 through 127.660; and
(iii) Description of the range of medical conditions or procedures affected by the conscientious objection.
(3) The provider must not propose or enter into a residency agreement that:
(a) Charges or asks for application fees, refundable deposits, or non-refundable deposits, including for OHP clients as described in OAR 410-120-1280(1);
(b) Includes any illegal or unenforceable provision or asks or requires the resident to waive any of the resident’s rights or the provider’s liability for negligence; or
(c) Conflicts with resident rights or these rules.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 443.705 - 443.825
- BHS 5-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- MHS 9-2017, f. 6-29-17, cert. ef. 7-1-17
- MHS 3-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
Or. Admin. R. 309-040-0395 Standards for Admission, Transfers, Respite, Discharges, and Closures
(1) Each adult referred for placement in an AFH may select and choose from available service settings.
(2) A provider may only admit a resident with a referral from, or prior written approval of the CMHP or the Division. At the time of the referral, a provider must obtain complete information about the case history of the resident as it relates to behavior, skill level, medical needs, or other relevant information. The provider may deny admission of any person if the provider believes the person cannot be managed effectively in the AFH, or for any other reason not specifically prohibited by this rule. AFHs may not be used as a site for foster care for children, adults from other agencies, or any type of shelter or day care without the written approval of the CMHP or the Division.
(3) The provider must screen a prospective resident before admitting the resident.
(a) The screening must include but is not limited to diagnoses, medications, personal care needs, individually based limitations, nursing care needs, night care needs, nutritional needs, activities and lifestyle preferences.
(b) The screening process must include interviews with the resident and the resident’s representative, as applicable.
(c) Verify the individual's resources including potential benefit eligibility and coverage as described in OAR 410-120-1280(2).
(d) A copy of the screening must be given to the resident and the resident’s legal representative, as applicable.
(4) The provider must provide a copy of the house policies and the provider’s residency agreement to the resident and the resident’s representative, as applicable, at the time of the screening.
(5) Each provider’s discharge and transfer policy and procedure must be described in each resident’s Residential Agreement and include the right to at least a written 30 day-notice of discharge or transfer unless discharged under the circumstances described in 309-040-0395(14), right to remedy, and right to appeal. The provider is required to give the resident a written notice of discharge or transfer, that clearly documents the provider reviewed the reason for the discharge or transfer with the resident and the resident’s rights to request an informal conference and administrative hearing. If the resident’s location is unknown, the notice may be given to a legal representative of the resident. The provider must make efforts to prevent unnecessary discharges and transfers by making reasonable accommodations within the program setting.
(6) The resident or the resident’s legal representative, as applicable, may end the residency in a facility upon providing at least 30-days’ written notice. Upon mutual agreement between the provider and the resident or legal representative, less than 30 days’ notice may be provided.
(a) The provider must promptly notify the CMHP or Division if a resident gives notice or plans to leave the AFH or if a resident abruptly leaves;
(b) The provider must immediately document plans to move and voluntary moves in the resident’s record; and
(c) The provider remains responsible for the provision of personal care, services, and supports until the resident has moved from the home including the provision of one-to-one supervision if necessary to ensure the safety of all residents.
(7) Residents may only be involuntarily moved from the AFH for the following reasons:
(a) The resident is assessed by a Licensed Medical Professional (LMP) or other qualified health professional to require services such as continuous nursing care or extended hospitalization that are not available in the local community or cannot be provided in the current placement as determined by the LMP;
(b) The resident has engaged in a pattern of behaviors or activities that:
(A) Repeatedly and substantially interfere with the rights, health, or safety of the resident or other individuals residing in the AFH; and
(B) Presents an imminent threat to the health or safety of the resident or other individuals; and
(C) The pattern of behaviors have been documented in individual and facility records and demonstrate the interventions and supports that have been attempted or considered to address the behaviors, including treatment goals, safety plans and progress notes.
(c) The resident cannot safely evacuate the setting in accordance with the program’s evacuation plan after efforts described in OAR 309-040-00370(5)(b) have been taken;
(d) For private paying individuals, failure of the resident or resident’s representative to make payment for care or failure to make payment for room and board as described in the resident’s residential agreement. For Medicaid recipients, failure to make payment for room and board as described in the resident’s residential agreement;
(e) The home was not notified before the individual’s admission or learns following the individual’s admission that the individual is on probation, parole or post-prison supervision after being convicted of a sex crime defined in ORS 163A.005;
(f) The provider’s Medicaid Provider Enrollment Agreement is terminated; or
(g) The facility license was revoked, not renewed, suspended, or voluntarily surrendered, or the home was voluntarily closed.
(8) The provider must make reasonable and good faith efforts to prevent unnecessary transfers or discharges by making reasonable accommodation with the AFH.
(9) Prior to initiating an involuntary transfer process, the AFH must consider the following:
(a) The availability of alternatives to transfer;
(b) The resident’s ties to family and community;
(c) The relationships the resident has developed with other residents and facility staff;
(d) The duration of the resident’s stay at the facility;
(e) The mental health needs of the resident and the availability of mental health services;
(f) The availability of a receiving facility that would accept the resident and provide service consistent with the resident’s needs;
(g) The consistency of the receiving facility’s services with the activities and routine with which the resident is familiar, and the receiving facility’s ability to provide the resident with similar access to personal items significant to the resident and enjoyed by the resident at the transferring facility;
(h) The probability that the transfer would result in improved or worsened mental, physical, or social functioning, or in reduced dependency of the resident;
(i) The type and amount of preparation for the move, including but not limited to:
(j)Solicitation of the resident’s friends and/or family in preparing the resident for the move; and
(k) Visitation by the resident to (prior to actual transfer) or familiarity of the resident with the place to which the resident is to be transferred; and On-site consultation or new mental health assessment by an individual with specific expertise in mental health services if the basis for considering transfer is behavioral.
(10) An individual must not be involuntarily transferred to another room in the AFH or moved out of the AFH without the approval of the Division and a minimum of 30 days advance written notice to the individual, the individual’s representative, as applicable, and the CMHP, unless discharged under the circumstances described in 309-040-0395(14).
(11) The provider must submit a completed notice of involuntary transfer or discharge request form to the Division in writing using the Division approved form prior to issuing a notice of involuntary transfer or discharge to a resident or representative.
(a) The provider must offer the resident the right to remedy when the reason for involuntary transfer or discharge is not due to the closure of the facility, long-term incarceration, or need to transfer as identified by the LMP. The right to remedy must:
(A) Be developed in cooperation with the resident, their representative if applicable, the CMHP, and the Division;
(B) Identify reasonable behavioral goals that measurable and consistent with standard behavioral treatment practices, and must ensure protection of the individual’s rights;
(C) Establish a specific period for the resident to demonstrate compliance with the agreed upon remedy and cannot be used to support future notices of involuntary transfer or discharge; and
(D) Document the provider’s reasonable efforts to prevent unnecessary transfer or discharge including, but not limited to, clinical consultations, amending the individual’s residential care plan, requesting updated assessments for changes in behaviors, and developing safety plans.
(b) The provider must make reasonable efforts to establish a reasonable end of residency date in consideration of both the program’s needs, and the resident’s needs to find alternative living arrangements;
(c) The Division must review the cause for notice, interventions and supports attempted to address the cause for notice, and provide a written response of approval or denial to the provider within two business days of receiving the completed form.
(d) Upon receipt of written approval from the Division, the provider must consult with the resident or their representative and present a ’30-day’ or ‘less than 30-day’ notice of involuntary transfer or discharge and the ODHS/OHA form MSC 0443, Administrative Hearing Request
(12) The provider must provide at least 30 days’ written notice to the resident and their representative, if applicable, specifying the cause(s) and include steps the individual can take to remedy the cause.
(13) The provider may issue a ‘less than 30-day’ notice of involuntary transfer or discharge to the resident and their representative, if applicable, once approved by the Division, if a resident has intentionally injured another resident or staff, has caused intentional significant destruction of property, or is engaged in behaviors that immediately jeopardize the health and safety of others that cannot be mitigated with a safety plan. The provider will not give a ‘less then 30-day’ notice of involuntary transfer or discharge to a resident receiving treatment or services for the purpose of stabilization, in a hospital, at a respite location, or temporarily placed in police custody.
(14) Notifications of involuntary transfer or discharge must:
(a) Be delivered to the resident in person;
(b) Be given to the resident’s legal representative (guardian) as applicable; and
(c) Specify the individual’s right to an administrative hearing in accordance with ORS 443.738(11)(c).
(15) The provider must hold a pre transfer or discharge meeting with the individual and their representative, if applicable, and with the individual's permission other individuals with an interest in the individual's circumstances. The purpose of the meeting is to:
(a) Provide copies of the notice;
(b) Explain the cause for the notice and the right to remedy;
(c) Explain the resident’s right to request an administrative hearing regarding the notice; and
(d) Plan any arrangements necessary to facilitate the transfer or move.
(16) The provider must ensure the resident has supports, including interpreter or translation services, to understand the involuntary transfer or discharge notice and the resident’s rights to an administrative hearing regarding the notice.
(17) Residents who object to the involuntary transfer or discharge must be given the opportunity for a hearing as provided in ORS 443.738(11)(b) and 441.605(4). Participants may include the resident, and at the resident's request, the provider, a family member, and a CMHP staff member.
(18) Residents must not be involuntary transferred or discharged while in the process of an appeal or after the program has knowledge of any indication of a resident’s desire to appeal the notice of involuntary transfer or discharge.
(19) The Division determines if the cause for involuntary transfer or discharge is sufficient according to the licensing rules and may take action on a license if the resident is wrongfully discharged.
(20) Upon transfer or discharge from the facility, program staff must offer two doses of an FDA-approved short-acting, non-injectable, opioid antagonist medication to the individual. If the individual accepts, program staff must:
(a) Provide the individual with an instruction card on the use of short-acting, non-injectable, opioid antagonist medication; and
(b) Document distribution of the short-acting, non-injectable, opioid antagonist medication in the individual’s record.
(21) At the time of involuntary transfer or discharge, the resident must be given a statement of account, any balance of funds held by the provider, and all property held in trust or custody by the provider.
(a) The provider may withhold funds to cover pending charges. Within 30 days after the resident is transferred or discharged, or as soon as pending charges are confirmed, the provider must provide the resident with a final financial statement along with any funds due;
(b) If a resident’s property has been left at the AFH for longer than seven days after transfer or discharge of the resident, the provider must make a reasonable attempt to contact the resident or their representative, if applicable. The provider must allow the resident or their representative, if applicable, a minimum of 15 days to make arrangements concerning the property; and
(c) If the provider determines the resident has abandoned the property, the provider may then dispose of the property. If the property is sold, proceeds of the sale, minus the amount of any expenses incurred and any amounts owed the provider by or on behalf of the resident, must be forwarded to the resident or their representative, as applicable.
(22) Providers must provide written notification to the Division within 10 calendar days after receipt of any notice of default, or any notice of potential default (commonly referred to as foreclosure), with respect to a real estate contract, trust deed, mortgage, or other security interest affecting any property occupied or used by the provider.
(23) The provider must provide a copy of the notice of default or warning of potential default to the Division.
(24) The provider must provide written updates to the Division at least every 30 days until the default or warning of potential default has been resolved and no additional defaults or potential defaults have been declared and no additional warnings have been issued. Written updates must include:
(a) The current status on what action has been or is about to be taken by the provider with respect to the notice received;
(b) The action demanded or threatened by the holder of the security interest; and
(c) Any other information reasonably requested by the Division.
(25) The provider must provide written notification within 24 hours to the Division upon final resolution of the matters leading up to or encompassed by the notice of default or the notice warning of potential default.
(26) If the subject default property is licensed as an AFH, the provider must provide written notification of the following within 24 hours to the Division, and all the residents and the residents' representatives, if applicable, regarding:
(a) The filing of any litigation regarding such security interest, including the filing of a bankruptcy petition by or against the provider or an entity owning any property occupied or used by the provider;
(b) The entry of any judgment with respect to such litigation;
(c) The passing of the date 40 days before any sale scheduled pursuant to the exercise of legal rights under a security interest, or a settlement or compromise related thereto, of the provider's property or property occupied or used by the provider; and
(d) The sale, pursuant to the exercise of legal rights under a security interest, or a settlement or compromise related thereto, of the provider's property or property occupied or used by the provider.
(27) Providers must notify the Division prior to the voluntary closure, proposed sale, or transfer of ownership of an AFH and give residents, families, and the CMHP 30 days’ written notice, except in circumstances where undue delay might jeopardize the health, safety, or well-being of a resident, provider, or caregiver. If a provider has more than one AFH, a resident cannot be shifted from one house to another house without the same period of notice unless prior approval is given and agreement obtained from residents or their guardians, and the CMHP.
(28) Provider’s must surrender the physical license to operate their adult foster home to the Division at the time of closure.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 443.705 - 443.825
- BHS 5-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- BHS 14-2024, amend filed 06/24/2024, effective 07/01/2024
- BHS 2-2024, temporary amend filed 01/09/2024, effective 01/10/2024 through 07/07/2024
- MHS 9-2017, f. 6-29-17, cert. ef. 7-1-17
- MHS 3-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
- MHS 14-2016(Temp), f. 9-6-16, cert. ef. 9-7-16 thru 3-3-17
- MHD 3-2005, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-05, Renumbered from 309-040-0055
- MHD 4-2002, f. 2-26-02, cert. ef. 2-27-02
- MHD 7-2001(Temp), f. 8-30-01, cert. ef. 9-1-01 thru 2-27-02
- MHD 6-1999, f. 8-24-99, cert. ef. 8-26-99
- MHD 1-1992, f. & cert. ef. 1-7-92, Former sec. (3)(a)-(c), Renumbered to 309-040-0057
- MHD 6-1986, f. & cert. ef. 7-2-86
- MHD 19-1985(Temp), f. & ef. 12-27-85
Or. Admin. R. 309-040-0400 Inspections
(1) The Division must conduct an inspection of an AFH:
(a) Prior to issuance of a license;
(b) Upon receipt of an oral or written complaint of violations that threaten the health, safety, or welfare of residents; or
(c) Anytime the Division has probable cause to believe that an AFH has violated a regulation or provision of these rules or is operating without a license.
(2) The Division or CMHP may conduct inspections of an AFH:
(a) Anytime such inspections are authorized by these rules and any other time the Division or CMHP considers it necessary to determine if an AFH is in compliance with these rules or with conditions placed upon the license;
(b) To determine if cited deficiencies have been corrected; and
(c) For the purpose of monitoring of the residents’ care.
(3) State or local fire inspectors must be permitted access to enter and inspect the AFH regarding fire safety upon request of the Division or CMHP.
(4) The Division, the CMHP, the Oregon Department of Human Services (ODHS), and the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) have authority and must have full access to examine and copy AFH records and accounts, including resident records and accounts, and to inspect the physical premises, including the buildings, grounds, equipment, and any vehicles.
(5) The Division, CMHP, ODHS, and CMS staff must be permitted to interview the provider, resident manager, caregiver, and residents. Interviews are confidential conducted in private and are confidential except as considered public record under ORS 430.763.
(6) Providers must authorize resident managers and substitute caregivers to permit entrance by the Division, CMHP, ODHS, and CMS staff for the purpose of inspection and investigation.
(7) The Division, CMHP, ODHS, and CMS staff may conduct inspections with or without advance notice to the provider, staff, or a resident of the AFH. Advanced notice of an inspection will not be provided if such notice might obstruct or seriously diminish the effectiveness of the inspection or enforcement of these rules.
(8) If the Division, CMHP, ODHS, or CMS staff is not permitted access or inspection, a search warrant may be obtained.
(9) The inspector must respect the private possessions and living area of residents, providers, and caregivers while conducting an inspection.
(10) Completed reports on inspections, except for confidential information, must be available to the public upon written request to the Division or CMHP during business hours.
(11) For residents receiving services authorized or funded by the Division, the Division, ODHS or their designee must investigate allegations of abuse as defined in ORS 430.735 to 430.765.
(12) When abuse is alleged or death of a resident has occurred and a law enforcement agency or the Division, OTIS, ODHS or their designee has determined to initiate an investigation, the provider may not conduct an internal investigation without prior authorization from the Division. For the purposes of this section, an internal investigation is defined as conducting interviews of the alleged victim, witness, the alleged perpetrator, or any other persons who may have knowledge of the facts of the abuse allegation or related circumstances; reviewing evidence relevant to the abuse allegation, other than the initial report; or any other actions beyond the initial actions of determining:
(a) If there is reasonable cause to believe that abuse has occurred; or
(b) If the alleged victim is in danger or in need of immediate protective services; or
(c) If there is reason to believe that a crime has been committed; or
(d) What, if any, immediate personnel actions must be taken.
(13) The Division, ODHS or their designee or must complete an abuse investigation and protective services report in accordance with OAR 943-045-0000.
(14) When the provider has been notified of the completion of the abuse investigation, a provider may conduct an investigation without Division approval to determine if any other personnel actions are necessary.
(15) Upon completion of the investigation report described in (13) of this rule, notification is provided to the designated provider.
(a) The provider must implement the reports recommended actions within the deadlines listed to prevent further abuse as stated in the report and notify the Division of completion.
(b) In accordance with ORS 443,87, upon being notified of substantiated abuse of a resident by staff, the AFH licensee or designated provider must provide written notice of the findings to:
(A)The staff found to have committed abuse;
(B) Residents of the AFH;
(C) The residents’ case managers; and
(D) The residents’ legal representative.
(16) A provider may not retaliate against any person who reports in good faith suspected abuse or against the resident with respect to the report.
(17) In accordance with ORS 430.755 any provider who retaliates against any person because of a report of suspected abuse or neglect may be liable in a private action to that person for actual damages and, in addition, a penalty in accordance with 443.775(10) not withstanding any other remedy provided by law. The authority of the director to impose civil penalties and the factors to be considered must be in accordance with 443.790.
(18) In accordance with ORS 430.755, any adverse action creates a presumption of retaliation if taken within 90 days of a report of abuse. For purposes of this section, "adverse action" means any action taken by a facility, community program, or person involved in a report against the person making the report or against the adult with respect to whom the report was made because of the report and includes but is not limited to the following:
(a) Discharge or transfer from the AFH except for clinical reasons;
(b) Discharge from or termination of employment;
(c) Demotion or reduction in remuneration for services; or
(d) Restriction or prohibition of access to the facility or its residents.
(19) Adverse action may also be evidence of retaliation after 90 days even though the presumption no longer applies.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 443.705 - 443.825
- BHS 5-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- MHS 9-2017, f. 6-29-17, cert. ef. 7-1-17
- MHS 3-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
- MHS 14-2016(Temp), f. 9-6-16, cert. ef. 9-7-16 thru 3-3-17
- Renumbered from 309-040-0060, MHD 3-2005, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-05
- MHD 6-1999, f. 8-24-99, cert. ef. 8-26-99
- MHD 1-1992, f. & cert. ef. 1-7-92 (and corrected 1-31-92)
- MHD 6-1986, f. & ef. 7-2-86
- MHD 19-1985(Temp), f. & ef. 12-27-85
Or. Admin. R. 309-040-0405 Procedures for Correction of Violations
(1) At any time after receipt of a notice of violations or an inspection report, the provider or the Division may request a conference in writing. The conference must be scheduled within ten days of a request by either party. The purpose of the conference is to discuss the violations stated in the notice of violation and to provide information to the provider to assist the provider in complying with the requirements of the rules. The written request by a provider or the Division for a conference may not extend any previously established time limit for correction.
(2) The provider must notify the Division of correction of violations in writing no later than the date specified in the notice of violation.
(3) If, after inspection of the AFH, if the Division determines that the violations have not been corrected by the date specified in the notice of violation or if the Division has not received a report of compliance, the Division may institute one or more of the following actions:
(a) Imposition of an administrative sanction that may include revocation, suspension, or refusal to renew a license as deemed appropriate by the Division;
(b) Placement of conditions on the license as deemed appropriate by the Division; or
(c) Filing of a criminal complaint.
(4) If a resident is in serious and immediate danger, the Division may institute one or more of the following actions:
(a) If there is reliable evidence of abuse, neglect or exploitation, the license may be immediately suspended or revoked and arrangements made to move the resident pursuant to OAR 309-040-0425.
(b) The Division may order the removal of the resident pursuant to OAR 309-040-0425; or
(c) Placement of conditions on the license as deemed appropriate by the Division.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & ORS 443.745
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 443.705 - 443.825
- BHS 5-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- BHS 6-2018, amend filed 03/21/2018, effective 03/30/2018
- MHS 12-2017, temporary amend filed 10/03/2017, effective 10/03/2017 through 03/30/2018
- MHS 9-2017, f. 6-29-17, cert. ef. 7-1-17
- MHS 3-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
- MHS 14-2016(Temp), f. 9-6-16, cert. ef. 9-7-16 thru 3-3-17
- Renumbered from 309-040-0070, MHD 3-2005, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-05
- MHD 6-1999, f. 8-24-99, cert. ef. 8-26-99
- MHD 1-1992, f. & cert. ef. 1-7-92 (and corrected 1-31-92)
- MHD 6-1986, f. & ef. 7-2-86
- MHD 19-1985(Temp), f. & ef. 12-27-85
Or. Admin. R. 309-040-0410 Residents’ Bill of Rights, Complaints, and Grievances
(1) Residents' Bill of Rights:
(a) The provider must guarantee Residents’ Bill of Rights as described in ORS 443.739 and help residents exercise them;
(b) The provider must post the Residents’ Bill of Rights in a location that is prominent and accessible to residents, residents’ representatives, parents, guardians, and advocates. The posted rights must include the telephone numbers of the CMHP, Health Systems Division, and Disability Rights Oregon to call to report complaints;
(c) The provider must give a copy of the Residents’ Bill of Rights to each resident, residents’ representatives, parents, guardians, and advocates along with a description of how to exercise these rights;
(d) Upon admission to the AFH:
(A) The provider must explain the Residents’ Bill of Rights to each resident and to residents’ representatives, parents, guardians, and advocates; and
(B) The provider must document in the resident’s file that a copy of the Residents’ Bill of Rights is given to each resident and to the residents’ representatives, parents, guardians, and advocates.
(e) The Residents’ Bill of Rights state that each resident has the right to:
(A) Be treated as an adult with respect and dignity;
(B) Be informed of all Resident Rights and all house policies;
(C) Be encouraged and assisted to exercise constitutional and legal rights as a citizen including the right to vote;
(D) Receive appropriate care and services and prompt medical care as needed. Be informed of the resident’s medical condition and the right to consent to or refuse treatment;
(E) Adequate personal privacy and privacy to associate and communicate privately with any individual of choice, such as family members, friends, advocates, and legal, social service, and medical professionals; send and receive personal mail unopened; engage in telephone conversations;
(F) Have medical and personal information kept confidential;
(G) Complete privacy when receiving treatment or personal care;
(H) Have access to and participate in activities of social, religious, and community groups;
(I) Be able to keep and use a reasonable amount of personal clothing and belongings and to have a reasonable amount of private, secure storage space;
(J) Be free of discrimination in regard to race, color, national origin, gender, religion, sexual orientation, or disability;
(K) Have religious freedom;
(L) Manage financial affairs unless legally restricted
(M) Be free from financial exploitation. The provider may not charge or ask for application fees or nonrefundable deposits and may not solicit, accept, or receive money or property from a resident other than the amount agreed to for services;
(N) A safe and secure environment;
(O) A written agreement regarding services to be provided and agreed upon rates and receive 30 days’ written notice before any change in the rates;
(P) Voice suggestions, complaints, or grievances without fear of retaliation;
(Q) Freedom from training, treatment, chemical or physical restraints except as agreed to in writing in a resident’s RCP and be free from chemical or physical restraints except as ordered by a physician or other qualified practitioner;
(R) Be allowed and encouraged to learn new skills, to act on their own behalf to their maximum ability, and to relate to residents in an age appropriate manner;
(S) An opportunity to exercise choices including food selection, personal spending, friends, personal schedule, leisure activities, and place of residence;
(T) Freedom from punishment.;
(U) Freedom from abuse and neglect;
(V) The opportunity to contribute to the maintenance and normal activities of the household;
(W) Access and opportunity to interact with persons with or without disabilities;
(X) The right not to be transferred or moved out of the AFH without 30 days' advance written notice unless discharged under the circumstances described in 309-040-0395(14), and an opportunity for a hearing as described in ORS 443.738 and 441.605(4);
(Y) Be free of discrimination in regard to the execution of an Advance Directive, Physician Order for Life-Sustaining Treatment (POLST) or Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) orders and ;
(Z) Not be required to perform labor, except personal housekeeping duties, without reasonable and lawful compensation as outlined in ORS 430.210.
(2) The following HCBS Rights and Freedoms are also afforded to Residents:
(a) To live under a legally enforceable residency agreement in compliance with protections substantially equivalent to landlord-tenant laws;
(b) To have visitors of the resident’s choosing at any time and the freedom to visit with guests within the common areas of the program and the resident’s sleeping room, unless the visitor is deemed a threat to the health and safety of the other occupants in the AFH. If a visitor is deemed a threat to the health and safety of the other occupants in the home, an alternative visitation plan (e.g. visitation away from the AFH premises) must be crafted and must be supported by incident report(s);
(c) The freedom and support to control one’s own schedule and activities including but not limited to accessing the community without restriction;
(d) Access to community resources including recreation, religious services, agency services, employment, and day programs, unless such access is legally restricted;
(e) Have a lockable door in the resident’s bedroom that may be locked by the resident;
(f) Choose a roommate when sharing a bedroom;
(g) Furnish and decorate the resident’s bedroom according to the residency agreement;
(h) Privacy in the resident’s bedroom;
(3) The provider must actively work to support and ensure each resident’s rights described in this rule are not limited or infringed upon by the provider or an AFH caregiver, except where expressly allowed under these rules.
(4) Any person who believes these rules have been violated may file a complaint with the Division or CMHP. The Division or CMHP may investigate any complaint or grievance regarding the AFH.
(5) The Division or CMHP must furnish each AFH with a Complaint and Grievance Notice that the provider must post in a prominent place stating the telephone number of the Division and the CMHP and the procedure for making complaints or grievances.
(6) A copy of all AFH complaints or grievances must be maintained by the Division. All complaints or grievances and any actions taken as a result, must :
(a) Be indexed by the name of the provider;
(b) Be placed into the public file at the Division. Information regarding the investigation of the complaint or grievance may not be filed in the public file until the investigation has been completed;
(c) Protect the privacy of the complainant or grievant and the resident; and
(d) Treat the names of the witnesses as confidential information.
(7) The Division may suspend, revoke, and refuse to renew or impose conditions against the license of a provider who acquires substantiated complaints or grievances pertaining to the health, safety, or welfare of residents.
(8) The AFH provider, resident manager, or caregiver must not retaliate in any way against any resident after a complaint or grievance has been filed with the Division. Retaliation may include but is not limited to:
(a) Increasing or threatening to increase charges;
(b) Decreasing or threatening to decrease services;
(c) Withholding or threatening to withhold, rights or privileges;
(d) Taking or threatening to take any action to coerce or compel the resident to leave the AFH; or
(e) Abusing, harassing, or threatening to abuse or harass a resident in any manner.
(9) A complainant, grievant, witness, or caregiver of an AFH must not be subject to retaliation by a provider or any employee of an AFH for making a report or being interviewed about a complaint or being a witness. Retaliation may include but is not limited to caregiver dismissal or harassment or restriction of access to either the AFH or a resident.
(10) The complainant has immunity from any civil or criminal liability with respect to the making or content of a complaint or grievance made in good faith.
(11) Any individual may inspect and receive a photocopy of the public complaint files, including protective services files as applicable, maintained by the Division upon written request subject to the Division's procedures, ORS 192.310 through 192.431, and photocopy charges for public record requests. Requests for complaint and protective services files may be made using the form and process online at https://www.oregon.gov/oha/ERD/Pages/Records.aspx.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 443.735
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 127.700 - 127.737 & ORS 443.705 - 443.825
- BHS 5-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- BHS 6-2018, amend filed 03/21/2018, effective 03/30/2018
- MHS 12-2017, temporary amend filed 10/03/2017, effective 10/03/2017 through 03/30/2018
- MHS 9-2017, f. 6-29-17, cert. ef. 7-1-17
- MHS 3-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
- MHS 14-2016(Temp), f. 9-6-16, cert. ef. 9-7-16 thru 3-3-17
- MHS 1-2010, f. & cert. ef. 1-29-10
- MHS 4-2009(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 8-6-09 thru 2-2-10
- MHD 3-2005, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-05, Renumbered from 309-040-0065
- MHD 1-1992, f. & cert. ef. 1-7-92
- MHD 6-1986, f. & cert. ef. 7-2-86
- MHD 19-1985(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 12-27-85
Or. Admin. R. 309-040-0415 Administrative Sanctions
(1) An administrative sanction may be imposed for non-compliance with these rules.
(2) An administrative sanction includes one or more of the following actions:
(a) Civil penalties;
(b) Attachment of conditions to a license; and
(c) Denial, suspension, non-renewal, or revocation of a license.
(3) If the Division imposes an administrative sanction, the Division must serve a notice of administrative sanction upon the provider personally or by certified mail.
(4) The notice of administrative sanction must state the following:
(a) Each sanction imposed;
(b) A short and plain statement of each circumstance, act, or omission that constitutes non compliance with the applicable rules;
(c) Each statute or rule allegedly violated;
(d) A statement of the provider’s right to a contested case hearing;
(e) A statement of the authority and jurisdiction under which the hearing is to be held;
(f) A statement that the Division files on the subject of the contested case automatically become part of the contested case record upon default for the purpose of proving a prima facie case; and
(g) A statement that the notice becomes a final order upon default if the provider fails to request a hearing within the specified time.
(5) All hearings are conducted in accordance with ORS 183.
(6) The provider must comply with any final order of the Division.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & ORS 443.745
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 443.705 - 443.825
- BHS 5-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- BHS 6-2018, amend filed 03/21/2018, effective 03/30/2018
- MHS 12-2017, temporary amend filed 10/03/2017, effective 10/03/2017 through 03/30/2018
- MHS 9-2017, f. 6-29-17, cert. ef. 7-1-17
- MHS 3-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
- MHS 14-2016(Temp), f. 9-6-16, cert. ef. 9-7-16 thru 3-3-17
- Renumbered from 309-040-0075, MHD 3-2005, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-05
- MHD 6-1999, f. 8-24-99, cert. ef. 8-26-99
- MHD 1-1992, f. & cert. ef. 1-7-92 (and corrected 1-31-92)
- MHD 6-1986, f. & ef. 7-2-86
- MHD 19-1985(Temp), f. & ef. 12-27-85
Or. Admin. R. 309-040-0420 Temporary rule language in effect until 12/01/2026. Denial, Suspension, Revocation, or Refusal to Renew
(1) The Division must deny, revoke, or refuse to renew a license where it finds any of the following:
(a) There has been substantial non-compliance with these rules;
(b) There is substantial non-compliance with local codes and ordinances or any other state or federal law or rule applicable to the health and safety of residents in an AFH; or
(c) A background check conducted by ODHS determined the applicant or provider is not approved;
(d) The provider allows a caregiver or any other person, excluding residents, who has been convicted of potentially disqualifying crimes and has been denied, or refused to cooperate with the Division, to reside or work in the AFH;
(e) The applicant or provider falsely represents they have not been convicted of a crime; or
(f) The Division has received notice from the Department of Revenue in accordance with ORS 305.385.
(g) The applicant or provider has had a certificate or license to operate a foster home, assisted living facility, or residential care facility denied, suspended, revoked, or refused to be renewed in this or any other state within three years preceding the present action if the denial, suspension, revocation, or refusal to renew was due in any part to:
(A) Abuse, creating a threat to the health, safety, or well-being of residents; or
(B) Failure of the applicant or provider to possess the physical health, mental health, or good judgement or character deemed necessary by the division;
(h) The applicant or provider, including a board member or officer, has had a certificate or license to operate a foster home, assisted living facility or residential care facility denied, suspended, revoked, or refusal to be renewed in this or any other state more than three years from the present action, the applicant or provider is required to demonstrate to the Division by clear and convincing evidence, the applicant or provider:
(A) Does not pose a threat to resident; and
(B) Posses the ability and fitness to operate an AFH in substantial compliance.
(i) The applicant or provider is associated with a person whose license for a foster home, assisted living facility, or residential care facility was denied, suspended, revoked, or refused to be renewed due to:
(A) Abuse or neglect, creating a threat to the health, safety, or well-being of residents; or
(B) Failure to possess physical health, mental health, or good judgement or character within three years preceding the present action, unless the applicant or provider can demonstrate to the Division by clear and convincing evidence that the person does not pose a threat to the residents;
(j) For purposes of this subsection, an applicant or provider is "associated with" a person as described above, if the applicant or provider:
(A) Resides with the person;
(B) Employs the person in the AFH;
(C) Receives financial backing from the person for the benefit of the AFH;
(D) Receives managerial assistance from the person for the benefit of the AFH; or
(E) Allows the person to have access to the AFH; or
(F) Rents or leases the AFH from the person.
(k) For purposes of this section only, "present action" means the date of the notice of denial, suspension, revocation, or refusal to renew.
(2) The Division may deny, suspend, revoke, or refuse to renew an AFH license if the applicant, provider or owner:
(a) Submits fraudulent or untrue information to the Division;
(b) Has a history of or demonstrates financial insolvency, such as bankruptcy, foreclosure, eviction due to failure to pay rent, or termination of utility services due to failure to pay bills;
(c) Has threatened the health, safety, or well-being of any resident;
(d) Has abused a resident;
(e) Has a medical or psychiatric problem, which interferes with the ability to provide care;
(f) Refuses to allow access and inspection;
(g) Fails to comply with a final order of the Division to correct a violation of the rules for which an administrative sanction has been imposed;
(h) Fails to comply with a final order of the Division imposing an administrative sanction;
(i) Fails to report knowledge of the illegal actions of or disclose the known criminal history of a provider, resident manager, substitute caregiver, or volunteer of the AFH.
(j) Interferes with a person who has made a good faith disclosure of information concerning the abuse or neglect of a resident receiving care and services in a licensed or certified facility;
(k) Has previously been cited for the operation of an unlicensed AFH
(l) Has previously surrendered a license or certificate while under investigation or administrative sanction during the last three years;
(m) Fails to operate the AFH or any other facility in substantial compliance; or
(n) An owner has been confirmed to be in violation of any tax laws described in ORS 305.380.
(3) The provider may request a hearing in writing within 21 calendar days after the date the notice was personally served or mailed. If the provider fails to request a hearing in writing, or the request is not timely, the notice will become a final order of the Division by default.
(4) In addition to, or in-lieu of, a contested case hearing, a provider may request an informal conference with the Division to discuss the administrative action. The informal conference does not diminish the provider’s right to a hearing. A request for informal conference does not delay, extend, or otherwise affect the 21 days allowed to request a hearing.
(5) A license subject to revocation or non-renewal remains valid during the administrative hearing process even if the hearing and final order are not issued after the expiration date of the license when a complete renewal application and fee has been submitted to the Division prior to the expiration of the current license.
(6) The applicant may appeal the denial of an application by submitting a request for reconsideration in writing to the Division within 14 calendar days from receipt of the denial notice. The Division must decide on the appeal within 30 days of receipt of the appeal.
(7) An applicant whose license has been revoked or voluntarily surrendered, following a receipt of Notice of Intent to Revoke or Notice of Intent to Not Renew from the Division, or whose application has been denied by the Division for reasons relating to, but not limited to, criminal convictions, civil proceedings against the applicant, or substantiated allegations of abuse by the applicant, may not be permitted to submit an application for one year from the date that the revocation, non-renewal, surrender, or denial is made final. A longer period may be specified in the order revoking or denying the license.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & ORS 443.745
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 443.705 - 443.825
- BHS 11-2026, temporary amend filed 05/28/2026, effective 06/05/2026 through 12/01/2026
- BHS 5-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- BHS 6-2018, amend filed 03/21/2018, effective 03/30/2018
- MHS 12-2017, temporary amend filed 10/03/2017, effective 10/03/2017 through 03/30/2018
- MHS 9-2017, f. 6-29-17, cert. ef. 7-1-17
- MHS 3-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
- MHS 14-2016(Temp), f. 9-6-16, cert. ef. 9-7-16 thru 3-3-17
- Renumbered from 309-040-0090, MHD 3-2005, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-05
- MHD 6-1999, f. 8-24-99, cert. ef. 8-26-99
- MHD 1-1992, f. & cert. ef. 1-7-92 (and corrected 1-31-92)
- MHD 6-1986, f. & ef. 7-2-86
- MHD 19-1985(Temp), f. & ef. 12-27-85
Or. Admin. R. 309-040-0430 Conditions
(1) Conditions may be attached to a license upon a finding that:
(a) Information on the application or initial inspection requires a condition to protect the health and safety of individuals;
(b) There exists a threat to the health, safety, and welfare of an individual;
(c) There is reliable evidence of abuse or neglect of an individual;
(d) The AFH is substantially non-compliant with these rules; or
(e) The provider is licensed to care for a specific individual only and further placements may not be made to the AFH.
(2) The provider shall be notified in writing of any conditions imposed, the reason for the conditions, and be given an opportunity to request a contested case hearing under ORS chapter 183.
(3) Conditions may be attached to a license upon a finding that:
(a) Information on the application or initial inspection requires a condition to protect the health and safety of individuals, pending further action by the Division;
(b) There exists a threat to the health, safety, and welfare of an individual, pending further action by the Division or Division designee;
(c) There is reliable evidence of abuse or neglect of an adult, pending further action by the Division;
(d) The AFH is substantially non-compliant with these rules, pending further action by the Division.
(4) Conditions that may be imposed on a licensee include but are not limited to the following:
(a) Restricting the maximum capacity of the AFH;
(b) Restricting the number and impairment level of individuals allowed based upon the capacity of the caregivers to meet the health and safety needs of all residents;
(c) Requiring an additional caregiver or caregiver qualifications;
(d) Requiring additional training of caregivers;
(e) Requiring additional documentation as deemed necessary by the Division;
(f) Restricting a provider from opening an additional AFH; or
(g) Suspending admissions to the AFH.
(5) The provider shall be notified in writing of any conditions imposed, the reason for the conditions, and be given an opportunity to request a contested case hearing under ORS chapter 183.
(6) In addition to or in lieu of a contested case hearing, a provider may request in writing a review by the Division administrator or designee of conditions imposed by the Division or CMHP. The review does not diminish the provider's right to a hearing or extend the time period to request a hearing.
(7) Conditions may be imposed for the extent of the license period (one year), extended to the next license period, or limited to some other shorter period of time as deemed necessary by the Division. If the conditions correspond to the licensing period, the reasons for the conditions may be considered at the time of renewal to determine if the conditions are still appropriate. The effective date and expiration date of the conditions shall be indicated on the attachment to the license.
(8) Conditions attached to a license shall be effective upon order of the director of the licensing agency.
(9) Hearing rights are in accordance with ORS 183.411 to 183.550.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & ORS 443.745
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 443.705 - 443.825
- BHS 5-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- BHS 6-2018, amend filed 03/21/2018, effective 03/30/2018
- MHS 12-2017, temporary amend filed 10/03/2017, effective 10/03/2017 through 03/30/2018
- MHS 9-2017, f. 6-29-17, cert. ef. 7-1-17
- MHS 3-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
- MHS 14-2016(Temp), f. 9-6-16, cert. ef. 9-7-16 thru 3-3-17
- Renumbered from 309-040-0093, MHD 3-2005, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-05
- MHD 6-1999, f. 8-24-99, cert. ef. 8-26-99
- MHD 1-1992, f. & cert. ef. 1-7-92 (and corrected 1-31-92)
Or. Admin. R. 309-040-0435 Criminal Penalties
(1) Operating an AFH without a license is punishable as a Class C misdemeanor.
(2) Refusing to allow any of the following is punishable as a Class B misdemeanor:
(a) Division access to the AFH for inspection or investigation;
(b) Division access to residents in order to interview residents privately or to review records; or
(c) State and local fire inspector access to the AFH regarding fire safety.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 443.705 - 443.825
- BHS 5-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- MHS 9-2017, f. 6-29-17, cert. ef. 7-1-17
- MHS 3-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
- MHS 14-2016(Temp), f. 9-6-16, cert. ef. 9-7-16 thru 3-3-17
- Renumbered from 309-040-0095, MHD 3-2005, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-05
- MHD 1-1992, f. & cert. ef. 1-7-92 (and corrected 1-31-92)
- MHD 6-1986, f. & ef. 7-2-86
- MHD 19-1985(Temp), f. & ef. 12-27-85
Or. Admin. R. 309-040-0440 Civil Penalties
(1) Except as otherwise provided in this rule, civil penalties of not less than $100 per violation, and not more than $250 per violation may be imposed for a general violation of these rules .
(2) Civil penalties of not less than $100 and not more than $1,000 per occurrence may be imposed for each substantiated abuse finding.
(3) The Division must impose a mandatory civil penalty:
(a) Up to $500, unless otherwise required by law, for falsifying resident or facility records or causing another to do so;
(b) Of $250 for failure to have the provider or qualified substitute caregiver on duty 24 hours per day in the AFH;
(c) Of $500, unless otherwise required by law, for admitting a resident knowing the resident’s needs exceed the ability of the AFH and the admission places the resident or other residents in the AFH at risk of harm;
(d) Of $250 for operating an unlicensed AFH;
(e) Of $250 for dismantling or removing the battery from, or failing to install, any required smoke detector or carbon monoxide alarm;
(f) Of $500 for interfering with or retaliating against an individual making a good faith disclosure of information concerning abuse of an individual receiving care and services in an AFH;
(4) Violations requiring a mandatory civil penalty that occurred while the provider was operating the AFH will be imposed by the Division even if the provider subsequently closes the AFH or voluntarily surrenders the license.
(5) The provider may request a hearing in writing within 21 calendar days after the date the notice was personally served or mailed. If the provider fails to request a hearing in writing, or the request is not timely, the notice will become a final order of the Division by default.
(6) In addition to, or in-lieu of, a contested case hearing, a provider may request an informal conference with the Division to discuss the administrative sanction. The informal conference does not diminish the provider’s right to a hearing. A request for informal conference does not delay, extend, or otherwise affect the 21 days allowed to request a hearing.
(7) Civil penalties imposed under this section become due and payable 10 calendar days after the notice imposing the civil penalty becomes final by operation of law or on appeal. Unless the penalty is paid within 10 calendar days after the order becomes final, the order constitutes a judgment and may be recorded by the county clerk, which becomes a lien upon the title to any interest in real property owned by that person. The Division may also initiate a notice of revocation for failure to comply with a final order.
(8) Civil penalties are subject to judicial review under ORS 183.480, except that the court may, at its discretion, reduce the amount of the penalty.
(9) All penalties recovered under ORS 443.790 to 443.815 are paid to the Long-Term Care Ombudsman Account established in ORS 441.419
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 443.705 - 443.825
- BHS 5-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- MHS 9-2017, f. 6-29-17, cert. ef. 7-1-17
- MHS 3-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
- MHS 14-2016(Temp), f. 9-6-16, cert. ef. 9-7-16 thru 3-3-17
- Renumbered from 309-040-0097, MHD 3-2005, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-05
- MHD 1-1992, f. & cert. ef. 1-7-92 (and corrected 1-31-92)
Or. Admin. R. 309-040-0450 Adjustment, Suspension or Termination of Payment
(1) The Division or CMHP may adjust, suspend, or terminate payment to a provider when any of the following conditions occur:
(a) The provider's AFH license is revoked, suspended, or terminated;
(b) Upon a finding that the provider is failing to deliver any service as agreed to in the RCP; or
(c) When funding, laws, regulations, or the Division or CMHP priorities change such that funding is no longer available, redirected to other purposes, or reduced;
(d) The individual's service needs change;
(e) The individual is absent without providing notice to the provider for five or more consecutive days;
(f) The individual is determined to be ineligible for services;
(g) The individual moves, with or without notice, from the AFH; the provider shall be paid only through the last day of the individual's occupancy.
(2) The Division or CMHP is under no obligation to maintain the AFH at its licensed capacity or to provide payments to potential providers.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 443.705 - 443.825
- MHS 9-2017, f. 6-29-17, cert. ef. 7-1-17
- MHS 3-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
- MHS 14-2016(Temp), f. 9-6-16, cert. ef. 9-7-16 thru 3-3-17
- MHD 3-2005, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-05, Renumbered from 309-040-0057
- MHD 6-1999, f. 8-24-99, cert. ef. 8-26-99
- MHD 1-1992, f. & cert. ef. 1-7-92, Renumbered from 309-040-0055(3)(a)-(c)
- MHD 6-1986, f. & cert. ef. 7-2-86
- MHD 19-1985(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 12-27-85
Or. Admin. R. 309-040-0455 Enjoinment of AFH Operation
The Division may commence an action to enjoin the operation of an AFH pursuant to ORS 443.775(5):
(1) When an AFH is operated without a valid license; or
(2) After notice of revocation, non-renewal, or suspension has been given, a reasonable time for placement of residents in other facilities has been allowed, and such placement has not been accomplished.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 443.705 - 443.825
- BHS 5-2025, amend filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- MHS 9-2017, f. 6-29-17, cert. ef. 7-1-17
- MHS 3-2017(Temp), f. 3-3-17, cert. ef. 3-4-17 thru 8-30-17
- MHS 14-2016(Temp), f. 9-6-16, cert. ef. 9-7-16 thru 3-3-17
- Renumbered from 309-040-0099, MHD 3-2005, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-05
- MHD 1-1992, f. & cert. ef. 1-7-92 (and corrected 1-31-92)
Or. Admin. R. 309-040-0470 Suspension of License
(1) The Division must immediately suspend a license if:
(a) There exists a threat to the health, safety or welfare of any resident;
(b) There is reliable evidence of abuse of any resident; or
(c) The licensee fails to operate the AFH in substantial compliance with ORS 443.705 to 443.825 or these rules.
(2) The Division must suspend a license upon written notice from the Oregon Department of Revenue in accordance with ORS 305.385, and after notice to the provider and an administrative hearing if requested.
(3) If a license is suspended, the Division may arrange for a resident to move for their protection.
(4) The provider may request an administrative review of the decision to immediately suspend a license by submitting a request in writing, within 10 calendar days from the date the notice and order of suspension was mailed or served upon the provider.
(a) Within 10 calendar days after receipt of the provider’s request for a review, the Division must review all material relating to the allegation of abuse, neglect, or exploitation and to the suspension, including any written documentation submitted by the provider within that time frame; and
(b) The Division must determine, based on a review of the material, whether to sustain the decision. If the Division does not sustain the decision, the suspension must be rescinded immediately. The decision of the Department is subject to a contested case hearing under ORS 183 if requested within 90 calendar days.
(4) The provider may request a contested case hearing in writing within 90 calendar days after the date the notice was personally served or mailed. If the provider fails to request a hearing in writing, or the request is not timely, the notice will become a final order of the Division by default.
(5) In addition to, or in-lieu of, a contested case hearing, a licensee may request an informal conference with the Division to discuss the administrative action. The informal conference does not diminish the licensee’s right to a hearing. A request for informal conference does not delay, extend, or otherwise affect the 90 days allowed to request a hearing.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 443.745
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 443.705 - 443.825
- BHS 5-2025, adopt filed 02/28/2025, effective 03/01/2025
Division 45 BEHAVIORAL HEALTH AGENCY WITH CHOICE
Or. Admin. R. 309-045-1000 Purpose and Scope
The purpose of these rules is to establish minimum standards and procedures for an Agency with Choice to perform administrative employer functions and support individuals in self-directed care and services in their home for individuals with behavioral health conditions. These rules ensure Agencies with Choice provide self-directed services to maximize independence, empowerment, dignity, and human potential through the provision of flexible, efficient, and person-centered services enabling the individual to move into or continue to live in their own home.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.730 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37
- BHS 4-2026, adopt filed 04/30/2026, effective 04/30/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-045-1010 Definitions
(1) “Abuse” means abuse as defined in ORS 430.735 and ORS 419B.005.
(2) “Activities of Daily Living (ADLs)” means those personal, functional activities as defined in OAR 410-173-0005.
(3) “Administrator” means the person designated by the licensee through an employment agreement to be responsible for the daily operations and maintenance of the Agency with Choice.
(4) “Agency with Choice (AWC)” means an organization licensed by the Oregon Health Authority that provides self-directed Agency with Choice Services for compensation to individuals primarily at the individual’s home and their community.
(5) “Agency with Choice Services” means services provided to individuals by an Agency with Choice operating within a self-directed service delivery model and include the services specified in these rules. Agency with Choice services do not include nursing procedures or tasks that require nursing delegation or teaching as defined in OAR Chapter 851, Division 047.
(6) “Applicant” means the person, entity, or governmental organization who applies for an Agency with Choice license.
(7) “Authority” means the Oregon Health Authority.
(8) “Authorized Representative” may include one of the following for the purpose of these rules:
(a) “Legal Representative” means a person who has been legally designated by court order to make financial or health care decisions on behalf of another individual. The legal representative only has authority to act within the scope and limits of their authority as designated by the court or other agreement. For the purpose of these rules, authorized presentative and legal representative are synonymous.
(b) A person designated by an individual or the individual’s legal representative to act on behalf of the individual in making decisions on matters pertaining to the planning and implementation of an in-home person-centered service plan; and
(c) In no instance may can an authorized representative be a Direct Support Worker of home and community-based services (HCBS) nor an employee of the Agency with Choice for an individual for whom they provide services. The Authority shall verify the authorized representative is not providing paid services as contained in this section.
(9) “Background Check” means a criminal records check and abuse check as defined in OAR 407-007-0010, ORS 409.025 and 409.027, as adopted and incorporated by OAR 943-007, that includes a final fitness determination that the subject individual is fit to hold a position and have direct access to or otherwise provide care and services necessary for the health, welfare, maintenance, or protection of an individual.
(10) “Back-up Plan” means a plan developed by the individual or the individual’s authorized representative in coordination with the Agency with Choice to ensure uninterrupted services and supports in the event of planned or unplanned absences of the direct support worker or in case of an emergency. The back-up plan should include the name and contact information and the specific ways in which the back-up direct support worker will support the individual.
(11) “Behavioral Health” means mental health, mental illness, addiction disorders, and substance use disorders.
(12) “Behavioral Health Division (Division)” means the section within the Oregon Health Authority responsible for program and policy development and oversight of behavioral health facilities and services.
(13) “Care Coordinator" means an Authority employee or an employee of the Authority’s designee that meets the minimum qualifications in OAR 309-019-0125 who is responsible for offering service choices to eligible Individuals and evaluation of the effectiveness of Medicaid home and community-based services.
(14) “Change of Condition” means an individual’s care needs, health or functioning have changed to the point that additional or different supports may be necessary.
(15) "Change of Ownership " means adding or removing one or more owners which constitutes a change of more than five percent interest in Agency with Choice ownership.
(16) “Community Mental Health Program (CMHP)” means an entity that is responsible for planning and delivery of safety net services for persons with mental or emotional disturbances, drug abuse problems, and alcoholism and alcohol abuse in a specific geographic area of the state under a contract with the Division or Local Mental Health Authority pursuant to OAR chapter 309 division 014.
(17) “Complaint” means dissatisfaction relating to an Agency with Choice expressed by the individual or their authorized representative.
(18) “Cultural Competence” means the ability to interact effectively with people from different cultures, languages, races and other backgrounds.
(19) “Direct Support Worker (DSW)” means a person employed by an Agency with Choice, to assist individuals with activities of daily living, instrumental activities of daily living and health related tasks identified in the individual’s person-centered service plan and further denoted in the DSW’s job description as required by these rules. Direct support worker does not mean a homecare worker or personal support worker as defined in ORS 410.600, or personal care attendant as defined in OAR 410-172-0776.
(20) “Division” means the Behavioral Health Division of the Oregon Health Authority (OHA).
(21) “Drug-Free Workplace” means the Agency with Choice ensures direct support workers:
(a) Are prohibited from using or being under the influence of alcohol, inhalants, or drugs, including prescription and over-the-counter medications that prevents duties from being performed; and
(b) Are prohibited from manufacturing, possessing, selling, using or offering to sell, trade, or use illegal drugs while providing services to an individual or while in the individual’s home.
(22) “Electronic Visit Verification (EVV)” means a system under which visits conducted as part of the person-centered service plan are electronically verified at the time of service and meets the requirements specified in United State Code 42 USC §1396b(l).
(23) “Formal Complaint” means a formal filing with the Authority that alleges the Agency with Choice Agency has not adhered to a material aspect of the Agency with Choice statue or administrative rules.
(24) “Grievance” means a formal, written dissatisfaction submitted by an individual or authorized representative regarding the failure of an Agency with Choice to follow required rules, policies, or services.
(25) “Independent Qualified Agent (IQA)” means an entity meeting the qualification requirements identified in 42 CFR §441.730 and under contract with the Authority responsible for service eligibility, assessment of need, person-centered service planning, and service authorization.
(26) “Individual” means a person receiving Agency with Choice services and supports who is approved for home and community-based services by the Authority as defined in OAR 410-173-0005.
(27) “Instrumental Activities of Daily Living (IADLs)” means those activities defined in OAR 410-173-0005
(28) "Investigative Authority" means the Office of Training, Investigations, and Safety (OTIS), or local Community Mental Health Programs that contracts with the Authority to receive and investigate alleged abuse and assess protective services under OAR Chapter 943, Division 45.
(29) “Licensee” means the person or entity who has been issue an Agency with Choice license.
(30) “Management experience”, means verifiable experience in the administration, supervision, or management in health-related or long-term services, and supports fields including at a minimum, hiring, assigning, evaluating, promoting and responsibility for implementing disciplinary actions.
(31) “Mandatory Reporter” means any public or private official who is required by Oregon Revised Statute (ORS) to report suspected abuse to the Authority or law enforcement agency as it applies to a:
(a) "Child" defined in ORS 419B.005;
(b) "Child in care" as defined in ORS 418.257; or
(c) "Adult" with developmental disabilities or mental illness as defined in ORS 430.735.
(d) “Elderly Person” or a “Person with a Disability” as defined in ORS 124.005.
(32) “Person-Centered Service Plan (PCSP)” means the written document prepared by the IQA service coordinator that details the supports, desired outcomes, activities, and resources required for an individual to achieve and maintain personal goals, health, and safety as described in OAR 410-173-0025. The PCSP must be completed and signed prior to the individual receiving HCBS. The PCSP is not satisfied by a document primarily prepared by a provider.
(33) "Professional Experience" means having verifiable work experience as a licensed or certified nurse, nursing assistant, medication aide, physician, or physical or occupational therapist or having received the professional development certificate from the Oregon Home Care Commission or other verifiable work experience from other states. The license or certificate must be current and in good standing.
(34) "Provider Enrollment Agreement" refers to the agreement between the Medicaid Division of the Oregon Health Authority and a qualified Medicaid provider to receive a provider number and deliver services for compensation.
(35) "Qualified Trainer" means a person who:
(a) Has professional experience providing training to direct support workers, homecare workers, certified nursing assistants or other relevant caregivers with the necessary skills, knowledge and information to deliver competent, quality care, and is approved by the Authority;
(b) Is designated by an Agency with Choice to conduct direct support worker training on behalf of the Agency with Choice, including, but not limited to, orientation, mandatory training and continuing education training required by these rules.
(36) “Self-directed Service Delivery Model” for the purpose of these rules means a model in which an individual is supported by an Agency with Choice that functions as the employer of direct support workers recruited by the individual or the Agency with Choice and provides financial management services and tasks in place of the individual. The individual chooses, trains and directs the tasks and work priorities of the direct support workers who will provide needed services and is considered a co-employer with the Agency with Choice.
(37) “Services and Supports” means those services defined as habilitation services and psychosocial rehabilitation services under OAR Chapter 410, Division 173 or personal care services under OAR 410-172-0776 as described in the individual’s person-centered service plan.
(38) "Subject Individual (SI)” means an individual person for whom an Agency with Choice must conduct a background check and the Background Check Unit (BCU) may conduct a criminal records and abuse check, and from whom BCU may require fingerprints for the purpose of conducting a national criminal records check. An SI includes all staff and volunteers working for or with an Agency with Choice.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.731 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37
- BHS 4-2026, adopt filed 04/30/2026, effective 04/30/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-045-1020 Temporary rule language in effect until 11/11/2026. Application for Licensure
(1) An entity or organization that establishes, conducts, or represents itself to the public as an Agency with Choice or as providing a self-directed service delivery model to “individuals” defined in OAR 410-173-0005, must be licensed as an Agency with Choice by the Authority.
(2) Each applicant must submit a written application, provided by the Division for a license to operate an Agency with Choice. The application is not complete until all information required to make a decision is received by the Division. The Division will notify the applicant within seven days if the application is found to be incomplete. If an applicant does not provide the missing information, the application will be voided 60 days after initial receipt by the Division.
(3) The application must include all required information and documentation as specified by the Division including, but not limited to:
(a) The application form must be signed and dated by the applicant’s legally authorized representative;
(b) Comprehensive description of the Agency with Choice, services offered, supports delivered, administrative control, and lines of authority and responsibility from the licensee to the individual level;
(c) Identification of any person, including owners and partners, with a financial interest representing more than five percent of ownership in the applicant. Identification includes the person’s name, role, date of birth, and, where applicable, social security number. The person’s date of birth and social security number shall be withheld from public viewing. For an Agency with Choice managed by a Board of Directors, the Authority is required under 42 USC §405(c)(2)(C)(i) (United States Code), 42 CFR §455.104 (United States Code of Federal Regulation) and 26 CFR §301-6109-1 to obtain a social security number and date of birth for each board member;
(d) Completed background check request forms for the applicant(s), administrator, and for each person with five percent or more incident of ownership, regardless of the person's effect on the operation of the agency;
(e) Proof of fiscal responsibility and capacity to prevent fraud, waste, and abuse by including an auditor's certified financial statement, and other verifiable documentary evidence of fiscal solvency documenting that the prospective licensee has sufficient resources to operate the agency for 90 days, proof of fiscal responsibility must include liquid assets sufficient to operate the agency for 45 days. Anticipated Medicaid income is not considered "liquid assets," but may be considered "financial resources." Liquid assets may be demonstrated by:
(A) An available line of credit;
(B) A performance bond; or
(C) Any other method satisfactory to the Division.
(f) Prior to initial licensure or renewal of licensure, the provider and each owner, as defined in ORS 60.470, that has at least 20 percent ownership interest of a program must:
(A) Certify in writing, under penalty of perjury, that to the best of the person’s knowledge the provider or owner is not in violation of any tax laws described in ORS 305.380; and
(B) Submit a complete tax compliance certification issued by the Department of Revenue for each owner with 20 percent or more ownership, stating that, as of the date of the certificate, the provider or owner is not in violation of any tax laws described in ORS 305.380.
(g) Comprehensive plan of operation for the Agency with Choice;
(h) All written policies and procedures, including, but not limited to:
(A) Outline, in writing, how the Agency with Choice and services are designed to empower individuals including detailed descriptions of the services provided, administrative control, and lines of authority and responsibility from the licensee to the Individual receiving services and support;
(B) Personnel operations including a well-defined process for hiring, terminating, training, evaluating, retaining, and managing the Agency with Choice staff including those direct support workers requested by the individual;
(C) Established guidelines for conducting Background Checks, as defined in these rules and verifying the qualifications of potential employees;
(D) Individual notification requirements including a detailed procedure for the provision of information to Individuals or their authorized representatives of their rights, services provided, and any changes affecting their services;
(E) Management of individual records including details for controlling access and providing secure storage; and
(F) Medical and non-medical emergency response including details on staff responsibilities, communication and documentation.
(i) Copy of the Agency with Choice’s written disclosure statement;
(j) Copy of the Agency with Choice’s nondiscrimination notice; and
(k) A signed labor relations attestation.
(4) An Agency with Choice must notify the Division in writing of any updates to its information. If any details from the most recent application changes outside of the renewal date, the Agency with Choice is required to submit changes in writing to the Division within 30 calendar days of the change.
(5) Licenses are not transferrable to any other person or entity. If there is a change of ownership, the Agency with Choice must submit a new application reflecting the change in the owner or administrator. The Division will decide to grant or not grant the new applicant a license.
(6) Applicants must be free of incident of ownership history in any agency, facility, or business that failed to reimburse any state for Medicaid overpayments or civil penalties within the past five years.
(7) Applicants must be free of incident of ownership history in any agency, facility, or business that failed to compensate employees or pay worker's compensation, utilities, or other costs necessary for agency operation within the past five years.
(8) Applicants must be free of incident of ownership history in any agency, facility, or home in any state that had its license or certification involuntarily suspended or terminated or voluntarily terminated during any state or federal sanction process within the past five years.
(9) Applicants must be free of any incident of Medicaid fraud in any state, United States territory or the District of Columbia and must not be on the Office of Inspector General exclusion list within the past 25 years.
(10) Applicants must comply with ORS 652.220 and must not unlawfully discriminate against an employee in the payment of wages or other compensation for work of comparable character based on an employee’s membership in a protected class.
(11) Applicants must comply with ORS 656.017 and provide workers compensation insurance coverage for those workers, unless they meet the requirement for an exemption under ORS 656.126(2).
(12) The Division may deny or not renew the license if an applicant fails to provide complete, accurate, and truthful information during the application, licensing or renewal processes.
(13) The Division must notify an applicant in writing if a license application is denied or approved within 14 days of such determination.
(14) A license is valid for two years unless revoked or suspended by the Division.
(15) No Agency with Choice may use the term “in-home care agency” in its advertising, publicity, or any other form of communication.
(16) A cost report may be required earlier than annually if there is a change of ownership or termination of the Agency with Choice’s license.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.731 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37
- BHS 12-2026, temporary amend filed 05/29/2026, effective 06/05/2026 through 11/11/2026
- BHS 4-2026, adopt filed 04/30/2026, effective 04/30/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-045-1030 Standards for License Renewal
(1) A full and complete application for license renewal must be submitted to the Division at least 60 days prior to the expiration date of the existing license. Filing an application for renewal before the date of expiration extends the effective date of expiration, until the Division acts upon such application. The application for renewal must meet all the requirements in these rules.
(2) If the renewal application is not submitted prior to the expiration date of a license, the Agency with Choice is unlicensed and subject to civil penalties defined in these rules and must immediately cease providing support to Individuals.
(3) The Division will conduct a compliance review of an Agency with Choice 90 days prior to the renewal of a license and shall assess compliance with these rules.
(4) The Division must not renew a license if the Agency with Choice is not in substantial compliance with these rules.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37 Stats
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.731 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37 Stats
- BHS 4-2026, adopt filed 04/30/2026, effective 04/30/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-045-1040 Reporting and Billing Requirements
(1) In order to receive public funds, an Agency with Choice must be licensed as an Agency with Choice and must be enrolled with the Authority as a Medicaid provider.
(2) An Agency with Choice must meet all requirements in OAR 410-120-1260 (Provider Enrollment), OAR 943-120-0310 (Provider Requirements), and OAR 943-120-0320 (Provider Enrollment) for the Authority.
(3) To receive payment for services, the Agency with Choice must utilize a Authority-approved Electronic Visit Verification system (EVV), as specified in OAR 410-172-0776, to verify the following details at the time of service for visits:
(a) Date of service;
(b) Start and end time;
(c) Type of service;
(d) Location of service;
(e) The name of the direct support worker providing the service; and
(f) The name of individual receiving services.
(4) Agency with Choice must submit claims for reimbursement to the Division and pay direct support workers for authorized hours worked and billed in accordance with the Electronic Visit Verification requirements. All claims must be submitted no later than 12 months from the date of service. Per 42 CFR §424.44, time limits for filing claims, any claims submitted after 12 months from the date of service will not be eligible for reimbursement.
(5) The Agency with Choice must withhold, file, and pay income taxes and all employment-related taxes, including but not limited to, workers’ compensation premiums and unemployment taxes. The Agency with Choice must also verify the qualifications of each direct support workers as required by Oregon and Federal Laws.
(6) The Agency with Choice shall be reimbursed:
(a) Only for approved and authorized hours and services delivered to an Individual based on the individual’s person-centered service planning.
(b) Only at the Authority’s approved hourly rate for services.
(c) Request for reimbursement of community transportation must not include mileage for an employee commuting to and from the Individual's home.
(d) To provide community transportation services, the direct support worker must maintain valid driver’s license, current vehicle registration and necessary auto insurance. Proof must be available upon the request of the Authority. Mileage must be prior authorized in the person-centered service plan.
(7) The Agency with Choice must comply with OAR 410-120-1510, OAR 461-195-0601 and the requirements therein for prompt reporting of fraud, waste, and abuse in the Medicaid program. Information on how to report may always be found online: https://www.oregon.gov/oha/FOD/PIAU/Pages/Report-Fraud.aspx.
(8) The Agency with Choice must provide a copy of all information and documents as requested by the Authority.
(9) The Agency with Choice must cooperate with all review activities required by the Authority, including but not limited to providing access to records, staff, and service documentation related to the delivery of Agency with Choice Services.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.731 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37
- BHS 4-2026, adopt filed 04/30/2026, effective 04/30/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-045-1050 Services Provided
(1) The Agency with Choice must ensure that the individual is supported in ensuring their services are adequate and responsive to their needs with a focus on self-direction.
(2) The services provided by an Agency with Choice must include the provision of or assistance with ADL, IADL and health-related tasks as directed by the individual or the authorized representative and approved in the individual’s authorized person-centered service plan. The Agency with Choice is not responsible for long term care community nursing services.
(3) An Agency with Choice must agree in writing to deliver the supports identified in an individual's authorized person-center service plan which includes the limits and scope of the services to be provided. Agreement may be shown by the Agency with Choice signature on the person-centered service plan.
(4) The Agency with Choice must assist the Individual with the following responsibilities:
(a) Recruiting, selecting, and retaining direct support workers to assist Individuals with activities of daily living (ADL), Instrumental Activities of Daily Living (IADL) and health related tasks, and changing direct support workers from an individual’s service team when necessary;
(b) Coordinating the schedules of direct support workers prioritizing the individual’s choices, needs, and preferences, ensuring that support is person-centered and self-directed;
(c) Proactively work with the individual or their authorized representative to develop a back-up plan to ensure continuity of services, when the regularly scheduled direct support worker is unavailable due to absence or emergent circumstances and ensure that the Individual’s service needs are met during these planned and unplanned absences;
(d) Establishing the responsibilities of direct support workers and ensuring direct support workers do not work more than the hours authorized by the Authority;
(e) Training direct support workers on best practices and basic requirements and at the request of the Individual, the individual’s specific needs and preferences to ensure services and supports are delivered appropriately;
(f) Ensuring a safe and healthy workplace environment as defined in OAR chapter 410, division 172, and in the roles and responsibilities of co-employer; and
(g) Ensuring direct support workers are compliant with Electronic Visit Verification (EVV).
(5) If the Agency with Choice is concerned that the individual can no longer self-direct or if there is a change of condition, the Agency with Choice must contact the individual’s care coordinator within five business days.
(6) All documentation required in sections (2) and (4) of this rule must be kept in the Individual’s record.
(7) The Licensee is responsible for the supervision, training, and overall conduct of all Agency with Choice staff when acting within the scope of their employment or duties.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.731 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37
- BHS 4-2026, adopt filed 04/30/2026, effective 04/30/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-045-1060 Operational Standards
(1) An Agency with Choice's Licensee assumes full legal, financial, and overall responsibility for the Agency with Choice's operation and contractual obligations. Any violations by Agency with Choice owners, Direct Support Workers, other staff, or representatives are attributable to the Agency with Choice and against the Agency with Choice’s license.
(2) An Agency with Choice must not assign administrative or supervisory functions of the Agency with Choice to another entity.
(3) When Medicaid is the source of payment for the services provided by the Agency with Choice, the Medicaid service payment is considered payment in full for all services provided by the Agency with Choice.
(4) All Agency with Choice records must be kept separate and distinct from other business entities.
(5) All Direct Support Workers are covered under labor laws, including the Fair Labor Standards Act.
(6) An Agency with Choice must ensure services are made available to any Individual who chooses this service option, in alignment with the Medicaid Statewide operations requirement outlined in Section 1902 (a)(1) of the Social Security Act and 42 CFR Part 431. This requirement mandates that a state’s Medicaid program must operate uniformly across the state. Agency with Choice must have the capacity to meet the needs of individuals through responsive communication, proactive recruitment, staffing, and retention of direct support workers, and must be able to serve statewide.
(7) All Agency with Choice employees, direct support workers, and administrators must carry identification indicating their name and the Agency with Choice employer.
(8) An Agency with Choice direct support worker may accompany an individual if requested by the individual, however travel out of the United States or its territories is not permitted and payment to direct support workers is prohibited as defined in ORS 410-120-1180 and 42 CFR § 431.52. The direct support worker must document all services and supports provided to the individual on a daily basis through the EVV system.
(9) Agency with Choice must establish a process for:
(a) Identifying, analyzing, and correcting any of the following events:
(A) Abuse as defined in ORS 430.735 and ORS 419B.005;
(B) Serious injury resulting in hospitalization, urgent care or emergency room treatment;
(C) Medication errors or discrepancies;
(D) Missing person when a member's whereabouts are unknown;
(E) Law enforcement contact; and
(F) Unexpected death.
(b) Ensuring the immediate reporting of any allegations of events listed in (a) or any other violation of the individual’s rights must be made to the individual’s care coordinator and Adult Protective Services;
(c) Notifying the individual’s care coordinator, as applicable, of any known change in the individual’s health, behavior, environment and related events as defined in (a);
(d) Ensuring direct support workers maintain confidentiality of personally identifiable information of the individual and addressing allegations of release of confidential information;
(e) Provide standardized training to direct support workers as defined in these rules;
(f) Retain a personnel record for each direct support worker;
(g) Provide other administrative and employment-related supports; and
(h) An Agency with Choice must provide equitable and non-discriminatory services to all individuals, regardless of race, color, religion, national origin, age, sex, sexual orientation, gender identity, disability, or any other protected status under state and federal law.
(10) An Agency with Choice must:
(a) Maintain a drug-free workplace;
(b) Report any abuse, harassment, restrain or hospitalization, emergency room visits and urgent care visits and deaths.
(c) Involve direct support workers employed by the Agency with Choice served by the Agency with Choice in the development of and decision-making about work processes, performance standards, quality improvement strategies, training, retention, technology use, and workplace safety;
(d) Minimize the impact of the loss of pay and work hours for direct support workers resulting from the hospitalization or death of an Individual or the dismissal of the direct support worker by the individual;
(e) Engage and work closely with individuals to design and implement Agency with Choice Services by appointing individuals to an advisory board, using focus groups of individuals, or employing other methods approved by the Authority to engage with individuals effectively;
(f) Enhancing the role of direct support workers as members of the individual’s service team, as desired and approved by the individual, or their authorized representative; and
(g) Complying with other requirements as prescribed by the Authority, and by rule.
(11) An Agency with Choice must have a disclosure statement which must be signed by the individual or the authorized representative when the individual is accepted to receive services. The disclosure statement must include:
(a) A statement must be included that the Agency with Choice will not bill the individual for any additional services;
(b) A description of services provided and how they will be provided, including a discussion regarding staffing availability, coordination, and support for creation of a back-up plan;
(c) A description of the individual’s or the authorized representative regarding their role as co-employer;
(d) Agency with Choice and individual's rights and responsibilities;
(e) An Agency with Choice must not include any provision in the disclosure statement that affect individual's rights or the Agency with Choice liability for negligence. The individual or authorized representative has a duty to supervise the direct support worker consistent with the person-centered service plan;
(f) A description of the qualifications and training requirements necessary for direct support workers providing services and supports as required by these rules;
(g) Procedures for contacting the Agency with Choice administrator or administrator's designee during all of the hours which services are provided;
(h) A clear statement indicating the disclosure statement must be made available to the individual or the authorized representative in an alternate format at the individual's or the authorized representative’s request;
(i) A copy of the individual’s rights as defined in these rules;
(j) The disclosure statement must not include language or referring to "buy outs" or "finder's fees” nor shall it include any language that limits individuals from their full access to other Medicaid services; and
(k) The policy for individual reimbursement for stolen, broken or misappropriated property or funds.
(12) An Agency with Choice must provide each individual with a written notice of the individual's rights as a part of the disclosure statement, prior to furnishing services and supports to an individual. The individual’s rights notice must also include:
(a) Procedures for filing a grievance, complaint or formal complaint with the Agency with Choice;
(b) Procedures for filing a grievance, complaint or formal complaint with the Division, along with the telephone number and contact information of the Division; and
(c) Notice of the individual’s rights and responsibilities as co-employer of the direct support worker, as outlined in these rules.
(13) An Agency with Choice must incorporate the notice specified in subsection language below into its current nondiscrimination policy and written materials. The notice must also be included wherever the policy or materials are posted. The notice must state:
(14) An Agency with Choice must assist an individual in planning for direct support worker unplanned, and planned absences or similar situations which call for replacement workers, consistent with the individual’s choice of direct support workers to provide the services.
(15) An Agency with Choice must have in place a process to receive and respond to a grievance, complaint or formal complaint, submitted by an Individual about the services provided to the individual, by a direct support worker. An investigation must start no later than five business days from the date of the grievance, complaint or formal complaint of the allegation(s) contained therein and must finalize the response within 30 days.
(a) For allegations that could reasonably be expected to result in harm to the individual, investigations must start within 24 hours. Investigations must be completed no later than 15 days from the date the investigation started. Findings and mitigation strategies must be reported to the Division.
(b) Agency with Choice must notify the Division of all complaints and formal complaints within 45 days of receiving the complaint, or formal complaint.
(16) The Authority has authority to examine individuals’ records as part of the Authority’s regulation and evaluation of the Agency with Choice.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.731 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37
- BHS 4-2026, adopt filed 04/30/2026, effective 04/30/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-045-1070 Temporary rule language in effect until 11/11/2026. Background Checks
(1) An Agency with Choice must submit a background check request for each subject individual to the Background Check Unit (BCU), prior to allowing the subject individual to work. A subject individual must not begin work on a preliminary basis. Preliminary approval is not permitted under these rules.
(2) The Agency with Choice must comply with OAR Chapter 943, Division 007 and OAR 407-007-0200 to 407-007-0370 for all subject individuals, as applicable.
(3) The Agency with Choice must maintain documentation of the BCU background check approval in the subject individual's personnel record.
(4) An Agency with Choice must perform and document a query of the List of Excluded Individuals and Entities (LEIE).
(5) An Agency with Choice must ensure that a background check is performed on a subject individual every three years from the date of the subject individual‘s last background check in accordance with OAR 407-007-0200 to 407-007-0370.
(6) Any cost for a background check shall be the responsibility of the Agency with Choice and must not exceed the cost charged to the Authority.
(7) The Agency with Choice must notify the BCU, and the Authority within 24 hours if any subject individual is involved in a potentially disqualifying crime under OAR 407-007-0281 or potentially disqualifying condition under OAR 407-007-0290, ORS 409.025, and ORS 409.027.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.731 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37
- BHS 12-2026, temporary amend filed 05/29/2026, effective 06/05/2026 through 11/11/2026
- BHS 4-2026, adopt filed 04/30/2026, effective 04/30/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-045-1080 Emergency and Continuity of Operations Planning
(1) Each Agency with Choice must establish and maintain, as part of their application, an emergency and continuity of operations plan to ensure the stability of its administrative functions and continuity of essential business operations during emergent events or disasters.
(2) The plan must prioritize:
(a) Securing a location to perform business functions, if necessary;
(b) Ensuring availability of personnel;
(c) Preserving information technology (IT) systems, including EVV systems, essential for uninterrupted service delivery; and
(d) Complements individual safety planning, which is managed by care coordinators for each individual.
(3) The Agency with Choice is responsible for ensuring the continuity of its business and administrative functions. Safety planning specific to individuals, including emergency preparedness and health-related needs, must be coordinated by the assigned care coordinator as part of the individual’s person-centered service plan.
(a) The Agency with Choice must ensure care coordinators have up-to-date contact information for direct support workers and Agency with Choice management; and
(b) Access to relevant emergency information for effective coordination with administrative staff during emergencies.
(4) The emergency and continuity of operations plan must be reviewed and updated when significant changes occur, such as updates in technology, staffing, or business location. All updates must be:
(a) Documented in writing and available in an easily accessible location; and
(b) Distributed to all staff to ensure awareness and familiarity with current protocols.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.731 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37
- BHS 4-2026, adopt filed 04/30/2026, effective 04/30/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-045-1090 Response to Grievances and Critical Incidents
(1) The Agency with Choice must maintain in its records documentation of all internal investigations of any grievance, complaint or formal complaint, and any event described in these rules. Documentation must be maintained in a separate file from the individual and personnel records and must include:
(a) Who was interviewed, and the information provided;
(b) Results of the investigation; and
(c) Actions taken, including ongoing monitoring if applicable.
(2) The licensee and employees are mandatory reporters and must immediately report known or suspected abuse, including events overheard or witnessed by observation to the investigative authority.
(3) The licensee and employees must call the local law enforcement agency first when the suspected abuse is believed to be a crime such as but not limited to rape, murder, assault, burglary, kidnapping, theft of controlled substances.
(4) The licensee must provide quarterly reports of grievances, complaints events listed in these rules to the Division.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.731 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37
- BHS 4-2026, adopt filed 04/30/2026, effective 04/30/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-045-1100 Administrator Qualifications and Requirements
(1) The administrator must have the education and training sufficient to administer the Agency with Choice. At a minimum, the administrator must have two years of management, and professional experience.
(2) The administrator must assign, in writing, a designee to act as the administrator when the administrator is temporarily unavailable.
(3) The administrator or administrator's designee must be accessible and available during all hours in which services are being provided to Individuals to support the direct support worker and address concerns from the Individual.
(4) The administrator or administrator's designee is responsible for ensuring the Agency with Choice meets all of the requirements in these rules.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.731 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37
- BHS 4-2026, adopt filed 04/30/2026, effective 04/30/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-045-1110 Direct Support Worker Qualifications and Requirements
(1) The services provided by an Agency with Choice must be rendered by qualified and trained employees.
(2) Direct support workers who have been substantiated for abuse or Medicaid fraud as a provider from any care setting in the United States may not be hired, nor retained as an employee of the Agency with Choice as prescribed as Medicaid regulations.
(3) Direct support workers must receive all required training and additional training necessary to ensure the direct support worker can competently provide the level of services they will be assigned to provide. The services must be provided as requested by the individual or authorized representatives in accordance with these rules and the person-centered service plan.
(4) Direct support workers must:
(a) Be at least 18 years of age;
(b) Must have sufficient communication and language skills to enable them to perform their duties and interact effectively with the individual for whom they provide services and supports and other Agency with Choice staff; and
(c) Accurately document the services provided on a daily basis.
(5) A direct support worker cannot be a representative or legal representative for an Individual for whom they provide services.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.731 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37
- BHS 4-2026, adopt filed 04/30/2026, effective 04/30/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-045-1120 Direct Support Worker Training Requirements
(1) The Agency with Choice must submit their training plan and curriculum for approval by the Division including who will be providing the training.
(a) The training plan must substantially meet the training required by the Oregon Home Care Commission in both content and length of training as defined OAR 418-020-0035; and
(b) The training plan must include how direct support workers will receive orientation and competency based training and how the Agency with Choice will engage with the individual to determine what individual specific training is necessary.
(2) Direct support workers must complete an Agency with Choice-specific orientation. The orientation must be a minimum of four hours of instruction, obtained online or in person and must be completed prior to serving an Individual. Orientation must include the following topics:
(a) Direct support workers' job description and requirements highlighting the importance of supporting Individual self-direction;
(b) Abuse and mandatory reporting;
(c) Confidentiality;
(d) Individual rights;
(e) Medication safety;
(f) Preventing Medicaid fraud;
(g) Providing person-centered services;
(h) Universal precautions and infection control;
(i) An overview of the Agency with Choice's policies and procedures as required in these rules;
(j) A description of the supports provided by the Agency with Choice to the direct support worker; and
(k) Use of the Agency with Choice’s Electronic Visit Verification system that accurately documents the services provided on a daily basis as authorized in the person-centered service plan.
(3) Competency based training is intended to improve the direct support worker’s ability to better serve the Individuals and should be eight hours of training. Competency based training must be completed within 120 days of the direct support worker beginning work with individuals. Training should include, but is not limited to:
(a) Recognizing and responding to medical emergencies;
(b) Understanding and recognizing mental and emotional conditions;
(c) Appropriate and safe techniques in ADL and IADL tasks, especially related to negative outcome prevention;
(d) Methods and techniques to prevent skin breakdown, tightening of skin, muscles, or tendons limiting movements, and falls;
(e) Proper body movement, posture, alignment, and positioning to prevent injury of the Individual and the direct support worker; and
(f) Providing more details on the topics covered in the orientation.
(4) Competency evaluations must demonstrate that direct support worker possesses the necessary knowledge and skills to perform their assigned duties. Such evaluations may be completed through direct observation, written testing, oral testing, or a combination thereof, as appropriate to the nature of the service provided. Direct observation should be required only when it is determined relevant and necessary by the Agency with Choice.
(5) Individual’s specific training may be required before the direct support worker serves an individual as requested by the individual and must be developed in partnership with the individual. The training must clearly define the direct support workers' duties and responsibilities aligning with the Individual’s self-directed service plan, choices and preference.
(6) A direct support worker must receive a minimum of six hours of continuing education each year.
(7) The training required in sections (3) through (10) of this rule must be clearly documented and maintained in each direct support worker’s personnel record and must include the following information, if applicable:
(a) Content of the training for each topic;
(b) The date(s), times(s) and training topics covered; and
(c) The name(s) and signature(s) of the Agency with Choice-specific orientation instructor, qualified training entity, or qualified trainer conducting the training.
(8) An Agency with Choice must maintain sufficient information and documentation to demonstrate that the person(s) or entity providing the training under this rule is a qualified training entity or Qualified Trainer.
(9) Direct support workers who have previously served as a homecare worker, personal support worker, personal care attendant, staff at an in-home care agency or as a direct support workers with another Agency with Choice are not subject to additional competency base training requirements if previous training is not expired and documented in the hiring Agency with Choice personnel records. Orientation is still required.
(10) A direct support worker with proof of a current Oregon health-care related license or certificate such as nursing license or certified nursing assistant is exempt from competency base training. A direct support worker must provide annual proof of this license or certificate to remain exempt. Orientation is still required.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.731 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37
- BHS 4-2026, adopt filed 04/30/2026, effective 04/30/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-045-1130 Personnel Records
(1) The Agency with Choice shall maintain a personnel record for each direct support worker and employee. An Individual may also maintain documentation of their interview and refences and ongoing employee records. The Individual may share that information with the Agency with Choice.
(2) Each record at minimum must include the following:
(a) General position descriptions signed by the direct support worker or employee. The Individual may have a specific job description that is designed to meet their preferences;
(b) Evidence of orientation, training, competency evaluations, and continuing education. All services must be delivered using a self-directed approach, ensuring that Individuals are empowered and have choice for their support and care; and
(c) Evidence of a valid driver's license with current auto insurance for each staff whose duties include community transportation services.
(3) The direct support worker general job description shall be prepared by the Agency with Choice.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.731 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37
- BHS 4-2026, adopt filed 04/30/2026, effective 04/30/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-045-1140 Individual Choice to Receive Agency with Choice Services
(1) The care coordinator must provide the individual with neutral, comprehensive information about all available in-home service delivery models, including Agency with Choice. Upon the individual’s request to receive Agency with Choice services, the care coordinator will refer the individual to the Agency with Choice.
(2) At the request of the individual for Agency with Choice Services, the individual’s care coordinator will submit a referral to the IQA and the Agency with. The IQA will conduct an assessment and develop the person-centered service plan. The IQA will authorize the services through the Agency with Choice and provide the individual’s person-centered service plan to the Agency with Choice.
(3) If an individual has a pre-selected direct support worker who is not currently working with the Agency with Choice, the Agency with Choice will assist the potential direct support worker to be evaluated by the Agency with Choice.
(4) Agency with Choice services must be provided in accordance with the person-centered service plan and as directed by the individual or the individual authorized representative.
(5) Nothing in these rules shall limit the individual’s choice to receive home and community-based services from any authorized provider allowed by the Authority or to receive some services from an Agency with Choice and other home and community-based service models.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.731 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37
- BHS 4-2026, adopt filed 04/30/2026, effective 04/30/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-045-1150 Individual Records
(1) An Individual record must be maintained for every individual and must be maintained in the Agency with Choice’s office.
(2) A legible, reproducible individual record which is easily accessible including:
(a) Identification data;
(b) Signed disclosure documents and documentation required by these rules including the individuals' rights documentation required by these rules;
(c) An agreement signed by the individual or the authorized representative before the initiation of services that specifies the services to be provided in accordance with the person-centered service plan; and
(d) End-of-service summary, including the dates of service and the disposition of the individual.
(3) A list of Agency with Choice direct support workers providing services to an individual must be documented in the individual's record at the Agency with Choice. The individual’s record must also identify back-up coverage during planned or unplanned absence or emergent circumstances where the primary direct support worker is, or workers are, unavailable.
(4) Reasonable precautions must be taken to protect an individual’s record and information from unauthorized access, fire, water, theft, damage or destruction.
(5) All individuals' records must be kept for a period of at least seven years after the date of last service.
(6) Individual records must be made available upon request to the individual and or the representative upon request.
(7) If there is a change in the business entity operating as an Agency with Choice, all individuals' records must remain with the Agency with Choice. Until a new licensee has assumed control of the individual’s records, it is the responsibility of the outgoing licensee to protect and maintain these records. This requirement applies when the underlying business entity changes, regardless of whether there is a change in ownership.
(8) Before an Agency with Choice terminates its business, the Agency with Choice must notify the Authority at least 60 days in advance and must notify the Authority where the individuals' records will be stored. Copies of all records must be transferred to the Authority prior to the closure of the Agency with Choice.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.731 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37
- BHS 4-2026, adopt filed 04/30/2026, effective 04/30/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-045-1160 Individual Rights
(1) The Agency with Choice owner, administrator and administrator's designee as applicable must ensure that the Agency with Choice recognizes and protects the rights of each individual.
(2) The Agency with Choice must provide each individual with a written notice of the individual's rights as a part of the disclosure statement, prior to providing services to the Individual. The individual’s rights notice must include:
(a) The right to be treated with dignity and respect;
(b) The right to be free from theft, damage, or misuse of one's personal property;
(c) The right to be given the informed choice and to select or refuse service and to accept responsibility for the consequences;
(d) The right to be free from neglect, verbal, mental, emotional, physical, and sexual abuse;
(e) The right to be free from financial exploitation;
(f) The right to be free from physical and chemical restraints;
(g) The right to be free from coercion and seclusion;
(h) The right to privacy;
(i) The right to voice grievances or complaints regarding services or any other issue without discrimination or reprisal for exercising such rights;
(j) The right to be free from discrimination as to race, color, religion, national origin, age, sex, sexual orientation, gender identity, disability, or any other protected status under state and federal law;
(k) The right and responsibility for the planning of the services to be furnished, the frequency of services to be provided, any changes in services, the direct support workers schedule, and cessation of services;
(l) The right to select or otherwise approve the direct support workers who provide services to the individual before the direct support workers begin providing the services;
(m) The right to train direct support workers in the individual’s specific service needs and in the provision services to the individual;
(n) The right to direct the Individual’s own services that are provided by direct support workers;
(o) The right to require an Agency with Choice to remove a direct support worker from the individual’s services and supports team;
(p) The right to schedule a direct support worker’s time in accordance with the Individual’s desires, needs and authorized hours;
(q) The right to have access to their own records;
(r) The right to have individual information and records confidentially maintained by the Agency with Choice; and
(s) The right to receive prior written notice before a change of ownership or a program closure.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.731 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37
- BHS 4-2026, adopt filed 04/30/2026, effective 04/30/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-045-1170 Delivery of Services
(1) In order to meet the individual’s needs, the Agency with Choice must work with the individual or their authorized representative to develop:
(a) The schedule for the provision of services specifying the total number of hours to be provided per month based on the Authority’s authorized hours;
(b) The days of the week services will be provided;
(c) The services to be provided, specifying the tasks to be conducted; and
(d) Other pertinent information about the individual's needs in relation to the services to be provided to ensure the provision of safe and appropriate service delivery.
(2) An individual or an authorized representative may request changes provided the changes do not require modifications to the individual’s service authorization that would result in a change of authorized hours. All requested changes must be reviewed and approved by the individual or authorized representative. These changes must be communicated to the assigned direct support worker(s) either by phone, or electronic means.
(3) If an individual experiences a significant change of condition that is a major change in the individual’s health or functional abilities, the Agency with Choice must notify the care coordinator, and document the change. The direct support worker must be updated, as needed.
(4) The Agency with Choice must ensure the individual or the authorized representative is notified of any changes in the delivery of the Agency with Choice services, as applicable, such as if the Agency with Choice becomes aware a direct support worker is unavailable to cover scheduled hours or shifts.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.731 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37
- BHS 4-2026, adopt filed 04/30/2026, effective 04/30/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-045-1180 Initial Visit and Monitoring
(1) A representative of the Agency with Choice, who is not the direct support worker, must contact the Individual at least every six months. Monitoring contacts may occur by phone or by other electronic means determined jointly with the individual, or their authorized representative. The contact may not be conducted by a direct support worker.
(2) The Agency with Choice, who is not the direct support worker, must conduct at least one in-home visit with the Individual each 12 months, at a time determined jointly with the individual or the authorized representative. The annual in-home visit replaces the need for a six-month monitoring visit. The in-home visit may not be conducted by a direct support worker.
(3) Each contact and visit must be documented, dated, and signed by the Agency with Choice representative who conducted the visit or contact. The contacts and in-home visit should document the individual’s level of satisfaction with their services, any concerns or support they need to continue to self-direct their services.
(4) Documentation of the contacts and visits must be made available to the Department, if requested.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.731 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37
- BHS 4-2026, adopt filed 04/30/2026, effective 04/30/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-045-1190 Quality Assurance and Performance Improvement
(1) An Agency with Choice must establish and maintain an effective, quality assurance and performance improvement program that evaluates and monitors the quality, safety, retention of direct support workers, and appropriateness of services provided by the Agency with Choice, and must include at a minimum:
(a) A method to identify, analyze and correct events listed in OAR 309-045-1060(9)(a) of these rules, issues with infection control and other aspects of performance relating to services provided;
(b) A method to identify, and track quality indicators by high risk, high volume, problem prone areas and by the effect on individual safety and quality of the services received;
(c) A method to ensure services provided by the Agency with Choice are self-directed by the individual and honor the individual’s needs and preferences; and
(d) A method to analyze workforce trends, proactive responses to identified challenges, address systemic issues, such as like high turnover among direct support workers.
(2) After an analysis of the causes for any issues identified in section (1) of this rule, develop and implement a performance improvement program to ensure staff are trained in and familiar with any identified quality improvement activities.
(3) The improvement activities must be reviewed by a committee comprised of, at a minimum, Agency with Choice administrative staff, direct support workers, and at least one individual receiving Agency with Choice Services.
(4) Quality improvement activities must be conducted and documented at least quarterly. All reports of the quality assurance system and performance improvement must be submitted to the Authority.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.731 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37
- BHS 16-2026, minor correction filed 06/08/2026, effective 06/08/2026
- BHS 4-2026, adopt filed 04/30/2026, effective 04/30/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-045-1200 Program Review and Investigations
(1) The Authority must conduct a program review as defined in these rules.
(2) The Division must conduct and complete an investigation upon receipt of information or allegations an Agency with Choice is not operating in compliance with these rules and complete the investigation within 90 days. For abuse investigations must occur within the timeframes established in those rules.
(3) Program reviews and investigations may be conducted at other times as the Department deem necessary including:
(a) To determine if cited violations have been corrected;
(b) For the purpose of routine monitoring of Individual’s services, or to investigate a grievance, complaint or formal complaint;
(c) The Division has reason to believe the Agency with Choice has violated a regulation or provision of these rules; or
(d) The Division has reason to believe the Agency with Choice is operating without a license.
(4) The Division may conduct a program review or investigation without advance notification.
(5) An Agency with Choice must permit the Authority staff access to any physical Agency with Choice business location from which it is operating its Agency with Choice. Authority access to individual’s homes should be coordinated with the individual.
(6) Following a program review, the Division will conduct an exit conference with an Agency with Choice owner, administrator, or administrator's designee. During the exit conference, Division staff must:
(a) Inform the Agency with Choice owner, administrator, or administrator's designee of the preliminary findings of the program review; and
(b) Give the owner, administrator, or administrator's designee an opportunity to submit additional facts or other information to the Division in response to the findings.
(7) When findings result in a referral to another regulatory agency, Authority staff must submit the applicable information to that agency for its review and determination of appropriate action.
(8) If no deficiencies are found during a program review, the Division must issue a written report to the Agency with Choice owner indicating that fact within 30 days of the exit conference confirming compliance with program rules.
(9) If deficiencies are found, the Division must issue a statement of deficiencies within 15 days of the exit conference citing the rule(s) alleged to be violated, the facts supporting the allegation, and a date by which corrections must be made. The written statement may include specific actions that must be taken for the Agency with Choice to maintain their license.
(10) A copy of the most current program review report and any conditions placed upon the license must be posted with the Agency with Choice license in public view near the main entrance to the Agency with Choice.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.731 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37
- BHS 4-2026, adopt filed 04/30/2026, effective 04/30/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-045-1210 Complaints
(1) Any person who believes these rules have been violated may file a complaint verbally or in writing to the Division regarding an allegation as to the services provided by an Agency with Choice or violations of Agency with Choice laws or regulations.
(2) The identity of a person making a complaint and formal complaint and any personally identifiable information of the reporter or someone else, is confidential and not subject to disclosure and can only be disclosed when legally required.
(3) Upon conclusion of an investigation of a complaint, the Division may publicly release a report of its findings. However, the publicly released report must not disclose the identity of the complainant, witness, or any Individual associated with an Agency with Choice.
(4) The Division may use any information obtained during an investigation in an administrative or judicial proceeding concerning the licensing of an Agency with Choice.
(5) Any Agency with Choice employee who becomes aware of a violation of a law or these rules must immediately report it to the Division.
(6) The Agency with Choice must not interfere with a good faith disclosure of information by an employee or volunteer concerning violation(s) of laws or rules.
(7) The licensee and administrator must ensure any complainant, witness, or employee of an Agency with Choice is not subjected to retaliation by any Agency with Choice employee, for making a report, being interviewed about a complaint, or being a witness, including, but not limited to, restriction of access to the individual or, if an employee, dismissal or harassment.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.731 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37
- BHS 4-2026, adopt filed 04/30/2026, effective 04/30/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-045-1220 Abuse Reporting and Investigations
(1) Agency with Choice employees, agents and licensee must not permit, aid, or engage in abuse of individuals who are served by the Agency with Choice. All Agency with Choice staff are mandatory reporters of abuse.
(a) All Agency with Choice employees are required to immediately report abuse or suspected abuse to the ODHS SAFE line (1-855-503-SAFE (7233)), local CMHP, or local law enforcement agency;
(b) The Agency with Choice administrator, or designee, must immediately notify the local CMHP, or Division of any incident of abuse or suspected abuse, including events overheard or witnessed by observation;
(c) The local law enforcement agency must be called first when the suspected abuse is believed to be a crime, including neglect that rises to a crime, financial exploitation, etc.; and
(d) Physical injury of unknown cause must be reported to the local CMHP, or Division as suspected abuse.
(2) The Agency with Choice must conduct an internal investigation of all allegations of abuse upon receipt of the protective services investigation report. The Agency with Choice must document the report and take measures necessary to protect the Individual and prevent the reoccurrence of the event or abuse. The investigation must document:
(a) Time, date, place and Individuals present;
(b) Description of the event as reported;
(c) Response of staff at the time of the event;
(d) Follow-up action; and
(e) Administrator’s review.
(3) Upon substantiation of abuse, the Office of Training, Investigations and Safety must provide written notification of the findings to the individual involved, and the Agency with Choice as defined in OAR chapter 419, division 110.
(4) The Agency with Choice must not hamper nor impede the Authority or law enforcement from investigating abuse and suspected crimes and must give full access of Agency with Choice records, including but not limited to alleged victim records, and direct support worker training records. The Authority must be able to interview all Agency with Choice employees, including direct support workers without an Agency with Choice Administrator present, unless it is requested by them.
(5) An Agency with Choice must immediately terminate employment of a direct support worker who has a substantiated claim of abuse or neglect of an individual from serving any individual. If the direct support worker was involved in other events listed in OAR 309-045-0160(9)(a) of these rules, the Agency with Choice will discuss with the individual if they are comfortable with the direct support worker continuing to provide services and supports.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.731 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37
- BHS 4-2026, adopt filed 04/30/2026, effective 04/30/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-045-1230 Enforcement
(1) Upon receipt of a statement of deficiencies, an Agency with Choice must be provided an opportunity to dispute the Division’s program review findings but must still comply with sections (2) and (3) of this rule.
(a) If an Agency with Choice desires an informal conference to dispute the Division's program review findings, the Agency with Choice must notify the Division in writing within 10 business days after receipt of the statement of deficiencies. The written request must include a detailed explanation of why the Agency with Choice believes the statement of deficiencies is incorrect;
(b) An Agency with Choice may not seek a delay of any enforcement action against it on the grounds the informal conference has not been completed; and
(c) If an Agency with Choice is successful in demonstrating the deficiencies should not have been cited, the Division may reissue the statement of deficiencies, removing such deficiencies. The reissued statement of deficiencies must state that it supersedes the previous statement of deficiencies and must clearly identify the date of the superseded statement of deficiencies;
(2) A signed plan of correction must be submitted to the Division within 10 business days from the date the statement of deficiencies was received by the Agency with Choice.
(3) An Agency with Choice must correct all deficiencies within 30 days from the date the statement of deficiencies was received by the Agency with Choice, unless an extension of time is requested from the Division. A request for such an extension must be submitted in writing and must accompany the plan of correction.
(4) The Division must determine if a written plan of correction is acceptable. If the plan of correction is not acceptable to the Division, the Division must notify the Agency with Choice owner or administrator in writing:
(a) Identifying which provisions in the plan the Division finds unacceptable;
(b) Citing the reasons, the Division finds the provisions unacceptable; and
(c) Requesting that the plan of correction be modified and resubmitted no later than 10 business days from the date notification of non-compliance was received by the Agency with Choice owner or administrator.
(5) If the Agency with Choice does not come into compliance by the date of correction reflected on the plan of correction or 30 days from the date of the exit conference, whichever is sooner, the Division may propose to deny, suspend or revoke the Agency with Choice license or impose civil penalties.
(6) An Agency with Choice must have an active license to operate. If a person or entity is found to be operating as an Agency with Choice without a valid license, the unlicensed Agency with Choice must, within 14 days of the receipt of an injunction obtained by the Authority:
(a) Inform its Individuals receiving services that the Agency with Choice can no longer provide services; and
(b) Cease providing services to Individuals.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.731 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37
- BHS 4-2026, adopt filed 04/30/2026, effective 04/30/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-045-1240 Civil Penalties
(1) An Agency with Choice that violates applicable laws, rules, or a final order as determined by the Division, may be subject to the imposition of a civil penalty not to exceed $1,000 per violation.
(2) An Individual or entity who operates an Agency with Choice without a license is subject to the imposition of a civil penalty not to exceed $1,000 a day per violation.
(3) Violates applicable, but is not limited to:
(a) Failure to provide a written disclosure statement to the individual or the representative prior to Agency with Choice services being rendered;
(b) Failure to provide the contracted Agency with Choice services;
(c) Failure to correct deficiencies identified during a program review or critical incident investigation; or
(d) Refusal to allow access and program review.
(4) In determining the amount of a civil penalty, the Division must consider whether:
(a) The Division made repeated attempts to obtain compliance;
(b) The licensee has a history of non-compliance with licensing laws and rules;
(c) The violation poses a serious risk to the public’s health; and
(d) There are mitigating factors, such as a licensee’s cooperation with an investigation or actions to come into compliance.
(5) The Division must document its consideration of the factors in section (4) of this rule.
(6) Each day a violation continues is an additional violation.
(7) A civil penalty imposed under this rule must comply with ORS 183.746.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.731 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37
- BHS 4-2026, adopt filed 04/30/2026, effective 04/30/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-045-1250 Conditions
(1) Conditions may be attached to a license and take effect immediately upon issuance by the Division. The type of condition attached to a license must directly relate to a risk of harm or potential risk of harm to individuals. Conditions may be attached upon a finding that:
(a) Information on the application or initial program review requires a condition to protect the health, safety, or welfare of the individuals;
(b) A threat to the health, safety, or welfare of an Individual exists;
(c) There is reliable evidence of abuse, neglect, or exploitation; and
(d) The Agency with Choice is not being operated in compliance with these rules.
(2) Examples of conditions that may be imposed on a licensee include, but are not limited to:
(a) Restricting the total number of individuals served based on the Agency with Choice ability to meet the health and safety needs includes restricting new admissions when a threat to the current Individuals exists and adding new individuals would compound that threat.
(b) Requiring additional qualifications or training of licensee and staff.
(3) The Division must notify the licensee in writing of any conditions imposed, the reason for the conditions, and be given an opportunity to request a hearing under ORS 183.411 to 183.502. A licensee must request a hearing in writing within 21 calendar days after the date the notice was personally served or mailed. Conditions take effect immediately and are a final order of the Division unless later rescinded.
(4) In addition to, or in-lieu of, a contested case hearing, a licensee may request an informal conference with the Division to discuss conditions imposed. The informal conference does not diminish the licensee's right to a hearing.
(5) Conditions imposed remain in effect, until the Division has sufficient cause to believe the situation that warranted the condition has been remedied. If the licensee believes the situation that warranted the condition has been remedied, the licensee may request in writing to the Division that the condition be removed.
(6) Conditions must be posted with the license in a prominent place in the Agency with Choice and be available for inspection at all times.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.731 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37
- BHS 4-2026, adopt filed 04/30/2026, effective 04/30/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-045-1260 Denial, Suspension or Revocation of License
(1) The Division may deny, suspend, or revoke the license of an Agency with Choice, in accordance with ORS 183.413, for the Agency with Choice’s failure to comply with these rules or if a licensee or administrator of the Agency with Choice permits, aids, or abets any illegal act affecting the welfare of an individual.
(2) This section does not supersede or limit any other authority of the Division with regarding oversight of contracting entities or the imposition of civil penalties.
(3) If the Division intends to suspend, revoke, or deny an Agency with Choice license, it must do so in accordance with ORS 183.411 through 183.470.
(4) At any time, the Division may issue a Notice of Emergency License Suspension under ORS 183.430(2).
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.731 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37
- BHS 4-2026, adopt filed 04/30/2026, effective 04/30/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-045-1270 Financial Transparency and Reporting Requirements
(1) The rate paid to the Agency with Choice requires that:
(a) The Agency with Choice will ensure that no less than 85 percent of the total payments to the Agency with Choice is spent on total compensation for Direct Support Workers who furnish those services. For the purpose of these rules, total compensation includes wages and benefits including, but not limited to, health insurance, retirement plans, life and disability insurance, paid time off, mileage, employer employment taxes, employee employment taxes, employee required training, and workers compensation; and
(b) The amount for administration and overhead may not exceed 15 percent of the rate paid to the Agency with Choice by the Authority.
(2) Any rate increase provided by the Authority requires the Agency with Choice to maintain the 85 percent direct care worker compensation and benefits threshold.
(3) The Agency with Choice must ensure that any increase intended to improve direct support workers’ compensation must be fully passed on to direct support worker compensation and benefits.
(4) The Agency with Choice must file annually with the Authority detailed cost reports based on the Agency with Choice’s reporting period for the period ending each June 30th, and as requested by the Authority. The Agency with Choice must submit the cost report no later than October 31st of each year.
(5) The required cost report details include the following Agency with Choice expenditures:
(a) Average hourly wage provided to direct support workers;
(b) Total costs of direct support worker wages and the hours provided to Individuals;
(c) Total costs of direct support worker benefits including the types of benefits offered;
(d) Total costs for overtime of direct support workers, the percentage of direct support workers receiving overtime, and the average number of overtime hours worked per week;
(e) Total costs for mileage reimbursement to direct support workers;
(f) Supervisor and trainer wages, benefits and other expenses;
(g) Administrative costs and hours including CEO compensation; and
(h) Other overhead including, but not limited to, details on building, IT and corporate costs.
(6) The Agency with Choice must provide early cost reports if any of the following is true:
(a) The cost report is requested by the Authority;
(b) There is a change of ownership; or
(c) The Agency with Choice’s license is terminated or expired.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.731 & Oregon Law 2024, Chapter 37
- BHS 4-2026, adopt filed 04/30/2026, effective 04/30/2026
Division 48 INTERMEDIATE AND SKILLED NURSING FACILITIES
Or. Admin. R. 309-048-0050 Statement of Purpose and Statutory Authority
(1) Purpose. These rules prescribe Division standards and procedures regarding the screening, evaluation and provision of specialized services to persons with mental illness who apply for or reside in Medicaid certified nursing facilities. They implement Public Law 100-203 of the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1987 that added Section 1919 to the Social Security Act.
(2) Statutory authority and procedure. These rules are authorized by ORS 413.042 and to carry out the provisions of ORS 410.535, 414.065 & 426.490 to 426.500 and Public Law 100-203.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 426.500
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 410.535, 414.065 & 426.490 to 426.500
- MHD 2-1995, f. & cert. ef. 4-6-95
Or. Admin. R. 309-048-0060 Definitions
As used in these rules:
(1) “Annual resident review” means the review of referrals from the annual resident screening process by designees of the Addictions and Mental Health Division. The purpose of the review is to determine the need for a Level II psychiatric evaluation.
(2) “Annual resident screening” means the annual screening by nursing facility staff of all residents for acute symptoms or indicators of mental illness.
(3) “Categorical determination” means a decision made by a contractor of the Aging and People with Disabilities Division (APD) based on a functional assessment. This determination identifies a person who, despite the presence of mental illness, can be admitted to a nursing facility. The categories are:
(a) Individuals requiring nursing facility care for 30 days or less for convalescent care following an acute care hospitalization for illness or surgery;
(b) Persons with terminal illness with a prognosis of six months or less; and
(c) Persons with severe medical condition that precludes participation in or benefit from specialized services.
(4) “Client Process Monitoring System (CPMS)” means the automated client data system maintained by the Division.
(5) “Community Mental Health Program (CMHP)” means the organization of all services for persons experiencing problems related to mental illness, drug and alcohol abuse, and mental retardation or other developmental disabilities, operated by, or contractually affiliated with, a local mental health authority operated in a specific geographic area of the state under an intergovernmental agreement or direct contract with the Division.
(6) “Determination” means the decision/recommendation made by a designee of the Division regarding an individual’s eligibility for Level II evaluation, i.e., presence of a serious mental illness and need for “specialized services” as required by Public Law 100-203. Determinations regarding an individual’s need for nursing facility services are the responsibility of the APD.
(7) “Division” means the Addictions and Mental Health Division of the Oregon Health Authority.
(8) “Indicators of mental illness — applicants.” Applicants to nursing facilities with a diagnosis of a major mental disorder and a history of treatment related to his diagnosis in the past two years are considered to have indicators of mental illness. Alzheimer’s and/or a diagnoses of dementia are excluded from this definition of major mental disorder.
(9) “Indicators of mental illness — residents.” Residents of nursing facilities with psychiatric or behavioral symptoms that indicate a need for “specialized services” are considered to have indicators of mental illness regardless of diagnosis or history of treatment.
(10) “Level I” means the federally required screening for indicators of mental illness process implemented by APD under OAR 411-070-0043. All applicants to nursing facilities are screened for indicators of mental illness and a determination made whether the applicant requires nursing facility care based on a functional assessment.
(11) “Level II” means the evaluation process conducted by designees of the Division to determine whether an individual with mental illness requires specialized services. The determination is based on a current functional assessment, history and physical, psychosocial evaluation, a mental health assessment and a medication review.
(12) “Level II summary” means the form approved by OMHS which identifies data to be collected by Division designees in the Level II evaluation.
(13) “Licensed medical professional” means a medically trained person who is licensed to practice in the State of Oregon and has one of the following degrees: MD (Medical Doctor); DO (Doctor of Osteopathy); NP (Nurse Practitioner); PA (Physician’s Assistant); or RN (Registered Nurse).
(14) “Nursing facility (NF)” means a facility that contains Medicaid certified inpatient beds and provides medical services but excludes hospital/surgical procedures. The facility must be licensed and certified by APD.
(15) “Office of Mental Health Services (OMHS)” means that portion of the Division responsible for mental health services.
(16) “Pre-admission screening (PAS)” is the state required process used by APD to screen all Medicaid eligible persons seeking admission to nursing facilities. This screening covers functional, medical, economic and psychosocial variables and is the basis for making a determination regarding the individual’s categorical status and his/her need for nursing facility services.
(17) “Pre-Admission Screening and Annual Resident Review (PASARR)” is the assessment process conducted by agencies within the Oregon Health Authority that implements the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1987 (Public Law 100-203), Subsection 1919(e)(7), which prohibits a Medicaid certified nursing facility from admitting any individual until a screening is completed to determine mental illness or mental retardation (or related conditions), and whether the individual requires nursing facility services or specialized services for mental illness.
(18) “Private admission assessment” is the process that APD uses to screen for indicators of mental illness and categorical status in non-Medicaid applicants to nursing facilities.
(19) “Qualified mental health professional (QMHP)” means a mental health practitioner with qualifications defined in OAR 309-032-1505.
(20) “Senior and Disabled Services Division (SDSD)” means the Oregon Health Authority agency responsible for the provision of nursing facility services as specified in OAR chapter 411.
(21) “Specialized psychiatric rehabilitative services” means services of a lesser intensity than required under specialized services for mental illness. The nursing facility may provide these services directly or make arrangements for their provision with private sector practitioners or community mental health programs.
(22) “Specialized services for mental illness” means the implementation of an individualized plan of care developed, provided and supervised by a physician and qualified mental health professionals in an inpatient psychiatric hospital. This plan of care shall prescribe specific therapies and activities for the treatment of persons who are experiencing an acute episode of severe mental illness. A nursing facility resident requiring specialized services shall be considered to be eligible for the level of services provided in an inpatient psychiatric hospital. Residents requiring this level of care will require relocation to an inpatient facility until the “acute” nature of their symptoms are stabilized.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 426.500
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 410.535, 414.065 & 426.490 to 426.500
- MHD 2-1995, f. & cert. ef. 4-6-95
Or. Admin. R. 309-048-0070 Procedures for Level I, Pre-Admission Screening (PAS)
(1) Nursing facility placement. A person identified with mental illness indicators who requests placement in a nursing facility must meet APD-PAS criteria demonstrating a need for nursing facility care. The person may be placed in a nursing facility without a Level II evaluation if the person:
(a) Meets criteria of categorical determinations OAR 309-048-0060; or
(b) Has a primary diagnosis of dementia; and
(c) Does not require specialized services OAR 309-048-0060(22).
(2) Level II referrals. Persons shall be referred to the Division for a Level II evaluation prior to placement in a nursing facility if:
(a) A Level I pre-admission screen or a private admission assessment has identified the individual as having indicators of mental illness; and
(b) The individual is not eligible for a categorical determination.
(3) Level II waiver. The Division may waive the Level II evaluation requirement if:
(a) The individual does not need specialized services or has received maximum benefit from specialized services; and
(b) The individual has been determined to be in need of nursing facility services by an APD designee or contractor; and
(c) A facility has been identified that can meet the individual’s mental health needs.
(4) Level II eligibility. Individuals may be required by he Division to have a Level II evaluation to determine the need for specialized services prior to placement in a nursing facility if any of the above conditions (subsections (3)(a), (b) and (c) of this rule) are not met.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 426.500
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 410.535, 414.065 & 426.490 to 426.500
- MHD 2-1995, f. & cert. ef. 4-6-95
Or. Admin. R. 309-048-0080 Procedures for Annual Resident Reviews (ARR)
A resident screened and referred by a nursing facility as having indicators of mental illness shall be reviewed by a Division designee using a format approved by the Division.
(1) Timelines. The review shall be completed by a QMHP within 7 working days of receipt of the referral from the nursing facility.
(2) Screening and consultation. The review shall consist of up to two hours of screening and consultation to determine if the indicators of mental illness require a comprehensive evaluation (Level II).
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 426.500
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 410.535, 414.065 & 426.490 to 426.500
- MHD 2-1995, f. & cert. ef. 4-6-95
Or. Admin. R. 309-048-0090 Level II Evaluations
(1) Content. A Level II evaluation shall:
(a) Be completed by a QMHP within 30 calendar days of the annual resident review referral or within seven working days of the pre-admission screening referral;
(b) Include a mental health assessment, a psychosocial evaluation, relevant testing and a review of the medication regime and physical examination by a licensed medical professional;
(c) Establish a diagnosis and determine the need for specialized services.
(2) Specialized psychiatric rehabilitation. If the need for specialized services is not established, the evaluation shall include treatment recommendations for specialized psychiatric rehabilitation services whenever indicated.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 426.500
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 410.535, 414.065 & 426.490 to 426.500
- MHD 2-1995, f. & cert. ef. 4-6-95
Or. Admin. R. 309-048-0100 Documentation
(1) Level II waivers. The Division shall send a copy of any waiver from the pre-admission requirement for a Level II, to the APD Level I screener who has determined that the individual needs nursing facility care pursuant to OAR 309-048-0060.
(2) Nursing facility. CMHP evaluators shall send copies of the annual resident review and Level II evaluation to the nursing facility within 7 and 30 days respectively.
(3) Division. CMHP evaluators shall send copies of the annual resident review, Level II evaluation and the Level II summary sheet to the OMHS within 30 days of receipt of the nursing facility referral.
(4) Client Process Monitoring System. CMHP designees shall enter information on all persons receiving a Level II evaluation into CPMS.
(5) Standards. Level II evaluations shall follow documentation standards set forth in OAR 309-032-1535.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 426.500
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 410.535, 414.065 & 426.490 to 426.500
- MHD 2-1995, f. & cert. ef. 4-6-95
Or. Admin. R. 309-048-0110 Specialized Services for Individuals Residing in Nursing Facilities
(1) Location. Specialized services for persons with mental illness are provided only in inpatient psychiatric settings that provide 24 hour coverage by trained mental health professionals who can deliver mental health services designed by an interdisciplinary team which includes a psychiatrist.
(2) Readmission to nursing facilities. A person identified by a Level II evaluation as in need of specialized services shall not enter or remain in a nursing facility. When a client has received maximum benefit from specialized services, the client can be reconsidered for admission subject to Level I requirements or return to a nursing facility placement subject to APD OAR 411-088-0000 to 411-088-0080, Licensing Requirements for Nursing Facilities, Transfer Rules.
(3) Procurement of specialized services. When a client is identified to be in need of specialized services, the Level II evaluator shall:
(a) Assist the nursing facility or Level I screener in locating an appropriate treatment resource;
(b) Insure that the client in need of specialized services is informed of his/her treatment options including the right to refuse treatment;
(c) Inform all parties involved, of procedures related to precommitment investigation, if the client refuses specialized services and presents a danger to self or others;
(d) Notify the Division within 72 hours if a client is determined to be in need of specialized services and these services are not being provided.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 426.500
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 410.535, 414.065 & 426.490 to 426.500
- MHD 2-1995, f. & cert. ef. 4-6-95
Or. Admin. R. 309-048-0120 Relocation of Persons with Mental Illness From Nursing Facilities to Other Residential Settings
(1) Coordination of Plans. CMHP, NF and APD staff shall coordinate relocation plans for residents of nursing facilities with mental illness found to be ineligible for nursing facility care.
(2) Right of return. All relocations of residents must comply with nursing facility transfer rules, division 88, OAR 411.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 426.500
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 410.535, 414.065 & 426.490 to 426.500
- MHD 2-1995, f. & cert. ef. 4-6-95
Or. Admin. R. 309-048-0130 Appeals
In accordance with ORS 413.042, adults with mental illness, and court approved legal guardians for individuals with mental illness, shall have the right to appeal decisions made by the Division based on screenings, admission waiver request, discharge and relocation plans.
(1) Appeals. Appeals shall be submitted to the Children, Adult and Families Division (CAF) Hearings Office and arrive there within 30 calendar days after receipt of the contested determination/decision.
(2) Negotiations. The CAF Division Hearings Office shall, when it deems appropriate, refer appealed decisions back to the Division for efforts to negotiate an agreement. If the Division is unable to negotiate an agreement within 10 working days, the Division will remand the appeal back to the CAF Hearings Office for final disposition.
(3) Hearings. The CAF Hearings Office shall convene a hearing in accordance with OAR 461-025-0300 through 461-025-0375, and reach a final determination on the appeal within ninety (90) days of the final day of the hearing.
(4) Determinations. All decisions of the CAF Hearing Office shall be final.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 426.500
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 410.535, 414.065 & 426.490 to 426.500
- MHD 2-1995, f. & cert. ef. 4-6-95
Division 60 REGISTRATION OF COMMUNITY-BASED STRUCTURED HOUSING FACILITIES
Or. Admin. R. 309-060-0100 Purpose and Scope
(1) These rules establish standards and procedures for the application, review, initial registration, and ongoing registration of Community-Based Structured Housing (CBSH) for provision of services and supports to individuals with mental, emotional, behavioral, or substance use disorders who reside in a CBSH facility pursuant to ORS 443.480 to 443.500.
(2) These rules do not apply or establish regulatory procedures for:
(a) Any facility operated by an institution of higher education;
(b) Any private room and board facility approved by an institution of higher education that has as a resident, a student, or an employee of the institution;
(c) Any private or nonprofit retirement facility that does not fall under the generally understood definition of a "room and board facility," a "boarding house," or a "boarding hotel" and where a majority of the residents are retirees;
(d) Any privately arranged housing the occupants of which may not be related by blood or marriage;
(e) Residential licensure under ORS 443.410 and 443.315;
(f) Programs defined under ORS 443.400;
(g) CBSH facilities that are licensed or registered under any other law of this state or city or county ordinance or regulation.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.032, ORS 413.042, ORS 413.085 & ORS 443.485
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 443.480 - 443.500 & ORS 443.991
- BHS 43-2023, amend filed 12/22/2023, effective 01/01/2024
- BHS 9-2018, adopt filed 04/16/2018, effective 04/16/2018
Or. Admin. R. 309-060-0105 Definitions
(1) "Abuse" has the meaning given in ORS 124.050, ORS 430.735, or as required by the law applicable to the agency investigating the allegations of abuse.
(2) "Administration of Medication" means the act of dispensing a resident’s medication, medical treatment, or naturopathic treatment to them. This includes dispensing a single dose of medication or multiple doses in a cassette or med minder.
(3) "Adult Foster Home (AFH)" means any home licensed by the Division of the Authority in which residential care is provided to five or fewer individuals who are not related to the provider by blood or marriage as described in ORS 443.705 through 443.825.
(4) "Applicant" means any current provider and any person or entity seeking a Letter of Registration for a CBSH who completes an application for registration.
(5) "Application for Registration" means an application form designed and distributed by the Division for the purpose of registering a CBSH.
(6) "Approved" means authorized or allowed by the Division.
(7) “Authority” means the Oregon Health Authority.
(8) "Care" means the performance of:
(a) Residential Care as defined in ORS 443.400 with exception to the provision of room and board;
(b) Training as defined in ORS 443.400; and
(c) Treatment as defined in ORS 443.400.
(9) “Community-based structured housing” means congregate housing where services and supports are provided by the owner or operator of the facility or staff of the facility to assist residents who have mental, emotional, behavioral or substance use disorders.
(10) "Community Mental Health Program (CMHP)" means the organization of all or a portion of services for individuals with mental health disorders, operated by or contractually affiliated with a local mental health authority. CMHP’s operate in a specific geographic area of the state under an intergovernmental agreement or direct contract with the Division.
(11) "Compensation" means payments or services provided by or on behalf of a person in exchange for other services provided by another person.
(12) "Compliance" means adherence to applicable administrative rules, statutes, contractual requirements, while not meeting one or more of the requirements, does not, in the determination of the Division:
(a) Constitute a danger to the health or safety of any resident;
(b) Constitute a willful, negligent, or ongoing violation of the rights of residents as set forth in administrative rules; or
(c) Prevent the accomplishment of the Division’s purposes in approving or supporting the subject service.
(13) “Congregate Housing” means housing in which each resident has a private or shared bedroom or living quarters and shares with other residents a dining room, recreational room, and other common areas.
(14) “Coordinated Care Organization (CCO)” means a corporation, governmental agency, public corporation, or other legal entity that is certified as meeting the criteria adopted by the Authority under ORS 414.625 to be accountable for care management and to provide integrated and coordinated health care for each of the CCO's members.
(15) “Director” means the Director of the Oregon Health Authority or that person’s designee.
(16) “Disability” means a physical or mental impairment that for the resident constitutes or results in a functional limitation to one or more major life activities.
(17) "Division" means the Health Systems Division of the Oregon Health Authority or its designee.
(18) "Facility Manager" means a person employed by the provider who is responsible for the daily operation and management of the CBSH facility. The facility manager may or may not reside at the CBSH facility.
(19) "Failure to Comply" means a determined lack of compliance with applicable administrative rules, statutes, contractual requirements, and other applicable regulations.
(20) “Fee” means a nonrefundable payment of money.
(21) “Letter of Registration” means the document or documents issued by the Division to a provider after successfully completing the application process, which identifies and declares registration of a CBSH pursuant to these rules.
(22) "Living Accommodations" means residential facilities that include a place to sleep and common living areas.
(23) “Management of Medication” means the activity on the part of a provider to physically control or otherwise limit a resident’s access to personal medications.
(24) "Meals" means the provision of food by the CBSH for the consumption of residents one or more times per day.
(25) "Medication" means any drug, chemical, compound, suspension, or preparation in suitable form for use as a curative or remedial substance either internally or externally by any person.
(26) “Medication Support” means the provision on the part of the provider of reminders to self-administer medications, assistance with navigating pharmacies, and assistance navigating insurance related to medications.
(27) "Mental or Emotional Disorder" means a primary DSM diagnosis, other than an intellectual disability or a substance use disorder that limits a resident's ability to perform activities of daily living.
(28) “Oregon Health Authority (Authority)” means the agency established in ORS Chapter 413 that administers the funds for Titles XIX and XXI of the Social Security Act. It is the single state agency for the administration of the medical assistance program under ORS chapter 414. For purposes of these rules, the agencies under the authority of the Oregon Health Authority are the Public Health Division and the Health Systems Division.
(29) “Owner” includes a mortgagee in possession and means one or more persons, jointly or severally, in whom is vested:
(a) All or part of the legal title to property; or
(b) All or part of the beneficial ownership and a right to present use and enjoyment of the premises.
(30) “Program Staff” means an employee or contracted individual with a CBSH who provides services and supports to a resident.
(31) "Provider" means a person, partnership, corporation, or other organizational entity who owns or operates a CBSH facility.
(32) "Privately Arranged Housing" means the voluntary sharing of living accommodations and common expenses between two or more individuals in a residence or apartment that does not offer such accommodations to the general public.
(33) “Rent” means any payment to be made to the landlord under the rental agreement, periodic or otherwise, in exchange for the right of a tenant and any permitted pet to occupy a dwelling unit to the exclusion of others and to use the premises. Rent does not include security deposits, fees, or utility or service charges as described in ORS 90.315 and 90.532.
(34) “Rental Agreement” means all agreements, written or oral, and valid rules and regulations adopted under ORS 90.262 and 90.510 embodying the terms and conditions concerning the use and occupancy of a dwelling unit and premises. Rental agreement includes a lease. A rental agreement shall be either a week-to-week tenancy, month-to-month tenancy, or fixed-term tenancy.
(35) “Resident” means an adult with a mental, emotional, behavioral, or substance use disorder resulting in a disability as defined in ORS 443.480 who:
(a) Is living in a CBSH registered with the Division and operated by a provider unrelated to the person by blood or marriage;
(b) Has a legally enforceable rental agreement with the provider of CBSH;
(c) Receives living accommodations and non-care related tasks in a CBSH; or
(d) Is seeking or applying to live in a CBSH.
(36) “Residential Care” means services such as supervision; protection; assistance while bathing, dressing, grooming, or eating; management of money; transportation; recreation; and the provision of room and board.
(37) "Rights" means civil, legal, or human rights guaranteed by federal and state law and afforded to all persons.
(38) "Self-administration of Medication" means the act of a resident placing a medication in or on the resident’s own body.
(39) “Services and supports” means living accommodations and services, other than treatment, such as housekeeping, laundry, medication support, transportation, or recreational opportunities.
(40) “Treatment” means a planned, individualized program of medical, psychological, or rehabilitative procedures, experiences, and activities designed to relieve or minimize mental, emotional, physical, or other symptoms or social, educational, or vocational disabilities resulting from or related to the mental or emotional disturbance, physical disability, or alcohol or drug problem.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.032, ORS 413.042, ORS 413.085 & ORS 443.485
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 443.480 - 443.500 & ORS 443.991
- BHS 43-2023, amend filed 12/22/2023, effective 01/01/2024
- BHS 9-2018, adopt filed 04/16/2018, effective 04/16/2018
Or. Admin. R. 309-060-0110 Letter of Registration Required
(1) The owner or operator of a CBSH facility offered to the general public must register with the Division if the facility:
(a) Provides congregate housing, services, and supports as defined by ORS 443.480, and
(b) Is not licensed or registered under any other law of this state or city or county ordinance or regulation.
(2) Any provider operating CBSH prior to July 1, 2024, must submit a completed application for registration within 30 days following notification by the Division of requirement to become registered. All persons who wish to begin operation of a CBSH on or after July 1, 2024, must submit a completed application for registration prior to accepting residents. Upon finding the applicant is in substantial compliance with these rules, the Division shall issue a Letter of Registration for the CBSH.
(3) If a provider operates more than one CBSH, each facility must be registered separately with the Division.
(4) No Letter of Registration that has been issued to a provider for the operation of a CBSH for a given location shall be valid for use by any other provider or at any facility other than that for which it was issued.
(5) When a CBSH is to be sold or otherwise transferred to another operator, the new operator must apply for and obtain a new Letter of Registration prior to the transfer or operation of the CBSH.
(6) A Letter of Registration is valid for one year unless revoked, suspended, or voluntarily relinquished at an earlier date.
(7) Any CBSH providing residential care or treatment as defined under ORS 443.400 and OAR 309-060-0105 may be subject to residential licensing under OAR chapter 309, division 35, or OAR chapter 309, division 40.
(8) Upon discovery that a CBSH may be operating in a manner such that they can meet the definition of a residential care facility, residential facility, residential training facility, residential training home, residential treatment facility, or residential treatment home defined under ORS 443.400, the Division may notify the provider in writing of the Division’s plan to conduct an inspection to determine if licensure is required.
(9) If the Division believes any CBSH facility is operating without registration or is in violation of ORS 443.480 to 443.500, the Division may apply to the circuit court for a search warrant. If the Division finds that a CBSH is operating without a registration, the Division shall impose a civil penalty not to exceed $5,000.
(10) Any CBSH that fails to comply with these rules must be issued a notice of intent to revoke registration and have hearing rights under ORS chapter 183.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.032, ORS 413.042, ORS 413.085 & ORS 443.485
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 443.480 - 443.500 & ORS 443.991
- BHS 43-2023, amend filed 12/22/2023, effective 01/01/2024
- BHS 9-2018, adopt filed 04/16/2018, effective 04/16/2018
Or. Admin. R. 309-060-0115 Waiver of Registration Requirement
(1) Any CBSH that is required to be registered or licensed under another governmental entity’s standards that are substantially similar or superior to those under ORS 443.480 to 443.500 and these rules may request a waiver of the requirements of ORS 443.485. Such a request shall be made in writing to the Division and shall include:
(a) A copy of the other governmental entity’s standards; and
(b) An explanation of why they believe that the standards are substantially similar or superior to the requirements of ORS 443.480 to 443.500 and these rules.
(2) If the Division finds that the requirements of the other governmental entity’s standards are substantially similar or superior to ORS 443.480 to 443.500 and these rules, it can issue a waiver:
(a) All waivers shall be in writing and signed by the Division; and
(b) All approved waivers can be reviewed by the Division upon amendment of the local ordinance or regulation or upon amendment of ORS 443.480 to 443.500 or these rules.
(3) If the Division finds that the local requirements are not substantially similar or superior to ORS 443.480 to 443.500 and these rules, the Division may issue a written order to the CBSH denying the request for a waiver.
(4) When a CBSH falls within the jurisdiction of both the Division and the Department of Human Services (Department), the Department Director and the Oregon Health Authority Director shall determine the agency responsible for registering the facility.
(5) A Division approved waiver must be reviewed at least once every five years.
(6) The Division must waive any reporting requirements or review processes for facilities regulated by federal agencies where The Division’s requirements duplicate the reporting requirements or review processes imposed by the federal agency.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.032, ORS 413.042, ORS 413.085 & ORS 443.485
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 443.480 - 443.500 & ORS 443.991
- BHS 43-2023, amend filed 12/22/2023, effective 01/01/2024
- BHS 9-2018, adopt filed 04/16/2018, effective 04/16/2018
Or. Admin. R. 309-060-0120 Terms of Registration
(1) Each applicant agrees as a term of registration:
(a) The capacity of the CBSH facility must not exceed the maximum occupancy allowed under applicable building and fire codes;
(b) The provider and other employees of a CBSH must not abuse any resident and must exercise reasonable precautions against any other conditions that threaten the health, safety, or welfare of residents;
(c) To permit the Division immediate entry to inspect the facility where the provider intends to operate or currently operates a CBSH to verify information contained in the application, investigate a complaint of abuse, or to ensure compliance with all applicable rules, statutes, ordinances, or regulations:
(A) If an investigation finds a violation of these rules, the Division shall notify the provider in writing. The notice of violation shall include:
(i) A description of each violation; and
(ii) A specific time frame for correction, not to exceed 30 days after receipt of the notice.
(B) The Division may conduct an inspection of the facility after the date the Division receives the notice of correction or after the date by which violations shall be corrected as specified in the notice of violation.
(d) To permit the Division to inspect, audit, assess, and collect data or copies from all records maintained by the provider;
(e) To permit access to state and local fire inspectors and state and local health officers for inspection of CBSH providers regarding fire safety;
(f) To permit any resident, resident’s representative or guardian, or an employee of the CBSH to file a complaint with the provider, the resident’s managed care plan, or the Division and to maintain a record of all complaints received and any action taken;
(g) A CBSH may not retaliate against any residents, resident’s representative or guardian, or employee(s) who file a complaint or any witness or employee of a facility interviewed about a complaint, including but not limited to retaliation by restriction of a resident’s otherwise lawful access to the facility and, with respect to an employee, retaliation by dismissal or harassment; and
(h) To post the Letter of Registration in a common area of each approved CBSH and be available for inspection at all times.
(2) Letters of Registration pursuant to these rules do not create an express or implied contract in the absence of a fully executed rental agreement.
(3) Letters of Registration are not transferable to any other person, provider, or CBSH.
(4) The Division may not discriminate in its review procedures or services on the basis of race, color, national origin, sex, sexual orientation, age, or disability.
(5) The provider must consider an individual for admission without regard to race, color, sex or sexual orientation, except as may be limited by room arrangement, religion, creed, national origin, age, except under 18 years, familial status, marital status, source of income, or disability in addition to the mental health disorder.
(6) A Letter of Registration is void immediately:
(a) Upon voluntary closure of a CBSH;
(b) When the CBSH changes majority or controlling ownership; or
(c) Upon a provider’s failure to timely submit an application for registration renewal pursuant to these rules.
(7) Residents shall be allowed to exercise all civil and human rights afforded including, but not limited to: voting, privacy, and sending and receiving unopened mail.
(8) Providers and other employees of a CBSH must make reasonable efforts to refer residents in need of care to appropriate social service agencies to include the appropriate Community Mental Health Program (CMHP) and the Coordinated Care Organization (CCO) if they are enrolled, and to medical facilities as appropriate.
(9) When the provider is also certified by the Division to provide outpatient behavioral health treatment services under OAR chapter 309, division 008, the provider may provide behavioral health treatment within the scope of the certification to residents residing in the CBSH:
(a) These services shall be organizationally distinct and provided by qualified clinicians not employed by or stationed at the CBSH facility; and
(b) Prior to the provision of behavioral health treatment to residents, the provider shall obtain documentation that the resident was informed of their option to receive behavioral health treatment services from a provider organizationally distinct from the provider of CBSH.
(10) Providers of CBSH are prohibited from exceeding the level of care allowable by these rules and functionally operating a Residential Treatment Home, Residential Treatment Facility, or an Adult Foster Home as defined under ORS 443.400 and ORS 443.705 and OAR Chapter 309, Division 35 or OAR Chapter 309, Division 40.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.032, ORS 413.042, ORS 413.085 & ORS 443.485
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 443.480 - 443.500 & ORS 443.991
- BHS 43-2023, amend filed 12/22/2023, effective 01/01/2024
- BHS 9-2018, adopt filed 04/16/2018, effective 04/16/2018
Or. Admin. R. 309-060-0125 Application for Initial Registration and Renewal Registration
(1) Application for a Letter of Registration, including renewal registration, must be submitted by the applicant in writing on the forms furnished by the Division that are legible and complete and in the manner specified by the Division. Applications must include:
(a) A description of the facility in or upon which the applicant proposes to operate a CBSH;
(b) Signed attestation by the applicant that all applicable rules for the provision of a CBSH facility shall be met and maintained in compliance with applicable rules and any variances granted by the Division;
(c) A copy of all policies and procedures the proposed facility will operate under including, but not limited to:
(A) Referrals of residents to the CMHP, a CCO, or other agencies as part of the resident’s treatment needs.
(B) A list of house rules to be followed by residents and program staff.
(C) Emergency and Disaster response policies.
(D) Abuse and Grievance reporting policies.
(E) Eviction policies and procedures.
(d) The maximum number of residents who must reside at the CBSH;
(e) The number of bedrooms, apartment units, or single room occupancy units;
(f) The name, address, telephone number, and email address of the applicant;
(g) The names, addresses, telephone numbers, and email address of any partner, corporate officer, entities, or other persons having an ownership interest in the CBSH and the percent ownership corresponding to each;
(h) The name, address, telephone number, and email address of the facility manager, if applicable;
(i) The qualifications and documentation of training requirements for the applicant, facility manager if not the applicant, and each program staff;
(j) A description of each of the services and supports the provider shall offer to residents;
(k) A copy of the applicant’s current rental agreement; and
(l) Copies of all approved criminal history checks for all persons involved in the operation of the CBSH and who have contact with the residents, as required in OAR 407-007-0200 through 407-007-0370.
(2) The registration fee shall be $20 per year, per CBSH, paid via check or money order to Health Systems Division and shall accompany the application.
(3) The application is not complete until all required forms, information, and application fees are received by the Division.
(4) If the Division receives a complete application for renewal 90 calendar days prior to the expiration date listed on the Letter of Registration, the Letter of Registration may not be deemed to have expired until the Division completes its review of the renewal application and either issues a new Letter of Registration or denies the application.
(5) If the Division does not receive a complete application for renewal prior to the expiration listed on the Letter of Registration, the Letter of Registration shall expire on the date listed on the Letter of Registration, and the CBSH must be considered un-registered.
(6) Applicants who fail to submit a complete application shall be notified by the Division. The notification shall identify the components required to complete the application. The Division’s notification may also identify the due date by which a completed application shall be received by the Division.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.195, ORS 181.200, ORS 413.032, ORS 413.042, ORS 413.085 & ORS 443.485
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 443.480 - 443.500 & ORS 443.991
- BHS 43-2023, amend filed 12/22/2023, effective 01/01/2024
- BHS 9-2018, adopt filed 04/16/2018, effective 04/16/2018
Or. Admin. R. 309-060-0130 Issuance of a Letter of Registration
(1) Upon receipt of a completed application the Division must:
(a) Review the application to determine compliance with these rules.
(b) Request any additional information or documentation that may be necessary to determine compliance with these rules.
(c) Conduct a review of the physical setting to determine compliance with OAR 309-060-0155.
(2) Upon completion of the reviews described above, the Division must issue a Letter of Registration to an applicant that is found to be in compliance with the requirements of these rules.
(3) The Letter of Registration must include:
(a) The name and address of the provider of the CBSH;
(b) The name and address of the CBSH;
(c) The maximum number of residents who can reside at the CBSH;
(d) The effective date and expiration date of the registration; and
(e) Any variances granted by the Division.
(4) If a CBSH is not registered with the Division, the provider may not advertise, represent, or imply that the CBSH is registered with the Division.
(5) The Division, in its discretion, may grant a variance to these rules based upon a demonstration by the applicant or provider that an alternative method or different approach provides equal or greater program effectiveness and does not adversely impact the welfare, health, or safety of individuals:
(a) The provider seeking a variance must submit in writing an application to the Division that identifies the section of the rules from which the variance is sought, the reason for the proposed variance, and the proposed alternative method or different approach.
(b) The director or designee must review and approve or deny the request for a variance;
(c) The Division must notify the provider of the decision in writing within 30 days after receipt of the request. A variance may be implemented only after receipt of written approval from the Division;
(d) The provider may appeal the denial of a variance request by submitting a request for reconsideration in writing to the Division's Director or designee. The Director or designee must make a decision within 30 days of receipt of the appeal. The decision of the Director shall be final; and
(e) A variance must be reviewed by the Division at least every year and may be revoked or suspended based upon a finding that the variance adversely impacts the welfare, health, or safety of the individuals.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.032, ORS 413.042, ORS 413.085 & ORS 443.485
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 443.480 - 443.500 & ORS 443.991
- BHS 43-2023, amend filed 12/22/2023, effective 01/01/2024
- BHS 9-2018, adopt filed 04/16/2018, effective 04/16/2018
Or. Admin. R. 309-060-0135 Denial of Applications
(1) Upon receipt of a completed application, the Division can deny the application if:
(a) The applicant or facility manager, if applicable, does not have an approved background check , as required in OAR 407-007-0200 through 407-007-0370.
(b) The applicant is associated with any persons whose registration or license for a CBSH, a foster home, residential care facility, residential treatment facility, or residential treatment home licensed by any state entity was denied, suspended, revoked, or not renewed due to abuse of a resident or a threat to the health and safety of a resident within three years preceding the application, unless the applicant or provider can demonstrate to the Division by clear and convincing evidence that the person does not pose a threat to the residents;
(c) The applicant fails to demonstrate compliance with these rules; or
(d) The applicant has previously had any letter of registration, certification, or license denied, suspended, or revoked by the Division or the Department.
(2) An applicant is "associated with" a person as described in subsection (1)(b) of this rule if the applicant:
(a) Resides with the person;
(b) Employs the person in the CBSH;
(c) Receives financial backing from the person for the benefit of the facility;
(d) Receives managerial assistance from the person for the benefit of the facility; or
(e) Knowingly allows the person to have access to the facility.
(3) When an application for a Letter of Registration is denied, the applicant is entitled to an appeal review with the Division as follows:
(a) The applicant must submit a written request for the appeal review to the Division within seven calendar days of the receipt of the notice of denial;
(b) The Division must conduct an appeal review meeting within 30 days of receipt of the written request;
(c) If no written request for a hearing is received within seven calendar days of receipt of the notice of denial or the Division upholds the denial, the notice of denial shall become final, the application closed, and a notice of the appeal review outcome mailed to the applicant.
(4) If the Division overturns the denial, the Division shall issue a notice to the applicant within seven calendar days. The notice shall inform the applicant of the outcome of their appeal hearing and either:
(a) Include an approved Letter of Registration per these rules; or
(b) Provide a notation of required amendment to application materials and a timeframe for re-submission of the application.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.195, ORS 181.200, ORS 413.032, ORS 413.042, ORS 413.085 & ORS 443.485
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 443.480 - 443.500 & ORS 443.991
- BHS 43-2023, amend filed 12/22/2023, effective 01/01/2024
- BHS 9-2018, adopt filed 04/16/2018, effective 04/16/2018
Or. Admin. R. 309-060-0140 Denial, Suspension, Revocation, or Refusal to Renew Registration
(1) The Division may deny, suspend, revoke, or refuse to renew a registration when it finds:
(a) There has been failure to comply with these rules or with local codes and ordinances;
(b) The CBSH is providing residential care or treatment as defined under these rules or meeting the definition of an Adult Foster Home, Residential Treatment Home, or Residential Treatment Facility as defined in ORS 443.400;
(c) A provider or an employee or agent of the provider fails to allow access or inspection by an authorized representative of the Division;
(d) The provider submits fraudulent or untrue information to the Division;
(e) The provider fails to comply with a variance granted by the Division; or
(f) There is a threat to the health, safety, and wellbeing of a resident in the CBSH or there are substantiations of abuse of a resident.
(2) The provider may request a review of the decision by submitting a request in writing to the Division within ten days of the notice and order of denial, suspension, revocation, or refusal to renew registration.
(3) Within ten days of receipt of the provider’s request for a review, the Division shall review all available materials, including any written documentation submitted by the provider within that time frame. The Division shall determine, based on a review of the material, whether to sustain the decision. If the Division overturns the decision to deny, suspend, revoke, or refuse to renew the Letter of Registration, the notice or order shall be rescinded.
(4) An order of denial, suspension, revocation, or refusal to renew may be appealed subject to a contested case hearing under ORS 183.310 to 183.550 if requested within 90 days of the date the order of suspension was signed or 90 days of the date that the Division sustained its decision after review under this subsection, whichever comes later.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.032, ORS 413.042, ORS 413.085 & ORS 443.485
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 443.480 - 443.500 & ORS 443.991
- BHS 9-2018, adopt filed 04/16/2018, effective 04/16/2018
Or. Admin. R. 309-060-0145 Rental Agreement
(1) Prior to accepting compensation from any resident, the provider and the individual seeking residence at the CBSH shall both enter into a rental agreement.
(2) The rental agreement must include:
(a) A list of services and supports to be offered to the resident;
(b) If meals are provided by the operator of the CBSH, a description of the frequency and times at which meals are provided and provisions for missed meals;
(c) House rules, including any restrictions or limitations on the use of legal substances such as tobacco, alcohol, and cannabis;
(d) Provisions for the documentation of all compensation received from a resident and a record of all compensation paid to a resident; and
(e) If the resident chooses to have the provider act as representative payee for the payment of the resident’s Social Security benefits, the rental agreement shall indicate this choice.
(3) The rental agreement must comply with ORS chapters 90 “Residential Landlord and Tenant” and 91 “Tenancy”.
(4) Nothing in the rental agreement must conflict with ORS 443.880 and 443.881.
(5) The provider shall maintain a record of the original signed rental agreement for each resident and provide a copy of the rental agreement to each resident.
(6) The rental agreement may not contain any promise to provide any services and supports that fall within the definition of care specified in these rules.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.032, ORS 413.042, ORS 413.085 & ORS 443.485
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 443.480 - 443.500 & ORS 443.991
- BHS 43-2023, amend filed 12/22/2023, effective 01/01/2024
- BHS 9-2018, adopt filed 04/16/2018, effective 04/16/2018
Or. Admin. R. 309-060-0150 Program Staff Requirements
(1) The provider must maintain one or more program staff for every sixteen residents.
(a) The provider must take appropriate steps to hire program staff that are culturally and linguistically appropriate for the population served by the CBSH.
(b) Program staff are not required to live on premises.
(c) The provider is not required to maintain staffing 24 hours a day.
(d) The provider must notify residents in writing of the hours and days that program staff will be on-site and/or on duty.
(2) The applicant, facility manager if applicable, and each program staff must pass criminal records check in accordance with OAR chapter 943, division 007 prior to providing any services and supports to a resident.
(3) Providers, facility managers if applicable, and program staff may not provide any services and supports to any resident prior to acquiring documented education, experience, or receiving supervised training designed to impart the basic knowledge and skills necessary to maintain the health, safety, and welfare of residents with mental health or substance use disorders. Necessary skills or topics must include but may not be limited to:
(a) Physical caregiving;
(b) Screening for care and service needs;
(c) Appropriate behavior towards residents with physical, cognitive, and emotional disabilities;
(d) Emergency procedures;
(e) Medication support;
(f) If the CBSH facility provides meals to residents, meal planning, food preparation and storage;
(g) Issues related to architectural accessibility;
(h) Mandatory abuse reporting; and
(i) In-Person First Aid and CPR Training.
(4) Facility managers:
(a) If a provider employs a facility manager and that person leaves during the period of the registration, the provider must notify the Division immediately and identify a plan for providing services and supports to the residents; and
(b) If a facility manager starts employment during the time period of registration, the provider shall submit to the Division the new facility manager’s name, address, telephone number, email address, and approved criminal records check within 14 calendar days of the hire date.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.032, ORS 413.042, ORS 413.085 & ORS 443.485
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 443.480 - 443.500 & ORS 443.991
- BHS 43-2023, amend filed 12/22/2023, effective 01/01/2024
- BHS 9-2018, adopt filed 04/16/2018, effective 04/16/2018
Or. Admin. R. 309-060-0155 Facility Standards
Each facility must meet the following standards for the protection of residents:
(1) Each facility must meet applicable local zoning and building codes and state and local fire, sanitary, and safety regulations.
(2) Each bedroom must:
(a) Be adequately ventilated, heated, and lighted and have an outside window;
(b) Be separate from the operator, members of the operator's family, or other employees;
(c) Have adequate space for bed and personal belongings;
(d) Have at least 70 square feet of usable floor space for each resident or 120 square feet for two residents.
(3) A telephone must be available for use by residents for the purpose of making and receiving phone calls. A listing of emergency telephone numbers, including the numbers of the local police, fire department, ambulance, and the Division must be placed in plain view on or next to the telephone.
(4) Bathing and toilet areas must be private, clean, in good repair, and must be accessible at all times. There must be adequate supplies of toilet paper and soap for each bathroom.
(5) Fire Safety:
(a) An emergency evacuation procedure must be developed, posted, and rehearsed with occupants. A record must be maintained of evacuation drills. Drills must be scheduled at different times of the day and on different days of the week with different locations designated as the origin of the fire for drill purposes:
(A) Drills must be held at least every six months;
(B) All occupants in the home at the time of the evacuation drills must participate in the evacuation drills;
(C) The Record of the evacuation drill must include:
(i) The identity of the individual conducting the drill;
(ii) The date and time of the drill;
(iii) Notification method used to alert occupants;
(iv) Names of employees on duty and participating;
(v) Number of occupants evacuated;
(vi) Any special conditions simulated;
(vii) A note on any problems encountered during the drill;
(viii) A note of the weather conditions during evacuation;
(ix) The time required to accomplish a complete evacuation;
(b) The provider must provide to the Division, maintain as current, and post a floor plan on each floor containing room sizes, location of each resident's bed, fire exits, facility manager or provider's sleeping room, smoke detectors, fire extinguishers and escape routes. A copy of this drawing must be submitted with the application and updated to reflect any change;
(c) The provider must train all program staff in staff safety procedures prior to beginning their first regular shift. All residents must be trained in individual safety procedures as soon as possible during their first 72 hours of residency.
(d) There must be at least one plug-in rechargeable flashlight available for emergency lighting in a readily accessible area on each floor including a basement.
(e) A written disaster plan must be developed to cover such emergencies and disasters as fires, explosions, missing persons, accidents, earthquakes, and floods. The plan must be posted by the phone and immediately available to the employees.
(f) All stairways, halls, doorways, passageways, and exits from rooms and from the home must be unobstructed.
(g) At least one 2A-10BC rated fire extinguisher must be in a visible and readily accessible location on each floor, including basements, and shall be inspected at least once a year by a qualified worker that is well versed in fire extinguisher maintenance. All recharging and hydrostatic testing shall be completed by a qualified agency properly trained and equipped for this purpose;
(h) Approved smoke detector systems or smoke alarms must be installed according to Oregon Residential Specialty Code and Oregon Fire Code requirements. These alarms shall be tested during each evacuation drill. The provider must provide approved signal devices for residents with disabilities who do not respond to the standard auditory alarms. All of these devices must be inspected and maintained in accordance with the requirements of the State Fire Marshal or local agency having jurisdiction. Ceiling placement of smoke alarms or detectors is recommended. Alarms shall be equipped with a device that warns of low battery when battery operated. All smoke detectors and alarms must be maintained in functional condition;
(i) First aid supplies must be readily accessible to residents and staff. All supplies shall be properly labeled.
(j) Facilities must be equipped with carbon monoxide alarms within 15 feet of all bedrooms. All carbon monoxide alarms shall be in working order.
(6) Units must be on ground level for residents who are non-ambulatory or have impaired mobility and in accordance with building code and fair housing law.
(7) Facilities must follow recommendations of the local fire department and State Fire Marshal. The Division can request an inspection for fire safety upon receipt of a complaint regarding a facility.
(8) The building and furnishings in common areas must be clean and in good repair and grounds must be maintained. There must be no accumulation of garbage, debris, rubbish, or offensive odors.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.032, ORS 413.042, ORS 413.085 & ORS 443.485
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 443.480 - 443.500 & ORS 443.991
- BHS 43-2023, amend filed 12/22/2023, effective 01/01/2024
- BHS 9-2018, adopt filed 04/16/2018, effective 04/16/2018
Or. Admin. R. 309-060-0160 Food Services
(1) If meals are provided by the operator of the CBSH, meals must be served at the frequency and times described in the rental agreement and be planned and served in accordance with the recommended dietary guidelines found in the United States Department of Agriculture, Center for Nutrition Policy and Promotion:
(a) The provider must consider resident preferences and requests in menu planning and reasonably accommodate dietary or religious restrictions; and
(b) The provider must support residents who for health reasons are on modified or special diets. These diets shall be planned in consultation with the resident.
(c) The operator of the CBSH is not required to comply with section 1 of this rule if they are not providing meals to the residents of the CBSH.
(2) The provider must maintain a one-week supply of shelf-stable foods and a two days’ supply of perishable foods on site that is sufficient to feed residents in the event of an emergency.
(3) An emergency supply of potable water must be available such that the provider maintains seven gallons of water per resident.
(4) Food preparation areas must be clean, free of obnoxious odors, and in good repair.
(5) Food storage areas and equipment shall be such that food is protected from dirt and contamination.
(6) All refrigerators and freezers must have a thermometer in working order and must be maintained at 45 degrees Fahrenheit or less for refrigeration and at 0 - degree Fahrenheit or less for freezer space.
(7) Poisonous or toxic materials:
(a) Must be stored separately from food, equipment, or utensils and prominently and distinctly labelled for easy identification of contents; and
(b) May not be used in a way that contaminates food equipment or utensils, nor used in a way that constitutes a hazard to employees or residents.
(8) Equipment shall be maintained in a safe and sanitary manner:
(a) Utensils, dishes, and glassware shall be maintained in a sufficient number to accommodate the registered capacity of the CBSH; and
(b) Utensils, dishes, and glassware shall be washed in hot soapy water, rinsed, and stored to prevent contamination. A dishwasher with sanitation cycle is recommended.
(9) Employees or residents engaged in food handling shall observe sanitary methods, including hand washing as appropriate.
(10) Employees or residents with diseases that can be transmitted by foods may not be assigned to food handling duties, but may still prepare their own meals.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.032, ORS 413.042, ORS 413.085 & ORS 443.485
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 443.480 - 443.500 & ORS 443.991
- BHS 43-2023, amend filed 12/22/2023, effective 01/01/2024
- BHS 9-2018, adopt filed 04/16/2018, effective 04/16/2018
Or. Admin. R. 309-060-0165 Administration of Medication
(1) Medication may not be dispensed or administered by CBSH staff. Medication may only be self-administered by the resident prescribed the medication.
(2) CBSH staff may provide medication support to a resident in the self-administration of medication provided that the resident requests such assistance.
(3) Medications prescribed for one resident may not be administered to or self-administered by another resident or CBSH program staff.
(4) No prescription drugs shall be stored in common areas of the CBSH facility.
(5) Self-Administered medications must be stored securely in the residents room to whom the medication is prescribed.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.032, ORS 413.042, ORS 413.085 & ORS 443.485
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 443.480 - 443.500 & ORS 443.991
- BHS 43-2023, amend filed 12/22/2023, effective 01/01/2024
- BHS 9-2018, adopt filed 04/16/2018, effective 04/16/2018
Or. Admin. R. 309-060-0170 Criminal and Civil Penalties
(1) The Division may impose civil penalties, not to exceed $5,000 for each occurrence for:
(a) Any CBHS operating without registration as required by these rules; or
(b) Any CBSH in violation of ORS 443.880 or 443.881.
(2) The notice must be sent by certified mail and include:
(a) A reference to the particular sections of the statute, rule, ordinance, or regulation imposed;
(b) A short and plain statement of the matters asserted or charged;
(c) A statement of the amount of the penalty or penalties imposed; and
(d) A statement of the right to request a hearing.
(3) The person to whom the notice is addressed shall have ten calendar days from receipt of the notice in which to make written request for a hearing.
(4) All hearings must be conducted according to the applicable provisions of ORS 183.
(5) Unless the penalty is paid within ten days after the order becomes final, the order constitutes a judgement and may be recorded by the County Clerk that becomes a lien upon the title to any interest in real property owned by the person.
(6) Civil penalties are subject to judicial review under ORS 183.480.
(7) All penalties recovered under ORS 443.480 to 443.500 shall be paid into the State Treasury and credited to the General Fund.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.032, ORS 413.042, ORS 413.05 & ORS 413.485
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 443.480 - 443.500 & ORS 443.991
- BHS 43-2023, amend filed 12/22/2023, effective 01/01/2024
- BHS 9-2018, adopt filed 04/16/2018, effective 04/16/2018
Division 65 CULTURALLY AND LINGUISTICALLY SPECIFIC BEHAVIORAL HEALTH SERVICES(CLSS)
Or. Admin. R. 309-065-0000 Purpose and Scope
(1) These rules establish processes and procedures for outpatient behavioral health providers and residential substance use disorder (SUD) providers, delivering services that are culturally and linguistically specific, to receive enhanced payment for patients on the Oregon Health Plan. Organizations, programs and individuals that are reimbursed outside OHP's fee schedule for behavioral health services such as but not limited to Federally Qualified Health Centers (FQHC), Rural Health Clinics (RHC), and Indian Health Care Providers (IHCPs) are not eligible for enhanced fee schedule reimbursement because these services are reimbursed at a clinic-specific encounter rate. There is a small subsection of services that are outside of this clinic-specific encounter rate that are eligible to receive the enhanced payment.
(2) Whether or not an organization, program or individual qualifies for enhanced payments through this program, all providers of behavioral health services are encouraged to provide culturally and linguistically specific services if they have that expertise.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: HB 5202 (2021)
- BHS 2-2025, amend filed 02/27/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- BHS 13-2023, adopt filed 05/23/2023, effective 05/30/2023
- BHS 21-2022, temporary adopt filed 12/02/2022, effective 12/02/2022 through 05/30/2023
Or. Admin. R. 309-065-0010 Definitions
(1) “Culturally and linguistically specific behavioral health services” means quality mental health, substance use, problem gambling, and other behavioral health prevention, treatment, and recovery supports and services that are designed specifically for a distinct minoritized cultural community, developed based on the languages used and cultural values of the distinct minoritized cultural community and designed to elevate their voices and experiences, and that have the aim of enhancing emotional safety, belonging, and a shared collective cultural experience for healing and recovery among the distinct cultural community served.
(2) “Culturally and linguistically specific behavioral health organization “means an outpatient entity or institution that is structured to provide culturally and linguistically specific behavioral health services in its entirety as evidenced by its organizational mission.
(3) “Culturally and linguistically specific behavioral health program” means a division or associated component of an organization that provides culturally and linguistically specific behavioral health services as evidenced by the program mission, that exists within the subset of services provided by an organization whose mission does not focus on a distinct minoritized community.
(4) “Culturally and linguistically specific behavioral health individual provider” means an independently licensed and Medicaid eligible clinician that provides culturally and linguistically specific behavioral health services, and is in private practice rather than employed by an agency.
(5) “Minoritized cultural community” is a community that has experienced historical and contemporary discrimination and oppression primarily on the basis of race, ethnicity, gender identity, sexual and affectional orientation, ability status, and/or migration history.
(6) “Substance Use Disorders Treatment and Recovery Services” means outpatient, intensive outpatient, and residential services and supports for individuals with substance use disorders.
(7) “Indian Health Care Provider (IHCP)” means a health care program operated by the Indian Health Service (IHS) or by an Indian Tribe, Tribal Organization, or Urban Indian Organization (otherwise known as an I/T/U) as those terms are defined in section 4 of the Indian Health Care Improvement Act (25 U.S.C. § 1603).
(8) “Rural area” is an area greater than 10 miles from the center of an urban area. County with extreme access considerations: County with a population density of 10 or fewer people per square mile.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: HB 5202 (2021)
- BHS 2-2025, amend filed 02/27/2025, effective 03/01/2025
- BHS 13-2023, adopt filed 05/23/2023, effective 05/30/2023
- BHS 21-2022, temporary adopt filed 12/02/2022, effective 12/02/2022 through 05/30/2023
Or. Admin. R. 309-065-0020 Culturally and Linguistically Specific Services Organization & Program Qualifications
(1) In order to qualify for culturally and linguistically specific behavioral health services enhanced payments as an organization, the organization must:
(a) Be enrolled as an outpatient Medicaid Behavioral Health provider with the Oregon Health Authority (OHA) that is not prohibited by law from receiving the enhanced payment;
(b) Submit a complete application to the Oregon Health Authority (OHA);
(c) Demonstrate the ability to serve a distinct minoritized cultural community; and
(d) Be primarily led and staffed by people that have extensive experience working with or being immersed in the same minoritized cultural community they serve;or
(e) Have a history of at least five years primarily serving the specified minoritized cultural community in a behavioral health setting.
(2) To demonstrate the ability to serve a distinct minoritized cultural community under section (1) (c) of this rule an organization must provide information that shows the following:
(a) Comprehensive knowledge of diverse lived experiences held by the minoritized cultural community being served including, but not limited to, their experiences of structural and individual racism, minoritization or discrimination that may have an impact on the community’s collective mental health and wellbeing.
(b) Knowledge of specific behavioral health inequities documented in the minoritized cultural community being served, which may be addressed by the culturally and linguistically specific service organization.
(c) A practice of supporting and affirming cultural and language practices for the community being served, such as but not limited to:
(A) Health and safety beliefs, or practices; (B) Positive cultural identity, pride, or resilience;
(C) Immigration dynamics; or
(D) Religious beliefs.
(d) A demonstrated ability to support and affirm clients experiencing intersectional oppression in the provision of services. The ability to support and affirm the unique needs of clients experiencing intersectional oppression may be evidenced through details of established collaboration with other culturally specific providers, details of dedicated spaces or groups provided for clients experiencing intersectional oppression, or any other supporting information.
(3) The information required to be provided under section (1)(b) through (e) and (2) of this rule must include documentation of the organization’s culturally specific focus demonstrated in a mission statement, vision statement, or other public-facing document. Supporting information can also include but is not limited to:
(a) Documentation detailing policies and procedures.
(b) Documentation of staff training requirements and any resulting certifications.
(c) A narrative that details the organization or program’s strategic plan or history and experience, including specific examples, without identifying any individual clients.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: HB 5202 (2021)
- BHS 13-2023, adopt filed 05/23/2023, effective 05/30/2023
- BHS 22-2022, temporary adopt filed 12/05/2022, effective 12/05/2022 through 05/30/2023
Or. Admin. R. 309-065-0025 Culturally and Linguistically Specific Services Program Qualifications
(1) In order to qualify for culturally and linguistically specific behavioral health services enhanced payments as a program, the program must:
(a) Be enrolled as an outpatient Medicaid Behavioral Health provider with the Oregon Health Authority (OHA) that is not prohibited by law from receiving the enhanced payment;
(b) Submit a complete application to the Oregon Health Authority (OHA).
(c) Demonstrate the ability to serve a distinct minoritized cultural community: and
(d) Be primarily staffed and render services provided by people that have extensive experience working with or being immersed in the same minoritized cultural community being served; or
(e) Have a history of at least five years primarily serving the specified minoritized cultural community in a behavioral health setting.
(2) To demonstrate the ability to serve a distinct minoritized cultural community under (1) (c) of this rule, a program must provide information that shows the following:
(a) Comprehensive knowledge of diverse lived experiences held by the minoritized cultural community being served including, but not limited to, their experiences of structural and individual racism, minoritization or discrimination that may have an impact on the community’s collective mental health and wellbeing.
(b) Knowledge of specific behavioral health inequities documented in the minoritized cultural community being served, which may be addressed by the culturally and linguistically specific service program.
(c) A practice of supporting and affirming cultural and language practices of the minoritized cultural community being served, such as but not limited to:
(A) Health and safety beliefs, or practices;
(B) Positive cultural identity, pride, or resilience;
(C) Immigration dynamics; or
(D) Religious beliefs.
(d) A demonstrated ability to support and affirm clients experiencing intersectional oppression in the provision of services. The ability to support and affirm the unique needs of clients experiencing intersectional oppression may be evidenced through details of established collaboration with other culturally specific providers, details of dedicated spaces or groups provided for clients experiencing intersectional oppression, or any other supporting information.
(3) The information required to be provided under section (1)(b) through (e) and (2) of this rule must include documentation of the organization’s culturally specific focus demonstrated in a mission statement, vision statement, or other public-facing document. Supporting information can also include but is not limited to:
(a) Documentation detailing policies and procedures.
(b) Documentation of staff training requirements and any resulting certifications.
(c) A narrative that details the organization or program’s, strategic plan or history and experience, including specific examples, without identifying any individual clients.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: HB 5202(2021)
- BHS 13-2023, adopt filed 05/23/2023, effective 05/30/2023
Or. Admin. R. 309-065-0030 Culturally and Linguistically Specific Services Individual Qualifications
(1) In order to qualify for culturally and linguistically specific behavioral health services enhanced payments, individual behavioral health providers must:
(a) Be enrolled as an outpatient Medicaid Behavioral Health provider with the Oregon Health Authority (OHA).
(b) Submit a complete application to the Oregon Health Authority (OHA).
(c) Demonstrate the ability to serve a distinct minoritized cultural community.
(2) To demonstrate the ability to serve a particular minoritized community under (1) (b) of this rule, an individual behavior health provider must provide information that shows the following:
(a) Comprehensive knowledge of diverse lived experiences held by the minoritized cultural community being served including, but not limited to, their experiences of structural and individual racism, minoritization or discrimination that may have an impact on the community’s collective mental health and wellbeing.
(b) Knowledge of specific behavioral health inequities documented in the minoritized cultural community being served, which may be addressed by the culturally and linguistically specific service provider;
(c) A practice of supporting and affirming cultural and language practices for the minoritized cultural community being served, such as but not limited to:
(A) Health and safety beliefs or practices;
(B) Positive cultural identity, pride, or resilience;
(C) Immigration dynamics; or
(D) Religious beliefs.
(d) A demonstrated ability to support and affirm clients experiencing intersectional oppression in the provision of services. The ability to support and affirm the unique needs of clients experiencing intersectional oppression may be evidenced through details of established collaboration with other culturally specific providers, details of dedicated spaces or groups provided for clients experiencing intersectional oppression, or any other supporting information; and
(e) Have extensive experience working with or being immersed in the same minoritized cultural community being served, or, if not immediately immersed in the same community served, have5 or more cumulative years of service provision to the identified minoritized cultural community they are serving.
(3) The information required to be provided under section (1)(c) and (2) of this rule can include, but is not limited to:
(a) A resume or curriculum vitae detailing academic credentials, relevant course work or certifications; or
(b) A narrative that details the individual’s professional history and experience, including specific examples, without identifying clients.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: HB 5202 (2021)
- BHS 13-2023, adopt filed 05/23/2023, effective 05/30/2023
- BHS 21-2022, temporary adopt filed 12/02/2022, effective 12/02/2022 through 05/30/2023
Or. Admin. R. 309-065-0040 Bilingual Service and Sign Language Provider Qualifications
(1) Individual providers who deliver direct care services in a language other than English or in sign language may be eligible to receive enhanced payments for direct care services delivered in a language other than in English, or in sign language. Oral or sign language interpretation is not eligible for this enhanced payment.
(2) In order to qualify for enhanced payment, a direct care behavioral health provider must:
(a) Be enrolled as a Medicaid Behavioral Health provider with the Oregon Health Authority (OHA);
(b) Be a Bilingual service provider and identify the language(s) other than English that the provider uses in providing direct care services to clients that speak the language(s);
(c) For bilingual service providers, provide:
(A) Proof of having passed a language proficiency assessment by an OHA approved language proficiency testing center in the last three years for the language(s) identified; or
(B A narrative detailing how proficiency in the language was acquired, such as growing up in a home where this language was the primary language used if no language proficiency assessment is available in a particular language.
(d) For providers using Sign Language, provide:
(A) Proof of current sign language interpreter certification from an OHA approved sign language interpreter testing center; or
(B) A narrative detailing how proficiency was acquired in sign language, such as growing up in a home where sign language was the primary language used.
(3) Nothing in this rule is intended to exempt a health care provider from complying with ORS 413.559 and OAR 950-050-0160.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: HB 5202 (2021)
- BHS 13-2023, adopt filed 05/23/2023, effective 05/30/2023
- BHS 21-2022, temporary adopt filed 12/02/2022, effective 12/02/2022 through 05/30/2023
Or. Admin. R. 309-065-0050 Culturally and Linguistically Specific Residential SUD Provider Qualifications
(1) Except as provided in subsection (4) below, in order to qualify for culturally and linguistically specific behavioral health services enhanced payments as a residential SUD provider, they must:
(a) Be enrolled as a residential SUD Medicaid Behavioral Health provider with the Oregon Health Authority (OHA) that is not prohibited by law from receiving the enhanced payment;
(b) Submit a complete application to the Oregon Health Authority (OHA);
(c) Demonstrate the ability to serve a distinct minoritized cultural community; and
(d) Be primarily led and staffed by people that have extensive experience working with or being immersed in the same minoritized cultural community they serve;or
(e) Have a history of at least five years primarily serving the specified minoritized cultural community in a behavioral health setting.
(2) To demonstrate the ability to serve a distinct minoritized cultural community under section (1) (c) of this rule an organization must provide information that shows the following:
(a) Comprehensive knowledge of diverse lived experiences held by the minoritized cultural community being served including, but not limited to, their experiences of structural and individual racism, minoritization or discrimination that may have an impact on the community’s collective mental health and wellbeing.
(b) Knowledge of specific behavioral health inequities documented in the minoritized cultural community being served, which may be addressed by the culturally and linguistically specific service organization.
(c) A practice of supporting and affirming cultural and language practices for the community being served, such as but not limited to:
(A) Health and safety beliefs, or practices; (B) Positive cultural identity, pride, or resilience;
(B) Immigration dynamics; or
(C) Religious beliefs.
(d) A demonstrated ability to support and affirm clients experiencing intersectional oppression in the provision of services. The ability to support and affirm the unique needs of clients experiencing intersectional oppression may be evidenced through details of established collaboration with other culturally specific providers, details of dedicated spaces or groups provided for clients experiencing intersectional oppression, or any other supporting information.
(3) The information required to be provided under section (1)(b) through (e) and (2) of this rule must include documentation of the organization’s culturally specific focus demonstrated in a mission statement, vision statement, or other public-facing document. Supporting information can also include but is not limited to:
(a) Documentation detailing policies and procedures.
(b) Documentation of staff training requirements and any resulting certifications.
(c) A narrative that details the organization or program’s strategic plan or history and experience, including specific examples, without identifying any individual clients.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: HB 5202 (2021)
- BHS 2-2025, adopt filed 02/27/2025, effective 03/01/2025
Division 72 MOBILE CRISIS INTERVENTION SERVICES AND STABILIZATION SERVICES
Or. Admin. R. 309-072-0100 Temporary rule language in effect until 01/09/2027. Purpose and Scope
(1) All providers must operate in compliance with these rules. These rules create minimum service delivery standards for services and support delivered by providers certified by the Health Systems Division (Division) of the Oregon Health Authority (Authority):
(a) Community Mental Health Programs (CMHP) must continuously offer Mobile Crisis Intervention Services (MCIS) and stabilization services and supports as described within these rules;
(b) Non-CMHP providers may choose to offer MCIS and stabilization services to all persons, or to limit services and supports to solely focus on MCIS for adults, or to solely focus on MCIS and stabilization services for children and families;
(c) The population(s) served must be indicated on the application and the certificate.
(2) These rules apply to providers seeking certification to provide behavioral health services under the following service delivery rules:
(a) OAR 309-014-0000 to 0040 Community Mental Health Programs;
(b) Non-CMHP providers:
(A) OAR 309-019-0100 to 0220 Outpatient Behavioral Health Services;
(B) All other providers seeking certification to provide MCIS and stabilization services.
(C) Providers and owners (with a minimum 20% interest) providing MCIS and Mobile Response and Stabilization Services must certify in writing under penalty of perjury they are not in violation of tax laws under ORS 305.380, to include Providers (with a minimum 20% interest) must submit an Oregon Tax Compliance Certificate from the Oregon Department of Revenue that they are not in violation of tax laws under ORS 305.380.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 413.042, 413.032-413.033, 426.072, 426.236, 426.500, 430.021, 430.256, 430.357, 430.560, 430.626-430.630, 430.640, 430.870 & 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.520, 426.060, 426.140, 430.010, 430.254, 430.335, 430.590, 430.620, 430.626-430.630 & 430.637
- BHS 21-2026, temporary amend filed 07/14/2026, effective 07/14/2026 through 01/09/2027
- BHS 26-2022, adopt filed 12/20/2022, effective 01/01/2023
Or. Admin. R. 309-072-0110 Temporary rule language in effect until 01/09/2027. Definitions
Definitions
As used in these rules:
(1) “Built Environment” includes facilities, vehicles and other physical locations where work is performed on an ongoing basis.
(2) “Community-based” means the location of the person in crisis.
(3) “Community Mental Health Program (CMHP)” has the meaning given the term in OAR 309-019-0105.
(4) “Crisis and safety plan” means an individualized document created in collaboration with an individual and their family, if applicable, to help anticipate and prevent future crisis episodes. The plan, at minimum, includes lethal means counseling; strategies for self-regulation; activators; contact information for supportive resources; and documents, referrals, and recommendations for follow up services and supports.
(5) “Evidence-based” means significant and relevant practices based on scientifically based research.
(6) “Frontier” means any county with six or fewer people per square mile.
(7) “In person” means the physical presence of all individuals involved in the interaction.
(8) “Lone Worker” means an individual who directly provides or assists with the delivery of Mobil Crisis Intervention Services, Stabilization Services; and works in a situation or location without a colleague nearby or without close or direct supervision.
(9) “Memorandum of Understanding (MOU)” means an agreement between two parties that is not legally binding, but which outlines the responsibilities of each of the parties to the agreement.
(10) “Mobile Crisis Intervention Services (MCIS)” means all necessary services, supports, and treatments for an individual experiencing a behavioral health crisis. Services are delivered by providers in a community-based setting and are intended to de-escalate and stabilize an individual in crisis through a timely therapeutic response that meets the needs of the individual in crisis and is individual and family centered.
(11) “Mobile Crisis Intervention Team (MCIT)” means a team of qualified behavioral health professionals that may include peer support specialists, as defined in ORS 414.025, and other health care providers such as nurses or social workers who provide timely, developmentally appropriate and trauma-informed interventions, screening, assessment, de-escalation and other services necessary to stabilize an individual experiencing a behavioral health crisis in accordance with requirements established by the authority by rule.
(12) “Non-Community Mental Health Program (Non-CMHP)” means providers other than Community Mental Health Program (CMHP) providers, as defined in OAR 309-019-0105.
(13) “Promising practice” means a practice, an approach, a tool, or a training that demonstrates, based on preliminary information, potential for becoming an evidence-based practice.
(14) “Provider” has the meaning given the term in OAR 309-019-0105.
(15) “Qualified Mental Health Associate (QMHA)” has the meaning given the term in OAR 309-019-0105.
(16) “Qualified Mental Health Professional (QMHP)” has the meaning given the term in OAR 309-019-0105.
(17) “Rural” means any geographical area in Oregon ten or more miles from the center of a population center of 40,000 people or more.
(18) “Suicide screening” means a procedure in which a standardized suicide screening tool or protocol is used to identify individuals who may be at risk for suicide.
(19) “Suicide risk assessment” means a comprehensive process, performed by a QMHP using an evidence-based suicide assessment tool to confirm suspected suicide risk, determine immediate danger, and develop an initial crisis and safety plan including lethal means counseling.
(20) “Stabilization Services” includes diagnosis, stabilization, observation and follow-up referral services provided to individuals in a community-based, developmentally appropriate homelike environment to the extent practicable.
(21) “Urban” means an area in Oregon that is less than 10 miles from the center of a population center of 40,000 people or more.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 413.042, 413.032-413.033, 426.072, 426.236, 426.500, 430.021, 430.256, 430.357, 430.560, 430.626-430.630, 430.640, 430.870 & 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.520, 426.060, 426.140, 430.010, 430.254, 430.335, 430.590, 430.620, 430.626-430.630 & 430.637
- BHS 21-2026, temporary amend filed 07/14/2026, effective 07/14/2026 through 01/09/2027
- BHS 26-2022, adopt filed 12/20/2022, effective 01/01/2023
Or. Admin. R. 309-072-0120 Temporary rule language in effect until 01/09/2027. Personnel Documentation, Training, and Supervision
(1) Written policies and procedures must:
(a) Ensure all program staff are trained in applicable evidence-based or promising practices that are developmentally, culturally, and linguistically appropriate for the individuals and families; and
(b) Specify the evidence-based or promising practices screening and assessment tools that are developmentally, culturally, and linguistically appropriate and inform the delivery of services.
(2) When providing in-person services to an individual or family in crisis, program staff who have not completed all the required trainings in 309-072-0120 (3) must be:
(a) Accompanied by a trained staff who has completed all the trainings listed in OAR 309-072-0120 (3); and
(b) Working under the supervision of a Qualified Mental Health Professional (QMHP).
(3) The personnel record for each program staff must contain documented evidence of attaining each of the following skills, certifications, and trainings within the timelines specified in this rule:
(a) Program staff who have documented evidence of completing any number of the required trainings prior to hire and within the past three years, except trainings on policy and procedure, may apply such training towards the requirements in this rule when the documentation demonstrating completion is contained in the personnel record;
(b) Transcripts, continuing education units, certificates of completion, and other formal documentation may be acceptable;
(c) Within the first 90 days of hire program staff must complete the following trainings:
(A) De-escalation strategies;
(B) Suicide risk screening and assessment;
(C) Crisis and safety planning;
(D) Lethal means counseling;
(E) Evidence-based clinical engagement strategies;
(F) Trauma-informed crisis response;
(G) Child development and family engagement; and
(H) A review of provider policies and procedures regarding staff safety when responding to crises.
(d) Within the first six months of hire program staff must complete the following trainings:
(A) First aid and CPR;
(B) Harm reduction strategies including overdose intervention;
(C) Administration of naloxone and overdose reversal;
(D) Mental Health First Aid (optional for QMHP and QMHA); and
(E) Strategies for working with the following specific populations and communities:
(i) Individuals with intellectual and developmental disabilities (IDD);
(ii) Individuals with other co-occurring disorders including medical disorders and substance use disorders (SUD);
(iii) Communities of color;
(iv) Tribal communities;
(v) LGBTQIA2S+ community; and
(vi) Other communities at higher risk for suicide.
(e) Certificates for required trainings must remain current. Each program staff must complete each required training at least every three years from date of hire;
(f) In addition to the outlined training requirements in this rule, providers must:
(A) Keep program staff informed of updates to evidence-based or promising practices; and
(B) Offer ongoing training opportunities specific to the unique, diverse, and cultural needs of the individuals and families in each service area.
(3) A Mobile Crisis Intervention Services (MCIS) organization shall:
(a) Implement a written policy or plan for the physical safety of individuals working for the Mobile Crisis Intervention Services employer.
(b) Provide a copy of the safety policy or plan to new workers upon hire.
(c) A safety policy or plan required under this section must:
(A) Include a plan for addressing the physical safety of lone workers
(B) Include a plan for the safety of the built and community-based environments, including:
(i) How workers may report structural security hazards;
(ii) How workers will report safety concerns and precautions while in the community; and
(iii) The time frame within which the MCIS employer must respond to a report of structural security hazards.
(C) Include information for workers about the safety training that the MCIS employer is required to provide under ORS 430.775, including the time frame within which the employer must provide all required training for a new worker and how often the employer must provide renewal training for current workers.
(D) Be tailored to the MCIS employer’s specific context.
(E) Be easily accessible to staff.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 413.042, 413.032-413.033, 426.072, 426.236, 426.500, 430.021, 430.256, 430.357, 430.560, 430.626-430.629, 430.640, 430.870 & 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.520, 426.060, 426.140, 430.010, 430.254, 430.335, 430.590, 430.620, 430.626-430.630 & 430.637
- BHS 21-2026, temporary amend filed 07/14/2026, effective 07/14/2026 through 01/09/2027
- BHS 26-2022, adopt filed 12/20/2022, effective 01/01/2023
Or. Admin. R. 309-072-0130 General Requirements
(1) Each provider must meet the requirements contained within the following Oregon Administrative Rules (OAR) as applies to the type of service delivered:
(a) OAR Chapter 309, Division 008 (309-008-0100 – 309-008-1600) Certification of Behavioral Health Treatment Services.
(b) OAR Chapter 309, Division 019 Outpatient Behavioral Health Services:
(A) OAR 309-019-0105 Definitions;
(B) OAR 309-019-0110 Provider Policies;
(C) OAR 309-019-0115 Individual Rights;
(D) OAR 309-019-0125 Specific Staff Qualifications and Competencies;
(E) OAR 309-019-0130 Personnel Documentation, Training, and Supervision;
(F) OAR 309-019-0135 Entry and Assessment;
(G) OAR 309-019-0140 Service Plans and Service Notes;
(H) When the provider offers stabilization services in a facility, building, or other physical space that is designated for that purpose, the provider must comply with OAR 309-019-0205 Building Requirements in Behavioral Health Programs;
(I) OAR 309-019-0210 Quality Assessment and Performance Improvement;
(J) OAR 309-019-0215 Grievances and Appeals; and
(K) OAR 309-033-0230 (2)(b) Custody of Persons Alleged to Be Mentally Ill Prior to Filing a Notification of Mental Illness.
(2) Non-Community Mental Health Program providers must initiate the memorandum of understanding (MOU) process with the Community Mental Health Program(s) (CMHP) in their service area(s) prior to submitting an application.
(3) The MOU must be written on the Health Systems Division (HSD) form and must:
(a) Contain the exact service area(s), populations served, Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), and 42 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) Part 2 confidentiality clauses, and manner of coordinating response; and
(b) Be fully executed no later than 30 days following the HSD approval of the non-CMHP’s application to deliver Mobile Crisis Intervention Services (MCIS).
(4) If a CMHP has one of the Nine Federally Recognized Tribes of Oregon in their service area, CMHPs must collaborate with the tribe(s) to provide MCIS and stabilization services through a MOU if the tribe wishes to enter into such agreement.
(5) Tribal MOU must be written on the HSD form and must:
(a) Contain mutually agreed upon collaboration and delivery of services between the tribe(s) and the CMHP;
(b) Contain the exact service area(s), populations served, HIPAA, and 42 CFR Part 2 confidentiality clauses, and manner of coordinating response;
(c) Be shared with HSD for review and approval.
(6) Providers billing Medicaid must meet the requirements contained within the following Oregon Administrative Rules (OAR) as applies to the type of service delivered:
(a) OAR Chapter 410, Division 120 Medical Assistance Programs;
(b) OAR Chapter 410, Division 172 Medicaid Payment for Behavioral Health Services.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 430.626-430.630, 413.042 & 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.626-430.630, 743A.168 & 743A.160
- BHS 26-2022, adopt filed 12/20/2022, effective 01/01/2023
Or. Admin. R. 309-072-0140 Standards for Mobile Crisis Intervention Services (MCIS)
(1) Mobile Crisis Intervention Services (MCIS) must be delivered to any individual experiencing a behavioral health crisis. MCIS must be available to the community, 24 hours a day, seven days per week, every day of the year.
(2) MCIS must be available to individuals in any community-based setting. MCIS may be, but is not required to be, provided to an individual that is located in a hospital. Providers may collaborate with their local hospitals to provide MCIS when mutually agreed upon and outlined in a Letter of Agreement or Memorandum of Understanding.
(3) Formal interpretation services must be available to individuals and families who request services in languages not spoken by Mobile Crisis Intervention Team (MCIT) members.
(4) The initial crisis response must be provided to individuals in person by a two-person multidisciplinary MCIT that includes, at minimum:
(a) A Qualified Mental Health Professional (QMHP) or a trained Qualified Mental Health Associate (QMHA);
(b) One other trained behavioral health provider as defined in these rules and OAR 309-019-0125;
(c) If a QMHP is not part of the two-person MCIT in person, a QMHP must be available to respond when clinically indicated, either by telehealth or in person.
(5) If the individual is located in a hospital, the initial crisis response may be provided in person by one mobile crisis intervention staff who meets the following criteria:
(a) A trained Qualified Mental Health Professional (QMHP), or a
(b) Trained Qualified Mental Health Associate (QMHA)
(c) If a QMHP is not sent in person, a QMHP must be available to respond when clinically indicated, either by telehealth or in person.
(6) MCIT must carry naloxone and have at least one team member in person who is trained in its administration to reverse opioid overdoses.
(7) Providers must ensure equitable access to services, particularly for individuals and families who may have faced historical and contemporary discrimination and inequities in health care based on race or ethnicity, physical or cognitive ability, gender, gender identity or presentation, sexual orientation, socioeconomic status, insurance status, citizenship status, or religion.
(8) MCIT must be dispatched when requested by 988 call centers in collaboration with the MCIT. Prior to arrival on scene, there must be ongoing determination of the MCIT’s safety.
(9) MCIT must maintain and implement written policies and protocols, Letters of Agreement, or MOU in place with 988 call centers, and other crisis call centers detailing how individuals in crisis will be monitored until a MCIT reaches the location of an individual or family in crisis.
(10) Providers must have program staff available to respond to crisis events in their respective geographic service area with the following maximum response times:
(a) In “urban” areas, MCIT must respond in person within one hour from the request for dispatch;
(b) In “rural” areas, MCIT must respond in person within two hours from the request for dispatch;
(c) In “frontier” areas, MCIT must respond in person within three hours from the request for dispatch;
(d) In “rural” and “frontier” areas, a provider who is trained in trauma-informed crisis response, de-escalation strategies, and harm reduction strategies must respond to the crisis event by phone call within one hour of being notified of the crisis event.
(11) Providers must maintain and implement written policies and protocols to request law enforcement presence or co-response at the location of response when appropriate.
(12) Non-CMHP providers certified by the Division of the Authority to provide MCIS must maintain written policies and protocols, Letters of Agreement, or MOU with all CMHPs within their service area to include at minimum:
(a) Policies and procedures for coordination of services; and
(b) Policies and procedures to comply with OAR 309-033-0230 (2)(b).
(13) MCIT must attempt and document the attempt to collect the following information during transit to the location of crisis, or when appropriate, either directly from the individual in crisis or from a 988 call center or any other crisis line that requested mobile response for the individual or family in crisis:
(a) Name of individual in crisis and individual who called;
(b) Relationship to caller if it is a third-party call;
(c) Date of birth of the individual in crisis;
(d) Insurance provider;
(e) Current presentation, symptoms, circumstances of person of concern that prompted the call;
(f) Caller phone number;
(g) Specific requested developmental, cultural, or linguistic needs, if any;
(h) The desired response and outcome the caller is seeking;
(i) Whether other individuals are physically near the individual in crisis and their relationship to the individual in crisis;
(j) Presence of an animal including a service animal, if any;
(k) Presence of weapon, if any;
(l) Knowledge of current and/or historical aggression;
(m) Presence of any physical barrier to reach individual or family at the location of crisis;
(n) Any available information about immediate unmet needs such as housing, employment, food insecurity etcetera;
(o) Current services or supports in place such as primary care, family peer support, peer wellness support, faith-based support.
(14) Providers must have written agreements in place with any 911 center in their service area. These agreements must outline the information needed from the 911 center when transferring a caller to the MCIT. If known, the 911 center will provide the following information regarding the call:
(a) Name of the caller;
(b) Name of the person in need of MCIS, if different from the caller;
(c) Date of birth of individual in crisis;
(d) Current location of the person in need;
(e) Caller phone number;
(f) Reason for the call;
(g) Presence of any known weapons;
(h) Any specific threats of harm to self or others by the individual in crisis.
(15) Providers must develop and implement a structured and ongoing process to assess, monitor, and improve the quality and effectiveness of services provided to individuals and their families:
(a) CMHPs must report to the Authority data listed in the County Financial Assistance Agreement based on the frequency of collection and reporting required by the Authority;
(b) Providers must report the data using a tool or platform for data collection and reporting approved by the Authority;
(c) Non-CMHP providers approved by the Division of the Authority to provide MCIS must comply with all reporting requirements set by the Authority.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 413.042, 413.032-413.033, 426.072, 426.236, 426.500, 430.021, 430.256, 430.357, 430.560, 430.626-430.630, 430.640, 430.870 & 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.520, 426.060, 426.140, 430.010, 430.254, 430.335, 430.590, 430.620, 430.626-430.630 & 430.637
- BHS 18-2025, amend filed 06/25/2025, effective 06/29/2025
- BHS 8-2025, temporary amend filed 03/14/2025, effective 03/15/2025 through 06/29/2025
- BHS 34-2024, temporary amend filed 12/27/2024, effective 01/01/2025 through 06/29/2025
- BHS 26-2022, adopt filed 12/20/2022, effective 01/01/2023
Or. Admin. R. 309-072-0150 Initial crisis response
Mobile Crisis Intervention Services (MCIS) must meet the needs of each individual and must consider developmental, cultural, and linguistic needs.
(1) Upon arrival, the Mobile Crisis Intervention Team (MCIT) must follow their established procedures to ensure safety at the service location for all parties and must continue to monitor safety.
(2) All crisis interventions and services offered and provided must be documented.
(3) The MCIT must attempt to complete a developmentally appropriate suicide screening at every contact:
(a) When unable to complete the suicide screening the reason must be clearly documented;
(b) If the suicide screening tool indicates risk, then the following must occur and be documented:
(A) A full suicide risk assessment must be completed by a Qualified Mental Health Professional (QMHP);
(B) A crisis and safety plan which includes lethal means counseling.
(4) The MCIT must provide the following services and supports, as clinically indicated:
(a) Crisis intervention and de-escalation;
(b) Screening for risk of harm to self and others;
(c) SUD screening;
(d) Assessment;
(e) Crisis and safety planning; and
(f) Care coordination.
(5) The MCIT must identify and refer all individuals to appropriate services and supports to meet their needs.
(6) If the individual has established medical or behavioral health services the MCIT must attempt to coordinate care with the individual’s established provider. When unable to coordinate care with the established provider the MCIT must document the reason.
(7) If the Qualified Mental Health Professional (QMHP) determines that the individual requires a psychiatric evaluation and a director’s custody hold is required, the QMHP must initiate the appropriate steps to transport the individual to the evaluation per OAR 309-033-0230 (2)(b).
(8) The provider must work collaboratively with individuals and families to ensure connection to follow-up services and supports.
(9) The provider must attempt to follow-up with the individual and families within 72 hours after the initial contact.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 413.042, 413.032-413.033, 426.072, 426.236, 426.500, 430.021, 430.256, 430.357, 430.560, 430.626-430.630, 430.640, 430.870 & 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.520, 426.060, 426.140, 430.010, 430.254, 430.335, 430.590, 430.620, 430.626-430.630 & 430.637
- BHS 26-2022, adopt filed 12/20/2022, effective 01/01/2023
Or. Admin. R. 309-072-0160 Stabilization Services
(1) Stabilization services may be provided to all individuals.
(2) Stabilization services must be provided to eligible children younger than 21 years of age and their families, regardless of insurance type.
(a) Stabilization services are designed to maintain the child, as defined in OAR 309-019-0105 (21), in their current living arrangement; prevent unnecessary emergency room visits and hospitalizations; stabilize behavioral health needs; and improve functioning in life domains. Stabilization services must be provided from a family driven, youth guided, trauma-informed approach;
(b) Providers delivering stabilization services must be trained in accordance with OAR 309-072-0120;
(c) Children younger than 21 years of age must be considered for stabilization services without discrimination on the basis of race, ethnicity, gender, gender identity, gender presentation, sexual orientation, insurance type, religion, creed, national origin, intellectual or developmental disability, IQ score, or physical disability;
(d) Stabilization services must be initiated for eligible children and their families within three days of the initial mobile crisis response and may extend up to 56 calendar days;
(e) Families must be involved in stabilization services for children under the age of 18, to the extent possible. Individuals over the age of 18 may choose the extent to which their family is involved in services;
(f) Providers must collaborate with their local emergency departments and/or crisis clinics to establish pathways and timelines for responding to children being referred to stabilization services;
(g) Providers must maintain and implement written policies and protocols, Letters of Agreement, or MOU in place with their local emergency departments and/or crisis clinics;
(h) Children who meet one or more of the following criteria, may be eligible to receive stabilization services:
(A) Mental health concerns related to patterns of behavioral and emotional challenges, which require continued intervention and coordination to maintain functioning and prevent escalation;
(B) Lack of current connection to the appropriate resources, services, and supports;
(C) Further assessment, referral, and treatment for substance use;
(D) Further assessment, referral, and treatment for children with Intellectual and Developmental Disabilities (IDD);
(E) Suicidal ideation or at significant risk of suicide;
(F) Escalation in frequency and intensity of agitation or aggression, due to behavioral health crisis, putting themselves or others at risk;
(G) Lower levels of care are not expected to be effective in safely supporting the child and their family in the community.
(i) The provider in collaboration with the child and their family must complete and document the following at the start of stabilization services:
(A) Written informed consent for ongoing stabilization services;
(B) An assessment in accordance with OAR 309-019-0135;
(C) Development or update of the crisis and safety plan;
(D) Written program materials including roles and responsibilities of team members, emergency contacts, and connection to a consumer warm line and resources;
(E) Service plan as described in OAR 309-019-0140.
(j) The service plan includes the appropriate treatment and supports to meet assessed clinical needs of the child and family, which may include the following supports, as agreed upon by the youth and family:
(A) Skills training;
(B) Individual therapy;
(C) Family therapy;
(D) Medication management;
(E) Case management;
(F) Care coordination;
(G) Youth peer support services, for children 14 and older;
(H) Family peer support services;
(I) 24-hour crisis response.
(k) Each child and their family receiving stabilization services must be assigned a Qualified Mental Health Professional (QMHP) and a Family Support Specialist, in accordance with OAR 410-180-0305:
(A) The Family Support Specialist must contact the family within 72 hours of starting stabilization services to introduce their role and services;
(B) The assigned QMHP and Family Support Specialist must coordinate services and take a team-based approach to supporting children and their family while they are enrolled in stabilization services.
(l) Services must be provided, in person, whenever possible, with services and supports to the child and their family provided as frequently as necessary to meet the needs outlined in the service plan;
(m) Providers must complete the Authority approved assessment tools at the start and end of services and submit the assessment to an Authority approved database within 14 days of service completion;
(n) Providers must document a transition plan and must include at minimum:
(A) Review service plan and progress towards goals and objectives;
(B) Recommendations for ongoing services and supports;
(C) Referrals to specialized services, including substance use disorders and IDD;
(D) Upcoming scheduled appointments and engagements;
(E) Crisis and safety plan;
(F) How to access crisis services in the future.
(o) The provider must review and provide a copy of the transition plan document to the child and their family;
(p) The provider must connect the child and family to the appropriate services and supports to meet their needs in the least restrictive environment;
(q) When clinically indicated in the service plan, stabilization services may be extended past the initial 56 calendar days to ensure transition to appropriate services, aftercare services, and supports are in place;
(r) Provider must contact the child and their family for follow up within five days of discharge from stabilization services to ensure that they have successfully transitioned to ongoing services and supports. If unable to contact the child and their family the attempt must be documented.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 413.042, 413.032-413.033, 426.072, 426.236, 426.500, 430.021, 430.256, 430.357, 430.560, 430.626-430.630, 430.640, 430.870 & 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 413.520, 426.060, 426.140, 430.010, 430.254, 430.335, 430.590, 430.620, 430.626-430.630 & 430.637
- BHS 26-2022, adopt filed 12/20/2022, effective 01/01/2023
Division 73 CRISIS STABILIZATION CENTERS
Or. Admin. R. 309-073-0000 Purpose and Scope
(1) The purposes of 309-073-000 through 309-073-0195 are to build upon and improve the statewide coordinated crisis system and to:
(a) Remove barriers to accessing quality crisis stabilization center services.
(b) Improve equity in behavioral health treatment and ensure culturally, linguistically, and developmentally appropriate responses to individuals experiencing behavioral health crises, in recognition that, historically, crisis response services place marginalized communities at disproportionate risk of poor outcomes and criminal justice involvement.
(c) Ensure anyone in the state of Oregon receives a consistent and effective level of behavioral health crisis services no matter where they live, work, or travel in the state; and
(d) Provide increased access to quality community behavioral health services to prevent interactions with the criminal justice system and prevent hospitalizations.
(2) These rules prescribe minimum standards and procedures for Crisis Stabilization Centers applying for certification and certified by the Division to provide crisis stabilization services to individuals for less than 24 consecutive hours.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 183.310 - 183.750, 179.040, 413.042, 413.032 - 413.033, 428.624, 430.626 - 430.640, 430.870, HB 2417 (2021) & 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: 183.310 - 183.750, 426.500, 428.205-428.270, 430.010, 430.021, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254, 430.335, 430.620, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.637 & 414.665
- BHS 24-2026, adopt filed 09/04/2026, effective 09/04/2026
- BHS 2-2026, temporary adopt filed 03/20/2026, effective 03/20/2026 through 09/15/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-073-0010 Temporary rule language in effect until 09/15/2026. Definitions
(1) "Abuse of an Adult" means the circumstances defined in ORS 430.735, OAR Chapter 943, Division 45 and OAR Chapter 407, Division 45 for abuse of an adult with mental illness or who is receiving residential substance use disorder treatment or withdrawal management services.
(2) “Abuse of a Child” means the circumstances defined in ORS 419B.005 and ORS 418.257.
(3) "Adult" means an individual 18 years of age or older or an emancipated minor. An individual with Medicaid eligibility who needs services specific to children, adolescents, or young adults in transition shall be considered a child until age 21 for the purposes of these rules. Adults who are between the ages of 18 and 21 who are considered children for purposes of these rules shall have all rights afforded to adults as specified in these rules.
(4) “Authority” means the Oregon Health Authority.
(5) “Behavioral Health Treatment” means treatment for mental health, substance use disorders, and problem gambling.
(6) “Care Coordination” means a process-oriented activity to facilitate ongoing communication and collaboration to meet multiple needs. Care coordination includes facilitating communication between the person or family served, the family, natural supports, community resources, and involved providers and agencies; organizing, facilitating, and participating in team meetings; and providing for continuity of care by creating linkages to and managing transitions between levels of care and transitions for young adults in transition to adult services.
(7) “Cot” means temporary, collapsible, flat, fabric surface on which an individual can rest or recline.
(8) "Community Mental Health Program (CMHP)" an entity that is responsible for planning and delivery of safety net services for persons with mental or emotional disturbances, drug abuse problems, and alcoholism and alcohol abuse in a specific geographic area of the state under a contract with the Division or a local mental health authority and pursuant to OAR Chapter 309, Division 014.
(9) “Complaints” means program staff must not retaliate in any way against any individual, witness or staff member after a complaint or grievance has been filed.
(10) "Crisis" means either an actual or perceived urgent or emergent situation that occurs when an individual’s stability or functioning is disrupted, and there is an immediate need to stabilize the situation to prevent a serious deterioration in the individual’s mental or physical health or to prevent referral to a significantly higher level of care or death.
(11) "Crisis Intervention" means short-term services to address an immediate crisis need.
(12) “Crisis Stabilization Centers” means a program that is:
(a) Designed to prevent or ameliorate a behavioral health crisis or reduce acute symptoms of mental illness or substance use disorder; and
(b) Certified by the Division to provide screening, assessment, crisis intervention, and less than 24 consecutive hours of observation and crisis stabilization services for individuals who do not require inpatient treatment.
(13) “Crisis and safety plan” means an individualized document created in collaboration with an individual and their family, if applicable, to help anticipate and prevent future crisis episodes. The plan, at minimum, includes strategies for self-regulation; activators; contact information for supportive resources; and documents, referrals, and recommendations for follow up services and supports."
(14) “Crisis stabilization services” includes diagnosis, stabilization, observation and follow-up referral services provided to individuals in a community-based, developmentally appropriate homelike environment to the extent practicable as defined by ORS 430.626.
(15) “Critical Incident” means any incident that caused harm or created a potential risk of harm to a resident including:
(a) Abuse, neglect, or exploitation;
(b) Misuse or unauthorized use of restraints or seclusion;
(c) Medication error resulting in consultation with a poison control center or medical professional, an emergency department or urgent care visit, hospitalization or death; and
(d) Suspected overdose.
(e) Serious injury.
(f) Contact with law enforcement or emergency services.
(g) Death.
(16) “Critical Incident Report” means a written description of any critical incident.
(17) “Culturally Responsive” means services that are respectful of and relevant to the beliefs, practices, culture and linguistic needs of diverse consumer/client populations and communities whose members identify as having particular cultural or linguistic affiliations. Cultural responsiveness describes the capacity to respond to the issues of diverse communities and requires knowledge and capacity at different levels of intervention: systemic, organizational, professional, and individual.
(18) "Declaration for Mental Health Treatment" means a written statement of an individual’s preferences concerning their mental health treatment. The declaration is made when the individual is able to understand and legally make decisions related to such treatment. It is honored, as clinically appropriate, in the event the individual becomes unable to make such decisions.
(19) “Department” means the Oregon Department of Human Services.
(20) "Diagnosis" means the principal mental health, substance use, or problem gambling diagnosis listed in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth edition (DSM-5-TR). The diagnosis is determined through the assessment and any examinations, tests, or consultations suggested by the assessment and are medically necessary reason for services.
(21) “Division” means the Behavioral Health Division of the Oregon Health Authority, or its designee.
(22) “Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, means the current edition of the textbook used to diagnose and classify mental disorders that is published by the American Psychiatric Association.
(23) "Family" means the biological or legal parents, siblings, other relatives, foster parents, legal guardians, spouse, domestic partner, caregivers, and other primary relations to the individual whether by blood, adoption, or legal or social relationships. Family also means any natural, formal, or informal support persons identified as important by the individual.
(24) “First Responder” means a person with specialized training who is among the first to arrive and provide assistance or incident resolution at the scene of an emergency. First responders include, but are not limited to, law enforcement officers, emergency medical services members, and fire service members.
(25) “Gender Identity” means an individual's self-identification of gender without regard to legal or biological identification including but not limited to individuals identifying themselves as male, female, transgender, gender transitioning and transitioned, non-binary, intersex, and gender diverse.
(26) “Gender Expression” means the external characteristics and behaviors that are socially defined as masculine, feminine, or androgynous such as dress, mannerisms, speech patterns, and social interactions.
(27) "Grievance" means a formal complaint submitted to a provider verbally or in writing by an individual or the individual’s representative.
(28) "Guardian" means an individual appointed by a court of law to act as guardian of a minor or a legally incapacitated individual.
(29) “Homelike” means an environment that promotes the dignity, security, and comfort of an individual through the provision of personalized care and services and encourages independence, choice, and decision-making by the individual.
(30) “Individual” means any person being considered for or receiving services and supports regulated by these rules.
(31) "Level of Care" means the type, frequency, and duration of medically necessary services provided from the most integrated setting to the most restrictive and intensive inpatient setting
(32) "Licensed Medical Practitioner (LMP)” means a person who meets the following minimum qualifications as documented by the Local Mental Health Authority (LMHA) or designee:
(a) Physician licensed to practice in the State of Oregon.
(b) Nurse practitioner licensed to practice in the State of Oregon; or
(c) Physician's assistant licensed to practice in the State of Oregon.
(d) Whose training, experience, and competence demonstrate the ability to conduct a medical exam, a mental health assessment and provide medication management; and
(33) “Local Mental Health Authority (LMHA)” means one of the following entities:
(a) The board of county commissioners of one or more counties that establishes or operates a CMHP.
(b) The tribal council in the case of a Federally Recognized Tribe of Native Americans that elects to enter into an agreement to provide mental health services; or
(c) A regional local mental health authority composed of two or more boards of county commissioners.
(34) "Medicaid" means the federal grant-in-aid program to state governments to provide medical assistance to eligible individuals under Title XIX of the Social Security Act.
(35) "Medical Director" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in the State of Oregon and is designated by a Crisis Stabilization Center to be responsible for the program's medical services, either as an employee or through a contract.
(36) “Medication Assisted Treatment (MAT)” means the use of medication in combination with counseling and behavioral therapies for the treatment of substance use disorders.
(37) "Opioid" means natural, synthetic, or semi-synthetic chemicals normally prescribed to treat pain. This class of drugs includes, but is not limited to, illegal drugs such as heroin, natural drugs such as morphine and codeine, synthetic drugs such as fentanyl and tramadol, and semi-synthetic drugs such as oxycodone, hydrocodone, and hydromorphone.
(38) "Opioid Overdose" means a medical condition that causes depressed consciousness and mental functioning, decreased movement, depressed respiratory function and the impairment of the vital functions as a result of taking opiates in an amount larger than can be physically tolerated.
(39) "Opioid Overdose Kit" means an ultraviolet light-protected hard case containing a minimum of two doses of an FDA-approved short-acting, non-injectable, opioid antagonist medication, one pair non-latex gloves, one face mask, one disposable face shield for rescue breathing, and a short-acting, non-injectable, opioid antagonist medication administration instruction card.
(40) “Peer Support Specialist (PSS)” means a program staff providing peer-delivered services to an individual or family member with similar life experience under the supervision of a qualified clinical supervisor and a qualified peer-delivered services supervisor as resources are made available.
(41) “Plan of Correction” (POC) means a written plan and attached supporting documentation created by the provider when required by the Division to address findings of noncompliance with these rules or applicable service delivery rules.
(42) "Program" means an organized system of services and supports delivered by a provider designed to address the treatment needs of individuals and families.
(43) "Program Director" means program staff with appropriate professional qualifications and experience who is designated to manage the operation of a program.
(44) "Program Staff" means personnel who renders a clinical service or support. Program staff could include, but is not limited to, an employee, contractor, intern, or volunteer who is rendering or assisting with rendering clinical services or supports.
(45) “Provider” means an organizational entity or qualified person that is certified or licensed by the Division for the direct delivery of substance use, problem gambling, or mental health services and supports.
(46) "Qualified Mental Health Associate (QMHA)” means mental health program staff delivering services under the direct supervision of a QMHP who meets the minimum qualifications as authorized by the LMHA or designee and specified in OAR 309-019-0125.
(47) "Qualified Mental Health Professional (QMHP)" means mental health program staff LMP or any other program staff meeting the minimum qualifications as authorized by the LMHA or designee and specified in OAR 309-019-0125.
(48) “Qualified Program Staff” means a QMHP or QMHA who meets the minimum qualifications as authorized by the LMHA or designee and specified in OAR 309-019-0125.
(49) “Recliner” means an adjustable type of seating designed to provide comfort and support for individuals in crisis.
(50) "Legal Representative" means someone who acts on behalf of an individual at the individual’s request with respect to a grievance including but not limited to a relative, friend, Division employee, attorney, or legal guardian.
(51) “Service Record” means the written or electronic documentation regarding an individual presenting for services at a Crisis Stabilization Center.
(52) “Signature” means any written or electronic means of entering the name, date of authentication, and credentials of the program staff providing a specific service or the individual authorizing services and supports. Signature also means any written or electronic means of entering the name and date of authentication of the individual, guardian, or any legal representative of the individual receiving services.
(53) “Stabilization Services” includes diagnosis, stabilization, observation and follow-up referral services provided to individuals in a community-based, developmentally appropriate homelike environment to the extent practicable.
(54) "Substance Use Disorder (SUD)" as defined in the current edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders textbook, means disorders related to the taking of a drug of abuse including alcohol, the side effects of a medication, or a toxin exposure. The disorders include substance use disorders and substance-induced disorders, which include substance intoxication and withdrawal, and substance-related disorders such as delirium, neuro-cognitive disorders, and substance-induced psychotic disorder.
(55) “Substance use screening” means the process to determine the presence of substance use and whether someone needs further substance use assessment, services, resources, or referrals.
(56) “Suicide Risk Assessment” means a comprehensive evaluation, usually performed by a clinician, to evaluate suspected suicide risk in an individual, estimate the immediate danger, and decide on a course of treatment.
(57) “Suicide screening” means a procedure in which a standardized suicide screening tool or protocol is used to identify individuals who may be at risk for suicide.
(58) “Supports” means activities, referrals, and supportive relationships designed to enhance the services delivered to individuals and families for the purpose of facilitating progress toward intended outcomes.
(59) "Variance" means an exception from a provision of these rules granted in writing by the Division pursuant to the process regulated by these rules upon written application from the provider.
(60) “Violence Risk Assessment” means a comprehensive evaluation, usually performed by a clinician, to evaluate suspected risk of harm to others in an individual, estimate the immediate danger, and decide on a course of treatment.
(61) “Violence Screening” means a procedure in which a validated tool, or protocol is used to identify individuals who may be at risk for harm to others.
(62) "Volunteer" means a person who performs a service willingly and without pay.
(63) “Youth” means the universal term used to describe all individuals, children, adolescents, and teenagers from birth through the age of 17.
(64) “Young adults” is the accepted term to describe individuals between the ages of 18 and 20 years of age enrolled in IIBHT services.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 183.310 -183.750, 179.040, 413.042, 413.032 - 413.033, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.624, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.640, 430.870, HB 2417 (2021) & 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 183.310 - 183.750, 426.500, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.010, 430.021, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254, 430.335, 430.620, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.637 & 414.665
- BHS 15-2026, temporary adopt filed 06/04/2026, effective 06/05/2026 through 09/15/2026
- BHS 2-2026, temporary adopt filed 03/20/2026, effective 03/20/2026 through 09/15/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-073-0020 Temporary rule language in effect until 09/15/2026. Standards for Crisis Stabilization Centers
(1) Crisis Stabilization Services must be offered to any individual experiencing a behavioral health crisis. Crisis Stabilization Services must be available to the community, 24 hours a day, seven days per week, every day of the year and provided in a homelike environment.
(2) Formal interpretation services must be available to individuals and families who request services in languages not spoken by staff members.
(3) Providers must ensure equitable access to services, particularly for individuals and families who may have faced historical and contemporary discrimination and inequities in health care based on race or ethnicity, physical or cognitive ability, IQ, gender, gender identity or presentation, sexual orientation, socioeconomic status, insurance status, citizenship status, or religion.
(4) Qualified program staff must screen for physical health concerns and have protocols in place to transfer an individual for further assessment as necessary when Crisis Stabilization Center staff cannot manage health concerns for the duration of the individual’s admission to the program.
(5) Qualified program staff must attempt to complete a developmentally appropriate suicide screening with individuals seeking service:
(a) When unable to complete the suicide screening the reason must be clearly documented;
(b) If the suicide screening tool indicates risk, then the following must occur and be documented:
(A) A full suicide risk assessment must be completed by a Qualified Mental Health Professional (QMHP) or a licensed provider;
(B) A crisis and safety plan which includes lethal means counseling when clinically indicated.
(6) Qualified program staff must provide the following services and supports, as clinically indicated:
(a) Crisis intervention and de-escalation;
(b) Violence screening and violence risk assessment
(c) Substance use screening;
(d) Crisis and safety planning; and
(e) Care coordination.
(f) Diagnosis
(7) Program Staff must identify and refer all individuals to appropriate services and supports to meet their needs.
(8) When serving youth and young adults ages 20 and under, Program Staff must offer a referral to Stabilization Services.
(9) If the individual has established medical or behavioral health services, program staff must attempt to coordinate care with the individual’s established provider. When unable to coordinate care with the established provider, program staff must document the reason.
(10) If the Qualified Mental Health Professional (QMHP) or a QMHP or one other trained behavioral health provider as defined in OAR 309-019-0125(12) determines that the individual requires a psychiatric evaluation and a director’s custody hold is required, program staff must initiate the appropriate steps to transport the individual to the evaluation per OAR 309-033-0230 (2)(b).
(11) The provider must work collaboratively with individuals to ensure connection to follow-up services and supports. When serving youth, the provider must work collaboratively with youth and their families to ensure connection to follow-up services and supports.
(12) The provider must attempt follow-up with individuals within 72 hours after discharge from a Crisis Stabilization Center.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 183.310 -183.750, 179.040, 413.042, 413.032 - 413.033, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.624, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.640, 430.870, HB 2417 (2021) & 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 183.310 - 183.750, 426.500, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.637 & 414.665
- BHS 15-2026, temporary adopt filed 06/04/2026, effective 06/05/2026 through 09/15/2026
- BHS 2-2026, temporary adopt filed 03/20/2026, effective 03/20/2026 through 09/15/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-073-0025 Temporary rule language in effect until 09/15/2026. Certification for Crisis Stabilization Centers
(1) The Division shall certify a program that meets the definition of a Crisis Stabilization Center and demonstrates compliance with these and all applicable laws and rules. No person or governmental unit acting individually or jointly with any other person or governmental unit shall establish, maintain, manage, or operate a Crisis Stabilization Center without a certification issued by the Division.
(2) When a Crisis Stabilization Center serves or seeks to serve another category of individuals in addition to youth and adults experiencing a behavioral health crisis, the directors of the Authority and the Department shall determine the department responsible for certification.
(3) An application for certification must be submitted to the Division using the forms or format required by the Division. The following information must be included in the application:
(a) Full and complete information as to the identity and financial interest of each individual, including stockholders, having a direct or indirect ownership interest of five percent or more in the Crisis Stabilization Center and all officers and directors in the case of a Crisis Stabilization Center operated or owned by a corporation;
(b) Name and resume of the program director;
(c) Physical and mailing addresses for the Crisis Stabilization Center;
(d) Proposed annual budget identifying sources of revenue and expenses;
(e) Written background information pertaining to any current or previous licensure or certification by a state agency, including those licenses or certificates granted to a business or person affiliated with the business, including:
(A) Copies of all current licenses or certificates;
(B) Documentation showing the final disposition of any suspension, denial, revocation, or other disciplinary actions initiated on any current or previous license or certificate, including settlement agreements, where applicable; and
(C) Documentation of any substantiated allegations of abuse or neglect pertaining to the applicant, or anyone employed by or contracted with the applicant.
(i) A complete set of policies and procedures;
(ii) Building plans and specifications; and
(iii) Other information the Division may reasonably require.
(D) Providers and owners (with a minimum 20% interest) providing CSC services must certify in writing under penalty of perjury they are not in violation of tax laws under ORS 305.380, to include Providers (with a minimum 20% interest) must submit an Oregon Tax Compliance Certificate from the Oregon Department of Revenue that they are not in violation of tax laws under ORS 305.380.
(4) A complete set of plans and specifications must be submitted to the Division at the time of initial application, whenever a new structure or addition to an existing structure is proposed, or when significant alterations to an existing facility are proposed. Plans must meet the following criteria:
(a) Plans must be to scale and sufficiently complete to allow full review for compliance with these rules; and
(b) Plans must bear the stamp of an Oregon licensed architect or engineer when required by the Building Code.
(5) Prior to approval of a certification for a new or renovated building, the applicant shall submit the following to the Division:
(a) One copy of written approval to occupy the building issued by the city or county building codes authority having jurisdiction;
(b) One copy of the fire inspection report from the State Fire Marshal or local jurisdiction indicating that the building complies with the Fire Code;
(c) When the building is not served by an approved municipal water system, one copy of the documentation indicating that the state or county health agency having jurisdiction has tested and certified safe the water supply in accordance with OAR chapter 333, Public Health Division rules to public water systems;
(d) When the setting is not connected to an approved municipal sewer system, one copy of the sewer or septic system approval from the Department of Environmental Quality or local jurisdiction.
(6) A certification is renewable upon submission of a renewal application in the form or format required by the Division:
(a) Filing of an application for renewal 60 days before the date of expiration extends the effective date of the current certification until the Division acts upon the renewal application;
(b) Crisis Stabilization Centers shall not be certified if they do not meet the qualifications in 309-008-1200.
(7) Upon receipt of a complete application, the Division must begin its review of the materials within 30 days. The review must:
(a) Include a complete review of application materials;
(b) Include a site inspection; and
(c) Conclude with a report stating findings and a decision on certification of the Crisis Stabilization Center.
(8) Denial of an application.
(a) The Division may elect to deny an initial application on the basis of any of the following:
(b) The applicant has previously had any action taken on a certificate or license; or
(c) Action taken on a certificate or license includes denial, suspension, conditions, intent to revoke, or revocation by the Division, the Authority, the Oregon Department of Human Services, or any other state agency.
(d) The applicant may appeal the denial of the application by submitting a request for reconsideration in writing to the Division within 14 calendar days from receipt of the denial notice. The Division must make a decision on the appeal within 30 days of receipt of the appeal. The decision of the Division is final.
(9) The provider shall submit and complete a plan of correction for each finding of noncompliance:
(a) If the findings of noncompliance substantially impact the welfare, health, and safety of individuals, the provider shall submit a plan of correction that shall be approved by the Division prior to issuance of a certification. In the case of a currently operating program, the findings may result in suspension or revocation of a certification.
(b) If it is determined that the findings of noncompliance do not threaten the welfare, health, or safety of individuals and the program meets other requirements of certification, the Division may issue or renew a certification with the plan of correction submitted and completed as a condition of certification.
(c) The Division must within 30 days specify required documentation and set the timelines for the submission and completion of plans of correction in accordance with the severity of the findings.
(d) The Division must review and evaluate each plan of correction. If the plan of correction does not adequately remedy the findings of noncompliance, the Division must require a revised plan of correction.
(e) The provider may appeal the finding of noncompliance or the disapproval of a plan of correction by submitting a request for reconsideration in writing to the Division. The Division must make a decision on the appeal within 30 days of receipt of the appeal. The decision of the Division is final.
(10) The Division, in its discretion, may grant a variance to these rules as allowed in OAR 309-073-0160 based upon a demonstration by the applicant or provider that an alternative method or different approach provides equal or greater program effectiveness and does not adversely impact the welfare, health, or safety of individuals.
(11) Upon finding that the applicant is in substantial compliance with these rules, the Division must issue a certification:
(a) The certification issued must state the name of the Crisis Stabilization Centers, the name of the program director, the address of the building to which the certification applies, the type of program, and such other information as the Division deems necessary.
(b) The certification shall be effective for two years from the date issued unless sooner revoked or suspended; and
(c) The certification is not transferable or applicable to any building, location, or management other than that indicated on the application and certification.
(12) The certification is valid only under the following conditions:
(a) The provider shall maintain the license posted in the setting and available for inspection at all times; and
(b) A license becomes void immediately upon suspension or revocation of the certification by the Division or if the operation is discontinued by voluntary action of the provider or if there is a change of ownership.
(13) Division staff shall visit and inspect every Crisis Stabilization Center at least once every two years to determine whether it is maintained and operated in accordance with these rules. The provider or applicant shall allow Division staff entry and access to the building and individuals for the purpose of conducting the inspections:
(a) Division staff will review methods of individual care and treatment, records, the condition of the building and equipment, and other areas of operation.
(b) All records, unless specifically excluded by law, must be available to the Division for review; and
(c) The State Fire Marshal or authorized representatives must, upon request, be permitted access to the setting, fire safety equipment within the setting, safety policies and procedures, and maintenance records of fire protection equipment and systems.
(14) Incidents of alleged abuse covered by ORS 430.735 through 430.765 and reported complaints shall be investigated in accordance with OAR 943-045-0250 through 0370. The Division may delegate the investigation to a CMHP or other appropriate entity.
(15) The Division may deny, suspend, revoke, or refuse to renew a certification when it finds there has been substantial failure to comply with these rules or when the State Fire Marshal or authorized representative certifies that there is failure to comply with the Fire Code:
(a) In cases where there exists an imminent danger to the health or safety of an individual or the public, a certification may be suspended immediately; and
(b) The revocation, suspension, nonrenewal, or denial shall include the opportunity for a hearing in accordance with ORS 183.482.
(c) Demonstrates substantial failure to comply with these administrative rules or with applicable state or federal law.
(d) There is a threat to the health or safety of individuals.
(e) Fails to maintain any State of Oregon license that is a prerequisite for providing services that were approved.
(f) Has a direct contract with the Division, and the Division terminates its agreement or contract with the provider.
(g) Fails to comply with the requirements of one or more conditions on the certificate.
(h) Fails to submit and or implement a POC sufficient to come into substantial compliance with these and other applicable rules or regulations.
(i) Submits falsified or incorrect information to the Division.
(j) Refuses to allow access to information for the purpose of verifying compliance with applicable statutes, administrative rules, or other applicable regulations within a specified date or fails to submit such information following the date specified for such a submission in the written notification.
(k) Fails to maintain sufficient staffing or fails to comply with staff qualification requirements.
(l) The provider fails to demonstrate the ability to meet and sustain compliance with all applicable statutes, rules, and regulations.
(16) Any significant changes to information supplied in the application or subsequent correspondence must be reported to the Division within 14 calendar days of the change. A new application will be required. Changes include but are not limited to changes in:
(a) The location or physical nature of the building.
(b) Program name.
(c) Licensee and Owner.
(d) Program director.
(e) Telephone number.
(f) Mailing address; or
(g) Policies and procedures or staffing pattern when the changes are significant or impact the individual's health, safety, or well-being.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 183.310 -183.750, 179.040, 413.042, 413.032 - 413.033, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.624, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.640, 430.870, HB 2417 (2021) & 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 183.310 - 183.750, 462.500, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.010, 430.021, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254, 430.335, 430.620, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.637 & 414.665
- BHS 15-2026, temporary adopt filed 06/04/2026, effective 06/05/2026 through 09/15/2026
- BHS 2-2026, temporary adopt filed 03/20/2026, effective 03/20/2026 through 09/15/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-073-0030 Temporary rule language in effect until 09/15/2026. Building Requirements for Crisis Stabilization Centers
(1) Crisis Stabilization Centers must:
(a) Comply with all applicable state and local building, electrical, plumbing, fire, safety, and zoning codes;
(b) Maintain up-to-date documentation verifying that they meet applicable local business certification, zoning, and building codes and federal, state, and local fire and safety regulations. It is the responsibility of the program to check with local government to make sure all applicable local codes have been met;
(c) Provide space for services including but not limited to intake, assessment, counseling, and telephone conversations that assure the privacy and confidentiality of individuals and is furnished in an adequate and comfortable fashion including plumbing, sanitation, heating, and cooling;
(d) Provide rest rooms for individuals, visitors, and staff that are accessible to individuals with disabilities pursuant to Title II of the Americans with Disabilities Act if the program receives any public funds or Title III of the Act if no public funds are received;
(e) Adopt and implement emergency policies and procedures, including an evacuation plan and emergency plan in case of fire, explosion, accident, death, or another emergency. The policies and procedures and emergency plans must be current and posted in a conspicuous area;
(f) Promote a sense of safety, calm, and de-escalation for individuals and program staff;
(g) Provide a dedicated first responder drop-off and intake area, separate from that used by the public and walk-ins;
(h) Have adequate space to ensure privacy and confidentiality for individuals served including a partitioned space no less than 5 feet by 7 feet for each individual receiving observation and crisis stabilization services;
(i) Have furnishings and fixtures that are capable of being sanitized, constructed of durable materials not capable of breaking into pieces that could be used as a weapon, ligature risk, or for self-harm including recliners or cots for adults receiving observation and crisis stabilization services;
(j) Have interior finishes, lighting, and furnishings that suggest a non-institutional setting that conforms to applicable fire and safety codes;
(k) If an outdoor space is provided, provide an accessible outdoor area available to all individuals, a portion of which must be covered and have an all-weather surface such as a patio or deck. If a Crisis Stabilization Center serves both youth and adults, the outdoor space provided must have separation between youth and adults;
(l) Provide bathroom facilities that:
(A) Are conveniently located for individual use;
(B) Provide all appropriate sanitary products, including menstrual hygiene supplies;
(C) Provide permanently wired light fixtures that illuminate all parts of the room;
(D) Provide individual privacy for individuals;
(E) Provide a securely affixed unbreakable mirror at eye level;
(F) Are adequately ventilated;
(G) Include sufficient facilities specially equipped for use by individuals with disabilities.
(m) A complete floor plan with all specifications for an existing structure without additions or alterations including the location, size and type of rooms, all exits, all secondary emergency egress, smoke and carbon monoxide alarms, fire extinguishers, planned evacuation routes, point of safety, any designated smoking areas outside the facility;
(n) Maintain all appropriate licensing or certification with ODHS, to the extent that it serves individuals under the age of 18.
(2) If a Crisis Stabilization Center serves both youth and adults:
(a) There must be a separate designated area for observation and crisis stabilization services provided for individuals under the age of 18 that has floor to ceiling walls that separate it from other areas of the Crisis Stabilization Center; and
(b) Individuals over the age of 18 must not share any space, participate in any activity or treatment, or have verbal or visual interaction with an individual receiving services at the point of intake at the Crisis Stabilization Center who is under the age of 18.
(c) The designated area for individuals under the age of 18 must have its own bathrooms, showers, outdoor areas and supervision, separate from the designated area for individuals over the age of 18.
(3) A Crisis Stabilization Center providing laundry facilities for use by individuals receiving services at the Crisis Stabilization Center, must ensure those laundry facilities are separate from food preparation and other individual use areas. When residential laundry equipment is installed, the laundry facilities may be located to allow for both individual and program staff use. The following must be included in the laundry facilities:
(a) Countertops or spaces for folding tables sufficient to handle laundry needs for the facility;
(b) Locked storage for chemicals and equipment;
(c) Outlets, venting, and water hook-ups according to state building code requirements. Washers must have a minimum rinse temperature of 155 degrees Fahrenheit (160 degrees Fahrenheit recommended) unless a chemical disinfectant is used; and
(d) Sufficient storage and handling space to ensure that clean laundry is not contaminated by soiled laundry.
(4) If provided by a Crisis Stabilization Center for use by individuals receiving services at the Crisis Stabilization Center, kitchen facilities and equipment may be of residential type except as required by the state building code and fire code or local agencies having jurisdiction. The kitchen must have the following:
(a) Dry storage space not subject to freezing in cabinets or a separate pantry for a minimum of one week's supply of staple foods;
(b) Sufficient refrigeration space for a minimum of two days’ supply of perishable foods. The space must be maintained at 45 degrees Fahrenheit or less and freezer space maintained at 0 degrees Fahrenheit or less;
(c) An approved residential type of dishwasher with a minimum final rinse temperature of 155 degrees Fahrenheit (160 degrees recommended) unless chemical disinfectant is used;
(d) Smooth, nonabsorbent, and cleanable counters for food preparation and serving;
(e) Appropriate storage for dishes and cooking utensils designed to be free from potential contamination;
(f) Microwave or cooktop for food preparation; and
(g) Storage for a mop and other cleaning tools and supplies used for food preparation for dining and adjacent areas. Cleaning tools must be maintained separately from those used to clean other parts of the setting.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 183.310 -183.750, 179.040, 413.042, 413.032 - 413.033, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.624, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.640, 430.870, HB 2417 (2021) & 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 183.310 - 183.750, 426.500, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.010, 430.021, 320.205 - 430.210, 430.254, 430.335, 430.620, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.637 & 414.665
- BHS 2-2026, temporary adopt filed 03/20/2026, effective 03/20/2026 through 09/15/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-073-0035 Temporary rule language in effect until 09/15/2026. Provider Policies
(1) In addition to developing and implementing the policies required in OAR 309-019-0110(1), all Crisis Stabilization Centers must develop and implement the following written policies and procedures:
(a) Intake screening, service, and clinical assessment protocols for walk-ins and first responder drop-offs;
(b) Delivery of Crisis Stabilization Center services identified in OAR 309-019-0110 is to address crisis issues which may include referrals for withdrawal management services or medication assisted treatment when appropriate.
(c) Pathways and timelines for referring youth and young adults ages 20 and under, served at the Crisis Stabilization Center for ongoing stabilization services as described in OAR 309-072-0160.
(d) Use of a Declaration for Mental Health Treatment, when available, to guide services;
(e) Screening for and accessing services for emergency medical conditions, including transport by emergency medical services consistent with the requirements set forth in OAR 309-073-0130 Medical Protocols; and
(f) Ensuring that individuals are considered for Crisis Stabilization Services without unlawful discrimination on the basis of race, ethnicity, gender, gender identity, gender presentation, sexual orientation, religion, creed, national origin, age, intellectual and/or developmental disability, IQ score, or physical disability.
(g) Adopt and implement emergency procedures and disaster plans.
(h) The plan shall cover such emergencies and disasters as fires, explosions, missing persons, accidents, earthquakes, and floods. The program must post the plan by the phone and be immediately available to the program staff. The plan must include diagrams of evacuation routes, and these must be posted. A list of emergency telephone numbers and emergency contact information must be kept by the phone and must include:
(A) The name and emergency contact number for the program director or designee;
(B) Emergency dispatch (911) and non-urgent police and fire contact numbers;
(C) Poison control;
(D) The local hospital;
(E) The Office of Training, Investigations, and Safety;
(F) Oregon SAFELINE [1-855-503-SAFE (7233)] and
(G) Non-emergency numbers for contacting caseworkers, the CMHP, the Division, Disability Rights Oregon, the local public health office and emotional support lines available in the area.
(2) All written service delivery policies and specific procedures must prohibit the following:
(a) Refusing to screen for Crisis Stabilization Services for any individual who presents at the center seeking services.
(b) Refusing to screen for Crisis Stabilization Services any individual brought in or referred by first responders.
(c) Psychological and physical abuse of an individual.
(d) Seclusion, personal restraint, mechanical restraint, and chemical restraint. The policy must include how to respond to an individual that requires such interventions, to include transport to an appropriate setting.
(e) Withholding shelter, food, medication, personal belongings, or supports for physical functioning.
(f) Discipline of one individual receiving services by another individual receiving services; and
(g) Requiring discontinuation of medications prescribed for the treatment of opioid dependence as a condition of receiving crisis stabilization services.
(3) The Crisis Stabilization Center Program Director or their designee must collaborate with applicable first responder agencies to develop a memorandum of understanding (MOU) for drop-off services. A copy of the MOU(s) must be included with the application for certification or certification renewal required in OAR 309-073-0105 and must include, at a minimum:
(a) Drop-off policies and procedures.
(b) The exact service areas and populations to be served; and
(c) Information sharing that complies with applicable laws.
(4) If a Crisis Stabilization Center’s service area includes a Mobile Crisis Intervention Team as defined in OAR 309-072-0110 that is operated by a different Provider, the Crisis Stabilization Center Program Director or their designee must collaborate with the appropriate Providers to develop a MOU for drop-off services. A copy of the MOU(s) must be included with the application for certification or certification renewal required by OAR 309-008-0400 and must include, at a minimum:
(a) Drop-off policies and procedures.
(b) The service areas and populations to be served; and
(c) Information sharing that complies with applicable laws.
(5) The Crisis Stabilization Center Director or their Designee must attempt to collaborate with and maintain and implement written policies and protocols, and Letter of Agreement or MOU with local 988 call center and county crisis line, if operated by a different provider.
(6) If a Crisis Stabilization Center’s service area includes one or more of the Nine Federally Recognized Tribes of Oregon, the Crisis Stabilization Center Program Director or their designee must collaborate with the tribe(s) to provide Crisis Stabilization Services for tribal members through a MOU if the tribe wishes to enter into such an agreement. A copy of the MOU(s) must be included with the application for certification or certification renewal required by OAR 309-008-0400 and must include, at a minimum:
(a) Mutually agreed upon collaboration and delivery of services between the tribe(s) and the CrisisStabilization Center
(b) The service areas and populations to be served;
(c) Information sharing that complies with applicable laws; and
(d) Collection, sharing, and ownership of data related to tribal members.
(7) Providers must produce an attestation or copies of correspondence confirming that all affected tribes were contacted and offered the opportunity to enter into a Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) but declined.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 183.310 -183.750, 179.040, 413.042, 413.032 - 413.033, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.640, 430.870, HB 2417 (2021) & 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 183.310 - 183.750, 426.500, 428.205, 430.010, 430.021, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.335, 430.620, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.637 & 414.665
- BHS 2-2026, temporary adopt filed 03/20/2026, effective 03/20/2026 through 09/15/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-073-0040 Temporary rule language in effect until 09/15/2026. Individual Rights
(1) The Crisis Stabilization Center operates in a manner that provides every individual receiving services in a Crisis Stabilization Center has the individual rights established in OAR 309-019-0115.
(2) The provider must give to the individual and, if appropriate, the individual’s guardian a document that describes the applicable individual’s rights as required in OAR 309-019-0115(2).
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 183.310 -183.750, 179.040, 413.042, 413.032 - 413.033, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.640, 430.870, HB 2417 (2021) & 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 183.310 - 183.750, 426.500, 428.205 - 428.270 & 430.010
- BHS 2-2026, temporary adopt filed 03/20/2026, effective 03/20/2026 through 09/15/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-073-0045 Temporary rule language in effect until 09/15/2026. Staffing
(1) A Crisis Stabilization Center must be staffed 24 hours per day, seven days per week, every day of the year by a multidisciplinary team capable of meeting the needs of individuals in the community experiencing all levels of behavioral health crisis, that may include, but is not limited to:
(a) Psychiatrists or psychiatric nurse practitioners;
(b) Nurses;
(c) Licensed or credentialed clinicians in the region where the Crisis Stabilization Center is located who can complete assessments; and
(d) Peers with lived experience similar to the experiences of the individuals served.
(2) All program staff must meet applicable qualifications, credentialing, or certification standards and competencies as set forth in OAR 309-019-0125. All personnel documentation, training, and supervision is conducted as set forth in OAR 309-019-0130.
(3) An adequate number of program staff must be available in the adult area and, if there is one, the youth area to receive services, to provide continuous supervision and meet the stabilization, health, and safety needs of the individuals served.
(4) A minimum of two program staff must be on-site at all times for Crisis Stabilization Centers with the capacity to provide observation and crisis stabilization services for up to five individuals at a time.
(5) Crisis Stabilization Centers with the capacity to provide observation and crisis stabilization services for more than five individuals at a time, shall have one additional program staff on-site at all times for increased capacity of 5 individuals or portion thereof.
(6) Crisis Stabilization Centers must, at a minimum, have a QMHP on-call 24 hours per day, 7 days per week, each day of the year.
(7) In addition, all program staff, must receive training every two years in:
(a) Evidence-based and best practice trauma-informed interventions to prevent and address disruptive behaviors and behavioral health crises;
(b) Current Basic First Aid.
(c) Current Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPR)
(d) Opioid overdose kits and administration of an FDA-approved short-acting, non-injectable, opioid antagonist medication
(e) Linguistically, developmentally, and culturally responsive practice; and
(f) Suicide and violence risk screening, assessment, and safety planning
(8) It is the provider's responsibility to ensure that security staff at the Crisis Stabilization Center do not carry firearms, whether employed under contract, or on-site. It is the provider’s responsibility to require Department of Public Safety Standards and Training de-escalation training for security staff.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 183.310 -183.750, 179.040, 413.042, 413.032 - 413.033, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.624, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.640, 430.870, HB 2417 (2021) & 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 183.310 - 183.750, 426.500, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.010, 430.021, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254, 430.335, 430.620, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.637 & 414.665
- BHS 2-2026, temporary adopt filed 03/20/2026, effective 03/20/2026 through 09/15/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-073-0050 Temporary rule language in effect until 09/15/2026. Facility Records
(1) The Crisis Stabilization Center must maintain a personnel record for each employee which must include at a minimum the following:
(a) Documentation of pre-employment screening including, but not limited to, application, interview, and reference checks;
(b) All program staff having contact with an individual must have a documented current approved background check in accordance with OAR 943-007-0001 through 943-007-0501 prior to working alone with residents. All program staff must have a preliminary background check prior to working with residents under supervision of qualified staff. The provider must maintain documentation of current approved or preliminary background checks for each applicable staff person.
(c) Documentation that all employees satisfy position qualifications, including required licensure as applicable;
(d) If the employee has a health-care related license or certificate from Oregon or any other state, evidence that the license is current and the individual has not been the subject of any action that would prevent the individual from providing services in the Crisis Stabilization Center;
(e) Current position description signed by the employee; and
(f) Evidence of orientation, training, competency evaluations, and ongoing education.
(g) Signed current approved background check authorizations for the Applicant, each owner with five percent or more incident of ownership, and the Program Director.
(2) Personnel records must be safely and securely stored and readily available.
(3) Personnel records must be maintained for a minimum of seven years from end of employment.
(4) The provider or owner of a Crisis Stabilization Center (CSC) must develop and implement a written safety policy or plan designed for the physical safety of individuals working within a CSC. Every staff member must be trained in safety procedures prior to beginning their first regular shift.
(a) The safety plan must cover such emergencies as natural disasters, fires, explosions, active shooters, accidents, earthquakes, infectious disease outbreaks, loss of utilities, hazardous air quality, floods, and extreme weather events, etc. The plan must be immediately available at all times to the CSC staff, updated annually, and should include:
(A) Emergency instructions for employees (Staff members);
(B) The telephone numbers of the local fire department, police department, the poison control center, and other people to be contacted in an emergencies; and
(C) Instructions for the evacuation of staff and clients in the event of an emergency.
(b) The provider or owner must place diagrams of the CSC evacuation egress routes, along the evacuation egress routes.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 183.310 -183.750, 179.040, 413.042, 413.032 - 413.033, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.624, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.640, 430.870, HB 2417 (2021) & 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 183.310 - 183.750, 426.500, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.010, 430.021, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254, 430.335, 430.620, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.637 & 414.665
- BHS 15-2026, temporary adopt filed 06/04/2026, effective 06/05/2026 through 09/15/2026
- BHS 2-2026, temporary adopt filed 03/20/2026, effective 03/20/2026 through 09/15/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-073-0055 Temporary rule language in effect until 09/15/2026. Service Record
(1) The Crisis Stabilization Center must include the following documentation in the individual's service record:
(a) Presenting problem and referral source, if applicable.
(b) Rationale for denial of services and referral of the individual to other appropriate services, if necessary.
(c) Status as a current or former member of the U.S. Armed Forces.
(d) Current mental health and substance use symptoms.
(e) Current medications.
(f) Screening for suicide risk and completion of a comprehensive, standardized suicide risk assessment and planning, when clinically indicated.
(g) Screening for risk of violence and completion of a comprehensive, standardized violence risk assessment and planning, when clinically indicated.
(h) Screening for substance use disorder and referral for substance use disorder services when appropriate.
(i) Current trauma-related symptoms or concerns for personal safety.
(j) Screening for food and housing insecurity.
(k) Crisis Stabilization Plan; and
(l) Discharge information including:
(A) Outcome of the services provided.
(B) Services provided.
(C) Care coordination efforts.
(D) Referrals; and
(E) Follow-up efforts including attempts to contact within 72 hours from discharge.
(2) Ifan individual’s ability to cooperate and communicate with program staff due to their crisis situation prevents the completion of any of the items in subsection (1), it must be clearly documented in the individual’s service record.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 183.310 -183.750, 179.040, 413.042, 413.032 - 413.033, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.624, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.640, 430.870, HB 2417 (2021) & 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: 183.310 - 183.750, 426.500, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.010, 430.021, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254, 430.225, 430.620, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.637 & 414.665
- BHS 2-2026, temporary adopt filed 03/20/2026, effective 03/20/2026 through 09/15/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-073-0060 Temporary rule language in effect until 09/15/2026. Medical Protocols
(1) Medical clearance is not required prior to provision of services; however, the Crisis Stabilization Center must ensure that each individual is assessed for physical health issues per the medical protocols in subsection (2).
(2) Medical protocols must be approved by the Medical Director. The protocols must:
(a) Specify the components of the screening for physical health issues required in subsection (1).
(b) Designate those physical health issues that, when found, require transfer to a setting capable of providing the level of care required.
(c) Specify the steps for follow up and coordination with physical health care providers in the event the individual is found to have an infectious disease or other major medical problem.
(3) At least one unexpired opioid overdose kit for emergency response to suspected overdose must be available in the Crisis Stabilization Center at all times. Opioid overdose kits do not require a prescription and are not specific to an individual (see ORS 689.684).
(a) All opioid overdose kits must include an ultraviolet light-protected hard case and must contain, but not be limited to:
(A) Two doses of an FDA-approved short-acting, non-injectable, opioid antagonist medication.
(B) One pair non-latex gloves.
(C) One face mask.
(D) One disposable face shield for rescue breathing; and
(E) One short-acting, non-injectable, opioid antagonist medication administration instruction card.
(b) Opioid overdose kits must be:
(A) Installed in an easily accessible, highly visible, and unlocked location.
(B) At a height of no more than 48 inches from the floor.
(C) In a location without direct sunlight.
(D) In an area where temperatures are maintained between 59 F and 77 F; and
(E) Have a sign clearly indicating the location and content of the kit.
(F) Checked daily to ensure the required components have not been removed or damaged.
(G) Checked monthly to ensure the short-acting, non-injectable, opioid antagonist medication has not expired; and
(H) Restocked immediately after use.
(c) Upon recognizing a person is likely experiencing an overdose, program staff must immediately respond based on the medical emergency procedures of the facility.
(d) A person who has reasonable cause to believe an individual is experiencing an overdose, and in good faith administers short-acting, non-injectable, opioid antagonist medication, is protected against civil liability or criminal prosecution unless the person, while rendering care, acts with gross negligence, willful misconduct, or intentional wrongdoing as described in Oregon Revised Statute (ORS) 689.681.
(e) Administration of short-acting, non-injectable, opioid antagonist medication must be documented by the program staff who administered the medication. Documentation must be submitted to the Division within 48 hours of the incident and must include:
(A) Name of the individual.
(B) Description of the incident including date, time, and location.
(C) Time 9-1-1 contacted.
(D) Time of administration(s) of short-acting, non-injectable, opioid antagonist medication.
(E) Individual's response.
(F) Transfer of care to EMS; and
(G) Obtain the signature of the person submitting the report to the authority.
(f) Program staff must fully cooperate with emergency medical service (EMS) personnel. Program staff must not interfere with or impede the administration of emergency medical services.
(4) Opioid overdose medication and kits which are the personal property of an individual receiving services at the Crisis Stabilization Center, do not need to be kept in a locked location.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 183.310 -183.750, 179.040, 413.042, 413.032 - 413.033, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.624, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.640, 430.870, HB 2417 (2021) & 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 183.310 - 183.750, 426.500, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.010, 430.021, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254, 430.335, 430.620, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.637 & 414.665
- BHS 2-2026, temporary adopt filed 03/20/2026, effective 03/20/2026 through 09/15/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-073-0065 Temporary rule language in effect until 09/15/2026. Critical Incident Reporting
(1) Facility staff in Crisis Stabilization Centers must report all Critical Incidents to the Division. Critical incidents include:
(a) Death, including by suicide or overdose.
(b) Severe injury, including injury leading to hospitalization, injury resulting in medical attention needed or no medical attention needed, overdose resulting in hospitalization or needing medical attention, and emergency services needed.
(c) Ongoing risk to health (for example: environmental risks such as black mold).
(d) 911 calls made by program staff.
(e) Extensive damage to the facility;
(f) Where abuse or neglect is suspected, including unethical client and program staff relationships;
(g) Relationships between individuals that result in harm to at least one individual.
(h) Suspected exploitation, including financial exploitation, of an individual; and
(i) Medication errors resulting in a telephone call to or a consultation with a poison control center or hospital, a visit to an emergency department or urgent care, hospitalization or death.
(2) A copy of the original, unredacted critical incident report must be submitted within 24 hours of the event using forms and procedures required by the Division.
(3) All critical incident reports must be maintained in the corresponding service record and in a common file for quality improvement purposes and review by the Division; and
(4) Critical incident reports filed in service records may not contain protected health information belonging to any other individual.
(5) Critical incident reports must contain, at a minimum, the following information:
(a) The time and date of the event.
(b) The time and date of when the critical incident report form was completed.
(c) Name and title of program staff who filled out the report.
(d) Identification of all program staff involved in the incident and the response to the incident, and their titles.
(e) Identification of each individual involved.
(f) Description of event.
(g) Description of program response.
(h) Description of which policies and procedures were followed and when applicable, any that were not followed.
(i) Identification of program staff who were notified, and their titles.
(j) Identification of which authorities the event was reported to, if applicable; and
(k) Description of administrative response and follow-up.
(6) If a Crisis Stabilization Center program staff becomes aware of any death by suicide or suicide attempt occurring within 72 hours after an individual’s discharge, a critical incident report must be submitted to the Division using forms and procedures required by the Division.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 183.310 -183.750, 179.040, 413.042, 413.032 - 413.033, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.624, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.640, 430.870, HB 2417 (2021) & 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 183.310 - 183.750, 426.500, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.010, 430.021, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254, 430.335, 430.620, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.637 & 414.665
- BHS 2-2026, temporary adopt filed 03/20/2026, effective 03/20/2026 through 09/15/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-073-0070 Temporary rule language in effect until 09/15/2026. Quality Assessment and Performance Improvement
(1) Providers must develop and implement a structured and ongoing process to assess, monitor, and improve the quality and effectiveness of services provided to individuals and their families.
(2) Providers must collect and submit quarterly service utilization data including, but not limited to:
(a) Number of walk-ins and first responder drop-offs requesting crisis services;
(b) Number of walk-ins and first responder drop-offs denied crisis services and the rationale for that denial;
(c) Number of walk-ins and first responder drop-offs that were referred to a higher level of care and the rational for that referral;
(d) Race, ethnicity, language, and disability (REALD) information;
(e) Sexual orientation and gender identity (SOGI) information;
(f) Length of stay for individuals receiving observation and crisis stabilization services;
(g) Presenting problem;
(h) Outcome; and
(i) Number of individuals receiving follow-up contact and the outcome of that contact.
(3) Providers must submit quarterly service utilization data reports electronically to the Division, using forms and procedures required by the Division, as follows:
(a) For services provided January 1 through March 31, reports are due no later than May 15.
(b) For services provided April 1 through June 30, reports are due no later than August 15.
(c) For services provided July 1 through September 30, reports are due no later than November 15.
(d) For services provided October 1 through December 31, reports are due no later than February 15.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 183.310 -183.750, 179.040, 413.042, 413.032 - 413.033, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.624, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.640, 430.870, HB 2417 (2021) & 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 183.310 - 183.750, 426.500, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.010, 430.021, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.335, 430.254, 430.620, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.637 & 414.665
- BHS 2-2026, temporary adopt filed 03/20/2026, effective 03/20/2026 through 09/15/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-073-0075 Temporary rule language in effect until 09/15/2026. Grievances and Appeals
(1) Any individual or parent or guardian receiving services may file a grievance with the provider, the individual’s coordinated care plan, or the Division.
(2) The provider’s grievance process shall:
(a) Notify each individual or legal representative of the grievance procedures by reviewing a written copy of the policy upon entry;
(b) Offer to assist individuals or legal representatives with completing the grievance process;
(c) Notify individuals or legal representatives of the results and basis for the decision;
(d) Encourage and facilitate resolution of the grievance at the lowest possible level;
(e) Complete an investigation of any grievance within 30 calendar days;
(f) Implement a procedure for accepting, processing, and responding to grievances including specific timelines for each;
(g) Designate a program staff individual to receive and process the grievance;
(h) Document any action taken on a substantiated grievance within a timely manner; and
(i) Document receipt, investigation, and action taken in response to the grievance.
(3) The provider shall post a Grievance Process Notice in a common area stating the telephone numbers of:
(a) The Division;
(b) Disability Rights Oregon;
(c) Any applicable coordinated care organization(s); and
(d) The Governor’s Advocacy Office.
(4) In circumstances where the matter of the grievance is likely to cause harm to the individual before the grievance procedures are completed, the individual or guardian of the individual may request an expedited review. The program director or designee shall review and respond in writing to the grievance within 48 hours of receipt of the grievance. The written response shall include information about the appeal process.
(5) A grievant, witness, or staff member of a provider may not be subject to retaliation by a provider for making a report or being interviewed about a grievance or being a witness. Retaliation may include but is not limited to dismissal or harassment, reduction in services, wages, or benefits, or basing service or a performance review on the action.
(6) Individuals or their legal representatives may appeal entry, transfer, and grievance decisions as follows:
(a) If the individual or guardian is not satisfied with the decision, the individual or guardian may file an appeal in writing within ten working days of the date of the Program Director's response to the grievance or notification of denial for services. The appeal shall be submitted to the Division;
(b) If requested, program staff shall be available to assist the individual;
(c) The Division shall provide a written response within ten working days of the receipt of the appeal; and
(d) If the individual or guardian is not satisfied with the appeal decision, they may file a second appeal in writing within ten working days of the date of the written response to the Division Director.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 183.310 -183.750, 179.040, 413.042, 413.032 - 413.033, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.624, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.640, 430.870, HB 2417 (2021) & 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 183.310 - 183.750, 426.500, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.010, 430.021, 430.205, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254, 430.335, 430.620, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.637 & 414.665
- BHS 2-2026, temporary adopt filed 03/20/2026, effective 03/20/2026 through 09/15/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-073-0080 Temporary rule language in effect until 09/15/2026. Variances
(1) A Crisis Stabilization Center may request a variance to these rules. The Crisis Stabilization Center must submit the variance request directly to the Division using the Division approved form.
(2) The variance request must include:
(a) A description and applicable details of the variance requested, including the specific rule for which the variance is sought;
(b) The rationale and necessity for the requested variance;
(c) The alternative practice proposed, where relevant; and
(d) The proposed duration of the variance, including a plan and timetable for compliance with the rule exempted or adjusted by the variance.
(3) The Division shall approve or deny the variance request and include an expiration date for the variance not to exceed the length of the provider’s current certificate.
(4) A variance granted by the Division becomes part of the certificate.
(5) Failure by the Crisis Stabilization Center to implement approved alternative practices or otherwise demonstrate noncompliance with an approved variance may result in the Division withdrawing approval for a variance.
(6) Failure by the Crisis Stabilization Center to implement approved alternative practices or otherwise demonstrate noncompliance with an approved variance such that the health or safety of an individual is jeopardized to the degree that cessation of services by the Crisis Stabilization Center is considered necessary to prevent harm to an individual may result in the Division taking action on the certificate.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 183.310 -183.750, 179.040, 413.042, 413.032 - 413.033, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.624, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.640, 430.870, HB 2417 (2021) & 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 183.310 - 183.750, 426.500, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.010, 430.021, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254, 430.335, 430.620, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.637 & 414.665
- BHS 2-2026, temporary adopt filed 03/20/2026, effective 03/20/2026 through 09/15/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-073-0085 Temporary rule language in effect until 09/15/2026. Inspections
(1) The Division must conduct an inspection of Crisis Stabilization Center application and issue a certification to successful applicants prior to services being rendered.
(2) The Division must conduct an onsite inspection of each Crisis Stabilization Center every two-years to verify the Crisis Stabilization Center is maintained and operated in substantial compliance with these rules.
(3) The Division may conduct inspections:
(a) To determine if cited violations have been corrected.
(b) For the purpose of routine monitoring of individual’s care.
(c) The Division has reason to believe the Crisis Stabilization Center has violated a regulation or provision of these rules; or
(d) The Division has reason to believe the Crisis Stabilization Center is operating without a certification.
(4) An inspection may include, but is not limited to:
(a) Review of the application and all supporting documentation and information submitted by the applicant.
(b) Interviews with individuals, individual’s legal representatives, individual’s family members, and Crisis Stabilization Center staff.
(c) Review of facility, personnel, and individual records.
(d) On-site observations of individuals and staff; and
(e) Verification of substantial compliance with Federal, State, and local government agencies with jurisdiction.
(5) The Division may consult with and advise the Crisis Stabilization Center concerning methods of care, records, equipment, and other areas of operation.
(6) A Crisis Stabilization Center must make all requested documents and records available for review and copying.
(7) Following an inspection, Division staff will prepare and provide the Crisis Stabilization Center specific written notice of the findings.
(8) If the findings result in a referral to another regulatory agency, Division staff must submit the applicable information to that agency for its review and determination of appropriate action.
(9) A Crisis Stabilization Center not in compliance with these rules must submit a plan of correction that satisfies the Division within 30 days of receipt of the inspection report, unless a shorter time is determined by the Division to be necessary due to health or life safety risks.
(10) Violations not corrected by the date specified in the inspection report may result in one or more administrative sanctions by the Division.
(11) A copy of the most current inspection report and any conditions placed upon the certificate must be posted with the Crisis Stabilization Center’s certificate in public view near the main entrance to the Crisis Stabilization Center.
(12) Division staff may consult with and advise Authority and Department staff in inspections, complaints, investigations, certification, and actions taken on a license.
(13) The Crisis Stabilization Center must authorize all staff to permit access to the Crisis Stabilization Center and facility, personnel, and individual records to Authority, Department, and CMS staff, for the purpose of inspection, investigation, and other duties within the scope of the agency’s authority.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 183.310 - 183.750, 179.040, 413.042, 413.032 - 413.033, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.624, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.640, 430.870, HB 2417 (2021) & 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 183.310 - 183.750, 426.500, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.010, 430.021, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254, 430.335, 430.620, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.637 & 414.665
- BHS 2-2026, temporary adopt filed 03/20/2026, effective 03/20/2026 through 09/15/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-073-0090 Temporary rule language in effect until 09/15/2026. Conditions
(1) Conditions may be attached to a certificate and take effect immediately upon notification by the Division or the delivery date of the notice, whichever is sooner. The type of condition attached to a certificate must directly relate to a risk of harm or potential risk of harm to individuals. Conditions may be attached upon a finding that:
(a) Information on the application or initial inspection requires a condition to protect the health, safety, or welfare of the individuals.
(b) A threat to the health, safety, or welfare of an individual exists.
(c) There is reliable evidence of abuse, neglect, or exploitation.
(d) The Crisis Stabilization Center is not being operated in compliance with these rules.
(2) Examples of conditions that may be imposed on a Crisis Stabilization Center license include, but are not limited to:
(a) Restricting the total number of individuals served based upon the ability of the Crisis Stabilization Center to meet the health and safety needs of the individuals.
(b) Requiring additional staff to meet an individual's care needs.
(c) Requiring additional qualifications or training of staff.
(d) Restricting a Crisis Stabilization Center from allowing persons on the premises who may be a threat to an individual's health, safety, or welfare.
(3) The Crisis Stabilization Center will be notified in writing of any conditions imposed, the reason for the conditions, and be given an opportunity to request a hearing under ORS 183.411 to 183.502.
(4) Conditions take effect immediately and are a final order of the Division unless later rescinded through the hearings process.
(5) A Crisis Stabilization Center may appeal conditions imposed by requesting a hearing in writing within 21 calendar days after the date the notice was personally served or mailed.
(6) In addition to, or in-lieu of, a contested case hearing, a Crisis Stabilization Center may request an informal conference with the Division to discuss conditions imposed. The informal conference does not diminish the Crisis Stabilization Center's right to a hearing.
(7) Conditions imposed remain in effect until the Division has sufficient cause to believe the situation that warranted the condition has been remedied. If the Crisis Stabilization Center believes the situation that warranted the condition has been remedied, the Crisis Stabilization Center may request in writing that the condition be removed.
(8) Conditions must be posted with the certificate in a prominent place in the Crisis Stabilization Center and be available for inspection at all times.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 183.310 -183.750, 179.040, 413.042, 413.032 - 413.033, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.640, 430.870, HB 2417 (2021) & 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 183.310 - 183.750, 426.500, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.010, 430.021, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254, 430.335, 430.620, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.637 & 414.665
- BHS 2-2026, temporary adopt filed 03/20/2026, effective 03/20/2026 through 09/15/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-073-0095 Temporary rule language in effect until 09/15/2026. Investigations
(1) Abuse, neglect, exploitation, seclusion, and coercion are prohibited. Crisis Stabilization Centeremployees and the licensee must not permit, aid, or engage in abuse, neglect, exploitation, seclusion, or coercion of individuals.
(2) Known or suspected abuse, neglect, exploitation, seclusion, or coercion of individuals must be reported in accordance with ORS 430.735 or ORS 124.005.
(a) The licensee and employees are mandatory reporters and must immediately report known or suspected abuse, neglect, exploitation, seclusion, or coercion of individuals, including events overheard or witnessed by observation to the investigative authority.
(b) The local law enforcement agency must be called first when the suspected abuse is believed to be a crime (e.g., rape, murder, assault, burglary, kidnapping, theft of controlled substances).
(3) The Crisis Stabilization Center must not interfere with a good faith disclosure of information by an employee or volunteer concerning abuse, neglect, exploitation, seclusion, or coercion of individuals or other action affecting an individual’s safety or welfare.
(4) Anyone who, in good faith, reports abuse or suspected abuse has immunity, as approved by law, from any civil liability that might otherwise be incurred or imposed with respect to the making or content of an abuse complaint.
(5) Immunity under this rule does not protect self-reporting licensees from liability for the underlying conduct that is alleged in the complaint.
(6) The identity of a person making a report of abuse and any personally identifiable information, as defined in ORS 430.753 and ORS 430.763 or ORS 124.075, 123.085 and 124.090, is confidential and not subject to disclosure under ORS 192.311 to 192.478.
(7) The Department investigates reports of abuse in accordance with the adult abuse investigations in mental health services rules in OAR chapter 943, division 045.
(8) An unannounced abuse investigation will be carried out as soon as practicable and may include, but is not limited to:
(a) Interviews of the abuse reporter, direct service workers, individuals, an individual’s legal representative, an individual’s family members, witnesses, Crisis Stabilization Center management and staff.
(b) On-site observations of the individual(s), staff performance, and the related individual’s environment; and
(c) Review of facility, personnel, and individual records.
(9) Immediate protection must be provided for the individual by the agency, in coordination with the investigative authority or OHA, as necessary, regardless of whether the report of alleged abuse is opened for investigation. The Crisis Stabilization Center must immediately cease any practice that places an individual at risk of serious harm.
(10) The Crisis Stabilization Center must cooperate with abuse and protective services investigations. The Crisis Stabilization Center must permit access to the Authority, Department, and law enforcement and must ensure:
(a) Records are made available upon request including access to all facility, personnel, and individual records;
(b) Allowance for the Authority, Department, and law enforcement to conduct private interviews with Crisis Stabilization Center personnel and individuals; and
(11) Oregon Health Authority and appropriate Local Public Health Authority are permitted access to the Crisis Stabilization Center and facility, personnel, and individual records pertinent to investigation of illness or outbreak, as authorized by law.
(12) Upon receipt of a notice of substantiated abuse for victims covered by ORS 430.735, the Crisis Stabilization Center must provide written notice of the findings to the person found to have committed abuse, the individual or the individual’s legal representative.
(13) Information obtained by the Authority or Department during an investigation of a complaint or reported violation is confidential and not subject to public disclosure under ORS 192.410 through 192.505. Upon the conclusion of the investigation, the Division or Department may publicly release a report of its findings but may not include information in the report prohibited from disclosure under state or federal laws. The Division may use any information obtained during an investigation in an administrative or judicial proceeding concerning the certification of a Crisis Stabilization Center and may report information obtained during an investigation to a health professional regulatory board as defined in ORS 676.160 if that information pertains to a licensee of that board.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 183.310 -183.750, 179.040, 413.042, 413.032 - 413.033, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.624, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.640, 430.870, HB 2417 (2021) & 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 183.310 - 183.750, 426.500, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.010, 430.021, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254, 430.335, 430.620, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.637 & 414.665
- BHS 2-2026, temporary adopt filed 03/20/2026, effective 03/20/2026 through 09/15/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-073-0100 Definitions
(1) "Abuse of an Adult" means the circumstances defined in ORS 430.735, OAR Chapter 943, Division 45 and OAR Chapter 407, Division 45 for abuse of an adult with mental illness or who is receiving residential substance use disorder treatment or withdrawal management services.
(2) “Abuse of a Child” means the circumstances defined in ORS 419B.005 and ORS 418.257.
(3) "Adult" means an individual 18 years of age or older or an emancipated minor. An individual with Medicaid eligibility who needs services specific to children, adolescents, or young adults in transition shall be considered a child until age 21 for the purposes of these rules. Adults who are between the ages of 18 and 21 who are considered children for purposes of these rules shall have all rights afforded to adults as specified in these rules.
(4) “Authority” means the Oregon Health Authority.
(5) “Behavioral Health Treatment” means treatment for mental health, substance use disorders, and problem gambling.
(6) “Care Coordination” means a process-oriented activity to facilitate ongoing communication and collaboration to meet multiple needs. Care coordination includes facilitating communication between the person or family served, the family, natural supports, community resources, and involved providers and agencies; organizing, facilitating, and participating in team meetings; and providing for continuity of care by creating linkages to and managing transitions between levels of care and transitions for young adults in transition to adult services.
(7) “Cot” means temporary, collapsible, flat, fabric surface on which an individual can rest or recline.
(8) "Community Mental Health Program (CMHP)" an entity that is responsible for planning and delivery of safety net services for persons with mental or emotional disturbances, drug abuse problems, and alcoholism and alcohol abuse in a specific geographic area of the state under a contract with the Division or a local mental health authority and pursuant to OAR Chapter 309, Division 014.
(9) “Complaints” means program staff must not retaliate in any way against any individual, witness or staff member after a complaint or grievance has been filed.
(10) "Crisis" means either an actual or perceived urgent or emergent situation that occurs when an individual’s stability or functioning is disrupted, and there is an immediate need to stabilize the situation to prevent a serious deterioration in the individual’s mental or physical health or to prevent referral to a significantly higher level of care or death.
(11) "Crisis Intervention" means short-term services to address an immediate crisis need.
(12) “Crisis Stabilization Centers” means a program that is:
(a) Designed to prevent or ameliorate a behavioral health crisis or reduce acute symptoms of mental illness or substance use disorder; and
(b) Certified by the Division to provide screening, assessment, crisis intervention, and less than 24 consecutive hours of observation and crisis stabilization services for individuals who do not require inpatient treatment.
(13) “Crisis and safety plan” means an individualized document created in collaboration with an individual and their family, if applicable, to help anticipate and prevent future crisis episodes. The plan, at minimum, includes lethal means counseling; strategies for self-regulation; activators; contact information for supportive resources; and documents, referrals, and recommendations for follow up services and supports."
(14) “Crisis stabilization services” includes diagnosis, stabilization, observation and follow-up referral services provided to individuals in a community-based, developmentally appropriate homelike environment to the extent practicable as defined by ORS 430.626.
(15) “Critical Incident” means any incident that caused harm or created a potential risk of harm to an individual including:
(a) Abuse, neglect, or exploitation;
(b) Misuse or unauthorized use of restraints or seclusion;
(c) Medication error resulting in consultation with a poison control center or medical professional, an emergency department or urgent care visit, hospitalization or death; and
(d) Suspected overdose.
(e) Serious injury.
(f) Contact with law enforcement or emergency services.
(g) Death.
(16) “Critical Incident Report” means a written description of any critical incident.
(17) “Culturally Responsive” means services that are respectful of and relevant to the beliefs, practices, culture and linguistic needs of diverse consumer/client populations and communities whose members identify as having particular cultural or linguistic affiliations. Cultural responsiveness describes the capacity to respond to the issues of diverse communities and requires knowledge and capacity at different levels of intervention: systemic, organizational, professional, and individual.
(18) "Declaration for Mental Health Treatment" means a written statement of an individual’s preferences concerning their mental health treatment. The declaration is made when the individual is able to understand and legally make decisions related to such treatment. It is honored, as clinically appropriate, in the event the individual becomes unable to make such decisions.
(19) “Department” means the Oregon Department of Human Services.
(20) "Diagnosis" means the principal mental health, substance use, or problem gambling diagnosis listed in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth edition (DSM-5-TR). The diagnosis is determined through the assessment and any examinations, tests, or consultations suggested by the assessment and are medically necessary reason for services.
(21) “Division” means the Behavioral Health Division of the Oregon Health Authority, or its designee.
(22) “Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders,” means the current edition of the textbook used to diagnose and classify mental disorders that is published by the American Psychiatric Association.
(23) "Family" means the biological or legal parents, siblings, other relatives, foster parents, legal guardians, spouse, domestic partner, caregivers, and other primary relations to the individual whether by blood, adoption, or legal or social relationships. Family also means any natural, formal, or informal support persons identified as important by the individual.
(24) “First Responder” means a person with specialized training who is among the first to arrive and provide assistance, or incident resolution, at the scene of an emergency. First responders include, but are not limited to, law enforcement officers, emergency medical services members, and fire service members.
(25) “Gender Identity” means an individual's self-identification of gender without regard to legal or biological identification including but not limited to individuals identifying themselves as male, female, transgender, gender transitioning and transitioned, non-binary, intersex, and gender diverse.
(26) “Gender Expression” means the external characteristics and behaviors that are socially defined as masculine, feminine, or androgynous such as dress, mannerisms, speech patterns, and social interactions.
(27) "Grievance" means a formal complaint submitted to a provider verbally or in writing by an individual or the individual’s representative.
(28) "Guardian" means an individual appointed by a court of law to act as guardian of a minor or a legally incapacitated individual.
(29) “Homelike” means an environment that promotes the dignity, security, and comfort of an individual through the provision of personalized care and services and encourages independence, choice, and decision-making by the individual.
(30) “Individual” means any person being considered for or receiving services and supports regulated by these rules.
(31) "Level of Care" means the type, frequency, and duration of medically necessary services provided from the most integrated setting to the most restrictive and intensive inpatient setting
(32) "Licensed Medical Practitioner (LMP)” means a person who meets the following minimum qualifications as documented by the Local Mental Health Authority (LMHA) or designee:
(a) Physician licensed to practice in the State of Oregon.
(b) Nurse practitioner licensed to practice in the State of Oregon; or
(c) Physician's assistant licensed to practice in the State of Oregon.
(d) Whose training, experience, and competence demonstrate the ability to conduct a medical exam, a mental health assessment and provide medication management; and
(33) “Local Mental Health Authority (LMHA)” means one of the following entities:
(a) The board of county commissioners of one or more counties that establishes or operates a CMHP.
(b) The tribal council in the case of a Federally Recognized Tribe of Native Americans that elects to enter into an agreement to provide mental health services; or
(c) A regional local mental health authority composed of two or more boards of county commissioners.
(34) "Medicaid" means the federal grant-in-aid program to state governments to provide medical assistance to eligible individuals under Title XIX of the Social Security Act.
(35) "Medical Director" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in the State of Oregon and is designated by a Crisis Stabilization Center to be responsible for the program's medical services, either as an employee or through a contract.
(36) “Medication Assisted Treatment (MAT)” means the use of medication in combination with counseling and behavioral therapies for the treatment of substance use disorders.
(37) "Opioid" means natural, synthetic, or semi-synthetic chemicals normally prescribed to treat pain. This class of drugs includes, but is not limited to, illegal drugs such as heroin, natural drugs such as morphine and codeine, synthetic drugs such as fentanyl and tramadol, and semi-synthetic drugs such as oxycodone, hydrocodone, and hydromorphone.
(38) "Opioid Overdose" means a medical condition that causes depressed consciousness and mental functioning, decreased movement, depressed respiratory function and the impairment of the vital functions as a result of taking opiates in an amount larger than can be physically tolerated.
(39) "Opioid Overdose Kit" means an ultraviolet light-protected hard case containing a minimum of two doses of an FDA-approved short-acting, non-injectable, opioid antagonist medication, one pair non-latex gloves, one face mask, one disposable face shield for rescue breathing, and a short-acting, non-injectable, opioid antagonist medication administration instruction card.
(40) “Peer” means program staff supporting an individual or the individual's family member who has similar life experience, either as a current or former recipient of mental health or substance use, problem gambling, or mental health services, or as a family member of an individual who is a current or former recipient of substance use, problem gambling, or mental health services.
(42) “Plan of Correction” (POC) means a written plan and attached supporting documentation created by the provider when required by the Division to address findings of noncompliance with these rules or applicable service delivery rules.
(43) "Program" means an organized system of services and supports delivered by a provider designed to address the treatment needs of individuals and families.
(44) "Program Director" means program staff with appropriate professional qualifications and experience who is designated to manage the operation of a program.
(45) "Program Staff" means personnel who renders a clinical service or support. Program staff could include, but is not limited to, an employee, contractor, intern, or volunteer who is rendering or assisting with rendering clinical services or supports.
(46) “Provider” means an organizational entity or qualified person that is certified or licensed by the Division for the direct delivery of substance use, problem gambling, or mental health services and supports.
(47) "Qualified Mental Health Associate (QMHA)” means mental health program staff delivering services under the direct supervision of a QMHP who meets the minimum qualifications as authorized by the LMHA or designee and specified in OAR 309-019-0125.
(48) "Qualified Mental Health Professional (QMHP)" means mental health program staff LMP or any other program staff meeting the minimum qualifications as authorized by the LMHA or designee and specified in OAR 309-019-0125.
(49) “Qualified Program Staff” means a QMHP or QMHA who meets the minimum qualifications as authorized by the LMHA or designee and specified in OAR 309-019-0125.
(50) “Recliner” means an adjustable type of seating designed to provide comfort and support for individuals in crisis.
(51) "Legal Representative" means someone who acts on behalf of an individual at the individual’s request with respect to a grievance including but not limited to a relative, friend, Division employee, attorney, or legal guardian.
(52) “Service Record” means the written or electronic documentation regarding an individual presenting for services at a Crisis Stabilization Center.
(53) “Signature” means any written or electronic means of entering the name, date of authentication, and credentials of the program staff providing a specific service or the individual authorizing services and supports. Signature also means any written or electronic means of entering the name and date of authentication of the individual, guardian, or any legal representative of the individual receiving services.
(54) “Stabilization Services” includes diagnosis, stabilization, observation and follow-up referral services provided to individuals in a community-based, developmentally appropriate homelike environment to the extent practicable.
(55) "Substance Use Disorder (SUD)" as defined in the current edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders textbook, means disorders related to the taking of a drug of abuse including alcohol, the side effects of a medication, or a toxin exposure. The disorders include substance use disorders and substance-induced disorders, which include substance intoxication and withdrawal, and substance-related disorders such as delirium, neuro-cognitive disorders, and substance-induced psychotic disorder.
(56) “Substance use screening” means the process to determine the presence of substance use and whether someone needs further substance use assessment, services, resources, or referrals.
(57) “Suicide Risk Assessment” means a comprehensive evaluation, usually performed by a clinician, to evaluate suspected suicide risk in an individual, estimate the immediate danger, and decide on a course of treatment.
(58) “Suicide screening” means a procedure in which a standardized suicide screening tool or protocol is used to identify individuals who may be at risk for suicide.
(59) “Supports” means activities, referrals, and supportive relationships designed to enhance the services delivered to individuals and families for the purpose of facilitating progress toward intended outcomes.
(60) "Variance" means an exception from a provision of these rules granted in writing by the Division pursuant to the process regulated by these rules upon written application from the provider.
(61) “Violence Risk Assessment” means a comprehensive evaluation, usually performed by a clinician, to evaluate suspected risk of harm to others in an individual, estimate the immediate danger, and decide on a course of treatment.
(62) “Violence Screening” means a procedure in which a validated tool, or protocol is used to identify individuals who may be at risk for harm to others.
(63) "Volunteer" means a person who performs a service willingly and without pay.
(64) “Youth” means the universal term used to describe all individuals, children, adolescents, and teenagers from birth through the age of 17.
(65) “Young adults” is the accepted term to describe individuals between the ages of 18 and 20 years of age enrolled in IIBHT services.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 183.310 -183.750, 179.040, 413.042, 413.032 - 413.033, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.624, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.640, 430.870, HB 2417 (2021) & 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 183.310 - 183.750, 426.500, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.010, 430.021, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254, 430.335, 430.620, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.637 & 414.665
- BHS 24-2026, adopt filed 09/04/2026, effective 09/04/2026
- BHS 2-2026, temporary adopt filed 03/20/2026, effective 03/20/2026 through 09/15/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-073-0105 Standards for Crisis Stabilization Centers
(1) Crisis Stabilization Services must be offered to individuals experiencing a behavioral health crisis whose needs are within the scope of services offered at a Crisis Stabilization Center. Crisis Stabilization Services must be available to the community, 24 hours a day, seven days per week, every day of the year and provided in a homelike environment.
(2) Formal interpretation services must be available to individuals and families who request services in languages not spoken by staff members.
(3) Providers must ensure equitable access to services, particularly for individuals and families who may have faced historical and contemporary discrimination and inequities in health care based on race or ethnicity, physical or cognitive ability, IQ, gender, gender identity or presentation, sexual orientation, socioeconomic status, insurance status, citizenship status, or religion.
(4) Qualified program staff must screen for physical health concerns and have protocols in place to transfer an individual for further assessment as necessary when Crisis Stabilization Center staff cannot manage health concerns for the duration of the individual’s admission to the program.
(5) Qualified program staff must attempt to complete a developmentally appropriate suicide screening with individuals seeking service:
(a) When unable to complete the suicide screening the reason must be clearly documented;
(b) If the suicide screening tool indicates risk, then the following must occur and be documented:
(A) A full suicide risk assessment must be completed by a Qualified Mental Health Professional (QMHP) or a licensed provider;
(B) A crisis and safety plan which includes lethal means counseling when clinically indicated.
(6) Qualified program staff must provide the following services and supports, as clinically indicated:
(a) Crisis intervention and de-escalation;
(b) Violence screening and violence risk assessment
(c) Substance use screening;
(d) Crisis and safety planning; and
(e) Care coordination.
(f) Diagnosis
(7) Program Staff must identify and refer all individuals to appropriate services and supports to meet their needs.
(8) When serving youth and young adults ages 20 and under, Program Staff must offer a referral to Stabilization Services when clinically indicated.
(9) If the individual has established medical or behavioral health services, program staff must attempt to coordinate care with the individual’s established provider. When unable to coordinate care with the established provider, program staff must document the reason.
(10) If the Qualified Mental Health Professional (QMHP) or one other trained behavioral health provider as defined in OAR 309-019-0125(12) determines that the individual requires a psychiatric evaluation and a director’s custody hold is required, program staff must initiate the appropriate steps to transport the individual to the evaluation per OAR 309-033-0230 (2)(b).
(11) The provider must work collaboratively with individuals to ensure connection to follow-up services and supports. When serving youth, the provider must work collaboratively with youth and their families to ensure connection to follow-up services and supports.
(12) The provider must attempt follow-up with individuals within 72 hours after discharge from a Crisis Stabilization Center. When unable to complete follow-up with the individual, program staff must document the reason.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 183.310 -183.750, 179.040, 413.042, 413.032 - 413.033, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.624, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.640, 430.870, HB 2417 (2021) & 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 183.310 - 183.750, 426.500, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.637 & 414.665
- BHS 24-2026, adopt filed 09/04/2026, effective 09/04/2026
- BHS 2-2026, temporary adopt filed 03/20/2026, effective 03/20/2026 through 09/15/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-073-0110 Certification for Crisis Stabilization Centers
(1) The Division shall certify a program that meets the definition of a Crisis Stabilization Center and demonstrates compliance with these and all applicable laws and rules. No person or governmental unit acting individually or jointly with any other person or governmental unit shall establish, maintain, manage, or operate a Crisis Stabilization Center without a certification issued by the Division.
(2) When a Crisis Stabilization Center serves or seeks to serve another category of individuals in addition to youth and adults experiencing a behavioral health crisis, the directors of the Authority and the Department shall determine the department responsible for certification.
(3) An application for certification must be submitted to the Division using the forms or format required by the Division. The following information must be included in the application:
(a) Full and complete information as to the identity and financial interest of each individual, including stockholders, having a direct or indirect ownership interest of five percent or more in the Crisis Stabilization Center and all officers and directors in the case of a Crisis Stabilization Center operated or owned by a corporation;
(b) Name and resume of the program director;
(c) Physical and mailing addresses for the Crisis Stabilization Center;
(d) Proposed annual budget identifying sources of revenue and expenses;
(e)Written background information pertaining to any current or previous licensure or certification by a state agency, including those licenses or certificates granted to a business or person affiliated with the business, including:
(A) Copies of all current licenses or certificates;
(B) Documentation showing the final disposition of any suspension, denial, revocation, or other disciplinary actions initiated on any current or previous license or certificate, including settlement agreements, where applicable; and
(C) Documentation of any substantiated allegations of abuse or neglect pertaining to the applicant, or anyone employed by or contracted with the applicant.
(f) A complete set of policies and procedures;
(g) Building plans and specifications; and
(h) Other information the Division may reasonably require.
(D) Providers and owners (with a minimum 20% interest) providing CSC services must certify in writing under penalty of perjury they are not in violation of tax laws under ORS 305.380, to include Providers (with a minimum 20% interest) must submit an Oregon Tax Compliance Certificate from the Oregon Department of Revenue that they are not in violation of tax laws under ORS 305.380.
(4) A complete set of plans and specifications must be submitted to the Division at the time of initial application, whenever a new structure or addition to an existing structure is proposed, or when significant alterations to an existing facility are proposed. Plans must meet the following criteria:
(a) Plans must be to-scale and sufficiently complete to allow full review for compliance with these rules; and
(b) Plans must bear the stamp of an Oregon licensed architect or engineer when required by the Building Code.
(5) Prior to approval of a certification for a new or renovated building, the applicant shall submit the following to the Division:
(a) One copy of written approval to occupy the building issued by the city or county building codes authority having jurisdiction;
(b) One copy of the fire inspection report from the State Fire Marshal or local jurisdiction indicating that the building complies with the Fire Code;
(c) When the building is not served by an approved municipal water system, one copy of the documentation indicating that the state or county health agency having jurisdiction has tested and certified safe the water supply in accordance with OAR chapter 333, Public Health Division rules to public water systems;
(d) When the setting is not connected to an approved municipal sewer system, one copy of the sewer or septic system approval from the Department of Environmental Quality or local jurisdiction.
(6) A certification is renewable upon submission of a renewal application in the form or format required by the Division:
(a) Filing of an application for renewal 60 days before the date of expiration extends the effective date of the current certification until the Division acts upon the renewal application;
(b) Crisis Stabilization Centers shall not be certified if they do not meet the qualifications in 309-008-1200.
(7) Upon receipt of a complete application, the Division must begin its review of the materials within 30 days. The review must:
(a) Include a complete review of application materials;
(b) Include a site inspection; and
(c) Conclude with a report stating findings and a decision on certification of the Crisis Stabilization Center.
(8) Denial of an application.
(a) The Division may elect to deny an initial application on the basis of any of the following:
(b) The applicant has previously had any action taken on a certificate or license; or
(c) Action taken on a certificate or license includes denial, suspension, conditions, intent to revoke, or revocation by the Division, the Authority, the Oregon Department of Human Services, or any other state agency.
(d) The applicant may appeal the denial of the application by submitting a request for reconsideration in writing to the Division within 14 calendar days from receipt of the denial notice. The Division must decide on the appeal within 30 days of receipt of the appeal. The decision of the Division is final.
(9) The provider shall submit and complete a plan of correction for each finding of noncompliance:
(a) If the findings of noncompliance substantially impact the welfare, health, and safety of individuals, the provider shall submit a plan of correction that shall be approved by the Division prior to issuance of a certification. In the case of a currently operating program, the findings may result in suspension or revocation of a certification.
(b) If it is determined that the findings of noncompliance do not threaten the welfare, health, or safety of individuals and the program meets other requirements of certification, the Division may issue or renew a certification with the plan of correction submitted and completed as a condition of certification.
(c) The Division must within 30 days specify required documentation and set the timelines for the submission and completion of plans of correction in accordance with the severity of the findings.
(d) The Division must review and evaluate each plan of correction. If the plan of correction does not adequately remedy the findings of noncompliance, the Division must require a revised plan of correction.
(e) The provider may appeal the finding of noncompliance or the disapproval of a plan of correction by submitting a request for reconsideration in writing to the Division. The Division must decide on the appeal within 30 days of receipt of the appeal. The decision of the Division is final.
(10) The Division, in its discretion, may grant a variance to these rules as allowed in OAR 309-073-0160 based upon a demonstration by the applicant or provider that an alternative method or different approach provides equal or greater program effectiveness and does not adversely impact the welfare, health, or safety of individuals.
(11) Upon finding that the applicant is in substantial compliance with these rules, the Division must issue a certification:
(a) The certification issued must state the name of the Crisis Stabilization Centers, the name of the program director, the address of the building to which the certification applies, the type of program, and such other information as the Division deems necessary.
(b) The certification shall be effective for two years from the date issued unless sooner revoked or suspended; and
(c) The certification is not transferable or applicable to any building, location, or management other than that indicated on the application and certification.
(12) The certification is valid only under the following conditions:
(a) The provider shall maintain the certificate posted in the setting and available for inspection at all times; and
(b) A certificate becomes void immediately upon suspension or revocation of the certification by the Division or if the operation is discontinued by voluntary action of the provider or if there is a change of ownership.
(13) Division staff shall visit and inspect every Crisis Stabilization Center at least once every two years to determine whether it is maintained and operated in accordance with these rules. The provider or applicant shall allow Division staff entry and access to the building and individuals for the purpose of conducting the inspections:
(a) Division staff will review methods of individual care and treatment, records, the condition of the building and equipment, and other areas of operation.
(b) All records, unless specifically excluded by law, must be available to the Division for review; and
(c) The State Fire Marshal or authorized representatives must, upon request, be permitted access to the setting, fire safety equipment within the setting, safety policies and procedures, and maintenance records of fire protection equipment and systems.
(14) Incidents of alleged abuse covered by ORS 430.735 through 430.765 and reported complaints shall be investigated in accordance with OAR 943-045-0250 through 0370. The Division may delegate the investigation to a CMHP or other appropriate entity.
(15) The Division may deny, suspend, revoke, or refuse to renew a certification when it finds there has been substantial failure to comply with these rules or when the State Fire Marshal or authorized representative certifies that there is failure to comply with the Fire Code:
(a) In cases where there exists an imminent danger to the health or safety of an individual or the public, a certification may be suspended immediately; and
(b) The revocation, suspension, nonrenewal, or denial shall include the opportunity for a hearing in accordance with ORS 183.482.
(c) Demonstrates substantial failure to comply with these administrative rules or with applicable state or federal law.
(d) There is a threat to the health or safety of individuals.
(e) Fails to maintain any State of Oregon license that is a prerequisite for providing services that were approved.
(f) Has a direct contract with the Division, and the Division terminates its agreement or contract with the provider.
(g) Fails to comply with the requirements of one or more conditions on the certificate.
(h) Fails to submit and or implement a POC sufficient to come into substantial compliance with these and other applicable rules or regulations.
(i) Submits falsified or incorrect information to the Division.
(j) Refuses to allow access to information for the purpose of verifying compliance with applicable statutes, administrative rules, or other applicable regulations within a specified date or fails to submit such information following the date specified for such a submission in the written notification.
(k) Fails to maintain sufficient staffing or fails to comply with staff qualification requirements.
(l) The provider fails to demonstrate the ability to meet and sustain compliance with all applicable statutes, rules, and regulations.
(16) Any significant changes to information supplied in the application or subsequent correspondence must be reported to the Division within 14 calendar days of the change. A new application will be required. Changes include but are not limited to changes in:
(a) The location or physical nature of the building.
(b) Program name.
(c) Licensee and Owner.
(d) Program director.
(e) Telephone number.
(f) Mailing address; or
(g) Policies and procedures or staffing pattern when the changes are significant or impact the individual's health, safety, or well-being.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 183.310 -183.750, 179.040, 413.042, 413.032 - 413.033, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.624, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.640, 430.870, HB 2417 (2021) & 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 183.310 - 183.750, 462.500, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.010, 430.021, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254, 430.335, 430.620, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.637 & 414.665
- BHS 24-2026, adopt filed 09/04/2026, effective 09/04/2026
- BHS 2-2026, temporary adopt filed 03/20/2026, effective 03/20/2026 through 09/15/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-073-0115 Building Requirements for Crisis Stabilization Centers
(1) Crisis Stabilization Centers must:
(a) Comply with all applicable state and local building, electrical, plumbing, fire, safety, and zoning codes;
(b) Maintain up-to-date documentation verifying that they meet applicable local business certification, zoning, and building codes and federal, state, and local fire and safety regulations. It is the responsibility of the program to check with local government to make sure all applicable local codes have been met;
(c) Provide space for services including but not limited to intake, assessment, counseling, and telephone conversations that assure the privacy and confidentiality of individuals and is furnished in an adequate and comfortable fashion including plumbing, sanitation, heating, and cooling;
(d) Provide rest rooms for individuals, visitors, and staff that are accessible to individuals with disabilities pursuant to Title II of the Americans with Disabilities Act if the program receives any public funds or Title III of the Act if no public funds are received;
(A)Crisis Stabilization Centers must be accessible as follows:
(B)Those settings or portions of the settings that are certified must meet the physical accessibility requirements in chapters 10 and 11 of the Oregon Structural Specialty Codes. These codes specify requirements for public accommodations as defined in the Americans with Disabilities Act under Title III.
(C) In order to ensure program accessibility under Title II of the Americans with Disabilities Act, the Division may require additional accessibility improvements; and
(D) Any accessibility improvements made to accommodate an identified individual must be in accordance with the specific needs of the client.
(e) Adopt and implement emergency policies and procedures, including an evacuation plan and emergency plan in case of fire, explosion, accident, death, or another emergency. The policies and procedures and emergency plans must be current and posted in a conspicuous area;
(f) Promote a sense of safety, calm, and de-escalation for individuals and program staff;
(g) Provide a dedicated first responder drop-off and intake area, separate from that used by the public and walk-ins;
(h) Have adequate space to ensure privacy and confidentiality for individuals served including a partitioned space no less than 5 feet by 7 feet for each individual receiving observation and crisis stabilization services;
(i) Have furnishings and fixtures that are capable of being sanitized, constructed of durable materials not capable of breaking into pieces that could be used as a weapon, ligature risk, or for self-harm including recliners or cots for adults receiving observation and crisis stabilization services;
(j) Have interior finishes, lighting, and furnishings that suggest a non-institutional setting that conforms to applicable fire and safety codes;
(k) If an outdoor space is provided, provide an accessible outdoor area available to all individuals, a portion of which must be covered and have an all-weather surface such as a patio or deck. If a Crisis Stabilization Center serves both youth and adults, the outdoor space provided must have separation between youth and adults;
(l) Provide bathroom facilities that:
(A) Are conveniently located for individual use;
(B) Provide all appropriate sanitary products, including menstrual hygiene supplies;
(C) Provide permanently wired light fixtures that illuminate all parts of the room;
(D) Provide individual privacy for individuals;
(E) Provide a securely affixed unbreakable mirror at eye level;
(F) Are adequately ventilated;
(G) Include sufficient facilities specially equipped for use by individuals with disabilities.
(m) A complete floor plan with all specifications for an existing structure without additions or alterations including the location, size and type of rooms, all exits, all secondary emergency egress, smoke and carbon monoxide alarms, fire extinguishers, planned evacuation routes, point of safety, any designated smoking areas outside the facility;
(n) Maintain all appropriate licensing or certification with ODHS, to the extent that it serves individuals under the age of 18.
(2) If a Crisis Stabilization Center serves both youth and adults:
(a) There must be a separate designated area for observation and crisis stabilization services provided for individuals under the age of 18 that has floor to ceiling walls that separate it from other areas of the Crisis Stabilization Center; and
(b) Individuals over the age of 18 must not share any space, participate in any activity or treatment, or have verbal or visual interaction with an individual receiving services at the point of intake at the Crisis Stabilization Center who is under the age of 18.
(c) The designated area for individuals under the age of 18 must have its own bathrooms, showers, outdoor areas and supervision, separate from the designated area for individuals over the age of 18.
(3) A Crisis Stabilization Center providing laundry facilities for use by individuals receiving services at the Crisis Stabilization Center, must ensure those laundry facilities are separate from food preparation and other individual use areas. When laundry equipment is installed, the laundry facilities may be located to allow for both individual and program staff use. The following must be included in the laundry facilities:
(a) Countertops or spaces for folding tables sufficient to handle laundry needs for the facility;
(b) Locked storage for chemicals and equipment;
(c) Outlets, venting, and water hook-ups according to state building code requirements. Washers must have a minimum rinse temperature of 155 degrees Fahrenheit (160 degrees Fahrenheit recommended) unless a chemical disinfectant is used; and
(d) Sufficient storage and handling space to ensure that clean laundry is not contaminated by soiled laundry.
(4) If provided by a Crisis Stabilization Center for use by individuals receiving services at the Crisis Stabilization Center, kitchen facilities and equipment may be of residential type except as required by the state building code and fire code or local agencies having jurisdiction. The kitchen must have the following:
(a) Dry storage space not subject to freezing in cabinets or a separate pantry for a minimum of one week's supply of staple foods;
(b) Sufficient refrigeration space for a minimum of two days’ supply of perishable foods. The space must be maintained at 45 degrees Fahrenheit or less and freezer space maintained at 0 degrees Fahrenheit or less;
(c) An approved residential type of dishwasher with a minimum final rinse temperature of 155 degrees Fahrenheit (160 degrees recommended) unless chemical disinfectant is used;
(d) Smooth, non-absorbent, and cleanable counters for food preparation and serving;
(e) Appropriate storage for dishes and cooking utensils designed to be free from potential contamination;
(f) Microwave or cooktop for food preparation; and
(g) Storage for a mop and other cleaning tools and supplies used for food preparation for dining and adjacent areas. Cleaning tools must be maintained separately from those used to clean other parts of the setting.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 183.310 -183.750, 179.040, 413.042, 413.032 - 413.033, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.624, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.640, 430.870, HB 2417 (2021) & 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 183.310 - 183.750, 426.500, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.010, 430.021, 320.205 - 430.210, 430.254, 430.335, 430.620, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.637 & 414.665
- BHS 24-2026, adopt filed 09/04/2026, effective 09/04/2026
- BHS 2-2026, temporary adopt filed 03/20/2026, effective 03/20/2026 through 09/15/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-073-0120 Provider Policies
(1) In addition to developing and implementing the policies required in OAR 309-019-0110(1), all Crisis Stabilization Centers must develop and implement the following written policies and procedures:
(a) Intake screening, service, and clinical assessment protocols for walk-ins and first responder drop-offs;
(b) Delivery of Crisis Stabilization Center services identified in OAR 309-019-0110 is to address crisis issues which may include referrals for withdrawal management services or medication assisted treatment when appropriate.
(c) Pathways and timelines for referring youth and young adults ages 20 and under, served at the Crisis Stabilization Center for ongoing stabilization services as described in OAR 309-072-0160.
(d) Use of a Declaration for Mental Health Treatment, when available, to guide services;
(e) Screening for and accessing services for emergency medical conditions, including transport by emergency medical services consistent with the requirements set forth in OAR 309-073-0130 Medical Protocols; and
(f) Ensuring that individuals are considered for Crisis Stabilization Services without unlawful discrimination on the basis of race, ethnicity, gender, gender identity, gender presentation, sexual orientation, religion, creed, national origin, age, intellectual and/or developmental disability, IQ score, or physical disability.
(g) Adopt and implement emergency procedures and disaster plans.
(h)The plan shall cover such emergencies and disasters as fires, explosions, missing persons, accidents, earthquakes, and floods. The program must post the plan by the phone and be immediately available to the program staff. The plan must include diagrams of evacuation routes, and these must be posted. A list of emergency telephone numbers and emergency contact information must be kept by the phone and must include:
(A) The name and emergency contact number for the program director or designee;
(B) Emergency dispatch (911) and non-urgent police and fire contact numbers;
(C) Poison control;
(D) The local hospital;
(E) The Office of Training, Investigations, and Safety;
(F) Oregon SAFELINE [1-855-503-SAFE (7233)] and
(G) Non-emergency numbers for contacting caseworkers, the CMHP, the Division, Disability Rights Oregon, the local public health office and emotional support lines available in the area.
(2) All written service delivery policies and specific procedures must prohibit the following:
(a) Refusing to screen for Crisis Stabilization Services for any individual who presents at the center seeking services.
(b) Refusing to screen for Crisis Stabilization Services any individual brought in or referred by first responders.
(c ) Psychological and physical abuse of an individual.
(d) Seclusion, personal restraint, mechanical restraint, and chemical restraint. The policy must include how to respond to an individual that requires such interventions, to include transport to an appropriate setting.
(d) Withholding shelter, food, medication, personal belongings, or supports for physical functioning.
(e) Discipline of one individual receiving services by another individual receiving services; and
(f) Requiring discontinuation of medications prescribed for the treatment of opioid dependence as a condition of receiving crisis stabilization services.
(3) The Crisis Stabilization Center Program Director or their designee must collaborate with applicable first responder agencies to develop a memorandum of understanding (MOU) for drop-off services. A copy of the MOU(s) must be included with the application for certification or certification renewal required in OAR 309-073-0105 and must include, at a minimum:
(a) Drop-off policies and procedures.
(b) The exact service areas and populations to be served; and
(c) Information sharing that complies with applicable laws.
(4) If a Crisis Stabilization Center’s service area includes a Mobile Crisis Intervention Team as defined in OAR 309-072-0110 that is operated by a different Provider, the Crisis Stabilization Center Program Director or their designee must collaborate with the appropriate Providers to develop a MOU for drop-off services. A copy of the MOU(s) must be included with the application for certification or certification renewal required by OAR 309-008-0400 and must include, at a minimum:
(a) Drop-off policies and procedures.
(b) The service areas and populations to be served; and
(c) Information-sharing that complies with applicable laws.
(5) The Crisis Stabilization Center Director or their Designee must attempt to collaborate with and maintain and implement written policies and protocols, and Letter of Agreement or MOU with local 988 call center and county crisis line, if operated by a different provider.
(6) If a Crisis Stabilization Center’s service area includes one or more of the Nine Federally Recognized Tribes of Oregon’s service areas, the Crisis Stabilization Center Program Director or their designee must collaborate with the tribe(s) to provide Crisis Stabilization Services through a MOU if the tribe wishes to enter into such an agreement. A copy of the MOU(s) must be included with the application for certification or certification renewal required by OAR 309-008-0400 and must include, at a minimum:
(a) Mutually agreed upon collaboration and delivery of services between the tribe(s) and the Crisis Stabilization Center
(b) The service areas and populations to be served; and
(c) Collection, sharing, and ownership of data.
(7) Providers must produce an attestation or copies of correspondence confirming that all affected tribes were contacted and offered the opportunity to enter into a Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) but declined.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 183.310 -183.750, 179.040, 413.042, 413.032 - 413.033, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.640, 430.870, HB 2417 (2021) & 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 183.310 - 183.750, 426.500, 428.205, 430.010, 430.021, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.335, 430.620, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.637 & 414.665
- BHS 24-2026, adopt filed 09/04/2026, effective 09/04/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-073-0125 Individual Rights
(1) The Crisis Stabilization Center operates in a manner that provides every individual receiving services in a Crisis Stabilization Center has the individual rights established in OAR 309-019-0115.
(2) The provider must give to the individual and, if appropriate, the individual’s guardian a document that describes the applicable individual’s rights as required in OAR 309-019-0115(2).
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 183.310 -183.750, 179.040, 413.042, 413.032 - 413.033, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.640, 430.870, HB 2417 (2021) & 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 183.310 - 183.750, 426.500, 428.205 - 428.270 & 430.010
- BHS 24-2026, adopt filed 09/04/2026, effective 09/04/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-073-0130 Staffing
A Crisis Stabilization Center must be staffed 24 hours per day, seven days per week, every day of the year by a multidisciplinary team capable of meeting the needs of individuals in the community experiencing all levels of behavioral health crisis, that may include, but is not limited to:
(a) Psychiatrists or psychiatric nurse practitioners;
(b) Nurses;
(c) Licensed or credentialed clinicians in the region where the Crisis Stabilization Center is located who can complete assessments; and
(d) Peers with lived experience similar to the experiences of the individuals served
(e) Tribal Traditional Health Workers
(2) All program staff must meet applicable qualifications, credentialing, or certification standards and competencies as set forth in OAR 309-019-0125. All personnel documentation, training, and supervision is conducted as set forth in OAR 309-019-0130.
(3) An adequate number of program staff must be available in the adult area and, if there is one, the youth area to receive services, to provide continuous supervision and meet the stabilization, health, and safety needs of the individuals served.
(4) A minimum of two program staff must be on-site at all times for Crisis Stabilization Centers with the capacity to provide observation and crisis stabilization services for up to five individuals at a time.
(5) Crisis Stabilization Centers with the capacity to provide observation and crisis stabilization services for more than five individuals at a time, shall have one additional program staff on-site at all times for increased capacity of 5 individuals or portion thereof.
(6) Crisis Stabilization Centers must, at a minimum, have a QMHP on-call 24 hours per day, 7 days per week, each day of the year.
(7) In addition, all program staff, must receive training every two years in:
(a) Evidence-based and best practice trauma-informed interventions to prevent and address disruptive behaviors and behavioral health crises;
(b) Current Basic First Aid.
(c) Current Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPR)
(d) Opioid overdose kits and administration of an FDA-approved short-acting, non-injectable, opioid antagonist medication
(e) Linguistically, developmentally, and culturally responsive practice; and
(f) Suicide and violence risk screening, assessment, and safety planning
(8) It is the provider's responsibility to ensure that security staff at the Crisis Stabilization Center do not carry firearms, whether employed under contract, or on-site. It is the provider’s responsibility to require Department of Public Safety Standards and Training de-escalation training for security staff.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 183.310 -183.750, 179.040, 413.042, 413.032 - 413.033, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.624, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.640, 430.870, HB 2417 (2021) & 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 183.310 - 183.750, 426.500, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.010, 430.021, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254, 430.335, 430.620, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.637 & 414.665
- BHS 24-2026, adopt filed 09/04/2026, effective 09/04/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-073-0135 Facility Records
(1) The Crisis Stabilization Center must maintain a personnel record for each employee which must include at a minimum the following:
(a) Documentation of pre-employment screening including, but not limited to, application, interview, and reference checks;
(b) All program staff having contact with an individual must have a documented current approved background check in accordance with OAR 943-007-0001 through 943-007-0501 prior to working alone with individuals. All program staff must have a preliminary background check prior to working with individuals under supervision of qualified staff. The provider must maintain documentation of current approved or preliminary background checks for each applicable staff person.
(c) Documentation that all employees satisfy position qualifications, including required licensure as applicable;
(d) If the employee has a health-care related license or certificate from Oregon or any other state, evidence that the license is current and the individual has not been the subject of any action that would prevent the individual from providing services in the Crisis Stabilization Center;
(e) Current position description signed by the employee; and
(f) Evidence of orientation, training, competency evaluations, and ongoing education.
(g) Signed current approved background check authorizations for the Applicant, each owner with five percent or more incident of ownership, and the Program Director.
(2) Personnel records must be safely and securely stored and readily available.
(3) Personnel records must be maintained for a minimum of seven years from end of employment.
(4) The provider or owner of a Crisis Stabilization Center (CSC) must develop and implement a written safety policy or plan designed for the physical safety of individuals working within a CSC. Every staff member must be trained in safety procedures prior to beginning their first regular shift.
(a) The Safety plan must cover such emergencies as natural disasters, fires, explosions, active shooters, accidents, earthquakes, infectious disease outbreaks, loss of utilities, hazardous air quality, floods, and extreme weather events, etc. The plan must be immediately available at all times to the CSC staff, updated annually, and should include:
(A) Emergency instructions for employees (Staff members);
(B) The telephone numbers of the local fire department, police department, the poison control center, and other people to be contacted in an emergencies; and
(C) Instructions for the evacuation of staff and clients in the event of an emergency.
(b) The provider or owner must place diagrams of the CSC evacuation egress routes, along the evacuation egress routes.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 183.310 -183.750, 179.040, 413.042, 413.032 - 413.033, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.624, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.640, 430.870, HB 2417 (2021) & 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 183.310 - 183.750, 426.500, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.010, 430.021, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254, 430.335, 430.620, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.637 & 414.665
- BHS 24-2026, adopt filed 09/04/2026, effective 09/04/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-073-0140 Service Record
(1) The Crisis Stabilization Center must include the following documentation in the individual's service record:
(a) Presenting problem and referral source, if applicable.
(b) Rationale for denial of services and referral of the individual to other appropriate services, if necessary.
(c) Status as a current or former member of the U.S. Armed Forces.
(d) Current mental health and substance use symptoms.
(e) Current medications.
(f) Screening for suicide risk and completion of a comprehensive, standardized suicide risk assessment and planning, when clinically indicated.
(g) Screening for risk of violence and completion of a comprehensive, standardized violence risk assessment and planning, when clinically indicated.
(h) Screening for substance use disorder and referral for substance use disorder services when appropriate.
(i) Current trauma-related symptoms or concerns for personal safety.
(j) Screening for food and housing insecurity.
(k) Crisis Stabilization Plan; and
(l) Discharge information including:
(A) Outcome of the services provided.
(B) Services provided.
(C) Care coordination efforts.
(D) Referrals; and
(E) Follow-up efforts including attempts to contact within 72 hours from discharge.
(2) Ifan individual’s ability to cooperate and communicate with program staff due to their crisis situation prevents the completion of any of the items in subsection (1), it must be clearly documented in the individual’s service record.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 183.310 -183.750, 179.040, 413.042, 413.032 - 413.033, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.624, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.640, 430.870, HB 2417 (2021) & 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: 183.310 - 183.750, 426.500, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.010, 430.021, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254, 430.225, 430.620, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.637 & 414.665
- BHS 24-2026, adopt filed 09/04/2026, effective 09/04/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-073-0145 Medical Protocols
(1) Medical clearance is not required prior to provision of services; however, the Crisis Stabilization Center must ensure that each individual is screened for physical health issues per the medical protocols in subsection (2).
(2) Medical protocols must be approved by the Medical Director. The protocols must:
(a) Specify the components of the screening for physical health issues required in subsection (1).
(b) Designate those physical health issues that, when found, require transfer to a setting capable of providing the level of care required.
(c) Specify the steps for follow up and coordination with physical health care providers in the event the individual is found to have an infectious disease or other major medical problem.
(3) At least one unexpired opioid overdose kit for emergency response to suspected overdose must be available in the Crisis Stabilization Center at all times. Opioid overdose kits do not require a prescription and are not specific to an individual (see ORS 689.684).
(a) All opioid overdose kits must include an ultraviolet light-protected hard case and must contain, but not be limited to:
(A) Two doses of an FDA-approved short-acting, non-injectable, opioid antagonist medication.
(B) One pair of non-latex gloves.
(C) One face mask.
(D) One disposable face shield for rescue breathing; and
(E) One short-acting, non-injectable, opioid antagonist medication administration instruction card.
(b) Opioid overdose kits must be:
(A) Installed in an easily accessible, highly visible, and unlocked location.
(B) At a height of no more than 48 inches from the floor.
(C) In a location without direct sunlight.
(D) In an area where temperatures are maintained between 59 F and 77 F; and
(E) Have a sign clearly indicating the location and content of the kit.
(F) Checked daily to ensure the required components have not been removed or damaged.
(G) Checked monthly to ensure the short-acting, non-injectable, opioid antagonist medication has not expired; and
(H) Restocked immediately after use.
(c) Upon recognizing a person is likely experiencing an overdose, program staff must immediately respond based on the medical emergency procedures of the facility.
(d) A person who has reasonable cause to believe an individual is experiencing an overdose, and in good faith administers short-acting, non-injectable, opioid antagonist medication, is protected against civil liability or criminal prosecution unless the person, while rendering care, acts with gross negligence, willful misconduct, or intentional wrongdoing as described in Oregon Revised Statute (ORS) 689.681.
(e) Administration of short-acting, non-injectable, opioid antagonist medication must be documented by the program staff who administered the medication. Documentation must be submitted to the Division within 48 hours of the incident and must include:
(A) Name of the individual.
(B) Description of the incident including date, time, and location.
(C) Time 9-1-1 contacted.
(D) Time of administration(s) of short-acting, non-injectable, opioid antagonist medication.
(E) Individual's response.
(F) Transfer of care to EMS; and
(G) Obtain the signature of the person submitting the report to the authority.
(f) Program staff must fully cooperate with emergency medical service (EMS) personnel. Program staff must not interfere with or impede the administration of emergency medical services.
(4) Opioid overdose medication and kits which are the personal property of an individual receiving services at the Crisis Stabilization Center, do not need to be kept in a locked location.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 183.310 -183.750, 179.040, 413.042, 413.032 - 413.033, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.624, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.640, 430.870, HB 2417 (2021) & 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 183.310 - 183.750, 426.500, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.010, 430.021, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254, 430.335, 430.620, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.637 & 414.665
- BHS 24-2026, adopt filed 09/04/2026, effective 09/04/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-073-0150 Critical Incident Reporting
(1) Facility staff in Crisis Stabilization Centers must report all Critical Incidents to the Division. Critical incidents include:
(a) Death, including by suicide or overdose.
(b) Severe injury, including injury leading to hospitalization, injury resulting in medical attention needed or no medical attention needed, overdose resulting in hospitalization or needing medical attention, and emergency services needed.
(c) Ongoing risk to health (for example: environmental risks such as black mold).
(d) 911 calls made by program staff.
(e) Extensive damage to the facility;
(f) Where abuse or neglect is suspected, including unethical client and program staff relationships;
(g) Relationships between individuals that result in harm to at least one individual.
(h) Suspected exploitation, including financial exploitation, of an individual; and
(i) Medication errors resulting in a telephone call to or a consultation with a poison control center or hospital, a visit to an emergency department or urgent care, hospitalization or death.
(2) A copy of the original, unredacted critical incident report must be submitted within 24 hours of the event using forms and procedures required by the Division.
(3) All critical incident reports must be maintained in the corresponding service record and in a common file for quality improvement purposes and review by the Division; and
(4) Critical incident reports filed in service records may not contain protected health information belonging to any other individual.
(5) Critical incident reports must contain, at a minimum, the following information:
(a) The time and date of the event.
(b) The time and date of when the critical incident report form was completed.
(c) Name and title of program staff who filled out the report.
(d) Identification of all program staff involved in the incident and the response to the incident, and their titles.
(e) Identification of each individual involved.
(f) Description of event.
(g) Description of program response.
(h) Description of which policies and procedures were followed and when applicable, any that were not followed.
(i) Identification of program staff who were notified, and their titles.
(j) Identification of which authorities the event was reported to, if applicable; and
(k) Description of administrative response and follow-up.
(6) If a Crisis Stabilization Center program staff becomes aware of any death by suicide or suicide attempt occurring within 72 hours after an individual’s discharge, a critical incident report must be submitted to the Division using forms and procedures required by the Division.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 183.310 -183.750, 179.040, 413.042, 413.032 - 413.033, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.624, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.640, 430.870, HB 2417 (2021) & 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 183.310 - 183.750, 426.500, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.010, 430.021, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254, 430.335, 430.620, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.637 & 414.665
- BHS 24-2026, adopt filed 09/04/2026, effective 09/04/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-073-0155 Quality Assessment and Performance Improvement
(1) Providers must develop and implement a structured and ongoing process to assess, monitor, and improve the quality and effectiveness of services provided to individuals and their families.
(2) Providers must collect and submit quarterly service utilization data including, but not limited to:
(a) Number of walk-ins and first responder drop-offs requesting crisis services;
(b) Number of walk-ins and first responder drop-offs denied crisis services and the rationale for that denial;
(c ) Number of walk-ins and first responder drop-offs that were referred to a higher level of care and the rational for that referral;
(d) Race, ethnicity, language, and disability (REALD) information;
(e) Sexual orientation and gender identity (SOGI) information;
(f) Length of stay for individuals receiving observation and crisis stabilization services;
(g) Presenting problem;
(h) Outcome; and
(i) Number of individuals receiving follow-up contact and the outcome of that contact
(j) Health insurance provider
(3) Providers must submit quarterly service utilization data reports electronically to the Division, using forms and procedures required by the Division, as follows:
(a) For services provided January 1 through March 31, reports are due no later than May 15.
(b) For services provided April 1 through June 30, reports are due no later than August 15.
(c) For services provided July 1 through September 30, reports are due no later than November 15.
(d) For services provided October 1 through December 31, reports are due no later than February 15.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 183.310 -183.750, 179.040, 413.042, 413.032 - 413.033, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.624, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.640, 430.870, HB 2417 (2021) & 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 183.310 - 183.750, 426.500, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.010, 430.021, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.335, 430.254, 430.620, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.637 & 414.665
- BHS 24-2026, adopt filed 09/04/2026, effective 09/04/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-073-0160 Grievances and Appeals
(1) Any individual or parent or guardian receiving services may file a grievance with the provider, the individual’s coordinated care plan, or the Division.
(2) The provider’s grievance process shall:
(a) Notify each individual or legal representative of the grievance procedures by reviewing a written copy of the policy upon entry;
(b) Offer to assist individuals or legal representatives with completing the grievance process;
(c) Notify individuals or legal representatives of the results and basis for the decision;
(d) Encourage and facilitate resolution of the grievance at the lowest possible level;
(e) Complete an investigation of any grievance within 30 calendar days;
(f) Implement a procedure for accepting, processing, and responding to grievances including specific timelines for each;
(g) Designate a program staff individual to receive and process the grievance;
(h) Document any action taken on a substantiated grievance within a timely manner; and
(i) Document receipt, investigation, and action taken in response to the grievance.
(3) The provider shall post a Grievance Process Notice in a common area stating the telephone numbers of:
(a) The Division;
(b) Disability Rights Oregon;
(c) Any applicable coordinated care organization(s); and
(d) The Governor’s Advocacy Office.
(4) In circumstances where the matter of the grievance is likely to cause harm to the individual before the grievance procedures are completed, the individual or guardian of the individual may request an expedited review. The program director or designee shall review and respond in writing to the grievance within 48 hours of receipt of the grievance. The written response shall include information about the appeal process.
(5) A grievant, witness, or staff member of a provider may not be subject to retaliation by a provider for making a report or being interviewed about a grievance or being a witness. Retaliation may include but is not limited to dismissal or harassment, reduction in services, wages, or benefits, or basing service or a performance review on the action.
(6) Individuals or their legal representatives may appeal entry, transfer, and grievance decisions as follows:
(a) If the individual or guardian is not satisfied with the decision, the individual or guardian may file an appeal in writing within ten working days of the date of the Program Director's response to the grievance or notification of denial for services. The appeal shall be submitted to the Division;
(b) If requested, program staff must be available to assist the individual;
(c) The Division shall provide a written response within ten working days of the receipt of the appeal; and
(d) If the individual or guardian is not satisfied with the appeal decision, they may file a second appeal in writing within ten working days of the date of the written response to the Division Director.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 183.310 -183.750, 179.040, 413.042, 413.032 - 413.033, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.624, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.640, 430.870, HB 2417 (2021) & 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 183.310 - 183.750, 426.500, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.010, 430.021, 430.205, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254, 430.335, 430.620, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.637 & 414.665
- BHS 24-2026, adopt filed 09/04/2026, effective 09/04/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-073-0165 Variances
(1) A Crisis Stabilization Center may request a variance to these rules. The Crisis Stabilization Center must submit the variance request directly to the Division using the Division approved form.
(2) The variance request must include:
(a) A description and applicable details of the variance requested, including the specific rule for which the variance is sought;
(b) The rationale and necessity for the requested variance;
(c) The alternative practice proposed, where relevant; and
(d) The proposed duration of the variance, including a plan and timetable for compliance with the rule exempted or adjusted by the variance.
(3) The Division shall approve or deny the variance request and include an expiration date for the variance not to exceed the length of the provider’s current certificate.
(4) A variance granted by the Division becomes part of the certificate.
(5) Failure by the Crisis Stabilization Center to implement approved alternative practices or otherwise demonstrate noncompliance with an approved variance may result in the Division withdrawing approval for a variance.
(6) Failure by the Crisis Stabilization Center to implement approved alternative practices or otherwise demonstrate noncompliance with an approved variance such that the health or safety of an individual is jeopardized to the degree that cessation of services by the Crisis Stabilization Center is considered necessary to prevent harm to an individual may result in the Division taking action on the certificate.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 183.310 -183.750, 179.040, 413.042, 413.032 - 413.033, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.624, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.640, 430.870, HB 2417 (2021) & 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 183.310 - 183.750, 426.500, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.010, 430.021, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254, 430.335, 430.620, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.637 & 414.665
- BHS 24-2026, adopt filed 09/04/2026, effective 09/04/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-073-0170 Inspections
(1) The Division must conduct an inspection of Crisis Stabilization Center application and issue a certification to successful applicants prior to services being rendered.
(2) The Division must conduct an onsite inspection of each Crisis Stabilization Center every two-years to verify the Crisis Stabilization Center is maintained and operated in substantial compliance with these rules.
(3) The Division may conduct inspections:
(a) To determine if cited violations have been corrected.
(b) For the purpose of routine monitoring of individual’s care.
(c) The Division has reason to believe the Crisis Stabilization Center has violated a regulation or provision of these rules; or
(d) The Division has reason to believe the Crisis Stabilization Center is operating without a certification.
(4) An inspection may include, but is not limited to:
(a) Review of the application and all supporting documentation and information submitted by the applicant.
(b) Interviews with individuals, individual’s legal representatives, individual’s family members, and Crisis Stabilization Center staff.
(c) Review of facility, personnel, and individual records.
(d) On-site observations of individuals and staff; and
(e) Verification of substantial compliance with Federal, State, and local government agencies with jurisdiction.
(5) The Division may consult with and advise the Crisis Stabilization Center concerning methods of care, records, equipment, and other areas of operation.
(6) A Crisis Stabilization Center must make all requested documents and records available for review and copying.
(7) Following an inspection, Division staff will prepare and provide the Crisis Stabilization Center specific written notice of the findings.
(8) If the findings result in a referral to another regulatory agency, Division staff must submit the applicable information to that agency for its review and determination of appropriate action.
(9) A Crisis Stabilization Center not in compliance with these rules must submit a plan of correction that satisfies the Division within 30 days of receipt of the inspection report, unless a shorter time is determined by the Division to be necessary due to health or life safety risks.
(10) Violations not corrected by the date specified in the inspection report may result in one or more administrative sanctions by the Division.
(11) A copy of the most current inspection report and any conditions placed upon the certificate must be posted with the Crisis Stabilization Center’s certificate in public view near the main entrance to the Crisis Stabilization Center.
(12) Division staff may consult with and advise Authority and Department staff in inspections, complaints, investigations, certification, and actions taken on a certificate.
(13) The Crisis Stabilization Center must authorize all staff to permit access to the Crisis Stabilization Center and facility, personnel, and individual records to Authority, Department, and CMS staff, for the purpose of inspection, investigation, and other duties within the scope of the agency’s authority.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 183.310 - 183.750, 179.040, 413.042, 413.032 - 413.033, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.624, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.640, 430.870, HB 2417 (2021) & 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 183.310 - 183.750, 426.500, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.010, 430.021, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254, 430.335, 430.620, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.637 & 414.665
- BHS 24-2026, adopt filed 09/04/2026, effective 09/04/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-073-0175 Complaints
(1) Any person who believes these rules have been violated may file a complaint verbally, or in writing, to the Authority.
(2) The Crisis Stabilization Center must not interfere with a good faith disclosure of information by an employee or volunteer concerning violation(s) of laws or rules.
(3) The Crisis Stabilization Center must ensure any complainant, witness, or employee of a Crisis Stabilization Center is not subjected to retaliation by any Crisis Stabilization Center employee, or any Crisis Stabilization Center employee’s family or friends, for making a report, being interviewed about a complaint, or being a witness, including, but not limited to, restriction of access to the individual or, if an employee, dismissal or harassment.
(4) The Crisis Stabilization Center must cooperate with the Authority and Department in all complaint investigations.
(5) Should the complaint allegation represent an immediate threat to the health or safety of an individual, the Authority must notify appropriate authorities to ensure an individual's safety, and an investigation must be commenced within two working days.
(6) If a complaint involves an allegation of criminal conduct or an allegation that is within the jurisdiction of another local, state, or federal agency, the Authority must refer the matter to the agency having jurisdiction.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 183.310-750, ORS 179.040, ORS 413.042, ORS 413.032-413.033, ORS 428.205-270, ORS 430.624, ORS 430.626-430.630, ORS 430.640, ORS 430.870, ORS 743A.168 & HB 2417 (2021)
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 183.310-750, ORS 426.500, ORS 428.205-270, ORS 430.010, ORS 430.021, ORS 430.205-430.210, ORS 430.254, ORS 430.335, ORS 430.620, ORS 430.626-430.630, ORS 430.637 & ORS 414.665
- BHS 24-2026, adopt filed 09/04/2026, effective 09/04/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-073-0180 Investigations
(1) Abuse, neglect, exploitation, seclusion, and coercion are prohibited. Crisis Stabilization Center employees and the certified provider must not permit, aid, or engage in abuse, neglect, exploitation, seclusion, or coercion of individuals.
(2) Known or suspected abuse, neglect, exploitation, seclusion, or coercion of individuals must be reported in accordance with ORS 430.735 or ORS 124.005.
(a) The certified provider and employees are mandatory reporters and must immediately report known or suspected abuse, neglect, exploitation, seclusion, or coercion of individuals, including events overheard or witnessed by observation to the investigative authority.
(b) The local law enforcement agency must be called first when the suspected abuse is believed to be a crime (e.g., rape, murder, assault, burglary, kidnapping, theft of controlled substances).
(3) The Crisis Stabilization Center must not interfere with a good faith disclosure of information by an employee or volunteer concerning abuse, neglect, exploitation, seclusion, or coercion of individuals or other action affecting an individual’s safety or welfare.
(4) Anyone who, in good faith, reports abuse or suspected abuse has immunity, as approved by law, from any civil liability that might otherwise be incurred or imposed with respect to the making or content of an abuse complaint.
(5) Immunity under this rule does not protect self-reporting licensees from liability for the underlying conduct that is alleged in the complaint.
(6) The identity of a person making a report of abuse and any personally identifiable information, as defined in ORS 430.753 and ORS 430.763 or ORS 124.075, 123.085 and 124.090, is confidential and not subject to disclosure under ORS 192.311 to 192.478.
(7) The Department investigates reports of abuse in accordance with the adult abuse investigations in mental health services rules in OAR chapter 943, division 045.
(8) An unannounced abuse investigation will be carried out as soon as practicable and may include, but is not limited to:
(a) Interviews of the abuse reporter, direct service workers, individuals, an individual’s legal representative, an individual’s family members, witnesses, Crisis Stabilization Center management and staff.
(b) On-site observations of the individual(s), staff performance, and the related individual’s environment; and
(c) Review of facility, personnel, and individual records.
(9) Immediate protection must be provided for the individual by the agency, in coordination with the investigative authority or OHA, as necessary, regardless of whether the report of alleged abuse is opened for investigation. The Crisis Stabilization Center must immediately cease any practice that places an individual at risk of serious harm.
(10) The Crisis Stabilization Center must cooperate with abuse and protective services investigations. The Crisis Stabilization Center must permit access to the Authority, Department, and law enforcement and must ensure:
(a) Records are made available upon request including access to all facility, personnel, and individual records;
(b) Allowance for the Authority, Department, and law enforcement to conduct private interviews with Crisis Stabilization Center personnel and individuals; and
(11) Oregon Health Authority and appropriate Local Public Health Authority are permitted access to the Crisis Stabilization Center and facility, personnel, and individual records pertinent to investigation of illness or outbreak, as authorized by law.
(12) Upon receipt of a notice of substantiated abuse for victims covered by ORS 430.735, the Crisis Stabilization Center must provide written notice of the findings to the person found to have committed abuse, the individual or the individual’s legal representative.
(13) Information obtained by the Authority or Department during an investigation of a complaint or reported violation is confidential and not subject to public disclosure under ORS 192.410 through 192.505. Upon the conclusion of the investigation, the Division or Department may publicly release a report of its findings but may not include information in the report prohibited from disclosure under state or federal laws. The Division may use any information obtained during an investigation in an administrative or judicial proceeding concerning the certification of a Crisis Stabilization Center and may report information obtained during an investigation to a health professional regulatory board as defined in ORS 676.160 if that information pertains to a licensee of that board.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 183.310 -183.750, 179.040, 413.042, 413.032 - 413.033, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.624, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.640, 430.870, HB 2417 (2021) & 743A.168
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 183.310 - 183.750, 426.500, 428.205 - 428.270, 430.010, 430.021, 430.205 - 430.210, 430.254, 430.335, 430.620, 430.626 - 430.630, 430.637 & 414.665
- BHS 24-2026, adopt filed 09/04/2026, effective 09/04/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-073-0190 Civil Penalties
(1) A Crisis Stabilization Center that violates Crisis Stabilization Center rules, an administrative order, or settlement agreement, is subject to the imposition of a civil penalty not to exceed $1,000 per violation and may not total more than $2,000.
(2) An individual or entity who operates a Crisis Stabilization Center without a certificate is subject to the imposition of a civil penalty not to exceed $500 a day per violation.
(3) A Crisis Stabilization Center that fails to comply with the Division is subject to the imposition of a civil penalty. Failure to comply includes, but not limited to:
(a) Failure to provide a written disclosure statement to the individual or the individual’s legal representative prior to Crisis Stabilization Center services being rendered.
(b) Failure to provide crisis stabilization services.
(c) Failure to correct deficiencies identified during an inspection or abuse or complaint investigation; or
(d) Refusal to allow access and inspection.
(4) In determining the amount of a civil penalty, the Division must consider whether:
(a) The Division made repeated attempts to obtain compliance.
(b) The certified program has a history of non-compliance with Crisis Stabilization Center rules.
(c) The violation poses a serious risk to an individual’s health; and
(d) There are mitigating factors, such as the Crisis Stabilization Center’s cooperation with an investigation or actions to come into compliance.
(5) Each day a violation continues is an additional violation.
(6) A civil penalty imposed under this rule must comply with ORS 183.746.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 183.310-750, ORS 179.040, ORS 413.042, ORS 413.032-413.033, ORS 428.205-270, ORS 430.624, ORS 430.626-430.630, ORS 430.640, ORS 430.870, ORS 743A.168 & HB 2417 (2021)
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 183.310-750, ORS 426.500, ORS 428.205-270, ORS 430.010, ORS 430.021, ORS 430.205-430.210, ORS 430.254, ORS 430.335, ORS 430.620, ORS 430.626-430.630, ORS 430.637 & ORS 414.665
- BHS 24-2026, adopt filed 09/04/2026, effective 09/04/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-073-0195 Conditions
(1) Conditions may be attached to a certificate and take effect immediately upon notification by the Division or the delivery date of the notice, whichever is sooner. The type of condition attached to a certificate must directly relate to a risk of harm or potential risk of harm to individuals. Conditions may be attached upon a finding that:
(a) Information on the application or initial inspection requires a condition to protect the health, safety, or welfare of the individuals.
(b) A threat to the health, safety, or welfare of an individual exists.
(c) There is reliable evidence of abuse, neglect, or exploitation.
(d) The Crisis Stabilization Center is not being operated in compliance with these rules.
(2) Examples of conditions that may be imposed on a Crisis Stabilization Center certificate include, but are not limited to:
(a) Restricting the total number of individuals served based upon the ability of the Crisis Stabilization Center to meet the health and safety needs of the individuals.
(b) Requiring additional staff to meet an individual's care needs.
(c) Requiring additional qualifications or training of staff.
(d) Restricting a Crisis Stabilization Center from allowing persons on the premises who may be a threat to an individual's health, safety, or welfare.
(3) The Crisis Stabilization Center will be notified in writing of any conditions imposed, the reason for the conditions, and be given an opportunity to request a hearing under ORS 183.411 to 183.502.
(4) Conditions take effect immediately and are a final order of the Division unless later rescinded through the hearings process.
(5) A Crisis Stabilization Center may appeal conditions imposed by requesting a hearing in writing within 21 calendar days after the date the notice was personally served or mailed.
(6) In addition to, or in-lieu of, a contested case hearing, a Crisis Stabilization Center may request an informal conference with the Division to discuss conditions imposed. The informal conference does not diminish the Crisis Stabilization Center's right to a hearing.
(7) Conditions imposed remain in effect until the Division has sufficient cause to believe the situation that warranted the condition has been remedied. If the Crisis Stabilization Center believes the situation that warranted the condition has been remedied, the Crisis Stabilization Center may request in writing that the condition be removed.
(8) Conditions must be posted with the certificate in a prominent place in the Crisis Stabilization Center and be available for inspection at all times.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 183.310-750, ORS 179.040, ORS 413.042, ORS 413.032-413.033, ORS 428.205-270, ORS 430.624, ORS 430.626-430.630, ORS 430.640, ORS 430.870, ORS 743A.168 & HB 2417 (2021)
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 183.310-750, ORS 426.500, ORS 428.205-270, ORS 430.010, ORS 430.021, ORS 430.205-430.210, ORS 430.254, ORS 430.335, ORS 430.620, ORS 430.626-430.630, ORS 430.637 & ORS 414.665
- BHS 24-2026, adopt filed 09/04/2026, effective 09/04/2026
Or. Admin. R. 309-073-0200 Suspension/Revocation of licenses/certifications
(1) The Division may impose a civil penalty or deny, suspend, or revoke the certification of a Crisis Stabilization Center, in accordance with ORS 183.745, for the Crisis Stabilization Center’s failure to comply with these rules.
(2) The Division may deny, suspend, or revoke the certificate of a Crisis Stabilization Center for the Crisis Stabilization Center’s:
(a) Failure to provide a written disclosure statement to an individual or an individual’s legal representative prior to Crisis Stabilization Center services being rendered;
(b) Failure to provide required Crisis Stabilization Center services;
(c) Failure to correct deficiencies identified during an inspection or investigation by the Division;
(d) Submission of fraudulent or untrue information to the Division;
(e) Failure to disclose history of or demonstrating financial insolvency, such as filing for bankruptcy, foreclosure, eviction due to failure to pay rent, or termination of utility services due to failure to pay bills;
(f) Having a prior denial, suspension, revocation, or refusal to renew a certificate or license to operate a facility in this or any other state or county;
(g) Demonstration of a pattern, over the previous five years, of significant and substantiated violations of employment or wage laws in this state:
(A) As an employer of staff in a Crisis Stabilization Center; or
(B) By an applicant for a Crisis Stabilization Center certificate in any business owned or operated by the applicant.
(h) Demonstration of a pattern, over the previous five years, of significant and substantiated violations of Crisis Stabilization Center requirements as described in these rules;
(i) Threatening the health, safety, or welfare of any individual;
(j) Having substantiated finding of abuse of an adult or child;
(k) Retaliating or discriminating against an individual, family member, employee, or other person for making a complaint against the program;
(l) Refusing to allow access and inspection;
(m) Failure to comply with a final order of the Division to correct a violation of the rules for which an administrative sanction has been imposed;
(n) Failure to comply with a final order of the Division imposing an administrative sanction; or
(o) Failure to report knowledge of the illegal actions of or disclose the known criminal history of any Crisis Stabilization Center staff.
(3) This section does not supersede or limit any other authority of the Division with regard to oversight of Crisis Stabilization Center or the imposition of civil penalties.
(4) The Division may impose a civil penalty or deny, suspend, or revoke a Crisis Stabilization Center certificate when a Crisis Stabilization Center fails to comply with these rules, including, but not limited to, Crisis Stabilization Center staff permitting, aiding, or abetting any illegal act affecting the welfare of an individual.
(5) If the Division intends to suspend or revoke a Crisis Stabilization Center certificate, it must do so in accordance with ORS 183.411 through 183.470.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 183.310-750, ORS 179.040, ORS 413.042, ORS 413.032-413.033, ORS 428.205-270, ORS 430.624, ORS 430.626-430.630, ORS 430.640, ORS 430.870, ORS 743A.168 & HB 2417 (2021)
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 183.310-750, ORS 426.500, ORS 428.205-270, ORS 430.010, ORS 430.021, ORS 430.205-430.210, ORS 430.254, ORS 430.335, ORS 430.620, ORS 430.626-430.630, ORS 430.637 & ORS 414.665
- BHS 24-2026, adopt filed 09/04/2026, effective 09/04/2026
Division 80 CLINICAL SUPERVISION EXPANSION PROGRAM
Or. Admin. R. 309-080-0100 Purpose and Scope
This division establishes the Behavioral Health Clinical Supervision Expansion Program within the Oregon Health Authority (Authority). The Program offers grants to organizations who employ behavioral health care providers and individual behavioral health care providers with the aim of expanding the amount of clinical supervision available to help diversify the behavioral health workforce and ensure access to culturally responsive behavioral health services for those from communities that have experienced health inequities.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 675.658
- BHS 8-2023, amend filed 03/23/2023, effective 03/31/2023
- BHS 8-2022, adopt filed 06/13/2022, effective 06/14/2022
- BHS 24-2021, temporary adopt filed 12/16/2021, effective 12/17/2021 through 06/14/2022
Or. Admin. R. 309-080-0105 Definitions
The following definitions apply to OAR 309-080:
(1) “Authority” means the Oregon Health Authority.
(2) “Communities who are underserved” has the meaning given that term in OAR 309-081-0010.
(3) “Problem Gambling Treatment Staff” has the meaning given that term in OAR 309-019-0105.
(4) “Program” means the Behavioral Health Clinical Supervision Expansion Program.
(5) “Licensed Art Therapist” means an individual licensed to practice art therapy pursuant to ORS 681.740(3).
(6) “Licensed Clinical Social Worker” has the meaning given that term in ORS 675.530.
(7) “Licensed Professional Counselor” has the meaning given that term in ORS 675.705.
(8) “Licensed Psychologist” has the meaning given that term in ORS 675.010.
(9) “Licensed Marriage and Family Therapist” has the meaning given that term in ORS 675.705.
(10) Qualified Mental Health Associate or QMHA” has the meaning given that term in OAR 309-019-0105.
(11) “Qualified Mental Health Professional or QMHP” has the meaning given that term in OAR 309-019-0105.
(12) “Substance Use Disorders Treatment Staff” has the meaning given to it in OAR 309-019-0105.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 675.658
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 675.010, 675.530, 675.705, OAR 309-019-0105 & 309-081-0010
- BHS 8-2023, amend filed 03/23/2023, effective 03/31/2023
- BHS 8-2022, adopt filed 06/13/2022, effective 06/14/2022
- BHS 24-2021, temporary adopt filed 12/16/2021, effective 12/17/2021 through 06/14/2022
Or. Admin. R. 309-080-0200 Eligibility Requirements
Organizations or individuals who offer, or will offer, supervision to behavioral health care providers working towards the following credentials with the use of this funding are eligible:
(1) Certified Drug and Alcohol Counselor practicing as Substance Use Disorder Treatment Staff;
(2) Certified Gambling Addiction Counselor practicing as Problem Gambling Treatment Staff;
(3) Licensed Art Therapist;
(4) Licensed Clinical Social Worker;
(5) Licensed Professional Counselor;
(6) Licensed Psychologist;
(7) Licensed Marriage and Family Therapist;
(8) Qualified Mental Health Associate;
(9) Qualified Mental Health Professional; and
(10) Other credential types that are not listed, but also provide direct behavioral health care services using their credentials and require clinical supervision to obtain credentials.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 675.658
- BHS 37-2023, minor correction filed 07/21/2023, effective 07/21/2023
- BHS 8-2023, amend filed 03/23/2023, effective 03/31/2023
- BHS 8-2022, adopt filed 06/13/2022, effective 06/14/2022
- BHS 24-2021, temporary adopt filed 12/16/2021, effective 12/17/2021 through 06/14/2022
Or. Admin. R. 309-080-0300 Application and Review Process
(1) The Authority will offer its Program application processes online.
(2) The Authority shall review all applications to determine that all requirements established in the solicitations issued are satisfied.
(3) The Authority may return incomplete applications to applicants, if an application is resubmitted, it shall be processed as of the date of resubmission.
(4) The Authority shall notify applicants of the status of their completed applications within 30 days of application submission.
(5) The Authority may consider, among others, the following factors in determining whether to award a grant to an applicant for participation in the Program:
(a) Impact of the project on advancing health equity;
(b) The opportunity for expanding access to linguistically appropriate services;
(c) The impact of the project on expanding access to culturally responsive care;
(d) The ability of the organization to leverage existing community resources and partnerships;
(e) The opportunity of the project to grow the number of clinicians obtaining licensure who are from Communities who are underserved; and
(f) The degree to which the applicant’s client demographic represents Communities who are underserved.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 675.658
- BHS 8-2023, amend filed 03/23/2023, effective 03/31/2023
- BHS 8-2022, adopt filed 06/13/2022, effective 06/14/2022
- BHS 24-2021, temporary adopt filed 12/16/2021, effective 12/17/2021 through 06/14/2022
Or. Admin. R. 309-080-0400 Program Integrity
(1) The Authority shall analyze and monitor the operation of grant activities, and audit and verify the accuracy and appropriateness of all payments made under the terms of the Program. To promote the integrity of the Program, the Authority may require participants and to develop and maintain adequate financial and other documentation as determined by the Authority to be necessary. The Authority may communicate with and coordinate any Program integrity actions with the federal and state oversight authorities.
(2) Any overpayment made to an individual or carrier is subject to recovery. The Authority shall take appropriate action and may redress payment errors or false claims for payment under the Program.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 675.658
- BHS 8-2023, amend filed 03/23/2023, effective 03/31/2023
- BHS 8-2022, adopt filed 06/13/2022, effective 06/14/2022
- BHS 24-2021, temporary adopt filed 12/16/2021, effective 12/17/2021 through 06/14/2022
Or. Admin. R. 309-080-0500 Data Sharing
(1) The Authority may not share data about Program participants, other than for purposes of planning, Program evaluation or analysis, or as otherwise required by law.
(2) Data may only be shared with:
(a) Agencies, offices, or contractors of the Authority;
(b) The Oregon Employment Department; and
(c) Non-governmental entities, not noted above, only with written approval from the Director of the Authority.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042 & 675.658
- BHS 8-2023, amend filed 03/23/2023, effective 03/31/2023
- BHS 8-2022, adopt filed 06/13/2022, effective 06/14/2022
- BHS 24-2021, temporary adopt filed 12/16/2021, effective 12/17/2021 through 06/14/2022
Division 81 BEHAVIORAL HEALTH LOAN REPAYMENT PROGRAM
Or. Admin. R. 309-081-0010 Definitions
The following definitions apply to OAR 309-081-0000 to OAR 309-081-0110:
(1) “Authority” means the Oregon Health Authority.
(2) “Behavioral health care worker” means any individual who assists or provides direct behavioral health care services to individuals and meets the qualifications provided in OAR 309-081-0020.
(3) “Board” means the Oregon Health Policy Board.
(4) "Community Mental Health Program or CMHP" means the organization of various services for individuals with a mental health diagnosis or addictive disorder operated by or contractually affiliated with a local mental health authority and operated in a specific geographic area of the state under an agreement with the Division pursuant to OAR chapter 309, division 014.
(5) “Communities of color” means members of the following racial or ethnic communities, but not limited to:
(a) American Indian;
(b) Alaska Native;
(c) Hispanic or Latino/a/x/é;
(d) Asian;
(e) Native Hawaiian;
(f) Pacific Islander;
(g) African American;
(h) Middle Eastern;
(i) African;
(j) Mixed race; or
(k) Other racial or ethnic minorities.
(6) “Communities who are underserved” include, but is not limited to, communities of color, Tribal members, LGBTQIA2S+ communities, refugees, immigrants, veterans, persons with disabilities, individual with intellectual and developmental disabilities, individuals with limited English proficiency, individuals incarcerated or incapacitated as a result of contact with the criminal legal system, and rural residents.
(7)“Culturally and linguistically specific behavioral health services (CLSS)” means services that are grounded in the cultural values of minoritized communities to elevate their voices and experiences, with the aim of enhancing emotional safety, belonging, and a shared collective cultural experience for healing and recovery of the community served.
(8) “Direct behavioral health care” means a mental health or addiction service provided directly from a behavioral health care worker to either an individual client/patient or group of clients/patients. This can be in-person or through telehealth and can include, but is not limited to:
(a) Behavioral health assessment;
(b) Service plan development and review;
(c) Increasing holistic health and health care literacy;
(d) Risk assessment and monitoring;
(e) Identifying and documenting risks;
(f) Working with an individual to eliminate or reduce risks;
(g) Developing and implementing a Risk Mitigation Plan;
(h) Monitoring risks over time;
(i) Making adjustments to an individual's Service Plan as needed;
(j) Diversion activities;
(k) Other program coordination. This means helping an individual navigate or coordinate with other social, health, and assistance programs;
(l) Crisis response and intervention;
(m) Service provision issues. This means assisting an individual with problem solving to resolve issues that occur with providers, services, or hours that don't meet the individual's needs;
(n) Individual Psychotherapy and Group Psychotherapy;
(o) Developing safety plans;
(p) Facilitating support groups;
(q) Providing screening tests;
(r) Sharing culturally appropriate and accessible health education and information;
(s) Assisting with creation of a birth plan;
(t) Other services the Authority deems/identifies as direct behavioral health care.
(9) “Division” means the Health Systems Division of the Oregon Health Authority, or its designee.
(10) “Frontier” means any county with six or fewer people per square mile.
(11) "Full-Time" means working a minimum of 32 hours per week providing behavioral health services averaged over the month for a minimum of 45 weeks per service year. The Authority may consider patient charting, clinical supervision, case management, and care coordination related to behavioral health a component of behavioral health services. The Authority may also consider telehealth a behavioral health service.
(12) “Medicare” means medical coverage provided under Title XVIII of the Social Security Act.
(13) “Mental Health Professional Shortage Area” is a score developed by the National Health Service Corps (NHSC) in determining priorities for assignment of clinicians. The scores range from 0 to 26 where the higher the score, the greater the priority.
(14) “Part-Time” means working a minimum of 16 hours per week providing direct behavioral health care services averaged over the month for a minimum of 45 weeks per service year. The Authority may consider patient charting, clinical supervision, case management, and care coordination related to behavioral health a component of direct behavioral health care services. The Authority may also consider telehealth a behavioral health service.
(15) “Program” means the Oregon Behavioral Health Workforce Initiative Program.
(16) “Qualified Mental Health Associate or QMHA” has the meaning given that term in OAR 309-019-0125(11).
(17) “Qualified Mental Health Professional or QMHP” has the meaning given that term in OAR 309-019-0125(12).
(18) “Qualifying loan” means one or more government or commercial loans received solely to cover the cost of associates, undergraduate, graduate, doctoral and other educational training programs. The Authority may consider loans for past education not completed if the coursework contributed to their employment in behavioral health. This does not include credit card loans, lines of credit, personal loans, and loans for education or training programs that an individual is currently in school or is in training for.
(19) “Rural” means any geographic areas in Oregon ten or more miles from the centroid of a population center of 40,000 people or more.
(20) “Telehealth” means the provision of health services from a distance using electronic communications.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: HB 4071 (2022)
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 675.375, ORS 675.705, ORS 675.720, ORS 675.745, ORS 675.785 & ORS 675.825
- BHS 23-2022, adopt filed 12/09/2022, effective 12/09/2022
- BHS 9-2022, temporary adopt filed 06/16/2022, effective 06/16/2022 through 12/12/2022
Or. Admin. R. 309-081-0020 Eligibility Criteria for The Oregon Behavioral Health Loan Repayment Program.
(1) To be eligible for the Oregon Behavioral Health Loan Repayment Program, applicants must be a Behavioral Health Care Worker who has qualifying loans who provides direct behavioral health care services and who is:
(a) Licensed, certified, or registered as a behavioral health care worker in Oregon under one of the following approved behavioral health certified and or governing bodies:
(A) Board of Licensed Social Workers;
(B) Board of Psychology;
(C) Health Licensing Office's Art Therapy Program;
(D) Mental Health and Addiction Certification Board of Oregon (MHACBO);
(E) Oregon Board of Licensed Professional Counselors and Therapists;
(F) Oregon Medical Board;
(G) Oregon State Board of Nursing;
(H) Teacher Standards and Practices Commission;
(I) Traditional Health Worker Registry; or
(J) Other credentialing bodies recognized by the Authority. Or
(b) Meets one of the following employer qualifications:
(A) Is a Qualified Mental Health Associate (QMHA) or Qualified Mental Health Professional (QMHP) designated by their employer and that meets the minimum criteria outlined in OAR 309-019-0125 and the personnel documentation, training, and supervision requirements in OAR 309-019-0130; or
(B) Is a behavioral health care worker designated by their employer and who provides treatment services or peer delivered services in substance use disorders, problem gambling, or mental health treatment programs and meets personnel documentation, training, and supervision requirements in OAR 309-019-0130.
(2) If awarded, an eligible behavioral health care worker will receive a loan repayment subsidy if they are not at the same time receiving loan repayment or forgiveness under a separate, competing service obligation.
(3) Recipient must commit to working in the behavioral health field Full-Time or Part-Time for two years from the start of recipient’s contract with the Authority to receive their full award as determined by the Authority.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: HB 4071 (2022)
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 675.375, ORS 675.705, ORS 675.720, ORS 675.745, ORS 675.785 & ORS 675.825
- BHS 23-2022, adopt filed 12/09/2022, effective 12/09/2022
- BHS 9-2022, temporary adopt filed 06/16/2022, effective 06/16/2022 through 12/12/2022
Or. Admin. R. 309-081-0030 Application Requirements
To qualify for consideration for loan repayment an eligible behavioral health care worker must submit an application that:
(1) Documents the individual having, an unrestricted license, certification or registration (if required) to practice in Oregon within their discipline.
(2) Includes a signed and dated statement certifying that the individual is not currently participating in the National Health Services Corps (NHSC), Nursing Corps, or State Loan Repayment Programs or the NHSC Scholarship Program or other current service obligation.
(3) Agrees to a service commitment of two years’ working full-time or part-time in the behavioral health care field.
(4) Provides all other information required by the program to determine the suitability of making an award from program funds.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: HB 4071 (2022)
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 675.375, ORS 675.705, ORS 675.720, ORS 675.745, ORS 675.785 & ORS 675.825
- BHS 23-2022, adopt filed 12/09/2022, effective 12/09/2022
- BHS 9-2022, temporary adopt filed 06/16/2022, effective 06/16/2022 through 12/12/2022
Or. Admin. R. 309-081-0040 Application and Review Process
(1) The Authority will publish an application process online.
(2) The Authority shall review those applications that meet all requirements of OAR 309-081-0020.
(a) The Authority shall make their award selections within 60 days of the most recent application cycle closing.
(b) The Authority shall notify all applicants in writing regarding if they have been awarded or not awarded within 60 days of the most recent application cycle closing.
(3) If awarded, applicants must sign a contract with the Authority agreeing to the terms and conditions of the program service obligation.
(4) Applicants who are awarded are not eligible to apply for future application cycles. Applicants can only be awarded once.
(5) The Authority may prioritize awards to behavioral health care workers who:
(a) Represent the ethnicity or culture of Oregon’s communities who are underserved;
(b) Provide culturally and linguistically specific behavioral health services to Oregon’s communities who are underserved;
(c) Have lived experience with Oregon’s communities who are underserved;
(d) Speak a second language other than English in a behavioral health care setting for Oregon’s communities who are underserved;
(e) Provide behavioral health services in a designated Rural or Frontier community.
(f) Work at a Community Mental Health Program, a publicly funded or public mental health facility, or a nonprofit mental health facility that contracts with a county to provide mental health services.
(g) Provide direct behavioral health care to Medicaid and Medicare individuals.
(h) Are physically located in Oregon and who primarily serve Oregon residents; In the case of behavioral health care workers delivering telehealth services as all or part of their services, the Authority may give behavioral health care workers physically located in Oregon who work primarily with Oregon residents priority for an award;
(i) Other behavioral health care workers who provide services deemed appropriate and necessary by the Authority to increase and improve equity to individuals seeking behavioral health services.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: HB 4071 (2022)
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 675.375, ORS 675.705, ORS 675.720, ORS 675.745, ORS 675.785 & ORS 675.825
- BHS 23-2022, adopt filed 12/09/2022, effective 12/09/2022
- BHS 9-2022, temporary adopt filed 06/16/2022, effective 06/16/2022 through 12/12/2022
Or. Admin. R. 309-081-0050 Maximum Award Amounts
The Oregon Behavioral Health Loan Repayment recipients are eligible for a maximum loan repayment award in the following manner:
(1) Full-Time Service:
(a) Seventy percent of the balance owed on qualifying loans upon program entry for two years of service;
(b) A recipient may receive no more than $50,000 in a single year for Full-Time service.
(2) Part-Time Service:
(a) Thirty five percent of the balance owed on qualifying loans upon program entry for two years of service;
(b) A recipient may receive no more than $25,000 in a single year for Part-Time service.
(3) Service obligations and maximum award amounts are subject to change as determined by the Authority.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: HB 4071 (2022)
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 675.375, ORS 675.705, ORS 675.720, ORS 675.745, ORS 675.785 & ORS 675.825
- BHS 23-2022, adopt filed 12/09/2022, effective 12/09/2022
- BHS 9-2022, temporary adopt filed 06/16/2022, effective 06/16/2022 through 12/12/2022
Or. Admin. R. 309-081-0060 Transfer of Behavioral Health Care Worker Service Obligation to Another Employer or Practice Site.
In the event of a participating behavioral health care worker moving to another practice site, or accepting a new employment opportunity, the individual may continue to receive their award if it doesn’t breach the terms and conditions of their contractual agreement. The Authority must be notified of the request within 14 days of the transition, and must meet the following criteria to still be considered eligible for their award:
(1) A participating behavioral health care worker must still be working in a behavioral health field in Oregon providing direct behavioral health care services full-time or part-time, and must submit a written employment or site transfer request to the Authority documenting:
(a) Detailed information regarding the new employer or practice site and the type of organization and behavioral health care services they provide;
(b) Name of the director or administrator at the new employment or practice site;
(c) A letter from the original practice site releasing the eligible behavioral health care worker from any employment contract (if applicable) and provide an explanation for the termination of employment (if applicable). The Authority may waive this requirement if the original practice site is in non-compliance with federal requirements, federal or state law, or these rules; and
(d) An employment contract with the new practice site or employer, a letter of intent from the new practice site or employer to employ the behavioral health care worker, or documentation of the behavioral health care worker having established a sole proprietorship, Limited Liability Corporation, Limited Liability Partnership, or Professional Corporation.
(2) The new practice site or employer, in collaboration with the behavioral health care worker, must provide confirmation that the site will cooperate with the behavioral health care worker to comply with the monitoring and follow-up requirements set forth in these rules.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: HB 4071 (2022)
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 675.375, ORS 675.705, ORS 675.720, ORS 675.745, ORS 675.785 & ORS 675.825
- BHS 23-2022, adopt filed 12/09/2022, effective 12/09/2022
- BHS 9-2022, temporary adopt filed 06/16/2022, effective 06/16/2022 through 12/12/2022
Or. Admin. R. 309-081-0070 Suspension or Waiver of Minimum Service Obligation
(1) The Authority may agree to suspend the participating behavioral health care worker service obligation for a specified time under circumstances it deems appropriate, including, but not limited to parental leave, medical leave, military service leave, or other factors beyond the behavioral health care worker’s control. During the time of suspension, awards shall be suspended.
(2) A recipient requesting a suspension of minimum service obligation shall make a written request to the Authority, citing the reasons and providing documentation of the circumstances.
(3) The Authority may waive all or part of the minimum service obligation under the following circumstances:
(a) Upon receipt of written documentation acceptable to the Authority of the death of the recipient;
(b) Upon receipt of written documentation acceptable to the Authority of the total and permanent disability of the participant; or
(c) Upon receipt of written documentation of other significant changes in life circumstances that are out of the control of the recipient and that the Authority determines warrant a waiver of service commitment.
(4) If all or part of the minimum service obligation is waived, the Authority may not impose any penalty for failure to meet the obligation.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: HB 4071 (2022)
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 675.375, ORS 675.705, ORS 675.720, ORS 675.745, ORS 675.785 & ORS 675.825
- BHS 23-2022, adopt filed 12/09/2022, effective 12/09/2022
- BHS 9-2022, temporary adopt filed 06/16/2022, effective 06/16/2022 through 12/12/2022
Or. Admin. R. 309-081-0080 Monitoring and Follow-up Requirements
(1) To maintain participation in the program, the behavioral health care worker must:
(a) Promptly submit quarterly reports signed by the Behavioral Health Care Worker and the administrator or HR personnel of the practice site verifying the behavioral health care worker’s employment, or licensed business; and
(b) Provide any additional information as requested by the Authority, including but not limited to:
(A) The practice site and behavioral health care worker’s caseload (panel size or equivalent) (if applicable);
(B) The practice site and behavioral health care worker’s Medicaid caseload and Medicare caseload (if applicable);
(C) Behavioral health care worker’s Full-Time equivalent (FTE) status; and
(D) Number and percentages of practice site’s patients whose health care is covered by Medicaid and by Medicare, and the number of patients at the practice site who are uninsured (if applicable).
(2) A Behavioral health care worker participating in the program must notify the Authority immediately of any change in employment or practice status.
(3) If required documentation is not received within 30 days from the program’s final request, the participating behavioral health care worker’s contract is subject to termination and penalties by the Authority under 309-081-0090 if a waiver is not in place.
(4) The behavioral health care worker must at all times be qualified, professionally competent and actively licensed and/or certified where required by law to perform behavioral health care services. The behavioral health care worker, employed Full-Time or Part-time, must provide services within the parameters permitted by the behavioral health care worker’s license or certification.
(5) Information disclosed or data provided by a behavioral health care worker, including employment status, is subject to verification by the Authority. Pursuant to 410-081-0080, a recipient of a loan repayment award whose two-year service obligation cannot be validated or verified by the Authority will be considered to have breached the terms and conditions of their contractual agreement.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: HB 4071 (2022)
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 675.375, ORS 675.705, ORS 675.720, ORS 675.745, ORS 675.785 & ORS 675.825
- BHS 23-2022, adopt filed 12/09/2022, effective 12/09/2022
- BHS 9-2022, temporary adopt filed 06/16/2022, effective 06/16/2022 through 12/12/2022
Or. Admin. R. 309-081-0090 Failure to Comply; Penalties and Appeals
A recipient of a loan repayment award who fails to obtain or maintain a license/certification, has a suspension or termination of a license/certification, is under fraud, conviction, termination of employment for-cause, or fails to complete their two-year service obligation providing behavioral health services in Oregon, or other circumstances deemed to be negligent or fraudulent by the Authority and does not receive a waiver may be considered to have breached the terms and conditions of their contractual agreement. Under these circumstances:
(1) The Authority may impose a penalty on any such behavioral health care worker in an amount up to the sum of:
(a) The total paid from the Oregon Behavioral Health Loan Repayment Program to the recipient or on behalf of the recipient for any periods of obligated service not served;
(b) Up to $500 for each month of the minimum service period not completed according to the terms of the obligation; and
(c) Interest on the above amounts at the maximum prevailing rate, as determined by the Oregon Department of Revenue, calculated from the date of breach until full repayment has been made.
(2) The recipient may appeal decisions made by the Authority under the provisions of ORS Chapter 183.
(3) A recipient of loan repayment found to be in breach of their contractual agreement under this program is subject to penalties. Administrative review, for purposes of these rules, shall be the process for any appeals made to the Authority. Recipient may request administrative review. The Authority must receive the request in writing no later than 30 calendar days after the date of the Authority’s notice. If the request for administrative review is timely, the recipient must provide the Authority with a copy of all relevant records and other materials relevant to the appeal, no later than 10 days before the review is scheduled.
(a) If the Authority decides that a preliminary meeting between the recipient and Authority staff may assist the review, the Authority shall notify the individual requesting the review of the date, time, and place the meeting is scheduled.
(b) The Authority shall conduct the administrative review meeting as follows:
(A) No minutes or transcript of the review shall be made;
(B) The recipient requesting review does not have to be represented by counsel during an administrative review meeting and shall be given the opportunity to present relevant information;
(C) Authority staff may not be available for cross-examination, but may attend and participate in the review meeting;
(D) Failure to appear without good cause constitutes acceptance of the Authority’s determination;
(E) The Authority may combine similar administrative review proceedings and meetings involving the same parties or similar facts, if the Authority determines that joint proceedings may facilitate the review;
(F) The Authority may request the appealing recipient to submit, in writing, new information that has been presented orally. The Authority shall establish the deadline for submission of the information;
(G) The Authority shall send the results of the administrative review to the recipient involved in the review, within 30 calendar days of the conclusion of the administrative review meeting, or such time as may be agreed to by the recipient or designated by the Authority;
(H) The Authority’s final decision on administrative review is the final decision on appeal and binding on the parties. Under ORS 183.484, this decision is an order in other than a contested case. ORS 183.484 and the procedures in OAR 137-004-0080 to 137-004-0092 apply to the Authority's final decision on administrative review;
(I) Academic institutions providing admission-based scholarships may set penalties for default against the terms of their program.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: HB 4071 (2022)
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 675.375, ORS 675.705, ORS 675.720, ORS 675.745, ORS 675.785 & ORS 675.825
- BHS 23-2022, adopt filed 12/09/2022, effective 12/09/2022
- BHS 9-2022, temporary adopt filed 06/16/2022, effective 06/16/2022 through 12/12/2022
Or. Admin. R. 309-081-0100 Program Integrity
(1) The Authority shall analyze and monitor the operation of the program and audit and verify the accuracy and appropriateness of all payments made under the terms of this program. To promote the integrity of the program, the Authority may require participants and any other parties to develop and maintain adequate financial and other documentation as determined by the Board to be necessary.
(2) The Authority may communicate with and coordinate any program integrity actions with the federal and state oversight authorities.
(3) Any overpayment made to an individual is subject to recovery. The Authority shall take appropriate action and may redress payment errors or false claims for payment under the program.
(4) Loan repayment recipients must cooperate in good faith with Authority or their designees, or law enforcement in any investigation, review or audit relating to suspected fraud, waste, or abuse as follows:
(a) Loan repayment recipient shall provide immediate access to work-site and reports or other documentation when a request is made in-person. Loan repayment recipient shall provide copies of reports, records or other documentation when requested for desk or remote review. All reports and documents required to be provided must be provided without cost to OHA;
(b) Loan repayment recipient shall permit the Authority to inspect, evaluate, or audit books, records, documents, files, accounts, and facilities maintained by or on behalf of the loan repayment recipient as such parties may determine is necessary to establish compliance with program rules or investigate any incident of fraud, waste, or abuse;
(c) Loan repayment recipient shall cooperate in good faith with the Authority during any investigation of fraud, waste, or abuse; and
(d) In the event that loan repayment recipient reports suspect fraud, waste, or abuse by the loan repayment recipient's employer or other third party, or the loan repayment recipient learns of an Authority or federal oversight authority's investigation the recipient is strictly prohibited from notifying the employer or third party.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: HB 4071 (2022)
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 675.375, ORS 675.705, ORS 675.720, ORS 675.745, ORS 675.785 & ORS 675.825
- BHS 23-2022, adopt filed 12/09/2022, effective 12/09/2022
- BHS 9-2022, temporary adopt filed 06/16/2022, effective 06/16/2022 through 12/12/2022
Or. Admin. R. 309-081-0110 Data Sharing
(1) The Authority may not share data about program participants unless legally required to do so a by a public record request, a subpoena or court order..
(2) Data may only be shared for the purposes of planning, program evaluation or analysis with:
(a) State agencies, offices, or contractors of the Authority;
(b) The Oregon Employment Department; and
(c) Non-governmental not noted above only with written approval from the Director of the Authority.
(3) The Authority requires applicants and individuals who receive loan repayment funds to submit true, accurate, and complete information and data to the Authority. For the purposes of these rules this includes Provider requests for payment under an agreement or contract, whether submitted as a claim or invoice or other method for requesting payment authorized by administrative rules 309-081. The Authority treats payment, whether on paper or electronically, as certification by the recipient of the following: “This is to certify, under penalty of law, that the foregoing information is true, accurate, and complete. I understand that payment will be from state funds, and that any falsification or concealment of a material fact maybe prosecuted under federal and state laws.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: HB 4071 (2022)
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 675.375, ORS 675.705, ORS 675.720, ORS 675.745, ORS 675.785 & ORS 675.825
- BHS 23-2022, adopt filed 12/09/2022, effective 12/09/2022
- BHS 9-2022, temporary adopt filed 06/16/2022, effective 06/16/2022 through 12/12/2022
Division 83 BEHAVIORAL HEALTH CARE BONUS AND HOUSING STIPEND INCENTIVE PROGRAM
Or. Admin. R. 309-083-0000 Purpose and Scope
This division establishes the Behavioral Health Care Bonus and Housing Stipend Incentive Program within the Oregon Health Authority (Authority). The program offers grants to organizations that employ credentialed behavioral health care workers with the aim of diversifying the behavioral health workforce by improving recruitment efforts of culturally responsive, culturally specific, and linguistically specific behavioral health care workers.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 675.655 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 675.655
- BHS 6-2023, adopt filed 01/31/2023, effective 02/01/2023
Or. Admin. R. 309-083-0010 Definitions
The following definitions apply to OAR 309-083-0000 to OAR 309-083-0600:
(1) “Authority” means the Oregon Health Authority.
(2) “Behavioral health care worker” has the meaning given the term in OAR 309-081-0020.
(3) “Certified Alcohol and Drug Counselor” means a behavioral health professional that practices substance use disorder counseling pursuant to OAR 309-019-0125(9).
(4) “Certified Alcohol and Drug Counselor Candidate or CADC-R” is a behavioral health care worker that has registered with the Division recognized credentialing body within 30 days of hire and intends to obtain professional substance use disorder treatment certification within two years from the date of first hire.
(5) “Certified Gambling Addiction Counselor” means a behavioral health professional who practices gambling addiction counseling pursuant to OAR 309-019-0125(10)(e).
(6) “Certified Gambling Recovery Mentor” is a behavioral health worker certified by the Division credentialing body to provide gambling mentor services.
(7) “Certified Prevention Specialist” is a behavioral health worker certified by the Division credentialing body to provide prevention specialist services.
(8) “Certified Recovery Mentor” is a behavioral health care worker that has completed an approved addiction peer training program and is certified by the Division credentialing body to provide recovery mentor services.
(9) “Clinical Social Worker Associate” means an individual certified to practice clinical social work under required clinical supervision pursuant to ORS 675.537.
(10) “Clinical Nurse Specialist” means a licensed registered nurse who has been licensed by the Oregon State Board of Nursing as qualified to practice the expanded clinical specialty nursing role pursuant to ORS 678.010 to 678.410.
(11) “Communities of color” means members of the following racial or ethnic communities, but not limited to:
(a) American Indian;
(b) Alaska Native;
(c) Hispanic or Latino/a/x;
(d) Asian;
(e) Native Hawaiian;
(f) Pacific Islander;
(g) African American;
(h) Middle Eastern;
(i) African;
(j) Mixed race; or
(k) Other racial or ethnic groups.
(12) “Communities who are underserved” include, but are not limited to, communities of color, Tribal members, LGBTQIA2S+ communities, refugees, immigrants, veterans, persons with disabilities, individuals with intellectual and developmental disabilities, individuals with limited English proficiency, individuals incarcerated or incapacitated as a result of contact with the criminal legal system, and rural residents.
(13) “Direct behavioral health care services” has the meaning given that term in OAR 309-081-0010.
(14) “Division” means the Health Systems Division of the Oregon Health Authority, or its designee.
(15) “Full time equivalent (FTE)” employment means the total number of regular straight-time hours worked (i.e., not including overtime or holiday hours worked) by employees divided by the number of compensable hours applicable to each fiscal year. Annual leave, sick leave, compensatory time off and other approved leave categories are considered "hours worked" for purposes of defining full-time equivalent employment.
(16) “Licensed Art Therapist” means an individual licensed to practice art therapy pursuant to ORS 681.740-758.
(17) “Licensed Certified Art Therapist” means an individual licensed to practice art therapy pursuant to ORS 681.740-758.
(18) “Licensed Clinical Social Worker” means an individual licensed to practice clinical social work pursuant to ORS 675.530.
(19) “Licensed Marriage and Family Therapist” has the meaning given that term in ORS 675.715.
(20) “Licensed Professional Counselor” has the meaning given that term in ORS 675.715.
(21) “Licensed Psychologist” means an individual licensed to practice psychology pursuant to ORS 675.010-675.090.
(22) “Marriage and Family Associate” is an individual registered to practice counseling under clinical supervision pursuant to ORS 675.720.
(23) “Nurse Practitioner” means a registered nurse who has been licensed by the board as qualified to practice in an expanded specialty role within the practice of nursing pursuant to ORS 678.010 to 678.410.
(24) “Permanent employment position” means an employment relationship where an individual receives payment directly from an employer and the arrangement does not include a set end date.
(25) “Professional Counselor Associate” is an individual registered to practice counseling under clinical supervision pursuant to ORS 675.720.
(26) “Psychiatrist” means a physician licensed as provided pursuant to ORS 677.010 to 677.450 by the Board of Medical Examiners for the State of Oregon and who has completed an approved residency training program in psychiatry.
(27) “Psychologist Resident Associate” means an individual licensed to practice psychology under residency supervision pursuant to ORS 675.030, 675.040 - 675.050, 675.065 & 675.110.
(28) Qualified Mental Health Associate or QMHA” has the meaning given that term in OAR 309-019-0125(11).
(29) “Qualified Mental Health Professional or QMHP” has the meaning given that term in OAR 309-019-0125(12)
(30) "Qualifying Practice Site" means a behavioral health site operated by:
(a) A county mental health program;
(b) A private non-profit behavioral health organization; or
(c) A private for-profit behavioral health organization.
(d) Tribal Behavioral Health Program; or
(e) Urban Indian Health Program; or
(f) Other organizations that employ credentialed employees who provide Direct behavioral health care services.
(31) “Registered Mental Health Associate (QMHA-R)” means an individual who is registered with the Division recognized credentialing body, is completing supervised experience, and testing to become certified as a Qualified Mental Health Associate.
(32) “Rural” means any geographic area in Oregon ten or more miles from the center of a population center of 40,000 people or more.
(33) “Telehealth” means the provision of health services from a distance using electronic communications.
(34) “Traditional Health Worker (THW)” has the meaning given that term in ORS 414.665 and OAR 410-180-0310.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 675.655
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 414.665, 675.010-675.110, 675.530, 675.537, 675.655, 675.715, 675.720, 677.010-677.450, 678.740-681.758 & OAR 410-180-0310
- BHS 6-2023, adopt filed 01/31/2023, effective 02/01/2023
Or. Admin. R. 309-083-0020 Behavioral Health Care Worker Bonus and Housing Stipend Program Fund Distribution
(1) Qualified practice sites may apply for grants up to an amount determined by the authority.
(2) Types of bonuses that may be provided by grant awardees include:
(a) Sign-on bonuses to behavioral health care workers filling vacant and permanent employment positions that the applicant intends to maintain.
(b) Retention bonuses to behavioral health care workers currently occupying permanent employment positions.
(3) Workers receiving a bonus must provide Direct behavioral health care services to Communities who are underserved, and are licensees, certificate holders, registrants, or associates credentialed in Oregon as one of the following:
(a) Licensed Clinical Social Worker;
(b) Licensed Psychologist;
(c) Licensed Professional Counselor;
(d) Licensed Marriage and Family Therapist;
(e) Clinical Social Worker Associate;
(f) Psychologist Resident Associate;
(g) Professional Counselor Associate;
(h) Marriage and Family Associate;
(i) Qualified Mental Health Professional;
(j) Certified Alcohol and Drug Counselor;
(k) Certified Gambling Addiction Counselor;
(l) Qualified Mental Health Associate;
(m) Certified Recovery Mentor;
(n) Traditional Health Worker;
(o) Certified Prevention Specialist;
(p) Certified Gambling Recovery Mentor;
(q) Registered Mental Health Associate (QMHA-R);
(r) Certified Alcohol and Drug Counselor Candidate (CADC-R);
(s) Licensed Certified Art Therapist;
(t) Licensed Art Therapist;
(u) Psychiatrist;
(v) Nurse Practitioner;
(w) Clinical Nurse Specialists;
(x) Other credentialed providers whose credentials are not listed, but also provide direct behavioral health care services using their credentials
(4) Grant awardees may provide housing stipends to behavioral health care workers currently occupying permanent employment positions.
(5) Workers receiving a housing stipend will provide direct behavioral health services to communities who are underserved, and are licensees, certificate holders, registrants, or associates credentialed in Oregon as one of the following:
(a) Licensed Clinical Social Worker;
(b) Licensed Psychologist;
(c) Licensed Professional Counselor;
(d) Licensed Marriage and Family Therapist;
(e) Clinical Social Worker Associate;
(f) Psychologist Resident Associate;
(g) Professional Counselor Associate;
(h) Marriage and Family Associate;
(i) Qualified Mental Health Professional;
(j) Certified Alcohol and Drug Counselor;
(k) Certified Gambling Addiction Counselor;
(l) Qualified Mental Health Associate;
(m) Certified Recovery Mentor;
(n) Traditional Health Worker;
(o) Certified Prevention Specialist;
(p) Certified Gambling Recovery Mentor;
(q) Registered Mental Health Associate (QMHA-R);
(r) Certified Alcohol and Drug Counselor Candidate (CADC-R);
(s) Licensed Certified Art Therapist;
(t) Licensed Art Therapist;
(u) Psychiatrist;
(v) Nurse Practitioner;
(w) Clinical Nurse Specialist;
(x) Other credentialed providers whose credentials are not listed, but also provide direct behavioral health care services using their credentials.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 675.655
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 675.655
- BHS 6-2023, adopt filed 01/31/2023, effective 02/01/2023
Or. Admin. R. 309-083-0030 Eligibility Criteria specific to the Behavioral Health Care Worker Bonus and Housing Stipend Program
(1) The Authority may determine the eligibility of qualified practice sites for sign-on bonuses, retention bonuses, and housing stipends for Behavioral Health Care Workers by:
(a) Determining that a qualifying practice site employs or contracts with behavioral health care workers with associate, bachelor, master, doctoral degrees or other state registered credentials, and that provide direct behavioral health care to Communities who are Underserved.
(b) Practice site location and their:
(A) Ability to recruit and retain behavioral health care worker positions;
(B) Plan or intention to use funds for bonuses and/or stipends.
(c) Quantity of full time equivalent behavioral health care workers;
(d) Other eligibility criteria as determined by the Authority.
(2) All retention bonuses under this rule shall be paid only to existing employees filling permanent behavioral health care worker employment positions.
(3) All sign-on and housing stipends under this rule shall be paid only to credentialed employees filling vacant and permanent behavioral health care worker employment positions.
(4) No bonus or housing stipend under this rule shall be provided to workers who fill temporary or seasonal employment positions.
(5) A practice site shall not suspend or terminate current employment positions for the purpose of using bonuses to recruit employees to fill those positions.
(6) Behavioral health care workers relocating from another state and completing the reciprocation process of a behavioral health care license or certification from a Division recognized credentialing body are eligible for housing stipends. When reciprocity is achieved the license or certification shall have been issued by one of the following governing bodies:
(a) Oregon Board of Licensed Social Workers;
(b) Oregon Board of Psychology;
(c) Oregon Health Licensing Office's Art Therapy Program;
(d) Mental Health and Addiction Certification Board of Oregon (MHACBO);
(e) Oregon Board of Licensed Professional Counselors and Therapists;
(f) Oregon Medical Board;
(g) Oregon State Board of Nursing;
(h) Oregon Teacher Standards and Practices Commission;
(i) Oregon Traditional Health Worker Registry;
(j) Other credentialing bodies recognized by the Authority.
(7) Applicant organizations designated as rural may provide housing stipends to behavioral health worker employees.
(8) Applicant organizations that are not designated as rural may provide housing stipends to direct behavioral health care workers with the following credentials:
(a) Certified Alcohol and Drug Counselor;
(b) Certified Gambling Addiction Counselor;
(c) Qualified Mental Health Associate;
(d) Certified Recovery Mentor;
(e) Traditional Health Worker;
(f) Certified Prevention specialist;
(g) Certified Gambling Recovery Mentor;
(h) Registered Mental Health Associate;
(i) Certified Alcohol and Drug Counselor Candidate;
(j) Other credentialed providers whose credentials are not listed, but also provide similar direct behavioral health care services using their credentials as compared to what is listed above (a)-(i).
(9) Telehealth behavioral health care worker positions are eligible for sign-on bonuses and retention bonuses.
(10) Telehealth behavioral health care worker positions are eligible for housing stipends if they meet other eligibility criteria to receive housing stipends above.
(11) The Authority may prioritize funding for applicants that include but are not limited to:
(a) Qualified practice sites that employ less than 25 full time equivalent direct behavioral health care workers;
(b) Qualified practice sites that have vacant and culturally specific and culturally responsive direct behavioral health care worker positions;
(c) Tribal Behavioral Health Programs;
(d) Urban Indian Programs;
(e) Qualified Practice Sites located in rural areas;
(f) Certified Community Behavioral Health Clinics;
(g) Community Mental Health Programs.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 675.655 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 675.655
- BHS 6-2023, adopt filed 01/31/2023, effective 02/01/2023
Or. Admin. R. 309-083-0040 Application and Review Process specific to the Behavioral Healthcare Worker Bonus and Housing Stipend Program
(1) The Authority may offer its application processes online.
(2) The Authority shall review those applications that meet all requirements established in the solicitations issued.
(a) The Authority shall return incomplete applications, and upon resubmittal, they shall be processed as of the new date of receipt when they are determined complete;
(b) The Authority shall notify applicants of the status of their completed applications as determined by the Authority.
(3) The Authority may consider the following factors in determining whether to award a grant to an eligible site for participation in the program which include the:
(a) Impact of the project on advancing health equity;
(b) Impact of the project on expanding access to culturally responsive, linguistically specific, and culturally specific care;
(c) Opportunity for expanding access to linguistically appropriate services;
(d) Ability of the organization to leverage existing community resources and partnerships;
(e) Opportunity of the project to increase the recruitment and retention of behavioral health workers who are from Communities who are Underserved.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 675.655 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 675.655
- BHS 6-2023, adopt filed 01/31/2023, effective 02/01/2023
Or. Admin. R. 309-083-0050 Program Integrity
(1) Awarded programs shall collect data that it will report to the Authority.
(2) The Authority shall analyze and monitor the operation of the program, and audit and verify the accuracy and appropriateness of all payments made under the terms of this program. To promote the integrity of the program, the Authority may require participants and any other parties to develop and maintain adequate financial and other documentation as determined by the Authority to be necessary. The Authority may communicate with and coordinate any program integrity actions with the federal and state oversight authorities.
(3) Any overpayment made to an individual or carrier is subject to recovery. The Authority shall take appropriate action and may redress payment errors or false claims for payment under the program.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 675.655 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 675.655
- BHS 6-2023, adopt filed 01/31/2023, effective 02/01/2023
Or. Admin. R. 309-083-0060 Data Sharing
(1) The Authority may not share data about program participants, other than for purposes of planning, program evaluation or analysis.
(2) Data may only be shared with:
(a) Agencies, offices, or contractors of the Authority;
(b) The Oregon Employment Department; and
(c) Non-governmental entities, not noted above, only with written approval from the Director of the Authority.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 675.655 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 675.655
- BHS 6-2023, adopt filed 01/31/2023, effective 02/01/2023
Division 88 PLACEMENT OF DEFENDANTS WHO LACK FITNESS TO PROCEED
Or. Admin. R. 309-088-0105 Purpose and Scope
(1) Oregon Revised Statutes (ORS) 161.365 and 161.370 recognize that not all criminal defendants who lack Fitness to Proceed (commonly known as aid and assist defendants) need to be committed to the State Hospital or remain in jail but instead should be served in the least restrictive and most integrated environment that is clinically indicated.
(2) These rules establish the standards for consultations and other required reports to occur and encourages collaboration between the Court, the Authority, State Hospital, Community Mental Health Program (CMHP), providers, tribal entities, Coordinated Care Organizations (CCO), and parties to the case to the extent permitted by law. The CMHP must provide Community Restoration Reports/Immediate Notification Reports to the Court and the Authority for defendants on community restoration, determined by the court to lack Fitness to Proceed under ORS 161.370 on or after September 29, 2025, and Consultation Reports to the Court, parties to the case, the Authority, and the State Hospital as described within the Division 88 rules.
(3) Any CMHP that has not met one or more of the requirements in OAR 309-088-0125, OAR 309-088-0130, and OAR 309-088-0146, which could include but is not limited to completion of Consultation Reports and/or other reports as required, must submit a written Plan of Correction, available at https://www.oregon.gov/oha/HSD/AMH/Pages/Intensive-Services.aspx The CMHP must submit the Plan of Correction within 7 Judicial Days of discovering that they have not met one or more of the requirements or at the request of the Authority. Plans of Corrections must:
(a) Identify the requirement(s) that was not met and the date, name of the corresponding defendant, court of jurisdiction, and case number;
(b) Describe the reason(s) for not meeting the requirement(s); and
(c) Describe the step(s) that the CMHP has taken to prevent recurrence and describe the timeline and person responsible to complete future step(s) to prevent recurrence.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, ORS 430.640, SB 295 (2021) & HB 2005 (2025)
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.630, ORS 430.640, ORS 161.365 & ORS 161.370
- BHS 3-2026, amend filed 03/25/2026, effective 03/27/2026
- BHS 28-2025, temporary amend filed 12/25/2025, effective 01/01/2026 through 03/27/2026
- BHS 3-2022, amend filed 01/24/2022, effective 02/01/2022
- BHS 18-2021, temporary amend filed 08/18/2021, effective 08/18/2021 through 02/13/2022
- BHS 9-2019, temporary amend filed 07/16/2019, effective 07/16/2019 through 01/11/2020
- MHS 2-2018, adopt filed 02/05/2018, effective 02/05/2018
- MHS 13-2017, temporary adopt filed 10/23/2017, effective 10/23/2017 through 04/20/2018
Or. Admin. R. 309-088-0115 Definitions
(1) "30-Day Community Transition Planning Update" means a form, contained within the Consultation Report, that includes a primary and backup plan for Appropriate Placement, services, and supports needed to transition the defendant from the State Hospital to a lower level of care. The form also provides notice to the Court, when applicable, and the Authority when an Appropriate Placement has been identified.
(2) “Acuity of Symptoms” means intensity and severity of symptoms.
(3) "Appropriate Placement" means the Least Restrictive Environment, determined by a team of qualified professionals and clinicians, that meets a defendant’s specific medical, behavioral and social needs at a particular point in time and is reviewed regularly to ensure the placement continues to be appropriate as the defendant’s needs change.
(4) “Authority” means the Oregon Health Authority.
(5) “Behavioral Health” means mental health, mental illness, addiction disorders, and substance use disorders.
(6) “Care Coordination” means a process-oriented activity to facilitate ongoing communication and collaboration to meet multiple needs including facilitating communication between natural supports, community resources, and involved providers and agencies; organizing, facilitating, and participating in client staffing meetings; and providing for continuity of care by creating linkages to and managing transitions between levels of care.
(7) “Case Management” means the services provided to assist individuals who reside in a community setting or are transitioning to a community setting in gaining access to needed medical, social, educational, entitlement, tribal resources, and other applicable services.
(8) “Community Mental Health Program (CMHP)” means the organization of various services for individuals with a mental health diagnosis or substance use disorders operated by or contractually affiliated with a local mental health authority and operated in a specific geographic area of the state under an agreement with the Authority pursuant to Oregon Administrative Rule (OAR) chapter 309, division 014.
(9) “CMHP Director” means the director of a CMHP, or the director’s designee.
(10) "CMHP Notice of Available Placement" means a form, contained within the Consultation Report, that is filed with the Court, the Authority and the State Hospital, when the CMHP director has secured an Appropriate Placement by obtaining an anticipated admission date.
(11) “Community Restoration Services” means services, Appropriate Placements, and treatment necessary to allow a defendant to gain or regain Fitness to Proceed in the community, which may include but are not limited to:
(a) Competency Restoration Services;
(b) Forensic Care Coordination; and
(c) Supportive Services.
(12) "Community Restoration Status Report" means a report provided to the Court and the Authority upon the Court’s request, for regular 45-day status reviews, that includes the status of the defendant’s progress with gaining or regaining Fitness to Proceed in the community, what services are being provided, if additional services are required to meet the defendant’s restoration needs, and if so what services are needed.
(13) “Community Transition Planning” means creating, regularly updating, and implementing a 30-Day Community Transition Plan Update, contained within the Consultation Report, to ensure services and supports, and transition from one level of care, provider, or facility to another are secured.
(14) “Competency Restoration Services” means services directly focused on restoring Fitness to Proceed, which may include but are not limited to:
(a) Behavioral Health treatment;
(b) Legal Skills Training; and
(c) Medical Services.
(15) "Consultation Report" means a report that is utilized to guide the CMHP through fulfilling the requirements of ORS 161.370, ORS 161.371, OAR 309-088-0125, and 0130. The Consultation Report communicates coordination and Community Transition Planning activities to the Authority, the State Hospital, and/or the Court as required. The Consultation Report contains four forms. The CMHP must complete one of the four forms depending on where the defendant is in their restoration process. Forms contained within the report include:
(a) Initial Community Consultation;
(b) Supplemental Community Consultation;
(c) 30-Day Community Transition Planning Update; and
(d) CMHP Notice of Available Placement.
(16) "County of Residence" means where the defendant was last known to live and is responsible for collaborating with the County of Responsibility.
(17) "County of Responsibility" means the county where the defendant’s charges were filed. The County of Responsibility is responsible for coordinating with the Court and carrying out the CMHP required duties when the defendant is at the State Hospital, or in Community Restoration Services. When applicable, the County of Responsibility coordinates with the County of Residence.
(18) “Court” means the court with jurisdiction regarding defendant’s Fitness to Proceed.
(19) “Fitness to Proceed” means that the defendant is able to:
(a) Understand the nature of the proceedings against the defendant;
(b) Assist and cooperate with the counsel of the defendant; and
(c) Participate in the defense of the defendant.
(20) “Forensic Care Coordination” means a process-oriented activity to facilitate ongoing communication and collaboration between the jurisdictional Court or other designated agencies within the criminal justice system, State Hospital, jail, CMHP, the Authority, tribal entities, CCO, providers and parties to the case to the extent permitted by law. Forensic Care Coordination begins when a defendant has been found unfit to proceed, which may include time that the defendant is in jail prior to admission to the State Hospital, or if ordered to Community Restoration. Forensic Care Coordination may include, but is not limited to:
(a) Coordination of periodic forensic evaluations, in collaboration with the defendant’s attorney, to assess Fitness to Proceed;
(b) Communication with providers to coordinate or provide transportation to and from forensic evaluations and court appearances in the case;
(c) Communication with providers, at least every 45 days, to receive clinical updates that inform Community Restoration Status Report submissions while the defendant is in Community Restoration Services; and
(d) Communication of court ordered requirements, limitations, and court dates to the defendant as clinically indicated.
(21) "Hospital Level of Care (HLOC)" means the defendant requires the type of care provided by the State Hospital in order to gain or regain Fitness to Proceed.
(22) "Immediate Notification Report" means a report submitted to the Court and the Authority when the Court requires an immediate notification regarding a defendant’s status.
(23) “Incidental Supports” means the provision of items that are not the direct provision of services. Incidental Supports may include items such as clothing, food, and medication.
(24) "Initial Community Consultation" means a form, contained within the Consultation Report, that is ordered by the Court before or after determining the issue of Fitness to Proceed and before an initial determination has been made under ORS 161.370(2)(c). The report should ensure a robust review and description of all recommended and appropriate Community Restoration Services and whether those services are present and available.
(25) “Judicial Day” means a day when Court is open.
(26) "Least Restrictive Environment" means a setting that offers the most independence while still ensuring safety and providing effective care.
(27) “Legal Skills Training” means training on courtroom procedures, roles, language, and potential outcomes of the court process.
(28) “Linkages to Benefits” means assisting a defendant obtain benefits for which they are eligible, including but not limited to:
(a) Medicaid;
(b) Social Security;
(c) Aging and People with Disabilities Services;
(d) Intellectual and Developmental Disability Services;
(e) Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program; and
(f) Housing.
(29) "Local Entity" means any entity or Appropriate Placement within the state that would be responsible for providing Community Restoration Services to the defendant.
(30) “Medical Services” means care and treatment provided by a licensed medical provider directed at preventing, diagnosing, treating, or correcting a medical problem.
(31) “Medication Management” means the prescribing and administering and reviewing of medications and their side effects, including both pharmacological management as well as supports and training to the individual.
(32) "Oregon Health Authority Support Request" means a form submitted to the Authority under the following circumstances:
(a) When the CMHP Director requests support and assistance identifying and securing Appropriate Placements;
(b) When a defendant has been RTP for 30 days and no Appropriate Placements have been identified;
(c) When a defendant is within 30 days of end of commitment to the State Hospital and no Appropriate Placements have been identified; or
(d) At the request of the Authority.
(33) “Peer-Delivered Services” means community-based services and supports provided to a defendant from individuals with similar lived experience. This could include but is not limited to peer services through clinical or recovery organizations, certified recovery mentors as defined in OAR 309-083-0010 or supports provided by Traditional Health Care Workers as defined in OAR 950-060-0000, which could include peer wellness specialists, peer support specialists, personal health navigators and community health workers. These services are intended to support defendants with engaging in ongoing treatment and living successfully in the community.
(34) “Qualified Mental Health Professional (QMHP)” means an individual who meets the qualification requirements outlined in OAR 309-019-0125.
(35) "Ready to Place (RTP)" means the State Hospital has determined that the defendant no longer requires HLOC due to their acuity of symptoms or, in instances when a Stop Order has been issued, the circumstances regarding the defendant or available Appropriate Placement options have changed.
(36) "Secure Placement" means a facility that is of the most restrictive class under the classification system described in ORS 426.238.
(37) "Secure Placement Order" means the Court has issued an order that the defendant is subject to a most restrictive placement determination. The CMHP Director must evaluate if the defendant may be appropriately served in an environment other than a Secure Placement.
(38) “State Hospital” means the Oregon State Hospital system, including all campuses.
(39) "Stop Order" means an order from the court directing the CMHP Director to discontinue evaluating placement options until a new notice is received from the State Hospital determining HLOC is no longer necessary.
(40) “Superintendent” means the chief executive officer of a State Hospital, or designee, or an individual authorized by the superintendent to act in the superintendent’s capacity.
(41) "Supplemental Community Consultation" means a form, contained within the Consultation Report, that is ordered by the court when HLOC is no longer necessary, to determine whether Community Restoration Services are present and available in the community and if the defendant is subject to a Secure Placement. The report should ensure a robust review and description of all recommended Community Restoration Services.
(42) “Supportive Services” means services that a defendant may need both during and after Competency Restoration Services which may include but are not limited to:
(a) Incidental Supports;
(b) Behavioral Health treatment;
(c) Care Coordination;
(d) Case Management;
(e) Linkages to Benefits;
(f) Medication Management;
(g) Peer-Delivered Services; and
(h) Vocational services.
(43) “Vocational Services” means employment support services that leads to competitive integrated employment. The Authority encourages the use of fidelity IPS Supported Employment for providing Vocational Services.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, ORS 430.640, SB 295 (2021) & HB 2005 (2025)
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.640, ORS 161.370, ORS 161.365 & ORS 430.630
- BHS 3-2026, amend filed 03/25/2026, effective 03/27/2026
- BHS 28-2025, temporary amend filed 12/25/2025, effective 01/01/2026 through 03/27/2026
- BHS 21-2025, temporary amend filed 09/25/2025, effective 09/29/2025 through 03/27/2026
- BHS 22-2024, amend filed 08/30/2024, effective 09/01/2024
- BHS 3-2022, amend filed 01/24/2022, effective 02/01/2022
- BHS 18-2021, temporary amend filed 08/18/2021, effective 08/18/2021 through 02/13/2022
- BHS 1-2020, amend filed 01/10/2020, effective 01/12/2020
- BHS 9-2019, temporary amend filed 07/16/2019, effective 07/16/2019 through 01/11/2020
- MHS 2-2018, adopt filed 02/05/2018, effective 02/05/2018
- MHS 13-2017, temporary adopt filed 10/23/2017, effective 10/23/2017 through 04/20/2018
Or. Admin. R. 309-088-0125 CMHP Consultation Reports and OHA Notification/Support Requests
(1) The County of Responsibility carries out the responsibilities set forth within this rule set, regardless of where the defendant is placed. If applicable, the County of Responsibility works in collaboration with the County of Residence or other counties where the defendant has a concurrent aid and assist case.
(2) Consultation Reports include an Initial Community Consultation, Supplemental Community Consultation, 30-Day Community Transition Planning Update, and CMHP Notice of Available Placement. Consultation Reports must be submitted to the Court (when applicable), parties to the case, the Authority, and the State Hospital describing whether Community Restoration Services are present and available in the community. The report must be completed, using the “Consultation Report” available at https://www.oregon.gov/oha/HSD/AMH/Pages/Intensive-Services.aspx.
(3) The OHA Support Request is available at https://www.oregon.gov/oha/HSD/AMH/Pages/Intensive-Services.aspx.
(4) The CMHP Director must complete the following forms in accordance with their instructions:
(a) An Initial or Supplemental Community Consultation when ordered by the Court and as described in OAR 309-088-0125 and OAR 309-088-0130;
(b) A 30-Day Community Transition Planning Update and CMHP Notice of Available Placement as described in OAR 309-088-0125 and OAR 309-088-0130; and
(c) An OHA Support Request form as described in OAR 309-088-0125 and OAR 309-088-0130.
(5) During completion of the forms contained within the Consultation Report, the CMHP Director must consult with the defendant and any Local Entity that would be responsible for providing Community Restoration Services to the defendant if the defendant were to be released in the community to determine whether Community Restoration Services are present and available. Local entities may include but are not limited to Veteran or Military services, Aging and People with Disability services, Intellectual and Developmental Disability services, tribal entities, other counties, and the defendant’s CCO.
(6) The Initial and Supplemental Community Consultations must occur through either an in-person meeting or video conference depending on the defendant’s individual clinical needs.
(7) Within five Judicial Days of the Court issuing an Initial or Supplemental Community Consultation order, the CMHP Director must:
(a) Review available records related to defendant’s medical or service needs;
(b) Consult with the defendant to assess what Community Restoration Services are recommended and whether the recommended Community Restoration Services are present and available in the community;
(c) Consult with any Local Entity that would be responsible for providing Community Restoration Services to the defendant if the defendant were to be released to the community;
(d) Thoroughly complete the Initial and Supplemental Community Consultation forms within the Consultation Report and include information about all Appropriate Placements, whether referrals are being accepted, status of referrals, and status of waitlists;
(e) For defendants committed to the State Hospital, who are subject to a Secure Placement Order:
(A) Determine whether a placement at a facility that is of the most restrictive class under the classification system described in ORS 426.238 is present and available;
(B) Determine if the defendant can be appropriately served in an environment that is not a Secure Placement; and
(C) Include any reasonable and clinically appropriate alternatives in the Consultation Report.
(f) For defendants committed to the State Hospital, ensure clinical assessments for appropriate level of care referrals are primarily guided by information and recommendations from the State Hospital’s treating clinical team.
(8) If, during completion of the Initial or Supplemental Community Consultation, the CMHP Director determines that Appropriate Placements are not present and available in the community, the CMHP Director must, within 5 Judicial Days of the court order include the following in the Supplemental Community Consultation to the Court, the Authority, and the State Hospital:
(a) Information concerning the specific services necessary to safely allow the defendant to gain or regain Fitness to Proceed in the Least Restrictive Environment in the community;
(b) A description of the necessary services that are not present and available in the community; and
(c) An explanation why there are no Appropriate Placements.
(9) The CMHP Director must provide 30-Day Community Transition Planning Updates at least every 30 days:
(a) To the Court, after the Supplemental Community Consultation, for placement status updates on all proposed Appropriate Placements and attempts to secure proposed Appropriate Placements that were not subject to a granted objection or when no Stop Order has been issued;
(b) To the Court, after the Supplemental Community Consultation, when no Appropriate Placements have been identified, and no Stop Order has been issued; and
(c) To the Authority and State Hospital upon commitment for Community Transition Planning until an Appropriate Placement is secured, regardless of the defendant's charges or Stop Orders.
(10) When an Appropriate Placement has been identified the CMHP Director must immediately complete the 30-Day Community Transition Planning Update form, within the Consultation Report, and provide a copy to the Authority, the State Hospital, and the Court if no Stop Order has been issued.
(11) The CMHP Director must notify the Authority immediately, using the OHA Support Request form, when:
(a) A defendant has been Ready to Place (RTP) for 30 days, and no Appropriate Placement has been identified;
(b) The CMHP Director receives a notice from the State Hospital that the defendant is within 30 days of end of commitment, and no Appropriate Placement has been identified; and
(c) At the request of the Authority.
(12) The CMHP Director must immediately notify the Court, the Authority, and the State Hospital, using the CMHP Notice of Available Placement form within the Consultation Report, when a Stop Order has not been issued, and an Appropriate Placement has been secured by obtaining an anticipated admission date.
(13) Copies of the Consultation Report described in OAR 309-088-0125 will be automatically sent to the Authority when the form is submitted. CMHPs must submit Consultation Reports to the State Hospital at CMHP.Consults@odhsoha.oregon.gov and to the Court and parties to the case.
(14) Copies of the OHA Support Request described in OAR 309-088-0125 will be automatically sent to the Authority when the form is submitted.
(15) The CMHP Director must individually assess what services are appropriate for each defendant to gain or regain Fitness to Proceed. Lacking Fitness to Proceed does not automatically mean that Legal Skills Training is necessary to gain or regain Fitness to Proceed.
(16) The Initial and Supplemental Community Consultation required in OAR 309-088-0125 must be completed by a QMHP.
(17) The 30-Day Community Transition Planning Updates and CMHP Notice of Available Placement may be completed by a QMHA with approval of a QMHP.
(18) The OHA Support Request may be completed by a QMHA with approval of a QMHP.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, ORS 430.640, SB 295 (2021) & HB 2005 (2025)
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.640, ORS 430.630, ORS 161.365 & ORS 161.370
- BHS 3-2026, amend filed 03/25/2026, effective 03/27/2026
- BHS 28-2025, temporary amend filed 12/25/2025, effective 01/01/2026 through 03/27/2026
- BHS 22-2024, amend filed 08/30/2024, effective 09/01/2024
- BHS 3-2022, amend filed 01/24/2022, effective 02/01/2022
- BHS 18-2021, temporary amend filed 08/18/2021, effective 08/18/2021 through 02/13/2022
- BHS 9-2019, temporary amend filed 07/16/2019, effective 07/16/2019 through 01/11/2020
- MHS 2-2018, adopt filed 02/05/2018, effective 02/05/2018
- MHS 13-2017, temporary adopt filed 10/23/2017, effective 10/23/2017 through 04/20/2018
Or. Admin. R. 309-088-0130 CMHP Responsibilities During Commitment
(1) The County of Responsibility carries out the responsibilities set forth within this rule set 309-088-0130, regardless of where the defendant is placed. If applicable, the County of Responsibility work in collaboration with the County of Residence or other counties where the defendant has a concurrent aid and assist case.
(2) Within 7 Judicial Days of receiving notice from the State Hospital that a defendant has been admitted to the State Hospital under ORS 161.370, the CMHP Director must notify the State Hospital of the name and contact information of the person designated to work with the State Hospital on behalf of the CMHP Director regarding the defendant.
(3) The person designated as required in OAR 309-088-0130 must be the CMHP point of contact for the State Hospital until the State Hospital is informed by the CMHP of a newly designated person.
(4) The CMHP Director is responsible for Community Transition Planning and Forensic Care Coordination, which begins when a defendant has been found unfit to proceed, which may include time that the defendant is in jail prior to admission to the State Hospital and continues until the defendant is returned to the County or Responsibility or County of Residence and the Court has terminated commitment. At least every 30 days the CMHP Director must communicate with the Superintendent of the State Hospital or director of an OHA approved facility for purposes of Community Transition Planning and Forensic Care Coordination by:
(a) Attending a treatment team meeting; or
(b) Communicating with the QMHP assigned to the defendant, verbally or in writing.
(5) Community Transition Planning must be initiated upon commitment and shall include:
(a) An in-person meeting, phone call, or video conference with the defendant, at least every 30 days, for the purpose of informing reviewing, and updating the 30-Day Community Transition Planning Updates described in OAR 309-088-0125;
(b) Consultation with the State Hospital, the Federally Recognized Tribe of Oregon that the defendant is a member of, CCOs, Exceptional Needs Care Coordinators (ENCCs), the defendant, Local Entities, and any other identified support systems and providers that could potentially serve the defendant for the purpose of Community Transition Planning;
(c) If the defendant was subject to a Secure Placement Order, the CMHP director shall determine if placement at such facility is present and available and if the defendant can be served in an Appropriate Placement that is not a Secure Placement;
(d) Facilitation of timely discharge from the State Hospital and, whenever possible, diversion from placement at a secure residential treatment facility (SRTF) when consistent with the level of services, supervision or type of placement identified by the State Hospital in its RTP notice;
(e) Completion or coordination of any referrals, screenings, or other work needed to secure and identify an Appropriate Placement, including sending all referrals to ACT that the State Hospital sends to the CMHP;
(f) Monitoring the status of any referrals, screenings, or other work;
(g) Coordinating access to services provided in the Least Restrictive Environment and most integrated setting appropriate to meet the defendant's Behavioral Health needs and referring to services outside the CMHP service area, when necessary, to meet the identified needs;
(h) The CMHP Director requesting OHA support, using the OHA Support Request form, if the Director has determined no Appropriate Placements have been identified after the defendant has been RTP for 30 days or at the request of the Authority. The Director must consult with the Authority, virtually or in writing, and follow recommendations agreed upon with the Authority during the consultation with OHA;
(i) The CMHP Director requesting OHA support, using the OHA Support Request form, when the Director receives a release notice from the State Hospital and the defendant is within 30days of end of commitment or at the request of the Authority, if the Director has determined that no Appropriate Placements have been identified. The Director must consult with the Authority, virtually or in writing, and follow recommendations agreed upon with the Authority during the consultation;
(j) Updating the 30-Day Community Transition Planning Update, within the Consultation Report, as described in OAR 309-088-0125, at least every 30 days for submission to the Authority and the State Hospital; and
(k) Collaborating and sharing of Consultation Reports or other transition planning activities, with potential providers or other entities that would be providing Community Restoration Services and overseeing continuity of care due to placement or change of commitment.
(6) Community Transition Planning must be primarily guided by the State Hospital’s treating clinical team’s recommendations. The CMHP may provide information to the State Hospital’s treating clinical team to inform their recommendations.
(7) Community Transition Planning must include a Consultation Report with information regarding both primary Appropriate Placements and alternative Appropriate Placements, should the primary Appropriate Placement be unavailable at the time of defendant's discharge. Community Transition Planning must be:
(a) Consistent with clinical best practice and existing legal standards regarding the ADA’s integration mandate and Olmstead;
(b) Individualized and specific to the clinical needs of the defendant;
(c) Person-centered;
(d) Inclusive of information on any clinically appropriate referral options; and
(e) Inclusive of which providers, agencies, CCOs, ENCCs, and Tribes were consulted.
(8) In addition to OAR 309-088-0130(5), for defendants committed to the State Hospital and when the Court has not issued a Stop Order:
(a) The CMHP Director must complete a Supplemental Community Consultation, within the Consultation Report, as described in 309-088-0125, due to the defendant no longer needing hospital level of care and submit to the Court.
(b) The CMHP Director, after a Supplemental Community Consultation report has been submitted to the court, must complete and submit to the court, at least every 30 days, a 30-Day Community Transition Planning Update within the Consultation Report described in 309-088-0125, until an Appropriate Placement is secured or until the Court issues a Stop Order;
(c) The CMHP Director must use the 30-Day Community Transition Planning Update within the Consultation Report, to immediately notify the Court, the Authority, and the State Hospital if the CMHP Director identifies an Appropriate Placement;
(d) If the CMHP Director is notified of an objection by one or more of the parties to one or more of the Appropriate Placements identified, the CMHP will continue to submit 30-Day Community Transition Planning updates, within the Consultation Report, to the Court, the Authority, and the State Hospital;
(e) The CMHP Director must complete a CMHP Notice of Available Placement, within the Consultation Report, as described in 309-088-0125, when an Appropriate Placement has been secured and submit to the Court, the Authority and the State Hospital.
(f) The CMHP Director must continuously plan for transition to a lower level of care for every defendant admitted to the State Hospital, by identifying Appropriate Placement options, supports, and services for the defendant. Transition planning must be primarily guided by the State Hospital’s treating clinical team’s recommendations, even if a Stop Order is issued; and
(g) The CMHP Director must provide information about the availability of the State Hospital treating clinical team’s clinical recommendations in the community, including any reasonable and clinically appropriate alternatives if the State Hospital treating clinical team’s clinical recommendations are not present or available in the community.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 430.640, SB 295 (2021) & HB 2005 (2025)
- Statutes/Other Implemented: 430.640, ORS 430.630, ORS 161.365 & 161.370
- BHS 3-2026, amend filed 03/25/2026, effective 03/27/2026
- BHS 28-2025, temporary amend filed 12/25/2025, effective 01/01/2026 through 03/27/2026
- BHS 22-2024, amend filed 08/30/2024, effective 09/01/2024
- BHS 3-2022, adopt filed 01/24/2022, effective 02/01/2022
Or. Admin. R. 309-088-0146 CMHP Responsibilities During Community Restoration
CMHP Responsibilities During Community Restoration
(1) The County of Responsibility carries out the responsibilities set forth within this rule set, regardless of where the defendant is placed. If applicable the County of Responsibility works in collaboration with the County of Residence or other counties where the defendant has a concurrent fitness to proceed case.
(2) When the Court has ordered that a defendant participate in Community Restoration, the CMHP from the county responsible for attempting to restore a defendant’s Fitness to Proceed must individually assess what services are necessary to allow the defendant to gain or regain Fitness to Proceed. The CMHP must provide the identified Community Restoration Services, or coordinate the provision of the identified Community Restoration Services which must include but are not limited to:
(a) Competency Restoration Services;
(b) Forensic Care Coordination; and
(c) Supportive Services necessary to support community integration.
(3) A defendant found to lack Fitness to Proceed does not automatically require Legal Skills Training to gain or regain Fitness to Proceed. The CMHP must individually assess whether Legal Skills Training is appropriate for the defendant as part of their Competency Restoration Services.
(4) At the request of the Court, the CMHP Director must provide a Community Restoration Status Report for regular 45-day status reviews to the Authority and the court using the Community Restoration Status Report/Immediate Notification Report form.
(5) The Community Restoration Status Report must be completed in collaboration with entities or placements providing the defendant’s Community Restoration Services and completed in accordance with the instructions provided for the report. The Community Restoration Status Report includes:
(a) The defendant's information;
(b) The defendant's initial date ordered to community restoration;
(c) Name and credentials of individual completing report;
(d) Whether acuity of symptoms have increased;
(e) Whether the defendant is making progress in gaining or regaining fitness to proceed;
(f) What services are being provided; and
(g) Whether and what additional services are required to meet the defendant's restoration needs.
(6) The CMHP shall have on-going communication and collaboration between the Court or other applicable designated agencies within the criminal justice system, State Hospital, the Authority, Veteran or Military Services, Aging and People with Disability Services, Intellectual and Developmental Disability Services, tribal entities, CCO and providers, to ensure the defendant’s needs are being met in the Least Restrictive Environment. Coordination efforts may include but are not limited to:
(a) Coordination of periodic forensic evaluations at least every 180 days, beginning with the community restoration order date, or as ordered by the court, in collaboration with the defendant’s attorney, to assess Fitness to Proceed;
(b) Communication with providers to coordinate or provide transportation to and from the forensic evaluations and court appearances in the case; and
(c) Communication with providers, at least every 45 days, to receive clinical updates that inform Community Restoration Status Reports while the defendant is in Community Restoration Services; and
(d) Communication of Court ordered requirements, limitations, and court dates to the defendant as clinically indicated.
(7) The CMHP shall coordinate the defendant's behavioral health and medical treatment in the community; attempt to conduct an individualized assessment and develop a service plan, as set forth in OAR 309-019-0140, in coordination with the defendant and provider(s) and consistent with any court ordered conditions. If the defendant does not participate in the initial assessment, continued efforts should be made to engage with the defendant to complete the assessment and develop a comprehensive service plan.
(8) The Immediate Notification Report must be submitted and completed in accordance with the instructions provided for the report, when the defendant has demonstrated:
(a) Non-compliance or unexcused absence from Community Restoration Services treatment;
(b) Non-compliance with taking or receiving prescribed medications or verbal refusal to take or receive prescribed medications;
(c) Gained or regained fitness to proceed;
(d) Regained compliance with taking or receiving prescribed medications; and/or
(e) Regained compliance with treatment services.
(9) The CMHP is responsible for coordinating transition from forensic services for defendants discharging from Community Restoration Services to lower levels of care, including but not limited to updating the defendant's treatment service plan required in OAR 309-019-0140.
(10) The Community Restoration Status Reports and Immediate Notification Reports may be completed by a QMHA with approval of a QMHP.
(11) Community Restoration Status Reports and Immediate Notification Reports are completed using the “Community Restoration Status Report/Immediate Notification Report" form available at https://www.oregon.gov/oha/HSD/AMH/Pages/Intensive.-Services.aspx
(12) Copies of the Community Restoration Status Report or Immediate Notification Report will be automatically to The Authority when each form is completed. CMHPs must separately submit to the Court and parties to the case.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, ORS 430.640, SB 295 (2021) & HB 2005 (2025)
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 430.640, ORS 430.630, ORS 161.365 & ORS 161.370
- BHS 3-2026, amend filed 03/25/2026, effective 03/27/2026
- BHS 28-2025, temporary amend filed 12/25/2025, effective 01/01/2026 through 03/27/2026
- BHS 21-2025, temporary amend filed 09/25/2025, effective 09/29/2025 through 03/27/2026
- BHS 22-2024, amend filed 08/30/2024, effective 09/01/2024
- BHS 4-2022, adopt filed 01/31/2022, effective 02/01/2022
Division 90 FORENSIC MENTAL HEALTH EVALUATORS AND EVALUATIONS
Or. Admin. R. 309-090-0000 Purpose and Scope
These rules establish minimum standards for the certification of psychiatrists, licensed psychologists, and regulated social workers, who are Licensed Clinical Social Workers (LCSW), related to performing forensic examinations and evaluations as described in ORS 161.309–161.315, 161.365-370, 419C.378-419C.380, 419C.411, and 419C.524-529. The rules are intended to ensure that forensic evaluations meet consistent quality standards and are conducted by qualified and trained evaluators. The Oregon Health Authority shall provide training, certify qualified applicants and maintain a list of certified forensic evaluators for statewide use.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 161.392 & 419C.382
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 161.295-325, 161.392, 419C.378 -386, 161.360-370, 419C.411 & 419C.520-529
- BHS 2-2020, amend filed 01/13/2020, effective 01/14/2020
- BHS 18-2019, temporary amend filed 08/28/2019, effective 08/30/2019 through 02/24/2020
- MHS 4-2016, f. & cert. ef. 5-3-16
- MHS 14-2014, f. & cert. ef. 10-29-14
- MHS 13-2012, f. & cert. ef. 6-25-12
- MHS 12-2011(Temp), f. 12-21-11, cert. ef. 1-1-12 thru 6-27-12
Or. Admin. R. 309-090-0005 Definitions
(1) “Acuity of symptoms” means the intensity and severity of the defendant’s or youth’s psychiatric symptoms.
(2) “Authority” means the Oregon Health Authority (OHA).
(3) “Capacity” means that the defendant or youth is able to:
(a) Understand the nature of the proceedings against the defendant or youth;
(b) Assist and cooperate with the counsel of the defendant or youth; and
(c) Participate in the defense of the defendant or youth.
(4) “Community restoration services” means services and treatment necessary to safely allow a defendant to gain or regain fitness to proceed in the community, which may include supervision by pretrial services.
(5) “Competence” or “competency” means the same as capacity.
(6) “Conditional Certification” means a psychologist, psychiatrist, or a LCSW evaluator who has not been certified by the Authority under these rules but who has received a temporary conditional certification by a court to perform a forensic evaluation in a specific criminal or delinquency case.
(7) “Court” means a criminal court or juvenile court in this state with jurisdiction over the defendant or youth.
(8) “Criminal Responsibility” means:
(a) A defendant who, as a result of a qualifying mental disorder at the time of engaging in the alleged criminal conduct, lacks the substantial capacity to either appreciate the criminality of their conduct or to conform their conduct to the requirements of law; or
(b) A youth who, as a result of a qualifying mental disorder at the time the youth committed the act alleged in the petition, lacked the substantial capacity to either appreciate the nature and quality of the act or to conform the youth’s conduct to the requirements of law.
(9) “Defendant” means a person who is tried as an adult in a court of criminal jurisdiction.
(10) “Delinquency case” means any case involving a person who is under 18 years of age and who has committed an act that is a violation, or that if done by an adult would constitute a violation, of a law or ordinance of the United States or a state, county or city; and who is under the jurisdiction of the juvenile court.
(11) “Division” means the Health Systems Division of the Authority.
(12) “Evaluator” means a “certified evaluator” as defined by ORS 161.309.
(13) “Fit to Proceed” or “Fitness to Proceed” means the same as having capacity.
(14) “Forensic Evaluation” means that an evaluator assesses the defendant’s or youth’s fitness to proceed or criminal responsibility, completes a written evaluation, and submits it to the court or attorneys in a criminal or delinquency case.
(15) “Full Certification” means a psychiatrist, licensed psychologist, or LCSW is certified by the Authority to perform forensic evaluations under these rules for the duration of 24 months.
(16) “Guilty Except for Insanity” means that a Court has determined that a defendant lacks criminal responsibility.
(17) “Hospital level of care” means that a defendant requires the type of care provided by an inpatient hospital in order to gain or regain fitness to proceed.
(18) “Incapacitated” or “incapable” means that a defendant or youth is unable, as a result of a qualifying mental disorder, to:
(a) Understand the nature of the proceedings against the defendant or youth;
(b) Assist and cooperate with the counsel of the defendant or youth; or
(c) Participate in the defense of the defendant or youth.
(d) A youth cannot be found “incapacitated” solely because:
(A) Of the age of the youth;
(B) Of the current inability of the youth to remember the acts alleged in the petition; or
(C) Evidence exists that the youth committed the acts alleged in the petition while the youth was under the influence of intoxicants or medication.
(19) “Juvenile” means the same as a youth.
(20) “Juvenile Certification” means an evaluator who has been certified by the Authority under these rules to complete forensic evaluations of youths related to their fitness to proceed and criminal responsibility, or related only to their fitness to proceed in the case of LCSWs..
(21) “Licensed Clinical Social Worker (LCSW)” means a regulated social worker licensed with the Oregon Board of Licensed Social Workers pursuant to ORS 675.530.
(22) “Licensed Psychologist” means a psychologist licensed pursuant to ORS 675.010 through 675.150 by the Oregon Board of Psychologist Examiners.
(23) “Oregon Forensic Evaluator Training Program” means a training program, approved by the Authority, for psychiatrists, licensed psychologists, and LCSWs related to the best practices and requirements for forensic evaluations performed under these rules.
(24) “Psychiatrist” means a physician licensed by the Oregon Medical Board pursuant to ORS 677.010 through 677.450 and who has completed an approved residency training program in psychiatry.
(25) "Qualifying Mental Disorder" (formerly "Mental disease or defect") means:
(a) A developmental or intellectual disability, traumatic brain injury, brain damage or other biological dysfunction that is associated with distress or disability causing symptoms or impairment in at least one important area of the defendant’s or youth’s functioning and is defined in the current Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM 5-TR) of the American Psychiatric Association; or
(b) Any diagnosis of a psychiatric condition which is a significant behavioral or psychological syndrome or pattern that is associated with distress or disability causing symptoms or impairment in at least one important area of the defendant’s or youth’s functioning and is defined in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM 5-TR) of the American Psychiatric Association.
(c) “Qualifying Mental Disorder" does not include:
(A) A diagnosis solely constituting the ingestion of substances (e.g., chemicals or alcohol), including but not limited to transitory, episodic alcohol or drug-induced psychosis;
(B) An abnormality manifested solely by repeated criminal or otherwise antisocial conduct;
(C) An abnormality constituting a personality disorder; or
(D) Constituting solely a conduct disorder for a youth.
(26) “Redacted Forensic Evaluation” means a forensic evaluation report for which all identifying information of the client and evaluator has been removed. Specific information that should be redacted includes any information which may specifically identify the defendant or youth, name and discipline of the evaluator, address, phone, fax or logos that may identify the evaluator, qualifications of the evaluator that may identify the evaluator.
(27) “Regulated Social Worker” means a baccalaureate social worker registered under ORS 675.532, a master’s social worker licensed under ORS 675.533, a clinical social work associate certified under ORS 675.537 or a clinical social worker licensed under ORS 675.530.
(28) “Responsible Except for Insanity” means that a Court has determined that a youth lacks criminal responsibility.
(29) “Serious mental condition” means the youth’s mental condition requires supervision and treatment services for the safety of others and is:
(a) A mental illness of major depression;
(b) A mental illness of bipolar disorder; or
(c) A mental illness of psychotic disorder.
(30) “Successful completion of training” means:
(a) Attendance at the entire Oregon Forensic Evaluator Training Program; and
(b) Passing the examination given at the conclusion of the training.
(31) “Temporary Certification” means a psychiatrist, licensed psychologist, or LCSW is temporarily certified by the Authority to perform forensic evaluations as permitted under these rules for the duration of 12 months, with a possible extension of an additional three months. Temporary Certification allows the evaluator time to complete their Forensic Evaluator Training and/or to submit their required redacted forensic evaluation reports to the Authority for Full Certification.
(32) “Treatment team” means the clinical staff currently providing active psychiatric or psychological treatment to the defendant or youth, including but not limited to an attending psychiatrist, psychiatric mental health nurse practitioner, registered nurse, psychologist, social worker, mental health therapist, or treatment care plan specialist.
(33) “Youth” means an individual who is under 18 years of age and who is alleged to have committed an act that is a violation, or, if done by an adult would constitute a violation, of a law or ordinance of the United States or a state, county, or city; and who is under the exclusive original jurisdiction of the juvenile court.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.392 & 419C.382
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 161.290-373, 419C.378-386, 161.392, 419C.411 & 419C.520-529
- BHS 5-2024, minor correction filed 03/21/2024, effective 03/21/2024
- BHS 21-2021, amend filed 11/19/2021, effective 11/19/2021
- BHS 14-2021, temporary amend filed 07/22/2021, effective 07/22/2021 through 01/17/2022
- BHS 2-2020, amend filed 01/13/2020, effective 01/14/2020
- BHS 18-2019, temporary amend filed 08/28/2019, effective 08/30/2019 through 02/24/2020
- MHS 4-2016, f. & cert. ef. 5-3-16
- MHS 14-2014, f. & cert. ef. 10-29-14
- MHS 16-2012, f. & cert. ef. 12-26-12
- MHS 13-2012, f. & cert. ef. 6-25-12
- MHS 12-2011(Temp), f. 12-21-11, cert. ef. 1-1-12 thru 6-27-12
Or. Admin. R. 309-090-0010 Forensic Certification Types and Requirements
In order to submit an evaluation to the Court regarding a defendant’s or youth’s competency or criminal responsibility, the evaluator must be certified by the Authority under these rules.
(1) Applications for Full Certification:
(a) A psychiatrist must submit a completed application form, psychiatrist supplement, and nonrefundable $250 application fee and;
(A) Have a current license to practice in Oregon;
(B) Participate in and successfully complete the Oregon Forensic Evaluator Training; and, if the evaluator desires to perform juvenile forensic evaluations, also successfully complete the specialized juvenile segment of the Oregon Forensic Evaluator Training; and
(C) Submit to the Authority for review three redacted forensic evaluation reports completed by the applicant within the previous 24 months.
(i) If an applicant desires to perform criminal responsibility forensic evaluations, the applicant must submit at least one redacted criminal responsibility forensic evaluation, if available.
(ii) If an applicant desires to perform juvenile forensic evaluations, the applicant must submit at least one redacted forensic evaluation report of a youth, if available.
(b) A licensed psychologist must submit a completed application form, psychologist supplement and nonrefundable $250 application fee and:
(A) Have a current license to practice in Oregon;
(B) Participate in and successfully complete the Oregon Forensic Evaluator Training; and, if the evaluator desires to perform juvenile forensic evaluations, also successfully complete the specialized juvenile segment of the Oregon Forensic Evaluator Training; and
(C) Submit to the Authority for review three redacted forensic evaluation reports completed by the applicant within the previous 24 months.
(i) If an applicant desires to perform criminal responsibility forensic evaluations, the applicant must submit at least one redacted criminal responsibility forensic evaluation, if available,
(ii) If an applicant desires to perform juvenile forensic evaluations, the applicant must submit at least one redacted forensic evaluation report of a youth, if available.
(c) A LCSW must submit a completed application form, social worker supplement, and nonrefundable $250 application fee and;
(A) Have a current Oregon license as a clinical social worker as defined in ORS 675.530;
(B) Participate in and successfully complete the Oregon Forensic Evaluator Training including the specialized juvenile segment; and
(C) Submit to the Authority for review three redacted forensic evaluation reports, specifically addressing juvenile competency, completed by the applicant within the previous 24 months.
(d) A LCSW is restricted to performing forensic evaluations related to a youth’s fitness to proceed in a proceeding initiated by a petition alleging jurisdiction under ORS 419C.005.
(e) Full Certification has a maximum duration of 24 months from certification date.
(2) Temporary Certification:
(a) OHA may grant Temporary Certification to those applicants who submit their completed applications, supplements, fees and proof of required licenses before the applicants complete their Oregon Forensic Evaluator Training and/or submit all of their redacted forensic evaluation reports. Applicants must attend the next regularly scheduled training date or request an extension which may be granted by the Authority.
(b) Evaluators with Temporary Certification, who submit forensic evaluation reports for panel review, are certified to perform forensic evaluations on individuals charged with any offense including:
(A) Aggravated murder;
(B) Murder; or
(C) A crime listed in ORS 137.700(2).
(c) If no redacted forensic evaluation reports are available, evaluators may perform forensic evaluations of those charged with crimes, other than offenses listed in subsection (2)(b) of this rule, for the purpose of generating evaluation reports for the Authority to review.
(d) Temporary Certification has a maximum duration of 12 months. An extension of an additional three months may be granted by the Authority at its discretion for extenuating circumstances.
(3) Supervision Programs. An individual may perform a forensic evaluation where certification would otherwise be required, if:
(a) The individual is under the direct supervision and review of a psychiatrist or psychologist who holds a valid Full Certification with no limitations or conditions;
(b) The individual participates in and successfully completes the Oregon Forensic Evaluator Training, and if they desire to perform juvenile forensic evaluations, also participates in and successfully completes the specialized juvenile segment of the training; and
(c) The individual is a:
(A) Psychiatrist enrolled in and in good standing with an Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education (ACGME)-Accredited residency training program;
(B) Psychologist resident or fellow who has graduated from an APA-Accredited graduate program and an APA-Accredited internship with a clinical-forensic focus; or
(C) Doctoral psychology intern enrolled in and in good standing with an American Psychological Association (APA)-Accredited internship program with a clinical-forensic focus.
(d) The certified evaluator providing supervision must:
(A) Attend each forensic evaluation interview performed by a doctoral psychology intern described in section (3)(c)(C);
(B) Attend forensic evaluation interviews performed by a psychiatry resident, psychologist resident, or psychologist fellow, as described in sections (3)(c)(A) and (B) of this rule, until the certified evaluator has determined that the resident or fellow has the requisite knowledge and skill to perform the interviews without the direct attendance of the certified evaluator;
(C) Have an Oregon Board of Psychology approved Resident Supervision Contract with the psychologist resident and meet all other requirements described in OAR 858-010-0036, if supervising a psychologist resident described in section (3)(c)(B) of this rule;
(D) Provide the Authority with a copy of the Resident Supervision Contract within one month of its approval, if supervising a psychologist resident as described in section (3)(c)(B) of this rule;
(E) Ensure that each forensic evaluation report occurring under their supervision is co-signed by the certified evaluator and completed consistent with these rules and applicable statutes; and
(F) Ensure that the individual being supervised meets all of the requirements of these rules and applicable statutes.
(4) Conditional Certification. An evaluator, who has not been certified by the Authority, may be granted conditional certification by a court in a particular criminal or delinquency case for exigent circumstances, such as but not limited to an out of state expert evaluation being sought or an unusual expertise being required. The evaluator shall provide a copy of the court order granting them conditional certification to the Authority within 14 calendar days of that order. Conditional certification is limited to that specific criminal or delinquency matter and ends at the disposition of that particular case and the conditional certification.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.392, 413.042 & 419C.382
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 161.295-325, 161.360-370, 419C.378-386, 419C.411, 161-392 & 419C.520-529
- BHS 38-2023, amend filed 09/12/2023, effective 09/12/2023
- BHS 2-2020, amend filed 01/13/2020, effective 01/14/2020
- BHS 18-2019, temporary amend filed 08/28/2019, effective 08/30/2019 through 02/24/2020
- MHS 4-2016, f. & cert. ef. 5-3-16
- MHS 14-2014, f. & cert. ef. 10-29-14
- MHS 13-2012, f. & cert. ef. 6-25-12
- MHS 12-2011(Temp), f. 12-21-11, cert. ef. 1-1-12 thru 6-27-12
Or. Admin. R. 309-090-0015 Application Requirements and Process
(1) Applications must be submitted to the Authority using a form and in a manner prescribed by the Authority.
(2) The application must be accompanied by:
(a) Proof of the applicant’s current license permitting them to practice as a psychiatrist, licensed psychologist or LCSW in the State of Oregon.
(b) A copy of a current resume or curriculum vitae providing documentation of forensic training and experience.
(c) Three redacted forensic evaluation reports of competency or criminal responsibility. If no redacted forensic evaluation reports are available, an applicant may be temporarily certified and may perform evaluations of those charged with crimes other than aggravated murder, murder, or a crime listed in crime listed in ORS 137.700(2) for the purpose of generating reports for the Authority for review; and;
(d) A non-refundable application fee of $250.00.
(3) After a complete application packet is received the Authority shall:
(a) Evaluate the materials to determine whether the applicant is qualified for Full or Temporary Certification;
(b) Grant, deny or place conditions on a certification; and
(c) Issue a written statement to the applicant of its determination.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.392, 419C.382 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 161.295-325, 161.360-370, 419C.378-386, 161.392, 419C.411 & 419C.520-529
- BHS 2-2020, amend filed 01/13/2020, effective 01/14/2020
- BHS 18-2019, temporary amend filed 08/28/2019, effective 08/30/2019 through 02/24/2020
- MHS 4-2016, f. & cert. ef. 5-3-16
- MHS 14-2014, f. & cert. ef. 10-29-14
- MHS 13-2012, f. & cert. ef. 6-25-12
- MHS 12-2011(Temp), f. 12-21-11, cert. ef. 1-1-12 thru 6-27-12
Or. Admin. R. 309-090-0020 Recertification Requirements
(1) An evaluator must request recertification using the forms, and in a manner prescribed by the Authority.
(2) The minimum requirements for recertification are:
(a) Proof of the applicant’s license permitting them to practice as a psychiatrist, licensed psychologist or LCSW in the State of Oregon;
(b) Within six months prior to the expiration of the evaluator’s certification, the evaluator must participate in the Recertification Updates to the Oregon Forensic Evaluator Training Program approved by the Authority;
(c) Review and approval by the Division of a minimum of two redacted forensic evaluation reports completed by the applicant during the past 24 months;
(A) If the psychiatrist or licensed psychologist applicant desires to perform criminal responsibility forensic evaluations, at least one redacted sample should be an evaluation of criminal responsibility. If performing juvenile forensic evaluations one of these should be a juvenile competency or criminal responsibility evaluation. LCSWs cannot perform any forensic evaluations other than fitness to proceed evaluations for youth in a proceeding initiated by a petition alleging jurisdiction under ORS 419C.005.
(B) All redacted evaluation reports submitted by LCSWs for panel review must specifically address the topic of juvenile competency for youths in a proceeding initiated by a petition alleging jurisdiction under 419C.005.
(C) These reports shall be subject to review and must meet or exceed standards identified by the Authority as listed in OAR 309-090-0025. The review panel may request to review an additional evaluation report if necessary to make a determination that the reports meet or exceed standards as listed in 309-090-0025; and
(d) A non-refundable application fee of $250.00; and
(e) Continued compliance with all applicable laws and requirements.
(3) Failure to satisfy the factors listed in section (2) above shall result in a non-recertification order from the Authority.
(4) Failure to reapply, attend the Recertification Updates to the Oregon Forensic Evaluator Training, or submit redacted evaluation reports for review and approval shall constitute a forfeiture of Full Certification which may be restored only upon written application approved by the Authority. Individuals who fail to reapply may receive a Temporary Certification for up to twelve months. Evaluators are responsible for monitoring their own expiration date and reapplying at the appropriate time.
(5) Individuals who receive non-recertification orders may reapply for certification and will be certified after they meet all of the requirements for certification. The Authority shall also provide notice of the applicant’s right to a hearing pursuant to the provisions of ORS Chapter 183.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 419C.382 & 161.392
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 161.295-325, 419C.378-386, 161.360-370, 161.392, 419C.411 & 419C.520-529
- BHS 2-2020, amend filed 01/13/2020, effective 01/14/2020
- BHS 18-2019, temporary amend filed 08/28/2019, effective 08/30/2019 through 02/24/2020
- MHS 4-2016, f. & cert. ef. 5-3-16
- MHS 14-2014, f. & cert. ef. 10-29-14
- MHS 13-2012, f. & cert. ef. 6-25-12
- MHS 12-2011(Temp), f. 12-21-11, cert. ef. 1-1-12 thru 6-27-12
Or. Admin. R. 309-090-0025 Content of Written Evaluations Assessing Competency and Criminal Responsibility
(1) At minimum, each forensic evaluation report shall include the following:
(a) Identifying information of the defendant or youth;
(b) Description of the forensic examination;
(c) Criminal charges;
(d) Referral source and the referral question;
(e) Evaluative procedure, techniques and tests used in the examination and the purpose for each;
(f) Informed consent and limits of confidentiality;
(g) Summary of relevant records reviewed for the evaluation;
(h) Background information and relevant history of mental and physical illnesses;
(i) Substance use and treatment histories;
(j) Medications;
(k) Hospital, jail, or community restoration course;
(l) Setting where the evaluation interview took place;
(m) Summary of a mental status examination;
(n) Substantiated diagnosis in the terminology of the American Psychiatric Association's current Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5-TR);
(o) Discussion of the possibility of malingering.
(2) A fitness to proceed forensic evaluation report also shall:
(a) Include, at a minimum, opinions and explanations related to the defendant’s or youth’s:
(A) Understanding of their charges, the possible verdicts and the possible penalties;
(B) Understanding of the trial participants and the trial process;
(C) Ability to assist counsel in preparing and implementing a defense; and
(D) Ability to make relevant decisions autonomously.
(b) Not include the defendant’s or youth’s statements about the alleged criminal conduct unless necessary to support the evaluator’s finding of competence or incompetence.
(3) If the defendant is determined to be incapacitated within the description set out in ORS 161.360, the forensic evaluation report shall include a recommendation of treatment and other services necessary to allow the defendant to gain or regain capacity, including whether a hospital level of care is required due to the acuity of symptoms of the defendant’s qualifying mental disorder.
(a) A recommendation that a defendant requires a hospital level of care due to the acuity of symptoms must be based upon:
(A) The defendant’s current diagnosis and symptomology;
(B) The defendant’s current ability to engage in treatment;
(C) Present safety concerns relating to the defendant; and
(D) Any other pertinent information known to the evaluator.
(b) If the defendant is in a placement in a facility, the evaluator may defer to the treatment provider’s recommendation regarding whether a hospital level of care is needed.
(4) A criminal responsibility forensic evaluation report also shall include, at a minimum, opinions and explanations addressing:
(a) The defendant’s or youth’s account of the alleged offense including thoughts, feelings and behavior;
(b) Summary of relevant records including police reports,
(c) An expert opinion regarding the role of substance use in the alleged offense;
(d) The defendant’s or youth’s mental state at the time of the alleged offense;
(e) An expert opinion regarding whether the defendant or youth, as a result of qualifying mental disorder lacks criminal responsibility; and
(f) The dispositional determination(s) as required by ORS 161.309 and ORS 419C.524
(5) A certified evaluator performing an evaluation of a defendant on the issue of insanity pursuant to ORS 161.309 is not obligated to evaluate the defendant for fitness to proceed unless, during the evaluation, the certified evaluator determines that the defendant’s fitness to proceed is drawn in question.
(6) Progress reports described in ORS 161.371(2).
(a) Progress reports shall delineate any changes in mental status or clinical functioning related to the defendant’s fitness to proceed that occurred in the period since the most recent prior evaluation report, including, at a minimum, opinions related to the defendant’s fitness to proceed as outlined in section (2)(a) of this rule.
(b) If the defendant has not regained capacity, the progress report shall include a recommendation pursuant to section (3) of this rule.
(c) Progress reports may consist of an update to:
(A) The original examination report conducted under ORS 161.365; or
(B) An evaluation conducted under ORS 161.371(1), if the defendant did not receive an examination under ORS 161.365.
(d) If the progress report consists of an update as described in sub-section (c) above, the progress report shall identify which prior evaluation report(s) it is relying upon, including the docket number(s), date(s), and author(s) of the previous report(s).
(e) Progress reports are not required to include all criteria listed in section (1) of this rule if the evaluator determines that the criterion has been adequately addressed in the prior evaluation report(s) and there is no relevant new or supplemental information to add for that criterion.
(f) Progress reports shall not include the defendant’s statements about the alleged criminal conduct unless necessary to support the evaluator’s finding of competence or incompetence.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.392, 413.042, 419C.382, ORS 161.309 & ORS 419C.524
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 161.290-373, 161.392, 419C.378-386, 419C.411, 419C.520-529, ORS 161.309 & ORS 419C.524
- BHS 24-2025, amend filed 10/27/2025, effective 11/02/2025
- BHS 14-2025, temporary amend filed 05/07/2025, effective 05/07/2025 through 11/02/2025
- BHS 14-2023, amend filed 05/31/2023, effective 06/01/2023
- BHS 21-2021, amend filed 11/19/2021, effective 11/19/2021
- BHS 14-2021, temporary amend filed 07/22/2021, effective 07/22/2021 through 01/17/2022
- BHS 2-2020, amend filed 01/13/2020, effective 01/14/2020
- BHS 18-2019, temporary amend filed 08/28/2019, effective 08/30/2019 through 02/24/2020
- MHS 4-2016, f. & cert. ef. 5-3-16
- MHS 14-2014, f. & cert. ef. 10-29-14
- MHS 16-2012, f. & cert. ef. 12-26-12
- MHS 13-2012, f. & cert. ef. 6-25-12
- MHS 12-2011(Temp), f. 12-21-11, cert. ef. 1-1-12 thru 6-27-12
Or. Admin. R. 309-090-0030 Forensic Evaluation Review Panel
(1) A multi-disciplinary review panel shall be appointed by and serve at the discretion of the Authority to review forensic evaluation reports submitted in support of applications for certification.
(2) An individual interested in participating in the Forensic Evaluation Review Panel shall submit a letter of interest and resume to the Authority.
(3) Members shall be experienced in the criminal justice system and have familiarity with the issues of competency and criminal responsibility.
(4) Members shall serve a two year term and are eligible for reappointment at the discretion of the Authority. Vacancies occurring during a member’s term shall be filled immediately for the remainder of the unexpired term.
(5) Members may be reimbursed for the performance of their official duties.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.392, 413.042 & 419C.382
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 161.295-325, 419C.378-386, 161.360-370, 419C.411, 161.392 & 419C.520-529
- BHS 14-2023, amend filed 05/31/2023, effective 06/01/2023
- BHS 10-2019, minor correction filed 08/28/2019, effective 08/28/2019
- MHS 4-2016, f. & cert. ef. 5-3-16
- MHS 14-2014, f. & cert. ef. 10-29-14
- MHS 13-2012, f. & cert. ef. 6-25-12
- MHS 12-2011(Temp), f. 12-21-11, cert. ef. 1-1-12 thru 6-27-12
Or. Admin. R. 309-090-0035 Forensic Evaluation Review Panel Process
(1) Members of the Forensic Evaluation Review Panel shall meet at the discretion of the Authority to review all submitted redacted forensic evaluation reports as the need arises.
(2) Redacted forensic evaluation reports shall be reviewed by panel members with different professional backgrounds to determine whether the reports have met the requirements of form and content.
(3) Panel members shall issue a report to the Authority with feedback for the certified forensic evaluator.
(4) The Review Panel shall participate in the process for reviewing complaints and remediation plans under OAR 309-090-0060 through 309-090-0065 and make recommendations to the Authority if requested.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.392, 413.042 & 419C.382
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 161.295-325, 161.360-370, 419C.378-386, 161.392, 419C.411 & 419C.520-529
- BHS 14-2023, amend filed 05/31/2023, effective 06/01/2023
- BHS 11-2019, minor correction filed 08/28/2019, effective 08/28/2019
- MHS 4-2016, f. & cert. ef. 5-3-16
- MHS 14-2014, f. & cert. ef. 10-29-14
- MHS 13-2012, f. & cert. ef. 6-25-12
- MHS 12-2011(Temp), f. 12-21-11, cert. ef. 1-1-12 thru 6-27-12
Or. Admin. R. 309-090-0040 Forensic Evaluator Training Program
(1) The Authority will establish a course of training for persons desiring the issuance of a certificate. At a minimum the training will include a review of:
(a) The Oregon statutes and case law applicable to the issues of competency and criminal responsibility;
(b) Testing and techniques related to assessing competency and criminal responsibility;
(c) The required contents of a report;
(d) The ethical standards and considerations relevant to an evaluation of competency and criminal responsibility;
(e) Assessment of risk to others and recommendations for treatment and services.
(2) Additional specialized training shall be required for evaluators desiring to perform evaluations on children younger than age 15 and other specialized populations.
(3) An examination will be administered at the completion of the initial training.
(4) Updates to this training shall be provided every two years and consist of information regarding relevant changes to the law, rules, process for Forensic Evaluator Certification, and relevant advanced topics.
[ED. NOTE: To view attachments referenced in rule text, click here to view rule.]
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.392, 413.042 & 419C.382
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 161.295-325, 161.360-370, 419C.378-386, 161.392, 419C.411 & 419C.520-529
- BHS 12-2019, minor correction filed 08/28/2019, effective 08/28/2019
- MHS 14-2014, f. & cert. ef. 10-29-14
- MHS 13-2012, f. & cert. ef. 6-25-12
- MHS 12-2011(Temp), f. 12-21-11, cert. ef. 1-1-12 thru 6-27-12
Or. Admin. R. 309-090-0050 Confidentiality
Except for the names of certified evaluators, all records provided to the Authority under these rules are confidential and privileged and may not be released or utilized for any purpose outside these rules. Any practitioner who in good faith complies with these rules, including providing sample evaluations for review in order to maintain certification, is not responsible for any failure by another individual or agency to maintain confidentiality, in regard to these rules.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.392, 413.042 & 419C.382
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 161.295-325, 419C.378-386, 161.360-370, 161.392, 419C.411 & 419C.520-529
- BHS 14-2023, amend filed 05/31/2023, effective 06/01/2023
- BHS 13-2019, minor correction filed 08/28/2019, effective 08/28/2019
- MHS 4-2016, f. & cert. ef. 5-3-16
- MHS 14-2014, f. & cert. ef. 10-29-14
- MHS 13-2012, f. & cert. ef. 6-25-12
Or. Admin. R. 309-090-0055 Certification Denial, Suspension, Revocation, Non-Recertification and Complaints Regarding Content of Written Evaluation Reports
(1) An applicant may be denied certification, or an evaluator may be denied recertification for reasons including but not limited to:
(a) The applicant for initial or recertification attempted to procure a certification through fraud, misrepresentation or deceit;
(b) The applicant for initial or recertification submits to the Authority any notice, statement or other document required for certification which is false or untrue, or contains any material misstatement or omission of fact;
(c) The applicant for initial or recertification has been convicted of a felony; or
(d) The applicant for initial or recertification fails to meet the requirements for receiving certification or recertification.
(2) An applicant’s certification may be revoked for any of the following reasons:
(a) The evaluator fails to meet any of the applicable requirements of these rules;
(b) The applicant loses his or her professional license for any reason;
(c) The Authority accepts one or more complaints regarding the content of written reports; the forensic review panel reviews the complaints and determines that the deficiencies in the reports represent a substantial departure from the standards of practice established by these rules. Complaints regarding content are limited to standards set forth in OAR 309-090-0025.
(3) The Authority may immediately suspend an evaluator’s certification in the event of a situation in which the Authority determines that immediate action is necessary, such as receipt of a serious complaint which has not yet been fully reviewed by the Authority.
[ED. NOTE: To view attachments referenced in rule text, click here to view rule.]
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: 161.392, 413.042 & 419C.382
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 161.295-325, 419C.378 - 386, 161.360-370, 161.392, 419C.411 & 419C.520-529
- BHS 14-2019, minor correction filed 08/28/2019, effective 08/28/2019
- MHS 4-2016, f. & cert. ef. 5-3-16
- MHS 14-2014, f. & cert. ef. 10-29-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-090-0060 Complaints on Which the Authority Can Act
(1) Any complaint regarding the content of forensic evaluation reports must be submitted in a form and manner prescribed by the Authority and it must provide sufficient detail as to why the evaluation report is cause for a complaint.
(2) Complaints considered by the Authority must be limited to standards for content of written forensic evaluation reports as set forth in OAR 309-090-0025.
[ED. NOTE: To view attachments referenced in rule text, click here to view rule.]
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: 161.392, 413.042 & 419C.382
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 161.295-325, 419C.378 - 386, 161.360-370, 161.392, 419C.411 & 419C.520-529
- BHS 15-2019, minor correction filed 08/28/2019, effective 08/28/2019
- MHS 4-2016, f. & cert. ef. 5-3-16
- MHS 14-2014, f. & cert. ef. 10-29-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-090-0065 Complaint Processing and Investigation
(1) If a complaint is accepted, reviewed by the Authority, and found to warrant consideration by the forensic evaluation review panel, the evaluation report shall be forwarded to the panel for consideration and determination as to whether or not the deficiencies represent a substantial departure from the standards of practice established by these rules.
(2) If the Authority determines that there is substantial departure from the standards set forth in OAR 309-090-0025, the Authority in consultation with the forensic evaluation review panel shall provide written notice to the evaluator which may include recommended remediation steps provided by the review panel, denial of certification, or revocation of certification.
(3) If a remediation plan is recommended by the review panel, an evaluator shall have 30 days from the date of notice to respond with a written plan for remediation. If the Authority approves the plan, the evaluator shall maintain Temporary Certification status for up to six months at which time the Authority shall l determine whether the issues raised have been adequately addressed.
(a) If the issues raised have been adequately addressed, the Authority shall withdraw its notice and grant or restore Full Certification.
(b) If the issues have not been adequately addressed, the Authority may proceed with denial or revocation of certification and shall provide notice of the applicant’s right to appeal, pursuant to the provisions of ORS Chapter 183.
(4) If certification is denied or revoked and evaluator may request reconsideration by the Director of the Authority by submitting a written request within 15 business days of receiving notice.
(5) Individuals making complaints on issues determined to be not covered by these rules may be referred to the appropriate licensing boards.
[ED. NOTE: To view attachments referenced in rule text, click here to view rule.]
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.392, 413.042 & 419C.382
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 161.295-325, 161.360-370, 161.392, 419C.378-386, 419C.411 & 419C.520-529
- BHS 16-2019, minor correction filed 08/28/2019, effective 08/28/2019
- MHS 4-2016, f. & cert. ef. 5-3-16
- MHS 14-2014, f. & cert. ef. 10-29-14
Or. Admin. R. 309-090-0070 Contested Case Hearing
If the Authority denies, revokes, non-renews, suspends, or imposes a condition on certification, the Authority shall provide notice of the applicant’s right to a hearing pursuant to the provisions of ORS Chapter 183.
[ED. NOTE: To view attachments referenced in rule text, click here to view rule.]
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.392, 413.042 & 419C.382
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 161.295-325, 419C.378 - 386, 161.360-370, 161.392, 419C.411 & 419C.520-529
- BHS 17-2019, minor correction filed 08/28/2019, effective 08/28/2019
- MHS 4-2016, f. & cert. ef. 5-3-16
- MHS 14-2014, f. & cert. ef. 10-29-14
Division 91 STATE HOSPITAL ADMISSIONS AND DISCHARGES
Or. Admin. R. 309-091-0000 Purpose and Scope
(1) These rules establish and define the criteria which support the proper management and utilization of services provided by the Oregon state hospital system, by limiting admissions to those most severely symptomatic individuals whose treatment and recovery needs cannot be met in a community treatment setting.
(2) These rules apply to all individuals admitted into any state hospital setting, and address differences which occur due to each individual’s legal status.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.321, 426.010, 426.020 & 426.072
- MHS 6-2012, f. 5-3-12, cert. ef. 5-4-12
- MHS 16-2011(Temp), f. 12-29-11, cert. ef. 1-1-12 thru 6-29-12
Or. Admin. R. 309-091-0005 Definitions
(1) “Authority” means the Oregon Health Authority.
(2) “Chief Medical Officer” (CMO) means the physician designated by the superintendent of each state institution who is responsible for the administration of medical treatment, or his or her designee.
(3) “Choice Contractor” means a corporation, governmental agency, public corporation, or other legal entity that provides coordination of care services to individuals with SPMI, as directed in contract with the Health Systems Division.
(4) “Civil Commitment” means the individual has been committed to the Authority for emergency psychiatric care and treatment pursuant to ORS 426.070, 426.228 to 426.235 or 426.237.
(5) “Clinical Reviewer” means the Division employee designated to the role of determining eligibility for state hospital admissions.
(6) “Community Mental Health Program” (CMHP) means an entity that is responsible for planning and delivery of safety net services for persons with mental or emotional disturbances, drug abuse problems, and alcoholism and alcohol abuse, in a specific geographic area of the state, under a contract with the Division or a local mental health authority.
(7) “Coordinated Care Organization” (CCO) means a corporation, governmental agency, public corporation, or other legal entity, that is certified as meeting the criteria adopted by the Oregon Health Authority, under ORS 414.625, to be accountable for care management, and to provide integrated and coordinated healthcare, for each of the organization’s members.
(8) “Division” means the Health Systems Division of the Oregon Health Authority.
(9) “DSM” means the most recent edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Psychiatric Disorders, published by the American Psychiatric Association.
(10) “DOC” means the Oregon Department of Corrections.
(11) “Forensic” means related to the law, and references individuals committed to treatment and supervision by the courts pursuant to Oregon Revised Statutes (ORS) 161.290 – 161.400.
(12) “Health care representative” means:
(a) An attorney-in-fact:
(b) A person who has authority to make health care decisions for a principal under the provisions of ORS 127.635 (2) or (3);
(c) A guardian or other person, appointed by a court to make health care decisions for a principal.
(13) “Legal Guardian” in this rule means an individual appointed by a court of law to act as guardian of an adult having been determined to be legally incapacitated.
(14) “Licensed Residential Facility or Licensed Residential Home” means those residences defined in OAR 309, Chapter 035.
(15) “Local Mental Health Authority” (LMHA) means one of the following entities:
(a) The Board of County Commissioners of one or more counties that establishes or operates a CMHP;
(b) The tribal council of a federally recognized tribe of Native Americans that elects to enter into an agreement to provide mental health services or
(c) A regional LMHA comprised of two or more boards of county commissioners.
(16) “Primary Diagnosis” means the diagnosis which identified the condition considered the most severe for which the individual receives treatment.
(17) “Psychiatric Security Review Board” (PSRB) means board appointed by the Governor and authorized in ORS 161.385.
(18) “Ready to Transition” means a patient no longer meets admission criteria for hospitalization.
(19) “Ready to Transition” means a patient no longer meets admission criteria for hospitalization.
(20) “Responsible Party” means the LMHA, community mental health program, Medicaid Coordinated Care Organization, Choice Model contractor, and when applicable the individual’s legal guardian or health care representative, and other parties identified by the Oregon Health Authority
(21) “Serious and Persistent Mental Illness” (SPMI) means the current DSM diagnostic criteria for at least one of the following conditions, as a primary diagnosis, for an adult age 18 years or older:
(a) Schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders;
(b) Major Depressive Disorder;
(c) Bipolar Disorder;
(d) Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD);
(e) Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD);
(f) Schizotypal Personality Disorder; or
(g) Borderline Personality Disorder.
(22) “State Hospital” means any campus of the Oregon State Hospital (OSH) system.
(23) “OYA” means the Oregon Youth Authority
(24) “PAITS” means Post Acute Intermediate Treatment Service is a mix of rehabilitation services designed for adults who have received acute psychiatric care services in a local hospital, who have been approved for Long Term Psychiatric Care, whose symptoms have improved, sufficiently, such that they no longer require hospital level of care, yet, still require intensive treatment services to continue psychiatric stabilization, prior to placement, in another community setting.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.321, 426.010, 426.020, 426.072, ORS 125.300 to 125.330 & ORS 127.005 to 127.660
- BHS 16-2023, amend filed 07/11/2023, effective 07/11/2023
- BHS 8-2019, amend filed 06/24/2019, effective 06/24/2019
- BHS 1-2019, temporary amend filed 01/04/2019, effective 01/04/2019 through 07/02/2019
- MHS 6-2012, f. 5-3-12, cert. ef. 5-4-12
- MHS 16-2011(Temp), f. 12-29-11, cert. ef. 1-1-12 thru 6-29-12
Or. Admin. R. 309-091-0010 Civilly Committed, Guardian and Health Care Representative Authorized Admission Criteria
Each non-forensic individual admitted to a state hospital must meet the following criteria:
(1) The individual must be age 18 or older;
(2) The individual must be named in a current civil commitment order, or the individual’s legal guardian or health care representative must have signed consent for admission;
(3) There must be recent documentation by a Psychiatrist, Psychiatric Nurse Practitioner, Psychologist, Licensed Clinical Social Worker, or Physician’s Assistant that the individual is experiencing Serious and Persistent Mental Illness; and
(4) The current symptoms must be of such severity that the resulting symptoms require extended placement in a 24-hour medically supervised psychiatric hospital. Severity is established by a determination of:
(a) The degree of dangerousness to self;
(b) The degree of dangerousness to others; and
(c) The degree of the individual’s inability to meet his or her basic health and safety needs.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.321, 426.010, 426.020 & 426.072
- BHS 8-2019, amend filed 06/24/2019, effective 06/24/2019
- BHS 1-2019, temporary amend filed 01/04/2019, effective 01/04/2019 through 07/02/2019
- MHS 6-2012, f. 5-3-12, cert. ef. 5-4-12
- MHS 16-2011(Temp), f. 12-29-11, cert. ef. 1-1-12 thru 6-29-12
Or. Admin. R. 309-091-0015 Determining Need for State Hospital Care
(1) State hospital level of care is determined appropriate when:
(a) the individual’s condition or symptoms have not improved in an acute care setting despite having received a comprehensive psychiatric and medical assessment, and treatment with medications for at least 7 days at an adequate dose; and
(b) the individual continues to require hospital level of care services, as evidenced by failure to meet the state hospital’s
criteria for readiness to transition
(2) Prior to referral for admission to a state hospital, the individual should have received:
(a) A comprehensive medical assessment to identify conditions that may be causing, contributing to, or exacerbating the mental illness;
(b) Services from an appropriate medical professional for the treatment and stabilization of any medical or surgical conditions that may be contributing to or exacerbating the mental illness and
(c) There must be evidence of additional treatment and services having been attempted, including:
(A) Use of evidence-based or promising psychosocial interventions which were delivered in relevant culturally-competent, strength-based, person-centered and trauma-informed manners and which adequately treated the assessed and/or expressed needs of the individual. Treatments should include members of the individual’s family, support network and Peer Delivered Services, unlerss the individual doesn't consent.
(B) Documentation of ongoing review and discussion, by hospital staff and responsible party, of options for discharge to non-hospital levels of care; and
(C) Documentation of services and supports attempted by the responsible party to divert an individual from acute admission and establish treatment and recovery in a non-hospital setting.
(3) To make a referral for admission to a state hospital, the responsible party shall ensure the following documentation is provided:
(a) Request for OSH and PAITS Services form; and
(b) Community Questionnaire form, to include the OSH discharge plan, developed by the responsible party; and
(c) Patient demographic information; and
(d) Civil Commitment documents, to include, Commitment Judgment or Order, and pre-commitment investigations; or
(e) Guardianship orders, or health care representative forms; and
(f) History and Physical; and
(g) Psychosocial assessment, if available; and
(h) Progress notes, from admission; and
(i) Medication Administration Record; and
(j) Labs and other diagnostic testing; and
(k) Involuntary Administration of Significant Procedures documentation, if applicable.
(4) If the referral is approved, a written notice will be provided to acute care, and responsible party.
(5) If the referral is denied, a letter of denial will be provided, to include a rationale for denial, within 72 hours;
(a) The individual, provider of acute care services, or responsible party, can appeal the denial, by submitting a written request, to the OHA director, or designee; and
(b) The OHA director, or designee, will provide a written response to the appeal
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.321, 426.010, 426.020 & 426.072
- BHS 8-2019, amend filed 06/24/2019, effective 06/24/2019
- BHS 1-2019, temporary amend filed 01/04/2019, effective 01/04/2019 through 07/02/2019
- MHS 6-2012, f. 5-3-12, cert. ef. 5-4-12
- MHS 16-2011(Temp), f. 12-29-11, cert. ef. 1-1-12 thru 6-29-12
Or. Admin. R. 309-091-0025 Exclusion Criteria and Exceptions
(1) State hospitals are intended to provide recovery-oriented intervention for individuals experiencing symptoms related to SPMI.
(2) Admissions must not be based upon a primary diagnosis of the following related conditions:
(a) An acute or existing medical or surgical condition which requires primary placement in a medical setting and which cannot be safely or adequately treated within a state hospital facility;
(b) Delirium;
(c) Neurodevelopmental Disorders;
(d) Neurocognitive Disorders;
(e) Substance Use or Substance Abuse Disorders; or
(f) Personality Disorder, except Borderline and Schizotypal Personality Disorders, with psychotic symptoms.
(3) Administrative transfers from the Oregon Department of Corrections of individuals for the purpose of treatment may occur in accordance with OAR 291-047-0021. Individuals civilly committed upon discharge from the Oregon Department of Correction must meet the admission criteria and the process defined in this rule.
(4) Administrative transfers from the Oregon Youth Authority of individuals over the age of 18 for the purpose of stabilization and evaluation not exceeding 30 days may occur in accordance with OAR 416-425-020.
(a) Individuals transferred for the purpose of stabilization and evaluation for a period of time exceeding 30 days may occur in accordance with OAR 416-425-020.
(b) Individuals over the age of 18 who are civilly committed upon discharge from the Oregon Youth Authority must meet the admission criteria and the process defined in this rule.
(5) Individuals ending jurisdiction of Department of Corrections, Oregon Youth Authority (if over 18 years of age), Psychiatric Security Review Board, and those committed to OSH under ORS 161.315, 161.365, or 161.370, may only be admitted according to the criteria and process outlined in this rule.
(a) On rare occasions, individuals who are housed at OSH, may continue to stay at OSH, when civilly committed, without first being admitted to acute care.
(6) Individuals, and guardians on behalf of a protected person, may make a request for admission, directly to the Superintendent of the Oregon State Hospital.
(a) an individual, or guardian, will submit a written request, including any additional documentation supporting the request, to the Superintendent, or designee.
(b) The Superintendent, or designee, will review the request. If the Superintendent, or designee, determines that the individual is in need of immediate care for mental illness, the individual may be admitted, independent of admission criteria and process defined in this rule.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.321, 426.010, 426.020 & 426.072
- BHS 8-2019, amend filed 06/24/2019, effective 06/24/2019
- BHS 1-2019, temporary amend filed 01/04/2019, effective 01/04/2019 through 07/02/2019
- MHS 6-2012, f. 5-3-12, cert. ef. 5-4-12
- MHS 16-2011(Temp), f. 12-29-11, cert. ef. 1-1-12 thru 6-29-12
Or. Admin. R. 309-091-0030 Discharge Planning
(1) The responsible parties shall participate in discharge planning, throughout the patient’s hospitalization.
(2) The state hospital will notify the responsible parties of each admission, campus transfer, and determination related to assessing discharge readiness.
(3) The state hospital will make clinical recommendations for services needed to support the continuity of care to maintain the individual’s stability in the community.
(4) The responsible party must arrange housing, treatment and other services assessed as needed to support the continuity of care necessary to maintain the individual’s stability in the community.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.321, 426.010, 426.020 & 426.072
- BHS 8-2019, amend filed 06/24/2019, effective 06/24/2019
- BHS 1-2019, temporary amend filed 01/04/2019, effective 01/04/2019 through 07/02/2019
- MHS 6-2012, f. 5-3-12, cert. ef. 5-4-12
- MHS 16-2011(Temp), f. 12-29-11, cert. ef. 1-1-12 thru 6-29-12
Or. Admin. R. 309-091-0035 Discharge Criteria and Procedures for Civil Commit, or Guardian, or Health Care Representative
(1) The state hospital, or designee, will periodically assess the individual’s continued need for state hospital level of care, and readiness to transition, based upon the admission criteria established in these rules.
(2) The state hospital retains the authority to solely determine when someone no longer needs state hospital level of care based on standardized criteria adopted by the hospital.
(3) An individual determined ready to transition may later be determined not ready to transition, and removed from the ready to transition list.
(4) Prior to an individual no longer needing state hospital level of care, the hospital will collaborate with the responsible party, to recommend services and supports for the patient.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.321, 426.010, 426.020 & 426.072
- BHS 8-2019, amend filed 06/24/2019, effective 06/24/2019
- BHS 1-2019, temporary amend filed 01/04/2019, effective 01/04/2019 through 07/02/2019
- MHS 6-2012, f. 5-3-12, cert. ef. 5-4-12
- MHS 16-2011(Temp), f. 12-29-11, cert. ef. 1-1-12 thru 6-29-12
Or. Admin. R. 309-091-0040 Forensic Admission Criteria and Procedures
Forensic admissions will occur as prescribed ORS 161.327, 161.328, 161.365, 161.370.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.321, 426.010, 426.020 & 426.072
- MHS 6-2012, f. 5-3-12, cert. ef. 5-4-12
- MHS 16-2011(Temp), f. 12-29-11, cert. ef. 1-1-12 thru 6-29-12
Or. Admin. R. 309-091-0045 Forensic Discharge Criteria and Procedures
(1) Individuals admitted by court order after a finding of guilty except for insanity of a felony will be discharged when approved by the PSRB.
(2) Individual admitted by court order after a finding of guilty except for insanity of a misdemeanor will be discharged when approved by the Superintendent of the state hospital.
(3) Individuals whose jurisdiction under the PSRB has ended as identified by the state hospital Legal Department shall be allowed to discharge of the final day of PSRB jurisdiction unless the hospital determines the need for civil commitment or some other legal hold.
(4) The responsible party will assess individuals ending jurisdiction and when determined appropriate, arrange housing, treatment and other services assessed as needed to support the continuity of care necessary to maintain the individual’s stability in the community.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.321, 426.010, 426.020 & 426.072
- BHS 8-2019, amend filed 06/24/2019, effective 06/24/2019
- BHS 1-2019, temporary amend filed 01/04/2019, effective 01/04/2019 through 07/02/2019
- MHS 6-2012, f. 5-3-12, cert. ef. 5-4-12
- MHS 16-2011(Temp), f. 12-29-11, cert. ef. 1-1-12 thru 6-29-12
Or. Admin. R. 309-091-0050 Other Forensic Discharges
(1) For the purposes of this rule, discharge occurs when the state hospital moves the individual from the state hospital’s psychiatric care to either a community setting or other institutional setting, including but not limited to discharge to a jail.
(2) Individuals committed to the state hospital pursuant to ORS 161.370 shall be discharged from the state hospital upon any of the following:
(a) The court orders that the individual be discharged from the state hospital or that the underlying criminal charges be dismissed;
(b) When the ORS 161.370 or 161.365 evaluation report identifies that the patient is fit to proceed (“able”) or that there is no substantial probability that the patient will gain or regain fitness to proceed (“never able”) when the patient has reached the maximum commitment time under ORS 161.370, 161.371 or 161.365.
(3) The state hospital shall send notice of the evaluation finding to the court pursuant to ORS 161.370 or 161.365.
(4) Individuals who are committed under ORS 161.370 shall be discharged within a period of time that is reasonable for making a determination concerning whether or not and when the defendant may gain or regain capacity. However, regardless of the number of charges with which the defendant is accused, in no event shall the defendant be committed for longer than permitted by ORS 161.371 or pursuant to a court’s order, whichever is shorter.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 161.370 & ORS 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 161.370, HB 2308 (2017), ORS 179.321, ORS 426.010, ORS 426.020, ORS 179.360 & SB432 (2011)
- BHS 7-2023, amend filed 03/08/2023, effective 03/27/2023
- BHS 19-2022, temporary amend filed 11/10/2022, effective 11/10/2022 through 05/08/2023
- BHS 8-2019, amend filed 06/24/2019, effective 06/24/2019
- BHS 1-2019, temporary amend filed 01/04/2019, effective 01/04/2019 through 07/02/2019
- BHS 14-2018, amend filed 06/27/2018, effective 07/10/2018
- MHS 1-2018, temporary amend filed 02/02/2018, effective 02/02/2018 through 07/31/2018
- MHS 3-2016, f. & cert. ef. 4-28-16
- Reverted to MHS 6-2012, f. 5-3-12, cert. ef. 5-4-12
- MHS 7-2015(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 10-28-15 thru 4-22-16
- MHS 6-2012, f. 5-3-12, cert. ef. 5-4-12
- MHS 16-2011(Temp), f. 12-29-11, cert. ef. 1-1-12 thru 6-29-12
Division 102 HANDLING PATIENT MAIL IN STATE INSTITUTIONS
Or. Admin. R. 309-102-0100 Purpose and Scope
These rules prescribe the standards and procedures for handling incoming and outgoing mail for Oregon State Hospital patients.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 413.042 & ORS 179.360
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.360 & 426.385
- BHS 4-2024, amend filed 03/20/2024, effective 03/20/2024
- BHS 40-2023, temporary amend filed 10/09/2023, effective 10/09/2023 through 04/05/2024
- BHS 29-2022, amend filed 12/23/2022, effective 12/23/2022
- BHS 11-2022, temporary amend filed 07/05/2022, effective 07/05/2022 through 12/31/2022
- MHS 1-2012, f. & cert. ef. 2-9-12
- MHS 8-2011(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 10-27-11 thru 4-20-12
- MHS 5-2011, f. & cert. ef. 8-3-11
Or. Admin. R. 309-102-0110 Definitions
(1) “Contraband” means any controlled substance, drugs not prescribed to the patient, drugs not prescribed or authorized by OSH, drug paraphernalia, weapons, unauthorized currency or prohibited items.
(2) “Controlled Substance” means a drug or its immediate precursor classified in Schedules I through V under the federal Controlled Substances Act, 21 USC 811 to 812, as modified under ORS 475.005 and ORS 475.035.
(3) "Court” means a tribunal where legal matters are resolved, including but not limited to state circuit courts, federal courts, bankruptcy courts, tribal courts, administrative courts, and municipal courts."
(4) "Court official” means a person employed by a court to conduct court business, and includes a federal, county, tribal, and municipal judge, magistrate, administrative judge, and hearings officer and any other person who is tasked by a court to conduct the court's business."
(5) “Cultural Food/Items” means an item that relates to a patient’s cultural or ethnic identity.
(6) “Division” means the Oregon State Hospital Division of the Oregon Health Authority.
(7) “Drug” means:
(a) Substances recognized as drugs in the official United States Pharmacopoeia, official Homeopathic Pharmacopoeia of the United States or official National Formulary, or any supplement to any of them;
(b) Substances intended for use in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease in humans or animals;
(c) Substances (other than food) intended to affect the structure or any function of the body of humans or animals, including but not limited to vitamins, supplements, dietary powders, synthetic cathinones, synthetic cannabinoids; or
(d) Substances intended for use as a component of any article specified in paragraph (a), (b) or (c) of this subsection; however, the term does not include devices or their components, parts or accessories.
(8) “Drug Paraphernalia” means all equipment, products and materials of any kind that are marketed for use or designed for use in planting, propagating, cultivating, growing, harvesting, manufacturing, compounding, converting, producing, processing, preparing, testing, analyzing, packaging, repackaging, storing, containing, concealing, injecting, ingesting, inhaling or otherwise introducing into the human body a controlled substance in violation of ORS 475.752 to 475.980.
(9) “Electronic Mail” means digital messages transmitted electronically.
(10) “Excess Personal Property” means property which cannot be stored in the designated storage in the patient’s room or personal storage space on the unit.
(11) “Good Faith Belief” means an honest or sincere belief in something.
(12) “Harassment” means a patient who is communicating or attempting to communicate with an individual or entity that they are prohibited from contacting by a court order, treatment care plan, or other legal requirement.
(13) “Journalist Mail” means any mail sent by a patient to a news media organization such as, but not limited to a newspaper, a magazine and a television station’s news department, or sent to a patient from a news media organization, and which is clearly labeled “journalist mail” on the addressee side of the envelope, set apart from the return and mailing addresses for ease of recognition, and where the news media organization is verifiable.
(14) “Legal Mail” means any mail received from or addressed to an attorney, court, disability rights organizations or the protection and advocacy system identified in ORS 192.517,or court official which is clearly labeled as “legal mail” on the addressee side of the envelope, set apart from the return and mailing addresses for ease of recognition, where the sender or receiver is verifiable as a licensed attorney, court, or court official.
(15) “Limited Access Item” means an item that could pose a safety or security risk in the possession of a patient but is permitted for a set duration of time with the prior authorization of OSH staff and, if applicable, with the direct supervision of OSH staff. A limited access item becomes a prohibited item if the patient possesses or uses the item outside of the scope of the authorization or without OSH staff supervision if required.
(16) “Mail” means any paper documents sent by or received by a patient in a standard sized, legal sized, or special handling envelope with a weight of 16 ounces or less, and thickness of no more than ½ inch. Mail does not include any item other than paper. Legal, Official and journalist mail are not subject to the envelope and weight restrictions.
(17) “Official Mail” means any mail sent by a patient or sent to a patient from an elected official, appointed official, employee or agent of a federal, state, or tribal government, where the designation of the government official, employee or agent is clearly labeled on the addressee side of the envelope, set apart from the return and mailing addresses for ease of recognition, and whose status is verifiable.
(18) “Oregon State Hospital” or “OSH” or “hospital” means any campus of the Oregon State Hospital system providing inpatient care and/or treatment to individual who are 18 years or older whether the program where the individual is receiving care and/or treatment is licensed at hospital level of care or other licensed level of care.
(19) “OSH Market” means an on-site retail establishment where patients, family members or friends who are visitors as defined in chapter 309 division 106 may purchase unrestricted items or authorized limited access items for the patient.
(20) “OSH Staff” means OSH employees, contractors, interns, and volunteers who have direct or indirect contact with patients.
(21) “Package” means any item sent by or received by a patient that does not meet the definition of mail, journalist mail, legal mail, or official mail.
(a) “Authorized Package” means a package received by OSH for a patient that OSH has provided prior authorization for under these rules.
(b) “Unauthorized Package” any package that is not an authorized package.
(22) “Patient” means an individual who is 18 years of age or older and receiving care and/or treatment at OSH, whether the program where the individual is receiving care and/or treatment is licensed as hospital level of care or other licensed level of care.
(23) “Patient Clothing” means an item worn to cover the patient’s body.
(24) “Patient Property Room” means a designated area where patients may store personal property in a designated bin that cannot be stored in their room.
(25) “Personal Bedding” means two pillows, one blanket or comforter, and one sheet set.
(26) “Personal Property” means unrestricted items that belong to the patient that can be kept in the designated storage of the patient’s room or patient property room.
(27) “Photocopy” means the copied image of incoming mail, including envelope, that replicates the content and the mail in in a format that accurately conveys the words or images on the original mail received.
(28) “Prohibited Item” means:
(a) Alcohol;
(b) Possession of drugs in the patient’s room without authorization by OSH;
(c) Any item that reasonably could be used to escape or leave the hospital without authorization;
(d) Food stored in the patient room or in the patient’s storage in the patient property room;
(e) Any item in the possession of a patient who is prohibited from possessing or using that item in their treatment care plan because it is considered detrimental to their treatment;
(f) Excess personal property;
(g) Any limited access item in the possession of a patient that exceeds the scope of the authorization or is not being supervised by OSH staff as required; or
(h) Any item that could pose a safety or security risk for the hospital.
(29) “Reading Materials” means a written or printed work consisting of pages glued or sewn together along one side and bound in covers, such as books, magazines, or periodicals.
(30) “Reasonable Cause” means an OSH staff member has knowledge or notice of facts or circumstances and the rational inferences drawn therefrom that would lead a reasonable and experienced OSH staff member to come to a conclusion.
(31) “Religious Item” means an item that is associated with the patient’s particular system of faith and worship.
(32) “Safety” means protecting the patient and others from potential harm or preventing the patient from escaping or leaving without authorization, damaging state property, damaging the patient’s or another patient’s personal property, or committing or attempting to commit a crime.
(33) “Scan” means to cause an object to be examined by a device that uses x-rays or electromagnetic waves for the purpose of detecting contraband.
(34) “Security Reason” means protecting the patient from serious and immediate harm and protecting others from threats or harassment.
(35) “Security Risk” means conditions that would pose a risk of harm to the patient, others, or to the hospital.
(36) “Superintendent” means the executive head of the Oregon State Hospital systems or the Superintendent’s designee.
(37) “Threat” means the patient’s expression of an intent to harm, cause alarm to, or intimidate another individual.
(38) “Treatment Care Plan” means an individualized and comprehensive written plan of therapeutic interventions designed, in collaboration between the patient and their treatment team, to facilitate rehabilitation of psychiatric symptoms.
(39) “Unauthorized Currency” means paper money and coins in the possession of a patient in an amount or in a location not authorized by OSH.
(40) “Unrestricted Items” means any item that is not contraband and has been authorized by OSH for the patient’s use or possession.
(41) “Weapon” means any item that can be used or modified to be used to harm the patient or others, including but not limited to guns, knives, improvised pointed or bladed instrument, and pepper spray.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 413.042 & ORS 179.360
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.360 & 426.385
- BHS 27-2024, amend filed 11/13/2024, effective 01/19/2025
- BHS 21-2024, temporary amend filed 07/24/2024, effective 07/24/2024 through 01/19/2025
- BHS 4-2024, amend filed 03/20/2024, effective 03/20/2024
- BHS 40-2023, temporary amend filed 10/09/2023, effective 10/09/2023 through 04/05/2024
- BHS 29-2022, amend filed 12/23/2022, effective 12/23/2022
- BHS 11-2022, temporary amend filed 07/05/2022, effective 07/05/2022 through 12/31/2022
- MHS 1-2012, f. & cert. ef. 2-9-12
- MHS 8-2011(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 10-27-11 thru 4-20-12
- MHS 5-2011, f. & cert. ef. 8-3-11
Or. Admin. R. 309-102-0120 Patient Rights Related to Mail and Packages
(1) Except as limited in these rules, all patients at OSH must have the right to communicate freely by sending and receiving sealed mail.
(2) All journalist mail, legal mail, official mail, or other mail may be sent or delivered by hand or via any parcel delivery service.
(3) To aid OSH in identifying the type of patient mail, incoming and outgoing legal, journalist, or official mail must be clearly labeled on the outside of the envelope as legal, journalist, or official mail, and set apart from the return and mailing addresses for ease of recognition, and must be verifiable as legal, journalist, or official mail.
(4) Patients may not receive unauthorized packages.
(5) For safety and security reasons, patients, family members or friends who are visitors as defined in chapter 309, division 106 may only purchase items through the OSH Market, except the patient may purchase printer paper at cost from OSH. OSH will not profit from the sales from the OSH Market.
(6) Except as otherwise provided in these rules, OSH must not:
(a) Read or censor any patient’s incoming or outgoing journalist mail, legal mail or official mail.
(b) Prevent, obstruct or delay a patient’s outgoing journalist mail, legal mail, official mail, mail or packages from being promptly mailed; or
(c) Prevent, obstruct or delay a patient’s incoming journalist mail, legal mail, official mail or mail from being promptly delivered to the patient.
(7) Except as required for treatment reasons, safety, or security reasons, or when mail is addressed to OSH, OSH staff having read or examined a patient’s journalist, legal, official or other mail must protect the patient’s confidentiality by refraining from discussions regarding it.
(8) OSH may place a limit on the patient’s right to send or receive journalist mail, mail, or authorized packages if the limitation and the reasons for the limitation are stated in the patient’s written treatment care plan. OSH must inform the patient of that limitation.
(9) At a patient’s request, OSH staff may assist the patient in reading their incoming or sending their outgoing mail, journalist, legal or official mail. The patient’s need for this assistance must first be documented in the patient’s treatment care plan.
(10) OSH must provide patients with a reasonable amount of writing material. OSH must make stamps available for purchase by patients with funds. OSH will provide a reasonable number of stamps to patients without funds.
(11) The exchange of electronic mail is an earned privilege and is related to the patient’s recent behaviors, current level of care and other privileges.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 413.042 & ORS 179.360
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.360 & 426.385
- BHS 27-2024, amend filed 11/13/2024, effective 01/19/2025
- BHS 21-2024, temporary amend filed 07/24/2024, effective 07/24/2024 through 01/19/2025
- BHS 4-2024, amend filed 03/20/2024, effective 03/20/2024
- BHS 40-2023, temporary amend filed 10/09/2023, effective 10/09/2023 through 04/05/2024
- BHS 29-2022, amend filed 12/23/2022, effective 12/23/2022
- BHS 11-2022, temporary amend filed 07/05/2022, effective 07/05/2022 through 12/31/2022
- MHS 1-2012, f. & cert. ef. 2-9-12
- MHS 8-2011(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 10-27-11 thru 4-20-12
- MHS 5-2011, f. & cert. ef. 8-3-11
Or. Admin. R. 309-102-0130 Handling of Patients’ Journalist Mail, Legal Mail, Official Mail, Mail & Packages
(1) When a patient receives an authorized package, OSH may open and search it for contraband, including but not limited to prohibited items, even if there is no reasonable cause to believe that it may contain such an item. Authorized packages may be opened outside of the patient’s presence.
(2) Unauthorized packages will not be accepted by OSH. OSH may return the package to sender, conduct a search of the package for safety or security reasons, request that it be accepted by law enforcement, or dispose of it in the presence of two OSH staff members. OSH must document the action taken.
(3) OSH may scan any incoming and outgoing sealed mail, journalist, legal, and official mail, or packages with non-invasive technology (e.g., metal detector, x-ray) for contraband.
(4) OSH may open, search, and photocopy patient mail other than legal, journalist, and official mail, outside the patient’s presence, even where there is no reasonable cause to believe that it may contain contraband.
(a) When OSH photocopies patient mail, it must provide a photocopy of the original mail to the patient and retain the original mail in a locked and secured room.
(b) If the original mail contains contraband, OSH will follow the procedures in sections (7) and (8) of this rule.
(c) Upon a patient’s discharge, OSH must return any original mail except mail that has been identified and disposed of as contraband pursuant to the procedures in section (7) of this rule.
(5) OSH may open and search legal, journalist and official mail for contraband in the presence of the patient even when there is no reasonable cause to believe it may contain contraband.
(a) If the legal, journalist, or official mail does not contain contraband, the patient may retain the original.
(b) If the legal, journalist, or official mail contains any item that poses a safety or security risk, including but not limited to controlled substances, drug paraphernalia, weapons, or any item that could be used as an instrumentality of escape, OSH will follow the procedures in section (7) of this rule.
(6) After searching a patient’s mail, journalist, legal, or official mail, or package under this rule and a prohibited item is found inside, then OSH may:
(a) Store the item as excess personal property;
(b) Provide the item to a designated person pursuant to OAR 309-108-0010(3);
(c) Dispose of any prohibited items that may pose a safety or security risk. Disposal must be documented and must be witnessed by two OSH staff members; and/or
(d) Give the patient any unrestricted item.
(7) After searching a patient’s mail, journalist, legal, or official mail, or package under this rule and controlled substances, drug paraphernalia, weapons, or any item that could be used as an instrumentality of escape are found inside or there is reasonable cause to believe that one of those items has been found, then OSH must:
(a) Create a chain of custody and hold the mail, journalist, legal, or official mail, or package mail from a protection and advocacy group under ORS 192.517 or package in a secure area;
(b) Contact law enforcement and turn over the controlled substances, drug paraphernalia, or weapons if law enforcement is willing to accept the item(s), and document the action taken;
(A) If law enforcement declines to investigate further or accept the controlled substances, drug paraphernalia, or weapons, then dispose of the controlled substances, drug paraphernalia, or weapons in the presence of at least two OSH staff and document the action taken.
(B) If law enforcement declines to investigate further or accept the rest of the contents of the mail, journalist, legal or official mail, or package, give the patient any unrestricted items, and dispose of any prohibited item as set out in paragraph (7) of this rule.
(8) After searching a patient’s mail, journalist, legal, or official mail, or package under this rule and drugs not prescribed to the patient, drugs not prescribed or authorized by OSH, or unauthorized currency are found inside, OSH must:
(a) Follow the process in section (6) of this rule, if OSH does not have good faith belief that the drugs not prescribed to the patient, drugs not prescribed or authorized by OSH, or the unauthorized currency are evidence of a crime or attempted crime; or
(b) Follow the process in section (7) of this rule if OSH has a good faith belief that the drugs not prescribed to the patient, drugs not prescribed or authorized by OSH, or the unauthorized currency are evidence of a crime or attempted crime.
(9) OSH must inform the patient of any incoming or outgoing mail, journalist, legal, or official mail, or package found to contain contraband (including prohibited items) was opened unless OSH has a good faith belief that the notification may:
(a) Increase the risk to the safety or security of OSH; or
(b) Impact an ongoing criminal investigation or proceeding.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 413.042 & ORS 179.360
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.360 & 426.385
- BHS 27-2024, amend filed 11/13/2024, effective 01/19/2025
- BHS 21-2024, temporary amend filed 07/24/2024, effective 07/24/2024 through 01/19/2025
- BHS 4-2024, amend filed 03/20/2024, effective 03/20/2024
- BHS 40-2023, temporary amend filed 10/09/2023, effective 10/09/2023 through 04/05/2024
- BHS 29-2022, amend filed 12/23/2022, effective 12/23/2022
- BHS 11-2022, temporary amend filed 07/05/2022, effective 07/05/2022 through 12/31/2022
- MHS 1-2012, f. & cert. ef. 2-9-12
- MHS 8-2011(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 10-27-11 thru 4-20-12
- MHS 5-2011, f. & cert. ef. 8-3-11
Or. Admin. R. 309-102-0140 Disposition of Mail Retained or Delivered To Patient
(1) If a package or mail, including journalist, legal or official mail, is opened, OSH staff must not read or further inspect any unrestricted items, except if patient’s treatment plan contains a restriction for certain mail.
(2) Any item retained from a patient’s mail, journalist, legal, or official mail, or package must be clearly marked to identify, at minimum, the date of the inspection and retention, the patient’s name, the name and address of the sender, a description of the held or disposed items, and both the printed name and the signature of the OSH staff member conducting the process. The item must then be handled as provided in these rules and OAR chapter 309, division 108.
(3) When any item is confiscated by a law enforcement agency, each part of the process must be documented in the patient’s chart with, at minimum, the date of inspection and confiscation, the patient’s name, the name and address of the sender, a description of the confiscated item or items, and both the printed name and the signature of the OSH staff member who witnessed the law enforcement’s confiscation.
(4) All documentation related to any held item must be in writing and kept in the patient’s chart. OSH security staff must also retain written documentation related to any held item. Patient must receive a legible copy of each document, unless OSH has good cause to believe that providing a copy of the documentation would:
(a) Increase the risk to the safety or security of OSH; or
(b) Impact an ongoing criminal investigation or proceeding.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 413.042 & ORS 179.360
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.360 & 426.385
- BHS 27-2024, amend filed 11/13/2024, effective 01/19/2025
- BHS 21-2024, temporary amend filed 07/24/2024, effective 07/24/2024 through 01/19/2025
- BHS 4-2024, amend filed 03/20/2024, effective 03/20/2024
- BHS 40-2023, temporary amend filed 10/09/2023, effective 10/09/2023 through 04/05/2024
- BHS 29-2022, amend filed 12/23/2022, effective 12/23/2022
- BHS 11-2022, temporary amend filed 07/05/2022, effective 07/05/2022 through 12/31/2022
- MHS 1-2012, f. & cert. ef. 2-9-12
- MHS 8-2011(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 10-27-11 thru 4-20-12
- MHS 5-2011, f. & cert. ef. 8-3-11
Division 104 TELEPHONE USE BY PATIENTS AND RESIDENTS IN STATE INSTITUTIONS
Or. Admin. R. 309-104-0000 Purpose and Statutory Authority
(1) Purpose. These rules prescribe policy and procedures for the use of telephones by patients and residents in state institutions.
(2) Statutory Authority. These rules are authorized by ORS 179.040 and 413.042 and carry out the provisions of 426.385 and 427.031.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.040 & 413.042
- MHD 28-1982, f. 12-28-82, ef. 1-28-83
Or. Admin. R. 309-104-0005 Definitions
As used in these rules:
(1) “Administrator” means the Assistant Director, Human Resources, and Administrator for Mental Health.
(2) “Division” means the Addictions and Mental Health Division of the Oregon Health Authority.
(3) “Patient” means a person who is receiving care and treatment in a state institution for the mentally ill.
(4) “Qualified Mental Retardation Professional” means a person who meets the professional requirements prescribed by 42 CFR 442.401 or as amended.
(5) “Resident” means a person who is receiving care, treatment, and training in a state institution for the mentally retarded.
(6) “State Institution” means Dammasch State Hospital in Wilsonville, Oregon State Hospital in Salem, Fairview Training Center in Salem, and Eastern Oregon Hospital and Training Center in Pendleton.
(7) “Superintendent” means the executive head of a state institution listed in section (6) of this rule.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.040 & 413.042
- MHD 28-1982, f. 12-28-82, ef. 1-28-83
Or. Admin. R. 309-104-0010 Policy
(1) All patients and residents have the right to make and receive telephone calls except as provided in section (4) of this rule.
(2) State institutions shall make available to patients and residents telephones which are accessible and ensure privacy.
(3) Except as stated in section (4) of this rule, no employee or any person acting through, or on behalf of, the Division shall monitor telephone conversations, or prevent or obstruct a patient or resident from making or receiving telephone calls.
(4) State institutions shall have the right to restrict use of telephones under the following circumstances:
(a) State institutions may set reasonable hours for telephone use by patients and residents for both incoming and outgoing calls. Exceptions to this provision are a patient’s or resident’s lawyer, clergy or personal physician, or in emergency situations;
(b) Unless the patient or resident objects, an employee may provide assistance in making or receiving telephone calls for those residents or patients who have physical or mental handicapping conditions which prevent them from performing these activities. Need for this assistance must be documented in the patient’s or resident’s chart by a physician or qualified mental retardation professional;
(c) State institutions have the right to reasonably restrict telephone usage if a patient or resident misuses or abuses access to telephones.
(5) Access to telephones shall not be denied in connection with any behavioral contingencies or earned privileges.
(6) State institutions may install public telephones on living units for patients and residents as long as the institution ensures that telephones are private, available, and accessible. Calls to a patient’s or resident’s attorney, private physician, or clergyman will not be restricted solely on account of funds.
(7) A patient or resident has the right to contest any restriction on access to telephones or other application of these rules as provided in OAR 309-118-0000 through 309-118-0050 (Grievance Procedures for Use in State Institutions).
(8) Violation of the rights, policies, and procedures set forth in these rules by an employee of the Division constitutes cause for disciplinary action.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.040 & 413.042
- MHD 28-1982, f. 12-28-82, ef. 1-28-83
Or. Admin. R. 309-104-0015 Procedures
(1) State institutions shall make known telephone availability and any restrictions to patients and residents on each living area.
(2)(a) Any restrictions in telephone usage for individual patients or residents must be by order of the treating physician or qualified mental retardation professional;
(b) Decisions by the physician or qualified mental retardation professional to restrict telephone usage must be documented in the patient’s or resident’s record by that professional. Specific reasons for the restriction must be clearly stated with supporting documentation as needed.
(3) State institutions must notify, in writing, the affected patient or resident of restrictions within 24 hours after imposing a restriction. The notification must state the reasons and duration of the restriction. There must be at least an oral explanation of the patient’s or resident’s right to appeal the restriction through the Division’s grievance procedures.
(4) Decisions to restrict telephone usage must be reviewed and, if necessary, renewed at least monthly by the physician or qualified mental retardation professional. Restrictions will expire unless renewed.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.040 & 413.042
- MHD 28-1982, f. 12-28-82, ef. 1-28-83
Or. Admin. R. 309-104-0020 Notice To Patients, Residents, and Employees
(1) Upon admission, state institutions shall inform patients and residents, orally and in writing, of the rights, policies, and procedures set forth in these rules. In addition, a clear and simple statement of the title and number of these rules, their general purpose, and instructions on how to obtain a copy of the rules and how to seek advice about their content shall be prominently displayed in areas frequented by patients and residents in all state institutions.
(2) All employees of state institutions shall be notified in writing at the commencement of their employment, or, for present employees, within a reasonable time of the effective date of these rules, of the rights, policies, and procedures set forth in these rules.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.040 & 413.042
- MHD 28-1982, f. 12-28-82, ef. 1-28-83
Division 106 VISITATION OF PATIENTS AND RESIDENTS IN STATE INSTITUTIONS
Or. Admin. R. 309-106-0000 Purpose and Statutory Authority
These rules provide the policies and procedures concerning visitation of patients at Oregon State Hospital.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 413.042 & 179.360
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.321 & 426.385
- BHS 30-2022, amend filed 12/23/2022, effective 12/23/2022
- BHS 13-2022, temporary amend filed 07/05/2022, effective 07/05/2022 through 12/31/2022
- MHD 29-1982, f. 12-28-82, ef. 1-28-83
Or. Admin. R. 309-106-0005 Definitions
As used in these rules:
(1) “Accused Person” or “AP” means the OSH staff or visitor who is the respondent in an investigation for the alleged abuse of a patient under Chapter 419, division 120, of the Orgon Administrative Rules.
(2) “Adult” means an individual that has reached the age of majority as that term is defined in ORS 109.510 and includes an individual under the age of 18 who is legally married.
(3) “Attorney” means any lawyer actively licensed by the Oregon State Bar or other state bar.
(4) “Contact Visit” means that the meeting between the patient and the approved visitor occurs in person without a barrier. There may be limited approved physical contact between patient and the approved visitor, such as a hug at the beginning or ending of the visit.
(5) “Contraband” means any controlled substance, drugs not prescribed to the patient, drugs not prescribed or authorized by OSH, drug paraphernalia, weapons, unauthorized currency or prohibited items.
(6) “Clergy” means any member of the community who is recognized by a religious authority and who has been accepted, oriented, trained, and approved by the Oregon State Hospital Spiritual Care Department.
(7) “Controlled Substance” means a drug or its immediate precursor classified in Schedules I through V under the federal Controlled Substances Act, 21 USC 811 to 812, as modified under ORS 475.005 and ORS 475.035.
(8) “Cultural Food/Items” means an item that relates to a patient’s cultural or ethnic identity.
(9) “Direct Care Staff” means any health care workers, either employed directly or contracted with OSH, who work directly with patients in the hospital, including but not limited to physicians, nurse practitioner, registered nurse, nursing assistants, therapists, and technicians.
(10) “Division” means the Oregon State Hospital Division of the Oregon Health Authority.
(11) “Drug” means:
(a) Substances recognized as drugs in the official United States Pharmacopoeia, official Homeopathic Pharmacopoeia of the United States or official National Formulary, or any supplement to any of them;
(b) Substances intended for use in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment or prevention of disease in humans or animals;
(c) Substances (other than food) intended to affect the structure or any function of the body of humans or animals, including but not limited to vitamins, supplements, dietary powders, synthetic cathinones, synthetic cannabinoids; or
(d) Substances intended for use as a component of any article specified in paragraph (a), (b) or (c) of this subsection; however, the term does not include devices or their components, parts or accessories.
(12) “Drug Paraphernalia” means all equipment, products and materials of any kind that are marketed for use or designed for use in planting, propagating, cultivating, growing, harvesting, manufacturing, compounding, converting, producing, processing, preparing, testing, analyzing, packaging, repackaging, storing, containing, concealing, injecting, ingesting, inhaling or otherwise introducing into the human body a controlled substance in violation of ORS 475.752 to 475.980.
(13) “Excess Personal Property” means property which cannot be stored in the designated storage in the patient’s room or personal storage space on the unit.
(14) “Forensic Patient” means a patient who is 18 years of age or older admitted to OSH as an Guilty Except for Insanity (GEI) patient pursuant to ORS 161.327 or ORS 161.328, Aid and Assist Patient under ORS 161.365 or ORS 161.371, an Extremely Dangerous Person pursuant to ORS 426.701 or ORS 426.702, an administrative transfer under ORS 179.473, a transfer from Oregon Youth Authority (OYA) or Department of Corrections (DOC) pursuant to ORS 179.173 or as a misdemeanor GEI pursuant to ORS 161.328.
(15) “Gender Identity” means an individual’s gender-related identity, which may be different from the identity that is traditionally associated with the individual’s sex assigned at birth.
(16) “Good Faith Belief” means an honest or sincere belief in something.
(17) “Harassment” means a patient who is communicating or attempting to communicate with an individual or entity that they are prohibited from contacting by a court order, treatment care plan, or other legal requirement.
(18) “Health Care Representative” means a competent adult appointed by a court to make health care decisions for a patient under ORS Chapter 127.
(19) “Hospital Level of Care (HLOC) Patient” means a patient who is 18 years of age or older and is admitted to one of OSH’s licensed hospital units.
(20) “In-Person Visit” means a meeting at the hospital between a patient and an approved visitor who are permitted to see and talk with each other on a scheduled basis for a reasonable period of time.
(21) “Journalist Mail” means any mail sent by a patient to a news media organization such as, but not limited to a newspaper, a magazine and a television station’s news department, or sent to a patient from a news media organization.
(22) “Legal Guardian” mean an individual appointed by a court to act as guardian of an adult under ORS Chapter 125.
(23) “Legal Mail” means any mail received from or addressed to an attorney, court, tribal official, governmental official, disability rights organizations or the protection and advocacy system identified in ORS 192.517.
(24) “Limited Access Item” means an item that could pose a safety or security risk in the possession of a patient but is permitted for a set duration of time with the prior authorization of OSH staff and, if applicable, with the direct supervision of OSH staff. A limited access item becomes a prohibited item if the patient possesses or uses the item outside of the scope of the authorization or without OSH staff supervision if required.
(25) “Mail” means any paper documents sent by or received by a patient in a standard sized, legal sized, or special handling envelope with a weight of 16 ounces or less, and thickness of no more than ½ inch. Mail does not include any item other than paper. Legal mail and journalist mail are not subject to the envelope and weight restrictions.
(26) “Metal Detection Screening” means a type of security inspection where an electronic or mechanical device, designed to detect the presence of metal or other substances, is used to scan an individual’s body, extra clothing, items in the patient’s possession and service animal for the purpose of detecting contraband. Examples include but are not limited to an x-ray machine or wand.
(27) “Minor” means any person less than 18 years of age.
(28) “Oregon State Hospital” or “OSH” or “hospital” means any campus of the Oregon State Hospital system providing inpatient care and/or treatment to individual who are 18 years or older whether the program where the individual is receiving care and/or treatment is licensed at hospital level of care or other licensed level of care..
(29) “OSH Market” means an on-site retail establishment where patients, family members or friends who are visitors as defined in chapter 309 division 106 may purchase unrestricted items or authorized limited access items for the patient.
(30) “OSH Property” means OSH buildings, surrounding grounds, and parking lots. Personally owned vehicles parked on OSH property are not considered part of OSH property.
(31) “OSH Staff” means OSH employees, contractors, interns, and volunteers who have direct or indirect contact with patients.
(32) “Package” means any item sent by or received by a patient that does not meet the definition of mail, journalist mail, or legal mail.
(a) “Authorized Package” means a package received by OSH for the patient where OSH has provided prior authorization under these rules.
(b) “Unauthorized Package” any package that is not an authorized package.
(33) “Pat-down” means a search procedure in which security staff or direct care staff run their hands over a clothed individual’s body and inspect their clothing (including but not limited to their pockets, cuffs, socks, and outerwear) for the purpose of detecting contraband. Pat-downs may include searching the patient’s extra clothing, items in the patient’s possession and service animal.
(34) “Patient” means an individual who is who is 18 years of age or older and receiving care and treatment at OSH, whether the program where the individual is receiving care and treatment is licensed at hospital level of care or other licensed level of care.
(35) “Patient Clothing” means an item worn to cover the patient’s body, including but not limited to shoes, head coverings, and outerwear.
(36) “Patient Property Room” means a designated area where patients may store personal property in a designated bin that cannot be stored in their room.
(37) “Personal Bedding” means two pillows, one blanket or comforter, and one sheet set.
(38) “Personal Property” means unrestricted items that belong to the patient that can be kept in the designated storage of the patient’s room or patient property room.
(39) “Personal Search” means search procedures where OSH staff physically search an individual’s body and clothing for contraband that goes beyond a security screening, which includes a pat-down, skin search or internal search. Personal searches may include searching the person’s extra clothing, items in the patient’s possession and service animal.
(40) “Physical aggression” means any physical behavior that results in, could result in or threatens physical unwelcome contact or injury, including but not limited to spitting, throwing bodily fluids, throwing objects, posturing, or taking a fighting stance.
(41) “Prohibited Item” means:
(a) Alcohol;
(b) Possession of drugs in the patient’s room without authorization by OSH;
(c) Any item that reasonably could be used to escape or leave the hospital without authorization;
(d) Food stored in the patient room or in the patient’s storage in the patient property room;
(e) Any item in the possession of a patient who is prohibited from possessing or using that item in their treatment care plan because it is considered detrimental to their treatment;
(f) Excess personal property;
(g) Any limited access item in the possession of a patient that exceeds the scope of the authorization or is not being supervised by OSH staff as required; or
(h) Any item that could pose a safety or security risk for the hospital.
(42) “Reasonable Cause” means an OSH staff member has knowledge or notice of facts or circumstances and the rational inferences drawn therefrom that would lead a reasonable and experienced OSH staff member to come to a conclusion.
(43) “Religious Item” means an item that is associated with the patient’s particular system of faith and worship.
(44) “Safety” means protecting the patient and others from potential physical, emotional, or medical harm or preventing the patient from escaping or leaving without authorization, damaging state property, damaging the patient’s or another patient’s property, or committing or attempting to commit a crime.
(45) “Search” means a close inspection, including physical contact of an individual, any items in the individual’s possession, or individual’s service animal. Searches may require the removal and separate inspection of shoes, jackets, purses, bags and other accessories.
(46) “Secure Perimeter” means restricted high-security buildings, areas, and quads within the sally port entrances and exits at the state hospital.
(47) “Secure Residential Treatment Facility (SRTF) Patient” means a patients who 18 years of age or older and admitted to one of OSH’s licensed secure residential treatment facilities.
(48) “Security Inspection” means a visual inspection or a non-invasive inspection using an electronic or metal device (e.g., metal detection screening or wanding) for the purpose of detecting contraband. A security inspection does not involve physical contact with the subject of the inspection.
(49) “Security Reason” means protecting the patient from serious and immediate harm, protecting others from harm, threats or harassment, and ensuring the safety and security of the hospital.
(50) “Security Risk” means conditions that would pose a risk of harm to the patient, others, or to the hospital.
(51) “Security Staff” means OSH staff assigned to the Security Department at OSH.
(52) “Service Animal” means an animal that is individually trained to do work or perform tasks for the benefit of an individual with a disability, including a physical, sensory, psychiatric, intellectual, or other mental disability. Animals whose sole function is to provide comfort or emotional support do not qualify as service animals under the Americans with Disabilities Act.
(53) “Superintendent” means the executive head of the Oregon State Hospital system or the Superintendent’s designee.
(54) “Threat” means a person’s expression of an intent to harm, cause alarm to, or intimidate another individual.
(55) “Treatment Care Plan” means an individualized and comprehensive written plan of therapeutic interventions designed, in collaboration between the patient and their treatment team, to facilitate rehabilitation of psychiatric symptoms.
(56) “Unauthorized Currency” means paper money and/or coins in the possession of a patient in any amount or in a location not authorized by OSH.
(57) “Unrestricted Items” means any item that is not contraband and has been authorized by OSH for the patient’s use or possession.
(58) “Virtual Visit” means a visit between a patient and an approved visitor using computerized or video monitors, or telephones.
(59) “Visit” or “visitation” means a meeting at the hospital between patient and an approved visitor who are permitted to see and talk with each other on a scheduled basis for a reasonable period of time.
(60) “Visitor” means an individual who is not an OSH staff member or another patient and who OSH has authorized to enter a designated visiting area in the hospital to meet with a patient.
(61) “Wanding” means a type of security inspection where a portable electronic or mechanical device, designed to detect the presence of metal or other substances, is passed in close proximity of an individual’s body or their property for the purpose of detecting contraband.
(62) “Weapon” means any item that can be used or modified to be used to harm the patient or others, including but not limited to guns, knives, improvised pointed or bladed instrument, and pepper spray.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 413.042 & ORS 179.360
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.321 & 426.385
- BHS 28-2024, amend filed 11/13/2024, effective 01/14/2025
- BHS 18-2024, temporary amend filed 07/19/2024, effective 07/19/2024 through 01/14/2025
- BHS 30-2022, amend filed 12/23/2022, effective 12/23/2022
- BHS 13-2022, temporary amend filed 07/05/2022, effective 07/05/2022 through 12/31/2022
- MHD 29-1982, f. 12-28-82, ef. 1-28-83
Or. Admin. R. 309-106-0010 Patients’ Rights to Visitation and Exceptions
(1) The Division recognizes the needs of patients to have access to and maintain contact with family members and the community of which they are a part as well as the needs of family and community members to have access to patients. Except as otherwise provided in this rule, patients have the right to receive visits from any visitor who has submitted a visitor application and been approved for visitation.
(2) OSH shall provide designated places for in-person and virtual visitations to occur in as much comfort and privacy as possible.
(3) OSH may set reasonable limitations on visitation hours and days and type of visitation that includes, but is not limited to:
(a) Requiring supervision during a visit;
(b) Granting exceptions upon visitor or patient requests to change days or hours of visitation; and
(c) Imposing additional reasonable limitations on visitation under the following circumstances:
(A) The Governor has declared a public health emergency as set in ORS 433.441;
(B) The Governor has declared a state of emergency as set in ORS 401.165 that may impact hospital’s operations, patients, or OSH staff;
(C) OSH has determined there are safety or security risks that may impact the hospital’s operations, patients, or OSH staff.
(4) OSH shall post visitation rules and restrictions on every unit and in the visitation areas.
(5) OSH patients have a right to refuse visitation and may decline to see a visitor or end a visit at any time.
(6) OSH patients have a right to in-person visits for approved visitors except when:
(a) Security staff or direct care staff have reasonable cause to believe that the visitor would pose a safety or security risk, introduce contraband (including prohibited items), or assist in planning or executing a patient’s escape or unauthorized leave from OSH;
(b) Security staff or direct care staff have reasonable cause to believe that the visitor would be harmful to the patient’s physical or mental health or may pose a safety or security risk;
(c) Security staff or direct care staff observe that the visitor’s behavior is disruptive to the patient, others, or OSH, which may include consideration of the visitor’s past conduct at OSH;
(d) The visitor refuses to comply with the requirements in this rule or has a history of violating these rules, including but not limited to refusal to submit to security inspection and pat-downs deemed necessary to ensure the safety and security of patients, others, and OSH;
(e) The unit is under current medical restriction because of a communicable disease, or the visitor may have a communicable disease or refuses to comply with required preventative protocols; or
(f) A visitor whose purpose is to solicit the patient to purchase an item the visitor is selling.
(g) The visitor is proselytizing regarding a religion to a patient who does not want that interaction;
(h) The circumstances in section 3 above exist.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 413.042 & ORS 179.360
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.321 & 426.385
- BHS 28-2024, amend filed 11/13/2024, effective 01/14/2025
- BHS 18-2024, temporary amend filed 07/19/2024, effective 07/19/2024 through 01/14/2025
- BHS 30-2022, amend filed 12/23/2022, effective 12/23/2022
- BHS 13-2022, temporary amend filed 07/05/2022, effective 07/05/2022 through 12/31/2022
- MHD 29-1982, f. 12-28-82, ef. 1-28-83
Or. Admin. R. 309-106-0015 OSH Review of Visitor Applications
(1)Except for provided in section (2) of this rule, the following individuals are automatically approved for visitation:
(a) A patient’s attorney recognized by the court as representing the patient, or an agent of the attorney, such as an investigator or paralegal, provided each person provides evidence of their representation of the patient, including but not limited to state bar membership or a letter of representation from the law firm or engagement letter from the investigation firm.
(b) A court-appointed, attorney-appointed or otherwise contracted licensed psychologist or psychiatrist whose purpose of conducting an independent evaluation of the patient and where legal authority to conduct the evaluation has been provided to OSH, such as but not limited to a court order or letter of engagement signed by the patient, guardian, judge or patient’s attorney; or
(c) The patient’s legal guardian who has provided proof of current guardianship.
(2) For those visitors automatically approved under section (1) of this rule, the Superintendent may place limitations on visitation by notifying the visitor and patient in writing based on a significant safety issue, security risk, or disruption to hospital operations. These circumstances may include but are not limited to:
(a) The visitor commits or attempts to commit a crime upon OSH premises or against the patient;
(b) The visitor repeatedly violates or attempts to violate visitation rules; and
(c) The visitor has been identified as an accused person in an abuse investigation being conducted under OAR Chapter 419, division 120.
(3) All other individuals, who want to visit a patient at OSH, are required to apply for and be approved for visitation by OSH prior to visiting a patient.
(4) As part of the visitor application, all visitors must do the following:
(a) Complete the online visitor application, available on OSH’s website;
(b) Submit to an annual background check;
(c) Disclose any medical device or equipment (e.g., pacemaker, inhaler, wheelchair, or walker) or necessary prescription medication that the visitor is bringing into the secure perimeter of the hospital and provide a description of such equipment or medication.
(A) Visitors with proper documentation from a physician, nurse practitioner, or medical clinic regarding a medical condition or disability requiring a medical device or equipment, shall present this information to OSH staff to help inform staff of the visitor’s circumstances. This documentation will not exempt the visitor from the security screening process.
(B) Any prescription medication must be in its original container with the original label that contains the visitor’s name, name of medication, prescriber, and prescription number.
(C) If a visitor is prescribed medication or must rely on a new medical device or equipment after their application has been approved, the visitor must contact the OSH Reception Center at least 48-hours prior to their next visitation to provide satisfactory documentation of the new medication or medical device that they plan to bring with them to visitation.
(D) If the new prescribed medication or medical device or equipment was prescribed in fewer than 48-hours prior to the visitation, the visitor must contact the OSH Reception Center as soon as practicable prior to the visit and provide satisfactory documentation of the new medication or medical device or equipment that they plan to bring with them to visitation.
(E) Disclose whether the visitor is bringing a service animal to the visit and complete any OSH-required pre-approval paperwork for the animal.
(d) Disclose if they are accompanying a minor child to the visitation, and provide documentation confirming that each child visiting a patient is the visitor or patient’s child or is in the visitor’s legal custody or court-ordered physical custody at the time of the application.
(5) OSH must deny an application for all types of visitation, in-person and virtual, for the following reasons:
(a) The patient or visitor is prohibited by a court order from contacting one another or being in the same geographic area.
(b) The visitor is a minor and the patient has a pending criminal charge or a conviction of a sex offense against a minor, unless the minor is the patient’s biological or adopted child or grandchild who is not the victim of the pending criminal charge or a conviction of a sex offense against a minor.
(c) The visitor is accompanying a minor, and the visitor has a pending or prior conviction of a sex offense involving a minor.
(d) The visitor is a former staff member and there are allegations or findings of abuse or neglect related to a patient.
(6) OSH must deny an application for in-person visitation for the following reasons but may approve an application for virtual visitation:
(a) The visitor has active warrants;
(b) The visitor was convicted of possession, control, or delivery of an explosive device;
(c) The visitor has a pending criminal charge or a conviction in the preceding 10 years of a violent felony as that term is defined in ORS 147.500; and
(d) The visitor has a pending criminal charge or a conviction for a drug-related crime in the preceding 5 years, except where the visitor confirms that they are the patient’s 12-step program sponsor (e.g. Alcoholics Anonymous, Narcotics Anonymous, Cocaine Anonymous, Al-Anon, etc.) or peer recovery specialist, they have no pending drug-related charge, and the only drug-related conviction is in the preceding 3 years, they may have in-person visitation with the patient.
(7) OSH may deny an application for visitation if the security staff or direct care staff believe that the visitor could pose a clinical, safety or security risk to the patient, others or the hospital. Specific reasons for the restriction must be documented.
(8) The review process of OAR 308-106-0015(6) and (7) notwithstanding, all visitation applications from current or former OSH staff must be reviewed by the Superintendent or designee for approval, denial, or approval with restrictions.
(9) OSH shall notify the patient in writing of a limitation on a visit or denial of a visitor application under these rules, unless notification would be detrimental to the patient’s mental or physical health, which must be documented. The notification must state the reasons, duration and review process.
(10) OSH may set place limitations on a visitor as provided in OAR chapter 943, division 12.
(11) A patient or their representative may request review of OSH’s decision to deny a visitor’s application by following the grievance procedures set out in OAR chapter 309, division 118.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 413.042 & ORS 179.360
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.321 & 426.385
- BHS 28-2024, amend filed 11/13/2024, effective 01/14/2025
- BHS 18-2024, temporary amend filed 07/19/2024, effective 07/19/2024 through 01/14/2025
- BHS 30-2022, amend filed 12/23/2022, effective 12/23/2022
- BHS 13-2022, temporary amend filed 07/05/2022, effective 07/05/2022 through 12/31/2022
- MHD 29-1982, f. 12-28-82, ef. 1-28-83
Or. Admin. R. 309-106-0025 Visitation Requirements
(1) Visitors must abide by all requirements set out in these rules. Failure to do so may result in the termination of the visit and limitations on future visits.
(2) Visitors must abide by the following requirements for the safety and security of the patients, staff, visitors, and hospital:
(a) Visitors must wear a base layer of clothing only, which may include a dress, skirt, shirt, pants, or shorts.
(b) Visitors must also wear appropriate footwear such as shoes or sandals.
(c) Visitors are prohibited from wearing into the secure perimeter:
(A) Camouflage or military-type clothing unless it has been approved in advance by the Security Director or designee;
(B) Clothing with words or logos related to alcohol, tobacco, products, drugs, vulgarity, violence, bigotry, sexual connotations, or those containing allusions to any of these items;
(C) Clothing that may be considered provocative, including, but not limited to, transparent, skin-tight, low-cut clothing, or clothing that exposes undergarments, bare back, buttocks, or midriff at any time (e.g., while sitting, standing, or bending over);
(D) Neckties, scarves, necklaces, or any other item that encircles the neck;
(E) Outerwear (e.g., jackets, gloves, hats). When wearing hats or other head coverings that obstruct the facial features unless it is a religious garment that has been disclosed to OSH in advance;
(F) Multiple layers of clothing;
(G) Shoes or accessories that might be a safety hazard, including any item that may be used as a weapon or ligature device; and
(d) Visitors must not bring into the secure perimeter computers, tablets, cellular phones, watches or any other electronic or battery-powered device.
(3) Visitors may only bring these items into the secure perimeter:
(a) Their locker keys;
(b) Their badge;
(c) Pre-disclosed prescription medication;
(d) Pre-disclosed medical device or equipment;
(e) Service animal; and
(f) When there is a minor visitor under the age of two, the following items are allowed into the secure perimeter:
(A) A clear baby bottle with fluids inside;
(B) A single baby blanket;
(C) Two diapers and diaper wipes;
(D) One undamaged plastic toy; and
(E) Any additional items must be approved on a case-by-case basis by the Security Shift Supervisor. However, strollers, baby carriers, car seats, and stuffed animals are not allowed in the secure perimeter.
(4) Notwithstanding section (3) of this rule, additional items (e.g., computers, papers, pens, books and phones) subject to the approval of security staff may be brought into the secure perimeter:
(a) By the following individuals:
(A) A patient’s attorney recognized by the court as representing the patient, or an agent of the attorney, such as an investigator or paralegal, provided each person provides evidence of their representation of the patient, including but not limited to state bar membership or a letter of representation from the law firm or engagement letter from the investigation firm.
(B) A court-appointed, attorney-appointed or otherwise contracted licensed psychologist or psychiatrist whose purpose of conducting an independent evaluation of the patient and where legal authority to conduct the evaluation has been provided to OSH, such as but not limited to a court order or letter of engagement signed by the patient, guardian, judge or patient’s attorney; and
(C) Clergy.
(b) Under no circumstances may any of the individuals described in this section bring in weapons, prescription medications not in its original packaging and prescribed for the visitor, non-prescription medications, controlled substances, alcohol, food and beverages.
(5) Security staff or direct care staff may continuously observe visitors and patients to identify any unusual behavior or security concerns. Suspicious activity includes, but it not limited to:
(a) Passing contraband or engaging in conduct that appears to be passing contraband;
(b) Engaging in conflict with patients, other visitors, or staff;
(c) Inappropriate touching or lewd behavior; or
(d) Appear to be under the influence of intoxicants.
(6) For in-person contact visits, a brief hug at the beginning and at the conclusion of a visit is allowed. No further physical contact between a patient and a visitor is allowed. Security staff or direct care staff may interrupt any attempt to prolong the brief embrace. If the patient or visitor persists in engaging in physical contact during visitation, security staff or direct care staff may end the visit.
(7) Patients and visitors are not permitted to move about the visiting area or any other room outside of the visiting area including in the gardens.
(8) To limit the opportunity to pass contraband to patients, patients and visitors are not permitted to purchase or eat food during the visit, or to play games together.
(9) Patients are not permitted to approach or follow visitors outside of the designated visiting area.
(10) All minors must be accompanied by a pre-approved adult visitor who is a parent, legal guardian, or court-ordered escort to enter a visitation area. Visitors must provide documentation confirming that each child visiting is their child, in their legal custody or court-ordered physical custody at the time of the application.
(11) Visitors may be required to wear personal protective equipment, including a mask, and adhere to other preventative protocols while a medical restriction is in effect.
(12) Video visitation is available to all patients and their approved visitors.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 413.042 & 179.360
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.321 & 426.385
- BHS 28-2024, adopt filed 11/13/2024, effective 01/14/2025
- BHS 18-2024, temporary adopt filed 07/19/2024, effective 07/19/2024 through 01/14/2025
Or. Admin. R. 309-106-0030 Visitor Security Inspection and Screening
(1) Visitors must be processed through a security checkpoint to access the visitation area in the secure perimeter to protect the safety and security of the hospital. Security staff or direct care staff must screen all visitors, including visual inspection, metal detection screening, and pat-downs.
(2) Lockers may be provided for visitors’ use to store purses, carrying cases, or other personal items until the visit is over.
(3) A visitor may be asked to submit to a security inspection or pat-down but may deny consent for the search. If the visitor denies or withdraws consent for the search at any time, visitation will be denied and any search must be immediately discontinued. .
(4) Prior to entering the secure perimeter and prior to visitation, all visitors, including attorneys, investigators, and psychologists or other professionals hired by the patient or attorney, must undergo security screening, including minors and service animals. For most visitors, successfully completing security screening and the related inspection of clothing and authorized items will alleviate the need for a pat-down.
(5) Visitors are subject to a security inspection (visual inspection, metal detection screening, and wanding) prior to entering the secure perimeter of the hospital. Security inspections are conducted as follows:
(a) Visitors must be in a single or base level of clothing. All additional items such as hats, gloves, coats, multiple layers of shirts, extra socks and shoes must be removed. Visitors must turn out their pockets, and their sleeves and cuffs must be unrolled.
(b) Visitors may be asked to remove body piercings or excessive jewelry to expedite the screening process. Excessive jewelry, areas of the body that have body piercings or undergarments with metal clasps or adjusters often alarm metal detectors and may delay or even prevent visiting.
(c) For wanding, visitors must stand with legs approximately shoulder-width apart and their arms outstretched.
(d) Visitors are required to cooperate with the instructions of security staff or direct care staff in order to facilitate the security inspection process, such as requests to turn out pockets, unroll cuffs, or turn around. If visitors do not cooperate, the visit must end.
(6) Visitors with a medical device such as a pacemaker, defibrillator, device that operates under magnetic calibration, metal implants, wheelchair, bone growth stimulator, or other internal or external medical device) should check with their doctor prior to arriving at OSH to determine if it is safe to go through the metal detection screening. Depending on their doctor’s recommendations, the visitor must include that information in their visitor application or provide an update to OSH if discovered after the application is submitted.
(7) Visitors who are exempt from metal detection screening include those persons who have provided OSH in their visitor application approved documentation of a metal condition or medical device or equipment in or upon their person. If a person is exempt from metal detection screening, a pat-down must be conducted prior to entry into the secure perimeter for visitation.
(a) All pre-disclosed and approved medication, medical devices and equipment, and service animals must be searched prior to visitation.
(b) A modified search will be used for visitors requiring wheelchairs or electric scooters as the reliability of hand-held metal detectors is limited by the structure of the chair or scooter. Visitors in wheelchairs or electric scooters must limit their accessories and personal possessions to only those items medically necessary and allowed within these rules during visitation.
(8) If metal detection screening alerts to the presence of metal, or security staff or direct care staff suspect the presence of contraband, security staff or direct care staff must investigate with a pat-down.
(9) Pat-downs must be conducted as follows:
(a) A minimum of two OSH staff members, comprised of either security staff or direct care staff, must conduct pat-downs.
(b) The security staff or direct care staff member making physical contact with the visitor to conduct the pat-down must be the same sex as the visitor. If visitor expresses a preference for a staff member of their same gender identity to conduct the pat-down:
(A) A security staff or direct care staff member of that gender identity must conduct the pat-down.
(B) If a security staff or direct care staff member of the visitor’s preferred sex or gender identity is not immediately available to conduct the pat-down, then a security staff or direct care staff member, who is not the visitor’s preferred sex or gender identity, may conduct the pat-down with the visitor’s consent.
(C) If the visitor does not consent, the visit must end.
(D) Other security staff or direct care staff, who are involved in the pat-down but who are not making physical contact with the visitor, do not need to be the visitor’s preferred sex or gender identity.
(c) Visitors must be wearing a single or base level of clothing. All additional items such as hats, gloves, coats, multiple layers of shirts, extra socks and shoes must be removed. Visitors must turn out their pockets, and sleeves and cuffs must be unrolled.
(d) Visitors must stand with legs approximately shoulder-width apart and their arms outstretched.
(e) Pat-downs must be conducted within view of the camera surveillance system.
(f) Visitors are required to cooperate with the instructions of security staff or direct care staff to facilitate the pat-down process, such as requests to turn out pockets, unroll cuffs, shake out their clothing, or turn around. If the visitors do not want to cooperate, then the visit must end.
(10) Visitors who bring in service animals will be subject to the following requirements:
(a) Visitors must be responsible to ensure that the service animal is properly controlled and behaved at all times.
(b) Visitors may be asked the following in relation to the service animal:
(A) If the animal is required because of a disability; and
(B) What work or task the animal has been trained to perform.
(c) Visitors are required to remove any apparel or other item the service animal is wearing so that security staff or direct care staff may search the item prior to entry into the secure perimeter of the hospital;
(d) Patients are not allowed to touch service animals.
(e) A visitor will not be asked to remove the service animal from the premises unless:
(A) The animal is out of control and the visitor does not take effective action to control it; or
(B) The animal is not housebroken.
(f) Where there is a legitimate reason to ask that the service animal to be removed, staff shall offer the visitor the opportunity to visit without the animal’s presence, if the visitor can arrange to have the animal removed and cared for and controlled outside of the secure perimeter. Under no circumstances may a staff person remove or care for the animal.
(11) If illicit contraband is found on a visitor or in their property at any time, including hidden in their prescription medication, or medical devices or equipment, security staff or direct care staff must confiscate the item and contact law enforcement. OSH must also:
(a) Create a chain of custody and hold the illicit contraband in a secure area; and
(b) Contact law enforcement and turn over the illicit contraband if law enforcement is willing to accept the item(s), and document the action taken. If law enforcement declines to investigate further or accept the illicit contraband, then dispose of the illicit contraband in the presence of at least two OSH staff and document the action taken.
(12) Any approved item entering visitation with a child or other visitor will be searched during the screening process by security staff. Security staff shall search the additional items approved for minor visits or other visitors who had been pre-approved to bring medications, medical devices or equipment into the secure perimeter upon exit to ensure they are exiting with the visitor.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 413.042 & 179.360
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.321 & 426.385
- BHS 28-2024, adopt filed 11/13/2024, effective 01/14/2025
- BHS 18-2024, temporary adopt filed 07/19/2024, effective 07/19/2024 through 01/14/2025
Or. Admin. R. 309-106-0035 Administrative Review
(1) Within 60 days of a decision denying an application for visitation, a prospective visitor may challenge the decision by submitting a completed written request for Administrative Review to OSH Ombuds Office. The denial will be reviewed as follows:
(a) The administrative review request must include information supporting reversal or modification of the decision and copies of any supporting documents or official records.
(b) Apon timely receipt of a completed Administrative Review Request and copies of any supporting documents or updated official records, the OSH Ombuds Office will review the decision and either affirm, reverse or modify the decision.
(c) The OSH Ombuds Office may request additional information from the prospective visitor, law enforcement agency, or other reliable resource to complete the review.
(d) Reversal or Modification of a Decision Denying an Application for Visitation or Limitation on Visitation: A decision denying an application may be reversed or modified by the OSH Ombuds Office on in the following circumstances:
(A) The initial decision is determined by the OSH Ombuds Office to have been made in error based on incorrect information, or an incorrect application of these rules; or
(B) Circumstances impacting eligibility for visitation changed since the date of the decision denying the application for visitation or decision to limit visitation under review.
(e) The OSH Ombuds Office’s decision shall be final and not subject to further review, except for the Superintendent’s review for Extraordinary Circumstances.
(2) Administrative Review by Superintendent for Extraordinary Circumstances:
(a) Notwithstanding any other provision of these rules, the Superintendent or their designee may, in their sole discretion, reverse or modify a decision denying an application for visitation between a patient and an immediate family member of the patient for extraordinary circumstances.
(b) The Superintendent or designee’s decision will be final and subject to review only as provided for in ORS 183.484.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 413.042 & 179.360
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.321 & 426.385
- BHS 28-2024, adopt filed 11/13/2024, effective 01/14/2025
- BHS 18-2024, temporary adopt filed 07/19/2024, effective 07/19/2024 through 01/14/2025
Division 108 HANDLING OF PATIENTS’ PROPERTY AND PATIENT SEARCHES
Or. Admin. R. 309-108-0000 Purpose and Statutory Authority
These rules prescribe the standards and procedures for the handling of patient’s personal, excess or storage property and the security inspection and search procedures for Oregon State Hospital patients.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 413.042 & ORS 179.360
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.321 & 426.385
- BHS 29-2024, amend filed 11/13/2024, effective 01/14/2025
- BHS 19-2024, temporary amend filed 07/19/2024, effective 07/19/2024 through 01/14/2025
- BHS 31-2022, amend filed 12/23/2022, effective 12/23/2022
- BHS 12-2022, temporary amend filed 07/05/2022, effective 07/05/2022 through 12/31/2022
- MHD 7-1986, f. & ef. 9-4-86
- MHD 30-1982, f. 12-28-82, ef. 1-28-83
Or. Admin. R. 309-108-0005 Definitions
As used in these rules:
(1) “Chief Medical Officer” or “CMO” means the physician or designee appointed pursuant to ORS 426.020 who is responsible for the administration of medical treatment at each state institution and the supervision of physicians and practitioners who are employed by the hospital or are contracted to provide services at the hospital..
(2) “Contraband” means any controlled substance, drugs not prescribed to the patient, drugs not prescribed or authorized by OSH, drug paraphernalia, weapons, unauthorized currency or prohibited items.
(3) “Controlled Substance” means a drug or its immediate precursor classified in Schedules I through V under the federal Controlled Substances Act, 21 USC 811 to 812, as modified under ORS 475.005 and ORS 475.035.
(4) “Cultural Food/Items” means an item that relates to a patient’s cultural or ethnic identity.
(5) “Direct Care Staff” means any health care workers, either employed directly or contracted with OSH, who work directly with patients in the hospital, including but not limited to physicians, nurse practitioners, registered nurses, nursing assistants, therapists, and technicians.
(6) “Division” means the Oregon State Hospital Division of the Oregon Health Authority.
(7) “Drug” means:
(a) Substances recognized as drugs in the official United States Pharmacopoeia, official Homeopathic Pharmacopoeia of the United States or official National Formulary, or any supplement to any of them;
(b) Substances intended for use in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment or prevention of disease in humans or animals;
(c) Substances (other than food) intended to affect the structure or any function of the body of humans or animals, including but not limited to vitamins, supplements, dietary powders, synthetic cathinones, synthetic cannabinoids; or
(d) Substances intended for use as a component of any article specified in paragraph (a), (b) or (c) of this subsection; however, the term does not include devices or their components, parts or accessories.
(8) “Drug Paraphernalia” means all equipment, products and materials of any kind that are marketed for use or designed for use in planting, propagating, cultivating, growing, harvesting, manufacturing, compounding, converting, producing, processing, preparing, testing, analyzing, packaging, repackaging, storing, containing, concealing, injecting, ingesting, inhaling or otherwise introducing into the human body a controlled substance in violation of ORS 475.752 to 475.980.
(9) “Excess Personal Property” means property which cannot be stored in the designated storage in the patient’s room or personal storage space on the unit.
(10) “Gender Identity” means an individual’s gender-related identity, which may be different from the identity that is traditionally associated with the individual’s sex assigned at birth.
(11) “Good Faith Belief” means an honest or sincere belief in something.
(12) “Harassment” means a patient who is communicating or attempting to communicate with an individual or entity that they are prohibited from contacting by a court order, treatment care plan, or other legal requirement.
(13) “Internal Search” means a visual or digital inspection of body cavities for the purpose of detecting contraband. This does not include the visual, non-invasive inspection of an individual’s nostrils, ears, or mouth.
(14) “Limited Access Item” means an item that could pose a safety or security risk in the possession of a patient but is permitted for a set duration of time with the prior authorization of OSH staff and, if applicable, with the direct supervision of OSH staff. A limited access item becomes a prohibited item if the patient possesses or uses the item outside of the scope of the authorization or without OSH staff supervision if required.
(15) “Metal Detection Screening” means a type of security inspection where an electronic or mechanical device, designed to detect the presence of metal or other substances, is used to scan an individual’s body, extra clothing, items in the patient’s possession and service animal for the purpose of detecting contraband. Examples include but are not limited to an x-ray machine or wand.
(16) “No-Contact Search” means a non-invasive search procedure, used in lieu of a traditional pat-down, where the patient will cooperate with OSH staff in searching their clothing and will undergo a metal detection or other scanning technology for screening purposes. No-contact searches may include searching the patient’s extra clothing, items in the patient’s possession and service animal.
(17) “Oregon State Hospital” or “OSH” or “hospital” means any campus of the Oregon State Hospital system providing inpatient care and/or treatment to individual who are 18 years or older whether the program where the individual is receiving care and/or treatment is licensed at hospital level of care or other licensed level of care..
(18) “OSH Market” means an on-site retail establishment where patients, family members or friends who are visitors as defined in chapter 309 division 106 may purchase unrestricted items or authorized limited access items for the patient.
(19) “OSH Staff” means OSH employees, contractors, interns, and volunteers who have direct or indirect contact with patients.
(20) “Package” means any item sent by or received by a patient that does not meet the definition of mail, journalist mail, or legal mail.
(a) “Authorized Package” means a package received by OSH for a patient that has been prior authorized under these rules.
(b) “Unauthorized Package” any package that is not an authorized package.
(21) “Pat-down” means a search procedure in which security staff or direct care staff run their hands over a clothed individual’s body and inspect their clothing (including but not limited to their pockets, cuffs, socks, and outerwear) for the purpose of detecting contraband. Pat-downs may include searching the patient’s extra clothing, items in the patient’s possession and service animal.
(22) “Patient” means an individual who is 18 years or older and receiving care and /or treatment at OSH, whether the program where the individual is receiving care and/or treatment is licensed as hospital level of care or other licensed level of care.
(23) “Patient Clothing” means an item worn to cover the patient’s body, including but not limited to shoes, head coverings, and outerwear.
(24) “Patient Property Room” means a designated area where patients may store personal property in a designated bin that cannot be stored in their room.
(25) “Personal Bedding” means two pillows, one blanket or comforter, and one sheet set.
(26) “Personal Property” means unrestricted items that belong to the patient that can be kept in the designated storage of the patient’s room or patient property room.
(27) “Personal Search” means search procedures where staff physically search an individual’s body and clothing for contraband that goes beyond a security screening, which includes a pat-down, skin search or internal search. Personal searches may include searching the patient’s extra clothing, items in the patient’s possession and service animal.
(28) “Prohibited Item” means:
(a) Alcohol;
(b) Possession of drugs in the patient’s room without authorization by OSH;
(c) Any item that reasonably could be used to escape or leave the hospital without authorization;
(d) Food stored in the patient room or in the patient’s storage in the patient property room;
(e) Any item in the possession of a patient who is prohibited from possessing or using that item in their treatment care plan because it is considered detrimental to their treatment;
(f) Excess personal property;
(g) Any limited access item in the possession of a patient that exceeds the scope of the authorization or is not being supervised by OSH staff as required; or
(h) Any item that could pose a safety or security risk for the hospital.
(29) “Reading Materials” means a written or printed work consisting of pages glued or sewn together along one side and bound in covers, such as books or magazines.
(30) “Reasonable Cause” means an OSH staff member has knowledge or notice of facts or circumstances and the rational inferences drawn therefrom that would lead a reasonable and experienced OSH staff member to come to a conclusion.
(31) “Religious Item” means an item that is associated with the patient’s particular system of faith and worship.
(32) “Safety” means protecting the patient and others from potential physical, emotional, or medical harm or preventing the patient from escaping or leaving without authorization, damaging state property, damaging the patient’s or another patient’s property, or committing or attempting to commit a crime.
(33) “Search” means a close inspection, including physical contact of a patient, a patient’s personal property, a patient’s excess property, a patient’s storage property, any items in the patient’s possession, or the patient’s service animal. Searches may require the removal and separate inspection of shoes, jackets, purses, bags and other accessories.
(34) “Secure Perimeter” means restricted high-security buildings, areas, and quads within the sally port entrances and exits at the state hospital.
(35) “Security Inspection” means a visual inspection or a non-invasive inspection using an electronic or metal device (e.g., metal detection screening or wanding) for the purpose of detecting contraband. A security inspection does not involve physical contact with the subject of the inspection.
(36) “Security Reason” means protecting the patient from serious and immediate harm, protecting others from harm, threats or harassment, and ensuring the safety and security of the hospital.
(37) “Security Risk” means conditions that would pose a risk of harm to the patient, others, or to the hospital.
(38) “Security Staff” means OSH staff assigned to the Security Department at OSH.
(39) “Service Animal” means an animal that is individually trained to do work or perform tasks for the benefit of an individual with a disability, including a physical, sensory, psychiatric, intellectual, or other mental disability. Animals whose sole function is to provide comfort or emotional support do not qualify as service animals under the Americans with Disabilities Act.
(40) “Skin Search” means a personal search procedure where the patient being searched removes all of their clothing and is visually examined and the removed clothing is inspected for the purpose of contraband.
(41) “Superintendent” means the executive head of the Oregon State Hospital system or the Superintendent’s designee.
(42) “Threat” means the patient expressing an intent to harm, cause alarm to, or intimidate another individual.
(43) “Treatment Care Plan” means an individualized and comprehensive written plan of therapeutic interventions designed, in collaboration between the patient and their treatment team, to facilitate rehabilitation of psychiatric symptoms.
(44) “Unauthorized Currency” means paper money and coins in the possession of a patient in an amount or in a location not authorized by OSH.
(45) “Unrestricted Items” means any item that is not contraband and has been authorized by OSH for the patient’s use or possession.
(46) “Wanding” means a type of security inspection where a portable electronic or mechanical device, designed to detect the presence of metal or other substances, is passed in close proximity of an individual’s body, clothing, possessions or service animal for the purpose of detecting contraband.
(47) “Weapon” means any item that can be used or modified to be used to harm the patient or others, including but not limited to guns, knives, improvised pointed or bladed instrument, and pepper spray
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 413.042 & ORS 179.360
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.321 & 426.385
- BHS 29-2024, amend filed 11/13/2024, effective 01/14/2025
- BHS 19-2024, temporary amend filed 07/19/2024, effective 07/19/2024 through 01/14/2025
- BHS 31-2022, amend filed 12/23/2022, effective 12/23/2022
- BHS 12-2022, temporary amend filed 07/05/2022, effective 07/05/2022 through 12/31/2022
- MHD 7-1986, f. & ef. 9-4-86
- MHD 30-1982, f. 12-28-82, ef. 1-28-83
Or. Admin. R. 309-108-0010 Patient Personal Property
(1) Patients shall have the right to possess and use on each unit reasonable amounts of personal property and unrestricted items. Patients shall not have the right to possess or use contraband or prohibited items. In addition to these rules, OSH maintains a list of items that it has determined pose a safety or security risk to OSH and qualify as contraband, a prohibited item or limited access item under these rules and OSH policies, procedures and directives, which are available at OSH’s website for Policies and Procedures. Patients may also request a paper copy which shall also be posted in areas frequented by patients.
(2) OSH shall provide each patient with accessible storage for reasonable amounts of personal property in the patient’s room and in the patient property room. Patients who need specific assistance in exercising the right to retain and use personal property shall receive such assistance. This shall be documented in the treatment care plan.
(3) OSH shall designate one or more locations for storage of reasonable amounts of excess personal property, including but not limited to valuables. OSH staff shall work with patients to identify what excess property will be stored or will be given to the patient’s guardian, legal representative, family member, or other individual designated by the patient. Valuables that are stored at the hospital shall be documented by OSH staff and retained in a secure location.
(4) Excess property and valuables shall be returned to the patient upon release or discharge, or upon the death of the patient to the patient’s guardian or legal representative, next of kin, or as otherwise required by law.
(5) OSH may restrict the amount of currency allowed to be retained by patients on their unit or off of their unit. Unauthorized currency may be stored as excess property, given to an individual listed in section (2) of this rule, or deposited in the patient’s trust account.
(6) OSH may conduct a security inspection or search of a patient’s room or living area, a patient’s personal property, a patient’s excess property, a patient’s storage property, any items in the patient’s possession, or the patient’s service animal, for contraband at any time.
(7) Upon the completion of a search of a patient’s room, living area, personal property, excess property, or storage property, OSH staff shall return the area to a neat and orderly condition and ensure that any property except for contraband is returned in the same condition.
(8) Contraband, including prohibited items, shall be handled as provided in OAR 309-108-0015.
(9) A patient may request authorization from OSH to purchase an item through OSH’s ordering system if the OSH Market does not have the desired item. OSH may grant authorization for requests to purchase items if:
(a) The item is not contraband, including but not limited to prohibited items;
(b) The item is patient clothing, personal bedding, reading material, cultural food/items, or religious items; and
(c) The item can be stored in the designated storage areas in the patient’s room or patient property room.
(10) The patient may contest the application of these rules under OSH’s grievance and review process in OAR chapter 309, division 118.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 413.042 & ORS 179.360
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.321 & 426.385
- BHS 29-2024, amend filed 11/13/2024, effective 01/14/2025
- BHS 19-2024, temporary amend filed 07/19/2024, effective 07/19/2024 through 01/14/2025
- BHS 31-2022, amend filed 12/23/2022, effective 12/23/2022
- BHS 12-2022, temporary amend filed 07/05/2022, effective 07/05/2022 through 12/31/2022
- MHD 7-1986, f. & ef. 9-4-86
- MHD 30-1982, f. 12-28-82, ef. 1-28-83
Or. Admin. R. 309-108-0015 Procedures for Property
(1) All personal property that a patient brings into the hospital at the time of admission must be itemized in writing with an accompanying description, regardless of where or how the item is stored or otherwise disposed.
(2) OSH staff shall encourage and assist patients to mark all personal property in such a way which identifies it as an individual patient’s possession.
(3) OSH staff shall consult with OSH’s Spiritual Care Department regarding religious items that the patient wants to bring into the hospital upon admission. For safety and security reasons, OSH Security shall review the religious items brought by the patient for contraband.
(4) Patient may request religious items from the OSH Spiritual Care Department, which will accommodate the request unless the item is contrary to their treatment plan, is unavailable, cost prohibitive, constitutes contraband, presents a safety or security risk, or otherwise violates applicable OSH policies or rules.
(5) OSH staff shall consult with OSH Native Services or the OSH Diversity liaison regarding cultural items that the patient wants to bring into the hospital upon admission. For safety and security reasons, OSH Security shall review the cultural items brought by the patient for contraband.
(6) Patient may request cultural items, not constituting contraband, from OSH Native Services or the OSH Diversity liaison, which will accommodate the request unless the item is contrary to their treatment plan, is unavailable, cost prohibitive, constitutes contraband, presents a safety or security risk, or otherwise violates applicable OSH policies or rules.
(7) Any medications brought by the patient at the time of admission should be given to the patient’s guardian, legal representative, or family member if possible. If this is not possible, the medication shall be placed in the medical waste barrel for later destruction. Any controlled substances shall be destroyed and logged in the pharmacy record.
(8) If OSH identifies a prohibited item in the possession of the patient, in the patient’s room or living area, or in their personal/excess property, OSH shall:
(a) Store the item as excess personal property;
(b) Provide the item to an individual listed in OAR 309-108-0010(2); or
(c) Dispose of any prohibited items that may pose a safety or security risk. Disposal shall be documented and shall be witnessed by two OSH staff members.
(9) If OSH identifies any controlled substances, drug paraphernalia, or weapons in the possession of the patient, in the patient’s room or living area, or in their personal/excess property, then OSH shall:
(a) Create a chain of custody and hold the item in a secure area;
(b) Contact law enforcement and turn over the contraband, if law enforcement is willing to accept it, and document the action taken;
(c) If law enforcement declines to investigate further or accept the contraband, then dispose of the contraband in the presence of at least two OSH staff, and document the action taken.
(10) If OSH identifies any drugs not prescribed to the patient, drugs not prescribed or authorized by OSH, or unauthorized currency in the possession of the patient, in the patient’s room or living area, or in their personal/excess property, OSH shall:
(a) Follow the process in section (8) of this rule if OSH does not have a good cause belief that the drugs not prescribed to the patient, drugs not prescribed or authorized by OSH, or the unauthorized currency are evidence of a crime or attempted crime; or
(b) Follow the process in section (9) of this rule if OSH has a good cause belief that the drugs not prescribed to the patient, drugs not prescribed or authorized by OSH, or the unauthorized currency are evidence of a crime or attempted crime.
(11) OSH shall develop written procedures for handling missing personal or excess property. These procedures may include the involvement of law enforcement authorities.
(12) The patient may contest the application of these rules under OSH’s grievance and review process in OAR chapter 309, division 118.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 413.042 & ORS 179.360
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.321 & 426.385
- BHS 29-2024, amend filed 11/13/2024, effective 01/14/2025
- BHS 19-2024, temporary amend filed 07/19/2024, effective 07/19/2024 through 01/14/2025
- BHS 31-2022, amend filed 12/23/2022, effective 12/23/2022
- BHS 12-2022, temporary amend filed 07/05/2022, effective 07/05/2022 through 12/31/2022
- MHD 7-1986, f. & ef. 9-4-86
- MHD 30-1982, f. 12-28-82, ef. 1-28-83
Or. Admin. R. 309-108-0025 Patient Searches
(1) Patients may be subject to a security inspection (visual inspection, metal detection screening, and wanding), routine pat-downs, searches, no-contact searches, skin searches, or internal searches at any time for the purpose of maintaining the safety and security of the hospital. Reasonable cause to believe there is contraband is not required.
(2) For security inspection:
(a) Patients must be in a single or base level of clothing.
(A) All additional items such as hats, gloves, coats, multiple layers of shirts, extra socks and shoes must be removed.
(B) Patients must turn out their pockets, and their sleeves and cuffs must be unrolled.
(b) Patients are required to cooperate with the instructions of security staff or direct care staff in order to facilitate the security inspection process, such as requests to turn out pockets, unroll cuffs, or turn around.
(c) For wanding, patients must stand with legs approximately shoulder-width apart and their arms outstretched.
(d) Patients with no-contact search approval from Risk Review are exempt from routine pat-downs described in section (2) of this rule, except as otherwise described in this rule.
(e) Patients may be subject to additional searches if they do not participate with a security inspection, no-contact searches, or as otherwise required or permitted under these rules.
(f) Patients are subject to a non-routine pat-down if, after conducting a security inspection, security staff or direct care staff have reasonable cause to believe that the patient may have contraband.
(g) Patients are subject to a skin search if, after attempting to conduct a security inspection and pat-down, security staff or direct care staff have reasonable cause to believe that the patient is concealing contraband that might pose a safety or security risk to the patient or others.
(h) Patients are subject to an internal search if, after attempting to conduct a security inspection, pat-down and skin search, security staff or direct care staff have documented that reasonable cause to believe that the patient is concealing contraband that might pose a safety or security risk to the patient or others.
(i) Patients may be subject to additional searches if the patient does not participate in the pat-down, or as otherwise required or permitted under these rules.
(3) Routine pat-downs will occur as follows:
(a) Patients must stand with legs approximately shoulder-width apart and their arms outstretched.
(b) Pat-downs must be conducted within view of the camera surveillance system, except when it is conducted outside of the secure perimeter of the hospital (e.g., on a community outing or outside medical appointment).
(c) Pat-downs of patients must occur outside the presence of their peers when possible.
(d) A minimum of two OSH staff members, comprised of either security staff or direct care staff, must conduct pat-downs of patients.
(e) The security staff or direct care staff member making physical contact with the patient to conduct the pat-down must be the same sex as the patient.
(f) If a patient expresses a preference for a staff member of their same gender identity to conduct the pat-down:
(A) A security staff or direct care staff member of that gender identity must conduct the pat-down.
(B) If a security staff or direct care staff member of the patient’s preferred sex or gender identity is not immediately available to conduct the pat-down, a physician, nurse practitioner, or registered nurse, who is not the patient’s preferred sex or gender identity, may conduct the pat-down.
(C) If waiting for a physician, nurse practitioner, or registered nurse would pose a safety or security risk, then a security staff or direct care staff member, who is not the patient’s preferred sex or gender identity, may conduct the pat-down.
(D) Other security staff or direct care staff, who are involved in the pat-down but who are not making physical contact with the patient, do not need to be the patient’s preferred sex or gender identity.
(g) A routine pat-down may occur when:
(A) Before and after a patient leaves the secure perimeter for any reason, except when conducting a pat-down would delay a patient leaving the secure perimeter to address a medical emergency;
(B) Before and after a patient attends an in-person visitation;
(C) Before a unit search or a patient’s room search; or.
(D) In circumstances that security or direct care staff deem necessary for the security of patients and staff.
(4) No-contact searches must be conducted as follows:
(a) Patient must go through a security inspection prior to a no-contact search.
(b) Patients must stand with legs approximately shoulder-width apart and their arms outstretched.
(c) No-contact searches must be conducted within view of the camera surveillance system, except when it is conducted outside of the secure perimeter of the hospital (e.g., on a community outing or outside medical appointment).
(d) No-contact searches of patients must occur outside the presence of their peers when possible.
(e) A minimum of two OSH staff members, comprised of either security staff or direct care staff, must conduct no-contact searches of patients.
(f) The security staff or direct care staff member performing the no-contact search on the patient must be the same sex as the patient.
(g) If patient expresses a preference for a staff member of their same gender identity to conduct the no-contact search, a security staff or direct care staff member of that gender identity must conduct the no-contact search.
(A) If a security staff or direct care staff member of the patient’s preferred sex or gender identity is not immediately available to conduct the no-contact search, a physician, nurse practitioner or registered nurse, who is not the patient’s preferred sex or gender identity, may conduct the no-contact search.
(B) If the delay from waiting for a physician, nurse practitioner or registered nurse would pose a safety or security risk, then a security staff or direct care staff member, who is not the patient’s preferred sex or gender identity, may be used to conduct the no-contact search.
(C) Other security staff or direct care staff, who are involved in the no-contact search but who are not inspecting the clothing currently on the patient’s body, do not need to be the patient’s preferred sex or gender identity.
(5) Skin searches must be conducted as follows:
(a) The Chief Medical Officer or Superintendent must authorize in writing that a skin search may occur before the search is conducted
(b) After written approval for a skin search, a physician or nurse practitioner must provide a written order for the search.
(c) The rationale for the search, Chief Medical Officer or Superintendent approval, physician or nurse practitioner order, and outcome of the search must be documented in an incident report and a progress note.
(d) Skin searches must be conducted within view of the camera surveillance system.
(e) Skin searches of patients must occur outside the presence of their peers.
(f) A minimum of two OSH staff members must be present to conduct skin searches of patients.
(g) Only a physician, nurse practitioner, or registered nurse may conduct a skin search.
(h) If available, a physician, nurse practitioner or registered nurse of the same sex as the patient must conduct the skin search.
(i) If the patient expresses a preference for a staff member of their gender identity to conduct the skin search, a physician, nurse practitioner or registered nurse of that gender identity must conduct the search.
(A) If a physician, nurse practitioner, or registered nurse of the patient’s preferred sex or gender identity is not immediately available to conduct the search, then a physician, nurse practitioner or registered nurse, who is not of the preferred sex or gender identity of the patient, may conduct the skin search.
(B) Other security staff or direct care staff, who are present for safety during the skin search but who are not making physical contact with the patient, do not need to be the patient’s preferred sex or gender identity.
(6) Internal searches must be conducted as follows:
(a) The Chief Medical Officer or Superintendent must authorize in writing that an internal search may occur before the search is conducted.
(b) After written approval for an internal search, a physician or nurse practitioner must provide a written order for the search.
(c) Internal searches must be conducted within view of the camera surveillance system.
(d) Internal searches of patients must occur outside the presence of their peers.
(e) A minimum of two OSH staff members must be present to conduct internal searches of patients.
(f) Only a physician, nurse practitioner, or registered nurse may conduct an internal search.
(g) When possible, a physician, nurse practitioner or registered nurse of the same sex as the patient must conduct the internal search.
(A) If the patient expresses a preference for a staff member of their gender identity to conduct the internal search, a physician, nurse practitioner or registered nurse of that gender identity must conduct the search.
(B) If a physician, nurse practitioner, or registered nurse of the patient’s preferred sex or gender identity is not immediately available to conduct the search, then a physician, nurse practitioner or registered nurse, who is not of the preferred sex or gender identity of the patient, may conduct the internal search.
(C) Other security staff or direct care staff, who are involved in the internal search but who are not engaged in the visual or digital inspection of the patient’s body cavities, do not need to be the patient’s preferred sex or gender identity.
(7) Use of seclusion or restraint:
(a) Security staff or direct care staff may use seclusion or restraint, as permitted in OAR chapter 309, division 112, to conduct a pat-down when staff have reasonable cause to believe the patient is concealing contraband that might pose a safety or security risk to the patient or others.
(b) As permitted in OAR chapter 309, division 112, the Chief Medical Officer or Superintendent may approve in writing the use of seclusion or restraints to conduct the skin search when staff have documented in writing a reasonable cause to believe that the patient is concealing contraband and might pose a safety or security risk to the patients or others.
(c) The Chief Medical Officer’s or Superintendent’s written authorization, the facts leading to forming reasonable cause, and outcome of the skin search must be documented in an incident report and progress note.
(8) The patient may contest the application of these rules under OSH’s grievance and review process in OAR chapter 309, division 118.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 413.042 & 179.360
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.321 & 426.385
- BHS 29-2024, adopt filed 11/13/2024, effective 01/14/2025
- BHS 19-2024, temporary adopt filed 07/19/2024, effective 07/19/2024 through 01/14/2025
Division 112 USE OF RESTRAINT AND SECLUSION FOR PATIENTS IN STATE INSTITUTIONS
Or. Admin. R. 309-112-0000 Purpose and Statutory Authority
(1) Purpose. These rules prescribe policies and procedures concerning the use of restraint or seclusion in the treatment and in the behavior management of patients in state institutions operated by the Division. In addition to these general rules, other more specific requirements established by federal regulations must be followed where applicable.
(2) Statutory Authority. These rules are authorized by ORS 179.040 and 413.042 and carry out the provisions of 426.385.
(3) The rules set out in Chapter 309, Division 112 are applicable on and after September 23, 2020.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.385
- BHS 25-2025, amend filed 12/22/2025, effective 12/29/2025
- BHS 19-2025, temporary amend filed 07/03/2025, effective 07/03/2025 through 12/29/2025
- BHS 16-2022, amend filed 08/11/2022, effective 08/11/2022
- BHS 6-2022, temporary amend filed 04/12/2022, effective 04/12/2022 through 10/08/2022
- MHS 2-2016, f. & cert. ef. 4-21-16
- Reverted to MHD 1-1984, f. 1-20-84, ef. 2-1-84
- MHS 6-2015(Temp), f. 10-20-15, cert. ef. 10-21-15 thru 4-15-16
- Reverted to MHD 1-1984, f. 1-20-84, ef. 2-1-84
- MHS 2-2013(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 1-23-13 thru 7-19-13
- MHD 1-1984, f. 1-20-84, ef. 2-1-84
- Reverted to MHD 7-1982, f. & ef. 3-29-82
- MHD 22-1982(Temp), f. & ef. 9-24-82
- MHD 7-1982, f. & ef. 3-29-82
- MHD 1-1982(Temp), f. & ef. 1-14-82
Or. Admin. R. 309-112-0005 Definitions
(1) “Chief Medical Officer” means the physician designated by the superintendent of each state institution pursuant to ORS 179.360(1)(f) who is responsible for the administration of medical treatment at each state institution, or their designee.
(2) “Division” means the Division of State Hospitals of the Oregon Health Authority.
(3) “Interdisciplinary Team (IDT)” means a group of professional and direct care staff which has primary responsibility for the development of a plan for the care and treatment of an individual patient.
(4) “Oregon State Hospital” or “OSH” or “hospital” means any campus of the Oregon State Hospital system providing inpatient care and/or treatment to individual who are 18 years or older whether the program where the individual is receiving care and/or treatment is licensed at hospital level of care or other licensed level of care.
(5) “OSH Staff” means OSH employees, contractors, interns, and volunteers who have direct or indirect contact with patients.
(6) “Patient” means an individual who is 18 years or older who is receiving inpatient care and/or treatment in a state institution for the mentally ill, whether the program where the individual is receiving care and/or treatment is licensed at hospital level of care or other licensed level of care.
(7) “Restraint” means any manual method, physical or mechanical device, material, or equipment that immobilizes or reduces the ability of a patient to move his or her arms, legs, body, or head freely. “Restraint” does not include devices, such as orthopedically prescribed devices, surgical dressings or bandages, protective helmets, or other methods that involve the physical holding of a patient for the purpose of conducting routine physical examinations or tests, or to protect the patient from falling out of bed, or to permit the patient to participate in activities without the risk of physical harm (this does not include a physical escort).
(8) “Seclusion” means the involuntary confinement of a patient alone in a locked room or area from which the patient is physically prevented from leaving. Seclusion does not include:
(a) When a patient requests to be placed alone in an unlocked room; or
(b) When a patient is with others in a locked unit or area.
(9) “Seclusion/Restraint Review Committee” means a committee, which may use a different name, appointed by the superintendent of each state institution as provided in OAR 309-112-0030.
(10) “Security Area” means any campus of the Oregon State Hospital system in which a program is conducted for higher acuity patients, including those judged guilty except for insanity, those court ordered into a secure program prior to trial, and those court committed patients not manageable in less secure programs.
(11) “Security Transportation” means placing a patient in restraint and transporting the patient outside of a security area.
(12) “State Institution” means any campus of the Oregon State Hospital system providing inpatient care and/or treatment to individuals who are 18 years or older whether the program where the individual is receiving care and/or treatment is licensed at hospital level of care or other licensed level of care.
(13) “Superintendent” means the executive head of the Oregon State Hospital system as listed in section (5) of this rule, or their designee.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 413.042 & ORS 179.360
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.385 & ORS 179.360
- BHS 25-2025, amend filed 12/22/2025, effective 12/29/2025
- BHS 19-2025, temporary amend filed 07/03/2025, effective 07/03/2025 through 12/29/2025
- BHS 16-2022, amend filed 08/11/2022, effective 08/11/2022
- BHS 6-2022, temporary amend filed 04/12/2022, effective 04/12/2022 through 10/08/2022
- BHS 11-2020, amend filed 09/22/2020, effective 09/23/2020
- BHS 5-2020, temporary amend filed 04/20/2020, effective 04/20/2020 through 10/16/2020
- MHS 2-2016, f. & cert. ef. 4-21-16
- Reverted to MHD 2-1986, f. & ef. 3-31-86
- MHS 6-2015(Temp), f. 10-20-15, cert. ef. 10-21-15 thru 4-15-16
- Reverted to MHD 2-1986, f. & ef. 3-31-86
- MHS 2-2013(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 1-23-13 thru 7-19-13
- MHD 2-1986, f. & ef. 3-31-86
- MHD 1-1984, f. 1-20-84, ef. 2-1-84
- MHD 21-1982, f. & ef. 9-24-82
- MHD 11-1982(Temp), f. & ef. 6-10-82
- MHD 7-1982, f. & ef. 3-29-82
- MHD 1-1982(Temp), f. & ef. 1-14-82
Or. Admin. R. 309-112-0010 General Policies Concerning Use of Seclusion or Restraint
(1) Seclusion or restraint may only be used on a patient to ensure the imminent physical safety of the patient or others. Neither seclusion nor restraint will be used as a means of coercion, discipline, convenience, or retaliation by staff.
(2) Seclusion or restraint must be discontinued at the earliest possible time, regardless of the length of time identified in the seclusion or restraint order. At minimum, the patient must be released as soon as a trained physician, nurse practitioner or registered nurse determines that, if released, the patient will not imminently pose a physical danger to the patient or others.
(3) OSH must provide initial and ongoing training on seclusion or restraint to OSH Staff who have direct patient care responsibilities, consistent with hospital policy.
(4) Patients must not be permitted to use restraint on other patients.
(5) Medication will not be used as a restraint but will be prescribed and administered according to acceptable medical, nursing, and pharmaceutical practices.
(6) Restraint must be used in accordance with sound medical practice to assure the least risk of physical injury and discomfort. Any patient placed in restraint must be protected from self-injury and from injury by others.
(7) OSH must use the least restrictive, most appropriate intervention that will be effective to protect the patient or others from harm. The determination of the most appropriate intervention requires consideration of at least the following factors:
(a) The patient involved (e.g., the present physical ability to engage in violent or destructive behavior and the patient’s reaction to various methods of intervention);
(b) The patient’s or legal guardian’s preference under section (8) of this rule;
(c) The risk or degree of physical or psychological harm and discomfort that accompany the various methods of restraint;
(d) The risk or degree of interference with the individual’s ongoing treatment; and
(e) Whether less restrictive interventions will be ineffective to protect the patient or others from harm.
(8) Preference of Patient and Legal Guardian:
(a) Whenever the interdisciplinary team (IDT) has reason to believe that in the course of a patient’s care, custody, or treatment at a state institution it may become necessary to use seclusion or restraint, a member of the IDT must, if practicable, ask the patient for an expression of preference or aversion to the various forms of intervention. If there is a legal guardian, a member of the IDT must also ask the legal guardian for an expression of preference regarding forms of restraint. The patient’s expression, if any, as well as that of guardian must be relayed to the other IDT members and recorded in the patient’s medical record; and
(b) The patient’s or legal guardian’s preferences for or against particular forms of restraint must be respected by the individual authorizing the use of seclusion or restraint, provided that primary consideration must be given to the need to protect the patient and others in the institution. If possible, both the patient’s and legal guardian’s preferences should be taken into consideration. If there is a conflict between the patient’s and the legal guardian’s preferences, the legal guardian’s preference will prevail.
(9) A summary of all uses of seclusion or restraint must be sent to the chief medical officer at least monthly.
(10) A patient, guardian, or a duly authorized representative of the patient has the right to contest any application of these rules as provided in OAR 309-118-0000 through 309-118-0050 (Grievance Procedures for Use in State Institutions).
(11) Violation of the rights, policies, and procedures set forth in these rules by staff at the state institution constitutes cause for disciplinary action.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 413.042 & 179.360
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.385 & 179.360
- BHS 25-2025, amend filed 12/22/2025, effective 12/29/2025
- BHS 19-2025, temporary amend filed 07/03/2025, effective 07/03/2025 through 12/29/2025
- BHS 16-2022, amend filed 08/11/2022, effective 08/11/2022
- BHS 6-2022, temporary amend filed 04/12/2022, effective 04/12/2022 through 10/08/2022
- BHS 11-2020, amend filed 09/22/2020, effective 09/23/2020
- BHS 5-2020, temporary amend filed 04/20/2020, effective 04/20/2020 through 10/16/2020
- MHS 2-2016, f. & cert. ef. 4-21-16
- Reverted to MHD 2-1986, f. & ef. 3-31-86
- MHS 6-2015(Temp), f. 10-20-15, cert. ef. 10-21-15 thru 4-15-16
- Reverted to MHD 2-1986, f. & ef. 3-31-86
- MHS 2-2013(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 1-23-13 thru 7-19-13
- MHD 2-1986, f. & ef. 3-31-86
- MHD 16-1985(Temp), f. & ef. 10-9-85
- MHD 1-1984, f. 1-20-84, ef. 2-1-84
- MHD 21-1982, f. & ef. 9-24-82
- MHD 11-1982(Temp), f. & ef. 6-10-82
- MHD 7-1982, f. & ef. 3-29-82
- MHD 1-1982(Temp), f. & ef. 1-14-82
Or. Admin. R. 309-112-0015 Use of Seclusion or Restraint
(1) Initial Seclusion or Restraint Authorization:
(a) The initial use of seclusion or restraint may be imposed on a patient by any trained OSH staff member when the patient poses an imminent risk of physical danger to the patient or others.
(b) If the trained OSH staff member initiating seclusion or restraint does not have legal authority to order seclusion or restraint, a registered nurse or licensed practical nurse must contact a licensed physician or nurse practitioner, who is responsible for the care of the patient and authorized to order seclusion or restraint by hospital policy and in accordance with State law, as soon as it can safely be accomplished.
(c) Upon being contacted, the licensed physician or nurse practitioner will determine whether a seclusion or restraint order should be issued. If the licensed physician or nurse practitioner determines that seclusion or restraint should not be continued, the patient must be released immediately from seclusion or restraint. If the licensed physician or nurse practitioner determines that seclusion or restraint should be continued, the seclusion or restraint order must be placed in the patient’s medical record.
(d) No later than the end of their work shift, the OSH staff member who authorized and carried out the use of the initial seclusion or restraint must document the following in the patient’s medical record, including but not limited to:
(A) A description of the patient’s specific behavior, condition or symptoms that warranted the use of seclusion or restraint;
(B) Alternatives or other less restrictive interventions attempted or considered, if any;
(C) The type of restraint or seclusion used and the reason it was selected; and
(D) The patient’s response to the seclusion or restraint.
(e) If the patient remains in initial seclusion or restraint without an order for more than 15 minutes, the OSH staff member who authorized the initial seclusion or restraint must complete and file an incident report.
(2) Seclusion or Restraint Order Authorization:
(a) Except for an initial seclusion or restraint under section (3) of this rule, seclusion or restraint may only be ordered by a physician or nurse practitioner who is responsible for the care of the patient, authorized to order seclusion or restraint by hospital policy and State law, and has been trained on hospital policy and applicable administrative rules related to the use of seclusion or restraint.
(b) Orders for the use of seclusion or restraint must never be written as a standing order or on an as needed basis (PRN).
(c) The attending physician or nurse practitioner must be consulted as soon as possible if the attending physician or nurse practitioner did not order the seclusion or restraint.
(d) The written order for seclusion or restraint must be placed in the patient’s medical record. The use of a seclusion or restraint should be reflected in the patient’s plan of care or treatment plan based on an assessment and evaluation of the patient.
(e) No later than the end of their work shift, the physician or nurse practitioner who issued the seclusion or restraint order must document the following in the patient’s medical record, including but not limited to:
(A) A description of the patient’s specific behavior, condition or symptoms that warranted the use of seclusion or restraint;
(B) Alternatives or other less restrictive interventions attempted or considered, if any;
(C) The type of restraint or seclusion used and the reason it was selected; and
(D) The patient’s response to seclusion or restraint.
(3) Duration of Seclusion or Restraint Order:
(a) An order for seclusion or restraint is for a maximum duration of 4 hours and may be renewed for a total of 24 hours. The physician or nurse practitioner, who authorizes a 4-hour renewal, must ensure the renewal and the rationale for continued use of seclusion or restraint is documented in the patient’s medical record.
(b) Before writing a new order for seclusion or restraint after 24 hours, a physician or nurse practitioner, who is responsible for the care of the patient and authorized to order restraint or seclusion by hospital policy in accordance with State law, must conduct a face-to-face assessment of the patient to determine if the patient still poses a risk of imminent physical danger to the patient or others. The new written order for seclusion or restraint must be placed in the patient’s medical record and included in a written modification to the patient’s treatment care plan.
(c) No later than the end of their work shift, the physician or nurse practitioner who issued the new seclusion or restraint order must document the following in the patient’s medical record, including but not limited to:
(A) A description of the patient’s specific behavior, condition or symptoms that warranted the use of seclusion or restraint;
(B) Alternatives or other less restrictive interventions attempted or considered;
(C) The type of restraint or seclusion used and the reason it was selected; and
(D) The patient’s response to seclusion or restraint; and
(E) The rationale for continued use of seclusion or restraint.
(d) Seclusion or restraint must be discontinued at the earliest possible time, regardless of the length of time identified in the order.
(4) Monitoring:
(a) 1-Hour Face-to-Face Assessment After Seclusion or Restraint:
(A) Within one hour of seclusion or restraint being imposed, a face-to-face assessment of the patient must be conducted by a:
(i) Physician or nurse practitioner; or
(ii) Registered nurse who has been trained on seclusion or restraints in accordance with hospital policy. If conducted by a trained registered nurse, the nurse must consult with the attending physician or nurse practitioner, who is responsible for the care of the patient as soon as possible after the completion of this assessment.
(B) The 1-hour face-to-face assessment must include the evaluation of:
(i) The patient’s imminent situation;
(ii) The patient’s reaction to the seclusion or restraint;
(iii) The patient’s medical and behavioral condition; and
(iv) The need to continue or terminate the seclusion or restraint.
(C) The physician, nurse practitioner or registered nurse, who completed the 1-hour face-to-face assessment, must document in the patient’s medical record that the 1-hour face-to-face assessment occurred and the determinations made on the assessment factors in subsection (4)(a)(B) of this rule.
(b) Ongoing monitoring:
(A) When a patient is in restraint, OSH staff must check on the patient at least every 15 minutes to monitor their health and safety, unless the patient’s condition requires more frequent checks;
(i) During the 15-minute check, OSH Staff must review the patient’s basic individual needs (such as regular meals, personal hygiene, and sleep) as well as the patient’s need for good body alignment and circulation, and take any necessary actions to meet the patient’s basic individual needs; and
(ii) OSH Staff must document in the patient’s medical record that the patient was checked every 15 minutes, that they reviewed the patient’s basic individual needs, and took any necessary actions to meet the patient’s basic individual needs.
(B) When a patient is in seclusion, OSH staff must check on the patient to monitor their health and safety consistent with hospital policy, unless the patient’s condition requires more frequent checks.
(i) OSH Staff must review the patient’s basic individual needs (such as regular meals, personal hygiene, and sleep) as well as the patient’s need for good body alignment and circulation, and take any necessary actions to meet the patient’s basic individual needs; and
(ii) OSH Staff must document in the patient’s medical record that the patient was checked consistent with hospital policy, that they reviewed the patient’s basic individual needs, and took any necessary actions to meet the patient’s basic individual needs.
(C) If the patient is simultaneously in restraint and in seclusion, OSH Staff must continually monitor the patient either by:
(i) Face-to-face by an assigned, trained OSH Staff member; or
(ii) By trained OSH Staff using both video and audio equipment. This monitoring must be in close proximity to the patient.
(c) An awake patient must be provided the opportunity to move and stretch for a period not less than 10 minutes during each two hours of restraint. Partial release of the patient from restraint must be employed as necessary to permit motion without endangering OSH Staff and patients. OSH Staff must document opportunities for exercise in the patient’s medical record.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.385
- BHS 25-2025, amend filed 12/22/2025, effective 12/29/2025
- BHS 19-2025, temporary amend filed 07/03/2025, effective 07/03/2025 through 12/29/2025
- BHS 16-2022, amend filed 08/11/2022, effective 08/11/2022
- BHS 6-2022, temporary amend filed 04/12/2022, effective 04/12/2022 through 10/08/2022
- BHS 11-2020, amend filed 09/22/2020, effective 09/23/2020
- MHS 2-2016, f. & cert. ef. 4-21-16
- Reverted to MHD 2-1986, f. & ef. 3-31-86
- MHS 6-2015(Temp), f. 10-20-15, cert. ef. 10-21-15 thru 4-15-16
- Reverted to MHD 2-1986, f. & ef. 3-31-86
- MHS 2-2013(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 1-23-13 thru 7-19-13
- MHD 2-1986, f. & ef. 3-31-86
- MHD 1-1984, f. 1-20-84, ef. 2-1-84
- Reverted to MHD 7-1982, f. & ef. 3-29-82
- MHD 22-1982(Temp), f. & ef. 9-24-82
- MHD 7-1982, f. & ef. 3-29-82
- MHD 1-1982(Temp), f. & ef. 1-14-82
Or. Admin. R. 309-112-0017 Use of Restraint as Part of Planned Treatment or Training Programs
Subject to the provisions of these rules, restraint may be used as part of planned treatment program provided the informed consent of the patient is obtained or, if informed consent cannot be obtained, authorization to proceed with necessary treatment is obtained as provided in OAR 309-114-0000 through 309-114-0025.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.385
- BHS 19-2025, temporary suspend filed 07/03/2025, effective 07/03/2025 through 12/29/2025
- MHS 2-2016, f. & cert. ef. 4-21-16
- Reverted to MHD 1-1984, f. 1-20-84, ef. 2-1-84
- MHS 6-2015(Temp), f. 10-20-15, cert. ef. 10-21-15 thru 4-15-16
- Reverted to MHD 1-1984, f. 1-20-84, ef. 2-1-84
- MHS 2-2013(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 1-23-13 thru 7-19-13
- MHD 1-1984, f. 1-20-84, ef. 2-1-84
- MHD 21-1982, f. & ef. 9-24-82
- MHD 11-1982(Temp), f. & ef. 6-10-82
Or. Admin. R. 309-112-0020 Use of Security Transportation
The chief medical officer or designee may authorize the use of secure transportation for patients of a secure program when outside the security area.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.385 & 427.031
- MHS 2-2016, f. & cert. ef. 4-21-16
- Reverted to MHD 1-1984, f. 1-20-84, ef. 2-1-84
- MHS 6-2015(Temp), f. 10-20-15, cert. ef. 10-21-15 thru 4-15-16
- Reverted to MHD 1-1984, f. 1-20-84, ef. 2-1-84
- MHS 2-2013(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 1-23-13 thru 7-19-13
- MHD 1-1984, f. 1-20-84, ef. 2-1-84
- Reverted to MHD 7-1982, f. & ef. 3-29-82
- MHD 22-1982(Temp), f. & ef. 9-24-82
- MHD 7-1982, f. & ef. 3-29-82
- MHD 1-1982(Temp), f. & ef. 1-14-82
Or. Admin. R. 309-112-0025 Use of Restraint for Acute Medical Conditions
(1) During medical treatment for acute physical conditions, personal and physical restraint may be used to prevent a patient from injuring himself or herself.
(2) Use of a restraint in the presence of a physician may be authorized verbally; ongoing or continuing use of personal or physical restraint must be ordered in writing by a physician.
(3) Treatment staff shall:
(a) Attend to the patient’s basic personal needs and exercise needs in accordance with general medical practice; and
(b) To the extent practicable, accommodate the patient’s mental disabilities treatment and training regimen.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.385
- BHS 19-2025, temporary suspend filed 07/03/2025, effective 07/03/2025 through 12/29/2025
- MHS 2-2016, f. & cert. ef. 4-21-16
- Reverted to MHD 1-1984, f. 1-20-84, ef. 2-1-84
- MHS 6-2015(Temp), f. 10-20-15, cert. ef. 10-21-15 thru 4-15-16
- Reverted to MHD 1-1984, f. 1-20-84, ef. 2-1-84
- MHS 2-2013(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 1-23-13 thru 7-19-13
- MHD 1-1984, f. 1-20-84, ef. 2-1-84
- MHD 7-1982, f. & ef. 3-29-82
- MHD 1-1982(Temp), f. & ef. 1-14-82
Or. Admin. R. 309-112-0030 Seclusion or Restraint Review Committee
(1) Each state institution must have a Seclusion or Restraint Review Committee, which may use a different name.
(2) The purpose and duty of the Seclusion or Restraint Review Committee is to review and evaluate at least quarterly the appropriateness of all such interventions and report its findings to the superintendent.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.385
- BHS 25-2025, amend filed 12/22/2025, effective 12/29/2025
- BHS 19-2025, temporary amend filed 07/03/2025, effective 07/03/2025 through 12/29/2025
- MHS 2-2016, f. & cert. ef. 4-21-16
- Reverted to MHD 1-1984, f. 1-20-84, ef. 2-1-84
- MHS 6-2015(Temp), f. 10-20-15, cert. ef. 10-21-15 thru 4-15-16
- Reverted to MHD 1-1984, f. 1-20-84, ef. 2-1-84
- MHS 2-2013(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 1-23-13 thru 7-19-13
- MHD 1-1984, f. 1-20-84, ef. 2-1-84
- Reverted to MHD 12-1982, f. & ef. 6-10-82
- MHD 22-1982(Temp), f. & ef. 9-24-82
- MHD 12-1982, f. & ef. 6-10-82
- MHD 1-1982(Temp), f. & ef. 1-14-82
Or. Admin. R. 309-112-0031 Use of Isolation to Control the Spread of a Serious, Highly Infectious Disease
(1) Subject to the provisions of this rule, the chief medical officer or designee may order a patient’s involuntary placement in isolation if:
(a) The patient is suspected of or is diagnosed with a serious, highly infectious disease;
(b) The patient refuses to or is unable to remain in an unlocked room or area, or refuses to or is unable to follow staff’s instructions related to necessary safety protocols; and
(c) Isolation of the patient is temporarily necessary to prevent the spread of the infectious disease to other patients and staff.
(2) The chief medical officer’s or designee’s verbal or written order for isolation shall be documented in the patient’s chart. The order shall last only as long as it is medically necessary to prevent the spread of the infectious disease to other patients and staff, as determined by the chief medical officer or designee. The chief medical officer or designee shall review the continued need for the isolation order every 72 hours, and document that in the patient’s chart.
(3) For the purposes of this rule, the chief medical officer may designate one or more of the following persons to order isolation: A physician licensed to practice medicine in the State of Oregon, a psychologist, or a psychiatric/mental health nurse practitioner.
(4) Prior to ordering the isolation of a patient under this rule, the institution shall attempt to obtain informed consent from the patient or guardian for the patient to remain in a designated room or area and, if medically reasonable, to follow necessary safety protocols to prevent the spread of the infectious disease. If informed consent is obtained from the patient or guardian, it shall be recorded in the patient’s chart.
(5) During the patient’s isolation, the state institution shall ensure that its staff:
(a) Perform checks on the patient every 1 hour and such checks must be documented in the patient’s chart;
(b) Attend to the patient’s basic personal needs and exercise needs in accordance with general medical practice; and
(c) To the extent practicable and medically safe to other patients and staff, accommodate the patient’s mental disabilities treatment and training regimen.
(6) A patient, guardian, or a duly authorized representative of the patient, or guardian has the right to contest any application of these rules as provided in OAR 309-118-0000 through 309-118-0050 (Grievance Procedures for Use in State Institutions).
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, ORS 179.360, 413.042 & Executive Order 20-03 (March 30, 2020)
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.360, Executive Order 20-03 (March 30, 2020), ORS 179.630 & 426.385
- BHS 19-2025, temporary suspend filed 07/03/2025, effective 07/03/2025 through 12/29/2025
- BHS 11-2020, adopt filed 09/22/2020, effective 09/23/2020
- BHS 5-2020, temporary adopt filed 04/20/2020, effective 04/20/2020 through 10/16/2020
Or. Admin. R. 309-112-0035 Notice to Patients and Employees
(1) Upon admission, state institutions shall inform patients orally and in writing, of the rights, policies, and procedures set forth in these rules. In addition, a clear and simple statement of the title and number of these rules, their general purpose, and instructions on how to obtain a copy of the rules and how to seek advice about their content shall be prominently displayed in areas frequented by patients in all state institutions.
(2) All employees of state institutions shall be notified in writing at the commencement of their employment, or, for present employees, within a reasonable time of the effective date of these rules, of the rights, policies, and procedures set forth in these rules.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.385
- MHS 2-2016, f. & cert. ef. 4-21-16
- Reverted to MHD 1-1984, f. 1-20-84, ef. 2-1-84
- MHS 6-2015(Temp), f. 10-20-15, cert. ef. 10-21-15 thru 4-15-16
- Reverted to MHD 1-1984, f. 1-20-84, ef. 2-1-84
- MHS 2-2013(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 1-23-13 thru 7-19-13
- MHD 1-1984, f. 1-20-84, ef. 2-1-84
- MHD 7-1982, f. & ef. 3-29-82
- MHD 1-1982(Temp), f. & ef. 1-14-82
Division 114 INFORMED CONSENT TO TREATMENT AND TRAINING BY PATIENTS IN STATE INSTITUTIONS
Or. Admin. R. 309-114-0000 Purpose
Purpose. These rules prescribe standards and procedures to be observed by personnel of state institutions operated by the Division in obtaining informed consent to significant procedures, as defined by these rules, from patients of such state institutions. These rules do not apply to routine medical procedures. Administration of significant procedures without informed consent is only permitted as described in OAR 309-114-0010(1)(b). The purpose of these rules is to assure that the rights of patients are protected with respect to significant procedures.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.321, 426.070 & 426.385
- BHS 13-2025, amend filed 05/06/2025, effective 05/11/2025
- BHS 26-2024, temporary amend filed 11/13/2024, effective 11/13/2024 through 05/11/2025
- MHS 5-2016, f. & cert. ef. 5-25-16
- MHS 5-2015, f. & cert. ef. 8-28-15
- MHS 9-2014, f. & cert. ef. 4-24-14
- MHS 12-2013(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 10-29-13 thru 4-27-14
- MHS 12-2010, f. & cert. ef. 9-9-10
- MHS 6-2008, f. & cert. ef. 7-25-08
- MHS 2-2008(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 4-7-08 thru 10-4-08
- MHS 14-2007(Temp), f. 11-30-07, cert. ef. 12-1-07 thru 5-29-08
- MHD 3-1983, f. 2-24-83, ef. 3-26-83
Or. Admin. R. 309-114-0005 Definitions
As used in these rules:
(1) "Authorized Representative" or "representative" means an individual who represents a party in a contested case hearing; the representative must be supervised by an attorney that is licensed by the Oregon State Bar.
(2) "Chief Medical Officer" or “CMO” means the physician or physician’s designee appointed pursuant to ORS 426.020 who is responsible for the administration of medical treatment at each state institution and the supervision of physicians and practitioners who are employed by the hospital or are contracted to provide services at the hospital.
(3) “Committed” or “Commitment” means an individual who is 18 years or older and is admitted for inpatient care and/or treatment at OSH under ORS 161.327, 161.328, 161.370, 179.473, 419C.396, 419C.529, 426.130, 427.215 or 426.220, 426.701, 426.702 when the individual's guardian or health care representative is unavailable or unable to consent.
(4) “Dangerousness” means that more likely than not either:
(a) Physical harm that may be inflicted by an individual upon their own body including:
(A) Verbal or nonverbal threats that an individual will inflict physical harm on their body, attempts to die by suicide, or other acts that result in the infliction of physical harm on themselves; or
(B) Historical patterns of behavior as that demonstrate that a patient is likely to engage in self-harm behaviors. This determination does not require an imminent risk of physical harm; or
(b) Physical harm may be inflicted by an individual upon another individual, including:
(A) Acts, behaviors or threats, including verbal threats, which have caused such harm, or which would place a reasonable individual in reasonable fear of sustaining such harm; or
(B) Historical patterns of behavior demonstrating that a patient is likely to cause physical harm or would place a reasonable individual in reasonable fear of sustaining such harm. This determination does not require an imminent risk of physical harm.
(5) "Division" means the Oregon State Hospitals Division of the Oregon Health Authority.
(6) "Guardian" means a legal guardian who is an individual or entity appointed by a court of law to make decisions on behalf of another individual, including but not limited to a legally incapacitated individual.
(7) “Health Care Representative” means an individual who has authority to make health care decisions for a patient.
(8) “Independent Examining Practitioner” is a board-eligible psychiatrist or licensed psychiatric nurse practitioner, who must have been subjected to review by the medical staff executive committee as to qualifications to make such an examination, must have been provided with a copy of administration rules OAR 309-114-0000 through 309-114-0025 and must have participated in a training program regarding these rules, their meaning and application. The independent examining practitioner must not be directly involved in the patient’s current or past treatment or diagnosis, excluding time spent solely as an on-call provider.
(9) "Legally Incapacitated" means having been found by a court of law under ORS 426.295 to be unable, without assistance, to properly manage or take care of one's personal affairs, or who is an individual under guardianship.
(10) "Material Risk." A risk is material if it may have a substantial adverse effect on the patient's psychological or physical health, or both. Tardive dyskinesia is a material risk of neuroleptic medication. Other risks include, but are not limited to raised blood pressure, onset of diabetes and metabolic changes.
(11) Oregon State Hospital” or “OSH” or “hospital” means any campus of the Oregon State Hospital system providing inpatient care and/or treatment to individual who are 18 years or older whether the program where the individual is receiving care and/or treatment is licensed at hospital level of care or other licensed level of care.
(12) "Patient" means an individual who is 18 years or older and receiving inpatient care and/or treatment in a state institution, whether the program where the individual is receiving care and/or treatment is licensed at hospital level of care or other licensed level of care.
(13) Patient with a “grave disability” means a patient who:
(a) Is in danger of serious physical harm to their health or safety absent the proposed significant procedures; or
(b) Manifests severe deterioration in routine functioning evidenced by loss of cognitive or volitional control over their actions which is likely to result in serious harm absent the proposed significant procedures.
(14) "Individual Committed to the Division" or "Individual" means an individual who is 18 years or older and is admitted at OSH for inpatient care and/or treatment under ORS 161.327, 161.328, 161.370, 179.473, 419C.396, 419C.529, 426.130, 426.220, 426.701, 426.702 or 427.215.
(15) "Psychiatric Nurse Practitioner," means a registered nurse with prescription authority who independently provides health care to clients with mental and emotional needs or disorders.
(16) “Routine Medical Procedure” means a procedure customarily administered by facility medical staff under circumstances involving little or no risk of causing injury to a patient including, but not limited to physical examinations, blood draws, influenza vaccinations, tuberculosis (TB) testing, human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) testing and hygiene.
(17) "Significant Procedure" means a diagnostic or treatment modality and all significant procedures of a similar class that pose a material risk of substantial pain or harm to the patient such as, but not limited to psychotropic medication and electro-convulsive therapy. Significant procedures do not include routine medical procedures.
(18) “Significant Procedures of a Similar Class” means a diagnostic or treatment modality that presents substantially similar material risks as the significant procedure listed on the treating physician’s or psychiatric nurse practitioner's informed consent form and is generally considered in current clinical practice to be a substitute treatment or belong to the same class of medications as the listed significant procedure.
(a) For purposes of these rules, medications listed in subsections 18 (a)(A) through 18(a)(F) of this rule must be considered the same or similar class of medication as other medications in the same subsection:
(A) All medications used under current clinical practice as antipsychotic medications including typical and atypical antipsychotic medications;
(B) All medications used under current clinical practice as mood stabilizing medications;
(C) All medications used under current clinical practice as antidepressants;
(D) All medications used under current clinical practice as anxiolytics;
(E) All medications used under current clinical practice as psychostimulants; and
(F) All medications used under current clinical practice as dementia cognitive enhancers.
(b) Significant procedures of the same or similar class do not need to be specifically listed on the treating physician's or psychiatric nurse practitioner's form.
(19) "State Institution" or "Institution" means any campus of the Oregon State Hospital system providing inpatient care and/or treatment to individuals who are 18 years or older.
(20) "Superintendent" means the executive head of the Oregon State Hospital system, or the superintendent's designee.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.321, 183.458, 426.070 & 426.385
- BHS 13-2025, amend filed 05/06/2025, effective 05/11/2025
- BHS 26-2024, temporary amend filed 11/13/2024, effective 11/13/2024 through 05/11/2025
- BHS 20-2024, amend filed 07/23/2024, effective 07/23/2024
- BHS 1-2021, amend filed 01/15/2021, effective 01/15/2021
- BHS 9-2020, temporary amend filed 06/30/2020, effective 06/30/2020 through 12/26/2020
- BHS 17-2018, amend filed 08/01/2018, effective 08/13/2018
- MHS 5-2016, f. & cert. ef. 5-25-16
- MHS 8-2015(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-24-15 thru 5-20-16
- MHS 5-2015, f. & cert. ef. 8-28-15
- MHS 2-2015(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 4-24-15 thru 10-20-15
- MHS 15-2014(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 12-1-14 thru 5-29-15
- MHS 4-2011, f. & cert. ef. 5-19-11
- MHS 13-2010(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-19-10 thru 5-18-11
- MHS 12-2010, f. & cert. ef. 9-9-10
- MHS 5-2010(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 3-12-10 thru 9-8-10
- MHS 6-2009, f. & cert. ef. 12-28-09
- MHS 3-2009, f. & cert. ef. 6-26-09
- MHS 2-2009(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 4-2-09 thru 7-22-09
- MHS 1-2009(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 1-23-09 thru 7-22-09
- MHS 6-2008, f. & cert. ef. 7-25-08
- MHS 2-2008(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 4-7-08 thru 10-4-08
- MHS 14-2007(Temp), f. 11-30-07, cert. ef. 12-1-07 thru 5-29-08
- MHD 3-1988, f. 4-12-88, cert. cert. ef. 6-1-88
- MHD 3-1983, f. 2-24-83, ef. 3-26-83
Or. Admin. R. 309-114-0010 General Policy on Obtaining Informed Consent to Treatment and Training
(1)(a) Basic Rule. Patients, guardians, or healthcare representatives may refuse any significant procedure and may withdraw at any time consent previously given to a significant procedure. Any refusal or withdrawal or withholding of consent must be documented in the patient's record.
(b) Personnel of a state institution must not administer a significant procedure to a patient unless written informed consent is obtained from or on behalf of the patient in the manner prescribed in these rules, except as follows:
(A) Administration of significant procedures to legally incapacitated patients as provided in section (6) of this rule;
(B) Administration of significant procedures without informed consent in emergencies under OAR 309-114-0015;
(C) Involuntary administration of significant procedures with good cause to persons committed to the Division under OAR 309-114-0020; or
(D) Involuntary administration of significant procedures pursuant to a valid court order.
(2) Capacity of the patient: In order to consent to, or refuse, withhold, or withdraw consent to significant procedures, the patient must have the capacity to make a decision concerning acceptance or rejection of a significant procedure, as follows:
(a) Unless adjudicated legally incapacitated for all purposes or for the specific purpose of making treatment decisions, a patient must be presumed competent to consent to, or refuse, withhold, or withdraw consent to significant procedures.
(b) An individual committed to the Division may be deemed unable to consent to or refuse, withhold, or withdraw consent to a significant procedure only if the individual currently demonstrates an inability to reasonably comprehend and weigh the risks and benefits of the proposed procedure, alternative procedures, or no treatment at all including, but not limited to, all applicable factors listed in (3)(a) of this rule.
(c) The patient’s current inability to provide informed consent is to be documented in the patient's record and supported by the patient’s statements or behavior, and may be evidenced in the treating physician’s or psychiatric nurse practitioner's informed consent form, the evaluation form by the independent examining physician and forms approving or disapproving the procedure by the superintendent or chief medical officer.
(d) An individual committed to the Division must not be deemed unable to consent to or refuse, withhold, or withdraw consent to a significant procedure merely by reason of one or more of the following facts:
(A) The individual has been involuntarily committed to the Division;
(B) The individual has been diagnosed as mentally ill;
(C) The individual has disagreed or now disagrees with the treating physician's or psychiatric nurse practitioner’s diagnosis; or
(D) The individual has disagreed or now disagrees with the treating physician's or psychiatric nurse practitioner’s recommendation regarding treatment.
(e) If a court has determined that a patient is legally incapacitated, then consent must be sought from the legal guardian.
(3)(a) Procedures for Obtaining Informed Consent and Information to be Given: The individual from whom informed consent to a significant procedure is sought must be given:
(A) Information, orally and in writing, the substance of which is to be found on the treating physician's or psychiatric nurse practitioner's informed consent form;
(B) In the case of medication, an attached preprinted information sheet on the risks and benefits of the medication listed on the treating physician's or psychiatric nurse practitioner's form; and
(C) All written materials under this rule in English. However, if the institution has reason to believe a patient has limited English language proficiency or the patient requests it, then the institution must make reasonable accommodations to provide the patient with meaningful access to the information, such as providing the patient with copies of the materials in the patient's native language if the materials are readily available in that language or providing the opportunity to have an interpreter orally translate written materials into the patient's native language.
(b) The information given must describe:
(A) The nature and seriousness of the patient's mental illness or condition;
(B) The purpose of the significant procedures listed on the treating physician’s or psychiatric nurse practitioner's form, the intended outcome and the risks and benefits of the procedures. However, specific information about significant procedures of a similar class must not be provided to or discussed with the patient;
(C) Any alternatives, particularly alternatives offering less material risks to the proposed significant procedure that are reasonably available and reasonably comparable in effectiveness;
(D) If the proposed significant procedure is medication, facility medical staff must give the name, dosage range, and frequency of administration of the medication listed on the treating physician’s or psychiatric nurse practitioner's form, and must explain the material risks of the medication at that dosage range.
(E) The side effects of the intended medication or electro-convulsive therapy;
(F) The predicted medical, psychiatric, social, or legal consequences of not accepting the significant procedure or any comparable procedure, including any potential risk the patient represents to the health and safety of the patient, or others, which may include, but is not limited to, a consideration of the patient's history of violence and its relationship to mental health treatment if they do not receive the significant procedure;
(G) That consent may be refused, withheld or withdrawn at any time;
(H) Any additional information concerning the proposed significant procedure requested by the patient.
(c) The treating physician or psychiatric nurse practitioner intending to administer a significant procedure must document in the patient's chart that the information required in subsection (3)(b) of this rule was explained and that the patient, guardian, or healthcare representative explicitly consented, refused, withheld or withdrew consent. The treating physician or psychiatric nurse practitioner may document this by completing the informed consent form and make it part of the patient's record.
(4) When discussing the significant procedure with the treating physician or psychiatric nurse practitioner, the patient may request additional information about the significant procedure pursuant to OAR 309-114-0010(3)(a)(H) and present additional information relevant to making their decision.
(5) Voluntary Consent: Consent to a proposed significant procedure must be given voluntarily, free of any duress or coercion. Subject to the provisions of OAR 309-114-0020, the decision to refuse, withhold or withdraw consent previously given must not result in the denial of any other benefit, privilege, or service solely on the basis of refusing, withholding or withdrawing consent. A voluntary patient may be discharged from the institution if offered procedures are refused.
(6) Obtaining Consent with Respect to Legally Incapacitated Patients: A state institution may not administer a significant procedure to a legally incapacitated patient without the consent of the guardian, except in the case of an emergency under OAR 309-114-0015, where the institution has good cause to involuntarily administer a significant procedure under 309-114-0020, or pursuant to a valid court order. In order to prove good cause, the institution must prove 309-114-0020(1)(a) and (1)(d) in reference to the guardian and 309-114-0020(1)(b) and (1)(c) in reference to the patient.
(7) Reports of Progress: A patient, guardian, or healthcare representative must, upon request, be informed of the progress of the patient during administration of the significant procedure.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.321, 426.070 & 426.385
- BHS 13-2025, amend filed 05/06/2025, effective 05/11/2025
- BHS 26-2024, temporary amend filed 11/13/2024, effective 11/13/2024 through 05/11/2025
- BHS 20-2024, amend filed 07/23/2024, effective 07/23/2024
- BHS 17-2018, amend filed 08/01/2018, effective 08/13/2018
- MHS 5-2015, f. & cert. ef. 8-28-15
- MHS 2-2015(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 4-24-15 thru 10-20-15
- MHS 9-2014, f. & cert. ef. 4-24-14
- MHS 12-2013(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 10-29-13 thru 4-27-14
- MHS 12-2010, f. & cert. ef. 9-9-10
- MHS 3-2009, f. & cert. ef. 6-26-09
- MHS 1-2009(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 1-23-09 thru 7-22-09
- MHS 6-2008, f. & cert. ef. 7-25-08
- MHS 2-2008(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 4-7-08 thru 10-4-08
- MHS 14-2007(Temp), f. 11-30-07, cert. ef. 12-1-07 thru 5-29-08
- MHD 3-1988, f. 4-12-88, cert. ef. 6-1-88
- MHD 3-1983, f. 2-24-83, cert. ef. 3-26-83
Or. Admin. R. 309-114-0015 Administration of Significant Procedures Without Informed Consent in Emergencies
(1) An emergency exists if in the opinion of the chief medical officer or designee:
(a) Immediate action is required to preserve the life or physical health of the patient and it is impracticable to obtain informed consent as provided in OAR 309-114-0010; or
(b) Immediate action is required because the behavior of the patient creates a substantial likelihood of immediate physical harm to the patient or others in the institution and it is impracticable to obtain informed consent as provided in OAR 309-114-0010.
(2) If an emergency exists, the chief medical officer or designee may administer a significant procedure to a patient without obtaining prior informed consent in the manner otherwise required by these rules provided:
(a) The specific nature of each emergency and the procedure which was used to deal with the emergency are adequately documented in the patient's record and a form provided for emergency procedure is completed and placed in the patient's record;
(b) Reasonable effort must be made to contact the legal guardian or healthcare representative prior to the administration of the significant procedure. If contact is not possible, notice must be given to the legal guardian or healthcare representative as soon as possible;
(c) Within a reasonable period of time after an emergency procedure is administered, the treatment team must review the treatment or training program and, if practicable, implement a treatment or training program designed to correct the behavior creating the emergency; and
(d) The administration of a significant procedure in an emergency situation does not allow the institution to administer these procedures, once the emergency has subsided, without obtaining informed consent.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.321, 426.070 & 426.385
- BHS 20-2024, amend filed 07/23/2024, effective 07/23/2024
- MHS 5-2015, f. & cert. ef. 8-28-15
- MHS 2-2015(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 4-24-15 thru 10-20-15
- MHS 12-2010, f. & cert. ef. 9-9-10
- MHS 6-2008, f. & cert. ef. 7-25-08
- MHS 2-2008(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 4-7-08 thru 10-4-08
- MHS 14-2007(Temp), f. 11-30-07, cert. ef. 12-1-07 thru 5-29-08
- MHD 3-1988, f. 4-12-88, cert. ef. 6-1-88
- MHD 3-1983, f. 2-24-83, ef. 3-26-83
Or. Admin. R. 309-114-0020 Involuntary Administration of Significant Procedures to Persons Committed to the Division with Good Cause
(1) Good cause: Good cause exists to administer a significant procedure to an individual committed to the Division without informed consent if in the opinion of the treating physician or psychiatric nurse practitioner after consultation with the treatment team, the following factors are satisfied:
(a) Pursuant to OAR 309-114-0010(2), the individual is deemed unable to consent to, refuse, withhold or withdraw consent to the significant procedure.
(A) This determination must be documented on the treating physician's or psychiatric nurse practitioner's informed consent form and the independent examining practitioner's evaluation form.
(B) The determination must include the specific questions asked and answers given regarding the patient's ability to weigh the risks and benefits of the proposed treatment, alternative treatment and no treatment including, but not limited to all relevant factors listed in OAR 309-114-0010(3)(b).
(b) The proposed significant procedure is likely to restore or prevent deterioration of the person's mental or physical health, alleviate extreme suffering or save or extend the person's life. This factor is established conclusively for purposes of a hearing under OAR 309-114-0025 by introducing into evidence the treating physician's or psychiatric nurse practitioner's informed consent form and the independent examining practitioner's evaluation form, unless this factor is affirmatively raised as an issue by the patient or their representative at the hearing.
(c) The proposed significant procedure is the most appropriate treatment for the person's condition according to current clinical practice and other less intrusive procedures have been considered and all criteria and information set forth in OAR 309-114-0010(3)(b) were considered. This factor is established conclusively for purposes of a hearing under OAR 309-114-0025 by introducing into evidence the treating physician's or psychiatric nurse practitioner's informed consent form and the independent examining practitioner's evaluation form, unless this factor is affirmatively raised as an issue by the patient or their representative at the hearing.
(d) The institution made a conscientious effort to obtain informed consent from the patient.
(A) This factor is established conclusively for purposes of a hearing under OAR 309-114-0025 by introducing into evidence the treating physician's or psychiatric nurse practitioner's informed consent form unless this factor is affirmatively raised as an issue by the patient or their representative at the hearing.
(B) If the institution has reason to believe a patient has limited English language proficiency or the patient requests it, the institution must make reasonable accommodations to provide the patient with meaningful access to the informed consent process, such as providing the patient with the opportunity to have an interpreter orally translate written materials into the patient's native language and provide translation during the treating physician's or psychiatric nurse practitioner's attempts to obtain informed consent.
(C) A "conscientious effort" to obtain informed consent means the patient's treating physician or psychiatric nurse practitioner made at least two good faith attempts to obtain informed consent by attempting to explain the procedure to the patient and documenting those efforts in the patient's record.
(e) Because of the preliminary nature of their commitment, the following additional findings must be made for patients under ORS 161.370 and 419C.398 jurisdiction in order to show good cause under this rule:
(A) Medication is not requested for the sole purpose of restoring trial competency; and
(B) The patient is being medicated because of the patient’s dangerousness or to treat the patient’s grave disability.
(2) Independent Review: Prior to granting approval for the administration of a significant procedure for good cause to an individual committed to the Division, the superintendent or chief medical officer of a state institution for the mentally ill must obtain consultation and approval from an independent examining practitioner, or if a patient refuses to be examined, the superintendent or chief medical officer must document that an independent examining practitioner made at least two good faith attempts to examine the patient. The superintendent or chief medical officer must maintain a list of independent examining practitioners and must seek consultation and approval from one of these independent examining practitioners.
(3) The superintendent or chief medical officer must provide to a patient to whom a significant procedure is proposed to be administered written advance notice of the intent to seek consultation and approval of an independent examining practitioner for the purpose of administering the procedure without the patient's consent.
(4) The practitioner selected to conduct the independent consultation must:
(a) Review the person's medical chart including the records of efforts made to obtain the person's informed consent and
(A) Personally examine the individual at least one time; or
(B) If the patient refuses to be examined, the practitioner must make two good faith attempts to examine the patient. If the patient refuses to be examined during these two good faith attempts, the independent consultation and approval requirement outlined in subsection (4)(a)(A) and (4)(b) of this rule must be deemed to be fulfilled.
(b) Discuss the matter with the individual to determine the extent of the need for the procedure and the nature of the person's refusal, withholding or withdrawal or inability to consent to the significant procedure. This determination as well as the supporting evidence in the form of the specific questions asked and answers given regarding the patient’s ability to weigh the risks and benefits of the proposed treatment, alternative treatment and no treatment must be documented in the patient's record;
(c) Consider additional information, if any, presented prior to or at the time of examination or interview as may be requested by the individual or anyone on behalf of the person; and
(d) Make a determination whether the factors required under these rules exist for the particular individual or that one or more factors are not present and complete a report of their findings which provides their approval or disapproval of the proposed significant procedure. The written report must be provided to:
(A) The superintendent or chief medical officer; and
(B) The individual to whom a significant procedure is proposed to be administered with a copy being made part of the person's record.
(5) Superintendent's Determination:
(a) The superintendent or chief medical officer must approve or disapprove of the administration of the significant procedure to an individual committed to the Division based on good cause provided that if the independent examining practitioner found that one or more of the factors required by section (1) of this rule were not present or otherwise disapproved of the procedure; the superintendent or chief medical officer must not approve the significant procedure and it must not be performed;
(b) Approval of the significant procedure must be only for as long as no substantial increase in risk is encountered in administering the significant procedure or significant procedure of a similar class during the term of a person's commitment, but in no case longer than 180 days. Disapproval must be only for as long as no substantial change occurs in the person's condition during the term of commitment, but in no case longer than 180 days;
(c) Written notice of the superintendent's or chief medical officer's determination must be provided to the patient and made part of the individual's record. This notice must:
(A) Be delivered to the patient and fully explained by facility medical staff;
(B) Include a clear statement of the decision to treat without informed consent, specific basis for the decision, what evidence was relied on to make the decision and include a clear notice of the opportunity to ask for a contested case hearing with an administrative law judge if the patient disagrees with the decision; and
(C) Have an attached form with a simple procedure to request a hearing. The patient indicating in writing or verbally to any staff member a desire to challenge the institution's decision must be sufficient to request a contested case hearing pursuant to OAR 309 114 0025. The patient must have 48 hours to request a contested case hearing after receiving this notice. If the patient does not request a hearing within the 48-hour period or the patient subsequently withdraws their initial hearing request and is not already receiving the significant procedure, the institution may involuntarily administer the significant procedure. A patient retains the right to request an initial hearing on the decision to administer a significant procedure without informed consent at any time.
(d) If the patient withdraws their initial request for hearing or refuses to attend the initial hearing without good cause, the administrative law judge must issue a dismissal order pursuant to OAR 137-003-0672(3). A dismissal order must allow the institution to immediately administer the significant procedure without informed consent as if the patient had never requested a hearing. If a dismissal order is issued, the patient may request a second hearing. If the patient withdraws their second request for hearing or refuses to attend the second hearing without good cause, the hearing must occur as scheduled with the institution presenting a prima facie case pursuant to ORS 183.417(4) and the administrative law judge must issue a proposed order by default. The institution must then issue a final order by default.
(e) Records of all reports by independent examining practitioners of the determinations of the superintendent or chief medical officer under this rule must be maintained by the superintendent or chief medical officer in a separate file and must be summarized each year. Such summaries must show:
(A) Each type of proposed significant procedure for which consultation with an independent examining practitioner was sought;
(B) The number of times consultation was sought from a particular independent examining practitioner for each type of proposed significant procedure;
(C) The number of times each independent examining practitioner approved and disapproved each type of proposed significant procedure; and
(D) The number of times the superintendent or chief medical officer approved and disapproved each type of proposed significant procedure.
(f) The summaries referred to in subsection (5)(e) of this rule must be public records and must be made available to the public during reasonable business hours in accordance with ORS Chapter 192.
(6) When treatment is being administered without informed consent, the physician or psychiatric nurse practitioner must write a progress note addressing any changes in patient's capacity to give informed consent every 60 days.
(7) At any time that a patient's condition changes so that there appears to their treating physician or psychiatric nurse practitioner to be a substantial improvement in the patient's capacity to consent to or refuse treatment, a formal reassessment of the patient's capacity to consent must occur as described in OAR 309-114-0010 and 309-114-0020. No order to administer treatment without informed consent in non-emergency situations must be valid for longer than 180 days or the duration of the commitment, whichever is shorter, without reestablishing the need for the order by following the procedures described in OAR 309-114-0010 and 309-114-0020.
(8) When an individual is transferred to a state institution from a community hospital or another state institution where they were already being treated with a significant procedure without informed consent, the receiving institution must apply OAR 309-114-0000 through 309-114-0025 no later than 7 days after the date of admission to the new institution. A state institution can honor an existing order for involuntary administration of a significant procedure without informed consent if procedures such as those outlined in OAR 309-114-0010 through 309-114-0025 have already been applied and all necessary documentation is in the patient's file.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.321, 426.070 & 426.385
- BHS 13-2025, amend filed 05/06/2025, effective 05/11/2025
- BHS 26-2024, temporary amend filed 11/13/2024, effective 11/13/2024 through 05/11/2025
- BHS 20-2024, amend filed 07/23/2024, effective 07/23/2024
- BHS 3-2023, minor correction filed 01/26/2023, effective 01/26/2023
- BHS 1-2021, amend filed 01/15/2021, effective 01/15/2021
- BHS 9-2020, temporary amend filed 06/30/2020, effective 06/30/2020 through 12/26/2020
- BHS 17-2018, amend filed 08/01/2018, effective 08/13/2018
- MHS 5-2015, f. & cert. ef. 8-28-15
- MHS 2-2015(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 4-24-15 thru 10-20-15
- MHS 9-2014, f. & cert. ef. 4-24-14
- MHS 12-2013(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 10-29-13 thru 4-27-14
- MHS 4-2011, f. & cert. ef. 5-19-11
- MHS 13-2010(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-19-10 thru 5-18-11
- MHS 12-2010, f. & cert. ef. 9-9-10
- MHS 6-2010(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 3-24-10 thru 9-20-10
- MHS 3-2009, f. & cert. ef. 6-26-09
- MHS 1-2009(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 1-23-09 thru 7-22-09
- MHS 6-2008, f. & cert. ef. 7-25-08
- MHS 2-2008(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 4-7-08 thru 10-4-08
- MHS 14-2007(Temp), f. 11-30-07, cert. ef. 12-1-07 thru 5-29-08
- MHD 3-1988, f. 4-12-88, cert. ef. 6-1-88
- MHD 3-1983, f. 2-24-83, cert. ef. 3-26-83
Or. Admin. R. 309-114-0025 Contested Case Hearing
(1) Patient’s Rights: A patient has the right to contest the hospital’s determination that it has good cause to involuntarily administer a significant procedure without informed consent pursuant to OAR 309-114-0020(5)(c). If the patient is legally incapacitated, the guardian has the right to contest the hospital’s determination that it has good cause to involuntarily administer a significant procedure without informed consent pursuant to 309-114-0020(5)(c).
(a) Instructions and a simple method of requesting such a hearing must be provided to every patient when they receive notice that the institution intends to administer a significant procedure without informed consent. The patient indicating in writing or verbally to any staff member a desire to challenge the institution’s decision must be sufficient to request a contested case hearing.
(b) A patient’s verbal or written request for a hearing implies consent to the release of their Oregon State Hospital records and protected health information to their representative, the institution’s representative, and the Office of Administrative Hearings for the purpose of preparing for and conducting the contested case hearing.
(c) After filing a request for an administrative hearing, an attorney or certified law student must be appointed by the Division to represent any patient who requests one. The patient has the right to be represented at the hearing by a representative appointed and paid by the state. The patient also has the right to be represented at the hearing by an attorney or certified law student of their choice and at their own expense.
(d) If a patient requests a contested case hearing and is not already receiving the significant procedure pursuant to a valid physician’s or psychiatric nurse practitioner's order the patient has the right to not receive the significant procedure prior to and during the hearing. If the patient is already receiving the significant procedure pursuant to a valid physician’s or psychiatric nurse practitioner's order, the institution may continue to administer the significant procedure to the patient until the final order is issued.
(2) Contested Case Hearing: The administrative hearing must conform to the requirements set forth in ORS 183.413 through 183.500, and the Attorney General’s Model Rules at OAR 137-003-0501 and the following:
(a) The hearing must be held within 14 days of the date of the patient’s request, unless the patient or their representative or the state institution’s representative requests a delay for good cause or the patient or their representative and the state institution’s representative agree to a postponement. Good cause includes, but is not limited to, the following circumstances: the patient’s ward is quarantined at the time of the hearing, additional time is required to access necessary and relevant records not in the possession of the state institution, or titration of the patient’s medication is necessary to allow minimally adequate communication by the patient with their representative for purposes of the hearing.
(b) These hearings are closed to all non-participants, except personnel from the institution or the Attorney General’s Office, personnel from Disability Rights Oregon, personnel from the Office of Administrative Hearings, or members of the patient’s family. Any exceptions to this policy must be agreed to in advance by the institution’s representative and the patient or their representative. The institution may exclude non-participants, otherwise allowed to attend these hearings, who are disruptive or represent a safety concern.
(c) In lieu of discovery, the patient or their representative must be provided with the treating physician’s or psychiatric nurse practitioner's form, independent examining practitioner’s evaluation form, the superintendent’s or chief medical officer’s form approving or disapproving of the administration of the significant procedure, and the preprinted information regarding the risks and benefits of the proposed significant procedures. The patient or their representative may also review the patient’s chart and consult with the patient’s treating physician or psychiatric nurse practitioner.
(d) The following procedures are not available in these contested case hearings: summary determination procedures as defined in OAR 137-003-580, pre-hearing motions as defined in OAR 137-003-0630, and pre-determination review procedures in OAR 137-003-0640.
(e) A final order must be issued by the administrative law judge within two days, excluding weekends and holidays, after the hearing, except when the administrative law judge determines that there is good cause to delay the final order. All final orders must be issued within 3 days of the close of the hearing or the record, whichever is later, excluding weekends and holidays. A final order is effective immediately upon being signed or as otherwise provided in the order.
(f) If after the hearing, the administrative law judge determines that there is an issue not raised by a party or the agency that impacts the outcome of the case, the administrative law judge must grant a continuance for good cause and inform the institution’s representative and the patient or their representative so that they may present additional arguments and evidence on that issue.
(g) The administrative law judge must determine whether to affirm or reverse the state institution’s decision that it has good cause to involuntarily administer a significant procedure without informed consent from the patient as defined by the factors in OAR 309-114-0020(1) with regards to the significant procedures listed on the treating physician’s or psychiatric nurse practitioner's informed consent form.
(h) A final order affirming or reversing the institution’s decision to involuntarily administer a significant procedure to the patient without informed consent includes all significant procedures listed on the treating physician’s or psychiatric nurse practitioner's informed consent form and all unlisted significant procedures of a similar class.
(i) A final order approving the involuntary administration of the significant procedure without informed consent must be reexamined if the treating physician or psychiatric nurse practitioner determines that there is a substantial increase in the risk to the patient in administering the significant procedure during the term of a person's commitment, but in no case longer than 180 days. Approval of the significant procedure may also be reexamined pursuant to OAR 309-114-0020(8) if the treating physician or psychiatric nurse practitioner determines that there is substantial improvement in the patient’s capacity.
(j) A final order disapproving the involuntary administration of the significant procedure without informed consent lasts for no longer than 180 days. If a substantial change in the patient’s condition occurs during this time, the institution may re-evaluate the patient using the entire OAR 309-114-0020 process, and must additionally document and explain what substantial change in the person’s capacity has occurred since the administrative law judge decision was issued.
(k) If the final order reverses the institution’s decision to involuntarily administer a significant procedure and the patient is already receiving the significant procedure, then the hospital may continue to administer the significant procedure to the extent it is necessary to develop and implement a titration plan to safely discontinue the significant procedure according to current clinical practice.
(l) If the patient withdraws their initial request for hearing or refuses to attend the initial hearing without good cause, the administrative law judge must issue a dismissal order pursuant to OAR 137-003-0672(3). A dismissal order must allow the institution to immediately administer the significant procedure without informed consent as if the patient had never requested a hearing. If a dismissal order is issued, the patient may request a second hearing. If the patient withdraws their second request for hearing or refuses to attend the second hearing without good cause, the hearing must occur as scheduled with the institution presenting a prima facie case pursuant to ORS 183.417(4) and the administrative law judge must issue a final order by default. The final order by default must be issued in a manner consistent with the time frames and process outlined in OAR 309-114-0025(2).
(m) Any administrative law judge who must preside over a hearing regarding involuntary administration of a significant procedure without informed consent must complete agency approved training unique to administration of psychiatric treatment without consent. This training must be developed by the Division in consultation with Disability Rights Oregon.
(n) Subject to the approval of the Attorney General, an agency officer or employee is authorized to appear, but not make legal argument, on behalf of the agency in contested case hearings involving the involuntary administration of a significant procedure to a patient.
(A) For purposes of this rule, the term "legal argument" is used as defined in ORS 183.452 and OAR 137-003-0545.
(B) When an agency officer or employee represents the agency, the presiding officer must advise such representative of the manner in which objections may be made and matters preserved for appeal. Such advice is of a procedural nature and does not change applicable law on waiver or the duty to make timely objection. Where such objections involve legal argument, the presiding officer must provide reasonable opportunity for the agency officer or employee to consult legal counsel and permit such legal counsel to file written legal argument within a reasonable time after the conclusion of the hearing.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.321, ORS 426.070 & ORS 426.385
- BHS 13-2025, amend filed 05/06/2025, effective 05/11/2025
- BHS 26-2024, temporary amend filed 11/13/2024, effective 11/13/2024 through 05/11/2025
- BHS 20-2024, amend filed 07/23/2024, effective 07/23/2024
- MHS 15-2014(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 12-1-14 thru 5-29-15
- MHS 12-2010, f. & cert. ef. 9-9-10
- MHS 3-2009, f. & cert. ef. 6-26-09
- MHS 6-2008, f. & cert. ef. 7-25-08
- MHS 2-2008(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 4-7-08 thru 10-4-08
- MHS 14-2007(Temp), f. 11-30-07, cert. ef. 12-1-07 thru 5-29-08
- MHD 3-1988, f. 4-12-88, cert ef. 6-1-88
- MHD 3-1983, f. 2-24-83, ef. 3-26-83
Division 116 PATIENT RIGHTS
Or. Admin. R. 309-116-0200 Oregon State Hospital Patients Privacy Rights
Patients of the Oregon State Hospital have the right to a humane physical environment that provides adequate privacy for each patient. Each patient shall be provided living quarters that afford reasonable privacy and security in resting, sleeping, dressing, bathing, personal hygiene, and toileting. For example, all showers and bathrooms in patient rooms shall have shower curtains. These provisions may not be interpreted as requiring individual sleeping quarters or to relieve hospital staff from obligations to perform safety checks. These rights may be limited only by an order written by an OSH License Provider in the State of Oregon based upon a patient’s clinical needs as documented in the patient’s records.
[ED. NOTE: To view attachments referenced in rule text, click here to view rule.]
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 413.042, 426.072 & 179.040
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.010, 426.072 & 426.385
- BHS 19-2018, adopt filed 08/06/2018, effective 08/07/2018
- MHS 3-2018, temporary adopt filed 02/27/2018, effective 02/27/2018 through 08/25/2018
Division 118 GRIEVANCE PROCEDURES FOR USE IN STATE INSTITUTIONS
Or. Admin. R. 309-118-0000 Purpose and Scope
These rules prescribe a process to address the informal complaints and grievances that an Oregon State Hospital patient, or a representative on the patient's behalf, might have in regards to the hospital or its staff. These rules also establish a review process for patients or their representatives who are not satisfied with the resolution of their grievances.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 413.042, 179.321 & 179.360
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.385, 179.321 & 179.360
- BHS 25-2022, amend filed 12/20/2022, effective 12/20/2022
- BHS 10-2022, temporary amend filed 06/28/2022, effective 06/28/2022 through 12/24/2022
- BHS 4-2021, amend filed 02/17/2021, effective 02/17/2021
- MHD 15-1982, f. 7-9-82, ef. 7-23-82
Or. Admin. R. 309-118-0005 Definitions
As used in these rules:
(1) “Abuse” means any act or absence of action toward a patient by staff that falls within the definition of abuse found in ORS 430.735.
(2) “Allegation of Abuse” means a grievance by a patient or their representative alleging that the patient has been abused by OSH staff.
(3) “Communicable Disease” means a disease or condition, the infectious agent of which may be transmitted by any means from one individual or from an animal to an individual, that may result in illness, death or severe disability.
(4) “Director” or “OHA Director” means the individual appointed by the governor to act as the executive head of OHA and is the governing body of OSH. For purposes of these rules, “Director” or “OHA Director” also includes the Director’s designee.
(5) “Grievance” means a patient’s or their representative’s complaint regarding:
(a) The substance or application of any rule or OSH policy that adversely affects the patient;
(b) The lack of a rule or OSH policy concerning a matter that adversely affects the patient; or
(c) Any decision or action by OSH staff that adversely affects the patient.
(6) “Grievance Committee” means a committee at OSH, delegated by the Director of the Oregon Health Authority, to have the responsibility of reviewing and resolving all patient grievances, and is made up of more than one OSH or OHA staff member.
(7) “Informal Complaint” means a patient’s or their representative’s written or verbal complaint involving a relatively minor request or dissatisfaction regarding the patient’s care that can be addressed at the time of the complaint by staff present. Examples include: a change in bedding, housekeeping of a room, and serving a preferred food and beverage. An informal complaint does not include:
(a) An allegation of abuse, neglect, patient harm, or the hospital’s compliance with CMS requirements; or
(b) An issue that cannot be resolved at the time of the complaint by staff present, is postponed for later resolution, is referred to other staff for later resolution, requires investigation, or requires further actions for resolution.
(8)“Isolation” means the physical separation and confinement of an individual or a group of individuals who are infected or reasonably believed to be infected with a communicable disease or possible communicable disease from non-isolated individuals to prevent or limit the transmission of the disease to non-isolated individuals.
(9) “Oregon Health Authority” or “OHA” means the state agency that is responsible for operating, controlling, managing and supervising OSH.
(10) “Oregon State Hospital” or “OSH” or “hospital” means any campus of the Oregon State Hospital system.
(11) “Ombuds” means an OSH staff member designated by the Superintendent to provide consultation to the Grievance Committee and to potentially provide another level of review of the grievance resolution.
(12) “Patient” means an individual who is receiving care and/or treatment at OSH, whether the program where the individual is receiving care and/or treatment is licensed as hospital level of care or other licensed level of care.
(13) “Quarantine” means the physical separation and confinement of an individual or group of individuals who have been or may have been exposed to a communicable disease or a possible communicable disease and who do not show signs or symptoms of a communicable disease, from other individuals who have not been exposed to a communicable disease or possible communicable disease and who do not show signs or symptoms of a communicable disease, to prevent or limit the transmission of the disease to other individuals.
(14) “Representative” means an individual who has the legal authority or agreement of the patient to act on behalf of the patient with respect to the grievance or review of the grievance, including, but not limited to a relative, friend, staff member, attorney or legal guardian. A patient shall not act as a “representative” for another patient in the informal complaint, grievance or review process.
(15) ”Review Process” means a separate procedure that allows the Ombuds and/or OHA Director to review the resolution the grievance.
(16) “Superintendent” means the executive head of OSH or their designee.
(17) “Treatment Staff” means OSH staff who provide direct treatment to patients.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 413.042, 179.321 & 179.360
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.385, 179.321 & 179.360
- BHS 25-2022, amend filed 12/20/2022, effective 12/20/2022
- BHS 10-2022, temporary amend filed 06/28/2022, effective 06/28/2022 through 12/24/2022
- BHS 4-2021, amend filed 02/17/2021, effective 02/17/2021
- MHD 15-1982, f. 7-9-82, ef. 7-23-82
Or. Admin. R. 309-118-0010 Policy Statement
(1) It is the policy of OSH that the care and treatment of its patients be administered in a manner that preserves their civil and legal rights. OSH will maintain a process for patients and their representatives to resolve informal complaints or grievances concerning the patient’s care, treatment and rights. It is OSH’s policy to encourage all personnel to alert treatment staff concerning any patient’s or their representative’s informal complaint, grievance, or request for review.
(2) OSH recognizes the responsibility and authority of other state and federal agencies to receive and review complaints from patients or their representatives. No patient or representative shall be subjected to reprisal by OSH or OSH staff for contacting or seeking review of an informal complaint or grievance under these rules or outside of OSH.
(3) A patient or patient’s representative who files an informal complaint or grievance may pursue other remedies, including, but not limited to, filing a grievance directly with the state agency that has licensure survey responsibility over OSH.
(4) If the grievance involves an allegation of abuse, the Grievance Committee shall refer the allegation immediately to the agency responsible for investigating patient abuse pursuant to ORS 430.745 and OAR 943-045-0000.
(5) Nothing in this section modifies an individual’s mandatory abuse reporting obligations.
(6) Nothing in these rules is intended to affect the right of a patient to seek independent redress of grievances by access to state or federal courts.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 413.042, 179.321 & 179.360
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.385, 179.321 & 179.360
- BHS 39-2023, minor correction filed 09/20/2023, effective 09/20/2023
- BHS 25-2022, amend filed 12/20/2022, effective 12/20/2022
- BHS 10-2022, temporary amend filed 06/28/2022, effective 06/28/2022 through 12/24/2022
- BHS 4-2021, amend filed 02/17/2021, effective 02/17/2021
- MHD 15-1982, f. 7-9-82, ef. 7-23-82
Or. Admin. R. 309-118-0015 Issues Ineligible for Grievance or Review Process
Notwithstanding the definition of a grievance in OAR 309-118-0005, a patient’s or their representative’s compliant shall not be processed through the grievance or review procedures set forth in these rules if:
(1) There is a contested case hearing or other separate process recognized by statute or administrative rule that affords notice and opportunity to be heard before an impartial decision-maker concerning that issue, including but not limited to institutional reimbursement orders, OSH informed consent decisions, and judicial determinations of continued mental illness or cognitive disability;
(2) The issue is something that OSH does not have the authority to change, including but not limited to state or federal laws, court orders and actions or decisions by other agencies, including but not limited to commitment and discharge;
(3) The patient has previously submitted a grievance or review request on the issue that resulted in a written response, and nothing has occurred that changes the previous response;
(4) Grieving an issue on behalf of another patient;
(5) Statements that do not allege a grievance; or
(6) Disagreements about a treating practitioner’s medical diagnosis of the patient.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 413.042, 179.321 & 179.360
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.385, 179.321 & 179.360
- BHS 25-2022, amend filed 12/20/2022, effective 12/20/2022
- BHS 10-2022, temporary amend filed 06/28/2022, effective 06/28/2022 through 12/24/2022
- BHS 4-2021, amend filed 02/17/2021, effective 02/17/2021
- Reverted to MHD 15-1982, f. 7-9-82, ef. 7-23-82
- MHS 14-2007(Temp), f. 11-30-07, cert. ef. 12-1-07 thru 5-29-08
- MHD 15-1982, f. 7-9-82, ef. 7-23-82
Or. Admin. R. 309-118-0020 Grievance Process
(1) Informal Complaint: Whenever possible, a patient or patient’s representative should attempt to present and resolve complaints informally with the individual(s) involved in the complaint.
(a) An informal complaint may be made verbally or in writing by the patient or patient’s representative, provided that the writing is not on an OSH Grievance Form.
(b) No written response is required for an informal complaint.
(c) Informal complaints are not subject to review or appeal.
(d) If the patient is dissatisfied with the outcome of the informal complaint or the issue qualifies as a grievance, then the treatment staff shall provide the patient or their representative with the OSH Grievance Form and assist the patient or their representative with completing the form if requested.
(2) Grievance: A patient or their representative may submit a grievance using the OSH Grievance Form, and may request treatment staff to assist them with completion of the form. The form shall provide notice to the patient or their representative that the grievance may be submitted directly to the state agency that has licensure survey responsibility over OSH, and provide the patient or their representative with the contact information for that agency.
(a) A grievance must include a reason for the grievance and a proposed resolution and must be set out in writing on an OSH Grievance Form.
(b) The patient or their representative must put the completed OSH Grievance Form into the designated grievance area;
(c) Upon receipt of the Grievance form, the Grievance Committee shall:
(A) Assign a treatment staff member, who is not the subject of the grievance, to discuss the matter personally, either in person or through simultaneous telephonic or video means, with the patient and, if applicable, their representative, unless the patient or their representative declines to meet with the treatment staff member;
(B) Consider information provided by the patient or their representative, the assigned treatment staff member, appropriate subject matter experts, and any other information relevant to the grievance;
(C) Prepare a written response to the grievance, which contains: the name of the hospital contact person, the steps taken on behalf of the patient to investigate the grievance, the results of the grievance process, and the date of completion;
(D) Provide a copy of the written response to the patient or their representative and to the Ombuds within 7 calendar days.
(E) Notwithstanding subsection (2)(c)(D) of this rule, the Grievance Committee may extend the 7 calendar day response timeline for good cause, including but not limited to the need for additional investigation, multiple grievances included in one form, the number of grievances being processed at one time by the Grievance Committee, or delays caused by quarantine or isolation. If the response time is extended, within 7 calendar days of the Grievance Form being received, the Grievance Committee shall notify the patient or their representative in writing that their grievance is being reviewed and provide an estimated length of time before the patient will receive their written response of resolution and the good cause reason for the delay.
(F) For purposes of providing a written response or notice of delay under subsections (2)(c)(D) and (E) of this rule, the response or notice will be considered provided on the date that it is personally delivered, mailed by regular mail to the address on record, or by email to the patient or their representative.
(3) The Grievance Committee’s written response under subsections (2)(c)(D) and (E) of this rule resolves the grievance for purposes of the grievance process.
(4) Nothing in this rule creates a right to a contested hearing under ORS Chapter 183.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 413.042, 179.321 & 179.360
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.385, 179.321 & 179.360
- BHS 25-2022, amend filed 12/20/2022, effective 12/20/2022
- BHS 10-2022, temporary amend filed 06/28/2022, effective 06/28/2022 through 12/24/2022
- BHS 4-2021, amend filed 02/17/2021, effective 02/17/2021
- MHD 15-1982, f. 7-9-82, ef. 7-23-82
Or. Admin. R. 309-118-0023 OSH and OHA Review Processes for Resolved Grievances
(1) OSH and OHA recognize that a patient or their representative may not be satisfied with the resolution of their grievance(s) as provided in OAR 309-118-0020 and therefore provide an optional two-tiered review process.
(2) OSH Review Process: If the patient or their representative is not satisfied with the resolution of their grievance by the Grievance Committee, the patient or their representative may request an OSH Review.
(a) The patient or their representative must complete an OSH Review Form or may request treatment staff to assist them with completion of the form. The patient or their representative must provide a reason why they disagree with the resolution of the grievance and provide a proposed resolution.
(b) To be timely, the patient or their representative must provide the completed OSH Review Form to treatment staff to submit to the Ombuds or submit the OSH Review Form directly to the Ombuds within 14 calendar days after receiving the Grievance Committee Response. If the patient or their representative fail to timely request an OSH Review, OSH shall not grant an OSH Review unless there is good cause for the untimely submission. Good cause means a delay caused by something outside the control of the patient or their representative.
(c) The Ombuds shall review the OSH Review Form, Grievance Form, and Grievance Committee response. The Ombuds shall also consider information provided by the patient or their representative, any other information relevant to the grievance, and may take any other action to investigate the matter as they deem appropriate.
(d) The Ombuds shall provide a written response to the OSH Review Request to the patient or their representative within 14 calendar days of receipt of the request.
(2) OHA Review Process: If the patient or their representative is not satisfied with the OSH Review Response or did not receive an OSH Review Response within 14 calendar days of submitting their OSH Review Request, the patient or their representative may request an OHA Review.
(a) The patient or their representative must complete an OHA Review Form or may request treatment staff to assist them with completion of the form. The patient or their representative must provide a reason why they disagree with the OHA Review Response and provide a proposed resolution.
(b) To be timely, the patient or their representative must provide the completed OHA Review Form to treatment staff to submit to the Ombuds or submit the OSH Review Form directly to the Ombuds within 14 calendar days after receiving the OSH Review Response or, if they did not timely receive an OSH Review Response, within 28 calendar days of submitting their OSH Review Request. If the patient or their representative fail to timely request an OHA Review, OSH shall not grant an OHA Review unless there is good cause for the untimely submission. Good cause means a delay caused by something outside of the control of the patient or their representative.
(c) The Ombuds shall provide copies of the OHA Review Request, Grievance Form, Grievance Committee’s Response, OSH Review Form, and OSH Review Response to the OHA Director.
(d) The OHA Director shall review all documents provided and may take any other action to investigate the matter as they deem appropriate.
(e) The OHA Director shall provide a written response within 21 calendar days of receipt of an OHA Review Request to the patient or their representative.
(f) The OHA Review decision is final and is not subject to further review by OHA.
(3) Nothing in this section creates a right to a contested hearing under ORS Chapter 183.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 413.042, 179.321 & 179.360
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.385, 179.321 & 179.360
- BHS 25-2022, adopt filed 12/20/2022, effective 12/20/2022
- BHS 10-2022, temporary adopt filed 06/28/2022, effective 06/28/2022 through 12/24/2022
Or. Admin. R. 309-118-0030 Representatives
(1) A patient has the right to have a representative, as defined in OAR 309-118-0005, to assist them in the grievance and review process. A patient shall not act as a representative for another patient in the grievance process.
(2) If the patient and the representative disagree about submitting the grievance or request for review, the patient’s grievance or review request will be addressed as provided in these rules, except where the representative is the patient’s legal guardian or health care representative and has legal authority to make decisions on behalf of the patient.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 413.042, 179.321 & 179.360
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.385, 179.321 & 179.360
- BHS 25-2022, amend filed 12/20/2022, effective 12/20/2022
- BHS 10-2022, temporary amend filed 06/28/2022, effective 06/28/2022 through 12/24/2022
- BHS 4-2021, amend filed 02/17/2021, effective 02/17/2021
- MHD 15-1982, f. 7-9-82, ef. 7-23-82
Or. Admin. R. 309-118-0035 Responsibilities of OSH Staff in Grievance and Review Process
(1) Treatment staff and Ombuds shall be notified in writing of the rules and policies related to the grievance and review process.
(2) Treatment staff shall assist the patient or their representative with the grievance and review process upon request.
(a) Treatment staff and Ombuds responsible for administering the grievance or review process shall do so with the intent of achieving a fair resolution.
(b) Treatment staff who assist patients or their representatives in using the grievance or review process shall not be disciplined or otherwise subjected to reprisal for those actions, provided that such individuals act in good faith and for the purpose of protecting the rights of the patient.
(3) All OSH staff shall cooperate with the Grievance Committee, Ombuds, OSH Office of Legal Affairs, and OHA Director in the resolution of grievances or in the review process.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 413.042, 179.321 & 179.360
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.385, 179.321 & 179.360
- BHS 25-2022, amend filed 12/20/2022, effective 12/20/2022
- BHS 10-2022, temporary amend filed 06/28/2022, effective 06/28/2022 through 12/24/2022
- BHS 4-2021, amend filed 02/17/2021, effective 02/17/2021
- MHD 15-1982, f. 7-9-82, ef. 7-23-82
Or. Admin. R. 309-118-0046 Grievance Committee
(1) If any member of the Grievance Committee is the subject of the patient’s or their representative’s grievance, then that member shall recuse themselves from the decision-making process on that grievance. If recusal will lead to fewer than two members on the Grievance Committee, then another treatment staff member or Ombuds will be assigned to that Grievance Committee.
(2) Prior to serving on a Grievance Committee, all members or potential members shall participate and successfully complete OSH-approved grievance training and review the current grievance policy.
(3) For grievances related to race, religion, national origin, gender identity, sexual orientation, tribal affiliation, cultural practices, immigration status, and limited English proficiency, the Grievance Committee shall consult with the hospital’s Liaison to the Office of Equity and Inclusion, the Ombud’s office or OSH’s Office of Legal Affairs before issuing a written response.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 413.042, 179.321 & 179.360
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.385, 179.321 & 179.360
- BHS 25-2022, adopt filed 12/20/2022, effective 12/20/2022
- BHS 10-2022, temporary adopt filed 06/28/2022, effective 06/28/2022 through 12/24/2022
Or. Admin. R. 309-118-0050 Posting of Grievance and Review Process
Upon admission, OSH shall inform patients both orally and in writing, of the rights, policies, and processes set forth in these rules. A clear and simple statement of the grievance and review processes shall be prominently posted in areas frequented by patients, including each OSH unit, suite and cottage. Copies of the OSH Grievance Form, OSH Review Form, and OHA Review Forms shall be accessible and available to patients and their representatives.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 413.042, 179.321 & 179.360
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 426.385, 179.321 & 179.360
- BHS 25-2022, amend filed 12/20/2022, effective 12/20/2022
- BHS 10-2022, temporary amend filed 06/28/2022, effective 06/28/2022 through 12/24/2022
- BHS 4-2021, amend filed 02/17/2021, effective 02/17/2021
- MHD 15-1982, f. 7-9-82, ef. 7-23-82
Division 120 PATIENT TRANSFERS
Or. Admin. R. 309-120-0070 Purpose
These rules prescribe procedures by which offenders in Oregon Youth Authority (OYA) close custody facilities may be transferred to a state mental hospital or a facility designated by the Addictions and Mental Health Division for evaluation and treatment.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 179.473, 420.500 & 420.505
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.040, 179.473, 420.500 & 420.505
- MHD 9-2005, f. 12-28-05, cert. ef. 1-1-06
- MHD 8-2005(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 7-15-05 thru 1-7-06
Or. Admin. R. 309-120-0075 Definitions
As used in these rules:
(1) “Close custody facility” means any of the secure facilities operated by the OYA, including, but not limited to, youth correctional facilities, work/study camps, and transition camps.
(2) “Facility designated by the Oregon Health Authority (Authority)” means a hospital or secure non-hospital facility designated by the Authority to provide evaluation and treatment services for offenders under the age of 18.
(3) “Hearing Officer” means an independent decision maker designated to conduct an administrative commitment hearing for an offender.
(4) “Mentally ill offender” means an offender who, because of a mental disorder or a severe emotional disorder, is one or more of the following:
(a) Dangerous to self or others;
(b) Is unable to provide for basic personal needs and is not receiving such psychiatric care as is necessary for health or safety; or
(c) An offender, who unless treated, will continue, with a reasonable medical probability, to physically or mentally deteriorate so that the offender will become a person described under either or both subparagraph (4)(a) or (4)(b) of this rule.
(5) “Offender” means a person placed in OYA close custody facility, including adults in the legal custody of the Department of Corrections (DOC).
(6) “State Mental Hospital” as defined in ORS 426.010. Except as otherwise ordered by the Authority pursuant to ORS 179.325, the Oregon State Hospitals in Salem, Marion County, and Portland, Multnomah County, and the Blue Mountain Recovery Center in Pendleton, Umatilla County, will be used as state hospitals for the care and treatment of mentally ill offenders age 18 and over who are transferred by the OYA pursuant to these rules.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 179.473, 179.479 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.471-179.486, 179.495-179.508 & 420.500-420.525
- BHS 17-2023, minor correction filed 07/11/2023, effective 07/11/2023
- MHD 9-2005, f. 12-28-05, cert. ef. 1-1-06
- MHD 8-2005(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 7-15-05 thru 1-7-06
Or. Admin. R. 309-120-0080 Procedures for Transfer
(l) The OYA close custody facility Superintendent, the Director of the OYA, or the Director’s designee may request that the Superintendent of a state mental hospital or a facility designated by the Authority for evaluation and treatment accept a transfer of a mentally ill offender to a state mental hospital or facility designated by the Authority.
(2) If the Superintendent of the state mental hospital or facility designated by the Authority approves a transfer request made under paragraph (1) of this rule, the offender will be transferred.
(3) An offender may be transferred to a state mental hospital or a facility designated by the Authority for stabilization and evaluation for mental health treatment for a period not to exceed 30 days unless the transfer is extended with offender consent or following an administrative commitment hearing pursuant to paragraph (4) of this rule.
(4) Administrative commitments for offenders in the legal custody of the DOC and in the physical custody of the OYA will be accomplished through a hearing conducted by an OYA hearing officer in accordance with these rules. DOC offenders in OYA physical custody requiring mental health evaluation and treatment will be transferred directly from an OYA facility to a state mental hospital listed in ORS 426.010 or a hospital or facility designated by the Authority and returned directly to the OYA facility.
(5) The Authority will provide for an administrative commitment hearing conducted by a hearing officer employed or under contract with the OYA for administrative commitment or extension of the transfer of the offender if:
(a) The Authority determines that administrative commitment for treatment for a mental illness is necessary or advisable or that the Authority needs more than 30 days to stabilize or evaluate the offender; and
(b) The offender does not consent to the administrative commitment or an extension of the transfer.
(6) The administrative commitment hearing process will, at a minimum, include the following procedures:
(a) Not less than 24 hours before the administrative commitment hearing is scheduled to occur, the hearing officer will provide written notice of the hearing to the offender and the offender’s parent/guardian if the offender is less than 18 years of age.
(b) The notice will include the following information:
(A) A statement that an administrative commitment to a state mental hospital listed in ORS 426.010 or a facility designated by the Authority, or an extension of the transfer, is being considered.
(B) A concise statement of the reason for administrative commitment or extension of the transfer.
(C) The offender’s right to a hearing.
(D) The time and place of the hearing.
(E) Notice that the purpose of the administrative commitment hearing is to determine whether there is clear and convincing evidence that the offender is a mentally ill person as defined in ORS 426.005 such that administrative commitment or an extension of the transfer is warranted.
(F) The names of persons who have given information relevant to of the administrative commitment or extension of the transfer, and the offender’s right to have these persons present at the administrative commitment hearing for the purposes of confrontation and cross-examination.
(G) The offender’s right to admit or deny the allegations and present letters, documents, affidavits, or persons with relevant information at the administrative hearing in support of his/her defense or contentions, subject to the exclusions and restrictions provided in these rules.
(H) The offender’s right to be represented by an attorney at his/her own expense. Assistance by a qualified and independent person approved by the hearing officer will be ordered upon a finding that assistance is necessary based upon the offender’s financial inability to provide an assistant, language barriers, or competence and capacity of an offender to prepare a defense, to understand the proceedings, or to understand the rights available to him or her. An offender subject to an administrative commitment hearing may not receive assistance from another offender.
(I) A copy of this rule.
(c) The administrative commitment hearing will be held no more than five (5) days from the date of the written notice of the hearing.
(A) Prior to the commencement of the administrative commitment hearing, the hearing officer will furnish the offender a written explanation of the proceedings.
(B) The administrative commitment hearing will be conducted by a hearing officer employed or under contract with the OYA. The hearing officer will not have participated in any previous way in the assessment process.
(C) At the administrative commitment hearing, the offender will have an opportunity to be heard in person and through his/her attorney or independent assistant, if any.
(d) The administrative commitment hearing will be conducted in the following manner.
(A) Statement and evidence of the Authority in support of the action.
(B) Statement and evidence of the offender.
(C) Questioning, examination, or cross-examination of witnesses, unless in the opinion of the hearing officer an informant or witness would be subjected to risk of harm if his/her identity is disclosed.
(i) The offender’s attorney or assistant, if any, may cross-examine witnesses, unless the hearing officer determines that it is necessary to deny cross-examination to preserve the anonymity of the witness.
(ii) If the offender has no attorney, the OYA Superintendent or designee will, if he/she has not already done so, appoint a qualified and independent person not directly involved with the offender, to cross-examine the witness for the offender. The hearing may be recessed if necessary for this purpose.
(D) The administrative commitment hearing may be continued with recesses as determined by the hearing officer.
(E) The hearing officer may set reasonable time limits for oral presentation and may exclude or limit cumulative, repetitious or immaterial evidence.
(F) The burden of presenting evidence to support a fact or position rests on the proponent of that fact or position. An offender may be administratively committed or the transfer extended only if the hearing officer finds by clear and convincing evidence that the offender is a mentally ill person as defined in ORS 426.005.
(G) Exhibits will be marked and the markings will identify the person offering the exhibit. The exhibits will be preserved by the OYA as part of the record of the proceedings.
(H) Evidentiary rules are as follows.
(i) Evidence of a type commonly relied upon by reasonably prudent persons in conduct of their serious affairs is admissible.
(ii) Irrelevant, immaterial, or unduly repetitious evidence will be excluded.
(iii) All offered evidence, not objected to, will be received by the hearing officer subject to his/her power to exclude irrelevant, immaterial, or unduly repetitious evidence.
(iv) Evidence objected to may be received by the hearing officer with rulings on its admissibility or exclusion to be made at the hearing or at the time a final order is issued.
(I) All testimony will be given under oath.
(J) The hearing officer may discontinue the commitment proceedings at any time and may return the offender to the OYA facility.
(7) The hearing officer will make a written summary of what occurs at the hearing, including the response of the offender and the substance of the documents or evidence given in support of administrative commitment.
(a) A mechanical recording of all oral testimony and presentations will be made. This tape may be reviewed by the hearing officer before any findings are determined, or in the event of a judicial review.
(b) Tapes will be kept at least 120 days after the final order is issued.
(8) The hearing officer will issue a written proposed order that contains:
(a) Rulings on admissibility of offered evidence and other matters;
(b) Findings of fact (each ultimate fact as determined by the hearing officer based on the evidence before it); and
(c) Conclusions and recommendations for action by the hearing officer.
(A) No Justification: The hearing officer may find that the evidence does not support placement in a state mental hospital listed in ORS 426.010 or a hospital or facility designated by the Authority, in which case the hearing officer will recommend that the offender return to his or her former status with all rights and privileges of that status. The hearing record will be processed with final action subject to review by the Director of the Authority or designee. The findings must be on the merits. Technical or clerical errors in the writing or processing of the transfer request, or both, will not be grounds for a no justification finding, unless there is substantial prejudice to the offender.
(B) Justification: The hearing officer may find the evidence supports the offender’s placement in a state mental hospital listed in ORS 426.010 or a hospital or facility designated by the Authority, in which case the hearing officer will so inform the offender and recommend that the offender’s administrative commitment exceed 30 days. The hearing record will be processed with final action subject to review by the Director of the Authority or designee. An offender’s administrative commitment to a state mental hospital will not exceed 180 days unless the commitment is renewed in a subsequent administrative hearing in accordance with these rules.
(9) Hearing Record:
(a) Upon completion of a hearing, the hearing officer will prepare and cause to be delivered to the Director of the Authority or designee a hearing record within three (3) days from the date of the hearing.
(b) The hearing record will include:
(A) Examination reports
(B) Notice of hearing and rights;
(C) Recording of hearing;
(D) Supporting material(s); and
(E) Findings of Fact, Conclusions, and Recommendation of the hearing officer.
(10) The results of any hearing held to place an offender in a state mental hospital for administrative commitment will be reviewed and approved by the Director of the Authority or designee. The Director of the Authority or designee will review the Findings-of-Fact, Conclusions, and Recommendation of the hearing officer, in terms of the following factors:
(a) Was there substantial compliance with this rule;
(b) Was the decision based on substantial information; and
(c) Was the decision proportionate to the information and consistent with the provisions of this rule.
(11) Within three (3) days of the receipt of the hearing officer’s report, the Director of the Authority or designee will enter an order, which may:
(a) Affirm the recommendation;
(b) Modify the recommendation;
(c) Reverse the recommendation; or
(d) Reopen the hearing for the introduction and consideration of additional evidence.
(12) When the Director of the Authority or designee takes action to modify or reverse, he or she must state the reason(s) in writing and immediately notify the offender, hearing officer, and the Superintendent of the sending OYA facility.
(13) When the Director of the Authority or designee reopens the hearing under this rule, the hearing officer will, pursuant to these rules, conduct the reopened hearing and prepare an amended hearing record within three (3) days of the reopened hearing. The Director of the Authority or designee will review the hearing officer’s recommendation and enter an amended order, which may affirm, modify, or reverse the hearing officer’s recommendation.
(14) Extension of Transfer: If the Authority determines that the administrative commitment must exceed 180 days in order to stabilize the offender; the administrative commitment must be renewed in a subsequent administrative commitment hearing held in accordance with these rules.
(15) Notwithstanding this rule, an administrative commitment may not continue beyond the term of legal custody to which the offender was sentenced.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 179.473, 179.479 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.471-179.486, 179.495-179.508 & 420.500-420.525
- MHD 9-2005, f. 12-28-05, cert. ef. 1-1-06
- MHD 8-2005(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 7-15-05 thru 1-7-06
Or. Admin. R. 309-120-0200 Purpose
Purpose. These rules prescribe procedures by which adults in custody of Department of Corrections facilities may be transferred to a state mental hospital listed in ORS 426.010.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 179.473, 179.479 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.471-179.486 & 179.495-179.508
- BHS 18-2023, minor correction filed 07/11/2023, effective 07/11/2023
- Renumbered from 309-120-0000, MHD 10-2005, f. 12-29-05, cert. ef. 1-1-06
- MHD 7-2005(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 7-7-05 thru 1-3-06
- MHD 1-2000, f. & cert. ef. 1-24-00
- MHD 3-1995, f. & cert. ef. 4-13-95
- MHD 8-1983, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-83, Renumbered from 309-023-0010(1), (2)
- MHD 1-1983(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 1-5-83
- MHD 1-1981, f. & cert. ef. 6-5-81
- MHD 3-1980, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-80
- MHD 12-1979(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-21-79
- MHD 5-1979, f. & cert. ef. 8-14-79
- MHD 43, f. & cert. ef. 11-5-76
Or. Admin. R. 309-120-0205 Definitions
As used in these rules:
(1) "Department of Corrections Facility" means any institution, facility or staff office, including the grounds, operated by the Department of Corrections.
(2) "Adult in custody" means any person under the supervision of the Department of Corrections who is not on parole, probation, or post-prison supervision status.
(3) "Mentally Ill Adult in Custody" means an adult in custody who, because of a mental disorder, is one or more of the following:
(a) Dangerous to self or others.
(b) Unable to provide for basic personal needs and is not receiving such care as is necessary for health or safety.
(c) An adult in custody who:
(A) Is chronically mentally ill, as defined in ORS 426.495;
(B) Within the previous three years, has twice been placed in a hospital or approved inpatient facility by the Oregon Health Authority under ORS 426.060;
(C) Is exhibiting symptoms or behavior substantially similar to those that preceded and led to one or more of the hospitalizations or inpatient placements referred to in subparagraph (3)(c)(B) of this rule; and
(D) Unless treated, will continue, to a reasonable medical probability, to physically or mentally deteriorate so that the adult in custody will become a person described under either or both subparagraph (3)(c)(A) or (3)(c)(B) of this rule.
(4) “State Mental Hospital” as defined in ORS 426.010. Except as otherwise ordered by the Oregon Health Authority pursuant to 179.325, the Oregon State Hospital in Salem, Marion County, and in Junction City, Lane County, shall be used as the state hospital for the care and treatment of mentally ill persons who are assigned to the care of such institutions by the Authority or who have previously been committed to such institutions.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 179.473, 179.479 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.471-179.486 & 179.495-179.508
- BHS 19-2023, minor correction filed 07/11/2023, effective 07/11/2023
- Renumbered from 309-120-0005, MHD 10-2005, f. 12-29-05, cert. ef. 1-1-06
- MHD 7-2005(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 7-7-05 thru 1-3-06
- MHD 1-2000, f. & cert. ef. 1-24-00
- MHD 3-1995, f. & cert. ef. 4-13-95
- MHD 8-1983, f. & ef. 4-1-83, Renumbered from 309-023-0010(3)
- MHD 1-1983(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 1-5-83
- MHD 1-1981, f. & cert. ef. 6-5-81
- MHD 3-1980, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-80
- MHD 12-1979(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-21-79
- MHD 5-1979, f. & cert. ef. 8-14-79
- MHD 43, f. & cert. ef. 11-5-76
Or. Admin. R. 309-120-0210 Administrative Transfers (Mentally Ill Adults in Custody)
(1) The Administrator of the Department of Corrections Counseling and Treatment Services Unit/designee may request the Superintendent/designee of a state mental hospital listed in ORS 426.010 to accept a transfer of a mentally ill adult in custody to a state mental hospital pursuant to these rules.
(2) An adult in custody may be transferred to a state mental hospital for stabilization and evaluation for mental health treatment for a period not to exceed 30 days unless the transfer is extended pursuant to a hearing conducted in accordance with these rules.
(3) If space is available and the Superintendent/designee of the state mental hospital approves, the adult in custody shall be transferred.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 179.473, 179.479 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.471-179.486 & 179.495-179.508
- BHS 20-2023, minor correction filed 07/11/2023, effective 07/11/2023
- MHD 10-2005, f. 12-29-05, cert. ef. 1-1-06
Or. Admin. R. 309-120-0215 Hearings Process
(1) The Oregon Health Authority shall provide for an administrative commitment hearing conducted by a hearings officer employed or under contract with the Department of Corrections for administrative commitment or extension of the transfer of the adult in custody if:
(a) The Oregon Health Authority determines that administrative commitment for treatment for a mental illness is necessary or advisable or that the Authority needs more than 30 days to stabilize or evaluate the adult in custody; and
(b) The adult in custody does not consent to the administrative commitment or an extension of the transfer.
(c) Adults in custody that are in the legal custody of the Department of Corrections and in the physical custody of the Oregon Youth Authority (OYA) will be administratively committed through an OYA hearing, pursuant to OAR 416-425-0020. Adults in custody that are in OYA physical custody will be transferred directly from an OYA facility to a state mental hospital listed in ORS 426.010 or a hospital or facility designated by the Authority and returned directly to the OYA facility.
(2) It is the responsibility of the Superintendent/designee of the Oregon State Hospital to notify the hearings officer of the need for a hearing and to provide him or her with a transfer request containing the evidence justifying such action.
(3) The hearing shall be conducted by an independent hearing officer.
(4) The hearings officer shall not have participated in any previous way in the assessment process.
(5) The hearings officer may pose questions during the hearing.
(6) The evidence considered by the hearings officer will be of such reliability as would be considered by reasonable persons in the conduct of their serious affairs.
(7) When confidential informant testimony is submitted to the hearings officer, the identity of the informant and the verbatim statement of the informant shall be revealed to the hearings officer in writing, but shall remain confidential.
(8) In order for the hearings officer to rely on the testimony of a confidential informant, information must be submitted to the hearings officer from which the hearings officer can find that the informant is a person who can be believed or that the information provided in the case at issue is truthful.
(9) At the conclusion of the hearing, the hearings officer will deliberate and determine whether by clear and convincing evidence that the adult in custody is a mentally ill person as defined in ORS 426.005 and will be administratively committed involuntarily to a state mental hospital. The hearings officer may postpone the rendering of a decision for a reasonable period of time, not to exceed three (3) working days from the date of the hearing, for the purpose of reviewing the evidence.
(10) An adult in custody that is subject to an administrative commitment to a state mental hospital has the rights to which persons are entitled under ORS 179.485.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 179.473, 179.479 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.471-179.486 & 179.495-179.508
- BHS 21-2023, minor correction filed 07/11/2023, effective 07/11/2023
- MHD 10-2005, f. 12-29-05, cert. ef. 1-1-06
Or. Admin. R. 309-120-0220 Representation
(1) In all cases, the adult in custody is entitled to:
(a) Speak in his or her own behalf; and
(b) Be present at all stages of the hearings process, except when the hearings officer finds that to have the adult in custody present would present an immediate threat to facility security or safety of its staff or others. The reason(s) for the finding shall be part of the record.
(2) Assistance by a qualified and independent person approved by the hearings officer will be ordered upon a finding that assistance is necessary based upon the adult in custody’s financial inability to provide an assistant, language barriers, or competence and capacity of the adult in custody to prepare a defense, to understand the proceedings, or to understand the rights available to him or her. An adult in custody who is subject to an administrative commitment hearing may not receive assistance from another adult in custody.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 179.473, 179.479 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.471-179.486 & 179.495-179.508
- BHS 22-2023, minor correction filed 07/11/2023, effective 07/11/2023
- MHD 10-2005, f. 12-29-05, cert. ef. 1-1-06
Or. Admin. R. 309-120-0225 Notice of Hearing
(1) The adult in custody shall be given written notice that an administrative commitment to a state mental hospital listed in ORS 426.010, a hospital or facility designated by the Oregon Health Authority, or an extension of the transfer is being considered by the Department of Corrections and the Authority.
(2) The notice will be provided by the hearings officer. Such notice must be provided far enough in advance of the hearing to permit the adult in custody to prepare for the hearing, but in no case shall notice be provided less than 24 hours prior to the hearing. The hearing shall take place no later than five (5) days from the date of service of the notice.
(3) The notice shall include a copy of this rule.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 179.473, 179.479 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.471-179.486 & 179.495-179.508
- BHS 23-2023, minor correction filed 07/11/2023, effective 07/11/2023
- MHD 10-2005, f. 12-29-05, cert. ef. 1-1-06
Or. Admin. R. 309-120-0230 Investigation
(1) The adult in custody may request that an investigation be conducted. If an investigation is ordered, a designee of the hearings officer shall conduct the investigation. No person shall serve as an investigator who has participated in any previous way in the process.
(2) An investigation shall be conducted upon the adult in custody’s request, if an investigation will assist in the resolution of the proceedings and the information sought is within the ability of the facility to procure or the adult in custody to provide with his or her own resources.
(3) The hearings officer may order an investigation on his or her own motion.
(4) The hearings officer shall allow the adult in custody access to the results of the investigation unless disclosure of the investigative results would constitute a threat to the safety and security of the facility, its staff or others, or to the orderly operation of the facility.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 179.473, 179.479 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.471-179.486 & 179.495-179.508
- BHS 24-2023, minor correction filed 07/11/2023, effective 07/11/2023
- MHD 10-2005, f. 12-29-05, cert. ef. 1-1-06
Or. Admin. R. 309-120-0235 Documents/Reports
(1) An adult in custody may present documents or reports during the hearing, subject to the exclusion and restrictions provided in these rules.
(2) The reporting employee or other agents of the Department of Corrections or Oregon Health Authority who are knowledgeable may submit to the hearings officer documents or reports in advance of the hearing that are being relied upon for the administrative commitment or extension of the transfer. Such evidence must be disclosed to the adult in custody during the hearing.
(3) The hearings officer may exclude documents or other evidence upon finding that such evidence would not assist in the resolution of the proceeding, or that such evidence would present an undue risk to the safety, security, and orderly operation of the facility. The reason(s) for exclusion shall be made part of the record.
(4) Notwithstanding subsection (2) of this rule, the hearings officer may classify documents or other evidence as confidential, and not disclose such evidence to the adult in custody, upon finding that disclosure of psychiatric or psychological information would constitute a danger to another individual, compromise the privacy of a confidential source, or would constitute an immediate and grave detriment to the treatment of the individual, if medically contraindicated by the treating physician or a licensed health care professional in the written account of the adult in custody. The reason(s) for classifying documents or other evidence as confidential shall be made part of the record.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 179.473, 179.479 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.471-179.486 & 179.495-179.508
- BHS 25-2023, minor correction filed 07/11/2023, effective 07/11/2023
- MHD 10-2005, f. 12-29-05, cert. ef. 1-1-06
Or. Admin. R. 309-120-0240 Witnesses
(1) The hearings officer shall direct the scheduling and taking of testimony of witnesses at the hearing. Witnesses may include adults in custody, employees, or other persons. Testimony may be taken in person, by telephone, or by written report or statement.
(2) Except as provided in this subsection, a hearings officer must provide an adult in custody or his or her representative with the opportunity to call witnesses to testify before the hearings officer and to confront and cross-examine witnesses called by the state. The hearings officer may deny the opportunity provided in this rule upon a finding of good cause. Good cause includes, but is not limited to, an undue risk to the safety, security, or orderly operation of the facility or an immediate and grave detriment to the treatment of the individual due to disclosure of psychiatric or psychological information, if medically contraindicated by the treating physician or a licensed health care professional. The reason(s) for any denial of the opportunity to call witnesses or confront and cross-examine witnesses shall be made part of the record.
(3) If the adult in custody intends to call witnesses, the adult in custody must request that the hearings officer schedule witnesses to present testimony at the hearing. The request must be submitted to the hearings officer in writing in advance of the hearing, and include a list of the person(s) the adult in custody requests to be called to testify and direct examination questions to be posed to each person. The hearings officer shall arrange for the taking of testimony from such witnesses as properly requested by the adult in custody, subject to the exclusions and restrictions provided in these rules. The hearings officer, rather than the adult in custody, shall pose questions submitted by the adult in custody, including questions on cross-examination, if any. The hearings officer may briefly recess the hearing to allow the adult in custody, the adult in custody’s assistant, or both, an opportunity to prepare cross-examination questions.
(4) The hearings officer may limit testimony when it is cumulative or irrelevant.
(5) All questions which may assist in the resolution of the proceedings, as determined by the hearings officer, shall be posed. The reason(s) for not posing a question will be made part of the record.
(6) The hearings officer may, on his or her own motion, call witnesses to testify.
(7) The hearings officer may exclude a specific adult in custody or staff witness upon finding that the witness’ testimony would not assist in the resolution of the proceeding or presents an immediate undue hazard to facility security. If a witness is excluded, the reason(s) shall be made part of the record.
(8) The hearings officer may exclude other persons as witnesses, after giving reasonable consideration to alternatives available for obtaining witness testimony, upon finding that the witness’ testimony would not assist the hearings officer in the resolution of the proceeding, the witness’ appearance at the hearing would present an undue risk to the safety, security, or orderly operation of the facility or the safety of the witness or others, or that the witness is not reasonably available. The reason(s) for exclusion shall be made part of the record.
(9) Persons other than staff requested as witnesses may refuse to appear or testify.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 179.473, 179.479 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.471-179.486 & 179.495-179.508
- BHS 26-2023, minor correction filed 07/11/2023, effective 07/11/2023
- MHD 10-2005, f. 12-29-05, cert. ef. 1-1-06
Or. Admin. R. 309-120-0245 Postponement
(1) A hearing may be postponed by the hearings officer for good cause and for reasonable periods of time.
(2) Good cause includes, but is not limited to:
(a) Illness or unavailability of the adult in custody;
(b) Gathering of additional evidence; or
(c) Gathering of additional documentation.
(3) The reason(s) for the postponement shall be made part of the record.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 179.473, 179.479 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.471-179.486 & 179.495-179.508
- BHS 27-2023, minor correction filed 07/11/2023, effective 07/11/2023
- MHD 10-2005, f. 12-29-05, cert. ef. 1-1-06
Or. Admin. R. 309-120-0250 Findings
(1) No Justification: The hearings officer may find that the evidence does not support placement in a state mental hospital listed in ORS 426.010 or a hospital or facility designated by the Oregon Health Authority, in which case the hearings officer will recommend that the adult in custody return to his or her former status with all rights and privileges of that status. The hearing record shall be processed with final action subject to review by the Superintendent/designee of the Oregon State Hospital. The findings must be on the merits. Technical or clerical errors in the writing or processing of the transfer request, or both, shall not be grounds for a no justification finding, unless there is substantial prejudice to the adult in custody.
(2) Justification: The hearings officer may find the evidence supports the adult in custody’s placement in a state mental hospital listed in ORS 426.010 or a hospital or facility designated by the Oregon Health Authority, in which case the hearings officer will so inform the adult in custody and recommend that the adult in custody’s administrative commitment exceed 30 days. The hearing record shall be processed with final action subject to review by the Superintendent/designee of the Oregon State Hospital. An adult in custody’s administrative commitment to a state mental hospital shall not exceed 180 days unless the commitment is renewed in a subsequent administrative hearing in accordance with these rules.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 179.473, 179.479 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.471-179.486 & 179.495-179.508
- BHS 28-2023, minor correction filed 07/11/2023, effective 07/11/2023
- MHD 10-2005, f. 12-29-05, cert. ef. 1-1-06
Or. Admin. R. 309-120-0255 Hearing Record
(1) Upon completion of a hearing, the hearings officer shall prepare and cause to be delivered to the Superintendent/designee of the Oregon State Hospital a hearing record within three (3) days from the date of the hearing.
(2) The record of the formal hearing shall include:
(a) Examination reports;
(b) Notice of hearing and rights;
(c) Recording of hearing;
(d) Supporting material(s); and
(e) “Findings-of-Facts, Conclusions, and Recommendation” of the hearings officer.
(3) The hearings officer will retain the recording and forward to the Superintendent/designee of the Oregon State Hospital items (2)(a), (2)(b), (2)(d), and (2)(e) of this rule.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 179.473, 179.479 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.471-179.486 & 179.495-179.508
- MHD 10-2005, f. 12-29-05, cert. ef. 1-1-06
Or. Admin. R. 309-120-0260 Superintendent’s Review
(1) The results of any hearing held to place an adult in custody in a state mental hospital for administrative commitment will be reviewed and approved by the Superintendent/designee of the Oregon State Hospital.
(2) The Superintendent/designee of the Oregon State Hospital shall review the “Findings-of-Fact, Conclusions, and Recommendation” of the hearings officer, in terms of the following factors:
(a) Was there substantial compliance with this rule;
(b) Was the decision based on substantial information; and
(c) Was the decision proportionate to the information and consistent with the provisions of this rule.
(3) Within three (3) days of the receipt of the hearings officer’s report, the Superintendent/designee of the Oregon State Hospital shall enter an “order,” which may:
(a) Affirm the recommendation;
(b) Modify the recommendation;
(c) Reverse the recommendation; or
(d) Reopen the hearing for the introduction and consideration of additional evidence.
(4) When the Superintendent/designee of the Oregon State Hospital takes action to modify or reverse, he or she must state the reason(s) in writing and immediately notify the adult in custody, hearings officer, and Administrator for Counseling and Treatment Services.
(5) When the Superintendent/designee of the Oregon State Hospital reopens the hearing under this rule, the hearings officer shall, pursuant to these rules, conduct the reopened hearing and prepare an amended hearing record within three (3) days of the reopened hearing. The Superintendent/designee of the Oregon State Hospital shall review the hearing officer’s recommendation and enter an amended “order,” which may affirm, modify, or reverse the hearing officer’s recommendation.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 179.473, 179.479 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.471-179.486 & 179.495-179.508
- BHS 29-2023, minor correction filed 07/11/2023, effective 07/11/2023
- MHD 10-2005, f. 12-29-05, cert. ef. 1-1-06
Or. Admin. R. 309-120-0265 Extension of Transfer
(1) If the Oregon Health Authority determines that the administrative commitment must exceed 180 days in order to stabilize the adult in custody, the administrative commitment must be renewed in a subsequent administrative commitment hearing held in accordance with these rules.
(2) Notwithstanding this rule, an administrative commitment may not continue beyond the term of incarceration to which the adult in custody was sentenced.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 179.473, 179.479 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.471-179.486 & 179.495-179.508
- BHS 30-2023, minor correction filed 07/11/2023, effective 07/11/2023
- MHD 10-2005, f. 12-29-05, cert. ef. 1-1-06
Or. Admin. R. 309-120-0270 Handling of Adult in custody Money and Personal Property
(1) When an adult in custody is transferred to a state mental hospital, the Department of Corrections shall send a check for the balance of the adult in custody's account to the business office of the state mental hospital.
(2) The adult in custody's personal property will be transferred from the Department of Corrections facility in accordance with standards and limitations set by the state mental hospital to which the adult in custody is transferred.
(3) When the adult in custody is returned to a Department of Corrections facility, the adult in custody's money and personal property, as allowed by the Department of Corrections Rules for Personal Property (Adult in custody) (OAR 291-117) and Trust Accounts (Adult in custody) (OAR 291-158), will be returned with the adult in custody. All property not allowed under the Department of Corrections rules for Personal Property (Adult in custody) shall be handled, controlled and disposed of in accordance with Oregon Health Authority rules (309-108-0000 through 309-108-0020).
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 179.473, 179.479 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.471-179.486 & 179.495-179.508
- BHS 31-2023, minor correction filed 07/11/2023, effective 07/11/2023
- Renumbered from 309-120-0030, MHD 10-2005, f. 12-29-05, cert. ef. 1-1-06
- MHD 1-2000, f. & cert. cert. ef. 1-24-00
- MHD 3-1995, f. & cert. ef. 4-13-95
- MHD 8-1983, f. & ef. 4-1-83, Renumbered from 309-023-0010(5)
- MHD 1-1983(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 1-5-83
- MHD 1-1981, f. & cert. ef. 6-5-81
- MHD 3-1980, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-80
- MHD 12-1979(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-21-79
- MHD 5-1979, f. & cert. ef. 8-14-79
- MHD 43, f. & cert. ef. 11-5-76
Or. Admin. R. 309-120-0275 Visiting Privileges
(1) When an adult in custody is transferred to a state mental hospital, the Department of Corrections facility shall provide a copy of the adult in custody's approved list of visitors.
(2) All visitors shall be approved according to the state mental hospital’s procedure.
(3) When an adult in custody is returned to a Department of Corrections facility, any new names added to the list will be subject to review and approval according to the Department of Corrections Rule on Visiting (Adult in custody) (OAR 291-127) before admission of new visitors will be allowed.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 179.473, 179.479 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.471-179.486 & 179.495-179.508
- BHS 32-2023, minor correction filed 07/11/2023, effective 07/11/2023
- Renumbered from 309-120-0035, MHD 10-2005, f. 12-29-05, cert. ef. 1-1-06
- MHD 1-2000, f. & cert. ef. 1-24-00
- MHD 3-1995, f. & cert. ef. 4-13-95
- MHD 8-1983, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-83, Renumbered from 309-023-0010(5)
- MHD 1-1983(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 1-5-83
- MHD 1-1981, f. & cert. ef. 6-5-81
- MHD 3-1980, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-80
- MHD 12-1979(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-21-79
- MHD 5-1979, f. & cert. ef. 8-14-79
- MHD 43, f. & cert. ef. 11-5-76
Or. Admin. R. 309-120-0280 Short-Term Transitional Leaves, Emergency Leaves and Supervised Trips
When an adult in custody is administratively transferred to a state mental hospital, no short-term transitional leaves, emergency leaves, or supervised trips shall be approved by the state mental hospital without approval of the functional unit manager of the Department of Corrections facility.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 179.473, 179.479 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.471-179.486 & 179.495-179.508
- BHS 33-2023, minor correction filed 07/11/2023, effective 07/11/2023
- Renumbered from 309-120-0040, MHD 10-2005, f. 12-29-05, cert. ef. 1-1-06
- MHD 1-2000, f. & cert. ef. 1-24-00
- MHD 8-1983, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-83, Renumbered from 309-023-0010(6)
- MHD 1-1983(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 1-5-83
- MHD 1-1981, f. & cert. ef. 6-5-81
- MHD 3-1980, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-80
- MHD 12-1979(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-21-79
- MHD 5-1979, f. & cert. ef. 8-14-79
- MHD 43, f. & cert. ef. 11-5-76
Or. Admin. R. 309-120-0285 Releases from a State Mental Hospital
An adult in custody who is transferred to a state mental hospital may be discharged and transferred back to a Department of Corrections facility for one of the following reasons:
(1) Completion of treatment;
(2) He/she could receive mental health services within the Department of Corrections, and there was a mutually agreed upon continuity of care plan developed by the state mental hospital and the Administrator of the Department of Corrections Counseling and Treatment Services Unit/designee; or
(3) He/she does not meet the requirements to continue treatment at a state mental hospital.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 179.473, 179.479 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.471-179.486 & 179.495-179.508
- BHS 34-2023, minor correction filed 07/11/2023, effective 07/11/2023
- Renumbered from 309-120-0045, MHD 10-2005, f. 12-29-05, cert. ef. 1-1-06
- MHD 1-2000, f. & cert. ef. 1-24-00 MHD 3-1995, f. & cert. ef. 4-13-95 MHD 8-1983, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-83, Renumbered from 309-023-0010(7) MHD 1-1983(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 1-5-83 MHD 1-1981, f. & cert. ef. 6-5-81 MHD 3-1980, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-80 MHD 12-1979(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-21-79 MHD 5-1979, f. & cert. ef. 8-14-79 MHD 43, f. & cert. ef. 11-5-76
Or. Admin. R. 309-120-0290 Reporting of Unusual Incidents
Reporting of unusual incidents involving adults in custody administratively transferred to a state mental hospital shall be handled in accordance with the Department of Corrections policy on Unusual Incident Reporting Process.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 179.473, 179.479 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.471-179.486 & 179.495-179.508
- BHS 35-2023, minor correction filed 07/11/2023, effective 07/11/2023
- Renumbered from 309-120-0050, MHD 10-2005, f. 12-29-05, cert. ef. 1-1-06
- MHD 1-2000, f. & cert. ef. 1-24-00
- MHD 3-1995, f. & cert. ef. 4-13-95
- MHD 8-1983, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-83, Renumbered from 309-023-0010(8)
- MHD 1-1983(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 1-5-83
- MHD 1-1981, f. & cert. ef. 6-5-81
- MHD 3-1980, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-80
- MHD 12-1979(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-21-79
- MHD 5-1979, f. & cert. ef. 8-14-79
- MHD 43, f. & cert. ef. 11-5-76
Or. Admin. R. 309-120-0295 Confidentiality and Sharing of Information
(1) Department of Corrections records and other adult in custody information shall not be available to adults in custody or persons not employed by, nor under contract to, the Oregon Health Authority.
(2) Authority records and information will be handled in accordance with ORS 179.495, 179.505, 192.515, 192.517, and 42 CFR Part 2 relating to confidentiality of medical treatment records.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 179.040, 179.473, 179.479 & 413.042
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 179.471-179.486 & 179.495-179.508
- BHS 36-2023, minor correction filed 07/11/2023, effective 07/11/2023
- Renumbered from 309-120-0055, MHD 10-2005, f. 12-29-05, cert. ef. 1-1-06
- MHD 1-2000, f. & cert. ef. 1-24-00
- MHD 3-1995, f. & cert. ef. 4-13-95
- MHD 8-1983, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-83, Renumbered from 309-023-0010(9)
- MHD 1-1983(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 1-5-83
- MHD 1-1981, f. & cert. ef. 6-5-81
- MHD 3-1980, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-80
- MHD 12-1979(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-21-79
- MHD 5-1979, f. & cert. ef. 8-14-79
- MHD 43, f. & cert. ef. 11-5-76
Continue your research in ChatGPT or Claude
Connect Omnilex to search the legal corpus from your AI assistant.