chapter-259•OAR Chapter 259 — Department of Public Safety Standards and Training
OAR Chapter 259 — Department of Public Safety Standards and Training
chapter-259OAR Chapter 259Regulation
Division 1 RULEMAKING
Or. Admin. R. 259-001-0005 Permanent Rulemaking Notice
(1) Prior to the adoption, amendment, or repeal of any permanent rule, the Department of Public Safety Standards and Training will give notice of the intended action:
(a) In the Secretary of State's Bulletin referred to in ORS 183.360 at least 21 days prior to the effective date of the rule;
(b) By mailing or e-mailing a copy of the notice to persons on the interested parties distribution list established by the Department of Public Safety Standards and Training pursuant to ORS 183.335(8) at least 28 days before the effective date of the rule; and
(c) By mailing or e-mailing a copy of the notice to the legislators specified in ORS 183.335(15) at least 49 days before the effective date of the rule.
(2) In recognition that the Department of Public Safety Standards and Training has administrative responsibility for multiple regulatory programs and in order to effectively provide notice to interested persons in accordance with subsection (1) (b) of this rule, the Department will maintain an interested parties distribution list for each rule division.
(3) A person, group, or entity that wants to be placed on a list to receive notices of adoption, amendment, or repeal of a permanent rule must make a request in writing or by electronic mail to the rules coordinator. The request must include either a mailing address or an electronic mail address where notices may be sent.
(4) The Department of Public Safety Standards and Training may update the interested parties distribution lists described in section (2) of this rule annually by requesting persons to confirm that they wish to remain on the mailing list. If a person does not respond to a request for confirmation within 28 days of the date the Department sends the request, the Department will remove the person from the mailing list. Any person removed from the mailing list will be immediately returned to the mailing list upon request, provided that the person provides a mailing address or e-mailing address to which notice may be sent.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410, ORS 181A.870, ORS 183.341, ORS 703.230 & ORS 703.480
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410, ORS 181A.870, ORS 183.341, ORS 703.230 & ORS 703.480
- DPSST 48-2018, amend filed 04/27/2018, effective 04/27/2018
- DPSST 11-2009, f. & cert. ef. 10-15-09
- DPSST 2-2009, f. & cert. ef. 4-8-09
- BPSST 3-1998, f. & cert. ef. 6-30-98
- BPSST 1-1998, f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98
- BPSST 2-1998(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98 thru 6-30-98
- Reverted to PS 2-1995, f. & cert. ef. 9-27-95
- PS 10-1997(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-5-97
- PS 2-1995, f. & cert. ef. 9-27-95
- PS 1-1990, f. & cert. ef. 2-7-90
- PS 1-1983, f. & ef. 12-15-83
- PS 12, f. & ef. 12-19-77
Or. Admin. R. 259-001-0015 Rules of Procedure
Pursuant to the provisions of ORS 183.341, the Board and Department adopt the Attorney General's Model Rules of Procedure applicable to proceedings for agency rulemaking in effect July, 2014.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410, ORS 181A.870, ORS 183.341, ORS 703.230 & ORS 703.480
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410, ORS 181A.870, ORS 183.341, ORS 703.230 & ORS 703.480
- DPSST 48-2018, amend filed 04/27/2018, effective 04/27/2018
- DPSST 23-2014, f. & cert. ef. 9-11-14
- DPSST 4-2012, f. & cert. ef. 3-7-12
- DPSST 13-2011, f. & cert. ef. 8-29-11
- BPSST 9-2001, f. & cert. ef. 9-19-01
- BPSST 3-1998, f. & cert. ef. 6-30-98
- BPSST 1-1998, f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98
- BPSST 2-1998(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98 thru 6-30-98
- Reverted to PS 2-1997, f. 3-20-97, cert. ef. 3-25-97
- PS 10-1997(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-5-97
- PS 2-1997, f. 3-20-97, cert. ef. 3-25-97
- PS 2-1995, f. & cert. ef. 9-27-95
- PS 1-1990, f. & cert. ef. 2-7-90
- PS 1-1983, f. & ef. 12-16-83
- PS 2-1981, f. & ef. 12-18-81
- PS 12, f. & ef. 12-19-77
Division 3 DECLARATORY RULINGS
Or. Admin. R. 259-003-0015 Rules of Procedure
Pursuant to the provisions of ORS 183.341, the Board and Department adopt the Attorney General's Model Rules of Procedure applicable to proceedings for agency declaratory rulings under the Administrative Procedures Act as amended and in effect July, 2014.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410, ORS 703.230, ORS 703.465 & ORS 181A.870
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410, ORS 703.230, ORS 703.470, ORS 181A.630, ORS 181A.640, ORS 181A.650, ORS 181A.870 & ORS 181A.880
- DPSST 4-2018, minor correction filed 02/09/2018, effective 02/09/2018
- DPSST 23-2014, f. & cert. ef. 9-11-14
- DPSST 4-2012, f. & cert. ef. 3-7-12
- DPSST 13-2011, f. & cert. ef. 8-29-11
- BPSST 3-1998, f. & cert. ef. 6-30-98
- BPSST 1-1998, f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98
- BPSST 2-1998(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98 thru 6-30-98
- Reverted to PS 2-1997, f. 3-20-97, cert. ef. 3-25-97
- PS 10-1997(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-5-97
- PS 2-1997, f. 3-20-97, cert. ef. 3-25-97
- PS 1-1990, f. & cert. ef. 2-7-90
- PS 1-1983, f. & ef. 12-15-83
Division 5 CONTESTED CASES
Or. Admin. R. 259-005-0015 Rules of Procedures
Pursuant to the provisions of ORS 183.341, the Board and Department adopt the Attorney General's Model Rules of Procedure applicable to contested cases under the Administrative Procedures Act as amended and in effect July, 2014.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410, ORS 181A.870, ORS 703.230 & ORS 703.465
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410, ORS 703.230, ORS 181A.630, ORS 181A.640, ORS 181A.650, ORS 181A.880 & ORS 703.470
- DPSST 5-2018, minor correction filed 02/09/2018, effective 02/09/2018
- DPSST 23-2014, f. & cert. ef. 9-11-14
- DPSST 9-2013, f. & cert. ef. 4-1-13
- DPSST 4-2012, f. & cert. ef. 3-7-12
- DPSST 13-2011, f. & cert. ef. 8-29-11
- BPSST 6-2000, f. & cert. ef. 9-29-00
- BPSST 3-1998, f. & cert. ef. 6-30-98
- BPSST 1-1998, f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98
- BPSST 2-1998(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98 thru 6-30-98
- Reverted to PS 2-1997, f. 3-20-97, cert. ef. 3-25-97
- PS 10-1997(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-5-97
- PS 2-1997, f. 3-20-97, cert. ef. 3-25-97
- PS 2-1995, f. & cert. ef. 9-27-95
- PS 1-1990, f. & cert. ef. 2-7-90
- PS 1-1983, f. & ef. 12-15-83
Division 6 POLICY COMMITTEES
Or. Admin. R. 259-006-0000 Policy Committees
(1) Pursuant to ORS 181A.375, the Board on Public Safety Standards and Training must establish the following policy committees:
(a) Corrections Policy Committee;
(b) Fire Policy Committee;
(c) Police Policy Committee;
(d) Telecommunications Policy Committee; and
(e) Private Security Policy Committee.
(2) The membership of each policy committee is defined by ORS 181A.375.
(3) Each policy committee must adhere to the statutory requirements for meetings, appointments and recommendations as defined by ORS 181A.375.
(4) The members of each policy committee must select a chairperson and vice chairperson for the policy committee. Only members of the policy committee who are also members of the board are eligible to serve as a chairperson or vice-chairperson. The vice-chairperson may act as chairperson in the absence of the chairperson.
(5) Each policy committee must adopt by-laws to set guidelines for the operation of the committee functions and the expectations of members.
(6) The past decisions of a policy or advisory committee will not dictate precedence for future policy committee decisions or recommendations.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410 & ORS 181A.375
- DPSST 22-2017, amend filed 12/29/2017, effective 01/01/2018
- DPSST 4-2010, f. & cert. ef. 6-2-10
- DPSST 5-2003, f. & cert. ef. 4-11-03
- BPSST 6-2002, f. & cert. ef. 4-3-02
- BPSST 10-2001(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 10-26-01 thru 4-5-02
Or. Admin. R. 259-006-0005 Policy Committee Appointments
(1) This rule applies to policy committee appointments for members who do not serve on a policy committee by virtue of their position on the Board on Public Safety Standards and Training.
(2) Definitions.
(a) "Board" means the Board on Public Safety Standards and Training.
(b) "Department" means the Department of Public Safety Standards and Training.
(c) “Interest Form” means an application for consideration submitted by a person expressing interest in serving on a policy committee.
(3) Applying for an Appointment to a Policy Committee.
(a) An interest form must be submitted to the Department in order to be considered for an appointment to a policy committee.
(b) Any interested person may submit a completed interest form to the Department in order to apply for an appointment to a policy committee.
(c) Interest forms are available on the Department’s website or from the Department upon request.
(d) Completed interest forms will be kept on file for a period of two years for future consideration. Interest forms will be destroyed after two years have elapsed from the date the form was received by the Department.
(e) The Department will acknowledge receipt of each completed interest form.
(4) Applicants may be subject to a background investigation to verify the person’s fitness to serve on a policy committee. Pursuant to ORS 236.030, no policy committee member subject to this rule may be a member of, or affiliated with, any organization that teaches or advocates the disruption of state or federal government.
(5) Vacancies.
(a) A vacancy exists when a policy committee member subject to this rule completes the term for that position; resigns; becomes incapacitated, or is otherwise incapable of performing the duties of a member; has been removed from the appointment for just cause; is not reappointed; is no longer employed in the position that the appointment represents; or is no longer affiliated with the association or organization that the appointment represents.
(b) Any vacancy subject to this rule will be filled in the same manner as an initial appointment.
(c) Unless otherwise defined by section (8), the Department will work in consultation with the employer, association or organization that the vacancy represents, as defined by ORS 181A.375, to identify a replacement member. The employer’s, association’s or organization’s recommendation will be forwarded to the Board chair for consideration and recommendation to the full Board.
(6) The Board’s decisions regarding an appointment to a policy committee are final and are not subject to appeal.
(7) The chairperson of the board may remove an appointed member for just cause.
(8) Appointments to a Policy Committee for Vacancies Not Representing an Employer, Association or Organization as Defined in ORS 181A.375.
(a) Appointment of a Public Member to a Policy Committee. Upon a vacancy, all interest forms and background information will be submitted to the Board chair for consideration. The Board chair will make a recommendation for appointment to the full Board for approval.
(b) Appointment of a Private Security Provider or Private Investigator to the Private Security Policy Committee (PSIPC). Upon a vacancy, all interest forms and background information will be submitted to the PSIPC chair and vice-chair for consideration. The PSIPC chair and vice-chair will make a recommendation for appointment to the full Board for approval.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410 & ORS 181A.375
- DPSST 22-2017, amend filed 12/29/2017, effective 01/01/2018
- BPSST 6-2002, f. & cert. ef. 4-3-02
- BPSST 10-2001(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 10-26-01 thru 4-5-02
Or. Admin. R. 259-006-0010 Criminal Justice Applicant Review Committee
(1) The Board on Public Safety Standards and Training (Board) forms the Applicant Review Committee for the purpose of reviewing discretionary professional standards cases where the public safety professional is a new applicant for DPSST training and certification and the professional standards case is based on a criminal disposition that occurred prior to employment in public safety.
(2) The Applicant Review Committee consists of:
(a) Two representatives from the Corrections Policy Committee;
(b) Two representatives from the Police Policy Committee;
(c) Two representatives from the Telecommunications Policy Committee; and
(d) One representative from the Board.
(3) Appointments and Terms.
(a) The Board and each Policy Committee will nominate and appoint representatives to be members of the Applicant Review Committee.
(b) To be eligible for nomination to the Applicant Review Committee, the nominee must be a current member on the Board or the Policy Committee making the nomination.
(c) Nominees are appointed by a majority vote. The vote is conducted by the Board or the Policy Committee making the nomination.
(d) The term of an appointed member is one year. An appointed member may be appointed to a second term.
(e) If an appointed member’s term on the Board or a Policy Committee expires before their term on the Applicant Review Committee, the member may continue to serve the full duration of their current term on the Applicant Review Committee.
(4) The Applicant Review Committee will meet monthly or as needed.
(5) The Applicant Review Committee must adopt bylaws to set guidelines for the operation of the committee functions and the expectations of members.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410 & 181A.365
- DPSST 8-2025, amend filed 10/23/2025, effective 11/01/2025
- DPSST 30-2020, adopt filed 10/22/2020, effective 11/01/2020
Division 7 PUBLIC CONTRACTING AND PROCUREMENT
Or. Admin. R. 259-007-0010 Application
(1) OAR Chapter 259 Division 7 applies to procurements of goods and services for the Oregon Department of Public Safety Standards and Training (DPSST) conducted under ORS 181A.410(2)(a) - (2)(b), and 279A.050(6)(n). For procurements conducted under this section, DPSST adopts the following Attorney General Model Rules:
(a) OAR 137-046-0100 through 137-046-0480 in effect as of October 1, 2023;
(b) OAR 137-047-0000 through 137-047-0810 in effect as of October 1, 2023;
(c) OAR 137-048-0100 through 137-048-0320 in effect as of October 1, 2023; and
(d) OAR 137-049-0100 through 137-049-0910 in effect as of October 1, 2023, as it pertains to Public Contracts for ordinary construction Services that are not Public Improvement.
(2) OAR Chapter 125 Divisions 246, 247, 248, and 249, apply to:
(a) Procurements of Goods and Services for DPSST that DPSST elects to conduct under OAR 125-247-0288 (Special Procurements; by Rule);
(b) Procurements of Goods and Services not otherwise specified in this rule;
(c) Intergovernmental and interagency agreements, but only to the extent they are specifically governed by OAR Chapter 125 Divisions 246, 247, 248, and 249;
(d) Procurement of Public Improvement; and
(e) Procurements of Architectural, Engineering, Photogrammetric Mapping, Transportation Planning or Land Surveying Services and Related Services.
(3) In the event a conflict arises between OAR Chapter 259 Division 7 and OAR Chapter 137 Division 46, the conflict will be resolved in the following order of precedence:
(a) The Public Contracting Code, ORS 279A, 279B, and 279C;
(b) OAR Chapter 259 Division 007;
(c) OAR Chapter 137 Division 46.
(4) OAR Chapter 259 Division 7 applies to Procurements that DPSST first advertises or otherwise solicits on or after October 1, 2023, or, if DPSST does not advertise or solicit the Procurement, to Contracts that DPSST enters into on or after October 1, 2023.
(5) For the convenience of the user, OAR 259-007-0050 through OAR 259-007-0070 provide pointer rules pertaining to preferences. OAR 259-007-0120 provides pointer rules pertaining to protests.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410, ORS 279A.050, ORS 279A.065 & ORS 279A.070
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410, ORS 279A.050 & ORS 279A.065
- DPSST 7-2023, adopt filed 09/18/2023, effective 10/01/2023
Or. Admin. R. 259-007-0020 Definitions
(1) The Public Contracting Code and Attorney General’s Model Rules contain definitions applicable to capitalized terms in OAR Chapter 259 Division 7.
(2) “DPSST” or “Department” means the Department of Public Safety Standards and Training.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410, ORS 279A.050, ORS 279A.065 & ORS 279A.070
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 279A.065 & ORS 279A.070
- DPSST 7-2023, adopt filed 09/18/2023, effective 10/01/2023
Or. Admin. R. 259-007-0030 Delegation of Authority
The DPSST Designated Procurement Officer may delegate in Writing, on a case-by-case basis, any Procurement for which DPSST has independent statutory Contracting authority to the Oregon Department of Administrative Services (DAS). If DAS accepts a delegation, DAS will process the delegated Procurement under OAR Chapter 125, Divisions 246, 247, 248, and 249. The DPSST Designated Procurement Officer may at any time rescind any Written delegation issued under this rule.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410, ORS 279A.050, ORS 279A.065, ORS 279A.070 & ORS 279A.075
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 279A.065, ORS 279A.070 & ORS 279A.075
- DPSST 7-2023, adopt filed 09/18/2023, effective 10/01/2023
Or. Admin. R. 259-007-0040 Preference or Limited Competition Permitted
For any Contract estimated to cost $50,000 or less, DPSST may allow a preference for, or limit competition to, contracting entities owned or controlled by disadvantaged persons described in ORS 279A.100(1).
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410, ORS 279A.050, ORS 279A.065, ORS 279A.070 & ORS 279A.100
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 279A.065, ORS 279A.070 & ORS 279A.100
- DPSST 7-2023, adopt filed 09/18/2023, effective 10/01/2023
Or. Admin. R. 259-007-0050 Resident Bidder Preference
(1) For Procurements under OAR 259-007-0010(1), see OAR 137-046-0310.
(2) For Procurements under OAR 259-007-0010(2), see OAR 125-246-0310.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410, ORS 279A.050 & ORS 279A.120
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 279A.120
- DPSST 7-2023, adopt filed 09/18/2023, effective 10/01/2023
Or. Admin. R. 259-007-0060 Oregon Goods or Services Preference
(1) For Procurements under OAR 259-007-0010(1), see OAR 137-046-0300.
(2) For Procurements under OAR 259-007-0010(2), see OAR 125-246-0300.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410, ORS 279A.050 & ORS 279A.128
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 279A.128
- DPSST 7-2023, adopt filed 09/18/2023, effective 10/01/2023
Or. Admin. R. 259-007-0070 Recycled Materials Preference
(1) For Procurements under OAR 259-007-0010(1), see OAR 137-046-0320.
(2) For Procurements under OAR 259-007-0010(2), see OAR 125-246-0322.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410, ORS 279A.050 & ORS 279A.125
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 279A.125
- DPSST 7-2023, adopt filed 09/18/2023, effective 10/01/2023
Or. Admin. R. 259-007-0080 Independent Contractor Status for Services Contracts
(1) DPSST will Contract for Services with Persons who are Independent Contractors.
(2) DPSST will develop a statement of work for Services that will not result in an employee relationship with the potential contractor.
(3) An Independent Contractor certification must be completed for each Independent Contractor and included as a provision in each Contract.
(4) If the nature of the Services or project is such that an employee/employer relationship exists or will likely exist, DPSST will hire the individual through normal personnel procedures.
(5) All Contracts must include the Independent Contractor’s legal name and address. The Contractor must provide DPSST its federal Employer Identification Number (EIN) or Social Security Number (SSN), as applicable.
(6) All Contracts must provide that the Independent Contractor is responsible for federal Social Security, except those categories excluded by law, and for any federal or state taxes applicable to the Contract payment.
(7) Violation of this administrative rule may result in DPSST withdrawing an intent to Award a Contract, or termination of an existing Contract.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410, ORS 279A.050, ORS 279A.065 & ORS 279A.070
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 279A.065 & ORS 279A.070
- DPSST 7-2023, adopt filed 09/18/2023, effective 10/01/2023
Or. Admin. R. 259-007-0090 Fragmentation
A Procurement may not be artificially divided or fragmented for the purpose of restricting competition or circumventing a legal requirement.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410, ORS 279A.050, ORS 279A.065 & ORS 279A.070
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 279A.065 & ORS 279A.070
- DPSST 7-2023, adopt filed 09/18/2023, effective 10/01/2023
Or. Admin. R. 259-007-0100 Electronic Procurement and Submittals
(1) Electronic Procurement and Offers Authorized.
(a) DPSST may conduct all phases of a Procurement under these rules, including without limitation the posting of Electronic Advertisements and the receipt of Electronic Offers, by electronic methods if and to the extent DPSST specifies in the Written instructions of a Solicitation Document how to participate in the Procurement.
(b) DPSST must open Electronic Offers in accordance with electronic security measures in effect at the time of its receipt of the Electronic Offer.
(c) DPSST may use electronic or digital Signatures in issuing, awarding, or executing any Solicitation, Procurement or Contract. DPSST’s use of electronic or digital Signatures must be consistent with all applicable statutes and rules.
(d) If DPSST determines that Proposal security is or will be required, DPSST must not authorize Electronic Offers unless it has established methods for receipt of such security.
(2) Receipt of Electronic Offers.
(a) If DPSST requires Electronic Offers in a Solicitation Document, the Offeror must submit an Electronic Offer in accordance with the Solicitation Document. DPSST must not consider Electronic Offers unless authorized by the Solicitation Document.
(b) When DPSST conducts an electronic Procurement, all Electronic Offers must be submitted by the date and time identified in the Solicitation Document.
(c) A Person may withdraw an Electronic Offer at any time prior to the specified date and time in accordance with the Solicitation Document.
(3) Failure of the Electronic Procurement System. In the event of a failure of an Electronic Procurement System or electronic mail system that interferes with the ability of Persons to submit Electronic Offers, to protest or to otherwise participate in the Procurement, DPSST may cancel the Procurement or may extend the date and time for receipt of Electronic Offers by providing notice of the extension immediately after the Electronic Procurement System or electronic mail system becomes available.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410, ORS 279A.050, ORS 279A.065 & ORS 279A.070
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 279A.065 & ORS 279A.070
- DPSST 7-2023, adopt filed 09/18/2023, effective 10/01/2023
Or. Admin. R. 259-007-0110 Amendments to Contracts
(1) For Procurements under OAR 259-007-0010(1), see OAR 137-047-0800.
(2) For Procurements under OAR 259-007-0010(2), see OAR Chapter 125, Divisions 246, 247, 248, and 249.
(3) Contracts from Small or Intermediate Procurements. DPSST may amend a Contract awarded as a small or intermediate Procurement pursuant to section (2) of this rule, provided that the total increase in price does not exceed the amount set forth in OAR 137-047-0265 for small Procurements or OAR 137-047-0270 for intermediate Procurements.
(4) Price Agreements. DPSST may amend a Price Agreement as follows:
(a) As permitted by the Price Agreement;
(b) For Price Agreements subject to ORS Chapter 279B, if the circumstances set forth in ORS 279B.140(2) exist; or
(c) As permitted by applicable law.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410, ORS 279A.050, ORS 279A.065 & ORS 279A.070
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410, ORS 279A.050, ORS 279A.065 & ORS 279A.070
- DPSST 7-2023, adopt filed 09/18/2023, effective 10/01/2023
Or. Admin. R. 259-007-0120 Protests
(1) For Procurements under OAR 259-007-0010(1), see OAR Chapter 137 Division 046.
(2) For Procurements under OAR 259-007-0010(2), see OAR Chapter 125 Divisions 247, 248, and 249, as applicable.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410, ORS 279A.050, ORS 279A.065 & ORS 279A.070
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 279A.065 & ORS 279A.070
- DPSST 7-2023, adopt filed 09/18/2023, effective 10/01/2023
Or. Admin. R. 259-007-0150 Purchases Through Federal Programs
(1) DPSST may purchase goods or services under the federal programs identified in ORS 279A.180, without competitive sealed bidding, competitive sealed proposals or other competition required under ORS 279B.050 to 279B.085, provided that DPSST has federal authorization to purchase through the program and follows the procedures set forth in this rule.
(2) The federal programs named in ORS 279A.180 are accessible to DPSST for purchasing goods or services. DPSST hereby makes the determination according to ORS 279A.180 that the Local Preparedness Acquisition Act (Public Law 110-248), the GSA Order of 2000, and any subsequent revisions or updating of either of these programs describe other federal programs that, under federal law, are similar to 10 U.S.C. 381 or Section 211 of the Electronic Government Act of 2002 in effectuating or promoting transfers of property to DPSST.
(3) To purchase through a federal program, DPSST must document the following in the procurement file:
(a) The federal authority for DPSST to purchase through the federal program;
(b) The acquisition meets DPSST's needs;
(c) The price and other terms of the acquisition are advantageous to the State;
(d) No other price agreement for the goods or services exists based on DPSST's inquiry through OregonBuys or other applicable electronic procurement system;
(e) DPSST has considered the acquisition's impact upon local business as follows:
(A) If the procurement is in excess of $10,000, DPSST has given timely notice through OregonBuys, or other applicable electronic procurement system, of its needs, reasons, and intent to procure through a federal program;
(B) DPSST has provided a reasonable time period under the circumstances for individuals to respond to the notice and send written comments to DPSST; and
(C) DPSST has considered any comments and replied, if appropriate, before proceeding with its procurement through a federal program. This rule provides for an informal opportunity to comment to and be considered by DPSST, instead of the formal notice requirements for solicitations in excess of $10,000 according to ORS 200.035.
(f) State and local preference programs, including but not limited to Inmate Labor in accordance with the Oregon Constitution, Article I, Section 41 and Products of Disabled Individuals Program of ORS 279.835 to 850, are not waived or otherwise adversely affected by an acquisition through a federal program;
(g) DPSST has complied with OAR 137-045-0010 to 137-045-0090, and if it is required, obtained a legal sufficiency review or exemption from the Department of Justice; and
(h) DPSST is informed of its federal program's procurement process, including:
(A) Voluntary and Direct Contract. DPSST and contractors participate voluntarily. The contractors make direct deliveries to DPSST and retain the right to decline orders on a case-by-case basis, for any reason, within a five-day period of receipt of that order;
(B) Funding Fee. The price of a federal program contract includes a GSA industrial funding fee to cover GSA administrative costs to operate the federal program;
(C) New Contract. When a contractor accepts an order from DPSST, a new contract is formed. The contract's terms and conditions are incorporated by reference; and
(D) Additional Terms and Conditions. DPSST may add to its contract such significant, substantial contract terms and conditions as are required by State statutes or rules, if such additions do not conflict with the federal program's contract terms and conditions. Examples of such terms and conditions include, but are not limited to:
(i) Prompt Payment. DPSST may apply the terms and conditions of Oregon's prompt payment law to its contracts, but if DPSST fails to make this addition, then DPSST may be subject to the Federal Prompt Payment Act, 31 U.S.C. sec. 3901 et seq., as implemented at subpart 32.9 of the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR);
(ii) Commercial Terms. Patent indemnity and other commercial terms and conditions may be added if they do not conflict with the federal program's terms and conditions; and
(iii) Conflict Resolution. DPSST may revise the contract's dispute resolution provision to use alternative dispute resolution to the extent authorized by law.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410, ORS 279A.050, ORS 279A.065, ORS 279A.070 & ORS 279A.180
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410, ORS 279A.065, ORS 279A.070 & ORS 279A.180
- DPSST 2-2024, amend filed 03/18/2024, effective 03/18/2024
- DPSST 7-2023, amend filed 09/18/2023, effective 10/01/2023
- DPSST 26-2020, adopt filed 10/22/2020, effective 11/01/2020
- DPSST 16-2020, temporary adopt filed 08/20/2020, effective 08/20/2020 through 02/15/2021
Division 8 CRIMINAL JUSTICE EMPLOYMENT, TRAINING AND CERTIFICATION
Or. Admin. R. 259-008-0000 Policies and Objectives
(1) The Board and Department adopt the following policies in response to ORS 181A.365:
(a) The Board and Department exist to develop talented individuals into public safety providers who are:
(A) Culturally competent;
(B) Ethically, physically and emotionally fit; and
(C) Well trained, highly skilled and responsive to the needs of their communities.
(b) The Board and Department will promote the safety, efficiency, effectiveness, self-sufficiency and competence of public safety agencies and professionals.
(c) The Board and Department will encourage participation among public and private security, law enforcement, telecommunications and corrections organizations, the related organizations with whom they work as well as the interests of the communities they serve.
(d) The Board and Department will work together on matters related to public safety standards, training and certification.
(e) The Board may adopt or approve any policy, standard or minimum requirement related to public safety certifications and training.
(f) The Department may administer operations and procedures and implement or apply the policies and standards of the Board.
(g) The Department is a full department of the state.
(2) The objectives of the Board and Department are:
(a) To improve public safety services in Oregon by raising the level of competence of public safety personnel and their support staffs:
(A) By setting minimum standards for all levels of career development in areas such as employment; promotion; education; physical, emotional, intellectual, and moral fitness; and any other matter that relates to the competence and reliability of a person seeking employment or promotion within public safety.
(B) By setting minimum standards for training and certifying public safety personnel for all levels of professional development, basic through executive;
(C) By providing, sponsoring, certifying or coordinating training courses for public safety personnel.
(b) To conduct and stimulate research to improve the police, fire service, corrections, adult parole and probation, emergency medical dispatch and telecommunicator professions.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410 & ORS 181A.365
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410 & ORS 181A.365
- DPSST 30-2018, minor correction filed 02/21/2018, effective 02/21/2018
- DPSST 11-2015, f. 6-23-15, cert. ef. 7-1-15
- DPSST 14-2009, f. & cert. ef. 12-15-09
- BPSST 22-2002, f. & cert. ef. 11-18-02
- BPSST 3-1998, f. & cert. ef. 6-30-98
- BPSST 1-1998, f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98
- BPSST 2-1998(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98 thru 6-30-98
- Reverted to PS 2-1995, f. & cert. ef. 9-27-95
- PS 10-1997(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-5-97
- PS 2-1995, f. & cert. ef. 9-27-95
- Renumbered from 259-010-0000, PS 1-1990, f. & cert. ef. 2-7-90
- PS 1-1983, f. & ef. 12-15-83
- PS 1-1979, f. 10-1-79, ef. 10-3-79
- PS 12, f. & ef. 12-19-77
Or. Admin. R. 259-008-0005 Definitions
(1) “Armed Parole and Probation Officer” means a parole and probation officer who is authorized by the employing public safety agency to carry a firearm while engaged in official duties.
(2) "Assistant Department Head" means a public safety officer employed in the first position subordinate to a Department Head who is primarily responsible for supervision of middle managers and supervisors.
(3) "Board" means the Board on Public Safety Standards and Training.
(4) "Casual employment" means employment that is occasional, irregular, or incidental for which the employee does not receive seniority rights or fringe benefits.
(5) "Certified Reserve Officer" means a reserve officer who has been designated by a local law enforcement unit, has received training necessary for certification and has met the minimum standards and training requirements established under ORS 181A.410.
(6) "Commissioned" means being authorized to perform various acts or duties of a police officer, certified reserve officer or reserve officer and acting under the supervision and responsibility of a county sheriff or as otherwise provided by law.
(7) "Community College" means a public institution operated by a community college district for the purpose of providing courses of study limited to not more than two years full-time attendance and designed to meet the needs of a geographical area by providing educational services, including, but not limited to, vocational or technical education programs or lower division collegiate programs.
(8) "Corrections Officer" means an officer or member employed full-time by a law enforcement unit who:
(a) Is charged with and primarily performs the duty of custody, control or supervision of individuals convicted of or arrested for a criminal offense and confined in a place of incarceration or detention other than a place used exclusively for incarceration or detention of juveniles;
(b) Has been certified as a corrections officer described in paragraph (a) of this subsection and has supervisory or management authority for corrections officers described in paragraph (a) of this subsection; or
(c) Is any full-time employee of the Department who possesses the requisite qualifications and is so certified pursuant to ORS 181A.570.
(9) “Criminal Disposition” means a conviction, violation, adjudication, civil compromise, an entered plea of guilty or no contest, or a finding of guilty except for insanity or its equivalent for any violation of a criminal law under the law of the jurisdiction where the criminal disposition occurred.
(10) "Department" and “DPSST” means the Department of Public Safety Standards and Training.
(11) "Department Head" means the chief of police, sheriff, superintendent or chief executive of a law enforcement unit or a public or private safety agency directly responsible for the administration of that unit or agency.
(12) "Director" means the Director of the Department of Public Safety Standards and Training.
(13) "Educational Credits" are credits earned for studies satisfactorily completed at an accredited post-secondary education institution recognized under OAR 259-008-0045.
(14) "Emergency Medical Dispatcher" means a person who has responsibility to process requests for medical assistance from the public or to dispatch medical care providers.
(15) "First-Level Supervisor" means a public safety officer employed in a position between the operational level and the middle manager, who is primarily responsible for the direct supervision of subordinates. A first level supervisor position does not include a position with limited or acting supervisory responsibilities.
(16) "Full-time employment" means the employment of a person who has the responsibility for, and is paid to perform the duties of a public safety professional for more than 80 hours per month for a period of more than 90 consecutive calendar days. For purposes of this rule, any employment that meets the definition of seasonal, casual, or temporary employment is not considered full-time employment as a public safety professional.
(17) "High School" is a school accredited as a high school by the Oregon Department of Education, a school accredited as a high school by the recognized regional accrediting body, or a school accredited as a high school by the state university of the state in which the high school is located.
(18) “Jurisdiction” means any tribunal with authority to render a criminal disposition, including but not limited to municipal, state, federal including military, tribal tribunals, and any tribunal outside the United States or a United States owned territory where a criminal offense must be proven beyond a reasonable doubt.
(19) "Law Enforcement Officers" means police, corrections, parole and probation officers and regulatory specialists as described in the Public Safety Standards and Training Act.
(20) "Law Enforcement Unit" means:
(a) A police force or organization of the state, a city, university that has established a police department under ORS 352.121 or 353.125, port, school district, mass transit district, county, county service district authorized to provide law enforcement services under ORS 451.010, tribal government as defined in ORS 181A.680 that employs authorized tribal police officers as defined in ORS 181A.680, the Criminal Justice Division of the Department of Justice, the Department of Corrections, the Oregon State Lottery Commission, the Marshal's Office of the Judicial Department or common carrier railroad the primary duty of which, as prescribed by law, ordinance or directive, is any one or more of the following:
(A) Detecting crime and enforcing the criminal laws of this state or laws or ordinances relating to airport security;
(B) The custody, control or supervision of individuals convicted of or arrested for a criminal offense and confined to a place of incarceration or detention other than a place used exclusively for incarceration or detention of juveniles; or
(C) The control, supervision and reformation of adult offenders placed on parole or sentenced to probation and investigation of adult offenders on parole or probation or being considered for parole or probation;
(b) A police force or organization of a private entity with a population of more than 1,000 residents in an unincorporated area the employees of which are commissioned by a county sheriff;
(c) A district attorney’s office;
(d) The Oregon Liquor and Cannabis Commission with regard to regulatory specialists; or
(e) A humane investigation agency as defined in ORS 181A.340.
(21) "Leave" means an authorized absence granted to a public safety professional by their employing public or private safety agency.
(22) “Limited Duration, Administrative Position” means a non-elected, certifiable public safety position where the primary duties relate to the administration, operation, and accountability of a public safety agency, including, but not limited to, the responsibility for command assignments and the supervision of subordinate managers.
(a) Primary duties are regular or recurring supervisory or managerial duties that are performed in a continuous manner and are the foundation of a limited duration, administrative position.
(b) Non-supervisory or non-managerial public safety duties, such as patrol, criminal investigations, or enforcement actions are not primary duties of a limited duration, administrative position.
(23) "Middle Manager" means a public safety officer working in a position that is between a first-level supervisor and a department head, who is primarily responsible for management and command duties. A middle manager position does not include a position with limited or acting middle management duties.
(24) “Multi-disciplined Officer” or “Multi-discipline Certified” means a law enforcement officer, telecommunicator or emergency medical dispatcher who is employed by one public safety agency in more than one discipline for employment and certification purposes that support the efficient operation of the employing agency.
(25) "Part-time Employment" means the employment of a person who has the responsibility for, and is paid to perform the duties of a public safety professional for 80 hours or less per month for a period of more than 90 consecutive calendar days.
(26) "Parole and Probation Officer" means:
(a) An officer who is employed full-time by the Department of Corrections, a county or a court and who is charged with and performs the duty of:
(A) Community protection by controlling, investigating, supervising and providing or making referrals to reformative services for adult parolees or probationers or offenders on post-prison supervision; or
(B) Investigating adult offenders on parole or probation or being considered for parole or probation;
(b) An officer who:
(A) Is certified and has been employed as a full-time parole and probation officer for more than one year;
(B) Is employed part-time by the Department of Corrections, a county or a court; and
(C) Is charged with and performs the duty of:
(i) Community protection by controlling, investigating, supervising and providing or making referrals to reformative services for adult parolees or probationers or offenders on post-prison supervision; or
(ii) Investigating adult offenders on parole or probation or being considered for parole or probation;
(c) An officer who is certified as a parole and probation officer and is employed full-time by the State Board of Parole and Post-Prison Supervision; or
(d) A full-time employee of the Department who possesses requisite qualifications and is so certified pursuant to ORS 181A.570.
(27) "Police Officer" means:
(a) An officer, member or employee of a law enforcement unit employed full-time as a peace officer who is:
(A) Commissioned by a city, port, school district, mass transit district, county, county service district authorized to provide law enforcement services under ORS 451.010, tribal government as defined in ORS 181A.680, the Criminal Justice Division of the Department of Justice, the Oregon State Lottery Commission, a university that has established a police department under ORS 352.121 or 353.125, the Governor or the Department of State Police; and
(B) Responsible for enforcing the criminal laws of this state or laws or ordinances relating to airport security;
(b) An investigator of a district attorney’s office if the investigator is or has been certified as a peace officer in this or another state;
(c) A humane special agent commissioned under ORS 181A.340;
(d) A judicial marshal appointed under ORS 1.177 who is trained pursuant to ORS 181A.540;
(e) An authorized tribal police officer as defined in ORS 181A.680; or
(f) Any full-time employee of the Department who possesses the requisite qualifications and is so certified pursuant to ORS 181A.570.
(28) “Primary Discipline” means the discipline specified by the employing agency as the discipline that a public safety officer is assigned to for the majority of their employment functions or duties when a public safety officer is employed and certified as a multi-disciplined officer.
(29) "Public or private safety agency" means:
(a) A law enforcement unit; or
(b) A unit of state or local government, a special purpose district or a private firm that provides, or has authority to provide, police, ambulance or emergency medical services.
(30) “Public Safety Professional”, “Public Safety Personnel” and “Public Safety Officer” include corrections officers, emergency medical dispatchers, parole and probation officers, police officers, certified reserve officers, reserve officers, telecommunicators and regulatory specialists.
(31) "Regulations" mean written directives established by the Department or its designated staff describing training activities and student procedures at the Oregon Public Safety Academy.
(32) “Regulatory Specialist” means a full-time employee of the Oregon Liquor and Cannabis Commission (OLCC) who is authorized to act as an agent of the OLCC in conducting inspections or investigations, making arrests and seizures, aiding in prosecutions for offenses, issuing citations for violations and otherwise enforcing ORS Chapter 471, ORS 474.005 to 474.095, 474.115, 475B.010 to 475B.545, 475B.550 to 475B.590 and 475B.600 to 475B.655, OLCC rules and any other statutes the OLCC considers related to regulating liquor, marijuana or marijuana-derived products.
(33) "Reimbursement" is the money allocated from the Police Standards and Training Account, established by ORS 181A.665, to a law enforcement unit meeting the requirements of these regulations to defray the costs of officer salaries, relief duty assignments, and other expenses incurred while officers attend approved training courses certified by the Department.
(34) "Reserve Officer" means an officer or member of a law enforcement unit who is:
(a) A volunteer or employed less than full time as a peace officer commissioned by a city, port, school district, mass transit district, county, county service district authorized to provide law enforcement services under ORS 451.010, tribal government as defined in ORS 181A.680, the Criminal Justice Division of the Department of Justice, the Oregon State Lottery Commission, a university that has established a police department under ORS 352.121 or 353.125, the Governor or the Department of State Police;
(b) Armed with a firearm; and
(c) Responsible for enforcing the criminal laws and traffic laws of this state or laws or ordinances relating to airport security.
(35) "Seasonal Employment" means employment that can be carried on only at certain seasons or fairly definite portions of the year, with defined starting and ending dates based on a seasonally determined need.
(36) "Staff" means those employees occupying full-time, part-time, or temporary positions with the Department.
(37) "Telecommunicator" means:
(a) A person employed as an emergency communications worker as defined in ORS 243.736 or a public safety dispatcher whose primary duties are receiving, processing and transmitting public safety information received through the emergency communications system as defined in ORS 403.105; or
(b) A full-time employee of the Department who possesses the requisite qualifications and is so certified pursuant to ORS 181A.570.
(38) "Temporary employment" means employment that lasts no more than 90 consecutive calendar days and is not permanent.
(39) "The Act" refers to the Public Safety Standards and Training Act (ORS 181A.355 to 181A.670).
(40) "Waiver" means to refrain from pressing or enforcing a rule.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410
- DPSST 17-2021, amend filed 09/03/2021, effective 09/10/2021
- DPSST 15-2020, amend filed 05/04/2020, effective 05/15/2020
- DPSST 5-2020, amend filed 02/10/2020, effective 05/01/2020
- DPSST 7-2019, amend filed 07/26/2019, effective 08/01/2019
- DPSST 49-2018, minor correction filed 05/16/2018, effective 05/16/2018
- DPSST 46-2018, amend filed 04/27/2018, effective 05/01/2018
- DPSST 14-2017, f. 7-28-17, cert. ef. 8-1-17
- DPSST 4-2016, f. 3-22-16, cert. ef. 4-1-16
- DPSST 18-2015, f. 12-22-15, cert. ef. 1-1-16
- DPSST 11-2015, f. 6-23-15, cert. ef. 7-1-15
- DPSST 7-2015, f. & cert. ef. 3-24-15
- DPSST 5-2014, f. & cert. ef. 1-29-14
- DPSST 1-2014, f. & cert. ef. 1-2-14
- DPSST 31-2012, f. & cert. ef. 12-27-12
- DPSST 24-2012, f. & cert. ef. 10-26-12
- DPSST 6-2012, f. & cert. ef. 3-27-12
- DPSST 7-2010, f. 7-15-10, cert. ef. 8-1-10
- DPSST 12-2006, f. & cert. ef. 10-13-06
- DPSST 3-2007, f. & cert. ef. 1-12-07
- DPSST 5-2004, f. & cert. ef. 4-23-04
- BPSST 22-2002, f. & cert. ef. 11-18-02
- BPSST 11-2000, f. 11-13-00, cert. ef. 11-15-00
- BPSST 7-2000, f. & cert. ef. 9-29-00
- BPSST 3-1998, f. & cert. ef. 6-30-98
- BPSST 2-1998(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98 thru 6-30-98
- BPSST 1-1998, f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98
- Reverted to PS 3-1997, f. 3-20-97, cert. ef. 3-25-97
- PS 10-1997(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-5-97
- PS 3-1997, f. 3-20-97, cert. ef. 3-25-97
- PS 2-1996, f. 5-15-96, cert. ef. 5-20-96
- PS 2-1995, f. & cert. ef. 9-27-95
- Renumbered from 259-010-0010, PS 1-1990, f. & cert. ef. 2-7-90
- PS 1-1985, f. & ef. 4-24-85
- PS 1-1983, f. & ef. 12-15-83
- PS 1-1979, f. 10-1-79, ef. 10-3-79
- PS 12, f. & ef. 12-19-77
Or. Admin. R. 259-008-0010 Minimum Standards for Employment as a Law Enforcement Officer or Utilization as a Reserve Officer
(1) Citizenship.
(a) A person may not be employed as a corrections officer for more than one year unless the person is a citizen of the United States or a nonimmigrant legally admitted to the United States under a Compact of Free Association.
(b) A person may not be employed as a police officer or a parole and probation officer for more than 18 months unless the person is a citizen of the United States or a nonimmigrant legally admitted to the United States under a Compact of Free Association.
(c) A person may not be employed as a regulatory specialist for more than 18 months unless the person is a citizen of the United States.
(d) The citizenship requirement found in (c) does not apply to a person employed as a regulatory specialist on March 16, 2012, who continues full-time employment as a regulatory specialist without a lapse.
(2) Age. No law enforcement unit in this state may employ or utilize any person under the age of 21 years as a police officer, corrections officer, parole and probation officer, regulatory specialist, or reserve officer.
(3) Background Investigation. A person may not be employed as a law enforcement officer or utilized as a reserve officer without a background investigation completed in accordance with OAR 259-008-0015.
(4) Fingerprints. Within 90 days of the date of employment in a certifiable position, each law enforcement officer must be fingerprinted on a standard applicant fingerprint card.
(a) The hiring agency is responsible for fingerprinting and must forward one card to the Oregon State Police Identification Services Section for processing and the assignment of an identification number.
(b) If any procedural change is made by either the Federal Bureau of Investigation or the Oregon State Police Identification Services Section, the Department must comply with the most current requirements.
(c) Applications for certification will not be processed until an applicant’s fingerprints have cleared Oregon State Police Identification Services.
(5) Notification of Arrest or Criminal Citation to Appear. A law enforcement officer who is arrested, or receives a criminal citation to appear or its equivalent, for any offense punishable as a crime must notify the Department within five business days. Notification must be in writing and include the date of the arrest or citation, the location of the arrest or citation, the reason for the arrest or citation and the arresting or citing agency.
(6) Moral Fitness. All law enforcement officers must meet moral fitness standards for certification. The moral fitness standards defined in OAR 259-008-0290 and OAR 259-008-0300 apply to law enforcement officers who are employed in a certifiable position but not yet certified, currently certified law enforcement officers and law enforcement officers with lapsed certification.
(7) Education:
(a) Applicants for the position of a law enforcement officer will be required to furnish documentary evidence of one of the following:
(A) High School diploma;
(B) Successful completion of the General Educational Development (GED) Test; or
(C) A four-year, post-secondary degree issued by an accredited, degree-granting college or university recognized by the Oregon Office of Degree Authorization under the provisions of ORS 348.604.
(i) For the purpose of determining high school graduation level as required by these rules, the applicant must have achieved a score no less than that required by the Oregon Board of Education before issuing an Oregon GED certificate.
(ii) Applicants holding a GED from another state may be required to obtain an Oregon certificate at the discretion of the Department.
(b) Evidence of the above must consist of official transcripts, diplomas, or GED test report forms. Other documentation may be accepted, at the discretion of the Department.
(c) Academic Proficiency Standard. Before beginning basic training or beginning the career officer development course, each applicant must provide evidence to DPSST that the applicant possesses the academic tools necessary to successfully complete basic training.
(A) The hiring agency is responsible for ensuring a law enforcement proficiency test or validated written test designed to evaluate predictors of job-related skills and behaviors has been administered. The hiring agency must verify the completion of the test and report the date of completion to the Department on a Form F-5 (Application for Training) prior to the applicant being admitted to basic training.
(B) Individuals submitting transcripts verifying that they possess at least a four-year academic degree from an institution recognized by the Department under the provisions of OAR 259-008-0045 are exempt from this testing requirement.
(C) Individuals who have successfully completed training resulting in the award of certification in the discipline they are applying for training are exempt from this testing requirement. Individuals must submit proof of training and certification.
(8) Physical Standards.
(a) Prior to admittance into a basic training course, as described in OAR 259-008-0025, all law enforcement officers or applicants must demonstrate the physical abilities to perform the critical and essential tasks of a law enforcement officer. The critical and essential tasks for law enforcement officers have been determined by the following:
(A) The 2015 DPSST Job Task Analysis for Police Officers;
(B) The 2015 DPSST Job Task Analysis for Parole & Probation Officers;
(C) The 2016 DPSST Job Task Analysis for Corrections Officers; and
(D) The 2013 Job Task Analysis for Liquor Enforcement Inspectors.
(b) The following minimum physical standards are required for all law enforcement officers:
(A) Visual Acuity.
(i) Monocular vision must be at least 20/30 (Snellen) corrected in each eye and not worse than 20/100 (Snellen) uncorrected in either eye.
(ii) Binocular vision must be at least 20/20 (Snellen) corrected.
(iii) Officers or applicants whose uncorrected vision is worse than 20/100 must wear soft contact lenses to meet the corrected vision requirement.
(B) Color Vision.
(i) Law enforcement officers or applicants must be able to distinguish red, green, blue, and yellow, as determined by the HRR Test, 4th Edition.
(ii) Red or green deficiencies may be acceptable, providing the officer or applicant can read at least nine of the first 13 plates of the Ishihara Test.
(iii) Officers or applicants who fail to meet the color vision standard may meet the standard by demonstrating that they can correctly discriminate colors via a field test conducted by the employer as approved by the examining licensed physician or surgeon.
(C) Depth Perception. Random Stereo Test equal to 60 seconds of arc or better.
(D) Peripheral Vision. Visual Field Performance must be 140 degrees in the horizontal meridian combined.
(E) Hearing.
(i) Law enforcement officers or applicants must have no average hearing loss greater than 25 decibels (db) at the 500, 1,000, 2,000 and 3,000-Hertz levels in either ear with no single loss in excess of 40 db.
(ii) Law enforcement officers or applicants who fail to meet the hearing standard must be examined by a licensed audiologist or otorhinolaryngologist to determine if an amplification device will allow them to meet the hearing standard.
(iii) An amplification device may be used to meet the hearing standard, if a licensed audiologist or otorhinolaryngologist determines an amplification device will allow the officer or applicant to meet the hearing standard.
(F) Cardiovascular.
(i) Resting blood pressure must be less than or equal to 160 mmHg systolic and 100 mmHg diastolic.
(ii) Law enforcement officers or applicants who fail to meet the cardiovascular standards must be examined by a general practitioner to address the issue.
(iii) Law enforcement officers or applicants who have a history of organic cardiovascular disease will necessitate further medical evaluation.
(G) Pulmonary Capacity. Officers and applicants with obstructive or restrictive spirograms (FVC or FEV1 less than 80% or FVC/FEV1 ratio of less than 70%) require further evaluation.
(H) Medications. The side effects of any prescribed medication must not interfere with the law enforcement officer’s or applicant’s ability to perform the critical and essential tasks of the job.
(I) Medical Recommendations.
(i) It is recommended that officers or applicants with a history of seizures or diabetes be evaluated following American College of Occupational and Environmental Medicine’s Guidance for the Medical Evaluation of Law Enforcement Officers, to include post-employment monitoring.
(ii) It is recommended that officers or applicants with a history of hypertension (resting blood pressure exceeding 160 mmHg systolic and 100 mmHg diastolic (160/100) have post-employment medical monitoring.
(9) Medical Examinations. To ensure that law enforcement officers and applicants meet the minimum physical standards listed in section (8) of this rule, all officers and applicants must be examined by a licensed physician or surgeon.
(a) The licensed physician or surgeon performing the medical examination must be provided with a current DPSST Medical Examination Report (Form F-2) for completion at the time of the examination.
(b) The medical examination must conform to applicable standards of the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) Title 42 USC 1210.
(c) The medical examination must be completed within 180 days prior to the start of employment as a law enforcement officer.
(d) Upon completion of the medical examination, the examining licensed physician or surgeon must sign the final page of the Form F-2 (Form F-2A) attesting that the officer or applicant has met or has not met the minimum physical standards listed in section (8) of this rule.
(e) The Form F-2A must be submitted to the Department no later than 90 days after the start of employment.
(f) Law enforcement officers and applicants will not be admitted into a basic course until the Department receives a Form F-2A attesting that the minimum physical standards have been met or a physical standard waiver has been granted, as described in section (10) of this rule.
(g) DPSST may require that a law enforcement officer or applicant take a subsequent examination by a licensed physician or surgeon of the Department’s choice at the expense of the officer, the applicant or the hiring agency.
(h) Certified individuals who are hired into a discipline they are not certified for are required to successfully complete a new physical examination.
(i) A law enforcement officer whose certification has lapsed will be required to complete a new medical examination prior to re-applying for certification.
(j) Individuals employed in a limited duration, administrative position, as described in OAR 259-008-0078, are exempt from the medical examination requirement.
(k) Regulatory Specialists employed by OLCC prior to July 1, 2015 who have previously completed OLCC basic training are exempt from completion of the physical examination.
(10) Physical Standard Waivers.
(a) An individual or department head may request a waiver of any physical standard in section (8) of this rule by:
(A) Submitting a request to the Department in writing; and
(B) Providing documentation or pertinent testimony that supports the physical standard waiver request.
(C) If further clarification is needed, the Department may require additional documentation or testimony from the individual or department head requesting the physical standard waiver.
(D) The requesting individual may be required to demonstrate the ability to perform the critical and essential job tasks.
(E) If the Department finds that the physical standard waiver request would not prohibit the requesting individual’s ability to successfully complete training and the performance of the critical and essential tasks, the waiver will be granted.
(F) Any expense associated with providing physical standard wavier documentation or testimony will be the responsibility of the requesting individual or the requesting agency.
(G) If an individual requests and is granted a medical waiver, but does not obtain employment within one year from the date the waiver is granted, the waiver will be void.
(H) If the Department denies a request for a waiver of any physical standard in section (8) of this rule, the Department will issue Notice and proceed as provided in section (10)(b) of this rule.
(b) Contested Case Hearing Process for Denial of Physical Standard Waivers.
(A) Initiation of Proceedings: A contested case notice will be prepared when the Department denies a physical standard waiver after determining that factual data meeting the statutory and administrative rule requirements justifies the denial.
(B) Contested Case Notice: The contested case notice will be prepared in accordance with the applicable provisions of the Attorney General's Model Rules of Procedure adopted under OAR 259-005-0015.
(C) Response Time: A party who has been served with a "Contested Case Notice of Intent to Deny a Waiver" has 60 days from the date of mailing or personal service of the notice in which to file a written request for a hearing with the Department.
(D) Default Order: If a timely request for a hearing is not received, the Contested Case Notice will become a final order denying the requested waiver pursuant to OAR 137-003-0672.
(E) Hearing Request: If a timely request for a hearing is received, the Department will refer the matter to the Office of Administrative Hearings in accordance with OAR 137-003-0515.
(F) Proposed and Final Orders: In cases where a hearing is requested, proposed orders, exceptions, and final orders will be issued pursuant to the applicable provisions of the Attorney General’s Model Rules of Procedure adopted under OAR 259-005-0015.
(11) Pre-employment Psychological Evaluation. A person may not be employed as a law enforcement officer or utilized as a reserve officer without a pre-employment psychological evaluation conducted in accordance with this rule. This requirement applies to police officers and reserve officers hired on or after January 1, 2020, and corrections officers, parole and probation officers, and regulatory specialists hired on or after July 1, 2023.
(a) As used in this section, “psychological evaluation” or “evaluation” refers to a pre-employment psychiatric or psychological evaluation.
(b) A psychological evaluation is required as follows:
(A) When an applicant is initially hired by the hiring agency;
(B) When a law enforcement officer or reserve officer is rehired by the same agency after a separation of employment that is more than 180 days; or
(C) When a public safety professional who has been continuously employed or utilized by the hiring agency becomes a police officer or reserve officer for that agency and the person has not completed a psychological evaluation that is equal to the evaluation used by the hiring agency when hiring an applicant as a police officer or reserve officer.
(c) The psychological evaluation is used to:
(A) Identify mental conditions, personality disorders, personality traits, or behavior patterns that may adversely affect the applicant’s ability to perform the essential functions of the job with reasonable skill, safety, and judgment based upon the psychological evaluation criteria established by the hiring agency; and
(B) Conduct an assessment of the applicant’s tendencies, feelings and opinions toward diverse cultures, races and ethnicities and differing social, political, economic and life statuses.
(d) The psychological evaluation must be conducted by a licensed mental health professional who can demonstrate, to the hiring agency’s satisfaction, expertise in clinical assessment and the assessment of normal personality characteristics, skills, and abilities relevant to public safety personnel selection. “Licensed Mental Health Professional” includes:
(A) A physician with a specialty in psychiatry licensed by the Oregon Medical Board or the licensing body in the state where the psychiatrist provides the psychiatric services;
(B) A psychologist who is licensed by the Oregon Board of Psychology or the licensing body in the state where the person provides the psychological services; or
(C) A mental health professional who is licensed by the licensing body in the state where the person provides mental health services.
(e) The psychological evaluation must include the following:
(A) A written psychological test battery relevant to the psychological evaluation criteria established by the hiring agency;
(B) An assessment of the applicant’s tendencies, feelings and opinions toward diverse cultures, races and ethnicities and differing social, political, economic and life statuses;
(C) An interview conducted by the licensed mental health professional; and
(D) A report provided by the licensed mental health professional in the manner requested by the hiring agency.
(f) The psychological evaluation must conform with the applicable standards of the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) Title 42 USC 1210.
(g) Evaluations older than one year are no longer valid for the purposes of satisfying this rule.
(h) Hiring decisions are the responsibility of each hiring agency. The hiring agency maintains the discretion to determine how the information provided in the evaluation report impacts the hiring decision.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410, ORS 183.341, ORS 181A.485 & ORS 181A.676
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410, ORS 183.341, ORS 181A.395, ORS 181A.490, ORS 181A.520, ORS 181A.530, ORS 181A.550, ORS 181A.640, ORS 181A.485, ORS 181A.676 & ORS 181A.688
- DPSST 6-2023, amend filed 04/27/2023, effective 07/01/2023
- DPSST 30-2020, amend filed 10/22/2020, effective 11/01/2020
- DPSST 5-2020, amend filed 02/10/2020, effective 05/01/2020
- DPSST 1-2020, amend filed 01/24/2020, effective 01/24/2020
- DPSST 13-2019, temporary amend filed 11/21/2019, effective 12/01/2019 through 05/28/2020
- DPSST 18-2017, amend filed 10/26/2017, effective 01/01/2018
- DPSST 14-2017, f. 7-28-17, cert. ef. 8-1-17
- DPSST 7-2017, f. 3-22-17, cert. ef. 4-1-17
- DPSST 11-2016, f. 7-25-16, cert. ef. 7-29-16
- DPSST 4-2016, f. 3-22-16, cert. ef. 4-1-16
- DPSST 18-2015, f. 12-22-15, cert. ef. 1-1-16
- DPSST 11-2015, f. 6-23-15, cert. ef. 7-1-15
- DPSST 7-2015, f. & cert. ef. 3-24-15
- DPSST 32-2014, f. 12-29-14, cert. ef. 1-1-15
- DPSST 13-2014, f. & cert. ef. 6-24-14
- DPSST 1-2014, f. & cert. ef. 1-2-14
- DPSST 18-2013, f. & cert. ef. 7-23-13
- DPSST 19-2012, f. & cert. ef. 8-31-12
- DPSST 18-2012, f. & cert. ef. 8-27-12
- DPSST 14-2011, f. 9-26-11, cert. ef. 10-1-11
- DPSST 9-2011, f. & cert. ef. 6-28-11
- DPSST 10-2009, f. & cert. ef. 9-21-09
- DPSST 21-2008, f. 12-15-08, cert. ef. 1-1-09
- DPSST 4-2008, f. & cert. ef. 4-15-08
- DPSST 1-2008(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 1-15-08 thru 4-18-08
- DPSST 13-2007(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-1-07 thru 4-18-08
- DPSST 10-2007, f. & cert. ef. 10-15-07
- DPSST 12-2006, f. & cert. ef. 10-13-06
- DPSST 3-2006, f. & cert. ef. 2-28-06
- DPSST 14-2003, f. & cert. ef. 12-22-03
- DPSST 8-2003, f. & cert. ef. 4-18-03
- DPSST 6-2003, f. & cert. ef. 4-11-03
- DPSST 3-2003, f. & cert. ef. 1-22-03
- BPSST 20-2002, f. & cert. ef. 11-21-02
- BPSST 16-2002, f. & cert. ef. 7-5-2002
- BPSST 5-2002(Temp), f. 4-3-02, cert. ef. 4-6-02 thru 8-1-02
- BPSST 12-2001(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 10-26-01 thru 4-5-02
- BPSST 3-2001, f. & cert. ef. 8-22-01
- BPSST 9-2000, f. 11-13-00, cert. ef. 11-15-00
- BPSST 1-1999, f. & cert. ef. 3-9-99
- BPSST 3-1998, f. & cert. ef. 6-30-98
- BPSST 2-1998(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98 thru 6-30-98
- BPSST 1-1998, f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98
- Reverted to PS 4-1997, f. 3-20-97, cert. ef. 3-25-97
- PS 10-1997(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-5-97
- PS 4-1997, f. 3-20-97, cert. ef. 3-25-97
- PS 2-1996, f. 5-15-96, cert. ef. 5-20-96
- PS 2-1995, f. & cert. ef. 9-27-95
- Renumbered from 259-010-0015, PS 1-1990, f. & cert. ef. 2-7-90
- PS 1-1987, f. & ef. 10-26-87
- PS 1-1985, f. & ef. 4-24-85
- PS 1-1983, f. & ef. 12-15-83
- PS 1-1981, f. 9-26-81, ef. 11-2-81
- PS 12, f. & ef. 12-19-77
Or. Admin. R. 259-008-0011 Minimum Standards for Employment as a Telecommunicator and Emergency Medical Dispatcher
(1) Background Investigation. A person may not be employed as telecommunicator or emergency medical dispatcher without a background investigation completed in accordance with OAR 259-008-0015.
(2) Fingerprints. Within 90 days of the date of employment in a certifiable position, each telecommunicator and emergency medical dispatcher must be fingerprinted on a standard applicant fingerprint card.
(a) If the hiring agency is a public agency, it is responsible for fingerprinting and forwarding one fingerprint card to the Oregon State Police Identification Services Section for processing and the assignment of an identification number.
(b) If the hiring agency is a private agency, it is responsible for fingerprinting and forwarding one fingerprint card to the Department along with the appropriate fee.
(c) Applications for certification will not be processed until an applicant’s fingerprints have cleared Oregon State Police Identification Services.
(d) If any procedural change is made by either the Federal Bureau of Investigation or the Oregon State Police Identification Services Section, the Department will comply with the most current requirements.
(3) Notification of Arrest or Criminal Citation to Appear. A telecommunicator or emergency medical dispatcher who is arrested, or receives a criminal citation to appear or its equivalent, for any offense punishable as a crime must notify the Department within five business days. Notification must be in writing and include the date of the arrest or citation, the location of the arrest or citation, the reason for the arrest or citation and the arresting or citing agency.
(4) Moral Fitness. All telecommunicators and emergency medical dispatchers must meet moral fitness standards for certification. The moral fitness standards defined in OAR 259-008-0290 and OAR 259-008-0300 apply to telecommunicators and emergency medical dispatchers who are employed in a certifiable position but not yet certified, currently certified telecommunicators and emergency medical dispatchers, and telecommunicators and emergency medical dispatchers with lapsed certification.
(5) Education:
(a) Applicants for the position of a telecommunicator or emergency medical dispatcher will be required to furnish documentary evidence of one of the following:
(A) High School diploma;
(B) Successful completion of the General Educational Development (GED) Test; or
(C) A four-year, post-secondary degree issued by a degree-granting college or university accredited by a recognized national or regional accrediting body, or recognized by the Oregon Office of Degree Authorization under the provisions of ORS 348.604.
(i) For the purpose of determining high school graduation level as required by these rules, the applicant must have achieved a score no less than that required by the Oregon Board of Education before issuing an Oregon GED certificate.
(ii) Applicants holding a GED from another state may be required to obtain an Oregon certificate at the discretion of the Department.
(b) Evidence of the above must consist of official transcripts, diplomas, or GED test report forms. Other documentation may be accepted, at the discretion of the Department.
(6) Academic Proficiency Standard. Before beginning basic telecommunicator or Emergency Medical Dispatcher (EMD) training or challenging basic telecommunicator training, each applicant must provide evidence to DPSST that the applicant possesses the academic tools necessary to successfully complete basic telecommunicator or EMD training.
(a) The hiring agency is responsible for ensuring a telecommunicator/EMD proficiency test or validated written test designed to evaluate predictors of job-related skills and behavior has been administered. The hiring agency must verify the completion of the test and report the date of completion to the Department on a Form F-5 (Application for Training) prior to the applicant being admitted to basic telecommunicator or EMD training.
(b) Individuals submitting transcripts verifying that they possess at least a four-year academic degree from an institution recognized by DPSST under the provisions of OAR 259-008-0045 are exempt from this testing requirement.
(c) Individuals who have successfully completed training resulting in the award of certification in the discipline they are applying for training are exempt from this testing requirement. Individuals must submit proof of training and certification.
(7) Physical Standards.
(a) Prior to admittance into a basic training course, as described in OAR 259-008-0025, all telecommunicators, emergency medical dispatchers and applicants must demonstrate the physical abilities to perform the critical and essential tasks of a telecommunicator or emergency medical dispatcher.
(A) The critical and essential tasks for telecommunicators have been determined by the 2015 DPSST Job Task Analysis for Telecommunicators.
(B) The critical and essential tasks for emergency medical dispatchers have been determined by the 1995 National Highway Traffic Safety Administration Emergency Medical Dispatcher (EMD) National Standards Curriculum.
(b) The following minimum physical standards are required for all telecommunicators and emergency medical dispatchers.
(A) Visual Acuity. Corrected vision must be at least 20/30 (Snellen) when tested using both eyes together.
(B) Color Vision.
(i) Telecommunicators, emergency medical dispatchers and applicants must be able to distinguish red, green, blue, and yellow as determined by the HRR Test, 4th Edition.
(ii) Red or green deficiencies may be acceptable, providing the telecommunicator, emergency medical dispatcher or applicant can read at least nine of the first 13 plates of the Ishihara Test.
(iii) Telecommunicators, emergency medical dispatchers or applicants who fail to meet the color vision standard may meet the standard by demonstrating that they can correctly discriminate colors via a field test conducted by the employer as approved by the examining licensed health professional.
(C) Hearing.
(i) Telecommunicators, emergency medical dispatchers or applicants must meet National Emergency Number Association (NENA) hearing standard NENA-STA-007.2-2014 (June 14, 2014).
(ii) Telecommunicators, emergency medical dispatchers or applicants who fail to meet the hearing standard must be examined by a licensed audiologist or otorhinolaryngologist to determine if an amplification device will allow them to meet the hearing standard.
(iii) An amplification device may be used to meet the hearing standard, if a licensed audiologist or otorhinolaryngologist determines an amplification device will allow the telecommunicator, emergency medical dispatcher or applicant to meet the hearing standard.
(D) Medications. The side effects of any prescribed medication must not interfere with the telecommunicator’s, emergency medical dispatcher’s or applicant’s ability to perform the essential functions and tasks of the job.
(8) Medical Examinations. To ensure that telecommunicators, emergency medical dispatchers, and applicants meet the minimum physical standards listed in section (7) of this rule, telecommunicators, emergency medical dispatchers, and applicants must be examined by a licensed health professional.
(a) The licensed health professional performing the medical examination must be provided with a current DPSST Medical Examination Report (Form F-2T) for completion at the time of the examination.
(b) The medical examination must conform to applicable standards of the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) Title 42 USC 1210.
(c) The medical examination must be completed within 180 days prior to the start of employment as a telecommunicator or emergency medical dispatcher.
(d) Upon completion of the medical examination, the examining licensed health professional must sign the final page of the Form F-2T (Form F-2TA) attesting that the telecommunicator, emergency medical dispatcher or applicant has met or has not met the minimum physical standards listed in section (7) of this rule.
(e) The Form F-2TA must be submitted to the Department no later than 90 days after the start of employment.
(f) Telecommunicators, emergency medical dispatchers or applicants will not be admitted into a basic course until the Department receives a Form F-2TA attesting that the minimum physical standards have been met or a physical standard waiver has been granted, as described in section (9) of this rule.
(g) The Department may require that a telecommunicator or emergency medical dispatcher take a subsequent examination by a licensed health professional of the Department’s choice at the expense of the applicant or the hiring agency.
(h) Certified individuals who are hired into a discipline for which they are not certified are required to successfully complete a new physical examination.
(i) A telecommunicator or emergency medical dispatcher whose certification has lapsed will be required to complete a new medical examination prior to re-applying for certification.
(j) Individuals employed in a limited duration, administrative position, as described in OAR 259-008-0078, are exempt from the medical examination requirement.
(9) Physical Standard Waivers.
(a) An individual or department head may request a waiver of any physical standard in section (7) of this rule by:
(A) Submitting a request to the Department in writing; and
(B) Providing documentation or pertinent testimony that supports the physical standard waiver request.
(C) If further clarification is needed, the Department may require additional documentation or testimony from the individual or department head requesting the physical standard waiver.
(D) The requesting individual may be required to demonstrate the ability to perform the critical and essential job tasks.
(E) If the Department finds that the physical standard waiver request would not prohibit the requesting individual’s ability to successfully complete training and the performance of the critical and essential tasks, the waiver will be granted.
(F) Any expense associated with providing physical standard waiver documentation or testimony will be the responsibility of the requesting individual or the requesting agency.
(G) If an individual requests and is granted a physical standard waiver, but does not obtain employment within one year from the date the waiver is granted, the waiver will be void.
(H) If the Department denies a request for a waiver of any physical standard in section (7) of this rule, the Department will issue Notice and proceed as provided in section (9)(b) of this rule.
(b) Contested Case Hearing Process for Denial of Physical Standard Waivers.
(A) Initiation of Proceedings: A contested case notice will be prepared when the Department denies a physical standard waiver after determining that factual data meeting the statutory and administrative rule requirements justifies the denial.
(B) Contested Case Notice: All contested case notices will be prepared in accordance with the applicable provisions of the Attorney General's Model Rules of Procedure adopted under OAR 259-005-0015.
(C) Response Time: A party who has been served with a "Contested Case Notice of Intent to Deny a Waiver" has 60 days from the date of mailing or personal service of the notice in which to file a written request for a hearing with the Department.
(D) Default Order: If a timely request for a hearing is not received, the Contested Case Notice will become a final order denying the requested waiver pursuant to OAR 137-003-0672.
(E) Hearing Request: If a timely request for a hearing is received, the Department will refer the matter to the Office of Administrative Hearings in accordance with OAR 137-003-0515.
(F) Proposed and Final Orders: In cases where a hearing was requested, proposed orders, exceptions, and final orders will be issued pursuant to the applicable provisions of the Attorney General’s Model Rules of Procedure adopted under OAR 259-005-0015.
(10) Pre-employment Psychological Evaluation. A person may not be employed as a telecommunicator or emergency medical dispatcher without a pre-employment psychological evaluation conducted in accordance with this rule. This requirement applies to telecommunicators and emergency medical dispatchers hired on or after January 1, 2024. This requirement does not apply to a person employed as an emergency medical dispatcher by a private safety agency that is an ambulance service provider.
(a) As used in this section, “psychological evaluation” or “evaluation” refers to a pre-employment psychiatric or psychological evaluation.
(b) A psychological evaluation is required as follows:
(A) When an applicant is initially hired by the hiring agency; or
(B) When a telecommunicator or emergency medical dispatcher is rehired by the same hiring agency after a separation of employment that is more than 180 days.
(c) The psychological evaluation is used to:
(A) Identify mental conditions, personality disorders, personality traits, or behavior patterns that may adversely affect the applicant’s ability to perform the essential functions of the job with reasonable skill, safety, and judgment based upon the psychological evaluation criteria established by the hiring agency; and
(B) Conduct an assessment of the applicant’s tendencies, feelings and opinions toward diverse cultures, races and ethnicities and differing social, political, economic and life statuses.
(d) The psychological evaluation must be conducted by a licensed mental health professional who can demonstrate, to the hiring agency’s satisfaction, expertise in clinical assessment and the assessment of normal personality characteristics, skills, and abilities relevant to public safety personnel selection. “Licensed Mental Health Professional” includes:
(A) A physician with a specialty in psychiatry licensed by the Oregon Medical Board or the licensing body in the state where the psychiatrist provides the psychiatric services;
(B) A psychologist who is licensed by the Oregon Board of Psychology or the licensing body in the state where the person provides the psychological services; or
(C) A mental health professional who is licensed by the licensing body in the state where the person provides mental health services.
(e) The psychological evaluation must include the following:
(A) A written psychological test battery relevant to the psychological evaluation criteria established by the hiring agency;
(B) An assessment of the applicant’s tendencies, feelings and opinions toward diverse cultures, races and ethnicities and differing social, political, economic and life statuses;
(C) An interview conducted by the licensed mental health professional; and
(D) A report provided by the licensed mental health professional in the manner requested by the hiring agency.
(f) The psychological evaluation must conform with the applicable standards of the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) Title 42 USC 1210.
(g) Evaluations older than one year are no longer valid for the purposes of satisfying this rule.
(h) Hiring decisions are the responsibility of each hiring agency. The hiring agency maintains the discretion to determine how the information provided in the evaluation report impacts the hiring decision.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410, ORS 183.341 & ORS 181A.676
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410, ORS 183.341, ORS 181A.676 & ORS 181A.688
- DPSST 6-2023, amend filed 04/27/2023, effective 07/01/2023
- DPSST 30-2020, amend filed 10/22/2020, effective 11/01/2020
- DPSST 5-2020, amend filed 02/10/2020, effective 05/01/2020
- DPSST 14-2017, f. 7-28-17, cert. ef. 8-1-17
- DPSST 7-2017, f. 3-22-17, cert. ef. 4-1-17
- DPSST 11-2016, f. 7-25-16, cert. ef. 7-29-16
- DPSST 6-2016, f. 3-22-16, cert. ef. 4-1-16
- DPSST 10-2015, f. 6-23-15, cert. ef. 7-1-15
- DPSST 7-2015, f. & cert. ef. 3-24-15
- DPSST 32-2014, f. 12-29-14, cert. ef. 1-1-15
- DPSST 13-2014, f. & cert. ef. 6-24-14
- DPSST 18-2013, f. & cert. ef. 7-23-13
- DPSST 19-2012, f. & cert. ef. 8-31-12
- DPSST 5-2012, f. & cert. ef. 3-26-12
- DPSST 14-2011, f. 9-26-11, cert. ef. 10-1-11
- DPSST 9-2011, f. & cert. ef. 6-28-11
- DPSST 13-2010, f. & cert. ef. 12-23-10
- DPSST 9-2010(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 10-15-10 thru 4-12-11
- DPSST 6-2009, f. & cert. ef. 7-13-09
- DPSST 21-2008, f. 12-15-08, cert. ef. 1-1-09
- DPSST 5-2008, f. & cert. ef. 4-15-08
- DPSST 10-2007, f. & cert. ef. 10-15-07
- DPSST 3-2007, f. & cert. ef. 1-12-07
- DPSST 5-2004, f. & cert. ef. 4-23-04
- DPSST 1-2004, f. 1-16-04, cert. ef. 1-20-04
- BPSST 1-2002, f. & cert. ef. 2-6-02
Or. Admin. R. 259-008-0015 Background Investigations
(1) Hiring agencies must complete a background investigation prior to hiring or utilizing an applicant as a public safety officer. The hiring agency’s background investigation must meet or exceed the background investigation standards defined in this rule.
(2) A completed background investigation must include the following:
(a) A completed personal history questionnaire that meets the Applicant Personal History Questionnaire Standards defined in section (4) of this rule.
(b) Investigation of the applicant’s:
(A) Criminal History and Arrests;
(B) DPSST Regulatory Records Check;
(C) Drug and Alcohol Use;
(D) Education;
(E) Employment History. When an applicant’s employment history includes prior public safety or private security employment, the investigation must include review of complaints, personnel investigations, and disciplinary actions against the public safety officer or private security provider;
(F) Finances;
(G) Memberships and Associations. This includes but is not limited to the applicant’s membership or participation in hate groups, racial supremacist organizations, or militant groups, or the applicant’s display of symbols of racism or racial supremacy;
(H) Military History;
(I) Motor Vehicle Records;
(J) References. This must include three or more personal or professional references provided by the applicant that were interviewed by the hiring agency;
(K) Residential History;
(L) Work Eligibility; and
(M) Other Records As Needed. These may include but are not limited to out of state records, police records, district attorney records, court records, open sources, or social media as permitted by law.
(c) An interview of the applicant conducted in conjunction with the background investigation.
(d) A signed declaration acknowledging under penalty of perjury that the information provided by the applicant for the background investigation and the personal history questionnaire is true and correct to the best of the applicant’s knowledge.
(e) A signed release that allows the applicant’s background investigation information to be shared with other public or private safety agencies the applicant may become affiliated with.
(f) A psychiatric or psychological evaluation of the applicant as required by OAR 259-008-0010 or OAR 259-008-0011. The documentation required for section (3) of this rule must include the evaluator’s name and license number and a description of the evaluator’s assessment of the applicant’s tendencies, feelings and opinions toward diverse cultures, races and ethnicities and differing social, political, economic and life statuses.
(3) The hiring agency must document completion of the background investigation using the checklist form provided by DPSST or using a form or manner that clearly documents completion of the background investigation standards defined in section (2) of this rule. Documentation must include a description of the findings of the investigation, a description of how the information was investigated, or any combination of the two.
(4) Applicant Personal History Questionnaire Standards.
(a) When hiring a police officer, reserve officer, corrections officer, parole and probation officer, or regulatory specialist, the hiring agency must use a personal history questionnaire that includes the Personal History Questions adopted by reference and dated July 1, 2023. (See the attached PDF file linked below.) The hiring agency may administer the Personal History Questions using the questionnaire form provided by DPSST or an alternate format. When using an alternate format, the questions may not be altered, but they may be used in any order. The hiring agency may add additional questions.
(b) When hiring a telecommunicator or emergency medical dispatcher, the hiring agency may use any personal history questionnaire.
(5) Background investigations must be retained by the hiring agency in accordance with the Secretary of State’s Record Retention Schedule and must be made available for review if requested by DPSST.
[ED. NOTE: To view attachments referenced in rule text, click here to view rule.]
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410 & ORS 181A.676
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410, ORS 181A.676 & ORS 181A.688
- DPSST 6-2023, amend filed 04/27/2023, effective 07/01/2023
- DPSST 3-2020, amend filed 01/30/2020, effective 02/15/2020
- DPSST 7-2019, amend filed 07/26/2019, effective 08/01/2019
- DPSST 4-2016, f. 3-22-16, cert. ef. 4-1-16
- DPSST 31-2014, f. & cert. ef. 12-29-14
- DPSST 2-2010, f. & cert. ef. 3-15-10
- DPSST 1-2010, f. & cert. ef. 1-11-10
- BPSST 3-1998, f. & cert. ef. 6-30-98
- BPSST 1-1998, f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98
- BPSST 2-1998(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98 thru 6-30-98
- Reverted to PS 2-1995, f. & cert. ef. 9-27-95
- PS 10-1997(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-5-97
- PS 2-1995, f. & cert. ef. 9-27-95
- Renumbered from 259-010-0021, PS 1-1990, f. & cert. ef. 2-7-90
- PS 1-1983, f. & ef. 12-15-83
Or. Admin. R. 259-008-0017 Public Records
(1) A private safety agency that employs a public safety professional subject to the Department’s certification requirements must retain all documentation related to a public safety professional’s employment, training and certification in a manner, and for the period of time, consistent with the requirements of the Secretary of State’s administrative rules relating to records retention by public bodies.
(2) Documentation related to a public safety professional’s employment, training and certification includes, but is not limited to:
(a) Any documentation related to an employment investigation, or pending or final disciplinary action related to a public safety professional;
(b) A public safety professional’s personnel record, including any documentation related to a personnel investigation or disciplinary action;
(c) A public safety professional’s training record;
(d) A public safety professional’s payroll records.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410
- DPSST 32-2018, minor correction filed 02/23/2018, effective 02/23/2018
- DPSST 3-2010, f. 4-12-10, cert. ef. 5-1-10
Or. Admin. R. 259-008-0018 Authorized Signer / Signature Authority
(1) When a document is required to be signed by the employing agency the document must be signed by one of the following:
(a) The department head of a public safety agency;
(b) A currently certified public safety professional authorized by the department head of a public safety agency;
(c) A manager or supervisor authorized by the department head of a private safety agency; or
(d) When the employing agency is not a public or private safety agency, a manager or supervisor within the human resources division of the agency.
(2) Documents may include, but are not limited to, any DPSST form, letter, affidavit, or supporting documentation submitted to DPSST.
(3) Course attendance rosters may also be signed by the training sponsors, or instructors, or agency personnel as designated by the department head.
(4) DPSST has the discretion to make an exception to any of the above at any time.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410
- DPSST 46-2018, adopt filed 04/27/2018, effective 05/01/2018
Or. Admin. R. 259-008-0020 Personnel Actions, DPSST Numbers and Use of Legal Name
(1) Employers of public safety professionals must report personnel actions to the Department. The following personnel actions must be reported through a Department-approved submission process within 10 business days of an employment or utilization status change:
(a) The hire or appointment of a public safety professional to one or more public safety disciplines;
(b) Any separation from employment or utilization as a public safety professional;
(c) The promotion or demotion of any public safety professional;
(d) The start of a leave from a certifiable position that exceeds 90 days or a return from a leave that exceeds 90 days;
(e) When a parole and probation officer becomes an armed parole and probation officer; or
(f) Any of the following status changes impacting a multi-disciplined officer:
(A) The addition of a discipline and the designation of a primary discipline;
(B) A change in the designation of a primary discipline; or
(C) When multi-discipline employment ends in one or more of the certifiable disciplines and the public safety officer continues certifiable employment in at least one discipline.
(2) A DPSST number will be established for each public safety professional who is employed in a certifiable position or employed or utilized as a reserve officer.
(3) A DPSST number may be established, at the discretion of the Department, when:
(a) A federal officer, as defined by ORS 133.005, has completed the training provided by the Department in accordance with ORS 133.245; or
(b) An individual’s employer has submitted a written request identifying a demonstrated law enforcement need for an employee to obtain a DPSST number and the Department has approved the request.
(4) The Department requires use of the public safety professional’s legal name as the name of record for all Department purposes. All certifications issued to a public safety professional will display the legal name. When a public safety professional has a legal name change, the employer must report the legal name change to the Department through a Department-approved submission process within 10 business days of the name change.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410
- DPSST 21-2020, amend filed 09/14/2020, effective 10/01/2020
- DPSST 15-2020, amend filed 05/04/2020, effective 05/15/2020
- DPSST 46-2018, amend filed 04/27/2018, effective 05/01/2018
- DPSST 23-2017, amend filed 12/29/2017, effective 01/01/2018
- DPSST 8-2017, f. 4-27-17, cert. ef. 5-1-17
- DPSST 10-2016, f. 7-25-16, cert. ef. 7-29-16
- DPSST 4-2016, f. 3-22-16, cert. ef. 4-1-16
- DPSST 5-2014, f. & cert. ef. 1-29-14
- DPSST 1-2014, f. & cert. ef. 1-2-14
- DPSST 7-2010, f. 7-15-10, cert. ef. 8-1-10
- DPSST 6-2009, f. & cert. ef. 7-13-09
- DPSST 5-2004, f. & cert. ef. 4-23-04
- BPSST 22-2002, f. & cert. ef. 11-18-02
- BPSST 2-2001, f. & cert. ef. 2-8-01
- BPSST 3-1998, f. & cert. ef. 6-30-98
- BPSST 2-1998(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98 thru 6-30-98
- BPSST 1-1998, f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98
- Reverted to PS 2-1995, f. & cert. ef. 9-27-95
- PS 10-1997(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-5-97
- PS 2-1995, f. & cert. ef. 9-27-95
- Renumbered from 259-010-0026, PS 1-1990, f. & cert. ef. 2-7-90
- Renumbered from 259-010-0050, PS 1-1983, f. & ef. 12-15-83
- PS 12, f. & ef. 12-19-77
Or. Admin. R. 259-008-0025 Minimum Standards for Training
(1) Basic Training.
(a) The prescribed basic training course and field training manual must be completed by all corrections officers no later than 12 months from the date of employment in a certifiable position.
(b) The prescribed basic training course and field training manual must be completed by all police officers, parole and probation officers, telecommunicators, emergency medical dispatchers and regulatory specialists no later than 18 months from the date of employment in a certifiable position.
(c) Corrections and police officers who have not completed the prescribed basic course must begin training within 90 days of their initial date of employment as a law enforcement officer.
(d) All prescribed field training will be conducted under the supervision of the employing agency. The employing agency must provide proof of completion prior to the award of basic certification.
(e) Regulatory specialists employed by OLCC prior to July 1, 2015 who have previously completed OLCC basic training may be exempted from completion of the basic regulatory specialist course.
(f) Law enforcement officers employed in a limited duration, administrative position, as described in OAR 259-008-0078, are exempted from these minimum training requirements.
(2) Additional Training Requirements.
(a) Law enforcement officers who have previously completed the prescribed basic course but have not been employed full-time as a law enforcement officer for over one year but less than five years must complete a minimum of eight hours of Firearms or Use of Force training within 30 days of the law enforcement officer's return to work and prior to reactivation of certification.
(b) Law enforcement officers who have previously completed the prescribed basic course but have not been employed full-time as a law enforcement officer within the past five years will be required to satisfactorily complete the prescribed basic course and field training manual in its entirety prior to reactivation of certification.
(c) Law enforcement officers who have previously completed the prescribed basic course but have not been employed full-time as a law enforcement officer for over two and one-half years but less than five years must complete the prescribed career officer development course and field training manual prior to reactivation of certification.
(d) Telecommunicators and emergency medical dispatchers (EMD) who have previously completed the prescribed basic course but have not been employed as a telecommunicator or EMD within the past two and one-half years will be required to satisfactorily complete the prescribed basic course and field training manual in its entirety prior to reactivation of certification.
(e) Training timelines for career officer development courses will be established by the Department.
(3) Waivers of the Minimum Training Standards for Law Enforcement Officers.
(a) The Department may waive any portion of the minimum training standards upon finding that a law enforcement officer has the current knowledge, skills and abilities to perform as a law enforcement officer in Oregon. For the purposes of this standard, demonstration of current knowledge, skills and abilities as an Oregon law enforcement officer must include full-time employment within the past five years which demonstrates the individual has maintained a level of knowledge, skills and abilities comparable to those of an active law enforcement officer in Oregon, including the authorization to provide law enforcement services or the responsibility of enforcing criminal law.
(b) Reciprocity. Law enforcement officers who have been employed by a public or private safety agency in another state and have previously completed a basic training course deemed by the Department to meet or exceed Oregon’s minimum training standards may be granted a waiver of the basic training course. These officers will be required to complete the prescribed career officer development course and field training manual.
(c) Waiver requests must be made in writing by the employing agency and must include any supporting documentation, to include a written request for a waiver from the officer’s employing agency, a copy of any previously completed course including documentation of course content with hour and subject breakdown of the training, and the officer’s employment history.
(d) The Department may request additional information. Any expenses associated with providing waiver documentation will be the responsibility of the requesting agency.
(e) Notwithstanding section (4), waivers are not available for the basic telecommunications course or basic emergency medical dispatcher course.
(4) Challenge of the Minimum Training Standards for Telecommunicators. When a telecommunicator is required to complete the basic telecommunicator course pursuant to subsection (2)(d) of this rule, they may challenge the basic telecommunicator course under the following circumstances:
(a) The telecommunicator must have completed the basic course after April 1, 2019;
(b) The telecommunicator must not have been separated from a certifiable telecommunicator position for more than five years; and
(c) The telecommunicator’s employing agency must submit a written request for the telecommunicator to challenge the basic telecommunicator course to the Department.
(5) Armed Parole and Probation Officer Training. Armed parole and probation officers must complete the Department’s Armed Parole and Probation Course, Department-approved equivalent training or be approved for a waiver of the armed parole and probation officer training. This training requirement applies to parole and probation officers who are hired as or changed to an armed parole and probation officer on or after July 1, 2020.
(a) The required training must be completed no later than 18 months from the date of the parole and probation officer’s designation as an armed parole and probation officer.
(b) A public safety agency may request approval to provide equivalent training. In order for the training to be recognized as satisfying the armed parole and probation officer training requirement, the training must be approved by the Department prior to delivery of the training to the armed parole and probation officer.
(c) To be eligible for a waiver of the armed parole and probation officer training, the employing agency must submit a written request for waiver to the Department and the parole and probation officer must:
(A) Have held certification in Oregon as a police officer or a corrections officer within the five years prior to designation as an armed parole and probation officer; or
(B) Have completed either the Armed Parole and Probation Course (APP) or the Parole and Probation Firearms Course (PPFA) within the past five years.
(6) Supervision Course. Public safety officers who are promoted, appointed or transferred to a first-level supervisory position must satisfactorily complete the Supervision course or equivalent training that complies with the requirements outlined in the DPSST Form F-21.
(a) The required training must be completed no later than 12 months after the promotion, appointment or transfer.
(b) Applicable training that occurred within five years prior to the promotion, appointment or transfer may be accepted by the Department as satisfying the Supervision training requirement.
(7) Middle Management Course. Public safety officers who are promoted, appointed or transferred to a middle management position must satisfactorily complete the Middle Management course or equivalent training that complies with the requirements outlined in the DPSST Form F-22.
(a) The required training must be completed no later than 12 months after the promotion, appointment or transfer.
(b) Applicable training that occurred within five years prior to the promotion, appointment or transfer may be accepted by the Department as satisfying the Middle Management training requirement.
(8) Time Extensions. The Department may grant a time extension upon presentation of evidence by a public or private safety agency that a public safety officer is unable to meet the timelines prescribed in sections (1), (2)(a), (5), (6) and (7) due to an authorized leave of absence or any other reasonable cause as determined by the Department.
(a) Time extensions of the requirements found in sections (1)(a), (1)(b), (5), (6) and (7) will not exceed one year.
(b) Time extensions of the requirements found in subsection (1)(c) will not exceed 30 days.
(c) Time extensions of the requirements found in subsection (2)(a) will not exceed 90 days.
(d) Any delays caused by the inability of the Department to provide basic training for any reason will not be counted towards the time requirements found in subsections (1)(a), (b) or (c).
(9) Notwithstanding this rule, the Department may prescribe additional training for Basic certification, up to and including completion of the full Basic course, in situations in which previous periods of employment have been limited.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410
- DPSST 15-2020, amend filed 05/04/2020, effective 05/15/2020
- DPSST 1-2019, amend filed 03/25/2019, effective 04/01/2019
- DPSST 11-2017, f. 6-29-17, cert. ef. 7-1-17
- DPSST 19-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-22-16
- DPSST 5-2016, f. & cert. ef. 3-22-16
- DPSST 18-2015, f. 12-22-15, cert. ef. 1-1-16
- DPSST 11-2015, f. 6-23-15, cert. ef. 7-1-15
- DPSST 7-2015, f. & cert. ef. 3-24-15
- DPSST 10-2014, f. & cert. ef. 4-10-14
- DPSST 1-2014, f. & cert. ef. 1-2-14
- DPSST 2-2014, f. & cert. ef. 1-2-14
- DPSST 15-2013, f. & cert. ef. 6-25-13
- DPSST 6-2013, f. & cert. ef. 3-8-13
- DPSST 17-2012, f. & cert. ef. 8-24-12
- DPSST 13-2012(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 5-8-12 thru 10-1-12
- DPSST 2-2011, f. 3-23-11, cert. ef. 5-1-11
- DPSST 3-2010, f. 4-12-10, cert. ef. 5-1-10
- DPSST 15-2009, f. & cert. ef. 12-15-09
- DPSST 8-2009(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 9-15-09 thru 3-1-10
- DPSST 3-2009, f. & cert. ef. 4-8-09
- DPSST 14-2008, f. & cert. ef. 10-15-08
- DPSST 9-2008, f. & cert. ef. 7-15-08
- DPSST 3-2007, f. & cert. ef. 1-12-06
- DPSST 3-2007, f. & cert. ef. 1-12-07
- DPSST 5-2004, f. & cert. ef. 4-23-04
- DPSST 14-2003, f. & cert. ef. 12-22-03
- BPSST 15-2002, f. & cert. ef. 7-5-02
- BPSST 8-2002, f. & cert. ef. 4-3-02
- BPSST 2-2002, f. & cert. ef. 2-6-02
- BPSST 13-2001(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 10-26-01 thru 4-10-02
- BPSST 11-2000, f. 11-13-00, cert. ef. 11-15-00
- BPSST 3-1998, f. & cert. ef. 6-30-98
- BPSST 1-1998, f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98
- BPSST 2-1998(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98 thru 6-30-98
- Reverted to PS 5-1997, f. 3-20-97, cert. ef. 3-25-97
- PS 10-1997(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-5-97
- PS 5-1997, f. 3-20-97, cert. ef. 3-25-97
- PS 2-1995, f. & cert. ef. 9-27-95
- Renumbered from 259-010-0030, PS 1-1990, f. & cert. ef. 2-7-90
- PS 1-1985, f. & ef. 4-24-85
- PS 1-1983, f. & ef. 12-15-83
- PS 1-1982, f. & ef. 7-2-82
- PS 1-1979, f. 10-1-79, ef. 10-3-79
- PS 12, f. & ef. 12-19-77
Or. Admin. R. 259-008-0040 Period of Service
(1) No person may be employed as a police officer, parole and probation officer, telecommunicator, emergency medical dispatcher, or regulatory specialist for more than 18 months unless that officer, telecommunicator, emergency medical dispatcher or regulatory specialist has been certified under the provisions of ORS 181A.355 to 181A.420 and the certification has neither lapsed nor been revoked.
(2) No person may be employed as a corrections officer for more than one year unless that officer has been certified under the provisions of ORS 181A.355 to 181A.420 and the certification has neither lapsed nor been revoked.
(3) For purposes of this rule, the Department will count all periods of full-time employment identified in subsection (1) and (2) in the aggregate if:
(a) An individual was reclassified from a certifiable position to a non-certifiable position for a period of less than six months; and
(b) The individual is then returned to a certifiable position in the same discipline, while employed with the same employer.
(4) The Board or its designee, upon the facts contained in an affidavit accompanying the request for an extension, may find good cause for failure to obtain certification within the time period described in section (1) or (2) of this rule. If the Board finds that there is good cause for such failure, the Board may extend for up to one year the period that a person may serve as a law enforcement officer, telecommunicator, or emergency medical dispatcher without certification. The grant or denial of such an extension is within the sole discretion of the Board.
(5) The Board, or its designee, may further extend the time period for a law enforcement officer, telecommunicator, or emergency medical dispatcher who has been deployed to full-time active military duty during the time period described in section (1) or (2) of this rule. Conditions for certification upon an individual’s return to his or her employer, may include, but are not limited to:
(a) Remediation of Basic course;
(b) Successful completion of Career Officer Development Course;
(c) Demonstrated proficiency of skills and ability;
(d) F-2 or F-2T (Medical Form).
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410
- DPSST 46-2018, amend filed 04/27/2018, effective 05/01/2018
- DPSST 18-2015, f. 12-22-15, cert. ef. 1-1-16
- DPSST 11-2015, f. 6-23-15, cert. ef. 7-1-15
- DPSST 3-2010, f. 4-12-10, cert. ef. 5-1-10
- DPSST 7-2005, f. & cert. ef. 8-5-05
- BPSST 8-2002, f. & cert. ef. 4-3-02
- BPSST 13-2001(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 10-26-01 thru 4-10-02
- BPSST 3-1998, f. & cert. ef. 6-30-98
- BPSST 1-1998, f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98
- BPSST 2-1998(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98 thru 6-30-98
- Reverted to PS 2-1995, f. & cert. ef. 9-27-95
- PS 10-1997(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-5-97
- PS 2-1995, f. & cert. ef. 9-27-95
- Renumbered from 259-010-0047, PS 1-1990, f. & cert. ef. 2-7-90
- Renumbered from 259-010-0020, PS 1-1983, f. & ef. 12-15-83
- PS 12, f. & ef. 12-19-77
Or. Admin. R. 259-008-0045 Education Credits
(1) Credit for preservice or in-service college education will not be accepted in lieu of the Basic Course described in OAR 259-008-0025.
(2) Education credits or college degrees submitted to the Department for inclusion on a public safety professional’s official record must have been earned from one of the following recognized sources:
(a) A degree-granting community college, college or university accredited by a recognized national or regional accrediting body;
(b) A community college, college or university whose coursework or degree has been accepted for credit by a degree granting community college, college or university accredited by a recognized national or regional accrediting body;
(c) A degree-granting college or university recognized by the Oregon Office of Degree Authorization under the provisions of ORS 348.604; or
(d) The American Council on Education’s credit recommendation on the Joint Services Transcript (JST) used by the Army, Marine Corps, Navy, and Coast Guard.
(e) For purposes of this rule, a recognized national or regional accrediting body is one recognized by the U.S. Department of Education, or the Council on Higher Education Accreditation (CHEA), or its predecessor.
(3) Any education credits obtained in a foreign country, which are claimed to be comparable to credits or a college degree granted by a licensing body in the United States or US Territories must be evaluated by a credentialing agency that is a member of the National Association of Credential Evaluation Services (NACES). The credentialing agency must send an evaluation to the Department for approval, at the applicant's expense, before any educational credit is accepted as equivalent.
(4) Documentation of Education Credits. The Department must receive official transcripts from a recognized source as defined in section (2) of this rule prior to entering education credits on a public safety professional’s official record.
(a) Each quarter credit unit granted by a recognized source operating on a quarterly schedule will equal one education credit.
(b) Each semester credit unit granted by a recognized source operating on a semester schedule will equal 1-1/2 education credits.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410
- DPSST 20-2016, f. 12-27-16, cert. ef. 1-1-17
- DPSST 9-2008, f. & cert. ef. 7-15-08
- DPSST 4-2006, f. & cert. ef, 2-28-06
- BPSST 4-2001, f. & cert. ef. 8-22-01
- BPSST 5-1999, f. & cert. ef. 7-29-99
- BPSST 3-1998, f. & cert. ef. 6-30-98
- BPSST 2-1998(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98 thru 6-30-98
- BPSST 1-1998, f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98
- PS 10-1997(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-5-97
- PS 2-1995, f. & cert. ef. 9-27-95
- PS 1-1990, f. & cert. ef. 2-7-90, Renumbered from 259-010-0051
- PS 1-1983, f. & ef. 12-15-83, Renumbered from 259-010-0025
- PS 12, f. & ef. 12-19-77
Or. Admin. R. 259-008-0060 Public Safety Officer Certification
(1) Basic, Intermediate, and Advanced Certificates are awarded by the Department to law enforcement officers and telecommunicators meeting prescribed standards of training, education, and experience. Emergency medical dispatchers may be awarded basic certification only.
(2) Supervisory, Management, and Executive Certificates are awarded to law enforcement officers and telecommunicators meeting the prescribed standards in this rule and the ranks established by the employing law enforcement units, or public or private safety agencies.
(3) Basic certification is mandatory and must be acquired by all police officers, parole and probation officers, telecommunicators, emergency medical dispatchers, and regulatory specialists within 18 months of employment, and by all corrections officers within 12 months of employment, unless an extension is granted by the Department.
(4) To be eligible for the award of a certificate, law enforcement officers must:
(a) Be full-time employees as defined in OAR 259-008-0005 or part-time parole and probation officers, as defined in OAR 259-008-0005;
(b) Meet the prescribed minimum employment standards in OAR 259-008-0010;
(c) Subscribe to and swear or affirm to abide by the Board-approved Criminal Justice Code of Ethics; and
(d) Have valid certifications in adult and child cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) and First Aid.
(5) To be eligible for the award of a certificate, telecommunicators and emergency medical dispatchers must:
(a) Meet the prescribed minimum employment standards as established by OAR 259-008-0011;
(b) Subscribe to and swear or affirm to abide by the Board-approved Telecommunicator Code of Ethics; and
(c) Have valid certifications in adult and child cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) and First Aid.
(6) Applications for certification must be submitted through a Department-approved submission process.
(7) In addition to the requirements in sections (1) through (6) of this rule, each applicant must have completed the designated education and training, combined with the prescribed corrections, parole and probation, police, regulatory specialist or telecommunications experience for the award of an Intermediate, Advanced, Supervisory, Management, or Executive Certificate.
(8) Training and Education:
(a) Basic courses certified by the Department will be approved by the Board.
(b) The Department may record training hours for departmental or other in-service training which is recorded and documented in the personnel files of the trainee's department. These records must include the subject, instructor, classroom hours, date, sponsor, and location.
(c) Training completed in other states, military training, and other specialized training, if properly documented, may be accepted, subject to staff evaluation and approval. These records must include the subject, date, and classroom hours, and must be certified true copies of the original.
(d) The Department must receive official transcripts, as prescribed in OAR 259-008-0045 (Education Credits), prior to entering education credits on an individual’s official record.
(e) Education credits awarded based on training completed must be documented on an official transcript from a recognized source, as defined in OAR 259-008-0045, and may be applied toward an application for certification as either training hours or education credits, whichever is to the advantage of the applicant. These credits cannot be applied towards certification as both education credits and training hours.
(A) Prior to applying an applicant's education credits toward any level of certification, the Department must receive documentation of the number of education credits awarded based on training completed.
(B) The training hours identified under paragraph (A) above and submitted as education credit toward a certification will not be included in any calculation of whether the applicant has earned sufficient training hours to qualify for the requested certification level.
(9) Experience/Employment:
(a) Experience gained as a corrections officer, parole and probation officer, police officer, or regulatory specialist employed full time with municipal, county, state, or federal agencies, may be accepted if the experience is in the discipline the certification is requested and is approved by the Department.
(b) Experience acquired as a telecommunicator or emergency medical dispatcher employed with a public or private safety agency may be accepted if the experience is in the discipline the certification is requested and is approved by the Department.
(c) Experience acquired as a certified part-time telecommunicator or emergency medical dispatcher as defined in OAR 259-008-0005, or part time parole and probation officer as defined in OAR 259-008-0005, will count on a pro-rated basis.
(d) Experience acquired as a multi-disciplined officer will be applied to the public safety officer’s primary discipline.
(e) For the purpose of this rule, creditable service time for experience will not accrue under the following circumstances:
(A) When an individual is employed in a casual, seasonal, or temporary capacity;
(B) When an individual is on leave, other than full-time military leave;
(C) From the date a public safety officer’s certification is suspended until it is reinstated by the Department;
(D) When a public safety officer fails to obtain basic certification within a mandated timeframe and is prohibited from being employed as a public safety officer;
(E) When a public safety officer is employed in a limited duration, administrative position, as described in OAR 259-008-0078; or
(F) For a multi-disciplined officer toward a non-primary discipline.
(10) The Basic Certificate. In addition to the requirements in sections (1) through (6) of this rule, applicants for basic certification must have satisfactorily completed the required basic training as prescribed in OAR 259-008-0025 in the discipline the certification is requested or have completed equivalent training as determined by the Department.
(11) The Intermediate and Advanced Certificates. In addition to the requirements in sections (4) through (6) of this rule, applicants for Intermediate and Advanced Certification must have acquired a combination of work experience in the discipline the certification is requested, training hours and the education credits or college degree, as identified in the discipline specific Intermediate/Advanced Certification Charts.
(a) The work experience, training hours and education credits or college degree being used to apply for certification must appear on the applicant’s training record or be properly documented and submitted as supporting documentation with the application for certification.
(A) Applicants for Intermediate or Advanced Certification in the Police, Corrections, Parole and Probation and Regulatory Specialist disciplines must also submit a Form F-7WS (Intermediate/Advanced Certification Supplemental Worksheet), with a copy of their training record, to document the training hours that are being applied toward the certification.
(B) The Form F-7WS must include meaningful descriptions of the training events and must be reviewed and signed by the employing agency and the applicant attesting that the information is true and correct and meets the requirements for the award of an Intermediate or Advanced Certification.
(C) Applicants for Intermediate or Advanced Certification in the Telecommunications discipline must also submit a Portfolio that identifies the portfolio points submitted, includes supporting documentation of the portfolio points and includes a recommendation by the department head or an authorized designee.
(b) To be awarded an Intermediate Certification, applicants must possess or be eligible to possess a Basic Certificate in the discipline for which the applicant is requesting intermediate certification.
(c) To be awarded an Advanced Certification, applicants must possess or be eligible to possess the Intermediate Certificate in the discipline for which the applicant is requesting advanced certification.
(d) The training hours used to obtain basic certification cannot be used toward intermediate certification.
(e) The training hours used to obtain basic and intermediate certifications cannot be used toward advanced certification.
(f) If making application for Advanced Telecommunications Certification, events, awards and experiences submitted as portfolio points for intermediate certification cannot be applied toward advanced certification.
(12) The Supervisory Certificate. In addition to requirements in sections (2) and (4) through (6) of this rule, applicants for the Supervisory Certificate must have acquired a combination of work experience, training hours and education credits, as prescribed in this rule:
(a) Applicants may determine eligibility for supervisory certification by referencing either:
(A) The eligibility requirements for supervisory certification effective until December 31, 2018: or
(B) The eligibility requirements for supervisory certification effective July 1, 2017.
(C) Applicants may apply for supervisory certification using the set of eligibility requirements that best fits their experience, education and training.
(b) Eligibility requirements for supervisory certification effective until December 31, 2018:
(A) Applicants must possess or be eligible to possess the Advanced Certificate in the discipline the supervisory certification is requested;
(B) Applicants must have satisfactorily completed no less than 45 education credits as defined in OAR 259-008-0045 and in accordance with section (8) of this rule;
(C) Applicants must have satisfactorily completed the prescribed supervision training within five years of the application for the Supervisory Certificate; and
(D) Applicants must be presently employed in and have satisfactorily performed the duties of a first-level supervisor as defined in OAR 259-008-0005 for a period of one year. The required experience must have been acquired within five years of the date of the application.
(E) Upon request of the employing agency, the Department may waive the requirements of paragraphs (C) or (D), provided the employing agency demonstrates that the applicant performs supervisory duties on a regular basis.
(c) Eligibility requirements for supervisory certification effective July 1, 2017:
(A) Applicants must possess or be eligible to possess the Basic Certificate in the discipline the supervisory certification is requested;
(B) Applicants must have satisfactorily completed the prescribed supervision training within five years of the application for the Supervisory Certificate; and
(C) Applicants must be presently employed in and have satisfactorily performed the duties of a first-level supervisor as defined in OAR 259-008-0005 for a period of two years. The required experience must have been acquired within five years of the date of the application.
(D) Upon request of the employing agency, the Department may waive the requirements of paragraphs (B) or (C), provided the employing agency demonstrates that the applicant performs supervisory duties on a regular basis.
(13) The Management Certificate. In addition to requirements in sections (2) and (4) through (6) of this rule, the following are required for the award of the Management Certificate:
(a) Applicants must possess or be eligible to possess the Supervisory Certificate in the discipline the management certification is requested;
(b) Applicants must have satisfactorily completed no less than 90 education credits as defined in OAR 259-008-0045 and in accordance with section (8) of this rule;
(c) Applicants must have satisfactorily completed the prescribed middle management training within five years of the application for the Management Certificate; and
(d) Applicants must be presently employed in and must have satisfactorily served in a middle management position as a department head or assistant department head as defined in OAR 259-008-0005 for a period of two years. The required experience must have been acquired within five years of the date of the application.
(e) Upon request of the employing agency, the Department may waive the requirements of section (13) (c) or (d), provided the employing agency demonstrates that the applicant performs management duties on a regular basis.
(14) The Executive Certificate. In addition to requirements in section (2) and (4) through (6) of this rule, the following are required for the award of the Executive Certificate:
(a) Applicants must possess or be eligible to possess the Management Certificate in the discipline the executive certification is requested;
(b) Applicants must have satisfactorily completed no less than 90 education credits as defined in OAR 259-008-0045 and in accordance with section (8) of this rule;
(c) Applicants must have satisfactorily completed 100 hours of Department-approved executive level training within five years of the application for the Executive Certificate; and
(d) Applicants must be presently employed in and must have satisfactorily served in a middle management position as department head or assistant department head, as defined in OAR 259-008-0005 for a period of two years. The required experience must have been acquired within five years of the date of the application.
(e) Upon request of the employing agency, the Department may waive the requirements of section (14) (c) or (d), provided the employing agency demonstrates that the applicant performs the duties of a department head or assistant department head on a regular basis.
(15) Multi-discipline Certification. The Department may approve multi-discipline certification for a public safety officer when all of the following conditions have been met:
(a)The employing agency employs public safety officers to work in the disciplines for which employment and certification are requested;
(b) The employing agency notifies the Department of a personnel action in accordance with OAR 259-008-0020 identifying the public safety officer as employed in more than one discipline and specifying the public safety officer’s primary discipline;
(c) The employing agency attests that a justified and demonstrated need exists, for the efficient operation of the employing agency, to employ and certify the public safety officer in more than one discipline; and
(d) The public safety officer meets all of the minimum employment, training and certification requirements established in OAR chapter 259 division 008 for each identified discipline.
(16) Employing agencies are exempt from the requirement specified in subsection (15)(c) of this rule when the employing agency is only seeking multi-discipline employment and certification for a public safety officer as a telecommunicator and an emergency medical dispatcher.
(17) Certificates and awards are the property of the Department. The Department has the power to revoke or suspend any certificate or award as provided in the Act.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410, ORS 181A.490, ORS 181A.520, ORS 181A.530, ORS 181A.560, ORS 181A.570 & ORS 181A.440
- DPSST 3-2022, amend filed 01/27/2022, effective 02/01/2022
- DPSST 46-2018, amend filed 04/27/2018, effective 05/01/2018
- DPSST 9-2017, f. 4-27-17, cert. ef. 5-1-17
- DPSST 20-2016, f. 12-27-16, cert. ef. 1-1-17
- DPSST 11-2016, f. 7-25-16, cert. ef. 7-29-16
- DPSST 18-2015, f. 12-22-15, cert. ef. 1-1-16
- DPSST 11-2015, f. 6-23-15, cert. ef. 7-1-15
- DPSST 7-2015, f. & cert. ef. 3-24-15
- DPSST 1-2015, f. & cert. ef. 1-5-15
- DPSST 28-2014(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 10-8-14 thru 4-6-15
- DPSST 12-2014, f. & cert. ef. 6-24-14
- DPSST 1-2014, f. & cert. ef. 1-2-14
- DPSST 15-2013, f. & cert. ef. 6-25-13
- DPSST 31-2012, f. & cert. ef. 12-27-12
- DPSST 23-2012, f. 10-25-12, cert. ef. 11-1-12
- DPSST 17-2011, f. & cert. ef. 12-23-11
- DPSST 8-2011, f. & cert. ef. 6-24-11
- DPSST 8-2010, f. & cert. ef 8-13-10
- DPSST 7-2010, f. 7-15-10, cert. ef. 8-1-10
- DPSST 4-2010, f. & cert. ef. 6-2-10
- DPSST 2-2010, f. & cert. ef. 3-15-10
- DPSST 1-2010, f. & cert. ef. 1-11-10
- DPSST 4-2009, f. & cert. ef. 4-8-09
- DPSST 22-2008, f. & cert. ef. 12-29-08
- DPSST 9-2008, f. & cert. ef. 7-15-08
- DPSST 2-2008, f. & cert. ef. 1-15-08
- DPSST 5-2004, f. & cert. ef. 4-23-04
- DPSST 1-2004, f. 1-16-04, cert. ef. 1-20-04
- BPSST 21-2002, f. & cert. ef. 11-21-02
- BPSST 8-2002, f. & cert. ef. 4-3-02
- BPSST 13-2001(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 10-26-01 thru 4-10-02
- BPSST 11-2000, f. 11-13-00, cert. ef. 11-15-00
- BPSST 6-1999, f. & cert. ef. 7-29-99
- BPSST 1-1999, f. & cert. ef. 3-9-99
- BPSST 3-1998, f. & cert. ef. 6-30-98
- BPSST 2-1998(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98 thru 6-30-98
- BPSST 1-1998, f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98
- PS 10-1997(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-5-97
- PS 7-1997, f. 3-20-97, cert. ef. 3-25-97
- PS 2-1995, f. & cert. ef. 9-27-95
- PS 1-1995, f. & cert. ef. 3-30-95
- PS 1-1990, f. & cert. ef. 2-7-90, Renumbered from 259-010-0055
- PS 1-1985, f. & cert. ef. 4-24-85
- PS 1-1983, f. & cert. ef. 12-15-83
- PS 1-1981, f. 9-26-81, cert. ef. 11-2-81
- PS 2-1980, f. & cert. ef. 12-8-80
- PS 1-1980(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 6-26-80
- PS 1-1979, f. 10-1-79, cert. ef. 10-3-79
- PS 12, f. & cert. ef. 12-19-77
Or. Admin. R. 259-008-0064 Maintenance of Certification for Telecommunicators and Emergency Medical Dispatchers
(1) It is the responsibility of the Board to set the minimum standards for the maintenance of certification for currently employed and certified telecommunicators and emergency medical dispatchers (EMD).
(a) While it is the responsibility of the Department to uphold those standards, each agency may determine what training will be provided to meet the standards.
(b) The Board recommends that agencies provide training time and training opportunities to enable telecommunicators and EMD to meet the standards.
(2) The requirements established by the Board to maintain certification apply to telecommunicators and EMD who are currently employed and certified.
(3) The Department will establish a maintenance cycle for each telecommunicator and EMD upon issuance of a basic certification.
(a) The maintenance cycle will begin on January 1st and end on December 31st of the calendar year.
(b) Basic certifications granted between January 1st and June 30th of the current year will have maintenance cycles that are effective January 1st of the current year.
(c) Basic certifications granted between July 1st and December 31st of the current year will have maintenance cycles that are effective January 1st of the following year.
(d) If a telecommunicator’s or an EMD’s certifications lapse, a new maintenance cycle will be established upon reissuance of a basic certification.
(4) In order to maintain basic certification:
(a) A telecommunicator must complete a minimum of 12 hours of maintenance training specific to the telecommunicator discipline.
(b) An EMD must complete a minimum of eight hours of maintenance training specific to the EMD discipline.
(c) A telecommunicator who is multi-discipline certified as a telecommunicator and an EMD must complete a minimum of 12 hours of maintenance training specific to the telecommunicator discipline and a minimum of four hours of maintenance training specific to the EMD discipline.
(d) Telecommunicators and EMD must complete a minimum of one hour of Ethics training annually. Ethics training hours will be applied toward the minimum maintenance training requirements. Multi-discipline certified telecommunicators and EMD only need to satisfy the ethics training requirement once each maintenance cycle.
(e) Telecommunicators and EMD must maintain a certification in adult and child cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) and a certification in First Aid.
(5) Telecommunicators and emergency medical dispatchers who are multi-discipline certified in a law enforcement officer discipline must complete the telecommunicator and emergency medical dispatcher maintenance requirements as defined in this rule and are also required to complete the requirements to maintain a law enforcement officer discipline as defined in OAR 259-008-0065. The same training may be used for more than one discipline if the content is applicable to each discipline. It is the responsibility of the department head to determine if the training is appropriate for more than one discipline.
(6) Leadership Training for Telecommunicators. Telecommunicators with supervisory certification must complete two hours of Leadership training annually. The Leadership training requirement is in addition to the annual maintenance training requirements for basic certification.
(7) Instructors may apply hours spent instructing a class one time annually toward maintenance training.
(a) Instructed hours reported for a class may not exceed the lesser of:
(A) The actual class hours; or
(B) The actual number of hours the instructor spent instructing the class.
(b) The total number of instructed hours applied towards the annual maintenance training requirement may not exceed:
(A) Six hours for the telecommunications discipline;
(B) Four hours for the EMD discipline; or
(C) When multi-discipline certified as a telecommunicator and an EMD, a combination of six hours for the telecommunications discipline and two hours for the EMD discipline.
(8) Documentation of Completed Maintenance Requirements.
(a) The employing agency must:
(A) Maintain documentation for all of the maintenance training and certification requirements;
(B) Report the expiration dates for the adult and child CPR and First Aid certifications to the Department through a Department-approved submission process; and
(C) Report the training and hours used to complete the maintenance training requirements to the Department through a Department-approved submission process by December 31st of each calendar year. Training hours will be credited to the maintenance training category identified on the course attendance roster.
(b) The Department will update the telecommunicator’s or EMD’s DPSST training record to reflect completion of the maintenance training and certification requirements.
(9) Maintenance Requirements for Telecommunicators and Emergency Medical Dispatchers on Leave.
(a) The employing agency must notify the Department whenever a telecommunicator or EMD is on leave for 91 days or more pursuant to OAR 259-008-0020.
(b) When a telecommunicator or EMD is on leave, their certifications will not lapse pursuant to OAR 259-008-0067.
(c) A telecommunicator or EMD who is on leave for any period up to 180 days will have the same maintenance cycle.
(d) A telecommunicator or EMD who is on leave for more than 180 days will receive a one year extension of the maintenance cycle.
(e) If adult and child CPR certification or First Aid certification expired while on leave, the telecommunicator or EMD will have 30 days after returning from leave to obtain current certification.
(10) Suspension for Failure to Meet Maintenance Requirements for Certification.
(a) When a telecommunicator or EMD is identified as deficient for maintenance training requirements or a failure to maintain certifications in adult and child CPR and First Aid, a deficiency notice will be sent to the telecommunicator or EMD and a copy of the deficiency notice will be sent to the telecommunicator’s or EMD’s employing agency.
(b) A telecommunicator or EMD has 30 days from the date of the deficiency notice to complete the maintenance requirements identified as deficient or to request a time extension.
(c) When a telecommunicator or EMD fails to complete the deficient maintenance requirements or fails to request a time extension within 30 days of the date of the deficiency notice, a Contested Case Notice of Intent to Suspend will be prepared by the Department and served on the telecommunicator or EMD pursuant to ORS 181A.640(1)(c) and these rules. A copy of the Notice of Intent will be sent to the telecommunicator’s or EMD’s employing agency.
(d) A Notice of Intent to Suspend based on a deficiency that is only for Leadership training applies only to the telecommunicator’s supervisory, management, and executive certifications.
(e) All contested case notices will be prepared in accordance with the applicable provisions of the Attorney General’s Model Rules of Procedure adopted under OAR 259-005-0015.
(f) A telecommunicator or EMD who has been served with a Contested Case Notice of Intent to Suspend has 30 days from the date of mailing or personal service of the notice to provide documentation to the Department showing the completion of the maintenance requirements identified as deficient during the reporting period or to file a written request for hearing with the Department.
(g) Default Order. If the required training or certification is not reported to the Department or a request for hearing received by the Department within 30 days from the date of the mailing or personal service of the Notice, the Contested Case Notice will become a final order suspending certification pursuant to OAR 137-003-0672.
(11) Time Extensions.
(a) The Department may grant a time extension for a telecommunicator or EMD to complete the deficient maintenance training requirements upon receipt of a written request from the telecommunicator or EMD or their employing agency’s department head. The written request must include an action plan for completing the training requirements that were identified as deficient.
(b) No time extension will be granted beyond December 31st of the year following the expiration date of the required maintenance training.
(c) Training used to complete the deficiencies for a maintenance cycle that has been granted a time extension cannot be applied toward the next maintenance cycle.
(d) A time extension for deficient maintenance training does not change the period for the following maintenance cycle.
(e) If a telecommunicator or EMD fails to complete the deficient maintenance training requirements before the expiration of the time extension, a Notice of Intent to Suspend will be served on the telecommunicator or EMD by the Department.
(12) A telecommunicator or EMD whose basic certification has been suspended is prohibited from performing the duties of a telecommunicator or EMD.
(13) Recertification Following a Suspension:
(a) Recertification following a suspension may be obtained by submitting documentation to the Department showing completion of the maintenance requirements.
(b) Prior to reinstatement of certifications from a suspension for failure to meet certification maintenance requirements, a telecommunicator or EMD must meet the minimum employment, training and certification requirements outlined in OAR chapter 259 division 008.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410
- DPSST 3-2022, amend filed 01/27/2022, effective 02/01/2022
- DPSST 10-2021, amend filed 05/28/2021, effective 06/01/2021
- DPSST 6-2020, temporary amend filed 03/31/2020, effective 04/01/2020 through 09/27/2020
- DPSST 46-2018, amend filed 04/27/2018, effective 05/01/2018
- DPSST 13-2017, f. 6-29-17, cert. ef. 7-1-17
- DPSST 11-2016, f. 7-25-16, cert. ef. 7-29-16
- DPSST 31-2012, f. & cert. ef. 12-27-12
- DPSST 7-2010, f. 7-15-10, cert. ef. 8-1-10
- DPSST 2-2010, f. & cert. ef. 3-15-10
- DPSST 1-2010, f. & cert. ef. 1-11-10
- DPSST 15-2008, f. & cert. ef. 10-15-08
- DPSST 3-2007, f. & cert. ef. 1-12-07
- BPSST 5-2001, f. & cert. ef. 8-22-01
- BPSST 1-1999, f. & cert. ef. 3-9-99
- BPSST 3-1998, f. & cert. ef. 6-30-98
- BPSST 2-1998(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98 thru 6-30-98
- BPSST 1-1998, f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98
- Reverted to PS 2-1995, f. & cert. ef. 9-27-95
- PS 10-1997(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-5-97
- PS 2-1995, f. & cert. ef. 9-27-95
Or. Admin. R. 259-008-0065 Maintenance of Law Enforcement Officer Certification
(1) It is the responsibility of the Board to set the standards for law enforcement officer training and the maintenance of certification for currently employed and certified law enforcement officers.
(a) While it is the responsibility of the Department to uphold those standards, each agency may determine what training will be provided to meet the standards.
(b) The Board recommends that agencies provide training time and training opportunities to enable law enforcement officers to meet the standards.
(2) The requirements established by the Board to maintain certification apply to law enforcement officers who are currently employed and certified.
(3) Law enforcement officers who are multi-discipline certified in more than one law enforcement officer discipline will be assigned one maintenance cycle and must complete the requirements as defined in this rule.
(4) Law enforcement officers who are multi-discipline certified as a telecommunicator or emergency medical dispatcher must complete the requirements to maintain a law enforcement discipline as defined in this rule and are also required to complete the telecommunicator and emergency medical dispatcher maintenance requirements as defined in OAR 259-008-0064. The same training may be used for more than one discipline if the content is applicable to each discipline. It is the responsibility of the department head to determine if the training is appropriate for more than one discipline.
(5) The Department will establish a three-year maintenance cycle for each law enforcement officer upon issuance of a basic certification.
(a) The maintenance cycle will begin on January 1st and end on December 31st of the third year.
(b) Basic certifications granted between January 1st and June 30th of the current year will have maintenance cycles that are effective January 1st of the current year.
(c) Basic certifications granted between July 1st and December 31st of the current year will have maintenance cycles that are effective January 1st of the following year.
(d) If a law enforcement officer’s certifications lapse, a new maintenance cycle will be established upon reissuance of a basic certification.
(6) Upon issuance of a supervisory certification, the Department will update the law enforcement officer’s current maintenance cycle to indicate the requirement for Leadership maintenance training.
(7) In order to maintain certification, a law enforcement officer must:
(a) Maintain a certification in adult and child cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR);
(b) Maintain a certification in First Aid; and
(c) Complete a minimum of 84 hours of agency-approved training. The 84 hours of agency-approved training must include:
(A) A minimum of eight hours of Firearms or Use of Force related training completed annually;
(B) A minimum of one hour of Ethics training completed annually;
(C) A minimum of three hours of Mental Health/Crisis Intervention related training completed within the three-year maintenance cycle;
(D) A minimum of two hours of Airway and Circulatory Anatomy and Physiology training completed within the three-year maintenance cycle. Airway and circulatory anatomy and physiology training includes the risk of various holds on respiratory compromise, the signs of a person in respiratory compromise, and the law enforcement officer’s responsibility to render or obtain aid;
(E) A minimum of three hours of Equity training completed within the three-year maintenance cycle. The Equity training for this requirement must include at least one of these concepts:
(i) Increasing awareness and understanding of diverse identity, thought, and experiences;
(ii) Strategies to mitigate disparate outcomes;
(iii) Improving public trust and confidence; or
(iv) Diversity, equity, and inclusion in the workplace.
(F) If a law enforcement officer holds supervisory certification, a minimum of 24 hours of Leadership training completed within the three-year maintenance cycle; and
(G) Any remaining training hours needed to complete 84 hours of agency-approved training must be completed within the three-year maintenance cycle and may include additional training in any of the previously listed training categories or any other agency-approved training.
(8) Documentation of Completed Maintenance Requirements.
(a) The employing agency must:
(A) Maintain documentation for all of the maintenance training and certification requirements;
(B) Report the expiration dates for the adult and child CPR and First Aid certifications to the Department through a Department-approved submission process; and
(C) Report the training and hours used to complete the maintenance training requirements to the Department through a Department-approved submission process. Training hours will be credited to the maintenance training category identified on the course attendance roster.
(b) Training hours that have been added to a law enforcement officer’s DPSST training record as “passed” or “completed” may be used to meet maintenance training requirements.
(c) Instructor hours that have been added to a law enforcement officer’s DPSST training record as “instructed” represent the hours reported where the law enforcement officer was the instructor for the training content and will not be used to meet maintenance training requirements.
(d) The Department will update the law enforcement officer’s DPSST training record to reflect the completion of the maintenance training and certification requirements.
(9) Maintenance Requirements for Law Enforcement Officers on Leave.
(a) The employing agency must notify the Department whenever a law enforcement officer is on leave for 91 days or more pursuant to OAR 259-008-0020.
(b) When a law enforcement officer is on leave, their certifications will not lapse pursuant to OAR 259-008-0067.
(c) A law enforcement officer who is on leave for any period up to 180 days will have the same maintenance training deadline as the date established prior to the law enforcement officer's leave.
(d) A law enforcement officer who is on leave for more than 180 days but less than one year will receive a one-year extension from the maintenance training deadline established prior to the law enforcement officer's leave.
(e) A law enforcement officer who is on leave for more than one year will receive an extension of the maintenance training deadline. The extension will be prorated, based on the duration of the law enforcement officer's leave.
(f) Beginning on the date a law enforcement officer returns to work from leave, a law enforcement officer will have 30 days to complete the maintenance requirements that will make their maintenance current for:
(A) Eight hours of Firearms or Use of Force related training to be applied to the current year’s annual training requirement; and
(B) Current certifications in adult and child CPR and First Aid.
(g) Failure to complete the maintenance requirements to become current within 30 days of the law enforcement officer's return to work from leave may result in a Notice of Intent to Suspend pursuant to section (10) of this rule.
(10) Suspension for Failure to Meet Maintenance Requirements for Certification.
(a) When a law enforcement officer is identified as deficient for maintenance training requirements or a failure to maintain certifications in adult and child CPR and First Aid, a deficiency notice will be sent to the law enforcement officer and a copy of the deficiency notice will be sent to the law enforcement officer’s employing agency.
(b) A law enforcement officer has 30 days from the date of the deficiency notice to complete the maintenance requirements identified as deficient or to request a time extension.
(c) When a law enforcement officer fails to complete the deficient maintenance requirement or fails to request a time extension within 30 days of the date of the deficiency notice, a Contested Case Notice of Intent to Suspend will be prepared by the Department and served on the law enforcement officer pursuant to ORS 181A.640(1)(c) and these rules. A copy of the Notice of Intent will be sent to the law enforcement officer’s employing agency.
(d) A Notice of Intent to Suspend based on a deficiency that is only for Leadership training applies only to the law enforcement officer’s supervisory, management, and executive certifications.
(e) All contested case notices will be prepared in accordance with the applicable provisions of the Attorney General’s Model Rules of Procedure adopted under OAR 259-005-0015.
(f) A law enforcement officer who has been served with a Contested Case Notice of Intent to Suspend has 30 days from the date of mailing or personal service of the notice to provide documentation to the Department showing the completion of the maintenance requirements identified as deficient during the reporting period or to file a written request for hearing with the Department.
(g) Default Order. If the required training or certification is not reported to the Department or a request for hearing received by the Department within 30 days from the date of the mailing or personal service of the Notice, the Contested Case Notice will become a final order suspending certification pursuant to OAR 137-003-0672.
(11) Time Extensions.
(a) The Department may grant a time extension for a law enforcement officer to complete the deficient maintenance training requirements upon receipt of a written request from the law enforcement officer or the agency. The written request must include an action plan for completing the training requirements that were identified as deficient.
(b) No extension will be granted beyond December 31st of the year following the expiration date of the three-year maintenance cycle.
(c) Training used to complete the deficiencies for a maintenance cycle that has been granted a time extension cannot be applied toward the next maintenance cycle.
(d) A time extension for a deficient three-year maintenance cycle does not change the three-year period for the following maintenance cycle.
(e) If a law enforcement officer fails to complete the deficient maintenance requirements before the expiration of the time extension, a Notice of Intent to Suspend will be served on the law enforcement officer by the Department.
(12) A law enforcement officer whose basic certification has been suspended is prohibited from performing the duties of a law enforcement officer.
(13) Recertification following a suspension:
(a) Recertification following a suspension may be obtained by submitting documentation to the Department showing completion of the maintenance requirements.
(b) Prior to reinstatement of certifications from a suspension for failure to meet certification maintenance requirements, a law enforcement officer must meet the minimum employment, training and certification requirements outlined in OAR Chapter 259 Division 008.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410, ORS 181A.440 & ORS 181A.442
- DPSST 15-2022, amend filed 11/03/2022, effective 01/01/2023
- DPSST 3-2022, amend filed 01/27/2022, effective 02/01/2022
- DPSST 6-2020, temporary amend filed 03/31/2020, effective 04/01/2020 through 09/27/2020
- DPSST 46-2018, amend filed 04/27/2018, effective 05/01/2018
- DPSST 1-2018, amend filed 01/29/2018, effective 02/01/2018
- DPSST 15-2017, amend filed 10/18/2017, effective 10/18/2017
- DPSST 6-2017, f. & cert. ef. 3-22-17
- DPSST 11-2016, f. 7-25-16, cert. ef. 7-29-16
- DPSST 31-2012, f. & cert. ef. 12-27-12
- DPSST 7-2010, f. 7-15-10, cert. ef. 8-1-10
- DPSST 3-2009, f. & cert. ef. 4-8-09
- DPSST 13-2006, f. & cert. ef. 10-13-06
- DPSST 11-2006(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 8-15-06 thru 2-1-07
- DPSST 3-2007, f. & cert. ef. 1-12-06
- BPSST 9-2003, f. & cert. ef. 4-22-03
- BPSST 22-2002, f. & cert. ef. 11-18-02
- BPSST 3-1998, f. & cert. ef. 6-30-98
- BPSST 2-1998(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98 thru 6-30-98
- BPSST 1-1998, f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98
- Reverted to PS 2-1995, f. & cert. ef. 9-27-95
- PS 10-1997(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-5-97
- PS 2-1995, f. & cert. ef. 9-27-95
- PS 1-1990, f. & cert. ef. 2-7-90
Or. Admin. R. 259-008-0067 Lapse and Expiration of Public Safety Professional Certifications
(1) Law enforcement officer certifications lapse after a law enforcement officer has been separated from their certifiable position for a consecutive period greater than three months.
(2) Telecommunicator and emergency medical dispatcher (EMD) certifications lapse after a telecommunicator or EMD has been separated from their certifiable position for a consecutive period greater than 12 months.
(3) Public safety professional certifications do not lapse when the public safety professional is on leave from their employing agency.
(4) Public safety professional certifications expire after a public safety professional has been separated from their certifiable position for a consecutive period greater than five years, except when the Department has opened a professional standards case. The Department will stay the expiration of a public safety professional’s certifications when the expiration would occur while the public safety professional is under review for a moral fitness violation as defined in OAR 259-008-0300.
(5) In order for the Department to reactivate a lapsed certification or issue a new certification following the expiration of public safety certifications, the public safety professional must meet the discipline specific minimum employment, training and certification requirements outlined in OAR chapter 259 division 008 and reapply for certification as required by OAR 259-008-0060.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.500, ORS 181A.520, ORS 181A.530 & ORS 181A.550
- DPSST 12-2020, minor correction filed 05/04/2020, effective 05/04/2020
- DPSST 4-2020, amend filed 01/30/2020, effective 02/15/2020
- DPSST 7-2019, amend filed 07/26/2019, effective 08/01/2019
- DPSST 33-2018, minor correction filed 02/23/2018, effective 02/23/2018
- DPSST 19-2014, f. & cert. ef. 7-23-14
- DPSST 5-2014, f. & cert. ef. 1-29-14
- DPSST 19-2013, f. & cert. ef. 9-23-13
- DPSST 10-2013(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 6-5-13 thru 10-1-13
- DPSST 7-2010, f. 7-15-10, cert. ef. 8-1-10
- DPSST 5-2004, f. & cert. ef. 4-23-04
- BPSST 9-2003, f. & cert. ef. 4-22-03
Or. Admin. R. 259-008-0075 Determinations of Eligibility to be a Candidate for Election to the Office of Sheriff
(1) Persons seeking an eligibility determination to be a candidate for election to the office of sheriff must:
(a) File a nominating petition or declaration of candidacy with the county clerk or county official in charge of elections prior to submitting an application for an eligibility determination to the Department; and
(b) Submit a completed application form, including any necessary supporting documentation, to the Department through a Department-approved submission process.
(2) When the Department receives an application completed pursuant to section (1) of this rule, the Department must determine whether or not the applicant met the eligibility requirements on the date the applicant filed their nominating petition or declaration of candidacy.
(3) The Department will file a copy of its determination with the county clerk or county official in charge of elections in accordance with ORS 206.015.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 206.015 & ORS 181A.410
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 206.015 & ORS 181A.410
- DPSST 66-2018, amend filed 10/25/2018, effective 11/01/2018
- DPSST 23-2017, amend filed 12/29/2017, effective 01/01/2018
- DPSST 7-2017, f. 3-22-17, cert. ef. 4-1-17
- DPSST 17-2014, f. & cert. ef. 7-23-14
- DPSST 1-2014, f. & cert. ef. 1-2-14
- DPSST 18-2013, f. & cert. ef. 7-23-13
- DPSST 11-2013, f. & cert. ef. 6-24-13
- DPSST 3-2010, f. 4-12-10, cert. ef. 5-1-10
- DPSST 9-2007, f. & cert. ef. 8-15-07
- BPSST 3-1998, f. & cert. ef. 6-30-98
- BPSST 1-1998, f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98
- BPSST 2-1998(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98 thru 6-30-98
- Reverted to PS 2-1995, f. & cert. ef. 9-27-95
- PS 10-1997(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-5-97
- PS 2-1995, f. & cert. ef. 9-27-95
- Renumbered from 259-010-0057, PS 1-1990, f. & cert. ef. 2-7-90
- PS 2-1987, f. & ef. 10-26-87
- PS 1-1983, f. & ef. 12-15-83
- PS 2-1982, f. & ef. 9-7-82
- PS 1-1982, f. & ef. 7-2-82
- PS 1-1981, f. 9-26-81, ef. 11-2-81
Or. Admin. R. 259-008-0076 Eligibility Requirements for Police Chief
(1) In addition to the minimum standards for employment and training as a law enforcement officer as described in OAR 259-008-0010 and 259-008-0025, a person accepting employment as a Police Chief must:
(a) Be currently certified as a police officer by the Department; or
(b) If the person is not currently certified as a police officer by the Department, the person accepting employment as Police Chief must obtain certification no later than 18 months after accepting such employment.
(2) Any person accepting employment as Police Chief must obtain Management certification by the Department within two (2) years of accepting employment as Police Chief, unless an extension is requested in writing and granted by the Department.
(3) The Department may grant an extension of time to obtain a Management certificate upon presentation of evidence by a law enforcement unit that a Police Chief was unable to obtain the certification within the required time limit due to being on leave, or any other reasonable cause as determined by the Department. No extension will be granted beyond one year.
(4) The employing agency must maintain documentation of a Police Chief's qualifications.
(5) The employing agency must notify the Department within 10 business days of any personnel action for a Police Chief as required by OAR 259-008-0020.
(6) Failure to obtain a Management Certificate as required in section (2) or (3) above, will result in the immediate suspension of the Police Chief's certification:
(a) A Police Chief with a suspended certification is prohibited from performing the duties of, or working in any capacity as, a Police Chief or Acting Police Chief;
(b) Prior to recertification of a Police Chief's suspended certificate, the department head must submit the following:
(A) A written request for recertification, along with an explanation of the individual's current job duties and why the Department should recertify the individual if they are not currently in a certifiable police officer position; or
(B) Verification that a Management Certificate was obtained, if the individual is requesting reinstatement as a Police Chief.
(c) A police chief whose certification has been suspended pursuant to this rule must notify the Department, pursuant to OAR 259-008-0020, that the individual is no longer serving as, or performing the duties of, police chief prior to reactivating their police certification;
(d) A Police Chief who fails to recertify within 2-1/2 years is subject to the provisions of OAR 259-008-0025;
(e) A Police Chief who fails to recertify within five (5) years is subject to the provisions of OAR 259-008-0025.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410 & ORS 181A.490
- DPSST 23-2017, amend filed 12/29/2017, effective 01/01/2018
- DPSST 11-2016, f. 7-25-16, cert. ef. 7-29-16
- DPSST 31-2012, f. & cert. ef. 12-27-12
- DPSST 7-2010, f. 7-15-10, cert. ef. 8-1-10
- DPSST 9-2007, f. & cert. ef. 8-15-07
- DPSST 13-2005, f. & cert. ef. 12-7-05
Or. Admin. R. 259-008-0078 Eligibility Requirements for Limited Duration, Administrative Positions
(1) To be employed in a limited duration, administrative position, a person must:
(a) Have been certified as a public safety officer in Oregon;
(b) Have honorably retired or left a certifiable position in good standing;
(c) Have 20 or more years of public safety experience;
(d) Have and maintain current certifications in adult and child cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) and First Aid;
(e) Have been employed as a full-time middle manager, assistant department head or department head for a minimum of three years immediately prior to honorably retiring or leaving a certifiable position; and
(f) Have satisfactorily completed Middle Management or Supervisory training.
(2) Employment in a limited duration, administrative position must begin within five years of honorably retiring or leaving a certifiable public safety position in good standing.
(3) A public safety officer, other than a corrections officer, may serve in a limited duration, administrative position for a period of no more than 18 months with any one agency.
(4) A corrections officer may serve in a limited duration, administrative position for a period of no more than 12 months with any one agency.
(5) Agencies employing an individual in a limited duration, administrative position must:
(a) Notify the Department as outlined in OAR 259-008-0020; and
(b) Submit a written request outlining the primary duties and duration of the position. The request must be on official letterhead and signed by the Department Head or individual directly responsible for the administration of the agency.
(6) If a public safety officer carries or is expected to carry a firearm at any time while employed in a limited duration, administrative position, the public safety officer must meet their employing agency’s firearms qualification requirements.
(7) A public safety officer employed in a limited duration, administrative position will be required to be certified and meet all the minimum standards for employment found in OAR 259-008-0010, OAR 259-008-0011 and the minimum training requirements found in OAR 259-008-0025 if DPSST determines:
(a) A public safety officer, other than a corrections officer, has been employed in a limited duration, administrative position for longer than 18 consecutive months;
(b) A corrections officer has been employed in a limited duration, administrative position for longer than 12 consecutive months;
(c) The public safety officer’s primary duties do not meet the definition of a limited duration, administrative position, as defined in OAR 259-008-0005;
(d) The public safety officer fails to maintain current certifications in adult and child CPR and First Aid; or
(e) The public safety officer is or has carried a firearm on duty and has failed to meet their employing agency’s firearms qualification requirements.
(8) Certification requirements are calculated from the date an individual left a certified position.
(9) Experience gained in a limited duration, administrative position will not accrue as creditable service time.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410
- DPSST 3-2022, amend filed 01/27/2022, effective 02/01/2022
- DPSST 23-2017, amend filed 12/29/2017, effective 01/01/2018
- DPSST 7-2015, f. & cert. ef. 3-24-15
Or. Admin. R. 259-008-0080 Instructors for Mandated Training
(1) Definitions. For the purposes of this rule:
(a) “Instructor” means an individual, including volunteer or loaned personnel, who is employed or utilized by DPSST or the Department of Corrections for the instruction of any portion of a Board-approved curriculum for a mandated training course, including the following:
(A) The DPSST basic police, corrections, parole and probation, regulatory specialist, telecommunications or emergency medical dispatcher courses, excluding field training;
(B) The Department of Corrections basic corrections course, excluding field training;
(C) The career officer development courses, excluding field training;
(D) A DPSST instructor development course; or
(E) The DPSST supervision leadership academy or organizational leadership management course.
(b) “Employer” means DPSST or the Department of Corrections.
(2) These instructor employment and certification requirements do not apply to individuals assigned by a public or private safety agency to instruct non-mandated training, training required to maintain DPSST-issued public safety professional certifications or a field training manual.
(3) Instructors must be certified prior to being assigned primary responsibility for the instruction of any portion of a Board-approved curriculum for a mandated training course.
(a) Primary responsibility for instruction means that the instructor is the certified instructor of record for the course completion documentation identified in OAR 259-008-0085.
(b) The employer delivering the mandated training course is responsible for ensuring that certified instructors are assigned to the topics that they are qualified to instruct.
(4) When an employer hires or separates an instructor, the employer must report the personnel action to the Department, on a form provided by the Department, within 10 business days of the employment or utilization status change.
(5) The employer must conduct a background investigation on each individual being considered for employment or utilization as an instructor.
(6) DPSST Instructor Certification. To be eligible for certification as an instructor, an individual must:
(a) Be currently employed or utilized as an instructor;
(b) Have experience that meets the requisite knowledge, skills and abilities to perform the duties of an instructor as determined by the employer;
(c) Successfully complete employer specific instructor development training:
(A) Instructors employed or utilized by the Department must successfully complete the Board-approved Adult Learning Core Course as defined in OAR 259-008-0085.
(B) Instructors employed or utilized by another employer must successfully complete instructor development training or possess, as determined by the employer, the knowledge and skills needed to instruct the mandated course.
(d) Never have had a public safety professional certification denied, suspended or revoked by the Department under OAR 259-008-0300;
(e) Not have any convictions, criminal dispositions, or a history of conduct that would constitute a mandatory disqualifier as defined by section (9) of this rule;
(f) As determined by the employer, not have any convictions, criminal dispositions, or a history of conduct that would adversely impact the instructor’s position as a role model, a leader within the public safety profession and a source of expertise for critical learning components; and
(g) Submit an application for certification on a form provided by the Department.
(7) Notification of Arrest or Criminal Citation to Appear. A certified instructor who is arrested, or receives a criminal citation to appear or its equivalent, for any offense punishable as a crime must notify the Department within five business days. Notification must be in writing and include the date of the arrest or citation, the location of the arrest or citation, the reason for the arrest or citation and the arresting or citing agency.
(8) Expiration and Reactivation of DPSST Instructor Certification.
(a) Notwithstanding subsection (d) below, an instructor’s certification will expire upon separation from a certifiable instructor position.
(b) In order to become recertified as an instructor, an individual with an expired instructor certification must meet the instructor certification requirements as defined in section (6) and submit a new application for certification.
(c) When an individual’s instructor certification has been expired for more than three years, the instructor must successfully recomplete or satisfy the applicable instructor certification training requirement found in subsection (6)(c) prior to the reissuance of certification.
(d) The Department will stay the expiration of instructor certification for an instructor whose separation from a certifiable instructor position occurs while the individual’s public safety professional certification is under review pursuant to OAR 259-008-0300 or the individual’s instructor certification is under review pursuant to section (9) of this rule until a final determination has been made regarding the individual’s fitness for certification as an instructor or public safety professional.
(9) Grounds to Deny or Revoke Instructor Certification. The Board has determined that the following conduct constitutes mandatory grounds for denial or revocation of instructor certification because such conduct violates public trust in the public safety profession, and violates the trust that students and their employers place in instructors as professional leaders and role models in public safety. The Department must deny or revoke an instructor’s certification upon a finding that:
(a) The instructor intentionally falsified any information submitted on the application for instructor certification or on any documents submitted to the Board or the Department;
(b) The instructor does not meet the applicable minimum standards, minimum training or the terms and conditions for instructors established under ORS 181A.410 as defined in OAR chapter 259 division 8;
(c) The instructor’s public safety professional certifications have been denied, suspended or revoked pursuant to OAR 259-008-0300;
(d) The instructor engaged in intentional conduct while performing the duties of an instructor that constitutes Instructor Misconduct and the conduct resulted in or coincided with any non-voluntary or voluntary separation of employment. Instructor Misconduct includes dishonesty or deception, harassment, discrimination, assisting a student to cheat, or falsifying documentation related to training, testing or certification; or
(e) The instructor has a disqualifying criminal offense. Disqualifying criminal offenses are:
(A) A conviction for any offense designated under the law of the jurisdiction where the conviction occurred as being punishable as a felony or as a crime for which a maximum term of imprisonment of more than one year may be imposed;
(B) A conviction in any jurisdiction for any offense involving the unlawful use, possession, delivery or manufacture of a controlled substance, narcotic or dangerous drug;
(C) A conviction in any jurisdiction for a bias or hate crime;
(D) A conviction in any jurisdiction for any offense involving domestic violence. For the purposes of this rule, domestic violence includes abuse of a child, and the term “domestic violence” has the meaning given by ORS 135.230, the term “abuse” has the meaning given by ORS 107.705, and the term “child” means a child who is under 18 years of age and is a natural child, adopted child, stepchild, a child under the guardianship of, or a child who regularly resides or formerly resided in the same household as the instructor; or
(E) The person is a sex offender pursuant to ORS 163A.005(6).
(10) Denial and Revocation Processes.
(a) Upon receipt or discovery of information that would lead an objectively reasonable person to conclude that an instructor engaged in conduct that is mandatory grounds for denial or revocation, as defined in section (9) of this rule, the Department will prepare and serve a Notice of Intent on the instructor.
(b) Notice of Intent. The Department’s denial or revocation of an instructor’s certification will be administered in accordance with the applicable provisions of the Attorney General’s Model Rules of Procedure, adopted under OAR 259-005-0015, for Notice of Intent, Request for Hearing and Contested Case Procedure.
(c) Scope. The Department’s denial or revocation of an instructor’s or applicant’s certification for subsection (9)(d) of this rule will only apply to the instructor certification. However, the application of this rule does not preclude the Department from denying, suspending or revoking any other certification or license in accordance with the rules established for denial, suspension or revocation for the other certification or license.
(d) Ineligibility. An instructor whose certification is revoked pursuant to this rule is permanently ineligible for instructor certification. Any application for instructor certification submitted by an individual who has been denied or revoked pursuant to this rule will be denied in accordance with the applicable provisions of the Attorney General’s Model Rules of Procedure, adopted under OAR 259-005-0015, for Notice of Intent, Request for Hearing and Contested Case Procedure.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410 & ORS 181A.590
- DPSST 6-2023, amend filed 04/27/2023, effective 07/01/2023
- DPSST 11-2021, amend filed 05/28/2021, effective 06/15/2021
- DPSST 13-2020, minor correction filed 05/04/2020, effective 05/04/2020
- DPSST 7-2019, amend filed 07/26/2019, effective 08/01/2019
- DPSST 14-2017, f. 7-28-17, cert. ef. 8-1-17
- DPSST 7-2017, f. 3-22-17, cert. ef. 4-1-17
- DPSST 11-2016, f. 7-25-16, cert. ef. 7-29-16
- DPSST 16-2015, f. & cert. ef. 7-23-15
- DPSST 18-2014, f. & cert. ef. 7-23-14
- DPSST 5-2014, f. & cert. ef. 1-29-14
- DPSST 1-2014, f. & cert. ef. 1-2-14
- DPSST 17-2013, f. & cert. ef. 7-23-13
- BPSST 22-2002, f. & cert. ef. 11-18-02
- BPSST 3-1998, f. & cert. ef. 6-30-98
- BPSST 1-1998, f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98
- BPSST 2-1998(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98 thru 6-30-98
- Reverted to PS 2-1995, f. & cert. ef. 9-27-95
- PS 10-1997(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-5-97
- PS 2-1995, f. & cert. ef. 9-27-95
- Renumbered from 259-010-0060, PS 1-1990, f. & cert. ef. 2-7-90
- PS 1-1983, f. & ef. 12-15-83
- PS 12, f. & ef. 12-19-77
Or. Admin. R. 259-008-0085 Minimum Standards for Mandated Courses
(1) Basic Police Course and Field Training.
(a) The curriculum for the Basic Police Course is based on the course breakdown approved by the Board on October 27, 2022.
(b) The Basic Police Course will consist of sufficient training hours to satisfy all Board-approved instructional goals (approximately 640 hours). Training will include, at a minimum:
(A) Training on law, theory, policies and practices related to pursuit driving;
(B) Vehicle pursuit exercises;
(C) Twenty-four hours of training in the recognition of mental illnesses as described in ORS 181A.440(2). At least one hour of mental health training will be dedicated to the appropriate use of the mental health database maintained by the Department of State Police within the Law Enforcement Data System;
(D) The investigation and reporting of cases of missing children and adults;
(E) The investigation, identification and reporting of crimes motivated by prejudice based on perceived race, color, religion, national origin, sexual orientation, gender, gender identity, marital status, political affiliation or beliefs, membership or activity in or on behalf of a labor organization or against a labor organization, physical or mental disability, age, economic or social status or citizenship of the victim;
(F) Investigation, identification and reporting of crimes constituting abuse, as defined in ORS 419B.005, or domestic violence;
(G) The requirements of the Vienna Convention on Consular Relations, including situations in which officers are required to inform a person of the person’s rights under the convention; and
(H) At least three hours of training in airway and circulatory anatomy and physiology.
(c) Field training requires successful completion of the 2019 Police Officer Field Training Manual or DPSST-approved equivalent manual.
(2) Basic Corrections Local Course and Field Training.
(a) The curriculum for the Basic Corrections Local Course will be based on the course breakdown approved by the Board on July 25, 2024.
(b) The Basic Corrections Local Course will consist of sufficient training hours to satisfy all Board-approved instructional goals (approximately 240 hours).
(c) Field training requires successful completion of the 2009 Corrections Officer Field Training Manual or DPSST-approved equivalent manual.
(3) Basic Parole and Probation Course and Field Training.
(a) The curriculum for the Basic Parole and Probation Course is based on the course breakdown approved by the Board on October 23, 2025.
(b) The Basic Parole and Probation Course will consist of sufficient training hours to satisfy all Board-approved instructional goals (approximately 200 hours).
(c) The Basic Parole and Probation Course must include, at a minimum, training in providing trauma-informed care, culturally specific services, and de-escalation techniques.
(d) Field training requires successful completion of the 2021 Parole & Probation Officer Field Training Manual or DPSST-approved equivalent manual.
(4) Armed Parole and Probation Course.
(a) The Armed Parole and Probation Course is based on the course curriculum adopted by the Board on January 23, 2020.
(b) The Armed Parole and Probation Course includes sufficient training hours to satisfy the Board-approved instructional goals (approximately 74 hours).
(5) Basic Telecommunicator Course and Field Training.
(a) The curriculum for the Basic Telecommunicator Course and field training manual will be based on the critical and essential job tasks identified in the 2015 Job Task Analysis for Telecommunicators.
(b) The Basic Telecommunicator Course will consist of sufficient training hours to satisfy all Board-approved instructional goals (approximately 116 hours).
(c) Field training requires successful completion of the 2024 Telecommunicator Field Training Manual or DPSST-approved equivalent manual.
(6) Basic Emergency Medical Dispatcher Course and Field Training.
(a) The curriculum for the Basic Emergency Medical Dispatcher Course will be based on the 1996 National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) Emergency Medical Dispatcher standards.
(b) The Basic Emergency Medical Dispatcher Course will consist of sufficient training hours to satisfy all NHSTA instructional goals (approximately 24 hours).
(c) Field training requires successful completion of the 2016 Emergency Medical Dispatcher Field Training Manual or DPSST-approved equivalent manual.
(d) The Basic Emergency Medical Dispatcher Course may be delivered by an approved third-party vendor or agency if the course has been certified as equivalent by Standards and Certification.
(A) Vendors or agencies must submit a Course Certification Request (Form F-20) to request an equivalency determination.
(B) Equivalency determinations are valid for one year and will expire on December 31 of each year.
(7) Department of Corrections (DOC) Basic Corrections Course and Field Training.
(a) The curriculum for the DOC Basic Corrections Course will be based on the 2016 Job Task Analysis for Corrections Officers.
(b) The DOC Basic Corrections Course will consist of sufficient training hours to satisfy all Board-approved instructional goals (approximately 240 hours).
(c) The DOC Basic Corrections Course will incorporate the DPSST Basic Corrections 2012 Instructional Goals within each of the following sections:
(A) Section A — Legal Considerations (Approximately 20 hours);
(B) Section B — Security Procedures (Approximately 37 hours);
(C) Section C — Inmate Supervision (Approximately 43 hours);
(D) Section D — Inmate Health Care (Approximately 16 hours);
(E) Section E — Professional Skills (Approximately 16 hours);
(F) Section F — Personal Fitness (Approximately 27 hours);
(G) Section G — Defensive Tactics (Approximately 41 hours); and
(H) Section H — Firearms (Approximately 26 hours).
(d) Administrative time will make up approximately 14 hours.
(e) Eighty percent of the DOC Basic Corrections Course must contain participatory learning activities. Participatory learning activities will include:
(A) A minimum of 51 hours of Reality Based Training;
(B) A minimum of three written incident reports that are complete, accurate, and demonstrate the report writing fundamentals of content, organization, and mechanics. Each report must be evaluated by an instructor to ensure the student’s ability to accurately document an incident using report writing components; and
(C) A minimum of four Problem Based Learning activities consisting of at least eight hours.
(f) Field training requires successful completion of the 2009 Department of Corrections Officer Field Training Manual.
(8) Basic Oregon Liquor and Cannabis Commission Regulatory Specialist Course and Field Training.
(a) The curriculum for the Basic Regulatory Specialist Course will be based on the 2013 Job Task Analysis for Liquor Enforcement Inspectors.
(b) The Basic Regulatory Specialist Course will consist of sufficient training hours to satisfy all Board-approved instructional goals (approximately 160 hours).
(c) Field training requires successful completion of the 2016 Regulatory Specialist Field Training Manual.
(9) Adult Learning Core Course. The Adult Learning Core Course consists of the fundamental adult learning concepts that are required training for DPSST Instructors to deliver any Board-approved curriculum for a mandated training course. This course requires a minimum of two hours of training to satisfy the Board-approved instructional goals. The current edition of the Board-approved Adult Learning Core Course curriculum was adopted by the Board effective July 25, 2019.
(10) Supervision Course. The curriculum for the Supervision Course will be based on the 2000 Job Task Analysis for Oregon Public Safety Supervisors and a 2009 Survey of Incumbent Supervisors.
(11) Management Course. The curriculum for the Management Course will be based on the 2000 Job Task Analysis for Oregon Public Safety Middle Managers, a 2007 DACUM for Middle Management and a 2009 Survey of Incumbent Managers.
(12) Academy Police Career Officer Development Course (PCOD) and Field Training.
(a) The Academy PCOD will be based on the 2015 Job Task Analysis for Police Officers.
(b) The Academy PCOD will consist of sufficient training hours to satisfy all Board-approved instructional goals (approximately 80 hours).
(c) Field training requires successful completion of the 2019 Police Officer Field Training Manual or DPSST-approved equivalent manual.
(13) Self-Study Police Career Officer Development Course (PCOD) and Field Training.
(a) The Self-Study PCOD will be based on the 2015 Job Task Analysis for Police Officers.
(b) The Self-Study PCOD will consist of sufficient training hours to satisfy all Board-approved instructional goals (approximately 80 hours).
(c) Field training requires successful completion of the 2019 Police Officer Field Training Manual or DPSST-approved equivalent manual.
(14) Self-Study Corrections Career Officer Development Course (CCOD) and Field Training.
(a) The Self-Study CCOD Course is based on the Basic Corrections Local Course that was approved by the Board on July 25, 2024. The Self-Study CCOD Course breakdown was approved by the Board on April 24, 2025.
(b) The Self-Study CCOD will consist of sufficient training hours to satisfy all Board-approved instructional goals (approximately 80 hours).
(c) Field training requires successful completion of the 2009 Corrections Officer Field Training Manual or DPSST-approved equivalent manual.
(15) Self-Study Parole and Probation Career Officer Development Course (P&PCOD) and Field Training.
(a) The Self-Study P&PCOD will be based on the 2015 Job Task Analysis for Parole and Probation Officers.
(b) The Self-Study P&PCOD will consist of sufficient training hours to satisfy all Board-approved instructional goals (approximately 80 hours).
(c) Field training requires successful completion of the 2021 Parole and Probation Officer Field Training Manual or DPSST-approved equivalent manual.
(16) Field Training. All field training will be conducted under the supervision of the employing agency.
(17) All course curriculums must be reviewed and approved by the Board on Public Safety Standards and Training prior to being delivered.
(18) All course curriculums will be reviewed following any update to the underlying standards adopted above.
(19) Instructors with primary responsibility for instruction of any portion of a Board-approved curriculum for a mandated training course must be certified as required by OAR 259-008-0080.
(20) Absences and Remediation of Missed Training. Board-approved courses must be completed in their entirety for the training to satisfy the minimum standards for training and certification under OAR 259-008-0025 and OAR 259-008-0060.
(a) All missed training, including training that is missed due to changes in the course schedule, must be remediated to receive credit for completion of the course. Any exception to this requirement must be approved by the Director or their designee. Remediations and approved exceptions must be documented and included in the course documentation as required under section (22) of this rule.
(b) A public safety officer’s training will be considered incomplete until all missed training has been remediated.
(c) The following absence and remediation policies apply to Board-approved courses delivered by the Department.
(A) Absences must be approved by the Department.
(B) If a public safety officer’s total absences exceed 10% of the Board-approved course, the Department may require that the public safety officer be withdrawn from the course. When this occurs, the Department will coordinate with the public safety officer’s employing agency to determine when to reschedule training.
(C) Remediation will be conducted in a manner determined by the Department.
(i) When circumstances allow, the Department will remediate missed training prior to the end of the course. Training may be remediated after the end of the course as needed.
(ii) While some topics or skills may take less time to remediate than originally designated by the course training schedule, some topics or skills may require hour-for-hour remediation to complete the course requirements.
(iii) The Department may make accommodations to complete remediation training at alternate locations.
(D) In determining how to remediate incomplete training following a withdrawal, the Department may consider the following factors:
(i) Whether the public safety officer can remediate incomplete training by joining another class at an appropriate point;
(ii) Whether the course's effectiveness would be compromised if the public safety officer resumes training without restarting the course; and
(iii) Any other relevant factors affecting rescheduling or course delivery.
(21) Student Performance Measures. All academic testing and performance evaluation must consist of measures that are valid, rigorous, and require students to demonstrate knowledge and application of essential tasks. Successful completion of a mandated course requires the following:
(a) Basic Police Course students must:
(A) Successfully complete course projects and assignments;
(B) Obtain a minimum score of 75% on the midterm exam and final exam;
(C) Achieve a passing score of 100% on the use of force exam with remediation as necessary; and
(D) Successfully complete the Oregon Physical Abilities Test (OR-PAT).
(b) Basic Corrections Local Course students must:
(A) Successfully complete course projects and assignments;
(B) Obtain and maintain a minimum cumulative score of 75% by Quiz 3;
(C) Obtain a minimum score of 75% on the final exam; and
(D) Achieve a passing score of 100% on the use of force exam with remediation as necessary.
(c) Basic Parole and Probation Course students must:
(A) Successfully complete course projects and assignments; and
(B) Achieve a passing score of 100% on the use of force exam with remediation as necessary.
(d) Armed Parole and Probation Course students must:
(A) Successfully complete the course projects and assignments; and
(B) Successfully complete the Handgun Qualification Course.
(e) Basic Telecommunicator Course students must:
(A) Successfully complete course projects and assignments; and
(B) Obtain a minimum score of 75% on the final exam.
(f) Basic Emergency Medical Dispatcher Course students must:
(A) Obtain a minimum score of 75% on the exam; and
(B) Achieve a passing score of 100% on Emergency Medical Dispatcher Protocol Reference System (EMDPRS).
(g) DOC Basic Corrections Course students must:
(A) Successfully complete course projects and assignments;
(B) Obtain a minimum score of 75% on each academic test; and
(C) Achieve a passing score of 100% on all academic test questions relating to use of force topics with remediation as necessary.
(D) DOC Basic Corrections Course students who fail to achieve a passing score on the final exam after two attempts will be required to complete the DOC Basic Corrections Course and field training manual pursuant to section (6) of this rule.
(h) Basic Regulatory Specialist Course students must:
(A) Successfully complete course projects and assignments; and
(B) Achieve a passing score of 100% on the use of force exam with remediation as necessary.
(i) Adult Learning Core Course students must successfully complete course assignments.
(j) Supervision Course students must successfully complete course projects and assignments.
(k) Management Course students must successfully complete course projects and assignments.
(l) Academy PCOD students must:
(A) Obtain a minimum score of 75% on the exam; and
(B) Achieve a passing score of 100% on the use of force exam with remediation as necessary.
(C) Academy PCOD students who do not achieve a passing score on the Academy PCOD exam will be given one opportunity to retake PCOD through the Academy PCOD Course or the Self-Study PCOD Course.
(D) PCOD students who fail to achieve a passing score after completing a second PCOD Course will be required to complete the Basic Police Course and field training manual pursuant to section (1) of this rule.
(m) Self-Study PCOD students must:
(A) Obtain a minimum score of 75% on the exam; and
(B) Achieve a passing score of 100% on the use of force exam with remediation as necessary.
(C) Self-Study PCOD students who do not achieve a passing score on the Self-Study PCOD exam will be given one opportunity to retake PCOD through the Academy PCOD Course or the Self-Study PCOD Course.
(D) PCOD students who fail to achieve a passing score after completing a second PCOD Course will be required to complete the Basic Police Course and field training manual pursuant to section (1) of this rule.
(n) Self-Study CCOD students must:
(A) Obtain a minimum score of 75% on the exam; and
(B) Achieve a passing score of 100% on the use of force exam with remediation as necessary.
(C) Self-Study CCOD students who do not achieve a passing score on the Self-Study CCOD exam will be given one opportunity to retake the Self-Study CCOD Course.
(D) Self-Study CCOD students who fail to achieve a passing score after completing a second Self-Study CCOD Course will be required to complete the Basic Corrections Local Course and field training manual pursuant to section (2) of this rule.
(o) Self-Study P&PCOD students must:
(A) Obtain a minimum score of 75% on the exam; and
(B) Achieve a passing score of 100% on the use of force exam with remediation as necessary.
(C) Self-Study P&PCOD students who do not achieve a passing score on the Self-Study P&PCOD exam will be given one opportunity to retake the Self-Study P&PCOD Course.
(D) Self-Study P&PCOD students who fail to achieve a passing score after completing a second Self-Study P&PCOD Course will be required to complete the Basic Parole and Probation Course and field training manual pursuant to section (3) of this rule.
(p) Basic Telecommunicator Course Challenge students must successfully complete course projects and assignments and obtain a minimum score of 75% on the Basic Telecommunicator Course final exam.
(A) Telecommunicator Challenge students will be given one opportunity to challenge the basic telecommunications course.
(B) Telecommunicator Challenge students who fail to successfully complete course projects and assignments and obtain a minimum score of 75% on the final exam will be required to complete the Basic Telecommunicator Course and field training manual pursuant to section (4) of this rule.
(22) Course Documentation. Prior to being recognized as meeting the minimum training standards required for certification, the following documentation must be submitted to Standards & Certification at the conclusion of each course:
(a) A course attendance roster (Form F-6);
(b) An official record of actual course hours or attendance rosters;
(c) Absence reports with documentation of make-up training;
(d) Class schedule including the subject hour breakdown and the Department-certified instructor with primary responsibility for each portion of the course;
(e) Curriculum, including master exams and answer sheets;
(f) Testing results, including individual test scores, individual final average and class average; and
(g) Deficiency reports and documentation of completion.
(23) Course Certification. Each mandated course must be certified annually. All course certifications are valid for one year and will expire on December 31 of each year.
(24) All mandated courses are subject to periodic audits by Standards and Certification to ensure compliance with the minimum training standards found in this rule.
(a) Notwithstanding subsection (b), the anticipated training dates, training locations and training hours must be provided to Standards and Certification no later than 14 days prior to the training.
(b) Standards and Certification will be notified of remediation training dates, training locations and training hours no later than 48 hours prior to the training or at the time of failure.
(c) Standards and Certification will prepare an audit report for each audited course.
(d) Issues of non-compliance will be forwarded to the appropriate department head or designee for resolution. Failure to respond to non-compliance issues may result in training not being recognized as meeting the minimum training requirements for certification.
(e) Standards and Certification will provide observations made during audits for feedback and possible suggestions for course enhancements. Observations will not be indicative of non-compliance of courses.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410 & ORS 181A.590
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410, ORS 181A.590, ORS 181A.440, ORS 181A.460, ORS 181A.470 & ORS 181A.530
- DPSST 7-2025, amend filed 10/23/2025, effective 11/01/2025
- DPSST 5-2025, amend filed 05/01/2025, effective 07/01/2025
- DPSST 7-2024, amend filed 07/25/2024, effective 07/25/2024
- DPSST 3-2024, amend filed 04/19/2024, effective 05/01/2024
- DPSST 10-2023, amend filed 10/26/2023, effective 10/26/2023
- DPSST 1-2023, amend filed 01/26/2023, effective 02/01/2023
- DPSST 2-2022, amend filed 01/27/2022, effective 02/01/2022
- DPSST 16-2021, minor correction filed 08/05/2021, effective 08/05/2021
- DPSST 12-2021, amend filed 07/22/2021, effective 07/22/2021
- DPSST 8-2021, amend filed 04/22/2021, effective 05/01/2021
- DPSST 15-2020, amend filed 05/04/2020, effective 05/15/2020
- DPSST 9-2019, amend filed 09/12/2019, effective 09/16/2019
- DPSST 7-2019, amend filed 07/26/2019, effective 08/01/2019
- DPSST 1-2019, amend filed 03/25/2019, effective 04/01/2019
- DPSST 7-2017, f. 3-22-17, cert. ef. 4-1-17
- DPSST 5-2016, f. & cert. ef. 3-22-16
- DPSST 3-2007, f. & cert. ef. 1-12-07
- BPSST 22-2002, f. & cert. ef. 11-18-02
- BPSST 9-2002, f. & cert. ef. 4-3-02
- BPSST 15-2001(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 10-26-01 thru 4-5-02
- BPSST 3-1998, f. & cert. ef. 6-30-98
- BPSST 2-1998(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98 thru 6-30-98
- BPSST 1-1998, f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98
- PS 10-1997(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-5-97
- PS 2-1995, f. & cert. ef. 9-27-95
- PS 1-1990, f. & cert. 2-7-91, Renumbered from 259-010-0065
- PS 1-1983, f. & cert. ef. 12-15-83
- PS 12, f. & cert. ef. 12-19-77
Or. Admin. R. 259-008-0090 Training Records
(1) The Department maintains a DPSST training record for each currently employed Oregon public safety professional in order to document training that the public safety professional completed to meet the minimum requirements for certification and the minimum training requirements to maintain certification.
(2) The Department will add training hours to a public safety professional’s DPSST training record for training completed while employed as a public safety professional.
(3) Training must be submitted on a course attendance roster through a Department approved submission process.
(4) Any course attendance roster received by the Department that is incomplete will not be accepted.
(5) For the purpose of this rule, training is defined as an event that develops, refreshes, augments, or enhances knowledge, skills and abilities to perform the job effectively.
(6) Training hours are reflected as “passed” or “completed” on the public safety professional’s DPSST training record.
(7) Instructor hours that are reported when the public safety professional is the instructor for the training content are reflected on the public safety professional’s DPSST training record as “instructed” and are not applied toward training hour requirements for the purpose of obtaining certification.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410
- DPSST 5-2017, f. & cert. ef. 3-22-17
- DPSST 5-2014, f. & cert. ef. 1-29-14
- DPSST 1-2014, f. & cert. ef. 1-2-14
- DPSST 10-2007, f. & cert. ef. 10-15-07
- BPSST 3-1998, f. & cert. ef. 6-30-98
- BPSST 1-1998, f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98
- BPSST 2-1998(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98 thru 6-30-98
- Reverted to PS 2-1995, f. & cert. ef. 9-27-95
- PS 10-1997(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-5-97
- PS 2-1995, f. & cert. ef. 9-27-95
- Renumbered from 259-010-0070, PS 1-1990, f. & cert. ef. 2-7-90
- PS 1-1983, f. & ef. 12-15-83
- PS 12, f. & ef. 12-19-77
Or. Admin. R. 259-008-0100 Miscellaneous Activities of the Board or Department
(1) The Board or Department may make or encourage studies of any aspect of corrections, parole and probation, telecommunications, regulatory specialist, emergency medical dispatch, fire, or police administration, including the stimulation of research by public and private agencies which shall be designed to improve the Criminal Justice System.
(2) The Board or Department may cooperate and consult with counties, municipalities, agencies of this State, other governmental agencies, and with universities, colleges, community colleges, and other institutions concerning the development of criminal justice training schools and programs or courses of instruction.
(3) The Board or Department may cooperate and consult with official bodies or individuals charged by law with the responsibility for corrections, parole and probation, regulatory specialist, telecommunications, emergency medical dispatch, fire or police selection and training standards in other states.
(4) The Board or Department may periodically publish or recommend that other governmental agencies publish curricula, manuals, lesson plans, brochures, newsletters, and other materials to aid departments in achieving the objectives of the Act.
(5) The Department may direct, operate, or sponsor training schools and set reasonable rules and regulations for the operation and use by trainees.
(6) Recognition of Career Service. The Department may provide a recognition of service award for a certified public safety officer who has separated from their employing agency. The recognition of service award recognizes the public safety officer for their years of service to the state of Oregon as a certifiable public safety officer.
(a) The following requirements must be met in order for a public safety officer to be eligible for a recognition of service award:
(A) The employing agency must notify the Department of the public safety officer’s separation from certifiable employment in accordance with OAR 259-008-0020.
(B) The employing agency must submit a request for a recognition of service award through a Department approved submission process. The request must be submitted by the certified public safety officer’s last employing agency within one year following the public safety officer’s separation from certifiable employment.
(C) The public safety officer must have completed a minimum of 20 years of employment in a certifiable position as a public safety officer in Oregon, or if the public safety officer sustained a permanent disability that prevents them from returning to their certifiable position, must have completed a minimum of five years of certifiable employment as a full-time public safety officer in Oregon. Years of certifiable employment are calculated using the parameters for certifiable experience and employment outlined in OAR 259-008-0060 and must be met before or on the effective date of the separation.
(b) A public safety officer whose separation from certifiable employment results in, or occurs during, a Department review pursuant to OAR 259-008-0300 is ineligible to receive a recognition of service award until a final determination has been made regarding their certification as a public safety officer. If the final determination results in denial, suspension or revocation of certification, the public safety officer will be ineligible to receive a recognition of service award.
(c) The Department will only provide one recognition of service award to a qualifying public safety officer. A public safety officer who has been issued a recognition of service award is not eligible to receive additional recognition of service awards from the Department for subsequent periods of service.
(d) The contents of a recognition of service award are determined by the Department.
(e) The provisions for a recognition of service award replace the prior provisions for the issuance of a retirement card and apply to requests for a recognition of service award received by the Department after May 1, 2018. The Department will not provide a recognition of service award to a public safety officer who has previously been issued a retirement card.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410
- DPSST 2-2023, amend filed 03/09/2023, effective 03/20/2023
- DPSST 7-2021, amend filed 04/22/2021, effective 04/23/2021
- DPSST 14-2020, minor correction filed 05/04/2020, effective 05/04/2020
- DPSST 47-2018, amend filed 04/27/2018, effective 05/01/2018
- DPSST 18-2015, f. 12-22-15, cert. ef. 1-1-16
- DPSST 11-2015, f. 6-23-15, cert. ef. 7-1-15
- DPSST 1-2014, f. & cert. ef. 1-2-14
- DPSST 13-2013, f. & cert. ef. 6-24-13
- DPSST 10-2012, f.& cert. ef. 4-9-12
- DPSST 12-2007, f. & cert. ef. 10-15-07
- BPSST 17-2002, f. & cert. ef. 7-5-02
- Reverted to BPSST 3-1998, f. & cert. ef. 6-30-98
- BPSST 16-2001(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 10-26-01 thru 4-5-02
- BPSST 3-1998, f. & cert. ef. 6-30-98
- BPSST 2-1998(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98 thru 6-30-98
- BPSST 1-1998, f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98
- Reverted to PS 2-1995, f. & cert. ef. 9-27-95
- PS 10-1997(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-5-97
- PS 2-1995, f. & cert. ef. 9-27-95
- Renumbered from 259-010-0080, PS 1-1990, f. & cert. ef. 2-7-90
- PS 1-1985, f. & ef. 4-24-85
- PS 12, f. & ef. 12-19-77
Or. Admin. R. 259-008-0110 Prohibited Use of Force Training
(1) “Prohibited use of force training” means the training of law enforcement officers or reserve officers to use physical force that impedes the normal breathing or circulation of the blood of another person by applying pressure on the throat or neck of the other person, except as a defensive maneuver.
(2) Training of a law enforcement officer or reserve officer that includes prevention or self-defense of physical force used against a law enforcement officer or reserve officer does not constitute prohibited use of force training.
(3) Board-approved mandated course curriculums and field training manuals must not include prohibited use of force training.
(4) The Department will not approve a field training manual that includes prohibited use of force training as a DPSST-equivalent field training manual.
(5) The Department will not instruct, deliver, host, or otherwise sponsor any event that includes prohibited use of force training.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410 & Chapter 3, Oregon Laws 2020 (First Special Session)
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410 & Chapter 3, Oregon Laws 2020 (First Special Session)
- DPSST 32-2020, adopt filed 12/02/2020, effective 12/15/2020
Or. Admin. R. 259-008-0200 Civil Penalties
(1) For purposes of this rule, “agency” means a law enforcement unit or public or private safety agency as defined in OAR 259-008-0005.
(2) The Department may impose a civil penalty on any agency for any violation of ORS 181A.490, 181A.520, 181A.530 or 181A.560. All civil penalties will be imposed in the manner provided by 183.745.
(3) The amount of any civil penalty imposed under subsection (1) of this section may not exceed $1,500 for any single violation.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.655 & ORS 183.745
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.655 & ORS 183.745
- DPSST 35-2018, minor correction filed 02/23/2018, effective 02/23/2018
- DPSST 13-2008, f. & cert. ef. 8-15-08
Or. Admin. R. 259-008-0220 Sanctions, Generally
(1) Information collected by the Department may be used as a basis for any sanction imposed.
(2) The Department’s use of any one sanction does not preclude the imposition of any other sanction(s) for the same violation.
(3) If the Department believes there is substantial evidence that a violation has occurred or is occurring, the Department may seek such remedial relief as may be appropriate, including voluntary compliance or notice as provided in 259-008-0250.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.655 & ORS 183.745
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.655 & ORS 183.745
- DPSST 36-2018, minor correction filed 02/23/2018, effective 02/23/2018
- DPSST 13-2008, f. & cert. ef. 8-15-08
Or. Admin. R. 259-008-0250 Notice of Civil Penalty
(1) Considerations. In determining the amount of a civil penalty the Department will consider:
(a) Any prior violation of statute or rule by the agency;
(b) The financial benefits, if any, realized by the agency as a result of the violation, such as costs avoided as a result of not having attended required training;
(c) The gravity of the violation; and
(d) The agency's history of correcting violations and preventing recurrence of violations.
(2) Single Violation Civil Penalties. A violation of any requirement within any part of the following statutes is a violation that may result in a civil penalty after a single occurrence. The violations include, but are not limited to:
(a) ORS 181A.560 (Certification requirements for a Telecommunicator);
(b) ORS 181A.560 (Certification requirements for an Emergency Medical Dispatcher);
(c) ORS 181A.520 (Certification requirements for a Corrections Officer);
(d) ORS 181A.520 (Failing to attend Basic Corrections training within required timeframe);
(e) ORS 181A.520 (U.S. citizenship requirements for a Corrections Officer);
(f) ORS 181A.530 (Certification requirements for a Parole & Probation Officer);
(g) ORS 181A.530 (U.S. citizenship requirements for a Parole & Probation Officer);
(h) ORS 181A.530 (Part-time Parole & Probation continuing education requirement);
(i) ORS 181A.490 (Certification requirements for a Police Officer);
(j) ORS 181A.490 (Failing to attend Basic Police training within required timeframe);
(k) ORS 181A.490 (U.S. citizenship requirements for a Police Officer).
(3) Amount of Civil Penalty:
(a) An agency found in violation of any requirement listed in section (2) of this rule is subject to a civil penalty of not more than $1,500 per violation per day, unless otherwise provided by this section;
(b) The Department may reduce civil penalty amounts where mitigation is warranted, or resolved by stipulation as provided in section (9) of this rule.
(4) Payment to be Considered Admission of Violation. Unless the Department agrees otherwise, any payment of a civil penalty is considered as admission of violation of the statutes or rules cited in the civil penalty notice for which the civil penalty was paid.
(5) Notice. The Department's notice of its intent to impose a civil penalty will include a statement that if the agency fails to request a hearing within twenty (20) days of the date of service of the notice, the agency’s right to a hearing is waived.
(6) Informal Conference. When the Department issues a notice of civil penalty, the agency will be entitled to an informal conference to respond to the notice. The conference must be held before a person authorized to issue an order or to make recommendations regarding issuance of an order. The Department must receive a request for an informal conference in writing within twenty (20) days of the date of service of the notice of civil penalty. If the agency fails to submit a timely request for a conference, the agency’s right to a conference is waived.
(7) Hearing Request:
(a) Right to Hearing. If the Department issues a notice of intent to impose a civil penalty, the agency is entitled to a contested case hearing in accordance with the provisions of ORS Chapter 183;
(b) Request for Hearing. The Department must receive a request for a hearing in writing within twenty (20) days of the date the notice of intent to impose a civil penalty was served on the agency. The Department may extend the time allowed for submission of the admission/denial and affirmative defenses for up to 30 calendar days, if requested in writing.
(8) Default Order. If a hearing is not timely requested, or if an agency withdraws a hearing request or fails to appear at a scheduled hearing, the Department may enter a final order by default imposing the civil penalty. In the event of a default, the Department's file or files on the subject of the civil penalty automatically becomes a part of a contested case record for purposes of proving the Department's prima facie case.
(9) Department staff is authorized to seek resolution by stipulation, subject to Department acceptance and approval under the following conditions:
(a) The matter is resolved prior to entry of a final order assessing a civil penalty;
(b) The agency corrects or proceeds to correct all violations noted in a notice of intent to issue a civil penalty within a prescribed timeframe;
(c) The civil penalty amount agreed to is tendered in a certified check, bank draft, cashier’s check or postal money order, made payable to the Department, along with the stipulation.
(10) A stipulation will not be accepted for less than the amount provided for in the notice of civil penalty if the violation is not corrected as part of the resolution.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.655 & ORS 183.745
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.655 & ORS 183.745
- DPSST 37-2018, minor correction filed 02/23/2018, effective 02/23/2018
- DPSST 13-2008, f. & cert. ef. 8-15-08
Or. Admin. R. 259-008-0290 Denial of Public Safety Professional Certifications for Pre-employment Criminal Dispositions
(1) The Board has established moral fitness standards that it has determined are critical to upholding the public’s trust in the public safety profession, protecting the public and ensuring that the conduct of a public safety professional or an applicant does not reflect adversely on the public safety profession. The Board finds by adopting this rule that a violation of these standards is substantially related to the duties performed by a certified public safety professional.
(2) This rule defines the grounds for denial and processes for review of professional standards cases where the public safety professional is a new applicant for DPSST training and certification and the professional standards case is based on a criminal disposition that occurred prior to employment in public safety. For the purposes of this rule:
(a) An applicant is an employed public safety professional applying for DPSST training or certification; and
(b) Pre-employment criminal dispositions are criminal dispositions that occurred prior to any employment in any jurisdiction as a police officer, reserve officer, corrections officer, parole and probation officer, regulatory specialist, telecommunicator or emergency medical dispatcher as those terms are defined in OAR 259-008-0005.
(3) Mandatory Grounds for Denial. The Department must deny an applicant’s certification based upon a finding that the applicant has a conviction for an offense constituting mandatory grounds for denial of public safety certification as defined in OAR 259-008-0300(2).
(4) Discretionary Grounds for Denial. The Department may deny an applicant’s certification based upon a finding that the applicant has a pre-employment criminal disposition, other than a conviction constituting mandatory grounds for denial as defined in OAR 259-008-0300(2), in which the criminal disposition or the underlying conduct include either or both of the following elements:
(a) Dishonesty. Dishonesty includes intentional conduct that includes untruthfulness, dishonesty by admission or omission, deception, misrepresentation, falsification or reckless disregard for the truth; or
(b) Gross Misconduct. Gross Misconduct includes:
(A) Deliberate or reckless conduct that caused or could have caused significant harm to persons or property;
(B) Conduct that includes violence against another person;
(C) Conduct resulting in a criminal disposition for a sex-related offense; or
(D) Discriminatory conduct. For the purposes of this rule, discriminatory conduct includes a pattern of conduct or a single egregious act that evidences knowing and intentional discrimination based on the perception of a person’s race, color, religion, sex, sexual orientation, gender identity, national origin, disability, age or any protected class as defined by state or federal law, and would lead an objectively reasonable person to conclude that the applicant cannot perform the duties of office in a fair and impartial manner.
(5) The Department will not open a discretionary case under this rule for the following:
(a) A criminal disposition that occurred prior to January 1, 2001; or
(b) A criminal disposition for a successfully completed deferred adjudication or diversion in which the only charge is for driving under the influence of intoxicants. For the purposes of this rule the term “intoxicant” includes intoxicating liquor, cannabis, a controlled substance, an inhalant or any combination of these intoxicants.
(6) The Board delegates the review of discretionary professional standards cases for an applicant’s pre-employment criminal dispositions to the Department and the Applicant Review Committee.
(a) The Department will review an applicant’s pre-employment criminal disposition and open a case when the criminal disposition or underlying conduct may constitute discretionary grounds for denial as defined in section (4) of this rule.
(b) The Applicant Review Committee will review discretionary cases opened by the Department and determine whether the applicant is denied or not denied certification for the discretionary grounds defined in section (4) of this rule.
(7) Prior to submitting a discretionary case to the Applicant Review Committee, the Department will notify the applicant. The notification will include the deadlines for the applicant to provide evidence of factors that may support mitigation. The applicant may provide mitigation evidence by one or both of the following:
(a) Submitting documents or written statements as supporting evidence for mitigation of the conduct under review to the Department for the Applicant Review Committee to consider.
(b) Arranging with the Department to attend an Applicant Review Committee meeting and present a verbal statement. The verbal statement is limited to a maximum of five minutes and must be presented in person by the applicant or their representative.
(8) The Applicant Review Committee will review the case to:
(a) Affirm, modify or negate the Department-identified moral fitness violations;
(b) Identify aggravating and mitigating circumstances unique to the case;
(c) Determine how the moral fitness violations and aggravating or mitigating circumstances impact the applicant’s fitness for certification; and
(d) When denying certification, determine how long the individual should be ineligible for certification.
(9) Aggravating and mitigating circumstances are conditions, factors or actions that increase or decrease the total impact that the identified moral fitness violation has on the applicant’s fitness for certification.
(a) Aggravating circumstances generally increase the severity of the impact the moral fitness violation has on fitness for certification and may, in addition to the moral fitness violation, be grounds to deny certification. Aggravating circumstances may increase the recommended ineligibility period. Circumstances that may be considered aggravating include, but are not limited to, the degree of the criminal disposition, prior criminal dispositions or misconduct, lack of accountability, number of persons involved in the underlying conduct, number of separate incidents, passage of time from date of incident or incidents, or any other circumstance the Department or the Applicant Review Committee consider aggravating given the specific issues in the case.
(b) Mitigating circumstances do not excuse or justify the conduct, but generally decrease the severity of the impact the moral fitness violation has on fitness for certification and may decrease the recommended ineligibility period.
(A) Circumstances that must be considered mitigating include the fact that the applicant was not employed in a certifiable position at the time of the conduct and the fact that the applicant has been hired by a public safety agency who is aware of the criminal background.
(B) Circumstances that may be considered mitigating include, but are not limited to, written letters of support, truthfulness, cooperation during the incident or investigation, or any other circumstance the Department or the Applicant Review Committee consider mitigating given the specific issues in the case.
(10) The ineligibility period is the timeframe that the applicant is ineligible for public safety certifications and employment as a certifiable public safety professional as the result of the total impact of the moral fitness violations and the aggravating and mitigating circumstances on the applicant’s moral fitness for certification. The Applicant Review Committee may prescribe an ineligibility period from zero days to ten years.
(11) The moral fitness standards defined in administrative rule in effect on the date the Department or the Applicant Review Committee determined that the applicant was unfit for certification will continue to apply until the Final Order has been issued and all appeal rights have been exhausted, regardless of any subsequent amendment or repeal of the rules.
(12) Any Department action to deny an applicant’s public safety professional certification will be administered in accordance with OAR 259-008-0290 through OAR 259-008-0340 and the applicable provisions of the Attorney General’s Model Rules of Procedure adopted under OAR 259-005-0015.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410, ORS 183.341 & ORS 181A.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410, ORS 183.341, ORS 181A.640, ORS 181A.630 & ORS 181A.650
- DPSST 6-2021, amend filed 04/22/2021, effective 04/23/2021
- DPSST 30-2020, adopt filed 10/22/2020, effective 11/01/2020
Or. Admin. R. 259-008-0300 Grounds for Denial, Revocation or Emergency Suspension of Public Safety Professional Certifications
(1) The Board has established moral fitness standards that it has determined are critical to upholding the public’s trust in the public safety profession, protecting the public and ensuring that the conduct of a public safety professional or an applicant does not reflect adversely on the public safety profession. The Board finds by adopting this rule that a violation of these standards is substantially related to the duties performed by a certified public safety professional.
(2) Mandatory Denial or Revocation of a Public Safety Professional’s Certifications. The Department must deny or revoke a public safety professional’s certifications based upon a finding that:
(a) The public safety professional has a conviction for any offense designated under the law of the jurisdiction where the conviction occurred as being punishable as a felony or as a crime for which a maximum term of imprisonment of more than one year may be imposed;
(b) The public safety professional has a conviction in any jurisdiction for any offense involving the unlawful use, possession, delivery or manufacture of a controlled substance, narcotic or dangerous drug, except for criminal dispositions involving use or possession of marijuana which are reviewed as discretionary cases under section (3) of this rule;
(c) The public safety professional has a conviction in any jurisdiction for any offense involving domestic violence. For the purposes of this rule, domestic violence includes abuse of a child, and the term “domestic violence” has the meaning given by ORS 135.230, the term “abuse” has the meaning given by ORS 107.705, and the term “child” means a child who is under 18 years of age and is a natural child, adopted child, stepchild, a child under the guardianship of, or a child who regularly resides or formerly resided in the same household as the public safety professional;
(d) The public safety professional has a conviction in any jurisdiction for a bias or hate crime;
(e) The public safety professional is a sex offender pursuant to ORS 163A.005(6); or
(f) The public safety professional has been discharged for cause from employment as a public safety professional. For the purposes of this rule, “for cause” means intentional conduct performed under the color of office to:
(A) Obtain false confessions;
(B) Make false arrests;
(C) Create or use falsified evidence, including false testimony, or to destroy evidence to create a false impression;
(D) Compel a person to abstain from doing, or to do, any act that the person has a legal right to do or abstain from doing;
(E) Deprive, or attempt to deprive, another person or persons of their legal rights;
(F) Gain advantage for a public or private safety agency or for personal gain; or
(G) Discriminate against a person based on the public safety professional’s perception of that person’s race, color, religion, sex, sexual orientation, gender identity, national origin, disability, age or any protected class as defined by state or federal law.
(3) Discretionary Denial or Revocation of a Public Safety Professional’s Certifications.
(a) The Department may deny or revoke a public safety professional’s certifications based upon a finding that the public safety professional engaged in conduct that includes any or all of the following elements:
(A) Dishonesty. Dishonesty is intentional conduct that includes untruthfulness, dishonesty by admission or omission, deception, misrepresentation, falsification or reckless disregard for the truth;
(B) Misuse of Authority. Misuse of Authority is intentional conduct that includes the use or attempted use of one’s position or authority as a public safety professional to obtain a benefit, avoid a detriment or harm another; or
(C) Misconduct.
(i) Misconduct includes conduct that violates criminal laws, conduct that threatens or harms persons, property or the efficient operations of any agency, or discriminatory conduct;
(ii) For the purposes of this rule, discriminatory conduct includes a pattern of conduct or a single egregious act that evidences knowing and intentional discrimination based on the perception of a person’s race, color, religion, sex, sexual orientation, gender identity, national origin, disability, age or any protected class as defined by state or federal law, and would lead an objectively reasonable person to conclude that the public safety professional cannot perform the duties of office in a fair and impartial manner.
(b) For the purposes of this rule, conduct subject to discretionary review includes, but is not limited to:
(A) A criminal disposition when the criminal disposition is not a conviction constituting mandatory grounds as defined in section (2) of this rule;
(B) Conduct related to an arrest, a criminal citation to appear or its equivalent, or a criminal disposition;
(C) Conduct related to circumstances concurrent to a separation of employment from a certifiable position such as, but not limited to, investigation, settlement agreement or allegations of misconduct;
(D) Conduct that violates the standards of student conduct defined in OAR 259-012-0010;
(E) Falsification of any information on any documents submitted to the Board or the Department; or
(F) Conduct identified through receipt or discovery of information that would lead an objectively reasonable person to conclude that the public safety professional violated Board established employment, training, or certification standards for public safety professionals.
(c) Review of discretionary criminal dispositions applies to criminal dispositions that occurred on or after January 1, 2001. The Department will not open a case to review criminal dispositions that occurred prior to January 1, 2001.
(4) The Department will not open a case on a criminal disposition or conduct that was previously reviewed by the Department, a Policy Committee or the Board and determined not to violate standards for public safety professional certification or resulted in no action to deny or revoke certification using the administrative rules in effect at the time of the review.
(a) Nothing in this rule precludes the Department from opening a case upon discovery of additional mandatory or discretionary grounds for denial or revocation.
(b) Nothing in this rule precludes the Department, a Policy Committee or the Board from considering previous criminal dispositions or conduct as an aggravating circumstance in a separate discretionary case review.
(5) The moral fitness standards defined in administrative rule in effect on the date the Department or the Board determined that the applicant or public safety professional was unfit for certification will continue to apply until the Final Order has been issued and all appeal rights have been exhausted regardless of whether the moral fitness standards have been subsequently amended or repealed.
(6) Emergency Suspension. The Department must issue an Emergency Suspension Order immediately suspending a public safety professional’s certifications when a Policy Committee, the Board or the Board’s Executive Committee finds that there is a serious danger to public health and safety.
(7) Any Board or Department action to deny, revoke or emergency suspend a public safety professional’s certifications will be administered in accordance with OAR 259-008-0300 through OAR 259-008-0340 and the applicable provisions of the Attorney General’s Model Rules of Procedure adopted under OAR 259-005-0015.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410, ORS 183.341 & ORS 181A.640
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410, ORS 181A.630, ORS 181A.640, ORS 181A.650 & ORS 183.341
- DPSST 6-2021, amend filed 04/22/2021, effective 04/23/2021
- DPSST 11-2020, renumbered from 259-008-0070, filed 05/01/2020, effective 05/02/2020
- DPSST 5-2020, amend filed 02/10/2020, effective 05/01/2020
- DPSST 7-2019, amend filed 07/26/2019, effective 08/01/2019
- DPSST 3-2019, amend filed 04/25/2019, effective 04/25/2019
- DPSST 56-2018, amend filed 07/31/2018, effective 08/01/2018
- DPSST 45-2018, temporary amend filed 04/19/2018, effective 04/25/2018 through 10/21/2018
- DPSST 14-2017, f. 7-28-17, cert. ef. 8-1-17
- DPSST 30-2014, f. & cert. ef. 10-22-14
- DPSST 21-2014(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 7-31-14 thru 1-27-15
- DPSST 20-2014, f. & cert. ef. 7-30-14
- DPSST 16-2014, f. & cert. ef. 6-24-14
- DPSST 7-2014(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 2-27-14 thru 8-1-14
- DPSST 4-2014, f. & cert. ef. 1-28-14
- DPSST 1-2014, f. & cert. ef. 1-2-14
- DPSST 21-2013, f. & cert. ef. 9-23-13
- DPSST 3-2013, f. & cert. ef. 1-22-13
- DPSST 26-2012(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 12-14-12 thru 6-12-13
- DPSST 22-2012, f. & cert. ef. 10-23-12
- DPSST 19-2012, f. & cert. ef. 8-31-12
- DPSST 11-2012, f. & cert. ef. 4-24-12
- DPSST 11-2011, f. & cert. ef. 7-1-11
- DPSST 21-2008, f. 12-15-08, cert. ef. 1-1-09
- DPSST 16-2008, f. & cert. ef. 10-15-08
- DPSST 10-2006, f. & cert. ef. 7-6-06
- DPSST 7-2004, f. & cert. ef. 4-23-04
- DPSST 7-2003, f. & cert. ef. 4-11-03
- BPSST 22-2002, f. & cert. ef. 11-18-02
- BPSST 16-2002, f. & cert. ef. 7-5-02
- BPSST 5-2002(Temp), f. 4-3-02, cert. ef. 4-6-02 thru 8-1-02
- BPSST 14-2001(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 10-26-01 thru 4-5-02
- BPSST 6-2000, f. & cert. ef. 9-29-00
- BPSST 3-1998, f. & cert. ef. 6-30-98
- BPSST 1-1998, f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98
- BPSST 2-1998(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98 thru 6-30-98
- Reverted to PS 2-1996, f. 5-15-96, cert. ef. 5-20-96
- PS 10-1997(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-5-97
- PS 2-1996, f. 5-15-96, cert. ef. 5-20-96
- PS 2-1995, f. & cert. ef. 9-27-95
- Renumbered from 259-010-0055, PS 1-1990, f. & cert. ef. 2-7-90
- PS 1-1985, f. & ef. 4-24-85
- PS 1-1983, f. & ef. 12-15-83
- PS 1-1981, f. 9-26-81, ef. 11-2-81
- PS 2-1980, f. & ef. 12-8-80
- PS 1-1980(Temp), f. & ef. 6-26-80
- PS 1-1979, f. 10-1-79, ef. 10-3-79
- PS 12, f. & ef. 12-19-77
Or. Admin. R. 259-008-0310 Denial/Revocation - Initiation and Review of a Professional Standards Case
(1) When the Department receives information from any source that a certifiable public safety professional or an applicant may not meet the established standards for public safety professionals, the Department will review the information to determine if substantial evidence exists to support denial, revocation or emergency suspension of certifications under the statutory and administrative rule requirements for public safety professional certification.
(2) In professional standards cases where the Department has determined that the conduct being reviewed violates the moral fitness standards established by the Board as mandatory grounds for denial or revocation as defined in OAR 259-008-0300(2), the Department will administratively process the denial or revocation.
(3) The Department will defer review of professional standards cases for individuals who have not been certified and are not currently employed as a public safety professional until the individual is re-employed as a certifiable public safety professional except when the Department has the authority to proceed pursuant to ORS 181A.640 (9).
(4) The Department will administratively close discretionary professional standards cases for deferred adjudications in which the only charge is for ORS 813.010 (Driving Under the Influence of Intoxicants) upon confirmation of dismissal.
(5) The Department may recommend administrative closure of a discretionary professional standards case to a Policy Committee when the Department determines that the conduct being reviewed does not meet the statutory and administrative rule requirements for denial or revocation.
(6) When the Department recommends administrative closure of a discretionary professional standards case to a Policy Committee, the Policy Committee must either approve or overturn the Department’s recommendation.
(a) When the Policy Committee approves the recommendation for administrative closure, the Department will administratively close the professional standards case.
(b) When the Policy Committee overturns the recommendation for administrative closure, the Department will prepare the case for a complete review by the Policy Committee pursuant to sections (9) and (10) of this rule.
(7) In professional standards cases where the Department has determined that the conduct being reviewed may meet the statutory and administrative rule requirements for denial or revocation but is not supported by adequate factual information, the Department may request further information from the employer pursuant to ORS 181A.670 or conduct its own investigation of the matter.
(8) In professional standards cases where there has been an arbitrator’s opinion related to the public safety professional’s employment, the Department will proceed as follows:
(a) If the arbitrator’s opinion finds that underlying facts supported the allegations of misconduct, the Department will proceed with review of the professional standards case pursuant to this rule.
(b) If the arbitrator has ordered employment reinstatement after a separation of employment without a finding related to whether the misconduct occurred, the Department will proceed with review of the professional standards case pursuant to this rule.
(c) If the arbitrator’s opinion finds that underlying facts did not support the allegations of misconduct, the Department will recommend administrative closure of the professional standards case to a Policy Committee, unless the Department receives or discovers additional information that would lead an objectively reasonable person to conclude that the public safety professional has violated Board established employment, training, or certification standards for Oregon public safety professionals.
(9) When the Department submits a discretionary professional standards case to a Policy Committee, the Department will notify the public safety professional. The notification will include the deadlines for the public safety professional to provide evidence of factors that may support mitigation. A public safety professional may provide mitigation evidence by one or both of the following:
(a) Submitting documents or written statements as supporting evidence for mitigation of the conduct under review to the Department for Policy Committee and Board consideration.
(b) Arranging with the Department to attend a Policy Committee meeting and present a verbal statement. The verbal statement is limited to a maximum of five minutes and must be presented in person by the public safety professional or their representative.
(10) Policy Committee Review of Discretionary Professional Standards Cases.
(a) In professional standards cases where the Department has determined that the conduct being reviewed violates the moral fitness standards established by the Board as discretionary grounds for denial or revocation as defined in OAR 259-008-0300(3), the Department will submit its findings to a Policy Committee for disposition. The Policy Committee’s disposition will be submitted as a recommendation to the Board for approval.
(b) The Policy Committee will review the professional standards case to:
(A) Affirm, modify or negate the Department-identified moral fitness violations;
(B) Identify aggravating and mitigating circumstances unique to the professional standards case;
(C) Determine how the moral fitness violations and aggravating or mitigating circumstances impact the public safety professional’s fitness for certification; and
(D) When recommending denial or revocation of public safety professional certifications, determine how long the individual should be ineligible for certification.
(c) Aggravating and mitigating circumstances are conditions, factors or actions that increase or decrease the total impact that the identified moral fitness violation has on the public safety professional’s fitness for certification.
(A) Aggravating circumstances generally increase the severity of the impact the moral fitness violation has on fitness for certification and may, in addition to the moral fitness violation, be grounds to deny or revoke certification. Aggravating circumstances may increase the recommended ineligibility period. Circumstances that may be considered aggravating include, but are not limited to, the degree of the criminal disposition, prior criminal dispositions or misconduct, lack of accountability, number of persons involved in the underlying conduct, number of separate incidents, passage of time from date of incident or incidents, or any other circumstance the Department or the Policy Committee consider aggravating given the specific issues in the case.
(B) Mitigating circumstances do not excuse or justify the conduct, but generally decrease the severity of the impact the moral fitness violation has on fitness for certification and may decrease the recommended ineligibility period. Circumstances that may be considered mitigating include, but are not limited to, written letters of support, truthfulness, cooperation during the incident or investigation, or any other circumstance the Department or the Policy Committee consider mitigating given the specific issues in the case.
(d) The ineligibility period is the timeframe that the public safety professional or applicant is ineligible for public safety certifications and prohibited from performing the duties of a certifiable public safety professional as the result of the total impact of the moral fitness violations and the aggravating and mitigating circumstances on the public safety professional’s fitness for certification.
(A) When the identified moral fitness violations include Dishonesty or Misconduct that is discriminatory as defined in OAR 259-008-0300(3), the Policy Committee may recommend an ineligibility period from three years to lifetime.
(B) When the identified moral fitness violations do not include Dishonesty or Misconduct that is discriminatory as defined in OAR 259-008-0300(3), the Policy Committee may recommend an ineligibility period from three years to ten years.
(11) Board Review of a Professional Standards Case. The Board will review the professional standards case, aggravation and mitigation, and the Policy Committee’s recommendations to determine whether or not to approve all or part of the Policy Committee’s recommendations.
(a) Upon initial consideration, the Board may either approve the recommendation in its entirety or defer a decision and return the recommendation to the Policy Committee.
(b) The Board may approve the Policy Committee recommendation by a majority vote of the members present.
(c) The Board, by a majority vote of the members present, may defer its decision and return the recommendation with instructions to the Policy Committee to reconsider the recommendation. The Board may also instruct the Department to obtain further information and revise the case for a second review and recommendation by the Policy Committee. The Board may return a recommendation only once.
(A) The Policy Committee must reconsider its recommendation, along with the Board’s instructions and any new information the Department submits to the Policy Committee.
(B) The Policy Committee will submit a revised or renewed recommendation to the Board.
(d) The Board will review the revised or renewed recommendation to decide whether to approve all or part of the recommendation. The Board may approve the recommendation by a majority vote of the members present and may disapprove the recommendation by a two-thirds vote of the total voting members. A failure to achieve a two-thirds vote to disapprove a recommendation will result in the approval of the recommendation.
(A) When the Board disapproves a recommendation that proposes no action be taken to deny or revoke certification, the Board must make its own determination as to whether the public safety professional has engaged in conduct that violates the discretionary grounds for denial or revocation of certifications. The Board’s review of the case must follow the process for Policy Committee review as outlined in section (10) of this rule.
(B) The Board may identify their own findings or adopt all or any part of the Policy Committee’s findings as the basis for the determination.
(C) If the Board review results in a determination to deny or revoke public safety professional certifications, the Department will issue a Notice of Intent pursuant to OAR 259-008-0340. Where the Board review results in no action to deny or revoke public safety professional certifications, the issued Notice of Intent will be withdrawn and the professional standards case will be closed.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410, ORS 181A.640 & ORS 183.341
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410, ORS 181A.640, ORS 181A.630, ORS 181A.650 & ORS 183.341
- DPSST 6-2021, amend filed 04/22/2021, effective 04/23/2021
- DPSST 30-2020, amend filed 10/22/2020, effective 11/01/2020
- DPSST 5-2020, adopt filed 02/10/2020, effective 05/01/2020
Or. Admin. R. 259-008-0320 Scope of Denial/Revocation and Eligibility for Certification Following Denial/Revocation
(1) When the Department denies or revokes public safety professional certifications pursuant to OAR 259-008-0290 through OAR 259-008-0340, the denial or revocation will encompass all of the public safety professional certifications subject to OAR chapter 259 division 8.
(2) An individual denied or revoked for mandatory grounds is prohibited from performing the duties of a certifiable public safety professional and the individual is permanently ineligible for certification as a public safety professional.
(3) An individual denied or revoked for discretionary grounds is prohibited from performing the duties of a certifiable public safety professional and ineligible for public safety professional certifications until the prescribed ineligibility period has been satisfied.
(4) The first day of a discretionary denial or revocation ineligibility period is determined by the following circumstances:
(a) When certifications are denied or revoked for a criminal disposition that resulted from conduct that occurred prior to or after separation from employment as a public safety professional, the first day of the ineligibility period is the date of the conviction or the plea of guilt for a deferred sentence or other criminal disposition. When there is more than one criminal disposition determined to be a moral fitness violation, the most recent disposition will be used to determine the first day of the ineligibility period;
(b) When certifications are denied or revoked for any moral fitness violation concurrent to a separation of employment as a public safety professional, the first day of the ineligibility period is the date of the separation from the certifiable position as reported to the Department pursuant to OAR 259-008-0020; or
(c) When certifications are denied or revoked for any moral fitness violation that occurred during employment as a public safety professional and the public safety professional is employed in a certifiable position at the time of the Board’s review, the first day of the ineligibility period is the date that the Board makes the final determination to deny or revoke. Periods of separation from a certifiable position as a result of the moral fitness violation will be applied to the satisfaction of the ineligibility period.
(5) Any application for training or certification submitted by an individual whose ineligibility period has not been satisfied will be denied pursuant to OAR 259-008-0340.
(6) In order to be eligible for the issuance of certifications after satisfying an ineligibility period, the individual must meet all of the minimum requirements for employment, training and certification as defined in OAR chapter 259 division 008.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410, ORS 181A.640 & ORS 183.341
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410, ORS 181A.640, ORS 181A.630, ORS 181A.650 & ORS 183.341
- DPSST 30-2020, amend filed 10/22/2020, effective 11/01/2020
- DPSST 5-2020, adopt filed 02/10/2020, effective 05/01/2020
Or. Admin. R. 259-008-0330 Surrendering Certifications
(1) A public safety professional may request that the Department accept the surrender of their public safety certifications.
(2) In considering whether to accept the request to surrender public safety certifications, the Department may request further information from the present or prior employer pursuant to ORS 181A.670 or conduct its own investigation to determine if any minimum standards for certification have been violated and proceed with initiation and review of a professional standards case pursuant to OAR 259-008-0310.
(3) If an administrative proceeding has commenced pursuant to OAR 259-008-0340, the Department may, in its discretion, withdraw its Notice of Intent and accept the individual’s surrender of the public safety certifications.
(4) The public safety professional will remain certified until the Department accepts the surrender.
(5) Once the surrender has been accepted by the Department, the individual may no longer perform the duties of a certifiable public safety professional.
(6) The Department will enter a Final Order permanently revoking the certifications of a public safety professional.
(7) An individual with public safety professional certifications revoked pursuant to this rule is permanently ineligible for certification as a public safety professional.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410, ORS 181A.640 & ORS 183.341
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410, ORS 181A.640, ORS 181A.630, ORS 181A.650 & ORS 183.341
- DPSST 5-2020, adopt filed 02/10/2020, effective 05/01/2020
Or. Admin. R. 259-008-0340 Issuance of Notice of Intent/Request for Hearing and Contested Case Procedures
(1) Upon a determination to proceed with an emergency suspension or a denial or revocation, the Department will prepare and serve a Notice of Intent on the individual or public safety professional.
(2) Response Time:
(a) A party who has been served with an Emergency Suspension Order has 90 days from the date of mailing or personal service of the Order to file a written request for a hearing with the Department.
(b) A party who has been served with a Notice of Intent to Deny Certification has 60 days from the date of mailing or personal service of the Notice to file a written request for a hearing with the Department.
(c) A party who has been served with a Notice of Intent to Revoke Certification has 20 days from the date of mailing or personal service of the Notice to file a written request for a hearing with the Department.
(3) Default Orders. If the Department does not receive a timely request for a hearing, the Notice of Intent will become a Final Order denying or revoking certification pursuant to OAR 137-003-0672.
(4) Hearing Request. If the Department receives a timely request for a hearing, it will refer the matter to the Office of Administrative Hearings in accordance with OAR 137-003-0515.
(5) Proposed and Final Orders. When a hearing is requested, Proposed Orders, Exceptions, and Final Orders will be issued pursuant to the applicable provisions of the Attorney General’s Model Rules of Procedures adopted under OAR 259-005-0015.
(6) Notice and Hearing Procedures Specific to Professional Standards Cases.
(a) When a Policy Committee recommends denial or revocation of public safety professional certifications, the Department will serve the Notice of Intent on the individual or public safety professional prior to the Board’s review.
(b) Department-proposed amendments to a Proposed Order issued by an Administrative Law Judge in a case that was originally reviewed by a Policy Committee and the Board must be considered by the Policy Committee and the Board before a Final Order can be issued.
(c) The administrative law judge presiding at a contested case hearing may not adjust the ineligibility period approved by the Board under OAR 259-008-0310 or the Applicant Review Committee under OAR 259-008-0290.
(d) If the Department does not receive a timely request for a hearing in cases heard by a Policy Committee, the Notice of Intent will become a Final Order denying or revoking certification pursuant to OAR 137-003-0672 upon final approval by the Board.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410, ORS 181A.640 & ORS 183.341
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410, ORS 181A.640, ORS 181A.630, ORS 181A.650 & ORS 183.341
- DPSST 30-2020, amend filed 10/22/2020, effective 11/01/2020
- DPSST 5-2020, adopt filed 02/10/2020, effective 05/01/2020
Or. Admin. R. 259-008-0400 Review of Complaints
(1) The Department will review all complaints received to determine if the allegations contained in the complaint, if proven, would lead an objectively reasonable person to conclude that the public safety professional or applicant violated Board established employment, training, or certification standards for public safety professionals.
(2) Complaints determined to be unrelated to the statutory and administrative rule requirements for public safety professional certification or complaints that fall outside of DPSST’s statutory authority for other reasons will be closed and not reviewed for further action.
(3) When a complaint against a currently employed public safety professional is for conduct that, if proven, may violate the statutory and administrative rule requirements for public safety professional certification, the Department will refer the complaint to the public safety professional’s employing agency.
(a) The Department will defer any further investigation, discipline or remedy to the employing agency.
(b) The employing agency will be required to respond to the Department that the allegations made in the complaint have been reviewed and handled in an appropriate manner as dictated by the employing agency.
(c) If the public safety professional’s employing agency is non-responsive to the Department’s requests for response, the Department may present the complaint to a Policy Committee for disposition.
(4) When a complaint against a certified public safety professional who is not currently employed in a certifiable position is for conduct that, if proven, may violate the statutory and administrative rule requirements for public safety professional certification, the Department may present the complaint to a Policy Committee for disposition.
(5) When a complaint against an elected official serving as a public safety professional is for conduct that, if proven, may violate the statutory and administrative rule requirements for public safety professional certification, the Department may present the complaint to a Policy Committee for disposition.
(6) Prior to presenting a complaint to a Policy Committee, the Department will notify the person against whom the complaint was made and provide that affected person the opportunity to submit written mitigation or rebuttal for consideration.
(7) The Department will review any mitigation or rebuttal submitted by the affected person in accordance with the notice provided by section (6) of this rule.
(a) Where the Department finds that the mitigation or rebuttal provides information that the conduct, even if proven, does not violate the statutory and administrative rule requirements for public safety professional certification or does not fall within the Department’s statutory authority, the Department will close the complaint.
(b) Where the Department finds that the mitigation or rebuttal does not disprove or otherwise resolve the complaint, the Department will present the complaint to a Policy Committee for disposition.
(8) When a complaint is submitted to a Policy Committee, the Policy Committee will review the complaint and any mitigation or rebuttal submitted by the affected person to determine how to proceed with the complaint.
(a) Where the Policy Committee finds no basis for investigating the complaint further, the Department will close the complaint.
(b) Where the Policy Committee finds a basis for an investigation, the Policy Committee may direct the Department to conduct an investigation and present the complaint as a professional standards case to the Policy Committee for review pursuant to OAR 259-008-0310.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410
- DPSST 5-2020, adopt filed 02/10/2020, effective 05/01/2020
Or. Admin. R. 259-008-0500 Law Enforcement Agency Accreditation
The Department designates the following bodies as accrediting bodies for the purpose of accrediting law enforcement agencies in this state:
(1) The Northwest Accreditation Alliance; and
(2) The Commission on Accreditation for Law Enforcement Agencies, Inc. (CALEA®).
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410 & ORS 181A.657
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410 & ORS 181A.657
- DPSST 8-2024, amend filed 07/25/2024, effective 07/25/2024
- DPSST 18-2021, adopt filed 10/28/2021, effective 11/01/2021
Or. Admin. R. 259-008-0510 Law Enforcement Agency Best Practice Policies for Interacting with Persons Who Have Experienced Trauma
(1) No later than January 1, 2024, a law enforcement agency that employs police officers must adopt best practice policies for interacting with persons who have experienced trauma.
(2) DPSST, in consultation with the Department of Justice, must develop best practices that meet the criteria listed in ORS 181A.445(2). A copy of the best practices will be posted on the DPSST website.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.445
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.445
- DPSST 16-2022, adopt filed 12/28/2022, effective 01/01/2023
Division 9 FIRE SERVICE PROFESSIONALS
Or. Admin. R. 259-009-0000 Policies and Objectives
(1) The policies of the Board and Department in response to ORS 181A.365 are:
(a) The Board and Department exist to develop talented individuals into public safety providers who are:
(A) Culturally competent;
(B) Ethically, physically and emotionally fit; and
(C) Well trained, highly skilled and responsive to the needs of their communities.
(b) The Board and Department will promote the safety, efficiency, effectiveness, self-sufficiency and competence of fire service professionals.
(c) The Board and Department will support collaboration among fire service organizations and the related organizations with whom they work and the interests of the communities they serve.
(d) The Board and Department will consult with and inform each other fully on matters of fire standards, training and certification.
(e) The Board must adopt or approve all policies, standards and minimum requirements for public safety certifications and training.
(f) The Department must administer operations and procedures and implement or apply the policies and standards of the Board.
(g) The Department is and remains a full department of the state.
(2) The objectives of the Board and Department are:
(a) To improve public safety services in Oregon by raising the level of competence of fire service professionals.
(A) By establishing minimum standards for the training and certification of fire professionals.
(B) By providing, sponsoring, certifying or coordinating fire training courses.
(b) To conduct, facilitate, and promote studies and research designed to improve fire service within the state, and to assist in the implementation of Board recommendations.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410 & ORS 181A.365
- DPSST 6-2018, minor correction filed 02/12/2018, effective 02/12/2018
- DPSST 22-2013, f. & cert. ef. 10-3-13
- BPSST 22-2002, f. & cert. ef. 11-18-02
Or. Admin. R. 259-009-0005 Definitions
(1) "Agency Head" means the chief officer of a fire service agency directly responsible for the administration of that unit.
(2) "Authority Having Jurisdiction" or "AHJ" means a fire service agency, Agency Head or Training Officer.
(3) "Board" means the Board on Public Safety Standards and Training.
(4) "Chief Officer" means an individual of an emergency fire agency at a higher level of responsibility than a company officer. A chief officer supervises two or more fire companies in operations or manages and supervises a particular fire service agency program such as training, communications, logistics, prevention, emergency medical services provisions and other staff related duties.
(5) "Community College" means a public institution operated by a community college district for the purpose of providing courses of study limited to not more than two years full-time attendance and designed to meet the needs of a geographical area by providing educational services, including but not limited to vocational or technical education programs or lower division collegiate programs.
(6) "Company Officer" means a fire officer who supervises a company of fire fighters assigned to an emergency response apparatus.
(7) “Content Expert” means a person who documents their experience, knowledge, training and education for the purposes of course instruction.
(8) "Content Level Course" is a course that includes an identifiable block of learning objectives or outcomes that are required for certification at one or more levels.
(9) "Department" and “DPSST” means the Department of Public Safety Standards and Training.
(10) "Director" means the Director of the Department of Public Safety Standards and Training.
(11) "Field Training Officer" means an individual who is authorized by a fire service agency or by the Department to sign as verifying completion of tasks required by task books.
(12) “Fire and Life Safety Educator I” means a person who has demonstrated the ability to coordinate and deliver existing education programs and information.
(13) “Fire and Life Safety Educator II” means a person who has demonstrated the ability to prepare educational programs and information to meet identified needs.
(14) “Fire and Life Safety Educator III” means a person who has demonstrated the ability to create, administer, and evaluate educational programs and information.
(15) "Fire Company" means a group of fire fighters, usually three or more, who staff and provide the essential emergency duties of a particular emergency response apparatus.
(16) "Fire Fighter" is a term used to describe an individual who renders a variety of emergency response duties primarily to save lives and protect property. This applies to career and volunteer personnel.
(17) "Fire Inspector" means an individual whose primary function is the inspection of facilities in accordance with the specific jurisdictional fire codes and standards.
(18) "Fire Service Agency" means any unit of state or local government, a special purpose district or a private firm which provides, or has authority to provide, fire protection services.
(19) "Fire Service Professional" means a paid (career) or volunteer fire fighter, an officer or a member of a public or private fire protection agency who is engaged primarily in fire investigation, fire prevention, fire safety, fire control or fire suppression or providing emergency medical services, light and heavy rescue services, search and rescue services or hazardous materials incident response. "Fire service professional" does not include forest fire protection agency personnel.
(20) "Fire Training Officer" means a fire service member assigned the responsibility for administering, providing, and managing or supervising a fire service agency training program.
(21) “First Responder” means an “NFPA Operations Level Responder.”
(22) “Maritime Fire Service Basic Awareness” means a person who possesses the basic knowledge and skills necessary to perform water self-rescue, execute emergency procedures on the fire service agency’s boat and operate emergency equipment on the fire service agency’s boat.
(23) “Maritime Fire Service Boat Operator” means a person who possesses the knowledge and skills necessary to proficiently and safely operate the fire service agency’s boat in the service area, under varying environmental conditions and with understanding of the performance limits of the boat and the crew.
(24) “Maritime Fire Service Deck Hand” means a person who possesses the knowledge and skills necessary to aid the boat operator in navigation and operation of the fire service agency’s boat.
(25) “Maritime Fire Service Fire Boat Operator” means a person who possesses the knowledge and skills necessary to operate and control the fire service agency’s boat when the boat is a marine-based firefighting vessel.
(26) “Maritime Fire Service Rescue Boat Operator” means a person who possesses the knowledge and skills necessary to operate and control the fire service agency’s boat during rescuer deployment and victim search and retrieval.
(27) "NFPA" stands for National Fire Protection Association which is a body of individuals representing a wide variety of professions, including fire protection, who develop consensus standards and codes for fire safety by design and fire protection agencies. “NFPA” preceding a certification title denotes that the certification is based upon the training and certification requirements established by the NFPA that may have been adopted in part or in whole by the Board and the Department for Oregon fire service professional certifications.
(28) "NFPA Airport Firefighter" means an NFPA Firefighter II who has demonstrated the skills and knowledge necessary to function as an integral member of an aircraft rescue and firefighting team.
(29) “NFPA Apparatus - Aerial Device” means a person who has met the job performance requirements defined in NFPA 1010 Chapter 13.
(30) “NFPA Apparatus - Aircraft Rescue and Firefighting” means a person who has met the job performance requirements defined in NFPA 1010 Chapter 16.
(31) “NFPA Apparatus - Driver/Operator” means a person who has met the job performance requirements defined in NFPA 1010 Chapter 11.
(32) “NFPA Apparatus - Mobile Water Supply” means a person who has met the job performance requirements defined in NFPA 1010 Chapter 17.
(33) “NFPA Apparatus - Pumper” means a person who has met the job performance requirements defined in NFPA 1010 Chapter 12 for the operation of apparatus equipped with an attack or fire pump.
(34) “NFPA Apparatus - Tiller” means a person who has met the job performance requirements defined in NFPA 1010 Chapter 14.
(35) “NFPA Apparatus - Wildland Fire Suppression” means a person who has met the job performance requirements defined in NFPA 1010 Chapter 15.
(36) “NFPA Common Passenger Vehicle Rescue Operations Level” means a person who has met the job performance requirements defined in NFPA 1006, chapter 8, sections 8.1 and 8.2.
(37) “NFPA Common Passenger Vehicle Rescue Technician Level” means a person who is certified as NFPA Common Passenger Vehicle Rescue Operations Level and has met the job performance requirements defined in NFPA 1006, chapter 8, section 8.3.
(38) “NFPA Confined Space Rescue” means a person who is certified as NFPA Rope Rescue Operations Level and has met the job performance requirements defined in NFPA 1006, chapter 7.
(39) “NFPA Dive Rescue” means a person who has met the job performance requirements defined in NFPA 1006, chapter 19.
(40) “NFPA Fire and Emergency Services Instructor I” means a person who has demonstrated the knowledge and ability to deliver instruction effectively from a prepared lesson plan, including instructional aids and evaluation instruments; adapt lesson plans to the unique requirements of the students and the AHJ; organize the learning environment so that learning and safety are maximized; and meet the record-keeping requirements of the AHJ.
(41) “NFPA Fire and Emergency Services Instructor II” means a person who, in addition to meeting NFPA Fire and Emergency Services Instructor I qualifications, has demonstrated the knowledge and ability to develop individual lesson plans for a specific topic including learning objectives, instructional aids, and evaluation instruments; schedule training sessions based on overall training plan of AHJ; and supervise and coordinate the activities of other instructors.
(42) “NFPA Fire and Emergency Services Instructor III” means a person who, in addition to meeting NFPA Fire and Emergency Services Instructor II qualifications, has demonstrated the knowledge and ability to develop comprehensive training curricula and programs for use by single or multiple organizations; conduct organization needs analysis; design record keeping and scheduling systems; and develop training goals and implementation strategies.
(43) "NFPA Firefighter I" means a person, at the first level of progression as defined in NFPA 1010 Chapter 6, who has demonstrated the knowledge and skills to function as an integral member of a firefighting team under direct supervision in hazardous conditions.
(44) "NFPA Firefighter II" means a person, at the second level of progression as defined in NFPA 1010 Chapter 7, who has demonstrated the skills and depth of knowledge to function under general supervision.
(45) "NFPA Fire Inspector I" means an individual who conducts basic fire code inspections and has met the Level I job performance requirements of NFPA Standard 1031.
(46) "NFPA Fire Inspector II" means an individual who conducts complicated fire code inspections, reviews plans for code requirements, and recommends modifications to codes and standards. This individual has met the Level II job performance requirements of NFPA standard 1031.
(47) “NFPA Fire Inspector III” means an individual at the third and most advanced level of progression who has met the job performance requirements specified in this standard for Level III. The Fire Inspector III performs all types of fire inspections, plans review duties, and resolves complex code-related issues.
(48) "NFPA Fire Investigator" means a person who has demonstrated the skills and knowledge necessary to conduct, coordinate, and complete a fire investigation.
(49) "NFPA Fire Officer I" means a fire officer, at the supervisory level, who has met the job performance requirements defined in NFPA 1021 sections 4.1 through 4.7.
(50) "NFPA Fire Officer II" means a fire officer, at the supervisory/managerial level, who has met the job performance requirements defined in NFPA 1021 sections 5.1 through 5.7.
(51) "NFPA Fire Officer III" means a fire officer, at the managerial/administrative level, who has met the job performance requirements defined in NFPA 1021 sections 6.1 through 6.8.
(52) "NFPA Fire Officer IV" means a fire officer, at the administrative level, who has met the job performance requirements defined in NFPA 1021 sections 7.1 through 7.7.
(53) “NFPA Hazardous Materials Awareness” means personnel who, in the course of their normal duties, could encounter an emergency involving hazardous materials/weapons of mass destruction (WMD) and who are expected to recognize the presence of the hazardous material/WMD, protect themselves, call for trained personnel, and secure the scene.
(54) “NFPA Hazardous Materials Incident Commander” means a person who is responsible for all incident activities, including the development of strategies and tactics and the ordering and release of resources.
(55) “NFPA Hazardous Materials Operations” means a person who responds to hazardous materials or WMD incidents for the purpose of implementing or supporting actions to protect nearby persons, the environment, or property from the effects of the release.
(56) “NFPA Hazardous Materials Operations Mission-Specific” means responders assigned mission-specific responsibilities at hazardous materials/WMD incidents.
(57) “NFPA Hazardous Materials Technician” means a person who responds to hazardous materials or WMD incidents using a risk-based response process where they analyze a problem involving hazardous materials or WMD, select applicable decontamination procedures, and control a release using specialized protective and control equipment.
(58) “NFPA Heavy Vehicle Rescue” means a person who is certified as NFPA Common Passenger Vehicle Rescue Technician Level and has met the job performance requirements defined in NFPA 1006, chapter 9.
(59) “NFPA Live Fire Instructor” means a person who, in addition to meeting NFPA Fire and Emergency Services Instructor I qualifications, has demonstrated the knowledge and ability to supervise students through a live fire training event following the NFPA 1403 Standard on Live Fire Training Evolutions with the live fire structure or prop utilized by the AHJ.
(60) “NFPA Live Fire Instructor in Charge” means a person who, in addition to meeting NFPA Fire and Emergency Services Instructor II qualifications, has demonstrated the knowledge and ability to organize and manage a live fire training event following the NFPA 1403 Standard on Live Fire Training Evolutions with the live fire structure or prop utilized by the AHJ.
(61) “NFPA Machinery Rescue” means a person who has met the job performance requirements defined in NFPA 1006, chapter 13.
(62) “NFPA Marine Land-Based Fire Fighter” means a person who has met the job performance requirements defined in NFPA 1005 sections 4.1 through 4.5.
(63) “NFPA Rope Rescue Operations Level” means a person who has met the job performance requirements defined in NFPA 1006, chapter 5, sections 5.1 and 5.2.
(64) “NFPA Rope Rescue Technician Level” means a person who is certified as NFPA Rope Rescue Operations Level and has met the job performance requirements defined in NFPA 1006, chapter 5, section 5.3.
(65) “NFPA Structural Collapse Rescue” means a person who has met the job performance requirements defined in NFPA 1006, chapter 6.
(66) “NFPA Support Person” means a person who has met the requirements defined in NFPA 1010 Chapter 5 and assists the fire department with support operations in non-hazardous atmospheres or protected work zones.
(67) “NFPA Surf Rescue” means a person who has met the job performance requirements defined in NFPA 1006, chapter 21.
(68) “NFPA Surface Water Rescue” means a person who has met the job performance requirements defined in NFPA 1006, chapter 17.
(69) “NFPA Swiftwater Rescue” means a person who is certified as NFPA Surface Water Rescue and has met the job performance requirements defined in NFPA 1006, chapter 18.
(70) “NFPA Tower Rescue” means a person who has met the job performance requirements defined in NFPA 1006, chapter 4.
(71) “NFPA Trench Rescue” means a person who has met the job performance requirements defined in NFPA 1006, chapter 12.
(72) “NFPA Watercraft Rescue” means a person who has met the job performance requirements defined in NFPA 1006, chapter 22.
(73) “NWCG” stands for the National Wildfire Coordinating Group. “NWCG” preceding a certification title denotes that the certification is based upon the training and certification requirements established by the NWCG that may have been adopted in part or in whole by the Board and the Department for Oregon fire service professional certifications.
(74) “NWCG Firefighter Type 2 (FFT2)” means a person who is the basic resource used in the control and extinguishment of wildland fires and works either as an individual or as a member of a crew under the supervision of a higher qualified individual.
(75) “NWCG Firefighter Type 1 (FFT1)” means a person who leads assigned personnel (usually seven or fewer) to accomplish established mission objectives in a rapidly changing, high-risk wildland fire environment. The FFT1 reports to the Crew Boss (CRWB) or other Single Resource Boss.
(76) “NWCG Single Resource Boss” means a person who is responsible for supervising and directing a fire suppression module, such as a hand crew, engine, helicopter, heavy equipment, firing team, or one or more fallers. “NWCG Single Resource Boss” includes NWCG Crew Boss, Single Resource (CRWB); NWCG Engine Boss, Single Resource (ENGB); NWCG Felling Boss, Single Resource (FELB); NWCG Firing Boss, Single Resource (FIRB); and NWCG Heavy Equipment Boss, Single Resource (HEQB).
(77) “NWCG Strike Team Leader Engine (STEN)” and "NWCG Task Force Leader (TFLD)" means a person who reports to a Division/Group Supervisor and is responsible for performing tactical missions as assigned on a division or segment of a division. The Leader reports work progress, resource status, and other important information to his or her supervisor and maintains work records on assigned personnel.
(78) “NWCG Division/Group Supervisor (DIVS)” means a person who is responsible for implementing the assigned portion of the IAP (Incident Action Plan).
(79) “Public Information Officer” means a person who has demonstrated the ability to conduct media interviews and prepare news releases and media advisories.
(80) "Service Delivery" means to be able to adequately demonstrate, through job performance, the knowledge, skills, and abilities of a certification level.
(81) "Staff" means employees occupying full-time, part-time, or temporary positions with the Department.
(82) "Task Performance" means to demonstrate the ability to perform tasks of a certification level, in a controlled environment, while being evaluated.
(83) "The Act" refers to the Public Safety Standards and Training Act (ORS 181A.355 to 181A.689).
(84) "Topical Level Course" is a course that does not include an identifiable block of learning objectives or outcomes that are required for certification at one or more levels.
(85) "Track" means a field of study required for certification.
(86) “US&R” means Urban Search and Rescue.
(87) “US&R Medical Technician” means a Fire Service Professional who is responsible for performing basic and advanced life support medical care for task force members and rescue victims during a US&R incident operation.
(88) “US&R Rescue Technician” means a Fire Service Professional who is responsible for performing the rescue function of a US&R incident operation.
(89) “US&R Rigging Technician” means a Fire Service Professional who is responsible for performing various assessments and construction-related liaison for the task force during a US&R incident operation.
(90) “US&R Search Technician” means a Fire Service Professional who is responsible for performing the search function of a US&R incident operation.
(91) "Waiver" means to refrain from pressing or enforcing a rule.
(92) “Youth Firesetter Intervention Specialist” means a person who has demonstrated the ability to conduct an intake/interview with a firesetter and his or her family using prepared forms and guidelines and who, based on program policies and procedures, determines the need for referral and/or implements educational intervention strategies to mitigate effects of firesetting behavior.
(93) “Youth Firesetter Program Manager” means a person who has demonstrated the ability to manage a youth firesetting intervention program and the activities of Youth Firesetter Intervention Specialist.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410
- DPSST 4-2026, amend filed 04/23/2026, effective 05/01/2026
- DPSST 10-2025, amend filed 10/23/2025, effective 11/01/2025
- DPSST 4-2025, amend filed 05/01/2025, effective 05/15/2025
- DPSST 9-2022, amend filed 08/01/2022, effective 08/01/2022
- DPSST 1-2022, amend filed 01/27/2022, effective 02/01/2022
- DPSST 9-2021, amend filed 04/22/2021, effective 05/01/2021
- DPSST 12-2019, amend filed 10/24/2019, effective 11/01/2019
- DPSST 6-2019, amend filed 07/25/2019, effective 08/01/2019
- DPSST 4-2019, amend filed 04/25/2019, effective 05/01/2019
- DPSST 57-2018, amend filed 07/31/2018, effective 08/01/2018
- DPSST 2-2018, amend filed 01/29/2018, effective 02/01/2018
- DPSST 12-2017, f. 6-29-17, cert. ef. 7-1-17
- DPSST 17-2015, f. & cert. ef. 10-22-15
- DPSST 36-2014, f. & cert. ef. 12-31-14
- DPSST 9-2014, f. & cert. ef. 4-3-14
- DPSST 6-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-6-14
- DPSST 22-2013, f. & cert. ef. 10-3-13
- DPSST 8-2013, f. & cert. ef. 3-26-13
- DPSST 21-2012, f. & cert. ef. 10-1-12
- DPSST 12-2011, f. & cert. ef. 8-1-11
- DPSST 3-2011, f. 3-28-11, cert. ef. 5-1-11
- DPSST 11-2010, f. & cert. ef. 11-12-10
- DPSST 5-2010, f. 6-11-10, cert. ef. 6-14-10
- Reverted to DPSST 12-2009, f. & cert. ef. 10-15-09
- DPSST 16-2009(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 12-15-09 thru 6-11-10
- DPSST 12-2009, f. & cert. ef. 10-15-09
- DPSST 7-2009, f. & cert. ef. 7-13-09
- DPSST 10-2008, f. & cert. ef. 7-15-08
- DPSST 2-2007, f. & cert. ef. 1-12-07
- DPSST 9-2006, f. & cert. ef. 7-7-06
- DPSST 2-2006, f. & cert. ef. 1-24-06
- DPSST 8-2004, f. & cert. ef. 4-23-04
- BPSST 22-2002, f. & cert. ef. 11-18-02
Or. Admin. R. 259-009-0010 Personnel Affiliation Forms and Use of Legal Name
(1) When a fire service agency chooses to report a fire service professional’s utilization or employment by the fire service agency to DPSST, the fire service agency may submit either of the following affiliation forms:
(a) A personnel/agency form; or
(b) An application for personnel affiliation with subsequent certification form.
(2) Fire service professionals must be at least 16 years of age to be recognized by DPSST as affiliated with an Oregon fire service agency.
(3) Affiliated fire service agencies may notify DPSST by submitting a personnel/agency form when any of the following status changes occur:
(a) A fire service professional resigns, retires, terminates employment, or is discharged or deceased;
(b) A fire service professional is promoted to a fire chief position;
(c) A new authorized signer is assigned;
(d) A fire service professional is promoted to a training officer position;
(e) A fire service professional who was affiliated using an application for personnel affiliation with subsequent certification form is no longer required to be certified in order to be utilized or employed by the fire service agency; or
(f) A fire service professional is no longer assigned the duties of a fire chief, authorized signer or training officer.
(4) Fire service professionals are not allowed to sign their own forms as the agency head or authorized signer.
(5) DPSST requests that affiliation forms be submitted within 30 business days of a personnel action or status change.
(6) DPSST may require that a fire service agency submit updated affiliation forms prior to approving any application or accreditation agreement.
(7) DPSST requires use of the fire service professional’s legal name as the name of record for all DPSST purposes. All certifications issued to a fire service professional will display the legal name. When a fire service professional has a legal name change, the fire service agency must report the legal name change to the Department on a personnel/agency form within 30 business days of the name change.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410
- DPSST 21-2020, amend filed 09/14/2020, effective 10/01/2020
- DPSST 67-2018, amend filed 10/25/2018, effective 11/01/2018
- DPSST 15-2016, f. & cert. ef. 9-22-16
- DPSST 12-2016, f. 7-25-16, cert. ef. 7-29-16
- DPSST 22-2013, f. & cert. ef. 10-3-13
- DPSST 8-2004, f. & cert. ef. 4-23-04
- BPSST 22-2002, f. & cert. ef. 11-18-02
Or. Admin. R. 259-009-0015 Background Investigation
(1) A background investigation must be conducted by a fire service agency on each individual being considered for employment or utilization as a fire service professional to determine if applicant is of good character.
(2) The background investigation must include, but is not limited to, investigation into the following:
(a) Criminal history and arrests;
(b) Department of Motor Vehicles (DMV) records;
(c) Drug and alcohol use;
(d) Education verification;
(e) Employment history;
(f) Military history verification;
(g) Personal and professional references. Personal and professional references may include, but are not limited to, friends, associates, family members, and neighbors;
(h) Personal Interview. The personal interview may occur before or after the investigation and may be used to clarify discrepancies in the investigation;
(i) Records checks, which may include, but are not limited to:
(A) Police records, district attorney, court and Oregon Judicial Information Network (OJIN) records;
(B) Open sources or social media, as permitted by law;
(C) Financial information, as permitted by law; and
(D) Department of Public Safety Standards and Training Professional Standards records.
(j) Residential history; and
(k) Work eligibility.
(3) Each individual being considered for employment or utilization as a fire service professional must provide a personal history statement. The statement must include, but is not limited to:
(a) Verification of the background information referred to in section (2);
(b) A complete list of all fire service agencies an individual has applied with; and
(c) A signed release allowing background investigation information to be shared with other public or private safety agencies in which the applicant may become affiliated with.
(4) Results of the background investigation on all fire service professionals must be retained by the fire service agency in accordance with the Secretary of State’s Record Retention Schedule and must be available for review at any reasonable time by the Department.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410
- DPSST 5-2019, amend filed 04/25/2019, effective 05/01/2019
- DPSST 7-2018, minor correction filed 02/12/2018, effective 02/12/2018
- DPSST 12-2015, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-15
- DPSST 4-2015(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 1-15-15 thru 7-13-15
- DPSST 31-2014, f. & cert. ef. 12-29-14
Or. Admin. R. 259-009-0020 Waiver for Equivalent Training or Experience — Reciprocity
(1) The Board or its designee may waive the completion of any course required by OAR 259-009-0062 upon presentation of documentary evidence by a fire service agency that the fire service professional has satisfactorily completed equivalent training or experience.
(2) In order to be considered for equivalency, training received in a state with laws governing or regulating training of fire service professionals must have been approved or certified by the employing agency in the state where the training was received.
(3) The Department may elect to prescribe, as a condition of certification, successful completion of specified courses or remedial training.
(4) The Department may enter into standing reciprocity compacts or agreements with States, that by law, regulate and supervise the quality of fire service training and require a minimum number of hours of classroom training equivalent to the standards established by the Board.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.420 & ORS 181A.410
- DPSST 44-2018, minor correction filed 03/22/2018, effective 03/22/2018
- DPSST 8-2018, minor correction filed 02/12/2018, effective 02/12/2018
- DPSST 22-2013, f. & cert. ef. 10-3-13
- BPSST 22-2002, f. & cert. ef. 11-18-02
Or. Admin. R. 259-009-0025 College Education Credits
(1) The Department will only recognize credits awarded by an accredited, degree-granting college or a university of post-secondary education, which is recognized by the Council for Higher Education (CHEA) or by the Council on Postsecondary Accreditation (COPA)/Commission of Recognition of Postsecondary Accreditation (CORPA), as outlined in the current edition of the Higher Education Directory (HED).
(2) College credits used for certification obtained in a foreign country, which certificate, credential, or degree is claimed to be comparable to a certificate, credential, or degree granted by a licensing body in the United States or US Territories must be evaluated by a credentialing agency that is a member of the National Association of Credential Evaluation Services (NACES). The Department/Board has no responsibility for obtaining or paying for the evaluation and arranging for an official copy to be sent by the evaluating agency to the Department. The evaluation must be approved by the Department, based upon review of an official copy sent by the evaluating agency directly to the Department, before the educational credit is accepted as equivalent.
(3) Certification Credit. Persons wishing to document college education must furnish official transcripts or a certified true copy of official transcripts to the Department. Courses can only be accepted for credit towards certification if the class has been successfully passed with a “C” or better.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410
- DPSST 9-2018, minor correction filed 02/12/2018, effective 02/12/2018
- DPSST 22-2013, f. & cert. ef. 10-3-13
- BPSST 22-2002, f. & cert. ef. 11-18-02
Or. Admin. R. 259-009-0035 Certificates Are Property of Department
Certificates and awards are the property of the Department. The Department has the power to revoke or suspend any certificate or award as provided in the Act.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410, ORS 181A.570, ORS 181A.590, ORS 181A.630, ORS 181A.640 & ORS 181A.650
- DPSST 10-2018, minor correction filed 02/12/2018, effective 02/12/2018
- DPSST 22-2013, f. & cert. ef. 10-3-13
- BPSST 22-2002, f. & cert. ef. 11-18-02
Or. Admin. R. 259-009-0059 Minimum Standards for Certification as a Fire Service Professional
(1) To be eligible for a DPSST fire certification, fire service professionals must:
(a) Be utilized or employed by an Oregon fire service agency;
(b) Be at least 18 years of age;
(c) Have been fingerprinted for the purpose of DPSST-issued fire service professional certifications;
(d) Not have a criminal history or other background that would preclude the person from holding DPSST-issued fire service professional certifications pursuant to OAR 259-009-0115 through OAR 259-009-0130;
(e) Successfully complete the training requirements adopted for each level of certification applied for; and
(f) Submit an application for certification through a Department-approved submission process.
(2) Training used to meet the requirements for a DPSST fire service professional certification must have been completed after the fire service professional has reached the age of 16.
(3) Fingerprints.
(a) The Department requires fingerprinting at the time of application for certification for any individual employed or utilized by a fire service agency if the applicant has not previously been fingerprinted for the purpose of DPSST-issued fire service professional certifications.
(b) A fire service agency may submit fingerprints with an application for personnel affiliation with subsequent certification at the time of utilization or employment if the fire service agency requires the fire service professional to obtain DPSST fire service professional certifications as a condition of their utilization or employment by the fire service agency.
(c) Fingerprints must be submitted to the Department on a standard applicant fingerprint card or through a Department-approved vendor of electronic fingerprint capture services, with the appropriate processing fee.
(4) When a fire service professional submits an application for certification or a fire service agency submits an application for personnel affiliation with subsequent certification, the Department will verify that the applicant meets the minimum standards for training and certification as defined in these rules.
(5) Denials of an application for certification or an application for personnel affiliation with subsequent certification will be processed in accordance with OAR 259-009-0120 through OAR 259-009-0130 and the applicable provisions of the Attorney General’s Model Rules of Procedure adopted under OAR 259-005-0015.
(6) Notification of Conviction. A certified fire service professional who is convicted of a crime must notify the Department within 10 calendar days of the conviction. Notification must be in writing and include the specific charges of the conviction, the county and state where the conviction occurred, the investigating agency and the date of the conviction.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.355 & ORS 181A.410
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.355 & ORS 181A.410
- DPSST 6-2022, amend filed 04/28/2022, effective 05/01/2022
- DPSST 29-2020, amend filed 10/22/2020, effective 11/01/2020
- DPSST 67-2018, amend filed 10/25/2018, effective 11/01/2018
- DPSST 15-2016, f. & cert. ef. 9-22-16
- DPSST 21-2015, f. 12-22-15, cert. ef. 1-1-16
- DPSST 13-2015, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-15
- DPSST 37-2014, f. & cert. ef. 12-31-14
- DPSST 22-2013, f. & cert. ef. 10-3-13
- DPSST 7-2009, f. & cert. ef. 7-13-09
- DPSST 5-2006, f. & cert. ef. 5-3-06
- DPSST 1-2006(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 1-23-06 thru 6-1-06
Or. Admin. R. 259-009-0062 Fire Service Professional Certification
(1) A fire service professional affiliated with an Oregon fire service agency may be certified by:
(a) Satisfactorily completing the requirements specified in section (2) of this rule;
(b) Through participation in a fire service agency training program accredited by the Department;
(c) Through a course certified by the Department; or
(d) By evaluation of experience as specified in OAR 259-009-0063.
(e) The Department may certify a fire service professional who has satisfactorily completed the requirements for certification as prescribed in section (2) of this rule, including the Task Performance Evaluations (TPE) if applicable.
(2) The following standards for fire service professionals are adopted by reference:
(a) The provisions of the NFPA Standard 1010, 2024 Edition, entitled "Standard on Professional Qualifications for Firefighters," for Chapters 1 to 8 and Chapters 10 to 17 are adopted.
(A) For certification as NFPA Support Person the candidate must:
(i) Meet the job performance requirements defined in Chapter 5;
(ii) Meet the minimum requirements for Emergency Medical Services defined in Chapter 10 for the level of service as determined by the AHJ;
(iii) Successfully complete a DPSST-approved task performance evaluation or a DPSST-approved task book for NFPA Support Person. The evaluation or task book must be approved by the Agency Head or Training Officer; and
(iv) Have a minimum of three months of experience as determined by the AHJ.
(B) For certification as NFPA Firefighter I the candidate must:
(i) Meet the job performance requirements defined in Chapter 6;
(ii) Meet the minimum requirements for Emergency Medical Services defined in Chapter 10 for the level of service as determined by the AHJ;
(iii) Successfully complete a DPSST-approved task performance evaluation or a DPSST-approved task book for NFPA Firefighter I. The evaluation or task book must be approved by the Agency Head or Training Officer; and
(iv) Have a minimum of six months of experience as determined by the AHJ.
(C) For certification as NFPA Firefighter II the candidate must:
(i) Be certified as NFPA Firefighter I;
(ii) Meet the job performance requirements defined in Chapter 7;
(iii) Meet the minimum requirements for Emergency Medical Services defined in Chapter 10 for the level of service as determined by the AHJ;
(iv) Successfully complete a DPSST-approved task performance evaluation or a DPSST-approved task book for NFPA Firefighter II. The evaluation or task book must be approved by the Agency Head or Training Officer; and
(v) Have a minimum of one year of experience as determined by the AHJ.
(D) For certification as NFPA Airport Firefighter the candidate must:
(i) Be certified as NFPA Firefighter II;
(ii) Meet the job performance requirements defined in Chapter 8; and
(iii) Successfully complete a DPSST-approved task book for NFPA Airport Firefighter. The task book must be approved by the Agency Head or Training Officer.
(E) For certification as NFPA Apparatus - Driver/Operator the candidate must:
(i) Meet the job performance requirements defined in Chapter 11; and
(ii) Successfully complete a DPSST-approved task performance evaluation or a DPSST-approved task book for NFPA Apparatus - Driver/Operator. The evaluation or task book must be approved by the Agency Head or Training Officer.
(F) For certification as NFPA Apparatus - Pumper the candidate must:
(i) Be certified as NFPA Apparatus - Driver/Operator;
(ii) Meet the job performance requirements defined in Chapter 12; and
(iii) Successfully complete a DPSST-approved task performance evaluation or a DPSST-approved task book for NFPA Apparatus - Pumper. The evaluation or task book must be approved by the Agency Head or Training Officer.
(G) For certification as NFPA Apparatus - Aerial Device the candidate must:
(i) Be certified as NFPA Firefighter I and NFPA Apparatus - Driver/Operator;
(ii) Meet the job performance requirements defined in Chapter 13; and
(iii) Successfully complete a DPSST-approved task performance evaluation or a DPSST-approved task book for NFPA Apparatus - Aerial Device. The evaluation or task book must be approved by the Agency Head or Training Officer.
(H) For certification as NFPA Apparatus - Tiller the candidate must:
(i) Be certified as NFPA Firefighter I, NFPA Apparatus - Driver/Operator and NFPA Apparatus - Aerial Device;
(ii) Meet the job performance requirements defined in Chapter 14; and
(iii) Successfully complete a DPSST-approved task performance evaluation or a DPSST-approved task book for NFPA Apparatus - Tiller. The evaluation or task book must be approved by the Agency Head or Training Officer.
(I) For certification as NFPA Apparatus - Wildland Fire Suppression the candidate must:
(i) Be certified as NFPA Apparatus - Driver/Operator;
(ii) Meet the job performance requirements defined in Chapter 15; and
(iii) Successfully complete a DPSST-approved task performance evaluation or a DPSST-approved task book for NFPA Apparatus - Wildland Fire Suppression. The evaluation or task book must be approved by the Agency Head or Training Officer.
(J) For certification as NFPA Apparatus - Aircraft Rescue and Firefighting the candidate must:
(i) Be certified as NFPA Firefighter II, NFPA Airport Firefighter, and NFPA Apparatus - Driver/Operator;
(ii) Meet the job performance requirements defined in Chapter 16; and
(iii) Successfully complete a DPSST-approved task performance evaluation or a DPSST-approved task book for NFPA Apparatus - Aircraft Rescue and Firefighting. The evaluation or task book must be approved by the Agency Head or Training Officer.
(K) For certification as NFPA Apparatus - Mobile Water Supply the candidate must:
(i) Be certified as NFPA Apparatus - Driver/Operator;
(ii) Meet the job performance requirements defined in Chapter 17; and
(iii) Successfully complete a DPSST-approved task performance evaluation or a DPSST-approved task book for NFPA Apparatus - Mobile Water Supply. The evaluation or task book must be approved by the Agency Head or Training Officer.
(b) The provisions of NFPA Standard 1005, 2019 Edition, entitled “Standard for Professional Qualifications for Marine Fire Fighting for Land Based Fire Fighters,” are adopted.
(A) For certification as NFPA Marine Land-Based Fire Fighter, the candidate must:
(i) Be certified as NFPA Fire Fighter II, or be both an Advanced Exterior Facility Fire Brigade Member and an Interior Structural Facility Fire Brigade Member as defined by Chapters 5 and 6 of NFPA 1081;
(ii) Meet the job performance requirements defined in Sections 4.1 through 4.5 of the NFPA 1005 Standard; and
(iii) Complete a Department-approved task book for Marine Land-Based Fire Fighter. The task book must be approved by the Agency Head or Training Officer.
(B) Historical Recognition and Transition from the 2007 Edition to the 2019 Edition. Prior to adoption of the 2019 Edition of NFPA Standard 1005, this standard was administered as two separate certifications titled NFPA Marine Fire Fighting for Land-Based Fire Fighter I and NFPA Marine Fire Fighting for Land-Based Fire Fighter II.
(i) Any person who holds active Department-issued NFPA Marine Fire Fighting for Land-Based Fire Fighter I and II certifications will be recognized as equivalent to holding the NFPA Marine Land-Based Fire Fighter certification.
(ii) Any person who holds active Department-issued NFPA Marine Fire Fighting for Land-Based Fire Fighter I and II certifications may keep the certifications active by completing the certification maintenance requirements.
(iii) Effective January 1, 2023, no new certifications will be issued for NFPA Marine Fire Fighting for Land-Based Fire Fighter I and NFPA Marine Fire Fighting for Land-Based Fire Fighter II. After January 1, 2023, DPSST will permanently lapse any Level I certifications without a Level II certification.
(c) The provisions of the NFPA Standard 1031, 2014 Edition, entitled "Professional Qualifications for Fire Inspector and Plan Examiner" are adopted subject to the following definitions and requirements:
(A) All applicants for certification as an NFPA Fire Inspector I must:
(i) Successfully complete a Department-approved task book;
(ii) Furnish proof that they have passed an exam demonstrating proficiency in the model fire code adopted by the State of Oregon or an equivalent; and
(iii) Furnish proof that they have successfully completed all required course work or have provided equivalent training documents.
(B) All applicants for certification as an NFPA Fire Inspector II must:
(i) Hold a certification as a NFPA Fire Inspector I;
(ii) Successfully complete a Department-approved task book; and
(iii) Furnish proof that they have successfully completed all required course work or have provided equivalent training documents.
(C) All applicants for certification as an NFPA Fire Inspector III must:
(i) Hold a certification as a NFPA Fire Inspector II; and
(ii) Successfully complete a Department-approved task book.
(d) The provisions of the NFPA Standard 1033, 2022 Edition, entitled "Standard for Professional Qualifications for Fire Investigator," are adopted. Applicants for certification as NFPA Fire Investigator may obtain certification through one of the following options:
(A) Complete training to meet the job performance requirements defined in chapter 4 of the NFPA Standard 1033, complete a Department-approved task book for Fire Investigator, and achieve a passing score of 75% or better on the DPSST Fire Investigator Examination.
(B) Complete the Oregon State Fire Marshal’s Fire Origin and Cause Investigator course and complete a Department-approved task book for Fire Investigator. This option does not require the completion of the DPSST Fire Investigator Examination.
(C) Hold current certification as International Association of Arson Investigators (IAAI) Fire Investigation Technician (FIT) and complete a Department-approved task book for Fire Investigator. This option does not require the completion of the DPSST Fire Investigator Examination.
(D) Hold current certification as International Association of Arson Investigators (IAAI) Certified Fire Investigator (CFI) or National Association of Fire Investigators (NAFI) Certified Fire and Explosion Investigator (CFEI). This option does not require the completion of a task book or the DPSST Fire Investigator Examination.
(e) The provisions of the 2015 Edition of NFPA Standard 1035 entitled “Fire and Life Safety Educator, Public Information Officer, Youth Firesetter Intervention Specialist and Youth Firesetter Program Manager Professional Qualifications” are adopted.
(A) All applicants for certification as an NFPA Fire & Life Safety Educator I must:
(i) Successfully complete a Department–approved task book; and
(ii) Furnish proof that they have successfully completed all required course work or have provided equivalent training documentation.
(B) All applicants for certification as an NFPA Fire & Life Safety Educator II must:
(i) Hold a certification as an NFPA Fire & Life Safety Educator I;
(ii) Successfully complete a Department–approved task book; and
(iii) Furnish proof that they have successfully completed all required course work or have provided equivalent training documentation.
(C) All applicants for certification as an NFPA Fire & Life Safety Educator III must:
(i) Hold a certification as an NFPA Fire & Life Safety Educator II;
(ii) Successfully complete a Department–approved task book; and
(iii) Furnish proof that they have successfully completed all required course work or have provided equivalent training documentation.
(D) All applicants for certification as an NFPA Public Information Officer must:
(i) Successfully complete a Department–approved task book; and
(ii) Furnish proof that they have successfully completed all required course work or have provided equivalent training documentation.
(E) All applicants for certification as an NFPA Youth Firesetter Intervention Specialist must:
(i) Successfully complete a Department–approved task book; and
(ii) Furnish proof that they have successfully completed all required course work or have provided equivalent training documentation.
(F) All applicants for certification as an NFPA Youth Firesetter Intervention Program Manager must:
(i) Hold a certification as a Youth Firesetter Intervention Specialist;
(ii) Successfully complete a Department–approved task book; and
(iii) Furnish proof that they have successfully completed all required course work or have provided equivalent training documentation.
(G) Task books must be monitored by a Field Training Officer approved by the Department. The Field Training Officer must be certified at or above the level being monitored.
(f) The provisions of the NFPA Standard 1041, 2019 Edition, entitled "Standard for Fire and Emergency Services Instructor Professional Qualifications," are adopted.
(A) For certification as NFPA Fire and Emergency Services Instructor I the candidate must:
(i) Meet the job performance requirements defined in Sections 4.2 through 4.5 of the NFPA 1041 Standard; and
(ii) Complete a Department-approved task book for Fire and Emergency Services Instructor I. The task book must be approved by the Agency Head or Training Officer.
(B) For certification as NFPA Fire and Emergency Services Instructor II the candidate must:
(i) Be certified as NFPA Fire and Emergency Services Instructor I;
(ii) Meet the job performance requirements defined in Sections 5.2 through 5.5 of the NFPA 1041 Standard; and
(iii) Complete a Department-approved task book for Fire and Emergency Services Instructor II. The task book must be approved by the Agency Head or Training Officer.
(C) For certification as NFPA Fire and Emergency Services Instructor III the candidate must:
(i) Be certified as NFPA Fire and Emergency Services Instructor II;
(ii) Meet the job performance requirements defined in Sections 6.2 through 6.5 of the NFPA 1041 Standard; and
(iii) Complete a Department-approved task book for Fire and Emergency Services Instructor III. The task book must be approved by the Agency Head or Training Officer.
(D) For certification as NFPA Live Fire Instructor the candidate must:
(i) Be certified as NFPA Fire and Emergency Services Instructor I;
(ii) Be certified as NFPA Firefighter II or be an Interior Structural Fire Brigade Member as defined by NFPA 1081;
(iii) Meet the job performance requirements defined in Sections 7.2 through 7.3 of the NFPA 1041 Standard; and
(iv) Complete a Department-approved task book for Live Fire Instructor. The task book must be approved by the Agency Head or Training Officer.
(E) For certification as NFPA Live Fire Instructor in Charge the candidate must:
(i) Be certified as NFPA Fire and Emergency Services Instructor II;
(ii) Be certified as NFPA Live Fire Instructor;
(iii) Meet the job performance requirements defined in Sections 8.2 through 8.4 of the NFPA 1041 Standard; and
(iv) Complete a Department-approved task book for Live Fire Instructor in Charge. The task book must be approved by the Agency Head or Training Officer.
(g) The provisions of the NFPA Standard 1021, 2020 Edition, entitled "Standards for Fire Officer Professional Qualifications," are adopted.
(A) For certification as NFPA Fire Officer I, the candidate must:
(i) Be certified as NFPA Firefighter II;
(ii) Be certified as NFPA Fire and Emergency Services Instructor I;
(iii) Meet the job performance requirements defined in Sections 4.1 through 4.7 of the NFPA 1021 Standard; and
(iv) Complete a task performance evaluation or a Department-approved task book for NFPA Fire Officer I. The evaluation or task book must be approved by the Agency Head or Training Officer.
(B) For certification as NFPA Fire Officer II, the candidate must:
(i) Be certified as NFPA Fire Officer I;
(ii) Meet the job performance requirements defined in Sections 5.1 through 5.7 of the NFPA 1021 Standard; and
(iii) Complete a task performance evaluation or a Department-approved task book for NFPA Fire Officer II. The evaluation or task book must be approved by the Agency Head or Training Officer.
(C) For certification as NFPA Fire Officer III, the candidate must:
(i) Be certified as NFPA Fire Officer II;
(ii) Meet the job performance requirements defined in Sections 6.1 through 6.8 of the NFPA 1021 Standard; and
(iii) Complete a task performance evaluation or a Department-approved task book for NFPA Fire Officer III. The evaluation or task book must be approved by the Agency Head or Training Officer.
(D) For certification as NFPA Fire Officer IV, the candidate must:
(i) Be certified as NFPA Fire Officer III;
(ii) Meet the job performance requirements defined in Sections 7.1 through 7.7 of the NFPA 1021 Standard; and
(iii) Complete a task performance evaluation or a Department-approved task book for NFPA Fire Officer IV. The evaluation or task book must be approved by the Agency Head or Training Officer.
(h) NWCG Wildland Fire Operations Certifications.
(A) The Department recognizes completion of the NWCG National Incident Management System: Wildland Qualification System Guide (PMS 310-1) as meeting the minimum requirements for the following certifications:
(i) NWCG Firefighter Type 2 (FFT2);
(ii) NWCG Firefighter Type 1(FFT1);
(iii) NWCG Engine Boss, Single Resource (ENGB);
(iv) NWCG Crew Boss, Single Resource (CRWB);
(v) NWCG Heavy Equipment Boss, Single Resource (HEQB);
(vi) NWCG Felling Boss, Single Resource (FELB);
(vii) NWCG Firing Boss, Single Resource (FIRB);
(viii) NWCG Strike Team Leader Engine (STEN);
(ix) NWCG Task Force Leader (TFLD); and
(x) NWCG Division/Group Supervisor (DIVS).
(B) The NWCG PMS 310-1 and the task books required for each certification are available online at https://www.nwcg.gov/.
(C) Training completed after January 1, 2019 to satisfy a requirement for certification as identified in the NWCG PMS 310-1 must have been instructed under the prescribed guidelines of the NWCG Field Manager Course Guide (PMS 901-1) publication.
(D) All applicants for certification must complete, and submit documentation for, the required training and meet the required experience for each certification as outlined in the NWCG PMS 310-1. When determining eligibility for a Wildland Fire Operations Certification, the Department will review the NWCG standards in place at the time of application for certification.
(i) Maritime Fire Service Operator Professional Qualifications. The following Maritime Fire Service Operator Certifications are Oregon-specific standards:
(A) For certification in Maritime Fire Service Basic Awareness the candidate must demonstrate aquatic stability as defined in the Maritime Fire Service Operator Standards Professional Qualifications and be trained and certified in Basic First Aid and CPR (cardiopulmonary resuscitation).
(i) All applicants for certification must complete a Department-approved task book for Maritime Fire Service Basic Awareness.
(ii) The task book must be approved by a certified Maritime Fire Service Operator of the same or a higher Maritime Fire Service Operator certification.
(B) For certification in Maritime Fire Service Deck Hand the candidate must be certified as a Maritime Fire Service Basic Awareness and possess a current Oregon Boater Education Card.
(i) All applicants for certification must complete a Department-approved task book for Maritime Fire Service Deck Hand.
(ii) The task book must be approved by a certified Maritime Fire Service Operator of the same or a higher Maritime Fire Service Operator certification.
(C) For certification in Maritime Fire Service Boat Operator the candidate must be certified as a Maritime Fire Service Deck Hand.
(i) All applicants for certification must complete a Department-approved task book for Maritime Fire Service Boat Operator.
(ii) The task book must be approved by a certified Maritime Fire Service Operator of the same or a higher Maritime Fire Service Operator certification.
(D) For certification in Maritime Fire Service Rescue Boat Operator the candidate must be certified as a Maritime Fire Service Boat Operator.
(i) All applicants for certification must complete a Department-approved task book for Maritime Fire Service Rescue Boat Operator.
(ii) The task book must be approved by a certified Maritime Fire Service Operator of the same or a higher Maritime Fire Service Operator certification.
(E) For certification in Maritime Fire Service Fire Boat Operator the candidate must be certified as a Maritime Fire Service Boat Operator.
(i) All applicants for certification must complete a Department-approved task book for Maritime Fire Service Fire Boat Operator.
(ii) The task book must be approved by a certified Maritime Fire Service Operator of the same or a higher Maritime Fire Service Operator certification.
(j) The provisions of the 2021 Edition of NFPA 1006 entitled "Standard for Technical Rescue Personnel Professional Qualifications" are adopted subject to the following modifications:
(A) For certification as NFPA Common Passenger Vehicle Rescue Operations Level, the candidate must:
(i) Meet the job performance requirements defined in chapter 8, sections 8.1 and 8.2; and
(ii) Complete a Department–approved task book for the NFPA Common Passenger Vehicle Rescue Operations Level. The task book must be approved by the Agency Head or Training Officer.
(B) For certification as NFPA Common Passenger Vehicle Rescue Technician Level, the candidate must:
(i) Be certified as NFPA Common Passenger Vehicle Rescue Operations Level;
(ii) Meet the job performance requirements defined in chapter 8, section 8.3; and
(iii) Complete a Department–approved task book for the NFPA Common Passenger Vehicle Rescue Technician Level. The task book must be approved by the Agency Head or Training Officer.
(C) For certification as NFPA Confined Space Rescue, the candidate must:
(i) Be certified as NFPA Rope Rescue Operations Level;
(ii) Meet the job performance requirements defined in chapter 7; and
(iii) Complete a Department–approved task book for the NFPA Confined Space Rescue Technician. The task book must be approved by the Agency Head or Training Officer.
(D) For certification as NFPA Dive Rescue, the candidate must:
(i) Meet the job performance requirements defined in chapter 19; and
(ii) Complete a Department–approved task book for the NFPA Dive Rescue Technician. The task book must be approved by the Agency Head or Training Officer.
(E) For certification as NFPA Heavy Vehicle Rescue, the candidate must:
(i) Be certified as NFPA Common Passenger Vehicle Rescue Technician Level;
(ii) Meet the job performance requirements defined in chapter 9; and
(iii) Complete a Department–approved task book for the NFPA Heavy Vehicle Rescue Technician. The task book must be approved by the Agency Head or Training Officer.
(F) For certification as NFPA Machinery Rescue, the candidate must:
(i) Meet the job performance requirements defined in chapter 13; and
(ii) Complete a Department–approved task book for the NFPA Machinery Rescue Technician. The task book must be approved by the Agency Head or Training Officer.
(G) For certification as NFPA Rope Rescue Operations Level, the candidate must:
(i) Meet the job performance requirements defined in chapter 5, sections 5.1 and 5.2; and
(ii) Complete a Department–approved task book for the NFPA Rope Rescue Operations Level. The task book must be approved by the Agency Head or Training Officer.
(H) For certification as NFPA Rope Rescue Technician Level, the candidate must:
(i) Be certified as NFPA Rope Rescue Operations Level;
(ii) Meet the job performance requirements defined in chapter 5, section 5.3; and
(iii) Complete a Department–approved task book for the NFPA Rope Rescue Technician Level. The task book must be approved by the Agency Head or Training Officer.
(I) For certification as NFPA Structural Collapse Rescue, the candidate must:
(i) Meet the job performance requirements defined in chapter 6; and
(ii) Complete a Department–approved task book for the NFPA Structural Collapse Rescue Technician. The task book must be approved by the Agency Head or Training Officer.
(J) For certification as NFPA Surf Rescue, the candidate must:
(i) Meet the job performance requirements defined in chapter 21; and
(ii) Complete a Department–approved task book for the NFPA Surf Rescue Technician. The task book must be approved by the Agency Head or Training Officer.
(K) For certification as NFPA Surface Water Rescue, the candidate must:
(i) Meet the job performance requirements defined in chapter 17; and
(ii) Complete a Department–approved task book for the NFPA Surface Water Rescue Technician. The task book must be approved by the Agency Head or Training Officer.
(L) For certification as NFPA Swiftwater Rescue, the candidate must:
(i) Be certified as NFPA Surface Water Rescue;
(ii) Meet the job performance requirements defined in chapter 18; and
(iii) Complete a Department–approved task book for the NFPA Swiftwater Rescue Technician. The task book must be approved by the Agency Head or Training Officer.
(M) For certification as NFPA Tower Rescue, the candidate must:
(i) Meet the job performance requirements defined in chapter 4; and
(ii) Complete a Department–approved task book for the NFPA Tower Rescue Technician. The task book must be approved by the Agency Head or Training Officer.
(N) For certification as NFPA Trench Rescue, the candidate must:
(i) Meet the job performance requirements defined in chapter 12; and
(ii) Complete a Department–approved task book for the NFPA Trench Rescue Technician. The task book must be approved by the Agency Head or Training Officer.
(O) For certification as NFPA Watercraft Rescue, the candidate must:
(i) Meet the job performance requirements defined in chapter 22; and
(ii) Complete a Department–approved task book for the NFPA Watercraft Rescue Technician. The task book must be approved by the Agency Head or Training Officer.
(P) Historical Recognition for NFPA Vehicle Rescue. Any person who holds a DPSST-issued NFPA Vehicle Rescue certification may keep the certification active by completing the certification maintenance requirements. Any person who holds an active DPSST-issued NFPA Vehicle Rescue certification will be recognized as NFPA Common Passenger Vehicle Rescue Operations Level, NFPA Common Passenger Vehicle Rescue Technician Level, and NFPA Heavy Vehicle Rescue.
(k) US&R Rescue Technician.
(A) This is a standard that is Oregon-specific.
(B) An individual applying for US&R Rescue Technician must be certified as NFPA Structural Collapse Rescue, NFPA Confined Space Rescue, NFPA Vehicle Rescue, NFPA Trench Rescue, NFPA Rope Rescue Operations Level, NFPA Rope Rescue Technician Level, and NFPA Machinery Rescue prior to applying for US&R Rescue Technician and must document training in I-200 Basic ICS at the time of application.
(l) US&R Medical Technician.
(A) This is a standard that is Oregon-specific.
(B) An individual applying for US&R Medical Technician must be certified as US&R Rescue Technician prior to applying for US&R Medical Technician, must document training in the FEMA Medical Specialist Course at the time of application, and must be a licensed active Oregon Health Authority Paramedic or equivalent at the time of application.
(m) US&R Rigging Technician.
(A) This is a standard that is Oregon-specific.
(B) An individual applying for US&R Rigging Technician must be certified as US&R Rescue Technician prior to applying for US&R Rigging Technician, must document training in the FEMA Rigging Specialist Course at the time of application, and must be qualified at the time of application, by showing safety and use competency, on specific pieces of heavy equipment as determined by local jurisdiction.
(n) US&R Search Technician
(A) This is a standard that is Oregon-specific.
(B) An individual applying for US&R Search Technician must be certified as US&R Rescue Technician prior to applying for US&R Search Technician and must document training in the FEMA Technical Search Specialist Course at the time of application.
(o) The provisions of the NFPA Standard 1072, 2017 Edition, entitled “Standard for Hazardous Materials/Weapons of Mass Destruction Emergency Response Personnel Professional Qualifications” are adopted subject to the following definitions and modifications:
(A) For certification in NFPA Hazardous Materials Awareness, the candidate must complete the job performance requirements defined in sections 4.2 through 4.4.
(i) All applicants for certification must complete a task performance evaluation or a Department-approved task book for the NFPA Hazardous Materials Awareness.
(ii) The evaluation or task book must be approved by the Agency Head or Training Officer before an applicant can qualify for certification.
(B) For certification in NFPA Hazardous Materials Operations, the candidate must be certified in NFPA Hazardous Materials Awareness and complete the job performance requirements defined in sections 5.2 through 5.6.
(i) All applicants for certification must complete a task performance evaluation or a Department-approved task book for the NFPA Hazardous Materials Operations.
(ii) The evaluation or task book must be approved by the Agency Head or Training Officer before an applicant can qualify for certification.
(C) For certification in NFPA Hazardous Materials Operations Mission-Specific, the candidate must be certified in NFPA Hazardous Materials Awareness and NFPA Hazardous Materials Operations, and complete the job performance requirements defined in section 6.1.5.
(i) All applicants for certification must complete a task performance evaluation or a Department-approved task book for the NFPA Hazardous Materials Operations Mission-Specific.
(ii) The evaluation or task book must be approved by the Agency Head or Training Officer before an applicant can qualify for certification.
(D) For certification in NFPA Hazardous Materials Technician, the candidate must be certified in NFPA Hazardous Materials Awareness and NFPA Hazardous Materials Operations, and complete the job performance requirements defined in sections 7.2 through 7.6.
(i) All applicants for certification must complete a task performance evaluation or a Department-approved task book for the NFPA Hazardous Materials Technician.
(ii) The evaluation or task book must be approved by the Agency Head or Training Officer before an applicant can qualify for certification.
(E) For certification in NFPA Hazardous Incident Commander, the candidate must be certified in NFPA Hazardous Materials Awareness and NFPA Hazardous Materials Operations, and complete the job performance requirements defined in sections 8.2 through 8.6.
(i) All applicants for certification must complete a task performance evaluation or a Department-approved task book for the NFPA Hazardous Incident Commander.
(ii) The evaluation or task book must be approved by the Agency Head or Training Officer before an applicant can qualify for certification.
(F) Historical Recognition of NFPA 472 Operations Level Responder Certification. Effective February 1, 2018, no new certifications will be issued for NFPA 472 Operations Level Responder. Any person who holds a Department-issued NFPA Operations Level Responder certification may keep the certification active by completing the certification maintenance requirements. Any person who holds an active Department-issued NFPA Operations Level Responder certification will be recognized as equivalent to holding NFPA 1072 certifications in Hazardous Materials Awareness, Hazardous Materials Operations and Hazardous Materials Operations Mission-Specific.
(3) Task performance evaluations, where prescribed, will be required prior to certification. Such examinations will be conducted in the following manner:
(a) Task performance competency will be evaluated by three people nominated by the employing fire service agency's Chief Officer for approval by the Department or its designated representative.
(b) The employing fire service agency's equipment and operational procedures must be used in accomplishing the task performance to be tested.
(c) Specific minimum testing procedures, as provided by the Department, will be used for administration of the evaluation.
(d) The training officer for an accredited fire service agency training program must notify the Department or its designated representative prior to performing a task performance evaluation.
(e) At the request of the fire chief, a representative of the Department will be designated to monitor the task performance evaluation for fire service professionals from a fire service agency whose training program is not accredited.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410
- DPSST 4-2026, amend filed 04/23/2026, effective 05/01/2026
- DPSST 10-2025, amend filed 10/23/2025, effective 11/01/2025
- DPSST 4-2025, amend filed 05/01/2025, effective 05/15/2025
- DPSST 9-2022, amend filed 08/01/2022, effective 08/01/2022
- DPSST 1-2022, amend filed 01/27/2022, effective 02/01/2022
- DPSST 9-2021, amend filed 04/22/2021, effective 05/01/2021
- DPSST 12-2019, amend filed 10/24/2019, effective 11/01/2019
- DPSST 6-2019, amend filed 07/25/2019, effective 08/01/2019
- DPSST 4-2019, amend filed 04/25/2019, effective 05/01/2019
- DPSST 57-2018, amend filed 07/31/2018, effective 08/01/2018
- DPSST 2-2018, amend filed 01/29/2018, effective 02/01/2018
- DPSST 12-2017, f. 6-29-17, cert. ef. 7-1-17
- DPSST 18-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-22-16
- DPSST 15-2016, f. & cert. ef. 9-22-16
- DPSST 22-2015, f. & cert. ef. 12-22-15
- DPSST 17-2015, f. & cert. ef. 10-22-15
- DPSST 36-2014, f. & cert. ef. 12-31-14
- DPSST 9-2014, f. & cert. ef. 4-3-14
- DPSST 6-2014, f. & cert. ef. 2-6-14
- DPSST 22-2013, f. & cert. ef. 10-3-13
- DPSST 16-2013, f. & cert. ef. 6-25-13
- DPSST 8-2013, f. & cert. ef. 3-26-13
- DPSST 21-2012, f. & cert. ef. 10-1-12
- DPSST 7-2012, f. & cert. ef. 3-28-12
- DPSST 3-2011, f. 3-28-11, cert. ef. 5-1-11
- DPSST 11-2010, f. & cert. ef. 11-12-10
- DPSST 5-2010, f. 6-11-10, cert. ef. 6-14-10
- Reverted to DPSST 12-2009, f. & cert. ef. 10-15-09
- DPSST 16-2009(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 12-15-09 thru 6-11-10
- DPSST 12-2009, f. & cert. ef. 10-15-09
- DPSST 7-2009, f. & cert. ef. 7-13-09
- DPSST 10-2008, f. & cert. ef. 7-15-08
- DPSST 2-2007, f. & cert. ef. 1-12-07
- DPSST 16-2006, f. & cert. ef. 11-20-06
- DPSST 14-2006, f. & cert. ef. 10-13-06
- DPSST 9-2006, f. & cert. ef. 7-7-06
- DPSST 2-2006, f. & cert. ef. 1-24-06
- DPSST 8-2004, f. & cert. ef. 4-23-04
- DPSST 3-2004(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 4-9-04 thru 10-1-04
- Reverted to DPSST 11-2003, f. & cert. ef. 7-24-03
- DPSST 13-2003(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 10-27-03 thru 3-31-04
- DPSST 11-2003, f. & cert. ef. 7-24-03
- BPSST 22-2002, f. & cert. ef. 11-18-02
Or. Admin. R. 259-009-0063 Credit for Experience
(1) A fire service professional with three years experience in a fire department may apply to be evaluated for certification based upon experience and accumulated knowledge.
(2) A fire service professional may petition for credit for prior learning. The individual must describe in writing all experience and training pertinent to the standard being challenged. The material presented will be reviewed by a panel of three fire service professionals, appointed by the Department or designated staff. The fire service professionals will determine what credit, if any, should be granted to the individual.
(3) Applicants may take a competency examination, if available. Applicants who fail examinations for any specific requirement will not be re-examined for a period of 60 days. Applicants who fail examinations for specific requirements may, after a 60 day interim period, apply to the Department to be re-examined by written or oral examination. Oral examinations will be conducted by a representative of the Department.
(4) The Department may enter into a learning contract with a fire service professional for any standards that are needed. Upon successful completion of the contract, the individual will be granted credit for the job performance requirements. The contract must be in writing and signed by the Director or designated representative and the individual seeking credit. The contract will include a course of study, an evaluation process and a completion date.
(5) The Department or its designated representative will notify the applicant of the results of the evaluation within 60 days.
(6) The Department or its designated representative may grant certification to the applicant when the evaluation indicates the applicant's experience and knowledge exceed the minimum established standards (Note: See also OAR 259-009-0020).
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410
- DPSST 11-2018, minor correction filed 02/12/2018, effective 02/12/2018
- DPSST 22-2013, f. & cert. ef. 10-3-13
- BPSST 22-2002, f. & cert. ef. 11-18-02
Or. Admin. R. 259-009-0065 Maintenance
(1) Fire service professionals are required to successfully perform the essential functions for each certification they hold in order to maintain the certification.
(2) The Fire Training Officer, or the Agency Head, is responsible for verifying completion of the maintenance requirements by submitting each fire service professional’s maintenance re-certification form to the Department by December 31st of every even year.
(3) Maintenance requirements for a certification may be demonstrated through:
(a) Service delivery, as defined in OAR 259-009-0005;
(b) Task performance, as defined in OAR 259-009-0005; or
(c) Completion of education or training hours related to the certification track, as defined by section (5) of this rule.
(4) Any certification that is not verified by the agency is subject to lapse after the certification expiration date. Certification titles may have changed since their original issuance. If a fire service professional wants to maintain a certification, they must continue to complete maintenance for their certification, regardless of the title on the original certificate, in order to prevent the certification from lapsing.
(5) If a Fire Training Officer chooses to verify maintenance requirements through training or education, the fire service professional must satisfy the minimum number of hours identified for the certification track.
(a) The minimum number of hours may be satisfied through any combination of service delivery, task performance and education or training as determined by the Fire Training Officer, unless otherwise noted.
(b) Satisfying the minimum hours for a certification track will satisfy the maintenance re-certification requirements for all of the certifications the fire service professional currently holds within the certification track.
(c) A fire service professional certified and performing duties in more than one certification track must complete the maintenance requirements for each certification track.
(6) Certification Tracks and Minimum Hour Requirements.
(a) Operations Track. The Operations certification track requires a minimum of 60 hours completed annually and includes the following certifications:
(A) Maritime Fire Service Basic Awareness;
(B) Maritime Fire Service Boat Operator;
(C) Maritime Fire Service Deck Hand;
(D) Maritime Fire Service Fire Boat Operator;
(E) Maritime Fire Service Rescue Boat Operator;
(F) NFPA Airport Firefighter;
(G) NFPA Apparatus - Aerial Device;
(H) NFPA Apparatus - Aircraft Rescue and Firefighting;
(I) NFPA Apparatus - Driver/Operator;
(J) NFPA Apparatus - Mobile Water Supply;
(K) NFPA Apparatus - Pumper;
(L) NFPA Apparatus - Tiller;
(M) NFPA Apparatus - Wildland Fire Suppression;
(N) NFPA Common Passenger Vehicle Rescue Operations Level;
(O) NFPA Common Passenger Vehicle Rescue Technician Level;
(P) NFPA Confined Space Rescue;
(Q) NFPA Dive Rescue;
(R) NFPA Firefighter I;
(S) NFPA Firefighter II;
(T) NFPA Fire Officer I;
(U) NFPA Fire Officer II;
(V) NFPA Hazardous Materials Awareness;
(W) NFPA Hazardous Materials Incident Commander;
(X) NFPA Hazardous Materials Operations Mission-Specific;
(Y) NFPA Hazardous Materials Operations;
(Z) NFPA Hazardous Materials Technician;
(AA) NFPA Heavy Vehicle Rescue;
(BB) NFPA Machinery Rescue;
(CC) NFPA Marine Land-Based Fire Fighter;
(DD) NFPA Rope Rescue Operations Level;
(EE) NFPA Rope Rescue Technician Level;
(FF) NFPA Structural Collapse Rescue;
(GG) NFPA Support Person;
(HH) NFPA Surf Rescue;
(II) NFPA Surface Water Rescue;
(JJ) NFPA Swiftwater Rescue;
(KK) NFPA Tower Rescue;
(LL) NFPA Trench Rescue;
(MM) NFPA Watercraft Rescue;
(NN) NWCG Crew Boss, Single Resource (CRWB);
(OO) NWCG Division/Group Supervisor (DIVS);
(PP) NWCG Engine Boss, Single Resource (ENGB);
(QQ) NWCG Felling Boss, Single Resource (FELB);
(RR) NWCG Firefighter Type 1 (FFT1);
(SS) NWCG Firefighter Type 2 (FFT2);
(TT) NWCG Firing Boss, Single Resource (FIRB);
(UU) NWCG Heavy Equipment Boss, Single Resource (HEQB);
(VV) NWCG Strike Team Leader Engine (STEN);
(WW) NWCG Task Force Leader (TFLD);
(XX) US&R Medical Technician;
(YY) US&R Rescue Technician;
(ZZ) US&R Rigging Technician; and
(AAA) US&R Search Technician.
(b) Instructor Track. The Instructor certification track requires a minimum of four hours completed annually and includes the following certifications:
(A) NFPA Fire and Emergency Services Instructor I;
(B) NFPA Fire and Emergency Services Instructor II;
(C) NFPA Fire and Emergency Services Instructor III;
(D) NFPA Live Fire Instructor; and
(E) NFPA Live Fire Instructor in Charge.
(c) Prevention/Public Education/Administration Track. The Prevention/Public Education/Administration certification track requires a minimum of 12 hours completed annually and includes the following certifications:
(A) NFPA Fire and Life Safety Educator I;
(B) NFPA Fire and Life Safety Educator II;
(C) NFPA Fire and Life Safety Educator III;
(D) NFPA Fire Inspector I;
(E) NFPA Fire Inspector II;
(F) NFPA Fire Inspector III;
(G) NFPA Fire Investigator (through December 31, 2022);
(H) NFPA Fire Officer III;
(I) NFPA Fire Officer IV;
(J) NFPA Public Information Officer;
(K) NFPA Youth Firesetter Intervention Specialist; and
(L) NFPA Youth Firesetter Program Manager.
(d) Fire Investigator Track. The Fire Investigator certification track requires a minimum of 40 hours of continuing education training every five years.
(A) The Fire Investigator certification track is established effective January 1, 2023, and includes the NFPA Fire Investigator certification.
(B) The continuing education must satisfy the requisite knowledge requirements defined in section 4.1.7 of the NFPA Standard 1033 (2022 Edition). This track must be completed through continuing education training. This track is not eligible for combination with service delivery or task performance.
(7) Failure to notify the Department that the fire service professional's maintenance requirements have been completed may result in lapse of the fire service professional’s certifications.
(8) The Department may grant a time extension for completion of the maintenance requirements upon receipt of a written request from the Agency Head or the Training Officer. Fire service professional certifications will not lapse during an approved time extension.
(9) The fire service agency may request re-certification of a fire service professional’s lapsed certifications by verifying completion of the maintenance requirements and submitting a certification reinstatement form.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410
- DPSST 4-2026, amend filed 04/23/2026, effective 05/01/2026
- DPSST 10-2025, amend filed 10/23/2025, effective 11/01/2025
- DPSST 4-2025, amend filed 05/01/2025, effective 05/15/2025
- DPSST 9-2022, amend filed 08/01/2022, effective 08/01/2022
- DPSST 1-2022, amend filed 01/27/2022, effective 02/01/2022
- DPSST 9-2021, amend filed 04/22/2021, effective 05/01/2021
- DPSST 27-2020, amend filed 10/22/2020, effective 11/01/2020
- DPSST 7-2020, temporary amend filed 03/31/2020, effective 04/01/2020 through 09/27/2020
- DPSST 6-2019, amend filed 07/25/2019, effective 08/01/2019
- DPSST 55-2018, amend filed 07/31/2018, effective 08/01/2018
- DPSST 12-2018, minor correction filed 02/12/2018, effective 02/12/2018
- DPSST 22-2013, f. & cert. ef. 10-3-13
- DPSST 2-2006, f. & cert. ef. 1-24-06
- DPSST 8-2004, f. & cert. ef. 4-23-04
Or. Admin. R. 259-009-0067 Lapsed Certification
(1) All levels of certification of any fire service professional will be considered lapsed if the individual has not been utilized as such for more than 12 consecutive months.
(2) A fire service professional whose certification has lapsed must apply for re-certification upon re-utilization as a fire service professional.
(a) The fire service professional must complete a Department task book, task performance evaluation or approved training.
(b) Upon successful completion of the appropriate testing or evaluation, as verified by the signature and recommendation of the agency head or designee, the fire service professional whose certification has lapsed, may request reinstatement of certification. The request must be made to the Department by submitting the appropriate form.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410 & ORS 181A.500
- DPSST 13-2018, minor correction filed 02/12/2018, effective 02/12/2018
- DPSST 22-2013, f. & cert. ef. 10-3-13
- DPSST 6-2007, f. & cert. ef. 3-14-07
- DPSST 8-2004, f. & cert. ef. 4-23-04
- BPSST 22-2002, f. & cert. ef. 11-18-02
Or. Admin. R. 259-009-0080 Certification of Instructors
(1) The Department will certify instructors deemed qualified to teach in any of the certified training courses.
(2) Instructors will be certified on the basis of minimum qualifications as established by the Department in areas of education, training, and experience. It is the continuing responsibility of the Department to see that instructors are qualified to teach.
(3) Notwithstanding section (4), instructors for Department-certified courses must:
(a) Be certified or trained in the subject area they are teaching; and
(b) Be certified as an NFPA Fire Instructor I or be a Content Expert.
(4) The Department recognizes the instructor criteria outlined in the NWCG Field Manager Course Guide (PMS 901-1) as the minimum requirements for instructor certification to instruct any Department-certified NWCG courses. When determining eligibility for instructor certification, the Department will review the NWCG standards in place at the time of application for instructor certification.
(5) Applications for instructor certification must be submitted to the Department on an Instructor Certification Application (DPSST Form F-9F).
(6) Applications for Content Expert instructor certification must be submitted to the Department on an Instructor Certification Application (DPSST Form F-9F) and must be accompanied by a detailed resume of individual qualifications.
(7) If an application for Instructor or Content Expert instructor certification is incomplete, the application will be rejected and the applicant notified in writing of the reasons for the rejection.
(8) Department-issued instructor certification is not required for teaching assignments in courses that are not certified by the Department.
(9) Review of instructor certification may be initiated upon the request of an agency head, staff, or other reliable source.
(10) Instructor or Content Expert instructor certification must be renewed upon the expiration of course certification or when there is a change to the certified course standard.
(11) Instructors delivering a certified course are responsible for ensuring the accuracy of the student rosters by indicating if students passed, failed or did not complete the course (incomplete). Rosters must be submitted to the Department on a Department-approved form within 30 calendar days of course completion; otherwise the Department may decertify the course.
(12) Instructors must provide students with a Department-approved Notice of Course Completion (NOCC) form upon successful completion of the certified course.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410 & ORS 181A.590
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410 & ORS 181A.590
- DPSST 57-2018, amend filed 07/31/2018, effective 08/01/2018
- DPSST 31-2018, minor correction filed 02/23/2018, effective 02/23/2018
- DPSST 8-2013, f. & cert. ef. 3-26-13
- DPSST 4-2005, f. & cert. ef. 5-24-05
- BPSST 22-2002, f. & cert. ef. 11-18-02
Or. Admin. R. 259-009-0085 Certification of Courses and Classes
(1) The Department will certify courses, and classes deemed adequate to effectively teach one or more approved fire subject(s) to fire service personnel.
(2) Certification will be based on the evaluation of course curriculum or subjects for instruction.
(3) Facilities and equipment used for certified training will be accessible to all interested and qualified individuals.
(4) The Department will certify courses at the content level. Courses certified at the content level require student demonstration of acquired knowledge, skills, or abilities. Agencies, organizations, or individuals requesting course certification at the content level must submit an application to certify a course (DPSST Form F-20), accompanied by clearly-defined NFPA standards for job performance requirements, curriculum, test questions or evaluation criteria, and evidence of instructor certification as provided in OAR 259-009-0080. Curriculum submitted to DPSST becomes the property of DPSST.
(5) The Department must notify the requesting agency, organization or individual, in writing, of the denial or the granted level of course certification. If certification is granted, the instructor must submit an Application to Instruct an Approved DPSST Course (DPSST Form F-9F) to obtain rosters and a Notice of Course Completion (NOCC).
(6) It is the responsibility of the requesting agency, organization, or individual, to:
(a) Oversee the preparation of curriculum and to ensure its compliance with the requirements of the Department;
(b) Obtain a facility and instructor(s) to be used for the course, and ensure their compliance with the requirement of the Department;
(c) Develop rules and regulations governing the operation of the facility and the conduct of the trainees;
(d) Administer the course;
(e) Maintain an accurate record of attendance; and
(f) Maintain all forms required by the Department, forwarding them within the stipulated time period.
(7) Once a course is certified, it remains certified for unlimited delivery for five years, unless there is a significant change in course content, number of hours or instructor; or unless it is decertified by the Department as provided in section (9) of this rule. The Department must be notified of significant changes.
(8) All course certification will expire on December 31st of the fifth year after the initial approval date. Agencies, organizations or individuals must request recertification to continue a course for each additional five years.
(9) The Department must decertify a course whenever that course is deemed inadequate. The course may be recertified by the Department when satisfactory proof has been presented to the Department that the deficiencies have been corrected.
(10) Fire service agencies may accredit their training programs as provided in OAR 259-009-0087.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410 & ORS 181A.590
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410 & ORS 181A.590
- DPSST 14-2018, minor correction filed 02/12/2018, effective 02/12/2018
- DPSST 22-2013, f. & cert. ef. 10-3-13
- DPSST 4-2005, f. & cert. ef. 5-24-05
- BPSST 22-2002, f. & cert. ef. 11-18-02
Or. Admin. R. 259-009-0087 Accreditation of Fire Service Agency Training Programs
(1) A fire service agency may request accreditation for a training program that is delivered by the fire service agency to meet the training requirements for a level of certification found in OAR 259-009-0062.
(a) Requests to receive or renew accreditation may be submitted to DPSST or a District Liaison Officer.
(b) DPSST or the District Liaison Officer will review the fire service agency’s training programs to determine if the training is eligible for accreditation.
(c) Accreditation reviews are conducted using the DPSST R-1 Form.
(2) DPSST may accredit, or renew the accreditation of, a fire service agency’s training programs when the fire service agency has met all of the following requirements:
(a) The fire service agency has a designated Training Officer.
(b) The fire service agency’s training schedule demonstrates delivery of the training programs that are approved under the accreditation agreement.
(c) The fire service agency has curriculum that meets the standards for certification found in OAR 259-009-0062 and has access to the equipment and qualified instructors necessary for each of the training programs that are approved under the accreditation agreement.
(d) The fire service agency has at least one triple combination pumper that conforms to the minimum standards for automotive fire apparatus as outlined in the NFPA Standard 1901, 2016 Edition, entitled "Standard for Automotive Fire Apparatus.
(e) The fire service agency has at least one currently certified NFPA Fire Instructor I.
(f) The fire service agency’s accredited training programs are instructed by a qualified instructor. A “qualified instructor” means:
(A) A person who has completed the NFPA Fire Instructor I training requirements and holds a certification for the level of training they are teaching;
(B) A person who has completed the NFPA Fire Instructor I training requirements and is a content expert, per the AHJ, in the level of training they are teaching;
(C) A person who has equivalent instructor training or experience and holds a certification for the level of training they are teaching;
(D) A person who has equivalent instructor training or experience and is a content expert, per the AHJ, in the level of training they are teaching;
(E) A person who holds a certification for the level of training they are teaching and is observed by a certified NFPA Fire Instructor I while teaching the accredited training;
(F) A person who is a content expert, per the AHJ, in the level of training they are teaching and is observed by a certified NFPA Fire Instructor I while teaching the accredited training; or
(G) For NWCG levels of certification, a person who meets the instructor qualifications defined in the NWCG Standards for Course Delivery, PMS 901-1.
(g) The fire service agency validates each fire service professional’s successful completion of an accredited training program using a DPSST-approved task book or a DPSST-approved task performance evaluation that meets the standards for certification found in OAR 259-009-0062.
(h) The fire service agency maintains training records for its fire service professionals per the retention schedule adopted by the AHJ. If the fire service agency doesn’t have a retention schedule for training records, DPSST recommends that the fire service agency maintain the training records for five years from the date that the fire service professional left the fire service agency.
(i) The fire service agency is in compliance with the maintenance re-certification requirements as defined in OAR 259-009-0065.
(3) When DPSST approves accreditation of a fire service agency’s training programs, DPSST will prepare a written accreditation agreement defining the specific requirements of accreditation, including the specific training the fire service agency is accredited to deliver.
(a) The agreement must be signed by DPSST and the fire service agency’s Agency Head and Training Officer.
(b) The signed copy must be returned to DPSST for the accreditation status to be valid.
(c) Changes to an agency accreditation agreement may require additional review before approval.
(d) A fire service agency that no longer wants to maintain an accreditation agreement may notify DPSST in writing and request the agreement be voluntarily ended.
(4) Accreditation agreements are valid for three years and may be renewed.
(a) To renew an accreditation agreement, the fire service agency must schedule an accreditation review with DPSST or the District Liaison Officer.
(b) DPSST may extend an accreditation agreement for up to six months if the fire service agency or the District Liaison Officer submits a written request for an extension that identifies why the required review cannot be completed before the current accreditation agreement ends.
(5) DPSST may terminate an accreditation agreement if the fire service agency no longer meets the standards for accreditation or the fire service agency violates the terms of the accreditation agreement.
(a) DPSST will provide the fire service agency with a written notice of the termination.
(b) The Agency Head may appeal the termination of an accreditation agreement. The appeal must be in writing and submitted to DPSST.
(c) Appeals are reviewed administratively by DPSST. DPSST may rescind the termination, uphold the termination, or continue the accreditation agreement conditionally, while the fire service agency completes steps to be in compliance with this rule and the agreement.
(d) If an accreditation agreement is terminated, the fire service agency will be able to request accreditation after meeting the accreditation requirements found in this rule.
(6) The accreditation agreement grants DPSST, or a District Liaison Officer as DPSST’s designee, access to the fire service agency’s training records for fire service professionals and instructors. DPSST or the District Liaison Officer may request access to the fire service agency’s training records to ensure that training, certification, and accreditation standards are met. Training records include records that are used to document training or other qualifications such as educational transcripts and experience.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410 & ORS 181A.590
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410 & ORS 181A.590
- DPSST 10-2024, amend filed 10/24/2024, effective 11/01/2024
- DPSST 28-2020, amend filed 10/22/2020, effective 11/01/2020
- DPSST 7-2020, temporary amend filed 03/31/2020, effective 04/01/2020 through 09/27/2020
- DPSST 14-2016, f. & cert. ef. 9-22-16
- DPSST 22-2013, f. & cert. ef. 10-3-13
- DPSST 8-2004, f. & cert. ef. 4-23-04
- BPSST 22-2002, f. & cert. ef. 11-18-02
Or. Admin. R. 259-009-0100 Miscellaneous Activities of the Board or Department
(1) The Board or Department may make or encourage studies of any aspect of fire administration, including the stimulation of research by public and private agencies which will be designed to improve the Fire Protection System.
(2) The Board or Department may cooperate and consult with counties, municipalities, agencies of this State, other governmental agencies, and with universities, colleges, community colleges, and other institutions concerning the development of fire safety training schools and programs or courses of instruction.
(3) The Board or Department may cooperate and consult with official bodies or individuals charged by law with the responsibility for fire selection and training standards in other states.
(4) The Board or Department may periodically publish or recommend that other governmental agencies publish curricula, manuals, lesson plans, brochures, newsletters, and other materials to aid departments in achieving the objectives of the Act.
(5) The Department may direct, operate, or sponsor training schools and set reasonable rules and regulations for the operation and use by trainees.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410
- DPSST 16-2018, minor correction filed 02/12/2018, effective 02/12/2018
- DPSST 22-2013, f. & cert. ef. 10-3-13
- BPSST 22-2002, f. & cert. ef. 11-18-02
Or. Admin. R. 259-009-0115 Surrendering Certifications
(1) A fire service professional may request that the Department accept the surrender of their fire service professional certifications. The request must be submitted in writing.
(2) The fire service professional will remain certified until the Department accepts the surrender.
(3) In considering whether to accept the surrender, the Department may request further information from the present or prior employer pursuant to ORS 181A.670, or conduct its own investigation, to determine if any minimum standards for certification have been violated. If the Department finds a violation of the grounds for revocation as defined in OAR 259-009-0120, the Department may proceed with initiation and review of a professional standards case pursuant to OAR 259-009-0125.
(4) If the fire service professional has been issued a Notice of Intent pursuant to OAR 259-009-0130 or is the subject of a pending complaint, Department investigation or professional standards case, the Department may accept the surrender through a stipulated order revoking certification.
(5) An individual with fire service professional certifications revoked pursuant to this rule is permanently ineligible for certification as a fire service professional.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410, ORS 181A.640 & ORS 183.341
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410, ORS 181A.640, ORS 183.341, ORS 181A.630 & ORS 181A.650
- DPSST 29-2020, adopt filed 10/22/2020, effective 11/01/2020
Or. Admin. R. 259-009-0120 Grounds for Denial or Revocation
(1) The Board recognizes the core values of integrity and professionalism as critical to upholding the public’s trust in the certification of fire service professionals, protecting the public, and ensuring that the conduct of a certified fire service professional or an applicant does not reflect adversely on the fire service as a public safety profession. The Board finds by adopting this rule that a violation of these standards is substantially related to certification as a fire service professional and a violation of the core values of integrity and professionalism.
(2) The Department must deny or revoke a fire service professional’s certifications based upon a finding that:
(a) The fire service professional has been convicted in this state of a crime listed in ORS 137.700 or in any other jurisdiction of a crime that, if committed in this state, would constitute a crime listed in 137.700;
(b) The fire service professional has a conviction in any jurisdiction for any offense involving a bias or hate crime;
(c) The fire service professional is a sex offender pursuant to ORS 163A.005 (6); or
(d) The fire service professional has been discharged for cause from employment as a fire service professional. For the purposes of this rule, “for cause” means engaging in intentional conduct while training, while on-duty or while performing the duties of a fire service professional that constitutes any of the following:
(A) Interference in a Fire Investigation: Includes the creation or use of falsified evidence, reports or records, and includes false testimony;
(B) Theft or Fraud: Includes theft of services or property, embezzlement, misuse of resources, or falsification of contracts, reports or records;
(C) Intimidation: Includes wrongfully compelling an individual to abstain from doing, or to do, any act that the individual has a legal right to do or abstain from doing;
(D) Corruption: Includes the abuse of a fire service professional’s authority for personal gain, to gain advantage for a public or private safety agency or to attempt or succeed in depriving another person or persons of their legal rights;
(E) Neglect of Duty: Includes an intentional or reckless failure to perform any mandatory duty as required by law, knowingly performing an act which the fire service professional knows to be forbidden by law to perform, or behavior that endangers the health and safety of the employee or others;
(F) Cheating: Includes actual, intended, or attempted deception or dishonest action by a fire service professional in relation to the administration or documentation of any training, testing or certification;
(G) Discrimination: Discrimination includes a course of conduct or a single egregious act that evidences discrimination based on the fire service professional’s perception of a person’s race, color, national origin, sex, religion, age, disability or any other protected class as defined by state or federal law;
(H) Harassment, including Sexual Harassment: Includes unwanted, unwelcomed and uninvited behavior that demeans, threatens or offends the victim and results in a hostile environment for the victim;
(I) Abuse, including Sexual Abuse: Includes physical or mental maltreatment that results in mental, emotional, sexual or physical injury; or
(J) Use of illegal drugs.
(3) The Department may deny or revoke a fire service professional’s certifications based upon a finding that:
(a) The fire service professional falsified any information submitted on the application for certification or on any documents submitted to the Board or Department;
(b)(A) The fire service professional has a conviction for any offense, other than the mandatory grounds defined in section (2) of this rule, for which a maximum term of imprisonment of more than one year may be imposed under the law of the jurisdiction where the conviction occurred; and
(B) The conviction occurred while certified or within the 10 years prior to application for certification; or
(c)(A) The fire service professional has a conviction for any offense, other than the mandatory grounds defined in section (2) of this rule, for which a maximum term of imprisonment of not more than one year may be imposed under the law of the jurisdiction where the conviction occurred;
(B) The conviction occurred while certified or within the 5 years prior to application for certification; and
(C) The crime or the underlying conduct includes dishonesty or deceit, a sexual offense, a drug offense, discrimination, destruction of property, a crime against a public agency, illegal use or possession of a deadly weapon, or violence, abuse or neglect against a person or animal.
(4) The certification standards defined in administrative rule in effect on the date the Department or the Board determined that the fire service professional violated the standards for certification will continue to apply until the Final Order has been issued and all appeal rights have been exhausted regardless of whether the certification standards have been subsequently amended or repealed.
(5) Any Board or Department action to deny or revoke a fire service professional’s certifications will be administered in accordance with OAR 259-009-0115 through OAR 259-009-0130 and the applicable provisions of the Attorney General’s Model Rules of Procedure adopted under OAR 259-005-0015.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410, ORS 181A.630, ORS 181A.640 & ORS 181A.650
- DPSST 5-2023, amend filed 04/27/2023, effective 05/01/2023
- DPSST 19-2021, amend filed 10/28/2021, effective 11/01/2021
- DPSST 29-2020, amend filed 10/22/2020, effective 11/01/2020
- DPSST 8-2019, amend filed 09/12/2019, effective 09/13/2019
- DPSST 61-2018, renumbered from 259-009-0070, filed 08/01/2018, effective 08/02/2018
- DPSST 60-2018, amend filed 07/31/2018, effective 08/01/2018
- DPSST 16-2017, amend filed 10/18/2017, effective 10/18/2017
- DPSST 13-2016, f. & cert. ef. 9-22-16
- DPSST 21-2015, f. 12-22-15, cert. ef. 1-1-16
- DPSST 37-2014, f. & cert. ef. 12-31-14
- DPSST 30-2014, f. & cert. ef. 10-22-14
- DPSST 21-2014(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 7-31-14 thru 1-27-15
- DPSST 20-2014, f. & cert. ef. 7-30-14
- DPSST 4-2014, f. & cert. ef. 1-28-14
- DPSST 22-2013, f. & cert. ef. 10-3-13
- DPSST 7-2013, f. & cert. ef. 3-26-13
- DPSST 19-2012, f. & cert. ef. 8-31-12
- DPSST 11-2011, f. & cert. ef. 7-1-11
- DPSST 1-2011, f. 2-24-11, cert. ef. 4-1-11
- DPSST 7-2010, f. 7-15-10, cert. ef. 8-1-10
- DPSST 7-2009, f. & cert. ef. 7-13-09
- DPSST 3-2008, f. & cert. ef. 1-15-08
- BPSST 22-2002, f. & cert. ef. 11-18-02
Or. Admin. R. 259-009-0125 Denial/Revocation - Initiation and Review of a Professional Standards Case
(1) When the Department receives information from any source that a certified fire service professional or an applicant may not meet the established standards for fire service professional certification, the Department will review the information to determine if substantial evidence exists to support denial or revocation of certifications under the statutory and administrative rule requirements for fire service professional certification.
(2) The Department will not open a case on a conviction or conduct that was previously reviewed by the Department or the Fire Policy Committee and the Board and determined not to violate the standards for fire service professional certifications or resulted in no action to deny or revoke certification using the administrative rules in effect at the time of the review.
(a) Nothing in this rule precludes the Department from opening a case upon discovery of additional mandatory or discretionary grounds for denial or revocation.
(b) Nothing in this rule precludes the Department or the Fire Policy Committee and the Board from considering previous misconduct or criminal behavior as an aggravating circumstance in a separate discretionary case review.
(3) In professional standards cases where the Department determines that the conduct being reviewed violates the certification standards established by the Board as mandatory grounds for denial or revocation as defined in OAR 259-009-0120(2), the Department will administratively process the denial or revocation.
(4) In professional standards cases based on a discharge for cause, the Department may stay any action on the fire service professional’s certifications until a final employment arbitration determination has been made. The Department will administratively close cases in which an arbitrator’s opinion finds that the underlying facts did not support the allegations of misconduct.
(5) The Department will defer review of discretionary convictions, as defined in OAR 259-009-0120(3), when all of the fire service professional’s certifications are lapsed. Upon receipt of an application for certification or a request for reinstatement, the Department will proceed with the review process.
(6) When the Department submits a discretionary professional standards case to the Fire Policy Committee, the Department will notify the fire service professional. The notification will include the deadlines for the fire service professional to provide evidence of factors that may support mitigation. A fire service professional may provide mitigation evidence by one or both of the following:
(a) Submitting documents or written statements as supporting evidence for mitigation of the conduct under review to the Department for Fire Policy Committee and Board consideration.
(b) Arranging with the Department to attend a Fire Policy Committee meeting and present a verbal statement. The verbal statement is limited to a maximum of five minutes and must be presented in person by the fire service professional or their representative.
(7) Fire Policy Committee Review of Discretionary Professional Standards Cases.
(a) In professional standards cases where the Department determines that the conduct being reviewed violates the certification standards established by the Board as discretionary grounds for denial or revocation as defined in OAR 259-009-0120(3), the Department will submit its findings to the Fire Policy Committee for disposition. The Fire Policy Committee’s disposition will be submitted as a recommendation to the Board for approval.
(b) The Fire Policy Committee will review the professional standards case to:
(A) Affirm, modify or negate the Department-identified violations;
(B) Identify aggravating and mitigating circumstances unique to the professional standards case; and
(C) Determine how the violations and aggravating or mitigating circumstances impact the fire service professional’s certification.
(c) Aggravating and mitigating circumstances are conditions, factors or actions that increase or decrease the total impact that the conviction has on certification as a fire service professional.
(A) Aggravating circumstances generally increase the severity of the impact the conviction has on certification and may, in addition to the conviction, be grounds to deny or revoke certification. Circumstances that may be considered aggravating include, but are not limited to, the degree of the conviction, prior misconduct or criminal behavior, lack of accountability, number of persons involved in the underlying conduct, number of separate incidents, passage of time from date of incident or incidents, or any other circumstance the Department or the Fire Policy Committee consider aggravating given the specific issues in the case.
(B) Mitigating circumstances do not excuse or justify the conduct, but generally decrease the severity of the impact the conviction has on certification. Circumstances that may be considered mitigating include, but are not limited to, written letters of support, truthfulness, cooperation during the incident or investigation, or any other circumstance the Department or the Fire Policy Committee consider mitigating given the specific issues in the case.
(8) Board Review of a Professional Standards Case. The Board will review the case, aggravation and mitigation, and the Fire Policy Committee’s recommendations to determine whether to approve all or part of the Fire Policy Committee’s recommendations.
(a) Upon initial consideration, the Board may either approve the recommendation in its entirety or defer a decision and return the recommendation to the Fire Policy Committee.
(b) The Board may approve the Fire Policy Committee’s recommendation by a majority vote of the members present.
(c) The Board, by a majority vote of the members present, may defer its decision and return the recommendation with instructions to the Fire Policy Committee to reconsider the recommendation. The Board may also instruct the Department to obtain further information and revise the case for a second review and recommendation by the Fire Policy Committee. The Board may return a recommendation only once.
(A) The Fire Policy Committee must reconsider its recommendation, along with the Board’s instructions and any new information the Department submits to the Fire Policy Committee.
(B) The Fire Policy Committee will submit a revised or renewed recommendation to the Board.
(d) The Board will review the revised or renewed recommendation to decide whether to approve all or part of the recommendation. The Board may approve the recommendation by a majority vote of the members present and may disapprove the recommendation by a two-thirds vote of the total voting members. A failure to achieve a two-thirds vote to disapprove a recommendation will result in the approval of the recommendation.
(A) When the Board disapproves a recommendation that proposes no action be taken to deny or revoke certification, the Board must make its own determination as to whether the fire service professional has engaged in conduct that violates the discretionary grounds for denial or revocation of certifications and consider aggravation and mitigation.
(B) The Board may identify their own findings or adopt all or any part of the Fire Policy Committee’s findings as the basis for the determination.
(C) If the Board review results in a determination to deny or revoke fire service professional certifications, the Department will issue a Notice of Intent pursuant to OAR 259-009-0130. Where the Board review results in no action to deny or revoke fire service professional certifications, the issued Notice of Intent will be withdrawn and the professional standards case will be closed.
(9) Scope of Denial and Revocation. When the Department denies or revokes fire service professional certifications pursuant to OAR 259-009-0115 through OAR 259-009-0130, the denial or revocation will encompass all fire service professional certifications subject to OAR chapter 259 division 9.
(10) Reapplication Following a Denial or Revocation for Discretionary Grounds. A fire service professional whose certifications have been denied or revoked for discretionary grounds, as defined in OAR 259-009-0120(3), may apply for certification after a minimum of one year has passed since the Board’s approval of the denial or revocation.
(a) Applications for certification require additional discretionary review if:
(A) The applicant’s criminal convictions still meet the discretionary grounds for denial or revocation, as defined in OAR 259-009-0120(3)(b) or (c); or
(B) The applicant was denied or revoked for falsification, as defined in OAR 259-009-0120(3)(a), and the application is received within 10 years of the denial or revocation.
(b) Applications requiring additional discretionary review will be submitted to the Fire Policy Committee for disposition. The Fire Policy Committee will review the case in accordance with section (7) of this rule. The Fire Policy Committee must consider the additional time that has passed since the initial denial or revocation occurred as mitigation.
(c) Applications for certification do not require additional discretionary review if the case resulted in no action to deny or revoke certification, if the date of the conviction no longer requires review per OAR 259-009-0120(3)(b) or (c), or if 10 years have passed since the initial denial or revocation for falsification.
(11) Applications for certification submitted by a fire service professional whose certifications have been denied or revoked will be denied pursuant to OAR 259-009-0130 when:
(a) The certifications were denied or revoked for mandatory grounds as defined in OAR 259-009-0120(2); or
(b) The certifications were denied or revoked for discretionary grounds as defined in OAR 259-009-0120(3) and the one-year period following Board approval of the denial or revocation has not passed.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410, ORS 181A.630, ORS 181A.640 & ORS 181A.650
- DPSST 10-2022, amend filed 08/01/2022, effective 08/01/2022
- DPSST 29-2020, amend filed 10/22/2020, effective 11/01/2020
- DPSST 62-2018, minor correction filed 08/02/2018, effective 08/02/2018
- DPSST 60-2018, adopt filed 07/31/2018, effective 08/01/2018
Or. Admin. R. 259-009-0130 Issuance of Notice of Intent, Request for Hearing and Contested Case Procedures
(1) Upon a determination to proceed with a denial or revocation, the Department will prepare and serve a Notice of Intent on the fire service professional.
(2) For discretionary professional standards cases when the Fire Policy Committee recommends denial or revocation of fire service professional certifications, the Department will serve the Notice of Intent on the fire service professional prior to the Board’s review.
(3) Response Time:
(a) A party who has been served with a Notice of Intent to Deny Certification has 60 days from the date of mailing or personal service of the Notice to file a written request for a hearing with the Department.
(b) A party who has been served with a Notice of Intent to Revoke Certification has 20 days from the date of mailing or personal service of the Notice to file a written request for a hearing with the Department.
(4) Default Orders:
(a) If the Department does not receive a timely request for a hearing, the Notice of Intent will become a Final Order denying or revoking certification pursuant to OAR 137-003-0672.
(b) For discretionary professional standards cases reviewed by the Fire Policy Committee, if the Department does not receive a timely request for a hearing the Notice of Intent will become a Final Order denying or revoking certification pursuant to OAR 137-003-0672 upon approval by the Board.
(5) Hearing Request. If the Department receives a timely request for a hearing, it will refer the matter to the Office of Administrative Hearings in accordance with OAR 137-003-0515.
(6) When a hearing is requested, Proposed Orders, Exceptions, and Final Orders will be issued pursuant to the applicable provision of the Attorney General’s Model Rules of Procedure adopted under OAR 259-005-0015.
(7) Department-proposed amendments to a Proposed Order issued by an Administrative Law Judge in a case that was originally reviewed by the Fire Policy Committee and the Board must be considered and approved by the Fire Policy Committee and the Board before a Final Order can be issued.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410, ORS 181A.630, ORS 181A.640, ORS 181A.650 & ORS 183.341
- DPSST 29-2020, amend filed 10/22/2020, effective 11/01/2020
- DPSST 60-2018, adopt filed 07/31/2018, effective 08/01/2018
Division 12 OREGON PUBLIC SAFETY ACADEMY
Or. Admin. R. 259-012-0001 Definitions
(1) “Academy” or “OPSA” means the Oregon Public Safety Academy.
(2) “Board” means the Board on Public Safety Standards and Training.
(3) “Department” or “DPSST” means the Department of Public Safety Standards and Training.
(4) “Director” means the Director of the Department of Public Safety Standards and Training.
(5) “Dismissal” means the removal of a student from a mandated training course that results in expulsion from the Academy based upon a violation of the standards of conduct defined in OAR 259-012-0010.
(6) “Employer” or “Employing Agency” means the public or private safety agency, or the law enforcement unit, that employs a public safety officer.
(7) “Mandated Training Course” means a training course delivered by the Department that must be completed to meet the statutory or administrative rule requirements contained in OAR chapter 259 division 8 for minimum standards for training or certification as a public safety officer.
(8) “OPSA Facilities” include conference rooms, classrooms, the dormitory, the cafeteria, campus grounds and all training venues available on the Academy’s property.
(9) “Student” means a public safety officer, as defined in OAR 259-008-0005, who is attending a mandated training course at the Academy.
(10) “Suspension” means the immediate removal of a student from a mandated course based upon the immediate need to preserve the integrity or safety of the classroom or training venue.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410
- DPSST 50-2018, adopt filed 06/22/2018, effective 06/22/2018
Or. Admin. R. 259-012-0005 Use of OPSA Facilities
(1) Use of the OPSA facilities is limited to meetings, trainings or events sponsored by non-profit public safety entities, public safety providers or associations representing the public safety community.
(2) The Department may charge fees for the use of the OPSA facilities, including any costs to repair or replace damaged equipment or facilities and lost or damaged keys and meal cards.
(3) The Director, or an appointed designee, may prioritize dormitory lodging requests to meet the needs of the Department for the delivery of mandated public safety training courses.
(4) The Director has the sole discretion to make any exception to any of the above.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410
- DPSST 69-2018, amend filed 12/04/2018, effective 12/15/2018
- DPSST 50-2018, amend filed 06/22/2018, effective 06/22/2018
- DPSST 4-2013, f. & cert. ef. 1-24-13
- DPSST 17-2006, f. & cert. ef. 11-20-06
- DPSST 8-2006(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 6-9-06 thru 12-1-06
- BPSST 3-1998, f. & cert. ef. 6-30-98
- BPSST 1-1998, f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98
- BPSST 2-1998(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98 thru 6-30-98
- Reverted to PS 2-1995, f. & cert. ef. 9-27-95
- PS 10-1997(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-5-97
- PS 2-1995, f. & cert. ef. 9-27-95
- PS 1-1990, f. & cert. ef. 2-7-90
- PS 1-1985, f. & ef. 4-24-85
- PS 1-1983, f. & ef. 12-15-83
Or. Admin. R. 259-012-0010 Standards of Student Conduct
(1) Students attending mandated training courses at the Academy must adhere to the following standards of conduct:
(a) Students must comply with the DPSST Student Rules and Regulations and any other rule or policy that the Department provides to students while at the Academy; and
(b) Students are prohibited from engaging in the following conduct:
(A) Harassment. Harassment includes verbal or physical actions that could be reasonably construed to demean, target or harm another person, group of persons or a person’s employer. Harassment also includes sexual harassment, bullying or hazing;
(B) Discrimination. Discrimination includes conduct that could be reasonably construed to be unfair treatment of another person because of the person’s actual or perceived race, color, national origin, religion, sex, sexual orientation, gender identity, age, marital status, or medical or physical condition or disability;
(C) Academic Dishonesty. Academic dishonesty includes, but is not limited to:
(i) Cheating, which includes accessing or using unauthorized materials, information, tools, or study aids.
(ii) Plagiarism, which includes presenting another’s material as one’s own or submitting material generated by others. This may also include work that is purchased or otherwise prepared by another individual or unauthorized use of artificial intelligence (AI) content generators and generative AI tools.
(iii) Providing or receiving scenario plots, test questions, test answers, or any other confidential or restricted curriculum content.
(iv) Aiding or abetting academic dishonesty.
(v) Failing to disclose, or withholding information about, acts of academic dishonesty.
(D) Conduct that would constitute a criminal offense;
(E) Conduct that threatens or harms the health or welfare of another person;
(F) Conduct that compromises the integrity of the training;
(G) Conduct that impedes the delivery of or participation in training;
(H) Participating in any portion of a mandated training course while impaired to a noticeable or perceptible degree due to consumption or use of an intoxicant as the term is defined in ORS 801.321;
(I) Personal use or possession of alcohol, cannabis, or illicit drugs on the OPSA campus; or
(J) Intimate physical contact of a sexual nature while on Academy property.
(2) Any violation of the standards of conduct defined in section (1) of this rule may result in dismissal from the Academy pursuant to OAR 259-012-0035.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410
- DPSST 11-2024, amend filed 12/26/2024, effective 01/01/2025
- DPSST 9-2024, temporary amend filed 10/24/2024, effective 11/04/2024 through 05/02/2025
- DPSST 14-2019, amend filed 12/16/2019, effective 12/16/2019
- DPSST 50-2018, amend filed 06/22/2018, effective 06/22/2018
- DPSST 17-2006, f. & cert. ef. 11-20-06
- DPSST 8-2006(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 6-9-06 thru 12-1-06
- BPSST 6-2001, f. & cert. ef. 8-22-01
- BPSST 3-1998, f. & cert. ef. 6-30-98
- BPSST 1-1998, f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98
- BPSST 2-1998(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98 thru 6-30-98
- Reverted to PS 2-1995, f. & cert. ef. 9-27-95
- PS 10-1997(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-5-97
- PS 2-1995, f. & cert. ef. 9-27-95
- PS 1-1990, f. & cert. ef. 2-7-90
- PS 1-1985, f. & ef. 4-24-85
- PS 1-1983, f. & ef. 12-15-83
Or. Admin. R. 259-012-0035 Student Suspension or Dismissal from a Mandated Training Course
(1) Suspensions. The Department may immediately suspend a student from a mandated training course when a situation requires immediate action to preserve the safety or integrity of the classroom or training venue.
(2) Suspension for a Safety Violation.
(a) The Department will notify the student’s employing agency that the student has been suspended from training due to a safety violation.
(b) The suspension will remain in effect until the safety issue has been resolved.
(c) Once resolved, the Department may reinstate the student to their current course.
(d) If the safety issue can’t be resolved during the student’s current course, the Department, in consultation with the employing agency, may schedule the reinstatement to occur in a different course.
(e) Absences resulting from suspension are unexcused. Coursework and training missed due to a suspension must be completed or remediated as determined by the Department.
(3) Suspension for a Violation of the Student Rules and Regulations or the Standards of Student Conduct Defined in OAR 259-012-0010.
(a) The Department will notify the student’s employing agency that the student has been suspended from training due to a violation or alleged violation of the Student Rules and Regulations or the Standards of Student Conduct.
(b) The suspension will remain in effect until the investigation required pursuant to section (4) of this rule is complete.
(c) Absences resulting from suspension are unexcused. Coursework and training missed due to a suspension must be completed or remediated as determined by the Department.
(4) The Department must complete an investigation when a student engages in conduct that violates the Student Rules and Regulations or the Standards of Student Conduct defined in OAR 259-012-0010 or the Department receives an allegation of a violation.
(a) Upon initiation of an investigation, the Department will notify the student’s employing agency. The notice of an investigation may be combined with a notice of suspension.
(b) The investigation must be completed following the policies or procedures adopted by the Department for investigating student conduct.
(c) If the Department’s investigation does not sustain any violations, the Department may reinstate the student to their current course.
(d) If the Department’s investigation results in sustained findings of a violation, the Department may consider the aggravating and mitigating circumstances and may impose conditions on the student’s reinstatement to training pursuant to section (6) of this rule, up to and including dismissing the student from the Academy.
(e) Upon completion of the investigation, the Department must provide the student and the employing agency with a copy of the investigation summary and findings. The Department must also provide the student and the employing agency with a notification regarding any conditions imposed on the student’s reinstatement to training.
(5) Dismissal. The Department may dismiss a student when an investigation completed pursuant to section (4) substantiates that the student violated the Student Rules and Regulations or the Standards of Student Conduct defined in OAR 259-012-0010 .
(a) The Department may dismiss a student from the Academy regardless of whether the student has already been withdrawn from a course or separated from their employment.
(b) The Department may impose conditions for reinstatement to training as defined in section (6) of this rule.
(c) Absences resulting from dismissal are unexcused. Coursework and training missed due to a dismissal must be completed or remediated as determined by the Department.
(d) Pursuant to OAR 259-008-0300, dismissal from the Academy for a violation of the Student Rules and Regulations or Standards of Student Conduct is subject to discretionary review for denial of training and certification.
(e) If the student is dismissed, the Department must forward a copy of the completed investigation to the Department’s professional standards compliance staff within five business days after the opportunity to appeal the dismissal expires or, if appealed, the appeal process is completed.
(6) Conditional Reinstatement of Training.
(a) The Department may impose any of the following conditions for reinstatement to training when a student has been suspended or dismissed:
(A) The student must be reinstated to a different course. If a professional standards review is required under OAR 259-008-0300, the reinstatement may occur before the review is completed;
(B) The student must wait to be reinstated to a different course until the professional standards review required under OAR 259-008-0300 has been completed and the case is either administratively closed or there is no action taken against the student’s training or certification;
(C) The student must complete the mandated training course in its entirety and will not receive credit for any part of the mandated training course that was completed by the student prior to the dismissal; or
(D) Any other conditions identified by the Department and related to scheduling or completion of any portion of the mandated training course.
(b) The following factors must be considered when making the decision to reinstate the student to their current course or a different course:
(A) Whether or not the amount of coursework and training missed can be completed or remediated during the student’s current course;
(B) Whether or not the student can be added to another course at a point in the course schedule that corresponds with the coursework and training that needs to be completed or remediated;
(C) Whether or not the effectiveness of the course would be adversely affected by the length of absence if the student is permitted to complete the missed and remaining portions of the course without restarting the course;
(D) Whether or not the student or other students in the course would be adversely affected by reinstating the student to their current course; and
(E) Any other factors that affect the student’s reinstatement or the Department’s delivery of the course.
(c) When reinstating a student to a different course, the Department may coordinate with the employing agency to schedule which course the student will be reinstated to.
(d) A person is not eligible for reinstatement to training if they are no longer employed.
(7) Appealing a Dismissal.
(a) The student may appeal the dismissal by submitting a written request to the Director within three business days from the date of dismissal.
(b) The Director must schedule a meeting with the student to consider the request for appeal. The meeting must occur within three business days from receipt of the request to appeal.
(c) The meeting may be conducted in person or remotely, but it must be recorded and include the following individuals:
(A) The Director;
(B) A second Department representative;
(C) The student; and
(D) If the student chooses, no more than two personal representatives. Examples of personal representatives include, but are not limited to, members of the employing agency or legal representatives.
(d) The student may submit mitigation or new evidence in writing before or during the meeting, verbally during the meeting, or both.
(e) The Director must decide the outcome of the appeal within three business days after the meeting. After considering the sustained violations and any aggravating and mitigating circumstances, the Director may:
(A) Conduct or request additional investigation before making a decision;
(B) Uphold the dismissal and uphold the conditions for reinstatement as determined by the Department;
(C) Uphold the dismissal and modify the conditions for reinstatement; or
(D) Reverse the dismissal back to suspension and uphold or modify the conditions for reinstatement.
(f) The Director’s decision is final and unappealable.
(g) The Director may appoint a designee for any portion of the appeal process.
(h) The Director or the appointed designee may approve an extension of time to complete any step of the appeal process.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410
- DPSST 11-2024, amend filed 12/26/2024, effective 01/01/2025
- DPSST 9-2024, temporary amend filed 10/24/2024, effective 11/04/2024 through 05/02/2025
- DPSST 18-2020, amend filed 09/14/2020, effective 09/15/2020
- DPSST 14-2019, amend filed 12/16/2019, effective 12/16/2019
- DPSST 50-2018, amend filed 06/22/2018, effective 06/22/2018
- DPSST 8-2007, f. & cert. ef. 7-30-07
- DPSST 5-2007(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 2-15-07 thru 8-3-07
- DPSST 17-2006, f. & cert. ef. 11-20-06
- DPSST 8-2006(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 6-9-06 thru 12-1-06
- DPSST 4-2004, f. & cert. ef. 4-23-04
- BPSST 3-1998, f. & cert. ef. 6-30-98
- BPSST 1-1998, f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98
- BPSST 2-1998(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98 thru 6-30-98
- Reverted to PS 2-1995, f. & cert. ef. 9-27-95
- PS 10-1997(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-5-97
- PS 2-1995, f. & cert. ef. 9-27-95
- PS 1-1990, f. & cert. ef. 2-7-90
- PS 1-1985, f. & ef. 4-24-85
- PS 1-1983, f. & ef. 12-15-83
Division 13 CRIMINAL RECORDS CHECK RULES
Or. Admin. R. 259-013-0000 Statement of Purpose and Statutory Authority
(1) Purpose. The purpose of these rules is to establish the reasonable screening procedures for:
(a) All public safety professionals;
(b) Any individual who occupies a position requiring a license or certification or is under investigation by the Department; or
(c) Reissuance of a license or certificate that is issued by the Department.
(2) Authority. These rules are authorized under ORS 181A.195 and 181A.400.
(3) When Rules Apply. These rules are to be applied when evaluating the criminal history of a subject individual identified in (1) of this rule. The fact that a subject individual is approved does not guarantee licensure or certification.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.195 & ORS 181A.400
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.400
- DPSST 17-2018, minor correction filed 02/13/2018, effective 02/13/2018
- DPSST 1-2014, f. & cert. ef. 1-2-14
- DPSST 17-2008, f. & cert. ef. 10-15-08
Or. Admin. R. 259-013-0005 Definitions
As used in OAR chapter 259, division 013, unless the context of the rule requires otherwise, the following definitions apply:
(1) “Approved” means that a criminal records check has been completed on an individual and the Department has not identified any criminal record that would make the individual ineligible for licensure or certification.
(2) "Authorized Designee" means a person who is authorized by the Department to receive, review and process criminal history information.
(3) “Conviction” means that a person was convicted in a court of law. Entering a plea of “guilty” or “no contest” is also considered a conviction for the purpose of these rules unless a subsequent court decision has dismissed the charges. An expunged juvenile or adult record may be considered a conviction under these rules for purposes of eligibility for licensure or certification.
(4) Criminal History Information” means criminal justice records, fingerprints, court records, sexual offender registration records, warrants, DMV information, information provided on a Department form, and any other information obtained by or provided to the Department. “Criminal history information” may include violations or infractions for purposes of eligibility for licensure or certification.
(5) “Criminal Records Check” means the Oregon Criminal Records Check and, when required, a National Criminal Records Check or a State-Specific Criminal Records Check, and the processes and procedures required by these rules.
(6) “Denied” means a criminal records check has been completed on an individual and the individual is ineligible to obtain licensure or certification.
(7) “Department" means the Oregon Department of Public Safety Standards and Training.
(8) "National Criminal Records Check" means obtaining and reviewing criminal records nationwide or from states or jurisdictions other than Oregon. This information may be obtained from the Federal Bureau of Investigation through the use of fingerprint cards and from other criminal information resources.
(9) "Oregon Criminal Records Check" means obtaining and reviewing information from the Oregon State Police's Law Enforcement Data System (LEDS). The Oregon Criminal Records Check may also include, but is not limited to: Oregon Justice Information Network (OJIN), Oregon Department of Corrections records, Motor Vehicles Division, local or regional criminal records information systems, or other official law enforcement agency or court records in Oregon.
(10) "Potentially Disqualifying Crime" means a crime listed or described in OAR 259-013-0260.
(11) "Records Information" includes criminal justice records, fingerprints, court records, sexual offender registration records, warrants, arrests, DMV information, information provided on the Department's criminal records check forms, and any other information obtained by or provided to the Department for the purpose of conducting a fitness determination.
(12) "State-Specific Criminal Records Check" means obtaining and reviewing information from law enforcement agencies, courts or other criminal records information resources located in a state or jurisdiction outside Oregon.
(13) “Subject individual” means a person for whom a criminal records check is required pursuant to these rules.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.195 & ORS 181A.400
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.400
- DPSST 18-2018, minor correction filed 02/13/2018, effective 02/13/2018
- DPSST 17-2008, f. & cert. ef. 10-15-08
Or. Admin. R. 259-013-0220 Individuals Subject to Criminal Records Checks
The Department may require the fingerprints of:
(1) A fire service professional;
(2) A public safety professional;
(3) A private security provider;
(4) A private investigator;
(5) A polygraph intern or general license applicant;
(6) A candidate for election to the office of Sheriff.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.195, 206.015 & ORS 181A.400
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.400
- DPSST 19-2018, minor correction filed 02/13/2018, effective 02/13/2018
- DPSST 15-2015, f. & cert. ef. 7-23-15
- DPSST 1-2014, f. & cert. ef. 1-2-14
- DPSST 18-2012, f. & cert. ef. 8-27-12
- DPSST 17-2008, f. & cert. ef. 10-15-08
Or. Admin. R. 259-013-0230 Criminal Records Check Required
(1) Who Conducts Check.
(a) The Department may request that the Department of State Police conduct a criminal records check on an individual. If a nationwide criminal records check of an individual is necessary, the Department may request that the Department of State Police conduct the check, including fingerprint identification, through the Federal Bureau of Investigation.
(b) The Department may conduct criminal records checks on individuals through the Law Enforcement Data System maintained by the Department of State Police, in accordance with the adopted rules and established procedures of the Department of State Police.
(2) An individual may be required to have a check in the following circumstances:
(a) When a fire service professional applies for certification, the fire service professional must submit to a criminal records check as required by OAR 259-009-0059.
(b) When a public safety officer applies for or is employed by a public or private safety agency, the public safety officer or applicant must submit to a criminal records check as required by OAR 259-008-0010 and 259-008-0011.
(c) When a certified instructor applies for, or is employed by, a public safety agency or the Department, the certified instructor must submit to a criminal records check as required by OAR 259-008-0080.
(d) When a person applies for a license to conduct polygraphs, the polygrapher or applicant must submit to a criminal records check as required by OAR 259-020-00120 or 259-020-0130.
(e) When a person requests to be a candidate for elections or is elected or appointed to the Office of Sheriff, the applicant must submit to a criminal records check as required by OAR 259-008-0075.
(f) When a person applies for a private security certificate or license, the applicant must submit to a criminal records check as required by OAR 259-060-0025.
(g) When a person applies for a private investigator license, the applicant must submit to a criminal records check as required by OAR 259-061-0020.
(h) When a check is required by federal or state laws or regulations, other rules adopted by the Department, or by contract or written agreement with the Department.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.195 & ORS 181A.400
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.400
- DPSST 20-2018, minor correction filed 02/13/2018, effective 02/13/2018
- DPSST 15-2015, f. & cert. ef. 7-23-15
- DPSST 1-2014, f. & cert. ef. 1-2-14
- DPSST 18-2012, f. & cert. ef. 8-27-12
- DPSST 17-2008, f. & cert. ef. 10-15-08
Or. Admin. R. 259-013-0235 Refusal to Consent to a Criminal records Check
If any subject individual refuses to consent to a criminal records check, or refuses to be fingerprinted when required, the Department may revoke or deny any application, license or certificate issued by the Department.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.195 & ORS 181A.400
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.400
- DPSST 21-2018, minor correction filed 02/13/2018, effective 02/13/2018
- DPSST 17-2008, f. & cert. ef. 10-15-08
Or. Admin. R. 259-013-0240 Oregon Criminal Records Check Process
(1) Processing.
(a) The Department will obtain criminal records information from the Oregon State Police Law Enforcement Data System and from other sources of criminal, judicial and motor vehicle information.
(b) The Department will authorize one or more designees to receive and evaluate Oregon criminal records information from the Oregon State Police as allowed by applicable statutes.
(c) A subject individual may be required to obtain and provide additional criminal, judicial or other background information to the Department or its authorized designee.
(d) Criminal records information obtained from the Law Enforcement Data System must be handled in accordance with applicable Oregon State Police requirements in ORS chapter 181A and OAR chapter 257, division 15.
(2) Additional Information Required. The Department may require additional information from a subject individual in order to conduct an Oregon Criminal Record Check. The information may include, but is not limited to, proof of identity, residential history, names used while living at each residence, or additional criminal, judicial, or other background information.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.195 & ORS 181A.400
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.400
- DPSST 22-2018, minor correction filed 02/13/2018, effective 02/13/2018
- DPSST 17-2008, f. & cert. ef. 10-15-08
Or. Admin. R. 259-013-0250 National Criminal Records Check Process
(1) National Criminal Records Check. In addition to an Oregon criminal records check (OAR 259-013- 0240), the Department may require a national criminal records check consistent with the requirements for licensure or certification.
(2) Processing. The individual must complete and submit a fingerprint card when requested by the Department.
(3) Additional Information Required. In order to conduct a national check, the Department may require additional information such as, but not limited to, proof of identity, residential history, names used while living at each residence, or additional criminal, judicial, or other background information.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.195 & ORS 181A.400
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.400
- DPSST 23-2018, minor correction filed 02/13/2018, effective 02/13/2018
- DPSST 15-2015, f. & cert. ef. 7-23-15
- DPSST 17-2008, f. & cert. ef. 10-15-08
Or. Admin. R. 259-013-0260 Potentially Disqualifying Crimes
A conviction of any of the following crimes is potentially disqualifying. The lists include offenses that are crimes and may include offenses that are classified as violations or infractions for purposes of eligibility for licensure or certification. (See ORS 161.505 through 161.585).
(1) Any crime or offense listed in OAR 259-008-0070;
(2) Any crime listed in OAR 259-009-0070;
(3) Any crime listed in OAR 259-060-0300;
(4) Any crime listed in OAR 259-061-0300.
(5) Any federal crime.
(6) Any unclassified felony defined in Oregon Revised Statutes not listed elsewhere in this rule.
(7) Any other felony in Oregon’s or any other jurisdiction’s statutes not listed elsewhere in this rule.
(8) Any crime or offense in any other jurisdiction that is the substantial equivalent of any of the Oregon crimes identified in this section or as determined by an authorized designee of the Department.
(9) Any crime adopted by the Legislature that is the substantial equivalent of any of the crimes listed in this section.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.195 & ORS 181A.400
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.400
- DPSST 24-2018, minor correction filed 02/13/2018, effective 02/13/2018
- DPSST 17-2008, f. & cert. ef. 10-15-08
Or. Admin. R. 259-013-0270 Record Keeping, Confidentiality
(1) LEDS Reports.
(a) Confidentiality. All LEDS reports are confidential and must be maintained by the authorized designee in accordance with applicable Oregon State Police requirements in ORS Chapter 181A and these rules (NOTE: See OAR chapter 257, division 15).
(A) Authorized Designee Access. LEDS reports are confidential and may only be shared with another authorized designee if there is a need to know consistent with these rules.
(B) The subject individual will be allowed to inspect the LEDS report or state or national criminal offender records the Department used to make their eligibility determination, if requested.
(b) Retention. LEDS reports must be retained and destroyed in accordance with records retention schedules published by Oregon State Archives.
(2) National Information.
(a) Confidentiality and Dissemination. Notwithstanding section (1)(a)(B), national criminal information provided by the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) is confidential and may not be disseminated by the Department.
(b) Retention. FBI reports must be retained and destroyed in accordance with records retention schedules published by Oregon State Archives and in accordance with federal law.
(3) Fingerprint Cards.
(a) All fingerprint cards sent to the Department will be forwarded to the Oregon State Police and FBI as dictated by these rules.
(b) Fingerprint cards returned to the Department will be returned to the subject individual or be destroyed.
(c) The Department will not retain any fingerprint cards or copies of any fingerprint cards for any reason.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.195 & ORS 181A.400
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.400
- DPSST 25-2018, minor correction filed 02/13/2018, effective 02/13/2018
- DPSST 15-2015, f. & cert. ef. 7-23-15
- DPSST 17-2008, f. & cert. ef. 10-15-08
Or. Admin. R. 259-013-0280 Immunity from Liability
(1) The Department and its authorized designees have immunity from any civil liability that might otherwise be incurred or imposed for determining, in accordance with ORS 181A.400, that a subject individual may not obtain or maintain a license or certificate issued by the Department or be employed.
(2) The Department or its employee, acting within the course and scope of employment, who in good faith complies with ORS 181A.195, is not liable for employment-related decisions based on the fitness determination.
(3) No state agency, business, organization, or employee of the state, business or organization, acting within the course and scope of employment, is liable for defamation, invasion of privacy, negligence or any other civil claim in connection with the lawful dissemination of information lawfully obtained under ORS 181A.195.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.195 & ORS 181A.400
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.400
- DPSST 26-2018, minor correction filed 02/13/2018, effective 02/13/2018
- DPSST 15-2015, f. & cert. ef. 7-23-15
- DPSST 17-2008, f. & cert. ef. 10-15-08
Or. Admin. R. 259-013-0290 Appeal Process
(1) If an individual has been convicted of a potentially disqualifying crime, the Department will proceed in accordance with the relevant process for denial or revocation identified in either OAR 259-008-0070, 259-009-0070, 259-020-0200, 259-060-0300 or 259-061-0300.
(2) An individual may appeal a determination of the Department in accordance with the applicable rules identified in subsection (1) of this section.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.195 & ORS 181A.400
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.400
- DPSST 27-2018, minor correction filed 02/13/2018, effective 02/13/2018
- DPSST 17-2008, f. & cert. ef. 10-15-08
Or. Admin. R. 259-013-0300 Fees
The Department may charge a subject individual or their employing agency a fee to recover the costs of administering a fingerprint check through the Oregon Department of State Police and Federal Bureau of Investigation. The fee will not exceed the actual cost to obtain criminal offender information on the subject individual.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.195 & ORS 181A.400
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.195 & ORS 181A.400
- DPSST 69-2018, amend filed 12/04/2018, effective 12/15/2018
- DPSST 28-2018, minor correction filed 02/13/2018, effective 02/13/2018
- DPSST 15-2015, f. & cert. ef. 7-23-15
- DPSST 17-2008, f. & cert. ef. 10-15-08
Division 20 POLYGRAPH EXAMINERS LICENSING RULES
Or. Admin. R. 259-020-0005 Definitions
(1) "Board" means the Board on Public Safety Standards and Training.
(2) "Completed Examination" means an examination in which charts are recorded.
(3) "Department" means the Department of Public Safety Standards and Training.
(4) "Director" means the director of the Department.
(5) “Internship” means the study by a trainee of polygraph examinations and of the administration of polygraph examinations under the personal supervision and control of a polygraph examiner in accordance with the course of study prescribed by the Board at the commencement of such study.
(6) "Person" means any individual, firm, association, partnership, or corporation.
(7) “Polygraph Examiner” means a person who purports to be able to detect deception or verify the truth of statements through the use of instrumentation or of a mechanical device that records visually, permanently and simultaneously the cardiovascular pattern, the respiratory pattern and the galvanic skin response of the individual being examined.
(8) "The Act" means the Polygraph Examiners Act (ORS 703.010 to 703.310).
(9) “Trainee” means a person licensed under the Act to engage in an internship.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 703.230
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 703.230, ORS 703.010 & ORS 703.325
- DPSST 17-2017, amend filed 10/20/2017, effective 10/20/2017
- DPSST 15-2012, f. & cert. ef. 6-28-12
- DPSST 1-2003, f. & cert. ef. 1-21-03
- BPSST 9-2001, f. & cert. ef. 9-19-01
- BPSST 7-1999, f. & cert. ef. 7-29-99
- BPSST 3-1998, f. & cert. ef. 6-30-98
- BPSST 1-1998, f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98
- BPSST 2-1998(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98 thru 6-30-98
- Reverted to PS 2-1995, f. & cert. ef. 9-27-95
- PS 10-1997(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-5-97
- PS 2-1995, f. & cert. ef. 9-27-95
- PS 3-1987, f. & ef. 10-26-87
- PS 1-1983, f. & ef. 12-15-83
- PS 1-1979, f. 10-1-79, ef. 10-3-79
- PS 12, f. & ef. 12-19-77
Or. Admin. R. 259-020-0100 Polygraph Examiner Responsibilities
(1) A person may not administer polygraph examinations, advertise services, or assume any titles, words or abbreviations, including the title or designation of polygraph examiner or polygraph examiner trainee, that indicate the person is authorized to administer polygraph examinations unless that person holds a license issued under the Act and these rules.
(a) This requirement includes persons employed by a state agency or public body in this state.
(b) A person who purports to be able to detect deception or to verify the truth of statements is not exempt from the provisions of the Act and these rules because of the terminology used to describe the person, the instruments or mechanical devices of the person, or the nature of the services of the person.
(2) Polygraph examiners must display prominently their license at the place of business or employment, and a trainee must display prominently their license at the place of internship.
(3) Trainees must clearly indicate their trainee status on all letterhead, business cards, advertising, signage, and any other type of written material that describes a polygraph examination.
(4) Licensed polygraph examiners and trainees must notify the Department in writing of any change in the licensee’s business name, address or contact information within 30 days after the date of such change. A licensee’s failure to comply with this requirement makes their license subject to immediate suspension per ORS 703.140.
(5) Polygraph examiners and trainees must maintain polygraph examination records for a minimum of five years unless any applicable Oregon State Archives Records Retention Schedule requires longer retention.
(a) A licensee’s examination records must include a numerical log.
(A) The numerical log must begin with the number 1, continue with consecutive numbering for each additional record, include the name of the person examined, date, time, type of examination and results, and reference the corresponding record identifier if additional examination records are maintained using a different identification method.
(B) If the polygraph examination is administered by a polygraph examiner trainee and the polygraph examination is observed or reviewed pursuant to OAR 259-020-0140 to satisfy an internship requirement, the numerical log must also include a record of the date of the observation or the review and the name and license number of the polygraph examiner trainee’s mentor.
(b) A licensee’s examination records may also include pre-examination records; examination questions for individuals interviewed; statements of consent; polygraph analysis reports; the examiner’s original test questions; examination chart tracing reports; polygraph results charts; conclusions; interviewee statements; and background information.
(c) Licensees must provide copies of examination records when requested by the Department.
(6) Notification of Conviction.
(a) Applicants for licensure as a polygraph examiner or trainee must provide notification to the Department relating to the circumstances of a conviction if the applicant has previously been convicted of a criminal offense.
(b) Currently licensed polygraph examiners or trainees who are convicted of a crime must provide notification to the Department within five business days of the conviction.
(c) Notifications to the Department must be in writing and include the specific charges of the conviction, the county and state where the conviction occurred, the investigating agency and the date of the conviction.
(7) Polygraph Equipment. Licensed polygraph examiners and trainees are required to use instruments or mechanical devices that satisfy the minimum requirements provided in ORS 703.310 to record visually, permanently and simultaneously the cardiovascular pattern, the respiratory pattern and the galvanic skin response of the individual.
(8) Licensed polygraph examiners and trainees must not conduct more than five completed examinations, of any type, in any one calendar day.
(9) A licensed polygraph examiner trainee is prohibited from performing any type of review or providing a professional opinion of any completed polygraph examination performed by another polygraph examiner or polygraph trainee.
(10) A violation of, or a failure to comply with, the requirements defined in this rule may result in the denial, suspension, or revocation of licensure as a polygraph examiner or trainee pursuant to OAR 259-020-0200.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 703.230
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 703.230, ORS 703.030, ORS 703.050, ORS 703.140 & ORS 703.310
- DPSST 17-2017, adopt filed 10/20/2017, effective 10/20/2017
Or. Admin. R. 259-020-0120 Minimum Standards for Licensure as a Polygraph Examiner
(1) Age. A person must be at least 18 years of age to be licensed as polygraph examiner.
(2) Citizenship. A person must be a citizen of the United States to be licensed as a polygraph examiner.
(3) Education. Applicants for licensure as a polygraph examiner must have one of the following:
(a) A baccalaureate degree from an accredited college or university; or
(b) A high school diploma or a General Educational Development (GED) certificate and have at least five years of active investigative experience before the date of the application.
(A) Active investigative experience is acquired through full-time employment as an investigator. An investigator is a person whose primary assigned duty is the investigation of actual or suspected violations of law, either criminal or civil. Full-time employment as an investigator is a minimum of 1,200 hours completed annually performing the investigation of actual or suspected violations of law, either criminal or civil.
(B) Administering polygraph examinations will satisfy the investigative experience requirement of this section.
(C) The Department may, upon receipt of an application for licensure as a polygraph examiner, accept the applicant’s professional experience as being equal in professional value toward the five years of active investigative experience required by this section.
(4) Training. Applicants for licensure as a polygraph examiner must have graduated from a polygraph examiner's course approved by the Department and have satisfactorily completed at least 200 polygraph examinations.
(5) In accordance with ORS 703.090, a person may be exempt from the training requirement in section (4) of this rule if the person worked as a polygraph examiner for a period of at least five years for a governmental agency within the State of Oregon and completed at least 200 polygraph examinations prior to 1978.
(6) An applicant may meet the education and training requirements of sections (3) and (4) of this rule if the applicant provides the Department with documentation of military training or experience that the Department determines is substantially equivalent to the education or experience requirements.
(7) Examination for Licensure. Applicants for licensure as a polygraph examiner must have achieved a passing score on an examination for licensure conducted by the Department.
(8) Professional Fitness. Applicants for licensure as a polygraph examiner must not have demonstrated a course of behavior within the preceding 10 years which would indicate a high degree of probability that the applicant will be unlikely to perform the duties of a polygraph examiner in a manner that would serve the interests of the public.
(a) In order to determine if an applicant may have demonstrated a course of behavior, the Department will conduct a criminal records check.
(b) Any information obtained as a result of the application for licensure, the criminal records check, any Department investigation or other reliable sources that may indicate the applicant is unlikely to perform the duties of a polygraph examiner in a manner that would serve the interests of the public will be reviewed in accordance with OAR 259-020-0200.
(9) The Department requires use of the applicant’s or polygraph examiner’s legal name as the name of record for all Department purposes. The license issued to the polygraph examiner will display the legal name. When a polygraph examiner legally changes their name they must report the legal name change and provide a copy of proof of the name change to the Department through a Department-approved submission process within 30 days of the name change.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 703.230
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 703.230, ORS 703.060, ORS 703.090, ORS 703.210 & ORS 670.280
- DPSST 21-2020, amend filed 09/14/2020, effective 10/01/2020
- DPSST 17-2017, adopt filed 10/20/2017, effective 10/20/2017
Or. Admin. R. 259-020-0130 Minimum Standards for Licensure as a Polygraph Examiner Trainee
(1) Age. A person must be at least 18 years of age to be licensed as polygraph examiner trainee.
(2) Citizenship. A person must be a citizen of the United States to be licensed as a polygraph examiner trainee.
(3) Training. Applicants for licensure as a polygraph examiner trainee must:
(a) Have graduated from a polygraph examiner's course approved by the Department; or
(b) Provide documentation of military experience or training that the Department determines is substantially equivalent to the education required.
(4) Internship. Persons licensed as a polygraph examiner trainee must complete an internship. The Board prescribed internship requirements of any person who is licensed as a trainee are defined in OAR 259-020-0140.
(5) Professional Fitness. Applicants for licensure as a polygraph examiner trainee must not have demonstrated a course of behavior within the preceding 10 years which would indicate a high degree of probability that the applicant will be unlikely to perform the duties of a polygraph examiner in a manner that would serve the interests of the public.
(a) In order to determine if an applicant may have demonstrated a course of behavior, the Department will conduct a criminal records check.
(b) Any information obtained as a result of the application for licensure, the criminal records check, any Department investigation or other reliable sources that may indicate the applicant is unlikely to perform the duties of a polygraph examiner in a manner that would serve the interests of the public will be reviewed in accordance with OAR 259-020-0200.
(6) The Department requires use of the applicant’s or polygraph examiner trainee’s legal name as the name of record for all Department purposes. The license issued to the polygraph examiner trainee will display the legal name. When a polygraph examiner trainee legally changes their name they must report the legal name change and provide a copy of proof of the name change to the Department through a Department-approved submission process within 30 days of the name change.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 703.230
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 703.230, ORS 703.060, ORS 703.080, ORS 703.090, ORS 703.200, ORS 703.210 & ORS 670.280
- DPSST 21-2020, amend filed 09/14/2020, effective 10/01/2020
- DPSST 17-2017, adopt filed 10/20/2017, effective 10/20/2017
Or. Admin. R. 259-020-0140 Polygraph Examiner Trainee Internship
(1) The purpose of this rule is to define the Board prescribed course of study for a person licensed as a polygraph examiner trainee.
(2) The Board prescribed internship observations and reviews are not meant to be interpreted as a measure of the polygraph examiner trainee’s ability or expertise, but will be considered as legitimate, professional consultation.
(3) Persons licensed as polygraph examiner trainees must complete an internship program in its entirety, which includes the following:
(a) The selection of a polygraph examiner to act as a mentor to provide periodic professional consultation;
(b) The observation and review of polygraph examinations with a mentor as defined in section (5) of this rule;
(c) Achieving a passing score on the Department’s examination for licensure in accordance with OAR 259-020-0150.
(4) Selection of an Internship Mentor.
(a) Mentors must be currently licensed polygraph examiners who are in good standing with the Department.
(b) In accordance with OAR 259-020-0100, licensed polygraph examiner trainees are not eligible to serve as mentors.
(c) A polygraph examiner trainee may select more than one mentor during their internship.
(d) Applicants for licensure as a polygraph examiner trainee or renewal of a polygraph examiner trainee license must provide their mentor’s name and license number when submitting an application for licensure or renewal.
(5) The internship observation and review requirements are:
(a) The trainee must complete a minimum of five observations of their mentor administering polygraph examinations;
(b) The mentor must complete a minimum of five observations of the trainee administering polygraph examinations; and
(c) The trainee must have their mentor complete a post-examination review for a minimum of 15 of the trainee’s completed polygraph examinations.
(d) A polygraph examiner trainee may request more observation or review opportunities with a mentor than the minimum requirements prescribed.
(6) Polygraph examiner trainees licensed prior to October 1, 2017 who have completed more than 100 polygraph examinations are exempt from the observation requirements of subsections (5) (a) and (b) of this rule.
(7) The Department may waive internship requirements for a person who is licensed as a trainee and has met the minimum requirement to complete 200 polygraph examinations but is still engaged in meeting either, or both of, the education or examination for licensure requirements defined in OAR 259-020-0120.
(a) When internship requirements are waived, the Department may request additional documentation that would demonstrate that the polygraph examiner trainee is engaged in meeting the education or examination for licensure requirements.
(b) Documentation may include, but is not limited to, college transcripts, a copy of the polygraph examiner trainee’s numerical log, or the Department’s records regarding the licensee’s attempts to pass the examination for licensure.
(8) A person’s failure to maintain, and provide to the Department when requested, documentation of the progress or completion of internship requirements may make the person’s application or license subject to denial, suspension or revocation pursuant to OAR 259-020-0200.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 703.230
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 703.200
- DPSST 17-2017, adopt filed 10/20/2017, effective 10/20/2017
Or. Admin. R. 259-020-0150 Examination for Licensure
(1) Applicants must submit the examination fee prescribed by OAR 259-020-0220 prior to taking the exam.
(2) The minimum passing score for the exam is 80%.
(3) Applicants and polygraph examiner trainees are limited to three attempts to pass the exam.
(4) A person who does not achieve a passing score on the exam must wait the following minimum time periods before retaking the exam:
(a) First failure: seven days.
(b) Second failure: 14 days.
(5) The licensure of a person who does not achieve a passing score on the exam within three attempts is subject to denial or revocation pursuant to OAR 259-020-0200.
(6) Persons who take the exam are prohibited from disclosing the contents of the exam, including the exam questions and answers, to anyone or any entity.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 703.230
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 703.230, ORS 703.080, ORS 703.090, ORS 703.110 & ORS 703.200
- DPSST 3-2023, amend filed 03/09/2023, effective 03/20/2023
- DPSST 17-2017, adopt filed 10/20/2017, effective 10/20/2017
Or. Admin. R. 259-020-0160 Continuing Education Requirements for Renewal of a Polygraph Examiner or Trainee License
(1) In order to renew licensure as a polygraph examiner or trainee, a person must document current knowledge, skills or abilities as a polygraph examiner or trainee. Documentation of current knowledge, skills or abilities may be satisfied by completing continuing education requirements in accordance with this rule.
(2) A person must document a minimum of 15 hours of continuing education, per licensing period, at the time of application in order to be eligible to renew their license.
(3) Continuing education includes, but is not limited to:
(a) Seminars sponsored by regional and national polygraph associations; or
(b) Department approved training specifically related to the field of polygraphy.
(4) In order to satisfy the requirements for the renewal of a polygraph examiner or trainee license, the continuing education must have been completed within the 24 month period prior to the application for renewal of a license and documentation of completion of the continuing education must be submitted to the Department. Documentation includes, but is not limited to, a certificate or letter of completion.
(5) The polygraph examiner’s or trainee’s license will not be renewed until documentation of the completed continuing education requirements has been received by the Department.
(6) A licensed polygraph examiner or trainee may carry over up to 15 hours of unused continuing education from the current licensing renewal application to the next licensing renewal period provided that the unused hours still meet the requirements for section (3) of this rule.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 703.230
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 703.230 & ORS 703.100
- DPSST 17-2017, adopt filed 10/20/2017, effective 10/20/2017
Or. Admin. R. 259-020-0170 Applications for Licensure / Applications for Renewal
(1) An applicant for licensure as a polygraph examiner trainee must meet all minimum standards as described in OAR 259-020-0130.
(2) An applicant for licensure as a polygraph examiner must meet all minimum standards as described in OAR 259-020-0120.
(3) New Application for Licensure. The application packet for a new polygraph examiner or trainee license must include:
(a) A completed application form;
(b) The required license fee as prescribed in OAR 259-020-0220;
(c) Fingerprints submitted to the Department on a standard applicant fingerprint card or through a Department approved vendor of electronic fingerprint capture services;
(d) The required fingerprint processing fee as prescribed in OAR 259-020-0220; and
(e) Supporting documentation showing the applicant meets the minimum standards pursuant to OAR 259-020-0120 or OAR 259-020-0130. Documentation may include but is not limited to:
(A) Certificate of completion of a polygraph examiners training course;
(B) Verifiable documentation in the form of official transcripts or an official certificate from the administering institution showing successful completion of the education requirements;
(C) Proof of employment or experience; and
(D) A copy of the polygraph examiner’s or trainee’s numerical log of completed exams.
(4) Renewal of Licensure. The application packet for renewal of a polygraph examiner or trainee license must include:
(a) A completed application form;
(b) The required license renewal fee as prescribed in OAR 259-020-0220; and
(c) Documentation of current knowledge, skills or abilities as a polygraph examiner or trainee. For the purpose of this rule, documentation of current knowledge, skills or abilities as a polygraph examiner or trainee may be satisfied by:
(A) Completing continuing education requirements pursuant to OAR 259-020-0160; or
(B) Achieving a passing score on an examination for licensure conducted by the Department.
(5) Requests for a Duplicate License. A licensed polygraph examiner or trainee may obtain a duplicate license by submitting a written request to the Department with the duplicate license fee as prescribed in OAR 259-020-0220. When the duplicate license is requested due to a legal name change, the licensee must also submit documentation of the name change.
(6) The Department may request additional documentation as needed for any application for licensure or license renewal or a request for a duplicate license.
(7) Applicants for licensure as a polygraph examiner or trainee who are not residents of this state must provide an irrevocable written consent with the application for a license or renewal permitting the Director to act as an agent for the service of all legal process in this state.
(a) In any action in a court of competent jurisdiction in this state, service of process may be made upon a polygraph examiner or trainee who does not reside in this state by mailing two copies of the process to the Director.
(b) The Director must retain one copy of the process in the records and immediately send, by certified or registered mail, the other copy to the polygraph examiner or trainee at the most current address as indicated by the records of the Department.
(8) The Department may administratively terminate the application process if the Department is unable to complete the licensure process due to non-response or non-compliance by the applicant to correct application deficiencies. To re-apply, applicants will be required to re-submit an application packet with all deficiencies corrected, including new fees.
(9) Any exception to the application process found in this rule must be approved by the Department.
[ED. NOTE: Forms referenced and required fingerprint processing fee amount are available from the agency.]
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 703.230
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 703.230, ORS 703.070, ORS 703.080, ORS 703.090, ORS 703.100, ORS 703.110, ORS 703.120 & ORS 181A.195
- DPSST 17-2017, adopt filed 10/20/2017, effective 10/20/2017
Or. Admin. R. 259-020-0180 Period of Licensure / Expired Licenses
(1) Polygraph examiner and polygraph examiner trainee licenses expire one year from the date of issuance.
(2) Maximum Period for Licensure as a Polygraph Examiner Trainee.
(a) A person may not be licensed as a polygraph examiner trainee for an aggregate period greater than four years unless the person requests, and the Department approves, a time extension.
(b) The Department may approve a time extension in order for the polygraph examiner trainee to meet the minimum standards for licensure as a polygraph examiner for education, training or examination for licensure as defined in OAR 259-020-0120.
(c) Department approved time extensions will not exceed one year.
(d) When a person has exhausted the allowed polygraph examiner trainee license renewals and the time extension, they are prohibited from holding licensure as a polygraph examiner trainee until two years and one day have elapsed from the expiration of the last polygraph examiner trainee license held by the person.
(e) Any application for licensure submitted prior to satisfying the two years and one day ineligibility period will be denied pursuant to OAR 259-020-0200.
(3) Expired Polygraph Examiner Licenses.
(a) A person whose polygraph examiner license has been expired for two years or less must apply for renewal of the license in accordance with OAR 259-020-0170.
(b) A person whose polygraph examiner license has been expired for more than two years must submit a new application for licensure in accordance with OAR 259-020-0170 and must successfully complete the examination for licensure.
(4) Expired Polygraph Examiner Trainee Licenses.
(a) A person whose polygraph examiner trainee license has been expired for two years or less must apply for renewal of the license in accordance with OAR 259-020-0170.
(b) A person whose polygraph examiner trainee license has been expired for more than two years must submit a new application for licensure in accordance with OAR 259-020-0170 and must complete the internship requirements defined in OAR 259-020-0140.
(5) A person whose polygraph examiner’s or trainee’s license has expired while the person was employed by any federal agency or while the person was on active duty as a member of the Armed Forces of the United States or on active duty as a member of the National Guard of this state may apply for renewal of their license without an examination for licensure within two years after the date of the termination of such employment or active duty by submitting an a application for renewal in accordance with OAR 259-020-0170.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 703.230
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 703.230 & ORS 703.100
- DPSST 17-2017, adopt filed 10/20/2017, effective 10/20/2017
Or. Admin. R. 259-020-0190 Reciprocity
(1) The Department may issue a license as a polygraph examiner in this State to a person who is licensed as a polygraph examiner by another state or territory of the United States, without an examination for licensure by the Department, if the person submits an application for licensure pursuant to OAR 259-020-0170 and the Department finds that the person:
(a) Is at least 18 years of age;
(b) Is a citizen of the United States;
(c) Was licensed pursuant to the requirements of such other state or territory that, at the date of the issuance of such license by such other state or territory, were substantially equivalent to the requirements of the Act for the licensing and regulation of polygraph examiners in this state; and
(d) Is licensed by another state or territory that grants reciprocity to polygraph examiners licensed in this state.
(2) In accordance with the requirements of ORS 703.120, if the person is not a resident of this state, the person must provide an irrevocable written consent permitting the Director to act as the agent of the person for the service of all legal process in this state.
(3) When making a determination regarding the equivalency of the requirements for licensure by another state, the Department may, upon receipt of an application for licensure as a polygraph examiner, accept the applicant’s professional experience as being equal in professional value toward the five years of active investigative experience required by ORS 703.090(1)(e) and OAR 259-020-0120(3)(b).
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 703.230
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 703.070, ORS 703.090, ORS 703.110 & ORS 703.130
- DPSST 17-2017, adopt filed 10/20/2017, effective 10/20/2017
Or. Admin. R. 259-020-0200 Denial, Suspension or Revocation of Licensure
(1) The Department may deny, suspend or revoke the license of any applicant, polygraph examiner or trainee after written notice, and a hearing if requested, upon finding that the applicant, polygraph examiner or trainee:
(a) Failed to meet the minimum standards for a polygraph examiner or trainee as described in OAR 259-020-0120 and OAR 259-020-0130;
(b) Failed to pass the examination for licensure within three attempts pursuant to OAR 259-020-0150;
(c) Engaged in conduct that violates any provisions found within the Act or these rules; or
(d) Engaged in any of the behaviors described in ORS 703.210. For the purposes of this rule, ORS 703.210(6), demonstrating an inability or incompetency to carry out the duties of a polygraph examiner or trainee, is defined as:
(A) Conduct that violates the law;
(B) Conduct that violates the practices or standards generally followed in the polygraph profession;
(C) Conduct that is prejudicial to the administration of justice;
(D) Conduct that involves untruthfulness;
(E) The use of test questions relating to sexual, religious, or political matters, unless such matters relate to the issue under investigation; or
(F) The deliberate use of unclear, misleading, circuitous, or ambiguous language in describing or explaining the relevant issue of the examination or the results of the examination.
(2) In accordance with ORS 703.140, the Department will immediately suspend the license of a polygraph examiner or trainee after written Notice, and a hearing if requested, based upon a finding that the licensee failed to provide written notification of a change in the licensee’s business name, address or contact information as required by OAR 259-020-0100.
(3) The Department will initiate a professional standards case upon receipt or discovery of information that would lead an objectively reasonable person to conclude that the applicant or licensee has violated the provisions of the Act or the rules established by the Board for licensure as a polygraph examiner or trainee. For the purpose of this rule, receipt of information may include, but is not limited to:
(a) Notification of a conviction, or any other criminal disposition, of a licensed polygraph examiner, trainee or applicant; or
(b) Any complaint submitted to the Department alleging that a licensed polygraph examiner, trainee or applicant may have engaged in conduct that violates the statutory and administrative rule requirements for licensure as a polygraph examiner or trainee.
(4) Complaints. All complaints will be reviewed by the Department to determine if the allegations, if founded, may violate the statutory and administrative rule requirements for licensure as a polygraph examiner or trainee. Complaints determined to fall outside of the Department’s jurisdiction will be administratively closed.
(5) Review of a Professional Standards Case by the Department. When the Department receives factual information from any source, the Department will review the information to determine if the conduct may meet statutory and administrative rule requirements for denial, suspension or revocation as defined in section (1) of this rule.
(a) If the Department determines that the conduct being reviewed does not meet the statutory and administrative rule requirements for denial, suspension or revocation, the case will be administratively closed.
(b) If the Department determines that the conduct being reviewed may meet the statutory and administrative rule requirements for denial, suspension or revocation, but is not supported by adequate factual information, the Department may request further information from the parties involved or conduct its own investigation of the matter.
(c) When the Department determines that the conduct being reviewed may meet the statutory and administrative rule requirements for denial, suspension or revocation, the case may be presented to the Board, in consultation with the Director.
(6) Review of a Professional Standards Case by the Board in Consultation with the Director.
(a) In making a decision to authorize initiation of proceedings under section (10) of this rule, the Director may consult the Polygraph Licensing Advisory Committee.
(b) When the Department presents a professional standards case to the Board, through the Director, a notification will be sent to the affected applicant or licensee by the Department. The notification will include the deadlines for the affected person to present evidence of factors that may support mitigation. The affected person may present mitigation evidence by one or both of the following:
(A) Submitting documents or written statements as supporting evidence for mitigation of the conduct under review to the Department for consideration by the Director and the Board.
(B) Arranging with the Department to present a verbal statement. Verbal statements are limited to a maximum of five minutes and must be presented, in person, by the affected person, or the representative of their choice.
(c) In order to determine whether or not the conduct engaged in by the applicant or licensee meets the statutory and administrative rule requirements for denial, suspension or revocation, the Board, in consultation with the Director, will review the conduct and consider mitigating and aggravating circumstances.
(d) When the Board, in consultation with the Director, determines that the conduct being reviewed meets the statutory and administrative rule requirements for denial, suspension or revocation and that the conduct reviewed rises to the level to warrant denial, suspension or revocation of the person’s licensure, the affected person will be ineligible for licensure as a polygraph examiner or trainee for up to 10 years.
(e) The Board, in consultation with the Director, will determine how long the applicant or licensee will be ineligible for licensure as a polygraph examiner or trainee based on the totality of the professional standards case which includes review of the misconduct and factors supporting aggravation or mitigation pursuant to this rule.
(f) An individual whose licensure has been denied, suspended or revoked is prohibited from conducting polygraph examinations, referring to themselves as a polygraph examiner or trainee or offering or advertising services as a polygraph examiner or trainee.
(7) Ineligibility Period. Any applicant, polygraph examiner or trainee whose licensure is denied, suspended or revoked will be ineligible to hold any polygraph examiner or trainee license for a period up to 10 years.
(a) The period of ineligibility will be included in any Final Order of the Department.
(b) The first day of the ineligibility period will be based upon the date the conduct or behavior, identified as cause for denial, suspension or revocation, occurred.
(c) The ineligibility period will cease when the applicable timeframe stated in the Final Order has been satisfied.
(d) The prescribed ineligibility period for subsection (1) (b) of this rule, failure to pass the examination for licensure, is a period of two years and one day.
(8) The Board’s decision to deny, suspend or revoke certifications will be subject to the contested case procedure described in section (10) of this rule.
(9) Eligibility for Licensure after Satisfying an Ineligibility Period.
(a) In order to be eligible for licensure after satisfying an ineligibility period, the affected person must meet all of the minimum requirements as described in OAR 259-020-0120 or OAR 259-020-0130.
(b) Satisfaction of ineligibility period means the conduct for which the person was denied, suspended or revoked is no longer a course of behavior that would prohibit them licensure.
(c) Any application for licensure submitted by a person whose ineligibility period has not been satisfied will be denied pursuant to section (10) of this rule.
(10) Initiation of Proceedings: Upon determination that the reason for denial, suspension or revocation is supported by factual data meeting the statutory and administrative rule requirements, the Department will prepare a Contested Case Notice.
(a) All contested case notices will be prepared in accordance with the applicable provisions of the Attorney General’s Model Rules of Procedure adopted under OAR 259-005-0015. The Department will have a copy of the notice served on the person whose license is being affected.
(b) Response time:
(A) A party who has been served with a Contested Case Notice of Intent to Deny Licensure has 60 calendar days from the date of mailing or personal service of the notice in which to file with the Department a written request for hearing or a written notice withdrawing their application for consideration.
(B) A party who has been served with a Contested Case Notice of Intent to Revoke Licensure has 20 calendar days from the date of mailing or personal service of the notice in which to file with the Department a written request for hearing.
(C) A party who has been served with a Contested Case Notice of Intent to Suspend Licensure has 10 calendar days from the date of mailing or personal service of the notice in which to file with the Department a written request for hearing.
(c) Default Order: If a timely request for a hearing is not received, the Contested Case Notice will become a final order denying, revoking or suspending licensure pursuant to OAR 137-003-0672.
(d) The Department may enter a Final Order revoking the licensure of a polygraph examiner or trainee upon the person’s withdrawal of a request for hearing and written agreement to accept the Department’s revocation of licensure as a polygraph examiner or trainee. If the person’s licensure as a polygraph examiner or trainee is revoked pursuant to this subsection, the person is ineligible for licensure as a polygraph examiner or trainee for 10 years. The Department will deny any application that the person submits for licensure as a polygraph examiner or trainee, pursuant to section (10) of this rule, if the 10 year ineligibility period has not been satisfied.
(11) Upon receipt of written notification of the suspension or revocation of a license by the Department, a polygraph examiner or trainee must immediately surrender the license to the Department.
(12) Appeal Procedure. Polygraph examiners or trainees aggrieved by the findings and Order of the Department may file an appeal with the Court of Appeals from the Final Order of the Department, as provided in ORS 183.480.
(13) A licensed polygraph examiner or trainee may request the Department accept the surrender of their license.
(a) In considering whether to accept the request to surrender licensure as a polygraph examiner or trainee, the Department may request further information from the licensee or conduct its own investigation to determine if any minimum standards for licensure have been violated and proceed pursuant to this rule.
(b) If an administrative proceeding has commenced pursuant to section (10) of this rule, the Department may, in its discretion, withdraw its Contested Case Notice of Intent and accept the person’s surrender of the polygraph examiner or trainee license.
(c) The polygraph examiner or trainee license will remain active until the Department accepts the surrender.
(d) Once the surrender has been accepted by the Department, the individual may no longer conduct polygraph examinations, refer to themselves as a polygraph examiner or offer or advertise services as a polygraph examiner.
(14) Pursuant to ORS 703.220, the Department may restore a suspended or revoked license to the prior holder upon written application and receipt by the Department of evidence that the conditions which caused the suspension or revocation have been corrected to the satisfaction of the Department.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 703.230
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 703.230, ORS 703.210 & ORS 703.220
- DPSST 17-2017, adopt filed 10/20/2017, effective 10/20/2017
Or. Admin. R. 259-020-0210 Polygraph Licensing Advisory Committee
(1) The Department may appoint a polygraph licensing advisory committee whose function is to assist and advise the Department concerning the administration of the Act.
(2) The advisory committee's duties may include, but are not limited to:
(a)The development, review or revision of exam questions for the examination for licensure as a polygraph examiner;
(b) The evaluation and selection of polygraph examiners courses to be recommended for approval by the Department;
(c) Upon the request of the Director, the review and recommendation of professional standards cases presented by the Department; and
(d) Providing consultation in the form of subject matter expert review regarding, but not limited to, polygraph instrumentation and technical or professional practices within the polygraph profession.
(3) The advisory committee will consist of three members to be appointed by the Director, each appointment to be subject to ratification by the Board at its next regular meeting.
(4) Membership of the advisory committee will consist of currently licensed polygraph examiners, one of which will be a currently employed law enforcement examiner and two of which will be from the private sector.
(5) Members of the advisory committee will be initially appointed for a three-year term and may be reappointed for one additional three-year term.
(6) The advisory committee will meet at least once per calendar year and additionally as needed.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 703.230
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 703.230
- DPSST 17-2017, adopt filed 10/20/2017, effective 10/20/2017
Or. Admin. R. 259-020-0220 Fees and Payments
(1) Payments.
(a) The Department accepts business checks, money orders, cashier’s checks, and credit cards approved by the Department. Credit card payments may require submission of additional verification information as designated by the Department. The Department does not accept personal checks or cash.
(b) Fees for licensure are due at the time of application.
(c) Amounts due to the Department are non-refundable and non-transferable.
(d) Applicants who choose to withdraw their application or fail to complete the application process forfeit their application fees.
(2) Fees charged by the Department include:
(a) Polygraph Examiner License Fee - $50;
(b) Polygraph Examiner Trainee License Fee - $35;
(c) Examination for Licensure Fee - $50;
(d) Fingerprint Criminal History Check Fee – The current fee for processing a fingerprint criminal history check may be obtained from the Department. This fee is to recover the costs of administering the fingerprint check through the Oregon State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation. This fee is separate from and does not apply to any fees charged by a fingerprinting services vendor. An additional fee will be charged for the third submittal of fingerprint cards when rejected for filing by the FBI;
(e) Duplicate or Replacement License Fee - $5; and
(f) Non-sufficient Funds (NSF) Penalty Fee - $25.
(3) If the Department receives a payment by check and the check is returned to the Department as a non-sufficient funds (NSF) check, the payer of the fees will be assessed an NSF penalty fee in addition to the required fees.
(4) Overpayment of Amounts Due.
(a) The Department will reject payments that include an overpayment of the amount due that is $10.01 or more.
(b) The Department may accept payments that include an overpayment of the amount due when the overpaid amount is $10.00 or less.
(c) Overpayment amounts that are $10.00 or less will only be refunded upon receipt of a written request from the person who made the overpayment, or the person's legal representative. The written request must be received by the Department within three years of the overpayment.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 703.230 & ORS 293.445
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 703.230, ORS 703.070, ORS 703.110, ORS 703.240 & ORS 293.445
- DPSST 22-2020, amend filed 10/22/2020, effective 10/29/2020
- DPSST 17-2017, adopt filed 10/20/2017, effective 10/20/2017
Division 25 PUBLIC RECORDS
Or. Admin. R. 259-025-0000 Public Records Requests
This rule applies to all public records for which the Department of Public Safety Standards and Training is the custodian.
(1) Submission of a Records Request. A request to inspect or obtain copies of a public record of the Department must be submitted in writing to the Department. The written request must include:
(a) The name and current contact information, such as email address, physical address and telephone number, of the person requesting the public record;
(b) Identification of the records requested by name or title or by a description of the records which may include the subject matter, the officials involved in producing the record, the time period the records were produced, or other relevant information;
(c) The number of copies needed, if copies are requested;
(d) Instruction to the Department to certify copies, if necessary; and
(e) The preferred format in which the record is requested. If the Department is unable to provide access to or a copy of the record in the requestor’s preferred format, the Department may provide access to or a copy of the record in the format in which the record is maintained after considering any steps necessary for the protection of the record and to prevent interference with the regular discharge of the Department’s duties.
(2) Fees. The Department may charge fees for providing access to or copies of public records in paper, electronic, or other format based on the Department's actual costs of preparing and providing the records. Costs associated with a request for public records may include, but are not limited to, staff time, copies, media, postage and miscellaneous costs related to providing access to or copies of requested public records.
(a) The Department must establish the fees for providing access to or copies of public records by procedure and provide a copy of the fee schedule upon request.
(b) The Department may require payment of fees prior to releasing the requested public records for inspection or before copies of the record are provided.
(c) Payments for public records fees must be made by credit or debit card, check or money order and made payable to the Department of Public Safety Standards and Training.
(3) The Department may require and designate a Department employee to supervise the inspection of requested records.
(4) The Department must prioritize public records requests to ensure that the time or effort to respond to a records request does not interfere with the regular discharge of the Department’s duties.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.410, ORS 703.230, ORS 192.318, ORS 703.480 & ORS 181A.870
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.410, ORS 703.230, ORS 192.318, ORS 703.480 & ORS 181A.870
- DPSST 69-2018, amend filed 12/04/2018, effective 12/15/2018
- DPSST 29-2018, minor correction filed 02/14/2018, effective 02/14/2018
- DPSST 15-2015, f. & cert. ef. 7-23-15
- DPSST 4-2011, f. 5-5-11, cert. ef. 6-1-11
- DPSST 10-2007, f. & cert. ef. 10-15-07
- BPSST 19-2002, f. & cert. ef. 11-21-02
- BPSST 3-1998, f. & cert. ef. 6-30-98
- BPSST 1-1998, f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98
- BPSST 2-1998(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98 thru 6-30-98
- Reverted to PS 2-1995, f. & cert. ef. 9-27-95
- PS 10-1997(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-5-97
- PS 2-1995, f. & cert. ef. 9-27-95
- PS 1-1990, f. & cert. ef. 2-7-90
- PS 1-1983, f. & ef. 12-15-83
Division 30 DIRECTOR
Or. Admin. R. 259-030-0005 The Director of the Department of Public Safety Standards and Training
This rule is adopted to further define the Department's existing express and implied statutory and Board-delegated authorities to ensure the safety and security of the Oregon Public Safety Academy; the Department itself; all persons visiting or present on Department facilities, grounds, or curtilage; and any training conducted by the Department. The Director is the head of the Department and is responsible for its administration as a state agency and for the safe operation of the Oregon Public Safety Academy, a 24-hour, seven-day-a-week, residential training facility. This rule further defines the Director’s role and authorities as the head of the Department.
(1) The Director of the Department of Public Safety Standards and Training (Department) shall be appointed by and hold office at the pleasure of the Governor pursuant to the provisions of ORS 181A.385.
(2) Authorities and Duties:
(a) The Director, with the approval of the Governor and after consulting the Board on Public Safety Standards and Training (Board) for advice, shall organize and reorganize the Department in the manner the Director considers necessary to conduct the work of the Department properly.
(b) With the approval of the Governor, the Director may appoint a Deputy Director.
(c) The Director shall be responsible to the Governor for the administration and management of the Department and the operation of the Oregon Public Safety Academy, including taking any reasonable actions the Director deems necessary to ensure the safety and security of Department staff, students, visitors, facilities, grounds, and training.
(d) In the Director’s absence, or to carry out the duties described in this rule, the Director may appoint one or more designees and may delegate specific duties and authorities to them.
(3) The Director's duties for administration and management of the agency and operation of the Oregon Public Safety Academy include, but are not limited to:
(a) Implementing and administering policies, procedures, and directives addressing safety, security, or operations as deemed necessary by the Director, the Department, or the Board, including any temporary emergency measures that the Director deems necessary;
(b) Authorizing or restricting the use, possession, or storage of any equipment, vehicles, or weapons within the Department’s buildings, facilities, grounds, or curtilage, including but not limited to equipment, vehicles, or weapons used during any training conducted by the Department or on Department grounds;
(c) Authorizing, restricting, or conditioning any person’s access, in whole or in part, to the Department’s buildings, facilities, grounds, or curtilage or to any training conducted by the Department; and
(d) Authorizing or establishing procedures regarding the suspension of training or closure, continued operation, or modified operation of the Oregon Public Safety Academy during emergencies or adverse weather conditions. This recognizes that the Department, acting through the Director, may establish and administer different protocols than other state agencies to address and mitigate circumstances that may result in students returning to their homes or agencies across the state, potentially creating greater risk than remaining at the Academy.
(4) Policies, procedures, and directives issued pursuant to this rule must be provided in writing, but do not require prior notice before implementation.
(5) Unless otherwise specified in a policy, procedure, or directive implemented pursuant to this rule, any policy, procedure, or directive implemented pursuant to this rule applies to all property and training facilities owned or operated by the Department and to any training conducted or administered by the Department, regardless of location.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.365, ORS 181A.385 & ORS 181A.410
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.365, ORS 181A.385 & ORS 181A.410
- DPSST 1-2026, adopt filed 01/22/2026, effective 01/22/2026
- DPSST 6-2025, temporary adopt filed 08/27/2025, effective 08/27/2025 through 02/22/2026
Division 59 PRIVATE SECURITY ENTITY LICENSING
Or. Admin. R. 259-059-0010 Definitions
(1) “Applicant” means a private security entity, through an entity representative, applying for or renewing licensure to operate as a private security entity.
(2) "Board" means the Board on Public Safety Standards and Training.
(3) “Department” or “DPSST” means the Department of Public Safety Standards and Training.
(4) “Entity representative” means the individual who represents the private security entity in matters of licensure as a private security entity.
(5) “Executive manager” has the meaning given that term in ORS 181A.840 and OAR 259-060-0010.
(6) “Financially interested” means any ownership interest in the private security entity that is greater than or equal to 5% of the entity.
(7) “License” means a private security entity license issued by the Department.
(8) “Licensee” means a licensed private security entity.
(9) “Person” means any individual, sole proprietorship, partnership, business, company, corporation, association, governmental entity, or other business or legal entity.
(10)(a) “Private security entity” includes any person that:
(A) For an agreed remuneration or rate of pay, recruits, solicits, supplies or employs private security providers to perform private security services for another person;
(B) For an agreed remuneration or rate of pay, recruits, solicits, supplies or employs private security providers on behalf of another employer to provide private security services; or
(C) Enters into a subcontract with another person to perform any of the activities described in subparagraph (A) or (B) of this paragraph.
(b) “Private security entity” does not include a special campus security provider commissioned under ORS 352.118 or a private security provider on a campus of an institution of higher education regulated under ORS 181A.972.
(11) “Private security provider” means any individual who performs the functions of a private security professional, executive manager, supervisory manager or instructor, as those terms are defined in ORS 181A.840 and OAR 259-060-0010.
(12) “Private security services” means the performance of at least one of the following activities:
(a) Observing and reporting unlawful activity.
(b) Preventing or detecting theft or misappropriation of goods, money or other items of value.
(c) Protecting individuals or property, including but not limited to proprietary information, from harm or misappropriation.
(d) Controlling access to premises being protected or, with respect to a licensee of the Oregon Liquor and Cannabis Commission, controlling access to premises at an entry to the premises or any portion of the premises where minors are prohibited.
(e) Securely moving prisoners.
(f) Taking enforcement action by detaining persons or placing persons under arrest under ORS 133.225.
(g) Providing canine services for guarding premises or for detecting unlawful devices or substances.
(13) “Qualified designee” means an individual who is:
(a) Employed by a private security entity that is a non-profit or governmental entity, a private security entity principally located in another state, or a private security entity with more than 100 employees; and
(b) Authorized by the principal owner or principal partner of the private security entity to represent the entity in matters of entity licensure.
(14) “Temporary Authorization Form” means a written, temporary permit to operate as a private security entity that is issued by the Department to an applicant while their application for a license is being processed.
(15) (a) “Work location or locations” means the specific place or places where a private security provider regularly reports to work or is assigned to work. “Work location or locations” include the location of the private security entity and locations such as a site, complex, park, campus, or territory where the private security entity provides private security services. Examples: an industrial complex, a hospital campus, or a territory with fixed parameters like the five-block radius surrounding a shopping district.
(b) “Work location or locations" does not include:
(A) Incidental response locations outside of regularly performed duties;
(B) Routes between work locations that are not included under the security services provided by the private security entity;
(C) Confidential public utility infrastructure locations;
(D) A private security entity’s armored car routes and stop locations; or
(E) Personal residential addresses and auxiliary locations where private security services are performed in the course and scope of personal protection services.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870 & ORS 181A.900
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.840, ORS 181A.870 & ORS 181A.900
- DPSST 9-2025, amend filed 10/23/2025, effective 10/23/2025
- DPSST 5-2024, adopt filed 04/25/2024, effective 05/01/2024
- DPSST 11-2023, temporary adopt filed 11/30/2023, effective 12/01/2023 through 05/28/2024
Or. Admin. R. 259-059-0020 Private Security Entity License Required
(1) Any person proposing to operate as a private security entity after January 1, 2024, must obtain a license or be issued a Temporary Authorization Form to provide private security services.
(2) Private security entities must provide the Department’s Internet address for license verification to a person before providing private security services to the person.
(3) Private security entity licensing requirements apply to any private security entity that provides private security services within this state, regardless of whether the private security entity is principally located in another state.
(4) The following persons do not meet the definition of a private security entity and are not required to obtain a license:
(a) Public universities employing special campus security providers commissioned under ORS 352.118 or institutions of higher education employing private security providers and regulated under ORS 181A.972.
(b) A person whose employees are exempt from the private security provider certification and licensure requirements under ORS 181A.845.
(c) An executive manager who contracts with a private security entity to provide services as an executive manager. This includes the executive manager providing private security services when the executive manager is also certified as a private security professional.
(d) A person who is the sole owner and operator of a business that provides private security services and does not employ any other private security providers.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870 & ORS 181A.900
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.840, ORS 181A.850, ORS 181A.870 & ORS 181A.900
- DPSST 9-2025, amend filed 10/23/2025, effective 10/23/2025
- DPSST 5-2024, adopt filed 04/25/2024, effective 05/01/2024
- DPSST 11-2023, temporary adopt filed 11/30/2023, effective 12/01/2023 through 05/28/2024
Or. Admin. R. 259-059-0030 Entity Representative Required / Entity Representative Responsibilities
(1) Private security entities must designate an entity representative.
(2) The entity representative must be the principal owner or principal partner who exercises operational control over the entity or a qualified designee of the principal owner or principal partner.
(3) The entity representative is responsible for:
(a) Completing the examination for licensure;
(b) Signing for and submitting the application for licensure;
(c) Providing notice to the Department of changes of information per OAR 259-059-0190;
(d) Receiving and responding to Notices and any other communication from the Department relating to the private security entity’s license; and
(e) Maintaining the private security entity’s compliance with ORS 181A.840 to 181A.918 and OAR Chapter 259 Division 59.
(4) To change the entity representative after the license has been issued, the new entity representative must:
(a) Notify the Department in writing within 10 business days of the change;
(b) Submit proof of a passing score on the private security entity examination for licensure administered by the Department; and
(c) Submit a new application for licensure if there have been any changes in the financially interested parties since the last application was submitted.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870 & ORS 181A.900
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.900
- DPSST 5-2024, adopt filed 04/25/2024, effective 05/01/2024
- DPSST 11-2023, temporary adopt filed 11/30/2023, effective 12/01/2023 through 05/28/2024
Or. Admin. R. 259-059-0040 Period of Licensure / Temporary Authorization Form
(1) A private security entity license is valid for one year unless the license is suspended or revoked. The licensing period is July 1 through June 30 of each year. Any license not renewed by June 30 will expire.
(2) The Department may combine the issuance of an initial license with the renewal of the license when there are six months or less left in the initial licensing period.
(3) The Department may issue a Temporary Authorization Form to an applicant after receipt of an application for licensure and the license fee.
(4) A Temporary Authorization Form expires when:
(a) The license is issued;
(b) The application process is administratively terminated; or
(c) The license is denied or refused renewal.
(5) When a private security entity is sold, the license or Temporary Authorization Form for the former private security entity is considered expired, effective on the final date of sale.
(6) A person may not operate as a private security entity with an expired license or expired Temporary Authorization Form.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870 & ORS 181A.900
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.900
- DPSST 5-2024, adopt filed 04/25/2024, effective 05/01/2024
- DPSST 11-2023, temporary adopt filed 11/30/2023, effective 12/01/2023 through 05/28/2024
Or. Admin. R. 259-059-0050 Examination for Licensure
(1) The applicant, through the entity representative, must successfully pass a qualifying examination (exam) for licensure. The purpose of the exam is to test the applicant’s knowledge of the private security entity’s responsibility to prevent sexual assault, sexual harassment and discrimination in the workplace.
(2) The exam must be completed for issuance and renewal of a license.
(3) The exam may be completed anytime within the 60 days before the submission of an application for licensure.
(4) The exam is administered by the Department and delivered online.
(5) The minimum passing score for the exam is 80%.
(6) Any individual who takes the exam is prohibited from disclosing the contents of the exam, including the exam questions and answers, to anyone or any entity.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870 & ORS 181A.900
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.900 & ORS 181A.904
- DPSST 5-2024, adopt filed 04/25/2024, effective 05/01/2024
- DPSST 11-2023, temporary adopt filed 11/30/2023, effective 12/01/2023 through 05/28/2024
Or. Admin. R. 259-059-0060 Application for Licensure
(1) Applications for licensure must be signed and submitted by the entity representative on behalf of the applicant.
(2) To apply for a license or renew a license, the applicant must submit a completed application, including all required attachments, and the non-refundable license fee per OAR 259-059-0070. The following information must be included with the application:
(a) Proof of general liability insurance as defined in OAR 259-059-0120;
(b) Proof of the ability to pay wages as defined in OAR 259-059-0130;
(c) An Oregon Department of Revenue Tax Compliance Certification or a statement from the applicant that, as a new entity, the entity has not been required to file taxes to date;
(d) The examination for licensure certificate of completion;
(e) The names and addresses of all persons financially interested, whether as partners, shareholders, associates or profit-sharers, in the applicant’s proposed operations as a private security entity, together with the amount of their respective interests, and whether or not, to the best of the applicant’s knowledge, any of these persons was ever denied a certificate or a license under ORS 181A.870 within the preceding three years, or had a certificate or license suspended or revoked within the preceding three years;
(f) The physical address of the work location or locations at which private security services are provided by private security professionals employed by or pursuant to a contract or subcontract with the applicant; and
(g) For each work location at which private security services are provided by private security professionals pursuant to a contract or subcontract with the applicant, the names of the private security entity or entities contracted or subcontracted with the applicant.
(3) The application and license fee to renew a license must be received by the Department no later than June 30 of each year.
(a) Applicants may submit an application and license fee for renewal beginning May 1 of each year.
(b) Failure to renew on time will result in a late fee.
(c) To continue operating as a private security entity, the license must be renewed even if the private security entity does not receive notification from the Department.
(4) The Department may administratively terminate the application process, after written notification and opportunity for correction, if the application or any required documentation is incomplete and the Department cannot satisfactorily verify application information due to non-response or non-compliance by the applicant.
(a) The Department will issue a Notice of Deficiency when the application packet is incomplete or insufficient.
(b) If the deficiency is not corrected within 30 business days of the date of the Notice of Deficiency, the application process will be administratively terminated. The Department may extend the time for compliance upon good cause shown by the applicant.
(c) Administrative termination of an application process also results in the immediate expiration of the Temporary Authorization Form.
(d) To re-apply after an administrative termination of the application process, the applicant will be required to submit a new application packet with all deficiencies corrected and new fees.
(5) Any exception to the application process found in this rule must be approved by the Department.
(6) An application for licensure may be withdrawn at any time. Applicants who choose to withdraw an application forfeit any fees.
(7) Falsification of any information in connection with an application for licensure, including supporting documentation and attachments, may result in issuance of a civil penalty under OAR 259-059-0400 or the denial, refusal to renew, revocation, or suspension of a license under OAR 259-059-0410.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870 & ORS 181A.900
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.900
- DPSST 5-2024, adopt filed 04/25/2024, effective 05/01/2024
- DPSST 11-2023, temporary adopt filed 11/30/2023, effective 12/01/2023 through 05/28/2024
Or. Admin. R. 259-059-0070 Fees and Payments
(1) The Department charges the following fees:
(a) Private Security Entity License Fee - $1030.
(b) Late Renewal Fee - $55. A late fee is required when the Department receives an application for renewal after June 30.
(c) Duplicate or Replacement License Fee - $27.
(d) Non-sufficient Funds (NSF) Penalty Fee - $25.
(2) When issuing an initial license, the Department may prorate the Private Security Entity License Fee in accordance with the remaining portion of the licensing period.
(3) Payments.
(a) The Department accepts business checks, money orders, cashier’s checks, and credit cards approved by the Department. Credit card payments may require submission of additional verification information as designated by the Department. The Department does not accept personal checks or cash.
(b) Fees for licensure are due at the time of application.
(c) Amounts due to the Department for fees or penalties are non-refundable and non-transferable.
(d) Applicants who choose to withdraw their application or fail to complete the application process forfeit their fees.
(4) If the Department receives payment of any fees or penalty by check and the check is returned to the Department as a non-sufficient funds (NSF) check, the payer of the fees or penalty will be assessed an NSF penalty fee in addition to the required payment of the fees or penalty.
(5) Overpayment of Amounts Due.
(a) The Department will reject payments that include an overpayment of the amount due that is $10.01 or more.
(b) The Department may accept payments that include an overpayment of the amount due when the overpaid amount is $10.00 or less.
(c) Overpayment amounts that are $10.00 or less will only be refunded upon receipt of a written request from the applicant or entity representative who made the overpayment, or the private security entity’s legal representative. The written request must be received by the Department within three years of the overpayment.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870 & ORS 181A.900
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.900
- DPSST 7-2026, amend filed 08/19/2026, effective 09/01/2026
- DPSST 1-2025, amend filed 01/23/2025, effective 02/01/2025
- DPSST 5-2024, adopt filed 04/25/2024, effective 05/01/2024
- DPSST 11-2023, temporary adopt filed 11/30/2023, effective 12/01/2023 through 05/28/2024
Or. Admin. R. 259-059-0080 Character, Competence, and Reliability
(1) To determine if a license will be issued or renewed, the Department must conduct an investigation of each applicant’s character, competence, and reliability, and any other matter related to the manner and method by which the applicant proposes to conduct and conducted operations as a private security entity.
(2) The Department may not issue or renew a license to operate as a private security entity until the Department is satisfied as to the applicant’s character, competence, and reliability.
(3) Evidence of unsatisfactory character, competence, or reliability includes committing an unlawful act or violating or failing to comply with any provision of ORS 181A.840 to 181A.918. For the purposes of these rules, the Department’s investigation may include, but is not limited to, a review of the following for consideration:
(a) Having an entity representative or any other person who is financially interested in the operations of the private security entity who, within the past three years:
(A) Had a private security provider certification or license denied, refused renewal, revoked, or suspended for the grounds found in OAR 259-060-0300, 259-060-0310, or 259-060,0320;
(B) Had a private security entity license denied, refused renewal, revoked, or suspended, or otherwise violated ORS 181A.840 to 181A.918 or OAR Chapter 259 Division 59; or
(C) Has been the subject of a Department investigation for a violation of ORS 181A.840 to 181A.918, OAR Chapter 259 Division 59, or OAR Chapter 259 Division 60.
(b) Failing to file or furnish all forms and other information required by ORS 181A.840 to 181A.918 or OAR Chapter 259 Division 59;
(c) Failing to comply with business tax requirements;
(d) Failing to comply with any of the federal, state, or local laws identified in ORS 181A.913 and OAR 259-059-0160, as evidenced by receipt of a final order or judgement;
(e) Failing to maintain general liability insurance as required by ORS 181A.900 and OAR 259-059-0120;
(f) Failing to maintain proof of ability to pay wages as required by ORS 181A.900 and OAR 259-059-0130;
(g) Failing to provide the Professional Workplace Training Course as required by ORS 181A.908 and OAR 259-059-0150;
(h) Failing to ensure armed private security professionals successfully complete a firearms qualification for each firearm make, model, and caliber that the armed private security professional will possess or have access to while performing private security services as required by ORS 181A.906 and OAR 259-059-0140;
(i) Failing to promptly satisfy any judgments levied against the applicant or licensee;
(j) Failing to notify the Department of a change of information as required by OAR 259-059-0190;
(k) Falsifying any information submitted on the application for licensure or on any documents submitted to the Board or the Department; or
(l) Any other violation of ORS 181A.840 to 181A.918 or OAR Chapter 259 Division 59.
(4) When evidence of unsatisfactory character, competence, or reliability is identified, the Department may be satisfied upon consideration of mitigating circumstances and corrective actions taken by the applicant or licensee.
(5) The Department may conduct an investigation of an applicant or licensee when the Department receives a protest, a complaint or any other information that demonstrates lack of character, competence, or reliability to operate as a private security entity.
(6) A change in the entity representative may constitute a change in the Department’s determination to issue or renew a license. The Department may conduct an investigation of the applicant or licensee when there is change of the entity representative.
(7) Any Department action to deny, refuse to renew, revoke, or suspend a license based on the findings of the Department’s investigation of the applicant’s or licensee’s character, competence, and reliability will be administered in accordance with OAR 259-059-0410 through 259-059-0440 and the applicable provisions of the Attorney General’s Model Rules of Procedure adopted under OAR 259-005-0015.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870 & ORS 181A.900
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.900 & ORS 181A.902
- DPSST 5-2024, adopt filed 04/25/2024, effective 05/01/2024
- DPSST 11-2023, temporary adopt filed 11/30/2023, effective 12/01/2023 through 05/28/2024
Or. Admin. R. 259-059-0090 Private Security Equipment, Vehicles, Uniforms, and Titles
(1) It is unlawful for a private security provider or an entity that employs private security providers to possess or use in the scope of employment equipment, vehicles, uniforms or titles that imply that the provider or entity is affiliated with a public or private safety agency as defined in ORS 181A.355. This includes, but may not be limited to, the following prohibited acts:
(a) Titles used to identify a private security provider may not be a title commonly used by public or private safety agencies to identify a law enforcement officer, including, but not limited to, “officer,” “police officer,” “peace officer,” “law enforcement officer,” “agent,” “deputy,” “trooper,” or “detective.” This does not apply to the use of “security officer” or the use of rank structure titles such as “sergeant,” “lieutenant,” or “chief.”
(b) Vehicles, uniforms, and the badges, patches, name tags, or other identifying labels permanently or temporarily affixed to a uniform or used for identification may not display a prohibited title as defined in subsection (a) above.
(c) Uniforms may not resemble a law enforcement uniform in style or color unless the uniform prominently displays the word “security.” “Security” may be used in combination with other private security terms such as, but not limited to, “private security,” “security officer,” or “security guard.”
(d) Vehicles may not resemble a law enforcement vehicle in style or color unless the vehicle prominently displays the word “security” on the front, rear, and sides of the vehicle. “Security” may be used in combination with other private security terms such as, but not limited to, “private security,” “security officer,” or “security guard.”
(e) Vehicles may not be equipped with red and blue light bars.
(f) Vehicles may not be equipped with bumpers capable of ramming another vehicle to cause a stall or cages unless there is a demonstrated business need and the private security entity has a written policy or procedure addressing the use of the equipment.
(2) A violation of a prohibited act outlined in section (1) of this rule may result in issuance of a civil penalty under OAR 259-059-0400 or the denial, refusal to renew, revocation, or suspension of a license under OAR 259-059-0410.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870 & ORS 181A.893
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.870 & ORS 181A.893
- DPSST 5-2024, adopt filed 04/25/2024, effective 05/01/2024
- DPSST 11-2023, temporary adopt filed 11/30/2023, effective 12/01/2023 through 05/28/2024
Or. Admin. R. 259-059-0095 Prohibited Entity Names
(1) Private security entities are prohibited from using a name that implies that the private security entity is, or is affiliated with, an existing law enforcement unit or public safety agency as defined in ORS 181A.355, the organized militia as described in ORS 396.105, the Armed Forces of the United States, a federal law enforcement agency or a federal intelligence agency.
(2) Private security entities operating under a name prior to July 1, 2016, are exempt from this restriction for as long as the private security entity is owned by the person that owned it on July 1, 2016.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870 & ORS 181A.893
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.870 & ORS 181A.893
- DPSST 5-2024, adopt filed 04/25/2024, effective 05/01/2024
- DPSST 11-2023, temporary adopt filed 11/30/2023, effective 12/01/2023 through 05/28/2024
Or. Admin. R. 259-059-0100 Designation of an Executive Manager
(1) Private security entities must have a designated executive manager who is licensed by the Department under ORS 181A.870 and OAR Chapter 259 Division 60.
(2) Private security entities may employ or contract with more than one executive manager.
(3) Private security entities must notify the Department in writing within 10 business days when the private security entity changes its designated executive manager.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870 & ORS 181A.900
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.900
- DPSST 5-2024, adopt filed 04/25/2024, effective 05/01/2024
- DPSST 11-2023, temporary adopt filed 11/30/2023, effective 12/01/2023 through 05/28/2024
Or. Admin. R. 259-059-0110 Required Policies
Private security entities must demonstrate the existence of use of force and citizen arrest policies unless the private security entity exclusively monitors alarm systems. For the purposes of this rule, demonstration of the existence of these policies means the policies must be provided to the Department upon request.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870 & ORS 181A.900
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.900
- DPSST 5-2024, adopt filed 04/25/2024, effective 05/01/2024
- DPSST 11-2023, temporary adopt filed 11/30/2023, effective 12/01/2023 through 05/28/2024
Or. Admin. R. 259-059-0120 General Liability Insurance
(1) Private security entities must be covered by a general liability insurance policy that includes public liability, personal injury, and property damage insurance covering all aspects of the private security services being provided.
(2) The general liability insurance policy must name the private security entity as the primary insured with minimum liability limits of $1,000,000 per occurrence and $2,000,000 in the aggregate.
(3) The proof of the existence of adequate insurance required for the application for licensure must include the name of the private security entity, the insured amounts, the policy number, the policy expiration date, and the name, business address, and phone number of the insurance company.
(4) Private security entities must maintain general liability insurance at all times.
(5) If the general liability insurance is cancelled or the private security entity changes insurance companies, the private security entity must:
(a) Notify the Department in writing within 10 business days of the cancellation or change; and
(b) Submit proof of insurance to the Department within 10 business days of the effective date of the new policy.
(6) If the private security entity is a public body as defined in ORS 30.260, upon approval by the Department, the private security entity may meet its obligation to maintain general liability insurance through:
(a) The purchase of insurance as described in this rule;
(b) The use of self-insurance or assessments paid under ORS 30.282 that is substantially similar to the types and amounts of insurance coverage described in this rule; or
(c) A combination of any or all of the foregoing.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870 & ORS 181A.900
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.900
- DPSST 5-2024, adopt filed 04/25/2024, effective 05/01/2024
- DPSST 11-2023, temporary adopt filed 11/30/2023, effective 12/01/2023 through 05/28/2024
Or. Admin. R. 259-059-0130 Proof of Ability to Pay Wages
(1) Private security entities must provide proof of financial ability to promptly pay the wages of executive managers, private security professionals, and supervisory managers employed by or who contract with the private security entity. Except as provided in section (6) of this rule, the form of proof must be one of the following:
(a) A corporate surety bond;
(b) An irrevocable letter of credit;
(c) A cash deposit; or
(d) A deposit the equivalent of cash.
(2) Private security entities must maintain a surety bond, irrevocable letter of credit, or deposit at all times. The amount required for proof of ability to pay wages is based on the number of executive managers, private security professionals, and supervisory managers employed by or who contract with the private security entity. The bond, letter of credit, or deposit must be:
(a) $5,000 when a private security entity has 10 or fewer executive managers, private security professionals, and supervisory managers;
(b) $10,000 when a private security entity has 11 to 20 executive managers, private security professionals, and supervisory managers;
(c) $20,000 when a private security entity has 21 to 50 executive managers, private security professionals, and supervisory managers; or
(d) $30,000 when a private security entity has more than 50 executive managers, private security professionals, and supervisory managers.
(3) Private security entities using a surety bond or irrevocable letter of credit as proof of ability to pay wages must:
(a) Notify the Department in writing within 10 business days of a cancellation or change of guarantor; and
(b) Submit new proof of ability to pay wages to the Department within 10 business days of the notice required above.
(4) An irrevocable letter of credit submitted to the Department is subject to approval by the Department prior to the issuance of a license.
(5) Private security entities using a cash deposit or a deposit the equivalent of cash must complete a trust agreement with the Department. The deposit must be in a form approved by and payable to the Department of Public Safety Standards and Training.
(6) If the private security entity is a public body as defined in ORS 30.260, upon approval by the Department, the private security entity may provide proof of the ability to pay wages in the form of a financial officer statement attesting to the private security entity’s ability to promptly pay the wages. This private security entity may also submit additional evidence such as profit and loss statements, bank account records, personnel records, or payroll records demonstrating that, during the licensing period, the private security entity has been paying the wages to their executive managers, private security professionals, and supervisory managers. The Department may request such additional evidence if not provided by the private security entity.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870 & ORS 181A.900
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.900
- DPSST 5-2024, adopt filed 04/25/2024, effective 05/01/2024
- DPSST 11-2023, temporary adopt filed 11/30/2023, effective 12/01/2023 through 05/28/2024
Or. Admin. R. 259-059-0140 Firearms Qualifications, Qualification Records, and Notice Requirements
(1) Private security entities employing armed private security professionals must ensure that each armed private security professional successfully completes a firearms qualification for each firearm make, model, and caliber that the armed private security professional will possess or have access to while performing private security services.
(2) The firearms qualifications required to comply with this rule must be completed before the armed private security professional can provide armed private security services where they would possess or have access to the corresponding make, model, and caliber of firearm.
(3) Firearms Qualifications Courses.
(a) Handgun qualifications for the make, model, and caliber of the handgun that the armed private security professional will possess or have access to while performing private security services must be conducted by a Department-certified private security firearms instructor using the qualification standards and targets found in the Department’s Basic Firearms Course for armed private security professionals.
(b) Rifle, shotgun, or other long gun qualifications must be conducted using an applicable qualification course for the make, model, and caliber of the rifle, shotgun, or long gun that the armed private security professional will possess or have access to while performing private security services and must be conducted by a qualified firearms instructor, as determined by the private security entity.
(4) Private security entities must maintain records, for at least three years, that demonstrate compliance with this rule such as the name of the armed private security professional, the make, model, and caliber of each firearm that the armed private security professional possesses or has access to while performing private security services, and the dates and records of the firearms qualifications. The records must be provided to the Department upon request.
(5) Private security entities must notify the Department in writing within 48 hours of knowledge that a certified armed private security professional or private security firearms instructor employed by the private security entity becomes ineligible to purchase, own, or possess a firearm. The notification must list all facts known of the circumstances causing the ineligibility and must identify a person whom the Department may contact for additional information.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870 & ORS 181A.900
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.900 & ORS 181A.906
- DPSST 5-2024, adopt filed 04/25/2024, effective 05/01/2024
- DPSST 11-2023, temporary adopt filed 11/30/2023, effective 12/01/2023 through 05/28/2024
Or. Admin. R. 259-059-0150 Professional Workplace Training Requirements
(1) Private security entities must provide the Professional Workplace Training Course to each private security provider. The Professional Workplace Training Course must be completed within the following timelines:
(a) If the private security provider is employed by the private security entity at the time of licensure, at least once during the first year in which the license is issued;
(b) If the private security provider is hired after the issuance or renewal date of the license, within 90 days of the private security provider’s initial date of hire; and
(c) At least once every two years after the renewal of a license.
(2) The Professional Workplace Training Course is the training course obtained by the Department, through the Bureau of Labor and Industries, for licensees to use to provide training on:
(a) Preventing sexual assault and sexual harassment in the workplace;
(b) Preventing discrimination in the workplace and promoting cultural competency; and
(c) Educating the workforce regarding protection for employees who report a violation of a state or federal law, rule or regulation.
(3) The Department will provide the Professional Workplace Training Course online, as self-paced training.
(4) Private security providers must be provided with paid time to complete the Professional Workplace Training Course and may not be required or permitted to perform their regular work duties during the time they are taking the training.
(5) Private security entities must provide private security providers with access to the appropriate resources to complete the Professional Workplace Training Course such as, but not limited to, a computer, a printer, and internet access.
(6) Private security entities must maintain records, for at least three years, that demonstrate compliance with this rule such as the name of the private security provider, the private security provider’s date of hire, and the date the private security provider completed the training. The records must be provided to the Department upon request.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870 & ORS 181A.900
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.900 & ORS 181A.908
- DPSST 5-2024, adopt filed 04/25/2024, effective 05/01/2024
- DPSST 11-2023, temporary adopt filed 11/30/2023, effective 12/01/2023 through 05/28/2024
Or. Admin. R. 259-059-0160 Statement of Employee Rights and Remedies
(1) Private security entities must provide a written statement of employee rights and remedies to each private security provider at the time of hiring.
(2) The statement of employee rights and remedies must provide a plain language description of the employee’s rights and remedies under the following laws:
(a) ORS 181A.840 to 181A.918 – Private Security Entity Licensing;
(b) ORS Chapter 652 - Hours; Wages; Wage Claims; Records;
(c) ORS Chapter 653 - Minimum Wages; Employment Conditions; Minors;
(d) ORS Chapter 654 - Occupational Safety and Health;
(e) ORS Chapter 656 - Workers’ Compensation;
(f) ORS Chapter 657 – Unemployment Insurance;
(g) ORS Chapter 657B – Family and Medical Leave Insurance;
(h) ORS Chapter 659A - Unlawful Discrimination in Employment, Public Accommodations and Real Property Transactions; Administrative and Civil Enforcement;
(i) ORS 659A.150 - 659A.186 – Oregon Family Leave Act;
(j) The Service Contract Act (41 U.S.C. 351-401); and
(k) The National Labor Relations Act (29 U.S.C. 151-169).
(3) The Department provides a form for licensees to use to comply with this rule. Licensees may use any form for providing this information to private security providers so long as it contains all the elements in the form provided by the Department.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870 & ORS 181A.900
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.900 & ORS 181A.913
- DPSST 5-2024, adopt filed 04/25/2024, effective 05/01/2024
- DPSST 11-2023, temporary adopt filed 11/30/2023, effective 12/01/2023 through 05/28/2024
Or. Admin. R. 259-059-0170 Statement of Terms and Conditions of Employment
(1) Private security entities must provide a written statement of terms and conditions of employment to each private security provider at the time of hiring.
(2) The statement of terms and conditions of employment must provide, at a minimum, a description of the following elements:
(a) Rate of pay, including the method of computing the rate of compensation;
(b) Eligibility for overtime;
(c) Scheduling information;
(d) Worksite locations;
(e) Equipment and uniforms;
(f) Vehicle use in the scope of employment;
(g) Use of firearms in the scope of employment; and
(h) Disclosure of the existence of a labor dispute at a worksite.
(3) Licensees may use any form for providing this information to private security providers so long as it contains all the elements listed in section (2) above. The Department provides a sample form that licensees may use to comply with this rule.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870 & ORS 181A.900
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.900 & ORS 181A.913
- DPSST 5-2024, adopt filed 04/25/2024, effective 05/01/2024
- DPSST 11-2023, temporary adopt filed 11/30/2023, effective 12/01/2023 through 05/28/2024
Or. Admin. R. 259-059-0180 Statement of Earnings
(1) Private security entities must provide each private security provider with a written itemized statement of earnings each time the private security provider receives a compensation payment from the private security entity.
(2) The statement of earnings must include at a minimum the following elements:
(a) The total gross payment being made;
(b) The amount and purpose of each deduction from the gross payment;
(c) The total number of hours worked during the time covered by the gross payment;
(d) The rate of pay;
(e) The net amount paid after any deductions;
(f) The employer's name, address and telephone number; and
(g) The pay period for which the payment is made.
(3) Licensees may use any form for providing this information to private security providers so long as it contains all the elements listed in section (2) above. The Department provides a sample form that licensees may use to comply with this rule.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870 & ORS 181A.900
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.900 & ORS 181A.913
- DPSST 5-2024, adopt filed 04/25/2024, effective 05/01/2024
- DPSST 11-2023, temporary adopt filed 11/30/2023, effective 12/01/2023 through 05/28/2024
Or. Admin. R. 259-059-0190 Change of Information
Private security entities must notify the Department in writing within 10 business days if there are changes to:
(1) The private security entity’s physical address, mailing address, phone number, or e-mail address.
(2) The entity representative’s physical business address, business mailing address, business phone number, or business e-mail address.
(3) The private security entity’s business name, including doing business as or operating as names.
(4) The private security services the private security entity provides by adding or ceasing to provide armed private security services.
(5) The entity representative as required by OAR 259-059-0030.
(6) The designated executive manager as required by OAR 259-059-0100.
(7) The general liability insurance as required by OAR 259-059-0120.
(8) The proof of ability to pay wages as required by OAR 259-059-0130.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870 & ORS 181A.900
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.900
- DPSST 5-2024, adopt filed 04/25/2024, effective 05/01/2024
- DPSST 11-2023, temporary adopt filed 11/30/2023, effective 12/01/2023 through 05/28/2024
Or. Admin. R. 259-059-0200 Records Retention
(1) In addition to any records required under a separate rule, private security entities must maintain the following records for at least three years from the date a record reflecting or including such information is created:
(a) The names and addresses of all persons financially interested, whether as partners, shareholders, associates or profit-sharers, in the private security entity’s operation as a private security entity, together with the amount of their respective interests;
(b) The physical address of the work location or locations at which private security services are provided by private security professionals employed by or pursuant to a contract or subcontract with the private security entity; and
(c) For each work location at which private security services are provided by private security professionals pursuant to a contract or subcontract with the private security entity, the names of the private security entity or entities contracted or subcontracted with the entity.
(2) The Department requires private security entities to retain these records for purposes relating to the application for licensure, investigation of character, competence, and reliability, and determining compliance with ORS 181A.840 to 181A.918 or OAR Chapter 259 Division 59. The records must be provided to the Department upon request.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870 & ORS 181A.900
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.900
- DPSST 5-2024, adopt filed 04/25/2024, effective 05/01/2024
- DPSST 11-2023, temporary adopt filed 11/30/2023, effective 12/01/2023 through 05/28/2024
Or. Admin. R. 259-059-0300 Complaints
(1) Any complaint or allegation made to the Department against an applicant or licensee must be submitted on a Department-approved complaint form before an investigation can be initiated unless the Department grants an exception.
(2) A complainant must file the complaint or allegation with the Department within one year of knowledge of the incident's occurrence.
(3) When the Department receives a complaint or allegation, the Department will conduct a preliminary administrative review of the complaint or allegation to ensure there is sufficient information to proceed. The Department may conduct a fact-finding preliminary investigation. The Department may consider additional credible sources of information to determine non-compliance.
(4) If the Department determines that there is sufficient information to support the complaint or allegation, the Department may open a case and conduct an investigation to gather relevant information.
(5) Applicants, licensees, entity representatives, or other involved parties must respond to any questions or requests within 20 business days after a request is mailed by the Department unless an extension is requested and approved by the Department.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870 & ORS 181A.900
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.900
- DPSST 5-2024, adopt filed 04/25/2024, effective 05/01/2024
- DPSST 11-2023, temporary adopt filed 11/30/2023, effective 12/01/2023 through 05/28/2024
Or. Admin. R. 259-059-0310 Protesting Issuance of a License
(1) Any person may protest the issuance, including renewal, of a license to any applicant. The protest may be made at any time after the license is issued as well as at any time prior to the issuance of the license.
(2) Any person protesting the issuance of a license must file the protest in writing with the Department.
(3) The written protest must contain the following information:
(a) Name, address, and phone number of the person filing the protest;
(b) Date of the protest;
(c) Name of the applicant or licensee against whom the protest is being made;
(d) A complete statement of the facts, circumstances, and other reasons for the protest. The statement should include alleged violations, approximate dates of alleged violations, names of witnesses, if any, and any documents which support the allegations; and
(e) The signature of the individual making the protest.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870 & ORS 181A.900
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.900 & ORS 181A.902
- DPSST 5-2024, adopt filed 04/25/2024, effective 05/01/2024
- DPSST 11-2023, temporary adopt filed 11/30/2023, effective 12/01/2023 through 05/28/2024
Or. Admin. R. 259-059-0400 Compliance
(1) The Department may cause administrative proceedings or court action to be initiated to enforce a private security entity’s compliance with ORS 181A.840 to 181A.918 or OAR Chapter 259 Division 59.
(2) Violations. The Department may find violation and recommend assessment of civil penalties upon finding that a private security entity has previously engaged in or is currently engaging in any of the following acts:
(a) Operating as a private security entity without a license in violation of ORS 181A.850;
(b) Using a name that implies that the private security entity is, or is affiliated with, an existing law enforcement unit or public safety agency as defined in ORS 181A.355, the organized militia as described in ORS 396.105, the Armed Forces of the United States, a federal law enforcement agency or a federal intelligence agency in violation of ORS 181A.893 and OAR 259-059-0095;
(c) Possessing or using in the scope of employment prohibited equipment, vehicles, uniforms, or titles as defined in OAR 259-059-0090;
(d) Discharging or in any other manner discriminating against private security providers in violation of ORS 181A.914;
(e) Failing to maintain a designated executive manager as required by ORS 181A.900 and OAR 259-059-0100;
(f) Failing to maintain general liability insurance as required by ORS 181A.900 and OAR 259-059-0120;
(g) Failing to maintain proof of ability to pay wages as required by ORS 181A.900 and OAR 259-059-0130;
(h) Failing to have a use of force policy and a citizen arrest policy as required by ORS 181A.900 and OAR 259-059-0110;
(i) Failing to ensure armed private security professionals successfully complete a firearms qualification for each firearm make, model, and caliber that the armed private security professional will possess or have access to while performing private security services as required by ORS 181A.906 and OAR 259-059-0140;
(j) Failing to provide the Professional Workplace Training Course as required by ORS 181A.908 and OAR 259-059-0150;
(k) Failing to provide private security providers employed by the entity with any of the statements as required by ORS 181A.913 and OAR 259-059-0160 through OAR 259-059-0180;
(l) Failing to maintain records as required by OAR Chapter 259 Division 59;
(m) Failing to notify the Department of a change of information as required by OAR 259-059-0190;
(n) Failing to file or furnish all forms and other information as required by ORS 181A.900 to 181A.918 or OAR Chapter 259 Division 59;
(o) Falsifying any information submitted on the application for licensure or on any documents submitted to the Board or the Department; or
(p) Any other violation of ORS 181A.840 to 181A.918 or OAR Chapter 259 Division 59.
(3) The Department may issue a Demand to Examine Books and Records (DEBR) to obtain any record or document related to compliance.
(a) The Department may cause inspection or audits of the records of any private security entity. Records inspected may include any document relating to the requirements of ORS 181A.840 to 181A.918 or OAR Chapter 259 Division 59.
(b) Failure to cooperate or respond to any investigative inquiries or DEBR may result in issuance of a civil penalty under this rule or the denial, refusal to renew, revocation, or suspension of a license under OAR 259-059-0410.
(4) Allegation of Non-Compliance. The Department may issue an Allegation of Non-Compliance when there is a reason to believe a violation has occurred. The purpose of this document is to provide education and allow an opportunity for the private security entity to gain compliance, within a reasonable time agreed on by the Department and the private security entity, without penalty.
(5) Notice of Violation. The Department may issue a Notice of Violation upon discovery of a violation .
(a) The Notice will include a statement of found violations and proposed sanctions, and an opportunity to provide mitigation to the Department.
(b) A private security entity served with a Notice of Violation has 10 business days from the date of mailing or personal service of the Notice to remedy the violation and pay a penalty or submit a written request for a time extension to remedy the violation and pay the penalty.
(c) The Department may extend the time to remedy a violation upon a showing of good cause.
(d) Failure to remedy a violation or request an extension within 10 business days of the mailing of the Notice of Violation may result in the assessment of a civil penalty.
(6) Notice of Intent to Propose a Civil Penalty. When the Board assesses a civil penalty, the Department will issue a Notice of Intent to Propose a Civil Penalty pursuant to the applicable provisions of the Attorney General’s Model Rules of Procedures adopted under OAR 259-005-0015.
(a) A private security entity who has been served with a Notice of Intent to Propose a Civil Penalty has 20 business days from the date of mailing or personal service of the Notice to file a written request for a hearing with the Department.
(b) If the Department receives a timely request for a hearing, it will refer the matter to the Office of Administrative Hearings in accordance with OAR 137-003-0515.
(7) Default Orders. If the Department does not receive a timely request for a hearing, the Notice of Intent to Impose a Civil Penalty will become a Final Order Imposing Civil Penalty.
(8) Resolution by Stipulation. The Department is authorized to seek resolution of a civil penalty by stipulation, subject to acceptance and approval by the Board or the Department’s Director, if:
(a) The matter is resolved before entry of a Final Order Imposing Civil Penalty;
(b) The private security entity satisfies all terms set forth by the Department within the time allowed; and
(c) Any stipulated penalty amount is received by the Department.
(9) Civil Penalty Amounts.
(a) Each 30-day period in violation of the same statute or rule is considered a separate violation by the Department.
(b) A flagrant violation occurs when a private security entity who, after being notified of a violation, continues or repeats the violation within a 36-month period after the initial violation.
(c) A private security entity will be charged a civil penalty of not less than $1,000 for the first violation and $1,500 for each flagrant violation.
(10) The Department may reduce or waive civil penalties from the amounts set in this rule at any time prior to the entry of a Final Order in situations where further mitigation warrants or the matter is resolved by stipulation.
(11) The Department will recommend the Board assess the full civil penalty amount when a private security entity fails to satisfy the terms as stipulated.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870 & ORS 181A.900
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.900 & ORS 181A.995
- DPSST 5-2024, adopt filed 04/25/2024, effective 05/01/2024
- DPSST 11-2023, temporary adopt filed 11/30/2023, effective 12/01/2023 through 05/28/2024
Or. Admin. R. 259-059-0410 Grounds to Deny, Refuse to Renew, Revoke, or Suspend a Private Security Entity License
(1) The Department must deny, refuse to renew, revoke, or suspend a license when the Department finds that an applicant’s or licensee’s character, competence, or reliability are unsatisfactory under OAR 259-059-0080.
(2) The Department may deny, refuse to renew, revoke, or suspend a license when the Department determines that an applicant or licensee:
(a) Falsified any information submitted on the application for licensure or on any documents submitted to the Board or the Department;
(b) Intentionally altered a license or Temporary Authorization Form, or used another private security entity’s license or Temporary Authorization Form;
(c) Knowingly permitted another private security entity to use the licensee’s license or Temporary Authorization Form;
(d) Failed to cooperate or respond to the Department’s investigative inquiries or requests for records relating to compliance with ORS 181A.840 to 181A.918 or OAR Chapter 259 Division 59;
(e) Failed to provide the Professional Workplace Training Course as required by ORS 181A.908 and OAR 259-059-0150;
(f) Failed to ensure armed private security professionals successfully complete a firearms qualification for each firearm make, model, and caliber that the armed private security professional will possess or have access to while performing private security services as required by ORS 181A.906 and OAR 259-059-0140;
(g) Discharged or discriminated in any way against a private security provider in violation of ORS 181A.914;
(h) Operated as a private security entity without a license in violation of ORS 181A.850;
(i) Failed to pay a civil penalty imposed by the Board when due;
(j) Received three or more civil penalties under ORS 181A.995 and OAR 259-059-0400; or
(k) Received an Emergency Suspension Order issued by the Department.
(3) Emergency Suspension. The Department must issue an Emergency Suspension Order immediately suspending a private security entity’s license when the Department finds that there is a serious danger to public health and safety.
(4) Any Board or Department action to deny, refuse to renew, revoke, or suspend a private security entity’s license will be administered in accordance with OAR 259-059-0410 through 259-059-0440 and the applicable provisions of the Attorney General’s Model Rules of Procedure adopted under OAR 259-005-0015.
(5) Nothing in this rule precludes the Department from recommending the Board impose a civil penalty in lieu of denying, refusing to renew, revoking, or suspending a license.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870 & ORS 181A.900
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.900, ORS 181A.902 & ORS 181A.995
- DPSST 5-2024, adopt filed 04/25/2024, effective 05/01/2024
- DPSST 11-2023, temporary adopt filed 11/30/2023, effective 12/01/2023 through 05/28/2024
Or. Admin. R. 259-059-0420 Department Review for Denial, Refusal to Renew, Revocation, or Suspension of a Private Security Entity License
(1) When the Department receives information from any source that an applicant or licensee may not meet the established standards for private security entity licensure, the Department will review the information to determine if substantial evidence exists to support denial, refusal to renew, revocation, or suspension of the license under ORS 181A.840 to 181A.918 or OAR Chapter 259 Division 59. Receipt of information may include, but is not limited to:
(a) Information obtained through an investigation of the applicant’s or licensee’s character, competence, and reliability for the issuance or renewal of a license;
(b) Notification from any governmental agency that the applicant or licensee has unsatisfied final judgments of the court or final orders issued which require the payment of unpaid wages to private security providers, non-compliance with business tax requirements, or a violation of ORS 181A.914;
(c) Any protest of the issuance or renewal of a license; or
(d) Any complaint submitted to the Department alleging that an applicant or licensee may have violated ORS 181A.840 to 181A.918 or OAR Chapter 259 Division 59.
(2) If the Department determines that an applicant or licensee may have violated ORS 181A.840 to 181A.918 or OAR Chapter 259 Division 59, the Department will serve the applicant or licensee with a preliminary notification of denial, refusal to renew, revocation, or suspension. The preliminary notification provides the applicant or licensee an opportunity to respond in writing to the Department’s preliminary notification to deny, refuse to renew, revoke, or suspend the license, and provides the opportunity for the applicant or licensee to surrender the license or withdraw the application for licensure.
(a) The applicant or licensee will have 10 business days from the date of the Department’s preliminary notification to provide a written response.
(b) If the applicant or licensee does not provide a written response within 10 business days, the Department will proceed with reviewing the information available and making a determination.
(3) After the opportunity to submit a written response, the Department must consider the totality of the case, which includes the violations and any aggravating or mitigating circumstances unique to the case.
(a) When the Department determines that the circumstances unique to the case mitigate the adverse impacts of the violation, the Department may issue the private security entity license or take no action to deny, refuse, revoke, or suspend the license.
(b) When the Department determines that the circumstances unique to the case do not mitigate the adverse impacts of the violation, the Department will prepare and serve a Notice of Intent on the applicant or licensee in accordance with OAR 259-059-0410 through 259-059-0440.
(4) Ineligibility Periods. When a license is denied, refused renewal, or revoked, the Final Order issued by the Department will state the ineligibility period. Except when the license is permanently revoked, the maximum ineligibility period the Department may prescribe is three years from the date of the Final Order denying, refusing to renew, or revoking the license.
(5) The administrative rules in effect on the date the Department or the Board determines that the applicant or licensee violated the standards for licensure will continue to apply until the Final Order has been issued and all appeal rights have been exhausted regardless of whether the administrative rules have been subsequently amended or repealed.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870 & ORS 181A.900
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.900
- DPSST 5-2024, adopt filed 04/25/2024, effective 05/01/2024
- DPSST 11-2023, temporary adopt filed 11/30/2023, effective 12/01/2023 through 05/28/2024
Or. Admin. R. 259-059-0430 Surrender of a Private Security Entity License
(1) A licensee may request the Department accept the surrender of the license. The request must be submitted in writing.
(2) The license remains in effect until the Department accepts the surrender.
(3) If the Department accepts the surrender, the Department will notify the licensee of the acceptance date. The person must stop operating as a private security entity as of the acceptance date.
(4) If the person wants to operate as a private security entity after the acceptance date, the person must apply for a new license by meeting all the initial requirements for licensure under ORS 181A.900 to 181A.918 and OAR Chapter 259 Division 59.
(5) If the licensee is the subject of a pending protest, complaint, or Department investigation, the Department may accept the surrender through a stipulated order revoking the license. The stipulated order may prohibit the person from being licensed for a specified ineligibility period.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870 & ORS 181A.900
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.900
- DPSST 5-2024, adopt filed 04/25/2024, effective 05/01/2024
- DPSST 11-2023, temporary adopt filed 11/30/2023, effective 12/01/2023 through 05/28/2024
Or. Admin. R. 259-059-0440 Issuance of Notice of Intent / Request for Hearing / Contested Case Procedures
(1) Upon a determination to proceed with denial, refusal to renew, revocation, or suspension of a license, the Department will prepare and serve a Notice of Intent on the applicant or licensee.
(2) Response Time.
(a) A party who has been served with a Notice of Intent to Deny Licensure has 60 business days from the date of mailing or personal service of the Notice to file a written request for hearing or a written request withdrawing their application from consideration with the Department. Applicants who choose to withdraw their application forfeit their application fees.
(b) A party who has been served with a Notice of Intent to Refuse Renewal has 60 business days from the date of mailing or personal service of the Notice to file a written request for hearing with the Department.
(c) A party who has been served with a Notice of Intent to Revoke Licensure has 20 business days from the date of mailing or personal service of the Notice to file a written request for hearing with the Department.
(d) A party who has been served with a Notice of Intent to Suspend has 20 business days from the date of mailing or personal service of the Notice to file a written request for a hearing with the Department.
(e) A party who has been served with an Emergency Suspension Order has 90 business days from the date of mailing or personal service of the Order to file a written request for hearing with the Department.
(3) Default Orders. If the Department does not receive a timely request for a hearing, the Notice of Intent will become a Final Order denying, refusing to renew, revoking, or suspending the license pursuant to OAR 137-003-0672.
(4) Hearing Request. If the Department receives a timely request for a hearing, it will refer the matter to the Office of Administrative Hearings in accordance with OAR 137-003-0515.
(5) When a hearing is requested, Proposed Orders, Exceptions, and Final Orders will be issued pursuant to the applicable provisions of the Attorney General’s Model Rules of Procedure adopted under OAR 259-005-0015.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870 & ORS 181A.900
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.900
- DPSST 5-2024, adopt filed 04/25/2024, effective 05/01/2024
- DPSST 11-2023, temporary adopt filed 11/30/2023, effective 12/01/2023 through 05/28/2024
Division 60 PRIVATE SECURITY SERVICES PROVIDERS RULES
Or. Admin. R. 259-060-0005 Objectives
(1) The objectives of the Board’s and Department's rules on private security standards and certification are to improve the private security industry services in Oregon by raising the level of competence of private security personnel, individually and collectively. This is accomplished by:
(a) Establishing and maintaining minimum standards and qualifications for the training, certification and licensure of private security providers;
(b) Establishing and maintaining minimum standards and qualifications for all training courses and testing required of private security providers; and
(c) Maintaining uniform compliance with all provisions of the Private Security Service Providers Act found in ORS 181A.840 through 181A.895 and181A.995, including the use of criminal records checks utilizing computerized criminal history information, fingerprint comparisons, and fact-finding investigations.
(2) The scope of authority between the Board and the Department as it relates to joint rulemaking is the same as ORS 181A.870.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.870 & ORS 181A.875
- DPSST 1-2024, amend filed 01/29/2024, effective 02/01/2024
- DPSST 39-2018, minor correction filed 02/27/2018, effective 02/27/2018
- DPSST 25-2012, f. 10-26-12, cert. ef. 11-1-12
- DPSST 6-2006, f. & cert. ef. 5-15-06
- BPSST 4-1999, f. 4-29-99, cert. ef. 9-5-99
- BPSST 3-1999(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 3-9-99 thru 9-5-99
- BPSST 3-1998, f. & cert. ef. 6-30-98
- BPSST 2-1998(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98 thru 6-30-98
- BPSST 1-1998, f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98
- PS 9-1997, f. & cert. ef. 8-20-97
Or. Admin. R. 259-060-0010 Definitions
(1) "Accreditation Program Manager" means a person who is designated as the administrator of an employer accredited training program and is primary liaison with the Department.
(2) "Alarm Monitor Private Security Professional" means a private security professional certified to monitor or process alarms in an alarm monitoring facility.
(3) “Alarm Monitoring Facility” means any organization, contract or proprietary, with the primary responsibility of reviewing incoming traffic transmitted to alarm receiving equipment and following up with actions that may include notification of public agencies to address imminent threats related to public safety. This does not include:
(a) Facilities that monitor only production or environmental signals not directly impacting public safety;
(b) Proprietary alarm systems being monitored by certified private security professionals that generate an internal response by another certified private security professional;
(c) Facilities that monitor Personal Emergency Response Systems (PERS) only;
(d) Facilities utilizing alarms that never generate a response from a public safety agency; or
(e) Facilities, whose alarm monitors are not required to be certified in Oregon, providing temporary assistance to an alarm monitoring facility, whose alarm monitors are certified by DPSST, when alarm monitoring services are required to be rerouted due to an unexpected facility outage or an emergency.
(4) “Applicant” means an individual who is applying for or renewing certification or licensure as a private security provider.
(5) "Armed Private Security Professional" means a private security professional who is certified to provide private security services and may possess or have access to a firearm at any time while performing private security services.
(6) "Assessments” means a Department-approved curriculum given to private security providers that includes, but is not limited to, the demonstration of task-related skills learned in the classroom instruction as applied to hypothetical situations.
(7) "Board" means the Board on Public Safety Standards and Training.
(8) "Certification" or "Certified" means recognition by the Department that a private security professional meets all the qualifications listed in ORS 181A.855 and these rules.
(9) “Confrontational Activity” means the exertion of physical control by detaining individuals.
(10) “Consideration” means something of value promised, given or done that has the effect of making an agreement to provide private security services.
(11) “Criminal Disposition” includes a conviction, violation, adjudication, civil compromise, an entered plea of guilty or no contest, or a finding of guilty except for insanity or its equivalent, for any violation of a criminal law in this state or any other jurisdiction.
(12) “Crowd Management or Guest Services” means duties performed during an organized event, including pre-event assembly and post-event departure activities relating to the organized event that involve:
(a) Directing people attending an organized event;
(b) Allowing entry into or exit out of an organized event or any area within the established confines of an organized event that requires authorized access; or
(c) Screening individuals for entry into an organized event. Screening does not include physical pat-down searches.
(13) "De Minimis" means non-monetary compensation received by a volunteer performing private security services for a non-profit organization as defined in ORS 181A.845. The compensation may not exceed a fair market value of $125 per day.
(14) “Denial” or "Deny" means the Department’s refusal to grant private security certification or issue a license to an applicant who fails to meet the minimum standards for certification or licensure as identified in OAR 259-060-0020, including the mandatory and discretionary disqualifying misconduct identified in OAR 259-060-0300, OAR 259-060-0310 and OAR 259-060-0320.
(15) "Department" and “DPSST” means the Department of Public Safety Standards and Training.
(16) "Director" means the Director of the Department of Public Safety Standards and Training.
(17) "Employer" means:
(a) An individual who employs persons to provide private security services;
(b) An owner or owners of a business or entity that provides private security services; or
(c) An owner or owners of a business or entity who employs persons to provide private security services.
(18) “Event and Entertainment Private Security Professional” means a private security professional who is certified to provide private security services solely for event or entertainment businesses or venues.
(19) “Event or Entertainment Businesses or Venues” include, but are not limited to:
(a) Bars, clubs or restaurants;
(b) Permanent event venues such as sports arenas, theaters or concert halls; or
(c) Temporary event venues or organized events such as fairs, festivals or parades.
(20) "Executive Manager" means a person:
(a) Who is authorized to act on behalf of a company or business in matters of licensure and certification;
(b) Who is authorized to hire and terminate personnel;
(c) Whose primary responsibility is the management of certified private security professionals; and
(d) Who has final responsibility for a company’s or business’s compliance with the ORS 181A.840 to 181A.893.
(21) “Flagrant Violation” means an act by a private security provider or employer who, after being notified of a violation, intentionally continues or repeats the violation within a 36 month period after the initial violation.
(22) “Fundamental” means a duty that is a basic task or function and may be low frequency, but is an essential component of a job.
(23) “Incidental or Temporary Action” means reaction to an unexpected occurrence that requires immediate response and occurs without regularity or expectation. These actions are not primary responsibilities and are for brief periods of time.
(24) "Instructor" means any person who has been certified by the Department as meeting the requirements to provide instruction to private security providers or applicants.
(25) “Jurisdiction” means any tribunal with authority to render a criminal disposition, including but not limited to municipal, state, federal including military, tribal tribunals, and any tribunal outside the United States or a United States owned territory where a criminal offense must be proven beyond a reasonable doubt.
(26) "License" or “Licensed" means recognition by the Department that an executive manager or supervisory manager meets the requirements listed in ORS 181A.855 and these rules.
(27) “Organized Event” means a temporary gathering of a crowd for a planned occasion or activity that occurs in a defined location during a specific time. An organized event has an established border or boundary.
(28) "Policy Committee" means the Private Security and Investigator Policy Committee.
(29) “Premises” means:
(a) Land or buildings considered as a property, regardless if permanent or temporary; or
(b) With respect to a licensee of the Oregon Liquor and Cannabis Commission (OLCC), a permanent place where an OLCC license is held regularly or a location where licensees can gather for a temporary amount of time.
(30) "Primary Responsibility" means an activity that is fundamental to, and required or expected in, the regular course of employment and is not merely incidental to employment.
(31) “Private” as used in references to private security within the PSSPA and OAR Chapter 259 Division 60 means those activities intended for or restricted to the use of a particular person, group or interest, or belonging to or concerning an individual person, company or interest.
(32) "Private Security Professional" means an individual who performs, as the individual's primary responsibility, private security services for consideration, regardless of whether the individual, while performing private security services, is armed or unarmed or wears a uniform or plain clothes, and regardless of whether the individual is employed part-time or full-time to perform private security services.
(33) "Private Security Provider" means any individual who performs the functions of a private security professional, executive manager, supervisory manager or instructor.
(34) "Private Security Services" means the performance of at least one of the following activities:
(a) Observing and reporting unlawful activity;
(b) Preventing or detecting theft or misappropriation of goods, money or other items of value;
(c) Protecting individuals or property, including, but not limited to proprietary information, from harm or misappropriation;
(d) Controlling access to premises being protected or, with respect to a licensee of the Oregon Liquor and Cannabis Commission, controlling access to premises at an entry to the premises or any portion of the premises where minors are prohibited;
(e) Securely moving prisoners;
(f) Taking enforcement action by detaining persons or placing persons under arrest under ORS 133.225; or
(g) Providing canine services for guarding premises or for detecting unlawful devices or substances.
(35) “Revocation” or "Revoke" means action taken by the Department to rescind the certification or licensure of a private security provider who fails to meet the minimum standards for certification or licensure as identified in OAR 259-060-0020, including the mandatory and discretionary disqualifying misconduct identified in OAR 259-060-0300, OAR 259-060-0310 and OAR 259-060-0320.
(36) "Supervisory Manager" means an employee of or a person supervised by an executive manager who has as a primary responsibility the supervision of certified private security professionals.
(37) “Surrender” means the voluntary relinquishment of private security certification or licensure to the Department.
(38) “Suspension” or "Suspend" means action taken by the Department in temporarily depriving the holder of a license or certificate that authorizes the individual to provide private security services.
(39) "Temporary Work Permit" means a temporary certification or licensure issued by an employing, licensed manager to a private security professional or executive or supervisory manager allowing the person to provide private security services while the application for certification or licensure is being processed.
(40) “The PSSPA” means the Private Security Services Providers Act, ORS 181A.840 through 181A.895 and ORS 181A.995.
(41) “Unarmed Private Security Professional” means a private security professional who is certified to provide private security services and who does not possess or have access to a firearm at any time while performing private security services.
(42) “Violation” means an act or omission that is prohibited under the PSSPA or these rules.
(43) “Withdraw” means action taken by the applicant or private security provider to remove an application from consideration.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.840 & ORS 181A.870
- DPSST 9-2025, amend filed 10/23/2025, effective 10/23/2025
- DPSST 1-2024, amend filed 01/29/2024, effective 02/01/2024
- DPSST 8-2022, minor correction filed 07/19/2022, effective 07/19/2022
- DPSST 13-2021, minor correction filed 08/05/2021, effective 08/05/2021
- DPSST 31-2020, amend filed 11/06/2020, effective 01/01/2021
- DPSST 2-2020, amend filed 01/24/2020, effective 01/24/2020
- DPSST 68-2018, amend filed 10/25/2018, effective 01/01/2019
- DPSST 65-2018, amend filed 10/25/2018, effective 10/25/2018
- DPSST 3-2018, amend filed 01/29/2018, effective 02/01/2018
- DPSST 2-2017, f. & cert. ef. 3-22-17
- DPSST 7-2016, f. & cert. ef. 6-22-16
- DPSST 20-2015, f. & cert. ef. 12-22-15
- Reverted to DPSST 8-2015, f. & cert. ef. 3-24-15
- DPSST 9-2015(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 5-19-15 thru 11-14-15
- DPSST 8-2015, f. & cert. ef. 3-24-15
- DPSST 3-2015, f & cert. ef. 1-5-15
- DPSST 12-2013, f. & cert. ef. 6-24-13
- DPSST 28-2012, f. & cert. ef. 12-24-12
- DPSST 25-2012, f. 10-26-12, cert. ef. 11-1-12
- DPSST 6-2008, f. & cert. ef. 4-15-08
- DPSST 11-2007, f. & cert. ef. 10-15-07
- DPSST 4-2007, f. & cert. ef. 2-15-07
- DPSST 6-2006, f. & cert. ef. 5-15-06
- DPSST 11-2005, f. & cert. ef. 10-14-05
- DPSST 4-2003, f. & cert. ef. 1-22-03
- BPSST 13-2002, f. & cert. ef. 4-30-02
- BPSST 4-2002(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 2-25-02 thru 7-1-02
- Reverted to BPSST 3-2000, f. & cert. ef. 8-10-00
- BPSST 18-2001(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-28-01 thru 2-18-02
- BPSST 8-2001(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 8-22-01 thru 2-18-02
- BPSST 3-2000, f. & cert. ef. 8-10-00
- BPSST 4-1999, f. 4-29-99, cert. ef. 9-5-99
- BPSST 3-1999(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 3-9-99 thru 9-5-99
- BPSST 3-1998, f. & cert. ef. 6-30-98
- BPSST 2-1998(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98 thru 6-30-98
- BPSST 1-1998, f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98
- Reverted to PS 9-1997, f. & cert. ef. 8-20-97
- PS 10-1997(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-5-97
- PS 9-1997, f. & cert. ef. 8-20-97
Or. Admin. R. 259-060-0012 Private Security Equipment, Vehicles, Uniforms and Titles
(1) It is unlawful for a private security provider or an entity that employs private security providers to possess or use in the scope of employment equipment, vehicles, uniforms or titles that imply that the provider or entity is affiliated with a public or private safety agency as defined in ORS 181A.355. This includes, but may not be limited to, the following prohibited acts:
(a) Titles used to identify a private security provider may not be a title commonly used by public or private safety agencies to identify a law enforcement officer, including, but not limited to, “officer,” “police officer,” “peace officer,” “law enforcement officer,” “agent,” “deputy,” “trooper,” or “detective.” This does not apply to the use of “security officer” or the use of rank structure titles such as “sergeant,” “lieutenant,” or “chief.”
(b) Vehicles, uniforms, and the badges, patches, name tags, or other identifying labels permanently or temporarily affixed to a uniform or used for identification may not display a prohibited title as defined in subsection (a) above.
(c) Uniforms may not resemble a law enforcement uniform in style or color unless the uniform prominently displays the word “security.” “Security” may be used in combination with other private security terms such as, but not limited to, “private security,” “security officer,” or “security guard.”
(d) Vehicles may not resemble a law enforcement vehicle in style or color unless the vehicle prominently displays the word “security” on the front, rear, and sides of the vehicle. “Security” may be used in combination with other private security terms such as, but not limited to, “private security,” “security officer,” or “security guard.”
(e) Vehicles may not be equipped with red and blue light bars.
(f) Vehicles may not be equipped with bumpers capable of ramming another vehicle to cause a stall or cages unless there is a demonstrated business need and the private security entity has a written policy or procedure addressing the use of the equipment.
(2) This rule does not apply to special campus security providers commissioned under ORS 352.118 or private security providers on campuses of institutions of higher education regulated under ORS 181A.972.
(3) These provisions apply to any business, employer or entity that provides private security services within this state, regardless of whether the business, employer or entity is located in or out of this state.
(4) A violation of a prohibited act outlined in section (1) of this rule may result in issuance of a civil penalty under OAR 259-060-0450.
(5) A violation of a prohibited act outlined in section (1) of this rule may result in denial, suspension, refusal to renew or revocation of private security provider certification or licensure under OAR 259-060-0300, OAR 259-060-0310 and OAR 259-060-0320.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870 & ORS 181A.893
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.870 & ORS 181A.893
- DPSST 4-2023, amend filed 03/09/2023, effective 03/20/2023
- DPSST 7-2022, adopt filed 05/11/2022, effective 06/01/2022
Or. Admin. R. 259-060-0015 Private Security Provider Duties, Exemptions and Prohibited Acts
(1) A person may not act as a private security provider unless that person is certified or licensed under the PSSPA and these rules.
(a) Certified armed and unarmed private security professionals are not required to be certified as an event and entertainment private security professional in order to perform or provide private security services for an event or entertainment business or venue.
(b) An event and entertainment private security professional is not authorized to perform or provide private security services for any entity that is not an entertainment business or venue unless the individual is also certified, as appropriate, as an alarm monitor, armed or unarmed private security professional.
(c) A private security professional is not authorized to independently contract with businesses or entities to provide services as a private security professional unless the professional is also licensed as an executive manager.
(d) A supervisory manager is not authorized to independently contract with businesses or entities to provide services as a supervisory manager unless the supervisory manager is also licensed as an executive manager.
(2) Private security providers must have in their possession their DPSST issued certification, license, or temporary work permit (Form PS-20) while performing the functions of a private security provider and must be able to present their certification, license, or temporary work permit to any DPSST staff member, law enforcement officer or Oregon Liquor and Cannabis Commission agent upon demand, or any other person, upon reasonable request.
(3) Persons described in ORS 181A.845 are exempt from regulation as private security providers.
(a) The exemption found in ORS 181A.845(1)(L) does not apply to an individual who has the primary responsibility of controlling access to premises at an entry to the premises or any portion of the premises where minors are prohibited.
(b) The exemption found in ORS 181A.845(1)(k) applies to individuals performing crowd management or guest services inside the established confines of an organized event and who are not armed, permitted to initiate confrontational activities, or hired with the primary responsibility of taking enforcement action as described in ORS 181A.840(9)(f).
(c) The exemption found in ORS 181A.845(1)(c) includes individuals providing private security services through a contract or sub-contract for the federal government while the individual is performing the duties of the office or employment.
(4) Private security providers are prohibited from:
(a) Carrying a concealed weapon while providing security services unless currently certified as an armed private security professional and licensed under ORS 166.291; and
(b) Using the Department logo or their license or certification to represent themselves as an agent, authorizing representative or employee of the Department.
(5) For purposes of these administrative rules, these prohibitions apply to any business, employer, or entity that provides private security services within this state regardless of whether the business, employer, or entity is located in this state.
(6) Change of Information.
(a) An applicant or private security provider must notify the Department within 14 calendar days of any change of address by using Form PS-23.
(b) Executive managers must notify the Department when a private security provider is hired and when the private security provider’s employment status changes due to a resignation or termination. Submission of the Form PS-23 is required for terminations of employment where the private security provider may have violated the PSSPA or these rules.
(c) Executive managers must submit a completed Form PS-24 within 48 hours of a change when:
(A) Beginning employment or entering a contract with an employer as an executive manager; and
(B) Terminating employment or completing a contract for an employer as an executive manager.
(7) Notification of Being Charged with a Crime.
(a) Pursuant to ORS 181A.885, any private security provider or applicant who is charged with a crime must notify their employer or, if not employed, the Department no later than 48 hours after the charge is filed.
(b) If an executive manager knows that an employee has been charged with a crime, the executive manager must notify the department of that fact no later than 48 hours after the executive manager acquired the knowledge.
(c) The notification may be made by telephone or in writing. Notification must include the charges, the county and state where the charges occurred, the date of the charges, the arresting agency, and the date of arrest. The Department may request additional documentation.
(8) Should any certified armed private security provider become ineligible to purchase, own or possess a firearm, the provider and the manager, employer or supervisor of the provider must notify the Department in writing within 48 hours of the circumstances causing the ineligibility. The notification must list all facts known and must identify a person whom the Department may contact for additional information.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.845, ORS 181A.850, ORS 181A.870 & ORS 181A.885
- DPSST 1-2024, amend filed 01/29/2024, effective 02/01/2024
- DPSST 14-2021, minor correction filed 08/05/2021, effective 08/05/2021
- DPSST 2-2020, amend filed 01/24/2020, effective 01/24/2020
- DPSST 59-2018, amend filed 07/31/2018, effective 08/01/2018
- DPSST 19-2017, amend filed 10/27/2017, effective 11/01/2017
- DPSST 4-2017, f. & cert. ef. 3-22-17
- DPSST 8-2016, f. & cert. ef. 6-22-16
- DPSST 20-2015, f. & cert. ef. 12-22-15
- Reverted to DPSST 12-2013, f. & cert. ef. 6-24-13
- DPSST 9-2015(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 5-19-15 thru 11-14-15
- DPSST 12-2013, f. & cert. ef. 6-24-13
- DPSST 28-2012, f. & cert. ef. 12-24-12
- DPSST 25-2012, f. 10-26-12, cert. ef. 11-1-12
- DPSST 9-2012, f. & cert. ef. 4-2-12
- DPSST 6-2006, f. & cert. ef. 5-15-06
- DPSST 11-2005, f. & cert. ef. 10-14-05
- DPSST 4-2003, f. & cert. ef. 1-22-03
- BPSST 13-2002, f. & cert. ef. 4-30-02
- BPSST 4-2002(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 2-25-02 thru 7-1-02
- Reverted to BPSST 3-2000, f. & cert. ef. 8-10-00
- BPSST 18-2001(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-28-01 thru 2-18-02
- BPSST 8-2001(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 8-22-01 thru 2-18-02
- BPSST 3-2000, f. & cert. ef. 8-10-00
- BPSST 4-1999, f. 4-29-99, cert. ef. 9-5-99
- BPSST 3-1999(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 3-9-99 thru 9-5-99
- BPSST 3-1998, f. & cert. ef. 6-30-98
- BPSST 2-1998(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98 thru 6-30-98
- BPSST 1-1998, f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98
- Reverted to PS 9-1997, f. & cert. ef. 8-20-97
- PS 10-1997(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-5-97
- PS 9-1997, f. & cert. ef. 8-20-97
Or. Admin. R. 259-060-0020 Minimum Standards for Certification or Licensure
(1) Age. Private security providers must be:
(a) At least 18 years of age to be certified as an alarm monitor, unarmed or event and entertainment private security professional or licensed as a supervisory manager; and
(b) At least 21 years of age to be certified as an armed private security professional or private security instructor or licensed as an executive manager.
(2) Education.
(a) Applicants for certification or licensure must have earned one of the following:
(A) A high school diploma;
(B) A General Education Development (GED) certificate; or
(C) A two-year or four-year, post-secondary degree issued by an accredited degree-granting college or university.
(b) The Department may require documentary evidence of the above. Acceptable evidence consists of official transcripts, diplomas, or GED test report forms. Other documentation may be accepted at the discretion of the Department.
(c) The requirement found in subsection (2)(a) applies only to individuals submitting an application for new certification or licensure as described in OAR 259-060-0025 on or after November 1, 2012.
(3) Training. An applicant for certification or licensing must satisfactorily complete the applicable training requirements prescribed by these rules.
(4) Moral Fitness. All applicants and private security providers must meet moral fitness standards for certification or licensure.
(a) Moral fitness is determined through a criminal records check, Department investigation, or other reliable sources.
(b) Violations of moral fitness are defined in OAR 259-060-0300, OAR 259-060-0310 and OAR 259-060-0320.
(5) Disclosure of Criminal Dispositions. An applicant for certification or licensure must disclose their criminal dispositions, including any juvenile adjudications.
(a) Any applicant with a juvenile adjudication must provide the Department with official records for the petition and any judgements issued in the adjudication.
(b) The Department may request that an applicant provide official records for any other criminal disposition.
(6) Legal Name. The Department requires use of the applicant’s or private security provider’s legal name as the name of record for all Department purposes. Any certification or license issued to the private security provider will display the legal name. When a private security provider legally changes their name they must report the legal name change to the Department within 14 calendar days of the change using Form PS-23 and provide a copy of proof of the name change.
(7) Minimum Standards for Armed Certification. An applicant for certification as an armed private security professional or firearms instructor must not:
(a) Have been committed to the Oregon Health Authority under ORS 426.130, or similar order in another jurisdiction;
(b) Have been found to be mentally ill and subject to an order under ORS 426.130 prohibiting the person from purchasing or possessing a firearm as a result of that mental illness;
(c) Be prohibited under US Code Title 18, Section 922(g)(8) (relating to civil restraining orders including stalking or harassment) from possessing a firearm in interstate commerce; or
(d) Be prohibited under any law of this state or any federal law from purchasing, owning or possessing a firearm.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870 & ORS 181A.855
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.870 & ORS 181A.855
- DPSST 1-2024, amend filed 01/29/2024, effective 02/01/2024
- DPSST 31-2020, amend filed 11/06/2020, effective 01/01/2021
- DPSST 21-2020, amend filed 09/14/2020, effective 10/01/2020
- DPSST 2-2020, amend filed 01/24/2020, effective 01/24/2020
- DPSST 38-2018, minor correction filed 02/27/2018, effective 02/27/2018
- DPSST 14-2015, f. & cert. ef. 6-23-15
- DPSST 20-2013, f. & cert. ef. 9-23-13
- DPSST 12-2013, f. & cert. ef. 6-24-13
- DPSST 25-2012, f. 10-26-12, cert. ef. 11-1-12
- DPSST 19-2008, f. & cert. ef. 10-15-08
- DPSST 6-2006, f. & cert. ef. 5-15-06
- DPSST 9-2005, f. & cert. ef. 10-14-05
- DPSST 6-2004, f. & cert. ef. 4-23-04
- DPSST 12-2003, f. & cert. ef. 7-24-03
- DPSST 10-2003(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 6-16-03 thru 12-1-03
- BPSST 13-2002, f. & cert. ef. 4-30-02
- BPSST 4-2002(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 2-25-02 thru 7-1-02
- Reverted to BPSST 3-2000, f. & cert. ef. 8-10-00
- BPSST 18-2001(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-28-01 thru 2-18-02
- BPSST 8-2001(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 8-22-01 thru 2-18-02
- BPSST 3-2000, f. & cert. ef. 8-10-00
- BPSST 4-1999, f. 4-29-99, cert. ef. 9-5-99
- BPSST 3-1999(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 3-9-99 thru 9-5-99
- BPSST 3-1998, f. & cert. ef. 6-30-98
- BPSST 2-1998(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98 thru 6-30-98
- BPSST 1-1998, f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98
- Reverted to PS 9-1997, f. & cert. ef. 8-20-97
- PS 10-1997(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-5-97
- PS 9-1997, f. & cert. ef. 8-20-97
Or. Admin. R. 259-060-0025 Application for Certification and Licensure
(1) An applicant must meet all minimum standards for the certification or license being applied for as described in OAR 259-060-0020.
(2) Application Packet and Fees.
(a) The application packet for new certification or licensure as a private security provider must be completed in its entirety and must include:
(A) A completed Form PS-1;
(B) Fingerprints submitted to the Department on a standard applicant fingerprint card or through a Department approved vendor of electronic fingerprint capture services. The Department will supply pre-printed FBI fingerprint cards. If a fingerprint card is rejected twice by the Federal Bureau of Investigation, the applicant may be charged a fee for a third submittal of fingerprint cards;
(C) Proof of successful completion of the required training. Proof must be a completed Form PS-6 issued to the applicant by a certified private security instructor or a certificate of completion issued by the Department;
(D) A completed Form PS-7 (optional);
(E) If currently employed as an alarm monitor, unarmed or event and entertainment private security professional or an executive or supervisory manager, a completed Form PS-20;
(F) All applicants for instructor certification must submit proof demonstrating they meet the instructor prerequisites as described in OAR 259-060-0135; and
(G) Nonrefundable certification or licensure fees as prescribed by OAR 259-060-0500.
(b) The application packet for renewing certification or licensure as a private security provider must be completed in its entirety and must include:
(A) A completed Form PS-21;
(B) Proof of successful completion of the required training. Proof must be a completed Form PS-6 issued to the applicant by a certified private security instructor or a certificate of completion issued by the Department;
(C) If renewing an instructor certification, a completed Form PS-8 with proof of completion or attendance for the reported continuing education. Proof can be in the form of a grade, certificate, transcript, minutes, attendance roster or training record. Other forms of proof may be accepted at the Department’s discretion;
(D) If currently employed as an alarm monitor, unarmed or event and entertainment private security professional or an executive or supervisory manager and submitting the renewal packet less than 30 days prior to the expiration of certification or licensure, a completed Form PS-20; and
(E) Nonrefundable renewal certification or licensure fees as prescribed by OAR 259-060-0500.
(c) The application packet for adding certification or licensure as a private security provider must be completed in its entirety and must include:
(A) A completed Form PS-1;
(B) Proof of successful completion of the required training. Proof must be a completed Form PS-6 issued to the applicant by a certified private security instructor or a certificate of completion issued by the Department;
(C) If currently employed and adding certification or licensure as an alarm monitor, unarmed or event and entertainment private security professional or an executive or supervisory manager, a completed Form PS-20;
(D) Nonrefundable certification or licensure fees as prescribed by OAR 259-060-0500;
(E) Individuals applying to add private security instructor certification must submit proof demonstrating they meet the instructor prerequisites as described in OAR 259-060-0135; and
(F) Individuals currently certified as an unarmed private security professional applying to add armed private security professional certification must have in their possession a copy of the Form PS-6 and the Form PS-23 while performing the duties of an armed private security professional until a new certificate is received.
(d) The application packet for upgrading from unarmed private security professional to an armed private security professional must be completed in its entirety and must include:
(A) A completed Form PS-1;
(B) Proof of successful completion of the required training. Proof must be a completed Form PS-6 issued to the applicant by a certified private security instructor or a certificate of completion issued by the Department;
(C) Nonrefundable certification or licensure fees as prescribed by OAR 259-060-0500; and
(D) Individuals currently certified as an unarmed private security professional applying to upgrade to armed private security professional certification must have in their possession a copy of the Form PS-6 and the Form PS-23 while performing the duties of an armed private security professional until a new certificate is received.
(3) Timelines.
(a) A completed application packet must be submitted electronically or mailed and postmarked to the Department prior to the applicant performing any private security services.
(b) Renewal application documents must be received by the Department within 180 days prior to the expiration date of the certification or licensure to allow for processing of the forms and criminal history check.
(c) A late submission penalty will be assessed as prescribed in OAR 259-060-0500 if reapplying after the expiration date of the certification or licensure.
(d) Applicants renewing their certification or licensure more than four years after the expiration date of the certification or licensure must submit a new application packet in accordance with subsection (2)(a) of this rule.
(4) The Department may administratively terminate the application process if the Department is unable to complete the certification process due to non-response or non-compliance, or upon the discovery of disqualifying criminal convictions or any violation of the temporary work permit provisions, the PSSPA or these rules.
(a) Once the application process has been administratively terminated, the applicant may not perform private security services.
(b) To re-apply, applicants will be required to re-submit an application packet with all deficiencies corrected, including new fees and proof of valid training.
(5) A Notice of Deficiency will be issued to an applicant whose application packet is determined by the Department to be incomplete or insufficient. If the deficiency is not corrected within 21 days of the date of the Notice of Deficiency, the application process will be administratively terminated.
(6) Any exception to the application process found in this rule must be approved by the Department.
(7) An application may be withdrawn at any time prior to issuance or denial of the requested certification or license. Applicants who choose to withdraw their application forfeit their application fees.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.870
- DPSST 1-2024, amend filed 01/29/2024, effective 02/01/2024
- DPSST 8-2023, amend filed 10/26/2023, effective 10/26/2023
- DPSST 31-2020, amend filed 11/06/2020, effective 01/01/2021
- DPSST 2-2020, amend filed 01/24/2020, effective 01/24/2020
- DPSST 11-2019, amend filed 10/24/2019, effective 10/24/2019
- DPSST 65-2018, amend filed 10/25/2018, effective 10/25/2018
- DPSST 16-2016, f. & cert. ef. 9-22-16
- DPSST 8-2016, f. & cert. ef. 6-22-16
- DPSST 26-2014, f. & cert. ef. 10-1-14
- DPSST 12-2013, f. & cert. ef. 6-24-13
- DPSST 25-2012, f. 10-26-12, cert. ef. 11-1-12
Or. Admin. R. 259-060-0030 Temporary Assignments
(1) Temporary Work Permits for Alarm Monitor, Unarmed or Event and Entertainment Private Security Professionals and Managers - Form PS-20. A temporary work permit provides temporary certification or licensure to a private security professional or executive or supervisory manager allowing the person to provide private security services while the application for certification or licensure is being processed.
(2) A licensed manager may issue a temporary work permit to an employee who has completed all application requirements to become certified as an alarm monitor, unarmed or event and entertainment private security professional or licensed as an executive or supervisory manager.
(a) Temporary work permits (Form PS-20) may not be issued to armed private security professionals or instructors.
(b) Managers may self-issue a temporary work permit upon completion of all application requirements.
(3)(a) Temporary work permits are employer specific and non-transferable. When an applicant is performing private security services for more than one employer, a temporary work permit is required for each employer.
(b) Temporary work permits are issued by completing the Form PS-20.
(A) One copy of the Form PS-20 must be submitted to the Department, either electronically or mailed and postmarked, on or before the first day the applicant performs private security services.
(B) One copy of the Form PS-20 must be retained by the employer.
(C) One copy of the Form PS-20 must be retained by the employee. The employee must have a copy of their Form PS-20 in their possession while performing the functions of a private security provider and must be able to present their copy of the Form PS-20 to any DPSST staff member, law enforcement officer or Oregon Liquor and Cannabis Commission agent upon demand, or any other person, upon reasonable request.
(c) A temporary work permit expires 120 days from the date of issuance.
(A) The date of issuance is recognized as the date the employing manager signed the Form PS-20.
(B) If a temporary work permit expires prior to the applicant’s receipt of the Department-issued certification or license, subsequent temporary work permits may be issued by the employing manager after contacting the Department and receiving approval.
(d) A lost or destroyed temporary work permit may be replaced by the employing manager without Department approval. The replacement temporary work permit will expire on the same date as the original temporary work permit.
(e) Administrative Termination of a Temporary Work Permit.
(A) The Department may, upon written notice, administratively terminate a Temporary Work Permit for the following reasons:
(i) The Department has reason to believe that a person with the applicant’s name and birth date fails to meet the minimum moral fitness standards as described in OAR 259-060-0020 and OAR 259-060-0300, OAR 259-060-0310 and OAR 259-060-0320;
(ii) An application is incomplete or the Department has been unable to verify application information to its satisfaction due to non-response or non-compliance of the applicant; or
(iii) The holder of the Temporary Work Permit has violated any provisions of the Temporary Work Permit, the PSSPA or these administrative rules.
(B) Upon notification from the Department that the Temporary Work Permit has been administratively terminated, the applicant may not perform private security services.
(C) A new application packet, including all required fees and proof of valid training, must be submitted as prescribed in OAR 259-060-0025 prior to the issuance of a new Temporary Work Permit.
(4) Reciprocity.
(a) As prescribed by ORS 181A.850(2), an employing, licensed executive manager may temporarily assign a person who is not certified as a private security professional in the state of Oregon to perform private security services in this state for a period of time not to exceed 90 days if:
(A) The person is employed in another state;
(B) The person holds a private security professional’s certification or license from another state; and
(C) The certification or licensing standards of the other state meet or exceed the standards of this state.
(b) Reciprocity must be requested on a Form PS-9.
(A) One copy of the Form PS-9 must be submitted electronically or mailed and postmarked to the Department on or before the first day the applicant performs private security services.
(B) Additional copies of the Form PS-9 must be retained by the employer and employee.
(C) The employee must have a copy of their Form PS-9 in their possession while performing the functions of a private security provider and must be able to present their copy of the PS-9 to any DPSST staff member, law enforcement officer or Oregon Liquor and Cannabis Commission agent upon demand, or any other person, upon reasonable request.
(c) Only one Form PS-9 will be authorized per private security provider in a 24-month period. Additional Form PS-9’s may be issued by contacting the Department and receiving approval prior to the issuance of the PS-9.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.870
- DPSST 1-2024, amend filed 01/29/2024, effective 02/01/2024
- DPSST 15-2021, minor correction filed 08/05/2021, effective 08/05/2021
- DPSST 5-2021, minor correction filed 01/04/2021, effective 01/04/2021
- DPSST 19-2020, amend filed 09/14/2020, effective 09/15/2020
- DPSST 9-2020, temporary amend filed 03/31/2020, effective 04/01/2020 through 09/27/2020
- DPSST 2-2020, amend filed 01/24/2020, effective 01/24/2020
- DPSST 65-2018, amend filed 10/25/2018, effective 10/25/2018
- DPSST 40-2018, minor correction filed 02/27/2018, effective 02/27/2018
- DPSST 8-2016, f. & cert. ef. 6-22-16
- DPSST 12-2013, f. & cert. ef. 6-24-13
- DPSST 25-2012, f. 10-26-12, cert. ef. 11-1-12
Or. Admin. R. 259-060-0060 Minimum Standards for Training
(1) All private security courses and examinations will be based upon a curriculum approved by the Board.
(2) All required training and testing must be conducted by a certified private security instructor or by a Department designee.
(3) Notwithstanding section (4), all required firearms courses must be administered by a certified private security firearms instructor.
(4) The Department or its designee will deliver the event and entertainment private security professional, private security instructor and manager courses.
(5) All training must be delivered in English and assessments and written exams must be completed in English, without assistance.
(6) The Department website will provide names of instructors who have requested on a Department-approved form that their names be available to applicants.
(7) The applicant or private security provider must submit proof of successful completion of the training required as specified in these rules. Successful completion of the training must be documented by submitting the following proof of completion to the Department:
(a) A completed Form PS-6 issued to the applicant by a certified private security instructor. The Form PS-6 must be signed by the certified private security instructor who administered the course; or
(b) A certificate of completion issued by the Department.
(8) To satisfy the training requirements for private security certification or licensure, training must be received and accepted by the Department within 180 days of the training being completed.
(9) Private Security Course Descriptions.
(a) Basic Classroom Instruction. Basic classroom consists of live classroom instruction which may include use of a subject matter expert, audio and visual instruction. Instructors must provide individuals with a manual of the basic curriculum. Applicants must complete a closed-book written examination.
(b) Assessments. Assessments are hands-on, practical exercises given to private security professionals that will reinforce the knowledge and techniques presented during classroom instruction. Assessments consist of evaluations and include, but are not limited to, scenarios requiring application of task-related skills learned in the basic classroom instruction.
(c) Event and Entertainment Private Security Professional Basic Course. The Event and Entertainment Private Security Professional Basic Course provides basic private security training to private security professionals who are providing private security services solely for event or entertainment businesses or venues. This is a standalone course and does not replace the unarmed private security professional basic course.
(A) The Event and Entertainment Private Security Professional Basic Course is based on curriculum approved by the Board on January 23, 2020.
(B) The Event and Entertainment Private Security Professional Basic Course consists of online training and a final exam.
(C) Students must achieve a passing score of 100% on the final exam, with remediation.
(D) The Event and Entertainment Private Security Professional Basic Course is administered by the Department and delivered online.
(d) Basic Firearms Course. Basic Firearms course must include:
(A) A minimum of 24 hours of instruction and an open-book written examination covering firearms instruction materials;
(B) A safe gun handling test; and
(C) A marksmanship qualification using firearms qualification standards and targets.
(e) Alarm Monitor Private Security Instructor Course. The alarm monitor private security instructor course teaches alarm monitor professional curriculum, instructing techniques and Department policies and procedures. The course includes classroom instruction, assessments and a written examination.
(f) Unarmed Private Security Instructor Development Course. The unarmed private security instructor development course teaches unarmed professional curriculum, instructing techniques and Department policies and procedures. The course includes classroom instruction, assessments and a written examination.
(g) Private Security Firearms Instructor Course. The private security firearms instructor course teaches armed professional curriculum instruction, instructing techniques, practical application and Department policies and procedures. The course includes classroom instruction, marksmanship qualification, safe handgun handling and a written examination.
(h) Manager Course. The manager course trains on Department policies and procedures. The course includes classroom instruction, assessments and a written examination.
(i) Firearms Marksmanship Qualification and Armed Refresher Course includes an annual firearms marksmanship qualification, the annual armed 4-hour classroom refresher course, a safe gun handling test and closed-book written examination.
(j) Biennial Renewal Training includes a four-hour biennial renewal course related to the current level of certification and in accordance with OAR 259-060-0120, 259-060-0130, and 259-060-0135.
(k) Private Security Firearms Instructor Marksmanship Qualification includes an annual firearms marksmanship qualification.
(l) Unarmed Private Security Instructor Refresher Course includes an unarmed instructor refresher update and an examination.
(m) Event and Entertainment Private Security Professional Refresher Course. The Event and Entertainment Private Security Professional Refresher Course provides refresher training for event and entertainment private security professionals to renew certification. This is a standalone course and does not replace the unarmed private security professional biennial renewal course.
(A) The Event and Entertainment Private Security Professional Refresher Course is based on curriculum approved by the Board on January 23, 2020.
(B) The Event and Entertainment Private Security Professional Refresher Course consists of online training and a final exam.
(C) Students must achieve a passing score of 100% on the final exam, with remediation.
(D) The Event and Entertainment Private Security Professional Refresher Course is administered by the Department and delivered online.
(10) Applicants must achieve a score of 100 percent on all examinations and assessments with remediation in accordance with OAR 259-060-0136(7).
(11) If a certified armed private security professional or a certified private security firearms instructor fails a firearms qualification or training course, the armed private security professional or private security firearms instructor certifications issued to that person are subject to emergency suspension and refusal to renew under OAR 259-060-0120 and OAR 259-060-0135. Firearms qualifications and training courses include the basic firearms course, the firearms marksmanship qualification and armed refresher course, the private security firearms instructor marksmanship qualification, and the private security firearms instructor course.
(12) All individuals who have previously been certified or licensed by the Department as a private security provider who have not held certification or licensure for over four years must complete the appropriate basic training in its entirety.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.870
- DPSST 8-2023, amend filed 10/26/2023, effective 10/26/2023
- DPSST 31-2020, amend filed 11/06/2020, effective 01/01/2021
- DPSST 2-2020, amend filed 01/24/2020, effective 01/24/2020
- DPSST 10-2019, amend filed 09/26/2019, effective 09/27/2019
- DPSST 68-2018, amend filed 10/25/2018, effective 01/01/2019
- DPSST 2-2016, f. & cert. ef. 3-22-16
- DPSST 8-2015, f. & cert. ef. 3-24-15
- DPSST 12-2013, f. & cert. ef. 6-24-13
- DPSST 25-2012, f. 10-26-12, cert. ef. 11-1-12
- DPSST 6-2008, f. & cert. ef. 4-15-08
- DPSST 4-2007, f. & cert. ef. 2-15-07
- DPSST 6-2006, f. & cert. ef. 5-15-06
- BPSST 13-2002, f. & cert. ef. 4-30-02
- BPSST 4-2002(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 2-25-02 thru 7-1-02
- Reverted to BPSST 3-2000, f. & cert. ef. 8-10-00
- BPSST 18-2001(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-28-01 thru 2-18-02
- BPSST 8-2001(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 8-22-01 thru 2-18-02
- BPSST 3-2000, f. & cert. ef. 8-10-00
- BPSST 4-1999, f. 4-29-99, cert. ef. 9-5-99
- BPSST 3-1999(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 3-9-99 thru 9-5-99
- BPSST 3-1998, f. & cert. ef. 6-30-98
- BPSST 2-1998(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98 thru 6-30-98
- BPSST 1-1998, f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98
- Reverted to PS 9-1997, f. & cert. ef. 8-20-97
- PS 10-1997(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-5-97
- PS 9-1997, f. & cert. ef. 8-20-97
Or. Admin. R. 259-060-0090 Challenge of Alarm Monitor Classroom Instruction and Assessment Module
(1) At the discretion of the Department, an applicant for alarm monitor supervisory manager licensure, alarm monitor executive manager licensure, or alarm monitor instructor certification employed outside the state of Oregon may challenge the basic classroom instruction training requirement described in these rules if the person has three or more years experience in the field of alarm monitoring.
(a) The applicant will only be given one opportunity to challenge the basic classroom instruction course by successfully completing the required written examination administered by the Department or designee in accordance with these rules.
(b) Failure to obtain a passing score on the challenged examination will require attendance at a basic classroom instruction course and successful completion of the examination.
(2) The Department may waive the assessment module training requirement for alarm monitor instructor certification for applicants with three or more years experience instructing in the field of alarm monitoring.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.870
- DPSST 41-2018, minor correction filed 02/27/2018, effective 02/27/2018
- DPSST 12-2013, f. & cert. ef. 6-24-13
- DPSST 25-2012, f. 10-26-12, cert. ef. 11-1-12
- DPSST 11-2007, f. & cert. ef. 10-15-07
- DPSST 6-2006, f. & cert. ef. 5-15-06
- BPSST 13-2002, f. & cert. ef. 4-30-02
- BPSST 4-2002(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 2-25-02 thru 7-1-02
- Reverted to BPSST 3-2000, f. & cert. ef. 8-10-00
- BPSST 18-2001(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-28-01 thru 2-18-02
- BPSST 8-2001(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 8-22-01 thru 2-18-02
- BPSST 3-2000, f. & cert. ef. 8-10-00
- BPSST 4-1999, f. 4-29-99, cert. ef. 9-5-99
- BPSST 3-1999(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 3-9-99 thru 9-5-99
- BPSST 3-1998, f. & cert. ef. 6-30-98
- BPSST 2-1998(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98 thru 6-30-98
- BPSST 1-1998, f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98
- Reverted to PS 9-1997, f. & cert. ef. 8-20-97
- PS 10-1997(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-5-97
- PS 9-1997, f. & cert. ef. 8-20-97
Or. Admin. R. 259-060-0092 Accreditation of Private Security Training Programs
(1) An employer seeking accreditation of training programs pursuant to ORS 181A.870 must submit a completed application, on a form approved by the Department, that identifies an accreditation program manager and includes all of the supporting documentation as specified in the application and a non-refundable $75 application fee. The Department may request additional documentation as needed.
(2) Upon receipt of an application for accreditation, the Department will provide the accreditation program manager with an estimate of the evaluation fee.
(3) Applications for accreditation that are determined by the Department to be incomplete or insufficient will be returned to the accreditation program manager with a Notice of Deficiency.
(a) The deficiencies must be corrected and resubmitted with all required information.
(b) If the deficiency is not corrected within 21 days of the date of the Notice of Deficiency, the request for accreditation will be terminated.
(4) Upon approval of an application, a written accreditation agreement will be prepared by the Department. This agreement will not be valid until signed by the Department and the accreditation program manager.
(5) An accreditation agreement expires two years from the effective date of the agreement. Employers may request a renewal of the accreditation agreement by submitting an application in accordance with section (1) of this rule.
(6) Accredited private security training programs must be instructed by Department certified private security instructors and in accordance with OAR 259-060-0136.
(7) The Department may conduct periodic reviews of an accredited program at its discretion or upon constituent request.
(a) The review may consist of physical audits, written questionnaires, and the monitoring of training and testing processes during the delivery of accredited portions of a training program.
(b) During a review, the Department will, within a reasonable amount of time, be given access to personnel training records to verify training received under an accredited program.
(8) The Department may terminate an accreditation agreement for any violation of the PSSPA or these administrative rules or a failure to comply with the terms of the accreditation agreement. When the Department terminates an accreditation agreement:
(a) The Department will provide a written notice a minimum of 14 days prior to the effective date of the termination of the accreditation agreement;
(b) Any training administered on or after the effective date of the termination must be the Board approved curriculum provided by the Department;
(c) The employer or the accreditation program manager may appeal the termination of the accreditation agreement within 30 days of the effective date of the termination by submitting the appeal in writing to the Department; and
(d) The Department may work with the employer or accreditation program manager to correct any violation and continue the accreditation agreement upon a finding of good cause.
(9) An employer who wants to use a training program that has already been accredited must also enter into an accreditation agreement with the Department before using the accredited program.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.870
- DPSST 1-2024, amend filed 01/29/2024, effective 02/01/2024
- DPSST 20-2017, amend filed 10/27/2017, effective 11/01/2017
- DPSST 25-2012, f. 10-26-12, cert. ef. 11-1-12
- DPSST 4-2007, f. & cert. ef. 2-15-07
Or. Admin. R. 259-060-0120 Private Security Professional Requirements for Certification
(1) In order to be eligible for the issuance or renewal of a private security professional certification, all private security professional applicants must:
(a) Be in compliance with the minimum standards for certification as listed in OAR 259-060-0020;
(b) Successfully complete all required training; and
(c) Submit an application for certification in accordance with OAR 259-060-0025.
(2) Alarm Monitor Private Security Professional.
(a) Basic training for an alarm monitor private security professional certification consists of successful completion of eight hours of alarm monitor basic classroom instruction and exam and a four-hour alarm monitor assessment.
(b) To renew alarm monitor private security professional certification, alarm monitor private security professionals must successfully complete the four-hour alarm monitor renewal course and exam.
(3) Unarmed Private Security Professional.
(a) Basic training for an unarmed private security professional certification consists of successful completion of 14 hours of unarmed basic classroom instruction, exam and assessments.
(b) To renew unarmed private security professional certification, unarmed private security professionals must successfully complete the four-hour unarmed renewal course and exam.
(4) Event and Entertainment Private Security Professional.
(a) Basic training for an event and entertainment private security professional certification consists of successful completion of the online event and entertainment private security professional basic course and exam.
(b) To renew event and entertainment private security professional certification, event and entertainment private security professionals must successfully complete the online event and entertainment private security professional refresher course and exam.
(5) Armed Private Security Professional.
(a) Basic training for an armed private security professional certification consists of successful completion of:
(A) Fourteen hours of unarmed basic classroom instruction, exam and assessments; and
(B) Basic firearms course as defined in OAR 259-060-0060 which consists of a minimum 24 hours of basic armed instruction, a written examination, safe gun handling test and marksmanship qualification.
(b) Certified armed private security professionals must complete the firearms marksmanship qualification and armed refresher course annually.
(A) The due date for this qualification and training requirement is determined by the Department by using the last day of the month one year from the date of the last successfully completed basic firearms course accepted by the Department or the last successfully completed firearms marksmanship qualification and armed refresher course accepted by the Department.
(B) This qualification and training requirement must be successfully completed, submitted to the Department on a Form PS-6 and accepted by the Department by the due date.
(C) Failure to meet this qualification and training requirement subjects the private security professional’s armed private security certification to emergency suspension and refusal to renew under section (8) of this rule.
(D) An armed private security professional who fails to meet this qualification and training requirement is prohibited from performing armed private security services until the required training is successfully completed and a Form PS-6 is received and accepted by the Department. After the due date, an armed private security professional may satisfy the annual firearms training requirement by:
(i) Successfully completing the firearms marksmanship qualification and armed refresher course within the 90 days following the due date identified above; or
(ii) Successfully completing the entire basic firearms course.
(c) To renew armed private security professional certification, armed private security professionals must successfully complete the biennial unarmed renewal course and must be in compliance with the annual firearms qualification and training requirements found in subsection (b) above.
(6) Department-accredited courses may satisfy the training requirements listed above.
(7) Failure to be in compliance with the minimum standards for certification in OAR 259-060-0020 or to complete any training requirements as prescribed by this rule may result in denial, suspension, refusal to renew or revocation of private security certification or licensure as prescribed in OAR 259-060-0300, OAR 259-060-0310 and OAR 259-060-0320, and civil penalties as prescribed in OAR 259-060-0450.
(8) Emergency Suspension of Armed Private Security Professional Certification. The Board has determined, based on the principles of diminishing skills, that a serious risk to public health and safety is created by certifying individuals to possess or have access to a firearm while providing private security services when those individuals do not demonstrate and provide proof of their current knowledge, skills and abilities with a firearm by meeting the firearms qualification and training requirements defined in these rules. Therefore, the Department may immediately suspend and may refuse to renew armed certifications as follows:
(a) When an armed private security professional does not successfully complete and submit proof of successful completion of the annual firearms marksmanship requalification and refresher course by the annual training due date as defined in subsection (5)(b) of this rule, the Department may immediately suspend and may refuse to renew the armed private security professional certification.
(b) When an armed private security professional fails a firearms qualification or training course as defined in OAR 259-060-0060, the Department may immediately suspend and may refuse to renew the armed private security professional and private security firearms instructor certifications. Firearms qualifications and training courses include the basic firearms course, the firearms marksmanship qualification and armed refresher course, the private security firearms instructor marksmanship qualification, and the private security firearms instructor course.
(c) Once the Department has received and accepted proof of satisfactory completion for the training requirements, the Department will withdraw the Emergency Suspension Order.
(d) Emergency suspensions and refusals to renew under this rule will be administered in accordance with OAR 259-060-0380.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.870
- DPSST 2-2026, amend filed 01/22/2026, effective 02/01/2026
- DPSST 1-2024, amend filed 01/29/2024, effective 02/01/2024
- DPSST 31-2020, amend filed 11/06/2020, effective 01/01/2021
- DPSST 20-2020, amend filed 09/14/2020, effective 09/15/2020
- DPSST 10-2020, temporary amend filed 03/31/2020, effective 04/01/2020 through 09/27/2020
- DPSST 2-2020, amend filed 01/24/2020, effective 01/24/2020
- DPSST 68-2018, amend filed 10/25/2018, effective 01/01/2019
- DPSST 3-2018, amend filed 01/29/2018, effective 02/01/2018
- DPSST 2-2016, f. & cert. ef. 3-22-16
- DPSST 8-2015, f. & cert. ef. 3-24-15
- DPSST 14-2014, f. & cert. ef. 6-24-14
- DPSST 12-2013, f. & cert. ef. 6-24-13
- DPSST 25-2012, f. 10-26-12, cert. ef. 11-1-12
- DPSST 6-2008, f. & cert. ef. 4-15-08
- DPSST 4-2007, f. & cert. ef. 2-15-07
- DPSST 6-2006, f. & cert. ef. 5-15-06
- DPSST 9-2005, f. & cert. ef. 10-14-05
- DPSST 3-2005(Temp), f. 4-25-05, cert. ef. 5-1-05 thru 10-28-05
- DPSST 4-2003, f. & cert. ef. 1-22-03
- BPSST 13-2002, f. & cert. ef. 4-30-02
- BPSST 4-2002(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 2-25-02 thru 7-1-02
- Reverted to BPSST 3-2000, f. & cert. ef. 8-10-00
- BPSST 18-2001(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-28-01 thru 2-18-02
- BPSST 8-2001(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 8-22-01 thru 2-18-02
- BPSST 3-2000, f. & cert. ef. 8-10-00
- BPSST 4-1999, f. 4-29-99, cert. ef. 9-5-99
- BPSST 3-1999(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 3-9-99 thru 9-5-99
- BPSST 3-1998, f. & cert. ef. 6-30-98
- BPSST 2-1998(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98 thru 6-30-98
- BPSST 1-1998, f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98
- Reverted to PS 9-1997, f. & cert. ef. 8-20-97
- PS 10-1997(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-5-97
- PS 9-1997, f. & cert. ef. 8-20-97
Or. Admin. R. 259-060-0125 Applying for Private Security Professional Certification with Prior Law Enforcement Experience
(1) Applicants with prior law enforcement experience may be exempt from the basic training requirements in OAR 259-060-0120 for certification as an armed, unarmed, or alarm monitor private security professional. This rule defines the eligibility for an exemption and the requirements for obtaining a private security professional certification using prior law enforcement experience as a substitute for the basic training.
(2) To be eligible for a basic training course exemption, the applicant must:
(a) Have a minimum of two years of law enforcement experience;
(b) Not have had their law enforcement certification denied, suspended, or revoked, or have an open or pending investigation, by any agency, into allegations of misconduct or a violation of the law; and
(c) Apply for certification as a private security professional within four years from the last date of active service. The last date of active service refers to the final day the applicant actively performed the duties of their position. It does not include any leave taken between that date and their official separation date.
(3) Armed Private Security Professional Certification.
(a) Prior law enforcement experience includes experience as:
(A) A police officer or reserve officer as defined in ORS 181A.355;
(B) A police officer or reserve officer employed by a federal, state, county, tribal, or municipal law enforcement agency whose training and experience is determined by the Department to be equivalent to that of a police officer or reserve officer as defined in ORS 181A.355; or
(C) A Military Police Officer, Master-At-Arms, or other military law enforcement specialty determined by the Department to be equivalent to that of a police officer or reserve officer as defined in ORS 181A.355.
(b) Eligible applicants must submit the application packet and fees required by OAR 259-060-0025 and successfully complete:
(A) The unarmed renewal course and exam; and
(B) The armed refresher course and exam, safe gun handling test, and firearms marksmanship qualification.
(4) Unarmed Private Security Professional Certification.
(a) Prior law enforcement experience includes experience as:
(A) A police officer, reserve officer, corrections officer, or parole and probation officer as defined in ORS 181A.355;
(B) A police officer, reserve officer, corrections officer, or parole and probation officer employed by a federal, state, county, tribal, or municipal law enforcement agency whose training and experience is determined by the Department to be equivalent to that of a police officer, reserve officer, corrections officer, or parole and probation officer as defined in ORS 181A.355; or
(C) A Military Police Officer, Master-At-Arms, or other military law enforcement specialty determined by the Department to be equivalent to that of a police officer, reserve officer, or corrections officer as defined in ORS 181A.355.
(b) Eligible applicants must submit the application packet and fees required by OAR 259-060-0025 and successfully complete the unarmed renewal course and exam.
(5) Alarm Monitor Private Security Professional.
(a) Prior law enforcement experience includes experience as a telecommunicator or emergency medical dispatcher as defined in ORS 181A.355;
(b) Eligible applicants must submit the application packet and fees required by OAR 259-060-0025 and successfully complete the alarm monitor renewal course and exam.
(6) Applicants have one opportunity to successfully complete the training required under sections (3), (4), and (5) of this rule.
(a) If an applicant fails the training required under sections (3), (4), or (5) of this rule, they are no longer eligible for the basic training course exemption for that private security professional certification and must complete the applicable basic training requirements in OAR 259-060-0120 for that certification.
(b) For the purposes of this rule, an applicant fails the armed refresher course if they fail the exam, the safe gun handling test, or the firearms marksmanship qualification, or are otherwise terminated from training under OAR 259-060-0136 (6).
(7) The Department may require an applicant to provide proof of their prior law enforcement experience.
(8) Applicants with prior law enforcement experience must follow all other provisions for private security provider certification and licensure under ORS Chapter 181A and OAR Chapter 259 Division 60.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.870 & ORS 181A.855
- DPSST 5-2026, adopt filed 04/23/2026, effective 04/23/2026
Or. Admin. R. 259-060-0130 Private Security Executive Manager and Supervisory Manager Licensure and Responsibilities
(1) All private security executive or supervisory manager applicants must complete an application in accordance with OAR 259-060-0025.
(2) All private security executive or supervisory manager applicants must be in compliance with the minimum standards for licensure as listed in OAR 259-060-0020.
(3) Private security executive managers are responsible for ensuring compliance of all private security providers employed by businesses or entities by which the executive manager is employed or contracted. An executive manager is authorized to perform the duties defined in OAR 259-060-0010.
(4) Private security supervisory managers have the responsibility and authority of supervising persons providing security services. A supervisory manager is authorized to perform the duties defined in OAR 259-060-0010.
(5) Basic training for executive and supervisory private security managers consists of successful completion of the following:
(a) The required basic classroom instruction, exam and assessments as defined in OAR 259-060-0120; and
(b) Manager course, exam and assessments.
(6) Biennial renewal training consists of the manager course, exam and assessments.
(7) Employing, licensed managers may issue temporary work permits to alarm monitor, unarmed, or event and entertainment private security professional and manager applicants upon verification that all application requirements have been completed.
(8) Contracted Executive Managers. An executive manager is authorized to contract with businesses or entities to provide services as an executive manager.
(a) An executive manager may be employed by or contracted with up to 10 businesses or entities in total, at any time. An executive manager may petition the Department for an exception to this limit. Any exception granted by the Department will be provided in writing and is subject to the terms and conditions established by the Department.
(b) An executive manager who contracts with businesses or entities to provide services as an executive manager is considered an employing, licensed manager.
(9) An executive manager is required to submit a completed Form PS-24 to the Department within 48 hours of beginning employment or a contract and to provide changes of information as described in OAR 259-060-0015.
(10) A licensed manager who performs private security services must complete the full training required for that classification and be certified.
(11) Failure to be in compliance with the minimum standards for licensure in OAR 259-060-0020 or to complete any training requirements as prescribed by this rule may result in denial, suspension, refusal to renew, or revocation of private security certification or licensure as prescribed in OAR 259-060-0300, OAR 259-060-0310 and OAR 259-060-0320, and civil penalties as prescribed in OAR 259-060-0450.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.870
- DPSST 2-2026, amend filed 01/22/2026, effective 02/01/2026
- DPSST 4-2024, amend filed 04/25/2024, effective 05/01/2024
- DPSST 4-2021, minor correction filed 01/04/2021, effective 01/04/2021
- DPSST 25-2020, amend filed 10/22/2020, effective 10/29/2020
- DPSST 65-2018, amend filed 10/25/2018, effective 10/25/2018
- DPSST 4-2017, f. & cert. ef. 3-22-17
- DPSST 9-2016, f. & cert. ef. 6-22-16
- DPSST 8-2015, f. & cert. ef. 3-24-15
- DPSST 3-2015, f & cert. ef. 1-5-15
- DPSST 25-2012, f. 10-26-12, cert. ef. 11-1-12
- DPSST 6-2008, f. & cert. ef. 4-15-08
- DPSST 6-2006, f. & cert. ef. 5-15-06
- DPSST 4-2003, f. & cert. ef. 1-22-03
- BPSST 13-2002, f. & cert. ef. 4-30-02
- BPSST 4-2002(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 2-25-02 thru 7-1-02
- Reverted to BPSST 3-2000, f. & cert. ef. 8-10-00
- BPSST 18-2001(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-28-01 thru 2-18-02
- BPSST 8-2001(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 8-22-01 thru 2-18-02
- BPSST 3-2000, f. & cert. ef. 8-10-00
- BPSST 4-1999, f. 4-29-99, cert. ef. 9-5-99
- BPSST 3-1999(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 3-9-99 thru 9-5-99
- BPSST 3-1998, f. & cert. ef. 6-30-98
- BPSST 2-1998(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98 thru 6-30-98
- BPSST 1-1998, f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98
- Reverted to PS 9-1997, f. & cert. ef. 8-20-97
- PS 10-1997(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-5-97
- PS 9-1997, f. & cert. ef. 8-20-97
Or. Admin. R. 259-060-0135 Private Security Instructor Requirements for Certification
(1) In order to be eligible for the issuance or renewal of an instructor certification, all private security instructor applicants must:
(a) Be in compliance with the minimum standards for certification in OAR 259-060-0020;
(b) Provide proof of experience that equals three years or more of full-time work experience, within the 10 years prior to application, as a private security provider, a military police officer, a law enforcement officer employed by a law enforcement unit as defined in ORS 181A.355 or any combination thereof;
(c) Successfully complete all required training; and
(d) Submit an application for instructor certification in accordance with OAR 259-060-0025.
(2) Alarm Monitor Private Security Instructor.
(a) The following training is required for certification as an alarm monitor private security instructor:
(A) The alarm monitor professional basic classroom instruction, assessment and exam; and
(B) The alarm monitor private security instructor course and exam.
(b) To renew alarm monitor private security instructor certification, alarm monitor private security instructors must:
(A) Successfully complete the alarm monitor private security instructor course; and
(B) Complete a minimum of eight hours of continuing education as defined by section (5) of this rule.
(c) Currently certified alarm monitor private security instructors who are also certified as an alarm monitor private security professional are exempt from the required alarm monitor private security professional renewal training if they have documented a minimum of 24 hours delivering any combination of the alarm monitor basic course or the alarm monitor renewal course during the current certification period. Documentation must be submitted with the application for renewal in the place of the Form PS-6 for the alarm monitor renewal course.
(3) Unarmed Private Security Instructor.
(a) The following training is required for certification as an unarmed private security instructor:
(A) The unarmed private security professional basic classroom instruction, assessment and exam; and
(B) The unarmed private security instructor development course and exam.
(b) To renew unarmed private security instructor certification, unarmed private security instructors must:
(A) Successfully complete the unarmed private security instructor refresher course and examination;
(B) Complete a minimum of eight hours of continuing education as defined by section (5) of this rule; and
(C) Have successfully completed either of the following unarmed instructor training requirements at least once within the three years prior to submission of an application for unarmed instructor renewal:
(i) Participation in the instructor demonstration component of the unarmed private security instructor development course; or
(ii) The unarmed private security instructor development course in its entirety.
(c) Currently certified unarmed private security instructors who are also certified as an unarmed private security professional are exempt from the required unarmed private security professional renewal training if they have documented a minimum of 28 hours delivering any combination of the unarmed basic course or the unarmed renewal course during the current certification period. Documentation must be submitted with the application for renewal in the place of the Form PS-6 for the unarmed renewal course.
(4) Private Security Firearms Instructor.
(a) The private security firearms instructor course is required for certification as a private security firearms instructor and the following prerequisites must be completed prior to attending the private security firearms instructor course:
(A) The unarmed private security professional basic classroom instruction, assessment and exam;
(B) The armed private security professional basic firearms course; and
(C) A firearms instructor development course that consists of a minimum of 40 hours. The course must have been successfully completed within the five years prior to application. Proof of successful completion is required. Approved sources include:
(i) The Handgun Instructor Development Course provided by the Department of Public Safety Standards and Training;
(ii) The Washington Criminal Justice Training Center;
(iii) The National Rifle Association Law Enforcement Instructor Development School;
(iv) The Federal Law Enforcement Training Center;
(v) The Federal Bureau of Investigation; or
(vi) A qualified firearms instructor certification course as determined by the Department.
(b) Certified private security firearms instructors must complete the firearms instructor marksmanship qualification annually. Instructors must qualify on a target authorized by the Department, within three attempts in one day.
(A) The due date for this qualification requirement is determined by the Department by using the last day of the month one year from the date of the last successfully completed private security instructor firearms course accepted by the Department or the last successfully completed annual firearms instructor marksmanship qualification accepted by the Department.
(B) This qualification requirement must be successfully completed, submitted to the Department through a Department approved submission process and accepted by the Department by the due date.
(C) Failure to meet this qualification requirement subjects the private security instructor’s private security firearms instructor certification to emergency suspension and refusal to renew under section (7) of this rule.
(D) A private security firearms instructor who fails to meet this qualification requirement is prohibited from providing services as a certified private security firearms instructor until the required qualification is successfully completed and proof of completion is received and accepted by the Department. After the due date, a private security firearms instructor may satisfy the annual firearms qualification requirement by:
(i) Successfully completing the firearms instructor marksmanship qualification within the 90 days following the due date identified above; or
(ii) Successfully completing the entire private security firearms instructor course.
(c) To renew private security firearms instructor certification, private security firearms instructors must:
(A) Be in compliance with the annual firearms instructor marksmanship qualification requirement found in subsection (b) above;
(B) Successfully complete the private security firearms instructor course; and
(C) Complete a minimum of eight hours of continuing education as defined by section (5) of this rule.
(D) During renewal years, the Department may recognize a private security firearms instructor course completed for renewal of a private security firearms instructor certification as being in compliance with the annual firearms instructor marksmanship qualification requirement found in subsection (b) above when the private security firearms instructor course is successfully completed, submitted and accepted by the Department by the annual due date.
(5) Instructor Certification Continuing Education.
(a) Continuing education must focus on instructor development or the DPSST private security professional course topics applicable to the corresponding instructor certification. Continuing education sources include training, classes, seminars, workshops, lectures, conferences and webinars.
(b) Continuing education must be submitted on a Form PS-8 and include proof of completion or attendance. Proof can be in the form of a grade, certificate, transcript, minutes, attendance roster or training record. Other forms of proof may be accepted at the Department’s discretion.
(c) Continuing education must be completed within the two years prior to application for renewal of the instructor certification.
(d) Instructors with more than one DPSST private security instructor certification must complete the continuing education for each of their instructor certifications using separate continuing education hours.
(6) Failure to be in compliance with the minimum standards for certification in OAR 259-060-0020 or to complete any training requirements as prescribed by this rule may result in denial, suspension, refusal to renew, or revocation of private security certification or licensure as prescribed in OAR 259-060-0300, OAR 259-060-0310 and OAR 259-060-0320, and civil penalties as prescribed in OAR 259-060-0450.
(7) Emergency Suspension of Instructor Certification.
(a) The Department may immediately suspend and may refuse to renew an instructor’s certification after the Department initiates an investigation and determines that substantial evidence exists to support denial, revocation, or refusal to renew the instructor’s certification under OAR 259-060-0320 for a violation of OAR 259-060-0136. The Department finds that allowing the individual to retain their instructor certification and the ability to continue instructing while the Department completes the administrative procedures to deny or revoke certification poses a serious risk to public safety. Certified private security instructors are responsible for ensuring that the training they provide to applicants and providers for the purpose of obtaining a private security certification meets the minimum standards established by the Board and the Department. Failure to comply with OAR 259-060-0136 may result in the certification of applicants who do not meet the minimum training standards required to perform private security services. This creates a risk of harm to the public, property, and other security personnel, public confidence in the private security industry, and public trust in the regulatory program.
(b) The Board has determined, based on the principles of diminishing skills, that a serious risk to public health and safety is created by certifying individuals to possess or have access to a firearm while providing private security services or instructing the private security basic firearms, marksmanship qualification, and armed refresher courses when those individuals do not demonstrate and provide proof of their current knowledge, skills and abilities with a firearm by meeting the firearms qualification and training requirements defined in these rules. Therefore, the Department may immediately suspend and may refuse to renew armed certifications as follows:
(A) When a private security firearms instructor does not successfully complete and submit proof of successful completion of the firearms instructor marksmanship qualification by the annual training due date as defined in subsection (4)(b) of this rule, the Department may immediately suspend and may refuse to renew the private security firearms instructor certification.
(B) When a private security firearms instructor fails a firearms qualification or training course as defined in OAR 259-060-0060, the Department may immediately suspend and may refuse to renew the private security firearms instructor and armed private security professional certifications. Firearms qualifications and training courses include the basic firearms course, the firearms marksmanship qualification and armed refresher course, the private security firearms instructor marksmanship qualification, and the private security firearms instructor course.
(C) Once the Department has received and accepted proof of satisfactory completion for the training requirements, the Department will withdraw the Emergency Suspension Order.
(c) Emergency suspensions and refusals to renew under this rule will be administered in accordance with OAR 259-060-0380.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.870
- DPSST 2-2026, amend filed 01/22/2026, effective 02/01/2026
- DPSST 1-2024, amend filed 01/29/2024, effective 02/01/2024
- DPSST 31-2020, amend filed 11/06/2020, effective 01/01/2021
- DPSST 20-2020, amend filed 09/14/2020, effective 09/15/2020
- DPSST 10-2020, temporary amend filed 03/31/2020, effective 04/01/2020 through 09/27/2020
- DPSST 11-2019, amend filed 10/24/2019, effective 10/24/2019
- DPSST 10-2019, amend filed 09/26/2019, effective 09/27/2019
- DPSST 68-2018, amend filed 10/25/2018, effective 01/01/2019
- DPSST 3-2018, amend filed 01/29/2018, effective 02/01/2018
- DPSST 19-2017, amend filed 10/27/2017, effective 11/01/2017
- DPSST 2-2016, f. & cert. ef. 3-22-16
- DPSST 8-2015, f. & cert. ef. 3-24-15
- DPSST 26-2014, f. & cert. ef. 10-1-14
- DPSST 12-2013, f. & cert. ef. 6-24-13
- DPSST 25-2012, f. 10-26-12, cert. ef. 11-1-12
- DPSST 6-2008, f. & cert. ef. 4-15-08
- DPSST 4-2007, f. & cert. ef. 2-15-07
- DPSST 6-2006, f. & cert. ef. 5-15-06
- DPSST 11-2005, f. & cert. ef. 10-14-05
- BPSST 13-2002, f. & cert. ef. 4-30-02
- BPSST 4-2002(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 2-25-02 thru 7-1-02
- Reverted to BPSST 3-2000, f. & cert. ef. 8-10-00
- BPSST 18-2001(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-28-01 thru 2-18-02
- BPSST 8-2001(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 8-22-01 thru 2-18-02
- BPSST 3-2000, f. & cert. ef. 8-10-00
- BPSST 4-1999, f. 4-29-99, cert. ef. 9-5-99
- BPSST 3-1999(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 3-9-99 thru 9-5-99
- BPSST 3-1998, f. & cert. ef. 6-30-98
- BPSST 2-1998(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98 thru 6-30-98
- BPSST 1-1998, f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98
- Reverted to PS 9-1997, f. & cert. ef. 8-20-97
- PS 10-1997(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-5-97
- PS 9-1997, f. & cert. ef. 8-20-97
Or. Admin. R. 259-060-0136 Private Security Instructor Responsibilities
(1) The Department certifies private security instructors to provide instruction to private security providers or applicants. This rule defines the duties and expectations of a certified private security instructor.
(2) Certification as a private security instructor authorizes the instructor to deliver private security professional courses that have been approved by the Board or accredited by the Department to satisfy the training requirements defined in OAR 259-060-0060.
(3) A private security instructor must:
(a) Be certified as an alarm monitor private security instructor in order to instruct the alarm monitor basic course and the alarm monitor renewal course.
(b) Be certified as an unarmed private security instructor in order to instruct the unarmed basic course or the unarmed renewal course.
(c) Be certified as a private security firearms instructor in order to instruct the basic firearms course, the armed refresher course, and the annual firearms marksmanship requalification and refresher course.
(4) Certified private security instructors are required to satisfy the following responsibilities through their role as an instructor:
(a) Deliver the Board approved or Department accredited course curriculum in its entirety;
(b) Met or exceed the minimum number of training hours required for the delivery of the course;
(c) Provide or use training facilities that provide a safe environment that is conducive to learning;
(d) Provide each student with a current copy of the appropriate training manuals for the student to retain upon completion of the course;
(e) Deliver course curriculum in English and administer assessments and written exams in English without assistance;
(f) Remediate or fail students in accordance with section (7) of this rule;
(g) Confirm the identity of each student by viewing a valid government issued picture ID;
(h) Maintain confidentiality of student information in accordance with state and federal laws;
(i) Maintain training records in accordance with section (8) of this rule;
(j) Offer a contract to each student, or to the employer, business or entity, when the training is being provided as a fee based service. The contract must identify what services are being provided and identify the fees for those services. Instructors who are providing training for their employer, or who are not receiving a fee for service to provide training services, are exempt from the requirement to offer a contract;
(k) Provide and maintain a professional and respectful learning environment; and
(l) Comply with the statutory and administrative rules that govern private security providers.
(5) Certified private security instructors are prohibited from:
(a) Signing a Form PS-6 for training that they did not deliver;
(b) Using the DPSST logo without authorization on any materials, advertising, websites or clothing that has not been provided and authorized by the Department; and
(c) Making bias, false, malicious, negative or disparaging comments about students, colleagues, curriculum or the Department during the delivery of private security courses or at times when actively engaged in the role of a certified private security instructor.
(6) Instructors may terminate training if, in the instructor’s opinion, the student is unfit to proceed, taking into consideration the student’s poor judgment, unsafe practices, abnormal behavior or other relevant factors. The instructor must immediately notify the student of the reason for termination of training and must also notify the Department within 48 hours in writing, using a Form PS-6.
(7) Student Remediation/Failure. When a student fails to successfully complete any portion of the required training the instructor must remediate or fail the student as follows:
(a) If a test score is between 85 and 99 percent, the instructor must remediate the incorrect test responses by reviewing each incorrect test question with the student, explaining the principle behind the question, the correct answer, and the basis for the correct answer. The instructor must assess whether oral responses from the student indicate that the student understands the underlying principles. An inappropriate answer may result in the termination of training and indication on the training affidavit that the student has failed to successfully complete the required training.
(b) If a test score is below 85 percent correct, the instructor must fail the student or require the student repeat the deficient section missed of the curriculum and retake the exam.
(c) The instructor may remediate and re-test a student who fails to score 100% on the firearms marksmanship qualification course. Students must qualify within three attempts in one day.
(d) A student who is unable to successfully achieve a training standard must be failed. Any instructor who fails a student must:
(A) Fully document the reason for failure;
(B) Retain documentation of failure in the instructor’s file for a minimum period of two years; and
(C) Notify the Department within 48 hours of the failure by submitting a completed Form PS-6 indicating that an individual has failed.
(8) Training Records.
(a) Instructors must maintain the following documents in separate class files for a period of two years:
(A) A completed Form PS-6 for each student;
(B) All written exams, assessments and any applicable qualification records;
(C) A training outline for the curriculum used, including any references to any resources used; and
(D) A class roster, including the name and address of each student.
(b) Upon successful completion of all requirements, the instructor must provide the student with a completed Form PS-6.
(c) Instructors will provide additional copies of the Form PS-6 to students at any time during the life of their training at reasonable expense to the student.
(9) Remote Training by a Certified Private Security Instructor.
(a) “Remote training” means training that is delivered using a combination of a virtual meeting platform and a learning management system to allow the students and the instructor to interact with one another using video and audio connections and participate in training, assessments, and examinations.
(b) Certified private security instructors may request authorization to provide remote training by submitting a written request and a remote training delivery plan to the Department.
(c) If the request is approved, the Department will provide the instructor with a written authorization to provide remote training. The Department’s written authorization will include the expiration date of the authorization period.
(d) An instructor must have the Department’s written authorization before providing remote training.
(e) Instructors are required to notify the Department when there are changes to the approved remote training delivery plan.
(f) When providing remote training, instructors must ensure their students have use of interactive video and audio connections to participate in and complete the training.
(g) The Department may terminate an instructor’s authorization for remote training for any violation of the PSSPA or these administrative rules or a failure to comply with the terms of the authorization. Notice of termination will be provided in writing.
(h) Instructors are prohibited from providing remote training if the authorization expires or is terminated, or if their private security instructor certification expires or is denied, suspended, or revoked.
(i) DPSST armed courses are not eligible for remote training.
(10) Failure to comply with any of the responsibilities as prescribed by this rule may result in denial, revocation, or refusal to renew private security certification or licensure as prescribed in OAR 259-060-0300, OAR 259-060-0310 and OAR 259-060-0320, civil penalties as prescribed in OAR 259-060-0450, and emergency suspension and refusal to renew as prescribed in OAR 259-060-0135.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.870, ORS 181A.840 & ORS 181A.850
- DPSST 2-2026, amend filed 01/22/2026, effective 02/01/2026
- DPSST 1-2024, amend filed 01/29/2024, effective 02/01/2024
- DPSST 8-2023, amend filed 10/26/2023, effective 10/26/2023
- DPSST 12-2022, amend filed 10/27/2022, effective 11/01/2022
- DPSST 3-2021, minor correction filed 01/04/2021, effective 01/04/2021
- DPSST 19-2017, adopt filed 10/27/2017, effective 11/01/2017
Or. Admin. R. 259-060-0145 Crowd Management or Guest Services
(1) Individuals who are performing crowd management or guest services, as defined in OAR 259-060-0010 and meet all the requirements of the exemption found in OAR 259-060-0015, are not required to be certified as a private security provider.
(2) Private security managers, contract executive managers, or employers who employ individuals to provide crowd management or guest services must:
(a) Provide one certified private security professional on-site for every 10 or fewer crowd management or guest services staff;
(b) Ensure all crowd management or guest services staff have the ability to communicate with a certified private security professional at all times; and
(c) Provide documentation confirming the appropriate staffing ratio and communication ability to the Department upon request or to any other person upon reasonable request.
(3) Civil penalties may be assessed for violation of these rules in accordance with OAR 259-060-0450.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.870
- DPSST 1-2024, amend filed 01/29/2024, effective 02/01/2024
- DPSST 20-2015, f. & cert. ef. 12-22-15
- Reverted to DPSST 8-2015, f. & cert. ef. 3-24-15
- DPSST 9-2015(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 5-19-15 thru 11-14-15
- DPSST 8-2015, f. & cert. ef. 3-24-15
- DPSST 25-2012, f. 10-26-12, cert. ef. 11-1-12
Or. Admin. R. 259-060-0201 Employer Responsibilities
(1) An employer must have a designated licensed executive manager at all times.
(2) Employers are prohibited from using a name that implies that the employer is, or is affiliated with, an existing law enforcement unit or public safety agency as defined in ORS 181A.355, the organized militia as described in ORS 396.105, the Armed Forces of the United States, a federal law enforcement agency or a federal intelligence agency. Employers operating under a name prior to July 1, 2016, are exempt from this restriction for as long as the employer’s business or entity is owned by the same person.
(3) For the purpose of this rule, these provisions apply to any employer that provides private security services within this state, regardless of whether the employer is located in or out of this state.
(4) Violation of this rule may result in the denial, revocation, suspension, or refusal to renew private security provider certification or licensure under OAR 259-060-0300 through OAR 259-060-0380 and may result in issuance of civil penalties to a private security provider or employer under OAR 259-060-0450.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870 & ORS 181A.893
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.870 & ORS 181A.893
- DPSST 9-2025, adopt filed 10/23/2025, effective 10/23/2025
Or. Admin. R. 259-060-0300 Grounds to Deny, Revoke, Suspend or Refuse to Renew Alarm Monitor Professional Certification
(1) The Board has established moral fitness standards that it has determined are critical to upholding the public’s trust in the private security profession, protecting the public and ensuring that the conduct of a private security provider or an applicant does not reflect adversely on the private security profession. The Board finds by adopting this rule that a violation of these standards is substantially related to the duties performed by a certified alarm monitor professional.
(2) The Department must deny, revoke or refuse to renew certification as an alarm monitor professional when the Department determines that the private security professional or applicant:
(a) Is required to register or is registered as a sex offender under ORS 163A.010, 163A.015, 163A.020 or 163A.025;
(b) Has been convicted of a crime listed in ORS 137.700 or convicted of a crime in any other jurisdiction in which the underlying conduct would satisfy the elements of a crime listed in ORS 137.700 if the act was committed in this state, and less than 10 years have passed since the final date of completion for all resulting imprisonment, parole, probation and post-prison supervision; or
(c) Has been convicted of a crime for any offense, other than the mandatory grounds defined in subsection (b) above, for which a maximum term of imprisonment of more than one year may be imposed under the law of the jurisdiction where the conviction occurred, and less than four years have passed since the final date of completion for all resulting imprisonment, parole, probation and post-prison supervision.
(3) The Department may deny, revoke or refuse to renew certification as an alarm monitor professional when the Department determines that the private security professional or applicant:
(a) Violated the moral fitness standards for alarm monitor professionals by:
(A) Engaging in conduct that includes dishonesty or deceit where the conduct occurred within the four years prior to certification or while certified;
(B) Engaging in conduct that resulted in a criminal disposition, other than convictions constituting mandatory grounds as defined in section (2) of this rule, that includes dishonesty or deceit where the conduct occurred within the four years prior to certification or while certified;
(C) Engaging in conduct that resulted in a criminal disposition for any violation of criminal law where the conduct occurred while providing private security services and within the four years prior to certification or while certified; or
(D) Engaging in conduct while providing private security services that constitutes harassment, stalking, intimidation, bullying, intentional or reckless physical harm or threatening harm of a person or group of people.
(b) Falsified any information submitted on the application for certification or licensure or any documents submitted to the Department pertaining to private security certification or licensure;
(c) Failed to meet or failed to comply with any provisions found in the PSSPA or these rules; or
(d) Failed to pay a civil penalty or fee imposed by the Board when due.
(4) The Department may suspend and may refuse to renew an alarm monitor private security professional’s certification upon finding that the private security provider has been charged with a crime that is grounds for denial or revocation as defined in sections (2) and (3) of this rule. If the Department finds there is a serious danger to the public health or safety, the Department may immediately suspend the certification pursuant to OAR 137-003-0560. The report of a charge may be in any form and from any source.
(5) The Department may suspend and may refuse to renew an alarm monitor private security professional’s certification upon finding that the private security provider no longer meets the minimum standards found in OAR 259-060-0020. If the Department finds there is a serious danger to the public health or safety, the Department may immediately suspend the certification pursuant to OAR 137-003-0560.
(6) When the Department denies, revokes, suspends or refuses to renew certification as an alarm monitor professional for the mandatory or discretionary grounds defined in this rule, the denial, revocation, suspension or refusal to renew will be administered in accordance with OAR 259-060-0380.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.870, ORS 181A.850, ORS 181A.855, ORS 181A.880 & ORS 181A.885
- DPSST 2-2026, amend filed 01/22/2026, effective 02/01/2026
- DPSST 1-2024, amend filed 01/29/2024, effective 02/01/2024
- DPSST 31-2020, amend filed 11/06/2020, effective 01/01/2021
- DPSST 68-2018, amend filed 10/25/2018, effective 01/01/2019
- DPSST 3-2018, amend filed 01/29/2018, effective 02/01/2018
- DPSST 21-2017, amend filed 12/05/2017, effective 12/20/2017
- DPSST 10-2017(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 6-23-17 thru 12-19-17
- DPSST 5-2015, f. & cert. ef. 3-24-15
- DPSST 20-2014, f. & cert. ef. 7-30-14
- DPSST 15-2014, f. & cert. ef. 6-24-14
- DPSST 8-2014(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 3-6-14 thru 8-1-14
- DPSST 4-2014, f. & cert. ef. 1-28-14
- DPSST 3-2014, f. & cert. ef. 1-2-14
- DPSST 12-2013, f. & cert. ef. 6-24-13
- DPSST 25-2012, f. 10-26-12, cert. ef. 11-1-12
- DPSST 6-2006, f. & cert. ef. 5-15-06
- DPSST 10-2005, f. & cert. ef. 10-14-05
- DPSST 5-2005(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 8-3-05 thru 1-1-06
- DPSST 6-2004, f. & cert. ef. 4-23-04
- DPSST 12-2003, f. & cert. ef. 7-24-03
- DPSST 10-2003(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 6-16-03 thru 12-1-03
- DPSST 4-2003, f. & cert. ef. 1-22-03
- BPSST 13-2002, f. & cert. ef. 4-30-02
- BPSST 4-2002(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 2-25-02 thru 7-1-02
- Reverted to BPSST 3-2000, f. & cert. ef. 8-10-00
- BPSST 18-2001(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-28-01 thru 2-18-02
- BPSST 8-2001(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 8-22-01 thru 2-18-02
- BPSST 3-2000, f. & cert. ef. 8-10-00
- BPSST 4-1999, f. 4-29-99, cert. ef. 9-5-99
- BPSST 3-1999(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 3-9-99 thru 9-5-99
- BPSST 3-1998, f. & cert. ef. 6-30-98
- BPSST 1-1998, f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98
- BPSST 2-1998(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98 thru 6-30-98
- Reverted to PS 9-1997, f. & cert. ef. 8-20-97
- PS 10-1997(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-5-97
- PS 9-1997, f. & cert. ef. 8-20-97
Or. Admin. R. 259-060-0310 Grounds to Deny, Revoke, Suspend or Refuse to Renew Unarmed Private Security Professional Certification and Event and Entertainment Private Security Professional Certification
(1) The Board has established moral fitness standards that it has determined are critical to upholding the public’s trust in the private security profession, protecting the public and ensuring that the conduct of a private security provider or an applicant does not reflect adversely on the private security profession. The Board finds by adopting this rule that a violation of these standards is substantially related to the duties performed by a certified unarmed private security professional or an event and entertainment private security professional.
(2) The Department must deny, revoke or refuse to renew certification as an unarmed private security professional or an event and entertainment private security professional when the Department determines that the private security professional or applicant:
(a) Is required to register or is registered as a sex offender under ORS 163A.010, 163A.015, 163A.020 or 163A.025;
(b) Has been convicted of a crime listed in ORS 137.700 or convicted of a crime in any other jurisdiction in which the underlying conduct would satisfy the elements of a crime listed in ORS 137.700 if the act was committed in this state, and less than 10 years have passed since the final date of completion for all resulting imprisonment, parole, probation and post-prison supervision; or
(c) Has been convicted of a crime for any offense, other than the mandatory grounds defined in subsection (b) above, for which a maximum term of imprisonment of more than one year may be imposed under the law of the jurisdiction where the conviction occurred, and less than four years have passed since the final date of completion for all resulting imprisonment, parole, probation and post-prison supervision.
(3) The Department may deny, revoke or refuse to renew certification as an unarmed private security professional or an event and entertainment private security professional when the Department determines that the private security professional or applicant:
(a) Violated the moral fitness standards for unarmed private security professionals and event and entertainment private security professionals by:
(A) Engaging in conduct that includes dishonesty or deceit, sexual misconduct, drug related misconduct, destruction of property, or violence, abuse or neglect against a person or animal where the conduct occurred within the four years prior to certification or while certified;
(B) Engaging in conduct that resulted in a criminal disposition, other than convictions constituting mandatory grounds as defined in section (2) of this rule, that includes dishonesty or deceit, a sexual offense, a drug offense, destruction of property, or violence, abuse or neglect against a person or animal where the conduct occurred within the four years prior to certification or while certified;
(C) Engaging in conduct that resulted in a criminal disposition for any violation of criminal law where the conduct occurred while providing private security services and within the four years prior to certification or while certified; or
(D) Engaging in conduct while providing private security services that constitutes harassment, stalking, intimidation, bullying, intentional or reckless physical harm or threatening harm of a person or group of people.
(b) Falsified any information submitted on the application for certification or licensure or any documents submitted to the Department pertaining to private security certification or licensure;
(c) Failed to meet or failed to comply with any provisions found in the PSSPA or these rules; or
(d) Failed to pay a civil penalty or fee imposed by the Board when due.
(4) The Department may suspend and may refuse to renew an unarmed private security professional’s or an event and entertainment private security professional’s certification upon finding that the private security provider has been charged with a crime that is grounds for denial or revocation as defined in sections (2) and (3) of this rule. If the Department finds there is a serious danger to the public health or safety, the Department may immediately suspend the certification pursuant to OAR 137-003-0560. The report of a charge may be in any form and from any source.
(5) The Department may suspend and may refuse to renew an unarmed private security professional’s or an event and entertainment private security professional’s certification upon finding that the private security provider no longer meets the minimum standards found in OAR 259-060-0020. If the Department finds there is a serious danger to the public health or safety, the Department may immediately suspend the certification pursuant to OAR 137-003-0560.
(6) When the Department denies, revokes, suspends or refuses to renew certification as an unarmed private security professional or an event and entertainment private security professional for the mandatory or discretionary grounds defined in this rule, the denial, revocation, suspension or refusal to renew will be administered in accordance with OAR 259-060-0380.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.870, ORS 181A.855, ORS 181A.875, ORS 181A.880 & ORS 181A.885
- DPSST 2-2026, amend filed 01/22/2026, effective 02/01/2026
- DPSST 1-2024, amend filed 01/29/2024, effective 02/01/2024
- DPSST 31-2020, adopt filed 11/06/2020, effective 01/01/2021
Or. Admin. R. 259-060-0320 Grounds to Deny, Revoke, Suspend or Refuse to Renew Armed Private Security Professional Certification, Private Security Instructor Certification, and Executive or Supervisory Manager Licensure
(1) The Board has established moral fitness standards that it has determined are critical to upholding the public’s trust in the private security profession, protecting the public and ensuring that the conduct of a private security provider or an applicant does not reflect adversely on the private security profession. The Board finds by adopting this rule that a violation of these standards is substantially related to the duties performed by a certified armed private security professional, a certified private security instructor or a licensed executive or supervisory manager.
(2) The Department must deny, revoke or refuse to renew certification as an armed private security professional or private security instructor or licensure as an executive or supervisory manager when the Department determines that the private security provider or applicant:
(a) Is required to register or is registered as a sex offender under ORS 163A.010, 163A.015, 163A.020 or 163A.025;
(b) Has been convicted of a crime listed in ORS 137.700 or convicted of a crime in any other jurisdiction in which the underlying conduct would satisfy the elements of a crime listed in ORS 137.700 if the act was committed in this state, and less than 10 years have passed since the final date of completion for all resulting imprisonment, parole, probation and post-prison supervision;
(c) Has been convicted of a crime for any offense, other than the mandatory grounds defined in subsection (b) above, for which a maximum term of imprisonment of more than one year may be imposed under the law of the jurisdiction where the conviction occurred, and less than four years have passed since the final date of completion for all resulting imprisonment, parole, probation and post-prison supervision; or
(d) Fails to meet the minimum standards for armed certification as an armed private security professional or a private security firearms instructor pursuant to OAR 259-060-0020.
(3) The Department may deny, revoke or refuse to renew certification as an armed private security professional or private security instructor or licensure as an executive or supervisory manager when the Department determines that the private security provider or applicant:
(a) Violated the moral fitness standards for armed private security professionals, private security instructors and executive or supervisory managers by:
(A) Engaging in conduct that includes dishonesty or deceit, sexual misconduct, drug related misconduct, destruction of property, illegal use or possession of a deadly weapon, or violence, abuse or neglect against a person or animal where the conduct occurred within the 10 years prior to certification or licensure or while certified or licensed;
(B) Engaging in conduct that resulted in a criminal disposition, other than convictions constituting mandatory grounds as defined in section (2) of this rule, that includes dishonesty or deceit, a sexual offense, a drug offense, destruction of property, illegal use or possession of a deadly weapon, or violence, abuse or neglect against a person or animal where the conduct occurred within the 10 years prior to certification or licensure or while certified or licensed;
(C) Engaging in conduct that resulted in a criminal disposition for any violation of criminal law where the conduct occurred while providing private security services and within the 10 years prior to certification or licensure or while certified or licensed; or
(D) Engaging in conduct while providing private security services that constitutes harassment, stalking, intimidation, bullying, intentional or reckless physical harm or threatening harm of a person or group of people.
(b) Falsified any information submitted on the application for certification or licensure or any documents submitted to the Department pertaining to private security certification or licensure;
(c) Failed to meet or failed to comply with any provisions found in the PSSPA or these rules other than a failure to satisfy minimum standards constituting the basis for mandatory grounds as defined in section (2)(d) of this rule; or
(d) Failed to pay a civil penalty or fee imposed by the Board when due.
(4) The Department may suspend and may refuse to renew a private security provider’s certification or license upon finding that the private security provider has been charged with a crime that is grounds for denial or revocation as defined in sections (2) and (3) of this rule. If the Department finds there is a serious danger to the public health or safety, the Department may immediately suspend the certification or license pursuant to OAR 137-003-0560. The report of a charge may be in any form and from any source.
(5)(a) The Department may suspend and may refuse to renew a private security provider’s certification or license upon finding that the private security provider no longer meets the minimum standards found in OAR 259-060-0020.
(b) If the Department finds there is a serious danger to the public health or safety, the Department may immediately suspend the certification or license pursuant to OAR 137-003-0560.
(c) The Department may immediately suspend or refuse to renew the certification of an armed private security professional or private security firearms instructor pursuant to OAR 137-003-0560 upon a finding that the private security provider no longer meets the minimum standards for armed certification found in OAR 259-060-0020 (7). The Department finds that allowing the individual to retain their certification when they no longer meet the minimum standards for armed certification while the Department completes the administrative procedures to deny or revoke certification poses a serious risk to public safety.
(6) When the Department denies, revokes, suspends or refuses to renew certification as an armed private security professional or private security instructor or licensure as an executive or supervisory manager for the mandatory or discretionary grounds defined in this rule, the denial, revocation, suspension or refusal to renew will be administered in accordance with OAR 259-060-0380.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.870, ORS 181A.855, ORS 181A.875, ORS 181A.880 & ORS 181A.885
- DPSST 2-2026, amend filed 01/22/2026, effective 02/01/2026
- DPSST 1-2024, amend filed 01/29/2024, effective 02/01/2024
- DPSST 31-2020, adopt filed 11/06/2020, effective 01/01/2021
Or. Admin. R. 259-060-0350 Department Review for Denial, Revocation, Suspension or Refusal to Renew
(1) When the Department receives information from any source that a private security provider or an applicant may not meet the established standards for private security providers, the Department will review the information to determine if substantial evidence exists to support denial, revocation, refusal to renew or suspension of a private security certification or license under the PSSPA or these administrative rules. Receipt of information may include, but is not limited to:
(a) Information obtained through a criminal background check, department investigations, official records submitted by the private security provider or applicant, or other reliable sources;
(b) Information of an arrest, a criminal citation to appear or its equivalent, a conviction, or any other criminal disposition, of a certified or licensed private security provider or an applicant;
(c) Information from an employer alleging that a certified or licensed private security provider or applicant may have violated the standards or requirements found in the PSSPA or these rules; or
(d) Any complaint submitted to the Department alleging that a private security provider or applicant may have violated the standards or requirements found in the PSSPA or these rules.
(2) The Department will not take action to revoke a currently certified or licensed private security provider or to deny an application for renewal submitted prior to expiration based on a criminal disposition or conduct that was previously reviewed and determined not to violate standards for private security provider certification and licensure or resulted in no action to deny or revoke certification or licensure using the administrative rules in effect at the time of the review.
(a) Nothing in this rule precludes the Department from denying or revoking certification or licensure upon discovery of additional mandatory or discretionary grounds for denial or revocation.
(b) Nothing in this rule precludes the Department from denying additional certification or licensure when a certified or licensed private security provider submits an application for additional certifications or licenses.
(c) Nothing in this rule precludes the Department from denying an application to renew an expired certification or license.
(d) Nothing in this rule precludes the Department from considering previous criminal dispositions or conduct as an aggravating circumstance in a separate discretionary review.
(3) If the Department determines that the private security provider’s or the applicant’s conduct meets the definition of a mandatory disqualifier as defined in OAR 259-060-0300(2), OAR 259-060-0310(2) or OAR 259-060-0320(2), the Department will prepare and serve a Notice of Intent on the individual in accordance with OAR 259-060-0380.
(4) If the Department determines that the private security provider’s or the applicant’s conduct meets the definition of a discretionary disqualifier as defined in OAR 259-060-0300(3), OAR 259-060-0310(3) or OAR 259-060-0320(3), the Department will serve the private security provider or applicant with a preliminary notification of denial or revocation. The preliminary notification provides the private security provider or applicant an opportunity to respond in writing to the Department’s preliminary notification to deny or revoke and provides the opportunity to surrender the certification or license or to withdraw the application for certification or licensure.
(a) The individual will have 10 business days from the date of the Department’s preliminary notification to provide a written response.
(b) If the individual does not provide a written response within the 10 business days, the Department will proceed in reviewing the information available and making a determination.
(5) In cases involving a discretionary moral fitness violation as defined in OAR 259-060-0300(3)(a), OAR 259-060-0310(3)(a) or OAR 259-060-0320(3)(a), after the opportunity to submit a written response, the Department must consider the aggravating and mitigating circumstances unique to the case.
(a) Aggravating and mitigating circumstances are conditions, factors or actions that increase or decrease the total impact that the violation has when determining whether or not a private security provider or applicant meets the moral fitness standards for certification or licensure.
(A) Aggravating circumstances generally increase the severity of the moral fitness violation and may, in addition to the moral fitness violation, be grounds to deny or revoke certification or licensure. Circumstances that may be considered aggravating include, but are not limited to, the degree of the criminal disposition, prior criminal dispositions or misconduct, lack of accountability, number of persons involved in the underlying conduct, number of separate incidents, passage of time from date of incident or incidents, if the conduct occurred while providing or performing privates security services or any other circumstance the Department considers aggravating given the specific issues in the case.
(B) Mitigating circumstances do not excuse or justify the conduct, but generally decrease the severity of the moral fitness violation. Circumstances that may be considered mitigating include, but are not limited to, written letters of support, truthfulness, cooperation during the incident or investigation, or any other circumstance the Department considers mitigating given the specific issues in the case.
(b) When the Department determines that the circumstances unique to the case mitigate the adverse impacts of the moral fitness violation, the Department may approve the provider’s or applicant’s certification or licensure or take no action to revoke the provider’s certification or license.
(c) When the Department determines that the circumstances unique to the case do not mitigate the adverse impacts of the moral fitness violation, the Department will prepare and serve a Notice of Intent on the individual in accordance with OAR 259-060-0380.
(6) The moral fitness standards defined in administrative rule in effect on the date the Department or the Board determined that the applicant or private security provider violated the moral fitness standards for certification and licensure will continue to apply until the Final Order has been issued and all appeal rights have been exhausted regardless of whether the moral fitness standards have been subsequently amended or repealed.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.870 & ORS 181A.875
- DPSST 1-2024, amend filed 01/29/2024, effective 02/01/2024
- DPSST 31-2020, adopt filed 11/06/2020, effective 01/01/2021
Or. Admin. R. 259-060-0360 Surrender of a Private Security Provider Certification or License
(1) A private security provider may request the Department accept the surrender of a certification or license. The request must be submitted in writing.
(2) The certification or license remains in effect until the Department accepts the surrender.
(3) If the Department accepts the surrender, the Department will notify the private security provider of the acceptance date. The private security provider must stop providing or performing private security services from the acceptance date through the remainder of the certification or licensing period.
(4) If the person wants to provide or perform private security services after the acceptance date, the person must apply for a new certification or license by meeting all of the initial requirements for certification or licensure per ORS chapter 181A and OAR chapter 259 division 60.
(5) If the private security provider is the subject of a pending complaint or a Department investigation, the Department may accept the surrender through a stipulated order revoking the certification or licensure. The stipulated order may prohibit the person from having a private security certification or license for a specified ineligibility period.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.870
- DPSST 31-2020, adopt filed 11/06/2020, effective 01/01/2021
Or. Admin. R. 259-060-0370 Emergency Suspension / Refusal to Renew / Denial - Private Security Certifications and Emotional Fitness
(1) The Department may request a certified armed private security professional or private security firearms instructor, or applicant for either certification, submit to a medical examination, conducted by an independent medical provider approved by the Department, to determine the emotional fitness of the applicant or certified private security provider if the Department receives information from another public agency that the applicant or certified private security provider poses a serious risk to public health and safety.
(2) The Department will review the evaluation and determine if the applicant or certified private security provider poses a serious risk to public health and safety based on the evaluation and all other information obtained or received by the Department.
(3) If the Department determines that the emotional state of the applicant or certified private security provider poses a serious risk to public health and safety based on existing information, the Department must deny the application or immediately suspend the certification.
(a) For the purposes of this standard, evidence of a serious risk to public health and safety is defined as information that demonstrates the significant probability that a certified armed private security professional’s, private security firearms instructor’s, or applicant’s emotional state could result in unpredictable or violent behavior that could result in the serious injury or death of another person.
(b) For the purposes of this standard, receipt of information from another public agency includes information from a city, county, state, tribal or federal government entity that was obtained through the submitting entity’s direct assessment of the individual’s emotional or mental state, or information that the submitting entity obtained through a request for an assessment of the individual’s emotional or mental state. The receipt of information does not include complaints that are forwarded to or received by the Department without any supporting documentation.
(4) The Department will contact the affected private security provider or applicant in writing with the request for the individual to submit to a medical examination to determine emotional fitness within 14 days of the receipt of information from another public agency.
(a) The applicant or private security provider will have 30 days from the date of the Department’s request to respond to the Department as either willing to participate in the medical examination or refusing the medical examination. Should the affected individual not provide a response within the 30 days or refuse further medical examination by the medical provider approved by the Department, the Department may proceed in reviewing the information available and making a determination.
(b) Refusal to submit to a medical examination cannot be the sole basis for a determination that the affected individual poses a serious risk to public health and safety.
(5) If the Department determines that the affected individual poses a serious risk to public health and safety, the Department will prepare and serve the applicant or private security provider with a Notice of Intent or an Emergency Suspension Order in accordance with OAR 259-060-0380.
(6) The Department may refuse to renew certification as an armed private security professional or a private security firearms instructor for the grounds defined in this rule. Refusal to renew the certification will be administered in accordance with OAR 259-060-0380.
(7) Any application for certification or renewal as an armed private security professional or a private security firearms instructor submitted by an individual whose certification was denied or suspended under this rule will be denied or refused until the Department has been provided with satisfactory evidence that the applicant no longer poses a serious risk to public health and safety.
(8) The denial, refusal to renew or emergency suspension of an individual’s armed private security professional certification or private security firearms instructor certification under this rule will not impact the individual’s ability to apply for other private security provider certifications or licenses.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.870
- DPSST 31-2020, adopt filed 11/06/2020, effective 01/01/2021
Or. Admin. R. 259-060-0380 Issuance of Notice of Intent/Request for Hearing and Contested Case Procedures
(1) Upon a determination to proceed with denial, revocation, refusal to renew, or suspension, the Department will prepare and serve a Notice of Intent on the applicant or private security provider.
(2) Response Time:
(a) A party who has been served with an Emergency Suspension Order has 90 days from the date of mailing or personal service of the Order to file a written request for hearing with the Department.
(b) A party who has been served with a Notice of Intent to Deny Certification or Licensure has 60 days from the date of mailing or personal service of the Notice to file a written request for hearing or a written request withdrawing their application from consideration with the Department. Applicants who choose to withdraw their application forfeit their application fees.
(c) A party who has been served with a Notice of Intent to Revoke Certification or Licensure has 20 days from the date of mailing or personal service of the Notice to file a written request for hearing with the Department.
(d) A party who has been served with a Notice of Intent to Refuse Renewal has 60 days from the date of mailing or personal service of the Notice to file a written request for hearing with the Department, except when the Notice of Intent to Refuse Renewal is issued in conjunction with an Emergency Suspension Order which allows the party 90 days from the date of mailing or personal service to file a written request for hearing with the Department.
(e) A party who has been served with a Notice of Intent to Suspend has 20 days from the date of mailing or personal service of the Notice to file a written request for a hearing with the Department.
(3) Default Orders: If the Department does not receive a timely request for a hearing, the Notice of Intent will become a Final Order denying, suspending, revoking or refusing to renew certification or licensure pursuant to OAR 137-003-0672.
(4) Hearing Request: If the Department receives a timely request for a hearing, it will refer the matter to the Office of Administrative Hearings in accordance with OAR 137-003-0515.
(a) The sole purpose of the emergency suspension hearing for an Emergency Suspension Order issued based upon the charge of a crime that is grounds for denial or revocation as defined in OAR 259-060-0300, OAR 259-060-0310 or OAR 259-060-0320 will be to determine whether the individual was charged with the crime. The Department will withdraw the Emergency Suspension Order upon receipt of information showing that the private security provider was not charged with the crime.
(b) The sole purpose of the emergency suspension hearing for an Emergency Suspension Order issued based upon a failure to meet the firearms qualification and training requirements as defined in OAR 259-060-0120 and OAR 259-060-0135 will be to determine whether the individual satisfied the requirements. Once the Department has received and accepted proof of satisfactory completion for the training requirements, the Department will withdraw the Emergency Suspension Order.
(c) The sole purpose of the emergency suspension hearing for an Emergency Suspension Order issued based upon a failure to meet the minimum standards for armed certification defined in OAR 259-060-0020 (7) will be to determine whether the individual meets the standards. The Department will withdraw the Emergency Suspension Order upon receipt of information showing the private security provider meets the minimum standards.
(d) The sole purpose of the emergency suspension hearing for an Emergency Suspension Order issued to an instructor for a violation of OAR 259-060-0136 will be to determine whether the Department has substantial evidence supporting that the violation poses a serious danger to the public’s health or safety by continuing to allow the instructor to deliver the Department’s training courses. Once the Department has received and accepted proof that the violations leading to the Emergency Suspension Order have been resolved, the Department will withdraw the Order.
(5) When a hearing is requested Proposed Orders, Exceptions and Final Orders will be issued pursuant to the applicable provisions of the Attorney General’s Model Rules of Procedure adopted under OAR 259-005-0015.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.870, ORS 181A.875, ORS 181A.880 & ORS 181A.885
- DPSST 2-2026, amend filed 01/22/2026, effective 02/01/2026
- DPSST 31-2020, adopt filed 11/06/2020, effective 01/01/2021
Or. Admin. R. 259-060-0450 Compliance
(1) The Department may cause administrative proceedings or court action to be initiated to enforce compliance with the PSSPA and these rules.
(2) Violations. The Department may find violation and recommend assessment of civil penalties upon finding that a private security provider, individual, or employer has previously engaged in or is currently engaging in any of the following acts:
(a) Providing private security services without a valid certification, license or temporary work permit;
(b) Failure to submit properly completed forms or documentation in a time frame as designated by the Department;
(c) The falsification of any documents submitted to the Department;
(d) Failure to cease providing private security services upon expiration of certification or licensure, notice of termination, suspension, denial or revocation;
(e) Failure to complete required training as prescribed in OAR 259-060-0120, 259-060-0130, and 259-060-0135;
(f) Failure to report criminal charges as required in ORS 181A.885;
(g) Failure of a private security instructor to perform the duties of a certified instructor as defined in OAR 259-060-0136;
(h) Failure to terminate employment as a private security provider of an individual whose application has been terminated, or whose certification or licensure has been suspended, denied or revoked, upon notice from the Department to do so;
(i) Employing private security providers who have not completed the training and application process required under the PSSPA and these rules;
(j) Failure to designate a licensed executive manager;
(k) Failure to provide technological communication or visibility of a certified security professional to crowd management or guest services staff;
(l) Failure to provide documentation of one certified security professional to ten crowd management or guest services staff;
(m) Expecting crowd management or guest services staff to perform security services duties other than the duties incidental to crowd management or guest services;
(n) Using a name that violates ORS 181A.893 and OAR 259-060-0201;
(o) Possessing or using in the scope of employment prohibited equipment, vehicles, uniforms or titles as defined in OAR 259-060-0012;or
(p) Any other violation of requirements of the PSSPA or these rules.
(3) The Department may issue a Demand to Examine Books and Records (DEBR) to obtain any record or document related to compliance.
(a) The Department may cause inspection or audits of the records of any private security provider or employer. Records inspected may include any document relating to the requirements of the PSSPA and these rules.
(b) Failure to cooperate or respond to any investigative inquiries or DEBR may result in issuance of a civil penalty as described in this rule and the revocation or denial of certification or licensure as described in OAR 259-060-0300, OAR 259-060-0310 and OAR 259-060-0320.
(4) Complaints and Allegations of Violations.
(a) All complaints or allegations of violations must be submitted on a Department-approved complaint form before an investigation can be initiated, unless the Department grants an exception. The Department may consider additional credible sources of information to determine non-compliance.
(b) A preliminary administrative review of the complaint or allegation will be conducted by the Department to ensure there is sufficient information to proceed. Staff may conduct a fact-finding preliminary investigation.
(A) If sufficient information is determined to support the complaint or allegation, the Department may open and conduct an investigation and gather relevant information.
(B) Private security providers, applicants, or other involved parties will respond to any questions or requests with 20 days after a request is mailed by the Department, unless an extension is requested and approved by the Department.
(5) Procedures for Proposing a Civil Penalty.
(a) The Department may issue an Allegation of Non-Compliance when there is a reason to believe a violation has occurred. The purpose of this document is to provide education and allow an opportunity to gain compliance within 30 days without penalty.
(b) The Department will issue a Notice of Violation upon discovery of violation as described in this rule. The Notice will include a statement of found violations and proposed sanctions. An individual or employer may be given the opportunity to remedy the violation and pay a penalty within 10 days of the mailing of the notice.
(A) The Department may extend the time to remedy a violation upon a showing of good cause.
(B) An individual or employer will be given the opportunity to provide mitigation to the Department.
(c) The Department, through the Policy Committee and Board, will issue a Notice of Intent to Propose a Civil Penalty upon the failure to remedy a violation or request an extension within 10 days of the mailing of the Notice of Violation.
(6) Hearing Request.
(a) If the Department issues a Notice of Intent to Propose Civil Penalty, an individual, business or entity is entitled to a contested case hearing in accordance with the applicable provisions of the Attorney General’s Model Rules of Procedure adopted under OAR 259-005-0015.
(b) The Department must receive a request for hearing in writing within 20 days of the date the Notice of Intent to Propose Civil Penalty was served on the individual or employer.
(7) Default Order. If a timely request for a hearing is not received, the Notice of Intent to Impose a Civil Penalty will become a Final Order Imposing Civil Penalty.
(8) Resolution by Stipulation. The Department is authorized to seek resolution by stipulation, subject to acceptance and approval by the Board or Director, if:
(a) The matter is resolved before entry of a final order assessing penalty;
(b) The respondent satisfies all terms set forth by the Department within the time allowed; and
(c) Any stipulated penalty amount is received by the Department.
(9) Civil Penalty Amounts.
(a) Alarm monitor, unarmed and event and entertainment private security professionals will be charged a penalty of not less than $250 for the first violation and a maximum of $1,500 for each flagrant violation.
(b) Armed private security professionals will be charged a penalty of not less than $500 for the first violation and a maximum of $1,500 for each flagrant violation.
(c) Private security instructors will be charged a penalty of not less than $750 for the first violation and a maximum of $1,500 for each flagrant violation.
(d) Private security managers, contract executive managers and employers who employ individuals to provide private security services will be charged a penalty of not less than $1,000 for the first violation and a maximum of $1,500 for each flagrant violation.
(e) For the purposes of imposing civil penalties, each 30 day period in violation of the same statute or rule may be considered a separate violation by the Department.
(10) The Department may reduce or waive civil penalties from the amounts set in this rule in situations where further mitigation is warranted or the matter is resolved by stipulation at any time prior to the entry of a final order.
(11) Staff will recommend the full civil penalty amount for individuals, businesses or entities that fail to satisfy the terms as stipulated. The recommendation will be reviewed by the Policy Committee and Board.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.870 & ORS 181A.995
- DPSST 9-2025, amend filed 10/23/2025, effective 10/23/2025
- DPSST 1-2024, amend filed 01/29/2024, effective 02/01/2024
- DPSST 7-2022, amend filed 05/11/2022, effective 06/01/2022
- DPSST 1-2021, minor correction filed 01/04/2021, effective 01/04/2021
- DPSST 2-2020, amend filed 01/24/2020, effective 01/24/2020
- DPSST 63-2018, amend filed 10/25/2018, effective 10/25/2018
- DPSST 19-2017, amend filed 10/27/2017, effective 11/01/2017
- DPSST 4-2017, f. & cert. ef. 3-22-17
- DPSST 8-2015, f. & cert. ef. 3-24-15
- DPSST 12-2013, f. & cert. ef. 6-24-13
- DPSST 25-2012, f. 10-26-12, cert. ef. 11-1-12
- DPSST 6-2008, f. & cert. ef. 4-15-08
- DPSST 11-2007, f. & cert. ef. 10-15-07
- DPSST 6-2006, f. & cert. ef. 5-15-06
- DPSST 4-2003, f. & cert. ef. 1-22-03
- BPSST 13-2002, f. & cert. ef. 4-30-02
- BPSST 4-2002(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 2-25-02 thru 7-1-02
- Reverted to BPSST 3-2000, f. & cert. ef. 8-10-00
- BPSST 18-2001(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-28-01 thru 2-18-02
- BPSST 8-2001(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 8-22-01 thru 2-18-02
- BPSST 3-2000, f. & cert. ef. 8-10-00
- BPSST 4-1999, f. 4-29-99, cert. ef. 9-5-99
- BPSST 3-1999(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 3-9-99 thru 9-5-99
- BPSST 3-1998, f. & cert. ef. 6-30-98
- BPSST 2-1998(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98 thru 6-30-98
- BPSST 1-1998, f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98
- Reverted to PS 9-1997, f. & cert. ef. 8-20-97
- PS 10-1997(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-5-97
- PS 9-1997, f. & cert. ef. 8-20-97
Or. Admin. R. 259-060-0500 Fees and Payments
(1) Payments.
(a) The Department accepts business checks, money orders, cashier’s checks, and credit cards approved by the Department. Credit card payments may require submission of additional verification information as designated by the Department. The Department does not accept personal checks or cash.
(b) Fees for certification or licensure are due at the time of application.
(c) Amounts due to the Department for fees or penalties are non-refundable and non-transferable.
(d) Applicants who choose to withdraw their application or fail to complete the application process forfeit their application fees.
(2) The application fees charged by the Department for each 2-year private security provider certification and license are:
(a) Alarm Monitor Private Security Professional Certification - $104;
(b) Armed Private Security Professional Certification - $121;
(c) Event and Entertainment Private Security Professional Certification - $104;
(d) Unarmed Private Security Professional Certification - $104;
(e) Alarm Monitor Private Security Instructor Certification - $143;
(f) Unarmed Private Security Instructor Certification - $344;
(g) Private Security Firearms Instructor Certification - $169;
(h) Supervisory Manager License - $132;
(i) Executive Manager License - $440; and
(j) Fingerprint Criminal History Check Fee – The current fee for processing a fingerprint criminal history check may be obtained from the Department. This fee is to recover the costs of administering the fingerprint check through the Oregon State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation. This fee is separate from and does not apply to any fees charged by a fingerprinting services vendor. An additional fee will be charged for the third submittal of fingerprint cards when rejected for filing by the FBI.
(3) Other administrative fees charged by the Department include:
(a) Late Renewal Fee - $40. A late fee is required when the Department receives an application for renewal after the expiration date;
(b) Non-sufficient Funds (NSF) Penalty Fee - $25;
(c) Duplicate or Replacement Certification or License Fee - $27;
(d) Armed Upgrade Fee - $50. An armed upgrade adds the armed private security professional certification to the applicant’s existing two-year certification period for the unarmed private security professional certification. The armed upgrade fee applies to applications for armed private security professional certification received by the Department within 18 months of the issuance of the unarmed private security professional certification;
(e) Certification Reinstatement Fee - $28. A reinstatement fee is required after an Armed Private Security Professional or Private Security Firearms Instructor Certification has been suspended by an Emergency Suspension Order under OAR 259-060-0120 (8) or 259-060-0135 (7);
(f) DPSST Private Security Firearms Instructor Course Fee - The current course fee may be obtained from the Department;
(g) DPSST Handgun Instructor Development Course Fee - The current course fee may be obtained from the Department; and
(h) Training Accreditation Fees. The accreditation process includes an application fee and an evaluation fee. The current accreditation process fees may be obtained from the Department.
(4) If the Department receives payment of any fees or penalty by check and the check is returned to the Department as a non-sufficient funds (NSF) check, the payer of the fees or penalty will be assessed an NSF penalty fee in addition to the required payment of the fees or penalty.
(5) Overpayment of Amounts Due.
(a) The Department will reject payments that include an overpayment of the amount due that is $10.01 or more.
(b) The Department may accept payments that include an overpayment of the amount due when the overpaid amount is $10.00 or less.
(c) Overpayment amounts that are $10.00 or less will only be refunded upon receipt of a written request from the person who made the overpayment, or the person's legal representative. The written request must be received by the Department within three years of the overpayment.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870 & ORS 293.445
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.870 & ORS 293.445
- DPSST 8-2026, amend filed 08/19/2026, effective 09/01/2026
- DPSST 3-2025, amend filed 01/23/2025, effective 02/01/2025
- DPSST 13-2022, amend filed 11/01/2022, effective 11/01/2022
- DPSST 5-2022, temporary amend filed 03/10/2022, effective 03/10/2022 through 09/05/2022
- DPSST 21-2021, amend filed 10/28/2021, effective 01/01/2022
- DPSST 24-2020, amend filed 10/22/2020, effective 10/29/2020
- DPSST 43-2018, minor correction filed 02/27/2018, effective 02/27/2018
- DPSST 12-2013, f. & cert. ef. 6-24-13
- DPSST 25-2012, f. 10-26-12, cert. ef. 11-1-12
- DPSST 12-2011, f. & cert. ef. 8-1-11
- DPSST 6-2011(Temp), f. 6-14-11, cert. ef. 7-1-1 thru 12-1-11
- DPSST 12-2010, f. & cert. ef. 11-12-10
- DPSST 6-2010(Temp), f. 6-14-10, cert. ef. 7-1-10 thru 12-27-10
- DPSST 6-2008, f. & cert. ef. 4-15-08
- DPSST 6-2006, f. & cert. ef. 5-15-06
- DPSST 11-2005, f. & cert. ef. 10-14-05
- DPSST 3-2005(Temp), f. 4-25-05, cert. ef. 5-1-05 thru 10-28-05
- DPSST 12-2003, f. & cert. ef. 7-24-03
- BPSST 13-2002, f. & cert. ef. 4-30-02
- BPSST 4-2002(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 2-25-02 thru 7-1-02
- BPSST 18-2001(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-28-01 thru 2-18-02
- BPSST 8-2001(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 8-22-01 thru 2-18-02
- BPSST 3-2000, f. & cert. ef. 8-10-00
- BPSST 4-1999, f. 4-29-99, cert. ef. 9-5-99
- BPSST 3-1999(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 3-9-99 thru 9-5-99
- BPSST 3-1998, f. & cert. ef. 6-30-98
- BPSST 2-1998(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98 thru 6-30-98
- BPSST 1-1998, f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98
- PS 10-1997(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-5-97
- PS 9-1997, f. & cert. ef. 8-20-97
- PS 1-1997(Temp), f. 2-21-97, cert. ef. 2-24-97
Or. Admin. R. 259-060-0600 Forms
The Department utilizes the following forms:
(1) PS-1 — Application for Licensure or Certification of Private Security Services Provider.
(2) PS-3 — Private Security Order Forms Sheet.
(3) PS-6 — Affidavit of Instructor and Private Security Provider Testing Results.
(4) PS-7 — Private Security Instructor Evaluation.
(5) PS-8 — Private Security Instructor Continuing Education.
(6) PS-9 — Private Security Waiver for Reciprocity.
(7) PS-20 — Private Security Services Provider Temporary Work Permit.
(8) PS-21 — Renewal of Private Security Services Licensure or Certification.
(9) PS-23 — Private Security Services Provider Change of Information.
(10) PS-24 — Executive Manager Information Form.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.870
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.870
- DPSST 31-2020, amend filed 11/06/2020, effective 01/01/2021
- DPSST 4-2017, f. & cert. ef. 3-22-17
- DPSST 16-2016, f. & cert. ef. 9-22-16
- DPSST 30-2012, f. & cert. ef. 12-26-12
- DPSST 15-2006, f. & cert. ef. 10-13-06
- DPSST 6-2006, f. & cert. ef. 5-15-06
- BPSST 13-2002, f. & cert. ef. 4-30-02
- BPSST 4-2002(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 2-25-02 thru 7-1-02
- Reverted to BPSST 3-2000, f. & cert. ef. 8-10-00
- BPSST 18-2001(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-28-01 thru 2-18-02
- BPSST 8-2001(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 8-22-01 thru 2-18-02
- BPSST 3-2000, f. & cert. ef. 8-10-00
- BPSST 4-1999, f. 4-29-99, cert. ef. 9-5-99
- BPSST 3-1999(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 3-9-99 thru 9-5-99
- BPSST 3-1998, f. & cert. ef. 6-30-98
- BPSST 2-1998(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98 thru 6-30-98
- BPSST 1-1998, f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98
- Reverted to PS 9-1997, f. & cert. ef. 8-20-97
- PS 10-1997(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-5-97
- PS 9-1997, f. & cert. ef. 8-20-97
Division 61 INVESTIGATOR LICENSING STANDARDS AND REGULATIONS
Or. Admin. R. 259-061-0005 Definitions
(1) "Administrative Termination" means the Department has stopped the processing of an application due to non-response from applicant or noncompliance with the application requirements or the requirements of these rules."
(2) "Board" means Board on Public Safety Standards and Training.
(3) "Complainant" means any person or group of persons who file(s) a complaint. The Department may, on its own action, initiate a complaint.
(4) "Complaint" means a specific charge filed with the Department that a licensed investigator or candidate thereto, or any person apparently operating as an investigator without a license, has committed an act in violation of ORS Chapter 703 or OAR chapter 259.
(5) "Committee" means the Private Security and Investigator Policy Committee.
(6) "Department" means the Department of Public Safety Standards and Training.
(7) "Disciplinary Procedure" means all action up to the final resolution of a complaint after the issuance of a "Notice of Intent."
(8) "Employee," as used in ORS 703.401 to 703.490, means a person who is employed lawfully by an employer. The employer controls the performance of that person; pays the salary, unemployment insurance, and worker's compensation insurance; and has sole authority to fire and control work hours and the conditions of work. "Employee" in this context does not include a person engaged as an independent contractor.
(9) "Expired license": A license is considered expired on the date of expiration. A person may not practice as an investigator with an expired license.
(10) "Hours of experience" means documented clock hours.
(11) "Investigatory work" means any work performed in accordance with ORS 703.401(2).
(12) "Licensee" or "Licensed Investigator", as used in OAR 259-061-0005 through 259-061-0300 means a person licensed as an investigator under ORS 703.430.
(13) "Private investigator" is a licensed investigator who has completed a minimum of 1500 documented clock hours of investigatory work experience or an approved course of study or a combination of work and study as approved by the Department.
(14) "Provisional investigator" is a licensed investigator who has completed fewer than 1500 documented clock hours of investigatory work experience, or an approved course of study, or a combination of work and study as approved by the Department; and who may not employ or supervise other investigators. Under 1997 and 1999 editions of governing statute, this type of investigator was referred to as a "Registered Operative."
(15) "Respondent" means an investigator who is a licensee or candidate for licensure, or any person apparently operating as an investigator without a license, against whom a complaint has been filed.
(16) "Stipulated Agreement" means a written agreement entered into between the Department and a respondent.
(17) "Violation" means a violation of Oregon Revised Statutes or Oregon Administrative Rules as they pertain to the licensing requirements of investigators in the state of Oregon.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 703.401 & 703.480
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 703.401 & 703.480
- DPSST 9-2023, amend filed 10/26/2023, effective 10/26/2023
- DPSST 2-2015, f. & cert. ef. 1-5-15
- DPSST 7-2006, f. & cert. ef. 5-15-06
Or. Admin. R. 259-061-0010 Fees and Payments
(1) Payments.
(a) The Department accepts business checks, money orders, cashier’s checks, and credit cards approved by the Department. Credit card payments may require submission of additional verification information as designated by the Department. The Department does not accept personal checks or cash.
(b) Fees for licensure are due at the time of application.
(c) Amounts due to the Department for fees or penalties are non-refundable and non-transferable.
(d) Applicants who choose to withdraw their application or fail to complete the application process forfeit their application fees.
(2) Fees charged by the Department include:
(a) Private Investigator or Provisional Investigator License Fee - $800;
(b) Private Investigator or Provisional Investigator License Renewal Fee - $760;
(c) Fingerprint Criminal History Check Fee - The current fee for processing a fingerprint criminal history check may be obtained from the Department. This fee is to recover the costs of administering the fingerprint check through the Oregon State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation. This fee is separate from and does not apply to any fees charged by a fingerprinting services vendor. An additional fee will be charged for the third submittal of fingerprint cards when rejected for filing by the FBI;
(d) Late Renewal Fee - $40. A late fee is required when the Department receives an application for renewal after the expiration date;
(e) Duplicate or Replacement License Fee - $27;
(f) Reactivation of Inactive License Fee (OAR 259-061-0160) - $50; and
(g) Non-sufficient Funds (NSF) Penalty Fee - $25.
(3) If the Department receives payment of any fees or penalty by check and the check is returned to the Department as a non-sufficient funds (NSF) check, the payer of the fees or penalty will be assessed an NSF penalty fee in addition to the required payment of the fees or penalty.
(4) Overpayment of Amounts Due.
(a) The Department will reject payments that include an overpayment of the amount due that is $10.01 or more.
(b) The Department may accept payments that include an overpayment of the amount due when the overpaid amount is $10.00 or less.
(c) Overpayment amounts that are $10.00 or less will only be refunded upon receipt of a written request from the person who made the overpayment, or the person's legal representative. The written request must be received by the Department within three years of the overpayment.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 703.480 & ORS 293.445
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 703.480 & ORS 293.445
- DPSST 6-2026, amend filed 08/19/2026, effective 09/01/2026
- DPSST 2-2025, amend filed 01/23/2025, effective 02/01/2025
- DPSST 14-2022, amend filed 11/01/2022, effective 11/01/2022
- DPSST 4-2022, temporary amend filed 03/10/2022, effective 03/10/2022 through 09/05/2022
- DPSST 20-2021, amend filed 10/28/2021, effective 01/01/2022
- DPSST 23-2020, amend filed 10/22/2020, effective 10/29/2020
- DPSST 1-2017, f. & cert. ef. 3-22-17
- DPSST 3-2016, f. & cert. ef. 3-22-16
- DPSST 1-2013, f. & cert. ef. 1-2-13
- DPSST 7-2006, f. & cert. ef. 5-15-06
Or. Admin. R. 259-061-0018 Investigator Licensure Requirements and Exemptions
(1) A person may not act as an investigator or represent themselves as an investigator unless they are licensed as described in ORS 703.430 and these rules.
(2) The following rules provide further definition of the exemptions from licensure found in ORS 703.401 to 703.490.
(a) Persons described in ORS 703.411 are exempt from regulation as private investigators.
(b) For the purposes of ORS 703.411(1), a person is “employed exclusively by one employer in connection with the affairs of that employer only” when;
(A) The person has one, exclusive employer; and
(B) The person conducts investigations on behalf of that employer only. This subsection does not apply to a person who conducts investigations on behalf of the employer’s clients.
(C) Subsection (b) of this rule applies as of August 9, 2011.
(c) The exemption found in ORS 703.411(2) includes individuals providing investigatory work through a contract or sub-contract for the federal government while the individual is performing the duties of the office or employment.
(d) For the purposes of this rule, the expert witness exemption to private investigator licensing requirements found in ORS 703.407 does not apply to an individual hired as an investigator to obtain or furnish information who later testifies as to the factual information obtained during the investigation.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 703.480
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 703.407, ORS 703.411, ORS 703.430, ORS 703.450 & ORS 703.480
- DPSST 58-2018, amend filed 07/31/2018, effective 08/01/2018
- DPSST 3-2017, f. & cert. ef. 3-22-17
- DPSST 1-2016, f. & cert. ef. 3-22-16
- DPSST 16-2012, f. & cert. ef. 7-2-12
- DPSST 1-2012(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 2-6-12 thru 7-31-12
Or. Admin. R. 259-061-0020 Application for Private Investigator Licensure
(1) All applicants for licensure must meet all minimum standards for licensure as described in OAR 259-061-0040.
(2) Applications for new licensure as an investigator must include:
(a) A completed Form PI-1 (Application for Licensure);
(b) Fingerprints submitted to the Department on a standard applicant fingerprint card or through a Department approved vendor of electronic fingerprint capture services. The Department will supply pre-printed FBI fingerprint cards. If a fingerprint card is rejected twice by the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), the applicant may be charged a fee for a third submittal of a fingerprint card.
(c) Proof of a corporate surety bond, an irrevocable letter of credit issued by an Oregon commercial bank as defined in ORS 706.008, or errors and omission insurance in the amount of at least $5,000;
(A) Bonds and letters of credit must have the applicant’s name listed as the principal.
(B) Proof of surety bonds must be submitted on a Department-approved form and will not be valid for the purposes of licensure unless filed with the Department within 60 days of the signature on the bond.
(C) An irrevocable letter of credit submitted to the Department is subject to approval by the Department prior to the issuance of a license.
(D) Errors and Omission insurance must have the applicant’s name listed on the Certificate of Liability or include a letter from the employing agency or insurance company confirming the applicant is covered as an employee.
(d) Two identical, passport-quality photographs for identification;
(A) Photographs must be in color with a solid-colored background and must be a cropped head shot. The applicant’s face must be clearly visible and free from shadows or other obstacles. Photocopies will not be accepted.
(B) The applicant’s head in the photograph must be no be more than 1” wide and 1.25” high.
(C) Photographs must have been taken not more than six months prior to filing of the application for licensure.
(D) Photographs may be submitted to the Department digitally in the format prescribed on the Form PI-1.
(e) A completed Form PI-27 (Investigator Professional Code of Ethics) affirming moral fitness and professional standards; and
(f) Three professional letters of reference, none of which may be from a person who is related to the applicant by blood or marriage.
(g) Proof of a passing score on the Private Investigator Proficiency Exam administered by the Department.
(h) Non-refundable application fees as prescribed by OAR 259-061-0010.
(3) Applications for renewing licensure as an investigator must include:
(a) A Form PI-21 (Investigator Renewal Application) completed in its entirety;
(b) A completed Form PI-6 (Continuing Education Summary.)
(c) Two identical, passport-quality photographs for identification in accordance with subsection (2)(d) of this rule.
(d) A completed Form PI-27 (Investigator Professional Code of Ethics) affirming moral fitness and professional standards; and
(e) Proof of a corporate surety bond, an irrevocable letter of credit issued by an Oregon commercial bank as defined in ORS 706.008, or errors and omission insurance in the amount of at least $5,000 in accordance with this rule; and
(f) Non-refundable renewal application fees as prescribed by OAR 259-061-0010.
(4) Timelines.
(a) A completed application packet must be mailed to the Department and postmarked prior to the applicant performing any investigatory work.
(b) Renewal application documents must be received by the Department within 90 days prior to the expiration date of the licensure to allow for processing of the forms and criminal history check.
(c) A late submission fee will be assessed as prescribed by OAR 259-061-0010 if reapplying after the license expiration date of the licensure.
(d) Applicants renewing their licensure more than 30 days after the expiration date of the original license must submit the following:
(A) A new application packet in accordance with subsection (2) of this rule; and
(B) A Form PI-6.
(5) Applicants for licensure who were previously licensed in Oregon must provide proof of completion of continuing education requirements or a written explanation detailing why continuing education requirements were not met and a written plan detailing how the continuing education will be made up, including a time line. The Department, at its discretion, may accept the plan in place of completed continuing education.
(6) Submission of any false information in connection with an application, supporting documentation or attachments for a license or registration may be grounds for discipline, criminal penalty, or civil penalty.
(7) The Department may administratively terminate the application process, upon written notification to the applicant, for any of the following reasons:
(a) The Department has reason to believe that the applicant has committed an act that constitutes ground for denial of a license as described in OAR 259-061-0040. The termination of an application due to criminal conviction disqualification is subject to the contested case procedures set forth in 259-061-0300;
(b) The application or any required documentation is incomplete or the Department is unable to satisfactorily verify application information due to non-response or non-compliance of the application;
(c) The fingerprint cards of an applicant have been rejected and returned by the Oregon State Police or Federal Bureau of Investigation;
(8) The Department may administratively terminate the application process after exhausting the following efforts:
(a) A letter will be mailed by the Department to the applicant at the last known mailing address identifying the deficiencies in the application process. The applicant will have 21 calendar days from the date of the mailing to notify the Department that the deficiencies are corrected. The Department may extend the time for compliance upon good cause shown by the applicant.
(b) If the Department is unable to determine a current address for the application, or if the applicant does not respond and correct the deficiencies within 21 calendar days, or such additional time authorized by the Department, the Department will list the applicant’s status as “administratively terminated.” The Department will notify the applicant at the last known address that the Department has administratively terminated the application process.
(c) Once the application process has been administratively terminated, the applicant must reapply by submitting a new completed application packet with all deficiencies corrected, including new fees and proof of valid training.
(9) Any exception to the application process found in this rule must be approved by the Department.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 703.480
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 703.401, 703.405, 703.415, 703.425, 703.430, 703.435, 703.445, 703.447, 703.450, 703.460, 703.465, 703.470, 703.473, 703.480, 703.993 & 703.995
- DPSST 17-2016, f. & cert. ef. 9-22-16
- DPSST 14-2013, f. & cert. ef. 6-24-13
- DPSST 2-2013, f. & cert. ef. 1-2-13
- DPSST 7-2006, f. & cert. ef. 5-15-06
Or. Admin. R. 259-061-0040 Minimum Standards for Licensure
(1) An applicant for licensure as a private investigator must satisfy all license qualifications pursuant to ORS 703.415 and 703.425.
(2) Legal Name. The Department requires use of the applicant’s or investigator’s legal name as the name of record for all Department purposes. A license issued to the investigator will display the legal name. When an investigator legally changes their name they must report the legal name change to the Department within 10 days of the change using Form PI-23 and provide a copy of proof of the name change.
(3) Moral Fitness. All private investigators must be of good moral fitness as determined by criminal background check, department investigation, or other reliable sources.
(a) Lack of good moral fitness includes, but is not limited to, mandatory or discretionary disqualifying misconduct as described in OAR 259-061-0300.
(b) For the purposes of this standard, the Department, through the Policy Committee and Board, has defined core values that are integral to the private investigator profession. These values are:
(A) Character. Good character includes being respectful and courteous, being faithful and diligent, using discretion, demonstrating compassion and exhibiting courage;
(B) Honesty. Honesty includes integrity, credibility, acting honorably, adhering to the facts and maintaining confidences;
(C) Striving for Justice. Striving for justice includes just treatment, the quality or characteristics of being just, impartial, fair and non-discriminatory;
(D) Public Trust. Public trust includes maintaining public confidences, being law-abiding and adhering to recognized industry standards; and
(E) Respect for the laws and constitutions of this state and nation.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 703.415, 703.425, 703.430, 703.435, 703.445, 703.450, 703.460, 703.465 & 703.480
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 703.401 - 703.995
- DPSST 21-2020, amend filed 09/14/2020, effective 10/01/2020
- DPSST 11-2014, f. & cert. ef. 5-5-14
- DPSST 12-2008, f. & cert. ef. 7-15-08
- DPSST 7-2008(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 5-15-08 thru 10-16-08
- DPSST 7-2006, f. & cert. ef. 5-15-06
Or. Admin. R. 259-061-0095 Administration of the Exam
(1) The Department will adopt a test of professional investigator competency.
(2) Department staff or department approved designee will proctor the exam at a time and place established by staff or the designee.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 703.415, 703.425, 703.430, 703.435, 703.445, 703.450, 703.460, 703.465 & 703.480
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 703.401 - 703.995
- DPSST 7-2006, f. & cert. ef. 5-15-06
Or. Admin. R. 259-061-0100 Exam Results
(1) The minimum passing score for the exam is 86%.
(2) The exam may be administered to an applicant no more then three consecutive times. If the applicant does not pass the exam on the third attempt, the applicant must wait one year from the date the last exam was taken to re-take the exam.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 703.415, 703.425, 703.430, 703.435, 703.445, 703.450, 703.460, 703.465 & 703.480
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 703.401 - 703.995
- DPSST 7-2006, f. & cert. ef. 5-15-06
Or. Admin. R. 259-061-0110 Temporary License
(1) An individual licensed or certified to perform private investigations in another jurisdiction may apply for a temporary investigator’s license to perform investigative services in the state of Oregon under the following conditions:
(a) The individual’s private investigator’s license or certification is current and in good standing with the issuing jurisdiction;
(b) The individual completed a background check as required by the issuing jurisdiction in order to obtain the license or certification;
(c) The individual holds proof of a corporate surety bond, an irrevocable letter of credit issued by an Oregon commercial bank as defined in ORS 706.008, or errors and omission insurance in the amount of at least $5,000; and
(d) The case being investigated originated from the private investigator’s licensing or certifying jurisdiction.
(2) A completed Form PI-9 (Temporary Investigator License) must be submitted electronically or mailed and postmarked to the Department within 72 hours of beginning any investigatory services in Oregon.
(3) A temporary investigator’s license is valid for a total of 30 aggregate days per calendar year from the first day of performing investigatory services in Oregon.
(4) Investigators providing services in Oregon with a temporary investigator’s license are required to maintain a record of the dates that they have performed investigatory services in Oregon and must provide that record to the Department upon request.
(5) Investigators providing services in Oregon with a temporary investigator’s license must:
(a) Obey all rules of conduct and ethics that apply to Oregon private investigators;
(b) Obey state laws as they pertain to the duties of investigations for Oregon private investigators;
(c) Have in their possession a copy of the Form PI-9 at all times while performing investigative services in this state and must be able to present the temporary investigator’s license to any Department staff member, law enforcement officer or any other person upon reasonable request;
(d) Not solicit, initiate new cases or open a business in Oregon;
(e) Not perform investigatory services in Oregon for more than 30 aggregate days per calendar year; and
(f) Apply for Oregon licensure as a private investigator if providing investigatory services for more than 30 aggregate days per calendar year.
(6) Violations of the law or these administrative rules may be considered grounds for:
(a) Administrative proceeding or court action, up to and including civil penalty, as outlined in OAR 259-061-0200 (Compliance); or
(b) Denial, suspension or revocation of the temporary investigator’s license as outlined in OAR 259-061-0300 (Denial/Suspension/Revocation).
(7) Complaints received by the Department will be forwarded to the investigator’s licensing or certifying jurisdiction.
(8) The intent of this rule is to allow out-of-state investigators to temporarily conduct lawful business in this state.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 703.480
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 703.425, 703.430, 703.435, 703.450, 703.460 & 703.465
- DPSST 1-2017, f. & cert. ef. 3-22-17
- DPSST 7-2006, f. & cert. ef. 5-15-06
Or. Admin. R. 259-061-0120 Interim Investigators License
(1) A person may request an interim investigator's license to perform investigative work while the person’s application for licensure as a private or provisional investigator is being processed by the Department if the person:
(a) Only provides investigatory services for a licensed private investigator, an attorney, or another employer who has requested that the person be issued an interim investigator’s license;
(b) Has never been convicted of, pled guilty or no contest to, or forfeited security for a crime;
(c) Has submitted to the Department all required application materials as prescribed in OAR 259-061-0020, including all fees and proof of a passing score on the Private Investigatory Proficiency Exam; and
(d) Has submitted to the Department a signed Interim Investigator License (PI-20), postmarked on or before the first day the applicant performs investigatory services.
(2) The interim license is valid for 120 days from the date the PI-20 is submitted, until the private investigator or provisional license is issued by the Department or upon written notice that the Department has administratively terminated the license for any reason.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 703.430 & 703.480
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 703.430 & 703.480
- DPSST 19-2015, f. & cert. ef. 12-22-15
- DPSST 7-2006, f. & cert. ef. 5-15-06
Or. Admin. R. 259-061-0130 Copying and Distribution of the Exam
(1) No person, school, association or any other entity is authorized to copy or distribute any exam administered by the Department without prior written authorization;
(2) Applicants who take the exam must not disclose to anyone or any entity the contents of the exam including the exam questions and answers.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 703.415, 703.425, 703.430, 703.435, 703.445, 703.450, 703.460, 703.465 & 703.480
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 703.401 - 703.995
- DPSST 7-2006, f. & cert. ef. 5-15-06
Or. Admin. R. 259-061-0140 Educational Substitutes for Experience
(1) Completion of a related course of study at an educational institution licensed or approved by a State Department of Education or other State approving agency, and approved by the Department may be substituted for up to 500 hours of the required work experience. Correspondence courses, online courses, or similar coursework will be evaluated on a case-by-case basis.
(2) Educational substitutions applied toward the required work experience will be granted on a three to one (3 to 1) basis and will be calculated using clock hours spent in class. For example, three hours in class would equate to one hour of allowable experience;
(3) Applicants must provide the Department or its authorized representative verifiable documentation in the form of sealed certified transcripts or an official certificate from the administering institution(s) showing successful completion of study in the related subject matter;
(4) The Department or its authorized representative will review the subject matter of the applicant's education on an individual basis;
(5) Certified transcripts or official copies of certificates presented to the Department in an envelope sealed by the program or institution or instructor and verified as sealed may be accepted directly from the applicant;
(6) If a program or institution granting credit is no longer in business, the Department will accept for review a copy of a certificate of completion or transcript or diploma in the required subject matter and hours. The Department may require additional information to verify the authenticity of such documents.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 703.415, 703.425, 703.430, 703.435, 703.445, 703.450, 703.460, 703.465 & 703.480
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 703.401 - 703.995
- DPSST 7-2006, f. & cert. ef. 5-15-06
Or. Admin. R. 259-061-0150 Provisional Investigator Upgrade to Private Investigator
(1) The license of a Provisional Investigator will be upgraded to a Private Investigator license when the applicant provides verifiable documentation that he or she has performed 1500 hours of investigatory work, or completed a course of study approved by the Department.
(2) The expiration date for a provisional investigator’s current license will not change when upgraded to a private investigator unless the upgrade is granted at the time of renewal or a new application and fee is received.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 703.415, 703.425, 703.430, 703.435, 703.445, 703.450, 703.460, 703.465 & 703.480
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 703.401 - 703.995
- DPSST 7-2006, f. & cert. ef. 5-15-06
Or. Admin. R. 259-061-0160 Applying for Inactive Status
(1) Licensed investigators may apply to have their license inactivated at any time during a licensure period by submitting a DPSST Inactive and Reactive Application (PI-17). Investigators whose licenses are on an inactive status may not work as an investigator.
(2) License reactivation may be applied for at any time during a licensure period by submitting a PI-17, along with payment of the license reactivation fee.
(3) Entering into inactive status does not affect the expiration date of an investigator’s license or the application or reapplication timelines found in OAR 259-061-0010.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 703.480
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 703.445 & 703.480
- DPSST 3-2016, f. & cert. ef. 3-22-16
- DPSST 7-2006, f. & cert. ef. 5-15-06
Or. Admin. R. 259-061-0180 Maintaining Current Information
Within 10 days of a change, a licensed investigator or applicant for licensure must notify the Department in writing of any changes to name, home address, home phone number, mailing address, business name, business address, or business phone number.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 703.415, 703.425, 703.430, 703.435, 703.445, 703.450, 703.460, 703.465 & 703.480
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 703.401 - 703.995
- DPSST 7-2006, f. & cert. ef. 5-15-06
Or. Admin. R. 259-061-0195 Investigator Rules of Professional Conduct
(1) Licensed investigators are required to comply with the requirements of conduct found in ORS 703.450. A violation of any of these standards may result in civil penalty pursuant to OAR 259-061-0200 or denial, suspension or revocation of the investigator’s license pursuant to OAR 259-061-0300.
(2) In addition to the requirements found in ORS 703.450 (8), any contracts provided by a licensed investigator to provide investigatory services must include the investigator’s legal name and Department-issued investigator license number.
(3) For the purposes of ORS 703.450 (17), licensed investigators must maintain their client’s confidentiality by not intentionally revealing or releasing information about their client to a third party without the consent of the client or a clear legal reason. What is considered confidential information is to be determined between the investigator and their client. For the purposes of the Department’s enforcement of client confidentiality, the determination of what is confidential must be documented between the licensed investigator and their client.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 703.480
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 703.480 & ORS 703.450
- DPSST 58-2018, adopt filed 07/31/2018, effective 08/01/2018
Or. Admin. R. 259-061-0200 Compliance
(1) The Department may cause any administrative proceeding or court action to be initiated to enforce compliance with the provisions of ORS 703.010 to 703.995 and these rules.
(2) Violations. The Department may find violations and recommend assessment of civil penalties upon finding that an investigator has previously engaged in or is currently engaging in any of the following acts:
(a) Providing investigative services without valid licensure;
(b) The falsification of any documents submitted to the Department;
(c) Failure to cease providing investigative services upon expiration of licensure, notice of termination, suspension, denial or revocation;
(d) Failure to submit properly completed forms or documentation in a time frame as designated by the Department; or
(e) Any other violation of the requirements of ORS 703.401 to 703.490 or these rules.
(3) The Department may issue a Demand to Examine Books and Records (DEBR) to obtain any record or document related to compliance.
(a) The Department may cause inspection or audits of the records of any investigator. Records inspected may include any document relating to the requirements of ORS 703.401 to 703.490 and these rules.
(b) Failure to cooperate or respond to any investigative inquires or DEBR may result in the issuance of a civil penalty as described in this rule and the revocation or denial of licensure as described in OAR 259-061-0300.
(4) Complaints and Allegations of Violation.
(a) All complaints or allegations of violations must be submitted on a Department-approved complaint form before an investigation can be initiated, unless the Department grants an exception. The Department may consider additional credible sources of information to determine non-compliance.
(b) A complainant other than the Department must file the complaint with the Department within one year of knowledge of the incident's occurrence.
(c) A preliminary administrative review of the complaint or allegation will be conducted by the Department to ensure there is sufficient information to proceed. Staff may conduct a fact-finding preliminary investigation.
(A) If sufficient information is determined to support the compliant or allegation, the Department may open and conduct an investigation and gather relevant information.
(B) Investigators or other involved parties must respond to any questions or requests within 20 days after a request is mailed by the Department, unless an extension is requested and approved by the Department.
(d) Unless otherwise prohibited by law, if the complainant is a client or former client of the respondent, the complainant must sign the waiver of confidentiality allowing the Department access to records and other materials. Refusal by a complainant to comply with these requirements may result in no investigation of the complaint.
(5) All records related to alleged violations are subject to ORS 192.311to 192.478, 703.480(2)(a) and ORS 703.473(3).
(6) Procedures for Proposing a Civil Penalty.
(a) The Department may issue an Allegation of Non-Compliance when there is reason to believe a violation has occurred. The purpose of this document is to provide education and allow an opportunity to gain compliance within 30 days without penalty.
(b) The Department will issue a Notice of Violation upon discovery of violation as described in this rule. The Notice will include a statement of found violations and proposed sanctions. An individual may be given the opportunity to remedy the violation and pay a penalty within 10 days of the mailing of the notice.
(A) The Department may extend the time to remedy a violation upon a showing of good cause.
(B) An individual will be given the opportunity to provide mitigation to the Department.
(c) The Department, through the Policy Committee and Board, will issue a Notice of Intent to Propose Civil Penalty upon the failure to remedy a violation or request an extension within 10 days of the mailing of the Notice of Violation.
(7) Hearing Request.
(a) If the Department issues a Notice of Intent to Propose Civil Penalty, an individual is entitled to a contested case hearing in accordance with the applicable provisions of the Attorney General’s Model Rules of Procedure adopted under OAR 259-005-0015.
(b) The Department must receive a request for hearing in writing within 20 days of the date the Notice of Intent to Propose Civil Penalty was served on the individual.
(8) Default Order. If a timely request for a hearing is not received, the Notice of Intent to Impose Civil Penalty will become a Final Order Imposing Civil Penalty.
(9) Resolution by Stipulation. The Department is authorized to seek resolution by stipulation, subject to acceptance and approval by the Board and Director, if:
(a) The matter is resolved before entry of a Final Order assessing penalty;
(b) The respondent satisfies all terms set forth by the Department within the time allowed; and
(c) Any stipulated penalty amount is received by the Department.
(10) Civil Penalty Amounts.
(a) Investigators will be charged a penalty of not more than $500 for each violation.
(b) Notwithstanding subsection (a), individuals in violation of ORS 703.405 will be charged a penalty of not more than $5,000 for each violation with maximum penalties not to exceed $10,000 per year.
(c) For the purposes of imposing civil penalties, the Department will consider each violation of any section or sub-section of ORS 703. 401 to 703.490 or any section or subsection of these rules a separate violation.
(11) The Department may reduce or waive civil penalties from the amounts set in this rule in situations where further mitigation is warranted or the matter is resolved by stipulation at any time prior to the entry of a Final Order.
(12) Staff will recommend the full civil penalty amount for individuals that fail to satisfy the terms as stipulated. The recommendation will be reviewed by the Policy Committee and approved by the Board.
(13) An individual accused of a violation will be given the opportunity to provide written mitigation to the Department for consideration by the Department, Policy Committee or the Board.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 703.995
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 703.995
- DPSST 64-2018, amend filed 10/25/2018, effective 10/25/2018
- DPSST 27-2014, f. & cert. ef. 10-1-14
- DPSST 7-2006, f. & cert. ef. 5-15-06
Or. Admin. R. 259-061-0240 Continuing Education Requirements
(1) Licensed investigators are required to complete the following continuing education requirements during each two-year licensure period.
(a) A licensed private investigator must complete at least 32 hours of continuing education. At least two of the hours must be in ethics.
(b) A licensed provisional investigator must complete at least 40 hours of continuing education. At least two of the hours must be in ethics.
(2) “Continuing education” means any educational endeavor that reasonably could be considered beneficial to the work of the investigator.
(3) Continuing education may be completed in-person, remotely, or through self-study.
(4) Continuing education sources include, but are not limited to:
(a) Participation in conferences or educational courses offered by trade schools or colleges, whether as an attendee or a presenter;
(b) Independent studies;
(c) Publishing articles related to the field of investigation; and
(d) Training, classes, seminars, workshops, lectures, and webinars.
(5) Completion of the continuing education must be reported through a Department-approved submission process. The report may be submitted during the current licensure period or with the application for renewal.
(a) The Department may require the investigator to describe how the reported continuing education is beneficial to their work as an investigator.
(b) The Department may reject reported continuing education that it does not reasonably consider beneficial to the work of the investigator.
(6) If an investigator exceeds the required continuing education hours during a two-year licensure period, the investigator may report the additional hours to the Department and request that the hours carry over to the next licensing period.
(a) The maximum carryover is 15 hours per licensing period.
(b) Additional hours in ethics may carry over as part of the total number of hours completed but may not be used to satisfy the requirement to complete at least two hours in ethics during each licensing period.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 703.480
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 703.430, ORS 703.480 & ORS 703.447
- DPSST 9-2023, amend filed 10/26/2023, effective 10/26/2023
- DPSST 8-2020, temporary amend filed 03/31/2020, effective 04/01/2020 through 09/27/2020
- DPSST 2-2019, minor correction filed 04/17/2019, effective 04/17/2019
- DPSST 2-2015, f. & cert. ef. 1-5-15
- DPSST 7-2006, f. & cert. ef. 5-15-06
Or. Admin. R. 259-061-0300 Denial/Suspension/Revocation
(1) It is the responsibility of the Board, through the Private Security and Investigator Policy Committee, to set the standards, and of the Department to uphold them, to ensure the highest level of professionalism and discipline. The Board will uphold these standards at all times unless the Board determines that neither the safety of the public or respect of the profession is compromised.
(2) Mandatory Grounds for Denying, Suspending or Revoking Private Investigator Licensure. The Department must deny or revoke the license of any applicant or private investigator after written notice and hearing, if requested, upon finding that the applicant or private investigator has been convicted of a person felony as defined by the Criminal Justice Commission in OAR 213-003-0001 in effect on February 3, 2014 or any crime with similar elements in any other jurisdiction;
(3) Emergency Suspension Order: The Department may issue an emergency suspension order pursuant to OAR 137-003-0560 immediately suspending a private investigator’s licensure upon finding that a person has been charged with any of the mandatory disqualifying crimes listed in section (2) of this rule. The report may be in any form and from any source.
(a) The Department may combine the hearing on the Emergency Suspension Order with any underlying proceeding affecting the license.
(b) The sole purpose of the emergency suspension hearing will be to determine whether the individual was charged with a mandatory disqualifying crime. Upon showing that an individual was not charged with a mandatory disqualifying crime, the suspension of the individual’s license will be rescinded, otherwise the suspension will remain in effect until final disposition of the charges.
(4) Discretionary Grounds for Denying, Suspending or Revoking Private Investigator Licensure. The Department may deny or revoke the licensure of any applicant or private investigator after written notice and hearing, if requested, upon finding that an applicant or private investigator:
(a) Fails to meet the minimum standards for licensure as a private investigator as defined in OAR 259-061-0040;
(b) Has falsified any information submitted on the application for licensure, including failing to disclose any criminal convictions, or any other documents submitted to the Department pertaining to private investigator licensure;
(c) Has violated any of the conditions of a temporary or provisional license as described in ORS 703.401-703.995 and these rules;
(d) Has failed to submit properly completed forms or documentation in a time frame as designated by the Department;
(e) Has failed to pay a civil penalty or fee imposed by the Department when due;
(f) Has failed to comply with any provisions found in ORS 703.401-703.995 or these rules;
(g) Has failed to abide by any of the requirements of conduct found ORS 703.450; or
(h) Lacks moral fitness. For the purposes of this standard, the Department, through the Policy Committee and Board, has defined lack of moral fitness as:
(A) Lack of Character. Lack of character includes, but is not limited to, being disrespectful, failing to be faithful and diligent to an investigative charge, and failing to use discretion or compassion;
(B) Dishonesty. Lack of honesty includes, but is not limited to, untruthfulness, dishonesty by admission or omission, deception, misrepresentation or falsification;
(C) Failure to strive for justice. Failing to strive for justice includes, but is not limited to, unjust treatment or being partial, unfair or discriminatory;
(D) Lack of Public Trust. Failure to maintain public trust and confidence includes, but is not limited to, acting in an unlawful manner or not adhering to industry standards; or
(E) Lack of Respect for the Laws of this State or Nation. Lack of respect for the laws of this state and nation includes behavior which leads to an arrest or conviction within a ten-year period prior to application or during licensure.
(5) Procedure for Denial or Revocation of Licensure. Scope of Revocation. Whenever the Department revokes the licensure of a private investigator under the provisions of this rule, the revocation will encompass all private investigator licenses the Department has issued to that person.
(6) Denial and Revocation Procedure.
(a) Department Initiated Review: Upon receipt of factual written information from any source the Department may request that the Board deny, revoke or suspend the private investigator’s licensure.
(b) Department Staff Review: When the Department receives information from any source that a private investigator may not meet the established standards for Oregon private investigators, the Department will review the request and supporting factual information to determine if a sufficient factual basis exists to support the request for denial, suspension or revocation of a private investigator license under ORS 703.401-703.995 and these rules.
(A) If the Department determines that a private investigator may have engaged in discretionary disqualifying misconduct:
(i) The Department will seek input from the affected private investigator by allowing the individual to provide, in writing, information for review.
(ii) The Department may take action upon discovery of discretionary disqualifying misconduct when consensus is reached that the nature of the discretionary disqualifying misconduct is appropriate for summary staff disposition or administrative closure.
(iii) If Department staff believes that a private investigator may have engaged in discretionary disqualifying misconduct, Department staff will review the conduct, including aggravating and mitigating circumstances. If Department staff is unable to reach a consensus to summarily dispose of or administratively close the case, the case will be presented to the Board, through the Private Investigator Subcommittee and the Policy Committee.
(B) In making a decision to authorize initiation of proceedings under section (4) of this rule based on discretionary disqualifying misconduct, Department staff, the Private Investigator Subcommittee, the Policy Committee and Board will consider mitigating and aggravating circumstances.
(c) Initiation of Proceedings: Upon determination that a sufficient factual basis exists to support the request for denial, suspension, or revocation of a private investigator license under ORS 703.401–703.995 or these administrative rules, the Department will prepare and serve a contested case notice on the private investigator.
(A) All contested case notices will be prepared in accordance with the applicable provisions of the Attorney General’s Model Rules of Procedure adopted under OAR 259-005-0015.
(B) In discretionary cases heard by a policy committee, the contested case notice will be served on the private investigator prior to Board review. If the Board disapproves the Policy Committee’s recommendation, the Department will withdraw the contested case notice.
(C) Applicants who choose to withdraw their application forfeit their application fees.
(d) Response Time:
(A) A party who has been served with an Emergency Suspension Order has 90 days from the date of mailing or personal service of the Order in which to file a written request for hearing with the Department.
(B) A party who has been served with a Contested Case Notice of Intent to Deny Licensure has 60 days from the date of mailing or personal service of the notice in which to file a written request for a hearing or a written request withdrawing their application from consideration with the Department.
(C) A party who has been served with a Contested Case Notice of Intent to Revoke Licensure has 20 days from the date of the mailing or personal service in which to file a written request for hearing with the Department.
(e) Default Orders:
(A) If a timely request for a hearing is not received, the Contested Case Notice will become a final order denying or revoking licensure pursuant to OAR 137-003-0672.
(B) If a timely request for a hearing is not received in cases heard by a policy committee, the Contested Case Notice will become a final order denying or revoking certification pursuant to OAR 137-003-0672, pending Board affirmation.
(f) Final Order:
(A) A final order will be issued pursuant to the applicable provisions of the Attorney General’s Model Rules of Procedure adopted under OAR 259-005-0015 if a private investigator fails to file exceptions and arguments within 20 days of issuance of the proposed order.
(B) Department-proposed amendments to the proposed order in a case that was originally heard by a policy committee must be considered and approved by the policy committee that originally reviewed the case before a final order is issued.
(g) Stipulated Order Revoking Licensure: The Department may enter a stipulated order revoking licensure of a private investigator upon the person’s voluntary agreement to terminate an administrative proceeding to revoke a license, or to surrender a license, under the terms and conditions provided in the stipulated order.
(7) Appeals, Ineligibility Period and Reconsideration. Appeal Procedure: Applicants and private investigators aggrieved by the findings and Order of the Department may file an appeal with the Court of Appeals from the Final Order of the Department, as provided in ORS 183.480.
(8) Upon denial or revocation of a licensure, an individual is ineligible to reapply for future licensure for a period of three years from the date of the final order issued by the Department.
(a) Any applicant reapplying for licensure must reapply in accordance OAR 259-061-0020.
(b) Pursuant to ORS 703.465(4), an applicant reapplying for licensure must prove by a preponderance of the evidence that the grounds for the denial or revocation no longer exist.
(c) In reconsidering the application of an applicant whose certification or licensure was previously denied or revoked for discretionary grounds, the Department, the Policy Committee and the Board may consider mitigating and aggravating circumstances.
(d) The Board’s decision to deny an application for reconsideration will be subject to the contested case procedure described under subsection (6) of this rule.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 703.480
- Statutes/Other Implemented: 703.480
- DPSST 1-2016, f. & cert. ef. 3-22-16
- DPSST 5-2015, f. & cert. ef. 3-24-15
- DPSST 20-2014, f. & cert. ef. 7-30-14
- DPSST 11-2014, f. & cert. ef. 5-5-14
Division 70 PUBLIC SAFETY MEMORIAL FUND
Or. Admin. R. 259-070-0005 Definitions
The following definitions are adopted in addition to the definitions provided in ORS 243.954:
(1) "Board" means the Public Safety Memorial Fund Board.
(2) "Department" means the Department of Public Safety Standards and Training.
(3) “Final Order of Eligibility” means the final order issued by the Department stating the Board’s determination on whether or not the public safety officer suffered a qualifying death or disability. The final order of eligibility becomes the established basis for eligibility when the Board makes determinations for discretionary benefit awards pursuant to ORS 243.956 and OAR 259-070-0020.
(4) "Fund" means the Public Safety Memorial Fund.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 243.970 & ORS 243.950
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 243.954
- DPSST 51-2018, amend filed 06/22/2018, effective 06/22/2018
- DPSST 20-2008, f. & cert. ef. 10-15-08
- DPSST 12-2005, f. & cert. ef. 11-15-05
- BPSST 3-2002, f. & cert. ef. 2-11-02
- BPSST 1-2001, f. & cert. ef. 1-16-01
- BPSST 5-2000, f. & cert. ef. 9-29-00
- BPSST 4-2000(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 9-29-00 thru 3-3-01
- BPSST 2-2000(Temp), f. 4-21-00, cert. ef. 4-27-00 thru 10-16-00
Or. Admin. R. 259-070-0010 Eligibility
(1) Eligibility of award applies to public safety officers who suffered a qualifying death or disability on or after October 23, 1999. The following subsections codify the effective dates and legislative changes to eligible beneficiaries. Subject to availability of funds, the Board may award benefits to:
(a) Family members of public safety officers who suffered a qualifying death or disability after January 1, 1997, but prior to October 23, 1999. See Chapter 981, Oregon Laws 1999.
(b) Family members of public safety officers who suffered a qualifying death or disability on or after October 23, 1999. See Chapter 981, Oregon Laws 1999.
(c) Public safety officers who suffered a qualifying disability on or after January 1, 2002. See Chapter 493, Oregon Laws 2001.
(d) Family members and parents of public safety officers who suffered a qualifying death or disability on or after January 1, 2004. See Chapter 259, Oregon Laws 2003.
(e) Family members, parents, and designees of public safety officers who suffered a qualifying death or disability on or after January 1, 2008. See Chapter 378, Oregon Laws 2007.
(f) Regulatory specialists who suffered a qualifying disability on or after January 1, 2024. See Chapter 212, Oregon Laws 2023.
(g) Family members, parents, and designees of regulatory specialists who suffered a qualifying death or disability on or after January 1, 2024. See Chapter 212, Oregon Laws 2023.
(2) Prior to acceptance of an initial application, any individual applying for benefits based on a qualifying disability must provide satisfactory evidence that they meet the definition of "permanent total disability" found in ORS 656.206 and OAR 436-030-0055. Satisfactory evidence is established by submitting:
(a) Proof of Determination of Permanent Total Disability in compliance with the Worker's Compensation Division of the Department of Consumer and Business Services; or
(b) Competent written vocational testimony by a person fully certified by the State of Oregon to render vocational services that the applicant meets the definition of "permanent total disability" found in ORS 656.206 and OAR 430-030-0055.
(3) For the purposes of ORS 243.954(3)(a), “spouse” includes members of same-sex couples whose marriage was validly performed in another jurisdiction, effective January 1, 2014.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 243.970
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 243.956
- DPSST 6-2024, amend filed 07/08/2024, effective 07/10/2024
- DPSST 34-2014, f. & cert. ef. 12-30-14
- DPSST 22-2014(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 8-11-14 thru 2-6-15
- DPSST 18-2011, f. & cert. ef. 12-28-11
- DPSST 20-2008, f. & cert. ef. 10-15-08
- DPSST 1-2007, f. & cert. ef. 1-12-07
- DPSST 12-2005, f. & cert. ef. 11-15-05
- BPSST 3-2002, f. & cert. ef. 2-11-02
- BPSST 5-2000, f. & cert. ef. 9-29-00
- BPSST 2-2000(Temp), f. 4-21-00, cert. ef. 4-27-00 thru 10-16-00
Or. Admin. R. 259-070-0020 Discretionary Benefits
(1) The Fund provides immediate, temporary financial assistance to public safety officers, family members of public safety officers, and parents or designees of public safety officers when the public safety officer suffers a qualifying death or disability in the line of duty. The Board may provide these financial assistance benefits to assist with health and dental insurance, mortgage payments and education scholarships. Applicant eligibility for the award of discretionary benefits is based upon the eligibility requirements pursuant to ORS 243.956 and the rules adopted in OAR chapter 259 division 70.
(2) Health and Dental Insurance. The Board may award benefits to afford health and dental insurance to a public safety officer, eligible family members or designees if an applicant for benefits does not have alternate health and dental coverage.
(a) “Alternate health and dental coverage” means insurance coverage effective on the date of the public safety officer’s qualifying death or disability that is separate from, or in addition to, the coverage that was provided through the public safety officer’s employment on the date the qualifying death or disability occurred. Alternate coverage does not need to be comparable to the public safety officer’s coverage to be considered alternate coverage.
(A) “Alternate health and dental coverage” includes health and dental insurance provided by:
(i) A current employer;
(ii) A government healthcare program such as Medicare or the Oregon Health Plan;
(iii) An insurance policy obtained through the Affordable Care Act (ACA) exchange that is currently in effect at the time of the application, is subsidized by a federal or state program and that provides coverage for the applicant at the time of the application;
(iv) An educational institution; or
(v) Any other source that insures the applicant at the time of the application.
(B) “Alternate health and dental coverage” does not include:
(i) Unsubsidized health and dental coverage or health and dental coverage available through the ACA exchange unless the applicant has applied for and received coverage from an insurer through the exchange; or
(ii) Health and dental insurance coverage obtained by, or for, an applicant after the public safety officer’s qualifying death or disability to replace the public safety officer’s insurance coverage that was in place prior to the qualifying death or disability.
(b) Upon a determination that an applicant is eligible for the award of health and dental insurance benefits, the Board will determine the amount of benefits to be awarded up to, but not to exceed, an amount sufficient to allow recipients to purchase health and dental insurance comparable to that provided by the public safety officer at the time of their qualifying death or disability.
(c) The Board will review an application for health and dental insurance benefits made by a public safety officer, an eligible family member, or designee who has declined or lost alternate health and dental coverage to determine eligibility for reimbursement from the Fund. The Board will consider the totality of the circumstances surrounding the applicant’s request for benefits, including but not limited to, the reasons for declining or for the loss of alternate health and dental coverage.
(d) For the purposes of ORS 243.956 (5)(a) and (c), a spouse or designee is eligible to apply for health and dental insurance benefits for five years from the date the Board enters a final order of eligibility or until remarriage, whichever occurs first. A spouse or designee is required to notify the Department immediately upon remarriage.
(e) Children or dependents between 18 and 23 years old must be attending school full-time to be eligible for the health and dental insurance benefits under ORS 243.956 (5)(b). For the purposes of this rule, “attending school full-time” means being enrolled as a student in school full-time, in accordance with the school’s definition for full-time enrollment, during a minimum of any part of five calendar months during the calendar year. A recipient is required to notify the Department immediately upon the change of student enrollment status of an eligible child or dependent.
(3) Mortgage Payments. For the purposes of ORS 243.956 (7), an applicant is eligible to apply for mortgage payment benefits within the first 12 months following the date the Board enters a final order of eligibility.
(4) Scholarships.
(a) The Board may award scholarship benefits for the following:
(A) A graduate program of higher education if the applicant has exhausted benefits received under the Public Safety Officers’ Educational Assistance Program administered by the United States Department of Justice (PSOEA) and the applicant applies for scholarship benefits within one year from the date of exhaustion of the benefits received under the PSOEA. The date of exhaustion is the date on which the applicant receives the last payment of PSOEA benefits.
(B) An undergraduate degree program if the applicant is not eligible for benefits under PSOEA or the PSOEA no longer exists.
(b) To be eligible for scholarship benefits, an applicant must apply for other available public education benefits, including:
(A) The Free Application for Federal Student Aid (FAFSA) administered by the United States Department of Education; and
(B) Scholarships available under ORS 348.270 as administered by the Oregon Higher Education Coordinating Commission.
(c) In determining the amount of scholarship benefits, the Board will consider the following:
(A) The financial need of the applicant based on the degree program sought by the applicant;
(B) The institution where the degree will be obtained;
(C) The cost of the degree; and
(D) The applicant’s sources of income anticipated over the period that the applicant estimates the applicant can obtain the degree.
(d) If a beneficiary of an undergraduate scholarship is the surviving spouse of a public safety officer, the beneficiary must notify the Department immediately upon remarriage. If the beneficiary of an undergraduate scholarship is the spouse of a public safety officer who suffered a qualifying disability, the beneficiary must give notice immediately in the event of a divorce from the public safety officer.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 243.950 & ORS 243.970
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 243.962, ORS 243.956 & ORS 243.959
- DPSST 51-2018, amend filed 06/22/2018, effective 06/22/2018
- DPSST 27-2012, f. & cert. ef. 12-24-12
- DPSST 20-2012, f. & cert. ef. 9-24-12
- DPSST 14-2012, f. 6-27-12, cert. ef. 7-1-12
- DPSST 12-2005, f. & cert. ef. 11-15-05
- BPSST 3-2002, f. & cert. ef. 2-11-02
- BPSST 5-2000, f. & cert. ef. 9-29-00
- BPSST 2-2000(Temp), f. 4-21-00, cert. ef. 4-27-00 thru 10-16-00
Or. Admin. R. 259-070-0050 Transition Process for Current Beneficiaries
(1) A family member or public safety officer who had a qualifying death or permanent total disability and who applied for scholarship benefits prior to January 1, 2006, shall continue to be eligible to apply for scholarship benefits under the terms that were operative until January 1, 2004, awarding benefits for undergraduate degrees only.
(2) A family member or public safety officer who had a qualifying death or permanent total disability and who was receiving health and dental benefits prior to January 1, 2004, shall continue to receive health and dental benefits for up to five years or until the spouse remarries, whichever occurs first; and until the child(ren) attain 18 years of age (or 23 years of age if the child(ren) is attending school.
(3) A family member, designee, child or dependent of a public safety officer who suffered a qualifying death, or a public safety officer who had a permanent total disability, and who was receiving health and dental benefits prior to January 1, 2018, shall continue to receive health and dental benefits in accordance with the timelines defined in ORS 243.956 (5) and (6) under the Board’s supplemental application process for discretionary benefits that was operative prior to January 1, 2018.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 243.956 & ORS 243.970
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 243.956 & ORS 243.970
- DPSST 53-2018, amend filed 06/22/2018, effective 06/22/2018
- DPSST 12-2005, f. & cert. ef. 11-15-05
- BPSST 5-2000, f. & cert. ef. 9-29-00
- BPSST 2-2000(Temp), f. 4-21-00, cert. ef. 4-27-00 thru 10-16-00
Division 80 OREGON FALLEN LAW ENFORCEMENT MEMORIAL
Or. Admin. R. 259-080-0005 Oregon Fallen Law Enforcement Memorial
(1) The Oregon Fallen Law Enforcement Memorial was established to honor law enforcement officers killed in the line of duty.
(2) The Board on Public Safety Standards and Training (Board) designates the following public safety personnel classifications as law enforcement officers who may be honored on the Oregon Fallen Law Enforcement Memorial:
(a) Police officers, reserve officers, corrections officers, parole and probation officers, and regulatory specialists, as each term is defined in ORS 181A.355; and
(b) Federal law enforcement officers assigned to or performing law enforcement duties in Oregon.
(3) The Board may find a law enforcement officer eligible for recognition on the Oregon Fallen Law Enforcement Memorial when the potential honoree’s death is a direct and proximate result of:
(a) An injury that the law enforcement officer sustained while performing, attempting to perform, or as a result of performing a line of duty activity as defined in section (4) of this rule;
(b) An act committed against the law enforcement officer because of their position as a law enforcement officer; or
(c) Any other circumstances that the Board determines are appropriate for inclusion.
(4) The following definitions and interpretations apply to each potential honoree:
(a) A “line of duty activity” is an activity or action that the law enforcement officer is authorized or obligated to perform by law, rule, regulation, or condition of employment or service and is directly related to the protection of life or property or the preservation of public order.
(b) A law enforcement officer’s on or off duty status does not affect the interpretation of the definition of a line of duty activity.
(c) A death that is a direct and proximate result of training for a line of duty activity may be considered sufficient cause for inclusion.
(d) Inclusion on the National Law Enforcement Officers Memorial will be considered sufficient cause for inclusion on the Oregon Fallen Law Enforcement Memorial.
(e) Deaths attributed to natural causes, deaths attributed to voluntary alcohol or controlled substance abuse, deaths caused by gross negligence or intentional misconduct, and deaths caused by the officer's intention to bring about their own death are not eligible for inclusion on the Oregon Fallen Law Enforcement Memorial.
(5) Applications to have a law enforcement officer recognized on the Oregon Fallen Law Enforcement Memorial must be submitted by the potential honoree’s employer or a recognized public safety officer association.
(6) The application must include supporting documentation. Documentation may include but is not limited to death certificates, police reports, coroner or medical examiner reports, newspaper articles, documents that evidence the payment of death benefits, sworn statements or affidavits submitted by persons having firsthand knowledge or pertinent facts and circumstances, historical records, or other written documentation found acceptable by the Board.
(7) The Board will consider each complete application to determine if sufficient documentation exists to satisfy the criteria for inclusion as defined in this rule. The Board may at its discretion approve, deny, or remand an application for additional documentation. The Board’s decision will be determined by a majority vote.
(8) Inclusion on the Oregon Fallen Law Enforcement Memorial is a privilege and not a right, and the decision of the Board is final and non-appealable.
(9) The Board’s criteria for including a law enforcement officer’s name on the Oregon Fallen Law Enforcement Memorial are separate and distinct from the line of duty death criteria used by other entities or programs, including local and national law enforcement memorials and any benefits program. Acceptance for inclusion on the Oregon Fallen Law Enforcement Memorial in no way impacts decisions made by another entity or program. Conversely, the determination that a potential honoree is entitled to such benefits or privileges does not necessarily entitle the officer to inclusion on the Oregon Fallen Law Enforcement Memorial.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 181A.675
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 181A.675
- DPSST 7-2021, adopt filed 04/22/2021, effective 04/23/2021
Division 90 THE LAW ENFORCEMENT MEDAL OF HONOR AND THE LAW ENFORCEMENT MEDAL OF ULTIMATE SACRIFICE
Or. Admin. R. 259-090-0010 Qualifications for the Law Enforcement Medal of Honor and the Law Enforcement Medal of Ultimate Sacrifice
(1) The Governor’s Commission on the Law Enforcement Medal of Honor is responsible for establishing the qualifications for nomination as a recipient of the Law Enforcement Medal of Honor or the Law Enforcement Medal of Ultimate Sacrifice, considering candidates for nomination, and nominating candidates.
(2) To be awarded the Law Enforcement Medal of Honor or the Law Enforcement Medal of Ultimate Sacrifice a candidate must be a law enforcement officer.
(a) “Law enforcement officer” means:
(A) A police officer;
(B) A reserve officer;
(C) A corrections officer;
(D) A parole and probation officer; or
(E) A state, county, municipal, federal, or tribal individual who is commissioned and responsible for enforcing criminal laws in the state of Oregon.
(b) The Commission uses the definitions found in ORS 181A.355 to determine if a candidate meets this definition of “law enforcement officer.”
(3) Qualifications for Nomination for the Law Enforcement Medal of Honor.
(a) The candidate must have distinguished themselves by exceptionally honorable and meritorious conduct. "Exceptionally honorable and meritorious conduct" or “conduct” means an officer has distinguished themselves conspicuously by gallantry and fortitude at the risk of their life above and beyond the call of duty. It involves risk of life and is an act of bravery or self-sacrifice so conspicuous as to clearly distinguish the individual above their comrades.
(b) The conduct must have occurred while acting in an official capacity and performing a law enforcement function.
(c) The conduct must have occurred on or after January 1, 2006.
(4) Qualifications for Nomination for the Law Enforcement Medal of Ultimate Sacrifice.
(a) The candidate must have died while performing duties as a law enforcement officer or been killed because of employment as a law enforcement officer.
(b) The death must have occurred on or after January 1, 2011.
(5) Considering Candidates for Nomination.
(a) The Commission may consider a candidate based on submission of an application, the request of a Commission member, or a referral from the Department of Public Safety Standards and Training.
(b) The application, request, or referral for consideration must include an approval from the agency head of the candidate’s employing agency.
(c) In making an eligibility determination, the Commission may consider any supporting documentation. Documentation may include but is not limited to police reports, media reports, pictures, testimonials, affidavits, or other written documentation found acceptable by the Commission.
(d) The Commission may request additional information as needed.
(6) Nomination by the Commission.
(a) The Commission will consider each candidate to determine if sufficient documentation exists to satisfy the qualifications for nomination as defined in this rule.
(b) The Commission may approve or deny the nomination of a candidate.
(c) Commission members are prohibited from voting on a candidate for nomination when the candidate is from their employing agency. When a member is required to abstain from voting under this rule, the abstention does not count against the vote requirement.
(d) Approval of a nomination for the Law Enforcement Medal of Honor requires a unanimous vote of the Commission members present.
(e) Approval of a nomination for the Law Enforcement Medal of Ultimate Sacrifice requires a majority vote of the Commission members present.
(f) Nomination for the Law Enforcement Medal of Honor or Law Enforcement Medal of Ultimate Sacrifice is a privilege and not a right. The decision of the Commission is final and non-appealable.
(7) Nominations are submitted to the Governor for approval. When approved, the Governor or the Governor’s designee awards the medal.
(a) Award of the Law Enforcement Medal of Honor. The Medal of Honor may be awarded to the law enforcement officer, or posthumously to a representative of the deceased law enforcement officer, at an awards ceremony at an appropriate time determined by the Commission and approved by the Governor. The recipient of the Medal retains the option of a public or private ceremony.
(b) Award of the Law Enforcement Medal of Ultimate Sacrifice. The Medal of Ultimate Sacrifice may be awarded to the family of the deceased law enforcement officer at the time of services or memorials held in honor of the fallen officer or at an awards ceremony at an appropriate time determined by the Commission and approved by the Governor. Award of the Medal of Ultimate Sacrifice should be coordinated with the family or representative of the family. If the Medal is awarded at an awards ceremony, the recipient of the Medal retains the option of a public or private ceremony.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 176.260, ORS 176.262 & ORS 176.267
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 176.260, ORS 176.262 & ORS 176.267
- DPSST 2-2023, adopt filed 03/09/2023, effective 03/20/2023
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