agency-3901•Ohio Administrative Code 3901 — Department of Insurance
Ohio Administrative Code 3901 — Department of Insurance
agency-3901Ohio Adm.Code 3901Regulation
Chapter 3901-1 General Provisions
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-1-01 Public notice by publication.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to outline notice by publication under Chapter 1731., 1739., 1751., 1761., or Title XXXIX of the Revised Code, or when otherwise determined by the superintendent of insurance.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under section 3901.041 of the Revised Code.
(C) Other public notice by superintendent of insurance
Whenever Chapter 1731., 1739., 1751., 1761., or Title XXXIX of the Revised Code directs public notice to be given by the superintendent of insurance, or the superintendent otherwise determines to provide public notice, and the method and content of notice is not otherwise set forth in rule or statute, notice may be given by publication to the departments web site in paragraph (D) of this rule.
(D) Public notice by insurance industry
(1) Except in cases where the method and content of notice is otherwise specified in statute or rule, an insurance company or any connected individual or firm subject to the regulation and jurisdiction of the department of insurance, may provide notice in accord with paragraph (C) of this rule when directed to provide notice by any section of the Revised Code.
(2) Such public notice includes:
(a) A synopsis or general statement of the subject matter involved.
(b) An indication of the company's position, or action to be taken, regarding the subject of notice.
(c) The date, time, and place of hearing, if any, or the effective date of action taken, or to be taken.
(E) Discretion to vary publication
Whenever the superintendent of insurance determines that the subject matter of public notice is of an unusual nature and appropriate for more widespread publication, the superintendent may direct that such notice be also made by publication to the departments web site. In any case, the superintendent of insurance may direct that publication be made more than once, as frequently as may be appropriate. In addition to the public notice provided by this rule, the superintendent of insurance may give, or order, such other means of notice as the superintendent deems necessary or appropriate.
(F) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated February 13, 2025 at 8:09 AM
History
- Effective: February 13, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-1-02 Access to confidential personal information.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to standardize employee access to the confidential personal information that the department of insurance (department) keeps. This rule applies to both electronic records and records kept on paper.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under section 3901.041 of the Revised Code and division (B) of section 1347.15 of the Revised Code that requires each state agency to adopt rules under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to standardize access to confidential personal information.
(C) Definitions
For the purpose of this rule promulgated in accordance with section 1347.15 of the Revised Code, the following definitions, as set out by the department of administrative services in rule 123:3-2-01 of the Administrative Code, apply:
(1) "Access" as a noun means an instance of copying, viewing, or otherwise perceiving whereas "access" as a verb means to copy, view, or otherwise perceive.
(2) "Acquisition of a new computer system" means the purchase of a "computer system," as defined in this rule, that is not a computer system currently in place nor one for which the acquisition process has been initiated as of the effective date of the agency rule addressing requirements in section 1347.15 of the Revised Code.
(3) "Computer system" means a "system," as defined by section 1347.01 of the Revised Code, that stores, maintains, or retrieves personal information using electronic data processing equipment.
(4) "Confidential personal information" (CPI) has the meaning as defined by division (A)(1) of section 1347.15 of the Revised Code and identified by rules promulgated by the agency in accordance with division (B)(3) of section 1347.15 of the Revised Code that reference the federal or state statutes or administrative rules that make personal information maintained by the agency confidential.
(5) "Employee of the state agency" means each employee of a state agency regardless of whether he or she holds an elected or appointed office or position within the state agency. "Employee of the state agency" is limited to the specific employing state agency.
(6) "Incidental contact" means contact with the information that is secondary or tangential to the primary purpose of the activity that resulted in the contact.
(7) "Individual" means a natural person or the natural person's authorized representative, legal counsel, legal custodian, or legal guardian.
(8) "Information owner" means the individual appointed in accordance with division (A) of section 1347.05 of the Revised Code to be directly responsible for a system.
(9) "Person" means a natural person.
(10) "Personal information" has the same meaning as defined in division (E) of section 1347.01 of the Revised Code.
(11) "Personal information system" means a "system" that "maintains" "personal information" as those terms are defined in section 1347.01 of the Revised Code. "System" includes manual and computer systems.
(12) "Research" means a methodical investigation into a subject.
(13) "Routine" means commonplace, regular, habitual, or ordinary.
(14) "Routine information that is maintained for the purpose of internal office administration, the use of which would not adversely affect a person" as that phrase is used in division (F) of section 1347.01 of the Revised Code means personal information relating to employees and maintained by the agency for internal administrative and human resource purposes.
(15) "System" has the same meaning as defined by division (F) of section 1347.01 of the Revised Code.
(16) "Upgrade" means a substantial redesign of an existing computer system for the purpose of providing a substantial amount of new application functionality, or application modifications that would involve substantial administrative or fiscal resources to implement, but would not include maintenance, minor updates and patches, or modifications that entail a limited addition of functionality due to changes in business or legal requirements.
(D) Procedures for accessing confidential personal information (as required by divisions (B)(1) and (B)(5) to (B)(8) of section 1347.15 of the Revised Code).
For personal information systems, whether manual or computer systems, which contain confidential personal information, the department shall do the following:
(1) Criteria for accessing confidential personal information
Personal information systems of the department are managed on a "need-to-know" basis whereby the information owner determines the level of access required for an employee of the department to fulfill his or her job duties. The determination of access to confidential personal information shall be approved by the employee's supervisor and the information owner prior to providing the employee with access to confidential personal information within a personal information system. The department shall establish procedures for determining a revision to an employee's access to confidential personal information upon a change to that employee's job duties including, but not limited to, transfer or termination. Whenever an employee's job duties no longer require access to confidential personal information in a personal information system, the employee's access to confidential personal information shall be removed.
(2) Individual's request for a list of confidential personal information
Upon the signed written request of any individual for a list of confidential personal information about the individual maintained by the department, the department shall do all of the following:
(a) Verify the identity of the individual by a method that provides safeguards commensurate with the risk associated with the confidential personal information;
(b) Provide to the individual the list of confidential personal information that does not relate to an investigation about the individual or is otherwise not excluded from the scope of Chapter 1347. of the Revised Code; and
(c) If all information relates to an investigation about that individual, inform the individual that the agency has no confidential personal information about the individual that is responsive to the individual's request.
(3) Notice of invalid access
(a) Upon discovery or notification that confidential personal information of a person has been accessed by an employee for an invalid reason, the department shall notify the person whose information was invalidly accessed as soon as practical and to the extent known at the time. However, the department shall delay notification for a period of time necessary to ensure that the notification would not delay or impede an investigation or jeopardize homeland or national security. Additionally, the department may delay the notification consistent with any measures necessary to determine the scope of the invalid access, including which individuals' confidential personal information invalidly was accessed, and to restore the reasonable integrity of the system.
"Investigation" as used in this paragraph means the investigation of the circumstances and involvement of an employee surrounding the invalid access of the confidential personal information. Once the department determines that notification would not delay or impede an investigation, the department shall disclose the access to confidential personal information made for an invalid reason to the person.
(b) Notification provided by the department shall inform the person of the type of confidential personal information accessed and the date(s) of the invalid access.
(c) Notification may be made by any method reasonably designed to accurately inform the person of the invalid access, including written, electronic or telephone notice.
(4) Appointment of a data privacy point of contact
The superintendent shall designate an employee of the department to serve as the data privacy point of contact. The data privacy point of contact shall work with the chief privacy officer within the office of information technology to assist the department with both the implementation of privacy protections for the confidential personal information that the department maintains and compliance with section 1347.15 of the Revised Code and the rules adopted pursuant to the authority provided by that chapter.
(5) Completion of a privacy impact assessment
The superintendent shall designate an employee of the department to serve as the data privacy point of contact who shall timely complete the privacy impact assessment form developed by the office of information technology.
(E) Valid reasons for accessing confidential personal information
Pursuant to the requirements of division (B)(2) of section 1347.15 of the Revised Code, this rule contains a list of valid reasons, directly related to the department's exercise of its powers or duties, for which only employees of the department may access confidential personal information regardless of whether the personal information system is a manual system or computer system.
Performing the following functions constitute valid reasons for authorized employees of the department to access confidential personal information:
(1) Responding to a public records request;
(2) Responding to a request from an individual for the list of confidential personal information the department maintains on that individual;
(3) Administering a constitutional provision or duty;
(4) Administering a statutory provision or duty;
(5) Administering an administrative rule provision or duty;
(6) Complying with any state or federal program requirements;
(7) Processing or payment of claims or otherwise administering a program with individual participants or beneficiaries;
(8) Auditing purposes;
(9) Licensure processes;
(10) Investigation or law enforcement purposes;
(11) Administrative hearings;
(12) Litigation, complying with an order of the court, or subpoena;
(13) Human resource matters (e.g., hiring, promotion, demotion, discharge, salary and compensation issues, leave requests and issues, time card approvals and issues);
(14) Complying with an executive order or policy;
(15) Complying with a department policy or a state administrative policy issued by the department of administrative services, the office of budget and management or other similar state agency; or
(16) Complying with a collective bargaining agreement provision.
(F) Confidentiality statutes (as required by division (B)(3) of section 1347.15 of the Revised Code)
The following federal statutes or regulations or state statutes and administrative rules make personal information maintained by the department confidential and identify the confidential personal information within the scope of rules promulgated by the department in accordance with section 1347.15 of the Revised Code:
(1) Social security numbers: 5 U.S.C. section 552a; division (A) of section 149.45 of the Revised Code; "State ex rel. Beacon Journal Publishing Co. v. City of Akron, 70 Ohio St.3d 605 (1994)."
(2) Consumer credit reporting information: limits the use that can be made of consumer credit reports: 15 U.S.C. section 1681b.
(3) Federal tax returns and return information: 26 U.S.C. section 6103(a).
(4) Medical records pertaining to an eligible person under the American with Disabilities Act: 42 U.S.C. section 12112(d)(3)(B).
(5) Bureau of criminal identification and investigation records: division (H) of section 109.57 of the Revised Code and section 4776.04 of the Revised Code.
(6) Public employees retirement system (PERS) information (the individual's statement of previous service, amount of a monthly allowance or benefit paid to an individual and the individual's personal history record that includes address, telephone number, social security number, record of contributions, correspondence with the public employees retirement system or other information determined by the public employees retirement board to be confidential): division (A) of section 145.27 of the Revised Code.
(7) Medical reports and recommendations required by the public employees retirement system: division (B) of section 145.27 of the Revised Code.
(8) Deferred compensation program participant information: divisions (A) and (B) of section 148.05 of the Revised Code.
(9) Medical records: division (A)(1)(a) of section 149.43 of the Revised Code.
(10) Confidential law enforcement investigatory records: division (A)(1)(h) of section 149.43 of the Revised Code.
(11) Security and infrastructure records: section 149.433 of the Revised Code.
(12) Health insuring corporation complaint and response documents and information that contain medical records provided to the superintendent: division (C) of section 1751.19 of the Revised Code.
(13) Any data or information pertaining to the diagnosis, treatment, or health of any enrollee or applicant for enrollment that is obtained by the health insuring corporation from the enrollee or applicant, or from any health care facility or provider: division (B) of section 1751.52 of the Revised Code.
(14) Peer review committee records: sections 1751.21 and 2305.252 of the Revised Code.
(15) Medical records; doctor patient communications: division (B) of section 2317.02 of the Revised Code; "TBC Westlake, Inc. v. Hamilton Cty. Bd. of Revision, 81 Ohio St.3d 58, 62 (1998)."
(16) Identity of an individual on whom an HIV test is performed, the results of the test and the identity of any individual diagnosed as having AIDS or an AIDS-related condition: section 3701.243 of the Revised Code.
(17) Records pertaining to an insurance fraud investigation are confidential law enforcement investigatory records (CLEIR) and are protected to the extent of the CLEIR exemption from section 149.43 of the Revised Code until the expiration of all applicable federal and state statutes of limitation: section 3901.44 of the Revised Code.
(18) Applicant HIV test results required by insurers when underwriting fraternal policies: section 3901.46 of the Revised Code.
(19) Records and information pertaining to an investigation of a license applicant or of an agent, solicitor, broker or a person licensed under the code sections covering public insurance adjusters and third party administrators until notice and opportunity for hearing is given or until three years have passed since the close of the investigation: section 3905.24 of the Revised Code.
(20) All medical information solicited or obtained by any viatical settlement licensee: division (G) of section 3916.07 of the Revised Code.
(21) Names and individual identification data for all viators: division (D)(1) of section 3916.11 of the Revised Code.
(22) All proprietary information of a viatical settlement licensee, all individual transaction data regarding the business of viatical settlements and data that could compromise the privacy of personal, financial and health information of the viator or insured: division (E) of section 3916.12 of the Revised Code.
(23) With certain specified exceptions, identity as a viator or a viatical settlement insured, including the viator's or the insured's name and individual identification data, or the viator or the insured's financial or medical information: section 3916.13 of the Revised Code.
(24) Documents and evidence provided to or obtained by the superintendent in an investigation of any suspected or actual fraudulent viatical settlement acts or fraudulent insurance acts: division (E)(1) of section 3916.18 of the Revised Code.
(25) Records containing information pertaining to the medical history, diagnosis, prognosis or medical condition of a covered person pursuant to the external review laws under Chapter 3922. of the Revised Code and sections 1751.77 to 1751.87 of the Revised Code: section 3922.21 of the Revised Code.
(26) Medical claims data required to be reported to the superintendent: division (G) of section 3929.302 of the Revised Code.
(27) Driver's license number or state identification card number: section 4501.27 of the Revised Code and 18 U.S.C. sections 2721 and 2725.
(28) Law enforcement automated data system (LEADS) information: section 5503.10 of the Revised Code and rule 4501:2-10-03 of the Administrative Code.
(29) Any information gained as the result of returns, investigations, hearings, or verifications required or authorized by Chapter 5747. of the Revised Code on income tax: section 5747.18 of the Revised Code.
(30) Personal information: division (A)(1)(dd) of section 149.43 of the Revised Code, based on the definitions in division (A)(1) of section 149.45 of the Revised Code.
(31) Records and documents relating to certifications, recertifications or medical histories of employees' family members, created for purposes of the Family and Medical Leave Act: 29 C.F.R. section 825.500(g).
As statutes are enacted or amended and rules are promulgated or revised, the list of confidentiality provisions provided in this rule may be subject to change. Any changes that occur before the time of the five-year rule review process for this rule shall be available to any requester by making a request to the department's office of legal services.
(G) Restricting and logging access to confidential personal information in computerized personal information systems (as required by divisions (B)(4) and (B)(9) of section 1347.15 of the Revised Code)
For personal information systems that are computer systems and contain confidential personal information, the department shall do the following:
(1) Access restrictions
Access to confidential personal information that is kept electronically shall require a password or other authentication measure.
(2) Acquisition of a new computer system
When the department acquires a new computer system that stores, manages or contains confidential personal information, the department shall include a mechanism for recording specific access by employees of the department to confidential personal information in the system.
(3) Upgrading existing computer systems
When the department modifies an existing computer system that stores, manages or contains confidential personal information, the department shall make a determination whether the modification constitutes an upgrade. Any upgrades to a computer system shall include a mechanism for recording specific access by employees of the department to confidential personal information in the system.
(4) Logging requirements regarding confidential personal information in existing computer systems
(a) The department shall require employees of the department who access confidential personal information within computer systems to maintain a log that records that access.
(b) Access to confidential personal information is not required to be entered into the log under the following circumstances:
(i) The employee of the department is accessing confidential personal information for official department purposes, including research, and the access is not specifically directed toward a specifically named individual or a group of specifically named individuals.
(ii) The employee of the department is accessing confidential personal information for routine office procedures and the access is not specifically directed toward a specifically named individual or a group of specifically named individuals.
(iii) The employee of the department comes into incidental contact with confidential personal information and the access of the information is not specifically directed toward a specifically named individual or a group of specifically named individuals.
(iv) The employee of the department accesses confidential personal information about an individual based upon a request made under either of the following circumstances:
(a) The individual requests confidential personal information about himself or herself.
(b) The individual makes a request that the department takes some action on that individual's behalf and accessing the confidential personal information is required in order to consider or process that request.
(c) For purposes of this paragraph, the department may choose the form or forms of logging, whether in electronic or paper formats.
(5) Log management
The department shall issue a policy that specifies the following:
(a) Who shall maintain the log;
(b) What information shall be captured in the log;
(c) How the log is to be stored; and
(d) How long information kept in the log is to be retained.
Nothing in this rule limits the department from requiring logging in any circumstance that the department deems necessary.
(H) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated March 2, 2026 at 8:33 AM
History
- Effective: February 28, 2026
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 123:3-2-01
For the purposes of state agency administrative rules promulgated in accordance with section 1347.15 of the Revised Code, the following definitions apply:
(A) "Access" as a noun means an instance of copying, viewing, or otherwise perceiving whereas "access" as a verb means to copy, view, or otherwise perceive.
(B) "Acquisition of a new computer system" means the purchase of a "computer system", as defined in this rule, that is not a computer system currently in place nor one for which the acquisition process has been initiated as of the effective date of the agency rule addressing requirements in section 1347.15 of the Revised Code.
(C) "Computer system" means a "system" as defined by section 1347.01 of the Revised Code, that stores, maintains, or retrieves personal information using electronic data processing equipment.
(D) "Confidential personal information" (CPI) has the meaning as defined in division (A)(1) of section 1347.15 of the Revised Code and identified by rules promulgated by the agency in accordance with division (B)(3) of section 1347.15 of the Revised Code that reference the federal or state statutes or administrative rules that make personal information maintained by the agency confidential.
(E) "Employee of the state agency" means each employee of a state agency regardless of whether he or she holds an elected or appointed office or position within the state agency. "Employee of the state agency" is limited to the specific employing state agency.
(F) "Incidental contact" means contact with the information that is secondary or tangential to the primary purpose of the activity that resulted in the contact.
(G) "Individual" means a natural person or the natural person's authorized representative, legal counsel, legal custodian, or legal guardian.
(H) "Information owner" means the individual appointed in accordance with division (A) of section 1347.05 of the Revised Code to be directly responsible for a system.
(I) "Person" means a natural person.
(J) "Personal information" has the same meaning as defined in division (E) of section 1347.01 of the Revised Code.
(K) "Personal information system" means a "system" that "maintains" "personal information" as those terms are defined in section 1347.01 of the Revised Code. "System" includes manual and computer systems.
(L) "Research" means a methodical investigation into a subject.
(M) "Routine" means commonplace, regular, habitual, or ordinary.
(N) "Routine information that is maintained for the purpose of internal office administration, the use of which would not adversely affect a person" as that phrase is used in division (F) of section 1347.01 of the Revised Code means personal information relating to employees and maintained by the agency for internal administrative and human resources purposes.
(O) "System" has the same meaning as defined by division (F) of section 1347.01 of the Revised Code.
(P) "Upgrade" means a substantial redesign of an existing computer system for the purpose of providing a substantial amount of new application functionality, or application modifications that would involve substantial administrative or fiscal resources to implement, but would not include maintenance, minor updates and patches, or modifications that entail a limited addition of functionality due to changes in business or legal requirements.
Last updated September 14, 2023 at 9:49 AM
History
- Effective: June 28, 2010
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 4501:2-10-03
[Comment: For dates and availability of material incorporated by reference in this rule, see rule 4501:2-10-13 of the Administrative Code.]
(A) Participation in LEADS and the assignment of a full access or limited access originating agency identifier requires application and documentation the requester meets criteria set forth in the NCIC operating manual - ORI file section.
Access to bureau of motor vehicles records may be granted if the requester is a governmental, noncriminal justice agency, or subunit thereof, created by federal, state or local code, whose mission is to enforce or assist in enforcing federal, state or local laws or ordinances may access Ohio and other state bureau of motor vehicle data as available.
(B) Agencies approved to participate in LEADS shall be granted access subject to the following:
(1) Direct access (entry, inquiry, and message switching capabilities):
(a) A criminal justice agency that qualifies for an ORI.
(b) Entering agencies must must staff twenty-four hours a day, seven days a week, every day of the year or include instructions for after-hour hit confirmation in the miscellaneous field of applicable entries.
(c) Intrastate regional systems under criminal justice management control whose central computer system is staffed twenty-four hours a day, seven days a week, every day of the year or includes instructions for after-hour hit confirmation in the miscellaneous field of applicable entries.
(2) Indirect access:
(a) An agency which qualifies for an ORI may enter into an agreement with LEADS and separately with a terminal agency to receive service.
(b) Agencies authorized to indirectly access LEADS data are certified as such in a database prepared/maintained by LEADS, which is accessible to all terminal agencies.
(C) Agencies participating in LEADS shall meet the following requirements:
(1) Messages and/or throughput of any kind accessed through LEADS shall be restricted to the use of duly authorized law enforcement and/or criminal justice agencies for the administration of criminal justice. Access to and dissemination of LEADS throughput is governed by the CJIS security policy, LEADS manual, NCIC operating manual, III manual, N-DEx policy, NICS policy and Nlets policy.
(2) Direct access to LEADS shall be limited to certified operators. Each operator is accountable for all transactions occurring while their assigned account is logged on to a terminal accessing LEADS.
(3) Remit payment of all monetary obligations as invoiced by the Ohio state highway patrol. The following monthly fees have been established for participation in LEADS and will be reviewed annually by the superintendent or designee.
(a) Direct access is two hundred fifty dollars;
(b) Secure network connectivity is the direct access fee plus three hundred fifty dollars per router;
(c) VPN client-based network connectivity is the direct access fee plus five dollars per computer;
(d) Identity management and multi-factor authentication is five dollars per user;
(e) Indirect access is fifty dollars.
(4) Assume responsibility for, and enforce, system security and integrity.
(5) Adhere to policies and guidelines published in the NCIC operating manual, CJIS security policy, LEADS operating manual, III manual, N-DEx policy, NICS policy, Nlets policy, newsletters, and administrative messages from LEADS, all of which are either available on the LEADS intranet or disseminated to LEADS agencies.
(6) Execute all required agreements and forms. These agreements and forms must be kept current and on file for review and updated as part of the agency audit. The completed agreements and forms will be filed with LEADS and the user agency.
(7) Appoint a LEADS terminal agency coordinator (TAC) and organizational personnel with security responsibilities. Each participating non-terminal agency must have a non-terminal agency coordinator (NTAC). Agencies accessing N-DEx must appoint a N-DEx agency coordinator (NAC).
(8) Train all personnel of the agency having access to LEADS data with the capabilities, services offered and rules of LEADS. Compliance with this rule shall include, but is not limited to, completion of the LEADS provided training.
(9) All records must be kept accurate and up-to-date. Invalid records or data must be removed from the files immediately. Records not validated in accordance with LEADS and NCIC manuals are subject to removal. Failure to properly validate records as required will subject the agency to sanctions.
(10) Enter protection orders and warrants, which meet state or federal firearm prohibition criteria, within seventy-two hours of receipt to ensure all disqualifying records are accessible by the "National Instant Background Check System."
Last updated August 6, 2026 at 3:15 AM
History
- Effective: October 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-1-05 Insider trading -- instructions and forms.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to promulgate procedures and forms to be adhered to in filing initial statements of changes in beneficial ownership of any equity security. Effective April 4, 1985, division (A) of section 3901.31 of the Revised Code was amended to exclude from application of this filing obligation domestic stock insurance companies which are wholly owned subsidiaries of an insurance holding company system.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under division (H) of section 3901.31 of the Revised Code, which empowers the superintendent to adopt, amend, and rescind rules, pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, which will enable the superintendent to carry out the duties imposed by section 3901.31 of the Revised Code. Division (A) of section 3901.31 of the Revised Code obligates every person who is directly or indirectly the beneficial owner of more than ten per cent of any class of any equity security of a domestic stock insurance company or who is a director or officer of such company to file with the superintendent of insurance on or before January 31, 1966, or within ten days after the person becomes such beneficial owner, director, or officer, a statement in such form as the superintendent of insurance may prescribe of the amount of all equity securities of such company of which the person is the beneficial owner, and within ten days after the close of each calendar month thereafter, if there has been a change in such ownership during such month, to file with the superintendent of insurance a statement, in such form as the superintendent of insurance may prescribe, indicating the person's ownership at the close of the calendar month and such changes in the person's ownership as have occurred during such calendar month.
(C) Filing of statements
(1) Initial statements of beneficial ownership of equity securities needs to be filed on form I.S.S., as set forth in paragraph (D)(9) of this rule. Statements of changes in such beneficial ownership needs to be filed on form C.S.S., as set forth in paragraph (E)(11) of this rule. All such statements needs to be prepared in accordance with the obligations of the applicable form and filed as obligated.
(2) Form I.S.S.
(a) A statement on form I.S.S. needs to be filed by every person who is directly or indirectly the beneficial owner of more than ten per cent of any class of equity security of a domestic stock insurance company or who is a director or officer of such company.
(b) When section 3901.31 of the Revised Code became law, persons who held any of the relationships specified in paragraph (C)(2) of this rule were obligated to file a statement on form I.S.S. on or before January 31, 1966. Persons who subsequently assume any of the specified relationships are obligated to file a statement within ten days after assuming such relationship.
(c) A separate statement needs to be filed with respect to the securities of each domestic stock insurance company.
(3) Form C.S.S.
(a) A statement on form C.S.S. needs to be filed by every person who is directly or indirectly the beneficial owner of more than ten per cent of any class of equity security of a domestic stock insurance company or who is a director or officer of such company, who has filed a Form I.S.S. with the department, and who has during any month had any change in their beneficial ownership of any class of equity security of such company. Any beneficial owner, director, or officer who is obligated to file a statement on form C.S.S. with respect to any change in their beneficial ownership of equity securities which occurs within six months after they became a beneficial owner, director, or officer of such company needs to include in the first such statement the information called for by form C.S.S. with respect to all changes in their beneficial ownership of equity securities of such company which occurred within six months prior to the filing of such statement.
(b) A statement on form C.S.S. shall be filed by any person who has ceased to be such beneficial owner, director, or officer of a domestic stock insurance company with respect to any change in his beneficial ownership of equity securities of such company which occurs on or after the date on which he ceased to be such beneficial owner, director, or officer if such change occurs within six months after any change in his beneficial ownership of such securities prior to such date.
(c) Statements on form C.S.S. which are obligated to be filed needs to be filed on or before the tenth day after the end of each month in which any change in beneficial ownership has occurred. A separate statement needs to be filed with respect to the securities of each domestic stock insurance company.
(4) Any person who has ceased to be a beneficial owner, director, or officer of a domestic stock insurance company needs to give written notice to the superintendent of insurance of the date on which they ceased to be such beneficial owner, director, or officer within thirty days after said date.
(D) Instructions - form I.S.S.: initial statement of beneficial ownership of equity securities
(1) Where statements are to be filed
(a) One signed, sworn to copy of each statement needs to be filed with the Ohio department of insurance.
(b) A statement is not deemed to have been filed in the office of the superintendent of insurance until it has actually been received by the department.
(2) Relationship of reporting person to company.
Indicate clearly the relationship of the reporting person to the company; for example, "director," "director and vice president," "beneficial owner of more than ten per cent of the company's common stock," etc.
(3) Dates as of which beneficial ownership is to be given.
The information as to beneficial ownership of securities needs to be given as of the date on which the event occurred obligating the filing of a statement on this form; for example, when the person whose ownership is reported became a director or officer of the company or a beneficial owner of more than ten per cent of the company's equity securities.
(4) Title of security
The statement of the title of a security needs to be such as clearly to identify the security even though there may be only one class; for example, "Class A Common," "5% Debentures Due 1965," etc.
(5) Nature of ownership.
Under "nature of ownership," state whether ownership of the securities is "direct" or "indirect." If the ownership is indirect, i.e., through a partnership, corporation, trust or other entity, indicate in a footnote, or other appropriate manner, the name or identity of the medium through which the securities are indirectly owned. The fact that securities are held in the name of a broker or other nominee does not, of itself constitute indirect ownership. Securities owned indirectly need to be reported on separate lines from those owned directly and also from those owned through a different type of indirect ownership.
(6) Statement of amount owned.
In stating the amount of securities beneficially owned, give the face amount of debt securities or the number of shares or other units of other securities. In the case of securities owned indirectly, the entire amount of securities owned by the partnership, corporation, trust or other entity, needs to be stated. The person whose ownership is reported may, if they so desire, also indicate in a footnote, or other appropriate manner, the extent of their interest in the partnership, corporation, trust or other entity.
(7) Inclusion of additional information.
A statement may include any additional information or explanation deemed relevant by the person filing statement.
(8) Signature.
(a) If the statement is filed for a corporation, partnership, trust, etc., the name of the organization needs to appear over the signature of the officer or other person authorized to sign the statement. If the statement is filed for an individual, it needs to be signed by them or specifically on their behalf by a person authorized to sign for them.
(b) In those cases where the statement is signed by someone other than the person whose ownership is being reported, documentary evidence of the signing authority needs to be filed with the statement.
(c) In all cases, the signature needs to be duly notarized.
(9) Form I.S.S.
| "STATE OF OHIO | | | --- | --- | | DEPARTMENT OF INSURANCE | | | Form I.S.S. | | | INITIAL STATEMENT OF BENEFICIAL OWNERSHIP OF EQUITY SECURITIES | | | Filed Pursuant to Section 3901.31, Ohio Revised Code | | | Name of insurer ___________________________________________________ | | | Name of person whose Ownership is reported ____________________________ | | | Business address of such person ______________________________________ | | | | (Street, City, State, Zip Code) | | Relationship of such person to company named above ______________________ | | | Date of event which obligates the filing of this statement ______________________ | |
| SECURITIES BENEFICIALLY OWNED | | | | --- | --- | --- | | Title of Security | Nature of Ownership | Amount Owned Beneficially | | | | | | | | | | Remarks: (For Additional Space - Use Reverse Side) | | |
| | I affirm under the penalty of perjury that the foregoing is full, true and correct. | | --- | --- | | | ________________________________ | | | Signature | | ________________________________ | | | Date of Statement | | | | | | Subscribed and sworn to before me this_________day of _________ ,20________ | | | | | | ________________________________ | | | Notary Public" | |
(E) Instruction - Form C.S.S.: Statement of changes in beneficial ownership of equity securities
(1) Where statements are to be filed.
(a) One signed, sworn to copy of each statement needs to be filed with the Ohio department of insurance.
(b) A statement is not deemed to have been filed in the office of the superintendent of insurance until it has actually been received by the department.
(2) Relationship of reporting person to company.
Indicate clearly the relationship of the reporting person to the company; for example, "director," "director and vice president," "beneficial owner of more than ten per cent of the company's common stock," etc.
(3) Transactions and holdings to be reported.
Every transaction needs to be reported even though purchases and sales during the month are equal or the change involves only the nature of ownership; for example, from direct or indirect ownership. Beneficial ownership at the end of the month of all classes of securities obligated to be reported needs to be shown even though there has been no change during the month in the ownership of securities of one or more classes.
(4) Title of security.
The statement of the title of the security needs to be such as to clearly identify the security even though there may be only one class; for example, "Class A Common," "5% Debentures Due 1965," etc.
(5) Date of transaction.
The exact date (month, day and year) of each transaction needs to be stated opposite the amount involved in the transactions.
(6) Statement of amounts of securities.
In stating the amount of the securities acquired, disposed of, or beneficially owned, give the face stated. The person whose ownership is reported may, if they so desire, also indicate in a footnote, or other appropriate manner, the extent of their interest in the transaction or holdings of the partnership, corporation, trust or other entity.
(7) Nature of ownership.
Under "nature of ownership," state whether ownership of the securities is "direct" or "indirect." If the ownership is indirectly, i.e., through a partnership, corporation, trust or other entity, indicate in a footnote, or other appropriate manner, the name or identity of the medium through which the securities are indirectly owned. The fact that securities are held in the name of the broker or other nominee does not, of itself, constitute indirect ownership. Securities owned indirectly need to be reported on separate lines from securities owned directly and from securities owned through a different type of indirect ownership.
(8) Character of transaction.
If the transaction was with the issuer of the securities, so state. If it involved the purchase of securities through the exercise of options, so state and give the exercise price per share. If any other purchase or sale was effected otherwise than in the open market, the fact needs to be indicated. If the transaction was not a purchase or sale, indicate its character; for example, gift, stock dividend, etc., as the case may be. The foregoing information may be appropriately set forth in the table or under "remarks" at the end of the table.
(9) Inclusion of additional information.
A statement may include any additional information or explanation deemed relevant by the person filing the statement.
(10) Signature.
(a) If the statement is filed for a corporation, partnership, trust, etc., the name of the organization needs to appear over the signature of the officer or other person authorized to sign the statement. If the statement is filed for an individual, it needs to be signed by them or specifically on their behalf by a person authorized to sign for them.
(b) In those cases where the statement is signed by someone other than the person whose partnership is being reported, documentary evidence of the signing authority needs to be filed with the statement.
(c) In all cases, the signature needs to be duly notarized.
(11) Form C.S.S.
| "STATE OF OHIO | | | --- | --- | | DEPARTMENT OF INSURANCE | | | Form C.S.S. | | | STATEMENT OF CHANGES IN BENEFICIAL OWNERSHIP OF EQUITY SECURITIES | | | Filed Pursuant to Section 3901.31, Ohio Revised Code | | | Name of insurer ___________________________________________________ | | | Name of person whose Ownership is reported ____________________________ | | | Business address of such person ______________________________________ | | | | (Street, City, State, Zip Code) | | Relationship of such person to company named above ______________________ | |
| Statement for Calendar Month of ___________, 20 | | | | | | | --- | --- | --- | --- | --- | --- | | Changes During Month and Month-End Ownership | | | | | | | Title of Security | Date of Transaction | Amount Bought or Otherwise Acquired | Amount Sold or Otherwise Disposed of | Nature of Ownership | Amount Owned Beneficially at end of Month | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | Remarks: (For Additional Space - Use Reverse Side) | | | | | |
| | I affirm under the penalty of perjury that the foregoing is full, true and correct. | | --- | --- | | | ________________________________ | | | Signature | | ________________________________ | | | Date of Statement | | | | | | Subscribed and sworn to before me this_________day of _________ ,20________ | | | | | | ________________________________ | | | Notary Public" | |
(F) Failure to file
Division (B) of section 3901.99 of the Revised Code provides that "Whoever violates any law relating to the superintendent of insurance, or any law of this state, relating to insurance as defined in division (A)(1) of section 3901.04 of the Revised Code for the violation of which no penalty is otherwise provided in the Revised Code, shall be fined not more than twenty-five thousand dollars, imprisoned not more than six months, or both."
(G) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated February 13, 2025 at 8:09 AM
History
- Effective: February 13, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-1-07 Unfair trade practices.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to define certain additional unfair trade practices and to set forth required procedures in connection therewith. Sections 3901.20 and 3901.21 of the Revised Code respectively prohibit unfair or deceptive practices in the business of insurance and define certain acts or practices as unfair or deceptive. Section 3901.21 of the Revised Code also provides that the enumeration of specific unfair or deceptive acts or practices in the business of insurance is not exclusive or restrictive or intended to limit the powers of the superintendent of insurance to adopt rules to implement that section.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under section 3901.041 of the Revised Code. Section 3901.041 of the Revised Code provides that the superintendent of insurance shall adopt, amend, and rescind rules and make adjudications necessary to discharge the superintendent's duties and exercise that person's powers under Title 39 of the Revised Code.
(C) Defined unfair practices
It shall be deemed an unfair or deceptive practice to commit or perform with such frequency as to indicate a general business practice any of the following:
(1) Knowingly misrepresenting to claimants pertinent facts or policy provisions relating to coverage at issue;
(a) Misrepresenting a pertinent policy provision by making any payment, settlement, or offer of first party benefits, which, without explanation, does not include all amounts which should be included according to the claim filed by the first party claimant and investigated by the insurer;
(b) Denying a claim on the grounds of a specific policy provision, condition, or exclusion without reference to such provision, condition, or exclusion;
(2) Failing to acknowledge pertinent communications with respect to claims arising under insurance policies in writing, or by other means so long as an appropriate notation is made in the claim file of the insurer, within fifteen days of receiving notice of a claim in writing or otherwise;
(3) Failing to make an appropriate reply within twenty-one days of all other pertinent communications and/or any inquiries of the department of insurance respecting a claim;
(4) Failing to adopt and implement reasonable procedures to commence an investigation of any claim filed by either a first party or third party claimant, or by such claimant's authorized representative, within twenty-one days of receipt of notice of claim;
(5) Failing to mail or furnish claimant or the claimant's authorized representative, a notification of all items, statements and forms, if any, which the insurer reasonably believes will be required of such claimant, within fifteen days of receiving notice of claim, unless the insurer, based on the information then in its possession does not yet know all such requirements, then such notification shall be sent, within a reasonable time;
(6) Not offering first party or third party claimants, or their authorized representatives who have made claims which are fair and reasonable and in which liability has become reasonably clear, amounts which are fair and reasonable as shown by the insurer's investigation of the claim, providing the amounts so offered are within policy limits and in accordance with the policy provisions;
(7) Compelling insureds to institute suits to recover amounts due under its policies by offering substantially less than the amounts ultimately recovered in suits brought by them when such insureds have made claims for amounts reasonably similar to the amounts ultimately recovered;
(8) Making known to insureds or claimants a policy of appealing from arbitration awards in favor of insureds or claimants for the purpose of compelling them to accept settlements or compromises less than the amount awarded in arbitration;
(9) Attempting settlement or compromise of claims on the basis of applications which were altered without notice to, or knowledge, or consent of insureds;
(10) Attempting to settle or compromise claims for less than the amount which the insureds had been led reasonably to believe they were entitled to, by written or printed advertising material accompanying or made part of an application;
(11) Attempting to delay the investigation or payment of claims by requiring an insured and his physician to submit a preliminary claim report and then requiring the subsequent submission of formal proof of loss forms, both of which submissions contain substantially the same information;
(12) Failing to advise the first party claimant or the claimant's authorized representative, in writing or by other means so long as an appropriate notation is made in the claim file of the insurer, of the acceptance or rejection of the claim, within twenty-one days after receipt by the insurer of a properly executed proof of loss;
(a) Failing to notify such claimant or the claimant's authorized representative, within twenty-one days after receipt of such proof of loss, that the insurer needs more time to determine whether the claim should be accepted or rejected;
(b) Failing to send a letter to such claimant or, the claimant's authorized representative, stating the need for further time to investigate the claim, if such claim remains unsettled ninety days from the date of the initial letter setting forth the need for further time to investigate;
(c) Failing to send to such claimant or authorized representative every ninety days after the first ninety-day claim investigation period, a letter setting forth the reasons additional time is needed for investigation, unless the delay is caused by factors beyond the insurer's control;
(13) Failing to advise such claimant or claimant's authorized representative, of the amount offered, if such claim is accepted in whole or in part;
(14) Refusing payments of claims solely on the basis of the insured's request to do so without making an independent evaluation of the insured's liability based upon all available information;
(15) Failing to adopt and implement reasonable standards for the proper handling of written communications, primarily expressing grievances, received by the insurer from insureds or claimants;
(16) Failing to pay any amount finally agreed upon in settlement of all or part of any claim or authorized repairs to be made upon final agreement not later than five days from the receipt of such agreement by the insurer at the place from which the payment or authorization is to be made or from the date of the performance by the claimant of any condition set by such agreement, whichever is later.
(17) For purposes of this rule, the following definitions shall apply;
(a) "Investigation" shall mean all activities of the company related directly or indirectly to the determining of liabilities under the coverages afforded by the policy. This shall include, but not be limited to, a bona fide effort to contact all insureds and claimants within a reasonable period after notification of loss. Evidence of a bona fide effort must be maintained in the file. The investigation shall be deemed concluded upon the company's affirmation or denial of liability.
(b) "Notice of Claim" as applied to an insurer shall include notification given to an agent of an insurer.
(c) "Settlement of claims" shall mean all activities of the company related directly or indirectly to the determination of the extent of damages due under coverages afforded by the policy. This shall include, but not be limited to, the requiring or preparing of repair estimates.
(d) "Days" means calendar days. However, when the last day of a time limit stated in this rule falls on a Saturday, Sunday or holiday, the time limit is extended to the next immediate following day that is not a Saturday, Sunday or holiday.
(D) Severability
If any paragraph, term, or provision of this rule be adjudged invalid for any reason, such judgment shall not affect, impair, or invalidate any other paragraph, term, or provision of this rule, but the remaining paragraphs, terms, and provisions shall be in and continue in full force and effect.
Last updated February 14, 2022 at 8:54 AM
History
- Effective: February 14, 2022
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-1-08 Unfair and deceptive military sales practices.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to further define unfair trade practices to include dishonest and predatory practices involving the sale of certain life insurance products to active duty members of the United States armed forces and their families and to set acceptable standards for such sales. Sections 3901.20 and 3901.21 of the Revised Code, respectively, prohibit unfair or deceptive trade practices in the business of insurance and define certain acts or practices as unfair or deceptive. Section 3901.21 of the Revised Code also provides that the enumeration of specific unfair or deceptive acts or practices in the business of insurance is not exclusive or restrictive or intended to limit the powers of the superintendent of insurance to adopt rules to implement that section.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under section 3901.041 of the Revised Code.
(C) No private cause of action
Nothing herein shall be construed to create or imply a private cause of action for a violation of this rule.
(D) Application
This rule applies to the solicitations and sales of life insurance and annuity products by insurers and insurance agents to active duty members of the United States armed forces and their families. This rule applies in addition to other statutes and rules governing the sale and solicitations of life insurance and annuity products.
(E) Exemptions
(1) This rule shall not apply to solicitations or sales involving:
(a) Credit insurance;
(b) Group life insurance or group annuities where there is no in-person, face-to-face solicitation of individuals by an insurance agent or where the contract or certificate does not include a side fund;
(c) An application to the existing insurer that issued the existing policy or contract when a contractual change or a conversion privilege is being exercised; or, when the existing policy or contract is being replaced by the same insurer pursuant to a program filed with and approved by the superintendent; or, when a term conversion privilege is exercised among corporate affiliates;
(d) Individual stand-alone health policies, including disability income policies;
(e) Contracts offered by "Servicemembers' Group Life Insurance" (SGLI) or "Veterans' Group Life Insurance" (VGLI), as authorized by 38 U.S.C. sections 1965 to 1979;
(f) Life insurance contracts offered through or by a non-profit military association, qualifying under section 501(c)(23) of the "Internal Revenue Code" (IRC), and which are not underwritten by an insurer; or
(g) Contracts used to fund:
(i) An employee pension or welfare benefit plan that is covered by the "Employee Retirement and Income Security Act" (ERISA);
(ii) A plan described by section 401(a), 401(k), 403(b), 408(k) or 408(p) of the IRC, as amended, if established or maintained by an employer;
(iii) A government or church plan defined in section 414 of the IRC, a government or church welfare benefit plan, or a deferred compensation plan of a state or local government or tax exempt organization under section 457 of the IRC;
(iv) A nonqualified deferred compensation arrangement established or maintained by an employer or plan sponsor;
(v) Settlements of or assumptions of liabilities associated with personal injury litigation or any dispute or claim resolution process; or
(vi) Prearranged funeral contracts.
(2) Nothing herein shall be construed to abrogate the ability of nonprofit organizations (and/or other organizations) to educate members of the "United States Armed Forces" in accordance with "Department of Defense DoD Instruction 1344.07 - Personal Commercial Solicitation on DoD Installations" or successor directive.
(3) For purposes of this rule, general advertisements, direct mail and internet marketing shall not constitute "solicitation." Telephone marketing shall not constitute "solicitation" provided the caller explicitly and conspicuously discloses that the product concerned is life insurance and makes no statements that avoid a clear and unequivocal statement that life insurance is the subject matter of the solicitation. However, nothing in this subdivision shall be construed to exempt an insurer or insurance agent from this rule in any in-person, face-to-face meeting established as a result of the "solicitation" exemptions identified in this subdivision.
(F) Definitions
(1) "Active duty" means full-time duty in the active military service of the United States and includes members of the reserve component (national guard and reserve) while serving under published orders for active duty or full-time training and all service in the uniformed services under the "Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act" (USERRA). The term does not include members of the reserve component who are performing active duty or active duty for training under military calls or orders specifying periods of fewer than thirty-one calendar days.
(2) "Department of Defense (DoD) Personnel" means all active duty service members and all civilian employees, including nonappropriated fund employees and special government employees, of the "Department of Defense."
(3) "Door to door" means a solicitation or sales method whereby an insurance agent proceeds randomly or selectively from household to household without prior specific appointment.
(4) "General advertisement" means an advertisement having as its sole purpose the promotion of the reader's or viewer's interest in the concept of insurance, or the promotion of the insurer or the insurance agent.
(5) "Insurer" means an insurance company required to be licensed under the laws of this state to provide life insurance products, including annuities.
(6) "Insurance agent" means a person required to be licensed under the laws of this state to sell, solicit or negotiate life insurance, including annuities.
(7) "Known" or "Knowingly" means, depending on its use herein, the insurance agent or insurer had actual awareness, or in the exercise of ordinary care should have known, at the time of the act or practice complained of, that the person solicited:
(a) Is a service member; or
(b) Is a service member with a pay grade of E-4 or below.
(8) "Life insurance" means insurance coverage on human lives including benefits of endowment and annuities, and may include benefits in the event of death or dismemberment by accident and benefits for disability income and, unless otherwise specifically excluded, includes individually issued annuities.
(9) "Military installation" means any state or federally owned, leased, or operated base, reservation, post, camp, building, or other facility to which service members are assigned for duty, including barracks, transient housing, and family quarters.
(10) "MyPay" is a "Defense Finance and Accounting Service" (DFAS) web-based system that enables service members to process certain discretionary pay transactions or provide updates to personal information data elements without using paper forms.
(11) "Service in the uniformed services" and "uniformed services" have the same meanings as in the "Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act of 1994," 108 Stat. 3149, 38 U.S.C. 4303, as amended, June 5, 2001.
(12) "Service member" means any active duty officer (commissioned and warrant) or enlisted member of the United States armed forces.
(13) "Side fund" means a fund or reserve that is part of or otherwise attached to a life insurance policy (excluding individually issued annuities) by rider, endorsement or other mechanism, which accumulates premium or deposits, with interest, or by other means. The term does not include:
(a) Accumulated value or cash value or secondary guarantees provided by a universal life policy;
(b) Cash values provided by a whole life policy which are subject to standard nonforfeiture laws for life insurance; or
(c) A premium deposit fund which:
(i) Contains only premiums paid in advance that accumulate at interest;
(ii) Imposes no penalty for withdrawal;
(iii) Does not permit funding beyond future required premiums;
(iv) Is not marketed or intended as an investment; and
(v) Does not carry a commission, either paid or calculated.
(14) "Specific appointment" means a prearranged appointment agreed upon by both parties and definite as to place and time.
(15) "United States Armed Forces" means all components of the army, navy, air force, marine corps, and coast guard.
(G) Practices declared false, misleading, deceptive or unfair on a military installation
(1) The following acts or practices, when committed on a military installation by an insurer or insurance agent with respect to the in-person, face-to-face solicitation of life insurance, are declared to be false, misleading, deceptive or unfair:
(a) Knowingly soliciting the purchase of any life insurance product "door to door" or without first establishing a specific appointment for each meeting with the prospective purchaser.
(b) Soliciting service members in a group or "mass" audience or in a "captive" audience where attendance is not voluntary.
(c) Knowingly making appointments with or soliciting service members during their normally scheduled duty hours.
(d) Making appointments with or soliciting service members in barracks, day rooms, unit areas, or transient personnel housing or other areas where the installation commander has prohibited solicitation.
(e) Soliciting the sale of life insurance without first obtaining permission from the installation commander or the commander's designee.
(f) Posting unauthorized bulletins, notices or advertisements.
(g) Failing to present "DD Form 2885, Personal Commercial Solicitation Evaluation," to service members solicited or encouraging service members solicited not to complete or submit a "DD Form 2885."
(h) Knowingly accepting an application for life insurance or issuing a policy of life insurance on the life of an enlisted member of the United States armed forces without first obtaining, for the insurer's files, a completed copy of any required form which confirms that the applicant has received counseling or fulfilled any other similar requirement for the sale of life insurance established by rules or directives of the "DoD" or the rules or directives of any branch of the armed forces.
(2) The following acts or practices when committed on a military installation by an insurer or insurance agent constitute corrupt practices, improper influences or inducements and are declared to be false, misleading, deceptive or unfair:
(a) Using "DoD" personnel, directly or indirectly, as a representative or agent in any official or business capacity, with or without compensation, with respect to the solicitation or sale of life insurance to service members.
(b) Using an insurance agent to participate in any United States armed forces sponsored education or orientation program.
(H) Practices declared false, misleading, deceptive or unfair regardless of location
(1) The following acts or practices by an insurer or insurance agent constitute corrupt practices, improper influences or inducements and are declared to be false, misleading, deceptive or unfair:
(a) Submitting, processing or assisting in the submission or processing of any allotment form or similar device used by the United States armed forces to direct a service member's pay to a third party for the purchase of life insurance. The foregoing includes, but is not limited to, using or assisting in using a service member's "MyPay" account or other similar internet or electronic medium for such purposes. This paragraph does not prohibit assisting a service member by providing insurer or premium information necessary to complete any allotment form.
(b) Knowingly receiving funds from a service member for the payment of premium from a depository institution with which the service member has no formal banking relationship. For purposes of this rule, a "formal banking relationship" is established when the depository institution:
(i) Provides the service member a deposit agreement and periodic statements and makes the disclosures required by the "Truth in Savings Act," 12 U.S.C. sections 4301 to 4313 (1992) and the rules promulgated thereunder; and
(ii) Permits the service member to make deposits and withdrawals unrelated to the payment or processing of insurance premiums.
(c) Employing any device or method or entering into any agreement whereby funds received from a service member by allotment for the payment of insurance premiums are identified on the service member's "Leave and Earnings Statement" or equivalent or successor form as "savings" or "checking" and where the service member has no formal banking relationship as defined in paragraph (H)(1)(b) of this rule.
(d) Entering into any agreement with a depository institution for the purpose of receiving funds from a service member whereby the depository institution, with or without compensation, agrees to accept direct deposits from a service member with whom it has no formal banking relationship as defined in paragraph (H)(1)(b) of this rule.
(e) Using "DoD" personnel, directly or indirectly, as a representative or agent in any official or unofficial capacity with or without compensation with respect to the solicitation or sale of life insurance to service members who are junior in rank or grade, or to the family members of such personnel.
(f) Offering or giving anything of value, directly or indirectly, to "DoD" personnel to procure their assistance in encouraging, assisting or facilitating the solicitation or sale of life insurance to another service member.
(g) Knowingly offering or giving anything of value to a service member with a pay grade of E-4 or below for his or her attendance to any event where an application for life insurance is solicited.
(h) Advising a service member with a pay grade of E-4 or below to change his or her income tax withholding or State of legal residence for the sole purpose of increasing disposable income to purchase life insurance.
(2) The following acts or practices by an insurer or insurance agent lead to confusion regarding source, sponsorship, approval or affiliation and are declared to be false, misleading, deceptive or unfair:
(a) Making any representation, or using any device, title, descriptive name or identifier that has the tendency or capacity to confuse or mislead a service member into believing that the insurer, insurance agent or product offered is affiliated, connected or associated with, endorsed, sponsored, sanctioned or recommended by the U.S. government, the "United States Armed Forces," or any state or federal agency or government entity. Examples of prohibited insurance agent titles include, but are not limited to, "Battalion Insurance Counselor," "Unit Insurance Advisor," "Servicemen's Group Life Insurance Conversion Consultant" or "Veteran's Benefits Counselor."
Nothing herein shall be construed to prohibit a person from using a professional designation awarded after the successful completion of a course of instruction in the business of insurance by an accredited institution of higher learning. Such designations include, but are not limited to, "Chartered Life Underwriter" (CLU), "Chartered Financial Consultant" (ChFC), "Certified Financial Planner" (CFP), "Master of Science In Financial Services" (MSFS), or "Masters of Science Financial Planning" (MS).
(b) Soliciting the purchase of any life insurance product through the use of or in conjunction with any third party organization that promotes the welfare of or assists members of the United States armed forces in a manner that has the tendency or capacity to confuse or mislead a service member into believing that either the insurer, insurance agent or insurance product is affiliated, connected or associated with, endorsed, sponsored, sanctioned or recommended by the U.S. government, or the United States armed forces.
(3) The following acts or practices by an insurer or insurance agent lead to confusion regarding premiums, costs or investment returns and are declared to be false, misleading, deceptive or unfair:
(a) Using or describing the credited interest rate on a life insurance policy in a manner that implies that the credited interest rate is a net return on premium paid.
(b) Excluding individually issued annuities, misrepresenting the mortality costs of a life insurance product, including stating or implying that the product "costs nothing" or is "free."
(4) The following acts or practices by an insurer or insurance agent regarding SGLI or VGLI are declared to be false, misleading, deceptive or unfair:
(a) Making any representation regarding the availability, suitability, amount, cost, exclusions or limitations to coverage provided to a service member or dependents by SGLI or VGLI, which is false, misleading or deceptive.
(b) Making any representation regarding conversion requirements, including the costs of coverage, or exclusions or limitations to coverage of SGLI or VGLI to private insurers, which is false, misleading or deceptive.
(c) Suggesting, recommending or encouraging a service member to cancel or terminate his or her SGLI policy or issuing a life insurance policy which replaces an existing SGLI policy unless the replacement shall take effect upon or after the service member's separation from the United States armed forces.
(5) The following acts or practices by an insurer and or insurance agent regarding disclosure are declared to be false, misleading, deceptive or unfair:
(a) Deploying, using or contracting for any lead generating materials designed exclusively for use with service members that do not clearly and conspicuously disclose that the recipient will be contacted by an insurance agent, if that is the case, for the purpose of soliciting the purchase of life insurance.
(b) Failing to disclose that a solicitation for the sale of life insurance will be made when establishing a specific appointment for an in-person, face-to-face meeting with a prospective purchaser.
(c) Excluding individually issued annuities, failing to clearly and conspicuously disclose the fact that the product being sold is life insurance.
(d) Failing to make, at the time of sale or offer to an individual known to be a service member, the written disclosures required by section 10 of the "Military Personnel Financial Services Protection Act," Pub. L. No. 109-290, p.16 or as amended.
(e) Excluding individually issued annuities, when the sale is conducted in-person face-to-face with an individual known to be a service member, failing to provide the applicant at the time the application is taken:
(i) An explanation of any free look period with instructions on how to cancel if a policy is issued; and
(ii) Either a copy of the application or a written disclosure. The copy of the application or the written disclosure shall clearly and concisely set out the type of life insurance, the death benefit applied for and its expected first year cost. A basic illustration that meets the requirements of rule 3901-6-04 of the Administrative Code shall be deemed sufficient to meet this requirement for a written disclosure.
(6) The following acts or practices by an insurer or insurance agent with respect to the sale of certain life insurance products are declared to be false, misleading, deceptive or unfair:
(a) Excluding individually issued annuities, recommending the purchase of any life insurance product, which includes a side fund, to a service member in pay grades E-4 and below unless the insurer has reasonable grounds for believing that the life insurance death benefit, standing alone, is suitable.
(b) Offering for sale or selling a life insurance product, which includes a side fund, to a service member in pay grades E-4 and below who is currently enrolled in SGLI, is presumed unsuitable unless, after the completion of a needs assessment, the insurer demonstrates that the applicant's SGLI death benefit, together with any other military survivor benefits, savings and investments, survivor income, and other life insurance, are insufficient to meet the applicant's insurable needs for life insurance.
(i) "Insurable needs" are the risks associated with premature death taking into consideration the financial obligations and immediate and future cash needs of the applicant's estate and/or survivors or dependents.
(ii) "Other military survivor benefits" include, but are not limited to: the "Death Gratuity," "Funeral Reimbursement," "Transition Assistance," "Survivor and Dependents' Educational Assistance," "Dependency and Indemnity Compensation," TRICARE healthcare benefits, "Survivor Housing Benefits and Allowances," "Federal Income Tax Forgiveness," and "Social Security Survivor Benefits."
(c) Excluding individually issued annuities, offering for sale or selling any life insurance contract which includes a side fund:
(i) Unless interest credited accrues from the date of deposit to the date of withdrawal and permits withdrawals without limit or penalty;
(ii) Unless the applicant has been provided with a schedule of effective rates of return based upon cash flows of the combined product. For this disclosure, the effective rate of return will consider all premiums and cash contributions made by the policyholder and all cash accumulations and cash surrender values available to the policyholder in addition to life insurance coverage. This schedule will be provided for at least each policy year from one to ten and for every fifth policy year thereafter, ending at age one hundred, policy maturity or final expiration; and
(iii) Which, by default, diverts or transfers funds accumulated in the side fund to pay, reduce or offset any premiums due.
(d) Excluding individually issued annuities, offering for sale or selling any life insurance contract which, after considering all policy benefits, including but not limited to endowment, return of premium or persistency, does not comply with standard nonforfeiture law for life insurance.
(e) Selling any life insurance product to an individual known to be a service member that excludes coverage if the insured's death is related to war, declared or undeclared, or any act related to military service except for an accidental death coverage, e.g., double indemnity, which may be excluded.
(I) Severability
If any paragraph, term or provision of this rule is adjudged invalid for any reason, the judgment shall not affect, impair or invalidate any other paragraph, term or provision of this rule, but the remaining paragraphs, terms and provisions shall be and continue in full force and effect.
Last updated October 11, 2023 at 1:47 PM
History
- Effective: November 3, 2016
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-6-04
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to provide rules for life insurance policy illustrations that will protect consumers and foster consumer education. The rule provides illustration formats, prescribes standards to be followed when illustrations are used, and specifies the disclosures that are required in connection with illustrations. The goals of this rule are to ensure that illustrations do not mislead purchasers of life insurance and to make illustrations more understandable. Insurers will, as far as possible, eliminate the use of footnotes and caveats and define terms used in the illustration in language that would be understood by a typical person within the segment of the public to which the illustration is directed.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041 and 3901.21 of the Revised Code.
(C) Scope
This rule applies to all group and individual life insurance policies and certificates except:
(1) Variable life insurance;
(2) Individual and group annuity contracts;
(3) Credit life insurance; or
(4) Life insurance policies with illustrated death benefits on any individual not exceeding ten thousand dollars.
(D) Definitions
(1) "Actuarial Standards Board" means the board established by the American academy of actuaries to develop and promulgate standards of actuarial practice.
(2) "Contract premium" means the gross premium that is required to be paid under a fixed premium policy, including the premium for a rider for which benefits are shown in the illustration.
(3) "Currently payable scale" means a scale of non-guaranteed elements in effect for a policy form as of the preparation date of the illustration or declared to become effective within the next ninety-five days.
(4) "Disciplined current scale" means a scale of non-guaranteed elements constituting a limit on illustrations currently being illustrated by an insurer that is reasonably based on actual recent historical experience, as certified annually by an illustration actuary designated by the insurer. Further guidance in determining the disciplined current scale as contained in standards established by the actuarial standards board may be relied upon if the standards:
(a) Are consistent with all provisions of this rule;
(b) Limit a disciplined current scale to reflect only actions that have already been taken or events that have already occurred;
(c) Do not permit a disciplined current scale to include any projected trends of improvements in experience or any assumed improvements in experience beyond the illustration date; and
(d) Do not permit assumed expenses to be less than minimum assumed expenses.
(5) "Generic name" means a short title descriptive of the policy being illustrated such as "whole life," "term life," or "flexible premium adjustable life."
(6) "Guaranteed elements" and "non-guaranteed elements".
(a) "Guaranteed elements" means the premiums, benefits, values, credits or charges under a policy of life insurance that are guaranteed and determined at issue.
(b) "Non-guaranteed elements" means the premiums, benefits, values, credits or charges under a policy of life insurance that are not guaranteed or not determined at issue.
(7) "Illustrated scale" means a scale of non-guaranteed elements currently being illustrated that is not more favorable to the policy owner than the lesser of:
(a) The disciplined current scale; or
(b) The currently payable scale.
(8) "Illustration" means a presentation or depiction that includes non-guaranteed elements of a policy of life insurance over a period of years and that is one of the three types defined as followed:
(a) "Basic illustration" means a ledger of proposal used in the sale of a life insurance policy that shows both guaranteed and non-guaranteed elements.
(b) "Supplemental illustration" means an illustration furnished in addition to a basic illustration that meets the applicable requirements of this rule, and that may be presented in a format differing from the basic illustration, but may only depict a scale of non-guaranteed elements that is permitted in a basic illustration.
(c) "In force illustration" means an illustration furnished at any time after the policy that it depicts has been in force for one year or more.
(9) "Illustration actuary" means an actuary meeting the requirements of paragraph (K) of this rule who certifies to illustrations based on the standard of practice promulgated by the actuarial standards board.
(10) "Lapse-supported illustration" means an illustration of a policy form failing the test of self-supporting as defined in this rule, under a modified persistency rate assumption using persistency rates underlying the disciplined current scale for the first five years and one hundred per cent policy persistency thereafter.
(11)
(a) "Minimum assumed expenses" means the minimum expenses that may be used in the calculation of the disciplined current scale for a policy form. The insurer may choose to designate each year the method of determining assumed expenses for all policy forms from the following:
(i) Fully allocated expenses;
(ii) Marginal expenses; and
(iii) A generally recognized expense table based on fully allocated expenses representing a significant portion of insurance companies and approved by the national association of insurance commissioners (NAIC) or by the superintendent.
(b) Marginal expenses may be used only if greater than a generally recognized expense table. If no generally recognized expense table is approved, fully allocated expenses must be used.
(12) "Non-term group life" means a group policy or individual policies of life insurance issued to members of an employer group or other permitted group where:
(a) Every plan of coverage was selected by the employer or other group representative;
(b) Some portion of the premium is paid by the group or through payroll deduction; and
(c) Group underwriting or simplified underwriting is used.
(13) "Policy owner" means the owner named in the policy or the certificate holder in the case of a group policy.
(14) "Premium outlay" means the amount of premium assumed to be paid out-of-pocket by the policy owner or other premium payer.
(15) "Self-supporting illustration" means an illustration of a policy form for which it can be demonstrated that, when using experience assumptions underlying the disciplined current scale, for all illustrated points in time on or after the fifteenth policy anniversary or the twentieth policy anniversary for second-or-later-to-die policies (or upon policy expiration if sooner), the accumulated value of all policy cash flows equals or exceeds the total policy owner value available. For this purpose, policy owner value will include cash surrender values and any other illustrated benefit amounts available at the policy owner's election.
(E) Policies to be illustrated
(1) Each insurer marketing policies to which this rule is applicable shall notify the superintendent whether a policy form is to be marketed with or without an illustration. For all policy forms being actively marketed on the effective date of this rule, the insurer shall identify in writing those forms and whether or not an illustration will be used with them. For policy forms filed after the effective date of this regulation, the identification shall be made at the time of filing. Any previous identification may be changed by notice to the superintendent.
(2) If the insurer identifies a policy form as one to be marketed without an illustration, any use of an illustration for any policy using that form prior to the first policy anniversary is prohibited.
(3) If a policy form is identified by the insurer as one to be marketed with an illustration, a basic illustration prepared and delivered in accordance with this regulation is required, except that a basic illustration need not be provided to individual members of a group or to individuals insured under multiple lives coverage issued to a single applicant unless the coverage is marketed to these individuals. The illustration furnished to an applicant for a group life insurance policy or policies issued to a single applicant on multiple lives may be either an individual or composite illustration representative of the coverage on the lives of members of the group or the multiple lives covered.
(4) Potential enrollees of non-term group life subject to this rule shall be furnished a quotation with the enrollment materials. The quotation shall show potential policy values for sample ages and policy years on a guaranteed and non-guaranteed basis appropriate to the group and the coverage. This quotation shall not be considered an illustration for purposes of this rule, but all information provided shall be consistent with the illustrated scale. A basic illustration shall be provided at delivery of the certificate to enrollees for non-term group life who enroll for more than the minimum premium necessary to provide pure death benefit protection. The insurer shall make a basic illustration available to any non-term group life enrollee who requests it.
(F) General rules and prohibitions
(1) An illustration used in the sale of a life insurance policy shall satisfy the applicable requirements of this rule, be clearly labeled "life insurance illustration" and contain the following basic information:
(a) Name of insurer;
(b) Name and business address of agent or insurer's authorized representative, if any;
(c) Name, age and sex of proposed insured, except where a composite illustration is permitted under this rule;
(d) Underwriting or rating classification upon which the illustration is based;
(e) Generic name of policy, the company product name, if different, and form number;
(f) Initial death benefit; and
(g) Dividend option election or application of non-guaranteed elements, if applicable.
(2) When using an illustration in the sale of a life insurance policy, an insurer or its agents or other authorized representatives shall not:
(a) Represent the policy as anything other than a life insurance policy;
(b) Use or describe non-guaranteed elements in a manner that is misleading or has the capacity or tendency to mislead;
(c) State or imply that the payment or amount of non-guaranteed elements is guaranteed;
(d) Use an illustration that does not comply with the requirements of this rule;
(e) Use an illustration that at any policy duration depicts policy performance more favorable to the policy owner than that produced by the illustrated scale of the insurer whose policy is being illustrated;
(f) Provide an applicant with an incomplete illustration;
(g) Represent in any way that premium payments will not be required for each year of the policy in order to maintain the illustrated death benefits, unless that is the fact;
(h) Use the term "vanish" of "vanishing premium," or a similar term that implies the policy becomes paid up, to describe a plan for using non-guaranteed elements to pay a portion of future premiums;
(i) Except for policies that can never develop nonforfeiture values, use an illustration that is "lapse-supported"; or
(j) Use an illustration that is not "self-supporting."
(3) If an interest rate used to determine the illustrated non-guaranteed elements is shown, it shall not be greater than the earned interest rate underlying the disciplined current scale.
(G) Standards for basic illustrations
(1) Format. A basic illustration shall conform with the following requirements:
(a) The illustration shall be labeled with the date on which it was prepared.
(b) Each page, including any explanatory notes or pages, shall be numbered and show its relationship to the total number of pages in the illustration (e.g., the fourth page of a seven-page illustration shall be labeled "page 4 of 7 pages").
(c) The assumed dates of payment receipt and benefit pay-out within a policy year shall be clearly identified.
(d) If the age of the proposed insured is shown as a component of the tabular detail, it shall be issue age plus the number of years the policy is assumed to have been in force.
(e) The assumed payments on which the illustrated benefits and values are based shall be identified as premium outlay or contract premium, as applicable. For policies that do not require a specific contract premium, the illustrated payments shall be identified as premium outlay.
(f) Guaranteed death benefits and values available upon surrender, if any, for the illustrated premium outlay or contract premium shall be shown and clearly labeled guaranteed.
(g) If the illustration shows any non-guaranteed elements, they cannot be based on a scale more favorable to the policy owner than the insurer's illustrated scale at any duration. These elements shall be clearly labeled non-guaranteed.
(h) The guaranteed elements, if any, shall be shown before corresponding non-guaranteed elements and shall be specifically referred to on any page of an illustration that shows or describes only the non-guaranteed elements (e.g., "see page one for guaranteed elements.")
(i) The account or accumulation value of a policy, if shown, shall be identified by the name this value is given in the policy being illustrated and shown in close proximity to the corresponding value available upon surrender.
(j) The value available upon surrender shall be identified by the name this value is given in the policy being illustrated and shall be the amount available to the policy owner in a lump sum after deduction of surrender charges, policy loans and policy loan interest, as applicable.
(k) Illustrations may show policy benefits and values in graphic or chart form in addition to the tabular form.
(l) Any illustration of non-guaranteed elements shall be accompanied by a statement indicating that:
(i) The benefits and values are not guaranteed;
(ii) The assumptions on which they are based are subject to change by the insurer; and
(iii) Actual results may be more or less favorable.
(m) If the illustration shows that the premium payer may have the option to allow policy charges to be paid using non-guaranteed values, the illustration must clearly disclose that a charge continues to be required and that, depending on actual results, the premium payer may need to continue or resume premium outlays. Similar disclosure shall be made for premium outlay of lesser amounts or shorter durations than the contract premium. If a contract premium is due, the premium outlay display shall not be left blank or show zero unless accompanied by an asterisk or similar mark with an explanation that the policy is not paid up.
(n) If the applicant plans to use dividends or policy values, guaranteed or non-guaranteed, to pay all or a portion of the contract premium or policy charges, or for any other purpose, the illustration may reflect those plans and the impact on future policy benefits and values.
(2) Narrative summary. A basic illustration shall include the following:
(a) A brief description of the policy being illustrated, including a statement that it is a life insurance policy;
(b) A brief description of the premium outlay or contract premium, as applicable, for the policy. For a policy that does not require payment of a specific contract premium, the illustration shall show the premium outlay that must be paid to guarantee coverage for the term of the contract, subject to maximum premiums allowable to qualify as a life insurance policy under the applicable provisions of the Internal Revenue Code;
(c) A brief description of any policy features, riders, or options, guaranteed or non-guaranteed, shown in the basic illustration and the impact they may have on the benefits and values of the policy;
(d) Identification and a brief definition of column headings and key terms used in the illustration; and
(e) A statement containing the following: "this illustration assumes that the currently illustrated non-guaranteed elements used will not change for all years shown. This is not likely to occur, and actual results may be more or less favorable than those shown."
(3) Numeric summary.
(a) Following the narrative summary, a basic illustration shall include a numeric summary of the death benefits and values and the premium outlay and contract premium, as applicable. For a policy that provides for a contract premium, the guaranteed death benefits and values shall be based on the contract premium. This summary shall be shown for at least policy years five, ten and twenty, and at age seventy, if applicable, on the three bases shown in this paragraph. For multiple life policies the summary shall show policy years five, ten, twenty and thirty.
(i) Policy guarantees;
(ii) Insurer's illustrated scale;
(iii) Insurer's illustrated scale used but with the non-guaranteed elements reduced as follows:
(a) Dividends at fifty per cent of the dividends contained in the illustrated scale used;
(b) Non-guaranteed credited interest at rates that are the average of the guaranteed rates and the rates contained in the illustrated scale used; and
(c) All non-guaranteed charges, including but not limited to, term insurance charges, mortality and expense charges, at rates that are the average of the guaranteed rates and the rates contained in the illustrated scale used.
(b) In addition, if coverage would cease prior to policy maturity or age one hundred, the year in which coverage ceases shall be identified for each of the three bases.
(4) Statements. Statements substantially similar to the following shall be included on the same page as the numeric summary and signed by the applicant, or the policy owner in the case of an illustration provided at time of delivery, as required in this rule.
(a) A statement to be signed and dated by the applicant or policy owner reading as follows: "I have received a copy of this illustration and understand that any non-guaranteed elements illustrated are subject to change and could be either higher or lower. The agent has told me they are not guaranteed."
(b) A statement to be signed and dated by the insurance agent or other authorized representative of the insurer reading as follows: "I certify that this illustration has been presented to the applicant and that I have explained that any non-guaranteed elements illustrated are subject to change. I have made no statements that are inconsistent with the illustration."
(5) Tabular detail.
(a) A basic illustration shall include the following for at least each policy year from one to ten and for every fifth policy year thereafter ending at age one hundred, policy maturity or final expiration; and except for term insurance beyond the twentieth year, for any year in which the premium outlay and contract premium, if applicable, is to change:
(i) The premium outlay and mode the applicant plans to pay and the contract premium, as applicable;
(ii) The corresponding guaranteed death benefit, as provided in the policy; and
(iii) The corresponding guaranteed value available upon surrender, as provided in the policy.
(b) For a policy that provides for a contract premium, the guaranteed death benefit and value available upon surrender, shall correspond to the period of time (policy year) for which the contract premium has been paid.
(c) Non-guaranteed elements may be shown if described in the contract. In the case of an illustration for a policy on which the insurer intends to credit terminal dividends, they may be shown if the insurer's current practice is to pay terminal dividends. If any non-guaranteed elements are shown they must be shown at the same durations as the corresponding guaranteed elements, if any. If no guaranteed benefit or value is available at any duration for which a non-guaranteed benefit or value is shown, a zero shall be displayed in the guaranteed column.
(H) Standards for supplemental illustrations
(1) A supplemental illustration may be provided so long as:
(a) It is appended to, accompanied by or preceded by a basic illustration that complies with this rule;
(b) The non-guaranteed elements shown are not more favorable to the policy owner than the corresponding elements based on the scale used in the basic illustration;
(c) It contains the same statement required of a basic illustration that non-guaranteed elements are not guaranteed; and
(d) For a policy that has a contract premium, the contract premium underlying the supplemental illustration is equal to the contract premium shown in the basic illustration. For policies that do not require a contract premium, the premium outlay underlying the supplemental illustration shall be equal to the premium outlay shown in the basic illustration.
(2) The supplemental illustration shall include a notice referring to the basic illustration for guaranteed elements and other important information.
(I) Delivery of illustration and record retention
(1)
(a) If a basic illustration is used by an insurance agent or other authorized representative of the insurer in the sale of a life insurance policy and the policy is applied for as illustrated, a copy of that illustration, signed in accordance with this rule, shall be submitted to the insurer at the time of policy application. A copy also shall be provided to the applicant.
(b) If the policy is issued other than as applied for, a revised basic illustration conforming to the policy as issued shall be sent with the policy. The revised illustration shall conform to the requirements of this rule, shall be labeled "Revised Illustration" and shall be signed and dated by the applicant or policy owner and agent or other authorized representative of the insurer no later than the time the policy is delivered. A copy shall be provided to the insurer and the policy owner.
(2)
(a) If no illustration is used by an insurance agent or other authorized representative of the insurer in the sale of a life insurance policy or if the policy is applied for other than as illustrated, the agent or representative shall certify to that effect in writing on a form provided by the insurer. On the same form the applicant shall acknowledge that no illustration conforming to the policy applied for was provided and shall further acknowledge an understanding that an illustration conforming to the policy as issued will be provided no later than at the time of policy delivery. This form shall be submitted to the insurer at the time of policy application.
(b) If the policy is issued, a basic illustration conforming to the policy as issued shall be sent with the policy and signed no later than the time the policy is delivered. A copy shall be provided to the insurer and the policy owner.
(3) If the basic illustration or revised illustration is sent to the applicant or policy owner by mail from the insurer, it shall include instructions for the applicant or policy owner to sign the duplicate copy of the numeric summary page of the illustration for the policy issued and return the signed copy to the insurer. The insurer's obligation under this paragraph shall be satisfied if it can demonstrate that it has made a diligent effort to secure a signed copy of the numeric summary page. The requirement to make a diligent effort shall be deemed satisfied if the insurer includes in the mailing a self-addressed postage prepaid envelope with instructions for the return of the signed numeric summary page.
(4) A copy of the basic illustration and a revised basic illustration, if any, signed as applicable, along with any certification that either no illustration was used or that the policy was applied for other than as illustrated, shall be retained by the insurer until three years after the policy is no longer in force. A copy need not be retained if no policy is issued.
(J) Annual report; notice to policy owners
(1) In the case of a policy designated as one for which illustrations will be used, the insurer shall provide each policy owner with an annual report on the status of the policy that shall contain at least the following information;
(a) For universal life policies, the report shall include the following:
(i) The beginning and end date of the current report period;
(ii) The policy value at the end of the previous report period and at the end of the current report period;
(iii) The total amounts that have been credited or debited to the policy value during the current report period, identifying each by type (e.g., interest, mortality, expense and riders);
(iv) The current death benefit at the end of the current report period on each life covered by the policy;
(v) The net cash surrender value of the policy as of the end of the current report period;
(vi) The amount of outstanding loans, if any, as of the end of the current report period; and
(vii) For fixed premium policies:
If, assuming guaranteed interest, mortality and expense loads and continued scheduled premium payments, the policy's net cash surrender value is such that it would not maintain insurance in force until the end of the next reporting period, a notice to this effect shall be included in the report; or
(viii) For flexible premium policies:
If, assuming guaranteed interest, mortality and expense loads, the policy's net cash surrender value will not maintain insurance in force until the end of the next reporting period unless further premium payments are made, a notice to this effect shall be included in the report.
(b) For all other policies, where applicable:
(i) Current death benefit;
(ii) Annual contract premium;
(iii) Current cash surrender value;
(iv) Current dividend;
(v) Application of current dividend; and
(vi) Amount of outstanding loan.
(c) Insurers writing life insurance policies that do not build nonforfeiture values shall only be required to provide an annual report with respect to these policies for those years when a change has been made to non-guaranteed policy elements by the insurer.
(2) If the annual report does not include an in force illustration, it shall contain the following notice displayed prominently: "IMPORTANT POLICY OWNER NOTICE: you should consider requesting more detailed information about your policy to understand how it may perform in the future. You should not consider replacement of your policy or make changes in your coverage without requesting a current illustration. You may annually request, without charge, such an illustration by calling [insurer's phone number], writing to [insurer's name] at [insurer's address] or contacting your agent. If you do not receive a current illustration of your policy within thirty days from your request, you should contact your state insurance department." The insurer may vary the sequential order of the methods for obtaining an in force illustration.
(3) Upon the request of the policy owner, the insurer shall furnish an in force illustration of current and future benefits and values based on the insurer's present illustrated scale. This illustration shall comply with the requirements of paragraphs (F)(1), (F)(2), (G)(1) and (G)(5) of this rule. No signature or other acknowledgment of receipt of this illustration shall be required.
(4) If an adverse change in non-guaranteed elements that could affect the policy has been made by the insurer since the last annual report, the annual report shall contain a notice of that fact and the nature of the change prominently displayed.
(K) Annual certifications
(1) The board of directors of each insurer shall appoint one or more illustration actuaries.
(2) The illustration actuary shall certify that the disciplined current scale used in illustrations is in conformity with actuarial standard of practice no. 24, compliance with the NAIC life insurance illustrations model regulation, promulgated by the actuarial standards board in December 2016, and that the illustrated scales used in insurer-authorized illustrations meet the requirements of this rule.
(3) The illustration actuary shall:
(a) Be a member of the American academy of actuaries and qualified to provide such certifications as described in the U.S. qualifications standards promulgated by the American academy of actuaries pursuant to the code of professional conduct;
(b) Be familiar with the standard of practice regarding life insurance policy illustrations;
(c) Not have been found by the superintendent, following appropriate notice and hearing to have:
(i) Violated any provision of, or any obligation imposed by, the insurance law or other law in the course of actuary's dealings as an illustration actuary;
(ii) Been found guilty of fraudulent or dishonest practices;
(iii) Demonstrated the actuary's incompetence, lack of cooperation, or untrustworthiness to act as an illustration actuary; or
(iv) Resigned or been removed as an illustration actuary within the past five years as a result of acts or omissions indicated in any adverse report on examination or as a result of a failure to adhere to generally acceptable actuarial standards;
(d) Not fail to notify the superintendent of any action taken by a commissioner of another state similar to that under paragraph (K)(3)(c) of this rule;
(e) Disclose in the annual certification whether, since the last certification, a currently payable scale applicable for business issued within the previous five years and within the scope of the certification has been reduced for reasons other than changes in the experience factors underlying the disciplined current scale. If non-guaranteed elements illustrated for new policies are not consistent with those illustrated for similar in force policies, this must be disclosed in the annual certification. If non-guaranteed elements illustrated for both new and in force policies are not consistent with the non-guaranteed elements actually being paid, charged or credited to the same or similar forms, this must be disclosed in the annual certification; and
(f) Disclose in the annual certification the method used to allocate overhead expenses for all illustrations:
(i) Fully allocated expenses;
(ii) Marginal expenses; or
(iii) A generally recognized expense table based on fully allocated expenses representing a significant portion of insurance companies and approved by the NAIC or by the superintendent.
(4)
(a) The illustration actuary shall file a certification with the board and with the superintendent:
(i) Annually for all policy forms for which illustrations are used; and
(ii) Before a new policy form is illustrated.
(b) If an error in a previous certification is discovered, the illustration actuary shall promptly notify the board of directors of the insurer and the superintendent.
(5) If an illustration actuary is unable to certify the scale for any policy form illustration the insurer intends to use, the actuary shall promptly notify the board of directors of the insurer and the superintendent of the actuary's inability to certify.
(6) A responsible officer of the insurer, other than the illustration actuary, shall certify annually:
(a) That the illustration formats meet the requirements of this rule and that the scales used in the insurer-authorized illustrations are those scales certified by the illustration actuary; and
(b) That the company has provided its agents with information about the expense allocation method used by the company in its illustrations and disclosed as required in paragraph (K)(3)(f) of this rule.
(7) The annual certifications shall be provided to the superintendent each year by a date determined by the insurer.
(8) If an insurer changes the illustration actuary responsible for all or a portion of the company's policy forms, the insurer shall promptly notify the superintendent of that fact and disclose the reason for the change.
(L) Penalties
In addition to any other penalties provided by the laws of this state, an insurer, agent, or authorized representative of the insurer that violates a requirement of this rule shall be guilty of a violation of section 3901.21 of the Revised Code.
(M) Severability
If any paragraph, term or provision of this rule is adjudged invalid for any reason, the judgment shall not affect, impair or invalidate any other paragraph, term or provision of this rule, but the remaining paragraphs, terms and provisions shall be and continue in full force and effect.
(N) Effective date
This rule shall apply to policies illustrated or written with an application date on or after the effective date.
Last updated November 17, 2022 at 8:53 AM
History
- Effective: November 17, 2022
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-1-13 Mortgage guaranty insurance.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to implement division (A)(24) of section 3929.01 of the Revised Code, as it pertains to the writing and servicing of that kind of insurance known as mortgage guaranty insurance as hereinafter defined.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under section 3901.041 of the Revised Code.
(C) Definitions
The definitions set forth in this rule shall govern the construction of the terms used in this rule:
(1) "Mortgage guaranty insurance" is:
(a) Insurance against financial loss by reason of nonpayment of principal, interest or other sums agreed to be paid under the terms of any note or bond or other evidence of indebtedness secured by a mortgage, deed of trust, or other instrument constituting a lien or charge on real estate, provided the improvement on such real estate is a residential building or a condominium unit or buildings designed for occupancy by not more than four families; or
(b) Insurance against financial loss by reason of nonpayment of principal, interest or other sums agreed to be paid under the terms of any note or bond or other evidence of indebtedness secured by a mortgage, deed of trust or other instrument constituting a lien or charge on real estate, providing the improvement on such real estate is a building or buildings designed for occupancy by five or more families or designed to be occupied for industrial or commercial purposes; or
(c) Insurance against financial loss by reason of nonpayment of rent or other sums agreed to be paid under the terms of a written lease for the possession, use or occupancy of real estate, provided the improvement on such real estate is a building or buildings designed to be occupied for industrial or commercial purposes.
(2) "Authorized real estate security" for the purpose of this rule means a note, bond or other evidence of indebtedness, not exceeding one-hundred and three per cent of the lower of the fair value as fixed by appraisal or purchase price of the real estate, secured by a mortgage, deed of trust, or other instrument which constitutes, or is equivalent to, a first lien or charge on real estate, provided:
(a) Any percentage in excess of one-hundred per cent is used only for closing costs.
(b) The real estate loan secured in such manner is one of a type which:
(i) A bank,
(ii) A building and loan association, federal savings and loan, or a service corporation of either, or
(iii) An insurance company, which is supervised and regulated by a department of the state of Ohio or an agency of the federal government, is authorized to make, or would be authorized to make, disregarding any requirement applicable to such an institution that the amount of the loan not to exceed a certain percentage of the value of the real estate.
(c) The improvement on such real estate is a building or buildings designed for occupancy as specified by paragraphs (C)(1)(a) and (C)(1)(b) of this rule.
(d) The lien on such real estate may be subject to and subordinate to the following:
(i) The lien on any public bond, assessment or tax, when no installment, call or payment of or under such bond, assessment or tax is delinquent.
(ii) Outstanding mineral, oil, water or timber rights, rights-of-way, easements or rights-of-way of support, sewer rights, building restrictions or other restrictions or covenants, conditions or regulations of use, or outstanding leases upon such real property under which rents or profits are reserved to the owner thereof.
(3) "Contingency reserve" means an additional premium reserve established to protect policyholders against the effect of adverse economic cycles.
(D) Capital and surplus
A mortgage guaranty insurance company shall not transact the business of mortgage guaranty insurance in the state of Ohio unless: if a stock insurance company, it has capital and surplus in the aggregate amount of not less than two million five hundred thousand dollars, which aggregate shall include paid-in capital of not less than one million and contributed surplus of not less than one million or if a mutual insurance company, a minimum surplus of two million five hundred thousand dollars.
(E) Limitations and restrictions on transacting business
(1) Mortgage guaranty insurance may be transacted in this state by insurers fulfilling the requirements of paragraph (E)(6) of this rule and holding a certificate of authority for the transaction of such insurance pursuant to Title XXXIX of the Revised Code and shall be written only to insure loans secured by authorized real estate securities as defined in paragraph (C)(2) of this rule.
(2) Geographic concentration
(a) A mortgage guaranty insurance company shall not insure loans secured by a single risk in excess of ten per cent of the company's aggregate capital, surplus and contingency reserve.
(b) No mortgage guaranty insurance company shall have more than twenty per cent of its total insurance in force in any one metropolitan statistical area ("MSA") as defined by the United States office of management and budget.
(3) Advertising
No mortgage guaranty insurance company or any agent or representative of a mortgage guaranty insurance company shall prepare or distribute or assist in preparing or distributing any brochure, pamphlet, report or any form of advertising to the effect that the real estate investments of any financial institution are "insured investments," unless the brochure, pamphlet, report or advertising clearly states that the loans are insured by mortgage guaranty insurance companies authorized to transact the business of mortgage guaranty insurance in the state of Ohio or are insured by an agency of the federal government, as the case may be.
(4) Investment limitation
A mortgage guaranty insurance company shall not invest in notes or other evidences of indebtedness secured by a mortgage or other lien upon real property. This section shall not apply to obligations secured by real property or contracts for the sale of real property, which obligations or contracts of sale are acquired in the course of the good faith settlement of claims under policies of insurance issued by the mortgage guaranty insurance company, or in the good faith disposition of real property so acquired.
(5) Coverage limitation
(a) A mortgage guaranty insurance company shall limit its coverage, with respect to any one authorized real estate security, net of reinsurance, ceded to a reinsurer unaffiliated with the company or an affiliated reinsurer which does not own, and is not owned by, in whole or in part, the ceding mortgage guaranty insurer, to a maximum of twenty-five per cent of the entire indebtedness to the insured under that authorized real estate security. In lieu thereof, a mortgage guaranty insurance company may elect to pay the entire indebtedness to the insured and acquire title to the authorized real estate security.
(b) The coverage limits set out in paragraph (E)(5)(a) of this rule shall not apply to a mortgage guaranty insurance company that possesses capital and surplus in excess of twenty-five million dollars.
(6) Mortgage guaranty insurance as monoline
(a) A mortgage guaranty insurance company which anywhere transacts any class of insurance other than mortgage guaranty insurance is not eligible to transact mortgage guaranty insurance in the state of Ohio.
(b) A mortgage guaranty insurance company which anywhere transacts the classes of insurance defined in paragraph (C)(1)(b) or (C)(1)(c) of this rule may not transact in the state of Ohio the class of mortgage guaranty insurance defined in paragraph (C)(1)(a) of this rule, provided, however, a mortgage guaranty insurance company which transacts a class of insurance defined in paragraph (C)(1)(a) of this rule may write up to five per cent of its insurance in force on residential property designed for occupancy by five or more families.
(7) Underwriting discrimination
(a) Nothing in this rule shall be construed as limiting the right of any mortgage guaranty insurance company to impose reasonable requirements upon the lender with regard to the terms of any note or bond or other evidence of indebtedness secured by a mortgage or deed of trust, such as requiring a stipulated down payment by the borrower.
(b) No mortgage guaranty insurance company may discriminate in the issuance or extension of mortgage guaranty insurance on the basis of sex, marital status, race, color, creed, national origin, physical handicap or mental handicap.
(c) No policy of mortgage guaranty insurance, excluding policies of reinsurance, shall be written unless and until the insurer itself or the lender, in compliance with underwriting directives from the insurer and subject to periodic underwriting audits by the insurer, shall have conducted a reasonable and thorough examination of the evidence supporting credit worthiness of the borrower and the appraisal report reflecting market evaluation of the property and shall have determined that prudent underwriting standards have been met.
(8) Policy forms and premium rates filed
(a) All policy forms and endorsements, and rates to be charged and the premium including all modifications of rates and premiums to be paid by the policyholder shall be filed with and subject to the provisions of sections 3937.01 to 3937.18 of the Revised Code. With respect to owner-occupied, single-family dwellings or owner-occupied two family dwellings, the mortgage guaranty insurance policy shall provide that the borrower shall not be liable to the insurance company for any deficiency arising from a foreclosure sale.
(b) Every mortgage guaranty insurance company shall adopt, print and make available a schedule of premium charges for mortgage guaranty insurance policies. Premium charges made in conformity with the provisions of this rule shall not be deemed to be of interest or other charges under any other provision of law limiting interest or other charges in connection with mortgage loans. The schedule shall show the entire amount of premium charge for each type of mortgage guaranty insurance policy issued by the insurance company.
(9) Outstanding total liability
(a) A mortgage guaranty insurance company shall not at any time have outstanding a total liability, net of reinsurance, under its aggregate mortgage guaranty insurance policies exceeding twenty-five times its capital, surplus and contingency reserve. In the event that any mortgage guaranty insurance company has outstanding total liability exceeding twenty-five times its capital, surplus and contingency reserve, it shall cease transacting new mortgage guaranty business until such time as its total liability no longer exceeds twenty-five times its capital, surplus and contingency reserve.
(b) The superintendent, in the superintendent's sole discretion, may permit a temporary exception to the requirement set out in paragraph (E)(9)(a) of this rule at the written request of a mortgage guaranty insurer upon a finding that the mortgage guaranty insurer's policyholders position is reasonable in relationship to the mortgage guaranty insurer's aggregate insured risk and adequate to its financial needs. The request must be made in writing at least ninety days in advance of the date that the mortgage guaranty insurer expects to exceed the requirements of paragraph (E)(9)(a) of this rule and shall, at a minimum, address the factors specified in paragraph (E)(9)(c) of this rule, provided, however, that a mortgage guaranty insurance company may submit a request for such exception within ten days after the effective date of this rule as amended and shall be deemed to have complied with the ninety day requirement in paragraph (E)(9)(b) of this rule.
(c) In determining whether a mortgage guaranty insurer's policyholders position is reasonable in relation to the mortgage guaranty insurer's aggregate insured risk and adequate to its financial needs, the superintendent shall consider all of the following:
(i) The size of the mortgage guaranty insurer as measured by its assets, capital and surplus, reserves, premium writings, insurance in force and other criteria as deemed appropriate by the superintendent.
(ii) The extent to which the mortgage guaranty insurer's business is diversified across time, geography, credit quality, origination, and distribution channels.
(iii) The nature and extent of the mortgage guaranty insurer's reinsurance program.
(iv) The quality, diversification, and liquidity of the mortgage guaranty insurer's assets and its investment portfolio.
(v) The historical and forecasted trend in the size of the mortgage guaranty insurer's policyholder's position.
(vi) The policyholder's position maintained by other comparable mortgage guaranty insurers in relation to the nature of their respective insured risks.
(vii) The adequacy of the mortgage guaranty insurer's reserves.
(viii) The quality and liquidity of investments in affiliates. The superintendent may treat any such investment as a non-admitted asset for purposes of determining the adequacy of surplus as regards policyholders.
(ix) The quality of the mortgage guaranty insurer's earnings and the extent to which the reported earnings of the mortgage guaranty insurer include extraordinary items.
(x) An independent actuary's opinion as to the reasonableness and adequacy of the mortgage guaranty insurer's historical and projected policyholder position.
(xi) The capital contributions which have been infused or are available for future infusion into the mortgage guaranty insurer.
(xii) The historical and projected trends in the components of the mortgage guaranty insurer's aggregate insured risk, including, but not limited to, the quality and type of the risks included in the aggregate insured risk.
(d) The superintendent may retain accountants, actuaries, or other experts to assist the superintendent in the review of the mortgage guaranty insurer's request submitted pursuant to paragraph (E)(9)(b) of this rule. The mortgage guaranty insurer shall bear the cost of retaining such experts.
(e) Any waiver shall be for a specified time, not to exceed two years and shall be subject to any terms and conditions imposed by the superintendent, in the superintendent's sole discretion.
(10) High risk underwriting
Any mortgage guaranty insurance company which receives five per cent or more of its net annual premium from policies written to insure loans secured by authorized real estate securities having a greater than ninety-five per cent loan-to-value ratio shall notify the superintendent within thirty days. The superintendent may, if the superintendent finds that further underwriting of loans having a greater than ninety-five per cent loan-to-value ratio would have an adverse impact on the solvency of the company, prohibit the company from further underwriting such loans.
(F) Rebates, commissions, charges and conflict of interest
(1) Rebates, commissions and charges
(a) A mortgage guaranty insurance company shall not pay or cause to be paid either directly or indirectly, to any owner, purchaser, lessor, lessee, mortgagee or prospective mortgagee of the real property which secures the authorized real estate security or which is the fee of an insured lease, or any interest therein, or any person who is acting as an agent, representative, attorney or employee of such owner, purchaser or mortgagee, any commission, or any part of its premium charges or any other consideration as an inducement for or as compensation on any mortgage guaranty insurance business.
(b) In connection with the placement of any mortgage guaranty insurance, a mortgage guaranty insurance company shall not cause or permit any commission, fee, remuneration, or other compensation to be paid to, or received by, any insured lender or lessor; any subsidiary or affiliate of any insured; any officer, director or employee of any insured or any member of their immediate family; any corporation, partnership, trust, trade association in which any insured or any such officer, director, or employee or member of their immediate family has a financial interest; or any designee, trust, nominee, or other agent or representative of any of the foregoing.
(c) No mortgage guaranty insurance company shall make any rebate of any portion of the premium charge shown by the schedule required by paragraph (E)(8)(b) of this rule. No mortgage guaranty insurance company shall quote any rate or premium charge to any person which is different than that currently available to others for the same type of coverage. The amount by which any premium charge is less than that called for by the current schedule of premium charges is an unlawful rebate.
(2) Conflict of interest
(a) If a member of a holding company system, a mortgage guaranty insurance company licensed to transact business in this state shall not knowingly underwrite mortgage guaranty insurance on mortgages originated by the holding company system or an affiliate or on mortgages originated by any mortgage lender to which credit is extended, directly or indirectly, by the holding company system or any affiliate unless such insurance is underwritten on the same basis, for the same consideration and subject to the same insurability requirements as insurance provided to nonaffiliated lenders.
(i) Any mortgage guaranty insurance company which receives, in the aggregate, twenty per cent of more of its net annual premium from policies written to insure mortgages originated by affiliates in the holding company system shall, concurrent with the filing of its annual statement, notify the superintendent of that fact.
(ii) The superintendent may, if the superintendent finds that further underwriting of policies issued on said loans would have an adverse impact on the solvency of the company, prohibit the mortgage guaranty insurance company for further underwriting such loans.
(b) A mortgage guaranty insurance company, the holding company system of which it is a part or any affiliate shall not pay any commission, remuneration, rebates or engage in activities proscribed in paragraph (F)(1) of this rule.
(G) Reserves
(1) Unearned premium reserves
A mortgage guaranty insurance company shall compute and maintain an unearned premium reserve as required by the superintendent of insurance.
(2) Loss reserve
A mortgage guaranty insurance company shall compute and maintain adequate case basis and other loss reserves which accurately reflect loss frequency and loss severity and shall include components for claims reported and unpaid, and for claims incurred but not reported, including estimated losses on:
(a) Insured loans which have resulted in the conveyance of property which remains unsold;
(b) Insured loans in the process of foreclosure;
(c) Insured loans in default for four months or for any lesser period which is defined as default for such purposes in the policy provisions; and
(d) Insured leases in default for four months or for any lesser period which is defined as default for such purposes in policy provisions.
(3) Contingency reserve
Each mortgage guaranty insurance company shall establish a contingency reserve out of net premiums remaining (gross premiums less premiums returned to policyholders net of reinsurance) after establishment of the unearned premium reserve. The mortgage guaranty insurance company shall contribute to the contingency reserve an amount equal to fifty per cent of such remaining earned premiums. Contributions to the contingency reserve made during each calendar year shall be maintained for a period of one hundred twenty months, except that withdrawals may be made by the company in any year in which the actual incurred losses exceed thirty-five per cent of the corresponding earned premiums, and no such releases shall be made without prior approval by the superintendent of the insurance company's state of domicile. If the coverage provided in this rule exceeds the limitations set forth herein, the superintendent of insurance shall establish a rate formula factor that will produce a contingency reserve adequate for the added risk assumed. The face amount of an insured mortgage shall be computed before any reduction by the mortgage guaranty insurance company's election to limit its coverage to a portion of the entire indebtedness.
(H) Reinsurance
Whenever a mortgage guaranty insurance company obtains reinsurance from an insurance company which is properly licensed to provide such reinsurance or from an appropriate governmental agency, the mortgage guaranty insurer and the reinsurer shall establish and maintain the reserves required in this rule in appropriate proportions in relation to the risk retained by the original insurer and ceded to the assuming reinsurer so that the total reserves established shall not be less than the reserves required by this rule.
(I) Miscellaneous
(1) Whenever the laws of any other jurisdiction in which a mortgage guaranty insurance company subject to the requirement of this rule is also licensed to transact mortgage guaranty insurance require a larger unearned premium reserve or contingency reserve in the aggregate than that set forth herein, the establishment of such larger unearned premium reserve or contingency reserve in the aggregate shall be deemed to be in compliance with this rule.
(2) Unearned premium reserves and contingency reserves shall be computed and maintained on risks insured after the effective date of this rule as required by paragraphs (G)(1) and (G)(3) of this rule. Unearned premium reserves and contingency reserves on risks insured before the effective date of this rule may be computed and maintained as required previously.
(J) Severability
If any paragraph, term or provision of this rule is adjudged invalid for any reason, the judgment shall not affect, impair or invalidate any other paragraph, term or provision of this rule, but the remaining paragraphs, terms and provisions shall be and continue in full force and effect.
Last updated February 14, 2022 at 8:54 AM
History
- Effective: February 14, 2022
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-1-14 Credit life and credit accident health insurance.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to protect the interests of debtors and the public in Ohio by providing a framework for the transaction of credit life and credit accident and health insurance that ensures a complicated product is carefully and thoughtfully constructed and administered.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under section 3901.041 of the Revised Code.
(C) Applicability
This rule is issued pursuant to Chapter 3918. of the Revised Code regulating credit life insurance and credit accident and health insurance and is applicable to all policies, riders, applications for insurance, notices of proposed insurance, certificates of insurance and endorsements providing credit life insurance and credit accident and health insurance issued or renewed on or after November 1, 1983 in the state of Ohio.
Certificates, notices of proposed insurance and premium rates applicable in connection with existing group policies of credit insurance are to be conformed to the requirements of this rule not later than the anniversary date of the group policy next following the effective date of this rule.
No existing group credit life or group credit accident and health policy presently in force in Ohio will be rewritten or redated so as to delay or avoid the effect of this rule.
Any policy issued to replace an existing policy of credit insurance or any amendment to any existing policy of credit insurance is to be ignored for the purpose of determining the anniversary if such change is made after July 1, 1983.
(D) Filing and approval, disclosure
Section 3918.07 of the Revised Code provides that all policies, certificates of insurance, notices of proposed insurance, applications for insurance, endorsements and riders providing coverage on residents of Ohio are to be filed with the superintendent of insurance and that the superintendent may disapprove any such form.
(1) No individual or group policy of credit life insurance or credit accident and health insurance including no application, binder, endorsement, rider, certificate of group insurance, notice of proposed insurance, or other form pertaining to credit life insurance or credit accident and health insurance under such policy are to be issued for delivery or used in this state, on or after the effective date of this rule unless such forms and the premium rates and refund formulas therefore have been filed with the superintendent of insurance and approved prior to such issuance or use and have not been subsequently disapproved in accordance with division (B) of section 3918.07 of the Revised Code.
(2) If a group policy of credit life insurance or credit accident and health insurance:
(a) Has been delivered in this state before the effective date of this rule, or
(b) Delivered in another state before or after the effective date of this rule-
The insurer is required to file only the group certificate and notice of proposed insurance as specified in divisions (B) and (D) of section 3918.06 of the Revised Code and such forms are to be approved by the superintendent if they conform with the requirements of Chapter 3918. of the Revised Code and this rule, and if the schedules of premium rates applicable to the insurance evidenced by such certificate or notice are not in excess of the standards set forth in this rule. Provided, however, the premium rate in effect on existing group policies may be continued until the first policy anniversary date following the effective date of this rule.
(3) Division (D) of section 3918.06 of the Revised Code provides that the copy of the application for, or notice of, proposed insurance is separate and apart from the credit instrument unless the information required "is prominently set forth therein." The copy of the application for, or notice of, proposed insurance is deemed to be prominently set forth in the credit instrument if set forth in a separate provision on the face or reverse in type at least equal in size and prominence to the type used for the other provisions; provided that if the same is set forth on the reverse of the credit instrument, reference is to be made on the face of the instrument and provided further that the name of the debtor proposed for insurance, any figures relating to the amount and term of coverage, and the rate of amount of payment for insurance by the debtor need not be contained in a separate provision of the instrument, but may be set forth elsewhere in the instrument.
(4)
(a) The disclosure required by paragraph (D)(3) of this rule is to be made to the debtor at the time of the debtor's application for credit life or credit accident and health insurance (excluding non-contributory insurance) in connection with a credit transaction, and before the debtor becomes obligated to purchase such insurance.
(b) The form(s) containing the disclosure are to be filed with the superintendent of insurance and the disclosure language is subject to disapproval pursuant to section 3918.07 of the Revised Code.
(c) Additional disclosure is to be made using the exact form set forth in appendix I to this rule.
(5) If a creditor makes available to the debtors, more than one plan of credit life insurance or more than one plan of credit accident and health insurance, all debtors must be informed of all such plans applicable to the type of loan.
(E) Premium rate and coverage standards
Where rate filings are made in accordance with the premium rate standards outlined in this paragraph of this rule, the filed rates equivalent to prima facie are deemed not to be excessive in relation to the benefits provided.
(1) Standards for premium rates for credit life insurance
(a) Monthly premium rate:
It is presumed that the premium rate for credit life insurance, for which premiums are paid monthly on outstanding balances, is not excessive in relation to the benefits provided if the monthly premium rate for such coverage does not exceed 0.846 dollars per one thousand dollars of outstanding balance of insured indebtedness.
(b) Prima facie single premium rate for decreasing term credit life insurance:
It is presumed that the single premium rate for decreasing term credit life insurance for which premiums are paid in one sum for the entire duration of indebtedness, is not excessive in relation to the benefits provided if the single premium rate for such insurance does not exceed a rate of fifty-five cents per one hundred dollars repayable in twelve substantially equal monthly installments and, for other repayment periods, the equivalent single premium rates calculated according to the formula SPn = (n + 1)/20 times the monthly outstanding balance premium rate standard from paragraph (E)(1)(a) of this rule, where "n" is equal to the number of monthly payments, and "SPn" is the single premium rate per one hundred dollars repayable in "n" monthly installments.
(c) As an alternative to the standards set forth above, an insurer may, where age data applicable to the insured persons are available, determine premium rates based on such age data and computed in a manner consistent herewith, subject to approval pursuant to section 3918.07 of the Revised Code.
(d) Standards for premium rates for indebtedness repayable in installments other than as indicated in paragraph (E)(1) of this rule are to be the equivalent of these standards.
(e) Other additional benefits to policyholders and their debtors, (i.e. dismemberment, partial disability, total and permanent disability, and suicide) may be provided by the insurance carriers if they so desire, but in no event may the charge for such coverage be passed on to the debtor so as to increase the total rate to exceed the rate established by this rule. If a suicide exclusion is utilized, such exclusion cannot be effective for more than six months following the effective date of coverage for that insured person.
(f) The foregoing rate standards may be used for credit life insurance with or without age limitations. If an age limitation is provided, it may not be more restrictive than to exclude from coverage any debtor who has attained age sixty-five at incurral of indebtedness, or who will have attained age sixty-six at maturity of the indebtedness.
(g) A policy provision that restricts coverage based on age in accordance with paragraph (E)(1)(c) or (E)(1)(f) of this rule, in the absence of misstatement, is valid only for the first sixty days of coverage. During the first sixty days of coverage the insurer has the right to cancel or restructure coverage that would otherwise provide benefits in excess of policy age restrictions.
(h) These standards are applicable to the type of decreasing term credit life insurance contract customarily offered for sale protecting credit obligations repayable in substantially equal installments. Standards for premium rates in the case of forms which vary in any material respect from this standard type of credit insurance contract may reflect such variations to the extent that there is a measurable difference in the claims cost of the coverage provided and must receive approval pursuant to section 3918.07 of the Revised Code on a case basis.
(i) Premium rates for joint credit life insurance are not to exceed one and three-quarters times the applicable single credit life rate.
(j) Amount of credit life insurance:
(i) In connection with loans or other credit transactions of sixty months or less, the amount of credit life insurance is not to exceed the scheduled or actual amount of indebtedness, whichever is greater.
(ii) For loans or other credit transactions exceeding sixty months the amount of credit life insurance is not to exceed the net indebtedness, exclusive of unearned finance charges.
(k) The foregoing standards for premium rates are those to become effective November 1, 1983. Effective May 1, 1985, the monthly outstanding balance premium rate is not to exceed eighty cents per one thousand dollars outstanding balance of insured indebtedness and the single premium rate for decreasing term credit life insurance for which premiums are paid in one sum for the entire duration of indebtedness is not to exceed fifty-two cents per one hundred dollars repayable in twelve substantially equal monthly installments. The superintendent is to use the experience data reported on the national association of insurance commissioners (NAIC) annual statement credit insurance experience exhibit to adjust the prima facie rates for credit life insurance on an industry-wide basis as necessary to establish and maintain a fifty per cent loss ratio. Prima facie rates are first to be adjusted in like manner effective November 1, 1986, based on the data reported the previous year, and adjusted in like manner effective November first of every year after 1986. However, after the November 1, 2013 adjustment, prima facie rates are to be adjusted in like manner effective January 1, 2017, based on the data reported for the previous three years, and be adjusted in like manner effective January first of every third year after two-thousand fourteen.
(2) Standards for premium rates for credit accident and health insurance
(a) If premiums are paid in one sum for the entire duration of the indebtedness the following rates per one hundred dollars of initial indebtedness repayable in the indicated number of equal monthly installments are applicable:
| Duration | Prima facie single premium rate/$100 14-day retroactive plan | Prima facie single premium rate/$100 14-day nonretroactive plan | | --- | --- | --- | | 6 | $1.87 | $1.50 | | 12 | 2.40 | 2.10 | | 18 | 2.76 | 2.44 | | 24 | 3.03 | 2.71 | | 30 | 3.25 | 2.95 | | 36 | 3.46 | 3.16 | | 42 | 3.65 | 3.34 | | 48 | 3.82 | 3.51 | | 54 | 3.98 | 3.67 | | 60 | 4.14 | 3.82 | | 66 | 4.31 | 3.97 | | 72 | 4.45 | 4.11 | | 78 | 4.58 | 4.24 | | 84 | 4.71 | 4.37 | | 90 | 4.84 | 4.50 | | 96 | 4.95 | 4.62 | | 102 | 5.07 | 4.74 | | 108 | 5.18 | 4.85 | | 114 | 5.23 | 4.96 | | 120 | 5.41 | 5.07 |
| Duration | 30-day retroactive plan | 30-day nonretroactive plan | | --- | --- | --- | | 6 | $1.28 | $ .74 | | 12 | 1.81 | 1.27 | | 18 | 2.04 | 1.62 | | 24 | 2.20 | 1.82 | | 30 | 2.34 | 1.96 | | 36 | 2.47 | 2.08 | | 42 | 2.57 | 2.19 | | 48 | 2.67 | 2.28 | | 54 | 2.77 | 2.38 | | 60 | 2.85 | 2.47 | | 66 | 2.95 | 2.55 | | 72 | 3.04 | 2.63 | | 78 | 3.11 | 2.70 | | 84 | 3.19 | 2.78 | | 90 | 3.26 | 2.85 | | 96 | 3.33 | 2.92 | | 102 | 3.39 | 2.98 | | 108 | 3.46 | 3.06 | | 114 | 3.52 | 3.11 | | 120 | 3.59 | 3.18 |
Effective May 1, 1985, the one sum premium per one hundred dollars of initial indebtedness is to be one hundred three per cent of the rates listed in this paragraph of this rule. The superintendent is to use the experience data reported on the national association of insurance commissioners (NAIC) annual statement credit insurance experience exhibit to adjust the prima facie rates for credit accident and health insurance on an industry-wide basis as necessary to establish and maintain a sixty per cent loss ratio. Prima facie rates are to first be adjusted in like manner effective November 1, 1986, based on data reported the previous year, and are to be adjusted in like manner effective November first, of every year after 1986. However, after the November 1, 2013 adjustment, prima facie rates are to be adjusted in like manner effective January 1, 2017, based on the data reported for the previous three years, and adjusted in like manner effective January first of every third year after two-thousand fourteen.
The above shows rates only for credit transactions repayable in a total number of installments which is a multiple of six. For transactions repayable in numbers of installments not set forth above; either the actuarial equivalent or straight-line interpolation may be utilized. The rate standards set forth above are to be applicable for such contracts which contain a provision excluding or denying claim for disability resulting from pre-existing illness, disease or physical condition (whether or not by name or specific description) which totally disabled the debtor at any time during the six-month period immediately preceding the effective date of the debtor's coverage, or provisions which exclude coverage for pre-existing conditions for which the insured debtor received medical advice, diagnosis, or treatment within six months preceding the effective date of the debtor's coverage, and which caused loss within the six months following the effective date of coverage, but contain no other provision which excludes or restricts liability in the event of disability. The rate standards set forth herein may be increased ten per cent for such contracts that do not contain a provision excluding or denying a claim for disability resulting from pre-existing conditions.
Any contract to which the above rates apply may contain provisions excluding or restricting coverage in the event of pregnancy, intentionally self-inflicted injuries, foreign travel or residence, or flight in non-scheduled aircraft, war or military service.
Any contract may also provide an age limitation, which limitation may not be more restrictive than to exclude from coverage any debtor who has attained age sixty-five at incurral of indebtedness, or who will have attained age sixty-six at maturity of the indebtedness.
No contract is to provide for an actively-at-work test that requires the debtor to be employed more than thirty hours per week.
(b) Standards for premium rates for indebtedness repayable in installments other than as indicated in paragraph (E)(2)(a) of this rule are to be the equivalent of the standards.
(c) If premium rates are payable other than in one sum, an insurer may determine such rates on a basis consistent with the rates set forth in paragraph (E)(2)(a) of this rule.
(d) The standard for premium rates set forth in paragraph (E)(2)(a) of this rule is applicable to the form of credit accident and health insurance described which is illustrative of the kind of coverage that may be issued. This rule, however, does not preclude an insurer from filing other forms of credit accident and health insurance for consideration by the superintendent.
(e) Standards for premium rates for contracts providing benefits on a basis different from those illustrated above are to be the equivalent of the standard.
(f) A policy provision that restricts coverage based on age in accordance with paragraph (E)(2)(a) of this rule, in the absence of misstatement, is to be valid only for the first sixty days of coverage. During the first sixty days of coverage the insurer has the right to cancel or restructure coverage that would otherwise provide benefits in excess of policy restrictions.
(3) Combination coverage
Standards for premium rates for contracts combining credit life and credit accident and health coverage in one policy are to be consistent with the standards set forth in paragraphs (E)(1) and (E)(2) of this rule, however, such contracts must provide for a refund of the unearned credit accident and health premium, in the event of the debtor's death. Refunds are computed from the date of death. These refunds are also to be provided when the insured debtor is covered by separate contracts providing credit life and credit accident and health coverage.
(4) Loss ratio adjustments
Notwithstanding any other provision or paragraph of this rule to the contrary, the superintendent of insurance may, after November 1, 1986, establish minimum loss ratio percentage requirements, based upon claim experience and expense factors, that differ from the fifty per cent standard for credit life and sixty per cent standard for credit accident and health coverage set forth in paragraphs (E)(1), (E)(2), and (E)(8) of this rule.
After November 1, 1986, any insurer desiring to show cause why its premium rates for a case or class of business should not be reduced, as set forth in paragraphs (E)(1) and (E)(8) of this rule, must agree to an examination and audit of it's claim experience and expense factors. The examination and audit will be performed by qualified actuaries and accountants selected by the superintendent of insurance. The expense of the examination and audit will be paid for by the insurer and the insurer must agree to accept the findings of the superintendent of insurance which will be based upon the results of the examination and audit.
(5) Definitions
As used in connection with credit life or accident and health insurance, the following terms mean:
(a) "Claims" means benefits payable on death or disability and does not include loss adjustment expense, claim settlement expense or any other expense, charge, cost or payment.
(b) "Claims incurred" means claims actually paid during the year, plus any estimated reserves at the end of the year for reported claims in the process of settlement, and reserves for unreported claims, and less any estimated reserves at the end of the preceding year for reported claims in the process of settlement and for unreported claims.
(c) Premiums earned
Where premiums are payable monthly based on the outstanding balance of insured indebtedness, "premiums earned" means the total premiums paid the insurer during the reporting year plus premiums due the insurer but unpaid at the end of the preceding year, less the premiums due the insurer but unpaid at the end of the current year.
Where premiums are payable in one sum for the entire duration of indebtedness, "premiums earned" means the one-sum premiums which become due the insurer during the reporting year, plus the reserve at the beginning of the reporting year minus the reserve at the end of the reporting year.
The premiums as defined under either system of premium payments are without reduction of any kind except for premiums refunded or adjusted on account of termination of coverage.
(d) "Class of business" means a grouping of businesses under the following categories, each category being referred to as a class of business:
(i) Credit unions;
(ii) Commercial banks, societies for savings, and savings and loan associations;
(iii) Finance companies (including second mortgage lenders);
(iv) Motor vehicle dealers under retail installment sale contracts;
(v) All other sales finance companies (including dealers under retail installment sale contracts);
(vi) Production credit associations;
(vii) All others.
(6) Life premium rate deviations
Credit life insurance premium rates exceeding the standards in paragraph (E)(1) of this rule may be approved, as not being excessive in relation to the benefits provided, for the insurance covering the debtors of a creditor or a class of business hereinafter called the "case," if the credible loss ratio for the case is more than sixty per cent. For such cases, the permissible premium rate is to be computed as follows, unless otherwise determined by the superintendent.
(a) Determine the credible monthly claim cost by multiplying the monthly outstanding balance prima facie premium rate of 0.846 dollars per one thousand dollars by the case credible loss ratio obtained in paragraph (E)(6)(e)(iii) of this rule.
(b) The permissible deviated outstanding balance rate is equal to the credible monthly claim cost plus 0.338 dollars per one thousand dollars.
(c) If the case is on the single premium basis, the permissible schedule of single premium rates is obtained using the formula SPn = (n + 1)/20 times the deviated monthly outstanding balance rate from paragraph (E)(6)(b) of this rule, where:
"n" = the number of equal monthly payments.
"SPn" = the single premium rate per one hundred dollars for "n" monthly payments.
(d) The monthly outstanding balance prima facie premium rate of 0.846 dollars per one thousand dollars indicated in paragraph (E)(6)(a) of this rule, will reduce to eighty cents per one thousand dollars on May 1, 1985. The 0.338 dollars per one thousand dollars loading factor indicated in paragraph (E)(6)(b) of this rule, will reduce to thirty-two cents on May 1, 1985. On November 1, 1986 the monthly outstanding balance prima facie premium rate in paragraph (E)(6)(a) of this rule will be the rate required by paragraph (E)(1)(k) of this rule and the loading factor in paragraph (E)(6)(b) of this rule will be forty per cent of the outstanding balance rate.
(e) The credible loss ratio is computed as follows:
(i) Case size and credibility
Credibility of experience depends upon the case size. Case size is measured according to three premium size brackets to reflect the greater credibility of experience resulting from greater size. The premiums in the brackets are the premiums based on the prima facie premium rate standard. The size brackets are:
| Case size | Earned premium | | --- | --- | | 1 | $ 50,000 - 200,000 | | 2 | 200,000 - 500,000 | | 3 | 500,000 - and over |
(ii) Credible experience period
The credible experience period is three years if the case aggregate earned premium based on the prima facie rate, developed during the most recent three-year period is less than five hundred thousand dollars. If the case aggregate earned premium during the most recent three-year period based on the prima facie rate is equal to or greater than five hundred thousand dollars, then the credible experience period is the most recent number of years needed to accumulate five hundred thousand dollars of premium on the prima facie rate. For example, if a case were of sufficient size to generate at least five hundred thousand dollars in one year, the credible experience period would be one year.
The experience used in determining the permissible rate is the experience during the credible experience period, as follows:
(iii) Credible loss ratio
The credible loss ratio is based on the experience of the credible experience period. It is a composite of the case's actual loss ratio (ALR) during the credible experience period and the basic loss ratio (BLR) contemplated by the prima facie rate standards which is fifty per cent for credit life insurance.
The actual loss ratio is the ratio of the incurred claims of the credible experience period divided by the earned premium based on the prima facie rate during the credible experience period.
The compositing of the actual and basic loss ratios takes account of fluctuations about expected experience, and dampens the effect of non-credible fluctuations. The factors used in compositing the loss ratios depend upon case size in accordance with the three size brackets in paragraph (E)(6)(e)(i) of this rule, as follows:
| Case size | Credible loss ratio | | --- | --- | | 1 | 50% of ALR plus 50% of BLR | | 2 | 75% of ALR plus 25% of BLR | | 3 | 100% of ALR plus 0% of BLR |
(7) Accident and health premium rate deviations
Credit accident and health insurance premium rates exceeding the standards in paragraph (E)(2) of this rule may be approved, as not being excessive in relation to the benefits provided, for the insurance covering the debtors of a creditor or a class of business hereinafter called the "case," if the credible loss ratio for the case is more than sixty per cent. For such cases, the permissible premium rate is to be computed as follows, unless otherwise determined by the superintendent.
(a) Determine the credible claim cost by multiplying the prima facie premium rate, by the case credible loss ratio, obtained in paragraph (E)(7)(c)(iii) of this rule.
(b) The permissible deviated outstanding balance rate is equal to the credible monthly claim cost plus the loading factor. The loading factor is computed as a percentage of the prima facie rate as adjusted in accordance with the following table:
(i) Effective November 1, 1983 - thirty-five per cent times the prima facie rate set forth in paragraph (E)(2)(a) of this rule;
(ii) Effective May 1, 1985 - thirty-seven per cent times the prima facie rate set forth in paragraph (E)(2)(a) of this rule;
(iii) Effective November 1, 1986 - forty per cent times the prima facie rate set forth in paragraph (E)(2)(a) of this rule.
(c) The credible loss ratio is computed as follows:
(i) Case size and credibility
Credibility of experience depends upon the case size. Case size is measured according to three premium size brackets to reflect the greater credibility of experience resulting from greater size. The premiums in the brackets are the premiums based on the prima facie premium rate standard. The size brackets are:
| Case size | Earned premium | | --- | --- | | 1 | $ 50,000 - 200,000 | | 2 | 200,000 - 500,000 | | 3 | 500,000 - and over |
(ii) Credible experience period
The credible experience period is three years if the case aggregate earned premium based on the prima facie rate, developed during the most recent three-year period is less than five hundred thousand dollars. If the case aggregate earned premium during the most recent three-year period based on the prima facie rate is equal to or greater than five hundred thousand dollars then the credible experience period is the most recent number of years needed to accumulate five hundred thousand dollars of premium on the prima facie rate. For example, if a case were of sufficient size to generate at least five hundred thousand dollars in one year, the credible experience period would be one year.
(iii) Credible loss ratio
The credible loss ratio is based on the experience of the credible experience period. It is a composite of the case's actual loss ratio (ALR) during the credible experience period and the basic loss ratio (BLR) contemplated by the prima facie rate standards which is sixty per cent for credit accident and health insurance.
The actual loss ratio is the ratio of the incurred claims of the credible experience period divided by the earned premium based on the prima facie rate during the credible experience period.
The compositing of the actual and basic loss ratios takes account of fluctuations about expected experience, and dampens the effect of non-credible fluctuations. The factors used in compositing the loss ratios depend upon case size in accordance with the three size brackets in paragraph (E)(7)(c)(i) of this rule, as follows:
| Case size | Credible loss ratio | | --- | --- | | 1 | 50% of ALR plus 50% of BLR | | 2 | 75% of ALR plus 25% of BLR | | 3 | 100% of ALR plus 0% of BLR |
(8) Required downward rate deviations
After November 1, 1986, any insurer which produces, for a case or class of business, as determined by the insurer, a credible loss ratio of less than fifty per cent for life and sixty per cent for accident and health, is required to make appropriate rate reductions or show cause why its premium rates for such case or class of business should not be reduced. When the rate for any case is required to be reduced, such reduction is to continue whether the case remains with the insurer or is transferred to another insurer, until the loss experience demonstrates that the reduction is no longer appropriate.
(9) Cases with no identifiable charge
Where no debtor of a case is paying directly or indirectly any part of the premium, the case rates are such reasonable rates as are approved by the superintendent.
(10) Approved rates
No insurer, commencing with the policy anniversary date on or after the effective date of this rule, is to charge a premium rate for credit life or credit health and accident insurance insuring a debtor under an existing group policy of credit life or accident and health insurance at a rate greater than that approved for the insurer under this rule, or a premium rate under a group policy of credit life or credit accident and health insurance for any renewal year greater than the rate approved pursuant to this rule.
(11) Time limit on deviations
Premium rate deviations as outlined in paragraph (E)(6) of this rule may be utilized for a period of time not to exceed the credible experience period or two years, whichever is less.
All rates in excess of those outlined in this rule are withdrawn as of the effective date of this rule except that any rate provided under a policy of group credit life insurance or group credit accident and health insurance heretofore approved by the department of insurance in excess of those prescribed herein may be continued until the first anniversary date of such group policy after the effective date of this rule. Such rate may be thereafter continued only if an application for increase in premium rates is approved with respect thereto.
(12) Charges for credit insurance
It will be considered that the debtor is charged a specific amount for insurance if, among other things:
(a) An identifiable amount for insurance is disclosed in the credit or other instrument furnished the debtor which sets out the financial elements of the credit transaction, or
(b) There is a differential in finance, interest, service or other similar charge rates charged to debtors who, except for their insurance status (insured vs. non-insured), are in like circumstances.
(F) Termination of coverage and refunds
(1) If a debtor is covered by a group credit insurance policy providing for the payment of single premiums to the insurer, then provision is to be made by the insurer that in the event of termination of the master policy for any reason, insurance coverage with respect to any debtor insured under such master policy shall be continued for the entire period for which the single premium has been paid, subject to the debtor's right to cancel the insurance at any time by express action.
(2) If a debtor is covered by a group credit insurance policy providing for payment of premiums to the insurer on a monthly outstanding balance basis, then the group policy is to provide that, in the event of termination of the policy for whatever reason, the insured debtor is to be notified that coverage will continue for thirty days from the date of notice, except where replacement of the coverage by the same or another insurer in the same or greater amount takes place without lapse of coverage. The notice required in this paragraph is to be given by the insurer or, at the option of the insurer, by the creditor.
(3) Refunds.
(a) Section 3918.08 of the Revised Code requires refund formulas to be filed and approved by the superintendent. This requirement will be considered satisfied if the refund formula to be applied by the insurer is set forth in either the policy if the coverage is written on an individual policy basis, or the certificate if the coverage is written on a group basis pursuant to a master policy; provided further that such forms of policies and certificates have not been disapproved by the superintendent. In the event that the refund formula to be used is the "sum of digits" also commonly known as the "rule of 78" it will be sufficient to state either descriptive name without further explanation in the provisions of the policy or certificate.
(b) The refund of premiums in case of reducing term credit life insurance or credit health and accident insurance on which premiums are payable other than by a single premium and of level-term credit life insurance is to be equal to the pro rata unearned gross premium, and in the case of reducing term credit life insurance paid by a single premium and of credit accident and health insurance is to be equal to the amount computed by the "sum of digits" formula commonly known as the "rule of 78."
(c) The refund of the amount charged to or collected from the debtor for insurance in the case of reducing term credit life insurance or credit accident and health insurance where said amount, if payable other than in a single sum and of level-term credit life insurance, is to be equal to the pro rata unearned gross amount to be collected, and in the case of reducing term credit life insurance where the whole amount thereof is charged to or collected from the debtor in a single sum and of credit accident and health insurance shall be equal to the amount computed by the "sum of digits" formula commonly known as the "rule of 78."
(d) Notwithstanding paragraph (F)(3)(a), (F)(3)(b), or (F)(3)(c) of this rule, the refund of premiums for credit accident and health insurance where the premiums are payable in a single sum, and for credit life insurance where the premiums are payable in a single sum and the amount of life insurance does not exceed the net indebtedness, is to be equal to the single premium that would be charged for the remaining term of the debt for the balance outstanding at the date of refund. This formula is commonly known as the "rule of anticipation."
(e) No refund or credit need be made if the amount is less than one dollar.
(f) In the event of termination, no charge for coverage may be made for the first fifteen days of a loan month, and a full month may be charged for sixteen days or more of a loan month.
(G) Maintenance of statistics
(1) Each insurer writing credit life insurance and credit accident and health insurance is to maintain statistics, on a policy-year basis for group policies, and on a calendar-year basis for individual policies with respect to each plan or type of coverage showing, on an accrual basis, separately for credit life insurance and separately for direct business and reinsurance assumed with respect to the following:
(a) Gross premiums received.
(b) Refunds of premiums on terminated insurance.
(c) Increase in unearned premium reserve.
(d) Earned premiums.
(e) Claims paid.
(f) Increase in claim reserve.
(g) Claims incurred.
(h) Reserve increases other than set forth in paragraphs (G)(1)(c) and (G)(1)(f) of this rule.
(i) Commissions.
(j) Fees and other allowances.
(k) Dividends and experience rating refunds.
(l) Mean amount of life insurance in force.
(m) Mean number of individual policies and certificates in force during the calendar year.
(2) With respect to credit accident and health insurance, each insurer is to keep a record for each plan or type of coverage which, in addition to the above statistics, shows the nature of the benefits payable, the applicable waiting period, and the rate at which premiums are charged therefor.
(3) Credit insurance data and statistics are to be submitted from time to time as requested by the superintendent of insurance.
(H) Responsibility of insurers with respect to creditors
(1) Each insurer transacting credit insurance is responsible to conduct a thorough review of each creditor with respect to the first year of business with such creditor. The insurer thereafter is to conduct such reviews as reasonably may be necessary to assure compliance with applicable statutes and rules.
(2) Such reviews are to include, but not by way of limitation, verification that:
(a) Premiums and charges to debtors are properly calculated and transmitted to the insurer, based on rates permitted under statutes and the superintendent's rules and on the amounts of indebtedness actually insured; and
(b) Claims are refunds are properly calculated and paid;
(c) Disclosure forms are distributed before the debtor becomes obligated to purchase insurance.
(3) An insurer's responsibilities are not discharged or avoided by the delegation of premium collection or refund calculation or check or draft drawing, and the actions of such delegatee will be considered as the acts of the insurer.
The insurer is to maintain records of such reviews for three years, and such records will be subject to call and review by the superintendent at his discretion.
(I) Reserve basis
(1) Life
(a) For credit insurance written prior to January 1, 2009, in the state of Ohio, all insurers will be required to maintain reserves not less than 1958 "CET Table of Mortality" at four and one-half per cent interest.
(b) For credit insurance written on or after January 1, 2009, in the state of Ohio, all insurers will be required to maintain reserves not less than "2001 Male Composite Ultimate CSO Mortality" at the maximum valuation interest rate for life insurance as defined in section 3903.721 of the Revised Code.
(c) When the credit life insurance policy or certificate insures two lives, the minimum standard is to be twice the mortality in the "2001 CSO Male Composite Ultimate Mortality" table based on the age of the older insured.
(d) In addition to the mortality reserve, the extra liability for refunds is to be established and maintained as part of the total reserve. Any reserve basis which in the aggregate equals or produces a greater reserve not less than this basis will be acceptable to the superintendent. Also, proper rate credit and similar reserves approved by the superintendent are to be carried by the companies on such risks.
(2) Accident and health
(a) For credit insurance written prior to January 1, 2009, the reserve must not be less than a reserve based on the 1964 "Commissioner's disability table" at three per cent annual interest. However, should an insurer, after establishing a credit disability reserve on the 1964 "Commissioner's disability table", develop a disability reserve for such disability policies that is less than the premium that would have been charged for the remaining benefits for the balance of the term, then an additional reserve must be established so that such aggregate total is not less than the premium that would have been charged for the remaining benefits for the balance of the term, for such disability policies. The mean of the gross unearned premiums calculated on a "rule of 78" and a pro rata basis is deemed to meet the requirements of this provision.
(b) For credit insurance written on or after January 1, 2009, the reserve must not be less than a reserve based on the morbidity assumption as described in paragraph (I)(2)(c) of this rule at the maximum valuation interest rate for ordinary life insurance as defined in section 3903.721 of the Revised Code. However, should an insurer, after establishing a credit disability reserve on the 1985 "CIDA Table", develop a disability reserve for such disability policies that is less than the premium that would have been charged for the remaining benefits for the balance of the term, then an additional reserve must be established so that such aggregate total is not less than the premium that would have been charged for the remaining benefits for the balance of the term, for such disability policies. The mean of the gross unearned premiums calculated on the "rule of 78" and a pro rata basis is deemed to meet the requirements of this provision.
(c) The morbidity assumption for use in determining the minimum standard for valuation of single premium credit disability insurance contract reserves are:
(i) For plans having fewer than a fifteen day elimination period, the "1985 Commissioners Individual Disability Table A" (85CIDA) with claim incidence rates increased by twelve per cent; or
(ii) For plans having greater than a fourteen day elimination period, the 85CIDA for a fourteen-day elimination period with claim incidence rates increased by twelve per cent.
(J) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
View Appendix
Last updated November 16, 2023 at 8:29 AM
History
- Effective: November 16, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-1-18 Ohio fair plan - plan of operation.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is for adoption by the superintendent of a plan of operation submitted by the board of governors of the "Ohio Fair Plan Underwriting Association". The plan of operation has been formulated for the purpose of making basic property and homeowners' insurance coverage, as identified in section 3929.42 of the Revised Code, available for qualified property owned by persons who have been unable to secure such insurance in the normal insurance market.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under section 3901.041 of the Revised Code. This plan of operation is adopted pursuant to section 3929.43 of the Revised Code and implements sections 3929.41 to 3929.49 of the Revised Code.
(C) Definitions
(1) "Association" means the "Ohio Fair Plan Underwriting Association" created under section 3929.43 of the Revised Code.
(2) "Basic property insurance" means insurance against direct loss to property as defined and limited in standard fire policies and extended coverage endorsements thereon, as approved by the superintendent, and insurance for such types, classes and locations of property against the perils of vandalism, malicious mischief, burglary, theft or liability, as the superintendent designates. The association is also authorized to provide insurance against the perils of burglary, robbery, and theft for properties. Basic property insurance does not include automobile insurance or insurance on manufacturing risks.
(3) "Environmental hazard" means any hazardous condition that might give rise to loss under an insurance contract, but which is beyond the control of the property owner.
(4) "Insurable risks" means property that meets the reasonable underwriting standards of the association.
(5) "Underwriting standards" means the underwriting standards for basic property insurance and homeowners' insurance which have been filed with the superintendent.
(6) "Homeowners' insurance" means insurance on owner-occupied dwellings providing personal multi-peril property and liability coverages, commonly known as homeowners' insurance, subject to underwriting standards, exclusions, deductibles, rates and conditions as are customarily used by member insurers for similar coverages.
(7) "Location" means real and personal property consisting of and contained in a single building or in contiguous buildings under one ownership.
(8) "Superintendent" means the superintendent of insurance of the state of Ohio.
(9) "Member insurer" means an insurer required to be a member of the association by section 3929.43 of the Revised Code.
(10) "Licensed agent" means any person licensed by the superintendent pursuant to section 3905.01 of the Revised Code.
(11) "Board" means the board of governors of the association authorized pursuant to section 3929.43 of the Revised Code.
(12) "Applicant" means any person applying for insurance from the association.
(D) Notice of cancellation by members
Member insurers shall provide written notice of cancellation or nonrenewal for any risk eligible for insurance through the association, (except for non-payment of premium, evidence of incendiarism, or misrepresentation) not less than thirty days prior to cancellation or nonrenewal. The notice shall explain to the insured the procedures for making application to the association. This thirty-day notice does not apply to binders of thirty days duration or less.
(E) Insurance agents
(1) Upon request, a licensed agent shall assist any owner of property in completing an application for insurance with the association.
(2) No licensed agent, although licensed to represent one or more member insurers of the association, shall hold themselves out as an agent of the association or have any authority to bind any risk for the association.
(F) Maximum liability, limitations and special coverage
(1) The maximum limits of liability for real and personal property coverage contained within basic property insurance and homeowners' insurance per location through the association is two million dollars. The maximum limit of liability is the total aggregation of underlying coverage limits per location for the building and contents or dwelling and personal property.
(2) The association may require that vandalism and malicious mischief coverage be written in conjunction with extended coverage.
(3) The association is authorized to issue mine subsidence insurance coverage to its policyholders pursuant to sections 3929.50 to 3929.61 of the Revised Code and as provided for in the plan of operations of the "Mine Subsidence Insurance Underwriting Association."
(4) The association is not authorized to provide insurance coverage for automobiles or manufacturing risks.
(G) Inspections
(1) Any person having an insurable interest in real or tangible personal property, or both, at a fixed location in Ohio, who has been unable to obtain basic property insurance or homeowners' insurance, may apply for coverage to the association. The association may choose to inspect the property or obtain necessary underwriting information to assist in determining eligibility for fair plan coverage.
(2) All inspection reports shall be in writing.
(3) If an interior inspection is requested by the association:
(a) The inspector or inspection company shall contact the applicant and arrange for the applicant or the person designated by the applicant to be present during the inspection. The inspector shall not recommend correction of physical deficiencies or advise the applicant whether the association will provide coverage. The inspection report shall provide information necessary for underwriting but shall not refer to environmental hazards.
(b) The inspection report shall contain information describing the occupancy, physical deficiencies, and other observations of the risk.
(4) The association shall indicate to the applicant any condition charges which have been applied by the association.
(5) After an inspection report has been completed, a copy of the completed inspection report is sent to the association within ten business days.
(6) The association shall, within ten business days after receipt of the inspection report, or necessary underwriting information, advise the applicant and the licensed agent in writing that:
(a) The risk is acceptable, and if condition charges have been imposed, the improvements necessary to remove the condition charges; or
(b) The risk will be acceptable if the improvements noted are made by the applicant; or
(c) The risk is not acceptable for the reasons stated.
(7) The association shall not refuse to insure any risk because of an environmental hazard.
(8) The association may, for cause upon information or well-founded belief without notice to the insured at any time during the policy term, cause a property insured by it to be inspected for the purpose of determining whether the property meets the association's underwriting standards. Reinspections may also be made upon material change, or upon a reasonable periodic schedule. The association may refuse to renew or may cancel a policy in accordance with its terms and this plan of operation. Any person aggrieved by such decision may appeal, in accordance with paragraph (J) of this rule. The association need not afford an insured the opportunity to be present during a reinspection nor furnish the insured with a copy of a reinspection report unless a copy of the reinspection report is requested.
(9) If a property is in violation of any building, housing, air pollution, sanitation, health, fire or safety code, ordinance or rule, or if an applicant otherwise has received written notice of any violation of such a code, ordinance of rule, the applicant shall also submit to the association a detailed plan that indicates the manner and estimated period of time in which violation will be corrected. If the association is satisfied that the violations are subject to correction within a reasonable period of time and that the applicant otherwise meets the requirements of section 3929.44 of the Revised Code, it may issue a policy or binder to the applicant on the condition that the plan be implemented and completed on schedule and that the property may be reinspected.
(H) Application and issuance of policy
(1) Every policy written by the association shall include an additional policy condition representing that:
(a) At least two insurance companies authorized to do business in Ohio have declined to grant the coverage requested in the application; and
(b) There are no outstanding taxes, assessments, penalties or charges with respect to the property to be insured; and
(c) The applicant has not received written notice from an authorized public entity stating that their property is in violation of any building, housing, air pollution, sanitation, health, fire or safety code, ordinance or rule.
(2) If the property is in violation of any such code, ordinance or rule, and if the applicant has received such written notice of any such violation, the applicant will submit to the association a detailed plan that indicates the manner and estimated period of time in which such violations will be corrected. If the association is satisfied that the violations are subject to correction within a reasonable period of time and that the applicant otherwise meets the requirements of section 3929.44 of the Revised Code, it may cause a policy or binder of basic property insurance to be issued to the applicant on the condition that the plan be implemented on schedule and that the property may be reinspected.
(3) The association is under no obligation to issue basic property insurance or homeowners insurance to any person, unless that person and his or her property would constitute an insurable risk in accordance with reasonable underwriting standards. The association, in determining whether the property is insurable, shall give no consideration to the condition of surrounding property or properties, where such condition is not within the control of the applicant.
(4) If a risk is accepted by the association, it will deliver a policy or binder to the applicant and if applicable, the licensed insurance agent, upon payment of the premium to the association. The association shall pay the authorized commission to the licensed agent as designated by the applicant. The association shall not pay commission to a nonresident agent. The association may pay commission to a licensed nonresident business entity agent for assistance provided by an individual resident agent affiliated with that nonresident business entity agent.
(5) The association, upon receipt of the applicable premium from the applicant, shall issue the policy to be effective the day following receipt of the premium unless a future effective date is requested by the applicant. The policy shall be issued in the name of the association as provided in section 3929.481 of the Revised Code.
(6) The policy shall be issued for a term of one year.
(7) If the property is found to be an insurable risk but there are one or more unsatisfactory conditions, a deficiency notice detailing needed corrections will be sent to applicant or, if applicable, charges will be imposed in conformity with the rating plans on file with the superintendent. If the unsatisfactory conditions are corrected, and such corrections are verified, the charges shall be revised.
(8) If the association determines that the property is not an acceptable risk, the association shall, within ten days, send the applicant a written statement setting forth in reasonable detail the features of the property or conditions which prevent it from constituting an acceptable risk and the corrections to be made in order to make the property an acceptable risk.
(9) Documentation detailing completion of the required corrections by the applicant, shall be submitted to the association, within an acceptable time frame. The association may inspect, if necessary to determine eligibility.
(I) Binders
(1) Each application shall clearly indicate the availability of a binder to an applicant.
(2) A binder shall be issued to the applicant upon payment to the association of the minimum binder deposit premium and provided the application indicates that the risk preliminarily meets the association's underwriting standards. The earliest a binder can be effective is at one minute after twelve a.m. the day following receipt of the premium and completed application by the association.
(3) If the association is unable to obtain the necessary underwriting information from the applicant, the association may decline to offer coverage until such time as the applicant can provide or assist in obtaining the information.
(4) The binder shall remain in effect until the risk is accepted by the association or until cancelled and the reasons for cancellation given to the applicant.
(5) Binders may only be issued for a definite period, not to exceed one year.
(6)
(a) If an insurance policy is to be issued, the policy will commence on the effective date of the binder. Policies so issued are not subject to flat cancellation.
(b) If an insurance policy will not be issued, the full earned premium will be charged subject to the rules governing cancellation of policies.
(c) A binder shall be void upon the acceptance of a risk by the association and the payment of premium or upon the cancellation of a risk and notice of reasons for the cancellation given to the applicant.
(7)
(a) The association cannot cancel a policy or binder issued by it, except:
(i) For cause, which would have been grounds for nonacceptance of the risk had such cause been known to the association at the time of acceptance; or
(ii) For nonpayment; or
(iii) At the request of an insured.
(b) Notice of cancellation, together with the reasons therefore, shall be sent to the insured.
(c) Any cancellation notice to an insured shall be accompanied by a statement that the insured has a right to appeal as provided in paragraph (J) of this rule.
(8) If a property meets the underwriting requirements, the association will compute the actual annual premium from rates approved by the superintendent of insurance pursuant to Chapter 3935. or accepted pursuant to Chapter 3937. of the Revised Code. A return premium will be forwarded to the applicant if the provisional binder premium exceeds the actual annual premium. The association may only request additional premium if the actual annual premium exceeds the estimated provisional binder premium.
(9) If a property does not meet the underwriting requirements, the association will cancel the binder on a pro rata basis. If an applicant requests cancellation of a binder, the association may only cancel in accordance with cancellation provisions of the coverage forms approved by the superintendent.
(J) Right to appeal
(1) Any applicant or insured shall have the right to appeal any action or decision of the association to the board of the association. Such appeal to the board must be made in writing within thirty days after receipt of notice of the action or decision of the association. Within forty-five days from receipt of an appeal, the board, upon no less than ten days notice to the insured, shall hold a hearing on the appeal. For good cause shown, by the insured or the association, the hearing may be continued for not more than sixty days. The board shall render its decision on the appeal and notify the applicant or insured of its decision no later than ten days after the hearing. Each denial of insurance to an applicant shall be accompanied by a statement to the applicant and the licensed agent that the applicant has the right to appeal.
(2) Any applicant, insured, or member insurer shall have the right to appeal to the superintendent any action or decision of the board. An appeal shall be made within thirty days of the board's action or decision. The decision of the superintendent of an appeal is a final order and is subject to judicial review as provided in Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.
(K) Indemnification
Each member of any association committee, each association officer, employee, or member insurer, and each member of the board shall be indemnified against liability incurred in connection with the affairs of the association. The conditions and limits of such indemnification are provided in "Article IX of the Constitution," "Articles of Agreement" and "Bylaws of the Association."
(L) Fidelity coverage
The association shall obtain fidelity coverage to reimburse the association for any pecuniary loss it may sustain by any act or acts of fraud or dishonesty on the part of members of the board, association officers or employees in the discharge of their duties.
(M) Board of governors
(1) The association shall be governed by a board.
(2) The board shall meet as often as may be required to perform the general duties of administration of the association or on the call of the superintendent. Seven members of the board constitutes a quorum.
(3) The board shall appoint a general manager as administrator who serves at the pleasure of the board and perform such duties as the board designates.
(4) The board may promulgate guidelines consistent with state law and the plan of operation to govern such internal operations as investments, personnel, underwriting standards and claims practices. The guidelines shall be in writing and filed with the superintendent.
(5) The board shall undertake a public education program to assure that the services of the association receive adequate public attention. In accordance with division (I) of section 3929.43 of the Revised Code, the board shall adopt a written program for decreasing the overall utilization of the association as a source of insurance.
(N) Standing committees
The board may appoint committees as it deems necessary to carry out the purpose and operations of the association.
(O) Relationship with member insurers
(1) The association shall operate as a joint underwriting association insuring one hundred per cent of the risk on behalf of its member insurers. It may cede or purchase reinsurance in the name of the association or on behalf of member insurers on eligible risks written through the association.
(2) Each member insurer participates in the writings, expenses, assessments, profits and losses of the association in the same proportion as a member insurer's premiums written bear to the aggregate premiums written by all member insurers as determined by the board.
(3) There shall be an annual meeting of the association and its member insurers at a time and place fixed by the superintendent. Representatives of member insurers on the board serve for a period of one year or until successors are elected or designated.
(4) A special meeting may be called at such time and place designated by the superintendent or upon the written request to the superintendent.
(5) Twenty days notice of an annual or special meeting shall be given in writing by the board to member insurers. A majority of member insurers present at a meeting constitutes a quorum. Voting by proxy is permitted. Notice of any meeting will be accompanied by an agenda for the meeting.
(6) Any matter may be proposed and voted upon by regular mail, email or other electronic means provided such procedure is unanimously authorized by the members of the board present and voting at any meeting of the board. If so approved by the board, notice of any proposal will be sent to member insurers not less than twenty days prior to the final date fixed by the board for voting thereon.
(7) At any regular or special meeting at which the vote of member insurers is or may be required on any proposal, or any vote of member insurers which may be taken by regular mail, email or other electronic means on any proposal, votes will be cast and counted on a weighted basis in accordance with each member insurer's respective habitational or commercial premiums written, as the case may be.
(P) Member insolvency
(1) In the event any member insurer fails to pay the assessment for its proportionate part of any loss or expense because the member insurer is insolvent, and the board determines that the assessment cannot be collected within a reasonable period of time, the unpaid assessment shall be paid by the remaining member insurers, each contributing in the manner provided by division (E) of section 3929.43 of the Revised Code, but without regard to the premium writings of the insolvent member insurer. The insolvent member insurer shall remain liable to the association for the full amount of the assessment and any collection made by the association against the assessment shall be credited and paid back to the other member insurers in the same proportions that have been utilized in calculating each member insurer's contribution toward the unpaid assessment.
(2) No refund which would otherwise be paid under the plan of operation shall be paid to a member when its membership has been terminated, or to the liquidator, receiver, conservator, or statutory successor of a member insurer until the assessment of the member insurer has been paid. A refund shall be applied as a set-off against an assessment. Any balance remaining shall be paid to the member insurer or to the liquidator, receiver, conservator, or statutory successor of the member insurer.
(Q) Advance assessments and recoupments
(1) At such times as may be determined by the board and approved by the superintendent, the board shall establish an annual rate of assessment needed to cover any deficit arising out of the operation of the association. The rate of assessment shall be based upon a reasonable estimate of a deficit expected to occur. The association may levy advance assessments at that rate against member insurers, payable in periodic installments, subject to approval by the superintendent.
(2) The board may at any time levy an assessment against member insurers to provide necessary operating funds.
(3) Each member insurer may recoup assessments levied against it by adjusting its premiums for basic property insurance and homeowner's insurance by the addition of a rating factor computed periodically by the board and approved by the superintendent. The board shall notify all member insurers of the amount of the rating factor and any changes to it.
(4) Any member insurer implementing a change in rates pursuant to division (D)(2) of section 3929.43 of the Revised Code, shall file the change with the superintendent. The change shall not increase rates more than the amount authorized by the association and approved by the superintendent pursuant to the plan.
(R) Reinsurance
No reinsurance plan or proposal of the association shall be implemented prior to being filed with the superintendent.
(S) Statistics
(1) Every insurance policy issued by the association shall be separately coded for statistical purposes.
(2) The association shall comply with any reporting requirements of the superintendent in respect of its underwriting operations and experience. The reports shall be made at least annually in such form and detail as may be required by the superintendent under section 3935.03 of the Revised Code.
(3) The association shall report its loss and expense experience to a statistical organization approved by the superintendent. Its loss and expense experience shall be reported in a form and according to a plan filed by the statistical organization with the superintendent.
(4) The association shall submit to the superintendent periodic reports concerning the number of risks inspected, the number of risks accepted, the number of risks conditionally accepted, the number of reinspections made and the number of risks declined.
(T) Distribution of associated funds
At least ten days prior to the distribution to its member insurers of any funds held by the association, notification shall be given to the superintendent.
(U) Filing of policies and other documents
All policies, endorsements, forms, manual rates or rating plans, minimum class rates, rating schedules, rating rules, and every modification of the same shall be those filed with the superintendent. The association may file special notice endorsements for review by the superintendent. In the event that the superintendent approves a rating factor under paragraph (Q)(3) of this rule, such increment shall be applicable to all policies issued by the association.
(V) Annual and quarterly financial statements
The association shall file annual and quarterly financial statements with the superintendent in the form prescribed by the superintendent. Annual financial statements shall be prepared and furnished to the superintendent on or before March first of the following year.
(W) Examination of books and records
The superintendent or any person designated by the superintendent may examine the operation of the association in accordance with section 3929.45 of the Revised Code. The expenses of the examination shall be paid by the association.
(X) Investments
The association invests its funds in accordance with section 3925.08 of the Revised Code.
(Y) General powers of superintendent
(1) The plan of operation and any amendment thereto shall be subject to the approval of the superintendent and adopted pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.
(2) The plan of operation shall be administered under the supervision of the superintendent.
(3) The association shall submit to the superintendent periodic reports as the superintendent deems necessary.
(Z) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated April 1, 2025 at 7:59 AM
History
- Effective: April 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-1-22 Risk modification plans.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to set forth the requirements of risk modification plans that are permitted for non-personal lines insurance to recognize variation in hazard and characteristics of risk.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under section 3901.041 of the Revised Code, which requires the superintendent to adopt, amend, and rescind rules and make adjudications necessary to discharge duties and exercise powers provided to the superintendent under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code, subject to sections 119.01 to 119.13 of the Revised Code. This rule is issued to implement sections 3935.03, 3935.04, 3937.02 and 3937.03 of the Revised Code.
(C) Definitions
(1) "Risk modification plan" (commonly called a schedule rating plan or an individual risk premium modification plan) means the application of judgment debits or credits to the otherwise applicable premium, which are based upon the individual risk's variation in hazard and characteristics of the risk otherwise not reflected.
(2) "Experience modification plan" means any rating plan or procedure, including a retrospective rating plan wherein a manual rate for insurance is modified based upon the past loss experience of the insured.
(3) "Expense modification plan" means any rating plan or procedure where the variation of the premium for a particular risk corresponds to the variation in the expenses of this particular risk from those contemplated in the manual rate for insurance.
(4) "Personal lines" means a policy of property and casualty insurance issued to a natural person primarily for personal or family protection, such as a personal automobile, homeowners, non-commercial dwelling fire or personal umbrella policy.
(D) Specifications
Every filing for a risk modification plan must contain satisfactory specifications of factors or elements to be applied. The risk modification plan shall not duplicate any factor or element already fully reflected in the basic premium or rates.
(E) Eligibility criteria
Every filing for a risk modification plan shall indicate any eligibility criteria, including, but not limited to, any minimum premium criteria that the insurer utilizes to determine if the risk modification plan should be applied to a particular risk. A risk modification plan must be applied to all eligible risks.
(F) Maximum debit and credit
A limit of twenty-five per cent maximum debit and credit shall be applied to the premium or rate based on the application of a risk modification plan. This limitation does not apply to any debit or credit applied to the premium or rate based on the application of an experience modification plan or an expense modification plan.
(G) Documentation
Each company shall obtain all information necessary to determine the proper application of the risk modification plan to any particular risk. Each company shall maintain adequate supporting information for inspection by the superintendent of insurance, upon request, for a period of not less than three years.
(H) Applicability
This rule is not applicable to any risk written by an insurer in accordance with divisions (F) and (G) of section 3935.04 of the Revised Code. This rule is not applicable for any risk written by an insurer in accordance with divisions (E), (F), and (G) of section 3937.03 of the Revised Code.
(I) Severability
If any paragraph, term or provision of this rule is adjudged invalid for any reason, the judgment shall not affect, impair or invalidate any other paragraph, term or provision of this rule, but the remaining paragraphs, terms or provisions shall be and continue in full force and effect.
Last updated November 17, 2022 at 8:52 AM
History
- Effective: November 17, 2022
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-1-23 Inland marine risks.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to define what constitutes an inland marine risk.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under section 3901.041 of the Revised Code.
(C) Inland marine risks
(1) Inland marine risks shall be established by the nation-wide inland marine definition, approved and recommended by the "National Association of Insurance Commissioners" on December 9, 1976.
(2) Any company wishing to deviate from the nation-wide inland marine definition shall make a formal filing and obtain approval of the superintendent of insurance before using such deviation.
(D) Severability
If any paragraph, term or provision of this rule is adjudged invalid for any reason, the judgment shall not affect, impair or invalidate any other paragraph, term or provision of this rule, but the remaining paragraphs, terms and provisions shall be and continue in full force and effect.
Last updated October 11, 2023 at 1:47 PM
History
- Effective: November 16, 2017
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-1-24 Public insurance adjusters.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to safeguard the interest of the public by regulating the conduct of public insurance adjusters.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under Chapter 3951. and section 3901.041 of the Revised Code.
(C) Prohibited activities
No public insurance adjuster or public insurance adjuster agent shall:
(1) Engage in any manner or degree, for compensation of any kind, in the business of repairing, remodeling, or replacing damaged or destroyed property, real or personal, which damage or destruction is covered by a policy of insurance; nor have any direct or indirect interest in, nor receive compensation of any kind from any person, firm, association, partnership, or corporation which is engaged in such business;
(2) Attempt in any manner to solicit a loss during the progress of a fire or while the fire department or any of its representatives are in any manner engaged at the damaged premises; nor in any way interfere with the performance of the duties of an investigator of the state fire marshal's office, an investigator of any fire department, or a law enforcement official of this state or of any political subdivision thereof;
(3) Give or offer to give to an insured or that person's representative any portion of the adjuster's fee or anticipated settlement of the claim for loss or damage as an inducement to secure a contract for the adjustment of a loss;
(4) Represent that public insurance adjuster to be an adjuster for or a representative of any insurance company, a fire investigator, or a person connected with any fire department or law enforcement agency;
(5) Compensate any person to act on that person's behalf in the solicitation, negotiation, or settlement of a claim unless such person is licensed as a public insurance adjuster or a public insurance adjuster agent;
(6) Make an inventory or estimate of loss or damage other than that which is fair and honest; and
(7) Own or acquire any direct or indirect financial interest in any property, real or personal, which is the subject of a loss adjusted by that public insurance adjuster; nor have any direct or indirect financial interest in the sale of any salvage of any property which is the subject of a loss adjusted by that public insurance adjuster.
(D) Records of adjuster
Every public insurance adjuster shall keep a full record of that perons's transactions as an adjuster for the previous three years and such records shall be open at all times to the inspection of the superintendent of insurance or the superintendent's representative. Such records shall show for each loss adjusted by the public insurance adjuster:
(1) The name of the insured;
(2) The date, location, and the public insurance adjuster's estimate of the amount of loss;
(3) The name of the insurer or insurers which issued any policy covering the loss which was the subject of the adjustment;
(4) The amount of coverage, the expiration date, and the number of each policy of insurance covering such loss;
(5) An itemized statement of all recoveries by the insured from all sources with regard to such loss;
(6) The names and addresses of any person or persons soliciting the adjustment on behalf of the public insurance adjuster and the date and time when solicited;
(7) The total compensation received by the public insurance adjuster for the adjustment of the loss;
(8) Copies of any agreements between the public insurance adjuster and the insured; and
(9) Names and addresses of all contractors who performed or contracted to perform work of any kind on the damaged or destroyed property prior to settlement of the claim.
(E) Contract requirements
(1) No public insurance adjuster shall use in that person's business as a public insurance adjuster a contract whereby an insured engages or employs the public insurance adjuster to perform the functions specified in division (A) of section 3951.01 of the Revised Code until thirty days after the form of such contract has been filed with the superintendent of insurance, unless within such time the superintendent gives the public insurance adjuster written approval for the use of such form. If the superintendent finds within such thirty-day period that the form filed contains any language which is prohibited by any law of this state, including any rule of the superintendent, or that it is inconsistent, ambiguous, misleading, deceptive, or likely to mislead an insured, the superintendent will give written notice of such finding to the public insurance adjuster who filed the form, and the public insurance adjuster shall thereafter not use such form.
(2) Every such contract must conspicuously set out the fee of the public insurance adjuster for the adjustment services to be rendered the insured pursuant to the contract.
(F) Restriction on insurers
(1) No insurer authorized to issue the types of insurance policies set forth in division (B) of section 3951.01 of the Revised Code shall:
(a) Recognize a public insurance adjuster as a party interested in the proceeds of any insurance settlements arising from such policies or negotiate an insurance settlement with a public insurance adjuster representing an insured unless such public insurance adjuster has been duly licensed as a public insurance adjuster by the department of insurance.
(b) Negotiate an insurance settlement with a representative of an insured, other than a licensed public insurance adjuster, unless such representative has been duly appointed as such by a court of law or is one of those persons enumerated in division (E) of section 3951.01 of the Revised Code.
(2) Each insurance company referred to in paragraph (F)(1) of this rule shall keep a record of each insurance loss and/or settlement wherein the insured was represented by a public insurance adjuster. Such record shall include a copy of the public insurance adjuster's certificate of authority.
(G) Suspension or revocation
The superintendent of insurance may suspend, revoke, or refuse to renew the license of a public insurance adjuster or public insurance adjuster agent found to be in violation of this rule. Such suspension, revocation, or refusal to renew shall be in addition to, not a substitution for, the penalties provided in section 3951.99 of the Revised Code.
(H) Severability
If any paragraph, term or provision of this rule is adjudged invalid for any reason, the judgment shall not affect, impair or invalidate any other paragraph, term or provision of this rule, but the remaining paragraphs, terms and provisions shall be and continue in full force and effect.
Last updated February 14, 2022 at 8:54 AM
History
- Effective: February 14, 2022
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-1-31 Group insurance regulations.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to provide for the writing of policies of group insurance, on a limited basis as hereinafter outlined, by an insurance company having a certificate of authority pursuant to the second paragraph of section 3941.02 of the Revised Code and to ensure that residents of Ohio are not precluded from having group insurance where advantageous tax attributes may be applicable.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under section 3901.041 of the Revised Code.
(C) Prohibitions
No insurance company shall issue any group policy with respect to any kind of insurance subject to either Chapter 3935. or 3937. of the Revised Code unless:
(1) It is a kind of insurance which, if issued to an employer, would permit the employer's contributions, if any, to be deductible by the employer and to be excluded from the gross income of the employees, their spouses, and dependents under the applicable provisions of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986; and
(2) It is a kind of insurance which the insurance company is authorized to transact pursuant to its certificate of authority.
(D) Eligible groups
Any kind of insurance which meets the requirements of paragraph (C) of this rule may be written by issuing a group policy to:
(1) Any employer; or
(2) Any association, including a labor union, which has a constitution and by-laws and which has been organized and is maintained in good faith for purposes other than that of obtaining insurance; or
(3) Any other substantially similar group which, in the discretion of the superintendent of insurance, may be subject to the issuance of a group policy.
Such group policy shall be for the benefit of the employees or members of the insured group, including their dependents or members of their immediate families if they are included in the coverage.
(E) Filings
Any filing made by an insurance company pertaining to a group policy authorized by this rule shall comply with and be subject to the provisions of either Chapter 3935. or 3937. of the Revised Code, whichever is applicable to the kind of insurance being written, and shall include an individual certificate, to be delivered to each employee or member of the insured group, setting forth in summary form a statement of the essential features of the insurance coverage of such employees or members, the insurance coverage of their dependents or members of their immediate families if they are included in the coverage, and to whom benefits thereunder are payable. Rates shall not be deemed to be unfairly discriminatory because different premiums result from differences in either or both loss exposures and expense factors, so long as the rates reflect the differences with reasonable accuracy.
(F) Agents
No person shall act as an insurance agent in the solicitation or issuance of a group policy authorized by this rule unless such person is duly licensed as an agent for that kind of insurance under the applicable sections of the Revised Code.
(G) Inland marine risks
This rule shall not be applicable to the writing of inland marine insurance.
(H) Severability
If any paragraph, term or provision of this rule is adjudged invalid for any reason, the judgment shall not affect, impair or invalidate any other paragraph, term or provision of this rule, but the remaining paragraphs, terms and provisions shall be and continue in full force and effect.
Last updated October 11, 2023 at 1:48 PM
History
- Effective: November 16, 2017
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-1-48 "Ohio mine subsidence insurance underwriting association" and "mine subsidence insurance fund" plan of operation.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to implement sections 3929.50 to 3929.53 and 3929.55 to 3929.56 and 3929.58 to 3929.61 of the Revised Code which:
(1) Establishes the "Ohio Mine Subsidence Underwriting Association,"
(2) Provides for the transfer of risk from member insurers to the association, and
(3) Creates the "Mine Subsidence Insurance Fund."
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under section 3901.041 of the Revised Code.
(C) Definitions
(1) "Basic property insurance" means insurance against direct loss to property as defined and limited in dwelling fire, homeowners, and farm policies and extended coverage endorsements thereon, and insurance for such types, classes and locations of property against the perils of vandalism, malicious mischief, burglary or theft, as the superintendent of insurance shall designate.
(2) "Board" means the four-member board of governors, empowered by division (C) of section 3929.51 of the Revised Code to govern the "Ohio Mine Subsidence Insurance Underwriting Association" and the "Ohio Mine Subsidence Insurance Fund."
(3) "Homeowners insurance" means insurance on owner-occupied dwellings providing personal multi-peril property and liability coverages, commonly known as "homeowners insurance."
(4) "Farm insurance" means insurance providing property coverage on farm dwelling buildings.
(5) "Dwelling fire insurance" means a policy providing property coverage on residential buildings for the perils of fire and lightning and additional coverages.
(6) "Member" means all insurers authorized to write and engaged in writing within the state, on a direct basis, basic property insurance or any component thereof in multi-peril and policies.
(7) "Mine subsidence" means loss caused by the collapse or lateral or vertical movement of structures resulting from the caving in of underground mines, including coal mines, clay mines, limestone mines, and salt mines. Mine subsidence does not include loss caused by earthquakes, landslide, volcanic eruption, or collapse of strip mines, storm and sewer drains or rapid transit tunnels.
(8) "Mine subsidence coverage" means the limits and type of coverage as defined by the mine subsidence insurance governing board in the coverage form and approved by the superintendent.
(9) "Mine Subsidence Insurance Underwriting Association," hereinafter referred to as "association" means the association of members formed pursuant to section 3929.51 of the Revised Code.
(10) "Mine Subsidence Insurance Fund," hereinafter referred to as "fund," means the fund formed pursuant to section 3929.52 of the Revised Code which is administered by the board for the purpose of making available insurance coverage against mine subsidence. The state treasurer is the custodian of the fund.
(11) "Plan of operation," hereinafter referred to as "plan," means the plan of operation approved by the superintendent for the economical, fair and nondiscriminatory administration of the requirements identified in sections 3929.50 to 3929.53 and 3929.55 to 3929.56 and 3929.58 to 3929.61 of the Revised Code.
(12) "Strip mines" means any surface mine.
(13) "Structure" means any one to four-family dwelling as defined and limited in dwelling fire, homeowners, and farm policies and other structures as described, defined, or limited in the mine subsidence insurance form.
(14) "Superintendent" means the superintendent of insurance of the state of Ohio.
(15) "Treasurer" means the treasurer of the state of Ohio.
(16) "Auditor" means the auditor of the state of Ohio.
(D) Board of governors
(1) The association and fund shall be administered by the board consisting of the director of natural resources or the director's designee, as chairperson, the treasurer of the state or the treasurer of state's designee, and one representative from member companies. The representative from the member companies shall be an Ohio-domiciled member of the association.
(2) The board shall approve all actions of the association, have the responsibility of administering the association and fund.
(3) The board shall meet as often as is required to perform the duties of administration, and shall meet upon the request of any single member of the board. In no event shall the board meet less than two times per year.
(E) Meeting of members
(1) Members shall elect their authorized representative every three years. The member company representative elected to the board shall be an Ohio-domiciled company.
(2) The members may hold meetings as needed and during any such meeting, a quorum shall consist of a simple majority of members present.
(3) Each member shall be entitled to one vote. Members in the same group of insurers shall be entitled to one vote only.
(F) Liability
Every policy of mine subsidence insurance written hereunder shall provide that such policy does not create any liability on the part of the member issuing such policy, the association, or any organization with which it may contract for administrative or claims services, beyond the net premium on such policies paid into the fund. Such policies shall create no liability beyond the amounts in the fund, on the part of the state of Ohio, the "Ohio Insurance Guaranty Association" and its member companies or any other person or organization.
(G) Notice of availability of mine subsidence insurance
(1) Every insurer that offers basic property and homeowners insurance insuring on a direct basis a structure located in the counties of Athens, Belmont, Carroll, Columbiana, Coshocton, Gallia, Guernsey, Harrison, Hocking, Holmes, Jackson, Jefferson, Lawrence, Mahoning, Meigs, Monroe, Morgan, Muskingum, Noble, Perry, Scioto, Stark, Trumbull, Tuscarawas, Vinton and Washington shall include mine subsidence coverage provided by the Ohio mine subsidence insurance underwriting association in each policy of basic property and homeowners insurance that is delivered, issued for delivery or renewed in any of such counties.
(2) The mine subsidence insurance governing board herein designates Delaware, Erie, Geauga, Lake, Licking, Medina, Ottawa, Portage, Preble, Summit and Wayne counties as counties in which mine subsidence coverage must be offered, on an optional basis, by an insurer.
(a) Every insurer that offers basic property and homeowners insurance insuring on a direct basis to a structure located in any county designated in paragraph (G)(2) of this rule shall offer to include, on an optional basis, mine subsidence coverage provided by the association in each policy of basic property insurance that is delivered, issued for delivery, or renewed in any such designated county.
(b) This offer shall contain language and be in a form approved by the superintendent which includes a description of mine subsidence coverage, a statement that the purchase of the coverage is optional, and the premium charged for the coverage.
(H) Application for coverage
A member insurer who receives a request from a named insured or applicant for mine subsidence shall forward to that named insured or applicant an application for mine subsidence coverage. Such application may be included, at the insurer's option, with the offer described in paragraph (G)(2)(a) of this rule. The form of the application shall be approved by the superintendent.
(I) Administration and claims processing
The board may retain a contractor to provide administrative and claims processing. When a contractor is retained, the board may from time to time review:
(1) The performance of the contractor;
(2) The procedures and standards used by the contractor for administration and claims processing; and
(3) The application of those procedures and standards to applicants for insurance and to claims of insureds.
(J) Underwriting
(1) Mine subsidence coverage will be available on eligible property. Eligible property must be:
(a) A structure as defined in this rule;
(b) Covered by a valid basic property or homeowners insurance policy.
(2) The member may refuse to provide mine subsidence coverage on an otherwise eligible property where:
(a) The structure evidences un-repaired subsidence damage; or
(b) The structure evidences any mine subsidence damage in progress.
(3) The limit of liability for direct loss caused by mine subsidence under this plan of operation shall not exceed an amount equal to the coverage on the dwelling provided by a basic property or homeowners policy, or three hundred thousand dollars, whichever is less, and shall not exceed the amount expressed in the mine subsidence coverage form as approved by the mine subsidence insurance governing board and approved by the superintendent of insurance.
(4) All coverage provided pursuant to this plan of operation is subject to a deductible as expressed in the mine subsidence coverage form as approved by the mine subsidence insurance governing board and approved by the superintendent of insurance, but at no time shall the deductible be less than two hundred fifty dollars, or more than five hundred dollars.
(K) Rates and forms
(1) Rates. The board shall periodically review the premium level and experience data and recommend to the superintendent a rate or schedule of rates sufficient to satisfy:
(a) All foreseeable claims;
(b) Normal cost of operation; and
(c) A reserve for unexpected contingencies.
However, the premium level for mine subsidence coverage in a county designated for optional coverage shall not exceed an annual rate that is greater than twenty dollars. The premium level for mine subsidence coverage in a county as designated in paragraph (G)(1) of this rule shall not exceed an annual rate that is greater than five dollars.
(2) Forms. The policy forms and language shall be approved by the superintendent.
(L) Audits
The auditor shall audit the affairs of the fund in accordance with section 3929.55 of the Revised Code at least once each year. The auditor shall ascertain the expenses incurred in making any such audit and shall certify the amount to the board for payment from the fund.
(M) Reporting and statistics
(1) Claim reports. Members shall, upon receipt of notice of claims from policyholder(s), confirm coverage and provide formal notice of claim to the association.
(2) Financial reports:
(a) The fiscal period shall be the calendar year.
(b) Members reports are required quarterly and shall be due on the forty-fifth day following the close of the quarter.
(c) Members' reports shall be in forms approved by the board and shall include, at minimum:
(i) Gross written premium on a per county basis.
(ii) Premium cancelled/returned on a per county basis.
(iii) Ceding commission withheld (for optional counties only).
(d) Members reports shall be accompanied by the appropriate remittance which shall be full premium collected for mine subsidence coverage in the counties denoted in paragraph (G)(1) of this rule and the net premium (gross premium written, less ceding commission) in the counties denoted in paragraph (G)(2) of this rule less any cancellation/returns. In the event a balance is due to the insurer, that balance shall be carried forward as a credit against future written premiums. An insurer may apply for a refund only if it ceases to issue basic property or homeowner insurance coverage.
(e) Members shall report and pay premium taxes as required.
(f) The association shall review, verify and reconcile members' reports and research, and rectify any inconsistencies.
(g) The association shall remit receipts to the fund, said remittance to be supported by a summary report of premium written, cancelled/non-renewed, net premium written and commission taken.
(3) Statistical reports. Members shall compile and file, on a quarterly basis with the financial reports, a summary report of statistics in a form approved by the board. Such reports shall, at minimum, contain:
(a) Quarter and year-to-date policy count by county and in total;
(b) Quarter and year-to-date premium written by county.
(N) "Mine Subsidence Insurance Fund"
The fund shall receive all revenues, appropriations and investment earnings pursuant to this plan of operation. Premiums collected will be considered program income in accordance with the uniform administrative requirements for grants to state and local governments and be used:
(1) To enable the fund to be self-sustaining, with the fund invested by the treasurer of state under guidelines established by the board;
(2) To provide a reserve for payment of claims for verified claims from all types of mine subsidence, including non-coal mining, post-1977 underground mines and active underground mines;
(O) Investment of custodial funds
With the approval of the board, the treasurer of state may invest any monies in the fund that are in excess of the amounts required to meet the immediate cash needs and operating expenses of the fund. The board shall not provide guidelines for the investment of excess funds that are broader or more liberal than the investment provisions for property casualty insurance companies set forth in Chapter 3925. of the Revised Code.
(P) Reinsurance agreement
(1) Every insurer authorized and engaged in writing on a direct basis any property coverages in the state of Ohio shall execute a reinsurance agreement with the association. The form of the reinsurance agreement shall be in a form approved by the board.
(2) An insurer may request exemption from the requirements of paragraph (P) of this rule by filing the exemption form with the superintendent. The exemption shall be effective after review and approved by the superintendent of insurance.
(3) Any insurer who has received an exemption shall notify the association of any change in any circumstances that would be reason to revoke the exemption.
(Q) Effective date of the plan
This plan of operation shall be effective upon the effective date of this rule.
(R) Amendments
Amendments to the plan may be requested by the board or superintendent of insurance in accordance with the provisions of section 3929.53 of the Revised Code.
(S) Meeting notice
(1) The board and each of its committees and subcommittees shall provide notice of regular, special, and emergency meetings as the same are scheduled by posting the dates, times, locations, and agendas (if applicable) on the board's official web site.
(2) The board maintains a list of individuals who have requested individual notice of each meeting. Individual notice may be given via mail, electronic mail, or facsimile.
(a) Any person who desires individual mail notice of the meetings described in paragraph (S)(1) of this rule shall make the request in writing to the board at its business address. The board may refuse to honor a request for individual mail notice unless the person requesting such notice has first supplied the board with a self-addressed, stamped envelope for the transmission of each requested notice.
(b) Any person who desires individual electronic mail notice of the meetings described in paragraph (S)(1) of this rule shall make a request in writing to the board at its business address. The board shall maintain a list of all persons who have requested individual electronic mail notice in this manner. The board may purge the list of all entries as it deems appropriate provided, however, that the board shall first provide notice to any individual whose contact information will be purged at least thirty days in advance.
(c) Any person who desires individual facsimile mail notice of the meetings described in paragraph (S)(1) of this rule shall make a request in writing to the board at its business address. The board shall maintain a list of all persons who have requested individual facsimile notice in this manner. The board may purge the list of all entries as it deems appropriate provided, however, that the board shall first provide notice to any individual whose contact information will be purged at least thirty days in advance.
(d) The board may, at its sole option, provide for an electronic means of requesting individual electronic mail of facsimile notice of the meetings described in paragraph (S)(1) of this rule.
(3) A representative of the news media may obtain notice of all special or emergency meetings of the council, its committees or its subcommittees by requesting such in writing to the "Ohio Mine Subsidence Insurance Governing Board" at its business address.
(a) The request must provide the name of the person to be contacted, the agency whom the person represents, and shall state whether the person wishes to be notified of regular, special, or emergency meetings, or any combination thereof. Additionally, the request shall specify whether the person wishes to be notified by mail, electronic mail, or facsimile, and shall include the appropriate contact information.
(b) The board shall maintain a list of all news media representatives requesting notice of special meetings. The board may purge the list of all entries as it deems appropriate provided, however, that the board shall first provide notice to an individual whose contact information will be purged at least thirty days in advance.
(c) Notice of special meetings shall be provided to news media representatives at least twenty-four hours prior to the special meeting. Notice of emergency meetings shall be provided to news media representatives by telephone or electronic means as soon as practicable.
(4) Notice given by mail is effective upon mailing. Notice given by telephone is effective upon providing actual notice, leaving a message containing the meeting information with any individual who answers the number provided by the requestor or leaving a recorded message, or, if the board makes three unsuccessful attempts to contact the requestor directly or to leave a voice message. Notice given by electronic means shall be complete upon transmission.
(T) Severability
If any paragraph, term or provision of this rule is adjudged invalid for any reason, the judgment shall not affect, impair or invalidate any other paragraph, term or provision of this rule, but the remaining paragraphs, terms and provisions shall be and continue in full force and effect.
Last updated February 14, 2022 at 8:55 AM
History
- Effective: February 14, 2022
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-1-50 Annual financial reports.
(A) Purpose
(1) The purpose of this rule is to facilitate the department's surveillance of the financial condition of insurers by requiring (a) an annual audit of financial statements reporting the financial position and results of operation of insurers by independent certified public accountants, (b) communication of internal control related matters noted in an audit, and (c) management's report of internal control over financial reporting. This rule shall apply to all insurers, except those insurers having direct premiums written of less than one million dollars and having less than one thousand policyholders nationwide at the end of any year. Those insurers will be exempt from this rule for the year they do not meet this threshold unless the superintendent makes a specific finding that compliance by the insurer is necessary for the superintendent to carry out the superintendent's statutory responsibilities. Insurers having assumed premiums to contracts and/or treaties of reinsurance of one million dollars or more will not be exempt. Insurers filing audited financial reports in another state, pursuant to such other state's requirement of audited financial reports, which are found by the superintendent to be substantially similar to the requirements herein, are exempt from this rule if:
(a) A copy of the audited financial report, communication of internal control related matters noted in audit, and the accountant's letter of qualifications, which are filed with such other states are filed with the superintendent in accordance with the filing dates specified in paragraphs (D), (K) and (L) of this rule. (Canadian insurers may submit accountants' reports as filed with the office of the superintendent of financial institutions, Canada); and
(b) A copy of any notification or report of adverse financial condition filed with such other state is filed with the superintendent within the time specified in paragraph (J) of this rule. Foreign or alien insurers required to file management's report of internal control over financial reporting in another state are exempt from filing the report in this state provided the other state has substantially similar reporting requirements and the report is filed with the superintendent of the other state within the time specified.
(2) This rule shall not prohibit, preclude or in any way limit the superintendent from ordering, conducting and performing examinations of insurers under the rules and regulations and the practice and procedures of the department.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under section 3901.041 of the Revised Code which requires the superintendent to adopt, amend, and rescind rules and make adjudications necessary to discharge the superintendent's duties and exercise the superintendent's powers under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code, subject to sections 119.01 to 119.13 of the Revised Code. This rule is issued to implement sections 3901.04, 3901.07 and 3901.77 of the Revised Code.
(C) Definitions
(1) "Audited Financial Report" means the annual report defined in the items specified in paragraph (E) of this rule.
(2) "Accountant" and "Independent Certified Public Accountant" mean an independent certified public accountant or accounting firm, as defined by the general standards of the "American Institute of Certified Public Accountants," in good standing with the "American Institute of Certified Public Accountants" and in all states in which the certified public accountant is licensed to practice; for Canadian and British companies, it means a Canadian-chartered or British-chartered accountant.
(3) An "affiliate" of, or person "affiliated" with, a specific person, is a person that directly, or indirectly through one or more intermediaries, controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with, the person specified.
(4) "Audit committee" means a committee (or equivalent body) established by the board of directors of an entity for the purpose of overseeing the accounting and financial reporting process of an insurer or group of insurers, the internal audit function of an insurer or group of insurers (if applicable), and external audits of financial statements of the insurer or group of insurers. The audit committee of any entity that controls a group of insurers may be deemed to be the audit committee for one or more of these controlled insurers solely for the purposes of this rule at the election of the controlling person. Refer to paragraph (N) of this rule for exercising this election. If an audit committee is not designated by the insurer, the insurer's entire board of directors shall constitute the audit committee.
(5) "Department" means the Ohio department of insurance.
(6) "Indemnification" means an agreement of indemnity or a release from liability where the intent or effect is to shift or limit in any manner the potential liability of the person or firm for failure to adhere to applicable auditing or professional standards, whether resulting in part from knowing of other misrepresentations made by the insurer or its representatives.
(7) "Independent board member" has the same meaning as described in paragraph (N) of this rule.
(8) "Internal audit function" means a person or persons who provide independent, objective and reasonable assurance designed to add value and improve an organization's operations and accomplish its objectives by bringing a systematic disciplined approach to evaluate and improve the effectiveness of risk management, control and governance processes.
(9) "Internal control over financial reporting" means a process effected by an entity's board of directors, management and other personnel designed to provide reasonable assurance regarding the reliability of the financial statements, i.e., those items specified in paragraphs (E)(2) to (E)(7) of this rule, and includes those policies and procedures that:
(a) Pertain to the maintenance of records that, in reasonable detail, accurately and fairly reflect the transactions and dispositions of assets;
(b) Provide reasonable assurance that transactions are recorded as necessary to permit preparation of the financial statements, i.e., these items specified in paragraphs (E)(2) to (E)(7) of this rule, and that receipts and expenditures are being made only in accordance with authorizations of management and directors; and
(c) Provide reasonable assurance regarding prevention or timely detection of unauthorized acquisition, use, or disposition of assets that could have a material effect on the financial statements, i.e., these items specified in paragraphs (E)(2) to (E)(7) of this rule.
(10) "SEC" means the United States securities and exchange commission.
(11) "Section 404" means section 404 of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 and the SEC's rules and regulations promulgated thereunder.
(12) "Section 404 Report" means management's report on "internal control over financial reporting" as defined by the SEC and the related attestation report of the independent certified public accountant as described in paragraph (C)(2) of this rule.
(13) "SOX Compliant Entity" means an entity that either is required to be compliant with, all of the following provisions of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002: (i) the preapproval requirements of section 201 (section 10A(i) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934); (ii) the audit committee independence requirements of section 301 (section 10A(m)(3) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934); and (iii) the internal control over financial reporting requirements of section 404 (item 308 of SEC regulation S-K0).
(14) "Insurer" means an entity licensed pursuant to Chapter 1739., 1751., 3907., 3909., 3911., 3925., 3929., 3931. or 3953. of the Revised Code.
(15) "Group of Insurers" means those entities included in the reporting requirements of sections 3901.32 to 3901.37 of the Revised Code, or a set of insurers as identified by management, for the purpose of assessing the effectiveness of internal controls over financial reporting.
(16) "Statutory accounting practices" has the meaning defined in the current editions of "Annual Statement Instructions" and the "Accounting Practices and Procedures Manual" published by the "National Association of Insurance Commissioners," or as otherwise prescribed by the insurance department of the insurer's state of domicile.
(17) "Superintendent" means the superintendent of the Ohio department of insurance.
(18) "Workpapers" means the records kept by an independent certified public accountant of the procedures followed, the tests performed, the information obtained, and the conclusions reached pertinent to the accountant's audit of the financial statements of an insurer. Workpapers may include audit planning documentation, work programs, analyses, memoranda, letters of confirmation and representation, abstracts of company documents, and schedules of commentaries prepared or obtained by the independent certified public accountant in the course of the accountant's audit of the financial statements of an insurer and, which support the accountant's opinion thereof.
(D) General requirements related to filing and extensions for filing of audited financial reports and audit committee appointment
All insurers shall have an annual audit by an independent certified public accountant and shall file an audited financial report as a supplement to the annual statement with the superintendent on or before June first for the immediately preceding year ended December thirty-first. Extensions of the June first filing date may be granted in writing by the superintendent for thirty day periods upon showing by the insurer and its independent certified public accountant the reasons for requesting such extension and determination by the superintendent of good cause for an extension. The request for an extension must be submitted in writing not less than ten days prior to the due date in sufficient detail to permit the superintendent to make an informed decision with respect to the requested extension.
If an extension is granted, a similar extension of thirty days is granted to the filing of management's report of internal control over financial reporting.
Every insurer required to file an annual audited financial report pursuant to this rule shall designate a group of individuals as constituting its audit committee, as defined in paragraph (C)(4) of this rule. The audit committee of any entity that controls an insurer may be deemed to be the insurer's audit committee for purposes of this rule at the election of the controlling person.
The superintendent may require an insurer to file an audited financial report earlier than June first with ninety days advance notice to the insurer.
(E) Contents of audited financial report
The audited financial report shall report the financial condition of the insurer as of the end of the most recent calendar year and the results of its operations, cash flows, and changes in capital and surplus for the year then ended in conformity with statutory accounting practices. The audited financial report shall include the following items:
(1) Report of independent certified public accountant;
(2) Balance sheet reporting admitted assets, liabilities, capital, and surplus;
(3) Statement of operations;
(4) Statement of cash flows;
(5) Statement of changes in capital and surplus;
(6) Notes to financial statements. These notes shall be those appropriate to a CPA audited financial report, based on applicability, materiality, and significance, taking into account the subjects covered in the instructions to and illustrations of how to report information in the notes to financial statements section of the "NAIC" annual statement instructions and any other notes required by the "NAIC Accounting Practices and Procedures Manual" and shall include:
(a) A reconciliation of differences, if any, between the audited statutory financial statements and the annual financial statement filed with the superintendent including a written description of the nature of these differences;
(b) A narrative explanation of all significant intercompany transactions and balances; and
(c) A summary of ownership and relationships of the insurer and all affiliated companies.
(7) The financial statements included in the audited financial report shall be prepared in a form and using language and groupings substantially the same as the relevant sections of the annual financial statement of the insurer filed with the superintendent and:
(a) The financial statements shall be comparative, presenting the amounts as of December thirty-first of the current year and amounts as of the immediately preceding year ending December thirty-first. (However, in the first year in which an insurer is required to file an audited financial report, the comparative data may be omitted); and
(b) Amounts may be rounded to the nearest thousand dollars.
(F) Designation of independent certified public accountant
(1) Each insurer required by this rule to file an audited financial report must, within sixty days after becoming subject to such requirement, register with the superintendent, in writing, the name and address of the independent certified public accountant retained to conduct the annual audit required in this rule. Insurers not previously retaining an independent certified public accountant shall register the name and address of their retained independent certified public accountant not less than six months before the date when the first audited financial report is to be filed.
(2) The insurer shall obtain a letter from such accountant, and file a copy of such letter with the superintendent, stating that the accountant is aware of the provisions of the insurance code and the rules and regulations of the insurance department of its state of domicile that relate to accounting and financial matters and affirming that the accountant will express the accountant's opinion on the financial statements of the insurer in the terms of their conformity to the statutory accounting practices prescribed or otherwise permitted by such insurance department, specifying such exceptions as the accountant may believe appropriate. If an accountant, who was not the accountant for the insurer's most recently filed audited financial report, is engaged to audit the insurer's financial statements, the insurer shall, within thirty days of the date the accountant is engaged, notify the department of this event.
(3) If an accountant who was the accountant for the immediately preceding filed audited financial report is dismissed or resigns, the insurer shall within five business days notify the department of insurance of this event. The insurer shall also furnish the superintendent with a separate letter within ten business days of the above notification stating whether in the twenty four months preceding such engagement there were any disagreements with the former accountant on any matter of accounting principles or practices, financial statement disclosure, or auditing scope or procedure, which disagreements, if not resolved to the satisfaction of the former accountant, would have caused the former accountant to make reference to the subject matter of the disagreement in connection with the former accountant's opinion. Disagreements contemplated by this paragraph are those that occur at the decision-making level, i.e., between personnel of the insurer responsible for presentation of its financial statements and personnel of the accounting firm responsible for rendering its report. The insurer shall also request, in writing, such former accountant to furnish a letter, addressed to the insurer, stating whether the accountant agrees with the statements contained in the insurer's letter and, if not, stating the reasons for which the accountant does not agree; and the insurer shall furnish such responsive letter from the former accountant to the superintendent, together with its own letter.
(G) Qualifications of independent certified public accountant
An insurer may not use any person or firm as an independent certified public accountant if such person or firm: (1) is not in good standing with the "American Institute of Certified Public Accountants" in all states in which the person or firm is licensed to practice or, for a Canadian or British company, that is not a chartered accountant; or (2) has either directly or indirectly entered into an agreement of indemnity or release from liability (collectively referred to as "indemnification") with respect to the audit of the insurer. Except as otherwise provided herein, an insurer may use a certified public accountant as its independent certified public accountant only if and for as long as such accountant conforms to the standards of the accountant's profession, as contained in the "Code of Professional Conduct" of the "American Institute of Certified Public Accountants" and "Rules of Professional Conduct" of the "Accountancy Board of Ohio," or similar code.
The lead (or coordinating) audit partner (having primary responsibility for the audit) may not act in that capacity for more than five consecutive years. The person shall be disqualified from acting in that or a similar capacity for the same company or its insurance subsidiaries or affiliates for a period of five consecutive years. An insurer may make application to the superintendent of insurance for relief from the above rotation requirement on the basis of unusual circumstances. This application should be made at least thirty days before the end of the calendar year. The superintendent may consider the following factors in determining if the relief should be granted: (a) number of partners, expertise of the partners, or the number of insurance clients in the currently registered firm; (b) premium volume of the insurer; or (c) number of jurisdictions in which the insurer transacts business. The insurers shall file, with its annual statement filing, the proof of relief from the five-year limitation with the states that it is licensed in or doing business in and with the "National Association of Insurance Commissioners." If the nondomestic state accepts electronic files with the NAIC, the insurer shall file the approval in an electronic format acceptable to the "National Association of Insurance Commissioners."
The superintendent shall not recognize as a qualified independent certified public accountant, nor accept any annual audited financial report, prepared in whole or in part by, any natural person who (1) has been convicted of fraud, bribery, a violation of the Racketeer Influenced and Corrupt Organizations Act, 18 U.S.C. sections 1961-1968, or any dishonest conduct or practices under federal or state law; (2) has been found to have violated the insurance laws of this state with respect to any previous reports submitted under this rule; or (3) has demonstrated a pattern or practice of failing to detect or disclose material information in previous reports filed under the provisions of this requirement.
The superintendent may hold a hearing to determine whether a certified public accountant is qualified and, considering the evidence presented, may rule that the accountant is not qualified for purposes of expressing his or her opinion on the financial statements in the annual audited financial report made pursuant to this requirement and require the insurer to replace the accountant with another whose relationship with the insurer is qualified within the meaning of this requirement.
(1) The superintendent shall not recognize as a qualified independent certified public accountant, nor accept an annual audited financial report, prepared in whole or in part by an accountant who provides to an insurer, contemporaneously with the audit, the following non-audit services:
(a) Bookkeeping or other services related to the accounting records or financial statements of the insurer;
(b) Financial information systems design and implementation;
(c) Appraisal or valuation services, fairness opinions, or contribution-in-kind reports;
(d) Actuarial-oriented advisory services involving the determination of amounts recorded in the financial statements. The accountant may assist an insurer in understanding the methods, assumptions, and inputs used in the determination of amounts recorded in the financial statement only if it is reasonable to conclude that the services provided will not be subject to audit procedures during an audit of the insurer's financial statements. An accountant's actuary may also issue an actuarial opinion or certification ("opinion") on an insurer's reserves if the following conditions have been met:
(i) Neither the accountant nor the accountant's actuary has performed any management functions or made any management decisions;
(ii) The insurer has competent personnel (or engages a third party actuary) to estimate the reserves for which management takes responsibility; and
(iii) The accountant's actuary tests the reasonableness of the reserves after the insurer's management has determined the amount of the reserves:
(e) Internal audit outsourcing services;
(f) Management functions or human resources;
(g) Broker or dealer, investment advisor, or investment banking services;
(h) Legal services or expert services unrelated to the audit; or
(i) Any other services that the superintendent determines, by rule, are impermissible.
(2) In general, the principles of independence with respect to services provided by the qualified independent certified public accountant are largely predicted on three basic principles, violations of which would impair the accountant's independence. The principles are that the accountant cannot function in the role of management, cannot audit his or her own work, and cannot serve in an advocacy role for the insurer.
Insurers having direct written and assumed premiums of less than one hundred million dollars in any calendar year may request an exemption from this paragraph. The insurer shall file with the superintendent a written statement discussing the reasons why the insurer should be exempt from these provisions. If the superintendent finds, upon review of this statement, that compliance with this rule would constitute a financial or organizational hardship upon the insurer, an exemption may be granted.
(3) A qualified independent certified public accountant who performs the audit may engage in other non-audit services for an insurer, including tax services, that are not described in paragraph (G)(1) of this rule or that do not conflict with paragraph (G)(2) of this rule, only if the activity is approved in advance by the audit committee for the insurer, in accordance with paragraph (G)(4) of this rule.
(4) All auditing services and non-audit services provided to an insurer by the qualified independent certified public accountant of the insurer shall be preapproved by the audit committee of the insurer. The preapproval requirement is waived with respect to non-audit services if the insurer is a "SOX" compliant entity or a direct or indirect wholly-owned subsidiary of a "SOX" compliant entity; or
(a) The aggregate amount of all such non-audit services provided to the insurer constitutes not more than five per cent of the total amount of fees paid by the insurer to its qualified independent certified public account during the fiscal year in which the non-audit services are provided;
(b) The services were not recognized by the insurer at the time of the engagement to be non-audit services; and
(c) The services are promptly brought to the attention of the audit committee and approved prior to the completion of the audit by the audit committee or by one or more members of the audit committee who are members of the board of directors to whom authority to grant such approvals has been delegated by the audit committee.
(5) The audit committee of an insurer may delegate to one or more designated members of the audit committee the authority to grant the preapprovals required by paragraph (G)(4) of this rule. The decisions of any member to whom this authority is delegated shall be presented to the full audit committee at each of its scheduled meetings.
(6) The superintendent shall not recognize an independent certified public accountant as qualified for particular insurer if a member of the board, president, chief executive officer, controller, chief financial officer, chief accounting officer, or any person serving in an equivalent position for that insurer, was employed by the independent certified public accountant and participated in the audit of that insurer during the one year period preceding the date that the most current statutory opinion is due. This section shall only apply to partners and senior managers involved in the insurer's preceding audit. An insurer may make an application to the superintendent for relief from the requirement on the basis of unusual circumstances.
(7) The insurer shall file, with its annual statement filing, the approval for relief from paragraph (G)(6) of this rule with the states that it is licensed in or doing business in and with the NAIC. If the nondomestic state accepts electronic filing with the NAIC, the insurer shall file the approval in an electronic format acceptable to the NAIC.
(H) Consolidated or combined audits
An insurer may make an annual written application to the superintendent for approval to file audited consolidated or combined financial statements in lieu of separate annual audited financial statements if the insurer is part of a group of insurance companies which uses a pooling or one hundred per cent reinsurance agreement that affects the solvency and integrity of the insurer's reserves and such insurer cedes all of its direct and assumed business to the pool. In such cases, a columnar consolidating or combining worksheet shall be filed with the report, as follows:
(1) Amounts shown on the consolidated or combined audited financial report shall be shown on the worksheet;
(2) Amounts for each insurer subject to this rule shall be stated separately;
(3) Non-insurance operations may be shown on the worksheet on a combined or individual basis;
(4) Explanations of consolidating and eliminating entries shall be included; and
(5) A reconciliation shall be included of any differences between the amounts shown in the individual insurer columns of the worksheet and comparable amounts shown on the financial statements of the insurers.
(I) Scope of audit and report of independent certified public accountant
Financial statements furnished pursuant to paragraph (E) of this rule shall be examined by an independent certified public accountant. The audit of the insurer's financial statements shall be conducted in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards. In accordance with AU section 319 of the professional standards of the accountants "American Institute of Certified Public Accountants," consideration of internal control in a financial statement audit, the independent certified public accountant should obtain an understanding of internal control sufficient to plan the audit. To the extent required by AU section 319, for those insurers required to file a management's report of internal control over financial reporting pursuant to paragraph (Q) of this rule, the independent certified public accountant should consider (as that term is defined in Statement on Auditing Standards (SAS) No. 102, defining professional requirements in statements on auditing standards or its replacement) the most recently available report in planning and performing the audit of the statutory financial statements. Consideration should be given to such other standards illustrated in the "Financial Condition Examiner's Handbook" promulgated by the "National Association of Insurance Commissioners" as the independent certified public accountant deems necessary.
(J) Notification of adverse financial condition
(1) The insurer required to furnish the annual audited financial report shall require the independent certified public accountant to report in writing within five business days to the board of directors or its audit committee any determination by the independent certified public accountant that the insurer has materially misstated its financial condition as reported to the superintendent as of the balance sheet date currently under audit or that the insurer does not meet the minimum capital and surplus requirement of the Revised Code as of that date. An insurer who has received a report pursuant to this paragraph shall forward a copy of the report to the superintendent within five business days of receipt of such report and shall provide the independent certified public accountant making the report with evidence of the report being furnished to the superintendent. If the independent certified public accountant fails to receive such evidence within the required five business day period, the independent certified public accountant shall furnish to the superintendent a copy of the certified public accountant's report within the next five business days.
(2) No independent certified public accountant shall be liable in any manner to any person for any statement made in connection with the above paragraph if such statement is made in good faith in compliance with the above paragraph.
(3) If the accountant, after the date of the audited financial report filed pursuant to this rule, becomes aware of facts which might have affected the accountant's report, the department shall note the obligation of the accountant to take such action as prescribed in volume one, section AU five hundred sixty one of the "Professional Standards of the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants," as amended.
(K) Communication of internal control related matters noted in an audit
In addition to the annual audited financial report, each insurer shall furnish the superintendent with a written communication as to any unremediated material weakness in its internal controls over financial reporting noted during the audit. Such communication shall be prepared by the accountant within sixty days after the filing of the annual audited financial report, and shall contain:
(1) A description of any unremediated material weakness (as the term material weakness is defined by statement on auditing standard sixty, communication of internal control related matters noted in an audit, or its replacement) as of December thirty-first immediately preceding (so as to coincide with the audited financial report discussed in paragraph (D) of this rule) in the insurer's internal control over financial reporting noted by the accountant during the course of the accountant's audit of the financial statements. If no unremediated material weaknesses are noted, the communication should so state.
(2) The insurer is required to provide a description of remedial action taken or proposed to correct unremediated material weaknesses, if the actions are not described in the accountant's communications.
(L) Accountant's letter of qualifications
The accountant shall furnish the insurer in connection with, and for inclusion in, the filing of the annual audited financial report, a letter stating the following:
(1) That the accountant is independent with respect to the insurer and conforms to the standards of the accountant's profession as contained in the "Code of Professional Ethics," the pronouncements of the "American Institute of Certified Public Accountants," and the "Rules of Professional Conduct" of the "Accountancy Board of Ohio," or other state board of public accountancy that performs the same licensing function.
(2) The background and experience in general, and the experience in audits of insurers of the staff assigned to the engagement and whether each is an independent certified public accountant. Nothing within this requirement shall be construed as prohibiting the accountant from using such staff as the accountant deems appropriate where such use is consistent with the standards prescribed by generally accepted auditing standards.
(3) That the accountant understands the annual audited financial report and the accountant's opinion thereon will be filed in compliance with this requirement and that the superintendent will be relying on this information in the monitoring and regulation of the financial position of insurers.
(4) That the accountant consents to the requirements of paragraph (M) of this rule and that the accountant consents and agrees to make available for review by the superintendent, the superintendent's designee or appointed agent, the workpapers, as defined in paragraph (C)(18) of this rule.
(5) A representation that the accountant is properly licensed by an appropriate state licensing authority and is a member in good standing in the "American Institute of Certified Public Accountants."
(6) A representation that the accountant is in compliance with the requirements of paragraph (G) of this rule.
(M) Availability and maintenance of independent certified public accountant workpapers
Every insurer required to file an audited financial report pursuant to this rule shall require the accountant to make available for review by department examiners the workpapers prepared in the conduct of the accountant's audit and any communications related to the audit between the accountant and the insurer, at the offices of the insurer, at the department, or at any other reasonable place designated by the superintendent. The insurer shall require that the accountant retain the workpapers and communications until the domiciliary department has filed a report on examination covering the period of the audit, but for no longer than seven years from the date of the audit report.
When domiciliary department examiners conduct periodic reviews, it shall be agreed that photocopies of pertinent audit workpapers may be made and retained by the domiciliary department. Such reviews by the domiciliary department examiners shall be considered investigations and all workpapers and communications obtained during the course of such investigations shall be afforded the same confidentiality as other examination workpapers generated by the domiciliary department.
(N) Requirements for audit committees
This section shall not apply to foreign or alien insurers licensed in this state or an insurer that is a "SOX" compliant entity or a direct or indirect wholly-owned subsidiary of a "SOX" compliant entity.
The audit committee shall be directly responsible for the appointment, compensation, and oversight of the work of any accountant (including resolution of disagreements between management and the accountant regarding financial reporting) for the purpose of preparing or issuing audited financial reports or related work pursuant to this regulation. Each accountant shall report directly to the audit committee.
The audit committee of an insurer or group of insurers shall be responsible for overseeing the insurer's internal audit function and granting the person or persons performing the function suitable authority and resources to fulfill the person's responsibilities if required by paragraph (O) of this rule.
Each member of the audit committee shall be a member of the board of directors of the insurer or a member of the board of directors of an entity elected pursuant to this paragraph and paragraph (C)(4) of this rule.
To be considered independent for purposes of this rule, a member of the audit committee may not, other than in that person's capacity as a member of the audit committee, the board of directors, or any other board committee, accept any consulting, advisory or other compensatory fee from the entity or be an affiliated person of the entity or any subsidiary thereof. However, if law requires the board participation by otherwise non-independent members, that law shall prevail and such members may participate in the audit committee and be designated as independent for audit committee purposes, unless they are an officer or employee of the insurer or one of its affiliates.
If a member of the audit committee ceases to be independent for reasons outside the member's reasonable control, that person, with notice by the responsible entity to the domiciliary state, may remain an audit committee member of the responsible entity until the earlier of the next annual meeting of the responsible entity or one year from the occurrence of the event that caused the member to no longer be independent.
To exercise the election of the controlling person to designate the audit committee for purposes of this rule, the ultimate controlling person shall provide written notice to the domiciliary commissioners of the affected insurers. Notification shall be made timely prior to the issuance of the statutory audit report and include a description of the basis for the election. The election can be changed through notice to the domiciliary commissioner by the insurer, which shall include a description of the basis for the change. The election shall remain in effect for perpetuity, until rescinded.
The audit committee shall require the accountant who performs for an insurer any audit required by this regulation to timely report to the audit committee in accordance with the requirements of "SAS" No. 61, "Communication with Audit Committees," or its replacement, including: all significant accounting policies and material permitted practices; all material alternative treatments of financial information within statutory accounting principles that have been discussed with management officials of the insurer, ramifications of the use of the alternative disclosures and treatments, and the treatment preferred by the accountant; and other material written communications between the accountant and the management of the insurer, such as any management letter or schedule of unadjusted differences.
If an insurer is a member of an insurance holding company system, the reports required above may be provided to the audit committee on an aggregate basis for insurers in the holding company system, provided that any substantial differences among insurers in the system are identified to the audit committee.
The portion of independent audit committee members shall meet or exceed the following criteria:
Prior Calendar Year Direct Written and Assumed Premiums
| $0- $300,000,000 | $300,000,000- $500,000,000 | Over $500,000,000 | | --- | --- | --- | | No minimum requirements. See also note A and B. | Majority (50% or more) of members shall be independent. See also note A and B. | Supermajority of members (75% or more) shall be independent. See also Note A and B. |
Note A: The superintendent has authority afforded by state law to require the entity's board to enact improvements to the independence of the audit committee membership if the insurer is in a "RBC" action level event, meets one or more of the standards of an insurer deemed to be in hazardous financial condition, or otherwise exhibits qualities of a troubled insurer.
Note B: All insurers with less than five hundred million dollars in prior year direct written and assumed premiums are encouraged to structure their audit committees with at least a supermajority of independent audit committee members.
Note C: Prior calendar year direct written and assumed premiums shall be the combined total of direct premiums and assumed premiums from non-affiliates for the reporting entities.
An insurer with direct written and assumed premium, excluding premiums reinsured with the federal crop insurance corporation and federal flood program, less than five hundred million dollars may make application to the superintendent for a waiver from these requirements based upon hardship. The insurer shall file, with its annual statement filing, the approval for relief from paragraph (N) of this rule with the states that it is licensed in or doing business in and the NAIC. If the non-domestic state accepts electronic filing with the NAIC, the insurer shall file the approval in an electronic format acceptable to the NAIC.
(O) Internal audit function requirements
(1) An insurer is exempt from the requirements of paragraph (O) of this rule if:
(a) The insurer has annual direct written and unaffiliated assumed premium, including international direct and assumed premium but excluding premiums reinsured with the "Federal Crop Insurance Corporation" and "National Flood Insurance Program," less than five hundred million dollars; and
(b) If the insurer is a member of a group of insurers that has an annual direct written and unaffiliated assumed premium including international direct and assumed premium, but excluding premiums reinsured with the "Federal Crop Insurance Corporation" and "National Flood Insurance Program," less than one billion dollars.
(2) The insurer or group of insurers shall establish an internal audit function providing independent, objective and reasonable assurance to the audit committee and insurer management regarding the insurer's governance, risk management and internal controls. This assurance shall be provided by performing general and specific audits, reviews and tests and by employing other techniques deemed necessary to protect assets, evaluate control effectiveness and efficiency, and evaluate compliance with policies and regulations.
(3) To ensure that internal auditors remain objective, the internal audit function must be organizationally independent. Specifically, the internal audit function will not defer ultimate judgment on audit matters to others, and shall appoint an individual to head the internal audit function who will have direct and unrestricted access to the board of directors. Organizational independence does not preclude dual-reporting relationships.
(4) The head of internal audit function shall report to the audit committee regularly, but no less than annually, on the periodic audit plan, factors that may adversely impact the internal audit function's independence or effectiveness, material findings from completed audits and the appropriateness of corrective actions implemented by management as a result of audit findings.
(5) If an insurer is a member of an insurance holding company system or included in a group of insurers, the insurer may satisfy the internal audit function requirements set forth in paragraph (O) of this rule at the ultimate controlling parent level, an intermediate holding company level or the individual legal entity level.
(P) Conduct of insurer in connection with the preparation of required reports and documents
No director or officer of an insurer shall, directly or indirectly:
(1) Make or cause to be made a materially false or misleading statement to an accountant in connection with any audit, review or communication required under this rule; or
(2) Omit to state or cause another person to omit to state, any material fact necessary to make a statement made, in light of the circumstances under which the statement was made, not misleading to an accountant in connection with any audit, review, or communication required under this rule.
No officer or director of an insurer, or any other person acting under the direction thereof, shall directly or indirectly take any action to coerce, manipulate, mislead or fraudulently influence any accountant engaged in the performance of an audit pursuant to this rule if that person knew or should have known that the action, if successful, could result in rendering the insurer's financial statements materially misleading.
Actions that, "if successful, could result in rendering the insurer's financial statements materially misleading" include, but are not limited to, actions taken at any time with respect to the professional engagement period to coerce, manipulate, mislead or fraudulently influence an accountant:
(a) To issue or reissue a report on an insurer's financial statements that is not warranted in the circumstances (due to material violations of statutory accounting principles prescribed by the commissioner, generally accepted auditing standards, or other professional or regulatory standards):
(b) Not to perform audit, review or other procedures required by generally accepted auditing standards or other professional standards;
(c) Not to withdraw an issued report; or
(d) Not to communicate matters to an insurer's audit committee.
(Q) Management's report of internal control over financial reporting
Every insurer required to file an audited financial report pursuant to this rule that has annual direct written and assumed premiums, excluding premiums reinsured with the "Federal Crop Insurance Corporation" and "National Flood Insurance Program," of five hundred million dollars or more shall prepare a report of the insurer's or group of insurer's internal control over financial reporting as these terms are defined in paragraph (C) of this rule. The report shall be filed with the superintendent along with the communication of internal control related matters noted in an audit described in paragraph (K) of this rule. Management's report of internal control over financial reporting shall be as of December thirty-first immediately preceding.
Notwithstanding the premium threshold, as stated above, the superintendent may require an insurer to file management's report of internal control over financial reporting if the insurer is in any "RBC" level event, or meets any one or more of the standards of an insurer deemed to be in hazardous financial condition as defined in sections 3903.09 and 3903.71 of the Revised Code and rule 3901-3-04 of the Administrative Code.
An insurer or a group of insurers that is,
(1) Directly subject to "Section 404";
(2) Part of a holding company system whose parent is directly subject to "Section 404";
(3) Not directly subject to "Section 404" but is a "SOX" compliant entity; or
(4) A member of a holding company system whose parent is not directly subject to "Section 404" but is a "SOX" compliant entity, may file its or its parents' "Section 404" report on internal control and an addendum in satisfaction of this paragraph's requirement provided that those internal controls of the insurer or group of insurers having a material impact on the preparation of the insurer or group of insurers' its audited statutory financial statements were included in the scope of the "Section 404" reports. The addendum shall be a positive statement by management that there are no material processes with respect to the preparation of the insurer's or group of insurers' audited statutory financial statements excluded from the "Section 404" report. If there are internal controls of the insurer or group of insurers that have a material impact on the preparation of the insurer's or group of insurers' audited statutory financial statements and those internal controls were not included in the scope of the "Section 404" report, the insurer or group of insurers may either file (a) a report as required by paragraph (Q) of this rule, or (b) the "Section 404" report and a report as required by paragraph (Q) of this rule for those internal controls that have a material impact on the insurer's or group of insurers' audited statutory financial statements not covered by the "Section 404" report.
Management's report of internal control over financial reporting shall include:
(a) A statement that management is responsible for establishing and maintaining adequate control over financial reporting;
(b) A statement that management has established internal control over financial reporting and an assertion to the best of management's knowledge and belief, after diligent inquiry, as to whether its internal control over financial reporting is effective to provide reasonable assurance regarding the reliability of financial statements in accordance with statutory accounting principles;
(c) A statement that briefly describes the approach or process by which management evaluated the effectiveness of its internal control over financial reporting;
(d) A statement that briefly describes the scope of work that is included and whether any internal controls were excluded;
(e) Disclosure of any unremediated material weaknesses in internal control over financial reporting identified by management as of December thirty-first immediately preceding. Management is not permitted to conclude that the internal control over financial reporting is effective to provide reasonable assurance regarding the reliability of financial statements in accordance with statutory accounting principles if there is one or more unremediated material weakness in its internal controls over financial reporting;
(f) A statement regarding the inherent limitations of internal control systems; and
(g) Signatures of the chief executive officer and the chief financial officer (or equivalent position/title).
Management shall document and make available upon financial condition examination the basis upon which its assertions, required in above, are made. Management may base its assertions, in part, upon its review, monitoring and testing of internal controls undertaken in the normal course of its activities.
(i) Management shall have discretion as to the nature of the internal control framework used, and the nature and extent of documentation, to make its assertion in a cost-effective manner, as such, may include assembly of or reference to existing documentation.
(ii) Management's report on internal control over financial reporting, required above, and any documentation provided in support thereof during the course of a financial condition examination, shall be kept confidential by the superintendent.
(R) Exemptions and effective dates
(1) Upon written application of any insurer, the superintendent may grant an exemption from compliance with any and all provisions this rule if the superintendent finds, upon review of the application, that compliance with this rule would constitute a financial or organizational hardship upon the insurer. An exemption may be granted at any time and from time to time for any specified period.
(2) Foreign insurers shall comply with this rule for the year ending December 31, 2009, and each year thereafter, unless the superintendent gives his or her written permission otherwise.
(3) An insurer or group of insurers that is not required to have independent audit committee members or only a majority of independent audit committee members (as opposed to a supermajority) because the total written and assumed premium is below the threshold and subsequently becomes subject to one of the independence requirements due to changes in premium shall have one year following the year threshold is exceeded to comply with the independence requirements. Likewise, an insurer that becomes subject to one of the independence requirements as a result of a business combination shall have one calendar year following the date of acquisition or combination to comply with the independence requirements.
(4) If an insurer or group of insurers that is exempt from paragraph (O) of this rule requirements no longer qualifies for the exemption, it shall have one year after the threshold is exceeded to comply with the requirements of paragraph (O) of this rule.
(5) An insurer or group of insurers that is not required to file a report because the total written premium is below the threshold and subsequently becomes subject to the reporting requirements shall have two years following the year the threshold is exceeded to file a report. Likewise, an insurer acquired in a business combination shall have two calendar years following the date of acquisition or combination to comply with the reporting requirements.
(S) Canadian and British companies
In the case of Canadian and British insurers, the audited financial report shall be defined as the annual statement of total business on the form filed by such companies with their domiciliary supervision authority duly audited by an independent chartered accountant. For such insurers, the letter required in paragraph (F)(2) of this rule shall state that the accountant is aware of the requirements relating to the audited financial report filed with the superintendent pursuant to paragraph (Q) of this rule and shall affirm that the opinion expressed is in conformity with such requirements.
(T) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated March 2, 2026 at 8:33 AM
History
- Effective: February 28, 2026
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-3-04
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to facilitate the department of insurance's surveillance of the financial condition of insurers by setting out standards which the superintendent may use for identifying insurers whose condition is such as to render the continuance of their business hazardous to their policyholders, creditors, or the general public. This rule shall not be interpreted to limit the powers granted the superintendent by any laws of this state.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041, 3903.09 and 3903.71 of the Revised Code.
(C) Standards
(1) The following standards, either singly or a combination of two or more, may be considered by the superintendent to determine whether the continued operation of any insurer might be deemed to be hazardous to their policyholders, creditors, or the general public. The superintendent may consider:
(a) Adverse findings reported in financial condition or market conduct examination reports, statutory audit reports, and actuarial opinions, reports or summaries;
(b) The "National Association of Insurance Commissioners (NAIC) Insurance Regulatory Information System" and its other financial analysis solvency tools and reports;
(c) Whether the insurer has made adequate provision, according to presently accepted actuarial standards of practice, for the anticipated cash flows required by the contracted obligations and related expenses of the insurer, when considered in light of the assets held by the insurer with respect to such reserves and related actuarial items including, but not limited to, the investment earnings on such assets, and the considerations anticipated to be received and retained under such policies and contracts;
(d) The ability of an assuming reinsurer to perform and whether the insurer's reinsurance program provides sufficient protection for the insurer's remaining surplus after taking into account the insurer's cash flow and the classes of business written as well as the financial condition of the assuming reinsurer;
(e) As reported in the most recent quarterly or annual statutory financial statement filing, the insurer's net loss or negative net income in the last twelve month period or any shorter period of time, including but not limited to net unrealized capital gains or losses, change in non-admitted assets, and the payment of cash dividends to shareholders which are greater than fifty per cent of such insurer's remaining capital and surplus as regards policyholders in excess of the minimum amount required and/or;
(f) As reported in the most recent quarterly or annual statutory financial statement filing, the insurer's net decrease in capital and policyholders surplus, in the last twelve month period or any shorter period of time, is greater than fifty per cent of such insurer's remaining capital and policyholders surplus in excess of the minimum required;
(g) As reported in the most recent quarterly or annual statutory financial statement filing, whether the insurer's net loss or negative net income in the last twelve month period or any shorter period of time, excluding net realized capital gains and losses, is greater than twenty per cent of the insurer's remaining surplus as regards policyholders in excess of the minimum required;
(h) Whether a reinsurer, obligor, or any entity within the insurer's insurance holding company system is insolvent, threatened with insolvency, or delinquent in payment of its monetary or other obligation and which in the opinion of the superintendent may affect the solvency of the insurer;
(i) Contingent liabilities, pledges or guarantees which either individually or collectively involve a total amount which in the opinion of the superintendent may affect the solvency of the insurer;
(j) Whether any person, exercising control of an insurer as defined in division (C) of section 3905.61 of the Revised Code is delinquent in the transmitting to, or payment of, net premiums to such insurer;
(k) The age and collectability of receivables;
(l) Whether the management of an insurer, including officers, directors, or any other person who directly or indirectly controls the operation of such insurer, fails to possess and demonstrate the competence, fitness and reputation deemed necessary to serve the insurer in such position;
(m) Whether management of an insurer has failed to respond to inquiries relative to the condition of the insurer or has furnished false and misleading information concerning an inquiry;
(n) Whether the insurer has failed to meet financial and holding company filing requirements in the absence of a reason satisfactory to the superintendent;
(o) Whether management of an insurer has filed any false or misleading sworn financial statement, or has released false or misleading financial statements to lending institutions or to the general public, or has made a false or misleading entry, or has omitted an entry of material amount in the books of the insurer;
(p) Whether the insurer has grown so rapidly and to such an extent that it lacks adequate financial and administrative capacity to meet its obligations in a timely manner;
(q) Whether the insurer has experienced or will experience in the foreseeable future cash flow and/or liquidity problems;
(r) Whether an insurer has failed to comply with paragraph (J) of rule 3901-1-50 of the Administrative Code;
(s) Whether the insurer meets measures of capital adequacy adopted by statute or rule;
(t) Whether management has established reserves that do not comply with state insurance laws, regulations, statutory accounting standards, sound actuarial principles, and standards of practice;
(u) Whether management engages in reporting inadequate reserve levels that result in material adverse development;
(v) Whether a material change during the year to the insurer's financial condition, including, but not limited to, changes in assets, liabilities, surplus, premium growth, mix of business, reinsurance, or operating performance that may adversely impact the result of the next year-end risk based capital calculation to a level that would require regulatory action;
(w) Whether transactions among affiliates, subsidiaries, or controlling persons for which the insurer receives assets or capital gains, or both, do not provide sufficient value, liquidity or diversity to assure the insurer's ability to meet its outstanding obligations as they mature;
(x) Any other finding determined by the superintendent to be hazardous to the insurer's policyholders, creditors, or general public.
(2) For the purposes of making a determination of an insurer's financial condition under this rule the superintendent may:
(a) Disregard any credit or amount receivable resulting from transactions with a reinsurer which is insolvent, impaired or otherwise subject to a delinquency proceeding;
(b) Make appropriate adjustments including disallowance to asset values attributable to investments in or transactions with parents, subsidiaries, or affiliates, consistent with the NAIC accounting practices and procedures manual, state laws and regulations;
(c) Refuse to recognize the stated value of accounts receivable if the ability to collect receivables is highly speculative in view of the age of the account or the financial condition of the debtor;
(d) Refuse to recognize the stated value of assets pledged or in any way hypothecated to secure a liability to the extent that they are in excess of the specific recorded liability of the insurer;
(e) Increase the insurer's liability in an amount equal to any contingent liability, pledge, or guarantee not otherwise included if there is a substantial risk that the insurer will be called upon to meet the obligation undertaken within the next twelve-month period.
(D) If the superintendent determines that the continued operation of an insurer licensed to transact business in this state may be hazardous to its policyholders, creditors or the general public, the superintendent, in lieu of placing a domestic insurer into supervision, rehabilitation or liquidation pursuant to Ohio's insurers supervision, rehabilitation or liquidation act, or suspending the license of a foreign insurer pursuant to section 3903.71 of the Revised Code, may take other action to correct the hazard, including, but not limited to, either entering into a memorandum of understanding with the insurer or issuing an order requiring the insurer to:
(1) Reduce the total amount of present and potential liability for policy benefits by reinsurance;
(2) Reduce, suspend or limit the volumes of business being accepted or renewed;
(3) Reduce general insurance and commission expenses by specified methods;
(4) Increase the insurer's capital and surplus;
(5) Suspend or limit the declaration and payment of dividend by an insurer to its stockholders or its policyholders;
(6) File reports in a form acceptable to the superintendent concerning the market value of an insurer's assets;
(7) Limit or withdraw from certain investments or discontinue certain investment practices to the extent the superintendent deems necessary;
(8) Document the adequacy of premium rates in relation to the risks insured;
(9) File, in addition to regular annual statements, interim financial reports on the form adopted by the NAIC or in such format as promulgated by the superintendent;
(10) Correct corporate governance practice deficiencies, and adopt and utilize governance practices acceptable to the superintendent;
(11) Provide a business plan to the superintendent in order to continue to transact business in the state; and
(12) Take any other action necessary to cure the conditions which resulted in the finding that the insurer's continued operation may be hazardous to its policyholders, creditors, or the general public.
(E) Severability
If any paragraph, term or provision of this rule is adjudged invalid for any reason, the judgment shall not affect, impair or invalidate any other paragraph, term or provision of this rule, but the remaining paragraphs, terms and provisions shall be and continue in full force and effect.
Last updated December 16, 2025 at 11:14 AM
History
- Effective: October 29, 2015
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-1-52 Life and health insurance guaranty association disclaimer and not covered form.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to establish the form and content of the summary document and disclaimer describing the general purposes and current limitations of the Ohio life and health insurance guaranty association and the notice that the policy or contract, or portion thereof, may not be covered by the association.
(B) Authority
This rule is issued pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under section 3956.18 of the Revised Code.
(C) Applicability
This rule applies to all insurers, health insuring corporations, and agents providing, soliciting or negotiating coverage for direct, non-group life insurance, health insurance, including sickness and accident insurance policies and contracts, and health insuring corporation subscriber policies, contracts, certificates and agreements, annuities, certificates under direct group policies and contracts, for supplemental contracts to any of the preceding and for unallocated annuity contracts issued by member insurers.
(D) Delivery of summary document
Division (B)(2) of section 3956.18 of the Revised Code provides that no member insurer shall deliver a policy or contract to a policy owner, contract owner, certificate holder, or enrollee unless the summary document is delivered to the policy or contract holder prior to or at the time of delivery of the policy or contract. The document also shall be available upon request by a policy owner, contract owner, certificate holder or enrollee.
(E) Disclaimer
Division (C) of section 3956.18 of the Revised Code provides that the summary document shall contain a clear and conspicuous disclaimer on its face.
(F) Form
In providing the summary document and disclaimer described in divisions (B)(2) and (C) of section 3956.18 of the Revised Code, the insurer must use the exact form set forth in appendix I to this rule.
(G) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
View Appendix
Last updated November 16, 2023 at 8:29 AM
History
- Effective: November 16, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-1-54 Unfair property/casualty claims settlement practices.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to set forth uniform minimum standards for the investigation and disposition of property and casualty claims arising under insurance contracts or certificates issued to residents of Ohio. It is not intended to cover claims involving workers' compensation, or fidelity, suretyship, and boiler and machinery insurance. The provisions of this rule are intended to define procedures and practices which constitute unfair claims practices. Nothing in this rule shall be construed to create or imply a private cause of action for violation of this rule.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041 and 3901.19 to 3901.26 of the Revised Code.
(C) Definitions
As used in this rule:
(1) "Agent" means any individual, corporation, association, partnership or other legal entity authorized to represent an insurer with respect to a claim.
(2) "Claim file" means any retrievable electronic file, paper file, combination of both, or any other media.
(3) "Claimant" means a first party claimant, a third party claimant.
(4) "Contract" means any insurance policy or document containing the terms of the agreement wherein one party, the insurer, assumes certain obligations including financial obligations that arise as a result of a loss sustained by another party, the insured, or to any other party that has rights under the agreement.
(5) "Days" means calendar days. However, when the last day of a time limit stated in this rule falls on a Saturday, Sunday, or holiday, the time limit is extended to the next immediate following day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or holiday.
(6) "Department" means the Ohio department of insurance.
(7) "Documentation" includes, but is not limited to, all communications, transactions, notes, work papers, claim forms, bills and explanation of benefits forms pertaining to the claim.
(8) "First party claimant" means any individual, corporation, association, partnership or other legal entity asserting a right to payment under an insurance policy or insurance contract arising out of the occurrence of the contingency or loss covered by the policy or contract.
(9) "Insurer" shall be defined as set forth in division (F) of section 3901.32 of the Revised Code.
(10) "Investigation" means all activities of an insurer directly or indirectly related to the determination of liability under an insurance contract which is in effect or alleged to be in effect.
(11) "Like kind and quality part" means a salvage motor vehicle part equal to or better than the replaced part that is acquired from a licensed salvage motor dealer.
(12) "Notification of claim" means any notification, under the terms of an insurance contract, to an insurer or its agent, by a claimant, which reasonably apprises the insurer of the facts pertinent to a claim.
(13) "Person" shall be defined as set forth in section 3901.19 of the Revised Code.
(14) "Practice" means a type of activity or conduct engaged in by an insurer with such frequency as to constitute a customary procedure or policy routinely followed in the settlement of insurance claims. A single act is not a business practice. However, an act that is malicious, deliberate, conscious and knowing may be the basis for corrective action ordered only by the superintendent without a showing that the conduct is a practice.
(15) "Superintendent" means the superintendent of insurance.
(16) "Third party claimant" means any individual, corporation, association, partnership or other legal entity asserting a claim against any other individual, corporation, association, partnership or legal entity.
(17) "Proof of loss" means a document from the claimant that provides sufficient information from which the insurer can determine the existence and the amount of the claim.
(D) File and record documentation
An insurer's claim files are subject to examination by the superintendent of insurance or by the superintendent's duly appointed designees. To aid in such examination:
(1) An insurer shall maintain claim data that is accessible and retrievable for examination. Such data shall include number, line of coverage, date of loss and date of payment or date of denial or date when claim is closed without payment. The data for closed claims shall be kept for no less than three years or until the completion of the next financial examination conducted by the state of domicile, whichever is greater. Data for claims where the claims payment is less than one thousand dollars, or for towing, labor, glass or rental reimbursement may be kept in summary form.
(2) An insurer must be able to reconstruct its activities in regard to any claim, by documentation appropriate for the type and size of the claim. If the claim is closed, the time period for retention is set forth in paragraph (D)(1) of this rule.
(3) If an insurer does not maintain hard copy files, claim files shall be accessible and be capable of duplication to hard copy.
(E) Misrepresentation of policy provisions
(1) An insurer shall fully disclose to first party claimants all pertinent benefits, coverages or other provisions of an insurance contract under which a claim is presented.
(2) No agent shall willfully conceal from first party claimants benefits, coverages or other provisions of any insurance contract when such benefits, coverages or other provisions are pertinent to a claim.
(3) No insurer shall deny a claim based on the first party claimant's failure to make available for inspection the property which is the subject of the claim unless there is documentation of breach of the policy provisions in the claim file.
(4) No insurer shall deny a claim based upon the failure of a first party claimant to give written notice of loss within a specified time limit unless the notice is required by a policy condition, or a first party claimant's failure to give written notice after being requested to do so by the insurer is so unreasonable as to constitute a breach of the claimant's duty to cooperate with the insurer.
(5) No insurer shall indicate to a first party claimant on a payment draft, check or in any accompanying letter that the payment is final or a release of any claim unless the policy limit has been paid or the first party claimant and the insurer have agreed to a compromise settlement regarding coverage and the amount payable under the insurance contract.
(6) No insurer shall issue checks or drafts in partial settlement of a loss or claim under a specific coverage that contains language purporting to release the insurer or its insured from total liability.
(F) Response to acknowledge receipt of pertinent communications
(1) Notification of a claim given to an agent of an insurer shall be notification to the insurer.
(2) An insurer shall acknowledge the receipt of a claim within fifteen days of receiving such notification. An insurer may satisfy this requirement by making payment within this fifteen day period. An insurer may also satisfy this requirement by providing necessary claim forms and complete instructions to the claimant within this fifteen day period.
(3) An insurer shall respond within fifteen days to any communication from a claimant, when that communication suggests a response is appropriate. In the event that a complaint has been filed by a claimant in any court, an insurer is not obligated to respond within this time period and any communication between the claimant and the insurer will be subject to the appropriate rule of procedure for the court in which the lawsuit was filed.
(4) An insurer shall, within twenty-one days of receipt of an inquiry from the department regarding a claim, furnish the department with a reasonable response to the inquiry.
(G) General standards for settlement of claims
(1) An insurer shall within twenty-one days of the receipt of properly executed proof(s) of loss decide whether to accept or deny such claim(s). If more time is needed to investigate the claim than the twenty-one days allow, the insurer shall notify the claimant within the twenty-one day period, and provide an explanation of the need for more time. If an extension of time is needed, the insurer has a continuing obligation to notify the claimant in writing, at least every forty-five days, of the status of the investigation and the continued time for the investigation.
If the form and execution of a proof of loss is material to an insurer, the insurer shall immediately provide the claimant with the specific documents and specific instructions so the claimant can submit the claim. An insurer shall not otherwise deny a claim solely on the basis the proof of loss is not on the insurer's usual form.
If an insurer reasonably believes, based upon information obtained and documented within the claim file, that a claimant has fraudulently caused or contributed to the loss as represented by a properly executed and documented proof of loss, such information shall be presented to the fraud division of the department within sixty days of receipt of the proof of loss. Any person making such report shall be afforded such immunity and the information submitted will be confidential as provided by sections 3901.44 and 3999.31 of the Revised Code.
(2) No insurer shall deny a claim on the grounds of a specific policy provision, condition or exclusion unless reference to such provision, condition, or exclusion is included in the denial. The claim file of the insurer shall contain documentation of the denial in accordance with paragraph (D) of this rule.
(3) Except as otherwise provided by policy provisions, an insurer shall settle first party claims upon request by the insured with no consideration given to whether the responsibility for payment should be assumed by others.
(4) No insurer shall require an insured to submit to a polygraph examination unless authorized under the applicable insurance contract.
(5) Notice shall be given to claimants at least sixty days before the expiration of any statute of limitation or contractual limit, where the insurer has not been advised that the claimant is represented by legal counsel.
(6) An insurer shall tender payment to a first party claimant no later than ten days after acceptance of a claim if the amount of the claim is determined and is not in dispute, unless the settlement involves a structured settlement, action by a probate court, or other extraordinary circumstances as documented in the claim file.
(7) If a claim involves a non-negligent party's property loss and multiple liability insurers, the multiple liability insurers shall adjust the property loss within a reasonable time and pay the non-negligent party's loss in equal shares. After payment, the multiple liability insurers may then pursue available remedies to resolve the question of responsibility for the non-negligent party's loss.
(8) If a claim involves multiple coverages under any policy, no insurer shall withhold payment under any such coverage when the payment is known, the payment is not in dispute, and the payment would extinguish the insurer's liability under that coverage. No insurer shall withhold such payment for the purpose of forcing settlement on all other coverage to effect a single payment.
(9) An insurer must document the application of comparative negligence to any claim settlement. Such information shall be fully disclosed to the claimant upon the claimant's written request. An insurer shall not use pattern settlements as set forth in division (P) of section 3901.21 of the Revised Code.
(10) An insurer shall not use settlement practices that result in compelling first party claimants to litigate by offering substantially less than the amounts claimed compared to the amount ultimately recovered in actions brought by such claimants.
(H) Standards for prompt, fair and equitable settlements of automobile insurance claims
(1) When partial losses will be settled on the basis of a written estimate prepared by or for an insurer, the insurer shall supply the claimant a copy of the estimate upon which the proposed settlement is based. If the claimant subsequently claims that necessary repairs will exceed the written estimate, the insurer shall pay the difference between the written estimate and a higher estimate obtained by the claimant or promptly provide the claimant with the name of at least one repair shop that will make the repairs for the amount of the written estimate. If the insurer provides the name of only one repair shop, it shall ensure that the repairs are performed in a workmanlike manner. The insurer shall maintain documentation of all communications with the claimant pursuant to this paragraph.
(2) If an insurer reduces a claim amount because of betterment, depreciation or comparative negligence, it shall maintain all information pertaining to the reduction in the claim file. Such deductions shall be itemized and specified on the written estimate as to dollar amount and shall be appropriate for the amount of deductions.
(3) An insurer may reduce a claim amount because of betterment deductions only if the deductions reflect a measurable decrease in market value due to the poorer condition of, or prior damage to, the vehicle; or reflect the general overall condition of the vehicle, considering its age, for the wear and tear or rust, and/or missing parts, limited to no more of a deduction than the replacement costs of part or parts.
(4) When partial losses will be settled on the basis of a written estimate prepared by or for an insurer, the estimate must clearly indicate the use of the parts in compliance with section 1345.81 of the Revised Code. When like kind and quality parts are expected to be used in the repair, the estimate shall clearly indicate the location of the licensed salvage dealer where the like kind and quality parts are to be obtained.
(5) An insurer which elects to repair and designates a specific repair shop for automobile repairs shall cause the damaged automobile to be restored to its condition prior to the loss. The insurer shall assess no additional cost against the claimant other than as stated in the policy, and the repairs should be effected within a reasonable period of time.
(6) In settlement of claimants' automobile total losses on the basis of actual cash value or replacement of the automobile with another vehicle of like kind and quality, an insurer which elects to offer a replacement automobile shall:
(a) Provide an automobile by the same manufacturer, of the same or newer year, of similar body style, with similar options and mileage as the claimant's vehicle and in as good or better overall condition than the first party automobile prior to loss;
(b) Ensure that the automobile is available for inspection within a reasonable distance of the claimant's residence;
(c) Pay all applicable taxes, license fees, and other fees incident to transfer of evidence of ownership of the automobile at no cost to claimant other than any deductible provided in the policy; and
(d) Document the offer of the replacement automobile and any rejection of the offer in the claim file.
(7) In settlement of claimants' automobile total losses on the basis of actual cash value or replacement of the automobile with another of like kind and quality, an insurer which elects to offer a cash settlement to claimant shall base the offer upon the actual cost to purchase a comparable automobile less any applicable deductible amount contained in the policy, and/or deduction for betterment as contained in paragraph (H)(2) of this rule. The settlement value may be derived from:
(a) The average cost of two or more comparable automobiles in the local market area if comparable automobiles are or were available to consumers within the last ninety days; or
(b) The average cost of two or more comparable automobiles in areas proximate to the local market area, including the closest in-state or out-of-state major metropolitan areas, that are or were available to consumers within the last ninety days if comparable automobiles are not available pursuant to paragraph (H)(7)(a) of this rule; or
(c) The average of two or more quotations obtained by the insurer from two or more licensed dealers located within the local market area if comparable automobiles are not available pursuant to paragraphs (H)(7)(a) and (H)(7)(b) of this rule; or
(d) The cost as determined from a generally recognized used motor vehicle industry source such as:
(i) An electronic database if the pertinent portions of the valuation documents generated by the database are provided by the insurer to the claimant upon request; or
(ii) A guidebook that is generally available to the general public if the insurer identifies the guidebook used as the basis for the cost to the claimant upon request, and to which appropriate adjustments for condition, mileage and major options are made and documented in the claim file.
(e) Any method or source chosen as specified in paragraph (H)(7)(d) of this rule shall be used consistently over a period of time by the insurer.
(f) If within thirty days of receipt by the claimant of a cash settlement for the total loss of an automobile, the claimant purchases a replacement automobile, the insurer shall reimburse the claimant for the applicable sales taxes incurred on account of the claimant's purchase of the automobile, but not to exceed the amount that would have been payable by the claimant for sales taxes on the purchase of an automobile with a market value equal to the amount of the cash settlement. If the claimant purchases an automobile with a market value less than the amount of the cash settlement, the insurer shall reimburse only the actual amount of the applicable sales taxes on the purchased automobile. If the claimant cannot substantiate such purchase and the payment of such sales taxes by submission to the insurer of appropriate documentation within thirty-three days after receipt of the cash settlement, the insurer shall not be required to reimburse the claimant for such sales taxes. In lieu of reimbursement, the insurer may pay directly the applicable sales taxes to the claimant at the time of the cash settlement.
An insurer that settles a total loss on a cash settlement basis must maintain in the claim file the documentation used to determine the loss. Such information shall be provided to the first party claimant upon request. An insurer shall notify the first party claimant of any rights to renegotiate the settlement if a comparable vehicle is not available for purchase within thirty-five days of receipt of the settlement.
When an insurer elects to offer a replacement vehicle available to the claimant, the insurer shall provide all the details where such vehicle is available including the vehicle identification number.
(g) An insurer that settles a total loss claim shall provide written notice to the claimant of the right to reimbursement of applicable sales tax as specified in paragraph (H)(7)(f) of this rule. The notice shall be issued to the claimant simultaneously with the conveyance of the settlement check to the claimant. If an insurer elects to pay the applicable sales taxes directly to the claimant at the time of the cash settlement in lieu of reimbursement as provided in paragraph (H)(7)(f) of this rule, the insurer is not required to provide written notice of the claimant's right to sales tax reimbursement.
(8) An insurer shall not require a claimant to travel an unreasonable distance to inspect a replacement automobile, to obtain a repair estimate, or to have the automobile repaired at a specific repair shop.
(9) An insurer shall provide notice to a claimant prior to termination of payment for automobile storage charges. The insurer shall document all actions taken pursuant to this paragraph in accordance with paragraph (D) of this rule.
(10) An insurer shall include the first party claimant's deductible, if any, in subrogation demands. The insurer shall share any subrogation recovery received on a proportionate basis with the first party claimant, unless the first party claimant's deductible has been paid in advance or recovered. The insurer shall not deduct expenses from this amount except that an outside attorney or collection agency retained to collect such recovery may be paid a pro rata share of his expenses for collecting this amount.
(I) Standards for prompt, fair and equitable settlement of claims under fire and extended coverage insurance policies
(1) If a fire and extended coverage insurance policy provides for the adjustment and settlement of first party losses based on replacement cost, the following shall apply:
(a) When a loss requires replacement of an item or part, any consequential physical damages incurred in making such repair or replacement not otherwise excluded by the policy, shall be included in the loss.
(b) When an interior or exterior loss requires replacement of an item and the replaced item does not match the quality, color or size of the item suffering the loss, the insurer shall replace as much of the item as to result in a reasonably comparable appearance.
(c) When an insurer settles a loss that results in the insured paying a portion of the repair or replacement as betterment, the insurer shall maintain documentation of the basis for computing the betterment charge, and the insured's agreement to such charge prior to incurring the expense of the repair or replacement.
(2) If a fire and extended coverage insurance policy provides for the adjustment and settlement of losses on an actual cash value basis, the following shall apply:
(a) The insurer shall determine actual cash value by determining the replacement cost of property at the time of loss, including sales tax, less any depreciation. Upon the insured's request, the insurer shall provide documentation detailing all depreciation deductions.
(b) If the insured's interest is limited because his property has nominal or no economic value, or a value disproportionate to replacement cost less depreciation, the insurer is not required to comply with paragraph (I)(2)(a) of this rule regarding the determination of actual cash value. However, the insurer shall provide upon the insured's request, a written explanation of the basis for limiting the amount of recovery along with the amount payable under the policy.
(J) Applicability of rule 3901-1-07 of the Administrative Code
If any provisions of any section of this rule conflicts with any of the provisions contained in rule 3901-1-07 of the Administrative Code, the provisions of this rule will apply.
(K) Imposition of fine
Pursuant to section 3901.22 of the Revised Code and a consent agreement with the insurer, the superintendent may recover the cost of an investigation under this rule and/or a penalty from the insurer.
(L) Severability
If any paragraph, term or provision of this rule is adjudged invalid for any reason, the judgment shall not affect, impair or invalidate any other paragraph, term or provision of this rule, but the remaining paragraphs, terms and provisions shall be and continue in full force and effect.
Last updated February 14, 2022 at 8:55 AM
History
- Effective: February 14, 2022
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-1-55 Use of Credit history and credit scores.
(A) Authority
This rule is issued pursuant to section 3901.041 of the Revised Code which provides that the superintendent of insurance shall adopt, amend, and rescind rules and make adjudications, necessary to discharge the superintendent's duties and exercise the superintendent's powers, including, but not limited to, the superintendent's duties and powers under Chapters 1751. and 1753. and Title XXXIX of the Revised Code, subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.
Sections 3901.20 and 3901.21 of the Revised Code prohibit unfair or deceptive practices in the business of insurance and define certain acts or practices as unfair or deceptive. Section 3901.21 also provides that the enumeration of specific unfair or deceptive acts or practices in the business of insurance is not exclusive or restrictive, or intended to limit the powers of the superintendent of insurance to adopt rules to implement section 3901.21 or to take action under other sections of the Revised Code.
(B) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to clearly define certain unfair practices and to set forth standards with respect to insurers' and agents' use of credit history and credit scores in connection with underwriting and rating personal lines coverage.
(C) Scope
This rule applies only to personal lines coverage as defined in paragraph (D)(6) of this rule.
(D) Definitions
As used in this rule:
(1) "Adverse action" has the same meaning as defined in the Fair Credit Reporting Act, 15 U.S.C. 1681 et seq. (1998), and includes a denial or cancellation of, an increase in any charge for, or a reduction or other adverse or unfavorable change in the terms of coverage or amount of, any insurance, existing or applied for, in connection with the underwriting or rating of insurance. Issuance of a policy at a rate higher than that which the consumer would have received if the consumer's credit history had not been taken into account is an adverse action.
(2) "Consumer" means any insured or applicant for personal lines coverage.
(3) "Credit history" means any written, oral, or other communication of any information bearing on a consumer's creditworthiness, credit standing, or credit capacity that is used or expected to be used, or collected in whole or in part, for the purpose of serving as a factor in determining rates, placement within a tier or with an affiliated company, or eligibility for coverage.
(4) "Credit score" means a number or rating that is derived from an algorithm, computer application, model or other process that is based in whole or in part on credit history.
(5) "Insurance score" and "credit based insurance score" have the same meaning: a number or rating that is derived from an algorithm, computer application, a model or other process that is based in whole or in part on a credit score or credit history, for the purpose of predicting the future insurance loss exposure of a consumer (that is, any insured or applicant).
(6) "Personal lines" means a policy of property and casualty insurance issued to a natural person primarily for personal or family protection for personal automobile, homeowner's, tenant's, mobile-homeowner's, non-commercial dwelling fire or personal umbrella coverage.
(7) "Consumer reporting agency" means any person which, for monetary fees, dues, or on a cooperative nonprofit basis, regularly engages in whole or in part in the practice of assembling or evaluating consumer credit information or other information on consumers for purposes of furnishing such information to third parties.
(E) Credit cannot be the sole underwriting or rating factor
Credit history or a credit score or any aspect thereof, either individually or collectively, may not be used without consideration of any other applicable underwriting or rating factor as the sole basis for:
(1) Any underwriting decision;
(2) Any total premium determination; or
(3) Any adverse action.
This paragraph does not prohibit an insurer from raising a premium rate at renewal based on a change in credit history, in a credit score, or in the actuarial indications for a particular credit history or credit score if other non-credit related factors are also considered in the total premium determination.
(F) Prohibited underwriting, rating and credit scoring factors
No insurer underwriting or rating a policy of personal lines insurance shall use any of the following as a negative factor in any credit scoring methodology or in reviewing the credit history of any consumer:
(1) Credit inquiries not initiated by the consumer;
(2) Credit inquiries relating to insurance coverage;
(3) Disputed information that is currently under investigation by the consumer reporting agency, if so identified on the records of such agency;
(4) Collection accounts with a medical industry code, if so identified on the records of the consumer reporting agency;
(5) Multiple lender inquiries, if coded by the consumer reporting agency on the consumer's credit report as being from the home mortgage industry and made within thirty days of one another, unless only one inquiry is considered; or
(6) Multiple lender inquiries, if coded by the consumer reporting agency on the consumer's credit report as being from the automobile lending industry and made within thirty days of one another, unless only one inquiry is considered.
(G) Disclosure requirements
(1) The consumer must be provided notice either prior to or at the time the insurance application is taken that credit history or a credit score may be obtained and used in connection with underwriting or rating a policy. Such notice shall either be written or provided to the consumer in the same medium as the application for insurance. The insurer need not provide such notice to any insured on a renewal policy, if such notice has previously been provided.
(2) If an adverse action is taken as a result of credit history or a credit score the following disclosures must be made to the consumer in writing within thirty days of the date the adverse action is taken:
(a) The insurer must identify and describe the nature of the adverse action;
(b) The insurer must describe the significant factors of the credit history or credit score that resulted in the adverse action, which may include the descriptive credit explanations provided by credit scoring vendors; and
(c) The insurer must provide the consumer with all disclosures required by the Fair Credit Reporting Act, 15, U.S.C. 1681 et seq. (1998). Such disclosures shall include:
(i) The name, address, and telephone number of the consumer reporting agency (including a toll-free telephone number established by the agency if the agency compiles and maintains files on consumers on a nationwide basis) that furnished the consumer information;
(ii) A statement that the consumer reporting agency did not make the decision to take the adverse action and is unable to provide the consumer with the specific reasons why the adverse action was taken;
(iii) Notice to the consumer of the consumer's right to obtain a free copy of the consumer's credit report from the consumer reporting agency; and
(iv) Notice to the consumer of the consumer's right to dispute with the consumer reporting agency the accuracy or completeness of any information in a credit report furnished by the agency.
(H) Updating credit history and credit scores
(1) If credit history or a credit score, or any aspect thereof, is considered in underwriting or rating a consumer and a consumer reporting agency determines that the credit information is inaccurate or incomplete and the insurer receives notice of this determination from a consumer or a consumer reporting agency, the insurer shall, within thirty days after receiving the notice:
(a) Re-underwrite the consumer;
(b) Re-rate the consumer; and
(c) Adjust the premium as indicated in paragraph (H)(2) of this rule.
(2) If it is determined by the re-underwriting or re-rating in accordance with paragraph (H)(1) of this rule that the consumer has overpaid the premium, the insurer shall refund to the consumer the amount of the overpayment of premium. Such payment shall be calculated back to the shorter of:
(a) The last twelve months of coverage; or
(b) The current policy term.
(3) After any policy of insurance has been issued and in the absence of a determination of the consumer reporting agency that the consumer's information is inaccurate or incomplete as described in paragraph (H)(1) of this rule, the insurer must recheck the insured's credit history or credit score at the written request of the insured, but no more than once every twelve months. The insurer may wait to recheck the credit information until the next renewal. The insurer shall adjust the premium or coverage of any insured whose credit history or credit score was rechecked under this section that reflects any change in the insured's credit history or credit score. Any such premium or coverage adjustment shall be applied prospectively to the next policy term.
(I) Compliance with rule
(1) Section 3901.20 of the Revised Code prohibits insurers from engaging in unfair or deceptive acts. Section 3901.21 of the Revised Code defines as an unfair and deceptive act the following unfair discriminatory conduct:
Making or permitting any unfair discrimination between individuals of the same class and of essentially the same hazard in the amount of premium, policy fees, or rates charged for any policy or contract of insurance, other than life insurance, or in the benefits payable thereunder, or in underwriting standards and practices or eligibility requirements, or in any of the terms or conditions of such contract, or in any other manner whatever.
(2) Division (A) of section 3937.02 and division (C) of section 3935.03 of the Revised Code set forth the factors an insurer or rating organization may consider in establishing rates for property and casualty insurance. Division (C) of section 3937.02 of the Revised Code provides that risks may be grouped by classification for the establishment of rates and minimum premiums, and states:
Classification rates may be modified to produce rates for individual risks in accordance with rating plans which establish standards for measuring variations in hazards or expense provisions, or both. Such standards may measure any differences among risks that can be demonstrated to have a probable effect upon losses or expenses.
(3) Division (D) of section 3937.02 of the Revised Code further provides: "Rates shall not be excessive, inadequate, or unfairly discriminatory."
In order to comply with the foregoing paragraphs, insurers shall abide by the following guidelines:
(a) Insurers shall establish that credit history and credit scores used in underwriting or rating determinations are valid risk characteristics and are used in accordance with actuarial principles and standards of practice.
(b) If a consumer has no available credit history (known as a "no hit"), has insufficient credit history to develop a credit score (known as "no score"), or the available credit history is not used for rating, the consumer must be underwritten and rated in accordance with actuarial principles and standards of practice.
(c) Insurers shall not use credit history or credit scores for arbitrary, capricious or unfairly discriminatory purposes. Credit history and credit scores shall not be based on race, color, religion, national origin, sex, marital status, handicap, or age.
(d) Insurers must maintain, implement and make available standards concerning how credit history and credit scores affect underwriting and rating decisions. Insurers shall file with the superintendent all risk classification criteria and rating manuals that relate to credit history and credit scores.
(e) If a credit scoring model is modified or if its use in determining rates or rating plans is modified, the insurer shall re-file risk classification criteria and rating manuals with the superintendent, and shall re-establish that the credit scores are valid risk characteristics and are used in accordance with actuarial principles and standards of practice.
.
(J) Severability
If any provision of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is for any reason held to be invalid, the remainder of the rule and the application of the remaining provisions to such persons or circumstances shall not be affected thereby.
Last updated October 11, 2023 at 1:48 PM
History
- Effective: March 20, 2008
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-1-57 Transaction fees.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to establish fees and charges for certain transactions or services performed by the department of insurance.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041, 3901.043, 3901.07, and 3913.37 of the Revised Code.
(C) The following schedule of fees is established for transactions and services performed under the following:
(1) Transactions pursuant to section 3901.321 of the Revised Code:
(a) Filing of the statement (form A) relating to the change of control or takeover of a domestic insurance company. Twenty-five hundred dollars.
(b) Filing for an exemption from the requirements of section 3901.321 of the Revised Code. One thousand dollars.
(2) Transactions pursuant to section 3901.341 of the Revised Code:
Filing of any transaction (form D) required by this paragraph. Two hundred fifty dollars.
(3) Transactions pursuant to Chapter 3905. of the Revised Code:
(a) Filing of a notice of appointment of an agent, including the renewal of an agent at the time of annual renewal. Ten dollars/per appointment.
(b) Filing for authority to conduct business as a surplus lines insurer. One thousand dollars/annually.
(4) Transactions pursuant to section 3907.12 of the Revised Code:
Filing for approval of a plan of reinsurance that exceeds the limits set forth in section 3907.12 of the Revised Code, or a plan of assumption reinsurance on policies issued by a domestic insurance company. Fifteen hundred dollars.
(5) Transactions pursuant to sections 3911.011, 3915.14, 3917.06, 3918.07, and 3923.02 of the Revised Code:
Any filing required to be submitted to the superintendent. Fifty dollars per insurer/per filing. Multiple forms relating to a single policy may be filed together for one fifty dollar fee, otherwise, each form filed is considered a separate filing and a fifty dollar fee applies to each.
(6) Transactions pursuant to sections 3913.01 to 3913.38 of the Revised Code:
(a) Filing of a plan of conversion of a domestic stock life insurance corporation into a mutual insurance corporation. Twenty-five hundred dollars.
(b) Filing of a plan of conversion of a domestic mutual life insurance company to a stock life insurance company. Twenty-five hundred dollars.
(c) Filing of a plan of conversion of a non-life mutual insurance company to a stock non-life insurance company. Twenty-five hundred dollars.
(d) Filing of a plan of reorganization or merger of a mutual insurance company or mutual insurance holding company. Twenty-five hundred dollars.
(7) Transactions pursuant to section 3913.40 of the Revised Code:
Filing of a plan to transfer the domicile of an insurance company either to or from the state of Ohio. Twenty-five hundred dollars.
(8) Transactions pursuant to section 3935.04 of the Revised Code:
(a) Any filing required to be submitted to the superintendent. Fifty dollars per insurer/per filing. Multiple forms relating to a single policy may be filed together for one fifty dollar fee, otherwise, each form or policy is considered a separate filing and a fifty dollar fee applies to each.
(b) Any excess rate filing required to be submitted to the superintendent pursuant to division (G) of section 3935.04 of the Revised Code is exempt from the filing fee.
(9) Transactions pursuant to section 3937.03 of the Revised Code:
(a) Any filing required to be submitted to the superintendent. Fifty dollars per insurer/per filing. Multiple forms relating to a single policy may be filed together for one fifty dollar fee, otherwise, each form or policy is considered a separate filing and a fifty dollar fee applies to each.
(b) Any special filing pursuant to division (E) of section 3937.03 of the Revised Code and any excess rate filing pursuant to division (G) of section 3937.03 of the Revised Code that are required to be submitted to the superintendent are exempt from the filing fee.
(D) Whenever another state or jurisdiction charges a greater fee for a transaction listed in this rule to an insurer domiciled in Ohio, then the superintendent may charge that higher fee to the insurer not domiciled in Ohio, who seeks to have the transaction completed in this state.
(E)
(1) The department will invoice the insurer for the fee charged for the transactions listed in paragraph (C)(3) of this rule.
(2) Fees charged for the transactions listed in paragraphs (C)(1), (C)(2), (C)(4), (C)(6) and (C)(7) of this rule shall be submitted with the first documents sent to the department.
(3) Fees charged for the transactions listed in paragraphs (C)(5), (C)(8) and (C)(9) of this rule shall be paid via the "EFT" functionality built into the "System for Electronic Rates and Forms Filing" commonly known as "SERFF."
(4) All fees collected pursuant to this rule shall be deposited to the credit of the department of insurance operating fund created pursuant to section 3901.021 of the Revised Code.
(F)
(1) For purposes of this paragraph, "expenses" has the same meaning as set forth in division (M) of section 3901.07 of the Revised Code.
(2) Expenses incurred from the conduct of a financial examination authorized by division (B) of section 3901.07 of the Revised Code will be billed directly to the insurer.
(a) Such expenses authorized by division (M)(4) of section 3901.07 of the Revised Code are calculated at 0.96 of the amount assessed pursuant to division (M)(1)(a) of section 3901.07 of the Revised Code.
(b) Such expenses billed to the insurer are due upon the insurer's receipt of an invoice from the department pursuant to division (L) of section 3901.07 of the Revised Code.
(3) Expenses incurred pursuant to divisions (M)(1)(b) to (M)(1)(f) and (M)(4) of section 3901.07 of the Revised Code apart from the conduct of a financial examination authorized by division (B) of section 3901.07 of the Revised Code are assessed annually to the insurer.
(a) Such expenses for each domestic insurer are established pursuant to the following schedule, provided that the total amount due from an insurance holding company system with more than one domestic insurer is not to exceed one hundred twenty-five thousand dollars in the aggregate:
| Annual Countrywide Direct Premiums Written | Total Amount Due | | --- | --- | | $100,000,000 or Greater | $29,000 | | $50,000,000 to $99,999,999 | $19,000 | | $25,000,000 to $49,999,999 | $16,000 | | $10,000,000 to $24,999,999 | $13,000 | | $5,000,000 to $9,999,999 | $6,000 | | $500,000 to $4,999,999 | $1,600 | | Less Than $500,000 | $500 |
(b) Such expenses billed to the insurer are due upon the insurer's receipt of an invoice from the department.
(G) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated July 27, 2023 at 9:02 AM
History
- Effective: July 1, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-1-58 Standard credentialing form for physician and non-physician providers.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to prescribe the standard credentialing form to be used when credentialing or recredentialing providers. For purposes of this rule, the term "providers" has the same meaning as in division (P) of section 3963.01 of the Revised Code.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041, 3901.21, and 3963.08 of the Revised Code.
(C) Form
All credentialing and recredentialing of physicians and non-physician individual providers identified in division (P) of section 3963.01 of the Revised Code is to be performed using the credentialing form available from the council for affordable quality healthcare (CAQH) in electronic or paper format. The CAQH credentialing form is referred to as the department of insurance part A credentialing form. Copies of this form may be obtained electronically from CAQH or from the department of insurance. The department of insurance part B credentialing form is used to credential hearing aid dealers, home health agencies, hospice care providers and all other providers, with the exception of hospitals, that are not individuals. Copies of this form may be obtained from the department of insurance. The credentialing forms prescribed by this rule may be reproduced as needed and may be amended from time to time.
(D) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated November 16, 2023 at 8:29 AM
History
- Effective: November 16, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-1-64 Medical liability data collection.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to establish procedures and requirements for the reporting of specific medical, dental, optometric and chiropractic claims data to the Ohio department of insurance.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041 and 3929.302 of the Revised Code.
(C) Definitions
(1) "Medical, dental, optometric and chiropractic claims" include those claims asserted against a risk located in this state that either:
(a) Meet the definition of "medical claim," "dental claim," "optometric claim," or "chiropractic claim" in section 2305.113 of the Revised Code, or
(b) Have not been asserted in any civil action, but that otherwise meet the definition of "medical claim," "dental claim," "optometric claim," or "chiropractic claim" in section 2305.113 of the Revised Code.
(2) "Risk retention group" has the same meaning as in section 3960.01 of the Revised Code.
(3) "Surplus lines insurer" means an insurer that is not licensed to do business in this state, but is nonetheless approved by the department to offer insurance because coverage is not available through licensed insurers.
(4) "Self-insurer" means any person or persons who set aside funds to cover liability for future medical, dental, optometric or chiropractic claims or that otherwise assume their own risk or potential loss for such claims. "Self-insurer" includes captives.
(D) Each authorized insurer, surplus lines insurer, risk retention group, self-insurer, the medical liability underwriting association if created under section 3929.63 of the Revised Code, or any other entity that offers medical malpractice insurance to, or that otherwise assumes liability to pay medical, dental, optometric or chiropractic claims for, risks located in this state, shall report at least annually to the superintendent of insurance, or to the superintendent's designee, information regarding any medical, dental, optometric, or chiropractic claim asserted against a risk located in this state, if the claim resulted in:
(1) A final judgment in any amount,
(2) A settlement in any amount, or
(3) A final disposition of the claim resulting in no indemnity payment on behalf of the covered person or persons.
(E) The report required by paragraph (D) of this rule includes for each claim:
(1) The name, address and specialty coverage of each covered person;
(2) The insured's policy number, if applicable;
(3) The date of the occurrence that created the claim;
(4) The name and address of the injured person;
(5) The date the claim was reported and the claim number;
(6) The injured person's age and sex;
(7) If the medical, dental, optometric, or chiropractic claim was filed with the court, the case number and the name and location of the court;
(8) In the case of a judgment, the date and amount of the judgment and, if the judgment is subject to the itemization requirements in division (B) of section 2323.43 of the Revised Code, a description of the portion of the judgment that represents economic loss, non-economic loss and punitive damages, if any;
(9) In the case of a settlement, the date and amount of the settlement and, if known, the injured person's incurred medical expense, wage loss, and other expenses;
(10) Any loss adjustment expenses allocated to the claim or, if known, the amount allocated to each covered person;
(11) The loss adjustment expense, broken down between fees and expenses, paid to defense counsel;
(12) The date and reason for final disposition, if no judgment or settlement, and the type of disposition;
(13) Unless disclosure is otherwise prohibited by state or federal law, a summary of the occurrence which created the claim including:
(a) The name of the institution, if any, and the location at which the injury occurred;
(b) The operation, diagnosis, treatment, procedure or other medical event or incident giving rise to the alleged injury;
(c) A description of the principal injury giving rise to the claim.
(F) Frequency
The report(s) required by this rule shall be filed with the superintendent, or the superintendent's designee, on or before May first of each year, and contain information for the previous calendar year.
(G) Noncompliance
Any person listed in paragraph (D) of this rule that fails to timely submit the report required under this section shall be subject to a fine not to exceed five hundred dollars.
(H) Confidentiality
Information reported to the superintendent or the superintendent's designee pursuant to this rule is confidential and privileged and is not a public record as defined in section 149.43 of the Revised Code. The information provided under this section is not subject to discovery or subpoena and will not be made public by the superintendent or any other person, including any rating organizations or other agencies designated by the superintendent to gather and/or compile the information.
(I) The requirements of this rule do not apply to reinsurers, reinsurance contracts, reinsurance agreements, or reinsurance claims transactions.
(J) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated February 13, 2025 at 8:09 AM
History
- Effective: February 13, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-1-65 Medical malpractice annual filing requirements.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to safeguard the interest of the public by allowing reasonable inspection and analysis of insurers' rating plans on an annual basis for the regulation and monitoring of medical malpractice premium rates.
(B) Authority
This rule is adopted pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041, 3937.04 and 3937.12 of the Revised Code.
(C) Annual rate filing requirement
(1) Every insurer issued a certificate of authority to write medical malpractice insurance in this state and that issues such insurance in this state, shall at a minimum, file annually with the superintendent of insurance, appropriate information and exhibits, in support of the insurer's existing rating plan. If at any time the superintendent of insurance finds that a rate no longer complies with sections 3937.01 to 3937.17 of the Revised Code, the superintendent may, in accordance with section 3937.04 of the Revised Code, state that the rate shall no longer be effective.
(2) In lieu of the filing required in paragraph (C)(1) of this rule a carrier may annually file for a rate adjustment in accordance with section 3937.03 of the Revised Code.
(3) Included with a filing required in paragraph (C)(1) or (C)(2) of this rule, every insurer that issues medical malpractice insurance in this state, shall file the average, minimum, and maximum deviation from manual rates due to individual risk premium modifications, also known as schedule rating credits and debits, or discretionary credits and debits, applied by the insurer during a twelve month period which ends no more than six months before the date of the filing. If at any time the superintendent of insurance finds that the credits and debits exceed the maximum allowed or may result in inadequate rates or be destructive of competition or detrimental to solvency of insurers, the superintendent may in accordance with section 3937.04 of the Revised Code state that the rate shall no longer be effective.
(D) Superintendent's discretionary authority
Extensions of time for the filing required under paragraph (C) of this rule may be granted by the superintendent upon a showing by the insurer the reasons for requesting such extension and a determination by the superintendent of good cause for the extension. The request for an extension must be submitted in writing not less than ten days prior to the due date of the required filing.
(E) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated February 13, 2025 at 8:10 AM
History
- Effective: February 13, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-1-66 Surety bail bond agent conduct.
(A) Purpose. The purpose of this rule is to establish criteria for surety bail bond agent conduct.
(B) Authority. This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041 and 3905.95 of the Revised Code.
(C) Definitions. As used in this rule:
(1) "Cash bond" means the full amount of the bail required to be paid in cash to release a defendant from jail.
(2) "Power of attorney" means a legal instrument that is used by a authorized surety company to delegate authority to a licensed general agent or surety bail bond agent for the posting of surety bail bonds with a court of law up to a specified monetary amount.
(3) "Surety bail bond" means a court accepted bond instrument from a licensed insurance company issued for or on behalf of an incarcerated person held under criminal charges in any Ohio mayor, municipal, county, or federal court.
(4) "Immigration bond" means a federally accepted bond instrument from a surety company approved by the United States department of treasury issued for and on behalf of alien detainees held by United States immigration and customs enforcement, within the department of homeland security pending a hearing or court appearance; or to guarantee that an alien will be financially independent during a lawful visit or prolonged stay to the United States.
(D) Stacking bonds prohibited.
A surety bail bond agent shall not submit more than one power of attorney for any single bond, charge or charges, as is assigned a number by a court of proper jurisdiction.
(E) Submitting powers and bonds
(1) All surety bail bonds submitted to the court or the custodian of an arrested person must be accompanied by a current, non-expired, legal power of attorney.
(2) Only one power of attorney shall be submitted per bond. The face value of the power shall be equal to or greater than the amount of the bond set by the court in the single charge or charges for which the bond and power are being submitted.
(3) No power of attorney that has been altered or erased shall be submitted to a court or insurance company.
(4) No expired power of attorney shall be submitted to a court or insurance company.
(5) No power of attorney shall be used or submitted to a court or insurance company more than once.
(F) Immigration bonds
Immigration bonds may be solicited, sold, or negotiated only by:
(1) A person holding an Ohio insurance license with a casualty line of authority conferred pursuant to Title 39 of the Revised Code.
(2) A person holding an Ohio surety bail bond line of authority conferred pursuant to Title 39 of the Revised Code, who has been given a bond power that expressly allows for the writing of an immigration bond.
(G) Bond money from loan companies
No surety bail bond agent shall be employed by, contracted with, or act as an agent for, or own an ownership interest in any person or business entity that loans money for, or takes collateral for the loan of money for, the purpose of posting a cash bond or surety bail bond on behalf of a defendant.
(H) Real property as collateral
When accepting real property as collateral for a bond,
(1) A surety bail bond agent shall not require the transfer of title of any real property as a condition of issuing the bail bond.
(2) A surety bail bond agent may require a defendant, or anyone agreeing to provide real property as collateral on a defendants behalf, to establish title and unencumbered value, at the defendants expense, together with mortgage security or other documents necessary to establish the surety bail bond agent's lien interest in the real property by the bail agent.
(3) A surety bail bond agent shall not provide title, notary, or lien filing services directly or indirectly to the client or defendant for a fee. A surety bail bond agent shall not receive any valuable consideration for referring a person for title, notary, or lien filing services.
(4) Return of security document collateral:
(a) If the security document has not been filed with the state or a division of the state to perfect the lien, and the bond has not been called or otherwise needed or used, the original mortgage or other security document must be stamped cancelled and returned to the client or defendant within twenty-one days from the end of the bond.
(b) If the security document has been filed with the state or a division of the state to perfect the lien, and the bond has not been called or otherwise needed or used, a release of the mortgage or release of the other security document must be completed within twenty-one days after the end of the bond. A copy of the release containing an official date/time stamp must be provided to the client within twenty-six days after the end of the bond.
(I) Solicitation
(1) The following activities shall constitute prohibited solicitation by a surety bail bond agent on the grounds of a courthouse or detention facility:
(a) Approaching a person not currently a client and in any way initiating communication concerning bail bond services.
(b) Writing bonds for an individual without their direct knowledge and consent.
(c) Communicating as, or holding oneself out to be, a court appointed surety bail bond agent or suggesting in any manner that one has been appointed by a court or other public agency to write a bond for a particular defendant, or on a particular case.
(d) Wearing clothing that indicates a person is in the bail bond industry unless otherwise directed by the court or detention facility, except the wearing of the issued department of insurance ID card.
(e) Conducting business in a loud and conspicuous manner.
(f) Distributing a business card, pen, or any other item, that identifies an individual or business entity as providing surety bail bond services.
(g) Physically impeding, blocking, or hindering the public from viewing or obtaining the docket or other information needed to ascertain the status or procedure of any court process including all court bonding processes.
(h) Engaging or hiring any person, directly or indirectly, to perform any acts listed in paragraphs (I)(1)(a) to (I)(1)(g) of this rule.
(i) Any other activity that may be construed as the sale or solicitation of surety bail bonds.
(2) The following activities shall not constitute prohibited solicitation by a surety bail bond agent on the grounds of a courthouse or detention facility subject to the limitations of paragraph (I)(1) of this rule:
(a) Having personal business matters before a court or detention facility;
(b) Attending a scheduled hearing or meeting with any person(s) regarding surety bail bonds as long as the meeting is arranged with the person(s) prior to the arrival at the courthouse or detention facility;
(c) Being retained by a person to write and post a surety bail bond;
(d) Gathering court and docket information for business purposes;
(e) Writing a bond and posting a bond with the court;
(f) Returning a fugitive from justice pursuant to section 2927.27 of the Revised Code;
(g) Notifying a court, or detention facility of professional activities being conducted by the surety bail bond agent, other than solicitation; or
(h) Filing required paperwork with the court or detention facility regarding bonds, prisoners, bail bond license status, or fugitives.
(J) Severability
If any section, term or provision of this rule is adjudged invalid for any reason, such judgment shall not affect, impair or invalidate any other section, term or provision of this rule, but the remaining sections, terms and provisions shall be and continue in full force and effect.
Last updated December 8, 2022 at 8:35 AM
History
- Effective: December 8, 2022
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-1-67 Alternative derivative and reserve accounting practices.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to allow insurance companies to utilize certain alternative derivative and reserve accounting practices for eligible derivative instruments and indexed products, respectively, in order to better match derivative and reserve accounting as it relates to interest crediting for indexed products and to provide for a more true and fair representation of the capital position and net gain from operations of insurance companies that offer or have in force indexed products. Specifically, this rule addresses the mismatches related to the changes in value of an eligible derivative instrument as compared to the interest accrual in the reserve calculation for the underlying indexed product in two ways. This rule provides insurance companies with the ability, once certain criteria are met, to: (1) account for eligible derivative instruments using the amortized cost method, and (2) make an election at a policy level to use a reserve calculation methodology for indexed annuity products under which interest credits based upon one or more external indices are included in the reserve only after those interest credits have been credited to the contract holder under the terms of the annuity contract. In addition, regardless of the use of the ability provided for in the previous sentence, this rule provides insurance companies with the ability to record changes in, and settlement of, eligible derivative instruments through net investment income in the summary of operations.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.77 and 3903.72 to 3903.7211 of the Revised Code.
(C) Definitions
For the purposes of this rule, the following definitions shall apply:
(1) "Eligible derivative instrument" means:
(a) A call or put option derivative instrument that is purchased to hedge the growth in interest credited to an indexed product as a direct result of changes in the related external index or external indices;
(b) A call or put option derivative instrument that is written to offset all or a portion of a call or put option derivative instrument that meets the criteria set forth in paragraph (C)(1)(a) of this rule; or
(c) Other derivative instruments, such as index futures, swaps and "swaptions," that may be used to hedge the growth in interest credited to indexed products as a direct result of changes in the related external index or external indices.
(2) "External index" means an index, a combination of indices, a combination of indices and other financial instruments, or an exchange traded fund that is published or disseminated by a source external to the insurance company and its affiliates.
(3) "Indexed annuity products" means fixed indexed or index-linked variable annuity contracts that include interest crediting provisions under which interest (which may be subject to caps, participation rates, spreads, floors, terms or similar limitations) is credited based upon the performance of one or more external indices.
(4) "Indexed life products" means fixed indexed or index-linked variable life insurance policies that include interest crediting provisions under which interest (which may be subject to caps, participation rates, spreads, floors, buffers, terms or similar limitations) is credited based upon the performance of one or more external indices.
(5) "Indexed products" means indexed annuity products and indexed life products.
(6) "Interest crediting period" means the period of time over which the performance of an external index or external indices is measured for purposes of determining the amount of interest credited under an indexed product.
(D) Derivative accounting
Insurance companies may elect to account for eligible derivative instruments at amortized cost with the ability to record settlement gains or losses through net investment income, if the insurance company can demonstrate that such eligible derivative instruments meet all of the following criteria for an economic hedge:
(1) At inception of the hedge, or as of the date that an insurance company elects to use the accounting practices prescribed by this rule if later, there must be formal documentation of the economic hedging relationship and the insurance company's risk management objective and strategy for undertaking the economic hedge, including identification of the specific eligible derivative instruments purchased to hedge indexed products, the nature of the particular risk being hedged, and how the eligible derivative instruments' effectiveness will be assessed, retrospectively and prospectively, on a qualitative basis.
(2) At inception of the hedge, or as of the date that an insurance company elects to use the accounting practices prescribed by this rule if later, and at the end of each quarterly reporting period thereafter, the insurance company must maintain documentation that the economic hedge is expected to be and continues to be highly effective as defined by the criteria in paragraph (D)(1) of this rule in achieving offsetting changes in fair value attributable to the hedged risk during the period that the economic hedge is designated.
(3) Amortized cost will be based on the value at purchase for eligible derivative instruments defined in paragraphs (C)(1)(a) and (C)(1)(b) of this rule. For eligible derivative instruments defined in paragraph (C)(1)(c) of this rule, amortized cost will be established at the beginning of a policy's crediting term based upon the company's best estimate of the expected cost of the strategy using well-established financial market mathematical models, formulae, or equations that use assumptions that maximize the use of verifiable inputs. Deviations from this estimate or other breakage on dynamic trading strategies will be recognized immediately.
(4) All income associated with eligible derivative instruments shall be recorded in the summary of operations, and shall be consistent with how the changes in indexed products are recorded.
(E) Indexed annuity products reserve calculation methodology
Insurance companies account for indexed annuity product reserves in accordance with sections 3903.72 to 3903.7211 of the Revised Code, and with the applicable actuarial guidelines and statutory accounting principles. Based on the current guidelines, this rule provides insurance companies with the ability to make the following adjustment, on a policy level, to their indexed annuity product reserves for any index crediting period that the policy is hedged by eligible derivative instruments that are accounted for in accordance with paragraph (D) of this rule:
(1) If an insurance company determines indexed annuity product reserves based on "Actuarial Guideline XXXV," the insurance company may assume the market value of the eligible derivative instruments associated with the current interest crediting period is zero, regardless of the observable market for such eligible derivative instruments. Cash surrender values used to determine the reserves shall be calculated consistently.
(2) At the conclusion of each interest crediting period, interest credited to an indexed annuity product shall be reflected in the reserves and cash surrender value as realized, based on the actual performance of the relevant external index.
(F) Indexed life product reserve calculation methodology
Insurance companies account for indexed life product reserves in accordance with the applicable actuarial guidelines and statutory accounting principles. This rule does not provide for any adjustment to the reserve calculation methodology for indexed life products.
(G) Other requirements
(1) Indexed annuity products. The alternative accounting practices prescribed by this rule must be applied during an index crediting period to both the eligible derivative instruments used to hedge indexed annuity products and the related indexed annuity product reserves.
(2) Indexed life products. The alternative accounting practices prescribed by this rule must be applied only to the eligible derivative instruments used to hedge indexed life products. This rule shall not impact the calculation of indexed life product reserves.
(3) If an insurance company elects to use the alternative accounting practices prescribed by this rule, it shall report quarterly to the superintendent, for analysis purposes:
(a) The market value of its eligible derivative instruments and what the related actuarial reserves would be using market value of such eligible derivative instruments, and the documentation the economic hedge is and remains highly effective required by paragraph (D)(2) of this rule.
(b) For hedging activity that uses the dynamic hedging strategy, the company shall report:
(i) The estimate of amortized cost, including the assumptions used in financial market models; and
(ii) The amount of deviation from the estimate of amortized cost recognized during the period reported.
(4) Application of this rule is not mandatory. An insurance company that elects to use the alternative accounting practices prescribed by this rule may not elect to change its accounting practices back to those that would apply in the absence of this rule without the prior approval of the superintendent.
(H) Severability
If any paragraph, term or provision of this rule is adjudged invalid for any reason, the judgment shall not affect, impair or invalidate any other paragraph, term or provision of this rule, but the remaining paragraphs, terms and provisions shall be and continue in full force and effect.
Last updated December 16, 2025 at 11:13 AM
History
- Effective: April 15, 2021
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Chapter 3901-2 Proxies, Consents, and Authorizations of Domestic Stock Insurance
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-2-01 Application of Chapter 3901-2 of the Administrative Code.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to set forth the application of Chapter 3901-2 of the Administrative Code.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041 and 3901.31 of the Revised Code.
(C) No domestic stock insurance company subject to division (D) of section 3901.31 of the Revised Code, or any director, officer, or employee of such insurer, or any other person, may solicit, or permit the use of the person's name to solicit, by mail or otherwise, any proxy, consent, or authorization with respect to any such class of equity securities in contravention of Chapter 3901-2 of the Administrative Code. A domestic stock insurer that files with the securities and exchange commission with respect to any class of securities forms of proxies, consents, and authorizations complying with the requirements of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, as amended, and regulation 14A promulgated thereunder, is exempt from the provisions of Chapter 3901-2 of the Administrative Code with respect to such class of securities.
(D) Unless proxies, consents or authorizations respecting any class of equity securities of a domestic insurer subject to Chapter 3901-2 of the Administrative Code are solicited by or on behalf of the management of such insurer from the holders of record of such securities in accordance with this chapter prior to any annual or other meeting of such security holders, such insurer shall file with the superintendent of insurance and transmit to every security holder who is entitled to vote regarding any matter to be acted upon at the meeting and from whom a proxy is not solicited, a written information statement containing the information specified in rule 3901-2-15 of the Administrative Code.
(E) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated November 14, 2024 at 8:48 AM
History
- Effective: November 14, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-2-15
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to describe the information that must be included in an information statement when there is no proxy sought.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041 and 3901.31 of the Revised Code.
(C) Where any paragraph other than paragraph (H) of this rule calls for information with respect to any matter to be acted upon at the meeting, such paragraph should be answered only with respect to proposals to be made by the issuer.
(D) Information required by rule 3901-2-13 of the Administrative Code.
Furnish the information called for by rule 3901-2-13 of the Administrative Code regarding proxies, consents, and authorizations (other than paragraphs (C), (E), and (F) of this rule), which would be applicable to any matter to be acted upon at the meeting if proxies were to be solicited in connection with the meeting.
(E) Statement that proxies are not solicited
Include the following statement on the first page of the information statement in bold face type:
"WE ARE NOT ASKING YOU FOR A PROXY AND YOU ARE REQUESTED NOT TO SEND US A PROXY."
(F) Date, time, and place of meeting
State the date, time, and place of the meeting of security holders, unless such information is otherwise disclosed in material furnished to security holders with the information statement.
(G) Interest of certain persons in matters to be acted upon
Describe briefly any substantial interest, direct or indirect, by security holdings or otherwise, by each of the following persons in any matter to be acted upon, other than elections to office:
(1) Each person who has been a director or officer of the issuer at any time since the beginning of the last fiscal year.
(2) Each nominee for election as a director of the issuer.
(3) Each associate of the foregoing persons.
(4) Give the name of any director of the issuer who has informed the management in writing that the director intends to oppose any action to be taken by the management at the meeting and indicate the action which the director intends to oppose.
(H) If any security holder entitled to vote at the meeting has, not less than ninety days before the issuer's annual meeting, submitted to the issuer a proposal which is accompanied by notice of the security holder's intention to present the proposal for action at the meeting, make a statement to that effect, identify the proposal, and indicate the disposition proposed to be made of the proposal by the management at the meeting.
(I) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated November 14, 2024 at 8:52 AM
History
- Effective: November 14, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-2-02 Definitions.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to define certain terms as used in Chapter 3901-2 of the Administrative Code.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041 and 3901.31 of the Revised Code.
(C) Definitions
The following definitions apply unless the context otherwise requires:
(1) "Affiliate", or a "person affiliated with a specified person" means, a person who directly, or indirectly through one or more intermediaries, controls, or is controlled by, or is under common control with, the person specified.
(2) "Associate" means:
(a) Any corporation or organization (other than the issuer or a majority-owned subsidiary of the issuer) of which any person is an officer or partner or is, directly or indirectly, the beneficial owner of ten per cent or more of any class of equity securities;
(b) Any trust or other estate in which any person has a substantial beneficial interest or as to which any person serves as trustee or in a similar fiduciary capacity; or
(c) Any relative or spouse of any person, or any relative of such spouse, who has the same home as any person or who is a director or officer of the issuer or any of its parents or subsidiaries.
(3) "Beneficial owner" means any person who, directly or indirectly, through any contract, arrangement, understanding, relationship, or otherwise has or shares:
(a) Voting power including the power to vote, or the power to direct voting of, a security; or
(b) Investment power including the power to dispose of, or the power to direct the disposition of, such security.
(4) "Control" (including the terms "controlling," "controlled by," and "under common control with") means the possession, directly or indirectly, of the power to direct or cause the direction of the management and policies of a person, whether through the ownership of voting securities, by contract, or otherwise.
(5) "Issuer" means the issuer of the securities for which a proxy is solicited.
(6) "Last fiscal year" of the issuer means the most recent fiscal year of the issuer ending prior to the date of the meeting for which proxies are to be solicited.
(7) "Officer" means the president, secretary, treasurer, any vice president in charge of a principal business function (such as sales, administration or finance), and any other person who performs similar policy-making functions for the issuer.
(8) "Parent of a specified person" means an affiliate controlling such person, directly or indirectly, through one or more intermediaries.
(9) "Person" means an individual, a corporation, a partnership, an association, a joint stock company, a trust, any unincorporated organization, or a government or political subdivision thereof. As used in this paragraph, the term "trust" shall include only a trust where the interest or interests of the beneficiary or beneficiaries are evidenced by a security.
(10) "Proxy statement" means the statement required by rule 3901-2-04 of the Administrative Code, whether or not contained in a single document.
(11) "Solicit" and "solicitation" mean:
(a) Any request for a proxy whether or not accompanied by or included in a form of proxy;
(b) Any request to execute or not to execute, or to revoke, a proxy; or
(c) The furnishing of a form of proxy or other communication to security holders under circumstances reasonably calculated to result in the procurement, withholding, or revocation of a proxy.
The terms do not apply to the furnishing of a form of proxy to a security holder upon the unsolicited request of such security holder, the performance by the issuer of acts required by rule 3901-2-08 of the Administrative Code, or the performance by any person of ministerial acts on behalf of a person soliciting a proxy.
(D) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated November 14, 2024 at 8:49 AM
History
- Effective: November 14, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-2-04
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to identify information that should be furnished to security holders in solicitations subject to Chapter 3901-2 of the Administrative Code.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041 and 3901.31 of the Revised Code.
(C) No solicitation subject to this chapter may be made unless each person solicited is concurrently furnished or has previously been furnished with a written proxy statement containing the information specified in rule 3901-2-13 of the Administrative Code.
(D) If the solicitation is made on behalf of the issuer and relates to an annual meeting of security holders at which directors are to be elected, each proxy statement shall be accompanied by an annual report to security holders that includes the following:
(1) In comparative columnar form, such financial statements for the last two fiscal years, prepared on a consistent basis, as will in the opinion of the management adequately reflect the financial position of the issuer at the end of each such year and the results of its operations for each such year and include consolidated financial statements of the issuer and its subsidiaries in the report if they are necessary to reflect the financial position and results of operations of the issuer and its subsidiaries, but in such case, the individual statements of the issuer may be omitted. The superintendent of insurance may, upon the request of the issuer, permit the omission of financial statements for the earlier of such two fiscal years upon a showing of good cause therefor.
(2) The financial statements for the last two fiscal years required by paragraph (D)(1) of this rule prepared in a manner acceptable to the superintendent of insurance.
(3) In comparative columnar form, a summary of the issuer's operations, the operations of the issuer and its subsidiaries consolidated, or both as appropriate, for each of the last five fiscal years of the issuer (or the life of the issuer and its predecessors, if less).
(4) A brief description of the business or businesses done by the issuer and its subsidiaries during the most recent fiscal year which will, in the opinion of management, indicate the general nature and scope of the business of the issuer and its subsidiaries.
(5) Each of the issuer's directors and officers, the principal occupation or employment of each such person, and the name and principal business of any organization by which such person is so employed.
(6) The principal market in which securities of any class entitled to vote at the meeting are traded, stating the range of bid and asked quotations for each quarterly period during the issuer's two most recent fiscal years, including each dividend paid during such two-year period.
(7) Subject to the foregoing requirements, the report may be in any form deemed suitable by management and the information required by paragraphs (D)(3) to (D)(6) of this rule may be presented in an appendix or other separate section of the report, provided that the attention of security holders is called to such presentation.
(8) Paragraph (D) of this rule does not apply to solicitations made on behalf of the management before the financial statements are available if a solicitation is being made at the time in opposition to the management and if the management's proxy statement includes an undertaking in bold face type to furnish such annual report to all persons being solicited, at least twenty days before the date of the meeting.
(E) Two copies of the report sent to security holders pursuant to this rule shall be mailed to the superintendent of insurance, solely for the superintendent's information, not later than the date on which such report was first sent or given to security holders or the date on which preliminary copies of solicitation material are filed, pursuant to rule 3901-2-07 of the Administrative Code, whichever date is later.
(F) If the issuer knows that securities of any class entitled to vote at a meeting with respect to which the issuer intends to solicit proxies, consents or authorizations are held of record by a broker, dealer, bank or voting trustee, or their nominees, the issuer shall inquire of such record holder at least ten days prior to the record date for the meeting of security holders whether other persons are the beneficial owners of such securities and, if so, the number of copies of the proxy and other soliciting material and, in the case of an annual meeting at which directors are to be elected, the number of copies of the annual report to security holders, necessary to supply such material to beneficial owners. The issuer shall supply such record holder in a timely manner with additional copies in such quantities, assembled in such form and at such a place, as the record holder may reasonably request in order to address and send one copy of each to each beneficial owner of securities so held, and upon the request of such record holder, pay its reasonable expenses for mailing such material to security holders to whom the material is sent.
(G) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated November 14, 2024 at 8:49 AM
History
- Effective: November 14, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-2-08
If the management of the issuer has made or intends to make any solicitation subject to this chapter, the issuer shall perform such of the following acts as may be duly requested in writing with respect to the same subject matter or meeting by any security holder who is, or security holders who are, entitled to vote at least one per cent of the votes entitled to be voted on such matter and who shall defray the reasonable expenses to be incurred by the issuer in the performance of the act or acts requested.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to set forth mailing communications requirements for security holders.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041 and 3901.31 of the Revised Code.
(C) The issuer shall mail or otherwise furnish to such security holder, as promptly as practicable after the receipt of such request:
(1) A statement of the approximate number of record owners and, to the extent known to the issuer, the approximate number of beneficial owners of any class of securities, any of whom have been or are to be solicited on behalf of the management, or any group of whom the security holder shall designate.
(2) An estimate of the cost of mailing a specified proxy statement, form of proxy, or other communication to such owners.
(D)
(1) Copies of any proxy statement, form of proxy, or other communication furnished by the security holder shall be mailed by the issuer to such of the security owners specified in paragraph (C)(1) of this rule as the security holder designates.
(2) Such material furnished by the security holder shall be mailed with reasonable promptness after receipt of the material to be mailed, envelopes or other containers therefor, and postage or payment for postage. The issuer need not mail any such material prior to the first day on which solicitation is made on behalf of the issuer.
(3) The issuer shall not be responsible for such proxy statement, form of proxy, or other communication.
(E) In lieu of performing the acts specified in this rule, the issuer may, at its option, furnish promptly to such security holder a reasonably current list of the names and addresses of such of the record owners and, to the extent known to the issuer, the beneficial owners as the security holder designates, and a schedule of the handling and mailing costs if such schedule has been supplied to the issuer.
(F) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated November 14, 2024 at 8:50 AM
History
- Effective: November 14, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-2-03 Solicitations to which Chapter 3901-2 of the Administrative Code applies.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to identify specific rules that apply to solicitations subject to Chapter 3901-2 of the Administrative Code.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041 and 3901.31 of the Revised Code.
(C)
Rule 3901-2-10 of the Administrative Code applies to every solicitation that is subject to this chapter. Rules 3901-2-02 to 3901-2-09 and 3901-2-11 of the Administrative Code apply to every solicitation that is subject to this chapter except the following:
(1) Any solicitation made otherwise than on behalf of the issuer where the total number of persons solicited is not more than ten.
(2) Any solicitation by a person respecting securities carried in the person's name, in the name of the person's nominee (otherwise than as voting trustee), or held in the person's custody, if such person:
(a) Receives no commission or remuneration for such solicitation, directly or indirectly, other than reimbursement of reasonable expenses;
(b) Furnishes promptly to the person solicited a copy of all soliciting material with respect to the same subject matter or meeting received from all persons who shall furnish copies thereof for such purpose and, if requested, defray the reasonable expenses to be incurred in forwarding such material; and
(c) In addition, does no more than impartially instruct the person solicited to forward a proxy to the person, if any, to whom the person solicited desires to give a proxy, or impartially request from the person solicited instructions as to the authority to be conferred by the proxy and state that a proxy will be given if no instructions are received by a certain date.
(3) Any solicitation by a person respecting securities of which the person is the beneficial owner.
(4) Any solicitation through the medium of a newspaper advertisement that informs security holders of a source from which they may obtain copies of a proxy statement, form of proxy, and any other soliciting material and does no more than:
(a) Name the issuer;
(b) State the reason for the advertisement; and
(c) Identify the proposal or proposals to be acted upon by security holders.
(5) Any solicitation that the superintendent of insurance finds for good cause should be exempted from this chapter or any part thereof.
(D) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated November 14, 2024 at 8:49 AM
History
- Effective: November 14, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-2-10
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to prohibit false or misleading statements from a proxy statement, form of proxy, notice of meeting, information statement, or other communication subject to Chapter 3901-2 of the Administrative Code.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041 and 3901.31 of the Revised Code.
(C)
No proxy statement, form of proxy, notice of meeting, information statement, or other communication, written or oral, subject to this rule, may contain any statement that at the time and in the light of the circumstances under which it is made, is false or misleading with respect to any material fact or which omits to state any material fact necessary to make the statements therein not false or misleading or is necessary to correct any statement in any earlier communication with respect to the same meeting or subject matter which has become false or misleading.
(D) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated November 14, 2024 at 8:51 AM
History
- Effective: November 14, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-2-13
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to describe in detail and provide the format for the information that must be included in a proxy statement.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041 and 3901.31 of the Revised Code.
(C) Revocability of proxy
State whether the person giving the proxy has the power to revoke it. If the right of revocation before the proxy is exercised is limited, or is subject to compliance with any formal procedure, briefly describe such limitation or procedure.
(D) Dissenters' rights of appraisal
Outline briefly any rights of appraisal or similar rights of dissenters with respect to any matter to be acted upon and indicate any statutory procedure required to be followed by dissenting security holders to perfect such rights. Where such rights may be exercised only within a limited time after the date of adoption of a proposal, the filing of a charter amendment or other similar act, state whether the person solicited will be notified of such date.
(E) Persons making the solicitation
(1) Solicitations not subject to rule 3901-2-12 of the Administrative Code.
(a) If the solicitation is made by the issuer, so state. Give the name of any director of the issuer who has informed the issuer in writing that the director intends to oppose any action intended to be taken by the issuer and indicate the action which the director intends to oppose.
(b) If the solicitation is made otherwise than by the issuer, so state and give the names of the persons by whom and on whose behalf it is made.
(c) If the solicitation is not to be made by the use of mail, describe the methods to be employed. If the solicitation is to be made by specially engaged employees or paid solicitors, state:
(i) The material features of any contract or agreement for such solicitation and identify the parties; and
(ii) The cost or anticipated cost thereof.
(d) State the names of the persons by whom the cost of solicitation has been or will be borne, directly or indirectly.
(2) Solicitations subject to rule 3901-2-12 of the Administrative Code.
(a) State by whom the solicitation is made and describe the methods employed and to be employed to solicit security holders.
(b) If regular employees of the issuer or any other participant in a solicitation have been or are to be employed to solicit security holders, describe the class or classes of employees to be so employed and the manner and nature of their employment for such purpose.
(c) If specially engaged employees, representatives, or other persons have been or are to be employed to solicit security holders, state:
(i) The material features of any contract or arrangement for such solicitation and identify the parties;
(ii) The cost or anticipated cost thereof; and
(iii) The approximate number of such employees or employees of any other person (naming such other person) who will solicit security holders.
(d) State the total amount estimated to be spent and the total expenditures to date for, in furtherance of, or in connection with, the solicitation of security holders.
(e) State by whom the cost of the solicitation will be borne. If reimbursement will be sought from the issuer, state whether the question of such reimbursement will be submitted to a vote of security holders.
(f) If any such solicitation is terminated pursuant to a settlement between the issuer and any other participant in such solicitation, describe the terms of such settlement, including the cost or anticipated cost thereof to the issuer.
(F) Interest of certain persons in matters to be acted upon.
(1) Solicitations not subject to rule 3901-2-12 of the Administrative Code.
Describe briefly any substantial interest, direct or indirect, of each of the following persons in any matter to be acted upon, other than elections to office:
(a) If the solicitation is made on behalf of the issuer, each current director or officer of the issuer.
(b) If the solicitation is made otherwise than on behalf of the issuer, any person who would be a participant in a solicitation (except the issuer, officer, director, or nominee of the issuer).
(c) Each nominee for election as a director of the issuer.
(d) Each associate of the foregoing persons.
(2) Solicitations subject to rule 3901-2-12 of the Administrative Code.
Describe briefly any substantial interest, direct or indirect, of each participant (except the issuer) in any matter to be acted upon at the meeting and include, with respect to each participant, the information or an adequate summary thereof, required by paragraphs (D)(1), (D)(3), (E), (F)(2), and (F)(3) of rule 3901-2-14 of the Administrative Code.
(G) Voting securities and principal holders thereof.
(1) State as to each class of voting securities of the issuer entitled to be voted at the meeting, the number of shares outstanding and the number of votes to which each class is entitled.
(2) Give the date as of which the record of security holders entitled to vote at the meeting will be determined. If the right to vote is not limited to security holders of record on that date, indicate the conditions under which other security holders may be entitled to vote.
(3) If action is to be taken with respect to the election of directors and if the persons solicited have cumulative voting rights:
(a) Make a statement that they have such rights;
(b) Describe such rights;
(c) State the conditions precedent to the exercise thereof; and
(d) If discretionary authority to cumulate votes is solicited, so indicate.
(4) Furnish security ownership information as of the most recent practicable date, in substantially the tabular form set forth in appendix I to this rule, with respect to:
(a) Any person or group of persons who is known to be the beneficial owner of more than five per cent of any class of securities; and
(b) All directors and nominees, naming them, and directors and officers of the issuer as a group, without naming them.
(5) If, to the knowledge of the persons on whose behalf the solicitation is made, a change in control of the issuer has occurred since the beginning of its last fiscal year, state the name of the person(s) who acquired control, the amount and the source of the consideration used by such person or persons, the basis of the control, the date, a description of the transaction(s) which resulted in the change of control, and the percentage of voting securities of the issuer now beneficially owned, directly or indirectly, by the person(s) who acquired control and the identity of the person(s) from whom control was assumed. Describe any arrangements which may at a subsequent date result in a change of control of the issuer.
(H) Directors and executive officers.
If action is to be taken with respect to election of directors, furnish the following information, in tabular form to the extent practicable, with respect to each person nominated for election as a director and each person whose term of office will continue after the meeting. If the solicitation is made on behalf of persons other than the issuer, the information required need be furnished only as to nominees of the persons making the solicitation.
(1) Identification of directors and officers. List the names and ages of all directors and officers of the issuer and all persons nominated or chosen to become directors or officers; indicate all positions and offices with the issuer held by each such person; state such person's term of office as director or officer and any period(s) during which such person has served as such; briefly describe any arrangement or understanding between such person and any other person or persons, naming such person(s), pursuant to which such person was or is to be selected as a director, officer, or nominee.
(2) Information furnished in issuer's annual report. The information regarding officers need not be furnished in proxy or information statements provided that such information is furnished in a separate item in the issuer's annual report to stockholders.
(3) Family relationships. State the nature of any family relationship not more remote than first cousin between any director, officer, or person nominated or chosen by the issuer to become a director or officer, and any such family relationship between any such person and any officer or director of any of the issuer's parents, subsidiaries, or other affiliates.
(4) Business experience. State the principal occupations and employment during the past five years of each director or officer and each person nominated or chosen to become a director or officer and the name and principal business of any corporation or other organization in which such occupations and employment were carried on.
(5) Directorships. Indicate other directorships held by each director or person nominated or chosen to become a director.
(6) Involvement in certain legal proceedings. Describe any legal proceedings that have occurred during the past five years or which are pending that are material to an evaluation of the ability or integrity of any director, or person nominated to become a director or officer of the issuer.
(7) Describe any of the following relationships which exist.
(a) If the nominee or director is, or has within the last two full fiscal years been, an officer, director, or employee of, or owns, or has within the last two fiscal years owned, directly or indirectly, in excess of a one per cent equity interest in any firm, corporation, or other business or professional entity:
(i) Which has made payments to the issuer or its subsidiaries during the issuer's last full fiscal year or which proposes to make payments to the issuer or its subsidiaries during the current fiscal year in excess of one per cent of the issuer's consolidated gross revenues for its last full fiscal year;
(ii) To which the issuer or its subsidiaries were indebted at any time during the issuer's last fiscal year in an aggregate amount in excess of one per cent of the issuer's total consolidated assets at the end of such fiscal year;
(iii) To which the issuer or its subsidiaries have made payments during such entity's last fiscal year or to which the issuer or its subsidiaries propose to make payments during such entity's current fiscal year in excess of one per cent of such entity's consolidated gross revenues for its last full fiscal year;
(iv) To determine whether payments made or proposed to be made exceed one per cent of the consolidated gross revenues of any entity, other than the issuer for such entity's last full fiscal year, it is appropriate to rely on information provided by the nominee or director;
(v) In calculating payments for property and services the following may be excluded:
(a) Payments where the rates or charges involved in the transaction are determined by competitive bids or the transaction involves the rendering of services as a public utility at rates or charges fixed in conformity with law or governmental authority;
(b) Payments which arise solely from the ownership of securities of the issuer and no extra or special benefit not shared on a pro rata basis by all holders of the class of securities is received.
(vi) In calculating indebtedness for purposes of paragraph (H)(7)(a)(ii) of this rule, debt securities which have been publicly offered, admitted to trading on a national securities exchange, or quoted in the automated quotation system of a registered securities association may be excluded.
(b) If the nominee or director is a member, employee of, or is associated with a law firm which the issuer has retained in the last two full fiscal years or proposes to retain in the current fiscal year where fees paid or anticipated to be paid by the issuer are material to either the law firm, the issuer, or both.
(c) If the nominee or director is a director, partner, officer, or employee of any investment banking firm which has performed services for the issuer other than as a participating underwriter in a syndicate in the last two full fiscal years or which the issuer proposes to have perform services in the current year.
(d) If the nominee or director is a control person of the issuer (other than solely as a director of the issuer).
(8) Audit:
(a) State whether the issuer has standing audit, nominating, and compensation committees of the board of directors, or committees performing similar functions. If the issuer has such committees, however designated, identify each committee member, state the number of committee meetings held by each such committee during the last fiscal year, and describe briefly the functions performed by such committees.
(b) If the issuer has a nominating or similar committee, state whether the committee will consider nominees recommended by shareholders and, if so, describe the procedures to be followed by shareholders in submitting such recommendations.
(9) State the total number of meetings of the board of directors (including regularly scheduled and special meetings) which were held during the last full fiscal year. Name each incumbent director who during the last full fiscal year attended fewer than seventy-five per cent of the aggregate of:
(a) The total number of meetings of the board of directors (held during the period for which he has been a director); and
(b) The total number of meetings held by all committees of the board on which the incumbent director(s) served (during the periods that the incumbent director(s) served).
(10) If a director has resigned or declined to stand for reelection to the board of directors since the date of the last annual meeting of shareholders because of a disagreement with the issuer on any matter relating to the issuer's operations, policies, or practices, and if the director has furnished the issuer with a letter describing such disagreement and requesting that the matter be disclosed, the issuer shall state the date of resignation or declination to stand for reelection and summarize the director's description of the disagreement. If the issuer believes that the description provided by the director is incorrect or incomplete, the issuer may include a brief statement presenting its views on the disagreement.
(11) With respect to those classes of voting stock which participated in the election of directors at the most recent meeting at which directors were elected:
(a) State the percentage of shares present at the meeting and voting or withholding authority to vote in the election of directors; and
(b) Disclose in tabular format, the percentage of total shares cast for and withheld from the vote for or, where applicable, cast against, each nominee, which, respectively, were voted for and withheld from the vote for, or voted against, such nominee. When groups of classes or series of classes vote together in the election of a director or directors, they shall be treated as a single class for the purpose of the preceding sentence.
(12) Instructions:
(a) Calculate the percentage of shares present at the meeting and voting or withholding authority to vote in the election of directors, referred to in paragraph (H)(11)(a) of this rule, by dividing the total shares cast for and withheld from the vote for or, where applicable, voted against, the director in respect of whom the highest aggregate number of shares was cast by the total number of shares outstanding which were eligible to vote as of the record date for the meeting.
(b) No information need be given in response to paragraph (H)(11) of this rule unless, with respect to any class of voting stock (or group of classes which voted together), five per cent or more of the total shares cast for and withheld from the votes for or, where applicable, cast against any nominee were withheld from the vote for or cast against such nominee.
(c) If an issuer elects less than the entire board of directors annually, disclosure is required as to all directors if five per cent or more of the total shares cast for and withheld from the votes for, or, where applicable, cast against any incumbent director were withheld from, or cast against the vote for such director at the meeting at which he was most recently elected.
(d) No information need be given in response to paragraph (H)(11) of this rule if the issuer has previously furnished to its security holders a report of the most recent meeting of security holders at which directors were elected which includes:
(i) A description of each matter voted upon at the meeting and a statement of the percentage of the shares voting which were voted for and against each such matter; and
(ii) The information which would be called for by paragraph (H)(11) of this rule. If an issuer has previously furnished such results to its security holders, this fact should be set forth in a letter accompanying the filing of preliminary proxy materials with the superintendent of insurance.
(I) Remuneration of directors and officers.
(1) Furnish the following information if action is to be taken with regard to:
(a) The election of directors;
(b) Any bonus, profit sharing or other remuneration plan, contract, or arrangement in which any director, nominee for election as a director, or officer of the issuer will participate;
(c) Any pension or retirement plan in which any such person will participate; or
(d) The granting or extension to any such person of any options, warrants or rights to purchase any securities, other than warrants or rights issued to security holders as such, on a pro rata basis. If the solicitation is made on behalf of persons other than the issuer, the information required need be furnished only as to nominees of the person making the solicitation and associates of such nominees.
(2) Current remuneration. Furnish the information required below, in substantially the tabular form set forth in appendix II to this rule, concerning all remuneration of the following persons and groups for services in all capacities to the issuer and its subsidiaries during the issuer's last fiscal year, or, in specified instances, certain prior fiscal years:
(a) Five officers or directors. Each of the five most highly compensated officers or directors of the issuer as to whom the total remuneration required to be disclosed in columns C1 and C2 of the table set forth in appendix II to this rule, would exceed fifty thousand dollars, naming each such person; and
(b) All officers or directors. All officers and directors of the issuer as a group, stating the number of persons in the group without naming them.
(c) Information to be included. Columns C1, C2, and D of the table set forth in appendix II to this rule should contain, with respect to each person or group of persons specified in paragraphs (I)(2)(a) and (I)(2)(b) of this rule, a dollar amount which reflects the total of all items of remuneration described in the heading to that column including, but not necessarily limited to, those items set forth in the subparagraphs of that column.
(i) Column C of the table set forth in appendix II to this rule shall include all cash and cash equivalent forms of remuneration received during the fiscal year and all such amounts accrued during the fiscal year which, with reasonable certainty, will be distributed or vested in the future.
(ii) Column C1 of the table set forth in appendix II to this rule shall include salaries, bonuses, fees, and commissions, including:
(a) All cash remuneration distributed or accrued in the form of salaries, commissions, bonuses, and fees for services rendered.
(b) Compensation earned for services performed in the latest fiscal year even if it is deferred for future payment.
(c) Payments received in the latest fiscal year but earned in prior years which were deferred until the latest year, if such amounts were not shown in an earlier proxy statement or annual report to stockholders.
(iii) Column C2 of the table set forth in appendix II to this rule shall include securities, property, insurance benefits or reimbursements, and personal benefits (perquisites), including:
(a) The spread between the acquisition price, if any, and fair market price of securities or property acquired under any contract, plan, or arrangement.
(b) Cost of any life insurance premiums, health insurance premiums, and medical reimbursement plans. Premiums for nondiscriminatory plans generally available to all salaried employees are excluded.
(c) Personal benefits (perquisites) not directly related to job performance, excluding benefits provided on a nondiscriminatory basis, valued on the basis of cost to the issuer of providing such benefits.
(i) If unreasonable effort or expense is required to determine the amounts of personal benefits, they may be omitted if their aggregate value does not exceed ten thousand dollars for each officer.
(ii) If the amount of personal benefits exceed ten per cent of the amount of total remuneration, or twenty-five thousand dollars, whichever is less, the amount and a brief description of the benefits must be disclosed in a footnote.
(d) Vested company contributions to thrift, profit sharing, pension, stock purchase, and similar plans.
(iv) Column D of the table set forth in appendix II to this rule shall include all contingent forms of remuneration, vesting, and measurement of which is subject to future events. Report only amounts relating to the latest fiscal year, not amounts accrued in previous periods. Column D shall also include:
(a) The amount expensed for financial reporting purposes representing nonvested contributions, payments, or accruals under any pension or retirement plans, annuities, employment contracts, and deferred compensation plans, including IRS qualified plans, unless the amount for the individual cannot be separated, in which case a footnote is required indicating the percentage which contributions to the plan bear to participants' total remuneration.
(b) The amounts expensed for financial reporting purposes under any incentive compensation plans (long-term income plans), such as stock appreciation rights, stock options, and performance share plans, where the payout is based on objective standards or stock values. In subsequent years, if the corporation credits compensation expense for financial reporting purposes as a result of a decline in the value of contingent compensation, column D may be reduced by a corresponding amount. A footnote explaining such action should be included.
(c) The amount expensed for financial reporting purposes for any nonvested contribution payment or accrual to stock purchase plans, profit sharing, and thrift plans whether or not they are qualified under the Internal Revenue Code.
(d) Transactions with third parties. Paragraph (I)(2) of this rule, among other things, includes transactions between the issuer and a third party when the primary purpose of the transaction is to furnish remuneration to the persons specified in paragraph (I)(2) of this rule. Other transactions between the issuer and third parties in which persons specified in paragraph (I)(2) of this rule have an interest, or may realize a benefit, generally are addressed by other disclosure requirements concerning the interest of management and others in certain transactions. Paragraph (I)(2) of this rule does not require disclosure of remuneration paid to a partnership in which any officer or director was a partner; any such transaction should be disclosed pursuant to these other disclosure requirements and not as a note to the remuneration table set forth in appendix II to this rule presented pursuant to paragraph (I)(2) of this rule.
(e) Other permitted disclosure. The issuer may provide additional disclosure through a footnote to the table set forth in appendix II to this rule, through additional columns, or otherwise describing the components of aggregate renumeration in such greater detail as is appropriate.
(3) Proposed remuneration:
(a) Briefly describe all remuneration payments proposed to be made in the future, pursuant to any existing plan or arrangement to the persons and groups specified in paragraph (I)(2) of this rule. As to defined benefit or actuarial plans with respect to which amounts are not included in the table set forth in appendix II to this rule, include a separate table showing the estimated annual benefits payable upon retirement to persons in specified remuneration and years-of-service classification.
(b) Information need not be furnished with respect to any group life, health, hospitalization, or medical reimbursement plans which do not discriminate in favor of officers or directors of the issuer and which are available generally to all salaried employees.
(4) Remuneration of directors. Describe any standard or special arrangements, stating amounts, by which directors of the issuer are compensated for services as a director.
(5) Options, warrants, or rights:
(a) Furnish the information required by the table set forth in appendix III to this rule as to all options to purchase securities from the issuer or its subsidiaries which were granted to or exercised by the persons and groups specified in paragraph (I)(2) of this rule since the beginning of the issuer's last fiscal year, and as to all options held by such persons as of the latest practicable date.
(b) The information included in the table set forth in appendix III to this rule will show as to each director, officer, and as to all directors and officers as a group:
(i) The amount of options granted since the beginning of the issuer's last full fiscal year;
(ii) The amount of shares acquired since the date through the exercise of options;
(iii) The amount of shares of the same class sold during such period; and
(iv) The amount of shares subject to all unexercised options held as of the most recent practicable date.
(c) Instructions:
(i) All figures should be adjusted, where applicable, in accordance with the terms of the options to reflect stock splits and to give effect to share dividends.
(ii) Other tabular presentations are acceptable if they include the necessary data. Tabular presentation may not be needed if only a limited number of options have been granted.
(iii) Total market value:
(a) Where the total market value on the granting dates of the securities called for by all options granted during the period specified does not exceed ten thousand dollars for any officer or director named in answer to paragraph (I)(2) of this rule, or forty thousand dollars for all officers and directors as a group, this item need not be answered with respect to options granted to such person or group.
(b) Where the total market value on the dates of purchase of all securities purchased through the exercise of options during the period specified does not exceed ten thousand dollars for any such person or forty thousand dollars for such group, this item need not be answered with respect to options exercised by such person or group.
(c) Where the total market value as of the latest practicable date of the securities called for by all options held at such time does not exceed ten thousand dollars for any such person or forty thousand dollars for such group, this item need not be answered with respect to options held as of the specified date by such person or group.
(d) The term "options" as used in paragraph (I)(5) of this rule includes all options, warrants, or rights, other than those issued to security holders as such on a pro rata basis. Where the average option price per share is called for, the weighted average price per share shall be given.
(e) The extension, regranting or material amendment of options is deemed the granting of options within the meaning of paragraph (I)(5) of this rule.
(f) If the options relate to more than one class of securities, the information shall be given separately for each such class.
(6) Indebtedness of management.
(a) State as to each of the following persons who was indebted to the issuer or its subsidiaries at any time since the beginning of the last fiscal year of the issuer:
(i) The largest aggregate amount of indebtedness outstanding at any time during such period;
(ii) The nature of the indebtedness outstanding and the transaction in which it was incurred;
(iii) The amount thereof outstanding as of the latest practicable date; and
(iv) The rate of interest paid or charged thereon:
(a) Each director or officer of the issuer;
(b) Each nominee for election as a director; and
(c) Each associate of any such director, officer, or nominee.
(b) Paragraph (I)(6) of this rule does not apply to:
(i) Any person whose aggregate indebtedness did not exceed ten thousand dollars or one per cent of the issuer's total assets, whichever is less, at any time during the period specified; or
(ii) Indebtedness under an insurance policy.
(7) Transactions with management.
(a) Describe briefly any transaction since the beginning of the issuer's last fiscal year or any presently proposed transactions, to which the issuer or any of its subsidiaries was or is to be a party, in which any of the following persons had or is to have a direct or indirect material interest, naming such person and stating such person's relationship to the issuer, the nature of such person's interest in the transaction, and, where practicable, the amount of such interest:
(i) Any director or officer of the issuer;
(ii) Any nominee for election as a director;
(iii) Any security holder who is known to the issuer to own of record of beneficially more than ten per cent of any class of the issuer's voting securities; and
(iv) Any relative or spouse of any of the foregoing persons, or any relative of such spouse, who has the same home as such person or who is a director or officer of any parent or subsidiary of the issuer.
(b) Describe briefly any material legal proceedings to which any such person is a party adverse to the issuer or any of its subsidiaries or has a material interest adverse to the issuer or any of its subsidiaries.
(c) No information need be given in response to paragraph (I)(7) of this rule as to any remuneration or other transaction reported in response to paragraph (I)(2), (I)(3), (I)(4), (I)(5), or (I)(6) of this rule, or as to any transaction with respect to which information may be omitted pursuant to these items.
(d) No information need be given in answer to paragraph (I)(7) of this rule as to any transaction where:
(i) The rates or charges involved in the transaction are determined by competitive bids, or at rates or charges fixed in conformity with law or governmental authority;
(ii) The transaction involves services as a bank depository of funds, transfer agent, registrar, trustee under a trust indenture, or similar services;
(iii) The amount involved in the transactions or series of similar transactions, including all periodic installments in the case of any lease or other agreement providing for periodic payments or installments, does not exceed forty thousand dollars; or
(iv) The interest of the specified person arises solely from the ownership of securities of the issuer and the specified person receives no extra or special benefit not shared on a pro rata basis by all holders of securities of the class.
(e) This item calls for disclosure of indirect, as well as direct, material interests in transactions. A person who has a position or relationship with a firm, corporation, or other entity, which engages in a transaction with the issuer or its subsidiaries, may have an indirect interest in such transaction by reason of such position or relationship. A person does not to have a material indirect interest in a transaction within the meaning of paragraph (I)(7) of this rule where:
(i) The interest arises only:
(a) From such person's position as a director of another corporation or organization (other than a partnership) which is a party to the transaction; or
(b) From the direct or indirect ownership by such person and all other persons specified in paragraph (I)(7) of this rule of less than a ten per cent equity interest in another person (other than a partnership) which is a party to the transaction; or
(c) From both such position and ownership.
(ii) The interest arises only from such person's position as a limited partner in a partnership in which that person and all other persons specified in paragraph (I)(7) of this rule had an interest of less than ten per cent; or
(iii) The interest of such person arises solely from the holding of an equity interest (including a limited partnership interest but excluding a general partnership interest) or a creditor interest in another person which is a party to the transaction with the issuer or any of its subsidiaries and the transaction is not material to such other person.
(f) Instructions:
(i) In describing any transactions involving the purchase or sale of assets by or to the issuer or any of its subsidiaries, otherwise than in the ordinary course of business, state the cost of the assets to the purchaser and, if acquired by the seller within two years prior to the transaction, the cost thereof to the seller. Indicate the principle followed in determining the issuer's purchase or sale price and the name of the person making such determination.
(ii) Information shall be furnished in answer to this item with respect to transactions not excluded above which involve remuneration from the issuer or its subsidiaries, directly or indirectly, to any of the specified persons for services in any capacity unless the interest of such persons arises solely from the ownership individually and in the aggregate of less than ten per cent of any class of equity securities of another corporation furnishing the services to the issuer or its subsidiaries.
(8) Transactions with pension or similar plans:
(a) Describe briefly any transactions since the beginning of the issuer's last fiscal year, or any presently proposed transactions, to which any pension, retirement, savings or similar plan provided by the issuer, or any of its parents or subsidiaries was or is to be a party, in which any of the persons specified in paragraph (I)(7) of this rule or the issuer or any of its subsidiaries had or is to have a direct or indirect material interest, naming such person and stating such person's relationship to the issuer, the nature of such person's interest in the transaction and, where practicable, the amount of such interest.
(b) No information need be given in answer to paragraph (I)(8) of this rule with respect to:
(i) Payments to the plan, or payments to beneficiaries, pursuant to the terms of the plan;
(ii) Payment of remuneration for services not in excess of five per cent of the aggregate remuneration received by the specified person during the issuer's last fiscal year from the issuer and its subsidiaries; or
(iii) Any interest of the issuer or any of its subsidiaries which arises solely from its general interest in the success of the plan.
(c) Instructions:
(i) Paragraph (I)(7)(c) of this rule applies to paragraph (I)(8) of this rule.
(ii) Without limiting the general meaning of the term "transaction," include any remuneration received or any loans received or outstanding during the period, or proposed to be received.
(J) Matters related to accounting. If the solicitation is made on behalf of the issuer and relates to an annual meeting of security holders at which directors are to be elected, or financial statements are included, furnish the following information:
(1) If the issuer's financial statements are not certified by independent public or certified accountants, so state.
(2) If the board of directors has no audit or similar committee, so state.
(3) If the issuer's financial statements are certified by independent public or certified accountants, so state and provide the following information:
(a) The name of the principal accountant selected or being recommended to shareholders for election, approval, or ratification for the current year. If no accountant has been elected or recommended, so state and briefly describe the reason therefor.
(b) The name of the principal accountant for the fiscal year most recently completed if different from the accountant selected or recommended for the current year or if no accountant has been elected or recommended for the current year.
(c) If a change or changes in accountants have taken place since the date of the proxy statement for the most recent annual meeting of shareholders, so state, and if in connection with such change(s) a material disagreement in connection with financial disclosure between the accountant and issuer has occurred, the disagreement shall be described. Prior to filing the preliminary proxy materials with the superintendent of insurance which contains or amends such description, the issuer shall furnish the description of the disagreement to any accountant with whom the disagreement has occurred. If that accountant believes that the description of the disagreement is incorrect or incomplete, the accountant may include a brief statement, not to exceed two hundred words, in the proxy statement presenting the accountant's view of the disagreement. This statement shall be submitted to the issuer within ten business days of the date the accountant receives the issuer's description.
(d) The proxy statement shall indicate whether representatives of the principal accountants for the current year and for the most recently completed fiscal year are expected to be present at the stockholders' meeting with the opportunity to make a statement if they desire to do so and whether such representatives are expected to be available to respond to appropriate questions.
(e) If any change in accountants has taken place since the date of the proxy statement for the most recent annual meeting of shareholders, state whether such change was recommended or approved by:
(i) Any audit or similar committee of the board of directors, if the issuer has such a committee; or
(ii) The board of directors, if the issuer has no such committee.
(4) For the fiscal year most recently completed, describe each professional service provided by the principal accountant and state the percentage relationship which the aggregate of the fees for all nonaudit services bear to the audit fees, and, except as provided in this paragraph, state the percentage relationship which the fee for each nonaudit service bears to the audit fees. Indicate whether, before each professional service provided by the principal accountant was rendered, it was approved by, and the possible effect on the independence of the accountant was considered by:
(a) Any audit or similar committee of the board of directors; and
(b) For any service not approved by an audit or similar committee, the board of directors.
(5) Instructions:
(a) For purposes of paragraph (J) of this rule, all fees for services provided in connection with the audit function (e.g., reviews of quarterly reports) may be computed as part of the audit fees. Indicate which services are reflected in the audit fees computation.
(b) If the fee for any nonaudit services is less than three per cent of the audit fees, the percentage relationship need not be disclosed.
(c) Each service should be specifically described. Broad general categories such as "tax matters" or "management advisory services" are not sufficiently specific.
(d) Describe the circumstances and give details of any services provided by the issuer's independent accountant during the latest fiscal year that were furnished at rates or terms that were not customary.
(e) Describe any existing direct or indirect understanding or agreement that places a limit on the current or future years' audit fees, including fee arrangements that provide fixed limits on fees that are not subject to reconsideration if unexpected issues involving accounting or auditing are encountered. Disclosure of fee estimates is not required.
(K) Bonus, profit sharing, and other remuneration plans; pension and retirement plans.
If action is to be taken with respect to any bonus, profit sharing, or other remuneration plan, or any pension or retirement plan, furnish the following information:
(1) Describe briefly the material features of the plan, identify each class of persons who will participate therein, indicate the approximate number of persons in each such class, and state the basis of such participation.
(2) Furnish such information, in addition to that required by paragraphs (I) and (K) of this rule, as may be necessary to describe adequately the provisions already made pursuant to all bonus, profit sharing, pension, retirement, stock option, stock purchase, deferred compensation, or other remuneration or incentive plans, now in effect or in effect within the past five years, for:
(a) Each director or officer named in answer to paragraph (I)(2) of this rule who may participate in the plan to be acted upon;
(b) All present directors and officers of the issuer as a group, if any director or officer may participate in the plan; and
(c) All employees, if employees may participate in the plan.
(3) If the plan to be acted upon can be amended otherwise than by a vote of stockholders, to increase the cost thereof to the issuer or to alter the allocation of the benefits as between the directors and officers on the one hand and employees on the other, state the nature of the amendments which can be so made.
(4) With regard to any bonus, profit sharing, or other remuneration plan, on which action is to be taken, furnish the following information.
(a) State separately the amounts which would have been distributable under the plan during the last fiscal year of the issuer:
(i) To directors and officers; and
(ii) To employees if the plan had been in effect.
(b) State the name and position with the issuer of each person specified in paragraph (I)(2) of this rule who will participate in the plan and the amount which each such person would have received under the plan for the last fiscal year of the issuer if the plan had been in effect.
(5) With regard to any pension or retirement plan on which action is to be taken, furnish the following information:
(a) The approximate total amount necessary to fund the plan with respect to past services, the period over which such amount is to be paid, and the estimated annual payments necessary to pay the total amount over such period;
(b) The estimated annual payments to be made for the benefit of:
(i) Directors and officers; and
(ii) Employees.
(c) The name and position with the issuer of each person specified in paragraph (I)(2) of this rule who will be entitled to participate in the plan;
(d) The amount which would have been paid or set aside by the issuer and its subsidiaries for the benefit of such person for the last fiscal year of the issuer if the plan had been in effect; and
(e) The amount of the annual benefits estimated to be payable to such person in the event of retirement at normal retirement date.
(6) Instructions:
(a) If action is to be taken with respect to the amendment or modification of an existing plan, the item shall be answered with respect to the plan as proposed to be amended or modified and indicate any material differences from the existing plan.
(b) The following instruction applies to paragraph (K)(2) of this rule:
(i) Information need only be given with respect to benefits received or set aside within the past five years.
(ii) Information need not be included as to payments made for, or benefits to be received from, group life or accident insurance, group hospitalization or similar group payments or benefits.
(iii) If action is to be taken with respect to any plan in which directors or officers may participate, the information called for by paragraph (I)(5) of this rule shall be furnished for the last five fiscal years of the issuer and any period subsequent to the end of the latest such fiscal year, in aggregate amounts for the entire period for such person and group. If any named person, or any other director or officer, purchased securities through the exercise of options during such period, state the aggregate amount of securities of that class sold during the period by such named person and such other directors and officers as a group. The information called for by these instructions is in lieu of the information since the beginning of the issuer's last fiscal year called for by paragraph (I)(5) of this rule. If employees may participate in the plan to be acted upon, state the aggregate amount of securities called for by all options granted to employees during the five-year period, and if the options were other than "incentive stock options" or options granted pursuant to an "employee stock purchase plan," as the quoted terms are defined in sections 422 to 423 (2017) and 424 (2018) of the Internal Revenue Code, state that fact and the weighted average option price per share. The information called for by these instructions may be furnished in the form of the table set forth in paragraph (I)(5) of this rule.
(c) If the plan to be acted upon is set forth in a written document, a copy thereof shall be filed with the superintendent of insurance at the time preliminary copies of the proxy statement and form of proxy are filed.
(d) The information called for by paragraph (K)(5) of this rule need not be given as to payments made on an actuarial basis pursuant to any group pension plan which provides for fixed benefits in the event of retirement at a specified age or after a specified number of years of service.
(L) Options, warrants, or rights. If action is to be taken with respect to the granting or extension of any options to purchase securities of the issuer or any subsidiary, furnish the following information:
(1) The title and amount of securities called for or to be called for by such options;
(2) The prices, expiration dates, and other material conditions upon which the options may be exercised;
(3) The consideration received or to be received by the issuer or subsidiary for the granting or extension of the options;
(4) The market value of the securities called for or to be called for by the options as of the latest practicable date; and
(5) In the case of options, the federal income tax consequences of the issuance and exercise of such option to the recipient and to the issuer.
(6) State separately the amount of options received or to be received by the following persons, naming each such person:
(a) Each director and officer named in answer to paragraph (I)(2) of this rule;
(b) Each nominee for election as a director of the issuer;
(c) Each associate of such directors, officers, or nominees; and
(d) Each other person who received or is to receive ten per cent or more of such options. State, also, the total amount of such options received or to be received by all directors and officers of the issuer as a group, without naming them.
(7) Furnish such information, in addition to that required by paragraphs (I) and (L) of this rule as may be necessary to describe adequately the provisions already made pursuant to all bonus, profit sharing, pension, retirement, stock option, stock purchase, deferred compensation, or other remuneration or incentive plans, now in effect or in effect within the past five years, for:
(a) Each director or officer named in answer to paragraph (I)(2) of this rule who may participate in the plan to be acted upon;
(b) All present directors and officers for the issuer as a group, if any director or officer may participate in the plan; and
(c) All employees, if employees may participate in the plan.
(8) Instructions:
(a) For the purpose of paragraph (L) of this rule, the term "option" includes any option, warrant or right.
(b) Paragraphs (L)(2) and (L)(3) of this rule do not apply to warrants or rights to be issued to security holders as such on a pro rata basis.
(c) Paragraph (K)(6)(b) of this rule applies to paragraph (L)(3) of this rule.
(d) If the options described in answer to paragraph (L) of this rule are issued pursuant to a plan which is set forth in a written document, a copy thereof shall be filed with the superintendent of insurance at the time preliminary copies of the proxy statement and form of proxy are filed.
(M) Authorization or issuance of securities otherwise than for exchange.
If action is to be taken with respect to the authorization or issuance of any securities otherwise than for exchange for outstanding securities of the issuer, furnish the following information:
(1) State the title and amount of securities to be authorized or issued.
(2) If the securities are other than additional shares of common stock of a class outstanding, furnish a brief summary of the following, if applicable: dividend, voting, liquidation, preemptive, and conversion rights; redemption and sinking fund provisions; and interest rate and date of maturity.
(3) Describe briefly the transaction in which the securities are to be issued, including a statement as to:
(a) The nature and approximate amount of consideration received or to be received by the issuer; and
(b) The approximate amount devoted to each purpose, as far as is determinable, for which the net proceeds have been or are to be used. If it is impracticable to describe the transaction in which the securities are to be issued, state the reason, indicate the purpose of the authorization of the securities, and state whether further authorization for the issuance of the securities by a vote of security holders will be solicited prior to such issuance.
(4) If the securities are to be issued otherwise than in a general public offering for cash, state the reasons for the proposed authorization or issuance and the general effect thereof upon the rights of existing security holders.
(N) Modification or exchange of securities.
If action is to be taken with respect to the modification of any class of securities of the issuer, or the issuance or authorization for issuance of securities of the issuer in exchange for outstanding securities of the issuer, furnish the following information:
(1) If the outstanding securities are to be modified, state the title and amount thereof. If securities are to be issued in exchange for outstanding securities, state the title and amount of securities to be so issued, the title and amount of outstanding securities to be exchanged therefor and the basis of the exchange.
(2) Describe any material differences between the outstanding securities and the modified or new securities.
(3) State the reasons for the proposed modification or exchange and the general effect thereof upon the rights of existing security holders.
(4) Furnish a brief statement as to arrears in dividends or as to defaults in principal or interest with respect to the outstanding securities which are to be modified or exchanged and such other information as may be appropriate in the particular case to disclose adequately the nature and effect of the proposed action.
(5) Outline briefly any other material features of the proposed modification or exchange. If the plan of proposed action is set forth in a written document, file copies thereof with the superintendent of insurance at the time the preliminary proxy material is filed.
(O) Mergers, consolidations, acquisitions, and similar matters.
(1) Furnish the following information if action is to be taken with respect to any plan for:
(a) The merger or consolidation of the issuer;
(b) The acquisition by the issuer or any of its security holders of securities of another person;
(c) The acquisition by the issuer of any other going business or of the assets thereof;
(d) The sale or other transfer of all or any substantial part of the assets of the issuer; or
(e) The liquidation or dissolution of the issuer.
(2) Outline briefly the material features of the plan. State the reasons therefor and the general effect thereof upon the rights of existing security holders. If the plan is set forth in a written document, file a copy thereof with the superintendent of insurance at the time preliminary copies of the proxy statement and form of proxy are filed.
(3) Furnish the following information as to the issuer and each person which is to be merged into the issuer or into or with which the issuer is to be merged or consolidated or the business or assets of which are to be acquired or which is the issuer of securities to be acquired by the issuer in exchange for all or a substantial part of its assets or to be acquired by security holders of the issuer. What is required is information essential to an investor's appraisal of the action proposed to be taken.
(a) Describe briefly the business of such person.
(b) State the location and describe the general character of the plants and other important physical properties of such person. The description is to be given from an economic and business standpoint, as distinguished from a legal standpoint. Portfolio or investment assets of an issuer need not be disclosed.
(c) Furnish a brief statement as to dividends in arrears or defaults in principal or interest in respect of any securities of the issuer or of such person, and as to the effect of the plan thereon and such other information as may be appropriate in the particular case to disclose adequately the nature and effect of the proposed action.
(d) Furnish a tabulation in columnar form showing the existing and the pro forma capitalization.
(e) Furnish in columnar form for each of the last five fiscal years an historical summary of earnings and show per-share amounts of net earnings, dividends declared for each year, and book value per share at the end of the latest period.
(f) Furnish in columnar form for each of the last five fiscal years a combined pro forma summary of earnings, as appropriate in the circumstances, indicating the aggregate and per-share earnings for each such year and the pro forma book value per share at the end of the latest period. If the transaction establishes a new basis of accounting for assets of any of the persons included therein, the pro forma summary of earnings shall be furnished only for the most recent fiscal year and interim period and shall reflect appropriate pro forma adjustments resulting from such new basis of accounting.
(g) To the extent material for the exercise of prudent judgment in regard to the matter to be acted upon, furnish the historical and pro forma earnings data specified in paragraphs (G) and (H) of this rule for interim periods of the current and prior fiscal years, if available.
(4) Instructions:
Paragraphs (O)(2) and (O)(3) of this rule do not apply if the plan described in answer to paragraph (O)(1) of this rule involves only the issuer and one or more of its wholly owned subsidiaries. As to each class of securities of the issuer, or of any person specified in paragraph (O)(2) of this rule, which is admitted to dealing on a national securities exchange or with respect to which a market otherwise exists, and which will be materially affected by the plan, state the high and low sale prices (or, in the absence of trading in a particular period, the range of the bid and asked prices) for each quarterly period within two years. This information may be omitted if the plan involves only the liquidation or dissolution of the issuer.
(P) Financial statements.
(1) If action is to be taken with respect to any matter specified in paragraph (M), (N), or (O) of this rule, financial statements of the issuer and its subsidiaries complying with the requirements of paragraphs (D)(1), (D)(2), and (D)(3) of rule 3901-2-04 of the Administrative Code shall be furnished, including schedules of supplementary profit and loss information. Such statements may be omitted with respect to a plan described in answer to paragraph (O) of this rule if the plan involves only the issuer and one or more of its wholly owned subsidiaries.
(2) If action is to be taken with respect to any matter specified in paragraph (O) of this rule, furnish for each person specified therein, other than the issuer, financial statements complying with the requirements of paragraphs (D)(1), (D)(2), and (D)(3) of rule 3901-2-04 of the Administrative Code.
(3) The superintendent of insurance may, upon the request of the issuer, permit the omission of any of the statements herein required where such statements are not necessary for the exercise of prudent judgment in regard to any matter to be acted upon, or may permit the filing in substitution therefor of appropriate statements of comparable character. The superintendent of insurance may also require the filing of other statements in addition to, or in substitution for, the statements herein required in any case where such statements are necessary or appropriate for an adequate presentation of the financial condition of any person whose financial statements are required, or whose statements are otherwise material for the exercise of prudent judgment in regard to any matter to be acted upon. In the usual case, financial statements are deemed material to the exercise of prudent judgment where the matter to be acted upon is the authorization or issuance of a material amount of senior securities, but are not deemed material where the matter to be acted upon is the authorization or issuance of common stock, otherwise than in an exchange, merger or consolidation, acquisition, or similar transaction.
(4) The proxy statement may incorporate by reference any financial statements contained in an annual report sent to security holders with respect to the same meeting as that to which the proxy statement relates, provided such financial statements substantially meet the requirements of this item.
(Q) Acquisition or disposition of property.
If action is to be taken with respect to the acquisition or disposition of any property, furnish the following information:
(1) Describe briefly the general character and location of the property.
(2) State the nature and amount of consideration to be paid or received by the issuer or any subsidiary. To the extent practicable, outline briefly the facts bearing upon the question of the fairness of the consideration.
(3) State the name and address of the transferor or transferee as the case may be, and the nature of any material relationship of such person to the issuer or an affiliate of the issuer.
(4) Briefly outline any other material features of the contract or transaction.
(R) Restatement of accounts.
If action is to be taken with respect to the restatement of any asset, capital, or surplus account of the issuer, furnish the following information:
(1) State the nature of the restatement and the date as of which it is to be effective.
(2) Briefly outline the reasons for the restatement and for the selection of the particular effective date.
(3) State the name and amount of each account (including any reserve accounts) affected by the restatement and the effect of the restatement thereon. Tabular presentation of the amounts shall be made when appropriate, particularly in the case of recapitalization.
(4) To the extent practicable, state whether and the extent, if any, to which the restatement will, as of the date thereof, alter the amount available for distribution to the holders of equity securities.
(S) Action with respect to reports.
If action is to be taken with respect to any report of the issuer or of its directors, officers, or committees or any minutes of meetings of its stockholders, furnish the following information:
(1) State whether such action is to constitute approval or disapproval of any of the matters referred to in such reports or minutes.
(2) Identify each of such matters which it is intended will be approved or disapproved and furnish the information required by the appropriate item or items of this schedule with respect to each such matter.
(T) Matters not required to be submitted.
If action is to be taken with respect to any matter which is not required to be submitted to a vote of security holders, state the nature of such matter, the reason for submitting it to a vote of security holders, and what action is intended to be taken by the management in the event of a negative vote on the matter by the security holders.
(U) Amendment of charter, bylaws, or other documents.
(1) If action is to be taken with respect to any amendment of the issuer's charter, bylaws, or other documents as to which information is not required by this rule, state briefly the reasons for and general effect of such amendment.
(2) Where the matter to be acted upon is the classification of directors, state whether vacancies which occur during the year may be filled by the board of directors to serve only until the next annual meeting or may be so filled for the remainder of the full term.
(V) Other proposed action.
If action is to be taken with respect to any matter not specifically referred to in this rule, describe briefly the substance of each such matter in substantially the same degree of detail as is required by paragraphs (G) to (U) of this rule.
(W) Vote required for approval.
As to each matter which is to be submitted to a vote of security holders, other than election to office or the selection or approval of auditors, state the vote required for its approval.
(X) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
View AppendixView AppendixView Appendix
Last updated November 14, 2024 at 8:51 AM
History
- Effective: November 14, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-2-07
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to identify the form of proxy, proxy statement, or solicitation material that should be filed with the superintendent of insurance when such form of proxy, proxy statement, or solicitation material is subject to Chapter 3901-2 of the Administrative Code.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041 and 3901.31 of the Revised Code.
(C) A preliminary copy of the proxy statement and any other soliciting material to be furnished to security holders concurrently therewith (or the information statement pursuant to rule 3901-2-15 of the Administrative Code) shall be filed with the superintendent of insurance at least ten days prior to the date definitive copies of such material are first sent or given to security holders, or such shorter period prior to that date as the superintendent of insurance may authorize upon a showing of good cause therefor.
(D) A preliminary copy of any additional soliciting material relating to the same meeting or subject matter to be furnished to security holders subsequent to the proxy statement shall be filed with the superintendent of insurance at least two days (exclusive of Saturdays, Sundays and holidays) prior to the date copies of such material are first sent or given to security holders, or such shorter period prior to such date as the superintendent of insurance may authorize upon a showing of good cause therefor.
(E) A definitive copy of the proxy statement, form of proxy and all other soliciting material (or the information statement) in the form in which such material is furnished to security holders, shall be filed with, or mailed for filing to, the superintendent of insurance no later than the date such material is first sent or given to any security holder.
(F) Copies of replies to inquiries from security holders requesting further information and copies of communications that do no more than request that forms of proxy theretofore solicited be signed and returned need not be filed.
(G) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs (C) and (D) of this rule and of paragraph (G) of rule 3901-2-12 of the Administrative Code, copies of soliciting material in the form of speeches, press releases and radio or television scripts may, but need not, be filed with the superintendent of insurance prior to use or publication. Definitive copies, however, shall be filed with or mailed for filing to the superintendent of insurance as required by paragraph (E) of this rule not later than the date such material is used or published. The provisions of paragraphs (C) and (D) of this rule and of paragraph (G) of rule 3901-2-12 of the Administrative Code shall apply, however, to any reprints or reproductions of all or any part of such material.
(H) Where any proxy statement, form of proxy or other material filed pursuant to this rule is amended or revised, one of the copies of such amended or revised material filed pursuant to this rule shall be marked to indicate clearly and precisely the changes effected therein.
(I) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated November 14, 2024 at 8:50 AM
History
- Effective: November 14, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-2-05 Requirements as to proxy.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to set forth information that should be included in a form of proxy, proxy statement, or solicitation that is subject to Chapter 3901-2 of the Administrative Code.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041 and 3901.31 of the Revised Code.
(C) The form of proxy shall:
(1) Indicate in bold face type whether the proxy is solicited on behalf of the issuer's board of directors, and, if not, by whom it is solicited;
(2) Provide a specifically designated blank space for dating the proxy; and
(3) Identify clearly and impartially each matter or group of related matters intended to be acted upon, whether proposed by the issuer or by security holders. No references need be made to proposals as to which discretionary authority is conferred pursuant to paragraph (E) of this rule.
(D) Ballot and authority to vote
(1) A method shall be provided in the form of proxy whereby the person solicited is afforded an opportunity to specify by ballot a choice between approval or disapproval of, or abstention with respect to, each matter or group of related matters referred to therein as intended to be acted upon, other than elections to office. A proxy may confer discretionary authority with respect to matters as to which a choice is not so specified, provided the form of proxy states in bold face type how it is intended to vote the shares represented by the proxy in each such case.
(2) A form of proxy which provides both for the election of directors and for action on other specified matters shall be prepared so as to provide clearly by a box or otherwise, means by which the security holder may withhold authority to vote for any nominee for election as a director. Any such form of proxy which is executed by the security holder in such manner as not to withhold authority to vote for the election of all nominees grants such authority for all nominees for which a vote is not withheld, provided the form of proxy so states in bold face type.
(E) A proxy may confer discretionary authority to vote with respect to any of the following matters:
(1) Matters which the persons making the solicitation do not know, a reasonable time before the solicitation, are to be presented at the meeting, if a specific statement to that effect is made in the proxy statement or form of proxy;
(2) Approval of the minutes of the prior meeting if such approval does not amount to ratification of the action taken at that meeting;
(3) The election of any person to any office for which a bona fide nominee is named in the proxy statement and such nominee is unable to serve or for good cause will not serve;
(4) Any proposal omitted from the proxy statement and form of proxy pursuant to rule 3901-2-09 of the Administrative Code; or
(5) Matters incident to the conduct of the meeting.
(F) No proxy confers authority to:
(1) Vote for the election of any person to any office for which a bona fide nominee is not named in the proxy statement; or
(2) Vote at any annual meeting, other than the next annual meeting (or any adjournment thereof), to be held after the date on which the proxy statement form of proxy are first sent or given to security holders. A person is not deemed to be a bona fide nominee and is not to be named as such unless the nominee has consented to being named in the proxy statement and to serve if elected.
(G) The proxy statement or form of proxy shall provide, subject to reasonable specified conditions, that the securities represented by the proxy will be voted, and that where the person solicited specifies by means of a ballot provided pursuant to paragraph (C) of this rule, choice with respect to any matter to be acted upon, the securities will be voted in accordance with specifications so made.
(H) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated November 14, 2024 at 8:49 AM
History
- Effective: November 14, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-2-09
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to identify the manner in which a proponent may present to security holders a proposal in a form of proxy or proxy statement that is subject to Chapter 3901-2 of the Administrative Code.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041 and 3901.31 of the Revised Code.
(C) If any holder or holders of the securities of an issuer (hereafter referred to as the "proponent") notifies the issuer in writing not less than ninety days before the issuer's annual meeting of the proponent's intention to present a lawful proposal for action at a forthcoming meeting of the issuer's security holders and at the time of such notice the proponent is entitled to vote on such proposal, the issuer shall set forth the proposal in its proxy statement, identify it in its form of proxy and provide for the specification of approval or disapproval, and include the name and address of the proponent.
(D) If the issuer opposes any proposal received from a proponent, at the request of the proponent, the issuer shall include in its proxy statement a statement of the proponent of not more than two hundred words in support of the proposal.
(E) The issuer may omit a proposal and any statement in support thereof from its proxy statement and form of proxy under any of the following circumstances:
(1) The proponent has submitted more than one proposal in connection with a particular meeting.
(2) The proposal is more than three hundred words in length.
(3) The proposal or the supporting statement is contrary to any rule contained in this chapter, including rule 3901-2-10 of the Administrative Code, which prohibits false or misleading statements in proxy soliciting materials.
(4) The proposal relates to the enforcement of a personal claim or the redress of a personal grievance against the issuer, its management, or any other person.
(5) The proposal deals with a matter not significantly related to the issuer's business, a matter beyond the issuer's power to effectuate, a matter relating to the conduct of the ordinary business operations of the issuer, or an election to office.
(6) The proposal is counter to a proposal to be submitted by the issuer at the meeting, the proposal has been rendered moot, or the proposal relates to specific amounts of cash or stock dividends.
(7) The proposal is substantially duplicative of a proposal previously submitted to the issuer by another proponent, which proposal will be included in the management's proxy material for the meeting.
(8) Substantially the same proposal has previously been submitted to security holders in the issuer's proxy statement and form of proxy relating to any annual or special meeting of security holders held within the preceding five calendar years and received less than five per cent of the total number of votes cast in respect thereof at the time of its most recent submission.
(F) If the issuer intends to omit any proposal from its proxy statement and/or forms of proxy, it shall notify the proponent in writing of its intention at least ten days before the issuer's preliminary proxy material is filed pursuant to paragraph (C) of rule 3901-2-07 of the Administrative Code.
(G) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated November 14, 2024 at 8:50 AM
History
- Effective: November 14, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-2-06 Presentation of information in proxy statement.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to set forth the manner in which information should be presented in a form of proxy, proxy statement, or solicitation subject to Chapter 3901-2 of the Administrative Code.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041 and 3901.31 of the Revised Code.
(C) The information included in the proxy statement shall be clearly presented and divided into groups according to the subject matter with appropriate headings.
(D) All proxy statements shall disclose, under an appropriate caption, the date by which proposals of security holders intended to be presented at the next annual meeting must be received by the issuer for inclusion in the issuer's proxy statement and form of proxy relating to that meeting, such date to be calculated in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (C) of rule 3901-2-09 of the Administrative Code. If the date of the next annual meeting is subsequently advanced by more than thirty calendar days or delayed by more than ninety calendar days from the date of the annual meeting to which the proxy statement relates, the issuer shall, in a timely manner, inform security holders, by any means reasonably calculated to so inform them, of such change, and the date by which proposals of security holders must be received.
(E) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated November 14, 2024 at 8:50 AM
History
- Effective: November 14, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-2-12
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to set forth the manner and form of solicitations that are subject to Chapter 3901-2 of the Administrative Code for election contests.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041 and 3901.31 of the Revised Code.
(C) This rule applies to any solicitation subject to Chapter 3901-2 of the Administrative Code by any person or group for the purpose of opposing a solicitation subject to Chapter 3901-2 of the Administrative Code by any other person or group with respect to the election or removal of directors at any annual or special meeting of security holders.
(D) Participant or participant in a solicitation.
(1) For purposes of this rule, the terms "participant" and "participant in a solicitation" mean:
(a) The issuer;
(b) Any director of the issuer, and any nominee for whose election as a director proxies are solicited; or
(c) Any other person, acting alone or with one or more other persons, committees or groups, in organizing, directing, or financing the solicitation.
(2) For the purpose of this rule, the terms "participant" and "participant in a solicitation" do not include:
(a) A bank, broker, or dealer who, in the ordinary course of business, lends money or executes orders for the purchase or sale of securities and who is not otherwise a participant;
(b) Any person or organization retained or employed by a participant to solicit security holders or any person who merely transmits proxy soliciting material or performs ministerial or clerical duties;
(c) Any person employed in the capacity of attorney, accountant, advertising, public relations, or financial adviser, and whose activities are limited to the performance of that person's duties in the course of such employment;
(d) Any person regularly employed as an officer or employee of the issuer or any of its subsidiaries or affiliates who is not otherwise a participant; or
(e) Any officer or director of, or any person regularly employed by any other participant, if such officer, director, or employee is not otherwise a participant.
(E) Filing of information required by rule 3901-2-14 of the Administrative Code.
(1) No solicitation subject to this rule may be made by any person other than the issuer unless at least five business days prior thereto, or such shorter period as the superintendent of insurance may authorize upon a showing of good cause therefor, there has been filed with the superintendent of insurance, by or on behalf of each participant in such solicitation other than the issuer, a statement containing the information specified by rule 3901-2-14 of the Administrative Code.
(2) Within five business days after a solicitation subject to this rule is made by the issuer, or such longer period as the superintendent of insurance may authorize upon a showing of good cause therefor, there shall be filed with the superintendent of insurance, by or on behalf of each participant in such solicitation other than the issuer, a statement containing the information specified by rule 3901-2-14 of the Administrative Code.
(3) If any solicitation on behalf of the issuer or any other person has been made, or if proxy material is ready for distribution, prior to a solicitation subject to this rule in opposition thereto, a statement containing the information specified in rule 3901-2-14 of the Administrative Code shall be filed with the superintendent of insurance, by or on behalf of each participant in such prior solicitation, other than the issuer, as soon as reasonably practicable after the commencement of the solicitation in opposition thereto.
(4) If, subsequent to the filing of the statements required by paragraphs (C), (D), and (E) of this rule, additional persons become participants in a solicitation subject to this rule, there shall be filed with the superintendent of insurance, by or on behalf of each such person, a statement containing the information specified by rule 3901-2-14 of the Administrative Code, within three business days after such person becomes a participant, or such longer period as the superintendent of insurance may authorize upon a showing of good cause therefor.
(5) If any material change occurs in the facts reported in any statement filed by or on behalf of any participant, an appropriate amendment to such statement shall be filed promptly with the superintendent of insurance.
(6) Each statement and amendment thereto filed pursuant to paragraph (E) of this rule shall be part of the public files of the superintendent of insurance.
(F) Solicitations prior to furnishing required written proxy statement.
Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (C) of rule 3901-2-04 of the Administrative Code, a solicitation subject to this rule may be made prior to furnishing security holders a written proxy statement containing the information specified in rule 3901-2-13 of the Administrative Code with respect to such solicitation, provided that:
(1) The statements required by paragraph (E) of this rule are filed by or on behalf of each participant in such solicitation.
(2) No form of proxy is furnished to security holders prior to the time the written proxy statement required by paragraph (C) of rule 3901-2-04 of the Administrative Code is furnished to such persons, provided that this paragraph does not apply where a proxy statement then meeting the requirements of rule 3901-2-13 of the Administrative Code has been furnished to security holders.
(3) At least the information specified in paragraphs (E)(2) and (E)(3) of this rule to be filed by each participant, or an appropriate summary thereof, are included in each communication sent or given to security holders in connection with the solicitation.
(4) A written proxy statement containing the information specified in rule 3901-2-13 of the Administrative Code with respect to a solicitation is sent or given security holders at the earliest practicable date.
(G) Solicitations prior to furnishing required written proxy statement - filing requirements.
A copy of any soliciting materials proposed to be sent or given to security holders prior to the furnishing of the written proxy statement required by paragraph (C) of rule 3901-2-04 of the Administrative Code shall be filed with the superintendent of insurance in preliminary form at least five business days prior to the date definitive copies of such material are first sent or given to such persons, or such shorter period as the superintendent of insurance may authorize upon a showing of good cause therefor.
(H) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (D)(3) of rule 3901-2-04 of the Administrative Code, a copy of any portion of the annual report referred to in paragraph (D) of rule 3901-2-04 of the Administrative Code which comments upon or refers to any solicitation subject to this rule or to any participant in any such solicitation, other than the solicitation by the management, shall be filed with the superintendent of insurance as proxy material subject to this rule. Such portion of the report shall be filed with the superintendent of insurance, in preliminary form, at least five business days prior to the date copies of the report are first sent or given to security holders.
(I) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated November 14, 2024 at 8:51 AM
History
- Effective: November 14, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-2-11 Prohibition of certain solicitations.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to prohibit any person from soliciting an undated or postdated proxy statement that is subject to Chapter 3901-2 of the Administrative Code.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041 and 3901.31 of the Revised Code.
(C)
No person making a solicitation that is subject to this chapter may solicit any undated or postdated proxy or any proxy which provides that it is deemed to be dated as of any date subsequent to the date on which it is signed by the security holder.
(D) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated November 14, 2024 at 8:51 AM
History
- Effective: November 14, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-2-14
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to set forth information that should be included in a proxy solicitation subject to Chapter 3901-2 of the Administrative Code filed by or on behalf of a participant in an election contest.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041 and 3901.31 of the Revised Code.
(C) Issuer
State the name and address of the issuer.
(D) Identity and background
(1) State the following:
(a) Your name and business address.
(b) Your present principal occupation or employment and the name, principal business, and address of any corporation or other organization in which such employment is carried on.
(c) Your residential address.
(d) Information as to all material occupations, positions, offices, or employment during the last ten years, giving starting and ending dates of each and the name, principal business, and address of any business corporation or other business organization in which each such occupation, position, office, or employment was carried on.
(2) State whether you are or have been a participant in any other proxy contest involving this company or other companies within the past ten years. If so, identify the principals, the subject matter, and your relationship to the parties and the outcome.
(3) State whether, during the past ten years, you have been convicted in a criminal proceeding (excluding traffic violations or similar misdemeanors) and, if so, give dates, nature of conviction, name and location of court, and penalty imposed or other disposition of the case. A negative answer to this paragraph need not be included in the proxy statement or other proxy soliciting material.
(E) Interest in securities of the issuer
(1) State the amount of each class of securities of the issuer which you own beneficially, directly or indirectly.
(2) State the amount of each class of securities of the issuer which you own of record but not beneficially.
(3) State, with respect to all securities of the issuer purchased or sold within the past two years, the dates on which they were purchased or sold and the amount purchased or sold on each such date.
(4) If any part of the purchase price or market value of any of the securities specified in paragraph (E) of this rule is represented by funds borrowed or otherwise obtained for the purpose of acquiring or holding such securities, so state and indicate the amount of the indebtedness as of the latest practicable date. If such funds were borrowed or obtained otherwise than pursuant to a margin account or bank loan in the regular course of business of a bank, broker or dealer, briefly describe the transaction, and state the names of the parties.
(5) State whether you are a party to any contracts, arrangements, or understandings with any person with respect to any securities of the issuer including but not limited to joint ventures, loan or option arrangements, puts or calls, guarantees against losses or guarantees of profits, divisions of losses or profits, or the giving or withholding of proxies. If so, name the persons with whom such contracts, arrangements, or understandings exist and give the details thereof.
(6) State the amount of securities of the issuer owned beneficially, directly or indirectly, by each of your associates and the name and address of each such associate.
(7) State the amount of each class of securities of any parent, subsidiary, or affiliate of the issuer which you own beneficially, directly or indirectly.
(F) Further matters
(1) Describe the time and circumstances under which you became a participant in the solicitation and state the nature and extent of your activities or proposed activities as a participant.
(2) Describe briefly, and where practicable state the approximate amount of, any material interest, direct or indirect, of yourself and each of your associates in any material transactions since the beginning of the company's last fiscal year or in any material proposed transactions, to which the company or any of its subsidiaries or affiliates was or is to be a party.
(3) State whether you or any of your associates have any arrangement or understanding with any person:
(a) With respect to any future employment by the issuer or its subsidiaries or affiliates; or
(b) With respect to any future transactions to which the issuer or any of its subsidiaries or affiliates will or may be a party; and
(c) If so, describe such arrangement or understanding and state the names of the parties thereto.
(G) Signature
The statement shall be dated and signed in the following manner:
"I certify that the statements made in this statement are true, complete, and correct, to the best of my knowledge and belief.
(Date)
(Signature of participant or authorized representative)"
(H) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated November 14, 2024 at 8:52 AM
History
- Effective: November 14, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Chapter 3901-3 Acquisitions and Mergers; Insurance Holding Company Systems
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-3-01 Requirement for approval of the proposed acquisition of control of or merger with a domestic insurer.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to establish the content of and form to be used in the application for approval of the proposed transaction with an insurer domiciled in this state. Section 3901.321 of the Revised Code requires any person who wishes to engage in any transaction described in division (B)(1) of section 3901.321 of the Revised Code to file with the superintendent an information statement (hereinafter called "form A").
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.321 and 3901.041 of the Revised Code.
(C) Additional information
In addition to the information expressly required to be included in form A, there shall be added such further material information, if any, as may be necessary to make the information contained therein not misleading. The superintendent reserves the right to request other information or documentation that in the superintendent's sole discretion is deemed necessary or appropriate for the protection of policyholders of the domestic insurer or in the public interest.
(D) Exhibits
Applicants may file supplemental exhibits as desired in addition to those expressly required by form A. Exhibits shall clearly indicate the subject matter to which they refer.
(E) Amendments or modifications
Applicants shall promptly advise the superintendent of any changes in the information furnished on form A arising subsequent to the date upon which the information was furnished.
(F) Definitions
Terms found in this regulation are used as defined in the Insurance Holding Company Systems Regulatory Act, sections 3901.32 to 3901.37 of the Revised Code, and rule 3901-3-02 of the Administrative Code.
(G) General requirements
Applicants must file the information statement in the exact form as set forth in paragraph (H) of this rule. The statement shall contain the numbers and captions of all items. If the answer to any item is in the negative, an appropriate statement to that effect shall be made. The information statement, including exhibits and all other documents filed as a part thereof, shall be filed with the superintendent in physical or electronic form. The information statement, including exhibits and all other documents filed as a part thereof shall be clear, easily readable and in the English language with monetary values stated in United States currency. If any exhibit or document filed is in a foreign language it shall be accompanied by a translation into the English language and any monetary value shown in a foreign currency shall be converted into United States currency.
(H) Information to be included in form A.
"Form A
Statement regarding the acquisition of control of or merger with a domestic insurer
Name of domestic insurer
by
Name and address of acquiring person
Filed with the insurance department of
(State of domicile of insurer being acquired)
Dated: ___________________________, 20
Name, title, address and telephone number of individual to whom notices and correspondence concerning this statement should be addressed:
Item 1. Insurer and method of acquisition
State the name and address of the domestic insurer to which this application relates and a brief description of how control is to be acquired.
Item 2. Identity and background of the applicant
(A) State the name and address of the applicant seeking to acquire control of the insurer.
(B) If the applicant is not an individual, state the nature of its business operations for the past five years or for such lesser period as such person and any predecessors thereof shall have been in existence. Briefly describe the business intended to be done by the applicant and the applicant's subsidiaries.
(C) Furnish a chart or listing clearly presenting the identities of and inter-relationships among the applicant and all affiliates of the applicant. Indicate in such chart or listing the percentage of voting securities of each such person which is owned or controlled by the applicant or by any other such person. If control of any person is maintained other than by the ownership or control of voting securities, indicate the basis of such control. As to each person specified in such chart or listing indicate the type of organization (e.g., corporation, trust, partnership) and the state or other jurisdiction of domicile. If court proceedings involving a reorganization or liquidation are pending with respect to any such person, indicate which person, and set forth the title of the court, nature of proceedings and the date when commenced.
Item 3. Identity and background of individuals associated with the applicant
(1) Identify the applicant if the applicant is an individual or, if the applicant is not an individual, all persons who are directors, executive officers or owners of ten per cent or more of the voting securities of the applicant.
(2) Each individual applicant or all persons who are directors, executive officers or owners of ten per cent or more of the voting securities of the applicant shall complete a biographical affidavit and authority for release of information that is prescribed for such use by the superintendent.
Item 4. Nature, source and amount of consideration
(A) Describe the nature, source and amount of funds or other consideration used or to be used in effecting the proposed transaction. If any part of the consideration is or is to be borrowed or otherwise obtained for the purpose of acquiring, holding or trading securities, furnish a description of the transaction, the names of the parties thereto, the relationship, if any (whether direct or indirect), between the borrower and the lender, the amounts borrowed or to be borrowed, and copies of all agreements, understanding, promissory notes and security arrangements relating thereto. If the stock or any asset of the domestic insurer is to be pledged or hypothecated in any way, so describe and provide a copy of the agreement or arrangement.
(B) Explain the criteria used in determining the nature and amount of such consideration.
Item 5. Future plans of insurer
(1) Describe any contemplated or actual plans or proposals which the applicant may have to: cause the insurer to declare dividends, liquidate or dissolve the insurer, sell any asset of the insurer, enter into any rental, leasing, service or financial, or other arrangements with the insurer, or merge/reorganize the insurer with any person or persons. Provide terms and conditions of all applicable arrangements to the transaction.
(2) Provide a plan of operation for the domestic insurer for three years following consummation of the proposed transaction including: type of business to be written, amount of anticipated premiums, investment policy, marketing plans, relocation of home office or of corporate records and changes in reinsurance or reinsurers.
(3) Describe all changes planned to be made after consummation of the proposed transaction concerning the board of directors or executive officers of the domestic insurer and those of the organization which will succeed the latter as a result of the proposed transaction. Describe the nature, extent and amount of any commitments to or agreements or understandings with the present officers and directors of the domestic insurer. Attach copies of all contemplated or actual contracts, commitments, agreements or understandings for: employment, consultation, advice, management or services.
(4) Provide pro forma balance sheets and income statements of the insurer prepared in accordance with statutory accounting principles, for three years following consummation of the proposed transaction. If any part of the consideration for the proposed transaction involves borrowed funds, describe debt service in detail. If any part of the consideration is to be obtained from or financed by an affiliate of the applicant, identify the source of funds and describe the method of distribution.
(5) If the insurer will be a member of an insurance holding company system following consummation of the proposed transaction, provide the following:
(a) A pro forma balance sheet and income statement showing the effect of the proposed transaction, prepared on a consolidated and applicant-only basis.
(b) If the applicant is an insurer actively engaged in the business of insurance, the statements shall be prepared in accordance with statutory accounting principles.
(c) If the applicant is not an insurer actively engaged in the business of insurance, the statements shall be prepared in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles.
(6) State the amount of premiums written by the domestic insurer and all affiliates for each line of business transacted in Ohio, as of the thirty-first day of December next preceding. State the amount of premiums written by the applicant and all affiliates for each line of business transacted in Ohio, as of the thirty-first day of December next preceding.
Item 6. Voting securities to be acquired
State the number of shares of the insurer's voting securities which the applicant, its affiliates and any person listed in item 3, plans to acquire. Describe the terms of the offer, request, invitation, agreement or acquisition. State the method used to determine the fairness of the proposal.
Item 7. Ownership of voting securities
State the amount of each class of any voting security of the insurer which is beneficially owned or concerning which there is a right to acquire beneficial ownership by the applicant, its affiliates or any person listed in item 3.
Item 8. Contracts, arrangements, or understandings with respect to voting securities of the insurer
Fully describe any contracts, arrangements or understandings with respect to any voting security of the insurer in which the applicant, its affiliates or any person listed in item 3 is involved, including but not limited to: transfer of any of the securities, joint ventures, loan or option arrangements, puts or calls, guarantees of loans, guarantees against loss or guarantees of profits, division of losses or profits or the giving or withholding of proxies. Identify the persons with whom such contracts, arrangements or understandings have been entered.
File as exhibits copies of all tender offers for, requests or invitations for, tenders of, exchange offers for, and agreements to acquire or exchange any voting securities of the insurer and, if distributed, of additional soliciting material relating thereto and annual reports to the stockholders of the insurer and applicant for the last two fiscal years.
Item 9. Recent purchases of voting securities
Describe any purchases of any voting securities of the insurer by the applicant, its affiliates or any person listed in item 3 during the twelve calendar months preceding the filing of this statement. Include in the description the dates of purchase, the names of the purchasers, and the consideration paid or agreed to be paid therefore. State whether any such shares are pledged or hypothecated.
Item 10. Recent recommendations to purchase
Describe any recommendations to purchase any voting security of the insurer made by the applicant, its affiliates or any person listed in item 3, or by anyone based upon interviews or at the suggestion of the applicant, its affiliates or any person listed in item 3 during the twelve calendar months preceding the filing of this statement.
Item 11. Agreements with broker-dealers
Describe the terms of any agreement, contract or understanding made with any broker-dealer as to solicitation of voting securities of the insurer for tender and the amount of any fees, commissions or other compensation to be paid to broker-dealers with regard thereto.
Item 12. Financial statements
(A) Financial statements shall be attached to this statement as exhibits. However, list under this item the financial statements so attached.
(B) The financial statements shall include: (1) the annual financial statements of the persons identified in item 2(C) for the preceding five fiscal years or for such lesser period as such applicant and its affiliates and any of its predecessors shall have been in existence and (2) similar information covering the period from the end of such person's last fiscal year, if such information is available. Such statements may be prepared on either an individual basis or, unless the superintendent otherwise requires, on a consolidated basis, if the consolidated statements are prepared in the usual course of business.
(C) The annual financial statements of the applicant shall be accompanied by the certificate of an independent public accountant to the effect that such statements present fairly the financial position of the applicant and the results of its operations for the year then ended, in conformity with generally accepted accounting principles or with requirements of insurance or other accounting principles prescribed or permitted under law. If the applicant is an insurer which is actively engaged in the business of insurance, the financial statements must be based on the annual statement of such person filed with the insurance department of the person's domiciliary state and be in accordance with the requirements of insurance or other accounting principles prescribed or permitted under the law and regulations of such state.
Item 13. Corporate authority
If the applicant is not an individual, file a certified copy of:
(1) The resolution of the board of directors of the applicant approving the transaction and directing that the agreement underlying the transaction be submitted to a vote of the shareholders, members or policyholders entitled to vote on the matter.
(2) The resolution of the shareholders, members or policyholders of the applicant approving the transaction.
Item 14. Notice to domestic insurer
State whether the applicant has sent a copy of form A to the domestic insurer.
Item 15. Signature and certification
Signature and certification required as follows:
Signature
Pursuant to the requirements of section 3901.321 of the Revised Code ________________ has caused this application to be duly signed on its behalf in the city of ______________ and state of______________ on the ___________ day of ____, 20.
Name of applicant
| By: _____________________________, | its: _____________________________ | | --- | --- | | (Name) | | | Attest: | | | ________________________________, | ________________________________ | | (Signature of officer) | (Title) |
Certification
The undersigned deposes and says that the undersigned has duly executed the attached application dated _____________, 20, for and on behalf of _________________________(Name of applicant), and that the undersigned is authorized to execute and file such instrument. Deponent further says that the undersigned is the ________________________ of such company and that the undersigned is familiar with such instrument and the contents thereof, and that the facts therein set forth are true to the best of the undersigned's knowledge, information and belief.
| | (Signature) ___________________________ | | --- | --- | | | ____________________________________ | | | (Type or print name) | | | | | State of _______________________ ) | | | | ss | | County of _____________________ ) | | | | |
The foregoing instrument was acknowledged before me this___________ day of __________, 20.
Notary public"
(I) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated March 2, 2026 at 8:33 AM
History
- Effective: February 28, 2026
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-3-02
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to interpret certain terms, establish standards, and to promulgate forms to be adhered to in the regulation and registration of insurers authorized to do business in this state.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under section 3901.041 of the Revised Code. Sections 3901.32 to 3901.37 of the Revised Code, provide for the regulation and registration of insurance holding company systems.
(C) Definitions
(1) "Executive officer" means any individual charged with active management and control, in an executive capacity, including a president, vice president, treasurer, secretary, controller, and any other individual performing for a person, whether incorporated or unincorporated, functions corresponding to those performed by the foregoing officers.
(2) "Ultimate controlling person" means that person within an insurance holding company system which is not controlled by any other person.
(3) "Insurer" as defined in division (G) of section 3901.32 of the Revised Code includes, but is not limited to, domestic, foreign, and alien stock or mutual insurance companies, mutual protective insurance associations, fraternal benefit societies, risk retention groups domiciled in this state as described in division (A) of section 3960.02 of the Revised Code, reciprocals, title guarantee and trust companies, health insuring corporations, and any other persons engaged either directly or indirectly in this state in the business of insurance which is subject to regulation by the superintendent of insurance.
(4) "Applicant" means a person or persons seeking to control an insurer.
(5) All other terms used herein shall have the same meanings prescribed in section 3901.32 of the Revised Code unless the context otherwise requires. Other nomenclature or terminology is according to the Revised Code, or insurance usage if not defined by the Revised Code.
(D) Registration of insurer--statement filing
An insurer required to file a registration statement or an amendment thereto pursuant to section 3901.33 of the Revised Code shall furnish the required information on form B as outlined in paragraph (M) of this rule.
(E) Amendments
(1) Form B is the annual registration statement to be filed annually by the registered insurer on or before June one, each year after the initial registration. Such annual filing shall restate the form B and make current all information in the form B, including amendments filed during the current reporting year.
(2) An amendment to form B shall be filed within fifteen days after the end of any month in which the following occurs:
(a) There is a change in the control of the registered insurer, in which case the entire form B shall be made current;
(b) There is a material change in or addition to the information given in item 5 or item 6 of form B.
(F) Alternative and consolidated registrations
(1) Any insurer authorized to do business in this state may file a registration statement on behalf of any affiliated insurer or insurers which are required to register under section 3901.33 of the Revised Code. Such registration statement may include information regarding any insurer in the insurance holding company system even if such insurer is not authorized to do business in this state. In lieu of filing a registration statement on form B, an insurer authorized to do business in this state may file a copy of the registration statement or similar report which it is required to file in its state of domicile, provided:
(a) The statement or report contains substantially similar information required to be furnished on form B; and
(b) The filing insurer is the principal insurance company in the insurance holding company system.
(2) The question of whether the filing insurer is the principal insurance company in the insurance holding company system is a question of fact and an insurer filing a registration statement or report in lieu of form B on behalf of an affiliated insurer shall set forth a simple statement of facts which will substantiate the filing insurer's claim that it, in fact, is the principal insurer in the insurance holding company system.
(3) With the prior approval of the superintendent, an insurer not authorized to do business in this state may follow any of the procedures which could be done by an insurer authorized to do business in this state under paragraph (F)(1) of this rule.
(4) Two or more affiliated insurers subject to registration may file a consolidated registration statement or consolidated reports amending their consolidated registration statement or their individual registration statements. The superintendent, however, reserves the right to require individual registration statements if the superintendent deems it necessary in the interest of clarity, ease of administration or the public good.
(G) Exemptions
(1) A foreign or alien insurer otherwise subject to section 3901.33 of the Revised Code shall not be required to register pursuant to section 3901.33 of the Revised Code if it is subject to disclosure requirements and standards adopted by statute or regulation in the jurisdiction of its domicile which are substantially similar to those contained in section 3901.33 of the Revised Code.
(2) The state of entry of an alien insurer shall be deemed to be its domiciliary state for the purposes of section 3901.33 of the Revised Code.
(3) Any insurer not otherwise exempt from section 3901.33 of the Revised Code may apply for an exemption from the requirements of section 3901.33 of the Revised Code by submitting a statement to the superintendent setting forth its reasons for being exempt. No exemption shall be granted except upon written order of the superintendent, stating the superintendent's findings, made after a hearing held upon not less than ten days written notice to the insurer requesting the exemption.
(H) Disclaimers and termination of registration
(1) A disclaimer of affiliation pursuant to division (J) of section 3901.33 of the Revised Code or a request for termination of registration pursuant to division (F) of section 3901.33 of the Revised Code claiming that a person does not, or will not upon the taking of some proposed action, control any other person (hereinafter referred to as the "subject") shall contain the following:
(a) The number of authorized, issued and outstanding voting securities of the subject:
(b) With respect to the person whose control is denied and all affiliates of such person:
(i) The number and percentage of shares of the subject's voting securities which are held of record or know to be beneficially owned, and the number of such shares concerning which there is a right to acquire, directly or indirectly;
(ii) Information as to all transactions in any voting securities of the subject which were effected during the past six months by such persons;
(c) All material relationships and bases for affiliations between the subject and the person whose control is denied and all affiliates of such person;
(d) A statement explaining why such person should not be considered to control the subject.
(2) A request for termination of registration shall be deemed to have been granted unless the superintendent, within thirty days after the superintendent received the request, notifies the registered insurer otherwise.
(I) Enterprise risk report
The ultimate controlling person of an insurer required to file an enterprise risk report, pursuant to division (K) of section 3901.33 of the Revised Code, shall furnish the required information on form F, hereby made a part of this rule.
(J) Group capital calculation
(1) Where an insurance holding company system has previously filed the annual group capital calculation at least once, the lead state commissioner has the discretion to exempt the ultimate controlling person from filing the annual group capital calculation if the lead state commissioner makes a determination based upon that filing that the insurance holding company system meets all of the following criteria:
(a) Has annual direct written and unaffiliated assumed premium (including international direct and assumed premium), but excluding premiums reinsured with the "Federal Crop Insurance Corporation" and "Federal Flood Program," of less than one billion dollars;
(b) Has no insurers within its holding company structure that are domiciled outside of the United States or one of its territories;
(c) Has no banking, depository or other financial entity that is subject to an identified regulatory capital framework within its holding company structure;
(d) The holding company system attests that there are no material changes in the transactions between insurers and non-insurers in the group that have occurred since the last filing of the annual group capital; and
(e) The non-insurers within the holding company system do not pose a material financial risk to the insurer's ability to honor policyholder obligations.
(2) Where an insurance holding company system has previously filed the annual group capital calculation at least once, the lead state commissioner has the discretion to accept in lieu of the group capital calculation a limited group capital filing if:
The insurance holding company system has annual direct written and unaffiliated premium (including international direct and assumed premium), but excluding premiums reinsured with the "Federal Crop Insurance Corporation" and "Federal Flood Program," of less than one billion dollars; and all of the following additional criteria are met:
(a) Has no insurers within its holding company structure that are domiciled outside of the United States or one of its territories;
(b) Does not include a banking, depository or other financial entity that is subject to an identified regulatory capital framework; and
(c) The holding company system attests that there are no material changes in transactions between insurers and non-insurers in the group that have occurred since the last filing of the report to the lead state commissioner and the non-insurers within the holding company system do not pose a material financial risk to the insurers ability to honor policyholder obligations.
(3) For an insurance holding company that has previously met an exemption with respect to the group capital calculation pursuant to paragraph (J)(1) or (J)(2) of this rule, the lead state commissioner may require at any time the ultimate controlling person to file an annual group capital calculation, completed in accordance with the NAIC group capital calculation instructions, if any of the following criteria are met:
(a) Any insurer within the insurance holding company system is in a risk-based capital action level event as set forth in section 3903.84 of the Revised Code or a similar standard for a non-U.S. insurer; or
(b) Any insurer within the insurance holding company system meets one or more of the standards of an insurer deemed to be in hazardous financial condition as defined in rule 3901-3-04 of the Administrative Code; or
(c) Any insurer within the insurance holding company system otherwise exhibits qualities of a troubled insurer as determined by the lead state commissioner based on unique circumstances including, but not limited to, the type and volume of business written, ownership and organizational structure, federal agency requests, and international supervisor requests.
(4) A non-U.S. jurisdiction is considered to "recognize and accept" the group capital calculation if it satisfies the following criteria:
(a) With respect to the division (L)(4)(d) of section 3901.33 of the Revised Code:
(i) The non-U.S. jurisdiction recognizes the U.S. state regulatory approach to group supervision and group capital, by providing confirmation by a competent regulatory authority, in such jurisdiction, that insurers and insurance groups whose lead state is accredited by the NAIC under the NAIC accreditation program shall be subject only to worldwide prudential insurance group supervision including worldwide group governance, solvency and capital, and reporting, as applicable, by the lead state and will not be subject to group supervision, including worldwide group governance, solvency and capital, and reporting, at the level of the worldwide parent undertaking of the insurance or reinsurance group by the non-U.S. jurisdiction; or
(ii) Where no U.S. insurance groups operate in the non-U.S. jurisdiction, that non-U.S. jurisdiction indicates formally in writing to the lead state with a copy to the international association of insurance supervisors that the group capital calculation is an acceptable international capital standard. This will service as the documentation otherwise required in paragraph (J)(4)(a)(i) of this rule.
(b) The non-U.S. jurisdiction provides confirmation by a competent regulatory authority in such jurisdiction that information regarding insurers and their parent, subsidiary, or affiliated entities, if applicable, shall be provided to the lead state commissioner in accordance with a memorandum of understanding or similar document between the commissioner and such jurisdiction, including but not limited to the international association of insurance supervisors multilateral memorandum of understanding or other multilateral memoranda of understanding coordinated by the NAIC. The commissioner shall determine, in consultation with the NAIC committee process, if the requirements of the information sharing agreements are in force.
(5) A list of non-U.S. jurisdictions that "recognize and accept" the group capital calculation will be published through the NAIC committee process:
(a) A list of jurisdictions that "recognize and accept" the group capital calculation pursuant to division (L)(4)(d) of section 3901.33 of the Revised Code, is published through the NAIC committee process to assist the lead state commissioner in determining which insurers shall file an annual group capital calculation. The list will clarify those situations in which a jurisdiction is exempted from filing under division (L)(4)(d) of section 3901.33 of the Revised Code. To assist with a determination under division (L)(5) of section 3901.33 of the Revised Code, the list will also identify whether a jurisdiction that is exempted under either division (L)(4)(c) or (L)(4)(d) of section 3901.33 of the Revised Code requires a group capital filing for any U.S. based insurance group's operations in that non-U.S. jurisdiction.
(b) For a non-U.S. jurisdiction where no U.S. insurance groups operate, the confirmation provided to meet the requirement of paragraph (J)(4)(a)(ii) of this rule will serve as support for recommendation to be published as a jurisdiction that "recognizes and accepts" the group capital calculation through the NAIC committee process.
(c) If the lead state commissioner makes a determination pursuant to division (L)(4)(d) of section 3901.33 of the Revised Code that differs from the NAIC list, the lead state commissioner shall provide thoroughly documented justification to the NAIC and other states.
(d) Upon determination by the lead state commissioner that a non-U.S. jurisdiction no longer meets one or more of the requirements to "recognize and accept" the group capital calculation, the lead state commissioner may provide a recommendation to the NAIC that the non-U.S. jurisdiction be removed from the list of jurisdictions that "recognize and accepts" the group capital calculation.
(K) Extraordinary dividends and other distributions
Request for approval of extraordinary dividends or any other extraordinary distribution shall include the following:
(1) The amount of extraordinary dividend or extraordinary distribution;
(2) The date established for payment of the dividend or distribution;
(3) A statement as to whether the dividend or distribution is to be in cash or other property and, if in property, a description thereof, its cost, and the fair market value of such property together with an explanation of the basis for valuation;
(4) The amounts and dates of all dividends or distributions paid within the period of twelve consecutive months ending on the date fixed for payment of the proposed dividend or distribution for which approval is sought and commencing on the day after the same day of the same month in the last preceding year;
(5) A balance sheet and statement of income for the period intervening from the last annual statement filed with the superintendent and the end of the month preceding the month in which the request for dividend or distribution approval is submitted;
(6) A brief statement as to the effect of the proposed dividend or distribution upon the insurer's surplus and the reasonableness of surplus in relation to the insurer's outstanding liabilities and the adequacy of surplus relative to the insurer's financial needs.
(L) Form B: instructions
(1) General requirements
(a) Form B is intended to be a guide in the preparation of the statement required by section 3901.33 of the Revised Code. It is not intended to be a blank form which is to be filled in. The statement filed shall contain the numbers and captions of all items, but the text of the items may be omitted provided the answers thereto are so prepared as to indicate to the reader the coverage of the items without the necessity of referring to the text of the items or the instructions thereto. All instructions, whether appearing under the items of the form or elsewhere therein, are to be omitted. Unless expressly provided otherwise, if any item is not applicable or the answer thereto is in the negative, an appropriate statement to that effect shall be made;
(b) Each statement, including exhibits and all other documents filed as a part thereof, shall be filed with the superintendent in physical or electronic form. If a consolidated report is made to amend the individual registration statement of more than one insurer, one complete copy of such report shall be filed. If the signature of any person is affixed pursuant to a power of attorney or other similar authority, a copy of such power of attorney or other authority shall also be filed with the statement or report;
(c) All copies of any statement, report, financial statement, or exhibits shall be clear and easily readable. Debits in credit categories shall be designed so as to be clearly distinguishable as such. Statements or reports shall be in the English language and monetary values shall be stated in United States currency. If any exhibit or other document filed with the statement or report is in a foreign language, it shall be accompanied by a translation into the English language and any monetary value shown in a foreign currency shall be converted into United States currency.
(2) Incorporation by reference, summaries and omissions.
(a) Information required by an item of form B may be incorporated by reference in answer or partial answer to any other item. Information contained in any financial statement, annual report, proxy statement, statement filed with a governmental authority, or any other document may be incorporated by reference in answer or partial answer to any item of form B provided such document is filed as an exhibit to the statement or report. Excerpts of documents may be filed as exhibits if the documents are extensive. Documents already on file with the superintendent need not be attached as exhibits. References to information contained in exhibits or in documents already on file shall clearly identify the material and shall specifically indicate that such material is to be incorporated by reference in answer to the item. Matter shall not be incorporated by reference in any case where such incorporation would render the statement or report incomplete, unclear or confusing;
(b) Where an item requires a summary or outline of the provisions of any document, only a brief statement shall be made as to the most important provisions of the document. In addition to such statement, the summary or outline may incorporate by reference particular parts of any exhibit or document on file with the superintendent and may be qualified in its entirety by such reference. In any case where two or more documents required to be filed as exhibits are substantially identical in all material respects except as to the parties thereto, the dates of execution, or other details, a copy of only one of the documents need be filed with a schedule identifying the omitted documents and setting forth the material details in which such omitted documents differ from the document of which a copy is filed. The superintendent may at any time in the superintendent's discretion require the filing of copies of any omitted documents.
(3) Information unknown or unavailable and extension of time to furnish:
(a) Information required need be given only insofar as it is known or reasonably available to the registered insurer. If any required information is unknown and not reasonably available to the registered insurer, either because the obtaining thereof would involve unreasonable effort or expense, or because it rests peculiarly within the knowledge of another person not affiliated with the registered insurer filing, the information may be omitted, subject to the following conditions:
(i) The registered insurer shall give such information on the subject as it possesses or can acquire without unreasonable effort or expense, together with the sources thereof; and
(ii) The registered insurer shall include a statement either showing that unreasonable effort or expense would be involved or indicating the absence of any affiliation with the person within whose knowledge the information rests and stating the result of a request made to such person for the information.
(b) If it is impractical to furnish any required information, document or report at the time it is required to be filed, there may be filed with the superintendent as a separate document an application (i) identifying the information, document or report in question, (ii) stating why the filing thereof at the time required is impractical, and (iii) requesting an extension of time for filing the information, document or report to a specified date. The application shall be deemed granted unless the superintendent within thirty days after receipt thereof, shall enter an order denying the application.
(4) Additional information and exhibits.
In addition to the information expressly required to be included in form B, there shall be added such further material information, if any, as may be necessary to make the information contained therein not misleading. The person filing may also file such exhibits as it may desire in addition to those expressly required by the statement. Such exhibits shall be so marked as to indicate clearly the subject matters to which they refer.
(5) Amendments
Any amendment to form B shall include on the top of the cover page the phrase: "amendment no. _____ to" and shall indicate the date of the amendment and the date of the original filing of the statement being amended.
(M) Form B: Information to be included in form B
"Insurance holding company system registration statement
Filed with the insurance department of the state of Ohio by
Name of registrant (or registrants if this is a consolidated registration statement)
"NAIC Group No." _____________________
On behalf of the following insurance companies:
Dated: ______________, 20
Name, title and address of officer to whom notices and correspondence concerning this statement should be addressed:
Item 1. Identity and control of registrant
Furnish the exact name of each insurer registering or being registered (hereinafter called "the registrant"), the home office address and principal executive officers of each, the date on which each registrant became part of the insurance holding company system, and the method(s) by which control of each registrant was acquired and is maintained.
Item 2. Organizational chart
Furnish a chart or listing clearly presenting the identities of and interrelationships amount all affiliated persons within the insurance holding company system. The chart or list should show the percentage of each class of voting securities of each affiliate which is owned, directly or indirectly, by another affiliate. If control of any person within the system is maintained other than by the ownership or control of voting securities, indicate the basis of such control. As to each person specified in such chart or listing, indicate the type or organization (e.g., corporation, trust, partnership) and the state or other jurisdiction of domicile.
Item 3. The ultimate controlling person
As to the ultimate controlling person, furnish the following information:
(a) Name;
(b) Home office address;
(c) Principal executive office;
(d) The organizational structure of the person, e.g., corporation, partnership, individual, trust, etc.;
(e) The principal business of the person;
(f) The name and address of any person who holds ten per cent or more of any class of voting security of the ultimate controlling person, the class of such security, the name of shares held of record or known to be beneficially owned, and the percentage of class so held or owned.
Item 4. Biographical information
Furnish the following information on the directors or trustees, the members of a non- profit corporation, as well as the executive officers of the insurer and ultimate controlling person, beneficial or record owners of ten per cent or more of any class of voting security of the ultimate controlling person:
(a) For new registrants, provide a biographical affidavit on a form prescribed by the superintendent for all persons described in item 4.
(b) For registrants without any changes to the list of persons described in item 4 since the previous filing, provide each person's name and address, each person's principal occupation and all offices and positions held during the past five years, and any conviction of crimes other than minor traffic violations during the past ten years.
(c) For registrants with changes to the list of persons described in item 4 since the previous filing, provide a biographical affidavit on a form prescribed by the superintendent for any person not previously required to submit biographical information; for all others provide the information described in paragraph (b) of item 4.
Item 5. Transaction, relationships and agreements
Briefly describe the following agreements in force, relationships subsisting, and transactions currently outstanding between the registrant and its affiliates:
(a) Loans, other investments, or purchases, sales or exchanges of securities of the affiliated by the registrant or of the registrant by its affiliates;
(b) Purchases, sales or exchanges of assets;
(c) Transactions not in the ordinary course of business;
(d) Guarantees or undertakings for the benefit of an affiliate which result in an actual contingent exposure of the registrant's assets to liability, other than insurance contracts entered into in the ordinary course of the registrant's business;
(e) All management and service contracts and all cost sharing arrangements;
(f) Reinsurance agreements;
(g) Dividends and other distributions to shareholders;
(h) Consolidated tax allocation agreements;
(i) Any pledge of the insurer's stock, including stock of any subsidiary or controlling affiliate, for a loan made to any member of the insurance holding company system, and
(j) Other matters concerning transactions between registered insures and any affiliates as may be included from time to time in any registration forms adopted or approved by the superintendent.
No Information need be disclosed if such information is not material. Sales purchases, exchanges, loans or extensions of credit or investments involving one-half of one per cent or less of the registrant's admitted assets as of the thirty-first day of December next preceding shall not be deemed material.
The description shall be in a manner as to permit the proper evaluation thereof by the superintendent, and shall include at least the following: the nature and purpose of the transaction; the nature and the amounts of any payments or transfers of assets between the parties; the identity of all parties to such transaction; the relationship of the affiliated parties to the registrant; and if applicable the date upon which the agreements, relationships, transactions and distributions described in item 5 of paragraph (M) of this rule were reported to the superintendent pursuant to division (C) of section 3901.34 or section 3901.341 of the Revised Code.
Item 6. Litigation or administrative proceedings
A brief description of any litigation or administrative proceedings of the following types, either then pending or concluded within the preceding fiscal year, to which the ultimate controlling person or any directors or executive officers of the ultimate controlling person was a party or of which the property of any such person is or was the subject; give the names of the parties, the court or agency in which such litigation or proceeding is or was pending, and the date when commenced:
(a) Criminal prosecutions or administrative proceedings by any governmental agency or authority which may be relevant to the trustworthiness or any party thereto; and
(b) Proceedings which may have a material effect upon the solvency or capital structure of the ultimate controlling person including, but not necessarily limited to, bankruptcy, liquidation, receivership, or corporate reorganizations.
Item 7. Financial statements and exhibits
(a) Financial statements and exhibits for registrants shall be attached to this statement as an appendix unless incorporated herein by reference to such statements or exhibits already filed with the superintendent;
(b) The financial statements shall include the annual financial statements of the ultimate controlling person in the insurance holding company system as of the end of such person's latest fiscal year.
If at the time of the initial registration, any annual financial statements required to be filed for the latest fiscal year are not available, annual statements for the previous fiscal year may be filed and similar financial information shall be filed for any subsequent period to the extent such information is available. Financial statements may be prepared on either an individual basis, or unless the superintendent otherwise requires, on a consolidated basis if such consolidated statements are prepared in the usual course of business.
Unless the superintendent otherwise permits, the annual financial statements shall be accompanied by the certificate of an independent public accountant to the effect that such statements present fairly the financial position of the ultimate controlling person and the results of its operations for the year then ended, in conformity with generally accepted accounting principles or with requirements of insurance or other accounting principles prescribed or permitted under law. If the ultimate controlling person is an insurer which is actively engaged in the business of insurance, the annual financial statements need not be certified, provided they are based on the annual statement of such insurer filed with the insurance department of the insurer's domiciliary state and are in accordance with requirements of insurance or other accounting principles prescribed or permitted under the law and regulations of such state.
(c) Exhibits shall include copies of the latest annual reports to shareholders of the ultimate controlling person and proxy material used by the ultimate controlling person.
Signatures
Signatures and certification of the forms as follows:
Pursuant to the requirements of section 3901.33 of the Revised Code and rule 3901-3-02 of the Administrative Code, the registrant has caused this registration statement to be duly signed on its behalf in the city of __________ and state of __________ on the _____ day of _______, 20.
__________________________________ (Name) (Title)
(Seal)
______________________________ (Name of registrant)
Attest:
_______________________ (Signature of officer)
_______________________ (Title)
The undersigned deposes and says the undersigned has duly executed the attached registration statement dated _______, 20, for and on behalf of __________; that the undersigned is the __________ (Title of officer) of such company, and that the undersigned has the authority to execute and file such instrument. Deponent further says that the undersigned is familiar with such instrument and that the facts therein set forth are true to the best of the undersigned's knowledge, information and belief.
(Signature)__________________________
(Type or print name beneath) __________________________"
(N) Summary of registration statement
A form C summary of registration statement, must be prepared and filed with each form B filing in the following form:
Form C
Summary of registration statement
Filed with the insurance department of the state of __________
By
Name of registrant
"NAIC Group No." ______________________________
On behalf of following insurance companies
Name address
Date: _______, 20
Name, title, address and telephone number of individual to whom notices and correspondence concerning this statement should be addressed:
Furnish a brief description of all items in the current annual registration statement which represent changes from the prior year's annual registration statement. The description shall be in a manner as to permit the proper evaluation thereof by the superintendent and shall include specific references to item numbers in the annual registration statement and to the terms contained therein.
Changes occurring under item 2 of form B insofar as changes in the percentage of each class of voting securities held by each affiliate is concerned, need only be included where such changes are ones which result in ownership or holdings of ten per cent or more of voting securities, loss or transfer of control, or acquisition or loss of partnership interest.
Changes occurring under item 4 of form B need only be included where an individual is, for the first time, made a director or executive officer of the ultimate controlling person; a director or executive officer terminates responsibilities with the ultimate controlling person; or in the event an individual is named president of the ultimate controlling person.
If a transaction disclosed on the prior year's annual registration statement has been changed, the nature of such change shall be included. If a transaction disclosed on the prior year's annual registration statement has been effectuated, furnish the mode of completion and any flow of funds between affiliates resulting from the transaction.
The insurer shall furnish a statement that transactions entered into since the filing of the prior year's annual registration statement are not part of a plan or series of like transactions whose purpose it is to avoid statutory threshold amounts and the review that might otherwise occur.
Signature and certification
Signature and certification required as follows:
Pursuant to the requirements of section 3901.33 of the Revised Code, registrant has caused this registration statement summary be duly signed on its behalf of the city of __________ and state of __________ on the _____ day of _______, 20.
(Seal) ________________________
Name of applicant
By ________________________
(Name) (Title)
Attest:
(Signature of officer)
(Title)
Certification
The undersigned deposes and says that the undersigned has duly executed the attached annual registration statement dated _______, 20, for and on behalf of __________ (name of applicant); that the undersigned is the __________ (title of officer) of such company and that the undersigned is authorized to execute and file such instrument. Deponent further says that the undersigned is familiar with such instrument and the contents thereof, and that the facts therein set forth are true to the best of the undersigned's knowledge, information and belief.
(Signature) _______________________
(Type or print name beneath) _______________________
(O) Form F: Information to be included in form F
"Form F
Enterprise risk report
Filed with the insurance department of the state of Ohio
By __________________________________
Name of registrant/applicant
On behalf of/related to the following insurance companies
Name address
Date: _______, 20
Name, title, address and telephone number of individual to whom notices and correspondence concerning this statement should be addressed:
Item 1. Enterprise risk
The registrant/applicant, to the best of its knowledge and belief, shall provide information regarding the following areas that could produce enterprise risk as defined in division (K) of section 3901.33 of the Revised Code, provided such information is not disclosed in the insurance holding company system annual registration statement filed on behalf of this or another insurer for which it is the ultimate controlling person:
(a) Any material developments regarding strategy, internal audit findings, compliance or risk management affecting the insurance holding company system;
(b) Acquisition or disposal of insurance entities and reallocating of existing financial or insurance entities within the insurance holding company system;
(c) Any changes of shareholders of the insurance holding company system exceeding ten per cent or more of voting securities;
(d) Developments in various investigations, regulatory activities or litigation that may have a significant bearing or impact on the insurance holding company system;
(e) Business plan of the insurance holding company system and summarized strategies for next twelve months;
(f) Identification of material concerns of the insurance holding company system raised by supervisory college, if any, in last year;
(g) Identification of insurance holding company system capital resources and material distribution patterns;
(h) Identification of any negative movement, or discussions with rating agencies which may have caused, or may cause, potential negative movement in the credit ratings and individual insurer financial strength ratings assessment of the insurance holding company system (including both the rating score and outlook);
(i) Information on corporate or parental guarantees throughout the holding company and the expected source of liquidity should such guarantees be called upon; and
(j) Identification of any material activity or development of the insurance holding company system that, in the opinion of senior management, would adversely affect the insurance holding company system.
The registrant/applicant may attach the appropriate form most recently filed with the "United States Securities and Exchange Commission," provided the registrant/applicant includes specific references to those areas listed in item 1 for which the form provides responsive information. If the registrant/applicant is not domiciled in the United States, it may attach its most recent public audited financial statement filed in its country of domicile, provided the registrant/applicant includes specific references to those areas listed in item 1 for which the financial statement provides responsive information.
Item 2. Obligation to report
If the registrant/applicant has not disclosed any information pursuant to item 1, the registrant/applicant shall include a statement affirming that, to the best of its knowledge and belief, it has not identified enterprise risk subject to disclosure pursuant to item 1."
(P) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated March 2, 2026 at 8:33 AM
History
- Effective: February 28, 2026
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-3-04
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to facilitate the department of insurance's surveillance of the financial condition of insurers by setting out standards which the superintendent may use for identifying insurers whose condition is such as to render the continuance of their business hazardous to their policyholders, creditors, or the general public. This rule shall not be interpreted to limit the powers granted the superintendent by any laws of this state.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041, 3903.09 and 3903.71 of the Revised Code.
(C) Standards
(1) The following standards, either singly or a combination of two or more, may be considered by the superintendent to determine whether the continued operation of any insurer might be deemed to be hazardous to their policyholders, creditors, or the general public. The superintendent may consider:
(a) Adverse findings reported in financial condition or market conduct examination reports, statutory audit reports, and actuarial opinions, reports or summaries;
(b) The "National Association of Insurance Commissioners (NAIC) Insurance Regulatory Information System" and its other financial analysis solvency tools and reports;
(c) Whether the insurer has made adequate provision, according to presently accepted actuarial standards of practice, for the anticipated cash flows required by the contracted obligations and related expenses of the insurer, when considered in light of the assets held by the insurer with respect to such reserves and related actuarial items including, but not limited to, the investment earnings on such assets, and the considerations anticipated to be received and retained under such policies and contracts;
(d) The ability of an assuming reinsurer to perform and whether the insurer's reinsurance program provides sufficient protection for the insurer's remaining surplus after taking into account the insurer's cash flow and the classes of business written as well as the financial condition of the assuming reinsurer;
(e) As reported in the most recent quarterly or annual statutory financial statement filing, the insurer's net loss or negative net income in the last twelve month period or any shorter period of time, including but not limited to net unrealized capital gains or losses, change in non-admitted assets, and the payment of cash dividends to shareholders which are greater than fifty per cent of such insurer's remaining capital and surplus as regards policyholders in excess of the minimum amount required and/or;
(f) As reported in the most recent quarterly or annual statutory financial statement filing, the insurer's net decrease in capital and policyholders surplus, in the last twelve month period or any shorter period of time, is greater than fifty per cent of such insurer's remaining capital and policyholders surplus in excess of the minimum required;
(g) As reported in the most recent quarterly or annual statutory financial statement filing, whether the insurer's net loss or negative net income in the last twelve month period or any shorter period of time, excluding net realized capital gains and losses, is greater than twenty per cent of the insurer's remaining surplus as regards policyholders in excess of the minimum required;
(h) Whether a reinsurer, obligor, or any entity within the insurer's insurance holding company system is insolvent, threatened with insolvency, or delinquent in payment of its monetary or other obligation and which in the opinion of the superintendent may affect the solvency of the insurer;
(i) Contingent liabilities, pledges or guarantees which either individually or collectively involve a total amount which in the opinion of the superintendent may affect the solvency of the insurer;
(j) Whether any person, exercising control of an insurer as defined in division (C) of section 3905.61 of the Revised Code is delinquent in the transmitting to, or payment of, net premiums to such insurer;
(k) The age and collectability of receivables;
(l) Whether the management of an insurer, including officers, directors, or any other person who directly or indirectly controls the operation of such insurer, fails to possess and demonstrate the competence, fitness and reputation deemed necessary to serve the insurer in such position;
(m) Whether management of an insurer has failed to respond to inquiries relative to the condition of the insurer or has furnished false and misleading information concerning an inquiry;
(n) Whether the insurer has failed to meet financial and holding company filing requirements in the absence of a reason satisfactory to the superintendent;
(o) Whether management of an insurer has filed any false or misleading sworn financial statement, or has released false or misleading financial statements to lending institutions or to the general public, or has made a false or misleading entry, or has omitted an entry of material amount in the books of the insurer;
(p) Whether the insurer has grown so rapidly and to such an extent that it lacks adequate financial and administrative capacity to meet its obligations in a timely manner;
(q) Whether the insurer has experienced or will experience in the foreseeable future cash flow and/or liquidity problems;
(r) Whether an insurer has failed to comply with paragraph (J) of rule 3901-1-50 of the Administrative Code;
(s) Whether the insurer meets measures of capital adequacy adopted by statute or rule;
(t) Whether management has established reserves that do not comply with state insurance laws, regulations, statutory accounting standards, sound actuarial principles, and standards of practice;
(u) Whether management engages in reporting inadequate reserve levels that result in material adverse development;
(v) Whether a material change during the year to the insurer's financial condition, including, but not limited to, changes in assets, liabilities, surplus, premium growth, mix of business, reinsurance, or operating performance that may adversely impact the result of the next year-end risk based capital calculation to a level that would require regulatory action;
(w) Whether transactions among affiliates, subsidiaries, or controlling persons for which the insurer receives assets or capital gains, or both, do not provide sufficient value, liquidity or diversity to assure the insurer's ability to meet its outstanding obligations as they mature;
(x) Any other finding determined by the superintendent to be hazardous to the insurer's policyholders, creditors, or general public.
(2) For the purposes of making a determination of an insurer's financial condition under this rule the superintendent may:
(a) Disregard any credit or amount receivable resulting from transactions with a reinsurer which is insolvent, impaired or otherwise subject to a delinquency proceeding;
(b) Make appropriate adjustments including disallowance to asset values attributable to investments in or transactions with parents, subsidiaries, or affiliates, consistent with the NAIC accounting practices and procedures manual, state laws and regulations;
(c) Refuse to recognize the stated value of accounts receivable if the ability to collect receivables is highly speculative in view of the age of the account or the financial condition of the debtor;
(d) Refuse to recognize the stated value of assets pledged or in any way hypothecated to secure a liability to the extent that they are in excess of the specific recorded liability of the insurer;
(e) Increase the insurer's liability in an amount equal to any contingent liability, pledge, or guarantee not otherwise included if there is a substantial risk that the insurer will be called upon to meet the obligation undertaken within the next twelve-month period.
(D) If the superintendent determines that the continued operation of an insurer licensed to transact business in this state may be hazardous to its policyholders, creditors or the general public, the superintendent, in lieu of placing a domestic insurer into supervision, rehabilitation or liquidation pursuant to Ohio's insurers supervision, rehabilitation or liquidation act, or suspending the license of a foreign insurer pursuant to section 3903.71 of the Revised Code, may take other action to correct the hazard, including, but not limited to, either entering into a memorandum of understanding with the insurer or issuing an order requiring the insurer to:
(1) Reduce the total amount of present and potential liability for policy benefits by reinsurance;
(2) Reduce, suspend or limit the volumes of business being accepted or renewed;
(3) Reduce general insurance and commission expenses by specified methods;
(4) Increase the insurer's capital and surplus;
(5) Suspend or limit the declaration and payment of dividend by an insurer to its stockholders or its policyholders;
(6) File reports in a form acceptable to the superintendent concerning the market value of an insurer's assets;
(7) Limit or withdraw from certain investments or discontinue certain investment practices to the extent the superintendent deems necessary;
(8) Document the adequacy of premium rates in relation to the risks insured;
(9) File, in addition to regular annual statements, interim financial reports on the form adopted by the NAIC or in such format as promulgated by the superintendent;
(10) Correct corporate governance practice deficiencies, and adopt and utilize governance practices acceptable to the superintendent;
(11) Provide a business plan to the superintendent in order to continue to transact business in the state; and
(12) Take any other action necessary to cure the conditions which resulted in the finding that the insurer's continued operation may be hazardous to its policyholders, creditors, or the general public.
(E) Severability
If any paragraph, term or provision of this rule is adjudged invalid for any reason, the judgment shall not affect, impair or invalidate any other paragraph, term or provision of this rule, but the remaining paragraphs, terms and provisions shall be and continue in full force and effect.
Last updated December 16, 2025 at 11:14 AM
History
- Effective: October 29, 2015
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-3-03 Transactions subject to prior notice - notice filing.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to establish the form and content an insurer must use to give notice of a proposed transaction under section 3901.341 of the Revised Code.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041 and 3901.341 of the Revised Code.
(C) Definitions
Terms found in this regulation are used as defined in the Insurance Holding Company Systems Regulatory Act, sections 3901.32 to 3901.37 of the Revised Code, and rule 3901-3-02 of the Administrative Code.
(D) Written notice
In giving notice to the superintendent of a proposed transaction pursuant to section 3901.341 of the Revised Code, the insurer shall use the form set forth in this paragraph.
Form D
Prior notice of a transaction
Filed with the insurance department of the state of Ohio
By
Name of registrant
On behalf of the following insurance companies
| Name | Address | | --- | --- | | ________________________________________________________________ | | | ________________________________________________________________ | | | ________________________________________________________________ | | | ________________________________________________________________ | |
Date: ________________, 20
Name, title, address and telephone number of individual to whom notices and correspondence concerning this statement should be addressed:
Item 1. Identity of parties to transaction
Furnish the following information for each of the parties to the transaction:
(a) Name.
(b) Home office address.
(c) Principal executive office address.
(d) The organizational structure, e.g. corporation, partnership, individual, trust, etc.
(e) A description of the nature of the parties' business operations.
(f) Relationship to the insurer of other parties to the transaction, if any, including any ownership or debtor/creditor interest by any other parties to the transaction in the insurer, or by the insurer in the affiliated parties.
(g) Where the transaction is with a non-affiliate, the name(s) of the affiliate(s) which will receive, in whole or in substantial part, the proceeds of the transaction.
Item 2. Description of the transaction
Furnish the following information in electronic form prescribed by the superintendent for each transaction for which notice is being given:
(a) A statement as to whether notice is being given under division (A)(1), (A)(2), (A)(3), (A)(4), or (A)(5) of section 3901.341 of the Revised Code.
(b) A statement of the nature of the transaction and a complete copy of the agreement to include amendments if applicable.
(c) A statement of how the transaction meets the "fair and reasonable" standard of division (B) of section 3901.341 of the Revised Code.
(d) The proposed effective date of the transaction.
Item 3. Sales, purchases, exchanges, loans, extensions of credit, guarantees or investments
If notice is being given under division (A)(1) of section 3901.341 of the Revised Code, furnish a brief description of the amount and source of funds, securities, property, or other consideration for the sale, purchase, exchange of assets, loan, extension of credit, guarantee, or investment. If any securities are involved in the transaction, provide a description of the terms of the securities.
If consideration for the transaction is other than cash, describe the consideration, its cost, and fair market value, and explain the basis for evaluation.
If the transaction involves a loan, extension of credit, or a guarantee, furnish a description of the maximum amount which the insurer will be obligated to make available under such loan, extension of credit or guarantee, the date on which the credit or guarantee will terminate, and any provisions for the accrual of or deferral of interest.
If the transaction involves an investment, guarantee or other arrangement, state the time period during which the investment, guarantee or other arrangement will remain in effect, together with any provisions for extensions or renewals of such investments, guarantees or arrangements. Furnish a brief statement as to the effect of the transaction upon the insurer's surplus.
No notice need be given if the maximum amount which can at any time be outstanding or for which the insurer can be legally obligated under the loan, extension of credit or guarantee is less than, (a) in the case of non-life insurers, the lesser of three per cent of the insurer's admitted assets or twenty-five per cent of surplus as regards policyholders or, (b) in the case of life insurers, three per cent of the insurer's admitted assets, each as of the thirty-first day of December next preceding.
Item 4. Loans or extensions of credit to a non-affiliate
If the transaction involves a loan or extension of credit to any person who is not an affiliate, furnish a brief description of the agreement or understanding whereby the proceeds of the proposed transaction, in whole or in substantial part, are to be used to make loans or extensions of credit to, to purchase the assets of, or to make investments in, any affiliate of the insurer making such loans or extensions of credit, and specify in what manner the proceeds are to be used to loan to, extend credit to, purchase assets of or make investments in any affiliate. Describe the amount and source of funds, securities, property or other consideration for the loan or extension of credit and, if the transaction is one involving consideration other than cash, a description of its cost and its fair market value together with an explanation of the basis for evaluation. Furnish a brief statement as to the effect of the transaction upon the insurer's surplus.
No notice need be given if the loan or extension of credit is one which equals less than, in the case of non-life insurers, the lesser of three per cent of the insurer's admitted assets or twenty-five per cent of surplus as regards policyholders or, with respect to life insurers, three per cent of the insurer's admitted assets, each as of the thirty-first day of December next preceding.
Item 5. Reinsurance
If the transaction is a reinsurance agreement or modification thereto, as described by division (A)(3) of section 3901.341 of the Revised Code, furnish a description of the known and/or estimated amount of liability to be ceded and/or assumed in each calendar year, the period of time during which the agreement will be in effect, and a statement whether an agreement or understanding exists between the insurer and non-affiliate to the effect that any portion of the assets constituting the consideration for the agreement will be transferred to one or more of the insurer's affiliates. Furnish a brief description of the consideration involved in the transaction, and a brief statement as to the effect of the transaction upon the insurer's surplus.
No notice need be given for reinsurance agreements or modifications thereto if the reinsurance premium or a change in the insurer's liabilities in connection with the reinsurance agreement or modification thereto is less than five per cent of the insurer's surplus as regards policyholders, as of the thirty-first day of December next preceding.
Item 6. Management agreements, service agreements, cost-sharing arrangements, and tax allocation agreements.
For management and service agreements, furnish:
(a) A brief description of the managerial responsibilities, or services to be performed.
(b) A brief description of the agreement, including a statement of its duration, together with brief descriptions of the basis for compensation and the terms under which payment or compensation is to be made.
For cost-sharing arrangements, furnish:
(a) A brief description of the purpose of the agreement.
(b) A description of the period of time during which the agreement is to be in effect.
(c) A brief description of each party's expenses or costs covered by the agreement.
(d) A brief description of the accounting basis to be used in calculating each party's costs under the agreement.
(e) A brief statement as to the effect of the transaction upon the insurer's policyholder surplus.
(f) A statement regarding the cost allocation methods that specifies whether proposed charges are based on "cost or market." If market based, rationale for using market instead of cost, including justification for the company's determination that amounts are fair and reasonable.
(g) A statement regarding compliance with the national association of insurance commissioners (NAIC) "Accounting Practices and Procedures Manual" regarding expense allocation.
For tax allocation agreements furnish:
(1) A brief description of the purpose of the agreement.
(2) A description of the period of time during which the agreement is to be in effect.
(3) A brief description of each party's expenses or costs covered by the agreement.
(4) A brief description of the accounting basis to be used in calculating each party's costs under the agreement.
(5) A brief statement as to the effect of the transaction upon the insurer's policyholder surplus.
Item 7. Signature and certification
Signature and certifications required as follows:
Signature
Pursuant to the requirements of section 3901.341 of the Revised Code,___________ has caused this notice to be duly signed on its behalf in the city of _______________________________ and state of ________________________on the _______ day of ____, 20.
| (Seal) | _________________________________ | | --- | --- | | | Name of applicant | | | By ______________________________ | | | (Name) (Title) | | Attest: | | | ______________________________ | | | (Signature of officer) | | | ______________________________ | | | (Title) | |
Certification
The undersigned deposes and says that the undersigned has duly executed the attached notice dated ___, 20, for and on behalf of __________________(Name of applicant); that the undersigned is the _____________________ (title of officer) of such company and that the undersigned is authorized to execute and file such instrument. Deponent further says the the undersigned is familiar with such instrument and the contents thereof, and that the facts therein set forth are true to the best of the undersigned's knowledge, information and belief.
(Signature) _______________________________________
(Type or print name beneath)__________________________
(E) Cost sharing services agreements, tax allocation agreements that include a cost sharing arrangement, and management services agreements shall at a minimum and as applicable:
(1) Identify the person providing services and the nature of such services;
(2) Set forth the methods to allocate costs;
(3) Require timely settlement, not less frequently than on a quarterly basis, and compliance with the requirements in the NAIC "Accounting Practices and Procedures Manual";
(4) Prohibit advancement of funds by the insurer to the affiliate except to pay for services defined in the agreement;
(5) State that the insurer will maintain oversight for functions provided to the insurer by the affiliate and that the insurer will monitor services annually for quality assurance;
(6) Define records and data of the insurer to include all records and data developed or maintained under or related to the agreement that are otherwise the property of the insurer, in whatever form maintained, including, but not limited to, claims and claim files, policyholder lists, application files, litigation files, premium records, rate books, underwriting manuals, personnel records, financial records or similar records within the possession, custody or control of the affiliate;
(7) Specify that all records and data of the insurer are and remain the property of the insurer, and;
(a) Are subject to control of the insurer;
(b) Are identifiable; and
(c) Are segregated from all other persons' records and data or are readily capable of segregation at no additional cost to the insurer.
(8) State that all funds and invested assets of the insurer are the exclusive property of the insurer, held for the benefit of the insurer and are subject to the control of the insurer;
(9) Include standards for termination of the agreement with and without cause;
(10) Include provisions for indemnification of the insurer in the event of gross negligence or willful misconduct on the part of the affiliate providing the services and for any actions by the affiliate that violate provisions of the agreement required in paragraphs (E)(11), (E)(12), (E)(13), (E)(14) and (E)(15) of this rule;
(11) Specify that, if any action is taken against the insurer pursuant to the insurers supervision, rehabilitation, and liquidation act:
(a) All of the rights of the insurer under the agreement extend to the rehabilitator or the superintendent to the extent permitted by Ohio law;
(b) All records and data of the insurer shall be identifiable and segregated from all other persons' records and data or readily capable of segregation at no additional cost to the rehabilitator or superintendent;
(c) A complete set of records and data of the insurer will immediately be made available to the rehabilitator or the superintendent, shall be made available in a usable format immediately upon request, and the cost to transfer data to the rehabilitator or the superintendent shall be fair and reasonable; and
(d) The affiliated person(s) will make available all employees essential to the operations of the insurer and the services associated therewith for the immediate continued performance of the essential services ordered or directed by the rehabilitator or superintendent.
(12) Specify that the affiliate has no automatic right to terminate the agreement if any action is taken against the insurer pursuant to the insurers supervision, rehabilitation, and liquidation act; and
(13) Specify that the affiliate will provide the essential services for a minimum period of time specified in the agreement after termination of the agreement, if any action is taken against the insurer pursuant to the insurers supervision, rehabilitation, and liquidation act. Performance of the essential services will continue to be provided without regard to pre-rehabilitation unpaid fees, so long as the affiliate continues to receive timely payment for post-rehabilitation services rendered, unless released by the rehabilitator, superintendent or supervising court.
(14) Specify that the affiliate will continue to maintain any systems, programs, or other infrastructure notwithstanding any action being taken against the insurer pursuant to the insurers supervision, rehabilitation, and liquidation act, and will make them available to the rehabilitator or the superintendent as ordered or directed by the rehabilitator or superintendent for so long as the affiliate continues to receive timely payment for post-rehabilitation services rendered, and unless released by the rehabilitator, superintendent or supervising court; and
(15) Specify that, in furtherance of the cooperation between the rehabilitator and the affected guaranty association(s) and subject to the rehabilitator's authority over the insurer, if any action is taken against the insurer pursuant to the insurers supervision, rehabilitation, and liquidation act, and portions of the insurer's policies or contracts are eligible for coverage by one or more guaranty associations, the affiliate's commitments under paragraphs (E)(11), (E)(12), (E)(13), and (E)(14) of this rule will extend to such guaranty association(s).
(F) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated March 2, 2026 at 8:34 AM
History
- Effective: February 28, 2026
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-1-50
(A) Purpose
(1) The purpose of this rule is to facilitate the department's surveillance of the financial condition of insurers by requiring (a) an annual audit of financial statements reporting the financial position and results of operation of insurers by independent certified public accountants, (b) communication of internal control related matters noted in an audit, and (c) management's report of internal control over financial reporting. This rule shall apply to all insurers, except those insurers having direct premiums written of less than one million dollars and having less than one thousand policyholders nationwide at the end of any year. Those insurers will be exempt from this rule for the year they do not meet this threshold unless the superintendent makes a specific finding that compliance by the insurer is necessary for the superintendent to carry out the superintendent's statutory responsibilities. Insurers having assumed premiums to contracts and/or treaties of reinsurance of one million dollars or more will not be exempt. Insurers filing audited financial reports in another state, pursuant to such other state's requirement of audited financial reports, which are found by the superintendent to be substantially similar to the requirements herein, are exempt from this rule if:
(a) A copy of the audited financial report, communication of internal control related matters noted in audit, and the accountant's letter of qualifications, which are filed with such other states are filed with the superintendent in accordance with the filing dates specified in paragraphs (D), (K) and (L) of this rule. (Canadian insurers may submit accountants' reports as filed with the office of the superintendent of financial institutions, Canada); and
(b) A copy of any notification or report of adverse financial condition filed with such other state is filed with the superintendent within the time specified in paragraph (J) of this rule. Foreign or alien insurers required to file management's report of internal control over financial reporting in another state are exempt from filing the report in this state provided the other state has substantially similar reporting requirements and the report is filed with the superintendent of the other state within the time specified.
(2) This rule shall not prohibit, preclude or in any way limit the superintendent from ordering, conducting and performing examinations of insurers under the rules and regulations and the practice and procedures of the department.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under section 3901.041 of the Revised Code which requires the superintendent to adopt, amend, and rescind rules and make adjudications necessary to discharge the superintendent's duties and exercise the superintendent's powers under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code, subject to sections 119.01 to 119.13 of the Revised Code. This rule is issued to implement sections 3901.04, 3901.07 and 3901.77 of the Revised Code.
(C) Definitions
(1) "Audited Financial Report" means the annual report defined in the items specified in paragraph (E) of this rule.
(2) "Accountant" and "Independent Certified Public Accountant" mean an independent certified public accountant or accounting firm, as defined by the general standards of the "American Institute of Certified Public Accountants," in good standing with the "American Institute of Certified Public Accountants" and in all states in which the certified public accountant is licensed to practice; for Canadian and British companies, it means a Canadian-chartered or British-chartered accountant.
(3) An "affiliate" of, or person "affiliated" with, a specific person, is a person that directly, or indirectly through one or more intermediaries, controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with, the person specified.
(4) "Audit committee" means a committee (or equivalent body) established by the board of directors of an entity for the purpose of overseeing the accounting and financial reporting process of an insurer or group of insurers, the internal audit function of an insurer or group of insurers (if applicable), and external audits of financial statements of the insurer or group of insurers. The audit committee of any entity that controls a group of insurers may be deemed to be the audit committee for one or more of these controlled insurers solely for the purposes of this rule at the election of the controlling person. Refer to paragraph (N) of this rule for exercising this election. If an audit committee is not designated by the insurer, the insurer's entire board of directors shall constitute the audit committee.
(5) "Department" means the Ohio department of insurance.
(6) "Indemnification" means an agreement of indemnity or a release from liability where the intent or effect is to shift or limit in any manner the potential liability of the person or firm for failure to adhere to applicable auditing or professional standards, whether resulting in part from knowing of other misrepresentations made by the insurer or its representatives.
(7) "Independent board member" has the same meaning as described in paragraph (N) of this rule.
(8) "Internal audit function" means a person or persons who provide independent, objective and reasonable assurance designed to add value and improve an organization's operations and accomplish its objectives by bringing a systematic disciplined approach to evaluate and improve the effectiveness of risk management, control and governance processes.
(9) "Internal control over financial reporting" means a process effected by an entity's board of directors, management and other personnel designed to provide reasonable assurance regarding the reliability of the financial statements, i.e., those items specified in paragraphs (E)(2) to (E)(7) of this rule, and includes those policies and procedures that:
(a) Pertain to the maintenance of records that, in reasonable detail, accurately and fairly reflect the transactions and dispositions of assets;
(b) Provide reasonable assurance that transactions are recorded as necessary to permit preparation of the financial statements, i.e., these items specified in paragraphs (E)(2) to (E)(7) of this rule, and that receipts and expenditures are being made only in accordance with authorizations of management and directors; and
(c) Provide reasonable assurance regarding prevention or timely detection of unauthorized acquisition, use, or disposition of assets that could have a material effect on the financial statements, i.e., these items specified in paragraphs (E)(2) to (E)(7) of this rule.
(10) "SEC" means the United States securities and exchange commission.
(11) "Section 404" means section 404 of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 and the SEC's rules and regulations promulgated thereunder.
(12) "Section 404 Report" means management's report on "internal control over financial reporting" as defined by the SEC and the related attestation report of the independent certified public accountant as described in paragraph (C)(2) of this rule.
(13) "SOX Compliant Entity" means an entity that either is required to be compliant with, all of the following provisions of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002: (i) the preapproval requirements of section 201 (section 10A(i) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934); (ii) the audit committee independence requirements of section 301 (section 10A(m)(3) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934); and (iii) the internal control over financial reporting requirements of section 404 (item 308 of SEC regulation S-K0).
(14) "Insurer" means an entity licensed pursuant to Chapter 1739., 1751., 3907., 3909., 3911., 3925., 3929., 3931. or 3953. of the Revised Code.
(15) "Group of Insurers" means those entities included in the reporting requirements of sections 3901.32 to 3901.37 of the Revised Code, or a set of insurers as identified by management, for the purpose of assessing the effectiveness of internal controls over financial reporting.
(16) "Statutory accounting practices" has the meaning defined in the current editions of "Annual Statement Instructions" and the "Accounting Practices and Procedures Manual" published by the "National Association of Insurance Commissioners," or as otherwise prescribed by the insurance department of the insurer's state of domicile.
(17) "Superintendent" means the superintendent of the Ohio department of insurance.
(18) "Workpapers" means the records kept by an independent certified public accountant of the procedures followed, the tests performed, the information obtained, and the conclusions reached pertinent to the accountant's audit of the financial statements of an insurer. Workpapers may include audit planning documentation, work programs, analyses, memoranda, letters of confirmation and representation, abstracts of company documents, and schedules of commentaries prepared or obtained by the independent certified public accountant in the course of the accountant's audit of the financial statements of an insurer and, which support the accountant's opinion thereof.
(D) General requirements related to filing and extensions for filing of audited financial reports and audit committee appointment
All insurers shall have an annual audit by an independent certified public accountant and shall file an audited financial report as a supplement to the annual statement with the superintendent on or before June first for the immediately preceding year ended December thirty-first. Extensions of the June first filing date may be granted in writing by the superintendent for thirty day periods upon showing by the insurer and its independent certified public accountant the reasons for requesting such extension and determination by the superintendent of good cause for an extension. The request for an extension must be submitted in writing not less than ten days prior to the due date in sufficient detail to permit the superintendent to make an informed decision with respect to the requested extension.
If an extension is granted, a similar extension of thirty days is granted to the filing of management's report of internal control over financial reporting.
Every insurer required to file an annual audited financial report pursuant to this rule shall designate a group of individuals as constituting its audit committee, as defined in paragraph (C)(4) of this rule. The audit committee of any entity that controls an insurer may be deemed to be the insurer's audit committee for purposes of this rule at the election of the controlling person.
The superintendent may require an insurer to file an audited financial report earlier than June first with ninety days advance notice to the insurer.
(E) Contents of audited financial report
The audited financial report shall report the financial condition of the insurer as of the end of the most recent calendar year and the results of its operations, cash flows, and changes in capital and surplus for the year then ended in conformity with statutory accounting practices. The audited financial report shall include the following items:
(1) Report of independent certified public accountant;
(2) Balance sheet reporting admitted assets, liabilities, capital, and surplus;
(3) Statement of operations;
(4) Statement of cash flows;
(5) Statement of changes in capital and surplus;
(6) Notes to financial statements. These notes shall be those appropriate to a CPA audited financial report, based on applicability, materiality, and significance, taking into account the subjects covered in the instructions to and illustrations of how to report information in the notes to financial statements section of the "NAIC" annual statement instructions and any other notes required by the "NAIC Accounting Practices and Procedures Manual" and shall include:
(a) A reconciliation of differences, if any, between the audited statutory financial statements and the annual financial statement filed with the superintendent including a written description of the nature of these differences;
(b) A narrative explanation of all significant intercompany transactions and balances; and
(c) A summary of ownership and relationships of the insurer and all affiliated companies.
(7) The financial statements included in the audited financial report shall be prepared in a form and using language and groupings substantially the same as the relevant sections of the annual financial statement of the insurer filed with the superintendent and:
(a) The financial statements shall be comparative, presenting the amounts as of December thirty-first of the current year and amounts as of the immediately preceding year ending December thirty-first. (However, in the first year in which an insurer is required to file an audited financial report, the comparative data may be omitted); and
(b) Amounts may be rounded to the nearest thousand dollars.
(F) Designation of independent certified public accountant
(1) Each insurer required by this rule to file an audited financial report must, within sixty days after becoming subject to such requirement, register with the superintendent, in writing, the name and address of the independent certified public accountant retained to conduct the annual audit required in this rule. Insurers not previously retaining an independent certified public accountant shall register the name and address of their retained independent certified public accountant not less than six months before the date when the first audited financial report is to be filed.
(2) The insurer shall obtain a letter from such accountant, and file a copy of such letter with the superintendent, stating that the accountant is aware of the provisions of the insurance code and the rules and regulations of the insurance department of its state of domicile that relate to accounting and financial matters and affirming that the accountant will express the accountant's opinion on the financial statements of the insurer in the terms of their conformity to the statutory accounting practices prescribed or otherwise permitted by such insurance department, specifying such exceptions as the accountant may believe appropriate. If an accountant, who was not the accountant for the insurer's most recently filed audited financial report, is engaged to audit the insurer's financial statements, the insurer shall, within thirty days of the date the accountant is engaged, notify the department of this event.
(3) If an accountant who was the accountant for the immediately preceding filed audited financial report is dismissed or resigns, the insurer shall within five business days notify the department of insurance of this event. The insurer shall also furnish the superintendent with a separate letter within ten business days of the above notification stating whether in the twenty four months preceding such engagement there were any disagreements with the former accountant on any matter of accounting principles or practices, financial statement disclosure, or auditing scope or procedure, which disagreements, if not resolved to the satisfaction of the former accountant, would have caused the former accountant to make reference to the subject matter of the disagreement in connection with the former accountant's opinion. Disagreements contemplated by this paragraph are those that occur at the decision-making level, i.e., between personnel of the insurer responsible for presentation of its financial statements and personnel of the accounting firm responsible for rendering its report. The insurer shall also request, in writing, such former accountant to furnish a letter, addressed to the insurer, stating whether the accountant agrees with the statements contained in the insurer's letter and, if not, stating the reasons for which the accountant does not agree; and the insurer shall furnish such responsive letter from the former accountant to the superintendent, together with its own letter.
(G) Qualifications of independent certified public accountant
An insurer may not use any person or firm as an independent certified public accountant if such person or firm: (1) is not in good standing with the "American Institute of Certified Public Accountants" in all states in which the person or firm is licensed to practice or, for a Canadian or British company, that is not a chartered accountant; or (2) has either directly or indirectly entered into an agreement of indemnity or release from liability (collectively referred to as "indemnification") with respect to the audit of the insurer. Except as otherwise provided herein, an insurer may use a certified public accountant as its independent certified public accountant only if and for as long as such accountant conforms to the standards of the accountant's profession, as contained in the "Code of Professional Conduct" of the "American Institute of Certified Public Accountants" and "Rules of Professional Conduct" of the "Accountancy Board of Ohio," or similar code.
The lead (or coordinating) audit partner (having primary responsibility for the audit) may not act in that capacity for more than five consecutive years. The person shall be disqualified from acting in that or a similar capacity for the same company or its insurance subsidiaries or affiliates for a period of five consecutive years. An insurer may make application to the superintendent of insurance for relief from the above rotation requirement on the basis of unusual circumstances. This application should be made at least thirty days before the end of the calendar year. The superintendent may consider the following factors in determining if the relief should be granted: (a) number of partners, expertise of the partners, or the number of insurance clients in the currently registered firm; (b) premium volume of the insurer; or (c) number of jurisdictions in which the insurer transacts business. The insurers shall file, with its annual statement filing, the proof of relief from the five-year limitation with the states that it is licensed in or doing business in and with the "National Association of Insurance Commissioners." If the nondomestic state accepts electronic files with the NAIC, the insurer shall file the approval in an electronic format acceptable to the "National Association of Insurance Commissioners."
The superintendent shall not recognize as a qualified independent certified public accountant, nor accept any annual audited financial report, prepared in whole or in part by, any natural person who (1) has been convicted of fraud, bribery, a violation of the Racketeer Influenced and Corrupt Organizations Act, 18 U.S.C. sections 1961-1968, or any dishonest conduct or practices under federal or state law; (2) has been found to have violated the insurance laws of this state with respect to any previous reports submitted under this rule; or (3) has demonstrated a pattern or practice of failing to detect or disclose material information in previous reports filed under the provisions of this requirement.
The superintendent may hold a hearing to determine whether a certified public accountant is qualified and, considering the evidence presented, may rule that the accountant is not qualified for purposes of expressing his or her opinion on the financial statements in the annual audited financial report made pursuant to this requirement and require the insurer to replace the accountant with another whose relationship with the insurer is qualified within the meaning of this requirement.
(1) The superintendent shall not recognize as a qualified independent certified public accountant, nor accept an annual audited financial report, prepared in whole or in part by an accountant who provides to an insurer, contemporaneously with the audit, the following non-audit services:
(a) Bookkeeping or other services related to the accounting records or financial statements of the insurer;
(b) Financial information systems design and implementation;
(c) Appraisal or valuation services, fairness opinions, or contribution-in-kind reports;
(d) Actuarial-oriented advisory services involving the determination of amounts recorded in the financial statements. The accountant may assist an insurer in understanding the methods, assumptions, and inputs used in the determination of amounts recorded in the financial statement only if it is reasonable to conclude that the services provided will not be subject to audit procedures during an audit of the insurer's financial statements. An accountant's actuary may also issue an actuarial opinion or certification ("opinion") on an insurer's reserves if the following conditions have been met:
(i) Neither the accountant nor the accountant's actuary has performed any management functions or made any management decisions;
(ii) The insurer has competent personnel (or engages a third party actuary) to estimate the reserves for which management takes responsibility; and
(iii) The accountant's actuary tests the reasonableness of the reserves after the insurer's management has determined the amount of the reserves:
(e) Internal audit outsourcing services;
(f) Management functions or human resources;
(g) Broker or dealer, investment advisor, or investment banking services;
(h) Legal services or expert services unrelated to the audit; or
(i) Any other services that the superintendent determines, by rule, are impermissible.
(2) In general, the principles of independence with respect to services provided by the qualified independent certified public accountant are largely predicted on three basic principles, violations of which would impair the accountant's independence. The principles are that the accountant cannot function in the role of management, cannot audit his or her own work, and cannot serve in an advocacy role for the insurer.
Insurers having direct written and assumed premiums of less than one hundred million dollars in any calendar year may request an exemption from this paragraph. The insurer shall file with the superintendent a written statement discussing the reasons why the insurer should be exempt from these provisions. If the superintendent finds, upon review of this statement, that compliance with this rule would constitute a financial or organizational hardship upon the insurer, an exemption may be granted.
(3) A qualified independent certified public accountant who performs the audit may engage in other non-audit services for an insurer, including tax services, that are not described in paragraph (G)(1) of this rule or that do not conflict with paragraph (G)(2) of this rule, only if the activity is approved in advance by the audit committee for the insurer, in accordance with paragraph (G)(4) of this rule.
(4) All auditing services and non-audit services provided to an insurer by the qualified independent certified public accountant of the insurer shall be preapproved by the audit committee of the insurer. The preapproval requirement is waived with respect to non-audit services if the insurer is a "SOX" compliant entity or a direct or indirect wholly-owned subsidiary of a "SOX" compliant entity; or
(a) The aggregate amount of all such non-audit services provided to the insurer constitutes not more than five per cent of the total amount of fees paid by the insurer to its qualified independent certified public account during the fiscal year in which the non-audit services are provided;
(b) The services were not recognized by the insurer at the time of the engagement to be non-audit services; and
(c) The services are promptly brought to the attention of the audit committee and approved prior to the completion of the audit by the audit committee or by one or more members of the audit committee who are members of the board of directors to whom authority to grant such approvals has been delegated by the audit committee.
(5) The audit committee of an insurer may delegate to one or more designated members of the audit committee the authority to grant the preapprovals required by paragraph (G)(4) of this rule. The decisions of any member to whom this authority is delegated shall be presented to the full audit committee at each of its scheduled meetings.
(6) The superintendent shall not recognize an independent certified public accountant as qualified for particular insurer if a member of the board, president, chief executive officer, controller, chief financial officer, chief accounting officer, or any person serving in an equivalent position for that insurer, was employed by the independent certified public accountant and participated in the audit of that insurer during the one year period preceding the date that the most current statutory opinion is due. This section shall only apply to partners and senior managers involved in the insurer's preceding audit. An insurer may make an application to the superintendent for relief from the requirement on the basis of unusual circumstances.
(7) The insurer shall file, with its annual statement filing, the approval for relief from paragraph (G)(6) of this rule with the states that it is licensed in or doing business in and with the NAIC. If the nondomestic state accepts electronic filing with the NAIC, the insurer shall file the approval in an electronic format acceptable to the NAIC.
(H) Consolidated or combined audits
An insurer may make an annual written application to the superintendent for approval to file audited consolidated or combined financial statements in lieu of separate annual audited financial statements if the insurer is part of a group of insurance companies which uses a pooling or one hundred per cent reinsurance agreement that affects the solvency and integrity of the insurer's reserves and such insurer cedes all of its direct and assumed business to the pool. In such cases, a columnar consolidating or combining worksheet shall be filed with the report, as follows:
(1) Amounts shown on the consolidated or combined audited financial report shall be shown on the worksheet;
(2) Amounts for each insurer subject to this rule shall be stated separately;
(3) Non-insurance operations may be shown on the worksheet on a combined or individual basis;
(4) Explanations of consolidating and eliminating entries shall be included; and
(5) A reconciliation shall be included of any differences between the amounts shown in the individual insurer columns of the worksheet and comparable amounts shown on the financial statements of the insurers.
(I) Scope of audit and report of independent certified public accountant
Financial statements furnished pursuant to paragraph (E) of this rule shall be examined by an independent certified public accountant. The audit of the insurer's financial statements shall be conducted in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards. In accordance with AU section 319 of the professional standards of the accountants "American Institute of Certified Public Accountants," consideration of internal control in a financial statement audit, the independent certified public accountant should obtain an understanding of internal control sufficient to plan the audit. To the extent required by AU section 319, for those insurers required to file a management's report of internal control over financial reporting pursuant to paragraph (Q) of this rule, the independent certified public accountant should consider (as that term is defined in Statement on Auditing Standards (SAS) No. 102, defining professional requirements in statements on auditing standards or its replacement) the most recently available report in planning and performing the audit of the statutory financial statements. Consideration should be given to such other standards illustrated in the "Financial Condition Examiner's Handbook" promulgated by the "National Association of Insurance Commissioners" as the independent certified public accountant deems necessary.
(J) Notification of adverse financial condition
(1) The insurer required to furnish the annual audited financial report shall require the independent certified public accountant to report in writing within five business days to the board of directors or its audit committee any determination by the independent certified public accountant that the insurer has materially misstated its financial condition as reported to the superintendent as of the balance sheet date currently under audit or that the insurer does not meet the minimum capital and surplus requirement of the Revised Code as of that date. An insurer who has received a report pursuant to this paragraph shall forward a copy of the report to the superintendent within five business days of receipt of such report and shall provide the independent certified public accountant making the report with evidence of the report being furnished to the superintendent. If the independent certified public accountant fails to receive such evidence within the required five business day period, the independent certified public accountant shall furnish to the superintendent a copy of the certified public accountant's report within the next five business days.
(2) No independent certified public accountant shall be liable in any manner to any person for any statement made in connection with the above paragraph if such statement is made in good faith in compliance with the above paragraph.
(3) If the accountant, after the date of the audited financial report filed pursuant to this rule, becomes aware of facts which might have affected the accountant's report, the department shall note the obligation of the accountant to take such action as prescribed in volume one, section AU five hundred sixty one of the "Professional Standards of the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants," as amended.
(K) Communication of internal control related matters noted in an audit
In addition to the annual audited financial report, each insurer shall furnish the superintendent with a written communication as to any unremediated material weakness in its internal controls over financial reporting noted during the audit. Such communication shall be prepared by the accountant within sixty days after the filing of the annual audited financial report, and shall contain:
(1) A description of any unremediated material weakness (as the term material weakness is defined by statement on auditing standard sixty, communication of internal control related matters noted in an audit, or its replacement) as of December thirty-first immediately preceding (so as to coincide with the audited financial report discussed in paragraph (D) of this rule) in the insurer's internal control over financial reporting noted by the accountant during the course of the accountant's audit of the financial statements. If no unremediated material weaknesses are noted, the communication should so state.
(2) The insurer is required to provide a description of remedial action taken or proposed to correct unremediated material weaknesses, if the actions are not described in the accountant's communications.
(L) Accountant's letter of qualifications
The accountant shall furnish the insurer in connection with, and for inclusion in, the filing of the annual audited financial report, a letter stating the following:
(1) That the accountant is independent with respect to the insurer and conforms to the standards of the accountant's profession as contained in the "Code of Professional Ethics," the pronouncements of the "American Institute of Certified Public Accountants," and the "Rules of Professional Conduct" of the "Accountancy Board of Ohio," or other state board of public accountancy that performs the same licensing function.
(2) The background and experience in general, and the experience in audits of insurers of the staff assigned to the engagement and whether each is an independent certified public accountant. Nothing within this requirement shall be construed as prohibiting the accountant from using such staff as the accountant deems appropriate where such use is consistent with the standards prescribed by generally accepted auditing standards.
(3) That the accountant understands the annual audited financial report and the accountant's opinion thereon will be filed in compliance with this requirement and that the superintendent will be relying on this information in the monitoring and regulation of the financial position of insurers.
(4) That the accountant consents to the requirements of paragraph (M) of this rule and that the accountant consents and agrees to make available for review by the superintendent, the superintendent's designee or appointed agent, the workpapers, as defined in paragraph (C)(18) of this rule.
(5) A representation that the accountant is properly licensed by an appropriate state licensing authority and is a member in good standing in the "American Institute of Certified Public Accountants."
(6) A representation that the accountant is in compliance with the requirements of paragraph (G) of this rule.
(M) Availability and maintenance of independent certified public accountant workpapers
Every insurer required to file an audited financial report pursuant to this rule shall require the accountant to make available for review by department examiners the workpapers prepared in the conduct of the accountant's audit and any communications related to the audit between the accountant and the insurer, at the offices of the insurer, at the department, or at any other reasonable place designated by the superintendent. The insurer shall require that the accountant retain the workpapers and communications until the domiciliary department has filed a report on examination covering the period of the audit, but for no longer than seven years from the date of the audit report.
When domiciliary department examiners conduct periodic reviews, it shall be agreed that photocopies of pertinent audit workpapers may be made and retained by the domiciliary department. Such reviews by the domiciliary department examiners shall be considered investigations and all workpapers and communications obtained during the course of such investigations shall be afforded the same confidentiality as other examination workpapers generated by the domiciliary department.
(N) Requirements for audit committees
This section shall not apply to foreign or alien insurers licensed in this state or an insurer that is a "SOX" compliant entity or a direct or indirect wholly-owned subsidiary of a "SOX" compliant entity.
The audit committee shall be directly responsible for the appointment, compensation, and oversight of the work of any accountant (including resolution of disagreements between management and the accountant regarding financial reporting) for the purpose of preparing or issuing audited financial reports or related work pursuant to this regulation. Each accountant shall report directly to the audit committee.
The audit committee of an insurer or group of insurers shall be responsible for overseeing the insurer's internal audit function and granting the person or persons performing the function suitable authority and resources to fulfill the person's responsibilities if required by paragraph (O) of this rule.
Each member of the audit committee shall be a member of the board of directors of the insurer or a member of the board of directors of an entity elected pursuant to this paragraph and paragraph (C)(4) of this rule.
To be considered independent for purposes of this rule, a member of the audit committee may not, other than in that person's capacity as a member of the audit committee, the board of directors, or any other board committee, accept any consulting, advisory or other compensatory fee from the entity or be an affiliated person of the entity or any subsidiary thereof. However, if law requires the board participation by otherwise non-independent members, that law shall prevail and such members may participate in the audit committee and be designated as independent for audit committee purposes, unless they are an officer or employee of the insurer or one of its affiliates.
If a member of the audit committee ceases to be independent for reasons outside the member's reasonable control, that person, with notice by the responsible entity to the domiciliary state, may remain an audit committee member of the responsible entity until the earlier of the next annual meeting of the responsible entity or one year from the occurrence of the event that caused the member to no longer be independent.
To exercise the election of the controlling person to designate the audit committee for purposes of this rule, the ultimate controlling person shall provide written notice to the domiciliary commissioners of the affected insurers. Notification shall be made timely prior to the issuance of the statutory audit report and include a description of the basis for the election. The election can be changed through notice to the domiciliary commissioner by the insurer, which shall include a description of the basis for the change. The election shall remain in effect for perpetuity, until rescinded.
The audit committee shall require the accountant who performs for an insurer any audit required by this regulation to timely report to the audit committee in accordance with the requirements of "SAS" No. 61, "Communication with Audit Committees," or its replacement, including: all significant accounting policies and material permitted practices; all material alternative treatments of financial information within statutory accounting principles that have been discussed with management officials of the insurer, ramifications of the use of the alternative disclosures and treatments, and the treatment preferred by the accountant; and other material written communications between the accountant and the management of the insurer, such as any management letter or schedule of unadjusted differences.
If an insurer is a member of an insurance holding company system, the reports required above may be provided to the audit committee on an aggregate basis for insurers in the holding company system, provided that any substantial differences among insurers in the system are identified to the audit committee.
The portion of independent audit committee members shall meet or exceed the following criteria:
Prior Calendar Year Direct Written and Assumed Premiums
| $0- $300,000,000 | $300,000,000- $500,000,000 | Over $500,000,000 | | --- | --- | --- | | No minimum requirements. See also note A and B. | Majority (50% or more) of members shall be independent. See also note A and B. | Supermajority of members (75% or more) shall be independent. See also Note A and B. |
Note A: The superintendent has authority afforded by state law to require the entity's board to enact improvements to the independence of the audit committee membership if the insurer is in a "RBC" action level event, meets one or more of the standards of an insurer deemed to be in hazardous financial condition, or otherwise exhibits qualities of a troubled insurer.
Note B: All insurers with less than five hundred million dollars in prior year direct written and assumed premiums are encouraged to structure their audit committees with at least a supermajority of independent audit committee members.
Note C: Prior calendar year direct written and assumed premiums shall be the combined total of direct premiums and assumed premiums from non-affiliates for the reporting entities.
An insurer with direct written and assumed premium, excluding premiums reinsured with the federal crop insurance corporation and federal flood program, less than five hundred million dollars may make application to the superintendent for a waiver from these requirements based upon hardship. The insurer shall file, with its annual statement filing, the approval for relief from paragraph (N) of this rule with the states that it is licensed in or doing business in and the NAIC. If the non-domestic state accepts electronic filing with the NAIC, the insurer shall file the approval in an electronic format acceptable to the NAIC.
(O) Internal audit function requirements
(1) An insurer is exempt from the requirements of paragraph (O) of this rule if:
(a) The insurer has annual direct written and unaffiliated assumed premium, including international direct and assumed premium but excluding premiums reinsured with the "Federal Crop Insurance Corporation" and "National Flood Insurance Program," less than five hundred million dollars; and
(b) If the insurer is a member of a group of insurers that has an annual direct written and unaffiliated assumed premium including international direct and assumed premium, but excluding premiums reinsured with the "Federal Crop Insurance Corporation" and "National Flood Insurance Program," less than one billion dollars.
(2) The insurer or group of insurers shall establish an internal audit function providing independent, objective and reasonable assurance to the audit committee and insurer management regarding the insurer's governance, risk management and internal controls. This assurance shall be provided by performing general and specific audits, reviews and tests and by employing other techniques deemed necessary to protect assets, evaluate control effectiveness and efficiency, and evaluate compliance with policies and regulations.
(3) To ensure that internal auditors remain objective, the internal audit function must be organizationally independent. Specifically, the internal audit function will not defer ultimate judgment on audit matters to others, and shall appoint an individual to head the internal audit function who will have direct and unrestricted access to the board of directors. Organizational independence does not preclude dual-reporting relationships.
(4) The head of internal audit function shall report to the audit committee regularly, but no less than annually, on the periodic audit plan, factors that may adversely impact the internal audit function's independence or effectiveness, material findings from completed audits and the appropriateness of corrective actions implemented by management as a result of audit findings.
(5) If an insurer is a member of an insurance holding company system or included in a group of insurers, the insurer may satisfy the internal audit function requirements set forth in paragraph (O) of this rule at the ultimate controlling parent level, an intermediate holding company level or the individual legal entity level.
(P) Conduct of insurer in connection with the preparation of required reports and documents
No director or officer of an insurer shall, directly or indirectly:
(1) Make or cause to be made a materially false or misleading statement to an accountant in connection with any audit, review or communication required under this rule; or
(2) Omit to state or cause another person to omit to state, any material fact necessary to make a statement made, in light of the circumstances under which the statement was made, not misleading to an accountant in connection with any audit, review, or communication required under this rule.
No officer or director of an insurer, or any other person acting under the direction thereof, shall directly or indirectly take any action to coerce, manipulate, mislead or fraudulently influence any accountant engaged in the performance of an audit pursuant to this rule if that person knew or should have known that the action, if successful, could result in rendering the insurer's financial statements materially misleading.
Actions that, "if successful, could result in rendering the insurer's financial statements materially misleading" include, but are not limited to, actions taken at any time with respect to the professional engagement period to coerce, manipulate, mislead or fraudulently influence an accountant:
(a) To issue or reissue a report on an insurer's financial statements that is not warranted in the circumstances (due to material violations of statutory accounting principles prescribed by the commissioner, generally accepted auditing standards, or other professional or regulatory standards):
(b) Not to perform audit, review or other procedures required by generally accepted auditing standards or other professional standards;
(c) Not to withdraw an issued report; or
(d) Not to communicate matters to an insurer's audit committee.
(Q) Management's report of internal control over financial reporting
Every insurer required to file an audited financial report pursuant to this rule that has annual direct written and assumed premiums, excluding premiums reinsured with the "Federal Crop Insurance Corporation" and "National Flood Insurance Program," of five hundred million dollars or more shall prepare a report of the insurer's or group of insurer's internal control over financial reporting as these terms are defined in paragraph (C) of this rule. The report shall be filed with the superintendent along with the communication of internal control related matters noted in an audit described in paragraph (K) of this rule. Management's report of internal control over financial reporting shall be as of December thirty-first immediately preceding.
Notwithstanding the premium threshold, as stated above, the superintendent may require an insurer to file management's report of internal control over financial reporting if the insurer is in any "RBC" level event, or meets any one or more of the standards of an insurer deemed to be in hazardous financial condition as defined in sections 3903.09 and 3903.71 of the Revised Code and rule 3901-3-04 of the Administrative Code.
An insurer or a group of insurers that is,
(1) Directly subject to "Section 404";
(2) Part of a holding company system whose parent is directly subject to "Section 404";
(3) Not directly subject to "Section 404" but is a "SOX" compliant entity; or
(4) A member of a holding company system whose parent is not directly subject to "Section 404" but is a "SOX" compliant entity, may file its or its parents' "Section 404" report on internal control and an addendum in satisfaction of this paragraph's requirement provided that those internal controls of the insurer or group of insurers having a material impact on the preparation of the insurer or group of insurers' its audited statutory financial statements were included in the scope of the "Section 404" reports. The addendum shall be a positive statement by management that there are no material processes with respect to the preparation of the insurer's or group of insurers' audited statutory financial statements excluded from the "Section 404" report. If there are internal controls of the insurer or group of insurers that have a material impact on the preparation of the insurer's or group of insurers' audited statutory financial statements and those internal controls were not included in the scope of the "Section 404" report, the insurer or group of insurers may either file (a) a report as required by paragraph (Q) of this rule, or (b) the "Section 404" report and a report as required by paragraph (Q) of this rule for those internal controls that have a material impact on the insurer's or group of insurers' audited statutory financial statements not covered by the "Section 404" report.
Management's report of internal control over financial reporting shall include:
(a) A statement that management is responsible for establishing and maintaining adequate control over financial reporting;
(b) A statement that management has established internal control over financial reporting and an assertion to the best of management's knowledge and belief, after diligent inquiry, as to whether its internal control over financial reporting is effective to provide reasonable assurance regarding the reliability of financial statements in accordance with statutory accounting principles;
(c) A statement that briefly describes the approach or process by which management evaluated the effectiveness of its internal control over financial reporting;
(d) A statement that briefly describes the scope of work that is included and whether any internal controls were excluded;
(e) Disclosure of any unremediated material weaknesses in internal control over financial reporting identified by management as of December thirty-first immediately preceding. Management is not permitted to conclude that the internal control over financial reporting is effective to provide reasonable assurance regarding the reliability of financial statements in accordance with statutory accounting principles if there is one or more unremediated material weakness in its internal controls over financial reporting;
(f) A statement regarding the inherent limitations of internal control systems; and
(g) Signatures of the chief executive officer and the chief financial officer (or equivalent position/title).
Management shall document and make available upon financial condition examination the basis upon which its assertions, required in above, are made. Management may base its assertions, in part, upon its review, monitoring and testing of internal controls undertaken in the normal course of its activities.
(i) Management shall have discretion as to the nature of the internal control framework used, and the nature and extent of documentation, to make its assertion in a cost-effective manner, as such, may include assembly of or reference to existing documentation.
(ii) Management's report on internal control over financial reporting, required above, and any documentation provided in support thereof during the course of a financial condition examination, shall be kept confidential by the superintendent.
(R) Exemptions and effective dates
(1) Upon written application of any insurer, the superintendent may grant an exemption from compliance with any and all provisions this rule if the superintendent finds, upon review of the application, that compliance with this rule would constitute a financial or organizational hardship upon the insurer. An exemption may be granted at any time and from time to time for any specified period.
(2) Foreign insurers shall comply with this rule for the year ending December 31, 2009, and each year thereafter, unless the superintendent gives his or her written permission otherwise.
(3) An insurer or group of insurers that is not required to have independent audit committee members or only a majority of independent audit committee members (as opposed to a supermajority) because the total written and assumed premium is below the threshold and subsequently becomes subject to one of the independence requirements due to changes in premium shall have one year following the year threshold is exceeded to comply with the independence requirements. Likewise, an insurer that becomes subject to one of the independence requirements as a result of a business combination shall have one calendar year following the date of acquisition or combination to comply with the independence requirements.
(4) If an insurer or group of insurers that is exempt from paragraph (O) of this rule requirements no longer qualifies for the exemption, it shall have one year after the threshold is exceeded to comply with the requirements of paragraph (O) of this rule.
(5) An insurer or group of insurers that is not required to file a report because the total written premium is below the threshold and subsequently becomes subject to the reporting requirements shall have two years following the year the threshold is exceeded to file a report. Likewise, an insurer acquired in a business combination shall have two calendar years following the date of acquisition or combination to comply with the reporting requirements.
(S) Canadian and British companies
In the case of Canadian and British insurers, the audited financial report shall be defined as the annual statement of total business on the form filed by such companies with their domiciliary supervision authority duly audited by an independent chartered accountant. For such insurers, the letter required in paragraph (F)(2) of this rule shall state that the accountant is aware of the requirements relating to the audited financial report filed with the superintendent pursuant to paragraph (Q) of this rule and shall affirm that the opinion expressed is in conformity with such requirements.
(T) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated March 2, 2026 at 8:33 AM
History
- Effective: February 28, 2026
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-3-05 Valuation of investments.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to facilitate the department's analysis and examination of the financial condition of insurers by establishing procedures for the valuing of investments to be used by insurers in the preparation and filing of statutory financial statements and other financial information.
(B) Authority
This rule is issued pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent of insurance under sections 3901.041, 3901.77, 3907.20 and 1751.47 of the Revised Code.
(C) Procedures
The "Valuation of Securities Manual", "Purposes and Procedures Manual of the NAIC Securities Valuation Office", and the "Accounting Practices and Procedures Manual" as published by the national association of insurance commissioners (NAIC) have been adopted for use in Ohio by section 3901.77 of the Revised Code. The procedures outlined in these publications are to be used for valuing investments for which valuations are not otherwise defined by statute or rule. The superintendent shall disallow any accounting practice or procedure prescribed by the publications if the superintendent deems it necessary to ascertain the condition and affairs of any company. In making the disallowance determination, the superintendent shall consider such factors as the nature of the investment; the financial stability of the issuing company; the applicability of other standardized accounting procedures; and other factors affecting the accuracy of the valuation.
(D) Valuations of investments otherwise defined.
An investment which cannot be valued in accordance with paragraph (C) of this rule is a non-admitted investment and afforded a value of zero in any filing of statutory financial statements and other financial information.
(E) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated November 14, 2024 at 8:52 AM
History
- Effective: November 14, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-3-07 Credit for life reinsurance agreements.
(A) Scope
This rule shall apply to all domestic life insurers and to all other licensed life insurers which are not subject to a substantially similar regulation in their state of domicile. This rule shall also apply to all domestic property and casualty insurers with respect to their accident and health business and to all other licensed property and casualty insurers with respect to their accident and health business which are not subject to a substantially similar regulation in their state of domicile. This rule shall not apply to assumption reinsurance, yearly renewable term reinsurance or certain nonproportional reinsurance such as stop loss or catastrophe reinsurance.
(B) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to facilitate the department's surveillance of the financial condition of insurers by establishing accounting requirements for insurers to reduce any liability or establish any asset in any financial statement filed with the department based on reinsurance ceded by the insurer. These requirements are to ensure that financial statements accurately reflect the financial condition of a ceding insurer, and that a ceding insurer has not reduced liabilities or established assets through the improper use of reinsurance reserve credits.
(C) Authority
This rule is issued under the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041, 3901.62 and 3901.77 of the Revised Code.
(D) Accounting requirements
(1) No insurer subject to this rule shall, for reinsurance ceded, reduce any liability or establish any asset in any financial statement filed with the department if, by the terms of the reinsurance agreement, in substance or effect, any of the following conditions exist:
(a) Renewal expense allowance provided or to be provided to the ceding insurer by the reinsurer in any accounting period, are not sufficient to cover anticipated allocable renewal expenses of the ceding insurer on the portion of the business reinsured, unless a liability is established for the present value of the shortfall (using assumptions equal to the applicable statutory reserve basis on the business reinsured). Those expenses include commissions, premium taxes and direct expenses including, but not limited to, billing, valuation, claims and maintenance expected by the company at the time the business is reinsured;
(b) The ceding insurer can be deprived of surplus or assets at the reinsurer's option or automatically upon the occurrence of some event, such as the insolvency of the ceding insurer, except that termination of the reinsurance agreement by the reinsurer for nonpayment of reinsurance premiums or other amounts due, such as modified coinsurance reserve adjustments, interest and adjustments on funds withheld, and tax reimbursements, shall not be considered to be such a deprivation of surplus or assets;
(c) The ceding insurer is required to reimburse the reinsurer for negative experience under the reinsurance agreement, except that neither offsetting experience refunds against current and prior years' losses under the agreement nor payment by the ceding insurer of an amount equal to the current and prior years' losses under the agreement upon voluntary termination of in force reinsurance by the ceding insurer shall be considered such a reimbursement to the reinsurer for negative experience. Voluntary termination does not include situations where termination occurs because of unreasonable provisions which allow the reinsurer to reduce its risk under the agreement. An example of such a provision is the right of the reinsurer to increase reinsurance premiums or risk and expense charges to excessive levels forcing the ceding company to prematurely terminate the reinsurance treaty;
(d) The ceding insurer must, at specific points in time scheduled in the agreement, terminate or automatically recapture all or part of the reinsurance ceded;
(e) The reinsurance agreement involves the possible payment by the ceding insurer to the reinsurer of amounts other than from income realized from the reinsured policies. For example, it is improper for a ceding company to pay reinsurance premiums, or other fees or charges to a reinsurer which are greater than the direct premiums collected by the ceding company;
(f) The treaty does not transfer all of the significant risk inherent in the business being reinsured. The following table identifies for a representative sampling of products or type of business, the risks which are considered to be significant. For products not specifically included, the risks determined to be significant shall be consistent with this table.
Risk categories:
(i) Morbidity
(ii) Mortality
(iii) Lapse
This is the risk that a policy will voluntarily terminate prior to the recoupment of a statutory surplus strain experienced at issuance of the policy.
(iv) Credit quality (C1)
This is the risk that invested assets supporting the reinsured business will decrease in value. The main hazards are that assets will default or that there will be a decrease in earning power. It excludes market value declines due to changes in interest rate.
(v) Reinvestment (C3)
This is the risk that interest rates will fall and funds reinvested (coupon payments or monies received upon asset maturity or call) will therefore earn less than expected. If asset durations are less than liability durations, the mismatch will increase.
(vi) Disintermediation (C3)
This is the risk that interest rates rise and policy loans and surrenders increase or maturing contracts do not renew at anticipated rates of renewal. If asset durations are greater than the liability durations, the mismatch will increase. Policyholders will move their funds into new products offering higher rates. The company may have to sell assets at a loss to provide for these withdrawals.
| + - significant 0 - insignificant | | | | | | | | --- | --- | --- | --- | --- | --- | --- | | RISK CATEGORY | | | | | | | | | a | b | c | d | e | f | | Health insurance - other than LTC/LTD* | + | 0 | + | 0 | 0 | 0 | | Health insurance - LTC/LTD* | + | 0 | + | + | + | 0 | | Immediate annuities | 0 | + | 0 | + | + | 0 | | Single premium deferred annuities | 0 | 0 | + | + | + | + | | Flexible premium deferred annuities | 0 | 0 | + | + | + | + | | Guaranteed interest contracts | 0 | 0 | 0 | + | + | + | | Other annuity deposit business | 0 | 0 | + | + | + | + | | Single premium whole life | 0 | + | + | + | + | + | | Traditional non-par permanent | 0 | + | + | + | + | + | | Traditional non-par term | 0 | + | + | 0 | 0 | 0 | | Traditional par permanent | 0 | + | + | + | + | + | | Traditional par term | 0 | + | + | 0 | 0 | 0 | | Adjustable premium permanent | 0 | + | + | + | + | + | | Indeterminate premium permanent | 0 | + | + | + | + | + | | Universal life flexible premium | 0 | + | + | + | + | + | | Universal life fixed premium | 0 | + | + | + | + | + | | Universal life fixed premium | 0 | + | + | + | + | + | | Dump-in premiums allowed | | | | | | | | *LTC = long term care insurance | | | | | | | | LTD = long term disability insurance | | | | | | |
(g)
(i) The credit quality, reinvestment, or disintermediation risk is significant for the business reinsured and the ceding company does not (other than for the classes of business excepted in paragraph (D)(1)(g)(ii) of this rule either transfer the underlying assets to the reinsurer or legally segregate such assets in a trust or escrow account or otherwise establish a mechanism satisfactory to the superintendent which legally segregates, by contract or contract provision, the underlying assets.
(ii) Notwithstanding the requirements of paragraph (D)(1)(g)(i) of this rule, the assets supporting the reserves for the following classes of business and any classes of business which do not have a significant credit quality, reinvestment or disintermediation risk may be held by the ceding company without segregation of such assets:
(a) Health insurance - LTC/LTD
(b) Traditional non-par permanent
(c) Traditional par permanent
(d) Adjustable premium permanent
(e) Indeterminate premium permanent
(f) Universal life fixed premium (no dump-in premiums allowed)
The associated formula for determining the reserve interest rate adjustment must use a formula which reflects the ceding company's investment earnings and incorporates all realized and unrealized gains and losses reflected in the statutory statement. The following is an acceptable formula:
Where: I is the net investment income
CG is capital gains less capital losses
X is the current year cash and invested assets plus investment income due and accrued less borrowed money
Y is the same as X but for the prior year
(h) Settlements are made less frequently than quarterly or payments due from the reinsurer are not made in cash within ninety days of the settlement date.
(i) The ceding insurer is required to make representations or warranties not reasonably related to the business being reinsured.
(j) The ceding insurer is required to make representations or warranties about future performance of the business being reinsured.
(k) The reinsurance agreement is entered into for the principal purpose of producing significant surplus aid for the ceding insurer, typically on a temporary basis, while not transferring all of the significant risks inherent in the business reinsured and, in substance or effect, the expected potential liability to the ceding insurer remains basically unchanged.
(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (D)(1) of this rule, an insurer subject to this rule may, with the prior approval of the superintendent take such reserve credit as the superintendent may deem consistent with the insurance law, rules and regulations, including actuarial interpretations or standards adopted by the department.
(3)
(a) Agreements entered into after the effective date of this regulation which involve the reinsurance of business issued prior to the effective date of the agreements, along with any subsequent amendments thereto, shall be filed by the ceding company with the commissioner within thirty days from its date of execution. Each filing shall include data detailing the financial impact of the transaction. The ceding insurer's actuary who signs the financial statement actuarial opinion with respect to valuation of reserves shall consider this rule and any applicable actuarial standards of practice when determining the proper credit in financial statements filed with this department. The actuary should maintain adequate documentation and be prepared upon request to describe the actuarial work performed for inclusion in the financial statements and to demonstrate that such work conforms to this rule.
(b) Any increase in surplus net of federal income tax resulting from arrangements described in paragraph (D)(3)(a) of this rule shall be identified separately on the insurer's statutory financial statement as a surplus item (aggregate write-ins for gains and losses in surplus in the capital and surplus account, page four of the annual statement) and recognition of the surplus increase as income shall be reflected on a net of tax basis in the "Reinsurance ceded" line, page four of the annual statement as earnings emerge from the business reinsured.
{For example, on the last day of calendar year N, company XYZ pays a $20 million initial commission and expense allowance to company ABC for reinsuring an existing block of business. Assuming a thirty-four per cent tax rate, the net increase in surplus at inception is $13.2 million ($20 million - $6.8 million) which is reported on the "Aggregate write-ins for gains and losses in surplus" line in the capital and surplus account. $6.8 million (thirty-four percent of $20 million) is reported as income on the "Commissions and expense allowances on reinsurance ceded" line of the summary of operations.
At the end of year N + 1 the business has earned $4 million. ABC has paid $.5 million in profit and risk charges in arrears for the year and has received a $1 million experience refund. Company ABC's annual statement would report $1.65 million (sixty-six percent of ($4 million - $1 million - $.5 million) up to a maximum of $13.2 million) on the "Commissions and expense allowance on reinsurance ceded" line of the summary of operations, and -$1.65 million on the "Aggregate write-ins for gains and losses in surplus" line of the capital and surplus account. The experience refund would be reported separately as a miscellaneous income item in the summary of operations.}
(E) Written agreements
(1) No reinsurance agreement or amendment to any agreement may be used to reduce any liability or to establish any asset in any financial statement filed with the department, unless the agreement, amendment or a letter of intent has been duly executed by both parties no later than the "as of date" of the financial statement.
(2) In the case of a letter of intent, a reinsurance agreement or an amendment to a reinsurance agreement must be executed within a reasonable period of time, not exceeding ninety days from the execution date of the letter of intent, in order for credit to be granted for the reinsurance ceded.
(F) Existing agreements
Insurers subject to this regulation shall reduce to zero by December 31, 1997 any reserve credits or assets established with respect to reinsurance agreements entered into prior to the effective date of this rule which, under the provisions of this regulation would not be entitled to recognition of the reserve credits or assets; provided, however, that the reinsurance agreements shall have been in compliance with laws or rules in existence immediately preceding the effective date of this rule.
(G) Severability
If any section, term, or paragraph of this rule is adjudged invalid for any reason, such judgment shall not affect, impair or invalidate any other section, term or paragraph of this rule, but the remaining section, terms and paragraph shall be and continue in full force and effect.
Last updated July 13, 2026 at 3:03 PM
History
- Effective: April 13, 2006
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-3-08 Definition of work papers.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to define the term "work papers" as employed in section 3901.48 of the Revised Code as it relates to the surveillance and examination of insurers pursuant to section 3901.07 of the Revised Code.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under section 3901.041 of the Revised Code. Section 3901.07 of the Revised Code provides authority to the superintendent of insurance to review the financial affairs of all insurance companies.
(C) Definition of "Work Papers"
The term "work papers" means the records kept by the superintendent of the procedures followed, the tests performed, the information obtained, and the conclusions reached pertinent to his or her examination and surveillance of the financial affairs of an insurer. Work papers may include audit planning documentation, work programs, analyses, memoranda, notes, letters of confirmation and representation, copies of work papers of certified public accountants, abstracts or copies of company documents and schedules of commentaries prepared or obtained by the superintendent in the course of the examination and surveillance of the financial affairs of an insurer.
Information related to the financial affairs of insurers maintained by the "National Association of Insurance Commissioners" that is available to the superintendent in the surveillance of the financial affairs of insurers is also considered a "Work Paper," and may include but is not limited to: formulae, ratios and data known as "Risk Based Capital," "Analyst Team," "Jumpstart," "Financial Analysis Solvency Tools," "Insurance Regulatory Information System," Ratios used by the "Financial Analysis Working Group" or other financial information deemed to be confidential by the "National Association of Insurance Commissioners."
The term "Work Paper" does not mean the annual and quarterly financial statements and exhibits, or the audited financial statements prepared by independent certified public accountants which an insurer is required to file with the department of insurance. The term also does not mean a financial examination report issued by the department of insurance pursuant to section 3901.07 of the Revised Code.
(D) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated March 2, 2026 at 8:34 AM
History
- Effective: February 28, 2026
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-3-09 Requirements for domestic insurers employing the services of reinsurance intermediaries.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to establish minimum contractual terms between domestic insurers, domestic reinsurers and reinsurance intermediaries. This rule also establishes standards for business assumed by domestic reinsurers through reinsurance intermediaries as reported in their annual statement.
The rule also sets out the information reinsurers and reinsurance intermediaries must maintain for the purpose of examination under section 3901.07 of the Revised Code as "documents of ... other persons that are relevant to [an] examination."
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041 and 3901.07 of the Revised Code, and division (B) of section 3901.77 of the Revised Code.
(C) Definitions
As used in this rule:
(1) "Insurer" means a person licensed to operate or to do business in this state under Chapter 1751. of the Revised Code or Title XXXIX of the Revised Code, who is domiciled in the state of Ohio.
(2) "Person" means a person, firm, association or corporation.
(3) "Qualified United States Financial Institution" means an institution that meets all of the following conditions:
(a) The institution is organized or, in the case of a United States office of a foreign banking organization, licensed, under the laws of the United States or any state of the United States;
(b) The institution is regulated, supervised, and examined by authorities of the United States or any state of the United States having regulatory authority over banks and trust companies;
(c) The institution has been determined by either the superintendent of insurance, or the "Securities Valuation Office of the National Association of Insurance Commissioners" (NAIC), to meet such standards of financial condition and standing as are considered necessary and appropriate to regulate the quality of financial institutions whose letters of credit will be acceptable to the superintendent.
(4) "Reinsurance intermediary" means a reinsurance intermediary-broker or a reinsurance intermediary-manager.
(5) "Reinsurance intermediary-broker" means a person, other than an officer or employee of the ceding insurer, that solicits, negotiates, or places reinsurance cessions or retrocessions on behalf of a ceding insurer without the authority or power to bind reinsurance on behalf of such insurer.
(6)
(a) "Reinsurance intermediary-manager" means a person who has authority to bind or manages all or part of the assumed reinsurance business of a reinsurer, including the management of a separate division, department, or underwriting office; and acts as an agent for the reinsurer whether known as a reinsurance intermediary-manager, manager or other similar term.
(b) "Reinsurance intermediary-manager" does not include any of the following:
(i) An employee of the reinsurer;
(ii) A United States manager of the United States branch of an alien reinsurer;
(iii) An underwriting manager that, pursuant to contract, manages all or part of the reinsurance operations of the reinsurer, is under common control with the reinsurer, subject to sections 3901.32 to 3901.37 of the Revised Code, and whose compensation is not based on the volume of premiums written;
(iv) The manager of a group, association, pool or organization of insurers that engages in joint underwriting or joint reinsurance and that are subject to examination by the insurance regulatory authority of the state in which the manager's principal business office is located.
(7) "Reinsurer" means a person licensed in this state pursuant to Title XXXIX of the Revised Code as an insurer with the authority to assume reinsurance, who is domiciled in the state of Ohio.
(D) Required contract provisions between an insurer and a reinsurance intermediary-broker.
Transactions between the reinsurance intermediary-broker and the insurer it represents may only be entered into pursuant to a written authorization which specifies the responsibilities of each party. The authorization, at a minimum, shall provide all of the following:
(1) The insurer may terminate the reinsurance intermediary-broker's authority at any time.
(2) The reinsurance intermediary-broker shall render accounts to the insurer accurately detailing all material transactions, including information necessary to support all commissions, charges, and other fees received by, or owing, to the reinsurance intermediary-broker, and remit all funds due to the insurer within thirty days after receipt.
(3) All funds collected for the insurer's account shall be held by the reinsurance intermediary-broker in a fiduciary capacity in a bank which is a "Qualified United States Financial Institution."
(4) The reinsurance intermediary-broker shall comply with the written standards established by the insurer for the cession or retrocession of all risks.
(5) The reinsurance intermediary-broker shall disclose to the insurer any relationship with any reinsurer to which business will be ceded or retroceded.
(6) The reinsurance intermediary-broker shall agree to maintain for at least ten years after the expiration of each contract of reinsurance transacted a complete record of each transaction showing all of the following:
(a) The type of contract, limits, underwriting restrictions, classes or risks, and territory;
(b) Period of coverage, including effective and expiration dates, cancellation provisions, and notice required of cancellation;
(c) Reporting and settlement requirements of balances;
(d) Rate used to compute the reinsurance premium;
(e) Names and addresses of assuming reinsurers;
(f) Rates of all reinsurance commissions, including the commissions on any retrocessions handled by the reinsurance intermediary-broker;
(g) Related correspondence and memoranda;
(h) Proof of placement;
(i) Details regarding retrocessions handled by the reinsurance intermediary-broker including the identity of retrocessionaires and percentage of each contract assumed or ceded;
(j) Financial records, including premium and loss accounts;
(k) Written evidence:
(i) That the assuming reinsurer has agreed to assume the risk, where the reinsurance intermediary-broker, on behalf of a domestic ceding insurer, procures a reinsurance contract directly from the assuming reinsurer; or
(ii) That the assuming reinsurer has delegated binding authority to the representative, where the reinsurance intermediary-broker, on behalf of a domestic ceding insurer, procures a reinsurance contract placed through a representative, other than an employee, of the assuming reinsurer.
(7) The reinsurance intermediary-broker shall agree to provide the ceding insurer with access, the right to copy, and the right to audit all accounts and records maintained by the reinsurance intermediary-broker related to the insurer's business in a form usable by the insurer.
(8) The reinsurance intermediary-broker agrees to provide annually to the insurer copies of statements of the reinsurance intermediary-broker's financial condition prepared by an independent certified public accountant.
(E) Prohibited acts - insurer
(1) No insurer shall employ a reinsurance intermediary-broker that is not licensed by an insurance regulatory authority of any state of the United States of America as a reinsurance intermediary-broker.
(2) No insurer shall jointly employ an individual who also is employed by a reinsurance intermediary-broker with which the insurer transacts business, unless the reinsurance intermediary-broker is under common control with the insurer and subject to sections 3901.32 to 3901.37 of the Revised Code.
(F) Required contract provisions between a reinsurer and a reinsurance intermediary-manager.
Transactions between a reinsurance intermediary-manager and the reinsurer it represents in the capacity of a reinsurance intermediary-manager shall be entered into only pursuant to a written contract, specifying the responsibilities of each party. The contract shall be approved by the reinsurer's board of directors. The reinsurer shall maintain a copy of the approved contract for review at the request of the superintendent of insurance. The contract, at a minimum, shall provide all of the following:
(1) The reinsurer may terminate the contract for cause upon written notice to the reinsurance intermediary-manager. The reinsurer may immediately suspend the authority of the reinsurance intermediary-manager to assume or cede business during the pendency of any dispute regarding the cause for termination.
(2) The reinsurance intermediary-manager shall render accounts to the reinsurer accurately detailing all material transactions, including information necessary to support all commissions, charges, and other fees received by, or owing to, the reinsurance intermediary-manager, and shall remit all funds due under the contract to the reinsurer on at least a monthly basis.
(3) Any funds collected for the reinsurer's account shall be held by the reinsurance intermediary-manager in a fiduciary capacity in a bank that is a "Qualified United States Financial Institution." The reinsurance intermediary-manager shall retain no more than three months' estimated claims payments and allocated loss adjustment expenses. The reinsurance intermediary-manager shall maintain a separate bank account for each reinsurer it represents.
(4) For at least ten years after the expiration of each contract of reinsurance transacted by the reinsurance intermediary-manager, the reinsurance intermediary-manager shall keep a complete record for each transaction showing all of the following:
(a) The type of contract, limits, underwriting restrictions, classes or risks, and territory;
(b) Period of coverage, including effective and expiration dates, cancellation provisions, and notice required of cancellation, and disposition of outstanding reserves on covered risks;
(c) Reporting and settlement requirements of balances;
(d) Rate used to compute the reinsurance premium;
(e) Names and addresses of reinsurers;
(f) Rates of all reinsurance commissions, including the commissions on any retrocessions handled by the reinsurance intermediary-manager;
(g) Related correspondence and memoranda;
(h) Proof of placement;
(i) Details regarding retrocessions handled by the reinsurance intermediary-manager pursuant to paragraph (F)(14) of this rule, including the identity of retrocessionaires and percentage of each contract assumed or ceded;
(j) Financial records, including premium and loss accounts;
(k)
(i) Written evidence that the assuming reinsurer has agreed to assume the risk, where the reinsurance intermediary-manager, on behalf of a ceding insurer, places a reinsurance contract directly from the assuming reinsurer; or
(ii) Written evidence that the assuming reinsurer has delegated binding authority to the representative, where the reinsurance intermediary-manager, on behalf of a ceding insurer, places a reinsurance contract through a representative, other than an employee, of the assuming reinsurer.
(5) The reinsurer shall have access to and the right to copy all accounts and records maintained by the reinsurance intermediary-manager related to the reinsurer's business in a form usable by the reinsurer.
(6) The contract cannot be assigned in whole or in part by the reinsurance intermediary-manager.
(7) The reinsurance intermediary-manager shall comply with the written underwriting and rating standards established by the insurer for the acceptance, rejection, or cession of all risks.
(8) The rates, terms, and purposes of commissions, charges, and other fees that the reinsurance intermediary-manager may levy against the reinsurer.
(9) If the contract permits the reinsurance intermediary-manager to settle claims on behalf of the reinsurer:
(a) All claims shall be reported to the insurer in a timely manner;
(b) A copy of the claim file shall be sent to the reinsurer at its request or as soon as it becomes known that any of the following applies:
(i) The claim has the potential to exceed the limit set by the reinsurer;
(ii) The claim involves a coverage dispute;
(iii) The claim may exceed the reinsurance intermediary-manager's claims settlement authority;
(iv) The claim is open for more than six months;
(v) The claim is closed by payment of an amount set by the reinsurer.
(c) All claim files shall be the joint property of the reinsurer and the reinsurance intermediary-manager. However, upon an order of rehabilitation or liquidation of the reinsurer such files shall become the sole property of the reinsurer or its estate, but the reinsurance intermediary-manager shall have reasonable access to and the right to copy the files on a timely basis.
(d) Any settlement authority granted to the reinsurance intermediary-manager may be terminated for cause upon the reinsurer's written notice to the reinsurance intermediary-manager or upon the termination of the contract. The reinsurer may suspend the settlement authority during the pendency of the dispute regarding the cause of termination.
(10) If the contract provides for a sharing of interim profits by the reinsurance intermediary-manager, the interim profits shall not be paid until one year after the end of each underwriting period for property business, five years after the end of each underwriting period for casualty business, and not until the adequacy of reserves on remaining claims has been verified pursuant to paragraph (F)(15) of this rule.
(11) The reinsurance intermediary-manager shall annually provide the reinsurer with a statement of its financial condition prepared by an independent certified public accountant.
(12) The reinsurer shall periodically, but at least semi-annually, conduct an on-site review of the underwriting and claims processing operations of the reinsurance intermediary-manager.
(13) The reinsurance intermediary-manager shall disclose to the reinsurer any relationship it has with any insurer prior to ceding or assuming any business with such insurer pursuant to the contract.
(14) Binding authority for all retrocessional contracts or participation in reinsurance syndicates shall rest with an officer of the reinsurer. The officer shall not be affiliated with the reinsurance intermediary-manager.
(15) If a reinsurance intermediary-manager establishes loss reserves, the reinsurer shall annually obtain the opinion of an actuary attesting to the adequacy of loss reserves established for losses incurred and outstanding on business produced by the reinsurance intermediary-manager. This opinion shall be in addition to any other required loss reserve certification. As used in this paragraph, "actuary" means a person who is a member in good standing of the "American Academy of Actuaries".
(16) Within the scope of its actual or apparent authority the acts of the reinsurance intermediary-manager are deemed to be the acts of the reinsurer on whose behalf it is acting.
(17) The reinsurance intermediary-manager shall maintain a bond for the protection of the reinsurer in an amount, and from an insurer, acceptable to the superintendent of insurance.
(18) The reinsurer shall require the reinsurance intermediary-manager to maintain an errors and omissions policy.
(G) Prohibited acts - reinsurer
(1) No reinsurer shall employ a reinsurance intermediary-manager that is not licensed by an insurance regulatory authority of any state of the United States of America, as a reinsurance intermediary-manager.
(2) No reinsurer shall permit its reinsurance intermediary-manager to do any of the following:
(a) Cede retrocessions on behalf of the reinsurer. However, the reinsurance intermediary-manager may cede facultative retrocessions pursuant to obligatory facultative agreements if the contract with the reinsurer contains reinsurance underwriting guidelines for such retrocessions. The guidelines shall include all of the following:
(i) A list of reinsurers with which automatic agreements are in effect;
(ii) For each such reinsurer, the coverages and amounts or percentages that may be reinsured;
(iii) Commission schedules.
(b) Commit the reinsurer to participate in reinsurance syndicates.
(c) Appoint any producer without assuring that the producer is lawfully licensed to transact the type of reinsurance for which he is appointed.
(d) Without prior approval of the reinsurer, pay or commit the reinsurer to pay a claim, net of retrocessions, that exceeds the lesser of an amount specified by the reinsurer or one per cent of the reinsurer's policyholder's surplus as of the thirty-first day of December of the last complete calendar year.
(e) Collect any payment from a retrocessionaire or commit the reinsurer to any claim settlement with a retrocessionaire, without prior approval of the reinsurer.
(f) Jointly employ an individual who is employed by the reinsurer unless the reinsurance intermediary-manager is under common control with the reinsurer subject to sections 3901.32 to 3901.37 of the Revised Code.
(g) Appoint a sub-reinsurance intermediary-manager.
(3) A reinsurer shall not appoint to its board of directors, any officer, director, employee, controlling shareholder or subproducer of its reinsurance intermediary-manager.
(H) Severability
If any paragraph, term or provision of this rule be adjudged invalid for any reason, the judgment shall not affect, impair or invalidate any other paragraph, term or provision of this rule, but the remaining paragraphs, terms and provisions shall be and continue in full force and effect.
Last updated December 16, 2025 at 11:14 AM
History
- Effective: October 29, 2015
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-3-10 Licensing of managing general agents.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to set out the requirements for licensing of managing general agents and establish the procedures to be used in the licensing of managing general agents.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent of insurance under sections 3901.041 and 3905.79 of the Revised Code.
(C) Application
(1) Every person who seeks a license as a managing general agent under sections 3905.71 to 3905.79 of the Revised Code shall apply to the superintendent of insurance in writing on a form provided by the superintendent.
(2) In addition to the information required by divisions (B)(1) to (B)(7) of section 3905.72of the Revised Code all applicants must disclose the following as part of their application:
(a) Whether the applicant has been convicted of or pleaded guilty or no contest to any criminal offense;
(b) Whether the applicant has had any administrative action taken against a professional license or registration that they hold;
(c) Whether the applicant has ever been involved with an entity which was placed in bankruptcy, conservatorship, or similar supervision; and
(d) Any other information required by the superintendent.
(3) When the applicant applies for a license the applicant shall provide a list, including addresses, of all the applicant's agents, producers, or subproducers, which shall be kept current by filing notice of any changes within thirty days of the end of each calendar quarter.
(4) The application fee of twenty dollars shall be submitted with the application.
(D) Effective date
The date on which an applicant is assigned a license number by the department is the effective date of that license. The license shall expire on the last day of February of each calendar year, except that if an insurer terminates the appointment of a managing general agent the license will expire on the date of the termination. An insurer shall immediately notify the superintendent of insurance when it terminates the appointment of a managing general agent and such termination shall be effective on the date it is received by the department.
(E) Change of address
Every licensed managing general agent shall notify the superintendent in writing of any change in their business or residence address within thirty days. This change of address shall be made on a form provided by the superintendent of insurance, and merely placing the new address on correspondence or filings with the department without filing a change of address notice is not sufficient to comply with this requirement.
(F) Violation
Failure to comply with any requirements set out in this rule shall be grounds for the revocation or suspension of a managing general agent license.
(G) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated March 2, 2026 at 8:34 AM
History
- Effective: February 28, 2026
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-3-12 Derivative use plan.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to establish the content of the derivative use plans to be filed with the superintendent pursuant to sections 3906.12, 3907.14, and 3925.08 of the Revised Code.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041, 3906.12, 3907.14 and 3925.08 of the Revised Code.
(C) Derivative use plan
(1) The insurer shall submit a derivative use plan, or amendment thereto, to the superintendent. The derivative use plan or the amendment thereto will be referred to as "the plan" hereinafter. The filing shall include a certified copy of the authorization by the insurer's board of directors, or a committee thereof charged with the responsibility for supervising investments, pursuant to sections 3906.12, 3907.14 and 3925.08 of the Revised Code. When submitting its plan, the insurer shall also provide to the superintendent:
(a) In the event the plan is adopted by a committee of the insurer's board of directors, information with respect to the composition, in terms of title and position, of such committee; and
(b) The name and title of the senior most investment person responsible for derivative transactions; a description of his or her duties and responsibilities, as well as a curriculum vitae or equivalent document. Such information shall be updated and provided to the superintendent as changes occur.
(2) The plan shall contain written guidelines to be followed in engaging in derivative transactions. The guidelines shall include or address:
(a) The type, maturity and diversification of derivative instruments;
(b) The limitation on counterparty exposures, including limitations based on credit ratings;
(c) The limitations on the use of derivatives;
(d) Asset/liability management practices with respect to derivative transactions;
(e) The liquidity needs and the company's capital and surplus as it relates to the derivative use plan;
(f) The policy objectives of management specific enough to outline permissible derivative strategies;
(g) The relationship of the derivative strategies to the insurer's operations;
(h) A requirement that management establishes and executes management oversight standards pursuant to paragraph (D) of this rule and a description of these standards;
(i) A requirement that management establishes and executes internal controls and reporting standards pursuant to paragraph (E) of this rule and a description of these standards; and
(j) A requirement that management establishes and executes documentation and reporting standards pursuant to paragraph (F) of this rule and a description of these standards.
(3) The plan shall contain, to the extent applicable to the specific derivative transactions authorized, guidelines for the insurer's acceptable levels of basis risk, credit risk, foreign currency risk, interest rate risk, market risk, operational risk and option risk. The plan shall also provide that the board of directors, or a committee thereof charged with the responsibility for supervising investments, and senior management shall comply with risk oversight functions and adhere to laws, rules, regulations, prescribed practices or ethical standards.
(D) Management oversight standards
(1) In order to address the need for appropriate oversight by senior management and by the board of directors, or a committee thereof charged with the responsibility for supervising investments, and to provide for a comprehensive risk management process for derivative instruments, an insurer shall establish the following with respect to derivative transactions:
(a) Appropriate limits for various identified risks relevant to the derivative transactions used by the insurer;
(b) Procedures and practices that control the nature and amount of such risks;
(c) Adequate systems or processes for identifying and measuring such risks;
(d) Systems or processes for documenting, monitoring and reporting risk exposures on a timely basis; and
(e) Systems or processes of internal review and audit to ensure the integrity of the overall risk management process.
(2) The board of directors, or a committee thereof charged with the responsibility for supervising investments, shall receive and review quarterly reports, including:
(a) Information to ascertain that all derivative transactions have been made in accordance with delegations, standards, limitations and investment objectives contained in the derivative use plan;
(b) The outstanding derivative positions; the unrealized gains or losses thereon;
(c) The derivative transactions closed during the report period;
(d) A performance review of the derivative transactions;
(e) An evaluation of the risks and benefits of the derivative transactions; and
(f) Other information necessary to ensure that the internal control procedures are being followed.
(3) The board of directors, or a committee thereof charged with the responsibility for supervising investments, shall establish the following management oversight standards for derivative transactions:
(a) The board of directors, or a committee thereof charged with the responsibility for supervising investments, has an affirmative obligation to prior approve its desired risk tolerance levels. Management shall appropriately translate these risk tolerance levels into effective policies and procedures that address both individual transactions and entire portfolios;
(b) Management and the board of directors, or a committee thereof charged with the responsibility for supervising investments, shall receive sufficient information to assess the strengths and limitations of the insurer's risk measurement systems in order to determine appropriate risk limits. The board of directors, or a committee thereof charged with the responsibility for supervising investments, shall also review management's response to strengths and limitations identified through oversight processes such as stress testing, independent validation and back-testing of risk measurement models. Management and the board of directors, or a committee thereof charged with the responsibility for supervising investments, shall consider the information identified by the oversight processes, including the potential for indirect effects of downside performance beyond the insurer's finances, when they determine and communicate their risk profile;
(c) When management or the board of directors, or a committee thereof charged with the responsibility for supervising investments, identifies weaknesses in the risk management process, they shall consider alternatives and take steps to strengthen that process;
(d) Actions shall be taken to correct any deficiencies in internal controls relative to derivative transactions, including any deficiencies determined by the independent certified public accountant in the evaluation of accounting procedures and internal controls;
(e) Risk oversight functions shall possess independence, authority, and expertise; and
(f) Issuer and counterparty credit decisions for each transaction shall be consistent with the overall credit standards of the insurer.
(E) Internal controls and reporting
Before engaging in derivative transactions, an insurer shall establish adequate internal control procedures to deal with derivatives, including but not be limited to:
(1) Systems or processes for periodic valuation of derivative transactions including mechanisms for compensating for any lack of independence in valuing trading positions;
(2) Systems or processes for determining whether a derivative instrument used for hedging has been effective;
(3) Credit risk management systems or processes for over-the-counter derivative transactions that measure credit risk exposure using the counterparty exposure amount and clearly articulated policies for the establishment of collateral arrangements with counterparties;
(4) A determination of whether the insurer has adequate professional personnel, technical expertise and systems to implement and control investment practices involving derivatives;
(5) Systems or processes for regular reports to management, segregation of duties and internal review procedures; and
(6) Systems or procedures for conducting initial and ongoing legal review of derivative transactions including assessments of contract enforceability.
(F) Documentation and reporting requirements:
The insurer shall maintain documentation and records relating to each derivative transaction including:
(1) The purpose or purposes of the transaction;
(2) The assets or liabilities (or portfolios thereof) to which the transaction relates;
(3) The specific derivative instruments used in the transaction;
(4) For over-the-counter derivative transactions, the name of the counterparty, and counterparty exposure amount; and
(5) For exchange-traded derivative instruments, the name of the exchange and the name of the firm handling the trade.
(G) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated November 14, 2024 at 8:52 AM
History
- Effective: November 14, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-3-13 Health insurance reserves.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to establish the minimum reserve standards for all individual and group health insurance coverages, including single premium credit disability insurance. All other credit insurance is not subject to this rule.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under section 3901.041 and division (Q) of section 3903.723 of the Revised Code.
(C) Scope
(1) These standards establish a minimum reserve standard for all individual and group health insurance coverages, including single premium credit disability insurance. When an insurer determines that adequacy of its health insurance reserves requires reserves in excess of the minimum standards specified herein, such increased reserves shall be held and shall be considered the minimum reserves for that insurer.
(2) With respect to any block of contracts, or with respect to an insurer's health business as a whole, a prospective gross premium valuation is the ultimate test of reserve adequacy as of a given valuation date. Such a gross premium valuation will take into account, for contracts in force, in a claims status, or in a continuation of benefits status on the valuation date, the present value as of the valuation date of: all expected benefits unpaid, all expected expenses unpaid, and all unearned or expected premiums, adjusted for future premium increases reasonably expected to be put into effect.
(3) Such a gross premium valuation is to be performed whenever a significant doubt exists as to reserve adequacy with respect to any major block of contracts, or with respect to the insurer's health business as a whole. In the event inadequacy is found to exist, immediate loss recognition shall be made and the reserves restored to adequacy. Adequate reserves (inclusive of claim, premium and contract reserves, if any) shall be held with respect to all contracts, regardless of whether contract reserves are required for such contracts under these standards.
(4) Whenever minimum reserves, as defined in these standards, exceed reserve requirements as determined by a prospective gross premium valuation, such minimum reserves remain the minimum requirement under these standards.
(5) This rule sets forth minimum standards for three categories of health insurance reserves: claim reserves, premium reserves and contract reserves. Adequacy of an insurer's health insurance reserves is to be determined on the basis of all three categories combined. However, these standards emphasize the importance of determining appropriate reserves for each of these categories separately.
(D) Definitions
(1) "Annual claim cost" means the net annual cost per unit of benefit before the addition of expenses, including claim settlement expenses, and a margin for profit or contingencies. For example, the annual claim cost for a one hundred dollar monthly disability benefit, for a maximum disability benefit period of one year, with an elimination period of one week, with respect to a male at age thirty-five, in a certain occupation might be twelve dollars, while the gross premium for this benefit might be eighteen dollars. The additional six dollars would cover expenses and profit or contingencies.
(2) "Claims accrued" means that portion of claims incurred on or prior to the valuation date which result in liability of the insurer for the payment of benefits for medical services which have been rendered on or prior to the valuation date, and for the payment of benefits for days of hospitalization and days of disability which have occurred on or prior to the valuation date, which the insurer has not paid as of the valuation date, but for which it is liable, and will have to pay after the valuation date. This liability is sometimes referred to as a liability for "accrued" benefits. A claim reserve, which represents an estimate of this accrued claim liability, must be established.
(3) "Claims reported" means a claim that has been incurred on or prior to the valuation date and the insurer has been informed of it on or before the valuation date. This claim is considered a reported claim for annual statement purposes.
(4) "Claims unaccrued" means that portion of claims incurred on or prior to the valuation date which result in liability of the insurer for the payment of benefits for medical services expected to be rendered after the valuation date, and for benefits expected to be payable for days of hospitalization and days of disability occurring after the valuation date. This liability is sometimes referred to as a liability for unaccrued benefits. A claim reserve, which represents an estimate of the unaccrued claim payments expected to be made (which may or may not be discounted with interest), must be established.
(5) "Claims unreported" means a claim that has been incurred on or prior to the valuation date but the insurer has not been informed of it on or before the valuation date. This claim is considered an unreported claim for annual statement purposes.
(6) "Date of disablement" means the earliest date the insured is considered as being disabled under the definition of disability in the contract, based on a doctor's evaluation or other evidence. Normally this date will coincide with the start of any elimination period.
(7) "Elimination period" means a specified number of days, weeks, or months starting at the beginning of each period of loss, during which no benefits are payable.
(8) "Gross premium" means the amount of premium charged by the insurer. It includes the net premium (based on claim-cost) for the risk, together with any loading for expenses, profit or contingencies.
(9) "Group insurance" means blanket insurance and franchise insurance and any other forms of group insurance.
(10) "Group long-term disability income insurance" means any group insurance policy or rider advertised, marketed, offered or designed to provide group disability income coverage with a maximum benefit duration longer than two years that is based on a group pricing structure. The term "group long-term disability income insurance" does not include voluntary group disability income insurance coverage that is priced on an individual risk structure and generally sold in the workplace.
(11) "Level premium" means a premium calculated to remain unchanged throughout either the lifetime of the policy, or for some shorter projected period of years. The premium need not be guaranteed; in which case, although it is calculated to remain level, it may be changed if any of the assumptions on which it was based are revised at a later time. Generally, the annual claim costs are expected to increase each year and the insurer, instead of charging premiums that correspondingly increase each year, charges a premium calculated to remain level for a period of years or for the lifetime of the contract. In this case the benefit portion of the premium is more than needed to provide for the cost of benefits during the earlier years of the policy and less than the actual cost in the later years. The building of a prospective contract reserve is a natural result of level premiums.
(12) "Long-term care insurance" means any insurance policy or rider advertised, marketed, offered or designed to provide coverage for not less than twelve consecutive months for each covered person on an expense incurred, indemnity, prepaid or other basis; for one or more necessary or medically necessary diagnostic, preventive, therapeutic, rehabilitative, maintenance or personal care services, provided in a setting other than an acute care unit of a hospital. Such term also includes a policy or rider which provides for payment of benefits based upon cognitive impairment or the loss of functional capacity. Long-term care insurance may be issued by insurers; fraternal benefit societies; nonprofit health, hospital, and medical service corporations; prepaid health plans; health maintenance organizations or any similar organization to the extent they are otherwise authorized to issue life or health insurance. Long-term care insurance shall not include any insurance policy which is offered primarily to provide basic medicare supplement coverage, basic hospital expense coverage, basic medical-surgical expense coverage, hospital confinement indemnity coverage, major medical expense coverage, disability income or related asset-protection coverage, accident only coverage, specified disease or specified accident coverage, or limited benefit health coverage.
(13) "Modal premium" means the premium paid on a contract based on a premium term which could be annual, semi-annual, quarterly, monthly, or weekly. Thus if the annual premium is one hundred dollars and if, instead, monthly premiums of nine dollars are paid then the modal premium is nine dollars.
(14) "Negative reserve" means the terminal reserve where the values of the benefits are decreasing with advancing age or duration such that it results in a negative value, called a negative reserve. Normally the terminal reserve is a positive value.
(15) "Preliminary term reserve method" means the method of valuation where the valuation net premium for each year falling within the preliminary term period is exactly sufficient to cover the expected incurred claims of that year, so that the terminal reserves will be zero at the end of the year. As of the end of the preliminary term period, a new constant valuation net premium (or stream of changing valuation premiums) becomes applicable such that the present value of all such premiums is equal to the present value of all claims expected to be incurred following the end of the preliminary term period.
(16) "Present value of amounts not yet due on claims" means the reserve for "claims unaccrued" which may be discounted at interest.
(17) "Rating block" means a grouping of contracts determined by the valuation actuary based on common characteristics filed with the superintendent, such as a policy form or forms having similar benefit designs.
(18) "Reserve" means all items of benefit liability, whether in the nature of incurred claim liability or in the nature of contract liability relating to future periods of coverage, and whether the liability is accrued or unaccrued. An insurer under its contracts promises benefits which result in:
(a) Claims which have been incurred, that is, for which the insurer has become obligated to make payment, on or prior to the valuation date, (on these claims, payments expected to be made after the valuation date for accrued and unaccrued benefits are liabilities of the insurer which should be provided for by establishing claim reserves); or
(b) Claims which are expected to be incurred after the valuation date, (any present liability of the insurer for these future claims should be provided for by the establishment of contract reserves and unearned premium reserves.)
(19) "Terminal reserve" means the reserve at the end of the contract year which is equal to the present value of benefits expected to be incurred after the contract year minus the present value of future valuation net premiums.
(20) "Unearned premium reserve" means that portion of the premium paid or due to the insurer which is applicable to the period of coverage extending beyond the valuation date. Thus if an annual premium of one hundred twenty dollars was paid on November first, twenty dollars would be earned as of December thirty-first and the remaining one hundred dollars would be unearned. The unearned premium reserve could be on a gross basis as in this example, or on a valuation net premium basis.
(21) "Valuation manual" means the manual produced by the "National Association of Insurance Commissioners" (NAIC) and updated annually that contains the minimum reserve and related requirements for life, accident and health insurance.
(22) "Valuation net modal premium" means the modal fraction of the valuation net annual premium that corresponds to the gross modal premium in effect on any contract to which contract reserves apply. Thus if the mode of payment in effect is quarterly, the valuation net modal premium is the quarterly equivalent of the valuation net annual premium.
(23) "Worksite franchise disability insurance" means any insurance policy or rider advertised, marketed, offered or designed to provide individual disability coverage that is sold at the worksite through employer-sponsored enrollment and complies with section 3923.11 of the Revised Code. Worksite franchise disability insurance does not include coverage for business overhead expense, disability buyout, or key person policies.
(24) "Worksite individual disability insurance" means any insurance policy or rider advertised, marketed, offered or designed to provide personal disability coverage that is sold to an individual at the worksite, and is not associated with employer-sponsored enrollment. Worksite individual disability insurance does not include business overhead expense, disability buyout, or key person policies.
(E) Claim reserves
(1) General
(a) Claim reserves are required for all incurred but unpaid claims on all health insurance policies. For contracts with an elimination period, the duration of disablement shall be measured as dating from the time that benefits would have begun to accrue had there been no elimination period.
(b) Appropriate claim expense reserves are required with respect to the estimated expense of settlement of all incurred but unpaid claims.
(c) All such reserves for prior valuation years are to be tested for adequacy and reasonableness along the lines of claim runoff schedules in accordance with the statutory financial statement including consideration of any residual unpaid liability.
(d) For claim reserves on policies that require contract reserves, the claim incurral date is to be considered the "issue date" for determining the table and interest rate to be used for claim reserves.
(e) The maximum interest rate for claim reserves is specified in paragraph (I) of this rule.
(f) With respect to claim reserves for policies issued prior to January 1, 2017, the operative date of the valuation manual, the requirements for claim reserves on claims incurred after that date shall be as described in the valuation manual based on the incurred date of the claim.
(2) Minimum morbidity standards for individual disability income claim reserves
(a) For claims incurred prior to January 1, 2005, each insurer may elect which of the following to use as the minimum morbidity standard for claim reserves:
(i) The minimum morbidity standard in effect for claim reserves as of the date the claim was incurred, or
(ii) The standards as defined in paragraph (E)(2)(b) or (E)(2)(c) of this rule, applied to all open claims. Once an insurer elects to calculate reserves for all open claims on the standard defined in either paragraph (E)(2)(b) or (E)(2)(c) of this rule, all future valuations must be on that basis.
(b) For claims incurred on or after January 1, 2005 and prior to the effective date for the company as determined in paragraph (E)(2)(e) of this rule, the minimum standards with respect to morbidity are those specified in paragraph (I) of this rule, except that, at the option of the insurer, assumptions regarding claim termination rates for the period less than two years from the date of disablement may be based on the insurer's experience, if such experience is considered credible, or upon other assumptions and methods designed to place a sound value on the liabilities.
(c) For claims incurred on or after January 1, 2020, the minimum standards are those specified in paragraph (I) of this rule, including (as derived in accordance with actuarial guideline L, as included in the 2019 version of the NAIC accounting practices and procedures manual):
(i) The use of the insurer's own experience; and
(ii) An adjustment to include the insurer's own experience measurement margin; and
(iii) The application of a credibility factor.
(d) In determining the minimum reserves in accordance with paragraph (E)(2)(c) of this rule, the provisions in paragraphs (E)(2)(c)(i) to (E)(2)(c)(iii) of this rule are not required if:
(i) The insurer meets the own experience measurement exemption provided in actuarial guideline L as included in the 2019 version of the NAIC accounting practices and procedures manual; or
(ii) For worksite franchise disability insurance policies with benefit periods of up to two years, at the option of the insurer, disabled life reserves may be based on the insurer's experience, if such experience is considered credible, or upon other assumptions and methods designed to place a sound value on the liabilities.
(e) An insurer may begin to use the minimum reserve standards in paragraph (E)(2)(c) of this rule at a date earlier than the effective date of this rule.
(f) An insurer may apply the new standards in paragraph (E)(2)(c) of this rule to all open claims regardless of incurred date. Once an insurer elects to calculate reserves for all open claims based on paragraph (E)(2)(c) of this rule, all future valuations must be on that basis.
(3) Minimum morbidity standards for group disability income claim reserves
(a) For claims incurred prior to January 1, 2005, each insurer may elect which of the following to use as the minimum morbidity standard for claim reserves:
(i) The minimum morbidity standard in effect for claim reserves as of the date the claim was incurred; or
(ii) The standards as defined in paragraph (E)(3)(b) of this rule, applied to all open group long-term disability income insurance claims; or
(iii) The standards as defined in paragraph (E)(3)(c) of this rule, applied to all open group disability income insurance claims.
Once an insurer elects to calculate reserves for all open claims on a more recent standard, then all future valuations must be on that basis.
(b) For group long-term disability income insurance claims incurred on or after January 1, 2005, but before the effective date in paragraph (E)(3)(c) of this rule, and group disability income insurance claims incurred on or after January 1, 2005, that are not group long-term disability income, the minimum standards with respect to morbidity are those specified in paragraph (I) of this rule, except that, at the option of the insurer:
(i) Assumptions regarding claim termination rates for the period less than two years from the date of disablement may be based on the insurer's experience, if the experience is considered credible, or upon other assumptions and methods designed to place a sound value on the liabilities.
(ii) Assumptions regarding claim termination rates for the period two or more years but less than five years from the date of disablement may, with the approval of the superintendent, be based on the insurer's experience for which the insurer maintains underwriting and claim administration control. The request for such approval of a plan of modification to the reserve basis must include:
(a) An analysis of the credibility of the experience;
(b) A description of how all of the insurer's experience is proposed to be used in setting reserves;
(c) A description and quantification of the margins to be included;
(d) A summary of the financial impact that the proposed plan of modification would have had on the insurer's last filed annual statement;
(e) A copy of the approval of the proposed plan of modification by the insurance regulatory agency of the insurer's state of domicile; and
(f) Any other information deemed necessary by the superintendent.
(iii) Each insurer may elect which of the following to use as the minimum morbidity standard for group long-term disability income insurance claim reserves:
(a) The minimum morbidity standard in effect for claim reserves as of the date the claim was incurred, or
(b) The standards as defined in paragraph (E)(3)(c) of this rule, applied to all open claims.
Once an insurer elects to calculate reserves for all open claims on a more recent standard, then all future valuations must be on that basis.
(c) For group long-term disability income insurance claims incurred on or after January 1, 2020, the minimum standards with respect to morbidity shall be based on the 2012 GLTD termination table in accordance with actuarial guideline XLVII, as included in the 2019 version of the NAIC accounting practices and procedures manual with considerations of:
(i) The use of the insurer's own experience; and
(ii) An adjustment to include the insurer's own experience measurement margin; and
(iii) The application of a credibility factor.
(d) An insurer may begin to use the minimum reserve standards in paragraph (E)(3)(c) of this rule at a date earlier than the effective date of this rule. An insurer may apply the standards in paragraph (E)(3)(c) of this rule to all open claims incurred prior to the effective date of paragraph (E)(3)(c) of this rule for the insurer. Once an insurer elects to calculate reserves for all open claims based on paragraph (E)(3)(c) of this rule, all future valuations must be on that basis.
(4) Minimum morbidity or other contingency standard for other health insurance claim reserves
The reserve must be based on the insurer's experience, if the experience is considered credible, or upon other assumptions and methods designed to place a sound value on the liabilities.
(5) Claim reserve methods generally
A generally accepted actuarial reserving method or other reasonable method, based on information and data describing the proposed method, or a combination of methods may be used to estimate all claim liabilities if approved by the superintendent prior to the statement date. The methods used for estimating liabilities generally may be aggregate methods, or various reserve items may be separately valued. Approximations based on groupings and averages may also be employed. Adequacy of the claim reserves, however, shall be determined in the aggregate.
(F) Premium reserves
(1) General
(a) Unearned premium reserves are required for all contracts, except individual and group single premium credit disability insurance, with respect to the period of coverage for which premiums, other than premiums paid in advance, have been paid beyond the date of valuation.
(b) If premiums due and unpaid are carried as an asset, such premiums must be treated as premiums in force, subject to unearned premium reserve determination. The value of unpaid commissions, premium taxes and the cost of collection associated with due and unpaid premiums shall be carried as an offsetting liability.
(c) The gross premiums paid in advance for a period of coverage commencing after the next premium due date which follows the date of valuation may be appropriately discounted to the valuation date and shall be held either as a separate liability or as an addition to the unearned premium reserve which would otherwise be required as a minimum.
(2) Minimum standards for unearned premium reserves
(a) The minimum unearned premium reserve with respect to any contract is the pro rata unearned modal premium that applies to the premium period beyond the valuation date, with such premium determined on the basis of:
(i) The valuation net modal premium on the contract reserve basis applying to the contract; or
(ii) The gross modal premium for the contract if no contract reserve applies.
(b) In no event may the sum of the unearned premium and contract reserves for all contracts of the insurer subject to contract reserve requirements be less than the gross modal unearned premium reserve on all such contracts, as of the date of valuation. Such reserve shall never be less than the expected claims for the period beyond the valuation date represented by such unearned premium reserve, to the extent not provided for elsewhere.
(3) Premium reserve methods generally
The insurer may employ suitable approximations and estimates; including, but not limited to groupings, averages and aggregate estimation; in computing premium reserves. Such approximations or estimates should be tested periodically to determine their continuing adequacy and reliability.
(G) Contract reserves
(1) General
(a) Contract reserves are required, unless otherwise specified in paragraph (G)(1)(b) of this rule for:
(i) All individual and group contracts with which level premiums are used; or
(ii) All individual and group contracts with respect to which, due to the gross premium pricing structure at issue, the value of the future benefits at any time exceeds the value of any appropriate future valuation net premiums at that time. This evaluation may be applied on a rating block basis if the total premiums for the block were developed to support the total risk assumed and expected expenses for the block each year, and a qualified actuary certifies the premium development. The actuary should state in the certification that premiums for the rating block were developed such that each year's premium was intended to cover that year's costs without any prefunding. If the premium is also intended to recover costs for any prior years, the actuary should also disclose the reasons for and magnitude of such recovery. The values specified in paragraph (G)(1)(a)(ii) of this rule shall be determined on the basis specified in paragraph (G)(2) of this rule.
(b) Contracts not requiring a contract reserve are:
(i) Contracts which cannot be continued after one year from issue; or
(ii) Contracts already in force on the effective date of this rule for which no contract reserve was required under the immediately preceding standards.
(c) The contract reserve is in addition to claim reserves and premium reserves.
(d) The methods and procedures for contract reserves should be consistent with those for claim reserves for any contract, or else appropriate adjustment must be made when necessary to assure provision for the aggregate liability. The definition of the date of incurral must be the same in both determinations.
(e) The contract reserves for single premium credit disability insurance shall never be less than the expected claims for the period beyond the valuation date.
(f) The total contract reserve established shall incorporate provisions for moderately adverse deviations.
(2) Minimum standards for contract reserves
(a) Basis
(i) Morbidity or other contingency. Minimum standards with respect to morbidity are those set forth in paragraph (I) of this rule. Valuation net premiums used under each contract must have a structure consistent with the gross premium structure at issue of the contract as this relates to advancing age of insured, contract duration and period for which gross premiums have been calculated.
Contracts for which tabular morbidity standards are not specified in paragraph (I) of this rule shall be valued using tables established for reserve purposes by a qualified actuary and acceptable to the superintendent. The morbidity tables shall contain a pattern for incurred claims cost that reflects the underlying morbidity and shall not be constructed for the primary purpose of minimizing reserves.
(a) In determining the morbidity assumptions, the actuary shall use assumptions that represent the best estimate of anticipated future experience, but shall not incorporate any expectation of future morbidity improvement. Morbidity improvement is a change, in the combined effect of claim frequency and the present value of future expected claim payments given that a claim has occurred, from the current morbidity tables or experience that will result in a reduction to reserves. It is not the intent of this provision to restrict the ability of the actuary to reflect the morbidity impact for a specific known event that has occurred and that is able to be evaluated and quantified.
(b) Business in force as of the effective date of paragraph (G)(2)(a)(iii)(c) of this rule may be permitted to retain the original reserve basis which may not meet the provisions of paragraph (G)(2)(a)(i)(a) of this rule, subject to the acceptability of the superintendent.
(ii) Interest. The maximum interest rate is specified in paragraph (I) of this rule.
(iii) Termination rates. Termination rates used in the computation of reserves shall be on the basis of a mortality table as specified in paragraph (I) of this rule except as noted in paragraphs (G)(2)(a)(iii)(a), (G)(2)(a)(iii)(b), and (G)(2)(a)(iii)(c) of this rule.
(a) Under contracts for which premium rates are not guaranteed, and where the effects of insurer underwriting are specifically used by policy duration in the valuation morbidity standard or for return of premium or other deferred cash benefits, total termination rates may be used at ages and durations where these exceed specified mortality table rates, but not in excess of the lesser of:
(i) Eighty per cent of the total termination rate used in the calculation of the gross premiums, or
(ii) Eight per cent.
(b) For long-term care individual policies or group certificates issued after December 31, 2003, the contract reserve may be established on a basis of separate:
(i) Mortality (as specified in paragraph (I) of this rule); and
(ii) Terminations other than mortality, where the terminations are not to exceed:
(A) For policy years one through four, the lesser of eighty per cent of the voluntary lapse rate used in the calculation of gross premiums and eight per cent;
(B) For policy years five and later, the lesser of one hundred per cent of the voluntary lapse rate used in the calculation of gross premiums and four per cent.
(c) For long-term care individual policies or group certificates issued on or after January 1, 2011, the contract reserve may be established on a basis of separate:
(i) Mortality (as specified in paragraph (I) of this rule); and
(ii) Terminations other than mortality, where the terminations are not to exceed;
(A) For policy year one, the lesser of eighty per cent of the voluntary lapse rate used in the calculation of gross premiums and six per cent;
(B) For policy year two through four, the lesser of eighty per cent of the voluntary lapse rate used in the calculation of gross premiums and four per cent;
(C) For policy year five and later, the lesser of one hundred per cent of the voluntary lapse rate used in the calculation of gross premiums and two per cent, except for group long-term care insurance as defined in section 3923.41 of the Revised Code where the two per cent shall be three per cent.
(d) Where a morbidity standard specified in paragraph (I) of this rule is on an aggregate basis, such morbidity standard may be adjusted to reflect the effect of insurer underwriting by policy duration. The adjustments must be appropriate to the underwriting and be acceptable to the superintendent.
(b) Reserve method
(i) The preliminary term method may be applied only in relation to the date of issue of a contract. Reserve adjustments introduced later, as a result of rate increases, revisions in assumptions (e.g., projected inflation rates) or for other reasons, are to be applied immediately as of the effective date of adoption of the adjusted basis.
(ii) For insurance except long-term care and return of premium or other deferred cash benefits, the minimum reserve is the reserve calculated on the two-year full preliminary term method; that is, under which the terminal reserve is zero at the first and also the second contract anniversary.
(iii) For long-term care insurance, the minimum reserve is the reserve calculated as follows:
(a) For individual policies and group certificates issued on or before December 31, 1996, reserves calculated on the two-year full preliminary term method;
(b) For individual policies and group certificates issued on or after January 1, 1997, reserves calculated on the one-year full preliminary term method.
(iv) For return of premium or other deferred cash benefits, the minimum reserve is the reserve calculated as follows:
(a) On the one year preliminary term method if such benefits are provided at any time before the twentieth anniversary;
(b) On the two year preliminary term method if such benefits are only provided on or after the twentieth anniversary.
(c) Negative reserves. Negative reserves on any benefit may be offset against positive reserves for other benefits in the same contract, but the total contract reserve with respect to all benefits combined may not be less than zero.
(d) Nonforfeiture benefits for long-term care insurance. The contract reserve on a policy basis shall not be less than the net single premium for the nonforfeiture benefits at the appropriate policy duration, where the net single premium is computed according to the listed specifications.
(3) Alternative valuation methods and assumptions generally
Provided the contract reserve on all contracts to which an alternative method or basis is applied is not less in the aggregate than the amount determined according to the applicable standards specified above; an insurer may use any reasonable assumptions as to interest rates, termination and mortality rates, and rates of morbidity or other contingency. Also, subject to the preceding condition, the insurer may employ methods other than the methods stated above in determining a sound value of its liabilities under such contracts, including, but not limited to the following: the net level premium method; the one-year full preliminary term method; prospective valuation on the basis of actual gross premiums with reasonable allowance for future expenses; the use of approximations such as those involving age groupings, groupings of several years of issue, average amounts of indemnity, grouping of similar contract forms; the computation of the reserve for one contract benefit as a percentage of, or by other relation to, the aggregate contract reserves exclusive of the benefit or benefits so valued; and the use of a composite annual claim cost for all or any combination of the benefits included in the contracts valued.
(4) Tests for adequacy and reasonableness of contract reserves
Annually, an appropriate review shall be made of the insurer's prospective contract liabilities on contracts valued by tabular reserves, to determine the continuing adequacy and reasonableness of the tabular reserves giving consideration to future gross premiums. The insurer shall make appropriate increments to such tabular reserves if such tests indicate that the basis of such reserves is no longer adequate; subject, however, to the minimum standards of paragraph (G)(2) of this rule.
In the event a company has a contract or a group of related similar contracts, for which future gross premiums will be restricted by contract, or is otherwise restricted by law, such that the future gross premiums reduced by expenses for administration, commissions, and taxes will be insufficient to cover future claims, the company shall establish contract reserves for such shortfall in the aggregate.
(H) Reinsurance
Increases to, or credits against reserves carried, arising because of reinsurance assumed or reinsurance ceded, must be determined in a manner consistent with these minimum reserve standards and with all applicable provisions of the reinsurance contracts which affect the insurer's liabilities.
(I) Specific standards for morbidity, interest and mortality
(1) Morbidity
(a) Minimum morbidity standards for valuation of specified individual contract health insurance benefits are as follows:
(i) Disability income insurance benefits due to accident or sickness.
(a) Contract reserves:
(i) Contracts issued on or after January 1, 1965 and prior to January 1, 1992:
The 1964 commissioners disability table (64CDT).
(ii) Contracts issued on or after January 1, 1992 and prior to January 1, 2020:
(A) The 1985 commissioners individual disability tables A (85CIDA); or
(B) The 1985 commissioners individual disability tables B (85CIDB).
(iii) Contracts issued during 1987 to 1991:
(A) Optional use of either the 1964 table or the 1985 tables; and
(B) Each insurer shall elect, with respect to all individual contracts issued in any one statement year, whether it will use tables A or tables B as the minimum standard. The insurer may, however, elect to use the other tables with respect to any subsequent statement year.
(iv) Contracts issued on or after January 1, 2020:
(A) The 2013 IDI valuation table with modifiers as described in actuarial guideline L as included in the 2019 version of the NAIC accounting practices and procedures manual; and
(B) An insurer may begin to use the 2013 IDI valuation table with modifiers at a date earlier than the effective date of this rule.
(v) Once an insurer begins to use the 2013 IDI valuation table the insurer may elect to apply that morbidity standard for all policies issued subject to other valuation tables. This may be done if the following conditions are met:
(A) The insurer must apply the morbidity standard to all in-force policies and incurred claims;
(B) The insurer elects or has elected to apply the 2013 IDI valuation table to all claims incurred regardless of incurred date;
(C) The insurer maintains adequate policy records on policies issued prior to 2020 that allow the insurer to apply the 2013 IDI valuation table appropriately; and
(D) Once an insurer elects to calculate reserves for all in-force policies based on the current morbidity standard, all future valuations must be on that basis.
(b) Claim reserves:
(i) For claims incurred prior to January 1, 2004:
Each insurer may elect which of the following to use as the minimum standard for claims incurred prior to January 1, 2004:
(A) The minimum morbidity standard in effect for contract reserves on currently issued contracts, as of the date the claim is incurred; or
(B) The standard as defined in paragraph (I)(1)(a)(i)(b)(ii) or (I)(1)(a)(i)(b)(iii) of this rule, applied to all open non-worksite claims provided the insurer maintains adequate claim records to allow the insurer to apply the standard defined in paragraph (I)(1)(a)(i)(b)(ii) or (I)(1)(a)(i)(b)(iii) of this rule appropriately; and
(C) Once an insurer elects to calculate reserves for all open claims on the standard defined in paragraph (I)(1)(a)(i)(b)(ii) or (I)(1)(a)(i)(b)(iii) of this rule, all future valuations must be on that basis. This option, with respect to paragraph (I)(1)(a)(i)(b)(iii) of this rule, may be selected only if the insurer maintains adequate claim records for all claims incurred to use the 2013 IDI valuation table appropriately.
(ii) For claims incurred on or after January 1, 2004 and prior to January 1, 2020:
The 1985 commissioners individual disability table A (85CIDA) with claim termination rates multiplied by the following adjustment factors:
| Duration | Adjustment Factor | Adjusted Termination Rates* | | --- | --- | --- | | | | | | Week 1 | 0.366 | 0.04831 | | 2 | 0.366 | 0.04172 | | 3 | 0.366 | 0.04063 | | 4 | 0.366 | 0.04355 | | 5 | 0.365 | 0.04088 | | 6 | 0.365 | 0.04271 | | 7 | 0.365 | 0.04380 | | 8 | 0.365 | 0.04344 | | 9 | 0.370 | 0.04292 | | 10 | 0.370 | 0.04107 | | 11 | 0.370 | 0.03848 | | 12 | 0.370 | 0.03478 | | 13 | 0.370 | 0.03034 | | | | | | Month 4 | 0.391 | 0.08758 | | 5 | 0.371 | 0.07346 | | 6 | 0.435 | 0.07531 | | 7 | 0.500 | 0.07245 | | 8 | 0.564 | 0.06655 | | 9 | 0.613 | 0.05520 | | 10 | 0.663 | 0.04705 | | 11 | 0.712 | 0.04486 | | 12 | 0.756 | 0.04309 | | 13 | 0.800 | 0.04080 | | 14 | 0.844 | 0.03882 | | 15 | 0.888 | 0.03730 | | 16 | 0.932 | 0.03448 | | 17 | 0.976 | 0.03026 | | 18 | 1.020 | 0.02856 | | 19 | 1.049 | 0.02518 | | 20 | 1.078 | 0.02264 | | 21 | 1.107 | 0.02104 | | 22 | 1.136 | 0.01932 | | 23 | 1.165 | 0.01865 | | 24 | 1.195 | 0.01792 | | | | | | Year 3 | 1.369 | 0.16839 | | 4 | 1.204 | 0.10114 | | 5 | 1.199 | 0.07434 | | 6 and later | 1.000 | ** |
*The adjusted termination rates derived from the application of the adjustment factors to the DTS valuation table termination rates shown in exhibits 3a, 3b, 3c, 4, and 5 (transactions of the society of actuaries (TSA) XXXVII, pages 457 to 463) is displayed. The adjustment factors for age, elimination period, class, sex, and cause displayed in exhibits 3a, 3b, 3c, and 4 should be applied to the adjusted termination rates shown in this table.
**Applicable DTS valuation table duration rate from exhibits 3c and 4 (TSA XXXVII, pages 462 to 463).
The 85CIDA table so adjusted for the computation of claim reserves shall be known as 85CIDC (the 1985 commissioners individual disability table C).
(iii) For claims incurred on or after January 1, 2020, the 2013 IDI valuation table with modifiers and adjustments for company experience as prescribed in actuarial guideline L, as included in the 2019 version of the NAIC accounting practices and procedures manual, except for worksite disability insurance policies with benefit periods of twenty-four months or less.
For worksite franchise disability insurance policies with benefit periods of twenty-four months or less, claim reserves may be calculated using claim run-out analysis or claim triangles, or other methods that place a sound value on the reserves that are appropriate for the business and risks involved.
(ii) Hospital benefits, surgical benefits and maternity benefits (scheduled benefits or fixed time period benefits only).
(a) Contract reserves:
(i) Contracts issued on or after January 1, 1955, and prior to January 1, 1982:
The 1956 intercompany hospital-surgical tables.
(ii) Contracts issued on or after January 1, 1982:
The 1974 medical expense tables, table A, TSA XXX, page 63. Refer to the paper (in the same volume, page 9) to which this table is appended, including its discussions, for methods of adjustment for benefits not directly valued in table A: development of the 1974 medical expense benefits, Houghton and Wolf.
(b) Claim reserves:
Standards are based on paragraphs (E)(4) and (E)(5) of this rule.
(iii) Cancer expense benefits:
(a) Contract reserves:
(i) Contract issued on or after January 1, 1986 and prior to January 1, 2019:
The 1985 NAIC cancer claim cost tables (1985 CCCT).
(ii) Contracts issued on or after January 1, 2019:
(A) For first occurrence and hospitalization benefits:
The 2016 NAIC cancer claim cost valuation tables (2016 CCCVT);
(B) For all other benefits:
Assumptions based on company experience, relevant industry experience, and actuarial judgement. Such assumptions should be appropriate for valuation which considers a margin for adverse experience.
(b) Claim reserves:
No specific standard. See paragraph (I)(1)(a)(vi) of this rule.
(iv) Accidental death benefits.
(a) Contract reserves:
Contracts issued on or after January 1, 1965:
The 1959 accidental death benefits table.
(b) Claim reserves:
Actual amount incurred.
(v) Single premium credit disability.
(a) Contract reserves:
(i) For contracts issued prior to January 1, 2004, each insurer may elect either paragraph (I)(1)(a)(v)(a)(i)(A) or (I)(1)(a)(v)(a)(i)(B) of this rule to use as the minimum standard. Once an insurer elects to calculate reserves for all contracts on the standard defined in paragraph (I)(1)(a)(v)(a)(i) of this rule, all future valuations must be on that basis.
(A) The minimum morbidity standard in effect for contract reserves on currently issued contracts, as of the date the contract was issued; or
(B) The standard as defined in paragraph (I)(1)(a)(v)(a)(ii) of this rule, applied to all contracts.
(ii) For contracts issued on or after January 1, 2004:
(A) For plans having less than a thirty day elimination period, the 1985 commissioners individual disability table A (85CIDA) with claim incidence rates increased by twelve per cent.
(B) For plans having a thirty day and greater elimination period, the 85CIDA for a fourteen day elimination period with claim incidence rates increased by twelve per cent.
(b) Claim reserves:
Claim reserves are to be determined as provided in (paragraphs (E)(4) and (E)(5) of this rule.
(vi) Other individual contract benefits.
(a) Contract reserves:
For all other individual contract benefits, morbidity assumptions are to be determined as provided in the reserve standards.
(b) Claim reserves:
For all benefits other than disability income insurance, claim reserves are to be determined as provided in the standards.
(b) Minimum morbidity standards for valuation of specified group contract health insurance benefits are as follows:
(i) Disability income insurance benefits due to accident or sickness, where this rule references this paragraph (I)(1)(b)(i) of this rule, paragraphs (I)(1)(b)(i)(a) and (I)(1)(b)(i)(b) of this rule apply; otherwise actuarial guideline XLVII, as included in the 2019 version of the NAIC accounting practices and procedures manual.
(a) Contract reserves:
(i) Contracts issued prior to January 1, 1992:
The same basis, if any, as that employed by the insurer as of January 1, 1992.
(ii) Contracts issued on or after January 1, 1992:
The 1987 commissioners group disability income table (87CGDT).
(b) Claim reserves:
(i) For claims incurred on or after January 1, 1992:
The 1987 commissioners group disability income table (87CGDT).
(ii) For claims incurred prior to January 1, 1992:
Use of the 87CGDT is optional.
(ii) Single premium credit disability
(a) Contract reserves:
(i) For contracts issued prior to January 1, 2004, each insurer may elect either paragraph (I)(1)(b)(ii)(a)(i)(A) or (I)(1)(b)(ii)(a)(i)(B) of this rule to use as the minimum standard. Once an insurer elects to calculate reserves for all contracts on the standard defined in paragraph (I)(1)(b)(ii)(a)(ii) of this rule, all future valuations must be on that basis.
(A) The minimum morbidity standard in effect for contract reserves on currently issued contracts, as of the date the contract was issued; or
(B) The standard as defined in paragraph (I)(1)(b)(ii)(a)(ii) of this rule, applied to all contracts.
(ii) For contracts issued on or after January 1, 2004:
(A) For plans having less than a thirty day elimination period, the 1985 commissioners individual disability table A (85CIDA) with claim incidence rates increased by twelve per cent.
(B) For plans having a thirty day and greater elimination period, the 85CIDA for a fourteen day elimination period with the adjustment in paragraph (I)(1)(b)(ii)(a)(i)(A) of this rule.
(b) Claim reserves:
Claim reserves are to be determined as provided in paragraphs (E)(4) and (E)(5) of this rule.
(iii) Other group contract benefits.
(a) Contract reserves:
For all other group contract benefits, morbidity assumptions are to be determined as provided in the reserve standards.
(b) Claim reserves:
For all benefits other than disability income insurance, claim reserves are to be determined as provided in the standards.
(2) Interest
(a) For contract reserves the maximum interest rate is the maximum rate permitted by law in the valuation of whole life insurance issued on the same date as the health insurance contract.
(b) For claim reserves on policies that require contract reserves, the maximum interest rate is the maximum rate permitted by law in the valuation of whole life insurance issued on the same date as the claim incurral date.
(c) For claim reserves on policies not requiring contract reserves, the maximum interest rate is the maximum rate permitted by law in the valuation of single premium immediate annuities issued on the same date as the claim incurral date, reduced by one hundred basis points.
(3) Mortality
(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (I)(3)(b) and (I)(3)(c) of this rule, the mortality basis used for all policies, except long-term care individual policies and group certificates and for long-term care individual policies or group certificates issued prior to January 1, 2004 shall be according to a table (but without use of selection factors) permitted by law for the valuation of whole life insurance issued on the same date as the health insurance contract. For long-term care insurance individual policies or group certificates issued on or after January 1, 2004, the mortality basis used shall be the 1983 group annuity mortality table without projection. For long-term care insurance individual policies or group certificates issued on or after January 1, 2011, the mortality basis used shall be the 1994 group annuity mortality static table.
(b) Other mortality tables adopted by the NAIC and promulgated by the superintendent may be used in the calculation of the minimum reserves if appropriate for the type of benefits and if approved by the superintendent. The request for such approval must include the proposed mortality table and the reason that the standard specified in paragraph (I)(3)(a) of this rule is inappropriate.
(c) For single premium credit insurance using the 85CIDA table, no separate mortality shall be assumed.
(J) Reserves for waiver of premium
(1) Waiver of premium reserves involve several special considerations. First, the disability valuation tables promulgated by the NAIC are based on exposures that include contracts on premium waiver as in-force contracts. Hence, contract reserves based on these tables are not reserves on active lives but rather reserves on contracts in force. This is true for the 1964 CDT and for both the 1985 CIDA and CIDB tables.
(2) Accordingly, tabular reserves using any of these tables should value reserves on the following basis:
(a) Claim reserves should include reserves for premiums expected to be waived, valuing as a minimum the valuation net premium being waived;
(b) Premium reserves should include contracts on premium waiver as in-force contracts, valuing as a minimum the unearned modal valuation net premium being waived; and
(c) Contract reserves should include recognition of the waiver of premium benefit in addition to other contract benefits provided for, valuing as a minimum the valuation net premium to be waived.
(3) If an insurer is, instead, valuing reserves on what is truly an active life table, or if a specific valuation table is not being used but the insurer's gross premiums are calculated on a basis that includes in the projected exposure only those contracts for which premiums are being paid, then it may not be necessary to provide specifically for waiver of premium reserves. Any insurer using such a true active life basis should carefully consider, however, whether or not additional liability should be recognized on account of premiums waived during periods of disability or during claim continuation.
(K) Severability
If any paragraph, term or provision of this rule is adjudged invalid for any reason, the judgment shall not affect, impair or invalidate any other paragraph, term or provision of this rule, but the remaining paragraphs, terms, and provisions shall continue in full force and effect.
Last updated February 14, 2022 at 8:55 AM
History
- Effective: February 14, 2022
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-3-16 Credit for reinsurance.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to set out procedural requirements which the superintendent deems necessary to carry out the provisions of sections 3901.61 to 3901.65 of the Revised Code, credit for reinsurance ceded. The information and procedures set out in this rule are necessary for the protection of ceding insurers domiciled in this state.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041 and 3901.65 of the Revised Code.
(C) Credit for reinsurance when reinsurer licensed in this state
Pursuant to division (A)(1) of section 3901.62 of the Revised Code the superintendent shall allow credit for reinsurance ceded by a domestic insurer to assuming insurers which were licensed in this state as of the date of the ceding insurer's statutory financial statement.
(D) Credit for reinsurance when a reinsurer is accredited in this state
(1) Pursuant to division (A)(2) of section 3901.62 of the Revised Code the superintendent shall allow credit for reinsurance ceded by a domestic insurer to an assuming insurer that is accredited as a reinsurer in this state as of the date on which statutory financial statement credit for reinsurance is claimed. An accredited reinsurer must:
(a) File a properly executed form AR-1 (attached as an appendix to this rule) as evidence of its submission to this state's jurisdiction and to this state's authority to examine its books and records;
(b) File with the superintendent a certified copy of a certificate of authority or other acceptable evidence that it is licensed to transact insurance or reinsurance in at least one state, or, in the case of a United States branch of an alien assuming insurer, is entered through and licensed to transact insurance or reinsurance in at least one state;
(c) File annually with the superintendent a copy of its annual statement filed with the insurance department of its state of domicile or, in the case of an alien assuming insurer, with the state through which it is entered and in which it is licensed to transact insurance or reinsurance, and a copy of its most recent audited financial statement; and
(d) Maintain a surplus as regards policyholders in an amount not less than twenty million dollars, or obtain the affirmative approval of the superintendent upon a finding that it has adequate financial capacity to meet its reinsurance obligations and is otherwise qualified to assume reinsurance from domestic insurers.
(2) If the superintendent determines that the assuming insurer has failed to meet or maintain any of these qualifications, the superintendent may upon written notice and opportunity for hearing, suspend or revoke the accreditation. Credit shall not be allowed a domestic ceding insurer under this paragraph if the assuming insurer's accreditation has been revoked by the superintendent, or if the reinsurance was ceded while the assuming insurer's accreditation was under suspension by the superintendent.
(E) Credit for reinsurance when reinsurers maintain trust funds
(1) Pursuant to division (A)(4) of section 3901.62 of the Revised Code, the superintendent shall allow credit for reinsurance ceded by a domestic insurer to an assuming insurer which, as of the date of the ceding insurer's statutory financial statement maintains a trust fund in an amount prescribed below in a qualified United States financial institution as defined in division (B)(2) of section 3901.63 of the Revised Code, for the payment of the valid claims of its United States policyholders and ceding insurers, their assigns, and successors in interest. The assuming insurer shall report annually to the superintendent substantially the same information as that required to be reported on the national association of insurance commissioners (NAIC) annual statement form by licensed insurers, to enable the superintendent to determine the sufficiency of the trust fund.
(2) The following requirements apply to the following categories of assuming insurers:
(a) The trust fund for a single assuming insurer shall consist of funds in trust in an amount not less than the assuming insurer's liabilities attributable to business written in the United States, and in addition, a trusteed surplus of not less than twenty million dollars except as provided in paragraph (E)(2)(b) of this rule.
(b) At any time after the assuming insurer has permanently discontinued underwriting new business secured by the trust for at least three full years, the superintendent with principal regulatory oversight of the trust may authorize a reduction in the required trusteed surplus, but only after a finding, based on an assessment of the risk, that the new required surplus level is adequate for the protection of United States ceding insurers, policyholders, and claimants in light of reasonably foreseeable adverse loss development. The risk assessment may involve an actuarial review, including an independent analysis of reserves and cash flows, and shall consider all material risk factors, including when applicable the lines of business involved, the stability of the incurred loss estimates, and the effect of the surplus requirements on the assuming insurer's liquidity or solvency. The minimum required trusteed surplus may not be reduced to an amount less than thirty per cent of the assuming insurer's liabilities attributable to reinsurance ceded by United States ceding insurers covered by the trust.
(c) The trust fund for a group of individual unincorporated under writers shall consist of funds in trust in an amount not less than the group's aggregate liabilities attributable to business written in the United States and, in addition, the group shall maintain a trusteed surplus of which one hundred million dollars shall be held jointly for the benefit of the United States ceding insurers of any member of the group. The group shall make available to the superintendent annual certifications by the group's domiciliary regulator and its independent public accountants of the solvency of each underwriter member of the group.
(d) The trust fund for a group of incorporated insurers under common administration, whose members possess aggregate policyholders surplus of ten billion dollars (calculated and reported in substantially the same manner as prescribed by the annual statement instructions and "Accounting Practices and Procedures Manual" of the NAIC) and which has continuously transacted an insurance business outside the United States for at least three years immediately prior to assuming reinsurance shall consist of funds in trust in an amount not less than the assuming insurers' liabilities attributable to business ceded by United States ceding insurers to any members of the group pursuant to reinsurance contracts issued in the name of such group and, in addition, the group shall maintain a joint trusteed surplus of which one hundred million dollars shall be held jointly for the benefit of United States ceding insurers of any member of the group. The group shall file a properly executed form AR-1 as evidence of the submission to this state's authority to examine the books and records of any of its members and shall certify that any member examined will bear the expense of any such examination. The group shall make available to the superintendent annual certifications by the members' domiciliary regulators and their independent public accountants of the solvency of each member of the group.
(e) The incorporated members of the group shall not be engaged in any business other than underwriting as a member of the group and shall be subject to the same level of regulation and solvency control by the group's domiciliary regulator as are the unincorporated members. The group shall, within ninety days after its financial statements are due to be filed with the group's domiciliary regulator, provide to the superintendent:
(i) An annual certification by the group's domiciliary regulator of the solvency of each underwriter member of the group; or
(ii) If a certification is unavailable, a financial statement, prepared by independent public accountants, of each underwriter member of the group.
(3) The trust shall be established in a form approved by the superintendent and complying with division (C) of section 3901.62 of the Revised Code. The trust instrument shall provide that:
(a) Contested claims shall be valid and enforceable out of funds in trust to the extent remaining unsatisfied thirty days after entry of the final order of any court of competent jurisdiction in the United States.
(b) Legal title to the assets of the trust shall be vested in the trustee for the benefit of the grantor's United States policyholders and ceding insurers, their assigns and successors in interest.
(c) The trust shall be subject to examination as determined by the superintendent.
(d) The trust shall remain in effect for as long as the assuming insurer, or any member or former member of a group of insurers, shall have outstanding obligations under reinsurance agreements subject to the trust.
(e) No later than February twenty-eighth of each year the trustees of the trust shall report to the superintendent in writing setting forth the balance in the trust and listing the trust's investments at the preceding year end, and shall certify the date of termination of the trust, if so planned, or certify that the trust shall not expire prior to the next following December thirty-first.
(f) No amendment to the trust shall be effective unless reviewed and approved in advance by the superintendent.
(F) Credit for reinsurance for a certified reinsurer
(1) Pursuant to division (A)(5) of section 3901.62 of the Revised Code, the superintendent shall allow credit for reinsurance ceded by a domestic insurer to an assuming insurer that has been certified as a reinsurer in this state at all times for which statutory financial statement credit for reinsurance is claimed under this paragraph. The credit allowed shall be based upon the security held by or on behalf of the ceding insurer in accordance with a rating assigned to the certified reinsurer by the superintendent. The security shall be in a form consistent with the provisions of division (A)(5) of section 3901.62 or section 3901.63 of the Revised Code and paragraph (J), (K) or (L) of this rule. The amount of security required for full credit to be allowed shall correspond with the following requirements:
(a)
| Ratings | Security required | | --- | --- | | Secure - 1 | 0% | | Secure - 2 | 10 % | | Secure - 3 | 20% | | Secure - 4 | 50% | | Secure - 5 | 75% | | Vulnerable - 6 | 100% |
(b) Affiliated reinsurance transactions shall receive the same opportunity for reduced security requirements as all other reinsurance transactions.
(c) The superintendent shall require the certified reinsurer to post one hundred per cent, for the benefit of the ceding insurer or its estate, security upon the entry of an order of rehabilitation, liquidation or conservation against the ceding insurer.
(d) To facilitate the prompt payment of claims, a certified reinsurer with a rating of secure 1, secure 2 or secure 3 shall not be required to post security for catastrophe recoverables for a period of one year from the date of the first instance of a liability reserve entry by the ceding company as a result of a loss from a catastrophic occurrence as recognized by the superintendent. The one-year deferral period is contingent upon the certified reinsurer continuing to pay claims in a timely manner. Reinsurance recoverables for only the following lines of business as reported on the NAIC annual financial statement related specifically to the catastrophic occurrence will be included in the deferral:
(i) Line 1: Fire
(ii) Line 2: Allied lines
(iii) Line 3: Farmowners multiple peril
(iv) Line 4: Homeowners multiple peril
(v) Line 5: Commercial multiple peril
(vi) Line 9: Inland marine
(vii) Line 12: Earthquake
(viii) Line 21: Auto physical damage
(e) Credit for reinsurance under this paragraph shall apply only to reinsurance contracts entered into or renewed on or after the effective date of the certification of the assuming insurer. Any reinsurance contract entered into before the effective date of the certification of the assuming insurer that is subsequently amended after the effective date of the certification of the assuming insurer, or a new reinsurance contract, covering any risk for which collateral was provided previously, shall only be subject to this paragraph with respect to losses incurred and reserves reported from and after the effective date of the amendment or new contract.
(f) Nothing in this paragraph shall prohibit the parties to a reinsurance agreement from agreeing to provisions establishing security requirements that exceed the minimum security requirements established for certified reinsurers under this paragraph.
(2) Certification procedure
(a) The superintendent shall post notice on the insurance department's website promptly upon receipt of any application for certification, including instructions on how members of the public may respond to the application. The superintendent may not take final action on the application until at least thirty days after posting the notice required by this paragraph.
(b) The superintendent shall issue written notice to an assuming insurer that has applied and been approved as a certified reinsurer. Included in such notice shall be the rating assigned the certified reinsurer in accordance with paragraph (F)(1) of this rule. The superintendent shall publish a list of all certified reinsurers and their ratings.
(c) To be eligible for certification, the assuming insurer shall meet the following requirements:
(i) The assuming insurer must be domiciled and licensed to transact insurance or reinsurance in a qualified jurisdiction, as determined by the superintendent pursuant to paragraph (F)(3) of this rule.
(ii) The assuming insurer must maintain capital and surplus, or its equivalent, of no less than two hundred fifty million dollars calculated in accordance with paragraph (F)(2)(d)(viii) of this rule. This requirement may also be satisfied by an association including incorporated and individual unincorporated underwriters having minimum capital and surplus equivalents (net of liabilities) of at least two hundred fifty million dollars and a central fund containing a balance of at least two hundred fifty million dollars.
(iii) The assuming insurer must maintain financial strength ratings from two or more rating agencies deemed acceptable by the superintendent. These ratings shall be based on interactive communication between the rating agency and the assuming insurer and shall not be based solely on publicly available information. These financial strength ratings will be one factor used by the superintendent in determining the rating that is assigned to the assuming insurer. Acceptable rating agencies include the following:
(a) "Standard & Poor's";
(b) "Moody's Investors Service";
(c) "Fitch Ratings";
(d) "A.M. Best Company";
(e) "Kroll Bond Rating Agency";
(f) "Demotech, Inc. - Financial Stability Ratings"; or
(g) Any other nationally recognized statistical rating organization.
(iv) The certified reinsurer must comply with any other requirements reasonably imposed by the superintendent.
(d) Each certified reinsurer shall be rated on a legal entity basis, with due consideration being given to the group rating where appropriate, except that an association including incorporated and individual unincorporated underwriters that has been approved to do business as a single certified reinsurer may be evaluated on the basis of its group rating. Factors that may be considered as part of the evaluation process include, but are not limited, to the following:
(i) The certified reinsurer's financial strength rating from an acceptable rating agency. The maximum rating that a certified reinsurer may be assigned will correspond to its financial strength rating as outlined in the table below. The superintendent shall use the lowest financial strength rating received from an approved rating agency in establishing the maximum rating of a certified reinsurer. A failure to obtain or maintain at least two financial strength ratings from acceptable rating agencies will result in loss of eligibility for certification;
| Ratings | Best | S&P | Moody's | Fitch | | --- | --- | --- | --- | --- | | Secure - 1 | A++ | AAA | Aaa | AAA | | Secure - 2 | A+ | AA+, AA, AA- | Aa1, Aa2, Aa3 | AA+, AA, AA- | | Secure - 3 | A | A+, A | A1, A2 | A+, A | | Secure - 4 | A- | A- | A3 | A- | | Secure - 5 | B++, B+ | BBB+, BBB, BBB- | Baa1, Baa2, Baa3 | BBB+, BBB, BBB- | | Vulnerable - 6 | B, B-c++, C+, C, C-, D, E, F | BB+, BB, BB-, B+, B, B-, CCC, CC, C, D, R | Ba1, Ba2, Ba3, B1, B2, B3, Caa, Ca, C | BB+, BB, BB-, B+, B, B-, CCC+, CC, CCC-, DD |
(ii) The business practices of the certified reinsurer in dealing with its ceding insurers, including its record of compliance with reinsurance contractual terms and obligations;
(iii) For certified reinsurers domiciled in the United States, a review of the most recent applicable NAIC annual statement blank, either schedule F (for property/casualty reinsurers) or schedule S (for life and health reinsurers);
(iv) For certified reinsurers not domiciled in the United States, a review annually of form CR-F (for property/casualty reinsurers) or form CR-S (for life and health reinsurers) (attached as appendix to this rule);
(v) The reputation of the certified reinsurer for prompt payment of claims under reinsurance agreements, based on an analysis of ceding insurers' schedule F reporting of overdue reinsurance recoverables, including the proportion of obligations that are more than ninety days past due or are in dispute, with specific attention given to obligations payable to companies that are in administrative supervision or receivership;
(vi) Regulatory actions against the certified reinsurer;
(vii) The report of the independent auditor on the financial statements of the insurance enterprise, on the basis described in paragraph (F)(2)(d)(viii) of this rule;
(viii) For certified reinsurers not domiciled in the United States, audited financial statements, regulatory filings, and actuarial opinion (as filed with the non-United States jurisdiction supervisor, with a translation into English). Upon the initial application for certification, the superintendent will consider audited financial statements for the last two years filed with its non-United States jurisdiction supervisor;
(ix) The liquidation priority of obligations to a ceding insurer in the certified reinsurer's domiciliary jurisdiction in the context of an insolvency proceeding;
(x) A certified reinsurer's participation in any solvent scheme of arrangement, or similar procedure, which involves United States ceding insurers. The superintendent shall receive prior notice from a certified reinsurer that proposes participation by the certified reinsurer in a solvent scheme of arrangement; and
(xi) Any other information deemed relevant by the superintendent.
(e) Based on the analysis conducted under paragraph (F)(2)(d)(v) of this rule, of a certified reinsurer's reputation for prompt payment of claims, the superintendent may make appropriate adjustments in the security the certified reinsurer is required to post to protect its liabilities to United States ceding insurers, provided that the superintendent shall, at a minimum, increase the security the certified reinsurer is required to post by one rating level under paragraph (F)(2)(d)(i) of this rule if the superintendent finds that:
(i) More than fifteen per cent of the certified reinsurer's ceding insurance clients have overdue reinsurance recoverables on paid losses of ninety days or more which are not in dispute and which exceed one hundred thousand dollars for each cedent; or
(ii) The aggregate amount of reinsurance recoverables on paid losses which are not in dispute that are overdue by ninety days or more exceeds fifty million dollars.
(f) The assuming insurer must submit a properly executed form CR-1 (attached as an appendix to this rule) as evidence of its submission to the jurisdiction of this state, appointment of the superintendent as an agent for service of process in this state, and agreement to provide security for one hundred per cent of the assuming insurer's liabilities attributable to reinsurance ceded by United States ceding insurers if it resists enforcement of a final United States judgment. The superintendent shall not certify any assuming insurer that is domiciled in a jurisdiction that the superintendent has determined does not adequately and promptly enforce final United States judgments or arbitration awards.
(g) The certified reinsurer must agree to meet applicable information filing requirements as determined by the superintendent, both with respect to an initial application for certification and on an on-going basis. The applicable information filing requirements are, as follows:
(i) Notification within ten days of any regulatory actions taken against the certified reinsurer, any change in the provisions of its domiciliary license or any change in rating by an approved rating agency, including a statement describing such changes and the reasons therefore;
(ii) Annually, form CR-F or CR-S, as applicable;
(iii) Annually, the report of the independent auditor on the financial statements of the insurance enterprise, on the basis described in paragraph (F)(2)(g)(iv) of this rule;
(iv) Annually, the most recent audited financial statements, regulatory filings, and actuarial opinion (as filed with the certified reinsurer's supervisor, with a translation into English). Upon the initial certification, audited financial statements for the last two years filed with the certified reinsurer's supervisor;
(v) At least annually, an updated list of all disputed and overdue reinsurance claims regarding reinsurance assumed from United States domestic ceding insurers;
(vi) A certification from the certified reinsurer's domestic regulator that the certified reinsurer is in good standing and maintains capital in excess of the jurisdiction's highest regulatory action level; and
(vii) Any other information that the superintendent may reasonably require.
(h) Change in rating or revocation of certification
(i) In the case of a downgrade by a rating agency or other disqualifying circumstance, the superintendent shall upon written notice assign a new rating to the certified reinsurer in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (F)(2)(d)(i) of this rule.
(ii) The superintendent shall have the authority to suspend, revoke, or otherwise modify a certified reinsurer's certification at any time if the certified reinsurer fails to meet its obligations or security requirements under this paragraph, or if other financial or operating results of the certified reinsurer, or documented significant delays in payment by the certified reinsurer, lead the superintendent to reconsider the certified reinsurer's ability or willingness to meet its contractual obligations.
(iii) If the rating of a certified reinsurer is upgraded by the superintendent, the certified reinsurer may meet the security requirements applicable to its new rating on a prospective basis, but the superintendent shall require the certified reinsurer to post security under the previously applicable security requirements as to all contracts in force on or before the effective date of the upgraded rating. If the rating of a certified reinsurer is downgraded by the superintendent, the superintendent shall require the certified reinsurer to meet the security requirements applicable to its new rating for all business it has assumed as a certified reinsurer.
(iv) Upon revocation of the certification of a certified reinsurer by the superintendent, the assuming insurer shall be required to post security in accordance with paragraph (I) of this rule for the ceding insurer to continue to take credit for reinsurance ceded to the assuming insurer. If funds continue to be held in trust in accordance with paragraph (E) of this rule, the superintendent may allow additional credit equal to the ceding insurer's pro rata share of such funds, discounted to reflect the risk of uncollectibility and anticipated expenses of trust administration. Notwithstanding the change of a certified reinsurer's rating or revocation of its certification, a domestic insurer that has ceded reinsurance to that certified reinsurer may not be denied credit for reinsurance for a period of three months for all reinsurance ceded to that certified reinsurer, unless the reinsurance is found by the superintendent to be at high risk of uncollectibility.
(3) Qualified jurisdictions
(a) If, upon conducting an evaluation under this paragraph with respect to the reinsurance supervisory system of any non-United States assuming insurer, the superintendent determines that the jurisdiction qualifies to be recognized as a qualified jurisdiction, the superintendent shall publish notice and evidence of such recognition in an appropriate manner. The superintendent may establish a procedure to withdraw recognition of those jurisdictions that are no longer qualified.
(b) To determine whether the domiciliary jurisdiction of a non-United States assuming insurer is eligible to be recognized as a qualified jurisdiction, the superintendent shall evaluate the reinsurance supervisory system of the non-United States jurisdiction, both initially and on an ongoing basis, and consider the rights, benefits and the extent of reciprocal recognition afforded by the non-United States jurisdiction to reinsurers licensed and domiciled in the United States. The superintendent shall determine the appropriate approach for evaluating the qualifications of such jurisdictions, and create and publish a list of jurisdictions whose reinsurers may be approved by the superintendent as eligible for certification. A qualified jurisdiction must agree to share information and cooperate with the superintendent with respect to all certified reinsurers domiciled within that jurisdiction. Additional factors to be considered in determining whether to recognize a qualified jurisdiction, in the discretion of the superintendent, include but are not limited to the following:
(i) The framework under which the assuming insurer is regulated.
(ii) The structure and authority of the domiciliary regulator with regard to solvency regulation requirements and financial surveillance.
(iii) The substance of financial and operating standards for assuming insurers in the domiciliary jurisdiction.
(iv) The form and substance of financial reports required to be filed or made publicly available by reinsurers in the domiciliary jurisdiction and the accounting principles used.
(v) The domiciliary regulator's willingness to cooperate with United States regulators in general and the superintendent in particular.
(vi) The history of performance by assuming insurers in the domiciliary jurisdiction.
(vii) Any documented evidence of substantial problems with the enforcement of final United States judgments in the domiciliary jurisdiction. A jurisdiction will not be considered to be a qualified jurisdiction if the superintendent has determined that it does not adequately and promptly enforce final United States judgments or arbitration awards.
(viii) Any relevant international standards or guidance with respect to mutual recognition of reinsurance supervision adopted by the "International Association of Insurance Supervisors" or successor organization.
(ix) Any other matters deemed relevant by the superintendent.
(c) If the NAIC publishes a list of qualified jurisdictions, the superintendent shall consider the list in determining qualified jurisdictions. If the superintendent approves a jurisdiction as qualified that does not appear on the list of qualified jurisdictions, the superintendent shall document compliance with the criteria provided under paragraphs (F)(3)(b)(i) to (F)(3)(b)(vii) of this rule. Such documentation is a public record.
(d) United States jurisdictions that meet the requirements for accreditation under the NAIC financial standards and accreditation program shall be recognized as qualified jurisdictions.
(4) Recognition of certification issued by an NAIC accredited jurisdiction
(a) If an applicant for certification has been certified as a reinsurer in an NAIC accredited jurisdiction, the superintendent has the discretion to defer to that jurisdiction's certification, and to defer to the rating assigned by that jurisdiction, if the assuming insurer submits a properly executed form CR-1 and such additional information as the superintendent requires. The assuming insurer shall be considered to be a certified reinsurer in this state.
(b) Any change in the certified reinsurer's status or rating in the other jurisdiction shall apply automatically in this state as of the date it takes effect in the other jurisdiction. The certified reinsurer shall notify the superintendent of any change in its status or rating within ten days after receiving notice of the change.
(c) The superintendent may withdraw recognition of the other jurisdiction's rating at any time and assign a new rating in accordance with paragraph (F)(2)(h) of this rule.
(d) The superintendent may withdraw recognition of the other jurisdiction's certification at any time, with written notice to the certified reinsurer. Unless the superintendent suspends or revokes the certified reinsurer's certification, the certified reinsurer's certification shall remain in good standing in this state for a period of three months, which shall be extended if additional time is necessary to consider the assuming insurer's application for certification in this state.
(5) Mandatory funding clause. In addition to the clauses required under paragraph (M) of this rule, reinsurance contracts entered into or renewed under this paragraph shall include a proper funding clause, which requires the certified reinsurer to provide and maintain security in an amount sufficient to avoid the imposition of any financial statement penalty on the ceding insurer under this paragraph for reinsurance ceded to the certified reinsurer.
(6) The superintendent shall comply with all reporting and notification requirements that may be established by the NAIC with respect to certified reinsurers and qualified jurisdictions.
(G) Credit for reinsurance for a reciprocal jurisdiction
(1) Pursuant to division (A)(6) of section 3901.62 of the Revised Code, the superintendent shall allow credit for reinsurance ceded by a domestic insurer to an assuming insurer that is licensed to write reinsurance by, and has its head office or is domiciled in, a reciprocal jurisdiction, and which meets the other requirements of this rule.
(2) A "Reciprocal Jurisdiction" is a jurisdiction, as designated by the superintendent pursuant to paragraph (G)(4) of this rule, that meets one of the following:
(a) A non-U.S. jurisdiction that is subject to an in-force covered agreement with the United States, each within its legal authority, or, in the case of a covered agreement between the United States and the European Union, is a member state of the European Union. For purposes of this paragraph, a "covered agreement" is an agreement entered into pursuant to the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, 31 U.S.C. sections 313 and 314, that is currently in effect or in a period of provisional application and addresses the elimination, under specified conditions, of collateral requirements as a condition for entering into any reinsurance agreement with a ceding insurer domiciled in this state or for allowing the ceding insurer to recognize credit for reinsurance;
(b) A U.S. jurisdiction that meets the requirements for accreditation under the NAIC financial standards and accreditation program; or
(c) A qualified jurisdiction, as determined by the superintendent pursuant to division (D)(3) of section 3901.62 of the Revised Code and paragraph (F)(3) of this rule, which is not otherwise described in paragraph (G)(2)(a) or (G)(2)(b) of this rule and which the superintendent determines meets all of the following additional requirements:
(i) Provides that an insurer which has its head office or is domiciled in such qualified jurisdiction shall receive credit for reinsurance ceded to a U.S. domiciled assuming insurer in the same manner as credit for reinsurance is received for reinsurance assumed by insurers domiciled in such qualified jurisdiction;
(ii) Does not require a U.S. domiciled assuming insurer to establish or maintain a local presence as a condition for entering into a reinsurance agreement with any ceding insurer subject to regulation by the non-U.S. jurisdiction or as a condition to allow the ceding insurer to recognize credit for such reinsurance;
(iii) Recognizes the U.S. state regulatory approach to group supervision and group capital, by providing written confirmation by a competent regulatory authority, in such qualified jurisdiction, that insurers and insurance groups that are domiciled or maintain their headquarters in this state or another jurisdiction accredited by the NAIC shall be subject only to worldwide prudential insurance group supervision including worldwide group governance, solvency and capital, and reporting, as applicable, by the superintendent or the superintendent of the domiciliary state and will not be subject to group supervision at the level of the worldwide parent undertaking of the insurance or reinsurance group by the qualified jurisdiction; and
(iv) Provides written confirmation by a competent regulatory authority in such qualified jurisdiction that information regarding insurers and their parent, subsidiary, or affiliated entities, if applicable, shall be provided to the superintendent in accordance with a memorandum of understanding or similar document between the superintendent and such qualified jurisdiction, including but not limited to the "International Association of Insurance Supervisors Multilateral Memorandum of Understanding" or other multilateral memoranda of understanding coordinated by the NAIC.
(3) Credit shall be allowed when the reinsurance is ceded from an insurer domiciled in this state to an assuming insurer meeting each of the conditions set forth as follows:
(a) The assuming insurer must be licensed to transact reinsurance by, and have its head office or be domiciled in, a reciprocal jurisdiction.
(b) The assuming insurer must have and maintain on an ongoing basis minimum capital and surplus, or its equivalent, calculated on at least an annual basis as of the preceding December thirty-one or at the annual date otherwise statutorily reported to the reciprocal jurisdiction, and confirmed as set forth in paragraph (G)(3)(g) of this rule according to the methodology of its domiciliary jurisdiction, in the following amounts:
(i) No less than two hundred fifty million dollars; or
(ii) If the assuming insurer is an association, including incorporated and individual unincorporated underwriters:
(a) Minimum capital and surplus equivalents (net of liabilities) or own funds of the equivalent of at least two hundred fifty million dollars; and
(b) A central fund containing a balance of the equivalent of at least two hundred fifty million dollars.
(c) The assuming insurer must have and maintain on an ongoing basis a minimum solvency or capital ratio, as applicable, as follows:
(i) If the assuming insurer has its head office or is domiciled in a reciprocal jurisdiction as defined in paragraph (G)(2)(a) of this rule, the ratio specified in the applicable covered agreement;
(ii) If the assuming insurer is domiciled in a reciprocal jurisdiction as defined in paragraph (G)(2)(b) of this rule, a risk-based capital (RBC) ratio of three hundred per cent of the authorized control level, calculated in accordance with the formula developed by the NAIC; or
(iii) If the assuming insurer is domiciled in a reciprocal jurisdiction as defined in paragraph (G)(2)(c) of this rule, after consultation with the reciprocal jurisdiction and considering any recommendations published through the NAIC committee process, such solvency or capital ratio as the superintendent determines to be an effective measure of solvency.
(d) The assuming insurer must agree to and provide adequate assurance, in the form of a properly executed form RJ-1 (attached as appendix to this rule), of its agreement to the following:
(i) The assuming insurer must agree to provide prompt written notice and explanation to the superintendent if it falls below the minimum requirements set forth in paragraph (G)(3)(b) or (G)(3)(c) of this rule, or if any regulatory action is taken against it for serious noncompliance with applicable law.
(ii) The assuming insurer must consent in writing to the jurisdiction of the courts of this state and to the appointment of the superintendent as agent for service of process.
(a) The superintendent may also require that such consent be provided and included in each reinsurance agreement under the superintendent's jurisdiction.
(b) Nothing in this provision shall limit or in any way alter the capacity of parties to a reinsurance agreement to agree to alternative dispute resolution mechanisms, except to the extent such agreements are unenforceable under applicable insolvency or delinquency laws.
(iii) The assuming insurer must consent in writing to pay all final judgments, wherever enforcement is sought, obtained by a ceding insurer, that have been declared enforceable in the territory where the judgment was obtained.
(iv) Each reinsurance agreement must include a provision requiring the assuming insurer to satisfy division (F) of section 3901.62 and all of the provisions of section 3901.63 of the Revised Code and provide security in an amount equal to one hundred per cent of the assuming insurer's liabilities attributable to reinsurance ceded pursuant to that agreement if the assuming insurer resists enforcement of a final judgment that is enforceable under the law of the jurisdiction in which it was obtained or a properly enforceable arbitration award, whether obtained by the ceding insurer or by its legal successor on behalf of its estate, if applicable.
(v) The assuming insurer must confirm that it is not presently participating in any solvent scheme of arrangement, which involves this state's ceding insurers, and agrees to notify the ceding insurer and the superintendent and to provide one hundred per cent security to the ceding insurer consistent with the terms of the scheme, should the assuming insurer enter into such a solvent scheme of arrangement. Such security shall be in a form consistent with the provisions of paragraph (J), (K) or (L) of this rule. For purposes of this rule, the term "solvent scheme of arrangement" means a foreign or alien statutory or regulatory compromise procedure subject to requisite majority creditor approval and judicial sanction in the assuming insurer's home jurisdiction either to finally commute liabilities of duly noticed classed members or creditors of a solvent debtor, or to reorganize or restructure the debts and obligations of a solvent debtor on a final basis, and which may be subject to judicial recognition and enforcement of the arrangement by a governing authority outside the ceding insurer's home jurisdiction.
(vi) The assuming insurer must agree in writing to meet the applicable information filing requirements as set forth in paragraph (G)(3)(e) of this rule.
(e) The assuming insurer or its legal successor must provide, if requested by the superintendent, on behalf of itself and any legal predecessors, the following documentation to the superintendent:
(i) For the two years preceding entry into the reinsurance agreement and on an annual basis thereafter, the assuming insurer's annual audited financial statements, in accordance with the applicable law of the jurisdiction of its head office or domiciliary jurisdiction, as applicable, including the external audit report;
(ii) For the two years preceding entry into the reinsurance agreement, the solvency and financial condition report or actuarial opinion, if filed with the assuming insurer's supervisor;
(iii) Prior to entry into the reinsurance agreement and not more than semi-annually thereafter, an updated list of all disputed and overdue reinsurance claims outstanding for ninety days or more, regarding reinsurance assumed from ceding insurers domiciled in the United States; and
(iv) Prior to entry into the reinsurance agreement and not more than semi-annually thereafter, information regarding the assuming insurer's assumed reinsurance by ceding insurer, ceded reinsurance by the assuming insurer, and reinsurance recoverable on paid and unpaid losses by the assuming insurer to allow for the evaluation of the criteria set forth in paragraph (G)(3)(f) of this rule.
(f) The assuming insurer must maintain a practice of prompt payment of claims under reinsurance agreements. The lack of prompt payment will be evidenced if any of the following criteria is met:
(i) More than fifteen per cent of the reinsurance recoverables from the assuming insurer are overdue and in dispute as reported to the superintendent;
(ii) More than fifteen per cent of the assuming insurer's ceding insurers or reinsurers have overdue reinsurance recoverable on paid losses of ninety days or more which are not in dispute and which exceed for each ceding insurer one hundred thousand dollars, or as otherwise specified in a covered agreement; or
(iii) The aggregate amount of reinsurance recoverable on paid losses which are not in dispute, but are overdue by ninety days or more, exceeds fifty million dollars, or as otherwise specified in a covered agreement.
(g) The assuming insurer's supervisory authority must confirm to the superintendent on an annual basis that the assuming insurer complies with the requirements set forth in paragraphs (G)(3)(b) and (G)(3)(c) of this rule.
(h) Nothing in this provision precludes an assuming insurer from providing the superintendent with information on a voluntary basis.
(4) The superintendent shall timely create and publish a list of reciprocal jurisdictions.
(a) A list of reciprocal jurisdictions is published through the NAIC committee process. The superintendent's list shall include any reciprocal jurisdiction as defined under paragraphs (G)(2)(a) and (G)(2)(b) of this rule, and shall consider any other reciprocal jurisdiction included on the NAIC list. The superintendent may approve a jurisdiction that does not appear on the NAIC list of reciprocal jurisdictions as provided by applicable law, rule, regulation, or in accordance with criteria published through the NAIC committee process.
(b) The superintendent may remove a jurisdiction from the list of reciprocal jurisdictions upon a determination that the jurisdiction no longer meets one or more of the requirements of a reciprocal jurisdiction, as provided by applicable law, rule, regulation, or in accordance with a process published through the NAIC committee process, except that the superintendent shall not remove from the list a reciprocal jurisdiction as defined under paragraphs (G)(2)(a) and (G)(2)(b) of this rule. Upon removal of a reciprocal jurisdiction from this list, credit for reinsurance ceded to an assuming insurer domiciled in that jurisdiction shall be allowed, if otherwise allowed pursuant to section 3901.62 or 3901.63 of the Revised Code or this rule.
(5) The superintendent shall timely create and publish a list of assuming insurers that have satisfied the conditions set forth in this paragraph and to which cessions shall be granted credit in accordance with this paragraph.
(a) If a NAIC accredited jurisdiction has determined that the conditions set forth in paragraph (G)(3) of this rule have been met, the superintendent has the discretion to defer to that jurisdiction's determination, and add such assuming insurer to the list of assuming insurers to which cessions shall be granted credit in accordance with this paragraph. The superintendent may accept financial documentation filed with another NAIC accredited jurisdiction or with the NAIC in satisfaction of the requirements of paragraph (G)(3) of this rule.
(b) When requesting that the superintendent defer to another NAIC accredited jurisdiction's determination, an assuming insurer must submit a properly executed form RJ-1 and additional information as the superintendent may require. A state that has received such a request will notify other states through the NAIC committee process and provide relevant information with respect to the determination of eligibility.
(6) If the superintendent determines that an assuming insurer no longer meets one or more of the requirements under this paragraph, the superintendent may revoke or suspend the eligibility of the assuming insurer for recognition under this paragraph.
(a) While an assuming insurer's eligibility is suspended, no reinsurance agreement issued, amended, or renewed after the effective date of the suspension qualifies for credit except to the extent that the assuming insurer's obligations under the contract are secured in accordance with paragraph (I) of this rule.
(b) If an assuming insurer's eligibility is revoked, no credit for reinsurance may be granted after the effective date of the revocation with respect to any reinsurance agreements entered into by the assuming insurer, including reinsurance agreements entered into prior to the date of revocation, except to the extent that the assuming insurer's obligations under the contract are secured in a form acceptable to the superintendent and consistent with the provisions of paragraph (I) of this rule.
(7) Before denying statement credit or imposing a requirement to post security with respect to paragraph (G)(6) of this rule or adopting any similar requirement that will have substantially the same regulatory impact as security, the superintendent shall:
(a) Communicate with the ceding insurer, the assuming insurer, and the assuming insurer's supervisory authority that the assuming insurer no longer satisfies one of the conditions listed in paragraph (G)(3) of this rule;
(b) Provide the assuming insurer with thirty days from the initial communication to submit a plan to remedy the defect, and ninety days from the initial communication to remedy the defect, except in exceptional circumstances in which a shorter period is necessary for policyholder and other consumer protection;
(c) After the expiration of ninety days or less, as set out in paragraph (G)(7)(b) of this rule, if the superintendent determines that no or insufficient action was taken by the assuming insurer, the superintendent may impose any of the requirements as set out in paragraph (G)(7) of this rule; and
(d) Provide a written explanation to the assuming insurer of any of the requirements set out in paragraph (G)(7) of this rule.
(8) If subject to a legal process of rehabilitation, liquidation, or conservation, as applicable, the ceding insurer, or its representative, may seek and, if determined appropriate by the court in which the proceedings are pending, may obtain an order requiring that the assuming insurer post security for all outstanding liabilities.
(H) Credit for reinsurance required by law
Pursuant to division (A)(3) of section 3901.62 of the Revised Code, the superintendent shall allow credit for reinsurance ceded by a domestic insurer to an assuming insurer not meeting the requirements of division (A)(1), (A)(2), (A)(4), (A)(5), or (A)(6) of section 3901.62 of the Revised Code, but only with respect to the insurance of risks located in jurisdictions where such reinsurance is required by the applicable law, rule, or regulation of that jurisdiction. As used in this paragraph, "jurisdiction" means any state, district or territory of the United States and any lawful national government.
(I) Reduction from liability for reinsurance ceded to an unauthorized assuming insurer
Pursuant to section 3901.63 of the Revised Code, the superintendent shall allow a reduction from liability for reinsurance ceded by a domestic insurer to an assuming insurer not meeting the requirements of division (A) of section 3901.62 of the Revised Code in an amount not exceeding the liabilities carried by the ceding insurer. Such reduction shall be in the amount of funds held by or on behalf of the ceding insurer, including funds held in trust for the exclusive benefit of the ceding insurer, under a reinsurance contract with such assuming insurer as security for the payment of obligations thereunder. Such security must be held in the United States subject to withdrawal solely by, and under the exclusive control of, the ceding insurer or, in the case of a trust, held in a qualified United States financial institution as defined in division (B)(2) of section 3901.63 of the Revised Code. This security may be in the form of any of the following.
(1) Cash.
(2) Securities listed by the securities valuation office of the national association of insurance commissioners, including those deemed exempt from filing as defined by the "Purposes and Procedures Manual of the Securities Valuation Office," and qualifying as admitted assets.
(3) Clean, irrevocable, unconditional, and "evergreen" letters of credit issued or confirmed by a qualified United States institution, as defined in division (C)(3) of section 3901.63 of the Revised Code, effective no later than December thirty-first of the year for which filing is being made, and in the possession of the ceding insurer on or before the filing date of its annual statement. Letters of credit meeting applicable standards of issuer acceptability as of the dates of their issuance (or confirmation) shall, notwithstanding the issuing (or confirming) institution's subsequent failure to meet applicable standards of issuer acceptability, continue to be acceptable as security until their expiration, extension, renewal, modification, or amendment, whichever first occurs.
(4) Any other form of security acceptable to the superintendent.
An admitted asset or a reduction from liability for reinsurance ceded to an unauthorized assuming insurer pursuant to paragraph (I) of this rule shall be allowed only when the requirements of paragraph (J), (K), or (L) of this rule are met.
(J) Trust agreements qualified under paragraph (I) of this rule
(1) As used in this paragraph:
(a) "Beneficiary" means the entity for whose sole benefit the trust has been established and any successor of the beneficiary by operation of law. If a court of law appoints a successor in interest to the named beneficiary, then the named beneficiary includes and is limited to the court appointed domiciliary receiver (including conservator, rehabilitator, or liquidator).
(b) "Grantor" means the entity that has established a trust for the sole benefit of the beneficiary. When established in conjunction with a reinsurance agreement, the grantor is the unlicensed, unaccredited assuming insurer.
(c) "Obligations," as used in paragraph (J)(2)(k) of this rule, means:
(i) Reinsured losses and allocated loss expenses paid by the ceding company, but not recovered from the assuming insurer;
(ii) Reserves for reinsured losses reported and outstanding;
(iii) Reserves for reinsured losses incurred but not reported; and
(iv) Reserves for allocated reinsured loss expenses and unearned premiums.
(2) Required conditions
(a) The trust agreement shall be entered into between the beneficiary, the grantor and a trustee which shall be a qualified United States financial institution as defined in division (B)(2) of section 3901.63 of the Revised Code.
(b) The trust agreement shall create a trust account into which assets shall be deposited.
(c) All assets in the trust account shall be held by the trustee at the trustee's office in the United States, except that a bank may apply for the superintendent's permission to use a foreign branch office of such bank as trustee for trust agreements established pursuant to this paragraph. If the superintendent approves the use of such foreign branch office as trustee, then its use must be approved by the beneficiary in writing and the trust agreement must provide that the written notice described in paragraph (J)(2)(d)(i) of this rule must also be presentable, as a matter of legal right, at the trustee's principal office in the United States.
(d) The trust agreement shall provide that:
(i) The beneficiary shall have the right to withdraw assets from the trust account at any time, without notice to the grantor, subject only to written notice from the beneficiary to the trustee;
(ii) No other statement or document is required to be presented in order to withdraw assets, except that the beneficiary may be required to acknowledge receipt of withdrawn assets;
(iii) It is not subject to any conditions or qualifications outside of the trust agreement; and
(iv) It shall not contain references to any other agreements or documents except as provided for under paragraph (J)(2)(k) of this rule.
(e) The trust agreement shall be established for the sole benefit of the beneficiary.
(f) The trust agreement shall require the trustee to:
(i) Receive assets and hold all assets in a safe place;
(ii) Determine that all assets are in such form that the beneficiary, or the trustee upon direction by the beneficiary, may whenever necessary negotiate any such assets, without consent or signature from the grantor or any other person or entity;
(iii) Furnish to the grantor and the beneficiary a statement of all assets in the trust account upon its inception and at intervals no less frequent than the end of each calendar quarter;
(iv) Notify the grantor and the beneficiary within ten days, of any deposits to or withdrawals from the trust account;
(v) Upon written demand of the beneficiary, immediately take any and all steps necessary to transfer absolutely and unequivocally all right, title and interest in the assets held in the trust account to the beneficiary and deliver physical custody of the assets to the beneficiary; and
(vi) Allow no substitutions or withdrawals of assets from the trust account, except on written instructions from the beneficiary, except that the trustee may, without the consent of but with notice to the beneficiary, upon call or maturity of any trust asset, withdraw such asset upon condition that the proceeds are paid into the trust account.
(g) The trust agreement shall provide that at least thirty days, but not more than forty-five days, prior to termination of the trust account, written notification of termination shall be delivered by the trustee to the beneficiary.
(h) The trust agreement shall be made subject to and governed by the laws of the state in which the trust is established.
(i) The trust agreement shall prohibit invasion of the trust corpus for the purpose of paying compensation to, or reimbursing the expense of, the trustee.
(j) The trust agreement shall provide that the trustee shall be liable for its own negligence, willful misconduct or lack of good faith.
(k) Notwithstanding other provisions of this regulation, when a trust agreement is established in conjunction with a reinsurance agreement covering risks other than life, annuities and accident and health, where it is customary practice to provide a trust agreement for a specific purpose, such a trust agreement may, notwithstanding any other conditions in this regulation, provide that the ceding insurer shall undertake to use and apply amounts drawn upon the trust account, without diminution because of the insolvency of the ceding insurer or the assuming insurer, for the following purposes:
(i) To pay or reimburse the ceding insurer for the assuming insurer's share under the specific reinsurance agreement regarding any losses and allocated loss expenses paid by the ceding insurer, but not recovered from the assuming insurer, or for unearned premiums due to the ceding insurer if not otherwise paid by the assuming insurer;
(ii) To make payment to the assuming insurer of any amounts held in the trust account that exceed one hundred two per cent of the actual amount required to fund the assuming insurer's obligations under the specific reinsurance agreement; or
(iii) Where the ceding insurer has received notification of termination of the trust account and where the assuming insurer's entire obligations under the specific reinsurance agreement remain unliquidated and undischarged ten days prior to the termination date, to withdraw amounts equal to the obligations and deposit those amounts in a separate account, in the name of the ceding insurer in any qualified United States financial institution as defined in division (B)(2) of section 3901.63 of the Revised Code apart from its general assets, in trust for such uses and purposes specified in paragraphs (J)(2)(k)(i) and (J)(2)(k)(ii) of this rule as may remain executory after such withdrawal and for any period after the termination date.
(l) The reinsurance agreement entered into in conjunction with the trust agreement may, but need not, contain the provisions required by paragraph (J)(4)(a)(i) of this rule, so long as these required conditions are included in the trust agreement.
(m) Either the reinsurance agreement or the trust agreement must stipulate that assets deposited in the trust account shall be valued according to their current fair market value and shall consist only of cash in United States dollars, certificates of deposit issued by a United States bank and payable in United States dollars, and investments permitted by the insurance code or any combination of the above, provided investments in or issued by an entity controlling, controlled by or under common control with either the grantor or the beneficiary of the trust shall not exceed five per cent of total investments. The agreement may further specify the types of investments to be deposited. If the reinsurance agreement covers life, annuities or accident and health risks, then the provisions required by this paragraph must be included in the reinsurance agreement.
(3) Permitted conditions
(a) The trust agreement may provide that the trustee may resign upon delivery of a written notice of resignation, effective not less than ninety days after receipt by the beneficiary and grantor of the notice and that the trustee may be removed by the grantor by delivery to the trustee and the beneficiary of a written notice of removal, effective not less than ninety days after receipt by the trustee and the beneficiary of the notice, provided that no such resignation or removal shall be effective until a successor trustee has been duly appointed and approved by the beneficiary and the grantor and all assets in the trust have been duly transferred to the new trustee.
(b) The grantor may have the full and unqualified right to vote any shares of stock in the trust account and to receive from time to time payments of any dividends or interest upon any shares of stock or obligations included in the trust account. Any such interest or dividends shall be either forwarded promptly upon receipt to the grantor or deposited in a separate account established in the grantor's name.
(c) The trustee may be given authority to invest, and accept substitutions of, any funds in the account, provided that no investment or substitution shall be made without prior approval of the beneficiary, unless the trust agreement specifies categories of investments acceptable to the beneficiary and authorizes the trustee to invest funds and to accept substitutions which the trustee determines are at least equal in market value to the assets withdrawn and that are consistent with the restrictions in paragraph (J)(4)(a)(ii) of this rule.
(d) The trust agreement may provide that the beneficiary may at any time designate a party to which all or part of the trust assets are to be transferred. Such transfer may be conditioned upon the trustee receiving, prior to or simultaneously, other specified assets.
(e) The trust agreement may provide that, upon termination of the trust account, all assets not previously withdrawn by the beneficiary shall, with written approval by the beneficiary, be delivered over to the grantor.
(4) Additional conditions applicable to reinsurance agreements
(a) A reinsurance agreement, which is entered into in conjunction with a trust agreement and the establishment of a trust account, may contain provisions that:
(i) Require the assuming insurer to enter into a trust agreement and to establish a trust account for the benefit of the ceding insurer, and specifying what the agreement is to cover;
(ii) Require the assuming insurer, prior to depositing assets with the trustee, to execute assignments or endorsements in blank or to transfer legal title to the trustee of all shares, obligations, or any other assets requiring assignments, in order that the ceding insurer, or the trustee upon the direction of the ceding insurer, may whenever necessary negotiate these assets without consent or signature from the assuming insurer or any other entity;
(iii) Require that all settlements of account between the ceding insurer and the assuming insurer be made in cash or its equivalent; and
(iv) Stipulate that the assuming insurer and the ceding insurer agree that the assets in the trust account, established pursuant to the provisions of the reinsurance agreement, may be withdrawn by the ceding insurer at any time, notwithstanding any other provisions in the reinsurance agreement, and shall be utilized and applied by the ceding insurer or its successors in interest by operation of law, including without limitation any liquidator, rehabilitator, receiver, or conservator of such company, without diminution because of insolvency on the part of the ceding insurer or the assuming insurer, only for the following purposes:
(a) To reimburse the ceding insurer for the assuming insurer's share of premiums returned to the owners of policies reinsured under the reinsurance agreement because of cancellations of such policies;
(b) To reimburse the ceding insurer for the assuming insurer's share of surrenders and benefits or losses paid by the ceding insurer pursuant to the provisions of the policies reinsured under the reinsurance agreement;
(c) To fund an account with the ceding insurer in an amount at least equal to the deduction, for reinsurance ceded, from the ceding insurer liabilities for policies ceded under the agreement. The account shall include, but not be limited to, amounts for policy reserves, claims and losses incurred (including losses incurred but not reported), loss adjustment expenses and unearned premium reserves; and
(d) To pay any other amounts the ceding insurer claims are due under the reinsurance agreement.
(v) The reinsurance agreement may also contain provisions that,
(a) Give the assuming insurer the right to seek approval from the ceding insurer to withdraw from the trust account all or any part of the trust assets and transfer those assets to the assuming insurer, provided:
(i) The assuming insurer shall, at the time of withdrawal, replace the withdrawn assets with other qualified assets having a market value equal to the current fair market value of the assets withdrawn so as to maintain at all times the deposit in the required amount, or
(ii) After withdrawal and transfer, the current fair market value of the trust account is no less than one hundred two per cent of the required amount.
The ceding insurer shall not unreasonably or arbitrarily withhold its approval.
(b) Provide for,
(i) The return of any amount withdrawn in excess of the actual amounts required for paragraph (J)(4)(a)(iv) of this rule, or in the case of paragraph (J)(4)(a)(iv)(d) of this rule, any amounts that are subsequently determined not to be due; and
(ii) Interest payments, at a rate not in excess of the prime rate of interest, on the amounts held pursuant to paragraph (J)(4)(a)(iv)(c) of this rule.
(c) Permit the award by any arbitration panel or court of competent jurisdiction of,
(i) Interest at a rate different from that provided in paragraph (J)(4)(b)(ii) of this rule,
(ii) Court of arbitration costs,
(iii) Attorney's fees, and
(iv) Any other reasonable expenses.
(b) Financial reporting. A trust agreement may be used to reduce any liability for reinsurance ceded to an unauthorized assuming insurer in financial statements required to be filed with this department in compliance with the provisions of this regulation when established on or before the date of filing of the financial statement of the ceding insurer. Further, the reduction for the existence of an acceptable trust account may be up to the current fair market value of acceptable assets available to be withdrawn from the trust account at that time, but such reduction shall be no greater than the specific obligations under the reinsurance agreement that the trust account was established to secure.
(c) Existing agreements. Notwithstanding the effective date of this regulation, any trust agreement or underlying reinsurance agreement in existence prior to December 31, 1997, will continue to be acceptable until December 31, 1998, at which time the agreements will have to be in full compliance with this regulation for the trust agreement to be acceptable.
(d) The failure of any trust agreement to specifically identify the beneficiary as defined in paragraph (J)(1)(a) of this rule shall not be construed to affect any actions or rights which the superintendent may take or possess pursuant to the provisions of the laws of this state.
(K) Letter of credit qualified under paragraph (I) of this rule
(1) The letter of credit must be clean, irrevocable, unconditional, and issued or confirmed by a qualified United States financial institution as defined in division (B)(2) of section 3901.63 of the Revised Code. The letter of credit shall contain an issue date and date of expiration and shall stipulate that the beneficiary need only draw a sight draft under the letter of credit and present it to obtain funds and that no other document need be presented. The letter of credit shall also indicate that it is not subject to any condition or qualifications outside of the letter of credit. In addition, the letter of credit itself shall not contain reference to any other agreements, documents or entities, except as provided in paragraph (K)(9)(a) of this rule. As used in this paragraph, "beneficiary" means the domestic insurer for whose benefit the letter of credit has been established and any successor of the beneficiary by operation of law. If a court of law appoints a successor in interest to the named beneficiary, then the named beneficiary includes and is limited to the court appointed domiciliary receiver (including conservator, rehabilitator or liquidator).
(2) The heading of the letter of credit may include a boxed section which contains the name of the applicant and other appropriate notations to provide a reference for the letter of credit. The boxed section shall be clearly marked to indicate that such information is for internal identification purposes only.
(3) The letter of credit shall contain a statement to the effect that the obligation of the qualified United States financial institution under the letter of credit is in no way contingent upon reimbursement with respect thereto.
(4) The term of the letter of credit shall be for at least one year and shall contain an "evergreen clause" which prevents the expiration of the letter of credit without due notice from the issuer. The "evergreen clause" shall provide for a period of no less than thirty days' notice prior to expiry date or nonrenewal.
(5) The letter of credit shall state whether it is subject to and governed by the laws of this state or the "Uniform Customs and Practice for Documentary Credits of the International Chamber of Commerce Publication 600 (UCP 600) or International Standby Practices of the International Chamber of Commerce Publication 590 (ISP98)," and all drafts drawn thereunder shall be presentable at an office in the United States of a qualified United States financial institution.
(6) If the letter of credit is made subject to the "Uniform Customs and Practice for Documentary Credits of the International Chamber of Commerce (Publication 600)," then the letter of credit shall specifically address and make provision for an extension of time to draw against the letter of credit in the event that one or more of the occurrences specified in "Article 19 of Publication 600 occur."
(7) The letter of credit shall be issued or confirmed by a qualified United States financial institution authorized to issue letters of credit, pursuant to division (B)(2) of section 3901.63 of the Revised Code.
(8) If the letter of credit is issued by a financial institution authorized to issue letters of credit, other than a qualified United States financial institution as described in paragraph (K)(7) of this rule, then the following additional requirements shall be met:
(a) The issuing financial institution shall formally designate the confirming qualified United States financial institution as its agent for the receipt and payment of the drafts, and
(b) The "evergreen clause" shall provide for thirty days' notice prior to expiry date for nonrenewal.
(9) Reinsurance agreement provisions
(a) The reinsurance agreement in conjunction with which the letter of credit is obtained may contain provisions which,
(i) Require the assuming insurer to provide letters of credit to the ceding insurer and specify what they are to cover.
(ii) Stipulate that the assuming insurer and ceding insurer agree that the letter of credit provided by the assuming insurer pursuant to the provisions of the reinsurance agreement may be drawn upon at any time, notwithstanding any other provisions in the agreement, and shall be utilized by the ceding insurer or its successors in interest only for one or more of the following reasons:
(a) To reimburse the ceding insurer for the assuming insurer's share of premiums returned to the owners of policies reinsured under the reinsurance agreement on account of cancellations of such policies;
(b) To reimburse the ceding insurer for the assuming insurer's share of surrenders and benefits or losses paid by the ceding insurer under the terms and provisions of the policies reinsured under the reinsurance agreement;
(c) To fund an account with the ceding insurer in an amount at least equal to the deduction, for reinsurance ceded, from the ceding insurer's liabilities for policies ceded under the agreement (such amount shall include, but not be limited to, amounts for policy reserves, claims and losses incurred and unearned premium reserves); and
(d) To pay any other amounts the ceding insurer claims are due under the reinsurance agreement.
(iii) All of the foregoing provisions of paragraph (K)(9) of this rule should be applied without diminution because of insolvency on the part of the ceding insurer or assuming insurer.
(b) Nothing contained in paragraph (K)(9) of this rule shall preclude the ceding insurer and assuming insurer from providing for,
(i) An interest payment, at a rate not in excess of the prime rate of interest, on the amounts held pursuant to paragraph (K)(9)(a)(ii) of this rule, and/or
(ii) The return of any amounts drawn down on the letters of credit in excess of the actual amounts required for the above or, in the case of paragraph (K)(9)(a)(ii)(c) of this rule, any amounts that are subsequently determined not to be due.
(c) When a letter of credit is obtained in conjunction with a reinsurance agreement covering risks other than life, annuities and health, where it is customary practice to provide a letter of credit for a specific purpose, then the reinsurance agreement may, in lieu of paragraph (K)(9)(a)(ii) of this rule, require that the parties enter into a "Trust Agreement" which may be incorporated into the reinsurance agreement or be a separate document.
(10) A letter of credit may not be used to reduce any liability for reinsurance ceded to an unauthorized assuming insurer in financial statements required to be filed with this department unless an acceptable letter of credit with the filing ceding insurer as beneficiary has been issued on or before the date of filing of the financial statement. Further, the reduction for the letter of credit may be up to the amount available under the letter of credit but no greater than the specific obligation under the reinsurance agreement which the letter of credit was intended to secure.
(L) Other security
A ceding insurer may take credit for unencumbered funds withheld by the ceding insurer in the United States subject to withdrawal solely by the ceding insurer and under its exclusive control.
(M) Reinsurance contract
Credit will not be granted to a ceding insurer for reinsurance effected with assuming reinsurers meeting the requirements of this rule after the effective date of this rule unless the reinsurance agreement,
(1) Includes a proper insolvency clause pursuant to divisions (A)(1) and (A)(2) of section 3901.64 of the Revised Code, and
(2) Includes a provision whereby the assuming insurer, if an unauthorized assuming insurer, has submitted to the jurisdiction of an alternate dispute resolution panel or court of competent jurisdiction within the United States, has agreed to comply with all requirements necessary to give such court or panel jurisdiction, has designated an agent upon whom service of process may be effected, and has agreed to abide by the final decision of such court or panel.
(N) Contracts affected
All new and renewal reinsurance transactions entered into after December 31, 1997, shall conform to the requirements of sections 3901.61 to 3901.65 of the Revised Code and this rule if credit is to be given to the ceding insurer for such reinsurance.
(O) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
View AppendixView AppendixView AppendixView AppendixView Appendix
Last updated March 2, 2026 at 8:34 AM
History
- Effective: February 28, 2026
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-3-17 New annuity mortality tables for use in determining reserve liabilities for annuities.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to recognize new annuity mortality tables for use in determining the minimum standard of valuation for annuity and pure endowment contracts.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041, 3903.723 and 3903.725 of the Revised Code.
(C) Definitions
(1) The "1983 table 'A'" means the mortality table developed by the society of actuaries committee to recommend a new mortality basis for individual annuity valuation and adopted as a recognized mortality table for annuities in June 1982 by the national association of insurance commissioners (NAIC). (See appendix A to this rule).
(2) The "1983 GAM table" means the mortality table developed by the society of actuaries committee on annuities and adopted as a recognized mortality table for annuities in December 1983 by the NAIC. (See appendix B to this rule).
(3) The "1994 GAR table" means the mortality table developed by the society of actuaries group annuity valuation task force and adopted as a recognized mortality table for annuities in December 1996 by the NAIC. (See appendix C to this rule for males and appendix D to this rule for females).
(4) The "Annuity 2000 Mortality Table" means the mortality table developed by the society of actuaries committee on life insurance research and adopted as a recognized mortality table for annuities in December 1996 by the NAIC. (See appendix E to this rule).
(5) "Period Table" means a table of mortality rates applicable to a given calendar year (the period).
(6) "Generational Mortality Table" means a mortality table containing a set of mortality rates that decrease for a given age from one year to the next based on a combination of a period table and a projection scale containing rates of mortality improvement.
(7) "2012 IAR Table" means that generational mortality table developed by the society of actuaries committee on life insurance research and containing rates, qx2012+n, derived from a combination of the 2012 IAM period table and projection scale G2, using the methodology in paragraph (E) of this rule.
(8) "2012 Individual Annuity Mortality Period Life (2012 IAM Period) Table" means the period table containing loaded mortality rates for calendar year 2012. This table contains rates, qx2012, developed by the society of actuaries committee on life insurance research (see appendices F and G to this rule).
(9) "Projection Scale G2 (Scale G2)" is a table of annual rates, G2x, of mortality improvement by age for projecting future mortality rates beyond calendar year 2012. This table was developed by the society of actuaries committee on life insurance research (see appendices H and I to this rule).
(D) Individual annuity or pure endowment contracts
(1) Except as provided in paragraph (D)(2) of this rule, the 1983 table "A" and the annuity 2000 mortality table are recognized and approved as individual annuity mortality tables for valuation, and, at the option of the company, may be used for purposes of determining the minimum standard of valuation for any individual annuity or pure endowment contract issued on or after January 1, 1979.
(2) Except as provided in paragraphs (D)(3) and (D)(4) of this rule, the annuity 2000 mortality table shall be used for determining the minimum standard of valuation for any individual annuity or pure endowment contract issued on or after January 1, 1999.
(3) Except as provided in paragraph (D)(4) of this rule, the 2012 IAR mortality table shall be used for determining the minimum standard of valuation for any individual annuity or pure endowment contract issued on or after January 1, 2016.
(4) The 1983 table "A" without projection is to be used for determining the minimum standards of valuation for an individual annuity or pure endowment contract issued on or after January 1, 1999, solely when the contract is based on life contingencies and is issued to fund periodic benefits arising from:
(a) Settlements of various forms of claims pertaining to court settlements or out of court settlements from tort actions;
(b) Settlements involving similar actions such as worker's compensation claims; or
(c) Settlements of long term disability claims where a temporary or life annuity has been used in lieu of continuing disability payments.
(E) Application of the 2012 IAR mortality table
In using the 2012 IAR mortality table, the mortality rate for a person age x in year (2012+n) is calculated as follows:
qx2012+n=qx2012(1-G2x)n
The resulting qx2012+n shall be rounded to three decimal places per one thousand, e.g., 0.741 deaths per one thousand. Also, the rounding shall occur according to the formula, starting at the 2012 period table rate.
For example, for a male age thirty, qx2012=0.741.
qx^2013^=0.741*(1-0.010)^1=0.73359, which is rounded to 0.734.
qx^2014^=0.741*(1-0.010)^2=0.7262541, which is rounded to 0.726.
A method leading to incorrect rounding would be to calculate qx2014 as qx2013(1-0.010), or 0.7340.99=0.727.
It is incorrect to use the already rounded qx2013 to calculate qx2014.
(F) Group annuity or pure endowment contracts
(1) The 1983 GAM table, the 1983 table "A" and the 1994 GAR table are recognized and approved as group annuity mortality tables for valuation, and, at the option of the company, any one of these tables may be used for purposes of valuation for any annuity or pure endowment purchased on or after January 1, 1979 under a group annuity or pure endowment contract.
(2) The 1994 GAR table shall be used for determining the minimum standard of valuation for any annuity or pure endowment purchased on or after January 1, 1999 under a group annuity or pure endowment contract.
(G) Application of the 1994 GAR table
In using the 1994 GAR table, the mortality rate for a person age x in year (1994 + n) is calculated as follows:
qx1994 + n = qx1994(1 - AAx)n
Where the qx1994s and the AAxs are as specified in the 1994 GAR table.
(H) Severability
If any paragraph, term or provision of this rule is adjudged invalid for any reason, the judgment shall not affect, impair or invalidate any other paragraph, term or provision of this rule, but the remaining paragraphs, terms and provisions shall be and continue in full force and effect.
View AppendixView AppendixView AppendixView AppendixView AppendixView AppendixView AppendixView AppendixView Appendix
Last updated December 16, 2025 at 11:14 AM
History
- Effective: October 29, 2015
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-3-18 NAIC manuals.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to adopt the forms, instructions and manuals prescribed by the "National Association of Insurance Commissioners" for the preparation and filing of statutory financial statements and other financial information.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041, 3901.77, 1739.09 and 1751.47 of the Revised Code.
(C) Definition
For purposes of this rule, "Insurer" means property and casualty insurance companies, life insurance companies, fraternal benefit associations, title insurance companies, health insuring corporations and multiple employer welfare associations.
(D) Scope
This rule applies to all domestic insurers and the Ohio department of insurance.
(E) Financial examinations and analysis
The Ohio department of insurance will employ the most current version of "Valuation of Securities Manual", the "Purpose and Procedures Manual of the Securities Valuation Office", the "Accounting Practices and Procedures Manual," The "Financial Condition Examiners Handbook," the "Financial Analysis Handbook," the "annual statement blanks" and the "annual statement instructions" published by the "National Association of Insurance Commissioners" in discharging its duty to examine and analyze the financial condition of insurers authorized to conduct business in the state of Ohio.
(F) Preparation of financial statements
All domestic insurers shall employ the most current version of the "Valuation of Securities Manual", the "Purpose and Procedures Manual of the Securities Valuation Office", the "Accounting Practices and Procedures Manual" and the "annual statement instructions" published by the "National Association of Insurance Commissioners" for the purpose of preparing and filing quarterly and annual statements with the Ohio department of insurance and other financial information.
(G) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated November 14, 2024 at 8:52 AM
History
- Effective: November 14, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-3-19 Corporate governance annual disclosure.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to establish the procedures for filing, and the required content of, the corporate governance annual disclosure, deemed necessary by the superintendent pursuant to sections 3901.072 to 3901.078 of the Revised Code.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041 and 3901.077 of the Revised Code.
(C) Definitions
(1) "Board" means board of directors of an insurer or an insurance group.
(2) "CGAD" means a corporate governance annual disclosure.
(3) "Insurance Group" has the same meaning as defined in division (B)(2) of section 3901.072 of the Revised Code.
(4) "Insurer" has the same meaning as defined in division (B)(3) of section 3901.072 of the Revised Code.
(5) "NAIC" means the national association of insurance commissioners.
(6) "SEC" means the United States securities and exchange commission.
(7) "Senior Management" means any corporate officer responsible for reporting information to the board at regular intervals or providing this information to shareholders or regulators, and shall include, for example and without limitation, the chief executive officer (CEO), chief financial officer, chief operations officer, chief procurement officer, chief legal officer, chief information officer, chief technology officer, chief revenue officer, chief visionary officer, or any other "C" level executive.
(D) Filing procedure
(1) An insurer, or the insurance group of which the insurer is a member, required to file a CGAD by section 3901.073 of the Revised Code, shall, no later than June first of each calendar year, submit to the superintendent a CGAD that contains the information described in paragraph (E) of this rule.
(2) The CGAD must include a signature of the insurer's or insurance group's chief executive officer or corporate secretary attesting to the best of that individual's belief and knowledge that the insurer or insurance group has implemented the corporate governance practices and that a copy of the CGAD has been provided to the insurer's or insurance groups board or the appropriate committee thereof.
(3) The insurer or insurance group shall have the discretion regarding the appropriate format for providing the information required by these regulations and is permitted to customize the CGAD to provide the most relevant information necessary to permit the superintendent to gain an understanding of the corporate governance structure, policies and practices utilized by the insurer or the insurance group.
(4) For purposes of completing the CGAD, the insurer or insurance group may choose to provide information on governance activities that occur at the ultimate controlling parent level, an intermediate holding company level, and/or the individual legal entity level, depending upon how the insurer or insurance group has structured its system of corporate governance. The insurer or insurance group is encouraged to make the CGAD disclosures at the level at which the insurer's or insurance group's risk appetite is determined, or at which the earnings, capital, liquidity, operations, and reputation of the insurer are overseen collectively and at which the supervision of those factors are coordinated and exercised, or the level at which legal liability for failure of general corporate governance duties would be placed. If the insurer or insurance group determines the level of reporting based on these criteria, it shall indicate which of the three criteria was used to determine the level of reporting and explain any subsequent changes in level of reporting.
(5) Notwithstanding paragraph (D)(1) of this rule, and as outlined in section 3901.073 of the Revised Code, if the CGAD is completed at the insurance group level, then it must be filed with the lead state of the group as determined by the procedures outlined in the most recent financial analysis handbook adopted by the NAIC. In these instances, a copy of the CGAD must also be provided, upon request, to the chief regulatory official of any state in which the insurance group has a domestic insurer.
(6) An insurer or insurance group may comply with this section by referencing other existing documents, such as an own risk and solvency assessment (ORSA) summary report, holding company form B or form F filings, securities and exchange commission proxy statements, foreign regulatory reporting requirements, etc., if the documents provide information that is comparable to the information described in paragraph (E) of this rule. The insurer or insurance group shall clearly reference the location of the relevant information with the CGAD and attach the referenced document if it is not already filed with the department.
(7) Each year following the initial filing of the CGAD, the insurer or insurance group shall file an amended version of the previously filed CGAD, indicating revisions made, or a copy of the prior year filing with a dated statement indicating that no changes have been made in the information or activities reported in the previous year CGAD.
(E) Contents of corporate governance annual disclosure
(1) The insurer or insurance group shall be as descriptive as possible in completing the CGAD, with inclusion of attachments or example documents that are used in the governance process, since these may provide a means to demonstrate the strengths of their governance framework and practices.
(2) The CGAD shall describe the insurer's or insurance group's corporate governance framework and structure including consideration of the following:
(a) The board and various committees thereof ultimately responsible for overseeing the insurer or insurance group and the level(s) at which that oversight occurs, such as ultimate control level, intermediate holding company, legal entity, etc. The insurer or insurance group shall describe and discuss the rationale for the current board size and structure; and
(b) The duties of the board and each of its significant committees and how they are governed, such as bylaws, charters, informal mandates, etc., as well as how the board's leadership is structured, including a discussion of the roles of chief executive officer and chairman of the board within the organization.
(3) The insurer, or insurance group, shall describe the policies and practices of the most senior governing entity and significant committees thereof, including a discussion of the following factors:
(a) How the qualifications, expertise and experience of each board member meet the needs of the insurer or insurance group;
(b) How an appropriate amount of independence is maintained on the board and its significant committees;
(c) The number of meetings held by the board and its significant committees over the past year as well as information on director attendance;
(d) How the insurer or insurance group identifies, nominates and elects members to the board and its committees. The discussion should include, for example:
(i) Whether a nomination committee is in place to identify and select individuals for consideration;
(ii) Whether term limits are placed on directors;
(iii) How the election and re-election processes function; and
(iv) Whether a board diversity policy is in place and if so, how it functions.
(e) The processes in place for the board to evaluate its performance and the performance of its committees, as well as any recent measures taken to improve performance, including any board or committee training programs that have been put in place.
(4) The insurer or insurance group shall describe the policies and practices for directing senior management, including a description of the following factors:
(a) Any process or practices, such as suitability standards, to determine whether officers and key persons in control functions have the appropriate background, experience and integrity to fulfill their prospective roles, including:
(i) Identification of the specific positions for which suitability standards have been developed and a description of the standards employed; and
(ii) Any changes in an officer's or key person's suitability as outlined by the insurer's or insurance group's standards and procedures to monitor and evaluate.
(b) The insurer's or insurance group's code of business conduct and ethic, the discussion of which considers, for example:
(i) Compliance with laws, rules, and regulations; and
(ii) Proactive reporting of any illegal or unethical behavior.
(c) The insurer's or insurance group's processes for performance evaluation, compensation and corrective action to ensure effective senior management throughout the organization, including a description of the general objectives of significant compensation programs and what the programs are designed to reward. The description shall include sufficient detail to allow the superintendent to understand how the organization ensures that compensation programs do not encourage and/or reward excessive risk taking. Elements to be discussed may include, for example:
(i) The board's role in overseeing management compensation programs and practices;
(ii) The various elements of compensation awarded in the insurer's or insurance group's compensation programs and how the insurer or insurance group determines and calculates the amount of each element of compensation paid;
(iii) How compensation programs are related to both company and individual performance over time;
(iv) Whether compensation programs include risk adjustments and how those adjustments are incorporated into the programs for employees at different levels;
(v) Any claw-back provisions built into the programs to recover awards or payments if the performance measures upon which they are based are restated or otherwise adjusted; and
(vi) Any other factors relevant in understanding how the insurer or insurance group monitors its compensation policies to determine whether its risk management objectives are met by incentivizing its employees.
(d) The insurer's or insurance group's plans for CEO and senior management succession.
(5) The insurer or insurance group shall describe the processes by which the board, its committees and senior management ensure an appropriate amount of oversight to the critical risk areas impacting the insurer's business activities including a discussion of:
(a) How oversight and management responsibilities are delegated between the board, its committees, and senior management;
(b) How the board is kept informed of the insurer's strategic plans, the associated risks, and steps that senior management is taking to monitor and manage those risks;
(c) How reporting responsibilities are organized for each critical risk area. The description should allow the superintendent to understand the frequency at which information on each critical risk area is reported to and reviewed by senior management and the board. This description may include, for example, the following critical risk areas of the insurer:
(i) Risk management processes. An insurer, or the insurance group of which the insurer is a member, that files an ORSA summary report with the superintendent pursuant to section 3901.375 of the Revised Code may refer to its ORSA summary report;
(ii) Actuarial function;
(iii) Investment decision-making processes;
(iv) Reinsurance decision-making processes;
(v) Business strategy/finance decision-making processes;
(vi) Compliance function;
(vii) Financial reporting/internal auditing; and
(viii) Market conduct decision-making processes.
(F) Severability
If any paragraph, term or provision of this rule is adjudged invalid for any reason, the judgment shall not affect, impair or invalidate any other paragraph, term or provision of this rule, but the remaining paragraphs, terms and provisions shall be and continue in full force and effect.
Last updated February 14, 2022 at 8:55 AM
History
- Effective: February 14, 2022
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Chapter 3901-4 Long-Term Care Insurance
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-4-01 Long-term care insurance.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to implement sections 3923.41 to 3923.49 of the Revised Code to promote the public interest, to promote the availability of long-term care insurance coverage, to protect applicants for long-term care insurance, as defined, from unfair or deceptive sales or enrollment practices, to facilitate public understanding and comparison of long-term care insurance coverages, and to facilitate flexibility and innovation in the development of long-term care insurance.
(B) Authority
This regulation is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041, 3923.44 and 3923.47 of the Revised Code.
(C) Applicability
Except as otherwise specifically provided, this rule applies to all long-term care insurance policies, including qualified long-term care contracts and life insurance policies that accelerate benefits for long-term care delivered or issued for delivery in this state on or after the effective date by insurers; fraternal benefit societies; nonprofit health, hospital, and medical service corporations; prepaid health plans; health maintenance organizations and all similar organizations.
Additionally, this rule is intended to apply to policies having indemnity benefits that are triggered by activities of daily living and sold as disability income insurance, if:
(1) The benefits of the disability income policy are dependent upon or vary in amount based on the receipt of long-term care services;
(2) The disability income policy is advertised, marketed, or offered as insurance for long-term care services; or
(3) Benefits under the policy may commence after the policyholder has reached social security's normal retirement age unless benefits are designed to replace lost income or pay for specific expenses other than long-term care services.
(D) Definitions
For the purpose of this rule, the terms "long-term care insurance," "group long-term care insurance," "applicant," "policy" and "certificate" have the meanings set forth in section 3923.41 of the Revised Code. In addition, the following definitions apply.
(1) "Association" means any professional, trade, or occupational association for its members or former or retired members, or combination thereof, if such association:
(a) Is composed of individuals all of whom are or were actively engaged in the same profession, trade, or occupation; and
(b) Has been maintained in good faith for purposes other than obtaining insurance.
(2) "Exceptional increase" means:
(a) Only those increases filed by an insurer as exceptional for which the superintendent determines the need for the premium rate increase is justified:
(i) Due to changes in laws or regulations applicable to long-term care coverage in this state; or
(ii) Due to increased and unexpected utilization that affects the majority of insurers of similar products.
(b) Except as provided in paragraph (T) of this rule, exceptional increases are subject to the same requirements as other premium rate schedule increases.
(c) The superintendent may request a review by an independent actuary or a professional actuarial body of the basis for a request that an increase be considered an exceptional increase.
(d) The superintendent, in determining that the necessary basis for an exceptional increase exists, may also determine any potential offsets to higher claims costs.
(3) "Incidental," as used in paragraph (T)(10) of this rule, means that the value of the long-term care benefits provided is less than ten per cent of the total value of the benefits provided over the life of the policy. These values are measured as of the date of issue.
(4) "Qualified actuary" means a member in good standing of the American academy of actuaries.
(5) "Similar policy forms" means all of the long-term care insurance policies and certificates issued by an insurer in the same long-term care benefit classification as the policy form being considered. Certificates of groups that meet the definition in section 3923.41 of the Revised Code are not considered similar to certificates or policies otherwise issued as long-term care insurance, but are similar to other comparable certificates with the same long-term care benefit classifications. For purposes of determining similar policy forms, long-term care benefit classifications are defined as follows: institutional long-term care benefits only, non-institutional long-term care benefits only, or comprehensive long-term care benefits.
(E) Policy definitions
No long-term care insurance policy delivered or issued for delivery in this state shall use the terms set forth below, unless the terms are defined in the policy and the definitions satisfy the following requirements:
(1) "Activities of daily living" means at least bathing, continence, dressing, eating, toileting and transferring.
(2) "Acute condition" means that the individual is medically unstable. Such an individual requires frequent monitoring by medical professionals, such as physicians and registered nurses, in order to maintain his or her health status.
(3) "Adult day care" means a program of social and health-related services provided during the day in a community group setting for the purpose of supporting frail, impaired elderly or other disabled adults who can benefit from care in a group setting outside the home.
(4) "Bathing" means washing oneself by sponge bath; or in either a tub or shower, including the task of getting into or out of the tub or shower.
(5) "Cognitive impairment" means a deficiency in a person's short or long-term memory, orientation as to person, place, and time, deductive or abstract reasoning, or judgment as it relates to safety awareness.
(6) "Continence" means the ability to maintain control of bowel and bladder function; or, when unable to maintain control of bowel or bladder function, the ability to perform associated personal hygiene (including caring for catheter or colostomy bag).
(7) "Dressing" means putting on and taking off all items of clothing and any necessary braces, fasteners, or artificial limbs.
(8) "Eating" means feeding oneself by getting food into the body from a receptacle (such as a plate, cup, or table) or by a feeding tube or intravenously.
(9) "Hands-on assistance" means physical assistance (minimal, moderate, or maximal) without which the individual would not be able to perform the activity of daily living.
(10) "Home health care services" means medical and nonmedical services provided to ill, disabled, or infirm persons in their residences. Such services may include homemaker services, assistance with activities of daily living and respite care services.
(11) "Medicare" means "The Health Insurance for the Aged Act, Title XVIII of the Social Security Amendments of 1965 as Then Constituted or Later Amended," or "Title I, Part I of Public Law 89-97, as Enacted by the Eighty-Ninth Congress of the United States of America and popularly known as the Health Insurance for the Aged Act, as then constituted and any later amendments or substitutes thereof," or words of similar import.
(12) "Mental or nervous disorder" is not to be defined to include more than neurosis, psychoneurosis, psychopathy, psychosis, or mental or emotional disease or disorder.
(13) "Personal care" means the provision of hands-on services to assist an individual with activities of daily living.
(14) "Skilled nursing care," "personal care," "home care," "specialized care," "assisted living care" and other services are defined in relation to the level of skill required, the nature of the care and the setting in which care must be delivered.
(15) "Toileting" means getting to and from the toilet, getting on and off the toilet, and performing associated personal hygiene.
(16) "Transferring" means moving into or out of a bed, chair, or wheelchair.
(17) All providers of services, including but not limited to "skilled nursing facility," "extended care facility," "convalescent nursing home," "personal care facility," "specialized care providers," "assisted living facility" and "home care agency" are defined in relation to the services and facilities required to be available and the licensure, certification, registration or degree status of those providing or supervising the services. When the definition requires that the provider be appropriately licensed, certified or registered, it shall also state what requirements a provider must meet in lieu of licensure, certification or registration when the state in which the service is to be furnished does not require a provider of these services to be licensed, certified or registered, or when the state licenses, certifies or registers the provider of services under another name.
(F) Policy practices and provisions
(1) Renewability. The terms "guaranteed renewable" and "noncancellable" shall not be used in any individual long-term care insurance policy without further explanatory language in accordance with the disclosure requirements of paragraph (I) of this rule.
(a) A policy issued to an individual shall not contain renewal provisions other than "guaranteed renewable" or "noncancellable."
(b) The term "guaranteed renewable" may be used only when the insured has the right to continue the long-term care insurance in force by the timely payment of premiums and when the insurer has no unilateral right to make any change in any provision of the policy or rider while the insurance is in force, and cannot decline to renew, except that rates may be revised by the insurer on a class basis.
(c) The term "noncancellable" may be used only when the insured has the right to continue the long-term care insurance in force by the timely payment of premiums during which period the insurer has no right to unilaterally make any change in any provision of the insurance or in the premium rate.
(d) The term "level premium" may only be used when the insurer does not have the right to change the premium.
(e) In addition to the other requirements of this paragraph, a qualified long-term care insurance contract shall be guaranteed renewable, within the meaning of section 7702B(b)(1)(C) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended.
(2) Limitations and exclusions. A policy may not be delivered or issued for delivery in this state as long-term care insurance if the policy limits or excludes coverage by type of illness, treatment, medical condition, or accident, except as follows:
(a) Preexisting conditions or diseases;
(b) Mental or nervous disorders; however, this shall not permit exclusion or limitation of benefits on the basis of alzheimer's disease or other dementia;
(c) Alcoholism and drug addiction;
(d) Illness, treatment, or medical condition arising out of:
(i) War or act of war (whether declared or undeclared);
(ii) Participation in a felony, riot or insurrection;
(iii) Service in the armed forces or units auxiliary thereto;
(iv) Suicide (sane or insane), attempted suicide or intentionally self-inflicted injury; or
(v) Aviation (this exclusion applies only to non-fare-paying passengers).
(e) Treatment provided in a government facility (unless otherwise required by law), services for which benefits are available under medicare or other governmental program (except medicaid), any state or federal workers' compensation, employer's liability or occupational disease law, or any motor vehicle no-fault law, services provided by a member of the covered person's immediate family and services for which no charge is normally made in the absence of insurance;
(f) Expenses for services or items available or paid under another long-term care insurance or health insurance policy;
(g) In the case of a qualified long-term care insurance contract, expenses for services or items to the extent that the expenses are reimbursable under Title XVIII of the Social Security Act or would be so reimbursable but for the application of a deductible or coinsurance amount.
(h)
(i) This paragraph is not intended to prohibit exclusions and limitations by type of provider. However, no long-term care issuer may deny a claim because services are provided in a state other then the state of policy issue under the following conditions:
(a) When the state other then the state of policy issue does not have the provider licensing, certification or registration required in the policy, but where the provider satisfies the policy requirements outlined for providers in lieu of licensure, certification, or registration; or
(b) When the state other than the state of policy issue licenses, certifies or registers the provider under another name.
(ii) For purposes of this paragraph, "state of policy issue" means the state in which the individual policy or certificate was originally issued.
(i) This paragraph is not intended to prohibit territorial limitations.
(3) Extension of benefits. Termination of long-term care insurance shall be without prejudice to any benefits payable for institutionalization if the institutionalization began while the long-term care insurance was in force and continues without interruption after termination. The extension of benefits beyond the period the long-term care insurance was in force may be limited to the duration of the benefit period, if any, or to payment of the maximum benefits and may be subject to any policy waiting period, and all other applicable provisions of the policy.
(4) Continuation or conversion
(a) Group long-term care insurance issued in this state on or after the effective date of this paragraph shall provide covered individuals with a basis for continuation or conversion of coverage.
(b) For the purposes of this paragraph, a "basis for continuation of coverage" means a policy provision that maintains coverage under the existing group policy when the coverage would otherwise terminate, and which is subject only to the continued timely payment of premium when due. Group policies that restrict provision of benefits and services to or contain incentives to use certain providers or facilities may provide continuation benefits that are substantially equivalent to the benefits of the existing group policy. The superintendent may make a determination as to the substantial equivalency of benefits, and in doing so, may take into consideration the differences between managed care and non-managed care plans, including, but not limited to, provider system arrangements, service availability, benefit levels and administrative complexity.
(c) For the purposes of this paragraph, a "basis for conversion of coverage" means a policy provision that an individual whose coverage under the group policy would otherwise terminate or has been terminated for any reason, including discontinuance of the group policy in its entirety or with respect to an insured class, and who has been continuously insured under the group policy (and any group policy which it replaced), for at least six months immediately prior to termination, is entitled to the issuance of a converted policy by the insurer under whose group policy he or she is covered, without evidence of insurability.
(d) For the purposes of this paragraph, "converted policy" means an individual policy of long-term care insurance providing benefits identical to or benefits determined by the superintendent to be substantially equivalent to or in excess of those provided under the group policy from which conversion is made. Where the group policy from which conversion is made restricts provision of benefits and services to, or contains incentives to use certain providers or facilities, the superintendent, in making a determination as to the substantial equivalency of benefits, may take into consideration the differences between managed care and non-managed care plans, including, but not limited to, provider system arrangements, service availability, benefit levels and administrative complexity.
(e) Written application for the converted policy will be made and the first premium due, if any, shall be paid as directed by the insurer not later than thirty days after termination of coverage under the group policy. The converted policy shall be issued effective on the day following the termination of coverage under the group policy, and is renewable annually.
(f) Unless the group policy from which conversion is made replaced previous group coverage, the premium for the converted policy is calculated on the basis of the insured's age at inception of coverage under the group policy from which conversion is made. Where the group policy from which conversion is made replaced previous group coverage, the premium for the converted policy is calculated on the basis of the insured's age at inception of coverage under the group policy replaced.
(g) Continuation of coverage or issuance of a converted policy is mandatory, except where:
(i) Termination of group coverage resulted from an individual's failure to make any required payment of premium or contribution when due; or
(ii) The termination coverage is replaced not later than thirty-one days after termination, by group coverage effective on the day following the termination of coverage:
(a) Providing benefits identical to or benefits determined by the superintendent to be substantially equivalent to or in excess of those provided by the terminating coverage; and
(b) The premium for which is calculated in a manner consistent with the requirements of paragraph (F)(4)(f) of this rule.
(h) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this paragraph, a converted policy issued to an individual who at the time of conversion is covered by another long-term care insurance policy that provides benefits on the basis of incurred expenses, may contain a provision that results in a reduction of benefits payable if the benefits provided under the additional coverage, together with the full benefits provided by the converted policy, would result in payment of more than one hundred per cent of incurred expenses. The provision shall only be included in the converted policy if the converted policy also provides for a premium decrease or refund which reflects the reduction in benefits payable.
(i) The converted policy may provide that the benefits payable under the converted policy, together with the benefits payable under the group policy from which conversion is made, shall not exceed those that would have been payable had the individual's coverage under the group policy remained in force and effect.
(j) Notwithstanding any provision of this paragraph, an insured individual whose eligibility for group long-term care coverage is based upon his or her relationship to another person is entitled to continuation of coverage under the group policy upon termination of the qualifying relationship by death or dissolution of marriage.
(k) For the purposes of this paragraph a "managed-care plan" is a health care or assisted living arrangement designed to coordinate patient care or control costs through utilization review, case management or use of specific provider networks.
(5) Discontinuance and replacement
If a group long-term care policy is replaced by another group long-term care policy issued to the same policyholder, the succeeding insurer shall offer coverage to all persons covered under the previous group policy on its date of termination. Coverage provided or offered to individuals by the insurer and premiums charged to persons under the new group policy:
(a) Shall not result in an exclusion for preexisting conditions that would have been covered under the group policy being replaced; and
(b) Shall not vary or otherwise depend on the individual's health or disability status, claim experience or use of long-term care services.
(6)
(a) The premium charged to an insured shall not increase due to either:
(i) The increasing age of the insured at ages beyond sixty-five; or
(ii) The duration the insured has been covered under the policy.
(b) The purchase of additional coverage is not considered a premium rate increase, but for purposes of the calculation required under paragraph (AA) of this rule, the portion of the premium attributable to the additional coverage is added to and considered part of the initial annual premium.
(c) A reduction in benefits is not considered a premium change, but for purpose of the calculation required under paragraph (AA) of this rule, the initial annual premium shall be based on the reduced benefits.
(7) Electronic enrollment for group polices
(a) In the case of a group defined in division (D) of section 3923.41 of the Revised Code, any requirement that a signature of an insured be obtained by an agent or insurer is deemed satisfied if:
(i) The consent is obtained by telephonic or electronic enrollment by the group policyholder or insurer. A verification of enrollment information shall be provided to the enrollee;
(ii) The telephonic or electronic enrollment provides necessary and reasonable safeguards to assure the accuracy, retention and prompt retrieval of records; and
(iii) The telephonic or electronic enrollment provides necessary and reasonable safeguards to assure that the confidentiality of individually identifiable information and "privileged information" as defined by division (U) of section 3904.01 of the Revised Code, is maintained.
(b) The insurer will make available, upon request of the superintendent, records that will demonstrate the insurer's ability to confirm enrollment and coverage amounts.
(G) Unintentional lapse
Each insurer offering long-term care insurance shall, as a protection against unintentional lapse, comply with the following:
(1)
(a) Notice before lapse or termination. No individual long-term care policy or certificate shall be issued until the insurer has received from the applicant either a written designation of at least one person, in addition to the applicant, who is to receive notice of lapse or termination of the policy or certificate for nonpayment of premium, or a written waiver dated and signed by the applicant electing not to designate additional persons to receive notice. The applicant has the right to designate at least one person who is to receive the notice of termination, in addition to the insured. Designation does not constitute acceptance of any liability on the third party for services provided to the insured. The form used for the written designation must provide space clearly designated for listing at least one person. The designation shall include each person's full name and home address. In the case of an applicant who elects not to designate an additional person, the waiver shall state: "Protection against unintended lapse. I understand that I have the right to designate at least one person other than myself to receive notice of lapse or termination of this long-term care insurance policy for non-payment of premium. I understand that notice will not be given until thirty days after a premium is due and unpaid. I elect NOT to designate a person to receive this notice."
The insurer will notify the insured of the right to change this written designation, no less often than once every two years.
(b) When the policyholder or certificateholder pays premium for a long-term care insurance policy or certificate through a payroll or pension deduction plan, the requirements contained in paragraph (G)(1)(a) of this rule need not be met until sixty days after the policyholder or certificateholder is no longer on such a payment plan. The application or enrollment form for such policies or certificates shall clearly indicate the payment plan selected by the applicant.
(c) Lapse or termination for nonpayment of premium. No individual long-term care policy or certificate shall lapse or be terminated for nonpayment of premium unless the insurer, at least thirty days before the effective date of the lapse or termination, has given notice to the insured and to those persons designated pursuant to paragraph (G)(1)(a) of this rule, at the address provided by the insured for purposes of receiving notice of lapse or termination. Notice is to be given by first class United Sates mail, postage prepaid; and notice may not be given until thirty days after a premium is due and unpaid. Notice is deemed to have been given as of five days after the date of mailing.
(2) Reinstatement. In addition to the requirement in paragraph (G)(1) of this rule, a long-term care insurance policy or certificate shall include a provision that provides for reinstatement of coverage, in the event of lapse if the insurer is provided proof that the policyholder or certificateholder was cognitively impaired or had a loss of functional capacity before the grace period contained in the policy expired. This option is available to the insured if requested within five months after termination and allows for the collection of past due premium, where appropriate. The standard of proof of cognitive impairment or loss of functional capacity shall not be more stringent than the benefit eligibility criteria on cognitive impairment or the loss of functional capacity contained in the policy and certificate.
(H) Required disclosure provisions
(1) Renewability. Individual long-term care insurance policies shall contain a renewability provision.
(a) The provision shall be appropriately captioned, appear on the first page of the policy, and clearly state that the coverage is guaranteed renewable or noncancellable. This provision does not apply to policies that do not contain a renewability provision, and under which the right to nonrenew is reserved solely to the policyholder.
(b) A long-term care insurance policy or certificate, other than one where the insurer does not have the right to change the premium, shall include a statement that premium rates may change.
(2) Riders and endorsements. Except for riders or endorsements by which the insurer effectuates a request made in writing by the insured under an individual long-term care insurance policy, all riders or endorsements added to an individual long-term care insurance policy after date of issue or at reinstatement or renewal that reduce or eliminate benefits or coverage in the policy shall require signed acceptance by the individual insured. After the date of policy issue, any rider or endorsement which increases benefits or coverage with a concomitant increase in premium during the policy term must be agreed to in writing signed by the insured, except if the increased benefits or coverage are required by law. Where a separate additional premium is charged for benefits provided in connection with riders or endorsements, the premium charge will be set forth in the policy, rider or endorsement.
(3) Payment of benefits. A long-term care insurance policy that provides for the payment of benefits based on standards described as "usual and customary," "reasonable and customary" or words of similar import shall include a definition of these terms and an explanation of the terms in its accompanying outline of coverage.
(4) Limitations. If a long-term care insurance policy or certificate contains any limitations with respect to preexisting conditions, the limitations will appear as a separate paragraph of the policy or certificate and will be labeled as "Preexisting Condition Limitations."
(5) Other limitations or conditions on eligibility for benefits. A long-term care insurance policy or certificate containing any limitations or conditions for eligibility other than those prohibited in divisions (E)(2) and (F) of section 3923.44 of the Revised Code shall set forth a description of the limitations or conditions, including any required number of days of confinement, in a separate paragraph of the policy or certificate and shall label such paragraph "Limitations or Conditions on Eligibility for Benefits."
(6) Disclosure of tax consequences. With regard to life insurance policies that provide an accelerated benefit for long-term care, a disclosure statement is required at the time of application for the policy or rider and at the time the accelerated benefit payment request is submitted that receipt of these accelerated benefits may be taxable, and that assistance should be sought from a personal tax advisor. The disclosure statement shall be prominently displayed on the first page of the policy or rider and any other related documents. This paragraph does not apply to qualified long-term care insurance contracts.
(7) Benefit triggers. Activities of daily living and cognitive impairment shall be used to measure an insured's need for long term care and shall be described in the policy or certificate in a separate paragraph and shall be labeled "Eligibility for the Payment of Benefits." Any additional benefit triggers shall also be explained in this section. If these triggers differ for different benefits, explanation of the trigger will accompany each benefit description. If an attending physician or other specified person must certify a certain level of functional dependency in order to be eligible for benefits, this too will be specified.
(8) A qualified long-term care insurance contract shall include a disclosure statement in the policy and in the outline of coverage as contained in paragraph (DD)(5) of this rule that the policy is intended to be a qualified long-term care insurance contract under section 7702B(b) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended.
(9) A nonqualified long-term care insurance contract shall include a disclosure statement in the policy and in the outline of coverage as contained in paragraph (DD)(5) of this rule that the policy is not intended to be a qualified long-term care insurance contract.
(I) Required disclosure of rating practices to consumers
(1) This paragraph applies as follows:
(a) Except as provided in paragraph (I)(1)(b) of this rule, this paragraph applies to any long-term care policy or certificate issued in this state on or after one hundred eighty days after the effective date of this rule.
(b) For certificates issued on or after the effective date of this amended rule under a group long-term care insurance policy as defined in division (D) of section 3923.41 of the Revised Code, which policy was in force at the time this amended rule became effective, the provisions of this paragraph apply on the policy anniversary following three hundred sixty-five days after the effective date of this rule.
(2) Other than policies for which no applicable premium rate or rate schedule increases can be made, insurers shall provide all of the information listed in this paragraph to the applicant at the time of application or enrollment, unless the method of application does not allow for delivery at that time. In such a case, an insurer will provide all of the information listed in this paragraph to the applicant no later than at the time of delivery of the policy or certificate.
(a) A statement that the policy may be subject to rate increases in the future;
(b) An explanation of potential future premium rate revisions, and the policyholder's or certificateholder's option in the event of a premium rate revision;
(c) The premium rate or rate schedules applicable to the applicant that will be in effect until a request is made for an increase;
(d) A general explanation for applying premium rate or rate schedule adjustments that includes:
(i) A description of when premium rate or rate schedule adjustments will be effective (e.g., next anniversary date, next billing date, etc.); and
(ii) The right to a revised premium rate or rate schedule as provided in paragraph (I)(2) of this rule if the premium rate or rate schedule is changed;
(e)
(i) Information regarding each premium rate increase on this policy form or similar policy forms over the past ten years for this state or any other state that, at a minimum identifies:
(a) The policy forms for which premium rates have been increased;
(b) The calendar years when the form was available for purchase; and
(c) The amount or per cent of each increase. The percentage may be expressed as a percentage of the premium rate prior to the increase, and may also be expressed as minimum and maximum percentages if the rate increase is variable by rating characteristics.
(ii) The insurer may, in a fair manner, provide additional explanatory information related to the rate increases.
(iii) An insurer has the right to exclude from the disclosure premium rate increases that only apply to blocks of business acquired from other nonaffiliated insurers or the long-term care policies acquired from other nonaffiliated insurers when those increases occurred prior to the acquisition.
(iv) If an acquiring insurer files for a rate increase on a long-term care policy form acquired from nonaffiliated insurers or a block of policy forms acquired from nonaffiliated insurers on or before the later of the effective date of this paragraph or the end of a twenty-four-month period following the acquisition of the block or policies, the acquiring insurer may exclude that rate increase from the disclosure. However, the nonaffiliated selling company shall include the disclosure of that rate increase in accordance with paragraph (I)(2)(e)(i) of this rule.
(v) If the acquiring insurer in paragraph (I)(2)(e)(iv) of this rule files for a subsequent rate increase, even within the twenty-four-month period, on the same policy form acquired from nonaffiliated insurers or block policy forms acquired from nonaffiliated insurers referenced in paragraph (I)(2)(e)(iv) of this rule, the acquiring insurer shall make all disclosures required by paragraph (I)(2) of this rule, including disclosure of the earlier rate increase referenced in paragraph (I)(2)(e)(iv) of this rule.
(3) An applicant shall sign an acknowledgement at the time of application, unless the method of application does not allow for signature at that time, that the insurer made the disclosure required under paragraphs (I)(2)(a) and (I)(2)(e) of this rule. If due to the method of application the applicant cannot sign an acknowledgement at the time of application, the applicant will sign no later than at the time of delivery of the policy or certificate.
(4) An insurer shall use the forms in appendices B and F to this rule to comply with the requirements of paragraphs (I)(1) and (I)(2) of this rule.
(5) An insurer shall provide notice of an upcoming premium rate schedule increase to all policyholders or certificateholders, if applicable, at least forty-five days prior to the implementation of the premium rate schedule increase by the insurer. The notice shall include the information required by paragraph (I)(2) of this rule when the rate increase is implemented.
(J) Initial filing requirements
(1) This paragraph applies to any long-term care policy issued in this state on or after one hundred eighty days after the effective date of this rule.
(2) An insurer shall provide the information listed in this paragraph to the superintendent thirty days prior to making a long-term care insurance form available for sale.
(a) A copy of the disclosure documents required in paragraph (I) of this rule; and
(b) An actuarial certification consisting of at least the following:
(i) A statement that the initial premium rate schedule is sufficient to cover anticipated costs under moderately adverse experience and that the premium rate schedule is reasonably expected to be sustainable over the life of the form with no future premium increases anticipated;
(ii) A statement that the policy design and coverage provided have been reviewed and taken into consideration;
(iii) A statement that the underwriting and claims adjudication processes have been reviewed and taken into consideration;
(iv) A complete description of the basis for contract reserves that are anticipated to be held under the form, to include:
(a) Sufficient detail or sample calculations provided so as to have a complete depiction of the reserve amounts to be held;
(b) A statement that the assumptions used for reserves contain reasonable margins for adverse experience;
(c) A statement that the net valuation premium for renewal years does not increase (except for attained-age rating where permitted); and
(d) A statement that the difference between the gross premium and the net valuation premium for renewal years is sufficient to cover expected renewal expenses; or if such a statement cannot be made, a complete description of the situations where this does not occur;
(i) An aggregate distribution of anticipated issues may be used as long as the underlying gross premiums maintain a reasonably consistent relationship;
(ii) If the gross premiums for certain age groups appear to be inconsistent with this requirement, the superintendent may request a demonstration under paragraph (J)(3) of this rule based on a standard age distribution; and
(v)
(a) A statement that the premium rate schedule is not less than the premium rate schedule for existing similar policy forms also available from the insurer except for reasonable differences attributable to benefits; or
(b) A comparison of the premium schedules for similar policy forms that are currently available from the insurer with an explanation of the differences.
(3)
(a) The superintendent may request an actuarial demonstration that benefits are reasonable in relation to premiums. The actuarial demonstration shall include either premium and claim experience on similar policy forms, adjusted for any premium or benefit differences, relevant and credible data from other studies, or both.
(b) In the event the superintendent asks for additional information under this provision, the period in paragraph (J)(2) of this rule does not include the period during which the insurer is preparing the requested information.
(K) Prohibition against post-claims underwriting
(1) All applications for long-term care insurance policies or certificates except those that are guaranteed issue shall contain clear and unambiguous questions designed to ascertain the health condition of the applicant.
(2)
(a) If an application for long-term care insurance contains a question that asks whether the applicant has had medication prescribed by a physician, it must also ask the applicant to list the medication that has been prescribed.
(b) If the medications listed in the application were known by the insurer, or should have been known at the time of application, to be directly related to a medical condition for which coverage would otherwise be denied, then the policy or certificate shall not be rescinded for that condition.
(3) Except for policies or certificates which are guaranteed issue:
(a) The following language shall be set out conspicuously and in close conjunction with the applicant's signature block on an application for a long-term care insurance policy or certificate:
Caution: If your answers on this application are incorrect or untrue, [company] has the right to deny benefits or rescind your policy.
(b) The following language, or language substantially similar to the following, shall be set out conspicuously on the long-term care insurance policy or certificate at the time of delivery:
Caution: The issuance of this long-term care insurance [policy] [certificate] is based upon your responses to the questions on your application. A copy of your [application][enrollment form][is enclosed] [was retained by you when you applied]. If your answers are incorrect or untrue, the company has the right to deny benefits or rescind your policy. The best time to clear up any questions is now, before a claim arises! If, for any reason, any of your answers are incorrect, contact the company at this address: [insert address]
(c) Prior to issuance of a long-term care policy or certificate to an applicant age eighty or older, the insurer shall obtain one of the following:
(i) A report of a physical examination;
(ii) An assessment of functional capacity;
(iii) An attending physician's statement; or
(iv) Copies of medical records.
(4) A copy of the completed application or enrollment form (whichever is applicable) shall be delivered to the insured no later than at the time of delivery of the policy or certificate unless it was retained by the applicant at the time of application.
(5) Every insurer or other entity selling or issuing long-term care insurance benefits shall maintain a record of all policy or certificate rescissions, both state and countrywide, except those that the insured voluntarily effectuated and shall annually furnish this information to the superintendent in the format prescribed by the national association of insurance commissioners in appendix A to this rule.
(L) Minimum standards for home health and community care benefits in long-term care insurance policies
(1) A long-term care insurance policy or certificate shall not, if it provides benefits for home health care or community care services, limit or exclude benefits:
(a) By requiring that the insured or claimant would need care in a skilled nursing facility if home health care services were not provided;
(b) By requiring that the insured or claimant first or simultaneously receive nursing or therapeutic services, or both, in a home, community or institutional setting before home health care services are covered;
(c) By limiting eligible services to services provided by registered nurses or licensed practical nurses;
(d) By requiring that a nurse or therapist provide services covered by the policy that can be provided by a home health aide, or other licensed or certified home care worker acting within the scope of his or her licensure or certification;
(e) By excluding coverage for personal care services provided by a home health aide;
(f) By requiring that the provision of home health care services be at a level of certification or licensure greater than that required by the eligible service;
(g) By requiring that the insured or claimant have an acute condition before home health care services are covered;
(h) By limiting benefits to services provided by medicare-certified agencies or providers; or
(i) By excluding coverage for adult day care services.
(2) A long-term care insurance policy or certificate, if it provides for home health or community care services, shall provide total home health or community care coverage that is a dollar amount equivalent to at least one-half of one year's coverage available for nursing home benefits under the policy or certificate, at the time covered home health or community care services are being received. This requirement does not apply to policies or certificates issued to residents of continuing care retirement communities.
(3) Home health care coverage may be applied to the nonhome health care benefits provided in the policy or certificate when determining maximum coverage under the terms of the policy or certificate.
(M) Requirement to offer inflation protection
(1) No insurer may offer a long-term care insurance policy unless the insurer also offers to the policyholder in addition to any other inflation protection the option to purchase a policy that provides for benefit levels to increase with benefit maximums or reasonable durations which are meaningful to account for reasonably anticipated increases in the costs of long-term care services covered by the policy. Insurers must offer to each policyholder, at the time of purchase, the option to purchase a policy with an inflation protection feature no less favorable than one of the following:
(a) Increases benefit levels annually in a manner so that the increases are compounded annually at a rate not less than five per cent;
(b) Guarantees the insured individual the right to periodically increase benefit levels without providing evidence of insurability or health status so long as the option for the previous period has not been declined. The amount of the additional benefit shall be no less than the difference between the existing policy benefit and that benefit compounded annually at a rate of at least five per cent for the period beginning with the purchase of the existing benefit and extending until the year in which the offer is made; or
(c) Covers a specified percentage of actual or reasonable charges and does not include a maximum specified indemnity amount or limit.
(2) Where the policy is issued to a group, the required offer in paragraph (M)(1) of this rule will be made to the group policyholder; except, if the policy is issued to a group defined in division (D) of section 3923.41 of the Revised Code other than an employer, labor organization or trust established by one or more employers or labor organizations or a combination thereof, or an association group, and the group is not a continuing care retirement community, the offering will be made to each proposed certificateholder.
(3) The offer in paragraph (M)(1) of this rule is not required of life insurance policies or riders containing accelerated long-term care benefits.
(4)
(a) Insurers shall include the following information in or with the outline of coverage:
(i) A graphic comparison of the benefit levels of a policy that increases benefits over the policy period with a policy that does not increase benefits. The graphic comparison shall show benefit levels over at least a twenty-year period.
(ii) Any expected premium increases or additional premiums to pay for automatic or optional benefit increases.
(b) An insurer may use a reasonable hypothetical, or a graphic demonstration, for the purposes of this disclosure.
(5) Inflation protection benefit increases under a policy which contains these benefits shall continue without regard to an insured's age, claim status or claim history, or the length of time the person has been insured under the policy.
(6) An offer of inflation protection that provides for automatic benefit increases shall include an offer of a premium which the insurer expects to remain constant. The offer shall disclose in a conspicuous manner that the premium may change in the future unless the premium is guaranteed to remain constant.
(7)
(a) Inflation protection as provided in paragraph (M)(1)(a) of this rule shall be included in a long-term care insurance policy unless an insurer obtains a rejection of inflation protection signed by the policyholder as required in this paragraph. The rejection may be either in the application or a on a separate form.
(b) The rejection is considered a part of the application and shall state:
I have reviewed the outline of coverage and the graphs that compare the benefits and premiums of this policy with and without inflation protection. Specifically, I have reviewed plans ______, and I reject inflation protection.
(N) Requirements for application forms and replacement coverage
(1) Application forms shall include the following questions designed to elicit information as to whether, as of the date of the application, the applicant has another long-term care insurance policy or certificate in force or whether a long-term care policy or certificate is intended to replace any other accident and sickness or long-term care policy or certificate presently in force. A supplementary application or other form to be signed by the applicant and agent, except where the coverage is sold without an agent, containing the questions may be used. With regard to a replacement policy issued to a group defined by division (D) of section 3923.41 of the Revised Code, the following questions may be modified only to the extent necessary to elicit information about health or long-term care insurance policies other than the group policy being replaced, provided that the certificateholder has been notified of the replacement.
(a) Do you have another long-term care insurance policy or certificate in force (including health care service contract, health maintenance organization contract)?
(b) Did you have another long-term care insurance policy or certificate in force during the last twelve months?
(i) If so, with which company?
(ii) If that policy lapsed, when did it lapse?
(c) Are you covered by medicaid?
(d) Do you intend to replace any of your medical or health insurance coverage with this policy [certificate]?
(2) Agents shall list any other health insurance policies they have sold to the applicant.
(a) List policies sold that are still in force.
(b) List policies sold in the past five years that are no longer in force.
(3) Solicitations other than direct response. Upon determining that a sale will involve replacement, an insurer; other than an insurer using direct response solicitation methods, or its agent; shall furnish the applicant, prior to issuance or delivery of the individual long-term care insurance policy, a notice regarding replacement of accident and sickness or long-term care coverage. One copy of the notice shall be retained by the applicant and an additional copy signed by the applicant shall be retained by the insurer. The required notice shall be provided as shown in appendix I to this rule.
(4) Direct response solicitations. Insurers using direct response solicitation methods shall deliver a notice regarding replacement of accident and sickness or long-term care coverage to the applicant upon issuance of the policy. The required notice shall be provided as shown in appendix I to this rule.
(5) Where replacement is intended, the replacing insurer shall notify, in writing, the existing insurer of the proposed replacement. The existing policy shall be identified by the insurer, name of the insured and policy number or address including zip code. Notice shall be made within five working days from the date the application is received by the insurer or the date the policy is issued, whichever is sooner.
(6) Life insurance policies that accelerate benefits for long-term care shall comply with this paragraph if the policy being replaced is a long-term care insurance policy. If the policy being replaced is a life insurance policy, the insurer will comply with the replacement requirements of rule 3901-6-05 of the Administrative Code. If a life insurance policy that accelerates benefits for long-term care is replaced by another such policy, the replacing insurer will comply with both the long-term care and the life insurance replacement requirements.
(O) Reporting requirements
(1) Every insurer shall maintain records for each agent of that agent's amount of replacement sales as a per cent of the agent's total annual sales and the amount of lapses of long-term care insurance policies sold by the agent as a per cent of the agent's total annual sales.
(2) Every insurer shall report annually by June thirtieth the ten per cent of its agents with the greatest percentages of lapses and replacements as measured by paragraph (O)(1) of this rule (appendix G to this rule).
(3) Reported replacement and lapse rates do not alone constitute a violation of insurance laws or necessarily imply wrongdoing. The reports are for the purpose of reviewing more closely agent activities regarding the sale of long-term care insurance.
(4) Every insurer shall report annually by June thirtieth the number of lapsed policies as a per cent of its total annual sales and as a per cent of its total number of policies in force as of the end of the preceding calendar year (appendix G to this rule).
(5) Every insurer shall report annually by June thirtieth the number of replacement policies sold as a per cent of its total annual sales and as a per cent of its total number of policies in force as of the preceding calendar year (appendix G to this rule).
(6) Every insurer shall report annually by June thirtieth, for qualified long-term care insurance contracts, the number of claims denied for each class of business, expressed as a percentage of claims denied (appendix E to this rule).
(7) For purposes of this paragraph:
(a) "Policy" means only long-term care insurance;
(b) Subject to paragraph (O)(7)(c) of this rule, "claim" means a request for payment of benefits under an in force policy regardless of whether the benefit claimed is covered under the policy or any terms or conditions of the policy have been met;
(c) "Denied" means the insurer refused to pay a claim for any reason other than for claims not paid for failure to meet the waiting period or because of an applicable preexisting condition; and
(d) "Report" means on a statewide basis.
(8) Reports required under this paragraph are to be filed with the superintendent.
(P) Licensing
A producer is not authorized to sell, solicit or negotiate with respect to long-term care insurance except as authorized by Chapter 3905. of the Revised Code.
(Q) Discretionary powers of superintendent
The superintendent may upon written request and after an administrative hearing, issue an order to modify or suspend a specific provision or provisions of this regulation with respect to a specific long-term care insurance policy or certificate upon a written finding that:
(1) The modification or suspension would be in the best interest of the insureds;
(2) The purposes to be achieved could not be effectively or efficiently achieved without the modification or suspension; and
(3)
(a) The modification or suspension is necessary to the development of an innovative and reasonable approach for insuring long-term care; or
(b) The policy or certificate is to be issued to residents of a life care or continuing care retirement community or some other residential community for the elderly and the modification or suspension is reasonably related to the special needs or nature of such a community; or
(c) The modification or suspension is necessary to permit long-term care insurance to be sold as part of, or in conjunction with, another insurance product.
(R) Reserve standards
(1) When long-term care benefits are provided through the acceleration of benefits under group or individual life policies or riders to such policies, policy reserves for the benefits shall be determined in accordance with sections 3903.721 and 3903.728 of the Revised Code. Claim reserves shall also be established in the case when the policy or rider is in claim status.
Reserves for policies and riders subject to this paragraph should be based on the multiple decrement model utilizing all relevant decrements except for voluntary termination rates. Single decrement approximations are acceptable if the calculation produces essentially similar reserves, if the reserve is clearly more conservative, or if the reserve is immaterial. The calculations may take into account the reduction in life insurance benefits due to the payment of long-term care benefits. However, in no event shall the reserves for the long-term care benefit and the life insurance benefit be less than the reserves for the life insurance benefit assuming no long-term care benefit.
In the development and calculation of reserves for policies and riders subject to this paragraph, due regard shall be given to the applicable policy provisions, marketing methods, administrative procedures and all other considerations which have an impact on projected claim costs, including, but not limited to, the following;
(a) Definition of insured events;
(b) Covered long-term care facilities;
(c) Existence of home convalescence care coverage;
(d) Definition of facilities;
(e) Existence or absence of barriers to eligibility;
(f) Premium waiver provision;
(g) Renewability;
(h) Ability to raise premiums;
(i) Marketing method;
(j) Underwriting procedures;
(k) Claims adjustment procedures;
(l) Waiting period;
(m) Maximum benefit;
(n) Availability of eligible facilities;
(o) Margins in claim costs;
(p) Optional nature of benefit;
(q) Delay in eligibility for benefit;
(r) Inflation protection provisions; and
(s) Guaranteed insurability option.
Any applicable valuation morbidity table shall be certified as appropriate as a statutory valuation table by a member of the american academy of actuaries.
(2) When long-term care benefits are provided other than as in paragraph (R)(1) of this rule, reserves are determined in accordance with rule 3901-3-13 of the Administrative Code.
(S) Loss ratio
(1) This paragraph applies to all long-term care insurance policies or certificates except those covered under paragraphs (J) and (T) of this rule.
(2) Benefits under long-term care insurance policies are deemed reasonable in relation to premiums provided the expected loss ratio is at least sixty per cent, calculated in a manner which provides for adequate reserving of the long-term care insurance risk. In evaluating the expected loss ratio, due consideration will be given to all relevant factors, including:
(a) Statistical credibility of incurred claims experience and earned premiums;
(b) The period for which rates are computed to provide coverage;
(c) Experienced and projected trends;
(d) Concentration of experience within early policy duration;
(e) Expected claim fluctuation;
(f) Experience refunds, adjustments or dividends;
(g) Renewability features;
(h) All appropriate expense factors;
(i) Interest;
(j) Experimental nature of the coverage;
(k) Policy reserves;
(l) Mix of business by risk classification; and
(m) Product features such as long elimination periods, high deductibles and high maximum limits.
(3) Paragraph (S)(2) of this rule does not apply to life insurance policies that accelerate benefits for long-term care. A life insurance policy that funds long-term care benefits entirely by accelerating the death benefit is considered to provide reasonable benefits in relation to premiums paid, if the policy complies with all of the following provisions:
(a) The interest credited internally to determine cash value accumulations, including long-term care, if any, are guaranteed not to be less than the minimum guaranteed interest rate for cash value accumulations without long-term care set forth in the policy;
(b) The portion of the policy that provides life insurance benefits meets the nonforfeiture requirements of sections 3915.071 and 3915.072 of the Revised Code;
(c) The policy meets the disclosure requirements of divisions (K), (L), and (M) of section 3923.44 of the Revised Code.
(d) Any policy illustration that meets the applicable requirements of the rule 3901-6-04 of the Administrative Code; and
(e) An actuarial memorandum is filed with the insurance department that includes:
(i) A description of the basis on which the long-term care rates were determined;
(ii) A description of the basis for the reserves;
(iii) A summary of the type of policy, benefits, renewability, general marketing method, and limits on ages of issuance;
(iv) A description and a table of each actuarial assumption used. For expenses, an insurer must include per cent of premium dollars per policy and dollars per unit of benefits, if any;
(v) A description and a table of the anticipated policy reserves and additional reserves to be held in each future year for active lives;
(vi) The estimated average annual premium per policy and the average issue age;
(vii) A statement as to whether underwriting is performed at the time of application. The statement indicates whether underwriting is used and, if used, the statement includes a description of the type or types of underwriting used, such as medical underwriting or functional assessment underwriting. Concerning a group policy, the statement indicates whether the enrollee or any dependent will be underwritten and when underwriting occurs; and
(viii) A description of the effect of the long-term care policy provision on the required premiums, nonforfeiture values and reserves on the underlying life insurance policy, both for active lives and those in long-term care claim status.
(T) Premium rate schedule increases
(1) This paragraph applies as follows:
(a) Except as provided in paragraph (T)(1)(b) of this rule, this paragraph applies to any long-term care policy or certificate issued in this state on or after one hundred eighty days after the effective date of this rule.
(b) For certificates issued on or after the effective date of this amended rule under a group long-term care insurance policy as defined in division (D) of section 3923.41 of the Revised Code, which policy was in force at the time this amended rule became effective, the provisions of this paragraph apply on the policy anniversary following three hundred sixty-five days after the effective date of this rule.
(2) An insurer shall provide notice of a pending premium rate schedule increase for a group long-term care policy, including an exceptional increase, to the superintendent at least thirty days prior to the notice to the policyholders. An insurer shall request approval of a pending premium rate schedule increase for an individual long-term care policy, including an exceptional increase, from the superintendent at least thirty days prior to the notice to the policyholders. The notice or request for approval includes:
(a) Information required by paragraph (I) of this rule;
(b) Certification by a qualified actuary that:
(i) If the requested premium rate schedule increase is implemented and the underlying assumptions, which reflect moderately adverse conditions, are realized, no further premium rate schedule increases are anticipated;
(ii) The premium rate filing is in compliance with the provisions of this paragraph;
(c) An actuarial memorandum justifying the rate schedule change request that includes:
(i) Lifetime projections of earned premiums and incurred claims based on the filed premium rate schedule increase; and the method and assumptions used in determining the projected values, including reflection of any assumptions that deviate from those used for pricing other forms currently available for sale;
(a) Annual values for each year preceding and following the valuation date shall be provided;
(b) The projections shall include the development of the lifetime loss ratio, unless the rate increase is an exceptional increase;
(c) The projections shall demonstrate compliance with paragraph (T)(3) of this rule; and
(d) For exceptional increases,
(i) The projected experience should be limited to the increases in claims expenses attributable to the approved reasons for the exceptional increase; and
(ii) In the event the superintendent determines as provided in paragraph (D)(2)(d) of this rule that offsets may exist, the insurer shall use appropriate net projected experience;
(ii) Disclosure of how reserves have been incorporated in this rate increase whenever the rate increase will trigger contingent benefit upon lapse;
(iii) Disclosure of the analysis performed to determine why a rate adjustment is necessary, which pricing assumptions were not realized and why, and what other actions taken by the company have been relied on by the actuary;
(iv) A statement that policy design, underwriting and claims adjudication practices have been taken into consideration; and
(v) In the event that it is necessary to maintain consistent premium rates for new certificates and certificates receiving a rate increase, the insurer will need to file composite rates reflecting projections of new certificates;
(d) A statement that renewal premium rate schedules are not greater than new business premium rate schedules except for differences attributable to benefits, unless sufficient justification is provided to the superintendent; and
(e) Sufficient information for review and approval of the premium rate schedule increase by the superintendent.
(3) All premium rate schedule increases shall be determined in accordance with the following requirements:
(a) Exceptional increases shall provide that seventy per cent of the present value of projected additional premiums from the exceptional increase will be returned to policyholders in benefits;
(b) Premium rate schedule increases are calculated such that the sum of the accumulated value of incurred claims, without the inclusion of active life reserves, and the present value of future projected incurred claims, without the inclusion of active life reserves, will not be less than the sum of the following:
(i) The accumulated value of the initial earned premium times fifty-eight per cent;
(ii) Eighty-five per cent of the accumulated value of prior premium rate schedule increases on an earned basis;
(iii) The present value of future projected initial earned premiums times fifty-eight per cent; and
(iv) Eighty-five per cent of the present value of future projected premiums not in paragraph (T)(3)(c) of this rule on an earned basis;
(c) In the event that a policy form has both exceptional and other increases, the values in paragraphs (T)(3)(b)(ii) and (T)(3)(b)(iv) of this rule will also include seventy per cent for exceptional rate increase amounts; and
(d) All present and accumulated values used to determine rate increases shall use the maximum valuation interest rate for contract reserves as specified in rule 3901-3-13 of the Administrative Code. The actuary shall disclose as part of the actuarial memorandum the use of any appropriate averages.
(4) For each rate increase that is implemented, the insurer will file with the superintendent updated projections, as defined in paragraph (T)(2)(c)(i) of this rule, annually for the next three years and include a comparison of actual results to projected values. The superintendent may extend the period to greater than three years if actual results are not consistent with projected values from prior projections. For group insurance policies that meet the conditions in paragraph (T)(11) of this rule, the projections required by this paragraph shall be provided to the policyholder in lieu of filing with the superintendent.
(5) If any premium rate in the revised premium rate schedule is greater than two hundred per cent of the comparable rate in the initial premium schedule, lifetime projections, as defined in paragraph (T)(2)(c)(i) of this rule, will be filed with the superintendent every five years following the end of the required period in paragraph (T)(4) of this rule.
(6)
(a) If the superintendent has determined that the actual experience following a rate increase does not adequately match the projected experience and that the current projections under moderately adverse conditions demonstrate that incurred claims will not exceed proportions of premiums specified in paragraph (T)(3) of this rule, the superintendent may require the insurer to implement any of the following:
(i) Premium rate schedule adjustments; or
(ii) Other measures to reduce the difference between the projected and actual experience.
(b) In determining whether the actual experience adequately matches the projected experience, consideration should be given to paragraph (T)(2)(c)(v) of this rule, if applicable.
(7) If the majority of the policies or certificates to which the increase is applicable are eligible for the contingent benefit upon lapse, the insurer shall file:
(a) A plan, subject to superintendent approval, for improved administration or claims processing designed to eliminate the potential for further deterioration of the policy form requiring further premium rate schedule increases, or both, or to demonstrate that appropriate administration and claims processing have been implemented or are in effect; otherwise, the superintendent may impose the condition in paragraph (T)(8) of this rule; and
(b) The original anticipated lifetime loss ratio, and the premium rate schedule increase that would have been calculated according to paragraph (T)(3) of this rule had the greater of the original anticipated lifetime loss ratio or fifty-eight per cent been used in the calculations described in paragraphs (T)(3)(a) and (T)(3)(c) of this rule.
(8)
(a) For a rate increase filing that meets the following criteria, the superintendent shall review, for all policies included in the filing, the projected lapse rates and past lapse rates during the twelve months following each increase to determine if significant adverse lapsation has occurred or is anticipated:
(i) The rate increase is not the first rate increase requested for the specific policy form or forms;
(ii) The rate increase is not an exceptional increase; and
(iii) The majority of the policies or certificates to which the increase is applicable are eligible for the contingent benefit upon lapse.
(b) In the event significant adverse lapsation has occurred, is anticipated in the filing, or is evidenced in the actual results as presented in the updated projections provided by the insurer following the requested rate increase, the superintendent may determine that a rate spiral exists. Following the determination that a rate spiral exists, the superintendent may require the insurer to offer, without underwriting, to all in force insureds subject to the rate increase the option to replace existing coverage with one or more reasonably comparable products being offered by the insurer or its affiliates.
(i) The offer shall:
(a) Be subject to the approval of the superintendent;
(b) Be based on actuarially sound principles, but not be based on attained age; and
(c) Provide that maximum benefits under any new policy accepted by an insured shall be reduced by comparable benefits already paid under the existing policy.
(ii) The insurer shall maintain the experience of all the replacement insureds separate from the experience of insureds originally issued the policy forms. In the event of a request for a rate increase on the policy form, the rate increase is limited to the lesser of:
(a) The maximum rate increase determined based on the combined experience; and
(b) The maximum rate increase determined based only on the experience of the insureds originally issued the form plus ten per cent.
(9) If the superintendent determines that the insurer has exhibited a persistent practice of filing inadequate initial premium rates for long-term care insurance, the superintendent may, in addition to the provisions of paragraph (T)(8) of this rule, prohibit the insurer from either of the following:
(a) Filing and marketing comparable coverage for a period of up to five years; or
(b) Offering all other similar coverages and limiting marketing of new applications to the products subject to recent premium rate schedule increases.
(10) Paragraphs (T)(1) to (T)(9) of this rule do not apply to policies for which the long-term care benefits provided by the policy are incidental, as defined in paragraph (D)(3) of this rule, if the policy complies with all of the following provisions:
(a) The interest credited internally to determine cash value accumulations, including long-term care, if any, are guaranteed not to be less than the minimum guaranteed interest rate for cash value accumulations without long-term care set forth in the policy;
(b) The portion of the policy that provides insurance benefits other than long-term care coverage meets the nonforfeiture requirements as applicable in any of the following:
(i) Sections 3915.071 and 3915.072 of the Revised Code, and
(ii) Section 3915.073 of the Revised Code;
(c) The policy meets the disclosure requirements of divisions (K), (L), and (M) of section 3923.44 of the Revised Code;
(d) The portion of the policy that provides insurance benefits other than long-term care coverage meets the requirements as applicable in the following:
(i) Policy illustrations as required by rule 3901-6-04 of the Administrative Code;
(e) An actuarial memorandum is filed with the insurance department that includes:
(i) A description of the basis on which the long-term care rates were determined;
(ii) A description of the basis for the reserves;
(iii) A summary of the type of policy, benefits, renewability, general marketing method, and limits on ages of issuance;
(iv) A description and a table of each actuarial assumption used. For expenses, an insurer must include per cent of premium dollars per policy and dollars per unit of benefits, if any;
(v) A description and a table of the anticipated policy reserves and additional reserves to be held in each future year for active lives;
(vi) The estimated average annual premium per policy and the average issue age;
(vii) A statement as to whether underwriting is performed at the time of application. The statement shall indicate whether underwriting is used and, if used, the statement shall include a description of the type or types of underwriting used, such as medical underwriting or functional assessment underwriting. Concerning a group policy, the statement shall indicate whether the enrollee or any dependent will be underwritten and when underwriting occurs; and
(viii) A description of the effect of the long-term care policy provision on the required premiums, nonforfeiture values and reserves on the underlying insurance policy, both for active lives and those in long-term care claim status.
(11) Paragraphs (T)(6) and (T)(8) of this rule do not apply to group insurance policies as defined in division (D) of section 3923.41 of the Revised Code, which are issued to an employer, labor organization or trust established by one or more employers or labor organizations or a combination thereof where:
(a) The policies insure two hundred fifty or more persons, and the policyholder has five thousand or more eligible employees of a single employer; or
(b) The policyholder, and not the certificateholders, pays a material portion of the premium, which shall not be less than twenty per cent of the total premium for the group in the calendar year prior to the year a rate increase is filed.
(U) Filing requirements for advertising
(1) Every insurer, health care service plan or other entity providing long-term care insurance or benefits in this state shall provide a copy of any long-term care insurance advertisement intended for use in this state whether through written, radio or television medium to the superintendent of insurance of this state for review or approval by the superintendent to the extent it may be required under state law. In addition, all advertisements shall be retained by the insurer, health care service plan or other entity for at least three years from the date the advertisement was first used.
(2) The superintendent may exempt from these requirements any advertising form or material when, in the superintendent's opinion, this requirement may not be reasonably applied.
(V) Standards for marketing
(1) Every insurer, health care service plan or other entity marketing long-term care insurance coverage in this state, directly or through its producers, shall:
(a) Establish marketing procedures and agent training requirements to assure that:
(i) Any marketing activities, including any comparison of policies, by its agents or other producers will be fair and accurate; and
(ii) Excessive insurance is not sold or issued.
(b) Display prominently by type, stamp or other appropriate means, on the first page of the outline of coverage and policy the following:
"Notice to buyer: This policy may not cover all of the costs associated with long-term care incurred by the buyer during the period of coverage. The buyer is advised to review carefully all policy limitations."
(c) Provide copies of the disclosure forms required in paragraph (I)(3) of this rule (appendices B and F to this rule) to the applicant.
(d) Inquire and otherwise make every reasonable effort to identify whether a prospective applicant or enrollee for long-term care insurance already has accident and sickness or long-term care insurance and the types and amounts of any such insurance, except that in the case of qualified long-term care insurance contracts, an inquiry into whether a prospective applicant or enrollee for long-term care insurance has accident and sickness insurance is not required.
(e) Every insurer or entity marketing long-term care insurance shall establish auditable procedures for verifying compliance with paragraph (V)(1) of this rule.
(f) If the state in which the policy or certificate is to be delivered or issued for delivery has a senior insurance counseling program approved by the superintendent, the insurer shall, at solicitation, provide written notice to the prospective policyholder and certificateholder that the program is available and the name, address, and telephone number of the program.
(g) For long-term care health insurance policies and certificates, use the terms "noncancellable" or "level premium" only when the policy or certificate conforms to paragraph (F)(1)(c) of this rule.
(h) Provide an explanation of contingent benefit upon lapse provided for in paragraph (AA)(4)(c) of this rule and, if applicable, the additional contingent benefit upon lapse provided to policies with fixed or limited premium paying periods in paragraph (AA)(4)(d) of this rule.
(2) In addition to the practices prohibited in sections 3901.20 and 3901.21 of the Revised Code, the following acts and practices are prohibited:
(a) Twisting. Knowingly making any misleading representation or incomplete or fraudulent comparison of any insurance policies or insurers for the purpose of inducing, or tending to induce, any person to lapse, forfeit, surrender, terminate, retain, pledge, assign, borrow on or convert any insurance policy or to take out a policy of insurance with another insurer.
(b) High pressure tactics. Employing any method of marketing having the effect of or tending to induce the purchase of insurance through force, fright, threat, whether explicit or implied, or undue pressure to purchase or recommend the purchase of insurance.
(c) Cold lead advertising. Making use directly or indirectly of any method of marketing which fails to disclose in a conspicuous manner that a purpose of the method of marketing is solicitation of insurance and that contact will be made by an insurance agent or insurance company.
(d) Misrepresentation. Misrepresenting a material fact in selling or offering to sell a long-term care insurance policy.
(3)
(a) With respect to the obligations set forth in this paragraph, the primary responsibility of an association, as defined in paragraph (D)(1) of this rule, when endorsing or selling long-term care insurance is to educate its members concerning long-term care issues in general so that its members can make informed decisions. Associations shall provide objective information regarding long-term care insurance policies or certificates endorsed or sold by such associations to ensure that members of such associations receive a balanced and complete explanation of the features in the policies or certificates that are being endorsed or sold.
(b) The insurer shall file with the insurance department the following material:
(i) The policy and certificate,
(ii) A corresponding outline of coverage, and
(iii) All advertisements requested by the insurance department.
(c) The association shall disclose in any long-term care insurance solicitation:
(i) The specific nature and amount of the compensation arrangements (including all fees, commissions, administrative fees and other forms of financial support) that the association receives from endorsement or sale of the policy or certificate to its members; and
(ii) A brief description of the process under which the policies and the insurer issuing the policies were selected.
(d) If the association and the insurer have interlocking directorates or trustee arrangements, the association will disclose that fact to its members.
(e) The board of directors of associations selling or endorsing long-term care insurance policies or certificates shall review and approve the insurance policies as well as the compensation arrangements made with the insurer.
(f) The association shall also:
(i) At the time of the association's decision to endorse, engage the services of a person with expertise in long-term care insurance not affiliated with the insurer to conduct an examination of the policies, including its benefits, features, and rates and update the examination thereafter in the event of material change;
(ii) Actively monitor the marketing efforts of the insurer and its agents; and
(iii) Review and approve all marketing materials or other insurance communications used to promote sales or sent to members regarding the policies or certificates.
(iv) Paragraphs (V)(3)(f)(i) to (V)(3)(f)(iii) of this rule shall not apply to qualified long-term care insurance contracts.
(g) No group long-term care insurance policy or certificate may be issued to an association unless the insurer files with the state insurance department the information required in this paragraph.
(h) The insurer shall not issue a long-term care policy or certificate to an association or continue to market such a policy or certificate unless the insurer certifies annually that the association has complied with the requirements set forth in this paragraph.
(i) Failure to comply with the filing and certification requirements of this paragraph constitutes an unfair trade practice.
(W) Suitability
(1) This paragraph does not apply to life insurance policies that accelerate benefits for long-term care.
(2) Every insurer, health care service plan or other entity marketing long-term care insurance (the "issuer") shall:
(a) Develop and use suitability standards to determine whether the purchase or replacement of long-term care insurance is appropriate for the needs of the applicant;
(b) Train its agents in the use of its suitability standards; and
(c) Maintain a copy of its suitability standards and make them available for inspection upon request by the superintendent.
(3)
(a) To determine whether the applicant meets the standards developed by the issuer, the agent and issuer shall develop procedures that take the following into consideration:
(i) The ability to pay for the proposed coverage and other pertinent financial information related to the purchase of the coverage;
(ii) The applicant's goals or needs with respect to long-term care and the advantages and disadvantages of insurance to meet these goals or needs; and
(iii) The values, benefits, and costs of the applicant's existing insurance, if any, when compared to the values, benefits and costs of the recommended purchase or replacement.
(b) The issuer, and where an agent is involved, the agent shall make reasonable efforts to obtain the information set out in paragraph (W)(3)(a) of this rule. The efforts shall include presentation to the applicant, at or prior to application, the "Long-Term Care Insurance Personal Worksheet." The personal worksheet used by the issuer shall contain, at a minimum, the information in the format contained in appendix B to this rule, in not less than twelve point type. The issuer may request the applicant to provide additional information to comply with its suitability standards. A copy of the issuer's personal worksheet shall be filed with the superintendent.
(c) A completed personal worksheet shall be returned to the issuer prior to the issuer's consideration of the applicant for coverage, except the personal worksheet need not be returned for sales of employer group long-term care insurance to employees and their spouses.
(d) The sale or dissemination outside the company or agency by the issuer or agent of information obtained through the personal worksheet in appendix B to this rule is prohibited.
(4) The issuer shall use the suitability standards it has developed pursuant to this paragraph in determining whether issuing long-term care insurance coverage to an applicant is appropriate.
(5) Agents shall use the suitability standards developed by the issuer in marketing long-term care insurance.
(6) At the same time as the personal worksheet is provided to the applicant, the disclosure form entitled "Things You Should Know Before You Buy Long-Term Care Insurance" shall be provided. The form shall be in the format contained in appendix C to this rule, in not less than twelve point type.
(7) If the issuer determines that the applicant does not meet its financial suitability standards, or if the applicant has declined to provide the information, the issuer may reject the application. In the alternative, the issuer shall send the applicant a letter similar to appendix D to this rule. However, if the applicant has declined to provide financial information, the issuer may use some other method to verify the applicant's intent. Either the applicant's returned letter or a record of the alternative method of verification shall be made part of the applicant's file.
(8) The issuer shall report annually to the superintendent the total number of applications received from residents of this state, the number of those who declined to provide information on the personal worksheet, the number of applicants who did not meet the suitability standards and the number of those who chose to confirm after receiving a suitability letter.
(X) Prohibition against preexisting conditions and probationary periods in replacement policies or certificates
If a long-term care insurance policy or certificate replaces another long-term care policy or certificate, the replacing insurer shall waive any time periods applicable to preexisting conditions and probationary periods in the new long-term care policy for similar benefits to the extent that similar exclusions have been satisfied under the original policy.
(Y) Availability of new services or providers
(1) An insurer shall notify policyholders of the availability of a new long-term care policy series that providers coverage of new long-term care services or providers material in nature and not previously available through the insurer to the general public. The notice shall be provided within three hundred sixty-five days of the date the new policy series is made available for sale in this state.
(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (Y)(1) of this rule, notification is not required for any policy issued prior to the effective date of this rule or to any policyholder or certificateholder who is currently eligible for benefits, within an elimination period or on a claim, or who previously has been in claim status, or who would not be eligible to apply for coverage due to issue age limitations under the new policy. The insurer may require that policyholders meet all eligibility requirements, including underwriting and payment of the required premium to add such new services or providers.
(3) The insurer shall make the new coverage available in one of the following ways:
(a) By adding a rider to the existing policy and charging a separate premium for the new rider based on the insured's attained age;
(b) By exchanging the existing policy or certificate for one with an issue age based on the present age of the insured and recognizing past insured status by granting premium credits toward the premiums for the new policy or certificate. The premium credits shall be based on premiums paid or reserves held for the prior policy or certificate;
(c) By exchanging the existing policy or certificate for a new policy or certificate in which consideration for past insured status shall be recognized by setting the premium for the new policy or certificate at the issue age of the policy or certificate being exchanged. The cost for the new policy or certificate may recognize the difference in reserves between the new policy or certificate and the original policy or certificate; or
(d) By an alternative program developed by the insurer that meets the intent of paragraph (Y) of this rule if the program is filed with and approved by the superintendent.
(4) An insurer is not required to notify policyholders of a new proprietary policy series created and filed for use in a limited distribution channel. For purposes of this paragraph, "limited distribution channel" means through a discrete entity, such as a financial institution or brokerage, for which specialized products are available that are not available for sale to the general public. Policyholders that purchased such a proprietary policy shall be notified when a new long-term care policy series that provides coverage for new long-term care services or providers material in nature is made available to that limited distribution channel.
(5) Policies issued pursuant to this paragraph are considered exchanges and not replacements. These exchanges are not subject to paragraphs (N) and (W) of this rule, and the reporting requirements of paragraphs (O)(1) to (O)(5) of this rule.
(6) Where the policy is offered through an employer, labor organization, professional, trade or occupational association, the required notification in paragraph (Y)(1) of this rule shall be made to the offering entity. However, if the policy is issued to a group defined in division (D)(4) of section 3923.41 of the Revised Code, the notification shall be made to each certificateholder.
(7) Nothing in this paragraph shall prohibit an insurer from offering any policy, rider, certificate or coverage change to any policyholder or certificateholder. However, upon request any policyholder may apply for currently available coverage that includes the new services or providers. The insurer may require that policyholders meet all eligibility requirements, including underwriting and payment of the required premium to add such new services or providers.
(8) Paragraph (Y) of this rule does not apply to life insurance policies or riders containing accelerated long-term care benefits.
(9) Paragraph (Y) of this rule becomes effective on or after three hundred sixty-five days after the effective date of this rule.
(Z) Right to reduce coverage and lower premiums
(1)
(a) Every long-term care insurance policy and certificate shall include a provision that allows the policyholder or certificateholder to reduce coverage and lower the policy or certificate premium in at least one of the following ways;
(i) Reducing the maximum benefit; or
(ii) Reducing the daily, weekly, or monthly benefit amount.
(b) The insurer may also offer other reduction options that are consistent with the policy or certificate design or the carrier's administrative processes. An example of a policy design would be a partnership policy which maintains its partnership status by containing certain features as required by state or federal law.
(2) The provision shall include a description of the ways in which coverage may be reduced and the process for requesting and implementing a reduction in coverage.
(3) The age to determine the premium for the reduced coverage is based on the age used to determine the premiums for the coverage currently in force.
(4) The insurer may limit any reduction in coverage to plans or options available for that policy form and to those for which benefits will be available after consideration of claims paid or payable.
(5) If a policy or certificate is about to lapse, the insurer will provide a written reminder to the policyholder or certificateholder of his or her right to reduce coverage and premiums in the notice required by paragraph (G)(1)(c) of this rule.
(6) Paragraph (Z) of this rule does not apply to life insurance policies or riders containing accelerated long-term care benefits.
(7) The requirements of paragraph (Z) of this rule apply to any long-term care policy issued in this state on or after three hundred sixty-five days after the effective date of this rule.
(AA) Nonforfeiture benefit requirement
(1) This paragraph does not apply to life insurance policies or riders containing accelerated long-term care benefits.
(2) A nonforfeiture benefit shall be offered that complies with the following:
(a) A policy or certificate offered with nonforfeiture benefits shall have coverage elements, eligibility, benefit triggers and benefit length that are the same as coverage to be issued without nonforfeiture benefits. The nonforfeiture benefit included in the offer is the benefit described in paragraph (AA)(5) of this rule; and
(b) The offer shall be in writing if the nonforfeiture benefit is not otherwise described in the outline of coverage or other materials given to the prospective policyholder.
(3) If the offer is rejected, the insurer shall provide the contingent benefit upon lapse described in this paragraph. Even if this offer is accepted for a policy with a fixed or limited premium paying period, the contingent benefit upon lapse in paragraph (AA)(4)(d) of this rule still applies.
(4)
(a) After rejection of the offer, for individual and group policies without nonforfeiture benefits issued after the effective date of this paragraph, the insurer shall provide a contingent benefit upon lapse.
(b) In the event a group policyholder elects to make the nonforfeiture benefit an option to the certificateholder, a certificate shall provide either the nonforfeiture benefit or the contingent benefit upon lapse.
(c) A contingent benefit upon lapse shall be triggered every time an insurer increases the premium rates to a level which results in a cumulative increase of the annual premium equal to or exceeding the percentage of the insured's initial annual premium set forth below stated on the insured's issue age, and the policy or certificate lapses within one hundred twenty days of the due date of the premium so increased. Unless otherwise required, policyholders shall be notified at least thirty days prior to the due date of the premium reflecting the rate increase.
| Triggers for a substantial premium increase | | | --- | --- | | | Per cent increase over initial premium | | Issue age | | | 29 and under | 200% | | 30-34 | 190% | | 35-39 | 170% | | 40-44 | 150% | | 45-49 | 130% | | 50-54 | 110% | | 55-59 | 90% | | 60 | 70% | | 61 | 66% | | 62 | 62% | | 63 | 58% | | 64 | 54% | | 65 | 50% | | 66 | 48% | | 67 | 46% | | 68 | 44% | | 69 | 42% | | 70 | 40% | | 71 | 38% | | 72 | 36% | | 73 | 34% | | 74 | 32% | | 75 | 30% | | 76 | 28% | | 77 | 26% | | 78 | 24% | | 79 | 22% | | 80 | 20% | | 81 | 19% | | 82 | 18% | | 83 | 17% | | 84 | 16% | | 85 | 15% | | 86 | 14% | | 87 | 13% | | 88 | 12% | | 89 | 11% | | 90 and over | 10% |
(d) A contingent benefit upon lapse shall also be triggered for policies with a fixed or limited premium paying period every time an insurer increases the premium rates to a level that results in a cumulative increase of the annual premium equal to or exceeding the percentage of the insured's initial annual premium set forth below based on the insured's issue age, the policy or certificate lapses within one hundred twenty days of the due date of the premium so increased, and the ratio in paragraph (AA)(4)(f)(ii) of this rule is forty per cent or more. Unless otherwise required, policyholders shall be notified at least thirty days prior to the due date of the premium reflecting the rate increase.
Triggers for a Substantial Premium Increase
| Issue Age | Per cent Increase Over Initial Premium | | --- | --- | | Under 65 | 50% | | 65-80 | 30% | | Over 80 | 10% |
This provision is in addition to the contingent benefit provided by paragraph (AA)(4)(c) of this rule and where both are triggered, the benefit provided is at the option of the insured.
(e) On or before the effective date of a substantial premium increase as defined in paragraph (AA)(4)(c) of this rule, the insurer shall:
(i) Offer to reduce policy benefits provided by the current coverage without the requirement of additional underwriting so that required premium payments are not increased;
(ii) Offer to convert the coverage to a paid-up status with a shortened benefit period in accordance with the terms of paragraph (AA)(5) of this rule. This option may be elected at any time during the one hundred twenty-day period referenced in paragraph (AA)(4)(c) of this rule; and
(iii) Notify the policyholder or certificateholder that a default or lapse at any time during the one hundred twenty-day period referenced in paragraph (AA)(4)(c) of this rule shall be deemed to be the election of the offer to convert in paragraph (AA)(4)(e)(ii) of this rule unless the automatic option in paragraph (AA)(4)(f)(iii) of this rule applies.
(f) On or before the effective date of a substantial premium increase as defined in paragraph (AA)(4)(d) of this rule, the insurer shall:
(i) Offer to reduce policy benefits provided by the current coverage without the requirement of additional underwriting so that required premium payments are not increased;
(ii) Offer to convert the coverage to a paid-up status where the amount payable for each benefit is ninety per cent of the amount payable in effect immediately prior to lapse times the ratio of the number of completed months of paid premiums divided by the number of months in the premium paying period. This option may be elected at any time during the one hundred twenty-day period referenced in paragraph (AA)(4)(d) of this rule; and
(iii) Notify the policyholder or certificateholder that a default or lapse at any time during the one hundred twenty-day period referenced in paragraph (AA)(4)(d) of this rule shall be deemed to be the election of the offer to convert in paragraph (AA)(4)(f)(ii) of this rule if the ratio is forty per cent or more.
(5) Benefits continued as nonforfeiture benefits, including contingent benefits upon lapse in accordance with paragraph (AA)(4)(c) but not paragraph (AA)(4)(d) of this rule, are described in this paragraph:
(a) For purposes of paragraph (AA)(5)(a) of this rule, attained age rating is defined as a schedule of premiums starting from the issue date which increases with age at least one per cent per year prior to age fifty, and at least three per cent per year beyond age fifty.
(b) For purposes of this paragraph, the nonforfeiture benefit is a shortened benefit period providing paid-up long-term care insurance coverage after lapse. The same benefits (amounts and frequency in effect at the time of lapse but not increased thereafter) will be payable for a qualifying claim, but the lifetime maximum dollars or days of benefits are determined as specified in paragraph (AA)(5)(c) of this rule.
(c) The standard nonforfeiture credit will be equal to one hundred per cent of the sum of all premiums paid, including the premiums paid prior to any changes in benefits. The insurer may offer additional shortened benefit period options, as long as the benefits for each duration equal or exceed the standard nonforfeiture credit for that duration. However, the minimum nonforfeiture credit shall not be less than thirty times the daily nursing home benefit at the time of lapse. In either event, the calculation of the nonforfeiture credit is subject to the limitation of paragraph (AA)(6) of this rule.
(d)
(i) The nonforfeiture benefit shall begin not later than the end of the third year following the policy or certificate issue date. The contingent benefit upon lapse shall be effective during the first three years as well as thereafter.
(ii) Notwithstanding paragraph (AA)(5)(d)(i) of this rule, for a policy or certificate with attained age rating, the nonforfeiture benefit shall begin on the earlier of:
(a) The end of the tenth year following the policy or certificate issue date; or
(b) The end of the second year following the date the policy or certificate is no longer subject to attained age rating.
(e) Nonforfeiture credits may be used for all care and services qualifying for benefits under the terms of the policy or certificate, up to the limits specified in the policy or certificate.
(6) All benefits paid by the insurer while the policy or certificate is in premium paying status and in the paid up status will not exceed the maximum benefits which would be payable if the policy or certificate had remained in premium paying status.
(7) There shall be no difference in the minimum nonforfeiture benefits as required under this paragraph for group and individual policies.
(8) The requirements set forth in this paragraph become effective three hundred sixty-five days after the effective date of this provision and shall apply as follows:
(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (AA)(8)(b) and (AA)(8)(c) of this rule, the provisions of paragraph (AA) of this rule apply to any long-term care policy issued in this state on or after the effective date of this rule.
(b) For certificates issued on or after the effective date of paragraph (AA) of this rule, under a group long-term care insurance policy as defined in division (D) of section 3923.41 of the Revised Code, which policy was in force at the time this amended rule becomes effective, the provisions of paragraph (AA) of this rule do not apply.
(c) The last sentence in paragraph (AA)(3) and paragraphs (AA)(4)(d) and (AA)(4)(f) of this rule applies to any long-term care insurance policy or certificate issued in this state after one hundred eighty days after the effective date of this rule adopting those provisions, except new certificates on a group policy as defined in division (D)(1) of section 3923.41 of the Revised Code, three hundred sixty-five days after the effective date of this rule adopting those provisions.
(9) Premiums charged for a policy or certificate containing nonforfeiture benefits or a contingent benefit upon lapse are subject to the loss ratio requirements of paragraph (S) or (T) of this rule, whichever is applicable, treating the policy as a whole.
(10) To determine whether contingent nonforfeiture upon lapse provisions are triggered under paragraph (AA)(4)(c) or (AA)(4)(d) of this rule, a replacing insurer that purchased or otherwise assumed a block or blocks of long-term care insurance policies from another insurer shall calculate the percentage increase based on the initial annual premium paid by the insured when the policy was first purchased from the original insurer.
(11) A nonforfeiture benefit for qualified long-term care insurance contracts that are level premium contracts shall be offered that meets the following requirements:
(a) The nonforfeiture provision is appropriately captioned;
(b) The nonforfeiture provision provides a benefit available in the event of a default in the payment of any premiums and shall state that the amount of the benefit may be adjusted subsequent to being initially granted only as necessary to reflect changes in claims, persistency and interest as reflected in changes in rates for premium paying contracts approved by the superintendent for the same contract form; and
(c) The nonforfeiture provision shall provide at least one of the following:
(i) Reduced paid-up insurance;
(ii) Extended term insurance;
(iii) Shortened benefit period; or
(iv) Other similar offerings approved by the superintendent.
(BB) Standards for benefit triggers
(1) A long-term care insurance policy shall condition the payment of benefits on a determination of the insured's ability to perform activities of daily living and on cognitive impairment. Eligibility for the payment of benefits shall not be more restrictive than requiring either a deficiency in the ability to perform not more than three of the activities of daily living or the presence of cognitive impairment.
(2)
(a) Activities of daily living shall include at least the following as defined in paragraph (E) of this rule and in the policy:
(i) Bathing;
(ii) Continence;
(iii) Dressing;
(iv) Eating;
(v) Toileting; and
(vi) Transferring;
(b) Insurers may use activities of daily living to trigger covered benefits in addition to those contained in paragraph (BB)(2)(a) of this rule as long as they are defined in the policy.
(3) An insurer may use additional provisions for the determination of when benefits are payable under a policy or certificate; however the provisions shall not restrict, and are not in lieu of, the requirements contained in paragraphs (BB)(1) and (BB)(2) of this rule.
(4) For purposes of this paragraph the determination of a deficiency shall not be more restrictive than:
(a) Requiring the hands-on assistance of another person to perform the prescribed activities of daily living; or
(b) If the deficiency is due to the presence of a cognitive impairment, supervision or verbal cueing by another person is needed in order to protect the insured or others.
(5) Assessments of activities of daily living and cognitive impairment shall be performed by licensed or certified professionals, such as physicians, nurses, or social workers.
(6) Long-term care insurance policies shall include a clear description of the process for appealing and resolving benefit determinations.
(7) The requirements set forth in this paragraph shall be effective three hundred sixty-five days after the effective date of this provision and applies as follows:
(a) Except as provided in paragraph (BB)(7)(b) of this rule, the provisions of this paragraph apply to a long-term care policy issued in this state on or after the effective date of this amended rule.
(b) For certificates issued on or after the effective date of paragraph (BB)(7) of this rule, under a group long-term care insurance policy as defined in division (D) of section 3923.41 of the Revised Code that was in force at the time this amended rule became effective, the provisions of this paragraph do not apply.
(CC) Additional standards for benefit triggers for qualified long-term care insurance contracts.
(1) For purposes of this paragraph the following definitions apply:
(a) "Qualified long-term care services" means services that meet the requirements of section 7702B(c)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended, as follows: necessary diagnostic, preventive, therapeutic, curative, treatment, mitigation and rehabilitative services, and maintenance or personal care services which are required by a chronically ill individual, and are provided pursuant to a plan of care prescribed by a licensed health care practitioner.
(b)
(i) "Chronically ill individual" has the meaning prescribed for this term by section 7702B(c)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended. Under this provision, a chronically ill individual means any individual who has been certified by a licensed health care practitioner as:
(a) Being unable to perform (without substantial assistance from another individual) at least two activities of daily living for a period of at least ninety days due to a loss of functional capacity; or
(b) Requiring substantial supervision to protect the individual from threats to health and safety due to severe cognitive impairment.
(ii) The term "chronically ill individual" does not include an individual otherwise meeting these requirements unless within the preceding twelve-month period a licensed health care practitioner has certified that the individual meets these requirements.
(c) "Licensed health care practitioner" means a physician, as defined in section 1861(r)(1) of the Social Security Act, a registered professional nurse, licensed social worker or other individual who meets requirements prescribed by the secretary of the treasury.
(d) "Maintenance or personal care services" means any care the primary purpose of which is the provision of needed assistance with any of the disabilities as a result of which the individual is a chronically ill individual (including the protection from threats to health and safety due to severe cognitive impairment).
(2) A qualified long-term care insurance contract shall pay only for qualified long-term care services received by a chronically ill individual provided pursuant to a plan of care prescribed by a licensed health care practitioner.
(3) A qualified long-term care insurance contract shall condition the payment of benefits on a determination of the insured's inability to perform activities of daily living for an expected period of at least ninety days due to a loss of functional capacity or to severe cognitive impairment.
(4) Certifications regarding activities of daily living and cognitive impairment required pursuant to paragraph (CC)(3) of this rule shall be performed by the following licensed or certified professionals: physicians, registered professional nurses, licensed social workers, or other individuals who meet requirements prescribed by the secretary of the treasury.
(5) Certifications required pursuant to paragraph (CC)(3) of this rule may be performed by a licensed health care professional at the direction of the carrier as is reasonably necessary with respect to a specific claim, except that when a licensed health care practitioner has certified that an insured is unable to perform activities of daily living for an expected period of at least ninety days due to a loss of functional capacity and the insured is in claim status, the certification may not be rescinded and additional certifications may not be performed until after the expiration of the ninety-day period.
(6) Qualified long-term care insurance contracts shall include a clear description of the process for appealing and resolving disputes with respect to benefit determinations.
(DD) Standard format outline of coverage
This paragraph of the rule implements, interprets, and makes specific, the provisions of division (I) of section 3923.44 of the Revised Code in prescribing a standard format and the content of an outline of coverage.
(1) The outline of coverage shall be a free-standing document, using no smaller than twelve-point type.
(2) The outline of coverage shall contain no material of an advertising nature.
(3) Text that is capitalized or underscored in the standard format outline of coverage may be emphasized by other means that provide prominence equivalent to the capitalization or underscoring.
(4) Use of the text and sequence of text of the standard format outline of coverage is mandatory, unless otherwise specifically indicated.
(5) Format for outline of coverage is shown in appendix H to this rule.
(EE) Requirement to deliver shopper's guide
(1) A long-term care insurance shopper's guide in the format developed by the national association of insurance commissioners, or a guide developed or approved by the superintendent, shall be provided to all prospective applicants of a long-term care insurance policy or certificate.
(a) In the case of agent solicitations, an agent must deliver the shopper's guide prior to the presentation of an application or enrollment form.
(b) In the case of direct response solicitations, the shopper's guide must be presented in conjunction with any application or enrollment form.
(2) Life insurance policies or riders containing accelerated long-term care benefits are not required to furnish the above-reference guide, but shall furnish the policy summary required under division (K) of section 3923.44 of the Revised Code.
(FF) Penalties
In addition to any other penalties provided by the laws of this state any insurer and any agent found to have violated any requirement of this state relating to the regulation of long-term care insurance or the marketing of such insurance shall be subject to a fine of up to three times the amount of any commissions paid for each policy involved in the violation or up to ten thousand dollars, whichever is greater.
(GG) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
View AppendixView AppendixView AppendixView AppendixView AppendixView AppendixView AppendixView AppendixView Appendix
Last updated September 13, 2024 at 8:59 AM
History
- Effective: September 13, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-6-05
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to:
(1) Regulate the activities of insurers and agents with respect to the replacement of existing life insurance and annuities.
(2) Protect the interests of life insurance and annuity purchases by establishing minimum standards of conduct to be observed in replacement or financed purchase transactions. It will:
(a) Assure that purchasers receive information with which a decision can be made in the purchaser's own best interest;
(b) Reduce the opportunity for misrepresentation and incomplete disclosure; and
(c) Establish penalties for failure to comply with requirements of this rule.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041 and 3901.21 of the Revised Code. This rule implements sections 3901.19 to 3901.221 of the Revised Code.
(C) Scope
(1) Unless otherwise specifically included, this rule does not apply to transactions involving:
(a) Credit life insurance;
(b) Group life insurance or group annuities where there is no direct solicitation of individuals by an insurance agent. Direct solicitation does not include any group meeting held by an insurance agent solely for the purpose of educating or enrolling individuals or, when initiated by an individual member of the group, assisting with the selection of investment options offered by a single insurer in connections with enrolling that individual. Group life insurance or group annuity certificates marketed through direct response solicitation are subject to the provisions of paragraph (I) of this rule.
(c) Group life insurance and annuities used to fund prearranged funeral contracts;
(d) An application to the existing insurer that issued the existing policy or contract when a contractual change or a conversion privilege is being exercised; or, when the existing policy or contract is being replaced by the same insurer pursuant to a program filed with and approved by the superintendent; or, when a term conversion privilege is exercised among corporate affiliates;
(e) Proposed life insurance that is to replace life insurance under a binding or conditional receipt issued by the same company;
(f)
(i) Policies or contracts used to fund:
(a) An employee pension or welfare benefit plan that is covered by the "Employee Retirement and Income Security Act (ERISA)";
(b) A plan described by sections 401(a), 401(k) or 403(b) of the "Internal Revenue Code," where the plan, for the purposes of "ERISA," is established or maintained by an employer;
(c) A governmental or church plan defined in section 414, a governmental or church welfare benefit plan, or a deferred compensation plan of a state or local government or tax exempt organization under section 457 of the "Internal Revenue Code;" or
(d) A nonqualified deferred compensation arrangement established or maintained by an employer or plan sponsor;
(ii) Notwithstanding paragraph (C)(1)(f)(i) of this rule, this rule applies to policies or contracts used to fund any plan or arrangement that is funded solely by contributions an employee elects to make, whether on a pre-tax or after-tax basis, and where the insurer has been notified that plan participants may choose from among two or more insurers and there is a direct solicitation of an individual employee by an insurance agent for the purchase of a contract or policy. As used in this paragraph, direct solicitation does not include any group meeting held by an insurance agent solely for the purpose of educating individuals about the plan or arrangement or enrolling individuals in the plan or arrangement or, when initiated by an individual employee, assisting with the selection of investment options offered by a single insurer in connections with enrolling that individual employee;
(g) Where new coverage is provided under a life insurance policy or contract and the cost is borne wholly by the insured's employer or by an association of which the insured is a member;
(h) Existing life insurance that is a non-convertible term life insurance policy that will expire in five years or less and cannot be renewed;
(i) Immediate annuities that are purchased with proceeds from an existing contract. Immediate annuities purchased with proceeds from an existing policy are not exempted from the requirements of this rule; or
(j) Structured settlements.
(2) Registered contracts are exempt from the requirements of paragraphs (G)(1)(b) and (H)(2) of this rule with respect to the provision of illustrations or policy summaries; however, premium or contract contribution amounts and identification of the appropriate prospectus or offering circular is required instead.
(D) Definitions
As used in this rule:
(1) "Agent" or "insurance agent" means any person that, in order to sell, solicit, or negotiate insurance, is required to be licensed under the laws of this state with a life line of authority. For the purposes of this rule, the term "agent" is defined to include agents, brokers and producers.
(2) "Direct-response solicitation" means a solicitation through a sponsoring or endorsing entity or individually solely through mails, telephone, the Internet or other mass communication media.
(3) "Existing insurer" means the insurance company whose policy or contract is or will be changed or affected in a manner described with the definition of "replacement."
(4) "Existing policy or contract" means an individual life insurance policy (policy) or annuity contract (contract) in force, including a policy under a binding or conditional receipt or a policy or contract that is within an unconditional refund period.
(5) "Financed purchase" means the purchase of a new policy involving the actual or intended use of funds obtained by the withdrawal or surrender of, or by borrowing from values of an existing policy to pay all or part of any premium due on the new policy. For purposes of a regulatory review of an individual transaction only, if a withdrawal, surrender or borrowing involving the policy values of an existing policy is used to pay premiums on a new policy owned by the same policyholder and issued by the same company within four months before or thirteen months after the effective date of the new policy, it will be deemed prima facie evidence of the policyholder's intent to finance the purchase of the new policy with existing policy values. This prima facie standard is not intended to increase or decrease the monitoring obligations contained in paragraph (F)(1)(e) of this rule.
(6) "Illustration" means a presentation or depiction that includes non-guaranteed elements of a policy of life insurance over a period of years as defined in rule 3901-6-04 of the Administrative Code.
(7) "Policy summary":
(a) For policies or contracts other than universal life policies, means a written statement regarding a policy or contract which shall contain to the extent applicable, but need not be limited to, the following information: current death benefit; annual contract premium; current cash surrender value; current dividend; application of current dividend; and amount of outstanding loan.
(b) For universal life policies, means a written statement that shall contain at least the following information: the beginning and end date of the current report period; the policy value at the end of the previous report period and at the end of the current report period; the total amounts that have been credited or debited to the policy value during the current report period, identifying each by type (e.g., interest, mortality, expense and riders); the current death benefit at the end of the current report period on each life covered by the policy; the net cash surrender value of the policy as of the end of the current report period; and the amount of outstanding loans, if any, as of the end of the current report period.
(8) "Replacing insurer" means the insurance company that issues or proposes to issue a new policy or contract that replaces an existing policy or contract or is a financed purchase.
(9) "Registered contract" means a variable annuity contract or variable life insurance policy subject to the prospectus delivery requirements of the "Securities Act of 1933," as amended.
(10) "Replacement" means a transaction in which a new policy or contract is to be purchased, and it is known or should be known to the proposing agent, or to the proposing insurer if there is no agent, that by reason of the transaction, an existing policy or contract has been or is to be:
(a) Lapsed, forfeited, surrendered or partially surrendered, assigned to the replacing insurer or otherwise terminated;
(b) Converted to reduced paid-up insurance, continued as extended term insurance, or otherwise reduced in value by the use of nonforfeiture benefits or other policy values;
(c) Amended so as to effect either a reduction in benefits or in the term for which coverage would otherwise remain in force or for which benefits would be paid;
(d) Reissued with any reduction in cash value; or
(e) Used in a financed purchase.
(11) "Sales material" means a sales illustration and any other written, printed or electronically presented information created, or completed or provided by the company or agent and used in the presentation to the policy or contract owner related to the policy or contract purchased.
(E) Duties of agents
(1) A agent who initiates an application shall submit to the insurer, with or as part of the application, a statement signed by both the applicant and the agent as to whether the applicant has existing policies or contracts. If the answer is "no," the agent's duties with respect to replacement are complete.
(2) If the applicant answered "yes" to the question regarding existing coverage referred to in paragraph (E)(1) of this rule, the agent shall present and read to the applicant, not later than at the time of taking the application, a notice regarding replacements in the form as described in appendix A to this rule or other substantially similar form approved by the superintendent. However, no approval is required when amendments to the notice are limited to the omission of references not applicable to the product being sold or replaced. The notice shall be signed by both the applicant and the agent attesting that the notice has been read aloud by the agent or that the applicant did not wish the notice to be read aloud (in which case the agent need not have read the notice aloud) and left with the applicant.
(3) The notice shall list all life insurance policies or annuities proposed to be replaced, properly identified by name of insurer, the insured or annuitant, and policy or contract number if available; and shall include a statement as to whether each policy or contract will be replaced or whether a policy will be used as a source of financing for the new policy or contract. If a policy or contract number has not been issued by the existing insurer, alternative identification, such as an application or receipt number, shall be listed.
(4) In connection with a replacement transaction, the agent shall leave with the applicant at the time an application for a new policy or contract is completed the original or a copy of all sales material. With respect to electronically presented sales material, it shall be provided to the policy or contract owner in printed form no later than at the time of policy or contract delivery.
(5) Except as provided in paragraph (G)(3) of this rule, in connection with a replacement transaction the agent shall submit to the insurer to which an application for a policy or contract is presented, a copy of each document required by this section, a statement identifying any preprinted or electronically presented company approved sales materials used, and copies of any individualized sales materials, including any illustrations related to the specific policy or contract purchased.
(F) Duties of insurers that use agents
Each insurer shall:
(1) Maintain a system of supervision and control to ensure compliance with the requirements of this rule including the following:
(a) Inform its agents of the requirements of this rule and incorporate the requirements of this rule into all relevant agent training manuals prepared by the insurer;
(b) Provide to each agent a written statement of the company's position with respect to the acceptability of replacements providing guidance to its agent as to the appropriateness of these transactions;
(c) A system to review the appropriateness of each replacement transaction that the agent does not indicate is in accordance with paragraph (F)(1)(b) of this rule;
(d) Procedures to confirm that the requirements of this rule have been met; and
(e) Procedures to detect transactions that are replacements of existing policies or contracts by the existing insurer, but that have not been reported as such by the applicant or agent. Compliance with this rule may include, but shall not be limited to, systematic customer surveys, interviews, confirmation letters, or programs of internal monitoring.
(2) Have the capacity to monitor each agent's life insurance policy and annuity contract replacements for that insurer, and shall produce, upon request, and make such records available to the superintendent of insurance. The capacity to monitor shall include the ability to produce records for each agent's:
(a) Life replacements, including financed purchases, as a percentage of the agent's total annual sales for life insurance;
(b) Number of lapses of policies by the agent as a percentage of the agent's total annual sales for life insurance;
(c) Annuity contract replacements as a percentage of the agent's total annual annuity contract sales;
(d) Number of transactions that are unreported replacements of existing policies or contracts by the existing insurer detected by the company's monitoring system as required by paragraph (F)(1)(e) of this rule; and
(e) Replacements, indexed by replacing agent and existing insurer;
(3) Require with or as a part of each application for life insurance or an annuity a signed statement by both the applicant and the agent as to whether the applicant has existing policies or contracts;
(4) Require with each application for life insurance or an annuity that indicates an existing policy or contract a completed notice regarding replacements as contained in appendix A to this rule.
(5) When the applicant has existing policies or contracts, each insurer shall be able to produce copies of any sales material required by paragraph (E)(5) of this rule, the basic illustration and any supplemental illustrations related to the specific policy or contract that is purchased, and the agent's and applicant's signed statements with respect to financing and replacement for at least five years after the termination or expiration of the proposed policy or contract;
(6) Ascertain that the sales material and illustrations required by paragraph (E)(5) of this rule meet the requirements of this rule and are complete and accurate for the proposed policy or contract;
(7) If an application does not meet the requirements of this rule, notify the agent and applicant and fulfill the outstanding requirements; and
(8) Maintain records in paper, photograph, microprocess, magnetic, mechanical or electronic media or by any process that accurately reproduces the actual document.
(G) Duties of replacing insurers that use agents
(1) Where a replacement is involved in the transaction, the replacing insurer shall:
(a) Verify that the required forms are received and are in compliance with this rule;
(b) Notify any other existing insurer that may be affected by the proposed replacement within five business days of receipt of a completed application indicating replacement or when the replacement is identified if not indicated on the application, and mail a copy of the available illustration or policy summary for the proposed policy or available disclosure document for the proposed contract within five business days of a request from an existing insurer;
(c) Be able to produce copies of the notification regarding replacement required in paragraph (E)(2) of this rule, indexed by agent, for at least five years or until the next regular examination by the insurance department of a company's state of domicile, whichever is later; and
(d) Provide to the policy or contract owner notice of the right to return the policy or contract within thirty days of the delivery of the contract and receive an unconditional full refund of all premiums or considerations paid on it, including any policy fees or charges or, in the case of a variable or market value adjustment policy or contract, a payment of the cash surrender value provided under the policy or contract plus the fees and other charges deducted from the gross premiums or considerations or imposed under such policy or contract; such notice may be included in appendix A or appendix C to this rule.
(2) In transactions where the replacing insurer and the existing insurer are the same or subsidiaries or affiliates under common ownership or control, allow credit for the period of time that has elapsed under the replaced policy's or contract's incontestability and suicide period up to the face amount of the existing policy or contract. With regard to financed purchases, the credit may be limited to the amount the face amount of the existing policy is reduced by the use of existing policy values to fund the new policy or contract.
(3) If an insurer prohibits the use of sales material other than that approved by the company, as an alternative to the requirements made of an insurer pursuant to paragraph (E)(5) of this rule, the insurer may:
(a) Require with each application a statement signed by the agent that:
(i) Represents that the agent used only company-approved sales material; and
(ii) States that copies of all sales material were left with the applicant in accordance with paragraph (E)(4) of this rule; and
(b) Within ten days of the issuance of the policy or contract:
(i) Notify the applicant by sending a letter or by verbal communication with the applicant by a person whose duties are separate from the marketing area of the insurer, that the agent has represented that copies of all sales material have been left with the applicant in accordance with paragraph (E)(4) of this rule;
(ii) Provide the applicant with a toll free number to contact company personnel involved in the compliance function if such is not the case; and
(iii) Stress the importance of retaining copies of the sales material for future reference; and
(c) Be able to produce a copy of the letter or other verification in the policy file for at least five years after the termination or expiration of the policy or contract.
(H) Duties of the existing insurer
Where a replacement is involved in the transaction, the existing insurer shall:
(1) Retain and be able to produce all replacement notifications received, indexed by replacing insurer, for at least five years or until the conclusion of the next regular examination conducted by the insurance department of its state of domicile, whichever is later.
(2) Send a letter to the policy or contract owner of the right to receive information regarding the existing policy or contract values including, if available, an in force illustration or policy summary if an in force illustration cannot be produced with five business days of receipt of a notice that an existing policy or contract is being replaced. The information shall be provided within five business days of receipt of the request from the policy or contract owner.
(3) Upon receipt of a request to borrow, surrender or withdraw any policy values, send a notice advising the policyowner that the release of policy values may affect the guaranteed elements, non-guaranteed elements, face amount or surrender value of the policy from which the values are released. The notice shall be sent separate from the check if the check is sent to anyone other than the policyowner. In the case of consecutive automatic premium loans, the insurer is only required to send the notice at the time of the first loan.
(I) Duties of insurers with respect to direct response solicitations
(1) In the case of an application that is initiated as a result of a direct response solicitation, the insurer shall require, with or as part of each completed application for a policy or contract, a statement asking whether the applicant, by applying for the proposed policy or contract, intends to replace, discontinue or change any existing policy or contract. If the applicant indicates a replacement or change is not intended or if the applicant fails to respond to the statement, the insurer shall send the applicant, with the policy or contract, a notice regarding replacement in appendix B to this rule, or other substantially similar form approved by the superintendent.
(2) If the insurer has proposed the replacement or if the applicant indicates a replacement is intended and the insurer continues with the replacement, the insurer shall:
(a) Provide to applicants or prospective applicants with the policy or contract a notice, as described in appendix C to this rule, or other substantially similar form approved by the superintendent. In these instances the insurer may delete the references to the agent, including the agent's signature, and references not applicable to the product being sold or replaced, without having to obtain approval of the form from the superintendent. The insurer's obligation to obtain the applicant's signature is satisfied if the insurer can demonstrate that it has made a diligent effort to secure a signed copy of the notice referred to in this paragraph. The requirement to make a diligent effort will be deemed satisfied if the insurer includes in the mailing a self-addressed postage prepaid envelope with instructions for the return of the signed notice referred to in this paragraph; and
(b) Comply with the requirements of paragraph (G)(1)(b) of this rule, if the applicant furnishes the names of the existing insurers, and the requirements of paragraphs (G)(1)(c), (G)(1)(d) and (G)(2) of this rule.
(J) Violations and penalties
(1) Any failure to comply with this rule will be considered a violation of section 3901.20 of the Revised Code. Examples of violations include:
(a) Any deceptive or misleading information set forth in sales material;
(b) Failing to ask the applicant in completing the application the pertinent questions regarding the possibility of financing or replacement;
(c) The intentional incorrect recording of an answer;
(d) Advising an applicant to respond negatively to any question regarding replacement in order to prevent notice to the existing insurer; or
(e) Advising a policy or contract owner to write directly to the company in such a way as to attempt to obscure the identity of the replacing agent or company.
(2) Policy and contract owners have the right to replace existing life insurance policies or annuity contracts after indicating in or as a part of applications for new coverage that replacement is not their intention; however, patterns of such action by policy or contract owners of the same agent shall be deemed prima facie evidence of the agent's knowledge that replacement was intended in connection with the identified transactions, and these patterns of action shall be deemed prima facie evidence of the agent's intent to violate this rule.
(3) Where it is determined that the requirements of this rule have not been met the replacing insurer shall provide to the policyowner an in force illustration if available or policy summary for the replacement policy or available disclosure document for the replacement contract and the appropriate notice regarding replacements in appendix A or appendix C to this rule.
(4) Violations of this rule shall subject the violators to penalties that may include the revocation or suspension of a agent's or company's license, monetary fines and the forfeiture of any commissions or compensation paid to a agent as a result of the transaction in connection with which the violations occurred. In addition, where the superintendent has determined that the violations were material to the sale, the insurer may be required to make restitution, restore policy or contract values and pay interest on the amount refunded in cash.
(K) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
View AppendixView AppendixView Appendix
Last updated November 16, 2023 at 8:32 AM
History
- Effective: November 16, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-3-13
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to establish the minimum reserve standards for all individual and group health insurance coverages, including single premium credit disability insurance. All other credit insurance is not subject to this rule.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under section 3901.041 and division (Q) of section 3903.723 of the Revised Code.
(C) Scope
(1) These standards establish a minimum reserve standard for all individual and group health insurance coverages, including single premium credit disability insurance. When an insurer determines that adequacy of its health insurance reserves requires reserves in excess of the minimum standards specified herein, such increased reserves shall be held and shall be considered the minimum reserves for that insurer.
(2) With respect to any block of contracts, or with respect to an insurer's health business as a whole, a prospective gross premium valuation is the ultimate test of reserve adequacy as of a given valuation date. Such a gross premium valuation will take into account, for contracts in force, in a claims status, or in a continuation of benefits status on the valuation date, the present value as of the valuation date of: all expected benefits unpaid, all expected expenses unpaid, and all unearned or expected premiums, adjusted for future premium increases reasonably expected to be put into effect.
(3) Such a gross premium valuation is to be performed whenever a significant doubt exists as to reserve adequacy with respect to any major block of contracts, or with respect to the insurer's health business as a whole. In the event inadequacy is found to exist, immediate loss recognition shall be made and the reserves restored to adequacy. Adequate reserves (inclusive of claim, premium and contract reserves, if any) shall be held with respect to all contracts, regardless of whether contract reserves are required for such contracts under these standards.
(4) Whenever minimum reserves, as defined in these standards, exceed reserve requirements as determined by a prospective gross premium valuation, such minimum reserves remain the minimum requirement under these standards.
(5) This rule sets forth minimum standards for three categories of health insurance reserves: claim reserves, premium reserves and contract reserves. Adequacy of an insurer's health insurance reserves is to be determined on the basis of all three categories combined. However, these standards emphasize the importance of determining appropriate reserves for each of these categories separately.
(D) Definitions
(1) "Annual claim cost" means the net annual cost per unit of benefit before the addition of expenses, including claim settlement expenses, and a margin for profit or contingencies. For example, the annual claim cost for a one hundred dollar monthly disability benefit, for a maximum disability benefit period of one year, with an elimination period of one week, with respect to a male at age thirty-five, in a certain occupation might be twelve dollars, while the gross premium for this benefit might be eighteen dollars. The additional six dollars would cover expenses and profit or contingencies.
(2) "Claims accrued" means that portion of claims incurred on or prior to the valuation date which result in liability of the insurer for the payment of benefits for medical services which have been rendered on or prior to the valuation date, and for the payment of benefits for days of hospitalization and days of disability which have occurred on or prior to the valuation date, which the insurer has not paid as of the valuation date, but for which it is liable, and will have to pay after the valuation date. This liability is sometimes referred to as a liability for "accrued" benefits. A claim reserve, which represents an estimate of this accrued claim liability, must be established.
(3) "Claims reported" means a claim that has been incurred on or prior to the valuation date and the insurer has been informed of it on or before the valuation date. This claim is considered a reported claim for annual statement purposes.
(4) "Claims unaccrued" means that portion of claims incurred on or prior to the valuation date which result in liability of the insurer for the payment of benefits for medical services expected to be rendered after the valuation date, and for benefits expected to be payable for days of hospitalization and days of disability occurring after the valuation date. This liability is sometimes referred to as a liability for unaccrued benefits. A claim reserve, which represents an estimate of the unaccrued claim payments expected to be made (which may or may not be discounted with interest), must be established.
(5) "Claims unreported" means a claim that has been incurred on or prior to the valuation date but the insurer has not been informed of it on or before the valuation date. This claim is considered an unreported claim for annual statement purposes.
(6) "Date of disablement" means the earliest date the insured is considered as being disabled under the definition of disability in the contract, based on a doctor's evaluation or other evidence. Normally this date will coincide with the start of any elimination period.
(7) "Elimination period" means a specified number of days, weeks, or months starting at the beginning of each period of loss, during which no benefits are payable.
(8) "Gross premium" means the amount of premium charged by the insurer. It includes the net premium (based on claim-cost) for the risk, together with any loading for expenses, profit or contingencies.
(9) "Group insurance" means blanket insurance and franchise insurance and any other forms of group insurance.
(10) "Group long-term disability income insurance" means any group insurance policy or rider advertised, marketed, offered or designed to provide group disability income coverage with a maximum benefit duration longer than two years that is based on a group pricing structure. The term "group long-term disability income insurance" does not include voluntary group disability income insurance coverage that is priced on an individual risk structure and generally sold in the workplace.
(11) "Level premium" means a premium calculated to remain unchanged throughout either the lifetime of the policy, or for some shorter projected period of years. The premium need not be guaranteed; in which case, although it is calculated to remain level, it may be changed if any of the assumptions on which it was based are revised at a later time. Generally, the annual claim costs are expected to increase each year and the insurer, instead of charging premiums that correspondingly increase each year, charges a premium calculated to remain level for a period of years or for the lifetime of the contract. In this case the benefit portion of the premium is more than needed to provide for the cost of benefits during the earlier years of the policy and less than the actual cost in the later years. The building of a prospective contract reserve is a natural result of level premiums.
(12) "Long-term care insurance" means any insurance policy or rider advertised, marketed, offered or designed to provide coverage for not less than twelve consecutive months for each covered person on an expense incurred, indemnity, prepaid or other basis; for one or more necessary or medically necessary diagnostic, preventive, therapeutic, rehabilitative, maintenance or personal care services, provided in a setting other than an acute care unit of a hospital. Such term also includes a policy or rider which provides for payment of benefits based upon cognitive impairment or the loss of functional capacity. Long-term care insurance may be issued by insurers; fraternal benefit societies; nonprofit health, hospital, and medical service corporations; prepaid health plans; health maintenance organizations or any similar organization to the extent they are otherwise authorized to issue life or health insurance. Long-term care insurance shall not include any insurance policy which is offered primarily to provide basic medicare supplement coverage, basic hospital expense coverage, basic medical-surgical expense coverage, hospital confinement indemnity coverage, major medical expense coverage, disability income or related asset-protection coverage, accident only coverage, specified disease or specified accident coverage, or limited benefit health coverage.
(13) "Modal premium" means the premium paid on a contract based on a premium term which could be annual, semi-annual, quarterly, monthly, or weekly. Thus if the annual premium is one hundred dollars and if, instead, monthly premiums of nine dollars are paid then the modal premium is nine dollars.
(14) "Negative reserve" means the terminal reserve where the values of the benefits are decreasing with advancing age or duration such that it results in a negative value, called a negative reserve. Normally the terminal reserve is a positive value.
(15) "Preliminary term reserve method" means the method of valuation where the valuation net premium for each year falling within the preliminary term period is exactly sufficient to cover the expected incurred claims of that year, so that the terminal reserves will be zero at the end of the year. As of the end of the preliminary term period, a new constant valuation net premium (or stream of changing valuation premiums) becomes applicable such that the present value of all such premiums is equal to the present value of all claims expected to be incurred following the end of the preliminary term period.
(16) "Present value of amounts not yet due on claims" means the reserve for "claims unaccrued" which may be discounted at interest.
(17) "Rating block" means a grouping of contracts determined by the valuation actuary based on common characteristics filed with the superintendent, such as a policy form or forms having similar benefit designs.
(18) "Reserve" means all items of benefit liability, whether in the nature of incurred claim liability or in the nature of contract liability relating to future periods of coverage, and whether the liability is accrued or unaccrued. An insurer under its contracts promises benefits which result in:
(a) Claims which have been incurred, that is, for which the insurer has become obligated to make payment, on or prior to the valuation date, (on these claims, payments expected to be made after the valuation date for accrued and unaccrued benefits are liabilities of the insurer which should be provided for by establishing claim reserves); or
(b) Claims which are expected to be incurred after the valuation date, (any present liability of the insurer for these future claims should be provided for by the establishment of contract reserves and unearned premium reserves.)
(19) "Terminal reserve" means the reserve at the end of the contract year which is equal to the present value of benefits expected to be incurred after the contract year minus the present value of future valuation net premiums.
(20) "Unearned premium reserve" means that portion of the premium paid or due to the insurer which is applicable to the period of coverage extending beyond the valuation date. Thus if an annual premium of one hundred twenty dollars was paid on November first, twenty dollars would be earned as of December thirty-first and the remaining one hundred dollars would be unearned. The unearned premium reserve could be on a gross basis as in this example, or on a valuation net premium basis.
(21) "Valuation manual" means the manual produced by the "National Association of Insurance Commissioners" (NAIC) and updated annually that contains the minimum reserve and related requirements for life, accident and health insurance.
(22) "Valuation net modal premium" means the modal fraction of the valuation net annual premium that corresponds to the gross modal premium in effect on any contract to which contract reserves apply. Thus if the mode of payment in effect is quarterly, the valuation net modal premium is the quarterly equivalent of the valuation net annual premium.
(23) "Worksite franchise disability insurance" means any insurance policy or rider advertised, marketed, offered or designed to provide individual disability coverage that is sold at the worksite through employer-sponsored enrollment and complies with section 3923.11 of the Revised Code. Worksite franchise disability insurance does not include coverage for business overhead expense, disability buyout, or key person policies.
(24) "Worksite individual disability insurance" means any insurance policy or rider advertised, marketed, offered or designed to provide personal disability coverage that is sold to an individual at the worksite, and is not associated with employer-sponsored enrollment. Worksite individual disability insurance does not include business overhead expense, disability buyout, or key person policies.
(E) Claim reserves
(1) General
(a) Claim reserves are required for all incurred but unpaid claims on all health insurance policies. For contracts with an elimination period, the duration of disablement shall be measured as dating from the time that benefits would have begun to accrue had there been no elimination period.
(b) Appropriate claim expense reserves are required with respect to the estimated expense of settlement of all incurred but unpaid claims.
(c) All such reserves for prior valuation years are to be tested for adequacy and reasonableness along the lines of claim runoff schedules in accordance with the statutory financial statement including consideration of any residual unpaid liability.
(d) For claim reserves on policies that require contract reserves, the claim incurral date is to be considered the "issue date" for determining the table and interest rate to be used for claim reserves.
(e) The maximum interest rate for claim reserves is specified in paragraph (I) of this rule.
(f) With respect to claim reserves for policies issued prior to January 1, 2017, the operative date of the valuation manual, the requirements for claim reserves on claims incurred after that date shall be as described in the valuation manual based on the incurred date of the claim.
(2) Minimum morbidity standards for individual disability income claim reserves
(a) For claims incurred prior to January 1, 2005, each insurer may elect which of the following to use as the minimum morbidity standard for claim reserves:
(i) The minimum morbidity standard in effect for claim reserves as of the date the claim was incurred, or
(ii) The standards as defined in paragraph (E)(2)(b) or (E)(2)(c) of this rule, applied to all open claims. Once an insurer elects to calculate reserves for all open claims on the standard defined in either paragraph (E)(2)(b) or (E)(2)(c) of this rule, all future valuations must be on that basis.
(b) For claims incurred on or after January 1, 2005 and prior to the effective date for the company as determined in paragraph (E)(2)(e) of this rule, the minimum standards with respect to morbidity are those specified in paragraph (I) of this rule, except that, at the option of the insurer, assumptions regarding claim termination rates for the period less than two years from the date of disablement may be based on the insurer's experience, if such experience is considered credible, or upon other assumptions and methods designed to place a sound value on the liabilities.
(c) For claims incurred on or after January 1, 2020, the minimum standards are those specified in paragraph (I) of this rule, including (as derived in accordance with actuarial guideline L, as included in the 2019 version of the NAIC accounting practices and procedures manual):
(i) The use of the insurer's own experience; and
(ii) An adjustment to include the insurer's own experience measurement margin; and
(iii) The application of a credibility factor.
(d) In determining the minimum reserves in accordance with paragraph (E)(2)(c) of this rule, the provisions in paragraphs (E)(2)(c)(i) to (E)(2)(c)(iii) of this rule are not required if:
(i) The insurer meets the own experience measurement exemption provided in actuarial guideline L as included in the 2019 version of the NAIC accounting practices and procedures manual; or
(ii) For worksite franchise disability insurance policies with benefit periods of up to two years, at the option of the insurer, disabled life reserves may be based on the insurer's experience, if such experience is considered credible, or upon other assumptions and methods designed to place a sound value on the liabilities.
(e) An insurer may begin to use the minimum reserve standards in paragraph (E)(2)(c) of this rule at a date earlier than the effective date of this rule.
(f) An insurer may apply the new standards in paragraph (E)(2)(c) of this rule to all open claims regardless of incurred date. Once an insurer elects to calculate reserves for all open claims based on paragraph (E)(2)(c) of this rule, all future valuations must be on that basis.
(3) Minimum morbidity standards for group disability income claim reserves
(a) For claims incurred prior to January 1, 2005, each insurer may elect which of the following to use as the minimum morbidity standard for claim reserves:
(i) The minimum morbidity standard in effect for claim reserves as of the date the claim was incurred; or
(ii) The standards as defined in paragraph (E)(3)(b) of this rule, applied to all open group long-term disability income insurance claims; or
(iii) The standards as defined in paragraph (E)(3)(c) of this rule, applied to all open group disability income insurance claims.
Once an insurer elects to calculate reserves for all open claims on a more recent standard, then all future valuations must be on that basis.
(b) For group long-term disability income insurance claims incurred on or after January 1, 2005, but before the effective date in paragraph (E)(3)(c) of this rule, and group disability income insurance claims incurred on or after January 1, 2005, that are not group long-term disability income, the minimum standards with respect to morbidity are those specified in paragraph (I) of this rule, except that, at the option of the insurer:
(i) Assumptions regarding claim termination rates for the period less than two years from the date of disablement may be based on the insurer's experience, if the experience is considered credible, or upon other assumptions and methods designed to place a sound value on the liabilities.
(ii) Assumptions regarding claim termination rates for the period two or more years but less than five years from the date of disablement may, with the approval of the superintendent, be based on the insurer's experience for which the insurer maintains underwriting and claim administration control. The request for such approval of a plan of modification to the reserve basis must include:
(a) An analysis of the credibility of the experience;
(b) A description of how all of the insurer's experience is proposed to be used in setting reserves;
(c) A description and quantification of the margins to be included;
(d) A summary of the financial impact that the proposed plan of modification would have had on the insurer's last filed annual statement;
(e) A copy of the approval of the proposed plan of modification by the insurance regulatory agency of the insurer's state of domicile; and
(f) Any other information deemed necessary by the superintendent.
(iii) Each insurer may elect which of the following to use as the minimum morbidity standard for group long-term disability income insurance claim reserves:
(a) The minimum morbidity standard in effect for claim reserves as of the date the claim was incurred, or
(b) The standards as defined in paragraph (E)(3)(c) of this rule, applied to all open claims.
Once an insurer elects to calculate reserves for all open claims on a more recent standard, then all future valuations must be on that basis.
(c) For group long-term disability income insurance claims incurred on or after January 1, 2020, the minimum standards with respect to morbidity shall be based on the 2012 GLTD termination table in accordance with actuarial guideline XLVII, as included in the 2019 version of the NAIC accounting practices and procedures manual with considerations of:
(i) The use of the insurer's own experience; and
(ii) An adjustment to include the insurer's own experience measurement margin; and
(iii) The application of a credibility factor.
(d) An insurer may begin to use the minimum reserve standards in paragraph (E)(3)(c) of this rule at a date earlier than the effective date of this rule. An insurer may apply the standards in paragraph (E)(3)(c) of this rule to all open claims incurred prior to the effective date of paragraph (E)(3)(c) of this rule for the insurer. Once an insurer elects to calculate reserves for all open claims based on paragraph (E)(3)(c) of this rule, all future valuations must be on that basis.
(4) Minimum morbidity or other contingency standard for other health insurance claim reserves
The reserve must be based on the insurer's experience, if the experience is considered credible, or upon other assumptions and methods designed to place a sound value on the liabilities.
(5) Claim reserve methods generally
A generally accepted actuarial reserving method or other reasonable method, based on information and data describing the proposed method, or a combination of methods may be used to estimate all claim liabilities if approved by the superintendent prior to the statement date. The methods used for estimating liabilities generally may be aggregate methods, or various reserve items may be separately valued. Approximations based on groupings and averages may also be employed. Adequacy of the claim reserves, however, shall be determined in the aggregate.
(F) Premium reserves
(1) General
(a) Unearned premium reserves are required for all contracts, except individual and group single premium credit disability insurance, with respect to the period of coverage for which premiums, other than premiums paid in advance, have been paid beyond the date of valuation.
(b) If premiums due and unpaid are carried as an asset, such premiums must be treated as premiums in force, subject to unearned premium reserve determination. The value of unpaid commissions, premium taxes and the cost of collection associated with due and unpaid premiums shall be carried as an offsetting liability.
(c) The gross premiums paid in advance for a period of coverage commencing after the next premium due date which follows the date of valuation may be appropriately discounted to the valuation date and shall be held either as a separate liability or as an addition to the unearned premium reserve which would otherwise be required as a minimum.
(2) Minimum standards for unearned premium reserves
(a) The minimum unearned premium reserve with respect to any contract is the pro rata unearned modal premium that applies to the premium period beyond the valuation date, with such premium determined on the basis of:
(i) The valuation net modal premium on the contract reserve basis applying to the contract; or
(ii) The gross modal premium for the contract if no contract reserve applies.
(b) In no event may the sum of the unearned premium and contract reserves for all contracts of the insurer subject to contract reserve requirements be less than the gross modal unearned premium reserve on all such contracts, as of the date of valuation. Such reserve shall never be less than the expected claims for the period beyond the valuation date represented by such unearned premium reserve, to the extent not provided for elsewhere.
(3) Premium reserve methods generally
The insurer may employ suitable approximations and estimates; including, but not limited to groupings, averages and aggregate estimation; in computing premium reserves. Such approximations or estimates should be tested periodically to determine their continuing adequacy and reliability.
(G) Contract reserves
(1) General
(a) Contract reserves are required, unless otherwise specified in paragraph (G)(1)(b) of this rule for:
(i) All individual and group contracts with which level premiums are used; or
(ii) All individual and group contracts with respect to which, due to the gross premium pricing structure at issue, the value of the future benefits at any time exceeds the value of any appropriate future valuation net premiums at that time. This evaluation may be applied on a rating block basis if the total premiums for the block were developed to support the total risk assumed and expected expenses for the block each year, and a qualified actuary certifies the premium development. The actuary should state in the certification that premiums for the rating block were developed such that each year's premium was intended to cover that year's costs without any prefunding. If the premium is also intended to recover costs for any prior years, the actuary should also disclose the reasons for and magnitude of such recovery. The values specified in paragraph (G)(1)(a)(ii) of this rule shall be determined on the basis specified in paragraph (G)(2) of this rule.
(b) Contracts not requiring a contract reserve are:
(i) Contracts which cannot be continued after one year from issue; or
(ii) Contracts already in force on the effective date of this rule for which no contract reserve was required under the immediately preceding standards.
(c) The contract reserve is in addition to claim reserves and premium reserves.
(d) The methods and procedures for contract reserves should be consistent with those for claim reserves for any contract, or else appropriate adjustment must be made when necessary to assure provision for the aggregate liability. The definition of the date of incurral must be the same in both determinations.
(e) The contract reserves for single premium credit disability insurance shall never be less than the expected claims for the period beyond the valuation date.
(f) The total contract reserve established shall incorporate provisions for moderately adverse deviations.
(2) Minimum standards for contract reserves
(a) Basis
(i) Morbidity or other contingency. Minimum standards with respect to morbidity are those set forth in paragraph (I) of this rule. Valuation net premiums used under each contract must have a structure consistent with the gross premium structure at issue of the contract as this relates to advancing age of insured, contract duration and period for which gross premiums have been calculated.
Contracts for which tabular morbidity standards are not specified in paragraph (I) of this rule shall be valued using tables established for reserve purposes by a qualified actuary and acceptable to the superintendent. The morbidity tables shall contain a pattern for incurred claims cost that reflects the underlying morbidity and shall not be constructed for the primary purpose of minimizing reserves.
(a) In determining the morbidity assumptions, the actuary shall use assumptions that represent the best estimate of anticipated future experience, but shall not incorporate any expectation of future morbidity improvement. Morbidity improvement is a change, in the combined effect of claim frequency and the present value of future expected claim payments given that a claim has occurred, from the current morbidity tables or experience that will result in a reduction to reserves. It is not the intent of this provision to restrict the ability of the actuary to reflect the morbidity impact for a specific known event that has occurred and that is able to be evaluated and quantified.
(b) Business in force as of the effective date of paragraph (G)(2)(a)(iii)(c) of this rule may be permitted to retain the original reserve basis which may not meet the provisions of paragraph (G)(2)(a)(i)(a) of this rule, subject to the acceptability of the superintendent.
(ii) Interest. The maximum interest rate is specified in paragraph (I) of this rule.
(iii) Termination rates. Termination rates used in the computation of reserves shall be on the basis of a mortality table as specified in paragraph (I) of this rule except as noted in paragraphs (G)(2)(a)(iii)(a), (G)(2)(a)(iii)(b), and (G)(2)(a)(iii)(c) of this rule.
(a) Under contracts for which premium rates are not guaranteed, and where the effects of insurer underwriting are specifically used by policy duration in the valuation morbidity standard or for return of premium or other deferred cash benefits, total termination rates may be used at ages and durations where these exceed specified mortality table rates, but not in excess of the lesser of:
(i) Eighty per cent of the total termination rate used in the calculation of the gross premiums, or
(ii) Eight per cent.
(b) For long-term care individual policies or group certificates issued after December 31, 2003, the contract reserve may be established on a basis of separate:
(i) Mortality (as specified in paragraph (I) of this rule); and
(ii) Terminations other than mortality, where the terminations are not to exceed:
(A) For policy years one through four, the lesser of eighty per cent of the voluntary lapse rate used in the calculation of gross premiums and eight per cent;
(B) For policy years five and later, the lesser of one hundred per cent of the voluntary lapse rate used in the calculation of gross premiums and four per cent.
(c) For long-term care individual policies or group certificates issued on or after January 1, 2011, the contract reserve may be established on a basis of separate:
(i) Mortality (as specified in paragraph (I) of this rule); and
(ii) Terminations other than mortality, where the terminations are not to exceed;
(A) For policy year one, the lesser of eighty per cent of the voluntary lapse rate used in the calculation of gross premiums and six per cent;
(B) For policy year two through four, the lesser of eighty per cent of the voluntary lapse rate used in the calculation of gross premiums and four per cent;
(C) For policy year five and later, the lesser of one hundred per cent of the voluntary lapse rate used in the calculation of gross premiums and two per cent, except for group long-term care insurance as defined in section 3923.41 of the Revised Code where the two per cent shall be three per cent.
(d) Where a morbidity standard specified in paragraph (I) of this rule is on an aggregate basis, such morbidity standard may be adjusted to reflect the effect of insurer underwriting by policy duration. The adjustments must be appropriate to the underwriting and be acceptable to the superintendent.
(b) Reserve method
(i) The preliminary term method may be applied only in relation to the date of issue of a contract. Reserve adjustments introduced later, as a result of rate increases, revisions in assumptions (e.g., projected inflation rates) or for other reasons, are to be applied immediately as of the effective date of adoption of the adjusted basis.
(ii) For insurance except long-term care and return of premium or other deferred cash benefits, the minimum reserve is the reserve calculated on the two-year full preliminary term method; that is, under which the terminal reserve is zero at the first and also the second contract anniversary.
(iii) For long-term care insurance, the minimum reserve is the reserve calculated as follows:
(a) For individual policies and group certificates issued on or before December 31, 1996, reserves calculated on the two-year full preliminary term method;
(b) For individual policies and group certificates issued on or after January 1, 1997, reserves calculated on the one-year full preliminary term method.
(iv) For return of premium or other deferred cash benefits, the minimum reserve is the reserve calculated as follows:
(a) On the one year preliminary term method if such benefits are provided at any time before the twentieth anniversary;
(b) On the two year preliminary term method if such benefits are only provided on or after the twentieth anniversary.
(c) Negative reserves. Negative reserves on any benefit may be offset against positive reserves for other benefits in the same contract, but the total contract reserve with respect to all benefits combined may not be less than zero.
(d) Nonforfeiture benefits for long-term care insurance. The contract reserve on a policy basis shall not be less than the net single premium for the nonforfeiture benefits at the appropriate policy duration, where the net single premium is computed according to the listed specifications.
(3) Alternative valuation methods and assumptions generally
Provided the contract reserve on all contracts to which an alternative method or basis is applied is not less in the aggregate than the amount determined according to the applicable standards specified above; an insurer may use any reasonable assumptions as to interest rates, termination and mortality rates, and rates of morbidity or other contingency. Also, subject to the preceding condition, the insurer may employ methods other than the methods stated above in determining a sound value of its liabilities under such contracts, including, but not limited to the following: the net level premium method; the one-year full preliminary term method; prospective valuation on the basis of actual gross premiums with reasonable allowance for future expenses; the use of approximations such as those involving age groupings, groupings of several years of issue, average amounts of indemnity, grouping of similar contract forms; the computation of the reserve for one contract benefit as a percentage of, or by other relation to, the aggregate contract reserves exclusive of the benefit or benefits so valued; and the use of a composite annual claim cost for all or any combination of the benefits included in the contracts valued.
(4) Tests for adequacy and reasonableness of contract reserves
Annually, an appropriate review shall be made of the insurer's prospective contract liabilities on contracts valued by tabular reserves, to determine the continuing adequacy and reasonableness of the tabular reserves giving consideration to future gross premiums. The insurer shall make appropriate increments to such tabular reserves if such tests indicate that the basis of such reserves is no longer adequate; subject, however, to the minimum standards of paragraph (G)(2) of this rule.
In the event a company has a contract or a group of related similar contracts, for which future gross premiums will be restricted by contract, or is otherwise restricted by law, such that the future gross premiums reduced by expenses for administration, commissions, and taxes will be insufficient to cover future claims, the company shall establish contract reserves for such shortfall in the aggregate.
(H) Reinsurance
Increases to, or credits against reserves carried, arising because of reinsurance assumed or reinsurance ceded, must be determined in a manner consistent with these minimum reserve standards and with all applicable provisions of the reinsurance contracts which affect the insurer's liabilities.
(I) Specific standards for morbidity, interest and mortality
(1) Morbidity
(a) Minimum morbidity standards for valuation of specified individual contract health insurance benefits are as follows:
(i) Disability income insurance benefits due to accident or sickness.
(a) Contract reserves:
(i) Contracts issued on or after January 1, 1965 and prior to January 1, 1992:
The 1964 commissioners disability table (64CDT).
(ii) Contracts issued on or after January 1, 1992 and prior to January 1, 2020:
(A) The 1985 commissioners individual disability tables A (85CIDA); or
(B) The 1985 commissioners individual disability tables B (85CIDB).
(iii) Contracts issued during 1987 to 1991:
(A) Optional use of either the 1964 table or the 1985 tables; and
(B) Each insurer shall elect, with respect to all individual contracts issued in any one statement year, whether it will use tables A or tables B as the minimum standard. The insurer may, however, elect to use the other tables with respect to any subsequent statement year.
(iv) Contracts issued on or after January 1, 2020:
(A) The 2013 IDI valuation table with modifiers as described in actuarial guideline L as included in the 2019 version of the NAIC accounting practices and procedures manual; and
(B) An insurer may begin to use the 2013 IDI valuation table with modifiers at a date earlier than the effective date of this rule.
(v) Once an insurer begins to use the 2013 IDI valuation table the insurer may elect to apply that morbidity standard for all policies issued subject to other valuation tables. This may be done if the following conditions are met:
(A) The insurer must apply the morbidity standard to all in-force policies and incurred claims;
(B) The insurer elects or has elected to apply the 2013 IDI valuation table to all claims incurred regardless of incurred date;
(C) The insurer maintains adequate policy records on policies issued prior to 2020 that allow the insurer to apply the 2013 IDI valuation table appropriately; and
(D) Once an insurer elects to calculate reserves for all in-force policies based on the current morbidity standard, all future valuations must be on that basis.
(b) Claim reserves:
(i) For claims incurred prior to January 1, 2004:
Each insurer may elect which of the following to use as the minimum standard for claims incurred prior to January 1, 2004:
(A) The minimum morbidity standard in effect for contract reserves on currently issued contracts, as of the date the claim is incurred; or
(B) The standard as defined in paragraph (I)(1)(a)(i)(b)(ii) or (I)(1)(a)(i)(b)(iii) of this rule, applied to all open non-worksite claims provided the insurer maintains adequate claim records to allow the insurer to apply the standard defined in paragraph (I)(1)(a)(i)(b)(ii) or (I)(1)(a)(i)(b)(iii) of this rule appropriately; and
(C) Once an insurer elects to calculate reserves for all open claims on the standard defined in paragraph (I)(1)(a)(i)(b)(ii) or (I)(1)(a)(i)(b)(iii) of this rule, all future valuations must be on that basis. This option, with respect to paragraph (I)(1)(a)(i)(b)(iii) of this rule, may be selected only if the insurer maintains adequate claim records for all claims incurred to use the 2013 IDI valuation table appropriately.
(ii) For claims incurred on or after January 1, 2004 and prior to January 1, 2020:
The 1985 commissioners individual disability table A (85CIDA) with claim termination rates multiplied by the following adjustment factors:
| Duration | Adjustment Factor | Adjusted Termination Rates* | | --- | --- | --- | | | | | | Week 1 | 0.366 | 0.04831 | | 2 | 0.366 | 0.04172 | | 3 | 0.366 | 0.04063 | | 4 | 0.366 | 0.04355 | | 5 | 0.365 | 0.04088 | | 6 | 0.365 | 0.04271 | | 7 | 0.365 | 0.04380 | | 8 | 0.365 | 0.04344 | | 9 | 0.370 | 0.04292 | | 10 | 0.370 | 0.04107 | | 11 | 0.370 | 0.03848 | | 12 | 0.370 | 0.03478 | | 13 | 0.370 | 0.03034 | | | | | | Month 4 | 0.391 | 0.08758 | | 5 | 0.371 | 0.07346 | | 6 | 0.435 | 0.07531 | | 7 | 0.500 | 0.07245 | | 8 | 0.564 | 0.06655 | | 9 | 0.613 | 0.05520 | | 10 | 0.663 | 0.04705 | | 11 | 0.712 | 0.04486 | | 12 | 0.756 | 0.04309 | | 13 | 0.800 | 0.04080 | | 14 | 0.844 | 0.03882 | | 15 | 0.888 | 0.03730 | | 16 | 0.932 | 0.03448 | | 17 | 0.976 | 0.03026 | | 18 | 1.020 | 0.02856 | | 19 | 1.049 | 0.02518 | | 20 | 1.078 | 0.02264 | | 21 | 1.107 | 0.02104 | | 22 | 1.136 | 0.01932 | | 23 | 1.165 | 0.01865 | | 24 | 1.195 | 0.01792 | | | | | | Year 3 | 1.369 | 0.16839 | | 4 | 1.204 | 0.10114 | | 5 | 1.199 | 0.07434 | | 6 and later | 1.000 | ** |
*The adjusted termination rates derived from the application of the adjustment factors to the DTS valuation table termination rates shown in exhibits 3a, 3b, 3c, 4, and 5 (transactions of the society of actuaries (TSA) XXXVII, pages 457 to 463) is displayed. The adjustment factors for age, elimination period, class, sex, and cause displayed in exhibits 3a, 3b, 3c, and 4 should be applied to the adjusted termination rates shown in this table.
**Applicable DTS valuation table duration rate from exhibits 3c and 4 (TSA XXXVII, pages 462 to 463).
The 85CIDA table so adjusted for the computation of claim reserves shall be known as 85CIDC (the 1985 commissioners individual disability table C).
(iii) For claims incurred on or after January 1, 2020, the 2013 IDI valuation table with modifiers and adjustments for company experience as prescribed in actuarial guideline L, as included in the 2019 version of the NAIC accounting practices and procedures manual, except for worksite disability insurance policies with benefit periods of twenty-four months or less.
For worksite franchise disability insurance policies with benefit periods of twenty-four months or less, claim reserves may be calculated using claim run-out analysis or claim triangles, or other methods that place a sound value on the reserves that are appropriate for the business and risks involved.
(ii) Hospital benefits, surgical benefits and maternity benefits (scheduled benefits or fixed time period benefits only).
(a) Contract reserves:
(i) Contracts issued on or after January 1, 1955, and prior to January 1, 1982:
The 1956 intercompany hospital-surgical tables.
(ii) Contracts issued on or after January 1, 1982:
The 1974 medical expense tables, table A, TSA XXX, page 63. Refer to the paper (in the same volume, page 9) to which this table is appended, including its discussions, for methods of adjustment for benefits not directly valued in table A: development of the 1974 medical expense benefits, Houghton and Wolf.
(b) Claim reserves:
Standards are based on paragraphs (E)(4) and (E)(5) of this rule.
(iii) Cancer expense benefits:
(a) Contract reserves:
(i) Contract issued on or after January 1, 1986 and prior to January 1, 2019:
The 1985 NAIC cancer claim cost tables (1985 CCCT).
(ii) Contracts issued on or after January 1, 2019:
(A) For first occurrence and hospitalization benefits:
The 2016 NAIC cancer claim cost valuation tables (2016 CCCVT);
(B) For all other benefits:
Assumptions based on company experience, relevant industry experience, and actuarial judgement. Such assumptions should be appropriate for valuation which considers a margin for adverse experience.
(b) Claim reserves:
No specific standard. See paragraph (I)(1)(a)(vi) of this rule.
(iv) Accidental death benefits.
(a) Contract reserves:
Contracts issued on or after January 1, 1965:
The 1959 accidental death benefits table.
(b) Claim reserves:
Actual amount incurred.
(v) Single premium credit disability.
(a) Contract reserves:
(i) For contracts issued prior to January 1, 2004, each insurer may elect either paragraph (I)(1)(a)(v)(a)(i)(A) or (I)(1)(a)(v)(a)(i)(B) of this rule to use as the minimum standard. Once an insurer elects to calculate reserves for all contracts on the standard defined in paragraph (I)(1)(a)(v)(a)(i) of this rule, all future valuations must be on that basis.
(A) The minimum morbidity standard in effect for contract reserves on currently issued contracts, as of the date the contract was issued; or
(B) The standard as defined in paragraph (I)(1)(a)(v)(a)(ii) of this rule, applied to all contracts.
(ii) For contracts issued on or after January 1, 2004:
(A) For plans having less than a thirty day elimination period, the 1985 commissioners individual disability table A (85CIDA) with claim incidence rates increased by twelve per cent.
(B) For plans having a thirty day and greater elimination period, the 85CIDA for a fourteen day elimination period with claim incidence rates increased by twelve per cent.
(b) Claim reserves:
Claim reserves are to be determined as provided in (paragraphs (E)(4) and (E)(5) of this rule.
(vi) Other individual contract benefits.
(a) Contract reserves:
For all other individual contract benefits, morbidity assumptions are to be determined as provided in the reserve standards.
(b) Claim reserves:
For all benefits other than disability income insurance, claim reserves are to be determined as provided in the standards.
(b) Minimum morbidity standards for valuation of specified group contract health insurance benefits are as follows:
(i) Disability income insurance benefits due to accident or sickness, where this rule references this paragraph (I)(1)(b)(i) of this rule, paragraphs (I)(1)(b)(i)(a) and (I)(1)(b)(i)(b) of this rule apply; otherwise actuarial guideline XLVII, as included in the 2019 version of the NAIC accounting practices and procedures manual.
(a) Contract reserves:
(i) Contracts issued prior to January 1, 1992:
The same basis, if any, as that employed by the insurer as of January 1, 1992.
(ii) Contracts issued on or after January 1, 1992:
The 1987 commissioners group disability income table (87CGDT).
(b) Claim reserves:
(i) For claims incurred on or after January 1, 1992:
The 1987 commissioners group disability income table (87CGDT).
(ii) For claims incurred prior to January 1, 1992:
Use of the 87CGDT is optional.
(ii) Single premium credit disability
(a) Contract reserves:
(i) For contracts issued prior to January 1, 2004, each insurer may elect either paragraph (I)(1)(b)(ii)(a)(i)(A) or (I)(1)(b)(ii)(a)(i)(B) of this rule to use as the minimum standard. Once an insurer elects to calculate reserves for all contracts on the standard defined in paragraph (I)(1)(b)(ii)(a)(ii) of this rule, all future valuations must be on that basis.
(A) The minimum morbidity standard in effect for contract reserves on currently issued contracts, as of the date the contract was issued; or
(B) The standard as defined in paragraph (I)(1)(b)(ii)(a)(ii) of this rule, applied to all contracts.
(ii) For contracts issued on or after January 1, 2004:
(A) For plans having less than a thirty day elimination period, the 1985 commissioners individual disability table A (85CIDA) with claim incidence rates increased by twelve per cent.
(B) For plans having a thirty day and greater elimination period, the 85CIDA for a fourteen day elimination period with the adjustment in paragraph (I)(1)(b)(ii)(a)(i)(A) of this rule.
(b) Claim reserves:
Claim reserves are to be determined as provided in paragraphs (E)(4) and (E)(5) of this rule.
(iii) Other group contract benefits.
(a) Contract reserves:
For all other group contract benefits, morbidity assumptions are to be determined as provided in the reserve standards.
(b) Claim reserves:
For all benefits other than disability income insurance, claim reserves are to be determined as provided in the standards.
(2) Interest
(a) For contract reserves the maximum interest rate is the maximum rate permitted by law in the valuation of whole life insurance issued on the same date as the health insurance contract.
(b) For claim reserves on policies that require contract reserves, the maximum interest rate is the maximum rate permitted by law in the valuation of whole life insurance issued on the same date as the claim incurral date.
(c) For claim reserves on policies not requiring contract reserves, the maximum interest rate is the maximum rate permitted by law in the valuation of single premium immediate annuities issued on the same date as the claim incurral date, reduced by one hundred basis points.
(3) Mortality
(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (I)(3)(b) and (I)(3)(c) of this rule, the mortality basis used for all policies, except long-term care individual policies and group certificates and for long-term care individual policies or group certificates issued prior to January 1, 2004 shall be according to a table (but without use of selection factors) permitted by law for the valuation of whole life insurance issued on the same date as the health insurance contract. For long-term care insurance individual policies or group certificates issued on or after January 1, 2004, the mortality basis used shall be the 1983 group annuity mortality table without projection. For long-term care insurance individual policies or group certificates issued on or after January 1, 2011, the mortality basis used shall be the 1994 group annuity mortality static table.
(b) Other mortality tables adopted by the NAIC and promulgated by the superintendent may be used in the calculation of the minimum reserves if appropriate for the type of benefits and if approved by the superintendent. The request for such approval must include the proposed mortality table and the reason that the standard specified in paragraph (I)(3)(a) of this rule is inappropriate.
(c) For single premium credit insurance using the 85CIDA table, no separate mortality shall be assumed.
(J) Reserves for waiver of premium
(1) Waiver of premium reserves involve several special considerations. First, the disability valuation tables promulgated by the NAIC are based on exposures that include contracts on premium waiver as in-force contracts. Hence, contract reserves based on these tables are not reserves on active lives but rather reserves on contracts in force. This is true for the 1964 CDT and for both the 1985 CIDA and CIDB tables.
(2) Accordingly, tabular reserves using any of these tables should value reserves on the following basis:
(a) Claim reserves should include reserves for premiums expected to be waived, valuing as a minimum the valuation net premium being waived;
(b) Premium reserves should include contracts on premium waiver as in-force contracts, valuing as a minimum the unearned modal valuation net premium being waived; and
(c) Contract reserves should include recognition of the waiver of premium benefit in addition to other contract benefits provided for, valuing as a minimum the valuation net premium to be waived.
(3) If an insurer is, instead, valuing reserves on what is truly an active life table, or if a specific valuation table is not being used but the insurer's gross premiums are calculated on a basis that includes in the projected exposure only those contracts for which premiums are being paid, then it may not be necessary to provide specifically for waiver of premium reserves. Any insurer using such a true active life basis should carefully consider, however, whether or not additional liability should be recognized on account of premiums waived during periods of disability or during claim continuation.
(K) Severability
If any paragraph, term or provision of this rule is adjudged invalid for any reason, the judgment shall not affect, impair or invalidate any other paragraph, term or provision of this rule, but the remaining paragraphs, terms, and provisions shall continue in full force and effect.
Last updated February 14, 2022 at 8:55 AM
History
- Effective: February 14, 2022
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-6-04
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to provide rules for life insurance policy illustrations that will protect consumers and foster consumer education. The rule provides illustration formats, prescribes standards to be followed when illustrations are used, and specifies the disclosures that are required in connection with illustrations. The goals of this rule are to ensure that illustrations do not mislead purchasers of life insurance and to make illustrations more understandable. Insurers will, as far as possible, eliminate the use of footnotes and caveats and define terms used in the illustration in language that would be understood by a typical person within the segment of the public to which the illustration is directed.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041 and 3901.21 of the Revised Code.
(C) Scope
This rule applies to all group and individual life insurance policies and certificates except:
(1) Variable life insurance;
(2) Individual and group annuity contracts;
(3) Credit life insurance; or
(4) Life insurance policies with illustrated death benefits on any individual not exceeding ten thousand dollars.
(D) Definitions
(1) "Actuarial Standards Board" means the board established by the American academy of actuaries to develop and promulgate standards of actuarial practice.
(2) "Contract premium" means the gross premium that is required to be paid under a fixed premium policy, including the premium for a rider for which benefits are shown in the illustration.
(3) "Currently payable scale" means a scale of non-guaranteed elements in effect for a policy form as of the preparation date of the illustration or declared to become effective within the next ninety-five days.
(4) "Disciplined current scale" means a scale of non-guaranteed elements constituting a limit on illustrations currently being illustrated by an insurer that is reasonably based on actual recent historical experience, as certified annually by an illustration actuary designated by the insurer. Further guidance in determining the disciplined current scale as contained in standards established by the actuarial standards board may be relied upon if the standards:
(a) Are consistent with all provisions of this rule;
(b) Limit a disciplined current scale to reflect only actions that have already been taken or events that have already occurred;
(c) Do not permit a disciplined current scale to include any projected trends of improvements in experience or any assumed improvements in experience beyond the illustration date; and
(d) Do not permit assumed expenses to be less than minimum assumed expenses.
(5) "Generic name" means a short title descriptive of the policy being illustrated such as "whole life," "term life," or "flexible premium adjustable life."
(6) "Guaranteed elements" and "non-guaranteed elements".
(a) "Guaranteed elements" means the premiums, benefits, values, credits or charges under a policy of life insurance that are guaranteed and determined at issue.
(b) "Non-guaranteed elements" means the premiums, benefits, values, credits or charges under a policy of life insurance that are not guaranteed or not determined at issue.
(7) "Illustrated scale" means a scale of non-guaranteed elements currently being illustrated that is not more favorable to the policy owner than the lesser of:
(a) The disciplined current scale; or
(b) The currently payable scale.
(8) "Illustration" means a presentation or depiction that includes non-guaranteed elements of a policy of life insurance over a period of years and that is one of the three types defined as followed:
(a) "Basic illustration" means a ledger of proposal used in the sale of a life insurance policy that shows both guaranteed and non-guaranteed elements.
(b) "Supplemental illustration" means an illustration furnished in addition to a basic illustration that meets the applicable requirements of this rule, and that may be presented in a format differing from the basic illustration, but may only depict a scale of non-guaranteed elements that is permitted in a basic illustration.
(c) "In force illustration" means an illustration furnished at any time after the policy that it depicts has been in force for one year or more.
(9) "Illustration actuary" means an actuary meeting the requirements of paragraph (K) of this rule who certifies to illustrations based on the standard of practice promulgated by the actuarial standards board.
(10) "Lapse-supported illustration" means an illustration of a policy form failing the test of self-supporting as defined in this rule, under a modified persistency rate assumption using persistency rates underlying the disciplined current scale for the first five years and one hundred per cent policy persistency thereafter.
(11)
(a) "Minimum assumed expenses" means the minimum expenses that may be used in the calculation of the disciplined current scale for a policy form. The insurer may choose to designate each year the method of determining assumed expenses for all policy forms from the following:
(i) Fully allocated expenses;
(ii) Marginal expenses; and
(iii) A generally recognized expense table based on fully allocated expenses representing a significant portion of insurance companies and approved by the national association of insurance commissioners (NAIC) or by the superintendent.
(b) Marginal expenses may be used only if greater than a generally recognized expense table. If no generally recognized expense table is approved, fully allocated expenses must be used.
(12) "Non-term group life" means a group policy or individual policies of life insurance issued to members of an employer group or other permitted group where:
(a) Every plan of coverage was selected by the employer or other group representative;
(b) Some portion of the premium is paid by the group or through payroll deduction; and
(c) Group underwriting or simplified underwriting is used.
(13) "Policy owner" means the owner named in the policy or the certificate holder in the case of a group policy.
(14) "Premium outlay" means the amount of premium assumed to be paid out-of-pocket by the policy owner or other premium payer.
(15) "Self-supporting illustration" means an illustration of a policy form for which it can be demonstrated that, when using experience assumptions underlying the disciplined current scale, for all illustrated points in time on or after the fifteenth policy anniversary or the twentieth policy anniversary for second-or-later-to-die policies (or upon policy expiration if sooner), the accumulated value of all policy cash flows equals or exceeds the total policy owner value available. For this purpose, policy owner value will include cash surrender values and any other illustrated benefit amounts available at the policy owner's election.
(E) Policies to be illustrated
(1) Each insurer marketing policies to which this rule is applicable shall notify the superintendent whether a policy form is to be marketed with or without an illustration. For all policy forms being actively marketed on the effective date of this rule, the insurer shall identify in writing those forms and whether or not an illustration will be used with them. For policy forms filed after the effective date of this regulation, the identification shall be made at the time of filing. Any previous identification may be changed by notice to the superintendent.
(2) If the insurer identifies a policy form as one to be marketed without an illustration, any use of an illustration for any policy using that form prior to the first policy anniversary is prohibited.
(3) If a policy form is identified by the insurer as one to be marketed with an illustration, a basic illustration prepared and delivered in accordance with this regulation is required, except that a basic illustration need not be provided to individual members of a group or to individuals insured under multiple lives coverage issued to a single applicant unless the coverage is marketed to these individuals. The illustration furnished to an applicant for a group life insurance policy or policies issued to a single applicant on multiple lives may be either an individual or composite illustration representative of the coverage on the lives of members of the group or the multiple lives covered.
(4) Potential enrollees of non-term group life subject to this rule shall be furnished a quotation with the enrollment materials. The quotation shall show potential policy values for sample ages and policy years on a guaranteed and non-guaranteed basis appropriate to the group and the coverage. This quotation shall not be considered an illustration for purposes of this rule, but all information provided shall be consistent with the illustrated scale. A basic illustration shall be provided at delivery of the certificate to enrollees for non-term group life who enroll for more than the minimum premium necessary to provide pure death benefit protection. The insurer shall make a basic illustration available to any non-term group life enrollee who requests it.
(F) General rules and prohibitions
(1) An illustration used in the sale of a life insurance policy shall satisfy the applicable requirements of this rule, be clearly labeled "life insurance illustration" and contain the following basic information:
(a) Name of insurer;
(b) Name and business address of agent or insurer's authorized representative, if any;
(c) Name, age and sex of proposed insured, except where a composite illustration is permitted under this rule;
(d) Underwriting or rating classification upon which the illustration is based;
(e) Generic name of policy, the company product name, if different, and form number;
(f) Initial death benefit; and
(g) Dividend option election or application of non-guaranteed elements, if applicable.
(2) When using an illustration in the sale of a life insurance policy, an insurer or its agents or other authorized representatives shall not:
(a) Represent the policy as anything other than a life insurance policy;
(b) Use or describe non-guaranteed elements in a manner that is misleading or has the capacity or tendency to mislead;
(c) State or imply that the payment or amount of non-guaranteed elements is guaranteed;
(d) Use an illustration that does not comply with the requirements of this rule;
(e) Use an illustration that at any policy duration depicts policy performance more favorable to the policy owner than that produced by the illustrated scale of the insurer whose policy is being illustrated;
(f) Provide an applicant with an incomplete illustration;
(g) Represent in any way that premium payments will not be required for each year of the policy in order to maintain the illustrated death benefits, unless that is the fact;
(h) Use the term "vanish" of "vanishing premium," or a similar term that implies the policy becomes paid up, to describe a plan for using non-guaranteed elements to pay a portion of future premiums;
(i) Except for policies that can never develop nonforfeiture values, use an illustration that is "lapse-supported"; or
(j) Use an illustration that is not "self-supporting."
(3) If an interest rate used to determine the illustrated non-guaranteed elements is shown, it shall not be greater than the earned interest rate underlying the disciplined current scale.
(G) Standards for basic illustrations
(1) Format. A basic illustration shall conform with the following requirements:
(a) The illustration shall be labeled with the date on which it was prepared.
(b) Each page, including any explanatory notes or pages, shall be numbered and show its relationship to the total number of pages in the illustration (e.g., the fourth page of a seven-page illustration shall be labeled "page 4 of 7 pages").
(c) The assumed dates of payment receipt and benefit pay-out within a policy year shall be clearly identified.
(d) If the age of the proposed insured is shown as a component of the tabular detail, it shall be issue age plus the number of years the policy is assumed to have been in force.
(e) The assumed payments on which the illustrated benefits and values are based shall be identified as premium outlay or contract premium, as applicable. For policies that do not require a specific contract premium, the illustrated payments shall be identified as premium outlay.
(f) Guaranteed death benefits and values available upon surrender, if any, for the illustrated premium outlay or contract premium shall be shown and clearly labeled guaranteed.
(g) If the illustration shows any non-guaranteed elements, they cannot be based on a scale more favorable to the policy owner than the insurer's illustrated scale at any duration. These elements shall be clearly labeled non-guaranteed.
(h) The guaranteed elements, if any, shall be shown before corresponding non-guaranteed elements and shall be specifically referred to on any page of an illustration that shows or describes only the non-guaranteed elements (e.g., "see page one for guaranteed elements.")
(i) The account or accumulation value of a policy, if shown, shall be identified by the name this value is given in the policy being illustrated and shown in close proximity to the corresponding value available upon surrender.
(j) The value available upon surrender shall be identified by the name this value is given in the policy being illustrated and shall be the amount available to the policy owner in a lump sum after deduction of surrender charges, policy loans and policy loan interest, as applicable.
(k) Illustrations may show policy benefits and values in graphic or chart form in addition to the tabular form.
(l) Any illustration of non-guaranteed elements shall be accompanied by a statement indicating that:
(i) The benefits and values are not guaranteed;
(ii) The assumptions on which they are based are subject to change by the insurer; and
(iii) Actual results may be more or less favorable.
(m) If the illustration shows that the premium payer may have the option to allow policy charges to be paid using non-guaranteed values, the illustration must clearly disclose that a charge continues to be required and that, depending on actual results, the premium payer may need to continue or resume premium outlays. Similar disclosure shall be made for premium outlay of lesser amounts or shorter durations than the contract premium. If a contract premium is due, the premium outlay display shall not be left blank or show zero unless accompanied by an asterisk or similar mark with an explanation that the policy is not paid up.
(n) If the applicant plans to use dividends or policy values, guaranteed or non-guaranteed, to pay all or a portion of the contract premium or policy charges, or for any other purpose, the illustration may reflect those plans and the impact on future policy benefits and values.
(2) Narrative summary. A basic illustration shall include the following:
(a) A brief description of the policy being illustrated, including a statement that it is a life insurance policy;
(b) A brief description of the premium outlay or contract premium, as applicable, for the policy. For a policy that does not require payment of a specific contract premium, the illustration shall show the premium outlay that must be paid to guarantee coverage for the term of the contract, subject to maximum premiums allowable to qualify as a life insurance policy under the applicable provisions of the Internal Revenue Code;
(c) A brief description of any policy features, riders, or options, guaranteed or non-guaranteed, shown in the basic illustration and the impact they may have on the benefits and values of the policy;
(d) Identification and a brief definition of column headings and key terms used in the illustration; and
(e) A statement containing the following: "this illustration assumes that the currently illustrated non-guaranteed elements used will not change for all years shown. This is not likely to occur, and actual results may be more or less favorable than those shown."
(3) Numeric summary.
(a) Following the narrative summary, a basic illustration shall include a numeric summary of the death benefits and values and the premium outlay and contract premium, as applicable. For a policy that provides for a contract premium, the guaranteed death benefits and values shall be based on the contract premium. This summary shall be shown for at least policy years five, ten and twenty, and at age seventy, if applicable, on the three bases shown in this paragraph. For multiple life policies the summary shall show policy years five, ten, twenty and thirty.
(i) Policy guarantees;
(ii) Insurer's illustrated scale;
(iii) Insurer's illustrated scale used but with the non-guaranteed elements reduced as follows:
(a) Dividends at fifty per cent of the dividends contained in the illustrated scale used;
(b) Non-guaranteed credited interest at rates that are the average of the guaranteed rates and the rates contained in the illustrated scale used; and
(c) All non-guaranteed charges, including but not limited to, term insurance charges, mortality and expense charges, at rates that are the average of the guaranteed rates and the rates contained in the illustrated scale used.
(b) In addition, if coverage would cease prior to policy maturity or age one hundred, the year in which coverage ceases shall be identified for each of the three bases.
(4) Statements. Statements substantially similar to the following shall be included on the same page as the numeric summary and signed by the applicant, or the policy owner in the case of an illustration provided at time of delivery, as required in this rule.
(a) A statement to be signed and dated by the applicant or policy owner reading as follows: "I have received a copy of this illustration and understand that any non-guaranteed elements illustrated are subject to change and could be either higher or lower. The agent has told me they are not guaranteed."
(b) A statement to be signed and dated by the insurance agent or other authorized representative of the insurer reading as follows: "I certify that this illustration has been presented to the applicant and that I have explained that any non-guaranteed elements illustrated are subject to change. I have made no statements that are inconsistent with the illustration."
(5) Tabular detail.
(a) A basic illustration shall include the following for at least each policy year from one to ten and for every fifth policy year thereafter ending at age one hundred, policy maturity or final expiration; and except for term insurance beyond the twentieth year, for any year in which the premium outlay and contract premium, if applicable, is to change:
(i) The premium outlay and mode the applicant plans to pay and the contract premium, as applicable;
(ii) The corresponding guaranteed death benefit, as provided in the policy; and
(iii) The corresponding guaranteed value available upon surrender, as provided in the policy.
(b) For a policy that provides for a contract premium, the guaranteed death benefit and value available upon surrender, shall correspond to the period of time (policy year) for which the contract premium has been paid.
(c) Non-guaranteed elements may be shown if described in the contract. In the case of an illustration for a policy on which the insurer intends to credit terminal dividends, they may be shown if the insurer's current practice is to pay terminal dividends. If any non-guaranteed elements are shown they must be shown at the same durations as the corresponding guaranteed elements, if any. If no guaranteed benefit or value is available at any duration for which a non-guaranteed benefit or value is shown, a zero shall be displayed in the guaranteed column.
(H) Standards for supplemental illustrations
(1) A supplemental illustration may be provided so long as:
(a) It is appended to, accompanied by or preceded by a basic illustration that complies with this rule;
(b) The non-guaranteed elements shown are not more favorable to the policy owner than the corresponding elements based on the scale used in the basic illustration;
(c) It contains the same statement required of a basic illustration that non-guaranteed elements are not guaranteed; and
(d) For a policy that has a contract premium, the contract premium underlying the supplemental illustration is equal to the contract premium shown in the basic illustration. For policies that do not require a contract premium, the premium outlay underlying the supplemental illustration shall be equal to the premium outlay shown in the basic illustration.
(2) The supplemental illustration shall include a notice referring to the basic illustration for guaranteed elements and other important information.
(I) Delivery of illustration and record retention
(1)
(a) If a basic illustration is used by an insurance agent or other authorized representative of the insurer in the sale of a life insurance policy and the policy is applied for as illustrated, a copy of that illustration, signed in accordance with this rule, shall be submitted to the insurer at the time of policy application. A copy also shall be provided to the applicant.
(b) If the policy is issued other than as applied for, a revised basic illustration conforming to the policy as issued shall be sent with the policy. The revised illustration shall conform to the requirements of this rule, shall be labeled "Revised Illustration" and shall be signed and dated by the applicant or policy owner and agent or other authorized representative of the insurer no later than the time the policy is delivered. A copy shall be provided to the insurer and the policy owner.
(2)
(a) If no illustration is used by an insurance agent or other authorized representative of the insurer in the sale of a life insurance policy or if the policy is applied for other than as illustrated, the agent or representative shall certify to that effect in writing on a form provided by the insurer. On the same form the applicant shall acknowledge that no illustration conforming to the policy applied for was provided and shall further acknowledge an understanding that an illustration conforming to the policy as issued will be provided no later than at the time of policy delivery. This form shall be submitted to the insurer at the time of policy application.
(b) If the policy is issued, a basic illustration conforming to the policy as issued shall be sent with the policy and signed no later than the time the policy is delivered. A copy shall be provided to the insurer and the policy owner.
(3) If the basic illustration or revised illustration is sent to the applicant or policy owner by mail from the insurer, it shall include instructions for the applicant or policy owner to sign the duplicate copy of the numeric summary page of the illustration for the policy issued and return the signed copy to the insurer. The insurer's obligation under this paragraph shall be satisfied if it can demonstrate that it has made a diligent effort to secure a signed copy of the numeric summary page. The requirement to make a diligent effort shall be deemed satisfied if the insurer includes in the mailing a self-addressed postage prepaid envelope with instructions for the return of the signed numeric summary page.
(4) A copy of the basic illustration and a revised basic illustration, if any, signed as applicable, along with any certification that either no illustration was used or that the policy was applied for other than as illustrated, shall be retained by the insurer until three years after the policy is no longer in force. A copy need not be retained if no policy is issued.
(J) Annual report; notice to policy owners
(1) In the case of a policy designated as one for which illustrations will be used, the insurer shall provide each policy owner with an annual report on the status of the policy that shall contain at least the following information;
(a) For universal life policies, the report shall include the following:
(i) The beginning and end date of the current report period;
(ii) The policy value at the end of the previous report period and at the end of the current report period;
(iii) The total amounts that have been credited or debited to the policy value during the current report period, identifying each by type (e.g., interest, mortality, expense and riders);
(iv) The current death benefit at the end of the current report period on each life covered by the policy;
(v) The net cash surrender value of the policy as of the end of the current report period;
(vi) The amount of outstanding loans, if any, as of the end of the current report period; and
(vii) For fixed premium policies:
If, assuming guaranteed interest, mortality and expense loads and continued scheduled premium payments, the policy's net cash surrender value is such that it would not maintain insurance in force until the end of the next reporting period, a notice to this effect shall be included in the report; or
(viii) For flexible premium policies:
If, assuming guaranteed interest, mortality and expense loads, the policy's net cash surrender value will not maintain insurance in force until the end of the next reporting period unless further premium payments are made, a notice to this effect shall be included in the report.
(b) For all other policies, where applicable:
(i) Current death benefit;
(ii) Annual contract premium;
(iii) Current cash surrender value;
(iv) Current dividend;
(v) Application of current dividend; and
(vi) Amount of outstanding loan.
(c) Insurers writing life insurance policies that do not build nonforfeiture values shall only be required to provide an annual report with respect to these policies for those years when a change has been made to non-guaranteed policy elements by the insurer.
(2) If the annual report does not include an in force illustration, it shall contain the following notice displayed prominently: "IMPORTANT POLICY OWNER NOTICE: you should consider requesting more detailed information about your policy to understand how it may perform in the future. You should not consider replacement of your policy or make changes in your coverage without requesting a current illustration. You may annually request, without charge, such an illustration by calling [insurer's phone number], writing to [insurer's name] at [insurer's address] or contacting your agent. If you do not receive a current illustration of your policy within thirty days from your request, you should contact your state insurance department." The insurer may vary the sequential order of the methods for obtaining an in force illustration.
(3) Upon the request of the policy owner, the insurer shall furnish an in force illustration of current and future benefits and values based on the insurer's present illustrated scale. This illustration shall comply with the requirements of paragraphs (F)(1), (F)(2), (G)(1) and (G)(5) of this rule. No signature or other acknowledgment of receipt of this illustration shall be required.
(4) If an adverse change in non-guaranteed elements that could affect the policy has been made by the insurer since the last annual report, the annual report shall contain a notice of that fact and the nature of the change prominently displayed.
(K) Annual certifications
(1) The board of directors of each insurer shall appoint one or more illustration actuaries.
(2) The illustration actuary shall certify that the disciplined current scale used in illustrations is in conformity with actuarial standard of practice no. 24, compliance with the NAIC life insurance illustrations model regulation, promulgated by the actuarial standards board in December 2016, and that the illustrated scales used in insurer-authorized illustrations meet the requirements of this rule.
(3) The illustration actuary shall:
(a) Be a member of the American academy of actuaries and qualified to provide such certifications as described in the U.S. qualifications standards promulgated by the American academy of actuaries pursuant to the code of professional conduct;
(b) Be familiar with the standard of practice regarding life insurance policy illustrations;
(c) Not have been found by the superintendent, following appropriate notice and hearing to have:
(i) Violated any provision of, or any obligation imposed by, the insurance law or other law in the course of actuary's dealings as an illustration actuary;
(ii) Been found guilty of fraudulent or dishonest practices;
(iii) Demonstrated the actuary's incompetence, lack of cooperation, or untrustworthiness to act as an illustration actuary; or
(iv) Resigned or been removed as an illustration actuary within the past five years as a result of acts or omissions indicated in any adverse report on examination or as a result of a failure to adhere to generally acceptable actuarial standards;
(d) Not fail to notify the superintendent of any action taken by a commissioner of another state similar to that under paragraph (K)(3)(c) of this rule;
(e) Disclose in the annual certification whether, since the last certification, a currently payable scale applicable for business issued within the previous five years and within the scope of the certification has been reduced for reasons other than changes in the experience factors underlying the disciplined current scale. If non-guaranteed elements illustrated for new policies are not consistent with those illustrated for similar in force policies, this must be disclosed in the annual certification. If non-guaranteed elements illustrated for both new and in force policies are not consistent with the non-guaranteed elements actually being paid, charged or credited to the same or similar forms, this must be disclosed in the annual certification; and
(f) Disclose in the annual certification the method used to allocate overhead expenses for all illustrations:
(i) Fully allocated expenses;
(ii) Marginal expenses; or
(iii) A generally recognized expense table based on fully allocated expenses representing a significant portion of insurance companies and approved by the NAIC or by the superintendent.
(4)
(a) The illustration actuary shall file a certification with the board and with the superintendent:
(i) Annually for all policy forms for which illustrations are used; and
(ii) Before a new policy form is illustrated.
(b) If an error in a previous certification is discovered, the illustration actuary shall promptly notify the board of directors of the insurer and the superintendent.
(5) If an illustration actuary is unable to certify the scale for any policy form illustration the insurer intends to use, the actuary shall promptly notify the board of directors of the insurer and the superintendent of the actuary's inability to certify.
(6) A responsible officer of the insurer, other than the illustration actuary, shall certify annually:
(a) That the illustration formats meet the requirements of this rule and that the scales used in the insurer-authorized illustrations are those scales certified by the illustration actuary; and
(b) That the company has provided its agents with information about the expense allocation method used by the company in its illustrations and disclosed as required in paragraph (K)(3)(f) of this rule.
(7) The annual certifications shall be provided to the superintendent each year by a date determined by the insurer.
(8) If an insurer changes the illustration actuary responsible for all or a portion of the company's policy forms, the insurer shall promptly notify the superintendent of that fact and disclose the reason for the change.
(L) Penalties
In addition to any other penalties provided by the laws of this state, an insurer, agent, or authorized representative of the insurer that violates a requirement of this rule shall be guilty of a violation of section 3901.21 of the Revised Code.
(M) Severability
If any paragraph, term or provision of this rule is adjudged invalid for any reason, the judgment shall not affect, impair or invalidate any other paragraph, term or provision of this rule, but the remaining paragraphs, terms and provisions shall be and continue in full force and effect.
(N) Effective date
This rule shall apply to policies illustrated or written with an application date on or after the effective date.
Last updated November 17, 2022 at 8:53 AM
History
- Effective: November 17, 2022
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-4-02 Long-term care partnership program.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to implement a state long-term care partnership program in Ohio in accordance with sections 3923.41 to 3923.49 and 5164.86 of the Revised Code.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041, 3923.44, and 3923.47 of the Revised Code.
(C) Applicability
This rule applies to long-term care insurance that is intended to qualify under the state's long-term care partnership program.
(D) Definitions
For purposes of this rule, the definitions set forth in section 3923.41 of the Revised Code and in rule 3901-4-01 of the Administrative Code have the same meaning as if such definitions were fully set forth herein. The term "policy" also includes a certificate issued as evidence of coverage under a group insurance policy.
(E) Offers of exchange
(1) Within one hundred eighty days of the date that an insurer begins to advertise, market, offer, sell or issue policies that qualify under the state long-term care partnership program, the insurer shall offer, on a one time basis, in writing, to all existing policyholders and certificate holders that were issued long-term care coverage by the insurer on or after August 12, 2002, the option to exchange their existing long-term care coverage for coverage that is intended to qualify under the state's long-term care partnership program (partnership plan). The written offer of exchange may be in electronic or paper copy form and shall include a long-term care partnership program exchange notification, appendix A to this rule, or a form that is substantially similar in content.
(2) An exchange occurs when an insurer offers a policyholder or certificate holder (hereinafter "insured") the option to replace an existing long-term care insurance policy with a policy that qualifies as a partnership plan, and the insured accepts the offer to terminate the existing policy and accepts the new policy. In making an offer to exchange, an insurer shall comply with all of the following requirements:
(a) The offer is made on a nondiscriminatory basis without regard to the age or health status of the insured;
(b) The offer remains open for a minimum of ninety days from the date of electronic transmission or paper copy mailing by the insurer;
(c) At the time the offer is made, the insurer provides the insured a copy of appendix A to this rule or a form that is substantially similar in content; and
(d) The offer and the materials required in paragraph (E)(2)(c) of this rule are accessible to insureds in paper copy form upon request.
(3) Notwithstanding paragraphs (E)(1) and (E)(2) of this rule,
(a) An offer to exchange may be deferred for any insured who is currently eligible for benefits under an existing policy or who is subject to an elimination period on a claim, but such deferral shall continue only as long as such eligibility or elimination period exists; and
(b) An offer to exchange does not have to be made if the insured would be required to purchase additional benefits to qualify for the state long-term care partnership program and the insured is not eligible to purchase the additional benefits under the insurer's new business, long-term care, underwriting guidelines.
(4) If the new policy has an actuarial value of benefits equal to or lesser than the actuarial value of benefits of the existing policy, then all of the following apply:
(a) The new policy shall not be underwritten; and
(b) The rate charged for the new policy is determined using the original issue age and risk class of the insured that was used to determine the rate of the existing policy.
(5) If the new policy has an actuarial value of benefits exceeding the actuarial value of the benefits of the existing policy, then all of the following apply:
(a) The insurer applies its new business, long-term care, underwriting guidelines to the increased benefits only; and
(b) The rate charged for the new policy is determined using the method set forth in paragraph (E)(4)(b) of this rule for the existing benefits, increased by the rate for the increased benefits using the then current attained age and risk class of the insured for the increased benefits only.
(6)
(a) The new policy offered in an exchange shall be on a form that is currently offered for sale by the insurer in the general market and the effective date of the partnership plan policy is the same as the new policy.
(b) For purposes of implementing the exchange requirement set forth in paragraph (E)(1) of this rule, an insurer may also implement exchanges via any policy form that the superintendent has approved as being partnership-qualified, even if that long-term care insurance policy form is no longer offered or marketed. The superintendent may, at the superintendent's sole discretion, extend the one hundred eighty day time period referenced in paragraph (E)(1) of this rule to allow for implementation of exchanges on a long-term care insurance policy form no longer offered or marketed.
(7) In the event of an exchange, the insured shall not lose any rights, benefits or built-up value that has accrued under the original policy with respect to the benefits provided under the original policy, including, but not limited to, rights established because of the lapse of time related to pre-existing condition exclusions, elimination periods, or incontestability clauses.
(8) Insurers may complete an exchange by: issuing a new policy; amending an existing policy with an endorsement or rider; or revising the schedule of benefits.
(9) The requirements of rule 3901-4-01 of the Administrative Code shall apply to exchanges including, but not limited to, the requirements relating to suitability. However, policies issued pursuant to this rule shall not be considered replacements if issued by the same insurer that issued the existing policy and shall therefore not be subject to paragraphs (N) and (O) in rule 3901-4-01 of the Administrative Code replacement standards.
(10) The offer of exchange required by paragraph (E) of this rule only applies to products issued by an insurer that are comparable to the types of policy forms (e.g. group policies or individual policies) offered by the insurer which are qualified as partnership plans. For example, if an insurer offers a comprehensive individual long-term care insurance policy qualified as a partnership plan, it is only required to offer exchanges to comprehensive individual long-term care insurance policyholders who were issued coverage on or after August 12, 2002. In this example, since only an individual policy is qualified as a partnership plan, exchange offers would not be required to be made to group certificate holders under a group policy.
(11) For those insureds with long-term care insurance policies issued before August 12, 2002, any insurer may offer any insured an option to exchange an existing policy for a policy that qualifies as a state long-term care insurance partnership plan. The requirements set forth in paragraphs (E)(2) to (E)(9) of this rule apply to any such exchange.
(F) Filing requirements for long-term care insurance partnership program policies.
(1) Any policy that is intended to qualify as a partnership plan must be filed with the superintendent in accordance with section 3923.02 of the Revised Code prior to use, and such filing shall include the partnership program certification form attached as appendix B to this rule, signed by an officer of the company.
(2) Insurers intending to make use of a previously filed qualifying partnership policy shall submit to the superintendent a partnership program certification form (appendix B to this rule) signed by an officer of the company with respect to each such policy form filed. For each policy form, the partnership program certification form (appendix B to this rule) shall identify the policy by the original form number and filing date.
(3) If an insurer intends to amend a previously filed policy with an endorsement or rider in order to bring the policy into compliance with the partnership program, the insurer shall file the endorsement or rider with the superintendent prior to use, and the filing shall include a partnership program certification form (appendix B to this rule) signed by an officer of the company for each policy to be amended by the endorsement or rider, which shall include the original form number and filing date of the previously filed policy.
(4) Insurers using appendix A or appendix C to this rule do not have to file the forms with the superintendent before use. However, if the insurer modifies the content of appendix A or appendix C to this rule or intends to use another form, even though substantially similar in content, the form must be filed with the superintendent before use.
(G) Modifications to inflation protection
Modification or elimination of inflation protection after the date of purchase as specified in divisions (O)(1) to (O)(3) of section 3923.44 of the Revised Code is not a change that affects the partnership qualified status of a policy that was qualified under the partnership program as of the date of issue.
(H) The partnership program disclosure form
For policies intended to qualify under the partnership program,
(1) The agent or insurer shall give the consumer a partnership disclosure notice, either using appendix C to this rule or a notice substantially similar in content, along with the outline of coverage required by division (I) of section 3923.44 of the Revised Code at the time of solicitation;
(2) In the case of a policy issued to a group where an outline of coverage is not delivered, the agent or insurer shall deliver copies of a partnership disclosure notice, either using appendix C to this rule or a notice substantially similar in content, along with the enrollment forms; or
(3) In the case of a life insurance policy that offers long-term care insurance as a term of the policy or in a rider, the agent or insurer shall give the consumer a partnership disclosure notice, either using appendix C to this rule or a notice substantially similar in content, along with the policy summary at the time of solicitation.
(4) In addition to assuring that either a copy of appendix C to this rule or a notice substantially similar in content is provided to the consumer at the time of the initial solicitation, or to the group at the time the enrollment forms are delivered, the insurer shall also assure that a copy of appendix C to this rule or a notice substantially similar in content, is provided no later than partnership policy delivery.
(I) Data reporting
Each insurer offering partnership program policies in this state shall make regular reports to the United States secretary of health and human services that include such information as required by law or as the secretary determines is appropriate for the administration of the partnership program.
(J) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
View AppendixView AppendixView Appendix
Last updated September 13, 2024 at 8:59 AM
History
- Effective: September 13, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-4-03 Retention of long-term care insurance education records.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to establish a record retention requirement for insurers that are to maintain records of their agents' initial training and continuing education concerning long-term care insurance under section 3923.443 of the Revised Code.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority stated in sections 3901.041, 3923.44, and 3923.47 of the Revised Code.
(C) Pursuant to section 3923.443 of the Revised Code, an insurer is required to obtain and maintain records that its agents have completed the initial training and continuing education requirements concerning long-term care insurance and partnership program policies. The superintendent may audit an insurer's records annually to verify compliance. Records required under section 3923.443 of the Revised Code or this rule must be maintained for not less than four years from the date of the particular initial training or continuing education.
(D) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated November 16, 2023 at 8:30 AM
History
- Effective: November 16, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Chapter 3901-5 Agents, Licensing, Continuing Education
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-5-01 Agent continuing education.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to establish continuing education (CE) requirements, standards, and procedures for insurance agents.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041, 3901.21, 3901.212, 3901.12, 3905.16, 3905.26, 3905.28, 3905.486, and 3905.95 of the Revised Code.
(C) License renewal period and CE transcripts
(1) The license renewal period is set forth in rule 3901-5-09 of the Administrative Code.
(2) After a major line and title agent's initial license expiration date, on-going renewal periods are the last day of an agent's birth month every two years thereafter.
(3) A renewal reminder notice will be sent to each agent at least one month prior to the agent's license expiration date using the email addresses reported on the agent's record.
(4) The superintendent will post continuing education transcripts on the department's web site or in the agent's on-line portal.
(5) The CE transcript will indicate a resident agent's compliance status for the required number of CE hours for that renewal period. It is the resident agent's responsibility to prove compliance with this rule and only request renewal of their license when they have successfully completed the required number of CE hours.
(6) No request for an extension or the inactivation, surrender, reinstatement, reactivation or late renewal of a license will be considered by the department unless the agent follows the procedures set forth in rule 3901-5-09 of the Administrative Code.
(7) An agent's failure to receive a renewal notice does not relieve the agent of their responsibility to timely complete CE requirements or to timely renew their license.
(8) The continuing education provider or the superintendent will post credits earned by the agent to the agent's record.
(D) Exemptions
The CE requirements contained in section 3905.481 of the Revised Code do not apply to the following agents:
(1) Agents who have been granted inactive status pursuant to section 3905.16 of the Revised Code.
(2) Agents who hold only a limited lines license(s).
(3) Agents who hold only a title insurance license, provided they complete at least twelve credits of approved CE during each renewal period, ten of which are directly related to the title insurance business and two of which are approved as ethics.
Agents who hold both a resident title and a resident major line license will have the same renewal period for both license types. The agent is required to complete twenty-four credits of CE, with at least ten credits designated as directly related to the title insurance business and at least three credits designated as directly related to ethics.
(4) Agents who hold only a resident surety bail bond license, provided they comply with the CE requirements as set forth in section 3905.88 of the Revised Code.
Agents who hold both a resident surety bail bond license and a resident major line license will have two separate renewal periods. With the exception of ethics, credits earned for the agent's major line license will not count towards the surety bail bond credit requirement. CE credits completed for the surety bail bond license will count towards the agent's major line general CE requirement.
(E) Credits
(1) CE credits from another state do not transfer to Ohio when a person moves to Ohio and becomes a resident agent in Ohio.
(2) Credit may be given for a course that has been filed according to the submission requirements of rule 3901-5-03 of the Administrative Code, but is held prior to the superintendent's written approval of that course by the superintendent, so long as written approval is granted.
(3) With the exception of association membership credit, any agent who completed a course more than once in a renewal period will only be given credit for the first time the course was completed.
(4) Partial credit, rounded down in one-hour increments, may be given for classroom and distance learning courses only at the provider's option.
(a) The provider may, but is not required to, give refunds for the portion of the course unattended. Paragraph (E)(7) of rule 3901-5-04 of the Administrative Code discusses requirements on refund disclosures.
(b) Patrial credit will only be given if the course participation fee is paid to the superintendent or its designee in the amount required as if the agent had attended the entire class.
(5) CE credit will only be provided if both the course and the provider are approved by the superintendent.
(6) Credit hours are considered earned on the date the agent completed the course, not the date that the credits are posted on the agent's record with the superintendent.
(7) Agents who complete more than the required number of credit hours in a renewal period may apply those credit hours to the next renewal period, not to exceed fifty per cent of the required credit hours for the next renewal period. Excess CE credit hours will be carried over as general credit hours.
(8) Credit hours earned within the agent's late renewal period pursuant to division (D) of section 3905.06 of the Revised Code, or the reinstatement period pursuant to division (E) of section 3905.06 of the Revised Code may be used to meet the requirements necessary to renew that license.
(F) Credit for publication, classroom instruction, and association membership
(1) An agent may receive up to ten hours of CE credit per renewal period for the publication of articles or books authored by such agent so long as the article or book is published in a generally known and recognized state or national publication and directly relate to the business of insurance. The extent to which such credit may be given is at the discretion of the superintendent. Requests for CE credit related to publication of articles or books will only be considered by the superintendent if it is made in writing and accompanied by proof of authorship and publication. Credit will be given only once for each approved article or book.
(2) CE credit may be allowed for the authors of written materials used in approved CE courses on a one-time per course basis equal to the number of CE credit hours for which the course was approved. If there are multiple authors of the written course materials, no author will receive more than their pro rata share as determined by the provider. The total number of hours received by all authors for a course cannot exceed the total number of hours for which the course is approved. Requests for CE credit related to written material used in an approved CE course will only be considered by the superintendent if it is made in writing accompanied by proof of authorship.
(3) Instructors for approved CE courses may receive CE credit for instructing courses. Credit may be given in an amount equal to two times the number of hours actually spent instructing a course. Credit will be given only once per course per renewal period.
(4) An agent who authors materials for an approved course and teaches the same course in a renewal period may receive credit for authoring the written materials or instructing the course, but not for both activities in any one renewal period, subject to paragraph (E)(3) of this rule.
(5) An agent may earn up to four CE credits per renewal period for membership and active participation in local, regional, state, or national professional insurance associations. Credits may be earned from the combination of different local, regional, state, or national professional insurance associations in which the agent holds a membership to reach the four-credit limit. The following are the minimum qualifications and limitations for earning association membership credit:
(a) The agent is a dues-paying member and in good standing with the local, regional, state, or national professional insurance association that is approved as a CE provider and has a course specifically approved in this state to issue association membership credits.
(b) The agent actively participates in the functions of a local, regional, state, or national professional insurance association for the number of association credits earned. For purposes of this rule an association credit will only be considered if it involves at least fifty minutes of participation. Active participation in a local, regional, state, or national professional insurance association can be met by the following activities:
(i) Attending a formal meeting or a formal business program hosted by a local, regional, state, or national professional insurance association where attendance is verified;
(ii) Serving on and actively participating in a local, regional, state, or national board or committee in affiliation with the local, regional, state, or national professional insurance association; or
(iii) Participating in industry, regulatory or legislative meetings held by or on behalf of a local, regional, state, or national professional insurance association.
(c) No request for CE credits related to membership and active participation in local, regional, state, or national professional insurance associations will be considered unless the agent submits a written request to the association for the association's determination of participation credit and its submission of those credits to the superintendent.
(d) Credits approved for regular CE courses offered by the professional insurance associations do not count towards membership CE credit.
(e) Association credits will only count as general credits for satisfying major line, title or surety bail bond credit requirements. Association credits do not count towards satisfying ethics requirements for any type of license.
(f) The association is an approved continuing education provider authorized to offer association membership CE credit in this state.
(g) The activity or program took place while the association was authorized to offer association membership credit.
(h) The association is responsible for determining participation in a meeting, program or affiliation qualified for association credit.
(6) Credits earned from association membership using the same course identification number are permitted so long as the same activity type and completion date have not been previously submitted for credit. Agents may accumulate an unlimited number of association membership credits from the combination of different local, regional, state, or national professional insurance associations, however, only the first four association credits reported to the superintendent will be applied towards the maximum number of association credits allowed per renewal period.
(G) Unfair and deceptive act or practice
The making of any misrepresentation, or any untrue, misleading or deceptive statement or assertion in support of or in connection with a request for a license renewal, exemption, extension, or inactive status is an unfair and deceptive act or practice in the business of insurance.
(H) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated November 14, 2024 at 8:53 AM
History
- Effective: November 14, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-5-09
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to set forth procedures and requirements for the licensing and appointment of insurance agents in this state; and to identify lines of authority eligible for limited lines licenses.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041, 3905.04, 3905.12, 3905.20 and 3905.95 of the Revised Code.
(C) Definitions
For purposes of this rule:
(1) "Insurer" and "insurance company" has the same meaning in this rule as "insurer" does in section 3901.32 of the Revised Code.
(2) "Clearance letter" is the certification to another state of an agent's license status when moving out of Ohio.
(D) Resident individual agent licensing
(1) An applicant must comply with the requirements contained in sections 3905.05 and 3905.06 of the Revised Code for the appropriate line of authority.
(2) An individual applying for a resident insurance agent license shall do all of the following:
(a) Complete any pertinent pre-licensing education for the lines of authority listed below unless the applicant is exempt pursuant to paragraph (D) of rule 3901-5-07 of the Administrative Code:
(i) Life: twenty hours;
(ii) Accident and health: twenty hours;
(iii) Property: twenty hours;
(iv) Casualty: twenty hours;
(v) Personal lines: twenty hours;
(vi) Surety bail bonds: twenty hours;
(b) Pass any required licensing examination as set forth in division (B) of section 3905.04 of the Revised Code and rule 3901-5-05 of the Administrative Code;
(c) Request a criminal records check as set forth in section 3905.051 of the Revised Code;
(d) Submit a completed application form prescribed by the superintendent;
(e) Pay any required fees; and
(f) Submit any other information or supporting documentation as requested by the superintendent.
(3) A completed application can not be submitted until the applicant has passed all required licensing examinations but must be submitted within one hundred eighty calendar days of the applicant's passing that examination. An extension will be granted if the applicant is deployed for active military service. An active military extension is one hundred eighty calendar days from date of deployment return.
(4) The superintendent will request information at the time of application to identify if applicant is an active military member or veteran, spouse of an active military member or veteran or a surviving spouse of a military member or veteran. Any active military, veteran, spouse or surviving spouse applications not submitted and automatically approved through the electronic application system will receive expedited service to the extent all requirements for licensure are met.
(5) An applicant is not eligible for a license until the superintendent or the superintendent's designee receives a completed application which includes the completed application form, the criminal records check, any other information required by the superintendent and any required fees. An incomplete application that cannot be processed by the superintendent will be returned to the applicant as incomplete.
(6) A license is deemed issued on the date the application is approved by the superintendent.
(7) A license is issued in the legal name of the applicant.
(8) If an agent has active appointments at the time the agent's licenses are inactivated by agent request, canceled, non-renewed, suspended, revoked or surrendered, the superintendent can notify the appointing companies of the inactivation, cancellation, non-renewal, suspension, revocation or surrender.
(9) An agent must report to the superintendent all demographic changes (i.e. name, resident address, business address, mailing address, email address, phone number, etc.) within thirty days of the change. Name means any name used to transact insurance business in this state.
(E) Nonresident individual agent licensing
(1) An individual applying for a nonresident insurance agent license shall do all of the following:
(a) Submit a completed application form prescribed by the superintendent;
(b) Comply with the requirements set forth in section 3905.07 of the Revised Code for the appropriate line of authority;
(c) Pay any required fees; and
(d) Submit any other information or supporting documentation as requested by the superintendent.
(2) Upon satisfying the requirements of this rule, a nonresident agent license will be issued to the applicant granting the applicant the same scope of authority as the applicant has under the license issued by the applicant's home state.
(3) If the applicant's home state does not issue nonresident insurance agent licenses to residents of this state, then the applicant must complete any licensing requirements that are imposed upon residents of this state.
(4) A nonresident license will be deemed issued on the date the application is approved by the superintendent.
(5) A license will be issued in the legal name of the applicant.
(6) A nonresident agent who applies for a line of authority for which they are not licensed in their home state must fulfill the requirements for an Ohio resident agent license for that type of authority.
(7) An agent must report to the superintendent all demographic changes (i.e. name, resident address, business address, mailing address, email address, phone number, etc.) within thirty days of the change. Name means any name used to transact insurance business in this state.
(8) A nonresident must maintain an active resident license in another state in order to maintain the nonresident Ohio license. Failure to maintain an active resident license is grounds for the revocation of an Ohio non-resident license. It is the agent's responsibility to notify the superintendent of a change in the agent's resident license state.
(F) Limited lines licenses
(1) A person can obtain a limited lines license for one or more of the lines of insurance specified in paragraph (F)(2) of this rule so long as the following conditions are met:
(a) Submitted a completed application form or other form and means prescribed by the superintendent;
(b) Pay any required fees;
(c) Applicants applying as a resident individual must request a criminal records check as set forth in section 3905.051 of the Revised Code;
(d) Submit any other information or supporting documentation as requested by the superintendent;
(e) The applicant is of good reputation and character, is honest and trustworthy, and is otherwise suitable to be licensed; and
(f) Resident applicants must comply with the requirements set forth in sections 3905.05 and 3905.06 of the Revised Code. Nonresident applicants must comply with the requirements contained in section 3905.07 of the Revised Code.
(2) Limited lines licenses can be issued for the following lines of insurance:
(a) Credit insurance products as defined in division (I) of section 3905.01 of the Revised Code;
(b) Rental car insurance in accordance with rule 3901-5-10 of the Administrative Code;
(c) Crop insurance providing protection against damage to crops from unfavorable weather conditions, fire, or lightning, flood, hail, insect infestation, disease or other yield-reducing conditions or perils provided by the private insurance market, or that is subsidized by the federal crop insurance corporation, including multi-peril crop insurance;
(d) Funeral expense insurance sold to provide for payment of funeral or burial goods and services in accordance with sections 3905.45 and 3905.451 of the Revised Code so long as the agent is also a licensed funeral director in this state.
(e) Title insurance marketing representative as provided in paragraph (G) of this rule;
(f) Portable electronics insurance as provided in section 3905.062 of the Revised Code;
(g) Self-service storage insurance as provided in section 3905.063 of the Revised Code;
(h) Travel insurance coverage as provided in section 3905.064 of the Revised Code; and
(i) Any limited lines insurance agent license as required by section 3905.072 of the Revised Code.
(3) No pre-licensing education, licensing examination or continuing education is required for a limited lines license. Except as specified by sections 3905.85 and 3905.88 of the Revised Code and in accordance with paragraph (D) of rule 3901-5-01 of the Administrative Code.
(4) Limited lines licenses are subject to section 3905.14 of the Revised Code and all other requirements for agents, except as provided in this rule.
(5) A license will be deemed issued on the date the application is approved by the superintendent.
(6) A license will be issued in the legal name of the applicant.
(7) Upon satisfying the requirements of this rule, a nonresident limited line agent license will be issued to the applicant granting the applicant the same scope of authority as the applicant has under the license issued by the applicant's home state.
(8) If the applicant's home state does not issue nonresident limited line insurance agent licenses to residents of this state, then the applicant must complete any licensing requirements that are imposed upon residents of this state.
(9) A nonresident agent who applies for a line of authority for which the agent is not licensed in the home state must fulfill the requirements for an Ohio resident agent license for that type of authority.
(10) A nonresident must maintain an active resident limited line license in another state in order to maintain his nonresident Ohio license. Failure to maintain an active resident license is grounds for the revocation of an Ohio nonresident license. It is the agent's responsibility to notify the superintendent of a change to the agent's resident license state.
(11) The holder of a limited lines license can not sell, solicit, or negotiate insurance on behalf of any insurer unless appointed to represent that insurer.
(12) If an agent has active appointments at the time the agent's licenses are inactivated by agent request, canceled, non-renewed, suspended, revoked or surrendered, the superintendent can notify the appointing companies of the inactivation, cancellation, non-renewal, suspension, revocation or surrender.
(13) An agent must report to the superintendent all demographic changes (i.e. name, resident address, business address, mailing address, email address, etc.) within thirty days of the change.
(14) The superintendent has discretion to investigate the suitability of an applicant for a limited lines license and can suspend, revoke, refuse to issue, or renew a limited lines license for any of the reasons that the superintendent can refuse to issue a full-lines agent's license.
(G) Title insurance marketing representative
(1) Persons who market goods and services associated with the issuance of title insurance has to obtain a limited lines license as a title insurance marketing representative. A title insurance marketing representative has to be sponsored by a licensed title agent. A title insurance marketing representative can solicit and perform marketing services only on behalf of the sponsoring agent. A title insurance marketing representative who holds a limited lines license can not do any of the following:
(a) Quote filed title insurance rates or premiums;
(b) Discuss insurance coverages, benefits or limits except that the marketing representative can, in general terms, explain the basic differences between an owner's policy and a lender's policy;
(c) Make recommendations, provide advice about, or negotiate title insurance;
(d) Execute or issue a title insurance policy, binder or commitment;
(e) Determine insurability;
(f) Holds oneself out as a representative of a title insurance company.
(2) A title agent who sponsors a title insurance marketing representative shall be responsible for the acts and omissions of the title insurance marketing representative. Violations of the insurance laws in Title 39 of the Revised Code that are committed by a title insurance marketing representative will be attributed to the sponsoring title agent as well as to the marketing representative and will subject the sponsoring licensed title agent to a civil forfeiture in an amount not to exceed ten thousand dollars for each violation, unless the violation is reported by the title agent to the superintendent promptly upon discovery and the title agent takes appropriate remedial action.
(3) Any written materials used or distributed by a title insurance marketing representative must be pre-approved by the licensed title agent that sponsored the title insurance marketing representative.
(4) No pre-licensing education, licensing examination, or continuing education is required for a person who holds a limited lines license as a title insurance marketing representative.
(5) No person who is prohibited under division (B) of section 3953.21 of the Revised Code and rule 3901-7-04 of the Administrative Code from acting as an agent for a title insurance company will be licensed as a title insurance marketing representative.
(6) A license as a title insurance marketing representative is valid and authorizes the holder to act as a title insurance marketing representative to the extent permitted by law only so long as the person is sponsored by a licensed title insurance agent.
(7) A title marketing representative can be sponsored by only one title agent at any given time.
(H) Resident business entity licenses
(1) A business entity that is either domiciled in Ohio or maintains a principal place of business in Ohio can be licensed as an insurance agent in this state if it satisfies all of the following conditions:
(a) Submits a completed business entity application prescribed by the superintendent;
(b) Complies with division (B) of section 3905.05 of the Revised Code and division (A)(2) of section 3905.06 of the Revised Code;
(c) Is authorized to do business in the state of Ohio by the Ohio secretary of state if so required by Title 17 and sections 1703.03, 1703.04 and 1776.85 of the Revised Code;
(d) Pays any required fees; and
(e) Submits any other information or supporting documentation as requested by the superintendent.
(2) A resident business entity agent license is deemed issued on the date the application is approved by the superintendent.
(3) A resident business entity agent must maintain at least one designated licensed individual insurance agent who will be responsible for the business entity's compliance with the insurance law of this state. Failure to maintain a licensed agent is grounds for revocation of the business entity's license.
(4) If the resident business entity ceases to exist as a corporate or other legal entity, its agent license will be subject to revocation.
(5) A business entity agent must report any change in its name, address, email address, affiliated agents, officers, directors, and members or owners with ten per cent or more voting interest in the licensed entity to the superintendent within thirty days of such change. Name means any name used to transact insurance business in this state.
(6) In addition to the requirements in paragraph (H)(5) of this rule, a business entity title agent must notify the superintendent of any change in its ownership or in the ownership of any business entity holding an ownership interest in the business entity title agent within thirty days and must include an organizational chart that shows all owners and their percentages of ownership of both the business entity title agent and business entities having ownership interests.
(7) A resident business entity applicant must apply for licensure under the legal name of the applicant as registered with the Ohio secretary of state. The superintendent can deny the use of a name that is too similar to a name already in use by another business entity or a name that could be misleading to the public.
(I) Nonresident business entity licenses
(1) A business entity domiciled in another state or whose principal place of business is in another state can be licensed as an insurance agent in this state if it satisfies all of the following conditions:
(a) Submits a completed business entity application prescribed by the superintendent;
(b) Complies with the provisions of section 3905.07 of the Revised Code;
(c) Pay any required fees; and
(d) Submits any other information or supporting documentation as requested by the superintendent.
(2) Upon satisfying the requirements of this rule, a nonresident business entity license will be issued to the applicant granting the applicant the same scope of authority as the applicant has under the license issued by the applicant's home state.
(3) A nonresident business entity agent license is deemed issued on the date the application is approved by the superintendent.
(4) A nonresident business entity agent must maintain at least one individual insurance agent licensed in Ohio who will be responsible for the business entity's compliance with the insurance laws of this state. Failure to maintain an Ohio licensed agent is grounds for revocation of the business entity's license.
(5) Registration with the Ohio secretary of state is not a license prerequisite for nonresident business entity licensure. Nonresident business entities should contact the Ohio secretary of state to verify if registration is required in order to do business in the state of Ohio. Registration with the Ohio secretary of state can be required pursuant to Title 17 and sections 1703.03, 1703.04, and 1776.85 of the Revised Code.
(6) A business entity agent must report any change in its name, address, email address, affiliated agents, officers, directors, and members or owners with ten per cent or more voting interest in the licensed entity to the superintendent within thirty days of such change. Name means any name used to transact insurance business in this state.
(7) A business entity title agent must notify the superintendent of any change in its ownership or in the ownership of any business entity holding an ownership interest in the business entity title agent within thirty days and must include an organizational chart that shows all owners and their percentage of ownership of both the business entity title agent and business entities having ownership interests. The business entity will comply with all provisions of section 3953.21 of the Revised Code and rule 3901-7-04 of the Administrative Code.
(8) A nonresident business entity applicant must apply for licensure under the legal name of the applicant. The superintendent can deny the use of any name that is too similar to a name already in use by another business entity or a name that could be misleading to the public.
(J) License renewal
(1) An agent who wishes to renew their insurance agent license shall do all of the following:
(a) Submit a completed renewal application prescribed by the superintendent;
(b) Comply with the renewal requirements set forth in section 3905.06, 3905.07 or 3905.85 of the Revised Code;
(c) Complete any CE credit requirement prior to submitting a license renewal application:
(i) Resident individual agents who hold a major line of authority license have a CE credit requirement of twenty-four credits (three of which must be approved as ethics credits).
(ii) Resident individual title agents have a CE credit requirement of twelve credits (ten of which must be approved as title credits and two of which must be approved as ethics credits).
(iii) Resident individual surety bail bond agents have a CE credit requirement of seven credits (six of which must be approved as surety bail bond credits and one of which must be approved as ethics credits). Surety bail bond agents are exempt from completing surety bail bond CE requirements for their first renewal cycle if the agent was initially issued a surety bail bond license in January or February of the same calendar year of their first renewal cycle.
(d) Pay any required fees;
(i) License renewal fee as set forth in section 3905.40 or 3905.85 of the Revised Code;
(ii) In addition to the license renewal fee, the fee for filing a renewal application during the late renewal period is fifty dollars; or
(iii) In addition to the license renewal fee, the fee for filing a renewal application during the reinstatement period is one hundred dollars.
(iv) The superintendent will waive the fee in paragraphs (J)(1)(d)(ii) and (J)(1)(d)(iii) of this rule due to active military service. In addition, the superintendent can waive the fees due to long term medical disability, or some other special or extenuating circumstance.
(e) Submit any other information or supporting documentation as requested by the superintendent.
(2) Individual resident and non-resident insurance agent licenses with a limited line of authority, major line of authority or title shall renew their license by the last day of their birth month. No transition period from date of initial licensure to the date of the first license expiration will be less than eighteen months or more than twenty-nine months.
(3) On-going license expiration dates after the initial license renewal for individual resident and non-resident insurance agent licenses with a limited line of authority, major line of authority or title shall be the last day of the agent's birth month every two years thereafter.
(4) Non-resident business entities shall renew by the last day of September in odd numbered years. On-going renewal dates will be the last day of September every odd numbered year thereafter.
(5) Resident business entities shall renew by the last day of September in even numbered years. On-going renewal dates will be the last day of September every even numbered year thereafter.
(6) All surety bail bond agents shall renew their surety bail bond license by the first day of April each year.
(K) Appointments
(1) Within thirty days after the date the agency contract is executed or the first insurance application is submitted, each insurer shall file a notice of appointment with the superintendent regarding all agents who were newly appointed to represent the insurer. Additionally, within thirty days of a termination, each insurer shall notify the superintendent of any agents whose appointments were terminated by the insurer. The insurer will specify the effective date of appointment or termination for each agent. The insurer will identify each agent by the full name that appears on the agent's insurance license, national producer number or other such identification number as requested by the superintendent, and such other information as required by the superintendent.
(2) All individual and business entity agent appointments and terminations must be submitted to the superintendent electronically.
(a) An insurer that annually appoints and/or terminates twenty-five or fewer agents can make non-electronic appointments and terminations.
(b) Any insurer that annually appoints and/or terminates more than twenty-five agents but that is unable to process electronic appointments and terminations must provide adequate documentation explaining its inability to comply.
(3) Appointments will renew automatically on the first day of July each year unless the insurer terminates the appointment prior to the renewal date.
(4) No appointment will be effective unless the appointee is licensed for that line of authority.
(5) The superintendent will bill insurers for the initial and renewal appointment fees. If an agent holds both a property and casualty appointment with an insurer, a single appointment fee will be billed for those appointments that are processed at the same time.
(6) If the termination of an appointment is for any of the reasons set forth in division (B) of section 3905.14 of the Revised Code, the insurer will provide a detailed statement of the facts and the reasons for the termination to the superintendent within thirty days of the effective date of the termination. Insurers who provide such statements are immune from liability to the extent provided in section 3905.211 of the Revised Code.
(L) Inactive status
(1) An agent can request inactive status by submitting a form prescribed by the superintendent and such other information requested by the superintendent. The agent must attest that the conditions in paragraph (L)(2) of this rule are met.
(2) An agent can be eligible for inactive status only if and so long as all of the following conditions are met at the time of the inactivation request:
(a) The agent is not employed or engaged, full or part-time, in any capacity for which an active agent's license is required and does not engage in or in any way participate in or assist with any activity for which an active agent's license is required in this state This does not apply to clerical or ministerial acts;
(b) The agent must be in compliance with their continuing education requirements;
(c) The agent must be in good standing with the superintendent;
(d) The agent is a natural person and holds an active resident major line of authority, title, or surety bail bond license in this state at the time of inactivation request; and
(e) The request for inactivation was received by the superintendent prior to the expiration date of the license.
(3) If the superintendent is satisfied that the agent is eligible for inactive status, the superintendent may notify the agent and all appointing insurers and agents about the inactive status.
(4) A person who has been granted inactive status must notify each insurer with which he or she is appointed no later than ten days after inactive status is granted. Failure to do so is grounds to terminate the inactive status. All appointments held by an agent who has been granted inactive status will automatically cancel as of the date inactive status is granted.
(5) If an agent is granted inactive status and subsequently engages in, participates or assists in any way in any conduct or activity for which an active license is required, such agent's license(s) can be suspended or revoked or the superintendent can impose a civil penalty in an amount not to exceed twenty-five thousand dollars.
(6) A separate inactivation request is needed to request inactivation of different license types, since each license type is maintained separately with the department. When a license is placed in inactive status, the inactivation affects all lines of authority for that license type held by that agent. Surety bail bond and title can be maintained independent of the inactivation of other licenses.
(7) An agent who has been granted inactive status is exempt from the continuing education requirements of this state, during the period of license inactivation. Any continuing education credits on file at time of inactivation remain assigned to the renewal cycle in which the license was inactivated.
(8) An agent who has been granted inactive status can return to active status upon the following conditions:
(a) The agent notifies the superintendent using the form and means prescribed by the superintendent and provides any other information requested by the superintendent;
(b) The agent has completed approved continuing education credits based on the license type being activated or has completed a pre-licensing education course for the particular type of license being reactivated, within the preceding twelve months of the reactivation application;
(i) An agent who held resident major line of authority license must complete twenty-four hours of approved continuing education, three of which must be approved as ethics;
(ii) An agent who held a title license must complete twelve credits, ten of which must be approved as title specific and two of which must be approved as ethics;
(iii) An agent who held a surety bail bond license must complete fourteen credits, twelve of which must be approved as surety bail bond specific and two of which must be approved as ethics.
(c) The person has paid a reactivation fee of fifty dollars;
(d) The person, if requesting the reactivation of a surety bail bond license, has paid an additional fee of one hundred fifty dollars; and
(e) The person is otherwise eligible and suitable to be an agent.
(9) The licenses of a person who has been granted inactive status can be subject to suspension, revocation, or any other disciplinary action for questionable conduct occurring before or after the inactive status was granted.
(10) Inactive status applies prospectively.
(M) Surrender
(1) An agent can surrender all or some of the agent's licenses by submitting a form prescribed by the superintendent. If an agent is under investigation by the superintendent or the superintendent has issued a notice of opportunity for hearing under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the superintendent can not accept a surrender except for cause and as a resolution of allegations that the agent violated the insurance laws and regulations of this state. For purposes of this paragraph, an investigation will include the review of any complaint made against or involving the agent.
(2) A surrender will be effective immediately after the superintendent receives the request or at a date chosen by the agent but in no case will the surrender be effective prior to the date of receipt by the superintendent or more than five days after receipt of the surrender request.
(3) The surrender of an agent's license for any line of authority voids all appointments held by the agent for that line of authority.
(4) The superintendent may notify each appointing company and agent when an agent's licenses are surrendered.
(5) An individual who has surrendered a license or licenses and who wants to obtain a license as an agent must comply with the pre-licensing education and examination requirements as if the person had never been licensed, if otherwise eligible and suitable to be an agent. This provision will apply to a license previously surrendered even when the agent still has a license of another type.
(6) A person who has been granted inactive status can surrender all or some licenses if the person is otherwise eligible to surrender licenses.
(7) A clearance letter request acts as a voluntary surrender of all licenses. Once a clearance is issued an individual may reactivate the Ohio licenses if the following requirements are met:
(a) The individual requested reactivation within ninety days of the effective date of surrender by clearance request, and
(b) The individual did not obtain a resident license in another state.
(8) When an individual reactivates Ohio licenses pursuant to paragraph (M)(7) of this rule, the individual's continuing education requirements and license renewal date continue as if a clearance letter had not been requested.
(N) Compensation
(1) Commissions or other compensation paid by an insurer to a person for any activity that requires a license must be paid in the legal name of the licensee as that name appears on the superintendent's records or a trade name registered in accordance with section 3905.11 of the Revised Code.
(2) An agent who is appointed with the issuing insurance company can pay commissions to another agent who is licensed for that line of business but who is not appointed with the issuing insurance company.
(3) A licensed agent can assign commissions lawfully earned to a non-licensed person or entity pursuant to a written agreement and for a purpose that is not otherwise a pretext for the unlawful payment or split of commissions or the payment of an unlawful lead fee to the assignee.
(4) An agent or insurer can pay an unlicensed person or organization for administrative services actually rendered by that person or organization in connection with an insurance program offered to the members or customers of the unlicensed person or organization. Such payment shall be negotiated in an arms-length transaction. The amount of payment can not be calculated as a percentage of premium or any other measure of sales production. The amount of payment must be reasonable in relation to the services actually rendered. This paragraph does not prohibit the payment of a flat fee per transaction or service.
(5) An agent or insurance company can pay an unlicensed person or organization for an endorsement in favor of the agent, insurance company or a product. Such payment shall be a flat fee per member or customer or in the amount of actual costs incurred by the unlicensed person or organization in making the endorsement. In no event shall the payment be calculated as a percentage of premium or any other measure of sales production.
(6) For purposes of this rule, an "endorsement" means a communication by an unlicensed person in any medium that introduces or mentions the availability of a general type of insurance coverage, identifies a particular insurer or agent, explains the method for obtaining additional information, and contains the words "endorse," "endorsed by," "sponsor," or "sponsored by," if all of the following conditions apply:
(a) The communication does not contain any comparison to other insurance products, insurers or agents;
(b) The communication does not contain any specific information or details about the benefits provided by the insurance;
(c) The communication does not indicate the rates or cost of the insurance;
(d) The communication does not contain any statement or suggestion that the recipient needs, or should apply for or buy the insurance.
(O) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated March 29, 2025 at 7:13 PM
History
- Effective: March 27, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-5-03
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to establish criteria, standards, and procedures for continuing education (CE) courses that licensed agents must complete to maintain their license.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041, 3905.12, 3905.26, 3905.28, 3905.486, and 3905.95 of the Revised Code.
(C) Definitions
(1) "Classroom" means course activities or information occurring in real time at a specific time, date, and place, and delivered in person, such as but not limited to a seminar or workshop by a qualified instructor. Attendance is based on personally identifiable information (e.g., government-issued identification and signature) and participation or interaction with course activities. Classroom courses do not require an examination.
(2) "Completion Date" is the date on which the participant completes the course, including passing any required examination.
(3) "Course" means a classroom, distance learning, or self-study presentation of information on insurance or risk management topics, delivered in person, in print or electronically, which may be interactive or not, with successful completion measured by either attendance (classroom), interaction (distance learning), or by examination/knowledge assessments (self-study).
(4) "Course Completion Roster" means a listing of course completions, provided in a format determined by the superintendent, which includes the provider name, provider number, course title, and course identification number, course completion date, participant's name, national producer number (NPN), number of credits earned by each participant, or any other information deemed necessary by the superintendent.
(5) "Course Difficulty Level" is determined by whether the course is designed for inexperienced or experienced practitioners, as well as the amount of information presented and at what pace the information is presented.
(a) "Basic" is a course designed for entry-level agents or agents new to the subject matter.
(b) "Intermediate" is a course designed for agents who have existing competence in the subject area and that wish to further develop and apply their skills.
(c) "Advanced" is a course designed for agents who have a strong foundation and high level of competence in the subject matter.
(6) "Course Offering" is an approved event with a specific start and end time.
(7) "Distance Learning" means the method of instruction where the participant and qualified instructor are in different physical locations and interact with each other through various methods of telecommunication, including, video teleconference, internet conference, virtual class, or webinar. Distance learning is delivered at a specific date and time. Attendance is monitored and validated based on personally identifiable information (e.g., username, password, and/or email), and participation in interactive exercises is required. Credit for course is based on attendance and activity, not examination.
(8) "Interactive" means regular occurring opportunities for participation, engagement, and interaction with course activities and information. Examples include, question and answer sessions, entry of verification codes, polling, games, sequencing, and matching exercises.
(9) "Proctor" means a disinterested third party that is at least eighteen years old, which can be any person except for family members. individuals who have a financial interest in the participant's success on the exam, or co-workers that are not above or below in the participant's line of supervision.
(10) "Self-Study" means the method of instruction which does not require a participant to attend an organized class or interact with an instructor and is completed by individual study. Course credit is based on the passage of an examination, knowledge assessments, or frequent interaction with courseware as a condition of progressing through the course material. Self-study courses can be interactive or non-interactive. Course activities or information is delivered outside of real time (recorded or otherwise similarly accessible) and at any time, such as correspondence, online, video, audio, compact disc (CD), or digital video disc (DVD). Participant attendance is verified based on identity (e.g., username, password, email, and signature).
(D) Application
All requests for approval of a course are to be made in the manner prescribed by the superintendent and contain the following information:
(1) A description of:
(a) The number of requested credit hours and length of the course provided that:
(i) The course be for at least one credit hour;
(ii) The course be for no more than twenty-one credit hours;
(iii) The credits be requested in whole or one-half credit hours;
(iv) There be at least fifty minutes of instruction for each credit hour requested; and
(v) Breaks, introductions, lunches, announcements, or other non-instruction time is excluded in calculating the credit hours requested.
(b) The course topic to which the course relates.
(c) The purpose or objective of the course and how the material offered will increase the knowledge of insurance and related subjects for the participants.
(d) The level of course difficulty (i.e. basic, intermediate, or advanced).
(e) The method of instruction in which the course will be delivered or presented.
(f) The methods utilized to provide reasonable assurance of the participant's identity.
(g) The method(s) utilized to verify participant's attendance, completion, or participation of the course.
(h) The criteria used in selecting instructors. Providers will make information about the experience and qualifications of each instructor available upon request by any person.
(i) The course tuition and the provider's fee refund policy, in accordance with rule 3901-5-04 of the Administrative Code.
(2) A detailed content outline, which contains a description of each topic to be covered by the course. The outline must contain:
(a) The proposed time component.
(b) The specific material to be covered in each time component.
(c) The method of presentation employed for each component.
(d) The justification for the time allotted to each component of the course.
(e) The time required to complete the course, in its entirety, without interruption.
(f) The identification of any component that includes a sales or marketing element.
(3) A description of materials to be used during the course.
(4) A statement as to whether an examination is required as part of the course and the minimum pass rate needed to pass the examination.
(5) A statement as to whether the course is part of a national insurance designation program.
(6) A statement as to whether the course is open to the public.
(7) The name of the authorized provider official as defined in rule 3901-5-02 of the Administrative Code.
(8) The anticipated initial date the course will be conducted, if known.
(9) The completed form and any required attachments as noted on the form if course approval is being requested through the use of an approved multi-state form.
(10) Any other information requested by the superintendent.
(E) Standards for review of course application
(1) In order for a course to be approved by the superintendent as an acceptable continuing education course, the course must:
(a) Be offered by an approved continuing education provider.
(b) Use the most recent policy forms, editions, and laws filed in Ohio to the extent possible.
(c) Have significant intellectual or practical content that enhances and improves the agent's insurance knowledge or professional competence, through an organized program of learning dealing with matters directly related to insurance, the insurance industry, professional competence, ethical obligations, insurance office operations or management, or similar subjects that will promote the purposes of this rule.
(d) Be given a title that is not misleading and does not cause an individual to believe that the course is approved for a different course topic other than what is approved by the superintendent.
(e) Meet all other criteria set forth in this rule.
(F) Instructor qualification
(1) The authorized provider official is responsible for verifying that instructors meet the required minimum qualifications. Instructors must meet one of the following qualification categories:
(a) Qualification one: the instructor or speaker holds a postgraduate degree in insurance or a related field, or has one of the following professional designations:
"Certified Insurance Counselor" (CIC);
"Chartered Financial Consultant" (ChFC);
"Chartered Life Underwriter" (CLU);
"Chartered Property and Casualty Underwriter" (CPCU);
"Fellow Life Management Institute" (FLMI);
"Life Underwriting Training Council Fellow" (LUTCF);
"Registered Employee Benefit Consultant" (REBC); or
"Registered Health Underwriter" (RHU); or
(b) Qualification two: the instructor or speaker has four years experience as a full-time employee or licensed agent interpreting or explaining insurance policy contracts and in addition holds one or more of the following designations:
"Accredited Advisor Insurance" (AAI);
"Associate in Automation Management" (AAM);
"Associate in Claims" (AIC);
"Associate in Fidelity and Surety Bonding" (AFSB);
"Associate in Insurance Accounting and Finance" (AIAF);
"Associate in Loss Control Management" (ALCM);
"Associate in Management" (AIM);
"Associate in Marine Insurance Management" (AMIM);
"Associate in Premium Auditing" (AIPA);
"Associate in Premium Auditing" (APA);
"Associate in Reinsurance" (ARE);
"Associate in Research and Planning" (ARP);
"Associate in Risk Management" (ARM);
"Associate in Underwriting" (AU);
"Certified Employee Benefits Specialist" (CEBS);
"Certified in Long Term Care" (CLTC);
"Certified Senior Advisor" (CSA);
"Fraternal Insurance Counselor" (FIC);
"Life Underwriting Training Council Graduate" (LUTC Graduate);
"Program General Insurance" (INS); or
Associate or bachelor degree with a specialization in insurance.
(c) Qualification three: the instructor has seven years of relevant experience.
(2) A provider must verify each instructor's relevant qualifications and be prepared to provide evidence of their qualifications to the superintendent upon request.
(3) Instructors must be knowledgeable in the subject that they teach in a course.
(4) Instructors may receive CE credits for a course which they teach. An instructor is only eligible to receive credit for the same course once during a renewal cycle. The instructor may receive double the number of credit hours which they teach.
(5) Insurance company trainers as instructors must be full-time salaried employees of the insurance company sponsoring the course and have as part of their full-time responsibilities the duty to provide insurance company training.
(6) College and university instructors may be full-time or adjunct faculty of the accredited college or university, teaching a curriculum course in his or her field of expertise, and meet the requirements of the association that accredits the college or university.
(7) Any person that has had administrative action taken against a professional license or registration must disclose that action to the provider prior to instructing a course, seminar, conference or lecture. If the provider wants to use this person as an instructor under its authority, the provider must notify the superintendent immediately upon receipt of that information and have written approval from the superintendent.
(G) Review of application
(1) A course application will only be considered if it is made on a form prescribed by the superintendent, complete and includes the appropriate fee based on the fee option selected on the provider application. The superintendent will review each application within thirty days of the date of receipt of a complete application and appropriate fees. The effective date of a course approval is within the superintendent's discretion.
(2) If the provider submits an initial course or renewal application that is incomplete or if the application lacks information deemed necessary by the superintendent, the application will be returned with a letter indicating areas which must be addressed before the review process will continue. If the superintendent does not receive the requested information by the requested response date, the filing will be considered abandoned. The course application fee is non-refundable and non-transferable.
(3) Providers will be notified in writing of the approval of each course and of the course number assigned to it by the superintendent. A course is approved from the date of approval until December thirty-first of the same year in which the course is approved. Course renewal applications are due by November thirtieth each year. The superintendent will review each application within thirty days of receipt of a complete application and appropriate fees.
(a) A course renewal application will only be considered if made on a form prescribed by the superintendent, complete and includes the appropriate fee based on the fee option selected on the provider renewal application.
(b) The superintendent may require a full review of courses that have aged at least four years from initial approval or since its last full review. A full review may include the submission of a new course application, course outline, and other course application documents and information outlined in this rule for initial course review. Outcome of review may result in the issuance of a new course identification number, change to approved course topic, or number of approved credit hours.
(c) Any provider or associated course whose renewal has not been approved before the expiration date will automatically expire as of December thirty-first of that renewal year. The provider may not conduct any course for credit until the provider and associated courses are approved by the superintendent.
(4) Based upon a review of the application the superintendent may approve a course for fewer credits than requested, and a provider may only offer and award the number of credit hours as approved.
(H) Additional guidelines for self-study courses
(1) A self-study course may be offered utilizing any of the following formats:
(a) On-line course with interactive chapter or section questions. This type of interactive on-line course has a series of questions at the end of each chapter or section designed to test the participant's subject matter knowledge of that chapter or section. The participant may only advance to the next chapter or section after they have successfully answered all the questions for the previous chapter or section. The participant may review the material to answer a question. An interactive on-line self-study course is not required to have a final examination.
An interactive on-line course must be designed to prevent the participant from completing the course in a time unreasonably short when compared to the credit hour total approved for the course.
(b) A non-interactive on-line course which has a scored on-line final examination.
(c) A non-interactive on-line or paper-based course which has a mail-in final examination.
(d) Any type of self-study program with a final examination.
(e) Other type of self-study courses as the superintendent may approve.
(2) In addition to providing all other information required pursuant to this rule, a provider must include:
(a) The number of questions that appear at the end of each chapter or section, a sample of the questions, references from the questions back to the text if requested by the superintendent, and a copy of the answer key for the sample questions for on-line interactive courses; or
(b) The number of examination questions which will appear on the participant's examination, references from the examination back to the text if requested by the superintendent, and a copy of the examination answer key with the application for a course which requires a final examination. The answer key must indicate the total amount of credit possible for answering each question correctly, and an explanation how essay questions will be graded.
(3) A provider will require each agent to enroll and pay for the course before having access to the course material.
(4) A provider will prevent access to the course unit/chapter questions and final exam before the agent reviews the course materials.
(5) A provider will prevent downloading and printing of any course unit/chapter question and final exam.
(6) The following are minimum requirements for self-study final examination and for on-line interactive chapter/section questions:
(a) Multiple choice items will have a minimum of four options.
(b) Multiple choice items will have only one correct response.
(c) Multiple choice answers will be grammatically consistent and parallel in form to eliminate obviously wrong answers.
(d) No correct answer to one question may provide a clue to the correct answer to any other questions in the chapter/section questions or final examination.
(e) Questions will be clearly written.
(f) Questions will adequately cover the course material set out in the course outline.
(g) Answers to the questions will not be in a discernable pattern.
(h) Final exam questions will not duplicate any unit/chapter questions.
(7) In order to obtain credit for a self-study course the licensee must either:
(a) Complete an interactive on-line course having answered one hundred per cent of each chapter's/section's questions correctly; or
(b) Receive a grade of seventy per cent or greater on the final examination.
(8) A final examination will be administered only upon completion of the self-study course and will meet the minimum requirements:
(a) Final examinations must consist of a minimum of ten questions for each credit hour requested.
(b) A self-study course that includes a final examination will have at least enough questions to fashion a minimum of two versions with at least fifty per cent of the question being new/different in each subsequent version.
(9) Providers offering self-study courses must have qualified instructors available to respond to questions within forty-eight hours by telephone or email.
(10) Providers must be able to prevent the issuance of a participant affidavit until the course and course examination is successfully completed. Affidavits may be administered and signed electronically.
(11) Each participant must certify that he or she completed the course and, if applicable, the examination without assistance. If the examination is monitored, the provider or proctor may check ID to identify participants.
(12) Details on how the examination materials will be returned to the provider shall be included in the instructions.
(I) Additional guidelines for distance learning courses
(1) Distance learning must:
(a) Be conducted at a specific date and time and require each participant to log into course using a distinct username, password, or email.
(b) Be designed so that all participants actively participate in the instructional process, by utilizing techniques that require substantial participant interaction with the instructor, other participants, or a computer program. Any course that permits participants to sit passively and observe instruction or read instructional material may not be approved. The provider will have a process to determine when a participant is inactive or not fully participating, such as when the screen is minimized, does not answer polling questions, or does not enter verification codes. All continuing education courses will include no less than two methods of interactive activities asked at unannounced intervals during each one-hour course session to determine participant attentiveness.
A provider may administer examinations to participants to verify participation and evaluate the effectiveness of the distance learning course, but passage of an examination by a participant may not be a condition for advancement to a subsequent section of the course or successful completion of the course, unless the course is part of a national designation program which requires the passage of an examination.
(c) Utilize only instructors who are qualified according to Ohio's instructor guidelines pursuant to paragraph (F) of this rule.
(d) Have appropriate instructor and technical support to enable participants to satisfactorily complete the course. The provider will maintain an electronic roster to include records for each participant's log-in/log-out times, chat history, and interactive responses.
(e) Utilize procedures that provide reasonable assurance of participant identity, including national producer number (NPN) of all participants.
(f) Have a provider representative monitor attendance throughout the course and that the participant receiving the continuing education credit actually performed all the work required to satisfactorily complete the course. When a participant is deemed inactive, or not fully participating in the course, continuing education credit will only be granted in accordance with paragraph (E) of rule 3901-5-01 of the Administrative Code. Prior to the start of the course offering, the provider will inform each participant of the course participation requirements and the consequences for failing to actively participate in the course.
(2) The provider must provide the participants with an orientation or information package which contains all necessary information about the course subject matter and learning objective; procedures and requirements for satisfactory course completion, special requirements related to computer hardware and software or other equipment, and the availability of instructor or technical support.
(3) Participants must be able to interact with qualified instructor(s), submit questions or comments at any point during the course, and are unable to independently complete the course.
(4) The title of the course must clearly state that it is a distance learning course.
(J) Organization or association meeting credit
A state insurance professional association or organization that is an approved provider pursuant to rule 3901-5-02 of the Administrative Code and that is affiliated with a national association or organization may file a course application and roster for annual association meetings conducted by the national association or organization so long as:
(1) The course application is filed prior to the meeting.
(2) The method of attendance verification is determined by the provider.
(3) No course fee is charged; and
(4) The roster fee is paid.
(K) Professional association membership credit
A local, regional, state, or national professional insurance association that is an approved provider pursuant to rule 3901-5-02 of the Administrative Code may file a course application and roster for association membership credit.
(1) The provider must file with the superintendent of insurance for approval of a course number to be shown on all certificates issued for association membership CE credit prior to any participation activity that may result in association membership credit being offered.
(2) The local, regional, state, or national professional insurance association must meet, at the minimum, the following qualifications:
(a) Organized as an association or corporation under state law;
(b) Based on paid memberships which renew annually or biennially for an additional membership fee;
(c) Organized for the express purpose of promoting the interests of insurance licensees or a class of insurance licensees;
(d) If a local or regional association have been in existence for at least seven years prior to applying for course approval to offer association membership credit. If a state or national association have been in existence for at least five years prior to applying for course approval to offer association membership credit;
(e) Formed for purposes other than providing CE credits to meet state educational requirements;
(f) Have an active membership base of at least one hundred fifty, individually licensed insurance agents which are dues paying members of the association.
(g) Submit a course application on a form prescribed by the superintendent that includes the appropriate fee based on the fee option selected on the application; and
(h) Renewed on an annual basis for the provider to continue offering association membership credit.
(3) The method of verification of qualified participation activity will be determined by the provider.
(4) The association is responsible for determining if participation in a meeting, program, or affiliation qualifies for association credit and for the number of appropriate association credits earned. If the association determines that a requested activity does not qualify for association membership credit, the provider will send a letter to the licensee within ten calendar days of the decision with an explanation as to why credit was not granted.
(5) The provider will submit association membership credit requests to the superintendent on a form prescribed by the superintendent pursuant to the submission requirements of paragraph (D)(5) in rule 3901-5-04 of the Administrative Code.
(L) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated November 14, 2024 at 8:53 AM
History
- Effective: November 14, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-5-04
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to establish criteria, standards, and procedures for providers of continuing education (CE) programs.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041, 3905.26, 3905.28, and 3905.486 of the Revised Code.
(C) Providers must:
(1) Offer and present a course as approved by the superintendent. Failure to do so may result in a denial of CE credit for the course.
(2) Provide the superintendent with written notice that includes both the provider and course identification number at least fifteen days in advance of any change to a provider or course application.
(3) No change to a course's content or outline is effective without prior written approval of the superintendent. Change to a course's content or outline may result in the issuance of a new course identification number. Failure to obtain written approval in advance of offering the course may result in a denial of CE credit for the course.
(4) A provider will submit the date, time, and location of each course to the superintendent at least ten days prior to the offering of the course. A provider will hold approved course on the date(s) scheduled, during the specified hours and at the designated location unless cancelled in accordance with paragraphs (C)(5) and (C)(6) of this rule or unless notification of any change is given to the superintendent in accordance with paragraph (C)(2) of this rule. Providers do not need to report examination schedules for courses approved as self-study.
(5) A provider will refund all fees in full within forty-five days of a course's cancellation or in accordance with the refund policy conspicuously printed on the provider's materials if an approved course is cancelled or if an agent cancels in advance of the date scheduled.
(6) No change to course location, date, time, content, or applicable refund policy is effective unless the provider issues written notification to the department and all individuals scheduled to attend prior to the course offering. Agents scheduled to attend a course that is later postponed or moved to a different location more than ten miles away from the original location are entitled to a full refund for any fee paid to attend that course.
(7) A provider's failure to monitor course attendance, examination, or participation or provide reasonable assurance of active student participation may result in denial of CE credit for that course.
(8) A provider will conduct all courses in compliance with both the "Equal Employment Opportunity" and the "Americans with Disabilities Acts."
(9) A provider will endure that facilities are large enough to comfortably accommodate all attendees and instructors and conducive to the education process.
(10) All applications, schedules, and rosters will be submitted by providers electronically, using a system prescribed or otherwise approved by the superintendent. Each individual authorized to access the department's electronic reporting system will have a unique user name and password.
(11) Providers are responsible for obtaining the following information from each agent as part of that agent's course registration:
(a) National producer number (NPN);
(b) First and last name as they appear on the agent's license record with this state;
(c) Attestation from each agent that they will complete the course themselves and without improper assistance of others; and
(d) Agent's signature. Electronic signature is acceptable.
(12) Providers will retain all records pertaining to its Ohio CE activities for at least four years, including attendance and credits awarded.
(D) Attendance rosters
(1) Each provider is responsible for maintaining accurate attendance records for each course and obtaining each agent's signature and appropriate verification of the time of arrival and departure.
(2) Providers are to file an attendance roster no later than fifteen calendar days after a course's completion which identifies each agent who completed the course, their name, national producer number (NPN), other identification number requested by the superintendent, and number of requested credits per agent listed on the roster. If partial credit is being given, the provider will note on the attendance roster the actual number of credits to be given to that agent. The participation fee amount submitted to the department will be equal to the number of credits approved for the course.
(3) Instructors may receive double the number of credit hours which they taught so long as the instructor is listed on the attendance roster submitted by the provider along with the total number of credits that are to be given for the instruction and payment for a participation fee equal to the number of credits given to the instructor.
(4) The provider's failure to timely file an attendance roster, or other acceptable documentation, may result in a denial of CE credit for those agents who attended the course.
(5) For association membership credit, the provider must submit a course roster to the superintendent within fifteen calendar days of an agent making a written request to the association. Prior to submitting a course roster, it is the responsibility of the association to verify that the agent's activity qualifies for association credit.
(a) The provider may only submit one qualifying activity or program per roster along with the number of association credits each agent earned per activity. The provider may issue association credit on each roster ranging from one credit to no more than four credits per agent.
(b) A course participation fee of one dollar per association membership credit per member will be included with the roster.
(E) Advertising
(1) All CE advertising or promotion of any kind will contain all of the following:
(a) The complete name of the provider as it appears on the application for provider approval;
(b) The complete title of the course as it appears on the application for course approval;
(c) The number of Ohio CE credit hours and topic for which the course is approved;
(d) Whether an exam is required in order to receive CE credit; and
(e) Level of course instruction (i.e. introductory, intermediate, advanced).
(2) A provider may only represent that a course has been approved for CE credit in Ohio if the superintendent has issued written approval for that course. A provider may represent that an application for CE approval is pending, but if a provider does so and approval is not granted, a full refund of all fees will be made. If a provider represents that approval is pending, the provider will also state, in substance, that the superintendent could deny course approval or approve the course for fewer credits than requested.
(3) No guarantee or representation that a licensee will pass a required examination may be made.
(4) No guarantee or representation that membership in an organization will automatically qualify for CE credit.
(5) If several approved courses are offered together, all advertising and promotional materials will separately identify each approved course and the respective number of CE credit hours for which each course topic is approved.
(6) No advertising or promotional materials may contain any representation or statement, or cause or permit another to make any representation or statement which is false, deceptive or misleading.
(7) A provider's refund policy will be clearly and conspicuously disclosed in all advertising and on all printed promotional materials.
(F) Audit
(1) The superintendent may audit a provider's records and courses at any time without prior notice.
(2) The instructors at an approved course may be required to provide proof of identity upon request during an audit of a course.
(G) Certificate of completion
(1) Providers are to issue a certificate of completion, including the agent's name, national producer number (NPN), course name, course identification number, course date(s), association credit activity earned date(s), credit hours completed, provider name, provider identification number, provider signature, and any other identification number requested by the superintendent, within ten calendar days of course completion.
(2) For association membership credit, the course completion date is based on the date the provider received a written request from an agent requesting association membership credit pursuant to paragraph (F)(5) of rule 3901-5-01 of the Administrative Code or the date of the association activity, whichever is later.
(H) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated November 14, 2024 at 8:53 AM
History
- Effective: November 14, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-5-02 Continuing education provider.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to establish the procedure to review insurance continuing education provider applications.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041, 3905.26, 3905.28, and 3905.486 of the Revised Code.
(C) Definitions
(1) "Authorized Provider Official" is the person designated by a provider as the individual responsible for the conduct of a continuing education course, compliance with continuing education regulations, the course's instructors, the course's monitors, and the provider's employees.
(2) "Provider" is any person or business entity permitted to offer continuing education courses pursuant to division (C) of section 3905.484 of the Revised Code.
(D) Application
(1) No application for a continuing education provider certification will be considered by the department unless it is made on the form prescribed by the department and includes the appropriate fee.
(2) The department will review a provider application within thirty days of receipt.
(a) If the applicant submits a new or renewal application that is incomplete or if the application lacks information deemed necessary by the department, the application will be returned with a letter identifying the deficient areas to be addressed before the review process will continue. If the department does not receive the requested information by the relevant deadline stated in the letter, the filing will be considered abandoned. The provider application fee is non-refundable and non-transferable.
(b) If a provider's application is approved, a provider identification number will be assigned and the provider will be notified of that approval in writing.
(c) Approval of a provider's initial application is effective beginning on the date of the department's approval through the thirty-first day of December of the same year in which the approval was granted.
(d) Approval of a provider's renewal application is effective beginning January first and ends December thirty-first of the renewal year.
(e) Failure to renew an existing provider certification by December thirty-first will result in that certification and any course connected with that provider automatically expiring as of December thirty-first of the same year. Any provider whose certification has expired must reapply as a new provider before offering or holding any continuing education courses.
(3) Provider renewal applications are due to the department by November thirtieth each year.
(E) Authorized provider official
(1) The authorized provider official will obtain continuing education provider approval, course approvals, verify the qualifications of instructors, provide course schedules (where applicable), monitor attendance, administer examinations (where applicable), submit course completion rosters and fees to the department or its designee, and provide any other documents required by the department.
(2) The authorized provider official must supply and maintain an accurate email address which will be used as the primary source of communication with the provider.
(F) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provision of this rule are severable.
Last updated November 14, 2024 at 8:53 AM
History
- Effective: November 14, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-5-05 Agent education violations.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to identify conduct related to continuing education that violates Ohio statutes or rules and can subject a continuing education provider or agent to administrative actions.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041 and 3905.486 of the Revised Code.
(C) Providers
The following are violations of the pre-licensing education and continuing education statutes and rules:
(1) Making any false, misleading, or deceptive statement or representation about the status of a course approval, the number of hours for which a course topic is approved, or any other statement about a course or provider. The penalty for a single violation is a forfeiture of five hundred dollars.
(2) The use of an unqualified instructor. The penalty for a single violation is a forfeiture of five hundred dollars.
(3) Failure to maintain all necessary records for the required time periods. The penalty for a single violation is a forfeiture of one hundred dollars.
(4) The use, submission, or filing of any document for the purpose of complying with the agent education statutes and rules, or in responding to any inquiry from the superintendent concerning agent education, when the provider knows or should know that the document, or any part of it, is false or deceptive. The penalty for a single violation is a forfeiture of one thousand dollars.
(5) Failure to use the approved course outline. The penalty for a single violation is a forfeiture of one hundred dollars.
(6) Failure to notify the superintendent of changes to any course, previously approved, prior to course offering. The penalty for a single violation is a forfeiture of one hundred dollars.
(7) Failure to conduct the approved course for the full time, as specified in the course application. The penalty for a single violation is a forfeiture of one hundred dollars.
(8) Failure to monitor course attendance, course participation or completion of examination. The penalty for a single violation is a forfeiture of five hundred dollars.
(9) Failure to comply with applicable Americans with Disabilities Act and "Equal Employment Opportunity" regulations. The penalty for a single violation is a forfeiture of one hundred dollars.
(10) Failure to provide timely refunds to participants when required. The penalty for a single violation is a forfeiture of one hundred dollars.
(11) Failure to file or the late filing of any form or required information, other than attendance roster. The penalty for a single violation is a forfeiture of one hundred dollars.
(12) Failure to timely file an attendance roster. The penalty for a single violation is a forfeiture of five hundred dollars.
(13) Failure to conduct a course as it was approved or maintain course integrity. The penalty for a single violation is a forfeiture of five hundred dollars.
(14) Obtaining the attendance or enrollment of licensees or students by actual or implied coercion. The penalty for a single violation is a forfeiture of five hundred dollars.
(15) The failure of a provider to timely provide a certificate of completion to an attendee or the failure of a provider to provide an attendee with an accurate certificate of completion. The penalty for a single violation is a forfeiture of two hundred dollars.
(16) Failure to accurately report the actual number of course hours attended for each individual. The penalty for a single violation is a forfeiture of five hundred dollars.
(17) Failure to properly determine active participation in a local, regional, state or national professional insurance association activity. The penalty for a single violation is a forfeiture of five hundred dollars.
(18) Advertising that an agent can receive credit for simply becoming a member of an association. The penalty for a single violation is a forfeiture of one thousand dollars.
(19) Failure to provide a written response to the superintendent within twenty-one days after receipt of any written inquiry from the superintendent. The penalty for a single violation is a forfeiture of fifty dollars.
(20) Failure to report disciplinary action taken against the provider's authority by any regulatory body which grants a license, registration, or permission to conduct business. The penalty for a single violation is a forfeiture of two hundred dollars.
(21) Sharing user names and passwords when accessing department reporting application. The penalty for a single violation is a forfeiture of five hundred dollars.
(22) The violation of any provision of rule 3901-5-01, 3901-5-02, 3901-5-03, 3901-5-04, 3901-5-06 or 3901-5-07 of the Administrative Code may be grounds for termination of a provider's authority to offer pre-license courses or continuing education courses in this state.
(D) Applicants and agents
The following are violations of the pre-licensing education and continuing education statutes and rules:
(1) The use, submission, or filing of any document or record for the purpose of complying with the agent education statutes and rules, or in responding to any inquiry from the superintendent concerning agent education, when the person knows or should know that the document or record, or any part of the document or record, is false or deceptive.
(2) Obtaining, accepting or using any evidence of completion or participation from a provider when the person has not attended or completed the course, or the number of hours identified on the certificate.
(3) Cheating or using unauthorized materials or receiving unauthorized assistance during an examination.
(4) Assisting another person in complying with the agent education requirements when the person knows or should know that the assistance is a violation of the agent education statutes and rules.
(5) Disruptive threatening or deceptive behavior during a course or examination will be grounds for termination of participation and will be grounds for the superintendent to refuse course completion credit, refuse additional examination attempts, or a passing grade of an examination for those individuals responsible for the disruptive, threatening or deceptive behavior.
(6) The use of any unauthorized telecommunication device, including by not limited to, cellular phones and "PDA's," examination notes and study guides, or conversations with unauthorized persons during an examination or authorized break from a state insurance licensure examination. The penalty for a single violation will be grounds for the superintendent to refuse to allow candidate additional examination attempts, issue any license as an insurance agent or assess a forfeiture of up to five hundred dollars.
(E) Application of penalties
(1) The superintendent can suspend, revoke, non-renew or deny authority to any pre-licensing education or continuing education provider who has committed multiple violations of paragraph (C) of this rule. This penalty can be in addition to the forfeitures levied pursuant to paragraph (C) of this rule.
(2) The superintendent can, once a violation of paragraph (C) or (D) of this rule requiring a forfeiture has been found, suspend all or part of such forfeiture, upon a showing of mitigating circumstances.
(F) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated November 14, 2024 at 8:53 AM
History
- Effective: November 14, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-5-06
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to establish the fees to be charged for certain services and transactions for the pre-licensing and the continuing education programs.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041, 3901.043 and 3905.481 to 3905.486 of the Revised Code.
(C) All fees in this rule are non-refundable and non-transferable
(D) Continuing education provider and course initial and renewal application fees
(1) Every continuing education provider will pay the fee established in paragraph (D)(2) of this rule. The fee is due with the submission of the provider application. Course fees, where applicable, will be submitted with the course application.
(2) The applicant will select one of the fee options listed below. If the status of the provider changes during the year and a different fee is due, the new fee will be in addition to the previous payments with no credit for the prior payments.
(a) Flat fee provider. The fee is one thousand dollars per year, which covers the provider application fee and course application fees for all course applications submitted during the calendar year.
(b) Individual fee provider. The fee is one hundred dollars for submission of the provider application, plus forty dollars for each course application.
(c) Limited fee provider. The fee is twenty-five dollars for submission of the provider application, plus twenty-five dollars for each course application. A provider electing this status is limited to offering no more than three courses of no more than three credit hours each, during the calendar year.
(E) Continuing education agent participation fee
(1) Provider's filing of course roster, listing of all licensees enrolled for continuing education credit one dollar per agent/per course approved credit hour.
(2) Licensee's filing of publication or author of written material continuing education credit one dollar per approved credit hour.
(F) Pre-licensing education provider, course and instructor initial and renewal application fees
(1) Provider application fee is one hundred dollars.
(2) Provider's course application fees:
(a) Fee for each course application is two hundred dollars.
(b) Fee for each subject matter category requested on the course application is twenty-five dollars.
(3) Instructor application fee is twenty-five dollars.
(G) Miscellaneous fees
Processing fee as a result of submitting any check, money order or other instrument which is returned to the superintendent for insufficient funds, account closed or for any other reason is thirty dollars. The superintendent can require a certified check from any agent or provider whose check has been dishonored.
(H) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated November 14, 2024 at 8:54 AM
History
- Effective: November 14, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-5-07
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to establish the criteria for agent pre-licensing education and to establish certain examination requirements.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041 and 3905.486 of the Revised Code.
(C) Definitions
As used in this rule:
(1) "Authorized provider official" means a person designated by a provider and approved by the superintendent as the person who is responsible for a provider's compliance with the pre-licensing education regulations and who is responsible for a provider's integrity and operation. This includes the responsibility for obtaining pre-license education provider, course and instructor approvals.
(2) "Authorized provider personnel" means any person identified by a provider's authorized provider official as being authorized to certify a provider certification of course completion form, a certificate of pre-licensing course completion form, a schedule of courses form, attendance forms, and any other forms required by the superintendent.
(3) "Classroom" means course activities or information occurring in real time at a specific time, date, and place, and delivered in person, such as but not limited to, a seminar or workshop by an approved instructor. Student attendance is based on personally identifiable information (e.g., government-issued identification and signature) and student participation or interaction with course activities. Classroom courses do not require an examination.
(4) "Course" means a classroom, distance learning, or self-study presentation of information on entry level insurance topics, delivered in person, in print or electronically, which can be interactive or not, with successful completion measured by either attendance (classroom), interaction (distance learning), or by examination/knowledge assessments (self-study). Pre-license instruction can be offered in one of the following subject matter categories:
(a) Property insurance;
(b) Casualty insurance;
(c) Life insurance;
(d) Accident and health insurance;
(e) Personal lines insurance; and
(f) Surety bail bond insurance.
(5) "Course completion date" means the date on which the student completes all of the required elements of the course, including passing any required provider examination.
(6) "Course hour" means the time spent providing instruction for preparation for a state insurance license examination. For purposes of this rule a course hour equals no less than sixty minutes of instruction. A course hour can include a reasonable amount of time testing, but not the time a student spends studying, preparing for a course, breaks, introductions, lunches, announcements, receiving marketing or sales technique instruction, or other non-instruction time.
(7) "Course offering" mean an approved event with a specific start and end time.
(8) "Distance learning" means the method of instruction where the student and approved instructor are in different physical locations and interact with each other through various methods of telecommunication, including, but not limited to, video teleconference, internet conference, virtual class, or webinar. Distance learning is delivered at a specific date and time. Student attendance is monitored and validated based on personally identifiable information (e.g., username, password, and/or email) and student participation in interactive exercises is required. Credit for the course is based on attendance and activity, not examination.
(9) "Program of insurance education" means a provider's overall curriculum.
(10) "Provider" means an organization or person approved by the superintendent to offer agent pre-licensing courses.
(11) "Registered student" means any person who has given an approved pre-license education provider a written intention and payment to take their program of insurance education.
(12) "Self-study" means the method of instruction which does not require a student to attend an organized class and is completed by passage of a final examination. Course activities or information is delivered outside of real time (recorded or otherwise similarly accessible) and at any time, such as but not limited to, correspondence, online, video, audio, compact disc (CD), or digital video disc (DVD). Student attendance is verified based on identity (e.g., username, password, email, and signature) and passage of a final examination.
(13) "Self-study with prep course" means any pre-licensing course method that is offered as self-study but includes some organized classroom or distance learning instruction time prior to the offering of a final examination.
(14) "Superintendent" means the superintendent of insurance.
(D) Pre-license education exemptions
(1) Any person with a bachelor's or associate's degree in insurance, or a related degree with a concentration of insurance courses from an accredited institution is exempt from agent pre-licensing education requirements for all major lines of authority.
(2) Any person with one or more of the following professional designations is exempt from agent pre-licensing education requirements for personal lines or for property and casualty lines of authority.
(a) "Chartered Property and Casualty Underwriter" (CPCU);
(b) "Accredited Advisor in Insurance" (AAI);
(c) "Associate in Risk Management" (ARM); or
(d) "Certified Insurance Counselor" (CIC).
(3) Any person with one or more of the following professional designations is exempt from agent pre-licensing education requirements for life lines of authority:
(a) "Chartered Life Underwriter" (CLU);
(b) "Certified Employee Benefit Specialist" (CEBS);
(c) "Chartered Financial Consultant" (ChFC);
(d) "Certified Insurance Counselor" (CIC);
(e) "Certified Financial Planner" (CFP);
(f) "Fellow of the Life Management Institute" (FLMI); or
(g) "Life Underwriter Training Council Fellow" (LUTCF).
(4) Any person with one or more of the following professional designations is exempt from agent pre-licensing education requirements for accident and health line of authority:
(a) "Registered Health Underwriter" (RHU);
(b) "Certified Employee Benefit Specialist" (CEBS);
(c) "Registered Employee Benefits Consultant" (REBC); or
(d) "Health Insurance Associate" (HIA).
(5) Any person requesting exemption of the pre-licensing education requirement under the exemptions in paragraph (D)(1), (D)(2), (D)(3), or (D)(4) of this rule shall provide verification of the degree in insurance or professional designation prior to registering for the examination in order to receive a pre-licensing education waiver from the superintendent. When approved, education waivers are issued individually by approved subject matter category.
(6) An active military service member or veteran can submit any documentation, evidence, statement or endorsement that can be available or produced for the superintendent's consideration to demonstrate substantial equivalence of education and experience while serving in the armed forces to meet the requirements of licensure. When approved, education waivers are issued individually by approved subject matter category.
(7) A pre-licensing education waiver issued using the exemptions in paragraph (D)(1), (D)(2), (D)(3), (D)(4), or (D)(6) of this rule are valid for one hundred eighty days from the date the waiver was issued by the superintendent. An extension will be granted if the applicant is actively deployed for military service.
(8) No person who has been issued a pre-licensing education waiver from the superintendent under the exemptions in paragraph (D)(1), (D)(2), (D)(3), (D)(4), or (D)(6) of this rule can be issued more than one exemption for each major line of authority.
(9) Any person who has received an education waiver under the exemptions in paragraph (D)(1), (D)(2), (D)(3), (D)(4), or (D)(6) of this rule and has not passed the corresponding examination prior to the expiration of the waiver shall complete any required education according to section 3905.04 of the Revised Code before the agent is eligible to sit for such examination. If an applicant is actively deployed for military service, an extension will be granted and this will not apply.
(10) No person who has surrendered an insurance license or who has had an insurance license suspended, inactivated, cancelled for non-renewal or revoked can use the exemptions in paragraph (D)(1), (D)(2), (D)(3), (D)(4), or (D)(6) of this rule.
(E) Program of insurance education application requirements
(1) An application for pre-licensing provider, course, and instructor approval will be on forms prescribed by the superintendent and completed by the authorized provider official. An application for provider approval must include an application for at least one course approval and, if offering classroom, self-study with prep, or distance learning instruction, at least one instructor application.
(a) To be eligible to be the designated authorized provider official, a person shall be of good character and business repute and agree to be responsible for the provider's compliance with the laws and regulations relating to pre-licensing insurance education programs. A person who has had an insurance license suspended, revoked or surrendered for cause in any state is not eligible to serve as an authorized provider official.
(b) For the purposes of this rule, a course method type is defined as classroom, distance learning, self-study or self-study with prep course. An application for pre-licensing course approval can only include one course method type and at least one subject matter category as referenced in paragraph (C)(4) of this rule. Multiple course applications will be required if more than one course method type is requested. Appropriate fees are to be included with each application.
(c) For the purposes of this rule, an instructor application is to be submitted for each subject matter category as referenced in paragraph (C)(4) of this rule when a provider is requesting approval for any self-study with prep course, classroom, or distance learning method type.
The approval of an instructor qualifies that instructor to provide classroom, self-study with prep, or distance learning instruction under the authority of that provider for any subject matter category in which the instructor was approved.
(2) Applicants will be notified if an application is incomplete and will be provided an explanation of the incomplete information. If the superintendent does not receive the requested information by the requested response date, the filing will be considered abandoned. Initial and renewal application fees are non-refundable and non-transferable.
(a) If a provider, course or instructor application(s) are approved or renewed, the provider will be notified in writing of this approval. The superintendent will assign provider and course identification numbers for initial approvals.
(b) The initial approval of a provider, course or instructor will be valid from the date of approval through the thirty-first day of December of the same year in which the approval was granted.
(c) No person or organization may offer any agent pre-licensing education until the superintendent issues a written approval for the program of insurance education.
(3) A provider shall submit any provider, course or instructor renewal applications annually no later than November thirtieth on forms prescribed by the superintendent. The superintendent has thirty days to review initial and renewal applications.
(a) Any provider whose renewal has not been processed and approved before the expiration date will automatically expire as of December thirty-first of that renewal year. All active courses and registered instructors connected with a provider that is not renewed will automatically expire as of December thirty-first of the same year.
(b) Any course or instructor renewal that has not been processed and approved before the expiration date will automatically expire as of December thirty-first of that renewal year.
(c) No provider or provider whose authority has expired shall conduct pre-licensing education courses until the provider's renewal application, course applications and any necessary instructor applications have been approved by the superintendent and the provider has received a renewal approval letter from the superintendent.
(d) The non-renewal of a provider, course(s) or instructor(s) does not affect the validity of certificates of completion of pre-licensing course that the provider issued prior to the non-renewal.
(F) Course requirements
(1) Classroom
(a) Courses must be held for a minimum of twenty course hours and begin and end as scheduled.
(b) Providers must monitor attendance and maintain an attendance record for each course that contains the full name of the provider, subject matter category of the course, beginning and ending date of the course, each student's name and verification of each student's attendance.
(c) A course schedule shall be filed with the superintendent no later than ten days before a course is scheduled to begin. Multiple courses can be included on a schedule as long as the schedule is filed at least ten days before the earliest course listed is scheduled to begin. Written notice must be given to the superintendent immediately upon cancellation or any change to a scheduled course.
(d) A student's completion of a course is satisfied when the student has attended the minimum number of hours required pursuant to section 3905.04 of the Revised Code and has received instruction on the content outlines for the topics and subtopics listed in the most recent edition of the Ohio superintendent of insurance licensing information bulletin at the time the course was taken.
(e) Within fifteen calendar days of the conclusion of a classroom course, the authorized provider official shall submit to the superintendent, a course completion roster identifying the name of each student, the number of hours attended by each student, and whether a course completion certificate was issued to the student, on a form prescribed by the superintendent.
(2) Self-study
(a) A student's completion of a self-study course is satisfied when the student has completed an equivalent to twenty course hours through self-study course instruction and has received a grade of seventy per cent or greater on a final examination given by the approved pre-licensing provider.
(b) A provider's self-study examination will be administered only upon completion of a self-study course.
(c) Each student will sign an affidavit provided by the approved provider stating that the student completed the examination without assistance.
(d) The following are minimum requirements for final examinations:
(i) Multiple choice items have a minimum of four options;
(ii) Multiple choice items have only one correct response;
(iii) Multiple choice answers are grammatically consistent and parallel in form to eliminate obviously wrong answers;
(iv) No correct answer to one question provides a clue to the correct answer to any other questions in the chapter/section or examination;
(v) Questions are clearly written;
(vi) Questions adequately cover the course material; and
(vii) Answers to the questions are not in a discernable pattern.
(e) Within fifteen calendar days of the conclusion of a self-study course, the authorized provider official shall submit to the superintendent, a course completion roster with the names of each student who satisfactorily completed the course on a form prescribed by the superintendent.
(3) Self-study with prep course.
(a) A course schedule shall be filed with the superintendent not later than ten days before a prep course is scheduled to begin. Multiple prep courses can be included on a schedule as long as the schedule is filed at least ten days before the earliest prep course listed is schedule to begin. Written notice must be given to the superintendent immediately upon cancellation or any change to a scheduled prep course.
(b) An attendance record shall be kept for each prep course. The attendance record must contain the full name of the provider, subject matter category of the course, beginning and ending date of the prep course, each student's name, and verification of each student's attendance.
(c) A provider's self-study examination shall be administered only upon completion of a self-study prep course.
(d) Each student shall sign an affidavit provided by the approved provider stating that the student competed the examination without assistance.
(e) The following are minimum requirements for final examinations:
(i) Multiple choice items have a minimum of four options;
(ii) Multiple choice items have only one correct response;
(iii) Multiple choice answers are grammatically consistent and parallel in form to eliminate obviously wrong answers;
(iv) No correct answer to one question provides a clue to the correct answer to any other questions in the chapter/section or examination;
(v) Questions are clearly written;
(vi) Questions adequately cover the course material; and
(vii) Answers to the questions are not in a discernable pattern.
(f) A student's completion of a self-study with prep course is satisfied when the student has completed the equivalent of a twenty course hours through a combination of self-study and classroom instruction and has received a grade of seventy per cent or greater on a final examination given by the approved pre-licensing provider.
(g) Within fifteen calendar days of the conclusion of a self-study with prep course, the authorized provider official shall submit to the superintendent, a course completion roster with the names of each student who satisfactorily completed the course on a form prescribed by the superintendent.
(4) Distance learning
(a) Courses must be held for a minimum of twenty course hours and be conducted at a specific date and time. Each student needs to log into the course using a distinct username, password, and/or email. Providers must utilize procedures that provide reasonable assurance of student identity.
(b) Courses must be designed such that all students participate in the instructional process, by utilizing techniques that require student interaction with the instructor, other students, or a computer program, including no less than two methods of interactive activities asked at unannounced intervals during each one-hour course session to determine student attentiveness. For successful completion of distance learning instruction, students must appropriately respond to a minimum of ninety per cent of interactive activities presented during the course.
The course design cannot permit students to sit passively and observe instruction or read instructional material. The provider needs to have a process to determine when a student is inactive or not fully participating, such as when the screen is minimized, or the participant does not answer the polling questions and/or verification codes.
(c) Providers must only utilize instructors who are approved according to Ohio's instructor guidelines pursuant to paragraph (E) of this rule. Students must be able to interact with approved instructor(s). Student should be able to submit questions or comments at any point during the course. The course pace is to be set by the instructor and not allow for independent completion.
(d) The provider should provide the students with an orientation or information package which contains all necessary information about the course subject matter and learning objective, procedures, and requirements for satisfactory course completion, special requirements with regard to computer hardware and software or other equipment, and the availability of instructor or technical support.
(e) Providers should have appropriate instructor and technical support to enable students to satisfactorily complete the course.
(f) A course schedule shall be filed with the superintendent no later than ten days before a course is scheduled to begin. Multiple courses can be included on a schedule as long as the schedule is filed at least ten days before the earliest course listed is scheduled to begin. Written notice must be given to the superintendent immediately upon cancellation or any change to a scheduled course.
(g) A student's completion of a course is satisfied when the student has attended the minimum number of hours required pursuant to section 3905.04 of the Revised Code, has received instruction on the content outlines for the topics and subtopics listed in the most recent edition of the Ohio superintendent of insurance licensing information bulletin at the time the course was taken, and has met the interactive participation requirements identified in paragraphs (F)(4)(b) and (F)(4)(c) of this rule.
(h) A provider representation must monitor attendance throughout the course and that the student receiving the pre-licensing education credit actually performed all the work required to satisfactorily complete the course. When a student is deemed inactive, or not fully participating in the course, the provider shall deny issuing a completion certificate to that student. Prior to the start of the course offering, the provider must inform each student in advance of the course participation requirements and the consequences for failing to participate in the course.
(i) An attendance record shall be kept for each course that contains the full name of the provider, subject matter category of the course, beginning and ending date of the course, each student's name and verification of each student's attendance. The provider shall maintain an electronic roster to include records for each student's log-in/log-out times. Chat history and interactive responses should be captures as part of the electronic records.
(j) Within fifteen calendar days of the conclusion of a distance learning course, the authorized provider official shall submit to the superintendent a course completion roster identifying the student's name, the number of hours attended by each student, and whether a course completion certificate was issued to the student, on a form prescribed by the superintendent.
(G) Instructor qualifications
(1) No person can teach or hold oneself out as qualified to teach pre-licensing education courses except as an approved instructor for an approved provider. All instructors for agent pre-licensing insurance education programs must be of good character and business repute and never had a professional license or registration revoked, suspended, or surrendered for cause in any state:
(2) The provider must demonstrate that an individual applying to instruct property and casualty insurance courses or personal lines insurance courses has met at least one of the following criteria:
(a) Received a bachelor's or associate's degree in insurance from an accredited institution;
(b) Holds a current and valid designation of "Chartered Property and Casualty Underwriter" (CPCU);
(c) Has worked regularly in the property and casualty insurance industry for the preceding one year and currently has one of the following professional designations:
(i) "Accredited Advisor in Insurance" (AAI);
(ii) "Associate in Risk Management" (ARM);
(iii) "Certified Insurance Counselor" (CIC); or
(d) Has worked regularly in the property and casualty insurance industry for the preceding three years.
(3) The provider must demonstrate that an individual applying to instruct life insurance courses has met at least one of the following criteria:
(a) Received a bachelor's or associate's degree in insurance from an accredited institution;
(b) Holds a current and valid designation of "Chartered Life Underwriter" (CLU);
(c) Has worked regularly in the life insurance industry for the preceding one year and currently holds one of the following designations;
(i) "Chartered Financial Consultant" (ChFC);
(ii) "Fellow of the Life Management Institute" (FLMI);
(iii) "Life Underwriter Training Council Fellow" (LUTCF);
(iv) "Certified Insurance Counselor" (CIC);
(v) "Certified Financial Planner" (CFP); or
(d) Has worked regularly in the life insurance industry for the preceding three years.
(4) The provider must demonstrate that an individual applying to instruct accident and health insurance courses has met at least one of the following criteria:
(a) Received a bachelor's or associate's degree in insurance from an accredited institution;
(b) Has worked regularly in the accident and health insurance industry for the preceding one year and holds one of the following designations:
(i) "Registered Health Underwriter" (RHC);
(ii) "Certified Employee Benefit Specialist" (CEBS);
(iii) "Registered Employee Benefits Consultant" (REBC);
(iv) "Health Insurance Associate" (HIA); or
(c) Has worked regularly in the accident and health insurance industry for the preceding three years.
(5) The provider must demonstrate that an individual applying to instruct surety bail bond insurance courses has met at least one of the following criteria:
(a) Received a bachelor's or associate's degree in insurance from an accredited institution;
(b) Has been licensed as a surety bail bond agent regularly for the preceding two years; or
(c) Has worked in the surety bail bond industry regularly for the preceding three years.
(H) Provider operations
(1) Course instruction will be based on the content outlines for the topics and subtopics listed in the most recent edition of the Ohio superintendent of insurance licensing information bulletin or any supplements at the time the course was held.
(2) Providers can utilize the pre-license education student registration form prescribed by the superintendent. If a provider uses their own registration form, the registration form must include, all of the information found on the superintendent's prescribed form. Providers must ensure each registration form is completed, for each student registered for a course.
(3) A provider will provide each registered student with the following information and documentation prior to course attendance:
(a) The most recent edition of the Ohio superintendent of insurance licensing information bulletin, and any supplements;
(b) Course method and subject matter category the student is registered to take;
(c) Location of the course or examination and any relevant information pertaining to the date and time of the course or examination as well as the name of any scheduled instructors;
(d) For courses that have a classroom component, the name, author, and edition of all textbooks used;
(e) For self-study courses, information as to what date the study material was purchased and the provider's exam delivery method;
(f) Any fees charged by the provider and an explanation of what those fees cover;
(g) The provider's refund policy; and
(h) Written receipt of payment for the course.
(4) A provider must obtain written verification from each registered student that they have received and understand the information required pursuant to paragraph (H)(2) of this rule. Student signature can be electronic or wet signature.
(5) A provider cannot advertise, offer, or conduct courses in a method or subject matter category for which the provider has not received written approval from the superintendent.
(6) The authorized provider official shall notify the superintendent, in writing, of any change to the provider application or renewal application, including but not limited to, the identity of the authorized provider official or authorized provider personnel, provider address, provider telephone number, provider name, or changes in the ownership or control of the provider. The notification shall be made within fifteen days of the effective date of the change. Any change to instructor qualifications, the types of course subject matter categories or course methods to be offered and require approval in accordance with paragraph (E)(2) of this rule.
(7) Instructors must be qualified in accordance with paragraph (F) of this rule and can instruct only those subject matter categories of insurance for which they are approved and for which the provider is approved.
(8) A course must be in session on the date(s) scheduled, during the specified hours and at the designated location unless cancelled or notification of any change is provided to the superintendent.
(9) If a course is cancelled, or if a student cancels in advance of the date of the course, the provider must refund all fees in full within forty-five days of the cancellation unless a different refund policy has been provided to the student.
(10) A provider must issue written notification to all individuals who are scheduled to attend a course of any change in the course location, date, time, or refund policy prior to the course offering or examination. If a course is postponed to a later date or moved to a location that is different and is more than ten miles from the original course location, the provider must offer each student who is scheduled to attend the class or take the provider's self-study examination the option of a full refund in lieu of attending the class or taking the examination.
(11) A provider must comply with the Equal Employment Opportunity Act and the Americans with Disabilities Act.
(12) Facilities must be large enough to comfortably accommodate all attendees and instructors and be conducive to the education process.
(13) The authorized provider official must supply and maintain an accurate email address which will be used as the primary source of communication with the provider.
(14) Providers shall submit all applications, schedules and rosters electronically, using a system prescribed by the superintendent, unless the superintendent has authorized other submission methods. Each individual accessing the department's electronic reporting system must have his or her own user name and password.
(15) A provider shall not offer any guarantee or represent that there is any guarantee that a student will pass any required examination offered by the provider.
(16) A provider shall not offer any guarantee to a student that the completion of their program of insurance education guarantees the student will pass the state insurance license examination.
(17) Providers shall not permit any of their instructors to take a state insurance license examination for any license type or line of authority if the instructor holds an active license for that license type or line of authority.
(18) In advertising or promoting itself or any of its courses, a provider shall not make any representation or statement, or cause or permit another to make any representation or statement which is false, deceptive or misleading.
(I) Certificates of course completion
(1) A provider shall issue a certificate of course completion only after a student has met the minimum completion requirements pursuant to paragraph (F)(1)(d), (F)(2)(a), (F)(3)(f), or (F)(4)(g) of this rule.
(2) Within three calendar days after a course is completed, the provider shall provide a completed certificate of pre-licensing course completion form to each student that certifies that the student completed the course. Certificates can be sent to each student electronically, but must be formatted in a manner that prevents changes to the course and student information.
(3) The certificate will be on a form prescribed by the superintendent or an exact replica of the superintendent's form, minus the state seal. The certificate is not valid unless it contains the signatures of the instructor or authorized provider personnel and the student.
(4) The certificate of pre-licensing course completion is valid for one hundred eighty calendar days from the completion of the course or passing of provider's self-study examination. If the one hundred eighty calendar day period expires before the student passes the licensing examination, the student will not be eligible to sit for another licensing examination for that type of license until the student completes another approved pre-licensing insurance education course for that license type.
(5) At the time a student registers with the testing service designated by the superintendent, the student must provide the provider's identification number as it appears on the certificate of pre-licensing course completion.
(6) A student shall not be permitted to sit for a licensing examination unless the student has a valid certificate of pre-licensing course completion form or a notice of pre-license education waiver from the superintendent.
(7) The student shall submit two forms of identification, to the examination monitor, one of which is a photo identification.
(J) Audit and records retention
(1) A provider shall keep copies of all records required by this rule, including, but not limited to, documents referenced in paragraph (H)(3) of this rule, certificates of course completion, self-study examinations, self-study affidavits, copies of rosters, and attendance records and/or participation in course activities, for a minimum of four years.
(2) A provider's records are subject to inspection and audit by the superintendent at any time without prior notice.
(3) A provider can maintain the required documents in an electronic format.
(4) The superintendent, or the superintendent's representative, can enter and observe a course at any time without prior notice.
(5) Providers will grant the superintendent, or the superintendent's representative, access to self-study or distance learning materials and/or examination content, upon request.
(K) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated November 14, 2024 at 8:54 AM
History
- Effective: November 14, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-5-10
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to set forth procedures and requirements for the issuance of a limited authority rental car agent license. Paragraph (F) of rule 3901-5-09 of the Administrative Code authorizes a limited lines license for rental car insurance.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041 and 3905.28 of the Revised Code.
(C) Definitions
For the purposes of this rule:
(1) "Endorsee" means an employee of a rental car agent or any authorized representative who meets the requirements of this rule.
(2) "Person" means an individual or a business entity.
(3) "Rental agreement" means any written master, corporate, group or individual agreement setting forth the terms and conditions governing the use of a rental car rented or leased by a rental car company.
(4) "Rental car" means any motor vehicle that is intended to be rented or leased for a period of less than thirty consecutive days by a driver who is not required to possess a commercial driver's license to operate the motor vehicle and the motor vehicle is either of the following:
(a) A private passenger motor vehicle, including a passenger van, minivan, or sports utility vehicle; or
(b) A cargo vehicle, including a cargo van, pickup truck, or truck with a gross vehicle weight of less than twenty-six thousand pounds.
(5) "Rental car agent" means any rental car company that is licensed by the superintendent and appointed by an insurer to offer, sell, or solicit rental car insurance pursuant to this rule.
(6) "Rental car company" means any person in the business of renting rental cars to the public.
(7) "Rental car insurance" means insurance offered, sold, or solicited in connection with and incidental to the rental of rental cars, whether at the rental office or by pre-selection of coverage in master, corporate, group or individual agreements that:
(a) Is non-transferable;
(b) Applies only to the rental car that is the subject of the rental agreement; and
(c) Is limited to the following kinds of insurance:
(i) Personal accident insurance for renters and other rental car occupants, for accidental death or dismemberment, and for medical expenses resulting from an accident that occurs with the rental car during the rental period;
(ii) Liability insurance that provides protection to the renters and to other authorized drivers of a rental car for liability arising from the operation or use of the rental car during the rental period;
(iii) Personal effects insurance that provides coverage to renters and other vehicle occupants for loss of, or damage to, personal effects in the rental car during the rental period; and
(iv) Roadside assistance and emergency sickness protection insurance.
(8) "Renter" means any person who executes a rental agreement.
(D) General rules
(1) No rental car company, and no officer, director, authorized representative, or employee of a rental car company, shall offer, sell, solicit or identify the availability of or effectuate the placement of rental car insurance or the purchase of rental car insurance unless that person is licensed as an insurance agent pursuant to Chapter 3905. of the Revised Code or there has been compliance with the requirements of this rule.
(2) The superintendent may issue to a rental car company that has complied with the requirements of this rule, a limited authority license that authorizes the rental car company to act as a rental car agent in accordance with the provisions of this rule, in connection with and incidental to rental agreements, on behalf of any insurer admitted to write such insurance in this state.
(E) Licensing rental car companies as rental car agents
(1) A rental car company may apply to be licensed as a rental car agent under the terms of this rule if it satisfies all of the requirements of this rule and if it submits to the superintendent an application for licensure in the form prescribed by the superintendent that includes an appointment by an admitted insurer.
(2) A limited authority license as a rental car agent is valid and authorizes the licensee to act as a limited authority agent to the extent permitted by law only so long as the licensee is appointed by at least one insurer that is authorized to write rental car insurance.
(F) Responsibilities of the appointing insurer
By appointing a rental car agent, an insurer certifies that the applicant is competent, financially responsible, and suitable to act as a rental car agent; that the insurer has reviewed the endorsee training and education program required by paragraph (G)(4) of this rule and believes that it satisfies the requirements of this rule; and that the insurer is responsible for the conduct of the rental car agent acting within the scope of its agency appointment.
(G) Rental car agent endorsees
(1) An endorsee of a rental car agent may identify the availability of and effectuate the placement of rental car insurance in accordance with this rule. Such activities, and any activities incidental thereto, shall not constitute any of the activities listed in section 3905.01 of the Revised Code when performed by an endorsee in accordance with this rule. An individual may be an endorsee if all of the following conditions are satisfied:
(a) The individual is eighteen years of age or older;
(b) The individual is an employee of a rental car agent or an authorized representative;
(c) the individual has completed a training and education program; and
(d) The rental car company maintains and, upon request, makes available to the superintendent a list of the names and addresses of all endorsees and the dates during which each endorsee was employed by the rental car company. Records must be maintained for five years following the termination of an endorsee's employment.
(2) A rental car agent's failure to maintain the records required by paragraph (G)(1) of this rule is a violation of division (B) of section 3905.14 of the Revised Code and constitutes grounds to refuse to renew, suspend or revoke its license.
(3) A rental car agent's endorsee may only act on behalf of the rental car agent in identifying the availability of and effectuating rental car insurance. A rental car agent is responsible for and is obligated to supervise all actions of its endorsees related to rental car insurance. The conduct of an endorsee acting within the scope of his or her employment in connection with products described in paragraph (C)(7) of this rule shall be deemed the conduct of the rental car agent for purposes of this rule and shall not constitute conduct requiring an agent's licensee under section 3905.01 of the Revised Code.
(4) Each rental car agent or the insurer that appoints the rental car agent is obligated to provide a training and education program for each endorsee prior to allowing an endorsee to identify the availability of and effectuate the placement of rental car insurance. The rental car agent is obligated to submit the program to the superintendent upon request. The training program shall meet the following minimum standards:
(a) Each endorsee receives instruction about the kinds of insurance specified in this rule that are offered to prospective renters;
(b) Each endorsee receives training about the requirements and limitations imposed on rental car agents and endorsees by this rule. That training includes specific instruction that the endorsee is prohibited by law from making any statement or engaging in any conduct, express or implied, that would lead a consumer to believe:
(i) That the purchase of rental car insurance is required in order for the renter to rent a motor vehicle;
(ii) That the renter does not have insurance policies in place that already provide the coverage being offered by the rental car company pursuant to this rule; or
(iii) That the endorsee is qualified to evaluate the adequacy of the renter's existing insurance coverages.
(5) The rental car agent shall retain for a period of one year from the date of each transaction records which enable it to identify the name of the endorsee involved in each rental transaction where a renter purchases rental car insurance.
(H) Rental car agent restrictions
No insurance may be offered, sold, or solicited pursuant to this rule unless:
(1) The rental period of the rental car agreement is less than thirty consecutive days.
(2) At every location where rental agreements are executed, the rental car agent or endorsee provides or prominently displays brochures or other written materials to each renter who purchases rental car insurance that, clearly and conspicuously and in plain language:
(a) Summarize, clearly and correctly, the material terms, exclusions, limitations, and conditions of coverage offered to renters, including the identity of the insurer;
(b) Describe the process for filing a claim in the event the renter elects to purchase coverage, including a toll-free telephone number to report a claim;
(c) Provide the rental car agent's name, address, telephone number, and license number;
(d) Inform the consumer that the rental car insurance offered, sold, or solicited by the rental car agent may provide a duplication of coverage already provided by a renter's personal automobile insurance policy, homeowners insurance policy, or by another source of coverage;
(e) Inform the consumer that the purchase by the renter of the rental car insurance is not required in order to rent a rental car from the rental car agent; and
(f) Inform the consumer that neither the rental car agent nor the rental car agent's endorsees are qualified to evaluate the adequacy of the renter's existing insurance coverages.
(3) The brochures or other written materials provided or prominently displayed pursuant to paragraph (H)(2) of this rule shall be filed by the insurer with the department of insurance pursuant to the procedures of section 3937.01 of the Revised Code.
(4) The purchaser of rental car insurance acknowledges, in writing or electronically, the receipt or offer of the brochures or written materials required by paragraph (H)(2) of this rule.
(5) Evidence of the rental car insurance coverage is stated on the face of the rental agreement.
(6) All costs for the rental car insurance are separately itemized in the rental agreement.
(I) Rental car agent prohibitions
(1) A rental car agent shall not:
(a) Offer, sell, or solicit the purchase of rental car insurance except in conjunction with and incidental to rental car agreements.
(b) Advertise, represent, or otherwise portray itself or any of its employees, authorized representatives, or agents as an insurer.
(c) Pay any person, including a rental car agent endorsee, any compensation, fee, or commission that is dependent solely upon the placement of rental car insurance unless that person is a licensed rental car agent. Nothing in this rule shall prohibit production payments or incentive payments that are not dependent solely upon the sale of rental car insurance.
(d) Make any statement or engage in any conduct, express or implied, that would lead a customer to believe:
(i) That the insurance policies offered by the rental car agent may not provide a duplication of coverage already provided by a renter's personal automobile insurance policy, homeowners insurance policy, or by another source of coverage;
(ii) That the purchase by the renter of rental car insurance is required in order to rent a rental car from the rental car agent; and
(iii) That the rental car agent or the rental car agent's endorsees are qualified to evaluate the adequacy of the renter's existing insurance coverages.
(2) No licensee or endorsee shall provide any information or advice or make any representation as to what benefits or coverages a renter's personal or other insurance policies may provide.
(J) Enforcement
(1) In the event any provision of this rule is violated by a rental car agent or its endorsee, the superintendent may revoke, refuse to issue or renew, or suspend the license issued under this rule or impose any other sanctions provided by Chapter 3905. of the Revised Code in accordance with the provisions set forth in Chapter 119. of the Revised Code;
(2) If any person sells insurance in connection with or incidental to rental car agreements or holds self out as a rental car agent without satisfying either the requirements of this rule or the licensing provisions of Chapter 3905. of the Revised Code, the superintendent is authorized to issue a cease and desist order in addition to taking any other administrative action provided for in section 3901.22 and division (B) of section 3905.14 of the Revised Code.
(K) Trust accounts
A rental car agent shall not be required to treat moneys collected from renters purchasing rental car insurance as funds received in a fiduciary capacity, provided that:
(1) The charges for rental car insurance coverage are itemized and ancillary to a rental transaction; and
(2) The insurer has consented in writing, signed by an officer of the insurer, that premiums need not be segregated from funds received by the rental car agent.
(L) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated November 16, 2023 at 8:30 AM
History
- Effective: November 16, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-7-04
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to establish ownership and licensing standards for title insurance agents and agencies in accordance with division (B) of section 3953.21 of the Revised Code, which prohibits certain persons from acting as agents for a title insurance company.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under section 3901.041 of the Revised Code.
(C) Definitions
As used in this rule:
(1) "Beneficial ownership" means the effective ownership of any interest in a title insurance agency or the right to control an ownership interest even though legal ownership may be held in another person's name.
(2) "Control," including "controlling," "controlled by," and "under common control with" means the possession, direct or indirect, of the power to direct or cause the direction of the management and policies of a person, whether through the ownership of voting securities, by contract other than a commercial contract for goods or non-management services, or otherwise. Control shall be presumed to exist if any person, directly or indirectly, owns, controls, holds with the power to vote, or holds proxies representing fifty per cent or more of the voting securities or interests of any other person. Control shall also be presumed to exist between a natural person and an immediate family member. These presumptions may be rebutted by showing that control does not exist in fact. The superintendent of insurance may determine that control exists if the facts support such a determination notwithstanding the absence of a presumption to that effect.
(3) "Immediate family member" includes a person's father, mother, stepfather, stepmother, brother, sister, stepbrother, stepsister, son, daughter, stepson, stepdaughter, grandparent, grandson, granddaughter, father-in-law, mother-in-law, brother-in-law, sister-in-law, son-in-law, daughter-in-law, the spouse of any of the foregoing, and the person's spouse.
(4) "Person" means any natural person or any business entity as defined in division (P) of section 3905.01 of the Revised Code.
(5) "Prohibited person" means a person prohibited from acting as an agent for a title insurance company pursuant to division (B) of section 3953.21 of the Revised Code, and includes builders and developers.
(6) "RESPA" means the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act, 12 U.S.C. 2601 et seq., as amended, and all rules, regulations and interpretations issued under RESPA, as amended, including but not limited to 24 C.F.R. Part 3500 and the Statement of Policy 1996-2 Regarding Sham Controlled Business Arrangements found at 61 Fed. Reg. 29258 et seq.
(D) No business entity may be licensed as a title insurance agency where one or more prohibited persons control the business entity.
(E) A business entity may not become licensed or remain licensed where the entity is merely a sham arrangement used as a conduit for inducements or compensation for business payments in violation of section 3953.26 and/or section 3933.01 of the Revised Code. In determining whether an entity is a sham arrangement, the superintendent may consider factors similar to those used to determine whether a controlled business arrangement is a sham arrangement under RESPA, including, but not limited to:
(1) Does the new entity have sufficient initial capital and net worth, typical of the industry, to conduct the title insurance business for which it was created or is it undercapitalized to do the work it purports to provide?
(2) Is the new entity staffed with its own employees to perform the services it provides or does the new entity have "loaned" employees of one of the parents?
(3) Does the new entity manage its own business affairs or is the new entity being run by one of the parents?
(4) Does the new entity have an office for business which is separate from any of the parents? If the new entity is located at the same business address as one of the parents, does the new entity pay fair market value rent for the facilities actually furnished?
(5) Is the new entity providing substantial services, i.e., the essential functions of the real estate settlement service, for which it receives a fee?
(6) Does the new entity perform all of the substantial services itself or does it contract out part of the work? If so, how much work is contracted out?
(7) If the new entity contracts out some of its essential functions does it contract services from an independent third party or from a parent or affiliate of a parent? If the new entity contracts out work to a parent or to an affiliate of a parent, does the new entity provide any functions that are of value to the settlement process?
(8) If the new entity contracts out work to another party, is the party performing any contracted services receiving a payment for the services or facilities that bears a reasonable relationship to the value of the goods or services received?
(9) Is the new entity actively competing in the marketplace for business or does it provide services solely for one or more of the parents?
(F) Where a person has a direct or beneficial ownership interest in a business entity title insurance agent, the only thing of value that can flow from such an arrangement, other than permissible payments for services rendered, is a return on ownership interest.
(1) Under this rule, a return on ownership interest may not include any of the following:
(a) Any payment which has, as a basis of calculation, no apparent business motive other than distinguishing among recipients of payments on the basis of the amount of their actual, estimated or anticipated referrals;
(b) Any payment which varies according to the relative amount of referrals by different recipients of similar payments; or
(c) A payment based on an ownership, partnership or joint venture share which has been adjusted on the basis of previous relative referrals by recipients of similar payments.
(2) In determining whether a payment is a return on an ownership interest or an impermissible payment for the referral of title insurance business, the superintendent may consider factors similar to those used to determine whether a payment is an impermissible payment for a referral under RESPA.
(G) A prohibited person may not serve as a partner, officer, director, or managing member of a title insurance agency, nor may a prohibited person be involved in the day-to-day operations of the title agency.
(H) Severability
If any paragraph, term or provision of this rule is adjudged invalid for any reason, the judgment shall not affect, impair or invalidate any other paragraph, term or provision of this rule, but the remaining paragraphs, terms and provisions shall be and continue in full force and effect.
Last updated February 14, 2022 at 8:56 AM
History
- Effective: February 14, 2022
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-5-11 Use of senior-specific certifications and professional designations in the marketing, solicitation, negotiation, sale or purchase of a life or health insurance policy or annuity.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to set forth standards to protect consumers from dishonest, unfair, deceptive, misleading, and fraudulent trade practices with respect to the use of senior-specific certifications and professional designations in the marketing, solicitation, negotiation, sale, or purchase of, or advice made in connection with, life or health insurance, or an annuity product.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041, 3901.21, 3901.212, 3905.0611, and 3905.28 of the Revised Code.
(C) Application and scope
This rule applies to any marketing, solicitation, negotiation, or sale or purchase of, or advice made in connection with, a life or health insurance policy, or annuity product by an insurance agent in this state.
Nothing in this rule limits the superintendent's authority to enforce existing provisions of law.
(D) Definitions
(1) "Agent" or "insurance agent" means any person who, in order to sell, solicit, or negotiate life and health insurance and annuities, is required to be licensed under the laws of this state.
(2) "Financial services regulatory agency" means an agency that regulates insurers, insurance agents, broker-dealers, investment advisers, or investment companies as that term is defined in the "Investment Company Act of 1940," 15 U.S.C. 80a-3, as amended.
(3) "Health insurance" means any policy of individual or group sickness and accident insurance, long term care insurance, medicare advantage, medicare supplement, and medicare part D.
(E) Prohibited uses of senior-specific certifications and professional designations
(1) It is an unfair and deceptive trade practice under sections 3901.19 to 3901.26 of the Revised Code and a dishonest practice under division (B)(9) of section 3905.14 of the Revised Code for an insurance agent to use a senior-specific certification or professional designation that indicates or implies in such a way as to mislead a purchaser or prospective purchaser that the insurance agent has special certification or training in advising or providing services to seniors in connection with the marketing, negotiating, soliciting, selling, or purchase of a life or health insurance policy, or annuity product or in the provision of advice as to the value of or the advisability of purchasing of a life or health insurance policy or annuity product, either directly or indirectly, through publications or writings, or by issuing or promulgating analyses or reports related to a life or health insurance or annuity product.
(2) The prohibited use of senior-specific certifications or professional designations includes, but is not limited to, the following:
(a) Use of a certification or professional designation by an insurance agent who has not actually earned or is otherwise ineligible to use such certification or designation;
(b) Use of a nonexistent or self-conferred certification or professional designation;
(c) Use of a certification or professional designation that indicates or implies a level of occupational qualifications obtained through education, training or experience that the insurance agent did not complete or does not have; or
(d) Use of a certification or professional designation that was obtained from a certifying or designating organization that:
(i) Is primarily engaged in the business of instruction in sales or marketing;
(ii) Does not have reasonable standards or procedures for assuring the competency of its certificants or designees;
(iii) Does not have reasonable standards or procedures for monitoring and disciplining its certificants or designees for improper or unethical conduct; or
(iv) Does not have reasonable continuing education requirements for its certificants or designees to maintain the certificate or designation.
(F)
There is a rebuttable presumption that a certifying or designating organization is not disqualified under this rule when the certification or designation issued by the organization does not primarily apply to sales or marketing and has been accredited by one of the following accrediting entities:
(1) The "American National Standards Institute" ("ANSI");
(2) The "National Commission for Certifying Agencies"; or
(3) Any organization actively recognized as an accrediting agency by the U.S. Department of Education pursuant to 34 CFR part 602.
(G) Words or combinations of words implying special training in advising or providing services to seniors
(1) Factors to be considered when determining whether a combination of words or an acronym standing for a combination of words constitutes a certification or professional designation indicating or implying that an insurance agent has special certification or training in advising or servicing seniors include:
(a) Use of one or more words such as "senior," "retirement," "elder," "medicare," or like words combined with one or more words such as "certified," "registered," "chartered," "advisor," "specialist," "consultant," "planner," or like words, in the name of the certification or professional designation; and
(b) The manner in which those words are used or combined.
(2) For purposes of this rule, a job title within an organization that is licensed or registered by a state or federal financial services regulatory agency is not a certification or professional designation unless it is used in a manner that would confuse or mislead a reasonable consumer, when the job title:
(a) Indicates seniority or standing within the organization; or
(b) Specifics an individual's area of specialization within the organization.
(H) Penalties
A violation of this rule is an unfair and deceptive trade practice under sections 3901.19 to 3901.26 of the Revised Code and a dishonest practice under division (B)(9) of section 3905.14 of the Revised Code.
(I) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated November 16, 2023 at 8:31 AM
History
- Effective: November 16, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-5-12 Misconduct by insurance license applicants and licensees.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to implement statutes setting forth standards of conduct and responsibility applicable to insurance license applicants, licensees, and/or companies licensed or authorized to transact the business of insurance by the superintendent of insurance.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041, 3901.21, and 3905.01 to 3905.14 of the Revised Code.
(C) The following conduct by individuals warrants suspension, revocation, or refusal to issue or renew an insurance license, assessment of a civil penalty, or imposition of any other sanctions authorized under Title 39 of the Revised Code:
Whenever it is shown, in accordance with the Revised Code, that an individual has solicited, procured, or placed additional or replacement health or sickness and accident insurance coverage where he or she knew or should have known that the insured or potential insured:
(1) Was and would continue to be covered by substantially duplicative insurance coverage, where the additional coverage will either not pay additional benefits to those offered by the existing coverage or will provide minimal benefits in relation to the cost to that individual of maintaining such coverage; or
(2) Would not be entitled to the benefits of that coverage, because of existing health conditions, where the agent had caused that individual to believe that he or she would be entitled to such benefits; or
(3) Intended to replace existing insurance coverage but would not be entitled to receive benefits from the replacing insurance coverage until he or she had completed some waiting period, which the agent had not disclosed to the insured or potential insured.
(D) Responsibility of insurance company and/or agent for conduct of a licensed insurance agent or an employee.
An insurance company and/or agent may be found to have engaged in an unfair or deceptive practice, whenever any of the following is shown:
(1) The insurance company or the managing or principal agent of an insurance agency knew or should have known of the misconduct of its licensed agent or employee, as set forth in paragraph (C) of this rule, and has adopted a practice whereby it has:
(a) Expressly ratified, encouraged, or tolerated such misconduct; or
(b) Failed to notify the Ohio department of insurance on those occasions where it has reasonable cause to believe that there has been a violation or is a continuing violation of this rule, and the details thereof which are known by the company or agent. Such information shall be treated as confidential by the department of insurance in accordance with the statutes and rules contained in Chapter 3901. of the Revised Code and agency 3901 of the Administrative Code; or
(c) Failed, upon the request of the department of insurance, to make a reasonable investigation to determine if such misconduct has occurred.
(2) An insurance company has refused to refund an insured's or potential insured's premium payment, insurance distribution or refund, or to issue insurance coverage to that person, at that person's election, where the company's agent has violated any insurance law or rule.
An agent shall be deemed to be the agent of the company for purposes of paragraph (D)(2) of this rule whenever it is shown that:
(a) The agent is appointed by the company and has solicited sold or negotiated insurance to the insured or potential insured on behalf of the company; or
(b) The agent is not appointed by the company, or has been terminated as an agent of the company, but has been given or permitted to retain copies of the company's applications, receipts, rate books, or other supplies and has solicited and sold insurance coverage to the insured or potential insured who has justifiably relied on the agent's apparent authority to act on behalf of the company. The company shall not be deemed to be responsible for such agent's conduct, for the purposes of this rule, if it has made a good faith effort to recover its applications, receipts, rate books or other supplies.
(E) Severability
If any paragraph, term or provision of this rule is adjudged invalid for any reason, the judgment shall not affect, impair or invalidate any other paragraph, term or provision of this rule, but the remaining paragraphs, terms and provisions shall be and continue in full force and effect.
Last updated October 11, 2023 at 1:52 PM
History
- Effective: November 3, 2016
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-5-13 Insurance navigator certification and agent exchange requirements.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to set forth procedures and requirements for the certification of insurance navigators as recognized by the department as both an individual and business entity, and the requirements for agents who sell health coverage on the exchange.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041, 3905.12, 3905.47 to 3905.473 of the Revised Code.
(C) Insurance navigator certification
(1) An individual applying for certification as an insurance navigator must comply with the requirements contained in section 3905.471 of the Revised Code.
(2) An individual applying for certification shall do all of the following:
(a) Complete at least twenty-four hours of pre-certification education requirements including all of the following, but not limited to;
(i) Compliance with the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996, Pub. L. No. 104-191, 110 Stat. 1955, 42 U.S.C.A. 300gg, as amended, and any regulation adopted thereunder;
(ii) Ethics;
(iii) Provisions of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (ACA), 124 Stat. 119, 42 U.S.C. 18031 (2011);
(iv) Levels of coverage available under the ACA;
(v) Eligibility requirements to purchase qualified health plans;
(vi) Means of appeal and dispute resolution;
(vii) Conflict of interest and impartiality;
(viii) Exchange privacy policies and requirements;
(ix) Individual eligibility requirements for medicaid;
(x) Advanced premium tax credits and cost sharing reductions;
(xi) Publicly funded health care (children's health insurance program, medicaid); and
(xii) Eligibility requirements for employers to make insurance available to their employees through the "Small Business Health Options Program" (SHOP) created by division (b)(1)(B) of section 1311 of the ACA.
(b) Successfully complete a criminal background check pursuant to section 3905.051 of the Revised Code with satisfactory results upon review by the superintendent. Any applicant with a conviction notes in the background check may submit information to the superintendent on why the conviction does not impact their fitness to perform as a navigator.
(c) Successfully complete a comprehensive exam including pertinent information that is included within the required education credits. This requirement will be met by the successful completion of an examination administered under the regulations implemented by the secretary of health and human services.
(d) Submit an application and disclosure form by which the insurance navigator shall disclose any potential conflicts of interest based upon the regulations implemented by the secretary of health and human services to avoid conflicts of interest.
(3) If the applicant has met the required education standards set forth by the exchange as defined in division (X) of section 3905.01 of the Revised Code, the applicant shall have subsequently met all education requirements listed in this rule.
(4) A certified insurance navigator must notify the department of a criminal conviction within thirty days of a court ruled conviction.
(D) Business entity insurance navigator certification
Pursuant to section 3905.471 of the Revised Code, an insurance navigator business entity applying for certification must comply with the following requirements:
(1) Complete a business entity application and provide information required by the superintendent;
(2) The applicant has designated a certified insurance navigator who will be responsible for the applicant's compliance with the insurance navigator laws of this state and has certified there are no conflicts of interest, as defined in the regulations implemented by the secretary of health and human services;
(3) Certify that all applicants have met the required training, background check, and disclosure standards;
(4) Maintain a list of every individual insurance navigator who is affiliated with the entity;
(5) Provide an assigned federal identification number as well as proof of federal funding under division (i) of section 1311 of the ACA;
(6) If the business entity ceases to exist as a corporate or other legal entity, its insurance navigator certification may be revoked;
(7) Report any change in its name, address, email address, certified insurance navigators, officers, directors, and members or owners with ten per cent or more voting interest in the certified entity to the superintendent within thirty days of such change;
(8) Apply for certification under the legal name of the applicant as registered with the Ohio secretary of state. The superintendent may deny the use of a name that is too similar to a name already in use by another business entity or a name that may be misleading to the public;
(9) Be authorized to do business in the state of Ohio by the Ohio secretary of state if so required by section 1703.03, 1705.54, or 1775.64 of the Revised Code;
(10) Each business entity applicant for certification as an insurance navigator shall pay an initial application fee of two hundred dollars and an annual certification renewal fee of one hundred dollars for each renewal thereafter.
(11) Be found suitable to be certified by the superintendent.
(E) Certification renewal requirements
(1) Individual and business entity insurance navigator certifications expire annually on October thirty-first.
(a) Certified insurance navigators must annually submit a renewal application on or before October thirty-first. That includes all of the following, but not limited to:
(i) Proof of completion of continuing education which can be demonstrated by completing renewal requirements of the federally-facilitated exchange under the regulations implemented by the secretary of health and human services; and
(ii) A renewal application.
(b) A business entity insurance navigator certification must be renewed annually. The renewal application needs to include all of the following, but not limited to:
(i) A renewal application; and
(ii) Pay the renewal fee as prescribed in paragraph (D)(10) of this rule.
(c) If an individual or business entity does not apply for the renewal of the individual or business entity's insurance navigator certification on or before the certification renewal date specified in paragraph (E)(1) of this rule, the individual or business entity may submit a late renewal application along with a fifty dollar fee prior to December first. Failure to submit a late renewal application along with a fifty dollar fee prior to December first, will result in cancellation of the insurance navigator certificate on December first.
(2) The superintendent has the authority to waive any fees required by this rule or reinstate any insurance navigator certificate cancelled pursuant to this rule, due to military service, a long term medical disability, or some other special or extenuating circumstance.
(F) A contracted third party acting under the authority of an entity described in paragraph (F)(1), (F)(2), (F)(3) or (F)(4) of this rule, to provide information on the entity's premises to persons not covered under a health benefit plan, or persons acting within the scope of their employment for a:
(1) Licensed health care provider or a hospital registered with the Ohio department of health;
(2) Federally qualified health center or a federally qualified health center look-alike as defined in section 3701.047 of the Revised Code;
(3) Non-profit organization whose primary purpose is the distribution of food stuffs, groceries, donated goods or purchased goods in their community or surrounding communities, to meet the emergency needs of the communities or participating outlets; and
(4) An agency of the state or a political subdivision as defined in division (D) of section 3905.36 of the Revised Code.
That is not holding itself out as a person or an entity serving as an insurance navigator, are exempt from the requirements of sections 3905.47 to 3905.474 of the Revised Code and this rule.
(G) Agent exchange requirements
(1) Pursuant to section 3905.47 of the Revised Code, a licensed insurance agent that wishes to sell, solicit, or negotiate a qualified health plan through the exchange must first complete a training program required by the exchange. If the applicant has met the education standards set forth by the exchange, the applicant has met all initial education requirements.
(2) A non-resident applicant who has taken substantially similar courses in exchange training within their home state will be deemed to be in compliance with paragraph (G)(1) of this rule.
(H) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated July 27, 2023 at 9:02 AM
History
- Effective: July 1, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Chapter 3901-6 Life Insurance
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-6-01 Solicitation of life insurance and/or annuity contracts.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to set forth standards and protect consumers by establishing certain requirements and prohibiting certain practices related to the solicitation and sale of life insurance and annuity contracts.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041, 3901.21, and 3901.212 of the Revised Code.
(C) Applicability
This rule applies to all life insurance and annuity products solicited, marketed, or sold in this state.
(D) Prohibition of misleading policies
In reviewing policies for approval or disapproval, the superintendent may consider the titles, terms and text of that policy and request and review the following materials and data:
(1) Any and all advertisements, estimates, comparisons, illustrations, circulars, statements, notices, brochures, pamphlets, letters, posters, announcements, articles, projections, literature, pictures, reports, books, newspapers, magazines, records, films or other material of any nature whatsoever made, issued, circulated, published, disseminated, delivered, used, referred to or placed before the public in any manner in connection with or in conjunction with that policy; and
(2) Any and all oral statements, assertions, or representations, the sales techniques or procedures, and the training, study, or learning devices or programs made, used, followed, or employed by the officers, agents, employees, or representatives of the insurance company.
(E) Policy name or title
No person, insurance company, insurance agent, insurance broker or insurance company representative may deliver within this state or issue for delivery within this state, any policy of life insurance or sales or advertising material relating thereto without the use of the words "life insurance" in its name or title unless accompanied by other language clearly indicating that the contract is a policy of life insurance or annuity, whichever is applicable.
(F) Sales practices
No life insurance company or official, employee, broker, agent, solicitor, or other representative, in writing or orally, may do any of the following to induce the purchase of any policy within this state:
(1) Make any statement or use any sales or advertising material in connection with any policy which provides a pure guaranteed annual endowment unless the gross premium and benefit amount are shown separately and distinctly from the gross premium for and the amount of the life insurance benefit on the same page and without undue emphasis or prominence to either benefit.
(2) Make any statement or use any sales or advertising material, unless the amount of the pure guaranteed annual endowment is expressed in dollars and not as a percentage of any premium or benefit.
(3) Make any statement or use any sales or advertising material wherein the pure guaranteed annual endowment is described as a "guaranteed check," "guaranteed dividend," "return," etc., or anything other than a guaranteed benefit for which a premium is being paid by the policyholder.
(4) Fail to disclose to the prospect, orally and in writing, in dollars on a year-to-year cumulative basis, the amount of benefit on such annual endowments and the cost, including the amount by which premiums are reduced after maturity of the last endowment for a proposed or in effect policy with a series of fully guaranteed endowments. Paragraphs (F)(1) to (F)(4) of this rule only apply to fully guaranteed annual endowments that are equal to or less than the policy's gross annual premium.
(5) Make any statement or reference to dividends on a life insurance policy or annuity contract that would reasonably imply any of the following:
(a) That dividends are anything other than an adjustment of the cost of insurance in the form of an equitable distribution of surplus that reflects the actual experience of the insurance company principally in mortality, interest return on investment, and administrative expense.
(b) That dividends to a policyholder are substantially "profits," "earnings," "return," or "investment return" unless and to the extent that aggregate dividends received exceed the gross premiums paid by the policyholder.
(c) That dividends during the premium-paying period are paid on other than a single year's premium.
(d) That dividends are income tax free without an explanation that they constitute a partial refund of the policyholder's premium, and, therefore, would constitute income only when, and to the extent that, distributions during the life of the insured or annuitant exceed the aggregate premiums paid on the policy.
(e) That dividends in the future are apt to increase due to the historical trend of dividend payments by the life insurance company unless there is also a disclosure of any deficit in unassigned surplus during the years those dividend payments were made.
(6) Make any statement or illustration with respect to sharing in divisible surplus or surplus of the company other than because of the company's current dividend scale with a disclosure that its scale may increase or decrease in the future and a disclosure that there is a deficit in unassigned surplus, if a deficit exists.
(7) State or imply that a policyholder will secure a right to a stated percentage of net gain from operations or other benefits, which are not a part of the policy itself or made a part thereof by rider or other instrument previously approved by the department.
(8) Use the terms "investment," "investment plan," "expansion plan," "profit," "profits," "profit sharing," and other similar terms in connection with a policy of life insurance or an annuity contract in a context or under such circumstances or conditions as to have the capacity or tendency to mislead a purchaser or prospect to believe that they will receive something other than a life insurance policy or annuity contract.
(9) Refer to a policyholder as a "partner" unless they have been advised that they do not have the legal rights of a partner in a statutory or common law sense.
(10) Make any statement or distribute any sales literature prepared by an allegedly independent third person or unrelated company that purports to analyze the policy or life insurance company without disclosing the amount of remuneration or fee, if any, paid, directly or indirectly, to that third person or company for its analysis.
(11) Make any statement or imply that projected dividends under a participating policy will be or can be sufficient at any time to assure the receipt of any benefits, such as a paid-up policy or "self-sustaining" policy, without the further payment of premiums, unless the statement is accompanied by an adequate explanation as to:
(a) What benefits or coverage would be provided or discontinued at such time; and
(b) The conditions under which this would occur.
(12) Make any statement or reference in any solicitation of an application for life insurance related to the growth of the life insurance industry or to the tax status of life insurance companies in connection with or in a context that could reasonably be interpreted or understood to interest a prospect in the purchase of shares of stock in an insurance company or becoming an investor in an insurance company rather than in the purchase of a life insurance policy.
(13) Make any statement that reasonably gives rise to the inference that the policyholder or a prospective policyholder, by virtue of purchasing a policy of life insurance, will enjoy a status common to a stockholder or will acquire a stock ownership interest in the insurance company, its parent, or any affiliated company.
(14) Make any reference to or statement concerning an insurance company's "investment department," "insured investment department," or similar terminology in a manner that would imply that the policy was sold or issued by the investment department of the life insurance company.
(15) Make any statement or reference that would reasonably imply that the purchaser or prospective purchaser will become a member of a limited group of persons who are to receive special advantages or favored treatment in the payment of dividends by purchasing a policy, unless the policy form filed with and approved by the department contains the following language "This clause has no relation or applicability to policies under which insured persons of one class or risk may receive dividends at a higher rate than persons of another class of risk nor shall it imply that any policy may contain a preferential benefit which discriminates against future policyholders."
(16) Make any statement or reference concerning a parent or affiliate's growth, earnings or future prospects without a clear explanation that the identified parent or affiliate is not the life insurance company whose policy is offered for sale.
(17) State or imply that life insurance proceeds payable at death are in lieu of "profits" or shares of surplus the policyholder would have received had they lived or otherwise infer that life insurance protection merely is incidental to the contract.
(18) State or imply that sales of a policy are limited to shareholders, persons recommended by shareholders, or to insurance released by shareholders, unless an assignable option to purchase life insurance is granted to each shareholder, which option may not be assigned to the life insurance company, and a record of all assignments identifying both assignor and assignee is maintained by the company.
(19) State or imply that policyholders who are said to act as "centers of influence" or descriptions of similar context for an insurance company will share in the company's surplus, earnings or profits in some preferential manner based on those actions, recognition, or status unless the preference is clearly expressed in the policy form provisions filed with and not disapproved by the department. A provision that the "policy participates in the surplus of the company" does not create a preference because it is common to participating policies.
(20) Describe or refer to premium payments in language that states that the payment is a "deposit" unless:
(a) The payment establishes a debtor-creditor relationship between the life insurance company and the policyholder and a showing is made as to when and how the deposit may be withdrawn; or
(b) The term is used in conjunction with the word "premium" in a manner that clearly indicates the true character of the payment.
(21) Provide any illustration or projection of future dividends on a policy unless:
(a) The illustration or projection is based upon the experience currently used by the insurance company for dividends or upon a scale adopted by the company; and
(b) The illustration or projection clearly indicates that the dividends shown are not guaranteed.
(22) Use the words "dividends," "cash dividends," "surplus," or similar phrases in a manner that would state or imply that the payment of dividends in any amount is guaranteed or certain to occur.
(23) State or imply that a purchaser of a policy will share in all or part of the earnings, profits or net operating gains of the insurance company, provided that nothing in this subsection is intended to prohibit a representation that a holder of a participating life insurance policy will participate equitably in any future distributions out of the surplus of the company.
(24) State that the insured is guaranteed certain benefits if the policy is allowed to lapse without making an adequate explanation of the nonforfeiture benefits.
(25) Describe a life insurance policy or related premium payments in terms of "units of participation" or "units," or use the words "contract," "contract plan," "plan," or similar terms, unless accompanied by other language clearly indicating the reference is to a life insurance policy.
(26) Include in sales kits and prepared sales presentations proposed answers, to be used in response to a prospect's questions as to whether life insurance is being sold, which are designed to avoid a clear and unequivocal statement that life insurance is the subject matter of the solicitation.
(27) Display any material to a prospective policyholder of life insurance or endowment benefits that includes illustrations, using dollar amounts, unless the material clearly identifies the source of the dollar amounts and the subject to which such amounts pertain.
(28) Make any general statement that insurance companies make a profit because of policy lapse or surrenders.
(29) Make any comparison between the policy being offered and a previous or prior policy or the life insurance companies that issued that policy if the previous or prior policy is no longer lawful, unless a fair and reasonable disclosure related to the previous or prior policy or the life insurance company that issued that policy had unfavorable experience with that previous or prior policy.
(30) State or imply that possession of a license to sell life insurance or a charter to engage in the business of life insurance is unique, or anything other than that which is required of all persons or companies that market life insurance.
(31) State that the sales presentation delivered to the prospect is on file with the department of insurance.
(32) State that a policy contains certain features that are not found in other life insurance policies, unless that statement is true.
(33) Represent that an option to purchase insurance in the future is equivalent to having that additional amount of insurance obtainable through exercise of the option actually in force.
(34) Offer to sell any life insurance policy or annuity contract in any capacity other than that of a fully licensed life insurance agent.
(35) Reference a policy of life insurance or an annuity contract in a manner that would misrepresent the true nature of the policy or contract.
(36) Distribute any literature or make any statement about any other company or any of its policies based upon the company's being required to change any policy forms, sales, marketing, advertising, or other materials or presentations to induce any policyholder or prospect to purchase, amend, lapse, forfeit, change, or surrender insurance.
(37) State or imply that a prospective policyholder must purchase a policy immediately upon initial contact by agent or lose the opportunity to purchase that policy.
(38) The above listing of proscribed acts is not intended to be exhaustive; other acts, not listed above but otherwise unlawful, will not be condoned.
(G) Consumer information
Information about the insurance products referenced in this rule, including consumer guides, and definitions of insurance terms, is available to consumers on the department's website or by contacting the department by phone.
(H) Severability
If any paragraph, term or provision of this rule is adjudged invalid for any reason, the judgment shall not affect, impair or invalidate any other paragraph, term or provision of this rule, but the remaining paragraphs, terms and provisions shall be and continue in full force and effect.
Last updated November 16, 2023 at 8:31 AM
History
- Effective: November 16, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-6-02 Correlated sales of life insurance and mutual funds or other securities.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to establish minimum standards for the form of proposals and statements used to solicit, service, or collect premiums for life insurance which is sold as part of a mutual fund or other security.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority invested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041, 3901.21, and 3901.212 of the Revised Code.
(C) Applicability
This rule applies to:
(1) Acts and practices in the advertising promotion, solicitation, negotiation of, or effecting the sale of:
(a) A life insurance policy or annuity contract that is part of the sales of shares of a mutual fund or other security, or
(b) A contract that assumes or requires the purchase of a life insurance policy as part of the sale of shares of a mutual fund or other security.
(2) Any acts and practices related to the solicitation, sale, servicing, or collection of premiums for a life insurance policy or annuity contract that is part of the sale of shares of a mutual fund or other security by an insurance company, agent, person, corporation, partnership, association, trust, or fund, including language disseminated by means of sales kits, policy jackets or covers, letters, personal presentations, visual aids and other sales media.
As used in this rule, "security" has the same meaning as set forth in division (B) of section 1707.01 of the Revised Code as well as participation in common trust funds of any financial institution.
(D) Responsibility of company and agent
Any proposal or billing from an insurance company, agent, or person to whom this rule applies in connection with correlated sales of a life insurance policy or annuity contract that is part of the sale of shares of a mutual fund or other securities is subject to this rule. Every insurance company will ensure that its agents comply with this rule.
(E) Tie-in sales
A customer's or prospective purchaser's right to purchase a life insurance policy or annuity contract only, shares of a mutual fund or other securities only, or both a life insurance policy or annuity contract and shares of a mutual fund or other securities is to be fully disclosed by an agent at the commencement of and throughout any sales presentation for a life insurance policy or annuity contract sold as part of the sale of shares of a mutual fund or other security.
(F) Written proposal
A clear and unambiguous written proposal to a consumer or prospective purchaser of a life insurance policy or annuity contract sold as part of the sale of shares of a mutual fund or other security is to be provided by an agent not later than at the time the solicitation or proposal is made. A copy of that written proposal is to be retained by the agent or insurance company in accordance with paragraph (I) of this rule.
(G) Contents of proposal
Any proposal created according to this rule will:
(1) Be dated and signed by the insurance agent or company;
(2) State the name of the insurance company in which the life insurance policy or annuity contract is to be written;
(3) State that the purchaser has the right to purchase the life insurance policy or annuity contract only, mutual fund shares or other securities only, or both the life insurance policy or annuity contract and mutual fund shares or other securities;
(4) Accurately and completely state all facts related to the life insurance policy or annuity contract sold as part of the sale of shares of a mutual fund or other security;
(5) Be free from any misrepresentations or false, deceptive, or misleading words, figures or statements that could independently or collectively have the capacity or tendency to mislead or deceive;
(6) Show the premium for the life insurance policy or annuity contract separately from any other charge;
(7) If values which may accrue prior to the death of the insured or contract holder are involved in the presentation, show the value of the life insurance policy or annuity contract separate from any other values;
(8) If a death benefit is involved in the presentation, show the amount of the death benefit for the life insurance policy or annuity contract separate from any other benefit which may accrue upon the death of the insured or contract holder;
(9) Set forth all matters pertaining to the life insurance policy or annuity contract separate from any matter not pertaining to the life insurance policy or annuity contract; and
(10) Set forth policy numbers, name of company, face values, and cash values of all existing policies or annuity contracts of the insured or contract holder, respectively, indicating those policies or annuity contracts to be surrendered if the proposal is accepted.
(H) Statement to be separate
The premium for the life insurance policy or annuity contract is to be itemized and shown separate from any other itemized charges or values listed in any bill, statement, draft, or representation sent or delivered to any prospect, policyholder, or contract holder. However, nothing in this rule requires the total premium for the life insurance policy or annuity contract to be further itemized.
(I) Maintenance of advertising and other sales material files by company
Every insurance company subject to this rule is required to retain all advertising or other sales materials used in connection with the sale of a life insurance policy or annuity contract as part of the sale of shares of a mutual fund or other securities with a notation attached thereto that indicates the manner and extent of distribution, nature of use, and form number of any policy issued in connection with the applicable correlate plan, including every printed, published, or prepared advertisement, advertising material, sales literature, and sales aid of any other kind. Such records are to be retained for at least three years and are subject to regular and periodic inspection by this department. The records are to be made available for inspection at the insurance company's home or principal office.
(J) Exclusion
This rule does not apply to any arrangement for the correlated sale of a life insurance policy or annuity contract as part of the sale of share of a mutual fund or other securities that would be a "security" as defined by the Securities Act of 1933 or the Ohio Securities Act of July 22, 1929 (Chapter 1707. of the Revised Code). However, any sales literature and contract to purchase a life insurance policy or annuity contract in connection with an arrangement for the correlated sale of a life insurance policy or annuity contract is subject to the requirements in Chapter 3905. of the Revised Code.
(K) Dual license required
No person shall sell, solicit, or negotiate insurance that is part of a sale of shares of a mutual fund or other security unless that person is licensed and appointed as an insurance agent in accordance with sections 3905.02 and 3905.20 of the Revised Code and licensed by the division of securities of the department of commerce, state of Ohio, in accordance with Chapter 1707. of the Revised Code.
(L) Violation
A violation of this rule is an unfair and deceptive practice under sections 3901.19 to 3901.26 of the Revised Code and misrepresentation under section 3999.08 of the Revised Code.
(M) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated November 16, 2023 at 8:31 AM
History
- Effective: November 16, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-6-03 Life insurance disclosure.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to assist consumers by requiring insurers to deliver information about life insurance policies that will better allow those consumers to select the most appropriate policy for their needs, improve their understanding of the policy's basic features, and improve the consumer's ability to evaluate the relative costs of different policies.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041, 3901.21, 3901.212, and 3905.28 of the Revised Code.
(C) Scope
(1) Except for the exemptions specified in paragraph (C)(2) of this rule, this rule applies to any solicitation, negotiation or procurement of life insurance occurring within this state by any issuer of life insurance contracts including fraternal benefit societies.
(2) Unless specifically included, this rule does not apply to:
(a) Annuities;
(b) Credit life insurance;
(c) Group life insurance;
(d) Life insurance policies issued in connection with pension and welfare plans as defined by and subject to the federal Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA), 29 U.S.C. section 1001 et seq. as amended; or
(e) Variable life insurance under which the amount or duration of the life insurance varies according to the investment experience of a separate account.
(D) Definitions
(1) "Buyer's Guide" is the document included as appendix A to this rule.
(2) Cost comparison indexes
(a) "Surrender Cost Comparison Index--Guaranteed Basis" is calculated by applying the following steps:
(i) Step one: determine the guaranteed cash surrender value, if any, available at the end of the tenth and twentieth policy years.
(ii) Step two: divide the result of step one by an interest factor that converts it into an equivalent level annual amount that, if paid at the beginning of each year, would accrue to the value in step one over the respective periods stipulated in step one. If the period is ten years, the factor is 13.207 and if the period is twenty years, the factor is 34.719.
(iii) Step three: determine the equivalent guaranteed level premium by accumulating each guaranteed annual premium payable for the basic policy or rider at five per cent interest compounded annually to the end of the period stipulated in step one and dividing the result by the respective factors stated in step two. This amount is the guaranteed annual premium payable for a level premium plan.
(iv) Step four: subtract the result of step two from the result of step three.
(v) Step five: divide the result of step four by the number of thousands of the equivalent guaranteed level death benefit, using the company's guaranteed rate schedule to determine the amount payable upon death for purposes of paragraph (D)(3)(a) of this rule, to arrive at the "Surrender Cost Comparison Index-Guaranteed Basis."
(b) "Net Payment Cost Comparison Index--Guaranteed Basis" is calculated in the same manner as the comparable "Surrender Cost Comparison Index--Guaranteed Basis" except that the cash surrender value is set at zero.
(3) "Equivalent Guaranteed Level Death Benefit" of a policy or term life insurance rider is an amount calculated as follows:
(a) Step six: accumulate the amount payable upon death, regardless of the cause of death, at the beginning of each policy year for ten and twenty years at five per cent interest compounded annually to the end of the tenth and twentieth policy years respectively.
(b) Step seven: divide each accumulation of step six by an interest factor that converts the accumulation into one equivalent level annual amount that, if paid at the beginning of each year, would accrue to the value in step six over the respective periods stipulated in step six. If the period is ten years, the factor is 13.207 and if the period is twenty years, the factor is 34.719.
(4) "Generic Name" is a short title that is descriptive of the premium and benefit patterns of a policy or a rider.
(5) "Policy Data" is a display or schedule of guaranteed numerical values for each policy year or a series of designated policy years of the following information: premiums; death benefits; cash surrender values and endowment benefits.
(6) "Policy summary" is a written statement describing the elements of the policy, including:
(a) A prominently placed title such as: "STATEMENT OF POLICY COST AND BENEFIT INFORMATION."
(b) The name and address of the insurance agent or, if no agent is involved, a statement of the procedure to be followed to receive responses to inquiries regarding the policy summary.
(c) The full name and home office or administrative office address of the company where the life insurance policy is to be or has been written.
(d) The generic name of the basic policy and each rider.
(e) The following amounts, where applicable, for the first five policy years and representative policy years thereafter sufficient to clearly illustrate the premium and benefit patterns, including the years for which cost comparison indexes are displayed and the earlier of at least one age from sixty through sixty-five and policy maturity:
(i) The guaranteed annual premium for the basic policy;
(ii) The guaranteed annual premium for each optional rider;
(iii) The guaranteed amount payable upon death at the beginning of the policy year regardless of the cause of death, other than suicide or other specifically enumerated exclusions, which is provided by the basic policy and each optional rider, with benefits provided under the basic policy and each rider shown separately;
(iv) The guaranteed total cash surrender values at the end of the year with values shown separately for the basic policy and each rider; and
(v) Any guaranteed endowment amounts payable under the policy which are not included under cash surrender values in this paragraph.
(f) The effective policy loan annual percentage interest rate specifying whether this rate is applied in advance or in arrears, if the policy contains this provision, or a statement that the annual percentage rate will be determined by the company in accordance with the provisions of the policy and applicable law, if the policy loan interest rate is adjustable.
(g) Separate cost comparison indexes for the basic policy and for each optional term life insurance rider for ten and twenty years but in no case beyond the premium-paying period. Cost comparison indexes need not be included for basic policies, optional riders covering more than one life, or optional riders which are limited to benefits, such as accidental death benefits, disability waiver of premium, preliminary term life insurance coverage of less than twelve months and guaranteed insurability benefits.
(h) This statement in close proximity to the cost comparison indexes:
"An explanation of the intended use of these indexes is provided in the Life Insurance Buyer's Guide."
(i) The date on which the policy summary is prepared.
The policy summary must consist of a separate document. All information required to be disclosed must be set out in such a manner as not to minimize or render any portion obscure. Any amounts which remain level for two or more years of the policy may be represented by a single number if it is clearly indicated what amounts are applicable for each policy year. Amounts in paragraph (D)(6)(e) of this rule are to be listed in total, not on a per thousand nor per unit basis. If more than one insured is covered under one policy or rider, death benefits are to be displayed separately for each insured or for each class of insureds if death benefits do not differ within the class. Zero amounts are to be displayed as a zero and not as a blank.
(E) Duties of insurers
(1) The insurer is responsible for providing all prospective purchasers with a copy of the buyer's guide and a policy summary prior to accepting the applicant's initial premium or premium deposit; provided, however, that:
(a) If an illustration subject to the requirements of rule 3901-6-04 of the Administrative Code is used in the sale of a policy, a policy summary need not be provided. Only guarantees may be shown in the policy summary for policies written with an application date on or after the effective date of rule 3901-6-04 of the Administrative Code.
(b) If the policy for which application is made or its policy summary contains an unconditional refund provision of at least ten days, the buyer's guide and policy summary are to be delivered with the policy or prior to delivery of the policy.
(c) If the equivalent guaranteed level death benefit of the policy for which application is made does not exceed five thousand dollars, an insurer will be considered to have met the requirement to provide a policy summary upon delivery of a written statement containing the information described in paragraphs (D)(6)(b), (D)(6)(c), (D)(6)(d), (D)(6)(e)(i), (D)(6)(e)(ii), (D)(6)(e)(iii), (D)(6)(e)(iv), (D)(6)(f), (D)(6)(g), (D)(6)(h), and (D)(6)(i) of this rule.
(2) In the case of a solicitation by direct response methods, the insurer shall provide the buyer's guide and a policy summary prior to accepting the applicant's application; provided however, that if the policy for which application is made contains an unconditional refund provision of at least ten days, the buyer's guide and a policy summary may be delivered with the policy.
(3) Insurers will make the buyer's guide, a policy summary, or policy data available to the prospective purchaser upon the prospective purchaser's request.
(F) Special plans
This paragraph modifies the application of this rule as indicated for certain special plans of life insurance:
(1) "Flexible Premium and Benefit Policies." For policies commonly called "universal life insurance policies," which:
(a) Permit the policyowner to vary, independently of each other, the amount and timing of premium payments, or the amount payable on death; and
(b) Provide for a cash value that is based on separately identified interest credits and mortality and expense charges applied to the policy.
All indexes and other data are to be displayed assuming specific schedules of anticipated premiums and death benefits at issue.
In addition to all other information required by this rule, the policy summary shall indicate when the policy will expire based on the interest rates and mortality and other charges guaranteed in the policy and the anticipated or assumed annual premiums shown in the policy summary.
(2) "Multitrack Policies." For policies which allow a policyowner to change or convert the policy from one plan or amount to another, the policy summary:
(a) Will display all indexes and other data assuming that the option is not exercised; and
(b) May display all indexes and other data using a stated assumption about the exercise of the option.
(3) "Policies with Any Rate Subject to Continued Insurability." For policies that allow a policyowner a reduced premium rate if the insured periodically submits evidence of continued insurability, the policy summary will:
(a) Display cost indexes and other data assuming that the insured always qualifies for the lowest premium;
(b) Display cost indexes and other data assuming that the company always charges the highest premiums allowable; and
(c) Indicate the conditions that must be fulfilled for an insured to qualify periodically for the reduced rate.
(G) General rules
(1) A complete file containing one copy of each document authorized and used by the insurer pursuant to this rule will be maintained by the insurer at its home office or principal office and contain one copy of each authorized form for a period of three years following the date of its last authorized use, unless otherwise provided by this rule.
(2) Prior to commencing a life insurance sales presentation, an agent shall inform the prospective purchaser that the agent is acting as a life insurance agent and inform the prospective purchaser of the full name of the insurance company which the agent is representing to the buyer. In sales situations in which an agent is not involved, the insurer shall identify its full name.
(3) No term may be used in a way that would reasonably imply that the agent is primarily engaged in an advisory business in which compensation is unrelated to sales unless that is actually the case. Terms that could reasonably imply an advisory business include financial planner, investment advisor, financial consultant, financial counselor, or financial counseling.
(4) No reference may be made to a dividend or non-guaranteed element.
(5) Any statement regarding the use of the cost comparison indexes are to include an explanation to the effect that the indexes are useful only for the comparison of the relative costs of two or more similar policies.
(H) Failure to comply
Failure of an insurer or an agent to provide or deliver the buyer's guide, a policy summary or policy data as provided in paragraphs (E) and (F) of this rule, constitute an omission which misrepresents the benefits, advantages, conditions or terms of an insurance policy. In addition to any other penalties provided by the laws of this state, a violation of this rule is an unfair and deceptive act or practice under section 3901.21 of the Revised Code.
(I) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
View Appendix
Last updated November 16, 2023 at 8:31 AM
History
- Effective: November 16, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-6-04
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to provide rules for life insurance policy illustrations that will protect consumers and foster consumer education. The rule provides illustration formats, prescribes standards to be followed when illustrations are used, and specifies the disclosures that are required in connection with illustrations. The goals of this rule are to ensure that illustrations do not mislead purchasers of life insurance and to make illustrations more understandable. Insurers will, as far as possible, eliminate the use of footnotes and caveats and define terms used in the illustration in language that would be understood by a typical person within the segment of the public to which the illustration is directed.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041 and 3901.21 of the Revised Code.
(C) Scope
This rule applies to all group and individual life insurance policies and certificates except:
(1) Variable life insurance;
(2) Individual and group annuity contracts;
(3) Credit life insurance; or
(4) Life insurance policies with illustrated death benefits on any individual not exceeding ten thousand dollars.
(D) Definitions
(1) "Actuarial Standards Board" means the board established by the American academy of actuaries to develop and promulgate standards of actuarial practice.
(2) "Contract premium" means the gross premium that is required to be paid under a fixed premium policy, including the premium for a rider for which benefits are shown in the illustration.
(3) "Currently payable scale" means a scale of non-guaranteed elements in effect for a policy form as of the preparation date of the illustration or declared to become effective within the next ninety-five days.
(4) "Disciplined current scale" means a scale of non-guaranteed elements constituting a limit on illustrations currently being illustrated by an insurer that is reasonably based on actual recent historical experience, as certified annually by an illustration actuary designated by the insurer. Further guidance in determining the disciplined current scale as contained in standards established by the actuarial standards board may be relied upon if the standards:
(a) Are consistent with all provisions of this rule;
(b) Limit a disciplined current scale to reflect only actions that have already been taken or events that have already occurred;
(c) Do not permit a disciplined current scale to include any projected trends of improvements in experience or any assumed improvements in experience beyond the illustration date; and
(d) Do not permit assumed expenses to be less than minimum assumed expenses.
(5) "Generic name" means a short title descriptive of the policy being illustrated such as "whole life," "term life," or "flexible premium adjustable life."
(6) "Guaranteed elements" and "non-guaranteed elements".
(a) "Guaranteed elements" means the premiums, benefits, values, credits or charges under a policy of life insurance that are guaranteed and determined at issue.
(b) "Non-guaranteed elements" means the premiums, benefits, values, credits or charges under a policy of life insurance that are not guaranteed or not determined at issue.
(7) "Illustrated scale" means a scale of non-guaranteed elements currently being illustrated that is not more favorable to the policy owner than the lesser of:
(a) The disciplined current scale; or
(b) The currently payable scale.
(8) "Illustration" means a presentation or depiction that includes non-guaranteed elements of a policy of life insurance over a period of years and that is one of the three types defined as followed:
(a) "Basic illustration" means a ledger of proposal used in the sale of a life insurance policy that shows both guaranteed and non-guaranteed elements.
(b) "Supplemental illustration" means an illustration furnished in addition to a basic illustration that meets the applicable requirements of this rule, and that may be presented in a format differing from the basic illustration, but may only depict a scale of non-guaranteed elements that is permitted in a basic illustration.
(c) "In force illustration" means an illustration furnished at any time after the policy that it depicts has been in force for one year or more.
(9) "Illustration actuary" means an actuary meeting the requirements of paragraph (K) of this rule who certifies to illustrations based on the standard of practice promulgated by the actuarial standards board.
(10) "Lapse-supported illustration" means an illustration of a policy form failing the test of self-supporting as defined in this rule, under a modified persistency rate assumption using persistency rates underlying the disciplined current scale for the first five years and one hundred per cent policy persistency thereafter.
(11)
(a) "Minimum assumed expenses" means the minimum expenses that may be used in the calculation of the disciplined current scale for a policy form. The insurer may choose to designate each year the method of determining assumed expenses for all policy forms from the following:
(i) Fully allocated expenses;
(ii) Marginal expenses; and
(iii) A generally recognized expense table based on fully allocated expenses representing a significant portion of insurance companies and approved by the national association of insurance commissioners (NAIC) or by the superintendent.
(b) Marginal expenses may be used only if greater than a generally recognized expense table. If no generally recognized expense table is approved, fully allocated expenses must be used.
(12) "Non-term group life" means a group policy or individual policies of life insurance issued to members of an employer group or other permitted group where:
(a) Every plan of coverage was selected by the employer or other group representative;
(b) Some portion of the premium is paid by the group or through payroll deduction; and
(c) Group underwriting or simplified underwriting is used.
(13) "Policy owner" means the owner named in the policy or the certificate holder in the case of a group policy.
(14) "Premium outlay" means the amount of premium assumed to be paid out-of-pocket by the policy owner or other premium payer.
(15) "Self-supporting illustration" means an illustration of a policy form for which it can be demonstrated that, when using experience assumptions underlying the disciplined current scale, for all illustrated points in time on or after the fifteenth policy anniversary or the twentieth policy anniversary for second-or-later-to-die policies (or upon policy expiration if sooner), the accumulated value of all policy cash flows equals or exceeds the total policy owner value available. For this purpose, policy owner value will include cash surrender values and any other illustrated benefit amounts available at the policy owner's election.
(E) Policies to be illustrated
(1) Each insurer marketing policies to which this rule is applicable shall notify the superintendent whether a policy form is to be marketed with or without an illustration. For all policy forms being actively marketed on the effective date of this rule, the insurer shall identify in writing those forms and whether or not an illustration will be used with them. For policy forms filed after the effective date of this regulation, the identification shall be made at the time of filing. Any previous identification may be changed by notice to the superintendent.
(2) If the insurer identifies a policy form as one to be marketed without an illustration, any use of an illustration for any policy using that form prior to the first policy anniversary is prohibited.
(3) If a policy form is identified by the insurer as one to be marketed with an illustration, a basic illustration prepared and delivered in accordance with this regulation is required, except that a basic illustration need not be provided to individual members of a group or to individuals insured under multiple lives coverage issued to a single applicant unless the coverage is marketed to these individuals. The illustration furnished to an applicant for a group life insurance policy or policies issued to a single applicant on multiple lives may be either an individual or composite illustration representative of the coverage on the lives of members of the group or the multiple lives covered.
(4) Potential enrollees of non-term group life subject to this rule shall be furnished a quotation with the enrollment materials. The quotation shall show potential policy values for sample ages and policy years on a guaranteed and non-guaranteed basis appropriate to the group and the coverage. This quotation shall not be considered an illustration for purposes of this rule, but all information provided shall be consistent with the illustrated scale. A basic illustration shall be provided at delivery of the certificate to enrollees for non-term group life who enroll for more than the minimum premium necessary to provide pure death benefit protection. The insurer shall make a basic illustration available to any non-term group life enrollee who requests it.
(F) General rules and prohibitions
(1) An illustration used in the sale of a life insurance policy shall satisfy the applicable requirements of this rule, be clearly labeled "life insurance illustration" and contain the following basic information:
(a) Name of insurer;
(b) Name and business address of agent or insurer's authorized representative, if any;
(c) Name, age and sex of proposed insured, except where a composite illustration is permitted under this rule;
(d) Underwriting or rating classification upon which the illustration is based;
(e) Generic name of policy, the company product name, if different, and form number;
(f) Initial death benefit; and
(g) Dividend option election or application of non-guaranteed elements, if applicable.
(2) When using an illustration in the sale of a life insurance policy, an insurer or its agents or other authorized representatives shall not:
(a) Represent the policy as anything other than a life insurance policy;
(b) Use or describe non-guaranteed elements in a manner that is misleading or has the capacity or tendency to mislead;
(c) State or imply that the payment or amount of non-guaranteed elements is guaranteed;
(d) Use an illustration that does not comply with the requirements of this rule;
(e) Use an illustration that at any policy duration depicts policy performance more favorable to the policy owner than that produced by the illustrated scale of the insurer whose policy is being illustrated;
(f) Provide an applicant with an incomplete illustration;
(g) Represent in any way that premium payments will not be required for each year of the policy in order to maintain the illustrated death benefits, unless that is the fact;
(h) Use the term "vanish" of "vanishing premium," or a similar term that implies the policy becomes paid up, to describe a plan for using non-guaranteed elements to pay a portion of future premiums;
(i) Except for policies that can never develop nonforfeiture values, use an illustration that is "lapse-supported"; or
(j) Use an illustration that is not "self-supporting."
(3) If an interest rate used to determine the illustrated non-guaranteed elements is shown, it shall not be greater than the earned interest rate underlying the disciplined current scale.
(G) Standards for basic illustrations
(1) Format. A basic illustration shall conform with the following requirements:
(a) The illustration shall be labeled with the date on which it was prepared.
(b) Each page, including any explanatory notes or pages, shall be numbered and show its relationship to the total number of pages in the illustration (e.g., the fourth page of a seven-page illustration shall be labeled "page 4 of 7 pages").
(c) The assumed dates of payment receipt and benefit pay-out within a policy year shall be clearly identified.
(d) If the age of the proposed insured is shown as a component of the tabular detail, it shall be issue age plus the number of years the policy is assumed to have been in force.
(e) The assumed payments on which the illustrated benefits and values are based shall be identified as premium outlay or contract premium, as applicable. For policies that do not require a specific contract premium, the illustrated payments shall be identified as premium outlay.
(f) Guaranteed death benefits and values available upon surrender, if any, for the illustrated premium outlay or contract premium shall be shown and clearly labeled guaranteed.
(g) If the illustration shows any non-guaranteed elements, they cannot be based on a scale more favorable to the policy owner than the insurer's illustrated scale at any duration. These elements shall be clearly labeled non-guaranteed.
(h) The guaranteed elements, if any, shall be shown before corresponding non-guaranteed elements and shall be specifically referred to on any page of an illustration that shows or describes only the non-guaranteed elements (e.g., "see page one for guaranteed elements.")
(i) The account or accumulation value of a policy, if shown, shall be identified by the name this value is given in the policy being illustrated and shown in close proximity to the corresponding value available upon surrender.
(j) The value available upon surrender shall be identified by the name this value is given in the policy being illustrated and shall be the amount available to the policy owner in a lump sum after deduction of surrender charges, policy loans and policy loan interest, as applicable.
(k) Illustrations may show policy benefits and values in graphic or chart form in addition to the tabular form.
(l) Any illustration of non-guaranteed elements shall be accompanied by a statement indicating that:
(i) The benefits and values are not guaranteed;
(ii) The assumptions on which they are based are subject to change by the insurer; and
(iii) Actual results may be more or less favorable.
(m) If the illustration shows that the premium payer may have the option to allow policy charges to be paid using non-guaranteed values, the illustration must clearly disclose that a charge continues to be required and that, depending on actual results, the premium payer may need to continue or resume premium outlays. Similar disclosure shall be made for premium outlay of lesser amounts or shorter durations than the contract premium. If a contract premium is due, the premium outlay display shall not be left blank or show zero unless accompanied by an asterisk or similar mark with an explanation that the policy is not paid up.
(n) If the applicant plans to use dividends or policy values, guaranteed or non-guaranteed, to pay all or a portion of the contract premium or policy charges, or for any other purpose, the illustration may reflect those plans and the impact on future policy benefits and values.
(2) Narrative summary. A basic illustration shall include the following:
(a) A brief description of the policy being illustrated, including a statement that it is a life insurance policy;
(b) A brief description of the premium outlay or contract premium, as applicable, for the policy. For a policy that does not require payment of a specific contract premium, the illustration shall show the premium outlay that must be paid to guarantee coverage for the term of the contract, subject to maximum premiums allowable to qualify as a life insurance policy under the applicable provisions of the Internal Revenue Code;
(c) A brief description of any policy features, riders, or options, guaranteed or non-guaranteed, shown in the basic illustration and the impact they may have on the benefits and values of the policy;
(d) Identification and a brief definition of column headings and key terms used in the illustration; and
(e) A statement containing the following: "this illustration assumes that the currently illustrated non-guaranteed elements used will not change for all years shown. This is not likely to occur, and actual results may be more or less favorable than those shown."
(3) Numeric summary.
(a) Following the narrative summary, a basic illustration shall include a numeric summary of the death benefits and values and the premium outlay and contract premium, as applicable. For a policy that provides for a contract premium, the guaranteed death benefits and values shall be based on the contract premium. This summary shall be shown for at least policy years five, ten and twenty, and at age seventy, if applicable, on the three bases shown in this paragraph. For multiple life policies the summary shall show policy years five, ten, twenty and thirty.
(i) Policy guarantees;
(ii) Insurer's illustrated scale;
(iii) Insurer's illustrated scale used but with the non-guaranteed elements reduced as follows:
(a) Dividends at fifty per cent of the dividends contained in the illustrated scale used;
(b) Non-guaranteed credited interest at rates that are the average of the guaranteed rates and the rates contained in the illustrated scale used; and
(c) All non-guaranteed charges, including but not limited to, term insurance charges, mortality and expense charges, at rates that are the average of the guaranteed rates and the rates contained in the illustrated scale used.
(b) In addition, if coverage would cease prior to policy maturity or age one hundred, the year in which coverage ceases shall be identified for each of the three bases.
(4) Statements. Statements substantially similar to the following shall be included on the same page as the numeric summary and signed by the applicant, or the policy owner in the case of an illustration provided at time of delivery, as required in this rule.
(a) A statement to be signed and dated by the applicant or policy owner reading as follows: "I have received a copy of this illustration and understand that any non-guaranteed elements illustrated are subject to change and could be either higher or lower. The agent has told me they are not guaranteed."
(b) A statement to be signed and dated by the insurance agent or other authorized representative of the insurer reading as follows: "I certify that this illustration has been presented to the applicant and that I have explained that any non-guaranteed elements illustrated are subject to change. I have made no statements that are inconsistent with the illustration."
(5) Tabular detail.
(a) A basic illustration shall include the following for at least each policy year from one to ten and for every fifth policy year thereafter ending at age one hundred, policy maturity or final expiration; and except for term insurance beyond the twentieth year, for any year in which the premium outlay and contract premium, if applicable, is to change:
(i) The premium outlay and mode the applicant plans to pay and the contract premium, as applicable;
(ii) The corresponding guaranteed death benefit, as provided in the policy; and
(iii) The corresponding guaranteed value available upon surrender, as provided in the policy.
(b) For a policy that provides for a contract premium, the guaranteed death benefit and value available upon surrender, shall correspond to the period of time (policy year) for which the contract premium has been paid.
(c) Non-guaranteed elements may be shown if described in the contract. In the case of an illustration for a policy on which the insurer intends to credit terminal dividends, they may be shown if the insurer's current practice is to pay terminal dividends. If any non-guaranteed elements are shown they must be shown at the same durations as the corresponding guaranteed elements, if any. If no guaranteed benefit or value is available at any duration for which a non-guaranteed benefit or value is shown, a zero shall be displayed in the guaranteed column.
(H) Standards for supplemental illustrations
(1) A supplemental illustration may be provided so long as:
(a) It is appended to, accompanied by or preceded by a basic illustration that complies with this rule;
(b) The non-guaranteed elements shown are not more favorable to the policy owner than the corresponding elements based on the scale used in the basic illustration;
(c) It contains the same statement required of a basic illustration that non-guaranteed elements are not guaranteed; and
(d) For a policy that has a contract premium, the contract premium underlying the supplemental illustration is equal to the contract premium shown in the basic illustration. For policies that do not require a contract premium, the premium outlay underlying the supplemental illustration shall be equal to the premium outlay shown in the basic illustration.
(2) The supplemental illustration shall include a notice referring to the basic illustration for guaranteed elements and other important information.
(I) Delivery of illustration and record retention
(1)
(a) If a basic illustration is used by an insurance agent or other authorized representative of the insurer in the sale of a life insurance policy and the policy is applied for as illustrated, a copy of that illustration, signed in accordance with this rule, shall be submitted to the insurer at the time of policy application. A copy also shall be provided to the applicant.
(b) If the policy is issued other than as applied for, a revised basic illustration conforming to the policy as issued shall be sent with the policy. The revised illustration shall conform to the requirements of this rule, shall be labeled "Revised Illustration" and shall be signed and dated by the applicant or policy owner and agent or other authorized representative of the insurer no later than the time the policy is delivered. A copy shall be provided to the insurer and the policy owner.
(2)
(a) If no illustration is used by an insurance agent or other authorized representative of the insurer in the sale of a life insurance policy or if the policy is applied for other than as illustrated, the agent or representative shall certify to that effect in writing on a form provided by the insurer. On the same form the applicant shall acknowledge that no illustration conforming to the policy applied for was provided and shall further acknowledge an understanding that an illustration conforming to the policy as issued will be provided no later than at the time of policy delivery. This form shall be submitted to the insurer at the time of policy application.
(b) If the policy is issued, a basic illustration conforming to the policy as issued shall be sent with the policy and signed no later than the time the policy is delivered. A copy shall be provided to the insurer and the policy owner.
(3) If the basic illustration or revised illustration is sent to the applicant or policy owner by mail from the insurer, it shall include instructions for the applicant or policy owner to sign the duplicate copy of the numeric summary page of the illustration for the policy issued and return the signed copy to the insurer. The insurer's obligation under this paragraph shall be satisfied if it can demonstrate that it has made a diligent effort to secure a signed copy of the numeric summary page. The requirement to make a diligent effort shall be deemed satisfied if the insurer includes in the mailing a self-addressed postage prepaid envelope with instructions for the return of the signed numeric summary page.
(4) A copy of the basic illustration and a revised basic illustration, if any, signed as applicable, along with any certification that either no illustration was used or that the policy was applied for other than as illustrated, shall be retained by the insurer until three years after the policy is no longer in force. A copy need not be retained if no policy is issued.
(J) Annual report; notice to policy owners
(1) In the case of a policy designated as one for which illustrations will be used, the insurer shall provide each policy owner with an annual report on the status of the policy that shall contain at least the following information;
(a) For universal life policies, the report shall include the following:
(i) The beginning and end date of the current report period;
(ii) The policy value at the end of the previous report period and at the end of the current report period;
(iii) The total amounts that have been credited or debited to the policy value during the current report period, identifying each by type (e.g., interest, mortality, expense and riders);
(iv) The current death benefit at the end of the current report period on each life covered by the policy;
(v) The net cash surrender value of the policy as of the end of the current report period;
(vi) The amount of outstanding loans, if any, as of the end of the current report period; and
(vii) For fixed premium policies:
If, assuming guaranteed interest, mortality and expense loads and continued scheduled premium payments, the policy's net cash surrender value is such that it would not maintain insurance in force until the end of the next reporting period, a notice to this effect shall be included in the report; or
(viii) For flexible premium policies:
If, assuming guaranteed interest, mortality and expense loads, the policy's net cash surrender value will not maintain insurance in force until the end of the next reporting period unless further premium payments are made, a notice to this effect shall be included in the report.
(b) For all other policies, where applicable:
(i) Current death benefit;
(ii) Annual contract premium;
(iii) Current cash surrender value;
(iv) Current dividend;
(v) Application of current dividend; and
(vi) Amount of outstanding loan.
(c) Insurers writing life insurance policies that do not build nonforfeiture values shall only be required to provide an annual report with respect to these policies for those years when a change has been made to non-guaranteed policy elements by the insurer.
(2) If the annual report does not include an in force illustration, it shall contain the following notice displayed prominently: "IMPORTANT POLICY OWNER NOTICE: you should consider requesting more detailed information about your policy to understand how it may perform in the future. You should not consider replacement of your policy or make changes in your coverage without requesting a current illustration. You may annually request, without charge, such an illustration by calling [insurer's phone number], writing to [insurer's name] at [insurer's address] or contacting your agent. If you do not receive a current illustration of your policy within thirty days from your request, you should contact your state insurance department." The insurer may vary the sequential order of the methods for obtaining an in force illustration.
(3) Upon the request of the policy owner, the insurer shall furnish an in force illustration of current and future benefits and values based on the insurer's present illustrated scale. This illustration shall comply with the requirements of paragraphs (F)(1), (F)(2), (G)(1) and (G)(5) of this rule. No signature or other acknowledgment of receipt of this illustration shall be required.
(4) If an adverse change in non-guaranteed elements that could affect the policy has been made by the insurer since the last annual report, the annual report shall contain a notice of that fact and the nature of the change prominently displayed.
(K) Annual certifications
(1) The board of directors of each insurer shall appoint one or more illustration actuaries.
(2) The illustration actuary shall certify that the disciplined current scale used in illustrations is in conformity with actuarial standard of practice no. 24, compliance with the NAIC life insurance illustrations model regulation, promulgated by the actuarial standards board in December 2016, and that the illustrated scales used in insurer-authorized illustrations meet the requirements of this rule.
(3) The illustration actuary shall:
(a) Be a member of the American academy of actuaries and qualified to provide such certifications as described in the U.S. qualifications standards promulgated by the American academy of actuaries pursuant to the code of professional conduct;
(b) Be familiar with the standard of practice regarding life insurance policy illustrations;
(c) Not have been found by the superintendent, following appropriate notice and hearing to have:
(i) Violated any provision of, or any obligation imposed by, the insurance law or other law in the course of actuary's dealings as an illustration actuary;
(ii) Been found guilty of fraudulent or dishonest practices;
(iii) Demonstrated the actuary's incompetence, lack of cooperation, or untrustworthiness to act as an illustration actuary; or
(iv) Resigned or been removed as an illustration actuary within the past five years as a result of acts or omissions indicated in any adverse report on examination or as a result of a failure to adhere to generally acceptable actuarial standards;
(d) Not fail to notify the superintendent of any action taken by a commissioner of another state similar to that under paragraph (K)(3)(c) of this rule;
(e) Disclose in the annual certification whether, since the last certification, a currently payable scale applicable for business issued within the previous five years and within the scope of the certification has been reduced for reasons other than changes in the experience factors underlying the disciplined current scale. If non-guaranteed elements illustrated for new policies are not consistent with those illustrated for similar in force policies, this must be disclosed in the annual certification. If non-guaranteed elements illustrated for both new and in force policies are not consistent with the non-guaranteed elements actually being paid, charged or credited to the same or similar forms, this must be disclosed in the annual certification; and
(f) Disclose in the annual certification the method used to allocate overhead expenses for all illustrations:
(i) Fully allocated expenses;
(ii) Marginal expenses; or
(iii) A generally recognized expense table based on fully allocated expenses representing a significant portion of insurance companies and approved by the NAIC or by the superintendent.
(4)
(a) The illustration actuary shall file a certification with the board and with the superintendent:
(i) Annually for all policy forms for which illustrations are used; and
(ii) Before a new policy form is illustrated.
(b) If an error in a previous certification is discovered, the illustration actuary shall promptly notify the board of directors of the insurer and the superintendent.
(5) If an illustration actuary is unable to certify the scale for any policy form illustration the insurer intends to use, the actuary shall promptly notify the board of directors of the insurer and the superintendent of the actuary's inability to certify.
(6) A responsible officer of the insurer, other than the illustration actuary, shall certify annually:
(a) That the illustration formats meet the requirements of this rule and that the scales used in the insurer-authorized illustrations are those scales certified by the illustration actuary; and
(b) That the company has provided its agents with information about the expense allocation method used by the company in its illustrations and disclosed as required in paragraph (K)(3)(f) of this rule.
(7) The annual certifications shall be provided to the superintendent each year by a date determined by the insurer.
(8) If an insurer changes the illustration actuary responsible for all or a portion of the company's policy forms, the insurer shall promptly notify the superintendent of that fact and disclose the reason for the change.
(L) Penalties
In addition to any other penalties provided by the laws of this state, an insurer, agent, or authorized representative of the insurer that violates a requirement of this rule shall be guilty of a violation of section 3901.21 of the Revised Code.
(M) Severability
If any paragraph, term or provision of this rule is adjudged invalid for any reason, the judgment shall not affect, impair or invalidate any other paragraph, term or provision of this rule, but the remaining paragraphs, terms and provisions shall be and continue in full force and effect.
(N) Effective date
This rule shall apply to policies illustrated or written with an application date on or after the effective date.
Last updated November 17, 2022 at 8:53 AM
History
- Effective: November 17, 2022
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-6-05 Replacement of life insurance and annuities.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to:
(1) Regulate the activities of insurers and agents with respect to the replacement of existing life insurance and annuities.
(2) Protect the interests of life insurance and annuity purchases by establishing minimum standards of conduct to be observed in replacement or financed purchase transactions. It will:
(a) Assure that purchasers receive information with which a decision can be made in the purchaser's own best interest;
(b) Reduce the opportunity for misrepresentation and incomplete disclosure; and
(c) Establish penalties for failure to comply with requirements of this rule.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041 and 3901.21 of the Revised Code. This rule implements sections 3901.19 to 3901.221 of the Revised Code.
(C) Scope
(1) Unless otherwise specifically included, this rule does not apply to transactions involving:
(a) Credit life insurance;
(b) Group life insurance or group annuities where there is no direct solicitation of individuals by an insurance agent. Direct solicitation does not include any group meeting held by an insurance agent solely for the purpose of educating or enrolling individuals or, when initiated by an individual member of the group, assisting with the selection of investment options offered by a single insurer in connections with enrolling that individual. Group life insurance or group annuity certificates marketed through direct response solicitation are subject to the provisions of paragraph (I) of this rule.
(c) Group life insurance and annuities used to fund prearranged funeral contracts;
(d) An application to the existing insurer that issued the existing policy or contract when a contractual change or a conversion privilege is being exercised; or, when the existing policy or contract is being replaced by the same insurer pursuant to a program filed with and approved by the superintendent; or, when a term conversion privilege is exercised among corporate affiliates;
(e) Proposed life insurance that is to replace life insurance under a binding or conditional receipt issued by the same company;
(f)
(i) Policies or contracts used to fund:
(a) An employee pension or welfare benefit plan that is covered by the "Employee Retirement and Income Security Act (ERISA)";
(b) A plan described by sections 401(a), 401(k) or 403(b) of the "Internal Revenue Code," where the plan, for the purposes of "ERISA," is established or maintained by an employer;
(c) A governmental or church plan defined in section 414, a governmental or church welfare benefit plan, or a deferred compensation plan of a state or local government or tax exempt organization under section 457 of the "Internal Revenue Code;" or
(d) A nonqualified deferred compensation arrangement established or maintained by an employer or plan sponsor;
(ii) Notwithstanding paragraph (C)(1)(f)(i) of this rule, this rule applies to policies or contracts used to fund any plan or arrangement that is funded solely by contributions an employee elects to make, whether on a pre-tax or after-tax basis, and where the insurer has been notified that plan participants may choose from among two or more insurers and there is a direct solicitation of an individual employee by an insurance agent for the purchase of a contract or policy. As used in this paragraph, direct solicitation does not include any group meeting held by an insurance agent solely for the purpose of educating individuals about the plan or arrangement or enrolling individuals in the plan or arrangement or, when initiated by an individual employee, assisting with the selection of investment options offered by a single insurer in connections with enrolling that individual employee;
(g) Where new coverage is provided under a life insurance policy or contract and the cost is borne wholly by the insured's employer or by an association of which the insured is a member;
(h) Existing life insurance that is a non-convertible term life insurance policy that will expire in five years or less and cannot be renewed;
(i) Immediate annuities that are purchased with proceeds from an existing contract. Immediate annuities purchased with proceeds from an existing policy are not exempted from the requirements of this rule; or
(j) Structured settlements.
(2) Registered contracts are exempt from the requirements of paragraphs (G)(1)(b) and (H)(2) of this rule with respect to the provision of illustrations or policy summaries; however, premium or contract contribution amounts and identification of the appropriate prospectus or offering circular is required instead.
(D) Definitions
As used in this rule:
(1) "Agent" or "insurance agent" means any person that, in order to sell, solicit, or negotiate insurance, is required to be licensed under the laws of this state with a life line of authority. For the purposes of this rule, the term "agent" is defined to include agents, brokers and producers.
(2) "Direct-response solicitation" means a solicitation through a sponsoring or endorsing entity or individually solely through mails, telephone, the Internet or other mass communication media.
(3) "Existing insurer" means the insurance company whose policy or contract is or will be changed or affected in a manner described with the definition of "replacement."
(4) "Existing policy or contract" means an individual life insurance policy (policy) or annuity contract (contract) in force, including a policy under a binding or conditional receipt or a policy or contract that is within an unconditional refund period.
(5) "Financed purchase" means the purchase of a new policy involving the actual or intended use of funds obtained by the withdrawal or surrender of, or by borrowing from values of an existing policy to pay all or part of any premium due on the new policy. For purposes of a regulatory review of an individual transaction only, if a withdrawal, surrender or borrowing involving the policy values of an existing policy is used to pay premiums on a new policy owned by the same policyholder and issued by the same company within four months before or thirteen months after the effective date of the new policy, it will be deemed prima facie evidence of the policyholder's intent to finance the purchase of the new policy with existing policy values. This prima facie standard is not intended to increase or decrease the monitoring obligations contained in paragraph (F)(1)(e) of this rule.
(6) "Illustration" means a presentation or depiction that includes non-guaranteed elements of a policy of life insurance over a period of years as defined in rule 3901-6-04 of the Administrative Code.
(7) "Policy summary":
(a) For policies or contracts other than universal life policies, means a written statement regarding a policy or contract which shall contain to the extent applicable, but need not be limited to, the following information: current death benefit; annual contract premium; current cash surrender value; current dividend; application of current dividend; and amount of outstanding loan.
(b) For universal life policies, means a written statement that shall contain at least the following information: the beginning and end date of the current report period; the policy value at the end of the previous report period and at the end of the current report period; the total amounts that have been credited or debited to the policy value during the current report period, identifying each by type (e.g., interest, mortality, expense and riders); the current death benefit at the end of the current report period on each life covered by the policy; the net cash surrender value of the policy as of the end of the current report period; and the amount of outstanding loans, if any, as of the end of the current report period.
(8) "Replacing insurer" means the insurance company that issues or proposes to issue a new policy or contract that replaces an existing policy or contract or is a financed purchase.
(9) "Registered contract" means a variable annuity contract or variable life insurance policy subject to the prospectus delivery requirements of the "Securities Act of 1933," as amended.
(10) "Replacement" means a transaction in which a new policy or contract is to be purchased, and it is known or should be known to the proposing agent, or to the proposing insurer if there is no agent, that by reason of the transaction, an existing policy or contract has been or is to be:
(a) Lapsed, forfeited, surrendered or partially surrendered, assigned to the replacing insurer or otherwise terminated;
(b) Converted to reduced paid-up insurance, continued as extended term insurance, or otherwise reduced in value by the use of nonforfeiture benefits or other policy values;
(c) Amended so as to effect either a reduction in benefits or in the term for which coverage would otherwise remain in force or for which benefits would be paid;
(d) Reissued with any reduction in cash value; or
(e) Used in a financed purchase.
(11) "Sales material" means a sales illustration and any other written, printed or electronically presented information created, or completed or provided by the company or agent and used in the presentation to the policy or contract owner related to the policy or contract purchased.
(E) Duties of agents
(1) A agent who initiates an application shall submit to the insurer, with or as part of the application, a statement signed by both the applicant and the agent as to whether the applicant has existing policies or contracts. If the answer is "no," the agent's duties with respect to replacement are complete.
(2) If the applicant answered "yes" to the question regarding existing coverage referred to in paragraph (E)(1) of this rule, the agent shall present and read to the applicant, not later than at the time of taking the application, a notice regarding replacements in the form as described in appendix A to this rule or other substantially similar form approved by the superintendent. However, no approval is required when amendments to the notice are limited to the omission of references not applicable to the product being sold or replaced. The notice shall be signed by both the applicant and the agent attesting that the notice has been read aloud by the agent or that the applicant did not wish the notice to be read aloud (in which case the agent need not have read the notice aloud) and left with the applicant.
(3) The notice shall list all life insurance policies or annuities proposed to be replaced, properly identified by name of insurer, the insured or annuitant, and policy or contract number if available; and shall include a statement as to whether each policy or contract will be replaced or whether a policy will be used as a source of financing for the new policy or contract. If a policy or contract number has not been issued by the existing insurer, alternative identification, such as an application or receipt number, shall be listed.
(4) In connection with a replacement transaction, the agent shall leave with the applicant at the time an application for a new policy or contract is completed the original or a copy of all sales material. With respect to electronically presented sales material, it shall be provided to the policy or contract owner in printed form no later than at the time of policy or contract delivery.
(5) Except as provided in paragraph (G)(3) of this rule, in connection with a replacement transaction the agent shall submit to the insurer to which an application for a policy or contract is presented, a copy of each document required by this section, a statement identifying any preprinted or electronically presented company approved sales materials used, and copies of any individualized sales materials, including any illustrations related to the specific policy or contract purchased.
(F) Duties of insurers that use agents
Each insurer shall:
(1) Maintain a system of supervision and control to ensure compliance with the requirements of this rule including the following:
(a) Inform its agents of the requirements of this rule and incorporate the requirements of this rule into all relevant agent training manuals prepared by the insurer;
(b) Provide to each agent a written statement of the company's position with respect to the acceptability of replacements providing guidance to its agent as to the appropriateness of these transactions;
(c) A system to review the appropriateness of each replacement transaction that the agent does not indicate is in accordance with paragraph (F)(1)(b) of this rule;
(d) Procedures to confirm that the requirements of this rule have been met; and
(e) Procedures to detect transactions that are replacements of existing policies or contracts by the existing insurer, but that have not been reported as such by the applicant or agent. Compliance with this rule may include, but shall not be limited to, systematic customer surveys, interviews, confirmation letters, or programs of internal monitoring.
(2) Have the capacity to monitor each agent's life insurance policy and annuity contract replacements for that insurer, and shall produce, upon request, and make such records available to the superintendent of insurance. The capacity to monitor shall include the ability to produce records for each agent's:
(a) Life replacements, including financed purchases, as a percentage of the agent's total annual sales for life insurance;
(b) Number of lapses of policies by the agent as a percentage of the agent's total annual sales for life insurance;
(c) Annuity contract replacements as a percentage of the agent's total annual annuity contract sales;
(d) Number of transactions that are unreported replacements of existing policies or contracts by the existing insurer detected by the company's monitoring system as required by paragraph (F)(1)(e) of this rule; and
(e) Replacements, indexed by replacing agent and existing insurer;
(3) Require with or as a part of each application for life insurance or an annuity a signed statement by both the applicant and the agent as to whether the applicant has existing policies or contracts;
(4) Require with each application for life insurance or an annuity that indicates an existing policy or contract a completed notice regarding replacements as contained in appendix A to this rule.
(5) When the applicant has existing policies or contracts, each insurer shall be able to produce copies of any sales material required by paragraph (E)(5) of this rule, the basic illustration and any supplemental illustrations related to the specific policy or contract that is purchased, and the agent's and applicant's signed statements with respect to financing and replacement for at least five years after the termination or expiration of the proposed policy or contract;
(6) Ascertain that the sales material and illustrations required by paragraph (E)(5) of this rule meet the requirements of this rule and are complete and accurate for the proposed policy or contract;
(7) If an application does not meet the requirements of this rule, notify the agent and applicant and fulfill the outstanding requirements; and
(8) Maintain records in paper, photograph, microprocess, magnetic, mechanical or electronic media or by any process that accurately reproduces the actual document.
(G) Duties of replacing insurers that use agents
(1) Where a replacement is involved in the transaction, the replacing insurer shall:
(a) Verify that the required forms are received and are in compliance with this rule;
(b) Notify any other existing insurer that may be affected by the proposed replacement within five business days of receipt of a completed application indicating replacement or when the replacement is identified if not indicated on the application, and mail a copy of the available illustration or policy summary for the proposed policy or available disclosure document for the proposed contract within five business days of a request from an existing insurer;
(c) Be able to produce copies of the notification regarding replacement required in paragraph (E)(2) of this rule, indexed by agent, for at least five years or until the next regular examination by the insurance department of a company's state of domicile, whichever is later; and
(d) Provide to the policy or contract owner notice of the right to return the policy or contract within thirty days of the delivery of the contract and receive an unconditional full refund of all premiums or considerations paid on it, including any policy fees or charges or, in the case of a variable or market value adjustment policy or contract, a payment of the cash surrender value provided under the policy or contract plus the fees and other charges deducted from the gross premiums or considerations or imposed under such policy or contract; such notice may be included in appendix A or appendix C to this rule.
(2) In transactions where the replacing insurer and the existing insurer are the same or subsidiaries or affiliates under common ownership or control, allow credit for the period of time that has elapsed under the replaced policy's or contract's incontestability and suicide period up to the face amount of the existing policy or contract. With regard to financed purchases, the credit may be limited to the amount the face amount of the existing policy is reduced by the use of existing policy values to fund the new policy or contract.
(3) If an insurer prohibits the use of sales material other than that approved by the company, as an alternative to the requirements made of an insurer pursuant to paragraph (E)(5) of this rule, the insurer may:
(a) Require with each application a statement signed by the agent that:
(i) Represents that the agent used only company-approved sales material; and
(ii) States that copies of all sales material were left with the applicant in accordance with paragraph (E)(4) of this rule; and
(b) Within ten days of the issuance of the policy or contract:
(i) Notify the applicant by sending a letter or by verbal communication with the applicant by a person whose duties are separate from the marketing area of the insurer, that the agent has represented that copies of all sales material have been left with the applicant in accordance with paragraph (E)(4) of this rule;
(ii) Provide the applicant with a toll free number to contact company personnel involved in the compliance function if such is not the case; and
(iii) Stress the importance of retaining copies of the sales material for future reference; and
(c) Be able to produce a copy of the letter or other verification in the policy file for at least five years after the termination or expiration of the policy or contract.
(H) Duties of the existing insurer
Where a replacement is involved in the transaction, the existing insurer shall:
(1) Retain and be able to produce all replacement notifications received, indexed by replacing insurer, for at least five years or until the conclusion of the next regular examination conducted by the insurance department of its state of domicile, whichever is later.
(2) Send a letter to the policy or contract owner of the right to receive information regarding the existing policy or contract values including, if available, an in force illustration or policy summary if an in force illustration cannot be produced with five business days of receipt of a notice that an existing policy or contract is being replaced. The information shall be provided within five business days of receipt of the request from the policy or contract owner.
(3) Upon receipt of a request to borrow, surrender or withdraw any policy values, send a notice advising the policyowner that the release of policy values may affect the guaranteed elements, non-guaranteed elements, face amount or surrender value of the policy from which the values are released. The notice shall be sent separate from the check if the check is sent to anyone other than the policyowner. In the case of consecutive automatic premium loans, the insurer is only required to send the notice at the time of the first loan.
(I) Duties of insurers with respect to direct response solicitations
(1) In the case of an application that is initiated as a result of a direct response solicitation, the insurer shall require, with or as part of each completed application for a policy or contract, a statement asking whether the applicant, by applying for the proposed policy or contract, intends to replace, discontinue or change any existing policy or contract. If the applicant indicates a replacement or change is not intended or if the applicant fails to respond to the statement, the insurer shall send the applicant, with the policy or contract, a notice regarding replacement in appendix B to this rule, or other substantially similar form approved by the superintendent.
(2) If the insurer has proposed the replacement or if the applicant indicates a replacement is intended and the insurer continues with the replacement, the insurer shall:
(a) Provide to applicants or prospective applicants with the policy or contract a notice, as described in appendix C to this rule, or other substantially similar form approved by the superintendent. In these instances the insurer may delete the references to the agent, including the agent's signature, and references not applicable to the product being sold or replaced, without having to obtain approval of the form from the superintendent. The insurer's obligation to obtain the applicant's signature is satisfied if the insurer can demonstrate that it has made a diligent effort to secure a signed copy of the notice referred to in this paragraph. The requirement to make a diligent effort will be deemed satisfied if the insurer includes in the mailing a self-addressed postage prepaid envelope with instructions for the return of the signed notice referred to in this paragraph; and
(b) Comply with the requirements of paragraph (G)(1)(b) of this rule, if the applicant furnishes the names of the existing insurers, and the requirements of paragraphs (G)(1)(c), (G)(1)(d) and (G)(2) of this rule.
(J) Violations and penalties
(1) Any failure to comply with this rule will be considered a violation of section 3901.20 of the Revised Code. Examples of violations include:
(a) Any deceptive or misleading information set forth in sales material;
(b) Failing to ask the applicant in completing the application the pertinent questions regarding the possibility of financing or replacement;
(c) The intentional incorrect recording of an answer;
(d) Advising an applicant to respond negatively to any question regarding replacement in order to prevent notice to the existing insurer; or
(e) Advising a policy or contract owner to write directly to the company in such a way as to attempt to obscure the identity of the replacing agent or company.
(2) Policy and contract owners have the right to replace existing life insurance policies or annuity contracts after indicating in or as a part of applications for new coverage that replacement is not their intention; however, patterns of such action by policy or contract owners of the same agent shall be deemed prima facie evidence of the agent's knowledge that replacement was intended in connection with the identified transactions, and these patterns of action shall be deemed prima facie evidence of the agent's intent to violate this rule.
(3) Where it is determined that the requirements of this rule have not been met the replacing insurer shall provide to the policyowner an in force illustration if available or policy summary for the replacement policy or available disclosure document for the replacement contract and the appropriate notice regarding replacements in appendix A or appendix C to this rule.
(4) Violations of this rule shall subject the violators to penalties that may include the revocation or suspension of a agent's or company's license, monetary fines and the forfeiture of any commissions or compensation paid to a agent as a result of the transaction in connection with which the violations occurred. In addition, where the superintendent has determined that the violations were material to the sale, the insurer may be required to make restitution, restore policy or contract values and pay interest on the amount refunded in cash.
(K) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
View AppendixView AppendixView Appendix
Last updated November 16, 2023 at 8:32 AM
History
- Effective: November 16, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-6-06 Accelerated death benefits.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to regulate accelerated death benefit provisions of individual and group life insurance policies and to provide required standards of disclosure.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041 and 3915.24 of the Revised Code.
(C) Scope
This rule shall apply to all accelerated death benefit provisions of individual and group life insurance policies issued or delivered in this state on or after the effective date of this rule. This rule shall not apply to long-term care insurance or products providing long-term care benefits that are subject to sections 3923.41 to 3923.48 of the Revised Code and any rules promulgated thereunder.
(D) Definitions
(1) "Accelerated death benefits" covered under this rule are benefits payable under a life insurance contract:
(a) To a policyowner or certificateholder during the lifetime of the insured, at the time of a qualifying event; and
(b) Which reduce the death benefit otherwise payable under the life insurance contract; and
(c) Which are payable upon the occurrence of a single qualifying event in an amount fixed at the time of acceleration.
(2) "Qualifying event" shall mean one or more of the following:
(a) A medical condition which would result in a drastically limited life span; or
(b) A medical condition which has required or requires extraordinary medical intervention, such as, but not limited to, major organ transplant or continuous artificial life support, without which the insured would die; or
(c) Any condition which usually requires continuous confinement in an eligible institution as defined in the contract if the insured is expected to remain there for the rest of the insured's life; or
(d) A medical condition which would, in the absence of extensive or extraordinary medical treatment, result in a drastically limited life span. Such conditions may include, "but are not limited to," one or more of the following:
(i) Coronary artery disease resulting in an acute infarction or requiring surgery;
(ii) Permanent neurological deficit resulting from cerebral vascular accident;
(iii) End stage renal failure;
(iv) Acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS); or
(v) Other medical conditions which the superintendent shall approve for any particular filing; or
(e) Other qualifying events which the superintendent shall approve for any particular filing. This includes, but is not limited to, chronic illness which is a permanent inability to perform, without substantial assistance from another individual, a specified number of activities of daily living (bathing, continence, dressing, eating, toileting and transferring), and/or permanent severe cognitive impairment and similar forms of dementia.
(3) "Drastically limited life span" shall mean a projected life span of a minimum of six months or less and a maximum of twenty-four months or less.
(E) Type of product
Accelerated death benefit riders and life insurance policies with accelerated death benefit provisions are primarily mortality risks rather than morbidity risks. They are life insurance benefits subject to Chapter 3915. of the Revised Code.
(F) Assignee/beneficiary
Prior to the payment of the accelerated death benefit, the insurer is required to obtain from an assignee or irrevocable beneficiary a signed acknowledgment of concurrence for payout. If the insurer making the accelerated death benefit is itself the assignee under the policy, no such acknowledgment is required.
(G) Payment procedures
(1) The payment options shall include the option to receive the benefit in a lump sum and may include an option to receive the benefit in periodic payments for a period certain only. Periodic payments based on the continued survival or institutional confinement of the insured are prohibited.
(2) The policy or rider shall state that payment of the accelerated death benefit is due immediately upon receipt of the due written proof of eligibility. If the insurer requires filing of a claim form, the company shall provide the claim form within fifteen calendar days of the acceleration request. If the insurer does not timely provide the claim form, then written proof of eligibility is deemed sufficient.
(H) Accidental death benefit provision
If any death benefit remains after payment of an accelerated death benefit, the accidental death benefit provision, if any, in the policy or rider shall not be affected by the payment of the accelerated death benefit.
(I) Disclosures
(1) Descriptive title
The term "accelerated death benefit" shall be included in the descriptive title. Products regulated under this rule shall not be described or marketed as long-term care insurance or as providing long-term care benefits.
(2) Tax consequences
A disclosure statement is required at the time of application for the policy or rider and at the time the accelerated death benefit payment request is submitted that receipt of these benefits may be a taxable event and that the owner should seek additional information about the tax status of the payment from a personal tax advisor. The disclosure statement shall be prominently displayed on the first page of the policy or rider and any other related documents.
(3) Solicitations
(a) A written disclosure including, but not necessarily limited to, a brief description of the accelerated death benefit and definitions of the conditions or occurrences triggering payment of the benefits shall be given to the applicant. The description shall include an explanation and a generic illustration numerically demonstrating any effect of the payment of a benefit on the policy's cash value, account value, death benefit, premium, policy loans and policy liens.
(i) In the case of agent solicited insurance, the agent shall provide the disclosure form to the applicant prior to or concurrently with the application. Acknowledgment of the disclosure shall be signed by the applicant and writing agent.
(ii) In the case of a solicitation by direct response methods, the insurer shall provide the disclosure form to the applicant at the time the policy is delivered, with a notice that a full premium refund shall be received if the policy is returned to the company within the free look period.
(iii) In the case of group insurance policies, the disclosure form shall be contained as part of the certificate of coverage or any related document furnished by the insurer for the certificateholder.
(b) Disclosure of premium charge
(i) Insurers with financing options other than as described in paragraphs (O)(1)(b) and (O)(1)(c) of this rule shall disclose to the policyowner any premium or cost of insurance charge for the accelerated death benefit. These insurers shall make a reasonable effort to assure that the certificateholder is aware of any additional premium or cost of insurance charge if the certificateholder is required to pay such charge.
(ii) Insurers shall furnish an actuarial demonstration to the state insurance department when filing the product disclosing the method of arriving at their cost for the accelerated death benefit.
(c) The insurer shall disclose to the policyowner any administrative expense charge. The insurer shall make a reasonable effort to assure that the certificateholder is aware of any administrative expense charge if the certificateholder is required to pay such charge.
(4) Effect of the benefit payment
When a policyowner or certificateholder requests an acceleration, the insurer shall send a statement to the policyowner or certificateholder and irrevocable beneficiary showing any effect that the payment of the accelerated death benefit will have on the policy's cash value, account value, death benefit, premium, policy loans and policy liens. The statement shall disclose that receipt of accelerated death benefit payments may adversely affect the recipient's eligibility for medicaid or other government benefits or entitlements. In addition, receipt of an accelerated death benefit payment may be taxable and assistance should be sought from a personal tax advisor. When a previous disclosure statement becomes invalid as a result of an acceleration of the death benefit, the insurer shall send a revised disclosure statement to the policyowner or certificateholder and irrevocable beneficiary. When the insurer agrees to accelerate death benefits, the insurer shall issue an amended schedule page to the policyowner or notify the certificateholder under a group policy to reflect any new, reduced in-force face amount of the contract.
(J) Effective date of accelerated death benefits
The accelerated death benefit provision shall be effective on the effective date of the policy or rider.
(K) Waiver of premiums
The insurer may offer a waiver of premium for the accelerated death benefit provision in the absence of a regular waiver of premium provision being in effect. At the time the benefit is claimed, the insurer shall explain any continuing premium requirement to keep the policy in force.
(L) Discrimination
Insurers shall not unfairly discriminate among insureds with differing qualifying events covered under the policy or among insureds with similar qualifying events covered under the policy. Insurers shall not apply further conditions on the payment of the accelerated death benefits other than those conditions specified in the policy or rider.
(M) Prohibited provisions
The following provisions are prohibited in accelerated death benefit policy provisions or rider:
(1) A requirement that the cause of the qualifying event first manifest itself or be diagnosed after issuance of the underlying policy or form, and
(2) A waiting period requirement, and
(3) A requirement that the underlying policy or rider be in force past the incontestable period, and
(4) A provision that, upon acceleration of part of the policy death benefit, the insured forfeits the remainder of the policy death benefit, and
(5) Exclusions or restrictions for an accelerated death benefit that are not also exclusions or restrictions in the underlying policy, and
(6) A time frame within which proof of eligibility must be provided, and
(7) Restrictions on the use of the accelerated death benefit proceeds.
(N) Incontestability
The form shall be incontestable on the same, or more favorable basis, as the underlying policy.
(O) Actuarial standards
(1) Financing options
(a) The insurer may require a premium charge or cost of insurance charge for the accelerated death benefit. These charges shall be based on sound actuarial principles. In the case of group insurance, the additional cost may also be reflected in the experience rating.
(b) The insurer may pay a present value of the face amount. The calculation shall be based on any applicable actuarial discount appropriate to the policy design. The interest rate or interest rate methodology used in the calculation shall be based on sound actuarial principles and disclosed in the contract or actuarial memorandum. The maximum Interest rate used shall be no greater than the greater of:
(i) The current yield on ninety day treasury bills; or
(ii) The current maximum statutory adjustable policy loan interest rate; or
(iii) The policy loan interest rate stated in the contract.
(c) The insurer may accrue an interest charge on the amount of the accelerated death benefits. The interest rate or interest rate methodology used in the calculation shall be based on sound actuarial principles and disclosed in the contract or actuarial memorandum. The maximum interest rate used shall be no greater than the greater of:
(i) The current yield on ninety day treasury bills; or
(ii) The current maximum statutory adjustable policy loan interest rate; or
(iii) The policy loan interest rate stated in the contract.
The interest rate accrued on the portion of the lien which is equal in amount to the cash value of the contract at the time of the benefit acceleration shall be no more than the policy loan interest rate stated in the contract.
(2) Effect on cash value
(a) Except as provided in paragraph (O)(2)(b) of this rule, when an accelerated death benefit is payable, there shall be no more than a pro rata reduction in the cash value based on the percentage of death benefits accelerated to produce the accelerated death benefit payment.
(b) Alternatively, the payment of accelerated death benefits, any administrative expense charge, any future premiums and any accrued interest can be considered a lien against the death benefit of the policy or rider and the access to the cash value may be restricted to any excess of the cash value over the sum of any other outstanding loans and the lien. Future access to additional policy loans could also be limited to any excess of the cash value over the sum of the lien and any other outstanding policy loans.
(3) Effect of any outstanding policy loans on accelerated death benefit payment
When payment of an accelerated death benefit results in a pro rata reduction in the cash value, the payment may not be applied toward repaying an amount greater than a pro rata portion of any outstanding policy loans.
(P) Actuarial disclosure and reserves
(1) Actuarial memorandum
A qualified actuary should describe the accelerated death benefits, the risks, the expected costs and the calculation of statutory reserves in an actuarial memorandum accompanying each state filing. The insurer shall maintain in its files descriptions of the bases and procedures used to calculate benefits payable under these provisions. These descriptions shall be made available for examination by the superintendent upon request.
(2) Reserves
(a) When benefits are provided through the acceleration of benefits under group or individual life policies or riders to such policies, policy Reserves shall be determined in accordance with sections 3903.72 to 3903.7211 of the Revised Code and any other appropriate rules. All valuation assumptions used in constructing the reserves shall be determined as appropriate for statutory valuation purposes by a member in good standing of the American academy of actuaries. Mortality tables and interest approved for life insurance reserves by the superintendent may be used as well as appropriate assumptions for the other provisions incorporated in the policy form. The actuary must follow both actuarial standards and certification for good and sufficient reserves. Reserves in the aggregate should be sufficient to cover:
(i) Policies upon which no claim has yet arisen; and
(ii) Policies upon which an accelerated claim has arisen.
(b) For policies and certificates which provide actuarially equivalent benefits, no additional reserves need to be established.
(c) Policy liens and policy loans, including accrued interest, represent assets of the company for statutory reporting purposes. For any policy on which the policy lien exceeds the policy's statutory reserve liability such excess must be held as a non-admitted asset.
(Q) Severability
If any paragraph, term or provision of this rule is adjudged invalid for any reason, the judgment shall not affect, impair or invalidate any other paragraph, term or provision of this rule, but the remaining paragraphs, terms and provisions shall be and continue in full force and effect.
Last updated November 17, 2022 at 8:53 AM
History
- Effective: November 17, 2022
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-6-07 Universal life insurance.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to supplement existing regulations on life insurance policies in order to accommodate the development and issuance of universal life insurance plans.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041, 3903.72 to 3903.7211, 3915.05, 3915.07 to 3915.073, 3915.09, 3915.14, and 3921.16 of the Revised Code.
(C) Scope
This rule applies to all individual universal life insurance policies and group universal life insurance certificates except those policies defined under paragraph (C)(19) of rule 3901-6-08 of the Administrative Code (variable life insurance).
(D) Definitions
As used in this rule:
(1) "Account Value" means the amount to which separately identified interest credits and mortality, expense, or other charges are made under a universal life insurance policy.
(2) "Cash Surrender Value" is the account value less any applicable surrender charges.
(3) "Fixed Premium Universal Life Insurance Policy" means a universal life insurance policy other than a flexible premium universal life insurance policy.
(4) "Flexible Premium Universal Life Insurance Policy" means a universal life insurance policy which permits the policyowner to vary, independently of each other, the amount or timing of one or more premium payments or the amount of insurance.
(5) "Guaranteed Maturity Fund" at any duration is that amount which, together with future guaranteed maturity premiums, will mature the policy based on all policy guarantees at issue.
(6) "Guaranteed Maturity Premium" for flexible premium universal life insurance policies shall be that level gross premium, paid at issue and periodically thereafter over the period during which premiums are allowed to be paid, which will mature the policy on the latest maturity date, if any, permitted under the policy, otherwise at the highest age in the valuation mortality table, for an amount which is in accordance with the policy structure. The guaranteed maturity premium is calculated at issue based on all policy guarantees at issue excluding guarantees linked to an external referent. The guaranteed maturity premium for fixed premium universal life insurance policies shall be the premium defined in the policy which at issue provides the minimum policy guarantees. The guaranteed maturity premium for both flexible and fixed premium policies shall be adjusted for death benefit corridors provided by the policy. The guaranteed maturity premium may be less than the premium necessary to pay all charges.
(7) "Interest-indexed Universal Life Insurance Policy" means any universal life insurance policy where the interest credits are linked to an external referent.
(8) "Maturity Amount" shall be the initial death benefit where the death benefit is level over the lifetime of the policy except for the existence of a minimum-death-benefit corridor, or shall be the specified amount where the death benefit equals a specified amount plus the account value or cash surrender value except for the existence of a minimum-death-benefit corridor.
(9) "Net Surrender Value" is the cash surrender value less any amounts outstanding as policy loans.
(10) "Structural Changes" are those changes which are separate from the automatic workings of the policy. Such changes usually would be initiated by the policyowner and include changes in the guaranteed benefits, changes in the latest maturity date, or changes in allowable premium payment period. For fixed premium universal life policies with redetermination of all credits and charges no more frequently than annually, on policy anniversaries, structural changes also include changes in guaranteed benefits, or in fixed premiums, unanticipated by the guaranteed maturity premium for such policies at the date of issue, even if such changes arise from automatic workings of the policy.
(11) "Universal Life Insurance Policy" means any individual life insurance policy or group life insurance certificate under the provisions of which separately identified interest credits, other than in connection with dividend accumulations, premium deposit funds, or other supplementary accounts, and mortality and expense charges are made to the policy. A universal life insurance policy may provide for other credits and charges, such as charges for the cost of benefits provided by rider.
(E) Valuation
(1) Requirements
The minimum valuation standard for universal life insurance policies shall be the commissioners reserve valuation method, described in this paragraph for such policies, and the tables and interest rates specified in this paragraph. The terminal reserve for the basic policy and any benefits and/or riders for which premiums are not paid separately as of any policy anniversary shall be equal to the net level premium reserves less (C) and less (D), where:
Reserves by the net level premium method shall be equal to ((A)-(B))r where (A), (B) and "r" are as defined in this paragraph.
(A) is the present value of all future guaranteed benefits at the date of valuation
(B) is the quantity (PVFB/äx) äx+t where
PVFB is the present value of all benefits guaranteed at issue assuming future guaranteed maturity premiums are paid by the policyowner and taking into account all guarantees contained in the policy or declared by the insurer, äx and äx+t are present values of an annuity of one per year payable on policy anniversaries beginning at ages x and x+t, respectively, and continuing until the highest attained age at which a premium may be paid under the policy,
x is the issue age, and
t is the duration of the policy.
"r" is equal to one, unless the policy is a flexible premium policy and the account value is less than the guaranteed maturity fund, in which case "r" is the ratio of the account value to the guaranteed maturity fund.
(C) is the unamoritzed expense allowance which equals
((a)-(b)) (äx+t/äx) r where
äx+t, äx and r are as defined in this paragraph.
(a) is a net level annual premium equal to the present value, at the date of issue based on the plan of insurance defined at issue by the guaranteed maturity premiums and all guarantees contained in the policy or declared by the insurer, of life insurance and endowment benefits provided for after the first policy year, divided by the present value, at the date of issue, of an annuity of one per annum payable on the first and each subsequent anniversary of such policy on which a premium is allowed to be paid; provided, however, that such net level annual premium shall not exceed the net level annual premium on the nineteen year premium whole life plan for insurance of the same amount at an age one year higher than the age at issue of such policy.
(b) is a net one year term premium for such benefits provided for in the first policy year.
(D) is the sum of any additional quantities analogous to (C) which arise because of structural changes in the policy, with each such quantity being determined on a basis consistent with that of (C) using the maturity date in effect at the time of the change.
The guaranteed maturity premium, the guaranteed maturity fund and (B) in this paragraph shall be recalculated to reflect any structural changes in the policy. This recalculation shall be done in a manner consistent with the descriptions in this paragraph.
The recalculation of (B) in this paragraph, for fixed premium universal life structural changes, shall exclude from PVFB, the present value of future guaranteed benefits, those guaranteed benefits which are funded by the excess of the insurer's declared guarantees of interest, mortality and expenses, over the guarantees contained in the policy at the date of issue.
Future guaranteed benefits are determined by (A) in this paragraph projecting the greater of the guaranteed maturity fund and the account value, taking into account future guaranteed maturity premiums, if any, and using all guarantees of interest, mortality, expense deductions, etc., contained in the policy or declared by the insurer; and (B) in this paragraph taking into account any benefits guaranteed in the policy or by declaration which do not depend on the account value.
All present values shall be determined using (A) in this paragraph an interest rate (or rates) specified by section 3903.723 or 3903.724 of the Revised Code, for policies issued in the same year; (B) in this paragraph the mortality rates specified by section 3903.723 of the Revised Code, for policies issued in the same year or contained in such other table as may be approved by the superintendent for this purpose; and (C) in this paragraph any other tables needed to value supplementary benefits provided by a rider which is being valued together with the policy.
The reserve shall never be less than the greater of (A) in this paragraph the amount determined by the method in this paragraph, or (B) in this paragraph the cash surrender value.
(2) Alternative minimum reserves
If, in any policy year, the guaranteed maturity premium on any universal life insurance policy is less than the valuation net premium for such policy, calculated by the valuation method actually used in calculating the reserve thereon but using the minimum valuation standards of mortality and rate of interest, the minimum reserve required for such contract shall be the greater of (A) or (B) in this paragraph.
(a) The reserve calculated according to the method, the mortality table, and the rate of interest actually used.
(b) The reserve calculated according to the method actually used but using the minimum valuation standards of mortality and rate of interest and replacing the valuation net premium by the guaranteed maturity premium in each policy year for which the valuation net premium exceeds the guaranteed maturity premium.
For universal life insurance reserves on a net level premium basis, the valuation net premium is PVFB/äx and for reserves on a commissioners reserve valuation method, the valuation net premium is (PVFB/äx) + ((a) - (b))/äx.
(F) Nonforfeiture
(1) Minimum cash surrender values for flexible premium universal life insurance policies
Minimum cash surrender values for flexible premium universal life insurance policies shall be determined separately for the basic policy and any benefits and riders for which premiums are paid separately. The following requirements pertain to a basic policy and any benefits and riders for which premiums are not paid separately.
The minimum cash surrender value (before adjustment for indebtedness and dividend credits) available on a date as of which interest is credited to the policy shall be equal to the accumulation to that date of the premiums paid minus the accumulations to that date of:
(a) The benefit charges;
(b) The averaged administrative expense charges for the first policy year and any insurance-increase years;
(c) Actual administrative expense charges for other years;
(d) Initial and additional acquisition expense charges not exceeding the initial or additional expense allowances, respectively;
(e) Any service charges actually made (excluding charges for cash surrender or election of a paid-up nonforfeiture benefit); and
(f) Any deductions made for partial withdrawals.
All accumulations shall be at the actual rate or rates of interest at which interest credits have been made unconditionally to the policy (or have been made conditionally, but for which the conditions have since been met), less any unamortized unused initial and additional expense allowances.
Interest on the premiums and on all charges referred to in paragraphs (F)(1)(a) to (F)(1)(f) of this rule shall be accumulated from and to such dates as are consistent with the manner in which interest is credited in determining the account value.
The benefit charges shall include the charges made for mortality and any charges made for riders or supplementary benefits for which premiums are not paid separately. If benefit charges are substantially level by duration and develop low or no cash values, then the superintendent shall have the right to require higher cash values unless the insurer provides adequate justification that the cash values are appropriate in relation to the policy's other characteristics.
The administrative expense charges shall include charges per premium payment, charges per dollar of premium paid, periodic charges per thousand dollars of insurance, periodic per policy charges, and any other charges permitted by the policy to be imposed without regard to the policyowner's request for services.
The averaged administrative expense charges for any year shall be those which would have been imposed in that year if the charge rate or rates for each transaction or period within the year had been equal to the arithmetic average of the corresponding charge rates which the policy states will be imposed in policy years two through twenty in determining the account value.
The initial acquisition expense charges shall be the excess of the expense charges, other than service charges, actually made in the first policy year over the averaged administrative expense charges for that year. Additional acquisition expense charges shall be the excess of the expense charges, other than service charges, actually made in an insurance-increase year over the averaged administrative expense charges for that year. An insurance-increase year shall be the year beginning on the date of increase in the amount of insurance by policyowner request (or by the terms of the policy).
Service charges shall include charges permitted by the policy to be imposed as the result of a policyowner's request for a service by the insurer or of special transactions.
The initial expense allowance shall be the allowance provided by divisions (D) and (E) of section 3915.07 of the Revised Code or by divisions (D)(1) and (D)(2) of section 3915.071 of the Revised Code, as applicable, for a fixed premium, fixed benefit endowment policy with a face amount equal to the initial face amount of the flexible premium universal life insurance policy, with level premiums paid annually until the highest attained age at which a premium may be paid under the flexible premium universal life insurance policy, and maturing on the latest maturity date permitted under the policy, if any, otherwise at the highest age in the valuation mortality table. The unused initial expense allowance shall be the excess, if any, of the initial expense allowance over the initial acquisition expense charges as defined in this rule.
If the amount of insurance is subsequently increased upon request of the policyowner (or by the terms of the policy), an additional expense allowance and an unused additional expense allowance shall be determined on a basis consistent with this rule and with division (D)(4)(d) of section 3915.071 of the Revised Code, using the face amount and the latest maturity date permitted at that time under the policy.
The unamortized unused initial expense allowance during the policy year beginning on the policy anniversary at age x+t (where "x" is the same issue age) shall be the unused initial expense allowance multiplied by äx+t/äx where äx+t and äx are present values of an annuity of one per year payable on policy anniversaries beginning at ages x+t and x, respectively, and continuing until the highest attained age at which a premium may be paid under the policy, both on the mortality and interest bases guaranteed in the policy. An unamortized unused additional expense allowance shall be the unused additional expense allowance multiplied by a similar ratio of annuities, with äx replaced by an annuity beginning on the date as of which the additional expense allowance was determined.
(2) Minimum cash surrender values for fixed premium universal life insurance policies.
For fixed premium universal life policies, the minimum cash surrender values shall be determined separately for the basic policy and any benefits and riders for which premiums are paid separately. The following requirements pertain to a basic policy and any benefits and riders for which premiums are not paid separately.
The minimum cash surrender value (before adjustment for indebtedness and dividend credits) available on a date as of which interest is credited to the policy shall be equal to ((A)-(B)-(C)-(D) in this paragraph), where:
(A) is the present value of all future guaranteed benefits.
(B) is the present value of future adjusted premiums. The adjusted premiums are calculated as described in divisions (D) and (E) of section 3915.07 of the Revised Code or divisions (D)(1) and (D)(2) of section 3915.071 of the Revised Code, as applicable. If divisions (D)(1) and (D)(2) of section 3915.071 of the Revised Code are applicable, the nonforfeiture net level premium is equal to the quantity PVFB/äx,
Where PVFB is the present value of all benefits guaranteed at issue assuming future premiums are paid by the policyowner and all guarantees contained in the policy or declared by the insurer.
äx is the present value of an annuity of one per year payable on policy anniversaries beginning at age x and continuing until the highest attained age at which a premium may be paid under the policy.
(C) is the present value of any quantities analogous to the nonforfeiture net level premium which arise because of guarantees declared by the insurer after the issue date of the policy. äx shall be replaced by an annuity beginning on the date as of which the declaration became effective and payable until the end of the period covered by the declaration.
(D) is the sum of any quantities analogous to (B) which arise because of structural changes in the policy.
Future guaranteed benefits are determined by (a) projecting the account value, taking into account future premiums, if any, and using all guarantees of interest, mortality, expense deductions, etc., contained in the policy or declared by the insurer; and (b) taking into account any benefits guaranteed in the policy or by declaration which do not depend on the account value.
All present values shall be determined using (a) an interest rate (or rates) specified by section 3915.07 or 3915.071 of the Revised Code for policies issued in the same year and (b) the mortality rates specified by section 3915.07 or 3915.071 of the Revised Code for policies issued in the same year or contained in such other table as may be approved by the superintendent for this purpose.
(3) Minimum paid-up nonforfeiture benefits
If a universal life insurance policy provides for the optional election of a paid-up nonforfeiture benefit, it shall be such that its present value shall be at least equal to the cash surrender value provided for by the policy on the effective date of the election. The present value shall be based on mortality and interest standards at least as favorable to the policyowner as (a) in the case of a flexible premium universal life insurance policy, the mortality and interest basis guaranteed in the policy for determining the account value, or (b) in the case of a fixed premium policy the mortality and interest standards permitted for paid-up nonforfeiture benefits by section 3915.07 or 3915.071 of the Revised Code. In lieu of the paid-up nonforfeiture benefit, the insurer may substitute, upon proper request not later than sixty days after the due date of the premium in default, an actuarially equivalent alternative paid-up nonforfeiture benefit which provides a greater amount or longer period of death benefits, or, if applicable, a greater amount or earlier payment of endowment benefits.
Any secondary guarantees should be taken into consideration when computing minimum paid-up nonforfeiture benefits.
To preserve equity between policies on a premium paying basis and on a paid-up basis, present values must comply with paragraph (E)(1) of this rule for flexible premium universal life insurance policies and with paragraph (F)(2) of this rule for fixed premium policies.
A charge may be made at the surrender of the policy provided that the result after the deduction of the charge is not less than the minimum cash surrender value required by this paragraph.
(G) Mandatory policy provisions
The policy shall provide the following:
(1) Periodic disclosure to policyowner
The policy shall provide that the policyowner will be sent, without charge, at least annually, a report which will serve to keep such policyowner advised as to the status of the policy. The end of the current report period must be not more than three months previous to the date of the mailing of the report.
Such report shall include the following:
(a) The beginning and end date of the current report period.
(b) The account value at the end of the previous report period and at the end of current report period.
(c) The total amounts which have been credited or debited to the account value during the current report period, identifying each by type (e.g., interest, mortality, expense and riders).
(d) The current death benefit at the end of the current report period on each life covered by the policy.
(e) The net cash surrender value of the policy as of the end of the current report period.
(f) The amount of outstanding loans, if any, as of the end of the current report period.
(g) For fixed premium policies:
If, assuming guaranteed interest, mortality and expense loads and continued scheduled premium payments, the policy's net cash surrender value is such that it would not maintain insurance in force until the end of the next reporting period, a notice to this effect shall be included in the report.
(h) For flexible premium policies:
If, assuming guaranteed interest, mortality and expense loads, the policy's net cash surrender value will not maintain insurance in force until the end of the next reporting period unless further premium payments are made, a notice to this effect shall be included in the report.
(2) Policy guarantees
The policy shall provide guarantees of minimum interest credits and maximum mortality and expense charges. All values and data shown in the policy shall be based on guarantees. No figures based on nonguarantees shall be included in the policy. Minimum and maximum guarantees are in addition to any index guarantees. If "guaranteed" credits and/or charges are also the "current" credits and/or charges, such amounts may be included in the policy if clearly labeled. The maturity date is not considered a guarantee for purposes of this rule.
(3) Calculation of cash surrender values
The policy shall contain at least a general description of the calculation of cash surrender values including the following information:
(a) The guaranteed maximum expense charges and loads.
(b) Any limitation on the crediting of additional interest. Interest credits shall not remain conditional for a period longer than twenty-four months.
(c) The guaranteed minimum rate or rates of interest.
(d) The guaranteed maximum mortality charges.
(e) Any other guaranteed charges.
(f) Any surrender or partial withdrawal charges.
For fixed premium universal life insurance policies, a table of the cash surrender value and/or nonforfeiture benefits must be shown for the first twenty policy years or the terms of the policy, if shorter.
(4) Changes in basic coverage
If the policyowner has the right to change the basic coverage, any limitation on the amount or timing of such change shall be stated in the policy. If the policyowner has the right to increase the basic coverage, the policy shall state whether a new period of contestability and/or suicide is applicable to the additional coverage.
(5) Grace period and lapse
The policy shall provide for written notice to be sent to the policyowner's last known address at least thirty days prior to termination of coverage.
A flexible premium policy shall provide for a grace period of at least one month after lapse. Unless otherwise defined in the policy, lapse shall occur on that date on which the net cash surrender value first equals zero.
A fixed premium policy shall provide for a grace period of at least one month after lapse.
(6) Misstatement of age or sex
If there is a misstatement of age or sex in the policy, the amount of the death benefit shall be that which would be purchased by the most recent mortality charge at the correct age or sex. The superintendent may approve other methods which are deemed satisfactory.
(7) Maturity date
If a policy provides for a "maturity date," "end date," or similar date, then the policy shall also contain a statement, in close proximity to that date, that it is possible that coverage may not continue to the maturity date even if scheduled premiums are paid in a timely manner, if such is the case.
(H) Interest-indexed universal life insurance policies
(1) Initial filing requirements
The following information shall be submitted in connection with any filing of interest-indexed universal life insurance policies ("interest-indexed policies").
(a) A description of how the interest credits are determined, including:
(i) A description of the index;
(ii) The relationship between the value of the index and the actual interest rate to be credited;
(iii) The frequency and timing of determining the interest rate;
(iv) The allocation of interest credits, if more than one rate of interest applies to different portions of the policy value.
(b) The insurer's investment policy, which includes a description of the following:
(i) How the insurer addressed the reinvestment risks;
(ii) How the insurer plans to address the risk of capital loss on cash outflows;
(iii) How the insurer plans to address the risk that appropriate investments may not be available or not available in sufficient quantities;
(iv) How the insurer plans to address the risk that the indexed interest rate may fall below the minimum contractual interest rate guaranteed in the policy;
(v) The amount and type of assets currently held for interest-indexed policies;
(vi) The amount and type of assets expected to be acquired in the future.
(c) If policies are linked to an index for a specified period less than to the maturity date of the policy, a description of the method used (or currently contemplated) to determine interest credits upon the expiration of such period.
(d) A description of any interest guarantee in addition to or in lieu of the index.
(e) A description of any maximum premium limitations and the conditions under which they apply.
(2) Additional filing requirements
(a) Annually, every insurer shall submit a statement of actuarial opinion by the insurer's actuary similar to the example contained in paragraph (H)(3) of this rule.
(b) Annually, every insurer shall submit a description of the amount and type of assets currently held by the insurer with respect to its interest-indexed policies.
(c) Prior to implementation, every domestic insurer shall submit a description of any material change in the insurer's investment strategy or method of determining the interest credits. A change is considered to be material if it would affect the form or definition of the index (i.e., any change in the information supplied in paragraph (H)(1) of this rule) or if it would significantly change the amount or type of assets held for interest-indexed policies.
(d) The requirements of paragraphs (H)(2)(a) and (H)(2)(b) of this rule may be omitted if an actuarial opinion, in accordance with the requirements of sections 3903.722 and 3903.726 of the Revised Code, is filed annually.
(3) Statement of actuarial opinion for interest-indexed universal life insurance policies.
"I, ____________ (name), am ____________ (position or relationship to insurer) for the xyz life insurance company (the insurer) in the state of ____________________(state of domicile of insurer).
I am a member of the "American Academy of Actuaries" and I fulfill the requirements of a qualified actuary as defined in division (B)(9) of section 3903.72 of the Revised Code.
I have considered the provisions of the policies. I have considered any reinsurance agreements pertaining to such policies, the characteristics of the identified assets and the investment policy adopted by the insurer as they affect future insurance and investment cash flows under such policies and related assets. My examination included such tests and calculations as I considered necessary to form an opinion concerning the insurance and investment cash flows arising from the policies and related assets.
I relied on the investment policy of the insurer and on projected investment cash flows.
The tests were conducted under various assumptions as to future interest rates, and particular attention was given to those provisions and characteristics that might cause future insurance and investment cash flows to vary with changes in the level of prevailing interest rates.
In my opinion, the anticipated insurance and investment cash flows referred to above make good and sufficient provision for the contractual obligations of the insurer under these insurance policies."
_____________________________ signature of actuary
If the actuary has not examined the underlying records but has relied upon listings and summaries of policies in force, an appropriate statement of such reliance should be included here.
If the actuary has not developed the investment cash flows, but has relied upon someone else, an appropriate statement of such reliance should be included with this statement.
(I) Severability
If any paragraph, term or provision of this rule is adjudged invalid for any reason, the judgment shall not affect, impair or invalidate any other paragraph, term or provision of this rule, but the remaining paragraphs, terms and provisions shall be and continue in full force and effect.
Last updated November 17, 2022 at 8:53 AM
History
- Effective: November 17, 2022
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-6-08
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to amplify sections 3907.15 and 3911.01 of the Revised Code to provide for the regulation of fixed premium and flexible premium variable life insurance policies.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under section 3901.041 of the Revised Code.
(C) Definitions
(1) "Affiliate of an insurer" means any person, directly or indirectly, controlling, controlled by, or under common control with such insurer; any person who regularly furnishes investment advice to such insurer with respect to its separate accounts for which a specific fee or commission is charged; or any director, officer, partner, or employee of any such insurer, controlling or controlled person, or person providing investment advice, or any member of the immediate family of such person.
(2) "Agent" means any person, corporation, partnership, or other legal entity which is licensed by this state as a life insurance agent with a variable line of authority.
(3) "Assumed investment rate" means the rate of investment return which would be required to be credited to a variable life insurance policy, after deduction of charges for taxes, investment expenses, and mortality and expense guarantees to maintain the variable death benefit equal at all times to the amount of death benefit, other than incidental insurance benefits, which would be payable under the plan of insurance if the death benefit did not vary according to the investment experience of the separate account.
(4) "Benefit base" means the amount, to which the net investment return is applied.
(5) "Control" (including the terms "controlling," "controlled by" and "under common control with") means the possession, direct or indirect, of the power to direct or cause the direction of the management and policies of a person, whether through the ownership of voting securities, by contract other than a commercial contract for goods or non-management services, or otherwise, unless the power is the result of an official position with or corporate office held by the person. Control is presumed to exist if any person, directly or indirectly, owns, controls, holds with the power to vote, or holds proxies representing more than ten per cent of the voting securities of any other person. This presumption may be rebutted by a showing made to the satisfaction of the superintendent that control does not exist in fact. The superintendent may determine, after furnishing all persons in interest notice and opportunity to be heard and making specific findings of fact to support such determination, that control exists in fact, notwithstanding the absence of a presumption to that effect.
(6) "Flexible premium policy" means any variable life insurance policy other than a scheduled premium policy as specified in paragraph (C)(14) of this rule.
(7) "General account" means all assets of the insurer other than assets in separate accounts established pursuant to section 3907.15 of the Revised Code, or pursuant to the corresponding section of the insurance laws of the state of domicile of a foreign or alien insurer, whether or not for variable life insurance.
(8) "Incidental insurance benefit" means all insurance benefits in a variable life insurance policy, other than the variable death benefit and the minimum death benefit, including but not limited to accidental death and dismemberment benefits, disability benefits, guaranteed insurability options, family income, or term riders.
(9) "Minimum death benefit" means the amount of the guaranteed death benefit, other than incidental insurance benefits, payable under a variable life insurance policy regardless of the investment performance of the separate account.
(10) "Net investment return" means the rate of investment return in a separate account to be applied to the benefit base.
(11) "Person" means an individual, corporation, partnership, association, trust, or fund.
(12) "Policy processing day" means the day on which charges authorized in the policy are deducted from the policy's cash value.
(13) "Scheduled premium policy" means any variable life insurance policy under which both the amount and timing of premium payments are fixed by the insurer.
(14) "Separate account" means a separate account established pursuant to section 3907.15 of the Revised Code or pursuant to the corresponding section of the insurance laws of the state of domicile of a foreign or alien insurer.
(15) "Superintendent" means the insurance superintendent of Ohio.
(16) "Variable death benefit" means the amount of the death benefit, other than incidental insurance benefits, payable under a variable life insurance policy dependent on the investment performance of the separate account, which the insurer would have to pay in the absence of any minimum death benefit.
(17) "Variable life insurance policy" means any individual policy which provides for life insurance, the amount or duration of which varies according to the investment experience of any separate account or accounts established and maintained by the insurer as to such policy, pursuant to section 3907.15 of the Revised Code, or pursuant to the corresponding section of the insurance laws of the state of domicile of a foreign or alien insurer.
(D) Qualification of insurer to issue variable life insurance
The following requirements are applicable to all insurers either seeking authority to issue variable life insurance in this state or having authority to issue variable life insurance in this state.
(1) Licensing and approval to do business in this state.
An insurer shall not deliver or issue for delivery in this state any variable life insurance policy unless:
(a) The insurer is licensed or organized to do a life insurance business in this state;
(b) The insurer has obtained the written approval of the superintendent for the issuance of variable life insurance policies in this state. The superintendent shall grant such written approval only after he or she has found that:
(i) The plan of operation for the issuance of variable life insurance policies is not unsound;
(ii) The general character, reputation, and experience of the management and those persons or firms proposed to supply consulting, investment, administrative, or custodial services to the insurer are such as to reasonably assure competent operation of the variable life insurance business of the insurer in this state; and
(iii) The present and foreseeable future financial condition of the insurer and its method of operation in connection with the issuance of such policies is not likely to render its operation hazardous to the public or its policyholders in this state. The superintendent shall consider, among other things:
(a) The history of operation and financial condition of the insurer;
(b) The qualifications, fitness, character, responsibility, reputation, and experience of the officers and directors and other management of the insurer and those persons or firms proposed to supply consulting, investment, administrative, or custodial services to the insurer;
(c) The applicable laws and regulations under which the insurer is authorized in its state of domicile to issue variable life insurance policies. The state of entry of an alien insurer is deemed its state of domicile for this purpose; and
(d) If the insurer is a subsidiary of, or is affiliated by common management or ownership with another company, its relationship to such other company and the degree to which the requesting insurer, as well as the other company, meets these standards.
(2) Filing for approval to do business in this state.
The superintendent may, at his or her discretion, require that an insurer, before it delivers or issues for delivery any variable life insurance policy in this state, file with this department the following information for the consideration of the superintendent in making the determination required by paragraph (D)(1)(b) of this rule:
(a) Copies of and a general description of the variable life insurance policies it intends to issue;
(b) A general description of the methods of operation of the variable life insurance business of the insurer, including methods of distribution of policies and the names of those persons or firms proposed to supply consulting, investment, administrative, custodial or distribution services to the insurer;
(c) With respect to any separate account maintained by an insurer for any variable life insurance policy, a statement of the investment policy the issuer intends to follow for the investment of the assets held in such separate account, and a statement of procedures for changing such investment policy. The statement of investment policy shall include a description of the investment objectives intended for the separate account;
(d) A description of any investment advisory services contemplated as required by paragraph (G)(10) of this rule;
(e) A copy of the statutes and regulations of the state of domicile of the insurer under which it is authorized to issue variable life insurance policies;
(f) Biographical data with respect to officers and directors of the insurer on the "National Association of Insurance Commissioners" biographical affidavit; and
(g) A statement of the insurer's actuary describing the mortality and expense risks which the insurer will bear under the policy.
(3) Standards of suitability.
Every insurer seeking approval to enter into the variable life insurance business in this state shall establish and maintain a written statement specifying the standards of suitability to be used by the insurer. Such standards of suitability shall specify that no recommendations shall be made to an applicant to purchase a variable life insurance policy and that no variable life insurance policy shall be issued in the absence of reasonable grounds to believe that the purchase of such policy is not unsuitable for such applicant on the basis of information furnished after reasonable inquiry of such applicant concerning the applicant's insurance and investment objectives, financial situation and needs, and any other information known to the insurer or to the agent making the recommendation.
(4) Use of sales materials.
An insurer authorized to transact variable life insurance business in this state shall not use any sales material, advertising material, or descriptive literature or other materials of any kind in connection with its variable life insurance business in this state which is false, misleading, deceptive, or inaccurate.
(5) Requirements applicable to contractual services.
Any material contract between an insurer and suppliers of consulting, investment, administrative, sales, marketing, custodial, or other services with respect to variable life insurance operations shall be in writing and provide that the supplier of such services shall furnish the superintendent with any information or reports in connection with such services which the superintendent may request in order to ascertain whether the variable life insurance operations of the insurer are being conducted in a manner consistent with this chapter and any other applicable laws or rules.
(6) Reports to the superintendent.
Any insurer authorized to transact the business of variable life insurance in this state shall submit to the superintendent, in addition to any other materials which may be required by this rule or any other applicable laws or rules:
(a) An annual statement of the business of its separate account or accounts in such form as may be prescribed by the "National Association of Insurance Commissioners;" and
(b) Prior to the use in this state, any information furnished to applicants as provided for in paragraph (H) of this rule; and
(c) Prior to the use in this state, the form of any of the reports to policyholders as provided for in paragraph (J) of this rule; and
(d) Such additional information concerning its variable life insurance operations or its separate accounts as the superintendent deems necessary.
Any material submitted to the superintendent under paragraph (D)(6) of this rule shall be disapproved if it is found to be false, misleading, deceptive, or inaccurate in any material respect and, if previously distributed, the superintendent shall require the distribution of amended material.
(7) Authority of superintendent to disapprove.
Any material required to be filed with and approved by the superintendent is subject to disapproval if at any time it is found by him or her not to comply with the standards established by this rule.
(E) Insurance policy requirements
Policy qualification. The superintendent shall not approve any variable life insurance form filed pursuant to this rule unless it conforms to the requirements of paragraph (E) of this rule.
(1) Filing of variable life insurance policies.
All variable life insurance policies, and all riders, endorsements, applications, and other documents which are to be attached to and made a part of the policy and which relate to the variable nature of the policy, shall be filed with the superintendent and approved by him or her prior to delivery or issuance for delivery in this state.
(a) The procedures and requirements for such filing and approval shall be, to the extent appropriate and not inconsistent with this rule, the same as those otherwise applicable to other life insurance policies.
(b) The superintendent may approve variable life insurance policies and related forms with provisions the superintendent deems to be not less favorable to the policyholder and the beneficiary than those required by this rule.
(2) Mandatory policy benefit and design requirements.
Variable life insurance policies delivered or issued for delivery in this state shall comply with the following minimum requirements:
(a) Mortality and expense risks are borne by the insurer. The mortality and expense charges are subject to the maximums stated in the contract.
(b) For scheduled premium policies, a minimum death benefit is provided in an amount at least equal to the initial face amount of the policy so long as premiums are duly paid subject to the provisions of paragraph (E)(4) of this rule.
(c) The policy reflects the investment experience of one or more separate accounts established and maintained by the insurer. The insurer must demonstrate that the reflection of investment experience in the variable life insurance policy is actuarially sound.
(d) Each variable life insurance policy is credited with the full amount of the net investment return applied to the benefit base.
(e) Any changes in variable death benefits of each variable life insurance policy are determined at least annually.
(f) The cash value of each variable life insurance policy is determined at least monthly. The method of computation of cash values and other non-forfeiture benefits, as described either in the policy or in a statement filed with the superintendent of the state in which the policy is delivered, or issued for delivery, is in accordance with actuarial procedures that recognize the variable nature of the policy. The method of computation must be such that, if the net investment return credited to the policy at all times from the date of issue should be equal to the assumed investment rate with premiums and benefits determined accordingly under the terms of the policy, then the resulting cash values and other non-forfeiture benefits must be at least equal to the minimum values required by section 3915.07 of the Revised Code (standard non-forfeiture law) for a general account policy with such premiums and benefits. The assumed investment rate is not to exceed the maximum interest rate permitted under the standard non-forfeiture law of this state. If the policy does not contain an assumed investment rate, this demonstration is based on the maximum interest rate permitted under the standard non-forfeiture law. The method of computation may disregard incidental minimum guarantees as to the dollar amounts payable. Incidental minimum guarantees include, for example, but are not to be limited to, a guarantee that the amount payable at death or maturity is at least equal to the amount that otherwise would have been payable if the net investment return credited to the policy at all times from the date of issue had been equal to the assumed investment rate.
(g) The computation of values required for each variable life insurance policy may be based upon such reasonable and necessary approximations as are acceptable to the superintendent.
(3) Mandatory policy provisions.
Every variable life insurance policy filed for approval in this state shall contain at least the following:
(a) The cover page or pages corresponding to the cover pages of each such policy shall contain:
(i) A prominent statement in either contrasting color or in boldface type that the amount or duration of death benefits may be variable or fixed under specified conditions;
(ii) A prominent statement in either contrasting color or in boldface type that cash values may increase or decrease in accordance with the experience of the separate account subject to any specified minimum guarantees;
(iii) A statement describing any minimum death benefit required pursuant to paragraph (E)(2)(b) of this rule;
(iv) The method, or a reference to the policy provision which describes the method, for determining the amount of insurance payable at death;
(v) To the extent permitted by state law, a captioned provision that the policyholder may return the variable life insurance policy within ten days of receipt of the policy by the policyholder, and receive a refund equal to the sum of (a) the difference between the premiums paid including any policy fees or other charges and the amounts allocated to any separate accounts under the policy, and (b) the value of the amounts allocated to any separate accounts under the policy, on the date the returned policy is received by the insurer or its agent. Until such time as state law authorizes the return of payments as calculated in the preceding sentence, the amount of the refund is the total of all premium payments for such policy;
(vi) Such other items as are currently required for fixed benefit life insurance policies and which are not inconsistent with this rule.
(b)
(i) For scheduled premium policies, a provision for a grace period of not less than thirty-one days from the premium due date which provides that where the premium is paid within the grace period, policy values will be the same, except for the deduction of any overdue premium, as if the premium were paid on or before the due date.
(ii) For flexible premium policies, a provision for a grace period beginning on the policy processing day when the total charges authorized by the policy that are necessary to keep the policy in force until the next policy processing day exceed the amounts available under the policy to pay such charges in accordance with the terms of the policy. Such grace period ends on a date not less than sixty-one days after the mailing date of the report to policyholders required by paragraph (J)(3) of this rule.
(iii) The death benefit payable during the grace period will equal the death benefit in effect immediately prior to such period less any overdue charges. If the policy processing days occur monthly, the insurer may require the payment of not more than three times the charges which were due on the policy processing day on which the amounts available under the policy were insufficient to pay all charges authorized by the policy that are necessary to keep such policy in force until the next policy processing day.
(c) For scheduled premium policies, a provision that the policy will be reinstated at any time within two years from the date of default upon the written application of the insured and evidence of insurability, including good health, satisfactory to the insurer, unless the cash surrender value has been paid or the period of extended insurance has expired, upon the payment of any outstanding indebtedness arising subsequent to the end of the grace period following the date of default together with accrued interest thereon to the date of reinstatement and payment of an amount not exceeding the greater of:
(i) All overdue premiums and any indebtedness in effect at the end of the grace period following the date of default with interest as provided in section 3915.051 of the Revised Code.
(ii) One hundred ten per cent of the increase in cash value resulting from reinstatement plus all overdue premiums for incidental insurance benefits using an interest rate provided in section 3915.051 of the Revised Code.
(d) A full description of the benefit base and of the method of calculation and application of any factors used to adjust variable benefits under the policy;
(e) A provision designating the separate account to be used and stating that:
(i) The assets of such separate account shall be available to cover the liabilities of the general account of the insurer only to the extent that the assets of the separate account exceed the liabilities of the separate account arising under the variable life insurance policies supported by the separate account.
(ii) The assets of such separate account shall be valued at least as often as any policy benefits vary but at least monthly.
(f) A provision specifying what documents constitute the entire insurance contract under state law;
(g) A designation of the officers who are empowered to make an agreement or representation on behalf of the insurer and an indication that statements by the insured, or on his behalf, are considered as representations and not warranties;
(h) An identification of the owner of the insurance contract;
(i) A provision setting forth conditions or requirements as to the designation, or change of designation, of a beneficiary, and a provision for disbursement of benefits in the absence of a beneficiary designation;
(j) A statement of any conditions or requirements concerning the assignment of the policy;
(k) A description of any adjustments in policy values to be made in the event of misstatement of age or sex of the insured;
(l) A provision that the policy is incontestable by the insurer after it has been in force for two years during the lifetime of the insured; provided, however, that any increase in the amount of the policy's death benefits subsequent to the policy issue date, which increase occurred upon a new application or request of the owner and was subject to satisfactory proof of the insured's insurability, is incontestable after any such increase has been in force, during the lifetime of the insured, for two years from the date of issue of such increase;
(m) A provision stating that the investment policy of the separate account will not be changed without the approval of the insurance superintendent of the state of domicile of the insurer, and that the approval process is on file with the superintendent of this state;
(n) A provision that payment of variable death benefits in excess of any minimum death benefits, cash values, policy loans, or partial withdrawals (except when used to pay premiums) or partial surrenders may be deferred:
(i) For up to six months from the date of request, if such payments are based on policy values which do not depend on the investment performance of the separate account, or
(ii) Otherwise, for any period during which the "New York Stock Exchange" is closed for trading (except for normal holiday closing) or when the "Securities and Exchange Commission" has determined that a state of emergency exists which may make such payment impractical.
(o) If settlement options are provided, at least one such option provided will be on a fixed basis only;
(p) A description of the basis for computing the cash value and the surrender value under the policy;
(q) Premiums or charges for incidental insurance benefits are stated separately;
(r) Any other policy provision required by this rule;
(s) Such other items as are currently required for fixed benefit life insurance policies and are not inconsistent with this rule; and
(t) A provision for non-forfeiture insurance benefits. The insurer may establish a reasonable minimum cash value below which any non-forfeiture insurance options will not be available.
(4) Policy loan provisions.
Every variable life insurance policy, other than term insurance policies and pure endowment policies, delivered or issued for delivery in this state shall contain provisions which are not less favorable to the policyholder than a provision for policy loans after the policy has been in force for two full years which provides the following:
(a) At least seventy-five per cent of the policy's cash surrender value may be borrowed.
(b) The amount borrowed bears interest at a rate not to exceed that permitted by state insurance law.
(c) Any indebtedness is deducted from the proceeds payable on death.
(d) Any indebtedness is deducted from the cash surrender value upon surrender or in determining any non-forfeiture benefit.
(e) For scheduled premium policies, whenever the indebtedness exceeds the cash surrender value, the insurer will give notice of any intent to cancel the policy if the excess indebtedness is not repaid within thirty-one days after the date of mailing of such notice. For flexible premium policies, whenever the total charges authorized by the policy that are necessary to keep the policy in force until the next following policy processing day exceed the amounts available under the policy to pay such charges, a report must be sent to the policyholder containing the information specified by paragraph (J)(3) of this rule.
(f) The policy may provide that if, at any time, so long as premiums are duly paid, the variable death benefit is less than it would have been if no loan or withdrawal had ever been made, the policyholder may increase such variable death benefit up to what it would have been if there had been no loan or withdrawal, by paying an amount not exceeding one hundred ten per cent of the corresponding increase in cash value, and by furnishing such evidence of insurability as the insurer may request.
(g) The policy may specify a reasonable minimum amount which may be borrowed at any time, but such minimum does not apply to any automatic premium loan provision.
(h) No policy loan provision is required if the policy is under extended insurance non-forfeiture option.
(i) The policy loan provisions are constructed so that variable life insurance policyholders who have not exercised such provisions are not disadvantaged by the exercise thereof.
(j) Amounts paid to the policyholders upon the exercise of any policy loan provision shall be withdrawn from the separate account and shall be returned to the separate account upon repayment, except that a stock insurer may provide the amounts for policy loans from the general account.
(5) Other policy provisions.
The following provisions may in substance be included in a variable life insurance policy or related form delivered or issued for delivery in this state:
(a) An exclusion for suicide within two years of the issue date of the policy; provided, however, that to the extent of the increased death benefits only, the policy may provide an exclusion for suicide within two years of any increase in death benefits which results from an application of the owner subsequent to the policy issue date;
(b) Incidental insurance benefits may be offered on a fixed or variable basis;
(c) Policies issued on a participating basis shall offer to pay dividend amounts in cash. In addition, such policies may offer the following dividend options:
(i) The amount of the dividend may be credited against premium payments;
(ii) The amount of the dividend may be applied to provide amounts of additional fixed or variable benefit life insurance;
(iii) The amount of the dividend may be deposited in the general account at a specified minimum rate of interest;
(iv) The amount of the dividend may be applied to provide paid-up amounts of fixed benefit one-year term insurance;
(v) The amount of the dividend may be deposited as a variable deposit in a separate account.
(d) A provision allowing the policyholder to elect in writing in the application for the policy, or thereafter, an automatic premium loan on a basis not less favorable than that required of policy loans under paragraph (E)(4) of this rule, except that a restriction that no more than two consecutive premiums can be paid under this provision may be imposed;
(e) A provision allowing the policyholder to make partial withdrawals; and
(f) Any other policy provision approved by the superintendent.
(F) Reserve liabilities for variable life insurance
(1) Reserve liabilities for variable life insurance policies shall be established under sections 3903.721 and 3903.728 of the Revised Code in accordance with actuarial procedures that recognize the variable nature of the benefits provided and any mortality guarantees.
(2) Reserve liabilities for the guaranteed minimum death benefit shall be the reserve needed to provide for the contingency of death occurring when the guaranteed minimum death benefit exceeds the death benefit that would be paid in the absence of the guarantee, and shall be maintained in the general account of the insurer and not be less than the greater of the following minimum reserves:
(a) The aggregate total of the term costs, if any, covering a period of one full year from the valuation date or, if less, covering the period provided for in the guarantee not otherwise provided for by the reserves held in the separate account, on each variable life insurance contract, assuming an immediate one-third depreciation in the current value of the assets in the separate account, followed by a net investment return equal to the assumed investment rate; or
(b) The aggregate total of the "attained age level" reserves on each variable life insurance contract. The "attained age level" reserve on each variable life insurance contract shall not be less than zero and shall equal the "residue," as described in paragraph (F)(2)(b)(i) of this rule, of the prior year's "attained age level" reserve on the contract, with any such "residue," increased or decreased by a payment computed on an attained age basis as described in paragraph (F)(2)(b)(ii) of this rule.
(i) The "residue" of the prior year's "attained age level" reserve on each variable life insurance contract shall not be less than zero and shall be determined by adding interest at the valuation interest rate to such prior year's reserve, deducting the tabular claims based on the "excess," if any, of the guaranteed minimum death benefit over the death benefit that would be payable in the absence of such guarantee, and dividing the net result by the tabular probability of survival. The "excess" referred to in the preceding sentence shall be based on the actual level of death benefits that would have been in effect during the preceding year in the absence of the guarantee, taking appropriate account of the reserve assumptions regarding the distribution of death claim payments over the year.
(ii) The payment referred to in paragraph (F)(2)(b) of this rule shall be computed so that the present value of a level payment of that amount each year over the future period for which charges for this risk will be collected under the contract, is equal to (A) minus (B) minus (C), where (A) is the present value of the future guaranteed minimum death benefits, (B) is the present value of the future death benefits that would be payable in the absence of such guarantee, and (C) is any "residue," as described in paragraph (F)(2)(b)(i) of this rule, of the prior year's "attained age level" reserve on such variable life insurance contract. If no future charges for this risk will be collected under the contract, the payment shall equal (A) minus (B) minus (C). The amounts of future death benefits referred to in (B) shall be computed assuming a net investment return of the separate account which may differ from the assumed investment rate or the valuation interest rate, but in no event may exceed the maximum interest rate permitted for the valuation of life contracts.
(c) The valuation interest rate and mortality table used in computing the two minimum reserves described in paragraphs (F)(2)(a) and (F)(2)(b) of this rule shall conform to permissible standards for the valuation of life insurance contracts. In determining such minimum reserve, the company may employ suitable approximations and estimates, including but not limited to groupings and averages.
(3) Reserve liabilities for all fixed incidental insurance benefits and any guarantees associated with variable incidental insurance benefits shall be maintained in the general account, and reserve liabilities for all variable aspects of the variable incidental insurance benefits shall be maintained in a separate account, in amounts determined in accordance with the actuarial procedures appropriate to such benefit.
(G) Separate accounts
The following requirements apply to the establishment and administration of variable life insurance separate accounts by any domestic insurer.
(1) Establishment and administration of separate accounts.
Any domestic insurer issuing variable life insurance shall establish one or more separate accounts pursuant to section 3907.15 of the Revised Code.
(a) If no law or other regulation provides for the custody of separate account assets and if such insurer is not the custodian of such separate account assets, all contracts for custody of such assets shall be in writing, and the superintendent has the authority to review and approve of both the terms of any such contract and the proposed custodian prior to the transfer of custody.
(b) Such insurer shall not, without the prior written approval of the superintendent, employ in any material connection with the handling of separate account asset any person who:
(i) Within the last ten years has been convicted of any felony or a misdemeanor arising out of such person's conduct involving embezzlement, fraudulent conversion, or misappropriation of funds or securities or involving violation of section 1341, 1342, or 1343 of Title 18, United States Code; or
(ii) Within the last ten years has been found by any state regulatory authority to have violated or has acknowledged violation of any provision of any state insurance law involving fraud, deceit, or knowing misrepresentation; or
(iii) Within the last ten years has been found by federal or state regulatory authorities to have violated or has acknowledged violation of any provision of federal or state securities laws involving fraud, deceit, or knowing misrepresentation.
(c) All persons with access to the cash, securities, or other assets of the separate account shall be under bond in the amount of not less than the following amounts:
| Total Assets | | | --- | --- | | Under $100,000 | | | More than: | But not more than: | | $ 100,000 | $ 600,000 | | 600,000 | 1,200,000 | | 1,200,000 | 3,200,000 | | 3,200,000 | 4,450,000 | | 4,450,000 | 6,450,000 | | 6,450,000 | 90,450,000 | | 90,450,000 | 350,450,000 | | 350,450,000 | 1,070,450,000 | | 1,070,450,000 | |
| Minimum Amount of Bond | | | | --- | --- | --- | | $10,000 | | | | $ 10,000 plus | 4% of assets over | $ 100,000 | | 30,000 plus | 3 1/3% of assets over | 600,000 | | 50,000 plus | 2 1/2% of assets over | 1,200,000 | | 100,000 plus | 2% of assets over | 3,200,000 | | 125,000 plus | 1 1/4% of assets over | 4,450,000 | | 150,000 plus | 5/8% of assets over | 6,450,000 | | 675,000 plus | 3/8% of assets over | 90,450,000 | | 1,625,000 plus | 3/16% of assets over | 350,450,000 | | 3,075,000 plus | 3/32% of assets over | 1,070,450,000 | | Until total bond equals $5,000,000. | | |
(d) The assets of such separate accounts shall be valued at least as often as variable benefits are determined, but in any event at least monthly.
(2) Amounts in the separate account.
The insurer shall maintain in each separate account assets with a value at least equal to the greater of the valuation reserves for the variable portion of the variable life insurance policies, or the benefit base for such policies.
(3) Investments by the separate account.
(a) No sale, exchange, or other transfer of assets may be made by an insurer or any of its affiliates between any of its separate accounts or between any other investment account and one or more of its separate accounts unless:
(i) In case of a transfer into a separate account, such transfer is made solely to establish the account or to support the operation of the policies with respect to the separate account to which the transfer is made; and
(ii) Such transfer, whether into or from a separate account, is made by a transfer of cash; but other assets may be transferred if approved by the superintendent in advance.
(b) The separate account shall have sufficient net investment income and readily marketable assets to meet anticipated withdrawals under policies funded by the account.
(4) Limitations on ownership.
(a) A separate account shall not purchase or otherwise acquire the securities of any issuer, other than securities issued or guaranteed as to principal and interest by the United States, if immediately after such purchase or acquisition, the value of such investment, together with prior investments of such account in such security valued as required by this rule, would exceed ten per cent of the value of the assets of the separate account. To the extent permitted by state law, the superintendent may waive this limitation in writing if he or she believes such waiver will not render the operation of the separate account hazardous to the public or the policyholders in this state.
(b) No separate account shall purchase or otherwise acquire the voting securities of any issuer if, as a result of such acquisition, the insurer and its separate accounts, in the aggregate, will own more than ten per cent of the total issued and outstanding voting securities of such issuer. To the extent permitted by state law, the superintendent may waive this limitation in writing if he or she believes such waiver will not render the operation of the separate account hazardous to the public or the policyholders in this state, or jeopardize the independent operation of the issuer of such securities.
(c) The percentage limitation specified in paragraph (G)(4)(a) of this rule, shall not be construed to preclude the investment of the assets of separate accounts in shares of investment companies registered pursuant to the Investment Company Act of 1940, or other pools of investment assets, if the investments and investment policies of such investment companies or asset pools comply substantially with the provisions of paragraph (G)(3) of this rule and other applicable portions of this rule.
(5) Valuation of separate account assets.
Investments of the separate account are valued at their market value on the date of valuation, or at amortized cost if it approximates market value.
(6) Separate account investment policy.
The investment policy of a separate account operated by a domestic insurer filed under paragraph (D)(2)(c) of this rule shall not be changed without first filing such change with the insurance superintendent.
(a) Any change filed pursuant to this paragraph is effective sixty days after the date it was filed with the superintendent, unless the superintendent notifies the insurer before the end of such sixty-day period of his or her disapproval of the proposed change. At any time the superintendent may, after notice and public hearing, disapprove any change that has become effective pursuant to this paragraph.
(b) The superintendent may disapprove the change if he or she determines that the change would be detrimental to the interests of the policyholders participating in such separate account.
(7) Charges against separate account.
The insurer must disclose in writing, prior to or contemporaneously with delivery of the policy, all charges that may be made against the separate account, including, but not limited to, the following:
(a) Taxes or reserves for taxes attributable to investment gains and income of the separate account;
(b) Actual cost of reasonable brokerage fees and similar direct acquisition and sale costs incurred in the purchase or sale of separate account assets;
(c) Actuarially determine costs of insurance (tabular costs) and the release of separate account liabilities;
(d) Charges for administrative expenses and investment management expenses, including internal costs attributable to the investment management of assets of the separate account;
(e) A charge, at a rate specified in the policy, for mortality and expense guarantees;
(f) Any amounts in excess of those required to be held in the separate accounts;
(g) Charges for incidental insurance benefits.
(8) Standards of conduct.
Every insurer seeking approval to enter into the variable life insurance business in this state shall adopt by formal action of its board of directors, a written statement specifying the standards of conduct of the insurer, its officers, directors, employees, and affiliates with respect to the purchase or sale of investments of separate accounts. Such standards of conduct are binding on the insurer and those to whom it refers. A code or codes of ethics meeting the requirements of section 17j under the Investment Company Act of 1940 and its applicable rules and regulations thereunder satisfies the provisions of this paragraph.
(9) Conflicts of interest.
Rules under any provision of the insurance laws of this state or any rule applicable to the officers and directors of insurance companies with respect to conflicts of interest also apply to members of any separate account's committee or other similar body.
(10) Investment advisory services to a separate account.
An insurer shall not enter into a contract under which any person undertakes, for a fee, to regularly furnish investment advice to such insurer with respect to its separate accounts maintained for variable life insurance policies unless:
(a) The person providing such advice is registered as an investment adviser under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940; or
(b) The person providing such advice is an investment manager under the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 with respect to the assets of each employee benefit plan allocated to the separate account; or
(c) The insurer has filed with the superintendent and continues to file annually the following information and statements concerning the proposed adviser:
(i) The name and form of organization, state of organization, and its principal place of business;
(ii) The names and addresses of its partners, officers, directors, and persons performing similar functions or, if such an investment advisor be an individual, of such individual;
(iii) A written standard of conduct complying in substance with the requirements of paragraph (G)(8) of this rule which has been adopted by the investment adviser and is applicable to the investment adviser, his officers, directors, and affiliates;
(iv) A statement provided by the proposed adviser as to whether the adviser or any person associated therewith:
(a) Has been convicted within ten years of any felony or misdemeanor arising out of such person's conduct as an employee, salesman, officer or director of an insurance company, a banker, an insurance agent, a securities broker, or an investment adviser involving embezzlement, fraudulent conversion, or misappropriation of funds or securities, or involving the violation of section 1341, 1342, or 1343 of Title 18 of the United States Code;
(b) Has been permanently or temporarily enjoined by order, judgment, or decree of any court of competent jurisdiction from acting as an investment adviser, underwriter, broker, or dealer, or as an affiliated person or as an employee of any investment company, bank, or insurance company, or from engaging in or continuing any conduct or practice in connection with any such activity;
(c) Has been found by federal or state regulatory authorities to have willfully violated or have acknowledged willful violation of any provision of federal or state securities laws or state insurance laws or of any rule or regulation under any such laws; or
(d) Has been censured, denied an investment adviser registration, had a registration as an investment adviser revoked or suspended, or been barred or suspended from being associated with an investment adviser by order of federal or state regulatory authorities; and
(d) Such investment advisory contract shall be in writing and provide that it may be terminated by the insurer without penalty to the insurer or the separate account upon no more than sixty days' written notice to the investment adviser.
The superintendent may, after notice and opportunity for hearing, by order require such investment advisory contract to be terminated if he or she deems continued operation thereunder to be hazardous to the public or the insurer's policyholders.
(H) Information furnished to applicants
An insurer delivering or issuing for delivery in this state any variable life insurance policies shall deliver the following to the applicant for the policy, and obtain a written acknowledgment of receipt from such applicant coincident with or prior to the execution of the application. The requirements of this paragraph are deemed to have been satisfied to the extent that a disclosure containing information required by this paragraph is delivered, either in the form of a prospectus included in the requirements of the Securities Act of 1933 and which was declared effective by the "Securities and Exchange Commission"; or all information and reports required by the employee retirement income Security Act of 1974 if the policies are exempted from the registration requirements of the Securities Act of 1933 pursuant to section 3 (a)(2) thereof.
(1) A summary explanation, in non-technical terms, of the principal features of the policy, including a description of the manner in which the variable benefits will reflect the investment experience of the separate account and the factors which affect such variation. Such explanation must include notices of the provision required by paragraphs (E)(3)(a)(v) and (E)(3)(f) of this rule;
(2) A statement of the investment policy of the separate account, including:
(a) A description of the investment objectives intended for the separate account and the principal types of investments intended to be made; and
(b) Any restriction or limitations on the manner in which the operations of the separate account are intended to be conducted.
(3) A statement of the net investment return of the separate account for each of the last ten years or such lesser period as the separate account has been in existence;
(4) A statement of the charges levied against the separate account during the previous year;
(5) A summary of the method to be used in valuing assets held by the separate account;
(6) A summary of the federal income tax aspects of the policy applicable to the insured, the policyholder and the beneficiary;
(7) Illustrations of benefits payable under the variable life insurance contract. Such illustrations shall be prepared by the insurer and shall not include projections of past investment experience into the future or attempted predictions of future investment experience, provided that nothing contained herein prohibits use of hypothetical assumed rates of return to illustrate possible levels of benefits if it is made clear that such assumed rates are hypothetical only.
(I) Applications
The application for a variable life insurance policy shall contain:
(1) A prominent statement that the death benefit may be variable or fixed under specified conditions;
(2) A prominent statement that cash values may increase or decrease in accordance with the experience of the separate account (subject to any specified minimum guarantees); and
(3) Questions designed to elicit information which enables the insurer to determine the suitability of variable life insurance for the applicant.
(J) Reports to policyholders
Any insurer delivering or issuing for delivery in this state any variable life insurance policies shall mail to each variable life insurance policyholder at his or her last known address the following reports:
(1) Within thirty days after each anniversary of the policy, a statement or statements of the cash surrender value, death benefit, any partial withdrawal or policy loan, any interest charge, any optional payments allowed pursuant to paragraph (E)(4) of this rule under the policy computed as of the policy anniversary date. Provided, however, that such statement may be furnished within thirty days after a specified date in each policy year, so long as the information contained therein is computed as of a date not more than sixty days prior to the mailing of such notice. This statement shall state that, in accordance with the investment experience of the separate account, the cash values and the variable death benefits may increase or decrease, and shall prominently identify any value described therein which may be recomputed prior to the next statement required by this paragraph. If the policy guarantees that the variable death benefit on the next policy anniversary date will not be less than the variable death benefit specified in such statement, the statement shall be modified to so indicate. For flexible premium policies, the report must contain a reconciliation of the change since the previous report in cash value and cash surrender value, if different, because of payments made (less deductions for expense charges), withdrawals, investment experience, insurance charges and any other charges made against the cash value. In addition, the report must show the projected cash value and cash surrender value, if different, as of one year from the end of the period covered by the report assuming that: (a) planned periodic premiums, if any, are paid as scheduled; (b) guaranteed costs of insurance are deducted; and (c) the net investment return is equal to the guaranteed rate or, in the absence of a guaranteed rate, is not greater than zero. If the projected value is less than zero, a warning message must be included that states that the policy may be in danger of terminating without value in the next twelve months unless additional premium is paid.
(2) Annually, a statement or statements including:
(a) A summary of the financial statement of the separate account based on the annual statement last filed with the superintendent;
(b) The net investment return of the separate account for the last year and, for each year after the first, a comparison of the investment rate of the separate account during the last year with the investment rate during prior years, up to a total of not less than five years when available;
(c) A list of investments held by the separate account as of a date not earlier than the end of the last year for which an annual statement was filed with the superintendent;
(d) Any charges levied against the separate account during the previous year;
(e) A statement of any change, since the last report, in the investment objective and orientation of the separate account, in any investment restriction or material quantitative or qualitative investment requirement applicable to the separate account, or in the investment adviser of the separate account.
(3) For flexible premium policies, a report must be sent to the policyholder if the amounts available under the policy on any policy processing day to pay the charges authorized by the policy are less than the amount necessary to keep the policy in force until the next following policy processing day. The report must indicate the minimum payment required under the terms of the policy to keep it in force and the length of the grace period for payment of such amount.
(K) Foreign companies
If the law or regulation in the place of domicile of a foreign company provides a degree of protection to the policyholders and the public which is substantially similar to that provided by this rule, the superintendent, to the extent deemed appropriate by the superintendent in his or her discretion, may consider compliance with such law or regulation as compliance with this rule.
(L) Qualifications of agents for the sale of variable life insurance
(1) Qualification to sell variable life insurance.
(a) No person may sell or offer for sale in this state any variable life insurance policy unless such person is an agent and has filed with the superintendent, in a form satisfactory to the superintendent, evidence that such person holds any license or authorization which may be required for the solicitation or sale of variable life insurance.
(b) Any examination administered by the department for the purpose of determining the eligibility of any person for licensing as an agent shall, after the effective date of this rule, include such questions concerning the history, purpose, regulation, and sale of variable life insurance as the superintendent deems appropriate.
(2) Reports of disciplinary actions.
Any person qualified in this state under this rule to sell or offer to sell variable life insurance shall immediately report to the superintendent:
(a) Any suspension or revocation of his agent's license in any other state or territory of the "United States";
(b) The imposition of any disciplinary sanction, including suspension or expulsion from membership, suspension, or revocation of or denial of registration, imposed upon him by any national securities exchange, or national securities association, or any federal, state, or territorial agency with jurisdiction over securities or variable life insurance;
(c) Any judgment or injunction entered against him on the basis of conduct deemed to have involved fraud, deceit, misrepresentation, or violation of any insurance or securities law or regulation.
(3) Refusal to qualify agent to sell variable life insurance; suspension, revocation, or nonrenewal of qualification:
The superintendent may reject any application or suspend or revoke or refuse to renew any agent's qualification under this rule to sell or offer to sell variable life insurance upon any ground that would bar such applicant or such agent from being licensed to sell other life insurance contracts in this state. The rules governing any proceeding relating to the suspension or revocation of an agent's license shall also govern any proceeding for suspension or revocation of an agent's qualification to sell or to offer to sell variable life insurance.
(M) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated November 16, 2023 at 8:32 AM
History
- Effective: November 16, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-6-10 Valuation of life insurance policies.
(A) Purpose
(1) The purpose of this rule is to provide:
(a) Tables of select mortality factors and rules for their use;
(b) Rules concerning a minimum standard for the valuation of plans with non-level premiums or benefits; and
(c) Rules concerning a minimum standard for the valuation of plans with secondary guarantees.
(2) The method for calculating basic reserves defined in this rule will constitute the "Commissioners' Reserve Valuation Method" for policies to which this regulation is applicable.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under section 3901.041 of the Revised Code.
(C) Applicability
This rule shall apply to all life insurance policies, with or without nonforfeiture values, issued on or after January 1, 2000, subject to the following exceptions and conditions.
(1) Exceptions
(a) This rule does not apply to any individual life insurance policy issued on or after January 1, 2000 if the policy is issued in accordance with and as a result of the exercise of a reentry provision contained in the original life insurance policy of the same or greater face amount, issued before January 1, 2000, that guarantees the premium rates of the new policy. This rule also does not apply to subsequent policies issued as a result of the exercise of such a provision, or a derivation of the provision, in the new policy.
(b) This rule does not apply to any universal life policy that meets all the following conditions:
(i) Secondary guarantee period, if any, is five years or less;
(ii) Specified premium for the secondary guarantee period is not less than the net level reserve premium for the secondary guarantee period based on the CSO valuation tables as defined in paragraph (D)(6) of this rule and the applicable valuation interest rate; and
(iii) The initial surrender charge is not less than one hundred per cent of the first year annualized specified premium for the secondary guarantee period.
(c) This rule does not apply to any variable life insurance policy that provides for life insurance, the amount or duration of which varies according to the investment experience of any separate account or accounts.
(d) This rule does not apply to any variable universal life insurance policy that provides for life insurance, the amount or duration of which varies according to the investment experience of any separate account or accounts.
(e) This rule does not apply to a group life insurance certificate unless the certificate provides for a stated or implied schedule of maximum gross premiums necessary to continue coverage in force for a period in excess of one year.
(2) Conditions
(a) Calculation of the minimum valuation standard for policies with guaranteed non-level gross premiums or guaranteed non-level benefits (other than universal life policies), or both, shall be in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (F) of this rule.
(b) Calculation of the minimum valuation standard for flexible premium and fixed premium universal life insurance policies, that contain provisions resulting in the ability of a policyholder to keep a policy in force over a secondary guarantee period, shall be in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (G) of this rule.
(D) Definitions
For purposes of this rule:
(1) "Basic reserves" means reserves calculated in accordance with divisions (E), (F), and (G) of section 3903.723 of the Revised Code.
(2) "Contract segmentation method" means the method of dividing the period from issue to mandatory expiration of a policy into successive segments, with the length of each segment being defined as the period from the end of the prior segment (from policy inception, for the first segment) to the end of the latest policy year as determined below. All calculations are made using the 1980 CSO valuation tables, as defined in paragraph (D)(6) of this rule, (or any other valuation mortality table adopted by the "National Association of Insurance Commissioners" (NAIC) after January 1, 2000 and promulgated by rule by the superintendent for this purpose), and, if elected, the optional minimum mortality standard for deficiency reserves stipulated in paragraph (E)(2) of this rule.
The length of a particular contract segment shall be set equal to the minimum of the value t for which Gt is greater than Rt (if Gt never exceeds Rt the segment length is deemed to be the number of years from the beginning of the segment to the mandatory expiration date of the policy), where Gt and Rt are defined as follows:
Gt = GPx+k+t / GPx+k+t-1
Where:
x = Original issue age;
k = The number of years from the date of issue to the beginning of the segment;
t = 1, 2, ...; t is reset to 1 at the beginning of each segment;
GPx+k+t-1 = Guaranteed gross premium per thousand of face amount for year t of the segment, ignoring policy fees only if level for the premium paying period of the policy.
Rt = Qx+k+t / Qx+k+t-1
However, Rt may be increased or decreased by one per cent in any policy year, at the company's option, but Rt shall not be less than one;
Where:
x, k, and t are defined above, and
Qx+k+t-1 = Valuation mortality rate for deficiency reserves in policy year k+t but using the mortality of paragraph (E)(2)(b) of this rule if paragraph (E)(2)(c) of this rule is elected for deficiency reserves.
However, if GPx+k+t is greater than 0 and GPx+k+t-1 is equal to 0, Gt shall be deemed to be 1000. If GPx+k+t and GPx+k+t-1 are both equal to 0, Gt shall be deemed to be 0.
(3) "Deficiency reserves" means the excess, if greater than zero, of
(a) Minimum reserves calculated in accordance with division (K) of section 3903.723 of the Revised Code over
(b) Basic reserves.
(4) "Guaranteed gross premiums" means the premiums under a policy of life insurance that are guaranteed and determined at issue.
(5) "Maximum valuation interest rates" means the interest rates defined in section 3903.724 of the Revised Code ("Determination of valuation interest rate") that are to be used in determining the minimum standard for the valuation of life insurance policies.
(6) "1980 CSO valuation tables" means the "Commissioners' 1980 Standard Ordinary Mortality Table" (1980 CSO Table) without ten-year selection factors, incorporated into the 1980 amendments to the "NAIC Standard Valuation Law", and variations of the 1980 CSO table approved by the NAIC, such as the smoker and nonsmoker versions approved in December 1983.
(7) "Scheduled gross premium" means the smallest illustrated gross premium at issue for other than universal life insurance policies. For universal life insurance policies, scheduled gross premium means the smallest specified premium described in paragraph (G)(1)(c) of this rule, if any, or else the minimum premium described in paragraph (G)(1)(d) of this rule.
(8)
(a) "Segmented reserves" means reserves, calculated using segments produced by the contract segmentation method, equal to the present value of all future guaranteed benefits less the present value of all future net premiums to the mandatory expiration of a policy, where the net premiums within each segment are a uniform percentage of the respective guaranteed gross premiums within the segment. The uniform percentage for each segment is such that, at the beginning of the segment, the present value of the net premiums within the segment equals:
(i) The present value of the death benefits within the segment, plus
(ii) The present value of any unusual guaranteed cash value (see paragraph (F)(4) of this rule) occurring at the end of the segment, less
(iii) Any unusual guaranteed cash value occurring at the start of the segment, plus
(iv) For the first segment only, the excess of the item (a) over item (b), as follows:
(a) A net level annual premium equal to the present value, at the date of issue, of the benefits provided for in the first segment after the first policy year, divided by the present value, at the date of issue, of an annuity of one per year payable on the first and each subsequent anniversary within the first segment on which a premium falls due. However, the net level annual premium shall not exceed the net level annual premium on the nineteen-year premium whole life plan of insurance of the same renewal year equivalent level amount at an age one year higher than the age at issue of the policy.
(b) A net one year term premium for the benefits provided for in the first policy year.
(b) The length of each segment is determined by the "contract segmentation method," as defined in this paragraph.
(c) The interest rates used in the present value calculations for any policy may not exceed the maximum valuation interest rate, determined with a guarantee duration equal to the sum of the lengths of all segments of the policy.
(d) For both basic reserves and deficiency reserves computed by the segmented method, present values shall include future benefits and net premiums in the current segment and in all subsequent segments.
(9) "Tabular cost of insurance" means the net single premium at the beginning of a policy year for one-year term insurance in the amount of the guaranteed death benefit in that policy year.
(10) "Ten-year select factors" means the select factors adopted with the 1980 amendments to the "NAIC Standard Valuation Law."
(11)
(a) "Unitary reserves" means the present value of all future guaranteed benefits less the present value of all future modified net premiums where:
(i) Guaranteed benefits and modified net premiums are considered to the mandatory expiration of the policy; and
(ii) Modified net premiums are a uniform percentage of the respective guaranteed gross premiums, where the uniform percentage is such that, at issue, the present value of the net premiums equals the present value of all death benefits and pure endowments, plus the excess of item (a) over item (b), as follows:
(a) A net level annual premium equal to the present value, at the date of issue, of the benefits provided for after the first policy year, divided by the present value, at the date of issue, of an annuity of one per year payable on the first and each subsequent anniversary of the policy on which a premium falls due. However, the net level annual premium shall not exceed the net level annual premium on the nineteen-year premium whole life plan of insurance of the same renewal year equivalent level amount at an age one year higher than the age at issue of the policy.
(b) A net one year term premium for the benefits provided for in the first policy year.
(b) The interest rates used in the present value calculations for any policy may not exceed the maximum valuation interest rate, determined with a guarantee duration equal to the length from issue to the mandatory expiration of the policy.
(12) "Universal life insurance policy" means any individual life insurance policy under the provisions of which separately identified interest credits (other than in connection with dividend accumulations, premium deposit funds, or other supplementary accounts) and mortality or expense charges are made to the policy.
(E) General calculation requirements for basic reserves and premium deficiency reserves
(1) At the election of the company for any one or more specified plans of life insurance, the minimum mortality standard for basic reserves may be calculated using the 1980 CSO valuation tables with select mortality factors (or any other valuation mortality table adopted by the NAIC after January 1, 2000 and promulgated by rule by the superintendent for this purpose). If select mortality factors are elected, they may be:
(a) The ten-year select mortality factors incorporated into the 1980 amendments to the "NAIC Standard Valuation Law";
(b) The select mortality factors in the appendix to this rule; or
(c) Any other table of select mortality factors adopted by the NAIC after January 1, 2000 and promulgated by rule by the superintendent for the purpose of calculating basic reserves.
(2) Deficiency reserves, if any, are calculated for each policy as the excess, if greater than zero, of the quantity A over the basic reserve. The quantity A is obtained by recalculating the basic reserve for the policy using guaranteed gross premiums instead of net premiums when the guaranteed gross premiums are less than the corresponding net premiums. At the election of the company for any one or more specified plans of insurance, the quantity A and the corresponding net premiums used in the determination of quantity A may be based upon the 1980 CSO valuation tables with select mortality factors (or any other valuation mortality table adopted by the NAIC after January 1, 2000 and promulgated by rule by the superintendent). If select mortality factors are elected, they may be:
(a) The ten-year select mortality factors incorporated into the 1980 amendments to the "NAIC Standard Valuation Law";
(b) The select mortality factors in the appendix to this rule;
(c) For durations in the first segment, X per cent of the select mortality factors in the appendix to this rule, subject to the following:
(i) X may vary by policy year, policy form, underwriting classification, issue age, or any other policy factor expected to affect mortality experience;
(ii) X is such that, when using the valuation interest rate used for basic reserves, item (a) is greater than or equal to item (b):
(a) The actuarial present value of future death benefits, calculated using the mortality rates resulting from the application of X;
(b) The actuarial present value of future death benefits calculated using anticipated mortality experience without recognition of mortality improvement beyond the valuation date;
(iii) X is such that the mortality rates resulting from the application of X are at least as great as the anticipated mortality experience, without recognition of mortality improvement beyond the valuation date, in each of the first five years after the valuation date;
(iv) The appointed actuary shall increase X at any valuation date where it is necessary to continue to meet all the requirements of paragraph (E)(2)(c) of this rule;
(v) The appointed actuary may decrease X at any valuation date as long as X continues to meet all the requirements of paragraph (E)(2)(c) of this rule; and
(vi) The appointed actuary shall specifically take into account the adverse effect on expected mortality and lapsation of any anticipated or actual increase in gross premiums.
(vii) If X is less than one hundred per cent at any duration for any policy, the following requirements shall be met:
(a) The appointed actuary shall annually prepare an actuarial opinion and memorandum for the company in conformance with the requirements of section VM-30 of the current edition of the "Valuation Manual" published by the NAIC; and
(b) The appointed actuary shall annually opine for all policies subject to this rule as to whether the mortality rates resulting from the application of X meet the requirements of paragraph (E)(2)(c) of this rule. This opinion shall be supported by an actuarial report, subject to appropriate "Actuarial Standards of Practice" promulgated by the "Actuarial Standards Board of the American Academy of Actuaries." The X factors shall reflect anticipated future mortality, without recognition of mortality improvement beyond the valuation date, taking into account relevant emerging experience.
(d) Any other table of select mortality factors adopted by the NAIC after January 1, 2000 and promulgated by rule by the superintendent for the purpose of calculating deficiency reserves.
(3) This paragraph applies to both basic reserves and deficiency reserves. Any set of select mortality factors may be used only for the first segment. However, if the first segment is less than ten years, the appropriate ten-year select mortality factors incorporated into the 1980 amendments to the "NAIC Standard Valuation Law" may be used thereafter through the tenth policy year from the date of issue.
(4) In determining basic reserves or deficiency reserves, guaranteed gross premiums without policy fees may be used where the calculation involves the guaranteed gross premium but only if the policy fee is a level dollar amount after the first policy year. In determining deficiency reserves, policy fees may be included in guaranteed gross premiums, even if not included in the actual calculation of basic reserves.
(5) Reserves for policies that have changes to guaranteed gross premiums, guaranteed benefits, guaranteed charges, or guaranteed credits that are unilaterally made by the insurer after issue and that are effective for more than one year after the date of the change shall be the greatest of the following:
(a) Reserves calculated ignoring the guarantee,
(b) Reserves assuming the guarantee was made at issue, and
(c) Reserves assuming that the policy was issued on the date of the guarantee.
(6) The commissioner may order that the company document the extent of the adequacy of reserves for specified blocks, including but not limited to policies issued prior to January 1, 2000. This documentation may include a demonstration of the extent to which aggregation with other nonspecified blocks of business is relied upon in the formation of the appointed actuary opinion pursuant to and consistent with the requirements of section VM-30 of the current edition of the "Valuation Manual" published by the NAIC.
(F) Calculation of minimum valuation standard for policies with guaranteed non-level gross premiums or guaranteed non-level benefits (other than universal life policies)
(1) Basic reserves
Basic reserves shall be calculated as the greater of the segmented reserves and the unitary reserves. Both the segmented reserves and the unitary reserves for any policy shall use the same valuation mortality table and selection factors. At the option of the insurer, in calculating segmented reserves and net premiums, either of the adjustments described in paragraph (F)(1)(a) or (F)(1)(b) of this rule may be made:
(a) Treat the unitary reserve, if greater than zero, applicable at the end of each segment as a pure endowment; and subtract the unitary reserve, if greater than zero, applicable at the beginning of each segment from the present value of guaranteed life insurance and endowment benefits for each segment.
(b) Treat the guaranteed cash surrender value, if greater than zero, applicable at the end of each segment as a pure endowment; and subtract the guaranteed cash surrender value, if greater than zero, applicable at the beginning of each segment from the present value of guaranteed life insurance and endowment benefits for each segment.
(2) Deficiency reserves
(a) The deficiency reserve at any duration shall be calculated:
(i) On a unitary basis if the corresponding basic reserve determined by paragraph (F)(1) of this rule is unitary;
(ii) On a segmented basis if the corresponding basic reserve determined by paragraph (F)(1) of this rule is segmented; or
(iii) On the segmented basis if the corresponding basic reserve determined by paragraph (F)(1) of this rule is equal to both the segmented reserve and the unitary reserve.
(b) This paragraph shall apply to any policy for which the guaranteed gross premium at any duration is less than the corresponding modified net premium calculated by the method used in determining the basic reserves, but using the minimum valuation standards of mortality (specified in paragraph (E)(2) of this rule) and rate of interest.
(c) Deficiency reserves, if any, shall be calculated for each policy as the excess if greater than zero, for the current and all remaining periods, of the quantity A over the basic reserve, where A is obtained as indicated in paragraph (E)(2) of this rule.
(d) For deficiency reserves determined on a segmented basis, the quantity A is determined using segment lengths equal to those determined for segmented basic reserves.
(3) Minimum value
Basic reserves may not be less than the tabular cost of insurance for the balance of the policy year, if mean reserves are used. Basic reserves may not be less than the tabular cost of insurance for the balance of the current modal period or to the paid-to-date, if later, but not beyond the next policy anniversary, if mid-terminal reserves are used. The tabular cost of insurance shall use the same valuation mortality table and interest rates as that used for the calculation of the segmented reserves. However, if select mortality factors are used, they shall be the ten-year select factors incorporated into the 1980 amendments of the "NAIC Standard Valuation Law." In no case may total reserves (including basic reserves, deficiency reserves and any reserves held for supplemental benefits that would expire upon contract termination) be less than the amount that the policyowner would receive (including the cash surrender value of the supplemental benefits, if any, referred to in this rule), exclusive of any deduction for policy loans, upon termination of the policy.
(4) Unusual pattern of guaranteed cash surrender values
(a) For any policy with an unusual pattern of guaranteed cash surrender values, the reserves actually held prior to the first unusual guaranteed cash surrender value shall not be less than the reserves calculated by treating the first unusual guaranteed cash surrender value as a pure endowment and treating the policy as an n year policy providing term insurance plus a pure endowment equal to the unusual cash surrender value, where n is the number of years from the date of issue to the date the unusual cash surrender value is scheduled.
(b) The reserves actually held subsequent to any unusual guaranteed cash surrender value shall not be less than the reserves calculated by treating the policy as an n year policy providing term insurance plus a pure endowment equal to the next unusual guaranteed cash surrender value, and treating any unusual guaranteed cash surrender value at the end of the prior segment as a net single premium, where
(i) n is the number of years from the date of the last unusual guaranteed cash surrender value prior to the valuation date to the earlier of:
(a) The date of the next unusual guaranteed cash surrender value, if any, that is scheduled after the valuation date; or
(b) The mandatory expiration date of the policy; and
(ii) The net premium for a given year during the n year period is equal to the product of the net to gross ratio and the respective gross premium; and
(iii) The net to gross ratio is equal to item (a) divided by item (b) as follows:
(a) The present value, at the beginning of the n year period, of death benefits payable during the n year period plus the present value, at the beginning of the n year period, of the next unusual guaranteed cash surrender value, if any, minus the amount of the last unusual guaranteed cash surrender value, if any, scheduled at the beginning of the n year period.
(b) The present value, at the beginning of the n year period, of the schedule gross premiums payable during the n year period.
(c) For purposes of this paragraph, a policy is considered to have an unusual pattern of guaranteed cash surrender values if any future guaranteed cash surrender value exceeds the prior year's guaranteed cash surrender value by more than the sum of:
(i) One hundred ten per cent of the scheduled gross premium for that year;
(ii) One hundred ten per cent of one year's accrued interest on the sum of the prior year's guaranteed cash surrender value and the scheduled gross premium using the nonforfeiture interest rate used for calculating policy guaranteed cash surrender values; and
(iii) Five per cent of the first policy year surrender charge, if any.
(5) Optional exemption for yearly renewable term reinsurance
At the option of the company, the following approach for reserves on YRT reinsurance may be used:
(a) Calculate the valuation net premium for each future policy year as the tabular cost of insurance for that future year.
(b) Basic reserves shall never be less than the tabular cost of insurance for the appropriate period, as defined in paragraph (F)(3) of this rule.
(c) Deficiency reserves:
(i) For each policy year, calculate the excess, if greater than zero, of the valuation net premium over the respective maximum guaranteed gross premium.
(ii) Deficiency reserves shall never be less than the sum of the present values, at the date of valuation, of the excesses determined in accordance with paragraph (F)(5)(c)(i) of this rule.
(d) For purposes of this subsection, the calculations use the maximum valuation interest rate and the 1980 CSO mortality tables with or without ten-year select mortality factors, or any other table adopted after January 1, 2000 by the NAIC and promulgated by rule by the superintendent for this purpose.
(e) A reinsurance agreement shall be considered YRT reinsurance for purposes of this paragraph if only the mortality risk is reinsured.
(f) If the assuming company chooses this optional exemption, the ceding company's reinsurance reserve credit shall be limited to the amount of reserve held by the assuming company for the affected policies.
(6) Optional exemption for attained-age-based yearly renewable term life insurance policies
At the option of the company, the following approach for reserves for attained-age-based YRT life insurance policies may be used:
(a) Calculate the valuation net premium for each future policy year as the tabular cost of insurance for that future year.
(b) Basic reserves shall never be less than the tabular cost of insurance for the appropriate period, as defined in paragraph (F)(3) of this rule.
(c) Deficiency reserves.
(i) For each policy year, calculate the excess, if greater than zero, of the valuation net premium over the respective maximum guaranteed gross premium.
(ii) Deficiency reserves shall never be less than the sum of the present values, at the date of valuation, of the excesses determined in accordance with paragraph (F)(6)(c)(i) of this rule.
(d) For purposes of this paragraph, the calculations use the maximum valuation interest rate and the 1980 CSO valuation tables with or without ten-year select mortality factors, or any other table adopted after January 1, 2000 by the NAIC and promulgated by rule by the superintendent for this purpose.
(e) A policy shall be considered an attained-age-based YRT life insurance policy for purposes of this paragraph if:
(i) The premium rates (on both the initial current premium scale and the guaranteed maximum premium scale) are based upon the attained age of the insured such that the rate for any given policy at a given attained age of the insured is independent of the year the policy was issued; and
(ii) The premium rates (on both the initial current premium scale and the guaranteed maximum premium scale) are the same as the premium rates for policies covering all insureds of the same sex, risk class, plan of insurance and attained age.
(f) For policies that become attained-age-based YRT policies after an initial period of coverage, the approach of this paragraph may be used after the initial period if:
(i) The initial period is constant for all insureds of the same sex, risk class and plan of insurance; or
(ii) The initial period runs to a common attained age for all insureds of the same sex, risk class and plan of insurance; and
(iii) After the initial period of coverage, the policy meets the conditions of paragraph (F)(6)(e) of this rule.
(g) If this election is made, this approach shall be applied in determining reserves for all attained-age-based YRT life insurance policies issued on or after January 1, 2000.
(7) Exemption from unitary reserves for certain n-year renewable term life insurance policies
Unitary basic reserves and unitary deficiency reserves need not be calculated for a policy if the following conditions are met:
(a) The policy consists of a series of n-year periods, including the first period and all renewal periods, where n is the same for each period, except that for the final renewal period, n may be truncated or extended to reach the expiry age, provided that this final renewal period is less than ten years and less than twice the size of the earlier n-year periods, and for each period, the premium rates on both the initial current premium scale and the guaranteed maximum premium scale are level;
(b) The guaranteed gross premiums in all n-year periods are not less than the corresponding net premiums based upon the 1980 CSO valuation tables with or without the ten-year select mortality factors; and
(c) There are no cash surrender values in any policy year.
(8) Exemption from unitary reserves for certain juvenile policies
Unitary basic reserves and unitary deficiency reserves need not be calculated for a policy if the following conditions are met, based upon the initial current premium scale at issue:
(a) At issue, the insured is age twenty-four or younger;
(b) Until the insured reaches the end of the juvenile period, which shall occur at or before age twenty-five, the gross premiums and death benefits are level, and there are no cash surrender values; and
(c) After the end of the juvenile period, gross premiums are level for the remainder of the premium paying period, and death benefits are level for the remainder of the life of the policy.
(G) Calculation of minimum valuation standard for flexible premium and fixed premium universal life insurance policies that contain provisions resulting in the ability of the policyowner to keep a policy in force over a secondary guarantee period
(1) General
(a) Policies with a secondary guarantee include:
(i) A policy with a guarantee that the policy will remain in force at the original schedule of benefits, subject only to the payment of specified premiums;
(ii) A policy in which the minimum premium at any duration is less than the corresponding one year valuation premium, calculated using the maximum valuation interest rate and the 1980 CSO valuation tables with or without ten-year select mortality factors, or any other table adopted after January 1, 2000 by the NAIC and promulgated by rule by the superintendent for this purpose; or
(iii) A policy with any combination of paragraphs (G)(1)(a)(i) and (G)(1)(a)(ii) of this rule.
(b) A secondary guarantee period is the period for which the policy is guaranteed to remain in force subject only to a secondary guarantee. When a policy contains more than one secondary guarantee, the minimum reserve shall be the greatest of the respective minimum reserves at that valuation date of each unexpired secondary guarantee, ignoring all other secondary guarantees. Secondary guarantees that are unilaterally changed by the insurer after issue shall be considered to have been made at issue. Reserves described in paragraphs (G)(2) and (G)(3) of this rule shall be recalculated from issue to reflect these changes.
(c) Specified premiums mean the premiums specified in the policy, the payment of which guarantees that the policy will remain in force at the original schedule of benefits, but which otherwise would be insufficient to keep the policy in force in the absence of the guarantee if maximum mortality and expense charges and minimum interest credits were made and any applicable surrender charges were assessed.
(d) For purposes of this paragraph, the minimum premium for any policy year is the premium that, when paid into a policy with a zero account value at the beginning of the policy year, produces a zero account value at the end of the policy year. The minimum premium calculation shall use the policy cost factors (including mortality charges, loads and expense charges) and the interest crediting rate, which are all guaranteed at issue.
(e) The one-year valuation premium means the net one-year premium based upon the original schedule of benefits for a given policy year. The one-year valuation premiums for all policy years are calculated at issue. The select mortality factors defined in paragraphs (E)(2)(b), (E)(2)(c) and (E)(2)(d) of this rule may not be used to calculate the one-year valuation premiums.
(f) The one-year valuation premium should reflect the frequency of fund processing, as well as the distribution of deaths assumption employed in the calculation of the monthly mortality charges to the fund.
(2) Basic reserves for the secondary guarantees
Basic reserves for the secondary guarantees shall be the segmented reserves for the secondary guarantee period. In calculating the segments and the segmented reserves, the gross premiums shall be set equal to the specified premiums, if any, or otherwise to the minimum premiums, that keep the policy in force and the segments will be determined according to the contract segmentation method as defined in paragraph (D)(2) of this rule.
(3) Deficiency reserves for the secondary guarantees
Deficiency reserves, if any, for the secondary guarantees shall be calculated for the secondary guarantee period in the same manner as described in paragraph (F)(2) of this rule with gross premiums set equal to the specified premiums, if any, or otherwise to the minimum premiums that keep the policy in force.
(4) Minimum reserves
The minimum reserves during the secondary guarantee period are the greater of:
(a) The basic reserves for the secondary guarantee plus the deficiency reserve, if any, for the secondary guarantees; or
(b) The minimum reserves required by other rules or regulations governing universal life plans.
(H) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
View Appendix
Last updated November 16, 2023 at 8:32 AM
History
- Effective: November 16, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-6-10.1 Smoker/nonsmoker mortality tables.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to implement sections 3915.07, 3915.071, and 3903.72 of the Revised Code by permitting the use of mortality tables that reflect differences in mortality between smokers and nonsmokers in determining minimum reserve liabilities and minimum cash surrender values and amounts of paid-up nonforfeiture benefits for plans of insurance with separate premium rates for smokers and nonsmokers.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under section 3901.041 of the Revised Code.
(C) Definitions
(1) "Commissioners 1980 standard ordinary mortality tables (1980 "CSO"), with or without ten-year select mortality factors" means those tables referred to in divisions (E) and (F) of section 3915.071 of the Revised Code.
(2) "Commissioners 1980 extended term insurance table (1980 "CET")" means the table referred to in division (I) of section 3915.071 of the Revised Code.
(3) "Commissioners 1958 standard ordinary mortality table (1958 "CSO")" means that table referred to in division (E)(1) of section 3915.07 of the Revised Code.
(4) "Commissioners 1958 extended term insurance table (1958 "CET")" means that table referred to in division (E)(1) of section 3915.07 of the Revised Code.
(5) "Smoker and nonsmoker mortality tables" means those mortality tables with separate rates of mortality for smokers and nonsmokers derived from the tables defined in paragraphs (C)(1) to (C)(4) of this rule.
(6) "Composite mortality tables" means those tables defined in paragraphs (C)(1) to (C)(4) of this rule.
(D) Alternate tables
(1) For any policy of insurance delivered or issued for delivery in this state after the operative date of section 3915.071 of the Revised Code for that policy form and before January 1, 1989, at the option of the company and subject to the conditions stated in paragraph (E) of this rule:
(a) The commissioners 1958 standard ordinary smoker and nonsmoker mortality tables may be substituted for the commissioners 1980 standard ordinary mortality table, with or without ten-year select mortality factors; and
(b) The commissioners 1958 extended term smoker and nonsmoker mortality tables may be substituted for the commissioners 1980 extended term table,
For use in determining minimum reserve liabilities and minimum cash surrender values and amounts of paid-up nonforfeiture benefits.
Provided that for any category of insurance issued on female lives with minimum reserve liabilities and minimum cash surrender values and amounts of paid-up nonforfeiture benefits determined using the commissioners 1958 standard ordinary or extended term smoker and nonsmoker mortality tables, such minimum values may be calculated according to an age not more than six years younger than the actual age of the insured.
Provided further that the substitution of the commissioners 1958 standard ordinary or extended term smoker and nonsmoker mortality tables is available only if made for each policy of insurance on a policy form delivered or issued for delivery on or after the operative date for that policy form and before a date not later than January 1, 1989.
(2) For any policy of insurance delivered or issued for delivery in this state after the operative date of section 3915.071 of the Revised Code for that policy form at the option of the company and subject to the conditions stated in paragraph (E) of this rule:
(a) The commissioners 1980 standard ordinary smoker and nonsmoker mortality tables, with or without ten-year select mortality factors, may be substituted for the commissioners 1980 standard ordinary mortality table, with or without ten-year select mortality factors; and
(b) The commissioners 1980 extended term smoker and nonsmoker mortality table may be substituted for the commissioners 1980 extended term mortality table,
For use in determining minimum reserve liabilities and minimum cash surrender values and amounts of paid-up nonforfeiture benefits.
(E) Conditions
For each plan of insurance with separate rates for smokers and nonsmokers an insurer may:
(1) Use composite mortality tables to determine minimum reserve liabilities and minimum cash surrender values and amounts of paid-up nonforfeiture benefits;
(2) Use smoker and nonsmoker mortality tables to determine the valuation net premiums and additional minimum reserves, if any, pursuant to section 3903.72 of the Revised Code and use composite mortality tables to determine the basic minimum reserves, minimum cash surrender values and amounts of paid-up nonforfeiture benefits;
(3) Use smoker and nonsmoker mortality tables to determine minimum reserve liabilities and minimum cash surrender values and amounts of paid-up nonforfeiture benefits; or
(4) Use smoker and nonsmoker mortality tables, without electing the 1980 "CSO" as a valuation basis, to determine valuation net premium and additional minimum reserves for plans of term insurance which have no cash values and which are reserved on the 1958 "CSO" mortality table.
(F) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated November 16, 2023 at 8:32 AM
History
- Effective: November 16, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-6-10.2 Gender blended mortality tables.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to implement section 3915.071 of the Revised Code by permitting individual life insurance policies to provide the same cash surrender values and paid-up nonforfeiture benefits to both men and women. No change in minimum valuation standards is implied by this rule.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under section 3901.041 of the Revised Code.
(C) Definitions
(1) "Commissioners 1980 standard ordinary mortality tables" or "1980 CSO, with or without ten-year select mortality factors," means those tables consisting of separate rates of mortality for male and female lives referred to in division (E)(1) of section 3915.071 of the Revised Code.
(2) "Commissioners 1980 standard ordinary mortality tables (M)" or "1980 CSO (M), with or without ten-year select mortality factors," means that mortality table consisting of the rates of mortality for male lives from the 1980 CSO, with or without ten-year select mortality factors.
(3) "Commissioners 1980 standard ordinary mortality tables (F)" or "1980 CSO (F), with or without ten-year select mortality factors," means that mortality table consisting of the rates of mortality for female lives from the 1980 CSO with or without ten-year select mortality factors.
(4) "Commissioners 1980 extended term insurance table," or "1980 CET," means that table consisting of separate rates of mortality for male and female lives referred to in division (I) of section 3915.071 of the Revised Code.
(5) "Commissioners 1980 extended term insurance table (M)" or "1980 CET (M)" means that mortality table consisting of the rates of mortality for male lives from the 1980 CET.
(6) "Commissioners 1980 extended term insurance table (F)" or "1980 CET (F)" means that mortality table consisting of the rates of mortality for female lives from the 1980 CET.
(7) "Commissioners 1980 standard ordinary and commissioners 1980 extended term smoker and nonsmoker mortality tables" mean those tables consisting of separate rates of mortality for smokers and nonsmokers derived from the 1980 CSO and 1980 CET mortality tables by the "Society of Actuaries Task Force" on smoker/nonsmoker mortality adopted by the "National Association of Insurance Commissioners" in December, 1983.
(D) Rule
(1) For any policy of insurance on the life of either a male or female insured delivered or issued for delivery in this state on or after August 1, 1983:
(a) A mortality table, which is a blend of the commissioners 1980 standard ordinary mortality tables (M) and the commissioners 1980 standard ordinary mortality tables (F), may, at the option of the company, be substituted for the 1980 CSO, with or without ten-year select mortality factors; and
(b) A mortality table, which is of the same blend as used in paragraph (D)(1)(a) of this rule but applied to form a blend of the commissioners 1980 extended term insurance table (M) and the commissioners 1980 extended term insurance table (F) may, at the option of the company, be substituted for the commissioners 1980 extended term insurance table; and
(c) Gender blended tables with ten-year select mortality factors may be derived and, at the option of the company, be substituted for the commissioners 1980 standard ordinary mortality tables . Such tables may be derived by applying select factors to gender blended tables without select factors where the select factors are derived by using the following formula for use in determining minimum cash surrender values and amounts of paid-up nonforfeiture benefits:
(2) The following blendings will be considered as the basis for acceptable gender blended tables. However, other blendings are acceptable:
(a) One hundred per cent male zero per cent female for tables to be designated as the "1980 CSO-A" and "1980 CET-A" tables.
(b) Eighty per cent male twenty per cent female for tables to be designated as the "1980 CSO-B" and "1980 CET-B" tables.
(c) Sixty per cent male forty per cent female for tables to be designated as the "1980 CSO-C" and "1980 CET-C" tables.
(d) Fifty per cent male fifty per cent female for tables to be designated as the "1980 CSO-D" and "1980 CET-D" tables.
(e) Forty per cent male sixty per cent female for tables to be designated as the "1980 CSO-E" and "1980 CET-E" tables.
(f) Twenty per cent male eighty per cent female for tables to be designated as the "1980 CSO-F" and "1980 CET-F" tables.
(g) Zero per cent male one hundred per cent female for tables to be designated as the "1980 CSO-G" and "1980 CET-G" tables.
The tables described in paragraphs (D)(2)(a) and (D)(2)(g) of this rule are not to be used with respect to policies issued on or after January 1, 1985, except where the proportion of persons insured is anticipated to be ninety per cent or more of one sex or the other or except for certain policies converted from group insurance. Such group conversions issued on or after January 1, 1986, must use mortality tables based on the blend of lives by sex expected for such policies if such group conversions may be required to comply with applicable state and/or federal laws regarding discrimination based on gender.
(E) Alternate rule for smoker/nonsmoker
In determining minimum cash surrender values and amounts of paid-up nonforfeiture benefits for any policy of insurance on the life of either a male or female insured on a form of insurance with separate rates for smokers and nonsmokers delivered or issued for delivery in this state after the operative date of section 3915.071 of the Revised Code for that policy form, in addition to the mortality tables that may be used according to paragraph (D) of this rule:
(1) A mortality table which is a blend of the male and female rates of mortality according to the 1980 CSO smoker mortality table, in the case of lives classified as smokers, or the 1980 CSO nonsmoker mortality table, in the case of lives classified as nonsmokers, with or without ten-year select mortality factors, may at the option of the company be substituted for the 1980 CSO , with or without ten-year select mortality factors; and
(2) A mortality table which is of the same blend as used in paragraph (E)(1) of this rule but applied to form a blend of the male and female rates of mortality according to the corresponding 1980 CET smoker mortality table or 1980 CET nonsmoker mortality table may at the option of the company be substituted for the 1980 CET .
The following blended mortality tables will be considered acceptable:
"SA:" 100% male 0% female smoker tables designated as "1980 CSO-SA" and "1980 CET-SA" tables.
"SB:" 80% male 20% female smoker tables designated as "1980 CSO-SB" and "1980 CET-SB" tables.
"SC:" 60% male 40% female smoker tables designated as "1980 CSO-SC" and "1980 CET-SC" tables.
"SD:" 50% male 50% female smoker tables designated as "1980 CSO-SD" and "1980 CET-SD" tables.
"SE:" 40% male 60% female smoker tables designated as "1980 CSO-SE" and "1980 CET-SE" tables.
"SF:" 20% male 80% female smoker tables designated as "1980 CSO-SF" and "1980 CET-SF" tables.
"SG:" 0% male 100% female smoker tables designated as "1980 CSO-SG" and "1980 CET-SG" tables.
"NA:" 100% male 0% female nonsmoker tables designated as "1980 CSO-NA" and "1980 CET-NA" tables.
"NB:" 80% male 20% female nonsmoker tables designated as "1980 CSO-NB" and "1980 CET-NB" tables.
"NC:" 60% male 40% female nonsmoker tables designated as "1980 CSO-NC" and "1980 CET-NC" tables.
"ND:" 50% male 50% female nonsmoker tables designated as "1980 CSO-ND" and "1980 CET-ND" tables.
"NE:" 40% male 60% female nonsmoker tables designated as "1980 CSO-NE" and "1980 CET-NE" tables.
"NF:" 20% male 80% female nonsmoker tables designated as "1980 CSO-NF" and "1980 CET-NF" tables.
"NG:" 0% male 100% female nonsmoker tables designated as "1980 CSO-NG" and "1980 CET-NG" tables.
Tables "SA," "SG," "NA," and "NG" are not acceptable as blended tables unless the proportion of persons insured is anticipated to be ninety per cent or more of one sex or the other.
(F) Unfair discrimination
It is not a violation of section 3911.19 of the Revised Code for an insurer to issue the same kind of policy of life insurance on both a sex distinct and sex neutral basis.
(G) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated July 13, 2026 at 3:04 PM
History
- Effective: November 16, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-6-11 Recognition of the 2001 CSO mortality table for use in determining minimum reserve liabilities and nonforfeiture benefits.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to recognize, permit and prescribe the use of the 2001 commissioners standard ordinary (CSO) mortality table in accordance with sections 3903.723 and 3915.071 of the Revised Code and rule 3901-6-10 of the Administrative Code (valuation of life insurance policies).
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041, 3903.723, and 3915.071 of the Revised Code.
(C) Definitions
(1) "2001 CSO mortality table" means that mortality table, consisting of separate rates of mortality for male and female lives, developed by the American academy of actuaries CSO task force from the valuation basic mortality table developed by the society of actuaries individual life insurance valuation mortality task force, and adopted by the national association of insurance commissioners (NAIC) in December 2002. The 2001 CSO mortality table is included in the "Proceedings of the NAIC (2nd Quarter 2002)". Unless the context indicates otherwise, the "2001 CSO mortality table" includes both the ultimate form of that table and the select and ultimate form of that table and includes both the smoker and nonsmoker mortality tables and the composite mortality tables. It also includes both the age-nearest-birthday and age-last-birthday bases of the mortality tables.
(2) "2001 CSO mortality table (F)" means that mortality table consisting of the rates of mortality for female lives from the 2001 CSO morality table.
(3) "2001 CSO mortality table (M)" means that mortality table consisting of the rates of mortality for male lives from the 2001 CSO mortality table.
(4) "Composite mortality tables" means mortality tables with rates of mortality that do not distinguish between smokers and nonsmokers.
(5) "Smoker and nonsmoker mortality tables" means mortality tables with separate rates of mortality for smokers and nonsmokers.
(D) 2001 CSO mortality table
(1) At the election of the company for any one or more specified plans of insurance and subject to the conditions stated in this rule, the 2001 CSO mortality table may be used as the minimum standard for policies issued on or after January 1, 2004 and before the date specified in paragraph (D)(2) of this rule to which division (B) of section 3903.723 and divisions (E) and (I) of section 3915.071 of the Revised Code and paragraphs (E)(1) and (E)(2) of rule 3901-6-10 of the Administrative Code are applicable. If the company elects to use the 2001 CSO mortality table, it shall do so for both valuation and nonforfeiture purposes.
(2) Subject to the conditions stated in this rule, the 2001 CSO mortality table shall be used in determining minimum standards for policies issued on and after January 1, 2009, to which division (B) of section 3903.723 and divisions (E) and (I) of section 3915.071 of the Revised Code and paragraphs (E)(1) and (E)(2) of rule 3901-6-10 of the Administrative Code are applicable.
(E) Conditions
(1) For each plan of insurance with separate rates for smokers and nonsmokers an insurer may use:
(a) Composite mortality tables to determine minimum reserve liabilities and minimum cash surrender values and amounts of paid-up nonforfeiture benefits;
(b) Smoker and nonsmoker mortality tables to determine the valuation net premiums and additional minimum reserves, if any, required by divisions (J) and (O) of section 3903.723 of the Revised Code and use composite mortality tables to determine the basic minimum reserves, minimum cash surrender values and amounts of paid-up nonforfeiture benefits; or
(c) Smoker and nonsmoker mortality to determine minimum reserve liabilities and minimum cash surrender values and amounts of paid-up nonforfeiture benefits.
(2) For plans of insurance without separate rates for smokers and nonsmokers the composite mortality tables shall be used.
(3) For the purpose of determining minimum reserve liabilities and minimum cash surrender values and amounts of paid-up nonforfeiture benefits, the 2001 CSO mortality table may, at the option of the company for each plan of insurance, be used in its ultimate or select and ultimate form, subject to the restrictions of paragraph (F) of rule 3901-6-10 of the Administrative Code relative to use of the select and ultimate form.
(4) When the 2001 CSO mortality table is the minimum reserve standard for any plan for a company, the actuarial opinion in the annual statement filed with the superintendent shall be based on an asset adequacy analysis in accordance with the requirements of section 3903.726 of the Revised Code. The superintendent may exempt a company from this requirement if it only does business in this state and in no other state.
(F) Applicability of the 2001 CSO mortality table to rule 3901-6-10 of the Administrative Code
(1) The 2001 CSO mortality table may be used in applying rule 3901-6-10 of the Administrative Code in the following manner, subject to the transition dates for use of the 2001 CSO mortality table in paragraph (D) of this rule (unless otherwise noted, the references in this paragraph are to rule 3901-6-10 of the Administrative Code):
(a) Paragraph (C)(1)(b)(ii) of rule 3901-6-10 of the Administrative Code: the net level reserve premium is based on the ultimate mortality rates in the 2001 CSO mortality table.
(b) Paragraph (D)(2) of rule 3901-6-10 of the Administrative Code: all calculations are made using the 2001 CSO mortality rate, and, if elected, the optional minimum mortality standard for deficiency reserves stipulated in paragraph (F)(1)(d) of this rule. The value of "q subscript x+k+t-1" is the valuation mortality rate for deficiency reserves in policy year k+t, but using the unmodified select mortality rates if modified select mortality rates are used in the computation of deficiency reserves.
(c) Paragraph (E)(1) of rule 3901-6-10 of the Administrative Code: the 2001 CSO mortality table is the minimum standard for basic reserves.
(d) Paragraph (E)(2) of rule 3901-6-10 of the Administrative Code: the 2001 CSO mortality table is the minimum standard for deficiency reserves. If select mortality rates are used, they may be multiplied by X per cent for durations in the first segment, subject to the conditions specified in paragraphs (E)(2)(c)(i) to (E)(2)(c)(vii) of rule 3901-6-10 of the Administrative Code. In demonstrating compliance with those conditions, the demonstrations may not combine the results of tests that utilize the 1980 CSO mortality table with those tests that utilize the 2001 CSO mortality table, unless the combination is explicitly required by rule or necessary to be in compliance with relevant actuarial standards of practice.
(e) Paragraph (F)(3) of rule 3901-6-10 of the Administrative Code: the valuation mortality table used in determining the tabular cost of insurance shall be the ultimate mortality rates in the 2001 CSO mortality table.
(f) Paragraph (F)(5)(d) of rule 3901-6-10 of the Administrative Code: the calculations specified in paragraph (F)(5) of rule 3901-6-10 of the Administrative Code shall use the ultimate mortality rates in the 2001 CSO mortality table.
(g) Paragraph (F)(6)(d) of rule 3901-6-10 of the Administrative Code: the calculations specified in paragraph (F)(6) of rule 3901-6-10 of the Administrative Code shall use the ultimate mortality rates in the 2001 CSO mortality table.
(h) Paragraph (F)(7)(b) of rule 3901-6-10 of the Administrative Code: the calculations specified in paragraph (F)(7) of rule 3901-6-10 of the Administrative Code shall use the ultimate mortality rates in the 2001 CSO mortality table.
(i) Paragraph (G)(1)(a)(ii) of rule 3901-6-10 of the Administrative Code: the one-year valuation premium shall be calculated using the ultimate mortality rates in the 2001 CSO mortality table.
(2) Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to expand the applicability of rule 3901-6-10 of the Administrative Code to include life insurance policies exempted under paragraph (C)(1) of rule 3901-6-10 of the Administrative Code.
(G) Gender-blended tables
(1) For any ordinary life insurance policy delivered or issued for delivery in this state on and after January 1, 2004, that utilizes the same premium rates and charges for male and female lives or is issued in circumstances where applicable law does not permit distinctions on the basis of gender, a mortality table that is a blend of the 2001 CSO mortality table ("M") and the 2001 CSO mortality table ("F") may, at the option of the company for each plan of insurance, be substituted for the 2001 CSO mortality table for use in determining minimum cash surrender values and amounts of paid-up nonforfeiture benefits. No change in minimum valuation standards is implied by this paragraph of this rule.
(2) The company may choose from among the blended tables developed by the American academy of actuaries CSO task force and adopted by the NAIC in December 2002.
(3) It shall not, in and of itself, be a violation of section 3901.21 of the Revised Code for an insurer to issue the same kind of policy of life insurance on both a sex-distinct and sex-neutral basis.
(H) Severability
If any paragraph, term or provision of this rule is adjudged invalid for any reason, the judgment shall not affect, impair or invalidate any other paragraph, term or provision of this rule, but the remaining paragraphs, terms and provisions shall be and continue in full force and effect.
Last updated December 16, 2025 at 11:14 AM
History
- Effective: May 9, 2021
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-6-12 Permitting the recognition of preferred mortality tables for use in determining minimum reserve liabilities.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to provide authorized companies an alternative to rule 3901-6-11 of the Administrative Code, by recognizing, permitting and prescribing the use of mortality tables that reflect differences in mortality between preferred and standard lives in determining minimum reserve liabilities in accordance with sections 3903.723 and 3915.071 of the Revised Code and rule 3901-6-10 of the Administrative Code (valuation of insurance policies).
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041, 3903.723 and 3915.071 of the Revised Code.
(C) Definitions
(1) "2001 CSO mortality table" means that mortality table, consisting of separate rates of mortality for male and female lives, developed by the American academy of actuaries CSO task force from the valuation basic mortality table developed by the society of actuaries individual life insurance valuation mortality task force, and adopted by the national association of insurance commissioners (NAIC) in December 2002. The 2001 CSO mortality table is included in the "Proceedings of the NAIC" (2nd quarter 2002) and supplemented by the 2001 CSO preferred class structure mortality table defined in paragraph (C)(6) of this rule. Unless the context indicates otherwise, the "2001 CSO mortality table" includes both the ultimate form of that table and the select and ultimate form of that table and includes both the smoker and nonsmoker mortality tables and the composite mortality tables. It also includes both the age-nearest-birthday and age-last-birthday bases of the mortality tables. Mortality tables in the 2001 CSO mortality table include the following:
(2) "2001 CSO mortality table (F)" means that mortality table consisting of the rates of mortality for female lives from the 2001 CSO mortality table
(3) "2001 CSO mortality table (M)" means that mortality table consisting of the rates of mortality for male lives from the 2001 CSO mortality table.
(4) "Composite mortality tables" means mortality tables with rates of mortality that do not distinguish between smokers and nonsmokers.
(5) "Smoker and nonsmoker mortality tables" means mortality tables with separate rates of mortality for smokers and nonsmokers.
(6) "2001 CSO preferred class structure mortality table" means mortality tables with separate rates of mortality for super preferred nonsmokers, preferred nonsmokers, residual standard nonsmokers, preferred smokers, and residual standard smoker splits of the 2001 CSO nonsmoker and smoker tables as adopted by the NAIC at the September 2006 national meeting and published in the NAIC proceedings (3rd quarter 2006). Unless the context indicates otherwise, the "2001 CSO preferred class structure mortality table" includes both the ultimate form of that table and the select and ultimate form of that table. It includes both the smoker and nonsmoker mortality tables. It includes both the male and female mortality tables and the gender composite mortality tables. It also includes both the age-nearest-birthday and age-last-birthday bases of the mortality table.
(7) "Statistical agent" means an entity with proven systems for protecting the confidentiality of individual insured and insurer information; demonstrated resources for and history of ongoing electronic communications and data transfer ensuring data integrity with insurers, which are its members or subscribers; and a history of and means for aggregation of data and accurate promulgation of the experience modifications in a timely manner.
(D) 2001 CSO preferred class structure table
At the election of the company, for each calendar year of issue, for any one or more specified plans of insurance and subject to satisfying the conditions stated in this rule, the 2001 CSO preferred class structure mortality table may be substituted in place of the 2001 CSO smoker or nonsmoker mortality table as the minimum valuation standard for policies issued on or after January 1, 2007, or, with the consent of the superintendent, on or after September 18, 2003. No such election shall be made until the company demonstrates at least twenty per cent of the business to be valued on this table is in one or more of the preferred classes. A table from the 2001 CSO preferred class structure mortality table used in place of a 2001 CSO mortality table, pursuant to the requirements of this rule, will be treated as part of the 2001 CSO mortality table only for purposes of reserve valuation pursuant to the requirements of rule 3901-6-11 of the Administrative Code, (Recognition of the 2001 CSO mortality table for use in determining minimum reserve liabilities and nonforfeiture benefits).
(E) Conditions
(1) For each plan of insurance with separate rates for preferred and standard nonsmoker lives, an insurer may use the super preferred nonsmoker, preferred nonsmoker, and residual standard nonsmoker tables to substitute for the nonsmoker mortality table found in the 2001 CSO mortality table to determine minimum reserves. At the time of election and annually thereafter, except for business valued under the residual standard nonsmoker table, the appointed actuary shall certify that:
(a) The present value of death benefits over the next ten years after the valuation date, using the anticipated mortality experience without recognition of mortality improvement beyond the valuation date for each class, is less than the present value of death benefits using the valuation basic table corresponding to the valuation table being used for that class.
(b) The present value of death benefits over the future life of the contracts, using anticipated mortality experience without recognition of mortality improvement beyond the valuation date for each class, is less than the present value of death benefits using the valuation basic table corresponding to the valuation table being used for that class.
(2) For each plan of insurance with separate rates for preferred and standard smoker lives, an insurer may use the preferred smoker and residual standard smoker tables to substitute for the Smoker mortality table found in the 2001 CSO mortality table to determine minimum reserves. At the time of election and annually thereafter, for business valued under the preferred smoker table, the appointed actuary shall certify that:
(a) The present value of death benefits over the next ten years after the valuation date, using the anticipated mortality experience without recognition of mortality improvement beyond the valuation date for each class, is less than the present value of death benefits using the preferred smoker valuation basic table corresponding to the valuation table being used for that class.
(b) The present value of death benefits over the future life of the contracts, using anticipated mortality experience without recognition of mortality improvement beyond the valuation date for each class, is less than the present value of death benefits using the preferred smoker valuation basic table.
(3) Unless exempted by the superintendent, every authorized insurer using the 2001 CSO preferred class structure table shall annually file with the superintendent, with the NAIC, or with a statistical agent designated by the NAIC and acceptable to the superintendent, statistical reports showing mortality and such other information as the superintendent may deem necessary or expedient for the administration of the provisions of this rule. The form of the reports shall be established by the superintendent or the superintendent may require the use of a form established by the NAIC or by a statistical agent designated by the NAIC and acceptable to the superintendent.
(F) Severability
If any paragraph, term or provision of this rule is adjudged invalid for any reason, the judgment shall not affect, impair or invalidate any other paragraph, term or provision of this rule, but the remaining paragraphs, terms and provisions shall be and continue in full force and effect.
Last updated December 16, 2025 at 11:14 AM
History
- Effective: October 29, 2015
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-6-13 Suitability in annuity transactions.
(A) Purpose
(1) The purpose of this rule is to require insurance agents, as defined in this rule, to act in the best interest of the consumer when making a recommendation of an annuity and to require insurers, including fraternal benefit societies, to establish and maintain a system to supervise recommendations so that the insurance needs and financial objectives of consumers, at the time of the transaction, are effectively addressed.
(2) This rule will bring Ohio law into compliance with the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act of 2010, Public Law Number 111-203, 111th Cong., 2d sess. (July 21, 2010).
(B) Authority
This rule is adopted pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041 and 3901.19 to 3901.26 of the Revised Code.
(C) Scope
(1) This rule shall apply to any sale or recommendation of an annuity.
(2) Nothing herein shall be construed to create or imply a private cause of action for a violation of this rule or to subject an insurance agent to civil liability under the best interest standard of care outlined in this rule or under standards governing the conduct of a fiduciary or a fiduciary relationship.
(D) Exemptions
Unless otherwise specifically included, this rule shall not apply to transactions involving:
(1) Direct response solicitations where there is no recommendation based on information collected from the consumer pursuant to this rule;
(2) Contracts used to fund:
(a) An employee pension or welfare benefit plan that is covered by the "Employee Retirement and Income Security Act" (ERISA);
(b) A plan described by sections 401(a), 401(k), 403(b), 408(k) or 408(p) of the Internal Revenue Code, as amended, if established or maintained by an employer;
(c) A government or church plan defined in section 414 of the Internal Revenue Code, a government or church welfare benefit plan, or a deferred compensation plan of a state or local government or tax exempt organization under section 457 of the Internal Revenue Code; or
(d) A nonqualified deferred compensation arrangement established or maintained by an employer or plan sponsor.
(3) Settlements of or assumptions of liabilities associated with personal injury litigation or any dispute or claim resolution process; or
(4) Formal pre-need funeral contracts, as defined in division (T) of section 4717.01 of the Revised Code, provided the consideration paid to purchase, exchange or replace the annuity is reasonable related to the price of the pre-need funeral contract, and a pre-need funeral contract is in place at the time the annuity is purchased, exchanged or replaced.
(E) Definitions
(1) "Annuity" means an annuity that is an insurance product under state law that is individually solicited, whether the product is classified as an individual or group annuity.
(2) "Cash compensation" means any discount, concession, fee, service fee, commission, sales charge, loan, override, or cash benefit received by an insurance agent in connection with the recommendation or sale of an annuity from an insurer, intermediary, or directly from the consumer.
(3) "Consumer profile information" means information that is reasonably appropriate to determine whether a recommendation addresses the consumer's financial situation, insurance needs and financial objectives, including, at a minimum, the following:
(a) Age;
(b) Annual income;
(c) Financial situation and needs, including debts and other obligations;
(d) Financial experience;
(e) Insurance needs;
(f) Financial objectives;
(g) Intended use of the annuity;
(h) Financial time horizon;
(i) Existing assets or financial products, including investment, annuity and insurance holdings;
(j) Liquidity needs;
(k) Liquid net worth;
(l) Risk tolerance, including but not limited to, willingness to accept non-guaranteed elements in the annuity;
(m) Financial resources used to fund the annuity; and
(n) Tax status.
(4) "Continuing education credit" or "CE credit" means fifty minutes of educational instruction that has been specifically approved to meet the agent annuity training requirements of paragraph (G)(2) of this rule.
(5) "Continuing education provider" or "CE provider" means an individual or entity that is approved to offer continuing education courses pursuant to rule 3901-5-02 of the Administrative Code.
(6) "FINRA" means the "Financial Industry Regulatory Authority" or a succeeding agency.
(7) "Insurer" means a company, including a fraternal benefit society, required to be licensed under the laws of this state to provide insurance products, including annuities.
(8) "Insurance agent" or "agent" means a person or entity required to be licensed under the laws of this state to sell, solicit or negotiate insurance, including annuities. For purposes of this rule, "insurance agent" or "agent" include an insurer where no insurance agent is involved.
(9) "Intermediary" means an entity contracted directly with an insurer or with another entity contracted with an insurer to facilitate the sale of the insurer's annuities by insurance agents.
(10) "Material conflict of interest" means a financial interest of the agent in the sale of an annuity that a reasonable person would expect to influence the impartiality of a recommendation. Material conflict of interest does not include cash compensation or non-cash compensation.
(11) "Non-cash compensation" means any form of compensation that is not cash compensation, including, but not limited to, health insurance, office rent, office support and retirement benefits.
(12) "Non-guaranteed elements" means the premiums, credited interest rates (including any bonus), benefits, values, dividends, non-interest based credits, charges or elements of formulas used to determine any of these, that are subject to company discretion and are not guaranteed at issue. An element is considered non-guaranteed if any of the underlying non-guaranteed elements are used in its calculation.
(13) "Recommendation" means advice provided by an insurance agent to an individual consumer that was intended to result or does result in a purchase, an exchange or a replacement of an annuity in accordance with that advice. Recommendation does not include general communication to the public, generalized customer services assistance or administrative support, general educational information and tools, prospectuses, or other product and sales material.
(14) "Replacement" means a transaction in which a new annuity is to be purchased, and it is known or should be known to the proposing agent, or to the proposing insurer whether or not an agent is involved, that by reason of the transaction, an existing annuity or other insurance policy has been or is to be any of the following:
(a) Lapsed, forfeited, surrendered or partially surrendered, assigned to the replacing insurer or otherwise terminated;
(b) Converted to reduced paid-up insurance, continued as extended term insurance, or otherwise reduced in value by the use of nonforfeiture benefits or other policy values;
(c) Amended so as to effect either a reduction in benefits or in the term for which coverage would otherwise remain in force or for which benefits would be paid;
(d) Reissued with any reduction in cash value; or
(e) Used in a financed purchase.
(15) "SEC" means the United States securities and exchange commission.
(F) Duties of insurers, including fraternal benefit societies and insurance agents
(1) Best interest obligations. An insurance agent, when making a recommendation of an annuity, shall act in the best interest of the consumer under the circumstances known at the time the recommendation is made, without placing the agent's or the insurer's financial interest ahead of the consumer's interest. An agent has acted in the best interest of the consumer if they have satisfied the following obligations regarding care, disclosure, conflict of interest and documentation:
(a)
(i) Care obligation. The agent, in making a recommendation shall exercise reasonable diligence, care and skill to:
(a) Know the consumer's financial situation, insurance needs and financial objectives;
(b) Understand the available recommendation options after making a reasonable inquiry into options available to the agent;
(c) Have a reasonable basis to believe the recommended option effectively addresses the consumer's financial situation, insurance needs and financial objectives over the life of the product, as evaluated in light of the consumer profile information; and
(d) Communicate the basis or bases of the recommendation.
(ii) The requirements under paragraph (F)(1)(a)(i) of this rule include making reasonable efforts to obtain consumer profile information from the consumer prior to the recommendation of an annuity.
(iii) The requirements under paragraph (F)(1)(a)(i) of this rule require an agent to consider the types of products the agent is authorized and licensed to recommend or sell that address the consumer's financial situation, insurance needs and financial objectives. This does not require analysis or consideration of any products outside the authority and license of the agent or other possible alternative products or strategies available in the market at the time of the recommendation. Agents shall be held to standards applicable to agents with similar authority and licensure.
(iv) The requirements under paragraph (F)(1) of this rule do not create a fiduciary obligation or relationship and only create a regulatory obligation as established in this rule.
(v) The consumer profile information, characteristics of the insurer, and product costs, rates, benefits and features are those factors generally relevant in making a determination whether an annuity effectively addresses the consumer's financial situation, insurance needs and financial objectives, but the level of importance of each factor under the care obligation of paragraph (F)(1)(a) of this rule may vary depending on the facts and circumstances of a particular case. However, each factor may not be considered in isolation.
(vi) The requirements under paragraph (F)(1)(a)(i) of this rule include having a reasonable basis to believe the consumer would benefit from certain features of the annuity, such as annuitization, death or living benefit or other insurance-related features.
(vii) The requirements under paragraph (F)(1)(a)(i) of this rule apply to the particular annuity as a whole and the underlying subaccounts to which funds are allocated at the time of purchase or exchange of an annuity, and riders and similar product enhancements, if any.
(viii) The requirements under paragraph (F)(1)(a)(i) of this rule do not mean the annuity with the lowest one-time or multiple occurrence compensation structure shall necessarily be recommended.
(ix) The requirements under paragraph (F)(1)(a)(i) of this rule do not mean the agent has ongoing monitoring obligations under the care obligation under this paragraph, although such an obligation may be separately owed under the terms of a fiduciary, consulting, investment advising or financial planning agreement between the consumer and the agent.
(x) In the case of an exchange or replacement of an annuity, the agent shall consider the whole transaction, which includes taking into consideration whether:
(a) The consumer will incur a surrender charge, be subject to the commencement of a new surrender period, lose existing benefits, such as death, living or other contractual benefits, or be subject to increased fees, investment advisory fees or charges for riders and similar product enhancements;
(b) The replacing product would substantially benefit the consumer in comparison to the replaced product over the life of the product; and
(c) The consumer has had another annuity exchange or replacement and, in particular, an exchange or replacement within the preceding sixty months.
(xi) Nothing in this rule should be construed to require an agent to obtain any license other than an insurance agent license with the appropriate line of authority to sell, solicit or negotiate insurance in this state, including but not limited to any securities license, in order to fulfill the duties and obligations contained in this rule; provided the agent does not give advice or provide services that are otherwise subject to securities laws or engage in any other activity requiring other professional licenses.
(b) Disclosure obligation.
(i) Prior to the recommendation or sale of an annuity, the agent shall prominently disclose to the consumer on a form substantially similar to appendix A of this rule:
(a) A description of the scope and terms of the relationship with the consumer and the role of the agent in the transaction;
(b) An affirmative statement on whether the agent is licensed and authorized to sell the following products:
(i) Fixed annuities;
(ii) Fixed indexed annuities;
(iii) Variable annuities;
(iv) Life insurance;
(v) Mutual funds;
(vi) Stocks and bonds; and
(vii) Certificates of deposit.
(c) An affirmative statement describing the insurers the agent is authorized, contracted, appointed, or otherwise able to sell insurance products for, using the following descriptions:
(i) From one insurer;
(ii) From two or more insurers; or
(iii) From two or more insurers although primarily contracted with one insurer.
(d) A description of the sources and types of cash compensation and non-cash compensation to be received by the agent, including whether the agent is to be compensated for the sale of a recommended annuity by commission as part of premium or other remuneration received from the insurer, intermediary or other agent or by fee as a result of a contract for advice or consulting services; and
(e) A notice of the consumer's right to request additional information regarding cash compensation described in paragraph (F)(1)(b)(ii) of this rule.
(ii) Upon request of the consumer or the consumer's designated representative, the agent shall disclose:
(a) A reasonable estimate of the amount of cash compensation to be received by the agent, which may be stated as a range of amounts or percentages; and
(b) Whether the cash compensation is a one-time or multiple occurrence amount, and if a multiple occurrence amount, the frequency and amount of the occurrence, which may be stated as a range of amounts or percentages.
(iii) Prior to or at the time of the recommendation or sale of an annuity, the agent shall have a reasonable basis to believe the consumer has been informed of various features of the annuity, such as the potential surrender period and surrender charge, potential tax penalty if the consumer sells, exchanges, surrenders or annuitizes the annuity, mortality and expense fees, investment advisory fees, any annual fees, potential charges for and features of riders, or other options of the annuity, limitations on interest returns, potential changes in non-guaranteed elements of the annuity, insurance and investment components and market risk.
(c) Conflict of interest obligation. An agent shall identify and avoid or reasonably manage and disclose material conflicts of interest, including material conflicts of interest related to an ownership interest.
(d) Documentation obligation. An agent shall at the time of recommendation or sale:
(i) Make a written record of any recommendation and the basis for the recommendation subject to this rule;
(ii) Obtain a consumer signed statement on a form substantially similar to appendix B of this rule documenting:
(a) A customer's refusal to provide the consumer profile information, if any; and
(b) A customer's understanding of the ramifications of not providing his or her consumer profile information or providing insufficient consumer profile information.
(iii) Obtain a consumer signed statement on a form substantially similar to appendix C of this rule acknowledging the annuity transaction is not recommended if a customer decides to enter into an annuity transaction that is not based on the agent's recommendation.
(e) Application of the best interest obligation. Any requirement applicable to an agent under paragraph (F)(1) of this rule shall apply to every agent who has exercised material control or influence in the making of a recommendation and has received direct compensation as a result of the recommendation or sale, regardless of whether the agent has had any direct contact with the consumer. Activities such as providing or delivering marketing or educational materials, product wholesaling or other back office product support, and general supervision of an agent do not, in and of themselves, constitute material control or influence.
(2) Transactions not based on a recommendation.
(a) Except as provided under paragraph (F)(2)(b) of this rule, an insurance agent, shall have no obligation to a consumer under paragraph (F)(1) of this rule related to any annuity transaction if:
(i) No recommendation is made;
(ii) A recommendation was made and was later found to have been prepared based on materially inaccurate information provided by the consumer;
(iii) A consumer refuses to provide relevant consumer profile information and the annuity transaction is not recommended; or
(iv) A consumer decides to enter into an annuity transaction that is not based on a recommendation of the insurance agent.
(b) An insurer's issuance of an annuity subject to paragraph (F)(2)(a) of this rule shall be reasonable under all the circumstances actually known to the insurer at the time the annuity is issued.
(3) Supervision system
(a) Except as permitted under paragraph (F)(2) of this rule, an insurer may not issue an annuity recommended to a consumer unless there is a reasonable basis to believe the annuity would effectively address the particular consumer's financial situation, insurance needs and financial objectives based on the consumer's consumer profile information.
(b) An insurer shall establish and maintain a supervision system that is reasonably designed to achieve the insurer's and its insurance agents' compliance with this rule, including, but not limited to, the following:
(i) The insurer shall establish and maintain reasonable procedures to inform its insurance agents of the requirements of this rule and shall incorporate the requirements of this rule into relevant insurance agent training manuals;
(ii) The insurer shall establish and maintain standards for insurance agent product training and shall establish and maintain reasonable procedures to require its insurance agents to comply with the requirements of paragraph (G) of this rule;
(iii) The insurer shall provide product-specific training and training materials that explain all material features of its annuity products to its insurance agents;
(iv) The insurer shall establish and maintain procedures for the review of each recommendation prior to issuance of an annuity that are designed to ensure there is a reasonable basis to determine that the recommended annuity would effectively address the particular consumer's financial situation, insurance needs and financial objectives. Such review procedures may apply a screening system for the purpose of identifying selected transactions for additional review and may be accomplished electronically or through other means including, but not limited to, physical review. Such an electronic or other system may be designed to require additional review only of those transactions identified for additional review by the selection criteria;
(v) The insurer shall establish and maintain reasonable procedures to detect recommendations that are not in compliance with paragraphs (F)(1), (F)(2), (F)(4), and (F)(5) of this rule. These may include, but are not limited to, confirmation of consumer's consumer profile information, systematic customer surveys, agent and consumer interviews, confirmation letters, agent statements or attestations and programs of internal monitoring. Nothing in this paragraph prevents an insurer from complying with this paragraph by applying sampling procedures, or by confirming the consumer profile information or other required information under paragraph (F) of this rule after issuance or delivery of the annuity;
(vi) The insurer shall establish and maintain reasonable procedures to assess, prior to or upon issuance or delivery of an annuity, whether an agent has provided to the consumer the information required to be provided under paragraph (F) of this rule;
(vii) The insurer shall establish and maintain reasonable procedures to identify and address suspicious consumer refusals to provide consumer profile information;
(viii) The insurer shall establish and maintain reasonable procedures to identify and eliminate any sales contests, sales quotas, bonuses, and non-cash compensation that are based on the sales of specific annuities within a limited period of time. The requirements of this paragraph are not intended to prohibit the receipt of health insurance, office rent, office support, retirement benefits or other employee benefits by employees as long as those benefits are not based upon the volume of sales of a specific annuity within a limited period of time; and
(ix) The insurer shall annually provide a written report to senior management, including to the senior manager responsible for audit functions, which details a review, with appropriate testing, reasonably designed to determine the effectiveness of the supervision system, the exceptions found, and corrective action taken or recommended, if any.
(c)
(i) Nothing in paragraph (F)(3) of this rule restricts an insurer from contracting for performance of a function (including maintenance of procedures) required under paragraph (F)(3) of this rule. An insurer is responsible for taking appropriate corrective action and may be subject to sanctions and penalties pursuant to paragraph (H) of this rule regardless of whether the insurer contracts for performance of a function and regardless of the insurer's compliance with paragraph (F)(3)(c)(ii) of this rule.
(ii) An insurer's supervision system under paragraph (F)(3) of this rule shall include supervision of contractual performance under this paragraph. This includes, but is not limited to, the following:
(a) Monitoring and, as appropriate, conducting audits to assure that the contracted function is properly performed; and
(b) Annually obtaining a certification from a senior manager who has responsibility for the contracted function that the manager has a reasonable basis to represent, and does represent, that the function is properly performed.
(d) An insurer is not required to include in its system of supervision an insurance agent's recommendations to consumers of products other than the annuities offered by the insurer, or include consideration of or comparison to options available to the agent or compensation relating to those options other than annuities or other products offered by the insurer.
(4) Prohibited practices. Neither an agent nor an insurer shall dissuade, or attempt to dissuade, a consumer from:
(a) Truthfully responding to an insurer's request for confirmation of the consumer profile information;
(b) Filing a complaint; or
(c) Cooperating with the investigation of a complaint.
(5) Safe harbor
(a) Recommendations and sales of annuities made in compliance with comparable standards shall satisfy the requirements under this rule. Paragraph (F)(5) of this rule applies to all recommendations and sales of annuities made by financial professionals in compliance with business rules, controls and procedures that satisfy a comparable standard even if such standard would not otherwise apply to the product or recommendation at issue. However, nothing in paragraph (F)(5) of this rule shall limit the superintendent's ability to investigate and enforce the provisions of this rule.
(b) Nothing in paragraph (F)(5)(a) of this rule shall limit the insurer's obligation to comply with paragraph (F)(3)(a) of this rule, although the insurer may base its analysis on information received from either the financial professional or the entity supervising the financial professional.
(c) For paragraph (F)(5)(a) of this rule to apply, an insurer shall:
(i) Monitor the relevant conduct of the financial professional seeking to rely on paragraph (F)(5)(a) of this rule or the entity responsible for supervising the financial professional, such as the financial professional's broker-dealer or an investment adviser registered under federal securities laws using information collected in the normal course of an insurer's business; and
(ii) Provide to the entity responsible for supervising the financial professional seeking to rely on paragraph (F)(5)(a) of this rule, such as the financial professional's broker-dealer or investment adviser registered under federal securities laws, information and reports that are reasonably appropriate to assist such entity to maintain its supervision system.
(d) For purposes of paragraph (F)(5) of this rule, "financial professional" means an agent that is regulated and acting as:
(i) A broker-dealer registered under federal securities laws or a registered representative of a broker-dealer;
(ii) An investment adviser registered under federal securities laws or an investment adviser representative associated with the federal registered investment adviser; or
(iii) A plan fiduciary under section 3(21) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA) or fiduciary under section 4975(e)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code (IRC) or any amendments or successor statutes thereto.
(e) For purposes of paragraph (F)(5) of this rule, "comparable standards" means:
(i) With respect to broker-dealers and registered representatives of broker-dealers, applicable SEC and FINRA rules pertaining to best interest obligations and supervision of annuity recommendations and sales, including, but not limited to, "Regulation Best Interest" and any amendments or successor regulations thereto;
(ii) With respect to investment advisers registered under federal securities laws or investment adviser representatives, the fiduciary duties and all other requirements imposed on such investment advisers or investment adviser representatives by contract or under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940, including but not limited to, the form ADV and interpretations; and
(iii) With respect to plan fiduciaries or fiduciaries, means the duties, obligations, prohibitions and all other requirements attendant to such status under ERISA or the IRC and any amendments or successor statutes thereto.
(G) Insurance agent training
(1) An insurance agent shall not solicit the sale of an annuity product unless the insurance agent has adequate knowledge of the product to recommend the annuity and the insurance agent is in compliance with the insurer's standards for product training. An insurance agent may rely on insurer-provided product-specific training standards and materials to comply with this paragraph.
(2) In addition to the requirements in paragraph (G)(1) of this rule, insurance agents subject to this rule shall comply with the following continuing education requirements:
(a) An insurance agent who engages in the sale, solicitation or negotiation of annuity products shall complete a one-time four credit training course provided by a department of insurance approved continuing education provider.
(b) An insurance agent who holds a life insurance line of authority on the effective date of this rule and who desires to sell annuities shall complete the requirements of paragraph (G)(2) within six months after the effective date of this rule. Individuals who obtain a life insurance line of authority on or after the effective date of this rule may not engage in the sale of annuities until the annuity training course required under paragraph (G)(2) of this rule has been completed.
(c) The minimum length of the training required under paragraph (G)(2) of this rule shall be sufficient to qualify for at least four CE credits, but may be longer.
(d) The training required under paragraph (G)(2) of this rule shall include information on the following topics:
(i) The types of annuities and various classifications of annuities;
(ii) Identification of the parties to an annuity;
(iii) How product specific annuity contract features affect consumers;
(iv) The application of income taxation of qualified and non-qualified annuities;
(v) The primary uses of annuities; and
(vi) Appropriate standard of conduct, sales practices, replacement and disclosure requirements.
(e) Providers of courses intended to comply with paragraph (G)(2) of this rule shall cover all topics listed in the prescribed outline and shall not present any marketing information or provide training on sales techniques or provide specific information about a particular insurer's products. Additional topics may be offered in conjunction with and in addition to the required outline.
(f) A provider of an annuity training course intended to comply with paragraph (G)(2)(a) of this rule shall register as a CE provider in this state and comply with the rules and guidelines applicable to insurance agent and continuing education courses as set forth in rule 3901-5-02 of the Administrative Code.
(g) An agent who has completed an annuity training course approved by the department of insurance prior to the effective date of this rule shall, within six months after the effective date of this rule, complete either:
(i) A new four credit training course approved by the department of insurance after the effective date of this rule; or
(ii) An additional one-time one credit training course approved by the department of insurance and provided by the department of insurance-approved education provider on appropriate sales practices, replacement and disclosure requirements under this amended rule.
(h) Annuity training courses may be conducted and completed by classroom or self-study methods in accordance with rule 3901-5-03 of the Administrative Code.
(i) Providers of annuity training shall comply with the reporting requirements and shall issue certificates of completion in accordance with rule 3901-5-04 of the Administrative Code.
(j) For Ohio non-resident agents, the satisfaction of the training requirements of another state that are substantially similar to the provisions of paragraph (G)(2)(a) of this rule shall be deemed to satisfy the training requirements of paragraph (G)(2) of this rule in this state.
(k) The satisfaction of the components of the training requirements of any course or courses with components substantially similar to the provisions of paragraph (G)(2) of this rule shall be deemed to satisfy the training requirements of paragraph (G)(2) of this rule in this state.
(l) An insurer shall verify that an insurance agent has completed the four hour annuity training course required under paragraph (G)(2) of this rule before allowing the agent to sell an annuity product for that insurer. An insurer may satisfy its responsibility under paragraph (G)(2) of this rule by obtaining certificates of completion of the training course or obtaining reports provided by superintendent-sponsored database systems or vendors or from a reasonably reliable commercial database vendor that has a reporting arrangement with approved insurance education providers.
(H) Compliance mitigation; penalties
(1) An insurer is responsible for compliance with this rule. If a violation occurs, either because of the action or inaction of the insurer or its insurance agent, the superintendent may order:
(a) An insurer to take reasonably appropriate corrective action for any consumer harmed by a failure to comply with this rule by the insurer, an entity contracted to perform the insurer's supervisory duties or by its insurance agent;
(b) A general agency, business entity, independent agency or the insurance agent to take reasonably appropriate corrective action for any consumer harmed by the insurance agent's violation of this rule; and
(c) Appropriate penalties and sanctions.
(2) Any applicable penalty under the Unfair and Deceptive Trade Practices Act, sections 3911.19 to 3911.26 of the Revised Code, for a violation of this rule may be reduced or eliminated if corrective action for the consumer was taken promptly after a violation was discovered or the violation was not part of a pattern or practice.
(3) The authority to enforce compliance with this rule is vested exclusively in the superintendent of insurance.
(I) Record keeping
(1) Insurers, independent agencies, business entity agents and insurance agents shall maintain or be able to make available to the superintendent records of the information collected from the consumer, disclosures made to the consumer, including the summaries of oral disclosures, and other information used in making the recommendations that were the basis for insurance transactions for eight years after the insurance transaction is completed by the insurer. An insurer is permitted, but shall not be required, to maintain documentation on behalf of an insurance agent.
(2) Records required to be maintained by this rule may be maintained in paper, photographic, micro-process, magnetic, mechanical or electronic media or by any process that accurately reproduces the actual document.
(J) Severability
If any paragraph, term or provision of this rule is adjudged invalid for any reason, such judgment shall not affect, impair or invalidate any other paragraph, term or provision of this rule, but the remaining paragraphs, terms and provisions shall be and continue in full force and effect.
(K) Effective date
Insurers and insurance agents shall comply with the requirements of this rule within six months after the effective date of this rule.
View AppendixView AppendixView Appendix
Last updated October 11, 2023 at 1:53 PM
History
- Effective: February 14, 2021
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-5-02
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to establish the procedure to review insurance continuing education provider applications.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041, 3905.26, 3905.28, and 3905.486 of the Revised Code.
(C) Definitions
(1) "Authorized Provider Official" is the person designated by a provider as the individual responsible for the conduct of a continuing education course, compliance with continuing education regulations, the course's instructors, the course's monitors, and the provider's employees.
(2) "Provider" is any person or business entity permitted to offer continuing education courses pursuant to division (C) of section 3905.484 of the Revised Code.
(D) Application
(1) No application for a continuing education provider certification will be considered by the department unless it is made on the form prescribed by the department and includes the appropriate fee.
(2) The department will review a provider application within thirty days of receipt.
(a) If the applicant submits a new or renewal application that is incomplete or if the application lacks information deemed necessary by the department, the application will be returned with a letter identifying the deficient areas to be addressed before the review process will continue. If the department does not receive the requested information by the relevant deadline stated in the letter, the filing will be considered abandoned. The provider application fee is non-refundable and non-transferable.
(b) If a provider's application is approved, a provider identification number will be assigned and the provider will be notified of that approval in writing.
(c) Approval of a provider's initial application is effective beginning on the date of the department's approval through the thirty-first day of December of the same year in which the approval was granted.
(d) Approval of a provider's renewal application is effective beginning January first and ends December thirty-first of the renewal year.
(e) Failure to renew an existing provider certification by December thirty-first will result in that certification and any course connected with that provider automatically expiring as of December thirty-first of the same year. Any provider whose certification has expired must reapply as a new provider before offering or holding any continuing education courses.
(3) Provider renewal applications are due to the department by November thirtieth each year.
(E) Authorized provider official
(1) The authorized provider official will obtain continuing education provider approval, course approvals, verify the qualifications of instructors, provide course schedules (where applicable), monitor attendance, administer examinations (where applicable), submit course completion rosters and fees to the department or its designee, and provide any other documents required by the department.
(2) The authorized provider official must supply and maintain an accurate email address which will be used as the primary source of communication with the provider.
(F) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provision of this rule are severable.
Last updated November 14, 2024 at 8:53 AM
History
- Effective: November 14, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-5-03
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to establish criteria, standards, and procedures for continuing education (CE) courses that licensed agents must complete to maintain their license.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041, 3905.12, 3905.26, 3905.28, 3905.486, and 3905.95 of the Revised Code.
(C) Definitions
(1) "Classroom" means course activities or information occurring in real time at a specific time, date, and place, and delivered in person, such as but not limited to a seminar or workshop by a qualified instructor. Attendance is based on personally identifiable information (e.g., government-issued identification and signature) and participation or interaction with course activities. Classroom courses do not require an examination.
(2) "Completion Date" is the date on which the participant completes the course, including passing any required examination.
(3) "Course" means a classroom, distance learning, or self-study presentation of information on insurance or risk management topics, delivered in person, in print or electronically, which may be interactive or not, with successful completion measured by either attendance (classroom), interaction (distance learning), or by examination/knowledge assessments (self-study).
(4) "Course Completion Roster" means a listing of course completions, provided in a format determined by the superintendent, which includes the provider name, provider number, course title, and course identification number, course completion date, participant's name, national producer number (NPN), number of credits earned by each participant, or any other information deemed necessary by the superintendent.
(5) "Course Difficulty Level" is determined by whether the course is designed for inexperienced or experienced practitioners, as well as the amount of information presented and at what pace the information is presented.
(a) "Basic" is a course designed for entry-level agents or agents new to the subject matter.
(b) "Intermediate" is a course designed for agents who have existing competence in the subject area and that wish to further develop and apply their skills.
(c) "Advanced" is a course designed for agents who have a strong foundation and high level of competence in the subject matter.
(6) "Course Offering" is an approved event with a specific start and end time.
(7) "Distance Learning" means the method of instruction where the participant and qualified instructor are in different physical locations and interact with each other through various methods of telecommunication, including, video teleconference, internet conference, virtual class, or webinar. Distance learning is delivered at a specific date and time. Attendance is monitored and validated based on personally identifiable information (e.g., username, password, and/or email), and participation in interactive exercises is required. Credit for course is based on attendance and activity, not examination.
(8) "Interactive" means regular occurring opportunities for participation, engagement, and interaction with course activities and information. Examples include, question and answer sessions, entry of verification codes, polling, games, sequencing, and matching exercises.
(9) "Proctor" means a disinterested third party that is at least eighteen years old, which can be any person except for family members. individuals who have a financial interest in the participant's success on the exam, or co-workers that are not above or below in the participant's line of supervision.
(10) "Self-Study" means the method of instruction which does not require a participant to attend an organized class or interact with an instructor and is completed by individual study. Course credit is based on the passage of an examination, knowledge assessments, or frequent interaction with courseware as a condition of progressing through the course material. Self-study courses can be interactive or non-interactive. Course activities or information is delivered outside of real time (recorded or otherwise similarly accessible) and at any time, such as correspondence, online, video, audio, compact disc (CD), or digital video disc (DVD). Participant attendance is verified based on identity (e.g., username, password, email, and signature).
(D) Application
All requests for approval of a course are to be made in the manner prescribed by the superintendent and contain the following information:
(1) A description of:
(a) The number of requested credit hours and length of the course provided that:
(i) The course be for at least one credit hour;
(ii) The course be for no more than twenty-one credit hours;
(iii) The credits be requested in whole or one-half credit hours;
(iv) There be at least fifty minutes of instruction for each credit hour requested; and
(v) Breaks, introductions, lunches, announcements, or other non-instruction time is excluded in calculating the credit hours requested.
(b) The course topic to which the course relates.
(c) The purpose or objective of the course and how the material offered will increase the knowledge of insurance and related subjects for the participants.
(d) The level of course difficulty (i.e. basic, intermediate, or advanced).
(e) The method of instruction in which the course will be delivered or presented.
(f) The methods utilized to provide reasonable assurance of the participant's identity.
(g) The method(s) utilized to verify participant's attendance, completion, or participation of the course.
(h) The criteria used in selecting instructors. Providers will make information about the experience and qualifications of each instructor available upon request by any person.
(i) The course tuition and the provider's fee refund policy, in accordance with rule 3901-5-04 of the Administrative Code.
(2) A detailed content outline, which contains a description of each topic to be covered by the course. The outline must contain:
(a) The proposed time component.
(b) The specific material to be covered in each time component.
(c) The method of presentation employed for each component.
(d) The justification for the time allotted to each component of the course.
(e) The time required to complete the course, in its entirety, without interruption.
(f) The identification of any component that includes a sales or marketing element.
(3) A description of materials to be used during the course.
(4) A statement as to whether an examination is required as part of the course and the minimum pass rate needed to pass the examination.
(5) A statement as to whether the course is part of a national insurance designation program.
(6) A statement as to whether the course is open to the public.
(7) The name of the authorized provider official as defined in rule 3901-5-02 of the Administrative Code.
(8) The anticipated initial date the course will be conducted, if known.
(9) The completed form and any required attachments as noted on the form if course approval is being requested through the use of an approved multi-state form.
(10) Any other information requested by the superintendent.
(E) Standards for review of course application
(1) In order for a course to be approved by the superintendent as an acceptable continuing education course, the course must:
(a) Be offered by an approved continuing education provider.
(b) Use the most recent policy forms, editions, and laws filed in Ohio to the extent possible.
(c) Have significant intellectual or practical content that enhances and improves the agent's insurance knowledge or professional competence, through an organized program of learning dealing with matters directly related to insurance, the insurance industry, professional competence, ethical obligations, insurance office operations or management, or similar subjects that will promote the purposes of this rule.
(d) Be given a title that is not misleading and does not cause an individual to believe that the course is approved for a different course topic other than what is approved by the superintendent.
(e) Meet all other criteria set forth in this rule.
(F) Instructor qualification
(1) The authorized provider official is responsible for verifying that instructors meet the required minimum qualifications. Instructors must meet one of the following qualification categories:
(a) Qualification one: the instructor or speaker holds a postgraduate degree in insurance or a related field, or has one of the following professional designations:
"Certified Insurance Counselor" (CIC);
"Chartered Financial Consultant" (ChFC);
"Chartered Life Underwriter" (CLU);
"Chartered Property and Casualty Underwriter" (CPCU);
"Fellow Life Management Institute" (FLMI);
"Life Underwriting Training Council Fellow" (LUTCF);
"Registered Employee Benefit Consultant" (REBC); or
"Registered Health Underwriter" (RHU); or
(b) Qualification two: the instructor or speaker has four years experience as a full-time employee or licensed agent interpreting or explaining insurance policy contracts and in addition holds one or more of the following designations:
"Accredited Advisor Insurance" (AAI);
"Associate in Automation Management" (AAM);
"Associate in Claims" (AIC);
"Associate in Fidelity and Surety Bonding" (AFSB);
"Associate in Insurance Accounting and Finance" (AIAF);
"Associate in Loss Control Management" (ALCM);
"Associate in Management" (AIM);
"Associate in Marine Insurance Management" (AMIM);
"Associate in Premium Auditing" (AIPA);
"Associate in Premium Auditing" (APA);
"Associate in Reinsurance" (ARE);
"Associate in Research and Planning" (ARP);
"Associate in Risk Management" (ARM);
"Associate in Underwriting" (AU);
"Certified Employee Benefits Specialist" (CEBS);
"Certified in Long Term Care" (CLTC);
"Certified Senior Advisor" (CSA);
"Fraternal Insurance Counselor" (FIC);
"Life Underwriting Training Council Graduate" (LUTC Graduate);
"Program General Insurance" (INS); or
Associate or bachelor degree with a specialization in insurance.
(c) Qualification three: the instructor has seven years of relevant experience.
(2) A provider must verify each instructor's relevant qualifications and be prepared to provide evidence of their qualifications to the superintendent upon request.
(3) Instructors must be knowledgeable in the subject that they teach in a course.
(4) Instructors may receive CE credits for a course which they teach. An instructor is only eligible to receive credit for the same course once during a renewal cycle. The instructor may receive double the number of credit hours which they teach.
(5) Insurance company trainers as instructors must be full-time salaried employees of the insurance company sponsoring the course and have as part of their full-time responsibilities the duty to provide insurance company training.
(6) College and university instructors may be full-time or adjunct faculty of the accredited college or university, teaching a curriculum course in his or her field of expertise, and meet the requirements of the association that accredits the college or university.
(7) Any person that has had administrative action taken against a professional license or registration must disclose that action to the provider prior to instructing a course, seminar, conference or lecture. If the provider wants to use this person as an instructor under its authority, the provider must notify the superintendent immediately upon receipt of that information and have written approval from the superintendent.
(G) Review of application
(1) A course application will only be considered if it is made on a form prescribed by the superintendent, complete and includes the appropriate fee based on the fee option selected on the provider application. The superintendent will review each application within thirty days of the date of receipt of a complete application and appropriate fees. The effective date of a course approval is within the superintendent's discretion.
(2) If the provider submits an initial course or renewal application that is incomplete or if the application lacks information deemed necessary by the superintendent, the application will be returned with a letter indicating areas which must be addressed before the review process will continue. If the superintendent does not receive the requested information by the requested response date, the filing will be considered abandoned. The course application fee is non-refundable and non-transferable.
(3) Providers will be notified in writing of the approval of each course and of the course number assigned to it by the superintendent. A course is approved from the date of approval until December thirty-first of the same year in which the course is approved. Course renewal applications are due by November thirtieth each year. The superintendent will review each application within thirty days of receipt of a complete application and appropriate fees.
(a) A course renewal application will only be considered if made on a form prescribed by the superintendent, complete and includes the appropriate fee based on the fee option selected on the provider renewal application.
(b) The superintendent may require a full review of courses that have aged at least four years from initial approval or since its last full review. A full review may include the submission of a new course application, course outline, and other course application documents and information outlined in this rule for initial course review. Outcome of review may result in the issuance of a new course identification number, change to approved course topic, or number of approved credit hours.
(c) Any provider or associated course whose renewal has not been approved before the expiration date will automatically expire as of December thirty-first of that renewal year. The provider may not conduct any course for credit until the provider and associated courses are approved by the superintendent.
(4) Based upon a review of the application the superintendent may approve a course for fewer credits than requested, and a provider may only offer and award the number of credit hours as approved.
(H) Additional guidelines for self-study courses
(1) A self-study course may be offered utilizing any of the following formats:
(a) On-line course with interactive chapter or section questions. This type of interactive on-line course has a series of questions at the end of each chapter or section designed to test the participant's subject matter knowledge of that chapter or section. The participant may only advance to the next chapter or section after they have successfully answered all the questions for the previous chapter or section. The participant may review the material to answer a question. An interactive on-line self-study course is not required to have a final examination.
An interactive on-line course must be designed to prevent the participant from completing the course in a time unreasonably short when compared to the credit hour total approved for the course.
(b) A non-interactive on-line course which has a scored on-line final examination.
(c) A non-interactive on-line or paper-based course which has a mail-in final examination.
(d) Any type of self-study program with a final examination.
(e) Other type of self-study courses as the superintendent may approve.
(2) In addition to providing all other information required pursuant to this rule, a provider must include:
(a) The number of questions that appear at the end of each chapter or section, a sample of the questions, references from the questions back to the text if requested by the superintendent, and a copy of the answer key for the sample questions for on-line interactive courses; or
(b) The number of examination questions which will appear on the participant's examination, references from the examination back to the text if requested by the superintendent, and a copy of the examination answer key with the application for a course which requires a final examination. The answer key must indicate the total amount of credit possible for answering each question correctly, and an explanation how essay questions will be graded.
(3) A provider will require each agent to enroll and pay for the course before having access to the course material.
(4) A provider will prevent access to the course unit/chapter questions and final exam before the agent reviews the course materials.
(5) A provider will prevent downloading and printing of any course unit/chapter question and final exam.
(6) The following are minimum requirements for self-study final examination and for on-line interactive chapter/section questions:
(a) Multiple choice items will have a minimum of four options.
(b) Multiple choice items will have only one correct response.
(c) Multiple choice answers will be grammatically consistent and parallel in form to eliminate obviously wrong answers.
(d) No correct answer to one question may provide a clue to the correct answer to any other questions in the chapter/section questions or final examination.
(e) Questions will be clearly written.
(f) Questions will adequately cover the course material set out in the course outline.
(g) Answers to the questions will not be in a discernable pattern.
(h) Final exam questions will not duplicate any unit/chapter questions.
(7) In order to obtain credit for a self-study course the licensee must either:
(a) Complete an interactive on-line course having answered one hundred per cent of each chapter's/section's questions correctly; or
(b) Receive a grade of seventy per cent or greater on the final examination.
(8) A final examination will be administered only upon completion of the self-study course and will meet the minimum requirements:
(a) Final examinations must consist of a minimum of ten questions for each credit hour requested.
(b) A self-study course that includes a final examination will have at least enough questions to fashion a minimum of two versions with at least fifty per cent of the question being new/different in each subsequent version.
(9) Providers offering self-study courses must have qualified instructors available to respond to questions within forty-eight hours by telephone or email.
(10) Providers must be able to prevent the issuance of a participant affidavit until the course and course examination is successfully completed. Affidavits may be administered and signed electronically.
(11) Each participant must certify that he or she completed the course and, if applicable, the examination without assistance. If the examination is monitored, the provider or proctor may check ID to identify participants.
(12) Details on how the examination materials will be returned to the provider shall be included in the instructions.
(I) Additional guidelines for distance learning courses
(1) Distance learning must:
(a) Be conducted at a specific date and time and require each participant to log into course using a distinct username, password, or email.
(b) Be designed so that all participants actively participate in the instructional process, by utilizing techniques that require substantial participant interaction with the instructor, other participants, or a computer program. Any course that permits participants to sit passively and observe instruction or read instructional material may not be approved. The provider will have a process to determine when a participant is inactive or not fully participating, such as when the screen is minimized, does not answer polling questions, or does not enter verification codes. All continuing education courses will include no less than two methods of interactive activities asked at unannounced intervals during each one-hour course session to determine participant attentiveness.
A provider may administer examinations to participants to verify participation and evaluate the effectiveness of the distance learning course, but passage of an examination by a participant may not be a condition for advancement to a subsequent section of the course or successful completion of the course, unless the course is part of a national designation program which requires the passage of an examination.
(c) Utilize only instructors who are qualified according to Ohio's instructor guidelines pursuant to paragraph (F) of this rule.
(d) Have appropriate instructor and technical support to enable participants to satisfactorily complete the course. The provider will maintain an electronic roster to include records for each participant's log-in/log-out times, chat history, and interactive responses.
(e) Utilize procedures that provide reasonable assurance of participant identity, including national producer number (NPN) of all participants.
(f) Have a provider representative monitor attendance throughout the course and that the participant receiving the continuing education credit actually performed all the work required to satisfactorily complete the course. When a participant is deemed inactive, or not fully participating in the course, continuing education credit will only be granted in accordance with paragraph (E) of rule 3901-5-01 of the Administrative Code. Prior to the start of the course offering, the provider will inform each participant of the course participation requirements and the consequences for failing to actively participate in the course.
(2) The provider must provide the participants with an orientation or information package which contains all necessary information about the course subject matter and learning objective; procedures and requirements for satisfactory course completion, special requirements related to computer hardware and software or other equipment, and the availability of instructor or technical support.
(3) Participants must be able to interact with qualified instructor(s), submit questions or comments at any point during the course, and are unable to independently complete the course.
(4) The title of the course must clearly state that it is a distance learning course.
(J) Organization or association meeting credit
A state insurance professional association or organization that is an approved provider pursuant to rule 3901-5-02 of the Administrative Code and that is affiliated with a national association or organization may file a course application and roster for annual association meetings conducted by the national association or organization so long as:
(1) The course application is filed prior to the meeting.
(2) The method of attendance verification is determined by the provider.
(3) No course fee is charged; and
(4) The roster fee is paid.
(K) Professional association membership credit
A local, regional, state, or national professional insurance association that is an approved provider pursuant to rule 3901-5-02 of the Administrative Code may file a course application and roster for association membership credit.
(1) The provider must file with the superintendent of insurance for approval of a course number to be shown on all certificates issued for association membership CE credit prior to any participation activity that may result in association membership credit being offered.
(2) The local, regional, state, or national professional insurance association must meet, at the minimum, the following qualifications:
(a) Organized as an association or corporation under state law;
(b) Based on paid memberships which renew annually or biennially for an additional membership fee;
(c) Organized for the express purpose of promoting the interests of insurance licensees or a class of insurance licensees;
(d) If a local or regional association have been in existence for at least seven years prior to applying for course approval to offer association membership credit. If a state or national association have been in existence for at least five years prior to applying for course approval to offer association membership credit;
(e) Formed for purposes other than providing CE credits to meet state educational requirements;
(f) Have an active membership base of at least one hundred fifty, individually licensed insurance agents which are dues paying members of the association.
(g) Submit a course application on a form prescribed by the superintendent that includes the appropriate fee based on the fee option selected on the application; and
(h) Renewed on an annual basis for the provider to continue offering association membership credit.
(3) The method of verification of qualified participation activity will be determined by the provider.
(4) The association is responsible for determining if participation in a meeting, program, or affiliation qualifies for association credit and for the number of appropriate association credits earned. If the association determines that a requested activity does not qualify for association membership credit, the provider will send a letter to the licensee within ten calendar days of the decision with an explanation as to why credit was not granted.
(5) The provider will submit association membership credit requests to the superintendent on a form prescribed by the superintendent pursuant to the submission requirements of paragraph (D)(5) in rule 3901-5-04 of the Administrative Code.
(L) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated November 14, 2024 at 8:53 AM
History
- Effective: November 14, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-5-04
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to establish criteria, standards, and procedures for providers of continuing education (CE) programs.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041, 3905.26, 3905.28, and 3905.486 of the Revised Code.
(C) Providers must:
(1) Offer and present a course as approved by the superintendent. Failure to do so may result in a denial of CE credit for the course.
(2) Provide the superintendent with written notice that includes both the provider and course identification number at least fifteen days in advance of any change to a provider or course application.
(3) No change to a course's content or outline is effective without prior written approval of the superintendent. Change to a course's content or outline may result in the issuance of a new course identification number. Failure to obtain written approval in advance of offering the course may result in a denial of CE credit for the course.
(4) A provider will submit the date, time, and location of each course to the superintendent at least ten days prior to the offering of the course. A provider will hold approved course on the date(s) scheduled, during the specified hours and at the designated location unless cancelled in accordance with paragraphs (C)(5) and (C)(6) of this rule or unless notification of any change is given to the superintendent in accordance with paragraph (C)(2) of this rule. Providers do not need to report examination schedules for courses approved as self-study.
(5) A provider will refund all fees in full within forty-five days of a course's cancellation or in accordance with the refund policy conspicuously printed on the provider's materials if an approved course is cancelled or if an agent cancels in advance of the date scheduled.
(6) No change to course location, date, time, content, or applicable refund policy is effective unless the provider issues written notification to the department and all individuals scheduled to attend prior to the course offering. Agents scheduled to attend a course that is later postponed or moved to a different location more than ten miles away from the original location are entitled to a full refund for any fee paid to attend that course.
(7) A provider's failure to monitor course attendance, examination, or participation or provide reasonable assurance of active student participation may result in denial of CE credit for that course.
(8) A provider will conduct all courses in compliance with both the "Equal Employment Opportunity" and the "Americans with Disabilities Acts."
(9) A provider will endure that facilities are large enough to comfortably accommodate all attendees and instructors and conducive to the education process.
(10) All applications, schedules, and rosters will be submitted by providers electronically, using a system prescribed or otherwise approved by the superintendent. Each individual authorized to access the department's electronic reporting system will have a unique user name and password.
(11) Providers are responsible for obtaining the following information from each agent as part of that agent's course registration:
(a) National producer number (NPN);
(b) First and last name as they appear on the agent's license record with this state;
(c) Attestation from each agent that they will complete the course themselves and without improper assistance of others; and
(d) Agent's signature. Electronic signature is acceptable.
(12) Providers will retain all records pertaining to its Ohio CE activities for at least four years, including attendance and credits awarded.
(D) Attendance rosters
(1) Each provider is responsible for maintaining accurate attendance records for each course and obtaining each agent's signature and appropriate verification of the time of arrival and departure.
(2) Providers are to file an attendance roster no later than fifteen calendar days after a course's completion which identifies each agent who completed the course, their name, national producer number (NPN), other identification number requested by the superintendent, and number of requested credits per agent listed on the roster. If partial credit is being given, the provider will note on the attendance roster the actual number of credits to be given to that agent. The participation fee amount submitted to the department will be equal to the number of credits approved for the course.
(3) Instructors may receive double the number of credit hours which they taught so long as the instructor is listed on the attendance roster submitted by the provider along with the total number of credits that are to be given for the instruction and payment for a participation fee equal to the number of credits given to the instructor.
(4) The provider's failure to timely file an attendance roster, or other acceptable documentation, may result in a denial of CE credit for those agents who attended the course.
(5) For association membership credit, the provider must submit a course roster to the superintendent within fifteen calendar days of an agent making a written request to the association. Prior to submitting a course roster, it is the responsibility of the association to verify that the agent's activity qualifies for association credit.
(a) The provider may only submit one qualifying activity or program per roster along with the number of association credits each agent earned per activity. The provider may issue association credit on each roster ranging from one credit to no more than four credits per agent.
(b) A course participation fee of one dollar per association membership credit per member will be included with the roster.
(E) Advertising
(1) All CE advertising or promotion of any kind will contain all of the following:
(a) The complete name of the provider as it appears on the application for provider approval;
(b) The complete title of the course as it appears on the application for course approval;
(c) The number of Ohio CE credit hours and topic for which the course is approved;
(d) Whether an exam is required in order to receive CE credit; and
(e) Level of course instruction (i.e. introductory, intermediate, advanced).
(2) A provider may only represent that a course has been approved for CE credit in Ohio if the superintendent has issued written approval for that course. A provider may represent that an application for CE approval is pending, but if a provider does so and approval is not granted, a full refund of all fees will be made. If a provider represents that approval is pending, the provider will also state, in substance, that the superintendent could deny course approval or approve the course for fewer credits than requested.
(3) No guarantee or representation that a licensee will pass a required examination may be made.
(4) No guarantee or representation that membership in an organization will automatically qualify for CE credit.
(5) If several approved courses are offered together, all advertising and promotional materials will separately identify each approved course and the respective number of CE credit hours for which each course topic is approved.
(6) No advertising or promotional materials may contain any representation or statement, or cause or permit another to make any representation or statement which is false, deceptive or misleading.
(7) A provider's refund policy will be clearly and conspicuously disclosed in all advertising and on all printed promotional materials.
(F) Audit
(1) The superintendent may audit a provider's records and courses at any time without prior notice.
(2) The instructors at an approved course may be required to provide proof of identity upon request during an audit of a course.
(G) Certificate of completion
(1) Providers are to issue a certificate of completion, including the agent's name, national producer number (NPN), course name, course identification number, course date(s), association credit activity earned date(s), credit hours completed, provider name, provider identification number, provider signature, and any other identification number requested by the superintendent, within ten calendar days of course completion.
(2) For association membership credit, the course completion date is based on the date the provider received a written request from an agent requesting association membership credit pursuant to paragraph (F)(5) of rule 3901-5-01 of the Administrative Code or the date of the association activity, whichever is later.
(H) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated November 14, 2024 at 8:53 AM
History
- Effective: November 14, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-6-14 Annuity disclosure.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to provide standards for the disclosure of certain minimum information about annuity contracts to protect consumers and foster consumer education. The rule specifies the minimum information to be disclosed, the method for disclosing it and the use and content of illustrations, if used, in connection with the sale of annuity contracts. The goal of this rule is to ensure that purchasers of annuity contracts understand certain basic features of annuity contracts.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041 and 3901.19 to 3901.21 of the Revised Code.
(C) Applicability and scope
This rule applies to all group and individual annuity contracts and certificates except:
(1) Immediate and deferred annuities that contain no non-guaranteed elements;
(2) Annuities used to fund:
(a) An employee pension that is covered by the Employee Retirement and Income Security Act of 1974 (29 U.S.C. section 1001 to 1148) (ERISA);
(b) A plan described by sections 401(a), 401(k), and 403(b) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended (26 U.S.C. sections 401(a), 401(k) and 403(b)), where the plan, for the purposes of ERISA, is established or maintained by an employer;
(c) A governmental or church plan defined in section 414 or a deferred compensation plan of a state or local government or a tax exempt organization under section 457 of the Internal Revenue Code; or
(d) A nonqualified deferred compensation arrangement established or maintained by an employer or plan sponsor.
(3) Notwithstanding paragraph (C)(2) of this rule, this rule applies to annuities used to fund a plan or arrangement that is funded solely by contributions an employee elects to make whether on a pre-tax or after-tax basis, and where the insurance company has been notified that plan participants may choose from among two or more fixed annuity providers and there is a direct solicitation of an individual employee by an agent for the purchase of an annuity contract. As used in this paragraph, direct solicitation does not include any meeting held by an agent solely for the purpose of educating or enrolling employees in the plan or arrangement;
(4) Non-registered variable annuities issued exclusively to an accredited investor or qualified purchaser as those terms are defined by the Securities Act of 1933 (15 U.S.C. section 77a to 77aa), the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. section 80a-1 to 80b-21), or the regulations promulgated under either of those acts, and offered for sale and sold in a transaction that is exempt from registration under the Securities Act of 1933 (15 U.S.C. section 77a to 77aa).
(5)
(a) Transactions involving variable annuities and other registered products in compliance with "Securities and Exchange Commission" (SEC) rules and "Financial Industry Regulatory Authority" (FINRA) rules relating to disclosures and illustrations.
(b) Notwithstanding paragraph (C)(5)(a) of this rule, the delivery of the buyer's guide is required in sales of variable annuities, and when appropriate, in sales of other registered products.
(c) Nothing in this paragraph limits the superintendent's ability to enforce the provisions of this rule or to require additional disclosure.
(6) Structured settlement annuities; and
(7) Funding agreements.
(D) Definitions
For the purposes of this rule:
(1) "Buyers guide" means, as appropriate for the annuity being offered for sale, either the "Buyer's Guide for Deferred Annuities - Variable," "Buyer's Guide for Deferred Annuities - Fixed," or the "Buyer's Guide for Deferred Annuities" approved by the national association of insurance commissioners; use of the "Buyer's Guide for Deferred Annuities" is considered appropriate in all sales.
(2) "Contract owner" means the owner named in the annuity contract or certificate holder in the case of a group annuity contract.
(3) "Determinable elements" means elements that are derived from processes or methods that are guaranteed at issue and not subject to company discretion, but where the values or amounts cannot be determined until some point after issue. These elements include the premiums, credited interest rates (including any bonus), benefits, values, non-interest based credits, charges or elements of formulas used to determine any of these. These elements may be described as guaranteed but not determined at issue. An element is considered determinable if it was calculated from underlying determinable elements only, or from both determinable and guaranteed elements.
(4) "Funding agreement" means an agreement for an insurer to accept and accumulate funds and to make one or more payments at future dates in amounts that are not based on mortality or morbidity contingencies.
(5) "Generic name" means a short title descriptive of the annuity contract being applied for or illustrated such as "single premium deferred annuity."
(6) "Guaranteed elements" means the premiums, credited interest rates (including any bonus), benefits, values, non-interest based credits, charges or elements of formulas used to determine any of these, that are guaranteed and determined at issue. An element is considered guaranteed if all of the underlying elements that go into its calculation are guaranteed.
(7) "Illustration" means a personalized presentation or depiction prepared for and provided to an individual consumer that includes non-guaranteed elements of an annuity contract over a period of years.
(8) "Market Value Adjustment" or "MVA" feature is a positive or negative adjustment that may be applied to the account value and/or cash value of the annuity upon withdrawal, surrender, contract annuitization or death benefit payment based on either the movement of an external index or on the company's current guaranteed interest rate being offered on new premiums or new rates for renewal periods, if that withdraw, surrender contract annuitization or death benefit payment occurs at a time other than on a specified guaranteed benefit date.
(9) "Non-guaranteed elements" means the premiums, credited interest rates (including any bonus), benefits, values, dividends, non-interest based credits, charges or elements of formulas used to determine any of these, that are subject to company discretion and are not guaranteed at issue. An element is considered non-guaranteed if any of the underlying non-guaranteed elements are used in its calculation.
(10) "Structured settlement annuity" means a "qualified funding asset" as defined in section 130(d) of the Internal Revenue Code or an annuity that would be a qualified funding asset under section 130(d) of the Internal Revenue Code but for the fact that it is not owned by an assignee under a qualified assignment.
(E) Standards for the disclosure document and buyer's guide:
(1) The applicant shall be given the buyer's guide that is appropriate for the annuity being offered for sale contained in appendix A, B or C to this rule. The variable annuity version contained in appendix A to this rule is acceptable in sales of variable annuities and any other securities registered annuities covered by this rule. The fixed annuity version contained in appendix B to this rule is acceptable in sales of fixed annuities, including fixed indexed annuities. The combination version contained in appendix C to this rule is acceptable in all sales.
(2) Where the application for an annuity contract is taken in a face-to-face meeting, the applicant shall at or before the time of application be given both the disclosure document described in paragraph (E)(5) of this rule and the appropriate buyer's guide, as required in paragraph (E)(1) of this rule.
(3) Where the application for an annuity contract is taken by means other than in a face-to-face meeting, the applicant shall be sent both the disclosure document and the appropriate buyer's guide, as required in paragraph (E)(1) of this rule, no later than five business days after the completed application is received by the insurer.
(a) With respect to an application received as a result of a direct solicitation through the mail:
(i) Providing the appropriate buyer's guide, as required in paragraph (E)(1) of this rule, in a mailing inviting prospective applicants to apply for an annuity contract shall be deemed to satisfy the requirement that the buyer's guide be provided no later than five business days after receipt of the application.
(ii) Providing a disclosure document in a mailing inviting a prospective applicant to apply for an annuity contract shall be deemed to satisfy the requirement that the disclosure document be provided no later than five business days after receipt of the application.
(b) With respect to an application received via the internet:
(i) Taking reasonable steps to make the appropriate buyer's guide, as required in paragraph (E)(1) of this rule, available for viewing and printing on the insurer's website shall be deemed to satisfy the requirement that the buyer's guide be provided no later than five business days of receipt of the application.
(ii) Taking reasonable steps to make the disclosure document available for viewing and printing on the insurer's website shall be deemed to satisfy the requirement that the disclosure document be provided no later than five business days after receipt of the application.
(c) A solicitation for an annuity contract provided in other than a face-to-face meeting shall include a statement that the proposed applicant may contact the insurance department of the state for a free annuity buyer's guide. In lieu of the foregoing statement, an insurer may include a statement that the prospective applicant may contact the insurer for a free annuity buyer's guide.
(4) Where the appropriate buyer's guide, as required in paragraph (E)(1) of this rule, and disclosure document are not provided at or before the time of application, a free look period of no less than fifteen days shall be provided for the applicant to return the annuity contract without penalty. This free look shall run concurrently with any other free look provided under state law or rule.
(5) At a minimum, the following information shall be included in the disclosure document required to be provided under this rule:
(a) The generic name of the contract, the company product name, if different, and form number, and the fact that it is an annuity;
(b) The insurer's legal name and physical address, website and telephone number;
(c) A description of the contract and its benefits, emphasizing its long-term nature, including examples where appropriate:
(i) The guaranteed, and non-guaranteed elements of the contract, and their limitations, if any, including for fixed indexed annuities, the elements used to determine the index-based interest, such as the participation rates, caps, or spread, and an explanation of how they operate;
(ii) An explanation of the initial crediting rate, or for fixed indexed annuities, an explanation of how the index-based interest is determined specifying any bonus or introductory portion, the duration of the rate and the fact that rates may change from time to time and are not guaranteed;
(iii) Periodic income options both on a guaranteed and non-guaranteed basis;
(iv) Any value reductions caused by withdrawals from or surrender of the contract;
(v) How values in the contract can be accessed;
(vi) The death benefit, if available and how it will be calculated;
(vii) A summary of the federal tax status of the contract and any penalties applicable on withdrawal of values from the contract; and
(viii) Impact of any rider, including, but not limited to, a guaranteed living benefit or long-term care rider.
(d) Specific dollar amount or percentage charges and fees listed with an explanation of how they apply; and
(e) Information about the current guaranteed rate or indexed crediting rate formula, if applicable, for new contracts that contains a clear notice that the rate is subject to change.
(6) Insurers shall define terms used in the disclosure statement in language that facilitates the understanding by a typical person within the segment of the public to which the disclosure statement is directed.
(F) Standards for annuity illustrations
(1) An insurer or agent may elect to provide a consumer an illustration at any time, provided that the illustration is in compliance with this paragraph and:
(a) Clearly labeled as an illustration;
(b) Includes a statement referring consumers to the disclosure document and buyer's guide provided to them at time of purchase for additional information about their annuity; and
(c) Is prepared by the insurer or third party using software that is authorized by the insurer prior to its use, provided that the insurer maintains a system of control over the use of illustrations.
(2) An illustration furnished to an applicant for a group annuity contract or contracts issued to a single applicant on multiple lives may be either an individual or composite illustration representative of the coverage on the lives of members of the group or the multiple lives covered.
(3) The illustration shall not be provided unless accompanied by the disclosure document referenced in paragraph (E) of this rule.
(4) When using an illustration, the illustration shall not:
(a) Describe non-guaranteed elements in a manner that is misleading or has the capacity or tendency to mislead;
(b) State or imply that the payment or amount of non-guaranteed elements is guaranteed; or
(c) Be incomplete.
(5) Costs and fees of any type shall be individually noted and explained.
(6) An illustration shall conform to the following requirements:
(a) The illustration shall be labeled with the date on which it was prepared;
(b) Each page, including any explanatory notes or pages, shall be numbered and show its relationship to the total number of pages in the disclosure document (e.g., the fourth page of a seven-page disclosure document shall be labeled "page 4 of 7 pages");
(c) The assumed dates of premium receipt and benefit payout within a contract year shall be clearly identified;
(d) If the age of the proposed insured is shown as a component of the tabular detail, it shall be issue age plus the numbers of years the contract is assumed to have been in force;
(e) The assumed premium on which the illustrated benefits and values are based shall be clearly identified, including rider premium for any benefits being illustrated;
(f) Any charges for riders or other contract features assessed against the account value or the crediting rate shall be recognized in the illustrated values and shall be accompanied by a statement indicating the nature of the rider benefits or the contract features, and whether or not they are included in the illustration;
(g) Guaranteed death benefits and values available upon surrender, if any, for the illustrated contract premium shall be shown and clearly labeled guaranteed;
(h) Except as provided in paragraph (F)(6)(v) of this rule, the non-guaranteed elements underlying the non-guaranteed illustrated values shall be no more favorable than current non-guaranteed elements and shall not include any assumed future improvement of such elements. Additionally, non-guaranteed elements used in calculating non-guaranteed illustrated values at any future duration shall reflect any planned changes, including any planned changes that may occur after expiration of an initial guaranteed or bonus period;
(i) In determining the non-guaranteed illustrated values for a fixed indexed annuity, the index-based interest rate and account value shall be calculated for three different scenarios: one to reflect historical performance of the index for the most recent ten calendar years; one to reflect the historical performance of the index for the continuous period of ten calendar years out of the last twenty calendar years that would result in the least index value growth (the "low scenario"); one to reflect the historical performance of the index for the continuous period of ten calendar years out of the last twenty calendar years that would result in the most index value growth (the "high scenario"). The following requirements apply:
(i) The most recent ten calendar years and the last twenty calendar years are defined to end on the prior December thirty-one, except for illustrations prepared during the first three months of the year, for which the end date of the calendar year period may be the December thirty-one prior to the last full calendar year;
(ii) If any index utilized in determination of an account value has not been in existence for at least ten calendar years, indexed returns for that index shall not be illustrated. If the fixed indexed annuity provides an option to allocate account value to more than one indexed or fixed declared rate account, and one or more of those indexes has not been in existence for at least ten calendar years, the allocation to such indexed account(s) shall be assumed to be zero;
(iii) If any index utilized in determination of an account value has been in existence for at least ten calendar years but less than twenty calendar years, the ten calendar year periods that define the low and high scenarios shall be chosen from the exact number of years the index has been in existence;
(iv) The non-guaranteed element(s), such as caps, spreads, participation rates or other interest crediting adjustments, used in calculating the non-guaranteed index-based interest rate shall be no more favorable than the corresponding current element(s);
(v) If a fixed indexed annuity provides an option to allocate the account value to more than one indexed or fixed declared rate account:
(a) The allocation used in the illustration shall be the same for all three scenarios; and
(b) The ten calendar year periods resulting in the least and greatest index growth periods shall be determined independently for each indexed account option.
(vi) The geometric mean annual effective rate of the account value growth over the ten calendar year period shall be shown for each scenario;
(vii) If the most recent ten calendar year historical period experience of the index is shorter than the number of years needed to fulfill the requirement of paragraph (H) of this rule, the most recent ten calendar year historical period experience of the index shall be used for each subsequent ten calendar year period beyond the initial period for the purpose of calculating the account value for the remaining years of the illustration;
(viii) The low and high scenarios:
(a) Need not show surrender values (if different than account values);
(b) Shall not extend beyond ten calendar years (and therefore are not subject to the requirements of paragraph (H) of this rule beyond paragraph (H)(1)(a) of this rule; and
(c) May be shown on a separate page. A graphical presentation shall also be included comparing the movement of the account value over the ten calendar year period for the low scenario, the high scenario and the most recent ten calendar year scenario.
(ix) The low and high scenarios should reflect the irregular nature of the index performance and should trigger every type of adjustment to the index-based interest rate under the contract. The effect of the adjustments should be clear; for example, additional columns showing how the adjustment applied may be included. If an adjustment to the index-based interest rate is not triggered in the illustration (because no historical values of the index in the required illustration range would have triggered it), the illustration shall so state.
(j) The guaranteed elements, if any, shall be shown before corresponding non-guaranteed elements and shall be specifically referred to on any page of an illustration that shows or describes only the non-guaranteed elements (e.g., "see page 1 for guaranteed elements");
(k) The account or accumulation value of a contract, if shown, shall be identified by the name this value is given in the contract being illustrated and shown in close proximity to the corresponding value available upon surrender;
(l) The value available upon surrender shall be identified by the name this value is given in the contract being illustrated and shall be the amount available to the contract owner in a lump sum after deduction of surrender charges, bonus forfeitures, contract loans, contract loan interest and application of any market value adjustment, as applicable;
(m) Illustrations may show contract benefits and values in graphic or chart form in addition to the tabular form;
(n) Any illustration of non-guaranteed elements shall be accompanied by a statement indicating that:
(i) The benefits and values are not guaranteed;
(ii) The assumptions on which they are based are subject to change by the insurer; and
(iii) Actual results may be higher or lower.
(o) Illustrations based on non-guaranteed credited interest and non-guaranteed annuity income rates shall contain equally prominent comparisons to guaranteed credited interest and guaranteed annuity income rates, including any guaranteed and non-guaranteed participation rates, caps or spreads for fixed indexed annuities;
(p) The annuity income rate illustrated shall not be greater than the current annuity income rate unless the contract guarantees are in fact more favorable;
(q) Illustrations shall be concise and easy to read;
(r) Key terms shall be defined and then used consistently throughout the illustration;
(s) Illustrations shall not depict values beyond the maximum annuitization age or date;
(t) Annuitization benefits shall be based on contract values that reflect surrender charges or any other adjustments, if applicable;
(u) Illustrations shall show both annuity income rates per one-thousand dollars and the dollar amounts of the periodic income payable; and
(v) For participating immediate and deferred income annuities:
(i) Illustrations shall not assume any future improvement in the applicable dividend scale (or scales, if more than one dividend scale applies, such as for a flexible premium annuity);
(ii) Illustrations shall reflect the equitable apportionment of dividends, whether performance meets, exceeds or falls short of expectations;
(iii) If the dividend scale is based on a portfolio rate method, the portfolio rate underlying the illustrated dividend scale shall not be assumed to increase;
(iv) If the dividend scale is based on an investment cohort method, the illustrated dividend scale shall assume that reinvestment rates grade to long-term interest rates, subject to the following conditions:
(a) Any assumptions as to future investment performance in the dividend formula shall be consistent with assumptions that are reflected in the marketplace within the normal range of analyst forecasts and investor behavior; these assumptions shall not be changed arbitrarily, notwithstanding changes in markets or economic conditions, and must be consistent with assumptions that the issuer uses with respect to other lines of business; and
(b) The illustrated dividend scale shall assume that reinvestment rates grade to long-term interest rates, based on U.S. treasury bonds. For the purposes of this grading, the assumed long-term rates shall not exceed the rates calculated using the formula in paragraph (F)(6)(v)(iv)(c) of this rule, based on the time to maturity or reinvestment (the "Tenor") of the investments supporting the cohort of policies.
(c) Maximum long-term interest rates shall be calculated for tenors of three months (or less), five years, ten years and twenty years (or more), using U.S. treasury rates. For each tenor, the maximum long-term interest rate will vary over time, based on historical interest rates as they emerge. The formula for the maximum long-term interest rate is the average of the median bond rate over the last six hundred months and the average bond rate over the last one hundred twenty months, rounded to the nearest quarter of one per cent.
(d) The maximum long-term interest rate for a tenor shall be recalculated once per year, in January, using historical rates as of December thirty-one of the calendar year two years prior to the calendar year of the calculation date. The historical rate for each month is the rate reported for the last business day of the month.
(e) Grading to the maximum long-term interest rates shall take place over:
(i) No less than twenty years from issue if U.S. treasury rates as of the illustration date are below the long-term rates, or
(ii) No more than twenty years from issue if the U.S. treasury rates as of the illustration date are above the long-term rates.
(f) When the ten year U.S. treasury rate is less than the ten year maximum long-term interest rate, an additional illustrated dividend scale shall be presented. This additional illustrated dividend scale shall satisfy the following conditions:
(i) Assume that reinvestment U.S. treasury rates do not exceed the initial investment U.S. treasury rates; and
(ii) Illustrate dividends no less than half of the dividends illustrated under the current dividend scales.
If paragraphs (F)(6)(v)(iv)(f)(i) and (F)(6)(v)(iv)(f)(ii) of this rule are in conflict - i.e., if half of the current dividends are greater than would be permitted by condition in paragraph (F)(6)(v)(iv)(f)(i) of this rule - then the reinvestment U.S. treasury rates shall equal the initial investment U.S. treasury rates.
(g) The illustration shall include disclosure that is substantially similar to the following:
"The illustrated current dividend scale is based on interest rates that are assumed to gradually [increase/decrease] from current interest rates to long-term interest rates, over a period of [twenty] years. By regulation, the long-term assumed interest rates cannot and do not exceed the rates listed in column (c) of the table below."
If the illustration contains an additional dividend scale pursuant to paragraph (F)(6)(v)(iv)(f) of this rule, then the illustration shall also include disclosure that is substantially similar to the following: "The additional illustrated dividend scale is based on interest rates that are assumed not to increase and do not exceed the interest rates in column (b) of the table below."
| (a) | (b) | (c) | | --- | --- | --- | | | Treasury Rate as of 12/31/2016 | Long-Term Treasury Rate | | 3 Months (or less) | 0.51% | 3.00% | | 5 Years | 1.93% | 4.50% | | 10 Years | 2.45% | 5.00% | | 20 Years (or more) | 3.06% | 5.50% |
(G) An annuity illustration shall include a narrative summary that includes the following unless provided at the same time in a disclosure document:
(1) A brief description of any contract features, riders or options, guaranteed and/or nonguaranteed, shown in the basic illustration and the impact they may have on the benefits and values of the contract;
(2) A brief description of any other optional benefits or features that are selected, but not shown in the illustration and the impact they have on the benefits and values of the contract;
(3) Identification and a brief definition of column headings and key terms used in the illustration;
(4) A statement containing in substance the following:
(a) For other than fixed indexed annuities:
This illustration assumes the annuity's current nonguaranteed elements will not change. It is likely that they will change and actual values will be higher or lower than those in this illustration but will not be less than the minimum guarantees; and
The values in this illustration are not guarantees or even estimates of the amounts you can expect from your annuity. Please review the entire "Disclosure Document" and "Buyer's Guide" provided with your "Annuity Contract" for more detailed information.
(b) For fixed indexed annuities:
This illustration assumes the index will repeat historical performance and that the annuity's current non-guaranteed elements, such as caps, spreads, participation rates or other interest crediting adjustments, will not change. It is likely that the index will not repeat historical performance, the non-guaranteed elements will change, and actual values will be higher or lower than those in this illustration but will not be less than the minimum guarantees; and
The values in this illustration are not guarantees or even estimates of the amounts you can expect from your annuity. Please review the entire "Disclosure Document" and "Buyer's Guide" provided with your "Annuity Contract" for more detailed information.
(5) Additional explanations as follows:
(a) Minimum guarantees shall be clearly explained;
(b) The effect on contract values of contract surrender prior to maturity shall be explained;
(c) Any conditions on the payment of bonuses shall be explained;
(d) For annuities sold as an IRA, qualified plan or in another arrangement subject to the required minimum distribution (RMD) requirements of the Internal Revenue Code, the effect of RMDs on the contract values shall be explained;
(e) For annuities with recurring surrender charge schedules, a clear and concise explanation of what circumstances will cause the surrender charge to recur; and
(f) A brief description of the types of annuity income options available shall be explained, including:
(i) The earliest or only maturity date for annuitization (as the term is defined in the contract);
(ii) For contracts with an optional maturity date, the periodic income amount for at least one of the annuity income options available based on the guaranteed rates in the contract, at the later of age seventy or ten years after issue, but in no case later than the maximum annuitization age or date in the contract;
(iii) For contracts with a fixed maturity date, the periodic income amount for at least one of the annuity income options available, based on the guaranteed rates in the contract at the fixed maturity date; and
(iv) The periodic income amount based on the currently available periodic income rates for the annuity income option in paragraph (G)(5)(f)(ii) or (G)(5)(f)(iii) of this rule, if desired.
(H) Following the narrative summary, an illustration shall include a numeric summary which shall include at minimum, numeric values at the following durations:
(1)
(a) First ten contract years; or
(b) Surrender charge period if longer than ten years, including any renewal surrender charge period(s).
(2) Every tenth contract year up to the later of thirty years or age seventy; and
(3)
(a) Required annuitization age; or
(b) Required annuitization date.
(I) If the annuity contains a market value adjustment, hereafter MVA, the following provisions apply to the illustration:
(1) The MVA shall be referred to as such throughout the illustration;
(2) The narrative shall include an explanation, in simple terms, of the potential effect of the MVA on the value available upon surrender;
(3) The narrative shall include an explanation, in simple terms, of the potential effect of the MVA on the death benefit;
(4) A statement, containing in substance the following, shall be included:
When you make a withdrawal the amount you receive may be increased or decreased by a "Market Value Adjustment" (MVA). If interest rates on which the MVA is based go up after you buy your annuity, the MVA likely will decrease the amount you receive. If interest rates go down, the MVA will likely increase the amount you receive.
(5) Illustrations shall describe both the upside and the downside aspects of the contract features relating to the market value adjustment;
(6) The illustrative effect of the MVA shall be shown under at least one positive and one negative scenario. This demonstration shall appear on a separate page and be clearly labeled that it is information demonstrating the potential impact of a MVA;
(7) Actual MVA floors and ceilings as listed in the contract shall be illustrated; and
(8) If the MVA has significant characteristics not addressed in paragraphs (I)(1) to (I)(6) of this rule, the effect of such characteristics shall be shown in the illustration.
(J) A narrative summary for a fixed indexed annuity illustration also shall include the following unless provided at the same time in a disclosure document:
(1) An explanation, in simple terms, of the elements used to determine the index-based interest, including but not limited to, the following elements:
(a) The "Index(es)" which will be used to determine the index-based interest;
(b) The "Indexing Method" - such as point-to-point, daily averaging, monthly averaging;
(c) The "Index Term" - the period over which indexed-based interest is calculated;
(d) The "Participation Rate," if applicable;
(e) The "Cap," if applicable; and
(f) The "Spread," if applicable.
(2) The narrative shall include an explanation, in simple terms, of how index-based interest is credited in the indexed annuity;
(3) The narrative shall include a brief description of the frequency with which the company can re-set the elements used to determine the index-based credits, including the participation rate, the cap, and the spread, if applicable; and
(4) If the product allows the contract holder to make allocations to declared-rate segment, then the narrative shall include a brief description of:
(a) Any options to make allocations to a declared-rate segment, both for new premiums and for transfers from the indexed-based segments; and
(b) Differences in guarantees applicable to the declared-rate segment and the indexed-based segments.
(K) A numeric summary for a fixed indexed annuity illustration shall include, at a minimum, the following elements:
(1) The assumed growth rate of the index in accordance with paragraph (F)(6)(i) of this rule;
(2) The assumed values for the participation rate, cap and spread, if applicable; and
(3) The assumed allocation between indexed-based segments and declared-rate segment, if applicable, in accordance with paragraph (F)(6)(i) of this rule.
(L) If the contract is issued other than as applied for, a revised illustration conforming to the contract as issued shall be sent with the contract, except that non-substantive changes, including, but not limited to, changes in the amount of expected initial or additional premiums and any changes in amounts of exchanges pursuant to section 1035 of the Internal Revenue Code, rollovers or transfers, which do not alter the key benefits and features of the annuity as applied for will not require a revised illustration unless requested by the applicant.
(M) Report to contract owners
(1) For annuities in the payout period that include non-guaranteed elements and for deferred annuities in the accumulation period, the insurer shall provide each contract owner with a report, at least annually, on the status of the contract that contains at least the following information:
(a) The beginning and end date of the current report period;
(b) The accumulation and cash surrender value, if any, at the end of the previous report period and at the end of the current report period;
(c) The total amounts, if any, that have been credited, charged to the contract value or paid during the current report period; and
(d) The amount of outstanding loans, if any, as of the end of the current report period.
(N) Penalties
In addition to any other penalties provided by the laws of this state, a violation of this rule by an insurer or agent shall be considered an unfair and deceptive trade practice subject to any one or more penalties set forth in sections 3901.19 to 3901.221 of the Revised Code.
(O) Recordkeeping
(1) Insurers or insurance agents shall maintain or be able to make available to the superintendent records of the information collected from the consumer and other information provided in the disclosure statement (including illustrations) for eight years after the contract is delivered by the insurer. An insurer is permitted, but shall not be required, to maintain documentation on behalf of an insurance agent.
(2) Records required to be maintained by this rule may be maintained in paper, photographic, micro-process, magnetic, mechanical or electronic media or by any process that accurately reproduces the actual document.
(P) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
View AppendixView AppendixView Appendix
Last updated November 16, 2023 at 8:33 AM
History
- Effective: November 16, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-6-15 Preneed life insurance minimum standards for determining reserve liabilities and nonforfeiture values.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to establish for preneed insurance products minimum mortality standards for reserves and nonforfeiture values, and to require the use of the "1980 Commissioners Standard Ordinary (CSO) Life Valuation Mortality Table" for use in determining the minimum standard of valuation of reserves and the minimum standard nonforfeiture values for preneed insurance products.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041, 3903.72, 3903.721, and 3915.071 of the Revised Code and rule 3901-6-10 of the Administrative Code (valuation of life insurance policies).
(C) Scope
This rule applies to preneed insurance contracts, as defined in paragraph (D)(3) of this rule.
(D) Definitions
(1) The term "2001 CSO Mortality Table" means that mortality table, consisting of separate rates of mortality for male and female lives, developed by the American academy of actuaries CSO task force from the "Valuation Basic Mortality Table" developed by the society of actuaries individual life insurance valuation mortality task force, and adopted by the national association of insurance commissioners (NAIC) in December 2002. The "2001 CSO Mortality Table" is included in the "Proceedings of the NAIC (2nd Quarter 2002)." Unless the context indicates otherwise, the "2001 CSO Mortality Table" includes both the ultimate form of that table and the select and ultimate form of that table and includes both the smoker and nonsmoker mortality tables and the composite mortality tables. It also includes both the age-nearest-birthday and age-last-birthday bases of the mortality tables.
(2) The term "Ultimate 1980 CSO" means the "Commissioners' 1980 Standard Ordinary Life Valuation Mortality Tables (1980 CSO)" without ten-year selection factors, incorporated into the 1980 amendments to the NAIC Standard Valuation Law approved in December 1983.
(3) For the purposes of this rule, a preneed insurance contract is any life insurance policy or certificate that will be marketed and sold solely to fund preneed funeral contracts, as defined by division (T) of section 4717.01 of the Revised Code. The status of the policy or contract as preneed insurance is determined at the time of issue in accordance with the policy form filing, pursuant to section 3915.14 of the Revised Code.
(E) Minimum valuation mortality standards
For preneed insurance contracts, as defined in paragraph (D)(3) of this rule, the minimum mortality standard for determining reserve liabilities and nonforfeiture values for both male and female insureds is the "Ultimate 1980 CSO."
(F) Minimum valuation interest rate standards
(1) The interest rates used in determining the minimum standard for valuation of preneed insurance are the calendar year statutory valuation interest rates as defined in section 3903.724 of the Revised Code.
(2) The interest rates used in determining the minimum standard for nonforfeiture values for preneed insurance are the calendar year statutory nonforfeiture interest rates as defined in division (F) of section 3915.071 of the Revised Code.
(G) Minimum valuation method standards
(1) The method used in determining the standard for the minimum valuation of reserves of preneed insurance is the method defined in division (A) of section 3903.723 of the Revised Code.
(2) The method used in determining the standard for the minimum nonforfeiture values for preneed insurance is the method defined in section 3915.071 of the Revised Code.
(H) Transition rules
(1) For preneed insurance policies issued on or after the effective date of this rule and before January 1, 2012, the 2001 CSO may be used as the minimum standard for reserves and minimum standard for nonforfeiture benefits for both male and female insureds.
(2) If an insurer elects to use the 2001 CSO as a minimum standard for any policy issued on or after the effective date of this rule and before January 1, 2012, the insurer shall provide, as a part of the actuarial opinion memorandum submitted in support of the company's asset adequacy testing, an annual written notification to the domiciliary commissioner. The notification shall include:
(a) A complete list of all preneed policy forms that use the 2001 CSO as a minimum standard;
(b) A certification signed by the appointed actuary stating that the reserve methodology employed by the company in determining reserves for the preneed policies issued after the effective date and using the 2001 CSO as a minimum standard, develops adequate reserves (for the purposes of this certification, the preneed insurance policies using the 2001 CSO as a minimum standard cannot be aggregated with any other policies.); and
(c) Supporting information regarding the adequacy of reserves for preneed insurance policies issued after the effective date of this rule and using the 2001 CSO as a minimum standard for reserves.
(3) Preneed insurance policies issued on or after January 1, 2012, must use the "Ultimate 1980 CSO" in the calculation of minimum nonforfeiture values and minimum reserves.
(I) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated November 16, 2023 at 8:34 AM
History
- Effective: November 16, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-6-16 Annuity nonforfeiture product standards.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to amplify section 3915.073 of the Revised Code and to define the maturity date used for the purpose of calculating nonforfeiture values for annuity contracts filed in this state and to establish rules relative to the calculation of nonforfeiture values for certain product features and designs used in annuity contracts issued in this state.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041 and 3901.21 of the Revised Code.
(C) Scope
This rule applies to all annuity contracts issued ninety days after the effective date of this rule and not specifically excluded in division (B) of section 3915.073 of the Revised Code.
(D) No private cause of action
Nothing herein shall be construed to create or imply a private cause of action for a violation of this rule.
(E) Definitions
As used in this rule:
(1) "Prospective test" is the nonforfeiture test, included in the filed actuarial memorandum, used to demonstrate compliance with division (F) of section 3915.073 of the Revised Code.
(2) "Retrospective test" is the nonforfeiture test, included in the filed actuarial memorandum, used to demonstrate compliance with division (D) of section 3915.073 of the Revised Code.
(F) Nonforfeiture standards for annuities
(1) Maturity date. For the purpose of the prospective test, notwithstanding the language of the contract, the maturity date shall be the later of the tenth contract anniversary or the contract anniversary following the annuitant's seventieth birthday. The contract anniversary used as the maturity date should be considered as the first day of the year following the contract anniversary (not including any premium payments for that year) and the discounting process should be determined on a curtate (full integral year) basis.
(a) Maturity value used to demonstrate compliance with the prospective test shall be the contract account value.
(b) No surrender charge is permitted on or past the maturity date.
(2) Non-level guaranteed interest rates. If the contract has non-level interest rate guarantees over the period of time for which interest rates are guaranteed, then, for the purposes of the prospective test, the maturity value shall be discounted at an interest rate not to exceed one per cent higher than the level imputed interest rate that produces a maturity value equal to that produced by the interest rates specified in the contract. The level imputed interest rate shall be derived such that gross considerations, net of any expense loads specified in the contract, accumulated at such level imputed interest rate equals gross consideration, net of any expense loads specified in the contract accumulated at the rate or rates specified in the contract.
(3) Rolling surrender charges. For contracts where surrender charge scales are measured from the date of each premium payment, minimum value compliance may be demonstrated assuming each premium payment is treated as a separate single premium contract. For purposes of determining the maturity date for each single premium, that date shall be the later of the tenth anniversary of the payment or the annuitant's seventieth birthday. If minimum value compliance is to be demonstrated in this fashion, the retrospective test minimum values shall be the greater of those based on the contract being treated either as a single contract providing for flexible premiums or as a single contract with each premium being considered a single premium contract.
(4) CD annuities. Annuity products with surrender charges that periodically renew and credited interest rate guarantee periods that periodically renew, sometimes referred to as "CD annuities", are compliant with the nonforfeiture tests provided:
(a) The contract provides for a time period of at least thirty days at each renewal, during which the contract may be surrendered without surrender charges or other penalties.
(b) For prospective test compliance, testing should be performed only once at issue and the surrender charge should be set to zero at every duration beyond the expiration of the initial interest guarantee period.
(c) In demonstrating prospective test compliance, for any period after the expiration of the initial interest guarantee period, the guaranteed credited rate assumed should be the minimum rate guaranteed in the contract.
(d) For a given interest guarantee period, the surrender charge percentage applicable at any renewal duration of that guarantee period should not exceed that for the comparable initial guarantee period duration.
(5) Bonus benefits. The following applies to annuity products that provide an interest bonus, a premium bonus, a persistency bonus or any other amounts and or percentages that are credited to the premiums paid, account value, cash value, cash surrender value or maturity value under a specified condition, other than benefits of the type described above that are provided through any pattern of non-level interest rate guarantees that may be similar to but are not specifically referred to as bonuses or additional credits.
(a) For purposes of demonstrating nonforfeiture compliance, the following requirements apply to bonus benefits:
(i) For purposes of the retrospective test, any bonus amounts are not to be considered gross considerations;
(ii) For purposes, of the prospective test, the bonus amount, accumulated at interest using the rate or rates specified in the contract, is to be considered part of the contract maturity value. The maturity value shall be discounted at an interest rate not to exceed one per cent higher than the level imputed interest rate that produces a maturity value equal to that produced by the interest rate or rates specified in the contract. The level imputed interest rate shall be derived such that gross considerations, net of any expense loads specified in the contract, accumulated at such level imputed interest rate equals gross considerations, net of any expense loads specified in the contract, plus the bonus accumulated at the rate or rates specified in the contract to the maturity date.
(b) Conditions under which bonus benefits may be forfeited; the contract may, at the option of the company, deduct from the account value the amount of any bonus benefit credited, provided the following conditions are met:
(i) The conditions for forfeiture are described in the contract;
(ii) Forfeiture of the bonus will not reduce the cash value below the minimum nonforfeiture benefit as required under this rule;
(iii) No bonus will be forfeited on or after the maturity date.
(c) Notwithstanding paragraph (F)(5)(a) of this rule, annuitization bonuses that are simply an additional percentage applied to the account value at annuitization do not need to be considered part of the maturity value for the purpose of the prospective test but shall be disclosed in the contract.
(6) Market value adjustments. Contracts that contain a market value adjustment (MVA) must comply with the retrospective test including application of the MVA. For the purposes of the prospective test, the MVA may be disregarded.
(G) Severability
If any paragraph, term or provision of this rule is adjudged invalid for any reason, the judgment shall not affect, impair or invalidate any other paragraph, term or provision of this rule, but the remaining paragraphs, terms and provisions shall be and continue in full force and effect.
Last updated October 11, 2023 at 1:53 PM
History
- Effective: July 11, 2012
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Chapter 3901-7 Title Insurance Agents
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-7-01 Annual review of title insurance agent escrow accounts.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to establish the criteria for the annual independent review of title insurance agents' escrow, settlement, closing, and security deposit depository institution accounts.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041 and 3953.33 of the Revised Code.
(C) Definitions
As used in this rule:
(1) "Agent" means either an individual title insurance agent or a business entity title insurance agent licensed by the Ohio department of insurance.
(2) "Escrow account" includes any escrow, settlement, closing, or security deposit account owned or maintained by the title agent being reviewed.
(3) "IOTA" account means "Interest on Trust Account", which is an escrow account established and maintained pursuant to section 3953.231 of the Revised Code.
(4) "Person" means any natural person or any business entity as defined in section 3905.01 of the Revised Code.
(5) "Transaction" means the handling of client or third party funds related to any purchase or sale of real property, or any finance or refinance secured by a mortgage on real property.
(D) Each agent shall file, pursuant to paragraph (I) of this rule, either an independent annual review or an annual review claim of exemption on a form prescribed by the superintendent on or before January fifteenth for the preceding twelve month period ending August thirty-first. Either filing must include all supplementary forms prescribed by the superintendent.
(E) Independent annual review
Each agent that handles the funds of clients or third parties shall have an independent review made of all escrow accounts related to Ohio transactions each year and filed in accordance with paragraph (I) of this rule for the preceding twelve month period ending August thirty-first unless exempted from review as provided by paragraph (F) of this rule.
(F) Exemptions
(1) An agent that does not handle escrow account funds related to Ohio transactions is exempt from the annual review requirements of section 3953.33 of the Revised Code.
(2) An agent that averages five Ohio transactions or less per month during the twelve month period ending August thirty-first is exempt from the annual review requirements of section 3953.33 of the Revised Code if the agent's escrow accounts have been reviewed for that twelve month period by one or more of the title insurance companies by which it had been appointed.
(G) Independent reviewer qualifications
(1) The independent reviewer must be a certified public accountant.
(2) The independent reviewer may not be an employee of a title insurance company nor may the reviewer be an employee of or hold an ownership interest in:
(a) The business entity being reviewed,
(b) In any affiliates of the business entity being reviewed,
(c) In any owners of the business entity being reviewed, or
(d) Any financial institution or its affiliate in which one or more escrow accounts subject to review under this rule are held.
(H) Annual review
(1) The annual review, as required under section 3953.33 of the Revised Code, shall be conducted by an independent reviewer as an agreed upon procedures engagement.
(2) The review shall be constructed in accordance with the guidelines set forth below. Where no exceptions are found as a result of applying the procedure, the statement "no exceptions" should be noted. Where a procedure cannot be completed because the required information is unavailable, the statement "information unavailable" should be noted and explained in detail.
(a) Obtain from the agent a listing of all agent depository institution accounts existing at anytime during the review period, including operating and other non-fiduciary accounts on the annual review supplementary form as prescribed by the superintendent for depository account information. Have the agent certify that the information on the supplementary form is complete and accurate.
(i) Report as specific findings all non-IOTA escrow accounts that do not have written instructions to either deposit the funds in an account for the benefit of a specific person or to pay the interest earned on the funds to a specific person.
(ii) Report as a specific finding all non-IOTA escrow accounts in which any interest, in the form of cash or earnings credits, is retained by the agent. For the purpose of this rule, earnings credits means an adjustable dollar amount or factor based on the balance in a deposit account that reduces fees and charges on the account or other account(s) or for other services provided by the depository institution.
(b) Test the agent's three-way reconciliations (depository institution statement to book balance to open escrow trial balance) for the most recent monthly period the account existed on or before August thirty-first of the twelve month period being reviewed and for one other randomly selected month of the period being reviewed for all agent escrow accounts including, without limitation, all multiple and individual customer escrow accounts (regular, special/interest bearing, etc.), and other fiduciary accounts. Exclude from review single customer/single purpose accounts opened under the customer's taxpayer identification number and section 1031 tax deferred exchanges opened under the customer's taxpayer identification number If the agent does not prepare an open escrow trial balance, note the omission as a specific finding and test any other type of depository institution reconciliation available. The test of the reconciliations should, include the following procedures:
(i) Foot reconciliation and any supporting schedules;
(ii) Compare depository institution balance per reconciliation with depository institution statement and have agent provide a written explanation of any differences on the annual review supplementary form as prescribed by the superintendent for agent explanations;
(iii) Compare book balance per reconciliation with control account such as check book balance and have agent provide a written explanation of any differences on the annual review supplementary form as prescribed by the superintendent for agent explanations;
(iv) Compare reconciled balances to the open escrow trial balance of the same date and have agent provide a written explanation of any differences on the annual review supplementary form as prescribed by the superintendent for agent explanations;
(v) Review the agent's open escrow trial balance for the two monthly periods. Report the file number, customer name, and amount of each negative balance over ten thousand dollars individually and the aggregate negative amount of all negative balances if such aggregate exceeds fifteen thousand dollars;
(vi) Verify deposits in transit by tracing deposits of five thousand dollars or greater and all deposits in transit for more than thirty business days, as defined in division (M) of section 3953.01 of the Revised Code, to validated deposit slip or depository institution statement for the following month;
(vii) Verify outstanding checks by tracing to the subsequent month's depository institution statement. Report the check number, check date, payee, and amount of all outstanding checks of ten thousand dollars or greater not clearing on the next month's depository institution statement;
(viii) Report the amount and the agent's description of other reconciling items of one thousand dollars or more individually, or five thousand dollars in aggregate;
(ix) Verify the agent has a voided checks procedure. The absence of a voided check procedure should be noted in the report.
(x) Determine the timing of the preparation of the three-way and depository institution reconciliations for each of two months tested. Any reconciliations that were not documented as prepared within sixty days of the depository institution statement date should be noted as a specific finding. Reconciliations not documented as reviewed by management, as evidenced by management initials and date, should be noted in the report;
(xi) Review the escrow depository institution account statements for the sample months for the presence of negative daily balances, if provided on the statement, and depository institution charges for non-sufficient funds or overdraft charges. Report the aggregate amount of the above described charges, the number of negative balance days for the month, and the highest negative balance for the month; and
(xii) For each escrow account, select, using an appropriate audit sampling technique in which each item has an equal chance at being selected, twenty canceled checks and/or outgoing wire transfers per month for the sample two month periods and report the following:
(a) Checks or wire transfers one thousand dollars or greater payable to the agent, or to its affiliates or owners which do not correspond to fee amounts reflected in the documents in the related file;
(b) Checks or wire transfers with no file reference; and
(c) Any checks on which the check date is more than sixty days prior to the depository institution clearing date;
(d) If canceled checks or images of checks are available, endorsements not consistent with the payee and/or alterations to canceled checks. Report if canceled checks or images are unavailable;
(e) Checks signed by other than authorized check signer.
(c) List all states for which the agent conducts settlements.
(d) Have the agent complete and certify the annual review supplementary form as prescribed by the superintendent for listing required insurance coverage information.
(I) Filing
(1) Required documents.
(a) Each agent subject to the provisions of paragraph (E) of this rule shall file the original independent annual review together with all required supplementary information on forms prescribed by the superintendent.
(b) Each agent exempt from the independent annual review requirements of section 3953.33 of the Revised Code by the provisions of paragraph (F) of this rule shall file an annual review exemption together with all required supplementary information on forms prescribed by the superintendent.
(2) Procedure
(a) Each agent shall file all required documents electronically unless unable to do so.
(b) An agent unable to file the required documents electronically may make a paper filing:
(i) All paper filings including the independent annual review shall be unbound, unstapled, and unfastened, printed single-side only on eight and one-half by eleven inch paper.
(ii) The filing shall be mailed to the enforcement division of the Ohio department of insurance.
(3) Filing. Every agent shall electronically file no later than January fifteenth of each year or shall mail postmarked no later than January fifteenth of each year, the required documents for the preceding twelve month period ending August thirty-first.
(4) Each agent shall mail to each title insurance underwriter it represented during any portion of the review period, postmarked not later than January fifteenth of each year, a copy the filing for the preceding twelve month period ending August thirty-first.
(J) Severability
If any paragraph, term, or provision of this rule is adjudged invalid for any reason, the judgment shall not affect, impair or invalidate any other paragraph, term, or provision of this rule, but the remaining paragraphs, terms, and provisions shall be and continue in full force and effect.
Last updated October 11, 2023 at 1:53 PM
History
- Effective: January 13, 2017
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-7-02 Title insurance agents maintenance of surety bond and errors and omissions coverage.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to set forth the requirements regarding the surety bond and errors and omissions coverage to be maintained by title insurance agents or agencies under conditions specified in section 3953.23 of the Revised Code.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041 and 3953.23 of the Revised Code.
(C) Surety bond
All title insurance agents or agencies that handle escrows in real property transactions not involving the issuance of title insurance shall have a surety bond in place that protects all parties to such transactions against theft, misappropriation, fraud, or any other failure to properly disburse settlement, closing, or escrow funds.
(1) The surety bond shall be on a form approved by the superintendent and shall provide coverage in the minimum amount of one hundred fifty thousand dollars.
(2) The surety bond shall be kept in full force and effect as a condition precedent to the title agent's authority to transact escrow, settlement, or closing functions for real estate transactions not involving the issuance of title insurance and the title insurance agent shall supply the superintendent with satisfactory evidence thereof upon request.
(3)
(a) Licensed agents who are employees of title insurance companies authorized to do business in this state and direct operations of title insurance companies authorized to do business in this state are not required to maintain separate surety bond coverage.
(b) Title insurance companies authorized to do business in this state may self-insure wholly-owned subsidiary title agencies and employees of those agencies who are licensed as title insurance agents for the purpose of surety bond coverage.
(D) Errors and omissions insurance
(1) All title insurance agents or agencies shall maintain an errors and omissions insurance policy that includes but is not limited to coverage for the agent's or agency's delegation of any agent or agency function to a third party. The policy must provide a minimum coverage amount of two hundred fifty thousand dollars.
(2) It is the title agent's or agency's responsibility to ensure that all subcontractors are covered under the agent's or agency's errors and omissions insurance policy or that any subcontractor not so covered maintains an errors and omissions policy with minimum coverage of fifty thousand dollars.
(3)
(a) Licensed agents who are employees of title insurance companies authorized to do business in this state and direct operations of title insurance companies authorized to do business in this state are not required to maintain separate errors and omissions insurance coverage.
(b) Title insurance companies authorized to do business in this state may self-insure wholly-owned subsidiary title agencies and employees of those agencies who are licensed as title insurance agents for the purposes of errors and omissions insurance coverage.
(E) Details of surety bond and errors and omissions coverage to be provided at escrow account review
Details of any surety bond and errors and omissions coverage required under this rule shall be provided on a form that is prescribed for such use by the superintendent. The details of such coverage shall be provided at the time the annual escrow account review is performed pursuant to section 3953.33 of the Revised Code.
(F) Penalties
Failure to maintain the required errors and omissions coverage or failure to maintain a surety bond as necessary shall be grounds for suspension or revocation of a title insurance license.
(G) Severability
If any paragraph, term or provision of this rule is adjudged invalid for any reason, the judgment shall not affect, impair or invalidate any other paragraph, term or provision of this rule, but the remaining paragraphs, terms or provisions shall be and continue in full force and effect.
Last updated July 10, 2025 at 12:14 PM
History
- Effective: November 11, 2011
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-7-03 Title insurance agents notice to mortgagors.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to set forth the requirements regarding the notice to be provided to mortgagors by title insurance agents concerning title insurance coverage under conditions specified in section 3953.30 of the Revised Code.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041 and 3953.30 of the Revised Code.
(C) Notice
A title insurance agent issuing a lender's title insurance policy in conjunction with a residential mortgage loan made simultaneously with the purchase of all or part of the real property securing the loan, where no owner's title insurance policy has been requested, shall provide the notice set forth in the appendix to this rule to the mortgagor at the time the commitment is prepared.
(D) Notice to be maintained
The title insurance agent required to provide the notice described in this rule shall maintain a copy of the notice, signed by the mortgagor, on file for at least ten years after the effective date of the lender's title insurance policy.
(E) Severability
If any paragraph, term or provision of this rule or the application thereof to any person or situation be adjudged invalid for any reason such invalidity shall not affect, impair or invalidate any other section, term or provision of this rule or the application thereof which can be given effect without the invalid provision or application and to this end the provisions of this rule are declared to be severable.
View Appendix
Last updated October 11, 2023 at 1:53 PM
History
- Effective: January 1, 2007
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-7-04 Title insurance controlled business arrangements.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to establish ownership and licensing standards for title insurance agents and agencies in accordance with division (B) of section 3953.21 of the Revised Code, which prohibits certain persons from acting as agents for a title insurance company.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under section 3901.041 of the Revised Code.
(C) Definitions
As used in this rule:
(1) "Beneficial ownership" means the effective ownership of any interest in a title insurance agency or the right to control an ownership interest even though legal ownership may be held in another person's name.
(2) "Control," including "controlling," "controlled by," and "under common control with" means the possession, direct or indirect, of the power to direct or cause the direction of the management and policies of a person, whether through the ownership of voting securities, by contract other than a commercial contract for goods or non-management services, or otherwise. Control shall be presumed to exist if any person, directly or indirectly, owns, controls, holds with the power to vote, or holds proxies representing fifty per cent or more of the voting securities or interests of any other person. Control shall also be presumed to exist between a natural person and an immediate family member. These presumptions may be rebutted by showing that control does not exist in fact. The superintendent of insurance may determine that control exists if the facts support such a determination notwithstanding the absence of a presumption to that effect.
(3) "Immediate family member" includes a person's father, mother, stepfather, stepmother, brother, sister, stepbrother, stepsister, son, daughter, stepson, stepdaughter, grandparent, grandson, granddaughter, father-in-law, mother-in-law, brother-in-law, sister-in-law, son-in-law, daughter-in-law, the spouse of any of the foregoing, and the person's spouse.
(4) "Person" means any natural person or any business entity as defined in division (P) of section 3905.01 of the Revised Code.
(5) "Prohibited person" means a person prohibited from acting as an agent for a title insurance company pursuant to division (B) of section 3953.21 of the Revised Code, and includes builders and developers.
(6) "RESPA" means the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act, 12 U.S.C. 2601 et seq., as amended, and all rules, regulations and interpretations issued under RESPA, as amended, including but not limited to 24 C.F.R. Part 3500 and the Statement of Policy 1996-2 Regarding Sham Controlled Business Arrangements found at 61 Fed. Reg. 29258 et seq.
(D) No business entity may be licensed as a title insurance agency where one or more prohibited persons control the business entity.
(E) A business entity may not become licensed or remain licensed where the entity is merely a sham arrangement used as a conduit for inducements or compensation for business payments in violation of section 3953.26 and/or section 3933.01 of the Revised Code. In determining whether an entity is a sham arrangement, the superintendent may consider factors similar to those used to determine whether a controlled business arrangement is a sham arrangement under RESPA, including, but not limited to:
(1) Does the new entity have sufficient initial capital and net worth, typical of the industry, to conduct the title insurance business for which it was created or is it undercapitalized to do the work it purports to provide?
(2) Is the new entity staffed with its own employees to perform the services it provides or does the new entity have "loaned" employees of one of the parents?
(3) Does the new entity manage its own business affairs or is the new entity being run by one of the parents?
(4) Does the new entity have an office for business which is separate from any of the parents? If the new entity is located at the same business address as one of the parents, does the new entity pay fair market value rent for the facilities actually furnished?
(5) Is the new entity providing substantial services, i.e., the essential functions of the real estate settlement service, for which it receives a fee?
(6) Does the new entity perform all of the substantial services itself or does it contract out part of the work? If so, how much work is contracted out?
(7) If the new entity contracts out some of its essential functions does it contract services from an independent third party or from a parent or affiliate of a parent? If the new entity contracts out work to a parent or to an affiliate of a parent, does the new entity provide any functions that are of value to the settlement process?
(8) If the new entity contracts out work to another party, is the party performing any contracted services receiving a payment for the services or facilities that bears a reasonable relationship to the value of the goods or services received?
(9) Is the new entity actively competing in the marketplace for business or does it provide services solely for one or more of the parents?
(F) Where a person has a direct or beneficial ownership interest in a business entity title insurance agent, the only thing of value that can flow from such an arrangement, other than permissible payments for services rendered, is a return on ownership interest.
(1) Under this rule, a return on ownership interest may not include any of the following:
(a) Any payment which has, as a basis of calculation, no apparent business motive other than distinguishing among recipients of payments on the basis of the amount of their actual, estimated or anticipated referrals;
(b) Any payment which varies according to the relative amount of referrals by different recipients of similar payments; or
(c) A payment based on an ownership, partnership or joint venture share which has been adjusted on the basis of previous relative referrals by recipients of similar payments.
(2) In determining whether a payment is a return on an ownership interest or an impermissible payment for the referral of title insurance business, the superintendent may consider factors similar to those used to determine whether a payment is an impermissible payment for a referral under RESPA.
(G) A prohibited person may not serve as a partner, officer, director, or managing member of a title insurance agency, nor may a prohibited person be involved in the day-to-day operations of the title agency.
(H) Severability
If any paragraph, term or provision of this rule is adjudged invalid for any reason, the judgment shall not affect, impair or invalidate any other paragraph, term or provision of this rule, but the remaining paragraphs, terms and provisions shall be and continue in full force and effect.
Last updated February 14, 2022 at 8:56 AM
History
- Effective: February 14, 2022
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Chapter 3901-8 Health Insurance
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-8-01 Coordination of benefits.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to:
(1) Permit plans to include a coordination of benefits "(COB)" provision;
(2) Provide the authority for the orderly transfer of information needed to pay claims promptly;
(3) Eliminate duplication of benefits by permitting a plan to reduce benefits paid when, pursuant to this rule, it is not required to pay its benefits first;
(4) Reduce claim payment delays; and
(5) Further define the "COB" statute.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under section 3901.041 of the Revised Code, and section 3902.14 of the Revised Code, providing that the superintendent may adopt rules to carry out the purposes of sections 3902.11 to 3902.14 of the Revised Code.
(C) Definitions
As used in this rule:
(1)
(a) "Allowable expense" means, except as set forth below or otherwise defined by statute, any health care expense, including coinsurance or co-payments and without reduction for any applicable deductible, that is covered in full or in part by any of the plans covering the person.
(b) If a plan is advised by the covered person that all plans covering the person are high-deductible health plans and the person intends to contribute to a health savings account established in accordance with Section 223 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, the primary high-deductible health plan's deductible is not an allowable expense, except for any health care expense incurred that may not be subject to the deductible as described in Section 223(c)(2)(C) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986.
(c) An expense or a portion of an expense that is not covered by any of the plans is not an allowable expense.
(d) Any expense that a provider by law or in accordance with a contractual agreement is prohibited from charging a covered person is not an allowable expense.
(e) The definition of "allowable expense" may exclude certain types of coverage or benefits such as dental care, vision care, prescription drug or hearing aids. A plan that limits the application of "COB" to certain coverages or benefits may limit the definition of allowable expenses in its contract to expenses that are similar to the expenses that it provides. When "COB" is restricted to specific coverages or benefits in a contract, the definition of allowable expense includes similar expenses to which "COB" applies.
(f) When a plan provides benefits in the form of services, the reasonable cash value of each service will be considered an allowable expense and a benefit paid.
(g) The amount of the reduction may be excluded from allowable expense when a covered person's benefits are reduced under a primary plan:
(i) Because the covered person does not comply with the plan provisions concerning second surgical opinions or precertification of admissions for services; or
(ii) Because the covered person has a lower benefit because the covered person did not use a preferred provider.
(2) "Birthday" means the month and day in a calendar year and does not include the year in which an individual is born.
(3) "Claim" means a request that plan benefits be provided or paid. This term includes a request for:
(a) Services, including supplies;
(b) Payment for all or a portion of expenses incurred;
(c) A combination of paragraphs (C)(3)(a) and (C)(3)(b) of this rule; or
(d) Indemnification.
(4) "Closed panel plan" means a plan that provides health benefits to covered persons primarily in the form of services through a panel of providers that have contracted with or are employed by the plan, and that excludes benefits for services provided by other providers, except in cases of emergency or referral by a panel member.
(5) "Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1985" or "COBRA" means coverage provided under a right of continuation pursuant to federal law.
(6) "Coordination of benefits" or "COB" means a procedure establishing the order in which plans shall pay their claims, and permitting secondary plans to reduce their benefits so that the combined benefits of all plans do not exceed total allowable expenses.
(7) "Custodial parent" means:
(a) The parent awarded custody of a child by a court decree; or
(b) In the absence of a court decree, the parent with whom the child resides more than one half of the calendar year without regard to any temporary visitation.
(8) "Group-type contract" means a contract not available to the general public which is obtained and maintained only because of membership in, or in connection with, a particular organization or group, including blanket coverage. This term does not include an individually underwritten and issued, guaranteed renewable policy even if purchased through payroll deduction at a premium savings to the insured since the insured would have a right to maintain or renew the policy independently of continued employment with the employer.
(9) "High-deductible health plan" has the meaning given the term under Section 223 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended by the Medicare Prescription Drug, Improvement and Modernization Act of 2003.
(10) "Hospital indemnity benefits" means benefits which are not related to actual expenses incurred. The term does not include reimbursement-type benefits even if they are designed or administered to give the insured the right to elect indemnity-type benefits at the time of claim.
(11)
(a) "Plan" means a form of coverage with which coordination is allowed. Separate parts of a plan for members of a group that are provided through alternative contracts that are intended to be part of a coordinated package of benefits are considered one plan and there is no "COB" among the separate parts of the plan.
(b) The definition of plan in a contract shall state the types of coverage which will be considered in applying the "COB" provision of that contract. Whether the contract uses the term "plan" or some other term such as "program", the contractual definition may be no broader than the definition of "plan" in paragraph (C)(11) of this rule.
(c) Plan includes:
(i) Group and non-group insurance and subscriber contracts;
(ii) An uninsured arrangement of group or group-type coverage;
(iii) Group or group-type and non-group coverage through a health insuring corporation, closed panel plan or other prepayment, group practice or individual practice plan;
(iv) Group-type contracts;
(v) The medical care components of long term care contracts, such as skilled nursing care;
(vi) Medical benefits coverage under automobile "no fault" and traditional "fault" type contract; and
(vii) Medicare or other governmental benefits, as permitted by law, except as provided in paragraph (C)(11)(d)(vii) of this rule. That part of the definition of plan may be limited to the hospital, medical, and surgical benefits of the governmental program.
(d) The term "plan" does not include:
(i) Hospital indemnity benefits or other fixed indemnity coverage;
(ii) Accident only coverage or specified accident coverage;
(iii) A supplemental sickness and accident policy excluded from coordination of benefits pursuant to sections 3923.37 and/or 1751.56 of the Revised Code;
(iv) School accident-type coverage;
(v) Benefits provided in long term care insurance policies for non-medical services, for example, personal care, adult day care, homemaker services, assistance with activities of daily living, respite care and custodial care or for contracts that pay a fixed daily benefit without regard to expenses incurred or the receipt of services;
(vi) Medicare supplement policies; or
(vii) A state plan under medicaid, or other governmental plan when, by law, its benefits are in excess of those of any private insurance plan or other non-governmental plan.
(12) "Primary plan" means a plan whose benefits for a person's health care coverage are determined without taking the existence of any other plan into consideration. A plan is a primary plan if either of the following conditions is true:
(a) A plan either does not contain order of benefit rules, or it has rules which differ from those permitted by this rule; or
(b) All plans which cover the person use the order of benefits determination required by this rule, and under this rule that plan determines its benefits first.
(13) "School accident-type coverage" means a contract covering elementary, junior high, high school and or college students for accidents only, including athletic injuries, on a twenty-four hour basis or on a "to and from school" basis.
(14) "Secondary plan" means any plan which is not a primary plan. If a person is covered by more than one secondary plan, the order of benefit determination rules of this rule determine the order in which their benefits are determined in relationship to each other.
(15) "This plan" means, in a "COB" provision, the part of a contract providing health care benefits to which the "COB" provision applies and which may be reduced because of the benefits of other plans.
(D) Solicitation, certificate and contract provisions
(1) The following language, printed in twelve point type, shall be included as a separate and distinct paragraph on the first page in at least one solicitation, marketing, advertising or enrollment document which shall be provided to potential subscribers of a plan subject to this rule:
"WARNING: IF YOU OR YOUR FAMILY MEMBERS ARE COVERED BY MORE THAN ONE HEALTH CARE PLAN, YOU MAY NOT BE ABLE TO COLLECT BENEFITS FROM BOTH PLANS. EACH PLAN MAY REQUIRE YOU TO FOLLOW ITS RULES OR USE SPECIFIC DOCTORS AND HOSPITALS, AND IT MAY BE IMPOSSIBLE TO COMPLY WITH BOTH PLANS AT THE SAME TIME. BEFORE YOU ENROLL IN THIS PLAN, READ ALL OF THE RULES VERY CAREFULLY AND COMPARE THEM WITH THE RULES OF ANY OTHER PLAN THAT COVERS YOU OR YOUR FAMILY."
(2) The following language, printed in twelve point type, shall be included as a separate and distinct paragraph on the first page in every contract, policy, certificate/evidence of coverage and summary plan description issued to a beneficiary under a plan subject to this rule:
"NOTICE: IF YOU OR YOUR FAMILY MEMBERS ARE COVERED BY MORE THAN ONE HEALTH CARE PLAN, YOU MAY NOT BE ABLE TO COLLECT BENEFITS FROM BOTH PLANS. EACH PLAN MAY REQUIRE YOU TO FOLLOW ITS RULES OR USE SPECIFIC DOCTORS AND HOSPITALS, AND IT MAY BE IMPOSSIBLE TO COMPLY WITH BOTH PLANS AT THE SAME TIME. READ ALL OF THE RULES VERY CAREFULLY, INCLUDING THE COORDINATION OF BENEFITS SECTION, AND COMPARE THEM WITH THE RULES OF ANY OTHER PLAN THAT COVERS YOU OR YOUR FAMILY."
(3) A contract which utilizes "COB" shall contain the "COB" provisions set forth in appendix A to this rule. Changes in words and format may be made to fit the language and style of the rest of the contract or to reflect the difference among plans which provide services, which pay benefits for expenses incurred, and which indemnify. No substantive changes are permitted.
(4) Each certificate issued under a group contract which utilizes "COB" shall contain the "COB" provisions set forth in appendix A to this rule. Changes in words and format may be made to fit the language and style of the rest of the group certificate or to reflect the difference among plans which provide services, which pay benefits for expenses incurred and which indemnify. No substantive changes are permitted.
If a group policyholder or contractholder distributes its own solicitation, marketing, advertising or enrollment documents to its members who are potential subscribers of a plan subject to these rules, then the plan shall make the foregoing language available for use by the group.
(E) Prohibited coordination and benefit design
(1) A contract shall not reduce benefits on the basis that:
(a) Another plan exists and the covered person did not enroll in that plan;
(b) A person is or could have been covered under another plan, except with respect to part B of medicare; or
(c) A person has elected an option under another plan providing a lower level of benefits than another option which could have been elected.
(2) No contract, certificate or policy shall contain a provision that its benefits are "always excess" or "always secondary" to any other plan, except as otherwise provided in this rule.
(3) Under the terms of a closed panel plan, benefits are not payable if the covered person does not use the services of a closed panel plan provider. In most instances, "COB" does not occur if a covered person is enrolled in two or more closed panel plans and obtains services from a provider in one of the closed panel plans because the other closed panel plan (the one whose providers were not used) has no liability. However, "COB" may occur during the plan year when the covered person receives emergency services that would have been covered by both plans. Then the secondary plan shall use the provisions of paragraph (H) of this rule to determine the amount it should pay for the benefit.
(4) No plan may use a "COB" provision, or any other provision that allows it to reduce its benefits with respect to any other coverage its insured may have that does not meet the definition of plan under paragraph (C)(11) of this rule.
(F) Requirements
(1) Allowable expense
(a) When plans have differing allowable expenses, the larger allowable expense is used for the purpose of division (C) of section 3902.13 of the Revised Code. When benefits paid by a primary plan are less than the allowable expenses, the secondary plan pays or provides its benefits toward any remaining balance otherwise payable by the insured or the certificate holder. A secondary plan is not required to make a payment of an amount which exceeds the amount it would have paid if it were the primary plan, but in no event, when combined with the amount paid by the primary plan, shall payments by the secondary plan exceed one hundred per cent of the larger of the expenses allowable under the provisions of the applicable policies and contracts.
(b) When a plan provides benefits in the form of services, the reasonable cash value of each service is both an allowable expense and a benefit paid.
(c) When a contract restricts "COB" to specific coverage, allowable expense includes the expenses or services to which "COB" applies under the contract.
(2) A secondary plan is not required to pay for services unless such services are received in accordance with the rules and provisions outlined in its policy, contract or certificate.
(3) A primary plan pays or provides its benefits as if the secondary plan does not exist. A plan that does not contain a coordination of benefits provision shall not take into account benefits of other plans. However, a contract holder's coverage which is designed to supplement a part of a basic package of benefits may provide that the supplementary coverage is excess to any other parts of the plan provided by that contract holder. Examples of these types of situations are major medical coverages that are superimposed over base plan hospital and surgical benefits, and insurance type coverages that are written in connection with a closed panel plan to provide out-of-network benefits. A plan that does not contain order of benefit determination provisions that are consistent with this rule is always the primary plan unless the provisions of both plans, regardless of the provisions of paragraph (F)(3) of this rule, state that the complying plan is primary.
(4) If the primary plan is a closed panel plan and the secondary plan is not a closed panel plan, the secondary plan pays or provides benefits as if it were the primary plan when a covered person uses a non-panel provider, except for emergency services or authorized referrals that are paid or provided by the primary plan.
(5) When multiple contracts providing coordinated coverage are treated as a single plan under this rule, this paragraph applies only to the plan as a whole, and coordination among the component contracts is governed by the terms of the contracts. If more than one carrier pays or provides benefits under the plan, the carrier designated as primary within the plan is responsible for the plan's compliance with this rule.
(6) A secondary plan may take the benefits of another plan into account when, under this rule, it is secondary to the other plan.
(7) Nothing in this chapter prevents a third party payer and a provider from entering into an agreement under which the provider agrees to accept, as payment in full from any or all plans providing benefits to a beneficiary, an amount which is less than the provider's regular charges.
(G) Order of benefit determination
Order of benefits are determined by the first applicable provision set forth in this paragraph:
(1) Non-dependent or dependent. The benefits of a plan covering the person as an employee, member, insured, subscriber or retiree, other than as a dependent, are determined before those of a plan which covers the person as a dependent. However, the benefits of a plan covering the person as a dependent are determined before the benefits of a plan covering the person as other than a dependent if the person is a medicare beneficiary, and as a result of Title XVIII of the Social Security Act and its implementing regulations:
(a) Medicare is secondary to the plan covering the person as a dependent; and
(b) Medicare is primary to the plan covering the person as other than a dependent (e.g. a retired employee).
(2) Dependent child covered under more than one plan. Unless there is a court decree stating otherwise, plans covering a dependent child determine the order of benefits as follows:
(a) For a dependent child whose parents are married (not separated or divorced) or are living together, whether or not they have ever been married:
(i) The plan of the parent whose birthday falls earlier in the calendar year is the primary plan;
(ii) If both parents have the same birthday, the plan which has covered the parent for a longer period of time is the primary plan;
(iii) If one plan does not have the rule described in paragraphs (G)(2)(a)(i) and (G)(2)(a)(ii) of this rule because that plan is not subject to the "COB" statutes, but instead has a rule based upon the gender of the parent; and if, as a result, the plans do not agree on the order of benefits, the plan containing the rule based upon the gender of the parent determines the order of benefits.
(b) For a dependent child whose parents are divorced or separated or are not living together, whether or not they have ever been married:
(i) If the specific terms of the court decree state that one of the parents is responsible for the health care expenses or health care coverage of the child, and the plan of that parent has actual knowledge of those terms, that plan is primary. If the parent with responsibility has no health care coverage for the dependent child's health care expenses, but that parent's spouse does, that parent's spouse's plan is the primary plan. This item does not apply with respect to any plan year during which benefits are paid or provided before the entity has actual knowledge of the court decree provision.
(ii) If a court decree states that both parents are responsible for the dependent child's health care expenses or health care coverage, the provisions of paragraph (G)(2)(a) of this rule determine the order of benefits.
(iii) If the specific terms of the court decree state that the parents share joint custody, without stating that one of the parents is responsible for the health care expenses or health care coverage of the child, the plans covering the child are subject to the order of benefit determination contained in paragraph (G)(2)(a) of this rule.
(iv) If there is no court decree allocating responsibility for the child's health care expenses or health care coverage, the order of benefits for the child are as follows:
(a) The plan covering the custodial parent;
(b) The plan covering the custodial parent's spouse;
(c) The plan covering the non-custodial parent; and then
(d) The plan covering the non-custodial parent's spouse.
(c) For a dependent child covered under more than one plan of individuals who are not the parents of the child, the order of benefits is determined, as applicable, under paragraph (G)(2)(a) or (G)(2)(b) of this rule as if those individuals were the parents of the child.
(3) Active employee or retired or laid-off employee. The benefits of a plan which covers a person as an active employee who is neither laid off nor retired, or as that active employee's dependent, is the primary plan. If the other plan does not have this provision, and if, as a result, the plans do not agree on the order of benefits, this provision does not apply.
This paragraph does not supersede paragraph (G)(1) of this rule. Coverage provided an individual as a retired worker and as a dependent of that individual's spouse as an active worker will be determined under paragraph (G)(1) of this rule. Paragraph (G)(3) of this rule covers the situation where one individual is covered under one policy as an active worker and under another policy as a retired worker. It would also apply to an individual covered as a dependent under both of those policies.
(4) "COBRA" or state continuation coverage. If a person whose coverage is provided under a right of continuation pursuant to federal or state law also is covered under another plan, the following shall be the order of benefit determination:
(a) The plan covering the person as an employee, member, subscriber or retiree (or as that person's dependent) is the primary plan;
(b) The continuation coverage provided pursuant to federal or state law is the secondary plan.
If the other plan does not have the rule described above, and if, as a result, the plans do not agree on the order of benefits, this rule is ignored. This provision does not apply if the order of benefits can be determined under paragraph (G)(1) of this rule.
(5) Longer or shorter length of coverage. If none of the preceding provisions determines the order of benefits, the plan which has covered the person for the longer period of time is the primary plan and the plan which covered that person for the shorter period of time is the secondary plan. For the purposes of this provision:
(a) The time covered under a plan is measured from the claimant's first date of coverage under that plan, or, if that date is not readily available for a group plan, the date the claimant first became a member of the group covered by that plan is used as the date from which to determine the length of time the person's coverage under the present plan has been in force;
(b) Two successive plans shall be treated as one if the covered person was eligible under the second plan within twenty-four hours after coverage under the first plan ended;
(c) The start of a new plan does not include:
(i) A change in the amount or scope of a plan's benefits;
(ii) A change in the entity that pays, provides or administers the plan's benefits; or
(iii) A change from one type of plan to another, such as, from a single plan to a multiple employer plan.
(6) If none of the preceding rules determines the order of benefits, the allowable expenses shall be shared equally between the plans.
(H) Procedure to be followed by secondary plan to calculate benefits and pay a claim.
In determining the amount to be paid by the secondary plan on a claim, should the plan wish to coordinate benefits, the secondary plan calculates the benefits it would have paid on the claim in the absence of other health care coverage and apply that calculated amount to any allowable expense under its plan that is unpaid by the primary plan. The secondary plan may reduce its payment by the amount so that, when combined with the amount paid by the primary plan, the total benefits paid or provided by all plans for the claim do not exceed one hundred per cent of the total allowable expense for that claim. In addition, the secondary plan credits to its plan deductible any amounts it would have credited to its deductible in the absence of other health care coverage.
(I) Miscellaneous provisions
(1) A secondary plan which provides benefits in the form of services may recover the reasonable cash value of the services from a primary plan, to the extent that benefits for the services are covered by, and have not already been paid or provided by the primary plan. Nothing in this paragraph obligates a plan to reimburse a covered person in cash for value of services provided by a plan that provides benefits in the form of services.
(2) A plan with order of benefit determination rules which comply with this rule (complying plan) may coordinate its benefits with a plan which is "excess" or "always secondary" or which uses order of benefit determination rules which are inconsistent with this rule (non-complying plan) as follows:
(a) If the complying plan is the primary plan, it pays or provides its benefits first;
(b) If the complying plan is the secondary plan, it pays or provides its benefits first, but the amount of the benefits payable are determined as if the complying plan were the secondary plan. Such payment is the limit of the complying plan's liability;
(c) If a non-complying plan does not provide the information needed by a complying plan to determine its benefits within a reasonable time after it is requested to do so, the complying plan shall assume that the benefits of the non-complying plan are identical to its own, and pays its benefits accordingly. However, if the complying plan receives information within two years of payment as to the actual benefits of the non-complying plan, it shall adjust payments accordingly.
(d) If a non-complying plan which paid or provided benefits as a primary plan reduces its benefits so that a claimant receives less in benefits than he would have received had the complying plan paid or provided its benefits as the secondary plan, the complying plan shall advance to, or on behalf of, the claimant an amount equal to such difference. The amount advanced, combined with other amounts previously paid by the complying plan, shall not exceed the liability of the complying plan as calculated as if the complying plan were the primary plan.
In consideration of the advance, the complying plan shall be subrogated to all rights of the claimant against the non-complying plan. The advance by the complying plan is without prejudice to any claim it may have against the non-complying plan in the absence of subrogation.
(3) A term such as "medical care" or "dental care" may be substituted for the term "health care" in describing the coverages to which the "COB" provisions of a contract apply.
(4) Provisions regarding either "COB" or subrogation may be included in a health care benefits contract without compelling the inclusion or exclusion of the other in that contract.
(5) If the plans cannot agree on the order of benefits within thirty calendar days after the plans have received all of the information needed to pay the claim, the plans shall immediately pay the claim in equal shares and determine their relative liabilities following payment, except that no plan is required to pay more than it would have paid had it been the primary plan.
(J) This rule is applicable to every contract which provides health care benefits and which was issued on or after the effective date of this rule.
(K) Penalties
Whoever violates this rule or any paragraph thereof is deemed to have engaged in an unfair and deceptive insurance act or practice under sections 3901.19 to 3901.26 of the Revised Code, and is subject to proceedings pursuant to those sections.
(L) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
View Appendix
Last updated November 16, 2023 at 8:34 AM
History
- Effective: November 16, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-8-02 Provider discounts.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to set the requirements that third party payers shall follow if the third party payer receives any discount from billed charges from a health care provider.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent of insurance under sections 3901.041 and 3901.19 to 3901.22 of the Revised Code.
(C) Definitions
(1) "Discount" means any negotiated reduction or variation from the schedule of billed charges (including capitation) that a health care provider otherwise would require a patient and/or the patient's third party payer to pay to that health care provider.
(2) "Billed charges" means the non-discounted schedule of charges for services that the health care provider would use to invoice a patient for services rendered.
(3) "Third party payer" means any of the following:
(a) An insurance company;
(b) A preferred provider organization;
(c) A labor organization;
(d) An employer;
(e) An administrator subject to sections 3959.01 to 3959.16 of the Revised Code;
(f) A multiple employer welfare arrangement subject to sections 1739.01 to 1739.99 of the Revised Code.
(g) Any other person that is obligated pursuant to a benefits contract to reimburse for covered health care services to beneficiaries under such contract, except that "third party payer" does not include a health insuring corporation licensed pursuant to Chapter 1751. of the Revised Code.
(4) "Reasonable cash value" means the amount the third party payer would reimburse the patient or health care provider in the absence of a capitation agreement.
(D) Prohibited activity
No third party payer that has a negotiated discount with a health care provider, shall do the following:
(1) Fail to disclose the existence of such discount to any policy holder, certificate holder, subscriber or enrollee who has purchased health care coverage from the third party payer. Such disclosure shall be contained in the body of the insurance contract, and the certificate if the contract is a group insurance program. Only disclosure of the existence of such discount is required, disclosure of the extent of the discount is not required.
(2) Fail to calculate any annual or lifetime maximums only on the basis of actual payments made to non-capitated health care providers. For capitated health care providers the reasonable cash value of the services provided shall be used to calculate annual or lifetime maximums.
(3) Fail to maintain adequate records of the compliance with this rule.
(E) Penalties
Failure to comply with the requirements of paragraph (D) of this rule is an unfair and deceptive practice within the meaning of section 3901.21 of the Revised Code.
(F) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated November 16, 2023 at 8:34 AM
History
- Effective: November 16, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-8-03 Standardized health claim form rule.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to standardize the forms used in the billing and reimbursement of health care, reduce the number of forms utilized, increase efficiency in the reimbursement of health care through standardization and encourage the use of electronic data interchange of health care expenses and reimbursement.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041, 3901.21 and 3902.22 of the Revised Code.
(C) Definitions
As used in this rule
(1) "CDT codes" means the most current dental terminology and codes prescribed by the American dental association.
(2) "Claim" means any request submitted to a third-party payer for benefits or proceeds under a benefit plan or contract on a standardized health claim form as described in paragraph (E)(3) or (E)(4) of this rule.
(3) "CPT codes" means the most current procedural terminology and codes as published by the American medical association (AMA).
(4) "CMS" means the centers for medicare and medicaid services of the U.S. department of health and human services formerly known as the federal health care financing administration of the U.S. department of health and human services.
(5) "CMS form 1450" means the health insurance claim form published by CMS for use by institutional care practitioners. For purposes of this rule, the CMS form 1450 includes the UB-04 form and its successors.
(6) "CMS form 1500" means the health insurance claim form published by CMS for use by health care practitioners. For purposes of this rule, the CMS form 1500 includes successor forms as approved by CMS.
(7) "HCPCS" means CMS's common procedure coding system which is based upon the AMA's most current CPT publication.
(a) "HCPCS level 1 codes" means the AMA's CPT codes with the exception of anesthesiology services;
(b) "HCPCS level 2 codes" means the codes for physician and non-physician services which are not included in the most current CPT publication;
(c) "HCPCS level 3 codes" means the codes for services needed by individual contractors or state agencies to process claims. They are used for items and services not having the frequency of use, geographic distribution, or general applicability needed to justify a code assignment at a higher level.
(8) "Health care practitioner" means:
(a) A chiropractor licensed under Chapter 4734. of the Revised Code;
(b) A corporation or partnership of health care practitioners defined in this rule;
(c) A dentist licensed under Chapter 4715. of the Revised Code;
(d) A dietitian licensed under Chapter 4759. of the Revised Code;
(e) A nurse licensed under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code;
(f) An optometrist licensed under Chapter 4725. of the Revised Code;
(g) A physician as defined under section 4730.01 of the Revised Code;
(h) A podiatrist licensed under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code;
(i) A psychologist licensed under Chapter 4732. of the Revised Code; or
(j) A therapist, including speech, physical, respiratory and occupational therapists licensed under Chapter 4753., 4755. or 4761. of the Revised Code.
(9) "ICD-10-CM codes" means the disease codes in the most current international classification of diseases, clinical modifications published by the U.S. department of health and human services.
(10) "Institutional care practitioner" means:
(a) A hospice licensed under Chapter 3712. of the Revised Code;
(b) A hospital as defined under section 3727.01 of the Revised Code; or
(c) A home or residential facility licensed under Chapters 3721. and 5119. of the Revised Code.
(11) "J400 form" means the uniform dental claim form approved by the American dental association for use by dentists. For purposes of this rule, the J400 form includes its successors.
(12) "Medicare" means Title XVIII of the federal Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1395).
(13) "NCPDP universal claim form" means the form adopted for use by the national council for prescription drug programs, including forms PUCFCC and PUCF2PT. For purposes of this rule, the NCPDP universal claim form includes its successors.
(14) "Other provider" means a supplier of health care services or supplies not meeting the definition of health care practitioner or institutional care practitioner, including but not limited to a pharmacist, physician assistant, nurse aide, or supplier of durable medical equipment.
(15) "Third-party payer" is as defined in section 3901.38 of the Revised Code.
(D) Applicability and scope
Except as otherwise specifically provided, the requirements of this rule apply to all issuers of policies or contracts of insurance, administrators of self-funded employee benefit plans, and other forms of coverage involved in the reimbursement of health care expenses, and all health care and institutional care practitioners licensed by this state. It is not to cover claims involving medicare, parts A or B; medicaid, the tricare program or workers' compensation insurance. Nothing herein shall be construed to create or imply a private cause of action for violation of this rule.
(E) General provisions
(1) A health care practitioner, institutional care practitioner, or other provider that submits a paper claim shall use the CMS form 1500, UB-04/CMS form 1450, NCPDP universal claim form or the J400 form which, for the purpose of this rule, are deemed approved for use in this state.
(2) A health care practitioner, institutional care practitioner, or other provider that submits an electronic claim shall do so as provided in federal regulations for electronic transactions, codified at 45 CFR Parts 160 and 162.
(3) Third-party payers transacting business in this state shall accept paper claims submitted on the CMS form 1500, UB-40/CMS form 1450, NCPDP universal claim form or the J400 form which, for the purpose of this rule, are deemed approved for use in this state.
(4) Third-party payers transacting business in this state shall also accept electronic claims submitted as provided in federal regulations for electronic transactions, codified at 45 CFR Parts 160 and 162.
(5) Nothing in this rule shall prohibit a third-party payer and an institutional care practitioner, health care practitioner or other provider from entering into a mutual agreement regarding the submission of claims to the third-party payer.
(6) All health care practitioners and institutional care practitioners shall:
(a) Use the most current editions of the CMS form 1500, CMS form 1450 and J400 form, and the most current instructions for these forms, in filing paper claims with third-party payers; and
(b) Modify their billing practices to encompass the coding changes for all billing and claim filing by the effective date of the changes set forth by the developers of the forms, codes and procedures required under this rule.
(7) Nothing in this rule shall prevent a third-party payer from requesting supporting documentation as described in section 3901.381 of the Revised Code.
(F) Requirements for use of CMS form 1500
(1) Health care practitioners, other than dentists, shall use the CMS form 1500 and instructions provided by CMS for use of the CMS form 1500 when filing paper claims with third-party payers for professional services.
(2) A third-party payer may not require a health care practitioner to use any coding system for the filing of claims for health care services other than the following:
(a) HCPCS codes;
(b) ICD-10-CM codes;
(c) CPT codes; or
(d) Other codes as accepted by the national uniform claim committee.
(3) For anesthesia services use HCPCS level 1 codes for anesthesia.
(4) Third-party payers may accept the American society of anesthesiologists relative value guide codes for anesthesia services, if mutually agreed to with the provider.
(5) A third-party payer may not require a health care practitioner to use any other descriptor with a code or to furnish additional information with the initial submission of a CMS form 1500 except under the following circumstances:
(a) When the procedure code used describes a treatment or service which is not otherwise classified; or
(b) When the procedure code is followed by the CPT modifier 22, 52 or 99. A health care practitioner may use item 19 of the CMS form 1500 to explain the multiple modifiers.
(6) A health care practitioner may use item 19 of the CMS form 1500 to indicate the form is an amended version of a form previously submitted to the third-party payer by inserting the word "amended" in the space provided. If the CMS form 1500 is submitted electronically, adjustments or amendments can be accepted electronically.
(7) A health care practitioner billing for services based on the amount of time involved shall indicate the number of units in item 24G of the CMS form 1500 if item 24G it is not used to specify the number of days of treatment.
(8) Third-party payers shall provide reimbursement to health care practitioners and other providers using the first that applies:
(a) National provider identifier;
(b) Federal tax identification number; or
(c) Social security number.
(G) Requirements for use of CMS form 1450/UB-04
(1) Institutional care practitioners shall use the CMS form 1450 and instructions provided by CMS for use of the CMS form 1450 when filing paper claims with third-party payers for professional services.
(2) A third-party payer may not require an institutional care practitioner to use any coding system for the filing of claims for health care services other than the following:
(a) ICD-10-CM codes;
(b) HCPCS level 1 codes;
(c) HCPCS level 2 codes;
(d) HCPCS level 3 codes;
(e) Other codes as accepted by the national uniform billing committee; or
(f) If charges include direct service of a health care practitioner, the information outlined in paragraph (E) of this rule.
(3) Institutional care practitioners shall specify the license number of physical therapists and other health care professionals rendering services designated as physical therapy in item 83 of CMS form 1450.
(H) Requirements for use of J400 form
(1) A dentist shall use the J400 form and instructions for billing patients or their representatives directly and filing paper claims with third-party payers for professional services; and
(2) A third-party payer may not require a dentist to use any code other than the CDT codes, for the filing of claims for dental care services.
(I) Requirements for use of NCPDP universal claim form
A pharmacist shall use the NCPDP universal claim form to submit paper claims with third-party payers.
(J) Penalties
Failure to comply with any requirements of paragraphs (E) to (I) of this rule is an unfair and deceptive practice within the meaning of section 3901.21 of the Revised Code.
(K) Severability
If any paragraph, term or provision of this rule is adjudged invalid for any reason, the judgment shall not affect, impair or invalidate any other paragraph, term or provision of this rule, but the remaining paragraphs, terms and provisions shall be and continue in full force and effect.
Last updated October 11, 2023 at 1:53 PM
History
- Effective: November 3, 2016
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-8-04 Accreditation of independent review organizations.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to govern the accreditation and operation of independent review organizations.
(B) Authority
This rule is issued pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041, 3901.19 to 3901.26 and 3922.22 of the Revised Code.
(C) Applicability and scope
Except as otherwise provided, this rule applies to:
(1) Health plan issuers as defined in section 3922.01 of the Revised Code; and
(2) Independent review organizations as defined in section 3922.01 of the Revised Code seeking accreditation or accredited by the superintendent to conduct external reviews on behalf of health plan issuers on or after January 1, 2012.
(D) Definitions
For purposes of this rule, the terms have the same meanings as those in Chapter 3922. of the Revised Code.
(E) General information
(1) Each applicant for accreditation shall submit to the superintendent current verification of their accreditation by a national organization that accredits organizations providing expert reviews and related services and shall certify compliance with relevant Ohio law on a form prescribed by the superintendent.
(2) The independent review organization shall provide to the superintendent a certified statement from an officer of the independent review organization that the independent review organization is in compliance with divisions (B) and (C)(1) of section 3922.14 of the Revised Code concerning prohibited affiliations.
(3) The independent review organization shall provide to the superintendent any other information the superintendent believes necessary to ensure that the independent review organization meets all of the requirements stated in Chapter 3922. of the Revised Code.
(4) All policies and procedures described in paragraph (E) of this rule shall be documented and available for inspection upon request of the superintendent.
(5) If there are no acceptable nationally recognized private accrediting entities providing independent review organization accreditation, each applicant for accreditation by the superintendent shall apply on a form prescribed by the superintendent and provide the following information:
(a) A description of the areas of expertise available from the independent review organization and the number of clinical reviewers with expertise in each area, including subspecialties.
(b) A description of the methods of recruiting and selecting impartial clinical reviewers and matching the clinical reviewers to specific cases.
(c) A description of the policies and procedures for orientation and training of the clinical reviewers who perform external reviews.
(d) A description of the procedures employed to ensure that clinical reviewers conducting external reviews meet all of the requirements in section 3922.15 of the Revised Code.
(e) A description of the policies and procedures employed to protect the confidentiality of individual medical and treatment records, personal information, and protected health information in accordance with state and federal laws.
(f) A description of the procedures to ensure that the independent review organization, clinical reviewer(s) or health care provider(s) do not have any prohibited affiliations as outlined in divisions (B) and (C)(1) of section 3922.14 of the Revised Code.
(g) A description of the procedures to ensure that no conflict of interest exists in accordance with paragraph (G) of this rule.
(h) A description of the quality assurance program as outlined in section 3922.14 of the Revised Code and including the requirements of paragraph (H)(2) of this rule.
(i) A description of the procedures for compliance with division (A)(2) of section 3922.14 of the Revised Code ensuring that appropriate personnel and systems are accessible and available twenty-four hours per day, seven days per week to receive and respond to a notice of selection for an external review and provide appropriate instructions.
(F) Confidentiality requirements
(1) An independent review organization shall preserve the confidentiality of individual medical and treatment records, personal information, and protected health information as defined in division (U) of section 3922.01 of the Revised Code. This includes but is not limited to:
(a) Name;
(b) Address;
(c) Telephone number;
(d) Social security number;
(e) Medical history, diagnosis, prognosis, or medical condition; and
(f) Financial information.
(2) An independent review organization may not disclose or publish individual medical and treatment records, personal information, protected health information, or other confidential information about a covered person without the prior written consent of the covered person or as otherwise required by law. An independent review organization may provide confidential information to a third party under contract or affiliated with the independent review organization for the sole purpose of performing the external review. Information provided to such third parties shall remain confidential.
(3) The independent review organization shall maintain policies and procedures to protect the confidentiality of individual medical and treatment records, personal information, and protected health information in accordance with state and federal laws.
(4) An independent review organization shall preserve the confidentiality of proprietary information of the health plan issuer and shall not disclose such information without the prior written consent of the company or as otherwise required by law.
(5) All policies and procedures described in paragraph (F) of this rule shall be documented and available for inspection upon request of the superintendent.
(G) Conflicts of interest
(1) The independent review organization shall maintain policies and procedures ensuring that:
(a) No clinical reviewer or health care provider with which the clinical reviewer is affiliated shall have any prohibited affiliation as outlined in divisions (B) and (C)(1) of section 3922.14 of the Revised Code; and
(b) No conflict of interest exists among:
(i) The independent review organization and its clinical reviewers;
(ii) The independent review organization and the health plan issuer or any officer, director, or managerial employee of the health plan issuer; and
(iii) The independent review organization and the parties involved in the case under review.
(2) All policies and procedures described in paragraph (G) of this rule shall be documented and available for inspection upon request of the superintendent.
(H) Administrative and operational policies and procedures
(1) The independent review organization shall retain the services of a physician currently licensed and in good standing to practice medicine by a state licensing agency in the United States to provide medical oversight of the external review process.
(2) The independent review organization shall develop and maintain written policies and procedures that govern all aspects of both the standard external review process and the expedited external review process set forth in Chapter 3922. of the Revised Code, including a quality assurance mechanism that does all of the following:
(a) Ensures that external reviews are conducted within the time frames prescribed under Chapter 3922. of the Revised Code and that the required notices are provided in a timely manner;
(b) Ensures the selection of qualified and impartial clinical reviewers to conduct external reviews on behalf of the independent review organization;
(c) Ensures that chosen clinical reviewers are suitably matched according to their area of expertise to specific cases and that the independent review organization employs or contracts with an adequate number of clinical reviewers to meet this requirement;
(d) Ensures the confidentiality of medical and treatment records and clinical review criteria;
(e) Ensures that any person employed by, or who is under contract with, the independent review organization adheres to the requirements of Chapter 3922. of the Revised Code;
(f) Ensures that the external reviews and recommendations provided by the clinical reviewers are based on sound clinical evidence and take into consideration the information identified in Chapter 3922. of the Revised Code;
(g) Ensures that in addition to the information required for consideration by section 3922.07 of the Revised Code, to the extent available and appropriate, a clinical reviewer considers relevant federal and state laws and guidelines when conducting its review; and
(h) Ensures that external reviews and recommendations are clear and monitored by the independent review organization for quality on an ongoing basis.
(3) All administrative and operational policies and procedures described in paragraph (H) of this rule shall be documented and available for inspection upon request of the superintendent.
(I) Application examinations
The superintendent or designee may conduct onsite or offsite qualifying examinations of independent review organizations pursuant to sections 3901.011 and 3901.04 of the Revised Code at the expense of the independent review organization. All documents shall be available for inspection at the time of any qualifying examination at the administrative offices of the independent review organization.
(J) Amendments
(1) The independent review organization shall report to the superintendent any material changes in the information in the application or renewal, not later than the thirtieth day before the date on which the change takes effect. This would include but not be limited to notifying the superintendent immediately upon the occurrence of any change to the independent review organization's accreditation to perform external reviews and related services by a national accrediting organization.
(2) Each accredited independent review organization shall notify the superintendent of a change of significant information, including but not limited to, contact information and available areas of expertise, including subspecialties, as soon as possible, but no later than thirty days after a change.
(K) Renewal and examinations
(1) Each accredited independent review organization shall annually apply for renewal of its accreditation in the form prescribed by the superintendent not later than sixty days before the anniversary date of the issuance of the accreditation. Each accredited independent review organization shall include a certification that no material changes exist that have not already been filed with the superintendent. This would include but not be limited to the occurrence of any change to the independent review organization's accreditation to perform external reviews and related services by a national accrediting organization.
(2) The superintendent or designee may conduct periodic examinations and random audits pursuant to sections 3901.011 and 3901.04 of the Revised Code once an independent review organization has been accredited, to verify compliance with the standards specified in this rule and the Revised Code. These examinations and audits shall be at the expense of the independent review organization. All documents shall be available for inspection at the time of any examination or audit at the administrative offices of the independent review organization. Independent review organizations shall maintain all records concerning external reviews for at least three years after conclusion of each external review.
(3) The superintendent or designee shall have authority to investigate complaints made regarding independent review organizations by covered persons, any authorized representatives, health plan issuers, and health care providers.
(L) Experts
The superintendent may retain third parties, at the expense of the independent review organization, to execute the powers granted to the superintendent including, but not limited to, periodic examinations and random audits.
(M) Termination
(1) An accredited independent review organization may request termination of its accreditation by written or electronic notice to the superintendent at least thirty days prior to the effective date of the termination. No termination of an independent review organization under paragraph (M)(1) of this rule shall be effective until all pending external reviews assigned to that independent review organization have been completed.
(2) The superintendent may immediately revoke accreditation upon receipt of information, including, but not limited to, information filed under paragraph (K) of this rule, if the information is such that the superintendent would not have accredited the independent review organization if that information had been part of the initial application.
(N) Prohibited practices
(1) An independent review organization shall not, with respect to external review activities, permit or provide compensation or anything of value to its employees, agents, or contractors that, directly or indirectly, encourages the affirmation or reversal of an adverse determination.
(2) An independent review organization shall not, with respect to external review activities, accept compensation, other than payment for the cost of the review, or anything of value from any party.
(3) No agreement or contract between an independent review organization and a health plan issuer shall contain any provisions that violate this rule or the Revised Code.
(4) An independent review organization shall not, with respect to external review activities, permit or provide compensation or anything of value to a health plan issuer.
(5) Failure of an independent review organization or health plan issuer to comply with any provision of this rule or the Revised Code is an unfair and deceptive trade practice under sections 3901.19 to 3901.26 of the Revised Code.
(O) Payment
The cost of an external review shall be borne by the health plan issuer. No covered person is required to pay for any part of the cost of the review.
(P) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated November 14, 2024 at 8:54 AM
History
- Effective: November 14, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-8-05 Regulation of third party administrators.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to establish regulatory standards for third party administrators.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041, 3959.01 to 3959.16, and 3959.99 of the Revised Code.
(C) Definitions. As used in this rule:
(1) "Third party administrator" means any person that adjusts or settles claims in connection with life, dental, vision, health, prescription drugs, or disability insurance plans, self-insurance programs or other benefit plans for a sponsor of a plan if either the sponsor or the plan is domiciled in this state or has its principal headquarters or principal administrative offices in this state. "Third party administrator" includes a pharmacy benefit manager.
"Third party administrator" does not include any of the following:
(a) An insurance agent or solicitor licensed in this state whose activities are limited exclusively to the sale of insurance and who does not provide any administrative services;
(b) Any person who administers or operates exclusively the workers' compensation program of an employer who has been granted self-insurance status pursuant to section 4123.35 of the Revised Code;
(c) Any person who administers pension plans for the benefit of its own members or employees or administers pension plans for the benefit of the members or employees of any other person;
(d) Any person that administers an insured plan, a self-insurance program, or other benefit plans in connection with life, vision, dental, health, or disability benefits exclusively for the person's own members or employees; and
(e) Any health insuring corporation organized under Chapter 1751. of the Revised Code, or an insurance company that is authorized to write life or sickness and accident insurance in this state.
(2) "Administrative services" means services to adjust or settle claims.
(3) "Adjusts or settles claims" means the investigation, adjustment, denial, settlement or payment of claims in connection with life, dental, vision, health or disability insurance plans, self-insurance programs or other benefit plans. For the purpose of this rule, self-insurance programs and benefit plans shall include those plans established under section 125 of the Internal Revenue Code.
(4) "Alien corporation" means any corporation whose place of origin is in any country other than the United States and its territories.
(5) "Benefit plan" or "plan" means any arrangement in written form for the payment of life, dental, vision, health or disability benefits to covered persons as defined by the summary plan description. Government entities, excluding federal government, are considered sponsors of plans and government employee benefit plans are "plans" for the purposes of this rule.
(6) "Plan participant" means any individual who is eligible to receive benefits through a plan or trust established by a plan sponsor.
(7) "Person" includes, without limitation, a natural person, a corporation (whether nonprofit or for profit), a partnership, a limited liability company, a sole proprietor, an unincorporated society or association, and two or more third party administrators having a joint or common interest.
(8) "Self-insurance Program" or "self-insured plan" means a program whereby an employer provides a plan of benefits for its employees without involving an intermediate insurance carrier to assume risk or pay claims. "Self-insurance program" and "self-insured plan" includes, but is not limited to, employer programs that pay claims up to a prearranged limited beyond which they purchase insurance coverage to protect the plan against unpredictable or catastrophic losses.
(9) Other terms used herein shall have the same meanings prescribed in section 3959.01 of the Revised Code.
(D) Standards for licensing
For the protection of the people of this state, the superintendent shall not issue, nor permit to exist, any third party administrator's license unless the following standards are met to the satisfaction of the superintendent:
(1) In lieu of testing, the applicant has satisfactorily completed all questions contained in the application for a third party administrator's license;
(2) If a natural person, the applicant has attained the age of eighteen;
(3) Neither the applicant nor any of its officers, directors, or partners has been convicted of a financially related felony;
(4) Neither the applicant nor any of its officers, directors, or partners has had any license or application suspended, revoked, or denied for cause by this or any other state's insurance department;
(5) The applicant has paid the fees prescribed in sections 3959.06 and 3959.10 of the Revised Code.
(E) Licensing requirements
(1) No person, or domestic, foreign or alien corporation shall be, act as, or hold itself out to be a third party administrator in this state unless licensed as such by the superintendent. Only alien corporations that have established a domicile within the United States and its territories may be issued an Ohio third party administrator license.
(2) If a foreign or alien corporation's or foreign person's United States state of domicile provides for licensing of third party administrators under statutes similar to Chapter 3959. of the Revised Code, such person must be licensed as such in its state of domicile and must satisfy the licensing requirements and all applicable Ohio statutes and regulations in order to receive a license in Ohio.
(3) If a foreign or alien corporation's or foreign person's United States state of domicile does not provide for licensing of third party administrators, such person must provide proof from the domicile state that third party administrators are not required to be licensed in that state, and must satisfy the licensing requirements and all applicable Ohio statutes and regulations in order to receive a license in Ohio.
(4) Any person in which a health insuring corporation or insurer holds an ownership interest or which is under common control with the health insuring corporation or insurer as defined in division (B) of section 3901.32 of the Revised Code, any joint venture relationship, or any other arrangement through which the person provides administrative services on behalf of the health insuring corporation or insurer to residents of this state, or to a sponsor or plan that is domiciled in, or has its principal administrative offices within this state, shall not operate in this state as a third party administrator unless licensed as such by the superintendent.
(5) All third party administrators shall demonstrate, to the satisfaction of the superintendent, that they have procured and maintained insurance and bonds in compliance with the requirements of division (C) of section 3959.11 of the Revised Code. All third party administrators shall notify the superintendent of each renewal of required insurance policies and bonds and shall provide to the superintendent satisfactory proof that all required coverage is in force.
(6) Any change of officers, directors, partners, members, or trustees, and any change of shareholders or other owners or members holding five per cent or more of ownership of a third party administrator, or any change of the business address of any third party administrator shall be reported on a form provided by the department of insurance and filed with the department of insurance within fifteen days after the end of the month in which the change occurs.
(7) Requisition forms for all third party administrator licenses shall be available upon request from the department of insurance.
(8) The effective date of a third party administrator's license is that date on which the third party administrator is issued a license by the department.
(F) Application for license
The application for a third party administrator's license shall be accompanied by the following:
(1) A certificate of good standing from the Ohio secretary of state if a domestic corporation;
(2) A certificate of good standing from the secretary of state of the state of domicile, if a foreign or alien corporation;
(3) A statement that the third party administrator and its officers are responsible for the supervision of the actions of any and all personnel and subcontractors who adjust or settle claims on behalf of the third party administrator;
(4) A nonrefundable filing fee as described in section 3959.06 of the Revised Code; and
(5) Such other information as the superintendent may request.
(G) License renewal
In support of the application for license renewal, the third party administrator shall submit:
(1) Proof that all insurance and bonds required by division (C) of section 3959.11 of the Revised Code have been procured and are maintained continuously in force.
(2) A nonrefundable fee as described in section 3959.10 of the Revised Code.
(3) If a foreign or alien corporation or foreign person, a copy of the current home state certification or its equivalent, dated within ninety days of the application, or a copy of the current license issued in the third party administrator's United States state of domicile;
(4) If a foreign or alien corporation or a foreign person's United States state of domicile does not provide for licensing of third party administrators, such person must provide with each renewal application proof from the domicile state that third party administrators are not required to be licensed in that state. Renewal applicants with no home state license requirements must satisfy the licensing requirements and all applicable Ohio statutes and regulations in order to receive a license in Ohio.
(5) If any change of officers, directors, partners, members, or trustees, or any change of shareholders or other owners or members holding five per cent or more of ownership of a third party administrator, or any change of the business address of any third party administrator has occurred and has not been previously reported to the department as set forth in paragraph (E)(6) of this rule, the third party administrator shall include the completed form provided by the superintendent.
(H) Service of legal process
Foreign or alien third party administrators are deemed to have irrevocably appointed the Ohio secretary of state as agent for the acceptance of service of process issued in Ohio in any action or proceeding against the nonresident third party administrator arising out of such licensing or out of such transactions under the license.
(I) Prohibited activities
In addition to the prohibitions found in section 3959.14 of the Revised Code, the following will apply:
(1) No third party administrator shall commingle among its personal assets, or draw against for its own purposes, any monies or contributions of a plan sponsor or plan participant. All monies of plan sponsors held by the third party administrator must be held in a separate trust account.
(2) No third party administrator shall fail to remit insurance company premiums collected from the plan sponsor within the required policy period agreed to in writing between the insurance company or plan sponsor and the third party administrator;
(3) No third party administrator shall place any insurance or reinsurance coverage on behalf of a plan sponsor with an insurer that is not licensed or an approved surplus lines carrier in Ohio; and
(4) No third party administrator shall advertise any of its insured business underwritten by an insurer unless approved in writing by such insurer in advance of its use.
(5) No third party administrator shall withhold from a plan sponsor any claim data, information or statistics pertaining to the plan sponsor, or refuse to provide such claim information for any reason within a reasonable period of time not to exceed fourteen days from the date of request.
(J) Solicitation and proposal documents
(1) In addition to requirements found in division (B) of section 3959.14 of the Revised Code, any written proposal material provided to a prospective or existing plan sponsor shall include, but not be limited to, the following information:
(a) In relation to any specific excess insurance or aggregate excess insurance, identification of all key terms of the policy, including but not limited to:
(i) The name of the insurer.
(ii) The amount of specific stop loss deductible and maximum benefit.
(iii) The projected annual aggregate stop loss deductible, including monthly deductible factors per employee.
(iv) The type of contract covering claims, including all provisions relevant to the period during which covered claims are to be incurred by the plan participants and the period during which covered claims must be paid by the plan claims administrator.
(v) Any special contract provisions relevant to specified covered persons.
(vi) Conditions under which the claims of any plan participants would not be covered by the contract at the date of issue or at some future date.
(b) Identification by name, and description of the relationship and rate of compensation to be paid by the third party administrator to any outside individual or organization for services to be provided as a result of the third party administrator's relationship with the plan sponsor; and
(c) Disclosure of any ownership interest or material business relationship that the third party administrator or any of its corporate officers, directors, shareholders, partners or trustees have in any insurance, reinsurance, ultimate risk bearer, or any other business entity with which the third party administrator proposes to contract as a result of the third party administrator's relationship with the plan sponsor.
(2) The information outlined in paragraph (J)(1) of this rule must be provided in advance of each plan year that the third party administrator provides administrative services for a plan sponsor.
(K) Written agreements
(1) In addition to the requirements of section 3959.11 of the Revised Code, all written agreements must also contain, at a minimum, the following information:
(a) The types of books and records the third party administrator will keep on behalf of the plan sponsor;
(b) A statement to the effect that all records and files belong to the plan sponsor;
(c) A representation of the existence of the required fidelity bond as noted in paragraph (E)(5) of this rule;
(d) Disclosure of the existence of any stop loss insurance and the party responsible for procuring such insurance;
(e) Disclosure of any ownership interest or material business relationship between the third party administrator or its officers, directors, shareholders, partners, or trustees, and any insurance, reinsurance, other ultimate risk bearer, or any other business entity with which the third party administrator proposes to contract as a result of the third party administrator's relationship with the plan sponsor; and
(f) The method of collecting and holding any plan sponsor funds.
(2) Where a policy or contract is issued to a trust, trustee or trustees of a benefit plan, a copy of the trust agreement and any amendments thereto shall be furnished to the plan sponsor by the third party administrator and shall be retained as part of the official records of the third party administrator for the duration of the contract and at least five years thereafter.
(L) Written notice to plan participants when third party administrator's services are utilized
When the services of a third party administrator are utilized, the third party administrator shall provide a written notice to plan participants advising them of the identity of and the relationship between the third party administrator, the plan sponsor, plan participant and any direct insurer.
(M) Books and records maintained by third party administrator
(1) Every third party administrator shall maintain within its principal office or branch office, the customary books and records of all transactions and information relative to covered persons or beneficiaries as prescribed in section 3959.15 of the Revised Code.
(2) The superintendent shall have access to the general business books, records and other information of the third party administrator, but not of the plan sponsor unless the plan sponsor is itself subject to the superintendent's jurisdiction for the purpose of examination, audit and inspection.
(3) An insurer or plan sponsor who enters into a written agreement with a third party administrator shall have access to such books and records of the third party administrator as is reasonably necessary to permit the insurer or plan sponsor to fulfill all of its contractual obligations to insureds or plan participants.
(N) Annual reporting by third party administrator to plan sponsor; disclosures
(1) All third party administrators shall prepare an annual report to be filed with the plan sponsor within ninety days following the end of the fiscal year of the plan. Annual reports must include:
(a) All information required in division (B) of section 3959.14 and division (I) of section 3959.15 of the Revised Code;
(b) Any additional information required by the written agreement; and
(c) The names of all insurance carriers providing any type of insurance coverage to the plan sponsor.
(2) The third party administrator must list in such report any income received from any insurance, reinsurance or ultimate risk bearer, or any other business entity with which the third party administrator proposes to contract as a result of the third party administrator's relationship with the plan sponsor.
(3) A copy of the annual report shall be retained as part of the official records of the third party administrator for at least five years.
(O) Audit by superintendent
(1) A third party administrator shall, at the request of the superintendent, respond in writing within fifteen working days to any complaint received by the superintendent concerning the third party administrator. Such complaint shall include those pertaining to improper adjudication of claims. If the superintendent determines, within the superintendent's discretion, that the frequency or severity of such complaints or infractions justify an examination of the third party administrator's practices and procedures, any such examination by the superintendent, or any persons designated by him, shall be at the expense of the third party administrator. In addition to any other remedy available to the superintendent, failure by the third party administrator to willingly and fully cooperate with this paragraph of the rule may result in either suspension, revocation or refusal to renew a license by the superintendent.
(2) Nothing in this paragraph limits or abridges any other investigatory powers of the superintendent vested in him by Title XXXIX of the Revised Code.
(P) Defined unfair practices
(1) No third party administrator, officer, director, partner, trustee, agent or employee shall engage in any trade practice which is defined in sections 3901.19 to 3901.22 of the Revised Code as, or determined pursuant to these sections to be an unfair or deceptive act or practice. All relevant provisions of sections 3901.19 to 3901.22 of the Revised Code apply to third party administrators and their officers, directors, partners, trustees, agents or employees.
(2) In addition to the practices deemed unfair and deceptive in sections 3901.19 to 3901.22 of the Revised Code, it is deemed an unfair or deceptive practice for any agent, broker, or third party administrator to commit or perform any of the following:
(a) Misrepresenting or withholding any data or information that has been provided by the plan sponsor, or obtained by the third party administrator for the plan sponsor pursuant to its contract, or that is pertinent to underwriting conditions for a contract of insurance between the plan sponsor and any insurer, reinsurer or ultimate risk bearer;
(b) Misrepresenting the existence or the terms of any actual or proposed insurance or reinsurance policy;
(c) Failing to make an appropriate reply within fifteen working days to any inquiries of the department of insurance as they pertain to this rule or sections 3959.01 to 3959.16 and 3959.99 of the Revised Code; and
(d) Failing to submit requested documentation to the department of insurance as it applies to any complaints or inquiries regarding the business practices of a third party administrator.
(Q) Violations
(1) If any third party administrator violates section 3959.05 of the Revised Code, such third party administrator is subject to penalties described within section 3959.99 of the Revised Code.
(2) Nothing in this paragraph limits the power of the superintendent to impose any other penalties on a third party administrator who violates this rule pursuant to the authority vested in him by the Title XXXIX of the Revised Code.
(R) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated November 16, 2023 at 8:34 AM
History
- Effective: November 16, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-8-06 HIV model consent form.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to establish the form and content of the written consent form an insurer uses in order to obtain an applicant's consent to an HIV test.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under section 3901.041 of the Revised Code.
(C) Applicability
This rule applies to all insurers permitted by Chapter 3901. of the Revised Code to require applicants for life or sickness and accident insurance coverage to submit to an HIV test.
(D) Definitions
(1) "AIDS" means the illness designated as acquired immune deficiency syndrome.
(2) "HIV" means the human immunodeficiency virus identified as the causative agent of AIDS.
(3) "HIV test" means any test for the antibody or antigen to HIV that has been approved by the director of health under division (B) of section 3701.241 of the Revised Code.
(4) "Insurer" means any person authorized to engage in the business of life or sickness and accident insurance under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code or any person or governmental entity providing health services coverage for individuals on a self-insurance basis.
(E) Written consent to HIV test
Division (B)(1) of section 3901.46 of the Revised Code, provides that an insurer that requests an applicant to take an HIV test shall obtain the applicant's written consent for the test and shall inform the applicant of the purpose of the test.
In obtaining the applicant's written consent to an HIV test, the insurer must use the exact form set forth in appendix I to this rule.
(F) Severability If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
View Appendix
Last updated November 16, 2023 at 8:35 AM
History
- Effective: November 16, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-8-07 Advertisement of sickness and accident insurance.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to assure truthful and adequate disclosure of all material and relevant information in the advertising of sickness and accident insurance. This purpose is intended to be accomplished by the establishment of, and adherence to, certain minimum standards and guidelines of conduct in the advertising of sickness and accident insurance in a manner which prevents unfair competition among insurers and is conducive to the accurate presentation and description for the insurance buying public of a policy of such insurance offered through various advertising media. Section 3923.16 of the Revised Code prohibits the use of any advertising copy, advertising plan, or plan of solicitation in connection with the solicitation of sickness or accident insurance which is materially misleading or deceptive.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under section 3901.041 of the Revised Code.
(C) Applicability
(1) This rule applies to any sickness and accident insurance "advertisement," as that term is hereinafter defined, intended for presentation, distribution or dissemination in this state when such presentation, distribution or dissemination is made either directly or indirectly by or on behalf of an insurer, agent, broker or solicitor as those terms are defined in the Revised Code and this rule.
(2) Every insurer shall establish and at all times maintain a system of control over the content, form and method of dissemination of all advertisements of its policies. All such advertisements, regardless of by whom written, created, designed or presented, are the responsibility of the insurer whose policies are so advertised.
(3) Advertisements that are reproduced in quantity shall be identified by form numbers or other identifying means. The identification shall be sufficient to distinguish an advertisement from any other advertising materials, policies, applications or other materials used by the insurer.
(D) Definitions
(1) An advertisement for the purpose of this rule includes:
(a) Printed and published material, audio-visual material, and descriptive literature of an insurer used in direct mail, newspapers, magazines, radio scripts, TV scripts, web sites and other internet displays or communications, other forms of electronic communications, billboards and similar displays; and
(b) Descriptive literature and sales aids of all kinds issued by an insurer, agent or broker for presentation to members of the insurance buying public, including but not limited to circulars, leaflets, booklets, depictions, illustrations, and form letters and lead-generating devices of all kinds;
(c) Prepared sales talks, presentations and material for use by agents;
(d) Advertising material included with a policy when the policy is delivered and material used in the solicitations of renewals and reinstatements;
(e) The definition of advertisement extends to the use of all media for communications to the general public, to the use of all media for communication to specific members of the general public, and to the use of all media for communications by agents;
(f) The definition of advertisement does not include:
(i) Material used solely for the training and education of an insurer's employees or agents;
(ii) Material used in-house by insurers;
(iii) Communications within an insurer's own organization not intended for dissemination to the public; or
(iv) Individual communication of a personal nature with current policyholders other than material urging the policyholders to increase or expand coverages.
(2) "Policy" for the purpose of this rule includes any policy, plan, certificate, contract, agreement, statement of coverage, rider or endorsement which provides sickness or accident benefits, or medical, surgical or hospital expense benefits, whether on an indemnity, reimbursement, service or prepaid basis, except when issued in connection with another kind of insurance other than life, and except disability, waiver of premium and multiple indemnity benefits included in life insurance and annuity contracts.
(3) "Insurer" for the purpose of this rule includes any individual, corporation, association, partnership, reciprocal exchange, inter-insurer, Lloyds, fraternal benefit society, health insuring corporation, and any other legal entity which is defined as an "insurer" in the Revised Code and is engaged in the advertisement of itself or a policy as "policy" is herein defined.
(4) "Exception" for the purpose of this rule means any provision in a policy whereby coverage for a specified hazard is entirely eliminated; it is a statement of a risk not assumed under the policy.
(5) "Reduction" for the purpose of this rule means any provision which reduces the amount of the benefit; a risk of loss is assumed but payment upon the occurrence of such loss is limited to some amount or period less than would be otherwise payable had such reduction not been used.
(6) "Limitation" for the purpose of this rule means any provision which restricts coverage under the policy other than an exception or a reduction.
(7) "Institutional advertisement" for the purpose of this rule means an advertisement having as its sole purpose the promotion of the reader's, viewer's or listener's interest in the concept of sickness and accident insurance, or the promotion of the insurer as a seller of sickness and accident insurance.
(8) "Invitation to inquire" for the purpose of this rule means an advertisement having as its objective the creation of a desire to inquire further about sickness and accident insurance and which is limited to a brief description of the loss for which benefits are payable, but may contain:
(a) The dollar amount of benefit payable, and
(b) The period of time during which the benefit is payable, provided the advertisement does not refer to cost. An invitation to inquire shall contain a provision in the following or substantially similar form: "This policy has (exclusions) (limitations) (reduction of benefits) (terms under which the policy may be continued in force or discontinued). For costs and complete details of the coverage, call (or write) your insurance agent or the company (whichever is applicable)."
(9) "Invitation to contract" for the purpose of this rule means an advertisement which is neither an invitation to inquire nor an institutional advertisement.
(10) "Lead-generating device" for the purpose of this rule means any communication directed to the public that, regardless of form, content, or stated purpose, is intended to result in the compilation or qualification of a list containing names and other personal information to be used to solicit residents of this state for the purchase of sickness and accident insurance.
(11) "Prominently" or "conspicuously" for the purpose of this rule means that the information to be disclosed prominently or conspicuously will be presented in such a manner that is noticeably set apart from other information or images in the advertisement.
(E) Method of disclosure of required information
All information required to be disclosed by this rule shall be set out conspicuously and in close conjunction with the statements to which such information relates or under appropriate captions of such prominence that it not be minimized, rendered obscure or presented in an ambiguous fashion or intermingled with the contents of the advertisement so as to be confusing or misleading.
(F) Form and content of advertisements
(1) The format and content of an advertisement of a sickness or accident insurance policy shall be sufficiently complete and clear to avoid deception or the capacity or tendency to mislead or deceive. Format means the arrangement of the text and the captions.
(2) Where an advertisement consists of more than one piece of material, each piece of material must, independent of all other pieces of material, conform to the disclosure requirements of this rule.
(3) Advertisements shall be truthful and not misleading in fact or in implication. Words or phrases, the meaning of which is clear only by implication or by familiarity with insurance terminology, shall not be used.
(4) An insurer, agent, or other person shall not solicit residents of this state for the purchase of sickness and accident insurance through the use of a true or fictitious name that is deceptive or misleading with regard to the status, character or proprietary or representative capacity of the person or the true purpose of the advertisement.
(5) Whether an advertisement has a capacity or tendency to mislead or deceive may be determined by the superintendent of insurance from the overall impression that the advertisement may be reasonably expected to create upon a person of average education or intelligence, within the segment of the public to which it is directed.
(6) An insurer shall clearly identify its sickness and accident policy as an insurance policy. A policy trade name shall be followed by the words "insurance policy" or similar words clearly identifying the fact that an insurance policy or health benefits product (in the case of health insuring corporations, prepaid health plans and other direct service organizations) is being offered.
(7) An insurer, agent, or other person shall not solicit a resident of this state for the purchase of sickness and accident insurance in connection with or as a result of the use of advertisement by the person or any other persons, where the advertisement:
(a) Contains any misleading representations or misrepresentations, or is otherwise untrue, deceptive, or misleading with regard to the information imparted, the status, character or representative capacity of the person or the true purpose of the advertisement; or
(b) Otherwise violates the provisions of this rule.
(G) Advertisement of benefits payable, losses covered or premiums payable
(1) The use of deceptive words, phrases or illustrations in advertisements of sickness and accident insurance is prohibited, including:
(a) An advertisement that fails to state clearly the type of insurance coverage that is being offered.
(b) An advertisement that omits information or uses words, phrases, statements, references or illustrations if the omission of such information or use of such words, phrases, statements, references or illustrations has the capacity, tendency or effect of misleading or deceiving purchasers or prospective purchasers as to the nature or extent of any policy benefit payable, loss covered or premium payable. The fact that the policy offered is made available to a prospective insured for inspection prior to consummation of the sale or an offer is made to refund the premium if the purchaser is not satisfied does not remedy misleading statements.
(c) An advertisement that contains or uses words or phrases such as, "all," "full," "complete," "comprehensive," "unlimited," "up to," "as high as," "this policy will help pay your hospital and surgical bills," "this policy will help fill some of the gaps that medicare and your present insurance leave out," "this policy will help to replace your income" when used to express loss of time benefits, or similar words and phrases, in a manner which exaggerates any benefits beyond the terms of the policy.
(d) An advertisement that contains descriptions of a policy limitation, exception, or reduction worded in a positive manner to imply that it is a benefit, such as describing a waiting period as a "benefit builder" or stating "even pre-existing conditions are covered after two years." Words and phrases used in an advertisement to describe such policy limitations, exceptions and reductions shall fairly and accurately describe the negative features of such limitations, exceptions and reductions of the policy offered.
(e) An advertisement of a benefit for which payment is conditional upon confinement in a hospital or similar facility that uses words or phrases such as "tax free," "extra cash," "extra income," "extra pay," or substantially similar words or phrases in a manner which has the capacity, tendency or effect of misleading the public into believing that the policy advertised will, in some way, enable them to make a profit from being hospitalized.
(f) An advertisement of a hospital or other similar facility confinement benefit advertising that the amount of the benefit is payable on a monthly or weekly basis when, in fact, the amount of the benefit payable is based upon a daily pro rata basis relating to the number of days of confinement unless such statements of such monthly or weekly benefit amounts are preceded immediately by equally prominent statements of the benefit payable on a daily basis; for example, the following statement is acceptable: "$33.33 a day ($1,000.00 a month)." When the policy contains a limit on the number of days of coverage provided, such limit must appear in the advertisement.
(g) An advertisement of a policy covering only one disease or a list of specified diseases that implies coverage beyond the terms of the policy. Synonymous terms shall not be used to refer to any disease so as to imply broader coverage than is the fact.
(h) An advertisement for a policy providing benefits for specified illnesses only, such as cancer, or for specified accidents only, such as automobile accidents, that does not clearly and conspicuously in prominent type state the limited nature of the policy. The statement shall be worded in language identical to or substantially similar to the following: "THIS IS A LIMITED POLICY," "THIS POLICY PROVIDES LIMITED BENEFITS," "THIS IS A CANCER ONLY POLICY," "THIS IS AN AUTOMOBILE ACCIDENT ONLY POLICY."
(i) An advertisement of a direct response insurance product that implies that because "no insurance agent will call and no commissions will be paid to agents" that it is "a low cost plan," or use other similar words or phrases because the cost of advertising and servicing such policies is a substantial cost in the marketing of a direct response insurance product.
(2) Exceptions, reductions and limitations
(a) When an advertisement which is an invitation to contract refers to either a dollar amount, or a period of time for which any benefit is payable, or the cost of the policy, or specific policy benefit, or the loss for which such benefit is payable, it shall also disclose those exceptions, reductions and limitations affecting the basic provisions of the policy without which the advertisement would have the capacity or tendency to mislead or deceive.
(b) When a policy contains a waiting, elimination, probationary or similar time period between the effective date of the policy and the effective date of coverage under the policy or a time period between the date a loss occurs and the date benefits begin to accrue for such loss, an advertisement which is subject to the requirements of the preceding paragraph shall disclose the existence of such periods.
(c) An advertisement shall not use the words "only," "just," "merely," "minimum," or similar words or phrases to describe the applicability of any exceptions and reductions, such as: "This policy is subject to the following minimum exceptions and reductions."
(3) Pre-existing conditions
(a) An advertisement which is subject to the requirements of paragraph (G)(2) of this rule shall, in negative terms, disclose the extent to which any loss is not covered if the cause of such loss is traceable to a condition existing prior to the effective date of the policy. The use of the term "pre-existing condition" without an appropriate definition or description is not permissible.
(b) When a policy does not cover losses resulting from pre-existing conditions, no advertisement of the policy shall state or imply that the applicant's physical condition or medical history will not affect issuance of the policy or the payment of a claim thereunder. This prohibits the use of the phrase "no medical examination required" and phrases of similar import, but does not prohibit explaining "automatic issue." If an insurer requires a medical examination for a specified policy, the advertisement, if it is an invitation to contract, shall disclose that a medical examination is required.
(c) When an advertisement contains an application form to be completed by the applicant and returned by mail for a direct-response insurance product, such application form shall contain a question which reflects the pre-existing condition provisions of the policy immediately preceding the blank space for the applicant's signature. For example, such an application form shall contain a question substantially as follows: "Do you understand that this policy will not pay benefits during the first ____ year(s) after the issue date for a disease or physical conditions which you now have or have had in the past?" _____ YES. Or substantially the following statement: "I understand that the policy applied for will not pay benefits for any loss incurred during the first ____ year(s) after the issue date on account of disease or physical conditions which I now have or have had in the past."
(H) Necessity for disclosing policy provisions relating to renewability, cancellability and termination
When an advertisement which is an invitation to contract refers to either a dollar amount or a period of time for which any benefit is payable, or the cost of the policy, or specific policy benefit, or the loss for which such benefit is payable, it shall disclose the provisions relating to renewability, cancellability and termination and any modification of benefits, losses covered or premiums because of age or for other reasons in a manner which shall not minimize or render obscure the qualifying conditions.
(I) Standards for marketing
(1) An insurer, directly or through its agents, shall:
(a) Establish marketing procedures to assure that any comparison of policies by its agents will be fair and accurate;
(b) Establish marketing procedures assuring excessive insurance is not sold or issued; and
(c) Establish auditable procedures for verifying compliance with paragraph (I) of this rule.
(2) In addition to the practices prohibited in sections 3901.19 to 3901.21 of the Revised Code, the following acts and practices are prohibited:
(a) Twisting, knowingly making any misleading representation or incomplete or fraudulent comparison of insurance policies or insurers for the purpose of inducing, or tending to induce, a person to lapse, forfeit, surrender, terminate, retain, pledge, assign, borrow on, or convert an insurance policy, or take out a policy of insurance with another insurer;
(b) High pressure tactics. Employing a method of marketing that has the effect of inducing the purchase of insurance, or tends to induce the purchase of insurance through force, fright, threat, whether explicit or implied, or undue pressure to purchase or recommend the purchase of insurance; and
(c) Cold lead advertising. Making use directly or indirectly of any method of marketing that fails to disclose in a conspicuous manner that a purpose of the method of marketing is solicitation of insurance and that contact will be made by an insurance agent or insurer.
(J) Testimonials or endorsements by third parties
(1) Testimonials used in advertisements must be genuine, represent the current opinion of the author, be applicable to the policy advertised and be accurately reproduced. The insurer, in using a testimonial, makes as its own all of the statements contained therein, and the advertisement, including such statement, is subject to all the provisions of this rule. When a testimonial or endorsement is used more than one year after it was originally given, a confirmation must be obtained.
(2) If the person making a testimonial, an endorsement or an appraisal has a financial interest in the insurer or a related entity as a stockholder, director, officer, employee, or otherwise, such fact shall be disclosed in the advertisement. If a person is compensated for making a testimonial, endorsement or appraisal, such fact shall be disclosed in the advertisement by language substantially as follows: "Paid Endorsement." This disclosure shall be in a type style and size at least equal to that used for the person's name or the body of the testimonial or endorsement, whichever is larger. In the case of television or radio advertising, the required disclosure shall be accomplished in the introductory portion of the advertisement and shall be given prominence. This rule does not require disclosure of union "scale" wages required by union rules if the payment is actually for such "scale" for TV or radio performances. The payment of substantial amounts, directly or indirectly, for "travel and entertainment" for filming or recording of TV or radio advertisements removes the filming or recording from the category of an unsolicited testimonial and requires disclosure of such compensation.
(3) An advertisement shall not state or imply that an insurer or a policy has been approved or endorsed by any individual, group of individuals, society, association or other organizations, unless such is the fact, and unless any proprietary relationship between an organization and the insurer is disclosed. If the entity making the endorsement or testimonial has been formed by the insurer or is owned or controlled by the insurer or the person or persons who own or control the insurer, such fact shall be disclosed in the advertisement. If the insurer or an officer of the insurer formed or controls or holds any policy-making position in the entity making the endorsement or testimonial, that fact must be disclosed.
(4) When a testimonial refers to benefits received under a policy, the specific claim data, including claim number, date of loss, and other pertinent information shall be retained by the insurer for inspection for a period of four years or until the filing of the next regular report of examination of the insurer, whichever is the longer period of time.
(5) The use of testimonials that do not correctly reflect the present practices of the insurer or that are not applicable to the policy or benefit being advertised is not permissible.
(K) Use of statistics
(1) An advertisement relating to the dollar amounts of claims paid, the number of persons insured, or similar statistical information relating to any insurer or policy shall not use irrelevant facts, and shall not be used unless it accurately reflects all of the current and relevant facts. Such an advertisement shall not imply that such statistics are derived from the policy advertised unless such is the fact, and when applicable to other policies or plans shall specifically so state. Where statistics are given that are applicable to a different policy, it shall be stated clearly that the data do not relate to the policy being advertised.
(2) An advertisement shall not represent or imply that claim settlements by the insurer are "liberal" or "generous," or use words of similar import, or that claim settlements are or will be beyond the actual terms of the contract. An amount paid for a unique claim for the policy advertised is misleading and shall not be used.
(3) The source of any statistics used in an advertisement shall be identified in such advertisement.
(L) Identification of plan or number of policies
(1) When a choice of the amount of benefits is referred to, an advertisement which is an invitation to contract shall disclose that the amount of benefits provided depends upon the plan selected and that the premium will vary with the amount of the benefits selected.
(2) When an advertisement which is an invitation to contract refers to various benefits which may be contained in two or more policies, other than group master policies, the advertisement shall disclose that such benefits are provided only through a combination of such policies.
(M) Disparaging comparisons and statements
(1) An advertisement shall not directly or indirectly make unfair or incomplete comparisons of policies or benefits or comparisons of non-comparable policies of other insurers, and shall not disparage competitors, their policies, services or business methods, and shall not disparage or unfairly minimize competing methods of marketing insurance.
(2) An advertisement shall not contain statements such as "no red tape" or "here is all you have to do to receive benefits."
(3) Advertisements that state or imply that competing insurance coverages customarily contain certain exceptions, reductions or limitations not contained in the advertised policies are prohibited unless the exceptions, reductions or limitations are contained in a substantial majority of the competing coverages.
(4) Advertisements that state or imply that an insurer's premiums are lower or that its loss ratios are higher because its organizational structure differs from that of competing insurers are prohibited.
(N) Jurisdictional licensing and status of insurer
(1) An advertisement which is intended to be seen or heard beyond the limits of the jurisdiction in which the insurer is licensed shall not imply licensing beyond those limits.
(2) An advertisement shall not create the impression directly or indirectly that the insurer, its financial condition or status, or the payment of its claims, or the merits, desirability, or advisability of its policy forms or kinds or plans of insurance are approved, endorsed, or accredited by any division or agency of this state or the federal government.
(O) Identity of insurer
(1) The name of the actual insurer shall be stated in all of its advertisements. The form number or numbers of the policy advertised shall be stated in an advertisement which is an invitation to contract. An advertisement shall not use a trade name, an insurance group designation, name of the parent company of the insurer, name of a particular division of the insurer, service mark, slogan, symbol or other device which without disclosing the name of the actual insurer would have the capacity and tendency to mislead or deceive as to the true identity of the insurer.
(2) No advertisement shall use any combination of words, symbols or physical materials which by its content, phraseology, shape, color or other characteristics is so similar to combination of words, symbols or physical materials used by agencies of the federal government or of this state, or otherwise appear to be of such a nature that it tends to confuse or mislead prospective insureds into believing that the solicitation is in some manner connected with an agency of the municipal, state, or federal government.
(3) An advertisement shall not use the name of a state or political subdivision of a state in a policy name or description.
(P) Group or quasi-group implications
(1) An advertisement of a particular policy shall not state or imply that prospective insureds become group or quasi-group members covered under a group policy and as such enjoy special rates or underwriting privileges, unless such is the fact.
(2) An advertisement to join an association, trust or discretionary group that is also an invitation to contract for insurance coverage shall clearly disclose that the applicant will be purchasing both membership in the association, trust or discretionary group and insurance coverage. The insurer shall solicit insurance coverage on a separate and distinct application that requires a separate signature. The separate and distinct applications need not be on separate documents or contained in separate mailing. The insurance program shall be presented so as not to conceal the fact that the prospective members are purchasing insurance as well as applying for membership, if that is the case. Similarly, it is prohibited to use terms such as "enroll" or "join" to imply group or blanket insurance coverage when that is not the fact.
(Q) Introductory, initial or special offers
(1)
(a) An advertisement of an individual policy shall not directly or by implication represent that a contract or combination of contracts is an introductory, initial or special offer, or that applicants will receive substantial advantages not available at a later date, or that the offer is available only to a specified group of individuals, unless such is the fact. An advertisement shall not contain phrases describing an enrollment period as "special," "limited," or in similar words or phrases when the insurer uses such enrollment periods as the usual method of advertising sickness and accident insurance.
(b) An enrollment period during which a particular insurance product may be purchased on an individual basis may only be offered within this state if there has been a lapse of not less than six months between the close of the immediately preceding enrollment period for the same product and the opening of the new enrollment period. The advertisement shall indicate the date by which the applicant must mail the application which shall be not less than ten days and not more than forty days from the date that such enrollment period is advertised for the first time. This rule applies to all advertising media, i.e., mail, newspapers, radio, television, website and other internet displays or communications, other forms of electronic communications, billboards and similar displays, magazines and periodicals, by any one insurer. It is inapplicable to solicitations of employees or members of a particular group or association which otherwise would be eligible under specific provisions of the Revised Code for group, blanket or franchise insurance. The phrase "any one insurer" includes all the affiliated companies of a group of insurance companies under common management or control.
(c) This rule prohibits any statement or implication to the effect that only a specific number of policies will be sold, or that a time is fixed for the discontinuance of the sale of the particular policy advertised because of special advantages available in the policy, unless such is the fact.
(d) The phrase "a particular insurance product" in paragraph (Q)(1)(b) of this rule encompasses insurance policies which provide substantially different benefits than those contained in any other policy. Different terms of renewability, an increase or decrease in the dollar amounts of benefits, or an increase or decrease in any elimination period or waiting period from those available during an enrollment period for another policy shall not be sufficient to constitute the product being offered as a different product eligible for concurrent or overlapping enrollment periods.
(2) An advertisement shall not offer a policy which utilizes a reduced initial premium rate in a manner which over-emphasizes the availability and the amount of the initial reduced premium. When an insurer charges an initial premium that differs in amount from the amount of the renewal premium payable on the same mode, the advertisement shall not display the amount of the reduced initial premium either more frequently or more prominently than the renewal premium, and both the initial reduced premium and the renewal premium must be stated in juxtaposition in each portion of the advertisement where the initial reduced premium appears.
(3) Special awards, such as a "safe driver's award" shall not be used in connection with advertisements of accident or sickness and accident insurance.
(R) Statements about an insurer
An advertisement shall not contain statements which are untrue in fact, or by implication misleading, with respect to the assets, corporate structure, financial standing, age or relative position of the insurer in the insurance business. An advertisement shall not contain a recommendation by any commercial rating system unless it clearly indicates the purpose of the recommendation and the limitations of the scope and extent of the recommendation.
(S) Advertising file enforcement procedure
Each insurer shall maintain at its home or principal office a complete file containing every printed, published or prepared advertisement of its individual policies and typical printed, published or prepared advertisements of its blanket, franchise and group policies hereafter disseminated in this or any other state whether or not licensed in such other state, with a notation attached to each such advertisement which shall indicate the manner and extent of distribution and the form number of any policy advertised. Such file is subject to regular and periodical inspection by this department. All such advertisements shall be maintained in said file for a period of either four years or until the filing of the next regular report on examination of the insurer, whichever is the longer period of time.
(T) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated November 16, 2023 at 8:34 AM
History
- Effective: November 16, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-8-08 Medicare supplement.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to provide for the reasonable standardization of coverage and simplification of terms and benefits of medicare supplement policies; to facilitate public understanding and comparison of such policies; to eliminate provisions contained in such policies which may be misleading or confusing in connection with the purchase of such policies or with the settlement of claims; and to provide for full disclosures in the sale of sickness and accident insurance coverage to persons eligible for medicare.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041, 3923.33 and 3923.331 to 3923.339 of the Revised Code.
(C) Applicability and scope
(1) Except as otherwise specifically provided in paragraphs (G), (P), (Q), (T), and (Y) of this rule, this rule applies to:
(a) All medicare supplement policies, delivered or issued for delivery in this state on or after the effective date of this rule; and
(b) All certificates issued under group medicare supplement policies which certificates have been delivered or issued for delivery in this state on or after the effective date of this rule.
(2) This rule does not apply to a policy or contract of one or more employers or labor organizations, or of the trustees of a fund established by one or more employers or labor organizations, or combination thereof, for employees or former employees, or a combination thereof, or for members or former members, or a combination thereof, of the labor organizations.
(D) Definitions
For purposes of this rule, the following terms are defined as follows:
(1) "Applicant" means, in the case of an individual medicare supplement policy, the person who seeks to contract for insurance benefits, and in the case of a group medicare supplement policy, the proposed certificate holder.
(2) "Bankruptcy" means when a "Medicare Advantage" organization that is not an issuer has filed, or has had filed against it, a petition for declaration of bankruptcy and has ceased doing business in the state.
(3) "Certificate" means any certificate delivered or issued for delivery in this state under a group medicare supplement policy.
(4) "Certificate form" means the form on which the certificate is delivered or issued for delivery by the issuer.
(5) "Continuous period of creditable coverage" means the period during which an individual was covered by creditable coverage, if during the period of the coverage the individual had no breaks in coverage greater than sixty-three days.
(6)
(a) "Creditable coverage" means, with respect to an individual, coverage of the individual provided under any of the following:
(i) A group health plan;
(ii) Health insurance coverage;
(iii) "Part A" or "Part B" of "Title XVIII of the Social Security Act" (medicare);
(iv) "Title XIX of the Social Security Act" (medicaid), other than coverage consisting solely of benefits under section 1928;
(v) "Chapter 55 of Title 10 United States Code (CHAMPUS)";
(vi) A medical care program of the Indian health service or of a tribal organization;
(vii) A state health benefits risk pool;
(viii) A health plan offered under chapter 89 of "Title 5 United States Code" (federal employees health benefits program);
(ix) A public health plan as defined in federal regulation; and
(x) A health benefit plan under section 5(e) of the "Peace Corps Act (22 United States Code" 2504(e)).
(b) "Creditable coverage" does not include one or more, or any combination of, the following:
(i) Coverage only for accident or disability income insurance, or any combination thereof;
(ii) Coverage issued as a supplement to liability insurance;
(iii) Liability insurance, including general liability insurance and automobile liability insurance;
(iv) Workers' compensation or similar insurance;
(v) Automobile medical payment insurance;
(vi) Credit-only insurance;
(vii) Coverage for on-site medical clinics; and
(viii) Other similar insurance coverage, specified in federal regulations, under which benefits for medical care are secondary or incidental to other insurance benefits.
(c) "Creditable coverage" shall not include the following benefits if they are provided under a separate policy, certificate or contract of insurance or are otherwise not an integral part of the plan;
(i) Limited scope dental or vision benefits;
(ii) Benefits for long-term care, nursing home care, home health care, community-based care, or any combination thereof; and
(iii) Such other similar, limited benefits as are specified in federal regulations.
(d) "Creditable coverage" shall not include the following benefits if offered as independent, noncoordinated benefits:
(i) Coverage only for a specified disease or illness; and
(ii) Hospital indemnity or other fixed indemnity insurance.
(e) "Creditable coverage" shall not include the following if it is offered as a separate policy, certificate or contract of insurance:
(i) Medicare supplemental health insurance as defined under section 1882(g)(1) of the "Social Security Act";
(ii) Coverage supplemental to the coverage provided under chapter 55 of "Title 10, United States Code"; and
(iii) Similar supplemental coverage provided to coverage under a group health plan.
(7) "Employee welfare benefit plan" means a plan, fund or program of employee benefits as defined in 29 U.S.C. section 1002 ("Employee Retirement Income Security Act").
(8) "Insolvency" or "Insolvent" means:
(a) For any issuer, that it is unable to pay its obligations when they are due, or when its admitted assets do not exceed its liabilities plus the greater of either of the following:
(i) Any capital and surplus required by law for its organization;
(ii) The total par or stated value of its authorized and issued capital stock.
(b) As to any issuer licensed to do business in this state as of the effective date of sections 3903.01 to 3903.59 of the Revised Code that does not meet the standard established under paragraph (D)(8)(a) of this rule, the term "insolvency" or "insolvent" means, for a period not to exceed three years from the effective date of sections 3903.01 to 3903.59 of the Revised Code, that it is unable to pay its obligations when they are due or that its admitted assets do not exceed its liabilities plus any required capital contribution ordered by the superintendent under provisions of "Title XXXIX" of the Revised Code.
(c) For purposes of paragraph (D)(8) of this rule, "liabilities" includes, but is not limited to, reserves required by statute or by rules of the superintendent or specific requirements imposed by the superintendent upon a subject issuer at the time of admission or subsequent thereto.
(9) "Direct response issuer" means an issuer who markets medicare supplement policies or certificates without the direct involvement of an insurance agent.
(10) "Issuer" includes insurance companies, fraternal benefit societies, health care service plans health insuring corporations, and any other entities delivering or issuing for delivery in this state medicare supplement policies or certificates.
(11) "Medicare" means the "Health Insurance for the Aged Act," "Title XVIII of the Social Security Amendments" of 1965, as then constituted or later amended.
(12) "Medicare Advantage" plan means a plan of coverage for health benefits under medicare "Part C" as defined in 42 U.S.C. 1395w-28(b)(1), and includes:
(a) Coordinated care plans which provide health care services, including but not limited to health insuring corporation plans (with or without a point-of-service option), plans offered by provider-sponsored organizations, and preferred provider organization plans;
(b) Medical savings account plans coupled with a contribution into a "Medicare Advantage" medical savings account; and
(c) "Medicare Advantage" private fee-for-service plans.
(13) "Medicare supplement policy" means a group or individual policy of sickness and accident insurance or a subscriber contract of hospital and medical service associations or health insuring corporations, other than a policy issued pursuant to a contract under section 1876 of the federal "Social Security Act" (42 U.S.C. section 1395 et. seq.) or an issued policy under a demonstration project specified in 42 U.S.C. 1395 ss (g)(1), which is advertised, marketed or designed primarily as a supplement to reimbursements under medicare for the hospital, medical or surgical expenses of persons eligible for medicare. "Medicare supplement policy" does not include "Medicare Advantage" plans established under medicare "Part C", "Outpatient Prescription Drug" plans established under medicare "Part D", or any "Health Care Prepayment Plan (HCPP)" that provides benefits pursuant to an agreement under section 1833(a)(1)(A) of the "Social Security Act".
(14) "Pre-Standardized Medicare supplement benefit plan," "Pre-Standardized benefit plan" or "Pre-Standardized plan" means a group or individual policy of medicare supplement insurance issued prior to May 1, 1992.
(15) "1990 Standardized Medicare supplement benefit plan," "1990 Standardized benefit plan" or "1990 plan" means a group or individual policy of medicare supplement insurance issued on or after May 1, 1992 and with an effective date for coverage prior to June 1, 2010 and includes medicare supplement insurance policies and certificates renewed on or after that date which are not replaced by the issuer at the request of the insured.
(16) "2010 Standardized Medicare supplement benefit plan," "2010 Standardized benefit plan" or "2010 plan" means a group or individual policy of medicare supplement insurance with an effective date for coverage on or after June 1, 2010.
(17) "Policy form" means the form on which the policy is delivered or issued for delivery by the issuer.
(18) "Secretary" means the secretary of the "United States" department of health and human services.
(E) Policy definitions and terms
No policy or certificate may be advertised, solicited or issued for delivery in this state as a medicare supplement policy or certificate unless such policy or certificate contains definitions or terms which conform to the requirements of paragraph (E) of this rule.
(1) "Accident," "accidental injury," or "accidental means" shall be defined to employ "result" language and shall not include words which would establish an accidental means test or use words such as "external, violent, visible wounds" or similar words of description or characterization.
(a) The definition shall not be more restrictive than the following: "Injury or injuries for which benefits are provided means accidental bodily injury sustained by the insured person which is the direct result of an accident, independent of disease or bodily infirmity or any other cause, and occurs while insurance coverage is in force."
(b) The definition may provide that the injuries shall not include injuries for which benefits are provided or available under any workers' compensation, employer's liability or similar law, or motor vehicle no-fault plan, unless prohibited by law.
(2) "Benefit period" or "medicare benefit period" shall not be defined more restrictively than as defined in the medicare program.
(3) "Convalescent nursing home," "extended care facility," or "skilled nursing facility" shall not be defined more restrictively than as defined in the medicare program.
(4) "Health care expenses" means, for purposes of paragraph (Q) of this rule, expenses of health insuring corporations associated with the delivery of health care services, which expenses are analogous to incurred losses of insurers.
(5) "Hospital" may be defined in relation to its status, facilities and available services or to reflect its accreditation by the "Joint Commission on Accreditation of Hospitals," but not more restrictively than as defined in the medicare program.
(6) "Medicare" shall be defined in the policy and certificate. Medicare may be substantially defined as the "Health Insurance for the Aged Act, Title XVIII of the Social Security Amendments of 1965 as then constituted or later amended," or "Title I, Part I of Public Law 89-97, as enacted by the Eighty-Ninth Congress of the United States of America and popularly known as the Health Insurance for the Aged Act, as then constituted and any later amendments or substitutes thereof," or words of similar import.
(7) "Medicare-eligible expenses" shall mean expenses of the kinds covered by medicare, "Parts A" and "B," to the extent recognized as reasonable and medically necessary by medicare.
(8) "Physician" shall not be defined more restrictively than as defined in the medicare program.
(9) "Sickness" shall not be defined to be more restrictive than the following:
"Sickness" means illness or disease of an insured person which first manifests itself after the effective date of insurance and while the insurance is in force.
The definition may be further modified to exclude sicknesses or diseases for which benefits are provided under any workers' compensation, occupational disease, employer's liability or similar law.
(F) Policy provisions
(1) Except for permitted preexisting condition clauses as described in paragraphs (G)(1)(a), (H)(1)(a), and (I)(1)(a) of this rule, no policy or certificate may be advertised, solicited or issued for delivery in this state as a medicare supplement policy if the policy or certificate contains limitations or exclusions on coverage that are more restrictive than those of medicare.
(2) No medicare supplement policy or certificate may use waivers to exclude, limit or reduce coverage or benefits for specifically named or described preexisting diseases or physical conditions.
(3) No medicare supplement policy or certificate in force in this state shall contain benefits which duplicate benefits provided by medicare.
(4)
(a) Subject to paragraphs (G)(1)(d), (G)(1)(e), (G)(1)(g), (H)(1)(d) and (H)(1)(e) of this rule, a medicare supplement policy with benefits for outpatient prescription drugs in existence prior to January 1, 2006 shall be renewed for current policyholders who do not enroll in "Part D" at the option of the policyholder.
(b) A medicare supplement policy with benefits for outpatient prescription drugs shall not be issued after December 31, 2005.
(c) After December 31, 2005, a medicare supplement policy with benefits for outpatient prescription drugs may not be renewed after the policyholder enrolls in medicare "Part D" unless:
(i) The policy is modified to eliminate outpatient prescription coverage for expenses of outpatient prescription drugs incurred after the effective date of the individual's coverage under a "Part D" plan and;
(ii) Premiums are adjusted to reflect the elimination of outpatient prescription drug coverage at the time of medicare "Part D" enrollment, accounting for any claims paid, if applicable.
(G) Minimum benefit standards for pre-standardized medicare supplement benefit plan policies or certificates issued for delivery prior to May 1, 1992.
No policy or certificate may be advertised, solicited or issued for delivery in this state prior to the effective date of this rule as a medicare supplement policy or certificate unless it meets or exceeds the following minimum standards. These are minimum standards and do not preclude the inclusion of other provisions or benefits which are not inconsistent with these standards.
(1) General standards.
The following standards apply to medicare supplement policies and certificates and are in addition to all other requirements of this rule.
(a) A medicare supplement policy or certificate shall not exclude or limit benefits for losses incurred more than six months from the effective date of coverage because they involved a preexisting condition. The policy or certificate shall not define a preexisting condition more restrictively than a condition for which medical advice was given or treatment was recommended by or received from a physician within six months before the effective date of coverage.
(b) A medicare supplement policy or certificate shall not indemnify against losses resulting from sickness on a different basis than losses resulting from accidents.
(c) A medicare supplement policy or certificate shall provide that benefits designed to cover cost-sharing amounts under medicare will be changed automatically to coincide with any changes in the applicable medicare deductible, copayment, or coinsurance amounts. Premiums may be modified to correspond with such changes.
(d) A "noncancellable," "guaranteed renewable," or "noncancellable and guaranteed renewable" medicare supplement policy shall not:
(i) Provide for termination of coverage of a spouse solely because of the occurrence of an event specified for termination of coverage of the insured, other than the nonpayment of premium; or
(ii) Be cancelled or nonrenewed by the issuer solely on the grounds of deterioration of health.
(e)
(i) Except as authorized by the superintendent, an issuer shall neither cancel nor nonrenew a medicare supplement policy or certificate for any reason other than nonpayment of premium or material misrepresentation.
(ii) If a group medicare supplement insurance policy is terminated by the group policyholder and not replaced as provided in paragraph (G)(1)(e)(iv) of this rule, the issuer shall offer certificate holders an individual medicare supplement policy. The issuer shall offer the certificate holder at least the following choices:
(a) An individual medicare supplement policy currently offered by the issuer having comparable benefits to those contained in the terminated group medicare supplement policy; and
(b) An individual medicare supplement policy which provides only such benefits as are required to meet the minimum standards as defined in paragraph (I)(2) of this rule.
(iii) If membership in a group is terminated, the issuer shall:
(a) Offer the certificate holder the conversion opportunities described in paragraph (G)(1)(e)(ii) of this rule; or
(b) At the option of the group policyholder, offer the certificate holder continuation of coverage under the group policy.
(iv) If a group medicare supplement policy is replaced by another group medicare supplement policy purchased by the same policyholder, the issuer of the replacement policy shall offer coverage to all persons covered under the old group policy, such coverage to be effective the date the preceding policy terminates. Coverage under the new group policy shall not result in any exclusion for preexisting conditions that would have been covered under the group policy being replaced.
(f) Termination of a medicare supplement policy or certificate shall be without prejudice to any continuous loss which commenced while the policy was in force, but the extension of benefits beyond the period during which the policy was in force may be predicated upon the continuous total disability of the insured, limited to the duration of the policy benefit period, if any, or to payment of the maximum benefits. Receipt of medicare "Part D" benefits will not be considered in determining a continuous loss.
(g) If a medicare supplement policy eliminates an outpatient prescription drug benefit as a result of requirements imposed by the "Medicare Prescription Drug, Improvement, and Modernization Act of 2003", the modified policy shall be deemed to satisfy the guaranteed renewal requirements of paragraph (G)(1) of this rule.
(2) Minimum benefit standards.
(a) Coverage of "Part A" medicare-eligible expenses for hospitalization to the extent not covered by medicare from the sixty-first day through the ninetieth day in any medicare benefit period.
(b) Coverage for either all or none of the medicare "Part A" inpatient hospital deductible amount.
(c) Coverage of "Part A" medicare-eligible expenses incurred as daily hospital charges during use of medicare's lifetime hospital inpatient reserve days.
(d) Upon exhaustion of all medicare hospital inpatient coverage including the lifetime reserve days, coverage of at least ninety per cent of all medicare "Part A" eligible expenses for hospitalization not covered by medicare subject to a lifetime maximum benefit of an additional three hundred sixty-five days.
(e) Coverage under medicare "Part A" for the reasonable cost of the first three pints of blood (or equivalent quantities of packed red blood cells, as defined under federal regulations) unless replaced in accordance with federal regulations or already paid for under "Part B."
(f) Coverage for the coinsurance amount, or in the case of hospital outpatient department services paid under a prospective payment system, the copayment amount, of medicare-eligible expenses under "Part B" regardless of hospital confinement, subject to a maximum calendar year out-of-pocket amount equal to the medicare "Part B" deductible [one hundred forty-seven dollars].
(g) Effective January 1, 1990, coverage under medicare "Part B" for the reasonable cost of the first three pints of blood (or equivalent quantities of packed red blood cells, as defined under federal regulations), unless replaced in accordance with federal regulations or already paid for under "Part A", subject to the medicare deductible amount.
(H) Benefit standards for 1990 standardized medicare supplement benefit plan policies or certificates issued or delivered on or after May 1, 1992 and with an effective date for coverage prior to June 1, 2010.
The following standards are applicable to all medicare supplement policies or certificates delivered or issued for delivery in this state on or after May 1, 1992 and with an effective date for coverage prior to June 1, 2010. No policy or certificate may be advertised, solicited, delivered or issued for delivery in this state as a medicare supplement policy or certificate unless it complies with these benefit standards.
(1) General standards. The following standards apply to medicare supplement policies and certificates and are in addition to all other requirements of this rule.
(a) A medicare supplement policy or certificate shall not exclude or limit benefits for losses incurred more than six months from the effective date of coverage because it involved a preexisting condition. The policy or certificate may not define a preexisting condition more restrictively than a condition for which medical advice was given or treatment was recommended by or received from a physician within six months before the effective date of coverage.
(b) A medicare supplement policy or certificate shall not indemnify against losses resulting from sickness on a different basis than losses resulting from accidents.
(c) A medicare supplement policy or certificate shall provide that benefits designed to cover cost sharing amounts under medicare will be changed automatically to coincide with any changes in the applicable medicare deductible, copayment, or coinsurance amounts. Premiums may be modified to correspond with such changes, in accordance with paragraph (R)(3)(b) of this rule.
(d) No medicare supplement policy or certificate shall provide for termination of coverage of a spouse solely because of the occurrence of an event specified for termination of coverage of the insured, other than the nonpayment of premium.
(e) Each medicare supplement policy shall be guaranteed renewable.
(i) The issuer shall not cancel or nonrenew the policy solely on the ground of health status of the individual; and
(ii) The issuer shall not cancel or nonrenew the policy for any reason other than nonpayment of premium or material misrepresentation.
(iii) If the medicare supplement policy is terminated by the group policyholder and is not replaced as provided under paragraph (H)(1)(e)(v) of this rule, the issuer shall offer each certificate holder an individual medicare supplement policy which (at the option of the certificate holder)
(a) Provides for continuation of the benefits contained in the group policy; or
(b) Provides for benefits that otherwise meet the requirements of this subsection.
(iv) If an individual is a certificate holder in a group medicare supplement policy and the individual terminates membership in the group, the issuer shall:
(a) Offer the certificate holder the conversion opportunity described in paragraph (H)(1)(e)(iii) of this rule; or
(b) At the option of the group policyholder, offer the certificate holder continuation of coverage under the group policy.
(v) If a group medicare supplement policy is replaced by another group medicare supplement policy purchased by the same policyholder, the issuer of the replacement policy shall offer coverage to all persons covered under the old group policy on its date of termination. Coverage under the new policy shall not result in any exclusion for preexisting conditions that would have been covered under the group policy being replaced.
(vi) If a medicare supplement policy eliminates an outpatient prescription drug benefit as a result of requirements imposed by the "Medicare Prescription Drug, Improvement and Modernization Act of 2003," the modified policy shall be deemed to satisfy the guaranteed renewal requirements of paragraph (H)(1) of this rule.
(f) Termination of a medicare supplement policy or certificate shall be without prejudice to any continuous loss which commenced while the policy was in force, but the extension of benefits beyond the period during which the policy was in force may be conditioned upon the continuous total disability of the insured, limited to the duration of the policy benefit period, if any, or payment of the maximum benefits. Receipt of medicare "Part D" benefits will not be considered in determining a continuous loss.
(g)
(i) A medicare supplement policy or certificate shall provide that benefits and premiums under the policy or certificate shall be suspended at the request of the policyholder or certificate holder for the period (not to exceed twenty-four months) in which the policyholder or certificate holder has applied for and is determined to be entitled to medical assistance under "Title XIX of the Social Security Act," but only if the policyholder or certificate holder notifies the issuer of such policy or certificate within ninety days after the date the individual becomes entitled to assistance.
(ii) If suspension occurs and if the policyholder or certificate holder loses entitlement to such medical assistance, the policy or certificate shall be automatically reinstituted effective as of the date of termination of such entitlement if the policyholder or certificate holder provides notice of loss of such entitlement within ninety days after the date of loss and pays the premium attributable to the period.
(iii) Each medicare supplement policy shall provide that benefits and premiums under the policy shall be suspended (for any period that may be provided by federal regulation) at the request of the policyholder if the policyholder is entitled to benefits under section 226(b) of the "Social Security Act" and is covered under a group health plan (as defined in section 1862 (b)(1)(A)(v) of the "Social Security Act"). If suspension occurs and if the policyholder or certificateholder loses coverage under the group health plan, the policy shall be automatically reinstituted (effective as of the date of loss of coverage) if the policyholder provides notice of loss of the coverage within ninety days after the date of loss.
(iv) Reinstitution of such coverages described in paragraphs (H)(1)(g)(ii) and (H)(1)(g)(iii) of this rule:
(a) Shall not provide for any waiting period with respect to treatment of preexisting conditions;
(b) Shall provide for resumption of coverage that is substantially equivalent to coverage in effect before the date of such suspension. If the suspended medicare supplement policy provided coverage for outpatient prescription drugs, reinstitution of the policy for medicare "Part D" enrollees shall be without coverage for outpatient prescription drugs and shall otherwise provide substantially equivalent coverage to the coverage in effect before the date of suspension; and
(c) Shall provide for classification of premiums on terms at least as favorable to the policyholder or certificate holder as the premium classification terms that would have applied to the policyholder or certificate holder had the coverage not been suspended.
(h) If an issuer makes a written offer to the medicare supplement policyholders or certificate holders of one or more of its plans, to exchange during a specified period from his or her 1990 standardized plan (as described in paragraph (J) of this rule) to a 2010 standardized plan (as described in paragraph (K) of this rule), the offer and subsequent exchange shall comply with the following requirements:
(i) An issuer need not provide justification to the superintendent if the insured replaces a 1990 standardized policy or certificate with an issue age rated 2010 standardized policy or certificate at the insured's original issue age and duration. If an insured's policy or certificate to be replaced is priced on an issue age rate schedule at the time of such offer, the rate charged to the insured for the new exchanged policy shall recognize the policy reserve buildup, due to the prefunding inherent in the use of an issue age rate basis, for the benefit of the insured. The method proposed to be used by an issuer must be filed with the superintendent in accordance with paragraph (R) of this rule.
(ii) The rating class of the new policy or certificate shall be the class closest to the insured's class of the replaced coverage.
(iii) An issuer may not apply new pre-existing condition limitations or a new incontestability period to the new policy for those benefits contained in the exchanged 1990 standardized policy or certificate of the insured, but may apply pre-existing condition limitations of no more than six months to any added benefits contained in the new 2010 standardized policy or certificate not contained in the exchanged policy.
(iv) The new policy or certificate shall be offered to all policyholders or certificate holders within a given plan, except where the offer or issue would be in violation of state or federal law.
(2) Standards for basic ("core") benefits common to benefit plans "A" - "J"
Every issuer shall make available to each prospective insured a policy or certificate including only the following basic "core" package of benefits. An issuer may make available to prospective insureds any of the other medicare supplement insurance benefit plans in addition to the basic "core" package, but not in lieu of it.
(a) Coverage of "Part A" medicare-eligible expenses for hospitalization to the extent not covered by medicare from the sixty-first day through the ninetieth day in any medicare benefit period;
(b) Coverage of "Part A" medicare-eligible expenses incurred for hospitalization to the extent not covered by medicare for each medicare lifetime inpatient reserve day used;
(c) Upon exhaustion of the medicare hospital inpatient coverage, including the lifetime reserve days, coverage of one hundred per cent of the medicare "Part A" eligible expenses for hospitalization paid at the applicable prospective payment system ("PPS") rate, or other appropriate medicare standard of payment, subject to a lifetime maximum benefit of an additional three hundred sixty-five days. The provider shall accept the issuer's payment as payment in full and may not bill the insured for any balance;
(d) Coverage under medicare "Parts A" and "B" for the reasonable cost of the first three pints of blood (or equivalent quantities of packed red blood cells, as defined under federal regulations) unless replaced in accordance with federal regulations;
(e) Coverage for the coinsurance amount or in the case of hospital outpatient department services paid under a prospective payment system, the copayment amount, of medicare eligible expenses under "Part B" regardless of hospital confinement, subject to the medicare "Part B" deductible.
(3) Standards for additional benefits. The following additional benefits shall be included in medicare supplement benefit plans "B" through "J" only as provided by paragraph (J) of this rule.
(a) Medicare "Part A" deductible: coverage for all of the medicare "Part A" inpatient hospital deductible amount per benefit period.
(b) Skilled nursing facility care: coverage for the actual billed charges up to the coinsurance amount from the twenty-first day through the one hundredth day in a medicare benefit period for post-hospital skilled nursing facility care eligible under medicare "Part A";
(c) Medicare "Part B" deductible: coverage for all of the medicare "Part B" deductible amount per calendar year regardless of hospital confinement.
(d) Eighty per cent of the medicare "Part B" excess charges: coverage for eighty per cent of the difference between the actual medicare "Part B" charge as billed, not to exceed any charge limitation established by the medicare program or state law, and the medicare-approved "Part B" charge.
(e) One hundred per cent of the medicare "Part B" excess charges: coverage for all of the difference between the actual medicare "Part B" charge as billed, not to exceed any charge limitation established by the medicare program or state law, and the medicare-approved "Part B" charge.
(f) Basic outpatient prescription drug benefit: coverage for fifty per cent of outpatient prescription drug charges, after a two hundred fifty dollar calendar year deductible, to a maximum of one thousand two hundred fifty dollars in benefits received by the insured per calendar year, to the extent not covered by medicare. The outpatient prescription drug benefit may be included for sale or issuance in a medicare supplement policy until January 1, 2006.
(g) Extended outpatient prescription drug benefit: coverage for fifty per cent of outpatient prescription drug charges, after a two hundred fifty dollar calendar year deductible to a maximum of three thousand dollars in benefits received by the insured per calendar year, to the extent not covered by medicare. The outpatient prescription drug benefit may be included for sale or issuance in a medicare supplement policy until January 1, 2006.
(h) Medically necessary emergency care in a foreign country: coverage to the extent not covered by medicare for eighty per cent of the billed charges for medicare-eligible expenses for medically necessary emergency hospital, physician and medical care received in a foreign country, which care would have been covered by medicare if provided in the "United States" and which care began during the first sixty consecutive days of each trip outside the "United States", subject to a calendar year deductible of two hundred fifty dollars, and a lifetime maximum benefit of fifty thousand dollars. For purposes of this benefit, "emergency care" shall mean care needed immediately because of an injury or an illness of sudden and unexpected onset.
(i) Preventive medical care benefit: coverage for the following preventive health services not covered by medicare:
(i) An annual clinical preventive medical history and physical examination that may include tests and services from paragraph (H)(3)(i)(ii) of this rule and patient education to address preventive health care measures:
(ii) Preventive screening tests or preventive services, the selection and frequency of which is determined to be medically appropriate by the attending physician.
Reimbursement shall be for the actual charge up to one hundred per cent of the medicare approved amount for each service, as if medicare were to cover the service as identified in "American Medical Association" current procedural terminology ("AMA CPT") codes, to a maximum of one hundred twenty dollars annually under this benefit. This benefit shall not include payment for any procedure covered by medicare.
(j) At-home recovery benefit: coverage for services to provide short term, at-home assistance with activities of daily living for those recovering from an illness, injury or surgery.
(i) For purposes of this benefit, the following definitions shall apply:
(a) "Activities of daily living" include, but are not limited to bathing, dressing, personal hygiene, transferring, eating, ambulating, assistance with drugs that are normally self-administered, and changing bandages or other dressings.
(b) "Care provider" means a duly qualified or licensed home health aide or homemaker, personal care aide or nurse provided through a licensed home health care agency or referred by a licensed referral agency or licensed nurses registry.
(c) "Home" shall mean any place used by the insured as a place of residence, provided that such place would qualify as a residence for home health care services covered by medicare. A hospital or skilled nursing facility shall not be considered the insured's place of residence.
(d) "At-home recovery visit" means the period of a visit required to provide at home recovery care, without limit on the duration of the visit, except each consecutive four hours in a twenty-four hour period of services provided by a care provider is one visit.
(ii) Coverage requirements and limitations
(a) At-home recovery services provided must be primarily services which assist in activities of daily living.
(b) The insured's attending physician must certify that the specific type and frequency of at-home recovery services are necessary because of a condition for which a home care plan of treatment was approved by medicare.
(c) Coverage is limited to:
(i) No more than the number and type of at-home recovery visits certified as necessary by the insured's attending physician. The total number of at-home recovery visits shall not exceed the number of medicare approved home health care visits under a medicare approved home care plan of treatment.
(ii) The actual charges for each visit up to a maximum reimbursement of forty dollars per visit.
(iii) One thousand six hundred dollars per calendar year.
(iv) Seven visits in any one week.
(v) Care furnished on a visiting basis in the insured's home.
(vi) Services provided by a care provider as defined in paragraph (H)(3)(j) of this rule.
(vii) At-home recovery visits while the insured is covered under the policy or certificate and not otherwise excluded.
(viii) At-home recovery visits received during the period the insured is receiving medicare approved home care services or no more than eight weeks after the service date of the last medicare approved home health care visit.
(iii) Coverage is excluded for:
(a) Home care visits paid for by medicare or other government programs; and
(b) Care provided by family members, unpaid volunteers or providers who are not care providers.
(4) Standards for plans "K" and "L"
(a) Standardized medicare supplement benefit plan "K" shall consist of the following:
(i) Coverage of one hundred per cent of the "Part A" hospital coinsurance amount for each day used from the sixty-first through the ninetieth day in any medicare benefit period;
(ii) Coverage of one hundred per cent of the "Part A" hospital coinsurance amount for each medicare lifetime inpatient reserve day used from the ninety-first through the one hundred fiftieth day in any medicare benefit period;
(iii) Upon exhaustion of the medicare hospital inpatient coverage, including the lifetime reserve days, coverage of one hundred per cent of the medicare "Part A" eligible expenses for hospitalization paid at the applicable prospective payment system ("PPS") rate, or other appropriate medicare standard of payment, subject to a lifetime maximum benefit of an additional three hundred sixty-five days. The provider shall accept the issuer's payment as payment in full and may not bill the insured for any balance;
(iv) Medicare "Plan A" deductible: coverage for fifty per cent of the medicare "Part A" inpatient hospital deductible amount per benefit period until the out-of-pocket limitation is met as described in paragraph (H)(4)(a)(x) of this rule;
(v) Skilled nursing facility care coverage for fifty per cent of the coinsurance amount for each day used from the twenty-first day through the one hundredth day in a medicare benefit period for post-hospital skilled nursing facility care eligible under medicare "Part A" until the out-of-pocket limitation is met as described in paragraph (H)(4)(a)(x) of this rule;
(vi) Hospice care coverage for fifty per cent of cost sharing for all "Part A" medicare-eligible expenses and respite care until the out-of-pocket limitation is met as described in paragraph (H)(4)(a)(x) of this rule;
(vii) Coverage for fifty per cent under medicare "Parts A" or "B", of the reasonable cost of the first three pints of blood (or equivalent quantities of packed red blood cells, as defined under federal regulations) unless replaced in accordance with federal regulations until the out-of-pocket limitation is met as described in paragraph (H)(4)(a)(x) of this rule;
(viii) Except for coverage provided in paragraph (H)(4)(a)(ix) of this rule, coverage for fifty per cent of the cost sharing otherwise applicable under medicare "Part B" after the policyholder pays the "Part B" deductible until the out-of-pocket limitation is met as described in paragraph (H)(4)(a)(x) of this rule:
(ix) Coverage of one hundred per cent of the cost sharing for medicare "Part B" preventive services after the policyholder pays the "Part B" deductible; and
(x) Coverage of one hundred per cent of all cost sharing under medicare "Parts A" and "B" for the balance of the calendar year after the individual has reached the out-of-pocket limitation on annual expenditures under medicare "Parts A" and "B" of four thousand dollars in 2006, indexed each year by the appropriate inflation adjustment specified by the secretary of the "United States" department of health and human services.
(b) Standardized medicare supplement benefit plan "L" shall consist of the following:
(i) The benefits described in paragraphs (H)(4)(a)(i), (H)(4)(a)(ii), (H)(4)(a)(iii), and (H)(4)(a)(ix) of this rule;
(ii) The benefit described in paragraphs (H)(4)(a)(iv), (H)(4)(a)(v), (H)(4)(a)(vi), (H)(4)(a)(vii), and (H)(4)(a)(viii) of this rule, but substituting seventy-five per cent for fifty per cent; and
(iii) The benefit described in paragraph (H)(4)(a)(x) of this rule, but substituting two thousand dollars for four thousand dollars.
(I) Benefit standards for 2010 standardized medicare supplement benefit plan policies or certificates issued or delivered with an effective date for coverage on or after June 1, 2010.
The following standards are applicable to all medicare supplement policies or certificates delivered or issued for delivery in this state with an effective date for coverage on or after June 1, 2010. No policy or certificate may be advertised, solicited, delivered or issued for delivery in this state as a medicare supplement policy or certificate unless it complies with these benefit standards. No issuer may offer any 1990 standardized medicare supplement benefit plan for sale on or after the June 1, 2010 effective date of these 2010 standardized medicare supplement benefit plan standards in this state. Benefit standards applicable to medicare supplement policies and certificates issued with an effective date for coverage prior to June 1, 2010 remain subject to the requirements of paragraph (H) of this rule.
(1) General standards. The following standards apply to medicare supplement policies and certificates and are in addition to all other requirements of this rule.
(a) A medicare supplement policy or certificate shall not exclude or limit benefits for losses incurred more than six months from the effective date of coverage because it involved a preexisting condition. The policy or certificate may not define a preexisting condition more restrictively than a condition for which medical advice was given or treatment was recommended or received from a physician within six months before the effective date of coverage.
(b) A medicare supplement policy or certificate shall not indemnify against losses resulting from sickness on a different basis than losses resulting from accidents.
(c) A medicare supplement policy or certificate shall provide that benefits designed to cover cost sharing amounts under medicare will be changed automatically to coincide with any changes in the applicable medicare deductible, copayment, or coinsurance amounts. Premiums may be modified to correspond with such changes.
(d) No medicare supplement policy or certificate shall provide for termination of coverage of a spouse solely because of the occurrence of an event specified for termination of coverage of the insured, other than the nonpayment of premium.
(e) Each medicare supplement policy shall be guaranteed renewable.
(i) The issuer shall not cancel or nonrenew the policy solely on the ground of health status of the individual.
(ii) The issuer shall not cancel or nonrenew the policy for any reason other than nonpayment of premium or material misrepresentation.
(iii) If the medicare supplement policy is terminated by the group policyholder and is not replaced as provided under paragraph (I)(1)(e)(5) of this rule, the issuer shall offer certificate holders an individual medicare supplement policy which (at the option of the certificate holder):
(a) Provides for the continuation of the benefits contained in the group policy; or
(b) Provides for benefits that otherwise meet the requirements of paragraph (I) of this rule.
(iv) If an individual is a certificate holder in a group medicare supplement policy and the individual terminates membership in the group, the issuer shall:
(a) Offer the certificate holder the conversion opportunity described in paragraph (I)(1)(e)(3) of this rule; or
(b) At the option of the group policyholder, offer the certificate holder continuation coverage under the group policy.
(v) If a group medicare supplement policy is replaced by another group medicare supplement policy purchased by the same policyholder, the issuer of the replacement policy shall offer coverage to all persons covered under the old group policy on its date of termination. Coverage under the new policy shall not result in any exclusion for preexisting conditions that would have been covered under the group policy being replaced.
(f) Termination of a medicare supplement policy or certificate shall be without prejudice to any continuous loss which commenced while the policy was in force, but the extension of benefits beyond the period during which the policy was in force may be conditioned upon the continuous total disability of the insured, limited to the duration of the policy benefit period, if any, or payment of the maximum benefits. Receipt of medicare "Part D" benefits will not be considered in determining a continuous loss.
(g)
(i) A medicare supplement policy or certificate shall provide that benefits and premiums under the policy or certificate shall be suspended at the request of the policyholder or certificate holder for the period (not to exceed twenty-four months) in which the policyholder or certificate holder has applied for and is determined to be entitled to medical assistance under "Title XIX of the Social Security Act," but only if the policyholder or certificate holder notifies the issuer of the policy or certificate within ninety days after the date the individual becomes entitled to assistance.
(ii) If suspension occurs and if the policyholder or certificate holder loses entitlement to medical assistance, the policy or certificate shall be automatically reinstituted (effective as of the date of termination of entitlement) as of the termination of entitlement if the policyholder or certificate holder provides notice of loss of entitlement within ninety days after the date of loss and pays the premium attributable to the period, effective as of the date of termination of entitlement.
(iii) Each medicare supplement policy shall provide that benefits and premiums under the policy shall be suspended (for any period that may be provided by federal regulation) at the request of the policyholder if the policyholder is entitled to benefits under section 226(b) of the "Social Security Act" and is covered under a group health plan as defined in section 1862 (b)(1)(A)(v) of the "Social Security Act." If suspension occurs and if the policyholder or certificate holder loses coverage under the group health plan, the policy shall be automatically reinstituted (effective as of the date of loss of coverage) if the policyholder provides notice of loss of coverage within ninety days after the date of the loss.
(iv) Reinstitution of coverages as described in paragraphs (I)(2) and (I)(3) of this rule:
(a) Shall not provide for any waiting period with respect to treatment of preexisting conditions;
(b) Shall provide for resumption of coverage that is substantially equivalent to coverage in effect before the date of suspension; and
(c) Shall provide for classification of premiums on terms at least as favorable to the policyholder or certificate holder as the premium classification terms that would have applied to the policyholder or certificate holder had the coverage not been suspended.
(2) Standards for basic (core) benefits common to medicare supplement insurance benefit plans "A," "B," "C," "D," "F," "F With High Deductible," "G," "M," and "N". Every issuer of medicare supplement insurance benefit plans shall make available a policy or certificate including only the following basic "core" package of benefits to each prospective insured. An issuer may make available to prospective insureds any of the other medicare supplement insurance benefit plans in addition to the basic core package, but not in lieu of it.
(a) Coverage of "Part A" medicare-eligible expenses for hospitalization to the extent not covered by medicare from the sixty-first day through the ninetieth day in any medicare benefit period;
(b) Coverage of "Part A" medicare-eligible expenses incurred for hospitalization to the extent not covered by medicare for each medicare lifetime inpatient reserve day used;
(c) Upon exhaustion of the medicare hospital inpatient coverage, including the lifetime reserve days, coverage of one hundred per cent of the medicare "Part A" eligible expenses for hospitalization paid at the applicable prospective payment system ("PPS") rate, or other appropriate medicare standard of payment, subject to a lifetime maximum benefit of an additional three hundred sixty-five days. The provider shall accept the issuer's payment as payment in full and may not bill the insured for any balance;
(d) Coverage under medicare "Parts A" and "B" for the reasonable cost of the first three pints of blood (or equivalent quantities of packed red blood cells, as defined under federal regulations) unless replaced in accordance with federal regulations;
(e) Coverage for the coinsurance amount, or in the case of hospital outpatient department services paid under a prospective payment system, the copayment amount, of medicare eligible expenses under "Part B" regardless of hospital confinement, subject to the medicare "Part B" deductible;
(f) Hospice care: coverage of cost sharing for all "Part A" medicare eligible hospice care and respite care expenses.
(3) Standards for additional benefits. The following additional benefits shall be included in medicare supplement benefit plans "B," "C," "D," "F," "F With High Deductible," "G," "M," and "N" as provided by paragraph (K) of this rule.
(a) Medicare "Part A" deductible: coverage for one hundred per cent of the medicare "Part A" inpatient hospital deductible amount per benefit period.
(b) Medicare "Part A" deductible: coverage for fifty per cent of the medicare "Part A" inpatient hospital deductible amount per benefit period.
(c) Skilled nursing facility care: coverage for the actual billed charges up to the coinsurance amount from the twenty-first day through the one hundredth day in a medicare benefit period for post-hospital skilled nursing facility care eligible under medicare "Part A."
(d) Medicare "Part B" deductible: coverage for one hundred per cent of the medicare "Part B" deductible amount per calendar year regardless of hospital confinement.
(e) One hundred per cent of the medicare "Part B" excess charges: coverage for all of the difference between the actual medicare "Part B" charges as billed, not to exceed any charge limitation established by the medicare program or state law, and the medicare-approved "Part B" charge.
(f) Medically necessary emergency care in a foreign country: coverage to the extent not covered by medicare for eighty per cent of the billed charges for medicare-eligible expenses for medically necessary emergency hospital, physician and medical care received in a foreign country, which care would have been covered by medicare if provided in the "United States" and which care began during the first sixty consecutive days of each trip outside the "United States," subject to a calendar year deductible of two hundred fifty dollars, and a lifetime maximum benefit of fifty thousand dollars. For purposes of this benefit, "emergency care" shall mean care needed immediately because of an injury or an illness of sudden and unexpected onset.
(J) Standard medicare supplement benefit plans for 1990 standardized medicare supplement benefit plan policies or certificates issued for delivery on or after May 1, 1992 and with an effective date for coverage prior to June 1, 2010.
(1) An issuer shall make available to each prospective policyholder and certificate holder a policy form or certificate form containing only the basic "core" benefits, as defined in paragraph (H)(2) of this rule.
(2) No groups, packages or combinations of medicare supplement benefits other than those listed in paragraph (J) of this rule shall be offered for sale in this state, except as may be permitted in paragraphs (J) (7) and (M) of this rule.
(3) Benefit plans shall be uniform in structure, language, designation and format to the standard benefit plans "A" through "L" listed in paragraph (J)(5) of this rule and conform to the definitions in paragraph (D) of this rule. Each benefit shall be structured in accordance with the format provided in paragraphs (H)(2) and (H)(3), or (H)(4) of this rule and list the benefits in the order shown in paragraph (J)(5) of this rule. For purposes of this paragraph, "structure, language, and format" means style, arrangement and overall content of a benefit.
(4) An issuer may use, in addition to the benefit plan designations required in paragraph (J)(3) of this rule, other designations to the extent permitted by law.
(5) Make-up of benefit plans:
(a) Standardized medicare supplement benefit plan "A" shall be limited to the basic ("core") benefits common to all benefit plans, as defined in paragraph (H)(2) of this rule.
(b) Standardized medicare supplement benefit plan "B" shall include only the following: the core benefit as defined in paragraph (H)(2) of this rule, plus the medicare "Part A" deductible as defined in paragraph (H)(3)(a) of this rule.
(c) Standardized medicare supplement benefit plan "C" shall include only the following: the core benefit as defined in paragraph (H)(2) of this rule, plus the medicare "Part A" deductible, skilled nursing facility care, medicare "Part B" deductible and medically necessary emergency care in a foreign country as defined in paragraphs (H)(3)(a), (H)(3)(b), (H)(3)(c), and (H)(3)(h) of this rule, respectively.
(d) Standardized medicare supplement benefit plan "D" shall include only the following: the core benefit as defined in paragraph (H)(2) of this rule, plus the medicare "Part A" deductible, skilled nursing facility care, medically necessary emergency care in a foreign country and the at-home recovery benefit as defined in paragraphs (H)(3)(a), (H)(3)(b), (H)(3)(h), and (H)(3)(j) of this rule, respectively.
(e) Standardized medicare supplement benefit [regular] plan "E" shall include only the following: the core benefit as defined in paragraph (H)(2) of this rule, plus the medicare "Part A" deductible, skilled nursing facility care, medically necessary emergency care in a foreign country and preventive medical care as defined in paragraphs (H)(3)(a), (H)(3)(b), (H)(3)(h), and (H)(3)(i) of this rule, respectively.
(f) Standardized medicare supplement benefit plan "F" shall include only the following: the core benefit as defined in paragraph (H)(2) of this rule, plus the medicare "Part A" deductible, the skilled nursing facility care, the "Part B" deductible, one hundred per cent of the medicare "Part B" excess charges, and medically necessary emergency care in a foreign country as defined in paragraphs (H)(3)(a), (H)(3)(b), (H)(3)(c), (H)(3)(e), and (H)(3)(h) of this rule, respectively.
(g) Standardized medicare supplement benefit high deductible plan "F" shall include only the following: one hundred per cent of covered expenses following the payment of the annual high deductible plan "F" deductible. The covered expenses include the core benefit as defined in paragraph (H)(2) of this rule, plus the medicare "Part A" deductible, skilled nursing facility care, the medicare "Part B" deductible, one hundred per cent of the medicare "Part B" excess charges, and medically necessary emergency care in a foreign country as defined in paragraphs (H)(3)(a), (H)(3)(b), (H)(3)(c), (H)(3)(e) and (H)(3)(h) of this rule, respectively. The annual high deductible plan "F" deductible shall consist of out-of-pocket expenses, other than premiums, for services covered by the medicare supplement plan "F" policy, and shall be in addition to any other specific benefit deductibles. The annual high deductible plan "F" deductible shall be fifteen hundred dollars for 1998 and 1999, and shall be based on the calendar year. It shall be adjusted annually thereafter by the secretary to reflect the change in the consumer price index for all urban consumers for the twelve-month period ending with August of the preceding year, and rounded to the nearest multiple of ten dollars.
(h) Standardized medicare supplement benefit plan "G" shall include only the following: the core benefit as defined in paragraph (H)(2) of this rule, plus the medicare "Part A" deductible, skilled nursing facility care, eighty per cent of the medicare "Part B" excess charges, medically necessary emergency care in a foreign country, and the at-home recovery benefit as defined in paragraphs (H)(3)(a), (H)(3)(b), (H)(3)(d), (H)(3)(h), and (H)(3)(j) of this rule, respectively.
(i) Standardized medicare supplement benefit plan "H" shall consist of only the following: the core benefit as defined in paragraph (H)(2) of this rule, plus the medicare "Part A" deductible, skilled nursing facility care, basic prescription drug benefit and medically necessary emergency care in a foreign country as defined in paragraphs (H)(3)(a), (H)(3)(b), (H)(3)(f), and (H)(3)(h) of this rule, respectively. The outpatient prescription drug benefit shall not be included in a medicare supplement policy sold after December 31, 2005.
(j) Standardized medicare supplement benefit plan "I" shall consist of only the following: the core benefit as defined in paragraph (H)(2) of this rule, plus the medicare "Part A" deductible, skilled nursing facility care, one hundred per cent of the medicare "Part B" excess charges, basic prescription drug benefit, medically necessary emergency care in a foreign country and at-home recovery benefit as defined in paragraphs (H)(3)(a), (H)(3)(b), (H)(3)(e), (H)(3)(f), (H)(3)(h), and (H)(3)(j) of this rule, respectively. The outpatient prescription drug benefit shall not be included in a medicare supplement policy sold after December 31, 2005.
(k) Standardized medicare supplement benefit plan "J" shall consist of only the following: the core benefit as defined in paragraph (H)(2) of this rule, plus the medicare "Part A" deductible, skilled nursing facility care, medicare "Part B" deductible, one hundred per cent of the medicare "Part B" excess charges, extended prescription drug benefit, medically necessary emergency care in a foreign country, preventive medical care and at-home recovery benefit as defined in paragraphs (H)(3)(a), (H)(3)(b), (H)(3)(c), (H)(3)(e), (H)(3)(g), (H)(3)(h), (H)(3)(i), and (H)(3)(j) of this rule, respectively. The outpatient prescription drug benefit shall not be included in a medicare supplement policy sold after December 31, 2005.
(l) Standardized medicare supplement benefit high deductible plan "J" shall consist of only the following: one hundred per cent of covered expenses following the payment of the annual high deductible plan "J" deductible. The covered expenses include the core benefit as defined in paragraph (H)(2) of this rule, plus the medicare "Part A" deductible, skilled nursing facility care, medicare "Part B" deductible, one hundred per cent of the medicare "Part B" excess charges, extended outpatient prescription drug benefit, medically necessary emergency care in a foreign country, preventive medical care benefit and at-home recovery benefit as defined in paragraphs (H)(3)(a), (H)(3)(b), (H)(3)(c), (H)(3)(e), (H)(3)(g), (H)(3)(h), (H)(3)(i), and (H)(3)(j) of this rule, respectively. The annual high deductible plan "J" deductible shall consist of out-of-pocket expenses, other than premiums, for services covered by the medicare supplement plan "J" policy, and shall be in addition to any other specific benefit deductibles. The annual deductible shall be fifteen hundred dollars for 1998 and 1999, and shall be based on a calendar year. It shall be adjusted annually thereafter by the secretary to reflect the change in the consumer price index for all urban consumers for the twelve-month period ending with August of the preceding year, and rounded to the nearest multiple of ten dollars. The outpatient prescription drug benefit shall not be included in a medicare supplement policy sold after December 31, 2005.
(6) Make-up of two medicare supplement plans mandated by "The Medicare Prescription Drug, Improvement and Modernization Act of 2003 (MMA)";
(a) Standardized medicare supplement benefit plan "K" shall consist of only those benefits described in paragraph (H)(4)(a) of this rule:
(b) Standardized medicare supplement benefit plan "L" shall consist of only those benefits described in paragraph (H)(4)(b) of this rule.
(7) New or innovative benefits: an issuer may, with the prior approval of the superintendent, offer policies or certificates with new or innovative benefits in addition to the benefits provided in a policy or certificate that otherwise complies with the applicable standards. The new or innovative benefits may include benefits that are appropriate to medicare supplement insurance, new or innovative, not otherwise available, cost-effective, and offered in a manner which is consistent with the goal of simplification of medicare supplement policies. After December 31, 2005, the innovative benefit shall not include an outpatient prescription drug benefit.
(K) Standard medicare supplement benefit plans for 2010 standardized medicare supplement benefit plan policies or certificates issued for delivery with an effective date for coverage on or after June 1, 2010.
The following standards are applicable to all medicare supplement policies or certificates delivered or issued for delivery in this state with an effective date for coverage on or after June 1, 2010. No policy or certificate may be advertised, solicited, delivered or issued for delivery in this state as a medicare supplement policy or certificate unless it complies with these benefit plan standards. Benefit plan standards applicable to medicare supplement policies and certificates issued with an effective date for coverage before June 1, 2010 remain subject to the requirements of paragraph (J) of this rule.
(1) An issuer shall make available to each prospective policyholder and certificate holder a policy form containing only the basic (core) benefits, as defined in paragraph (I)(2) of this rule.
(2) If an issuer makes available any of the additional benefits described in paragraph (I)(3) of this rule, or offers standardized benefit plans "K" or "L" as described in paragraphs (K)(5)(h) and (K)(5)(i) of this rule, then the issuer shall make available to each prospective policyholder and certificate holder, in addition to a policy form or certificate form with only the basic (core) benefits as described in the first sentence of paragraph (K) of this rule, a policy form or certificate form containing either standardized benefit plan "C" as described in paragraph (K)(5)(c) of this rule or standardized benefit plan "F" as described in paragraph (K)(5)(e) of this rule.
(3) No groups, packages or combinations of medicare supplement benefits other than those listed in this paragraph (K) of this rule shall be offered for sale in this state, except as may be provided in paragraphs (K)(7) and (M) of this rule.
(4) Benefit plans shall be uniform in structure, language, designation and format to the standard benefit plans listed in this paragraph and conform to the definitions in paragraph (D) of this rule. Each benefit shall be structured in accordance with the format provided in paragraphs (I)(2) and (I)(3) of this rule; or, in the case of plans "K" or "L," in paragraph (K)(6)(h) or (K)(6)(i) of this rule and list the benefits in the order shown. For purposes of this paragraph, "structure, language, and format" means style, arrangement and overall content of a benefit.
(5) In addition to the benefit plan designations required in paragraph (K)(4) of this rule, an issuer may use other designations to the extent permitted by law.
(6) Make-up of 2010 standardized benefit plans.
(a) Standardized medicare supplement benefit plan "A" shall include only the following: the basic (core) benefits as defined in paragraph (I)(2) of this rule.
(b) Standardized medicare supplement benefit plan "B" shall include only the following: the basic (core) benefit as defined in paragraph (I)(2) of this rule, plus one hundred per cent of the medicare "Part A" deductible as defined in paragraph (I)(3)(a) of this rule.
(c) Standardized medicare supplement benefit plan "C" shall include only the following: the basic (core) benefit as defined in paragraph (I)(2) of this rule, plus one hundred per cent of the medicare "Part A" deductible, skilled nursing facility care, one hundred per cent of the medicare "Part B" deductible, and medically necessary emergency care in a foreign country as defined in paragraphs (I)(3)(a), (I)(3)(c), (I)(3)(d) and (I)(3)(f) of this rule, respectively.
(d) Standardized medicare supplement benefit plan "D" shall include only the following: the basic (core) benefit (as defined in paragraph (I)(2) of this rule), plus one hundred per cent of the medicare "Part A" deductible, skilled nursing facility care, and medically necessary emergency care in a foreign country as defined in paragraphs (I)(3)(a), (I)(3)(c) and (I)(3)(f) of this rule, respectively.
(e) Standardized medicare supplement benefit [regular] plan "F" shall include only the following: the basic (core) benefit as defined in paragraph (I)(2) of this rule, plus one hundred per cent of the medicare "Part A" deductible, the skilled nursing facility care, one hundred per cent of the medicare "Part B" deductible, one hundred per cent of the medicare "Part B" excess charges, and medically necessary emergency care in a foreign country as defined in paragraphs (I)(3)(a), (I)(3)(c), (I)(3)(d), (I)(3)(e) and (I)(3)(f) of this rule, respectively.
(f) Standardized medicare supplement plan "F With High Deductible" shall include only the following: one hundred per cent of covered expenses following the payment of the annual deductible set forth in paragraph (K)(6)(f)(ii) of this rule.
(i) The basic (core) benefit as defined in paragraph (I)(2) of this rule, plus one hundred per cent of the medicare "Part A" deductible, skilled nursing facility care, one hundred per cent of the medicare "Part B" deductible, one hundred per cent of the medicare "Part B" excess charges, and medically necessary emergency care in a foreign country as defined in paragraphs (I)(3)(a), (I)(3)(c), (I)(3)(d), (I)(3)(e) and (I)(3)(f) of this rule, respectively.
(ii) The annual deductible in plan "F With High Deductible" shall consist of out-of-pocket expenses, other than premiums, for services covered by [regular] plan "F," and shall be in addition to any other specific benefit deductibles. The basis for the deductible shall be one thousand five hundred dollars, and shall be adjusted annually from 1999 by the secretary of the "United States" department of health and human services to reflect the changes in the consumer price index for all urban consumers for the twelve-month period ending with August of the preceding year, and rounded to the nearest multiple of ten dollars.
(g) Standardized medicare supplement benefit plan "G" shall include only the following: the basic (core) benefit as defined in paragraph (I)(2) of this rule, plus one hundred per cent of the medicare "Part A" deductible, skilled nursing facility care, one hundred per cent of the medicare "Part B" excess charges, and medically necessary emergency care in a foreign country as defined in paragraphs (I)(3)(a), (I)(3)(c), (I)(3)(e) and (I)(3)(f) of this rule, respectively. Effective January 1, 2020, the standardized benefit plans described in paragraph (L)(1)(d) of the rule (redesignated plan G high deductible) may be offered to any individual who was eligible for medicare prior to January 1, 2020.
(h) Standardized medicare supplement plan "K" is mandated by the "Medicare Prescription Drug, Improvement and Modernization Act of 2003," and shall include only the following:
(i) "Part A" hospital coinsurance, sixty-first through ninetieth days: coverage of one hundred per cent of the "Part A" hospital coinsurance amount for each day used from the sixty-first through the ninetieth day in any medicare benefit period;
(ii) "Part A" hospital coinsurance, ninety-first through one hundred fiftieth days: coverage of one hundred per cent of the "Part A" hospital coinsurance amount for each medicare lifetime inpatient reserve day used from the ninety-first through the one hundred fiftieth day in any medicare benefit period;
(iii) "Part A" hospitalization after lifetime reserve days are exhausted: Upon exhaustion of the medicare hospital inpatient coverage, including the lifetime reserve days, coverage of one hundred per cent of the medicare "Part A" eligible expenses for hospitalization paid at the applicable prospective payment system ("PPS") rate, or other appropriate medicare standard of payment, subject to a lifetime maximum benefit of an additional three hundred sixty-five days. The provider shall accept the issuer's payment as payment in full and may not bill the insured for any balance;
(iv) Medicare "Part A" deductible: coverage for fifty per cent of the medicare "Part A" inpatient hospital deductible amount per benefit period until the out-of-pocket limitation is met as described in paragraph (K)(6)(h)(x) of this rule.
(v) Skilled nursing facility care: coverage for fifty per cent of the coinsurance amount for each day used from the twenty-first day through the one hundredth day in a medicare benefit period for post-hospital skilled nursing facility care eligible under medicare "Part A" until the out-of-pocket limitation is met as described in paragraph (K)(6)(h)(x) of this rule.
(vi) Hospice care: coverage for fifty per cent of cost sharing for all "Part A" medicare eligible expenses and respite care until the out-of-pocket limitation is met as described in paragraph (K)(6)(h)(x) of this rule.
(vii) Blood: coverage for fifty per cent, under medicare "Part A" or "B," of the reasonable cost of the first three pints of blood (or equivalent quantities of packed red blood cells, as defined under federal regulations) unless replaced in accordance with federal regulations until the out-of-pocket limitation is met as described paragraph (K)(6)(h)(x) of this rule.
(viii) "Part B" cost sharing: except for coverage provided in paragraph (K)(6)(h)(ix) of this rule, coverage for fifty per cent of the cost sharing otherwise applicable under medicare "Part B" after the policyholder pays the deductible until the out-of-pocket limitation is met as described in paragraph (K)(6)(h)(x) of this rule.
(ix) "Part B" preventive services: coverage of one hundred per cent of the cost sharing for medicare "Part B" preventive services after the policyholder pays the "Part B" deductible; and
(x) Cost sharing after out-of-pocket limits: coverage of one hundred per cent of all cost sharing under medicare "Parts A" and "B" for the balance of the calendar year after the individual has reached the out-of-pocket limitation on annual expenditures under medicare "Parts A" and "B" of four thousand dollars in 2006, indexed each year by the appropriate inflation adjustment specified by the secretary of the "United States" department of health and human services.
(i) Standardized medicare supplement plan "L" is mandated by the "Medicare Prescription Drug, Improvement and Modernization Act of 2003," and shall include only the following:
(i) The benefits described in paragraphs (K)(6)(h)(i), (K)(6)(h)(ii), (K)(6)(h)(iii) and (K)(6)(h)(ix) of this rule;
(ii) The benefit described in paragraphs (K)(6)(h)(iv), (K)(6)(h)(v), (K)(6)(h)(vi), (K)(6)(h)(vii) and (K)(6)(h)(viii) of this rule, but substituting seventy-five per cent for fifty per cent; and
(iii) The benefit described in paragraph (K)(6)(h)(x) of this rule, but substituting two thousand dollars for four thousand dollars.
(j) Standardized medicare supplement plan "M" shall include only the following: the basic (core) benefit as defined in paragraph (I)(2) of this rule, plus fifty per cent of the medicare "Part A" deductible, skilled nursing facility care, and medically necessary emergency care in a foreign country as defined in paragraphs (I)(3)(b), (I)(3)(c) and (I)(3)(f) of this rule, respectively.
(k) Standardized medicare supplement plan "N" shall include only the following: the basic (core) benefit as defined in paragraph (I)(2) of this rule, plus one hundred per cent of the medicare "Part A" deductible, skilled nursing facility care, and medically necessary emergency care in a foreign country as defined in paragraphs (I)(3)(a), (I)(3)(c) and (I)(3)(f) of this rule, respectively, with copayments in the following amounts:
(i) The lesser of twenty dollars or the medicare "Part B" coinsurance or copayment for each covered health care provider office visit (including visits to medical specialists); and
(ii) The lesser of fifty dollars or the medicare "Part B" coinsurance or copayment for each covered emergency room visit, however, this copayment shall be waived if the insured is admitted to any hospital and the emergency visit is subsequently covered as a medicare "Part A" expense.
(7) New or innovative benefits: an issuer may, with the prior approval of the superintendent, offer policies or certificates with new or innovative benefits, in addition to the standardized benefits provided in a policy or certificate that otherwise complies with the applicable standards. The new or innovative benefits shall include only benefits that are appropriate to medicare supplement insurance, are new or innovative, are not otherwise available, and are cost effective. Approval of new or innovative benefits must not adversely impact the goal of medicare supplement simplification. New or innovative benefits shall not include an outpatient prescription drug benefit. New or innovative benefits shall not be used to change or reduce benefits, including a change of any cost-sharing provision, in any standardized plan.
(L) Standard medicare supplement benefit plans for year 2020 standardized medicare supplement benefit plan policies or certificates issued for delivery to individuals newly eligible for medicare on or after January 1, 2020.
The "Medicare Access and CHIP Reauthorization Act" of 2015 (MACRA) requires the following standards are applicable to all medicare supplement policies or certificates delivered or issued for delivery in this state to individuals newly eligible for medicare on or after January 1, 2020. No policy or certificate that provides coverage of the medicare "Part B" deductible may be advertised, solicited, delivered or issued for delivery in this state as a medicare supplement policy or certificate to individuals newly eligible for medicare on or after January 1, 2020. All policies must comply with the following benefit standards. Benefit plan standards applicable to medicare supplement policies and certificates issued to individuals eligible for medicare before January 1, 2020, remain subject to the requirements of paragraph (K) of this rule.
(1) Benefit requirements. The standards and requirements of paragraph (K) of this rule shall apply to all medicare supplement policies or certificates delivered or issued for delivery to individuals newly eligible for medicare on or after January 1, 2020, with the following exceptions:
(a) Standardized medicare supplement benefit plan "C" is redesignated as plan "D" and shall provide the benefits contained in paragraph (K)(6)(c) of this rule but shall not provide coverage for one hundred per cent or any portion of the medicare "Part B" deductible.
(b) Standardized medicare supplement benefit plan "F" is redesignated as plan "G" and shall provide the benefits contained in paragraph (K)(6)(e) of this rule but shall not provide coverage for one hundred per cent or any portion of the medicare "Part B" deductible.
(c) Standardized medicare supplement benefit plans "C," "F," and "F with High Deductible" may not be offered to individuals newly eligible for medicare on or after January 1, 2020.
(d) Standardized medicare supplement benefit "Plan F With High Deductible" is redesignated as "Plan G With High Deductible" and shall provide the benefits contained in paragraph (K)(6)(f) of this rule but shall not provide coverage for one hundred per cent or any portion of the medicare "Part B" deductible; provided further that, the medicare "Part B" deductible paid by the beneficiary shall be considered an out-of-pocket expense in meeting the annual high deductible.
(e) The reference to plan "C" or "F" contained in paragraph (K)(2) of this rule is deemed a reference to plan "D" or "G" for purposes of paragraph (L) of this rule.
(2) Applicability to certain individuals. Paragraph (L) of this rule, applies to only individuals that are newly eligible for medicare on or after January 1, 2020.
(a) By reason of attaining age sixty-five on or after January 1, 2020; or
(b) By reason of entitlement to benefits under part A pursuant to section 226(b) or 226A of the "Social Security Act," or who is deemed to be eligible for benefits under section 226(a) of the "Social Security Act" on or after January 1, 2020.
(3) Guaranteed issue for eligible persons. For purposes of paragraph (O)(5) of this rule, in the case of any individual newly eligible for medicare on or after January 1, 2020, any reference to a medicare supplement policy "C" or "F" (including "F With High Deductible") shall be deemed to be a reference to medicare supplement policy "D" or "G" (including "G With High Deductible"), respectively, that meet the requirements of paragraph (L)(1) of this rule.
(4) Offer of redesignated plans to individuals other than newly eligible. On or after January 1, 2020, the standardized benefit plans described in paragraph (L)(1)(d) of this rule, may be offered to any individual who was eligible for medicare prior to January 1, 2020, in addition to the standardized plans described in paragraph (K)(6) of this rule.
(M) Medicare select policies and certificates, as defined in this paragraph.
(1)
(a) This paragraph shall apply to medicare select policies and certificates, as defined in this paragraph.
(b) No policy or certificate may be advertised as a medicare select policy or certificate unless it meets the requirements of this paragraph.
(2) For the purposes of this paragraph:
(a) "Complaint" means any dissatisfaction expressed by an individual concerning a medicare select issuer or its network providers.
(b) "Grievance" means dissatisfaction expressed in writing by an individual insured under a medicare select policy or certificate with the administration, claims practices, or provision of services concerning a medicare select issuer or its network providers.
(c) "Medicare select issuer" means an issuer offering, or seeking to offer, a medicare select policy or certificate.
(d) "Medicare select policy" or "medicare select certificate" mean respectively a medicare supplement policy or certificate that contains restricted network provisions.
(e) "Network provider" means a provider of health care, or a group of providers of health care, which has entered into a written agreement with the issuer to provide benefits insured under a medicare select policy.
(f) "Restricted network provision" means any provision which conditions the payment of benefits, in whole or in part, on the use of network providers.
(g) "Service area" means the geographic area approved by the superintendent within which an issuer is authorized to offer a medicare select policy.
(3) The superintendent may authorize an issuer to offer a medicare select policy or certificate, pursuant to this paragraph and section 4358 of the "Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA)" of 1990 if the superintendent finds that the issuer has satisfied all of the requirements of this rule.
(4) A medicare select issuer shall not issue a medicare select policy or certificate in this state until its plan of operation has been approved by the superintendent.
(5) A medicare select issuer shall file a proposed plan of operation with the superintendent in a format prescribed by the superintendent. The plan of operation shall contain at least the following information:
(a) Evidence that all covered services that are subject to restricted network provisions are available and accessible through network providers, including a demonstration that:
(i) Services can be provided by network providers with reasonable promptness with respect to geographic location, hours of operation and after-hour care. The hours of operation and availability of after-hour care shall reflect usual practice in the local area. Geographic availability shall reflect the usual travel times within the community.
(ii) The number of network providers in the service area is sufficient, with respect to current and expected policyholders, either:
(a) To deliver adequately all services that are subject to a restricted network provision; or
(b) To make appropriate referrals.
(iii) There are written agreements with network providers describing specific responsibilities.
(iv) Emergency care is available twenty-four hours per day and seven days per week.
(v) In the case of covered services that are subject to a restricted network provision and are provided on a prepaid basis, there are written agreements with network providers prohibiting the providers from billing or otherwise seeking reimbursement from or recourse against any individual insured under a medicare select policy or certificate. This paragraph shall not apply to supplemental charges or coinsurance amounts as stated in the medicare select policy or certificate.
(b) A statement or map providing a clear description of the service area.
(c) A description of the grievance procedure to be utilized.
(d) A description of the quality assurance program, including:
(i) The formal organizational structure;
(ii) The written criteria for selection, retention and removal of network providers; and
(iii) The procedures for evaluating quality of care provided by network providers, and the process to initiate corrective action when warranted.
(e) A list and description, by specialty, of the network providers.
(f) Copies of the written information proposed to be used by the issuer to comply with paragraph (M)(9) of this rule.
(g) Any other information requested by the superintendent.
(6)
(a) A medicare select issuer shall file any proposed changes to the plan of operation, except for changes to the list of network providers, with the superintendent prior to implementing such changes. Such changes shall be considered approved by the superintendent after thirty days unless specifically disapproved.
(b) An updated list of network providers shall be filed with the superintendent at least quarterly.
(7) A medicare select policy or certificate shall not restrict payment for covered services provided by non-network providers if:
(a) The services are for symptoms requiring emergency care or are immediately required for an unforeseen illness, injury or a condition; and
(b) It is not reasonable to obtain such services through a network provider.
(8) A medicare select policy or certificate shall provide payment for full coverage under the policy for covered services that are not available through network providers.
(9) A medicare select issuer shall make full and fair disclosure in writing of the provisions, restrictions, and limitations of the medicare select policy or certificate to each applicant. This disclosure shall include at least the following:
(a) An outline of coverage as required by paragraph (T)(4)(c) of this rule, in the form prescribed in appendix C to this rule sufficient to permit the applicant to compare coverage and premiums of the medicare select policy or certificate with:
(i) Other medicare supplement policies or certificates offered by the issuer; and
(ii) Other medicare select policies or certificates.
(b) A description (including address, phone number and hours of operation) of the network providers, including primary care physicians, specialty physicians, hospitals, and other providers.
(c) A description of the restricted network provisions, including payments for coinsurance and deductibles when providers other than network providers are utilized. Except to the extent specified in the policy or certificate, expenses incurred when using out-of-network providers do not count toward the out-of-pocket annual limit contained in plans "K" and "L".
(d) A description of coverage for emergency and urgently needed care and other out-of-service area coverage.
(e) A description of limitations on referrals to restricted network providers and to other providers.
(f) A description of the policyholder's right to purchase any other medicare supplement policy or certificate otherwise offered by the issuer.
(g) A description of the medicare select issuer's quality assurance program and grievance procedure.
(10) Prior to the sale of a medicare select policy or certificate, a medicare select issuer shall obtain from the applicant a signed and dated form stating that the applicant has received the information provided pursuant to paragraph (M)(9) of this rule and that the applicant understands the restrictions of the medicare select policy or certificate.
(11) A medicare select issuer shall have and use procedures for hearing complaints and resolving written grievances from the subscribers. Such procedures shall be aimed at mutual agreement for settlement and may include arbitration procedures.
(a) The grievance procedure shall be described in the policy and certificates and in the outline of coverage.
(b) At the time the policy or certificate is issued, the issuer shall provide detailed information to the policyholder describing how a grievance may be registered with the issuer.
(c) Grievances shall be considered in a timely manner and shall be transmitted to appropriate decision-makers who have authority to fully investigate the issue and take corrective action.
(d) If a grievance is found to be valid, corrective action shall be taken promptly.
(e) All concerned parties shall be notified about the results of a grievance.
(f) The issuer shall report no later than each March thirty-first to the superintendent regarding its grievance procedure. The report shall be in a format prescribed by the superintendent and shall contain the number of grievances filed in the past year and a summary of the subject, nature and resolution of such grievances.
(12) At the time of initial purchase, a medicare select issuer shall make available to each applicant for a medicare select policy or certificate the opportunity to purchase any medicare supplement policy or certificate otherwise offered by the issuer.
(13)
(a) At the request of an individual insured under a medicare select policy or certificate, a medicare select issuer shall make available to the individual insured the opportunity to purchase a medicare supplement policy or certificate offered by the issuer which has comparable or lesser benefits and which does not contain a restricted network provision. The issuer shall make such policies or certificates available without requiring evidence of insurability after the medicare select policy or certificate has been in force for six months.
(b) For the purposes of paragraph (M)(13) of this rule, a medicare supplement policy or certificate will be considered to have comparable or lesser benefits unless it contains one or more significant benefits not included in the medicare select policy or certificate being replaced. For the purposes of this paragraph, a significant benefit means coverage for the medicare "Part A" deductible, coverage for at-home recovery services or coverage for "Part B" excess charges.
(14) Medicare select policies and certificates shall provide for continuation of coverage in the event the secretary of health and human services determines that medicare select policies and certificates issued pursuant to this paragraph should be discontinued due to either the failure of the medicare select program to be reauthorized under law or its substantial amendment.
(a) Each medicare select issuer shall make available to each individual insured under a medicare select policy or certificate the opportunity to purchase any medicare supplement policy or certificate offered by the issuer which has comparable or lesser benefits and which does not contain a restricted network provision. The issuer shall make such policies and certificates available without requiring evidence of insurability.
(b) For the purposes of paragraph (M)(14) of this rule, a medicare supplement policy or certificate will be considered to have comparable or lesser benefits unless it contains one or more significant benefits not included in the medicare select policy or certificate being replaced. For the purposes of this paragraph, a significant benefit means coverage for the medicare "Part A" deductible, coverage for at-home recovery services or coverage for "Part B" excess charges.
(15) A medicare select issuer shall comply with reasonable requests for data made by state or federal agencies, including the "United States" department of health and human services, for the purpose of evaluating the medicare select program.
(N) Open enrollment
(1) An issuer shall not deny or condition the issuance or effectiveness of any medicare supplement policy or certificate available for sale in this state, nor discriminate in the pricing of a policy or certificate because of the health status (including tobacco or nicotine usage), claims experience, receipt of health care, or medical condition of an applicant in the case of an application for a policy or certificate that is submitted prior to or during the six month period beginning with the first day of the first month in which an individual is both sixty-five years of age or older and is enrolled for benefits under medicare "Part B." Each medicare supplement policy and certificate currently available from an issuer shall be made available to all applicants who qualify under paragraph (N)(1) of this rule without regard to age.
(2)
(a) If an applicant qualifies under paragraph (N)(1) of this rule and submits an application during the time period referenced in paragraph (N)(1) of this rule and, as of the date of application, has had a continuous period of creditable coverage of at least six months, the issuer shall not exclude benefits based on a preexisting condition.
(b) If the applicant qualifies under paragraph (N)(1) of this rule and submits an application during the time period referenced in paragraph (N)(1) of this rule and, as of the date of application, has had a continuous period of creditable coverage that is less than six months, the issuer shall reduce the period of any preexisting condition exclusion by the aggregate of the period of creditable coverage applicable to the applicant as of the enrollment date. The secretary shall specify the manner of the reduction under this paragraph.
(3) Except as provided in paragraphs (N)(2), (O), and (Z) of this rule, paragraph (N)(1) of this rule shall not be construed as preventing the exclusion of benefits under a policy, during the first six months, based on a preexisting condition for which the policyholder or certificate holder received treatment or was otherwise diagnosed during the six months before the coverage became effective.
(4) In connection with the solicitation or sale of a medicare supplement policy or certificate to persons who qualify under paragraph (N)(1) of this rule, no issuer shall:
(a) Engage in any act or practice with the intent or effect of restricting the sale to or discouraging the purchase by persons eligible for open enrollment of any medicare supplement policy or certificate available in this state. Such acts or practices include but are not limited to the following:
(i) Creating a disincentive for producers to sell medicare supplement policies or certificates during the open enrollment period through compensation arrangements that reduce or eliminate compensation for sales made to persons eligible for open enrollment;
(ii) Applying waiting periods for coverage of pre-existing conditions as described in paragraph (N)(2) of this rule only to policies or certificates issued to persons eligible for open enrollment;
(iii) Engaging in premium rating practices which result in premiums which are higher for persons eligible for open enrollment than premiums for persons not eligible for open enrollment;
(iv) Failing to offer to persons eligible for open enrollment any medicare supplement policy or certificate which is available for purchase from the issuer in this state.
(O) Guaranteed issue for eligible persons
(1) Guaranteed issue
(a) Eligible persons are those individuals described in paragraph (O)(2) of this rule who seek to enroll under the policy during the period specified in paragraph (O)(2) of this rule and who submit evidence of the date of termination, disenrollment, or medicare "Part D" enrollment with the application for a medicare supplement policy.
(b) With respect to eligible persons, an issuer shall not deny or condition the issuance or effectiveness of a medicare supplement policy described in paragraph (O)(5) of this rule that is offered and is available for issuance to new enrollees by the issuer, shall not discriminate in the pricing of such a medicare supplement policy because of health status (including tobacco or nicotine usage), claims experience, receipt of health care, or medical condition, and shall not impose an exclusion of benefits based on a preexisting condition under such a medicare supplement policy.
(2) Eligible persons
An eligible person is an individual described in any of the following paragraphs:
(a) The individual is enrolled under an employee welfare benefit plan, or a state medicaid plan as described in Title XIX of the Social Security Act that provides health benefits that supplement the benefits under medicare, and the plan terminates, or the plan ceases to provide all such supplemental health benefits to the individual; or the individual is enrolled under an employee welfare benefit plan that is primary to medicare and the plan terminates or the plan ceases to provide all health benefits to the individual because the individual leaves the plan;
(b)
(i) The individual is enrolled with a "Medicare Advantage" organization under a "Medicare Advantage" plan under "Part C" of medicare, and any of the following circumstances apply, or the individual is sixty-five years of age or older and is enrolled with a "Program of All-Inclusive Care for the Elderly (PACE)" provider under section 1894 of the "Social Security Act", and there are circumstances similar to those described below that would permit discontinuance of the individual's enrollment with such provider if such individual were enrolled in a "Medicare Advantage" plan:
(a) The certification of the organization or plan under this part has been terminated; or
(b) The organization has terminated or otherwise discontinued providing the plan in the area in which the individual resides;
(c) The individual is no longer eligible to elect the plan because of a change in the individual's place of residence or other change in circumstances specified by the secretary, but not including termination of the individual's enrollment on the basis described in section 1851(g)(3)(B) of the federal "Social Security Act" (where the individual has not paid premiums on a timely basis or has engaged in disruptive behavior as specified in standards under section 1856), or the plan is terminated for all individuals within a residence area;
(d) The individual demonstrates, in accordance with guidelines established by the secretary, that:
(i) The organization offering the plan substantially violated a material provision of the organization's contract under this part in relation to the individual, including the failure to provide an enrollee on a timely basis medically necessary care for which benefits are available under the plan or the failure to provide such covered care in accordance with applicable quality standards; or
(ii) The organization, or agent or other entity acting on the organization's behalf, materially misrepresented the plan's provisions in marketing the plan to the individual; or
(e) The individual meets such other exceptional conditions as the secretary may provide.
(c)
(i) The individual is enrolled with:
(a) An eligible organization under a contract under section 1876 of the "Social Security Act" (medicare cost);
(b) A similar organization operating under demonstration project authority, effective for periods before April 1, 1999;
(c) An organization under an agreement under section 1833(a)(1)(A) of the "Social Security Act" (health care prepayment plan); or
(d) An organization under a medicare select policy; and
(ii) The enrollment ceases under the same circumstances that would permit discontinuance of an individual's election of coverage under paragraph (O)(2)(b) of this rule.
(d) The individual is enrolled under a medicare supplement policy and the enrollment ceases because:
(i)
(a) Of the insolvency of the issuer or bankruptcy of the nonissuer organization; or
(b) Of other involuntary termination of coverage or enrollment under the policy;
(ii) The issuer of the policy substantially violated a material provision of the policy; or
(iii) The issuer, or an agent or other entity acting on the issuer's behalf, materially misrepresented the policy's provisions in marketing the policy to the individual;
(e)
(i) The individual was enrolled under a medicare supplement policy and terminates enrollment and subsequently enrolls, for the first time, with any "Medicare Advantage" organization under a "Medicare Advantage" plan under "Part C" of medicare, any eligible organization under a contract under section 1876 of the "Social Security Act" (medicare risk or cost), any similar organization operating under demonstration project authority, any "PACE" program under section 1894 of the "Social Security Act," or a medicare select policy; and
(ii) The subsequent enrollment under paragraph (O)(2)(e)(i) of this rule is terminated by the enrollee during any period within the first twelve months of such subsequent enrollment (during which the enrollee is permitted to terminate such subsequent enrollment under section 1851(e) of the "Social Security Act"); or
(f) The individual, upon first becoming eligible for medicare "Part A" for benefits at age sixty-five or older, enrolls in a "Medicare Advantage" plan under "Part C" of medicare, or with a "PACE" provider under section 1894 of the "Social Security Act," and disenrolls from the plan or program by not later than twelve months after the effective date of enrollment.
(g) The individual enrolls in a medicare "Part D" plan during the initial enrollment period and, at the time of enrollment in "Part D," was enrolled under a medicare supplement policy that covers outpatient prescription drugs and the individual terminates enrollment in the medicare supplement policy and submits evidence of enrollment in medicare "Part D" along with the application for a policy described in paragraph (O)(5)(d) of this rule.
(3) Guaranteed issue time periods
(a) In the case of an individual described in paragraph (O)(2)(a) of this rule, the guaranteed issue period begins on the later of:
(i) The date the individual receives a notice of termination or cessation of all supplemental health benefits (or, if a notice is not received, notice that a claim has been denied because of a termination or cessation); or
(ii) The date that the applicable coverage terminates or ceases; and ends sixty-three days thereafter;
(b) In the case of an individual described in paragraph (O)(2)(b), (O)(2)(c), (O)(2)(e), or (O)(2)(f) of this rule whose enrollment terminated involuntarily, the guaranteed issue period begins on the date that the individual receives a notice of termination and ends sixty-three days after the date the applicable coverage is terminated;
(c) In the case of an individual described in paragraph (O)(2)(d)(i) of this rule, the guaranteed issue period begins on the earlier of:
(i) The date that the individual receives a notice of termination, a notice of the issuer's bankruptcy or insolvency, or other such similar notice if any; and
(ii) The date that the applicable coverage is terminated, and ends on the date that is sixty-three days after the date the coverage is terminated;
(d) In the case of an individual described in paragraph (O)(2)(b), (O)(2)(d)(ii), (O)(2)(d)(iii), (O)(2)(e), or (O)(2)(f) of this rule, who disenrolls voluntarily, the guaranteed issue period begins on the date that is sixty days before the effective date of the disenrollment and ends on the date that is sixty-three days after the effective date;
(e) In the case of an individual described in paragraph (O)(2)(g) of this rule, the guaranteed issue period begins on the date the individual receives notice pursuant to section 1882(v)(2)(B) of the "Social Security Act" from the medicare supplement issuer during the sixty-day period immediately preceding the initial "Part D" enrollment period and ends on the date that is sixty-three days after the effective date of the individual's coverage under medicare "Part D"; and
(f) In the case of an individual described in paragraph (O)(2) of this rule but not described in the preceding provisions of this paragraph, the guaranteed issue period begins on the effective date of disenrollment and ends on the date that is sixty-three days after the effective date.
(4) Extended medigap access for interrupted trial periods
(a) In the case of an individual described in paragraph (O)(2)(e) of this rule (or deemed to be so described, pursuant to this paragraph) whose enrollment with an organization or provider described in paragraph (O)(2)(e)(i) of this rule is involuntarily terminated within the first twelve months of enrollment, and who, without an intervening enrollment, enrolls with another such organization or provider, the subsequent enrollment shall be deemed to be an initial enrollment described in paragraph (O)(2)(e) of this rule;
(b) In the case of an individual described in paragraph (O)(2)(f) of this rule, (or deemed to be so described, pursuant to this paragraph) whose enrollment with a plan or in a program described in paragraph (O)(2)(f) of this rule is involuntarily terminated within the first twelve months of enrollment, and who, without an intervening enrollment, enrolls in another such plan or program, the subsequent enrollment shall be deemed to be an initial enrollment described in paragraph (O)(2)(f) of this rule; and
(c) For the purposes of paragraphs (O)(2)(e) and (O)(2)(f) of this rule, no enrollment of an individual with an organization or provider described in paragraph (O)(2)(e)(i) of this rule, or with a plan or in a program described in paragraph (O)(2)(f) of this rule, may be deemed to be an initial enrollment under this paragraph after the two-year period beginning on the date on which the individual first enrolled with such an organization, provider, plan or program.
(5) Products to which eligible persons are entitled
The medicare supplement policy to which eligible persons are entitled under:
(a) Paragraphs (O)(2)(a), (O)(2)(b), (O)(2)(c), and (O)(2)(d) of this rule is a medicare supplement policy which has a benefit package classified as plan "A," "B," "C," "F" (including "F" with a high deductible), "K" or "L" offered by any issuer.
(b)
(i) Subject to paragraph (O)(5)(b)(ii) of this rule, paragraph (O)(2)(e) of this rule is the same medicare supplement policy in which the individual was most recently previously enrolled, if available from the same issuer, or, if not so available, a policy described in paragraph (O)(5)(a) of this rule;
(ii) After December 31, 2005, if the individual was most recently enrolled in a medicare supplement policy with an outpatient prescription drug benefit, a medicare supplement policy described in this paragraph is:
(a) The policy available from the same issue but modified to remove outpatient prescription drug coverage; or
(b) At the election of the policyholder, an "A," "B," "C," "F" (including "F" with a high deductible), "K" or "L" policy that is offered by any issuer;
(c) Paragraph (O)(2)(f) of this rule shall include any medicare supplement policy offered by any issuer;
(d) Paragraph (O)(2)(g) of this rule is a medicare supplement policy that has a benefit package classified as Plan "A," "B," "C," "F" (including "F" with a high deductible), "K" or "L," and that is offered and is available for issuance to new enrollees by the same issuer that issued the individual's medicare supplement policy with outpatient prescription drug coverage.
(6) Notification provisions
(a) At the time of an event described in paragraph (O)(2) of this rule because of which an individual loses coverage or benefits due to the termination of a contract or agreement, policy, or plan, the organization that terminates the contract or agreement, the issuer terminating the policy, or the administrator of the plan being terminated, respectively, shall notify the individual of his or her rights under paragraph (O) of this rule, and of the obligations of issuers of medicare supplement policies under paragraph (O)(1) of this rule. Such notice shall be communicated contemporaneously with the notification of termination.
(b) At the time of an event described in paragraph (O)(2) of this rule because of which an individual ceases enrollment under a contract or agreement, policy, or plan, the organization that offers the contract or agreement, regardless of the basis for the cessation of enrollment, the issuer offering the policy, or the administrator of the plan, respectively, shall notify the individual of his or her rights under paragraph (O) of this rule, and of the obligations of issuers of medicare supplement policies under paragraph (O)(1) of this rule. Such notice shall be communicated within ten working days of the issuer receiving notification of disenrollment.
(P) Standards for claims payment
(1) An issuer shall comply with section 1882(C)(3) of the "Social Security Act" (as enacted by section 4081 (B)(2)(C) of the "Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1987" (OBRA '87), Pub. L. No. 100-203) by:
(a) Accepting a notice from a medicare carrier on dually assigned claims submitted by participating physicians and suppliers as a claim for benefits in place of any other claim form otherwise required and making a payment determination on the basis of the information contained in that notice;
(b) Notifying the participating physician or supplier and the beneficiary of the payment determination;
(c) Paying the participating physician or supplier directly;
(d) Furnishing, at the time of enrollment, each enrollee with a card listing the policy name, number, and a central mailing address to which notices from a medicare carrier may be sent;
(e) Paying user fees for claim notices that are transmitted electronically or otherwise; and
(f) Providing to the secretary of health and human services, at least annually, a central mailing address to which all claims may be sent by medicare carriers.
(2) Compliance with the requirements set forth in paragraph (P)(1) of this rule shall be certified on the medicare supplement insurance experience reporting form.
(Q) Loss ratio standards and refund or credit of premium
(1) Loss ratio standards
(a)
(i) A medicare supplement policy form or certificate form shall not be delivered or issued for delivery unless the policy form or certificate form can be expected, as estimated for the entire period for which rates are computed to provide coverage, to return to policyholders and certificate holders in the form of aggregate benefits (not including anticipated refunds or credits) provided under the policy form or certificate form:
(a) At least seventy-five per cent of the aggregate amount of premiums earned in the case of group policies; or
(b) At least sixty-five per cent of the aggregate amount of premiums earned in the case of individual policies;
(ii) Calculated on the basis of incurred claims experience or incurred health care expenses where coverage is provided by a health insuring corporation on a service rather than reimbursement basis and earned premiums for such period and in accordance with accepted actuarial principles and practices. Incurred health care expenses where coverage is provided by a health insuring corporation shall not include:
(a) Home office and overhead costs;
(b) Advertising costs;
(c) Commissions and other acquisition costs;
(d) Taxes;
(e) Capital costs;
(f) Administrative costs; and
(g) Claims processing costs.
(b) All filings of rates and rating schedules shall demonstrate that expected claims in relation to premiums comply with the requirements of paragraph (Q) of this rule when combined with actual experience to date. Filings of rate revisions shall also demonstrate that the anticipated loss ratio over the entire future period for which the revised rates are computed to provide coverage can be expected to meet the appropriate loss ratio standards.
(c) For policies issued prior to May 1, 1992, expected claims in relation to premiums shall meet:
(i) The originally filed anticipated loss ratio when combined with the actual experience since inception;
(ii) The appropriate loss ratio requirement from paragraphs (Q)(1)(a)(i)(a) and (Q)(1)(a)(i)(b) of this rule when combined with actual experience beginning January 1, 1996 to date; and
(iii) The appropriate loss ratio requirement from paragraphs (Q)(1)(a)(i)(a) and (Q)(1)(a)(i)(b) of this rule over the entire future period for which the rates are computed to provide coverage.
(d) In meeting the tests in paragraphs (Q)(1)(c)(i), (Q)(1)(c)(ii), and (Q)(1)(c)(iii) of this rule and for purposes of attaining credibility, an issuer may combine experience under policy forms which provide substantially similar coverage. Once a combined form is adopted, the issuer may not separate the experience except with the approval of the superintendent.
(2) Refund or credit calculation
(a) An issuer shall collect and file with the superintendent by May thirty-first of each year the data contained in the applicable reporting form contained in appendix A to this rule for each type in a standard medicare supplement benefit plan.
(b) If on the basis of the experience as reported, the benchmark ratio since inception (ratio one) exceeds the adjusted experience ratio since inception (ratio three), then a refund or credit calculation is required. The refund calculation shall be done on a statewide basis for each type in a standard medicare supplement benefit plan. For purposes of the refund or credit calculation, experience on policies issued within the reporting year shall be excluded.
(c) For the purposes of this paragraph, policies or certificates issued prior to May 1, 1992, the issuer shall make the refund or credit calculation separately for all individual policies (including all group policies subject to an individual loss ratio standard when issued) combined and all other group policies combined for experience after the effective date of this amendment. The first such report shall be due by May 31, 1998.
(d) A refund or credit shall be made only when the benchmark loss ratio exceeds the adjusted experience loss ratio and the amount to be refunded or credited exceeds a de minimis level. The refund shall include interest from the end of the calendar year to the date of the refund or credit at a rate specified by the secretary of health and human services, but in no event shall it be less than the average rate of interest for thirteen-week treasury notes. A refund or credit against premiums due shall be made by September thirtieth following the experience year upon which the refund or credit is based.
(3) Annual filing of premium rates
(a) An issuer of medicare supplement policies and certificates issued before or after the effective date of this rule in this state shall file annually its rates, rating schedule and supporting documentation including ratios of incurred losses to earned premiums by policy duration for approval by the superintendent in accordance with the filing requirements and procedures prescribed by the superintendent. The supporting documentation shall also demonstrate in accordance with actuarial standards of practice using reasonable assumptions that the appropriate loss ratio standards can be expected to be met over the entire period for which rates are computed. Such demonstration shall exclude active life reserves. An expected third-year loss ratio which is greater than or equal to the applicable percentage shall be demonstrated for policies or certificates in force less than three years.
(b) As soon as practicable, but prior to the effective date of enhancements in medicare benefits, every issuer of medicare supplement policies or certificates in this state shall file with the superintendent in accordance with the applicable filing procedures of this state:
(i) Appropriate premium adjustments necessary to produce loss ratios as anticipated for the current premium for the applicable policies or certificates. The supporting documents as necessary to justify the adjustment shall accompany the filing.
(ii) An issuer shall make premium adjustments necessary to produce an expected loss ratio under the policy or certificate to conform to minimum loss ratio standards for medicare supplement policies and which are expected to result in a loss ratio at least as great as that originally anticipated in the rates used to produce current premiums by the issuer for the medicare supplement policies or certificates. No premium adjustments which would modify the loss ratio experience under the policy other than the adjustments described herein should be made with respect to a policy at any time other than upon its renewal date or anniversary date.
(iii) If an issuer fails to make premium adjustments acceptable to the superintendent, the superintendent may order premium adjustments, refunds or premium credits deemed necessary to achieve the loss ratio required by this paragraph.
(c) Any appropriate riders, endorsements or policy forms needed to accomplish the medicare supplement policy or certificate modifications necessary to eliminate benefit duplications with medicare. The riders, endorsements or policy forms shall provide a clear description of the medicare supplement benefits provided by the policy or certificate.
(4) Public hearings
The superintendent may conduct a public hearing to gather information concerning a request by an issuer for an increase in a rate for a policy form or certificate form issued before or after the effective date of this rule if the experience of the form for the previous reporting period is not in compliance with the applicable loss ratio standard. The determination of compliance is made without consideration of any refund or credit for such reporting period. Public notice of such hearing shall be furnished in a manner deemed appropriate by the superintendent.
(R) Filing and approval of policies and certificates and premium rates
(1) An issuer shall not deliver or issue for delivery a policy or certificate to a resident of this state unless the policy form or certificate form has been filed with and approved by the superintendent in accordance with filing requirements and procedures prescribed by the superintendent.
(2) An issuer shall file any riders or amendments to policy or certificate forms to delete outpatient prescription drug benefits as required by the "Medicare Prescription Drug, Improvement, and Modernization Act of 2003" only with the superintendent in the state in which the policy or certificate was issued.
(3) An issuer shall not use or change premium rates for a medicare supplement policy or certificate unless the rates, rating schedule and supporting documentation have been filed with and approved by the superintendent in accordance with the filing requirements and procedures prescribed by the superintendent. The superintendent shall use the following process for approving or disapproving proposed premium increases:
(a) As used in paragraph (R)(3) of this rule, "benefits provided are not unreasonable in relation to the premium charged" means that the rates were calculated in accordance with sound actuarial principles.
(b) With respect to any filing of any premium rates for any individual or group medicare supplement policy, or for any endorsement or rider pertaining thereto, the superintendent of insurance may, within thirty days after filing:
(i) Disapprove such filing if the superintendent finds that the benefits provided are unreasonable in relation to the premium charged. Such disapproval shall be effected by written order of the superintendent, a copy of which shall be mailed to the issuer that has made the filing. In the order, the superintendent shall specify the reasons for disapproval and state that a hearing will be held within fifteen days after requested in writing by the issuer. If a hearing is so requested, the superintendent shall also give such public notice, if appropriate. The superintendent, within fifteen days after the commencement of any hearing, shall issue a written order, a copy of which shall be mailed to the issuer that has made the filing, either affirming the prior disapproval or approving such filing if it is determined that the benefits provided are not unreasonable in relation to the premium charged; or
(ii) Set a date for a public hearing to commence no later than forty days after the filing. The superintendent shall give the issuer making the filing twenty days' written notice of the hearing and shall give such public notice as appropriate. The superintendent, within twenty days after the commencement of a hearing, shall issue a written order, a copy of which shall be mailed to the issuer that has made the filing, either approving such filing if it is determined that the benefits provided are not unreasonable in relation to the premium charged, or disapproving such filing if it is determined that the benefits provided are unreasonable in relation to the premium charged; or
(iii) Take no action, in which case such filing shall be deemed to be approved and shall become effective upon the thirty-first day after such filing, unless the superintendent has previously given written approval to the issuer.
(c) At any time any filing has been approved pursuant to this section, the superintendent may, after a hearing of which at least twenty days' written notice has been given to the issuer that has made such filing and for which such public notice as is appropriate has been given, withdraw approval of such filing if it is determined that the benefits provided are unreasonable in relation to the premium charged. Such withdrawal of approval shall be effected by written order of the superintendent, a copy of which shall be mailed to the issuer that has made the filing, which shall state the ground for such withdrawal and the date, not less than forty days after the date of such order, when the withdrawal or approval shall become effective.
(d) The superintendent may retain at the issuer's expense such attorneys, actuaries, accountants, and other experts not otherwise a part of the superintendent's staff as shall be reasonably necessary to assist in the preparation for and conduct of any public hearing under this section. The expense for retaining such experts and the expenses of the department of insurance incurred in connection with such public hearing shall be assessed against the issuer in an amount not to exceed one one-hundredth of one per cent of the sum of premiums earned plus net realized investments gain or loss of such issuer as reflected in the most current annual statement on file with the superintendent. Any person retained shall be under the direction and control of the superintendent and shall act in a purely advisory capacity.
(4)
(a) Except as provided in paragraph (R)(4)(b) of this rule, an issuer shall not file for approval more than one form of a policy or certificate of each type for each standard medicare supplement benefit plan.
(b) An issuer may offer, with the approval of the superintendent, up to four additional policy forms or certificate forms of the same type for the same standard medicare supplement benefit plan, one for each of the following cases:
(i) The inclusion of new or innovative benefits;
(ii) The addition of either direct response or agent marketing methods;
(iii) The addition of either guaranteed issue or underwritten coverage;
(iv) The offering of coverage to individuals eligible for medicare by reason of disability.
(c) For the purposes of this paragraph, a "type" means an individual policy, a group policy, an individual medicare select policy, or a group medicare select policy.
(5)
(a) Except as provided in paragraph (R)(5)(a)(i) of this rule, an issuer shall continue to make available for purchase any policy form or certificate form issued after the effective date of this rule that has been approved by the superintendent. A policy form or certificate form shall not be considered to be available for purchase unless the issuer has actively offered it for sale in the previous twelve months.
(i) An issuer may discontinue the availability of a policy form or certificate form if the issuer provides to the superintendent in writing its decision at least thirty days prior to discontinuing the availability of the form of the policy or certificate. After receipt of the notice by the superintendent, the issuer shall no longer offer for sale the policy form or certificate form in this state.
(ii) An issuer that discontinues the availability of a policy form or certificate form pursuant to paragraph (R)(5)(a)(i) of this rule shall not file for approval a new policy form or certificate form of the same type for the same standard medicare supplement benefit plan as the discontinued form for a period of five years after the issuer provides notice to the superintendent of the discontinuance. The period of discontinuance may be reduced if the superintendent determines that a shorter period is appropriate.
(b) The sale or other transfer of medicare supplement business to another issuer shall be considered a discontinuance for the purposes of paragraph (R)(5) of this rule.
(c) A change in the rating structure or methodology shall be considered a discontinuance under paragraph (R)(5)(a) of this rule unless the issuer complies with the following requirements:
(i) The issuer provides an actuarial memorandum, in a form and manner prescribed by the superintendent, describing the manner in which the revised rating methodology and resultant rates differ from the existing rating methodology and existing rates.
(ii) The issuer does not subsequently put into effect a change of rates or rating factors that would cause the percentage differential between the discontinued and subsequent rates as described in the actuarial memorandum to change. The superintendent may approve a change to the differential which is in the public interest.
(6)
(a) Except as provided in paragraph (R)(6)(b) of this rule, the experience of all policy forms or certificate forms of the same type in a standard medicare supplement benefit plan shall be combined for purposes of the refund or credit calculation prescribed in paragraph (Q) of this rule.
(b) Forms assumed under an assumption reinsurance agreement shall not be combined with the experience of other forms for purposes of the refund or credit calculation.
(S) Permitted compensation arrangements
(1) An issuer or other entity may provide commission or other compensation to an agent or other representative for the sale of a medicare supplement policy or certificate only if the first year commission or other first year compensation is no more than two hundred per cent of the commission or other compensation paid for selling or servicing the policy or certificate in the second year or period.
(2) The commission or other compensation provided in subsequent (renewal) years must be the same as that provided in the second year or period and must be provided for no fewer than five renewal years. After the fifth renewal year, any commission or other compensation provided may be up to that provided in the previous renewal year.
(3) No issuer or other entity shall provide compensation to its agents or other producers and no agent or producer shall receive compensation greater than the renewal compensation payable by the replacing issuer on renewal policies or certificates if an existing policy or certificate is replaced.
(4) For purposes of paragraphs (N) and (S) of this rule, "compensation" includes pecuniary or non-pecuniary remuneration of any kind relating to the sale or renewal of the policy or certificate including but not limited to bonuses, gifts, prizes, awards and finders fees.
(5) No issuer or other entity shall violate the provisions of paragraph (N)(4) of this rule.
(T) Required disclosure provisions
(1) General rules.
(a) Medicare supplement policies and certificates shall include a renewal or continuation provision. The language or specifications of such provision shall be consistent with the type of contract issued. The provision shall be appropriately captioned and shall appear on the first page of the policy and shall include any reservation by the issuer of the right to change premiums and any automatic renewal premium increases based on the age of the policyholder or certificate holder.
(b) All riders or endorsements added to a medicare supplement policy after date of issue or at reinstatement or renewal which reduce or eliminate benefits or coverage in the policy shall require a signed acceptance by the insured, except for riders or endorsements by which the issuer effectuates a request made in writing by the insured, exercises a specifically reserved right under a medicare supplement policy other than the right to reduce or eliminate benefits or coverage, or is required to reduce or eliminate benefits to avoid duplication of medicare benefits. After the date of policy or certificate issue, any rider or endorsement which increases benefits or coverage with a concomitant increase in premium during the policy term shall be agreed to in writing signed by the insured, unless the benefits are required by the minimum standards for medicare supplement policies, or if the increased benefits or coverage is required by law. Where a separate additional premium is charged for benefits provided in connection with riders or endorsements, the premium charge shall be set forth in the policy.
(c) Medicare supplement policies or certificates shall not provide for the payment of benefits based on standards described as "usual and customary," "reasonable and customary" or words of similar import.
(d) If a medicare supplement policy or certificate contains any limitations with respect to preexisting conditions, such limitations shall appear as a separate paragraph of the policy and be labeled as "preexisting condition limitations."
(e) Medicare supplement policies and certificates shall have a notice prominently printed on the first page of the policy or certificate or attached thereto stating in substance that the policyholder or certificate holder shall have the right to return the policy or certificate within thirty days of its delivery and to have the premium refunded if, after examination of the policy or certificate, the insured person is not satisfied for any reason.
(f)
(i) Issuers of accident and sickness policies or certificates which provide hospital or medical expense coverage on an expense incurred or indemnity basis to a person(s) eligible for medicare shall provide to those applicants a "Guide to Health Insurance for People with Medicare" in the form developed jointly by the "National Association of Insurance Commissioners" and the "Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services" ("CMS") and in a type size no smaller than twelve point type. Delivery of the guide shall be made whether or not such policies or certificates are advertised, solicited or issued as medicare supplement policies or certificates as defined in this rule. Except in the case of direct response issuers, delivery of the guide shall be made to the applicant at the time of application and acknowledgement of receipt of the guide shall be obtained by the issuer. Direct response issuers shall deliver the guide to the applicant upon request but not later than at the time the policy is delivered.
(ii) For the purposes of paragraph (T)(1)(f) of this rule, "form" means the language, format, type size, type proportional spacing, bold character, and line spacing.
(2) Notice requirements.
(a) As soon as practicable, but no later than thirty days prior to the annual effective date of any medicare benefit changes, an issuer shall notify its policyholders and certificate holders of modifications it has made to medicare supplement policies or certificates in a format acceptable to the superintendent. The requirements of this paragraph apply to medicare supplement policies and certificates delivered or issued for delivery in this state before or after the effective date of this rule. The notice shall be in twelve point type in a format acceptable to the superintendent. The notice shall:
(i) Include a description of revisions to the medicare program and a description of each modification made to the coverage provided under the medicare supplement policy or certificate; and
(ii) Inform each policyholder or certificate holder as to when any premium adjustment is to be made due to changes in medicare.
(b) The notice of benefit modifications and any premium adjustments shall be in outline form and in clear and simple terms so as to facilitate comprehension.
(c) Such notices shall not contain or be accompanied by any solicitation.
(3) "MMA" notice requirements.
Issuers shall comply with any notice requirements of the "Medicare Prescription Drug, Improvement, and Modernization Act of 2003."
(4) Outline of coverage requirements for medicare supplement policies.
(a) Issuers shall provide an outline of coverage to all applicants at the time application is presented to the prospective applicant and, except for direct response policies, shall obtain an acknowledgement of receipt of the outline from the applicant; and
(b) If an outline of coverage is provided at the time of application and the medicare supplement policy or certificate is issued on a basis which would necessitate revision of the outline, a substitute outline of coverage properly describing the policy or certificate shall accompany such policy or certificate when it is delivered and contain the following statement, in no less than twelve-point type, immediately above the company name:
"Notice: read this outline of coverage carefully. It is not identical to the outline of coverage provided upon application and the coverage originally applied for has not been issued."
(c) The outline of coverage provided to applicants pursuant to paragraph (T) of this rule shall be in the form prescribed in appendix C to this rule, and consists of four parts: a cover page, premium information, disclosure pages, and charts displaying the features of each benefit plan offered by the issuer. The outline of coverage shall be in the language, format and order prescribed in appendix C to this rule in no less than twelve point type. All plans shall be shown on the cover page, and the plan(s) that are offered by the issuer shall be prominently identified. Premium information for plans that are offered shall be shown on the cover page or immediately following the cover page and shall be prominently displayed. The premium and mode shall be stated for all plans that are offered to the prospective applicant. All possible premiums for the prospective applicant shall be illustrated.
(Include for each plan prominently identified in the cover page, a chart showing the services, medicare payments, plan payments and insured payments for each plan, using the same language, in the same order, layout, and format as shown in the charts in appendix C to this rule. No more than four plans may be shown on one chart. For purposes of illustration, charts for each plan are included in appendix C to this rule. An issuer may use additional benefit plan designations on these charts pursuant to paragraphs (J)(4) and (K)(5) of this rule as applicable.)
(Include an explanation of any smoker/non-smoker rates or household discounts in the premium information and disclosure pages, in a manner approved by the superintendent.)
(Include an explanation of any innovative benefits on the cover page and in the chart, in a manner approved by the superintendent.)
(5) Notice regarding policies or certificates which are not medicare supplement policies.
(a) Any sickness and accident insurance policy or certificate, other than a medicare supplement policy or a policy issued pursuant to a contract under section 1876 of the "Social Security Act" (42 U.S.C. section 1395, et seq.); disability income policy; or other policy identified in paragraph (C)(2) of this rule, issued for delivery in this state to persons eligible for medicare shall notify insureds under the policy that the policy is not a medicare supplement policy or certificate. The notice shall either be printed or attached to the first page of the outline of coverage delivered to insureds under the policy, or if no outline of coverage is delivered, to the first page of the policy, or certificate delivered to insureds. The notice shall be in no less than twelve-point type and shall contain the following language:
"This (policy or certificate) is not a medicare supplement (policy or certificate). If you are eligible for medicare, review the "Guide to Health Insurance for People with Medicare" available from the company."
(b) Applications provided to persons eligible for medicare for the health insurance policies or certificates described in paragraph (T)(4)(a) of this rule shall disclose, using the applicable statement in appendix F to this rule, the extent to which the policy duplicates medicare. The disclosure statement shall be provided as a part of, or together with, the application for the policy or certificate.
(U) Requirements for application forms and replacement coverage
(1) Application forms shall include the statements and questions in appendix D to this rule designed to elicit information as to whether, as of the date of the application, the applicant currently has medicare supplement, "Medicare Advantage", medicaid coverage, or another health insurance policy or certificate in force or whether a medicare supplement policy or certificate is intended to replace any other sickness and accident policy or certificate presently in force. A supplementary application or other form to be signed by the applicant and agent, containing such statements and questions may be used.
(2) In the case of a direct response issuer, a copy of the application or supplemental form, signed by the applicant, and acknowledged by the issuer, shall be returned to the applicant by the issuer upon delivery of the policy.
(3) Upon determining that a sale will involve replacement of medicare supplement coverage, any issuer, other than a direct response issuer, or its agent, shall furnish the applicant, prior to issuance or delivery of the medicare supplement policy or certificate, a notice regarding replacement of medicare supplement coverage. One copy of such notice signed by the applicant and the agent, except where the coverage is sold without an agent, shall be provided to the applicant and an additional signed copy shall be retained by the issuer. A direct response issuer shall deliver to the applicant at the time of the issuance of the policy the notice regarding replacement of medicare supplement coverage.
(4) The notice required by paragraph (U)(3) of this rule, for an issuer shall be as provided in appendix E to this rule in substantially the same form and in no less than twelve point type.
(V) Filing requirements for advertising
(1) Each issuer of medicare supplement policies or certificates in this state shall provide to the superintendent, prior to its use, a copy of any medicare supplement advertisement intended for use in this state, whether through written or electronic media. No such advertisement shall be used unless approved in writing by the superintendent. Any advertisement not disapproved within thirty days after filing shall be deemed approved.
(2) If the image or voice of a celebrity is used in the advertisement, any medicare supplement advertisement shall disclose that the celebrity has been paid to endorse or advertise the policy.
In radio and television advertising, the disclosure shall be spoken by the celebrity. In print advertising, the disclosure shall appear in at least twelve-point type, surrounded by a black line box. There shall be at least one-eighth inch blank space between the black line box and the text of the disclosure. The box shall surround no other text or graphic image.
An issuer may determine the precise language in which it makes this disclosure, provided the language is clear and unambiguous.
(W) Standards for marketing
(1) An issuer, directly or through its producers, shall:
(a) Establish marketing procedures to assure that any comparison of policies by its agents or other producers will be fair and accurate.
(b) Establish marketing procedures to assure excessive insurance is not sold or issued.
(c) Display prominently by type, stamp or other appropriate means, on the first page of the policy the following:
"Notice to buyer: This policy may not cover all of your medical expenses."
(d) Inquire and otherwise make every reasonable effort to identify whether a prospective applicant or enrollee for medicare supplement insurance already has sickness and accident insurance and the types and amounts of any such insurance.
(e) Establish auditable procedures for verifying compliance with paragraph (W)(1) of this rule.
(2) In addition to the practices prohibited in sections 3901.19 to 3901.221 of the Revised Code, paragraph (C) of rule 3901-1-07 of the Administrative Code, and paragraph (D) of rule 3901-8-09 of the Administrative Code, the following acts and practices are prohibited:
(a) Twisting. Knowingly making any misleading representation or incomplete or fraudulent comparison of any insurance policies or insurers for the purpose of inducing, or tending to induce, any person to lapse, forfeit, surrender, terminate, retain, pledge, assign, borrow on, or convert any insurance policy or to take out a policy of insurance with another insurer.
(b) High pressure tactics. Employing any method of marketing having the effect of or tending to induce the purchase of insurance through force, fright, threat whether explicit or implied, or undue pressure to purchase or recommend the purchase of insurance.
(c) Cold lead advertising. Making use directly or indirectly of any method of marketing which fails to disclose in a conspicuous manner that a purpose of the method of marketing is solicitation of insurance and that contact will be made by an insurance agent or insurance company.
(3) The terms "medicare supplement," "medigap," "medicare wrap-around" and words of similar import shall not be used unless the policy is issued in compliance with this rule.
(X) Appropriateness of recommended purchase and excessive insurance
(1) In recommending the purchase or replacement of any medicare supplement policy or certificate an agent shall make reasonable efforts to determine the appropriateness of a recommended purchase or replacement.
(2) Any sale of a medicare supplement policy or certificate that will provide an individual more than one medicare supplement policy or certificate is prohibited.
(3) An issuer shall not issue a medicare supplement policy or certificate to an individual enrolled in medicare "Part C" unless the effective date of the coverage is after the termination date of the individual's "Part C" coverage.
(Y) Reporting of multiple policies
(1) On or before March first of each year, an issuer shall report the following information for every individual resident of this state for which the issuer has in force more than one medicare supplement policy or certificate:
(a) Policy and certificate number, and
(b) Date of issuance.
(2) The items set forth in this rule must be grouped by individual policyholder.
(3) Attached as appendix B to this rule is a reporting form for compliance with paragraph (Y) of this rule.
(Z) Prohibition against preexisting conditions, waiting periods, elimination periods and probationary periods in replacement policies or certificates.
(1) If a medicare supplement policy or certificate replaces another medicare supplement policy or certificate, the replacing issuer shall waive any time periods applicable to preexisting conditions, waiting periods, elimination periods and probationary periods in the new medicare supplement policy or certificate to the extent such time was spent under the original policy.
(2) If a medicare supplement policy or certificate replaces another medicare supplement policy or certificate which has been in effect for at least six months, the replacing policy shall not provide any time period applicable to preexisting conditions, waiting periods, elimination periods and probationary periods.
(AA) Prohibition against use of genetic information and requests for genetic testing for policy years beginning on or after May 21, 2009.
(1) An issuer of a medicare supplement policy or certificate shall not deny or condition the issuance or effectiveness of the policy or certificate (including the imposition of any exclusion of benefits under the policy based on a preexisting condition) and shall not discriminate in the pricing of the policy or certificate (including the adjustment of premium rates) of an individual on the basis of the genetic information with respect to such individual.
(2) Nothing in paragraph (AA)(1) of this rule shall be construed to limit the ability of an issuer, to the extent otherwise permitted by law, from:
(a) Denying or conditioning the issuance or effectiveness of the policy or certificate or increasing the premium for an employer based on the manifestation of a disease or disorder of an insured or applicant; or
(b) Increasing the premium for any policy issued to an individual based on the manifestation of a disease or disorder of an individual who is covered under the policy (in such case, the manifestation of a disease or disorder in one individual cannot also be used as genetic information about other group members and to further increase the premium for the group.)
(3) An issuer of a medicare supplement policy or certificate shall not request or obligate an individual or a family member of such individual to undergo a genetic test.
(4) Paragraph (AA)(3) of this rule does not preclude an issuer of a medicare supplement policy or certificate from obtaining and using the results of a genetic test in making a determination regarding payment (as defined for the purposes of applying the regulations promulgated under part "C" of "Title XI" and section 264 of the "Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996," as may be revised from time to time) and consistent with paragraph (AA)(1) of this rule.
(5) For purposes of carrying out paragraph (AA)(4) of this rule, an issuer of a medicare supplement policy or certificate may request only the minimum amount of information necessary to accomplish the intended purpose.
(6) Notwithstanding paragraph (AA)(3) of this rule, an issuer of a medicare supplement policy may request, but not require, that an individual or a family member of such an individual undergo a genetic test if each of the following conditions is met:
(a) The request is made pursuant to research that complies with section 46 of Title 45, Code of Federal Regulations, or equivalent federal regulations, and any applicable state or local law or regulations for the protection of human subjects in research.
(b) The issuer clearly indicates to each individual, or in the case of a minor child, to the legal guardian of such child, to whom the request is made, that:
(i) Compliance with the test is voluntary; and
(ii) Non-compliance will have no effect on enrollment status or premium or contribution amounts.
(c) No genetic information collected or acquired under paragraph (AA)(6) of this rule shall be used for underwriting, determination of eligibility to enroll or maintain enrollment status, premium rates, or the issuance, renewal, or replacement of a policy or certificate.
(d) The issuer notifies the secretary in writing that the issuer is conducting activities pursuant to the exception provided for under paragraph (AA)(6) of this rule, including a description of the activities conducted.
(e) The issuer complies with such other conditions as the secretary may by regulation require for activities conducted under paragraph (AA)(6) of this rule.
(7) An issuer of a medicare supplement policy or certificate shall not request, require, or purchase genetic information for underwriting purposes.
(8) An issuer of a medicare supplement policy or certificate shall not request, require, or purchase genetic information with respect to any individual prior to such individual's enrollment under the policy in connection with such enrollment.
(9) If an issuer of a medicare supplement policy or certificate obtains genetic information incidental to the requesting, requiring, or purchasing of other information concerning any individual, such request, requirement, or purchase shall not be considered a violation of paragraph (AA)(8) of this rule if such request, requirement, or purchase is not in violation of paragraph (AA)(7) of this rule.
(10) For the purposes of paragraph (AA) of this rule:
(a) "Issuer of a medicare supplement policy or certificate" includes a third-party administrator, or other person acting for or on behalf of such issuer.
(b) "Family member" means, with respect to an individual, any other individual who is a first-degree, second-degree, third-degree, or fourth-degree relative of such individual.
(c) "Genetic information" means, with respect to any individual, information about such individual's genetic tests, the genetic tests of family members of such individual, and the manifestation of a disease or disorder in family members of such individual. Such term includes, with respect to any individual, any request for, or receipt of, genetic services, or participation in clinical research which includes genetic services, by such individual or any family member of such individual. Any reference to genetic information concerning an individual or family member of an individual who is a pregnant woman, includes genetic information of any fetus carried by such pregnant woman, or with respect to an individual or family member utilizing reproductive technology, includes genetic information of any embryo legally held by an individual or family member. The term "genetic information" does not include information about the sex or age of any individual.
(d) "Genetic services" means a genetic test, genetic counseling (including obtaining, interpreting, or assessing genetic information), or genetic education.
(e) "Genetic test" means an analysis of human "DNA," "RNA," chromosomes, proteins, or metabolites, that detect genotypes, mutations, or chromosomal changes. The term "genetic test" does not mean an analysis of proteins or metabolites that does not detect genotypes, mutations, or chromosomal changes; or an analysis of proteins or metabolites that is directly related to a manifested disease, disorder, or pathological condition that could reasonably be detected by a health care professional with appropriate training and expertise in the field of medicine involved.
(f) "Underwriting purposes" means:
(i) Rules for, or determination of, eligibility (including enrollment and continued eligibility) for benefits under the policy;
(ii) The computation of premium or contribution amounts under the policy;
(iii) The application of any preexisting condition exclusion under the policy;
(iv) Other activities related to the creation, renewal, or replacement of a contract of health insurance or health benefits.
(BB) Severability
If any paragraph, term or provision of this rule is adjudged invalid for any reason, the judgment shall not affect, impair or invalidate any other paragraph, term or provision of this rule, but the remaining paragraphs, terms or provisions shall be and continue in full force and effect.
View AppendixView AppendixView AppendixView AppendixView AppendixView Appendix
Last updated May 1, 2023 at 8:50 AM
History
- Effective: May 1, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-1-07
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to define certain additional unfair trade practices and to set forth required procedures in connection therewith. Sections 3901.20 and 3901.21 of the Revised Code respectively prohibit unfair or deceptive practices in the business of insurance and define certain acts or practices as unfair or deceptive. Section 3901.21 of the Revised Code also provides that the enumeration of specific unfair or deceptive acts or practices in the business of insurance is not exclusive or restrictive or intended to limit the powers of the superintendent of insurance to adopt rules to implement that section.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under section 3901.041 of the Revised Code. Section 3901.041 of the Revised Code provides that the superintendent of insurance shall adopt, amend, and rescind rules and make adjudications necessary to discharge the superintendent's duties and exercise that person's powers under Title 39 of the Revised Code.
(C) Defined unfair practices
It shall be deemed an unfair or deceptive practice to commit or perform with such frequency as to indicate a general business practice any of the following:
(1) Knowingly misrepresenting to claimants pertinent facts or policy provisions relating to coverage at issue;
(a) Misrepresenting a pertinent policy provision by making any payment, settlement, or offer of first party benefits, which, without explanation, does not include all amounts which should be included according to the claim filed by the first party claimant and investigated by the insurer;
(b) Denying a claim on the grounds of a specific policy provision, condition, or exclusion without reference to such provision, condition, or exclusion;
(2) Failing to acknowledge pertinent communications with respect to claims arising under insurance policies in writing, or by other means so long as an appropriate notation is made in the claim file of the insurer, within fifteen days of receiving notice of a claim in writing or otherwise;
(3) Failing to make an appropriate reply within twenty-one days of all other pertinent communications and/or any inquiries of the department of insurance respecting a claim;
(4) Failing to adopt and implement reasonable procedures to commence an investigation of any claim filed by either a first party or third party claimant, or by such claimant's authorized representative, within twenty-one days of receipt of notice of claim;
(5) Failing to mail or furnish claimant or the claimant's authorized representative, a notification of all items, statements and forms, if any, which the insurer reasonably believes will be required of such claimant, within fifteen days of receiving notice of claim, unless the insurer, based on the information then in its possession does not yet know all such requirements, then such notification shall be sent, within a reasonable time;
(6) Not offering first party or third party claimants, or their authorized representatives who have made claims which are fair and reasonable and in which liability has become reasonably clear, amounts which are fair and reasonable as shown by the insurer's investigation of the claim, providing the amounts so offered are within policy limits and in accordance with the policy provisions;
(7) Compelling insureds to institute suits to recover amounts due under its policies by offering substantially less than the amounts ultimately recovered in suits brought by them when such insureds have made claims for amounts reasonably similar to the amounts ultimately recovered;
(8) Making known to insureds or claimants a policy of appealing from arbitration awards in favor of insureds or claimants for the purpose of compelling them to accept settlements or compromises less than the amount awarded in arbitration;
(9) Attempting settlement or compromise of claims on the basis of applications which were altered without notice to, or knowledge, or consent of insureds;
(10) Attempting to settle or compromise claims for less than the amount which the insureds had been led reasonably to believe they were entitled to, by written or printed advertising material accompanying or made part of an application;
(11) Attempting to delay the investigation or payment of claims by requiring an insured and his physician to submit a preliminary claim report and then requiring the subsequent submission of formal proof of loss forms, both of which submissions contain substantially the same information;
(12) Failing to advise the first party claimant or the claimant's authorized representative, in writing or by other means so long as an appropriate notation is made in the claim file of the insurer, of the acceptance or rejection of the claim, within twenty-one days after receipt by the insurer of a properly executed proof of loss;
(a) Failing to notify such claimant or the claimant's authorized representative, within twenty-one days after receipt of such proof of loss, that the insurer needs more time to determine whether the claim should be accepted or rejected;
(b) Failing to send a letter to such claimant or, the claimant's authorized representative, stating the need for further time to investigate the claim, if such claim remains unsettled ninety days from the date of the initial letter setting forth the need for further time to investigate;
(c) Failing to send to such claimant or authorized representative every ninety days after the first ninety-day claim investigation period, a letter setting forth the reasons additional time is needed for investigation, unless the delay is caused by factors beyond the insurer's control;
(13) Failing to advise such claimant or claimant's authorized representative, of the amount offered, if such claim is accepted in whole or in part;
(14) Refusing payments of claims solely on the basis of the insured's request to do so without making an independent evaluation of the insured's liability based upon all available information;
(15) Failing to adopt and implement reasonable standards for the proper handling of written communications, primarily expressing grievances, received by the insurer from insureds or claimants;
(16) Failing to pay any amount finally agreed upon in settlement of all or part of any claim or authorized repairs to be made upon final agreement not later than five days from the receipt of such agreement by the insurer at the place from which the payment or authorization is to be made or from the date of the performance by the claimant of any condition set by such agreement, whichever is later.
(17) For purposes of this rule, the following definitions shall apply;
(a) "Investigation" shall mean all activities of the company related directly or indirectly to the determining of liabilities under the coverages afforded by the policy. This shall include, but not be limited to, a bona fide effort to contact all insureds and claimants within a reasonable period after notification of loss. Evidence of a bona fide effort must be maintained in the file. The investigation shall be deemed concluded upon the company's affirmation or denial of liability.
(b) "Notice of Claim" as applied to an insurer shall include notification given to an agent of an insurer.
(c) "Settlement of claims" shall mean all activities of the company related directly or indirectly to the determination of the extent of damages due under coverages afforded by the policy. This shall include, but not be limited to, the requiring or preparing of repair estimates.
(d) "Days" means calendar days. However, when the last day of a time limit stated in this rule falls on a Saturday, Sunday or holiday, the time limit is extended to the next immediate following day that is not a Saturday, Sunday or holiday.
(D) Severability
If any paragraph, term, or provision of this rule be adjudged invalid for any reason, such judgment shall not affect, impair, or invalidate any other paragraph, term, or provision of this rule, but the remaining paragraphs, terms, and provisions shall be in and continue in full force and effect.
Last updated February 14, 2022 at 8:54 AM
History
- Effective: February 14, 2022
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-8-09
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to safeguard the interests of medicare-eligible persons in the solicitation and sale of any type of medicare supplemental sickness and accident health insurance policy by providing for the regulation of the solicitation and sale of medicare supplemental accident and health insurance policies; and to assure that medicare-eligible persons are not subjected to unfair or deceptive acts or practices in the solicitation and sale of medicare supplemental accident and health insurance policies by defining additional unfair or deceptive acts or practices in this rule.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under section 3901.041 of the Revised Code, providing that the superintendent of insurance shall adopt, amend and rescind rules and make adjudications necessary to discharge the superintendent's duties and exercise the superintendent's powers under Title 39 of the Revised Code; section 3923.332 of the Revised Code, providing that the superintendent shall adopt reasonable rules to establish minimum standards for advertising and marketing practices for medicare supplemental policies and certificates; and section 3901.21 of the Revised Code, providing that the enumeration in sections 3901.19 to 3901.26 of the Revised Code of specific unfair or deceptive acts or practices in the business of insurance is not exclusive or restrictive or intended to limit the powers of the superintendent of insurance to adopt rules to implement said section, or to take action under other sections of the Revised Code.
(C) Definitions
(1) "Medicare-eligible person" means any person eligible for either medicare part A or medicare part B, pursuant to Title XVIII of the federal Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1395 et seq.).
(2) "Medicare program" refers to the benefits available to medicare-eligible persons, pursuant to Title XVIII of the Social Security Act, codified in Title XVIII of the federal Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1395 et seq.).
(D) Unfair or deceptive acts or practices defined
It shall be deemed an unfair or deceptive act or practice to commit or perform any of the following:
(1) Any implication, either verbal or written, which conveys the impression that any medicare supplemental insurance program being offered by a company or agent is affiliated with or sponsored by the federal government, the social security administration, the centers for medicare and medicaid services, or the department of health and human services. No solicitation, advertisement, or marketing material shall be used in the state that fails to include the following or a substantially similar disclaimer: "Not connected with or endorsed by the U.S. government or the federal medicare program."
(2) Any of the following unsolicited contacts with a medicare-eligible person:
(a) Door-to-door solicitation including leaving information such as a leaflet, flyer, or door hanger at a residence, or leaving information such as a leaflet or flyer on someone's car;
(b) Approaching individual prospective applicants in common areas (e.g., parking lots, hallways, lobbies, sidewalks, etc.);
(c) Telephonic or electronic solicitation including leaving electronic voicemail messages, text messages or direct social media messages;
(d) These prohibitions on marketing through unsolicited contacts do not extend to advertisements through mass communications including direct mail, or unsolicited contacts with prospective applicants with whom the entity or insurance agent has a business relationship, regardless of the method of communication.
(3) Any representation by an agent to the effect that such person is a "counselor," "advisor" or similar designation, for any association or group of medicare-eligible persons, which obscures the actual role of such agent with respect to the solicitation or sale of such insurance.
(4) Any act for the purpose of inducing an applicant or prospective applicant to sign any form, application or document in blank.
(5) Failure by the agent to state affirmatively, verbally and in writing, the following:
(a) That the person making the solicitation or sale is, in fact, an insurance agent;
(b) That the agent is making the solicitation or sale on behalf of an insurance company or insurance companies, which company or companies must be identified to the medicare-eligible persons;
(c) That the medicare-eligible person may verify the information required to be stated in paragraphs (D)(5)(a) and (D)(5)(b) of this rule by contacting the Ohio department of insurance;
(d) That the medicare-eligible person may contact the agent making the solicitation or sale at both an address and telephone number provided by the agent;
(e) That the medicare-eligible person may contact the insurance company or insurance companies on behalf of which the solicitation or sale was made at an address and telephone number provided by the agent;
(f) That the agent and the insurance company have no connection or affiliation with, and are not in any way sponsored by, the federal or state government, the social security administration, the centers for medicare and medicaid services, or the department of health and human services;
(g) That the medicare-eligible person has the option, if he or she purchases a medicare supplemental insurance policy, of paying his or her premium(s) directly to the insurance company.
(6) Any inaccurate or misleading description of the benefits provided by either the medicare program or the medicare supplemental policy being offered for sale.
(7) Any attempt by an insurance company or agent to arrange a solicitation or sales interview with an applicant or prospective applicant by implying or conveying in any way the impression that such insurance company or agent has been authorized by the federal government, the medicare program or the social security administration to contact said applicant or prospective applicant for the purpose of reviewing, modifying or discussing his or her existing insurance program. Such prohibition is also extended to any statement or act which implies or conveys in any way the impression that such insurance company or agent has access to official records of the federal government, medicare program or social security administration, pertaining to the applicant's or prospective applicant's insurance program.
(8) Use of any title or initials by the agent which imply or convey the impression that such agent is affiliated with or sponsored by the federal government, medicare program or social security administration. Such prohibition also applies to the use of trade names by individual agents.
(9) Any misrepresentation or incomplete comparison by the insurance company or agent, by commission or omission, for the purpose of inducing or tending to induce a medicare-eligible person to purchase, amend, lapse, forfeit, change or surrender insurance.
(E) Severability
If any paragraph, term or provision of this rule is adjudged invalid for any reason, the judgment shall not affect, impair or invalidate any other paragraph, term or provision of this rule, but the remaining paragraphs, terms and provisions shall be and continue in full force and effect.
Last updated October 11, 2023 at 1:54 PM
History
- Effective: November 3, 2016
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-8-10 Notice of public hearing on rates for individual sickness and accident insurance.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to provide specific requirements for the dissemination of information concerning a public hearing scheduled by the superintendent of insurance pursuant to section 3923.021 of the Revised Code.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under section 3901.041 of the Revised Code.
(C) Definitions
(1) "Notice" means a statement which sets forth at least the following:
(a) The name and address of the insurer;
(b) The date, time and place of the scheduled hearing;
(c) The purpose of the hearing;
(d) A statement that identifies the policies, endorsements, and/or riders affected by the filing and hearing;
(e) A statement that members of the public are entitled to testify at the public hearing.
(2) "State-wide publication" means publication in a newspaper of general circulation in Cuyahoga, Franklin, Hamilton, Lucas, and Athens counties.
(3) "Regional publication" means publication in a newspaper of general circulation in each geographical area of the state which has a sufficient number of affected resident policyholders to warrant publication in that area, as agreed to by the insurer and the department of insurance.
(4) "Legal advertisement" means an advertisement in a form prescribed by the superintendent of insurance published in a newspaper of general circulation.
(5) "Display advertisement" means an advertisement of at least nine square inches published in a newspaper of general circulation.
(D) Required notice
When an insurer receives notice from the department of insurance that a public hearing will be held, pursuant to section 3923.021 of the Revised Code to consider an adjustment of the premium rates for a policy, endorsement and/or rider which is subject to this rule, the insurer shall give notice of such public hearing to its policyholders, then shown by its records to be residents of Ohio and who, on the date that the insurer receives notice of the hearing, would be affected by the proposed rate adjustment. Notice need not be given if fewer than one hundred Ohio policyholders would be affected by the proposed adjustment. The department of insurance will reschedule a public hearing upon the request of the insurer if there would be insufficient time before the original hearing date for the insurer to provide notice to its policyholders by the method of providing notice selected by the insurer.
(E) Method of furnishing notice
The insurer shall provide notice to its Ohio policyholders in the following manner:
(1) The insurer shall mail notice of the public hearing to the last known address of each policyholder affected by the hearing. Such notice may either be included with other materials sent by the insurer to the policyholder, or by a separate mailing. Such notice shall be mailed not less than five days prior to the scheduled hearing date. Alternatively, the insurer may mail a brief notification to the last known address of each policyholder affected by the hearing, stating that the policyholder may access information via the insurer's website about an imminent rate hearing that may affect their policy. Such brief notification must include the name and address of the insurer and the date of the scheduled hearing and include the internet website address. The notification must also provide a toll free number and state that the number is where the policyholder can request a paper mailing of the notice information described in paragraph (C)(1) of this rule. The notification must be mailed not less than ten days prior to the scheduled hearing date.
(2) As an alternative to providing direct mail notice to each affected policyholder, the insurer may elect to furnish notice of the hearing by the following method:
(a) The insurer shall create and maintain a mailing list of policyholders, who have indicated a desire to receive notice of a public hearing. The insurer shall notify each of its Ohio policyholders at least once each year of their right to have their name and address placed on such a mailing list. When a hearing is scheduled which will affect the premium rates of a policyholder who has had his name placed on the mailing list, the insurer shall furnish that policyholder with notice of the public hearing in the same manner that notice is provided in paragraph (E)(1) of this rule.
(b) In addition to providing notice to those policyholders on its mailing list each insurer shall provide notice of the hearing to its other affected policyholders through publication of appropriate legal advertisements where the total number of such affected policyholders is less than fifteen thousand. If the hearing will affect policyholders throughout the state of Ohio, the insurer shall make statewide publication of the legal advertisements. If the hearing will only affect policyholders residing in some limited geographical area within the state, the insurer shall make regional publication of the legal advertisement instead of statewide publication. The legal advertisement shall be published at least twice prior to the scheduled hearing date. The second such publication must be made no more than five days prior to the scheduled hearing date.
(c) As an alternative to providing notice by publication of legal advertisements, the insurer may provide notice to affected policyholders by publication of appropriate display advertisements. Such display advertisement must be used instead of a legal advertisement if more than fifteen thousand of the insurer's policyholders will be affected by the public hearing. If the hearing will affect policyholders throughout the state of Ohio, the insurer shall make state-wide publication of the display advertisements. If the hearing will only affect policyholders residing in some limited geographical area within the state, the insurer shall make regional publication of the display advertisements instead of state-wide publication. The display advertisements shall be published at least twice prior to the scheduled hearing date. The second such publication must be made no more than five days prior to the scheduled hearing date.
(3) As an alternative to providing notice in the manner described in paragraph (E)(1) or (E)(2) of this rule, the insurer may elect to furnish notice of the hearing by the following method:
(a) The insurer shall email notice of the public hearing to the last known email address of each policyholder affected by the hearing. Such notice may either be included with other materials sent by the insurer to the policyholder, or by a separate email. Such notice shall be emailed not less than five days prior to the scheduled hearing date. The notification must also provide a toll free number and state that the number is where the policyholder can request a paper mailing of the notice information described in paragraph (C)(1) of this rule.
(b) In addition to providing email notice to policyholders each insurer shall provide notice of the hearing to its affected policyholders through publication of appropriate legal advertisements where the total number of such affected policyholders is less than fifteen thousand. If the hearing will affect policyholders throughout the state of Ohio, the insurer shall make statewide publication of the legal advertisements. If the hearing will only affect policyholders residing in some limited geographical area within the state, the insurer shall make regional publication of the legal advertisement instead of statewide publication. The legal advertisement shall be published at least twice prior to the scheduled hearing date. The second such publication must be made no more than five days prior to the scheduled hearing date.
(c) As an alternative to providing notice by publication of legal advertisements, the insurer may provide notice to affected policyholders by publication of appropriate display advertisements. Such display advertisement must be used instead of a legal advertisement if more than fifteen thousand of the insurer's policyholders will be affected by the public hearing. If the hearing will affect policyholders throughout the state of Ohio, the insurer shall make state-wide publication of the display advertisements. If the hearing will only affect policyholders residing in some limited geographical area within the state, the insurer shall make regional publication of the display advertisements instead of state-wide publication. The display advertisements shall be published at least twice prior to the scheduled hearing date. The second such publication must be made no more than five days prior to the scheduled hearing date.
(F) Severability
If any paragraph, term or provision of this rule is adjudged invalid for any reason, the judgment shall not affect, impair or invalidate any other paragraph, term or provision of this rule, but the remaining paragraphs, terms and provisions shall be and continue in full force and effect.
Last updated September 9, 2024 at 3:02 PM
History
- Effective: November 10, 2014
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-8-11 Unfair health claim practices.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to define certain additional unfair trade practices and to set forth minimum standards in connection with the investigation and disposition of health claims arising under policies, certificates or contracts issued pursuant to Ohio's insurance statutes, rules and regulations under Titles XVII and XXXIX of the Revised Code. Violation of this rule does not create or imply a private cause of action.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under section 3901.041 of the Revised Code.
Sections 3901.20 and 3901.21 of the Revised Code, respectively, prohibit unfair or deceptive practices in the business of insurance and define certain acts or practices as unfair or deceptive. Section 3901.21 of the Revised Code also provides that the enumeration of specific unfair or deceptive acts or practices in the business of insurance is not exclusive or restrictive or intended to limit the powers of the superintendent of insurance to adopt rules to implement that section.
Section 3901.3813 of the Revised Code permits the superintendent to adopt rules as the superintendent considers necessary to carry out the purposes of section 3901.38 and sections 3901.381 to 3901.3812 of the Revised Code.
(C) Definitions
(1) "Claim" means any request submitted to a third-party payer for benefits or proceeds under a benefit plan or contract on a standardized health claim form as described in rule 3901-8-03 of the Administrative Code.
(2) "Coordinated Care" means the management of health care services by a third-party payer for a beneficiary. Examples include, but are not limited to, provider selection or referral, preadmission certification, length of stay determination and second surgical opinions.
(3) "Day" means calendar day. However, when the last day of a time limit stated in this rule falls on a Saturday, Sunday or state or federal holiday, the time limit is extended to the next immediate following day that is not a Saturday, Sunday or holiday.
(4) "Deny or Denial" means a refusal to pay any portion of a claim. The application of contractual co-pays and deductibles are not considered a denial of a claim.
(5) "Documentation" includes, but is not limited to, all supporting documentation as defined in division (B)(2) of section 3901.381 of the Revised Code and any records of communications or activities, notes, work papers, claim forms, bills and explanation of benefit forms relative to a claim, including the electronic transmission of the data contained in such items.
(D) General claim practices
(1) A third-party payer shall notify the beneficiary and the provider of the denial of any claim. The notification shall include the specific reasons for the denial and the contract provision, condition, limitation or exclusion of the benefit plan or contract that is the basis for the denial of payment for the claim. The information must be provided in such a way that a reasonable person would understand the reasons and basis for the denial.
(2) No third-party payer shall indicate to a beneficiary or provider on an electronic payment or transmittal, payment draft, check, or in any communication that the payment is "final" or a "release of claim" unless the third-party payer has paid the benefit plan or contract's limit or the provider or beneficiary has agreed to a compromise settlement.
(3) When a third-party payer administers more than one benefit plan under which a beneficiary may make a claim for benefits and has been notified by the beneficiary or provider that more than one claim may be filed for benefits, the third-party payer shall establish procedures to eliminate duplicate processing procedures and to encourage concurrent processing of the claims.
(4) The third-party payer shall inform the beneficiary or provider with specificity what supporting documentation is required to determine whether additional benefits would be payable.
(E) Coordinated care practices
(1) Every third-party payer with coordinated care provisions in a benefit plan or contract shall:
(a) Fully explain in the policy and certificate the procedures required for compliance with coordinated care provisions, including all penalties for failure to comply with those procedures.
(b) Process claims for any services or procedures which the third-party payer has authorized pursuant to the beneficiary's or provider's compliance with coordinated care procedures subject to non-coordinated care provisions.
(c) Provide the beneficiary or provider with timely written notification of the confirmation or denial of coverage pursuant to coordinated care requirements of the beneficiary's benefit plan or contract. Unless the third-party payer has determined that all claims will be paid in full or denied, the notification shall include the following statement at the top of the notice, in twelve point bold face font, before any other textual information:
This is not an approval for claim payment
Confirmation of (particular coordinated care provision) only
We have not yet reviewed the patient's health care plan. Depending on the limitations of the health care plan, we may pay all, part, or none of the claims.
(F) Reporting insurance fraud
If a third-party payer reasonably believes, based upon information obtained and documented, that a beneficiary or provider has fraudulently caused or contributed to the claim as represented by a properly executed and documented claim form or billing, such information shall be presented to the fraud and enforcement division of the Ohio department of insurance within sixty days of when the fraud becomes evident. Any person making such report is afforded such immunity and the information submitted is confidential as provided by sections 3901.44 and 3999.31 of the Revised Code.
(G) File and record documentation
Each third-party payer shall maintain complete documentation of every claim for a period of three years. The documentation shall be sufficient to permit complete reconstruction of the third-party payer's activities and communications with respect to each claim. Documentation shall include the date of each activity or communication. All documentation shall be reproducible to paper.
(H) Complaint procedure
Every third-party payer shall:
(1) Establish and maintain a procedure for the expeditious resolution of electronic, written, and oral complaints initiated by beneficiaries and providers.
(2) Include the third party payer's complaint procedure in every benefit plan, contract or certificate.
(3) Keep records of written complaints from and responses to beneficiaries and providers for three years.
(I) Claim denial dispute procedure
Every third-party payer, that does not otherwise meet the definition of "Health Plan Issuer" as set forth in division (P) of section 3922.01 of the Revised Code, shall:
(1) Include the following statement or a substantially similar statement on all notification of claim denials:
"If you wish to dispute the company's decision on this claim, you may register a complaint by (insert third-party payer's procedure): (insert address of office). In reviewing your complaint, the company will follow the complaint procedure described in your benefits plan."
(2) Include the following statement on the written notice to the beneficiary and the provider of the company's final adjudication of a complaint:
"If your claim has been denied based on a determination involving medical judgment or if the decision was based on any medical information or the service has been denied on the basis that it is experimental or investigational, you may have a right to request an independent review by an outside medical practitioner. Submit your request in writing to (insert address of third-party payer).
If your claim has been denied on the basis that it is not a covered service you have the right to file a complaint with the "Ohio Department of Insurance, Consumer Services Division, 50 West Town Street, Third Floor - Suite 300, Columbus, Ohio 43215, 1-614-644-2673, toll free in Ohio 1-800-686-1526." Complaints may also be filed via the internet at http://insurance.ohio.gov."
(J) Penalties
The superintendent may impose sanctions according to section 3901.3812 of the Revised Code for violations of paragraph (D)(1) or (D)(4) of this rule. All other violations of this rule are unfair and deceptive practices within the meaning of section 3901.21 of the Revised Code and are subject to the penalties set forth in section 3901.22 of the Revised Code. Any agreement consented to pursuant to division (G) of section 3901.22 of the Revised Code may include the recovery of the costs of the investigation in addition to the penalty so agreed.
(K) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated November 16, 2023 at 8:35 AM
History
- Effective: November 16, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-8-12 Open enrollment.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to implement the open enrollment statute, sections 3923.58 and 3923.581 of the Revised Code. This rule requires carriers to provide information to consumers, insurance agents and to the superintendent, pursuant to section 3923.582 of the Revised Code. The open enrollment requirements in this rule apply to any carrier that is in the business of issuing health benefit plans to individuals and/or non-employer groups.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority stated in sections 3901.041 and 3923.582 of the Revised Code. Pursuant to section 3 of Substitute House Bill 122 of the 134th General Assembly, during the period beginning on January 1, 2014, and expiring January 1, 2026, and in accordance with any subsequent suspensions occurring thereafter, the operation of sections 3923.58, 3923.581 and 3923.582, of the Revised Code are suspended. As a result, carriers are not required to offer open enrollment coverage under the "Ohio Open Enrollment Program" on or after January 1, 2014. Therefore, during the period beginning on January 1, 2014, and expiring concurrently with the expiration of the suspension of sections 3923.58, 3923.581, and 3923.582 of the Revised Code, the operation of this rule also is suspended. If the amendments made by 42 U.S.C. 300gg-1 and 300gg-6, regarding the requirements related to health insurance coverage, become ineffective prior to the expiration of any such suspension, then sections 3923.58, 3923.581 and 3923.582 of the Revised Code and this rule, in either their present form or as they are later amended, again become operational.
(C) Advertisement of open enrollment coverage
Carriers subject to the requirement to provide open enrollment coverage under sections 3923.58 and 3923.581 of the Revised Code shall comply with the following steps by the dates specified.
(1) Each carrier shall provide to the superintendent by November 1, 2009, a toll free number that will be used to accept public inquiries on open enrollment coverage. The carrier shall make this number available to the public, beginning December 1, 2009.
(2) The toll free number will be answered during the carrier's normal business hours.
(3) Each carrier shall develop a web page, by January 1, 2010, providing notice of the availability of the open enrollment coverage being offered pursuant to the terms of this rule. The open enrollment web page must be easily accessible to visitors to the home page of the carrier's web site.
(4) The web page shall include a table of premium rates to enable a consumer to calculate the maximum premium that would be charged to a person of the same age, gender, geographic location and plan selection.
(5) The web page shall be available at all times and kept as current as possible.
(6) A carrier shall inform an applicant that has been denied other health coverage by that carrier of the availability of open enrollment coverage with that carrier.
(7) Each carrier shall make coverage applications available online for consumers or insurance agents to fill out or print and mail to the company. Carriers shall also provide an online contact person to answer queries within two business days.
Carriers must notify applicants, or their agents of record, of the acceptance or rejection of their application within five business days of receipt of a completed application. Carriers may adjust the terms of coverage as necessary in the event subsequent receipt of relevant documents requires. If the carrier offers coverage subject to a waiting period under section 3923.581 of the Revised Code, the first day of the waiting period is the date of receipt of the completed application. No carrier may require enrollment to be made in person. Carriers may accept applications for coverage online, by phone or by mail. A representative of the carrier may contact an agent or applicant who has submitted an application in order to explain the operations of the carrier and to answer any questions the agent or applicant may have. Every carrier shall make open enrollment applications and solicitation documents readily available to any potential agent or applicant who requests such material.
(8) The following information shall be made available on the carrier's web page:
(a) Open enrollment will begin on January first of each year and remain open until the carrier has reached its statutory limit.
(b) A clear explanation of "Federally Eligible Individuals" ("FEI") and non-"FEI" individuals including the eligibility requirements for each open enrollment product offered by the carrier, the differences between the "Basic" and "Standard Plan," and any other open enrollment coverage offered. A carrier may use appendix "A" to this rule to satisfy this requirement.
(c) Under what circumstances an eligible applicant or the applicant's dependents may be subject to a preexisting condition limitation.
(d) The address and web site where a person may obtain an application, if different from the open enrollment web site;
(e) The telephone number that a customer may call and hours of operation and an e-mail address in order to request an application or to ask questions.
(f) The date the first payment will be due.
(g) A rate calculator or a page that would allow a consumer to calculate the actual or maximum premium that would be charged to a person of the same age, gender, geographic location and plan selection; if the rate provided is the maximum rate, the web page shall explain in what circumstances the actual rate will vary.
(h) Information regarding the carrier's waiting list, if the carrier maintains one; the process of getting on the waiting list; and the process by which the carrier notifies applicants of enrollment decisions.
(9) Information regarding open enrollment must be easily accessible to callers of the toll free telephone number. Persons answering the toll free telephone number must be adequately trained and informed about the open enrollment process. In addition to the information required in paragraph (D)(8) of this rule, persons answering the toll free number must be able to answer customer questions and provide the actual rate, or the maximum rate, that will be applicable to the eligible applicant for all open enrollment products offered by the carrier.
(10) No carrier may employ any scheme, plan, or device that restricts the ability of any person to enroll during open enrollment.
(11) The carrier shall electronically certify on a form prescribed by the superintendent if and when it has met the enrollment limit. In addition, the carrier shall provide a status update to the superintendent with regard to any waiting list, if the carrier maintains a waiting list, on the fifth business day of the month for the previous month. The status update must also report when the carrier reopens enrollment in order to maintain its enrollment limit. A carrier that does not maintain a waiting list must explain to the superintendent how it will maintain its enrollment limit as current enrollees drop off.
(12) The superintendent will provide on the department of insurance web site a common access point for open enrollment information. The following information may be included:
(a) Carriers' toll free numbers.
(b) Links to carriers' open enrollment web page.
(c) Whether a carrier's open enrollment program is open or closed.
(d) Other information as the superintendent deems appropriate.
(D) Reporting and data collection requirements for open enrollment
(1) Carriers subject to the requirement to provide open enrollment coverage under sections 3923.58 and 3923.581 of the Revised Code shall provide data to the superintendent as requested.
(2) Carriers are requested to file the data that is enumerated in divisions (C)(1)(a) to (C)(1)(c) and (C)(1)(e) of section 3923.022 of the Revised Code. It should be separately reported for the carrier's non-open enrollment policies and the open enrollment policies. This data should include:
(a) The amount of premiums earned by the carrier both before and after any costs related to the carrier's purchase of reinsurance coverage;
(b) The total amount of claims for losses paid by the carrier both before and after any reimbursement from reinsurance coverage;
(c) The amount of any losses incurred by the carrier but not reported by the carrier in the current or prior year; and
(d) The amount of costs incurred by the carrier for reinsurance coverage.
(3) Carriers are to report this data electronically for calendar year 2009 and every year thereafter. The non-open enrollment policies include coverage sold to individual insureds or enrollees and non-employer group insureds or enrollees in this state. The open enrollment data should be reported separately for "Federally Eligible Individual" policies and non-"Federally Eligible Individual" policies. "Federally Eligible Individual" has the same meaning as in section 3923.581 of the Revised Code.
(4) Carriers shall file this data electronically by April first of each year, starting with April 1, 2010.
(E) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
View Appendix
Last updated November 14, 2024 at 8:54 AM
History
- Effective: November 14, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-8-16 Required provider network disclosures for consumers.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to implement and interpret applicable statutes including sections 3901.21 and 3923.16 of the Revised Code by further defining unfair trade practices and setting forth minimum standards for the adequate disclosure of any limitations or restrictions on access to providers/facilities to enrollees and to potential enrollees prior to enrollment in a particular health plan.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under section 3901.041 of the Revised Code, general rule making authority; and section 3901.21 of the Revised Code, the unfair and deceptive acts statute.
(C) Definitions
(1) "Enrollee" for the purpose of this rule means any natural person who is entitled or potentially entitled to receive health care benefits provided by a health plan issuer.
(2) "Health benefit plan" for the purpose of this rule has the same meaning as set forth in division (L) of section 3922.01 of the Revised Code.
(3) "Health plan issuer" or "issuer" for the purpose of this rule means an entity subject to the insurance laws and rules of this state, or subject to the jurisdiction of the superintendent of insurance, that contracts, or offers to contract, to provide, deliver, arrange for, pay for, or reimburse any of the costs of health care services under a health benefit plan, including a sickness and accident insurance company; a health insuring corporation; a fraternal benefit society; a self-funded multiple employer welfare arrangement; or a nonfederal, government health plan. "Health plan issuer" includes a third party administrator licensed under Chapter 3959. of the Revised Code to the extent that the benefits that such an entity is contracted to administer under a health benefit plan are subject to the insurance laws and rules of this state or subject to the jurisdiction of the superintendent. "Health plan issuer" also includes a contracting entity as defined under Chapter 3963. of the Revised Code to the extent that the contracted for health care services are provided under a health benefit plan subject to the insurance laws and rules of this state or subject to the jurisdiction of the superintendent.
(D) Requirements
(1) Provider directories. An issuer must ensure that the format and content of a provider directory of a health benefit plan is sufficiently complete and clear to avoid deception or the capacity or tendency to mislead or deceive by complying with at least the following requirements:
(a) Provider directories must be reviewed and updated at least quarterly;
(b) An issuer must update its provider directories within fifteen business days of the effective date of the addition, expiration or termination of a provider or facility from the issuer's network. If the issuer is not aware of the addition, expiration or termination of a provider or facility from the issuer's network prior to it taking effect, an issuer's provider directories must be updated within fifteen business days of the issuer becoming aware of such change. An issuer is deemed to be aware of the addition, expiration or termination of a provider or facility from the issuer's network if the issuer:
(i) Receives notification related to such change from a provider or facility; or
(ii) Takes any action with respect to the provider or facility, such as adjudicating or processing claims, which demonstrates that there is a change in the provider or facility's network status.
(c) Directories must conspicuously display the most recent date of update;
(d) Issuers must make a reasonable effort to provide assistance to individuals with limited English proficiency or disabilities with respect to accessing the provider directory or directories;
(e) Provider directories must be accessible to enrollees online and shall not require enrollees to log-in or to provide a member or group identification number for online access;
(f) Provider directories must be accessible to enrollees in paper copy form. Upon request, issuers must provide the paper copy as soon as reasonably practicable. Paper copy provider directories must contain a clear and conspicuous statement noting that enrollees must contact the issuer to confirm the accuracy of paper copy provider directories, as changes may have occurred since the date of printing;
(i) An issuer is deemed compliant with the requirement contained in paragraph (D)(1)(f) of this rule as long as the issuer:
(a) Provides at least the applicable section or portion of the provider directory that is relevant to an enrollee's request in paper copy form; and
(b) Provides the paper copy to the enrollee within at least ten business days of the date of the request.
(ii) Nothing in this section requires an issuer to publish or maintain separate paper copy and online provider directories as long as the requirements of paragraph (D)(1)(f) of this rule can be satisfied by printing and providing the applicable portions of the directory.
(g) For each health benefit plan, the associated provider directory must include the following information for each in-network provider:
(i) Name;
(ii) Gender;
(iii) Specialty;
(iv) Board certifications;
(v) Accepting new patients;
(vi) Languages spoken by the physician or clinical staff; and
(vii) Office locations.
(h) An issuer's provider directory or directories must make it clear to an enrollee which providers and facilities belong to each network and which network or networks are applicable to each specific plan offered for sale by the issuer. Additionally, provider directories must contain a general statement describing with clarity whether and how tiers may apply to specific plans and any referral process or requirements that may apply;
(i) An issuer's provider directory or directories must contain a clear and conspicuous statement describing the process for implementing increased financial liability as a result of a change in network status;
(j) Issuers must ensure that the name of a network is easily distinguishable and consistent wherever referenced in both print and online materials, including references made on the exchange as defined in division (X) of section 3905.01 of the Revised Code. The name of a network is easily distinguishable if a layperson without specialized insurance industry knowledge is able to easily differentiate among the issuer's networks based on the naming conventions used in the directory.
(k) An issuer's online provider directory must include a method by which enrollees can search specific specialties of providers;
(l) An issuer's online provider directory must include a method by which enrollees can search for specific providers and facilities by name and receive a listing of all networks, and the applicable health plans, to which the provider and facility belongs. Paragraph (D)(1)(l) of this rule, applies one year from the effective date of this rule; and
(m) For each health benefit plan, the associated provider directory must include the following information for each in-network facility:
(i) The location and contact information for each facility;
(ii) The specialty area or areas for which the facility is contracted and included in the network;
(iii) The tier to which a facility is assigned, if there is a financial impact to the enrollee; and
(iv) A general statement notifying enrollees that there may be providers of services at the facility, such as anesthesiologists, radiologists and laboratories, that are not in-network, and a method for contacting the issuer to obtain more detailed information.
(2) Out-of-network coverage. With respect to out-of-network coverage, if applicable, an issuer must provide:
(a) A general explanation of the process and method used by the issuer to determine reimbursement for out-of-network health care services and describing any balance billing that may occur; and
(b) Upon request by an enrollee, a disclosure of the amount of any deductibles, copayments, coinsurance or other amounts for which the enrollee may be responsible. The issuer shall also inform the enrollee through such disclosure that such information is not binding on the issuer and that the amount for which the enrollee is responsible may change.
(3) Identification cards. Identification cards provided to enrollees, if any, must clearly and conspicuously denote:
(a) The name of any network(s) applicable to the coverage; and
(b) Whether such coverage is provided through the exchange as defined in division (X) of section 3905.01 of the Revised Code.
(E) Financial liability. An issuer shall not implement increased financial liability to enrollees resulting from:
(1) An enrollee's reasonable reliance on an incorrect or misleading provider directory or issuer's customer service representative's incorrect or misleading statements with respect to the directory; or
(2) The expiration or termination of a provider or facility from the issuer's network until the provider directory has been updated to reflect such changes.
(F) Notice. An issuer must provide notice of the expiration or termination of a provider or facility from the issuer's network to an enrollee who has received health care services from that provider or facility within the previous twelve months:
(1) Notification must be provided as follows:
(a) Within fifteen business days of the effective date of the expiration or termination of a provider or facility from the issuer's network; or
(b) If the issuer is not aware of the expiration or termination of a provider or facility from the issuer's network prior to it taking effect, notice must be given within fifteen business days of the issuer becoming aware of such change.
(2) An issuer is deemed to be aware of the expiration or termination of a provider or facility from the issuer's network if the issuer:
(a) Receives notification related to such change from a provider or facility; or
(b) Takes any action with respect to the provider or facility, such as adjudicating or processing claims, which demonstrates that there is a change in the provider or facility's network status.
(G) Reporting to the superintendent. The superintendent may require an issuer to submit reports upon request in order to demonstrate compliance with this rule.
(1) If reports are required, the superintendent may prescribe the content, format, and frequency of the reports. The following information may be required for inclusion:
(a) Records documenting network changes;
(b) Records documenting the timing and frequency of provider directory updates;
(c) Records documenting the number of consumer complaints received related to the accuracy of the provider directory, difficulty in obtaining access to the directory, or difficulty in obtaining information related to out-of-network cost-sharing; and
(d) Any other information that the superintendent considers to be relevant in evaluating an issuer's compliance with this rule.
(2) All documents provided to the superintendent under paragraph (G) of this rule are considered work papers of the superintendent that are subject to section 3901.48 of the Revised Code and are confidential and privileged and are not considered a public record, as defined in section 149.43 of the Revised Code. The original documents and any copies of them are not subject to subpoena and shall not be made public by the superintendent or any other person, except as otherwise provided in section 3901.48 of the Revised Code.
(H) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated November 16, 2023 at 8:35 AM
History
- Effective: November 16, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-8-17 Reimbursement for unanticipated out-of-network care.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to implement sections 3902.50 to 3902.54 of the Revised Code.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3902.50 to 3902.54 of the Revised Code.
(C) Scope
This rule applies to all unanticipated out-of-network care as defined in section 3902.50 of the Revised Code.
(D) No private cause of action
Nothing herein shall be construed to create or imply a private cause of action for a violation of this rule.
(E) Definitions
As used in this rule:
(1) "Ambulance" has the same meaning as in section 4765.01 of the Revised Code.
(2) "Clinical laboratory services" has the same meaning as in section 4731.65 of the Revised Code.
(3) "Cost sharing" means the cost to a covered person under a health benefit plan according to any copayment, coinsurance, deductible, or other out-of-pocket expense requirement.
(4) "Covered person," "health benefit plan," "health care services," and "health plan issuer" have the same meanings as in section 3922.01 of the Revised Code.
(5) "Emergency facility" has the same meaning as in section 3701.74 of the Revised Code.
(6) "Emergency services" means all of the following as described in 42 U.S.C. 1395dd:
(a) Medical screening examinations undertaken to determine whether an emergency medical condition exists;
(b) Treatment necessary to stabilize an emergency medical condition; and
(c) Appropriate transfers undertaken prior to an emergency medical condition being stabilized.
(7) "Unanticipated out-of-network care" means health care services, including clinical laboratory services, that are covered under a health benefit plan and that are provided by an out-of- network provider when either of the following conditions applies:
(a) The covered person did not have the ability to request such services from an in-network provider.
Clinical laboratory services provided by an out-of-network provider, but that are ordered by an in-network provider, shall be considered to have met the condition prescribed in paragraph (E)(7)(a) of this rule unless the provider rendering the laboratory services discloses its network status in writing to the covered person before the services are provided.
(b) The services provided were emergency services.
(F) Health plan issuer reimbursement for unanticipated out of network care
(1) Use of geographic region in calculation of health plan issuer reimbursement amount. For purposes of determining the amount negotiated with in-network providers, facilities, emergency facilities, or ambulances for the service in question in a geographic region under a health benefit plan, a health plan issuer shall use the geographic region in which the service was performed. The geographic regions in this state shall consist of one region for each metropolitan statistical area, as described by the U.S. office of management and budget and published by the U.S. census bureau, and one region consisting of all other portions of the state.
(2) Application of prompt pay requirements to health plan issuer reimbursement. A health plan issuer shall send an initial claim payment as its intended reimbursement required by division (B)(1) of section 3902.51 of the Revised Code to the provider, facility, emergency facility, or ambulance in compliance with sections 3901.38 to 3901.3814 of the Revised Code.
(3) A health plan issuer shall pay all reimbursement amounts for unanticipated out-of-network care directly to the provider, facility, emergency facility, or ambulance in accordance with division (B)(1) of section 3902.51 of the Revised Code.
Any amounts paid by a health plan issuer for unanticipated out-of-network care shall include remittance advice remark codes to identify that the payment is made pursuant to division (B)(1) of section 3902.51 of the Revised Code.
(4) In a request for reimbursement of a health care service subject to this rule, the provider, facility, emergency facility, or ambulance shall include the proper billing code for the service for which reimbursement is requested.
Such request for reimbursement shall also include:
(a) Sufficient information for the health plan issuer to identify the facility where a health care service was provided;
(b) Sufficient information for the health plan issuer to identify a request for reimbursement where the provider, facility, emergency facility, or ambulance, has met the good faith estimate and affirmative consent conditions contained in division (E)(1) of section 3902.51 of the Revised Code; and
(G) Health plan issuer identification cards
Identification cards provided to a covered person, if any, must clearly and conspicuously denote the letters "ODI" prominently displayed on the front of the card or document.
If a health plan issuer permits providers to access a covered person's eligibility or coverage information through an electronic system, the system must prominently display a statement that the covered person's health benefit plan is subject to sections 3902.50 to 3902.54 of the Revised Code.
(H) Covered person cost sharing amount
(1) A health plan issuer shall not require cost sharing for any service described in division (A) of section 3902.51 of the Revised Code from the covered person at a rate higher than if the services were provided in-network.
(2) For purposes of this rule, the in-network rate for cost sharing shall be a dollar amount calculated at the time the health plan issuer calculates the initial reimbursement amount required in division (B)(1) of section 3902.51 of the Revised Code.
(3) The covered person's cost sharing amount shall not be adjusted due to the outcome of any subsequent negotiation or arbitration between the health plan issuer and provider, facility, emergency facility, or ambulance.
(I) Negotiation in lieu of accepting issuer reimbursement
(1) The provider, facility, emergency facility, or ambulance shall, within thirty business days of receiving reimbursement for unanticipated out of network care, notify the health plan issuer that the provider, facility, emergency facility or ambulance chooses to negotiate reimbursement.
(2) Failure to notify the health plan issuer of an intent to negotiate within the timeframe set forth in paragraph (I)(1) of this rule shall be considered acceptance of the health plan issuer's reimbursement.
(3) If the provider, facility, emergency facility, or ambulance timely notifies the health plan issuer of its intent to negotiate in accordance with the requirements of this rule, the health plan issuer shall, upon request, disclose to the provider, facility, emergency facility, or ambulance each reimbursement amount the health plan issuer calculated for the claim pursuant to division (B)(1) of section 3902.51 of the Revised Code.
(4) If, during a period of negotiation, the health plan issuer and the provider, facility, emergency facility or ambulance agree on a new reimbursement rate for a claim, then the health plan issuer shall send payment directly to the provider, facility, emergency facility or ambulance within thirty calendar days.
(5) If, during a period of negotiation, the health plan issuer and the provider, facility, emergency facility or ambulance agree on a reimbursement rate for a claim, then that claim is not eligible for arbitration.
(6) If negotiation pursuant to paragraph (I) of this rule has not successfully concluded within thirty business days, or if both parties agree that they are at an impasse, a provider, facility, emergency facility, or ambulance may choose to arbitrate that claim so long as the claim meets the eligibility requirements of division (A)(1) of section 3902.52 of the Revised Code.
(J) Arbitration
(1) Requests for arbitration:
(a) A provider, facility, emergency facility, or ambulance may request arbitration to determine the reimbursement for a claim or claims that are eligible for arbitration pursuant to section 3902.52 of the Revised Code.
(b) Requests for arbitration shall be submitted to the superintendent electronically on a form or through a system prescribed by the superintendent.
(c) Upon receipt of a complete request for arbitration, the superintendent shall notify the contracted arbitration entity of the request for arbitration within four business days.
(d) The contracted arbitration entity shall assign an arbitrator within ten business days and shall provide notice to the health plan issuer and provider, facility, emergency facility, or ambulance.
(e) Each party shall submit its final offer and supporting evidence, if any, to the arbitrator within ten business days after an arbitrator is assigned.
The final offer submitted to the arbitrator by either party shall be an amount the submitting party considers a fair reimbursement rate.
(f) The arbitrator shall consider the evidence submitted by the parties and render a decision within thirty business days.
(g) If the arbitrator determines that the final offer submitted by the provider, facility, emergency facility, or ambulance best reflects a fair reimbursement rate, the health plan issuer shall pay the difference, if any, between the reimbursement rate selected by the arbitrator and the initial payment made by the health plan issuer pursuant to division (B)(1) of section 3902.51 of the Revised Code.
The health plan issuer shall pay the reimbursement directly to the provider, facility, emergency facility, or ambulance within thirty calendar days of the arbitrator's decision.
(h) If the arbitrator determines that the final offer submitted by the health plan issuer best reflects a fair reimbursement rate, the provider, facility, emergency facility, or ambulance shall pay the health plan issuer the difference, if any, between the health plan issuer's reimbursement rate selected by the arbitrator and the initial payment made by the health plan issuer pursuant to division (B)(1) of section 3902.51 of the Revised Code.
The provider, facility, emergency facility, or ambulance, shall pay the reimbursement directly to the health plan issuer within thirty calendar days of the arbitrator's decision.
(2) Claims bundling.
(a) For purposes of bundling claims for arbitration, provider includes a practice of providers to the extent such providers contract with health plan issuers as a single practice.
(b) If negotiation pursuant to division (B)(2) of section 3902.51 of the Revised Code is unsuccessful, a provider, facility, emergency facility, or ambulance may choose to arbitrate that claim as a bundle of up to fifteen claims at a later date, so long as all of the claims meet the requirements of division (A)(1) of section 3902.52 of the Revised Code.
(3) Costs.
(a) The arbitration entity shall perform each arbitration on a flat fee basis.
(b) There shall be no additional costs for a single arbitration of up to fifteen bundled claims.
(c) The non-prevailing party shall pay seventy per cent of the arbitrator's fees, and the prevailing party shall pay thirty per cent.
(i) For purposes of this rule, the non-prevailing party shall be the party whose final offer was not selected by the arbitrator. If multiple claims are bundled for a single arbitration, the non-prevailing party shall be the party whose final offer for each claim was selected fewer times by the arbitrator.
(ii) For purposes of this rule, the prevailing party shall be the party whose final offer was selected by the arbitrator. If multiple claims are bundled for a single arbitration, the prevailing party shall be the party whose final offer for each claim was selected more times by the arbitrator.
(d) In the event that multiple claims are bundled in a single arbitration and the arbitrator selects a final offer from each party the same number of times, then there is no prevailing party and each party shall pay fifty per cent of the arbitrator's fees.
(e) Each party shall bear their own costs for all other expenses related to arbitration.
(4) Submission of evidence for purposes of arbitration.
(a) Each party may submit evidence relating to the factors contained in division (C) of section 3902.52 of the Revised Code except:
(i) No party may submit billed charges as evidence.
(ii) No party may submit public payer rates such as medicare or medicaid reimbursement amounts as evidence.
(b) Evidence must be in a form that can be verified and authenticated.
(c) Evidence must be in a format compatible with the secure portal utilized by the arbitration entity.
(K) Severability
If any paragraph, term or provision of this rule is adjudged invalid for any reason, the judgment shall not affect, impair or invalidate any other paragraph, term or provision of this rule, but the remaining paragraphs, terms and provisions shall be and continue in full force and effect.
Last updated January 3, 2022 at 9:47 AM
History
- Effective: January 1, 2022
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Chapter 3901-9 Viatical Settlement Providers and Stranger-originated Life Insurance
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-9-01 Viatical settlement providers.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to provide standards for persons applying for initial licensure as a viatical settlement provider in this state or renewal of a previously issued license. This rule also provides form filing requirements and fees for licenses, renewals, and form approvals.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.011, 3901.041, 3901.212, 3916.05, and 3916.20 of the Revised Code.
(C) Applicability and scope
This rule applies to all persons applying for or renewing a license or who are currently licensed as a viatical settlement provider in this state.
(D) Definitions
The definitions set forth in Chapter 3916. of the Revised Code are incorporated by reference herein. The following are terms used in this rule:
(1) "Applicant" means a person who is applying to be licensed or applying to renew a license as a viatical settlement provider.
(2) Notwithstanding section 1.59 of the Revised Code, "person" means a natural person or a legal entity, including, but not limited to, an individual, partnership, limited liability company, limited liability partnership, association, trust, business trust, or corporation.
(E) Applying for an initial viatical settlement provider license
(1) To apply for a license to operate as a viatical settlement provider in this state, the applicant shall submit a completed application on a form prescribed by the superintendent.
(2) An application shall not be considered complete until the superintendent receives the application completed in its entirety, required attachments, and the applicable fee.
(3) The applicant shall be notified if the superintendent considers an application to be incomplete and the application shall not be considered for licensure.
(4) All fees paid, as set forth in this rule, including the initial application filing fee, are non-refundable and non-transferable.
(5) A viatical settlement provider shall use only the name that appears on the provider's license, except:
(a) A viatical settlement provider that intends to do business in this state under any name other than the name that appears on the provider's license shall notify the superintendent in writing prior to using the assumed name in this state.
(b) Viatical settlement providers shall include the name appearing on the provider's license in all advertisements, correspondence, and other documents used by the provider in this state.
(F) Applying for renewal of a viatical settlement provider license
(1) A license as a viatical settlement provider expires on March thirty-first of the year following the initial issuance or the continuance of a previously issued or renewed license.
(2) To renew a viatical settlement provider license to operate in this state, the applicant shall submit a renewal application on a form prescribed by the superintendent and the applicable fee. All information requested in the renewal application must be provided.
(a) The applicant shall be notified if the superintendent considers an application to be incomplete and the application shall not be considered for renewal.
(b) All fees are non-refundable and non-transferable.
(G) Request to surrender a viatical settlement provider license
(1) A viatical settlement provider may submit a request to voluntarily surrender its license at any time using a form approved for that purpose by the superintendent. No request for license surrender shall be effective until approved by the superintendent.
(2) A request for voluntary surrender of a viatical settlement provider license shall not be accepted under either of the following circumstances:
(a) The superintendent has, prior to the time of the request, already commenced a formal investigation of any allegation of a violation of Chapter 3916. of the Revised Code or any rule promulgated thereunder that, if proven, would result in administrative action on the viatical settlement provider's license; or,
(b) The superintendent has issued a notice of opportunity for hearing to the provider.
(H) Form filings for licensed viatical settlement providers
(1) No viatical settlement provider forms shall be used in this state or accepted for filing and approval for use in this state until after a license has been issued.
(2) After a license is issued, but before the viatical settlement provider may conduct business in this state, the viatical settlement provider shall submit the forms required to be filed pursuant to division (A) of section 3916.05 of the Revised Code and obtain approval from the superintendent for use in this state.
(3) In addition to all other requirements for approval, all forms filed with the superintendent for approval that require the signature of an Ohio resident viator shall include provisions whereby all parties to the viatical settlement transaction consent to the jurisdiction of the laws of the state of Ohio, except as provided in division (B)(1) of section 3916.02 of the Revised Code or federal law, as applicable.
(I) Form filing fees
The fee for a new form filing is fifty dollars per filing.
(J) Application and license renewal fees for viatical settlement providers
(1) The application fee for initial licensure is one thousand dollars.
(2) The application fee for license renewal is five hundred dollars.
(K) Requirements for surety bonds submitted as proof of financial responsibility
(1) All applicants for a viatical settlement provider license and all licensed viatical settlement providers must provide proof of financial responsibility as defined in division (D) of section 3916.03 of the Revised Code.
(a) All surety bonds, unconditional and irrevocable letters of credit, and deposits of cash and securities ("surety instruments") posted with this state, or drawn in favor of this state, to meet financial responsibility requirements shall be kept current and fully paid for by the applicant, and if a license is issued, the surety instruments shall be kept current and fully paid by the licensee at all times until released by the department in a writing signed by the superintendent.
(b) Release of surety instruments.
(i) Surety instruments in place or on deposit for a currently licensed viatical settlement provider may be released by the department upon receipt of audited financial statements indicating positive equity of two hundred fifty thousand dollars and, in the department's sole discretion, acceptable pro-forma quarterly financial statements for the following four quarters indicating equity at or above the two hundred fifty thousand dollar level at all times.
(ii) In the event of the denial of a viatical settlement provider license application by the superintendent or a withdrawal of a pending viatical settlement provider license application by the applicant, surety instruments in place or on deposit may be released by the department upon receipt of a formal withdrawal letter from the applicant.
(iii) In the event of acceptance by the superintendent of surrender of a viatical settlement provider license, or in the case of the revocation or non-renewal of a viatical settlement provider license by the superintendent, surety instruments in place or on deposit may be released by the department upon receipt of a formal withdrawal letter from the licensee or after the revocation order has been signed by the superintendent, and upon submission by the licensee of written documentation satisfactory to the superintendent confirming that all contracts for purchase of policies by the licensee from Ohio viators have been fully executed, and the viators have received all funds owed to them by the licensee.
(iv) No surety instrument in place or on deposit by a viatical settlement provider as proof of compliance with division (D) of section 3916.03 of the Revised Code shall be terminated for any reason without prior approval of the superintendent.
(L) Standards for evaluation of reasonable payments
(1) In order to ensure that viators receive a reasonable return for viaticating an insurance policy, the following shall be the minimum payouts.
| "Viator's or Insured Person's Remaining Life Expectancy at Time of Viatication" | "Minimum Percentage of Expected Death Benefit (Net of Loans and Any Cash Surrender Value to be Received by Viator)" | | --- | --- | | Less than 6 months | 80% | | At least 6, but less than 12 months | 75% | | At least 12, but less than 18 months | 70% | | At least 18, but less than 24 months | 65% |
(2) For viatical settlement transactions involving terminally or chronically ill viators, the payout shall be increased by one hundred per cent of any net cash surrender value of the insurance policy at the time the viatical contract is issued.
(3) For viatical settlement transactions involving terminally or chronically ill viators, payouts may be reduced by the minimum premium (including premiums payable for additional benefits retained at the option of the viator), if any, required in order to keep the contract in force for the duration of the viator's remaining life expectancy. Other than this allowable reduction in payout, there shall be no other retention of funds for expenses or broker's fees.
(M) Penalties
A violation of this rule is an unfair and deceptive trade practice under sections 3901.19 to 3901.26 of the Revised Code and a violation of Chapter 3916. of the Revised Code. In addition, a violation of section 3916.02 of the Revised Code is a third degree felony pursuant to section 3916.99 of the Revised Code.
(N) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated July 6, 2026 at 9:17 AM
History
- Effective: July 2, 2026
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-9-02 Viatical settlement broker license and registration of insurance agents operating as a viatical settlement broker.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to provide standards for persons applying for initial licensure as a viatical settlement broker in this state or a renewal of a previously issued license and to the registration of insurance agents operating as a viatical settlement broker. This rule also provides form filing requirements and fees for licenses, renewals, and form approvals.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.011, 3901.041, 3901.212, 3916.05, and 3916.20 of the Revised Code.
(C) Applicability and scope
This rule applies to all persons applying for or renewing a license or who are currently licensed as a viatical settlement broker in this state and to all persons licensed as a life insurance agent registering or registered to operate as a viatical settlement broker in this state.
(D) Definitions
The definitions from Chapter 3916. of the Revised Code are incorporated by reference herein. The following are terms used in this rule:
(1) "Applicant" means a person who is applying to be licensed or applying to renew a license as a viatical settlement broker.
(2) "Home state" means the state or territory of the United States, including the District of Columbia, in which an insurance agent or viatical settlement broker maintains the life insurance agent's or viatical settlement broker's principal place of residence or principal place of business and is licensed to act as an insurance agent or viatical settlement broker.
(3) "Incidental" means, for the purpose of a licensed life insurance agent acting as a viatical settlement broker under the statutory exception set forth in division (C)(2) of section 3916.02 of the Revised Code, executing not more than five viatical settlement contracts within any annual registration period.
(4) "Insurance agent" shall have the same meaning as is set forth in division (F) of section 3905.01 of the Revised Code.
(5) "License" means the authority issued by the superintendent to a person to act as an insurance agent with a life insurance line of authority or as a viatical settlement broker, but that does not create any actual, apparent, or inherent authority in the person to represent or commit an insurer.
(6) "Life line of authority" means authorized in this state to sell life insurance products under an agent license in accordance with division (B)(1) of section 3905.06 of the Revised Code.
(7) Notwithstanding section 1.59 of the Revised Code, "person" means a natural person or a legal entity, including, but not limited to, an individual, partnership, limited liability company, limited liability partnership, association, trust, business trust, or corporation.
(8) "Registered life insurance agent" means an insurance agent who meets the standards set forth in division (C)(2) of section 3916.02 of the Revised Code and who has registered, as set forth in this rule, with the superintendent of insurance. The registered life insurance agent may operate as a viatical settlement broker in this state, provided that the agent's viatical settlement broker activities are incidental to the agent's regular life insurance business activities as defined in this rule.
(9) "Viatical settlement broker activities" means engaging in the viatication of one or more life policies, as defined by division (J) of section 3916.01 of the Revised Code, for compensation, on behalf of a viator or policy owner who resides in this state.
(E) Initial license requirements for viatical settlement broker applicants
(1) Applicants shall submit a complete application, on a form prescribed by the superintendent.
(2) An application shall not be considered complete until the superintendent receives the application completed in its entirety, required attachments, and the applicable fee.
(3) The applicant shall be notified if the superintendent determines that an application is incomplete and will not be considered for licensure.
(4) All fees paid, as set forth in this rule are non-refundable and non-transferable.
(5) An individual viatical settlement broker license whose license has expired, and who applies for and is issued a new viatical settlement broker license within one year of the prior license expiration, shall be assigned the same "Viatical Settlement Continuing Education" (VSE) compliance period that the individual was assigned for the individual's previous viatical settlement broker license.
(a) In order to qualify for a new viatical settlement broker license after the expiration of a previous viatical settlement broker license, the individual viatical settlement broker applicant must complete all of the viatical settlement broker education credit requirements that were not completed prior to the expiration of the individual's previous viatical settlement broker license; and
(b) The viatical settlement broker applicant must provide proof of completion of the required number of approved viatical settlement broker education credits by submitting documentation acceptable to the superintendent such as course completion certificates and/or course rosters;
(c) The viatical settlement broker applicant must pay the viatical settlement broker education extension fee, if any viatical settlement broker education credits were taken beyond the previous viatical settlement broker education compliance period deadline date. The viatical settlement broker education extension fee is in addition to any application fees; and
(d) The effective date of the new viatical settlement broker license for applicants whose previous viatical settlement broker license expired within one year of the date of the new application for a license shall be the date that the department processes and approves the license application.
(F) Renewal requirements for all licensed viatical settlement brokers
(1) A viatical settlement broker license expires on March thirty-first of the year following the initial issuance or the continuance of a previously renewed license.
(2) To apply to renew a license to operate as a viatical settlement broker in this state, the applicant shall submit a viatical settlement broker renewal application on a form prescribed by the superintendent, completed in its entirety, all required attachments, and the applicable renewal fee.
(3) The applicant shall be notified if the superintendent determines that an application is incomplete and will not be considered for licensure.
(4) The superintendent shall not renew the license of an individual licensed as a viatical settlement broker if the licensee has not completed the required viatical settlement broker education credits within the licensee's assigned biennial compliance period or approved extension period, except in the case of an extension granted pursuant to paragraph (H)(1) in rule 3901-9-03 of the Administrative Code for medical disability or special circumstance.
(5) The superintendent shall not renew the license of a viatical settlement business entity broker unless the licensee has one actively licensed individual viatical settlement broker designated as the individual who is responsible for the licensee's compliance with the laws of this state.
(G) Use of assumed name by viatical settlement brokers, registered life insurance agents, and licensed life insurance agents acting as a viatical settlement broker under the exception set forth in division (C)(2) of section 3916.02 of the Revised Code
(1) A viatical settlement broker, registered life insurance agent, or licensed insurance agents acting as a viatical settlement broker under the exception set forth in division (C)(2) of section 3916.02 of the Revised Code shall use only the name that appears on the broker's or agent's license, except:
(a) A viatical settlement broker, registered life insurance agent, or licensed insurance agent acting as a viatical settlement broker under the exception set forth in division (C)(2) of section 3916.02 of the Revised Code that intends to do business in this state under any name other than the name that appears on the broker's or agent's license shall notify the superintendent in writing prior to using the assumed name in this state.
(b) Viatical settlement brokers, registered life insurance agents, and licensed insurance agents acting as a viatical settlement broker under the exception set forth in division (C)(2) of section 3916.02 of the Revised Code shall include the name appearing on the broker's or agent's license in all advertisements, correspondence, and other documents used by the broker or agent in this state.
(H) Registration and requirements for a life insurance agent to operate as a viatical settlement broker under the exception to the viatical settlement broker licensing set forth in division (C)(2) of section 3916.02 of the Revised Code and is defined in this rule as a registered life insurance agent.
(1) Any individual life insurance agent who intends to operate in this state as a viatical settlement broker and meets the requirements of division (C)(2) of section 3916.02 of the Revised Code shall register annually with the superintendent of insurance as a registered life insurance agent on a form designated for that purpose by the superintendent.
(2) Registered life insurance agent registrations expire on March thirty-first of each succeeding year unless the agent submits a new registration form to the superintendent prior to the expiration date each year.
(3) The superintendent shall cancel a licensed insurance agent's registered life insurance agent registration upon the occurrence of the following events:
(a) The registered life insurance agent is granted a viatical settlement broker license in this state; or
(b) The registered life insurance agent no longer meets the requirements of division (C)(2) of section 3916.02 of the Revised Code.
(4) Registered life insurance agents are exempt from the continuing education requirements set forth in division (G) of section 3916.03 of the Revised Code. Registered life insurance agents are not prohibited from attending such continuing education courses.
(5) A registered life insurance agent is only permitted to provide viatical settlement broker services when such activity is incidental to the insurance agent's business activities as defined in this rule.
(6) Registered life insurance agents shall use only forms that have been previously filed by licensed viatical settlement brokers or viatical settlement providers and approved by the superintendent for use in this state in accordance with division (A) of section 3916.05 of the Revised Code.
(7) All individual life insurance agents acting as viatical settlement brokers under the exemption set forth in division (C)(2) of section 3916.02 of the Revised Code and all registered life insurance agents as defined in this rule are subject to the provisions of Chapter 3916. of the Revised Code and the rules promulgated thereunder.
(I) Form filings by licensed viatical settlement brokers
(1) If a license is issued, and before the licensee can conduct business in this state, the licensee shall submit the forms required to be filed pursuant to division (A) of section 3916.05 of the Revised Code and obtain approval from the superintendent for use in this state.
(2) Forms shall not be accepted for filing and approval until after a viatical settlement broker license has been issued.
(3) Forms shall not be accepted for filing from individual life insurance agents acting as viatical settlement brokers under the exception set forth in division (C)(2) of section 3916.02 of the Revised Code or from registered life insurance agents as defined in this rule. All individual life insurance agents acting as viatical settlement brokers and registered life insurance agents under this exception shall use only forms that have been filed by licensed viatical settlement providers and licensed viatical settlement brokers and have been approved by the superintendent for use in this state.
(J) Fees for viatical settlement brokers
(1) Viatical settlement broker initial application fees.
The filing fee for the initial application to be licensed as a viatical settlement broker is two hundred dollars.
(2) Viatical settlement broker renewal application fees.
The filing fee for an application for renewal is one hundred dollars.
(3) The fee for an extension request of viatical settlement broker education credit requirements within the allowable viatical settlement broker education extension period or for completing any viatical settlement broker education credit requirements that were not completed prior to the end of the viatical settlement broker education compliance period of the expired viatical settlement broker license is one hundred dollars.
(4) The fee for a new form filing is fifty dollars per filing.
(K) Penalties
A violation of this rule is an unfair and deceptive trade practice under sections 3901.19 to 3901.26 of the Revised Code and a violation of Chapter 3916. of the Revised Code. In addition, a violation of section 3916.02 of the Revised Code is a third degree felony pursuant to section 3916.99 of the Revised Code.
(L) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated July 6, 2026 at 9:17 AM
History
- Effective: July 2, 2026
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-9-03
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to establish viatical settlement broker education (VSE) requirements, criteria, standards, procedures, and fees for viatical settlement broker education providers, viatical settlement broker education courses, and licensed viatical settlement brokers pursuant to Chapter 3916. of the Revised Code.
(B) Authority
This rule is issued pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.011, 3901.041, 3901.212, 3916.03, and 3916.20 of the Revised Code.
(C) Application and scope
This rule applies to licensed viatical brokers and all other persons applying to provide, providing, or enrolled in a viatical settlement broker education course or program to be offered pursuant to the requirements of division (G) of section 3916.03 of the Revised Code.
(D) Definitions
(1) "Authorized provider official" is the person designated by a viatical settlement education provider as the individual responsible for the conduct of viatical settlement broker education, compliance with this rule, viatical settlement education instructors, viatical settlement education monitors, and the provider's employees.
(2) "Classroom" means course activities or information occurring in real time at a specific time, date, and place, and delivered in person, such as a seminar or workshop by a viatical settlement broker education instructor. Attendance is based on personally identifiable information (e.g., government-issued identification and signature) and participation or interaction with course activities. Classroom courses do not require an examination.
(3) "Completion Date" is the date on which the participant completes the course, including passing any required examination.
(4) "Compliance period" means the period of time in which an individual viatical settlement broker must complete the required viatical settlement broker education credits (CE) pursuant to division (G) of section 3916.03 of the Revised Code.
(5) "Course" means a classroom, distance learning, or self-study presentation of information related to viatical settlement, delivered in person, in print or electronically, which may be interactive or not, with successful completion measured by attendance (classroom), interaction (distance learning), or examination/knowledge assessments (self-study).
(6) "Course Completion Roster" means a listing of course completions, provided in a format determined by the superintendent, which includes the provider name, provider number, course title, course identification number, course completion date, participant's name, national producer number (NPN), number of credits earned by each participant, or any other information deemed necessary by the superintendent.
(7) "Course Difficulty Level" is determined by whether the course is designed for inexperienced or experienced viatical settlement brokers, as well as the amount of information presented and at what pace the information is presented.
(a) "Basic" is a course designed for entry-level licensees or licensees new to the subject matter.
(b) "Intermediate" is a course designed for licensees who have existing competence in the subject area and that wish to further develop and apply their skills.
(c) "Advanced" is a course designed for licensees who have a strong foundation and high level of competence in the subject matter.
(8) "Course Offering" is an approved event with a specific start and end time.
(9) "Distance Learning" means the method of instruction where the participant and viatical settlement education instructor are in different physical locations and interact with each other through various methods of telecommunication, including video teleconference, internet conference, virtual class, or webinar. Distance learning is delivered at a specific date and time. Attendance is monitored and validated based on personally identifiable information (e.g., username, password, or email), and participation in interactive exercises is required. Credit for course completion is based on attendance and activity, not examination.
(10) "Interactive" means regular occurring opportunities for participation, engagement, and interaction with course activities and information. Examples include, question and answer sessions, entry of verification codes, polling, games, sequencing, and matching exercises.
(11) "Proctor" means a disinterested third party that is at least eighteen years old, which can be any person except for family members, individuals who have a financial interest in the participant's success on the exam, or co-workers that are not above or below the participant's line of supervision.
(12) "Provider" or "viatical settlement education provider (VSE provider)" is any person or entity who is permitted to offer viatical settlement broker education courses pursuant to division (G) of section 3916.03 of the Revised Code.
(13) "Self-Study" means the method of instruction which does not require a participant to attend an organized class or interact with an instructor and is completed by individual study. Course credit is based on the passage of an examination, knowledge assessments, or frequent interaction with courseware as a condition of progressing through the course material. Self-study courses can be interactive or non-interactive. Course activities or information is delivered outside of real time (recorded or otherwise similarly accessible) and at any time, such as correspondence, online, video, audio, compact disc (CD), or digital video disc (DVD). Participant attendance is verified based on identity (e.g., username, password, email, and signature).
(14) "Viatical Settlement Broker" or "licensee" means an individual or business entity that has applied for and been granted a viatical settlement broker license in this state.
(15) "Viatical settlement broker education" or VSE means the viatical settlement education required by division (G) of section 3916.03 of the Revised Code.
(E) Compliance period viatical settlement broker education requirements
(1) A viatical settlement broker must complete VSE comprising fifteen hours of credit within the applicable compliance period as set forth in this rule.
(2) A viatical settlement broker's compliance period shall be based upon the following criteria:
(a) The initial compliance period for all individuals licensed as a viatical settlement broker shall begin on January first immediately following the year of licensure and end twenty-four months later on December thirty-first and shall continue every twenty-four months as long as the license is in force;
(b) Every subsequent twenty-four month period shall constitute a compliance period. Each compliance period shall commence on January first immediately following the preceding compliance period and shall end on December thirty-first of the second year after the preceding compliance period; and
(c) The compliance period for an individual whose viatical settlement broker license has expired, and who applies for and is issued a new viatical settlement broker license within one year of the prior license expiration, shall be assigned the same compliance period that the individual would have been assigned if the individual's previous viatical settlement broker license was timely renewed.
(i) In order to qualify for a new viatical settlement broker license, the individual viatical settlement broker must complete all of the viatical settlement broker education requirements that were not completed prior to the expiration of their license;
(ii) The viatical settlement broker applicant must pay the VSE extension fee if any viatical settlement broker education was completed in order to reactivate the license and those credits were taken beyond the previous compliance period end date of December thirty-first;
(iii) The licensee must provide proof of completion of the required fifteen hours of viatical settlement broker education by submitting documentation acceptable to the superintendent such as course completion certificates or course rosters; and
(iv) The effective date of the new viatical settlement broker license shall be the date that the department processes and approves the license application.
(F) Viatical settlement broker education credit
(1) Resident licensees may only complete viatical settlement broker education from a provider where both the viatical settlement broker education and provider have been approved by the superintendent of this state pursuant to division (G) of section 3916.03 of the Revised Code and this rule.
(2) Non-resident licensees may complete viatical settlement broker education approved by another state or viatical settlement broker education approved by the superintendent of this state pursuant to division (G) of section 3916.03 of the Revised Code.
(a) A non-resident licensee must provide proof of completion to the superintendent of this state if the viatical settlement broker education was not approved in this state;
(b) The non-resident licensee must also include the appropriate course participation fee for the number of credits being requested; and
(c) The viatical settlement broker education must be reported to the superintendent of this state before the expiration of the viatical settlement broker's compliance period.
(3) Credit may be given for viatical settlement broker education that has been filed according to the submission requirements of this rule, but is held prior to the superintendent's written approval, so long as written approval is granted.
(4) Any licensee who completed a viatical settlement broker education course more than once in a compliance period will only be given credit for the first time the course was completed.
(5) Partial credit, rounded down in one-hour increments, may be given for classroom and distance learning courses only at the viatical settlement education provider's option.
(a) The viatical settlement education provider may, but is not required to, give refunds for the portion of the course unattended. The viatical settlement education provider's refund policy on partial attendance must be disclosed to the licensee before or at the time of registration in accordance with this rule; and
(b) Partial credit will only be given if the course participation fee is paid to the superintendent or its designee in the amount required as if the licensee had attended the entire class.
(6) Viatical settlement broker education credit will only be awarded if both the course and the provider are approved by the superintendent.
(7) Credit hours are considered earned on the date the licensee completed the course, not the date that the credits are posted on the licensee's record with the superintendent.
(8) Approved viatical settlement broker education taken between the date of licensure and the beginning of the initial compliance period may be applied towards the initial licensee's viatical settlement broker education requirement during their initial compliance period.
(9) Credit earned for viatical settlement broker education will count towards the general education credit requirement for licensees who hold an active viatical settlement broker license in addition to another license type that requires continuing education.
(10) Credit for publication and instruction
(a) A licensee may receive up to seven hours of viatical settlement broker education credit per compliance period for the publication of articles or books authored by such licensee so long as the article or book is published in a generally known and recognized state or national publication and directly relates to the business of viatical settlements as defined in Chapter 3916. of the Revised Code. The extent to which such credit may be given is at the discretion of the superintendent. Requests for viatical settlement broker education credit related to publication of articles or books will only be considered by the superintendent if it is made in writing and accompanied by proof of authorship and publication. Viatical settlement broker education credit will be given only once for each approved article or book.
(b) Viatical settlement broker education credit may be allowed for the authors of written materials used in approved viatical settlement broker education courses on a one-time per course basis equal to the number of viatical settlement broker education credit hours for which the course was approved. If there are multiple authors of the written course materials, no author will receive more than their pro rata share. The total number of hours received by all authors for a course cannot exceed the total number of hours for which the course is approved. Requests for viatical settlement broker education credit related to written material used in an approved viatical settlement broker education course will only be considered by the superintendent if it is made in writing and accompanied by proof of authorship.
(c) Instructors for approved viatical settlement broker education courses may receive viatical settlement broker education credit for instructing courses. Viatical settlement broker education credit may be given in an amount equal to two times the number of hours actually spent instructing a course. Viatical settlement broker education credit will be given only once per course per compliance period.
(d) A licensee who authors materials for an approved viatical settlement broker education course and teaches the same course in a compliance period may receive viatical settlement broker education credit for authoring the written materials or instructing the course, but not for both activities, in any one compliance period.
(e) An individual requesting credit for publication or instructing a course must include the non-refundable payment described paragraph (X)(5) of this rule.
(G) Viatical settlement broker education transcripts
(1) The superintendent will post viatical settlement broker education transcripts on the department's web site or in the licensee's on-line portal.
(2) If the transcript indicates that a licensee has completed the required number of viatical settlement broker education credits for that compliance period and is reported as being in compliance with the viatical settlement broker education requirements of this state, no additional documentation or reporting is necessary for that compliance period unless otherwise instructed by the department.
(3) If the transcript indicates that a licensee has not completed the required viatical settlement broker education for that compliance period or is reported as being in non-compliance with the viatical settlement broker education requirement of this state, it is the individual licensee's responsibility to prove compliance with this rule and only request renewal of their license when they have successfully met the viatical settlement broker education requirements stated in this rule.
(H) Viatical settlement broker education extensions
(1) The superintendent may grant a licensee a general extension from January first immediately after the end of their compliance period through the expiration date of their viatical settlement broker license.
(2) It is the licensee's responsibility to provide documentation and meet the following conditions when requesting a viatical settlement broker education extension:
(a) The request for a viatical settlement broker education extension must be received by the superintendent with the renewal application or initial application under paragraph (E)(2)(c) of this rule;
(b) The request must include sufficient course completion certificates to meet the viatical settlement broker education requirements stated in this rule;
(c) The request must include the non-refundable viatical settlement broker education extension fee. The viatical settlement broker education extension fee is in addition to any renewal or application fees; and
(d) The request must include any other documentation required by the superintendent.
(3) When an extension is granted, it applies only to that compliance period.
(I) Viatical settlement education provider application
(1) No application for a viatical settlement education provider will be considered by the superintendent unless it is made on the form prescribed by the superintendent and includes the appropriate fee.
(2) The department will review a viatical settlement broker education provider application within thirty days of receipt.
(a) If the viatical settlement education provider submits a new or renewal application that is incomplete or if the application lacks information deemed necessary by the department, the application will be returned with a letter identifying the deficient areas to be addressed before the review process will continue. If the department does not receive the requested information by the relevant deadline stated in the letter, the filing will be considered abandoned. The viatical settlement education provider application fee is non-refundable and non-transferable.
(b) If a viatical settlement education provider's application is approved, a viatical settlement education provider identification number will be assigned and the viatical settlement education provider will be notified of that approval in writing.
(c) Approval of a viatical settlement education provider's initial application is effective beginning on the date of the department's approval through the thirty-first day of December of the same year in which the approval was granted.
(d) Approval of a viatical settlement education provider's renewal application is effective beginning January first and ending December thirty-first of the renewal year.
(e) Failure to renew an existing viatical settlement education provider certification by December thirty-first will result in that certification and any course connected with that viatical settlement education provider automatically expiring as of December thirty-first of the same year. Any viatical settlement education provider whose certification has expired must reapply as a new viatical settlement education provider before offering or holding any viatical settlement broker education courses.
(3) Viatical settlement education provider renewal applications are due to the department by November thirtieth each year.
(J) Authorized provider official
(1) The authorized provider official will obtain viatical settlement education provider approval, obtain course approvals, verify the qualifications of instructors, provide course schedules (where applicable), monitor attendance, administer examinations (where applicable), submit course completion rosters and fees to the department or its designee, and provide any other documentation required by the department.
(2) The authorized provider official must supply and maintain an accurate email address which will be used as the primary source of communication with the viatical settlement education provider.
(K) Viatical settlement broker education course application
(1) A course application will only be considered if it is made on the approved multi-state form or a form prescribed by the superintendent, complete, includes the appropriate fee selected on the viatical settlement education provider application, and includes any other required attachments as noted on the form.
(2) The superintendent will review each application within thirty days of the date of receipt of a complete application and appropriate fees. The effective date of course approval is within the superintendent's discretion.
(3) If the viatical settlement education provider submits an initial course or renewal application that is incomplete or if the application lacks information deemed necessary by the superintendent, the application will be returned with a letter indicating areas which must be addressed before the review process will continue. If the superintendent does not receive the requested information by the requested response date, the filing will be considered abandoned. The course application fee is non-refundable and non-transferable.
(4) Viatical settlement education providers will be notified in writing of the approval of each course and of the course number assigned to it by the superintendent. A course is approved from the date of approval until December thirty-first of the same year in which the course is approved. Course renewal applications are due by November thirtieth each year. The superintendent will review each application within thirty days of receipt of a complete application and appropriate fees.
(a) A course renewal application will only be considered if made on a form prescribed by the superintendent, complete, and includes the appropriate fee based on the fee option selected on the provider renewal application.
(b) The superintendent may require a full review of courses that have aged at least four years from initial approval or since its last full review. A full review may include the submission of a new course application, course outline, and other course application documents and information outlined in this rule or the form application for initial course review. Outcome of review may result in the issuance of a new course identification number, change to approved course topic, or number of approved credit hours.
(c) Any viatical settlement education provider or associated course whose renewal has not been approved before the expiration date will automatically expire as of December thirty-first of that renewal year. The viatical settlement education provider may not conduct any course for credit until the viatical settlement education provider and associated courses are approved by the superintendent.
(5) Based upon a review of the application the superintendent may approve a course for fewer credits than requested, and a viatical settlement education provider may only offer and award the number of credit hours as approved.
(6) The instructional method of a course may be presented as a classroom course, self-study course, or distance learning course.
(7) All requests for approval of a course are to be made in the manner prescribed by the superintendent and contain the following information:
(a) The number of requested credit hours and length of the course provided that:
(i) The course be for at least one credit hour;
(ii) The course be for no more than twenty-one credit hours;
(iii) The credits be requested in whole or one-half credit hours;
(iv) There be at least fifty minutes of instruction for each credit hour requested; and
(v) Breaks, introductions, lunches, announcements, or other non-instruction time is excluded in calculating the credit hours requested.
(b) The course topic to which the course relates.
(c) The purpose or objective of the course and how the material offered will increase the knowledge of Chapter 3916. of the Revised Code and the rules promulgated thereunder.
(d) The course difficulty level (i.e. basic, intermediate, or advanced).
(e) The method of instruction in which the course will be delivered or presented.
(f) The methods utilized to provide reasonable assurance of the participant's identity.
(g) The method(s) utilized to verify participant's attendance, completion, or participation of the course.
(h) The criteria used in selecting instructors. Viatical settlement education providers will make information about the experience and qualifications of each instructor available upon request by any person.
(i) The course tuition and the viatical settlement education provider's refund policy.
(j) A detailed content outline, containing a description of each topic to be covered by the course. The outline must include:
(i) The proposed time component.
(ii) The specific material to be covered in each time component.
(iii) The method of presentation employed for each component.
(iv) The justification for the time allotted to each component of the course.
(v) The time required to complete the course, in its entirety, without interruption.
(vi) The identification of any component that includes a sales or marketing element.
(k) A description of materials to be used during the course.
(l) A statement as to whether an examination is required as part of the course and the minimum standard needed to pass the examination.
(m) A statement as to whether the course is open to the public.
(n) The name of the authorized provider official as defined in this rule.
(o) The anticipated initial date the course will be conducted, if known.
(p) Any other information requested by the superintendent.
(L) Viatical settlement broker education course standards
In order for a course to be approved by the superintendent as an acceptable viatical settlement broker education course, the course must:
(1) Be offered by an approved viatical settlement education provider.
(2) Use the most recent policy forms, editions, and laws filed in Ohio to the extent possible.
(3) Have significant intellectual or practical content that enhances and improves the licensee's knowledge or professional competence, through an organized program of learning dealing with matters directly related to Chapter 3916. of the Revised Code and the rules promulgated thereunder, including professional competence, fiduciary duties, and ethical obligations. Viatical settlement broker education courses may be comprised of the following topics:
(a) Ethics in the viatical or life settlement market, including topics directly related to maintaining ethical business practices for viatical settlement brokers and their role in viatical or life settlements, the prohibition of accepting payments from anyone other than the viator/policyowner, and the viatical settlement broker's fiduciary duty to the viator/policyowners, including study of sections 3916.031 and 3916.04 of the Revised Code and the rules promulgated thereunder;
(b) Suitability of viatical or life settlements, including study of due diligence, best execution, training, supervision, applicable "FINRA" rules and "Notices to Members," federal and state personal and estate tax consequences, loss of government benefits, and loss of insurability;
(c) Violations and penalties set forth in Chapter 3916. of the Revised Code and the rules promulgated thereunder, including special attention to sections 3916.171, 3916.172, 3916.173, 3916.18, 3916.19, 3916.20, and 3916.21 of the Revised Code and the rules promulgated thereunder;
(d) General overview of Chapter 3916. of the Revised Code and the rules promulgated thereunder to enable the participant or licensee to be familiar with the text and requirements of the viatical or life settlement act, including study of the definitions in section 3916.01 of the Revised Code;
(e) History of viatical or life settlements, including developments in current law and study of Ohio cases;
(f) Privacy of information, including medical records and protection of the viator/seller and insured's identity; contact with insured; and required disclosures, including study of divisions (A) and (B) of section 3916.06, and sections 3916.07, 3916.08, 3916.10, and 3916.13 of the Revised Code and rules promulgated thereunder;
(g) The business of viatical or life settlements, including the structure of settlements, and premium financing, including study of sections 1321.76 and 1321.78 of the Revised Code and the rules promulgated thereunder;
(h) Best business practices, under sections 3916.031, 3916.04, 3916.05, 3916.09, 3916.11, 3916.12, 3916.14, 3916.16, 3916.17, and 3916.18 of the Revised Code and rules promulgated thereunder; and
(i) The life insurance policy contract, including standard provisions, period of contestability, assignment, accelerated benefits, conversion rights, and types of insurance, (e.g. term, whole life, and universal life).
(4) Be given a title that is not misleading and does not cause an individual to believe that the course is approved for a different course topic than what is approved by the superintendent.
(5) Meet all other criteria set forth in this rule.
(M) Viatical settlement broker education course instructor qualification
(1) The authorized provider official is responsible for verifying that instructors meet the required minimum qualifications. Instructors must meet one of the following qualification categories:
(a) Qualification one: the instructor or speaker holds a post graduate degree in insurance or law from an accredited university and a minimum of seven years experience working with viatical settlements as a federal or state regulator or federal or state law enforcement officer.
(b) Qualification two: the instructor or speaker has a minimum of seven years of experience working with viatical settlements, and holds one or more of the following designations in good standing:
(i) "Certified Financial Planner" (CFP);
(ii) "Certified Public Accountant" (CPA);
(iii) "Chartered Life Underwriter" (CLU);
(iv) "Chartered Financial Consultant" (ChFC);
(v) "Fellow Life Management Institute" (FLMI);
(vi) "Life Underwriting Training Council Fellow" (LUTCF).
(c) Qualification three: the instructor or speaker has been a licensed viatical settlement broker in good standing for a period of not less than five years, and has been registered in good standing with "FINRA" as an investment advisor or broker-dealer for a minimum of five years.
(d) Qualification four: the instructor or speaker has a minimum of seven years of experience in the business of insurance or the business of viatical settlements, or a combination thereof, and a degree from an accredited institution of higher education in business, finance, or law.
(e) Qualification five: the instructor or speaker is either a full-time or adjunct faculty of an accredited university and teaches a viatical settlement related curriculum course at a university.
(2) A viatical settlement education provider shall verify each instructor's relevant qualifications and be prepared to provide evidence of such qualifications to the department upon request.
(3) Instructors must be knowledgeable in the subject that they teach in a viatical broker education course.
(4) Insurance company trainers as instructors must be full-time salaried employees of the insurance company sponsoring the course and have the duty to provide insurance company training as part of their full-time responsibilities.
(5) Any person that has had administrative action taken against a professional license or registration must disclose that action to the viatical settlement education provider prior to instructing a course, seminar, conference, or lecture. If the viatical settlement education provider wants to use this person as an instructor under its authority, the viatical settlement education provider must notify the superintendent immediately upon receipt of that information and have written approval from the superintendent.
(N) Additional guidelines for self-study courses
(1) A self-study course may be offered utilizing any of the following formats:
(a) On-line course with interactive chapter or section questions. This type of interactive on-line course has a series of questions at the end of each chapter or section designed to test the participant's subject matter knowledge of that chapter or section. The participant may only advance to the next chapter or section after they have successfully answered all the questions for the previous chapter or section. The participant may review the material to answer a question. An interactive on-line self-study course is not required to have a final examination.
Interactive on-line courses must be designed so that the actual amount of time a student spends completing the viatical settlement broker education course equals, at minimum, the amount of credit hours approved for the course.
(b) A non-interactive on-line course which has a scored on-line final examination.
(c) A non-interactive, on-line or paper-based course which has a mail-in final examination.
(d) Any type of self-study program with a proctored final examination.
(e) Other types of self-study courses as the superintendent may approve.
(2) In addition to providing all other information required pursuant to this rule, a viatical settlement education provider must include:
(a) The number of questions that appear at the end of each chapter or section, a sample of the questions, references from the questions back to the text if requested by the superintendent, and a copy of the answer key for the sample questions for on-line interactive courses; or
(b) The number of examination questions which will appear on the participant's examination, references from the examination back to the text if requested by the superintendent, and a copy of the examination answer key with the application for a course which requires a final examination. The answer key must indicate the total amount of credit possible for answering each question correctly, and an explanation how essay questions will be graded.
(3) A viatical settlement education provider will require each licensee to enroll and pay for the course before having access to the course material.
(4) A viatical settlement education provider will prevent access to the course unit/chapter questions and final exam before the licensee reviews the course materials.
(5) A viatical settlement education provider will prevent downloading and printing of any course unit/chapter question and final exam.
(6) The following are minimum requirements for self-study final examination and for on-line interactive chapter/section questions:
(a) Multiple choice items will have a minimum of four options.
(b) Multiple choice items will have only one correct response.
(c) Multiple choice answers will be grammatically consistent and parallel in form to eliminate obvious wrong answers.
(d) No correct answer to one question may provide a clue to the correct answer to any other questions in the chapter/section questions or final examination.
(e) Questions will be clearly written.
(f) Questions will adequately cover the course material set out in the course outline.
(g) Answers to the questions will not be in a discernable pattern.
(h) Final exam questions will not duplicate any unit/chapter questions.
(7) In order to obtain credit for a self-study course the licensee must either:
(a) Complete an interactive on-line course after having answered one hundred per cent of each chapter's/section's questions correctly; or
(b) Receive a grade of seventy per cent or greater on the final examination.
(8) A final examination shall be administered only upon completion of the self-study course.
(9) Viatical settlement education providers offering self-study courses must have qualified instructors available to respond to questions within forty-eight hours by telephone or email.
(10) Viatical settlement education providers must be able to prevent the issuance of a participant affidavit until after the course and course examination is successfully completed. Affidavits may be administered and signed electronically.
(11) Each participant must certify that he or she completed the course and, if applicable, the examination without assistance. If the examination is monitored, the viatical settlement education provider or proctor may check ID to identify participants.
(12) Details on how the examination materials will be returned to the viatical settlement education provider shall be included in the instructions.
(O) Additional guidelines for distance learning courses
(1) Distance learning must:
(a) Be conducted at a specific date and time and require each participant to log into the course using a distinct username, password, or email.
(b) Be designed so that all participants actively participate in the instructional process, by utilizing techniques that require substantial participant interaction with the instructor, other participants, or a computer program. Any course that permits participants to sit passively and observe instruction or read instructional material may not be approved. The viatical settlement education provider will have a process to determine when a participant is inactive or not fully participating, such as when the screen is minimized, does not answer polling questions, or does not enter verification codes. All viatical settlement broker education courses will include no less than two methods of interactive activities asked at unannounced intervals during each one-hour course session to determine participant attentiveness.
A viatical settlement education provider may administer examinations to participants to verify participation and evaluate the effectiveness of the distance learning course, but passage of an examination by a participant may not be a condition for advancement to a subsequent section of the course or successful completion of the course, unless the course is part of a national designation program which requires the passage of an examination.
(c) Utilize only instructors who are qualified according to Ohio's instructor guidelines pursuant to paragraph (M) of this rule.
(d) Have appropriate instructor and technical support to enable participants to satisfactorily complete the course. The viatical settlement education provider will maintain an electronic roster to include records for each participant's log-in/log-out times, chat history, and interactive responses.
(e) Utilize procedures that provide reasonable assurance of participant identity, including national producer number (NPN) of all participants.
(f) Have a viatical settlement education provider representative monitor attendance throughout the course and that the participant receiving the viatical settlement broker education credit actually performed all the work required to satisfactorily complete the course. When a participant is deemed inactive, or not fully participating in the course, viatical settlement broker education credit will not be granted. Prior to the start of the course offering, the viatical settlement education provider will inform each participant of the course participation requirements and the consequences for failing to actively participate in the course.
(2) The viatical settlement education provider must provide the participants with an orientation or information package which contains all necessary information about the course subject matter and learning objective; procedures and requirements for satisfactory course completion, special requirements related to computer hardware, software, or other equipment, and the availability of instructor or technical support.
(3) Participants must be able to interact with qualified instructor(s), submit questions or comments at any point during the course, and not able to independently complete the course.
(4) The title of the course must clearly state that it is a distance learning course.
(P) Viatical settlement education provider required practices
Viatical settlement education providers must:
(1) Offer and present a course as approved by the superintendent. Failure to do so may result in a denial of viatical settlement broker education credit for the course.
(2) Provide the superintendent with written notice that includes both the viatical settlement education provider and course identification number at least fifteen days in advance of any change to a viatical settlement education provider or course application.
(3) No change to a course's content or outline is effective without prior written approval of the superintendent. Change to a course's content or outline may result in the issuance of a new course identification number. Failure to obtain written approval in advance of offering the course may result in a denial of viatical settlement broker education credit for the course.
(4) A viatical settlement education provider will submit the date, time, and location of each course to the superintendent at least ten days prior to the offering of the course. A viatical settlement education provider will hold approved course on the date(s) scheduled, during the specified hours and at the designated location unless cancelled in accordance with paragraphs (P)(5) and (P)(6) of this rule or unless notification of any change is given to the superintendent in accordance with paragraph (P)(2) of this rule. Viatical settlement education providers do not need to report examination schedules for courses approved as self-study.
(5) A viatical settlement education provider will refund all fees in full within forty-five days of a course's cancellation or in accordance with the refund policy conspicuously printed on the viatical settlement education provider's materials if an approved course is cancelled or if an individual cancels in advance of the date scheduled.
(6) No change to course location, date, time, content, or applicable refund policy is effective unless the viatical settlement education provider issues written notification to the department and all individuals scheduled to attend prior to the course offering. Individuals scheduled to attend a course that is later postponed or moved to a different location more than ten miles away from the original location are entitled to a full refund for any fee paid to attend that course.
(7) A viatical settlement education provider's failure to monitor course attendance, examination, or participation or provide reasonable assurance of active student participation may result in denial of viatical settlement broker education credit for that course.
(8) A viatical settlement education provider will conduct all courses in compliance with the "Equal Employment Opportunity Act," "Americans with Disabilities Act," and any other applicable federal or state laws regarding accessibility.
(9) A viatical settlement education provider will ensure that facilities are large enough to comfortably accommodate all attendees and instructors and are conducive to the education process,
(10) All applications, schedules, and rosters will be submitted by viatical settlement education providers electronically, using a system prescribed or otherwise approved by the superintendent. Each individual authorized to access the department's electronic reporting system will have a unique user name and password.
(11) Viatical settlement education providers are responsible for obtaining the following information from each licensee as part of that licensee's course registration:
(a) National producer number (NPN);
(b) First and last name as they appear on the licensee's license record with this state;
(c) Attestation from each licensee that they will complete the course themselves and without improper assistance of others; and
(d) Licensee's signature. Electronic signature is acceptable.
(12) Viatical settlement education providers will retain all records pertaining to its Ohio viatical settlement broker education activities for at least four years, including attendance and credits awarded.
(Q) Attendance rosters
(1) Each viatical settlement education provider is responsible for maintaining accurate attendance records for each course and obtaining each licensee's signature and appropriate verification of the time of arrival and departure.
(2) Viatical settlement education providers are to file an attendance roster no later than fifteen calendar days after a course's completion which identifies each licensee who completed the course, their name, national producer number (NPN), other identification number requested by the superintendent, and number of requested credits per licensee listed on the roster. If partial credit is being completed, the viatical settlement education provider will note on the attendance roster the actual number of credits to be awarded to that licensee. The participation fee submitted to the department will be equal to the number of credits approved for the course.
(3) Instructors may receive double the number of credit hours which they taught so long as the instructor is listed on the attendance roster submitted by the viatical settlement education provider along with the total number of credits that are to be completed for the instruction and payment for a participation fee equal to the number of credits completed to the instructor.
(4) The viatical settlement education provider's failure to timely file an attendance roster, or other acceptable documentation, may result in a denial of viatical settlement broker education credit for those licensees who attended the course.
(R) Viatical settlement broker education course advertising
(1) All viatical settlement broker education advertising or promotion of any kind must contain all of the following:
(a) The complete name of the viatical settlement education provider as it appears on the application for viatical settlement education provider approval;
(b) The complete title of the course as it appears on the application for course approval;
(c) The number of viatical settlement broker education credit hours for which the course is approved;
(d) Whether an exam is required in order to receive viatical settlement broker education credit; and
(e) Course difficulty level (e.g., introductory, intermediate, or advanced).
(2) A viatical settlement education provider may only represent that a course has been approved for viatical settlement broker education credit in Ohio if the superintendent has issued written approval for that course. A viatical settlement education provider may represent that an application for viatical settlement broker education course approval is pending, but if a viatical settlement education provider does so and approval is not granted, a full refund of all fees will be made. If a viatical settlement education provider represents that approval is pending, the viatical settlement education provider will also state, in substance, that the superintendent could deny course approval or approve the course for fewer credit hours than requested.
(3) No guarantee or representation that a licensee will pass a required examination may be made.
(4) If several approved courses are offered together, all advertising and promotional materials must separately identify each approved course and the respective number of viatical settlement broker education credit hours for which each course is approved.
(5) No advertising or promotional materials may contain any representation or statement, or cause or permit another to make any representation or statement which is false, deceptive, or misleading.
(6) A viatical settlement education provider's refund policy will be clearly and conspicuously disclosed in all advertising and on all printed promotional materials.
(S) Audit and records retention
(1) The superintendent may audit a viatical settlement education provider's records and courses at any time without prior notice.
(2) The instructors at an approved course may be required to provide proof of identity upon request during an audit of a course.
(T) Certificate of completion
Viatical settlement education providers are to issue a certificate of completion, including the licensee's name, national producer number (NPN), course name, course identification number, course date(s), credit activity earned date(s), credit hours completed, viatical settlement education provider name, viatical settlement education provider identification number, viatical settlement education provider signature, and any other identification number requested by the superintendent, within ten calendar days of course completion.
(U) Viatical settlement education provider violations
The following are violations of the viatical settlement broker education statutes and rules:
(1) Making any false, misleading, or deceptive statement or representation about the status of a course approval, the number of hours for which a course is approved or any other statement about a course or viatical settlement education provider. The penalty for a single violation is a civil penalty of up to five hundred dollars.
(2) The use of an unqualified instructor. The penalty for a single violation is a civil penalty of up to five hundred dollars.
(3) Failure to maintain all necessary records for the required time periods. The penalty for a single violation is a civil penalty of up to one hundred dollars.
(4) The use, submission, or filing of any document for the purpose of complying with the viatical settlement broker education statutes and rules, or in responding to any inquiry from the superintendent concerning viatical settlement broker education, when the viatical settlement education provider knows or should know that the document, or any part of it, is false or deceptive. The penalty for a single violation is a civil penalty of up to one thousand dollars.
(5) Failure to use or follow the approved course outline. The penalty for a single violation is a civil penalty of up to two hundred dollars.
(6) Failure to notify the superintendent of changes to any course, previously approved, prior to course offering. The penalty for a single violation is a civil penalty of up to one hundred dollars.
(7) Failure to conduct the approved course for the full time, as specified in the course application. The penalty for a single violation is a civil penalty of up to five hundred dollars.
(8) Failure to monitor course attendance, course participation, or completion of examination. The penalty for a single violation is a civil penalty of up to five hundred dollars.
(9) Failure to comply with applicable "Americans with Disabilities Act," and "Equal Employment Opportunity Act," or similar regulations. The penalty for a single violation is a civil penalty of up to five hundred dollars.
(10) Failure to provide timely refunds to participants when required. The penalty for a single violation is a civil penalty of up to one hundred dollars.
(11) Failure to file or the late filing of any form or other required information, other than an attendance roster. The penalty for a single violation is a civil penalty of up to one hundred dollars.
(12) Failure to timely file an attendance roster. The penalty for a single violation is a civil penalty of up to five hundred dollars.
(13) Failure to conduct a course as it was approved or maintain course integrity. The penalty for a single violation is a civil penalty of up to one hundred dollars.
(14) Obtaining the attendance or enrollment of licensees or students by actual or implied coercion. The penalty for a single violation is a civil penalty of up to five hundred dollars.
(15) Failure to timely provide a certificate of completion to an attendee or the failure to provide an attendee with an accurate certificate of completion. The penalty for a single violation is a civil penalty of up to five hundred dollars.
(16) Failure to accurately report the actual number of course hours attended for each attendee. The penalty for a single violation is a civil penalty of up to five hundred dollars.
(17) Failure to verify that a person attending a classroom course or taking a self-study course is actually the person who signed up to take the course. The penalty for a single violation is a civil penalty of up to five hundred dollars.
(18) Failure to provide a written response to the superintendent within twenty-one days after receipt of any written inquiry from the superintendent. The penalty for a single violation is a civil penalty of fifty dollars.
(19) Failure to report disciplinary action taken against the viatical settlement education provider's authority by any regulatory body which grants a license, registration, or permission to conduct business. The penalty for a single violation is revocation of the viatical settlement education provider's certification.
(20) Sharing user names and passwords when accessing department reporting application. The penalty for a single violation is revocation of the viatical settlement education provider's certification.
(21) Permitting a course instructor or licensee to take an examination for viatical settlement broker education credit for another. The penalty for a single violation is five hundred dollars. A finding that a course instructor or licensee has taken an examination under these circumstances is sufficient grounds for the superintendent to suspend, revoke, or refuse to issue any licenses as a viatical settlement broker or insurance agent to the course provider or licensee or certification as a viatical settlement education provider.
(22) The violation of any provision of Chapter 3916. of the Revised Code, this rule, or any other rule promulgated thereunder may also be grounds for termination of a viatical settlement education provider's authority to offer courses in this state.
(V) Applicant and agent education violations
The following are violations of the viatical settlement broker education statutes and rules and are sufficient grounds for the viatical settlement education provider to dismiss the attendee from the course and refuse to submit credit for all or any part of the course from which the attendee was dismissed or the superintendent to suspend, revoke, or refuse to issue any license as a viatical settlement broker or insurance agent:
(1) The use, submission, or filing of any document or record for the purpose of complying with the viatical settlement broker education statutes and rules, or in responding to any inquiry from the superintendent concerning viatical settlement broker education, when the person knows or should know that the document or record, or any part of the document or record, is fraudulent, false, or deceptive.
(2) Obtaining, accepting or using any certificate of completion or certificate of attendance from a viatical settlement education provider when the licensee has not attended the course or the number of hours identified on the certificate.
(3) Cheating or using unauthorized materials or receiving unauthorized assistance during an examination, including the use of cellular phones or other communication device at any time while an examination is in progress.
(4) Assisting another person in complying with the viatical settlement broker education requirements when the person knows or should know that the assistance is a violation of the viatical settlement broker education statutes and rules.
(5) Engaging in disruptive, threatening, or deceptive behavior during a course or examination.
(6) Failure to comply with verbal or written instructions from a viatical settlement education provider addressing the attendee's unacceptable or disruptive behavior while attending the course.
(W) Application of penalties
(1) The superintendent may suspend, revoke, refuse to renew or deny authority to any viatical settlement education provider who has committed multiple violations of this rule. This penalty may be in addition to the penalties levied pursuant to paragraphs (U) or (V) of this rule.
(2) Once a violation of this rule requiring a penalty has been found, the superintendent may, in the superintendent's discretion, suspend all or part of such penalty, upon a satisfactory showing of mitigating circumstances by the violator.
(3) A violation of this rule involving falsifying records shall be grounds for immediate termination of any authority to provide or instruct a viatical settlement program or course, or if the viatical settlement broker falsified or knew or should have known, or aided or abetted the falsification, no course work will be credited to the viatical settlement broker and the superintendent shall take immediate action to terminate the viatical settlement broker's license pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.
(4) The making of any misrepresentation, or any untrue, misleading, or deceptive statement or assertion in support of or in connection with a request for an extension is an unfair and deceptive act or practice under sections 3901.19 to 3901.26 of the Revised Code and a fraudulent viatical settlement act in the business of viatical settlements and the superintendent shall take immediate action to terminate the viatical settlement broker's license pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.
(X) Viatical settlement education provider and course - schedule of fees
(1) Every viatical settlement broker applicant or viatical settlement education provider shall pay the non-refundable fees established in this rule.
(2) Fees are due at the time of submission of the initial and renewal applications.
(3) Per-course fees, where applicable, shall be submitted with the request for course approval. Every potential viatical settlement education provider shall submit at least one course for approval with the application to be an authorized viatical settlement education provider.
(4) The viatical settlement education provider applicant shall select one of the fees listed below. The fees are the same for initial and renewal applications. If the status of the viatical settlement education provider changes during the year and a different fee is due, the new fee will be in addition to the previous payments with no credit for the prior or future payments.
(a) Flat fee viatical settlement education provider. The fee is one thousand dollars per year, which covers the application fee and the course approval fees for all courses approved during the year.
(b) Individual fee viatical settlement education provider. The fee is one hundred dollars for approval of the viatical settlement education provider application, plus forty dollars for each course approval.
(c) Limited fee viatical settlement education provider. The fee is twenty-five dollars for approval of the viatical settlement education provider application, plus twenty-five dollars for each course approved. A viatical settlement education provider electing this status is limited to offering no more than three courses of no more than three hours each, during the year.
(5) Viatical settlement broker licensee participation fee. Filing of viatical settlement broker education course roster or proof of viatical settlement broker education credit is one dollar per person/per course approved credit hour.
(Y) Miscellaneous fees
(1) Request for extension of viatical settlement broker education credit requirements within allowable viatical settlement broker education extension period is one hundred dollars.
(2) A processing charge of thirty dollars will be charged for any fee payment submitted to the superintendent by check, money order, or other instrument that is subsequently returned to the superintendent for insufficient funds, closed account, or for any other reason.
(3) The superintendent may require a certified check from any licensee or viatical settlement education provider whose check has been dishonored.
(Z) Deposit of fees
Any fee collected pursuant to this rule shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the department's operating fund pursuant to section 3901.021 of the Revised Code.
(AA) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated July 6, 2026 at 9:18 AM
History
- Effective: July 2, 2026
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-9-04 Insurance company questions on life insurance applications to identify and prevent stranger originated life insurance.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to provide guidance to life insurance companies regarding the types of questions that must be included on life insurance applications pursuant to division (B) of section 3916.05 of the Revised Code to identify and prevent stranger-originated life insurance (STOLI).
(B) Authority
This rule is adopted pursuant to sections 3901.04, 3901.041, 3916.05 and 3916.20 of the Revised Code.
(C) Applicability and scope
This rule applies to all insurers engaged in the business of insurance in this state that issue life insurance policies.
(D) Definitions
(1) "Life insurance applications" mean all applications for life insurance marketed, solicited, sold, or issued in this state except for the following:
(a) Applications for credit life insurance;
(b) Applications for life insurance policies to be owned by a qualified retirement plan;
(c) Applications for term life insurance.
(d) Applications for group insurance other than the application submitted for the master group contract;
(e) Applications used in worksite marketing and direct-response solicitations.
(f) Applications for policies with a death benefit not exceeding fifty thousand dollars;
(g) An application to replace a policy when the application is to be submitted to the same insurer that issued the existing policy or contract, so long as the replacement policy's death benefit does not exceed fifty thousand dollars;
(h) An application for reinstatement of a previously issued policy, so long as the reinstated policy's death benefit does not exceed fifty thousand dollars;
(i) An application to make changes to an in-force policy, so long as the in-force policy's death benefit does not exceed fifty thousand dollars.
(E) Questions related to the characteristics of stranger-originated life insurance policies (STOLI)
Each application for a policy of life insurance issued in this state shall include questions reasonably structured to identify and prevent policies from being purchased for the purpose of entering into a STOLI transaction as defined by division (W) of section 3916.01 of the Revised Code.
(F) Using more than one policy form and applications
(1) A company that issues more than one policy form in this state is not required to include identical questions related to the characteristics of STOLI on all of its applications for life insurance. Questions may vary based on the type of product being applied for, the amount of insurance being applied for and the likelihood that such policy is a STOLI transaction.
(2) A company may comply with this rule by use of one or more forms of an addendum to its application forms in use.
(G) Requirements for applications
(1) Unless excepted by paragraph (D)(1) of this rule, all applications for life insurance issued, delivered or used in this state must include questions related to STOLI.
(2) Insurers shall file the amended application forms with the superintendent as required by division (B) of section 3916.05 of the Revised Code within twelve months following the effective date of this rule.
(H) Penalties
Violations of this rule shall be an unfair and deceptive trade practice under sections 3901.19 to 3901.26 of the Revised Code.
(I) Severability
If any paragraph, subparagraph, term, or provision of this rule be adjudged invalid for any reason, such judgment shall not affect, impair, or invalidate any other paragraph, subparagraph, term, or provision of this rule, but the remaining paragraphs, subparagraphs, terms, and provisions shall be and continue in full force and effect.
Last updated May 11, 2026 at 10:20 AM
History
- Effective: November 5, 2010
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Chapter 3901-11 Captive Insurance Companies
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-11-01 Captive insurance company application.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to establish the information to be filed by an applicant for authority to form and license an Ohio domiciled captive insurance company pursuant to section 3964.03 of the Revised Code.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under section 3964.21 of the Revised Code.
(C) Information to be provided
In addition to the information required to be filed pursuant to division (D) of section 3964.03 of the Revised Code, an applicant for a license as a captive insurance company shall complete form INS7020 made available on the department website, and provide:
(1) A one or two page executive summary of the captive insurance company's plan of operation;
(2) A plan of operation;
(3) An investment policy adopted by the board of directors;
(4) A detailed description of the coverages, deductibles, coverage limits, proposed rates or rating plans, documentation from a qualified actuary that demonstrates the actuarial soundness of the proposed rates or rating plans, for each insurance company that offers direct insurance to its parent;
(5) The place and date of the Ohio meeting of its board of directors;
(6) The Ohio address of the captive insurance company's place of business;
(7) The Ohio residential address of the captive manager of the captive insurance company;
(8) The name and Ohio address of the captive insurance company's agent for service of process;
(9) Biographical affidavits for all captive insurance company's officers, directors and captive managers on forms provided by the superintendent of insurance, and third party verification of biographical affidavits by an approved firm; and
(10) Any other information requested by the superintendent of insurance.
(D) Changes to information filed in support of the application
Any change to the information required to be filed pursuant to division (D) of section 3964.03 of the Revised Code or this rule shall be filed with the superintendent of insurance within thirty days after the change for information purposes only.
A captive insurance company seeking to change the information required to be filed pursuant to division (G)(1) of section 3964.03 of the Revised Code must comply with the provisions of division (G)(2)(a) of section 3964.03 of the Revised Code and the captive insurance company shall submit such information for the department's prior approval. Pursuant to division (G)(2)(b) of section 3964.03 of the Revised Code, each filing under division (G)(2)(a) of section 3964.03 of the Revised Code is deemed approved thirty days after the filing is received by the superintendent of insurance, unless the filing is disapproved by the superintendent of insurance during that thirty day period.
(E) Fees for protected cell captives
At the time of paying the annual fee identified in section 3964.13 of the Revised Code, a protected cell captive shall pay an additional fee of fifty dollars for each protected cell.
(F) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated November 14, 2024 at 8:55 AM
History
- Effective: November 14, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-11-02 Additional capital and surplus required.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to establish the procedure for the superintendent of insurance to require additional capital and surplus of a captive insurance company pursuant to section 3964.05 of the Revised Code.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under section 3964.21 of the Revised Code.
(C) Basis of determination
(1) In determining whether to require a captive insurance company to increase its capital and surplus, the superintendent of insurance shall take into consideration the following:
(a) The type of risks insured by the captive insurance company;
(b) The volume of coverage being written by the captive insurance company; and
(c) The general business environment and economic conditions.
(2) In making a determination to require a captive insurance company to increase its capital and surplus, the superintendent of insurance may rely on:
(a) Reports and analyses prepared by or for the national association of insurance commissioners;
(b) Economic forecasts prepared by the federal reserve banks, the United States department of treasury, and other federal and state governmental or quasi-governmental entities;
(c) Economic and business reports prepared by private bank economists and private insurance industry rating agencies;
(d) The expert opinion of professionals, such as actuaries, certified public accountants, and economists, engaged by the superintendent of insurance to analyze the financial condition of a captive insurance company; and
(e) Any other information that the superintendent of insurance finds relevant.
(D) Notice to captive insurance company
The superintendent of insurance shall provide written notice of any determination to require an increase of the capital and surplus of a captive insurance company, including:
(1) The reason for the required increase of the capital and surplus;
(2) The amount of the increase of the capital and surplus; and
(3) The date by which the captive insurance company shall achieve the additional required capital and surplus.
(E) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated November 14, 2024 at 8:55 AM
History
- Effective: November 14, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-11-03 Auditor appointment, audited financial statements, actuarial opinion, and annual statements.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to establish the process and procedure for a captive insurance company to appoint an independent certified public accountant and file audited annual financial statements, an actuarial opinion on policy reserves, and annual statements with the superintendent of insurance pursuant to section 3964.07 of the Revised Code.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under section 3964.21 of the Revised Code.
(C) Definitions
(1) "Audited Financial Report" means the annual report defined in the items specified in paragraph (E) of this rule.
(2) "Accountant" and "Independent Certified Public Accountant" mean an independent certified public accountant or accounting firm, as defined by the general standards of the "American Institute of Certified Public Accountants," in good standing with the "American Institute of Certified Public Accountants" and in all states in which it is licensed to practice; for Canadian and British companies, it means a Canadian-chartered or British-chartered accountant.
(3) "Department" means the department of insurance.
(4) "Statutory accounting practices" has the meaning defined in the current editions of "Annual Statement Instructions" and the "Accounting Practices and Procedures Manual" published by the "National Association of Insurance Commissioners," or as otherwise prescribed by the insurance department of the captive insurance company's state of domicile.
(5) "Superintendent" means the superintendent of insurance of the state of Ohio.
(6) "Work papers" means the records kept by an independent certified public accountant of the procedures followed, the tests performed, the information obtained, and the conclusions reached pertinent to his or her audit of the financial statements of a captive insurance company. Work papers may include audit planning documentation, work programs, analyses, memoranda, letters of confirmation and representations, abstracts of company documents, and schedules of commentaries prepared or obtained by the independent certified public accountant in the course of his or her audit of the financial statements of a captive insurance company and, which supports his or her opinion thereof.
(D) Appointment
(1) No later than ninety days after receiving a certificate of authority to do the business of a captive insurance company in the state of Ohio, a captive insurance company shall report to the superintendent of insurance, in writing, the name and address of the independent certified public accountant retained to conduct the annual audit required by section 3964.07 of the Revised Code.
(2) If a captive insurance company terminated the appointment of an independent certified public accountant retained to conduct the annual audit required by section 3964.07 of the Revised Code, the captive insurance company shall:
(a) Within ten days of the termination notify the superintendent of insurance, in writing, of the fact of the termination, and provide a detailed account as to the reasons for the termination; and
(b) Within thirty days of the termination, report to the superintendent of insurance, in writing, the name and address of the new independent certified public account retained by the company.
(E) Annual audit certification
(1) All captive insurance companies shall have an annual audit by an independent certified public accountant, and shall file such audited financial reports with the superintendent of insurance on or before June first for the immediately preceding year ending December thirty-first. The annual audit report must include:
(a) A report of an independent certified public accountant;
(b) Financial statements filed pursuant to this rule shall be prepared in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles, unless the superintendent of insurance has required, approved, or accepted in writing the use of statutory accounting principles or any other comprehensive basis of accounting;
(c) The financial statements shall be audited by an independent certified public accountant in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards as determined by the American institute of certified public accountants;
(d) The report of the independent certified public accountant shall cover all years presented; and
(e) The report shall be addressed to the captive insurance company on stationary of the accountant showing the address of issuance, and shall be signed and dated.
(2) Captive insurance companies shall also file a report by the independent certified public accountant of the evaluation of internal controls.
(a) The report shall include an evaluation of the internal controls of the captive insurance company relating to the methods and procedures used in the securing of assets and the reliability of the financial records, including but not limited to such controls as the system of authorization and approval and the segregation of duties.
(b) The review shall be conducted in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards and the report filed with the superintendent of insurance.
(3) The accountant shall furnish to the captive insurance company, for inclusion in the filing of the annual audit report, a letter stating:
(a) That the accountant is independent with respect to the captive insurance company and conforms to the standards of the profession, as contained in the "Code of Professional Conduct" of the American institute of certified public accountants and the "Rules of Professional Conduct" of the accountancy board of Ohio;
(b) The general background and experience of the staff engaged in the audit, including experience in auditing captives or other insurance companies;
(c) That the accountant understands that the annual audit report and the accountant's opinions thereon will be filed in compliance with this rule with the department of insurance;
(d) That the accountant consents to the requirements in paragraph (F) of this rule and that the accountant consents and agrees to make available for review by the superintendent of insurance, the superintendent of insurance's designee, or appointed agent, the work papers prepared in the conduct of the audit and any communications related to the audit between the accountant and the captive insurance company; and
(e) That the accountant is properly licensed by an appropriate state licensing authority and the accountant is a member in good standing in the American institute of certified public accountants.
(4) Audited financial statements shall include:
(a) Balance sheet reporting assets, liabilities and equity;
(b) Statements of gain or loss from operations;
(c) Statements of changes in equity;
(d) Statements of cash flow; and
(e) Notes to financial statements shall be those required by generally accepted accounting principles, or as required by any other comprehensive basis of accounting in use by the captive insurance company and approved by the superintendent of insurance, and shall include:
(i) A reconciliation of differences, if any, between the audited financial report and the annual statement of its financial condition filed with the superintendent of insurance;
(ii) A summary of ownership and relationship of the captive insurance company and all affiliated companies insured by the captive insurance company; and
(iii) A narrative explanation of all transactions that involve three per cent or more of a captive insurance company's assets as of the previous December thirty-first, and ending balances with the captive insurance company.
(5) The audited financial statements shall be comparative, presenting the amounts as of December thirty-first of the current year and amounts as of the immediately preceding year ending December thirty-first.
(F) Every captive insurance company required to file an audited financial report pursuant to this rule shall require the accountant to make available for review by department examiners the work papers prepared in the conduct of his or her audit and any communications related to the audit between the accountant and the captive insurance company. The captive insurance company shall require that the accountant retain the work papers and communications until the department has filed a report on examination covering the period of the audit, but for no longer than seven years from the date of the audit report.
(G) Conduct of captive insurance company in connection with the preparation of required reports and documents
(1) No director, officer, or member of a captive insurance company shall, directly or indirectly:
(a) Make or cause to be made a materially false or misleading statement to an accountant in connection with any audit, review or communication required under this rule; or
(b) Omit to state, or cause another person to omit to state, any material fact necessary in order to make statements made, in light of the circumstances under which the statements were made, not misleading to an accountant in connection with any audit, review or communication required under this rule.
(2) No officer or director of a captive insurance company, or any other person acting under the direction thereof, shall directly or indirectly take any action to coerce, manipulate, mislead or fraudulently influence any accountant engaged in the performance of an audit pursuant to this rule if that person knew or should have known that the action, if successful, could result in rendering the captive insurance company's financial statements materially misleading.
(3) Actions that, "if successful, could result in rendering the captive insurance company's financial statements materially misleading" include, but are not limited to, actions taken at any time with respect to the professional engagement period to coerce, manipulate, mislead or fraudulently influence an accountant:
(a) To issue or reissue a report on a captive insurance company's financial statements that is not warranted in the circumstances due to material violations of any accounting principles prescribed by the superintendent, generally accepted auditing standards, or other professional or regulatory standards;
(b) Not to perform audit, review or other procedures required by generally accepted auditing standards or other professional standards;
(c) Not to withdraw an issued report; or
(d) Not to communicate matters to a captive insurance company's audit committee.
(H) Notwithstanding paragraphs (D), (E), (F), and (G) of this rule, special purpose financial captive insurance companies shall be subject to rule 3901-1-50 of the Administrative Code.
(I) Certification of policy reserves and other liabilities
(1) The captive insurance company's annual statement shall be filed with a statement of actuarial opinion evaluating the captive insurance company's policy reserves and other liabilities. The individual who prepares the statement of actuarial opinion shall be a member in good standing of the American academy of actuaries.
(2) Certification shall be in the form prescribed in section VM-30 of the current edition of the "Valuation Manual" published by the "National Association of Insurance Commissioners."
(J) Annual statement
In preparing the annual statement of financial condition identified in division (B) of section 3964.07 of the Revised Code:
(1) Every pure and protected cell captive insurance company shall complete and file form INS7021 made available on the department website.
(2) Every special purpose financial captive insurance company shall complete and file its annual statement using the forms and instructions of the national association of insurance commissioners for life, accident and health companies using the accounting method identified under division (C) of section 3964.07 of the Revised Code. Such filing shall be made directly to the department and may be filed electronically with an affidavit of electronic filing authenticity.
(K) Upon written application of a captive insurance company, the superintendent may grant an exemption from compliance with any provision of this rule if the superintendent finds, upon review of the application, that compliance with this rule would constitute a hardship upon the insurer.
(L) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated November 14, 2024 at 8:55 AM
History
- Effective: November 14, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-1-50
(A) Purpose
(1) The purpose of this rule is to facilitate the department's surveillance of the financial condition of insurers by requiring (a) an annual audit of financial statements reporting the financial position and results of operation of insurers by independent certified public accountants, (b) communication of internal control related matters noted in an audit, and (c) management's report of internal control over financial reporting. This rule shall apply to all insurers, except those insurers having direct premiums written of less than one million dollars and having less than one thousand policyholders nationwide at the end of any year. Those insurers will be exempt from this rule for the year they do not meet this threshold unless the superintendent makes a specific finding that compliance by the insurer is necessary for the superintendent to carry out the superintendent's statutory responsibilities. Insurers having assumed premiums to contracts and/or treaties of reinsurance of one million dollars or more will not be exempt. Insurers filing audited financial reports in another state, pursuant to such other state's requirement of audited financial reports, which are found by the superintendent to be substantially similar to the requirements herein, are exempt from this rule if:
(a) A copy of the audited financial report, communication of internal control related matters noted in audit, and the accountant's letter of qualifications, which are filed with such other states are filed with the superintendent in accordance with the filing dates specified in paragraphs (D), (K) and (L) of this rule. (Canadian insurers may submit accountants' reports as filed with the office of the superintendent of financial institutions, Canada); and
(b) A copy of any notification or report of adverse financial condition filed with such other state is filed with the superintendent within the time specified in paragraph (J) of this rule. Foreign or alien insurers required to file management's report of internal control over financial reporting in another state are exempt from filing the report in this state provided the other state has substantially similar reporting requirements and the report is filed with the superintendent of the other state within the time specified.
(2) This rule shall not prohibit, preclude or in any way limit the superintendent from ordering, conducting and performing examinations of insurers under the rules and regulations and the practice and procedures of the department.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under section 3901.041 of the Revised Code which requires the superintendent to adopt, amend, and rescind rules and make adjudications necessary to discharge the superintendent's duties and exercise the superintendent's powers under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code, subject to sections 119.01 to 119.13 of the Revised Code. This rule is issued to implement sections 3901.04, 3901.07 and 3901.77 of the Revised Code.
(C) Definitions
(1) "Audited Financial Report" means the annual report defined in the items specified in paragraph (E) of this rule.
(2) "Accountant" and "Independent Certified Public Accountant" mean an independent certified public accountant or accounting firm, as defined by the general standards of the "American Institute of Certified Public Accountants," in good standing with the "American Institute of Certified Public Accountants" and in all states in which the certified public accountant is licensed to practice; for Canadian and British companies, it means a Canadian-chartered or British-chartered accountant.
(3) An "affiliate" of, or person "affiliated" with, a specific person, is a person that directly, or indirectly through one or more intermediaries, controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with, the person specified.
(4) "Audit committee" means a committee (or equivalent body) established by the board of directors of an entity for the purpose of overseeing the accounting and financial reporting process of an insurer or group of insurers, the internal audit function of an insurer or group of insurers (if applicable), and external audits of financial statements of the insurer or group of insurers. The audit committee of any entity that controls a group of insurers may be deemed to be the audit committee for one or more of these controlled insurers solely for the purposes of this rule at the election of the controlling person. Refer to paragraph (N) of this rule for exercising this election. If an audit committee is not designated by the insurer, the insurer's entire board of directors shall constitute the audit committee.
(5) "Department" means the Ohio department of insurance.
(6) "Indemnification" means an agreement of indemnity or a release from liability where the intent or effect is to shift or limit in any manner the potential liability of the person or firm for failure to adhere to applicable auditing or professional standards, whether resulting in part from knowing of other misrepresentations made by the insurer or its representatives.
(7) "Independent board member" has the same meaning as described in paragraph (N) of this rule.
(8) "Internal audit function" means a person or persons who provide independent, objective and reasonable assurance designed to add value and improve an organization's operations and accomplish its objectives by bringing a systematic disciplined approach to evaluate and improve the effectiveness of risk management, control and governance processes.
(9) "Internal control over financial reporting" means a process effected by an entity's board of directors, management and other personnel designed to provide reasonable assurance regarding the reliability of the financial statements, i.e., those items specified in paragraphs (E)(2) to (E)(7) of this rule, and includes those policies and procedures that:
(a) Pertain to the maintenance of records that, in reasonable detail, accurately and fairly reflect the transactions and dispositions of assets;
(b) Provide reasonable assurance that transactions are recorded as necessary to permit preparation of the financial statements, i.e., these items specified in paragraphs (E)(2) to (E)(7) of this rule, and that receipts and expenditures are being made only in accordance with authorizations of management and directors; and
(c) Provide reasonable assurance regarding prevention or timely detection of unauthorized acquisition, use, or disposition of assets that could have a material effect on the financial statements, i.e., these items specified in paragraphs (E)(2) to (E)(7) of this rule.
(10) "SEC" means the United States securities and exchange commission.
(11) "Section 404" means section 404 of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 and the SEC's rules and regulations promulgated thereunder.
(12) "Section 404 Report" means management's report on "internal control over financial reporting" as defined by the SEC and the related attestation report of the independent certified public accountant as described in paragraph (C)(2) of this rule.
(13) "SOX Compliant Entity" means an entity that either is required to be compliant with, all of the following provisions of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002: (i) the preapproval requirements of section 201 (section 10A(i) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934); (ii) the audit committee independence requirements of section 301 (section 10A(m)(3) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934); and (iii) the internal control over financial reporting requirements of section 404 (item 308 of SEC regulation S-K0).
(14) "Insurer" means an entity licensed pursuant to Chapter 1739., 1751., 3907., 3909., 3911., 3925., 3929., 3931. or 3953. of the Revised Code.
(15) "Group of Insurers" means those entities included in the reporting requirements of sections 3901.32 to 3901.37 of the Revised Code, or a set of insurers as identified by management, for the purpose of assessing the effectiveness of internal controls over financial reporting.
(16) "Statutory accounting practices" has the meaning defined in the current editions of "Annual Statement Instructions" and the "Accounting Practices and Procedures Manual" published by the "National Association of Insurance Commissioners," or as otherwise prescribed by the insurance department of the insurer's state of domicile.
(17) "Superintendent" means the superintendent of the Ohio department of insurance.
(18) "Workpapers" means the records kept by an independent certified public accountant of the procedures followed, the tests performed, the information obtained, and the conclusions reached pertinent to the accountant's audit of the financial statements of an insurer. Workpapers may include audit planning documentation, work programs, analyses, memoranda, letters of confirmation and representation, abstracts of company documents, and schedules of commentaries prepared or obtained by the independent certified public accountant in the course of the accountant's audit of the financial statements of an insurer and, which support the accountant's opinion thereof.
(D) General requirements related to filing and extensions for filing of audited financial reports and audit committee appointment
All insurers shall have an annual audit by an independent certified public accountant and shall file an audited financial report as a supplement to the annual statement with the superintendent on or before June first for the immediately preceding year ended December thirty-first. Extensions of the June first filing date may be granted in writing by the superintendent for thirty day periods upon showing by the insurer and its independent certified public accountant the reasons for requesting such extension and determination by the superintendent of good cause for an extension. The request for an extension must be submitted in writing not less than ten days prior to the due date in sufficient detail to permit the superintendent to make an informed decision with respect to the requested extension.
If an extension is granted, a similar extension of thirty days is granted to the filing of management's report of internal control over financial reporting.
Every insurer required to file an annual audited financial report pursuant to this rule shall designate a group of individuals as constituting its audit committee, as defined in paragraph (C)(4) of this rule. The audit committee of any entity that controls an insurer may be deemed to be the insurer's audit committee for purposes of this rule at the election of the controlling person.
The superintendent may require an insurer to file an audited financial report earlier than June first with ninety days advance notice to the insurer.
(E) Contents of audited financial report
The audited financial report shall report the financial condition of the insurer as of the end of the most recent calendar year and the results of its operations, cash flows, and changes in capital and surplus for the year then ended in conformity with statutory accounting practices. The audited financial report shall include the following items:
(1) Report of independent certified public accountant;
(2) Balance sheet reporting admitted assets, liabilities, capital, and surplus;
(3) Statement of operations;
(4) Statement of cash flows;
(5) Statement of changes in capital and surplus;
(6) Notes to financial statements. These notes shall be those appropriate to a CPA audited financial report, based on applicability, materiality, and significance, taking into account the subjects covered in the instructions to and illustrations of how to report information in the notes to financial statements section of the "NAIC" annual statement instructions and any other notes required by the "NAIC Accounting Practices and Procedures Manual" and shall include:
(a) A reconciliation of differences, if any, between the audited statutory financial statements and the annual financial statement filed with the superintendent including a written description of the nature of these differences;
(b) A narrative explanation of all significant intercompany transactions and balances; and
(c) A summary of ownership and relationships of the insurer and all affiliated companies.
(7) The financial statements included in the audited financial report shall be prepared in a form and using language and groupings substantially the same as the relevant sections of the annual financial statement of the insurer filed with the superintendent and:
(a) The financial statements shall be comparative, presenting the amounts as of December thirty-first of the current year and amounts as of the immediately preceding year ending December thirty-first. (However, in the first year in which an insurer is required to file an audited financial report, the comparative data may be omitted); and
(b) Amounts may be rounded to the nearest thousand dollars.
(F) Designation of independent certified public accountant
(1) Each insurer required by this rule to file an audited financial report must, within sixty days after becoming subject to such requirement, register with the superintendent, in writing, the name and address of the independent certified public accountant retained to conduct the annual audit required in this rule. Insurers not previously retaining an independent certified public accountant shall register the name and address of their retained independent certified public accountant not less than six months before the date when the first audited financial report is to be filed.
(2) The insurer shall obtain a letter from such accountant, and file a copy of such letter with the superintendent, stating that the accountant is aware of the provisions of the insurance code and the rules and regulations of the insurance department of its state of domicile that relate to accounting and financial matters and affirming that the accountant will express the accountant's opinion on the financial statements of the insurer in the terms of their conformity to the statutory accounting practices prescribed or otherwise permitted by such insurance department, specifying such exceptions as the accountant may believe appropriate. If an accountant, who was not the accountant for the insurer's most recently filed audited financial report, is engaged to audit the insurer's financial statements, the insurer shall, within thirty days of the date the accountant is engaged, notify the department of this event.
(3) If an accountant who was the accountant for the immediately preceding filed audited financial report is dismissed or resigns, the insurer shall within five business days notify the department of insurance of this event. The insurer shall also furnish the superintendent with a separate letter within ten business days of the above notification stating whether in the twenty four months preceding such engagement there were any disagreements with the former accountant on any matter of accounting principles or practices, financial statement disclosure, or auditing scope or procedure, which disagreements, if not resolved to the satisfaction of the former accountant, would have caused the former accountant to make reference to the subject matter of the disagreement in connection with the former accountant's opinion. Disagreements contemplated by this paragraph are those that occur at the decision-making level, i.e., between personnel of the insurer responsible for presentation of its financial statements and personnel of the accounting firm responsible for rendering its report. The insurer shall also request, in writing, such former accountant to furnish a letter, addressed to the insurer, stating whether the accountant agrees with the statements contained in the insurer's letter and, if not, stating the reasons for which the accountant does not agree; and the insurer shall furnish such responsive letter from the former accountant to the superintendent, together with its own letter.
(G) Qualifications of independent certified public accountant
An insurer may not use any person or firm as an independent certified public accountant if such person or firm: (1) is not in good standing with the "American Institute of Certified Public Accountants" in all states in which the person or firm is licensed to practice or, for a Canadian or British company, that is not a chartered accountant; or (2) has either directly or indirectly entered into an agreement of indemnity or release from liability (collectively referred to as "indemnification") with respect to the audit of the insurer. Except as otherwise provided herein, an insurer may use a certified public accountant as its independent certified public accountant only if and for as long as such accountant conforms to the standards of the accountant's profession, as contained in the "Code of Professional Conduct" of the "American Institute of Certified Public Accountants" and "Rules of Professional Conduct" of the "Accountancy Board of Ohio," or similar code.
The lead (or coordinating) audit partner (having primary responsibility for the audit) may not act in that capacity for more than five consecutive years. The person shall be disqualified from acting in that or a similar capacity for the same company or its insurance subsidiaries or affiliates for a period of five consecutive years. An insurer may make application to the superintendent of insurance for relief from the above rotation requirement on the basis of unusual circumstances. This application should be made at least thirty days before the end of the calendar year. The superintendent may consider the following factors in determining if the relief should be granted: (a) number of partners, expertise of the partners, or the number of insurance clients in the currently registered firm; (b) premium volume of the insurer; or (c) number of jurisdictions in which the insurer transacts business. The insurers shall file, with its annual statement filing, the proof of relief from the five-year limitation with the states that it is licensed in or doing business in and with the "National Association of Insurance Commissioners." If the nondomestic state accepts electronic files with the NAIC, the insurer shall file the approval in an electronic format acceptable to the "National Association of Insurance Commissioners."
The superintendent shall not recognize as a qualified independent certified public accountant, nor accept any annual audited financial report, prepared in whole or in part by, any natural person who (1) has been convicted of fraud, bribery, a violation of the Racketeer Influenced and Corrupt Organizations Act, 18 U.S.C. sections 1961-1968, or any dishonest conduct or practices under federal or state law; (2) has been found to have violated the insurance laws of this state with respect to any previous reports submitted under this rule; or (3) has demonstrated a pattern or practice of failing to detect or disclose material information in previous reports filed under the provisions of this requirement.
The superintendent may hold a hearing to determine whether a certified public accountant is qualified and, considering the evidence presented, may rule that the accountant is not qualified for purposes of expressing his or her opinion on the financial statements in the annual audited financial report made pursuant to this requirement and require the insurer to replace the accountant with another whose relationship with the insurer is qualified within the meaning of this requirement.
(1) The superintendent shall not recognize as a qualified independent certified public accountant, nor accept an annual audited financial report, prepared in whole or in part by an accountant who provides to an insurer, contemporaneously with the audit, the following non-audit services:
(a) Bookkeeping or other services related to the accounting records or financial statements of the insurer;
(b) Financial information systems design and implementation;
(c) Appraisal or valuation services, fairness opinions, or contribution-in-kind reports;
(d) Actuarial-oriented advisory services involving the determination of amounts recorded in the financial statements. The accountant may assist an insurer in understanding the methods, assumptions, and inputs used in the determination of amounts recorded in the financial statement only if it is reasonable to conclude that the services provided will not be subject to audit procedures during an audit of the insurer's financial statements. An accountant's actuary may also issue an actuarial opinion or certification ("opinion") on an insurer's reserves if the following conditions have been met:
(i) Neither the accountant nor the accountant's actuary has performed any management functions or made any management decisions;
(ii) The insurer has competent personnel (or engages a third party actuary) to estimate the reserves for which management takes responsibility; and
(iii) The accountant's actuary tests the reasonableness of the reserves after the insurer's management has determined the amount of the reserves:
(e) Internal audit outsourcing services;
(f) Management functions or human resources;
(g) Broker or dealer, investment advisor, or investment banking services;
(h) Legal services or expert services unrelated to the audit; or
(i) Any other services that the superintendent determines, by rule, are impermissible.
(2) In general, the principles of independence with respect to services provided by the qualified independent certified public accountant are largely predicted on three basic principles, violations of which would impair the accountant's independence. The principles are that the accountant cannot function in the role of management, cannot audit his or her own work, and cannot serve in an advocacy role for the insurer.
Insurers having direct written and assumed premiums of less than one hundred million dollars in any calendar year may request an exemption from this paragraph. The insurer shall file with the superintendent a written statement discussing the reasons why the insurer should be exempt from these provisions. If the superintendent finds, upon review of this statement, that compliance with this rule would constitute a financial or organizational hardship upon the insurer, an exemption may be granted.
(3) A qualified independent certified public accountant who performs the audit may engage in other non-audit services for an insurer, including tax services, that are not described in paragraph (G)(1) of this rule or that do not conflict with paragraph (G)(2) of this rule, only if the activity is approved in advance by the audit committee for the insurer, in accordance with paragraph (G)(4) of this rule.
(4) All auditing services and non-audit services provided to an insurer by the qualified independent certified public accountant of the insurer shall be preapproved by the audit committee of the insurer. The preapproval requirement is waived with respect to non-audit services if the insurer is a "SOX" compliant entity or a direct or indirect wholly-owned subsidiary of a "SOX" compliant entity; or
(a) The aggregate amount of all such non-audit services provided to the insurer constitutes not more than five per cent of the total amount of fees paid by the insurer to its qualified independent certified public account during the fiscal year in which the non-audit services are provided;
(b) The services were not recognized by the insurer at the time of the engagement to be non-audit services; and
(c) The services are promptly brought to the attention of the audit committee and approved prior to the completion of the audit by the audit committee or by one or more members of the audit committee who are members of the board of directors to whom authority to grant such approvals has been delegated by the audit committee.
(5) The audit committee of an insurer may delegate to one or more designated members of the audit committee the authority to grant the preapprovals required by paragraph (G)(4) of this rule. The decisions of any member to whom this authority is delegated shall be presented to the full audit committee at each of its scheduled meetings.
(6) The superintendent shall not recognize an independent certified public accountant as qualified for particular insurer if a member of the board, president, chief executive officer, controller, chief financial officer, chief accounting officer, or any person serving in an equivalent position for that insurer, was employed by the independent certified public accountant and participated in the audit of that insurer during the one year period preceding the date that the most current statutory opinion is due. This section shall only apply to partners and senior managers involved in the insurer's preceding audit. An insurer may make an application to the superintendent for relief from the requirement on the basis of unusual circumstances.
(7) The insurer shall file, with its annual statement filing, the approval for relief from paragraph (G)(6) of this rule with the states that it is licensed in or doing business in and with the NAIC. If the nondomestic state accepts electronic filing with the NAIC, the insurer shall file the approval in an electronic format acceptable to the NAIC.
(H) Consolidated or combined audits
An insurer may make an annual written application to the superintendent for approval to file audited consolidated or combined financial statements in lieu of separate annual audited financial statements if the insurer is part of a group of insurance companies which uses a pooling or one hundred per cent reinsurance agreement that affects the solvency and integrity of the insurer's reserves and such insurer cedes all of its direct and assumed business to the pool. In such cases, a columnar consolidating or combining worksheet shall be filed with the report, as follows:
(1) Amounts shown on the consolidated or combined audited financial report shall be shown on the worksheet;
(2) Amounts for each insurer subject to this rule shall be stated separately;
(3) Non-insurance operations may be shown on the worksheet on a combined or individual basis;
(4) Explanations of consolidating and eliminating entries shall be included; and
(5) A reconciliation shall be included of any differences between the amounts shown in the individual insurer columns of the worksheet and comparable amounts shown on the financial statements of the insurers.
(I) Scope of audit and report of independent certified public accountant
Financial statements furnished pursuant to paragraph (E) of this rule shall be examined by an independent certified public accountant. The audit of the insurer's financial statements shall be conducted in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards. In accordance with AU section 319 of the professional standards of the accountants "American Institute of Certified Public Accountants," consideration of internal control in a financial statement audit, the independent certified public accountant should obtain an understanding of internal control sufficient to plan the audit. To the extent required by AU section 319, for those insurers required to file a management's report of internal control over financial reporting pursuant to paragraph (Q) of this rule, the independent certified public accountant should consider (as that term is defined in Statement on Auditing Standards (SAS) No. 102, defining professional requirements in statements on auditing standards or its replacement) the most recently available report in planning and performing the audit of the statutory financial statements. Consideration should be given to such other standards illustrated in the "Financial Condition Examiner's Handbook" promulgated by the "National Association of Insurance Commissioners" as the independent certified public accountant deems necessary.
(J) Notification of adverse financial condition
(1) The insurer required to furnish the annual audited financial report shall require the independent certified public accountant to report in writing within five business days to the board of directors or its audit committee any determination by the independent certified public accountant that the insurer has materially misstated its financial condition as reported to the superintendent as of the balance sheet date currently under audit or that the insurer does not meet the minimum capital and surplus requirement of the Revised Code as of that date. An insurer who has received a report pursuant to this paragraph shall forward a copy of the report to the superintendent within five business days of receipt of such report and shall provide the independent certified public accountant making the report with evidence of the report being furnished to the superintendent. If the independent certified public accountant fails to receive such evidence within the required five business day period, the independent certified public accountant shall furnish to the superintendent a copy of the certified public accountant's report within the next five business days.
(2) No independent certified public accountant shall be liable in any manner to any person for any statement made in connection with the above paragraph if such statement is made in good faith in compliance with the above paragraph.
(3) If the accountant, after the date of the audited financial report filed pursuant to this rule, becomes aware of facts which might have affected the accountant's report, the department shall note the obligation of the accountant to take such action as prescribed in volume one, section AU five hundred sixty one of the "Professional Standards of the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants," as amended.
(K) Communication of internal control related matters noted in an audit
In addition to the annual audited financial report, each insurer shall furnish the superintendent with a written communication as to any unremediated material weakness in its internal controls over financial reporting noted during the audit. Such communication shall be prepared by the accountant within sixty days after the filing of the annual audited financial report, and shall contain:
(1) A description of any unremediated material weakness (as the term material weakness is defined by statement on auditing standard sixty, communication of internal control related matters noted in an audit, or its replacement) as of December thirty-first immediately preceding (so as to coincide with the audited financial report discussed in paragraph (D) of this rule) in the insurer's internal control over financial reporting noted by the accountant during the course of the accountant's audit of the financial statements. If no unremediated material weaknesses are noted, the communication should so state.
(2) The insurer is required to provide a description of remedial action taken or proposed to correct unremediated material weaknesses, if the actions are not described in the accountant's communications.
(L) Accountant's letter of qualifications
The accountant shall furnish the insurer in connection with, and for inclusion in, the filing of the annual audited financial report, a letter stating the following:
(1) That the accountant is independent with respect to the insurer and conforms to the standards of the accountant's profession as contained in the "Code of Professional Ethics," the pronouncements of the "American Institute of Certified Public Accountants," and the "Rules of Professional Conduct" of the "Accountancy Board of Ohio," or other state board of public accountancy that performs the same licensing function.
(2) The background and experience in general, and the experience in audits of insurers of the staff assigned to the engagement and whether each is an independent certified public accountant. Nothing within this requirement shall be construed as prohibiting the accountant from using such staff as the accountant deems appropriate where such use is consistent with the standards prescribed by generally accepted auditing standards.
(3) That the accountant understands the annual audited financial report and the accountant's opinion thereon will be filed in compliance with this requirement and that the superintendent will be relying on this information in the monitoring and regulation of the financial position of insurers.
(4) That the accountant consents to the requirements of paragraph (M) of this rule and that the accountant consents and agrees to make available for review by the superintendent, the superintendent's designee or appointed agent, the workpapers, as defined in paragraph (C)(18) of this rule.
(5) A representation that the accountant is properly licensed by an appropriate state licensing authority and is a member in good standing in the "American Institute of Certified Public Accountants."
(6) A representation that the accountant is in compliance with the requirements of paragraph (G) of this rule.
(M) Availability and maintenance of independent certified public accountant workpapers
Every insurer required to file an audited financial report pursuant to this rule shall require the accountant to make available for review by department examiners the workpapers prepared in the conduct of the accountant's audit and any communications related to the audit between the accountant and the insurer, at the offices of the insurer, at the department, or at any other reasonable place designated by the superintendent. The insurer shall require that the accountant retain the workpapers and communications until the domiciliary department has filed a report on examination covering the period of the audit, but for no longer than seven years from the date of the audit report.
When domiciliary department examiners conduct periodic reviews, it shall be agreed that photocopies of pertinent audit workpapers may be made and retained by the domiciliary department. Such reviews by the domiciliary department examiners shall be considered investigations and all workpapers and communications obtained during the course of such investigations shall be afforded the same confidentiality as other examination workpapers generated by the domiciliary department.
(N) Requirements for audit committees
This section shall not apply to foreign or alien insurers licensed in this state or an insurer that is a "SOX" compliant entity or a direct or indirect wholly-owned subsidiary of a "SOX" compliant entity.
The audit committee shall be directly responsible for the appointment, compensation, and oversight of the work of any accountant (including resolution of disagreements between management and the accountant regarding financial reporting) for the purpose of preparing or issuing audited financial reports or related work pursuant to this regulation. Each accountant shall report directly to the audit committee.
The audit committee of an insurer or group of insurers shall be responsible for overseeing the insurer's internal audit function and granting the person or persons performing the function suitable authority and resources to fulfill the person's responsibilities if required by paragraph (O) of this rule.
Each member of the audit committee shall be a member of the board of directors of the insurer or a member of the board of directors of an entity elected pursuant to this paragraph and paragraph (C)(4) of this rule.
To be considered independent for purposes of this rule, a member of the audit committee may not, other than in that person's capacity as a member of the audit committee, the board of directors, or any other board committee, accept any consulting, advisory or other compensatory fee from the entity or be an affiliated person of the entity or any subsidiary thereof. However, if law requires the board participation by otherwise non-independent members, that law shall prevail and such members may participate in the audit committee and be designated as independent for audit committee purposes, unless they are an officer or employee of the insurer or one of its affiliates.
If a member of the audit committee ceases to be independent for reasons outside the member's reasonable control, that person, with notice by the responsible entity to the domiciliary state, may remain an audit committee member of the responsible entity until the earlier of the next annual meeting of the responsible entity or one year from the occurrence of the event that caused the member to no longer be independent.
To exercise the election of the controlling person to designate the audit committee for purposes of this rule, the ultimate controlling person shall provide written notice to the domiciliary commissioners of the affected insurers. Notification shall be made timely prior to the issuance of the statutory audit report and include a description of the basis for the election. The election can be changed through notice to the domiciliary commissioner by the insurer, which shall include a description of the basis for the change. The election shall remain in effect for perpetuity, until rescinded.
The audit committee shall require the accountant who performs for an insurer any audit required by this regulation to timely report to the audit committee in accordance with the requirements of "SAS" No. 61, "Communication with Audit Committees," or its replacement, including: all significant accounting policies and material permitted practices; all material alternative treatments of financial information within statutory accounting principles that have been discussed with management officials of the insurer, ramifications of the use of the alternative disclosures and treatments, and the treatment preferred by the accountant; and other material written communications between the accountant and the management of the insurer, such as any management letter or schedule of unadjusted differences.
If an insurer is a member of an insurance holding company system, the reports required above may be provided to the audit committee on an aggregate basis for insurers in the holding company system, provided that any substantial differences among insurers in the system are identified to the audit committee.
The portion of independent audit committee members shall meet or exceed the following criteria:
Prior Calendar Year Direct Written and Assumed Premiums
| $0- $300,000,000 | $300,000,000- $500,000,000 | Over $500,000,000 | | --- | --- | --- | | No minimum requirements. See also note A and B. | Majority (50% or more) of members shall be independent. See also note A and B. | Supermajority of members (75% or more) shall be independent. See also Note A and B. |
Note A: The superintendent has authority afforded by state law to require the entity's board to enact improvements to the independence of the audit committee membership if the insurer is in a "RBC" action level event, meets one or more of the standards of an insurer deemed to be in hazardous financial condition, or otherwise exhibits qualities of a troubled insurer.
Note B: All insurers with less than five hundred million dollars in prior year direct written and assumed premiums are encouraged to structure their audit committees with at least a supermajority of independent audit committee members.
Note C: Prior calendar year direct written and assumed premiums shall be the combined total of direct premiums and assumed premiums from non-affiliates for the reporting entities.
An insurer with direct written and assumed premium, excluding premiums reinsured with the federal crop insurance corporation and federal flood program, less than five hundred million dollars may make application to the superintendent for a waiver from these requirements based upon hardship. The insurer shall file, with its annual statement filing, the approval for relief from paragraph (N) of this rule with the states that it is licensed in or doing business in and the NAIC. If the non-domestic state accepts electronic filing with the NAIC, the insurer shall file the approval in an electronic format acceptable to the NAIC.
(O) Internal audit function requirements
(1) An insurer is exempt from the requirements of paragraph (O) of this rule if:
(a) The insurer has annual direct written and unaffiliated assumed premium, including international direct and assumed premium but excluding premiums reinsured with the "Federal Crop Insurance Corporation" and "National Flood Insurance Program," less than five hundred million dollars; and
(b) If the insurer is a member of a group of insurers that has an annual direct written and unaffiliated assumed premium including international direct and assumed premium, but excluding premiums reinsured with the "Federal Crop Insurance Corporation" and "National Flood Insurance Program," less than one billion dollars.
(2) The insurer or group of insurers shall establish an internal audit function providing independent, objective and reasonable assurance to the audit committee and insurer management regarding the insurer's governance, risk management and internal controls. This assurance shall be provided by performing general and specific audits, reviews and tests and by employing other techniques deemed necessary to protect assets, evaluate control effectiveness and efficiency, and evaluate compliance with policies and regulations.
(3) To ensure that internal auditors remain objective, the internal audit function must be organizationally independent. Specifically, the internal audit function will not defer ultimate judgment on audit matters to others, and shall appoint an individual to head the internal audit function who will have direct and unrestricted access to the board of directors. Organizational independence does not preclude dual-reporting relationships.
(4) The head of internal audit function shall report to the audit committee regularly, but no less than annually, on the periodic audit plan, factors that may adversely impact the internal audit function's independence or effectiveness, material findings from completed audits and the appropriateness of corrective actions implemented by management as a result of audit findings.
(5) If an insurer is a member of an insurance holding company system or included in a group of insurers, the insurer may satisfy the internal audit function requirements set forth in paragraph (O) of this rule at the ultimate controlling parent level, an intermediate holding company level or the individual legal entity level.
(P) Conduct of insurer in connection with the preparation of required reports and documents
No director or officer of an insurer shall, directly or indirectly:
(1) Make or cause to be made a materially false or misleading statement to an accountant in connection with any audit, review or communication required under this rule; or
(2) Omit to state or cause another person to omit to state, any material fact necessary to make a statement made, in light of the circumstances under which the statement was made, not misleading to an accountant in connection with any audit, review, or communication required under this rule.
No officer or director of an insurer, or any other person acting under the direction thereof, shall directly or indirectly take any action to coerce, manipulate, mislead or fraudulently influence any accountant engaged in the performance of an audit pursuant to this rule if that person knew or should have known that the action, if successful, could result in rendering the insurer's financial statements materially misleading.
Actions that, "if successful, could result in rendering the insurer's financial statements materially misleading" include, but are not limited to, actions taken at any time with respect to the professional engagement period to coerce, manipulate, mislead or fraudulently influence an accountant:
(a) To issue or reissue a report on an insurer's financial statements that is not warranted in the circumstances (due to material violations of statutory accounting principles prescribed by the commissioner, generally accepted auditing standards, or other professional or regulatory standards):
(b) Not to perform audit, review or other procedures required by generally accepted auditing standards or other professional standards;
(c) Not to withdraw an issued report; or
(d) Not to communicate matters to an insurer's audit committee.
(Q) Management's report of internal control over financial reporting
Every insurer required to file an audited financial report pursuant to this rule that has annual direct written and assumed premiums, excluding premiums reinsured with the "Federal Crop Insurance Corporation" and "National Flood Insurance Program," of five hundred million dollars or more shall prepare a report of the insurer's or group of insurer's internal control over financial reporting as these terms are defined in paragraph (C) of this rule. The report shall be filed with the superintendent along with the communication of internal control related matters noted in an audit described in paragraph (K) of this rule. Management's report of internal control over financial reporting shall be as of December thirty-first immediately preceding.
Notwithstanding the premium threshold, as stated above, the superintendent may require an insurer to file management's report of internal control over financial reporting if the insurer is in any "RBC" level event, or meets any one or more of the standards of an insurer deemed to be in hazardous financial condition as defined in sections 3903.09 and 3903.71 of the Revised Code and rule 3901-3-04 of the Administrative Code.
An insurer or a group of insurers that is,
(1) Directly subject to "Section 404";
(2) Part of a holding company system whose parent is directly subject to "Section 404";
(3) Not directly subject to "Section 404" but is a "SOX" compliant entity; or
(4) A member of a holding company system whose parent is not directly subject to "Section 404" but is a "SOX" compliant entity, may file its or its parents' "Section 404" report on internal control and an addendum in satisfaction of this paragraph's requirement provided that those internal controls of the insurer or group of insurers having a material impact on the preparation of the insurer or group of insurers' its audited statutory financial statements were included in the scope of the "Section 404" reports. The addendum shall be a positive statement by management that there are no material processes with respect to the preparation of the insurer's or group of insurers' audited statutory financial statements excluded from the "Section 404" report. If there are internal controls of the insurer or group of insurers that have a material impact on the preparation of the insurer's or group of insurers' audited statutory financial statements and those internal controls were not included in the scope of the "Section 404" report, the insurer or group of insurers may either file (a) a report as required by paragraph (Q) of this rule, or (b) the "Section 404" report and a report as required by paragraph (Q) of this rule for those internal controls that have a material impact on the insurer's or group of insurers' audited statutory financial statements not covered by the "Section 404" report.
Management's report of internal control over financial reporting shall include:
(a) A statement that management is responsible for establishing and maintaining adequate control over financial reporting;
(b) A statement that management has established internal control over financial reporting and an assertion to the best of management's knowledge and belief, after diligent inquiry, as to whether its internal control over financial reporting is effective to provide reasonable assurance regarding the reliability of financial statements in accordance with statutory accounting principles;
(c) A statement that briefly describes the approach or process by which management evaluated the effectiveness of its internal control over financial reporting;
(d) A statement that briefly describes the scope of work that is included and whether any internal controls were excluded;
(e) Disclosure of any unremediated material weaknesses in internal control over financial reporting identified by management as of December thirty-first immediately preceding. Management is not permitted to conclude that the internal control over financial reporting is effective to provide reasonable assurance regarding the reliability of financial statements in accordance with statutory accounting principles if there is one or more unremediated material weakness in its internal controls over financial reporting;
(f) A statement regarding the inherent limitations of internal control systems; and
(g) Signatures of the chief executive officer and the chief financial officer (or equivalent position/title).
Management shall document and make available upon financial condition examination the basis upon which its assertions, required in above, are made. Management may base its assertions, in part, upon its review, monitoring and testing of internal controls undertaken in the normal course of its activities.
(i) Management shall have discretion as to the nature of the internal control framework used, and the nature and extent of documentation, to make its assertion in a cost-effective manner, as such, may include assembly of or reference to existing documentation.
(ii) Management's report on internal control over financial reporting, required above, and any documentation provided in support thereof during the course of a financial condition examination, shall be kept confidential by the superintendent.
(R) Exemptions and effective dates
(1) Upon written application of any insurer, the superintendent may grant an exemption from compliance with any and all provisions this rule if the superintendent finds, upon review of the application, that compliance with this rule would constitute a financial or organizational hardship upon the insurer. An exemption may be granted at any time and from time to time for any specified period.
(2) Foreign insurers shall comply with this rule for the year ending December 31, 2009, and each year thereafter, unless the superintendent gives his or her written permission otherwise.
(3) An insurer or group of insurers that is not required to have independent audit committee members or only a majority of independent audit committee members (as opposed to a supermajority) because the total written and assumed premium is below the threshold and subsequently becomes subject to one of the independence requirements due to changes in premium shall have one year following the year threshold is exceeded to comply with the independence requirements. Likewise, an insurer that becomes subject to one of the independence requirements as a result of a business combination shall have one calendar year following the date of acquisition or combination to comply with the independence requirements.
(4) If an insurer or group of insurers that is exempt from paragraph (O) of this rule requirements no longer qualifies for the exemption, it shall have one year after the threshold is exceeded to comply with the requirements of paragraph (O) of this rule.
(5) An insurer or group of insurers that is not required to file a report because the total written premium is below the threshold and subsequently becomes subject to the reporting requirements shall have two years following the year the threshold is exceeded to file a report. Likewise, an insurer acquired in a business combination shall have two calendar years following the date of acquisition or combination to comply with the reporting requirements.
(S) Canadian and British companies
In the case of Canadian and British insurers, the audited financial report shall be defined as the annual statement of total business on the form filed by such companies with their domiciliary supervision authority duly audited by an independent chartered accountant. For such insurers, the letter required in paragraph (F)(2) of this rule shall state that the accountant is aware of the requirements relating to the audited financial report filed with the superintendent pursuant to paragraph (Q) of this rule and shall affirm that the opinion expressed is in conformity with such requirements.
(T) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated March 2, 2026 at 8:33 AM
History
- Effective: February 28, 2026
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-11-04 Notification of materially misstated financial condition.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to establish the notice requirements of the captive insurance company's independent certified public accountant in the event of the determination that the captive insurance company materially misstated its financial condition in its report to the superintendent of insurance pursuant to section 3964.07 of the Revised Code.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under section 3964.21 of the Revised Code.
(C) Notification of adverse financial condition
A captive insurance company shall require the independent certified public accountant retained by the captive insurance company to prepare the audited financial report to be filed with the superintendent of insurance to immediately notify in writing an officer and all members of the board of directors of the captive insurance company of any determination by the independent certified public accountant that the captive insurance company has materially misstated its financial condition in its report to the superintendent of insurance as identified in section 3964.07 of the Revised Code or that, since its last financial report the captive has experienced results which lead the certified public accountant to the determination that the captive is in adverse financial condition. The independent certified public accountant shall furnish a copy of such notification to the superintendent of insurance within five business days of notifying the captive insurance company.
(D) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated November 14, 2024 at 8:55 AM
History
- Effective: November 14, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-11-05 Special purpose financial captive alternative reserve methodologies.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to amplify section 3964.03 of the Revised Code and establish acceptable information to be submitted to the superintendent when a special purpose financial captive requests to use an alternative reserve methodology pursuant to division (E)(2) of section 3964.03 of the Revised Code.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under section 3901.041 of the Revised Code and division (E)(2) of section 3964.03 of the Revised Code.
(C) Scope
This rule applies to all requests made pursuant to division (E)(2) of section 3964.03 of the Revised Code, by a special purpose financial captive to use a reserve basis other than that found in "Statements on Statutory Accounting Principles" as set out in the "National Association of Insurance Commissioner's" (NAIC) "Accounting Practices and Procedures Manual."
(D) Life insurance policy and annuity contract reserves
For its reserve basis on risks reinsured through the special purpose financial captive, an Ohio domiciled special purpose financial captive is required to hold reserves either based upon the "Statements on Statutory Accounting Principles" as set out in the NAIC "Accounting Practices and Procedures Manual" or an alternative principle-based valuation method acceptable to the superintendent. A request to use an alternative principle-based valuation method shall be accompanied by an unqualified written actuarial opinion that is signed by the appointed actuary for the special purpose financial captive insurance company and the ceding insurer.
(E) Alternative principle-based valuation method
(1) An alternative methodology shall be a principle-based valuation method that uses one or more methods or one or more assumptions proposed by the special purpose financial captive insurance company and shall be in compliance with the following:
(a) Address all material risks:
(i) Associated with the contracts being valued, and their supporting assets; and
(ii) Determined capable of materially affecting the valuation of its obligations with respect to the risks assumed.
Examples of risks to be included in the principle-based valuation method include but are not limited to risks associated with policyholder behavior (such as lapse and utilization risk), mortality risk, interest rate risk, asset default risk, separate account fund performance, and the risk related to the performance of indices for contractual guarantees.
(b) Be consistent with current actuarial standards of practice;
(c) Consider the risk factors, risk analysis methods, and models that are incorporated in the company's overall risk assessment process. The overall risk assessment process may include but is not limited to the following analysis processes: asset adequacy testing, GAAP analysis, internal capital evaluation process and internal risk management and solvency assessments; and
(d) Incorporate appropriate margins for uncertainty and/or adverse deviation for any assumptions not stochastically modeled.
(2) The special purpose financial captive shall provide any information the superintendent may request to assess the proposed alternative methodology for approval or disapproval.
(3) If such an alternative methodology is approved by the superintendent, then the captive is required to use such alternative methodology until, and unless, the superintendent approves an alternative method.
(F) Independent qualified actuary
Upon the superintendent's request, the special purpose financial captive requesting an alternative reserve methodology, shall secure the affirmation of an independent qualified actuary that the alternative methodology is compliant with paragraph (E) of this rule. The independent qualified actuary shall be approved by the department and provide a written actuarial opinion detailing their affirmation and a report supporting that opinion to the superintendent. The report supporting the opinion shall comply with the provisions of division (E)(3) of section 3964.03 of the Revised Code.
(G) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated November 14, 2024 at 8:55 AM
History
- Effective: November 14, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3901-11-06 Capital and surplus requirements for life insurance companies ceding to a special purpose financial captive insurance company and for special purpose financial captive insurance companies.
(A) Purpose
The purpose of this rule is to establish the information required by the superintendent in setting an acceptable total capital and surplus requirement for insurers that cede risks and obligations to a special purpose financial captive insurance company pursuant to division (E)(6) of section 3964.03 of the Revised Code and for special purpose financial captive insurance companies pursuant to division (G)(2) of section 3964.07 of the Revised Code.
(B) Authority
This rule is promulgated pursuant to the authority vested in the superintendent under sections 3901.041 and 3964.21 of the Revised Code.
(C) Definitions
(1) "Insurer" means a domestic legal reserve life insurance company organized pursuant to Chapter 3907. of the Revised Code.
(2) "Qualified Actuary" means an individual who is both of the following:
(a) A member of the American academy of actuaries; and
(b) Qualified to provide such certifications as described in the United States qualifications standards promulgated by the American academy of actuaries pursuant to the code of professional conduct adopted by the American academy of actuaries, the society of actuaries, the American society of pension professionals and actuaries, the casualty actuarial society and the conference of consulting actuaries.
(3) "Special Purpose Financial Captive Insurance Company" means a captive insurance company organized pursuant to sections 3964.19 to 3964.194 of the Revised Code.
(D) Methodology
(1) In determining the capital and surplus requirement for an insurer that will cede risks and obligations to a special purpose financial captive insurance company, and the capital and surplus of a special purpose financial captive insurance company, the superintendent is by statute required to employ a methodology that:
(a) Is consistent with current risk-based capital principles; and
(b) Takes into account all material risks and obligations, as well as the assets of the insurer or special purpose financial captive insurance company, as appropriate.
(2) Pursuant to division (E)(6) of section 3964.03 of the Revised Code an insurer that cedes risks and obligations to a special purpose financial captive insurance company shall provide the superintendent a proposed capital and surplus requirement that is supported by:
(a) An actuarial report prepared by a qualified actuary. The qualified actuary shall perform a risk evaluation for purposes of enterprise risk management and provide the superintendent an actuarial report documenting that evaluation. The risk evaluation shall conform to all applicable actuarial standards of practice including those specifically addressing risk evaluation and risk treatment in enterprise risk management; and
(b) Any other information the superintendent deems necessary.
(3) Pursuant to division (G) of section 3964.07 of the Revised Code an applicant for authority to be licensed as a special purpose financial captive insurance company shall provide the superintendent a proposed capital and surplus requirement that is supported by:
(a) An actuarial report prepared by a qualified actuary. The qualified actuary shall perform a risk evaluation for purposes of enterprise risk management of the risks and obligations specific to the special purpose financial captive insurance company and provide the superintendent an actuarial report documenting that evaluation. The risk evaluation shall conform to all applicable actuarial standards of practice including those specifically addressing risk evaluation and risk treatment in enterprise risk management; and
(b) Any other information the superintendent deems necessary.
(E) Severability
If any portion of this rule or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the rule or related rules which can be given effect without the invalid portion or application, and to this end the provisions of this rule are severable.
Last updated November 14, 2024 at 8:55 AM
History
- Effective: November 14, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Continue your research in ChatGPT or Claude
Connect Omnilex to search the legal corpus from your AI assistant.