agency-144•Minnesota Rules — Health Department
Chapter 4600 VITAL STATISTICS
Minn. R. 4600.0100 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.0200 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.0300 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.0400 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.0500 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.0600 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.0700 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.0800 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.0900 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.1000 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.1100 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.1200 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.1300 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.1400 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.1500 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.1600 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.1700 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.1800 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.1900 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.2000 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.2100 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.2200 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.2300 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.2400 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.2500 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.2600 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.2700 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.2800 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.2900 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.3000 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.3100 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.3200 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.3300 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.3400 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.3500 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.3600 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.3700 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.3800 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.3900 [Repealed, L 1997 c 205 s 40]
[Repealed, L 1997 c 205 s 40]
Minn. R. 4600.4000 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.4100 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.4200 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.4300 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.4400 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.4500 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.4600 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.4700 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.4800 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.4900 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.5000 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.5100 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.5200 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.5300 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.5400 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.5500 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.5600 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.5700 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.5800 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.5900 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.6000 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.6100 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.6200 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.6300 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.6400 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.6500 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.6600 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4600.6700 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Chapter 4601 VITAL RECORDS
Minn. R. 4601.0100 Definitions
Subpart 1. Scope.
For purposes of parts 4601.0100 to 4601.2600, the terms used have the meanings given them in this part.
Subp. 2. Amendment.
"Amendment" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.212, subdivision 1a.
Subp. 3. Certified birth record.
"Certified birth record" means the portion of a registered birth record, certified by a registrar, printed in a standardized format according to parts 4601.2500 and 4601.2525 and Minnesota Statutes, section 144.225, subdivision 8, and subject to tangible interest requirements under part 4601.2600 and Minnesota Statutes, section 144.225, subdivision 7.
Subp. 4. Certified death record.
"Certified death record" means the portion of a registered death record, certified by a registrar, printed in a standardized format according to parts 4601.2500 and 4601.2550 and Minnesota Statutes, section 144.225, subdivision 8, and subject to tangible interest requirements under part 4601.2600 and Minnesota Statutes, section 144.225, subdivision 7.
Subp. 5. Civil registration information.
"Civil registration information" means the portion of a birth record describing the registrant and the date and place of birth. Civil registration information includes fact of birth and demographic information. Civil registration information does not include health information as defined under subpart 14.
Subp. 6. Date.
"Date" means month, day, and year.
Subp. 7. Date filed.
"Date filed" means the date a vital record is presented for registration.
Subp. 8. Delayed registration.
"Delayed registration" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.212, subdivision 2a.
Subp. 9. Demographic information.
"Demographic information" means information required by the state registrar to describe characteristics of a registrant, the family of a registrant, and geographic locations pertinent to a registrant and a birth or death. Demographic information does not include health information as defined under subpart 14.
Subp. 10. Fact of birth information.
"Fact of birth information" means information required by the state registrar to record the time and place a birth occurs and to identify the person born. Fact of birth information does not include health information as defined under subpart 14.
Subp. 11. Fact of death information.
"Fact of death information" means information required by the state registrar to record the time and place a death occurs and to identify the person who is deceased. Fact of death information does not include cause and manner of death information.
Subp. 12. Fetal death.
"Fetal death" means death of a product of human conception before the complete expulsion or extraction from its mother, irrespective of the duration of pregnancy, that is not an induced termination of pregnancy. The death is indicated by the fact that after expulsion or extraction, the fetus does not breathe or show any other evidence of life, including beating of the heart, pulsation of the umbilical cord, or definite movement of the voluntary muscles. Heartbeats are to be distinguished from transient cardiac contractions. Respirations are to be distinguished from fleeting respiratory efforts or gasps.
Subp. 13. Funeral establishment.
"Funeral establishment" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 149A.02, subdivision 20.
Subp. 14. Health information.
"Health information" means medical or statistical information from which an identification of risk for disease, disability, or developmental delay in a mother or child can be made.
Subp. 15. Induced termination of pregnancy.
"Induced termination of pregnancy" means the purposeful interruption of an intrauterine pregnancy, with the intention other than to produce a live-born infant. This definition excludes management of prolonged retention of products of conception following fetal death.
Subp. 16. Institution.
"Institution" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.215, subdivision 5.
Subp. 17. Live birth.
"Live birth" means the complete expulsion or extraction of a product of human conception from its mother, irrespective of the duration of pregnancy, that, after expulsion or extraction, breathes, or shows any other evidence of life, including beating of the heart, pulsation of the umbilical cord, or definite movement of voluntary muscles, whether or not the umbilical cord has been cut or the placenta is attached. Heartbeats are to be distinguished from transient cardiac contractions. Respirations are to be distinguished from fleeting respiratory efforts or gasps.
Subp. 18. Notarized statement.
"Notarized statement" means a statement attested by a notary public who has fulfilled the requirements of Minnesota Statutes, sections 358.41 to 358.50 and chapter 359.
Subp. 19. Physician.
"Physician" means a person with a valid license in good standing under Minnesota Statutes, chapter 147, to practice medicine as defined under Minnesota Statutes, section 147.081, subdivision 3, or a person currently licensed in good standing to practice medicine under the laws of the person's resident state or the state where the person is actively practicing medicine.
Subp. 20. Register.
"Register" means the acceptance of a birth or a death record by a registrar as the official record of the birth or death.
Subp. 21. Registrant.
"Registrant" means the subject of a birth or death record.
Subp. 22. Registrar.
"Registrar" means a local registrar as defined under Minnesota Statutes, section 144.212, subdivision 10, or the state registrar as defined under Minnesota Statutes, section 144.212, subdivision 6.
Subp. 23. Subregistrar.
"Subregistrar" means a licensed mortician who is authorized to issue a disposition permit or a transit permit as required by Minnesota Statutes, section 149A.93.
Subp. 24. System of vital records.
"System of vital records" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.212, subdivision 7.
Subp. 25. Vital record.
"Vital record" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.212, subdivision 8.
Subp. 26. Vital records statistics.
"Vital records statistics" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.212, subdivision 9.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12; 144.213; 144.215; 144.221
- History: 25 SR 487; L 2001 1Sp9 art 15 s 32; L 2015 c 21 art 1 s 109
Minn. R. 4601.0200 Duties of State Registrar
According to parts 4601.0100 to 4601.2600 and the Vital Records Act, Minnesota Statutes, sections 144.211 to 144.227, the state registrar must:
A. administer and enforce parts 4601.0100 to 4601.2600 and the Vital Records Act and issue instructions for the efficient administration of the system of vital records;
B. work in partnership with local registrars to maintain a system of vital records;
C. be the custodian of records of the system of vital records, including establishing a retention schedule for all information maintained in the system of vital records;
D. establish operating procedures for the system of vital records;
E. conduct training programs to promote uniformity of policy and procedures throughout the state in matters pertaining to the system of vital records;
F. develop and make available electronic and paper input and output forms for the submission, processing, and issuance of birth and death records;
G. establish a centralized electronic system for the processing of birth and death records, including reports of fetal deaths;
H. approve and order security paper for statewide use to print certified birth or death records according to part 4601.2500 and Minnesota Statutes, section 144.225, subdivision 8;
I. develop and implement procedures for local registrars to order the security paper described in item H;
J. obtain legal interpretations from the Office of the Attorney General when needed for issues related to processing birth, death, and fetal death records and receiving marriage and divorce data according to Minnesota Statutes, sections 144.223 and 144.224, and relay legal interpretations to local registrars; and
K. delegate duties and responsibilities to local registrars to ensure the efficient and secure operation of the system of vital records.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12; 144.213; 144.215; 144.221
- History: 25 SR 487; L 2001 1Sp9 art 15 s 32; L 2015 c 21 art 1 s 109
Minn. R. 4601.0300 Duties of Local Registrars
According to parts 4601.0100 to 4601.2600 and the Vital Records Act, Minnesota Statutes, sections 144.211 to 144.227, a local registrar must:
A. work in partnership with the state registrar to maintain a system of vital records;
B. attend training conducted by the state registrar at least once per year;
C. actively support and promote uniformity of policy and procedures throughout the state in matters pertaining to the system of vital records;
D. use and actively support the use of the centralized electronic system of the state registrar for all vital records processing, including:
E. be in compliance with the requirements of parts 4601.0100 to 4601.2600; the Vital Records Act; the Minnesota Government Data Practices Act, Minnesota Statutes, chapter 13; and other state or federal laws or regulations that apply to the system of vital records;
F. refuse to accept a birth or death electronic or paper input form if the form is incomplete, inaccurate, illegible, or mutilated. The registrar must clearly communicate to the person filing the birth or death record why the electronic or paper input form is not acceptable and must provide the person with refiling instructions;
G. process birth, death, and fetal death records, including entering the data into the electronic system of the state registrar;
H. maintain paper birth and death records that are not part of the electronic system of the state registrar according to the retention schedule established by the state registrar;
I. issue certified birth and death records;
J. issue noncertified copies of birth and death records and provide other services related to vital records;
K. order security paper approved by the state registrar to print certified birth and death records;
L. amend and replace birth records and amend death records as instructed by the state registrar;
M. act as an agent of the state registrar and provide assistance to funeral directors, hospitals, physicians and other health care providers, and other individuals in matters related to the system of vital records;
N. refer matters related to the system of vital records according to parts 4601.0100 to 4601.2600 and as instructed by the state registrar;
O. comply with the procedures established by the state registrar; and
P. perform other duties as instructed by the state registrar.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12; 144.213; 144.215; 144.221
- History: 25 SR 487; L 2001 1Sp9 art 15 s 32; L 2015 c 21 art 1 s 109
Minn. R. 4601.0400 Fees
Subpart 1. Statutory fees.
Fees for the following services related to vital records are in the amounts prescribed under Minnesota Statutes, section 144.226:
A. for issuing a copy, verification, or certification of a vital record, including a certification that a record cannot be found;
B. for replacing a birth record;
C. for filing a delayed registration;
D. for amending a vital record; and
E. for copying a document pertaining to a vital record.
Subp. 2. Multiple copies.
If a person requests multiple copies of a record or certified birth or death record in the same transaction, the fee for each additional copy of an identical record or certified birth or death record is $2, plus any applicable surcharges under Minnesota Statutes, section 144.226.
Subp. 3. Replacing a birth record; adoption.
The fee for replacing a birth record following adoption is $20.
Subp. 4. Expedited fee.
For a service that is not requested in person, a registrar may charge a fee of $20 to expedite the completion of a service related to a vital record if the requester wants the service completed faster than the service would be completed during the ordinary course of business. If a person is requesting multiple services related to the same record, the expedited fee is $20 for that record. If the person is requesting a service for multiple records, the expedited fee is multiplied by the number of records. A registrar must not expedite a service and must not accept or must refund an expedited fee if the applicable requirements of parts 4601.0100 to 4601.2600 are not met by the requester at the time of the request.
Subp. 5. Reports of vital record data.
A registrar must charge a fee of $15 for a report that displays public birth or death data if the generation of that report is an automated feature of the electronic system of the state registrar. Data included in a report under this subpart are limited to one type of record, a time span of no greater than one year, and one county. Upon request, a registrar must provide a list of reports available.
Subp. 6. Fees waived.
A. When a fee for an amendment is charged according to Minnesota Statutes, section 144.226, and a certified birth or death record is issued in the same transaction, a registrar must waive the fee for the certified birth or death record if the person requesting the amendment and the certified birth or death record surrenders a previously issued record that is in error. Surcharges under Minnesota Statutes, section 144.226, apply.
B. A registrar must waive the fee for a report described in subpart 5 if:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12; 144.213; 144.215; 144.221
- History: 25 SR 487; L 2001 1Sp9 art 15 s 32
Minn. R. 4601.0500 No Further Documentation Required
The state or local registrar is not required to obtain further documentation to verify the contents of a birth or death record, except as provided under parts 4601.0100 to 4601.2600.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12; 144.213; 144.215; 144.221
- History: 25 SR 487
Minn. R. 4601.0600 Filing Documentation of Birth Within First Year of Birth
Subpart 1. Births occurring in institution.
According to Minnesota Statutes, section 144.215, subdivision 5, the person in charge of an institution or that person's authorized designee must collect the required birth information, verify the accuracy of the information, and file documentation of birth with a registrar according to parts 4601.0100 to 4601.2600 for each birth that occurs in the institution and for each birth that occurs en route to the institution.
Subp. 2. Births occurring outside institution.
According to Minnesota Statutes, section 144.215, subdivision 6, when a birth occurs outside of an institution, one of the following persons, in the indicated order of preference, must collect the required birth information, verify the accuracy of the information, and file documentation of birth with a registrar according to subpart 6:
A. the physician or certified nurse midwife present at the time of the birth or immediately thereafter;
B. in the absence of a physician or certified nurse midwife, a person present at the time of the birth or immediately thereafter;
C. the father or mother of the child; or
D. in the absence or inability of the father or the mother, the person with primary responsibility for the premises where the child was born.
Subp. 3. Infants of unknown parentage.
According to Minnesota Statutes, section 144.216, subdivision 1, whoever finds a live born infant of unknown parentage must file documentation of the birth with a registrar according to parts 4601.0100 to 4601.2600. Whoever assumes custody of a live born infant of unknown parentage must contact the state registrar and provide any information required that was not provided by the person who found the infant.
Subp. 4. Birth information required.
The person filing the documentation of birth must include the following birth information in items A to C:
A. For a birth filed under subpart 1 or 2 or part 4601.0900, fact of birth, demographic, and health information associated with the birth as prescribed on an input birth record form supplied by the state registrar. A registrar may waive a birth information requirement if the person filing the documentation of birth can demonstrate that:
B. If birth information requirements are waived according to item A, at least the following information must be provided:
C. For infants of unknown parentage, the persons identified in subpart 3 must provide as much fact of birth information as possible. A registrar must register a birth record according to the following:
Subp. 5. Recognition of parentage.
If the mother and father of a child are not married at the time of birth and there is no presumption of paternity according to Minnesota Statutes, section 257.55, the father's name must not be entered on the birth record unless, at the time of filing, a recognition of parentage prepared according to Minnesota Statutes, section 257.75, accompanies the filing of birth documentation.
Subp. 6. Additional evidence required.
To file documentation of birth with a registrar for a birth occurring outside an institution according to subpart 2:
A. The person filing documentation of birth must include the information required in subpart 4 and must present evidence that:
B. The registrar must determine if the evidence presented verifies the facts listed in item A. A document listed in subitems (1) to (3), if it meets the requirements of part 4601.1100, subpart 1, may be submitted:
C. If a registrar determines that the documentation of birth meets the requirements of this part, the registrar must register the birth.
D. If a local registrar determines that the documentation of birth does not meet the requirements of this part, the local registrar must notify the person who presented the information of the reasons the information or evidence presented does not meet the requirements of this part. The local registrar must notify the person of the option to file the documentation of birth with the state registrar.
E. If the state registrar determines that the documentation of birth presented does not meet the requirements of this part, the state registrar must notify the person who presented the information of the reasons the information or evidence presented does not meet the requirements of this part and must notify the person of the right to petition a court to establish the record according to Minnesota Statutes, section 144.215, subdivision 7.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12; 144.213; 144.215
- History: 25 SR 487
Minn. R. 4601.0700 Births in Moving Conveyance
When a birth occurs in a moving conveyance within the United States, while in international waters or air space, or in a foreign country or its air space and the child is first removed from the conveyance in Minnesota, the birth must be registered in Minnesota and the place where the child is first removed is considered the place of birth. The birth record must include the type of conveyance.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12; 144.213; 144.215
- History: 25 SR 487
Minn. R. 4601.0800 Monthly Report of Births
This part applies only to an institution that does not file documentation of birth through the centralized electronic system of the state registrar. The person in charge of the institution or that person's authorized designee must submit to the state registrar, on or before the tenth day of each month, a report of all births occurring in the institution and all births occurring en route to the institution during the previous month. The report must be in a format approved by the state registrar.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12; 144.213; 144.215
- History: 25 SR 487
Minn. R. 4601.0900 Delayed Birth Registration
Subpart 1. Delayed registration.
For a person born in Minnesota whose birth is not recorded, the registrant age 18 or older, parent, guardian, or legal representative who demonstrates tangible interest may file with a registrar documentation of birth for a delayed registration of birth. The person filing the documentation of birth must use a form prescribed by the state registrar and provide a certified statement that a birth record is not on file in Minnesota. In addition to meeting the requirements of part 4601.0600, subpart 4, documentation of birth for a delayed registration must meet the requirements of this part.
Subp. 2. Verification by registrar.
Before registering the birth record, the registrar must ensure that no prior birth record is registered for the person whose birth is to be registered.
Subp. 3. Delayed registration within seven years of birth.
To file documentation of birth for a delayed registration of birth within seven years of the birth:
A. A person filing the documentation must provide the information required under part 4601.0600, subpart 4.
B. For a birth that occurred in or en route to an institution, the person filing the documentation must provide:
C. For a birth that did not occur in or en route to an institution or if the institution cannot substantiate the fact of birth information, documentation must include:
D. A document submitted must meet the requirements of part 4601.1100, subpart 1.
E. If a registrar determines that the documentation of birth meets the requirements of this part, the registrar must register the birth.
F. If a local registrar determines that the documentation of birth does not meet the requirements of this part, the local registrar must notify the person who presented the information of the reasons the information or evidence presented does not meet the requirements. The local registrar must notify the person of the option to file documentation of birth with the state registrar.
G. If the state registrar determines that the documentation of birth does not meet the requirements of this part, the state registrar must notify the person who presented the information of the reasons the information or evidence presented does not meet the requirements. The state registrar must notify the person of the right to petition a court to establish the record according to Minnesota Statutes, section 144.217, subdivision 2.
Subp. 4. Delayed registration seven or more years after birth.
To file documentation of birth for a delayed registration of birth seven or more years after the birth:
A. A person filing documentation of birth must provide the information required under part 4601.0600, subpart 4.
B. The person filing documentation of birth must provide evidence of:
C. The following documentation is required:
D. All documents submitted must meet the requirements of part 4601.1100, subpart 1.
E. If a registrar determines that the documentation of birth meets the requirements of this part, the registrar must register the birth.
F. If a local registrar determines that the documentation of birth does not meet the requirements of this part, the local registrar must notify the person who presented the information of the reasons the information or evidence presented does not meet the requirements. The local registrar must notify the person of the option to file documentation of birth with the state registrar.
G. If the state registrar determines that the documentation of birth does not meet the requirements of this part, the state registrar must notify the person who presented the information of the reasons the information or evidence presented does not meet the requirements. The state registrar must notify the person of the right to petition a court to establish the record according to Minnesota Statutes, section 144.217, subdivision 2.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12; 144.213; 144.215
- History: 25 SR 487
Minn. R. 4601.1000 Birth Record Amendments
Subpart 1. Requesting amendment.
A registrant age 18 or older or the registrant's parent, legal guardian, or legal representative may request a registrar to amend the civil registration information in a birth record. The person requesting the amendment must demonstrate tangible interest in the birth record to be amended according to part 4601.2600 and Minnesota Statutes, section 144.225, subdivision 7.
Subp. 2. Amending within 45 days and before issuance.
A. A parent of the registrant or the person who filed the documentation of birth according to part 4601.0600 or 4601.0900 may request an amendment of the registrant's birth record under this subpart. An amendment requested under this subpart must:
B. If the registrar determines that the requested amendment meets the requirements of this subpart, the registrar must amend the record. Amendments to the registrant's birth record made under this subpart must not be noted on a certified birth record.
Subp. 3. Amending after 45 days or issuance.
A. If a request to amend a birth record is made more than 45 days after the date filed, if a certified birth record has been issued, or if the requested amendment does not meet the requirements of subpart 2, item A, subitem (2), the person requesting the amendment must provide the following documentation:
B. A document submitted to a registrar must meet the requirements of part 4601.1100, subpart 1.
Subp. 4. Adding information after 45 days or issuance.
A document to support the addition of an item on the civil registration information of a birth record is required to add missing information to a birth record if the request is made more than 45 days after the date filed or if a certified birth record has been issued. A document submitted to a registrar must meet the requirements of part 4601.1100, subpart 1.
Subp. 5. Amending information previously amended.
A person must contact the state registrar with a written request for an amendment if the amendment requested is to information that has been previously amended.
Subp. 6. Verification by registrar.
Before amending a birth record, a registrar must review the documents submitted. If the registrar determines that the documents presented meet the requirements of this part, the registrar must amend the record. If the requested amendment is to information that has been previously amended or if a local registrar determines that the documents presented do not meet the requirements of this part, the local registrar must notify the person of the option to request the amendment through the state registrar. If the state registrar determines that the documents presented do not meet the requirements of this part, the state registrar must notify the person of the right to appeal to a court of competent jurisdiction.
Subp. 7. Court order.
If a court order is presented by a person requesting an amendment according to subpart 1, a registrar must add or change information that the court order specifically directs the registrar to add or change. To add or change information that the court order does not specifically direct, the person must present the evidence required under subpart 3 or 4.
Subp. 8. Establishment of paternity.
To change the father recorded on a birth record because of establishment or revocation of paternity:
A. if the request is made within 45 days after the date filed and before the issuance of a certified birth record and documentation of paternity is provided according to part 4601.1300, subpart 1, items B to D, the registrar must change the father recorded on the birth record; or
B. if the request is made more than 45 days after the date filed or if a certified birth record has been issued, the person must request a replacement record under part 4601.1300.
Subp. 9. Amending health information.
A person who filed the documentation of birth under part 4601.0600 or 4601.0900 or the biological mother of the registrant may request the state registrar to amend the health information of a birth record according to items A and B.
A. Requests to amend health information on the birth record must be made to the state registrar on a form prescribed by the state registrar and must include a notarized statement of approval from the entity that originally filed the documentation of birth. Upon receipt of a request and a notarized statement, the state registrar must amend the health information on the birth record.
B. If a request to amend health information on the birth record is received directly from the entity that originally filed the documentation of birth, the state registrar must waive the requirement for the notarized statement.
Subp. 10. Corrections and amendments by state registrar.
If a birth occurs in Minnesota and the state registrar finds that the information provided in the documentation of birth is not accurate, the state registrar must contact the person who filed the documentation of birth to request correction of the information. If the person who filed the documentation of birth cannot be located, the state registrar must consider the record in error and must not issue a certified birth record until corrections are made.
Subp. 11. Amending replaced record.
A request for an amendment to a record that has been replaced under part 4601.1300 must be made to the state registrar and must include a notarized statement agreeing to the amendment from the registrant and each parent whose name appears on the birth record or whose name is requested to be added to the birth record through the amendment.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12; 144.213; 144.215
- History: 25 SR 487; L 2001 1Sp9 art 15 s 32
Minn. R. 4601.1100 Requirements for Documents Submitted
Subpart 1. Document requirements.
The documents submitted to support a birth registration or amendment must:
A. be legible;
B. be without any sign of erasure, alteration, or change of the pertinent information;
C. indicate the date and by whom the original document was made;
D. be the original document or authenticated as a true document by the issuing agent;
E. for a registrant age seven years or over, have been established at least seven years before the date of the request for a birth registration or amendment or within three years of the date of birth; and
F. for a registrant under seven years of age, have been established at least one year before the date of the request for a birth registration or amendment or within the first year of life.
Subp. 2. Acceptable documents.
A registrar may accept a document listed in items A to J if the registrar determines that the document is sufficient to support the requested amendment and that the document meets the requirements of subpart 1:
A. a notarized statement of a physician, certified nurse midwife, or traditional lay midwife who attended the birth;
B. a school record;
C. a social security number history (Numident) printout from the Social Security Administration;
D. a United States military discharge;
E. a valid United States passport;
F. a hospital or clinic record;
G. a United States census record;
H. a marriage certificate;
I. a naturalization certificate, alien registration card, or other documentation issued by United States Citizenship and Immigration Services; or
J. a tribal enrollment record.
Subp. 3. Other documents.
A registrar may accept a document not listed in subpart 2 if the registrar determines that the document is sufficient to support the requested amendment and that the document meets the requirements of subpart 1.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12; 144.213; 144.215
- History: 25 SR 487; L 2007 c 13 art 1 s 25
Minn. R. 4601.1200 Summary of Documentation Submitted
A registrar must record on the electronic system of the state registrar a summary of each document submitted to support the facts shown on the birth record being registered or amended, including:
A. the title or description of the document;
B. the source of the document;
C. the name of the person who issued or signed the document;
D. the date the document was created; and
E. the date the document was issued or signed.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12; 144.213; 144.215
- History: 25 SR 487
Minn. R. 4601.1300 Replacement Birth Record
Subpart 1. Registering replacement record.
The state registrar must register a replacement record. The state registrar may delegate the responsibility to register a replacement to a local registrar if the state registrar determines that a local registrar has the training and resources to register the replacement records. A replacement record must be registered:
A. upon receipt of a certified copy of an order, decree, or certificate of adoption according to Minnesota Statutes, section 144.218, subdivision 1;
B. if a birth record of a child has been registered and the birth parents of the child marry after the birth of the child according to Minnesota Statutes, section 144.218, subdivision 3. The state registrar must register the replacement record upon receipt of a certified copy of the marriage certificate of the birth parents and either a recognition of parentage or court adjudication of paternity;
C. upon receipt of a court order according to Minnesota Statutes, section 144.218, subdivision 4;
D. upon receipt of a declaration of parentage, a recognition of parentage, or a court order according to Minnesota Statutes, section 257.73; or
E. according to any other applicable state or federal statutes or regulations.
Subp. 2. Changing original birth record.
A. A replacement record must contain all of the information from the original record except:
B. Changes to the replacement record other than those permitted under item A must be requested as an amendment under part 4601.1000.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12; 144.213; 144.215
- History: 25 SR 487
Minn. R. 4601.1400 Expungement of Birth Records
The state registrar must expunge a birth record if the state registrar finds that the birth documented by the record did not occur in Minnesota. This part does not apply to a birth record registered according to Minnesota Statutes, section 144.218, subdivision 2, for a person who was born in a foreign country and adopted in Minnesota.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12; 144.213; 144.215
- History: 25 SR 487
Minn. R. 4601.1500 Documentation of Death
Documentation of death must be filed with a registrar by the mortician, funeral director, or other person in charge of disposition of the body. The fact of death and demographic information must be filed before interment or other disposition of the body. The mortician, funeral director, or other person in charge of disposition of the body must provide the documentation of death to a registrar according to parts 4601.0100 to 4601.2600.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12; 144.213; 144.221
- History: 25 SR 487
Minn. R. 4601.1600 Collecting and Providing Documentation of Death
Subpart 1. Collecting death and demographic information.
The mortician, funeral director, or other person in charge of disposition of the body must collect fact of death and demographic information. Fact of death information may be collected from the hospital or nursing home where the death occurred or from the coroner or medical examiner. Demographic information may be collected from relatives or friends of the deceased, hospital or institutional records, the records of a coroner or medical examiner, or another source if the person collecting the information determines that the information provided is accurate.
Subp. 2. Providing information to registrar.
The person in charge of disposition of the body must provide to the registrar the fact of death and demographic information and the name of the physician who agrees to provide the cause of death information or the name of the coroner or medical examiner who agrees to or is required to provide the cause of death information. The state registrar or person in charge of disposition of the body must contact the physician to request the cause of death information.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12; 144.213; 144.221
- History: 25 SR 487
Minn. R. 4601.1700 Place and Time of Death
The place where death is pronounced is considered the place where death occurred. If the place of death is unknown but the dead body is found in Minnesota, the place where the body is found is considered the place of death. If the date of death is unknown, the date the body is found is considered the date of death. When a death occurs in a moving conveyance and the body is first removed in Minnesota, documentation of death must be filed in Minnesota and the place of death is considered the place where the body is first removed from the conveyance.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12; 144.213; 144.221
- History: 25 SR 487
Minn. R. 4601.1800 Providing Cause of Death Information
Cause of death information for each death that occurs in Minnesota may be provided only by a physician, coroner, or medical examiner. A physician who provides the cause of death must be a physician present at the time of death, a physician or associate of a physician who provided medical treatment for the deceased before death, or a physician who has direct knowledge of the circumstances and cause of death and has access to the medical record of the deceased. Cause of death information must be provided to a registrar according to parts 4601.0100 to 4601.2600.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12; 144.213; 144.221
- History: 25 SR 487
Minn. R. 4601.1900 Monthly Funeral Establishment Report
This part applies only to a funeral establishment that does not file documentation of death through the centralized electronic system of the state registrar. The person in charge of the funeral establishment or that person's authorized designee must submit to the state registrar, on or before the tenth day of each month, a report of all deaths during the previous month for which a mortician or funeral director affiliated with the funeral establishment was responsible for collecting and providing documentation of death according to part 4601.1600. The submitted report must be in a format approved by the state registrar.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12; 144.213; 144.221
- History: 25 SR 487
Minn. R. 4601.2000 Documentation of Death; Delayed Registration of Death
Documentation of death for a delayed death registration must be filed with a registrar according to parts 4601.1500 to 4601.1800 within five days of the discovery that documentation of death has not been filed. If fact of death, demographic, and cause of death information cannot be provided, a court order establishing the fact of death is required to register the death.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12; 144.213; 144.221
- History: 25 SR 487
Minn. R. 4601.2100 Death Record Amendments
Subpart 1. Requesting amendment.
Any person may request a death record amendment. To amend fact of death or demographic information on a death record, a person requesting the amendment must choose one of the options described in subparts 2 to 6. To amend cause of death information on a death record, a person requesting the amendment must comply with subpart 9.
Subp. 2. Amending within 45 days and before issuance.
A. The informant who provided the original information or the person who filed documentation of death according to part 4601.1500 or 4601.2000 may request an amendment of a death record under this subpart. An amendment requested under this subpart must:
B. If the registrar determines that the requested amendment meets the requirements of this subpart, the registrar must amend the record. Amendments to the death record made under this subpart must not be noted on a certified death record.
Subp. 3. Amending through funeral establishment.
To amend fact of death or demographic information through a funeral establishment:
A. A person may contact the funeral establishment that originally filed the documentation of death to request an amendment if the amendment is requested within one year of the death.
B. If the person in charge of the funeral establishment or that person's authorized designee agrees to process the amendment, the person in charge of the funeral establishment or that person's authorized designee must ask the informant who provided the original information for approval of the requested amendment. If the informant approves the amendment in writing, the person in charge of the funeral establishment or that person's authorized designee must request that a registrar amend the record. Upon receipt of a written request on a form prescribed by the state registrar, a registrar must amend the record.
C. If the person in charge of the funeral establishment or that person's authorized designee refuses to process the amendment, the person in charge of the funeral establishment or that person's authorized designee must refer the person requesting the amendment to a registrar according to subparts 5 and 6.
Subp. 4. Amending through informant.
If an amendment is requested within one year of a death and the requesting person knows the informant who provided the original information, the person requesting an amendment may contact the informant directly with a request for an amendment. If the informant agrees with the requested amendment, the informant must present to a registrar a notarized statement that states the informant is the informant named on the original documentation of death, that the requested amendment is accurate, and that the informant agrees to the requested amendment. Upon receipt of the notarized statement, a registrar must amend the record.
Subp. 5. Amending through registrar.
A. If an amendment is requested within five years of a death, the person requesting the amendment may contact a registrar to make the amendment. The person requesting the amendment must:
B. To be acceptable legal documentation, the document must support the requested amendment, meet the requirements of part 4601.1100, subpart 1, items A to D, and be one of the following:
C. If the registrar determines that the legal documentation is sufficient to support the requested amendment, the registrar must amend the death record.
D. A local registrar must forward the request for amendment and any supporting documentation to the state registrar to be evaluated according to the criteria in subpart 7 if a request includes one of the following:
Subp. 6. Amending through state registrar.
A person requesting an amendment must contact the state registrar with a written request for an amendment when:
A. the person is requesting an amendment more than five years after the date of death;
B. the person is requesting an amendment to fact of death or demographic information other than the information listed in subpart 5, item A, subitem (2);
C. the person is requesting an amendment to information that has been previously amended; or
D. the person cannot provide acceptable legal documentation according to subpart 5, item B.
Subp. 7. Evaluation by state registrar.
A. When requesting an amendment through the state registrar according to subpart 6, a person must request the amendment on a form prescribed by the state registrar and provide documentation to support the accuracy of the requested amendment.
B. The state registrar must consider:
C. If the state registrar determines that the supporting documentation is sufficient to justify the requested amendment, the state registrar must amend the death record. If the state registrar determines that the supporting documentation is not sufficient to justify the requested amendment, the state registrar must notify the requester of the option to seek a court order to require the state registrar to amend the record.
Subp. 8. Corrections and amendments by state registrar.
If the state registrar finds that the fact of death or demographic information in a death record is not accurate, the state registrar must contact the mortician, funeral director, or other person who filed the original documentation of death to request correction of the information. If the mortician, funeral director, or other person who filed the documentation of death cannot be located or cannot provide the requested correction, the state registrar must consider the record in error and must not issue a certified death record until corrections are made.
Subp. 9. Amending cause of death information.
Requests to amend cause of death information must be made to the state registrar on a form prescribed by the state registrar and must include a notarized statement of approval from the physician who originally provided the cause of death information or a notarized statement of approval from a coroner or medical examiner of the county where the death occurred. Upon receipt of a request and a notarized statement, the state registrar must amend the cause of death information. If a request to amend cause of death information is received directly from a physician who originally provided the cause of death information or from a coroner or medical examiner of the county where the death occurred, the state registrar must waive the requirement for the notarized statement.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12; 144.213; 144.221
- History: 25 SR 487; L 2001 1Sp9 art 15 s 32
Minn. R. 4601.2200 Fetal Death Reporting
Subpart 1.
[Repealed, L 2005 c 60 s 7]
Subp. 2. Fetus delivered in moving conveyance.
When a fetus is delivered in a moving conveyance and the fetus is first removed from the conveyance in Minnesota, the place of delivery is the place where the fetus is first removed.
Subp. 3. Monthly report.
This subpart applies only to an institution that does not report fetal deaths through the centralized electronic system of the state registrar. The person in charge of the institution or that person's authorized designee must submit to the state registrar, on or before the tenth day of each month, a report of all fetal deaths occurring in the institution and all fetal deaths occurring en route to the institution during the previous month. The submitted report must be in a format approved by the state registrar.
Subp. 4. Correcting reports.
The mother named on the fetal death report or the person who filed the report according to subpart 1 may submit a request to the state registrar to correct information on a fetal death report. Upon receipt of a signed statement identifying the information in error and providing the correct information, the state registrar must correct the fetal death report. If the fetal death report has been destroyed according to subpart 5, the state registrar must notify the person requesting the correction that the record has been destroyed and the correction will not be made.
Subp. 5. Disposition of reports.
Reports of fetal deaths are statistical reports only. Retention of fetal death reports is governed by the Department of Health's record retention schedule.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12; 144.213; 144.221
- History: 25 SR 487; L 2005 c 60 s 7
Minn. R. 4601.2300 Fetal Death Notification
A mortician or funeral director in charge of disposition of the remains must notify the state registrar of a fetal death. The notification must be presented in a medium and format approved by the state registrar.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12; 144.213; 144.221
- History: 25 SR 487
Minn. R. 4601.2400 Expungement of Death and Fetal Death Records
The state registrar must expunge a death or fetal death record if the state registrar finds that the death or fetal death documented by the record did not occur in Minnesota.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12; 144.213; 144.221
- History: 25 SR 487
Minn. R. 4601.2500 Requirements for Certified Birth or Death Record
Subpart 1. Security paper.
A certified birth or death record must be printed on security paper. The state registrar must approve and provide access to security paper for statewide use. Local registrars must order security paper approved by the state registrar. To approve and provide access to security paper for statewide use, the state registrar must consider:
A. what security paper characteristics are needed to effectively reduce the potential for fraud;
B. the cost of the security paper;
C. the cost-effectiveness of options for distribution of the security paper;
D. the availability of security paper with the required features;
E. the type and characteristics of security paper used for certified birth and death records in other states;
F. applicable state and federal regulations; and
G. recommendations of national organizations and government entities.
Subp. 2. Signature required.
The facsimile or actual signature of the state registrar must appear on a certified birth or death record.
Subp. 3. Seal required.
The seal of the state of Minnesota must be part of the security paper.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12; 144.213; 144.215; 144.221
- History: 25 SR 487; L 2001 1Sp9 art 15 s 32
Minn. R. 4601.2525 Requirements for Certified Birth Record
Subpart 1. Data items required.
A certified birth record must be in a format prescribed by the state registrar and include the date issued, the county or office of issuance, and the following items, if the items are present on the birth record:
A. registrant's first name, middle name, last name, and suffix;
B. date and time of birth;
C. first name, middle name, last name, and suffix of an alias;
D. sex;
E. county and either city or township of birth;
F. mother's first name, middle name, and maiden surname;
G. state or foreign country of the mother's birthplace;
H. father's first name, middle name, and last name;
I. state or foreign country of the father's birthplace; and
J. date the record was filed.
Subp. 2. Amendments to birth records; notation.
Except as provided in part 4601.1000, subpart 2, an amendment must be noted on a certified birth record as follows:
A. if the name or date of birth of the registrant has been amended, the amendment must be noted on the certified birth record with the label of the item amended, date of amendment, and the basis for the amendment; and
B. if the information under subpart 1, items C to J, has been amended, the amendment must be noted on the certified birth record with the following statement: "A data item other than the registrant's name or date of birth was amended on this birth record on," followed by the date of the amendment. The specific data item amended must not be identified.
Subp. 3. Deceased person.
If a registrant is deceased and documentation of death has been filed or the state registrar has received notification of the death from another state, the word "deceased" must appear as a watermark across the center of the record, in a border, note field, or other highlighted area on the certified birth record.
Subp. 4. Foreign adoption birth record.
For a birth record that is registered according to Minnesota Statutes, section 144.218, subdivision 2, for a person who was born in a foreign country and adopted in Minnesota, the certified birth record must include the following statement: "This birth record is not evidence of United States citizenship."
Subp. 5. Infant of unknown parentage.
For a birth record that is registered according to Minnesota Statutes, section 144.216, for an infant of unknown parentage, the certified birth record must include the following statement: "This birth record was registered according to Minnesota Statutes, section 144.216, for an infant of unknown parentage." This subpart does not apply to a replacement record registered according to Minnesota Statutes, section 144.216, subdivision 2, if the child is subsequently identified or the birth record is found.
Subp. 6. Delayed registration of birth.
For a birth record that is registered according to Minnesota Statutes, section 144.217, as a delayed registration of birth, a certified birth record must include the following statement: "This birth record was registered according to Minnesota Statutes, section 144.217, as a delayed registration of birth."
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12; 144.213; 144.215
- History: 25 SR 487; L 2001 1Sp9 art 15 s 32
Minn. R. 4601.2550 Requirements for Certified Death Record
Subpart 1. Data items required; fact of death.
A fact of death certified death record must be in the format prescribed by the state registrar and include the date issued, the county or office of issuance, and the following items, if the items are present on a death record:
A. first name, middle name, last name, and suffix of the deceased;
B. maiden surname of the deceased;
C. first name, middle name, last name, and suffix of an alias of the deceased;
D. sex;
E. social security number;
F. date of death;
G. county and either city or township of death;
H. date of birth;
I. city and state or foreign country of birth;
J. father's first name, middle name, and last name;
K. mother's first name, middle name, and maiden surname;
L. marital status;
M. first name, middle name, and last name or maiden surname of a spouse, if married;
N. county, state, and either city or township of residence;
O. name of the funeral establishment; and
P. date the documentation of death was filed.
Subp. 2. Data items required; fact and cause of death.
A fact and cause of death certified death record must be in the format prescribed by the state registrar and include the following items, if the items are present on the death record:
A. all of the items required under subpart 1;
B. immediate cause of death;
C. underlying cause of death;
D. conditions contributing to the death;
E. manner of death; and
F. name and address of the physician who provided the cause of death information.
Subp. 3. Amendments to death records; notation.
Except as provided in part 4601.2100, subpart 2, an amendment to any item listed in subpart 1 must be noted on a certified death record.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12; 144.213; 144.221
- History: 25 SR 487; L 2001 1Sp9 art 15 s 32
Minn. R. 4601.2600 Tangible Interest
Subpart 1. Application; birth or death record.
An application for a certified birth or death record must be made on a form prescribed by a registrar or contain the information required in this part. An application must be made to a registrar and accompanied by the required fee and documentation. If the applicant is alleging to have tangible interest because a certified birth or death record is necessary for the protection or determination of a personal or property right, the applicant must apply for issuance of a certified birth or death record to the state registrar and provide supporting documentation. The state registrar must evaluate the application according to the criteria described in subpart 12.
Subp. 2. Registrant information.
A. To request a certified birth record, the applicant must provide the following information about the registrant:
B. To request a certified death record, the applicant must provide the following information about the registrant:
C. A registrar may accept estimates of or waive a requirement listed in items A and B if:
Subp. 3. Applicant information.
A. To request a certified birth or death record, the applicant must provide the following information about the applicant:
B. A registrar may waive the requirement for a telephone number under item A, subitem (3), if the applicant states that the applicant does not have a business or home telephone. The registrar may waive the requirement for the middle name under item A, subitem (1), if the applicant states that the applicant does not have a middle name.
Subp. 4. Application form; statutory authority.
A registrar must provide an application form or instructions accompanying an application form that includes the statutory authority for collecting the application information, the consequences for not providing the information, and the penalty for providing false information.
Subp. 5. Identification required.
An applicant must provide a completed application as described in subparts 1 to 3 and, except as noted in subpart 6, provide documentation of identity as follows in items A and B.
A. For an application made in person, the applicant must provide a document of identity that readily identifies the applicant. To be accepted by a registrar, the document of identity must include the applicant's signature and photograph or physical description and the registrar must be able to authenticate the document with the issuing entity. If a normally acceptable document of identity was issued so long ago that the registrar determines that it no longer readily identifies the applicant, an applicant must provide a document of identity that was issued more recently. A document of identity that has been altered or changed in any way is not acceptable.
B. For an application not made in person, the application must be notarized according to Minnesota Statutes, sections 358.41 to 358.50.
Subp. 6. Acceptable identification not available.
If an applicant does not have an acceptable document of identity or if an applicant provides a signed statement that no document of identity is available, to obtain the certified birth or death record, the applicant must have a witness attest to the applicant's identity. The witness must:
A. have known the applicant for at least two years;
B. complete a statement to identify as described in subpart 7; and
C. accompany the applicant, sign the statement to identify in the presence of a registrar, and present an acceptable document of identity according to subpart 5, item A, and either subpart 8 or 9. If a witness cannot accompany an applicant to a registrar's office, the witness' signature must be notarized on a statement to identify according to subpart 7.
Subp. 7. Statement to identify.
A. A completed statement to identify must include the following information about the witness:
B. A registrar may waive the requirement for a telephone number under item A, subitem (3), if the witness states that the witness does not have a business or home telephone. The registrar may waive the requirement for the middle name under item A, subitem (1), if the witness states that the witness does not have a middle name.
Subp. 8. Acceptable document of identity.
A registrar must accept a document listed in items A to I as meeting the requirements of subpart 5, unless the registrar determines that the document was issued too long ago to readily identify the applicant or witness, the document has been altered or changed, or there is evidence of fraud on the face of the document. Acceptable documents include:
A. an unexpired picture driver's license issued according to Minnesota Statutes, section 171.07, or according to the laws of another state or territory of the United States. A temporary driver's license or learner's permit is not acceptable;
B. an unexpired state picture identification card issued according to Minnesota Statutes, section 171.07, or according to the laws of another state or territory of the United States;
C. an unexpired federal, state, or local government employee picture identification card issued by a government entity located in the United States;
D. an unexpired aircraft pilot's license issued by the United States Department of Transportation, Federal Aviation Administration;
E. an unexpired United States military picture identification card;
F. an unexpired United States passport;
G. for an applicant who is not a registrant, an unexpired Canadian passport;
H. for an applicant who is not a registrant, an unexpired passport from another jurisdiction with:
I. for an applicant who is not a registrant, one of the following documents issued by the United States Department of Justice, United States Citizenship and Immigration Services, or a subsequent form or version of a document specified in this item:
Subp. 9. Documents acceptable with discretion.
A. A registrar may accept a document not listed in subpart 8 if the registrar determines that the document meets the requirements of subpart 5.
B. A registrar may accept one of the following documents as a document of identity if the document is known to be reliable and valid in the county where the application for a certified birth or death record is made and if the document meets the requirements for an acceptable document of identity described in subpart 5:
Subp. 10. Delay to authenticate.
A registrar may delay issuance of a certified birth or death record if the registrar needs more time to authenticate a document of identity with the entity who issued the document of identity.
Subp. 11. Refusal to issue.
A registrar must refuse to issue a certified birth or death record if the applicant fails to meet the requirements of this part.
Subp. 12. Personal or property right criteria.
A. To determine whether a certified birth or death record is necessary for the protection or determination of a personal or property right, the state registrar must consider:
B. If the state registrar determines that the supporting documentation is sufficient to demonstrate tangible interest, the state registrar must issue the certified birth or death record. If the state registrar determines that the supporting documentation is not sufficient to demonstrate tangible interest, the state registrar must notify the applicant of the option to seek a court order to direct the state registrar to issue a certified birth or death record.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12; 144.213; 144.215; 144.221
- History: 25 SR 487; L 2001 1Sp9 art 15 s 32; L 2007 c 13 art 1 s 25
Chapter 4604 IMMUNIZATION
Minn. R. 4604.0100 Scope and Effect
According to Minnesota Statutes, sections 121A.15, subdivision 12, and 135A.14, subdivision 7, parts 4604.0100 to 4604.1000 modify the requirements of and supersede any conflicting provisions of Minnesota Statutes, sections 121A.15 and 135A.14.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 121A.15; 135A.14
- History: 28 SR 396
Minn. R. 4604.0200 Definitions
Subpart 1. Applicability.
The terms used in parts 4604.0100 to 4604.1000 have the meaning given them in this part and in Minnesota Statutes, sections 121A.15, subdivision 9, and 135A.14, subdivision 1.
Subp. 2. Enroll.
"Enroll" in a child care facility or school means to begin attending the child care facility or school. The first day that a child begins attending the facility or school is the day that the child enrolls in the facility or school.
Subp. 2a. Medically acceptable standards.
"Medically acceptable standards" means immunization recommendations promulgated by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices.
Subp. 3. Pneumococcal vaccine.
"Pneumococcal vaccine" means the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine licensed for vaccination of children from two months to five years of age.
Subp. 4. Provider.
"Provider" means a licensed physician, registered physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse, as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 148.171, subdivision 3.
Subp. 4a. School-based early childhood program.
A. Under authority of Minnesota Statutes, section 121A.15, subdivision 12, "school-based early childhood program" means a program that provides services to children from birth to the start of kindergarten in a classroom setting. Whether in a school building or not, the program meets at least once a week for six weeks or more during the year with the purpose of providing instructional or other services to support children's learning and development. It does not include drop-in playtime provided through a school-based early childhood program in a school or classroom setting.
B. The definition in this subpart applies to parts 4604.0100, 4604.0300, 4604.0400, 4604.0500, 4604.0700, 4604.0900, and 4604.1000, and Minnesota Statutes, section 121A.15.
Subp. 5. Varicella disease.
"Varicella disease" means the chicken pox disease.
Subp. 6. Varicella vaccine.
"Varicella vaccine" means the product used to vaccinate persons against the chicken pox disease.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 121A.15; 135A.14
- History: 28 SR 396; 38 SR 557
Minn. R. 4604.0250 Physician and Provider Statements
For purposes of Minnesota Statutes, section 121A.15, subdivisions 1, 2, 3, and 4, a statement from a physician or a statement signed by a physician includes a statement from or a statement signed by a provider, as defined under part 4604.0200, subpart 4.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 121A.15; 135A.14
- History: 28 SR 396
Minn. R. 4604.0300 Schedule Changes
Subpart 1. School-age children.
A. If a required immunization for an elementary or secondary school student involves a series of doses, then the elementary or secondary school student must complete the required immunization series within eight months of the first day on which the requirement was imposed to remain enrolled in elementary or secondary school.
B. If an elementary or secondary school student is unable to complete the required immunization series within eight months due to a medical condition, a provider must submit a request for an extension until the student's medical condition allows the student to complete the series. The request must be submitted to the administrator or other person having general control and supervision of the school.
Subp. 2. Timing of administered vaccine dose.
A vaccine dose administered four or less days before the minimum age required by law is considered timely for purposes of parts 4604.0100 to 4604.1000 and Minnesota Statutes, sections 121A.15 and 135A.14.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 121A.15; 135A.14
- History: 28 SR 396
Minn. R. 4604.0400 Immunization Documentation Record
To document a person's immunization history as required under parts 4604.0100 to 4604.1000 and Minnesota Statutes, section 121A.15, all child care facilities and elementary and secondary schools must use the Department of Health's official record form or a similar document approved by the commissioner of health when communicating to parents or guardians regarding immunization requirements and exemption procedures. The record form requests information about immunizations and includes statements for documenting medical or conscientious exemptions. Nothing in this part limits a facility or school from sending other information to parents or guardians that is related to immunizations and is in compliance with law.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 121A.15; 135A.14
- History: 28 SR 396
Minn. R. 4604.0410 Report
A. The school report required under Minnesota Statutes, section 121A.15, subdivision 8, must be filed with the commissioner of health within 90 days of the commencement of each new school term.
B. The administrator or other person having general control and supervision of the child care facility or school-based early childhood program shall file a report with the commissioner of health on all persons enrolled in the child care facility by December 1 of each year.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 121A.15
- History: 38 SR 557
Minn. R. 4604.0420 Polio Vaccination Requirement
Except as provided in Minnesota Statutes, section 121A.15, subdivision 3, paragraph (c) or (d), and for children who have completed the polio vaccination series by September 1, 2014, to enroll or remain in a child care facility, a school-based early childhood program, or an elementary or secondary school, beginning September 1, 2014, a child's parent or legal guardian must submit documentation to the administrator or person having general control and supervision of the facility, program, or school that the child has received vaccination consistent with medically acceptable standards against poliomyelitis.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 121A.15
- History: 38 SR 557
Minn. R. 4604.0430 Tetanus, Diphtheria, and Pertussis Vaccination Requirement
Except as provided in Minnesota Statutes, section 121A.15, subdivision 3, paragraph (c) or (d), and for children who have completed the tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis vaccinations by September 1, 2014, to enroll or remain in a child care facility or school-based early childhood program or elementary school, beginning September 1, 2014, a child's parent or legal guardian must submit documentation to the administrator or person having general control and supervision of the facility or program that the child has received vaccination consistent with medically acceptable standards against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 121A.15
- History: 38 SR 557
Minn. R. 4604.0500 Haemophilus Influenza Type B (hib) Dose Requirement for Child Care Enrollment
Except as provided in Minnesota Statutes, section 121A.15, subdivision 3, paragraph (c), (d), or (f), to enroll or remain enrolled in a child care facility, a child's parent or legal guardian must submit documentation to the administrator or person having general control and supervision of the child care facility that the child received at least one dose of vaccine for HIB at or after 12 months of age.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 121A.15; 135A.14
- History: 28 SR 396
Minn. R. 4604.0600 Changes in Measles, Mumps, and Rubella Vaccination Requirements; Kindergarten Through Grade 12
Subpart 1. Measles, mumps, and rubella at kindergarten.
Except as provided in subpart 2 or in Minnesota Statutes, section 121A.15, subdivision 3, paragraph (c) or (d), the following documentation is required:
A. beginning with the 2014-2015 school year, students in kindergarten through grade 12 must have: (1) proof of receipt of vaccination consistent with medically acceptable standards against measles, mumps, and rubella; (2) documentation of a history of having had measles, mumps, and rubella; or (3) an exemption statement as specified in Minnesota Statutes, section 121A.15, subdivision 3, paragraph (c) or (d), and produce the documentation or exemption statement if required to do so; and
B. beginning with the 2014-2015 school year, a student entering kindergarten or grade 7 must submit: (1) documentation of vaccination consistent with medically acceptable standards against measles, mumps, and rubella; (2) documentation of a history of having had measles, mumps, and rubella; or (3) an exemption statement as specified in Minnesota Statutes, section 121A.15, subdivision 3, paragraph (c) or (d). The documentation or exemption statement required by this subpart must be submitted to the administrator or person having general control and supervision of the school.
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, L 2012 c 187 art 1 s 75]
Subp. 3. Documentation for out-of-state transfer students.
Beginning with the 2012-2013 school year, a student who transfers from outside Minnesota to a Minnesota school in grades 1 through 12 must show documentation that the student received two doses of vaccine each for measles, mumps, and rubella or have an exemption statement according to Minnesota Statutes, section 121A.15, subdivision 3. The documentation must be submitted to the administrator or person having general control and supervision of the school.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 121A.15; 135A.14
- History: 28 SR 396; L 2012 c 187 art 1 s 75; 38 SR 557
Minn. R. 4604.0700 Suspension of School Immunization Laws
A. The commissioner of health shall suspend one or more of the immunization requirements in parts 4604.0100 to 4604.1000 or in Minnesota Statutes, section 121A.15 or 135A.14, if the commissioner determines that suspension of the requirement is necessary to address a vaccine shortage or other emergency situation statewide or in a portion of the state.
B. In determining whether suspension of the requirement is necessary to address a vaccine shortage or other emergency situation and in determining the portion of the state for which suspension is necessary, the commissioner shall consider the following factors:
C. The commissioner shall suspend a requirement for the length of time needed to remedy the vaccine shortage or emergency situation. If the commissioner suspends a requirement under this part, the commissioner shall publish notice of the suspension on the Department of Health's web page and mail notices to all affected elementary, secondary, and post-secondary schools, child care facilities, and providers.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 121A.15; 135A.14
- History: 28 SR 396
Minn. R. 4604.0800 Hepatitis B Dose Requirement
A hepatitis B vaccine licensed for and administered according to an alternative dosing schedule, such as the two dose series for adolescents ages 11 through 15 years, meets the hepatitis B vaccination requirement in parts 4604.0100 to 4604.1000 and in Minnesota Statutes, section 121A.15.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 121A.15; 135A.14
- History: 28 SR 396
Minn. R. 4604.0810 Hepatitis B Vaccination Requirement; Kindergarten Through Grade 12
A. Beginning with the 2014-2015 school year, students in kindergarten through grade 12 must have proof of receipt of vaccination consistent with medically acceptable standards against hepatitis B, or have an exemption statement as specified in Minnesota Statutes, section 121A.15, subdivision 3, paragraph (c) or (d), and produce the documentation or exemption statement if required to do so.
B. Beginning with the 2014-2015 school year, a student entering kindergarten or grade 7 must submit documentation of vaccination consistent with medically acceptable standards against hepatitis B, or submit an exemption statement as specified in Minnesota Statutes, section 121A.15, subdivision 3, paragraph (c) or (d). The documentation or exemption statement required by this subpart must be submitted to the administrator or person having general control and supervision of the school.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 121A.15
- History: 38 SR 557
Minn. R. 4604.0815 Hepatitis B Vaccination Requirement; Other
Beginning September 1, 2014, a child enrolling in child care or a school-based early childhood program must submit documentation of vaccination consistent with medically acceptable standards against hepatitis B, or submit an exemption statement as specified in Minnesota Statutes, section 121A.15, subdivision 3, paragraph (c) or (d), to the administrator or person having general control and supervision of the program.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 121A.15
- History: 38 SR 557
Minn. R. 4604.0820 Hepatitis a Vaccination Requirement
Beginning September 1, 2014, a child enrolling in child care or a school-based early childhood program must submit documentation of vaccination consistent with medically acceptable standards against hepatitis A, or submit an exemption statement as specified in Minnesota Statutes, section 121A.15, subdivision 3, paragraph (c) or (d), to the administrator or person having general control and supervision of the program.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 121A.15
- History: 38 SR 557
Minn. R. 4604.0900 Varicella Vaccination Requirement
Subpart 1. Requirements for child care enrollees.
Except for children who have already been vaccinated with the varicella vaccine prior to September 1, 2014, beginning September 1, 2014, a child 15 months of age or older who is enrolled in a child care facility in this state must submit:
A. documentation of receipt of the varicella vaccine consistent with medically acceptable standards;
B. documentation of a history of varicella disease; or
C. an exemption statement as specified in Minnesota Statutes, section 121A.15, subdivision 3, paragraph (c) or (d). The documentation or exemption statement required by this subpart must be submitted to the administrator or person having general control and supervision of the child care facility.
Subp. 2. Requirements for students.
A. Beginning with the 2014-2015 school year, students in kindergarten through grade 12 must have:
B. Beginning with the 2004-2005 school year, a student entering kindergarten or seventh grade must submit:
Subp. 3. Documentation of varicella vaccine.
Documentation of receipt of the varicella vaccine under subparts 1 and 2 must:
A. include a statement that the child received the varicella vaccination consistent with medically acceptable standards and must include the month, day, and year of the vaccination; and
B. be signed by a provider, a representative of a public clinic, or the child's parent or legal guardian.
Subp. 4. Documentation of disease history.
Documentation of a history of varicella disease under subparts 1 and 2 must include one of the following:
A. the signature of a provider and must include the date of the child's varicella illness;
B. the signature of a provider and must include a statement that a parent's or legal guardian's description of the child's varicella disease history is indicative of past varicella infection;
C. the signature of a provider or a representative of a public clinic and must include laboratory evidence of the child's varicella immunity; or
D. if a child had varicella disease before September 1, 2010, a statement documenting the child had varicella disease that is signed by the child's parent or legal guardian and includes the year that the child had the varicella disease.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 121A.15; 135A.14
- History: 28 SR 396; 38 SR 557
Minn. R. 4604.1000 New Pneumococcal Vaccine Requirement
Subpart 1. Requirement for child care enrollees.
Beginning September 1, 2004, a child enrolled or enrolling in a child care facility in this state who is at least two months old and not yet two years old must submit documentation of receipt of the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine consistent with medically acceptable standards or must submit an exemption statement according to Minnesota Statutes, section 121A.15, subdivision 3, paragraph (c) or (d). The documentation required by this subpart must be submitted to the administrator or other person having general control and supervision of the child care facility.
Subp. 2. Documentation of vaccine.
Documentation of receipt of the pneumococcal vaccination under subpart 1 must:
A. include a statement that the child received the pneumococcal vaccination consistent with medically accepted standards and must include the month, day, and year of the vaccination; and
B. be signed by a provider or representative of a public clinic or, if the child is at least 15 months old, by a provider, a representative of a public clinic, or the child's parent or legal guardian.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 121A.15; 135A.14
- History: 28 SR 396
Minn. R. 4604.1010 Tetanus, Diphtheria, and Pertussis Vaccination Requirement; Grades 7 to 12
A. Beginning September 1, 2014, a student entering grade 7 must submit documentation of vaccination consistent with medically acceptable standards against tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis, or submit an exemption statement as specified in Minnesota Statutes, section 121A.15, subdivision 3, paragraph (c) or (d), to the administrator or person having general control and supervision over the school.
B. Beginning with the 2014-2015 school year, students in grades 7 through 12 must have proof of receipt of vaccination consistent with medically acceptable standards against tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis, or have an exemption statement as specified in Minnesota Statutes, section 121A.15, subdivision 3, paragraph (c) or (d), and produce the documentation or exemption statement if required to do so.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 121A.15
- History: 38 SR 557
Minn. R. 4604.1020 Meningococcal Vaccination Requirement; Grades 7 to 12
A. Beginning September 1, 2014, a student entering grade 7 must submit documentation of vaccination consistent with medically acceptable standards against meningococcal disease, or submit an exemption statement as specified in Minnesota Statutes, section 121A.15, subdivision 3, paragraph (c) or (d), to the administrator or person having general control and supervision over the school.
B. Beginning with the 2014-2015 school year, students in grades 7 through 12 must have proof of receipt of vaccination consistent with medically acceptable standards against meningococcal disease, or have an exemption statement as specified in Minnesota Statutes, section 121A.15, subdivision 3, paragraph (c) or (d), and produce the documentation or exemption statement if required to do so.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 121A.15
- History: 38 SR 557
Chapter 4605 COMMUNICABLE DISEASES
Minn. R. 4605.0200 [Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
[Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
Minn. R. 4605.0300 [Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
[Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
Minn. R. 4605.0400 [Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
[Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
Minn. R. 4605.0500 [Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
[Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
Minn. R. 4605.0600 [Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
[Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
Minn. R. 4605.0700 [Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
[Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
Minn. R. 4605.0800 [Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
[Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
Minn. R. 4605.0900 [Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
[Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
Minn. R. 4605.1000 [Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
[Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
Minn. R. 4605.1100 [Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
[Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
Minn. R. 4605.1200 [Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
[Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
Minn. R. 4605.1300 [Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
[Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
Minn. R. 4605.1400 [Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
[Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
Minn. R. 4605.1500 [Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
[Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
Minn. R. 4605.1600 [Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
[Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
Minn. R. 4605.1700 [Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
[Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
Minn. R. 4605.1800 [Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
[Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
Minn. R. 4605.1900 [Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
[Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
Minn. R. 4605.2000 [Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
[Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
Minn. R. 4605.2100 [Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
[Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
Minn. R. 4605.2200 [Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
[Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
Minn. R. 4605.2300 [Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
[Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
Minn. R. 4605.2400 [Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
[Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
Minn. R. 4605.2500 [Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
[Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
Minn. R. 4605.2600 [Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
[Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
Minn. R. 4605.2700 [Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
[Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
Minn. R. 4605.2800 [Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
[Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
Minn. R. 4605.2900 [Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
[Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
Minn. R. 4605.3000 [Renumbered 4720.3910]
[Renumbered 4720.3910]
Minn. R. 4605.3100 [Renumbered 4605.7900]
[Renumbered 4605.7900]
Minn. R. 4605.3200 [Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
[Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
Minn. R. 4605.3300 [Renumbered 4605.8000]
[Renumbered 4605.8000]
Minn. R. 4605.3400 [Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
[Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
Minn. R. 4605.3500 [Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
[Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
Minn. R. 4605.3600 [Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
[Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
Minn. R. 4605.3700 [Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
[Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
Minn. R. 4605.3800 [Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
[Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
Minn. R. 4605.3900 [Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
[Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
Minn. R. 4605.4000 [Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
[Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
Minn. R. 4605.4100 [Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
[Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
Minn. R. 4605.4200 [Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
[Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
Minn. R. 4605.4300 [Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
[Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
Minn. R. 4605.4400 [Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
[Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
Minn. R. 4605.4500 [Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
[Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
Minn. R. 4605.4600 [Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
[Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
Minn. R. 4605.4700 [Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
[Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
Minn. R. 4605.4800 [Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
[Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
Minn. R. 4605.4900 [Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
[Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
Minn. R. 4605.5000 [Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
[Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
Minn. R. 4605.5100 [Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
[Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
Minn. R. 4605.5200 [Renumbered 4605.7701]
[Renumbered 4605.7701]
Minn. R. 4605.5300 [Renumbered 4605.7702]
[Renumbered 4605.7702]
Minn. R. 4605.5400 Repealed by subpart
Subpart 1.
[Repealed by amendment, L 1977 c 305 s 39]
Subp. 2.
[Renumbered 4605.7703, subpart 1]
Subp. 3.
[Renumbered 4605.7703, subp. 2]
Subp. 4.
[Renumbered 4605.7703, subp. 3]
Subp. 5.
[Renumbered 4605.7703, subp. 4]
Subp. 6.
[Renumbered 4605.7703, subp. 5]
Minn. R. 4605.5500 [Renumbered 4605.7704]
[Renumbered 4605.7704]
Minn. R. 4605.5600 [Renumbered 4605.7705]
[Renumbered 4605.7705]
Minn. R. 4605.5700 [Renumbered 4605.7706]
[Renumbered 4605.7706]
Minn. R. 4605.5800 [Renumbered 4605.7707]
[Renumbered 4605.7707]
Minn. R. 4605.5900 [Renumbered 4605.7708]
[Renumbered 4605.7708]
Minn. R. 4605.6000 [Renumbered 4605.7709]
[Renumbered 4605.7709]
Minn. R. 4605.6100 [Renumbered 4605.7710]
[Renumbered 4605.7710]
Minn. R. 4605.6200 [Renumbered 4605.7711]
[Renumbered 4605.7711]
Minn. R. 4605.6300 [Renumbered 4605.7712]
[Renumbered 4605.7712]
Minn. R. 4605.6400 [Renumbered 4605.7713]
[Renumbered 4605.7713]
Minn. R. 4605.6500 [Renumbered 4605.7714]
[Renumbered 4605.7714]
Minn. R. 4605.6600 [Renumbered 4605.7715]
[Renumbered 4605.7715]
Minn. R. 4605.7000 Definitions
Subpart 1. Case.
"Case" means a person or deceased person infected with a particular infectious agent or having a particular disease diagnosed by a health care practitioner.
Subp. 2. Carrier.
"Carrier" means a person or deceased person identified as harboring a specific infectious agent and who serves as a potential source of infection.
Subp. 3. Clinical materials.
"Clinical materials" means:
A. a clinical isolate containing the infectious agent for which submission of material is required; or
B. if an isolate is not available, material containing the infectious agent for which submission of material is required, in the following order of preference:
Subp. 4. Commissioner.
"Commissioner" means the state commissioner of health or authorized officers, employees, or agents of the Minnesota Department of Health.
Subp. 4a. Community health board.
"Community health board" means authorized administrators, officers, agents, or employees of the county, multicounty, or city organized under Minnesota Statutes, sections 145A.03 to 145A.11.
Subp. 5. Contact.
"Contact" means a person who may have been exposed to a case, suspected case, or carrier in a manner that could place the person at risk of acquiring the infection based on known or suspected modes of transmission.
Subp. 6. Critical illness.
"Critical illness" means the condition of a person who is hospitalized in an intensive care unit or who is critically ill in the judgment of a licensed health care provider.
Subp. 6a. Health care practitioner.
"Health care practitioner" means a Minnesota-licensed doctor of medicine, a Minnesota-licensed physician assistant acting within the scope of authorized practice, or a Minnesota-licensed advanced practice registered nurse or a certified nurse midwife who has the primary responsibility for the care and treatment of a person diagnosed with a disease that is reportable under this chapter.
Subp. 7. Infection preventionist.
"Infection preventionist " means a person designated by a hospital, nursing home, medical clinic, or other health care facility as having responsibility for prevention, detection, reporting, and control of infections within the facility.
Subp. 8. Isolation.
"Isolation" means the separation, for the period of communicability, of an infected person from others in places and under the condition as to prevent or limit the direct or indirect transmission of the infectious agent to those who are susceptible or to those who may spread the agent to others.
Subp. 9.
[Repealed, 41 SR 829]
Subp. 10. Medical laboratory.
"Medical laboratory" means a facility that receives, forwards, or analyzes specimens of original material from the human body, or referred cultures of specimens obtained from the human body, and reports the results to a health care practitioner who uses the data for purposes of patient care.
Subp. 11.
[Repealed, 41 SR 829]
Subp. 12. Sentinel surveillance.
"Sentinel surveillance" means monitoring a disease or syndrome through reporting of cases, suspected cases, and carriers and submission of clinical materials by selected sites under part 4605.7046.
Subp. 12a. Submitter.
"Submitter" means a health care practitioner, a medical or veterinary laboratory, a veterinarian, a medical examiner or coroner, or any other individual or entity that is required to submit clinical materials to the Minnesota Department of Health under this chapter.
Subp. 13. Suspected case.
"Suspected case" means a person or deceased person having a condition or illness in which the signs and symptoms resemble those of a recognized disease.
Subp. 14. Veterinarian.
"Veterinarian" means a person who is licensed by the Minnesota Board of Veterinary Medicine to practice veterinary medicine.
Subp. 15. Public health hazard.
"Public health hazard" means the presence of an infectious agent or condition in the environment which endangers the health of a specified population.
Subp. 16. Working day.
"Working day" means Monday through Friday, excluding any holiday as defined under Minnesota Statutes, section 645.44, subdivision 5.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.072; 144.0742; 144.12; 144.122
- History: 9 SR 2584; L 1987 c 309 s 24,26; L 1991 c 106 s 6; 20 SR 858; 30 SR 247; L 2015 c 21 art 1 s 109; 41 SR 829; 43 SR 415; 49 SR 329
Minn. R. 4605.7010 Purpose
This chapter establishes a process and assigns responsibility for reporting, investigating, and controlling disease.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.072; 144.0742; 144.12; 144.122
- History: 9 SR 2584; 20 SR 858
Minn. R. 4605.7020 Applicability
This chapter applies to cases, suspected cases, carriers, and deaths from communicable diseases and syndromes, reporting of disease, and disease control.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.072; 144.0742; 144.12; 144.122
- History: 9 SR 2584; 20 SR 858; 30 SR 247
Minn. R. 4605.7030 Persons Required to Report Disease
Subpart 1. Health care practitioner.
When attending a case, suspected case, carrier, or death from any of the diseases in part 4605.7040 or a pregnancy under part 4605.7044, a health care practitioner shall report to the commissioner according to part 4605.7040 or 4605.7044, unless previously reported, the information specified in part 4605.7090.
Subp. 2. Health care facilities.
Hospitals, nursing homes, medical clinics, or other health care facilities shall designate that all individual health care practitioners report as specified in subpart 1; or the health care facility shall designate an infection preventionist or other person as responsible to report to the commissioner, according to part 4605.7040 or 4605.7044, knowledge of a case, suspected case, carrier, or death from any of the diseases and syndromes in part 4605.7040 or a pregnancy under part 4605.7044, and the information specified in part 4605.7090.
Subp. 3. Medical laboratories.
A. All medical laboratories shall provide to the commissioner, within one working day of completion, the results of microbiologic cultures, examinations, immunologic assays for the presence of antigens and antibodies, and any other laboratory tests, which are indicative of the presence of any of the diseases in part 4605.7040 and the information specified in part 4605.7090 as is known.
B. All medical laboratories shall forward to the Minnesota Department of Health, Public Health Laboratory, all clinical materials specified in this chapter upon a positive laboratory finding for the disease or condition, or upon request of the commissioner in relation to a case or suspected case reported under this chapter.
C. All medical laboratories that perform genetic sequencing for any diseases in parts 4605.7040, 4605.7046, 4605.7050, 4605.7070, and 4605.7080 shall submit sequence data to the Minnesota Department of Health Public Health Laboratory upon request of the commissioner in an electronic format specified by the commissioner.
D. All laboratories must report to the Minnesota Department of Health the results of all CD4+ lymphocyte counts and percents and the results of all HIV, hepatitis B, and hepatitis C viral detection laboratory tests.
E. If a medical laboratory forwards clinical materials out of state for testing, the originating medical laboratory retains the duty to comply with this subpart, either by:
Subp. 4. Comprehensive reports.
An institution, facility, or clinic, staffed by health care practitioners and having medical laboratories that are required to report, as in subparts 1, 2, and 3, except subpart 3, item C, may upon written notification to the commissioner designate a single person or group of persons to report cases, suspected cases, carriers, deaths, or results of medical laboratory cultures, examinations, and assays for any of the diseases listed in part 4605.7040 or a pregnancy under part 4605.7044 to the commissioner.
Subp. 5. Veterinarians and veterinary medical laboratories.
The commissioner of health shall, under the following circumstances, request certain reports of clinical diagnosis of disease in animals, reports of laboratory tests on animals, and clinical materials from animals:
A. the disease is common to both animals and humans;
B. the disease may be transmitted directly or indirectly to and between humans and animals;
C. the persons who are afflicted with the disease are likely to suffer complications, disability, or death as a result; and
D. investigation based upon veterinarian and veterinary medical laboratory reports will assist in the prevention and control of disease among humans.
Subp. 6. Others.
Unless previously reported, it shall be the duty of every other licensed health care provider who provides care to any patient who has or is suspected of having any of the diseases listed in part 4605.7040 or a pregnancy under part 4605.7044 to report to the commissioner, according to part 4605.7040 or 4605.7044, as much of the information specified in part 4605.7090 as is known.
Subp. 7. Out of state testing.
Persons and entities that are required to report under subpart 1, 2, or 6 and that send clinical materials out of state for testing are responsible for ensuring that results are reported and clinical materials are submitted to the commissioner as required under this chapter.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.072; 144.0742; 144.12; 144.122
- History: 9 SR 2584; 20 SR 858; 30 SR 247; 35 SR 1967; 41 SR 829; 49 SR 329
Minn. R. 4605.7040 Disease and Reports; Clinical Materials Submissions
Persons required to report under this chapter shall report to the commissioner cases, suspected cases, carriers, and deaths due to the following diseases and infectious agents. When submission of clinical materials is required under this part, submissions shall be made to the Minnesota Department of Health, Public Health Laboratory.
A. Diseases reportable immediately by telephone to the commissioner:
B. Diseases reportable within one working day:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.072; 144.0742; 144.12; 144.122
- History: 9 SR 2584; 20 SR 858; 30 SR 247; 41 SR 829; 43 SR 415; 49 SR 329
Minn. R. 4605.7041 Clinical Materials Submission Modification
Subpart 1. Modification due to circumstances or situations.
The commissioner may modify clinical materials submission requirements under part 4605.7040 if the commissioner determines that one of the following circumstances exists and the modification does not risk the public's health. The circumstances are:
A. laboratory testing methods or capabilities are not sufficient or adequate to determine the presence of the pathogen of concern;
B. surveillance needs have changed; or
C. evolving pathogen knowledge indicates that either the pathogen is no longer a concern or advances in diagnostic testing provide the necessary information to public health.
Subp. 2. Notification.
The commissioner must issue an order that notifies submitters that the commissioner is altering normal submission requirements under part 4605.7040. The commissioner's order must identify the circumstance in subpart 1 that warrants the suspension, the need for different submission requirements, and the situation-specific directions for clinical submission necessary to correct the situation. The directions must identify the following:
A. the submissions of clinical materials that are suspended entirely, if any; or
B. the reduced number of clinical materials that must be submitted; and
C. other specific changes in required procedures that correspond to the altered requirements.
Subp. 3. Removal of modification.
The commissioner must issue an order rescinding the modified procedures when the criteria for the circumstances no longer apply.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12
- History: 43 SR 415
Minn. R. 4605.7042 [Repealed, 41 SR 829]
[Repealed, 41 SR 829]
Minn. R. 4605.7044 Chronic Infections; Perinatally Transmissible
Pregnancy in a person chronically infected with hepatitis B, hepatitis C, human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection, including acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), or other reportable perinatally transmissible diseases shall be reported to the commissioner within one working day of knowledge of the pregnancy.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12
- History: 30 SR 247; 49 SR 329
Minn. R. 4605.7046 Sentinel Surveillance
Subpart 1. Disease selection.
The commissioner may select an infectious disease or syndrome for sentinel surveillance, other than a disease or syndrome for which general reporting is required under this chapter, if the commissioner determines that sentinel surveillance will provide adequate data for epidemiological purposes and the surveillance is necessary for:
A. characterization of the pathogen;
B. monitoring vaccine effectiveness; or
C. achieving other significant public health purposes for a disease or syndrome that can cause serious morbidity or mortality.
Subp. 2. Site selection.
The commissioner shall select, after consultation with the sites, sentinel surveillance sites that have epidemiological significance to each disease or syndrome selected under subpart 1. In selecting the sites, the commissioner shall consider:
A. the potential number of cases at the site;
B. the geographic distribution of cases or potential cases in Minnesota, if indicated by the epidemiology of the disease or syndrome;
C. the epidemiology of the disease or syndrome; and
D. the overall impact of sentinel surveillance on a site and the benefit to public health in conducting sentinel surveillance at the site.
Subp. 3. Removal from sentinel surveillance.
The commissioner shall remove a disease or syndrome from sentinel surveillance under this part if the commissioner determines that the disease or syndrome no longer meets the criteria in subpart 1.
Subp. 4. Surveillance mechanism.
The commissioner shall provide a description, in writing, to sentinel surveillance sites of a specific, planned mechanism for surveillance of the disease or syndrome, including the rationale for site selection, a time frame for reporting, and protocols for the submission of test results and clinical materials from cases and suspected cases to the Minnesota Department of Health, Public Health Laboratory.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12
- History: 30 SR 247
Minn. R. 4605.7050 Unusual Case Incidence
Subpart 1. Cases, suspected cases, or increased incidence.
Any pattern of cases, suspected cases, or increased incidence of any illness beyond the expected number of cases in a given period, which may indicate a newly recognized infectious agent, an outbreak, epidemic, emerging drug resistance, or public health hazard, including suspected or confirmed outbreaks of food or waterborne disease, epidemic viral gastroenteritis, and any disease known or presumed to be transmitted by transfusion of blood or blood products, shall be reported immediately by telephone, by the person having knowledge, to the commissioner.
Subp. 2. Unexplained death or critical illness.
An unexplained death or unexplained critical illness in a previously healthy individual that may be caused by an infectious agent shall be reported by the attending health care practitioner, medical examiner or coroner, or by the person having knowledge about the death or illness to the commissioner within one day.
Subp. 2a. Disease report information.
The persons reporting under subparts 1 and 2 shall report the name and date of birth of the individual who is the case, suspected case, or decedent, and report all other information listed under part 4605.7090 that is known.
Subp. 3. Submissions.
Upon request of the commissioner, medical laboratories shall submit test results and clinical materials for cases and suspected cases reported under subparts 1 and 2 to the Minnesota Department of Health, Public Health Laboratory.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.072; 144.0742; 144.12; 144.122
- History: 9 SR 2584; 20 SR 858; 30 SR 247; 41 SR 829; 49 SR 329
Minn. R. 4605.7060 Cases, Suspected Cases, Carriers, and Deaths Due to Disease Acquired Outside the State
A health care practitioner shall report to the commissioner cases, suspected cases, carriers, and deaths due to any infectious disease that a health care practitioner determines has been acquired outside the state and that is considered:
A. rare or unusual in Minnesota; or
B. a public health problem in the geographic area of presumed acquisition.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.072; 144.0742; 144.12; 144.122
- History: 9 SR 2584; 20 SR 858; 30 SR 247; 41 SR 829
Minn. R. 4605.7070 Other Reports
It shall be the duty of any person in charge of any institution, school, child care facility or camp, or any other person having knowledge of any disease which may threaten the public health, to report immediately the name and date of birth of a person or deceased person suspected of having the disease to the commissioner and other information listed under part 4605.7090 that the commissioner determines is necessary to investigate or control the disease.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.0742; 144.12
- History: 9 SR 2584; 30 SR 247; 49 SR 329
Minn. R. 4605.7075 Tuberculosis; Special Reporting
A health care practitioner or other person required to report under part 4605.7030 or Minnesota Statutes, section 144.4804, shall within one working day report to the commissioner of health the name, address, and essential facts of the case if the health care practitioner or other person required to report under part 4605.7030 or Minnesota Statutes, section 144.4804, has reason to believe that a person with active pulmonary tuberculosis:
A. refuses treatment for active tuberculosis; or
B. has not complied with prescribed therapy for active tuberculosis.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.072; 144.12; 144.122
- History: 20 SR 858; 30 SR 247; 41 SR 829
Minn. R. 4605.7080 New Diseases and Syndromes; Reporting and Submissions
Subpart 1. Disease selection.
The commissioner shall, by public notice, require reporting of newly recognized or emerging diseases and syndromes suspected to be of infectious origin or previously controlled or eradicated infectious diseases if:
A. the disease or syndrome can cause serious morbidity or mortality; and
B. report of the disease or syndrome is necessary to monitor, prevent, or control the disease or syndrome to protect public health.
Subp. 2. Surveillance mechanism.
The commissioner shall describe a specific, planned mechanism for surveillance of the disease or syndrome including persons and entities required to report, a time frame for reporting, and protocols for the submission of test results and clinical materials from cases and suspected cases to the Minnesota Department of Health, Public Health Laboratory.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.072; 144.0742; 144.12; 144.122
- History: 9 SR 2584; 20 SR 858; 30 SR 247
Minn. R. 4605.7090 Disease Report Information
Reports that are required under this chapter shall contain as much of the following information as is known:
A. disease (whether a case, suspected case, carrier, or death);
B. date of first symptoms;
C. primary signs and symptoms;
D. patient:
E. date of report;
F. health care practitioner name, address, and telephone number;
G. name of hospital (if any);
H. name of person reporting (if not health care practitioner);
I. diagnostic laboratory findings and dates of tests;
J. name and locating information of contacts (if any);
K. vaccination history for the disease reported;
L. pregnancy status and expected date of delivery, if the infection can be transmitted during pregnancy or delivery; and
M. other information pertinent to the case.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.072; 144.0742; 144.12; 144.122
- History: 9 SR 2584; 20 SR 858; 30 SR 247; 41 SR 829
Minn. R. 4605.7100 Reports to Community Health Boards
Upon receipt of information or other knowledge of a case, suspected case, carrier, or death or any disease or report required under this chapter, the community health board as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 145A.02, subdivision 5, shall immediately forward same to the commissioner.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.0742; 144.12
- History: 9 SR 2584; L 1987 c 309 s 24; 30 SR 247; L 2015 c 21 art 1 s 109
Minn. R. 4605.7200 Records of Disease
The commissioner shall maintain records of reports of cases, suspected cases, carriers, and deaths for the disease reports required in this section and shall prepare statewide summary information which shall be made available for each community health board as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 145A.02, subdivision 5, on request.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.0742; 144.12
- History: 9 SR 2584; L 1987 c 309 s 24; L 2015 c 21 art 1 s 109
Minn. R. 4605.7300 Copies of Disease Reports
Community health boards operating under agreements in part 4735.0110, subpart 2, shall be forwarded copies of all disease reports and information received by the commissioner which pertain to the jurisdiction and biennial agreement between the commissioner and the community health board as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 145A.02, subdivision 5.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.0742; 144.12
- History: 9 SR 2584; L 1987 c 309 s 24; L 2015 c 21 art 1 s 109
Minn. R. 4605.7400 Prevention of Disease Spread
Subpart 1. Isolation.
The health care practitioner attending a case, suspected case, or carrier (or in the absence of a health care practitioner, the commissioner) shall make certain that isolation precautions are taken to prevent spread of disease to others.
Subp. 2. Report of noncompliance.
A health care practitioner shall report immediately to the commissioner the name, address, and other pertinent information for all cases, suspected cases, and carriers who refuse to comply with prescribed isolation precautions. The commissioner shall then seek injunctive relief under Minnesota Statutes, section 145.075, if the person represents a public health hazard.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.0742; 144.12
- History: 9 SR 2584; 41 SR 829
Minn. R. 4605.7500 Disease Investigations
The commissioner shall investigate the occurrence of cases, suspected cases, or carriers of reportable diseases or unusual disease occurrences in a public or private place for the purpose of verification of the existence of disease, ascertaining the source of the disease causing agent, identifying unreported cases, locating and evaluating contacts of cases and suspected cases by assessing relevant risk factors and testing and treatment history, identifying those at risk of disease, determining necessary control measures, and informing the public if necessary.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.0742; 144.12
- History: 9 SR 2584; 30 SR 247
Minn. R. 4605.7600 [Repealed, 20 SR 858]
[Repealed, 20 SR 858]
Minn. R. 4605.7700 Sexually Transmitted Disease; Special Reports
The following special reports in items A to D shall be given by health care practitioners to the commissioner.
A. Notwithstanding any previous report, a health care practitioner who has reason to believe that a person having chlamydial infection, syphilis, gonorrhea, or chancroid has not completed therapy shall notify the commissioner immediately of that person's name, address, and other pertinent information.
B. Notwithstanding any previous report, a health care practitioner who treats persons infected with chlamydial infection, syphilis, gonorrhea, or chancroid shall ensure that contacts are treated or provide the names and addresses of contacts who may also be infected to the commissioner. If known, persons named as contacts to a person with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection, including acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), shall be reported to the commissioner.
C. Notwithstanding any previous report, a health care practitioner shall immediately report to the commissioner the name, address, and essential facts of the case for any person known to have or suspected of having chlamydial infection, syphilis, gonorrhea, or chancroid who refuses treatment.
D. If resources are available, the commissioner may authorize specific outpatient or inpatient facilities to report cases of specific sexually transmitted diseases and clinical syndromes in addition to those specified in part 4605.7040. The diseases and clinical syndromes to be reported shall include urethritis in males, pelvic inflammatory disease, genital herpes simplex infection, ectopic pregnancy, and other sexually transmitted disease as requested by the commissioner.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.072; 144.0742; 144.12; 144.122
- History: 9 SR 2584; 20 SR 858; 30 SR 247; 41 SR 829
Minn. R. 4605.7701 [Repealed, 20 SR 858]
[Repealed, 20 SR 858]
Minn. R. 4605.7702 [Repealed, 20 SR 858]
[Repealed, 20 SR 858]
Minn. R. 4605.7703 [Repealed, 20 SR 858]
[Repealed, 20 SR 858]
Minn. R. 4605.7704 [Repealed, 20 SR 858]
[Repealed, 20 SR 858]
Minn. R. 4605.7705 [Repealed, 20 SR 858]
[Repealed, 20 SR 858]
Minn. R. 4605.7706 [Repealed, 20 SR 858]
[Repealed, 20 SR 858]
Minn. R. 4605.7707 [Repealed, 20 SR 858]
[Repealed, 20 SR 858]
Minn. R. 4605.7708 [Repealed, 20 SR 858]
[Repealed, 20 SR 858]
Minn. R. 4605.7709 [Repealed, 20 SR 858]
[Repealed, 20 SR 858]
Minn. R. 4605.7710 [Repealed, 20 SR 858]
[Repealed, 20 SR 858]
Minn. R. 4605.7711 [Repealed, 20 SR 858]
[Repealed, 20 SR 858]
Minn. R. 4605.7712 [Repealed, 20 SR 858]
[Repealed, 20 SR 858]
Minn. R. 4605.7713 [Repealed, 20 SR 858]
[Repealed, 20 SR 858]
Minn. R. 4605.7714 [Repealed, 20 SR 858]
[Repealed, 20 SR 858]
Minn. R. 4605.7715 [Repealed, 20 SR 858]
[Repealed, 20 SR 858]
Minn. R. 4605.7800 Health Education
Health care providers working with patients having chlamydial infection, syphilis, gonorrhea, chancroid, or human immunodeficiency virus infection (HIV), including acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), shall tell the patients how to prevent the spread of the infection and inform them of the importance of complying with treatment instructions and of the need to have all relevant contacts promptly tested and treated for the infection.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.072; 144.0742; 144.12; 144.122
- History: 9 SR 2584; 20 SR 858; 30 SR 247
Minn. R. 4605.7900 Ophthalmia Neonatorum
Subpart 1. Definition.
Any condition of the eye or eyes of an infant, independent of the nature of the infection, in which there is any inflammation, swelling, or redness in either one or both eyes of any such infant, either apart from, or together with, any unnatural discharge from the eye or eyes of any such infant within two weeks of the birth of such infant, shall be known as ophthalmia neonatorum.
Subp. 2. Prophylaxis.
The licensed health professional in charge of the delivery at the time of the birth of any newborn infant shall instill or have instilled, within one hour of birth or as soon as possible thereafter, a one percent solution of silver nitrate, or tetracycline ointment or drops, or erythromycin ointment or drops.
Subp. 3. Treatment.
A licensed health professional who is not a licensed health care practitioner but who is in charge of the care of a newborn infant shall immediately bring to the attention of a licensed health care practitioner every case in which symptoms of inflammation develop in one or both eyes of an infant in his or her care.
Subp. 4. Objections.
If a parent objects or both parents object to the prophylactic treatment of a newborn infant and the health professional has honored the objection, the health professional shall retain a record of the objection.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12
- History: 9 SR 2584; 41 SR 829
Minn. R. 4605.8000 [Repealed, 13 SR 528]
[Repealed, 13 SR 528]
Chapter 4606 CANCER SURVEILLANCE SYSTEM
Minn. R. 4606.3300 Purpose
The purpose of parts 4606.3300 to 4606.3309 is to establish a process and assign responsibility for:
A. collecting data on the occurrence and outcomes of cancer in the state; and
B. investigating the occurrence of cancer.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.671 to 144.69; 144.672
- History: 13 SR 528; 36 SR 615
Minn. R. 4606.3301 Scope
Parts 4606.3300 to 4606.3309 apply generally to the diagnosis of, reporting of, and epidemiologic studies of cancer; and scientific research on the treatment and prevention of cancer.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.671 to 144.69
- History: 13 SR 528
Minn. R. 4606.3302 Definitions
Subpart 1. Abstract.
"Abstract" means an electronic record, in a format specified by the commissioner, which contains the information required in part 4606.3304.
Subp. 2. Attending physician.
"Attending physician" means the physician who provides primary clinical care for the cancer case.
Subp. 3. Cancer.
"Cancer" means:
A. malignant and in situ neoplasms of all sites, except:
B. basal and squamous cell carcinomas of the genitalia; and
C. all brain and central nervous system neoplasms regardless of malignancy.
Subp. 3a. Cancer registry.
"Cancer registry" means a collection of cancer data on patients that is maintained as an identified repository of such data for or within any hospital, medical clinic, or centralized institution.
Subp. 4. Case.
"Case" means any Minnesota resident, living or deceased, having a cancer diagnosed by a physician or dentist.
Subp. 5. Case report.
"Case report" means a complete report of a diagnosis of cancer, which has been made by a physician or dentist. At a minimum, this shall consist of source documents that contain all or as much as is known of the information required in part 4606.3304.
Subp. 6. Commissioner.
"Commissioner" means the state commissioner of health, or the commissioner's authorized officers, or employees.
Subp. 7. Demographic form.
"Demographic form" means the front page of a hospital medical record, the hospital business office form, or the pathology specimen submission slip that contains the demographic information required in part 4606.3304 for cases.
Subp. 8. Dentist.
"Dentist" means any person who is licensed by the Minnesota Board of Dentistry to practice dentistry.
Subp. 9.
[Repealed, 36 SR 615]
Subp. 10. Epidemiologic studies.
"Epidemiologic studies" means the compilation of data on health and disease, its scientific analysis to determine the distribution and causes of health problems in populations, and the application of this study to the control of health problems.
Subp. 11. Hospital.
"Hospital" means any institution licensed as such by the commissioner under Minnesota Statutes, section 144.50.
Subp. 12. Medical clinic.
"Medical clinic" means any institution staffed by one or more physicians where diseases of human beings are diagnosed.
Subp. 13. Medical laboratory or pathology laboratory.
"Medical laboratory" or "pathology laboratory" means any facility that reports the results of examinations of organ tissue, cells, or blood specimens from the human body for cancer to physicians who use the reports for purposes of diagnosis or patient care.
Subp. 14. Minnesota resident.
"Minnesota resident" means a person who provides a permanent address within the borders of the state at the time of cancer diagnosis. In the case of minors, residency shall be determined as that of the parent or legal guardian. This does not mean that Minnesota is the person's legal residence or voting residence.
Subp. 15. Physician.
"Physician" means a person who is licensed by the Minnesota Board of Medical Practice to practice medicine.
Subp. 16. Reporting entity.
"Reporting entity" means the individual or operational unit within an institution such as a medical laboratory, hospital, clinic, or cancer registry, designated by the institution to submit case reports required by parts 4606.3300 to 4606.3309.
Subp. 17. Source documents.
"Source documents" means copies of the demographic forms and the portions of a medical record, including pathology laboratory reports that contain the information required in part 4606.3304 for cases.
Subp. 18.
[Repealed, 36 SR 615]
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.671 to 144.69; 144.672
- History: 13 SR 528; L 1991 c 106 s 6; 21 SR 1406; 36 SR 615
Minn. R. 4606.3303 Comprehensive Reports of Cancer
Subpart 1. Cancer registries.
Cancer registries shall forward by first class mail, by messenger, or by electronic means, case reports to the commissioner within 15 working days of the date the patient's record in the cancer registry was completed.
Subp. 2. Medical laboratories.
Medical laboratories shall forward by first class mail, by messenger, or by electronic means, case reports to the commissioner for all cases of cancer within 15 working days of the date of diagnosis.
Subp. 3. Hospitals and medical clinics.
Hospitals and medical clinics shall forward by first class mail, by messenger, or by electronic means, case reports to the commissioner for all cases of cancer diagnosed in the institution within 15 working days of the date of diagnosis.
Subp. 4. Physicians and dentists.
A. Physicians and dentists who diagnose cancer in humans shall forward by first class mail, by messenger, or by electronic means, case reports to the commissioner within 15 working days of the date of diagnosis.
B. A physician or dentist is exempted from item A if the physician or dentist (i) is working within a hospital, medical clinic, or medical laboratory required to report by this part, (ii) knows the case was admitted to a hospital required to report by this part, or (iii) has received, from a medical laboratory required to report by this part, a written report indicating the presence of cancer in the case.
Subp. 5. Designating a reporting entity.
Alternatively, cancer registries, medical laboratories, hospitals, medical clinics, or any combination of these within or as part of an institution, may notify the commissioner of the identity of a reporting entity to report on behalf of the institution and as such shall meet the requirements of cancer reporting under subparts 1 to 4.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.671 to 144.69; 144.672
- History: 13 SR 528; 36 SR 615
Minn. R. 4606.3304 Reports
Subpart 1. Case information.
Reports of case information that are required in part 4606.3303 must consist of source documents and contain as much of the following information as is known:
A. patient identifiers, including Social Security number, and demographics;
B. provider and facility information;
C. cancer diagnostic information;
D. extent of disease and other prognostic factor information;
E. first course of cancer-directed treatment;
F. follow-up information; and
G. other information as needed for system administration.
Subp. 1a. Data items.
The commissioner shall, at least once per year and by publication in the State Register and electronic notice on the Minnesota Cancer Reporting System website, provide a list of the data items to be reported under part 4606.3303, subpart 1, and specify the format to be used for electronic reports. The list will be revised according to national cancer reporting standards.
Subp. 1b. Reporting standards.
The following guides and standards for reporting the information required in subparts 1 and 1a are incorporated by reference and are available through the Minitex interlibrary loan system. They are also available electronically as specified in items A and D.
A. Standards for Cancer Registries: Volume II, Data Standards and Data Dictionary, Fourteenth Edition Record Layout Version 12 (2010), and subsequent editions; and Volume V, Electronic Pathology Reporting Standards, Version 3.0 (2009) and subsequent editions; North American Association of Central Cancer Registries (NAACCR), Springfield, Illinois. NAACCR reporting standards are updated frequently and are published electronically at www.naaccr.org.
B. Summary Staging Guide, Cancer Surveillance Epidemiology and End Results Reporting, SEER Program (April 1977, reprinted July 1986), published by the National Institutes of Health (NIH), Public Health Service, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, NIH publication number 86-2313 (cancers diagnosed before 2001). The Summary Staging Guide is not subject to frequent change.
C. SEER Summary Staging Manual - 2000 (July 2001), published by the NIH, Public Health Service, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, NIH publication number 01-4969 (cancers diagnosed in 2001 through 2003). The SEER Summary Staging Manual is not subject to frequent change.
D. Collaborative Staging Manual and Coding Instructions version 1.0 and subsequent editions, published by the NIH, Public Health Service, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, NIH publication number 04-5496 (cancers diagnosed in 2004 and later). The Collaborative Staging Manual is subject to frequent change and is published electronically at www.cancerstaging.org/cstage/index.html.
E. Data Acquisition Manual (revised edition September 1994), published by the Commission on Cancer, American College of Surgeons (cancers diagnosed in 1995). The manual is not subject to frequent change.
F. Standards of the Commission on Cancer, Volume II: Registry Operations and Data Standards (ROADS) (1996 and 1998), published by the Commission on Cancer, American College of Surgeons (cancers diagnosed in 1996 through 2002). The manual is not subject to frequent change.
G. Facility Oncology Registry Data Standards (FORDS) (2002 and subsequent editions), published by the Commission on Cancer, American College of Surgeons (cancers diagnosed in 2003 and later). The standards of the Commission on Cancer are changed as often as every year.
H. Manual for Staging of Cancer (4th edition 1992 and subsequent editions), American Joint Commission on Cancer (AJCC), published by J.B. Lippincott Company. The AJCC manual is not subject to frequent change.
I. SEER Program Coding and Staging Manual 2007; Johnson CH, Adamo M (eds.), National Cancer Institute, NIH publication number 07-5581, Bethesda, MD 2007. The SEER manual is not subject to frequent change.
Subp. 2. Abstracts.
Alternatively, reports of case information that are required in part 4606.3303 may consist of completed electronic abstracts and must contain the information required in subpart 1.
Subp. 3. Occupational data.
Hospitals, medical clinics, and physicians shall, upon request of the commissioner, report as much information as is known concerning the occupational history of cancer cases. The commissioner shall by publication in the State Register request reports of such information when the following conditions exist:
A. epidemiologic surveillance and studies based on this information will assist in identifying cancer risks in certain occupational groups; and
B. there is a specific, planned mechanism for the surveillance and epidemiologic study of the cancer related to the occupational group.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.671 to 144.69
- History: 13 SR 528; 21 SR 1406; 36 SR 615; L 2023 c 70 art 4 s 112
Minn. R. 4606.3305 Data Submission
Subpart 1. Completeness.
Every case report shall include, at a minimum, legible source documents or completed abstracts that must contain the data required in part 4606.3304. Electronic abstracts must be submitted in the format required by the commissioner.
Subp. 2. Missing information.
The reporting entity or individual shall, within five working days of notification by the commissioner, supply all missing information, if known, or clarify information submitted in any report required in parts 4606.3303 and 4606.3304.
Subp. 3. Inspection.
For the purpose of assuring the quality and completeness of individual cancer case reports, each reporting entity or individual shall allow the commissioner to inspect the demographic portions of a patient's medical record or medical records related to the diagnosis and treatment of cancer as are necessary to verify the accuracy and completeness of the cancer diagnostic and treatment information and demographic data.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.671 to 144.69; 144.672
- History: 13 SR 528; 21 SR 1406; 36 SR 615
Minn. R. 4606.3306 Physician Consent
Subpart 1. Attempt to obtain consent.
When undertaking epidemiologic studies, the commissioner shall attempt to locate and obtain the consent of the attending physician as identified in the case report before approaching any case named in a report or a personal representative of a deceased case as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 13.10, subdivision 1, paragraph (c).
Subp. 2. Approach without consent.
The commissioner may approach a case named in a report or a personal representative of a deceased case as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 13.10, subdivision 1, paragraph (c), without the consent of the attending physician as identified in the case report in order to conduct epidemiologic investigations if the attending physician is deceased, is no longer licensed in the state, is no longer practicing, cannot otherwise be located, or is no longer caring for the case and is unable to identify the case's current attending physician.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.671 to 144.69; 144.672
- History: 13 SR 528; 36 SR 615
Minn. R. 4606.3307 Authorized Research
Subpart 1. Criteria.
The commissioner of health may enter into contracts to conduct research, using data collected pursuant to parts 4606.3300 to 4606.3309, with public and private research agencies or with individuals who satisfy all of the following criteria:
A. the research proposed to be conducted will assist in improving the diagnosis, treatment, or prevention of cancer and the public health;
B. there is documented evidence that the principal investigator for the research proposed is qualified:
C. there is a written protocol which includes but is not limited to a complete description of:
Subp. 2. Release of information.
Under no circumstances will researchers be provided access to personal identifiers that would allow contact of a patient without attempting to obtain physician consent as described in part 4606.3306. The following personal identifiers will not be released:
A. last name;
B. first name;
C. middle name or initial;
D. address;
E. county of residence; or
F. social security number. No researcher operating under contractual agreement with the commissioner as described in subpart 1 shall release any personal identifier, mark, or description obtained during an investigation that could be used for identification of an institution, a physician, or an individual who is or was the subject of a case report required in part 4606.3303.
Subp. 3. Evaluation of proposals.
The commissioner shall evaluate proposals based upon the criteria in items A to E.
A. The proposed research has social and scientific merit that is directed primarily toward improving the diagnosis, treatment, defining of risks, or prevention of cancer.
B. All coinvestigators are qualified to undertake the proposed research by means of specific academic training or demonstrable, related experience in epidemiology, medical, biomedical, or statistical research.
C. The hypotheses to be tested are explicit, and are determined to be researchable and feasible by the scientific peer review committee described in subpart 4.
D. The methods proposed for testing the hypothesis clearly define:
E. The results of this study will be interpreted so that the findings can be used or generalized to other populations and provide a timely, substantive, and important contribution to the understanding of cancer diagnosis, treatment, or prevention in Minnesota.
Subp. 4. Scientific peer review committee.
To assist in evaluating the scientific merits of proposals for research, the commissioner may appoint up to seven scientists to conduct scientific peer review who are qualified by having:
A. attained the degree of medical doctor, doctor of science, doctor of philosophy, or equivalent degree from an accredited college or university;
B. specific training in medicine, epidemiology, cancer research, or biometry from an accredited college or university; and
C. two or more years of applied experience in epidemiology, medical research, biomedical research, or biometry.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.671 to 144.69
- History: 13 SR 528
Minn. R. 4606.3308 Contracts
Subpart 1. Contracts.
The commissioner may, upon receipt of an application described in this section, contract with any institution or reporting entity in compliance with part 4606.3304 for the following purposes:
A. providing more efficient, expedient, and complete cancer registry and reporting systems for those required to report under part 4606.3303;
B. extending the capability and efficiency of the commissioner to meet the mandate established under Minnesota Statutes, sections 144.671 to 144.69; and
C. maintaining and validating the quality, accuracy, and completeness of cancer case data.
Subp. 2. Notice of availability of funds.
The commissioner shall publish and distribute a notice of availability of funds and request for contract proposals to all hospitals, medical laboratories, tumor registries, and medical clinics required to report under part 4606.3303.
Subp. 3. Content of application.
Applications made under this section shall address all of the following information requirements, including:
A. Full corporate or company name, address, and tax identification number of applicant institution, or in the case of multiple institutions, the full corporate or company name, address, and tax identification number of the principal applicant institution, and the full corporate or company names and addresses of other institutions participating in the application.
B. A description of the individual components of the reporting systems to be provided by the applicant. The quality assurance standards in part 4606.3305 shall be incorporated into all applications. For each component to be provided, the application must describe, but not be limited to:
C. Assurance that services will be provided in accordance with state and federal laws and rules.
D. Assurance that the privacy of all data will be maintained in accordance with law and acceptable medical practice.
Subp. 4. Priority.
Priority will be given to applications proposing to provide cancer reporting systems addressing one or more of the following criteria:
A. the highest quality and completeness of data;
B. services to the greatest number of persons;
C. services to the largest geographic area; and
D. demonstrated capacity to perform on the proposal.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.671 to 144.69
- History: 13 SR 528
Minn. R. 4606.3309 Charges for Data
The commissioner may charge fees for out-of-pocket expenses including hourly employee wages, employee expenses, electronic data processing costs, duplicating, and clerical charges incurred as a result of requests by agencies for summary data compilation or analyses under the following conditions:
A. the agency requesting the summary data is not a community health services agency as defined in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 145;
B. the request requires more than one person hour of time to complete for an employee of the commissioner who is classified as either a programmer/analyst or higher, or an epidemiologist I or higher; and
C. the estimated total out-of-pocket expenses, regardless of person hours needed to satisfy the request, are greater than $50.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.671 to 144.69
- History: 13 SR 528
Chapter 4610 DISPOSITION OF THE DEAD
Minn. R. 4610.0200 [Renumbered 4610.0410]
[Renumbered 4610.0410]
Minn. R. 4610.0300 [Renumbered 4610.0420]
[Renumbered 4610.0420]
Minn. R. 4610.0400 [Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
[Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
Minn. R. 4610.0410 [Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
[Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
Minn. R. 4610.0420 [Repealed, L 2009 c 157 art 1 s 18]
[Repealed, L 2009 c 157 art 1 s 18]
Minn. R. 4610.0500 Repealed by subpart
Subpart 1.
[Repealed, L 2009 c 157 art 1 s 18]
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, L 2009 c 157 art 1 s 18]
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, L 2009 c 157 art 1 s 18]
Subp. 4.
[Repealed, 10 SR 2319]
Subp. 5.
[Repealed, L 2009 c 157 art 1 s 18]
Minn. R. 4610.0600 Repealed by subpart
Subpart 1.
[Repealed, L 2009 c 157 art 1 s 18]
Subp. 2.
[Repealed by amendment, 10 SR 2319]
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, L 2009 c 157 art 1 s 18]
Subp. 4.
[Repealed, L 2009 c 157 art 1 s 18]
Subp. 5.
[Repealed, 10 SR 2319]
Minn. R. 4610.0650 [Repealed, L 2009 c 157 art 1 s 18]
[Repealed, L 2009 c 157 art 1 s 18]
Minn. R. 4610.0700 [Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
[Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
Minn. R. 4610.0800 [Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
[Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
Minn. R. 4610.0900 [Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
[Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
Minn. R. 4610.1000 [Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
[Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
Minn. R. 4610.1100 [Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
[Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
Minn. R. 4610.1200 [Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
[Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
Minn. R. 4610.1300 [Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
[Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
Minn. R. 4610.1400 [Repealed, 10 SR 2319]
[Repealed, 10 SR 2319]
Minn. R. 4610.1500 [Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
[Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
Minn. R. 4610.1550 [Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
[Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
Minn. R. 4610.1600 [Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
[Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
Minn. R. 4610.1700 [Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
[Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
Minn. R. 4610.1800 [Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
[Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
Minn. R. 4610.1900 [Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
[Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
Minn. R. 4610.2000 [Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
[Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
Minn. R. 4610.2100 [Renumbered 4610.2210]
[Renumbered 4610.2210]
Minn. R. 4610.2200 [Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
[Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
Minn. R. 4610.2210 [Repealed, L 1995 c 233 art 3 s 3; L 1995 c 248 art 3 s 3]
[Repealed, L 1995 c 233 art 3 s 3; L 1995 c 248 art 3 s 3]
Minn. R. 4610.2300 Repealed by subpart
Subpart 1.
[Repealed, 10 SR 2319]
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
Subp. 4.
[Repealed by amendment, 10 SR 2319]
Minn. R. 4610.2400 Repealed by subpart
Subpart 1.
[Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
Subp. 1a.
[Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, 10 SR 2319]
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
Subp. 4.
[Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
Subp. 4a.
[Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
Subp. 4b.
[Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
Subp. 5.
[Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
Subp. 6.
[Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
Subp. 6a.
[Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
Subp. 7.
[Repealed, 10 SR 2319]
Subp. 8.
[Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
Subp. 9.
[Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
Subp. 9a.
[Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
Subp. 9b.
[Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
Subp. 10.
[Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
Subp. 10a.
[Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
Subp. 10b.
[Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
Subp. 10c.
[Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
Subp. 11.
[Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
Subp. 12.
[Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
Subp. 12a.
[Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
Subp. 13.
[Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
Subp. 14.
[Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
Minn. R. 4610.2500 [Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
[Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
Minn. R. 4610.2600 [Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
[Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
Minn. R. 4610.2700 [Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
[Repealed, L 1997 c 215 s 46]
Minn. R. 4610.2800 [Repealed, L 2007 c 147 art 9 s 38]
[Repealed, L 2007 c 147 art 9 s 38]
Chapter 4615 MATERNAL AND INFANT HEALTH
Minn. R. 4615.0200 [Repealed, 11 SR 1887]
[Repealed, 11 SR 1887]
Minn. R. 4615.0300 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4615.0400 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4615.0500 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4615.0600 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4615.0700 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4615.0750 Purpose and Scope
The purpose and scope of parts 4615.0750 to 4615.0760 is to describe the responsibilities of the Minnesota Department of Health to assure that persons diagnosed as having hemoglobinopathy, phenylketonuria, galactosemia, hypothyroidism, and/or congenital adrenal hyperplasia will: (1) have access to approved laboratory treatment control tests when available; (2) have necessary financial assistance for treatment of diagnosed cases when indicated; and (3) be included in a registry of cases for the purpose of coordinating follow-up services.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.125; 144.128
- History: 10 SR 2290; 17 SR 1758
Minn. R. 4615.0755 Definitions
Subpart 1. Scope.
For the purpose of parts 4615.0750 to 4615.0760, the following terms have the meanings given them.
Subp. 2. Department.
"Department" means the Minnesota Department of Health.
Subp. 3. Follow-up services.
"Follow-up services" means assisting the patient in accessing appropriate treatment and other services.
Subp. 4.
[Repealed, 17 SR 1758]
Subp. 5. Patient.
"Patient" means the person who has been diagnosed with hemoglobinopathy, phenylketonuria, galactosemia, hypothyroidism, and/or congenital adrenal hyperplasia or the person's parents or legal guardian.
Subp. 6. Physician.
"Physician" means the medical doctor licensed under Minnesota Statutes, chapter 147, who is supervising the ongoing treatment of the patient. The patient may identify more than one such physician.
Subp. 7.
[Repealed, 17 SR 1758]
Subp. 8. Registry.
"Registry" means a permanent record maintained by the department on each patient diagnosed by a physician and reported to the department as having hemoglobinopathy, phenylketonuria, galactosemia, hypothyroidism, and/or congenital adrenal hyperplasia.
Subp. 9. Treatment control test.
"Treatment control test" means a laboratory test to monitor medical treatment in diagnosed patients to assist in the medical management of the patient's metabolic disease.
Subp. 10. Treatment control test specimen.
"Treatment control test specimen" means a specimen of blood or other body fluid collected from a patient.
Subp. 11. Treatment control test specimen kit.
"Treatment control test specimen kit" means a kit containing suitable containers and other materials provided by the department and used to collect and transport a treatment control test specimen.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.125; 144.128
- History: 10 SR 2290; 17 SR 1758
Minn. R. 4615.0760 Responsibilities of Department of Health
Subpart 1. Treatment control test specimen kits.
The department shall develop and make available treatment control test specimen kits to physicians and patients as medically indicated to effectively monitor treatment, and provide the treatment control test specimen kit and the laboratory evaluation of the treatment control test specimen at no cost to the patient.
Subp. 2. Reporting of test results.
The department shall report the laboratory results of the treatment control tests to the physician or patient submitting the treatment control test specimen. If the treatment control test specimen is submitted directly by the patient, the patient shall identify a physician who shall receive a copy of the laboratory results.
Subp. 3. Assistance in obtaining treatment.
The department shall make arrangements for the medically indicated treatment of the metabolic defect in diagnosed cases of hemoglobinopathy, phenylketonuria, galactosemia, hypothyroidism, and/or congenital adrenal hyperplasia when the patient is uninsured or is unable to pay the cost of treatment because of a lack of available income. The arrangements include referral to appropriate agencies which have financial resources to pay for medically indicated treatment such as private health insurance companies, medical assistance, MinnesotaCare, and Services for Children with Disabilities.
Subp. 4. Registry of cases.
The department shall maintain a registry of all diagnosed cases of hemoglobinopathy, phenylketonuria, galactosemia, hypothyroidism, and congenital adrenal hyperplasia reported to the department. The registry shall be updated not more often than annually by direct contact with the patient to determine their address and their need for medical treatment services, educational materials, and counseling related to their metabolic disease. The registry shall include the following minimum data on each patient:
A. name of patient;
B. gender;
C. date of birth;
D. place of birth;
E. parents' names;
F. current address of patient;
G. diagnosis;
H. name and address of physician; and
I. other data the commissioner deems necessary for follow-up services.
Subp. 5. Classification of data.
The department shall treat all data in the registry as private pursuant to Minnesota Statutes, section 13.3805, the Minnesota Government Data Practices Act.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.125; 144.128
- History: 10 SR 2290; 17 SR 1758; L 1995 c 234 art 8 s 56; L 1999 c 227 s 22; L 2005 c 56 s 2
Minn. R. 4615.0800 Procedures for Reporting of Maternal Deaths
Any death associated with pregnancy, including abortion and extrauterine pregnancy, or the puerperium for a period of three months postpartum, whether or not it is the actual cause of death, shall be reported by mail within three days after death to the Minnesota Department of Health, Section of Maternal and Child Health, by the attending physician and by the hospital where the death occurred.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12
Minn. R. 4615.0900 [Repealed, 25 SR 805]
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Minn. R. 4615.1000 [Repealed, 25 SR 805]
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Minn. R. 4615.1100 [Repealed, 25 SR 805]
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Minn. R. 4615.1200 [Repealed, 25 SR 805]
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Minn. R. 4615.1300 [Repealed, 25 SR 805]
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Minn. R. 4615.1400 [Repealed, 25 SR 805]
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Minn. R. 4615.1500 [Repealed, 25 SR 805]
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Minn. R. 4615.1600 [Repealed, 25 SR 805]
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Minn. R. 4615.1700 [Repealed, 25 SR 805]
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Minn. R. 4615.1800 [Repealed, 25 SR 805]
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Minn. R. 4615.1900 [Repealed, 25 SR 805]
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Minn. R. 4615.2000 [Repealed, 25 SR 805]
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Minn. R. 4615.2100 [Repealed, 25 SR 805]
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Minn. R. 4615.2200 Repealed by subpart
Subpart 1.
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Subp. 4.
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Subp. 5.
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Subp. 6.
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Subp. 7.
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Subp. 8.
[Repealed by amendment, L 1977 c 305 s 39]
Subp. 9.
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Subp. 10.
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Subp. 11.
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Subp. 12.
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Subp. 13.
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Subp. 14.
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Subp. 15.
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Subp. 16.
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Subp. 17.
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Subp. 18.
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Subp. 19.
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Subp. 20.
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Subp. 21.
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Subp. 22.
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Subp. 23.
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Subp. 24.
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Subp. 25.
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Subp. 26.
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Minn. R. 4615.2300 [Repealed, 25 SR 805]
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Minn. R. 4615.2400 [Repealed, 25 SR 805]
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Minn. R. 4615.2500 [Repealed, 25 SR 805]
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Minn. R. 4615.2600 [Repealed, 25 SR 805]
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Minn. R. 4615.2700 [Repealed, 25 SR 805]
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Minn. R. 4615.2800 [Repealed, 25 SR 805]
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Minn. R. 4615.2900 [Repealed, 25 SR 805]
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Minn. R. 4615.3000 [Repealed, 25 SR 805]
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Minn. R. 4615.3100 [Repealed, 25 SR 805]
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Minn. R. 4615.3200 [Repealed, 25 SR 805]
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Minn. R. 4615.3300 [Repealed, 25 SR 805]
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Minn. R. 4615.3400 Definitions
Subpart 1. Scope.
The applicable definitions to these rules printed herein from MHD 342 (7 MCAR Section 1.342) are as follows.
Subp. 2. Abortion.
The term "abortion" is not used in these regulations, since it also applies to spontaneous early terminations of pregnancy. These rules do not apply to spontaneous abortions.
Subp. 3. Ambulatory facility.
"Ambulatory facility" shall mean any institution, place or building, or part thereof, including hospital outpatient services, devoted primarily to, as determined by the department, the maintenance and operation of facilities for the performance of procedures designed to terminate a pregnancy on an outpatient basis irrespective of whether the entire structure is devoted primarily to this purpose.
Subp. 4. Termination of pregnancy.
"Termination of pregnancy," "pregnancy termination," or "termination procedure," shall mean administering to a woman any medicine, drug, substance, or thing whatever, or the employment upon her of any instrument or other means whatever, with intent to induce or procure miscarriage of such a woman.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 145.413
Minn. R. 4615.3500 Internal Records of the Ambulatory Facility
The pregnancy termination facility shall keep a signed consent form of each patient undergoing a pregnancy termination procedure.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 145.413
Minn. R. 4615.3600 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 4 s 113]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 4 s 113]
Chapter 4617 WIC PROGRAM
Minn. R. 4617.0002 Definitions
Subpart 1. Scope.
As used in this chapter, the following terms have the meanings given them in this part.
Subp. 2. Agency.
"Agency" means:
A. a public or private, nonprofit health or human service agency;
B. a community health board established pursuant to Minnesota Statutes, chapter 145A;
C. an Indian tribe, band, or group recognized by the United States Department of the Interior which operates a health clinic or is provided health services by an IHS service unit; or
D. an intertribal council or group that is an authorized representative of Indian tribes, bands, or groups recognized by the United States Department of the Interior, which operates a health clinic or is provided health services by an IHS service unit.
Subp. 2a.
[Repealed, 22 SR 266]
Subp. 2a. Applicant.
"Applicant" has the meaning given in Code of Federal Regulations, title 7, section 246.2, as amended.
Subp. 2b. Brand.
"Brand" means, with respect to a food product, the name of a specific food product manufactured by a specific manufacturer.
Subp. 2c.
[Repealed, 29 SR 1202]
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, 29 SR 1202]
Subp. 3a. Business-related violation.
"Business-related violation" means a criminal conviction of a person, or a civil judgment entered against a person, for violating one or more federal or state antitrust statutes, committing embezzlement, fraud, theft, forgery, bribery, or falsification or destruction of records, making one or more false statements, receiving stolen property, making false claims, or obstruction of justice, whether the conviction or judgment is based on a verdict, plea, stipulation, or settlement agreement.
Subp. 3b. Business site.
"Business site" means the specific location, as designated by an address, of the real property where a vendor or vendor applicant operates.
Subp. 3c. Cash-value voucher.
"Cash-value voucher" has the meaning given in Code of Federal Regulations, title 7, section 246.2, as amended. Cash-value voucher includes the legal equivalent of a paper cash-value voucher, such as an electronic form of the cash-value voucher, as defined in the Check 21 Act, Public Law 108-100.
Subp. 3d. Cashier.
"Cashier" means an individual who accepts a voucher or cash-value voucher on behalf of a vendor.
Subp. 4.
[Repealed, 29 SR 1202]
Subp. 5.
[Repealed, 29 SR 1202]
Subp. 5a. Change of vendor location.
"Change of vendor location" means a change in the business site of a vendor by more than one mile.
Subp. 6.
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Subp. 6a. Change of vendor ownership.
"Change of vendor ownership" means a sale or other transaction which results in at least one new owner of a vendor.
Subp. 6b. Check-out lane.
"Check-out lane" means a distinct physical location within the vendor's established business site, with a separate operational cash register capable of generating receipts, where a customer can purchase items.
Subp. 7.
[Repealed, 29 SR 1202]
Subp. 7a. Citrus juice.
"Citrus juice" means orange juice, grapefruit juice, or a combination of orange and grapefruit juices.
Subp. 8. Clinic town.
"Clinic town" means a town or city in which the local agency distributes vouchers and cash-value vouchers to participants and proxies, or where participants are certified, or both.
Subp. 9. Commissioner.
"Commissioner" means the commissioner of the Minnesota Department of Health or the commissioner's designated representative.
Subp. 10. Community health board.
"Community health board" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 145A.02, subdivision 5.
Subp. 11.
[Repealed, 19 SR 2089]
Subp. 12.
[Repealed, 29 SR 1202]
Subp. 12a.
[Repealed, 22 SR 266]
Subp. 12b. Controlling person.
"Controlling person" means any owner or any person who, directly or indirectly, has the power to direct the management or control the activities of the vendor or vendor applicant, including any officer, manager, director, or general partner of the vendor or vendor applicant.
Subp. 13.
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Subp. 14.
[Repealed, 29 SR 1202]
Subp. 14a. Disqualification.
"Disqualification" has the meaning given in Code of Federal Regulations, title 7, section 246.2, as amended.
Subp. 14b. Expired or damaged food.
"Expired or damaged food" means a food item which is in stock and available for purchase after its "sell by," "best if used by," or other date limiting the sale or use of the food item, is dented, rusted, unlabeled or otherwise defective, has become moldy or otherwise spoiled, or has been recalled by the manufacturer.
Subp. 14c. Food assistance program.
"Food assistance program" means the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP), or any other food and consumer service program in Minnesota or in any other state, district, commonwealth or territory of the United States.
Subp. 14d. Food item.
"Food item" means a specific brand, variety, and size of a food product.
Subp. 14e. Food product.
"Food product" means any category of food in part 4617.0067, subpart 3, item A or B, and any other category of food which meets the requirements of Code of Federal Regulations, title 7, section 246.10(c), as amended.
Subp. 14f. Food sales.
"Food sales" has the meaning given in Code of Federal Regulations, title 7, section 246.2, as amended.
Subp. 14g. Health promotion.
"Health promotion" means activities intended to reduce the prevalence of risk conditions or behaviors of individuals or communities for the purpose of preventing chronic disease and effecting other definable advances in health status. These activities include the coordination or provision of community organization, regulation, targeted screening, and education, as well as informational and other scientifically supported interventions to foster health by affecting related conditions and behaviors.
Subp. 15. Health service agency.
"Health service agency" means a public or private nonprofit agency whose primary purpose is to provide services designed to improve and protect an individual's health.
Subp. 16.
[Repealed, 29 SR 1202]
Subp. 16a.
[Repealed, 22 SR 266]
Subp. 17. Human service agency.
"Human service agency" means a public or private nonprofit agency whose primary purpose is to provide services that include correctional, educational, employment, mental health, or social services.
Subp. 17a. IHS.
"IHS" means the Indian Health Service of the United States Department of Health and Human Services.
Subp. 17b. Incentives.
"Incentives" means goods or services, in addition to the food products specified on a voucher or cash-value voucher, offered or provided to a WIC customer who redeems a voucher or cash-value voucher at a particular vendor.
Subp. 18.
[Repealed, 29 SR 1202]
Subp. 19.
[Repealed, 29 SR 1202]
Subp. 19a. Infant formula.
"Infant formula" means any food item formulated to replace human breast milk. The term infant formula includes the formulas approved by the commissioner under part 4617.0171 and all special infant formulas.
Subp. 19b. Launder.
"Launder" means to receive, transact, or redeem a voucher or cash-value voucher outside of authorized channels and includes redeeming a voucher or cash-value voucher accepted at a store that is not authorized as a WIC vendor, accepting a voucher or cash-value voucher at a place other than an established check-out lane at the vendor's business site, accepting or redeeming a voucher or cash-value voucher from any source other than a WIC customer, and accepting a voucher or cash-value voucher that is then redeemed through another vendor.
Subp. 20.
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Subp. 21. Local agency.
"Local agency" has the meaning given it in Code of Federal Regulations, title 7, section 246.2, as amended.
Subp. 22.
[Repealed, 29 SR 1202]
Subp. 23. Migrant farmworker.
"Migrant farmworker" has the meaning given it in Code of Federal Regulations, title 7, section 246.2, as amended.
Subp. 24.
[Repealed, 29 SR 1202]
Subp. 25.
[Repealed, 29 SR 1202]
Subp. 26.
[Repealed, 29 SR 1202]
Subp. 27.
[Repealed, 29 SR 1202]
Subp. 28.
[Repealed, 29 SR 1202]
Subp. 28a. Owner.
"Owner" means any person who, directly or indirectly, beneficially owns a 20 percent or greater interest in any vendor or vendor applicant, or in any partnership, joint venture, association, corporation, or otherwise organized business entity which directly or indirectly has the power to direct the management or control the activities of the vendor or vendor applicant.
Subp. 28b.
[Repealed, 29 SR 1202]
Subp. 28c.
[Repealed, 25 SR 555]
Subp. 28d. Participants.
"Participants" has the meaning given in Code of Federal Regulations, title 7, section 246.2, as amended.
Subp. 29.
[Repealed, 29 SR 1202]
Subp. 30. Person.
"Person" means an individual, partnership, joint venturer, association, corporation or otherwise organized business entity.
Subp. 31. Pharmacy.
"Pharmacy" means a business in which prescriptions, drugs, medicines, chemicals, and poisons are compounded, dispensed, vended, or retailed.
Subp. 31a. Pharmacy vendor.
"Pharmacy vendor" means a vendor that is a pharmacy.
Subp. 31b. Pharmacy vendor applicant.
"Pharmacy vendor applicant" means any pharmacy which has applied to the commissioner to be a pharmacy vendor, including any currently authorized pharmacy vendor which has applied to continue as a pharmacy vendor and any pharmacy which has applied for an immediate vendor agreement under part 4617.0066, subpart 3.
Subp. 32.
[Repealed, 29 SR 1202]
Subp. 33.
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Subp. 34.
[Repealed, 29 SR 1202]
Subp. 35.
[Repealed, 29 SR 1202]
Subp. 36.
[Repealed, 29 SR 1202]
Subp. 36a. Provide unauthorized food.
"Provide unauthorized food" means:
A. to provide any food other than WIC-allowed food in exchange for a voucher or cash-value voucher;
B. to provide, in exchange for a voucher or cash-value voucher, any WIC-allowed food that is not listed on the voucher or cash-value voucher;
C. to provide, as a substitute for any WIC-allowed food listed on a voucher or cash-value voucher, an excess quantity of another WIC-allowed food listed on the voucher or cash-value voucher; or
D. to provide, in exchange for a voucher or cash-value voucher, and to charge the WIC program for, more WIC-allowed food than is listed on the voucher or cash-value voucher.
Subp. 37. Proxy.
"Proxy" has the meaning given in Code of Federal Regulations, title 7, section 246.2, as amended.
Subp. 37a. Rain check.
"Rain check" means a credit provided by a vendor to a WIC customer in exchange for a voucher or cash-value voucher, if the credit can only be used to purchase one or more specific food items listed on the voucher or cash-value voucher but not received by the WIC customer.
Subp. 37b. Reauthorization application.
"Reauthorization application" means a vendor application submitted to the commissioner by a currently authorized vendor that is applying to continue as a vendor.
Subp. 37c.
[Repealed, 29 SR 1202]
Subp. 37d.
[Repealed, 29 SR 1202]
Subp. 38.
[Repealed, 29 SR 1202]
Subp. 39.
[Repealed, 22 SR 266]
Subp. 39a. Retail food store.
"Retail food store" means a store which sells food at retail directly to consumers other than WIC customers.
Subp. 40. Retail food vendor.
"Retail food vendor" means a vendor that is a retail food store.
Subp. 40a.
[Repealed, 22 SR 266]
Subp. 40b. Retail food vendor applicant.
"Retail food vendor applicant" means any retail food store which has applied to the commissioner to be a retail food vendor, including any currently authorized retail food vendor which has applied to continue as a retail food vendor and any retail food store which has applied for an immediate vendor agreement under part 4617.0066, subpart 3.
Subp. 40c. Single investigation.
"Single investigation" means all compliance buys, monitoring visits, record reviews, and other investigatory activities conducted in connection with a store or pharmacy until the investigation is complete. The investigation is complete on the earlier of: (1) the date the investigatory file is closed; (2) the date the store or pharmacy is disqualified from the WIC program; (3) the date the commissioner assesses a civil money penalty against the store or pharmacy; (4) the date the commissioner denies the vendor application of the store or pharmacy; or (5) the date the commissioner terminates the vendor agreement of the store or pharmacy.
Subp. 40d. Special infant formula.
"Special infant formula" means any infant formula specified on a voucher, other than the infant formula approved by the commissioner under part 4617.0171.
Subp. 40e. Special population.
"Special population" means members of populations as defined in Code of Federal Regulations, title 7, section 246.2, as amended.
Subp. 40f. Tier 1 county.
"Tier 1 county" means a Minnesota county in which the total population is 250,000 or more according to the most recent Minnesota or United States census or estimated update as compiled by the state demographer.
Subp. 40g. Tier 2 county.
"Tier 2 county" means a Minnesota county in which the total population is less than 250,000 according to the most recent Minnesota or United States census or estimated update as compiled by the state demographer.
Subp. 41.
[Repealed, 29 SR 1202]
Subp. 42. Vendor.
"Vendor" has the meaning given in Code of Federal Regulations, title 7, section 246.2, as amended.
Subp. 42a. Vendor applicant.
"Vendor applicant" means a business entity that operates a retail food store, a pharmacy, or a store which is both a retail food store and pharmacy, if the business entity has applied to the commissioner for that particular store to be a vendor. "Vendor applicant" includes any currently authorized vendor which has applied to continue as a vendor at the same location and any business entity which has applied for an immediate vendor agreement under part 4617.0066, subpart 3.
Subp. 42b. Vendor application.
"Vendor application" means all information and documentation submitted to the commissioner by a vendor applicant under part 4617.0065 or 4617.0066, subpart 3.
Subp. 42c. Vendor overcharge.
"Vendor overcharge" has the meaning given in Code of Federal Regulations, title 7, section 246.2, as amended.
Subp. 43. Vendor stamp.
"Vendor stamp" means an ink stamp issued to a vendor by the commissioner with a unique number identifying that vendor, which the vendor uses under part 4617.0070.
Subp. 44. Voucher.
"Voucher" means a document which is authorized by the commissioner for use by a WIC customer to obtain WIC-approved foods from a vendor, and which may be deposited in the vendor's account at an established financial institution. Voucher includes the legal equivalent of a paper voucher, such as an electronic form of the voucher, as defined in the Check 21 Act, Public Law 108-100.
Subp. 44a.
[Repealed, 22 SR 266]
Subp. 44b. WIC-allowed foods.
"WIC-allowed foods" means special infant formula, and foods approved by the commissioner under this chapter for purchase with WIC vouchers and cash-value vouchers.
Subp. 44c.
[Repealed, 25 SR 555]
Subp. 44d. WIC cashier trainer.
"WIC cashier trainer" means the employee or other representative of a vendor who is, or, in the case of a vendor applicant, who will be, responsible for training the vendor's cashiers in properly transacting WIC vouchers and cash-value vouchers.
Subp. 44e. WIC customer.
"WIC customer" means a participant in the WIC program, a proxy, or a representative of the commissioner posing as a participant or proxy.
Subp. 44f. WIC food center.
"WIC food center" means a site at which the commissioner or a nonprofit agent of the commissioner distributes WIC-allowed foods directly to WIC customers under Code of Federal Regulations, title 7, subtitle B, chapter II, subchapter A, part 246, subpart E, section 246.12, paragraph (n), as amended.
Subp. 44g. WIC ID folder.
"WIC ID folder" means a document issued by a local agency to a participant or proxy which contains eligibility information on a participant and contains the signatures of all individuals authorized to sign vouchers and cash-value vouchers issued to the participant.
Subp. 45. WIC program.
"WIC program" means the Special Supplemental Nutrition Program for Women, Infants, and Children administered by the United States Department of Agriculture under United States Code, title 42, section 1786, as amended.
Subp. 46. WIC sales.
"WIC sales" means all sales by a vendor for which the vendor receives payment in the form of a WIC voucher or a cash-value voucher.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.11; 144.12; 145.891 to 145.897
- History: 13 SR 1190; 14 SR 164; L 1991 c 106 s 6; 19 SR 2089; 22 SR 266; 25 SR 555; 25 SR 805; 29 SR 1202; 34 SR 790
Minn. R. 4617.0005 Notice of Availability of Wic Program Funds
At least once every five years beginning January 1, 2006, the commissioner shall send a notice of availability of WIC program funds to each agency that has asked the commissioner for the notice and to other interested agencies. The notice of availability must also be published on the Department of Health's web page or in the State Register at least 15 days before the date by which the notice of intent required under part 4617.0010, item A, must be submitted to the commissioner. The notice of availability must include the format of the notice of intent required under part 4617.0010, item A, and the date by which that notice must be submitted to the department.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.11; 145.891 to 145.897
- History: 14 SR 164; 29 SR 1202
Minn. R. 4617.0010 Application for Wic Program Funds
An agency shall apply for WIC program funds according to items A to E.
A. An agency shall notify the commissioner in writing that it intends to apply for WIC program funds. The agency must submit the notice of intent on a format and by a date consistent with a notice of availability published under part 4617.0005.
B. After receiving an agency's notice of intent to apply for WIC program funds, the commissioner shall send to that agency an application form and instructions on how to complete the form. The instructions shall include a due date by which the agency shall submit the completed application form to the commissioner. The due date shall be no sooner than 30 days after the date the commissioner sends the application form and instructions.
C. An agency shall apply to administer the WIC program for a geographic area or a special population.
D. An agency shall submit an application form for WIC program funds no later than the due date specified in the instructions under item B. All applications must include the name and address of the applicant, must document that the applicant can meet the eligibility criteria under part 4617.0015, and must include all information requested on the application form that relates to the commissioner's consideration of the application under part 4617.0020.
E. If the commissioner determines that an application is incomplete, the commissioner shall request in writing that the agency submit the information needed to complete the application within 15 days after receiving that application. The commissioner shall not authorize an agency to administer the WIC program if it fails to submit the requested additional information.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.11; 145.891 to 145.897
- History: 14 SR 164; 29 SR 1202
Minn. R. 4617.0015 Agency Eligibility Criteria
To be eligible for WIC program funds an agency must be able to:
A. meet the definition of local agency under Code of Federal Regulations, title 7, section 246.2, as amended;
B. comply with all requirements for local agencies under Code of Federal Regulations, title 7, part 246, as amended; and
C. comply with the requirements of a written agreement between a local agency and the commissioner according to part 4617.0030.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.11; 145.891 to 145.897
- History: 14 SR 164; 29 SR 1202
Minn. R. 4617.0020 Agency Application Review and Approval
Subpart 1. General procedure.
The commissioner shall authorize an agency to administer the WIC program as a local agency by following in order the steps in subparts 2 to 9a.
Subp. 2. Agency application; review.
The commissioner shall review an application to determine whether the agency applicant meets the eligibility criteria in part 4617.0015 and whether the application was submitted according to part 4617.0010.
Subp. 3. Agency application to serve geographic area; approval and disapproval.
The commissioner shall approve or disapprove an application to serve a geographic area according to items A to G.
A. The commissioner shall approve only one application for each geographic area.
B. If an application does not document that the agency meets the eligibility criteria in part 4617.0015 or is not submitted according to part 4617.0010, the commissioner shall disapprove the application except as provided in item C.
C. If an applicant fails to meet a deadline in part 4617.0010 but is the only applicant that meets the eligibility criteria under part 4617.0015 to serve a particular geographic area, the commissioner shall approve the application. If, after the approval of an application under this item, the commissioner receives a subsequent application to serve the same geographic area, the commissioner shall disapprove the subsequent application.
D. Except as provided in items E and F, the commissioner shall approve an application and authorize the applicant to become a local agency if the application was submitted according to part 4617.0010 and if the application documents that the applicant meets the eligibility criteria under part 4617.0015.
E. If, after disapproving applications under item B, there are two or more remaining applications to serve the same geographic area:
F. If the agency applicant that has the highest priority under item E had significant WIC compliance issues, as determined according to item E, subitem (1), or if there are two or more applicants with the highest priority under item E, the commissioner shall:
G. For purposes of the priority system under item E, an agency other than a community health board must be classified as a health service agency or as a human service agency, based on the type of services it primarily provides during its current fiscal year. An agency must not be simultaneously classified as a health service agency and a human service agency. The commissioner shall consider an agency to be a health service agency if more than 50 percent of expenses in an agency's budget are allocated to non-WIC program health promotion or health care and if more than 50 percent of the agency's employee work hours are non-WIC program health promotion or health care.
Subp. 4.
[Repealed, 29 SR 1202]
Subp. 5.
[Repealed, 29 SR 1202]
Subp. 6.
[Repealed, 29 SR 1202]
Subp. 7.
[Repealed, 29 SR 1202]
Subp. 8.
[Repealed, 29 SR 1202]
Subp. 9.
[Repealed, 29 SR 1202]
Subp. 9a. Agency application to serve special population; approval and disapproval.
For purposes of this subpart, "unmet WIC program needs" in a special population includes both: (i) WIC program needs in the special population that are not being met at the time of the application; and (ii) WIC program needs in the special population that are anticipated to be unmet during the time for which the applicant is applying to be a local agency. The commissioner shall approve or disapprove an application to serve a special population according to items A to E.
A. If the application does not document that the agency meets the eligibility criteria in part 4617.0015 or is not submitted according to part 4617.0010, the commissioner shall disapprove the application.
B. If the applicant is eligible for funds directly from the United States Department of Agriculture to fund the applicant to provide WIC services to the special population and if the application has not been disapproved under item A, the commissioner shall approve that application and shall disapprove all other applications to serve the same special population.
C. If the application has not been approved or disapproved under item A or B, the commissioner shall disapprove the application if:
D. If, after considering applications according to items A to C, there are one or more remaining applications to serve a special population, the commissioner shall:
E. To determine under item D, subitem (2), whether an applicant can better meet the unmet WIC program needs of a special population and to determine which applicant can best meet the unmet WIC program needs of a special population, the commissioner shall consider the factors listed in subitems (1) to (13). For purposes of subitems (1) to (10), "applicant" means an applicant to serve the special population or an applicant to serve one of the geographic areas involved, except applicants whose applications have been disapproved:
Subp. 10. Notice of approval or disapproval.
Within 90 days after receiving a complete application, the commissioner shall give written notice to an agency that the commissioner has approved or disapproved its application. A notice of approval or disapproval must state that an application is approved as originally submitted, approved with changes, or disapproved.
A notice of disapproval must state the reason for the disapproval and must state that the agency applicant may appeal the disapproval according to part 4617.0100.
Subp. 11.
[Repealed, 29 SR 1202]
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.11; 145.891 to 145.897
- History: 14 SR 164; 19 SR 2089; 29 SR 1202
Minn. R. 4617.0025 Disqualification
The commissioner shall stop providing WIC program funds to a local agency if the local agency does not comply with parts 4617.0002 to 4617.0171 or with Code of Federal Regulations, title 7, part 246, as amended. A local agency shall reimburse the commissioner for WIC program funds that are not distributed according to this chapter.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.11; 145.891 to 145.897
- History: 14 SR 164; 19 SR 2089; 29 SR 1202; 34 SR 790
Minn. R. 4617.0030 Local Agency Agreements
Subpart 1. State agreements.
To administer the WIC program, a local agency must have a written agreement with the commissioner. The agreement must:
A. contain the signature of a representative of the local agency who is authorized to legally bind the agency;
B. contain the provisions required by Code of Federal Regulations, title 7, section 246.6, paragraph (b), as amended;
C. be consistent with this chapter and Code of Federal Regulations, title 7, part 246, as amended;
D. contain a nondiscrimination clause regarding employment practices and the delivery of program benefits to eligible or potentially eligible participants that is consistent with the following statutes and the regulations adopted under them:
E. require the local agency to obtain written consent from the commissioner to implement a change to the application submitted under part 4617.0010;
F. provide assurances that no conflict of interest exists between the local agency and a vendor or the local agency and the commissioner;
G. specify beginning and ending dates of the agreement; and
H. contain a statement that the local agency agrees to develop a nutrition education plan which:
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, 29 SR 1202]
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, 29 SR 1202]
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.11; 145.891 to 145.897
- History: 14 SR 164; 19 SR 2089; 29 SR 1202
Minn. R. 4617.0035 [Repealed, 25 SR 805]
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Minn. R. 4617.0037 [Repealed, 29 SR 1202]
[Repealed, 29 SR 1202]
Minn. R. 4617.0040 [Repealed, 29 SR 1202]
[Repealed, 29 SR 1202]
Minn. R. 4617.0042 [Repealed, 29 SR 1202]
[Repealed, 29 SR 1202]
Minn. R. 4617.0043 [Repealed, 29 SR 1202]
[Repealed, 29 SR 1202]
Minn. R. 4617.0044 [Repealed, 25 SR 805]
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Minn. R. 4617.0045 [Repealed, 25 SR 805]
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Minn. R. 4617.0046 [Repealed, 19 SR 2089]
[Repealed, 19 SR 2089]
Minn. R. 4617.0047 [Repealed, 19 SR 2089]
[Repealed, 19 SR 2089]
Minn. R. 4617.0049 [Repealed, 25 SR 805]
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Minn. R. 4617.0050 [Repealed, 25 SR 805]
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Minn. R. 4617.0052 [Repealed, 25 SR 805]
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Minn. R. 4617.0054 [Repealed, 25 SR 805]
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Minn. R. 4617.0056 [Repealed, 25 SR 805]
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Minn. R. 4617.0058 [Repealed, 25 SR 805]
[Repealed, 25 SR 805]
Minn. R. 4617.0059 [Repealed, 25 SR 555]
[Repealed, 25 SR 555]
Minn. R. 4617.0060 [Repealed, 22 SR 266]
[Repealed, 22 SR 266]
Minn. R. 4617.0061 [Repealed, 22 SR 266]
[Repealed, 22 SR 266]
Minn. R. 4617.0062 [Repealed, 22 SR 266]
[Repealed, 22 SR 266]
Minn. R. 4617.0063 [Repealed, 22 SR 266]
[Repealed, 22 SR 266]
Minn. R. 4617.0064 [Repealed, 22 SR 266]
[Repealed, 22 SR 266]
Minn. R. 4617.0065 MR 1995 [Renumbered 4617.0067]
MR 1995 [Renumbered 4617.0067]
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.11; 145.894
- History: 22 SR 266; 25 SR 555; 29 SR 1202; L 2019 1Sp9 art 1 s 42
Minn. R. 4617.0066 Change of Vendor Ownership, Name, or Business Site
Subpart 1. Notice of change of vendor ownership, name, or business site.
A vendor must submit to the commissioner a written notice of a change of vendor ownership, a change of vendor location, a change of name, or a cessation of operations. This notice must be received by the commissioner prior to the effective date of the change.
Subp. 2. Effect of changes.
If there is a change of vendor ownership, a change of vendor location, or a cessation of operations:
A. the commissioner shall terminate the vendor agreement with respect to that vendor;
B. the termination of the vendor agreement is effective on the later of:
C. the vendor stamp for that vendor must be returned to the commissioner within five days after the effective date of the termination of the vendor agreement; and
D. if the vendor agreement in effect before the change includes one or more other vendors that have not changed ownership or location and have not ceased operations, a duly authorized agent of each of the other vendors shall execute, by the effective date of the change, an amended vendor agreement that does not include any vendor that changed ownership or location or ceased operations.
Subp. 3. Immediate vendor agreement.
If there is a change of vendor ownership or location, the retail food store or pharmacy may apply for an immediate vendor agreement under this subpart.
A. The application for an immediate agreement must include, at a minimum, the materials specified in part 4617.0065, subpart 2.
B. A retail food store or pharmacy may not submit more than one application for an immediate vendor agreement each calendar year. The commissioner shall return any additional applications to the applicant without approval or disapproval.
C. The commissioner shall approve the application for an immediate vendor agreement if:
D. If a retail food store or pharmacy that is applying for an immediate vendor agreement does not meet all the requirements in item C, the commissioner shall review the application according to part 4617.0065, subparts 5, 7, and 9. If the commissioner approves the application under part 4617.0065, then part 4617.0065, subpart 8, shall apply.
E. If the commissioner approves an application for an immediate vendor agreement, then with respect to the immediate vendor agreement, the applicant shall comply with part 4617.0065, subpart 7, and the commissioner and the applicant shall comply with part 4617.0065, subpart 8. The immediate vendor agreement shall expire on the same expiration date stated on the voided vendor agreement. The immediate vendor agreement shall be effective no sooner than the effective date of the change of ownership.
F. Notwithstanding item C, the commissioner shall disapprove an application for an immediate vendor agreement if:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.11; 145.894
- History: 22 SR 266; 25 SR 555; 29 SR 1202
Minn. R. 4617.0067 Vendor Eligibility Requirements
Subpart 1. Applicability to vendor applicants.
A pharmacy vendor applicant shall at all times comply with the requirements in subparts 2, item C; 4; and 6. A retail food vendor applicant shall at all times comply with the requirements in subparts 2, item A, and 3 to 6, and shall comply with the requirements in subpart 2, item B, no later than the date the applicant signs any vendor agreement.
Subp. 2. Location, licensing, and registration requirements.
A. A retail food vendor must be a retail food store located in Minnesota, unless:
B. A retail food vendor must:
C. A pharmacy vendor must be a pharmacy located in Minnesota which is registered by the Minnesota Board of Pharmacy according to Minnesota Statutes, chapter 151.
Subp. 3. Minimum in-stock food requirements for retail food vendors.
A. A retail food vendor located in a Tier 2 county shall at all times have in stock and available for purchase, at a minimum:
B. A retail food vendor located in a Tier 1 county shall at all times have in stock and available for purchase, at a minimum:
C. In determining the amounts and varieties of foods in stock and available for purchase, a retail food vendor may not include any expired or damaged foods or any food that originated from the Commodity Supplemental Food Program.
D. If the vendor has been a vendor for more than six months and, during the most recent six months for which data are available, has not redeemed any voucher for the infant formula specified in item A, subitem (1), or B, subitem (1), the vendor does not need to maintain in stock and available for purchase any of that type of infant formula.
E. If a WIC customer requests one of the following products, the vendor must ensure that a sufficient quantity of the product is in stock and available for purchase at the vendor's location within one week of the WIC customer's request:
Subp. 4. Additional requirements.
A vendor shall comply with the following requirements.
A. A vendor must operate at one business site, located at a fixed and permanent location.
B. One or more of the controlling persons of the vendor must own or lease the real estate on which the vendor is located.
C. Employees who accept vouchers and cash-value vouchers for the vendor must be able to demonstrate their ability to process vouchers and cash-value vouchers according to this chapter.
D. A vendor must ensure that the price charged for each WIC-allowed food stocked by the vendor is displayed for easy viewing or marked on the food. If the vendor charges WIC customers less than the vendor's usual and customary charge, the WIC customer price must be displayed for easy viewing or marked on the food.
E. A vendor must ensure that no controlling person of the vendor and no spouse, child, or parent of any controlling person of the vendor:
F. At each check-out lane, a vendor must use a cash register that generates receipts including the date, the total price, and the price of each item received by the customer.
G. The vendor must be open for business at least 40 hours each week and must be open during the business hours that the vendor has reported to the WIC program.
Subp. 5. Vendor prices.
With the exception of the authorized foods in subpart 3, items A, subitem (9), and B, subitem (9), a retail food vendor's price for each of the authorized foods in subpart 3 must not be more than 115 percent of the average price charged by retail food vendors. The commissioner shall determine the average price charged by retail food vendors based on the most recent price information available to the commissioner on prices charged by retail food vendors and according to Code of Federal Regulations, title 7, part 246, and approved by USDA in the annual state plan submitted by the commissioner. A change in the manufacturer's price of an authorized food in subpart 3 is grounds for the commissioner to change the commissioner's calculation of the average price charged by retail food vendors. If the commissioner determines that there is a religious need for a vendor to charge a specific price greater than 115 percent of the average price charged by retail food vendors, the vendor may charge that specific price.
Subp. 6. Special requirements for vendor applicants.
A. Within one year immediately preceding the date the commissioner received the vendor application, and at any time on or after the date the commissioner received the application, a vendor applicant must not have accepted a WIC voucher or cash-value voucher when the vendor applicant did not have a fully executed vendor agreement, unless the voucher or cash-value voucher was never paid by the WIC program's bank.
B. An applicant must not be disqualified from any WIC program or food assistance program at any time between the commissioner's receipt of the vendor application and the commissioner's execution of a vendor agreement with the vendor applicant. If a vendor applicant is subjected to a civil money penalty by a WIC program or food assistance program, and:
C. This item applies only to vendor applicants that are not vendors on the date the commissioner receives the application.
D. The vendor applicant must not have as a controlling person someone who was, at the time of the WIC disqualification or civil money penalty, a controlling person of another retail food store or pharmacy at any location in the United States that was disqualified from the WIC program for six years or more or that received a civil money penalty in lieu of disqualification from the WIC program for six years or more.
E. The vendor applicant must not have as a controlling person someone who was, at the time of the SNAP disqualification or civil money penalty, a controlling person of another retail food store or pharmacy at any location in the United States that:
F. The vendor applicant must have paid all money, including interest, owed to the commissioner under part 4617.0090, subpart 4.
G. The previous owner or owners of the retail food store or pharmacy must not have transferred it to the owner or owners of the vendor applicant in an attempt to circumvent a WIC sanction.
H. This item applies only to vendor applicants that are vendors on the date the commissioner receives the application. During each 12-month period of the current vendor agreement, the dollar amount of the vendor applicant's WIC sales must have been 50 percent or less of the vendor applicant's total food sales.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.11; 145.891 to 145.897
- History: 13 SR 1190; 14 SR 164; 22 SR 266; 25 SR 555; 29 SR 1202; 34 SR 790
Minn. R. 4617.0068 Operating Requirements
Subpart 1. Acceptance and pricing of vouchers and cash-value vouchers.
A. A pharmacy vendor shall not accept WIC cash-value vouchers or vouchers for any foods other than special infant formula, unless the pharmacy vendor is also a retail food vendor.
B. For each voucher or cash-value voucher accepted by a vendor, the vendor shall ensure that:
Subp. 2. Deposit of vouchers and cash-value vouchers.
A vendor shall deposit each voucher and cash-value voucher in the vendor's bank within 60 days of the first-day-to-use date on the voucher or cash-value voucher, except as provided in part 4617.0084, subpart 18, item C. The vendor may only deposit into the vendor's account vouchers and cash-value vouchers which were accepted at a check-out lane at the vendor's business site. The vendor may not transfer any vouchers or cash-value vouchers accepted by the vendor to anyone else for deposit in an account other than the vendor's account.
Subp. 3. Access to vouchers and cash-value vouchers.
A vendor shall allow representatives of the Minnesota Department of Health and representatives of the United States Department of Agriculture access to vouchers and cash-value vouchers that are present at the vendor's business site on the day of an on-site monitoring visit and access to any cash register or other area of the vendor's premises where vouchers or cash-value vouchers may be located.
Subp. 4. Three-year documentation of purchases.
A. For a minimum of three years, a vendor shall maintain, in chronological order:
B. All documentation required by this subpart shall specify the quantity, size, brand, and product name of each WIC-allowed food purchased by the vendor, the date of purchase, the name and address of the entity from which the purchase was made, and the date of delivery to the vendor.
C. Within 15 business days of a request by the commissioner, a vendor shall provide to the commissioner:
Subp. 4a. Three-month documentation of purchases.
During normal business hours, the vendor must have available for immediate review by WIC program representatives, at the Minnesota location indicated on the vendor application, the store's original documentation, including receipts and invoices, reflecting all purchases of WIC-allowed food items by the store during the most recent three months before a request by a WIC program representative to review the documentation.
Subp. 5. Documentation of real estate ownership.
A vendor shall maintain documentation showing that one or more controlling persons of the vendor own or lease the real estate where the vendor's business site is located. A vendor shall provide this documentation to the commissioner within 30 days from the date of a request by the commissioner.
Subp. 6. Notification requirements.
In addition to the notification required by part 4617.0066, subpart 1, a vendor must notify the commissioner of any change in controlling persons. A vendor must also notify the commissioner of any business-related violation of any cashier or controlling person of the vendor.
Subp. 7. Annual training requirements.
A vendor shall ensure that:
A. a representative of the vendor completes WIC-approved training on the WIC program at least once every calendar year; and
B. the representative who completes this training conveys all information presented during the training to all cashiers of the vendor.
Subp. 8.
[Repealed, 25 SR 555]
Subp. 9. Shelf price surveys.
Within one month of a request by the commissioner, a vendor shall provide the commissioner with accurate and complete shelf price survey information in the format requested.
Subp. 10. Shelf labels.
If the commissioner requests it due to a violation of this chapter, a vendor shall display in proximity to each WIC-allowed food a current shelf label provided or approved by the commissioner which indicates that the food item is a WIC-allowed food.
Subp. 11. Receipts.
When a vendor accepts a WIC voucher or cash-value voucher, the vendor must provide a cash register receipt to the WIC customer. The receipt must include the date, the total price, and the price of each item received by the WIC customer.
Subp. 12. Coupons.
A vendor shall accept store and manufacturer's coupons for food purchased by a WIC customer.
Subp. 13. Bank account information.
If the commissioner has provided notice under part 4617.0090, subpart 1a, and if there is a change in the vendor's bank name, bank routing number, or bank account number for the account to which the vendor deposits WIC vouchers and cash-value vouchers, the vendor shall promptly inform the commissioner in writing of the change.
Subp. 14. Purchase of infant formula.
A vendor shall only purchase infant formula from the entities on the list maintained by the commissioner under section 17(h)(8)(A)(ix) of the Child Nutrition Act of 1966, codified at United States Code, title 42, section 1786(h)(8)(A)(ix), as amended.
Subp. 15. Volume of WIC sales.
A vendor's annual revenue from WIC sales may not be greater than 50 percent of the vendor's annual revenue from the sale of all food items.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.11; 145.894
- History: 22 SR 266; 25 SR 555; 29 SR 1202; 34 SR 790
Minn. R. 4617.0069 [Repealed, 25 SR 555]
[Repealed, 25 SR 555]
Minn. R. 4617.0070 Vendor Stamps
Subpart 1. Issuance.
After a vendor agreement has been executed by the commissioner, the commissioner shall issue a vendor stamp to each vendor included in the agreement that does not already have a valid vendor stamp. The number on each stamp must be issued to only one vendor. A vendor shall not possess more than one vendor stamp, shall not use a vendor stamp issued to another vendor, shall not duplicate a vendor stamp, and shall not use or allow the use of the vendor stamp on any voucher or cash-value voucher other than a voucher or cash-value voucher accepted at a check-out lane at the vendor's business site. The commissioner shall issue only one vendor stamp to each vendor, even if the vendor is authorized as both a retail food vendor and a pharmacy vendor.
Subp. 1a. Returning vendor stamp.
If a vendor is disqualified or terminated under part 4617.0084, the vendor must return the vendor stamp to the commissioner no later than five days after the effective date of the disqualification or termination. In addition, the vendor must return the vendor stamp to the commissioner within five days after the earlier of: (i) the date that the vendor permanently closes the business; (ii) a change of ownership of the vendor; or (iii) the expiration of the vendor's current vendor agreement if the vendor's application is disapproved or if the vendor agreement ends and no subsequent agreement for that vendor is executed.
Subp. 2. Replacement vendor stamp.
A vendor shall orally or in writing notify the commissioner of a lost, stolen, or damaged vendor stamp. If a vendor wants a stamp to replace a lost, stolen, or damaged stamp, the vendor shall request one from the commissioner orally or in writing. The commissioner shall issue one replacement vendor stamp to a vendor at no cost to the vendor. A vendor shall pay $10 for each additional replacement vendor stamp.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.11; 145.891 to 145.897
- History: 13 SR 1190; 22 SR 266; 25 SR 555; 29 SR 1202; 34 SR 790
Minn. R. 4617.0075 Vendor Agreements
A duly authorized agent of a retail food store or pharmacy which has been approved to be a vendor shall sign and date a vendor agreement. A separate vendor agreement must be signed for each vendor, except that all vendors with identical ownership may elect to be included in one vendor agreement. A vendor agreement must contain:
A. the names and addresses of all vendors included in the vendor agreement;
B. the method by which the agreement must be terminated;
C. terms that are consistent with this chapter and Code of Federal Regulations, title 7, section 246.12, paragraph (h), as amended;
D. a statement that disqualification from the WIC program may result in disqualification as a retailer in the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP) and that such disqualification may not be subject to administrative or judicial review under SNAP; and
E. an ending date that is not more than three years beyond the beginning date.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.11; 145.891 to 145.897
- History: 13 SR 1190; 14 SR 164; 22 SR 266; 25 SR 555; L 2003 1Sp14 art 1 s 106; 29 SR 1202; L 2019 1Sp9 art 1 s 42
Minn. R. 4617.0080 Monitoring Vendors
The commissioner shall monitor vendors according to the Code of Federal Regulations, title 7, section 246.12, paragraph (j), as amended.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.11; 145.891 to 145.897
- History: 13 SR 1190; 14 SR 164; 22 SR 266; 29 SR 1202
Minn. R. 4617.0084 Vendor Sanctions
Subpart 1. Notice of violation.
If a violation described in subpart 7, 8, 9, 12, 13, 13a, or 19 does not result in disqualification or a civil money penalty, the commissioner shall mail or deliver to the vendor a notice of violation.
Subp. 2. Permanent disqualification.
The commissioner shall permanently disqualify a vendor if any controlling person of the vendor is criminally convicted of either:
A. buying or selling one or more vouchers or cash-value vouchers for cash; or
B. selling any firearms, ammunition, explosives, or controlled substances, as defined under the federal Controlled Substances Act, United States Code, title 21, section 802, clause (6), as amended, for one or more vouchers or cash-value vouchers.
Subp. 3. Six-year disqualification.
Except as provided in subparts 15 and 16, the commissioner shall disqualify a vendor for six years if the vendor:
A. buys or sells one or more vouchers or cash-value vouchers for cash; or
B. sells any firearms, ammunition, explosives, or controlled substances, as defined under the federal Controlled Substances Act, United States Code, title 21, section 802, clause (6), as amended, for one or more vouchers or cash-value vouchers.
Subp. 4. Providing alcohol or tobacco.
Except as provided in subparts 15 and 16, the commissioner shall disqualify a vendor for three years if the vendor provides any alcohol, alcoholic beverage, or tobacco product in exchange for one or more vouchers or cash-value vouchers.
Subp. 5. Redeeming vouchers or cash-value vouchers in excess of inventory.
Except as provided in subparts 15 and 16, the commissioner shall disqualify a vendor for three years if, on two occasions within any two-year period, the vendor claims reimbursement for the sale of an amount of a specific supplemental food item during a specified period of time and the amount claimed exceeds the store's documented inventory of that supplemental food item by at least 15 units for that period of time. The two occasions may be established during a single review of inventory records and may involve two different food items during the same period of time, two different food items during two different periods of time, or one food item during two different periods of time.
Subp. 6. Laundering vouchers or cash-value vouchers.
Except as provided in subparts 15 and 16, the commissioner shall disqualify a vendor for three years if, on two occasions within any two-year period, the vendor launders one or more vouchers or cash-value vouchers.
Subp. 7. Providing credit or nonfood item.
A. Except as provided in subparts 15, 16, and 19, the commissioner shall disqualify a vendor for three years if, twice within any two-year period, the vendor provides credit, other than a rain check, or provides a nonfood item, other than any alcohol, alcoholic beverage, tobacco product, cash, firearms, ammunition, explosives, or controlled substances, as defined under the federal Controlled Substances Act, United States Code, title 21, section 802, clause (6), as amended, in exchange for a voucher or cash-value voucher.
B. Except as provided in subparts 15, 16, and 19, the commissioner shall disqualify a vendor for three years if, four times within any two-year period, the vendor provides a rain check in exchange for a voucher or cash-value voucher.
Subp. 8. Overcharging and charging for food not received.
A. This subpart applies to violations under subitems (1) and (2). The violation described in subitem (1) is distinct from the violation described in subitem (2) and is accumulated separately to determine the number of violations:
B. Except as provided in subparts 15, 16, and 19, the commissioner shall disqualify a vendor for three years if the vendor commits a violation under item A twice within any two-year period and if:
C. Except as provided in item B and subparts 15, 16, and 19, the commissioner shall disqualify the vendor for three years if the vendor commits a violation under item A three times within any two-year period and if, for each violation, the price the WIC program paid the vendor for the voucher or cash-value voucher was $2 or more greater than the correct price for the voucher or cash-value voucher.
D. Except as provided in items B and C and subparts 15, 16, and 19, the commissioner shall disqualify the vendor for three years if the vendor commits a violation under item A four times within any two-year period.
Subp. 9. Providing unauthorized food.
A. A vendor shall not provide unauthorized food.
B. Except as provided in subparts 15, 16, and 19, the commissioner shall disqualify a vendor for one year if the vendor violates item A twice within any two-year period and each violation involved providing unauthorized food in exchange for any of the infant formula listed on the voucher, other than substituting another infant formula with the same level of iron fortification.
C. Except as provided in item B and subparts 15, 16, and 19, the commissioner shall disqualify a vendor for one year if the vendor violates item A four times within any two-year period.
Subp. 10. SNAP sanctions.
A. If a vendor is disqualified from SNAP, the commissioner shall disqualify the vendor from the WIC program for an equal amount of time, except as provided in subpart 15.
B. If SNAP assesses a vendor a civil money penalty for hardship instead of disqualifying the vendor from SNAP, the commissioner shall disqualify the vendor from the WIC program for the amount of time the vendor would have been disqualified from SNAP absent the hardship determination, except as provided in subpart 15.
Subp. 11. One-year disqualification for one violation.
A. The commissioner shall disqualify a vendor for one year if, during any 12-month period within the last three years, the dollar amount of the vendor's WIC sales was greater than 50 percent of the vendor's total food sales.
B. Except as provided in subpart 15, the commissioner shall disqualify a vendor for one year if:
Subp. 12. One-year disqualification for two violations.
A. This subpart applies to the violations described in subitems (1) to (5). Violations described in each subitem are accumulated separately to determine the number of violations:
B. Except as provided in subpart 15, the commissioner shall disqualify the vendor for one year if the vendor commits a violation under item A twice within any two-year period.
Subp. 13. Six-month disqualification for two violations.
A. This subpart applies to the violations described in subitems (1) to (5). Violations described in each subitem are accumulated separately to determine the number of violations:
B. Except as provided in subpart 15, the commissioner shall disqualify the vendor for six months if the vendor commits a violation under item A twice within any two-year period.
Subp. 13a. Three-month disqualification for three violations.
A. This subpart applies to the violations described in subitems (1) to (4). Violations described in each subitem are accumulated separately to determine the number of violations:
B. Except as provided in subpart 15, the commissioner shall disqualify the vendor for three months if the vendor commits a violation under item A three times within any two-year period.
Subp. 14.
[Repealed, 29 SR 1202]
Subp. 14a. Written warnings; termination.
A. The commissioner shall terminate a vendor agreement if:
B. If a vendor commits a violation under subitems (1) to (11), the commissioner shall issue a written warning to the vendor. The vendor must correct the violation within 15 days after the vendor receives the warning. If the vendor fails to correct the violation or commits the same violation at any time more than 15 days but less than six months after receiving the written warning, the commissioner shall terminate the vendor agreement. The commissioner shall issue a written warning if the vendor:
Subp. 15. Inadequate participant access; corrective action plan.
A. Before disqualifying a vendor under any subpart except subpart 2 or 11, item A, the commissioner shall determine whether disqualification of the vendor would result in inadequate participant access, unless under subpart 16, item C, the vendor is not eligible for a civil money penalty instead of disqualification.
B. Disqualification of a vendor located in a Tier 1 county would result in inadequate participant access if the vendor is the only vendor in a clinic town or if:
C. Disqualification of a vendor located in a Tier 2 county would result in inadequate participant access if the vendor is the only vendor in a clinic town or if:
D. If the commissioner determines under this part that disqualification of the vendor would result in inadequate participant access, then instead of disqualifying the vendor, the commissioner shall, except as provided in item F and in subpart 16, item C, impose on the vendor one or more civil money penalties.
E. A civil money penalty assessed under this part must be paid in full no later than 30 days after the date of the notice of assessment. If the vendor does not pay, only partially pays, or fails to timely pay a civil money penalty assessed under this part, the commissioner shall disqualify the vendor for the length of time that the vendor would have been disqualified if there had been no determination of inadequate participant access.
F. If disqualification of a vendor under subpart 10, item B, would result in inadequate participant access, then the commissioner shall not disqualify the vendor under subpart 10, item B, or impose a civil money penalty in lieu of disqualification under subpart 10, item B.
G. If the commissioner imposes a civil money penalty on a vendor, the commissioner shall also require the vendor to create and implement a corrective action plan to prevent future violations. The corrective action plan must be in writing. The vendor must provide the corrective action plan to the commissioner no later than 30 days after the date of the notice of assessment.
Subp. 16. Second and subsequent sanctions.
A. For the purpose of this subpart, "federally mandated sanction" means any disqualification or civil money penalty assessed based on this subpart or the violations described in subparts 3 to 9 and 19.
B. If a vendor that has on one occasion received a federally mandated sanction subsequently engages in conduct warranting a second federally mandated sanction, the second federally mandated sanction shall be doubled, except that:
C. If a vendor that has on two or more occasions received a federally mandated sanction subsequently engages in conduct warranting a third or subsequent federally mandated sanction:
Subp. 17. Multiple violations.
A. If, during a single investigation, a vendor commits multiple violations that warrant disqualification, then:
B. For the purpose of this subpart, a violation warranting disqualification that is described in subparts 2 to 9; 10, item A; or 19 shall be considered more serious than any violation warranting disqualification that is described in subpart 10, item B, or in subparts 11 to 14a.
Subp. 18. General provisions.
A. Except for a violation of subpart 2, a vendor commits a violation of this part if any controlling person, employee, or agent of the vendor committed the described conduct.
B. The commissioner shall notify a vendor in writing of the vendor's disqualification and of the vendor's termination. The written notice shall include all information required by federal regulations. If a disqualification is based on subpart 2, the disqualification shall be effective on the date the vendor receives the written notice of disqualification. If a disqualification is based on any subpart other than subpart 2, the disqualification shall be effective 30 days after the date the written notice of disqualification is mailed. If a termination is based on subpart 14a, item A, subitem (1), the termination shall be effective on the same date that the disqualification is effective. If a termination is based on subpart 14a, item B, the termination shall be effective 30 days after the date the written notice of termination is mailed.
C. A retail food store or pharmacy that has been disqualified or terminated must deposit each voucher and cash-value voucher in the store's or pharmacy's bank account by the earlier of:
D. After expiration of the disqualification period, a disqualified vendor may apply for WIC vendor authorization. A retail food store or pharmacy that has been terminated but not disqualified as a WIC vendor may apply for WIC vendor authorization no sooner than two months after the effective date of the termination, except that a retail food vendor terminated under part 4617.0066, subpart 2, may apply for an immediate vendor agreement under part 4617.0066, subpart 3.
E. A vendor may not terminate the vendor's WIC vendor agreement or otherwise withdraw from the WIC program instead of disqualification. The expiration or termination of the vendor agreement shall not affect the commissioner's duty to disqualify the vendor and shall not affect the vendor's right to appeal the disqualification under part 4617.0100.
F. If a violation involves a vendor's acceptance of a voucher or cash-value voucher, the violation occurs on the date the vendor accepts the voucher or cash-value voucher.
G. If a vendor provides food in exchange for a voucher or cash-value voucher under circumstances where the vendor informs the WIC customer that the customer may return the food for cash or a nonfood item and if the WIC customer subsequently does return the food for cash or a nonfood item, the vendor shall be sanctioned in the same way as if the vendor had provided the cash or nonfood item directly to the WIC customer in exchange for the voucher or cash-value voucher.
Subp. 19. Previous history of disqualification.
Notwithstanding subparts 7 to 9, if a vendor was previously disqualified under this subpart or subparts 3 to 10, and if any controlling person of the vendor was a controlling person at the time of the previous disqualification, except as provided in subparts 15 and 16, the commissioner shall disqualify the vendor for:
A. three years if, twice within any two-year period, the vendor, in exchange for a WIC voucher or cash-value voucher, provides credit other than a rain check or provides a nonfood item other than any alcohol, alcoholic beverages, tobacco products, cash, firearms, ammunition, explosives, or controlled substances, as defined under the federal Controlled Substances Act, United States Code, title 21, section 802, clause (6), as amended;
B. three years if the vendor commits a vendor overcharge twice within any two-year period;
C. three years if, twice within any two-year period, the vendor charges the WIC program for WIC-allowed food not received by a WIC customer; and
D. one year if the vendor provides unauthorized food twice within any two-year period.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.11; 145.894
- History: 25 SR 555; L 2003 1Sp14 art 1 s 106; 29 SR 1202; 34 SR 790; L 2019 1Sp9 art 1 s 42
Minn. R. 4617.0085 [Repealed, 22 SR 266]
[Repealed, 22 SR 266]
Minn. R. 4617.0086 [Repealed, 25 SR 555]
[Repealed, 25 SR 555]
Minn. R. 4617.0087 Wic Food Centers
For the purpose of this chapter, WIC food centers are not vendors.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.11; 145.894
- History: 22 SR 266
Minn. R. 4617.0088 Maximum Prices of Vouchers
Subpart 1. Calculation of maximum prices.
Beginning no sooner than June 17, 2005, the commissioner shall calculate a maximum price for each computer-generated voucher. The maximum price shall not be printed on the voucher. The maximum price shall be the sum of the maximum prices of all products on the voucher. The maximum price for each food product, other than special infant formula, shall be 115 percent of the average price of the food product. The commissioner shall compute an average price for each food product listed on a voucher, other than special infant formula, based on the most recent vendor price survey information available to the commissioner. The maximum price for each special infant formula is 130 percent of the manufacturer's list price for that special infant formula.
Subp. 2. Changing maximum prices.
A change in the manufacturer's price of an applicable WIC-allowed food item shall be grounds for the commissioner to change the maximum price of a food product computed under subpart 1.
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, 29 SR 1202]
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.11; 145.894
- History: 22 SR 266; 29 SR 1202
Minn. R. 4617.0090 Rejection of Vouchers and Cash-Value Vouchers and Reimbursement by Vendors
Subpart 1. Return without payment.
The bank which processes WIC vouchers and cash-value vouchers on behalf of the commissioner shall return a voucher or cash-value voucher to a vendor without payment if:
A. the voucher or cash-value voucher is not stamped with a vendor stamp;
B. the voucher or cash-value voucher is stamped with a vendor stamp which is illegible;
C. the voucher or cash-value voucher is not signed by a WIC customer;
D. the space provided on the voucher or cash-value voucher for the price of the food purchased is left blank by the vendor;
E. there is no first-day-to-use or last-day-to-use date on the voucher or cash-value voucher;
F. the commissioner has placed a stop-payment order on the voucher or cash-value voucher;
G. the date that the WIC customer used the voucher or cash-value voucher to obtain food is before the first-day-to-use date or after the last-day-to-use date on the voucher or cash-value voucher;
H. the vendor deposits the voucher or cash-value voucher before the first-day-to-use date on the voucher or cash-value voucher;
I. the vendor does not initially deposit the voucher or cash-value voucher in the vendor's bank by the earlier of:
J. the voucher or cash-value voucher was returned to the vendor under item A or B and the vendor does not redeposit the voucher or cash-value voucher in the vendor's bank by the earlier of:
K. the first-day-to-use date, last-day-to-use date, or food prescription on the voucher or cash-value voucher has been altered; or
L. the voucher or cash-value voucher is stamped with a vendor stamp other than a vendor stamp issued to the vendor by the commissioner under part 4617.0070.
Subp. 1a. Return with credit.
Before this subpart applies, the commissioner shall give at least two months' written notice to vendors. If the price of the food purchased with a voucher or cash-value voucher exceeds the maximum price calculated by the commissioner for that voucher or cash-value voucher under part 4617.0088, subpart 1, the bank that processes WIC vouchers and cash-value vouchers on behalf of the commissioner shall:
A. return the voucher or cash-value voucher to the vendor;
B. not pay the price listed on the voucher or cash-value voucher;
C. for a voucher, credit the vendor in an amount equal to the maximum price calculated by the commissioner under part 4617.0088, subpart 1, or for a cash-value voucher, credit the vendor in an amount equal to the maximum price listed on the cash-value voucher; and
D. notwithstanding item C, not credit the vendor in any amount if the bank is unable to credit the vendor because of the vendor's failure to comply with part 4617.0068, subpart 13, or failure to provide accurate information on the vendor's most recent vendor application.
Subp. 2. Payment of rejected vouchers and cash-value vouchers.
A. A voucher or cash-value voucher returned to a vendor under subpart 1, item A or B, may be corrected by the vendor and redeposited in the vendor's bank within 90 days of the first-day-to-use date on the voucher or cash-value voucher.
B. A voucher or cash-value voucher returned to a vendor under subpart 1, item D or E, or for a reason not authorized by this part, may be submitted by the vendor to the commissioner for payment if:
Subp. 2a. Bank fees.
The commissioner is not liable for any bank fees incurred by a vendor.
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, 29 SR 1202]
Subp. 4. Vendor liability.
A vendor shall pay to the commissioner, within 30 days of a request by the commissioner, the amount of any overcharges paid by the commissioner to the vendor, the amount paid by the commissioner to the vendor in excess of the maximum price of the voucher or cash-value voucher calculated under part 4617.0088, subpart 1, the amount erroneously paid by the commissioner to the vendor for a voucher or cash-value voucher that should have been returned to the vendor without payment according to subpart 1, all money paid by the commissioner to the vendor for food items not received by a WIC customer, all money paid by the commissioner to the vendor for products other than WIC-allowed foods, and all money paid by the commissioner to the vendor for vouchers or cash-value vouchers accepted by the vendor while there was not in effect a WIC vendor agreement for the vendor. If the vendor does not pay these amounts within 90 days of the initial request by the commissioner, then, in addition to any other sanction specified in this chapter, the vendor must pay interest to the commissioner computed in the same manner that interest on judgments is computed under Minnesota Statutes, section 549.09.
Subp. 5. Prohibited vendor conduct.
A vendor shall not seek reimbursement from any WIC customer for a voucher or cash-value voucher not paid according to this part, for any banking charges paid by the vendor as a result of the nonpayment of a voucher or cash-value voucher, or for any money paid by the vendor to the commissioner according to this part. A vendor shall not require a WIC customer to provide a signature that was not provided at the time the voucher or cash-value voucher was used to buy food from the vendor.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.11; 145.891 to 145.897
- History: 13 SR 1190; 22 SR 266; 29 SR 1202; 34 SR 790
Minn. R. 4617.0095 [Repealed, 22 SR 266]
[Repealed, 22 SR 266]
Minn. R. 4617.0100 Appeals
Subpart 1. Procedures for appeals by applicants and participants.
A. An applicant or participant may appeal an action which results in a claim for repayment of the cash value of vouchers and cash-value vouchers redeemed in violation of Code of Federal Regulations, title 7, part 246, or this chapter; a finding of ineligibility; the denial of benefits; or disqualification from the program.
B. An appeal by or on behalf of an applicant or participant must be received by the commissioner not more than 60 days after notice of adverse action was mailed or given to the applicant or participant or the applicant's or participant's parent or legal guardian.
C. An appeal by an applicant or participant of an action cited in item A will be decided according to this part and procedures established by the commissioner according to Code of Federal Regulations, title 7, part 246.9, and approved by USDA in the state plan submitted by the commissioner.
Subp. 1a. Procedures for appeals by local agencies, local agency applicants, vendors, and vendor applicants.
A. A local agency, local agency applicant, vendor, or vendor applicant against whom the commissioner takes adverse action that affects participation in the WIC program may appeal the action, except that the following actions by the commissioner are not subject to appeal:
B. An appeal by a vendor, vendor applicant, local agency, or local agency applicant must be in writing and be received by the commissioner not more than 30 days after notice of adverse action was mailed. An appeal by a local agency, local agency applicant, vendor, or vendor applicant must be decided according to this part; parts 1400.5100 to 1400.8401; Minnesota Statutes, sections 14.57 to 14.62; and Code of Federal Regulations, title 7, section 246.18, as amended. Expiration of a contract or agreement with a local agency or vendor is not subject to appeal.
C. All appeals by local agencies and local agency applicants are subject to full administrative reviews under item D. Appeals by vendors and vendor applicants are subject to full administrative reviews under item D, except that appeals of the following actions by the commissioner are subject to abbreviated administrative reviews under item E:
D. Full administrative reviews shall be conducted under the contested case provisions of the Minnesota Administrative Procedure Act, Minnesota Statutes, chapter 14, and rules adopted thereunder. The commissioner shall provide an appellant not less than ten days' advance written notice of the time and place of a hearing. The appellant must be given one opportunity to request that a hearing date be rescheduled.
E. Abbreviated administrative reviews shall be conducted in writing, without a hearing, according to the following procedures in subitems (1) to (3).
Subp. 2. Judicial review.
An applicant, participant, local agency, local agency applicant, vendor, or vendor applicant aggrieved by the decision of the commissioner or other decision maker on an appeal is entitled to a judicial review of the decision under Minnesota Statutes, sections 14.63 to 14.69.
Subp. 3. Burden of proof.
A local agency applicant or vendor applicant that appeals the commissioner's denial of an application to participate has the burden of proving the facts at issue by a preponderance of the evidence. When an applicant, participant, local agency, or vendor appeals a disqualification or other sanction, the commissioner has the burden of proof.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.11; 145.891 to 145.897
- History: 13 SR 1190; 22 SR 266; 25 SR 555; 29 SR 1202; 34 SR 790
Minn. R. 4617.0120 [Repealed, 25 SR 555]
[Repealed, 25 SR 555]
Minn. R. 4617.0121 Transition Period
Subpart 1.
[Repealed, 29 SR 1202]
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, 34 SR 790]
Subp. 3. Effective date.
The provisions in parts 4617.0002, subparts 2a, 3c, 3d, 8, 14c, 14f, 14g, 17b, 19b, 36a, 37a, 40f, 40g, 44, 44b, 44d, 44g, and 46; 4617.0025; 4617.0067, subparts 2 to 6; 4617.0068, subparts 1 to 4, 10, 11, and 13; 4617.0070, subpart 1; 4617.0084, subparts 2 to 15, 18, and 19; 4617.0090, subparts 1, 1a, 2, 4, and 5; 4617.0100, subparts 1 to 3; and 4617.0176, subparts 1 and 2, are effective August 1, 2009.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.11; 145.894
- History: 25 SR 555; 29 SR 1202; 34 SR 790
Minn. R. 4617.0170 [Repealed, 19 SR 2089]
[Repealed, 19 SR 2089]
Minn. R. 4617.0171 Infant Formula Approval Process
In accordance with Code of Federal Regulations, title 7, section 246.16a, as amended, the commissioner shall solicit bids and approve for purchase using WIC vouchers one or more brands, sizes, types, and levels of iron fortification of milk-based iron fortified infant formula and soy-based iron fortified infant formula. The nutritional content, size, and packaging of each approved brand, size, type, and level of iron fortification of infant formula must be consistent with Code of Federal Regulations, title 7, section 246.10(c), as amended.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.11; 145.894
- History: 19 SR 2089; 22 SR 266; 29 SR 1202
Minn. R. 4617.0172 [Repealed, 22 SR 266]
[Repealed, 22 SR 266]
Minn. R. 4617.0173 [Repealed, 22 SR 266]
[Repealed, 22 SR 266]
Minn. R. 4617.0174 [Repealed, 22 SR 266]
[Repealed, 22 SR 266]
Minn. R. 4617.0175 [Repealed, 19 SR 2089]
[Repealed, 19 SR 2089]
Minn. R. 4617.0176 Approval Process for Wic Foods Other Than Infant Formula
Subpart 1. Approval process.
The commissioner shall approve for purchase using WIC vouchers and cash-value vouchers:
A. food items within each food product in part 4617.0067, subpart 3, items A, subitems (2) to (14); B, subitems (2) to (14); and E, subitems (2) to (7); and
B. any other food item permitted under Code of Federal Regulations, title 7, part 246, as amended, other than infant formula, if the commissioner determines that there is a nutritional need for participants to obtain such food item or that there is a need for the item or product within a specific cultural, religious, or ethnic group.
Subp. 2. Approval criteria.
At least once every three years, the commissioner shall determine using the following factors which food items within each food product in part 4617.0067, subpart 3, items A, subitems (2) to (14); B, subitems (2) to (14); and E, subitems (2) to (7), to approve for purchase using WIC vouchers and cash-value vouchers:
A. whether the food item meets all specifications in the applicable subitem of part 4617.0067, subpart 3, items A, B, and E;
B. whether the food item meets the nutritional requirements of Code of Federal Regulations, title 7, section 246.10(c), as amended;
C. whether the food item contains any nonnutritive or artificial sweetener; and
D. for foods other than those listed in part 4617.0067, subpart 3, items A, subitem (9); and B, subitem (9), the price per ounce of the food item compared to other brands, sizes, and varieties of the food product.
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, 34 SR 790]
Subp. 4. Notice of approval.
The commissioner shall provide notice to each vendor and local agency of the food items approved under this part.
Subp. 5. Revocation of approval.
The commissioner shall, at any time, revoke approval of a food item if:
A. it no longer meets the nutritional requirements in Code of Federal Regulations, title 7, section 246.10(c), as amended; or
B. it no longer meets all applicable specifications in part 4617.0067, subpart 3. If the commissioner revokes approval of a food item, the commissioner shall provide notice to each vendor and local agency of the revocation.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.11; 145.894
- History: 22 SR 266; 25 SR 555; 29 SR 1202; 34 SR 790
Minn. R. 4617.0180 [Repealed, 19 SR 2089]
[Repealed, 19 SR 2089]
Chapter 4620 CLEAN INDOOR AIR
Minn. R. 4620.0050 Scope and Purpose
Parts 4620.0050 to 4620.1450 must be read in conjunction with the Minnesota Clean Indoor Air Act, Minnesota Statutes, sections 144.411 to 144.417.
Nothing in parts 4620.0050 to 4620.1450 shall be construed to affect smoking prohibitions imposed by the fire marshal or other laws, ordinances, or regulations or to affect the right of building owners or operators to designate their premises as smoke-free.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.411 to 144.417
- History: 19 SR 1128; 27 SR 407
Minn. R. 4620.0100 Definitions
Subpart 1. Scope.
For the purpose of parts 4620.0050 to 4620.1450, the terms in this part have the meanings given them.
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, 33 SR 1771]
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, 19 SR 1128]
Subp. 4.
[Repealed, 33 SR 1771]
Subp. 4a.
[Repealed, 33 SR 1771]
Subp. 5.
[Repealed, 33 SR 1771]
Subp. 6.
[Repealed, 19 SR 1128]
Subp. 7.
[Repealed, 19 SR 1128]
Subp. 8.
[Repealed, 33 SR 1771]
Subp. 9.
[Repealed, 33 SR 1771]
Subp. 10.
[Repealed, 33 SR 1771]
Subp. 11. Place of employment.
"Place of employment" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.413.
Subp. 11a.
[Repealed, 33 SR 1771]
Subp. 12.
[Repealed, 33 SR 1771]
Subp. 13. Proprietor.
"Proprietor" means the party, regardless of whether the party is owner or lessee of the public place, who ultimately controls, governs, or directs the activities within the public place. The term does not mean the owner of the property unless the owner ultimately controls, governs, or directs the activities within the public place. The term "proprietor" may apply to a corporation as well as an individual.
Subp. 14. Public conveyance.
"Public conveyance" means any air, land, or water vehicle used for the transportation of persons whether or not for compensation, including but not limited to airplanes, trains, buses, boats, and taxis. The term includes vans and trucks which may be used to transport persons to, from, and during work or jury duty and those which serve as a place of work, for example, locomotives, police vehicles, or fire vehicles. The term does not include privately owned vehicles when used for private purposes.
Subp. 14a. Public meeting.
"Public meeting" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.413.
Subp. 14b. Public place.
"Public place" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.413.
Subp. 15.
[Repealed, 33 SR 1771]
Subp. 16.
[Repealed, 33 SR 1771]
Subp. 16a.
[Repealed, 33 SR 1771]
Subp. 17. Room.
"Room" means any indoor area bordered on all sides by a floor to ceiling wall. The sides must be continuous and solid except for closeable doors for entry and exit.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.388; 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.08; 144.12; 144.411 to 144.417; 157.011
- History: 17 SR 1279; 19 SR 1128; 23 SR 519; 27 SR 407; 33 SR 1771
Minn. R. 4620.0200 [Repealed, 19 SR 1128]
[Repealed, 19 SR 1128]
Minn. R. 4620.0300 [Repealed, 33 SR 1771]
[Repealed, 33 SR 1771]
Minn. R. 4620.0400 [Repealed, 33 SR 1771]
[Repealed, 33 SR 1771]
Minn. R. 4620.0500 Signs
Subpart 1.
[Repealed, 33 SR 1771]
Subp. 2. Statement on signs.
All signs used to identify a location where the responsible person prohibits smoking in an entire public place, place of employment, or public meeting must use the statement, "No smoking is permitted in this entire establishment" or a similar statement. If smoking is permitted anywhere within a public place, place of employment, or at a public meeting, the sign must state, "Smoking is prohibited except in designated areas." All signs used to identify a smoking-permitted area must use the words "smoking permitted" or the international smoking symbol, or both. Signs that are used to identify a nonsmoking area must use the words "no smoking" or the international no-smoking symbol, or both.
Subp. 3. Placement of sign.
Signs must be conspicuously posted on or immediately inside of all outside entrances to the public place, place of employment, or public meeting. All signs used to identify smoking-permitted and nonsmoking areas must be placed at a height and location easily seen by a person in the establishment and must not be obscured in any way.
The boundary between an acceptable nonsmoking area and a smoking-permitted area must be clearly designated so a person can differentiate between the two areas.
Subp. 4. Size of lettering.
Signs used to designate acceptable nonsmoking and smoking-permitted areas must use printed letters of not less than 0.5 inches (1.3 centimeters) in height. Whenever either of the international symbols is used, the diameter of the outer circle must not be less than three inches.
Subp. 5.
[Repealed, 33 SR 1771]
Subp. 6.
[Repealed, 33 SR 1771]
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.388; 144.411 to 144.417
- History: 17 SR 1279; 19 SR 1128; 27 SR 407; 33 SR 1771
Minn. R. 4620.0600 [Repealed, 33 SR 1771]
[Repealed, 33 SR 1771]
Minn. R. 4620.0700 [Repealed, 27 SR 407]
[Repealed, 27 SR 407]
Minn. R. 4620.0750 [Repealed, 33 SR 1771]
[Repealed, 33 SR 1771]
Minn. R. 4620.0800 [Repealed, 19 SR 1128]
[Repealed, 19 SR 1128]
Minn. R. 4620.0900 [Repealed, 19 SR 1128]
[Repealed, 19 SR 1128]
Minn. R. 4620.0950 MR 2001 [Expired]
MR 2001 [Expired]
Minn. R. 4620.0955 Offices, Factories, Warehouses, or Similar Places of Work
Subpart 1.
[Repealed, 33 SR 1771]
Subp. 2. Smoking-permitted area requirements.
A. A smoking-permitted area in an office or a factory, warehouse, or similar place of work must be designed and operated according to items B to E. Documentation of items B to E must be made available to the commissioner upon request.
B. The area must be maintained at a negative pressure with respect to adjacent or connected nonsmoking areas, as verified by a professional engineer licensed in the state or an individual certified by the National Environmental Balancing Bureau or the American Air Balance Council. The commissioner shall accept documentation of a negative pressure relationship that has been verified within the previous 12 months, provided changes affecting the operation of the ventilation system have not been made.
C. Air from a smoking-permitted area must not be recirculated into a nonsmoking area.
D. Air from the smoking-permitted area must be exhausted directly to the outdoors.
E. The area must be equipped with one of the following:
Subp. 3. Effective date.
This part is effective September 23, 2003.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.417
- History: 27 SR 407; 33 SR 1771
Minn. R. 4620.0975 MR 2001 [Expired]
MR 2001 [Expired]
Minn. R. 4620.1000 [Repealed, 33 SR 1771]
[Repealed, 33 SR 1771]
Minn. R. 4620.1025 [Repealed, 33 SR 1771]
[Repealed, 33 SR 1771]
Minn. R. 4620.1100 [Repealed, 33 SR 1771]
[Repealed, 33 SR 1771]
Minn. R. 4620.1200 [Repealed, 33 SR 1771]
[Repealed, 33 SR 1771]
Minn. R. 4620.1300 [Repealed, 33 SR 1771]
[Repealed, 33 SR 1771]
Minn. R. 4620.1400 [Repealed, 33 SR 1771]
[Repealed, 33 SR 1771]
Minn. R. 4620.1425 [Repealed, 33 SR 1771]
[Repealed, 33 SR 1771]
Minn. R. 4620.1440 Compliance
The proprietor must comply with parts 4620.0050 to 4620.1450.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.388; 144.417
- History: 27 SR 407; 33 SR 1771
Minn. R. 4620.1450 Variance to Clean Indoor Air Rules
The commissioner shall grant variances to parts 4620.0100 to 4620.1450 only according to the procedures and criteria specified in parts 4717.7000 to 4717.7050.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.05; 14.388; 144.417
- History: 15 SR 1597; 27 SR 407; 33 SR 1771
Minn. R. 4620.1500 [Repealed, L 1995 c 165 s 17]
[Repealed, L 1995 c 165 s 17]
Minn. R. 4620.1600 [Repealed, L 1985 c 216 s 1]
[Repealed, L 1985 c 216 s 1]
Minn. R. 4620.1700 [Repealed, L 1985 c 216 s 1]
[Repealed, L 1985 c 216 s 1]
Minn. R. 4620.1800 Maximum Permissible Formaldehyde Level in Housing Units
At the time of sale of a newly constructed housing unit, the ambient indoor air of any habitable room in the unit shall not contain more than 0.4 parts of formaldehyde per million parts of air as measured according to the procedures specified in parts 4620.1900 and 4620.2000. The seller is responsible for assuring that the unit complies with this level.
The installation of urea formaldehyde foam insulation in a housing unit which is not newly constructed shall not cause the indoor level of formaldehyde in any habitable room in the unit to exceed the higher of 0.4 parts per million or the preinstallation level as measured according to the procedures specified in parts 4620.1900 to 4620.2100. The installer of urea formaldehyde foam insulation is responsible for assuring that the installation complies with this level.
The commissioner shall grant a variance to this part only according to the procedures and criteria specified in parts 4717.7000 to 4717.7050.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.05; 144.495
- History: 9 SR 1576; 15 SR 1597
Minn. R. 4620.1900 [Repealed, L 1985 c 216 s 1]
[Repealed, L 1985 c 216 s 1]
Minn. R. 4620.2000 [Repealed, L 1985 c 216 s 1]
[Repealed, L 1985 c 216 s 1]
Minn. R. 4620.2100 [Repealed, L 1985 c 216 s 1]
[Repealed, L 1985 c 216 s 1]
Minn. R. 4620.3000 Applicability
Parts 4620.3000 to 4620.3724 apply to persons performing asbestos-related work.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.122; 326.70 to 326.81
- History: 13 SR 568; 20 SR 2765
Minn. R. 4620.3100 Definitions
Subpart 1. Scope.
For the purpose of parts 4620.3000 to 4620.3724, the following terms have the meanings given them.
Subp. 1a. Abatement.
"Abatement" means the performance of asbestos-related work, other than air monitoring, in the quantities specified in Minnesota Statutes, section 326.71, subdivision 4. Abatement includes area preparation, containment removal, and cleanup.
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, 20 SR 2765]
Subp. 2a. Adequately wet.
"Adequately wet" means mixed or penetrated with liquid to prevent the release of particulates.
Subp. 2b. Air quality monitoring.
"Air quality monitoring" is limited to the activities associated with the set up, calibration, collection, and documentation of the air samples that determine fiber concentrations as required under parts 4620.3570 and 4620.3592 to 4620.3598.
Subp. 2c. Alternative clearance standard.
"Alternative clearance standard" means the asbestos concentration of 70 structures per square millimeter (70 s/mm2) of filter surface when the clearance air samples are analyzed by transmission electron microscopy according to part 4620.3598.
Subp. 2d. Alternative indoor air standard.
"Alternative indoor air standard" means the maximum permissible fiber concentration in the air established according to part 4620.3597.
Subp. 2e. Area preparation.
"Area preparation" means:
A. the construction of a decontamination unit under parts 4620.3569; 4720.3580, subpart 2; and 4620.3581, subpart 3;
B. the installation of a HEPA-filtered negative pressure system under part 4620.3570; and
C. the performance of any activities required by parts 4620.3580, subpart 4, items A, B, D, E, G, and H; 4620.3581, subpart 4, item A; 4620.3582, subpart 3, item A; 4620.3566; 4620.3567; and 4620.3568.
Subp. 3. Asbestos.
"Asbestos" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 326.71, subdivision 2.
Subp. 4. Asbestos contractor.
"Asbestos contractor" means a person who conducts asbestos-related work and includes persons who perform in-house asbestos-related work using their own employees.
Subp. 5. Asbestos project plan.
"Asbestos project plan" means the written plan described in part 4620.3560.
Subp. 5a. Asbestos site supervisor.
"Asbestos site supervisor" means an individual who is certified under part 4620.3310.
Subp. 5b. Asbestos work area.
"Asbestos work area" means an area established by the person performing asbestos-related work, where airborne concentrations of asbestos exceed or can reasonably be expected to exceed 0.01 fibers per cubic centimeter (f/cc) or the alternative indoor air standard established according to parts 4620.3594 to 4620.3598.
Subp. 6. Asbestos worker.
"Asbestos worker" means any individual certified under part 4620.3300.
Subp. 7. Asbestos-containing material or ACM.
"Asbestos-containing material or ACM" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 326.71, subdivision 3.
Subp. 7a. Asbestos inspection.
"Asbestos inspection" means an activity undertaken by visual or physical examination to determine the presence, the location, or to assess the condition of friable or nonfriable asbestos-containing material or suspected asbestos-containing material. Asbestos inspection includes reinspection of known asbestos-containing material or assumed asbestos-containing material. Asbestos inspection does not include:
A. the periodic surveillance performed under Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, chapter I, subchapter R, part 763, subpart E, section 763.92, paragraph (b), amended through February 3, 1994;
B. an inspection performed by an employee or agent of the federal, state, or local government solely for the purpose of determining compliance with applicable statutes or rules; and
C. visual inspections of the type described in parts 4620.3560 to 4620.3598 solely for the purpose of determining completion of asbestos-related work.
Subp. 7b. Asbestos inspector.
"Asbestos inspector" is an individual as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 326.71, subdivision 4a, and who is certified under part 4620.3330.
Subp. 7c. Asbestos management plan.
"Asbestos management plan," as specified in part 4620.3470, means a site-specific written plan for:
A. the maintenance of asbestos-containing material in a condition that prevents the release of asbestos fibers; and
B. response procedures for an asbestos fiber release episode.
Subp. 7d. Asbestos management planner.
"Asbestos management planner" is an individual as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 326.71, subdivision 4c, and who is certified under part 4620.3340.
Subp. 7e. Asbestos project design.
"Asbestos project design" as specified in part 4620.3480, means site-specific written project specifications for an asbestos-related work project. Written technical project specifications incorporated into bidding documents are also considered project design.
Subp. 7f. Asbestos project designer.
"Asbestos project designer" is an individual as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 326.71, subdivision 4d, and who is certified under part 4620.3350.
Subp. 8. Asbestos-related work.
"Asbestos-related work" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 326.71, subdivision 4.
Subp. 9.
[Repealed, 20 SR 2765]
Subp. 10.
[Repealed, 20 SR 2765]
Subp. 10a. Clearance standard.
"Clearance standard" means the maximum permissible fiber concentration in the air within an asbestos work area following completion of abatement. The clearance standard is 0.01 fibers per cubic centimeter of air (f/cc) when analyzed by phase contrast microscopy according to part 4620.3597, subparts 1, 3, and 4.
Subp. 11. Commissioner.
"Commissioner" means the commissioner of health.
Subp. 11a. Containment.
"Containment" means the structure which must be constructed as specified in part 4620.3568 around the asbestos work area.
Subp. 12.
[Repealed, 20 SR 2765]
Subp. 13. Contracting entity.
"Contracting entity" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 326.71, subdivision 6.
Subp. 14. Critical barriers.
"Critical barriers" means the barriers constructed to separate and isolate the asbestos work area from the rest of the facility and the outdoors, including the barriers constructed over doors, windows, and air passageways.
Subp. 14a. Demolition.
"Demolition," with respect to a facility, means the:
A. wrecking or taking out of any load-supporting structural member of the facility together with any related handling operations; or
B. intentional burning of the facility.
Subp. 15.
[Repealed, 20 SR 2765]
Subp. 16. Emergency project.
"Emergency project" means a project which was not planned but results from a sudden, unexpected event whose consequences, if not immediately attended to, present either a safety or public health hazard or would damage the facility or facility components. This includes work required by nonroutine failures of equipment.
Subp. 17.
[Repealed, 20 SR 2765]
Subp. 18.
[Repealed, 20 SR 2765]
Subp. 19. Encapsulation.
"Encapsulation" refers to a method of asbestos abatement that is sometimes chosen as an alternative to asbestos removal, and means the treatment of asbestos containing building materials with a sealant material that surrounds or embeds asbestos fibers in an adhesive matrix to prevent the release of fibers. A bridging encapsulant creates a membrane over the surface. A penetrating encapsulant penetrates the material and binds its components together.
Subp. 20. Enclosure.
"Enclosure" refers to a method of asbestos abatement that is sometimes chosen as an alternative to asbestos removal, and means construction of permanent, airtight, impermeable walls, ceilings, and floors around asbestos containing material to prevent the release of asbestos fibers into the air.
Subp. 20a. Facility.
"Facility" means any:
A. institutional, commercial, public, industrial, or residential structure, building, or installation, including any structure, building, or installation containing condominiums or individual dwelling units operated as a residential cooperative; or
B. ship at dock in Minnesota.
Subp. 20b. Facility component.
"Facility component" means any part of a facility including equipment.
Subp. 21. Friable asbestos material.
"Friable asbestos material" means any material containing more than one percent asbestos by microscopic visual estimation by area, that hand pressure can crumble, pulverize, or reduce to powder when dry. Friable asbestos material includes previously nonfriable asbestos material which becomes damaged to the extent that when dry all or a portion of the material may be crumbled, pulverized, or reduced to powder by hand pressure.
Subp. 22.
[Repealed, 20 SR 2765]
Subp. 23. Glove bag.
"Glove bag" means a bag, fitted with arms, through which limited types of asbestos-related work may be performed, as allowed in part 4620.3580.
Subp. 24. High efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filter.
"High efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filter" means a filter capable of trapping and retaining at least 99.97 percent of all monodispersed particles 0.3 microns in diameter or larger.
Subp. 24a. Homogeneous area.
"Homogeneous area" means an area of surfacing materials, thermal system insulation materials, flooring, or other miscellaneous materials which upon examination for properties such as age, color, and texture appear to be composed of the same material.
Subp. 24b. Indoor air standard.
"Indoor air standard" means the maximum permissible fiber concentration in the air outside of the asbestos work area during asbestos-related work. The indoor air standard is 0.01 fibers per cubic centimeter of air (f/cc) when analyzed by phase contrast microscopy according to part 4620.3597, unless an alternative indoor air standard has been established.
Subp. 25. Industrial facility.
"Industrial facility" means a facility in an industry classified in the Standard Industrial Classification Manual, 1987 edition, published by the Office of Management and Budget, within Major Groups 20 to 39, 46, and 49. This document is not subject to frequent change, is incorporated by reference, and is available at the State Law Library, Minnesota Judicial Center, 25 Rev. Dr. Martin Luther King Jr. Blvd., Saint Paul, Minnesota 55155.
Subp. 25a. Installation.
"Installation" means any building or structure or any group of buildings or structures at a single demolition or renovation site that are under the control of the same owner or operator as described in Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, chapter I, subchapter R, part 61, subpart M, section 61.141, amended through July 1, 1994.
Subp. 25b. Maintenance or maintenance activity.
"Maintenance" or "maintenance activity" means any encapsulation, enclosure, or removal of asbestos-containing material on or around a mechanical system or machinery to sustain the operating condition of the mechanical system or machinery. Maintenance or maintenance activity does not include any encapsulation to return damaged, previously encapsulated ACM to an undamaged condition or to an intact state to prevent fiber release.
Subp. 26.
[Repealed, 20 SR 2765]
Subp. 27. Occupied area immediately adjacent to an asbestos work area.
"Occupied area immediately adjacent to an asbestos work area" is a designation used during an asbestos-related work project and means an indoor space which:
A. is not considered part of the asbestos work area;
B. shares a wall, floor, or ceiling with the asbestos work area or shares a window, door, or similar opening to a room temporarily considered the asbestos work area; and
C. is occupied by individuals not involved in asbestos-related work.
Subp. 27a. Person.
"Person" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 326.71, subdivision 8.
Subp. 27b. Project.
"Project" means:
A. the area preparation, enclosure, removal, or encapsulation operations and air quality monitoring of asbestos-containing material in a quantity that meets or exceeds 260 linear feet of friable asbestos-containing material on pipes, 160 square feet of friable asbestos-containing material on other facility components, or if linear feet or square feet cannot be measured, a total of 35 cubic feet of friable asbestos-containing material on or off all facility components in one facility. The removal, enclosure, or encapsulation described in this item may not be subdivided to fall below the quantity specified in this item. In single-family residences and residential buildings with no more than four dwelling units, asbestos-containing materials excluded from this definition are floor tiles and sheeting, roofing materials, siding, and all ceilings with asbestos-containing material;
B. a series of activities, excluding maintenance activity, which individually consist of area preparation and the enclosure, removal, or encapsulation operations and air quality monitoring of asbestos-containing material in quantities less than the quantities specified in item A where the total quantity of asbestos-containing material enclosed, removed, or encapsulated during a calendar year meets or exceeds the quantities specified in item A in that facility;
C. a series of maintenance activities where the contracting entity has predicted that the additive quantity of maintenance during a calendar year will exceed 260 linear feet, 160 square feet, or 35 cubic feet in a facility during the calendar year; or
D. a small residential abatement.
Subp. 28. Renovation.
"Renovation" means altering in any way one or more facility components. In asbestos-related work renovation includes the enclosure, removal, or encapsulation of friable asbestos-containing material.
Subp. 29. Responsible individual.
"Responsible individual" means one who has the authority to represent the asbestos contractor in all matters related to the asbestos contractor license and is certified as a site supervisor under part 4620.3310.
Subp. 30.
[Repealed, 20 SR 2765]
Subp. 31. Small residential abatement.
"Small residential abatement" means any asbestos-related work performed in a single- or multifamily residence where the quantity of asbestos-containing material to be enclosed, removed, or encapsulated is greater than ten but less than 260 linear feet of friable asbestos-containing material on pipes or ducts or greater than six but less than 160 square feet of friable asbestos-containing material on other facility components.
A. The asbestos-related work described in this subpart may not be subdivided to fall below the quantities specified in this subpart.
B. Small residential abatement in single-family residences and residential buildings with no more than four dwelling units does not include work on floor tiles and sheeting, roofing materials, siding, and all ceilings with asbestos-containing materials.
Subp. 32. Training course.
"Training course" means a course of instruction for an asbestos worker, asbestos site supervisor, asbestos inspector, asbestos management planner, asbestos project designer, or an individual who performs asbestos air monitoring.
Subp. 33. Tunnel.
"Tunnel" means a below-grade corridor or crawl space which is not used for:
A. a human thoroughfare; or
B. an air plenum for any ventilation system.
Subp. 34. Verifiable evidence.
"Verifiable evidence" means a signed statement verifying that the applicant has completed a training course or a refresher course. The statement may be provided in hard copy or electronic form or may be other electronic evidence such as an excerpt from a database. The statement or electronic evidence must be submitted by the provider of a training course, or by a government agency in another state charged with certifying or licensing asbestos workers if the course was taken in another state.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.122; 326.70 to 326.81
- History: 13 SR 568; 20 SR 2765; 33 SR 739
Minn. R. 4620.3200 Contractor Licensure
Subpart 1.
[Repealed, 20 SR 2765]
Subp. 2. Application for license.
An applicant for an asbestos contractor license must submit to the commissioner:
A. a completed application on a form provided by the commissioner, which seeks only information the commissioner reasonably considers necessary to identify the applicant and to determine whether the applicant meets the statutory and regulatory requirements for licensure;
B. a nonrefundable application fee of $100, which is not in the form of a personal check, payable to the Minnesota Department of Health;
C. the name, address, Social Security number, and signature of the responsible individual as defined in part 4620.3100, subpart 29; and
D. the asbestos contractor's Minnesota business identification number.
Subp. 2a. Workers' compensation.
As part of the contractor license application, the applicant must provide:
A. evidence of workers' compensation insurance as required by Minnesota Statutes, section 176.182; or
B. if the applicant is not liable to pay compensation under Minnesota Statutes, chapter 176, the applicant must submit a letter to the commissioner, signed and dated, stating why the applicant is not liable.
Subp. 3. Denial of asbestos contractor license application.
The commissioner shall deny an application for an asbestos contractor license if the applicant fails to comply with the requirements of subparts 2, 2a, and 4a. Additional grounds for the commissioner to deny an application are stated in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.99, subdivision 8, paragraph (a) or (b). An applicant:
A. must be notified in writing of the denial of the license application and reasons for the denial; and
B. is not required to pay a second fee if the applicant submits a second asbestos contractor application according to subpart 2, within 30 days of the receipt of notice that the asbestos contractor license application has been denied. Fees are required for all subsequent applications.
Subp. 4. Terms of licensure.
An asbestos contractor license is effective for one year unless it is revoked or suspended by the commissioner. An asbestos contractor license is not transferable.
Subp. 4a. Responsible individual.
A licensed asbestos contractor must at all times have a responsible individual who represents the asbestos contractor. If the responsible individual identified on the current asbestos contractor license no longer serves in that capacity, the contractor, within ten days of the change in the responsible individual, must provide a statement to the commissioner identifying and signed by the new responsible individual and stating the date when that individual assumed the duties of the responsible individual.
Subp. 5. Annual license renewal.
If a contractor wants to renew the asbestos contractor license, the contractor must submit a completed application under subpart 2 that is received by the commissioner by the expiration date on the existing asbestos contractor license.
Subp. 6.
[Repealed, 20 SR 2765]
Subp. 7.
[Repealed, 20 SR 2765]
Subp. 8. Procedures for obtaining duplicate license.
The commissioner shall issue a duplicate asbestos contractor license to replace a lost, destroyed, or mutilated license if the licensee submits a completed application for a duplicate license and pays a charge to the commissioner for the cost of duplicating the license.
Subp. 9. Subcontractors.
A subcontractor who performs asbestos-related work must hold a valid asbestos contractor license.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 16A.1285; 144.05; 144.122; 326.70 to 326.81
- History: 13 SR 568; 20 SR 2765; 33 SR 739
Minn. R. 4620.3250 Use of Qualified Individuals
Subpart 1. Qualified individuals.
Qualified individuals must be used to perform asbestos-related work.
A. An asbestos contractor must employ only asbestos workers and site supervisors with current certificates issued by the commissioner to conduct asbestos-related work.
B. An asbestos contractor must ensure that a current asbestos worker certificate or asbestos site supervisor certificate for each individual engaged in asbestos-related work is readily available at the work site for review by the commissioner, except as provided in parts 4620.3300, subpart 5, item A, and 4620.3310, subpart 6, item A.
Subp. 2. Required work site personnel.
A. An asbestos contractor must ensure that a certified asbestos site supervisor is present at the work site during all times when asbestos-related work is performed.
B. If the asbestos contractor is only performing air quality monitoring, then that asbestos contractor must ensure that:
C. The asbestos worker under item B, subitem (2), must be able to immediately contact a certified site supervisor of the asbestos contractor performing the air quality monitoring.
D. If requested, the certified site supervisor must be present at the work site within two hours after being contacted.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 326.78
- History: 33 SR 739
Minn. R. 4620.3300 Certification of Asbestos Worker
Subpart 1. Certification of asbestos worker required.
An individual who performs asbestos-related work must be certified by the commissioner as an asbestos worker under this part unless that individual is certified as an asbestos site supervisor.
Subp. 2. Qualifications or experience requirements.
To be eligible for certification as an asbestos worker, an individual must have completed either:
A. two years full-time attendance, or the part-time equivalent, in an apprenticeship program for general commercial construction trades which is either approved by the Minnesota Department of Labor and Industry, Division of Voluntary Apprenticeship, or registered with the United States Department of Labor, Bureau of Apprenticeship and Training;
B. two years of postsecondary education with an emphasis in construction management, industrial hygiene, industrial technology safety, or physical or life science, and completed an Occupational Safety and Health Administration's (OSHA) 510 Occupational Safety and Health Standards for the construction industry course;
C. a vocational training program in a construction-related discipline of not less than 18 months; or
D. work experience of at least 1,000 hours of work experience in general commercial construction trades.
Subp. 3. Training requirements for initial certification.
To be eligible for initial certification as an asbestos worker:
A. an applicant must complete before the commissioner's receipt of the application, an initial asbestos worker training course that is:
B. an applicant must complete, before the commissioner's receipt of the application, an asbestos worker refresher course permitted by the commissioner under part 4620.3704 if the applicant has completed an initial asbestos worker training course specified in item A, subitem (2) or (3).
Subp. 3a. Training diploma expiration; retraining.
The applicant for certification as an asbestos worker must complete an annual asbestos worker refresher course permitted by the commissioner under part 4620.3704 when the diploma from an initial worker training course, as specified in subpart 3, item A, has expired before the commissioner's receipt of the application.
A. The most recent asbestos worker refresher course taken must be permitted by the commissioner under part 4620.3704.
B. Any refresher courses completed subsequent to the expiration of the diploma must have been completed no more than 12 months after the expiration date of the preceding diploma.
Subp. 4. Application for initial asbestos worker certification.
An applicant for initial certification as an asbestos worker must submit to the commissioner:
A. a completed application on a form provided by the commissioner, which seeks only information the commissioner reasonably considers necessary to identify the applicant and to determine whether the applicant meets the statutory and regulatory requirements for certification;
B. a nonrefundable application fee of $50, which is not in the form of a personal check, payable to the Minnesota Department of Health; and
C. verifiable evidence of the applicant's original diploma for the initial asbestos worker training course completed and, if applicable, verifiable evidence of each of the applicant's original diplomas for the asbestos worker refresher training courses completed.
Subp. 5. Renewal.
A. An individual certified as an asbestos worker must apply for renewal of the asbestos worker certification by submitting to the commissioner a completed renewal application. Until the renewal certificate is issued by the commissioner, the asbestos worker may continue to perform asbestos-related work for up to 30 calendar days from the date of completing the refresher training course, provided the asbestos worker:
B. The renewal application must include:
Subp. 6. Denial of asbestos worker certification.
The commissioner shall deny an application for asbestos worker certification if the applicant fails to comply with all applicable requirements in this part. Additional grounds for the commissioner to deny an application are stated in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.99, subdivision 8, paragraphs (a) and (b). An applicant:
A. must be notified in writing of the denial of the certificate and the reasons for the denial; and
B. is not required to pay a second fee if the applicant submits a second asbestos worker certification application according to subpart 4 or 5 within 30 days of receipt of notice that the asbestos worker certification has been denied. Fees are required for all subsequent applications.
Subp. 7. Duration of certificate; transfer.
An asbestos worker certificate issued by the commissioner is valid for one year after the completion date on the training course diploma for the most recently completed training course. The asbestos worker certificate is not transferable.
Subp. 8. Duplicate certificate.
To replace a lost, destroyed, or mutilated asbestos worker certificate, the certified asbestos worker must submit a completed application for a duplicate asbestos worker certificate and pay a charge to the Minnesota Department of Health for the cost of duplicating the certificate.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 16A.1285; 144.05; 144.122; 326.70 to 326.81
- History: 13 SR 568; 20 SR 2765; 25 SR 1894; 33 SR 739
Minn. R. 4620.3310 Certification of Asbestos Site Supervisor
Subpart 1. Certification required.
An individual who supervises asbestos-related work or has the authority to act as the agent of the asbestos contractor at the asbestos work area must be certified as an asbestos site supervisor by the commissioner.
Subp. 2. Qualifications or experience requirements.
To be eligible for certification as an asbestos site supervisor, an individual must have either:
A. work experience of at least 2,000 hours in asbestos-related work, safety, industrial hygiene, hazardous materials control, or other general commercial construction trades;
B. a bachelor's degree in architecture, engineering, physical or life science, and work experience of at least 500 hours in asbestos-related work, safety, industrial hygiene, hazardous materials control, or other general commercial construction trades;
C. a master's degree in environmental health, industrial hygiene, or safety; or
D. completion of an apprenticeship program within the general commercial construction trades that is either approved by the Minnesota Department of Labor and Industry, Division of Voluntary Apprenticeship, or registered with the United States Department of Labor, Bureau of Apprenticeship and Training.
Subp. 3. Training requirements for initial certification.
To be eligible for initial certification as an asbestos site supervisor:
A. an applicant must complete, before the commissioner's receipt of the application, an initial asbestos site supervisor training course that is:
B. an applicant must complete, before the commissioner's receipt of the application, an asbestos site supervisor refresher course permitted by the commissioner under part 4620.3704 if the applicant has completed an initial asbestos site supervisor training course specified in item A, subitem (2) or (3).
Subp. 4. Training diploma expiration; retraining.
The applicant for certification as an asbestos site supervisor must complete an annual asbestos site supervisor refresher course permitted by the commissioner under part 4620.3704 when the diploma from an initial site supervisor training course as specified in subpart 3, item A, has expired before the commissioner's receipt of the application.
A. The most recent asbestos site supervisor refresher course completed must be permitted by the commissioner under part 4620.3704.
B. Any refresher courses completed subsequent to the expiration of the diploma must have been completed no more than 12 months after the expiration date of the preceding diploma.
Subp. 5. Initial certification application.
An applicant for initial certification as an asbestos site supervisor must submit to the commissioner:
A. a completed application on a form provided by the commissioner, which seeks only information the commissioner reasonably considers necessary to identify the applicant and to determine whether the applicant meets the statutory and regulatory requirements for certification;
B. a nonrefundable application fee of $50, which is not in the form of a personal check, payable to the Minnesota Department of Health; and
C. verifiable evidence of the applicant's original diploma for the initial asbestos site supervisor training course completed and, if applicable, verifiable evidence of each of the applicant's original diplomas for the asbestos site supervisor refresher training courses.
Subp. 6. Renewal.
A. An individual certified as an asbestos site supervisor must apply for renewal of asbestos site supervisor certification by submitting to the commissioner a completed renewal application. Until the renewal certificate is issued by the commissioner, the asbestos site supervisor may continue to perform asbestos-related work for up to 30 calendar days from the date of completing the refresher course, provided the asbestos site supervisor:
B. The renewal application must include:
Subp. 7. Denial of certification.
The commissioner shall deny an application for an asbestos site supervisor if the applicant fails to comply with all applicable requirements in this part. Additional grounds for the commissioner to deny an application are stated in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.99, subdivision 8, paragraphs (a) and (b). An applicant:
A. must be notified in writing of the denial of the certificate and the reasons for the denial; and
B. is not required to pay a second fee if the applicant submits a second asbestos site supervisor application within 30 days of the receipt of the notice that the asbestos site supervisor application has been denied. Fees are required for all subsequent applications.
Subp. 8. Duration of certificate; transfer.
An asbestos site supervisor certificate is valid for 12 months after the completion date on the diploma for the most recently completed training course. The asbestos site supervisor certificate is not transferable.
Subp. 9. Duplicate certificate.
To replace a lost, destroyed, or mutilated asbestos site supervisor certificate, the certified asbestos site supervisor must submit a completed application for a duplicate asbestos site supervisor certificate and pay a charge to the Minnesota Department of Health for the cost of duplicating the certificate.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 16A.1285; 144.05; 144.122; 326.70 to 326.81
- History: 20 SR 2765; 25 SR 1894; 33 SR 739
Minn. R. 4620.3330 Certification of Asbestos Inspector
Subpart 1. Certification required.
Beginning October 1, 1996, an individual who performs an asbestos inspection, as defined in part 4620.3100, must be certified by the commissioner as an asbestos inspector.
Subp. 2. Qualifications and experience.
Beginning January 2, 1997, an individual applying for certification as an asbestos inspector must show evidence of either:
A. work experience of at least 500 hours in the field of building inspection, asbestos-related work, safety, industrial hygiene, or hazardous materials control;
B. completion of an apprenticeship program within the general commercial construction trades approved by the Minnesota Department of Labor and Industry, Division of Voluntary Apprenticeship, or registered with the United States Department of Labor, Bureau of Apprenticeship and Training;
C. licensure by Minnesota as a building official;
D. a bachelor's degree in architecture, engineering, industrial hygiene, industrial technology safety, or physical or life science, and 40 hours of on-site asbestos inspection experience accompanying a Minnesota-certified asbestos inspector; or
E. registration or certification as a registered architect, licensed professional engineer, certified industrial hygienist, or certified safety professional.
Subp. 3. Training requirements for initial certification.
To be eligible for initial certification as an asbestos inspector an applicant must complete, before the commissioner's receipt of the application:
A. an initial asbestos inspector training course that is:
B. an asbestos inspector refresher course permitted by the commissioner under part 4620.3704 if the applicant has completed an initial asbestos inspector training course specified in item A, subitem (2) or (3).
Subp. 4. Training diploma expiration; retraining.
The applicant for certification as an asbestos inspector must complete an annual asbestos inspector refresher course permitted by the commissioner under part 4620.3704 to maintain certification eligibility when the diploma from an initial inspector training course as specified in subpart 3, item A, has expired before the commissioner's receipt of the application.
A. The most recent asbestos inspector refresher course completed must be permitted by the commissioner under part 4620.3704.
B. Any refresher courses which have been completed subsequent to the expiration of the diploma must have been completed no more than 12 months after the expiration date of the preceding diploma.
Subp. 5. Application for initial certification.
An applicant for initial certification as an asbestos inspector must submit to the commissioner:
A. a completed application on a form provided by the commissioner, which seeks only information the commissioner reasonably considers necessary to identify the applicant and to determine whether the applicant meets the statutory and regulatory requirements for certification;
B. a nonrefundable application fee of $100, which is not in the form of a personal check, payable to the Minnesota Department of Health; and
C. verifiable evidence of the applicant's original diploma for the initial asbestos inspector training course, and, if applicable, verifiable evidence of each of the applicant's original diplomas from the asbestos inspector refresher training courses.
Subp. 6. Renewal.
A. An individual certified as an asbestos inspector must apply for renewal of asbestos inspector certification by submitting to the commissioner a completed renewal application. Until the renewal certificate is issued by the commissioner, the asbestos inspector may continue to perform asbestos inspections for up to 30 calendar days from the date of completing the refresher training course, provided the asbestos inspector:
B. The renewal application must include:
Subp. 7. Denial of certification.
The commissioner shall deny an application for asbestos inspector certification if the applicant fails to comply with all applicable requirements in this part. Additional grounds for the commissioner to deny an application are stated in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.99, subdivision 8, paragraphs (a) and (b). An applicant:
A. must be notified in writing of the denial of the certificate and the reasons for the denial; and
B. is not required to pay a second fee if the applicant submits a second asbestos inspector application within 30 days of the receipt of the notice that the asbestos inspector application has been denied. Fees are required for all subsequent applications.
Subp. 8. Duration of certificate; transfer.
An asbestos inspector certificate is valid for 12 months after the completion date on the diploma for the most recently completed training course. The asbestos inspector certificate is not transferable.
Subp. 9. Duplicate certificate.
To replace a lost, destroyed, or mutilated asbestos inspector certificate, the certified asbestos inspector must submit a completed application for a duplicate asbestos inspector certificate and pay a charge to the Minnesota Department of Health for the cost of duplicating the certificate.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 16A.1285; 144.05; 144.122; 326.70 to 326.81
- History: 20 SR 2765; 25 SR 1894; 33 SR 739
Minn. R. 4620.3340 Asbestos Management Planner Certification
Subpart 1. Certification required.
Beginning October 1, 1996, an individual who develops an asbestos management plan must be certified by the commissioner as an asbestos management planner.
Subp. 2. Qualifications or experience requirements.
Beginning January 2, 1997, an individual applying for certification must show evidence of either:
A. work experience of at least 1,000 hours in the field of building inspection, asbestos-related work, safety, industrial hygiene, or hazardous materials control;
B. licensure by Minnesota as a building official;
C. a bachelor's degree in architecture, engineering, physical or life science, and work experience of 500 hours in the field of building inspection, asbestos-related work, safety, industrial hygiene, or hazardous materials control;
D. registration as a registered architect, licensure as a professional engineer, or certification as a certified industrial hygienist or certified safety professional; or
E. a master's degree in environmental health, industrial hygiene or safety, and work experience of 250 hours in the field of building inspection, asbestos-related work, safety, industrial hygiene, or hazardous materials control.
Subp. 3. Training requirements for initial certification.
To be eligible for initial certification as an asbestos management planner an applicant must complete, before the commissioner's receipt of the application:
A. an initial asbestos management planner training course that is:
B. an asbestos management planner refresher course permitted by the commissioner under part 4620.3704 if the applicant has completed the initial asbestos management planner training course specified in item A, subitem (2) or (3).
Subp. 4. Training diploma expiration; retraining.
The applicant for certification as an asbestos management planner must complete an annual asbestos management planner refresher course permitted by the commissioner under part 4620.3704 when the diploma from an initial management planner training course as specified in subpart 3, item A, has expired before the commissioner's receipt of the application.
A. The most recent asbestos management planner refresher course completed must be permitted by the commissioner under part 4620.3704.
B. Any refresher courses which have been completed subsequent to the expiration of the diploma must have been completed no more than 12 months after the expiration date of the preceding diploma.
Subp. 5. Application for initial certification.
An applicant for initial certification as an asbestos management planner must submit to the commissioner:
A. a completed application on a form provided by the commissioner, which seeks only information the commissioner reasonably considers necessary to identify the applicant and to determine whether the applicant meets the statutory and regulatory requirements for certification;
B. a nonrefundable application fee of $100, which is not in the form of a personal check, payable to the Minnesota Department of Health; and
C. verifiable evidence of the applicant's original diploma for the initial asbestos management planner training course and, if applicable, verifiable evidence of each of the applicant's original diplomas for the asbestos management planner refresher training courses.
Subp. 6. Renewal.
A. An individual certified as an asbestos management planner must apply for renewal of asbestos management planner certification by submitting to the commissioner a completed renewal application. Until the renewal certificate is issued by the commissioner, the asbestos management planner may continue to perform asbestos management plans for up to 30 calendar days from the date of completing the refresher training course, provided the asbestos management planner:
B. The renewal application must include:
Subp. 7. Denial of certification.
The commissioner shall deny an application for certification as an asbestos management planner if the applicant fails to comply with the requirements in this part. Additional grounds for the commissioner to deny an application are stated in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.99, subdivision 8, paragraphs (a) and (b). An applicant:
A. must be notified in writing of the denial of the certificate and the reasons for the denial; and
B. is not required to pay a second fee if the applicant submits a second asbestos management planner application within 30 days of the receipt of the notice that the asbestos management planner application has been denied. Fees are required for all subsequent applications.
Subp. 8. Duration of certificate; transfer.
An asbestos management planner certificate is valid for 12 months after the completion date on the diploma for the most recently completed training course. The asbestos management planner certificate is not transferable.
Subp. 9. Duplicate certificate.
To replace a lost, destroyed, or mutilated asbestos management planner certificate, the certified asbestos management planner must submit a completed application for a duplicate asbestos management planner certificate and pay a charge to the Minnesota Department of Health for the cost of duplicating the certificate.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 16A.1285; 144.05; 144.122; 326.70 to 326.81
- History: 20 SR 2765; 25 SR 1894; 33 SR 739
Minn. R. 4620.3350 Asbestos Project Designer Certification
Subpart 1. Certification required.
Beginning October 1, 1996, an individual who prepares an asbestos project design must be certified by the commissioner as an asbestos project designer.
Subp. 2. Qualifications or experience requirements.
Beginning January 2, 1997, to be eligible for certification as an asbestos project designer, an individual applying for certification must show evidence of completion of either:
A. work experience of at least 4,000 hours in asbestos-related work or asbestos management activity as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 326.71; or
B. registration as a registered architect, licensure as a professional engineer, or certification as a certified industrial hygienist or certified safety professional.
Subp. 3. Training requirements for initial certification.
To be eligible for initial certification as an asbestos project designer, an applicant must complete, before the commissioner's receipt of the application:
A. an initial asbestos project designer training course that is:
B. an asbestos project designer refresher course permitted by the commissioner under part 4620.3704 if the applicant has completed the initial asbestos project designer training course specified in item A, subitem (2) or (3).
Subp. 4. Training diploma expiration; retraining.
The applicant for certification as an asbestos project designer must complete an annual asbestos project designer refresher course permitted by the commissioner under part 4620.3704 when the diploma from an initial project designer training course as specified in subpart 3, item A, has expired before the commissioner's receipt of the application.
A. The most recent asbestos project designer refresher course completed must be permitted under part 4620.3704 by the commissioner.
B. Any refresher courses which have been completed subsequent to the expiration of the diploma must have been completed no more than 12 months after the expiration date of the preceding diploma.
Subp. 5. Application for initial certification.
An applicant for initial certification as an asbestos project designer must submit to the commissioner:
A. a completed application on a form provided by the commissioner, which seeks only information the commissioner reasonably considers necessary to identify the applicant and to determine whether the applicant meets the statutory and regulatory requirements for certification;
B. a nonrefundable application fee of $100, which is not in the form of a personal check, payable to the Minnesota Department of Health; and
C. verifiable evidence of the applicant's original diploma for the initial asbestos project designer training course and, if applicable, verifiable evidence of each of the applicant's original diplomas from the asbestos project designer refresher training courses.
Subp. 6. Renewal.
A. An individual certified as an asbestos project designer must apply for renewal of asbestos project designer certification by submitting to the commissioner a completed renewal application. Until the renewal certificate is issued by the commissioner, the asbestos project designer may continue to perform asbestos project designs for up to 30 calendar days from the date of completing the refresher training course, provided the asbestos project designer:
B. The renewal application must include:
Subp. 7. Denial of certification.
The commissioner shall deny an application for an asbestos project designer certificate if the applicant fails to comply with the requirements in this part. Additional grounds for the commissioner to deny an application are stated in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.99, subdivision 8, paragraphs (a) and (b). An applicant:
A. must be notified in writing of the denial of the certificate and the reasons for the denial; and
B. is not required to pay a second fee if the applicant submits a second asbestos project designer application within 30 days of the receipt of the notice that the asbestos project designer application has been denied. Fees are required for all subsequent applications.
Subp. 8. Duration of certificate; transfer.
An asbestos project designer certificate is valid for 12 months after the completion date on the diploma for the most recently completed training course. The asbestos project designer certificate is not transferable.
Subp. 9. Duplicate certificate.
To replace a lost, destroyed, or mutilated asbestos project designer certificate, the certified asbestos project designer must submit a completed application for a duplicate asbestos project designer certificate and pay a charge to the Minnesota Department of Health for the cost of duplicating the certificate.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 16A.1285; 144.05; 144.122; 326.70 to 326.81
- History: 20 SR 2765; 25 SR 1894; 33 SR 739
Minn. R. 4620.3400 [Repealed, 20 SR 2765]
[Repealed, 20 SR 2765]
Minn. R. 4620.3410 Asbestos-Related Work Project Notice
Subpart 1. General.
Each licensed asbestos contractor must notify the commissioner of each project to be performed in whole or in part by the licensed asbestos contractor.
Subp. 2. Requirements for notice.
At least five calendar days before the beginning of a project, except as provided in part 4620.3420, the commissioner must receive from the licensed asbestos contractor:
A. a completed notice on a form provided by the commissioner which seeks only information the commissioner reasonably considers necessary to inspect the project and issue the permit; and
B. the permit fee for the project as determined under part 4620.3430.
Subp. 3. Notice of abatement schedule.
The commissioner must be notified in advance of the dates and work shift times for abatement.
A. If a project will occur in two or more phases between the project start and end dates specified on the notice, the commissioner must receive a written schedule of abatement dates and work shift times from the licensed asbestos contractor performing abatement at least five calendar days before beginning the project.
B. For a project described in part 4620.3100, subpart 27b, item B or C, if the licensed asbestos contractor performing abatement cannot reasonably determine the schedule for abatement at the time of notice, the licensed asbestos contractor performing abatement must also submit written notice to the commissioner of abatement dates and work shift times for each portion of the project which exceeds three linear feet or three square feet of asbestos-containing material, so that the commissioner receives the notice as soon as possible before that portion of the project begins.
C. The asbestos contractor performing abatement must ensure that at least one site supervisor is present at the project site on the dates and during the work shifts for which the commissioner has been notified.
D. The asbestos contractor performing abatement must ensure that abatement is performed only during dates and work shifts for which the commissioner has been notified.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 326.70 to 326.81
- History: 20 SR 2765; 33 SR 739
Minn. R. 4620.3415 Amendment of Notice
The licensed asbestos contractor performing abatement must notify the commissioner according to this part of any change in the information reported to the commissioner by that contractor under part 4620.3410.
A. All amendments except for work shift times and dates must be in writing with the permit number and the changes clearly indicated.
B. Any amendment of the project start date to an earlier start date must be received by the commissioner at least five calendar days before abatement begins.
C. An amendment, other than a change of the project start date to an earlier start date, must be received by the commissioner no later than the effective date and time of the change.
D. Any amendment of the dates or work shift times, other than the project start and end dates, must be received by the commissioner by voice mail, telephone, facsimile, mail, or delivery.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 326.70 to 326.81
- History: 20 SR 2765; 33 SR 739
Minn. R. 4620.3420 Emergency Project Notice
Subpart 1. Emergency project begun during work hours.
For an emergency project which begins between 8:00 a.m. and 4:30 p.m. on the days the Minnesota Department of Health is open, the commissioner must receive from the licensed asbestos contractor:
A. a completed notice on a form provided by the commissioner which seeks only information the commissioner considers reasonably necessary to inspect the project and issue the permit as soon as possible before the project begins; and
B. within five calendar days after the emergency project begins, the items listed in part 4620.3410, subpart 2, items B and C.
Subp. 2. Emergency project begun after work hours.
For an emergency project which begins at a time other than the times specified in subpart 1, the commissioner must receive from the licensed asbestos contractor:
A. a completed notice on a form provided by the commissioner which seeks only information the commissioner considers reasonably necessary to inspect the project and issue the permit by 4:30 p.m. of the next day the department is open; and
B. within five calendar days after the emergency project begins, the items listed in part 4620.3410, subpart 2, items B and C.
Subp. 3. Amendments to emergency project notice.
Amendments to the emergency project notice form must be made according to part 4620.3415, items A, C, and D. An amendment to an emergency project notice must not include additional asbestos-containing material to be abated unless that material is part of the same emergency situation.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 326.70 to 326.81
- History: 20 SR 2765
Minn. R. 4620.3425 Permit Issuance
If the licensed asbestos contractor performing abatement complies with the requirements of part 4620.3410, subparts 2 and 3, or 4620.3420, subpart 1 or 2, the commissioner shall issue a project permit to the licensed asbestos contractor. The project permit shall expire on the end date stated on the notice or any amendment of the end date made under part 4620.3415.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 326.70 to 326.81
- History: 20 SR 2765
Minn. R. 4620.3430 Permit Fees
Subpart 1. General.
Fees are required for all projects.
Subp. 2. Permit fees for abatement other than small residential abatement.
As required by Minnesota Statutes, section 326.75, subdivision 3, the asbestos contractor performing abatement must ensure that a project fee equal to one percent of the total cost of the abatement portion of a project is paid to the commissioner.
A. The total cost of the abatement portion of a project must include the cost of abatement area preparation, decontamination units, containment and permanent enclosures, alterations, abatement operations, repairs, wages, materials, waste disposal, profit, performance bonds, insurance, and administrative overhead. The total cost of the abatement portion of a project does not include the cost of reinsulation or the cost of air quality monitoring.
B. If the final invoice amount for the abatement portion exceeds the total cost of the abatement portion of the project previously reported on the notification form, the asbestos contractor performing abatement must ensure that an additional fee payment in the amount of one percent of that difference is submitted to the commissioner within 30 calendar days of the submission of the invoice to the contracting entity.
C. If the final project cost amount for the abatement portion is less than the total cost of the abatement portion of the project previously reported on the notification form, the commissioner must pay a refund of the excess fee payment to the licensed asbestos contractor.
Subp. 3. Permit fees; air quality monitoring; except small residential abatement.
As required by Minnesota Statutes, section 326.75, subdivision 3, the asbestos contractor performing air monitoring must ensure that a project fee equal to one percent of the total cost of the air quality portion of a project is paid to the commissioner.
A. The total cost of the air quality monitoring portion of a project must include the cost of air quality monitoring as specified in part 4620.3598, wages, materials, profit, performance, bonds, insurance, and administrative overhead.
B. If the final invoice for the air quality monitoring portion of the project exceeds the total cost of the air quality monitoring portion of the project previously reported on the notification form, the asbestos contractor performing air monitoring must ensure that an additional fee payment in the amount of one percent of that difference is submitted to the commissioner within 30 calendar days of the submission of the invoice to the contracting entity.
C. If the final project cost amount for the air quality monitoring portion is less than the total cost of the air quality monitoring portion of the project previously reported on the notification form, the commissioner must pay a refund of the excess fee payment to the licensed asbestos contractor.
Subp. 4. Small residential abatement permit fee.
Notwithstanding anything in this part, for each small residential abatement the person undertaking that abatement must pay to the commissioner a project permit fee of $35 per project.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 16A.1285; 144.05; 144.122; 326.70 to 326.81
- History: 20 SR 2765
Minn. R. 4620.3435 Posting the Work Site
The licensed asbestos contractor performing abatement must post in a conspicuous place outside of the abatement area:
A. a copy of the project permit;
B. a copy of the project notice and all written amendments pertaining to that project; and
C. if applicable, a copy of the notice submitted to the commissioner according to part 4620.3410, subpart 3.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 326.70 to 326.81
- History: 20 SR 2765
Minn. R. 4620.3440 Records
Subpart 1. On-site records.
The asbestos contractor performing abatement must ensure that the records in this subpart are readily available for review by the commissioner at the work site during the entire period of the project.
A. A daily sign-in and sign-out log must identify individuals entering containments, mini-containments, or working with glove bags, by name, certificate number, and length of time spent in the containments, mini-containments, or working with glove bags.
B. A copy of the asbestos project plan must be developed according to part 4620.3560.
C. All on-site air monitoring results for air monitoring required under parts 4620.3592 to 4620.3598 must be documented, including a written explanation of any fiber count above the applicable standards.
D. The negative air pressure measurements required under part 4620.3570 must clearly indicate the measurement, the date and time of the measurement, and the containment to which the measurement applies. All instances of negative pressure deviation from the minimum requirement under part 4620.3570, subparts 4 and 5, must have a written explanation on or attached to the measurement record.
Subp. 2. Record retention.
The records in subpart 1 must be retained by the asbestos contractor for 30 years after completion of the project. When the licensed asbestos contractor ceases operation, within 20 calendar days of ceasing operation, the responsible individual must submit written notice to the commissioner of the name, address, and telephone number of the individual with whom the records required by subpart 1 are deposited.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 326.70 to 326.81
- History: 20 SR 2765
Minn. R. 4620.3450 Duties of Contracting Entity
A contracting entity is responsible for compliance with this part. A contracting entity must:
A. maintain for at least three years, records of the amount of asbestos-containing material removed, enclosed, and encapsulated, during each calendar year, in each facility for which the contracting entity is responsible; and
B. before any person begins work involving the enclosure, removal, or encapsulation of asbestos-containing material, inform that person, in writing, of the cumulative quantities of all asbestos-containing materials enclosed, removed, or encapsulated within a facility during the current calendar year, as of the date of the writing.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 326.70 to 326.81
- History: 20 SR 2765
Minn. R. 4620.3460 Asbestos Inspection and Assessment
Subpart 1. Applicability.
When an asbestos inspection is performed, the asbestos inspection must be conducted according to this part.
Subp. 2. Asbestos sampling.
Sampling must be conducted as provided in Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, chapter I, subchapter R, part 763, subpart E, section 763.86, amended through April 15, 1988, and Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, chapter I, subchapter R, part 763, subpart E, appendix C, section I, paragraph (B), subparagraph (3), amended through February 3, 1994.
Subp. 3. Asbestos analysis.
Analysis of bulk samples collected as part of an asbestos inspection must be analyzed according to this subpart.
A. Bulk samples collected and submitted for analysis must be analyzed for asbestos using a laboratory:
B. Bulk samples must not be composited for analysis unless allowed by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) as specified in "Asbestos NESHAP Clarification Regarding Analysis of Multi-layered Systems," Federal Register, volume 5, number 3, page 542, January 5, 1994. Bulk samples shall be analyzed for asbestos content by polarized light microscopy (PLM), as specified in EPA Method for the Determination of Asbestos in Bulk Building Materials, United States EPA 600/R-93/116, 1993. This document is incorporated by reference, is not subject to frequent change, and is available through the Minitex interlibrary loan system.
C. A homogeneous area is determined not to contain asbestos only if the results of all samples required to be collected from the area show asbestos in amounts of one percent or less.
D. A homogeneous area is determined to contain asbestos if results of at least one sample collected from the area shows that asbestos is present in an amount greater than one percent.
E. The asbestos inspector must obtain an analysis report which contains the:
Subp. 4. Assessment.
If the asbestos inspector performs an assessment of the condition of asbestos-containing material or suspected asbestos-containing material, the asbestos inspector must provide a written assessment using the categories from Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, chapter I, subchapter R, part 763, subpart E, section 763.88, paragraph (b), items (1) to (7), amended through April 15, 1988, for all known or assumed asbestos-containing material in the facility or portion of the facility inspected.
Subp. 5. Inspector duties.
The asbestos inspector must have a current asbestos inspector certificate at the location where the asbestos inspector is conducting work, except as provided in part 4620.3330, subpart 6, item A. The asbestos inspector must prepare a written report which:
A. contains the exact location of each homogeneous area of material which is known or assumed to be asbestos-containing material;
B. if the asbestos inspector performs an assessment of asbestos-containing material or suspected asbestos-containing material, contains the condition of each homogeneous area of material which is known or assumed to be asbestos-containing material;
C. is signed by the inspector;
D. is dated by the inspector;
E. includes the inspector's Minnesota asbestos inspector certification number;
F. provides a photocopy of the current asbestos inspector certificate of each inspector who performed the inspection; and
G. is provided to the person requesting the inspection.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 326.70 to 326.81
- History: 20 SR 2765; 25 SR 1894
Minn. R. 4620.3470 Asbestos Management Plan
Subpart 1. Applicability.
When an asbestos management planner develops a written asbestos management plan for a facility or portion of a facility, the asbestos management plan must meet the requirements of this part.
Subp. 2. General.
The asbestos management plan must address all materials known or assumed to be asbestos-containing material within the facility or portion of the facility.
A. An asbestos management plan must be developed by an individual certified as an asbestos management planner.
B. The asbestos management planner must have a current asbestos management planner certificate at the location where the asbestos management planner is conducting work, except as provided in part 4620.3340, subpart 6, item A.
C. Any changes to an asbestos management plan must be made by an asbestos management planner.
D. The asbestos management planner must ensure that the asbestos management plan is available for review by the commissioner on request.
E. Material assumed by the asbestos inspector to be asbestos-containing material must be designated by the asbestos management planner in the asbestos management plan as asbestos-containing material, unless sampling of the material demonstrates the material is not asbestos-containing material.
Subp. 3. Asbestos management plan contents.
The asbestos management plan must be specific for the facility designated in the plan and contain:
A. the name and address of the facility;
B. copies of all asbestos inspection reports including copies of all photographs, diagrams, or other items referred to in the report;
C. a blueprint, legible diagram, or written description of the facility that indicates the location of all known or assumed asbestos-containing material;
D. the name, address, and telephone number of the individual designated to implement and administer the asbestos management plan;
E. the name and signature of the management planners making the recommendations, and a photocopy of the valid asbestos management planner certificate belonging to each management planner;
F. response actions, or preventative measures performed or to be performed to minimize or prevent fiber release episodes; and
G. procedures to inform facility maintenance personnel and outside contractors of the location and identity of building materials known or assumed to be asbestos-containing material before the beginning of work in an area where these materials are located.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 326.70 to 326.81
- History: 20 SR 2765; 25 SR 1894
Minn. R. 4620.3480 Asbestos Project Design
Subpart 1. Applicability.
When an asbestos project design is prepared, it must be prepared according to this part and signed by the asbestos project designer.
Subp. 2. Use of asbestos project designer.
The asbestos project designer must have a current asbestos project designer certificate at the location where the asbestos project designer is conducting work, except as provided in part 4620.3350, subpart 6, item A. The asbestos project designer must include in the asbestos project design a photocopy of the current asbestos project designer certificate of the asbestos project designer who prepared the asbestos project design.
Subp. 3. Technical specification content requirements.
The asbestos project designer must include in the asbestos project design the method for complying with all applicable work practice requirements of parts 4620.3000 to 4620.3724. The asbestos project design must address:
A. preparation of each asbestos-related work area;
B. establishment of each containment;
C. establishment of each decontamination unit and procedures for use;
D. evaluation and selection of various fiber release control options;
E. establishment, maintenance, and monitoring of negative air pressure within each containment;
F. asbestos-containing material enclosure, removal, encapsulation, or repair work practices;
G. visual inspection procedures for each asbestos abatement containment area;
H. air monitoring, including analysis, documentation, and record keeping;
I. respiratory protection and personal protective equipment requirements; and
J. disposal of asbestos-containing materials and project waste.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 326.70 to 326.81
- History: 20 SR 2765; 25 SR 1894
Minn. R. 4620.3500 [Repealed, 20 SR 2765]
[Repealed, 20 SR 2765]
Minn. R. 4620.3559 Applicable Work Practices for Abatement
Any person performing asbestos-related work must ensure compliance with parts 4620.3560 to 4620.3598.
A. Notwithstanding this part, for asbestos-related work involving the enclosure, removal, or encapsulation of asbestos-containing material that is located outside the foundation, curtain walls, or roof of a facility and is above grade, the asbestos contractor must comply with parts 4620.3000 to 4620.3724 except parts 4620.3566; 4620.3567; 4620.3568, subparts 1 to 4; 4620.3569; 4620.3570; 4620.3575, subparts 1 to 8; 4620.3580; 4620.3581; 4620.3585; 4620.3592; 4620.3594; 4620.3596; 4620.3597; and 4620.3598.
B. Notwithstanding this part, in the case of asbestos-related work within a tunnel, as defined in part 4620.3100, subpart 33, the asbestos contractor must:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 326.70 to 326.81
- History: 20 SR 2765
Minn. R. 4620.3560 Asbestos Project Plan
Subpart 1. Applicability.
For each project other than a project in a single-family residence executed by the domiciled owner of the residence, the person performing abatement must prepare a project-specific asbestos project plan.
Subp. 2. Plan availability.
The person performing abatement must have a complete and current asbestos project plan available for inspection at the project site at the start of the project.
Subp. 3. Asbestos project plan content.
The asbestos project plan must contain:
A. the name and address of the project site;
B. a list of the asbestos work areas, including room numbers if known, of the project;
C. the amount and type of asbestos-containing material to be removed, encapsulated, or enclosed in each asbestos work area;
D. the date when the heating, ventilating, and air conditioning (HVAC) system for each asbestos work area will be shut down;
E. the name of any person responsible for the shutdown in item D;
F. the rated capacity of each negative air machine used to establish and maintain the negative air pressure of each containment;
G. the calculation showing the number of containment air changes per hour and the number of negative air machines used to establish and maintain the required containment negative air pressure for each containment;
H. documentation if a negative air system is to be exhausted indoors, why it is technically infeasible to exhaust the negative air system outdoors; and
I. a floor plan or sketch which indicates:
Subp. 4. Asbestos project plan changes.
If any information was estimated or a change occurs during the project, the new information must be added to the asbestos project plan as it becomes known.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 326.70 to 326.81
- History: 20 SR 2765
Minn. R. 4620.3566 Cleaning Containment Area Before Abatement
All surfaces of the containment area must be cleaned before abatement. The following actions must be taken before abatement begins.
A. Uncontaminated movable objects must be removed from the containment area.
B. Contaminated objects or objects suspected of being contaminated must be either:
C. Decontaminated movable objects must be removed from the containment area.
D. Objects that cannot be removed from the containment area must be cleaned by HEPA-filter equipped vacuuming or by wet wiping.
E. Before the critical barriers are constructed, all remaining surfaces in the containment area that will be in contact with the critical barriers must be cleaned by HEPA-filter equipped vacuuming or by wet wiping.
F. Any freestanding containment wall that needs to be constructed must be framed after the removal of all movable objects from the containment area.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 326.70 to 326.81
- History: 20 SR 2765
Minn. R. 4620.3567 Installation of Critical Barriers
All openings between the containment area and uncontaminated areas must be sealed with at least one layer of six-mil polyethylene plastic sheeting securely fastened to achieve an airtight seal around the opening.
A. All objects or structures that cannot be removed from the containment area must be covered with at least one layer of six-mil polyethylene plastic sheeting securely fastened to achieve an airtight seal around the object or structure.
B. All heating, ventilating, and air conditioning intake and exhaust openings in the containment area and any seams in system components must be sealed with at least two layers of six-mil polyethylene sheeting securely fastened to achieve an airtight seal around the object or structure.
C. All penetrations, including penetrations around electrical conduits, telephone wires, water supply pipes, and drain pipes, must be sealed with at least one layer of six-mil polyethylene plastic sheeting securely fastened to achieve an airtight seal around the object.
D. All porous surfaces except ceilings not addressed in items A to C must be sealed with at least one layer of six-mil polyethylene plastic sheeting securely fastened to achieve an airtight seal.
E. All openings between the asbestos abatement containment area and contaminated areas must be sealed with at least one layer of six-mil polyethylene plastic sheeting or comparable material securely fastened to achieve an airtight seal around the opening.
F. If any freestanding containment wall is to be used, the porous outside of the wall frame or frame of the freestanding containment must be covered with at least one layer of six-mil polyethylene sheeting securely fastened to achieve an airtight seal.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 326.70 to 326.81
- History: 20 SR 2765
Minn. R. 4620.3568 Containment
Subpart 1. General.
The containment must be constructed to separate and isolate the containment area from the rest of the building and the outdoors. The containment must be airtight and leakproof.
Subp. 2. Floor sheeting.
Floor sheeting must be placed over the entire floor as part of the containment.
A. Floor sheeting must consist of at least two layers of six-mil polyethylene plastic sheeting or comparable material.
B. For the first layer, enough area for overlap with the wall sheeting must be provided to maintain an airtight and leakproof seal for the containment.
C. For the second layer, the sheeting must extend 12 inches beyond the wall or floor joints.
D. Floor sheeting must be sized to minimize seams.
E. The floor must have no seams at wall and floor joints.
Subp. 3. Wall sheeting.
Wall sheeting must be placed over the entire wall. Wall sheeting must:
A. consist of at least one layer of four-mil polyethylene plastic sheeting;
B. provide enough area for overlap with the other wall or floor sheeting to maintain an airtight and leakproof seal for the containment;
C. be sized to minimize seams;
D. extend to the deck area or floor joists;
E. not have seams located at wall and floor joints; and
F. have a 12-inch by 12-inch clear viewing window, where feasible, to allow for a view of the work area if the polyethylene plastic sheeting is not clear.
Subp. 4. Freestanding containment walls and freestanding containments.
Freestanding containment walls and freestanding containments must:
A. have floor sheeting that complies with subpart 2;
B. have interior wall sheeting that complies with subpart 3;
C. have the frame painted with a nonporous paint if the framing materials used for a freestanding wall or containment are made of a porous material such as wood, unless the framing materials are covered with polyethylene sheeting or the framing materials are disposed of as asbestos waste at the end of the project; and
D. have interior ceiling sheeting that consists of one layer of four-mil polyethylene plastic sheeting and is securely fastened to provide an airtight, leakproof containment if containment walls do not abut the ceiling.
Subp. 5. Posting asbestos work area.
During asbestos-related work, warning signs must be displayed at all approaches to the asbestos work area. The sign must state: "DANGER. ASBESTOS CANCER AND LUNG DISEASE HAZARD. AUTHORIZED PERSONNEL ONLY. RESPIRATORS AND PROTECTIVE CLOTHING ARE REQUIRED IN THIS AREA."
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 326.70 to 326.81
- History: 20 SR 2765
Minn. R. 4620.3569 Decontamination Units
Subpart 1. General.
Procedures for the use of the decontamination unit must be established by the person performing abatement to prevent contamination outside the asbestos work area. A decontamination unit must be used by all persons when exiting a containment. The decontamination unit must:
A. be contiguous with the containment area except as provided in subpart 2;
B. consist of a series of connecting rooms with the middle room being the shower room;
C. have doorways between the rooms and entrances to the unit protected with two overlapping sheets of polyethylene or the functional equivalent; and
D. have a shower room that:
Subp. 2. Location.
In facilities classified in the Standard Industrial Classification Manual, 1987, as a B division, D division-major group 26, or E division-major group 49, the decontamination unit must be connected to the containment where feasible. The Standard Industrial Classification Manual, 1987, is available from the National Technical Information Service, 5285 Port Royal Road, Springfield, Virginia, 22161, or from the State Law Library, Minnesota Judicial Center, 25 Rev. Dr. Martin Luther King Jr. Blvd., St. Paul, Minnesota 55155.
Subp. 3. Waste.
Filtered wastewater from the shower must be discharged to a sanitary sewer or a septic system, or may be collected in barrels for later disposal to a sanitary sewer or septic system.
Subp. 4. Small residential decontamination unit.
For small residential abatement, the decontamination unit must consist of at least a clean room, shower room, and dirty room.
Subp. 5. Decontamination unit other than small residential abatement.
For abatement in a facility other than small residential abatement, the decontamination unit must consist of a clean room, an air lock chamber, a shower, an air lock chamber, and a dirty room.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 326.70 to 326.81
- History: 20 SR 2765
Minn. R. 4620.3570 Hepa-Filtered Negative Pressure
Subpart 1. General.
The containment must be provided with a HEPA-filter equipped ventilation system.
Subp. 2. HEPA-filter equipped negative air requirements.
The HEPA-filter negative air machine must be equipped with:
A. a calibrated pressure gauge to measure the pressure drop across the filter;
B. an audible alarm or an automatic unit shutdown mechanism activated in the event of a breach in the filter or in the absence of a filter;
C. an audible alarm or automatic unit shutdown mechanism activated when the differential pressure across the filter exceeds a preset pressure; and
D. an automatic electrical power cutoff switch so the unit will not operate if the HEPA-filter is not present or not positioned correctly.
Subp. 3. Continuous operation of HEPA-filter equipped ventilation system.
The HEPA-filter equipped ventilation system must operate continuously from the time of asbestos disturbance until results of analysis of the clearance samples indicate the air inside the containment is at or below the clearance standard or the alternative clearance standard.
Subp. 4. HEPA-filter equipped system criteria.
The HEPA-filter equipped ventilation system must be operated according to the criteria in this subpart.
A. The amount of air exhausted from the containment must provide for at least four air changes per hour within the containment.
B. A negative pressure of at least 0.02 inches of water must be established and maintained within each containment with respect to the area outside of the containment.
C. The negative pressure must be measured by a recording manometer.
Subp. 5. Inability to establish or maintain a negative pressure of at least 0.02 inches of water.
If it is not possible to establish or maintain a negative pressure of at least 0.02 inches of water in the containment with respect to the pressure outside the containment for a period of 15 minutes, items A to D apply in addition to the requirements of subpart 4, item C.
A. A pressure as close to negative 0.02 inches of water as possible must be maintained from the time construction of the containment is completed until results from clearance air samples are obtained.
B. The amount of air exhausted from the containment must be increased to at least six air changes per hour within the containment.
C. Documentation must be available on site for each case of the failure to establish negative pressure or each case of failure to maintain a pressure of negative 0.02 inches of water in the containment with respect to the air pressure outside the containment. The documentation must specify the:
D. Specific methods used to reestablish a negative pressure of at least 0.02 inches of water in the containment with respect to the air outside the containment must be documented and available for review on site.
Subp. 6. HEPA-filtered ventilation system exhaust.
The HEPA-filter equipped ventilation system must be positioned to exhaust filtered air to the outside of the facility. If it is not technically feasible to exhaust the HEPA-filter equipped ventilation systems outdoors, there must be air monitoring every four hours during abatement activity in the vicinity of the HEPA-filter equipped ventilation system exhaust.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 326.70 to 326.81
- History: 20 SR 2765
Minn. R. 4620.3571 Removal of Asbestos-Containing Material
Subpart 1. General.
Water to which a surfactant has been added must be used before and during removal of asbestos-containing material to prevent fibers from becoming airborne during asbestos-related work. All asbestos-containing material must:
A. be wet before removal;
B. be adequately wet during removal;
C. be placed and sealed in containers while adequately wet; and
D. not be allowed to dry.
Subp. 2. Removal of structures and objects covered with asbestos-containing material.
A structure or object covered with asbestos-containing material must be:
A. removed intact or in large sections where possible;
B. wet before being sealed in six-mil clear polyethylene sheeting or comparable material;
C. wet during removal of the structure or object; and
D. lowered to the floor or ground and not dropped.
Subp. 3. Waste.
Waste containers must be sealed to prevent drying of the asbestos-containing material.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 326.70 to 326.81
- History: 20 SR 2765
Minn. R. 4620.3572 Encapsulation of Asbestos-Containing Material
Encapsulation of asbestos-containing material must meet the requirements in this part.
A. Any loose or hanging asbestos-containing material must be removed before encapsulation according to part 4620.3571.
B. Filler compound applied to gaps in existing asbestos-containing material must contain no asbestos, adhere well to the substrate, and provide a base for the encapsulant.
C. Spray encapsulant must be applied using only airless spray equipment.
D. Encapsulant must be water-based.
E. Encapsulated asbestos-containing material must be specially designated, according to Code of Federal Regulations, title 29, section 1926.1101(k)(8), to warn individuals who may disturb the material.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 326.70 to 326.81
- History: 20 SR 2765
Minn. R. 4620.3573 Permanent Enclosure Requirements
Installation of a permanent enclosure of asbestos-containing material must meet the requirements in this part.
A. A permanent enclosure must:
B. Any asbestos-containing materials that will be disturbed during the installation of hangers, brackets, or other portions of the permanent enclosure must be sprayed with water to which surfactant has been added.
C. Any loose or hanging asbestos-containing material must be removed before construction of the enclosure.
D. The permanent enclosure must be specially designated, according to Code of Federal Regulations, title 29, section 1926.1101(k)(8), to warn individuals who may disturb the enclosure.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 326.70 to 326.81
- History: 20 SR 2765
Minn. R. 4620.3575 Completion of Abatement
Subpart 1. Postabatement cleaning.
After asbestos-containing material has been removed, encapsulated, or enclosed, interior surfaces of the containment and interior surfaces of the decontamination unit must be cleaned.
A. HEPA-filter equipped vacuuming, wet wiping, or both, must be used.
B. Cleaning must be performed until no asbestos dust, residue, dirt, or debris is visible on any part of the work area.
C. All liquid waste must be cleaned up and disposed of as described in subpart 9.
D. All abatement equipment must be cleaned and all equipment except the HEPA-filter equipped negative air machine must be removed from the containment.
E. Asbestos contaminated equipment that cannot be cleaned must be sealed in two layers of six-mil polyethylene before removal from the containment.
F. Asbestos-containing material which was removed must be taken out of the containment.
Subp. 2. Visual inspection of containment after postabatement cleaning.
A visual inspection of the containment and the decontamination unit must be performed after the containment and decontamination unit have dried completely.
A. Any residue observed in the containment or decontamination unit must be considered to be asbestos.
B. The sequence of cleaning and inspection must be repeated until the area passes a visual inspection.
C. The inspection must establish completeness of removal, encapsulation, enclosure, and cleanup.
Subp. 3. Removal of containment walls and floors.
After the postabatement visual inspection, removal of the walls and floors must occur in the order specified in items A and B.
A. When porous surfaces inside the containment have not been covered according to part 4620.3568, encapsulant must be used on those porous surfaces to securely seal down any residual fibers.
B. The walls and floors of the containment may be removed only after:
Subp. 4. Visual inspection after removal of containment walls and floors.
Following removal of the walls and floors of the containment, all surfaces previously in contact with the walls and floors of the containment and the interior decontamination unit must be inspected.
A. The inspection must be done according to subpart 2.
B. Whenever contamination is observed, the entire area must be cleaned, using a HEPA-filter equipped vacuum, wet wiping, or both, until no contamination is visible.
Subp. 5. Completion of clearance air sampling.
Clearance air sampling must be performed and samples analyzed according to part 4620.3596, 4620.3597, or 4620.3598, before removal of critical barriers and the decontamination unit.
Subp. 6. Removal of critical barriers.
Critical barriers must be:
A. removed after the containment and the decontamination unit have passed the visual inspection specified in subpart 4 and completion of clearance air sampling as specified in subpart 5;
B. removed after the contracting entity grants permission to remove the barriers;
C. removed before the decontamination unit is disassembled; and
D. disposed of as asbestos-containing waste.
Subp. 7. Final visual inspection of asbestos work area.
Areas where critical barriers had been placed must be inspected and cleaned as specified in subpart 4 to ensure that no surface contamination is visible.
A. Whenever contamination is observed, the entire area must be cleaned, using a HEPA-filter equipped vacuum and wet wiping, or both, until no contamination is visible.
B. If contamination is found, the asbestos work area must be cleaned and cleared as specified in subpart 5.
Subp. 8. Replacement of heating, ventilating, and air-conditioning system filters.
The interior surfaces of ventilation system ductwork must be decontaminated when a visual inspection indicates the presence of asbestos-containing material. When contamination is indicated, items A to C apply.
A. Except for small residential abatement, all disposable system filters that serve the asbestos work area must be:
B. A person performing small residential abatement must advise the owner of the residence of the need to replace disposable filters from heating, ventilation, and air-conditioning systems once the project is complete.
C. All nondisposable filters must be cleaned and decontaminated by the person performing abatement after the project is complete.
Subp. 9. On-site handling of asbestos-containing waste.
Asbestos-containing waste must be handled on site according to this subpart.
A. Metal or fiber drums with locking ring tops must be used for disposal of asbestos-containing waste material that contains sharp edges, unless the sharp edges can be covered or blunted.
B. For asbestos-containing waste material that does not have sharp edges, bags of at least six-mil polyethylene must be used. Bags must be:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 326.70 to 326.81
- History: 20 SR 2765
Minn. R. 4620.3580 Glove Bag Procedures
Subpart 1. Application.
When a portion of a project includes the removal, encapsulation, or enclosure of less than 25 linear feet of asbestos-containing pipe lagging or less than ten square feet of asbestos-containing material per room, for that portion of the project the person performing abatement may use the glove bag procedures in this part instead of the procedures in parts 4620.3566 to 4620.3575, subparts 1 to 8.
In process areas of facilities not accessible to the general public and designated in Division B, D, or E of the 1987 edition of the Standard Industrial Classification Manual, asbestos-containing material may be abated in quantities up to 25 linear feet or ten square feet for each 15,000 square foot area of floor space using the glove bag procedures in this part instead of the procedures in parts 4620.3566 to 4620.3575, subparts 1 to 8. Division B, D, and E of the 1987 edition of the Standard Industrial Classification Manual are incorporated by reference and are not subject to frequent change. A copy of this material is available from the State Law Library, Minnesota Judicial Center, 25 Rev. Dr. Martin Luther King Jr. Blvd., St. Paul, MN 55155, or for loan or inspection from the Barr Library of the Minnesota Department of Health or through the Minitex interlibrary loan system.
Subp. 2. Placement of remote decontamination unit.
A remote decontamination unit must be available for any individual performing the glove bag operation before the glove bag is set up. The remote decontamination unit must be used whenever the individual leaves the asbestos work area. The remote decontamination unit must be:
A. placed within 20 feet of the glove bag operation; or
B. used with the procedures in subitems (1) and (2) to prevent contamination of any area between the glove bag operation and the remote decontamination unit.
Subp. 3. Remote decontamination unit.
For each glove bag operation, a remote decontamination unit must be used that complies with part 4620.3569, subparts 1, items B to D, and 2.
Subp. 4. Glove bag set-up procedure.
For each abatement project using a glove bag, the glove bag procedures in this subpart must be followed.
A. Before the glove bag operation begins, the area within ten feet of the glove bag operation must be cleaned using a HEPA-filter equipped vacuum, wet wiping, or both, until no dust nor debris is visible.
B. Polyethylene sheeting of at least one layer of six-mil or comparable material must be placed on the floor below the glove bag operation.
C. Glove bags must be constructed of transparent six-mil polyethylene.
D. If a glove bag is to be used on one portion of a continuous section of damaged or significantly damaged thermal system insulation, the entire section of damaged or significantly damaged thermal system insulation must be sealed in two layers of six-mil polyethylene sheeting. Edges of the sheeting must be secured with tape.
E. The glove bag must be attached so asbestos-containing material adjacent to the glove bag is not disturbed during glove bag preparation.
F. Removal and encapsulation of asbestos-containing material must be done inside the glove bag.
G. All openings in the glove bag, including openings from insertion of tools, sprayers, or HEPA-filter equipped nozzles must be securely sealed with tape before removal or encapsulation begins.
H. Before removal or encapsulation begins, the glove bag must be smoke tested for any breach in the seal.
Subp. 5. Asbestos removal or encapsulation.
For each abatement project using a glove bag, the procedures in this subpart must be followed for the removal or encapsulation of asbestos-containing material using a glove bag.
A. Sliding the glove bag during or following asbestos removal or encapsulation is prohibited.
B. A glove bag must not be used more than once.
C. Asbestos-containing material must be adequately wet at all times during removal.
D. An airless or Hudson-type sprayer must be used to wet the asbestos-containing material.
E. Surfaces from which asbestos has been removed must be cleaned with a brush and wet wiped until no visible asbestos-containing material remains.
F. All exposed asbestos-containing material within the glove bag must be encapsulated with an encapsulant before the glove bag is removed according to part 4620.3572.
G. A visual inspection of the abated surface within the glove bag must be performed before the glove bag is removed. The glove bag operation is not complete until all visible asbestos-containing material is removed or encapsulated.
Subp. 6. Completion of glove bag operation.
Every glove bag operation must be completed according to the procedures in this subpart.
A. Before the glove bag is removed, the interior surfaces of the glove bag must be cleaned using an airless or Hudson-type sprayer until no visible residue is seen on the top and vertical sides of the glove bag.
B. Tools must be removed from the glove bag as specified in this item.
C. The glove bag must be collapsed using a HEPA-filter equipped vacuum.
D. After the glove bag is collapsed, the glove bag must be squeezed tightly as close to the top of the glove bag as possible, twisted, and bound with tape.
E. The glove bag must then be cut from the pipe or other facility component and placed in a leak-tight container and the container handled according to part 4620.3575, subpart 9.
F. The area beneath the glove bag operation must be inspected for any dust or debris resulting from the glove bag operation.
G. Dust and debris from the glove bag operation must be assumed to be asbestos-containing material and must be cleaned using a HEPA-filter equipped vacuum or wet wiped.
H. The six-mil polyethylene sheeting must not be reused. The sheeting must be bagged, labeled as asbestos-containing waste, and handled as specified in part 4620.3575, subpart 9.
Subp. 7. On-site handling of asbestos-containing waste.
On-site handling of asbestos-containing waste from a glove bag operation must comply with part 4620.3575, subpart 9.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 326.70 to 326.81
- History: 20 SR 2765; 33 SR 739
Minn. R. 4620.3581 Mini-Containment Procedures
Subpart 1. Mini-containment.
When a portion of a project includes abatement of less than 25 linear feet of asbestos-containing pipe lagging or less than ten square feet of asbestos-containing material per room, for that portion of the project, the person performing abatement may use the mini-containment procedures in this part instead of the procedures in parts 4620.3566 to 4620.3575.
In process areas of facilities not accessible to the general public and designated in Division B, D, or E of the 1987 edition of the Standard Industrial Classification Manual, asbestos-containing material may be abated in quantities up to 25 linear feet or ten square feet for each 15,000 square foot area of floor space using the mini-containment procedures in this part. Divisions B, D, and E of the 1987 edition of the Standard Industrial Classification Manual are incorporated by reference and are not subject to frequent change. A copy of this material is available from the State Law Library, Minnesota Judicial Center, 25 Rev. Dr. Martin Luther King Jr. Blvd., St. Paul, MN 55155, or for loan or inspection from the Barr Library of the Minnesota Department of Health or through the Minitex interlibrary loan system.
Subp. 2. Remote decontamination.
Before proceeding to the remote decontamination unit, individuals performing mini-containment operations must:
A. remove the outer layer of clothing worn during mini-containment abatement;
B. vacuum clean all exposed parts of the body and hair using a HEPA-filter equipped vacuum cleaner; and
C. don a nonpermeable layer of protective clothing which covers all body surfaces except the face and hands.
Subp. 3. Remote decontamination unit.
A remote decontamination unit must be available that complies with part 4620.3569, subparts 1, items B to D, and 2. The remote decontamination must be:
A. available in the facility prior to the start of mini-containment operations;
B. used by individuals following mini-containment operations for each asbestos work area; and
C. placed in an area to minimize contamination of the area between the asbestos work area and the remote decontamination unit.
Subp. 4. Mini-containment set-up procedure.
All mini-containment operations must comply with this subpart.
A. Before the mini-containment operation begins, the area within ten feet of the mini-containment operation must be cleaned using a HEPA-filter equipped vacuum, wet wiping, or both, until no dust nor debris is visible.
B. A mini-containment must:
Subp. 5. Asbestos removal or enclosure.
All persons using a mini-containment to perform abatement must comply with this subpart.
A. Negative air pressure within the mini-containment must be maintained until the procedures in subpart 6, item G, are completed.
B. Surfaces from which asbestos-containing material has been removed must be thoroughly cleaned until no visible asbestos-containing material remains.
C. All exposed asbestos-containing material within the mini-containment must be encapsulated according to part 4620.3572 before the mini-containment is removed.
Subp. 6. Completion of mini-containment operation.
Every mini-containment operation must be completed according to the procedures in this subpart.
A. All tools and equipment used in the mini-containment must be wet wiped until no visible residue remains.
B. The wet wiped tools and equipment must be passed through the mini-containment door in a sealed, leakproof container.
C. The leakproof container containing the tools must be opened only inside another mini-containment, decontamination unit, containment, or when submerged under water.
D. If the leakproof container with the tools is transported off-site, the container must be labeled as asbestos-containing material.
E. After the asbestos removal, encapsulation, or enclosure is complete, the interior of the mini-containment must:
F. Before the mini-containment is removed, a visual inspection of the interior of the mini-containment and the abated surfaces must be performed as specified in part 4620.3575, subpart 2.
G. The mini-containment must be removed as specified in this item. The mini-containment must be removed by:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 326.70 to 326.81
- History: 20 SR 2765
Minn. R. 4620.3582 Removal of Entire Facility Components
Subpart 1. Applicability.
A person performing abatement may use the procedures in this part as an alternative to the procedures in parts 4620.3566 to 4620.3575 when the criteria in subpart 2 are met.
Subp. 2. Conditions for removal of entire facility components.
The procedures in this part may be used to remove entire facility components with intact asbestos-containing material when the:
A. amount of asbestos-containing material to be glove bagged does not exceed 25 linear feet per room;
B. asbestos-containing material or its covering to be removed is not damaged; and
C. glove bag procedures in part 4620.3580 are followed.
Subp. 3. Procedures.
The work practices of this subpart must be followed in the sequence provided.
A. Before disturbing the asbestos-containing material, cleaning of the area within ten feet of the asbestos-containing material to be removed must be completed according to part 4620.3566.
B. The asbestos-containing material or its covering to be removed must be wet with amended water before wrapping.
C. The facility component to be removed must be wrapped in two layers of six-mil polyethylene sheeting.
D. The polyethylene sheeting must be sealed with tape or a comparable material to provide an airtight seal around the facility component to be removed.
E. Areas which will be cut to release the facility component must be free of asbestos.
F. If the facility component is not located on the ground or floor, the facility component must be:
G. Facility components must be labeled with asbestos warning labels and handled according to part 4620.3575, subpart 9.
H. If asbestos-containing material is removed from the facility component removed under this part, removal must be done according to parts 4620.3560 to 4620.3575.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 326.70 to 326.81
- History: 20 SR 2765
Minn. R. 4620.3585 Demolition by Destruction to the Ground
Subpart 1. Applicability.
This part may be used when a facility or portion of a facility:
A. will be subjected to demolition by destruction to the ground within 24 hours of the completion of asbestos-related work; and
B. has been secured to prevent entry following the completion of asbestos-related work.
Subp. 2. Exceptions.
When demolition by destruction to the ground is performed as specified in subpart 1, the person performing asbestos-related work must comply with parts 4620.3000 to 4620.3724, except for parts 4620.3568, subparts 1 to 4; 4620.3575, subparts 3, 4, and 8; and 4620.3594.
Subp. 3. Securing facility following asbestos-related work.
To secure the facility or portion of the facility to be demolished by destruction to the ground, the person performing abatement must board up all windows, doorways, or other points of entry on the foundation and first levels of the facility or portion of the facility after asbestos-related work has been completed.
Subp. 4. Demolition prior to asbestos-related work.
Abatement must comply with subpart 5 when:
A. a facility or portion of a facility is demolished by destruction to the ground; and
B. friable asbestos-containing material is present in amounts greater than six square feet or ten linear feet but less than 160 square feet or 260 linear feet for a former single- or multifamily dwelling or greater than 260 linear feet, 160 square feet, or 35 cubic feet in other facilities.
Subp. 5. Abatement following facility demolition.
When a facility or portion of a facility is demolished as described in subpart 4, the person performing abatement must comply with items A to D.
A. The site must be secured and posted with warning signs that state: "DANGER. ASBESTOS. CANCER AND LUNG DISEASE HAZARD. AUTHORIZED PERSONNEL ONLY. RESPIRATORS AND PROTECTIVE CLOTHING ARE REQUIRED IN THIS AREA."
B. Notification of the project must be given to the commissioner as specified in part 4620.3420.
C. A person licensed as specified in part 4620.3200 must be used for removal of asbestos-containing material from the demolition rubble.
D. Individuals handling asbestos-containing material at the site must be certified as specified in parts 4620.3300 and 4620.3310.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 326.70 to 326.81
- History: 20 SR 2765
Minn. R. 4620.3592 Indoor Air Monitoring
Subpart 1. Applicability.
As part of every project, indoor air monitoring must be performed as specified in this part except that indoor air monitoring is not required:
A. when a project is performed in preparation for demolition of a facility and the facility will not be entered or occupied by any individual not involved with asbestos-related work during and after the project; or
B. if a domiciled owner of a single-family residence conducts a project in the single-family residence.
Subp. 2. General.
Indoor air monitoring must be conducted outside the containment area during all asbestos-related work including preparation and cleanup from the time disturbance of asbestos-containing material occurs until the results of clearance air sampling indicate fiber levels in the air within the containment do not exceed the clearance standard or alternative clearance standard.
A. For each containment, two air samples must be collected simultaneously no less than once during every zero to five-hour period while abatement personnel are performing asbestos-related work.
B. One of the two indoor air monitoring samples required in item A must be collected within ten feet of the entrance to the decontamination unit. The other air sampling location must be selected to detect failures in the containment.
C. Sample collection must be performed within ten feet of the containment.
D. Sample collection and analysis must comply with this part and part 4620.3597, subparts 2 to 4.
Subp. 3. Evacuation and corrective measures.
If, during the project, the fiber concentration in air measured outside the containment exceeds the indoor air standard, or the alternative indoor air standard, or one or more samples are too heavily loaded to allow for quantitative analysis, the steps in items A and B must take place.
A. Except as noted in subpart 4, the occupied area immediately adjacent to the asbestos work area must be evacuated.
B. Evacuated areas must not be reoccupied until:
Subp. 4. Suspected nonasbestos dust.
When elevated fiber concentrations in the air outside the containment are suspected to be from nonasbestos dust in the air, evacuation of the occupied areas immediately adjacent to the asbestos work area may be delayed, provided the actions in this subpart are taken immediately.
A. The indoor air monitoring samples which indicate elevated fiber concentrations must be reanalyzed by transmission electron microscopy to distinguish between asbestos and nonasbestos fibers greater than five microns in length with an aspect ratio of three-to-one. Repeat analysis under this item must meet the requirements of "Mandatory Transmission Electron Microscopy Method," Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, chapter I, subchapter R, part 763, subpart E, appendix A, section II, Parts A, E, F, H, I, and J, amended through October 30, 1987, and as qualified in subitems (1) and (2).
B. If the analysis results obtained according to item A indicate the concentration of asbestos fibers in the air exceeds 0.01 fibers per cubic centimeter of air, the occupied area immediately adjacent to the asbestos work area must be evacuated and not reoccupied until the corrective measures of subpart 3, item B, have been performed and documented.
Subp. 5. Indoor air monitoring during glove bag or mini-containment procedures.
When the glove bag or mini-containment procedures in parts 4620.3580 and 4620.3581 are used, indoor air monitoring must be performed according to this subpart.
A. At least two indoor air samples per room must be collected continuously from the time of initial disturbance of the asbestos-containing material until the time all glove bags or mini-containments have been removed in the room.
B. Indoor air samples during glove bag or mini-containment procedures must be collected within ten feet of the glove bag or mini-containment operation.
C. Sample collection and analysis must be completed according to subpart 4, item A, or part 4620.3597, subparts 2 to 4.
D. The glove bag or mini-containment operation is not complete and the asbestos work area must not be reoccupied until each of the indoor air samples has been analyzed and the result of each sample indicates a fiber level below the indoor air standard or the alternative indoor air standard.
E. Except as noted in item F, if any indoor air sample result exceeds the indoor air standard or the alternative indoor air standard, or if any indoor air sample is too heavily loaded to be quantitatively analyzed, subitems (1) to (3) must be followed.
F. When elevated fiber concentrations in the asbestos work area are suspected to be from nonasbestos dust in the air, the asbestos work area may be reoccupied if the following actions are taken:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 326.70 to 326.81
- History: 20 SR 2765
Minn. R. 4620.3594 Clearance Air Sampling
Subpart 1. General.
When enclosure, removal, or encapsulation is completed during an abatement, clearance air sampling must be performed to ensure that fiber levels in the air within the containment area do not exceed the clearance standard or alternative clearance standard.
A. The asbestos containment area must not be reoccupied until compliance with subitem (1) or (2) is achieved:
B. If any clearance air sample result exceeds the clearance standard or alternative clearance standard, or any clearance air sample is too heavily loaded to be quantitatively analyzed, the containment area must be recleaned and reinspected according to part 4620.3575, subpart 4. Following compliance with part 4620.3575, subpart 4, clearance air sampling must be repeated according to this subpart.
Subp. 2. Clearance air sampling procedures.
Clearance air sampling must be conducted in the containment area after the containment has been cleaned thoroughly, dried completely, and passed the visual inspection required under part 4620.3575, subpart 4.
A. The critical barriers specified in part 4620.3567 must remain in place.
B. The decontamination unit must remain in place and remain operational.
C. Negative pressure within the containment must be maintained until analysis of clearance air samples is complete.
D. The clearance air sampling sites must be selected on a random basis within the containment to provide unbiased and representative sampling of the air within the containment.
E. Clearance air sampling must be performed with equipment that has been cleaned and decontaminated before use.
F. Clearance air sampling must be conducted as specified in subitems (1) to (3).
G. Equipment such as fans and pumps must be wet wiped with clean water and disposable wipes before removal from the containment.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 326.70 to 326.81
- History: 20 SR 2765
Minn. R. 4620.3596 General Requirements for Air Monitoring
The air monitoring samples required by parts 4620.3592 and 4620.3594 must be collected as specified in this part.
A. All air monitoring sample collection must be conducted by an individual who is either an asbestos worker or asbestos site supervisor and who:
B. Air monitoring sample cassettes must be submitted for analysis on the day collected.
C. The contract for air monitoring sample analysis must specify that results must be available orally or in writing no later than 48 hours after submission for analysis or before disassembly of the containment, whichever is earlier.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 326.70 to 326.81
- History: 20 SR 2765
Minn. R. 4620.3597 Phase Contrast Microscopy
Subpart 1. Phase contrast microscopy air sample analysis.
Analysis by phase contrast microscopy must comply with National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) Method 7400, revision number 3, titled "Fibers" published in the NIOSH Manual of Analytical Methods, Third Edition, August 1994 supplement or equivalent methods. This document is incorporated by reference, is not subject to frequent change, and is available through the Minitex interlibrary loan system.
Subp. 2. Procedures for establishing an alternative indoor air standard.
When collecting air monitoring samples to establish an alternative indoor air standard, the procedures in this part apply.
A. An alternative indoor air standard may be established only if background fiber levels in the asbestos work area exceed the indoor air standard before the start of abatement.
B. To establish an alternative indoor air standard, five air monitoring samples must be collected simultaneously and analyzed according to this part before the start of abatement including area preparation.
C. The alternative indoor air standard must be calculated as the upper bound of the range defined by the 95 percent confidence interval from the average of the result of the five indoor air monitoring samples.
D. Locations for air monitoring sample collection must be selected to provide suitable data for comparison with indoor air monitoring samples collected after abatement begins. Sample locations must be indoors and within ten feet of where the containment will be constructed.
E. The alternative indoor air standard applies only to the containment area where the air samples used to establish the alternative indoor air standard were collected.
Subp. 3. Air monitoring sample collection and analysis.
When phase contrast microscopy is used to analyze air monitoring samples:
A. air volumes drawn through the filter cassette must be sufficient to determine fiber concentrations to 0.01 fibers per cubic centimeter of air;
B. a volume of 2,000 liters must be drawn through the filter cassette, except as noted in item C; and
C. when a volume of 2,000 liters cannot be drawn through the filter cassette, subitems (1) to (5) apply.
Subp. 4. Transitional air monitoring sample analysis.
Between July 1, 1996, and July 1, 1997, air monitoring samples must be analyzed by:
A. a laboratory that is accredited by the American Industrial Hygiene Association;
B. an analyst considered proficient by the American Industrial Hygiene Association's asbestos analyst registry program; or
C. a laboratory considered proficient in asbestos analysis by the American Industrial Hygiene Association (AIHA) Proficiency Analytical Testing (PAT) Program for phase contrast microscopy.
Subp. 5. Air sample analysis.
Beginning July 1, 1997, air monitoring samples must be analyzed by:
A. a laboratory that is accredited by the American Industrial Hygiene Association; or
B. an analyst considered proficient by the American Industrial Hygiene Association's asbestos analyst registry program.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 326.70 to 326.81
- History: 20 SR 2765
Minn. R. 4620.3598 Transmission Electron Microscopy
Subpart 1. Use of alternative clearance standard.
When the alternative clearance standard is used, items A and B apply.
A. The transmission electron microscopy method for air monitoring sample collection and analysis must comply with Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, chapter I, subchapter R, part 763, subpart E, appendix A, section II, amended through October 30, 1987.
B. The volume of air drawn through a 25-millimeter filter cassette must be equal to or greater than 1,200 liters. The volume of air drawn through a 37-millimeter filter cassette must be greater than or equal to 2,800 liters. Both types of filter cassettes must contain a sample filter that has a pore size of 0.8 microns or smaller.
Subp. 2. Air monitoring sample analysis.
Alternative clearance air monitoring samples analyzed by transmission electron microscopy must be analyzed by a laboratory accredited by the United States National Institute of Standards and Technology National Voluntary Laboratory Accreditation Program (NVLAP) for analysis of samples by transmission electron microscopy.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 326.70 to 326.81
- History: 20 SR 2765
Minn. R. 4620.3600 [Repealed, 20 SR 2765]
[Repealed, 20 SR 2765]
Minn. R. 4620.3700 [Repealed, 20 SR 2765]
[Repealed, 20 SR 2765]
Minn. R. 4620.3702 Application for Training Course Permit
Subpart 1. Applications other than renewal.
Except as provided in subpart 2, to obtain a permit from the commissioner for a training course, the training course provider must submit, to be received by the commissioner at least 60 days before the course is offered:
A. a completed application on a form provided by the commissioner, which seeks only information the commissioner reasonably considers necessary to identify the applicant and to determine whether the training course meets the statutory and regulatory requirements for a permit;
B. except for an air sampling course described in part 4620.3718, subpart 5, a nonrefundable application fee of $500, which is not in the form of a personal check, payable to the Minnesota Department of Health;
C. the course curriculum;
D. a copy of all course materials;
E. the examination to be used and the answer key for the examination;
F. resumes of all course instructors which include information on coursework completed as specified in part 4620.3716, subpart 3, item A;
G. a copy of all enforcement actions taken against the provider by the United States Environmental Protection Agency and any other state; and
H. an example of the diploma to be issued by the provider to course participants who complete the course and pass the examination in the event the commissioner approves the permit application.
Subp. 2. Renewal.
To obtain a renewal of a training course permit, the training course provider must submit, to be received by the commissioner at least 30 days before expiration of the current permit:
A. a completed renewal application on a form provided by the commissioner, which seeks only information the commissioner reasonably considers necessary to identify the applicant and to determine whether the training course meets the statutory and regulatory requirements for a permit;
B. except for an air sampling course described in part 4620.3718, subpart 5, a nonrefundable renewal fee of $250, which is not in the form of a personal check, payable to the Minnesota Department of Health unless the course is for air sampling as described in part 4620.3718, subpart 5; and
C. documentation of any change in the information on the training course most recently submitted by the provider under subpart 1, items C to H.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 16A.1285; 144.05; 144.122; 326.70 to 326.81
- History: 20 SR 2765
Minn. R. 4620.3704 Permitting Training Courses
Subpart 1. Applications other than renewal.
For an application submitted under part 4620.3702, subpart 1, the commissioner shall issue a permit for the training course if the provider has complied with part 4620.3702, subpart 1, and if the provider, training course, and diploma meet all applicable requirements in parts 4620.3708 to 4620.3722.
Subp. 2. Renewal applications.
For an application submitted under part 4620.3702, subpart 2, the commissioner shall renew the permit for the training course if:
A. the provider has complied with part 4620.3702, subpart 2;
B. the provider, training course, and diploma meet all applicable requirements in parts 4620.3708 to 4620.3722; and
C. for second and subsequent renewals of the same training course, the provider has presented the training course within the state while the permit was in effect and within two years before the date of the renewal application.
Subp. 3. Reciprocity with other states.
A training course shall be permitted by the commissioner if the course is permitted or approved by another state's asbestos regulatory program equivalent to the Minnesota Department of Health's asbestos regulatory program and if the training course provider complies with part 4620.3702, subpart 1.
Subp. 4. Denial of permit.
The commissioner shall deny an application for a training course permit if the applicant fails to comply with all applicable requirements in this part. Additional grounds for the commissioner to deny an application are stated in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.99, subdivision 8, paragraphs (a) and (b). An applicant:
A. must be notified in writing of the denial of the license application and reasons for the denial; and
B. is not required to pay a second fee if the applicant submits a second training course permit application according to subpart 2, within 30 days of the receipt of notice that the training course permit has been denied.
Subp. 5. Duration of permit.
A training course permit shall be valid for one year.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 326.70 to 326.81
- History: 20 SR 2765
Minn. R. 4620.3708 Training Course Diplomas
If a training course is permitted under part 4620.3704, the training course provider must ensure that each enrollee who successfully completes the training course receives an original diploma which:
A. meets the requirements of Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, chapter I, subchapter R, part 763, subpart E, appendix C, section I, part C, paragraph (1), as amended through February 3, 1994;
B. indicates the location of the course; and
C. clearly states: "Approved by the State of Minnesota under Minnesota Rules, parts 4620.3702 to 4620.3722."
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 326.70 to 326.81
- History: 20 SR 2765
Minn. R. 4620.3710 Advance Notice and Amendments
The training course provider must submit to the commissioner, by mail or facsimile, on a form provided by the commissioner, which is consistent with this part:
A. a notice of the date, time, location, and training course instructors of each permitted training course to be presented by the course provider, so the commissioner receives the notice at least 14 calendar days before the training course begins;
B. an amended notice for any change in the information contained in the original notice described in item A, other than an advancement of the training course date described in item C, so the commissioner receives the amended notice before the permitted training course begins;
C. an amended notice for any change in the date of the training course which advances the beginning date of the course, so the commissioner receives the amended notice at least 14 calendar days before the training course begins;
D. a notice of any change in the course curriculum or course materials submitted to the commissioner in part 4620.3702, other than the date, time, or location of the course or any information on a course instructor, so the commissioner receives the notice at least 30 calendar days before the training course begins; and
E. a notice of any change in any information submitted to the commissioner under part 4620.3702 on any training course instructor, so the commissioner receives the notice at least seven calendar days before the training course begins.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.05; 144.05; 326.70 to 326.81
- History: 20 SR 2765
Minn. R. 4620.3712 Attendance Requirements
The training course provider must require participants to attend the entire training course as a condition for successful completion of the training course. A training course provider must:
A. maintain a daily sign-in log as documentation of attendance for each training course; and
B. submit a copy of the daily sign-in log to the commissioner within 48 hours of completion of the training course.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 326.70 to 326.81
- History: 20 SR 2765
Minn. R. 4620.3714 Enrollment Limits
The enrollment limits of this part apply to all permitted training courses.
A. The number of participants in a class must not exceed 24.
B. For training courses which require hands-on training, the participant-to-instructor ratio for hands-on training groups must not exceed eight-to-one.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 326.70 to 326.81
- History: 20 SR 2765
Minn. R. 4620.3716 Training Course Conditions
Subpart 1. General.
The course requirements in this part apply to all permitted training courses.
Subp. 2. Separation of training courses.
Asbestos worker, asbestos site supervisor, asbestos inspector, asbestos management planner, asbestos project designer, and air sampling courses must be taught separately.
Subp. 3. Training course instructors.
If all instructors for a training course meet the requirements in this subpart, the commissioner shall approve the instructors as part of any permit issued for the training course.
All training course instructors must:
A. complete coursework in teaching methods and methods of evaluation to continually monitor the participants' progress;
B. have knowledge about all subjects to be presented by the instructor; and
C. apply the methods of adult instruction described in item A.
Subp. 4. Written examinations.
All training courses must include a written examination that meets the requirements in this subpart.
A. Each training course must include a written examination that is given only at the end of the training course.
B. If the commissioner provides an applicable written examination, the training course provider must use the written examination provided by the commissioner.
C. Training course examinations must be administered by the training course provider unless notified of other arrangements in advance by the commissioner.
D. If the training course provider administers the examination, the training course provider must:
E. The training course provider must monitor the examination.
F. The written examination for an initial training course and refresher training course must incorporate questions about Minnesota law and rules related to asbestos and comply with the requirements of Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, chapter I, subchapter R, part 763, subpart E, appendix C, section I, part C, paragraph (2), amended through February 3, 1994.
G. The final written examination for an initial training course and refresher training course must meet the requirements in this item. A score of at least 70 percent is required to pass any training course written examination. The initial and refresher examination for an:
H. If a participant in a worker training course is unable to read the written examination, the training course provider must arrange to administer the examination in an alternative manner to the participant.
Subp. 5. Successful completion of initial training course.
To successfully complete an initial training course, a participant must:
A. attend the entire training course;
B. demonstrate to the instructor proficiency during the hands-on portion of the course; and
C. pass a closed-book written examination that complies with subpart 4.
Subp. 6. Requirements for completion of refresher training courses.
To complete a refresher training course, the participant must:
A. attend the entire training course; and
B. pass a closed-book written examination that meets the requirements in subpart 4.
Subp. 7. Training site.
All training courses must be presented in Minnesota.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 326.70 to 326.81
- History: 20 SR 2765
Minn. R. 4620.3718 Course Content and Length
Subpart 1. General.
Course content for training courses permitted by the commissioner must meet the requirements of this part.
Subp. 2. Incorporation of Minnesota law and rules.
The training course provider must incorporate all asbestos-related Minnesota law and rules into all course materials and instruction wherever the course material and instruction addresses a subject covered by Minnesota law and rules.
Subp. 3. Incorporation of new material into training course.
The training course provider must incorporate any new information into course material as required by the commissioner.
Subp. 4. Length and content of initial asbestos-related training courses.
Initial training course length and content must meet the requirements in this subpart with one day equal to eight hours including breaks and lunch. The initial training course length and content requirements for:
A. asbestos workers must meet the length and content requirements in Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, chapter I, subchapter R, part 763, subpart E, appendix C, section I, part B, paragraph (1), amended through February 3, 1994;
B. asbestos site supervisors must meet the training course length and content requirements in Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, chapter I, subchapter R, part 763, subpart E, appendix C, section I, part B, paragraph (2), amended through February 3, 1994;
C. asbestos inspectors must meet the initial training course length and content requirements in Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, chapter I, subchapter R, part 763, subpart E, appendix C, section I, part B, paragraph (3), amended through February 3, 1994;
D. asbestos management planners must meet the initial training course length and content requirements in Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, chapter I, subchapter R, part 763, subpart E, appendix C, section I, part B, paragraph (4), amended through February 3, 1994; and
E. asbestos project designers must meet the initial training course length, content, and prerequisite requirements in Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, chapter I, subchapter R, part 763, subpart E, appendix C, section I, part B, paragraph (5), amended through February 3, 1994.
Subp. 5. Length and content of air sampling training.
The initial training course for asbestos air sampling must be at least two days in length and meet the requirements in this subpart. The training must address:
A. the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health's sampling method specified in part 4620.3597, subpart 1;
B. the sampling requirements and procedures in parts 4620.3592 to 4620.3598;
C. the sampling requirements and procedures specified in item B:
D. the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) personal sampling requirements, procedures, and rationale, including calculation of time-weighted averages contained in Code of Federal Regulations, title 29, section 1926.1101, paragraphs (c) and (f), and appendix A, amended through September 29, 1995;
E. the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) sampling requirements and procedures in Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, section 763.90, paragraph (i), and subpart E, appendix A, amended through April 15, 1988;
F. a comparison of the EPA, OSHA, and Minnesota air sampling requirements;
G. an introduction to analysis procedures;
H. sampling equipment calibration methods;
I. problems that may be encountered during sample collection;
J. decontamination of sampling equipment after sampling; and
K. hands-on sampling training, including;
Subp. 6. Hands-on training required.
For initial worker and site supervisor training, the course must include lectures, demonstrations, hands-on training, course review, and an examination as specified in part 4620.3716, subpart 4. The hands-on training must be at least 14 hours in length and must include:
A. demonstration by the instructor of the use of the respiratory protection devices with at least six different respirator types;
B. demonstration by the instructor and practice by each course participant of disassembly, cleaning, and reassembly of a half-face air purifying respirator and a full-face powered air purifying respirator;
C. practice by each course participant in identifying faults with half-face air purifying and full-face powered air purifying respirators with damaged or missing parts;
D. demonstration by the instructor of respirator fit checking;
E. demonstration by the instructor of respirator fit testing;
F. practice by each participant in donning full-body protective clothing;
G. demonstration by the instructor and practice by each course participant of simulated asbestos abatement of pipe insulation using a glove bag;
H. practice by each course participant constructing a decontamination unit;
I. practice by each participant constructing a containment and using a HEPA-filtered negative air machine to produce negative pressure in the containment;
J. demonstration by the instructor and practice by each participant of simulated abatement of ceiling spray-on; and
K. demonstration by the instructor and practice by each course participant of removing and replacing the filter elements in a HEPA-filtered negative air machine.
Subp. 7. Annual refresher courses.
Annual refresher courses for asbestos project designers, asbestos management planners, asbestos inspector, asbestos site supervisors, and asbestos workers must:
A. meet the refresher course length and content specified in Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, chapter I, subchapter R, part 763, subpart E, appendix C, section I, part D, amended through February 3, 1994;
B. include a review of the topics covered in an initial training course as specified in subpart 5; and
C. comply with part 4620.3716, subpart 6.
Subp. 8. Time limits for training courses.
If extra time is required to complete the prescribed instruction of a permitted training course or to add subjects not prescribed for the training course, the course may be extended if:
A. instruction is not more than eight hours per day, including lunch and other breaks; and
B. the training course is held no more than five successive days.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 326.70 to 326.81
- History: 20 SR 2765
Minn. R. 4620.3720 Record Keeping for Training Course Providers
Each provider of a permitted training course must comply with this part.
A. If the commissioner requests any or all of the documents described in item B, the provider must submit the requested documents so the commissioner receives them within seven calendar days of the commissioner's request.
B. For each permitted training course, the provider must keep for six years:
C. If a training course provider ceases to conduct training, the training course provider must notify the commissioner and give the commissioner the training records within 60 days of ceasing to provide training.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 326.70 to 326.81
- History: 20 SR 2765
Minn. R. 4620.3722 Training Course Approval Before July 1, 1996
The provider of a training course which has full approval from the commissioner before July 1, 1996, may apply for renewal under part 4620.3702, subpart 2, no later than 30 days before the expiration date of the approval.
A. The provider of a training course which has provisional approval from the commissioner before July 1, 1996, may apply for a renewal permit under part 4620.3702, subpart 2, no later than 90 days after July 1, 1996.
B. All provisional approvals shall expire 91 days after July 1, 1996.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 326.70 to 326.81
- History: 20 SR 2765
Minn. R. 4620.3724 Variance
The commissioner may grant a variance to part 4620.3710, item A, and, where space limitations prevent compliance with the specified requirements or where compliance with the specified requirements would create a greater hazard, to parts 4620.3566, 4620.3567, 4620.3568, subparts 1 to 4, 4620.3569, 4620.3571, subparts 1 and 2, and 4620.3575, subpart 3. A variance shall be considered only according to the procedures and criteria in parts 4717.7000 to 4717.7050.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 326.70 to 326.81
- History: 20 SR 2765
Minn. R. 4620.3900 Purpose
The purpose of parts 4620.3900 to 4620.4800 is to protect public health by ensuring acceptable air quality in the operation and maintenance of indoor ice arenas.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.1222
- History: 37 SR 1663
Minn. R. 4620.3910 Application
Parts 4620.3900 to 4620.4800 apply to owners or operators of indoor ice arenas.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1222
- History: 37 SR 1663
Minn. R. 4620.3950 Acceptable Air Quality
The owner or operator of an indoor ice arena must maintain acceptable air quality conditions at all times in areas of the arena building that are open to the public. Such conditions are defined as: one-hour average air concentration of not more than 20 parts of carbon monoxide per one million parts of air by volume (20 ppm), and one-hour average air concentrations of not more than 0.3 parts of nitrogen dioxide per one million parts of air by volume (0.3 ppm).
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1222
- History: 37 SR 1663
Minn. R. 4620.4000 Definitions
Subpart 1. Scope.
For the purposes of parts 4620.3900 to 4620.4800, the following terms shall have the meanings given them.
Subp. 1a. Air quality measuring device.
"Air quality measuring device" means direct-read pump and colorimetric tube or electronic real-time gas detection equipment for sampling and measuring nitrogen dioxide and carbon monoxide air concentrations.
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, 37 SR 1663]
Subp. 3.
[Repealed by amendment, L 1977 c 305 s 39]
Subp. 3a. Arena.
"Arena" means an indoor ice arena.
Subp. 3b. Arena building.
"Arena building" means a structure with a roof and walls that houses an indoor ice arena.
Subp. 4. Certificate.
"Certificate" means a certificate of approval issued by the commissioner under parts 4620.3900 to 4620.4800.
Subp. 5.
[Repealed, 37 SR 1663]
Subp. 5a. Commissioner.
"Commissioner" means the commissioner of health or the commissioner's designee.
Subp. 5b. Edging.
"Edging" means operation of an ice edger.
Subp. 6.
[Repealed, 37 SR 1663]
Subp. 7.
[Repealed, 37 SR 1663]
Subp. 7a. Ice edger.
"Ice edger" means power equipment used to modify the perimeter of an ice sheet.
Subp. 7b. Ice maintenance machine.
"Ice maintenance machine" means an ice resurfacer or ice edger.
Subp. 7c. Ice resurfacer.
"Ice resurfacer" means power equipment used to modify the entire surface of the ice.
Subp. 7d. Indoor ice arena.
"Indoor ice arena" means a single room of a permanent or temporary structure where an ice sheet is maintained having the following characteristics:
A. the room has a roof;
B. the room is bounded by walls, doorways, or windows, whether open or closed; and
C. the walls, doorways, or windows cover more than 50 percent of the combined surface area of the vertical planes that make up the room's perimeter (sides).
Subp. 7e. Operator.
"Operator" means the person designated by the owner as responsible to operate and maintain the indoor ice arena.
Subp. 7f. Owner.
"Owner" means the person having legal title to the indoor ice arena or the owner's legally authorized representative.
Subp. 8. Person.
"Person" means any natural individual, corporation, partnership, or other business association and includes the state and its political subdivisions.
Subp. 8a. Responsible person.
"Responsible person" means the individual authorized by the operator to ensure acceptable air quality conditions in the arena.
Subp. 9. Resurfacing.
"Resurfacing" means operation of an ice resurfacer.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.1222
- History: L 1977 c 305 s 39; 37 SR 1663
Minn. R. 4620.4100 Certificate of Approval
Subpart 1. Applicability.
No person may own or operate an indoor ice arena unless the commissioner issues the person a certificate.
Subp. 2. Certificate application.
Applications for a certificate must be submitted on forms prescribed by the commissioner. An application must be submitted:
A. annually, by owners or operators of all existing indoor ice arenas; and
B. at least 30 days before owners or operators open new indoor ice arenas to the public.
Subp. 3. Certificate issuance.
The commissioner must issue a certificate under subpart 2, if the commissioner determines that the owner or operator has complied with parts 4620.3900 to 4620.4800 and demonstrated the ability to maintain acceptable air quality conditions in the arena building.
Subp. 4. Certificate expiration and renewal.
A certificate issued under this part expires one year from the date of issue.
A. Owners or operators must apply for renewal on forms prescribed by the commissioner at least 30 days before a certificate expires.
B. If a certificate expires while a renewal application is pending approval, the arena may continue to operate under the expired certificate until the commissioner issues a new certificate or denies the renewal application.
Subp. 5. Posting of certificate.
The certificate must be prominently displayed in a location that is clearly visible to the public.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.1222
- History: L 1977 c 305 s 39; 37 SR 1663
Minn. R. 4620.4200 [Repealed, 37 SR 1663]
[Repealed, 37 SR 1663]
Minn. R. 4620.4300 [Repealed, 37 SR 1663]
[Repealed, 37 SR 1663]
Minn. R. 4620.4400 [Repealed, 37 SR 1663]
[Repealed, 37 SR 1663]
Minn. R. 4620.4450 Training
Subpart 1. Requirements.
The owner or operator must ensure that a trained responsible person is available in the arena building at all times that the arena is open to the public. Training must:
A. be appropriate for the trainee's level of responsibility in operating the arena;
B. be performed annually;
C. include the following topics:
D. be documented.
Subp. 2. Documentation.
Trainees must acknowledge, with their written signature, that they have received training meeting the requirements of this part. Owners or operators must maintain the written acknowledgment according to part 4620.4650.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1222
- History: 37 SR 1663
Minn. R. 4620.4500 [Repealed, 37 SR 1663]
[Repealed, 37 SR 1663]
Minn. R. 4620.4510 Measurement of Air Quality Conditions
Subpart 1. Measuring air quality.
Owners or operators of indoor ice arenas must measure carbon monoxide and nitrogen dioxide air concentrations in each arena when internal combustion engine-powered ice maintenance equipment is used.
Subp. 2. Persons who can take measurements.
Measurements must be made by an individual who has received training as specified in part 4620.4450.
Subp. 3. Measurements for ice resurfacing.
Owners or operators must measure air concentrations at least twice per week after using an internal combustion engine-powered ice resurfacer. Measurements must be taken:
A. at board height, inside the boards, and at the centerline of the ice;
B. 20 minutes after completing resurfacing unless the commissioner has granted the operator approval to measure under an alternative schedule;
C. at times of maximum use of the resurfacing machine; and
D. at least once on Saturday or Sunday of each week that the arena is open to the public.
Subp. 4. Measurements for ice edging.
A. Owners or operators must measure air concentrations at least once per week after using an internal combustion engine-powered ice edger. Measurements must be taken following a time of maximum ice edger use at board height, inside the boards, and at the centerline of the ice:
B. Owners or operators may measure under an alternative schedule if the commissioner has approved one.
Subp. 5. Measurement records.
Owners or operators must keep a record of measurement findings and make them available to the commissioner upon request.
Subp. 6. Additional measurements.
Owners or operators must make additional measurements as determined by the commissioner.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1222
- History: 37 SR 1663
Minn. R. 4620.4550 Air Quality Measuring Devices
Subpart 1. Device requirements.
The owner or operator must demonstrate that the device and methods used to measure air quality conditions are accurate and reliable. Air quality measuring devices must be:
A. capable of measuring carbon monoxide air concentrations in a range from 0 to 100 parts per million (ppm) in increments of 1 ppm; or
B. capable of measuring nitrogen dioxide air concentrations in a range from 0 to 5 parts per million (ppm) in increments of 0.1 ppm.
Subp. 2. Maintenance.
The owner or operator must operate, store, maintain, and calibrate the devices according to the device manufacturer's specifications. The owner or operator must also keep maintenance and calibration records.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1222
- History: 37 SR 1663
Minn. R. 4620.4600 Failure to Maintain Air Quality
Subpart 1. Corrective action necessary.
The owner or operator must take immediate corrective action when measurements of more than 20 ppm of carbon monoxide or more than 0.3 ppm of nitrogen dioxide are made in an area of the arena building that is open to the public. Corrective action must include:
A. increasing the ventilation rate immediately; and
B. suspending internal combustion-powered equipment use. The owner or operator must continue corrective action until measurements show not more than 20 ppm of carbon monoxide and not more than 0.3 ppm of nitrogen dioxide in all areas of the arena building that are open to the public.
Subp. 2. Follow-up testing.
The owner or operator must conduct and document the following air quality tests to confirm the effectiveness of the corrective action:
A. at 20-minute intervals until measurements show not more than 20 ppm of carbon monoxide and not more than 0.3 ppm of nitrogen dioxide;
B. 20 minutes after the next five uses of ice maintenance equipment; and
C. at least once per day for the subsequent three days of arena operation.
Subp. 3. Report.
Whenever corrective action is required under subpart 1, the owner or operator must submit a report to the commissioner within five business days that includes:
A. an explanation of why corrective action was necessary;
B. a description of the immediate corrective actions that were taken;
C. a record of all air quality tests required by subpart 2; and
D. an action plan to prevent a reoccurrence.
Subp. 4. Arena evacuation necessary.
A. The owner or operator must evacuate an area of the arena building whenever:
B. When evacuation becomes necessary, the owner or operator must:
C. The evacuated areas may only be reoccupied by the public after an evacuation under item A if:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.1222
- History: L 1977 c 305 s 39; 37 SR 1663
Minn. R. 4620.4650 Record Keeping
The owner or operator must keep a record-keeping log to maintain all documentation required by parts 4620.3900 to 4620.4600.
A. Documents that must be maintained in the record-keeping log are:
B. The record-keeping log must be kept in the arena building and be available for public and commissioner review during all hours that the arena building is open to the public.
C. Required documents must be retained for at least three years.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1222
- History: 37 SR 1663
Minn. R. 4620.4700 Other Fuel-Burning Equipment
Subpart 1. Notification required.
The owner or operator must notify the commissioner when using equipment other than ice maintenance machines for operating or maintaining the ice arena, if that equipment is capable of producing carbon monoxide or nitrogen dioxide and is not directly vented to the outdoors.
Subp. 2. Notification process.
The owner or operator must notify the commissioner by:
A. providing the department with a list of such equipment that the owner or operator proposes to use in its annual certificate application; and
B. notifying the commissioner by telephone or in writing before using other fuel-burning equipment in the arena if the equipment was not included in its annual submission to the commissioner.
Subp. 3. Air quality measurement.
The owner or operator must ensure acceptable air quality in the arena building when using other fuel-burning equipment by measuring the air quality conditions and reporting as the commissioner directs, depending upon the specific type of activity to be conducted in the building.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.1222
- History: L 1977 c 305 s 39; 37 SR 1663
Minn. R. 4620.4800 Enforcement
Violations of the requirements of parts 4620.3900 to 4620.4700 shall constitute grounds for the commissioner to take one or more of the enforcement actions in Minnesota Statutes, sections 144.989 to 144.993, subject to the notice and appeal provisions set forth in applicable law.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.1222
- History: L 1977 c 305 s 39; 37 SR 1663
Minn. R. 4620.4900 Variance to Rules Relating to Indoor Ice Arenas
The commissioner shall grant variances to parts 4620.3900 to 4620.4800, except part 4620.3950, only according to the procedures and criteria specified in parts 4717.7000 to 4717.7050.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.05; 144.1222
- History: 15 SR 1597; 37 SR 1663
Minn. R. 4620.5000 Purpose
The purpose of parts 4620.5000 to 4620.5900 is to protect public health by ensuring acceptable air quality in the operation and maintenance of indoor motorsports arenas.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1222
- History: 37 SR 1663
Minn. R. 4620.5100 Application
Parts 4620.5000 to 4620.5900 apply to owners or operators of indoor motorsports arenas.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1222
- History: 37 SR 1663
Minn. R. 4620.5200 Acceptable Air Quality
The owner or operator of an indoor motorsports arena must maintain acceptable air quality conditions at all times in areas of the arena building that are open to the public. Such conditions are defined as: one-hour average air concentrations of not more than 30 parts of carbon monoxide per one million parts of air by volume (30 ppm), and one-hour average air concentrations of not more than 0.3 parts of nitrogen dioxide per one million parts of air by volume (0.3 ppm).
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1222
- History: 37 SR 1663
Minn. R. 4620.5300 Definitions
Subpart 1. Scope.
For the purposes of parts 4620.5000 to 4620.5900, the following terms have the meanings given them.
Subp. 2. Air quality measuring device.
"Air quality measuring device" means direct-read pump and colorimetric tube or electronic real-time gas detection equipment for sampling and measuring nitrogen dioxide or carbon monoxide air concentrations.
Subp. 3. Arena.
"Arena" means an indoor motorsports arena.
Subp. 4. Arena building.
"Arena building" means a structure with a roof and walls that houses an indoor motorsports arena.
Subp. 5. Certificate.
"Certificate" means a certificate of approval issued by the commissioner under parts 4620.5000 to 4620.5900.
Subp. 6. Commissioner.
"Commissioner" means the commissioner of health or the commissioner's designee.
Subp. 7. Event manager.
"Event manager" means the person who organizes or directs a special indoor motorsports event.
Subp. 8. Indoor motorsports arena.
"Indoor motorsports arena" means a single room of a permanent or temporary structure where motorsports are operated having the following characteristics:
A. the room has a ceiling;
B. the room is bounded by walls, doorways, or windows, whether open or closed; and
C. the walls, doorways, or windows cover more than 50 percent of the combined surface area of the vertical planes that make up the room's perimeter (sides).
Subp. 9. Motorsports vehicle.
"Motorsports vehicle" means an internal combustion engine-powered vehicle used for recreation, racing, competition, or demonstration.
Subp. 10. Operating hours.
"Operating hours" means the time period that the indoor motorsports arena building is open to the public and motorsports vehicles are being used in the arena.
Subp. 11. Operator.
"Operator" means the person designated by the owner as responsible to operate and maintain the indoor motorsports arena.
Subp. 12. Owner.
"Owner" means the person having legal title to the arena building or the owner's legally authorized representative.
Subp. 13. Person.
"Person" means any natural individual, corporation, partnership, or other business association and includes the state and its political subdivisions.
Subp. 14. Responsible person.
"Responsible person" means the individual authorized by the operator to ensure acceptable air quality conditions in the arena building.
Subp. 15. Special indoor motorsports event.
"Special indoor motorsports event" means a single event where motorsports vehicles are operated in an arena.
Subp. 16. Spectator.
"Spectator" means a member of the public present in the arena building who is not a motorsports vehicle driver or rider or an actively working employee.
Subp. 17. Spectator area.
"Spectator area" means that part of the indoor motorsports arena building where spectators are allowed to assemble.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1222
- History: 37 SR 1663
Minn. R. 4620.5400 Certificate of Approval
Subpart 1. Applicability.
No person shall own or operate an indoor motorsports arena unless the commissioner issues the person a certificate.
Subp. 2. Certificate application.
Applications for a certificate must be submitted on forms prescribed by the commissioner. An application must be submitted:
A. annually, by owners or operators of existing indoor motorsports arenas;
B. at least 30 days before owners or operators open new indoor motorsports arenas to the public; and
C. at least 30 days before the arena owners or operators and the event manager begin a special indoor motorsports event.
Subp. 3. Certificate issuance.
A. The commissioner must issue a certificate under subpart 2, item A or B, if the commissioner determines that the owner or operator has complied with parts 4620.5000 to 4620.5900 and demonstrated the ability to maintain acceptable air quality conditions in the arena building.
B. The commissioner shall issue a certificate granting approval to hold a special indoor motorsports event if the owner or operator meets the requirements of item A and:
Subp. 4. Certificate expiration and renewal.
A certificate issued under this part expires one year from the date of issue, except that a certificate for a special indoor motorsports event expires as the certificate describes.
A. Owners or operators shall apply for renewal on forms prescribed by the commissioner at least 30 days before a standard certificate expires.
B. If a certificate expires while a renewal application is pending approval, the arena may continue to operate under the expired certificate until the commissioner issues a new certificate or denies the renewal application.
Subp. 5. Posting of certificate.
The certificate must be prominently displayed in a location that is clearly visible to the public.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1222
- History: 37 SR 1663
Minn. R. 4620.5500 Training
Subpart 1. Requirements.
The owner or operator must ensure that a trained responsible person is available in the arena building at all times that the arena is open to the public. Training must:
A. be appropriate for the trainee's level of responsibility in operating the arena;
B. be performed annually;
C. include the following topics:
D. be documented.
Subp. 2. Documentation.
Trainees shall acknowledge, with their written signature, that they have received training meeting the requirements of this part. The written acknowledgment shall be maintained according to part 4620.5800.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1222
- History: 37 SR 1663
Minn. R. 4620.5600 Measurement of Air Quality Conditions
Subpart 1. Measuring air quality.
Owners or operators of indoor motorsports arenas must measure carbon monoxide and nitrogen dioxide air concentrations in each indoor motorsports arena as directed by the commissioner.
Subp. 2. Persons who can take measurements.
Measurements must be made by an individual who has received training as specified in part 4620.5500.
Subp. 3. Measurement requirements.
A. Owners and operators must measure nitrogen dioxide air concentrations as the commissioner directs depending on the specific type of activity to be conducted in the arena.
B. Owners and operators must measure carbon monoxide air concentrations in each indoor motorsports arena building as follows:
Subp. 4. Measurement records.
Owners or operators must keep a record of measurement findings and make it available to the commissioner upon request.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1222
- History: 37 SR 1663
Minn. R. 4620.5650 Air Quality Measuring Devices
Subpart 1. Device requirements.
The owner or operator must demonstrate that the devices and methods used to measure air quality conditions are accurate and reliable. Air quality measuring devices must be:
A. capable of measuring carbon monoxide air concentrations in a range from 0 to at least 100 parts per million (ppm) in increments of 1 ppm; or
B. capable of measuring nitrogen dioxide air concentrations in a range from 0 to at least 5 ppm in increments of 0.1 ppm.
Subp. 2. Maintenance.
The owner or operator must operate, store, maintain, and calibrate the devices according to the device manufacturer's specifications. The owner or operator must also keep maintenance and calibration records.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1222
- History: 37 SR 1663
Minn. R. 4620.5700 Failure to Maintain Air Quality
Subpart 1. Corrective action necessary.
The owner or operator must take immediate corrective action when measurements of more than 30 ppm of carbon monoxide or more than 0.3 ppm of nitrogen dioxide are made for more than 15 minutes in an area of the arena building that is open to the public. Corrective action must include:
A. increasing the ventilation rate immediately; and
B. suspending internal combustion-powered equipment use, if carbon monoxide measurements remain in excess of 30 ppm or nitrogen dioxide measurements remain in excess of 0.3 ppm for more than one hour after an original exceeding measurement. The owner or operator must continue corrective action until measurements show not more than 30 ppm of carbon monoxide and not more than 0.3 ppm of nitrogen dioxide in all areas of the arena building that are open to the public.
Subp. 2. Follow-up testing.
The owner or operator must conduct and document the following air quality tests to confirm the effectiveness of the corrective actions:
A. at 15-minute intervals until measurements show not more than 30 ppm of carbon monoxide and not more than 0.3 ppm of nitrogen dioxide; and
B. at 15-minute intervals for at least one hour per day for the subsequent three days of arena operation.
Subp. 3. Report.
Whenever the conditions of subpart 1 occur, the owner or operator must submit a report to the commissioner within five business days that includes:
A. an explanation of why corrective action was necessary;
B. a description of the immediate corrective actions that were taken;
C. a record of all air quality tests required by subpart 2; and
D. an action plan to prevent a recurrence.
Subp. 4. Arena evacuation necessary.
A. The owner or operator must evacuate an area of the arena building whenever:
B. When evacuation becomes necessary, the owner or operator must:
C. Evacuated areas may only be reoccupied by the public after an evacuation under item A if:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1222
- History: 37 SR 1663
Minn. R. 4620.5800 Record Keeping
The owner or operator must keep a record-keeping log to maintain all documentation according to parts 4620.5000 to 4620.5900.
A. Documents that must be maintained in the record-keeping log are:
B. The record-keeping log must be kept in the arena building and be available for public and commissioner review during all hours that the arena building is open to the public.
C. Required documents must be retained for at least three years.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1222
- History: 37 SR 1663
Minn. R. 4620.5900 Enforcement
Violations of the requirements of parts 4620.5000 to 4620.5800 shall constitute grounds for the commissioner to take one or more of the enforcement actions in Minnesota Statutes, sections 144.989 to 144.993, subject to the notice and appeal provisions set forth in applicable law.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1222
- History: 37 SR 1663
Minn. R. 4620.5950 Variance to Rules Relating to Indoor Motorsports Arenas
The commissioner shall grant variances to parts 4620.5000 to 4620.5900, except part 4620.5200, only according to the procedures and criteria specified in parts 4717.7000 to 4717.7050.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1222
- History: 37 SR 1663
Minn. R. 4620.7000 Purpose
The purpose of parts 4620.7000 to 4620.7950 is to protect public health by establishing licensing requirements and work practices that ensure radon measurement and radon mitigation are performed in a manner that minimizes the public's exposure to radon gas.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.4961
- History: 43 SR 687
Minn. R. 4620.7050 Applicability
Parts 4620.7000 to 4620.7950 apply to any person who performs a service for compensation to detect the presence of radon in the indoor atmosphere, performs laboratory analysis of radon measurement samples, or performs a service to mitigate radon in the indoor atmosphere. Parts 4620.7000 to 4620.7950 also apply to radon mitigation systems installed on or after January 1, 2019.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.4961
- History: 43 SR 687
Minn. R. 4620.7100 Definitions
Subpart 1. Scope.
For the purposes of parts 4620.7000 to 4620.7950, the terms defined in this part have the meanings given them.
Subp. 2. Commissioner.
"Commissioner" means the commissioner of health or the commissioner's designee.
Subp. 3. Continuous monitor.
"Continuous monitor" means a radon measurement device that requires an electrical power source and is capable of charting radon concentration fluctuations throughout the course of a given measurement period.
Subp. 4. Foundation type.
"Foundation type" means basement, crawl space, slab-on-grade, or any other construction technique approved by local building code.
Subp. 5. Measurement professional.
"Measurement professional" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.4961, subdivision 8, paragraph (a), clause (1). Radon testing includes the act of an individual placing and retrieving a radon test device.
Subp. 6. Mitigation.
"Mitigation" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.4961, subdivision 2, paragraph (b).
Subp. 7. Mitigation company.
"Mitigation company" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.4961, subdivision 8, paragraph (a), clause (3).
Subp. 8. Mitigation professional.
"Mitigation professional" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.4961, subdivision 8, paragraph (a), clause (2).
Subp. 9. Mitigation system tag or system tag.
"Mitigation system tag" or "system tag" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.4961, subdivision 8, paragraph (a), clause (5).
Subp. 10. Mitigation technician.
"Mitigation technician" means an employee or subcontractor who is supervised by a licensed radon professional when installing a radon mitigation system.
Subp. 11. National radon proficiency program (NRPP).
"National radon proficiency program" or "NRPP" means a radon proficiency listing, accrediting, and certifying program for radon measurement and mitigation professionals, radon laboratories, radon measurement devices, and radon chambers formerly recognized by the United States Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) as being equal to the EPA's National Radon Proficiency Program.
Subp. 12. On-site supervision.
"On-site supervision" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.4961, subdivision 8, paragraph (a), clause (2).
Subp. 13. Passive device.
"Passive device" means a radon measurement device that is analyzed by a radon analysis laboratory.
Subp. 14. Quality assurance.
"Quality assurance" means all activities required to provide the evidence needed to establish confidence that data provided are of the required precision and accuracy.
Subp. 15. Quality control.
"Quality control" means the process through which an organization measures its performance, compares the performance with standards, and acts on any differences.
Subp. 16. Radon.
"Radon" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.4961, subdivision 2, paragraph (c).
Subp. 17. Radon analysis laboratory.
"Radon analysis laboratory" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.4961, subdivision 8, paragraph (a), clause (4).
Subp. 18. Radon measurement.
"Radon measurement" means testing to determine the presence and concentration of radon in a building.
Subp. 19. Radon sample analysis.
"Radon sample analysis" means determining the presence and concentration of radon in a passive device.
Subp. 20. Responsible individual.
"Responsible individual" means an individual who has the authority to represent a radon mitigation company in all matters related to a radon mitigation company license.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.4961
- History: 43 SR 687
Minn. R. 4620.7200 Radon Measurement Professional License
Subpart 1. General requirements.
An individual who performs radon measurement work must be licensed by the commissioner as a radon measurement professional under this part. A radon measurement professional license is not transferable.
Subp. 2. Training requirements; initial license.
To be eligible for an initial license as a radon measurement professional, an applicant must:
A. complete an initial radon measurement training course approved by the commissioner under part 4620.7700; and
B. pass a radon measurement examination approved by the commissioner under part 4620.7700.
Subp. 3. Initial license application.
An applicant for an initial radon measurement professional license must submit to the commissioner:
A. a completed application on a form provided by the commissioner;
B. a nonrefundable annual fee according to Minnesota Statutes, section 144.4961, subdivision 8, payable to the Department of Health;
C. documentation that the applicant completed initial radon measurement training required under subpart 2;
D. documentation that the applicant passed a radon measurement training course exam as described in subpart 2;
E. a quality control and quality assurance plan for radon measurement based on the United States Environmental Protection Agency National Radon Proficiency Program Guidance on Quality Assurance;
F. the type, manufacturer, and model of all continuous monitors that the applicant intends to use to measure radon; and
G. the type and manufacturer of all passive devices that the applicant intends to use to measure radon.
Subp. 4. Expiration; renewal; continuing education.
A. A radon measurement professional license is valid for one year from the date of issuance.
B. A radon measurement professional may apply to renew a license after completing eight hours of continuing education approved by the commissioner under part 4620.7700.
C. To renew an expired license, an applicant must submit a renewal application by submitting the information required under subpart 5 and must:
Subp. 5. Renewal application.
A. An individual choosing to renew a radon measurement professional license must submit to the commissioner at least 30 days before the license expires:
B. A radon measurement professional must complete eight hours of continuing education approved by the commissioner under part 4620.7700 within 11 months after the date the radon measurement professional license first expires. Continuing education hours may be accrued beginning in the month immediately after they are reported and must be reported annually with the license application thereafter.
C. If a license expires while a renewal application is pending approval, the radon measurement professional may continue to perform regulated radon measurement activities under the expired license until the commissioner issues a new license or denies the renewal application.
Subp. 6. Denial of license application.
A. The commissioner shall deny an application for a radon measurement professional license according to Minnesota Statutes, section 144.99, subdivision 8, or if the applicant fails to comply with the requirements of subpart 2, 3, 4, or 5.
B. If the commissioner denies an application, the commissioner:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.4961
- History: 43 SR 687
Minn. R. 4620.7250 Radon Mitigation Company License
Subpart 1. General requirements.
A. A business or government entity that employs individuals to perform regulated radon mitigation work must be licensed by the commissioner as a radon mitigation company.
B. A radon mitigation company must employ or contract with a responsible individual who is licensed as a radon mitigation professional.
C. A radon mitigation company license is not transferable.
Subp. 2. License application.
An applicant for a radon mitigation company license must submit to the commissioner:
A. a completed application on a form provided by the commissioner;
B. a nonrefundable annual fee according to Minnesota Statutes, section 144.4961, subdivision 8, payable to the Department of Health;
C. evidence of workers' compensation insurance as required by Minnesota Statutes, section 176.182, unless the applicant is exempt from the requirements under Minnesota Statutes, chapter 176. If the applicant is exempt from the requirements under Minnesota Statutes, chapter 176, the applicant must submit a letter that is signed and dated stating why the applicant is exempt;
D. the name and license number of the responsible individual; and
E. the names and license numbers of all licensed mitigation professionals employed or subcontracted by the radon mitigation company.
Subp. 3. License expiration and renewal.
A. A license issued under this part is valid for one year from the date of issuance.
B. A licensed radon mitigation company may renew its license annually by submitting the information and fee required under subpart 2.
C. The renewal application must be received by the commissioner at least 30 days before the expiration date on the current license.
D. If a license expires while a renewal application is pending approval, the radon mitigation company may continue to employ individuals to perform regulated radon mitigation activities under the expired license until the commissioner issues a new license or denies the renewal application.
Subp. 4. Denial of license application.
A. The commissioner shall deny an application for a radon mitigation company license according to Minnesota Statutes, section 144.99, subdivision 8, or if the applicant fails to comply with the requirements of subpart 2 or 3.
B. If the commissioner denies an application, the commissioner:
Subp. 5. Change in responsible individual.
If the responsible individual no longer serves in that capacity, the company must provide a written notice to the commissioner within 30 days of a change in the responsible individual that:
A. identifies the new responsible individual by name and radon mitigation professional license number;
B. is signed by the new responsible individual; and
C. provides the date when the new responsible individual assumed the duties of the position.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.4961
- History: 43 SR 687
Minn. R. 4620.7300 Radon Mitigation Professional License
Subpart 1. General requirements.
An individual who performs radon mitigation work must be licensed by the commissioner as a radon mitigation professional under this part. A radon mitigation professional license is not transferable.
Subp. 2. Training requirements; initial license.
To be eligible for an initial license as a radon mitigation professional, an applicant must:
A. complete an initial radon measurement course approved by the commissioner under part 4620.7700;
B. pass a radon measurement examination approved by the commissioner under part 4620.7700;
C. complete an initial radon mitigation course approved by the commissioner under part 4620.7700; and
D. pass a radon mitigation examination approved by the commissioner under part 4620.7700.
Subp. 3. Initial license application.
An applicant for an initial radon mitigation professional license must submit to the commissioner:
A. a completed application on a form provided by the commissioner;
B. a nonrefundable annual fee according to Minnesota Statutes, section 144.4961, subdivision 8, payable to the Department of Health;
C. documentation that the applicant completed radon training courses under subpart 2;
D. documentation that the applicant passed radon training course examinations under subpart 2;
E. a quality control and quality assurance plan for radon measurement based on the United States Environmental Protection Agency National Radon Proficiency Program Guidance on Quality Assurance;
F. the type, manufacturer, and model of all continuous monitors that the applicant intends to use to measure radon; and
G. the type and manufacturer of all passive devices that the applicant intends to use to measure radon.
Subp. 4. Expiration; renewal; continuing education.
A. A radon mitigation professional license is valid for one year from the date of issuance.
B. A licensed radon mitigation professional may apply to renew a license after completing 12 hours of continuing education approved by the commissioner under part 4620.7700.
C. To renew an expired license, an applicant must submit a renewal application by submitting the information required under subpart 5 and:
Subp. 5. Renewal application.
A. An individual choosing to renew a radon mitigation professional license must submit to the commissioner at least 30 days before the license expires:
B. A radon mitigation professional must complete 12 hours of continuing education approved by the commissioner under part 4620.7700 within 11 months after the date the radon mitigation professional license first expires. Continuing education hours may be accrued beginning in the month immediately after they are reported and must be reported annually with the license application thereafter.
C. If a license expires while a renewal application is pending approval, the radon mitigation professional may continue to perform regulated radon mitigation activities under the expired license until the commissioner issues a new license or denies the renewal application.
Subp. 6. Denial of license application.
A. The commissioner shall deny an application for a radon mitigation professional license according to Minnesota Statutes, section 144.99, subdivision 8, or if the applicant fails to comply with the requirements of subpart 2, 3, 4, or 5.
B. If the commissioner denies an application, the commissioner:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.4961
- History: 43 SR 687
Minn. R. 4620.7350 Radon Analysis Laboratory License
Subpart 1. General requirements.
A business or government entity that performs radon sample analysis must be licensed by the commissioner as a radon analysis laboratory under this part. A radon analysis laboratory license is not transferable.
Subp. 2. Application for license.
An applicant for a radon analysis laboratory license must submit to the commissioner:
A. a completed application on a form provided by the commissioner;
B. a nonrefundable annual fee according to Minnesota Statutes, section 144.4961, subdivision 8, payable to the Department of Health;
C. evidence of workers' compensation insurance as required by Minnesota Statutes, section 176.182, or if the applicant is exempt from the requirements under Minnesota Statutes, chapter 176, the applicant must submit a letter that is signed and dated stating why the applicant is exempt;
D. the applicant's current national radon proficiency program approval numbers and expiration dates;
E. the name, model, and NRPP approval number of all passive devices analyzed;
F. all analysis data from the previous year related to radon measurement samples taken from buildings located in Minnesota;
G. a radon sample analysis quality assurance and quality control plan; and
H. proof of:
Subp. 3. License expiration and renewal.
A. A license issued under this part is valid for one year from the date of issuance.
B. A licensed radon analysis laboratory may renew its license annually by submitting the information required under subpart 2.
C. The renewal application must be received by the commissioner at least 30 days before the expiration date on the existing license.
D. If a license expires while a renewal application is pending approval, the radon analysis laboratory may continue to perform regulated radon sample analysis activities under the expired license until the commissioner issues a new license or denies the renewal application.
Subp. 4. Denial of license application.
A. The commissioner shall deny an application for a radon analysis laboratory license according to Minnesota Statutes, section 144.99, subdivision 8, or if the applicant fails to comply with the requirements of subpart 2.
B. If the commissioner denies an application, the commissioner must:
Subp. 5. Quality assurance manager.
A. A licensed radon analysis laboratory must at all times employ or contract with a quality assurance manager who represents the radon analysis laboratory.
B. If the quality assurance manager identified on the current radon analysis laboratory license no longer serves in that capacity, the laboratory must provide a written notice to the commissioner within 30 days of the change in the quality assurance manager that:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.4961
- History: 43 SR 687
Minn. R. 4620.7400 Standards of Conduct
Subpart 1. Radon measurement and radon mitigation professional standards.
A radon measurement professional and a radon mitigation professional must:
A. operate according to a quality assurance and quality control plan submitted to the commissioner under parts 4620.7200 and 4620.7300;
B. use a continuous monitor or passive device approved by a national radon proficiency program;
C. notify the commissioner in writing within 30 days of any change to the license application information provided under parts 4620.7200 and 4620.7300;
D. maintain proof of a valid license issued under this chapter at all times while at a project site;
E. use the services of a radon laboratory licensed by the commissioner under part 4620.7350 to analyze radon samples;
F. maintain records for three years of each radon test performed;
G. maintain radon measurement device calibration records for three years. Device calibration records include the:
H. not interfere with the commissioner's inspection or audit of any radon measurement or mitigation project.
Subp. 2. Radon mitigation company and sole proprietor radon mitigation professional standards.
A radon mitigation company and a radon professional engaged as a sole proprietor with no employees and no subcontractors who are licensed radon mitigation professionals must:
A. verify that employees directly involved in radon mitigation complete an NRPP-approved training course or a minimum of eight hours of basic mitigation training provided by a licensed radon mitigation professional. The training must be:
B. maintain a record of training required under item A for three years;
C. verify that all of its mitigation professionals, employees, and subcontractors comply with parts 4620.7000 to 4620.7950;
D. verify that radon mitigation is performed with on-site supervision of a licensed mitigation professional;
E. maintain records for three years of each radon mitigation performed, including records required under parts 4620.7500 and 4620.7600, subpart 2;
F. notify the commissioner in writing within 30 days of any change to the license application information provided under part 4620.7250; and
G. obtain a permit from the local unit of government when the installation of a radon mitigation system alters any structural component of the building framing system. A permit is not required when only the rim joist area is penetrated.
Subp. 3. Radon analysis laboratory standards.
An approved radon analysis laboratory must:
A. maintain current documentation required under part 4620.7350;
B. maintain the certification status of a national radon proficiency program;
C. notify the commissioner in writing within 30 days of any change to the license application information provided under part 4620.7350; and
D. maintain the status requirement of part 4620.7350, subpart 2, item H. If status is no longer current, the commissioner shall suspend the radon laboratory license under Minnesota Statutes, section 144.99, subdivision 9.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.4961
- History: 43 SR 687
Minn. R. 4620.7500 Incorporation by Reference; Required Work Practices for Radon Measurement and Mitigation and Measurement Devices
A. This part indicates documents, specifications, methods, and standards that are incorporated by reference in parts 4620.7000 to 4620.7900. This material is amended from time to time and is available from the source listed and for loan or inspection from the Department of Health. The requirements of the standards or the successor requirements of the standards in this section must be followed for all radon-related work conducted in Minnesota.
B. Radon measurement professionals and radon mitigation professionals measuring radon in single-family residences must:
C. Radon measurement professionals and radon mitigation professionals measuring radon in multifamily buildings must comply with ANSI/AARST Standard: Protocol for Conducting Radon and Radon Decay Product Measurements in Multifamily Buildings (ANSI/AARST MAMF-2017) or successor ANSI/AARST standards.
D. Radon measurement professionals and radon mitigation professionals measuring radon in schools and large buildings must comply with ANSI/AARST Protocol for Conducting Measurements of Radon and Radon Decay Products in Schools and Large Buildings (ANSI/AARST MALB-2014) or successor ANSI/AARST standards.
E. Radon mitigation professionals performing radon mitigation in houses must comply with Soil Gas Mitigation Standards for Existing Homes (ANSI/AARST SGM-SF-2017) or successor ANSI/AARST standards.
F. Radon mitigation professionals performing radon mitigation in multifamily buildings must comply with ANSI/AARST Radon Mitigation Standards for Multifamily Buildings (ANSI/AARST RMS-MF-2018) or successor ANSI/AARST standards.
G. Radon mitigation professionals performing radon mitigation in schools and large buildings must comply with ANSI/AARST Radon Mitigation Standards for Schools and Large Buildings (ANSI/AARST RMS-LB-2018) or successor ANSI/AARST standards.
H. Radon measurement device performance requirements are the ANSI/AARST Performance Specifications for Instrumentation Systems Designed to Measure Radon Gas in Air (ANSI/AARST MS-PC-2015) or successor ANSI/AARST standards.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.4961
- History: 43 SR 687
Minn. R. 4620.7600 Radon System Tag Requirements
Subpart 1. Purchasing tags.
A. A radon mitigation company must purchase radon system tags by:
B. A radon mitigation professional engaged as a sole proprietor with no employees and no subcontractors who are licensed radon mitigation professionals may purchase radon system tags as required in this subpart, without becoming a licensed radon mitigation company.
Subp. 2. Postmitigation checklist.
A radon mitigation professional must complete a postmitigation checklist, on a form provided by the commissioner, before attaching a radon system tag.
Subp. 3. Attaching tags.
A radon mitigation professional must attach a radon system tag to a radon system:
A. in a location:
B. on the date of project completion.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.4961
- History: 43 SR 687
Minn. R. 4620.7700 Approval of Initial Training and Continuing Education Courses
Subpart 1. Initial training.
The commissioner shall approve an initial radon:
A. measurement training course approved by a national radon proficiency program;
B. measurement course exam approved by a national radon proficiency program;
C. mitigation training course approved by a national radon proficiency program; and
D. mitigation course exam approved by a national radon proficiency program.
Subp. 2. Preapproved continuing education courses.
A. Any continuing education course currently approved by a national radon proficiency program meets the continuing education requirements of parts 4620.7200 and 4620.7300.
B. A licensed measurement professional or mitigation professional shall receive continuing education credit for the number of hours that the professional attends an initial training course approved by the commissioner.
Subp. 3. Other continuing education credit.
A. To receive continuing education credit for a course, seminar, or professional organization meeting that is not an approved training course under this part, the person requesting credit must complete and submit a request on a form provided by the commissioner.
B. A person requesting credit must submit a request for credit according to this subpart within 30 days after a course, seminar, or meeting ends.
C. To obtain advance approval of continuing education credit for a course, seminar, or meeting of a professional organization, a person requesting credit must submit a request under this subpart at least 30 days before the course, seminar, or meeting begins.
D. The commissioner shall grant continuing education credit to an instructor of a course approved by the commissioner under this part if the instructor requesting credit submits to the commissioner a request on a form provided by the commissioner within 30 days after a course, seminar, or meeting ends.
E. The commissioner shall determine the number of continuing education credit hours that are approved to meet the requirements of this part based on the course's, seminar's, or meeting's relevance to the activities of a measurement professional or mitigation professional.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.4961
- History: 43 SR 687
Minn. R. 4620.7800 Reporting Requirements
Subpart 1. Radon test reports.
A radon measurement professional or radon mitigation professional must submit an electronic report, in the form and manner provided by the commissioner, listing all the radon tests completed and provide the following information for each project:
A. street address, city, county, and zip code where work was performed;
B. test start date and completion date;
C. test device used;
D. identification of test as initial, follow-up, or postmitigation test;
E. if the test was done for a real estate transaction;
F. reported radon concentration;
G. age of the building tested;
H. type of building tested;
I. if there is a radon mitigation system present; and
J. system tag number, if present.
Subp. 2. Mitigation project reports.
A mitigation company or radon mitigation professional engaged as a sole proprietor with no employees and no subcontractors who are licensed radon professionals must submit an electronic report, in the form and manner provided by the commissioner, listing all mitigation projects completed and provide the following information for each project:
A. name and contact information of the property owner or occupant, if available;
B. street address, city, county, and zip code where the work was performed;
C. start date and completion dates;
D. type of radon mitigation systems installed;
E. type of building mitigated;
F. premitigation and postmitigation radon concentrations, if available; and
G. MDH mitigation system tag identification number.
Subp. 3. Reporting deadlines.
The reports required by this part must be submitted quarterly by:
A. April 30 for the period of January 1 through March 31;
B. July 30 for the period of April 1 through June 30;
C. October 30 for the period of July 1 through September 30; and
D. January 30 for the period of October 1 through December 31 of the previous year.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.4961
- History: 43 SR 687
Minn. R. 4620.7900 Inspections and Enforcement
Subpart 1. Compliance inspections.
A. Upon request, a measurement professional, mitigation professional, mitigation company, or operator of a radon laboratory must make available to the commissioner:
B. After providing identification, an agent of the commissioner may:
Subp. 2. Enforcement.
Violations of the requirements of parts 4620.7050 to 4620.7900 constitute grounds for the commissioner to take one or more of the enforcement actions under Minnesota Statutes, sections 144.989 to 144.993, subject to the notice and appeal provisions in applicable law.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.4961
- History: 43 SR 687
Minn. R. 4620.7950 Variance to Radon Licensing Rules
The commissioner may grant a variance to parts 4620.7000 to 46200.7900 according to the procedures and criteria in parts 4717.7000 to 4717.7050.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.4961
- History: 43 SR 687
Chapter 4622 INFECTIOUS AND PATHOLOGICAL WASTE MANAGEMENT
Minn. R. 4622.0100 [Repealed, L 1993 1Sp1 art 9 s 75]
[Repealed, L 1993 1Sp1 art 9 s 75]
Minn. R. 4622.0300 [Repealed, L 1993 1Sp1 art 9 s 75]
[Repealed, L 1993 1Sp1 art 9 s 75]
Minn. R. 4622.0400 [Repealed, L 1993 1Sp1 art 9 s 75]
[Repealed, L 1993 1Sp1 art 9 s 75]
Minn. R. 4622.0600 [Repealed, L 1993 1Sp1 art 9 s 75]
[Repealed, L 1993 1Sp1 art 9 s 75]
Minn. R. 4622.0700 [Repealed, L 1993 1Sp1 art 9 s 75]
[Repealed, L 1993 1Sp1 art 9 s 75]
Minn. R. 4622.0900 [Repealed, L 1993 1Sp1 art 9 s 75]
[Repealed, L 1993 1Sp1 art 9 s 75]
Minn. R. 4622.1000 [Repealed, L 1993 1Sp1 art 9 s 75]
[Repealed, L 1993 1Sp1 art 9 s 75]
Minn. R. 4622.1050 [Repealed, L 1993 1Sp1 art 9 s 75]
[Repealed, L 1993 1Sp1 art 9 s 75]
Minn. R. 4622.1100 [Repealed, L 1993 1Sp1 art 9 s 75]
[Repealed, L 1993 1Sp1 art 9 s 75]
Minn. R. 4622.1150 [Repealed, L 1993 1Sp1 art 9 s 75]
[Repealed, L 1993 1Sp1 art 9 s 75]
Minn. R. 4622.1200 [Repealed, L 1993 1Sp1 art 9 s 75]
[Repealed, L 1993 1Sp1 art 9 s 75]
Chapter 4625 LODGING ESTABLISHMENTS
Minn. R. 4625.0100 Definitions
Subpart 1. Approved.
The term "approved" shall mean acceptable to the commissioner following the commissioner's determination as to conformity with established public health practices.
Subp. 2. Clean.
The term "clean" shall mean the absence of dirt, grease, rubbish, garbage, and other offensive, unsightly, or extraneous matter.
Subp. 3. Commissioner.
The term "commissioner" shall mean the commissioner of health and the Minnesota Department of Health, which terms shall be synonymous.
Subp. 4. Good repair.
The term "good repair" shall mean free of corrosion, breaks, cracks, chips, pitting, excessive wear and tear, leaks, obstructions, and similar defects so as to constitute a good and sound condition.
Subp. 5. Usable floor space.
The term "usable floor space" means all floor space in a sleeping room not occupied by closets, toilet rooms, shower, or bathrooms.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.08; 144.12; 157.01 to 157.14; 327.10 to 327.67
- History: 17 SR 1279
Minn. R. 4625.0200 Scope
Parts 4625.0100 to 4625.2300 shall be applicable to all lodging establishments, such as hotels, motels, lodging houses, and resorts as defined in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 157.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.08; 144.12; 157.01 to 157.14; 327.10 to 327.67
Minn. R. 4625.0300 Sanitation Requirements
The construction, operation, maintenance, and equipment of lodging establishments shall be regulated as follows in parts 4625.0400 to 4625.2200.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.08; 144.12; 157.01 to 157.14; 327.10 to 327.67
Minn. R. 4625.0400 Building Requirements
Every building, structure, or enclosure used to provide lodging accommodations for the public shall be kept in good repair, and so maintained as to promote the health, comfort, safety, and well-being of persons accommodated.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.08; 144.12; 157.01 to 157.14; 327.10 to 327.67
Minn. R. 4625.0500 Floor Requirements
The floors of all guest rooms, hallways, bathrooms, store rooms, and all other spaces used or traversed by guests shall be of such construction as to be easily cleaned, shall be smooth, and shall be kept clean and in good repair. Cleaning of floors shall be so done as to minimize the raising of dust and the exposure of guests thereto. The requirements of this part shall not prevent the use of rugs, carpets, or natural stone which can be kept clean. Abrasive strips for safety purposes may be used wherever deemed necessary to prevent accidents.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.08; 144.12; 157.01 to 157.14; 327.10 to 327.67
Minn. R. 4625.0600 Wall and Ceiling Requirements
The walls and ceilings of all rooms, halls, and stairways shall be kept clean and in good repair. Studs, joists, or rafters shall not be left exposed except when suitably finished and kept clean.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.08; 144.12; 157.01 to 157.14; 327.10 to 327.67
Minn. R. 4625.0700 Screening Requirements
When flies, mosquitoes, and other insects are prevalent, all outside doors, windows, and other outer openings shall be screened; provided that such screening shall not be required for rooms deemed by the commissioner to be located high enough in the upper stories of the building as to be free of such insects, or in such areas where other effective means are provided to prevent their entrance.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.08; 144.12; 157.01 to 157.14; 327.10 to 327.67
Minn. R. 4625.0800 Lighting and Ventilation Requirements
All rooms and areas used by patrons and guests and all other rooms or spaces in which lighting and ventilation, either natural or artificial, are essential to the efficiency of the business operation shall be well lighted and ventilated.
An area shall be considered well ventilated when excessive heat, odors, fumes, vapors, smoke, or condensation is reduced to a negligible level and barely perceptible to the normal senses. During seasons when weather conditions require tempering of makeup air, adequate equipment shall be provided to temper the makeup air. Every gas-fired or oil-fired room heater and water heater shall be vented to the outside air.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.08; 144.12; 157.01 to 157.14; 327.10 to 327.67
Minn. R. 4625.0900 Space Requirements
Every room occupied for sleeping purposes by one person shall contain at least 70 square feet of usable floor space, and every room occupied for sleeping purposes by more than one person shall contain not less than 60 square feet of usable floor space for each occupant thereof. Under no circumstances shall there be provided less than 400 cubic feet of air space per occupant. Beds shall be spaced at least three feet apart when placed side by side. No sleeping quarters shall be provided in any basement having more than half its clear floor to ceiling height below the average grade of the adjoining ground.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.05; 144.08; 144.12; 157.01 to 157.14; 327.10 to 327.67
- History: 15 SR 1597
Minn. R. 4625.1000 Bedding and Linen Requirements
All beds, bunks, cots, and other sleeping places provided for guests in hotels, motels, resorts, and lodging houses shall be supplied with suitable pillow slips and under and top sheets. All bedding including mattresses, quilts, blankets, pillows, sheets, spreads, and all bath linen shall be kept clean. No bedding including mattresses, quilts, blankets, pillows, bed and bath linen shall be used which are worn out or unfit for further use. Pillow slips, sheets, and bath linen after being used by one guest shall be washed before they are used by another guest, a clean set being furnished each succeeding guest. For any guest occupying a guest room for an extended period of time, a fresh set of sheets and pillow slips shall furnished at least once each week, and at least two clean towels shall be furnished each day, except that the proprietor will not be responsible for the sheets, towels, pillow slips, and bath linen furnished by a guest.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.08; 144.12; 157.01 to 157.14; 327.10 to 327.67
Minn. R. 4625.1100 Room Furnishing Requirements
All equipment, fixtures, furniture, and furnishings, including windows, draperies, curtains, and carpets, shall be kept clean and free of dust, dirt, vermin, and other contaminants, and shall be maintained in good order and repair.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.08; 144.12; 157.01 to 157.14; 327.10 to 327.67
Minn. R. 4625.1200 Toilet Requirements
Every hotel, motel, and lodging house shall be equipped with adequate and conveniently located water closets for the accommodation of its employees and guests. Water closets, lavatories, and bathtubs or showers shall be available on each floor when not provided in each individual room. Toilet, lavatory, and bath facilities shall be provided in the ratio of one toilet and one lavatory for every ten occupants, or fraction thereof, and one bathtub or shower for every 20 occupants, or fraction thereof. Toilet rooms shall be well ventilated by natural or mechanical methods. The doors of all toilet rooms serving the public and employees shall be self-closing. Toilets and bathrooms shall be kept clean and in good repair and shall be well lighted and ventilated. Hand-washing signs shall be posted in each toilet room used by employees. Every resort shall be equipped with adequate and convenient toilet facilities for its employees and guests. If privies are provided they shall be separate buildings and shall be constructed, equipped, and maintained in conformity with the standards of the commissioner and shall be kept clean.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.08; 144.12; 157.01 to 157.14; 327.10 to 327.67
Minn. R. 4625.1300 Water Supply
A safe adequate supply of water shall be provided. The water supply system shall be located, constructed, and operated in accordance with the rules of the commissioner. After September 30, 1980, the temperature of hot water which is provided in any public area or guest room, including but not limited to lavatories, bathtubs, or showers, shall not exceed 130 degrees Fahrenheit (approximately 55 degrees Celsius).
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.08; 144.12; 157.01 to 157.14; 327.10 to 327.67
Minn. R. 4625.1400 Hand-Washing Requirements
All lavatories for public use or furnished in guest rooms at hotels, motels, lodging houses, and resorts shall be supplied with hot and cold running water and with soap. Scullery sinks should not be used as hand-washing sinks.
In the case of separate housekeeping cabins at resorts not supplied with running hot water, equipment shall be provided for heating water in the cabin.
Individual or other approved sanitary towels or warm-air dryers shall be provided at all lavatories for use by employees or the public.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.08; 144.12; 157.01 to 157.14; 327.10 to 327.67
Minn. R. 4625.1500 Eating Utensils and Drinking Vessels Provided in Guest Rooms
After each usage, all multiuse eating utensils and drinking vessels shall be thoroughly washed in hot water containing a suitable soap or synthetic detergent, rinsed in clean water, and effectively subjected to a bactericidal process approved by the commissioner. Approved facilities for manual dishwashing shall consist of a three-compartment sink with stacking and drainboards at each end. All mechanical dishwashing machines shall conform to Standard Number 3 of the National Sanitation Foundation, dated April 1965.
All dishes, glasses, utensils, and equipment after washing and bactericidal treatment shall be permitted to drain and air dry.
Single-service utensils or vessels as defined in part 4625.2400, subpart 20 must be handled in a sanitary manner. Such utensils may not be reused.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.08; 144.12; 157.01 to 157.14; 327.10 to 327.67
Minn. R. 4625.1600 Waste Disposal
All liquid wastes shall be disposed of in an approved public sewerage system or in a sewerage system which is designed, constructed, and operated in accordance with the rules of the Minnesota Pollution Control Agency, chapter 7080.
Prior to removal, all garbage and refuse in storage shall be kept in watertight, nonabsorbent receptacles which are covered with close-fitting, fly-tight lids. All garbage, trash, and refuse shall be removed from the premises frequently to prevent nuisance and unsightly conditions, and shall be disposed of in a sanitary manner. All garbage receptacles shall be kept clean and in good repair.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 115.03; 115.55; 115.56; 144.08; 144.12; 157.01 to 157.14; 327.10 to 327.67
- History: 24 SR 426
Minn. R. 4625.1700 Insect and Rodent Control
Every hotel, motel, lodging house, and resort shall be so constructed and equipped as to prevent the entrance, harborage, or breeding of flies, roaches, bedbugs, rats, mice, and all other insects and vermin, and specific means necessary, for the elimination of such pests such as cleaning, renovation, or fumigation shall be used. The commissioner may order the facility to hire an exterminator licensed by the state to exterminate pests when:
A. the infestation is so extensive that it is unlikely that a nonprofessional can eradicate the pests effectively; or
B. the extermination method of choice can only be carried out by a licensed exterminator; or
C. upon reinspection, it is found that an establishment has not been brought into compliance with a prior order to rid the establishment of pests.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.08; 144.12; 157.01 to 157.14; 327.10 to 327.67
Minn. R. 4625.1800 Personnel Health and Cleanliness
No person shall resume work after visiting the toilet without first thoroughly washing his or her hands.
Personnel of hotels, motels, lodging houses, and resorts may be required to undergo medical examination to determine whether or not they are cases or carriers of a communicable disease.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.08; 144.12; 157.01 to 157.14; 327.10 to 327.67
- History: 17 SR 1279
Minn. R. 4625.1900 Cleanliness of Premises
The premises of all hotels, motels, lodging houses, and resorts shall be kept clean and free of litter or rubbish.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.08; 144.12; 157.01 to 157.14; 327.10 to 327.67
Minn. R. 4625.2000 Fire Protection
All lodging establishments shall provide suitable fire escapes which shall be kept in good repair and accessible at all times. Hallways shall be marked and exit lights provided; fire extinguishers shall be provided and shall be recharged annually and kept accessible for use. No sleeping quarters shall be maintained in rooms which do not have unobstructed egress to the outside or to a central hall leading to a fire escape. All fire protection measures shall be in accordance with requirements of the state fire marshal.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.08; 144.12; 157.01 to 157.14; 327.10 to 327.67
Minn. R. 4625.2100 Plumbing and Swimming Pools
All new plumbing in hotels, motels, lodging houses, and resorts, and all plumbing reconstructed or replaced after January 1, 1968, must be designed, constructed, and installed in conformity with chapter 4714 of the Minnesota Plumbing Code.
All public pools and facilities must be located, constructed, and operated in conformity with parts 4717.0150 to 4717.3975.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.08; 144.12; 144.123; 145A.02; 157.01 to 157.14; 327.10 to 327.67
- History: 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637; 40 SR 71
Minn. R. 4625.2200 Sanitary Dispensing of Ice
Subpart 1. Scope of rule.
Any lodging establishment which makes ice available in public areas, including but not limited to lobbies, hallways, and outdoor areas shall restrict access to such ice in accordance with the following provisions.
Subp. 2. Newly constructed structures.
After September 1, 1979, any newly constructed lodging establishment which installs ice-making equipment, and any existing lodging establishment which installs or replaces ice-making equipment, shall install only automatic dispensing, sanitary ice-making, and storage equipment in areas to which the public has access. Any such establishment may install open-type ice bins only if the ice therefrom is dispensed in the manner provided in subpart 3.
Subp. 3. Existing structures.
After December 31, 1984, any existing lodging establishment which has not converted to automatic dispensing ice-making and storage equipment shall no longer permit unrestricted public access to open-type ice bins, and shall dispense ice to guests only by having employees give out prefilled, individual sanitary containers of ice, or by making available prefilled, disposable, closed bags of ice.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.08; 144.12; 157.01 to 157.14; 327.10 to 327.67
Minn. R. 4625.2300 Initial and Renewal License Fees, License Expiration Dates
Subpart 1. Fee schedule.
License applications for lodging establishments as defined in part 4625.0100 must be accompanied by a fee of $75 plus $4 per room, up to a maximum total fee of $475.
Subp. 2. Expiration date.
Initial and renewal lodging establishment licenses shall be issued for the calendar year for which application is made and shall expire on December 31 of such year.
Subp. 3. License renewals.
License renewals shall be obtained on an annual basis. License renewal applications shall be submitted to the commissioner of health on forms provided no later than December 31 of the year preceding the year for which application is made.
Subp. 4. Penalty fee.
A penalty fee of $20 shall be added to the amount of the license fee if the application has not reached the office of the commissioner of health before January 31, or in the case of a new business, 30 days after opening the business.
Subp. 5. Reduced license fee.
From and after October 1 of each year, the license fee for new establishments or new operators shall be one-half of the appropriate annual license fee plus any penalty which may be required.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.122; 157.03; 327.16
- History: 10 SR 1687; 13 SR 1652; 18 SR 827
Minn. R. 4625.2355 Variance to Rules Relating to Lodging Establishments
The commissioner shall grant a variance to parts 4625.0400 to 4625.0600; 4625.0900; 4625.1200 to 4625.1600; 4625.2000, except the last sentence; and 4625.2200 only according to the procedures and criteria specified in parts 4717.7000 to 4717.7050.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.05
- History: 15 SR 1597
Minn. R. 4625.2400 [Repealed, 13 SR 2862]
[Repealed, 13 SR 2862]
Minn. R. 4625.2401 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.2500 [Repealed, 13 SR 2862]
[Repealed, 13 SR 2862]
Minn. R. 4625.2501 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.2600 [Repealed, 13 SR 2862]
[Repealed, 13 SR 2862]
Minn. R. 4625.2601 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.2650 [Repealed, 15 SR 1597]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1597]
Minn. R. 4625.2655 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.2660 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.2700 [Repealed, 13 SR 2862]
[Repealed, 13 SR 2862]
Minn. R. 4625.2701 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.2800 [Repealed, 13 SR 2862]
[Repealed, 13 SR 2862]
Minn. R. 4625.2801 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.2900 [Repealed, 13 SR 2862]
[Repealed, 13 SR 2862]
Minn. R. 4625.2901 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.3000 [Repealed, 13 SR 2862]
[Repealed, 13 SR 2862]
Minn. R. 4625.3001 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.3100 [Repealed, 13 SR 2862]
[Repealed, 13 SR 2862]
Minn. R. 4625.3101 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.3200 [Repealed, 13 SR 2862]
[Repealed, 13 SR 2862]
Minn. R. 4625.3201 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.3300 [Repealed, 13 SR 2862]
[Repealed, 13 SR 2862]
Minn. R. 4625.3301 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.3400 [Repealed, 13 SR 2862]
[Repealed, 13 SR 2862]
Minn. R. 4625.3401 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.3500 [Repealed, 13 SR 2862]
[Repealed, 13 SR 2862]
Minn. R. 4625.3501 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.3600 [Repealed, 13 SR 2862]
[Repealed, 13 SR 2862]
Minn. R. 4625.3601 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.3700 [Repealed, 13 SR 2862]
[Repealed, 13 SR 2862]
Minn. R. 4625.3701 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.3800 [Repealed, 13 SR 2862]
[Repealed, 13 SR 2862]
Minn. R. 4625.3801 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.3900 [Repealed, 13 SR 2862]
[Repealed, 13 SR 2862]
Minn. R. 4625.3901 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.4000 [Repealed, 13 SR 2862]
[Repealed, 13 SR 2862]
Minn. R. 4625.4001 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.4100 [Repealed, 13 SR 2862]
[Repealed, 13 SR 2862]
Minn. R. 4625.4101 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.4200 [Repealed, 13 SR 2862]
[Repealed, 13 SR 2862]
Minn. R. 4625.4201 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.4300 [Repealed, 13 SR 2862]
[Repealed, 13 SR 2862]
Minn. R. 4625.4301 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.4400 [Repealed, 13 SR 2862]
[Repealed, 13 SR 2862]
Minn. R. 4625.4401 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.4500 [Repealed, 13 SR 2862]
[Repealed, 13 SR 2862]
Minn. R. 4625.4501 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.4600 [Repealed, 13 SR 2862]
[Repealed, 13 SR 2862]
Minn. R. 4625.4601 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.4700 [Repealed, 13 SR 2862]
[Repealed, 13 SR 2862]
Minn. R. 4625.4701 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.4800 [Repealed, 13 SR 2862]
[Repealed, 13 SR 2862]
Minn. R. 4625.4900 [Repealed, 13 SR 2862]
[Repealed, 13 SR 2862]
Minn. R. 4625.4901 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.5000 [Renumbered 4625.2660]
[Renumbered 4625.2660]
Minn. R. 4625.5001 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.5101 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.5201 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.5301 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.5401 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.5501 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.5601 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.5701 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.5801 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.5901 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.6001 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.6101 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.6201 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.6301 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.6401 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.6501 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.6601 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.6701 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.6801 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.6901 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.7001 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.7101 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.7201 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.7301 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.7401 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.7501 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.7601 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.7701 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Minn. R. 4625.7801 [Repealed, 23 SR 519]
[Repealed, 23 SR 519]
Chapter 4626 FOOD CODE; FOOD MANAGERS
Minn. R. 4626.0010 Food Code. 1-101.10
This chapter shall be known as the Food Code, hereinafter referred to as "this Code."
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 144.122; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 24 SR 605; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0015 Food Safety, Illness Prevention, and Honest Presentation. 1-102.10
The purpose of this Code is to safeguard public health and ensure that food is safe, unadulterated, and honestly presented.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0017 Scope. 1-103.10
A. This Code establishes definitions; sets standards for management and personnel, food operations, and equipment and facilities; and provides for food establishment plan review, license issuance, inspection, employee restriction, and license suspension.
B. References to federal law used in this Code shall incorporate future amendments to the law.
C. This Code applies to food establishments licensed and inspected by the Department of Agriculture, Department of Health, or delegated regulatory authorities that conduct licensing and inspections of food establishments.
D. This Code also applies to individuals applying for certification and certification renewal as a food protection manager, persons providing training for applicants for food protection manager certification, and for certified food protection managers, persons developing and publishing food protection manager certification examinations, and persons proctoring food protection manager certification examinations.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0020 Statement of Application and Definitions. 1-201.10
Subpart 1. Applicability.
The terms used in this chapter have the meanings given them in this part.
Subp. 2. Additive.
A. "Food additive" has the meaning given in the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, United States Code, title 21, section 321(s), and Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, section 170.3(e)(1).
B. "Color additive" has the meaning given in the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, United States Code, title 21, section 321(t), and Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, section 70.3(f).
Subp. 3. Adulterated.
"Adulterated" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 34A.02, and the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, United States Code, title 21, section 342.
Subp. 4. Approved.
"Approved" means acceptable to the regulatory authority based on a determination of conformity with principles, practices, and generally recognized standards that protect public health.
Subp. 4a. Asymptomatic.
A. "Asymptomatic" means without obvious symptoms or not showing or producing indications of a disease or other medical condition, such as an individual infected with a pathogen, but not exhibiting or producing any signs or symptoms of vomiting, diarrhea, or jaundice.
B. Asymptomatic includes not showing symptoms because symptoms have resolved or subsided, or because symptoms were never manifested.
Subp. 5. aw.
"aw" means water activity that is a measure of the free moisture in a food, is the quotient of the water vapor pressure of the substance divided by the vapor pressure of the pure water at the same temperature, and is indicated by the symbol a w.
Subp. 5a. Balut.
"Balut" means an embryo inside a fertile egg that has been incubated until the embryo reaches a specific stage of development and is then removed from incubation before hatching.
Subp. 6. Beverage.
"Beverage" means a liquid for drinking, including water.
Subp. 7. Bottled drinking water.
"Bottled drinking water" means water that is sealed in bottles, packages, or other containers and offered for sale for human consumption, including bottled mineral water.
Subp. 8. Bulk food.
"Bulk food" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 31.80, subdivision 2.
Subp. 9.
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Subp. 10. Certification number.
"Certification number" means a unique combination of letters and numbers assigned by a shellfish control authority to a molluscan shellfish dealer according to the National Shellfish Sanitation Program.
Subp. 10a. Certified food protection manager or CFPM.
"Certified food protection manager" or "CFPM" means an individual who has a valid Minnesota food protection manager's certification under part 4626.0033 or an individual who is certified under Minnesota Rules 2015, parts 4626.2005 to 4626.2020.
Subp. 11. CIP.
A. "CIP" means cleaned in place.
B. A CIP system circulates cleaning, rinsing, and sanitizing solutions through a fixed system.
C. CIP does not include in-place, manual cleaning without the use of a CIP system for equipment such as band saws, slicers, or mixers.
Subp. 11a.
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Subp. 12.
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Subp. 12a. Commingle.
"Commingle" means:
A. to combine shellstock harvested on different days or from different growing areas as identified on the tag or label; or
B. to combine shucked shellfish from containers with different container codes or different shucking dates.
Subp. 13. Comminuted.
A. "Comminuted" means reduced in size by methods including chopping, flaking, grinding, or mincing.
B. Comminuted products include fish or meat products that are reduced in size and restructured or reformulated such as gefilte fish, gyros, ground beef, or sausage; and a mixture of two or more types of meat that have been reduced in size and combined, such as sausages made from two or more meats.
Subp. 13a. Commissioner.
"Commissioner" means the commissioner of health.
Subp. 14.
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Subp. 14a. Conditional employee.
"Conditional employee" means a potential food employee to whom a job offer is made, conditional on responses to subsequent medical questions or examinations designed to identify potential food employees who may be suffering from a disease that can be transmitted through food and done in compliance with the Americans with Disabilities Act, United States Code, title 42, chapter 126.
Subp. 15. Confirmed disease outbreak.
"Confirmed disease outbreak" means a foodborne disease outbreak when laboratory analysis of appropriate specimens identifies a causative organism and epidemiological analysis implicates the food as the source of the illness.
Subp. 16. Consumer.
"Consumer" means a person who is a member of the public, takes possession of food, is not functioning in the capacity of an operator of a food establishment or food processing plant, and does not offer the food for resale.
Subp. 17.
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Subp. 18. Corrosion-resistant material.
"Corrosion-resistant material" means a material that maintains acceptable surface cleanability characteristics under prolonged influence of food contact, the normal use of cleaning compounds and sanitizing solutions, and other conditions of the use environment.
Subp. 18a. Counter-mounted equipment.
"Counter-mounted equipment" means equipment that is not portable and is designed to be mounted off the floor on a table, counter, or shelf.
Subp. 19. Critical control point.
"Critical control point" means a point or procedure in a specific food system where loss of control may result in an unacceptable health risk.
Subp. 19a. Critical limit.
"Critical limit" means the maximum or minimum value to which a physical, biological, or chemical parameter must be controlled at a critical control point to minimize the risk that the identified food safety hazard may occur.
Subp. 19b. Cross-contamination.
"Cross-contamination" is the movement or transfer of bacteria, microorganisms, or other harmful substances from one person, object, place, or food item to another.
Subp. 20.
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Subp. 20a. Cut leafy greens or leafy greens.
"Cut leafy greens" means fresh leafy greens whose leaves have been cut, shredded, sliced, chopped, or torn. "Leafy greens" includes iceberg lettuce; romaine lettuce; leaf lettuce; butter lettuce; baby leaf lettuce such as immature lettuce or leafy greens; escarole; endive; spring mix; spinach; cabbage; kale; arugula; and chard. Leafy greens does not include herbs such as cilantro or parsley.
Subp. 20b. Dealer.
"Dealer" means a person who is authorized by a shellfish control authority for the activities of shellstock shipper, shucker-packer, repacker, reshipper, or depuration processor of molluscan shellfish according to the provisions of the National Shellfish Sanitation Program.
Subp. 20c. Disclosure.
"Disclosure" means a written statement that clearly identifies the animal-derived foods or items containing ingredients that contain animal-derived foods that are, or can be ordered, raw, undercooked, or without otherwise being processed to eliminate pathogens.
Subp. 21. Drinking water.
"Drinking water" means water from a source that meets chapters 4720 and 4725 and Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, part 141.
Drinking water includes the term water except the terms boiler water, mop water, rainwater, wastewater, nondrinking water, and other terms that connote that the water is not potable.
Subp. 22. Dry storage area.
"Dry storage area" means a room or area designated for the storage of packaged or containerized food that is not time/temperature control for safety food, and dry goods such as single-service items.
Subp. 23. Easily cleanable.
"Easily cleanable" means a characteristic of a surface that:
A. allows effective removal of soil by normal cleaning methods; and
B. is dependent on the material, design, construction, and installation of the surface.
Subp. 24. Easily movable.
"Easily movable" means:
A. portable; mounted on casters, gliders, or rollers; or provided with a mechanical means to safely tilt a unit of equipment for cleaning; and
B. having no utility connection, a utility connection that disconnects quickly, or a flexible utility connection line of sufficient length to allow the equipment to be moved for cleaning of the equipment and adjacent area.
Subp. 24a. Egg.
A. "Egg" means the shell egg of avian species such as chicken, duck, goose, guinea, quail, ratite, or turkey.
B. Egg does not include:
Subp. 24b. Egg product.
A. "Egg product" means all, or a portion of, the contents found inside eggs separated from the shell in a food processing plant, and processed to be free of viable Salmonella microorganisms.
B. Egg product does not include food that contains eggs only in a relatively small proportion such as cake mixes.
Subp. 25. Employee.
"Employee" means a licensee, person in charge, food employee, person having supervisory or management duties, person on the payroll, family member, volunteer, person performing work under contractual agreement, or other person working in a food establishment.
Subp. 26. Equipment.
A. "Equipment" means an article that is used in the operation of a food establishment such as a freezer, grinder, hood, ice maker, mixer, oven, reach-in refrigerator, sink, slicer, stove, table, vending machine, warewashing machine, grill, and fryer.
B. Equipment does not include apparatuses used for handling or storing large quantities of packaged foods that are received from a supplier in a cased or overwrapped lot, such as hand trucks, forklifts, dollies, pallets, racks, and skids.
Subp. 26a. Exclude.
"Exclude" means to prevent a person from working as an employee in a food establishment or entering a food establishment as an employee.
Subp. 27.
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Subp. 28.
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Subp. 28a. FDA.
"FDA" means the U.S. Food and Drug Administration.
Subp. 29. Fish.
A. "Fish" means fresh or saltwater finfish, crustaceans, and other forms of aquatic animal life other than birds or mammals, including alligator, frog, aquatic turtle, jellyfish, sea cucumber, and sea urchin, and the roe of such animals, if the animal life is intended for human consumption.
B. Fish includes an edible human food product derived in whole or in part from fish, including fish that have been processed in any manner.
Subp. 30. Food.
"Food" means a raw, cooked, or processed edible substance, ice, beverage, or ingredient used or intended for use or for sale in whole or in part for human consumption, or chewing gum.
Subp. 31. Foodborne disease outbreak.
A. "Foodborne disease outbreak" means an incident, except as specified in item B, when:
B. Foodborne disease outbreak includes a single case of illness from botulism or chemical poisoning.
Subp. 32. Food cart.
"Food cart" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 157.15, subdivision 6. A food cart must be a single self-contained unit.
Subp. 32a. Food catering.
"Food catering" means food that is prepared for service in support of an event with a predetermined guest list such as a reception, party, luncheon, conference, ceremony, or trade show. A food establishment doing catering is responsible for maintaining control of and ensuring the safety of the food from preparation to service to the consumer.
Subp. 33. Food-contact surface.
"Food-contact surface" means:
A. a surface of equipment or a utensil with which food normally comes into contact; or
B. a surface of equipment or a utensil from which food may drain, drip, or splash:
Subp. 34. Food employee.
"Food employee" means an individual working with unpackaged food, food equipment or utensils, or food-contact surfaces.
Subp. 35. Food establishment.
A. "Food establishment" means an operation that stores, prepares, packages, serves, vends, caters, delivers, or otherwise provides food for human consumption, where consumption is on or off the premises and regardless of whether there is a charge for the food, and relinquishes possession either directly or indirectly to a consumer. Food establishment includes:
B. Food establishment does not include:
Subp. 36. Food processing plant.
"Food processing plant" means a commercial operation that manufactures, packages, labels, or stores food for human consumption and provides food for sale or distribution only to other business entities such as food processing plants or food establishments.
Subp. 37. Game animal.
A. "Game animal" means an animal, the products of which are food.
B. Game animals include (1) big and small game as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 97A.015, subdivisions 3 and 45; and (2) game birds as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 97A.015, subdivision 24.
C. Game animal does not include animals classified as livestock in Code of Federal Regulations, title 9, section 301.2, or as animals as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 31A.02, subdivision 4, or poultry or fish; or animals raised as livestock, Cervidae, Ratitae, or llama as defined in Minnesota Statutes, sections 17.452, 17.453, and 17.455.
Subp. 38. General use pesticide.
"General use pesticide" means a pesticide that is not classified by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency for restricted use as specified in Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, section 152.175.
Subp. 38a. Grade A standards.
"Grade A standards" means the requirements found in "Grade A Pasteurized Milk Ordinance" produced with guidance from the U.S. Public Health Service and the FDA, and with which certain fluid and dry milk and milk products must comply. This publication is incorporated by reference, is subject to frequent change, and is available through the FDA website at www.fda.gov/downloads/Food/GuidanceRegulation/GuidanceDocumentsRegulatoryInformation /Milk/UCM513508.pdf.
Subp. 39.
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Subp. 40. HACCP plan.
"HACCP plan" means a written document that delineates the formal procedures for following the hazard analysis and critical control point principles developed by the National Advisory Committee on Microbiological Criteria for Foods. This publication is incorporated by reference, is subject to infrequent change, and is available at www.fsis.usda.gov.
Subp. 40a. Handwashing sink.
A. "Handwashing sink" means a lavatory, a basin, or a vessel for washing; a wash basin; or a plumbing fixture dedicated to handwashing.
B. Handwashing sink includes an automatic handwashing facility.
Subp. 41. Hazard.
"Hazard" means a biological, chemical, or physical property that may cause an unacceptable consumer health risk.
Subp. 42. Hermetically sealed container.
"Hermetically sealed container" means a container that is designed and intended to be secure against the entry of microorganisms and, in the case of low acid canned foods, to maintain the commercial sterility of its contents after processing.
Subp. 42a. Highly susceptible population.
"Highly susceptible population" means persons who are more likely than others in the general population to experience foodborne disease because they are immunocompromised, preschool-age children, or older adults and they are obtaining food at a facility that provides services such as custodial care, health care, or nutritional or socialization services.
Subp. 43. Imminent health hazard.
"Imminent health hazard" means a significant threat or danger to health that exists when there is evidence sufficient to show that a product, practice, circumstance, or event creates a situation that requires immediate correction or cessation of operation to prevent injury based on:
A. the number of potential injuries; and
B. the nature, severity, and duration of the anticipated injury.
Subp. 44. Injected.
"Injected" means manipulating meat by introducing a solution into its interior by processes referred to as "injecting," "pump marinating," or "stitch pumping."
Subp. 44a. Juice.
A. "Juice" means the aqueous liquid expressed or extracted from one or more fruits or vegetables, purees of the edible portions of one or more fruits or vegetables, or any concentrates of the liquid or puree.
B. For purposes of HACCP, juice does not include liquids, purees, or concentrates that are not used as beverages or ingredients of beverages.
Subp. 45. Kitchenware.
"Kitchenware" means food preparation and storage utensils.
Subp. 46. License.
"License" means the authorization issued by the regulatory authority to a person to operate a food establishment.
Subp. 47. Licensee.
"Licensee" means the person licensed by the regulatory authority who:
A. is the owner, the owner's agent, or other person legally responsible for the operation of the food establishment; and
B. possesses a valid license to operate a food establishment according to Minnesota Statutes, chapter 28A or 157.
Subp. 48. Linens.
"Linens" means fabric items such as cloth hampers, cloth napkins, tablecloths, wiping cloths, cloth gloves, and other work garments.
Subp. 48a. Major food allergen.
A. "Major food allergen" means:
B. Major food allergen does not include:
Subp. 49.
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Subp. 50. Meat.
A. "Meat" means the flesh of animals used as food including the dressed flesh of cattle, swine, sheep, or goats and other edible animals.
B. Meat does not include fish, poultry, and wild animals as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 97A.015, subdivision 55, and as specified in part 4626.0160, item C.
Subp. 50a. Mechanically tenderized.
A. "Mechanically tenderized" means manipulating meat with deep penetration by processes such as blade tenderizing, jaccarding, pinning, needling, or using blades, pins, needles, or any mechanical device.
B. Mechanically tenderized does not include processes by which solutions are injected into meat.
Subp. 51. mg/L.
"mg/L" means milligrams per liter, which is the metric equivalent of parts per million (ppm).
Subp. 52. Molluscan shellfish.
"Molluscan shellfish" means an edible species of fresh or frozen oysters, clams, mussels, and scallops or edible portions thereof, except when the scallop product consists only of the shucked adductor muscle.
Subp. 52a.
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Subp. 52b. Mushrooms.
A. "Mushrooms, wild" means edible species of mushrooms that have been harvested from their naturally occurring environment where no human intervention occurred to support their growth.
B. "Mushrooms, cultivated" means edible species of mushrooms that have been grown by a person or persons under controlled conditions, outdoors or indoors, on natural or artificial substrate.
Subp. 52c. Neighborhood kitchen.
"Neighborhood kitchen" means a satellite or auxiliary kitchen in residential buildings for adults age 55 or older that is secondary to the primary approved commercial kitchen where most of the food is received, stored, and prepared.
Subp. 52d. Noncontinuous cooking.
A. "Noncontinuous cooking" means the cooking of food in a food establishment using a process in which the initial heating of the food is intentionally halted so that it may be cooled and held for complete cooking at a later time prior to sale or service.
B. Noncontinuous cooking does not include cooking procedures that only involve temporarily interrupting or slowing an otherwise continuous cooking process.
Subp. 52e. Nonpublic water system.
"Nonpublic water system" means any water system that does not meet the definition of a public water system as defined in subpart 66.
Subp. 53. Packaged.
A. "Packaged" means bottled, canned, cartoned, bagged, or wrapped, whether packaged in a food establishment or a food processing plant.
B. Packaged does not include food delivered to a consumer by a food employee, upon consumer request, that is wrapped or placed in a carry-out container to protect the food during delivery to the consumer.
Subp. 54. Person.
"Person" means an association, corporation, individual, partnership, government, or governmental subdivision or agency.
Subp. 55. Person in charge.
"Person in charge" means the individual present at a food establishment who is responsible for the operation at the time of inspection.
Subp. 56. Personal care item.
"Personal care item" means an item or substance that may be poisonous, toxic, or a source of contamination and is used to maintain or enhance a person's health, hygiene, or appearance.
Subp. 57. pH.
"pH" is the symbol for the negative logarithm of the hydrogen ion concentration, which is a measure of the degree of acidity or alkalinity of a solution.
Subp. 58. Physical facility.
"Physical facility" means the structure and interior surfaces of a food establishment including accessories such as soap and towel dispensers, and attachments such as light fixtures and heating or air conditioning system vents.
Subp. 59. Plumbing fixture.
"Plumbing fixture" means a receptacle or device that:
A. is permanently or temporarily connected to the water distribution system of the premises and demands a supply of water from the system; or
B. discharges used water, waste materials, or sewage directly or indirectly to the drainage system of the premises.
Subp. 60. Plumbing system.
"Plumbing system" means the water supply and distribution pipes; plumbing fixtures and traps; soil, waste, and vent pipes; sanitary and storm sewers and building drains, including their respective connections, devices, and appurtenances within the premises; and water-treating equipment.
Subp. 61. Poisonous or toxic material.
"Poisonous or toxic material" means a substance that is not intended for ingestion and is included in one of the following 4 categories:
A. cleaners and sanitizers, such as cleaning and sanitizing agents and other chemicals such as caustics, acids, drying agents, and polishes;
B. pesticides, except sanitizers, including substances such as insecticides and rodenticides;
C. substances necessary for the operation and maintenance of the establishment, such as non-food-grade lubricants and personal care items that may be deleterious to health; or
D. substances that are not necessary for the operation and maintenance of the establishment and are on the premises for retail sale, such as petroleum products and paints.
Subp. 62. Potentially hazardous food.
A. "Potentially hazardous food" means a food that is natural or synthetic and is in a form capable of supporting:
B. Potentially hazardous food includes a food of animal origin that is raw or heat-treated, a food of plant origin that is heat-treated or consists of raw seed sprouts, cut melons, and garlic and oil mixtures that are not acidified or otherwise modified at a food processing plant in a way that results in mixtures that do not support growth as specified in item A.
C. Potentially hazardous food does not include:
Subp. 63. Poultry.
"Poultry" means:
A. any domesticated bird, such as chickens, turkeys, ducks, geese, guineas, ratites, or squabs, whether live or dead, as defined in Code of Federal Regulations, title 9, part 381.1; and
B. any migratory waterfowl or game bird, whether live or dead, as defined in Code of Federal Regulations, title 9, part 362.1, including pheasant, partridge, quail, grouse, or pigeon.
Subp. 64. Premises.
"Premises" means:
A. the physical facility, its contents, and the contiguous land or property under the control of the licensee; or
B. the physical facility, its contents, and the land or property not described in item A, if its facilities and contents that are under the control of the licensee and may impact food establishment personnel, facilities, or operations, and a food establishment is only 1 component of a larger operation such as a health care facility, hotel, motel, school, recreational camp, or prison.
Subp. 64a. Prepare.
"Prepare" means to process food by means such as heating, cooking, canning, extracting, fermenting, distilling, pickling, freezing, baking, drying, smoking, grinding, cutting, mixing, coating, stuffing, packing, bottling, packaging, or any other treatment or preservation process.
Subp. 65. Primal cut.
"Primal cut" means a basic major cut into which carcasses and sides of meat are separated, such as a beef round, pork loin, lamb flank, or veal breast.
Subp. 65a. Priority 1 item or P1.
A. "Priority 1 item" or "P1" means a provision in this Code whose application contributes directly to the elimination, prevention, or reduction to an acceptable level of hazards associated with foodborne illness or injury, and there is no other provision that more directly controls the hazard. This is the same as the FDA's "priority designation."
B. A priority 1 item includes an item with a quantifiable measure to show control of hazards such as cooking, reheating, cooling, and handwashing.
Subp. 65b. Priority 2 item or P2.
A. "Priority 2 item" or "P2" means a provision in this Code whose application supports, facilitates, or enables one or more priority 1 items. This is the same as the FDA's "priority foundation designation."
B. A priority 2 item includes an item that requires the purposeful incorporation of specific actions, equipment, or procedures by industry management to attain control of risk factors that contribute to foodborne illness or injury such as personnel training, infrastructure or necessary equipment, HACCP plans, documentation or record keeping, and labeling.
Subp. 65c. Priority 3 item.
A. "Priority 3 item" means a provision in this Code that is not designated as a priority 1 item or a priority 2 item. This is the same as the FDA's "core designation."
B. A priority 3 item includes an item that usually relates to general sanitation, operational controls, sanitation standard operating procedures (SSOPs), facilities or structures, equipment design, or general maintenance.
C. Items not designated with a P1 or P2 are priority 3 items.
Subp. 66. Public water system.
"Public water system" has the meaning given in Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, part 141.2.
Subp. 66a. Ratite.
"Ratite" or "Ratitae" means a flightless bird such as an emu, ostrich, or rhea.
Subp. 67. Ready-to-eat food.
A. "Ready-to-eat food" means food that:
B. Ready-to-eat food includes:
Subp. 68. Reduced oxygen packaging.
A. "Reduced oxygen packaging" means:
B. Reduced oxygen packaging includes:
Subp. 69. Refuse.
"Refuse" means solid waste not carried by water through the sewage system.
Subp. 70. Regulatory authority.
"Regulatory authority" means the local, state, or federal enforcement body or authorized representative having jurisdiction over the food establishment.
Subp. 70a. Reminder.
"Reminder" means a written statement concerning the health risk of consuming animal foods raw, undercooked, or without otherwise being processed to eliminate pathogens.
Subp. 70b. Re-service.
"Re-service" means food that is served or sold to a consumer who then returns the unused food, which is then transferred by means of serving or selling to another person.
Subp. 70c. Restrict.
"Restrict" means to limit the activities of a food employee so that there is no risk of transmitting a disease that is transmissible through food and the food employee does not work with exposed food or handle clean equipment, utensils, linens, or unwrapped single-service or single-use articles.
Subp. 70d. Restricted egg.
"Restricted egg" means any egg as defined in Code of Federal Regulations, title 9, section 590.5, that is a check, incubator reject, inedible, leaker, loss, or dirty egg.
Subp. 71. Restricted use pesticide.
"Restricted use pesticide" means a pesticide product that contains the active ingredients specified in Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, section 152.175, and that is limited to use by a licensed applicator.
Subp. 72.
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Subp. 73. Retail food vehicle, portable structure, or cart.
"Retail food vehicle, portable structure, or cart" means a food establishment licensed under Minnesota Statutes, sections 28A.06 and 28A.07, that is a motor vehicle, portable structure, or nonmotorized cart where food and food products are:
A. offered to the consumer;
B. intended for off-premises consumption; and
C. not subject to on-site preparation.
Subp. 73a. Risk.
"Risk" means the likelihood that an adverse health effect will occur within a population as a result of a hazard in a food.
Subp. 74. Safe material.
"Safe material" means:
A. an article manufactured from or composed of materials that may not reasonably be expected to result directly or indirectly in their becoming a component or otherwise affecting the characteristics of any food;
B. an additive that is used as specified in the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, United States Code, title 21, section 348 or 379e; or
C. any other material that is not an additive and that is used in conformity with applicable regulations of the Food and Drug Administration.
Subp. 75. Sanitization.
"Sanitization" means the application of cumulative heat or chemicals on cleaned food-contact surfaces that, when evaluated for efficacy, yields within 1 minute a reduction of 5 logs, which is equal to a 99.999 percent reduction, of representative disease microorganisms of public health importance.
Subp. 76. Sealed.
"Sealed" means free of cracks or other openings that allow the entry or passage of moisture.
Subp. 76a. Service animal.
"Service animal" means an animal such as a guide dog, signal dog, or other animal individually trained to provide assistance to a person with a disability.
Subp. 77. Servicing area.
"Servicing area" means an operating base location to which a food cart, special event food stand, temporary food establishment, retail food vehicle, portable structure, cart, or transportation vehicle returns regularly for such things as vehicle and equipment cleaning, discharging liquid or solid wastes or refilling water tanks and ice bins, and loading food.
Subp. 78. Sewage.
"Sewage" means liquid waste containing animal or vegetable matter in suspension or solution and may include liquids containing chemicals in solution.
Subp. 78a.
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Subp. 78b. Shellfish control authority.
"Shellfish control authority" means a state, federal, foreign, tribal, or other government entity legally responsible for administering a program that includes certification of molluscan shellfish harvesters and dealers for interstate commerce.
Subp. 79. Shellstock.
"Shellstock" means raw, in-shell molluscan shellfish.
Subp. 79a. Shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli or STEC.
"Shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli " or "STEC" means any E. coli capable of producing Shiga toxins, also called verocytotoxins or Shiga-like toxins. Examples of serotypes of STEC include both O157 and non-O157 E. coli.
Subp. 80. Shucked shellfish.
"Shucked shellfish" means molluscan shellfish that have 1 or both shells removed.
Subp. 81. Single-service articles.
"Single-service articles " means tableware, carry-out utensils, and other items such as bags, containers, placemats, stirrers, straws, toothpicks, and wrappers, that are designed and constructed to be used 1 time by 1 person, after which they are intended to be discarded.
Subp. 82. Single-use article.
A. "Single-use article" means a utensil or bulk food container designed and constructed to be used once and discarded.
B. Single-use article includes items such as wax paper, butcher paper, plastic wrap, formed aluminum food containers, jars, plastic tubs or buckets, bread wrappers, pickle barrels, ketchup bottles, number 10 cans, and other items that do not meet the materials, durability, strength, and cleanability specifications contained in parts 4626.0450, 4626.0505, and 4626.0515 for multiuse utensils.
Subp. 83. Slacking.
"Slacking" means the process of moderating the temperature of a food, such as allowing a food to gradually increase from a temperature of -10 degrees F (-23 degrees C) to 25 degrees F (-4 degrees C) in preparation for deep-fat frying or for even heat penetration during the cooking of previously block-frozen food such as shrimp.
Subp. 84. Smooth.
"Smooth" means:
A. a food-contact surface, free of pits and inclusions with a cleanability equal to or exceeding that of number 3 (100 grit) stainless steel;
B. a non-food-contact surface of equipment having a surface equal to that of commercial grade hot-rolled steel free of visible scale; or
C. a floor, wall, or ceiling having an even or level surface with no roughness or projections that render the surface difficult to clean.
Subp. 85. Special event food stand.
"Special event food stand" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 157.15, subdivision 14.
Subp. 86.
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Subp. 87.
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Subp. 88.
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Subp. 89. Temperature measuring device.
"Temperature measuring device" means a thermometer, thermocouple, thermistor, or other device that indicates the temperature of food, air, or water.
Subp. 90. Temporary food establishment.
"Temporary food establishment" means a food establishment that is a mobile food unit, seasonal permanent food stand, or seasonal temporary food stand, as those terms are defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 157.15, subdivisions 9, 12a, and 13.
Subp. 90a. Time/temperature control for safety food (TCS).
A. "Time/temperature control for safety food (TCS)" means a food that requires time/temperature control for safety to limit pathogenic microorganism growth or toxin formation.
B. TCS includes:
C. TCS does not include:
Subp. 90b. USDA.
"USDA" means the U.S. Department of Agriculture.
Subp. 91. Utensil.
"Utensil" means a food-contact implement or container used in the storage, preparation, transportation, dispensing, sale, or service of food, including kitchenware or tableware that is multiuse, single-service, or single-use; gloves used in contact with food; temperature-sensing probes of food temperature measuring devices; and probe-type price or identification tags used in contact with food.
Subp. 92. Vending machine.
"Vending machine" means a self-service device that, upon insertion of a coin, paper currency, token, card, or key, or by optional manual operation, dispenses unit servings of food in bulk or in packages without the necessity of replenishing the device between each vending operation.
Subp. 93. Vending machine location.
"Vending machine location" means the room, enclosure, space, or area where one or more vending machines are installed and operated and includes the storage areas and areas on the premises that are used to service and maintain the vending machines.
Subp. 94. Warewashing.
"Warewashing" means the cleaning and sanitizing of utensils and food-contact surfaces of equipment.
Subp. 94a. Whole-muscle, intact beef.
"Whole-muscle, intact beef" means whole muscle beef that is not injected, mechanically tenderized, reconstructed, or scored and marinated, from which beef steaks may be cut.
Subp. 95.
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Subp. 96.
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Subp. 97.
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Subp. 98.
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; L 2005 1Sp1 art 1 s 97; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0024 Responsibility to Meet Standards
The licensee shall meet the standards that this Code prescribes, by carrying out its requirements directly or ensuring that other entities subject to the licensee's control or direction do so. The licensee bears the responsibility for complying and for acts and omissions of its employees, vendors, and subcontractors with respect to this Code.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.07; 157.011
- History: 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0025 Assignment of Person in Charge. 2-101.11
The licensee shall be the person in charge or shall designate a person in charge and shall ensure that a person in charge is present at the food establishment during all hours of operation.P2
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0030 Demonstration of Knowledge by Person in Charge. 2-102.11
Based on the risks inherent to the food operation, during inspections and upon request by the regulatory authority, the person in charge shall demonstrate knowledge of foodborne disease prevention, application of the hazard analysis critical control point principles, and the requirements of this Code. The person in charge shall demonstrate this knowledge by responding correctly to the inspector's questions as they relate to the specific food operation. The areas of knowledge include:
A. describing the relationship between the prevention of foodborne disease and the personal hygiene of a food employee;P2
B. explaining the responsibility of the person in charge for preventing the transmission of foodborne disease by a food employee who has a disease or medical condition that may cause foodborne disease;P2
C. describing the symptoms associated with diseases that are transmissible through food;P2
D. explaining the significance of the relationship between maintaining the time and temperature of TCS food and the prevention of foodborne illness;P2
E. explaining the hazards involved in the consumption of raw or undercooked meat, poultry, eggs, and fish;P2
F. stating the required food temperatures and times for safe cooking of TCS food including meat, poultry, eggs, and fish;P2
G. stating the required temperatures and times for the safe refrigerated storage, hot holding, cooling, and reheating of TCS food;P2
H. describing the relationship between the prevention of foodborne illness and the management and control of the following:
I. describing foods identified as major food allergens and the symptoms that a major food allergen could cause in a sensitive individual who has an allergic reaction;P2
J. explaining the relationship between food safety and providing equipment that is:
K. explaining correct procedures for cleaning and sanitizing utensils and food-contact surfaces of equipment;P2
L. identifying the source of water used and measures taken to ensure that the water source remains protected from contamination such as providing protection from backflow and precluding the creation of cross connections;P2
M. identifying poisonous or toxic materials in the food establishment and the procedures necessary to ensure that they are safely stored, dispensed, used, and disposed of according to Minnesota Statutes, chapter 18B;P2
N. identifying critical control points in the operation from purchasing through sale or service that when not controlled may contribute to the transmission of foodborne illness, and by explaining the steps to be taken to ensure that the points are controlled according to this Code;P2
O. explaining the details of how the person in charge and food employees comply with the HACCP plan if a plan is required;P2
P. explaining the responsibilities, rights, and authorities assigned by this Code to the:
Q. explaining how the person in charge, food employees, and conditional employees comply with reporting requirements and explaining the exclusion or restriction of a food employee who has a disease or medical condition that may cause foodborne disease.P2
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0033 Certified Food Protection Manager (cfpm) Requirements for Food Establishments
A. A food establishment licensee shall employ a certified food protection manager (CFPM) for each establishment including a food establishment that reheats ready-to-eat TCS foods for hot holding, except as provided in item B.
B. A food establishment does not need to employ a CFPM:
C. Only upon opening or reopening a food establishment, a licensee may employ 1 full-time employee who:
D. A food establishment licensee required to employ a CFPM shall display a current original CFPM certificate or a current duplicate CFPM certificate in the establishment.
E. A food establishment licensee that ceases to employ a CFPM shall employ a new CFPM within 60 days.
F. A food establishment licensee through the CFPM is responsible for:
G. The requirements for CFPM initial certification are as specified in this item.
H. The commissioner shall accept only examinations that are evaluated and listed by a Conference for Food Protection recognized accrediting agency as conforming to the Conference for Food Protection Standards for Accreditation of Food Protection Manager Certification Programs.
I. The requirements for CFPM renewal certification are as specified in this item.
J. Documentation of a continuing education course must include:
K. A continuing education course:
L. A continuing education course instructor shall:
M. Upon review and verification, as needed, of the documents submitted under this part, the commissioner shall issue a certificate or a letter of denial within 45 days of receiving the application. Grounds for the commissioner to deny an application are provided in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.99, subdivision 8, paragraphs (a) and (b).
N. CFPM certificate effective dates and transferability are as specified in this item.
O. The commissioner shall issue a duplicate certificate to replace a lost, destroyed, or damaged certificate if the applicant submits a completed application on a form provided by the commissioner for a duplicate certificate and pays the fee specified in Minnesota Statutes, section 157.16, subdivision 2a.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.07; 157.011
- History: 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0035 Duties of Person in Charge. 2-103.11
The person in charge shall:
A. ensure food establishment operations are not conducted in a private home or in a room used as living or sleeping quarters as specified in part 4626.1425;P2
B. ensure persons unnecessary to the food establishment operation are not allowed in the food preparation, food storage, or warewashing areas, except that brief visits and tours may be authorized by the person in charge if steps are taken to ensure that exposed food; clean equipment, utensils, and linens; and unwrapped single-service and single-use articles are protected from contamination;P2
C. ensure employees and other persons, such as delivery and maintenance persons and pesticide applicators, entering the food preparation, food storage, and warewashing areas comply with this Code;P2
D. ensure employees are effectively cleaning their hands, by routinely monitoring the employees' handwashing;P2
E. ensure employees are visibly observing foods as they are received to determine that they are from approved sources, delivered at the required temperatures, protected from contamination, unadulterated, and accurately presented, by routinely monitoring the employees' observations and periodically evaluating foods upon their receipt;P2
F. ensure employees are verifying that foods delivered to the food establishment during nonoperating hours are from approved sources and are placed into appropriate storage locations so that they are maintained at the required temperatures, protected from contamination, unadulterated, and accurately presented;P2
G. ensure employees are properly cooking TCS food, such as through the daily oversight of the employees' routine monitoring of the cooking temperatures using appropriate temperature measuring devices properly scaled and calibrated as specified in parts 4626.0555 and 4626.0820, item B;P2
H. ensure employees are using proper methods to rapidly cool TCS foods that are not held hot or are not for consumption within 4 hours, through daily oversight of the employees' routine monitoring of food temperatures during cooling;P2
I. ensure employees are properly maintaining the temperatures of TCS foods during hot and cold holding through daily oversight of the employees' routine monitoring of food temperatures;P2
J. ensure consumers who order raw or partially cooked ready-to-eat food of animal origin are informed as specified in part 4626.0442 that the food is not cooked sufficiently to ensure its safety;P2
K. ensure employees are properly sanitizing cleaned multiuse equipment and utensils before they are reused, through routine monitoring of solution temperature and exposure time for hot water sanitizing, and chemical concentration, pH, temperature, and exposure time for chemical sanitizing;P2
L. ensure consumers are notified that clean tableware is to be used when they return to self-service areas such as salad bars and buffets as specified in part 4626.0290, item B;P2
M. ensure employees are preventing cross-contamination of ready-to-eat food with bare hands by properly using suitable utensils such as deli tissue, spatulas, tongs, single-use gloves, or dispensing equipment, except as specified in part 4626.0225, item D;P2
N. ensure employees are properly trained in food safety, including food allergy awareness, as it relates to their assigned duties;P2
O. ensure food employees and conditional employees are informed of their responsibility to report, to the person in charge, information about their health and activities as they relate to diseases that are transmissible through food, as specified in part 4626.0040, item A;P2 and
P. ensure written procedures and plans, where specified by this Code and as developed by the food establishment, are maintained and implemented as required.P2
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0040 Responsibility of Licensee; Person in Charge; Food Employees; and Conditional Employees. 2-201.11
A. The licensee shall require food employees and conditional employees to report to the person in charge information about their health and activities as they relate to diseases transmissible through food. A food employee or conditional employee shall report the information in a manner that allows the person in charge to reduce the risk of foodborne disease transmission, including providing necessary additional information, such as the date of onset of symptoms and an illness, or of a diagnosis without symptoms, if the food employee or conditional employee:
B. The person in charge shall notify the regulatory authority of a food employee known to be infected with:
C. The person in charge shall record all reports of diarrhea or vomiting made by food employees and report those illnesses to the regulatory authority at the specific request of the regulatory authority.P1
D. The person in charge shall notify the regulatory authority of any complaint from a consumer having or suspected of having:
E. A food employee or conditional food employee shall:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0045 Exclusions and Restrictions. 2-201.12
The person in charge shall:
A. exclude a food employee from a food establishment if the food employee is ill with vomiting or diarrhea;P1
B. exclude a food employee from working with exposed food, clean equipment, and clean utensils in a food establishment if the food employee has an enteric bacterial, viral, or parasitic pathogen capable of being transmitted by food, such as norovirus, Salmonella spp., Shigella spp., hepatitis A, or Shiga toxin-producing E. coli;P1
C. restrict an employee if the results of an epidemiological investigation by the commissioner of health under Minnesota Statutes, section 31.171, determines that a food employee or conditional employee presents a risk for transmission of foodborne disease;P1and
D. restrict an employee if the employee is infected with a skin lesion containing pus such as a boil or infected wound that is open or draining and not properly covered as specified in part 4626.0040, item A, subitem (1), unit (e).P1
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0050 Removal, Adjustment, or Retention of Exclusions and Restrictions. 2-201.13
The exclusion specified in part 4626.0045, item A, may be removed by the person in charge after the food employee has been asymptomatic for at least 24 hours. The exclusion and restriction specified in part 4626.0045, items B and C, must remain in effect for a food employee until the commissioner and the regulatory authority determine that the risk of foodborne disease transmission has been adequately mitigated.P1
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0055 [Repealed, 43 SR 295]
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Minn. R. 4626.0060 [Repealed, 43 SR 295]
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Minn. R. 4626.0065 Clean Hands. 2-301.11
A food employee shall keep hands and exposed portions of arms clean.P1
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0070 Cleaning Procedure. 2-301.12
A. Except as specified in item D, food employees shall clean their hands and exposed portions of their arms, including surrogate prosthetic devices for hands or arms for at least 20 seconds, using soap in a handwashing sink that is equipped as specified in parts 4626.1050 and 4626.1440 to 4626.1457.P1
B. Food employees shall use the following cleaning procedure in the order stated to clean their hands and exposed portions of their arms, including surrogate prosthetic devices for hands and arms:
C. To avoid recontaminating hands or surrogate prosthetic devices, food employees shall use disposable paper towels or similar clean barriers when touching surfaces such as manually operated faucet handles on a handwashing sink or the handle of a restroom door.
D. An automatic handwashing device may be used by a food employee to clean hands or surrogate prosthetic devices if it is approved by the regulatory authority and is capable of removing the types of soils encountered in the food operations involved.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0075 When to Wash Hands. 2-301.14
A food employee shall clean the hands and exposed portions of the arms or surrogate prosthetic devices as specified in part 4626.0070 at the following times:
A. immediately before:
B. after touching bare human body parts other than clean hands and clean, exposed portions of arms or surrogate prosthetic devices;P1
C. after using the toilet;P1
D. after caring for or handling service animals or fish in an aquarium or molluscan shellfish or crustacea in display tanks as specified in part 4626.0120, item B;P1
E. except as specified in part 4626.0105, item B, after coughing, sneezing, using a handkerchief or disposable tissue, using tobacco, eating, or drinking;P1
F. after handling soiled equipment or utensils;P1
G. during food preparation, as often as necessary to remove soil and contamination and to prevent cross-contamination when changing tasks;P1
H. when switching between working with raw food and working with ready-to-eat food;P1
I. before donning gloves for working with food;P1 and
J. after engaging in other activities that contaminate the hands.P1
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0080 Where to Wash Hands. 2-301.15
Food employees shall clean their hands in a handwashing sink or approved automatic handwashing facility and shall not clean their hands in a sink used for food preparation or warewashing or in a service sink or a curbed cleaning facility used for the disposal of mop water or similar liquid waste.P2
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0085 Hand Antiseptics. 2-301.16
A. A hand antiseptic used as a topical application, a hand antiseptic solution used as a hand dip, or a hand antiseptic soap must:
B. If a hand antiseptic or a hand antiseptic solution used as a hand dip does not meet the criteria under item A, subitem (2), use must be:
C. A hand antiseptic solution used as a hand dip must be maintained clean and at a strength equivalent to at least 100 mg/L of chlorine.P2
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0090 Fingernail Maintenance. 2-302.11
A. Food employees shall keep their fingernails trimmed, filed, and maintained so the edges and surfaces are cleanable and not rough.P2
B. Unless wearing intact gloves in good repair, food employees shall not wear fingernail polish or artificial fingernails when working with exposed food.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0095 Jewelry Prohibition. 2-303.11
Food employees shall not wear jewelry, including medical information jewelry, on their arms and hands while preparing food, except for a plain ring such as a flat, smooth band.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0100 Clothing; Clean Condition. 2-304.11
A food employee shall wear clean outer clothing to prevent contamination of food, equipment, utensils, linens, and single-service and single-use articles.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0105 Eating, Drinking, or Using Tobacco. 2-401.11
A. Except as specified in item B, an employee shall eat, drink, or use any form of tobacco only in designated areas where the contamination of exposed food; clean equipment, utensils, and linens; unwrapped single-service and single-use articles; or other items needing protection cannot result.
B. A food employee may drink from a closed beverage container if the container is handled to prevent contamination of:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0110 Discharges from Eyes, Nose, and Mouth. 2-401.12
A food employee experiencing persistent sneezing, coughing, or a runny nose that causes discharges from the eyes, nose, or mouth shall not work with exposed food; clean equipment, utensils, and linens; or unwrapped single-service or single-use articles.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0115 Hair Restraints. 2-402.11
A. Except as provided in item B, a food employee shall wear hair restraints, such as a hat, hair covering, or net, a beard restraint, and clothing that covers body hair. Hair restraints must be designed and worn to effectively keep hair from contacting exposed food; clean equipment, utensils, and linens; and unwrapped single-service and single-use articles.
B. This part does not apply to food employees such as counter staff who only serve beverages and wrapped or packaged foods, hostesses, or wait staff, if they present a minimal risk of contaminating exposed food; clean equipment, utensils, and linens; and unwrapped single-service and single-use articles.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0120 Animal Handling Prohibition. 2-403.11
A. Except as specified in item B, a food employee shall not care for or handle animals that may be present such as patrol dogs, service animals, or animals that are allowed under part 4626.1585, item B, subitems (2) to (5).P2
B. A food employee with a service animal may handle or care for the service animal and a food employee may handle or care for fish in an aquarium or molluscan shellfish or crustacea in display tanks if the food employee's hands are washed as specified in part 4626.0070.P2
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0123 Cleanup of Vomiting and Diarrheal Events. 2-501.11
A food establishment must have procedures for employees to follow when responding to events that involve the discharge of vomitus or fecal matter onto surfaces in the food establishment. The procedures must address the specific actions employees shall take to minimize the spread of contamination and the exposure of employees, consumers, food, and surfaces to vomitus or fecal matter.P2
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.07; 157.011
- History: 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0125 Safe and Not Adulterated. 3-101.11
Food must be safe and not adulterated, as specified in Minnesota Statutes, section 34A.02.P1
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0130 Compliance with Food Law. 3-201.11
A. Food must be obtained from sources that comply with Minnesota Statutes, Minnesota Rules, and United States Code and Code of Federal Regulations.P1
B. Food prepared or stored in a private home must not be used or offered for human consumption in a food establishment, except as allowed by Minnesota Statutes, sections 28A.15 and 157.22, clauses (6) and (7).P1
C. Packaged food must be labeled as specified in Minnesota Statutes and Minnesota Rules, including parts 4626.0200, 4626.0202, and 4626.0435.P2
D. Fish, other than molluscan shellfish, that are intended for consumption in raw or undercooked form and allowed as specified in part 4626.0340, item D, may be offered for sale or service if they are obtained from a supplier that freezes the fish as specified in part 4626.0350; or frozen on the premises as specified in part 4626.0350 and records must be retained as specified in part 4626.0355.
E. Whole-muscle, intact beef steaks that are intended for consumption in an undercooked form without a consumer advisory as specified in part 4626.0340, item C, must be:
F. Meat and poultry that is not a ready-to-eat food and is in a packaged form when it is offered for sale or otherwise offered for consumption must be labeled to include safe handling instructions as specified in law, including Code of Federal Regulations.
G. Eggs that have not been specifically treated to destroy all viable Salmonellae must be labeled to include safe handling instructions as specified in law, including Code of Federal Regulations.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0135 Food in Hermetically Sealed Container; Sources. 3-201.12
Food in a hermetically sealed container must be obtained from a food processing plant that is regulated by the food regulatory agency that has jurisdiction over the plant.P1
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0140 Fluid Milk and Milk Products; Sources. 3-201.13
Fluid milk and fluid milk products must be obtained from sources that comply with Grade A standards specified in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 32D.P1
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0145 Fish. 3-201.14
A. Fish that are received for sale or service must be:
B. Molluscan shellfish that are recreationally caught must not be received for sale or service.P1
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0150 Molluscan Shellfish. 3-201.15
A. Molluscan shellfish must be obtained from sources according to Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, section 123, and the requirements specified in the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, Public Health Service, Food and Drug Administration, National Shellfish Sanitation Program Guide for the Control of Molluscan Shellfish. The guide is incorporated by reference and is available through the FDA website at www.fda.gov/downloads/Food/GuidanceRegulation/FederalStateFoodPrograms/UCM350004.pdf. The guide is not subject to frequent change.P1
B. Molluscan shellfish received in interstate commerce must be from sources listed in the Interstate Certified Shellfish Shippers List. The list is incorporated by reference and is available through the FDA website at www.fda.gov/downloads/Food/GuidanceRegulation/FederalStateFoodPrograms/UCM2006753.htm. The list is subject to frequent change.P1
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0155 Wild Mushrooms. 3-201.16
A. All wild mushroom species served in a retail food establishment must be obtained from sources where each mushroom is individually inspected and found to be safe by a certified mushroom harvester, except as specified in item E.P1
B. All wild mushroom species served in a retail food establishment must have a written buyer specification, except as specified in item E. The buyer shall retain the written buyer specification for 90 days from the date of sale or service. The written buyer specification must include all of the following information:
C. The mushroom harvester shall retain for 90 days all records of wild mushrooms sold to any retail food establishments. These records must include all of the following information:
D. Except as specified in item E, any retail food establishment serving wild mushrooms must inform consumers of the risk of consuming wild mushrooms by way of a disclosure using brochures, deli case or menu advisories, table tents, placards, or other written means. A disclosure must include the statement: "Wild mushrooms are not an inspected product and are harvested from a noninspected site."P2
E. This part does not apply to:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0156 Certified Wild Mushroom Harvester
A. A certified wild mushroom harvester shall have successfully completed a wild mushroom identification training program provided by an accredited college or university or state mycological society. The training program must include a component of actual identification of physical specimens of mushroom species.
B. A document must be issued by an accredited college or accredited university or mycological society certifying the mushroom harvester's successful completion of the wild mushroom identification course and specifying the species of wild mushroom the harvester is qualified to identify.
C. The mushroom harvester shall submit the document identified in item B to the Department of Agriculture.
D. A wild mushroom harvester's certification documents will be verified by the Minnesota Department of Agriculture. The Minnesota Department of Agriculture shall maintain these documents on file and maintain a registry of all wild mushroom harvesters.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.07; 157.011
- History: 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0160 Game Animals. 3-201.17
A. Game animals commercially raised for food must be raised, slaughtered, and processed under an inspection program that is conducted by the USDA under Code of Federal Regulations, title 9, part 352, or the Minnesota Department of Agriculture under Minnesota Statutes, section 17.452, subdivision 8.P1
B. Exotic species of animals, including animals raised for exhibition purposes in a zoo or circus, must:
C. Wild animals lawfully taken and donated according to part 6230.1500 and Minnesota Statutes, section 97A.505, and donated to a charitable organization registered under Minnesota Statutes, chapter 309, are approved if:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0165 Food Temperatures; Receiving. 3-202.11
A. Except as specified in items B and C, refrigerated TCS food must be at a temperature of 41 degrees F (5 degrees C) or below when received.P1
B. If a temperature other than 41 degrees F (5 degrees C) for a TCS food is specified in law governing its distribution, such as laws governing milk and molluscan shellfish, the food may be received at the specified temperature.
C. Raw eggs must be received in refrigerated equipment that maintains an ambient air temperature of 45 degrees F (7 degrees C) or less.P1
D. TCS food that has been cooked to a temperature and for a time specified in parts 4626.0340 and 4626.0347 and received hot must be at a temperature of 135 degrees F (57 degrees C) or above.P1
E. A food that is labeled frozen and shipped frozen by a food processing plant must be received frozen.P2
F. Upon receipt, TCS food must be free of evidence of previous temperature abuse.P2
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0170 Food Additives. 3-202.12
Food must not contain:
A. unapproved food additives or additives that exceed amounts specified in Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, parts 170 to 180;
B. generally recognized as safe or prior sanctioned substances that exceed amounts specified in Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, parts 181 to 186;
C. substances that exceed amounts specified in Code of Federal Regulations, title 9, subpart C, section 424.21 (b); or
D. pesticide residues that exceed provisions specified in Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, part 180.P1
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0175 Eggs. 3-202.13
Eggs must be received clean and sound and:
A. must not exceed the restricted egg tolerances for U.S. Consumer Grade B specified in U.S. Standards, Grades, and Weight Classes for Shell Eggs, AMS 56.200 et seq., maintained by the Agricultural Marketing Service (AMS) of the USDA, which is incorporated by reference, is not subject to frequent change, and is available through the AMS, USDA at www.ams.usda.gov/sites/default/files/media/Shell_Egg_Standard[1].pdf;P1and
B. comply with parts 1520.1200 to 1520.2000 and Minnesota Statutes, chapter 29.P1
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0177 Egg and Milk Products; Pasteurized. 3-202.14
A. Egg products must be obtained pasteurized.P1
B. Fluid and dry milk and milk products must be obtained pasteurized as specified in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 32D, and comply with standards as specified in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 32D.P1
C. Frozen milk products, such as ice cream, must be obtained pasteurized as specified in Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, part 135, and must comply with Minnesota Statutes, chapter 32D.P1
D. Cheese must be obtained pasteurized unless alternative procedures to pasteurization are specified in Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, part 133, and Minnesota Statutes, section 32D.22.P1
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.07; 157.011
- History: 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0180 [Repealed, 43 SR 295]
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Minn. R. 4626.0185 [Repealed, 43 SR 295]
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Minn. R. 4626.0190 Package Integrity. 3-202.15
Food packages must be in good condition and protect the integrity of the contents so that the food is not exposed to adulteration or potential contaminants.P2
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0195 Ice. 3-202.16
Ice for use as a food or a cooling medium must be made from drinking water.P1
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0200 Shucked Shellfish; Packaging and Identification. 3-202.17
A. Raw shucked shellfish must be obtained in nonreturnable packages that bear a legible label that identifies:P2
B. A package of raw shucked shellfish that does not bear a label or that bears a label that does not contain all the information specified in item A must be subject to a hold order as allowed by Minnesota Statutes, section 34A.11, or seizure and destruction according to Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, subpart D, section 1240.60, paragraph (d).
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0202 Shellstock Identification. 3-202.18
A. Shellstock must be obtained in containers bearing legible source identification tags or labels that are affixed by the harvester or dealer that depurates, ships, or reships the shellstock, as specified in the National Shellfish Sanitation Program Guide for the Control of Molluscan Shellfish which is incorporated by reference, is subject to frequent change, and can be found at www.fda.gov/Food/GuidanceRegulation/FederalStateFoodPrograms/ ucm2006754.htm, and that list:P2
B. A container of shellstock that does not bear a tag or label or that bears a tag or label that does not contain all the information specified in item A must be subject to a hold order as allowed by Minnesota Statutes, section 34A.11, or seizure and destruction according to Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, subpart D, section 1240.60, paragraph (d).
C. If a place is provided on the harvester's tag or label for a dealer's name, address, and certification number, the dealer's information must be listed first.
D. If the harvester's tag or label is designed to accommodate each dealer's identification as specified in item A, subitem (2), units (a) and (b), individual dealer tags or labels need not be provided.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.07; 157.011
- History: 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0205 [Repealed, 43 SR 295]
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Minn. R. 4626.0210 Shellstock; Condition. 3-202.19
When received by a food establishment, shellstock must be reasonably free of mud, dead shellfish, and shellfish with broken shells. Dead shellfish or shellstock with badly broken shells must be discarded.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0215 Molluscan Shellfish and Shellstock; Original Container. 3-203.11
A. Except as specified in items B to D, molluscan shellfish must not be removed from the container in which they were received other than immediately before sale or preparation for service.
B. For display purposes, shellstock may be removed from the container in which they were received, displayed on drained ice, or held in a display container, and a quantity specified by a consumer may be removed from the display or display container and provided to the consumer if:
C. Shucked shellfish may be removed from the container in which they were received and held in a display container from which individual servings are dispensed upon a consumer's request if:
D. Shucked shellfish may be removed from the container in which they were received and repacked in consumer self-service containers where allowed by law if:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0220 Shellstock; Maintaining Identification. 3-203.12
A. Except as specified in item C, subitem (3), shellstock tags or labels must remain attached to the container in which the shellstock are received until the container is empty.P2
B. The date when the last shellstock from the container is sold or served must be recorded on the tag or label.P2
C. The identity of the source of shellstock that are sold or served must be maintained:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0225 Preventing Contamination from Hands (also See Part 4626.0070). 3-301.11
A. Except when washing fruits and vegetables as specified in items C and D or part 4626.0255, food employees shall not contact exposed, ready-to-eat food with their bare hands and shall use suitable utensils such as deli tissue, spatulas, tongs, single-use gloves, or dispensing equipment as specified in part 4626.0255, items C and D.P1
B. Food employees shall minimize bare hand and arm contact with exposed food that is not in a ready-to-eat form.P2
C. Item A does not apply to a food employee who contacts exposed, ready-to-eat food with bare hands at the time the ready-to-eat food is being added as an ingredient to a food that:
D. Food employees not serving a highly susceptible population may contact exposed, ready-to-eat food with their bare hands if written procedures are maintained in the food establishment and made available to the regulatory authority upon request that include:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0230 Preventing Contamination When Tasting. 3-301.12
A food employee shall not use a utensil more than once to taste food that is to be sold or served.P1
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0235 Preventing Cross-Contamination. 3-302.11
A. Food must be protected from cross-contamination by:
B. Item A, subitem (4), does not apply to:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0240 Food Storage Containers Identified with Common Name of Food. 3-302.12
Working containers holding food or food ingredients that are removed from their original packages for use in the food establishment, such as cooking oils, flour, herbs, potato flakes, salt, spices, and sugar must be identified with the common name of the food except that containers holding food that can be readily and unmistakably recognized, including dry pasta, need not be identified. The identification must be in English and any other language used by the employees of the food establishment who handle food.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0245 Pasteurized Eggs; Substitute for Raw Eggs. 3-302.13
Pasteurized eggs or egg products must be substituted for raw eggs in the preparation of food such as Caesar salad, hollandaise or Bearnaise sauce, mayonnaise, meringue, eggnog, ice cream, and egg-fortified beverages that are not:
A. cooked as specified in part 4626.0340, item A, subitem (1) or (2);P1 or
B. included in part 4626.0340, item D, subitem (1).P1
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0250 Protection from Unapproved Additives. (see Also 4626.0170) 3-302.14
A. Food must be protected from contamination that may result from the addition of:
B. A food employee shall not:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0255 Washing Fruits and Vegetables. 3-302.15
A. Raw fruits and vegetables must be thoroughly washed in water or by using chemicals specified in part 4626.1625 to remove soil and other contaminants before being cut, combined with other ingredients, cooked, served, or offered for human consumption in ready-to-eat form except for whole, raw fruits and vegetables that are intended for washing by the consumer before consumption.
B. Devices used for on-site generation of chemicals meeting the requirements in Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, subpart D, section 173.315, for the washing of raw, whole fruits and vegetables must be used according to the manufacturer's instructions.P2
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0260 Ice Used as Exterior Coolant; Prohibited as Ingredient. 3-303.11
Ice must not be used as a food after use as a medium for cooling the exterior surfaces of food such as melons or fish, packaged foods such as canned beverages, or cooling coils and tubes of equipment.P1
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0265 Food in Contact with Water or Ice. 3-303.12
A. Packaged food must not be stored in direct contact with ice or water if the food is subject to the entry of water because of the nature of its packaging, wrapping, or container or its positioning in the ice or water.
B. Bottled and canned beverages on retail display must not be stored in contact with water or undrained ice.
C. Whole, raw fruits or vegetables; cut, raw vegetables such as celery, carrot sticks, and cut potatoes; and tofu may be immersed in ice or water.
D. Raw poultry and raw fish that are received immersed in ice in shipping containers may remain in that condition while in storage awaiting preparation, display, service, or sale.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0270 Food Contact with Equipment and Utensils. 3-304.11
Food must only contact surfaces of:
A. equipment and utensils that are cleaned as specified in parts 4626.0840 to 4626.0885 and sanitized as specified in parts 4626.0900 and 4626.0905;P1
B. single-service and single-use articles;P1 or
C. linens such as cloth napkins specified in part 4626.0280 that are laundered as required by parts 4626.0910 to 4626.0930.P1
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0275 In-Use Utensils; Between-Use Storage. 3-304.12
A. During pauses in food preparation or dispensing, food preparation and dispensing utensils must be stored:
B. For consumer self-service of bulk food, a manual dispensing utensil must be stored as specified in Minnesota Statutes, section 31.84, subdivision 2.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0280 Linens and Napkins; Use Limitation. 3-304.13
Linens such as cloth napkins must not be used in contact with food unless they are used to line a container for the service of foods and the linens and napkins are replaced each time the container is refilled for a new consumer.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0285 Wiping Cloths; Use Limitation. 3-304.14
A. Cloths used for wiping food spills from tableware and carry-out containers that occur as food is being served must be maintained dry and used for no other purpose.
B. Cloths used for wiping counters and other equipment surfaces must be:
C. Cloths used for wiping surfaces in contact with raw animal foods must be kept separate from cloths used for other purposes.
D. Dry wiping cloths and the chemical sanitizing solutions specified in item B, subitem (1), in which wet wiping cloths are held between uses must be free of food debris and visible soil.
E. Containers of chemical sanitizing solutions specified in item B, subitem (1), in which wet wiping cloths are held between uses must be stored and used in a manner that prevents contamination of food, equipment, utensils, linens, or single-service or single-use articles.
F. Single-use disposable sanitizer wipes must be used according to U.S. Environmental Protection Agency-approved manufacturer's label use instructions.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0287 Gloves; Use Limitation. 3-304.15
A. If used, single-use gloves must be used for only 1 task such as working with ready-to-eat food or with raw animal food, used for no other purpose, and discarded when damaged or soiled, or when interruptions occur in the operation.P1
B. Except as specified in item C, slash-resistant gloves that are used to protect the hands during operations requiring cutting must be used in direct contact only with food that is subsequently cooked as specified in parts 4626.0340 to 4626.0349, such as frozen food or a primal cut of meat.
C. Slash-resistant gloves may be used with ready-to-eat food that will not be subsequently cooked if the slash-resistant gloves have a smooth, durable, and nonabsorbent outer surface; or if the slash-resistant gloves are covered with a smooth, durable, nonabsorbent glove, or a single-use glove.
D. Cloth gloves must not be used in direct contact with food unless the food is subsequently cooked as required under parts 4626.0340 to 4626.0349, such as frozen food or a primal cut of meat.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0290 Using Clean Tableware for Second Portions and Refills. 3-304.16
A. Except for refilling a consumer's drinking cup or container without contact between the pouring utensil and the lip-contact area of the drinking cup or container, food employees shall not use tableware, including single-service articles soiled by the consumer to provide second portions or refills.
B. Except as specified in item C, self-service consumers shall not be allowed to use soiled tableware, including single-service articles to obtain additional food from the display and serving equipment.
C. Drinking cups and containers may be reused by self-service consumers if refilling is a contamination-free process as specified in part 4626.0575, items A, B, and D.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0295 Refilling Returnables. 3-304.17
A. Except as specified in this part, empty containers returned to a food establishment for cleaning and refilling with food must be cleaned and refilled in a regulated food processing plant.P1
B. A take-home food container returned to a food establishment may be refilled at a food establishment with food if the food container is:
C. A take-home food container returned to a food establishment may be refilled at a food establishment with a beverage if:
D. Consumer-owned, personal take-out beverage containers, such as thermally insulated bottles, nonspill coffee cups, promotional beverage glasses, and vinegar and oil containers, may be refilled by employees or the consumer if refilling is a contamination-free process as specified under part 4626.0575, items A, B, and D.
E. Consumer-owned containers that are not food-specific may be filled at a water vending machine or system.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0300 Food Storage. 3-305.11
A. Except as specified in items B and C, food must be protected from contamination by storing the food:
B. Food in packages and working containers may be stored less than 6 inches (15 cm) above the floor on case lot handling equipment specified in part 4626.0665.
C. Pressurized beverage containers, cased food in waterproof containers, such as bottles or cans, and milk containers in plastic crates may be stored on a floor that is clean and not exposed to floor moisture.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0305 Food Storage; Prohibited Areas. 3-305.12
Food must not be stored:
A. in locker rooms;
B. in toilet rooms;
C. in dressing rooms;
D. in garbage rooms;
E. in mechanical rooms;
F. under sewer lines that are not shielded to intercept potential drips;
G. under leaking water lines, including leaking automatic fire sprinkler heads, or under lines on which water has condensed;
H. under open stairwells; or
I. under other sources of contamination.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0310 Vended Tcs Food; Original Container. 3-305.13
TCS food dispensed through a vending machine must be in the package in which it was placed at the food establishment or food processing plant at which it was prepared.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0315 Unpackaged Food; Protection from Contamination. 3-305.14
During preparation, unpackaged food must be protected from environmental sources of contamination.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0320 Food Display; Protection from Contamination. 3-306.11
A. Except for nuts in the shell and whole, raw fruits and vegetables that are intended for hulling, peeling, or washing by the consumer before consumption, food on display must be protected from contamination by the use of packaging; counter, service line, or salad bar food guards; display cases; or other effective means.P1
B. Food preparation and cooking areas must be protected by an impervious shield or by a separation distance to ensure customer safety and prevent food contamination by customers.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0325 Condiments; Protection. 3-306.12
A. Condiments must be protected from contamination by being kept in dispensers that are designed to provide protection, protected food displays provided with the proper utensils, original containers designed for dispensing, or individual packages or portions.
B. Condiments at a vending machine location must be in individual packages or provided in dispensers that are filled at a location that is approved by the regulatory authority, such as the food establishment that provides food to the vending machine location, a food processing plant that is regulated by the agency that has jurisdiction over the operation, or a properly equipped facility that is located on the site of the vending machine location.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0330 Consumer Self-Service Operations. 3-306.13
A. Raw, unpackaged animal food, such as beef, lamb, pork, poultry, and fish, must not be offered for consumer self-service.P1 This item does not apply to:
B. Consumer self-service operations for ready-to-eat foods must be provided with suitable utensils or effective dispensing methods that protect the food from contamination.P2
C. Consumer self-service operations such as buffets and salad bars must be monitored by food employees trained in safe operating procedures.P2
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0335 Returned Food; Re-Service of Food. 3-306.14
A. Except as specified in item B, after being served or sold and in the possession of a consumer, food that is unused or returned by the consumer must not be offered as food for human consumption.P1
B. Except as specified in part 4626.0447, item G, a container of food that is not TCS food may be re-served from one consumer to another if:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0337 Miscellaneous Sources of Contamination. 3-307.11
Food must be protected from contamination that may result from a factor or source not specified in parts 4626.0225 to 4626.0335.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.07; 157.011
- History: 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0340 Cooking Raw Animal Foods. 3-401.11
A. Except as specified in items B to D, raw animal foods, such as eggs, fish, meat, poultry, and foods containing these raw animal foods, must be cooked to heat all parts of the food to a temperature and for a time that complies with one of the following methods based on the food that is being cooked:
B. Whole meat roasts including beef, corned beef, lamb, pork, and cured pork roasts such as ham must be cooked:
C. A raw or undercooked whole-muscle, intact beef steak may be served or offered for sale in a ready-to-eat form if:
D. A raw animal food such as raw egg, raw fish, raw-marinated fish, raw molluscan shellfish, or steak tartare; or a partially cooked food such as lightly cooked fish, soft-cooked eggs, or rare meat other than whole-muscle, intact beef steaks as specified in item C, may be served or offered for sale upon consumer request or selection in a ready-to-eat form if:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0345 Microwave Cooking. 3-401.12
Raw animal foods cooked in a microwave oven must be:
A. rotated or stirred throughout or midway during cooking to compensate for uneven distribution of heat;
B. covered to retain surface moisture;
C. heated to a temperature of at least 165 degrees F (74 degrees C) in all parts of the food;P1 and
D. allowed to stand covered for 2 minutes after cooking to obtain temperature equilibrium.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0347 Plant Food; Cooking for Hot Holding. 3-401.13
Raw fruits and vegetables that are cooked for hot holding must be cooked to a temperature of 135 degrees F (57 degrees C).P2
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.07; 157.011
- History: 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0349 Noncontinuous Cooking of Raw Animal Foods. 3-401.14
Raw animal foods that are cooked using a noncontinuous cooking process must be:
A. subject to an initial heating process that is no longer than 60 minutes in duration;P1
B. immediately after initial heating, cooled according to the time and temperature parameters for cooked TCS food in part 4626.0385, item A;P1
C. after cooling, held frozen or cold, as specified for TCS food in part 4626.0395, item A, subitem (2);P1
D. prior to sale or service, cooked using a process that heats all parts of the food to a temperature and for a time specified in part 4626.0340, items A to C;P1
E. cooled according to the time and temperature parameters for cooked TCS food in part 4626.0385, item A, if not either hot held as specified in part 4626.0395, item A, served immediately, or held using time as a public health control as specified in part 4626.0408 after complete cooking;P1 and
F. prepared and stored according to written procedures that:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.07; 157.011
- History: 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0350 Parasite Destruction. 3-402.11
A. Except as specified in item B, before service or sale in ready-to-eat form, raw, raw-marinated, partially cooked, or marinated-partially cooked fish must be:
B. Item A does not apply to:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0355 Parasite Destruction; Records. 3-402.12
A. Except as specified in item B, and part 4626.0350, item B, if raw, raw-marinated, partially cooked, or marinated-partially cooked fish are served or sold in ready-to-eat form, the person in charge shall record the freezing temperature and time to which the fish are subjected and shall retain the records at the food establishment for 90 calendar days beyond the time of service or sale of the fish.P2
B. If the fish are frozen by a supplier, a written agreement or statement from the supplier stipulating that the fish supplied are frozen to a temperature and for a time specified in part 4626.0350 may substitute for the records specified in item A.
C. If raw, raw-marinated, partially cooked, or marinated-partially cooked fish are served or sold in ready-to-eat form, and the fish are raised and fed as specified in part 4626.0350, item B, subitem (4), a written agreement or statement from the supplier or aquaculturist stipulating that the fish were raised and fed as specified in part 4626.0350, item B, subitem (4), must be obtained by the person in charge and retained in the records of the food establishment for 90 calendar days beyond the time of service or sale of the fish.P2
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0357 Foods Prepared for Immediate Service. 3-403.10
Cooked and refrigerated food that is prepared for immediate service in response to an individual consumer order, such as a roast beef sandwich au jus, may be served at any temperature.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.07; 157.011
- History: 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0360 Reheating for Hot Holding. 3-403.11
A. Except as specified in items B, C, and E, TCS food that is cooked, cooled, and reheated for hot holding must be reheated so that all parts of the food reach a temperature of at least 165 degrees F (74 degrees C) for 15 seconds.P1
B. Except as specified in item C, TCS food reheated in a microwave oven for hot holding must be reheated so that all parts of the food reach a temperature of at least 165 degrees F (74 degrees C) and the food is rotated or stirred, covered, and allowed to stand covered for 2 minutes after reheating.P1
C. Ready-to-eat TCS food that has been commercially processed, and packaged in a food processing plant that is inspected by the food regulatory authority that has jurisdiction over the plant, must be heated to a temperature of at least 135 degrees F (57 degrees C) when being reheated for hot holding.P1
D. Reheating for hot holding as specified in items A to C must be done rapidly and the time the food is between 41 degrees F (5 degrees C) and the temperatures specified in items A to C must not exceed 2 hours.P1
E. Remaining unsliced portions of meat roasts that are cooked as specified in part 4626.0340, item B, may be reheated for hot holding using the oven parameters and minimum time and temperature conditions specified in part 4626.0340, item B.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0365 [Repealed, 43 SR 295]
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Minn. R. 4626.0367 Treating Juice. 3-404.11
Juice packaged in a food establishment must be:
A. treated under a HACCP plan as specified in parts 4626.1730 to 4626.1735 to attain a 5-log reduction, which is equal to a 99.999 percent reduction, of the most resistant microorganism of public health significance;P1 or
B. labeled, if not treated to yield a 5-log reduction of the most resistant microorganism of public health significance:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.07; 157.011
- History: 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0368 Juice; Treated. 3-202.110
Prepackaged juice must:
A. be obtained from a processor with a HACCP system as specified in Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, part 120;P2 and
B. be obtained pasteurized or otherwise treated to attain a 5-log reduction of the most resistant microorganism of public health significance as specified in Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, subpart B, section 120.24.P1
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.07; 157.011
- History: 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0370 Frozen Food. 3-501.11
Stored frozen foods must be maintained frozen.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0375 Slacking Tcs Food. 3-501.12
Frozen TCS food that is slacked to moderate the temperature must be held:
A. under mechanical refrigeration that maintains the food temperature at 41 degrees F (5 degrees C) or less; or
B. at any temperature if the food remains frozen.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0380 Thawing. 3-501.13
A. Except as specified in item subitem (4), TCS food must be thawed:
B. Reduced oxygen packaged fish that bears a label indicating that it is to be kept frozen until time of use must be removed from the reduced oxygen environment:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0385 Cooling Requirements. 3-501.14
A. Cooked TCS food must be cooled:
B. TCS food must be cooled within 4 hours to 41 degrees F (5 degrees C) or less, if prepared from ingredients at ambient temperature, such as reconstituted foods and canned tuna.P1
C. Except as specified in item D, TCS food received in compliance with laws allowing a temperature above 41 degrees F (5 degrees C) during shipment from the supplier as specified in part 4626.0165, item B, must be cooled within 4 hours to 41 degrees F (5 degrees C) or less.P1
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0390 Cooling Methods. 3-501.15
A. Cooling must be accomplished according to the time and temperature criteria in part 4626.0385 by using one or more of the following methods based on the type of food being cooled:
B. When placed in cooling or cold holding equipment, food containers in which food is being cooled must be:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0395 Tcs Food; Hot and Cold Holding. 3-501.16
A. Except during preparation, cooking, or cooling, or when time is used as the public health control as specified in part 4626.0408, and except as specified in items B and C, TCS food must be maintained:
B. Eggs that have not been treated to destroy all viable Salmonellae must be stored in refrigerated equipment that maintains an ambient air temperature of 45 degrees F (7 degrees C) or less.P1
C. TCS food in a homogenous liquid form may be maintained outside of the temperature control requirements, as specified in item A, while contained within specially designed equipment that complies with the design and construction requirements in part 4626.0575, item E.
D. For a special event food stand, delivery vehicle, retail food vehicle, portable structure, or cart, dry ice or cold packs may be substituted for mechanical refrigeration required in this part and part 4626.0375 if the temperatures in parts 4626.0370 to 4626.0420 are maintained. Mechanical refrigeration must be provided for TCS foods held for 4 hours or longer.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0400 Date Marking; Ready-to-Eat Tcs Food. 3-501.17
A. (1) This part does not apply to items E and F or to food packaged using a reduced oxygen packaging method as specified in part 4626.0420.
B. Refrigerated, ready-to-eat TCS food prepared and packaged by a processing plant and opened and held for more than 24 hours must be clearly marked using an effective method to indicate the day or date by which the food must be consumed on the premises, sold, or discarded, which is 7 calendar days or less from the date the original container is opened;P2 and
C. A refrigerated, ready-to-eat TCS food ingredient or a portion of a refrigerated, ready-to-eat TCS food that is subsequently combined with additional ingredients or portions of food must retain the date marking of the earliest-prepared or first-prepared ingredient.P2
D. A date marking system that meets the criteria in items A and B may include:
E. Items A and B do not apply to individual meal portions served or repackaged for sale from a bulk container upon a consumer's request.
F. Items A and B do not apply to shellstock.
G. Item B does not apply to the following foods prepared and packaged by a food processing plant inspected by a regulatory authority:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0405 Ready-to-Eat, Tcs Food; Disposition. 3-501.18
A. A food specified in part 4626.0400, item A or B, must be discarded if:
B. Refrigerated, ready-to-eat TCS food prepared in a food establishment and dispensed through a refrigerated vending machine with an automatic shutoff control must be discarded if the time exceeds 7 days as specified in part 4626.0400, item A.P1
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0408 Time as Public Health Control. 3-501.19
A. Except as specified in item D, if time only, rather than in conjunction with temperature control, is used as the public health control for a working supply of TCS food before cooking, or for ready-to-eat TCS food that is displayed or held for sale or service, written procedures must be prepared in advance, maintained in the food establishment, and made available to the regulatory authority upon request that specify:P2
B. If time only, rather than in conjunction with temperature control, is used as the public health control up to a maximum of 4 hours:
C. If time only, rather than in conjunction with temperature control, is used as the public health control up to a maximum of 6 hours:
D. A food establishment that serves a highly susceptible population may not use time as specified in item A, B, or C as the public health control for raw eggs.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.07; 157.011
- History: 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0410 [Repealed, 43 SR 295]
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Minn. R. 4626.0415 Specialized Processing Variance Requirements. 3-502.11
A food establishment must obtain a variance from the regulatory authority as specified in parts 4626.1690 to 4626.1700 before:
A. smoking food as a method of food preservation rather than as a method of flavor enhancement;P2
B. curing food;P2
C. using food additives or adding components, such as vinegar:
D. packaging TCS food using a reduced oxygen packaging method except where the growth of and toxin formation by Clostridium botulinum and the growth of Listeria monocytogenes are controlled as specified in part 4626.0420;P2
E. operating a molluscan shellfish life-support system display tank used to store and display shellfish that are offered for human consumption;P2
F. custom processing game animals that are for personal use as food and not for sale or service in a food establishment and not under USDA or "state equal to" inspections;P2
G. sprouting seeds or beans;P2 or
H. preparing food by any method that is not in compliance with this Code.P2
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0420 Reduced Oxygen Packaging Without a Variance; Criteria. 3-502.12
A. Except for a food establishment that obtains a variance as specified in part 4626.0415, a food establishment that packages TCS food using a reduced oxygen packaging method must control the growth and toxin formation of Clostridium botulinum and the growth of Listeria monocytogenes.P1
B. Except as specified in item F, a food establishment that packages TCS food using a reduced oxygen packaging method must have a HACCP plan that contains the information in part 4626.1735 and that:P2
C. Except for fish that is frozen before, during, and after packaging, a food establishment must not package fish using a reduced oxygen packaging method. Reduced oxygen packaged fish must be held frozen until used or removed from reduced oxygen packaging prior to the thawing process.P1
D. Except as specified in items C and F, a food establishment that packages TCS food using a cook-chill or sous-vide process must:
E. Except as specified in item F, a food establishment that packages cheese using a reduced oxygen packaging method must:
F. A HACCP plan is not required when a food establishment uses a reduced oxygen packaging method to package TCS food that is always:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0425 Packaged Food; Standards of Identity. 3-601.11
Packaged food must comply with parts 1545.0360 to 1545.0410 and chapter 1550; the standard of identity requirements in Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, parts 131 to 169, and Code of Federal Regulations, title 9, part 319; and the general requirements in Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, part 130.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0430 Food Honestly Presented. 3-601.12
A. Food must be offered for human consumption in a way that does not mislead or misinform the consumer.
B. Food or color additives, colored overwraps, or lights must not be used to misrepresent the true appearance, color, or quality of food.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0435 Food Labels. 3-602.11
A. Food packaged in a food establishment must be labeled as specified in law, including Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, part 101, and Code of Federal Regulations, title 9, part 317.
B. Label information must include:
C. Bulk food that is available for consumer self-dispensing must be prominently labeled with the following information in plain view of the consumer:
D. Bulk, unpackaged foods such as bakery products and unpackaged foods that are portioned to consumer specification need not be labeled if:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0440 Other Forms of Information. 3-602.12
A. If required by law, consumer warnings must be provided.
B. A food establishment's or manufacturer's dating information on foods must not be concealed or altered.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0442 Consumer Advisory; Disclosure. 3-603.11
A. Except as specified in parts 4626.0340, items C and D, subitem (4), and 4626.0447, item C, if an animal food such as beef, eggs, fish, lamb, milk, pork, poultry, or shellfish is served or sold raw, undercooked, or without otherwise being processed to eliminate pathogens, either in ready-to-eat form or as an ingredient in another ready-to-eat food, the license holder shall inform consumers of the significantly increased risk of consuming such foods by way of a disclosure and reminder, as specified in items B and C, using brochures, deli case or menu advisories, label statements, table tents, placards, or other effective written means.P2
B. The disclosure must include:
C. The reminder must include asterisking the animal-derived foods requiring disclosure to a footnote that states:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.07; 157.011
- History: 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0445 Unsafe, Adulterated, or Contaminated Food. 3-701.11
A. A food that is unsafe or adulterated as specified in part 4626.0125 or not honestly presented as specified in part 4626.0430 must be discarded or reconditioned according to Minnesota Statutes, section 31.495.P1
B. Food that is not from an approved source specified in parts 4626.0130 to 4626.0160 must be discarded.P1
C. Ready-to-eat food that may have been contaminated by an employee who has been restricted or excluded as specified in part 4626.0045 must be discarded.P1
D. Food that is contaminated by food employees, consumers, or other persons through contact with hands, bodily discharges, including nasal or oral discharges, or other means must be discarded.P1
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0447 Food Served to a Highly Susceptible Population. 3-801.11
In a food establishment that serves a highly susceptible population, the criteria in this part must be followed.
A. The following criteria apply to juice:
B. Pasteurized eggs or egg products must be substituted for raw eggs in the preparation of:
C. The following foods may not be served or offered for sale in a ready-to-eat form:
D. Food employees may not contact ready-to-eat food as specified in part 4626.0225, item A.P1
E. Time only, as the public health control as specified in part 4626.0408, item D, may not be used for raw eggs.P1
F. Item B, subitem (2), does not apply if:
G. Except as specified in item H, food may be re-served as specified in part 4626.0335, item B, subitems (1) and (2).
H. Food may not be re-served under the following conditions:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.07; 157.011
- History: 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0450 Food-Contact Surfaces; Characteristics and Materials. 4-101.11
Materials that are used in the construction of utensils and food-contact surfaces of equipment must not allow the migration of deleterious substances or impart colors, odors, or tastes to food and under normal use conditions must be:P1
A. safe;P1
B. durable, corrosion-resistant, and nonabsorbent;
C. sufficient in weight and thickness to withstand repeated warewashing;
D. finished to have a smooth, easily cleanable surface; and
E. resistant to pitting, chipping, crazing, scratching, scoring, distortion, and decomposition.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0455 Cast Iron; Use Limitation. 4-101.12
A. Except as specified in items B and C, cast iron must not be used for utensils or food-contact surfaces of equipment.
B. Cast iron may be used as a surface for cooking.
C. Cast iron may be used in utensils for serving food if the utensils are used only as part of an uninterrupted process from cooking through service.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0460 Lead; Use Limitation. 4-101.13
A. Ceramic, china, crystal utensils, and decorative utensils, such as hand-painted ceramic or china, that are used in contact with food must be lead-free or contain levels of lead not exceeding the limits of the following utensil categories:P1
B. Pewter alloys containing lead in excess of 0.05 percent must not be used as a food-contact surface.P1
C. Solder and flux containing lead in excess of 0.2 percent must not be used as a food-contact surface.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0465 Copper; Use Limitation. 4-101.14
A. Except as specified in item B, copper and copper alloys, such as brass, must not be used in contact with a food that has a pH below 6, such as vinegar, fruit juice, or wine, or for a fitting or tubing installed between a backflow prevention device and a carbonator.P1
B. Copper and copper alloys may be used in contact with beer brewing ingredients that have a pH below 6 in the prefermentation and fermentation steps of a beer brewing operation such as a brewpub or microbrewery.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0470 Galvanized Metal; Use Limitation. 4-101.15
Galvanized metal must not be used for utensils or food-contact surfaces of equipment that are used in contact with acidic food.P1
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0475 Sponges; Use Limitation. 4-101.16
Sponges must not be used in contact with cleaned and sanitized or in-use food-contact surfaces.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0480 [Repealed, 43 SR 295]
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Minn. R. 4626.0485 [Repealed, 43 SR 295]
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Minn. R. 4626.0490 Wood; Use Limitation. 4-101.17
A. Except as specified in items B to D, wood and wood wicker must not be used as a food-contact surface.
B. Hard maple or an equivalently hard, close-grained wood may be used for:
C. Whole, uncut, raw fruits and vegetables and nuts in the shell may be kept in the wood shipping containers in which they were received, until the fruits, vegetables, or nuts are used.
D. If the nature of the food requires removal of rinds, peels, husks, or shells before consumption, the whole, uncut, raw food may be kept in:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0493 Nonstick Coatings; Use Limitations. 4-101.18
Multiuse kitchenware such as frying pans, griddles, sauce pans, cookie sheets, and waffle bakers that have a nonstick coating must be used with nonscouring or nonscratching utensils and cleaning aids.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0495 Non-Food-Contact Surfaces; Characteristics. 4-101.19
Non-food-contact surfaces of equipment that are exposed to splash, spillage, or other food soiling or that require frequent cleaning must be constructed of a corrosion-resistant, nonabsorbent, and smooth material.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0500 Single-Service and Single-Use Articles; Characteristics. 4-102.11
Materials that are used to make single-service and single-use articles:
A. must not:
B. must be:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0505 Equipment and Utensils. 4-201.11
Equipment and utensils must be designed and constructed to be durable and to retain their characteristic qualities under normal use conditions.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0506 Equipment
A. The following equipment, including types of equipment listed in this part that are custom fabricated, must be certified or classified for sanitation by an American National Standards Institute (ANSI) accredited certification program for food service equipment:
B. Exhaust hoods must meet the requirements in the Minnesota Mechanical Code, Minnesota Rules, chapter 1346.
C. Vending machines and machines used to dispense water or food must be certified or classified for sanitation by an American National Standards Institute (ANSI) accredited certification program or be accredited to meet the standards of the National Automatic Merchandising Association (NAMA) specified in NAMA Standard for the Sanitary Design and Construction of Food and Beverage Vending Machines. This publication is incorporated by reference, is subject to infrequent change, and can be found at www.namanow.org/vending/certified-companies.
D. Vending machines that vend water must meet the standards in parts 1550.3200 to 1550.3320.
E. If a standard developed by an ANSI-accredited standards developer is not available for a piece of equipment specified in item A, the equipment must:
F. A neighborhood kitchen may use equipment other than ANSI-certified equipment required in item A to heat and serve food previously cooked in a primary approved commercial kitchen. A neighborhood kitchen may also prepare and serve food other than raw animal foods, provided that grease or moisture does not accumulate on adjacent surfaces.
G. A food establishment that is an adult care center, child care center, or boarding establishment does not need to comply with item A if approved by the regulatory authority and the food establishment:
H. A bed and breakfast serving only 1 meal a day does not need to comply with item A.
I. A special event food stand, retail food vehicle, portable structure, or cart does not need to comply with item A.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.07; 157.011
- History: 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0510 Food Temperature Measuring Devices. 4-201.12
Food temperature measuring devices must not have sensors or stems constructed of glass, except that thermometers with glass sensors or stems that are encased in a shatterproof coating such as candy thermometers may be used.P1
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0515 Multiuse Food-Contact Surfaces; Characteristics. 4-202.11
A. Multiuse food-contact surfaces must be:
B. Item A, subitem (5), does not apply to cooking oil storage tanks, distribution lines for cooking oils, or beverage syrup lines or tubes.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0520 Cip Equipment. 4-202.12
A. CIP equipment must meet the characteristics in part 4626.0515 and must be designed and constructed so that:
B. CIP equipment that is not designed to be disassembled for cleaning must be designed with inspection access points to ensure that all interior food-contact surfaces throughout the fixed system are effectively cleaned.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0525 "v"-Type Threads; Use Limitation. 4-202.13
Except for hot oil cooking or filtering equipment, "V"-type threads must not be used on food-contact surfaces.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0530 Hot Oil Filtering Equipment. 4-202.14
Hot oil filtering equipment must meet the characteristics specified in part 4626.0515 or 4626.0520 and must be readily accessible for filter replacement and cleaning.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0535 Can Openers. 4-202.15
Cutting or piercing parts of can openers must be readily removable for cleaning and replacement.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0540 Non-Food-Contact Surfaces. 4-202.16
Non-food-contact surfaces must be free of unnecessary ledges, projections, and crevices, and designed and constructed to allow easy cleaning and to facilitate maintenance.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0545 Kick Plates, Removable; Enclosed Hollow Bases. 4-202.17
A. Kick plates must be designed so that the areas behind them are accessible for inspection and cleaning by being:
B. In new or extensively remodeled establishments, enclosed hollow bases are prohibited.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0550 Ventilation Hood Systems; Filters. 4-202.18
Filters or other grease extracting equipment must be designed to be readily removable for cleaning and replacing if not designed to be cleaned in place.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0555 Temperature Measuring Devices; Food. 4-203.11
A. Food temperature measuring devices that are scaled only in Celsius or dually scaled in Celsius and Fahrenheit must be accurate to plus or minus 1 degree C in the intended range of use.P2
B. Food temperature measuring devices that are scaled only in Fahrenheit must be accurate to plus or minus 2 degrees F in the intended range of use.P2
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0560 Temperature Measuring Devices; Ambient Air and Water. 4-203.12
A. Ambient air and water temperature measuring devices that are scaled in Celsius or dually scaled in Celsius and Fahrenheit must be designed to be easily readable and accurate to plus or minus 1.5 degrees C in the intended range of use.P2
B. Ambient air and water temperature measuring devices that are scaled only in Fahrenheit must be accurate to plus or minus 3 degrees F in the intended range of use.P2
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0563 Pressure Measuring Devices; Mechanical Warewashing Equipment. 4-203.13
Pressure measuring devices that display the pressures in the water supply line for the fresh hot water sanitizing rinse must have increments of 1 pound per square inch (7 kilopascals) or smaller and must be accurate to plus or minus 2 pounds per square inch (plus or minus 14 kilopascals) in the range indicated on the manufacturer's data plate.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0565 Ventilation Hood Systems, Drip Prevention. 4-204.11
Exhaust ventilation hood systems in food preparation and warewashing areas, including hoods, fans, guards, ducting, and other components, must be designed to prevent grease or condensation from draining or dripping onto food, equipment, utensils, linens, and single-service and single-use articles.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0570 Equipment Openings, Closures, and Deflectors. 4-204.12
A. A cover or lid for equipment must overlap the opening and be sloped to drain.
B. An opening located within the top of a unit of equipment that is designed for use with a cover or lid must be flanged upward at least 2/10 inch (5 millimeters).
C. Except as specified in item D, fixed piping, temperature measuring devices, rotary shafts, and other parts extending into equipment must be provided with a watertight joint at the point where the item enters the equipment.
D. If a watertight joint is not provided:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0575 Dispensing Equipment; Protection of Equipment and Food. 4-204.13
In equipment that dispenses or vends liquid food or ice in unpackaged form:
A. the delivery tube, chute, orifice, and splash surfaces directly above the container receiving the food must be designed in a manner, such as with barriers, baffles, or drip aprons, so that drips from condensation and splash are diverted from the opening of the container receiving the food;
B. the delivery tube, chute, and orifice must be protected from manual contact such as by being recessed;
C. the delivery tube or chute and orifice of equipment used to vend liquid food or ice in unpackaged form to self-service consumers must be designed so that the delivery tube or chute and orifice are protected from dust, insects, rodents, and other contamination by a self-closing door if the equipment is:
D. the dispensing equipment actuating lever or mechanism and filling device of consumer self-service beverage dispensing equipment must be designed to prevent contact with the lip-contact surface of glasses or cups that are refilled; and
E. the dispensing equipment in which TCS food in a homogenous liquid form is maintained outside of the temperature control requirements in part 4626.0395, item A, must:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0580 Vending Machine; Vending Stage Closure. 4-204.14
The dispensing compartment of a vending machine, including a machine that is designed to vend prepackaged snack food that is not TCS, such as chips, party mixes, and pretzels, must be equipped with a self-closing door or cover if the machine is:
A. located in an outside area that does not otherwise afford the protection of an enclosure against rain, windblown debris, insects, rodents, and other contaminants that are present in the environment; or
B. available for self-service during hours when it is not under the full-time supervision of a food employee.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0585 Bearings and Gear Boxes; Leakproof. 4-204.15
Equipment containing bearings and gears that require lubricants must be designed and constructed so that the lubricant cannot leak, drip, or be forced into food or onto food-contact surfaces.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0590 Beverage Tubing; Separation. 4-204.16
Except for cold plates that are constructed integrally with an ice storage bin, beverage tubing and cold-plate beverage cooling devices must not be installed in contact with stored ice.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0595 Ice Units; Separation of Drains. 4-204.17
Liquid waste drain lines must not pass through an ice machine or ice storage bin.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0600 Condenser Unit; Separation. 4-204.18
If a condenser unit is an integral component of equipment, the condenser unit must be separated from the food and food storage space by a dustproof barrier.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0605 Can Openers on Vending Machines. 4-204.19
Cutting or piercing parts of can openers on vending machines must be protected from manual contact, dust, insects, rodents, and other contamination.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0610 Molluscan Shellfish Tanks. 4-204.110
A. Except as specified in item B, molluscan shellfish life support system display tanks must be used only to display shellfish that are not offered for human consumption and must be conspicuously marked so that it is obvious to the consumer that the shellfish are for display only.P1
B. Molluscan shellfish life support system display tanks used to store or display shellfish that are offered for human consumption must be operated and maintained according to a variance granted by the regulatory authority as specified in parts 4626.1690 to 4626.1715, and a HACCP plan that:P2
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0615 Vending Machines; Automatic Shutoff. 4-204.111
A. A machine vending TCS food must have an automatic control that prevents the machine from vending food:
B. When the automatic shutoff within a machine vending TCS food is activated:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0620 Ambient Air Temperature Measuring Devices. 4-204.112
A. In a mechanically refrigerated or hot food storage unit, the sensor of a temperature measuring device must be located to measure the air temperature or a simulated product temperature in the warmest part of a mechanically refrigerated unit and in the coolest part of a hot food storage unit.
B. Except as specified in item C, cold or hot holding equipment used for TCS food must be designed to include and must be equipped with at least 1 integral or permanently affixed temperature measuring device that is located to allow easy viewing of the device's temperature display.
C. Item B does not apply to equipment for which the placement of a temperature measuring device is not a practical means for measuring the ambient air surrounding the food because of the design, type, and use of the equipment, such as calrod units, heat lamps, cold plates, bainmaries, steam tables, insulated food transport containers, and salad bars.
D. Temperature measuring devices must be designed to be easily readable.
E. Food temperature measuring devices and water temperature measuring devices on warewashing machines must have a numerical scale, printed record, or digital readout in increments no greater than 2 degrees F or 1 degree C in the intended range of use.P2
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0625 Warewashing Machines; Data Plate Operating Specifications. 4-204.113
A warewashing machine must be provided with an easily accessible and readable data plate affixed to the machine by the manufacturer that indicates the machine's design and operating specifications, including the:
A. temperatures required for washing, rinsing, and sanitizing;
B. pressure required for the fresh water sanitizing rinse unless the machine is designed to use only a pumped sanitizing rinse; and
C. conveyor speed for conveyor machines or cycle time for stationary rack machines.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0630 Warewashing Machines; Internal Baffles. 4-204.114
Warewashing machine wash and rinse tanks must be equipped with baffles, curtains, or other means to minimize internal cross-contamination of the solutions in wash and rinse tanks.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0635 Warewashing Machines; Temperature Measuring Devices. 4-204.115
A warewashing machine must be equipped with a temperature measuring device that indicates the temperature of the water:
A. in each wash and rinse tank;P2 and
B. as the water enters the hot water sanitizing final rinse manifold or in the chemical sanitizing solution tank.P2
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0640 Manual Warewashing Equipment; Heaters and Baskets. 4-204.116
If hot water is used for sanitization in manual warewashing operations, the sanitizing compartment of the sink must be:
A. designed with an integral heating device that is capable of maintaining water at a temperature not less than 171 degrees F (77 degrees C);P2 and
B. provided with a rack or basket to allow complete immersion of equipment and utensils into the hot water.P2
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0643 Warewashing Machines; Automatic Dispensing of Detergents and Sanitizers. 4-204.117
A warewashing machine that is installed after September 8, 1998, must be equipped to:
A. automatically dispense detergents and sanitizers;P2 and
B. incorporate a visual means to verify that detergents and sanitizers are delivered or a visual or audible alarm to signal if the detergents and sanitizers are not delivered to the respective washing and sanitizing cycles.P2
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0645 Warewashing Machines; Flow Pressure Device. 4-204.118
A. Warewashing machines that provide a fresh hot water sanitizing rinse must be equipped with a pressure gauge, or similar device such as a transducer, that measures and displays the water pressure in the supply line immediately before entering the warewashing machine.
B. If the flow pressure measuring device is upstream of the fresh hot water sanitizing rinse control valve, the device must be mounted in a 1/4-inch (6.4 millimeter) iron pipe size (IPS) valve.
C. Items A and B do not apply to a machine that uses only a pumped or recirculated sanitizing rinse.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0650 Warewashing Sinks and Drainboards; Self-Draining. 4-204.119
Sinks and drainboards of warewashing sinks and machines must be self-draining.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0655 Equipment; Drainage. 4-204.120
Compartments that are subject to accumulation of moisture due to conditions such as condensation, food or beverage drip, or water from melting ice, must be sloped to an outlet that allows complete draining.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0660 Vending Machines; Liquid Waste Products. 4-204.121
A. Vending machines designed to store beverages that are packaged in containers made from paper products must be equipped with diversion devices and retention pans or drains for container leakage.
B. Vending machines that dispense liquid food in bulk must be:
C. The shutoff device in item B, subitem (2), must prevent water or liquid food from continuously running if there is a failure of a flow control device in the water or liquid food system or waste accumulation that could lead to overflow of the waste receptacle.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0665 Case Lot Handling Apparatuses; Moveability. 4-204.122
Apparatuses, such as dollies, pallets, racks, and skids, used to store and transport large quantities of packaged foods received from a supplier in a cased or overwrapped lot must be designed to be moved by hand or by conveniently available apparatuses such as hand trucks and forklifts.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0670 Vending Machine Doors and Openings. 4-204.123
A. Vending machine doors and access opening covers to food and container storage spaces must be tight-fitting so that the space along the entire interface between the doors or covers and the cabinet of the machine, if the doors or covers are in a closed position, is no greater than 1/16 inch (1.5 millimeters) by:
B. Vending machine service connection openings through an exterior wall of a machine must be closed by sealants, clamps, or grommets so that the openings are no larger than 1/16 inch (1.5 millimeters).
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0675 Cooling, Heating, and Holding Capacities. 4-301.11
Equipment for cooling and heating food, and holding cold and hot food, must be sufficient in number and capacity to provide the food temperatures specified in parts 4626.0360, 4626.0370, 4626.0385, and 4626.0395.P2
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0680 Manual Warewashing; Sink Compartment Requirements. 4-301.12
A. Except as specified in items C to H, a sink with at least 3 compartments and with integrally attached drainboards at each end must be provided for manually washing, rinsing, and sanitizing equipment and utensils.P2
B. Sink compartments must be large enough to accommodate immersion of the largest equipment and utensils. If equipment or utensils are too large for the warewashing sink, a warewashing machine or alternative equipment specified in item C must be used.P2
C. Alternative manual warewashing equipment that meets the requirements in parts 4626.0875 and 4626.0880 may be used when there are special cleaning needs or constraints and its use is approved by the regulatory authority. Alternative manual warewashing equipment may include:
D. The regulatory authority may allow mechanical warewashing equipment in lieu of the required 3-compartment sink as long as the mechanical warewashing equipment is capable of accommodating the largest piece of equipment to be washed, rinsed, and sanitized and meets the requirements of parts 4626.0506 and 4626.0905.
E. A food cart that does not have an approved 3-compartment sink installed on the cart must have a separate licensed facility, or an agreement with a licensed facility. The facility must have an approved 3-compartment sink or mechanical warewashing machine where all the utensils and multiuse equipment for the food cart are washed, rinsed, and sanitized before and after use at an event.P2
F. A mobile food unit must be equipped with warewashing facilities consisting of at least a 3-compartment sink, either freestanding or installed in a counter.P2
G. A seasonal temporary food stand that is disassembled after each use may use 3 containers of sufficient size to immerse utensils in lieu of the requirement in item A.
H. A special event food stand may be equipped with a warewashing facility consisting of at least 3 containers of sufficient size to fully immerse all multiuse equipment and utensils.
I. A food cart, special event food stand, temporary food establishment, retail food vehicle, portable structure, or cart is exempt from the manual warewashing sink and equipment requirements of this part if no multiuse utensils or equipment are used in the operation of the food establishment.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0685 Drainboards. 4-301.13
A. Integral drainboards, utensil racks, or tables large enough to accommodate all soiled and cleaned items that may accumulate during hours of operation must be provided for necessary utensil holding before cleaning and after sanitizing.
B. Hot water sanitizing machines must have space for and a minimum of 3 racks for drying utensils.
C. Chemical sanitizing machines must have space for and a minimum of 5 racks for drying utensils.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0690 Ventilation Hood Systems; Adequacy. 4-301.14
Ventilation hood systems and devices must be sufficient in number and capacity to prevent grease or condensation from collecting on walls and ceilings.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0695 Clothes Washers and Dryers. 4-301.15
A. Except as specified in item B, if work clothes or linens are laundered on the premises, a mechanical clothes washer and dryer must be provided and used.
B. If on-premises laundering is limited to wiping cloths intended to be used moist, or wiping cloths are air-dried as specified in part 4626.0940, a mechanical clothes washer and dryer need not be provided.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0700 Utensils; Consumer Self-Service. 4-302.11
A food dispensing utensil must be available for each container displayed at consumer self-service units such as a buffet or salad bar.P2
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0705 Food Temperature Measuring Devices Required. 4-302.12
A. Food temperature measuring devices must be provided and readily accessible for use in ensuring attainment and maintenance of the food temperatures specified in parts 4626.0165 and 4626.0340 to 4626.0420.P2
B. A temperature measuring device with a suitable small diameter probe that is designed to measure the temperature of thin masses must be provided and readily accessible to accurately measure the temperature in thin foods such as meat patties and fish fillets.P2
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0710 Temperature Measuring Devices; Warewashing. 4-302.13
A. In manual warewashing operations, a temperature measuring device must be provided and readily accessible for frequently measuring the washing and sanitizing temperatures.P2
B. In hot water mechanical warewashing operations, an irreversible registering temperature indicator must be provided and readily accessible for measuring the utensil surface temperature.P2
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0715 Sanitizing Solutions; Testing Devices. 4-302.14
A test kit or other device that accurately measures the concentration in mg/L of sanitizing solutions must be provided.P2
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0720 [Repealed, 43 SR 295]
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Minn. R. 4626.0721 Cleaning Agents and Sanitizers; Availability. 4-303.11
A. Cleaning agents that are used to clean equipment and utensils specified under parts 4626.0840 to 4626.0885 must be provided and available for use during all hours of operation.
B. Except for those that are generated onsite at the time of use, chemical sanitizers that are used to sanitize equipment and utensils specified in parts 4626.0900 and 4626.0905 must be provided and available for use during all hours of operation.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.07; 157.011
- History: 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0725 Fixed Equipment; Spacing or Sealing. 4-402.11
A. Equipment that is fixed because it is not easily movable must be installed so that it is:
B. Counter-mounted equipment that is not easily movable must be installed to allow cleaning of the equipment and areas underneath and around the equipment by being:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0730 Fixed Equipment; Elevation or Sealing. 4-402.12
A. Except as specified in items B and C, floor-mounted equipment that is not easily movable must be sealed to the floor or elevated on legs that provide at least a 6-inch (15 centimeter) clearance between the floor and the equipment.
B. If no part of the floor under the floor-mounted equipment is more than 6 inches (15 centimeters) from the point of cleaning access, the clearance space may be 4 inches (10 centimeters).
C. This part does not apply to display shelving units, display refrigeration units, and display freezer units located in the consumer shopping areas if the floor under the units is maintained clean.
D. Except as specified in item E, counter-mounted equipment that is not easily movable must be elevated on legs that provide at least a 4-inch (10 centimeter) clearance between the table and the equipment.
E. The clearance space between the table and counter-mounted equipment must be:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0735 Equipment; Good Repair and Proper Adjustment. 4-501.11
A. Equipment must be maintained in a state of repair and condition that meets the requirements in parts 4626.0450 to 4626.0670.
B. Equipment components such as doors, seals, hinges, fasteners, and kick plates must be kept intact, tight, and adjusted according to manufacturer's specifications.
C. Cutting or piercing parts of can openers must be kept sharp to minimize the creation of metal fragments that can contaminate food when the container is opened.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0740 Cutting Surfaces. 4-501.12
Surfaces such as cutting blocks and boards that are subject to scratching and scoring must be resurfaced if they can no longer be effectively cleaned and sanitized, or discarded if they are not capable of being resurfaced.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0745 Microwave Ovens. 4-501.13
Microwave ovens must meet the safety standards in Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, section 1030.10.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0750 Warewashing Equipment and Food Preparation Sinks; Cleaning Frequency. 4-501.14
A warewashing machine; the compartments of sinks, basins, or other receptacles used for washing and rinsing equipment, utensils, or raw foods, or laundering wiping cloths; and drainboards or other equipment used to substitute for drainboards as specified in part 4626.0685 must be cleaned:
A. before use;
B. throughout the day at a frequency necessary to prevent recontamination of equipment and utensils and to ensure that the equipment performs its intended function; and
C. if used, at least every 24 hours.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0755 Warewashing Machine; Manufacturer's Operating Instructions. 4-501.15
A. A warewashing machine and its auxiliary components must be operated according to the machine's data plate and other manufacturer's instructions.
B. A warewashing machine's conveyor speed or automatic cycle times must be maintained accurately timed according to manufacturer's specifications.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0760 Warewashing Sinks; Use Limitation. 4-501.16
A. A warewashing sink must not be used for handwashing or dumping mop water.
B. For food establishments licensed before September 8, 1998:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0765 Warewashing Equipment; Cleaning Agents. 4-501.17
When used for warewashing, the wash compartment of a sink, mechanical warewasher, or wash receptacle of alternative manual warewashing equipment specified in part 4626.0680, item C, must contain a wash solution of soap, detergent, acid cleaner, alkaline cleaner, degreaser, abrasive cleaner, or other cleaning agent according to the cleaning agent manufacturer's label instructions.P2
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0770 Warewashing Equipment; Clean Solutions. 4-501.18
The wash, rinse, and sanitize solutions must be maintained clean.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0775 Manual Warewashing Equipment; Wash Solution Temperature. 4-501.19
The temperature of the wash solution in manual warewashing equipment must be maintained at not less than 110 degrees F (43 degrees C) or the temperature specified on the cleaning agent manufacturer's label instructions.P2
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0780 Food Preparation Sinks
A. A newly licensed food establishment must have a separate food preparation sink if food will be washed or thawed using a sink.
B. If a food establishment is extensively remodeled, or adds a food product to the menu that requires washing or thawing in a sink, a separate food preparation sink must be provided.
C. A food preparation sink must not be used for anything other than food preparation.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0785 Mechanical Warewashing Equipment; Wash Solution Temperature. 4-501.110
A. The temperature of the wash solution in spray-type warewashers that use hot water to sanitize must not be less than:
B. The temperature of the wash solution in spray-type warewashers that use chemicals to sanitize must not be less than 120 degrees F (49 degrees C).P2
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0790 Manual Warewashing Equipment; Hot Water Sanitization Temperatures. 4-501.111
If immersion in hot water is used for sanitizing in a manual operation, the temperature of the water must be maintained at 171 degrees F (77 degrees C) or above.P1
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0795 Mechanical Warewashing Equipment; Hot Water Sanitization Temperatures. 4-501.112
A. Except as specified in item B, in a mechanical operation, the temperature of the fresh hot water sanitizing rinse as it enters the manifold must not be more than 194 degrees F (90 degrees C) or less than:P2
B. The maximum temperature specified in item A does not apply to high pressure and temperature systems with wand-type, hand-held spraying devices used for in-place cleaning and sanitizing of equipment, such as meat saws.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0800 Mechanical Warewashing Equipment; Sanitization Rinse Pressure. 4-501.113
The flow pressure of the fresh hot water sanitizing rinse in a warewashing machine, as measured in the water line immediately downstream or upstream from the fresh hot water sanitizing rinse control valve, must be within the range specified on the machine manufacturer's data plate and must not be less than 5 pounds per square inch (35 kilopascals) or more than 30 pounds per square inch (200 kilopascals).
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0805 Manual and Mechanical Warewashing Equipment; Chemical Sanitization, Temperature, Ph, Concentration, and Hardness. 4-501.114
A. A chemical sanitizer used in a sanitizing solution for a manual or mechanical operation at the exposure times specified in part 4626.0905, item C, must meet the requirements of part 4626.1620. The sanitizer must be used according to this part and the manufacturer's label approved by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency.P1
B. The sanitizer must not exceed the amount specified on the manufacturer's label approved by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency.P1
C. If a sanitizer is used in an amount less than the maximum amount specified on the label in item B, the sanitizer must be used as specified in this item.P1
D. If another solution of a chemical specified under items A to C is used, the licensee shall demonstrate that the solution achieves sanitization as defined in part 4626.0020, subpart 75, and the use of the solution must be approved by the regulatory authority.P1
E. If a chemical sanitizer other than chlorine, iodine, or a quaternary ammonium compound is used, the chemical sanitizer must be applied according to U.S. Environmental Protection Agency-registered label use instructions.P1
F. If a chemical sanitizer is generated by a device located on site at the food establishment, it must be used as specified in items A to D and must be produced by a device that:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0810 Manual Warewashing Equipment; Chemical Sanitization Using Detergent-Sanitizers. 4-501.115
If a detergent-sanitizer is used to sanitize in a cleaning and sanitizing procedure where there is no distinct water rinse between the washing and sanitizing steps, the agent applied in the sanitizing step must be the same detergent-sanitizer that is used in the washing step.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0815 Warewashing Equipment Test Kit. 4-501.116
Concentration of the sanitizing solution must be accurately determined by using a test kit or other device.P2
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0820 Utensils and Temperature Measuring Devices; Good Repair and Proper Calibration. 4-502.11
A. Utensils must be maintained in a state of repair or condition that complies with parts 4626.0450 to 4626.0670 or must be discarded.
B. Food temperature measuring devices must be calibrated according to manufacturer's specifications as necessary to ensure their accuracy.P2
C. Ambient air temperature, water pressure, and water temperature measuring devices must be maintained in good repair and be accurate within the intended range of use.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0825 Single-Service and Single-Use Articles; Required Use. 4-502.12
A food establishment without facilities specified in parts 4626.0840 to 4626.0905 for cleaning and sanitizing kitchenware and tableware must provide only single-use kitchenware, single-service articles, and single-use articles for use by food employees and single-service articles for use by the consumer.P1
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0830 Single-Service and Single-Use Articles; Re-Use Limitation. 4-502.13
Single-service and single-use articles must not be re-used.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0833 Bulk Milk Containers
The bulk milk container dispensing tube must be cut on the diagonal leaving no more than 1 inch protruding from the chilled dispensing head.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0835 Shells; Use Limitation. 4-502.14
Mollusk and crustacea shells must not be used more than once as serving containers.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0840 Equipment, Food-Contact Surfaces, Non-Food-Contact Surfaces, and Utensils. 4-601.11
A. Equipment food-contact surfaces and utensils must be clean to sight and touch.P2
B. The food-contact surfaces of cooking equipment and pans must be kept free of encrusted grease deposits and other soil accumulations.
C. Non-food-contact surfaces of equipment must be kept free of an accumulation of dust, dirt, food residue, and other debris.
D. Water filters used as part of a vending machine must be cleaned or replaced according to the manufacturer's instructions.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0845 Equipment; Food-Contact Surfaces, and Utensils. 4-602.11
A. Equipment food-contact surfaces and utensils must be cleaned:
B. Item A, subitem (1), does not apply if the food-contact surface or utensil is in contact with a succession of different raw animal foods each requiring a higher cooking temperature than the previous type as specified in part 4626.0340.
C. Except as specified in item D, if used with TCS food, equipment food-contact surfaces and utensils must be cleaned throughout the day at least once every 4 hours.P1
D. Surfaces of utensils and equipment contacting TCS food may be cleaned less frequently than every 4 hours if:
E. Except when dry cleaning methods are used as specified in part 4626.0860, surfaces of utensils and equipment contacting food that is not TCS food must be cleaned:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0850 Cooking and Baking Equipment. 4-602.12
A. The food-contact surfaces of cooking and baking equipment must be cleaned at least every 24 hours. This part does not apply to hot oil cooking and filtering equipment if it is cleaned as specified in part 4626.0845, item D, subitem (6).
B. The cavities and door seals of microwave ovens must be cleaned at least every 24 hours by using the manufacturer's recommended cleaning procedure.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0855 Non-Food-Contact Surfaces; Cleaning Frequency. 4-602.13
Non-food-contact surfaces of equipment must be cleaned at a frequency necessary to preclude accumulation of soil residues.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0860 Dry Cleaning. 4-603.11
A. If used, dry cleaning methods such as brushing, scraping, and vacuuming must contact only surfaces that are soiled with dry food residues that are not TCS food.
B. Cleaning equipment used in dry cleaning food-contact surfaces must not be used for any other purpose.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0865 Precleaning. 4-603.12
A. Food debris on equipment and utensils must be scraped over a waste disposal unit or garbage receptacle or must be removed in a warewashing machine with a prewash cycle.
B. If necessary for effective cleaning, utensils and equipment must be preflushed, presoaked, or scrubbed with abrasives.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0870 Loading of Soiled Items; Warewashing Machines. 4-603.13
Soiled items to be cleaned in a warewashing machine must be loaded into racks, trays, or baskets or onto conveyors in a position that:
A. exposes the items to the unobstructed spray from all cycles; and
B. allows the items to drain.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0875 Wet Cleaning. 4-603.14
A. Equipment food-contact surfaces and utensils must be effectively washed to remove or completely loosen soils by using the manual or mechanical means necessary, such as the application of detergents containing wetting agents and emulsifiers; acid, alkaline, or abrasive cleaners; hot water; brushes; scouring pads; high-pressure sprays; or ultrasonic devices.
B. The washing procedures selected must be based on the type and purpose of the equipment or utensil and on the type of soil to be removed.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0880 Washing; Procedures for Alternative Manual Warewashing Equipment. 4-603.15
If washing in sink compartments or a warewashing machine is impractical, such as when the equipment is fixed or the utensils are too large, washing must be done by using alternative manual warewashing equipment specified in part 4626.0680, item C, according to the following procedures:
A. equipment must be disassembled as necessary to allow access of the detergent solution to all parts;
B. equipment components and utensils must be scraped or roughly cleaned to remove food particle accumulation; and
C. equipment and utensils must be washed as specified in part 4626.0875, item A.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0885 Utensils and Equipment; Rinsing Procedures. 4-603.16
Washed utensils and equipment must be rinsed so that abrasives are removed and cleaning chemicals are removed or diluted through the use of water or a detergent-sanitizer solution using one of the following procedures:
A. use of a distinct, separate water rinse after washing and before sanitizing if using:
B. use of a detergent-sanitizer specified in part 4626.0810 if using:
C. if using a warewashing machine that does not recycle the sanitizing solution as specified in item D, or alternative manual warewashing equipment, such as sprayers, use of a nondistinct water rinse that is:
D. if using a warewashing machine that recycles the sanitizing solution for use in the next wash cycle, use of a nondistinct water rinse that is integrated in the application of the sanitizing solution.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0890 [Repealed, 43 SR 295]
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Minn. R. 4626.0895 [Repealed, 43 SR 295]
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Minn. R. 4626.0900 Before Use After Cleaning. 4-702.11
Utensils and food-contact surfaces of equipment must be sanitized before use after cleaning.P1
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0905 Hot Water and Chemical Sanitization. 4-703.11
After being cleaned, equipment, food-contact surfaces, and utensils must be sanitized in:
A. hot water manual operations by immersion for at least 30 seconds as specified in part 4626.0790;P1
B. hot water mechanical operations by being cycled through equipment that is set up as specified in parts 4626.0755, 4626.0795, and 4626.0800 and achieving a utensil surface temperature of 160 degrees F (71 degrees C) as measured by an irreversible registering temperature indicator;P1 or
C. chemical manual or mechanical operations, including the application of sanitizing chemicals by immersion, manual swabbing, brushing, or pressure spraying methods, using a solution specified in part 4626.0805. Contact times must be consistent with U.S. Environmental Protection Agency-registered label use instructions by providing:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0910 Clean Linens. 4-801.11
Clean linens must be free from food residues and other soiling matter.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0915 Linens, Cloth Gloves, and Wiping Cloths; Frequency of Laundering. 4-802.11
A. Linens that do not come in direct contact with food must be laundered between operations if they become wet, sticky, or visibly soiled.
B. Cloth gloves used as specified in part 4626.0287, item D, must be laundered before being used with a different type of raw animal food, such as beef, lamb, pork, fish, or poultry.
C. Linens used as specified in part 4626.0280 and cloth napkins must be laundered between each use.
D. Wet wiping cloths must be laundered daily.
E. Dry wiping cloths must be laundered as necessary to prevent contamination of food and clean serving utensils.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0920 Storage of Soiled Linens. 4-803.11
Soiled linens must be kept in clean, nonabsorbent receptacles or clean, washable laundry bags and stored and transported to prevent contamination of food, clean equipment, clean utensils, and single-service and single-use articles.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0925 Linens; Mechanical Washing. 4-803.12
A. Except as specified in item B, linens must be mechanically washed.
B. In food establishments in which only wiping cloths are laundered as specified in part 4626.0695, item B, the wiping cloths may be laundered in a mechanical washer, a sink designated only for laundering wiping cloths, or a warewashing sink that is cleaned as specified in part 4626.0750.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0930 Laundry Facilities; Use Limitations. 4-803.13
A. Except as specified in item B, laundry facilities on the premises of a food establishment must be used only for the washing and drying of items used in the operation of the establishment.
B. Separate laundry facilities located on the premises for general laundering for institutions providing boarding and lodging may also be used for laundering food establishment items.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0935 Equipment and Utensils; Air-Drying Required. 4-901.11
A. Except as specified in item B, after cleaning and sanitizing, equipment and utensils must be air-dried.
B. Utensils that have been air-dried may be polished with cloths that are maintained clean and dry.
C. After cleaning and sanitizing, equipment and utensils must be adequately drained before contacting food if chemical sanitizer formulations and limits in Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, section 180.940, are used.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0940 Wiping Cloths; Air-Drying Locations. 4-901.12
Wiping cloths laundered in a food establishment that does not have a mechanical clothes dryer specified in part 4626.0695, item B, must be air-dried in a location and in a manner that prevents contamination of food, equipment, utensils, linens, single-service and single-use articles, and the wiping cloths. This part does not apply if wiping cloths are stored after laundering in a sanitizing solution as specified in part 4626.0805.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0945 Lubricants; Food-Contact Surfaces. 4-902.11
Lubricants as specified in part 4626.1640 must be applied to food-contact surfaces that require lubrication in a manner that does not contaminate the food-contact surfaces.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0950 Equipment Reassembly. 4-902.12
Equipment must be reassembled so that food-contact surfaces are not contaminated.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0955 Equipment, Utensils, Linens, and Single-Service and Single-Use Articles; Storage. 4-903.11
A. Except as specified in item D, clean equipment and utensils, laundered linens, and single-service and single-use articles must be stored:
B. Clean equipment and utensils must be stored as specified in item A and must be stored:
C. Single-service and single-use articles must be stored as specified in item A and must be kept in the original protective package or stored by using other means that afford protection from contamination until used.
D. Items that are kept in closed packages may be stored less than 6 inches (15 centimeters) above the floor on dollies, pallets, racks, and skids that are designed as specified in part 4626.0665.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0960 Storage Prohibitions. 4-903.12
A. Except as specified in item B, food, cleaned and sanitized equipment, utensils, laundered linens, or single-service and single-use articles must not be stored:
B. Laundered linens and single-service and single-use articles that are packaged or in a facility such as a cabinet may be stored in a locker room.
C. If a mechanical clothes washer and dryer is provided, it must be located so that the washer and dryer is protected from contamination and is located only in an area where there is no exposed food, clean equipment, utensils, or linens, or unwrapped single-service or single-use articles.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0965 Kitchenware and Tableware. 4-904.11
A. Single-service and single-use articles and cleaned and sanitized utensils must be handled, displayed, and dispensed so that contamination of a food-contact or lip-contact surface is prevented.
B. Knives, forks, and spoons that are not prewrapped must be presented so that only the handles are touched by employees and by consumers if consumer self-service is provided.
C. Except as specified in item B, single-service articles that are intended for food contact or lip contact must be furnished for consumer self-service with the original individual wrapper intact or from an approved dispenser.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0970 Soiled Tableware. 4-904.12
Soiled tableware must be removed from consumer eating and drinking areas and handled so that clean tableware is not contaminated.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0975 Preset Tableware. 4-904.13
A. Except as specified in item B, tableware that is preset must be protected from contamination by being wrapped, covered, or inverted.
B. Preset tableware may be exposed if:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0977 Rinsing Equipment and Utensils After Cleaning and Sanitizing. 4-904.14
After being cleaned and sanitized, equipment and utensils must not be rinsed before air drying or use unless:
A. the rinse is applied directly from a drinking water supply by a warewashing machine that is maintained and operated as specified in parts 4626.0625 to 4626.0645 and 4626.0735 to 4626.0815; and
B. the rinse is applied only after the equipment and utensils have been sanitized by the application of hot water, or by the application of a chemical sanitizer solution where the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency-registered label use instruction calls for rinsing off the sanitizer after it is applied in a commercial warewashing machine.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.07; 157.011
- History: 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0980 Drinking Water Approved Source. 5-101.11
Drinking water must be obtained from an approved source that meets the requirements in chapters 4720 and 4725 and Minnesota Statutes, section 31.175.P1
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0985 Drinking Water System Flushing and Disinfection. 5-101.12
A drinking water system must be flushed and disinfected according to chapters 4714, 4720, and 4725 before being placed in service after construction, repair, or modification and after an emergency situation, such as a flood, that may introduce contamination to the system.P1
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 40 SR 71; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0990 Bottled Drinking Water. 5-101.13
Bottled drinking water used or sold in a food establishment must be obtained from approved sources according to Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, part 129, and must comply with parts 1550.3200 to 1550.3320 and applicable federal and state laws.P1
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.0995 Drinking Water Standards. 5-102.11
Except as specified in part 4626.1000:
A. water from a public water system must meet the requirements of chapters 4714, 4720, and 4725;P1 and
B. water from a nonpublic water system must meet the drinking water quality standards of noncommunity transient water systems.P1
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 40 SR 71; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1000 Nondrinking Water. 5-102.12
Nondrinking water may be used only for nonculinary purposes such as air conditioning, nonfood equipment cooling, and fire protection.P1
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1005 Water Sampling. 5-102.13
A. Drinking water from a public water system must be sampled and tested as required in chapter 4720.P2
B. Drinking water from a nonpublic water system must be sampled at the same frequency and tested for the same parameters as a public noncommunity transient water system. Sample collection protocols must follow the requirements in chapter 4720.P2
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1010 Water Sample Report; Notification and Retention. 5-102.14
A. The most recent report of water quality shall be retained on file in the food establishment and the report shall be maintained as specified in chapter 4720.
B. The licensee of a food establishment with a nonpublic water system shall notify the regulatory authority of the failure to comply with national primary drinking water regulations as follows:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1015 Water System Capacity. 5-103.11
A. The water source and system must be of sufficient capacity to meet the peak water demands of the food establishment.P2
B. Hot water generation and distribution systems must be sufficient to meet the peak hot water demands throughout the food establishment.P2
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1020 Water Pressure. 5-103.12
Water under pressure must be provided to all fixtures, equipment, and nonfood equipment that are required to use water except that a seasonal temporary food stand that is disassembled after every use, a special event food stand, or a response to a temporary interruption of a water supply need not be under pressure.P2
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1025 [Repealed, 43 SR 295]
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Minn. R. 4626.1030 Water System. 5-104.11
Water must be received from the source through the use of:
A. an approved public water main regulated under chapter 4720;P2 or
B. one or more of the following means that must be constructed, maintained, and operated according to applicable state laws and rules:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 40 SR 71; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1035 Alternative Water Supply. 5-104.12
Water meeting the requirements of parts 4626.0980 to 4626.1020 must be made available for a food cart, mobile food unit, seasonal temporary food stand, or special event food stand without a permanent water supply, and for a food establishment with a temporary interruption of its water supply through:
A. containers of commercially bottled drinking water that comply with Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, part 129, and parts 1550.3200 to 1550.3320;P2
B. one or more closed portable water containers that comply with parts 4720.4300 to 4720.4400 and applicable state laws;P2
C. an enclosed vehicular water tank that complies with parts 4720.4300 to 4720.4400;P2
D. piping, tubing, or hoses connected to an adjacent source that complies with parts 4626.1140 and 4626.1160 and chapters 4720 and 4725;P2 or
E. a water vending machine as defined in part 1550.3200, subpart 32.P2
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1040 Plumbing System; Approved Materials, Installation, and Maintenance. 5-201.11
A. A plumbing system must be designed, constructed, installed, and repaired with approved materials, equipment, and devices according to chapter 4714 and Minnesota Statutes, sections 326B.43 to 326B.49.P1
B. A plumbing system must be maintained in good repair.
C. A water filter must be made of safe materials.P1
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; L 2007 c 140 art 6 s 15; art 13 s 4; 40 SR 71; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1045 [Repealed, 43 SR 295]
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Minn. R. 4626.1050 Handwashing Sink; Installation. 5-202.12
A. A handwashing sink must be equipped to provide water at a temperature to allow handwashing for at least 15 seconds through a mixing valve or combination faucet.P2
B. A steam mixing valve must not be used at a handwashing sink.
C. A self-closing, slow-closing, or metering faucet must provide a flow of water for at least 15 seconds without the need to reactivate the faucet.
D. An automatic handwashing facility must be installed according to the manufacturer's instructions and specifications.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1055 [Repealed, 43 SR 295]
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Minn. R. 4626.1060 [Repealed, 43 SR 295]
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Minn. R. 4626.1065 Water Conditioning Device; Design. 5-202.15
A water filter, screen, or other water conditioning device installed on water lines must be designed and located to facilitate disassembly for periodic servicing and cleaning. A water filter element must be a replaceable type.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1070 Handwashing Sinks; Numbers and Capacity. 5-203.11
A. Except as specified in items B and C, each food establishment must install at least 1 handwashing sink, or the number of handwashing sinks necessary for the convenient use by employees in the areas specified in part 4626.1095.P2
B. When food exposure is limited and handwashing sinks are not conveniently available at vending machine locations, employees may use chemically treated towelettes for handwashing.
C. A special event food stand or seasonal temporary food stand that is disassembled after each use may use a handwashing device with water delivered under pressure or by gravity with a faucet or spigot that provides hands-free flow of water.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 40 SR 71; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1075 Toilets and Urinals. 5-203.12
A. At least 1 toilet and not fewer than the number of toilets required by federal and state laws and rules must be provided. Urinals may be substituted for toilets if more than the minimum number of toilets required under state or federal laws and rules are provided.
B. A plumbing fixture such as a handwashing sink, toilet, or urinal must be easily cleanable.
C. A food cart, special event food stand, temporary food establishment, retail food vehicle, portable structure, or cart is exempt from item A.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 40 SR 71; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1080 Service Sink. 5-203.13
A. At least 1 service sink or 1 curbed cleaning facility equipped with a floor drain must be provided and conveniently located for the cleaning of mops or similar wet floor cleaning tools and for the disposal of mop water and similar liquid waste. The service sink must not be used for any other purpose.
B. Toilets and urinals must not be used as a service sink for the disposal of mop water and similar liquid waste.
C. A food cart, special event food stand, temporary food establishment, retail food vehicle, portable structure, or cart is exempt from item A.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1085 Backflow Prevention Device; When Required. 5-203.14
A. A plumbing system must be installed to preclude backflow of a solid, liquid, or gas contaminant into the water supply system at each point of use at the food establishment according to chapter 4714.P1
B. A backflow prevention device must be located so that it may be serviced and maintained.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1090 [Repealed, 43 SR 295]
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Minn. R. 4626.1095 Handwashing Sinks. 5-204.11
A handwashing sink must be located:
A. to allow convenient use by employees in food preparation, food dispensing, and warewashing areas;P2 and
B. in, or immediately adjacent to, toilet rooms.P2
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1100 [Repealed, 43 SR 295]
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Minn. R. 4626.1105 [Repealed, 43 SR 295]
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Minn. R. 4626.1110 Using Handwashing Sinks. 5-205.11
A. A handwashing sink must be maintained so that it is accessible at all times for employee use.P2
B. A handwashing sink must not be used for purposes other than handwashing.P2
C. An automatic handwashing facility must be used according to the manufacturer's instructions.P2
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1115 Cross-Connections Prohibited. 5-205.12
A. A person shall not create a cross-connection by connecting a pipe or conduit between the drinking water system and a nondrinking water system or a water system of unknown quality.P1
B. The piping of a nondrinking water system must be durably identified so that it is readily distinguishable from piping that carries drinking water.P2
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1120 Scheduling Inspection and Service for a Water System Device. 5-205.13
A device such as a water treatment device or backflow preventer must be scheduled for inspection and service according to the manufacturer's instructions and as necessary to prevent device failure based on local water conditions. Records demonstrating inspection and service must be maintained by the person in charge.P2
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 40 SR 71; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1125 Water Reservoir of Fogging Devices; Cleaning. 5-205.14
A. A reservoir that is used to supply water to a produce fogger or similar device must be:
B. Cleaning procedures must include at least the following steps and must be conducted at least once a week:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1130 [Repealed, 43 SR 295]
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Minn. R. 4626.1135 Water Tanks; Approved. 5-301.11
A water tank used to supply a food establishment, a food cart, a temporary food establishment, or any appurtenances must meet:
A. the requirements specified in parts 4626.1135 to 4626.1175;
B. the requirements specified in part 4626.0450; and
C. the standards for water haulers specified in parts 4720.4300 to 4720.4400.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1140 Drinking Water Hose; Construction and Identification. 5-302.16
A hose used for conveying drinking water from a water tank must be:
A. of a food grade material;P1
B. durable, corrosion-resistant, and nonabsorbent;
C. resistant to pitting, chipping, crazing, scratching, scoring, distortion, and decomposition;
D. finished with a smooth interior surface; and
E. clearly and durably identified as to its use if not permanently attached to the water source.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1145 Filter; Compressed Air. 5-303.11
A filter that does not pass oil or oil vapors must be installed in the air supply line between the compressor and drinking water system when compressed air is used to pressurize the water tank system.P1
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1150 Water Inlet, Outlet, and Hoses; Protective Cover or Device. 5-303.12
A cap and keeper chain, closed cabinet, closed storage tube, or other approved protective cover or device must be provided for a water inlet, outlet, and hose when the device is not in use.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1155 Mobile Food Establishment Water Tank Inlet. 5-303.13
A mobile food establishment's water tank inlet must be:
A. 3/4 inch (19.1 millimeters) in inner diameter or less; and
B. provided with a hose connection of a size or type that will prevent its use for any other service.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1160 Water System Flushing and Sanitization. 5-304.11
A water tank, pump, and hose must be flushed and sanitized before being placed in service after construction, repair, modification, and periods of nonuse.P1
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1165 Water Tank, Pump, and Hose; Backflow Prevention. 5-304.12
A person shall operate a water tank, pump, and hose so that backflow and other contamination of the water supply are prevented.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1170 [Repealed, 43 SR 295]
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Minn. R. 4626.1175 Water Tank, Pump, and Hose; Dedication. 5-304.14
A. Except as specified in item B, water tanks, pumps, and hoses used for conveying drinking water must be used for no other purpose.P1
B. Water tanks, pumps, and hoses approved for liquid foods may be used for conveying drinking water if they are cleaned and sanitized before they are used to convey water.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1180 Sewage Holding Tank Capacity and Drainage. 5-401.11
A. A sewage holding tank in a mobile food unit or seasonal temporary food establishment must be:
B. The sewage must not be discharged on the ground.
C. The regulatory authority may approve an alternate method for conveying and disposing of sewage from a mobile food unit or seasonal temporary food establishment in lieu of a waste-holding tank. The alternative method of conveying and disposing of sewage must meet the requirements of part 4626.1200.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1185 [Repealed, 43 SR 295]
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Minn. R. 4626.1190 Backflow Prevention. 5-402.11
A. Except as specified in items B, C, and D, a direct connection must not exist between the sewage system and a drain originating from equipment in which food, portable equipment, or utensils are placed.P1
B. Item A does not apply to floor drains that originate in refrigerated spaces that are constructed as an integral part of the building.
C. If allowed by chapter 4714, a warewashing machine may have a direct connection between its waste outlet and a floor drain when the machine is located within 5 feet (1.5 meters) of a trapped floor drain and the machine outlet is connected to the inlet side of a properly vented floor drain trap.
D. If allowed by chapter 4714, a warewashing or culinary sink may have a direct connection.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 40 SR 71; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1195 Grease Trap. 5-402.12
If used, a grease trap must be located to be easily accessible for cleaning.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1200 Conveying Sewage. 5-402.13
Sewage must be conveyed to the point of disposal through an approved sanitary sewage system or other system, including use of sewage transport vehicles, waste retention tanks, pumps, pipes, hoses, and connections that are constructed, maintained, and operated according to chapters 7080 and 7081, and Minnesota Statutes, section 115.55.P1
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1205 Removing Temporary Food Establishment Wastes. 5-402.14
Sewage and other liquid wastes must be removed from a food cart, special event food stand, temporary food establishment, retail food vehicle, portable structure, or cart at an approved waste servicing area or by a sewage transport vehicle in such a way that a public health hazard or nuisance is not created.P2
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1210 Flushing Waste Retention Tank. 5-402.15
A tank for liquid waste retention must be thoroughly flushed and drained in a sanitary manner during the servicing operation.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1215 Approved Sewage Disposal System. 5-403.11
Sewage must be disposed through an approved facility that is:
A. a public sewage treatment plant;P1 or
B. an individual sewage disposal system that is sized, constructed, maintained, and operated according to chapters 7080 and 7081.P1
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1220 Other Liquid Wastes and Rainwater. 5-403.12
Condensate drainage and other nonsewage liquids and rainwater must be drained from point of discharge to disposal according to chapters 7080, 7081, and 7083.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1225 Refuse; Indoor Storage Area. 5-501.10
If located within the food establishment, a storage area for refuse, recyclables, and returnables must meet the requirements in parts 4626.1325, 4626.1335 to 4626.1370, 4626.1395, and 4626.1400.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1230 Refuse; Outdoor Storage Surface. 5-501.11
An outdoor storage surface for refuse, recyclables, and returnables must be constructed of nonabsorbent material such as concrete or asphalt and must be smooth, durable, and sloped to drain.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1235 Refuse; Outdoor Enclosure. 5-501.12
If used, an outdoor enclosure for refuse, recyclables, and returnables must be constructed of durable and cleanable materials.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1240 Refuse; Receptacles. 5-501.13
A. Except as specified in item B, receptacles and waste handling units for refuse, recyclables, and returnables and for use with materials containing food residue must be durable, cleanable, insect- and rodent-resistant, leakproof, and nonabsorbent.
B. Plastic bags and wet strength paper bags may be used to line receptacles for storage inside the food establishment or within closed outside receptacles.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1245 Refuse; Receptacles in Vending Machines. 5-501.14
A refuse receptacle must not be located within a vending machine, except that a receptacle for beverage bottle crown closures may be located within a vending machine.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1250 Refuse; Outside Receptacles. 5-501.15
A. Receptacles and waste handling units for refuse, recyclables, and returnables used with materials containing food residue and used outside the food establishment must be designed and constructed to have tight-fitting lids, doors, or covers.
B. Receptacles and waste handling units for refuse and recyclables, such as an on-site compactor, must be installed so that accumulation of debris and insect and rodent attraction and harborage are minimized and effective cleaning is facilitated around and, if the equipment is not installed flush with the base pad, under the unit.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1255 Refuse; Storage Areas, Rooms, and Receptacles; Capacity and Availability. 5-501.16
A. An inside storage room and area, an outside storage area and enclosure, and receptacles must be of sufficient capacity to hold refuse, recyclables, and returnables that accumulate.
B. A receptacle must be provided in each area of the food establishment or premises where refuse is generated or commonly discarded or where recyclables or returnables are placed.
C. If disposable towels are used at handwashing sinks, a waste receptacle must be located at each sink or group of adjacent sinks.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1260 Refuse; Toilet Room Receptacle; Covered. 5-501.17
A toilet room must be provided with a covered receptacle for sanitary napkins or diapers.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1265 Refuse; Cleaning Implements and Supplies. 5-501.18
A. Except as specified in item B, suitable cleaning implements and supplies such as high pressure pumps, hot water, steam, and detergent, must be provided as necessary to effectively clean receptacles and waste handling units for refuse, recyclables, and returnables.
B. Off-premises-based cleaning services with implements and supplies as specified in item A may be used if on-premises cleaning implements and supplies are not provided.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1270 Refuse; Storage Areas, Redeeming Machines, Equipment, and Receptacles; Location. 5-501.19
A. An area designated for refuse, recyclables, returnables, and, except as specified in item B, a redeeming machine for recyclables or returnables must be located so that it is separate from food, equipment, utensils, linens, and single-service and single-use articles and a nuisance or a public health hazard is not created.
B. A redeeming machine may be located in the packaged food storage area or consumer area of a food establishment if food, equipment, utensils, linens, and single-service and single-use articles are not subject to contamination from the machine and a public health hazard or nuisance is not created.
C. The location of receptacles and waste handling units for refuse, recyclables, and returnables must not create a public health hazard or nuisance or interfere with the cleaning of adjacent space.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1275 Storing Refuse, Recyclables, and Returnables; Insect and Rodent Control. 5-501.110
Refuse, recyclables, and returnables must be stored in receptacles or waste handling units so that they are inaccessible to insects and rodents.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1280 Areas, Enclosures, and Receptacles; Good Repair. 5-501.111
Storage areas, enclosures, and receptacles for refuse, recyclables, and returnables must be maintained in good repair.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1285 Outside Storage Prohibitions. 5-501.112
A. Except as specified in item B, refuse receptacles not meeting the requirements specified in part 4626.1240, item A, including receptacles that are not rodent-resistant, unprotected plastic bags and paper bags, and baled units that contain materials with food residue, must not be stored outside.
B. Cardboard or other packaging material that does not contain food residue and that is awaiting regularly scheduled delivery to a recycling or disposal site may be stored outside without being in a covered receptacle if it is stored so that it does not create a rodent harborage problem.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1290 Covering Receptacles. 5-501.113
Receptacles and waste handling units for refuse, recyclables, and returnables must be kept covered:
A. inside the food establishment:
B. with tight-fitting lids or doors if kept outside the food establishment.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1295 Using Drain Plugs. 5-501.114
Drains in receptacles and waste handling units for refuse, recyclables, and returnables must have drain plugs in place.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1300 Maintaining Refuse Areas and Enclosures. 5-501.115
A storage area and enclosure for refuse, recyclables, or returnables must be maintained free of unnecessary items, as specified in part 4626.1580, and clean.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1305 Cleaning Receptacles. 5-501.116
A. Receptacles and waste handling units for refuse, recyclables, and returnables must be thoroughly cleaned in a way that does not contaminate food, equipment, utensils, linens, or single-service and single-use articles, and wastewater must be disposed of according to part 4626.1200 and applicable state laws and rules.
B. Receptacles and waste handling units for refuse, recyclables, and returnables must be cleaned at a frequency necessary to prevent them from developing a build-up of soil or becoming attractants for insects and rodents.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1310 Refuse, Recyclables, and Returnables; Removal Frequency. 5-502.11
Refuse, recyclables, and returnables must be removed from the premises at a frequency that will minimize the development of objectionable odors and other conditions that attract or harbor insects and rodents.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1315 Receptacles or Vehicles. 5-502.12
Refuse, recyclables, and returnables must be removed from the premises by way of:
A. portable receptacles that are constructed and maintained according to applicable state laws and rules; or
B. a transport vehicle that is constructed, maintained, and operated according to applicable state laws and rules.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1320 Solid Waste Community or Individual Facility. 5-503.11
Solid waste not disposed of through the sewage system, such as through grinders and pulpers, must be recycled or disposed of in an approved public or private community recycling or refuse facility; or solid waste must be disposed of in an individual refuse facility such as a landfill or incinerator that is sized, constructed, maintained, and operated according to applicable state laws and rules.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1325 Floors, Walls, and Ceilings; Characteristics Indoor Areas and Materials. 6-101.11
A. Except as specified in item B, materials for indoor floor, wall, and ceiling surfaces under conditions of normal use must be:
B. In any food cart, special event food stand, seasonal temporary food stand, seasonal permanent food stand, portable structure, or cart:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1330 Outdoor Surfaces; Characteristics and Materials. 6-102.11
A. Outdoor walking and driving areas must be surfaced with concrete, asphalt, gravel, or other materials that have been effectively treated to minimize dust, facilitate maintenance, and prevent muddy conditions.
B. Exterior surfaces of buildings and mobile food units, seasonal permanent food stands, and retail food vehicles must be of weather-resistant materials and must comply with law.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1335 Floors, Walls, and Ceilings; Cleanability. 6-201.11
A. Except as specified in part 4626.1350, the floors, floor coverings, walls, wall coverings, and ceilings must be designed, constructed, and installed so they are smooth and easily cleanable, except that antislip floor coverings or applications may be used for safety reasons.
B. Sealed concrete is prohibited in those areas described in part 4626.1325, item A, subitem (3), if food product packages, containers, or cases in those areas are opened. Sealed concrete is permitted in areas used exclusively for refuse storage.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1340 Floors, Walls, and Ceilings; Utility Lines. 6-201.12
A. Utility service lines and pipes must not be unnecessarily exposed.
B. Exposed utility service lines and pipes must be installed so they do not obstruct or prevent cleaning of the floors, walls, or ceilings.
C. Exposed horizontal utility service lines and pipes must not be installed directly on the floor.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1345 Floor and Wall Junctures; Coved and Enclosed or Sealed. 6-201.13
A. In food establishments in which cleaning methods other than water flushing are used for cleaning floors, the floor and wall junctures must be coved and closed to no larger than 1/32 inch (1 millimeter).
B. The floors in food establishments in which water flushing cleaning methods are used must be provided with drains and graded to drain, and the floor and wall junctures must be coved and sealed.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1350 Floor Carpeting; Restrictions and Installation. 6-201.14
A. Carpeting or similar material must not be installed as a floor covering in food preparation areas; walk-in refrigerators or freezers; warewashing areas; toilet room areas where handwashing sinks, toilets, and urinals are located; refuse storage areas; wait stations; dressing rooms; locker rooms; janitorial areas; within 3 feet around permanently installed bars and salad bars, other food service equipment, and food storage rooms; or other areas where the floor is subject to moisture, flushing, or spray cleaning methods.
B. If carpeting is installed as a floor covering in areas other than those specified in item A, it must be:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1355 Floor Covering; Mats and Duckboards. 6-201.15
Mats and duckboards must be designed to be removable and easily cleanable.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1360 Wall and Ceiling Coverings and Coatings. 6-201.16
A. Wall and ceiling covering materials must be attached so that they are easily cleanable.
B. Except in areas used only for dry storage, concrete, porous blocks or bricks used for indoor wall construction must be finished and sealed to provide a smooth, nonabsorbent, easily cleanable surface.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1365 Walls and Ceilings; Attachments. 6-201.17
A. Except as specified in item B, attachments to walls and ceilings such as light fixtures, mechanical room ventilation system components, vent covers, wall mounted fans, decorative items, and other attachments must be easily cleanable.
B. In a consumer area, wall and ceiling surfaces and decorative items and attachments that are provided for ambiance need not comply with item A if they are kept clean.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1370 Walls and Ceilings; Studs, Joists, and Rafters. 6-201.18
Except for temporary food establishments, studs, joists, and rafters must not be exposed in areas subject to moisture.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1375 Light Bulbs; Protective Shielding. 6-202.11
A. Except as specified in item B, light bulbs must be shielded, coated, or otherwise shatter-resistant in areas where there is exposed food; clean equipment, utensils, and linens; or unwrapped single-service and single-use articles.
B. Shielded, coated, or otherwise shatter-resistant bulbs need not be used in areas used only for storing food in unopened packages, if:
C. An infrared or other heat lamp must be protected against breakage by a shield surrounding and extending beyond the bulb so that only the face of the bulb is exposed.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1380 Heating, Ventilating, and Air Conditioning System Vents. 6-202.12
Heating, ventilating, and air conditioning systems must be designed and installed so that make-up air intake and exhaust vents do not cause contamination of food, food-contact surfaces, equipment, or utensils. Systems must be installed according to chapter 1346.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1385 Insect Control Devices; Design and Installation. 6-202.13
A. Insect control devices that are used to electrocute or stun flying insects must be designed to retain the insect within the device.
B. Insect control devices must be installed so that:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1390 Toilet Rooms; Enclosed. 6-202.14
Except where a toilet room is located outside a food establishment and does not open directly into the food establishment, such as a toilet room that is provided by the management of a shopping mall, a toilet room located on the premises must be completely enclosed and provided with a tight-fitting and self-closing door or as specified in part 4626.1555.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1395 Outer Openings; Protected. 6-202.15
A. Except in food carts, special event food stands, temporary food establishments, retail food vehicles, portable structures, carts, or outside areas used for beverage service, such as alcohol bar service or as specified in items B, C, E, and F and under item D, outer openings of a food establishment must be protected against the entry of insects and rodents by:
B. Item A does not apply if a food establishment opens into a larger structure, such as a mall, airport, or office building, or into an attached structure, such as a porch, and the outer openings from the larger or attached structure are protected against the entry of insects and rodents.
C. Exterior doors used as exits need not be self-closing if they are:
D. Except as specified in items B and E, if the windows or doors of a food establishment, or those of a larger structure where a food establishment is located, are kept open for ventilation or other purposes, the openings must be protected against the entry of insects and rodents by:
E. Item D does not apply to a temporary food establishment that does not have windows and doors.
F. Item D does not apply if flying insects and other pests are absent due to the location of the establishment, the weather, or other limiting condition.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1400 Exterior Walls and Roofs; Protective Barrier. 6-202.16
A. Except as specified in item B, perimeter walls and roofs of a food establishment must effectively protect the establishment from the weather and the entry of insects, rodents, and other animals.
B. A food cart, special event food stand, temporary food establishment, retail vehicle, portable structure, or cart must provide protection during adverse weather by its construction or location. Food activities must cease if protection fails.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1405 Outdoor Food Vending Areas; Overhead Protection. 6-202.17
If located outside, a machine used to vend food must be provided with overhead protection except that machines vending canned beverages need not comply with this part.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1410 Outdoor Servicing Areas; Overhead Protection. 6-202.18
Servicing areas must be provided with overhead protection except that areas used only for loading water or discharging sewage and other liquid waste, through the use of a closed system of hoses, need not be provided with overhead protection.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1415 Outdoor Walking and Driving Surfaces; Graded to Drain. 6-202.19
The exterior walking and driving surfaces must be graded to drain.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1420 Outdoor Refuse Areas; Curbed and Graded to Drain. 6-202.110
Outdoor refuse areas must be constructed according to law and must be curbed and graded to drain to collect and dispose of liquid waste that results from the refuse and from cleaning the area and waste receptacles.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1425 Private Homes and Living or Sleeping Quarters; Use Prohibition. 6-202.111
A private home, a room used as living or sleeping quarters, or an area directly opening into a room used as living or sleeping quarters must not be used for conducting food establishment operations.P1
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1430 Living or Sleeping Quarters; Separation. 6-202.112
Living or sleeping quarters located on the premises of a food establishment, including those provided for lodging registration clerks or resident managers, must be separated from rooms and areas used for food establishment operations by complete partitioning and solid self-closing doors.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1435 [Repealed, 43 SR 295]
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Minn. R. 4626.1440 Handwashing Soap; Availability. 6-301.11
Each handwashing sink or group of 2 adjacent handwashing sinks must be provided with a supply of soap.P2
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1445 Hand Drying Provision. 6-301.12
Each handwashing sink or group of adjacent handwashing sinks must be provided with:
A. individual, disposable towels;P2
B. a continuous towel system that supplies the user with a clean towel;P2
C. a heated-air hand drying device;P2 or
D. a hand drying device that employs an air-knife system that delivers high velocity, pressurized air at ambient temperatures.P2
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1450 Disposable Towels; Waste Receptacle. 6-301.20
A waste receptacle must be provided as specified in part 4626.1255, item B, for each handwashing lavatory or group of adjacent lavatories that is provided with individual, disposable towels specified in part 4626.1255, item C.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1455 Handwashing Aids and Devices; Use Restrictions. 6-301.13
A sink used for food preparation or utensil washing, or a service sink or curbed cleaning facility used for the disposal of mop water or similar wastes, must not be provided with the handwashing aids and devices required for a handwashing sink as specified in parts 4626.1440 to 4626.1450.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1457 Handwashing Signage. 6-301.14
A sign or poster that notifies food employees to wash their hands must be provided at all handwashing sinks used by food employees and must be clearly visible to food employees.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.07; 157.011
- History: 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1460 [Repealed, 43 SR 295]
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Minn. R. 4626.1465 Toilet Tissue; Availability. 6-302.11
A supply of toilet tissue must be available at each toilet.P2
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1470 Lighting Intensity. 6-303.11
The light intensity must be:
A. at least 10 foot-candles (108 lux) at a distance of 30 inches (75 cm) above the floor, in walk-in refrigeration units and dry food storage areas, and in other areas and rooms during periods of cleaning;
B. at least 20 foot-candles (215 lux):
C. at least 50 foot-candles (540 lux) at a surface where a food employee is working with food or working with utensils or equipment, such as knives, slicers, grinders, or saws where employee safety is a factor.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1475 Ventilation; Mechanical. 6-304.11
A. All rooms must have sufficient mechanical tempered make-up air and exhaust ventilation to keep them free of grease, excessive heat, steam, condensation, vapors, obnoxious or disagreeable odors, smoke, and fumes according to the applicable provisions of the Minnesota Building Code and the Minnesota State Mechanical Code.
B. All ventilation systems, furnaces, gas- or oil-fired room heaters, and water heaters shall be designed, installed, and operated according to chapters 1305, 1346, and 7511.
C. All ventilation systems must be operated as designed while the ventilated equipment is in use.
D. Ventilation systems equipped with filters must not be operated with the filters removed.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1480 Dressing Rooms and Lockers; Designation. 6-305.11
A. Dressing rooms or dressing areas must be designated if employees routinely change clothes in the establishment.
B. Lockers or other suitable facilities must be provided for the orderly storage of employees' clothing and other possessions.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1485 [Repealed, 43 SR 295]
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Minn. R. 4626.1490 [Repealed, 43 SR 295]
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Minn. R. 4626.1495 Toilet Rooms; Convenience and Accessibility. 6-402.11
Toilet rooms must be conveniently located and accessible to employees during all hours of operation.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1500 Employee Break Areas, Lockers; Location. 6-403.11
A. Areas designated for employees to eat, drink, and use tobacco must be located so that food, equipment, linens, and single-service and single-use articles are protected from contamination.
B. Lockers or other suitable facilities must be located in a designated room or area where contamination of food, equipment, utensils, linens, and single-service and single-use articles cannot occur.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1505 Returned Products; Segregation and Location. 6-404.11
Products that are held by the licensee for credit, redemption, or return to the distributor, including damaged, spoiled, or recalled products, must be segregated and held in designated areas that are separated from food, equipment, utensils, linens, and single-service and single-use articles.P2
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1510 [Repealed, 43 SR 295]
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Minn. R. 4626.1515 Physical Facilities; Good Repair. 6-501.11
Physical facilities must be maintained in good repair.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1520 Physical Facilities; Cleaning Frequency and Restrictions. 6-501.12
A. Physical facilities must be cleaned as often as necessary to keep them clean.
B. Cleaning must be done after closing or during other periods when the least amount of food is exposed. This item does not apply to cleaning that is necessary due to a spill or other accident.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1525 Cleaning Floors; Dustless Methods. 6-501.13
A. Except as specified in item B, only dustless methods of cleaning must be used, such as wet cleaning, vacuum cleaning, mopping with treated dust mops, or sweeping using a broom and dust-arresting compounds.
B. Spills or drippage on floors that occur between normal floor cleaning times may be cleaned:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1530 Cleaning Ventilation Systems; Nuisance and Discharge Prohibition. 6-501.14
A. Intake and exhaust air ducts must be cleaned and filters changed so they are not a source of contamination by dust, dirt, and other materials.
B. If vented to the outside, ventilation systems must not create a public health hazard or nuisance or unlawful discharge.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1535 Cleaning Maintenance Tools; Preventing Contamination. 6-501.15
Food preparation sinks, handwashing sinks, and warewashing equipment must not be used for the cleaning of maintenance tools, the preparation or holding of maintenance materials, or the disposal of mop water and similar liquid wastes.P2
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1540 Drying Mops. 6-501.16
After use, mops must be placed in a position that allows them to air-dry without soiling walls, equipment, or supplies.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1545 Absorbent Materials on Floors; Use Limitation. 6-501.17
Except as specified in part 4626.1525, item B, sawdust, wood shavings, granular salt, baked clay, diatomaceous earth, or similar absorbent materials must not be used on floors.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1550 Cleaning of Plumbing Fixtures. 6-501.18
Plumbing fixtures such as handwashing sinks, toilets, and urinals must be cleaned as often as necessary to keep them clean.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1555 Closing Toilet Room Doors. 6-501.19
Except during cleaning and maintenance operations, toilet room doors as specified in part 4626.1390 must be kept closed. Toilet room entries designed without doors do not need to comply with this provision.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1560 Using Dressing Rooms and Lockers. 6-501.110
A. Dressing rooms must be used by employees if the employees regularly change clothes in the establishment.
B. Lockers or other suitable facilities must be used for the orderly storage of employee clothing and other possessions.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1565 Controlling Pests. 6-501.111
The premises must be maintained free of insects, rodents, and other pests. The presence of insects, rodents, and other pests must be controlled to eliminate their presence on the premises by:
A. routinely inspecting incoming shipments of food and supplies;
B. routinely inspecting the premises for evidence of pests;
C. using pest control methods if pests are found, such as trapping devices or other means of pest control as specified in parts 4626.1610, 4626.1650, and 4626.1655;P2and
D. eliminating harborage conditions.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1570 Removing Dead or Trapped Birds, Insects, Rodents, and Other Pests. 6-501.112
Dead or trapped birds, insects, rodents, and other pests must be removed from control devices and the premises at a frequency that prevents accumulation, decomposition, or attraction of pests.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1575 Storing Maintenance Tools. 6-501.113
Maintenance tools such as brooms, mops, vacuum cleaners, and similar items must be:
A. stored so they do not contaminate food, equipment, utensils, linens, and single-service and single-use articles; and
B. stored in an orderly manner that facilitates cleaning the area used for storing maintenance tools.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1580 Maintaining Premises; Unnecessary Items and Litter. 6-501.114
The premises must be free of:
A. items that are unnecessary to the operation or maintenance of the establishment, such as equipment that is nonfunctional or no longer used; and
B. litter.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1585 Prohibiting Animals. 6-501.115
A. Except as specified in items B and C, live animals must not be allowed on the premises of a food establishment.P2
B. Live animals may be allowed in the following situations if the contamination of food; clean equipment, utensils, and linens; and unwrapped single-service and single-use articles does not result:
C. Live or dead fish bait must be stored so that contamination of food; clean equipment, utensils, and linens; and unwrapped single-use articles cannot result.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; L 2005 c 56 s 2; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1590 Poisonous or Toxic Materials; Identifying Information. 7-101.11
Containers of poisonous or toxic materials and personal care items must bear a legible manufacturer's label.P2
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1595 Poisonous or Toxic Materials; Common Name. 7-102.11
Working containers used for storing poisonous or toxic materials such as cleaners and sanitizers taken from bulk supplies must be clearly and individually identified with the common name of the material.P2
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1600 Poisonous or Toxic Materials; Storage. 7-201.11
Poisonous or toxic materials must be stored so they cannot contaminate food, equipment, utensils, linens, and single-service and single-use articles by:
A. separating the poisonous or toxic materials by spacing or partitioning;P1 and
B. locating the poisonous or toxic materials in an area that is not above food, equipment, utensils, linens, and single-service or single-use articles. This item does not apply to equipment and utensil cleaners and sanitizers that are stored in warewashing areas for availability and convenience if the materials are stored to prevent contamination of food, equipment, utensils, linens, and single-service and single-use articles.P1
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1605 Poisonous or Toxic Materials; Restriction. 7-202.11
A. Only those poisonous or toxic materials that are required for the operation and maintenance of a food establishment, such as for the cleaning and sanitizing of equipment and utensils and the control of insects and rodents, may be allowed in a food establishment.P2
B. Item A does not apply to packaged poisonous or toxic materials that are for retail sale.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1610 Poisonous or Toxic Materials; Conditions of Use. 7-202.12
Poisonous or toxic materials must be:
A. used according to:
B. applied so that:
C. for a restricted-use pesticide, applied only by an applicator certified as defined in the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act, United States Code, title 7, section 136(e), and Minnesota Statutes, chapter 18B, or under the direct supervision of a certified applicator.P2
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1615 Poisonous or Toxic Material Containers. 7-203.11
A container previously used to store poisonous or toxic materials must not be used to store, transport, or dispense food.P1
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1620 Sanitizers; Criteria. 7-204.11
Chemical sanitizers, including chemical sanitizing solutions generated on site and other chemical antimicrobials applied to food-contact surfaces, must meet the requirements in Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, part 180, subpart D, section 180.940, or part 180, subpart E, section 180.2020.P1
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1625 Chemicals for Washing, Treatment, Storage and Processing; Fruits and Vegetables; Criteria. 7-204.12
A. Chemicals, including those generated on site, used to wash or peel raw, whole fruits and vegetables must:
B. Ozone as an antimicrobial agent used in the treatment, storage, and processing of fruits and vegetables in a food establishment must meet the requirements specified in Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, part 173, subpart D, section 173.368.P1
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1630 Boiler Water Additives; Criteria. 7-204.13
Chemicals used as boiler water additives must meet the requirements in Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, part 173, subpart D, section 173.310.P1
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1635 Drying Agents; Criteria. 7-204.14
A. Drying agents used in conjunction with sanitization must contain only components that are listed as one of the following:
B. When sanitization is with chemicals, the approval required under item A, subitem (5) or (7), or the regulation as an indirect food additive as required under item A, subitem (6), must be specifically for use with chemical sanitizing solutions.P1
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1640 Lubricants; Incidental Food-Contact; Criteria. 7-205.11
Lubricants must meet the requirements in Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, part 178, subpart D, section 178.3570, if they are used on food-contact surfaces, on bearings and gears located on or within food-contact surfaces, or on bearings and gears that are located so that lubricants may leak, drip, or be forced into food or onto food-contact surfaces.P1
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1645 Restricted Use Pesticides; Criteria. 7-206.11
Restricted use pesticides specified in part 4626.1610, item C, must meet the requirements in Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, part 152, subpart A, section 152.1.P1
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1650 Rodent Bait Stations. 7-206.12
Rodent bait must be contained in a covered, tamper-resistant bait station.P1
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1655 Tracking Powders; Pest Control and Monitoring. 7-206.13
A. Except as specified in item B, a tracking powder pesticide must not be used in a food establishment.P1
B. If used, a nontoxic tracking powder such as talcum or flour must not contaminate food, equipment, utensils, linens, and single-service and single-use articles.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1660 Employee Medicines; Restriction and Storage. 7-207.11
A. Only those medicines that are necessary for the health of employees may be allowed in a food establishment. This part does not apply to medicines that are stored or displayed for retail sale.P2
B. Medicine that is in a food establishment for an employee's use must be labeled as specified in part 4626.1590 and located to prevent the contamination of food, equipment, utensils, linens, and single-service and single-use articles.P1
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1665 Refrigerated Medicines; Storage. 7-207.12
Medicines belonging to employees or children in a day care center that require refrigeration and are stored in a food refrigerator must be:
A. stored in a package or container and kept inside a covered, leakproof container that is identified as a container for the storage of medicines;P1 and
B. located so they are inaccessible to children.P1
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1670 First Aid Storage. 7-208.11
First aid supplies that are in a food establishment for employee use must be:
A. labeled as specified in part 4626.1590;P2 and
B. stored in a kit or container that is located to prevent the contamination of food, equipment, utensils, linens, and single-service and single-use articles.P1
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1675 Personal Care Items; Storage. 7-209.11
Except as specified in parts 4626.1665 and 4626.1670, employees shall store personal care items in facilities as specified in part 4626.1560, item B.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1680 Poisonous or Toxic Materials; Separation. 7-301.11
Poisonous or toxic materials must be stored and displayed for retail sale so they cannot contaminate food, equipment, utensils, linens, and single-service and single-use articles by:
A. separating the poisonous or toxic materials by spacing or partitioning;P1 and
B. locating the poisonous or toxic materials in an area that is not above food, equipment, utensils, linens, and single-service or single-use articles.P1
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1685 Public Health Protection. 8-101.10
In enforcing this Code, the regulatory authority shall assess existing facilities or equipment that were in use before September 8, 1998, based on the following considerations:
A. whether the facilities or equipment are in good repair and capable of being maintained in a sanitary condition;
B. whether food-contact surfaces comply with parts 4626.0450 to 4626.0495 and 4626.0506, item A;
C. whether the capacities of cooling, heating, and holding equipment are sufficient to comply with part 4626.0675; and
D. whether the existence of a documented agreement with the licensee that the facilities or equipment will be replaced as specified in the documented agreement.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1690 Variance Request; Procedures. 8-103.11
A person may ask the regulatory authority to grant a variance from the provisions of this Code according to parts 4626.1690 to 4626.1715.
A. A variance must not be granted from:
B. The applicant for a variance shall be the person to whom the rule applies.
C. The person requesting the variance shall submit the request in writing to the regulatory authority with the appropriate fee, if required. If a variance is granted, the person shall retain the information and variance in the person's files. A request must contain:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1695 Variance Request; Criteria for Decision
The regulatory authority shall grant a variance if:
A. the variance was requested in the manner prescribed in part 4626.1690;
B. the variance will have no potential adverse effect on public health, safety, or the environment;
C. the alternative measures to be taken, if any, are equivalent to or superior to those prescribed;
D. strict compliance with the rule will impose an undue burden on the applicant;
E. the variance does not vary a statutory standard or preempt federal law or rule; and
F. the variance has only future effect.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1700 Variance Conditions; Haccp; Notification of Decision. 8-103.12
A. In granting a variance, the regulatory authority may attach conditions that the regulatory authority determines are needed to protect the public health, safety, or the environment.
B. If a HACCP plan is required to verify that the variance provides protection to the public health, safety, and environment that is equivalent to or superior to those prescribed in rule or law, the licensee shall:
C. The regulatory authority shall notify the person in writing of the regulatory authority's decision to grant or deny the variance.
D. Variances granted are not transferable.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1705 Variances; Effect of Alternative Measures or Conditions. 8-103.13
A. Alternative measures or conditions attached to a variance have the force and effect of law.
B. If a person violates alternative measures or conditions attached to a variance, the person is subject to the enforcement actions and penalties provided in law or rule.
C. A person to whom a variance has been issued shall notify the regulatory authority in writing within 30 days of a material change in the conditions upon which the variance was granted.P2
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1710 Renewal of Variance
A. A request for the renewal of a variance must be submitted to the regulatory authority in writing 30 days before its expiration date.
B. Renewal requests must contain the information in part 4626.1690.
C. The regulatory authority shall renew a variance if the person continues to satisfy the criteria in part 4626.1695 and demonstrates compliance with the alternative measures or conditions imposed at the time the original variance was approved.
D. This part does not apply if there has been a material change in the conditions upon which the variance was granted.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1715 Variance Denial, Revocation, or Refusal to Renew; Appeals
A. The regulatory authority shall deny, revoke, or refuse to renew a variance if the regulatory authority determines that the criteria in part 4626.1695 or the conditions in part 4626.1700 are not met.
B. A person may appeal the denial, revocation, or refusal to renew a variance by requesting, in writing, a contested case hearing under the Administrative Procedure Act, Minnesota Statutes, chapter 14, within 30 days of receipt of the notice of denial, revocation, or refusal to renew the variance.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1720 Plans; Review Required. 8-201.11
A. A license applicant or licensee shall submit or cause to be submitted and receive approval of properly prepared plans and specifications and the required plan review application and plan review fee, to the regulatory authority for plan review and approval before beginning:
B. Plans, specifications, an application form, and the fee specified in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 28A or 157, must be submitted to the regulatory authority at least 30 days before beginning construction, extensive remodeling, or conversion of a food establishment.P2
C. Special event food stands and retail food vehicles, portable structures, or carts are exempt from the requirement to submit plans and specifications.
D. The regulatory authority shall approve the completed plans and specifications if they meet the requirements of this Code, and the regulatory authority shall report its findings to the license applicant or licensee within 30 days of the date the completed plans are received.
E. Plans and specifications that are not approved as submitted must be changed to comply or be deleted from the project.P2
F. A license applicant, licensee, or person who is subject to licensure under Minnesota Statutes, chapter 28A or 157, that starts work on construction, extensive remodeling, or conversion of a food establishment before plan approval, shall stop work on the project when the regulatory authority determines that the work is likely to lead to noncompliance with this Code and the regulatory authority orders work to stop. The work must not resume until plans have been submitted according to items A and B, and have been approved by the regulatory authority.P2
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1721 [Renumbered 1560.9000]
[Renumbered 1560.9000]
Minn. R. 4626.1725 Contents of Plans and Specifications. 8-201.12
The plans and specifications for a food establishment must include:
A. the intended menu;
B. a description of the project including the anticipated volume of food to be stored, prepared, sold, or served;
C. 1 complete set of plans drawn to scale, including the proposed layout, mechanical schematics, construction materials, and finish schedules for items such as floors, base coves, walls, and ceilings;
D. the proposed equipment types, manufacturers, model numbers, locations on the layout, dimensions, performance capacities, and installation specifications;
E. the HACCP plan as specified in part 4626.1730, if required;
F. counters and cabinetry shop drawings, indicating cabinet construction, and countertop finish;
G. the unique well number and individual sewage treatment system certificate of compliance for individual sewage disposal systems;
H. a copy of the zoning approval or building permit from the local unit of government; and
I. other information that may be required by the regulatory authority for the review of the proposed construction, conversion, or modification.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1730 When a Haccp Plan Is Required. 8-201.13
A. Before engaging in an activity that requires a HACCP plan, a license applicant or licensee shall submit to the regulatory authority for approval a properly prepared HACCP plan as specified in part 4626.1735 and the relevant provisions of this Code if:
B. Before engaging in reduced oxygen packaging without a variance as specified in part 4626.0420, a license applicant or licensee shall submit a properly prepared HACCP plan to the regulatory authority.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1735 Contents of Haccp Plan. (see Also Part 4626.0420) 8-201.14
For a food establishment that is required under part 4626.1730 to have a HACCP plan, the licensee shall submit to the regulatory authority a properly prepared HACCP plan that includes:
A. general information such as the name of the license applicant or licensee, the food establishment address, and contact information;
B. a categorization of the types of TCS foods that are to be controlled under the HACCP plan;P2
C. a flow diagram or chart for each specific food or category type that identifies:
D. a critical control points summary for each specific food or category type that clearly identifies:
E. supporting documents such as:
F. any other information required by the regulatory authority.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1740 Trade Secrets. 8-202.10
The regulatory authority shall treat as confidential, in accordance with Minnesota Statutes, section 13.02, information that meets the criteria in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 325C, for a trade secret and is contained in the plans and specifications submitted as specified in parts 4626.1725 and 4626.1735.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1745 Preoperational Inspections. 8-203.10
The regulatory authority shall conduct one or more preoperational inspections to verify that the food establishment is constructed and equipped according to the approved plans and approved modifications of those plans.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1750 Notice of Opening
The food establishment licensee shall provide notice of opening to the regulatory authority at least 14 calendar days before the opening date.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1755 License Required. 8-301.11
A. A person shall not operate a food establishment without a valid license to operate issued by the regulatory authority.P2
B. The license must be posted in a location in the food establishment that is conspicuous to consumers.
C. A license must not be transferred from one person to another person, from one food establishment to another, or from one type of operation to another.P2
D. A void license must be surrendered to the regulatory authority immediately by anyone in possession of it.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1760 License Application. 8-302.11
An applicant shall submit a written application for a license on a form provided by the regulatory authority according to Minnesota Statutes, chapter 28A or 157.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1765 [Repealed, 43 SR 295]
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Minn. R. 4626.1770 Qualifications and Responsibilities of Applicants. 8-302.13
To qualify for a license, an applicant shall:
A. be an owner of the food establishment or an officer of the legal ownership;
B. comply with the requirements of this Code;
C. agree to allow access to the food establishment and provide information as required under Minnesota Statutes, section 157.20, subdivision 1; and
D. pay the applicable license fees at the time the application is submitted.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1775 [Repealed, 43 SR 295]
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Minn. R. 4626.1777 Denial of Application for License; Notice. 8-303.30
If an application for a license to operate is denied, the regulatory authority shall provide the applicant with a notice that includes:
A. the specific reasons and Code citations for the license denial;
B. the actions, if any, that the applicant shall take to qualify for a license; and
C. advising the applicant of the applicant's right to appeal and the appeal process and time frames that are provided by law.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.07; 157.011
- History: 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1780 [Repealed, 43 SR 295]
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Minn. R. 4626.1785 Inspection. 8-401.10
The regulatory authority shall inspect a food establishment according to:
A. Minnesota Statutes, chapters 28A, 30, 31, and 34A, for food establishments regulated by the Department of Agriculture;
B. Minnesota Statutes, chapter 157, for establishments regulated by the Department of Health; and
C. rules adopted under Minnesota Statutes, chapters 28A, 30, 31, 31A, 34A, and 157.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1787 Performance and Risk-Based Inspections. 8-401.20
Within the parameters in part 4626.1785, the regulatory authority shall prioritize and conduct more frequent inspections based upon:
A. the hazards associated with the particular foods that are prepared, stored, or served;
B. a history of noncompliance with priority 1 or priority 2 items of this Code; or
C. a history of noncompliance with HACCP plan requirements.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.07; 157.011
- History: 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1790 Allowed at Reasonable Times After Due Notice. 8-402.11
After the regulatory authority presents official credentials and provides notice of the purpose of and an intent to conduct an inspection, the person in charge of the food establishment shall allow the regulatory authority to determine if the food establishment is in compliance with the Code by allowing access to the food establishment, allowing inspection, and providing information and the records specified in the Code and to which the regulatory authority is entitled according to law, during the food establishment's hours of operation and other reasonable times.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1791 Documenting Information and Observations. 8-403.10
The regulatory authority shall document on an inspection report form:
A. administrative information about the food establishment's legal identity, street and mailing addresses, type of establishment and operation, inspection date, and other information such as type of water supply and sewage disposal, status of the license, and personnel certificates that may be required; and
B. specific factual observations of violations or other deviations of this Code, including the specific code citation and a correct by or comply by date, that requires correction by the license holder.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.07; 157.011
- History: 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1792 Issuing a Report. 8-403.30
The regulatory authority shall provide a copy of the completed inspection report and the notice to correct violations to the licensee or to the person in charge.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.07; 157.011
- History: 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1795 Ceasing Operations and Emergency Reporting. 8-404.11
A. Except as specified in item B, a licensee shall immediately discontinue operations and notify the regulatory authority if an imminent health hazard may exist because of an emergency such as a fire, flood, extended interruption of electrical or water service, sewage backup, misuse of poisonous or toxic materials, onset of an apparent foodborne illness outbreak, gross insanitary occurrence or condition, or other circumstance that may endanger public health.
B. A licensee need not discontinue operations in an area of an establishment that is unaffected by the imminent health hazard.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1797 Resumption of Operations. 8-404.12
If operations are discontinued as specified in part 4626.1795, or otherwise according to law, the licensee shall obtain approval from the regulatory authority before resuming operations.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.07; 157.011
- History: 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1800 Food Samples
The regulatory authority may collect, without cost, and examine samples of food as often as necessary for enforcement of this Code.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1805 Embargo
A. The regulatory authority may embargo and forbid the sale of, or cause to be removed or destroyed, any food that is:
B. Equipment and utensils that do not meet the requirements of this Code may be embargoed.
C. The regulatory authority may release equipment and utensils from an embargo when the licensee notifies the regulatory authority that the equipment or utensils have been modified to meet the requirements of this Code and after inspection of the equipment and utensils by the regulatory authority.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1810 Condemnation
The regulatory authority may condemn and cause to be removed any food, equipment, clothing, or utensils found in a food establishment, the use of which does not comply with this Code or that is being used in violation of this Code, and may also condemn and cause to be removed any equipment, clothing, or utensils that because of dirt, filth, extraneous matter, insects, corrosion, open seams, or chipped or cracked surfaces are unfit for use.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1815 Tag
The regulatory authority may place a tag to indicate the embargo or the condemnation on food, equipment, utensils, or clothing. No person shall remove the tag except under the direction of the regulatory authority.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519
Minn. R. 4626.1820 Minnesota Clean Indoor Air Act
A food establishment must meet the requirements of the Minnesota Clean Indoor Air Act, Minnesota Statutes, sections 144.411 to 144.417, and rules adopted under those sections.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.07; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519; 43 SR 295
Minn. R. 4626.1825 [Repealed, 43 SR 295]
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Minn. R. 4626.1830 [Repealed, 43 SR 295]
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Minn. R. 4626.1835 [Repealed, 43 SR 295]
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Minn. R. 4626.1840 [Repealed, 43 SR 295]
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Minn. R. 4626.1845 [Repealed, 43 SR 295]
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Minn. R. 4626.1850 [Repealed, 43 SR 295]
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Minn. R. 4626.1855 Special Event Food Stands
This part applies to special event food stands.
A. In conjunction with the notice of opening required in part 4626.1750, the applicant for a license to operate a special event food stand shall provide to the regulatory authority information on the:
B. Dry ice or cold packs may be substituted for the mechanical refrigeration required in parts 4626.0375 and 4626.0395 if the temperatures in parts 4626.0370 to 4626.0420 are maintained. Mechanical refrigeration shall be available for potentially hazardous foods held for four hours or longer.
C. Drained ice may be used as a cooling medium only for water-impervious beverage containers.
D. Domestic slow cookers are prohibited.
E. Food preparation and cooking areas shall be protected by an impervious shield or by a separation distance to ensure customer safety and prevent food contamination by customers.
F. A handwashing device supplied with running water at a temperature between 21 degrees C and 43.5 degrees C (70 degrees F and 110 degrees F), soap, nail brush, and paper towels shall be provided at all stands where food is prepared.
G. Water shall be supplied under pressure or by gravity with a faucet.
H. A water inlet shall be protected from contamination and designed to preclude attachment of a nonpotable service connection.
I. A water tank shall comply with the provisions for an alternate water supply specified in parts 4626.1035 and 4626.1135 to 4626.1175.
J. A stand shall provide protection during adverse weather by its construction or location. Food activities shall cease if protection fails.
K. Single-service disposable eating and drinking utensils shall be used.
L. For warewashing multiuse utensils, a washing facility shall be available consisting of at least three containers of sufficient size to immerse utensils.
M. Space shall be provided for air drying kitchenware, tableware, and utensils.
N. Towel drying is prohibited.
O. The sanitization procedures specified in parts 4626.0895 to 4626.0905 shall be used.
P. For stands that are disassembled after each use, a gravity-fed handwashing device and three containers of sufficient size to immerse utensils may be used in lieu of the requirements of items F and G, if:
Q. A waste holding tank and waste removal shall comply with parts 4626.1180 to 4626.1220.
R. The regulatory authority may restrict the type of food served or the method of food preparation based on equipment limitations, the unavailability of a permanent establishment for utensil and warewashing, adverse climatic conditions, or any other condition that poses a hazard to public health.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.08; 144.12; 157.011
- History: 23 SR 519
Minn. R. 4626.1860 [Repealed, 43 SR 295]
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Minn. R. 4626.1865 [Repealed, 43 SR 295]
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Minn. R. 4626.1870 [Repealed, 43 SR 295]
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Minn. R. 4626.2000 [Repealed, 43 SR 295]
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Minn. R. 4626.2005 [Repealed, 43 SR 295]
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Minn. R. 4626.2010 [Repealed, 43 SR 295]
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Minn. R. 4626.2015 Repealed by subpart
Subpart 1.
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Subp. 4.
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Subp. 5.
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Subp. 6.
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Subp. 7.
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Subp. 8.
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Subp. 9.
[Repealed, L 2009 c 79 art 10 s 51]
Minn. R. 4626.2020 [Repealed, 43 SR 295]
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Minn. R. 4626.2025 [Repealed, 43 SR 295]
[Repealed, 43 SR 295]
Chapter 4630 CAMPS AND MOBILE HOME PARKS
Minn. R. 4630.0200 Location
No mobile home park or recreational camping area shall be so located that drainage from the park or camp area will endanger any water supply. All such parks and camps shall be well drained and no portion of the park or camp shall be located in an area subject to flooding. No waste water from mobile homes or recreational camping vehicles shall be deposited on the surface of the ground.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 327.10 to 327.28
Minn. R. 4630.0300 Caretaker
A responsible attendant or caretaker shall be in charge of every mobile home park or recreational camping area at all times and the duty of said attendant or caretaker shall be to maintain the park, its facilities, and equipment in a clean, orderly, and sanitary condition. The caretaker or attendant shall be the owner or operator of the park or camping area, or that person's appointed representative.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 327.10 to 327.28
- History: 17 SR 1279
Minn. R. 4630.0400 Mobile Home and Recreational Camping Vehicle Spacing
No mobile home shall be parked closer than three feet to the side lot lines of a mobile home park if the abutting property is improved property or closer than ten feet to a public street or alley. Each individual mobile home site shall abut or face on a driveway or clear unoccupied space of not less than 16 feet in width, which space shall have unobstructed access to a public highway or alley. There shall be an open space of at least ten feet between the sides of adjacent mobile homes including their attachments, and at least three feet between mobile homes when parked end to end. The space between mobile homes may be used for parking of motor vehicles or other property provided such vehicle or other property be parked at least ten feet from the nearest adjacent mobile home position.
All new mobile home parks constructed after July 1, 1970, and additions to existing mobile home parks constructed after July 1, 1970, shall allot the following minimum site sizes for each mobile home: 4,000 square feet if sewage from the park is discharged into a soil absorption system; 2,800 square feet if any other acceptable method of sewage disposal is used.
In recreational camping areas, recreational camping vehicles shall be separated from each other and from other structures by at least ten feet. Any accessory structure such as attached awnings, car ports, or individual storage facilities, shall, for the purpose of this separation requirement, be considered to be part of the recreational camping vehicle. A minimum site size of 2,000 square feet shall be provided for each recreational camping vehicle in camping areas constructed after July 1, 1970. All recreational camping vehicles shall be located at least 25 feet from any camping area property boundary line abutting upon a public street or highway and at least ten feet from other park property boundary lines.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 327.10 to 327.28
Minn. R. 4630.0500 Domestic Animals
No domestic animals or house pets shall be allowed to run at large or commit any nuisances within the limits of a mobile home park or recreational camping area. Any kennels, pens, or other facilities provided for such pets shall be maintained in a sanitary condition at all times.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 327.10 to 327.28
Minn. R. 4630.0600 Water Supply
Subpart 1. Requirement.
An adequate supply of water of safe, sanitary, and potable quality shall be provided in each mobile home park and recreational camping area. Water supplies must meet the requirements of chapter 4720 for public water supplies, or chapter 4725 for wells.
Subp. 2. Minimum supply.
In mobile home parks, the water supply shall be capable of supplying a minimum of 150 gallons per day per mobile home, and in recreational camping areas, the water supply shall be capable of supplying 50 gallons per site per day for all sites lacking individual water connections, and 100 gallons per site per day for all spaces provided with individual water connections.
Subp. 3. Location.
In recreational camping areas, water from the drinking water supply shall be available within at least 400 feet of every campsite.
Subp. 4. Design.
All water storage reservoirs shall be covered, watertight, and constructed of impervious material. Overflows and vents of such reservoirs shall be effectively screened. Manholes shall be constructed with covers which will prevent the entrance of foreign material. The system shall be so designed and maintained as to provide a pressure of not less than 20 pounds per square inch under normal operating conditions at service buildings and other locations requiring a potable water supply. In mobile home parks and on recreational camping sites provided with individual water service connections, riser pipes shall be so located and constructed that they will not be damaged by the parking of mobile homes or recreational camping vehicles. Water riser pipes shall extend at least four inches above the ground elevation and the minimum pipe size shall be three-fourths inch. Adequate provisions shall be made to prevent freezing of service lines, valves, and riser pipes. If underground stop and waste valves are installed, they shall be at least ten feet from the nearest buried portion of the sewage system. Water risers on unoccupied sites shall be valved off. There shall be a horizontal distance of at least ten feet between water and sewer riser pipes; provided, that where the sewer riser is constructed of cast iron pipe and the water riser is constructed of copper pipe, the distance between may be less than ten feet. The commissioner shall grant a variance to subparts 2 to 4 only according to the procedures and criteria specified in parts 4717.7000 to 4717.7050.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13; 327.10 to 327.28
- History: L 1977 c 305 s 39; 17 SR 2773
Minn. R. 4630.0700 Plumbing
All systems of plumbing in mobile home parks and recreational camping areas shall be installed in accordance with the rules of the commissioner of health and the provisions of chapter 4714, the Minnesota Plumbing Code.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 327.10 to 327.28
- History: L 1977 c 305 s 39; 40 SR 71
Minn. R. 4630.0800 Sewage Disposal
Subpart 1. Discharge.
All sewage and other water carried wastes shall be discharged into a municipal sewage system which is being operated under a permit issued by the Minnesota Pollution Control Agency whenever such a system is available. When such a system is not available, a sewage disposal system acceptable to the commissioner of health and the Minnesota Pollution Control Agency shall be provided. All sewer lines shall be located in trenches of sufficient depth to be free of breakage from traffic or other movements and shall be separated from the park water supply system by at least ten feet, unless special acceptable construction of sewer lines is provided.
Subp. 2. Location and construction of sewer lines.
All sewer lines shall be constructed of materials approved by the commissioner of health, shall be adequately vented, and shall have water tight joints. Individual site sewer connections shall be at least a four-inch diameter sewer riser pipe. The sewer connections shall consist of one pipe line only without any branch fittings. All joints shall be water tight. All materials used for sewer connections shall be corrosive resistant, nonabsorbent, and durable. The inner surface shall be smooth. Provisions shall be made for capping the sewer riser pipe when a mobile home or recreational camping vehicle does not occupy the site. Surface drainage shall be directed away from the riser; the rim of the riser pipe shall extend at least 4 inches above ground elevation.
Subp. 3. Compliance with Pollution Control Agency standards.
Systems of sewage disposal utilizing the discharge of effluents to bodies of surface water must receive the approval and comply with the water quality and effluent standards and system design criteria established by the Minnesota Pollution Control Agency. All systems utilizing soil absorption for final disposal of effluent shall comply with and receive the approval of the commissioner of health. No soil absorption system shall be installed in soil which has a percolation rate of less than one inch in 60 minutes, or where the groundwater table rises to within four feet of the bottom of a proposed absorption pit or trench, or where such system shall adversely affect the ground water used for potable water supplies. All buried portions of a sewage disposal system shall be located at least 50 feet horizontally from the ordinary high water level of any body of surface water.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 327.10 to 327.28
- History: L 1977 c 305 s 39
Minn. R. 4630.0900 Toilet, Bathing, and Laundry Facilities
In dependent mobile home parks and recreational camping areas which harbor mobile homes and recreational camping vehicles which are not equipped with toilet and bathing facilities, one or more central buildings shall be provided equipped with such facilities. The number of fixtures shall be in accordance with the following schedule:
Provided, that in primitive recreational camping areas only, the toilet facilities shall be required in the above ratio.
Privies and other toilets not connected to water-carried systems may be used in recreational camping areas when approved by the commissioner of health.
In recreational camping areas or dependent mobile home parks where laundry and bathing facilities are provided, such facilities shall be in buildings which are well constructed with adequate heating and ventilation, good lighting, and floors of impervious material sloped to drain. Walls shall be of washable material. There shall be no exposed studs or rafters.
Toilet facilities shall not be more than 400 feet from the furthest site to be served and shall be plainly marked according to sex. In conjunction with bathing facilities, there shall be provided a dressing area or dressing compartment, the floor of which shall be impervious and well drained. Mats, grids, and walkways made of cloth or other absorbent material shall not be used, provided that single-service mats may be used. Where clothes drying lines are provided, they shall be located in areas out of regular pedestrian traffic patterns and where they will generally not be a hazard to the safety to the occupants of the camping area. No laundry trays, washing machines, dryers, or extractors shall be located in any toilet, bath, or dressing room.
Recreational camping areas accommodating recreational camping vehicles having a self contained liquid waste system with a waste reservoir shall provide a sanitary station for the disposal of waste water. Such sanitary stations shall be equipped with a four-inch sewer riser pipe, surrounded at the inlet by a concrete apron sloped towards the inlet drain, and provided with a suitable hinged cover. A water outlet, with the necessary appurtenances connected to the camp water supply system, shall be provided to permit periodic washdown of the immediate adjacent areas. Each recreational camping area accommodating self-contained recreational camping vehicles shall provide sanitary stations in the ratio of one for every 100 recreational camping vehicle sites or fraction thereof. Sanitary dumping stations shall be screened from other activities by visual barriers such as fences, walls, or natural growth and shall be separated from any recreational camping vehicle site by a distance of at least 50 feet. Final disposal of sewage from such dumping stations shall be by a method acceptable to the commissioner of health and Minnesota Pollution Control Agency.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 327.10 to 327.28
- History: L 1977 c 305 s 39
Minn. R. 4630.1000 Barbecue Pits, Fireplaces, Stoves, and Incinerators
In mobile home parks and recreational camping areas, cooking shelter, barbecue pits, fireplaces, wood-burning stoves, and incinerators shall be so located, constructed, maintained, and used as to minimize fire hazards and smoke nuisance both on the property on which used and on neighboring property. Incinerators shall be of a type acceptable to the Minnesota Pollution Control Agency. No open fire shall be permitted except in facilities provided. No open fire shall be left unattended. No fuel shall be used or no material burned which emits dense smoke or objectionable odors.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 327.10 to 327.28
Minn. R. 4630.1100 Handling and Disposal of Garbage and Refuse
The storage, collection, and disposal of refuse and garbage in the mobile home parks and recreational camping areas shall be so conducted as to create no health hazards, rodent harborage, insect breeding areas, accident or fire hazards, or air pollution. All refuse and garbage shall be stored in fly-tight, watertight, rodent-proof containers which shall be located convenient to any mobile home site. In recreational camping areas, garbage and refuse containers shall be provided on the ratio of at least one for every four sites.
Refuse and garbage collection shall be made at least twice each week and more often where necessary to prevent nuisance conditions. Final disposal of refuse and garbage by landfill methods shall be accomplished in accordance with the criteria and standards established by the Minnesota Pollution Control Agency.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 327.10 to 327.28
Minn. R. 4630.1200 Insect and Rodent Harborage and Infestation Control
Mobile home parks and recreational camping areas shall be maintained free of accumulations of debris which may provide rodent harborage or breeding places for flies, mosquitoes, and other pests. Storage areas shall be so maintained as to prevent rodent harborage. Lumber, pipe, and other building materials shall be stored at least one foot above the ground. Areas shall be so maintained as to prevent the growth of ragweed, poison ivy, poison oak, poison sumac, and other noxious weeds considered detrimental to health.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 327.10 to 327.28
Minn. R. 4630.1300 Night Lighting
The walkways, drives, and other used portions of mobile home parks shall be lighted during the hours of darkness.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 327.10 to 327.28
Minn. R. 4630.1400 Community Kitchen and Dining Rooms
When community kitchens and dining rooms are provided, such facilities and equipment shall be maintained in a clean and sanitary condition at all times, and shall be constructed and equipped in compliance with state laws and rules applicable to food-handling establishments.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 327.10 to 327.28
Minn. R. 4630.1500 Bottled Gas
Where bottled gas is used, the container shall be firmly connected to the appliance by tubing of copper or other suitable metallic material. Cylinders containing bottled gas shall not be located within five feet of any mobile home or recreational camping vehicle door. The container shall not be installed or stored even temporarily inside any mobile home or recreational camping vehicle. No container may be permitted to stand free, but must be firmly mounted in an upright position.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 327.10 to 327.28
Minn. R. 4630.1600 Fuel Oil Supply Systems
All piping from outside fuel storage tanks or cylinders to mobile homes or recreational camping vehicles shall be permanently installed and securely fastened in place. All fuel oil storage tanks or cylinders shall be securely fastened in place and shall not be located inside or beneath any mobile home or recreational camping vehicle or less than five feet from any mobile home or recreational camping vehicle exit. All fuel oil containers shall be mounted upon a stand or rack constructed of a noncombustible material.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 327.10 to 327.28
Minn. R. 4630.1700 Fire Protection
Fire protection shall be provided in accordance with the requirements of the state fire marshal.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 327.10 to 327.28
Minn. R. 4630.1800 [Repealed, 15 SR 1597]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1597]
Minn. R. 4630.1801 Variance to Rules Relating to Mobile Home Parks and Recreational Camping Areas
The commissioner shall grant a variance to parts 4630.0400; 4630.0600, subparts 2 to 4; and 4630.0900 to 4630.1700 only according to the procedures and criteria specified in parts 4717.7000 to 4717.7050.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.05; 103I.101; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 15 SR 1597; 17 SR 2773
Minn. R. 4630.1900 Licensing; Definitions
Subpart 1. Scope.
The following definitions apply to parts 4630.1900 to 4630.2210.
Subp. 1a. Category A site.
"Category A site" means any manufactured home park or recreational camping area that meets one or more of the following conditions:
A. has a public swimming pool;
B. draws its drinking water from a surface water supply; or
C. has 50 or more sites.
Subp. 1b. Category B site.
"Category B site" means any manufactured home park or recreational camping area that is not a category A site.
Subp. 2. Primary license.
"Primary license" means the initial license issued to the first person, firm, partnership, corporation, or other business association to establish and maintain, conduct, or operate a mobile home park or recreational camping area at any one location.
Subp. 3. Renewal license.
"Renewal license" means a license issued to the person, firm, partnership, corporation, or other business association operating a previously licensed mobile home park or recreational camping area.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.122; 157.045; 327.10 to 327.28
- History: 15 SR 1296
Minn. R. 4630.2000 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4630.2100 Expiration Dates for Licenses
Subpart 1. Primary license.
Primary mobile home park and recreational camping area licenses shall be issued for the calendar year for which application is made and shall expire on December 31 of such year.
Subp. 2. Renewal license for year-round establishments.
Renewal licenses for mobile home parks and recreational camping areas which operate on a year-round basis (in excess of six months (183 days a year)) shall be issued for the calendar year for which application is made and shall expire on December 31 of such year.
Subp. 3. Renewal license for seasonal establishments.
Renewal licenses for mobile home parks and recreational camping areas which operate for a continuous period of six months (183 days) or less shall be issued effective the first day of the establishment's operation in the calendar year for which the license is issued. Such renewal license shall expire after the 183rd day from the effective date of the license or on December 31 of the year in which the license was issued, whichever occurs first.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 327.10 to 327.28
Minn. R. 4630.2200 License Renewals
License renewals shall be obtained on an annual or semiannual basis. All license renewal applications shall be submitted to the commissioner of health on forms provided by it no later than December 31 of the year preceding the year for which application is made.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 327.10 to 327.28
- History: L 1977 c 305 s 39
Minn. R. 4630.2210 Inspection Frequency
Category A sites must be inspected at least once a year. Category B sites must be inspected at least once every two years.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.122; 157.045; 327.16
- History: 15 SR 1296
Minn. R. 4630.2300 Camp Site
The camp site shall be reasonably distant from any environment detrimental to the health and safety of the children in attendance at the camp. Adequate area shall be available for the development of satisfactory water supply and waste disposal systems. In order to protect against all hazards which cannot be eliminated, suitable guards shall be installed and maintained.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.71 to 144.76
Minn. R. 4630.2400 Buildings
All buildings used for food preparation and storage, sleeping, and other occupancy shall have roofs which do not leak, tight floors, and walls free of holes. They shall be so constructed as to provide broad and easy exit in case of fire or other emergency, and shall be adequately equipped with fire extinguishers and other firefighting equipment. Doors shall be tight fitting, and both door and window openings shall be sufficiently screened with a screen of not less than 16 meshes to the inch. All windows shall be so constructed as to be easily opened and closed, or shall be equipped with storm shields.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.71 to 144.76
Minn. R. 4630.2500 Sleeping Quarters
Subpart 1. Individual beds.
Each camper shall have an individual bed. There shall be at least three feet between beds when placed side by side, and at least one foot when placed end to end. The beds shall be arranged for head-to-foot or foot-to-foot sleeping in such a manner as to provide a seven-foot horizontal separation between the heads of the sleepers.
Subp. 2. Bunk beds.
Any room containing a double-deck bunk shall have at least one window which can be easily opened. The top of the window shall be higher than the top rail of the upper bunk. The minimum space between the floor and the lower bunk rail shall be 12 inches, and the minimum space between the lower and upper bunk rails shall be 36 inches. No bunk shall be more than six feet above the floor. There shall be at least 36 inches between the upper bunk and the ceiling.
Subp. 3. Ventilation.
Every sleeping room shall be ventilated. The area of direct opening to the outside shall be equivalent to at least five per cent of the floor area. Where this condition cannot be met, adequate mechanical ventilation shall be provided.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.71 to 144.76
Minn. R. 4630.2600 Kitchen
The kitchen shall be separated from the dining room by a partition. The walls, ceiling, floor, and partitions shall be so constructed as to be easily cleaned. The kitchen shall be used for no other purpose than the storage or preparation of food and the washing and storage of dishes and other food service equipment. No person other than kitchen personnel shall be permitted to enter the food preparation area. The kitchen shall be well ventilated. Illumination to afford a minimum of 20 footcandles of light at all working surfaces and at least ten footcandles on other surfaces and equipment during periods of food preparation and service shall be provided.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.71 to 144.76
Minn. R. 4630.2700 Food Procurement and Storage
Subpart 1. Food.
All food shall be of good quality. No hermetically sealed, nonacid, and low-acid food which has been processed in a place other than a commercial food-processing establishment shall be used. Meat shall be obtained from officially approved sources. Perishable food, including milk, shall be stored in clean refrigerators of adequate capacity at a temperature of 45 degrees Fahrenheit or below. Each refrigerator shall be equipped with an accurate thermometer. Nonperishable food shall be stored off the floor in clean, well ventilated rooms which are reasonably insect- and rodent-proof. Storage areas shall be illuminated at not less than five footcandles of light measured at 30 inches from the floor.
Subp. 2. Milk.
All milk shall be pasteurized. Milk for drinking shall be received in two-quart, quart, pint, or half-pint containers and shall be served from the original container, but where a milk dispenser of a design acceptable to the commissioner of health is used, cups and glasses may be filled directly from the dispenser. Pitchers or other nondrinking vessels shall not be filled from a dispenser and used for serving milk.
When concentrated or powdered milk is used, it shall be mixed and handled in a sanitary manner. It shall be prepared immediately prior to the time it is to be consumed and only in the quantity needed for that one period of serving.
Subp. 3. Storage of poisonous substances.
Insecticides, germicides, other poisonous substances, and cleaning materials shall not be stored in the same room with foods.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.71 to 144.76
- History: L 1977 c 305 s 39
Minn. R. 4630.2800 Food Service
The kitchen shall be kept clean. All food service equipment and utensils shall be so designed and of such material and construction as to be smooth, easily cleanable, and durable, and shall be in good repair. The food contact surfaces of such equipment and utensils shall be nontoxic, corrosion-resistant, relatively nonabsorbent, and easily accessible for cleaning. Equipment which meets the National Sanitation Foundation standards will comply with these provisions. All equipment shall be so installed and maintained as to facilitate the cleaning thereof, and of all adjacent areas. Food-handling procedures which will minimize the possibility of food contamination shall be practiced.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.71 to 144.76
- History: 17 SR 1279
Minn. R. 4630.2900 Food Service Personnel Health and Cleanliness
All persons shall wear clean outer garments and shall keep their hands clean at all times while engaged in handling food, drink, utensils, or equipment. No person shall resume work after visiting the toilet without first thoroughly washing his or her hands. Separate hand-washing facilities with hot and cold water, soap, and approved sanitary towels or other approved hand-drying devices shall be provided for use of the kitchen and food service personnel in the food service area. No person shall expectorate or use tobacco in any form in rooms in which food is prepared. No person who has, or is a carrier of, a communicable disease, or who has infected sores or wounds, shall engage in the handling, preparation, or serving of food and drink, nor shall any person so affected be delegated duties that could cause the disease to be communicated to other camp occupants or visitors.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.71 to 144.76
- History: 17 SR 1279
Minn. R. 4630.3000 Dishwashing Facilities
One of the following methods shall be employed in dishwashing:
A. Manual. A three-compartment sink or equivalent shall be provided, with compartments of adequate length, width, and depth to permit the complete immersion of the largest utensils to be washed and wire baskets or racks of dishes, and each compartment shall be supplied with hot and cold running water. There shall be a sufficient number of baskets to hold the dishes and utensils used during the peak load. The utensils and dishes shall be thoroughly washed in hot water containing a suitable soap or detergent in the first compartment, rinsed in clean water in the second compartment, and immersed completely in clean water at a temperature of not lower than 170 degrees Fahrenheit for at least two minutes in the third compartment. The third compartment shall be properly equipped with a heating unit or other means to maintain the specified temperature while in use. A thermometer which will accurately measure the temperature of the water in the third compartment shall also be provided. Drain racks shall be a part of the three-compartment sink and adequate space shall be available for drainage. Dishes and utensils shall be air-dried.
B. Mechanical. Water pressure in the lines supplying the wash and rinse sections of the dishwashing machine shall be maintained at a flow pressure of not less than 15 pounds per square inch, but not to exceed 25 pounds per square inch, and the water shall be at a manifold temperature not lower than 180 degrees Fahrenheit. The machines shall be equipped with thermometers which will accurately indicate the temperature of the wash and rinse water. New dishwashing machines shall conform to Standard Number 3 of the National Sanitation Foundation dated September 1956. Dishes and utensils shall be air-dried.
C. Where equipment or utensils must be cleaned in place or where for other reasons the methods described in items A and B are not feasible, other procedures that will provide equivalent cleaning and sanitizing shall be used. In order to protect the clean dishes and utensils from contamination, proper storage space shall be provided.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.71 to 144.76
Minn. R. 4630.3100 Water Supply
Every camp shall be provided with a safe supply of water acceptable to the commissioner of health and adequate to supply all needs of the occupants for culinary, drinking, and bathing purposes. Water, except that served at meals, shall be dispensed either by means of satisfactorily designed drinking fountains or individual paper cups.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.71 to 144.76
- History: L 1977 c 305 s 39
Minn. R. 4630.3200 Bathing and Hand-Washing Facilities
Suitable hand-washing facilities shall be conveniently located at or near each toilet. Separate hand-washing facilities with hot and cold water, soap, and approved sanitary towels or other approved hand-drying devices shall be provided for the use of kitchen and food service personnel in the food service area. Shower facilities, if provided, should be on the basis of one shower head for every 25 persons.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.71 to 144.76
Minn. R. 4630.3300 Plumbing
All new plumbing shall be installed according to the rules of the commissioner of health and the provisions of chapter 4714, the Minnesota Plumbing Code as adopted by the commissioner of health. Alterations to existing plumbing, when undertaken, shall conform to the provisions of the Minnesota Plumbing Code. Where existing plumbing defects are found to create a serious public health hazard, correction shall be undertaken immediately.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.71 to 144.76
- History: L 1977 c 305 s 39; 40 SR 71
Minn. R. 4630.3400 Toilet Facilities
Toilet facilities shall be provided on the basis of one seat for every 12 campers. In camps or sections of camps used by boys, urinals may be substituted for one-third of the toilet seats. Toilet facilities shall be convenient to sleeping quarters and shall be adequately ventilated and equipped with artificial lighting. Toilet facilities shall be provided at the water front where physically feasible, but the sewage disposal system serving the facilities shall not be located within 50 feet of the water's edge. Toilet tissue shall be provided at each unit. Toilet facilities, including rooms and fixtures, shall be kept in a clean condition and in good repair.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.71 to 144.76
Minn. R. 4630.3500 Sewage and Excreta Disposal
Where water flush toilets are used, a sewage disposal system acceptable to the commissioner of health shall be provided. Where water flush toilets are not provided, privies of the pit type, which conform to a standard of construction acceptable to the commissioner of health, shall be used. Such privies shall be placed separate and apart from the sleeping, living, and kitchen quarters. Toilets of the privy or pit type hereinafter constructed shall be located at least 100 feet from the kitchen and dining quarters.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.71 to 144.76
- History: L 1977 c 305 s 39
Minn. R. 4630.3600 Liquid Wastes
Liquid wastes from the kitchen, laundry, shower rooms, and other sources shall be combined with the liquid toilet wastes or shall be disposed of separately by soil absorption in a manner which will not endanger a water supply, pollute any surface water, or create nuisances, or otherwise constitute a hazard to the public health and safety.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.71 to 144.76
Minn. R. 4630.3700 Plan Submission
Plans and specifications covering the installation of new systems of plumbing, water supply, and sewage disposal or the material alteration or extension of existing systems of plumbing, water supply, and sewage disposal shall be submitted to the commissioner of health for review and approval in accordance with parts 1300.0215, subpart 6, and 4720.0010.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.71 to 144.76
- History: L 1977 c 305 s 39
Minn. R. 4630.3800 Garbage; Refuse
All garbage shall be collected in leakproof, nonabsorbent containers provided with tight fitting lids or covers, and shall be disposed of in a sanitary manner with sufficient frequency as to prevent a nuisance. Disposal of garbage and other refuse shall be accomplished by burning in an approved incinerator, or burying, or by other means acceptable to the commissioner of health. All containers for the collection of garbage and refuse shall be kept in a sanitary condition.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.71 to 144.76
- History: L 1977 c 305 s 39
Minn. R. 4630.3900 Swimming Beach
Natural swimming places shall be located only on lakes and streams which are relatively free of human, animal, and industrial pollution, and where such bathing and swimming will not endanger the quality of a domestic water supply, or interfere with other uses of the water by riparian owners. The area designated for swimming shall be properly marked, shall be kept free of weeds, sharp stones, sunken logs, and other debris and shall preferably have a gradual slope. Swimming pools shall be constructed and operated in accordance with standards acceptable to the commissioner of health. All waterfront activities involving campers, staff members, or visitors shall be adequately supervised.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.71 to 144.76
- History: L 1977 c 305 s 39
Minn. R. 4630.4000 Designation of Responsible Persons by Camper
Each camper and staff member shall file with the camp operator the name, address, and telephone number of one or more duly licensed practitioners of the healing arts or other responsible persons who are to be notified in case of illness or injury.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.71 to 144.76
Minn. R. 4630.4100 Practitioner to Be Designated
The camp operator shall designate one or more duly licensed practitioners of the healing arts to be called in an emergency.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.71 to 144.76
Minn. R. 4630.4200 Infirmary and First Aid
The camp operator shall provide an infirmary for the isolation of sick or injured campers and staff members. First aid equipment and supplies shall be available, and a person qualified in first aid care shall be in charge at all times. When the existence of a communicable disease is suspected, the operator shall isolate the individual immediately and promptly arrange for medical attention. Transportation shall be provided for the immediate removal from the camp of the sick or injured campers or camp personnel in emergency cases.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.71 to 144.76
Minn. R. 4630.4300 Physical Examination
A certificate of health shall be presented to the camp operator by each staff member and by each camper at the time of admission to the camp. The certificate shall be based on a physical examination performed not more than 90 days prior to admission to the camp by a duly licensed practitioner of the healing arts and shall be signed by such practitioner. It shall include a health history, an immunization record, a statement as to the existence of or freedom from communicable diseases, and instructions relative to the limitation of the camper's participation in camp activities necessitated by physical disability or impairment.
A physical checkup shall be given on arrival at the camp to reveal any communicable condition which may have developed since the physical examination.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.71 to 144.76
Minn. R. 4630.4400 Health Records
A health record of every camper and staff member shall be kept by the camp operator. In addition to the certificate of health, it shall include the detailed records of the individual's illnesses and injuries occurring and the first aid treatments given during the period of attendance at camp.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.71 to 144.76
Minn. R. 4630.4500 Hazardous Weapons
Firearms and other hazardous weapons shall be kept in locked compartments and shall be used only under supervision.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.71 to 144.76
Minn. R. 4630.4600 Livestock and Pets
Livestock shall be quartered not less than 500 feet from the cooking, dining, and sleeping quarters. Unless special facilities are provided, pets shall not be permitted in the camp.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.71 to 144.76
Minn. R. 4630.4700 Duty of Camp Operator
It shall be the duty of every operator of a children's camp to carry out the provisions of parts 4630.2300 to 4630.4700.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.71 to 144.76
Minn. R. 4630.4750 Variance to Rules Relating to Children's Camps
The commissioner shall grant a variance to parts 4630.2300 to 4630.4700 only according to the procedures and criteria specified in parts 4717.7000 to 4717.7050.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.05
- History: 15 SR 1597
Minn. R. 4630.4800 [Repealed, 26 SR 31]
[Repealed, 26 SR 31]
Minn. R. 4630.4900 [Repealed, 26 SR 31]
[Repealed, 26 SR 31]
Minn. R. 4630.5000 [Repealed, 26 SR 31]
[Repealed, 26 SR 31]
Minn. R. 4630.5100 [Repealed, 26 SR 31]
[Repealed, 26 SR 31]
Minn. R. 4630.5200 [Repealed, 26 SR 31]
[Repealed, 26 SR 31]
Minn. R. 4630.5300 [Repealed, 26 SR 31]
[Repealed, 26 SR 31]
Minn. R. 4630.5400 [Repealed, 26 SR 31]
[Repealed, 26 SR 31]
Minn. R. 4630.5500 [Repealed, 26 SR 31]
[Repealed, 26 SR 31]
Minn. R. 4630.5600 [Repealed, 26 SR 31]
[Repealed, 26 SR 31]
Minn. R. 4630.5700 [Repealed, 26 SR 31]
[Repealed, 26 SR 31]
Minn. R. 4630.5800 [Repealed, 26 SR 31]
[Repealed, 26 SR 31]
Minn. R. 4630.5900 [Repealed, 26 SR 31]
[Repealed, 26 SR 31]
Minn. R. 4630.6000 [Repealed, 26 SR 31]
[Repealed, 26 SR 31]
Minn. R. 4630.6100 [Repealed, 26 SR 31]
[Repealed, 26 SR 31]
Minn. R. 4630.6200 [Repealed, 26 SR 31]
[Repealed, 26 SR 31]
Minn. R. 4630.6300 [Repealed, 26 SR 31]
[Repealed, 26 SR 31]
Minn. R. 4630.6400 [Repealed, 26 SR 31]
[Repealed, 26 SR 31]
Minn. R. 4630.6500 [Repealed, 26 SR 31]
[Repealed, 26 SR 31]
Minn. R. 4630.6550 [Repealed, 26 SR 31]
[Repealed, 26 SR 31]
Chapter 4635 ROLLER TOWELS
Minn. R. 4635.0100 [Repealed, L 2001 c 46 s 1]
[Repealed, L 2001 c 46 s 1]
Minn. R. 4635.0200 [Repealed, L 2001 c 46 s 1]
[Repealed, L 2001 c 46 s 1]
Minn. R. 4635.0300 [Repealed, 15 SR 1512]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1512]
Minn. R. 4635.0400 [Repealed, 15 SR 1512]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1512]
Minn. R. 4635.0500 [Repealed, 15 SR 1512]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1512]
Minn. R. 4635.0600 [Repealed, 15 SR 1512]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1512]
Minn. R. 4635.0700 [Repealed, 15 SR 1512]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1512]
Minn. R. 4635.0800 [Repealed, 15 SR 1512]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1512]
Minn. R. 4635.0900 [Repealed, 15 SR 1512]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1512]
Minn. R. 4635.1000 [Repealed, 15 SR 1512]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1512]
Minn. R. 4635.1100 [Renumbered 4620.3900]
[Renumbered 4620.3900]
Minn. R. 4635.1200 [Renumbered 4620.4000]
[Renumbered 4620.4000]
Minn. R. 4635.1300 [Renumbered 4620.4100]
[Renumbered 4620.4100]
Minn. R. 4635.1400 [Renumbered 4620.4200]
[Renumbered 4620.4200]
Minn. R. 4635.1500 [Renumbered 4620.4300]
[Renumbered 4620.4300]
Minn. R. 4635.1600 [Renumbered 4620.4400]
[Renumbered 4620.4400]
Minn. R. 4635.1700 [Renumbered 4620.4500]
[Renumbered 4620.4500]
Minn. R. 4635.1800 [Renumbered 4620.4600]
[Renumbered 4620.4600]
Minn. R. 4635.1900 [Renumbered 4620.4700]
[Renumbered 4620.4700]
Minn. R. 4635.2000 [Renumbered 4620.4800]
[Renumbered 4620.4800]
Minn. R. 4635.2100 [Renumbered 4620.4900]
[Renumbered 4620.4900]
Chapter 4638 PETS IN HEALTH CARE FACILITIES
Minn. R. 4638.0200 Pet Animals in Health Care Facilities
Subpart 1. Definition.
As used in this part, "health care facility" means a hospital, nursing home, boarding care home, or supervised living facility licensed by the Minnesota Department of Health under Minnesota Statutes, sections 144.50 to 144.56 or 144A.01 to 144A.16.
Subp. 2. Written policy.
Every health care facility shall establish a written policy specifying whether or not pet animals will be allowed on the facility's premises. If pet animals are allowed on the premises, the policy must specify whether or not individual patients or residents will be permitted to keep pets. This policy must be developed only after consultation with facility staff and with patients or residents, as appropriate.
Subp. 3. Conditions.
If pet animals other than fish are allowed on the premises, the following requirements must be met:
A. Written policies and procedures must be developed and implemented which specify the conditions for allowing pet animals on the premises.
B. The policies and procedures must:
C. Regardless of the ownership of any pet, the health care facility shall assume overall responsibility for any pets within or on the premises of the facility.
D. The health care facility shall ensure that no pet jeopardizes the health, safety, comfort, treatment, or well-being of the patients, residents, or staff.
E. A facility employee shall be designated, in writing, as being responsible for monitoring or providing the care to all pet animals and for ensuring the cleanliness and maintenance of facilities used to house pets. This rule does not preclude residents, patients, or other individuals from providing care to pet animals.
F. Except for guide dogs accompanying a blind or deaf individual and except in supervised living facilities with a licensed bed capacity of 15 beds or less, pet animals shall not be permitted in kitchen areas, in medication storage and administration areas, or in clean or sterile supply storage areas.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.573; 144A.30
- History: L 1987 c 384 art 2 s 1
Chapter 4640 HOSPITAL LICENSING AND OPERATION
Minn. R. 4640.0100 Definitions
Subpart 1. Scope.
For the purpose of this chapter, the terms used in subparts 2 to 11 have the meanings given them in this part.
Subp. 2.
[Repealed by amendment, L 1977 c 305 s 39]
Subp. 3. Chronic disease hospital.
A "chronic disease hospital" is a hospital, the primary purpose of which is to provide the services and facilities for the diagnosis, treatment, and rehabilitation of patients with chronic illness. "Chronic disease" refers to illness or disability which is either permanent or recurrent, which may require long periods of medical supervision or care as well as special rehabilitative services, as distinguished from acute illness which is usually of short duration and self-limiting in nature. Nursing homes and boarding care homes as classified and defined in parts 4655.0090 to 4655.1060, and hospitals devoted exclusively to the care of patients with mental illness are not "chronic disease hospitals."
Subp. 4. General hospital.
A "general hospital" is a hospital providing community service for inpatient medical and surgical care of acute illness or injury and for obstetrics.
Subp. 5. Hospital.
A "hospital" is an institution adequately and properly staffed and equipped; providing services, facilities, and beds for the reception and care for a continuous period longer than 12 hours for one or more nonrelated persons requiring diagnosis, treatment, or care for illness, injury, or pregnancy; and regularly making available clinical laboratory services, diagnostic X-ray services, and treatment facilities for surgery or obstetrical care or other definitive medical treatment of similar extent. Definitive medical treatment may include psychiatric care, physical medicine and rehabilitation, X-ray therapy, and similar specialized treatment. The following are not hospitals within the meaning of these rules: diagnostic or treatment centers, physicians' offices or clinics, and facilities for the foster care of children licensed by the commissioner of human services.
Subp. 6. Licensee.
The "licensee" is the person or governing body to whom the license is issued. The licensee is responsible for compliance with all applicable rules and standards of the commissioner of health.
Subp. 7. Maternity hospital.
A "maternity hospital" is a hospital, the primary purpose of which is to provide services and facilities for obstetrical care.
Subp. 8. Mental hospital.
A "hospital for persons with mental illnesses" is a hospital for the diagnosis, treatment, and custodial care of persons with a mental illness.
Subp. 9. Psychiatric hospital.
A "psychiatric hospital" is a type of hospital for persons with a mental illness where patients receive diagnosis and intensive treatment and where usually only a minimum of continuous long-term treatment facilities are afforded.
Subp. 10. Specialized hospital.
A "specialized hospital" is a hospital providing primarily for one type of care, such as a hospital for persons with a mental illness, a psychiatric hospital, a chronic disease hospital, or a maternity hospital. The specialized hospital shall meet the applicable regulations for a general hospital of corresponding size and all regulations pertaining to such specialized services as are provided by the hospital.
Subp. 11. Specialized unit.
When a general hospital provides ten or more beds in a segregated unit for a specialized type of care, such as psychiatric, chronic disease, or nursing home, such a unit is a "specialized unit" of the general hospital. The services provided in a nursing home unit are not hospital services. For licensing purposes, one license shall be issued to a general hospital having one or more specialized units, when such units are adjacent to or located on property adjoining that of the general hospital. Separate licenses shall be required for institutions which are maintained on separate premises even though they are under the same management. The total bed capacity, including bassinets, shall be used in determining the license fee.
Subp. 12.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.05; 14.3895; 144.55; 144.56
- History: L 1977 c 305 s 39; L 1984 c 654 art 5 s 58; L 2013 c 59 art 3 s 21; 44 SR 371
Minn. R. 4640.0200 Licensing
Subpart 1. License fees.
Each application for either an initial or renewal license to operate a hospital or a related institution within the meaning of Minnesota Statutes, sections 144.50 to 144.56 and these rules, shall be accompanied by a fee based upon the formula established in part 4735.0200. A bed must be licensed if it is available for use by patients. If the number of licensed beds in a nonaccredited hospital is increased during the term of the license, $25 for each additional bed shall be paid. There shall be no refund for a decrease in licensed beds.
Subp. 2. License expiration date.
Initial and renewal licenses issued pursuant to Minnesota Statutes, sections 144.50 to 144.56 and these rules, shall be issued for the calendar year for which application is made and shall expire on December 31 of such year. License renewals shall be applied for on an annual basis. Applications for license renewal shall be submitted no later than December 31 of the year preceding the year for which application is made. Any application for an initial license submitted after November 1 shall be considered as an application for the following year; provided, however, that a license may be issued and be effective prior to January 1 of the year for which application is made without payment of fees for two years.
Subp. 3. License to be posted.
The license shall be posted conspicuously in the hospital.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.55; 144.56
Minn. R. 4640.0300 Compliance
All hospitals licensed as of the effective date of these rules shall comply with the requirements contained in parts 4640.0100 to 4640.6400.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.55; 144.56
Minn. R. 4640.0400 Hospital Planning
When any individual or group in a given locality believes a need exists for a hospital and would like to investigate the need for and the possibilities of such a hospital, the commissioner of health shall be so notified in writing. The commissioner of health shall thereupon make available to such body all of the latest information relative to hospital needs in that hospital area. Nothing in these rules shall prohibit the development of a hospital in any location, provided such hospital meets the standards of construction, equipment, licensing, maintenance, and operation as prescribed in these rules.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.55; 144.56
- History: L 1977 c 305 s 39
Minn. R. 4640.0500 Crowded Conditions in Existing Hospitals
When the occupancy rates of a hospital are determined by the commissioner of health to be so excessively high as to thereby create serious overcrowding and interference with the provision of proper care for patients, the commissioner of health shall so inform the governing body which shall thereupon make provisions for expansion of the bed capacity and needed services or make other arrangements to alleviate such conditions.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.55; 144.56
- History: L 1977 c 305 s 39
Minn. R. 4640.0600 Conversion
On and after the effective date of these rules, any building or structure not then operating as a hospital but which is to be converted for use as a hospital shall be of fire-resistive construction and upon completion shall conform with parts 4645.0200 to 4645.5200 of these hospital rules entitled regulations for hospital construction and equipment. The commissioner of health shall be advised immediately in writing when the acquisition or purchase of a building or structure is contemplated for use as a hospital.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.55; 144.56
- History: L 1977 c 305 s 39
Minn. R. 4640.0700 Administration
Subpart 1. Standards.
It is recommended that the standards of the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Hospitals, 875 North Michigan, Chicago, Illinois 60611, be adopted.
Subp. 2. Governing body.
The governing body or the person or persons designated as the governing authority in each institution shall be responsible for its management, control, and operation. It shall appoint a hospital administrator and the medical staff. It shall formulate the administrative policies for the hospital. The governing body should not employ an administrator until it is determined that the administrator qualifies for registration as a hospital administrator in Minnesota. It is recommended that the governing body officially appoint one or more assistants to the administrator who shall act in the administrator's absence.
Subp. 3. Change in administrators.
Notification of the termination of service of the administrator as well as of the appointment of a new administrator shall be given promptly in writing by the governing body of the hospital to the commissioner of health. If a registered administrator is not available to assume the position immediately, such notification to the commissioner of health should include the name of the person temporarily in charge of the hospital. This temporary period should not exceed 90 days.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.55; 144.56
- History: L 1977 c 305 s 39; L 1980 c 567 s 2; 17 SR 1279
Minn. R. 4640.0800 The Medical Staff
Subpart 1. Responsibility.
The medical staff shall be responsible to the governing body of the hospital for the clinical and scientific work of the hospital. It shall be called upon to advise regarding professional problems and policies.
Subp. 2. Organization and duties.
In any hospital used by two or more practitioners, the medical staff shall be an organized group which shall formulate and, with the approval of the governing body, adopt bylaws, rules, regulations, and policies for the proper conduct of its work. The medical staff shall: designate one of its members as chief of staff; hold regular meetings for which minutes and records of attendance shall be kept; and review and analyze at regular intervals the clinical experience in the hospital.
Subp. 3. Professional care.
All persons admitted to the hospital shall be under the professional care of a member of the medical staff.
Subp. 4.
[Repealed, L 2012 c 247 art 4 s 51]
Subp. 5. Emergency calls.
Provision shall be made for one or more members of the medical staff to be available at all times for emergency calls.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.55; 144.56
- History: L 2012 c 247 art 4 s 51
Minn. R. 4640.0900 Personnel
Subpart 1. Policies and procedures.
Written policies, procedures, rules, and regulations shall be established for the administrative and technical guidance of the personnel of the entire hospital. Employees shall be instructed in the requirements, policies, and procedures pertaining to their respective duties.
Subp. 2. Number of personnel.
At all times there shall be enough qualified personnel on duty to provide the standard of care and maintenance in the hospital which is necessary for the well-being of the persons received for care. This includes night duty, vacation, and other relief periods. A record shall be kept of the length of service of each employee.
Subp. 3. Nurses.
A registered nurse shall be responsible for the nursing care of patients and shall assign nursing duties to qualified personnel when he or she is off duty. Additional nursing personnel with training and experience commensurate with the responsibility of the specific assignments shall be employed to assure a high quality of nursing care to all patients both day and night.
It is recommended that nurses in the obstetrical department limit their services to maternity and clean surgical cases.
Subp. 4. Practical nurses, auxiliary workers, and volunteers.
All practical nurses, auxiliary workers, and volunteers performing nursing service functions shall be under the supervision of a registered nurse. Their duties shall be clearly defined and they shall be instructed in all duties assigned to them.
Subp. 5. Health of employees.
The governing body of the hospital upon recommendation of its organized medical staff shall provide in its rules and regulations measures to prevent the transmission of communicable diseases. Such regulations shall include provisions for an immunization program; for preemployment physical examinations including tuberculin tests, X-rays of the chest, and other indicated laboratory procedures; and for subsequent chest X-rays and periodic examinations of all hospital employees. Such regulations shall also include the procedures to be followed in the case of illness or absenteeism of any employee or in the case of the exposure of any employee to a communicable disease. All employees shall report any illness or exposure to communicable disease to the administrator and to a designated member of the medical staff.
Routine admission chest X-ray examination of patients is recommended.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.55; 144.56
- History: 17 SR 1279
Minn. R. 4640.1000 Medical Records
Subpart 1. Personnel.
A trained medical record librarian or other authorized hospital employee shall be given the responsibility for the proper custody, supervision, indexing, and filing of the completed medical records of patients.
Subp. 2. Facilities and equipment.
Space and equipment shall be provided for the recording and completion of the record by the physician as well as for indexing, filing, and safe storage of medical records.
Subp. 3. Information to be included.
Accurate and complete medical records shall be maintained on all patients from the time of admission to the time of discharge. The following additional information shall be obtained and recorded for all maternity patients: full and true name of patient and her husband, the place of residence of the patient prior to hospitalization, and place of residence following discharge. To be considered complete, a record should include:
A. adequate identification data;
B. admitting diagnosis, to be completed within 24 to 48 hours;
C. history and physical examination, including history of pregnancy on maternity cases, to be completed within 24 to 48 hours;
D. progress notes;
E. signed doctors' orders;
F. operative notes, where applicable to include course of delivery on maternity cases;
G. special reports and examinations, including clinical and laboratory findings, X-ray findings, records of consultations, anesthesia reports, etc.;
H. nurses' notes;
I. discharge diagnosis; and
J. autopsy report, where applicable.
Subp. 4. Records on newborn infants.
A medical record shall be maintained on all newborn infants and shall include a physical examination performed and recorded by the physician and a statement relative to the physical condition of the infant at the time of discharge. When the child leaves the hospital with any person other than a parent, the hospital shall obtain and record the true name of the person or persons with whom the child leaves, and the place of residence where it is planned that the child is to be taken.
Subp. 5. Completion of the record.
The medical staff shall have a policy requiring that the medical records shall be completed within a reasonable time following the discharge of the patient. The completion of the medical record shall be the responsibility of the attending physician.
Subp. 6. Surgical cases.
The history and physical examination record shall be completed and signed by the attending staff member prior to the performance of any surgery except in case of emergency when an admission note including significant findings and diagnosis shall be written.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.55; 144.56
- History: 17 SR 1279
Minn. R. 4640.1100 Hospital Records
The following hospital records shall be maintained in a form and manner acceptable to the commissioner of health:
A. record of admissions and discharges, total patient days, average length of stay, and number of autopsies performed. Separate data shall be maintained for: adults and children excluding newborns, and newborn infants excluding stillbirths;
B. register of births;
C. register of deaths;
D. register of operations; and
E. register of outpatients.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.55; 144.56
- History: L 1977 c 305 s 39
Minn. R. 4640.1200 Narcotic Record
A record shall be maintained for all narcotics administered. This record shall contain the date, hour, name of patient, name of physician, kind of narcotic, dose, and name of person by whom administered. A federal permit is necessary for the purchase of narcotics for stock use. Application for this permit must be approved by the commissioner of health. This approval is based on the proper storage of narcotics and the maintenance of a record book of narcotics.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.55; 144.56
- History: L 1977 c 305 s 39
Minn. R. 4640.1300 Reports
Subpart 1. Annual report to commissioner of health.
On or before January 31 of each year, there shall be filed with the commissioner of health, on a form provided by the commissioner of health, the annual hospital statistical report covering patient service data.
Subp. 2. Hospital reports.
On or before the tenth of each month, the hospital administrator shall file with the commissioner of health, on a blank provided by or approved by the commissioner of health for the purpose, a report of all births and deaths or stillbirths occurring in such institution during the previous month. Subpart 2 is taken from part 4600.1200 relating to hospital reporting of vital records. It is here made of special application to hospital administrators. Part 4615.0800 should also be noted. It reads as follows: Any death associated with pregnancy, including abortion and extrauterine pregnancy, or the puerperium for a period of three months postpartum, whether or not it is the actual cause of death, shall be reported by mail within three days after death to the Minnesota Department of Health, Section of Maternal and Child Health, by the attending physician and by the hospital where the death occurred.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.55; 144.56
- History: L 1977 c 305 s 39; L 2015 c 21 art 1 s 109
Minn. R. 4640.1400 Child Welfare Reports
Subpart 1. Illegitimate birth reports.
Every illegitimate birth shall be reported to the commissioner of human services, on a form furnished by the commissioner, within 24 hours after the birth of the child.
Subp. 2. Information confidential.
No member of the hospital staff, or employee of the hospital, shall give information regarding a maternity patient or her child where there is any question relative to the legitimacy of such birth except to a duly authorized representative of the commissioner of health or to the commissioner of human services or the duly authorized representatives.
Subp. 3. Boarding infants in hospital.
No infant shall be retained in the hospital for care for more than 29 days following discharge of the mother except for prematurity, illness, or other physical reason which requires specialized hospital care.
Subp. 4. Placement of children.
No member of the hospital staff or employee of the hospital shall place or participate in the placement of any child born in the hospital with any person other than a birth parent or member of the immediate family except in cooperation with an authorized child-placing agency.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.55; 144.56
- History: L 1977 c 305 s 39; L 1984 c 654 art 5 s 58; L 1987 c 403 art 3 s 96; 17 SR 1279; L 1994 c 465 art 1 s 62; L 1994 c 631 s 31
Minn. R. 4640.1500 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4640.1600 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4640.1700 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4640.1800 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4640.1900 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4640.2000 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4640.2100 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4640.2200 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4640.2300 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4640.2400 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4640.2500 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4640.2600 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4640.2700 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4640.2800 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4640.2900 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4640.3000 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4640.3100 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4640.3200 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4640.3300 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4640.3400 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4640.3500 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4640.3600 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4640.3700 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4640.3800 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4640.3900 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4640.4000 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4640.4100 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4640.4200 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4640.4300 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4640.4400 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4640.4500 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4640.4600 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4640.4700 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4640.4800 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4640.4900 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4640.5000 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4640.5100 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4640.5200 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4640.5300 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4640.5400 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4640.5500 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4640.5600 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4640.5700 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4640.5800 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4640.5900 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4640.6000 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4640.6100 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4640.6200 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4640.6300 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4640.6400 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4640.6500 [Repealed, L 1980 c 567 s 2]
[Repealed, L 1980 c 567 s 2]
Minn. R. 4640.6600 [Repealed, L 1980 c 567 s 2]
[Repealed, L 1980 c 567 s 2]
Minn. R. 4640.6700 [Repealed, L 1980 c 567 s 2]
[Repealed, L 1980 c 567 s 2]
Minn. R. 4640.6800 [Repealed, L 1980 c 567 s 2]
[Repealed, L 1980 c 567 s 2]
Minn. R. 4640.6900 [Repealed, L 1980 c 567 s 2]
[Repealed, L 1980 c 567 s 2]
Chapter 4642 MEDICAL RECORDS
Minn. R. 4642.1000 Individual Permanent Medical Record
Subpart 1. Scope.
This part defines the term "individual permanent medical record." It does not outline content requirements for hospital records. Minnesota Statutes, section 145.32 establishes the record retention requirements for hospital records of patients and specifies the conditions under which hospital patient records may be destroyed. Minnesota Statutes, section 145.32 requires permanent retention of those portions of patient's hospital records which have been defined by the commissioner of health as the individual permanent medical record.
Subp. 2. Elements.
A patient's individual permanent medical record must consist of all of the following elements of the hospital record which are applicable to that patient.
A. identification data which includes the patient's name, address, date of birth, sex, and if available, the patient's social security number;
B. medical history which includes details of the present illness, the chief complaint, relevant social and family history, and provisional diagnosis. For obstetrical patients, the medical history shall include prenatal information when available. For newborns, a birth history consisting of a physical examination report and delivery record as it pertains to the newborn must be included;
C. a physical examination report;
D. a report of operations which includes the preoperative diagnosis, the names of all surgeons and assistants, the anesthetic agent, a description of the specimens removed with pathological findings, a description of the surgical findings, the technical procedures used, and the postoperative diagnosis;
E. a discharge summary which includes the reason for hospitalization, summary of clinical observations, procedures performed, treatment rendered, significant findings (for example, pertinent laboratory, X-ray, and test results), and condition at discharge. For newborns or others for whom no discharge summary is available, a final progress note must be included; and
F. autopsy findings.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 145.32
- History: 9 SR 2659
Chapter 4643 TRAUMATIC BRAIN AND SPINAL CORD INJURY
Minn. R. 4643.0010 Purpose, Scope, and Applicability
The purpose and scope of parts 4643.0010 to 4643.0040 are to prescribe requirements applicable to the statewide traumatic brain injury and spinal cord injury registry, including what information must be reported, who is required to submit reports, when reports must be submitted, the provision of registry data to public and private entities, and fees to be charged for compiling or analyzing registry data.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.661 to 144.665
- History: 17 SR 1021
Minn. R. 4643.0015 Incorporations by Reference
The Fourth edition of the International Classification of Diseases, Clinical Modification, 9th Revision, 1991, and corresponding annual updates is incorporated by reference. It is subject to frequent change, is published by the United States Department of Health and Human Services, Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services, and may be purchased through the Superintendent of Documents, United States Government Printing Office, Washington, D.C. 20402. It is available through the Minitex interlibrary loan system.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.661 to 144.665
- History: 17 SR 1021; L 2002 c 277 s 32
Minn. R. 4643.0020 Definitions
Subpart 1. Scope.
For purposes of parts 4643.0010 to 4643.0040, the following terms have the meanings given them in this part.
Subp. 2. Commissioner.
"Commissioner" means the state commissioner of health, or the commissioner's designee.
Subp. 3. E-Code.
"E-Code" means the ICD-9-CM classification code assigned to describe the environmental events, circumstances, and conditions determined to be the external cause of the injury.
Subp. 4. Electronic submission of data.
"Electronic submission of data" means the transfer of data from a computer used by a reporting hospital to a computer specified by the commissioner through the use of a modem, magnetic tape, or magnetic disk.
Subp. 5. Hospital.
"Hospital" means an acute care institution licensed in accordance with Minnesota Statutes, sections 144.50 to 144.581.
Subp. 6. ICD-9-CM.
"ICD-9-CM" means the International Classification of Diseases, Clinical Modification, 9th Revision, 1991.
Subp. 7. N-Code.
"N-Code" means the ICD-9-CM classification code assigned to describe the clinical nature of the injury.
Subp. 8. Spinal cord injury reportable case.
"Spinal cord injury reportable case" means an injury event as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.661, subdivision 3, which results in a hospital acute care inpatient admission or emergency room death, and is assigned one or more of the following N-Codes: 806, 907.2, and 952.
Subp. 9. Summary registry data.
"Summary registry data" means statistical records and reports derived from registry data on individuals but in which individuals are not identified and from which neither their identities nor any other characteristic that could uniquely identify an individual is ascertainable.
Subp. 10. Traumatic brain injury reportable case.
"Traumatic brain injury reportable case" means an injury event as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.661, subdivision 2, which results in a hospital acute care inpatient admission or emergency room death, and is assigned one or more of the following N-Codes: 310.2, 348.1, (when used in combination with 994.1 or 994.7), 800, 801, 803, 804, 850, 851, 852, 853, 854, 905.0, 907.0 and 950.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.661 to 144.665
- History: 17 SR 1021
Minn. R. 4643.0030 Registry Reporting Requirements
Subpart 1. Hospitals required to report.
Hospitals shall submit to the commissioner reports containing the information items in subpart 2 for all traumatic brain injury and spinal cord injury reportable cases.
Subp. 2. Report content.
The following information items must be submitted to the commissioner for each reportable case:
A. Patient data including: name, street address, city, county, and state of residence, telephone number, date of birth, gender, race/ethnicity, social security number, type of insurance or payment source, and name of parent or guardian for individuals under the age of 18 years.
B. Injury circumstance data including: date and time of day injury occurred, location where injury occurred (street address, city, county, and state), E-Codes or equivalent information submitted on forms provided by the commissioner, alcohol/drug levels (from toxicology reports), employer name (for work-related injuries), and use of protective equipment.
C. Nature of injury data including: N-Codes and fatality of injury.
D. Reporting source data including: name and address of hospital, name and telephone number of person completing report, date of report, patient medical record number, date of admission, date of discharge or transfer from acute care, place discharged or transferred to (for example home, rehabilitation center, nursing home) and whether the place is located in Minnesota or another state, and name of attending physician.
Subp. 3. Report format.
Registry information must be submitted on forms provided by the commissioner for that purpose. The commissioner may approve alternative means for providing registry information including the electronic submission of data.
Subp. 4. Report submission deadline.
A report must be completed and submitted to the commissioner within 60 days of patient death, discharge, or transfer from the acute care setting.
Subp. 5. Report quality assurance.
A hospital must take all reasonable measures to assure that the registry information submitted to the commissioner is complete and accurate. A hospital must cooperate with the commissioner in the conduct of registry information validation studies, including providing access to patient medical records.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.661 to 144.665
- History: 17 SR 1021
Minn. R. 4643.0040 Provision of Registry Data
Subpart 1. Summary registry data.
Except as provided in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.664, subdivision 3, the commissioner will release only summary registry data.
Subp. 2. Data compilation or analyses.
The commissioner must provide assistance in response to requests from public or private entities engaged in research regarding the compilation or analyses of summary registry data. The assistance must include interpreting data analysis results and providing recommendations concerning the subsequent use of this information.
Subp. 3. Fees.
The commissioner may charge fees in accordance with Minnesota Statutes, section 13.03, subdivision 3, to recover all expenses and costs. These costs may include employee hourly wages, employee expenses, electronic data processing costs, duplicating, and clerical charges incurred by the commissioner as a result of requests by public and private entities for summary registry data compilation or analyses under the following conditions:
A. the entity requesting the summary registry data is not a community health services board as defined in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 145A;
B. the request requires more than one person hour of time to complete for an employee of the commissioner who is classified as either a programmer/analyst or higher, or an epidemiologist I or higher; and
C. the estimated total out-of-pocket expenses, regardless of person hours needed to satisfy the request, are greater than $50.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.661 to 144.665
- History: 17 SR 1021
Chapter 4645 HOSPITAL CONSTRUCTION AND EQUIPMENT
Minn. R. 4645.0200 Construction Defined
The term "construction" as used in parts 4645.0200 to 4645.5200 means the erection of new buildings and the additions to existing buildings commenced on or after the effective date of these rules.
Prior to the final selection of a hospital site, it is suggested that a request be made to the commissioner of health for a study and recommendations relative to the choice of a site. It is recommended that a site survey and soil investigation be completed prior to starting work on the building design.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.55; 144.56
- History: L 1977 c 305 s 39
Minn. R. 4645.0300 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4645.0400 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4645.0500 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4645.0600 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4645.0700 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4645.0800 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4645.0900 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4645.1000 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4645.1100 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4645.1200 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4645.1300 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4645.1400 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4645.1500 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4645.1600 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4645.1700 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4645.1800 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4645.1900 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4645.2000 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4645.2100 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4645.2200 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4645.2300 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4645.2400 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4645.2500 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4645.2600 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4645.2700 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4645.2800 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4645.2900 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4645.3000 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4645.3100 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4645.3200 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4645.3300 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4645.3400 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4645.3500 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4645.3600 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4645.3700 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4645.3800 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4645.3805 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4645.3900 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4645.4000 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4645.4100 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4645.4200 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4645.4300 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4645.4400 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4645.4500 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4645.4600 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4645.4700 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4645.4800 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4645.4900 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4645.5000 [Renumbered 4645.3805]
[Renumbered 4645.3805]
Minn. R. 4645.5100 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4645.5200 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 3 s 83]
Minn. R. 4645.5300 Preliminary Plans
When construction is contemplated for new buildings, additions to existing buildings, or for major remodeling or alterations of existing buildings, the preliminary plans or sketches shall be submitted to the commissioner of health for review and approval before the preparation of working drawings is undertaken. The preliminary plans shall be drawn to scale and shall indicate the type of construction, the assignment of all spaces, sizes of areas and rooms, and the location and kind of fixed equipment. The proposed roads and walks, service and entrance courts, parking, and orientation shall be shown on either a small plot plan or the first floor plan.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.55; 144.56
- History: L 1977 c 305 s 39
Minn. R. 4645.5400 Final Working Drawings and Specifications
Subpart 1. Plans submitted to the commissioner of health.
Before construction is begun, plans and specifications covering the construction of new buildings, additions to existing buildings, or for major remodeling or alterations of existing buildings shall be submitted in duplicate to the commissioner of health for its approval. These plans shall show the general arrangement of the building, including a room schedule and fixed equipment of each room, together with other pertinent information. Separate drawings shall be prepared for each of the following branches of work: architectural, structural, mechanical, and electrical. They shall include or contain the information in subparts 2 to 5.
Subp. 2. Architectural drawings.
Architectural drawings must include:
A. approach plan showing all topography; newly established levels and grades; existing structures on the site, if any; new buildings and structures; roadways and walks;
B. plan of each floor and roof;
C. elevations of each facade;
D. sections through building;
E. scale and full size details as necessary;
F. schedule of finishes; and
G. large scale drawings of typical and special rooms indicating all fixed equipment.
Subp. 3. Structural drawings.
Structural drawings must meet the following requirements in items A to E.
A. Plans of foundations, floors, roofs, and all intermediate levels shall show a complete design with sizes, sections, and the relative location of the various members. A schedule of beams, girders, and columns shall be included.
B. Floor levels, column centers, and offsets shall be dimensioned.
C. Special openings and pipe sleeves shall be dimensioned or otherwise noted for easy reference.
D. Details of all special connections, assemblies, and expansion joints shall be given.
E. Notes on design data shall include the name of the governing building code, values of assumed live loads, wind loads, and soil-bearing pressures.
Subp. 4. Mechanical drawings.
These drawings with specifications shall show the complete installations and equipment as follows:
A. heating, piping, ventilation, and air-conditioning:
B. plumbing, drainage, stand pipe systems, and gas piping:
C. elevators and dumbwaiters. Shaft details and dimensions, size of car platform and doors, travel, pit, and machine room; and
D. kitchens, laundry, laboratories, boiler room, and mechanical equipment rooms shall be detailed at a satisfactory scale to show the location, size, and connections of all fixed and movable equipment.
Subp. 5. Electrical drawings.
Drawings shall show all electrical wiring, outlets, and equipment which require electrical connections as follows:
A. Electrical service entrance with service switches, service feeders to the public service feeders, and characteristics of the light and power current. Transformers and their connections, if located in the building, shall be shown.
B. Plan and diagram showing main switchboard, power panels, light panels, and equipment. Feeder and conduit sizes shall be shown with schedule of feeder breakers or switches.
C. Light outlets, receptacles, switches, power outlets, and circuits.
D. Telephone layout showing service entrance, telephone switchboard, strip boxes, telephone outlets, and branch conduits as approved by the telephone company. Where public telephones are used for intercommunication, equipment shall be provided as required by the telephone company.
E. Nurses' call systems with outlets for beds, duty stations, door signal lights, annunciators, and wiring diagrams.
F. Doctors' call and doctors' in-and-out systems with all equipment wiring, if provided.
G. Fire alarm system with stations, gongs, control board, and wiring diagrams.
H. Emergency lighting system with outlets, transfer switch, source of supply, feeders, and circuits.
Subp. 6. Additions to existing buildings.
The procedures and requirements for working drawings and specifications shall be followed and in addition the following information shall be submitted:
A. plans and details showing attachment of new construction to the existing structure and mechanical systems as well as a plan of the functional layout of the existing building designating bedrooms and service areas; and
B. type of construction of existing building and number of stories.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.55; 144.56
- History: L 1977 c 305 s 39
Minn. R. 4645.5500 Specifications
Specifications shall supplement the drawings and shall comply with the following:
A. The specifications shall fully describe, except where fully indicated and described on the drawings, the materials, construction, the kind, sizes, capacities, finishes, and other characteristics of all materials, products, articles, and devices.
B. The specification shall include:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.55; 144.56
- History: 17 SR 1279
Minn. R. 4645.5600 Plans for Water Supply and Sewerage Systems
No water supply or plumbing system or system for the disposal of sewage, garbage, or refuse shall be installed nor shall any such existing system be materially altered or extended until complete plans and specifications for the installation, alteration, or extension, together with such additional information as the commissioner of health may require, have been submitted to the commissioner of health in duplicate and approved. The plumbing installation in the existing building shall upon completion comply with the Minnesota Plumbing Code, chapter 4714.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.55; 144.56
- History: L 1977 c 305 s 39; 40 SR 71
Minn. R. 4645.5700 Preparation of Plans and Specifications by a Registered Architect or Engineer
Plans and revisions shall be prepared and certified by an engineer or architect registered to practice in the state of Minnesota as provided by state laws.
Minnesota Statutes, sections 326.02 and 326.03, require that plans be prepared by a registered architect or registered engineer if the total cost of the improvement exceeds $2,000 paid in whole or in part from public funds, or if the total cost exceeds $10,000, paid from funds not public.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.55; 144.56
Minn. R. 4645.5800 Compliance with Approved Plans
All hospital construction shall take place in accordance with the approved completed plans. If it is desired to make deviations from the approved plans, the commissioner of health shall be consulted and approval of the proposed changes obtained before construction changes are started.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.55; 144.56
- History: L 1977 c 305 s 39
Minn. R. 4645.5900 Delayed Construction
Unless construction is commenced within one year of approval of final working drawings and specifications, the drawings shall be resubmitted for renewal of review and approval.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.55; 144.56
Minn. R. 4645.6000 Fire Marshal Approval Required
Fire protection for the hospital shall be provided in accordance with requirements of the state fire marshal. Approval by the state fire marshal of the fire protection of a hospital shall be a prerequisite for licensure.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.55; 144.56
Chapter 4647 HEALTH CARE EQUIPMENT LOAN PROGRAM
Minn. R. 4647.0100 [Repealed, 28 SR 1249]
[Repealed, 28 SR 1249]
Minn. R. 4647.0200 [Repealed, 28 SR 1249]
[Repealed, 28 SR 1249]
Minn. R. 4647.0300 [Repealed, 28 SR 1249]
[Repealed, 28 SR 1249]
Minn. R. 4647.0400 [Repealed, 28 SR 1249]
[Repealed, 28 SR 1249]
Chapter 4650 HOSPITAL AND SURGICAL CENTER REPORTING
Minn. R. 4650.0100 [Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
[Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
Minn. R. 4650.0102 Definitions
Subpart 1. Scope.
For the purposes of parts 4650.0102 to 4650.0174, the following terms have the meanings given them.
Subp. 1a. Accounting and financial reporting expenses.
"Accounting and financial reporting expenses" means all costs related to fiscal services, such as general accounting, budgeting, cost accounting, payroll accounting, accounts payable, and plant, equipment, and inventory accounting.
Subp. 2. Accounting period.
"Accounting period" means the fiscal year of a facility which is a period of 12 consecutive months established by the governing authority of a facility for purposes of accounting.
Subp. 2a. Adjustments and uncollectibles.
"Adjustments and uncollectibles" means the total of charity care and adjustments to charges under reimbursement agreements with payers.
Subp. 2b. Administrative expenses.
"Administrative expenses" means the sum of the following:
A. admitting, patient billing, and collection expenses;
B. accounting and financial reporting expenses;
C. quality assurance and utilization management program or activity expenses;
D. community and wellness education expenses;
E. promotion and marketing expenses;
F. taxes, fees, and assessments;
G. malpractice expenses; and
H. other administrative expenses.
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Subp. 3a. Admitting, patient billing, and collection expenses.
"Admitting, patient billing, and collection expenses" means all costs related to inpatient and outpatient admission or registration, whether scheduled or nonscheduled; the scheduling of admission times; insurance verification, including coordination of benefits; preparing and submitting claim forms; and cashiering, credit, and collection functions.
Subp. 3b.
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Subp. 3c.
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Subp. 4.
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Subp. 4a. Available beds.
"Available beds" means the number of beds that can be made available for use within 24 hours, as of the end of a reporting period. Available beds include pediatric bassinets, isolation units, quiet rooms, and all other bed facilities that are set up for use by inpatients who have no other bed facilities assigned to or reserved for them. Available beds do not include newborn bassinets, labor rooms, postanesthesia or postoperative recovery room beds, psychiatric holding beds, beds that are used only as holding facilities for patients prior to their transfer to another hospital, or any other bed facilities for patients receiving special procedures for a portion of their stay and who have other bed facilities assigned to or reserved for them.
Subp. 5.
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419]
Subp. 6.
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Subp. 7.
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419]
Subp. 7a. Bad debt expense.
"Bad debt expense" means the dollar amount charged for care for which there was an expectation of payment but for which the patient is unwilling to pay.
Subp. 8.
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419]
Subp. 8a. Business day.
"Business day" means Monday through Friday, but does not include those days listed as holidays in Minnesota Statutes, section 645.44, subdivision 5.
Subp. 9. Charity care adjustments.
"Charity care adjustments" means the dollar amount that would have been charged by a facility for rendering free or discounted care to persons who cannot afford to pay and for which the facility did not expect payment. For purposes of reporting under part 4650.0112, charity care adjustments are included in adjustments and uncollectibles.
Subp. 9a. Community and wellness education expenses.
"Community and wellness education expenses" means all costs related to wellness programs, health promotion, community education classes, support groups, and other outreach programs and health screening, included in a specific community or wellness education cost center or reclassified from other cost centers. Community and wellness education expenses does not include patient education programs.
Subp. 9b. Commissioner.
"Commissioner" means the commissioner of health and duly authorized agents of the commissioner of health.
Subp. 10.
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Subp. 11.
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419]
Subp. 12.
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419]
Subp. 12a.
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Subp. 12b. Donations and grants for charity care.
"Donations and grants for charity care" means revenues from an individual, group, foundation, government entity, or corporate donor that are designated by the donor for providing charity care. For purposes of reporting under part 4650.0112, donations and grants for charity care are operating revenue.
Subp. 12c.
[Repealed, 26 SR 627]
Subp. 13.
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Subp. 14.
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Subp. 15.
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Subp. 16.
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419]
Subp. 17.
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Subp. 18.
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Subp. 19.
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Subp. 19a. Full-time equivalent employee.
"Full-time equivalent employee" means an employee or any combination of employees that are paid by the facility for 2,080 hours of employment per year.
Subp. 19b.
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Subp. 19c. Full-time equivalent resident.
"Full-time equivalent resident" means a graduate medical resident who is on assigned rotation at the hospital during the full reporting year. Full-time equivalent resident also means any combination of graduate medical residents who are on assigned rotation at the hospital during a portion of the reporting year for a combined amount of time equivalent to one resident for a full year. A graduate medical resident means an individual who is being trained as a physician and is in an accredited residency program at a teaching hospital.
Subp. 20.
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419]
Subp. 20a.
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Subp. 20b. Gross surgical center revenue from patient care.
"Gross surgical center revenue from patient care" means the total charges billed by the surgical center for patient care regardless of whether the surgical center expects to collect the amount billed.
Subp. 20c.
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Subp. 20d. Group purchaser.
"Group purchaser" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 62J.03, subdivision 6.
Subp. 20e. Hospital.
"Hospital" means a facility licensed as a hospital under Minnesota Statutes, sections 144.50 to 144.58, to provide to inpatients:
A. diagnostic services and therapeutic services for medical diagnosis, treatment, and care of injured, disabled, or sick persons; or
B. rehabilitation services for the rehabilitation of injured, disabled, or sick persons.
Subp. 20f. Hospital patient care services charges.
"Hospital patient care services charges" means the total charges billed by a hospital for care provided to admitted inpatients and registered outpatients by the hospital operating under its Minnesota hospital license. Charges are counted in hospital patient care services charges regardless of whether the hospital expects to collect the amount billed. Hospital patient care services charges include charges for hospital routine inpatient, outpatient, and ancillary services.
Subp. 21.
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419]
Subp. 21a.
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Subp. 22.
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Subp. 23.
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419]
Subp. 23a.
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Subp. 24.
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Subp. 24a. Malpractice expenses.
"Malpractice expenses" means all costs of malpractice including malpractice insurance, self-insurance expenses including program administration, and malpractice losses not covered by insurance, including deductibles and malpractice attorney fees.
Subp. 24b. Management information systems expenses.
"Management information systems expenses" means all costs related to maintaining and operating the data processing system of the facility, including such functions as admissions, medical records, patient charges, decision support systems, and fiscal services.
Subp. 24c. Medical care surcharge.
"Medical care surcharge" means the expenses under Minnesota Statutes, section 256.9657. For purposes of reporting under part 4650.0112, medical care surcharge is an operating expense.
Subp. 24d.
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Subp. 24e. MinnesotaCare tax.
"MinnesotaCare tax" means expenses for the MinnesotaCare tax under Minnesota Statutes, sections 295.52 and 295.582. For purposes of reporting under part 4650.0112, the MinnesotaCare tax is an operating expense.
Subp. 24f.
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Subp. 24g.
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Subp. 24h.
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Subp. 25.
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Subp. 25a.
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Subp. 26.
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Subp. 26a. Nonoperating donations and grants.
"Nonoperating donations and grants" means revenues from an individual, group, foundation, or corporate donor that are not designated by the donor for a specific purpose or are designated by the donor for a purpose not directly related to the normal day-to-day operations of the facility. For purposes of reporting under part 4650.0112, nonoperating donations and grants are nonoperating revenue.
Subp. 26b. Nonoperating expenses.
"Nonoperating expenses" means all costs not directly associated with the normal day-to-day operation of the facility.
Subp. 26c. Nonoperating public funding.
"Nonoperating public funding" means revenue from taxes or other municipal, county, state, or federal government sources, including grants and subsidies, that are not designated for a specific purpose or are designated for a purpose not directly related to the normal day-to-day operations of the facility. For purposes of reporting under part 4650.0112, nonoperating public funding is nonoperating revenue.
Subp. 26d. Nonoperating revenue.
"Nonoperating revenue" means all income received that is not directly related to the normal day-to-day operations of the facility.
Subp. 26e. Operating expenses.
"Operating expenses" means all costs directly associated with providing patient care or other services that are part of the normal day-to-day operation of the facility.
Subp. 26f. Operating revenue.
"Operating revenue" means the sum of hospital patient care services charges, other patient care services charges, total adjustments and uncollectibles, and other operating revenue received as part of the normal day-to-day operation of the facility.
Subp. 27.
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419]
Subp. 28.
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419]
Subp. 28a. Other administrative expenses.
"Other administrative expenses" means all costs for the overall operation of the facility associated with management, administration, and legal staff functions, including the costs of governing boards, executive wages and benefits, auxiliary and other volunteer groups, purchasing, telecommunications, printing and duplicating, receiving and storing, and personnel management. Other administrative expenses includes all wages and benefits, donations and support, direct and in-kind, for the purpose of lobbying and influencing policymakers and legislators, including membership dues, and all expenses associated with public policy development, such as response to rulemaking and interaction with government agency personnel including attorney fees for reviewing and analyzing governmental policies. Other administrative expenses does not include the costs of public relations included in promotion and marketing expenses, the costs of legal staff already allocated to other functions, or the costs of medical records, social services, and nursing administration.
Subp. 28b. Other operating revenue.
"Other operating revenue" means total income received as part of the normal day-to-day operation of a facility that is from services other than patient care and when no hospital medical record is generated. Other operating revenue includes:
A. donations and grants for charity care;
B. private donations and grants for operations;
C. public funding for operations;
D. space rental;
E. medical record transcription fees;
F. operation of a hospital cafeteria;
G. parking lot and ramp fees;
H. gift shop revenues;
I. public phone proceeds;
J. recovery of radiology silver;
K. billing services for other health care entities;
L. weight loss clinics;
M. auxiliary functions; and
N. other income received as part of the normal day-to-day operation of the facility not related to patient care.
Subp. 28c. Other patient care services charges.
"Other patient care services charges" means the total charges billed by the hospital for patient care services that are provided by the hospital, as described in items A to D.
A. Other patient care services charges include charges billed by the hospital for patient care services provided by hospital components to persons who are not admitted as inpatients or registered as outpatients of the hospital. Charges for the sale of reference laboratory services, reference radiology services, durable medical equipment, and retail pharmacy supplies are included under this item.
B. Other patient care services charges include charges billed by the hospital for the professional component of patient care services provided by physicians and by billable midlevel practitioners whose scope of practice allows them to practice independent of direct physician supervision. This applies to physicians and billable midlevel practitioners, whether they are employed by the hospital or under contract with the hospital, when the charges are billed and received by the hospital, unless the hospital acts merely as a billing agent.
C. Charges for patient care services that are hospital patient care services charges as defined in subpart 20f are not included as other patient care services charges.
D. Charges are included as other patient care services charges regardless of whether the hospital expects to collect the amount billed.
Subp. 29.
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Subp. 30. Outpatient registration.
"Outpatient registration" means a documented acceptance of a patient by a facility for the purpose of providing outpatient services in an outpatient or ancillary department, including documented acceptance for the provision of emergency and outpatient surgery services. An outpatient registration may involve the provision of more than one outpatient service, and a patient may have more than one outpatient registration per day. Outpatient registration does not include failed appointments or telephone contacts.
Subp. 30a.
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Subp. 30b.
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Subp. 30c.
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Subp. 30d. Outpatient surgical center.
"Outpatient surgical center" means a freestanding facility licensed under Minnesota Statutes, sections 144.50 to 144.58, and organized for the specific purpose of providing elective outpatient surgery for preexamined, prediagnosed, low-risk patients.
Subp. 31.
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Subp. 31a. Plant, equipment, and occupancy expenses.
"Plant, equipment, and occupancy expenses" means all costs related to plant, equipment, and occupancy expenses, including maintenance, repairs, and engineering expenses, building rent and leases, equipment rent and leases, and utilities. Plant, equipment, and occupancy expenses includes interest expenses and depreciation.
Subp. 31b. Private donations and grants for operations.
"Private donations and grants for operations" means revenues from an individual, group, foundation, or corporate donor that are designated for supporting the continued operation of the facility. Private donations and grants for operations do not include donations and grants for charity care. For purposes of reporting under part 4650.0112, private donations and grants for operations are operating revenue.
Subp. 32.
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419]
Subp. 32a. Promotion and marketing expenses.
"Promotion and marketing expenses" means all costs related to marketing, promotion, and advertising activities such as billboards, yellow page listings, cost of materials, advertising agency fees, marketing representative wages and fringe benefits, travel, and other expenses allocated to the promotion and marketing activities. Promotion and marketing expenses does not include costs charged to other departments within the hospital.
Subp. 32b. Psychiatric hospital.
"Psychiatric hospital" means a facility licensed as a psychiatric hospital under Minnesota Statutes, sections 144.50 to 144.58, to provide psychiatric services to inpatients for the diagnosis and treatment of mental illness.
Subp. 32c. Public funding for operations.
"Public funding for operations" means revenue from taxes or other municipal, county, state, or federal government sources, including grants and subsidies, that are designated for supporting the continued operation of a facility. Public funding for operations does not include donations and grants for charity care. For purposes of reporting under part 4650.0112, public funding for operations is operating revenue.
Subp. 32d. Quality assurance and utilization management program or activity expenses.
"Quality assurance and utilization management program or activity expenses" means all costs associated with any activities or programs established for the purpose of quality of care evaluation and utilization management. Activities include quality assurance, development of practice protocols, utilization review, peer review, provider credentialing, and all other medical care evaluation activities.
Subp. 33.
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419]
Subp. 34.
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419]
Subp. 34a. Regulatory and compliance reporting expenses.
"Regulatory and compliance reporting expenses" means all costs of the facility associated with, or directly incurred in the preparation and submission of financial, statistical, or other utilization, satisfaction, or quality reports, or summary plan descriptions that are required by federal, state, and local agencies.
Subp. 34b. Reporting organization.
"Reporting organization" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.702, subdivision 6.
Subp. 35. Research expenses.
"Research expenses" means the costs incurred by a facility for research purposes. Research means a systematic, intensive study directed toward a better scientific knowledge of the science and art of diagnosing, treating, curing, and preventing mental or physical disease, injury, or deformity; relieving pain; and improving or preserving health. Research may be conducted at a laboratory bench without the use of patients or it may involve patients. Furthermore, there may be research projects that involve both laboratory bench research and patient care research.
Subp. 35a. Resident salaries and benefits.
"Resident salaries and benefits" means the total salaries or stipends paid to graduate medical residents, as well as costs for job-related benefits provided for residents, including health or disability insurance. Resident salaries and benefits include those salaries and benefits for the proportion of time on assigned rotation at the hospital, regardless of whether the salaries and benefits are paid by the hospital or another entity. A graduate medical resident means an individual who is being trained as a physician and is in an accredited residency program at a teaching hospital.
Subp. 35b. Rural hospital planning and transition grant.
"Rural hospital planning and transition grant" means a grant awarded under Minnesota Statutes, section 144.147. For purposes of reporting under part 4650.0112, a rural hospital planning and transition grant is public funding for operations.
Subp. 35c.
MR 2001 [Removed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 88]
Subp. 35d. Specialized hospital.
"Specialized hospital" means a state-operated facility licensed as a specialized hospital under Minnesota Statutes, sections 144.50 to 144.58, to provide services to inpatients for the diagnosis and treatment of mental illness.
Subp. 36.
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Subp. 37.
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Subp. 38.
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Subp. 39.
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Subp. 39a. Taxes, fees, and assessments.
"Taxes, fees, and assessments" means the direct payments made to government agencies including property taxes; medical care surcharge; MinnesotaCare tax; unrelated business income taxes; any assessments imposed by local, state, or federal jurisdiction; all fees associated with the facility's new or renewal certification with state or federal regulatory agencies, including fees associated with Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO) accreditation; and any fees or fines paid to government agencies for examinations related to regulation.
Subp. 40.
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62J.321; 62J.35; 144.56; 144.703
- History: L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834; 19 SR 1419; 21 SR 1106; 26 SR 627; L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 88
Minn. R. 4650.0104 Scope; Report Requirements
Subpart 1. Scope.
All hospitals, psychiatric hospitals, specialized hospitals, and outpatient surgical centers licensed under Minnesota Statutes, sections 144.50 to 144.58, are subject to this chapter.
Subp. 2. Report requirements.
A hospital, psychiatric hospital, or specialized hospital shall submit a financial, utilization, and services report as described in part 4650.0112. An outpatient surgical center shall submit a financial, utilization, and services report as described in part 4650.0113. A hospital or outpatient surgical center shall submit an audited annual financial statement as described in part 4650.0110 and a Medicare cost report as described in part 4650.0111.
Subp. 3. Citations.
Citations of federal law or federal regulations incorporated in parts 4650.0102 to 4650.0174 are for those laws and regulations as amended.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62J.321; 62J.35; 144.56; 144.703
- History: L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834; 19 SR 1419; 21 SR 1106
Minn. R. 4650.0106 [Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Minn. R. 4650.0108 [Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Minn. R. 4650.0110 Audited Annual Financial Statement
Subpart 1. Reporting requirements.
A hospital or outpatient surgical center shall submit an audited annual financial statement, including all notes, footnotes, and auditor's opinion, to the commissioner or the voluntary, nonprofit reporting organization approved by the commissioner.
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Subp. 4.
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Subp. 5.
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Subp. 6.
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62J.321; 62J.35; 144.56; 144.703
- History: L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834; 19 SR 1419; L 1994 c 488 s 8; 21 SR 1106
Minn. R. 4650.0111 Medicare Cost Report
A hospital or outpatient surgical center shall submit to the commissioner or the voluntary, nonprofit reporting organization approved by the commissioner a copy of the facility's cost report as filed under United States Social Security Act, title XVIII, stated in Code of Federal Regulations, title 42, section 413.20, and the uniform cost report required under United States Code, title 42, section 1320a. The hospital or outpatient surgical center shall also submit a copy of any supplemental reconciliation schedules tying the financial statement to the cost report.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62J.321; 62J.35; 144.56; 144.703
- History: 19 SR 1419; 21 SR 1106; 26 SR 627
Minn. R. 4650.0112 Financial, Utilization, and Services Report; Hospitals
Subpart 1. Reporting requirements.
A hospital, psychiatric hospital, or specialized hospital shall submit a report including financial, utilization, and services information for the facility's last full and audited accounting period prior to the accounting period during which it submits this report. This period is called the reporting year. A hospital must include the information described in subparts 2, 2a, and 3. A psychiatric hospital or a specialized hospital must include the information described in subparts 2, 2a, and 3, item A, but is not required to report the detailed financial data described in subpart 3, items B to R. Information must be reported according to subpart 1c.
Subp. 1a. Changes in accounting period.
If a hospital, psychiatric hospital, or specialized hospital changes its audited accounting period, reports must include financial, utilization, and services information for all time periods. Required information for a period of up to 13 months may be included in one report.
Subp. 1b. Clinic data reporting.
If a hospital is not part of a multihospital system, but is affiliated with a clinic as evidenced on the audited annual financial statement, the hospital must separately report the hospital and affiliated clinic information. Reporting affiliated clinic information as specified in subpart 7 fulfills the requirements of chapter 4651 for physicians whose information is included in the clinic reporting.
Subp. 1c. Estimating.
Whenever reasonably possible, a hospital, psychiatric hospital, or specialized hospital must report actual numbers in all categories. If it is not reasonably possible for the facility to report actual numbers, the facility may estimate using reasonable methods. Upon request from the commissioner, the facility must provide a written explanation of the method used for the estimate.
Subp. 2. Utilization information.
Utilization information must include:
A. the number of patient days, excluding swing bed and subacute or transitional care patient days, categorized by type of payer and by designated care unit or revenue center;
B. the number of admissions, excluding swing bed and subacute or transitional care admissions, categorized by type of payer and by designated care unit or revenue center;
C. the number of swing bed patient days, subacute or transitional care patient days, and nursery days;
D. by employee classification, the average number of vacant full-time equivalent positions and the average number of full-time equivalent employees categorized by consulting or contracting, full-time, part-time, and total;
E. the number of swing bed admissions and subacute or transitional care admissions categorized by origin, and the number of patients readmitted to a swing bed within 60 days of a patient's discharge from the facility;
F. the number of licensed beds, the number of licensed bassinets, the number of available beds, the maximum daily census and the minimum daily census for the reporting period, and the average number of beds used by the facility for swing beds and subacute or transitional care;
G. the total number of births;
H. the number of swing bed and subacute or transitional care discharges categorized by destination;
I. any changes in the number of licensed beds during the reporting year and the effective dates of the changes;
J. the number of physicians with admitting privileges; and
K. the average length of stay.
Subp. 2a. Services information.
Services information must:
A. specify whether the following services are provided on or off site, and whether the services are provided by facility staff or by contractual arrangement:
B. provide the following measures of utilization:
C. provide the following measures of staffing:
Subp. 2b. Additions in required services information.
When medical or technological advances introduce a new health care service or when information about an existing health care service is important for policy analysis purposes, the commissioner shall determine if information about the health care service will be requested under this chapter. To make this determination, the commissioner shall consider:
A. whether the service is likely to be provided in a significant number of hospitals, psychiatric hospitals, specialized hospitals, or outpatient surgical centers;
B. whether the geographic location of the service is important to monitoring access to the service;
C. whether information about the service is important consumer, industry, or policy analysis information;
D. whether reporting information about the service is an administrative burden for the hospital, psychiatric hospital, specialized hospital, or outpatient surgical center; and
E. other factors which relate to the anticipated utilization of the health care service.
Subp. 2c. Elimination of required services information.
The commissioner shall eliminate requests for information about obsolete health care services. To determine if a health care service is obsolete, the commissioner shall consider whether:
A. there has been a significant reduction in the number of hospitals, psychiatric hospitals, or specialized hospitals that provide the service;
B. there has been a significant overall reduction in the statewide utilization of the service;
C. the elimination of information about the service would adversely affect the public interest; and
D. the elimination of information about the service would conflict with standards imposed by law.
Subp. 3. Financial information.
Financial information must include:
A. total operating expenses and total operating revenue;
B. management information systems expenses and plant, equipment, and occupancy expenses;
C. total administrative expenses. A hospital licensed for 50 or more beds shall report expenses for each of the following functions: admitting, patient billing, and collection; accounting and financial reporting; quality assurance and utilization management program or activity; community and wellness education; promotion and marketing; taxes, fees, and assessments; malpractice; and other administrative expenses;
D. regulatory and compliance reporting expenses;
E. hospital patient care services charges and other patient care services charges;
F. the sum of hospital patient care services charges and other patient care services charges:
G. a statement of adjustments and uncollectibles by type of payer, for charity care, and by inpatient or outpatient category:
H. public funding for operations and donations and grants for charity care with estimates of the percentage received from private and public sources;
I. income or loss from hospital operations;
J. gross receivables by payer and net receivables;
K. a copy of charity care policies, including a description of, if applicable, income guidelines, asset guidelines, medical assistance status impact on charity care eligibility, and sliding fee schedules; charity care services provided; other benefits provided to the community; costs in excess of public program payments; and other community services costs;
L. a description of the care provided in swing beds;
M. the medical care surcharge and MinnesotaCare tax paid;
N. provision for bad debts:
O. all other operating expenses by a natural classification of expense;
P. nonoperating revenue and nonoperating expenses;
Q. nonoperating donations and grants and nonoperating public funding;
R. salaries and wages by employee classification; and
S. the number of full-time equivalent residents, resident salaries and benefits, and research expenses.
Subp. 4.
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419]
Subp. 5.
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Subp. 6. Budget year reporting.
A hospital shall report budgeted information or reasonable estimates of total operating expenses, the sum of hospital patient care services charges and other patient care services charges, total adjustments and uncollectibles, total salaries and wages, total patient days, total admissions, and total outpatient registrations for the hospital's full accounting period during which it submits the report. This period is called the budget year.
Subp. 7. Affiliated clinic data reporting.
If affiliated clinic data is reported according to subpart 1b, the clinic data must include the following:
A. gross patient revenue, adjustments and uncollectibles, net patient revenue by type of payer, and charity care as defined in part 4651.0100, subpart 4;
B. operating revenue categorized by education revenue as defined in part 4651.0100, subpart 8, research revenue as defined in part 4651.0100, subpart 22, and donations for charity care as defined in part 4651.0100, subpart 4;
C. the number of registrations by clinic location;
D. other patient care costs as defined in part 4651.0100, subpart 16, bad debt as defined in part 4651.0100, subpart 2, education-degree program costs as defined in part 4651.0100, subpart 9, and research costs as defined in part 4651.0100, subpart 21;
E. the total number of full-time equivalent employees for the clinic by employee classification;
F. malpractice expenses, if separate from the hospital;
G. addresses of each clinic location;
H. names and provider identifiers of physicians by clinic location; and
I. a description of how the clinic is defined and how it is distinguished from other outpatient services of the hospital.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62J.321; 62J.35; 144.56; 144.703
- History: L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834; 19 SR 1419; 21 SR 1106; 26 SR 627
Minn. R. 4650.0113 Financial, Utilization, and Services Report; Outpatient Surgical Centers
Subpart 1. Reporting requirements.
An outpatient surgical center shall submit a report, including the financial, utilization, and services information described in subpart 4, for the outpatient surgical center's last full accounting period prior to the accounting period during which it submits the report. This period is called the reporting year. Information must be reported according to subpart 3.
Subp. 2. Changes in accounting period.
If an outpatient surgical center changes its audited accounting period, reports must include financial, utilization, and services information for all time periods. Required information for a period of up to 13 months may be included in one report.
Subp. 3. Estimating.
Whenever reasonably possible, an outpatient surgical center must report actual numbers in all categories. If it is not reasonably possible for the facility to report actual numbers, the facility may estimate using reasonable methods. Upon request from the commissioner, the outpatient surgical center must provide a written explanation of the method used for the estimate.
Subp. 4. Financial, utilization, and services information.
Financial, utilization, and services information must include:
A. the number of surgical cases;
B. the number of operating rooms;
C. the average weekly hours open;
D. the type of nonsurgical procedures or services provided, including radiology, laboratory, and medical procedures and services;
E. the average number of full-time equivalent employees by employee classification;
F. the number of physicians with staff privileges;
G. the ten surgical procedures performed most frequently during the reporting year, including the procedure name, the current procedural terminology code number, and the number of procedures. Current procedural terminology code numbers are contained in "Physician's Current Procedural Terminology" (CPT manual) (4th edition 1996 and subsequent editions), published by the American Medical Association. The CPT manual is incorporated by reference, is subject to frequent change, and is available through the Minitex interlibrary loan system;
H. gross surgical center revenue from patient care;
I. charges by type of payer;
J. adjustments and uncollectibles by type of payer, and for charity care;
K. bad debt and total operating expenses;
L. total administrative expenses;
M. an estimate of regulatory and compliance reporting expenses;
N. management information systems expenses and plant, equipment, and occupancy expenses;
O. a description of ownership, including corporations that the outpatient surgical center is owned by or owns;
P. a description of contracts or formal affiliations with hospitals, providers of radiology services, providers of laboratory services, other outpatient surgical centers, or third-party payers, including the name of the entity, the purpose of the contract, and whether the contract or affiliation includes price discounts, quality or practice patterns, performance incentives, volume of business guarantees, or exclusivity arrangements;
Q. the availability of price information, including whether:
R. the number of inquiries concerning the price of services the surgical center receives in an average business week;
S. a description of charity care policies, including income guidelines, asset guidelines, medical assistance status impact, and sliding fee schedules;
T. a general description of the change in the demand for charity care to be provided in the budget year; and
U. a general estimate of the change in the amount of charity care the surgical center expects to provide in the budget year.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62J.321; 144.56; 144.703
- History: 21 SR 1106; 26 SR 627
Minn. R. 4650.0114 [Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Minn. R. 4650.0115 Charity Care Reporting
Subpart 1. Facility requirements.
For a facility to report amounts as charity care adjustments, the facility must:
A. generate and record a charge;
B. have a policy on the provision of charity care that contains specific eligibility criteria and is communicated or made available to patients;
C. have made a reasonable effort to identify a third-party payer, encourage the patient to enroll in public programs, and, to the extent possible, aid the patient in the enrollment process; and
D. ensure that the patient meets the charity care criteria of this part.
Subp. 2. Classification as charity care adjustments.
In determining whether to classify care as charity care, the facility must consider the following:
A. charity care may include services that the provider is obligated to render independently of the ability to collect;
B. charity care may include care provided to patients who meet the facility's charity care guidelines and have partial coverage, but who are unable to pay the remainder of their medical bills. This does not apply to that portion of the bill that has been determined to be the patient's responsibility after a partial charity care classification by the facility;
C. charity care may include care provided to low-income patients who may qualify for a public health insurance program and meet the facility's eligibility criteria for charity care, but who do not complete the application process for public insurance despite the facility's reasonable efforts;
D. charity care may include care to individuals whose eligibility for charity care was determined through third-party services employed by the facility for information-gathering purposes only;
E. charity care does not include contractual allowances, which is the difference between gross charges and payments received under contractual arrangements with insurance companies and payers;
F. charity care does not include bad debt;
G. charity care does not include what may be perceived as underpayments for operating public programs;
H. charity care does not include unreimbursed costs of basic or clinical research or professional education and training;
I. charity care does not include professional courtesy discounts;
J. charity care does not include community service or outreach activities; and
K. charity care does not include services for patients against whom collection actions were taken that resulted in a financial obligation documented on a patient's credit report with credit bureaus.
Subp. 3. Reporting categories.
When reporting charity care adjustments, the facility must report total dollar amounts and the number of contacts between a patient and a health care provider during which a service is provided for the following categories:
A. care to patients with family incomes at or below 275 percent of the federal poverty guideline;
B. care to patients with family incomes above 275 percent of the federal poverty guideline; and
C. care to patients when the facility, with reasonable effort, is unable to determine family incomes.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62J.321; 144.56; 144.703
- History: 26 SR 627
Minn. R. 4650.0116 [Repealed, 19 SR 1419]
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419]
Minn. R. 4650.0117 Bad Debt Reporting
In determining whether to classify care as a bad debt expense, a facility must:
A. presume that a patient is able and willing to pay until and unless the facility has reason to consider the care as a charity care case under its charity care policy and the facility classifies the care as a charity care case; and
B. include as a bad debt expense any unpaid deductibles, coinsurance, copayments, noncovered services, and other unpaid patient responsibilities.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62J.321; 144.56; 144.703
- History: 26 SR 627
Minn. R. 4650.0118 [Repealed, 19 SR 1419]
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419]
Minn. R. 4650.0120 [Repealed, 19 SR 1419]
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419]
Minn. R. 4650.0122 [Repealed, 19 SR 1419]
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419]
Minn. R. 4650.0130 Provisions for Submitting Reports
Subpart 1. Forms to be specified.
The commissioner or the voluntary, nonprofit reporting organization approved by the commissioner shall provide a data collection form or electronic application and instructions for reporting the financial, utilization, and services data. A hospital, psychiatric hospital, specialized hospital, or outpatient surgical center shall submit its financial, utilization, and services data on the form or electronic application provided by the commissioner or the approved voluntary, nonprofit reporting organization.
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Subp. 4.
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Subp. 5. Due date.
A licensed hospital, psychiatric hospital, specialized hospital, or outpatient surgical center shall annually submit all reports required by this chapter within 180 days of the close of the facility's accounting period, and shall base all reports required by this chapter on the same accounting period.
Subp. 6. Extensions.
If a hospital, psychiatric hospital, specialized hospital, or outpatient surgical center requests an extension in writing by the due date specified in subpart 5 and shows reasonable cause, the commissioner shall grant an extension of the due date of a report for a specified period of time. The commissioner shall respond to the facility's request for an extension within five business days of receipt of the request. The response must include approval, disapproval, or a request for more information. In determining whether a facility has met the burden of showing reasonable cause, the commissioner shall consider:
A. delays in the availability of the forms described in subpart 1;
B. additional reporting requirements of the facility;
C. emergency conditions of the facility, including natural disasters;
D. the absence of a key administrative employee; or
E. other factors which impact the economic or administrative condition of a facility.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62J.321; 62J.35; 144.56; 144.703
- History: L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834; 19 SR 1419; 21 SR 1106
Minn. R. 4650.0132 [Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Minn. R. 4650.0133 [Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Minn. R. 4650.0134 [Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Minn. R. 4650.0136 [Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Minn. R. 4650.0138 Reporting; Other Situations
Subpart 1. Organizations operating more than one facility.
Except as allowed under part 4650.0139, subpart 2, reports required by this chapter are required for each individually licensed hospital, psychiatric hospital, specialized hospital, and outpatient surgical center. If an organization operating more than one facility submits reports for more than one facility, the organization shall provide all information separately for each individually licensed hospital, psychiatric hospital, specialized hospital, or outpatient surgical center covered by the reports.
Subp. 2. Institutional information.
This subpart applies when a hospital is affiliated with an institution that includes a nursing home, clinic, home health agency, hospice agency, or other facility or agency and the audited financial statement does not specifically break out the hospital's individual revenue and expense from that of the other facilities or agencies of the institution. The hospital must include the following institutional information in its report to tie the hospital-specific information to the institution's audited financial statement:
A. gross nursing home charges from patient care;
B. gross clinic charges from patient care;
C. gross home health charges from patient care;
D. gross hospice charges from patient care;
E. gross ambulance services charges from patient care;
F. other institution charges from patient care;
G. total adjustments and uncollectibles;
H. total other operating revenue;
I. total operating revenue;
J. total operating expenses;
K. total nonoperating revenue;
L. total nonoperating expenses;
M. extraordinary items resulting in a gain or loss; and
N. other changes to unrestricted net assets.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62J.321; 144.56; 144.703
- History: L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834; 21 SR 1106; 26 SR 627
Minn. R. 4650.0139 Variances
Subpart 1. Data from other sources.
Upon a written request from a hospital, psychiatric hospital, specialized hospital, or outpatient surgical center, or upon the commissioner's own initiative, the commissioner shall determine whether to use data from other sources instead of collecting data required by this chapter. To make this determination, the commissioner shall consider whether:
A. data from other sources are duplicative of data required under this chapter;
B. data from other sources are available at a reasonable cost;
C. the commissioner has the resources readily available to use the data from other sources;
D. data from other sources is in an acceptable form; and
E. the commissioner will be able to use the data from other sources to meet all statutory data collection, analysis, verification, and privacy requirements.
Subp. 2. Aggregate reporting for systems.
An organization operating a hospital, psychiatric hospital, specialized hospital, or outpatient surgical center which is part of a system of hospitals, psychiatric hospitals, specialized hospitals, outpatient surgical centers, clinics, or group purchasers may make a written request for permission to report to the commissioner for all components of the system as an aggregate. If the commissioner determines that the commissioner will be able to use the data from the system as an aggregate to meet all statutory data collection, analysis, verification, and privacy requirements, the commissioner shall grant the request. The commissioner may accept some system data reported in aggregate and may require some data to be reported for each individually licensed hospital, psychiatric hospital, specialized hospital, outpatient surgical center, clinic, or group purchaser.
Subp. 3. Additional variances.
Upon written application or upon the commissioner's own initiative, the commissioner shall grant a variance to this chapter when the commissioner determines that:
A. enforcing a rule would impose an excessive burden on the applicant or others affected by the rule;
B. granting the variance would not adversely affect the public interest; and
C. granting the variance would not conflict with standards imposed by law.
Subp. 4. Burden.
When a facility makes a request under this part, the facility has the burden of showing that the required criteria under subpart 1, 2, 3, or 5 are met.
Subp. 5. Alternative practices.
A variance granted under this part may be conditioned upon alternative practices proposed by the applicant or by the commissioner and adapted to the circumstances and facts justifying approval of the variance. The commissioner must determine that the variance will not significantly increase the cost of data collection required under this chapter and that the commissioner will be able to use the data collected under the variance to meet statutory data collection, analysis, verification, and privacy requirements.
Subp. 6. Notice.
Within 30 calendar days after receiving an application, the commissioner shall notify the applicant in writing that the variance is granted or denied and shall specify the reasons for the decision. The commissioner may extend the review period, provided the applicant is notified in writing of the reasons for the extended review period.
Subp. 7. Duration; revocation.
A variance may be of limited duration. The commissioner shall revoke a variance if a material change occurs in the circumstances that justified the variance under this part, or if the applicant fails to comply with the conditions of the variance.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62J.321; 144.56; 144.703
- History: 21 SR 1106
Minn. R. 4650.0140 [Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Minn. R. 4650.0141 Submitting Amended Reports
Subpart 1. Reports amended by facility.
A hospital, psychiatric hospital, specialized hospital, or outpatient surgical center may submit an amended financial, utilization, and services report at any time within 18 months of the required submission date specified in part 4650.0130, subpart 5, and must include justification for the amended report. The commissioner must review and approve the amended report before it replaces the previously submitted report.
Subp. 2. Reports amended by commissioner.
The commissioner may amend a report of a hospital, psychiatric hospital, specialized hospital, or outpatient surgical center at any time if the commissioner finds that the data submitted were not accurate.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62J.321; 144.56; 144.703
- History: 21 SR 1106
Minn. R. 4650.0150 Complete Reports
Subpart 1. Review of each report.
The commissioner or the voluntary, nonprofit reporting organization approved by the commissioner shall review each report submitted under this chapter to determine if the report is complete. "Complete" means that the report contains adequate data in a form that will allow further review and verification of the accuracy of the report. A report is considered submitted when the commissioner or the approved voluntary, nonprofit organization has determined that the report is complete.
Subp. 2. Timely reply that report is incomplete.
If the commissioner or the voluntary, nonprofit reporting organization approved by the commissioner does not respond to the facility within 30 calendar days after receiving a report, the report is considered complete and submitted on the day the commissioner or approved voluntary, nonprofit reporting organization received the report.
Subp. 3. Incomplete report.
A report that the commissioner or the voluntary, nonprofit reporting organization approved by the commissioner determines to be incomplete must be returned within three business days of the determination to the hospital, psychiatric hospital, specialized hospital, or outpatient surgical center with a statement describing the report's deficiencies. The facility shall correct the deficiencies and resubmit the report within ten business days or request an extension according to part 4650.0130, subpart 6. If the resubmitted report is determined to be complete, it is considered complete and submitted on the date the resubmitted report was received.
Subp. 4.
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419]
Subp. 5.
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Subp. 6. Error in reports.
If the commissioner discovers a significant error in a submitted report, the commissioner shall require the hospital, psychiatric hospital, specialized hospital, or outpatient surgical center to provide corrections by a date agreed upon by the commissioner and the facility.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62J.321; 62J.35; 144.56; 144.703
- History: L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834; 19 SR 1419; 21 SR 1106
Minn. R. 4650.0152 [Repealed, 19 SR 1419]
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419]
Minn. R. 4650.0154 Approval of Voluntary, Nonprofit Reporting Organization
Subpart 1. Voluntary, nonprofit reporting organization approval.
The commissioner may approve a voluntary, nonprofit reporting organization to collect and process the data and prepare reports required by this chapter. The approval shall extend for a period specified by the commissioner not to exceed two years. If the approval extends for a period of more than one year, the voluntary, nonprofit reporting organization's reporting procedures must be consistent with the written operating requirements established annually by the commissioner. An organization desiring approval may apply for approval by the procedure in parts 4650.0156 to 4650.0160.
Subp. 2. Termination of approved voluntary, nonprofit reporting organization.
The commissioner may withdraw approval of the approved voluntary, nonprofit reporting organization according to Minnesota Statutes, section 144.702, subdivision 8.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62J.321; 144.56; 144.703
- History: L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834; 21 SR 1106
Minn. R. 4650.0156 Open Application Period
A voluntary, nonprofit reporting organization may apply for approval of its reporting and review procedures after January 1 and before March 31 of a state fiscal year, for the next subsequent state fiscal year. The commissioner may at any time issue a request for applicants to be a voluntary, nonprofit reporting organization to collect and process the data and prepare reports required by this chapter during the subsequent state fiscal year or to replace a voluntary, nonprofit reporting organization that has been terminated according to Minnesota Statutes, section 144.702, subdivision 8.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62J.321; 62J.35; 144.56; 144.703
- History: L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834; 19 SR 1419; 21 SR 1106
Minn. R. 4650.0158 Contents of Application
An application for approval must include:
A. general information about the applicant organization, including: organization's name, address, telephone number, contact person, proposed staff, and a detailed description of its computing facilities;
B. a detailed description of the proposed reports and administrative procedures related to the collection and analysis of aggregate hospital data;
C. a statement that all reports submitted by the facilities determined to be complete according to part 4650.0150 will be available for inspection by the commissioner within five business days of the determination;
D. a description of the primary activities of the applicant that qualify the applicant as a reporting organization as defined under Minnesota Statutes, section 144.702, subdivision 6;
E. adequate documentation to demonstrate that the proposed reporting and review procedures meet or exceed the requirements of this chapter and Minnesota Statutes, sections 144.695 to 144.703;
F. a detailed description of the procedures used to receive and verify the accuracy of reports, including data processing procedures and the capability to receive and transmit report data electronically;
G. a statement guaranteeing that all data from submitted financial, utilization, and services reports will be transmitted electronically to the commissioner by a date specified by the commissioner;
H. a detailed fee schedule showing the fees for submission of the reports required by this chapter, the method used to determine the fee schedule, the estimated costs of processing the aggregate data required by this chapter, and a statement that, to the extent possible, the fees will not exceed the costs of reviewing the reports and processing the aggregate data required by this chapter;
I. a detailed description of the procedures the applicant will use to process data and the associated completed reports in accordance with Minnesota Statutes, chapter 13; and
J. any other documentation or information considered necessary by the commissioner to satisfy a law or rule.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62J.321; 62J.35; 144.56; 144.703
- History: L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834; 19 SR 1419; 21 SR 1106
Minn. R. 4650.0160 Review of Application
Subpart 1. Commissioner's decision.
By May 15 of each year, the commissioner shall issue a decision regarding an unsolicited application from a voluntary, nonprofit reporting organization that the procedures for reporting and review proposed by the applicant are approved or disapproved. Within 45 days of the close of the application period specified in a request for applicants, the commissioner shall issue a decision regarding applications received in response to the request that the applicant and the applicant's proposed procedures for reporting and review are approved or disapproved. Approval by the commissioner is effective immediately.
Subp. 2. Disapproval.
The commissioner may disapprove any application on demonstration that the reporting and review procedures of a voluntary, nonprofit reporting organization are not substantially equivalent to those established by the commissioner or if the commissioner reasonably believes that the reporting and review procedures of a voluntary, nonprofit reporting organization are not likely to meet the deliverable dates established in the written operating requirements or specified in the request for proposals.
Subp. 3. Reapplication.
An organization whose application has been disapproved by the commissioner may submit a new or amended application to the commissioner within 15 calendar days after disapproval of the initial application.
Subp. 4. Oral presentation.
The commissioner may request an oral presentation from a voluntary, nonprofit reporting organization that has submitted an application under parts 4650.0154 to 4650.0158. The oral presentation must include the items in the application as described in part 4650.0158 and must address any questions the commissioner has about the application.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62J.321; 62J.35; 144.56; 144.703
- History: L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834; 19 SR 1419; 21 SR 1106
Minn. R. 4650.0162 [Repealed, L 1989 c 282 art 2 s 219 subd 1]
[Repealed, L 1989 c 282 art 2 s 219 subd 1]
Minn. R. 4650.0164 [Repealed, L 1989 c 282 art 2 s 219 subd 1]
[Repealed, L 1989 c 282 art 2 s 219 subd 1]
Minn. R. 4650.0166 Fees; Hospitals
Subpart 1. Fee required.
A hospital whose reports are reviewed by the commissioner rather than the voluntary, nonprofit reporting organization shall submit a fee to the commissioner with the reports. The base for calculating the fee is the sum of the nonoperating revenue plus the operating revenue reported by the hospital under part 4650.0112 for the accounting period immediately preceding the reporting year for which the fee is due.
Subp. 2. Fee determination.
The fee shall be determined as follows:
A. for a hospital with a base less than or equal to $12,000,000, the fee is $1,200;
B. for a hospital with a base greater than $12,000,000 but less than or equal to $40,000,000, the fee is equal to the base multiplied by 0.0001;
C. for a hospital with a base greater than $40,000,000 but less than or equal to $80,000,000, the fee is equal to $4,000 plus the amount of the base exceeding $40,000,000 multiplied by 0.00009;
D. for a hospital with a base greater than $80,000,000, the fee is equal to $7,600 plus the amount of the base exceeding $80,000,000 multiplied by 0.00008. The maximum fee shall not exceed $8,300;
E. for a hospital that was not in operation and did not file a report for the accounting period immediately preceding the reporting year for which the fee is due, the fee is $1,200; or
F. for a hospital that was in operation, but failed to file the report required under this chapter for the accounting period immediately preceding the reporting year for which the fee is due, the commissioner shall determine the amount of the fee after considering some or all of the following factors:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62J.321; 62J.35; 144.56; 144.703
- History: L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834; 19 SR 1419; 21 SR 1106
Minn. R. 4650.0167 Fees; Outpatient Surgical Centers
An outpatient surgical center whose reports are reviewed by the commissioner rather than the voluntary, nonprofit reporting organization shall submit a fee of $200 to the commissioner with the reports.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62J.321; 144.56; 144.703
- History: 21 SR 1106
Minn. R. 4650.0168 [Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Minn. R. 4650.0170 [Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Minn. R. 4650.0172 [Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
[Repealed, 21 SR 1106]
Minn. R. 4650.0173 Fines
If a hospital, psychiatric hospital, specialized hospital, or outpatient surgical center does not comply with the requirements of this chapter and does not respond to requests from the commissioner and the voluntary, nonprofit reporting organization approved by the commissioner to comply with the requirements of this chapter, the commissioner shall charge the facility a fine in addition to the original submission fees. The fine is a base of $100 plus $10 per day until the facility complies with the requirements of this chapter. The fine shall not exceed $1,000.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62J.321; 144.56; 144.703
- History: 21 SR 1106
Minn. R. 4650.0174 Suspension of Fees and Fines
The commissioner may suspend all or any portion of the submission fees and fines if a facility shows cause. In determining whether a facility has shown cause, the commissioner shall consider:
A. the inability of a facility to pay the fees or fines without directly affecting the rates charged to patients;
B. the occurrence of any emergency financial condition of a facility, including natural disasters or difficulties associated with completion of reports related to sickness or other absences of related facility employees or other administrative complications resulting in delay in the completion of reports; and
C. other factors which relate to the economic or administrative condition of a facility.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62J.321; 62J.35; 144.56; 144.703
- History: L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834; 19 SR 1419; 21 SR 1106
Minn. R. 4650.0176 [Repealed, 19 SR 1419]
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419]
Minn. R. 4650.0200 [Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
[Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
Minn. R. 4650.0300 [Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
[Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
Minn. R. 4650.0400 [Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
[Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
Minn. R. 4650.0500 [Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
[Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
Minn. R. 4650.0600 [Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
[Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
Minn. R. 4650.0700 [Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
[Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
Minn. R. 4650.0800 [Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
[Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
Minn. R. 4650.0900 [Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
[Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
Minn. R. 4650.1000 [Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
[Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
Minn. R. 4650.1100 [Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
[Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
Minn. R. 4650.1200 [Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
[Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
Minn. R. 4650.1300 [Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
[Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
Minn. R. 4650.1400 [Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
[Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
Minn. R. 4650.1500 [Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
[Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
Minn. R. 4650.1600 [Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
[Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
Minn. R. 4650.1700 [Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
[Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
Minn. R. 4650.1800 [Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
[Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
Minn. R. 4650.1900 [Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
[Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
Minn. R. 4650.2000 [Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
[Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
Minn. R. 4650.2100 [Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
[Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
Minn. R. 4650.2200 [Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
[Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
Minn. R. 4650.2300 [Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
[Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
Minn. R. 4650.2400 [Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
[Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
Minn. R. 4650.2500 [Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
[Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
Minn. R. 4650.2600 [Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
[Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
Minn. R. 4650.2700 [Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
[Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
Minn. R. 4650.2800 [Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
[Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
Minn. R. 4650.2900 [Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
[Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
Minn. R. 4650.3000 [Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
[Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
Minn. R. 4650.3100 [Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
[Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
Minn. R. 4650.3200 [Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
[Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
Minn. R. 4650.3300 [Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
[Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
Minn. R. 4650.3400 [Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
[Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
Minn. R. 4650.3500 [Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
[Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
Minn. R. 4650.3600 [Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
[Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
Minn. R. 4650.3700 [Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
[Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
Minn. R. 4650.3800 [Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
[Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
Minn. R. 4650.3900 [Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
[Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
Minn. R. 4650.4000 [Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
[Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
Minn. R. 4650.4100 [Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
[Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
Minn. R. 4650.4200 [Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
[Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
Minn. R. 4650.4300 [Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
[Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
Minn. R. 4650.4400 [Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
[Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
Minn. R. 4650.4500 [Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
[Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
Minn. R. 4650.4600 [Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
[Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
Minn. R. 4650.4700 [Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
[Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
Minn. R. 4650.4800 [Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
[Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
Minn. R. 4650.4900 [Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
[Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
Minn. R. 4650.5000 [Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
[Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
Minn. R. 4650.5100 [Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
[Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
Minn. R. 4650.5200 [Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
[Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
Minn. R. 4650.5300 [Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
[Repealed, L 1984 c 534 s 11; 9 SR 834]
Chapter 4651 HEALTH CARE PROVIDER REPORTING
Minn. R. 4651.0100 Repealed by subpart
Subpart 1.
[Repealed, L 2011 1Sp9 art 2 s 29]
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, L 2011 1Sp9 art 2 s 29]
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, L 2011 1Sp9 art 2 s 29]
Subp. 4.
[Repealed, L 2011 1Sp9 art 2 s 29]
Subp. 5.
[Repealed, L 2011 1Sp9 art 2 s 29]
Subp. 6.
[Repealed, L 2011 1Sp9 art 2 s 29]
Subp. 7.
[Repealed, L 2011 1Sp9 art 2 s 29]
Subp. 8.
[Repealed, L 2011 1Sp9 art 2 s 29]
Subp. 9.
[Repealed, L 2011 1Sp9 art 2 s 29]
Subp. 10.
[Repealed, L 2011 1Sp9 art 2 s 29]
Subp. 11.
[Repealed, L 2011 1Sp9 art 2 s 29]
Subp. 12.
[Repealed, L 2011 1Sp9 art 2 s 29]
Subp. 13.
[Repealed, 20 SR 2405]
Subp. 14.
[Repealed, L 2011 1Sp9 art 2 s 29]
Subp. 15.
[Repealed, L 2011 1Sp9 art 2 s 29]
Subp. 16.
[Repealed, L 2011 1Sp9 art 2 s 29]
Subp. 16a.
[Repealed, L 2011 1Sp9 art 2 s 29]
Subp. 17.
[Repealed, 20 SR 2405]
Subp. 18.
[Repealed, L 2011 1Sp9 art 2 s 29]
Subp. 19.
[Repealed, L 2011 1Sp9 art 2 s 29]
Subp. 20.
[Repealed, L 2011 1Sp9 art 2 s 29]
Subp. 20a.
[Repealed, L 2011 1Sp9 art 2 s 29]
Subp. 21.
[Repealed, L 2011 1Sp9 art 2 s 29]
Subp. 22.
[Repealed, L 2011 1Sp9 art 2 s 29]
Subp. 23.
[Repealed, L 2011 1Sp9 art 2 s 29]
Minn. R. 4651.0110 Repealed by subpart
Subpart 1.
[Repealed, 20 SR 2405]
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, L 2011 1Sp9 art 2 s 29]
Subp. 2a.
[Repealed, L 2011 1Sp9 art 2 s 29]
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, L 2011 1Sp9 art 2 s 29]
Subp. 4.
[Repealed, L 2011 1Sp9 art 2 s 29]
Subp. 5.
[Repealed, L 2011 1Sp9 art 2 s 29]
Minn. R. 4651.0120 [Repealed, L 2011 1Sp9 art 2 s 29]
[Repealed, L 2011 1Sp9 art 2 s 29]
Minn. R. 4651.0130 [Repealed, L 2011 1Sp9 art 2 s 29]
[Repealed, L 2011 1Sp9 art 2 s 29]
Minn. R. 4651.0140 [Repealed, L 2011 1Sp9 art 2 s 29]
[Repealed, L 2011 1Sp9 art 2 s 29]
Minn. R. 4651.0150 [Repealed, L 2011 1Sp9 art 2 s 29]
[Repealed, L 2011 1Sp9 art 2 s 29]
Chapter 4652 HEALTH CARE GROUP PURCHASER REPORTING
Minn. R. 4652.0010 Incorporations by Reference
The ICD-9 diagnostic codes referenced in part 4652.0100, subparts 4 and 19, are contained in the fourth edition of the International Classification of Diseases, Clinical Modification, 9th Revision, 1994, and corresponding annual updates. This document is subject to annual revisions and is incorporated by reference. It is published by the United States Department of Health and Human Services, Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services, and may be purchased through the Superintendent of Documents, United States Government Printing Office, Washington, D.C. 20402. It is available through the Minitex interlibrary loan system.
The CPT codes referenced in part 4652.0100, subparts 4 and 19, are contained in the Physician's Current Procedural Terminology, (CPT manual) 4th edition, 1993. It is subject to frequent change. It is published by and may be purchased from the American Medical Association, Order Department: OP054193, P.O. Box 10950, Chicago, Illinois 60610. It is available through the Minitex interlibrary loan system.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62J.35
- History: 19 SR 1515; L 2002 c 277 s 32
Minn. R. 4652.0100 Definitions
Subpart 1. Scope.
For the purposes of chapter 4652, the terms in this part have the meanings given them.
Subp. 1a. Administrative services fee revenue.
"Administrative services fee revenue" includes all revenue from fees related to health administrative services only contracts written for Minnesota residents. An administrative services only contract means a contract between a group purchaser and a third party, including a self-insured, under which the group purchaser provides claims administration and other services.
Subp. 2. Billing and enrollment expenses.
"Billing and enrollment expenses" means all costs associated with group and individual billing, member enrollment and premium collection and reconciliation functions. Billing and enrollment expenses includes costs for the collection and reconciliation of cash, group and membership setup and maintenance, contract, identification card, and directory preparation and issuance, electronic data interchange expenses pertaining to billing and enrollment, and enrollment materials. Examples of traditional expense categories that a group purchaser may allocate in whole or in part to billing and enrollment expenses are: finance and information systems.
Subp. 3. Charitable contributions expenses.
"Charitable contributions expenses" means all costs related to contributions made for charitable purposes.
Subp. 4. Chemical dependency services expenses.
"Chemical dependency services expenses" means all costs related to inpatient and outpatient chemical dependency services that are coded using one or more of the following codes or amended equivalent codes:
A. ICD-9 diagnosis code ranges 303.00 to 305.92; and
B. CPT codes 90801, 90841, 90843, 90844, 90844.22, 90846, 90847, 90847.22, 90849, 90853, 98900, 98902, 98910, and 98912. Chemical dependency services expenses also means all costs related to inpatient and outpatient chemical dependency services that are coded using codes from another coding system where the commissioner determines that the codes indicate diagnoses or procedures comparable to or consistent with codes listed in items A and B. A group purchaser may use a nationally recognized standardized reporting system to capture costs for chemical dependency inpatient, outpatient, and other professional services. Chemical dependency services expenses does not include prescription drugs or supplies administered or dispensed which are billed directly through a hospital or health care provider.
Subp. 5. Claim processing expenses.
"Claim processing expenses" means all costs associated with the adjudication and adjustment of claims, coordination of benefits processing, maintenance of the claim system, printing of claim forms, claim audit function, electronic data interchange expenses pertaining to claim processing, and fraud investigation. Examples of traditional expense categories that a group purchaser may allocate in whole or in part to claim processing expenses are: information systems and legal.
Subp. 6. Commissioner.
"Commissioner" means the commissioner of the Minnesota Department of Health and authorized agents.
Subp. 7. Customer service expenses.
"Customer service expenses" means all costs associated with individual, group, or provider support relating to membership, open enrollment, grievance resolution, claim problems, and specialized phone services and equipment. Examples of traditional expense categories that a group purchaser may allocate in whole or in part to customer service expenses are: information systems, finance, legal, and sales and marketing.
Subp. 8. Dental services expenses.
"Dental services expenses" means all professional and other costs provided under dental services contracts or riders.
Subp. 9. Durable medical goods expenses.
"Durable medical goods expenses" means all costs for such items as wheel chairs, eyewear, hearing aids, surgical appliances, bulk and cylinder oxygen, equipment rental, and other devices or equipment that can withstand repeated use.
Subp. 10. Emergency services expenses.
"Emergency services expenses" means all costs for medical care provided in the emergency room of a hospital. Emergency services expenses includes the room, board, and any services such as X-ray and laboratory services billed by the facility. Emergency services expenses does not include expenditures for physician services.
Subp. 11. General administration expenses.
"General administration expenses" means all costs not attributed or allocated to the categories of billing and enrollment, claim processing, customer service, product management and marketing, regulatory compliance and government relations, provider relations and contracting, quality assurance and utilization management, wellness and health education, research and product development, and charitable contributions. Examples of traditional expense categories that a group purchaser may allocate in whole or in part to general administration expenses are: human resources, facility maintenance, payroll, general accounting, finance, executive, internal audit, treasury, actuarial, finance, information systems, office management and occupancy costs, general office supplies and equipment, legal, board, outside consulting services, membership fees in trade organizations, public relations, and mail room. General administration expenses does not include taxes and assessments.
Subp. 12. Group purchaser.
"Group purchaser" means a person or organization that purchases health care services on behalf of an identified group of persons, regardless of whether the costs of coverage or services is paid for by the purchaser or by the persons receiving coverage or services, as further defined in rules adopted by the commissioner. Group purchaser includes, but is not limited to, integrated service networks; community integrated service networks; health insurance companies, health maintenance organizations, nonprofit health service plan corporations, and other health plan companies; employee health plans offered by self-insured employers; trusts established in a collective bargaining agreement under the federal Labor-Management Relations Act of 1947, United States Code, title 29, section 141, et seq.; the Minnesota comprehensive health association; group health coverage offered by fraternal organizations, professional associations, or other organizations; state and federal health care programs; state and local public employee health plans; workers' compensation plans; and the medical component of automobile insurance coverage.
Subp. 13. Home health care expenses.
"Home health care expenses" means all costs for medical care services delivered in the home under the direction of a physician. Home health care expenses includes costs for noninpatient hospice care.
Subp. 14. Inpatient hospital services expenses.
"Inpatient hospital services expenses" means all costs for those services furnished by a hospital for inpatient services, including inpatient hospice care. Inpatient hospital services expenses does not include costs of mental health services and chemical dependency services.
Subp. 15. Insurance company.
"Insurance company" means an organization licensed under Minnesota Statutes, chapter 60A, to offer, sell, or issue a policy of accident and sickness insurance as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 62A.01.
Subp. 16. Member.
"Member" means a person who has been enrolled as a subscriber or an eligible dependent of a subscriber for whom the group purchaser has accepted the responsibility for the provision of basic health services under a contract.
Subp. 17. Member liability.
"Member liability" means the total amount payable by the member for health care services. Member liability includes deductibles, coinsurance, copayments, and amounts beyond plan maximums.
Subp. 18. Member month.
"Member month" means the equivalent to one member for whom the group purchaser has recognized premium revenue for one month.
Subp. 19. Mental health services expenses.
"Mental health services expenses" means all costs related to inpatient and outpatient mental health services that are coded using one or more of the following codes or amended equivalent codes:
A. ICD-9 diagnosis code ranges 290 to 302.9 and 306 to 319; and
B. CPT codes: 90801, 90841, 90843, 90844, 90844.22, 90846, 90847, 90847.22, 90849, 90853, 98900, 98902, 98910, and 98912. Mental health services expenses also means all costs related to inpatient and outpatient mental health services that are coded using codes from another coding system where the commissioner determines that the codes indicate diagnoses or procedures comparable to or consistent with codes listed in items A and B. A group purchaser may use a nationally recognized standardized reporting system to capture costs for mental health inpatient, outpatient, and other professional services. Mental health services expenses does not include prescription drugs or supplies administered or dispensed which are billed directly through a hospital or health care provider.
Subp. 19a. Minimum premium plan revenue.
"Minimum premium plan revenue" means revenue from insurance plan policies written from Minnesota residents whereby an employer self-funds a fixed percentage of the estimated monthly claims and the insurer covers the remainder.
Subp. 20. MinnesotaCare tax expenses.
"MinnesotaCare tax expenses" means all payments made for the MinnesotaCare tax under Minnesota Statutes, sections 295.52 and 295.582.
Subp. 21. Minnesota resident.
"Minnesota resident" means a person who is listed on the records of the group purchaser as a member having a zip code within Minnesota. The group purchaser may use subscriber records if it does not have separate records for each member.
Subp. 22. Other health professional services expenses.
"Other health professional services expenses" means costs for all services provided by health professionals other than physicians and dentists, including chiropractors, therapists, social workers, nurse practitioners, and medical dental services. Other health professional services expenses does not include costs of mental health services and chemical dependency services.
Subp. 23. Other taxes and assessments expenses.
"Other taxes and assessments expenses" means all payments or amounts payable to government agencies except for the MinnesotaCare tax under Minnesota Statutes, section 295.52. Other taxes and assessments expenses does not include fees or fines paid to government agencies.
Subp. 24. Outpatient services expenses.
"Outpatient services expenses" means all costs for those services offered by a hospital which are furnished to ambulatory patients not requiring emergency care and for which there is not a room and board charge. Outpatient services expenses does not include costs of mental health services and chemical dependency services.
Subp. 24a. Patient services revenue.
"Patient services revenue" means fee-for-service revenue received for medical and dental services delivered to patients by clinics that are owned by the group purchaser.
Subp. 25. Pharmacy and other nondurable medical goods expenses.
"Pharmacy and other nondurable medical goods expenses" means all costs paid by the group purchaser to a pharmacist or medical supply company to provide pharmaceuticals and nonreusable supplies or pieces of equipment that are used to treat a health condition. Pharmacy and other nondurable medical goods expenses does not include the cost of pharmaceuticals and other nondurable medical goods administered or dispensed which are billed directly through a hospital or health care provider.
Subp. 26. Physician services expenses.
"Physician services expenses" means costs for all services provided by or under the supervision of licensed medical doctors and doctors of osteopathic medicine, including pharmaceuticals and supplies administered or dispensed from the physician's office and billed directly through the physician. Physician services expenses does not include costs of mental health services and chemical dependency services.
Subp. 27. Product management and marketing expenses.
"Product management and marketing expenses" means all costs associated with the management and marketing of current products, including costs relating to product promotion and advertising, sales, pricing, broker fees and commissions, internal commissions and commissions processing, marketing materials, account reporting, changes or additions to current products, and enrollee education regarding coverage. Examples of traditional expense categories that a group purchaser may allocate in whole or in part to product management and marketing expenses are: information systems, underwriting, legal, finance, actuarial, public relations, and network management.
Subp. 28. Provider relations and contracting expenses.
"Provider relations and contracting expenses" means all costs associated with contract negotiation and preparation, monitoring of provider compliance, field training with providers, provider communication materials and bulletins, and administration of provider capitations and settlements. Examples of traditional expense categories that a group purchaser may allocate in whole or in part to provider relations and contracting expenses are: finance, legal, accounting, actuarial, and information systems.
Subp. 29. Quality assurance and utilization management expenses.
"Quality assurance and utilization management expenses" means all costs associated with quality assurance, practice protocol development, utilization review, peer review, credentialing, outcomes analysis related to existing products, nurse triage, and other medical care evaluation activities. Examples of traditional expense categories that a group purchaser may allocate in whole or in part to quality assurance and utilization management expenses are: information systems and legal.
Subp. 30. Regulatory compliance and government relations expenses.
"Regulatory compliance and government relations expenses" means all costs associated with federal and state reporting, rate filing, state and federal audits, tax accounting, lobbying, licensing and filing fees, and costs associated with the preparation and filing of all financial, utilization, statistical and quality reports, and administration of government programs. Examples of traditional expense categories that a group purchaser may allocate in whole or in part to regulatory compliance and government relations expenses are: information systems, finance, actuarial, sales and marketing, underwriting, contract, legal, utilization management, quality assurance, and compliance.
Subp. 30a. Reinsurance assumed revenue.
"Reinsurance assumed revenue" means total revenue from reinsurance plan policies for Minnesota residents received by a group purchaser who writes the reinsurance plan policies. Reinsurance assumed revenue does not include payments received for reinsurance claims.
Subp. 31. Research and product development expenses.
"Research and product development expenses" means all costs associated with outcomes research, medical research programs, product design and development for products and programs not currently offered, and major systems development. Examples of traditional expense categories that a group purchaser may allocate in whole or in part to research and product development expenses are: actuarial, information systems, marketing, finance, underwriting, and wellness programs.
Subp. 32. Skilled nursing facilities expenses.
"Skilled nursing facilities expenses" means all costs for those services furnished by a facility primarily engaged in providing skilled nursing care and related services for patients who require medical or nursing care or rehabilitation services. Skilled nursing facilities expenses includes room and board incurred at skilled nursing facilities. Skilled nursing facilities expenses does not include costs of mental health services and chemical dependency services.
Subp. 33. Subscriber.
"Subscriber" means a person who has been enrolled with a group purchaser and for whom the group purchaser has accepted the responsibility for the provision of basic health services under a contract, where the contract is either directly between the person and the group purchaser or between the employer of the person and the group purchaser. The subscriber may or may not have dependents who are covered under the contract.
Subp. 34. Total premium revenue.
"Total premium revenue" means all premiums charged on all health insurance policies written for Minnesota residents, including the change in unearned premium from the previous year, minus refunds based on experience. Total premium revenue does not include minimum premium revenue, administrative services fee revenue, utilization review fee revenue, reinsurance assumed revenue, and patient services revenue.
Subp. 34a. Utilization review fee revenue.
"Utilization review fee revenue" means all revenue from fees not part of premium revenue related to health utilization review products written for Minnesota residents.
Subp. 35. Wellness and health education expenses.
"Wellness and health education expenses" means all costs associated with wellness and health promotion, disease prevention, member education and materials, provider education, and outreach services. Examples of traditional expense categories that a group purchaser may allocate in whole or in part to wellness and health education expenses are: marketing, medical services, and printing.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62J.321; 62J.35
- History: 19 SR 1515; 20 SR 2185; L 1997 c 225 art 2 s 62; L 2016 c 119 s 7
Minn. R. 4652.0110 Group Purchaser Reporting
Subpart 1. Group purchasers must report; exceptions.
All group purchasers, except as noted in items A to D, shall file with the commissioner a financial and statistical report on forms or computer format provided or approved by the commissioner.
A. An insurance company, as defined in part 4652.0100, subpart 15, that collected less than $3,000,000 in total health premiums for Minnesota residents in the year prior to the year that the data is covering, may file a short report in lieu of filing a report that meets the requirements of part 4652.0120. The short report must be in writing, must state the amount that the group purchaser collected in total health premiums for Minnesota residents in the year prior to the year that the data is covering, and must provide the total number of members and subscribers covered at the end of the reporting period. For purposes of this item, "health premiums" means premiums for health and medical related coverages, excluding accidental death and dismemberment coverages, short-term disability coverages, long-term disability coverages, long-term care coverages, workers' compensation coverages, the medical component of automobile insurance coverages, and personal accident coverages.
B. A state agency that reports under Minnesota Statutes, section 62J.40, is not subject to the reporting requirements of chapter 4652.
C. An employee health plan offered by a self-insured employer or an employee organization is not subject to the reporting requirements of chapter 4652. However, those employee health plans are encouraged to comply with these reporting requirements.
D. A group purchaser is not subject to the reporting requirements of this chapter if the coverages the group purchaser writes are limited to one or more of the following: accidental death and dismemberment coverages, short-term disability coverages, long-term disability coverages, long-term care coverages, workers' compensation coverages, automobile insurance coverages, and personal accident coverages.
Subp. 2. Date for filing; reporting period.
The group purchaser shall file its report on or before April 1 of each year. The report must contain data for the preceding calendar year.
Subp. 3. Organizations operating more than one group purchaser.
Group purchasers that are affiliated may elect to file a combined report, if they have elected to meet a combined growth limit under Minnesota Statutes, section 62J.041. Affiliated group purchasers that file a combined report must include in the report the name of each affiliated group purchaser.
Subp. 4. Extensions.
The commissioner shall grant a group purchaser an extension to file the report when the commissioner determines that the group purchaser has shown reasonable cause. To apply for an extension, the group purchaser must provide the commissioner with a written request for an extension to file, specifying the reason or reasons for the requested extension, and the proposed date for filing the report. "Reasonable cause" means that the group purchaser can demonstrate that compliance with the reporting requirements imposes an unreasonable cost to the group purchaser, or that technical or unforeseen difficulties prevent compliance.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62J.321; 62J.35
- History: 19 SR 1515; L 1995 c 234 art 3 s 9; 20 SR 2185
Minn. R. 4652.0120 Contents of Report
The report filed by a group purchaser must meet the requirements of items A to G. The information for each item must pertain to health and medical related coverages, excluding accidental death and dismemberment coverages, short-term disability coverages, long-term disability coverages, long-term care coverages, workers' compensation coverages, the medical component of automobile insurance coverages, and personal accident coverages.
A. The report must include total premium revenue and other revenue. "Other revenue" means, and must be specifically itemized into, the categories of minimum premium plan revenue, administrative services fee revenue, utilization review fee revenue, reinsurance assumed revenue, and patient services revenue. Each revenue category must separate commercial, Medicare, Medicare supplement, and other public programs amounts.
B. The report must include total expenses incurred by type of policy, including commercial, self-insured, Medicare, Medicare supplement, and other public programs. The report must separately list member liability for each policy category.
C. The report must include total expenses incurred by service category, including physician services, other health professional services, inpatient hospital services, outpatient services, skilled nursing facilities, home health care, emergency services, pharmacy and other nondurable medical goods, durable medical goods, chemical dependency services and mental health services, dental services, and total indirect health care expenses. Each service category must be itemized by type of policy as specified in item B. For coverages designed solely to provide payments on a per diem, fixed indemnity, or non-expense-incurred basis, the report may list total expenses rather than itemizing the expenses for these coverages by service category.
D. The report must include total member liability, or its actuarial estimate, for all covered persons.
E. The report must include total indirect health care expenses by the following categories: billing and enrollment; claim processing; customer service; product management and marketing; regulatory compliance and government relations; provider relations and contracting; quality assurance and utilization management; wellness and health education; research and product development; charitable contributions; general administration; MinnesotaCare taxes; and all other taxes and assessments. The information required for this report may be estimated from existing accounting methods with allocation to specific categories.
F. The report must include the total number of members and subscribers, as of the end of the reporting period, by type of policy, including family policies and individual policies and member months for the reporting period. Member months must be totaled for the calendar year of the report. This information must be reported separately for medical and dental contracts. Each category must be itemized by commercial, self-insured, Medicare, Medicare supplement, and other public programs. Group purchasers that do not maintain member information may submit actuarial estimates of total number of members covered under all health policies.
G. The report must include a statement that the revenue and expense amounts reported under items A and B reconcile to audited financial statements. A group purchaser that does more than 80 percent of its business in Minnesota shall reference the appropriate entries from its audited financial statements and shall do so either by using the audited financial statements for its entire health care business or by separating its experience for Minnesota residents. The group purchaser's choice of method must be consistent from year to year. A group purchaser that does 80 percent or less of its business in Minnesota shall have an actuary or financial officer certify that the amounts reported reconcile to the audited financial statement in a manner consistent with prior reporting years and shall include an accounting or actuarial memorandum describing the methods used to identify and separate Minnesota data.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62J.321; 62J.35
- History: 19 SR 1515; 20 SR 2185
Minn. R. 4652.0130 Review of Reports
Subpart 1. Record complete.
No report required by this chapter is considered to be filed until the commissioner has determined that the report is complete. "Complete" means that the report contains adequate and appropriate data for the commissioner to begin the review and is in a form determined to be acceptable by the commissioner according to chapter 4652.
Subp. 2. Review by commissioner.
The commissioner shall review each report required by chapter 4652 in order to ascertain that the report is complete. If the report is found to be complete or if the commissioner has not notified the group purchaser within 60 days of receiving the report that the report is incomplete, then the report is deemed to be filed as of the day it was received.
Subp. 3. Incomplete report.
A report determined by the commissioner to be incomplete must be returned to the group purchaser with a statement describing the report's deficiencies. The group purchaser must resubmit an amended report to the commissioner. If the report is resubmitted within 30 days and is determined to be complete by the commissioner, then it shall be deemed to be filed as of the day it was first received by the commissioner.
Subp. 4. Amending reports.
If a group purchaser discovers a material error in its statements or calculations in any of its submitted reports ascertained by the commissioner to be complete, the group purchaser shall immediately inform the commissioner of the error and, within a reasonable time, submit a written amendment to the report. Submission of an amendment under this subpart does not affect the date of filing.
Subp. 5. Error in reports.
If the commissioner discovers a material error in the statements or calculations in a report, the commissioner shall require the group purchaser to amend and resubmit the report by a date determined by the commissioner.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62J.35
- History: 19 SR 1515
Minn. R. 4652.0140 Variances
Subpart 1. Data from other sources.
On a request by a group purchaser or on the commissioner's own initiative, the commissioner shall determine whether to use data from other sources instead of collecting data required by this chapter. To make this determination, the commissioner shall consider whether:
A. the data from other sources are duplicative of data required under this chapter;
B. the data from other sources are available at a reasonable cost;
C. the commissioner has the resources readily available to use the data from other sources; and
D. the commissioner will be able to use the data from other sources to meet all statutory data collection, analysis, and privacy requirements.
Subp. 2. Aggregate reporting for systems.
An organization operating a group purchaser which is part of a system of group purchasers, hospitals, or clinics may request to report to the commissioner for all components of the system as an aggregate. If the commissioner determines that the commissioner will be able to use the data from the system as an aggregate to meet all statutory data collection, analysis, and privacy requirements, then the commissioner shall grant the request.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62J.321
- History: 20 SR 2185
Chapter 4653 HEALTH CARE CLAIMS REPORTING SYSTEM
Minn. R. 4653.0100 Definitions
Subpart 1. Scope.
The terms used in parts 4653.0200 to 4653.0600 have the meanings given them in this part.
Subp. 2. Commissioner.
"Commissioner" means the commissioner of health.
Subp. 3. Complete submission.
"Complete submission" means data submitted to the data processor by a data submitter that the data processor has determined to contain the required data meeting the required threshold in a format that allows further review and verification of the accuracy of the data.
Subp. 4. Covered individual.
"Covered individual" means a natural person who is a resident of Minnesota and is eligible to receive health care benefits under any policy, contract, certificate, evidence of coverage, rider, binder, or endorsement that provides for or describes health care coverage with the exception of coverage that is explicitly excluded from the definition of a health plan in Minnesota Statutes, section 62A.011, subdivision 3, clauses (1) to (9) and (11).
Subp. 5. Data element.
"Data element" means the smallest named unit of information in a transaction.
Subp. 6. Data element characteristic.
"Data element characteristic" means an attribute of a data element required to be submitted for enrollment data and health care claims data: element number, element name, encrypt, type, max len, description, threshold, and reference standard.
Subp. 7. Data processor.
"Data processor" means the private entity selected by the commissioner to collect and process health care claims.
Subp. 8. Data submitter.
"Data submitter" means a health plan company or third-party administrator that has covered individuals and that paid a total of at least $3,000,000 in health care claims for covered individuals during the previous calendar year, or a pharmacy benefit manager that has covered individuals and that paid at least $300,000 in claims for covered individuals during the previous calendar year. In calculating its paid claims, each data submitter must include all health care claims for covered individuals processed by any subcontractor on its behalf.
Subp. 9. Enrollment data.
"Enrollment data" means demographic information and other information relating to all covered individuals eligible to receive health care benefits.
Subp. 10. Health care claims data.
"Health care claims data" means information included in an institutional, professional, or pharmacy drug claim or equivalent encounter information transaction for a covered individual that is required under Minnesota Statutes, section 62J.536.
Subp. 11. Health plan company.
"Health plan company" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 62U.01, subdivision 8.
Subp. 12. Material error.
"Material error" means omission of records or of data within records, or submission of inaccurate information that is of sufficient magnitude to cause the results of analysis performed with the data to be inaccurate or biased.
Subp. 13. Minnesota resident.
"Minnesota resident" means a natural person for whom the data submitter has identified a Minnesota address as the individual's primary place of residence.
Subp. 14. Pharmacy benefit manager.
"Pharmacy benefit manager" means a third-party administrator under contract to administer drug benefit programs for self-insurance or health insurance plans.
Subp. 15. Pricing data.
"Pricing data" means the amount paid by a data submitter to a provider on a claim plus any amount owed by the covered individual, including prepayment, deductible, coinsurance, or co-payment.
Subp. 16. Provider or health care provider.
"Provider" or "health care provider" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 62J.03, subdivision 8.
Subp. 17. Subcontractor.
"Subcontractor" means an individual or entity that performs on behalf of a health care company or third-party administrator any function or activity involving enrollment data or health care claims data, and is not a part of the health care company's or third party administrator's workforce.
Subp. 18. Third-party administrator.
"Third-party administrator" means a vendor of risk-management services or an entity administering a self-insurance or health insurance plan as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 60A.23, subdivision 8.
Subp. 19. Threshold.
"Threshold" means the required completeness percentage for a particular data element.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62U.04; 62U.06
- History: 34 SR 10
Minn. R. 4653.0200 Data Collected
A. All health plan companies and third-party administrators must register with the data processor no later than June 15, 2009, and April 1 of each subsequent year. For the purposes of identifying data submitters, minimizing administrative burden, and assessing data completeness, all health plan companies and third-party administrators must submit the dollar amount of paid health care claims for covered individuals during the previous calendar year according to the instructions in Appendix D. The appendix is incorporated by reference in part 4653.0600.
B. Data submitters are responsible for submission of the following data for each covered individual, including health care claims processed by any subcontractor on the data submitter's behalf.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62U.04; 62U.06
- History: 34 SR 10
Minn. R. 4653.0300 Data Submission Requirements
Subpart 1. Duties of data submitters.
To support the collection of the data described in part 4653.0200, a data submitter must:
A. submit the data described in part 4653.0200 to the data processor in electronic format using the submission, file layouts, record formats, coding specifications, and authentication and de-identification specifications in Appendix D; and
B. report to the data processor any significant discrepancies in the data with respect to consistency, completeness, accuracy, or any other issue that may affect further review and verification of the accuracy of the data.
Subp. 2. Submission schedule.
Health plan companies, third-party administrators, and pharmacy benefit managers that meet the definition of data submitter in part 4653.0100, subpart 8, on December 31, 2008, must submit the required data on or before July 1, 2009, and at least once every six months thereafter. Health plan companies, third-party administrators, and pharmacy benefit managers that meet the definition of data submitter in part 4653.0100, subpart 8, on December 31 of any year subsequent to 2008 must submit the required data on or before July 1 of the following year and at least once every six months thereafter. Data submitters may submit the required data more frequently than every six months, but no more frequently than monthly.
A. The first submission by a data submitter must be made on or before July 1 and must consist of enrollment data and data from all claims paid from January 1 of the previous year through March 31 of the current year, according to the specifications in Appendix D, to allow for testing of the compatibility of the data submitter's submissions with the data processor's system.
B. Data submitters' subsequent data submissions, following the first submission, must consist of enrollment data and data from all claims paid since the last submission through at least the last day of the quarter prior to the month of submission, according to the specifications in Appendix D. For purposes of this item, a quarter ends on the last day of March, June, September, and December.
Subp. 3. Code sources.
Data submitters must use the code sources in Appendix D in association with the submission of member enrollment files, institutional and professional health care claims data, and pharmacy drug claims data.
Subp. 4. Complete submissions.
A. The data processor will notify a data submitter of receipt of a data transmission within two business days of a data submission. Within 30 calendar days after receipt of the data submission, the data processor will notify the data submitter whether the data qualifies as a complete submission.
B. If the data processor notifies a data submitter that a data submission is incomplete, it will include in the notification a statement describing why the data is incomplete. The data submitter must resubmit the complete data or request an extension or reconsideration within ten business days after the data submitter receives the notification.
Subp. 5. Material error.
A. If the data processor notifies a data submitter of a material error in a complete submission, the data submitter must file a corrected submission or request an extension reconsideration within 30 days.
B. If a data submitter discovers a material error in a complete submission in any of its data submissions that have been ascertained by the data processor to be complete, the data submitter must immediately inform the data processor of the error and, within 30 days, file a corrected submission. Submission of an amendment under this item does not affect the date of filing.
Subp. 6. Dispute resolution.
If a data submitter disagrees with the data processor's determination that a submission is incomplete or that it contains a material error, the data submitter may submit a written request for reconsideration to the data processor within ten days, stating its reasons that the submission should be considered complete or why it does not contain a material error. If the data processor denies the request, the data submitter may submit a written request for reconsideration to the commissioner within ten days after receiving the data processor's written denial. The commissioner's decision shall be final.
Subp. 7. Discontinuance of data submission.
A data submitter may discontinue submitting health care claims data if it pays less than $1,000,000 in health care claims for covered individuals for each of two consecutive calendar years, except that a pharmacy benefit manager may discontinue submitting health care claims data if it pays less than $100,000 in health care claims for covered individuals for each of two consecutive calendar years. The data submitter must provide three months' written notice to the commissioner before it discontinues reporting.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62U.04; 62U.06
- History: 34 SR 10
Minn. R. 4653.0500 Individual Variances
A. The commissioner must grant a variance to a data submitter with respect to submission of a specific data element or submission specification if the data submitter demonstrates good cause. To request a variance, a data submitter must submit a petition, according to Minnesota Statutes, section 14.056, and demonstrate that it meets the criteria in subitems (1) to (3):
B. The commissioner must grant a variance to a data submitter with respect to a threshold for one year if the data submitter demonstrates good cause. To request a variance, the data submitter must submit a petition stating the reason it is unable to meet the standard threshold, the proposed threshold, and the basis for the proposed threshold.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62U.04; 62U.06
- History: 34 SR 10
Minn. R. 4653.0600 Incorporation by Reference
"Minnesota Health Care Claims Reporting System: Appendices to Minnesota Administrative Rules, Chapter 4653," issued by the Minnesota Department of Health, May 2009, is incorporated by reference. It is available through the Minitex interlibrary loan system and the Minnesota Department of Health website at http://www.health.state.mn.us/healthreform/encounterdata. They are not subject to frequent change.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62U.04; 62U.06
- History: 34 SR 10
Chapter 4654 HEALTH CARE QUALITY MEASURES
Minn. R. 4654.0100 Applicability
This chapter applies to all providers who are required to submit standardized information on quality measures associated with patient care under Minnesota Statutes, section 62U.02, and all health plan companies that collect data related to quality measures from providers.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62U.02
- History: 34 SR 905
Minn. R. 4654.0200 Definitions
Subpart 1. Scope.
For purposes of this chapter, the following terms have the meanings given them in this part.
Subp. 2. Administrative data.
"Administrative data" means information contained on a health care claim or equivalent encounter transaction provided by a provider to a health plan company or third-party administrator.
Subp. 2a. Ambulatory surgical center.
"Ambulatory surgical center" is an outpatient surgical center and has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.55, subdivision 2a, and is also certified under the Medicare program.
Subp. 3. Applicable quality measure.
"Applicable quality measure" means a quality measure that pertains to a service provided by a physician clinic, hospital, or ambulatory surgical center.
Subp. 4. Clinical staff.
"Clinical staff" means physicians, advanced practice registered nurses, and physician assistants.
Subp. 5. Commissioner.
"Commissioner" means the commissioner of health.
Subp. 6. Complete submission.
"Complete submission" means quality measures that a data submitter has submitted to the commissioner or commissioner's designee containing the required quality measures in a format that allows for further review and verification of the data's accuracy.
Subp. 7. Data submitter.
"Data submitter" means a physician clinic, hospital, or ambulatory surgical center.
Subp. 8. Health plan company.
"Health plan company" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 62U.01, subdivision 8.
Subp. 9. Hospital.
"Hospital" means any entity licensed under Minnesota Statutes, section 144.50, subdivision 2.
Subp. 10. Material error.
"Material error" means omission of data or submission of inaccurate information that significantly changes the results of the analysis of quality measures.
Subp. 11.
[Renumbered Subp. 2a]
Subp. 12. Payer mix.
"Payer mix" means the distribution of insurance coverage for a provider's patient population including private insurance, Medicare, state public programs, self-pay, and uninsured.
Subp. 13. Physician clinic.
"Physician clinic" means any location where primary or specialty care ambulatory services are provided for a fee by one or more physicians in the state of Minnesota. Physician clinic includes ambulatory surgical centers and hospital-based outpatient locations that provide primary or specialty care ambulatory services for a fee. With the exception of ambulatory surgical centers, multiple clinic locations may be considered a single physician clinic when the multiple locations have common ownership and a majority of common clinical staff working across the multiple locations, and the total clinical staff across all locations is no greater than 20 full-time equivalent employees.
Subp. 14. Provider or health care provider.
"Provider" or "health care provider" has the meaning in Minnesota Statutes, section 62U.01, subdivision 10.
Subp. 15. Publicly reported measure.
"Publicly reported measure" means a standardized quality measure established by the commissioner that is stated in Appendix A, B, or C, which is incorporated by reference in part 4654.0800.
Subp. 16. Quality measure.
"Quality measure" means a specific qualitative or quantitative indicator that measures health outcomes, processes, structures, or patient experience, access, or safety, or other desirable results for a defined population of patients. Quality measure does not include information:
A. associated with assessing medical necessity for an individual patient;
B. used to determine medical appropriateness of treatment for a particular patient;
C. related to patient safety or adverse health events for an individual patient;
D. related to a health care provider's qualifications or scope of practice; or
E. necessary to detect and prevent fraud and abuse in the billing and payment of services.
Subp. 17. Risk adjustment.
"Risk adjustment" means a process that adjusts the analysis of quality measurement by accounting for those patient-population characteristics that may independently affect results of a given measure and are not randomly distributed across all providers submitting quality measures. Risk adjustment characteristics include, for example, severity of illness, patient demographics, or payer mix.
Subp. 18. Standardized electronic information.
"Standardized electronic information" means the specific required data format as described in Appendix E, which is incorporated by reference in part 4654.0800.
Subp. 19. Standardized quality measure.
"Standardized quality measure" means:
A. any measure listed in Appendix A, B, C, or D, which is incorporated by reference in part 4654.0800;
B. any measure required to be reported under Minnesota Statutes, section 62U.03, subdivision 7, paragraph (a), or 62U.05;
C. any quality measure that a health plan company or provider is required to collect or report by the Minnesota Department of Human Services;
D. any structural quality measure; or
E. any quality measure that a health plan company is required to collect or report by federal or state law or regulation.
Subp. 20. Structural quality measure.
"Structural quality measure" means a measure of provider capacity, scope of services, or feature of the setting in which care is delivered that is independent of the care delivered to any individual patient.
Subp. 21. Third-party administrator.
"Third-party administrator" means a vendor of risk management services or an entity administering a self-insurance or health insurance plan as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 60A.23, subdivision 8.
Subp. 22. Urgent care center.
"Urgent care center" means a medical facility where ambulatory patients can walk in without an appointment and receive services required to treat an illness or injury that would not result in further disability or death if not treated immediately, but requires professional attention and that has the potential to develop such a threat if treatment is delayed. Urgent care center does not include physician clinics offering extended hours for patient care.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62U.02; 62U.06
- History: 34 SR 905; 35 SR 802; 36 SR 615; 37 SR 747
Minn. R. 4654.0300 Provider Submission Requirements
Subpart 1. Physician clinics.
A. Each physician clinic, except ambulatory surgical centers, must register annually with the commissioner or commissioner's designee beginning January 1, 2010, as specified in Appendix E.
B. Each physician clinic, except ambulatory surgical centers, must submit to the commissioner or commissioner's designee data required to calculate the applicable quality measures, including the data necessary to perform risk adjustment for each applicable quality measure in Appendix A, which is incorporated by reference in part 4654.0800, according to the schedule for each measure in Appendix A for all health care services provided by the physician clinic. The physician clinic must submit the data using the standardized electronic format and procedures specified in Appendix E, which is incorporated by reference in part 4654.0800.
C. Each physician clinic with an electronic medical record in place for an entire measurement period must report on a full population basis in the subsequent reporting cycle.
D. If less than ten percent of a physician clinic's population is age 18 or older, that physician clinic is exempt from reporting on quality measures in Appendix A applicable to patients age 18 or older.
Subp. 2. Hospitals.
A. Each hospital must submit to the commissioner or commissioner's designee data required to calculate the applicable quality measures, including the data necessary to perform risk adjustment for each applicable quality measure in Appendix B, which is incorporated by reference in part 4654.0800, according to the schedule for each measure in Appendix B for all relevant health care services provided by the hospital. The hospital must submit the data using the standardized electronic format and procedures specified in Appendix E, which is incorporated by reference in part 4654.0800.
B. If less than ten percent of a hospital's patient population is age 18 or older, that hospital is exempt from reporting on quality measures in Appendix B applicable to patients age 18 or older.
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, 39 SR 1046]
Subp. 4. Provider subcontractors.
The commissioner or commissioner's designee will accept data submitted on behalf of a provider by a single subcontractor.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62U.02; 62U.06
- History: 34 SR 905; 35 SR 802; 38 SR 848; 39 SR 1046
Minn. R. 4654.0400 Data Validation Procedures
Subpart 1. Complete submissions.
A. The commissioner or commissioner's designee must notify a data submitter of a data transmission receipt within two business days of a data submission. Within 30 days after receipt of the data transmission, the commissioner or the commissioner's designee must notify the data submitter whether the data qualifies as a complete submission.
B. If a data submitter receives notice that a data submission is incomplete, the commissioner or commissioner's designee must state in the notice why the data submission is incomplete. The data submitter must resubmit the complete data or request an extension or reconsideration within ten business days after the data submitter receives the notice.
Subp. 2. Material error.
A. If the commissioner or commissioner's designee notifies a data submitter of a material error in a complete submission, the data submitter must file a corrected submission or request an extension or reconsideration within ten business days.
B. If a data submitter discovers a material error in a complete submission, the data submitter must immediately inform the commissioner or commissioner's designee of the error and, within 15 business days, file a corrected submission.
Subp. 3. Dispute resolution.
If a data submitter disagrees with the commissioner or commissioner's designee's determination that a submission is incomplete or that it contains a material error, the data submitter may submit a written request for reconsideration to the commissioner within ten business days, stating its reasons that the submission should be considered complete or why it does not contain a material error. The commissioner's decision on the request for reconsideration is final.
Subp. 4. Cooperation with data validation procedures.
Data submitters must cooperate with the commissioner or the commissioner's designee in carrying out data validation by doing the following:
A. attest to the accuracy of data submissions;
B. respond to data validation requests by the commissioner or the commissioner's designee; and
C. document calculation of all applicable measures and maintain the record for two years.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62U.02
- History: 34 SR 905
Minn. R. 4654.0500 Measurement Development and Review Process
Subpart 1. Review process.
The commissioner must review the standardized quality measures contained in "Minnesota Statewide Quality Reporting and Measurement System: Appendices to Minnesota Administrative Rules, chapter 4654," in part 4654.0800, and propose additions, deletions, or modifications by August 15 of each year. If the commissioner determines that a standardized quality measure should be added, deleted, or modified, the commissioner will use the expedited rulemaking process under Minnesota Statutes, section 14.389.
Subp. 2. Recommendation process.
The commissioner shall consider recommendations for addition, removal, or modification of standardized quality measures that are submitted by June 1 of each year. To the extent practicable, recommendations must address how addition, removal, or modification of a quality measure relates to one or more of the following criteria:
A. the magnitude of the individual and societal burden imposed by the clinical condition being measured by the quality measure, including disability, mortality, and economic costs;
B. the extent of the gap between current practices and evidence-based practices for the clinical condition being measured by the quality measure, and the likelihood that the gap can be closed and conditions improved through changes in clinical processes;
C. the relevance of the quality measure to a broad range of individuals with regard to:
D. the extent to which the quality measure has either been developed or accepted, or approved through a national consensus effort;
E. the extent to which the results of the quality measure are likely to demonstrate a wide degree of variation across providers; and
F. the extent to which the quality measure is valid and reliable.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62U.02
- History: 34 SR 905
Minn. R. 4654.0600 Use of Quality Measures by Health Plan Companies
Subpart 1. Required quality measures.
A health plan company may not require providers to use or report quality measures that are not standardized quality measures. Health plan companies and providers may voluntarily use and report quality measures that are not standardized quality measures. In addition, a health plan company may do the following:
A. derive quality measures from any data source not submitted to the health plan company by a provider; and
B. derive quality measures from administrative data.
Subp. 2. Required use or report of quality measures.
For purposes of this part, requiring a provider to use or report a quality measure means contractually mandating, as a nonnegotiable condition of conducting business with a health plan company, that a provider use or report a specific quality measure.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62U.02
- History: 34 SR 905
Minn. R. 4654.0700 Variances
The commissioner may grant a variance to a data submitter for a reported quality measure collection or submission specification if the data submitter demonstrates good cause. To request a variance, a data submitter must submit a petition, according to the requirements of Minnesota Statutes, section 14.056, and demonstrate that it meets the following criteria:
A. failure to grant the variance would result in hardship or injustice to the data submitter;
B. the variance is consistent with the public interest, including patient safety; and
C. the variance does not prejudice the substantial legal or economic rights of any person or entity.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62U.02
- History: 34 SR 905
Minn. R. 4654.0800 Incorporation by Reference
"Minnesota Statewide Quality Reporting and Measurement System: Appendices to Minnesota Administrative Rules, Chapter 4654," issued by the Minnesota Department of Health, December 2017, is incorporated by reference. It is available through the Minitex interlibrary loan system and the Minnesota Department of Health's Health Care Quality Measures website at https://www.health.state.mn.us/data/hcquality/index.html. They are not subject to frequent change.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389; 62U.02; 62U.06
- History: 34 SR 905; 35 SR 802; 36 SR 615; 37 SR 747; 38 SR 848; 39 SR 1046; 40 SR 781; 41 SR 781; 42 SR 865
Chapter 4655 BOARDING CARE HOMES
Minn. R. 4655.0090 Scope
This chapter applies to boarding care homes unless the content clearly indicates otherwise.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 19 SR 1803; 20 SR 303; 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4655.0100 Definitions
Subpart 1. Ambulatory.
"Ambulatory" shall mean a patient or resident who is physically and mentally capable of getting in or out of bed and walking a normal path to safety, including the ascent and descent of stairs in a reasonable period of time without the aid of another person.
Subp. 2. Department.
The term "department" shall mean the Minnesota Department of Health.
Subp. 3. Boarding care home.
A "boarding care home" shall mean a licensed facility or unit used to provide care for aged or infirm persons who require only personal or custodial care and related services in accordance with these regulations. A boarding care home license is required if the persons need or receive personal or custodial care only. Nursing services are not required. Examples of personal or custodial care: board, room, laundry, and personal services; supervision over medications which can be safely self-administered; plus a program of activities and supervision required by persons who are not capable of properly caring for themselves.
Subp. 4.
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Subp. 5. Existing facility.
"Existing facility" shall mean a nursing home or a boarding care home licensed prior to the effective date of these rules. It shall also mean a nursing home or boarding care home or addition under construction or for which final working drawings and specifications have been approved not more than one year prior to the effective date of these rules.
Subp. 6. Licensed nurse.
A "licensed nurse" shall mean a registered nurse or a licensed practical nurse.
Subp. 7. Licensee.
The "licensee" is the person or governing body to whom the license is issued. The licensee is held responsible for compliance with the applicable rules herein.
Subp. 8.
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Subp. 9. Nursing personnel.
The term "nursing personnel" shall include registered nurses, licensed practical nurses, nurse aides, and orderlies.
Subp. 10.
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Subp. 11. Resident.
A "resident" is any individual cared for in a boarding care home.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4655.0110 Foreword
These regulations will serve as the basis for licensing nursing homes and boarding care homes in accordance with the state law for licensing hospitals and related institutions, Minnesota Statutes, sections 144.50 to 144.58.
Federal programs under the Social Security Act, as amended require certification of facilities which will be participating. All facilities must be licensed by the state prior to certification and must also meet any additional requirements as established by such certification standards.
The purpose of the licensing law and these regulations is to protect the public health through the development and enforcement of minimum requirements for the care of patients and residents in convalescent or long-term care facilities. Moreover, these regulations serve an educational purpose in providing guidelines for quality patient and residential care.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.0300 Licensing in General
Subpart 1. Required.
For the purpose of these rules, a state license is required for any facility where nursing, personal, or custodial care is provided for five or more aged or infirm persons who are not acutely ill.
Subp. 2. License fees.
Each application for either an initial or renewal license to operate a nursing home or boarding care home shall be accompanied by a fee based upon the formula established in part 4735.0200. A bed must be licensed if it is available for use by patients or residents. If the number of licensed beds is increased during the term of the license, $12 for each additional bed shall be paid. There shall be no refund for a decrease in licensed beds.
Subp. 3. License expiration date.
Initial and renewal licenses shall be issued for the calendar year for which application is made and shall expire on December 31 of such year. License renewals shall be applied for on an annual basis. Applications for license renewals shall be submitted no later than December 31 of the year preceding the year for which application is made. Any application for an initial license submitted after November 1 shall be considered as an application for the following year; provided, however, that a license may be issued and be effective prior to January 1 of the year for which application is made without payment of fees for two years.
Subp. 4. License to be posted.
The license shall be conspicuously posted in an area where patients or residents are admitted.
Subp. 5. Separate licenses.
Separate licenses shall be required for institutions maintained on separate premises even though operated under the same management. A separate license shall not be required for separate buildings maintained by the same owner on the same premises.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.0310 Procedure for Licensing of Boarding Care Homes
Application for a license to establish or maintain a boarding care home shall be made in writing and submitted on forms provided by the department. If the applicant is a corporation, the officers shall furnish the department a copy of the articles of incorporation and bylaws and any amendments thereto as they occur. In addition, out-of-state corporations shall furnish the department with a copy of the certificate of authority to do business in Minnesota. No license shall be issued until all final inspections and clearances pertinent to applicable laws and regulations have been complied with.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4655.0320 [Repealed, 20 SR 303]
[Repealed, 20 SR 303]
Minn. R. 4655.0400 Types of Patients or Residents Not to Be Received
Subpart 1. Admittance of certain adults.
Maternity patients, disturbed mental patients (see part 4655.6600), and patients or residents, who in the opinion of the attending physician have or are suspected of having a disease endangering other patients or residents shall not be admitted to or retained in either a nursing home or a boarding care home.
Subp. 2. Admittance of children.
A nursing home or a boarding care home for adults shall not receive either sick children or well children for care. For the purpose of these rules, children are defined as persons under 16 years of age.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.0500 Capacity Prescribed
Each license shall specify the maximum allowable number of patients or residents to be cared for at any one time. No greater number of patients or residents shall be kept than is authorized by the license.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.0600 Home Not to Be Misrepresented
A nursing home or a boarding care home shall not use in its title the words of description: "Hospital," "Sanitorium," "Rehabilitation Facility," "Rehabilitation Center," or any other words which indicate that a type of care or service is provided which is not covered by the license.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.0700 No Discrimination
There shall be no discrimination with respect to patients or residents, employees, or staff on the ground of race, color, or national origin.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.0800 Preliminary Planning
Contact shall be made with the department to discuss the proposed program, location, staffing requirements, and other pertinent aspects prior to planning a new care facility or purchasing or leasing an existing care facility.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.0900 Evaluation
Facilities shall be subject to evaluation and approval of the physical plant and its operational aspects prior to a change in ownership, classification, capacity, or services.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.1000 Variance and Waivers
A nursing home or boarding care home may request that the department grant a variance or waiver from the provisions of these rules. All requests for a variance or waiver shall be submitted to the department in writing. Each request shall contain the following information:
A. the specific rule or rules for which the variance or waiver is requested;
B. the reasons for the request;
C. the alternative measures that will be taken if a variance or waiver is granted;
D. the length of time for which the variance or waiver is requested; and
E. such other relevant information necessary to properly evaluate the request for the variance or waiver.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.1010 Criteria for Evaluation
The decision to grant or deny a variance or waiver shall be based on the department's evaluation of the following criteria:
A. the variance or waiver will not adversely affect the health, treatment, comfort, safety, or well-being of a patient or resident;
B. the alternative measures to be taken, if any, are equivalent to or superior to those prescribed in the rules; and
C. compliance with the rule or rules would impose an undue burden upon the applicant.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.1020 Notification of Variance
The applicant shall be notified in writing of the department's decision. If a variance or waiver is granted, the notification shall specify the period of time for which the variance or waiver will be effective and the alternative measures or conditions, if any, to be met by the applicant.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.1030 Effect of Alternative Measures or Conditions
All alternative measures or conditions attached to a variance or waiver shall have the force and effect of the licensure rule(s) and shall be subject to the issuance of correction orders and penalty assessments in accordance with the provisions of Minnesota Statutes, sections 144.653 and 144A.10. The period of time for correction and the amount of fines specified for the particular rule for which the variance or waiver was requested, shall apply.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.1040 Renewal
Any request for the renewal of a variance or waiver shall be submitted in writing prior to its expiration date. Renewal requests shall contain the information specified in part 4655.1000. A variance or waiver shall be renewed by the department if the applicant continues to satisfy the criteria contained in parts 4655.1010 and 4655.1020 and demonstrates compliance with the alternative measures or conditions imposed at the time the original variance or waiver was granted.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.1050 Denial, Revocation, or Refusal to Renew
The department shall deny, revoke, or refuse to renew a variance or waiver if it is determined that the criteria specified in parts 4655.1010 and 4655.1020 are not met. The applicant shall be notified in writing of the decision to deny, revoke, or refuse to renew the variance or waiver, informed of the reasons for the denial, revocation, or refusal to renew, and informed of the right to appeal this decision.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.1060 Appeal Procedure
An applicant may contest the denial, revocation, or refusal to renew a variance or waiver by requesting a contested case hearing under the provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act, Minnesota Statutes, chapter 14. The applicant shall submit, within 15 days of the receipt of the department's decision, a written request for a hearing. The request for hearing shall set forth in detail the reasons why the applicant contends the decision of the department should be reversed or modified. At the hearing, the applicant shall have the burden of proving that it satisfied the criteria specified in parts 4655.1010 and 4655.1020, except in a proceeding challenging the revocation of a variance or waiver.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.1070 Definitions
Subpart 1. Scope.
For the purposes of parts 4655.1070 to 4655.1098, the following terms have the meanings given them in this part.
Subp. 2. Advisory review panel.
"Advisory review panel" means the group of individuals that must form recommendations according to part 4655.1086 and that is appointed by the Interagency Long-Term Care Planning Committee under part 4655.1074 and Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.073, subdivision 3.
Subp. 3. Allowable costs.
"Allowable costs" means costs allowable according to part 9549.0035, subpart 1.
Subp. 4. Alternative care grant.
"Alternative care grant" has the meaning given in part 9505.2395, subpart 4.
Subp. 5. Annual statistical report.
"Annual statistical report" means the report incorporated by reference under part 4655.1072.
Subp. 6. Appraised value.
"Appraised value" means the value of the nursing home buildings, attached fixtures, and land improvements used for resident care as determined under part 9549.0060.
Subp. 7. Attached fixtures.
"Attached fixtures" has the meaning given in part 9549.0020, subpart 6.
Subp. 8. Attached hospital.
"Attached hospital" means a hospital that is under common ownership and operation with a nursing home and shares with that nursing home the cost of common service areas such as nursing, dietary, housekeeping, laundry, plant operations, or administrative services.
Subp. 9. Buildings.
"Buildings" has the meaning given in part 9549.0020, subpart 7.
Subp. 10. Certified boarding care home.
"Certified boarding care home" means a facility licensed under parts 4655.0090 to 4655.1060 and 4655.1200 to 4655.9900, and certified to participate in medical assistance under United States Code, title 42, sections 1396 to 1396p as amended.
Subp. 11. Commenced construction.
"Commenced construction" has the meaning given it under Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.071, subdivision 1a, paragraph (d).
Subp. 12. Commissioner.
"Commissioner" means the commissioner of the Department of Health or the commissioner's representative.
Subp. 13. Conversion.
"Conversion" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.073, subdivision 1, paragraph (a).
Subp. 14. Cost report.
"Cost report" means the document and supporting material specified by the commissioner of the Department of Human Services and prepared by the nursing home. The cost report includes the statistical, financial, and other relevant information required in Minnesota Statutes, section 256B.441, subdivision 43, for rate determination.
Subp. 15. Department.
"Department" means the Minnesota Department of Human Services.
Subp. 16. Estimated operating costs.
"Estimated operating costs" means a facility's estimated operating costs during the first 24 months after completion of the project.
Subp. 17. Facility.
"Facility" means the attached hospital, nursing home, or certified boarding care home named on a proposal.
Subp. 18. Hospital.
"Hospital" means an acute care institution licensed under Minnesota Statutes, sections 144.50 to 144.58.
Subp. 19. Interagency long-term care planning committee or INTERCOM.
"Interagency long-term care planning committee" or "INTERCOM" means the committee established under Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.31, subdivision 1.
Subp. 20. Land improvement.
"Land improvement" has the meaning given in part 9549.0020, subpart 28.
Subp. 21. Medical assistance.
"Medical assistance" means the program established under title XIX of the Social Security Act and Minnesota Statutes, chapter 256B.
Subp. 22. Medical assistance cost.
"Medical assistance cost" means the annual amount by which medical assistance payments will change if a proposal is implemented. Medical assistance costs are determined according to part 4655.1084, subpart 2, and as provided under Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.073.
Subp. 23. Nursing home.
"Nursing home" means a facility licensed according to Minnesota Statutes, chapter 144A.
Subp. 24. Operating costs.
"Operating costs" has the meaning given in part 9549.0020, subpart 32.
Subp. 25. Proposal.
"Proposal" means a detailed written plan for a conversion, renovation, replacement, or upgrading.
Subp. 26. Proposer.
"Proposer" means the organization or individual authorized by a facility's governing board or management to prepare and submit a proposal to the INTERCOM.
Subp. 27. Relocation.
"Relocation" means the movement of licensed nursing home beds or certified boarding care home beds from the existing site as permitted under Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.073, subdivision 5.
Subp. 28. Renovation.
"Renovation" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.073, subdivision 1, paragraph (b).
Subp. 29. Replacement.
"Replacement" means the demolition or delicensure and reconstruction or construction of an addition to all or a substantial part of an existing facility.
Subp. 30. Soft costs.
"Soft costs" means costs capitalized as part of the project relating to implementation of the proposal, including:
A. sales taxes on materials;
B. contractor's overhead and profit;
C. architect and engineering fees;
D. construction period interest;
E. permits, zoning, and construction financing;
F. feasibility, economic, and demographic studies;
G. legal, accounting, and consulting fees relating to creation of the development; and
H. cost of designing the improvements.
Subp. 31. Statutory restriction.
"Statutory restriction" means a replacement restriction, conversion restriction, or upgrading restriction as described under Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.073, subdivisions 5 to 7.
Subp. 32. Submission deadline.
"Submission deadline" means the date by which a proposal must be received by the INTERCOM, which, according to part 4655.1080, subpart 3, is no later than 90 days after the date a request for proposals is published in the State Register.
Subp. 33. Upgrading.
"Upgrading" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.073, subdivision 1, paragraph (d).
Subp. 34. Working day.
"Working day" means Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, or Friday, excluding legal holidays recognized by the state of Minnesota.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.071; 144A.073
- History: 20 SR 340; L 2014 c 262 art 5 s 6
Minn. R. 4655.1072 Incorporation by Reference of Annual Statistical Report
The 1994 Annual Statistical Report to the Commissioner of Health, Nursing Homes and Boarding Care Homes, and future amendments are incorporated by reference and are available through the Minitex interlibrary loan system. The report is subject to frequent change.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.071; 144A.073
- History: 20 SR 340
Minn. R. 4655.1074 Appointment of Advisory Review Panel
Subpart 1. Procedures.
The INTERCOM shall appoint an advisory review panel according to subparts 2 to 5.
Subp. 2. Membership.
The advisory review panel must consist of five members:
A. two representatives from organizations that represent consumers of nursing home services;
B. two representatives from organizations representing providers of nursing home services; and
C. one who has a background in long-term care and either accounting, engineering, building construction, or design.
Subp. 3. Advisory review panel chairperson.
The executive director of the INTERCOM shall chair and convene the advisory review panel.
Subp. 4. Nominations.
A member of the advisory review panel must be nominated. Anyone can nominate an advisory review panel member.
The INTERCOM shall publish in the State Register a request for nominations to the advisory review panel no later than September 27, 1995, and at least 30 days before the expiration date of the term of an advisory review panel member. A nomination must be written, must state the name and address of the nominee, must include a description of the nominee's professional experience and training, and must state the positions indicated under subpart 2 for which the person is being nominated.
Subp. 5. Appointments.
A nominee shall be appointed by a majority vote of the INTERCOM.
Subp. 6. Length of term.
A term on the advisory review panel begins the first working day after the vote of the INTERCOM appointing a person to the panel. An advisory review panel member representing consumers and one representing providers shall serve two years on the panel. The remaining consumer and provider members shall serve three-year terms. The member with the background in long-term care and either accounting, engineering, building construction, or design shall serve a three-year term. An advisory review panel member may serve two consecutive terms.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.071; 144A.073
- History: 20 SR 340
Minn. R. 4655.1076 Intercom Publication of Request for Proposals
Subpart 1. Date of publication of request for proposals.
The INTERCOM shall publish in the State Register a request for proposals within 30 days of the first day of each state fiscal biennium, and as frequently thereafter as determined by the commissioner.
Subp. 2. Contents of request for proposals.
The request for proposals must state:
A. a proposal submission deadline date consistent with part 4655.1080, subpart 3;
B. the amount of the legislative appropriation available for medical assistance costs or state that proposals will not be requested because no appropriations were made;
C. other relevant information regarding current state long-term care policy goals;
D. how the approval criteria will be prioritized by the advisory review panel, the interagency long-term care planning committee, and the commissioner; and
E. that the information under part 4655.1078 must be included in a proposal.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.071; 144A.073
- History: 20 SR 340
Minn. R. 4655.1078 Format and Contents of Proposal
A proposal must be on a form approved by the commissioner and must:
A. include the name, telephone number, and address of the proposer or other authorized person who can be contacted by the commissioner or the INTERCOM with questions regarding the proposal;
B. include the name and address of the nursing home or boarding care home for which the project is being proposed;
C. be signed by an authorized representative of the entity submitting the proposal;
D. state whether the proposal is for renovation, replacement, conversion, or upgrading;
E. describe the problem the proposal will address;
F. include schematic drawings and an outline of specifications, prepared by a registered architect, for all construction projects including replacement and renovation;
G. include a cost estimate, prepared by a contractor or architect and other participants in the development of the proposal, for the project described by the drawings and outline of specifications required by item F, including costs of buildings, attached fixtures, land improvements, construction site preparation, and related soft costs;
H. provide current estimated long-term financing costs of the proposal, including amount and sources of money, bond fund reserve, or other similar reserves as required under the proposed financing mechanisms, annual payments scheduled, interest rates, length of term, closing costs and fees, and insurance costs that are directly related to the building, attached fixtures, land, land improvements, and building site preparation;
I. state the current cost of real estate taxes and special assessments for the facility and also an estimate of those that would be assessed if the proposal were implemented;
J. state the current annual care-related and other operating costs and also an estimation of these costs for the first 24 months after completion of the project if the proposal were implemented;
K. describe the environmental conditions in the facility that are reviewed under part 4655.1084, subpart 10, and any proposed changes in those conditions;
L. for proposals involving replacement of all or part of a facility, provide the property identification number and a general description of the proposed location of a replacement facility;
M. provide an estimate of the costs of renovation as an alternative to replacement or of replacement as an alternative to renovation;
N. include the estimated beginning date of construction for renovation and replacements and the proposed timetable for completion of construction;
O. briefly explain why the proposer chose replacement rather than renovation or renovation rather than replacement; and
P. a statement concerning any licensure or certification orders, deficiencies, or substantiated complaints or sanctions during the 24 months prior to submission of the proposal.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.071; 144A.073
- History: 20 SR 340
Minn. R. 4655.1080 Submission of Proposal
Subpart 1. Who may submit proposal.
A proposal must be submitted by a proposer.
Subp. 2. Where to submit proposal.
A proposal must be submitted to the INTERCOM.
Subp. 3. Submission deadline.
A proposal must be received by the INTERCOM no later than 90 days after the date a request for proposals is published in the State Register.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.071; 144A.073
- History: 20 SR 340
Minn. R. 4655.1082 Initial Screening of Proposals by Intercom
The INTERCOM shall process a proposal according to items A to K.
A. The INTERCOM shall determine whether a proposal was submitted according to the submission deadline under part 4655.1080, subpart 3.
B. If a proposal was not submitted according to the deadline indicated under part 4655.1080, subpart 3, the INTERCOM shall return the proposal to the proposer with a written notice that the proposal will not receive further consideration because the proposal was received after the submission deadline.
C. If a proposal is received according to the deadline, the INTERCOM shall determine whether the proposal meets the definition of conversion, renovation, replacement, or upgrading as those terms are defined under part 4655.1070. If a proposal does not meet any of those definitions, the INTERCOM shall return that proposal to the proposer with a written notice that the proposal will not receive further consideration because it does not meet the definition of conversion, renovation, replacement, or upgrading.
D. If the proposal is for an exception that meets the definition of upgrading, renovation, replacement, or conversion as those terms are defined under part 4655.1070, the INTERCOM shall determine whether the proposal is substantially complete and consistent with part 4655.1078. A proposal is substantially complete and consistent if it contains the information specified in part 4655.1078, items B, D to K, and M.
E. If an item required for a substantially complete proposal under item D is missing from a proposal that is submitted to the INTERCOM, the proposal shall be returned to the proposer with a written notice that the proposal will not receive further consideration because of the missing item.
F. If a proposal is substantially complete and consistent according to item D, staff shall, if needed, ask for additional information in writing within ten days after the submission deadline. Additional information shall be requested only if, in the judgment of the INTERCOM, the additional information is needed to clarify or support previously submitted information.
G. If requested additional information is not received within 17 days after the submission deadline, the proposal shall be returned to the proposer with a notice that the proposal is not approved because the additional information was not received within 17 days following the submission deadline.
H. A proposal that is not completed by the submission of additional information requested under item F shall be returned to the proposer with a notice that the proposal will not receive further consideration because the requested additional information submitted was insufficient.
I. If the format and contents of a proposal submitted to the commissioner are substantially complete and consistent with part 4655.1078, the INTERCOM shall determine whether the proposal satisfies the statutory restrictions.
J. If a proposal fails to satisfy a statutory restriction, the INTERCOM shall return the proposal to the proposer with a written notice stating that the proposal will not receive further consideration because it does not satisfy a statutory restriction.
K. If a proposal satisfies all statutory restrictions, data regarding the proposal shall be collected according to part 4655.1084. The INTERCOM shall submit the findings and other information from the review conducted under part 4655.1084 to the advisory review panel to review and form recommendations on the proposal according to part 4655.1086.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.071; 144A.073
- History: 20 SR 340
Minn. R. 4655.1084 Data Collection
Subpart 1. Staff.
The INTERCOM and the commissioners of agencies represented on the INTERCOM shall assign staff to collect the data under subparts 2 to 14. The INTERCOM shall use the data collected under this part to develop recommendations to the commissioner under part 4655.1094 on a proposal screened under part 4655.1082.
Subp. 2. Medical assistance cost of a proposal.
The medical assistance costs of a proposal shall be estimated by:
A. reviewing the accuracy of operating costs provided according to part 4655.1078, item J;
B. determining the accuracy of the real estate taxes and special assessments provided under part 4655.1078, item I;
C. determining the increase in allowable appraised value according to part 9549.0060, subpart 4; staff shall assume that the costs provided under part 4655.1078, item G, are equal to the total increase in appraised value;
D. determining the increase in the allowable annual costs of the elements identified in part 4655.1078, item H, according to part 9549.0060, subparts 5, 6, and 7;
E. determining an estimate of the total allowable annual costs for the cost categories reviewed in items B to D;
F. determining an estimate of the number of medical assistance resident days and of the proportion of medical assistance resident days to total resident days using information from the most recent cost report of the facility;
G. multiplying the proportion of resident days developed in item F by the estimated annual costs developed in item E;
H. determining the annual medical assistance costs of the proposal by multiplying the amount found in item G by the most recent proportion of medical assistance paid by the state of Minnesota; and
I. multiplying the amount found in item H by two to yield the biennial medical assistance cost of the proposal.
Subp. 3. Cost information.
In addition to the cost estimates in subpart 2, the current and projected costs of the proposal shall be calculated according to cost per licensed bed, percent change in cost per licensed bed, and total biennial state and medical assistance costs.
Subp. 4. Age-related data.
The percentage of individuals in the county of the facility and of counties contiguous to that county who are 65 to 74 years of age, 75 to 84 years of age, and who are 85 or more years of age shall be calculated using either census data or projections of the state demographer based on census data, whichever provides the more recent estimate.
Subp. 5. Facility occupancy.
The average occupancy rate of the facility's existing beds shall be obtained from the most recent Annual Statistical Report.
Subp. 6. County-region occupancy.
The average percentage occupancy of the existing licensed beds of all the facilities in the county of the facility and of all facilities in counties contiguous to that county according to the most recent Annual Statistical Report, shall be calculated.
Subp. 7. Number of licensed beds.
The number of nursing home and licensed boarding care home beds per 1,000 individuals aged 65 or more, aged 75 or more, and aged 85 or more, for the county of each facility, for the region composed of the counties contiguous to the county of the facility, and for the state shall be calculated.
Subp. 8. Number of occupied licensed beds.
The number of occupied nursing home and licensed boarding care home beds per 1,000 individuals aged 65 or more, aged 75 or more, and aged 85 or more, for the county of each facility, for the region composed of the counties contiguous to the county of the facility, and for the state shall be calculated.
Subp. 9. Alternative care grant use.
Alternative care grant use means the dollar amount and percentage of alternative care grant allocations used by the county in which the facility is located in the most recent year for which data is available, and shall be obtained for each proposal that is acceptable according to part 4655.1082. The amount of alternative care grant per person 65 years of age or older spent in the county in which the facility is located, in counties contiguous to the county of the facility, and in the state shall be calculated.
Subp. 10. Environmental conditions for evaluation.
Information shall be developed that describes the differences between selected existing environmental conditions described under this subpart and the corresponding state licensing standards for new construction and between the proposed correction changes in these environmental conditions and the state licensing standards for new construction. This subpart refers only to those parts of the facility affected by the proposal.
The development of selected information for the purpose of evaluation, comparison, and ranking does not supersede or limit licensing and certification requirements established in chapters 4660 and 9505. The environmental conditions and standards for physical plant evaluation are listed in items A to L.
A. The width of corridors shall be compared with the standards in part 4658.4120, subpart 2.
B. The width of door frames shall be compared with the standards in part 4658.4110, subpart 3.
C. Fire exit enclosures shall be compared with the standards in part 4658.3005.
D. The method and materials of construction of the building shall be compared with the standards for Group D occupancy in the State Building Code. State Building Code has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 16B.60, subdivision 4.
E. The number of beds per resident room and the floor area per bed shall be compared to standards in parts 4658.4100 and 4658.4105, subpart 2.
F. The amount of artificial light in resident rooms and major activity areas shall be compared to standards in parts 4658.4615 and 4660.9900.
G. The amount of natural light in resident rooms shall be compared with the standard in part 4658.4105, subpart 6.
H. The number and type of bathing facilities or toilet facilities adjacent to bedrooms shall be compared to the standards in parts 4658.4135 and 4658.4140.
I. Ventilation arrangements shall be compared to the standards in parts 4658.3500, subpart 2, item A, and 4658.4515 to 4658.4550.
J. Dining room space shall be compared to the standards in parts 4658.4200 and 4658.4210.
K. Day room space shall be compared to the standard in parts 4658.4200 and 4658.4205.
L. Heating and cooling arrangements shall be compared to the standards in part 4658.4510.
Subp. 11. History of state licensing correction orders and federal certification deficiencies.
For each proposal that is acceptable according to part 4655.1082, the accumulated number and content of licensing correction orders and federal certification deficiencies incurred during the 24 months before the submission deadline for the proposal shall be collected.
Subp. 12. History of licensing and certification waivers.
The number and purpose of licensing and federal certification waivers incurred during the 24 months before the submission deadline for a proposal shall be collected.
Subp. 13. History of complaints.
The number and content of substantiated licensing and federal certification complaints about a facility received during the 24 months before the deadline for submission of a proposal shall be collected. If ownership of a facility has changed in the 24 months before the submission deadline, a history of complaints shall be collected only for the tenure of the current owner.
Subp. 14. History of sanctions.
The number and content of sanctions relating to licensure and certification that have been levied against a facility and incurred during the 24 months before the submission deadline for the proposal shall be collected.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.071; 144A.073; 144A.08
- History: 20 SR 340; 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4655.1086 Formation of Advisory Review Panel Recommendations to Intercom
Subpart 1. Review of proposals.
A proposal that satisfies the requirements of part 4655.1082 shall be reviewed, evaluated, and ranked by the advisory review panel.
Subp. 2. Method of evaluation.
The advisory review panel shall evaluate proposals using the information submitted according to parts 4655.1078 and 4655.1080 and the data collected by staff under part 4655.1084.
Subp. 3. Ranking of proposals.
The advisory review panel shall rank proposals to indicate which proposals should be approved in order of priority based only on the criteria in Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.073.
Subp. 4. Formation of recommendations to INTERCOM.
Based on the ranking of proposals, the advisory review panel shall recommend that the INTERCOM recommend approval or disapproval of a proposal. The advisory review panel shall provide written justifications for its recommendations to the INTERCOM.
Subp. 5. Deadline for submission of recommendations.
The advisory review panel must submit its recommendations to the INTERCOM no later than ten days after receipt of the staff review information.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.071; 144A.073
- History: 20 SR 340
Minn. R. 4655.1088 Public Hearing
The INTERCOM shall hold one public hearing on all proposals submitted in response to a request for proposals. The public hearing shall be held after the submission deadline under part 4655.1080, subpart 3, but before the INTERCOM submits recommendations to the commissioner. The INTERCOM shall publish a notice of the public hearing in the State Register that states the time, date, place, and subject of the hearing.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.071; 144A.073
- History: 20 SR 340
Minn. R. 4655.1090 Evaluation, Comparison, and Ranking of Proposals
The INTERCOM shall use the findings of the staff data collection process, the advisory review panel, and the public hearing to evaluate, compare, and rank the proposals according to the long-term care needs they address. An evaluation, comparison, or ranking must be based on the application in a consistent manner of the criteria provided in Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.073.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.071; 144A.073
- History: 20 SR 340
Minn. R. 4655.1092 Reimbursement Limits
Subpart 1. Cost reimbursement.
The acceptance or determination of costs under parts 4655.1070 to 4655.1098 is not binding for reimbursement. Actual reimbursement of costs is determined according to parts 9549.0010 to 9549.0080.
Subp. 2. Medical assistance costs.
The sum of the estimated medical assistance costs of all recommended proposals during the first 24 months of operation must not exceed the amount provided by the legislature as noted in the request for proposals according to part 4655.1076, subpart 2, item B.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.071; 144A.073
- History: 20 SR 340
Minn. R. 4655.1094 Intercom Recommendations to Commissioner
The INTERCOM shall recommend that the commissioner approve or disapprove a proposal. A recommendation under this part must be based on the evaluation, comparison, and ranking completed under part 4655.1090. A written report of the evaluation, comparison, and ranking completed under part 4655.1090, and the recommendations formed under this part must be submitted to the commissioner not more than 21 days after receipt of the recommendations of the advisory review panel.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.071; 144A.073
- History: 20 SR 340
Minn. R. 4655.1096 Commissioner's Approval or Disapproval of Proposal
Subpart 1. Approval or disapproval of proposal.
The commissioner shall approve or disapprove a proposal within 30 days after receiving the INTERCOM recommendations.
Subp. 2. Notice of approval or disapproval.
No later than ten days after the commissioner's approval or disapproval of a proposal the commissioner shall send a written notice of approval or disapproval to the proposer. The notice must state the reasons for the approval or disapproval.
Subp. 3. Expiration of commissioner's approval.
The commissioner's approval of a proposal expires 18 months after the date of the commissioner's signature on the notice of approval unless the facility has commenced construction.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.071; 144A.073
- History: 20 SR 340
Minn. R. 4655.1098 Documentation
Subpart 1. Preliminary plans.
The proposer of a renovation, replacement, or upgrading that is approved by the commissioner shall submit preliminary plans as defined in part 4660.0600 before drawing final plans.
Subp. 2. Final working drawings.
The proposer of a renovation or replacement that is approved by the commissioner shall submit final architectural, mechanical, and electrical drawings as defined in parts 4660.0700 and 4660.0800 to the Minnesota Department of Health for review and approval before implementation of the project.
Subp. 3. Changes in approved projects.
Changes in approved projects for renovation, replacement, or upgrading which alter the methods or materials described in the final working drawings must be submitted to the commissioner for review and approval before the changes are made, according to part 4660.0900.
Subp. 4. Change orders.
If the commissioner approves the reported changes in a project, a change order permitting the changes shall be issued. The issuance of a change order does not alter the allowable costs as estimated in part 4655.1084, subpart 2.
Subp. 5. Cost overruns.
The proposer shall immediately report to the commissioner any cost overruns including a description of the reasons for the overrun as required by Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.073, subdivision 3b.
Subp. 6. Final statement of costs.
On completion of the proposed project, the proposer shall submit to the Department of Human Services, a final statement of costs that includes a sworn statement of actual costs of items for which costs were estimated according to part 4655.1078, item G, and that compares the actual costs to the estimates.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.071; 144A.073
- History: 20 SR 340
Minn. R. 4655.1200 Licensee
Subpart 1. Duties in general.
The licensee in each nursing home or boarding care home shall be responsible for its management, control, and operation.
Subp. 2. Specific duties.
The licensee shall develop written bylaws and/or policies which shall be available to all members of the governing body and shall assume full legal responsibility for matters under its control, for the quality of care rendered and for compliance with applicable laws and rules of legally authorized agencies. The responsibilities of the licensee shall include:
A. Full disclosure of each person having an interest of ten percent or more of the ownership of the home to the commissioner of health with any changes promptly reported in writing. In case of corporate ownership, the name and address of each officer and director shall be made known. If the home is organized as a partnership, the name and address of each partner shall be furnished. In the case of a home operated by a lessee, the persons or business entities having an interest in the lessee organization shall be reported and an executed copy of the lease agreement furnished. If the home is operated by the holder of a franchise, disclosure as specified above shall be made as to the franchise holder who shall also furnish an executed copy of the franchise agreement.
B. Appointment of a licensed nursing home administrator or a person in charge who shall be responsible for the operation of the home in accordance with law and established policies.
C. The authority to serve as administrator or person in charge shall be delegated in writing.
D. The administrator of a hospital with a convalescent and nursing care unit may serve both units. See the Nursing Home Administrator Licensing Law, Laws of Minnesota 1969, chapter 770.
E. Notification of the termination of service of the administrator or the person in charge as well as the appointment of a replacement shall be given within five days in writing to the commissioner of health by the governing body of the home. If a licensed nursing home administrator or person in charge of the boarding care home is not available to assume the position immediately, such notification to the commissioner of health shall include the name of the person temporarily in charge of the home. The governing body of a nursing home shall not employ an individual as the permanent administrator until it is determined that the administrator qualifies for licensure as a nursing home administrator in Minnesota. See the Nursing Home Administrator Licensing Law, Laws of Minnesota 1969, chapter 770.
F. Provision of a competent staff and maintenance of professional standards in the care of patients and residents.
G. Employment of qualified personnel. There shall be sufficient personnel to provide the basic services such as food service, housekeeping, laundry, and plant maintenance. Employees or volunteers under 18 years of age shall be under direct supervision.
H. Provision of facilities, equipment, and supplies for care consistent with the needs of the patients and residents.
I. Provision of evidence of adequate financing, proper administration of funds, and the maintenance of required statistics.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
- History: L 1977 c 305 s 39; 17 SR 1279
Minn. R. 4655.1300 Administrator in Charge
Subpart 1. Designation of person.
There shall be one individual who shall be in immediate charge of the operation and administration of the nursing home or boarding care home, whether the person is the "licensee" or a person designated by the licensee. This person shall be empowered to carry out the provisions of these rules and shall be charged with the responsibility of doing so.
Subp. 2. Full-time requirements.
The person in charge shall be full-time, serving only one nursing home and shall not serve as the director of nurses.
Subp. 3. Administrator's absence; requirements.
The administrator or person in charge shall not leave the premises without giving information as to where this person can be reached and without delegating authority to a person who is at least 21 years of age, physically able, competent, and capable of acting in an emergency. At no time shall a home be left without competent supervision. The person left in charge shall have the authority and competency to act in an emergency.
Subp. 4. Notice of person in charge.
The name of the person in charge at the time shall be posted at the main entrance.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
- History: 17 SR 1279
Minn. R. 4655.1400 Responsibilities of the Administrator in Charge
The responsibilities of the administrator in charge shall include:
A. Maintenance, completion, and submission of reports and records as required by the commissioner of health.
B. Formulation of written general policies; admission, discharge, and transfer policies; and personnel policies, practices, and procedures that adequately support sound patient or resident care, including:
C. Establishment of a recognized accounting system. There shall be financial resources at the time of initial licensure to permit full service operation of the home for six months without regard to income from patient or resident fees.
D. The development and maintenance of channels of communications with employees which include: distribution of written personnel policies to employees; regularly scheduled meetings of supervisory personnel; employee suggestion system; and at least annual employee evaluations.
E. Establishing and maintaining effective working relationships with hospitals and other types of care facilities and with public or voluntary health and social agencies for the purpose of:
F. Developing written disaster plan with procedures for the protection and evacuation of all persons in the case of fire or explosion or in the event of floods, tornadoes, or other emergencies. The plan:
G. This item applies to nursing homes only. Establishment of a patient care policy committee in each nursing home with representation from all disciplines directly involved in patient care for the development and implementation of guidelines for patient care. The patient care policy committee is to include at least one physician and one registered nurse to govern the medical, nursing, and other services provided.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
- History: L 1977 c 305 s 39; 17 SR 1279
Minn. R. 4655.1500 Type of Admissions
Subpart 1. Selection of residents and patients.
The administrator, in cooperation with the director of the nursing service in a nursing home or the person in charge in a boarding care home shall be responsible for exercising discretion in the type of patients or residents admitted to the home in accordance with the admission policies of the home.
Subp. 2. Patients not accepted.
Patients or residents shall not be accepted or retained for whom care cannot be provided in keeping with their known physical, mental, or behavioral condition.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.1600 Agreement as to Rates and Charges
At the time of admission, there shall be a written agreement between the home and the patient, resident, the person's agent, or guardian regarding the base rate, extra charges made for care or services, obligations concerning payment of such rates and charges, and the refund policy of the home. All patients' and residents' bills shall be itemized as to the services rendered.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
- History: 17 SR 1279
Minn. R. 4655.1700 Census Register
Each nursing home and boarding care home shall maintain a permanent, bound, chronological registry book for all persons admitted showing the date of admission, name of patient or resident, and date of discharge or death. See part 4655.3700.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.1800 Availability of Licensing Regulations
Subpart 1. Accessibility to personnel.
Copies of these licensing regulations shall be made readily available for the use of all personnel of the facility.
Subp. 2. Training of personnel.
All personnel shall be instructed in the requirements of the law and the rules pertaining to their respective duties and such instruction shall be documented. All personnel shall be fully informed of the policies of the home and procedure manuals to guide them in the performance of their duties shall be readily available.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.1910 Policies Concerning Patients
Subpart 1. Visiting hours.
Visiting hours shall be established as a written policy of the home and shall be posted in plain view of visitors. Unrestricted visiting hours are recommended.
Subp. 2. Visits by a pastor.
A patient's or resident's pastor shall be permitted to visit at any time. Privacy for consultation, communion, or for interviews shall be the privilege of every patient or resident.
Subp. 3. Visits to critically ill patients.
Relatives or guardians shall be allowed to visit critically ill patients in nursing homes at any time.
Subp. 4. Telephones.
There shall be at least one non-coin-operated telephone which is accessible at all times in case of emergency. Patients and residents shall have access to a public telephone at a convenient location within the building.
Subp. 5. Mail.
Patients and residents shall receive their mail unopened unless a legal guardian has requested in writing that the mail be reviewed. The outgoing mail shall not be censored.
Subp. 6. Funds and possessions.
No home shall handle the personal major business affairs of a patient or resident without written legal authorization by the legal guardian.
Subp. 7. Smoking.
Patients or residents shall not be permitted to smoke in bed except in the case of a bedfast patient while under the direct supervision of a staff member.
Subp. 8. Pet animals.
Pet animals may be kept on the premises of a nursing home or boarding care home only in accordance with the provisions of part 4638.0200.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
- History: 17 SR 1279
Minn. R. 4655.2000 Employee Policies
Subpart 1. Personal hygiene of all employees and volunteers.
There shall be strict adherence to established policies and procedures relating to personal hygiene practices including clean attire and frequent and thorough hand-washing techniques at all times and in all areas of the home. See part 4655.1400, item B, subitem (6).
Subp. 2. Keys.
The person in charge of the home on each work shift shall have keys to all doors and locks in the home in possession with the exception of keys to the business office.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
- History: 17 SR 1279
Minn. R. 4655.2100 Procedure at Death
When a patient or resident dies in a home, the administrator, nurse, or person in charge shall contact a relative, guardian, or the placement agency regarding funeral arrangements. The body shall be separated from other patients or residents until removed from the home. Where reasonably possible, no body shall remain in a home for more than 12 hours.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.2200 Outside Services
Where laundry or food service is obtained from an outside agency or establishment, such service shall be provided pursuant to a written agreement which shall specify that the service meets the same standards as are required under these rules.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.2300 Inspection by Department
All areas of the facility and all records related to the care and protection of patients and residents including patient, resident, and employee records shall be open for inspection by the department at all times for the purposes of enforcing these rules.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.2410 [Repealed, 20 SR 303]
[Repealed, 20 SR 303]
Minn. R. 4655.2420 [Repealed, 20 SR 303]
[Repealed, 20 SR 303]
Minn. R. 4655.2600 Capability
Every employee shall be mentally and physically capable of performing the work to which assigned, in good health, and free from colds and other communicable diseases. The above criteria shall be reviewed if the person is to be assigned to another job in the home.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.2700 Assignment to Extra Duties
A person shall not be assigned to duty for two consecutive work periods except in a documented emergency. A work period is normally eight hours.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.2800 Personal Belongings
Personnel shall not keep wraps, clothing, or other belongings in the food service or patient and resident areas. Provision shall be made elsewhere for their safe storage.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.2900 Illness or Accident
Personnel who have missed work days because of illness or accident shall report to the registered nurse or person in charge who may authorize return to work. If in doubt the nurse or person in charge shall consult with a physician by telephone and be guided by the physician's opinion. This shall be made a part of the employee's personnel record. See Records and Reports, parts 4655.3200 to 4655.4000.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
- History: 17 SR 1279
Minn. R. 4655.3000 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4655.3200 Patient or Resident Care Record
Subpart 1. Requirement for individual charts.
An individual chart shall be kept on each patient and resident admitted to the home.
Subp. 2. Form of entries; verification.
All entries shall be made with a pen and signed by the person making the entry.
Subp. 3. Duration and placement of records.
Accurate, complete, and legible records for each patient or resident from the time of admission to the time of discharge or death shall be kept current and shall be maintained in a chart holder at the nurses' or attendants' station, a central control point for the storage of records and medications.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.3300 Admission Record
Subpart 1. Contents of record.
The admission record shall be initiated for each patient and resident within 72 hours after admission and contain identifying information including: name, previous address, social security number, sex, marital status, age, date and place of birth, previous occupation, date and hour of admission; name, address, and telephone number of the nearest relative, and the person to be notified in an emergency or death; information as to funeral arrangements, if available; church affiliation and pastor; and the name of the patient's or resident's attending physician.
Subp. 2. Disposition at discharge or death.
At the time of discharge or death, this record shall be completed with the date, time, reason for discharge, discharge diagnosis and condition; or date, time, and cause of death. In either case the signature and address of the responsible person to whom released shall be obtained.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.3400 Medical Record
The medical record shall be initiated for each patient or resident within 72 hours in accordance with part 4655.4700.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.3500 Filing and Disposition of Records
Subpart 1. Physical control of records.
The patient or resident care record shall be incorporated into an individual folder and filed at the nurses' or attendants' station, a central control point for the storage of records and medications.
Subp. 2. Disposition of discharged patient records.
The records of discharged patients or residents shall be promptly completed and filed in the home.
Subp. 3. Confidentiality of patient records.
Patients' or residents' medical records and patient care plans in nursing homes shall be considered confidential but they shall be made available to all persons in the home who are responsible for the care of the patient or resident and they shall be open to inspection by representatives of the department.
Subp. 4. Transfer of patient records.
When a patient or resident is discharged to another care facility pertinent information relative to the person's care shall accompany the patient or resident.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
- History: 17 SR 1279
Minn. R. 4655.3600 Storage and Preservation of Records
Space shall be provided for the safe storage of patients' or residents' records at the nurses' or attendants' station, a central control point for the storage of records and medications, and in general storage. Records shall be filed so as to be readily accessible. All patients' and residents' records shall be preserved for a period of at least five years following discharge or death.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.3700 Census Register
A register shall be kept in a separate bound book, listing in chronological order the names and dates of all admissions and discharges. This register shall be kept in such a manner that total admissions, discharges, deaths, and patient or resident days can be calculated.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.3800 Reports and Correspondence to the Department
Reports regarding statistical data and services furnished shall be submitted on forms furnished by the department. Copies shall be retained by the home. All correspondence with the department shall be kept as a permanent, accessible record.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.3900 [Repealed, 20 SR 303]
[Repealed, 20 SR 303]
Minn. R. 4655.4000 Resident Care Record
Subpart 1. Application.
This part applies to boarding care homes only.
Subp. 2. Types of information reported.
The care record for each resident shall contain the resident's weight at the time of admission and at least once each month thereafter and a summary completed at least monthly by the person in charge indicating the resident's general condition, actions, attitude, changes in sleeping habits or appetite, and any complaints. A detailed incident report of any accident or injury and the action taken shall be recorded immediately. All dates and times of visits by physicians or podiatrists and visits to clinics, dentists, or hospitals shall be recorded.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.4100 Admission Policy
The admission policies of the nursing home and boarding care home shall specify whether the home will accept the personal funds of patients' or residents' for safekeeping. If the nursing home or boarding care home accepts the personal funds of patients' and residents' for safekeeping, written policies regarding the handling and protection of the funds shall be established in accordance with parts 4655.4100 to 4655.4170.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.4110 Authorization
Subpart 1. Written authorization.
The personal funds of the patient or resident shall not be accepted for safekeeping without written authorization from the patient or resident or from the patient's or resident's legal guardian or conservator or representative payee.
Subp. 2. Copy retained.
A copy of this written authorization shall be retained in the patient's or resident's records.
Subp. 3. Representative payee.
A "representative payee" is an individual designated by the Social Security Administration to receive benefits on behalf of the patient or resident.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.4120 Personal Fund Accounts
Subpart 1. No commingling of funds.
The personal funds of patients and residents shall not be commingled with the funds of the nursing home or boarding care home or with the funds of any person other than patients or residents of the home, unless otherwise authorized by law.
Subp. 2. Funds of the individual.
The personal funds of patients and residents shall not be used in any way for the purpose of the nursing home, boarding care home, or any other patient or resident and shall be free from any liability that the nursing home or boarding care home incurs.
Subp. 3. Prohibition of commingling with more than one facility.
A person, firm, partnership, association, or corporation which operates more than one facility licensed in accordance with the provisions of Minnesota Statutes, sections 144.50 to 144.56 or Minnesota Statutes, chapter 144A shall not commingle patient or resident funds from one facility with another.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.4130 Written Accounting System Maintained
Subpart 1. System developed and maintained.
A written accounting system for the personal funds of patients and residents shall be developed and maintained.
Subp. 2. Access to records.
Each patient or resident and the patient's or resident's legal guardian or conservator, representative payee, or other person designated by the patient or resident shall be allowed access to the written records of all financial arrangements and transactions involving the individual patient's or resident's funds in accordance with the nursing home's and boarding care home's written policy. Such policy shall assure that access be provided in accordance with the needs of patients and residents.
Subp. 3. Written quarterly accounting.
Each patient or resident, or the patient's or resident's legal guardian or conservator, representative payee, or other person designated in writing by the patient or resident, shall be given a written quarterly accounting of the financial transactions made by or on behalf of the patient or resident.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.4140 Individual Written Record
An individual written record shall be maintained for each patient or resident which shall include the following items:
A. the date, amount, and source of funds deposited by or on behalf of a patient or resident;
B. the name of all individuals, other than the patient or resident, who have been authorized in writing by the patient or resident or the patient's or resident's legal guardian or conservator or representative payee to withdraw or expend funds from the patient's or resident's personal account; and
C. the date and the amount of all withdrawals from the patient's or resident's personal account.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.4150 Personal Funds
Subpart 1. Account.
Unless otherwise specified by law, the personal funds of any patient or resident in excess of $150 shall be deposited in a demand account in a financial institution authorized to do business in Minnesota, the deposits which are federally insured, except that a facility that is operated by a county shall deposit such funds with the county treasurer. This account must be in a form which clearly indicates that the facility has only a fiduciary interest in the funds. Records shall be maintained which specify on whose behalf funds are deposited or withdrawn from this account.
Subp. 2. Interest on account.
If a patient's or resident's personal funds are deposited in an interest bearing account, the accrued interest shall, unless otherwise specified by law, be prorated in accordance with the amounts attributable to each patient or resident and recorded on the patient's or resident's account.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.4160 Withdrawal of Funds from the Account
Upon the request of the patient or resident or the patient's or resident's legal guardian or conservator or representative payee, the nursing home or boarding care home shall return all or any part of the patient's or resident's funds given to the nursing home or boarding care home for safekeeping, including interest, if any, accrued from deposits. The nursing home or boarding care home shall develop a policy specifying the period of time during which funds can be withdrawn. This policy must ensure that the ability to withdraw funds is provided in accordance with the needs of the residents. This policy must also specify whether or not the nursing home or boarding care home will establish a procedure allowing patients or residents to obtain funds to meet unanticipated needs on days when withdrawal periods are not scheduled. The nursing home or boarding care home shall notify patients and residents of the policy governing the withdrawal of funds. Funds kept outside of the facility shall be returned within five business days.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.4170 Discharge or Death of Patient or Resident
Subpart 1. Discharge of a patient or resident.
Upon discharge of a patient or resident, unless the patient's or resident's bed is being held for anticipated readmission, all funds of that patient or resident shall be returned to the patient or resident or to the patient's or resident's legal guardian or conservator, representative payee or other person designated, in writing, by the patient or resident with a written accounting in exchange for a signed receipt. Funds which are maintained outside of the nursing home or boarding care home shall be returned within five business days.
Subp. 2. Death of a patient or resident.
Upon the death of a patient or resident, the nursing home or boarding care home shall provide a complete accounting of that patient's or resident's funds.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.4200 Policy Records
All policies and procedures adopted by the home shall be placed on file and be made readily accessible to the personnel.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.4300 Unusual Occurrences
Any occurrence of food poisoning or reportable disease shall be reported immediately to the department.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.4400 Employees' Personnel Records
A current personnel record shall be maintained for each employee and placed on file in a locked cabinet in the office of the administrator, person in charge, or the business office. These records shall be available to representatives of the department and shall contain the following information:
A. person's name, address, telephone number, age and birth date, sex, marital status, Minnesota license or registration number, if applicable; name, address, and telephone number of person to be called in case of emergency; social security number, and similar identifying data;
B. resume of individual's training, experience, and previous employment; recommendations and references from previous employers;
C. dates and results of any preemployment physical examination and of any subsequent physical examination, annual physical examinations are recommended;
D. date of employment in home, type of position currently held in home; hours of work, attendance, and salary records;
E. the record of all illnesses and accidents;
F. a listing of all institutes or training courses attended;
G. at least annual evaluations concerning employee's work performance; and
H. date of resignation or discharge and reason for leaving.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.4600 Care and Treatment
Subpart 1. Designation of physician by patient or resident.
Each patient or resident or the legal guardian or the agency responsible for care shall designate a licensed physician for the supervision of the care and treatment of the patient or resident during the person's stay in the home. This attending physician shall reside in the same or in a nearby community.
Subp. 2. Agreement with physician for emergency and advisory care.
Each nursing home or boarding care home shall have an agreement with one or more licensed physicians to provide emergency services and to act in an advisory capacity.
Subp. 3. Posting of physicians names and phone numbers.
A schedule, which lists the names, telephone numbers, and call days of the emergency physician(s) shall be posted in each nurses' or attendants' station.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
- History: 17 SR 1279
Minn. R. 4655.4700 Physicians' Examinations and Orders
Subpart 1. Physical examination at admission.
Each patient or resident shall have an admission medical history and complete physical examination performed and recorded by a physician within five days prior to or within 72 hours after admission. The medical record shall include: the report of the admission history and physical examination; the admitting diagnosis and report of subsequent physical examinations; reports of appropriate laboratory examinations; general medical condition including disabilities and limitations; instructions relative to the patient's or resident's total program of care; written orders for all medications with stop dates, treatments, special diets, and for extent or restriction of activity; physician's orders and progress notes; and condition on discharge or transfer, or cause of death.
Subp. 2. Periodic physical examination requirements.
Each nursing home patient shall be examined by a physician at least every six months and each boarding care home resident at least annually or more often if indicated by the clinical condition.
Subp. 3. Records of physical examinations.
A progress note shall be recorded in the patient's or resident's record at the time of each examination.
Subp. 4. Temporary orders for new admissions.
If orders for the immediate care of a patient or resident are not available at the time of admission, the emergency physician shall write temporary orders which are effective for a maximum of 72 hours.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.05; 14.3895; 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
- History: 44 SR 371
Minn. R. 4655.4800 Dental Care
Subpart 1. Services.
Patients and residents shall be provided with dental services appropriate to their needs.
Subp. 2. Agreement with dentist for emergency care.
Nursing homes and boarding care homes shall have a written agreement with a licensed dentist to provide emergency dental care when necessary.
Subp. 3. Posting of dentists' names and phone numbers.
The name and address of the emergency dentist shall be posted at each nurses' or attendants' station.
Subp. 4. Dental records.
All dental examinations and treatments shall be recorded in the patient's or resident's care record.
Subp. 5. Dentists' recommendations.
Personnel in the home shall assist patients and residents in carrying out dentists' recommendations.
Subp. 6. Identification of dentures.
A procedure shall be established for the accurate identification of patients' and residents' dentures.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.4900 [Repealed, 20 SR 303]
[Repealed, 20 SR 303]
Minn. R. 4655.5100 Adequate Staff
Subpart 1. Amount of staff.
Adequate staff shall be provided to meet the nursing and personal care needs and the maintenance necessary for the well-being of the patients and residents at all times.
Subp. 2. Requirements for staff.
There shall be at least one responsible person awake, dressed, and on duty at all times. These persons shall be at least 21 years of age and capable of performing the required duties of evacuating the patients and residents.
Subp. 3. Identification of staff.
Each employee and volunteer shall wear a badge which includes name and position.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.5200 Activities Program
Subpart 1. General requirements.
There shall be an organized social and recreational activities program in all nursing homes and boarding care homes which shall be designed to meet the normal needs of all patients and residents for occupation, diversion, and maintenance.
Subp. 2. Type of programs.
The activities program shall create a normal living environment which is compatible with the needs and interests of the majority of patients and residents. This shall be integrated into the total care program.
Subp. 3. Patient and resident involvement.
The patient or resident shall be encouraged to be involved in the person's own care through a purposeful activities program which allows the person to function at the person's maximum physical, mental, social, and emotional capacity.
Subp. 4. Supervision of program.
The activities program shall be supervised by a person employed on the basis of two-thirds hour per bed per week which is equal to 40 hours per week for 60 beds, who is trained and/or experienced in the supervision of such a program.
Subp. 5. Program directors.
A certified occupational therapy assistant (COTA) is qualified to direct such a program. It is recommended that consultation be provided for the activities director by a registered occupational therapist or a therapeutic recreational specialist.
Subp. 6. Frequency of program activities.
The activities program shall be regularly scheduled at least five days each week with the program posted one week in advance.
Subp. 7. Staff assistance with activities.
A sufficient number of personnel shall be assigned to assist with the activities program on a regular basis.
Subp. 8. Place for activities; requirements.
Appropriate space, equipment, materials, and storage areas shall be provided. This shall include recreational space and activities out-of-doors. A Handbook for Activities Supervisors is available from the department for use as a guide.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
- History: 17 SR 1279
Minn. R. 4655.5300 Spiritual Needs
The home shall provide adequate facilities and arrange for personnel to meet the spiritual needs of the patients or residents.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.5400 In-Service Education
There shall be a continuing in-service educational program for all personnel with thorough job orientation for all new personnel in each nursing home and boarding care home.
In nursing homes having 90 beds or more it is recommended that one person other than the director of nursing service be responsible for coordination of all in-service education programs.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.5600 [Repealed, 20 SR 303]
[Repealed, 20 SR 303]
Minn. R. 4655.5700 [Repealed, 20 SR 303]
[Repealed, 20 SR 303]
Minn. R. 4655.5800 [Repealed, 20 SR 303]
[Repealed, 20 SR 303]
Minn. R. 4655.5900 [Repealed, 20 SR 303]
[Repealed, 20 SR 303]
Minn. R. 4655.6000 [Repealed, 20 SR 303]
[Repealed, 20 SR 303]
Minn. R. 4655.6100 [Repealed, 20 SR 303]
[Repealed, 20 SR 303]
Minn. R. 4655.6200 [Repealed, 20 SR 303]
[Repealed, 20 SR 303]
Minn. R. 4655.6400 Adequate Care
Subpart 1. Care in general.
Each patient or resident shall receive nursing care or personal and custodial care and supervision based on individual needs. Patients and residents shall be encouraged to be active, to develop techniques for self-help, and to develop hobbies and interests. Nursing home patients shall be up and out of bed as much as possible unless the attending physician states in writing on the patient's medical record that the patient must remain in bed.
Subp. 2. Criteria for determining adequate care.
Criteria for determining adequate and proper care shall include items A to H.
A. Evidence of adequate care and kind and considerate treatment at all times. Privacy shall be respected and safeguarded.
B. Clean skin and freedom from offensive odors. A minimum of a complete tub bath or shower once a week shall be provided for all ambulatory patients and for all residents with adequate assistance or supervision as needed.
C. A minimum of monthly shampoos and assistance with daily hair grooming as needed.
D. Assistance with or supervision of shaving of men patients or residents as necessary to keep them clean and well-groomed.
E. Assistance as needed with oral hygiene to keep the mouth, teeth, or dentures clean. Measures shall be used to prevent dry, cracked lips.
F. Proper care and attention to hands and feet. Fingernails and toenails shall be kept clean and trimmed.
G. Clean linen. Bed linen shall be changed weekly, or more often as needed. Beds shall be made daily and straightened as necessary.
H. Clean clothing and a neat appearance. Patients and residents shall be dressed during the day whenever possible.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
- History: 17 SR 1279
Minn. R. 4655.6500 Safety Program
Subpart 1. Written plan.
Every home shall have an organized safety program in accordance with a written plan and such shall be included in the orientation and in-service training programs of all employees and volunteers to assure safety to patients and residents at all times. In addition to fire safety, such precautions shall include the provision of safety features as outlined in parts 4660.6000 to 4660.7500.
Subp. 2. Safety equipment requirements.
All attached equipment shall be solidly anchored to avoid accidents.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4655.6600 Use of Restraints to Manage Difficult Behavior
Disturbed mental patients shall not be received or retained in a nursing home or boarding care home. If a patient or resident becomes suddenly disturbed or difficult behavior creates a problem of management, the person in charge of the home shall take temporary, emergency measures to protect such person and other persons in the home and the physician shall be called immediately. If a restraint is needed, this may be applied only upon the physician's written order. A restraint is any device which restricts the patient's normal movements. In instituting such temporary protective measures, a special attendant shall be placed on duty on the floor or in the section of the building in which such patient or resident is restrained. No form of restraint may be used or applied in such manner as to cause injury to the patient or resident. No locked restraints may be used. No door to a patient's or resident's room may be locked in a manner which will not permit immediate opening in case of emergency. A full record of the use of restraints or seclusion shall be maintained in the patient's or resident's medical record. If the patient or resident does not respond to the treatment prescribed within a period of two days, the person shall be transferred to suitable facilities.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
- History: 17 SR 1279
Minn. R. 4655.6700 Acute Illness, Serious Accident, or Death
In case of acute illness or serious accident, the home shall immediately notify the physician and the family or legal guardian. Apparent deaths shall be reported immediately to the attending physician.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.6800 [Repealed, 20 SR 303]
[Repealed, 20 SR 303]
Minn. R. 4655.6810 [Repealed, L 2001 1Sp9 art 5 s 41]
[Repealed, L 2001 1Sp9 art 5 s 41]
Minn. R. 4655.6820 [Repealed, L 2001 1Sp9 art 5 s 41]
[Repealed, L 2001 1Sp9 art 5 s 41]
Minn. R. 4655.6830 [Repealed, L 2001 1Sp9 art 5 s 41]
[Repealed, L 2001 1Sp9 art 5 s 41]
Minn. R. 4655.7000 Patient or Resident Units
Subpart 1. Requirements.
The following items in items A to J shall be provided for each patient or resident.
A. A comfortable bed at least 36 inches wide, good springs, and a clean, firm, comfortable mattress and mattress pad. At least one clean, comfortable pillow with extra pillows available to meet the patient's needs. Clean, lightweight blankets and bed linen in good condition and of the proper size shall be kept on hand for use at all times. Clean sheets and pillow cases shall be furnished at least once a week. Each bed shall have a washable bedspread. A moisture-proof mattress cover or rubber or plastic sheeting shall be provided for mattresses of all bed patients and for other beds as necessary. Rollaway type beds, cots, or folding beds shall not be used.
B. At least one comfortable chair.
C. A locker or closet within the room to allow clothes to be hung. In existing facilities, if a closet is used for two or more persons, there shall be a fixed partition for complete separation of clothing for each person. There shall be dresser drawer space provided for each patient or resident. Closets, lockers, or drawers which are provided with locks shall have a master key available in the administrator's office. See part 4660.3460.
D. A bedside table with a towel bar, a drawer to accommodate personal possessions, and a separate compartment for the storage of bedpans and urinals. (Not required in a boarding care home.)
E. Individual drinking glass, bath towel, hand towel, washcloth, and soap dish. Clean towels shall be provided as needed.
F. Cubicle curtains to afford privacy in all multibed rooms. Existing boarding care homes in converted dwellings may continue to use bed screens. Each window shall have shades or equivalent in good repair.
G. A device for signaling nurses and attendants which shall be kept in working order at all times.
H. A hand-washing facility with a mirror located in the room or convenient to the room for the use of patients, residents, and personnel. It is recommended that these be equipped with gooseneck spouts and wrist-action controls.
I. A bed light providing a minimum of 30 footcandle intensity conveniently located for reading or for doing handiwork in bed or in an adjacent chair.
J. All furnishings and equipment shall be maintained in a usable, safe, and sanitary condition. All rooms and beds shall be numbered. All beds shall be identified with the name of the patient or resident.
Subp. 2. Written policy for double beds.
The nursing home and boarding care home shall develop a written policy regarding the use of double beds.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4655.7100 Facilities for Emergency Care
First aid supplies shall be maintained in a place known to and readily available to all personnel responsible for the health or well-being of patients or residents.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.7200 Hand-Washing Facilities
Hand-washing facilities shall be readily available for physicians, nurses, and other personnel attending patients or residents. Single service towels shall be available at all times. Use of a common towel is prohibited.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.7300 Rooms
Subpart 1. Dayrooms.
Each dayroom shall be provided with reading lamps, tables, and chairs of satisfactory design for patients and residents.
Subp. 2. Dining rooms.
Furnishings shall be well-constructed and designed for patients and residents. Tables shall be of a type that can be used by wheelchair patients.
Subp. 3. Other areas.
All office spaces, nurses' and attendants' stations, treatment rooms, utility rooms, maintenance rooms, and other spaces or rooms not specifically mentioned elsewhere shall be appropriately furnished and equipped.
Subp. 4. Nurses' or attendants' station.
There shall be a well-lighted nurses' or attendants' station centrally located in the patient or resident area which shall contain sufficient space for recording and for the storage of charts and the equipment necessary for keeping records and orders current.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.7400 Storage
Subpart 1. Equipment and supplies in general.
Cabinets and other suitable space shall be provided and identified for the safe storage of equipment and supplies in a sanitary, convenient, and orderly manner. Supplies shall be identified.
Subp. 2. Sterile supplies.
Sterile supplies shall be marked with the latest date of sterilization and shall be stored apart from unsterile supplies.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.7500 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4655.7600 [Repealed, 20 SR 303]
[Repealed, 20 SR 303]
Minn. R. 4655.7700 [Repealed, 20 SR 303]
[Repealed, 20 SR 303]
Minn. R. 4655.7710 [Repealed, 20 SR 303]
[Repealed, 20 SR 303]
Minn. R. 4655.7720 [Repealed, 20 SR 303]
[Repealed, 20 SR 303]
Minn. R. 4655.7730 [Repealed, 20 SR 303]
[Repealed, 20 SR 303]
Minn. R. 4655.7740 [Repealed, 20 SR 303]
[Repealed, 20 SR 303]
Minn. R. 4655.7750 [Repealed, 20 SR 303]
[Repealed, 20 SR 303]
Minn. R. 4655.7760 [Repealed, 20 SR 303]
[Repealed, 20 SR 303]
Minn. R. 4655.7770 [Repealed, 20 SR 303]
[Repealed, 20 SR 303]
Minn. R. 4655.7780 [Repealed, 20 SR 303]
[Repealed, 20 SR 303]
Minn. R. 4655.7790 [Repealed, 20 SR 303]
[Repealed, 20 SR 303]
Minn. R. 4655.7810 Distribution of Medications
A system shall be developed in each boarding care home to assure that all medications are distributed safely and properly. All medications shall be distributed and taken exactly as ordered by the physician. Any medication errors or resident reactions shall be reported to the physician at once and an explanation made in the resident's personal care record.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.7820 Medicine Cabinet
Subpart 1. Medicine cabinet location and requirements.
A well-illuminated medicine cabinet shall be provided at each attendants' station, a central control point for the storage of records and medications. The medicine cabinet shall be equipped with separate cubicles which are plainly labeled, or provided with other physical separation for the storage of each resident's prescriptions.
Subp. 2. Poisons and medications for external use labeling and storage.
Poisons and medications intended for external use only shall be clearly so marked and shall be kept in a separate locked compartment.
Subp. 3. Refrigerated drugs.
Biologicals and other medications requiring refrigeration shall be kept in a specially locked, securely attached, and labeled, impervious container in a general use refrigerator.
Subp. 4. Storage with nondrug substances.
All substances, such as cleaning agents, bleaches, detergents, disinfectants, pesticides, paints, and flammable liquids shall be clearly labeled and stored separately from all drugs and foods.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.7830 Medication Containers
Subpart 1. Storage in labeled containers.
All medications shall be kept in their original container bearing the original label with legible information stating the prescription number, name of drug, strength and quantity of drug, expiration dates of all time-dated drugs, directions for use, resident's name, physician's name, date of original issue or in the case of a refill, the most recent date thereof, and name and address of the licensed pharmacy which issued the medications. It shall be the responsibility of the boarding care home to secure the prescription number and name of the medication if these are not on the label.
Subp. 2. Relabeling containers.
Any drug container having detached, excessively soiled, or damaged labels shall be returned to the issuing pharmacy for relabeling.
Subp. 3. Disposition of nonlabeled or improperly labeled drugs.
The contents of any drug container having no label or with an illegible label shall be destroyed immediately.
Subp. 4. Out of date medications.
Medications having a specific expiration date shall not be used after the date of expiration.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.7840 Record of Medications
All medications distributed to each resident shall be recorded on the resident's personal care record. This information shall include the name and quantity of the drug given and the time distributed and shall be initialed by the person distributing the drug. Special notations shall be made whenever medications are started or discontinued.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.7850 Disposition of Medications
Subpart 1. Discharged or transferred residents.
If authorized by the attending physician or the physician in charge, medications belonging to residents shall be given to them when discharged or transferred. This shall be recorded on the resident's personal care record.
Subp. 2. Destroying unused prescription drugs.
Unused portions of prescription drugs remaining in the boarding care home after the death or discharge of the resident for whom they were prescribed or any prescriptions discontinued permanently, shall be destroyed by the person in charge in the boarding care home by flushing them into the sewer system and removing and destroying the labels from the containers.
Subp. 3. Recording of disposition.
A notation of such destruction giving date, quantity, name of medication, and prescription number shall by recorded on the resident's personal care record. Such destruction shall be witnessed and the notation signed by both persons.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.7860 Administration of Medications by Unlicensed Personnel
Unlicensed nursing personnel who administer medications in a nursing home or a boarding care home certified as an intermediate care facility as defined in United States Code, title 42, section 1396d, must have completed a medication administration training program for unlicensed personnel in nursing homes which is offered through a Minnesota postsecondary educational institution. The nursing home or boarding care home shall keep written documentation verifying completion of the required course by all unlicensed nursing personnel administering medications.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.8000 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4655.8100 [Repealed, 20 SR 303]
[Repealed, 20 SR 303]
Minn. R. 4655.8300 Linen
Subpart 1. Application.
Subparts 2 to 6 apply to boarding homes only.
Subp. 2. Clean linen.
Clean linen shall be dried, ironed, except for noniron linen, and folded and shall be stored in enclosed, clean, designated locations at least eight inches above the floor. New linen shall be washed and ironed before use. During distribution for use, only the linen needed in an area or room shall be carried into that area or room. Enclosed linen carts are acceptable for linen storage. Linen storage rooms or closets shall be kept clean and used only for the storage of clean linen and clean supply items. Only clean trucks or containers shall be used for the storage and transport of clean linen.
Subp. 3. Soiled linen.
Soiled linen shall be collected in a cleanable hamper, container, or bag for removal to the soiled linen collection room or to the laundry. Hampers, containers, or bags shall be cleaned or washed regularly. Easily cleanable laundry trucks or containers for off-the-floor storage and sorting of soiled linen shall be provided.
Subp. 4. Laundering of linen.
Linen shall be washed in commercial-type washers. The water temperature inside the washers shall be at least 160 degrees Fahrenheit during the main washing and rinsing cycles for a total time of at least 30 minutes, excluding time for filling and draining.
Subp. 5. Outside linen service.
Linen processed in central or commercial laundries outside the facility shall be subject to the laundering standards of these rules; see part 4655.2200.
Subp. 6. Laundering of personal clothing.
Residents' personal clothing and other nonlinen items shall be laundered in accordance with appropriate washing procedures for the various fabrics and shall be ironed, mended, and labeled as necessary. Domestic-type washers and dryers are acceptable as well as outside washing and drycleaning services.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.8500 Dietary Service
Subpart 1. Dietary consultation requirements.
If the facility accepts or retains individuals in need of medically prescribed therapeutic diets, regularly scheduled dietary consultation shall be provided by a qualified dietitian or nutritionist at least four hours each month unless the dietary supervisor qualifies.
Subp. 2. Therapeutic diets.
All therapeutic diets shall be prepared as ordered in writing by the attending physician.
Subp. 3. Availability of diet manuals.
There shall be current diet manuals readily available in the kitchen.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.8510 Dietary Supervisor
The administrator shall designate a person trained or experienced in the planning and preparation of meals to be responsible for the dietary service. Other responsibilities of this individual shall include: participation in the selection of other dietary staff and in the formulation of food service personnel policies, orientation, training, and supervision of the dietary staff; and recommending the type and quantity of the food purchased.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.8520 Dietary Staff Requirements
Dietary staff:
A. The dietary staff shall be adequate in number to provide personnel on duty 12 or more hours per day. They shall be trained in the performance of their assigned duties. Work assignments and duty schedules shall be posted in the dietary department.
B. The staff shall be in good health, free from symptoms of communicable disease and from open, infected wounds.
C. All persons working in the dietary department shall maintain personal cleanliness, wear a clean uniform, and cover their hair with a hairnet or a cap for short hair, when on duty.
D. They shall wash their hands frequently, especially after using handkerchief or tissue, after handling soiled dishes, and after using toilet facilities and shall observe all other accepted hygienic practices in the prevention of contamination of food. The hand-washing procedure shall also apply to other staff on temporary assignment to the food service and in addition, uniforms shall be changed when soiled activities are involved.
E. Sanitary procedures and conditions shall be maintained in the operation of the dietary department at all times.
F. Smoking or other use of tobacco is not allowed in the food preparation or in the dishwashing area. The kitchen shall not be used for eating meals or for coffee breaks.
G. It is recommended that the department's food handling guide entitled "Information for Food Service Personnel in Hospitals and Related Care Facilities" be made readily available for reference by all food service personnel.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.8600 Food Handling
Raw meat products shall be kept separated from cooked or prepared foods. Utensils or equipment and other food contact surfaces used in preparation of such products shall be thoroughly washed before being used for other foods; the person handling the raw products shall wash his or her hands thoroughly before touching other foods or utensils.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
- History: 17 SR 1279
Minn. R. 4655.8610 Adequacy of Meals
Subpart 1. Recommended dietary allowances.
The food and nutritional needs of patients and residents shall be met in accordance with physicians' orders and shall, to the extent medically possible, meet the dietary allowances, as adjusted for age, sex, and activity as stated in the Recommended Dietary Allowances, National Academy of Sciences, 7th Edition, 1968 which lists the daily dietary allowances in nutrients. The daily food groups and quantities for each patient or resident that would meet these recommended daily dietary allowances shall include:
Subp. 2. Meat or protein food.
Two or more servings of protein food of good quality. Consider each of the following as one serving:
A. three ounces cooked (equivalent to four ounces raw) of any meat without bone, such as beef, pork, lamb, poultry, or variety meats such as liver, heart, and kidney;
B. two slices prepared luncheon meat;
C. two eggs;
D. three ounces of fresh or frozen cooked fish or shellfish or one-half cup canned fish; or
E. one cup cooked navy beans.
Subp. 3. Milk.
Two eight-ounce glasses of milk are required for each patient or resident. A portion of this amount may be served in a cooked form, such as cream soups, desserts, etc. Cheese and ice cream may replace part of the milk. The amount of either it will take to replace a given amount of milk is figured on the basis of calcium content. (One ounce or one slice of cheese equals one-half cup milk; one-half cup cottage cheese equals one-third cup milk; and one-half cup ice cream equals one-fourth cup milk.)
Subp. 4. Vegetables.
Three servings of vegetables (one-half cup each), one of which is deep green or yellow.
Subp. 5. Fruits.
Two or more servings. One shall be citrus, such as orange, grapefruit, or tomato. A serving of fruit is defined as:
A. one medium size orange or four ounces of juice;
B. one-half grapefruit or four ounces of juice; or
C. one large tomato or eight ounces of juice.
Subp. 6. Cereal and bread.
Three to four servings preferably whole grain or enriched. (One slice of bread equals one serving: one-half cup of cereal equals one serving.)
Subp. 7. Butter or margarine.
Some of either each day as a seasoning and to make food more palatable.
Subp. 8. Other foods.
Other foods to round out meals plus snacks shall be offered to satisfy individual appetites and provide additional calories.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.8620 Frequency of Meals
Subpart 1. Time of meals.
At least three meals shall be served at regular times during each 24 hour period with a maximum of 14 hours between a substantial evening meal and breakfast.
Subp. 2. Preference for dining together.
Meals shall be served in the dining room and bedroom trays kept to a minimum. Patients or residents shall be encouraged to eat together.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.8630 Quality and Variety
Subpart 1. Diet.
The diet shall be palatable, of adequate quantity and variety, prepared by methods which conserve nutritional value, and attractively served. It is recommended that dishes be used rather than compartment trays. Hot foods shall be served hot; cold foods shall be served cold. Foods shall be served in a form to meet individual needs.
Subp. 2. Menu planning.
All menus including special diets shall be planned, dated, and posted for a minimum of one week in advance. Notations shall be made of any substitutions in the meals actually served and these shall be of equal nutritional value. Records of menus and of foods purchased shall be filed for six months. A reasonable variety of foods shall be provided. A file of tested recipes adjusted to a yield appropriate for the size of the home shall be maintained.
Subp. 3. Food habits and customs.
There shall be reasonable adjustment to the food habits, customs, likes, and appetites of individual patients and residents.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.8640 Returned Food
Returned portions of food and beverages from individual servings shall not be reused unless such food or beverage is served in a sealed wrapper or container which has not been unwrapped or opened.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.8650 Milk
All fluid milk shall be procured from suppliers licensed by the commissioner of agriculture. The milk shall be dispensed directly from the original container in which it was packaged, shipped, and received. Milk served for drinking shall be served in the individual original container or shall be poured directly from the original individual container into the drinking glass at meal time or be dispensed from an approved bulk dispenser. Dry milk and milk products may be reconstituted in the dietary department if used for cooking only.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.8660 Ice
Ice shall be stored and handled in a sanitary manner. Stored ice shall be kept in an enclosed container. If an ice scoop is used, the scoop shall be stored in a separate compartment to prevent the handle from contact with the ice.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.8670 Food Supplies
Subpart 1. Food.
All food shall be from sources approved or considered satisfactory by the commissioner of health, and shall be clean, wholesome, free from spoilage, free from adulteration and misbranding, and safe for human consumption. No hermetically sealed, nonacid, or low-acid food which has been processed in a place other than a commercial food-processing establishment shall be used.
Subp. 2. Food containers.
All food or food products prepared or in bulk shall be stored in approved seamless covered containers after opening of the original container. Dry milk and milk products after opening shall be stored in seamless, all tight containers.
Subp. 3. Storage of nonperishable food.
Nonperishable food and single-service articles shall be stored off the floor on washable shelving in a ventilated room. It shall be protected from dust, flies, rodents, vermin, overhead leakage, and other sources of contamination, and shall be placed away from areas with excessive heat.
Subp. 4. Storage of perishable food.
All perishable food shall be stored off the floor on washable, corrosion-resistant shelving under sanitary conditions, and at temperatures which will protect against spoilage. Meat and dairy products shall be stored at 40 degrees Fahrenheit or below, and fruit and vegetables at 50 degrees Fahrenheit or below. When stored together, the lower temperature shall apply. Temperatures shall be monitored by an accurate thermometer.
Subp. 5. Prohibited storage.
The storage of detergents, cleaners, pesticides, and other nonfood items, including employees' personal items, is prohibited in food storage areas.
Subp. 6. Vending machines.
Storage and dispensing of food and beverages in vending machines shall be in accordance with parts 4635.0100 and 4635.0300 to 4635.1000, November, 1966.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
- History: L 1977 c 305 s 39
Minn. R. 4655.8680 Transport of Food
Food shall be covered during transport through nondietary areas, but need not be covered when served in a contiguous dining area. The food service system shall be capable of keeping food hot or cold until served. A dumbwaiter or conveyor, which cab or carrier is used for the transport of soiled linen or soiled dishes, shall not be used for the transport of food.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.8690 Floor Cleaning and Trash
Subpart 1. Cleaning during food preparation.
There shall be no major sweeping or mopping in the kitchen during the time of food preparation.
Subp. 2. Nondietary activity trash, restrictions.
Trash or refuse unrelated to dietary activities shall not be transported through food preparation areas or food storage areas for disposal or incineration.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.8700 Dishes and Utensils Requirements
Dishes and utensils:
A. Only dishes and utensils with the original smooth finishes shall be used. Cracked, chipped, scratched, or permanently stained dishes, cups, or glasses or damaged, corroded, or open seamed utensils or cookware shall not be used. All tableware and cooking utensils shall be kept in enclosed storage compartments.
B. Accessories for food appliances shall be provided with protective covers unless in enclosed storage.
C. Enclosed lowerators for dishes are acceptable.
D. Machine washed silverware (flatware) shall be washed in approved perforated containers, and stored with the handles up in the same containers.
E. Dishes or plate settings shall not be set out on the tables more than two hours before serving time.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.8800 Dishwashing
The dishwashing operation shall provide proper separation in the handling of soiled and clean dishes and utensils, and shall conform with either of the following procedures for washing, rinsing, sanitizing, and drying.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.8810 Hot Water Sanitizing
The dishwashing machine shall be operated in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions which shall be posted nearby; see part 4660.8000, subpart 9. The flow pressure shall be maintained between 15 and 25 pounds per square inch (psi) at the dishwasher. The temperatures of the water shall be maintained at 140 to 160 degrees Fahrenheit for the washing cycle, and at 170 degrees Fahrenheit for the rinsing and sanitizing cycle, both temperatures measured at tray level. If the same person handles both soiled and clean dishes, the person shall wash his or her hands between operations. Dishes and utensils shall be air dried.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
- History: 17 SR 1279
Minn. R. 4655.8820 Chemical Sanitizing
Subpart 1. Dishwashing equipment.
A. Dishwashing machines using chemicals for sanitizing shall bear the seal indicating that the machine meets the standards of the National Sanitation Foundation.
B. Each dishwashing machine shall be equipped with a visual or audible signaling device which indicates when the chemical sanitizing supply is empty. The signaling device shall be maintained in an operating condition.
C. The clean dish counter shall provide space for at least four racks of clean and sanitized dishes and utensils.
Subp. 2. Dishwashing operation.
A. The dishwashing machines shall be operated in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions which shall be posted nearby.
B. The temperature of the wash water shall not be less than 140 degrees Fahrenheit (60 degrees Celsius).
C. Chemicals added for sanitation purposes shall be automatically dispensed in accordance with the manufacturer's specifications for time and concentration.
D. The chemical sanitizing rinse water temperature shall not be less than 75 degrees Fahrenheit (24 degrees Celsius) nor less than the temperature specified by the machine manufacturer as indicated on the NSF data plate.
E. All chemical sanitizers used in the dishwashing machines shall bear labeling indicating that the chemical sanitizers are registered by the Environmental Protection Agency and shall contain specific instructions for use.
F. If the same person handles both soiled and clean dishes, the person shall wash his or her hands between operations. Dishes and utensils shall be air dried.
G. The dishwashing machine shall be thoroughly cleaned at least once a day in accordance with the manufacturer's recommendation.
Subp. 3. Test kit to measure concentration of sanitizing solution.
A. A test kit or other device that accurately measures the parts per million concentration of the sanitizing solution shall be available and used in accordance with this section.
B. The concentration level shall be tested in accordance with the manufacturer's instruction each day the machine is used.
C. The results of the testing shall be recorded in a written log which specifies the result of the test and shall be signed by the individual making the test. The log shall include the name of the chemical used and the manufacturer's recommended concentration of the chemical. This written log shall be maintained for the previous three months.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
- History: 17 SR 1279
Minn. R. 4655.8830 Hand Washing of Pots and Pans
A three-compartment scullery sink, see part 4660.4910, subpart 4, shall be utilized as follows for a complete washing cycle by hand of pots and pans. The first compartment is for soaking and washing, the second compartment is for rinsing, and the third compartment for sanitizing. Sanitizing is accomplished by complete immersion for at least two minutes in 170 degree Fahrenheit water. A unit heater capable of maintaining the water in the sanitizing compartment at 170 degrees Fahrenheit shall be provided, including a long-handled wire basket for the removal of the sanitized items. The temperature shall be monitored with a thermometer. If the mechanical dishwasher is used for sanitizing of pots and pans, a sanitizing compartment is not required. Only air drying is permitted.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.9000 Housekeeping
Subpart 1. General requirements.
The entire facility, including walls, floors, ceilings, registers, fixtures, equipment, and furnishings shall be maintained in a clean, sanitary, and orderly condition throughout and shall be kept free from offensive odors, dust, rubbish, and safety hazards. Accumulation of combustible material or waste in unassigned areas is prohibited.
Subp. 2. Development of cleaning program.
A program shall be established for routine housekeeping. Besides the daily duties, the program shall include policies and procedures for any special cleaning necessary.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.9010 Solid Waste Disposal
Subpart 1. General requirements.
Solid wastes, including garbage, rubbish, and other refuse shall be collected, stored, and disposed of in a manner that will not create a nuisance or fire hazard, nor provide a breeding place for insects or rodents.
Subp. 2. Container requirements.
All containers for the collection and storage of garbage and refuse shall be of seamless watertight construction with tightly fitting covers, and be kept in a sanitary condition. Containers shall be stored in a safe location pending removal of contents, and shall be removed from the building and cleaned at frequent intervals.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.9020 Housekeeping Supplies
Subpart 1. Janitor's closet.
The janitor's closets and all other areas used by the housekeeping personnel shall be kept in a clean, sanitary, and orderly condition.
Subp. 2. Mops and buckets cleaning.
Mop buckets shall be emptied after each cleaning, and mopheads shall be washed after each use and replaced as often as necessary.
Subp. 3. Storage of housekeeping supplies.
Housekeeping supplies shall be stored at least eight inches off the floor to facilitate cleaning.
Subp. 4. Labeling of housekeeping supplies.
Disinfectants, pesticides, and other toxic substances shall be clearly identified and stored in a locked enclosure or cabinet.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.9030 Deodorizers
Deodorizers or aerosols shall not be used as a substitute for acceptable ventilation, nor shall they be used to mask odors resulting from ineffective housekeeping or sanitation. Ozone generators are not permitted.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.9040 Insect and Rodent Control
Any condition on the site or in the facility conducive to the harborage or breeding of insects, rodents, or other vermin shall be eliminated immediately. A continuous pest control program shall be maintained by qualified personnel and all chemical substances of a poisonous nature used for pest control shall be identified and stored in a locked space.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.9050 Shelving
All shelving shall be provided with a surface finish which is smooth and easily cleaned.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.9060 Screens
Outside openings such as doors, operable windows, or louvers shall be protected with screens to prevent the entrance of flies, mosquitoes, and other insects with screening material no larger than 16 mesh per square inch. Screen doors shall open in the direction of exit traffic and be equipped with self-closing devices. Screen doors are not required on main entrances to facilities, unless such doors are kept open. Outside open drain outlets shall be screened to prevent the entrance of rodents.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4655.9070 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4655.9200 $50 Penalty for Noncompliance
A $50 penalty assessment will be issued under the provisions of Minnesota Statutes, section 144.653, subdivision 6, for noncompliance with correction orders relating to the parts of these rules listed in items A to K:
A. parts 4655.0300, subparts 4 and 5; 4655.0310; 4655.0600; 4655.0700; and 4655.0800;
B. parts 4655.1200, subpart 1, item E; 4655.1700; and 4655.1400, items A, B, subitems (1) and (6), and D;
C. parts 4655.1910, subparts 1 to 4; 4655.2200; and 4655.2100;
D. parts 4655.2700 and 4655.2800;
E. parts 4655.3600; 4655.3700; 4655.3800; 4655.4200; and 4655.4400;
F. part 4655.5100;
G. parts 4655.7000, subpart 1, items B, C, D, and I; and 4655.7300, subparts 1 and 2;
H. part 4655.8300, subpart 6;
I. part 4655.8630, subpart 3;
J. parts 4655.9030 and 4655.9050; and
K. part 4660.4500.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.653; 144A.04; 144A.08; 144A.10; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303; 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4655.9210 $250 Penalty for Noncompliance
A $250 penalty assessment will be issued under the provisions of Minnesota Statutes, section 144.653, subdivision 6, for noncompliance with correction orders relating to all other parts of these rules not specifically enumerated in part 4655.9200 or 4655.9250.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.653; 144A.04; 144A.08; 144A.10
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4655.9250 Penalties for Boarding Care Homes
Subpart 1. Application.
Subparts 2 and 3 apply to boarding care homes only.
Subp. 2. $50 penalty assessment.
A $50 penalty assessment will be issued to a boarding care home under the provisions of Minnesota Statutes, section 144.653, subdivision 6 for noncompliance with correction orders relating to the following rules:
A. part 4638.0200, subpart 2;
B. part 4655.3600;
C. part 4655.4100;
D. part 4655.4110, subpart 2;
E. part 4655.4120, subpart 3;
F. part 4655.4150;
G. part 4655.4170;
H. part 4655.7000, subpart 2; and
I. part 4655.8820, subpart 1, item C.
Subp. 3. $250 penalty assessment.
A $250 penalty assessment will be issued to a boarding care home under the provisions of Minnesota Statutes, section 144.653, subdivision 6, for noncompliance with correction orders relating to part 4638.0200, subpart 3.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.653
Minn. R. 4655.9300 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4655.9320 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4655.9321 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4655.9322 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4655.9323 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4655.9324 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4655.9325 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4655.9326 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4655.9327 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4655.9328 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4655.9329 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4655.9330 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4655.9331 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4655.9332 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4655.9333 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4655.9334 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4655.9335 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4655.9336 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4655.9337 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4655.9338 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4655.9339 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4655.9340 Department of Health Statutes; Fines
Penalty assessments for violations of Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651 are as follows:
A. Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 4, $100;
B. Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 5, $250;
C. Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 6, $250;
D. Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 7, $100;
E. Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 8, $100;
F. Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 9, $250;
G. Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 10, $250;
H. Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 11, $100;
I. Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 12, $250;
J. Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 13, $500;
K. Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 14, $500;
L. Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 15, $250;
M. Except as noted in item N, a $100 penalty assessment shall be issued for a violation of Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 16;
N. A $250 penalty assessment shall be issued for a violation of that portion of Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 16, which states: "Patients and residents shall be assured confidential treatment of their personal and medical records, and may approve or refuse their release to any individual outside the facility.";
O. Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 17, $100;
P. Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 18, $250;
Q. Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 19, $250;
R. Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 20, $250;
S. A $250 penalty assessment shall be issued for a violation of the portions of Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 21, which state: "Patients and residents may associate and communicate privately with persons of their choice and enter and, except as provided by the Minnesota Commitment Act, leave the facility as they choose.... Personal mail shall be sent without interference and received unopened unless medically or programmatically contraindicated and documented by the physician in the medical record.";
T. A $250 penalty assessment shall be issued for a violation of the portions of Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 21, which state: "Patients and residents shall have access, at their expense, to writing instruments, stationery, and postage.... There shall be access to a telephone where patients and residents can make and receive calls as well as speak privately. Facilities which are unable to provide a private area shall make reasonable arrangements to accommodate the privacy of patients' or residents' calls.";
U. Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 22, $250;
V. Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 23, $250;
W. Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 24, $100;
X. Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 25, $250;
Y. Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 26, $250;
Z. Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 27, $250;
AA. Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 28, $250;
BB. Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 29, $250;
CC. Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 30, $250; and
DD. Minnesota Statutes, section 144.652, subdivision 1, $100.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.10
- History: 8 SR 1524; 16 SR 484
Minn. R. 4655.9341 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4655.9342 Reporting Maltreatment of Vulnerable Adults; Fines
Penalty assessments for violations of Minnesota Statutes, section 626.557 are as follows:
A. Minnesota Statutes, section 626.557, subdivision 3, $250;
B. Minnesota Statutes, section 626.557, subdivision 3a, $100;
C. Minnesota Statutes, section 626.557, subdivision 4, $100;
D. Minnesota Statutes, section 626.557, subdivision 4a, $100;
E. Minnesota Statutes, section 626.557, subdivision 14, $100; and
F. Minnesota Statutes, section 626.557, subdivision 17, $250.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 144A.10
- History: 8 SR 1524; 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4655.9400 [Repealed, 20 SR 303]
[Repealed, 20 SR 303]
Minn. R. 4655.9500 [Repealed, 20 SR 303]
[Repealed, 20 SR 303]
Minn. R. 4655.9600 [Repealed, 20 SR 303]
[Repealed, 20 SR 303]
Minn. R. 4655.9700 [Repealed, 20 SR 303]
[Repealed, 20 SR 303]
Minn. R. 4655.9800 [Repealed, 20 SR 303]
[Repealed, 20 SR 303]
Minn. R. 4655.9900 [Repealed, 20 SR 303]
[Repealed, 20 SR 303]
Chapter 4656 MEDICAL ASSISTANCE PROGRAM
Minn. R. 4656.0010 Scope
Parts 4656.0010 to 4656.0090 establish procedures for the assessment of the appropriateness and quality of care and services furnished to medical assistance sponsored residents of facilities certified for participation in the medical assistance program under United States Code, title 42, sections 1396 to 1396p, as amended through December 31, 1984. Parts 4656.0010 to 4656.0090 also establish procedures for the assessment of private paying residents in certified nursing homes and boarding care homes, under Minnesota Statutes, section 144.0721, and for the classification of medicaid sponsored and private paying residents in certified nursing homes and boarding care homes, under Minnesota Statutes, section 144.0722. Procedures for determining the operating cost payment rates for all certified nursing homes and boarding care homes are found in rules of the Department of Human Services, parts 9549.0051 to 9549.0059.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.072; 256B.502
- History: 12 SR 239; L 2014 c 192 art 4 s 2; L 2014 c 262 art 5 s 6
Minn. R. 4656.0020 Definitions
Subpart 1. Applicability.
As used in parts 4656.0010 to 4656.0090, the following terms have the meanings given them.
Subp. 2. Assessment form.
"Assessment form" means the form developed by the department's quality assurance and review program and used for performing resident assessments.
Subp. 3. Certified.
"Certified" means authorized to participate in the medical assistance program under United States Code, title 42, sections 1396 to 1396p as amended through July 18, 1984. Before certification, facilities must be licensed by the state under parts 4655.0090 to 4655.9900, and must also meet any additional requirements established by certification standards under the Social Security Act.
Subp. 4. Department.
"Department" means the Minnesota Department of Health.
Subp. 5. Guideline for Isolation Precautions in Hospitals.
"Guideline for Isolation Precautions in Hospitals" means the six guidelines written by Julia S. Garner, RN, and Bryan P. Simmons, MD, reprinted by the United States Department of Health and Human Services, Public Health Service, Center for Disease Control, from Infection Control July/August 1983 (Special Supplement); 4 (suppl): pages 245 to 325. The guidelines are incorporated by reference. They are available at the State Law Library, 25 Rev. Dr. Martin Luther King Jr. Blvd., Saint Paul, MN 55155. This material is not subject to frequent change.
Subp. 6. Medical plan of care.
"Medical plan of care" means documentation signed by the resident's physician which includes the resident's primary diagnoses, secondary diagnoses, orders for treatments and medications, rehabilitation potential, rehabilitation procedures if ordered, clinical monitoring procedures, and discharge potential.
Subp. 7. Private paying resident.
"Private paying resident" means a nursing home or boarding care home resident who is not a medical assistance recipient.
Subp. 8. Quality assurance and review or QA&R.
"Quality assurance and review" or "QA&R" means the program established under Minnesota Statutes, section 144.0721.
Subp. 9. Resident.
"Resident" means an individual residing in a facility certified for participation in the medical assistance program under United States Code, title 42, sections 1396 to 1396p as amended through July 18, 1984, unless otherwise provided in parts 4656.0010 to 4656.0090.
Subp. 10. Resident class.
"Resident class" means each of the 11 categories established in part 9549.0058.
Subp. 11. Resident plan of care.
"Resident plan of care" for residents of nursing facilities means the comprehensive care plan as set forth in Code of Federal Regulations, title 42, section 483.20, paragraph (d), as amended through October 1, 1992.
Subp. 12. Resident record.
"Resident record" means the entire record of a resident compiled by the nursing home or boarding care home. The resident record must include the following:
A. the admission record;
B. the medical plan of care;
C. the resident plan of care;
D. documentation from services providing care to the resident;
E. reports of any diagnostic testing, consultation, and other services;
F. a copy of any transfer data provided to another health care facility; and
G. a discharge summary.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.072; 256B.502
- History: 12 SR 239; 18 SR 2584; L 2014 c 192 art 4 s 2
Minn. R. 4656.0030 Annual Resident Assessment
Subpart 1. Inspection of care requirements.
The department shall annually assess the appropriateness and quality of care and services provided to medical assistance sponsored residents in every certified facility, and to private paying residents in certified nursing homes and boarding care homes. Assessments must be conducted in accordance with the inspection of care requirements established by Code of Federal Regulations, title 42, sections 456.600 to 456.614. However, provisions relating to recommendations for changes in the level of care provided shall not apply to private paying residents.
Subp. 2. Assessment process.
A registered nurse shall complete an assessment form for each resident at the time of the inspection undertaken pursuant to subpart 1. The assessment form shall be completed in accordance with procedures established in the Inspection of Care Instruction Manual with Procedures for Completing Case Mix Requests for Classification published by the department. Part IV C. and D. of the July 1987 version of the manual are incorporated by reference. This manual is available at the State Law Library, 25 Rev. Dr. Martin Luther King Jr. Blvd., Saint Paul, Minnesota 55155. This material is not subject to frequent change. The completed assessment form must reflect the resident's needs at the time of the assessment. The assessment process includes observation of the resident, review of the medical record, and when necessary, staff interviews.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.072; 256B.502
- History: 12 SR 239
Minn. R. 4656.0040 Classification of Assessments
Within 15 working days of receiving assessment documents submitted under part 4656.0030, the department shall classify each resident of a certified nursing home or boarding care home into one of the resident classes prescribed by part 9549.0058, subparts 1 and 2, and mail a written notice of the classification to the resident and to the facility. The written notice must specify that the resident or the resident's authorized representative and the facility have the right to review the department's documents supporting the classification and to request a reconsideration of the classification. This notice must also include the address and telephone number of the area nursing home ombudsman.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.072; 256B.502
- History: 12 SR 239
Minn. R. 4656.0050 Review and Classification of Facility and Preadmission Screening Assessments
Subpart 1. Assessment instructions.
Assessment forms which are completed in accordance with part 9549.0059 must be completed by using the procedures established in the Facility Manual for Completing Case Mix Requests for Classification published by the Minnesota Department of Health. Part IV C. of the July 1987 version of the manual are incorporated by reference. This manual is available at the State Law Library, 25 Rev. Dr. Martin Luther King Jr. Blvd., Saint Paul, Minnesota 55155. This material is not subject to frequent change.
Subp. 2. Classification or notification of incomplete assessments.
Within 15 working days of receiving a request for classification submitted under part 9549.0059, the department shall classify the resident into one of the resident classes established under part 9549.0058 or notify the individual completing the assessment or the facility furnishing the documentation of the need to submit additional information necessary for determining the classification.
Subp. 3. Requests requiring additional information.
When additional information requested under subpart 2 has been submitted and the department has determined that the request for classification is complete and accurate, the department shall classify the resident into one of the resident classes established under part 9549.0058 and mail a written notice of the classification to the resident and to the resident's facility within 15 working days.
Subp. 4. Classification notice.
Classification notices provided under this part must include the resident's classification, as well as a statement which informs the resident, the resident's authorized representative, and the facility of the right to review the department's documents supporting the classification and to request a reconsideration of the classification. This notice must also include the address and telephone number of the area nursing home ombudsman.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.072; 256B.502
- History: 12 SR 239
Minn. R. 4656.0060 Classification Notices; Facility Duty
Within three working days of receipt of the notice, the facility must provide the resident, the person responsible for the resident's payment, or another person designated by the resident with every classification notice mailed to the facility by the department under parts 4656.0040, 4656.0050, and 4656.0080. If the resident's classification has changed, the facility must include the current rate for the new classification with the classification letter. When the private paying resident is not responsible for payment, the classification letter must be sent to the person who is responsible for payment or to the person designated by the resident.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.072; 256B.502
- History: 12 SR 239
Minn. R. 4656.0070 Resident Classification; Reconsideration
Subpart 1. Reconsideration permitted.
The facility, the resident, or the resident's authorized representative may request that the department reconsider the classification.
Subp. 2. Request for reconsideration.
A reconsideration request must be submitted in accordance with the provisions of Minnesota Statutes, section 144.0722, subdivisions 3, 3a, and 3b.
Subp. 3. Review of requests and notification.
The department shall review the requests for reconsideration, affirm or modify the resident's classification, and notify the resident and the facility by letter of the classification within 20 working days.
Subp. 4. Status of initial classification.
The resident classification established by the department must be the classification that applies to the resident while the request for reconsideration is pending.
Subp. 5. Additional information.
The department reserves the right to request additional documentation regarding a reconsideration necessary to make an accurate reconsideration determination.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.072; 256B.502
- History: 12 SR 239
Minn. R. 4656.0080 Audits of Assessments of Nursing Home Residents
Subpart 1. Audit types.
The department shall audit the accuracy of resident assessments performed under parts 9549.0051 to 9549.0059 through desk audits and on-site review of residents and their records. The department shall reclassify a resident it determines to have been incorrectly classified.
Subp. 2. Unannounced audits.
The department is authorized to conduct on-site audits on an unannounced basis.
Subp. 3. Access to records.
Facilities shall grant the department access during regular business hours, to examine the medical records relating to the resident assessments selected for audit under this part. For the purpose of clarifying or substantiating these records, the department may also speak to facility staff and physically observe the resident.
Subp. 4. Documentation time frame.
The department shall consider the following documentation, as relevant to the audit process:
A. documentation recorded in the resident record up to four days after the date the resident returns from the hospital, but only as the documentation relates to the resident's condition at the time the resident is assessed under part 9549.0059, subpart 4, item A;
B. documentation recorded in the resident record up to nine days after the date the resident is admitted to the nursing home, but only as the documentation relates to the resident's condition at the time the resident is assessed under part 9549.0059, subpart 1; and
C. documentation recorded in the resident record up to the time the resident is assessed under parts 9549.0059, subpart 2 or subpart 4, item B and 4656.0030.
Subp. 5. Routine audits procedures.
Facilities will be routinely audited at least once per calendar year in accordance with the following procedures:
A. The department shall select for audit either ten percent or ten, whichever is greater, of the assessments submitted in accordance with part 9549.0059, subpart 2, or ten percent or ten, whichever is greater, of the assessments submitted during the previous four months in accordance with part 9549.0059, subparts 1 and 4.
B. If more than 20 percent of the assessments audited under item A contain errors that could result in a change of classification, the auditors shall remain on-site and audit a second sample equal in size and selected from the same types of assessments as in item A.
C. If more than 35 percent of the assessments audited under items A and B contain errors that could result in a change of classification, the facility may be subject to an additional audit of up to 100 percent of the assessments. The decision of whether or not to schedule a 100 percent audit shall be made by the program manager of the Quality Assurance and Review Section and based upon a review of the case mix index, the remaining classifications not audited, a determination of the effect of the unaudited classifications on the case mix index, and staff availability.
Subp. 6. Special audits.
The department may conduct special audits if it determines that circumstances exist that could alter or affect the validity of case mix classifications of residents. Examples of circumstances include the following: frequent changes in the administration or management of the facility; an unusually high percentage of residents in a specific case mix classification; a high frequency in the number of reconsideration requests received from a facility; frequent adjustments of case mix classifications as the result of reconsiderations or audits; a criminal indictment alleging provider fraud; or other similar factors that relate to a facility's ability to conduct accurate assessments.
Subp. 7. Notice to facility.
No exit interview will be conducted at the facility to discuss the preliminary findings of the department. Within 15 working days of completing the audit process, the department shall mail the written results of the audit to the facility, along with a written notice to the resident and to the facility which contains the resident's classification and a statement informing the resident, the resident's authorized representative, and the facility of their right to review the department's documents supporting the classification and to request a reconsideration of the classification. This notice must also include the address and telephone number of the area nursing home ombudsman.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.072; 256B.502
- History: 12 SR 239; 18 SR 2584; L 2014 c 262 art 5 s 6
Minn. R. 4656.0090 Death, Discharge, and Change of Payment Source Information
Every quarter, certified facilities shall provide updated information to the department relating to the deaths, discharges, and changes in payment source when the resident payment goes from private pay to medicaid sponsored that occurred within the facility the previous quarter. Facilities may elect to report payment source changes from private pay to Medicaid sponsored on either a monthly or quarterly basis. This information must be provided on forms developed by the department.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.072; 256B.502
- History: 12 SR 239; 18 SR 2584
Chapter 4658 NURSING HOMES
Minn. R. 4658.0010 Definitions
Subpart 1. Scope.
The terms used in parts 4658.0010 to 4658.5590 have the meanings given them in this part.
Subp. 1a. Addition of new resident services.
"Addition of new resident services" means the commencement of a resident service, such as physical or occupational therapy, that is not being provided for the residents as of November 12, 1996.
Subp. 1b. Changes in existing resident services.
"Changes in existing resident services" means the conversion of existing facility space used for resident services from one function to another function.
Subp. 2. Convalescent and nursing care (C&NC) unit.
"Convalescent and nursing care (C&NC) unit" means a nursing home unit operated in conjunction with a hospital where there is a direct physical connection between the unit and the hospital which permits the movement of the residents and the provision of services without going outside the building or buildings involved. The units are subject to this chapter.
Subp. 3. Department.
"Department" means the Minnesota Department of Health.
Subp. 4. Existing facility.
"Existing facility" means a licensed nursing home or nursing home space that was in place before November 13, 1995. All existing facilities will be deemed to be in substantial compliance with the physical plant requirements for new construction, except as noted in this chapter. Existing facilities must, at a minimum, maintain compliance with the rules applicable at the time of their construction.
Subp. 4a. Food service equipment.
"Food service equipment" means all machinery, appliances, equipment, or supplies which are used in the storage, preparation, or serving of food as part of the nursing home's food service program.
Subp. 4b. Food storage equipment.
"Food storage equipment" means food service equipment that is used in the cold and dry storage of food and supplies as part of the nursing home's food service program.
Subp. 5. Licensee.
"Licensee" means the person or governing body to whom the license is issued. The licensee is responsible for compliance with this chapter.
Subp. 5a. New construction.
"New construction" means any addition to, or replacement of, a nursing home after November 12, 1996, that results in new facility space for the operation of the nursing home. The term new construction as used in this chapter includes the erection of new facility space, addition to existing facility space, and any existing facility space converted in order to be licensed under this chapter.
Subp. 6. Nurse.
"Nurse" means a registered nurse or a licensed practical nurse licensed by the Minnesota Board of Nursing, or exempt from licensure and practicing in accordance with Minnesota Statutes, sections 148.171 to 148.285.
Subp. 7. Nurse practitioner.
"Nurse practitioner" means a registered nurse who has graduated from a program of study designed to prepare a registered nurse for advanced practice as a nurse practitioner and who is certified through a national professional nursing organization listed in part 6330.0350.
Subp. 7a. Nursing area.
"Nursing area" means an area within the nursing home that is served by a single nurses' station.
Subp. 8. Nursing assistant.
"Nursing assistant" means a nursing home employee who is assigned by the director of nursing services to provide or assist in the provision of nursing or nursing-related services under the supervision of a registered nurse. Nursing assistant includes nursing assistants employed by nursing pool companies but does not include a licensed health professional.
Subp. 9. Nursing care.
"Nursing care" has the meaning given it in Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.01, subdivision 6.
Subp. 10. Nursing home.
"Nursing home" has the meaning given it in Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.01, subdivision 5.
Subp. 11. Nursing personnel.
"Nursing personnel" means registered nurses, licensed practical nurses, and nursing assistants.
Subp. 12. Physician.
"Physician" means a person licensed by the Minnesota Board of Medical Practice, or exempt from licensure, and practicing in accordance with Minnesota Statutes, chapter 147.
Subp. 13. Physician designee.
"Physician designee" means a nurse practitioner or physician assistant who has been authorized in writing by the physician to perform medical functions.
Subp. 13a. Redecoration.
"Redecoration" means the repainting of walls or ceilings, or the covering or recovering of walls, ceilings, or floors with suitable interior finishing materials.
Subp. 13b. Remodel.
"Remodel" means reconstruction of existing facility space, including floors, walls, and ceilings. Remodel includes reconstruction work necessary to change the function of the facility space or to facilitate a change in operating capability or physical composition of existing equipment, fixtures, or appurtenances.
Subp. 13c. Replace-in-kind.
"Replace-in-kind" means the removal of mechanical or electrical equipment or construction materials from facility space and subsequent installation of new or used equipment or construction materials with similar operating capability, function, and physical composition.
Subp. 14. Resident.
"Resident" means an individual cared for in a nursing home.
Subp. 14a. Room.
"Room" means a space within the facility that has access to the corridor and is totally enclosed with permanently constructed full height walls.
Subp. 14b. Shelf.
"Shelf" means a horizontal surface manufactured of noncorrosive, cleanable materials.
Subp. 15. Time periods.
"Time periods" means the minimum and maximum time allowed to complete an activity. For purposes of this chapter, time periods means:
A. "Weekly" means a time period which requires an activity to be completed at least 52 times a year within intervals ranging from six to eight days.
B. "Monthly" means a time period which requires an activity to be completed at least 12 times a year within intervals ranging from 27 to 33 days.
C. "Quarterly" means a time period which requires an activity to be performed at least four times a year within intervals ranging from 81 to 99 days.
Subp. 16. Volunteer.
"Volunteer" means a person who, without monetary or other compensation, provides services to residents or to the nursing home.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303; 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.0015 Compliance with Regulations and Standards
A nursing home must operate and provide services in compliance with all applicable federal, state, and local laws, regulations, and codes, and with accepted professional standards and principles that apply to professionals providing services in a nursing home.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0020 Licensing in General
Subpart 1. Required.
For the purpose of this chapter, a state license is required for a facility where nursing home care is provided for five or more aged or infirm persons who are not acutely ill.
Subp. 2. License fees.
Each application for either an initial or renewal license to operate a nursing home must be accompanied by a fee based upon the formula as provided by Minnesota Statutes, section 144.122. A bed must be licensed if it is available for use by residents. If the number of licensed beds is increased during the term of the license, a full year's fee for each additional bed must be paid. There is no refund for a decrease in licensed beds.
Subp. 3. License expiration date.
Initial and renewal licenses are issued for one year and expire on the anniversary date of issuance. A license renewal must be applied for on an annual basis.
Subp. 4. License to be posted.
The license must be posted at the main entrance of a nursing home.
Subp. 5. Separate licenses.
Separate licenses are required for institutions maintained on separate, noncontiguous premises even though operated under the same management. A separate license is not required for separate buildings maintained by the same owner on the same premises.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0025 Procedures for Licensing Nursing Homes
Subpart 1. Initial licensure.
For the purpose of this part, initial licensure applies to newly constructed facilities designed to operate as a nursing home and to other facilities not already licensed as a nursing home. Applicants for initial licensure must complete the license application form supplied by the department. An application for initial licensure must be submitted at least 90 days before the requested date for licensure and must be accompanied by a license fee based upon the formula as provided by Minnesota Statutes, section 144.122.
To be issued a license, an applicant must file with the department a current copy of the architectural and engineering plans and specifications of the facility as prepared and certified by an architect or engineer registered to practice in Minnesota.
If the applicant for licensure is a corporation, it must submit with the application a copy of its articles of incorporation and bylaws. A foreign corporation must also submit a copy of its certificate of authority to do business in Minnesota. The department will issue the initial license as of the date the department determines that the nursing home is in compliance with parts 4655.0090 to 4655.9342, 4658.0010 to 4658.1365, 4660.0090 to 4660.9940, and Minnesota Statutes, sections 144A.01 to 144A.16, unless the applicant requests a later date.
Subp. 2. Renewed licenses.
An applicant for license renewal must complete the license application form supplied by the department. An application must be submitted at least 60 days before the expiration of the current license and must be accompanied by a license fee based upon the formula as provided by Minnesota Statutes, section 144.122. The department will issue a renewed license if a nursing home continues to satisfy the requirements of parts 4655.0090 to 4655.9342, 4658.0010 to 4658.1365, 4660.0100 to 4660.9940, and Minnesota Statutes, sections 144A.01 to 144A.16.
If the licensee is a corporation, it must submit any amendments to its articles of incorporation or bylaws with the renewal application.
If the renewal application specifies a different licensed capacity from that provided on the current license, the licensee must comply with subpart 6. If the changes are not approved before the current license expires, the renewed license will be issued without reflecting the requested changes.
Subp. 3. Transfer of interest; notice.
A controlling person, as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.01, subdivision 4, who transfers a beneficial interest in the nursing home must notify the department, in writing, at least 14 days before the date of the transfer. The written notice must contain the name and address of the transferor, the name and address of the transferee, the nature and amount of the transferred interests, and the date of the transfer.
Subp. 4. Transfer of interest; expiration of license.
A transfer of a beneficial interest will result in the expiration of the nursing home's license:
A. if the transferred beneficial interest exceeds ten percent of the total beneficial interest in the licensee, in the structure in which the nursing home is located, or in the land upon which the nursing home is located, and if, as the result of the transfer, the transferee then possesses a beneficial interest in excess of 50 percent of the total beneficial interest in the licensee, in the structure in which the nursing home is located, or in the land upon which the nursing home is located; or
B. if the transferred beneficial interest exceeds 50 percent of the total beneficial interest in the licensee, the structure in which the nursing home is located, or in the land upon which the nursing home is located. Under either of these conditions, the nursing home license expires at the time of relicensure, 90 days after the date of the transfer, or 90 days after the date when notice of transfer is received, whichever date is later. If the current license expires before the end of the 90-day period, the licensee must apply for a renewed license in accordance with subpart 2. The department must notify the licensee by certified mail at least 60 days before the license expires.
Subp. 5. Transfer of interest; relicensure.
A controlling person may apply for relicensure by submitting the license application form at least 60 days before the license expiration date. Application for relicensure must be accompanied by a license fee based upon the formula as provided by Minnesota Statutes, section 144.122. Payment of any outstanding penalty assessments must be submitted before the application for relicensure may be acted upon by the department. If the applicant for relicensure is a corporation, it must submit a copy of its current articles of incorporation and bylaws with the license application. A foreign corporation must also submit a copy of its certificate of authority to do business in Minnesota. The department will relicense the nursing home as of the date the commissioner determines that the prospective licensee complies with parts 4655.0090 to 4655.9342, 4658.0010 to 4658.1365, 4660.0100 to 4660.9940, and Minnesota Statutes, sections 144A.01 to 144A.16, unless the applicant requests a later date. The former licensee remains responsible for the operation of the nursing home until the nursing home is relicensed.
Subp. 6. Amendment to the license.
If the nursing home requests a change in its licensed capacity or in its license classification, it must submit the request on the application for amendments to the license. This application must be submitted at least 30 days before the requested date of change and if an increase in the number of licensed beds is requested, accompanied by a fee based upon the formula as provided by Minnesota Statutes, section 144.122. The department will amend the license as of the date the department determines that the nursing home is in compliance with parts 4655.0090 to 4655.9342, 4658.0010 to 4658.1365, 4600.0100 to 4660.9940, and Minnesota Statutes, sections 144A.01 to 144A.16, unless a later date is requested by the licensee. The amendment to a license is effective for the remainder of the nursing home's licensure year.
Subp. 7. Issuing conditions or limitations on the license.
The department must attach to the license any conditions or limitations necessary according to subpart 8 to assure compliance with the laws and rules governing the operation of the nursing home or to protect the health, treatment, safety, comfort, and well-being of the nursing home residents. A condition or limitation may be attached to a license at any time.
Subp. 8. Reasons for conditions or limitations.
In deciding to condition or limit a license the department must consider:
A. the nature and number of correction orders or penalty assessments issued to the nursing home or to other nursing homes having some or all of the same controlling persons;
B. the permitting, aiding, or abetting of the commission of any illegal act in the nursing home by any of the controlling persons or employees of the nursing home;
C. the performance of any acts contrary to the welfare of the residents in a nursing home by a controlling person or employee;
D. the condition of the physical plant or physical environment;
E. the existence of any outstanding variances or waivers; or
F. the number or types of residents the nursing home is able to provide for.
Subp. 9. Types of conditions or limitations.
The department must impose one or more of the following conditions or limitations for reasons determined under subpart 8:
A. restrictions on the number or types of residents to be admitted or permitted to remain in the nursing home;
B. restrictions on the inclusion of specified individuals as controlling persons or managerial employees; or
C. imposition of schedules for the completion of specified activities.
Subp. 10. Statement of conditions or limitations.
The department must notify the applicant or licensee, in writing, of its decision to issue a conditional or limited license. The department must inform the applicant or licensee of the reasons for the condition or limitation and of the right to appeal.
Unless otherwise specified, a condition or limitation remains valid as long as the licensee of the nursing home remains unchanged or as long as the reason for the condition or limitation exists. The licensee must notify the department when the reasons for the condition or limitation no longer exist. If the department determines that the condition or limitation is no longer required, it will be removed from the license.
The existence of a condition or limitation must be noted on the face of the license. If the condition or limitation is not fully stated on the license, the department's licensure letter containing the full text of the condition or limitation must be posted alongside the license in an accessible and visible location.
Subp. 11. Effect of a condition or limitation.
A condition or limitation has the force of law. If a licensee fails to comply with a condition or limitation, the department may issue a correction order or assess a fine or it may suspend, revoke, or refuse to renew the license in accordance with Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.11.
If the department assesses a fine, the fine is $250. The fine accrues on a daily basis according to Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.10.
Subp. 12. Appeal procedure.
The applicant or licensee may contest the issuance of a conditional or limited license by requesting a contested case proceeding under the Administrative Procedure Act, Minnesota Statutes, sections 14.57 to 14.69, within 15 days after receiving the notification described in subpart 10. The request for a hearing must set out in detail the reasons why the applicant contends that a conditional or limited license should not be issued.
Subp. 13. License application forms.
The department will furnish the applicant or the licensee with the necessary forms to obtain initial or renewed licensure or to request relicensure of the nursing home after a transfer of interest. The license forms must require that the information described in subparts 14 to 16 be provided.
Subp. 14. General information.
General information means:
A. the name, address, and telephone number of the nursing home;
B. the name of the county in which the nursing home is located;
C. the legal property description of the land upon which the nursing home is located;
D. the licensed bed capacity;
E. the designation of the classification of ownership, for example, state, county, city, city and county, hospital district, federal, corporation, nonprofit corporation, partnership, sole proprietorship, or other entity;
F. the name and address of the controlling person or managerial employee who will be responsible for communicating with the commissioner of health on all matters relating to the nursing home license and on whom personal service of all notices and orders will be served; and
G. the location and square footage of the floor space constituting the facility.
Subp. 15. Disclosure of controlling persons.
According to Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.03, the nursing home license application must identify the name and address of all controlling persons of the nursing home, as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.01, subdivision 4.
Subp. 16. Disclosure of managerial employees.
A nursing home license application must identify the name and address of all administrators, assistant administrators, directors of nursing, medical directors, and all other managerial employees, as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.01, subdivision 8, and indicate their previous work experience in nursing homes during the past two years.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0030 Capacity Prescribed
Each license must specify the maximum allowable number of residents to be cared for at any one time. No number of residents in excess of that number may reside in the nursing home. The maximum number of licensed beds is determined by the amount of space that is available in the facility as specified in chapter 4660.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0035 Evaluation
A nursing home is subject to evaluation and approval by the department of the nursing home's physical plant and its operational aspects before a change in ownership, classification, capacity, or an addition of services which necessitates a change in the nursing home's physical plant.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0040 Variance and Waiver
Subpart 1. Request for variance or waiver.
A nursing home may request that the department grant a variance or waiver from the provisions of this chapter. A request for a variance or waiver must be submitted to the department in writing. Each request must contain:
A. the specific part or parts for which the variance or waiver is requested;
B. the reasons for the request;
C. the alternative measures that will be taken if a variance or waiver is granted;
D. the length of time for which the variance or waiver is requested; and
E. other relevant information necessary to properly evaluate the request for the variance or waiver.
Subp. 2. Criteria for evaluation.
The decision to grant or deny a variance or waiver must be based on the department's evaluation of the following criteria:
A. whether the variance or waiver adversely affects the health, treatment, comfort, safety, or well-being of a resident;
B. whether the alternative measures to be taken, if any, are equivalent to or superior to those prescribed in this chapter; and
C. whether compliance with the part or parts would impose an undue burden upon the applicant.
Subp. 3. Notification of variance.
The department must notify the applicant in writing of its decision. If a variance or waiver is granted, the notification must specify the period of time for which the variance or waiver is effective and the alternative measures or conditions, if any, to be met by the applicant.
Subp. 4. Effect of alternative measures or conditions.
Alternative measures or conditions attached to a variance or waiver have the force and effect of this chapter and are subject to the issuance of correction orders and penalty assessments in accordance with Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.10.
The amount of fines for a violation of this part is that specified for the particular rule for which the variance or waiver was requested.
Subp. 5. Renewal.
A request for the renewal of a variance or waiver must be submitted in writing at least 45 days before its expiration date. Renewal requests must contain the information specified in subpart 1. A variance or waiver must be renewed by the department if the applicant continues to satisfy the criteria in subparts 2 and 3, and demonstrates compliance with the alternative measures or conditions imposed at the time the original variance or waiver was granted.
Subp. 6. Denial, revocation, or refusal to renew.
The department must deny, revoke, or refuse to renew a variance or waiver if it is determined that the criteria in subparts 2 and 3 are not met. The applicant must be notified in writing of the reasons for the decision and informed of the right to appeal the decision.
Subp. 7. Appeal procedure.
An applicant may contest the denial, revocation, or refusal to renew a variance or waiver by requesting a contested case hearing under Minnesota Statutes, chapter 14. The applicant must submit, within 15 days of the receipt of the department's decision, a written request for a hearing. The request for hearing must set forth in detail the reasons why the applicant contends the decision of the department should be reversed or modified. At the hearing, the applicant has the burden of proving that it satisfied the criteria specified in subparts 2 and 3, except in a proceeding challenging the revocation of a variance or waiver.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0045 Penalties for Licensing Rule Violations
Penalty assessments will be assessed on a daily basis for violations of parts 4658.0010 to 4658.0035 and are as follows:
A. part 4658.0020, subparts 1, 2, and 3, $250;
B. part 4658.0020, subparts 4 and 5, $50;
C. part 4658.0025, $250;
D. part 4658.0030, $100; and
E. part 4658.0035, $100.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0050 Licensee
Subpart 1. General duties.
The licensee of a nursing home is responsible for its management, control, and operation. A nursing home must be managed, controlled, and operated in a manner that enables it to use its resources effectively and efficiently to attain or maintain the highest practicable physical, mental, and psychosocial well-being of each resident.
Subp. 2. Specific duties.
The licensee must develop written bylaws or policies for the management and operation of the nursing home and for the provision of resident care, which must be available to all members of the governing body, and must assume legal responsibility for matters under its control, for the quality of care rendered and for compliance with laws and rules relating to the safety and sanitation of nursing homes, or which otherwise relate directly to the health, welfare, and care of residents.
Subp. 3. Responsibilities.
A licensee is responsible for the duties in items A to F.
A. Full disclosure of each person having an interest of ten percent or more of the ownership of the home to the department with any change reported in writing within 14 days after the licensee knew of or should have known of the transfer, whichever occurs first. In case of corporate ownership, the name and address of each officer and director must be specified. If the home is organized as a partnership, the name and address of each partner must be furnished. In the case of a home operated by a lessee, the persons or business entities having an interest in the lessee organization must be reported and an executed copy of the lease agreement furnished. If the home is operated by the holder of a franchise, disclosure must be made as to the franchise holder who must also furnish an executed copy of the franchise agreement.
B. Appointment of a licensed nursing home administrator who is responsible for the operation of the home in accordance with law and established policies and whose authority to serve as administrator is delegated in writing.
C. Notification of the termination of service of the administrator and the appointment of a replacement within five working days in writing to the department. If a licensed nursing home administrator is not available to assume the position immediately, notification to the department must include the name of the person temporarily in charge of the home. The governing body of a nursing home must not employ an individual as the permanent administrator until it is determined that the individual qualifies for licensure as a nursing home administrator in Minnesota under Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.04. The governing body of the nursing home must not employ an individual as an acting administrator or person temporarily in charge for more than 30 days unless that individual has secured an acting administrator license, as required by Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.27.
D. Provision of an adequate and competent staff and maintenance of professional standards in the care of residents and operation of the nursing home.
E. Provision of facilities, equipment, and supplies for care consistent with the needs of the residents.
F. Provision of evidence of adequate financing, proper administration of funds, and the maintenance of required statistics. A nursing home must have financial resources at the time of initial licensure to permit full service operation of the nursing home for six months without regard to income from resident fees.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0055 Administrator
Subpart 1. Designation.
A nursing home must designate a licensed nursing home administrator to be in immediate charge of the operation and administration of the nursing home, whether that individual is the licensee or a person designated by the licensee. The individual must have authority to carry out the provisions of this chapter and must be charged with the responsibility of doing so.
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, L 2001 c 69 s 2]
Subp. 3. Administrator's absence; requirements.
The administrator must not leave the premises without delegating authority to a person who is at least 21 years of age and capable of acting in an emergency and without giving information as to where the administrator can be reached. At no time may a nursing home be left without competent supervision. The person left in charge must have the authority to act in an emergency.
Subp. 4. Notice of person in charge.
The name of the person in charge at the time must be posted at the main entrance of the nursing home.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303; L 2001 c 69 s 2
Minn. R. 4658.0060 Responsibilities of Administrator
The administrator is responsible for the:
A. maintenance, completion, and submission of reports and records as required by the department;
B. formulation of written policies, procedures, and programs for operation, management, and maintenance of the nursing home;
C. current personnel records for each employee according to part 4658.0130;
D. written job descriptions for all positions which define responsibilities, duties, and qualifications that are readily available for all employees;
E. work assignments consistent with qualifications and the work load;
F. maintenance of a weekly time schedule which shows each employee's name, job title, hours of work, and days off for each day of the week. The schedule must be dated and communicated to employees. The schedules and time cards, payroll records, or other written documentation of actual time worked and paid for must be kept on file in the home for three years;
G. orientation for new employees and volunteers and provision of a continuing in-service education program for all employees and volunteers to give assurance that they understand the proper method of carrying out all procedures;
H. establishment of a recognized accounting system; and
I. the development and maintenance of channels of communications with employees, including:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0065 Resident Safety and Disaster Planning
Subpart 1. Safety program.
A nursing home must develop and implement an organized safety program in accordance with a written safety plan. The written plan must be included in the orientation and in-service training programs of all employees and volunteers to ensure safety of residents at all times.
Subp. 2. Security of physical plant.
A nursing home must have a method of ensuring the security of exit doors leading directly to the outside which are not under direct observation from the nurses' station.
Subp. 3. Written disaster plan.
A nursing home must have a written disaster plan specific to the nursing home with procedures for the protection and evacuation of all persons in the case of fire or explosion or in the event of floods, tornadoes, or other emergencies. The plan must include information and procedures about the location of alarm signals and fire extinguishers, frequency of drills, assignments of specific tasks and responsibilities of the personnel on each shift, persons and local emergency departments to be notified, precautions and safety measures during tornado alerts, procedures for evacuation of all persons during fire or floods, planned evacuation routes from the various floor areas to safe areas within the building, or from the building when necessary, and arrangements for temporary emergency housing in the community in the event of total evacuation.
Subp. 4. Availability of disaster plan.
Copies of the disaster plan containing the basic emergency procedures must be posted at all nurses' stations, kitchens, laundries, and boiler rooms. Complete copies of the detailed disaster plan must be available to all supervisory personnel.
Subp. 5. Drills.
Residents do not need to be evacuated during a drill except when an evacuation drill is planned in advance.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0070 Quality Assessment and Assurance Committee
A nursing home must maintain a quality assessment and assurance committee consisting of the administrator, the director of nursing services, the medical director or other physician designated by the medical director, and at least three other members of the nursing home's staff, representing disciplines directly involved in resident care. The quality assessment and assurance committee must identify issues with respect to which quality assurance activities are necessary and develop and implement appropriate plans of action to correct identified quality deficiencies. The committee must address, at a minimum, incident and accident reporting, infection control, and medications and pharmacy services.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0075 Outside Resources
If a nursing home does not employ a qualified professional person to furnish a specific service to be provided by the nursing home, the nursing home must have that service furnished to residents under a written agreement with a person or agency outside the nursing home. The written agreement must specify that the service meets professional standards and principles that apply to professionals providing services in a nursing home, and that the service meets the same standards as required by this chapter.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0085 Notification of Change in Resident Health Status
A nursing home must develop and implement policies to guide staff decisions to consult physicians, physician assistants, and nurse practitioners, and if known, notify the resident's legal representative or an interested family member of a resident's acute illness, serious accident, or death. At a minimum, the director of nursing services, and the medical director or an attending physician must be involved in the development of these policies. The policies must have criteria which address at least the appropriate notification times for:
A. an accident involving the resident which results in injury and has the potential for requiring physician intervention;
B. a significant change in the resident's physical, mental, or psychosocial status, for example, a deterioration in health, mental, or psychosocial status in either life-threatening conditions or clinical complications;
C. a need to alter treatment significantly, for example, a need to discontinue an existing form of treatment due to adverse consequences, or to begin a new form of treatment;
D. a decision to transfer or discharge the resident from the nursing home; or
E. expected and unexpected resident deaths.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0090 Use of Oxygen
A nursing home must develop and implement policies and procedures for the safe storage and use of oxygen.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0095 Availability of Licensing Rules
A copy of this chapter must be made available by a nursing home upon request for the use of all nursing home personnel, residents, and family members.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0100 Employee Orientation and in-Service Education
Subpart 1. Orientation and initial training.
All personnel must be instructed in the requirements of the law and the rules pertaining to their respective duties and the instruction must be documented. All personnel must be informed of the policies of the nursing home, and procedure manuals must be readily available to guide them in the performance of their duties.
Subp. 2. In-service education.
A nursing home must provide in-service education. The in-service education must be sufficient to ensure the continuing competence of employees, must address areas identified by the quality assessment and assurance committee, and must address the special needs of residents as determined by the nursing home staff. A nursing home must provide an in-service training program in rehabilitation for all nursing personnel to promote ambulation; aid in activities of daily living; assist in activities, self-help, maintenance of range of motion, and proper chair and bed positioning; and in the prevention or reduction of incontinence.
Subp. 3. Reference materials.
Textbooks, periodicals, dictionaries, and other reference materials must be available and kept current. A nursing home must review the currency of these reference materials at least annually.
Subp. 4. Coordination of in-service education programs.
In a nursing home with over 90 beds, one person must be designated as responsible for coordination of all in-service education programs.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0105 Competency
A nursing home must ensure that direct care staff are able to demonstrate competency in skills and techniques necessary to care for residents' needs, as identified through the comprehensive resident assessments and described in the comprehensive plan of care, and are able to perform their assigned duties.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0110 Incident and Accident Reporting
All persons providing services in a nursing home must report any accident or injury to a resident, and the nursing home must immediately complete a detailed incident report of the accident or injury and the action taken after learning of the accident or injury.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0115 Work Period
A nursing home must not schedule a person to duty for more than one consecutive work period except in a documented emergency. For purposes of this chapter, a documented emergency means situations where replacement staff are not able to report to duty for the next shift due to adverse weather conditions, natural disasters, illness, strike, or other documented situations where normally scheduled staff are no longer available. For purposes of this chapter, a normal work period must not exceed 12 hours. For purposes of this chapter, documentation of an emergency means a written record of the emergency. Documentation on the work schedule is one method of providing written record of the emergency.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0120 Employee Policies
Subpart 1. Keys.
The person in charge of a nursing home on each work shift must have the ability to open all doors and locks in the nursing home except the business office.
Subp. 2. Requirements for staff.
A nursing home must have at least one responsible person awake, dressed, and on duty at all times. The person must be at least 21 years of age and capable of performing the required duties of evacuating the residents.
Subp. 3. Identification of staff.
Each employee and volunteer must wear a badge which includes name and position.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0125 Personal Belongings
Personnel must not keep personal belongings in the food service or resident areas. Provision must be made elsewhere for storage.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0130 Employees' Personnel Records
A current personnel record must be maintained for each employee and be stored in a confidential manner. The personnel records for at least the most recent three-year period must be maintained by the nursing home. The records must be available to representatives of the department and must contain:
A. the person's name, address, telephone number, gender, Minnesota license, certification, or registration number, if applicable, and similar identifying data;
B. a list of the individual's training, experience, and previous employment;
C. the date of employment, type of position currently held, hours of work, and attendance records; and
D. the date of resignation or discharge. Employee health information, including the record of all accidents and those illnesses reportable under part 4605.7040, must be maintained and stored in a separate employee medical record.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0135 Policy Records
Subpart 1. Availability of policies.
All policies and procedures directly related to resident care adopted by the home must be placed on file and be made available upon request to nursing home personnel, residents, legal representatives, and designated representatives.
Subp. 2. Admission policies.
Admission policies must be made available upon request to prospective residents, family members, legal representatives, and designated representatives.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0140 Type of Admissions
Subpart 1. Selection of residents.
The administrator, in cooperation with the director of nursing services and the medical director, is responsible for the admission of residents to the home according to the admission policies of the nursing home.
Subp. 2. Residents not accepted.
Unless otherwise provided by law, including laws against discrimination, residents must not be admitted or retained for whom care cannot be provided in keeping with their known physical, mental, or behavioral condition. Prospective residents who are denied admission must be informed of the reason for the denial of their admission.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0145 Agreement as to Rates and Charges
Subpart 1. Written agreement.
At the time of admission, there must be a written agreement between the nursing home and the resident, the resident's agent, or the resident's guardian, which includes:
A. the base rate and what services and items are provided by the nursing home and are included in that base rate;
B. extra charges for care or services;
C. obligations concerning payment of the rates and charges; and
D. the refund policy of the home. All residents' bills must be itemized for services rendered.
Subp. 2. Notification of rates and charges.
Annually, and when there is any change, a nursing home must inform the resident of services available in the nursing home and of charges for those services, including any charges for services not covered under Medicare or Medicaid or by the nursing home's per diem rate. A nursing home must inform the resident or the resident's agent or guardian before any change in the charges for services not covered under Medicare or Medicaid or by the nursing home's per diem rate.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0150 Inspection by Department
All areas of a nursing home and all records related to the care and protection of residents including resident and employee records must be open for inspection by the department at all times for the purposes of enforcing this chapter.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0155 Reports to Department
Reports regarding statistical data and services furnished must be submitted on forms furnished by the department. Copies must be retained by the nursing home.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0190 Penalties for Administration and Operations Rule Violations
Penalty assessments will be assessed on a daily basis for violations of parts 4658.0050 to 4658.0155 and are as follows:
A. part 4658.0050, subpart 1, $250;
B. part 4658.0050, subpart 2, $100;
C. part 4658.0050, subpart 3, item A, $250;
D. part 4658.0050, subpart 3, items B to F, $100;
E. part 4658.0055, subparts 1 to 3, $100;
F. part 4658.0055, subpart 4, $50;
G. part 4658.0060, items A, F, H, and I, $50;
H. part 4658.0060, items B, C, D, E, and G, $100;
I. part 4658.0065, $200;
J. part 4658.0070, $100;
K. part 4658.0075, $100;
L. part 4658.0085, $350;
M. part 4658.0090, $500;
N. part 4658.0095, $50;
O. part 4658.0100, subparts 1 and 2, $100;
P. part 4658.0100, subpart 3, $50;
Q. part 4658.0100, subpart 4, $300;
R. part 4658.0105, $300;
S. part 4658.0110, $100;
T. part 4658.0115, $100;
U. part 4658.0120, subpart 1, $100;
V. part 4658.0120, subpart 2, $500;
W. part 4658.0120, subpart 3, $50;
X. part 4658.0125, $50;
Y. part 4658.0130, $50;
Z. part 4658.0135, $50;
AA. part 4658.0140, subpart 1, $100;
BB. part 4658.0140, subpart 2, $250;
CC. part 4658.0145, subpart 1, $100;
DD. part 4658.0145, subpart 2, $100;
EE. part 4658.0150, $100; and
FF. part 4658.0155, $50.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0191 Penalties for Violations of Residents' Bill of Rights
Penalty assessments for violations of Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, are as follows:
A. Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 4, $100;
B. Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 5, $250;
C. Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 6, $250;
D. Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 7, $100;
E. Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 8, $100;
F. Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 9, $250;
G. Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 10, $250;
H. Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 11, $100;
I. Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 12, $250;
J. Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 13, $500;
K. Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 14, $500;
L. Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 15, $250;
M. Except as noted in item N, a $100 penalty assessment must be issued for a violation of Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 16;
N. A $250 penalty assessment must be issued for a violation of that portion of Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 16, which states: "Patients and residents shall be assured confidential treatment of their personal and medical records, and may approve or refuse their release to any individual outside the facility.";
O. Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 17, $100;
P. Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 18, $250;
Q. Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 19, $250;
R. Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 20, $250;
S. A $250 penalty assessment must be issued for a violation of the portions of Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 21, which state: "Patients and residents may associate and communicate privately with persons of their choice and enter and, except as provided by the Minnesota Commitment Act, leave the facility as they choose." and "Personal mail shall be sent without interference and received unopened unless medically or programmatically contraindicated and documented by the physician in the medical record.";
T. A $250 penalty assessment must be issued for a violation of the portions of Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 21, which state: "Patients and residents shall have access, at their expense, to writing instruments, stationery, and postage." and "There shall be access to a telephone where patients and residents can make and receive calls as well as speak privately. Facilities which are unable to provide a private area shall make reasonable arrangements to accommodate the privacy of patients' or residents' calls.";
U. Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 22, $250;
V. Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 23, $250;
W. Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 24, $100;
X. Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 25, $250;
Y. Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 26, $250;
Z. Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 27, $250;
AA. Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 28, $250;
BB. Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 29, $250;
CC. Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, subdivision 30, $250; and
DD. Minnesota Statutes, section 144.652, subdivision 1, $100.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.0192 Nursing Home Statutes; Fines
Penalty assessments for violations of Minnesota Statutes, chapter 144A, are as follows:
A. Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.04, subdivision 4, $100;
B. Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.04, subdivision 6, $100;
C. a $100 penalty assessment must be issued for a violation of those portions of Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.10, subdivision 3, which state: "A copy of each correction order and notice of noncompliance, and copies of any documentation supplied to the commissioner of health or the commissioner of human services under section 144A.03 or 144A.05 shall be kept on file at the nursing home and shall be made available for viewing by any person upon request. Except as otherwise provided by this subdivision, a copy of each correction order and notice of noncompliance received by the nursing home after its most recent inspection or reinspection shall be posted in a conspicuous and readily accessible place in the nursing home." and "All correction orders and notices of noncompliance issued to a nursing home owned and operated by the state or political subdivision of the state shall be circulated and posted at the first public meeting of the governing body after the order or notice is issued. Confidential information protected by section 13.05 or 13.46 shall not be made available or posted as provided in this subdivision unless it may be made available or posted in a manner authorized by chapter 13.";
D. Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.13, subdivision 1, $100;
E. except as noted in item F, a $100 penalty assessment must be issued for a violation of Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.13, subdivision 2;
F. a $250 penalty assessment must be issued for a violation of that portion of Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.13, subdivision 2, which states: "No controlling person or employee of a nursing home shall retaliate in any way against a complaining nursing home resident and no nursing home resident may be denied any right available to the resident under chapter 504B."; and
G. Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.16, $100.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196; L 1999 c 199 art 2 s 35
Minn. R. 4658.0193 Reporting Maltreatment of Vulnerable Adults; Fines
Penalty assessments for violations of Minnesota Statutes, section 626.557, are as follows:
A. Minnesota Statutes, section 626.557, subdivision 3, $250;
B. Minnesota Statutes, section 626.557, subdivision 3a, $100;
C. Minnesota Statutes, section 626.557, subdivision 4, $100;
D. Minnesota Statutes, section 626.557, subdivision 4a, $100;
E. Minnesota Statutes, section 626.557, subdivision 14, $100; and
F. Minnesota Statutes, section 626.557, subdivision 17, $250.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.0200 Policies Concerning Residents
Subpart 1. Visitors.
A nursing home must provide access to a resident by relatives and guardians, and to any entity or individual that provides health, social, legal, advocacy, or religious services to the resident, subject to the resident's right to deny or withdraw consent at any time. A nursing home must also provide access to others who are visiting the resident with the resident's consent. A nursing home may restrict visits when the visits pose a health or safety risk to a resident or otherwise violate a resident's rights.
Subp. 2. Telephones.
A nursing home must provide at least one non-coin-operated telephone which is accessible to residents at all times in case of emergency. A resident must have access to a telephone at a convenient location within the building for personal use. A nursing home may charge the resident for actual long distance charges that the resident incurs.
Subp. 3. Mail.
A resident must receive mail unopened unless the resident or the resident's legal guardian, conservator, representative payee, or other person designated in writing by the resident has requested in writing that the mail be reviewed. The outgoing mail must not be censored.
Subp. 4. Funds and possessions.
A nursing home may not handle the personal major business affairs of a resident without written legal authorization by the resident or the resident's legal guardian, conservator, representative payee, or other person designated in writing by the resident.
Subp. 5. Smoking in bed.
A resident must not be permitted to smoke in bed unless the resident's condition requires that the resident remain in bed, and the smoking is directly supervised by a staff member.
Subp. 6. Permitted smoking.
Smoking is permitted in the nursing home only as provided by Minnesota Statutes, sections 16B.24, subdivision 9, and 144.411 to 144.417.
Subp. 7. Pet animals.
Pet animals may be kept on the premises of a nursing home only according to part 4638.0200.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.0205 Procedure at Death
When a resident dies in a nursing home, the administrator, nurse, or other employee designated by the administrator must contact a relative, guardian, legal representative, other person designated in writing by the resident, or the placement agency regarding the death and the desired funeral arrangements. The body must be accorded privacy until removed from the nursing home. Where reasonably possible, no body may remain in a nursing home for more than 12 hours.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.0210 Room Assignments
Subpart 1. Room assignments and furnishings.
A nursing home must attempt to accommodate a resident's preferences on room assignments, roommates, and furnishings whenever possible.
Subp. 2. Room assignment complaints.
A nursing home must develop and implement written policies and procedures for addressing resident complaints, including complaints regarding room assignments and roommates. At a minimum, the policies and procedures must include the following:
A. a mechanism for informal dispute resolution of room assignment and roommate complaints; and
B. a procedure for documenting the complaint and its resolution.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.0215 Administration of Medications
The right of residents to self-administer medications must be provided as allowed under part 4658.1325, subpart 4. Medications may be added to food only as provided under part 4658.1325, subpart 6.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.0220 Freedom from Corporal Punishment and Involuntary Seclusion
A resident must be free from corporal punishment and involuntary seclusion.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.0250 Admission Policies
The admission policies of a nursing home must specify the manner of protecting personal funds of the residents, according to parts 4658.0250 to 4658.0280.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.0255 Authorization
Subpart 1. Written authorization.
The personal funds of a resident must not be accepted for safekeeping without written authorization from the resident or from the resident's legal guardian, conservator, representative payee, or other person designated in writing by the resident. For purposes of this chapter, "representative payee" means an individual designated by the Social Security Administration to receive Social Security benefits on behalf of the resident.
Subp. 2. Copy retained.
A copy of the written authorization must be retained in the resident's records.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.0260 Personal Fund Accounting and Records
Subpart 1. No commingling of resident and nursing home funds.
The personal funds of a resident must not be commingled with the funds of a nursing home or with the funds of any person other than residents of the nursing home, unless otherwise authorized by law.
Subp. 2. Resident funds not used by nursing home.
The personal funds of a resident must not be used for the purpose of the nursing home or any other resident and must be maintained free from any liability that the nursing home incurs.
Subp. 3. Accounting system.
A nursing home must establish and maintain a system that ensures a full and complete and separate accounting, according to generally accepted accounting principles, of each resident's personal funds entrusted to the nursing home on the resident's behalf.
Subp. 4. Financial record.
The resident's financial record must be available through quarterly statements and on request to the resident or the resident's legal guardian, conservator, representative payee, or other person designated in writing by the resident.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.0265 Deposit of Personal Funds
A nursing home, except for veterans homes under Minnesota Statutes, section 198.265, must deposit a resident's personal funds in excess of $100 in an interest bearing account (or accounts) that is separate from any of the nursing home's operating accounts, and that credits all interest earned on the resident's account to the resident's account. Pooled accounts must separately account for each resident's share.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.0270 Withdrawal of Funds from the Account
Upon the request of the resident or the resident's legal guardian, conservator, representative payee, or other person designated in writing by the resident, a nursing home must return all or any part of a resident's funds given to the nursing home for safekeeping, including interest, if any, accrued from deposits. A nursing home must develop a policy specifying the period of time during which funds can be withdrawn. The policy must ensure that the ability to withdraw funds is provided in accordance with the needs of the resident and must specify whether or not the nursing home allows residents to obtain funds to meet unanticipated needs on days when withdrawal periods are not scheduled. A nursing home must notify residents of the policy governing the withdrawal of funds. Funds kept outside of the nursing home must be returned within five business days.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.0275 Return of Funds After Discharge or Death
Subpart 1. Discharge of a resident.
Upon discharge of a resident, the resident's funds must be returned to the resident or resident's legal guardian, conservator, representative payee, or other person designated in writing by the resident, with a written accounting in exchange for a signed receipt. If a resident's bed is being held for anticipated readmission, the resident's funds need not be returned. Funds which are maintained outside of the nursing home must be returned within five business days.
Subp. 2. Death of a resident.
Upon the death of a resident, a nursing home must convey the resident's funds, and a final accounting of those funds, to the individual or probate jurisdiction administering the resident's estate.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.0290 Penalties for Resident Rights Rule Violations
Penalty assessments will be assessed on a daily basis for violations of parts 4658.0200 to 4658.0275 and are as follows:
A. part 4658.0200, subpart 1, $250;
B. part 4658.0200, subpart 2, $100;
C. part 4658.0200, subparts 3 and 4, $250;
D. part 4658.0200, subpart 5, $500;
E. part 4658.0200, subpart 7:
F. part 4658.0205, $100;
G. part 4658.0210, subpart 1, $250;
H. part 4658.0210, subpart 2, $50;
I. part 4658.0220, $500;
J. part 4658.0250, $50;
K. part 4658.0255, subpart 1, $250;
L. part 4658.0255, subpart 2, $50; and
M. parts 4658.0260 to 4658.0275, $100.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.0300 Use of Restraints
Subpart 1. Definitions.
For purposes of this part, the following terms have the meanings given.
A. "Physical restraints" means any manual method or physical or mechanical device, material, or equipment attached or adjacent to the resident's body that the individual cannot remove easily which restricts freedom of movement or normal access to one's body. Physical restraints include, but are not limited to, leg restraints, arm restraints, hand mitts, soft ties or vests, and wheelchair safety bars. Physical restraints also include practices which meet the definition of a restraint, such as tucking in a sheet so tightly that a resident confined to bed cannot move; bed rails; chairs that prevent rising; or placing a resident in a wheelchair so close to a wall that the wall prevents the resident from rising. Bed rails are considered a restraint if they restrict freedom of movement. If the bed rail is used solely to assist the resident in turning or to help the resident get out of bed, then the bed rail is not used as a restraint. Wrist bands or devices on clothing that trigger electronic alarms to warn staff that a resident is leaving a room or area do not, in and of themselves, restrict freedom of movement and should not be considered restraints.
B. "Chemical restraints" means any psychopharmacologic drug that is used for discipline or convenience and is not required to treat medical symptoms.
C. "Discipline" means any action taken by the nursing home for the purpose of punishing or penalizing a resident.
D. "Convenience" means any action taken solely to control resident behavior or maintain a resident with a lesser amount of effort that is not in the resident's best interest.
E. "Emergency measures" means the immediate action necessary to alleviate an unexpected situation or sudden occurrence of a serious and urgent nature.
Subp. 2. Freedom from restraints.
Residents must be free from any physical or chemical restraints imposed for purposes of discipline or convenience, and not required to treat the resident's medical symptoms.
Subp. 3. Emergency use of restraint.
A. If a resident exhibits behavior which becomes a threat to the health or safety of the resident or others, the nurse or person in charge of the nursing home, if other than a nurse, must take temporary, emergency measures to protect the resident and other persons in the nursing home, and the physician must be called immediately.
B. If a restraint is needed, a physician's order must be obtained which specifies the duration and circumstances under which the restraint is to be used.
C. The resident's legal representative or interested family member must be notified when temporary emergency measures are taken.
Subp. 4. Decision to apply restraint.
The decision to apply a restraint must be based on the comprehensive resident assessment. The least restrictive restraint must be used and incorporated into the comprehensive plan of care. The comprehensive plan of care must allow for progressive removal or the progressive use of less restrictive means. A nursing home must obtain an informed consent for a resident placed in a physical or chemical restraint. A physician's order must be obtained for a physical or chemical restraint which specifies the duration and circumstances under which the restraint is to be used, including the monitoring interval. Nothing in this part requires a resident to be awakened during the resident's normal sleeping hours strictly for the purpose of releasing restraints.
Subp. 5. Physical restraints.
At a minimum, for a resident placed in a physical restraint, a nursing home must also:
A. develop a system to ensure that the restrained resident is monitored at the interval specified in the written order from the physician;
B. assist the resident as often as necessary for the resident's safety, comfort, exercise, and elimination needs;
C. provide an opportunity for motion, exercise, and elimination for not less than ten minutes during each two-hour period in which a restraint is employed; and
D. release the resident from the restraint as quickly as possible.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303; 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.0350 Penalties for Restraints Rule Violations
Penalty assessments will be assessed on a daily basis for violations of part 4658.0300 and are as follows:
A. part 4658.0300, subpart 2, $500;
B. part 4658.0300, subpart 3, items A and B, $500;
C. part 4658.0300, subpart 3, item C, $50;
D. part 4658.0300, subpart 4, first paragraph, $250;
E. part 4658.0300, subpart 4, items A to D, $300; and
F. part 4658.0300, subpart 4, item E, $500.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0400 Comprehensive Resident Assessment
Subpart 1. Assessment.
A nursing home must conduct a comprehensive assessment of each resident's needs, which describes the resident's capability to perform daily life functions and significant impairments in functional capacity. A nursing assessment conducted according to Minnesota Statutes, section 148.171, subdivision 15, may be used as part of the comprehensive resident assessment. The results of the comprehensive resident assessment must be used to develop, review, and revise the resident's comprehensive plan of care as defined in part 4658.0405.
Subp. 2. Information gathered.
The comprehensive resident assessment must include at least the following information:
A. medically defined conditions and prior medical history;
B. medical status measurement;
C. physical and mental functional status;
D. sensory and physical impairments;
E. nutritional status and requirements;
F. special treatments or procedures;
G. mental and psychosocial status;
H. discharge potential;
I. dental condition;
J. activities potential;
K. rehabilitation potential;
L. cognitive status;
M. drug therapy; and
N. resident preferences.
Subp. 3. Frequency.
Comprehensive resident assessments must be conducted:
A. within 14 days after the date of admission;
B. within 14 days after a significant change in the resident's physical or mental condition; and
C. at least once every 12 months.
Subp. 4. Review of assessments.
A nursing home must examine each resident at least quarterly and must revise the resident's comprehensive assessment to ensure the continued accuracy of the assessment.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303: L 1999 c 172 s 18
Minn. R. 4658.0405 Comprehensive Plan of Care
Subpart 1. Development.
A nursing home must develop a comprehensive plan of care for each resident within seven days after the completion of the comprehensive resident assessment as defined in part 4658.0400. The comprehensive plan of care must be developed by an interdisciplinary team that includes the attending physician, a registered nurse with responsibility for the resident, and other appropriate staff in disciplines as determined by the resident's needs, and, to the extent practicable, with the participation of the resident, the resident's legal guardian or chosen representative.
Subp. 2. Contents of plan of care.
The comprehensive plan of care must list measurable objectives and timetables to meet the resident's long- and short-term goals for medical, nursing, and mental and psychosocial needs that are identified in the comprehensive resident assessment. The comprehensive plan of care must include the individual abuse prevention plan required by Minnesota Statutes, section 626.557, subdivision 14, paragraph (b).
Subp. 3. Use.
A comprehensive plan of care must be used by all personnel involved in the care of the resident.
Subp. 4. Revision.
A comprehensive plan of care must be reviewed and revised by an interdisciplinary team that includes the attending physician, a registered nurse with responsibility for the resident, and other appropriate staff in disciplines as determined by the resident's needs, and, to the extent practicable, with the participation of the resident, the resident's legal guardian or chosen representative at least quarterly and within seven days of the revision of the comprehensive resident assessment required by part 4658.0400, subpart 3, item B.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0420 Penalties for Comprehensive Assessment and Plan of Care Rule Violations
Penalty assessments will be assessed on a daily basis for violations of parts 4658.0400 and 4658.0405 and are as follows:
A. part 4658.0400, $300; and
B. part 4658.0405, $300.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0430 Health Information Management Service
Subpart 1. Health information management.
A nursing home must maintain health information management services, including clinical records, in accordance with accepted professional standards and practices, federal regulations, and state statutes pertaining to the content of the clinical record, health care data, computerization, confidentiality, retention, and retrieval. For purposes of this part, "health information management" means the collection, analysis, and dissemination of data to support decisions related to: disease prevention and resident care; effectiveness of care; reimbursement and payment; planning, research, and policy analysis; and regulations.
Subp. 2. Quality of health information.
A nursing home must develop and utilize a mechanism for auditing the quality of its health information management services.
Subp. 3. Person responsible for health information management.
A nursing home must designate a person to be responsible for health information management.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0435 Confidentiality of Clinical Records and Information
Subpart 1. Maintaining confidentiality of records.
Information in the clinical records, regardless of form or storage methods, must be kept confidential according to Minnesota Statutes, chapter 13 and sections 144.291 to 144.298 and 144.651, and federal regulations. A resident's clinical information in a nursing home must be considered confidential but it must be made available to all persons in the nursing home who are responsible for the care of the resident. The clinical information must be open to inspection by representatives of the Department of Health and others legally authorized to obtain access.
Subp. 2. Electronic transmission of health care data.
If a nursing home chooses to transmit or receive health care data by electronic means, the nursing home must develop and comply with policies and procedures to ensure the confidentiality, security, and verification of the transmission and receipt of information authorized to be transmitted by electronic means. A durable copy of the transmission must be placed in the resident's clinical record.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303; L 2007 c 147 art 10 s 15
Minn. R. 4658.0440 Abbreviations
A nursing home must have an explanation key available for abbreviations or symbols used in documentation and the collection of data and information.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0445 Clinical Record
Subpart 1. Unit record.
A resident's clinical record must be started at admission and incorporated into a central unit record system. The clinical record must contain sufficient information to identify the resident, contain a record of resident assessments, the comprehensive plan of care, progress notes on the implementation of the care plan, and a summary of the resident's condition at the time of discharge.
Subp. 2. Form of entries and authentication.
Data collected must be timely, accurate, and complete. All entries must be entered, authenticated, and dated by the person making the entry. If a nursing home uses an electronic paperless means of storing the clinical record, the nursing home must comply with part 4658.0475. All entries must be made as soon as possible after the observation or treatment in order to keep the clinical record current. In cases where authentication is done electronically or by rubber stamp, safeguards to prevent unauthorized use must be in place, and a rubber stamp may be used only if allowed by the licensing rules for that health care professional. Nursing assistants may document in the nursing notes if allowed by nursing home policy.
Subp. 3. Classification systems.
All diagnoses and procedures must be accurately and comprehensively coded to ensure accurate resident medical profiles.
Subp. 4. Admission information.
Identification information must be collected and maintained for each resident upon admission and must include, at a minimum:
A. the resident's legal name and preferred name;
B. previous address;
C. social security number;
D. gender;
E. marital status;
F. date and place of birth;
G. date and hour of admission;
H. advance directives, and Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) and Do Not Intubate (DNI) status, if any;
I. name, address, and telephone number of designated relative or significant other, if any;
J. name, address, and telephone number of person to be notified in an emergency;
K. legal representative, designated representative, or representative payee, if any;
L. religious affiliation, place of worship, and clergy member;
M. hospital preference; and
N. name of attending physician.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303; 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.0450 Clinical Record Contents
Subpart 1. In general.
Each resident's clinical record, including nursing notes, must include:
A. the condition of the resident at the time of admission;
B. temperature, pulse, respiration, and blood pressure, according to part 4658.0520, subpart 2, item I;
C. the resident's height and weight, according to part 4658.0520, subpart 2, item J;
D. the resident's general condition, actions, and attitudes;
E. observations, assessments, and interventions provided by all disciplines responsible for care of the resident, with the exception of confidential communications with religious personnel;
F. significant observations on, for example, behavior, orientation, adjustment to the nursing home, judgment, or moods;
G. date, time, quantity of dosage, and method of administration of all medications, and the signature of the nurse or authorized persons who administered the medication;
H. reports of laboratory examinations;
I. dates and times of all treatments and dressings;
J. dates and times of visits by all licensed health care practitioners;
K. visits to clinics or hospitals;
L. any orders or instructions relative to the comprehensive plan of care;
M. any change in the resident's sleeping habits or appetite;
N. pertinent factors regarding changes in the resident's general conditions; and
O. results of the initial comprehensive resident assessment and all subsequent comprehensive assessments as described in part 4658.0400.
Subp. 2. Physician and professional services.
The clinical record must contain the recording requirements of parts 4658.0710 to 4658.0725.
Subp. 3. Nursing services.
The clinical record must contain the recording requirements of parts 4658.0520 to 4658.0530.
Subp. 4. Dietary and food services.
The clinical record must contain the recording requirements of parts 4658.0600 and 4658.0625.
Subp. 5. Resident personal funds account.
The clinical record must contain the recording requirements of part 4658.0255.
Subp. 6. Activities.
The clinical record must contain the recording requirements of part 4658.0900.
Subp. 7. Social services.
The clinical record must contain the recording requirements of parts 4658.0450 and 4658.1005.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.05; 14.3895; 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303; 21 SR 196; 44 SR 371
Minn. R. 4658.0455 Telephone and Electronic Orders
A. Orders received by telephone, facsimile machine, or other electronic means must be kept confidential according to Minnesota Statutes, sections 144.291 to 144.298, 144.651, and 144.652.
B. Orders received by telephone or other electronic means, not including facsimile machine, must be immediately recorded or placed in the resident's record by the person authorized by the nursing home and must be countersigned by the ordering health care practitioner authorized to prescribe at the time of the next visit, or within 60 days, whichever is sooner.
C. Orders received by facsimile machine must have been signed by the ordering health practitioner authorized to prescribe, and must be immediately recorded or a durable copy must be placed in the resident's clinical record by the person authorized by the nursing home.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303; L 2007 c 147 art 10 s 15
Minn. R. 4658.0460 Master Resident Record
A permanent record must be kept listing at a minimum the full name of the resident, resident identification number, date of birth, date of admission, date of discharge, and discharge disposition. The master resident record must be kept in such a manner that total admissions, discharges, deaths, and resident days can be calculated, and an alphabetical listing of residents can be created.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0465 Transfer, Discharge, and Death
Subpart 1. Discharge summary at death.
When a resident dies, the nursing home must compile a discharge summary that includes the date, time, and cause of death.
Subp. 2. Other discharge.
When a resident is transferred or discharged for any reason other than death, the nursing home must compile a discharge summary that includes the date and time of transfer or discharge, reason for transfer or discharge, transfer or discharge diagnoses, and condition.
Subp. 3. Transfer or discharge to another facility.
When a resident is transferred or discharged to another health care facility or program, the nursing home must send the discharge summary compiled according to subpart 2, and pertinent information about the resident's immediate care and sufficient information to ensure continuity of care prior to or at the time of the transfer or discharge to the other health care facility or program. Additional information not necessary for the resident's immediate care may be sent to the new health care facility or program at the time of or after the transfer or discharge.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0470 Retention, Storage, and Retrieval
Subpart 1. Retention.
A resident's records must be preserved for a period of at least five years following discharge or death.
Subp. 2. Storage.
Space must be provided for the safe and confidential storage of residents' clinical records. Records of current residents must be stored on site.
Subp. 3. Retrieval.
If records of discharged residents are stored off site, policies and procedures must be developed and implemented by clinical record personnel and the nursing home administration for the confidentiality, retention, and timely retrieval of records within one working day. The policies and procedures must specify who is authorized to retrieve a record. Off-site archived copies of clinical databases must be protected against fire, flood, and other emergencies. The policies must address the location and retention of records if the nursing home discontinues operation.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0475 Computerization
If a nursing home is converting to an electronic paperless health information management system:
A. policies and procedures must be established and maintained that require password protection of the clinical database;
B. any outside contract for health information management services must include a provision that the company providing the services assumes responsibility for maintaining the confidentiality of all health information within its control;
C. audit trails must be developed for computer applications to determine the source and date of all entries and deletions;
D. backup systems must be implemented and maintained;
E. preventative maintenance must be implemented and maintained;
F. there must be a plan for preparing, securing, and retaining archived copies of computerized clinical databases;
G. procedures must be implemented for preparing and securing daily, weekly, and monthly archived copies of computerized clinical databases; and
H. there must be confidentiality and protection from unauthorized use of active and archived computerized clinical databases.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0490 Penalties for Clinical Records Rule Violations
Penalty assessments will be assessed on a daily basis for violations of parts 4658.0430 to 4658.0475 and are as follows:
A. part 4658.0430, $300;
B. part 4658.0435, $250;
C. part 4658.0440, $50;
D. part 4658.0445, subpart 1, $300;
E. part 4658.0445, subpart 2, $300;
F. part 4658.0445, subpart 3, $300;
G. part 4658.0445, subpart 4, $100;
H. part 4658.0450, $300;
I. part 4658.0455, item A, $250;
J. part 4658.0455, item B, $300;
K. part 4658.0455, item C, $300;
L. part 4658.0460, $50;
M. part 4658.0465, subpart 1, $50;
N. part 4658.0465, subpart 2, $100;
O. part 4658.0465, subpart 3, $300;
P. part 4658.0470, $100; and
Q. part 4658.0475, $300.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0500 Director of Nursing Services
Subpart 1. Qualifications and duties.
A nursing home must have a director of nursing services who is a registered nurse.
Subp. 2. Requirement of full-time employment.
A director of nursing services must be employed full time, no less than 35 hours per week, and be assigned full time to the nursing services of the nursing home.
Subp. 3. Assistant to director.
A nursing home must designate a nurse to be responsible for the duties of the director of nursing services related to the provision of resident services in the director's absence.
Subp. 4. Education.
A person newly appointed to the position of the director of nursing services must have training in rehabilitation nursing, gerontology, nursing service administration, management, supervision, and psychiatric or geriatric nursing before or within the first 12 months after appointment as director of nursing services.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0505 Responsibilities; Director of Nursing Services
The written job description for the director of nursing services must include responsibility for:
A. the total nursing care of residents and the accuracy of the nursing care records;
B. establishing and implementing procedures for the provision of nursing care and delegated medical care, developing nursing policy and procedure manuals that must be available at each nurse's station, and developing written job descriptions for each category of nursing personnel;
C. planning and conducting orientation programs for new nursing personnel, volunteers, and temporary staff, and continuing in-service education for all nursing home staff in nursing homes under 90 beds, if no one is designated as responsible for all in-service education;
D. determining with the administrator the numbers and levels of nursing personnel to be employed;
E. participating in recruitment, selection, and termination of nursing personnel;
F. assigning, supervising, and evaluating the performance of all nursing personnel;
G. delegating and monitoring nonnursing responsibilities to other staff consistent with their training, experience, competence, and legal authorization, and with nursing home policy;
H. participating in the selection of prospective residents based on nursing care needed and nursing personnel competencies available;
I. assuring that a comprehensive plan of care is established and implemented for each resident and that the plan is reviewed at least quarterly and within seven days of the revision of the comprehensive resident assessment required by part 4658.0400, subpart 3, item B;
J. coordinating nursing services for the residents in the nursing home with other resident care services provided both within and outside the nursing home;
K. participating in planning, decision making, and budgeting for nursing care;
L. interacting with physicians to plan care for residents; and
M. assuring that discharge and transfer planning for residents is conducted.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0510 Nursing Personnel
Subpart 1. Staffing requirements.
A nursing home must have on duty at all times a sufficient number of qualified nursing personnel, including registered nurses, licensed practical nurses, and nursing assistants to meet the needs of the residents at all nurses' stations, on all floors, and in all buildings if more than one building is involved. This includes relief duty, weekends, and vacation replacements.
Subp. 2. Minimum hour requirements.
The minimum number of hours of nursing personnel to be provided is:
A. For nursing homes not certified to participate in the medical assistance program, a minimum of two hours of nursing personnel per resident per 24 hours.
B. For nursing homes certified to participate in the medical assistance program, the nursing home is required to comply with Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.04, subdivision 7.
Subp. 3. On-site coverage.
A nurse must be employed so that on-site nursing coverage is provided eight hours per day, seven days per week.
Subp. 4. On call coverage.
A registered nurse must be on call during all hours when a registered nurse is not on duty.
Subp. 5. Assignment of duties.
Nursing personnel must not perform duties for which they have not had proper and sufficient training. Duties assigned to nursing personnel must be consistent with their training, experience, competence, and credentialing.
Subp. 6. Duties.
Nursing personnel must be employed and used for nursing duties only. A nursing home must provide sufficient additional staff for housekeeping, dietary, laundry, and maintenance duties and those persons must not provide nursing care.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0515 [Repealed, L 2000 c 312 s 7]
[Repealed, L 2000 c 312 s 7]
Minn. R. 4658.0520 Adequate and Proper Nursing Care
Subpart 1. Care in general.
A resident must receive nursing care and treatment, personal and custodial care, and supervision based on individual needs and preferences as identified in the comprehensive resident assessment and plan of care as described in parts 4658.0400 and 4658.0405. A nursing home resident must be out of bed as much as possible unless there is a written order from the attending physician that the resident must remain in bed or the resident prefers to remain in bed.
Subp. 2. Criteria for determining adequate and proper care.
The criteria for determining adequate and proper care include:
A. evidence of adequate care and kind and considerate treatment at all times. Privacy must be respected and safeguarded;
B. clean skin and freedom from offensive odors. A bathing plan must be part of each resident's plan of care. A resident whose condition requires that the resident remain in bed must be given a complete bath at least every other day and more often as indicated. An incontinent resident must be checked at least every two hours, and must receive perineal care following each episode of incontinence. Clean linens or clothing must be provided promptly each time the bed or clothing is soiled. Perineal care includes the washing and drying of the perineal area. Pads or diapers must be used to keep the bed dry and for the resident's comfort. Special attention must be given to the skin to prevent irritation. Rubber, plastic, or other types of protectors must be kept clean, be completely covered, and not come in direct contact with the resident. Soiled linen and clothing must be removed immediately from resident areas to prevent odors;
C. a shampoo at least weekly and assistance with daily hair grooming as needed;
D. assistance with or supervision of shaving of all residents as necessary to keep them clean and well-groomed;
E. assistance as needed with oral hygiene to keep the mouth, teeth, or dentures clean. Measures must be used to prevent dry, cracked lips;
F. proper care and attention to hands and feet. Fingernails and toenails must be kept clean and trimmed;
G. bed linen changed weekly, or more often as needed. Beds must be made daily and straightened as necessary;
H. clean clothing and a neat appearance. Residents must be dressed during the day whenever possible;
I. monitoring resident temperature, pulse, respiration, and blood pressure as often as indicated by the resident's condition but at least weekly; and
J. recording resident height and weight at the time of admission and weight at least monthly thereafter.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0525 Rehabilitation Nursing Care
Subpart 1. Program required.
A nursing home must have an active program of rehabilitation nursing care directed toward assisting each resident to achieve and maintain the highest practicable physical, mental, and psychosocial well-being according to the comprehensive resident assessment and plan of care described in parts 4658.0400 and 4658.0405. Continuous efforts must be made to encourage ambulation and purposeful activities.
Subp. 2. Range of motion.
A supportive program that is directed toward prevention of deformities through positioning and range of motion must be implemented and maintained. Based on the comprehensive resident assessment, the director of nursing services must coordinate the development of a nursing care plan which provides that:
A. a resident who enters the nursing home without a limited range of motion does not experience reduction in range of motion unless the resident's clinical condition demonstrates that a reduction in range of motion is unavoidable; and
B. a resident with a limited range of motion receives appropriate treatment and services to increase range of motion and to prevent further decrease in range of motion.
Subp. 3. Pressure sores.
Based on the comprehensive resident assessment, the director of nursing services must coordinate the development of a nursing care plan which provides that:
A. a resident who enters the nursing home without pressure sores does not develop pressure sores unless the individual's clinical condition demonstrates, and a physician authenticates, that they were unavoidable; and
B. a resident who has pressure sores receives necessary treatment and services to promote healing, prevent infection, and prevent new sores from developing.
Subp. 4. Positioning.
Residents must be positioned in good body alignment. The position of residents unable to change their own position must be changed at least every two hours, including periods of time after the resident has been put to bed for the night, unless the physician has documented that repositioning every two hours during this time period is unnecessary or the physician has ordered a different interval.
Subp. 5. Incontinence.
A nursing home must have a continuous program of bowel and bladder management to reduce incontinence and the unnecessary use of catheters. Based on the comprehensive resident assessment, a nursing home must ensure that:
A. a resident who enters a nursing home without an indwelling catheter is not catheterized unless the resident's clinical condition indicates that catheterization was necessary; and
B. a resident who is incontinent of bladder receives appropriate treatment and services to prevent urinary tract infections and to restore as much normal bladder function as possible.
Subp. 6. Activities of daily living.
Based on the comprehensive resident assessment, a nursing home must ensure that:
A. a resident is given the appropriate treatments and services to maintain or improve abilities in activities of daily living unless deterioration is a normal or characteristic part of the resident's condition. For purposes of this part, activities of daily living includes the resident's ability to:
B. a resident who is unable to carry out activities of daily living receives the necessary services to maintain good nutrition, grooming, and personal and oral hygiene.
Subp. 7. Nasogastric tubes, gastrostomy tubes, and feeding syringes.
Based on the comprehensive resident assessment, a nursing home must ensure that:
A. a resident who has been able to eat enough independently or with assistance is not fed by nasogastric tube or feeding syringe unless the resident's clinical condition demonstrates that use of a nasogastric tube or feeding syringe was unavoidable; and
B. a resident who is fed by a nasogastric or gastrostomy tube or feeding syringe receives the appropriate treatment and services to prevent aspiration pneumonia, diarrhea, vomiting, dehydration, metabolic abnormalities, and nasal-pharyngeal ulcers and to restore, if possible, normal feeding function.
Subp. 8. Prosthetic devices.
A nursing home must assist residents to adjust to their disabilities and to use their prosthetic devices.
Subp. 9. Hydration.
Residents must be offered and receive adequate water and other fluids to maintain proper hydration and health, unless fluids are restricted.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0530 Assistance with Eating
Subpart 1. Nursing personnel.
Nursing personnel must determine that residents are served diets as prescribed. Residents needing help in eating must be promptly assisted upon receipt of the meals and the assistance must be unhurried and in a manner that maintains or enhances each resident's dignity and respect. Adaptive self-help devices must be provided to contribute to the resident's independence in eating. Food and fluid intake of residents must be observed and deviations from normal reported to the nurse responsible for the resident's care during the work period the observation of a deviation was made. Persistent unresolved problems must be reported to the attending physician.
Subp. 2. Volunteers.
Volunteers may assist residents with eating if the following conditions are met:
A. the nursing home has a policy allowing that assistance. The policy must specify whether family members are allowed to assist their immediate relatives with eating and, if allowed, what training is required for family members;
B. the resident has been assessed and a determination made that the resident may be safely fed by a volunteer, and that is documented in the comprehensive plan of care;
C. the resident has agreed, or an immediate family member, the legal guardian, or designated representative has agreed for the resident, to be fed by a volunteer;
D. the volunteer has completed a training program on assisting residents with eating, which, at a minimum, meets the training and competency standards for eating assistance contained in the nursing assistant training curriculum;
E. the director of nursing services must be responsible for the monitoring of all persons, including family members, performing this activity; and
F. there are mechanisms in place to ensure appropriate reporting to nursing personnel of observations made by the volunteer during meal time.
Subp. 3. Risk of choking.
A resident identified in the comprehensive resident assessment, and as addressed in the comprehensive plan of care, as being at risk of choking on food must be continuously monitored by nursing personnel when the resident is eating so that timely emergency intervention can occur if necessary.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0580 Penalties for Nursing Services Rule Violations
Penalty assessments will be assessed on a daily basis for violations of parts 4658.0500 to 4658.0530 and are as follows:
A. part 4658.0500, subpart 1, $300;
B. part 4658.0500, subpart 2, $300;
C. part 4658.0500, subpart 3, $100;
D. part 4658.0500, subpart 4, $300;
E. part 4658.0505, items A to C, $300;
F. part 4658.0505, items D to F, $100;
G. part 4658.0505, item G, $300;
H. part 4658.0505, item H, $100;
I. part 4658.0505, item I, $300;
J. part 4658.0505, items J to M, $100;
K. part 4658.0510, subpart 1, $300;
L. part 4658.0510, subparts 2 to 5, $500;
M. part 4658.0510, subpart 6, $300;
N. part 4658.0515, $300;
O. part 4658.0520, subpart 1, $350;
P. part 4658.0520, subpart 2, items A to H, $350;
Q. part 4658.0520, subpart 2, items I to J, $300;
R. part 4658.0525, $350; and
S. part 4658.0530, $350.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0600 Dietary Service
Subpart 1. Food quality.
Food must have taste, aroma, and appearance that encourages resident consumption of food.
Subp. 2. Nutritional status.
The nursing home must ensure that a resident is offered a diet which supplies the caloric and nutrient needs as determined by the comprehensive resident assessment. Substitutes of similar nutritive value must be offered to residents who refuse food served.
Subp. 3. Availability of diet manuals.
The most recent edition of diet manuals must be readily available in the dietary department.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 19 SR 1803
Minn. R. 4658.0605 Direction of Dietary Department
Subpart 1. Dietitian.
The nursing home must employ a qualified dietitian either full time, part time, or on a consultant basis. For purposes of this chapter, a "qualified dietitian" means a person who:
A. is registered by the Commission on Dietetic Registration of the American Dietetic Association;
B. is licensed under Minnesota Statutes, section 148.624; or
C. has a bachelor's degree in dietetics, food and nutrition, or food service management plus experience in long-term care and ongoing continuing education in identification of dietary needs, and planning and implementation of dietary programs.
Subp. 2. Director of dietary service.
If a qualified dietitian is not employed full time, the administrator must designate a director of dietary service who is enrolled in or has completed, at a minimum, a dietary manager course, and who receives frequently scheduled consultation from a qualified dietitian. The number of hours of consultation must be based upon the needs of the nursing home. Directors of dietary service hired before May 28, 1995, are not required to complete a dietary manager course.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 19 SR 1803
Minn. R. 4658.0610 Dietary Staff Requirements
Subpart 1. Sufficient personnel.
The nursing home must employ sufficient personnel competent to carry out the functions of the dietary service. "Sufficient personnel" means enough staff to plan, prepare, and serve palatable, attractive, and nutritionally adequate meals at proper temperatures and appropriate times.
Subp. 2. Health.
The dietary staff must be free from symptoms of communicable disease and from open, infected wounds.
Subp. 3. Grooming.
Dietary staff must wear clean outer garments. Hairnets or other hair restraints must be worn to prevent the contamination of food, utensils, and equipment. Hair spray is not an acceptable hair restraint.
Subp. 4. Hygiene.
Dietary staff must thoroughly wash their hands and the exposed portions of their arms with soap and warm water in a handwashing facility before starting work, during work as often as is necessary to keep them clean, and after smoking, eating, drinking, using the toilet, or handling soiled equipment or utensils. Dietary staff must keep their fingernails clean and trimmed.
Subp. 5. Tobacco use.
Employees must not use tobacco in any form while on duty to handle, prepare, or serve food, or clean utensils and equipment.
Subp. 6. Eating.
All employees must consume food only in areas designated for employee dining. An employee dining area must not be designated if consuming food in that location could cause contamination of other food, equipment, or utensils. This subpart does not apply to cooks or other persons designated by the cook who test the food for flavor and palatability.
Subp. 7. Sanitary conditions.
Sanitary procedures and conditions must be maintained in the operation of the dietary department at all times.
Subp. 8. Food handling guide.
A current copy of the department's food handling guide entitled "Information for Food Service Personnel in Hospitals and Related Care Facilities" must be readily available for reference by all dietary personnel.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 19 SR 1803
Minn. R. 4658.0615 Food Temperatures
Potentially hazardous food must be maintained at 40 degrees Fahrenheit (four degrees centigrade) or below, or 150 degrees Fahrenheit (66 degrees centigrade) or above. "Potentially hazardous food" means any food subject to continuous time and temperature controls in order to prevent the rapid and progressive growth of infectious or toxigenic microorganisms.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 19 SR 1803; 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.0620 Frequency of Meals
Subpart 1. Time of meals.
The nursing home must provide at least three meals daily at regular times. There must be no more than 14 hours between a substantial evening meal and breakfast the following day. A "substantial evening meal" means an offering of three or more menu items at one time, one of which is a high-quality protein such as meat, fish, eggs, or cheese.
Subp. 2. Snacks.
The nursing home must offer evening snacks daily. "Offer" means having snacks available and making the resident aware of that availability.
Subp. 3. Time between meals.
Up to 16 hours may elapse between a substantial evening meal and breakfast the following day if a resident group, such as the resident council, agrees to this meal span and a nourishing evening snack is provided.
Subp. 4. Dining room.
Meals are to be served in a specified dining area consistent with the resident's choice and plan of care.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 19 SR 1803; 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.0625 Menus
Subpart 1. Menu planning.
All menus must be planned in advance, dated, and followed. Any changes in the meals actually served must be of equal nutritional value. The general menu for a seven-day period must be posted prior to the start of that seven-day period at a location readily accessible to residents, and any changes to the general menu must be noted on that posted menu. All menus and any changes for the current and following seven-day periods must be posted in the dietary area. Records of menus and of foods purchased must be filed for six months. A variety of foods must be provided. A file of tested recipes adjusted to a yield appropriate for the size of the home must be maintained.
Subp. 2. Food habits and customs.
There must be adjustment to the food habits, customs, likes, and appetites of individual residents including condiments, seasonings, and salad dressings. There must be resident involvement in menu planning.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 19 SR 1803
Minn. R. 4658.0630 Returned Food
Returned portions of food and beverages from individual servings may be reused if the food or beverage is served in a sealed wrapper or container which has not been unwrapped or opened and is not potentially hazardous.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 19 SR 1803
Minn. R. 4658.0635 Condiments
Condiments, seasonings, and salad dressing for resident use must be provided in individual packages or from dispensers.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 19 SR 1803
Minn. R. 4658.0640 Milk
Fluid milk and fluid milk products used must be pasteurized and must meet Grade A quality standards in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 32. The milk must be dispensed directly from the original container in which it was packaged, shipped, and received. This container may be individual portions, mechanically refrigerated bulk milk dispenser, or a commercially filled container of not more than one gallon capacity. Dry milk may not be reconstituted and served as fluid milk. Dry milk may be added to fluid milk and other foods to increase nutrient density. Dry milk, dry milk products, and commercial nondairy products may be used in instant dessert and whipped products or for cooking and baking.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 19 SR 1803
Minn. R. 4658.0645 Ice
Ice must be stored and handled in a sanitary manner. Stored ice must be kept in an enclosed container. If the container is not mechanically cooled, it must be cleaned at least daily and more often if needed. If an ice scoop is used, the scoop must be stored separately to prevent the handle from contact with the ice.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 19 SR 1803
Minn. R. 4658.0650 Food Supplies
Subpart 1. Food.
All food must be clean, wholesome, free from spoilage, free from adulteration and misbranding, and safe for human consumption. Canned or preserved food which has been processed in a place other than a commercial food-processing establishment is prohibited for use by nursing homes.
Subp. 2. Food brought into nursing home.
Nonprohibited food items from noncommercial sources such as fresh produce, game, and fish may be brought into the nursing home in accordance with nursing home policy.
Subp. 3. Food containers.
Food, whether raw or prepared, if removed from the container or package in which it was obtained, must be stored in a clean, covered container. The container need not be covered during necessary periods of preparation or service.
Subp. 4. Storage of nonperishable food.
Containers of nonperishable food must be stored a minimum of six inches above the floor in a manner that protects the food from splash and other contamination, and that permits easy cleaning of the storage area. Containers may be stored on equipment such as dollies, racks, or pallets, provided the equipment is easily movable and constructed to allow for easy cleaning. Nonperishable food and containers of nonperishable food must not be stored under exposed or unprotected sewer lines or similar sources of potential contamination. The storage of nonperishable food in toilet rooms or vestibules is prohibited.
Subp. 5. Storage of perishable food.
All perishable food must be stored off the floor on washable, corrosion-resistant shelving under sanitary conditions, and at temperatures which will protect against spoilage.
Subp. 6. Prohibited storage.
The storage of detergents, cleaners, pesticides, and other nonfood items not related to the operation of the dietary service, including employees' personal items, is prohibited in food storage areas. The nursing home may store dry goods and paper products related to the dietary service in the food storage area.
Subp. 7. Vending machines.
Storage and dispensing of food and beverages in vending machines must be in accordance with chapter 4626, and in accordance with any applicable local ordinances.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.08; 144.12; 144A.04; 144A.08; 157.011; 256B.431
- History: 19 SR 1803; 23 SR 519
Minn. R. 4658.0655 Transport of Food
The food service system must be capable of keeping food hot or cold until served. A dumbwaiter or conveyor, which cab or carrier is used for the transport of food and soiled dishes, must be sanitized immediately after the transportation of soiled dishes is complete, and prior to the transporting of food. The dumbwaiter or conveyor, which cab or carrier is used for the transport of soiled linens, may not be used for the transport of food or soiled dishes.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 19 SR 1803
Minn. R. 4658.0660 Floor Cleaning and Trash
Subpart 1. Cleaning during food preparation.
There must be no sweeping or mopping in the food preparation or service areas of the kitchen during the time of food preparation or service, except when necessary to prevent accidents.
Subp. 2. Nondietary activity trash, restrictions.
Trash or refuse unrelated to dietary activities must not be transported through food preparation areas or food storage areas for disposal or incineration.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 19 SR 1803
Minn. R. 4658.0665 Dishes and Utensils Requirements
The requirements in items A to E apply to the use of dishes and utensils.
A. Only dishes and utensils with the original smooth finishes may be used. Cracked, chipped, scratched, or permanently stained dishes, cups, or glasses or damaged, corroded, or open seamed utensils or cookware must not be used. All tableware and cooking utensils must be kept in closed storage compartments.
B. Accessories for food appliances must be provided with protective covers unless in enclosed storage.
C. Enclosed lowerators for dishes are acceptable.
D. Clean spoons, knives, and forks must be touched only by their handles. Clean cups, glasses, bowls, plates, and similar items must be handled without contact with inside surfaces or surfaces that contact the user's mouth.
E. Dishes or plate settings must not be set out on the tables more than two hours before serving time.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 19 SR 1803
Minn. R. 4658.0670 Dishwashing
Subpart 1. Requirements.
The dishwashing operation must provide separation in the handling of soiled and clean dishes and utensils, and must conform with either part 4658.0675 or 4658.0680 for washing, rinsing, sanitizing, and drying.
Subp. 2. Sanitization; storage.
All utensils and equipment must be thoroughly cleaned, and food-contact surfaces of utensils and equipment must be given sanitization treatment and must be stored in such a manner as to be protected from contamination. Cleaned and sanitized equipment and utensils must be handled in a way that protects them from contamination.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 19 SR 1803
Minn. R. 4658.0675 Mechanical Cleaning and Sanitizing
Subpart 1. Generally.
Mechanical cleaning and sanitizing must be done in the manner described by subparts 2 to 8.
Subp. 2. Cleaning and sanitizing.
Cleaning and sanitizing may be done by spray-type or immersion utensil washing machines or by any other type of machine or device if it is demonstrated that it thoroughly cleans, sanitizes equipment and utensils, and meets the requirements of Standard No. 3, spray-type dishwashing machines, issued by NSF International, June 1982. This standard is incorporated by reference. It is available through the Minitex interlibrary loan system. It is not subject to frequent change. These machines and devices must be properly installed and maintained in good repair. Machines and devices must be operated according to manufacturers' instructions, which must be posted nearby. Utensils and equipment placed in the machine must be exposed to all washing cycles. Automatic detergent dispensers, wetting agent dispensers, and liquid sanitizer injectors must be properly installed and maintained.
Subp. 3. Drainboards.
Drainboards must be provided and be of adequate size for the proper handling of soiled utensils before washing and for cleaned utensils following sanitization, and must be located and constructed so as not to interfere with the proper use of the dishwashing facilities. This does not preclude the use of easily movable dish tables for the storage of soiled utensils or the use of easily movable dish tables for the storage of clean utensils following sanitization.
Subp. 4. Preparing to clean.
Equipment and utensils must be flushed or scraped and, when necessary, soaked to remove gross food particles and soil before being washed in a dishwashing machine unless a prewash cycle is a part of the dishwashing machine operation. Equipment and utensils must be placed in racks, trays, or baskets, or on conveyors, in a way that food-contact surfaces are exposed to the unobstructed application of detergent wash and clean rinse water and that permits free draining.
Subp. 5. Chemical sanitization.
Single-tank machines, stationary-rack machines, door-type machines, and spray-type glass washers using chemicals for sanitization may be used, provided that:
A. wash water temperatures, addition of chemicals, rinse water temperatures, and chemical sanitizers used are in conformance with NSF International Standard No. 3, incorporated by reference in subpart 2, and Standard No. 29, Detergent and Chemical Feeders for Commercial Spray-Type Dishwashing Machines, issued by NSF International, November 1992. These standards are incorporated by reference. They are available through the Minitex interlibrary loan system. They are not subject to frequent change;
B. a test kit or other device that accurately measures the parts per million concentration of the sanitizing solution must be available and be used, and a log of the test results must be maintained for the previous three months;
C. containers for storing the sanitizing agent must be installed in such a manner as to ensure that operators maintain an adequate supply of sanitizing compound; and
D. a visual or audible warning device must be provided for the operator to easily verify when the sanitizing agent is depleted.
Subp. 6. Hot water sanitization.
Machines using hot water for sanitizing may be used provided that wash water and pumped rinse water are kept clean and water is maintained at not less than the temperature specified by NSF International Standard No. 3, incorporated by reference in subpart 2, under which the machine is evaluated. A pressure gauge must be installed with a valve immediately adjacent to the supply side of the control valve in the final rinse line provided that this requirement does not pertain to a dishwashing machine with a pumped final rinse.
Subp. 7. Air drying.
Dishes and utensils must be air dried before being stored or must be stored in a self-draining position. Properly racked sanitized dishes and utensils may complete air drying in proper storage places, if available.
Subp. 8. Cleaning of dishwashing machines.
Dishwashing machines must be cleaned at least once a day, or more frequently if required, in accordance with the manufacturer's recommendation.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 19 SR 1803
Minn. R. 4658.0680 Manual Cleaning and Sanitizing
Subpart 1. Generally.
Manual cleaning and sanitizing must be done in the manner described in subparts 2 to 9.
Subp. 2. Three compartment sink.
For manual washing, rinsing, and sanitizing of utensils and equipment, a sink with at least three compartments must be provided and be used. Sink compartments must accommodate food preparation equipment and utensils, and each compartment of the sink must be supplied with hot and cold potable running water. Fixed equipment and utensils and equipment too large to be cleaned in sink compartments must be washed manually or cleaned through pressure spray methods.
Subp. 3. Drainboards.
Drainboards must be provided at each end for proper handling of soiled utensils before washing and for cleaned utensils following sanitizing and must be located so as not to interfere with the proper use of the utensil washing facilities.
Subp. 4. Preparing to clean.
Equipment and utensils must be preflushed or prescraped and, when necessary, presoaked to remove gross food particles and soil.
Subp. 5. Manual dishwashing process.
Except for fixed equipment and utensils too large to be cleaned in sink compartments, manual washing, rinsing, and sanitizing must be conducted in the following manner:
A. sinks must be cleaned before use;
B. equipment and utensils must be thoroughly washed in the first compartment with a detergent in accordance with the detergent manufacturer's instructions;
C. equipment and utensils must be rinsed free of detergent and abrasives with clean water in the second compartment; and
D. equipment and utensils must be sanitized in the third compartment according to subpart 6.
Subp. 6. Sanitization methods.
The food-contact surfaces of all equipment and utensils must be sanitized by one of the following methods:
A. immersion for at least one-half minute in clean, hot water at a temperature of at least 170 degrees Fahrenheit (77 degrees centigrade);
B. immersion for at least one minute in a clean solution containing at least 50 parts per million, but no more than 200 parts per million, of available chlorine as a hypochlorite and at a temperature of at least 75 degrees Fahrenheit (24 degrees centigrade);
C. immersion for at least one minute in a clean solution containing at least 12.5 parts per million, but not more than 25 parts per million, of available iodine and having a pH range which the manufacturer has demonstrated to be effective and at a temperature of at least 75 degrees Fahrenheit (24 degrees centigrade);
D. immersion in a clean solution containing any other chemical sanitizing agent allowed under Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, section 178.1010, that will provide at least the equivalent bactericidal effect of a solution containing 50 parts per million of available chlorine as a hypochlorite at a temperature of at least 75 degrees Fahrenheit (24 degrees centigrade) for one minute; or
E. for equipment too large to sanitize by immersion, but in which steam can be confined, treatment with steam free from materials or additives other than those specified in Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, section 173.310. Equipment too large to sanitize by immersion must be rinsed, sprayed, or swabbed with a sanitizing solution of at least twice the required strength for that particular sanitizing solution.
Subp. 7. Hot water sanitization.
When hot water is used for sanitizing, the following equipment must be provided and used:
A. an integral heating device or fixture installed in, on, or under the sanitizing compartment of the sink capable of maintaining the water at a temperature of at least 170 degrees Fahrenheit (77 degrees centigrade);
B. a numerically scaled indicating thermometer, accurate to plus or minus three degrees Fahrenheit (plus or minus two degrees centigrade) convenient to the sink for frequent checks of water temperature; and
C. dish baskets or other equipment of such size and design to permit complete immersion of the tableware, kitchenware, and equipment in the hot water.
Subp. 8. Chemical sanitization.
When chemicals are used for sanitization, they must not have concentrations higher than the maximum permitted under Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, section 178.1010, and a test kit or other device that accurately measures the parts per million concentration of the solution must be provided and used, and a log of the test results must be maintained for the previous three months.
Subp. 9. Air drying.
All dishes and utensils must be air dried before being stored or must be stored in a self-draining position. Properly racked sanitized dishes and utensils may complete air drying in proper storage places, if available.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 19 SR 1803
Minn. R. 4658.0685 Penalties for Dietary and Food Services and Sanitation Rule Violations
Penalty assessments for violations of parts 4658.0600 to 4658.0680 are as follows:
A. part 4658.0600, subpart 1, $350;
B. part 4658.0600, subpart 2, $350;
C. part 4658.0600, subpart 3, $100;
D. part 4658.0605, subpart 1, $350;
E. part 4658.0605, subpart 2, $300;
F. part 4658.0610, subpart 1, $300;
G. part 4658.0610, subpart 2, $350;
H. part 4658.0610, subpart 3, $350;
I. part 4658.0610, subpart 4, $350;
J. part 4658.0610, subpart 5, $350;
K. part 4658.0610, subpart 6, $50;
L. part 4658.0610, subpart 7, $350;
M. part 4658.0610, subpart 8, $350;
N. part 4658.0615, $350;
O. part 4658.0620, subpart 1, $350;
P. part 4658.0620, subpart 2, $350;
Q. part 4658.0620, subpart 3, $350;
R. part 4658.0620, subpart 4, $100;
S. part 4658.0625, subpart 1, $300;
T. part 4658.0625, subpart 2, $300;
U. part 4658.0630, $350;
V. part 4658.0635, $350;
W. part 4658.0640, $350;
X. part 4658.0645, $350;
Y. part 4658.0650, subpart 1, $350;
Z. part 4658.0650, subpart 2, $350;
AA. part 4658.0650, subpart 3, $350;
BB. part 4658.0650, subpart 4, $350;
CC. part 4658.0650, subpart 5, $350;
DD. part 4658.0650, subpart 6, $350;
EE. part 4658.0650, subpart 7, $350;
FF. part 4658.0655, $350;
GG. part 4658.0660, subpart 1, $300;
HH. part 4658.0660, subpart 2, $300;
II. part 4658.0665, $300; and
JJ. parts 4658.0670 to 4658.0680, $300.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 19 SR 1803
Minn. R. 4658.0700 Medical Director
Subpart 1. Designation.
A nursing home must designate a physician to serve as medical director.
Subp. 2. Duties.
The medical director, in conjunction with the administrator and the director of nursing services, must be responsible for:
A. the development of resident care policies and procedures that are to be approved by the licensee;
B. implementation of resident care policies;
C. the development of standards of practice for medical care to provide guidance to attending physicians;
D. the medical direction and coordination of medical care in the nursing home, including serving as liaison with attending physicians, and periodic evaluation of the adequacy and appropriateness of health professional and supportive staff and services to meet the medical needs of residents;
E. surveillance of the health status of the nursing home's employees as it relates to the performance of their assigned duties;
F. periodic advisement to the director of nursing services to ensure a quality level of delegated medical care provided to residents; and
G. participation, or designation of another physician for participation, on the quality assessment and assurance committee as required by part 4658.0070.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0705 Medical Care and Treatment
Subpart 1. Physician supervision.
A nursing home must ensure that each resident has a physician designated to authorize and supervise the medical care and treatment of the resident during the resident's stay in the nursing home, and must ensure that another physician is available to supervise the resident's medical care when the attending physician is unavailable.
Subp. 2. Availability of physicians for emergency and advisory care.
A. A nursing home must provide or arrange for the provision of physician services 24 hours a day, in case of an emergency, and to act in an advisory capacity.
B. The name and telephone number of the emergency physician must be readily available at all times.
C. A nursing home must develop and maintain policies and procedures regarding obtaining medical intervention when the resident's attending physician or the emergency physician does not respond to a request for medical care or is not available in a timely manner.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0710 Admission Orders and Physician Evaluations
Subpart 1. Physical examination.
A resident must have a current admission medical history and complete physical examination performed and recorded by a physician, physician assistant, or nurse practitioner within five days before or within seven days after admission.
Subp. 2. Admission orders.
A nursing home must have physician orders for a resident's admission and immediate care at the time of admission.
Subp. 3. Frequency of physician evaluations.
A. A resident must be evaluated by a physician at least once every 30 days for the first 90 days after admission, and then whenever medically necessary. A physician visit is considered timely if it occurs within ten days after the date the visit was required.
B. Except as provided in this item, all required physician visits must be made by the physician personally. At the option of the physician, required visits after the initial visit may alternate between personal visits by the physician and visits by a physician assistant or nurse practitioner according to parts 5600.2600 to 5600.2670, chapters 6330 and 6340, and Minnesota Statutes, sections 147.34 and 148.235.
Subp. 4. Physician visits.
At each visit, a physician or physician's designee must:
A. review the resident's comprehensive plan of care, including medications and treatments, and progress notes;
B. write, sign, and date physician progress notes; and
C. sign and date all orders.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0715 Medical Information for Clinical Record
A physician or physician designee must provide the following information for the clinical record:
A. the report of the admission history and physical examination;
B. the admitting diagnosis;
C. a description of the general medical condition, including disabilities and limitations;
D. a report of subsequent physical examinations;
E. instructions relative to the resident's total program of care;
F. written orders for all medications with stop dates, treatments, rehabilitations, and any medically prescribed special diets;
G. progress notes;
H. any advanced directives; and
I. condition on discharge or transfer, or cause of death.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0720 Providing Daily Oral Care
Subpart 1. Daily oral care plan.
A nursing home must establish a daily oral care plan for each resident consistent with the results of the comprehensive resident assessment.
A. A resident's daily oral care plan must indicate whether or not the resident has natural teeth or wears removable dentures or partials. It must also indicate whether the resident is able to maintain oral hygiene independently, needs supervision, or is dependent on others.
B. A nursing home must provide a resident with the supplies and assistance necessary to carry out the resident's daily oral care plan. The supplies must include at a minimum: toothbrushes, fluoride toothpaste, mouth rinses, dental floss, denture cups, denture brushes, denture cleaning products, and denture adhesive products.
C. A nursing home must make the daily oral care plan available to the attending dentist before each checkup, and must modify the plan according to the dentist's, dental hygienist's, or other dental practitioner's directions.
Subp. 2. Labeling dentures.
A nursing home must label full and partial dentures with the resident's name or other identifiers within seven days of admission.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0725 Providing Routine and Emergency Oral Health Services
Subpart 1. Routine dental services.
A nursing home must provide, or obtain from an outside resource, routine dental services to meet the needs of each resident. Routine dental services include dental examinations and cleanings, fillings and crowns, root canals, periodontal care, oral surgery, bridges and removable dentures, orthodontic procedures, and adjunctive services that are provided for similar dental patients in the community at large, as limited by third party reimbursement policies.
Subp. 2. Annual dental visit.
A. Within 90 days after admission, a resident must be referred for an initial dental examination unless the resident has received a dental examination within the six months before admission.
B. After the initial dental examination, a nursing home must ask the resident if the resident wants to see a dentist and then provide any necessary help to make the appointment, on at least an annual basis. This opportunity for an annual dental checkup must be provided within one year from the date of the initial dental examination or within one year from the date of the examination done within the six months before admission.
Subp. 3. Emergency dental services.
A. A nursing home must provide, or obtain from an outside resource, emergency dental services to meet the needs of each resident. Emergency dental services include services needed to treat: an episode of acute pain in teeth, gums, or palate; broken or otherwise damaged teeth; or any other problem of the oral cavity, appropriately treated by a dentist, that requires immediate attention.
B. When emergency dental problems arise, a nursing home must contact a dentist within 24 hours, describe the dental problem, and document and implement the dentist's plans and orders.
Subp. 4. Dental records.
For each dental visit, the clinical record must include the name of the dentist or dental hygienist, date of the service, specific dental services provided, medications administered, medical or dental consultations, and follow-up orders.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0730 Nursing Home Requirements
Subpart 1. Training.
Nursing home staff providing daily oral care must be trained and competent to provide daily oral care for residents.
Subp. 2. Written agreement.
A nursing home must maintain a written dental provider agreement with at least one dentist, licensed by the Board of Dentistry, who agrees to provide:
A. routine and emergency dental care for the nursing home's residents;
B. consultation on the nursing home's oral health policies and procedures; and
C. oral health training for nursing home staff.
Subp. 3. Making appointments.
A nursing home must assist residents in making dental appointments and arranging for transportation to and from the dentist's office.
Subp. 4. On-site services.
A nursing home must arrange for on-site dental services for residents who cannot travel, if those services are available in the community.
Subp. 5. List of dentists.
A nursing home must maintain a list of dentists in the service area willing and able to provide routine or emergency dental services for the nursing home's residents. Copies of the list must be readily accessible to nursing personnel.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0750 Penalties for Physician and Dental Services Rule Violations
Penalty assessment will be assessed on a daily basis for violations of parts 4658.0700 to 4658.0730 and are as follows:
A. part 4658.0700, subpart 1, $100;
B. part 4658.0700, subpart 2, items A to F, $300;
C. part 4658.0700, subpart 2, item G, $100;
D. part 4658.0705, subpart 1, $300;
E. part 4658.0705, subpart 2, item A, $300;
F. part 4658.0705, subpart 2, item B, $100;
G. part 4658.0705, subpart 2, item C, $300;
H. part 4658.0710, subpart 1, $350;
I. part 4658.0710, subpart 2, $300;
J. part 4658.0710, subpart 3, item A, $350;
K. part 4658.0710, subpart 3, item B, $300;
L. part 4658.0710, subpart 4, $100;
M. part 4658.0715, $350;
N. part 4658.0720, subpart 1, $300;
O. part 4658.0720, subpart 2, $100;
P. part 4658.0725, subpart 1, $350;
Q. part 4658.0725, subparts 2 and 3, $300;
R. part 4658.0725, subpart 4, $100;
S. part 4658.0730, subparts 1 to 4, $300; and
T. part 4658.0730, subpart 5, $100.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0800 Infection Control
Subpart 1. Infection control program.
A nursing home must establish and maintain an infection control program designed to provide a safe and sanitary environment.
Subp. 2. Direction of program.
A nursing home must assign one person, either a registered nurse or a physician, the responsibility of directing infection control activities in the nursing home.
Subp. 3. Staff assistance with infection control.
Personnel must be assigned to assist with the infection control program, based on the needs of the residents and nursing home, to implement the policies and procedures of the infection control program.
Subp. 4. Policies and procedures.
The infection control program must include policies and procedures which provide for the following:
A. surveillance based on systematic data collection to identify nosocomial infections in residents;
B. a system for detection, investigation, and control of outbreaks of infectious diseases;
C. isolation and precautions systems to reduce risk of transmission of infectious agents;
D. in-service education in infection prevention and control;
E. a resident health program including an immunization program and policies and procedures of resident care practices to assist in the prevention and treatment of infections;
F. the development and implementation of employee health policies and infection control practices;
G. a system for reviewing antibiotic use;
H. a system for review and evaluation of products which affect infection control, such as disinfectants, antiseptics, gloves, and incontinence products; and
I. methods for maintaining awareness of current standards of practice in infection control.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.05; 14.3895; 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303; 44 SR 371
Minn. R. 4658.0805 Persons Providing Services
All persons providing services, including volunteers, with a communicable disease as listed in part 4605.7040 or with infected skin lesions must not be permitted to work in the nursing home unless it is determined that the person's condition will permit the person to work without endangering the health and safety of residents and other staff. The employee health policies required in part 4658.0800, subpart 4, item F, must address grounds for excluding persons from work and for reinstating persons to work due to a communicable disease or infected skin lesions.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0810 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4658.0815 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4658.0820 Food Poisoning and Disease Reporting
Any occurrence of food poisoning or reportable disease as listed in part 4605.7040 must be reported immediately to the Minnesota Department of Health, Acute Disease Epidemiology Division, 717 Delaware Street SE, Minneapolis, Minnesota 55414 (612-623-5414).
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.0850 Penalties for Infection Control Rule Violations
Penalty assessments will be assessed on a daily basis for violations of parts 4658.0800 to 4658.0820 and are as follows:
A. part 4658.0800, $300;
B. part 4658.0805, $300; and
C. part 4658.0820, $100.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.05; 14.3895; 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303; 44 SR 371
Minn. R. 4658.0900 Activity and Recreation Program
Subpart 1. General requirements.
A nursing home must provide an organized activity and recreation program. The program must be based on each individual resident's interests, strengths, and needs, and must be designed to meet the physical, mental, and psychological well-being of each resident, as determined by the comprehensive resident assessment and comprehensive plan of care required in parts 4658.0400 and 4658.0405. Residents must be provided opportunities to participate in the planning and development of the activity and recreation program.
Subp. 2. Frequency of program activities.
The activity and recreation program must be regularly scheduled every day, except that a nursing home may establish a policy designating holidays or other days that are exempt from scheduled activities. A schedule of the activities and recreation programming must be posted in a location readily accessible to residents at least one week in advance.
Subp. 3. Activity and recreation program director.
The activity and recreation program director must be a person who is trained or experienced to direct the activity and recreation staff and program at that nursing home.
Subp. 4. Staff assistance with activities.
Sufficient staff must be assigned to assist with the implementation of the activity and recreation program, as determined by the needs of the residents and the nursing home.
Subp. 5. Space, equipment, and materials.
The activity and recreation program must be provided with space both within the nursing home and out-of-doors. Appropriate and adequate equipment and materials must be provided to meet the needs of the activity and recreation program.
Subp. 6. Prohibition on charges.
A nursing home may not charge a resident for any portion of the activity and recreation program required in subpart 1. A nursing home may charge a resident for social events and entertainment offered outside the scope of the regularly scheduled activity and recreation program, if the event is requested by the resident and the nursing home informs the resident that there will be a charge.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.0950 Penalties for Activity and Recreation Program Rule Violations
Penalty assessments will be assessed on a daily basis for violations of part 4658.0900 and are as follows:
A. subparts 1, 3, and 6, $300; and
B. subparts 2, 4, and 5, $100.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.0960 Spiritual Needs
A nursing home must provide opportunities for the residents' spiritual needs to be met.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.0990 Penalties for Spiritual Needs Rule Violations
A $250 penalty assessment will be assessed on a daily basis for a violation of part 4658.0960.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.1000 Definitions
Subpart 1. Scope.
For the purposes of this chapter, the following terms have the meanings given them.
Subp. 2. Medically related social services.
"Medically related social services" means services provided by the nursing home's staff to assist residents in maintaining or improving their ability to manage their everyday physical, mental, and psychosocial needs.
Subp. 3. Qualified social worker.
Until June 30, 1996, "qualified social worker" means an individual with at least a bachelor's degree in a social work or a human services field, with at least one year of supervised social work experience in a health care setting working directly with individuals. Effective July 1, 1996, "qualified social worker" means an individual licensed as a social worker by the Minnesota Board of Social Work according to Minnesota Statutes, chapter 148B.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.1005 Social Services
Subpart 1. General requirements.
A nursing home must have an organized social services department or program to provide medically related social services to each resident. A nursing home must make referrals to or collaborate with outside resources for a resident who is in need of additional mental health, substance abuse, or financial services.
Subp. 2. Social worker.
A nursing home must employ a qualified social worker or a social services designee. A nursing home with more than 120 beds must have at least one filled qualified social worker position. The person or persons filling the qualified social worker position must be assigned full time to the social services of the nursing home and must fill at least one full-time equivalent position of at least 35 hours per week.
Subp. 3. Admission history and assessment.
A psychosocial history and assessment must be completed for each new resident within 14 days after admission. The psychosocial history and assessment must contain sufficient information related to the resident's condition to develop care planning goals based on that resident's needs and strengths and may be used as a part of the comprehensive resident assessment required by part 4658.0400. The psychosocial history and assessment must be included in the resident's clinical record.
Subp. 4. Updating the assessment.
The psychosocial assessment must be reviewed at least annually and updated as necessary.
Subp. 5. Providing social services.
Social services must be provided on the basis of identified social service needs of each resident, according to the comprehensive resident assessment and comprehensive plan of care described in parts 4658.0400 and 4658.0405.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.1090 Penalties for Social Services Rule Violations
Penalty assessments will be assessed on a daily basis for violations of parts 4658.1000 to 4658.1005 and are as follows:
A. part 4658.1005, subparts 1, 3, and 4, $300; and
B. part 4658.1005, subparts 2 and 5, $350.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.1100 Barber and Beauty Shop Services
A nursing home must provide or arrange for the provision of barber and beauty shop services.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.1190 Penalties for Barber and Beauty Shop Services Rule Violations
A $100 penalty assessment will be assessed on a daily basis for violations of part 4658.1100.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.1200 Specialized Rehabilitative Services
Subpart 1. Definitions.
For purposes of this part, the following terms have the meanings given them.
A. "Qualified personnel" means professional staff who are licensed, certified, or registered in accordance with applicable state laws and rules, and are educated to perform the particular service safely and competently.
B. "Specialized rehabilitative services" means restorative therapy and specialized maintenance therapy including, but not limited to, physical therapy, occupational therapy, and speech therapy.
Subp. 2. Provision of services.
If specialized rehabilitative services are required in the resident's comprehensive plan of care, the nursing home must:
A. provide the required services; or
B. obtain the required services from an outside source according to part 4658.0075.
Subp. 3. Qualified personnel.
Specialized rehabilitative services must be provided by qualified personnel under the written order of a physician or other health care practitioner authorized to prescribe.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.1290 Penalties for Specialized Rehabilitative Services Rule Violations
Penalty assessments will be assessed on a daily basis for violations of part 4658.1200 and are as follows:
A. part 4658.1200, subpart 2, $350; and
B. part 4658.1200, subpart 3, $300.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.1300 Medications and Pharmacy Services; Definitions
Subpart 1. Controlled substances.
"Controlled substances" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 152.01, subdivision 4.
Subp. 2. Schedule II drugs.
"Schedule II drugs" means drugs with a high potential for abuse that have established medical uses as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 152.02, subdivision 3.
Subp. 3. Pharmacy services.
"Pharmacy services" means services to ensure the accurate acquiring, receiving, and administering of all drugs to meet the needs of each resident.
Subp. 4. Drug regimen.
"Drug regimen" means all prescribed and over-the-counter medications a resident is taking.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.1305 Pharmacist Service Consultation
A nursing home must employ or obtain the services of a pharmacist currently licensed by the Board of Pharmacy who:
A. provides consultation on all aspects of the provision of pharmacy services in the nursing home;
B. establishes a system of records of receipt and disposition of all controlled drugs in sufficient detail to enable an accurate reconciliation; and
C. determines that drug records are accurately maintained and that an account of all controlled drugs is maintained.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.1310 Drug Regimen Review
A. The drug regimen of each resident must be reviewed at least monthly by a pharmacist currently licensed by the Board of Pharmacy. This review must be done in accordance with Appendix N of the State Operations Manual, Surveyor Procedures for Pharmaceutical Service Requirements in Long-Term Care, published by the Department of Health and Human Services, Health Care Financing Administration, April 1992. This standard is incorporated by reference. It is available through the Minitex interlibrary loan system. It is not subject to frequent change.
B. The pharmacist must report any irregularities to the director of nursing services and the attending physician, and these reports must be acted upon by the time of the next physician visit, or sooner, if indicated by the pharmacist. For purposes of this part, "acted upon" means the acceptance or rejection of the report and the signing or initialing by the director of nursing services and the attending physician.
C. If the attending physician does not concur with the pharmacist's recommendation, or does not provide adequate justification, and the pharmacist believes the resident's quality of life is being adversely affected, the pharmacist must refer the matter to the medical director for review if the medical director is not the attending physician. If the medical director determines that the attending physician does not have adequate justification for the order and if the attending physician does not change the order, the matter must be referred for review to the quality assessment and assurance committee required by part 4658.0070. If the attending physician is the medical director, the consulting pharmacist must refer the matter directly to the quality assessment and assurance committee.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.1315 Unnecessary Drug Usage
Subpart 1. General.
A resident's drug regimen must be free from unnecessary drugs. An unnecessary drug is any drug when used:
A. in excessive dose, including duplicate drug therapy;
B. for excessive duration;
C. without adequate indications for its use; or
D. in the presence of adverse consequences which indicate the dose should be reduced or discontinued. In addition to the drug regimen review required in part 4658.1310, the nursing home must comply with provisions in the Interpretive Guidelines for Code of Federal Regulations, title 42, section 483.25(1)(1) found in Appendix P of the State Operations Manual, Guidance to Surveyors for Long-Term Care Facilities, published by the Department of Health and Human Services, Health Care Financing Administration, April 1992. This standard is incorporated by reference. It is available through the Minitex interlibrary loan system and the State Law Library. It is not subject to frequent change.
Subp. 2. Monitoring.
A nursing home must monitor each resident's drug regimen for unnecessary drug usage, based on the nursing home's policies and procedures, and the pharmacist must report any irregularity to the resident's attending physician. If the attending physician does not concur with the nursing home's recommendation, or does not provide adequate justification, and the pharmacist believes the resident's quality of life is being adversely affected, the pharmacist must refer the matter to the medical director for review if the medical director is not the attending physician. If the medical director determines that the attending physician does not have adequate justification for the order and if the attending physician does not change the order, the matter must be referred for review to the Quality Assurance and Assessment (QAA) committee required by part 4658.0070. If the attending physician is the medical director, the consulting pharmacist shall refer the matter directly to the QAA.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.1320 Medication Errors
A nursing home must ensure that:
A. Its medication error rate is less than five percent as described in the Interpretive Guidelines for Code of Federal Regulations, title 42, section 483.25(m), found in Appendix P of the State Operations Manual, Guidance to Surveyors for Long-Term Care Facilities, which is incorporated by reference in part 4658.1315. For purposes of this part, a medication error means:
B. It is free of any significant medication error. A significant medication error is:
C. All medications are administered as prescribed. An incident report or medication error report must be filed for any medication error that occurs. Any significant medication errors or resident reactions must be reported to the physician or the physician's designee and the resident or the resident's legal guardian or designated representative and an explanation must be made in the resident's clinical record.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.1325 Administration of Medications
Subpart 1. Pharmacy services.
A nursing home must arrange for the provision of pharmacy services.
Subp. 2. Staff designated to administer medications.
A nurse or unlicensed nursing personnel, as described in part 4658.1360, must be designated as responsible for the administration of medications during each work period.
Subp. 3. List of staff to administer medications.
A list of staff authorized to administer medications must be available at each nursing station.
Subp. 4. Self-administration.
A resident may self-administer medications if the comprehensive resident assessment and comprehensive plan of care as required in parts 4658.0400 and 4658.0405 indicate this practice is safe and there is a written order from the attending physician.
Subp. 5. Medications administered by injection.
Medications for injection may be given only by a physician, physician assistant, registered nurse, nurse practitioner, or licensed practical nurse, or may be self-administered by a resident in accordance with subpart 4.
Subp. 6. Medications added to food.
Adding medication to a resident's food must be prescribed by the resident's physician and the resident, or the resident's legal guardian or designated representative, must consent to having medication added to food. This subpart does not apply to adding medication to food if the sole purpose is for resident ease in swallowing.
Subp. 7. Administration requirements.
The administration of medications must include the complete procedure of checking the resident's record, transferring individual doses of the medication from the resident's prescription container, and distributing the medication to the resident.
Subp. 8. Documentation of administration.
The name, date, time, quantity of dosage, and method of administration of all medications, and the signature of the nurse or authorized person who administered and observed the same must be recorded in the resident's clinical record. Documentation of the administration must take place following the administration of the medication. If administration of the medication was not completed as prescribed, the documentation must include the reason the administration was not completed, and the follow-up that was provided, such as notification of a registered nurse or the resident's attending physician.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303; L 2014 c 291 art 4 s 58
Minn. R. 4658.1330 Written Authorization for Administering Drugs
All medications, including those brought into a nursing home by a resident, must be administered only in accordance with a written order signed by a health care practitioner licensed to prescribe in Minnesota except that order may be given by telephone provided that the order is done according to part 4658.0455.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.1335 Stock Medications
Subpart 1. Stock supply medications.
Only medications obtainable without prescription may be retained in general stock supply and must be kept in the original labeled container.
Subp. 2. Emergency medication supply.
A nursing home may have an emergency medication supply which must be approved by the QAA committee. The contents, maintenance, and use of the emergency medication supply must comply with part 6800.6700.
Subp. 3. Prohibitions.
No prescription drug supply for one resident may be used or saved for the use of another resident in the nursing home.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.1340 Medicine Cabinet and Preparation Area
Subpart 1. Storage of drugs.
A nursing home must store all drugs in locked compartments under proper temperature controls, and permit only authorized nursing personnel to have access to the keys.
Subp. 2. Storage of Schedule II drugs.
A nursing home must provide separately locked compartments, permanently affixed to the physical plant or medication cart for storage of controlled drugs listed in Minnesota Statutes, section 152.02, subdivision 3.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.1345 Labeling of Drugs
Drugs used in the nursing home must be labeled in accordance with part 6800.6300.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.1350 Disposition of Medications
Subpart 1. Drugs given to discharged residents.
Current medications, except controlled substances listed in Minnesota Statutes, section 152.02, subdivision 3, belonging to a resident must be given to the resident, or the resident's legal guardian or designated representative, when discharged or transferred and must be recorded on the clinical record.
Subp. 2. Destruction of medications.
A. Unused portions of controlled substances remaining in the nursing home after death or discharge of a resident for whom they were prescribed, or any controlled substance discontinued permanently must be destroyed in a manner recommended by the Board of Pharmacy or the consultant pharmacist. The board or the pharmacist must furnish the necessary instructions and forms, a copy of which must be kept on file in the nursing home for two years.
B. Unused portions of other prescription drugs remaining in the nursing home after the death or discharge of the resident for whom they were prescribed or any prescriptions discontinued permanently, must be destroyed or must be returned to the pharmacy according to part 6800.2700, subpart 2. A notation of the destruction listing the date, quantity, name of medication, prescription number, signature of the person destroying the drugs, and signature of the witness to the destruction must be recorded on the clinical record.
Subp. 3. Loss or spillage.
When a loss or spillage of a prescribed Schedule II drug occurs, an explanatory notation must be made in a Schedule II record. The notation must be signed by the person responsible for the loss or spillage and by one witness who must also observe the destruction of any remaining contaminated drug by flushing into the sewer system or wiping up the spill.
Subp. 4. Returned to pharmacy.
Drugs and prescribed medications used in nursing homes may be returned to the dispensing pharmacy according to part 6800.2700, subpart 2.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303; 36 SR 237
Minn. R. 4658.1355 Medication Reference Book
A nursing home must maintain at least one current medication reference book. For the purposes of this part, "current" means material published within the previous two years.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.1360 Administration of Medications by Unlicensed Personnel
Subpart 1. Authorization.
The director of nursing services may delegate medication administration to unlicensed personnel according to Minnesota Statutes, sections 148.171, subdivision 15, and 148.262, subdivision 7.
Subp. 2. Training.
Unlicensed nursing personnel who administer medications in a nursing home must:
A. have completed a nursing assistant training program approved by the department; and
B. have completed a standardized medication administration training program for unlicensed personnel in nursing homes which is offered through a Minnesota postsecondary educational institution that includes, at a minimum, instruction on the following:
Subp. 3. Documentation of training course.
A nursing home must keep written documentation verifying completion of the required course by all unlicensed nursing personnel administering medications.
Subp. 4. Medication administration.
A person who completes the required training course, and has been delegated the responsibility, may administer medication, whether oral, suppository, eye drops, ear drops, inhalant, or topical, if:
A. the medications are regularly scheduled; and
B. in the case of pro re nata (PRN) medications, the administration of the medication is authorized by a nurse or reported to a nurse within a time period that is specified by nursing home policy prior to the administration.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303; L 1999 c 172 s 18
Minn. R. 4658.1365 Penalties for Medications and Pharmacy Services Rule Violations
Penalty assessments will be assessed for violations of parts 4658.1300 to 4658.1360 and are as follows:
A. part 4658.1305, $300;
B. part 4658.1310, $300;
C. part 4658.1315, $300;
D. part 4658.1320, $500;
E. part 4658.1325, subpart 1, $500;
F. part 4658.1325, subpart 2, $300;
G. part 4658.1325, subpart 3, $50;
H. part 4658.1325, subpart 4, $250;
I. part 4658.1325, subpart 5, $500;
J. part 4658.1325, subpart 6, $250;
K. part 4658.1325, subpart 7, $350;
L. part 4658.1325, subpart 8, $300;
M. part 4658.1330, $350;
N. part 4658.1335, $300;
O. part 4658.1340, $300;
P. part 4658.1345, $300;
Q. part 4658.1350, $300;
R. part 4658.1355, $100;
S. part 4658.1360, subpart 1, $350;
T. part 4658.1360, subpart 2, $300;
U. part 4658.1360, subpart 3, $50; and
V. part 4658.1360, subpart 4, $350.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4658.1400 Physical Environment
A nursing home must provide a safe, clean, functional, comfortable, and homelike physical environment, allowing the resident to use personal belongings to the extent possible.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.1405 Resident Units
The following items must be provided for each resident:
A. a bed of proper size and height for the convenience of the resident, a clean, comfortable mattress, and clean bedding, appropriate for the weather and resident's comfort, that are in good condition. Each bed must have a clean bedspread. A moisture-proof mattress or mattress cover must be provided for all residents confined to bed and for other beds as necessary. Rollaway type beds, cots, or folding beds must not be used;
B. a chair or place for the resident to sit other than the bed;
C. a place adjacent or near the bed to store personal possessions, such as a bedside table with a drawer;
D. clean bath linens provided daily or more often as needed; and
E. a bed light conveniently located and of an intensity to meet the needs of the resident while in bed or in an adjacent chair.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.1410 Linen
Nursing home staff must handle, store, process, and transport linens so as to prevent the spread of infection according to the infection control program and policies as required by part 4658.0800. These laundering policies must comply with the manufacturer's instructions for the laundering equipment and products and include a wash formula addressing the time, temperature, water hardness, bleach, and final pH.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.1415 Plant Housekeeping, Operation, and Maintenance
Subpart 1. Direction of housekeeping and plant management.
One or more persons, qualified through education and experience, must be assigned the responsibility of direction of housekeeping and plant management.
Subp. 2. Physical plant.
The physical plant, including walls, floors, ceilings, all furnishings, systems, and equipment must be kept in a continuous state of good repair and operation with regard to the health, comfort, safety, and well-being of the residents according to a written routine maintenance and repair program.
Subp. 3. Grounds.
The grounds must be maintained with regard to the health, comfort, safety, and well-being of the residents. Driveways, walks, outside steps, and ramps must be maintained in good condition for access and safe use at all times.
Subp. 4. Housekeeping.
A nursing home must provide housekeeping and maintenance services necessary to maintain a clean, orderly, and comfortable interior, including walls, floors, ceilings, registers, fixtures, equipment, lighting, and furnishings.
Subp. 5. Written program.
A nursing home must develop and implement a written program for routine daily housekeeping duties and any special cleaning necessary.
Subp. 6. Heating, air conditioning, and ventilation.
A nursing home must operate and maintain the mechanical systems to provide comfortable and safe temperatures, air changes, and humidity levels. Temperatures in all resident areas must be maintained according to items A to C.
A. For construction of a new physical plant, a nursing home must maintain a temperature range of 71 degrees Fahrenheit to 81 degrees Fahrenheit at all times.
B. For existing facilities, a nursing home must maintain a minimum temperature of 71 degrees Fahrenheit during the heating season.
C. Variations of the temperatures required by items A and B are allowed if the variations are based on documented resident preferences.
Subp. 7. Hot water temperature.
Hot water supplied to sinks and bathing fixtures must be maintained within a temperature range of 105 degrees Fahrenheit to 115 degrees Fahrenheit at the fixtures.
Subp. 8. Janitor's closet.
The janitor's closet and all other areas used by the environmental services personnel must be kept clean.
Subp. 9. Storage of supplies.
Supplies must be stored above the floor to facilitate cleaning of the storage area. Supplies must be identified. Toxic substances must be clearly identified and stored in a locked enclosure. Sterile supplies must be stored to maintain sterility and integrity in packaging. All substances, such as cleaning agents, bleaches, detergents, disinfectants, pesticides, paints, and flammable liquids, must be stored separately from all food and drugs.
Subp. 10. Boiler water additives.
Precautions must be taken to ensure that the type and concentration of boiler water additives is not harmful if steam is used for humidification or comes into direct contact with food.
Subp. 11. Insect and rodent control.
Any condition on the site or in the nursing home conducive to the harborage or breeding of insects, rodents, or other vermin must be eliminated immediately. A continuous pest control program must be maintained by qualified personnel.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.1420 Solid Waste Disposal
Solid wastes, including garbage, rubbish, recyclables, and other refuse must be collected, stored, and disposed of in a manner that will not create a nuisance or fire hazard, nor provide a breeding place for insects or rodents. Accumulation of combustible material or waste in unassigned areas is prohibited.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.1425 Ozone Generators
Ozone generators are prohibited.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.1490 Penalties for Environmental Services Rule Violations
Penalty assessments will be assessed on a daily basis for violations of parts 4658.1400 to 4658.1425 and are as follows:
A. part 4658.1400, $200;
B. part 4658.1405, $150;
C. part 4658.1410, $200;
D. part 4658.1415, subpart 1, $300;
E. part 4658.1415, subparts 2 to 7, $200;
F. part 4658.1415, subpart 8, $150;
G. part 4658.1415, subparts 9 to 11, $200;
H. part 4658.1420, $200; and
I. part 4658.1425, $150.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.1600 [Repealed, L 2001 1Sp9 art 5 s 41]
[Repealed, L 2001 1Sp9 art 5 s 41]
Minn. R. 4658.1605 [Repealed, L 2001 1Sp9 art 5 s 41]
[Repealed, L 2001 1Sp9 art 5 s 41]
Minn. R. 4658.1610 [Repealed, L 2001 1Sp9 art 5 s 41]
[Repealed, L 2001 1Sp9 art 5 s 41]
Minn. R. 4658.1690 [Repealed, L 2001 1Sp9 art 5 s 41]
[Repealed, L 2001 1Sp9 art 5 s 41]
Minn. R. 4658.2000 Secured Units
Subpart 1. Secured unit, definition.
For purposes of parts 4658.2000 to 4658.2090, "secured unit" means a nursing home unit in which a resident's horizontal and vertical access in or out of the unit is restricted.
Subp. 2. Locked unit, definition.
For purposes of parts 4658.2000 to 4658.2090, "locked unit" means a nursing home unit in which a resident's access is restricted because the doors to the unit are locked from the outside. A locked unit is a form of secured unit.
Subp. 3. Criteria for assignment to secured unit.
A resident may be assigned to placement in a secured unit only if the results of a comprehensive resident assessment as required by part 4658.0400 indicate that resident requires a more secure environment and there is a physician's written order for placement in a secured unit. A resident may choose to reside in a secured unit if the comprehensive resident assessment and plan of care as required by parts 4658.0400 and 4658.0405 determine that placement in a secured unit is appropriate for that resident.
Subp. 4. Approval by state fire marshal.
Fire safety systems and locking arrangements must be reviewed and approved by the state fire marshal according to part 4658.4030 before operation as a secured unit.
Subp. 5. Approval by department.
A secured unit must be approved by the department according to part 4658.4030 before operation as a secured unit. Any significant change to the statement of operations for the secured unit, as required by part 4658.2020, must be reviewed and approved by the department before making the change.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.2010 Physical Plant Requirements
The physical plant of the secured unit must include, at a minimum, resident bedrooms, a central bathing area, dayroom, dining room, nurses' station, clean utility room, and soiled utility room. The dining room and dayroom spaces in the secured unit must comply with part 4658.4200. The construction of a new secured unit physical plant, or any physical plant changes that meet the definition of "new construction" in part 4658.0010, subpart 5a, must be in compliance with the requirements for new construction in parts 4658.3500 to 4658.4690.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.2020 Statement of Operations
A nursing home must develop and implement a statement of operations for a secured unit, which must include, at a minimum:
A. a statement of the philosophy and objectives of the unit;
B. a description of the population to be served;
C. a list of the admission and discharge criteria; and
D. a list of any environmental changes or adaptations, and any necessary waivers for them granted by the department.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.2030 Specialized Care Unit
Subpart 1. Specialized care unit, defined.
For purposes of this part, "specialized care unit" means any nursing unit within a nursing home designed and advertised for a specific population.
Subp. 2. Statement of operations.
A nursing home must develop and implement a statement of operations for the specialized care unit, which must include, at a minimum:
A. the philosophy and objectives of the unit;
B. the intended population of the unit; and
C. admission and discharge criteria for the unit.
Subp. 3. Availability of statement of operations.
A nursing home must make the statement of operations for the specialized care unit available to the department and to the public.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.2090 Penalties for Specialized Units Rule Violations
Penalty assessments for violations of parts 4658.2000 to 4658.2030 shall be assessed on a daily basis and are as follows:
A. part 4658.2000, subpart 2, $300;
B. part 4658.2000, subpart 3, $200;
C. part 4658.2000, subpart 4, $200;
D. part 4658.2010, $200;
E. part 4658.2020, $100;
F. part 4658.2030, subpart 2, $100; and
G. part 4658.2030, subpart 3, $50.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.3000 Licensure
The commissioner of health must be notified directly in writing about proposed planning for all new construction, remodeling, changes in existing service, function or bed capacity, addition of new services, sale, and change of ownership.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.3005 Compliance with Rules
Subpart 1. New construction.
New construction must be according to the requirements for new construction in parts 4658.3500 to 4658.4690.
Subp. 2. Existing facilities.
All existing facilities must be in compliance with the physical plant requirements for new construction, except as noted in this chapter. When additional beds are added to existing facilities, the required dayroom and dining room areas must be based on the bed capacity of the entire facility. Compliance with the standards for new construction for existing facilities must be for the areas involved and to the extent that the existing structure will permit.
Subp. 3. Reclassification.
As a condition for reclassification of a boarding care home to a nursing home, the physical plant must be in compliance with all new construction requirements for nursing homes in this chapter. The department shall consider waiver requests under part 4658.0040 from a facility that is in substantial compliance with the new construction requirements in parts 4658.3500 to 4658.4690.
Subp. 4. State fire marshal.
Fire protection for the nursing home must be provided in accordance with the Minnesota Uniform Fire Code. The state fire marshal's approval of the fire safety features of the completed facility is required for initial licensure. A nursing home must remain in compliance with regulations enforced by the state fire marshal in order to qualify for continued licensure.
Subp. 5. Redecoration.
A nursing home must maintain specification sheets for all wall, floor, or ceiling covering materials, except paint. The materials and installation must be in accordance with the Life Safety Code.
Subp. 6. Remodeling.
New construction standards apply only to those materials, space, and equipment being remodeled. The new construction plan requirements of parts 4658.3500 to 4658.4090 apply to all remodeling projects.
Subp. 7. Replace-in-kind.
The department must be notified in writing prior to all replace-in-kind projects, except in the case of an emergency. Changes in space required for the replacement equipment must be only to the extent required by the newer equipment.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.3090 Penalties; Rule Violations
Penalty assessments for violations of parts 4658.3000 to 4658.3005 shall be assessed on a daily basis and are as follows:
A. part 4658.3000, $100;
B. part 4658.3005, subparts 2 and 4, $200; and
C. part 4658.3005, subparts 5 to 7, $100.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.3500 Incorporation by Reference; New Construction
Subpart 1. Scope.
For purposes of this chapter, the documents in subparts 2 to 6 are incorporated by reference. They can be found at the Minnesota Law Library, 25 Rev. Dr. Martin Luther King Jr. Blvd., Saint Paul, Minnesota 55155. They are also available through the Minitex interlibrary loan system. They are subject to frequent change. If any of the documents in subparts 2 to 6 are amended, then the amendments to the documents are also incorporated by reference. All construction, installations, and equipment must conform to the codes and standards in this part, provided that the requirements of such codes or standards are not inconsistent with the requirements of these regulations.
Subp. 2. Minnesota Rules.
The following documents are also available from the Print Communications Division, 117 University Avenue, Saint Paul, Minnesota 55155:
A. chapters 1300 to 1365, the Minnesota State Building Code;
B. chapter 4714, the Minnesota Plumbing Code; and
C. chapter 4626, the Minnesota Food Code.
Subp. 3. NSF international standards and criteria.
The following documents are also available from the NSF International, ATTN: Publications, P.O. Box 130140, Ann Arbor, Michigan 48113-0140:
A. Standard No. 1, Soda Fountain and Luncheonette Equipment, June 1984;
B. Standard No. 2, Food Equipment, May 1992;
C. Standard No. 3, Commercial Spray-Type Dishwashing Machines, June 1982;
D. Standard No. 4, Commercial Cooking, Rethermalization and Powered Hot Food Holding Equipment, May 1992;
E. Standard No. 5, Water Heaters, Hot Water Supply Boilers, and Heat Recovery Equipment, November 1992;
F. Standard No. 6, Dispensing Freezers, February 1989;
G. Standard No. 7, Food Service Refrigerators & Storage Freezers, May 1990;
H. Standard No. 8, Commercial Powered Food Preparation Equipment, November 1992;
I. Standard No. 12, Automatic Ice-Making Equipment, November 1992;
J. Standard No. 13, Refuse Compactors and Compactor Systems, November 1992;
K. Standard No. 18, Manual Food and Beverage Dispensing Equipment, November 1990;
L. Standard No. 25, Vending Machines for Food & Beverages, November 1990;
M. Standard No. 26, Pot, Pan, and Utensil Washers, December 1980;
N. Standard No. 29, Detergent & Chemical Feeders for Commercial Spray-Type Dishwashing Machines, November 1992;
O. Standard No. 35, Laminated Plastics for Surfacing Food Service Equipment, November 1991;
P. Standard No. 51, Plastic Materials and Components Used in Food Equipment, May 1978; and
Q. Criteria C-2, Special Equipment and/or Devices (Food Service Equipment), November 1983.
Subp. 4. NFPA documents.
The following documents are also available from the National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, Massachusetts 02269:
A. Life Safety Code, National Fire Protection Association, NFPA No. 101, 1985 edition; and
B. Health Care Facilities, National Fire Protection Association, NFPA, No. 99.
Subp. 5. ANSI/ASME document.
The following document, published by the American National Standards Institute and the American Society of Mechanical Engineers, is also available from the American National Standards Institute, 11 West 42nd Street, New York, New York 10036: ANSI/ASME A17.1-1993 and supplements.
Subp. 6. ASHRAE standard.
The following standard is also available from the American Society of Heating, Refrigeration, and Air-Conditioning Engineers, Inc., 1791 Tullie Circle Northeast, Atlanta, Georgia 30329-2305: Standard No. 52.1-1992.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.08; 144.12; 144A.04; 144A.08; 157.011
- History: 21 SR 196; 23 SR 519; 40 SR 71
Minn. R. 4658.3590 Penalties for Incorporations by Reference; New Construction Rule Violations
A $200 penalty shall be assessed on a daily basis for violations of part 4658.3500.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4000 Preparation of Plans; New Construction
Architectural and engineering plans and specifications for new construction must be prepared and signed by architects and engineers who are registered in Minnesota and in accordance with the requirements by the Board of Architecture, Engineering, Land Surveying, Landscape Architecture, and Interior Design.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4005 Approval of Plans; New Construction
Preliminary plans and final working drawings and specifications for proposed construction must be submitted to the commissioner of health for review and approval. Preliminary plans must be approved before the preparation of final working drawings is undertaken. Final working drawings and specifications must be approved before construction is begun.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4010 Preliminary Plans; New Construction
A. Preliminary plans must be drawn to scale, show basic dimensions, and indicate the general layout and space arrangement of the proposed building or area and must include a site plan when applicable. Plans must indicate assignments of rooms and areas, and must show bed capacities and fixed equipment.
B. The plans should include consideration for future expansion of a nursing home by consideration of the site, orientation of the structure on the site, parking, and resident, dietary, and laundry areas. If a laundry is not contemplated initially, provision must be made for its possible future location.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4015 Final Plans; New Construction
Final architectural plans and specifications must include elevations and sections through the building showing types of construction, and must indicate dimensions and assignments of rooms and areas, room finishes, door types and hardware, elevations and details of nurses' stations, utility rooms, toilets and bathing areas, and large-scale layouts of dietary and laundry areas. Plans must show location of fixed equipment and sections and details of elevators, chutes, and other conveying systems. Fire walls and smoke partitions must be indicated. The roof plan must show all mechanical installations. The site plan, if applicable, must indicate the proposed and existing buildings, topography, roadways, walks, and utility service lines.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4020 Final Mechanical and Electrical Plans; New Construction
Final mechanical and electrical plans and specifications must address the complete layout and type of all installations, systems, and equipment to be provided according to this chapter. Heating plans must include heating elements, piping, thermostatic controls, pumps, tanks, heat exchangers, boilers, breeching, and accessories. Ventilation plans must include room air quantities, ducts, fire and smoke dampers, exhaust fans, humidifiers, and air handling units. Plumbing plans must include a fixtures and equipment fixture schedule; water supply and circulating piping, pumps, tanks, riser diagrams, and building drains; the size, location, and elevation of water and sewer services; and the building fire protection systems. Electrical plans must include fixtures and equipment, receptacles, switches, power outlets, circuits, power and light panels, transformers, and service feeders. Plans must show location of nurse call signals, telephones, fire alarm stations and detectors, and emergency lighting.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4025 Start of Construction; New Construction
Subpart 1. Notification to department.
The department must be notified in writing within seven days after beginning construction. Unless construction is begun within one year after approval of final working drawings and specifications, the drawings must be resubmitted for renewal of review and approval.
Subp. 2. Approval of construction changes.
All construction must be executed according to the approved final plans and specifications. Subsequent construction changes addressed by this chapter must be approved by the department before the changes are made.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4030 Final Inspection; New Construction
The department must be notified at least 30 days before the completion of construction so that arrangements can be made for a final inspection by the department and by the state fire marshal. Completion means the entire construction, equipment, staffing patterns, and services. Mechanical and electrical systems must be completed and tested for performance and safety in accordance with specifications and state requirements before new construction can be licensed and residents admitted.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4035 Plan Safekeeping; New Construction
At least one set of complete plans of the entire facility, including changes resulting from remodeling or alterations, must be kept on file in the nursing home.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4040 Site; New Construction
A nursing home must be so located as to protect at all times the health, comfort, and safety of residents. The factors in selecting the site for a new nursing home must include the following in items A to J.
A. Public utilities must be available.
B. The water supply must be obtained from an approved public water supply system. If none is available, water must be obtained from a water supply system whose location, construction, and operation complies with parts 4720.0010 to 4720.4600 and, where applicable, parts 4725.0050 to 4725.7450. Plans and specifications for a private water supply system must be approved before construction of the system or the nursing home is started.
C. Sewage and other liquid wastes must be discharged into an approved public sewer system where available. If none is available, sewage must be collected, treated, and disposed of in a sewage disposal system which is designed, located, constructed, and operated according to chapter 7080. Plans and specifications for a private sewage disposal system must be approved before construction of the system or the nursing home is started.
D. The site must be no closer than 300 feet to the right-of-way of a railroad main line or to the property line of industrial developments which are nuisance-producing or hazardous to health under state or local law.
E. The site must not be located within 85 feet of underground or 300 feet of aboveground storage tanks or warehouses containing flammable liquids.
F. The site must be publicly accessible to fire department services, medical services, and community activities.
G. The topography must provide good natural drainage and not be subject to flooding.
H. Adequate all-weather roads and walks must be provided within the lot lines to the primary entrance and the service entrance, including employees' and visitors' parking at the site.
I. The primary entrance must be accessible for the elderly and individuals with disabilities.
J. The site must include space for outdoor activities.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 115.03; 115.55; 115.56; 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196; 24 SR 426
Minn. R. 4658.4090 Penalties for Plans; New Construction Rule Violations
Penalty assessments for violations of parts 4658.4000 to 4658.4040 shall be assessed on a daily basis and are as follows:
A. parts 4658.4000 to 4658.4035, $100; and
B. part 4658.4040, $200.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4100 Residents' Bedroom Requirements, Capacities; New Construction
At least five percent of the rooms must be designed for single person occupancy (one bed), and must have private toilet rooms. No room may have more than two beds. No toilet room may be shared by more than two bedrooms.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4105 Bedroom Design; New Construction
Subpart 1. Design.
Each bedroom must be designed and equipped for adequate nursing care, comfort, and privacy of residents, including full visual privacy of residents.
Subp. 2. Usable floor area.
The usable floor area and the arrangement and shape of the bedroom must provide space for furnishings, for the free movement of residents with physical disabilities, and for nursing procedures. "Usable floor area" does not include spaces occupied by toilet rooms, vestibules, permanently installed wardrobes, lockers, closets, or heating units. The usable floor area per bed must be at least 100 square feet per resident in double bedrooms, and at least 120 square feet in single bedrooms.
Subp. 3. Access to exit.
Each bedroom must have direct access to an exit corridor.
Subp. 4. Bedroom shape.
The shape of the bedroom must allow for the capability of a bed arrangement that provides at least three feet of floor space at both sides and the foot end of each bed.
Subp. 5. Window.
Each bedroom must have at least one window to the outdoors.
Subp. 6. Window area.
The window area must not be less than one-eighth of the required usable floor area, and the window sill must not be higher than two feet six inches above the floor. The entire window area must face an open outdoor space not less than 30 feet deep, and must provide an unobstructed angle of vision within this space of not less than 65 degrees. The 30-foot-deep open outside space must be measured perpendicular to the plane of the window. The 65 degree unobstructed angle of vision must include the perpendicular bisector of the window. Figure #1 illustrates these requirements:
Subp. 7. Floor at grade level.
Each bedroom must have a floor at or above grade level. An energy conservation berm as detailed in the diagram below is permitted. The following three diagrams illustrate acceptable methods of compliance with this subpart.
Subp. 8. Distance from nurses' station.
Bedrooms must be located not more than 140 feet from the nurses' station.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196; L 2005 c 56 s 2
Minn. R. 4658.4110 Bedroom Doors; New Construction
Subpart 1. Written policy.
A nursing home must develop a written policy regarding the use of locks on bedroom doors. The policy must address whether or not doors can be locked while the resident is in the room.
Subp. 2. Door locks.
All bedroom door locks must permit exit from the room by a simple operation without the use of a key. All locks must be openable with a master key which is located at each nurses' station.
Subp. 3. Door.
The door to the corridor must be of fire-resistive construction in accordance with the Minnesota State Building Code, open into the bedroom, and have a nominal width of 44 inches. Bedroom doors must not open directly to an area where services are provided.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4115 Clothes Wardrobe or Closet; New Construction
A nursing home must provide each resident with individual wardrobe or closet space in the resident's bedroom with clothes racks and shelves accessible to the resident. Locks may be provided, with keys for the residents when a pass key is available at the nurses' station.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4120 Handrails and Corridors; New Construction
Subpart 1. Handrails.
Securely anchored, durable handrails must be provided on both sides of corridors used by residents. If a length of corridor space between doorways is 60 inches or less, a handrail is not necessary for that portion of the corridor. The handrails must be mounted at a height of 32 to 34 inches to the top of the handrail. The handrail must be a round or oval section, 1-1/2 to two inches in diameter, and the clear distance between the handrail and wall must be 1-1/2 inches. The handrail must be designed to provide the means for a full hand grip around the handrail. Wall bracket supports must be provided at least six feet on center, and the mounted brackets must be capable of supporting a load of not less than 250 pounds. The following two diagrams illustrate two acceptable handrails.
Subp. 2. Corridor width.
The unobstructed width of all corridors in resident areas must be at least eight feet. All exits must comply with the Minnesota State Building Code.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4125 Nursing Area; New Construction
Subpart 1. Nurses' station.
At least one nurses' station must be provided per resident floor. A nurses' station may serve more than one nursing area on the same floor if the maximum distance from resident bedrooms does not exceed that required in part 4658.4105, subpart 8. The nurses' station must be equipped to receive resident calls through a communication system from resident rooms and toilet and bathing facilities.
Subp. 2. Location.
Each nursing station must be located to provide for observation of corridors, residents, and resident calls. Private space must be provided for charting, storage of charts and supplies, and medicine preparation. The medication preparation area may be within the nurses' station or the clean utility room. Each nurses' station must contain facilities for cleanup and handwashing.
Subp. 3. Staff toilet.
A separate staff toilet room must be provided near the nurses' station.
Subp. 4. Clean utility room.
A clean utility room must be provided within each nursing area. The clean utility room must contain a sink with institutional fittings. Cabinets and shelving must be provided for the storage of materials and supplies.
Subp. 5. Soiled utility room.
A separate soiled utility room must be provided within each nursing area. It must contain handwashing facilities and a clinical service sink for disposal of waste materials and the cleanup of soiled linen and utensils. Cabinets and shelving must be provided for the storage of materials and supplies.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4130 Nourishment Area; New Construction
Subpart 1. Equipment.
A nourishment area must be provided for serving between-meal refreshments. It may serve more than one nursing area, and may be located contiguous to a dayroom. The nourishment area must be provided with a work counter and sink, storage cabinets, and a refrigerator. The equipment may be residential-type equipment as long as the nourishment area is not used as part of the dietary department.
Subp. 2. Range disconnect switch.
If the nourishment area includes an electric range that is accessible to the residents, a key-operated disconnect switch, with indicator light, must be provided for that range. The disconnect switch and indicator light must be readily accessible for staff.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4135 Toilet Rooms and Sanitary Fixtures; New Construction
Subpart 1. Design and equipment.
Toilet rooms for residents, personnel, and the public must be designed and equipped according to part 4658.4145, except as noted in this part. A nursing home must have at least one toilet and one sink for four beds, and at least one shower or tub for 20 beds, excluding toilets for personnel or the public, and toilets in central bathing and other service areas. At least one toilet room must be designed and equipped according to part 4658.4150 and available for public use. Each toilet room must include a sink. All sinks must be provided with hot and cold water.
Subp. 2. Showers and tubs.
There must be at least one shower and one tub in each nursing home.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4140 Provision of Resident Toilet Rooms; New Construction
Each resident toilet room must be directly accessible from the bedroom. A toilet room may serve two bedrooms, but no more than four beds, if residents are of the same sex. Hinged doors must swing out, or must be double acting and provided with an emergency-type release stop. Privacy door locks must be of a type which can be opened by staff in an emergency. Sliding doors must be surface mounted. Folding doors and pocket doors are prohibited.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4145 Toilet Room Layout; New Construction
The layout for a toilet room must include items A to J.
A. The door opening must have a clear opening of at least 32 inches. Hinged doors must swing out, or must be double acting and provided with an emergency-type release stop.
B. The center of the toilet must be located 18 inches from the side wall and there must be at least three feet of unobstructed space in front of the bowl. No basic interior room dimension may be less than 42 inches.
C. The toilet must be mounted at a height of not less than 17 inches nor more than 19 inches above the floor, measured to the top of the seat. The bowl must be elongated with an open-front seat.
D. Flush valves must be a quiet operating type.
E. The paper holder must be securely anchored on the side wall near the toilet, six inches above the seat, and six to 12 inches in front of the seat with both dimensions measured to the center of the holder.
F. A vertical grab bar, at least 18 inches long, must be provided on the side wall near the toilet. The low end must be mounted at a height of ten inches above the toilet seat and at a distance of 12 inches in front of the seat. A grab bar on each side of the toilet is recommended.
G. Grab bars must have an outside diameter of 1-1/4 to 1-1/2 inches, and must provide a clearance of 1-1/2 inches between the grab bar and the wall. Grab bars must be securely anchored to sustain a load of 250 pounds for five minutes.
H. The sink, with or without a counter top, must be mounted at a height of 32 to 34 inches above the floor, measured to the top edge.
I. A towel bar must be provided at a height of 42 to 44 inches above the floor. It must be a horizontal grab bar.
J. A shelf large enough to accommodate a resident's personal toilet accessories must be provided, unless space is provided by a suitable sink or a counter.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4150 Physically Accessible Toilet Rooms; New Construction
The layout for physically accessible toilet rooms must include items A to M.
A. Toilet rooms for wheelchair users must be arranged to allow movement for the frontal, oblique, and lateral angle approach.
B. The door opening must have a clear opening of at least 32 inches, and must be located within an area in front of the toilet. Hinged doors must swing out, or must be double acting and be provided with an emergency-type release stop. Privacy door locks must be of a type which can be opened by staff in an emergency.
C. The center of the toilet must be located 18 inches from the side wall and there must be at least four feet of unobstructed space in front of the bowl. All basic interior room dimensions must be at least 66 inches.
D. The toilet must be mounted at a height of 17 to 19 inches above the floor, measured to the top of the seat. The bowl must be elongated with an open front seat.
E. Flush valves must be a quiet operating type.
F. The paper holder must be securely anchored on the side wall near the toilet, 19 to 25 inches above the floor, and six to 12 inches in front of the seat with both dimensions measured to the center of the holder.
G. An L-shaped grab bar, each leg at least 18 inches long, must be provided, securely anchored on the side wall near the toilet. The low end of the vertical leg must be mounted at a height of ten inches above the toilet seat and at a distance of 12 inches in front of the seat, and the horizontal grab bar must extend toward the back wall.
H. A horizontal grab bar must be mounted on the wall at the rear of the toilet at a height of 33 to 36 inches above the floor. The grab bar must be at least 36 inches long.
I. Grab bars must have an outside diameter of 1-1/4 to 1-1/2 inches, and must provide a clearance of 1-1/2 inches between the grab bar and the wall. Grab bars must be securely anchored to sustain a load of 250 pounds for five minutes.
J. The sink, with or without a counter top, must be accessible and must not interfere with general wheelchair movements. It must be mounted at a height of 34 inches above the floor, measured to the top edge, and must provide a vertical clearance of at least 27 inches for knee space. A standard-type sink which meets these conditions is acceptable.
K. A towel bar must be provided at a height of 42 to 44 inches. It must be a horizontal grab bar.
L. If a mirror is provided, and is mounted flush to the wall, the bottom of the mirror must be placed at a height of 36 inches and the top at a height of at least 66 inches. Tilting mirrors are allowed provided they are mounted to meet the needs of the residents.
M. A shelf large enough to accommodate a resident's personal toilet accessories must be provided at a height of 32 to 36 inches, unless space is provided by a suitable sink or a counter.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196; L 2005 c 56 s 2
Minn. R. 4658.4155 Central Bathing Area; New Construction
Subpart 1. Fixtures.
Bathing fixtures must be provided in accordance with part 4658.4135.
Subp. 2. General requirements.
A. In bathing areas with more than one fixture, each bathtub or shower area must be provided with privacy curtains or wall dividers.
B. If a toilet is located within an open area with multiple bathing fixtures, the toilet area must be provided with privacy curtains or stall partitions.
C. All bathtub and shower areas must be designed for assisted bathing.
D. The bathing area must have direct access to a toilet room or space without going through the general corridor, and the toilet room or space must allow space for assistance of residents according to part 4658.4150.
E. Bathtubs and showers must be provided with a nonslip bottom or floor surface and at least one grab bar, securely anchored, must be provided at each fixture.
F. If towel bars are provided, they must be horizontal grab bars, securely anchored.
G. A bar soap holder, if provided, must be without handles and recessed.
H. The door or doors to the bathing area must have privacy door locks. Hinged doors must swing out, or they must be double acting and be provided with an emergency-type release stop.
Subp. 3. Shower areas.
A. Central showers must not be less than 48 inches by 48 inches, or 54 inches by 42 inches with the long side open, without a curb, and with a 32-inch high splash protection.
B. The shower area must have controls located near the splash protection for easy reach by both resident and attendant. A flexible hose hand shower must be provided.
C. A vertical, nonslip grab bar, 24 inches long, must be provided at the shower and at the shower entrance location. The low end of the grab bar must be 36 inches above the floor. Horizontal grab bars inside the wet areas must be mounted at a height of 54 inches above the floor.
Subp. 4. Bathtub areas.
A. The location of the tub and the design of the central bathing area must allow a minimum of four feet of clearance around the working areas of the tub.
B. A pedestal used to elevate a standard-type bathtub must be provided with a finished cleanable surface, and include a toe space.
C. A flexible hose hand shower must be provided.
D. Horizontal or vertical grab bars must be located in proximity to the tub in order to accommodate safe use of the tub and the requirements of the bathing program, including drying of residents. These grab bars must be either wall-mounted or part of the tub design and construction.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4160 Drinking Fountains; New Construction
Refrigerated drinking fountains must be provided in resident areas, the recreational or activities area, and in or near the dining area.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4165 Handwashing Facilities; New Construction
Handwashing facilities must be available for persons providing services to residents. Single-service towels must be available at all times. Use of a common towel is prohibited.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4170 Storage; New Construction
Subpart 1. Equipment and supplies.
A. A storage room or rooms must be provided in each nursing area.
B. Total storage area within the nursing home for the storage of equipment and supplies must be provided in the amount of at least 15 square feet per bed including space for the storage of:
C. Space for storage of food and linens must be provided in addition to the required storage area in item B.
Subp. 2. Housekeeping supplies.
An area for the storage of housekeeping supplies and equipment must be provided in each janitor's closet.
Subp. 3. Yard maintenance equipment and supplies.
Separate enclosed storage space for the storage of yard maintenance equipment and supplies must be provided outside the nursing home.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4175 Janitor's Closet; New Construction
A janitor's closet must be provided for each resident floor or nursing area.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4180 Room Labeling; New Construction
All bedrooms must be labeled using a system of numbers. All service rooms must be labeled.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4190 Penalties for Resident Areas; New Construction Rule Violations
Penalty assessments for violations of parts 4658.4100 to 4658.4180 shall be assessed on a daily basis and are as follows:
A. part 4658.4100, $150;
B. part 4658.4105, subpart 1, $200;
C. part 4658.4105, subpart 2, $150;
D. part 4658.4105, subparts 3 to 5, $200;
E. part 4658.4105, subpart 6, $150;
F. part 4658.4105, subpart 7, $200;
G. part 4658.4105, subpart 8, $150;
H. part 4658.4110, subpart 1, item A, $100;
I. part 4658.4110, subpart 1, item B, $500;
J. part 4658.4110, subpart 2, $200;
K. part 4658.4115, $150;
L. part 4658.4120, $200;
M. part 4658.4125, subpart 1, $150;
N. part 4658.4125, subparts 2 and 3, $200;
O. part 4658.4130, subpart 1, $150;
P. part 4658.4130, subpart 2, $200;
Q. part 4658.4135, $150;
R. part 4658.4140, $150;
S. part 4658.4145, items A to E, $150;
T. part 4658.4145, items F and G, $200;
U. part 4658.4145, items H to J, $150;
V. part 4658.4150, items A to F, $150;
W. part 4658.4150, items G to I, $200;
X. part 4658.4150, items J to M, $150;
Y. part 4658.4155, subpart 2, items A to D, $150;
Z. part 4658.4155, subpart 2, items E and F, $200;
AA. part 4658.4155, subpart 2, items G and H, $150;
BB. part 4658.4155, subpart 3, items A and B, $150;
CC. part 4658.4155, subpart 3, item C, $200;
DD. part 4658.4155, subpart 4, items A to C, $150;
EE. part 4658.4155, subpart 4, item D, $200;
FF. part 4658.4160, $150;
GG. part 4658.4165, $150;
HH. part 4658.4170, $150;
II. part 4658.4175, $150; and
JJ. part 4658.4180, $50.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4200 Dining, Dayroom, and Activity Areas, Required Floor Area; New Construction
Subpart 1. Total area.
The total area set aside for dining, dayroom, and activities must be at least 40 square feet per bed, with a minimum of five square feet per bed for each type of area.
Subp. 2. Space for adult day care.
Additional space must be provided, according to part 9555.9730, for dining, dayroom, and activities areas if the nursing home is offering a day care program.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4205 Dayroom; New Construction
Dayroom space must not include areas used for corridor traffic or chapels with fixed pews. Dayrooms must be located convenient to the bedroom areas and there must be at least one on each bedroom floor in multistory construction. Dayrooms must be provided with natural lighting.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4210 Dining Area; New Construction
The dining area must be separate from the kitchen. The dining area or areas must have windows facing the outdoors.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4215 Activities Area; New Construction
Display space for individual resident's projects must be provided. A counter, physically accessible handwashing facility, and a single-service towel dispenser must be provided within an activities area. If provided, a ceramic kiln must be installed in accordance with the Uniform Mechanical Code.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196; L 2005 c 56 s 2
Minn. R. 4658.4290 Penalties for Supportive Services; New Construction Rule Violations
A $150 penalty shall be assessed on a daily basis for violations of parts 4658.4200 to 4658.4215.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4300 Kitchen Area; New Construction
Subpart 1. In general.
The kitchen must be located conveniently to the service entrance, food storage areas, and dining area. Door openings to food preparation areas must be located away from entrances to soiled linen or utility rooms, trash rooms, or a laundry. The kitchen area must be arranged for efficient operation and must contain sufficient space and equipment for the type of food service selected. If a commercial food service is used, or if meals are provided by another facility, the kitchen areas and equipment must be designed to provide for the safe and sanitary storage, processing, and handling of such food. The kitchen area must be subjected only to that traffic which is directly related to the functions of the food service. Food storage areas must be located to avoid delivery traffic through the kitchen area.
A kitchen and food storage area designed for limited food preparation should be arranged for possible future expansion in case a nursing home reverts to a standard-type food service at a later date. Doors with locks must be provided to secure the kitchen and food storage areas during off-hours.
Subp. 2. Storage for nonperishable food.
A well-ventilated storeroom must be provided for day storage and for the reserve food supply. The maximum temperature of the storeroom must not exceed 85 degrees Fahrenheit. The storeroom must have storage capacity for at least one week's supplies. Shelving must be finished with a washable surface, and the bottom shelf must be at least six inches above the floor. Floor drains must not be provided.
Subp. 3. Storage facilities.
Mechanical refrigeration or hot food storage facilities must be provided to ensure the maintenance of potentially hazardous food at required temperatures. Each storage facility must be provided with a numerically scaled-temperature indicating device accurate to plus or minus three degrees Fahrenheit (plus or minus two degrees centigrade) located to measure the air temperature in the warmest part of the refrigeration facility or the coldest part of the hot holding facility. Temperature-indicating devices must be securely fastened and located to be easily readable. Where it is impractical to install fixed temperature-indicating devices on equipment such as cold table tops, steam tables, processing lines, kettles, heat lamps, or portable transport carriers, a product thermometer of metal stem type construction, numerically scaled, and accurate to plus or minus two degrees Fahrenheit (plus or minus one degree centigrade) must be provided and used to check internal food temperatures. Floor drains, directly connected to the building sewer system, must not be provided inside the room.
Subp. 4. Storage for dishes and utensils.
Enclosed storage must be provided for all china, glasses, flatware, and other food service utensils, including cooking utensils, pots, and pans. Dishes and utensils must not be stored in the dishwashing area.
Subp. 5. Janitor's closet.
The dietary department must be provided with its own janitor's closet with a floor receptor or service sink, and storage for housekeeping supplies and equipment.
Subp. 6. Sinks.
At least one sink with a single-service towel dispenser must be provided in the food preparation area and in the clean end of the dishwashing area. Mirrors must not be installed in food preparation areas. The use of a common towel is prohibited.
Subp. 7. Toilet room.
A toilet room must be accessible for the dietary staff. It must not open directly into any food service area. It must contain a toilet, sink, mirror, and a single-service towel dispenser. The use of a common towel is prohibited.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4305 Food Service Equipment; New Construction
Subpart 1. In general.
All food service equipment, including ice makers, drinking fountains, and dishwashers, must comply with part 4658.3500, subpart 3. Food storage equipment must be designed and constructed according to NSF International Standard No. 2. Materials used on the interior and exterior exposed surfaces of the food storage equipment must be NSF International approved. Counter tops for all food service cabinets must be NSF International approved. The complete food storage equipment does not require NSF International approval. Sufficient separation must be provided between each piece of equipment and between equipment and walls to permit easy and effective cleaning, or the equipment must be placed with a tight fit and the joints sealed. Equipment which is not sealed at the floor must have casters or be installed on sanitary legs that provide at least six inches clearance between the equipment and the floor. Aisles between equipment must have a minimum width of four feet to allow room for traffic in work areas and to permit movement of mobile equipment.
Subp. 2. Food carts.
Floor space designated for the storage of all food carts must be provided within the kitchen area.
Subp. 3. Cutting boards.
Cutting boards or similar use table tops must be constructed of nonporous, smooth, and cleanable material, and be free of cracks, crevices, and open seams.
Subp. 4. Scullery sink.
For manual washing, rinsing, and sanitizing of utensils and equipment, a sink with at least three compartments must be provided and used. Sink compartments must be large enough to permit the accommodation of the equipment and utensils and each compartment of the sink must be supplied with hot and cold potable running water. Drain boards must be provided at each end for proper handling of soiled utensils before washing and for cleaned utensils following sanitizing and must be located so as not to interfere with the proper use of the utensil washing facilities. If a mechanical dishwasher or a mechanical utensil washer is used for the sanitizing of pots and pans, a sanitizing compartment is not required and a two-compartment scullery sink is acceptable as used according to parts 4658.0675 and 4658.0680.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4310 Dishwashing Area; New Construction
The dishwashing area must be separate from the food preparation area, and must be arranged and equipped as follows in items A to D.
A. Soiled dishes must arrive at the soiled dish counter without passing through the clean dish side of the dishwashing area or through the food preparation area of the kitchen. The soiled dish counter must include provisions for prerinse of dishes and disposal of garbage.
B. Facilities with more than 30 beds must provide a commercial hood-type or conveyor dishwasher. The area containing the dishwasher and the soiled dish spray rinse must be separated from the food preparation area and the clean dish storage area by a wall protection.
C. Facilities with 30 or fewer beds must be equipped with a minimum of an under-counter-type dishwasher that complies with NSF International Standard No. 3.
D. Clean dishes must be returned directly from the clean dish counter to a clean area for storage. The clean dish counter must be at least four feet long in facilities with pass-through type dishwashers. If necessary, provision must be made for the return of empty dish racks to the dishwasher area.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4315 Washing of Food Carts; New Construction
A separate area, equipped with a floor drain, must be provided for the cleaning of food carts.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4320 Washing of Garbage Cans; New Construction
An area, separated from the dietary area, equipped with a floor drain, must be provided for the washing of garbage cans.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4325 Laundry, Size and Location; New Construction
Subpart 1. Laundry.
The laundry, if provided in the facility, must be sized and equipped to handle the laundering of all linen and personal clothing to be processed in the facility.
Subp. 2. Entrance.
The entrance to a soiled linen collection room or to a laundry processing room must be located away from resident living areas and the entrance to the kitchen. Door widths to laundry areas must allow for movement of equipment and linen carts.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4330 Soiled Linen Collection Room; New Construction
Subpart 1. Soiled linen collection room.
A separate, enclosed soiled linen collection room must be provided for the collection, storage, and sorting of soiled linen to be processed in the laundry processing room or by an outside laundry service.
Subp. 2. Location.
The soiled linen collection room must be located at the soiled side of the laundry processing room. A soiled linen collection room for facilities with outside laundry service must be located near the service entrance.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4335 Laundry Processing Room; New Construction
The laundry processing room must be arranged and equipped to allow for the orderly, progressive flow of work from the soiled area to the clean area. The layout of the processing area must minimize linen transportation and avoid cross-traffic between clean and soiled operations. Laundry operations must be physically separated by a floor area. The processing room must provide space for the storage of supplies and equipment. Space for storage of laundry carts must be provided within the laundry area. Handwashing facilities must be available for the area. A two-compartment laundry tub must be provided and must be of a material with a nonabsorbent, smooth, permanent finish. A laundry tub may be provided with fittings for the required handwashing facilities.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4340 Laundry Equipment; New Construction
The laundry equipment must be of commercial type and must be of sufficient size and quantity for the size of the facility. The washer installation must be constructed of materials capable of meeting the operating requirements in part 4658.1410. The washer must be capable of measuring and displaying internal water temperatures.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4345 Clean Linen Storage; New Construction
Rooms, closets, or enclosed carts must be provided for the storage of clean linen.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4350 Laundry for Personal Clothing; New Construction
Provision must be made for the washing of personal clothing either within or outside the facility. Residential-grade equipment may be used for the washing of personal clothing.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4355 Refuse; New Construction
Subpart 1. Refuse area.
An outside, fenced area or a separate room must be provided for holding trash and garbage prior to disposal. It must be located convenient to the service entrance and be sized to accommodate the refuse volume and the chosen type of disposal system.
Subp. 2. Incinerator.
An incinerator, if provided, must be in a separate room, or in a designated area within the boiler or heater room, or outdoors. An incinerator, if provided, must comply with parts 7011.1201 to 7011.1285.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4360 Covered Entrance Area; New Construction
At least one covered entrance area must be provided to protect residents from weather. The covered entrance must extend from the curb line to the building.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4365 Facilities for Personnel; New Construction
Locker and toilet facilities must be provided for personnel.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4370 Rehabilitative Services Areas; New Construction
Subpart 1. Specialized rehabilitative services area.
Each specialized rehabilitative therapy service provided must be provided space and equipment for exercise and treatment which meets the needs of a medically directed therapy program and of the residents receiving services. Each treatment area must be designed and equipped to protect residents' visual privacy. A lavatory or sink must be conveniently located to all rehabilitative services areas. Space for administrative activities and storage of supplies and equipment must be provided for any rehabilitative service provided.
Subp. 2. Physical therapy area.
The physical therapy area must be provided with a lavatory or sink with institutional fittings and a single-service towel dispenser.
Subp. 3. Physical therapy area toilet room.
A toilet room must be located within or adjacent to the physical therapy area. Access to this toilet room must be provided from within the physical therapy area. This toilet room may also serve the general corridor. The toilet room must comply with the requirements for physically accessible toilet rooms in part 4658.4150.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196; L 2005 c 56 s 2
Minn. R. 4658.4375 Barber and Beauty Shop Services; New Construction
A room must be provided and equipped for barber and beauty shop services.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4390 Penalties for Dietary, Laundry, and Other Services; New Construction Rule Violations
Penalty assessments for violations of parts 4658.4300 to 4658.4375 shall be assessed on a daily basis and are as follows:
A. parts 4658.4300 to 4658.4345, $200;
B. part 4658.4350, $100;
C. part 4658.4355, $150;
D. part 4658.4360, $200; and
E. parts 4658.4365 to 4658.4375, $150.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4400 Area Heat Protection; New Construction
Floors and walls for resident living areas which are overheated due to adjoining heat sources must be insulated or otherwise protected to prevent the surface from exceeding a temperature of 85 degrees Fahrenheit.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4405 Door Handles; New Construction
Lever-type door handles must be provided on all hinged doors to resident areas.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4410 Dumbwaiters and Conveyors; New Construction
Enclosed dumbwaiter pits and conveyor spaces must be provided with access for cleaning. Operation of dumbwaiters must comply with parts 5205.0400 to 5205.0490.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4415 Elevators; New Construction
Subpart 1. Elevators.
Shaft enclosures and elevator installations must be provided in accordance with part 4658.3500, subpart 5. Elevators must be provided in all facilities where residents occupy or use more than the entrance or first floor level.
Subp. 2. Elevator cab size.
At least one elevator must have an inside cab dimension of at least five feet wide and seven feet deep. The car doors must have a clear opening of at least three feet, eight inches.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4420 Exterior Mechanical Shafts; New Construction
Exterior shafts serving equipment for resident areas must be constructed to prevent accumulation of dirt, leaves, or snow.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4425 Floor Joints; New Construction
Thresholds and expansion joint covers must be flush with the floor, except at exterior doors. Adjacent dissimilar floor materials must be flush with each other to provide an unbroken surface.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4430 Nonskid Surfaces; New Construction
Stairways, ramps, bathtubs, and showers must be provided with nonslip surfaces.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4435 Glass Protection; New Construction
Any full height window or glass partition of clear glass which has the sill placed at or up to 18 inches above floor level must be constructed of safety glass and must be provided with a railing or some other structural safety barrier at a height of at least 30 inches above the floor. Glass doors must be constructed of safety glass and must be provided with a push bar or with decals or markings.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4440 Linen and Trash Chutes; New Construction
The minimum diameter of a gravity-type chute must be two feet. The ceiling space between shaft walls and the discharge end of the chute must be sealed to prevent odors from leaking into the enclosing shaft space.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4445 Overhead Piping; New Construction
Overhead piping must not be exposed in dietary areas, clean storage, and clean linen areas. Waste lines over food preparation areas, food storage areas, clean storage areas, and electrical panels are prohibited. Plumbing waste lines and vents must not be located within ventilation plenums.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4450 Protection Railings; New Construction
Protection railings, 42 inches high, must be provided for top landings of stairs, window wells, and open air shafts in areas accessible to residents.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4455 Ceiling Heights; New Construction
Minimum ceiling heights must be provided as follows in items A to C.
A. Boiler room ceilings must be at least five feet higher than the top of the boiler unit and at least two feet, six inches above the main boiler head and connecting piping with a minimum total height of nine feet.
B. Ceilings in corridors, storage rooms, resident toilet rooms, and other minor rooms must not be less than seven feet, six inches.
C. Ceilings in all other rooms must not be less than eight feet.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4460 Ceilings, Walls, and Floors; New Construction
Ceilings, walls, and floors must be of a type or finish to permit good maintenance including frequent washing, cleaning, or painting. Walls in areas subject to local wetting must be provided with a hard, nonabsorbent surface. Floors in areas subject to local wetting must be finished with a smooth, hard, nonslip, nonabsorbent surface. In dietary areas, floor surfaces must be grease resistant. Carpeting in resident areas must be of high density, low-pile construction which is cleanable and facilitates wheeled traffic.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4490 Penalties for Construction Details, Chutes, and Elevators; New Construction Rule Violations
Penalty assessments for violations of parts 4658.4400 to 4658.4460 shall be assessed on a daily basis and are as follows:
A. part 4658.4400, $200;
B. part 4658.4405, $150;
C. part 4658.4410, $200;
D. part 4658.4415, $200;
E. part 4658.4420, $150;
F. parts 4658.4425 to 4658.4450, $200;
G. part 4658.4455, $150; and
H. part 4658.4460, $200.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4500 Plumbing Systems; New Construction
Subpart 1. Installation.
All plumbing systems must be installed and tested according to this chapter and chapter 4714, the Minnesota Plumbing Code.
Subp. 2. Area drainage.
Roofs, basements, tunnels, pits, shafts, areaways, courts, yards, and drives must be properly drained to eliminate intrusion of rain water or groundwater into the building. Floor drains in exterior areaways and similar installations must be provided with a running trap located inside the building to prevent freeze-up in the winter.
Subp. 3. Pipe insulation.
Sufficient insulation must be provided for all water and steam piping to assure proper functioning of the systems, provide safety against burns, and to prevent undesirable condensation or heat transfer in areas for residents.
Subp. 4. Hot water supply.
Circulating hot water must be provided in all hot water mains and in risers more than three stories high to assure hot water at the fixtures. The domestic hot water heating equipment must be installed, operated, and maintained according to chapter 4714, the Minnesota Plumbing Code. The domestic hot water heating equipment must have sufficient capacity and recovery to supply water at minimum temperatures at the point of use as follows:
A. resident bedrooms and service areas, 105 degrees Fahrenheit, with a maximum temperature at the point of use of 115 degrees Fahrenheit;
B. mechanical dishwashing, 180 degrees Fahrenheit;
C. washers in the laundry, 160 degrees Fahrenheit; and
D. mechanical sanitizing of nursing utensils, 180 degrees Fahrenheit. If a thermostatically controlled mixing valve is used, it must be of the "fail-safe" type which prevents flow of hot water in case the cold water supply fails. Heaters must be insulated and provided with a thermometer.
Subp. 5. Dishwashing machine.
The dishwashing machine must be of a commercial type equal to the standards established by NSF International Standard No. 3, and must be of a size that can accommodate food trays. The water supply line at the machine must be provided with a pressure-reducing valve, pressure gauge, and vacuum breaker. The rinse water flow pressure must be maintained between 15 and 25 pounds per square inch at the machine by the use of a pressure reducing valve. A pressure gauge must be installed immediately after the reducing valve. A recirculation system and pump must be provided if the final rinse water heater is located more than five feet from the dishwasher. The drain must be an indirect waste connection to a trapped floor drain, or it must be a trapped connection to a branch with a floor drain without a backwater valve in the horizontal branch.
Subp. 6. Floor drains.
Floor drains must not be installed in areas for food storage. Floor drains must not be directly connected to ventilation equipment or air supply plenums.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196; 40 SR 71
Minn. R. 4658.4505 Plumbing; New Construction
Subpart 1. Institutional fittings.
Institutional fittings must include a mixing faucet, gooseneck spout or other approved spout, wrist-action controls, and an open grid strainer on the waste in the sinks.
The spout must provide a minimum vertical distance of five inches from its discharge point to the rim of the fixture, and a minimum horizontal bowl clearance of seven inches between the discharge point and the inside face of the rim.
The blades on wrist-action controls must not exceed 4-1/2 inches in length, except that handles on clinical sinks must not be less than six inches long.
Subp. 2. Flushing rim service sinks or clinical sinks.
Flushing rim service sinks or clinical sinks must have an integral trap in which the upper portion of a visible trap seal provides a water surface. A bedpan cleaning device must be included at the clinical sink in soiled utility rooms. If a spray nozzle is included, there must be a way to control the water flow and pressure from the nozzle to minimize aerosolization.
Subp. 3. Sterilizer vent systems.
All sterilizers requiring vapor vents must be connected with a vapor venting system extending up through the roof independent of the plumbing fixture vent system. The vertical riser pipe must be provided with a drip line which discharges into the drainage system through an air gap or open waste fixture. The connection between the fixture and the vertical vent riser pipe must be made by means of a horizontal offset. Vent material must be erosion and corrosion resistant.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4510 Heating and Cooling; New Construction
Subpart 1. Design and installation.
Heating and cooling systems must be capable of maintaining a temperature of 71 degrees Fahrenheit to 81 degrees Fahrenheit in all resident areas. Areas must be zoned according to use and exposure, and must be provided with thermostatic temperature controls. The humidification system must be capable of maintaining a space humidity between 25 percent relative humidity and 50 percent relative humidity.
Subp. 2. Isolation of major components.
A means of isolating major sections or components in the heating and cooling systems must be provided. Supply and return mains, and risers of space heating and cooling systems must be valved to isolate the various sections of each system. Each piece of equipment must be valved at the supply and return ends. Any pump on which the heating and cooling systems are dependent should be installed in duplicate for standby service in a nursing home.
Subp. 3. Controls and gauges.
All valves and controls must be placed for convenient access and use, and thermometers and gauges must be mounted for easy observation.
Subp. 4. Heating and cooling elements.
Heating and cooling elements must be located so as not to interfere with beds in residents' rooms. Tubing and casing of gravity-type heating and cooling convectors must be mounted at least four inches above the floor and be provided with removable sturdy covers in order to facilitate cleaning.
Subp. 5. Forced flow room units.
Cabinets for forced flow heating or cooling units must be sturdy and must be mounted either continuously along the floor with a tight fit or at least four inches above the floor. Outside air must be filtered. The interior air grill for recirculation must be located not less than four inches above the floor, on floor mounted units. Fans or blowers must be of a quiet operating type, and the fan or blower housing must not be directly connected to the metal of the unit cabinet. Recirculated air must be passed through the filter. The filter must be replaceable from within the room.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4515 Ventilation Requirements; New Construction
Mechanical supply and exhaust ventilation must be provided for all areas according to part 4658.4520. The systems must be designed and balanced to provide the pressure relationships described in part 4658.4520. Areas not covered in part 4658.4520 must be ventilated according to the Minnesota State Building Code. Areas requiring an equal or positive pressure relationship to adjacent areas according to part 4658.4520 must be provided with tempered makeup air. All air-supply and air-exhaust systems must be mechanically operated. Required exhaust ventilation must not be activated by a light switch. All fans serving exhaust systems must be located at the discharge end of the system. The ventilation rates shown in part 4658.4520 are minimum acceptable rates, and do not preclude the use of higher ventilation rates if the rates do not result in undesirable velocities in resident areas.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4520 Ventilation Pressure Relationships and Ventilation for Certain Areas in Nursing Homes; Existing and New Construction
Symbols:
Air Pressure Relationships:
- = Positive;
- = Negative;
0 = Neutral
Air Changes, Supply, Exhaust:
- = Optional
1Areas with equal or positive pressure relationships to adjacent areas must be provided with tempered make-up air.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4525 Fresh Air Intakes; New Construction
Fresh air intakes for ventilation systems must be located at least 25 feet away from a ventilation exhaust, combustion exhaust, or driveway or parking area. The bottom of fresh air intakes serving central air systems must be located as high as possible, but at least four feet above grade, or, if installed through the roof, at least two feet above roof level. Air intakes for individual room units must be at least one foot, six inches above outside grade. Any exhaust system or waste chute vent must terminate at least 25 feet away from windows that can be opened.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4530 Height of Registers; New Construction
Wall openings for air supply or return must be located at least four inches above the floor.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4535 Dietary Area; New Construction
Subpart 1. Food preparation areas.
The minimum ventilation requirements of part 4658.4520 for food preparation areas must be provided by either a combination of general ventilation and the range hood, or by general room ventilation. If hood ventilation is needed to meet the minimum air changes per hour, the hood must be operating at all times that the food preparation area is in use.
Subp. 2. Dishwashing area.
The minimum exhaust requirements of part 4658.4520 for the dishwashing area must be provided by either a combination of general ventilation and the exhaust from the mechanical dishwasher or by general ventilation. If dishwasher hood ventilation is needed to meet the minimum air changes per hour, the hood must be operating at all times that the dishwashing area is in use.
Subp. 3. Exhaust ducts.
All exhaust ducts must be provided with access panels for cleaning.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4540 Laundry Area; New Construction
Air in the laundry must be vented away from the finishing and ironing area and toward the extracting and washing area. The general air movement must be from the clean area to the soiled area, and must be of sufficient volume to remove steam, odors, and excessive heat. Dryers must be provided with a lint collector. Horizontal exhaust ducts must exhaust to the outside. The ducts must be provided with access panels for cleaning.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4545 Mechanical Rooms; New Construction
Mechanical rooms with equipment using liquefied petroleum gas (LPG) or flammable liquid fuels producing vapors heavier than air must be provided with continuous mechanical outdoor air ventilation that provide a pressure which is equal to or greater than atmospheric, to remove accumulations of gas or vapor at the floor level. A relief or exhaust vent must be located within 12 inches below the ceiling, and a relief or exhaust vent must be located within 12 inches above the floor.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4550 Filters; New Construction
Subpart 1. Air supply.
All air supplied to the nursing home must be free from harmful particulate matter, any type of combustion products or contaminates, obnoxious odors, or exhausted air from the building or adjoining property.
Subp. 2. Filters.
All outside air introduced into living and service areas of a nursing home must be filtered. Return air to central ventilation systems must be filtered. All central ventilation or air conditioning systems must be equipped with a minimum of one filter bed. The filter bed must be located upstream of the air conditioning equipment, unless a prefilter is employed. If a prefilter is employed, the prefilter must be upstream of the equipment and the main filter may be located further downstream. Filter frames must be durable and proportioned to provide an airtight fit with the enclosing ductwork.
Subp. 3. Filter efficiencies.
Filters installed in all central ventilation or air conditioning systems must have a minimum efficiency of 25 percent. All filter efficiencies must be average atmospheric dust spot efficiencies tested according to the American Society of Heating, Refrigerating, and Air-Conditioning Engineers, Inc. (ASHRAE) Standard No. 52.1-1992.
Subp. 4. Autoclave room.
If there is a large autoclave in the nursing home, it must be located in a separate room provided with supply and exhaust ventilation. If an autoclave is built into a separate equipment room, the equipment room must be provided with exhaust ventilation.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4590 Penalties for Mechanical Systems; New Construction Rule Violations
A $200 penalty shall be assessed on a daily basis for violations of parts 4658.4500 to 4658.4550.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4600 Distribution Panel Boards; New Construction
Subpart 1. Circuit index.
All circuits in light and power panels must be identified with a typewritten index. Doors on electrical panel boards accessible to residents must be equipped with a lock.
Subp. 2. Panel boards.
Lighting and appliance panel boards must be provided for the circuits on each floor, except for emergency system circuits.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4605 Corridor Receptacles; New Construction
Single receptacles on a separate circuit for equipment such as floor cleaning machines must be installed approximately 50 feet apart in all corridors and within 25 feet of ends of corridors.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4610 Switches and Receptacles; New Construction
Switches must be placed between 42 inches and 48 inches above the floor. Convenience outlets for electrical appliances must be located to avoid danger in wet areas.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4615 Interior Lighting; New Construction
A source of lighting must be provided in every room in the nursing home. Lighting levels in all areas of the nursing home must be adequate and comfortable. "Adequate lighting" means levels of illumination suitable to tasks the resident chooses to perform or the nursing home staff must perform. The installation of rheostats to provide varying levels of illumination in resident areas deemed appropriate by the nursing home is acceptable. "Comfortable lighting" means lighting that minimizes glare and provides maximum resident control, where feasible, of the intensity, location, and direction of illuminations so that visually impaired residents can maintain or enhance independent functioning.
The design of the lighting system must:
A. minimize direct, reflected, and contrast glare;
B. provide consistent and even illumination of wall surfaces and floors;
C. be residential in appearance;
D. incorporate lamp colors that do not distort the true color of people, objects, or architectural elements; and
E. be energy efficient. Where feasible, indirect lighting by fluorescent lamps concealed by architectural molding or wall sconces is preferred. Electronic ballasts must be used for all fluorescent light fixtures. Full spectrum fluorescent and halogen lamps must not be used for task lighting. The lighting system must use natural light to the fullest extent possible in conjunction with artificial lighting. Illumination levels at transitions between outside daylight and interior light levels at entry ways must be equalized.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4620 Fire Alarm Systems; New Construction
Fire alarm systems and sprinkler systems must be provided in accordance with chapter 1305.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4625 Bedroom Receptacles; New Construction
Each resident bedroom must have a minimum of two duplex receptacles mounted on the wall at the head of the bed, and one receptacle mounted on each side of the bed, for a total of four electrical outlets per bed. In addition to the receptacles at the head and side of each bed, each resident bedroom must be provided with two additional duplex receptacles, conveniently located on adjacent walls for resident use. At least one receptacle must be located between 16 inches and 20 inches above the floor, and be accessible for resident use.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4630 Night Lights; New Construction
Each resident bedroom must be provided with a night light.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4635 Nurse Call System; New Construction
The nurses' station must be equipped with a communication system designed to receive calls from the resident and nursing service areas required by this part. The communication system, if electrically powered, must be connected to the emergency power supply. Nurse calls and emergency calls must be capable of being inactivated only at the points of origin. A central annunciator must be provided where the door is not visible from the nurses' station.
A. A nurse call must be provided for each resident's bed. Call cords, buttons, or other communication devices must be placed where they are within reach of each resident. A call from a resident must register at the nurses' station, activate a light outside the resident bedroom, and activate a duty signal in the medication room, nourishment area, clean utility room, soiled utility room, and sterilizing room. In multicorridor nursing units, visible signal lights must be provided at corridor intersections.
B. An emergency call must be provided in each resident toilet room, in all areas used for resident bathing, dayrooms, therapy areas, and activity areas. If a pull cord is provided it must extend to within six inches above the floor. A push-button type emergency call must be installed at a height of 24 inches. An emergency call must register a call from a resident at the nurses' station, activate a duty signal in the medication room, nourishment area, clean utility room, soiled utility room, and sterilizing room, and activate a signal light by the bedroom door. The emergency duty signal must provide a visual signal light and an audible alarm.
C. If a nurse call system provides two-way voice communication, it must be equipped with an indicator light at each call station which lights and remains lighted as long as the voice circuit is operating. Nurse calls of this type may be capable of being inactivated at the nurses' station.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4640 Emergency Electric Service; New Construction
To provide electricity during an interruption of the normal electrical power supply that affects medical care, or safety of the occupants, an emergency source of electrical power must be provided and connected to certain circuits for lighting and the nurse call system. The emergency system must provide lighting for the nurses' station, telephone switchboard, resident corridors, exits, the boiler or heating system room, and, if provided, the emergency generator room. The emergency electrical service must assure functioning of the fire detection, alarm, and suppression systems, and the life support systems. Emergency electrical service must be provided by one of the following methods:
A. a battery-operated system with automatic controls and recharging if effective for four or more hours; or
B. an on-site emergency generator. The emergency generator, if provided, must be operated and tested in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions. It is recommended that the emergency generator system include all items necessary for the functioning of the heating system. An automatic transfer switch is recommended.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.4690 Penalties for Electrical Systems; New Construction Rule Violations
Penalty assessments for violations of parts 4658.4600 to 4658.4640 shall be assessed on a daily basis and are as follows:
A. part 4658.4600, subpart 1, $50;
B. part 4658.4600, subpart 2, $200;
C. parts 4658.4605 to 4658.4630, $200; and
D. parts 4658.4635 and 4658.4640, $350.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.5000 Bedroom Design, Existing Construction
Subpart 1. Design.
Each resident bedroom must be designed and equipped for adequate nursing care, comfort, and privacy of residents, including full visual privacy of residents.
Subp. 2. Usable floor area.
The usable floor area per bed must be at least 70 square feet for three- or four-bed rooms, at least 80 square feet for two-bed rooms, and at least 100 square feet for single bedrooms. The usable floor area and the arrangement and shape of the bedroom must provide space for furnishings, for the free movement of residents with physical disabilities, and for nursing procedures. "Usable floor area" does not include spaces occupied by toilet rooms, vestibules, permanently installed wardrobes, lockers, closets, or heating units.
Subp. 3. Access to exit.
Each bedroom must have direct access to an exit corridor.
Subp. 4. Bedroom shape.
The shape of the bedroom must allow for the capability of a bed arrangement which provides at least three feet of floor space at both sides and the foot end of each bed.
Subp. 5. Distance from nurses' station.
Resident bedrooms must be located within 140 feet from the nurses' station.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196; L 2005 c 56 s 2
Minn. R. 4658.5005 Bedroom Door Locks; Existing Construction
Subpart 1. Written policy.
A nursing home must develop a written policy regarding the use of locks on resident bedroom doors. The policy must address whether or not doors can be locked while the resident is in the room.
Subp. 2. Door locks.
Door locks must permit exit from the room by a simple operation without the use of a key. Door locks must be openable with a master key which is located at each nurses' station.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.5010 Clothes Wardrobe or Closet; Existing Construction
A nursing home must provide each resident with individual wardrobe or closet space in the resident's bedroom with clothes racks and shelves accessible to the resident. Locks may be provided, with keys for the residents, when a pass key is provided at the nurses' station.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.5015 Corridor Handrails; Existing Construction
Securely anchored, durable handrails must be provided on both sides of corridors used by residents. If a length of corridor space between doorways is 60 inches or less, a handrail is not necessary for that portion of the corridor.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.5020 Nursing Area; Existing Construction
Subpart 1. Nurses' station.
At least one nurses' station must be provided per resident floor. A nurses' station may serve more than one nursing area on the same floor if the maximum distance from resident bedrooms does not exceed that required in part 4658.5000, subpart 5. The nurses' station must be equipped to receive resident calls through a communication system from resident rooms and toilet and bathing facilities.
Subp. 2. Clean utility room.
A clean utility room must be provided within each nursing area.
Subp. 3. Soiled utility room.
A separate soiled utility room must be provided within each nursing area. It must contain handwashing facilities and a clinical service sink for disposal of waste materials and the cleanup of soiled linen and utensils. Cabinets and shelving must be provided for the storage of materials and supplies.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.5025 Toilet Rooms and Sanitary Fixtures; Existing Construction
A nursing home must have at least one toilet and one sink for eight beds, and at least one shower or tub for 20 beds. When the licensed bed capacity is increased, the requirements under part 4658.4135 apply to the new addition. In resident toilet rooms where grab bars or towel bars are not provided, bars must be installed according to part 4658.4145 to the extent that the room arrangements will permit. A toilet room must have a sink and all sinks must be provided with hot and cold water.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.5030 Central Bathing Area; Existing Construction
Subpart 1. Fixtures.
Bathing fixtures must be provided in accordance with part 4658.5025.
Subp. 2. Bathing areas.
A. In bathing areas with more than one fixture, each bathtub or shower area must have privacy curtains or wall dividers.
B. Bathtubs and showers must have a nonslip bottom or floor surface, and at least one grab bar, securely anchored, must be provided at each fixture.
C. If a toilet is located within an open area with multiple bathing fixtures, the toilet area must have privacy curtains or stall partitions.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.5035 Handwashing Facilities; Existing Construction
Handwashing facilities must be available for persons providing services to residents. Single-service towels must be available. Use of a common towel is prohibited.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.5040 Room Labeling; Existing Construction
All bedrooms must be labeled using a system of numbers. All service rooms must be labeled.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.5090 Penalties for Resident Areas; Existing Construction Rule Violations
Penalty assessments for violations of parts 4658.5000 to 4658.5040 shall be assessed on a daily basis and are as follows:
A. part 4658.5000, subpart 1, $200;
B. part 4658.5000, subpart 2, $150;
C. part 4658.5000, subpart 3, $200;
D. part 4658.5000, subpart 4, $200;
E. part 4658.5000, subpart 5, $150;
F. part 4658.5005, subpart 1, $100;
G. part 4658.5005, subpart 2, $500;
H. part 4658.5010, $150;
I. part 4658.5015, $200;
J. part 4658.5020, subpart 1, $150;
K. part 4658.5020, subparts 2 and 3, $200;
L. part 4658.5025, $150;
M. part 4658.5030, subpart 2, item A, $150;
N. part 4658.5030, subpart 2, item B, $200;
O. part 4658.5030, subpart 2, item C, $150;
P. part 4658.5035, $200; and
Q. part 4658.5040, $50.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.5100 Dining, Dayroom, and Activity Areas; Existing Construction
Subpart 1. Area.
A nursing home must provide areas for dining, dayroom, and activities.
Subp. 2. Space for adult day care.
Additional space must be provided, in accordance with part 9555.9730, for dining, dayroom, and activity areas if the nursing home is offering an adult day care program.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.5190 Penalties for Supportive Services; Existing Construction Rule Violations
A $150 penalty shall be assessed on a daily basis for violations of part 4658.5100.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.5200 Food Service Equipment; Existing Construction
Subpart 1. Food service equipment.
All food service equipment being replaced must be of a type that complies with the requirements of part 4658.3500, subpart 3.
Subp. 2. Cutting boards.
Cutting boards or similar use table tops must be constructed of nonporous, smooth, and cleanable material, and be free of cracks, crevices, and open seams.
Subp. 3. Scullery sink.
For manual washing, rinsing, and sanitizing of utensils and equipment, a sink with at least three compartments must be provided and used. Sink compartments must be large enough to permit the accommodation of the equipment and utensils, and each compartment of the sink must be supplied with hot and cold potable running water. Drain boards must be provided at each end for proper handling of soiled utensils before washing and for cleaned utensils following sanitizing and must be located so as not to interfere with the proper use of the utensil washing facilities. If the mechanical dishwasher or a mechanical utensil washer is used for the sanitizing of pots and pans, a sanitizing compartment is not required and a two-compartment scullery sink is acceptable if used according to parts 4658.0675 and 4658.0680.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.5205 Laundry; Existing Construction
A laundry, if provided in the nursing home, must be sized and equipped to handle the laundering of all linen and personal clothing to be processed in the nursing home.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.5210 Soiled Linen Collection Room; Existing Construction
A separate, enclosed soiled linen room must be provided for the collection, storage, and sorting of soiled linen to be processed in the laundry processing room or by an outside laundry service.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.5215 Laundry Equipment; Existing Construction
Laundry equipment must be of commercial type and must be of sufficient size and quantity for the size of the facility. The washer installation must be constructed of materials capable of meeting the operating requirements in part 4658.1410. Any new or replacement washer must be capable of measuring and displaying internal water temperatures.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.5220 Clean Linen Storage; Existing Construction
Rooms, closets, or enclosed carts must be provided for the storage of clean linen.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.5225 Laundry for Personal Clothing; Existing Construction
Provision must be made for the washing of personal clothing either within or outside the facility. Residential-grade equipment may be used for the washing of personal clothing.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.5230 Refuse; Existing Construction
Subpart 1. Refuse area.
An outside, fenced area or a separate room must be provided for holding trash and garbage prior to disposal. It must be located conveniently to the service entrance and be sized to accommodate the refuse volume and the chosen type of disposal system.
Subp. 2. Incinerator.
An incinerator, if provided, must be in a separate room, or in a designated area within the boiler or heater room, or outdoors. An incinerator, if provided, must comply with parts 7011.1201 to 7011.1285.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.5235 Facilities for Personnel; Existing Construction
Locker and toilet facilities must be provided for personnel.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.5240 Rehabilitative Services Areas; Existing Construction
Subpart 1. Specialized rehabilitative therapy area.
A specialized rehabilitative therapy service, if provided, must be provided space and equipment for exercise and treatment which meets the needs of a medically directed therapy program and of the residents receiving services. Each treatment area must be designed and equipped to protect residents' visual privacy. A lavatory or sink must be conveniently located to all rehabilitative service areas. Space for administrative activities and storage of supplies and equipment must be provided for any rehabilitative service provided.
Subp. 2. Physical therapy area.
A physical therapy area, if provided, must have a lavatory or sink with institutional fittings and a single-service towel dispenser. A toilet room must be located convenient to the physical therapy area.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.5245 Barber and Beauty Shop Services Room; Existing Construction
In buildings constructed after 1972, a room must be provided and equipped for barber and beauty shop services.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.5290 Penalties for Dietary, Laundry, and Other Services; Existing Construction Rule Violations
Penalty assessments for violations of parts 4658.5200 to 4658.5245 shall be assessed on a daily basis and are as follows:
A. parts 4658.5200 to 4658.5220, $200;
B. part 4658.5225, $100; and
C. parts 4658.5230 to 4658.5245, $150.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.5300 Area Heat Protection; Existing Construction
Floors and walls for resident living areas which are overheated due to adjoining heat sources must be insulated or otherwise protected to prevent the surface from exceeding a temperature of 85 degrees Fahrenheit.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.5305 Nonskid Surfaces; Existing Construction
Stairways, ramps, bathtubs, and showers must have nonslip surfaces.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.5310 Glass Protection; Existing Construction
All full height windows, glass partitions, or glass doors must have decals or markings.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.5315 Ceilings, Walls, and Floors; Existing Construction
Ceilings, walls, and floors must be of a type or finish to permit good maintenance including frequent washing, cleaning, or painting. Walls in areas subject to local wetting must have a hard, nonabsorbent surface. Floors in areas subject to local wetting must be finished with a smooth, hard, nonslip, nonabsorbent surface. In dietary areas, floor surfaces must be grease resistant. Carpeting in resident areas must be of high density, low-pile construction which is cleanable and facilitates wheeled traffic.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.5390 Penalties for Construction Details; Existing Construction Rule Violations
A $200 penalty shall be assessed on a daily basis for violations of part 4658.5300.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.5400 Heating System; Existing Construction
The heating system must be capable of maintaining a minimum temperature of 71 degrees Fahrenheit in all resident areas during the heating season.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.5405 Ventilation Requirements; Existing Construction
Existing facilities must have mechanical exhaust ventilation in the kitchen, laundry, soiled linen collection room, soiled utility rooms, and toilet areas, except if the toilet area is private or semiprivate, and is provided with window ventilation. Ventilation must be provided according to part 4658.4520.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.5410 Mechanical Rooms; Existing Construction
Mechanical rooms below grade, located in buildings constructed after 1972, with equipment using liquefied petroleum gas, must have continuous mechanical ventilation providing a pressure which is equal to or greater than atmospheric.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.5415 Filters; Existing Construction
All air supplied to the nursing home must be free from harmful particulate matter, any type of combustion products or contaminates, obnoxious odors, or exhausted air from the building or adjoining property.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.5490 Penalties for Heating and Ventilation Systems; Existing Construction Rule Violations
A $200 penalty shall be assessed on a daily basis for violations of parts 4658.5400 to 4658.5415.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.5500 Distribution Panel Boards; Existing Construction
All circuits in light and power panels must be identified with a typewritten index. Doors on electrical panel boards accessible to residents must be equipped with a lock.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.5505 Interior Lighting; Existing Construction
A source of interior lighting must be provided in every room in the nursing home. Each resident bedroom must be provided with a reading light for each occupant. Lighting levels in all areas of the nursing home must be suitable to tasks the resident chooses to perform or the nursing home staff must perform. A nursing home may install rheostats to provide varying levels of illumination in resident areas.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.5510 Fire Alarm Systems; Existing Construction
Fire alarm systems and sprinkler systems must be provided according to chapter 1305.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.5515 Nurse Call System; Existing Construction
A communication system must be provided in a nursing home. It must register a call from the resident at the nursing station and activate a signal light by the bedroom door.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.5520 Emergency Electric Service; Existing Construction
To provide electricity during an interruption of the normal electrical power supply that affects medical care, or safety of the occupants, an emergency source of electrical power must be provided and connected to certain circuits for lighting and the nurse call system. The emergency system must provide lighting for the nurses' station, telephone switchboard, resident corridors, exits, the boiler or heating system room, and, if provided, the emergency generator room. The emergency electrical service must assure functioning of the fire detection, alarm, and suppression systems, and the life support systems. Emergency electrical service must be provided by one of the following methods:
A. a battery-operated system with automatic controls and recharging if effective for four or more hours; or
B. an on-site emergency generator. The emergency generator, if provided, must be operated and tested according to the manufacturer's instructions. It is recommended that the emergency generator system include all items necessary for the functioning of the heating system. An automatic transfer switch is recommended.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4658.5590 Penalties for Electrical Systems; Existing Construction Rule Violations
Penalty assessments for violations of parts 4658.5500 to 4658.5520 shall be assessed on a daily basis and are as follows:
A. part 4658.5500, $50;
B. parts 4658.5505 and 4658.5510, $200; and
C. parts 4658.5515 and 4658.5520, $350.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Chapter 4659 ASSISTED LIVING FACILITIES
Minn. R. 4659.0010 Applicability and Purpose
This chapter establishes the criteria and procedures for regulating assisted living facilities and assisted living facilities with dementia care and must be read in conjunction with Minnesota Statutes, chapter 144G. The licensee is legally responsible for ensuring compliance by the licensee's facility, and any individual or entity acting on its behalf, with this chapter and Minnesota Statutes, chapter 144G.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144G.09
- History: 46 SR 33
Minn. R. 4659.0020 Definitions
Subpart 1. Scope.
For purposes of this chapter, the definitions in this part have the meanings given them.
Subp. 2. Assisted living director or director.
"Assisted living director" or "director" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.08, subdivision 6.
Subp. 3. Assisted living facility or facility.
"Assisted living facility" or "facility" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.08, subdivision 7.
Subp. 4. Assisted living facility with dementia care or facility with dementia care.
"Assisted living facility with dementia care" or "facility with dementia care" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.08, subdivision 8.
Subp. 5. Assisted living services.
"Assisted living services" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.08, subdivision 9.
Subp. 6. Board.
"Board" means the Board of Executives for Long Term Services and Supports.
Subp. 7. Case manager.
"Case manager" means an individual who provides case management services and develops a resident's coordinated service and support plan according to Minnesota Statutes, sections 256B.49, subdivision 15, and 256S.07 to 256S.10.
Subp. 8. Clinical nurse supervisor.
"Clinical nurse supervisor" means a facility's registered nurse as required under Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.41, subdivision 4.
Subp. 9. Commissioner.
"Commissioner" means the commissioner of health.
Subp. 10. Competency evaluation.
"Competency evaluation" means the training and competency evaluation required under Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.61.
Subp. 11. Competent.
"Competent" means appropriately trained and able to perform an assisted living service, supportive service, or delegated health care task or duty under this chapter and Minnesota Statutes, chapter 144G.
Subp. 12. Department.
"Department" means the Department of Health.
Subp. 13. Dementia.
"Dementia" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.08, subdivision 16.
Subp. 14. Elopement.
"Elopement" means when a secured dementia unit resident leaves the secured dementia unit, including any attached outdoor space, without the level of staff supervision required by the resident's most recent nursing assessment.
Subp. 15. Investigator.
"Investigator" means a department staff member that conducts complaint investigations according to Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.30.
Subp. 16. Licensed health professional.
"Licensed health professional" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.08, subdivision 29.
Subp. 17. Licensee.
"Licensee" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.08, subdivision 32.
Subp. 18. Medication.
"Medication" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.08, subdivision 37.
Subp. 19. Ombudsman.
"Ombudsman" means the Office of Ombudsman for Long-Term Care.
Subp. 20. Person-centered planning and service delivery.
"Person-centered planning and service delivery" means providing supportive and assisted living services according to Minnesota Statutes, section 245D.07, subdivision 1a, paragraph (b).
Subp. 21. Prospective resident.
"Prospective resident" means a nonresident individual that is seeking to become a resident of an assisted living facility.
Subp. 22. Representatives.
"Representatives" includes both a designated representative as defined under Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.08, subdivision 19, and a legal representative as defined under Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.08, subdivision 28.
Subp. 23. Resident.
"Resident" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.08, subdivision 59.
Subp. 24. Resident record.
"Resident record" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.08, subdivision 60.
Subp. 25. Safe location.
"Safe location" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.55, subdivision 2.
Subp. 26. Service plan.
"Service plan" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.08, subdivision 63.
Subp. 27. Supportive services.
"Supportive services" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.08, subdivision 68.
Subp. 28. Survey.
"Survey" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.08, subdivision 69.
Subp. 29. Surveyor.
"Surveyor" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.08, subdivision 70.
Subp. 30. Unlicensed personnel.
"Unlicensed personnel" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.08, subdivision 73.
Subp. 31. Wandering.
"Wandering" means random or repetitive locomotion by a resident. This movement may be goal-directed such as when the resident appears to be searching for something such as an exit, or may be non-goal-directed or aimless.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144G.09
- History: 46 SR 33
Minn. R. 4659.0030 Responsibility to Meet Standards
The licensee is responsible for the management, operation, and control of the facility, and for providing housing and assisted living services according to this chapter and Minnesota Statutes, chapter 144G.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144G.09
- History: 46 SR 33
Minn. R. 4659.0040 Licensing in General
Subpart 1. Issuance of assisted living facility license.
A. Upon approving an application for an assisted living facility license, the commissioner must issue a single license for each building that is operated by the licensee as an assisted living facility and is located at a separate address.
B. For purposes of this part, "campus" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.08, subdivision 4a.
Subp. 2. License to be posted.
A. For a license issued under subpart 1, item A, the facility must post the original license certificate issued by the commissioner at the main public entrance of the facility.
B. A campus with multiple buildings must post the original license certificate issued by the commissioner at the main public entrance of each building licensed as a facility on the campus. A separate license certificate shall be issued for each building on the campus.
Subp. 3. Required submissions to ombudsman.
A. A licensee must submit a complete, current, and unsigned copy of its assisted living contract to the ombudsman under Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.50, subdivision 1, paragraph (c), clause (1), within 30 calendar days of receiving a provisional license or a permanent license.
B. The contract under item A must include all of the facility's standard contract provisions. If the licensee has multiple standard contracts, it must provide a copy of each contract to the ombudsman. The licensee is not required to submit a copy of each individual resident's contract to the ombudsman to be in compliance with this subpart. If the licensee changes its service offerings or the standard provisions in a contract, the facility must submit a complete and current contract to the ombudsman within 30 calendar days of the change.
C. A licensee required to provide written disclosure to the ombudsman under Minnesota Statutes, section 325F.72, subdivision 1, must do so within 30 calendar days of receiving a provisional assisted living facility with dementia care license or, if a licensee does not receive a provisional license, within 30 calendar days after receiving a license.
Subp. 4. Location for submissions to ombudsman.
Unless specific notice requirements are provided in rule or statute, notices that licensees are required to provide to the ombudsman under this part; Minnesota Statutes, chapter 144G; and Minnesota Statutes, section 325F.72, must be provided in writing in the manner required by the ombudsman.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144G.09
- History: 46 SR 33
Minn. R. 4659.0050 Fines for Noncompliance
Fines for violations of parts 4659.0120 and 4659.0130 will be assessed under Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.31.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144G.09
- History: 46 SR 33
Minn. R. 4659.0060 Assisted Living Licensure; Conversion of Existing Assisted Living Providers
Upon approval of a license application submitted under Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.191, subdivision 4, paragraph (a), the commissioner shall issue a license that is not a provisional license as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.08, subdivision 55.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144G.09
- History: 46 SR 33
Minn. R. 4659.0080 Variance
Subpart 1. Request for variance.
A license applicant or licensee may request at any time that the commissioner grant a variance from the provisions of this chapter. The request must be made in writing to the commissioner and must specify the following:
A. the name and address of the license applicant or licensee requesting the variance;
B. the rule requirement from which the variance is requested;
C. the variance requested and the time period for which the variance is requested;
D. the specific alternative actions, if any, that the license applicant or licensee proposes to follow;
E. the reasons for the request, including why the license applicant or licensee cannot comply with a requirement in this chapter;
F. justification that the variance will not impair the services provided, and will not adversely affect the health, safety, or welfare of residents or the residents' rights under Minnesota Statutes, chapter 144G, including the assisted living bill of rights;
G. a signed statement attesting to the accuracy of the facts asserted in the variance request; and
H. the name, address, and contact information of any person or entity the license applicant or licensee knows would be adversely affected by granting the variance, including prospective residents, residents, and their representatives. The commissioner may require additional information from the license applicant or licensee before acting on the request.
Subp. 1a. Notice.
The commissioner shall make reasonable efforts to ensure that persons or entities who may be affected by the variance have timely notice of the variance request, including affected prospective residents, residents, and their representatives. In addition, the agency shall notify the ombudsman of all variance requests. The commissioner may require the license applicant or licensee requesting the variance to serve notice on the persons or entities entitled to notice under this subpart.
Subp. 2. Criteria for evaluation.
The decision to grant or deny a variance or variance renewal request must be based on the department's evaluation of the following criteria:
A. whether the alternative measures, if any, comply with the intent of this chapter and are equivalent to or superior to those prescribed in this chapter;
B. whether compliance with this chapter poses an undue burden on the license applicant or licensee; and
C. whether the variance adversely affects the health, safety, or welfare of the residents or any of the residents' rights under Minnesota Statutes, chapter 144G, including the assisted living bill of rights.
Subp. 3. Duration and conditions.
The commissioner may limit the duration of any variance. The commissioner may impose conditions on granting a variance that the commissioner considers necessary to protect public health, safety, or the environment. A variance has prospective effect only. The commissioner may not grant a variance from a statute or court order. Conditions attached to the variance are an enforceable part of the rule to which the variance applies.
Subp. 4. Decision and timing.
(a) The commissioner must notify the license applicant or licensee and all persons or entities entitled to notice under subpart 1a, in writing, of the commissioner's decision to grant or deny a variance request or variance renewal request, or to revoke a variance. If the variance request or variance renewal request is granted, the notification must specify the period of time for which the variance is effective and the alternative measures or conditions, if any, to be met by the license applicant or licensee. If the commissioner denies, revokes, or refuses to renew a variance, the commissioner must notify the license applicant or licensee, in writing, of the reasons for the decision and the right to appeal the decision under subpart 8.
(b) The commissioner shall grant or deny a variance request or variance renewal request as soon as practicable, and within 60 days of receipt of the completed variance application, unless the license applicant or licensee agrees to a later date. Failure of an agency to act on a request for a variance or variance renewal within 60 days constitutes approval of the variance or variance renewal.
Subp. 5. Renewal.
A licensee seeking to renew a variance must submit the request required under subpart 1 at least 45 days before the expiration date of the variance.
Subp. 6. Violation of variances.
A failure of the licensee to comply with the terms of the granted variance is a violation of this chapter.
Subp. 7. Denial, revocation, or refusal to renew.
The commissioner shall deny, revoke, or refuse to renew a variance if:
A. the variance adversely impacts the health, safety, or welfare of residents or the residents' rights under Minnesota Statutes, chapter 144G, and the assisted living bill of rights;
B. the license applicant or licensee has otherwise failed to demonstrate that a variance should be granted under the criteria in subpart 2;
C. the license applicant or licensee has failed to comply with the terms of the variance under subparts 3 and 4;
D. the license applicant or licensee notifies the commissioner in writing that it wishes to relinquish the variance; or
E. the revocation, denial, or refusal to renew a variance is required by a change in law.
Subp. 8. Appeal procedure.
A license applicant or licensee may appeal the denial, revocation, or refusal to renew a variance by requesting a hearing from the commissioner. The request must be made in writing to the commissioner and delivered personally or by mail within ten calendar days after the license applicant or licensee receives the notice. If mailed, the request must be postmarked within ten calendar days after the license applicant or licensee receives the notice. The request for hearing must set forth in detail the reasons why the license applicant or licensee contends the decision of the commissioner should be reversed or modified. At the hearing, the applicant or licensee has the burden of proving by a preponderance of the evidence that the variance should be granted or renewed, except in a proceeding challenging the revocation of a variance, where the department has the burden of proving by a preponderance of the evidence that a revocation is appropriate. Hearings under this subpart must be conducted under the Administrative Procedure Act in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 14, and the rules of the Office of Administrative Hearings related to contested case proceedings in parts 1400.5010 to 1400.8400.
Subp. 9. Fees and costs.
When requesting a variance under this part, the license applicant or licensee shall pay a fee as provided under Minnesota Statutes, section 14.056, subdivision 2.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144G.09
- History: 46 SR 33
Minn. R. 4659.0090 Uniform Checklist Disclosure of Services
Subpart 1. Definition.
For purposes of this part "Uniform Checklist Disclosure of Services" or "checklist" means the checklist developed and posted by the commissioner under subpart 2 and Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.40, subdivision 2, that an assisted living facility must provide to prospective residents before a contract is executed to enhance understanding of policies and services that are provided and are not provided by the facility.
Subp. 2. Uniform checklist disclosure of services.
The commissioner shall post a Uniform Checklist Disclosure of Services template with a comprehensive list of assisted living services, developed according to Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.40, subdivision 2, paragraph (c), on the department's website for facility use. The commissioner shall update the checklist on an as-needed basis.
Subp. 3. Submission of checklist to commissioner.
A. An applicant or licensee shall submit a completed checklist with the license application or renewal.
B. Whenever a facility changes the services that the facility offers under the assisted living facility contract, the facility must submit an updated checklist to the commissioner within 30 calendar days of the change in services.
Subp. 4. Use of uniform checklist disclosure of services.
A facility shall:
A. provide an up-to-date checklist to each prospective resident and each prospective resident's representatives who request information about the facility;
B. provide the checklist separately from all other documents and forms; and
C. not use another form to substitute for the checklist.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144G.09
- History: 46 SR 33
Minn. R. 4659.0100 Emergency Disaster and Preparedness Plan; Incorporation by Reference
A. Assisted living facilities shall comply with the federal emergency preparedness regulations for long-term care facilities under Code of Federal Regulations, title 42, section 483.73, or successor requirements.
B. This part references documents, specifications, methods, and standards in "State Operations Manual Appendix Z - Emergency Preparedness for All Provider and Certified Supplier Types: Interpretive Guidance," which is incorporated by reference. This material is subject to frequent change and is available from the United States Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services. It is conveniently available online at https://www.hhs.gov/guidance/sites/default/files/hhs-guidance-documents/SOM%20Appendix%20Z%202019.pdf, or by mail to U.S. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services, 7500 Security Boulevard, Baltimore, MD 21244.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144G.09
- History: 46 SR 33
Minn. R. 4659.0110 Missing Resident Plan
Subpart 1. Applicability.
A. This part applies only to a resident who receives assisted living services:
B. For purposes of this subpart, a resident is incapable of taking appropriate action for self-preservation under emergency conditions if the resident:
Subp. 2. Missing resident policies and procedures.
A. The facility must develop and follow a missing resident plan that includes at least the following:
B. When a resident is missing or is suspected missing, a facility's implementation of a missing resident plan does not relieve the facility of its obligation to provide assisted living services and appropriate care to all residents in the facility according to each resident's service plan, assisted living contract, and the requirements of this chapter and Minnesota Statutes, chapter 144G.
Subp. 3. Additional notification required.
After the missing resident is located, a staff member must immediately notify local law enforcement, the resident's representatives, and the resident's case manager, if any.
Subp. 4. Review missing resident plan.
The assisted living director and clinical nurse supervisor must review the missing resident plan at least quarterly and document any changes to the plan.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144G.09
- History: 46 SR 33
Minn. R. 4659.0120 Procedures for Resident Termination and Discharge Planning
Subpart 1. Pretermination meeting notice.
A. Before issuing a notice of termination, the facility must schedule a pretermination meeting under Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.52, subdivision 2, and provide written notice of the meeting to the resident and the resident's representatives at least five business days in advance of the scheduled meeting.
B. The facility must schedule and participate in the pretermination meeting, and make reasonable efforts to ensure that the resident and the resident's representatives are able to attend the meeting. If an in-person meeting is impractical or impossible, the facility may schedule and participate in a meeting via telephone, video, or other means as provided for emergency relocations under subpart 2. If the resident or the resident's representatives fail to cooperate in the scheduling of the meeting or fail to appear at a properly noticed meeting, the facility may issue a notice of termination, provided that the facility demonstrates reasonable efforts to ensure the resident's and the resident's representatives' attendance at the meeting and that proper notice was provided to all parties. If the resident or resident's representatives fail to comply with agreements reached at the pretermination meeting, the facility may proceed with a notice of termination without holding another pretermination meeting, so long as notice of termination is provided at least seven days before the notice is issued.
C. For a resident who receives a home and community-based services waiver under Minnesota Statutes, section 256B.49 and chapter 256S, the facility must provide written notice of the pretermination meeting to the resident's case manager at least five business days in advance.
D. In addition to the notice requirements under Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.52, subdivision 2, the pretermination meeting written notice under item A must include:
E. The facility must provide written notice to the resident, the resident's representatives, and the resident's case manager of any change to the date, time, or location of the pretermination meeting.
Subp. 2. Emergency relocation notice.
A. If there is an emergency relocation under Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.52, subdivision 9, and the licensee intends to issue a notice of termination following the relocation, and an in-person pretermination meeting is impractical or impossible, the facility must use telephonic, video, or other electronic format for the meeting under Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.52, subdivision 2.
B. If the pretermination meeting is held through telephonic, video, or other electronic format under Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.52, subdivision 2, paragraph (d), the facility must ensure that the resident, the resident's representatives, and any case manager or representative of an ombudsman's office are able to participate in the pretermination meeting. The facility must make reasonable efforts to ensure that anyone else the resident invites to the meeting is able to participate.
C. If a pretermination meeting is held after an emergency relocation, the licensee must issue a notice to the resident, the resident's representatives, and the resident's case manager, if applicable, containing the information in subpart 1, item D, at least 24 hours in advance of the pretermination meeting. The notice must include detailed instructions on how to access the means of communication for the meeting.
D. If notice to the ombudsman is required under Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.52, subdivision 9, paragraph (c), clause (3), the facility must provide the notice as soon as practicable, and in any event no later than 24 hours after the notice requirement is triggered.
Subp. 3. Identifying and offering accommodations, modifications, and alternatives.
In addition to the requirements in Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.52, subdivision 2, paragraph (a), clause (2), at the pretermination meeting, the facility must collaborate with the resident and the resident's representatives, case manager, and any other individual invited by the resident to identify and offer any potential reasonable accommodations, modifications, interventions, or alternatives that can address the issues underlying the termination.
Subp. 4. Summarizing pretermination meeting outcomes.
Within 24 hours after the pretermination meeting, the facility must provide the resident and the resident's representatives and case manager, if present at the pretermination meeting, with a written summary of the meeting, including any agreements reached about any accommodation, modification, intervention, or alternative that will be used to avoid terminating the resident's assisted living contract.
Subp. 5. Providing notice.
A. A facility must provide written notice of the resident's contract termination by hand delivery or by first-class mail. Service of the notice must be proved by affidavit of the person effectuating service.
B. If sent by mail, the facility must mail the notice to the resident's last known address.
C. A facility providing a notice to the ombudsman under Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.52, subdivision 7, paragraph (a), must provide the notice as soon as practicable, but in any event no later than two business days after the facility provided notice to the resident. The notice must include a phone number for the resident, or, if the resident does not have a phone number, the phone number of the resident's representatives or case manager.
Subp. 6. Resident-relocation evaluation.
A. If the facility terminates the resident's contract or the resident plans to move out of the facility because the facility has initiated the pretermination or termination process, the facility must prepare a written resident-relocation evaluation. The evaluation must include:
B. The facility must provide a written copy of the resident-relocation evaluation to the resident and the resident's representatives and case manager as soon as practicable but no later than the planning conference under subpart 7, item A.
Subp. 7. Resident-relocation plan.
A. If the facility terminates the resident's contract or the resident plans to move out of the facility because the facility has initiated the pretermination or termination process, the facility must hold a planning conference and develop a written relocation plan with the resident, the resident's representatives and case manager, if any, and other individuals invited by the resident.
B. The relocation plan must incorporate the resident-relocation evaluation developed in subpart 6.
C. The resident-relocation plan must include:
D. The facility must implement the resident-relocation plan, must comply with the coordinated move requirements in Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.55, and must provide a copy of the plan to the resident and, with the resident's consent, to the resident's representatives and case manager, if applicable.
Subp. 8. Providing resident-relocation information to receiving facility or other service provider.
In addition to the requirements in Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.43, subdivision 4, and with the resident's consent, the facility must provide the following information in writing to the resident's receiving facility or other service provider:
A. the name and address of the facility, the dates of the resident's admission and discharge, and the name and address of a person at the facility to contact for additional information;
B. names and addresses of any significant social or community contacts the resident has identified to the facility;
C. the resident's most recent service or care plan, if the resident has received services from the facility; and
D. the resident's current "do not resuscitate" order and "physician order for life-sustaining treatment," if any.
Subp. 9. Resident discharge summary.
At the time of discharge, the facility must provide the resident, and, with the resident's consent, the resident's representatives and case manager, with a written discharge summary that includes:
A. a summary of the resident's stay that includes diagnoses, courses of illnesses, allergies, treatments and therapies, and pertinent lab, radiology, and consultation results;
B. a final summary of the resident's status from the latest assessment or review under Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.70, if applicable, that includes the resident status, including baseline and current mental, behavioral, and functional status;
C. a reconciliation of all predischarge medications with the resident's postdischarge prescribed and over-the-counter medications; and
D. a postdischarge plan that is developed with the resident and, with the resident's consent, the resident's representatives, which will help the resident adjust to a new living environment. The postdischarge plan must indicate where the resident plans to reside, any arrangements that have been made for the resident's follow-up care, and any postdischarge medical and nonmedical services the resident will need.
Subp. 10. Services pending appeal.
If the resident needs additional services during a pending termination appeal, the facility must contact and inform the resident's representatives and case manager, if any, of the resident's responsibility to contract and ensure payment for those services according to Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.54, subdivision 6.
Subp. 11. Expedited termination.
A. A facility seeking an expedited termination under Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.52, subdivision 5, must comply with all of the requirements of this part.
B. If the facility seeks a termination or expedited termination on the basis of Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.52, subdivision 5, paragraph (b), clause (2), the facility must provide the assessment that forms the basis of the expedited termination to the resident with the notice of termination and include the name and contact information of any medical professionals who performed the assessment.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144G.09
- History: 46 SR 33
Minn. R. 4659.0130 Conditions for Planned Closures
Subpart 1. Planned closure; notifying commissioner and ombudsman.
A. Before voluntarily closing, a facility must submit to the commissioner, the Office of Ombudsman for Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities, and the Office of the Ombudsman for Long Term Care the following in writing:
B. A facility may not accept new residents or enter into new assisted living contracts for any new residents as of the date that written notification of the closure is submitted under item A.
C. A licensee must comply with the requirements of this part when the licensee decides to not renew the assisted living contracts of all of its residents.
Subp. 2. Proposed closure plan; contents.
A facility's proposed closure plan must include:
A. the reason for the closure and the proposed date of closure;
B. a proposed timetable for relocating residents, and how the facility will facilitate residents' relocations;
C. a list identifying each resident that will need to be relocated;
D. for those residents identified under item C:
E. identification of at least two safe and appropriate housing providers and, for residents receiving services, appropriate service providers that are in reasonably close geographic proximity to the facility and may be able to accept a resident;
F. the roles and responsibilities of the licensee, assisted living director, and any temporary managers or monitors during the closure process, and their contact information;
G. policies and procedures for ongoing operations and management of the facility during the closure process that ensure:
Subp. 3. Commissioner acknowledgment of notice.
A. Within 14 calendar days of receiving notice under subpart 1, the commissioner shall acknowledge receipt in writing of a facility's planned closure to the licensee.
B. Within 45 calendar days of acknowledging receipt of the notice under subpart 1, the commissioner shall approve the proposed closure plan and verify in writing the effective date of the closure to the licensee.
C. When the commissioner receives written notices of at least three license relinquishments or planned closures within 30 calendar days from the same licensee, the commissioner shall approve and verify the effective date of each closure in writing to the licensee within 75 calendar days of acknowledging receipt of the third notice.
D. No residents may be relocated pursuant to a proposed closure plan until the commissioner approves the proposed closure plan or until a modified closure plan is agreed upon by the commissioner and the licensee.
Subp. 4. Notice to residents.
The licensee shall provide the same written notice of the closure to each resident and the resident's representatives and case manager that was submitted in subpart 1 and approved by the commissioner. The notice must include contact information for the Office of the Ombudsman for Long Term Care, the Office of Ombudsman for Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities, and a primary facility contact that the resident and the resident's representatives and case manager can contact to discuss relocating the resident out of the facility due to the planned closure.
Subp. 5. Resident-relocation evaluation.
A. After the commissioner approves the closure plan, the facility must prepare a written resident-relocation evaluation for each resident identified under subpart 2, item C. The evaluation must include:
B. The facility must provide a written copy of the resident-relocation evaluation to the resident and the resident's representatives and case manager as soon as practicable but no later than the planning conference under subpart 6, item A.
Subp. 6. Resident-relocation plan.
A. The facility must hold a planning conference and develop a written resident-relocation plan with each resident and the resident's representatives, case manager, and other individuals invited by the resident to the planning conference.
B. The relocation plan must incorporate the relocation evaluation developed in subpart 5.
C. The resident-relocation plan must comply with part 4659.0120, subpart 7, item C.
D. The facility must implement the resident-relocation plan, must comply with the coordinated move requirements under Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.55, and must provide a copy of the resident-relocation plan to the resident and, with the resident's consent, the resident's representatives and case manager, if applicable.
E. The department may visit the facility to monitor the closure process.
Subp. 7. Resident-relocation verification.
Within 14 calendar days of all residents having left the facility, the licensee, based on information provided by the resident or resident's representatives, case manager, or family members, shall notify the commissioner in writing that the licensee completed the closure and verify to the commissioner that the licensee complied with the coordinated move requirements in Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.55.
Subp. 8. Information regarding resident relocation to receiving provider.
The facility must comply with part 4659.0120, subpart 8, for all residents who relocate due to the closure.
Subp. 9. Disbursing resident funds.
Within 30 calendar days of the effective date of the facility closure, the facility must follow the requirements of Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.42, subdivision 5.
Subp. 10. Resident discharge summary.
When a resident moves out of the facility, the facility must provide the resident with a written discharge summary that complies with part 4659.0120, subpart 9.
Subp. 11. License forfeiture.
The licensee forfeits its assisted living facility license or assisted living facility with dementia care license upon the effective date of closure identified in subpart 3.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144G.09
- History: 46 SR 33
Minn. R. 4659.0140 Initial Assessments and Continuing Assessments
Subpart 1. Admissions.
A. The assisted living director, in cooperation with the clinical nurse supervisor, is responsible for admitting residents to the facility according to the facility's admission policies.
B. Unless otherwise provided by law, an assisted living facility must not admit or retain a resident unless it can provide sufficient care and supervision to meet the resident's needs, based on the resident's known physical, mental, cognitive, or behavioral condition. The facility is in compliance with this provision if the resident has voluntarily elected to receive care and supervision for the resident's needs through the use of an unaffiliated service provider as permitted under Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.50, subdivision 2, paragraph (e), clause (4).
C. Prospective residents who are denied admission must be informed of the reason for the denial.
Subp. 2. Nursing assessment.
A. A nursing assessment or reassessment under Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.70, subdivision 2, paragraphs (b) and (c), must be conducted on a prospective resident or resident receiving any of the assisted living services identified in Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.08, subdivision 9, clauses (6) to (12).
B. The nursing assessment or reassessment under item A must:
Subp. 3. Individualized review.
A. An individualized review or subsequent review under Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.70, subdivision 2, paragraph (d), must be conducted for a prospective resident or resident receiving only the assisted living services identified in Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.08, subdivision 9, clauses (1) to (5).
B. An individualized initial review or review under Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.70, subdivision 2, paragraph (d), for a prospective resident or resident must:
Subp. 4. Assessor; qualifications.
A. A registered nurse shall complete nursing assessments and reassessments required under Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.70, subdivision 2, paragraphs (b) and (c). Ongoing monitoring may be completed by other licensed nurses acting within the scope of their licenses under Minnesota Statutes, section 148.171.
B. A staff member who meets the qualifications in Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.60, subdivision 2, shall conduct the individualized initial review and subsequent reviews.
Subp. 5. Temporary service plan admission.
If a facility admits an individual according to a temporary service plan under Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.70, subdivision 3, the nurse assessment must be conducted within 72 hours of initiating services.
Subp. 6. Consumer protections under temporary service plan.
An individual who is admitted to an assisted living facility under a temporary service plan under Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.70, subdivision 3, and has not executed an assisted living contract shall receive the same consumer protections and rights under Minnesota Statutes, chapter 144G, provided to a resident who has executed an assisted living contract.
Subp. 7. Weekend assessments.
An assisted living facility must be able to conduct a nursing assessment on a holiday or on a weekend for a resident who is ready to be discharged from the hospital and return to the facility.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144G.09
- History: 46 SR 33
Minn. R. 4659.0150 Uniform Assessment Tool
Subpart 1. Definition.
For purposes of this part, "Uniform Assessment Tool" means an assessment tool that meets the requirements of this part and is used by a licensee to comprehensively evaluate a resident's or prospective resident's physical, mental, and cognitive needs.
Subp. 2. Assessment tool elements.
Each facility must develop a uniform assessment tool. The facility may use any acceptable form or format for the tool, such as an online or a hard-copy paper assessment tool, as long as the tool includes the elements identified in this subpart. A uniform assessment tool must address the following:
A. the resident's personal lifestyle preferences, including:
B. activities of daily living, including:
C. instrumental activities of daily living, including:
D. physical health status, including:
E. emotional and mental health conditions, including:
F. cognition, including:
G. communication and sensory capabilities, including:
H. pain, including:
I. skin conditions;
J. nutritional and hydration status and preferences;
K. list of treatments, including type, frequency, and level of assistance needed;
L. nursing needs, including potential to receive nursing-delegated services;
M. risk indicators, including:
N. who has decision-making authority for the resident, including:
O. the need for follow-up referrals for additional medical or cognitive care by health professionals.
Subp. 3. Record keeping.
Assessment tool results, including those from an assessment supplement, must be maintained in the resident's record as required under Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.43.
Subp. 4. Licensee attestation.
An applicant for an assisted living facility license or a licensee renewing an assisted living facility license must attest to the commissioner in a manner determined by the commissioner that the uniform assessment tool used by the applicant or licensee complies with this part.
Subp. 5. Department access to uniform assessment tool.
At the time of a survey, investigation, or other licensing activity, the licensee must provide the department access to or copy of the uniform assessment tool as required under Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.30, subdivision 4, to verify compliance with this part.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144G.09
- History: 46 SR 33
Minn. R. 4659.0160 Relinquishing an Assisted Living Facility with Dementia Care License
Subpart 1. Voluntary relinquishment; notifying commissioner and ombudsman.
Before relinquishing an assisted living facility with dementia care license, a licensee shall submit to the commissioner and ombudsman in writing:
A. the transition plan; and
B. the name and contact information of another individual, in addition to the facility director, responsible for the daily operation and management of the facility during the relinquishment process.
Subp. 2. Transitional plan; contents.
In addition to the requirements under Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.80, subdivision 3, paragraph (a), clause (2), the transition plan must include:
A. the reason for relinquishing the license and the proposed date of relinquishment;
B. the proposed timetable for resident transitions, the resources that the facility will provide, and how the facility will facilitate resident transitions;
C. a list of residents who may require a change in service plan because of the relinquishment and a description of the residents' respective levels of care, special needs, or conditions; and
D. a list identifying each resident, if any, to whom the facility expects to issue a notice of termination of housing or assisted living services because of relinquishment.
Subp. 3. Notice to residents.
A. Along with the notice to residents required under Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.80, subdivision 3, the facility shall:
B. Once the facility has notified residents according to item A, the facility must revise advertising materials and disclosure information to remove any reference that the facility is an assisted living facility with dementia care and communicate to all potential residents and new residents entering the facility that the licensee will be relinquishing its license.
Subp. 4. Resident-relocation evaluation.
A. For each resident identified according to subpart 2, item D, whose contract the facility terminates, the facility must prepare a resident-relocation evaluation and comply with part 4659.0120, subpart 6.
B. The resident-relocation evaluation under item A may include recommendations for continuing to receive housing and assisted living services from the assisted living facility that is relinquishing its assisted living facility with dementia care license.
Subp. 5. Resident-relocation plan.
For each resident identified in subpart 2, item D, whose contract the facility terminates, the facility must hold a planning conference and develop a written relocation plan and comply with part 4659.0120, subpart 7.
Subp. 6. Verifying resident relocation.
Within 14 calendar days of all residents identified in subpart 2, item D, whose contracts the facility terminates, having left the facility, the licensee, based on information provided by each resident or resident's representatives, case manager, or family member, shall verify to the commissioner in writing that the residents are safely relocated according to this part and the coordinated move requirements in Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.55.
Subp. 7. Information regarding resident relocation to receiving provider.
The facility must comply with part 4659.0120, subpart 8, for all residents who relocate due to the license relinquishment.
Subp. 8. Disbursement of resident funds.
Within 30 calendar days of the effective date of the license relinquishment, the facility must follow the requirements of Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.42, subdivision 5, for all residents who relocate due to the license relinquishment.
Subp. 9. Resident discharge summary.
When a resident moves out of the facility, the facility must provide the resident with a written discharge summary that complies with part 4659.0120, subpart 9.
Subp. 10. Assisted living facility with dementia care license forfeiture.
A. The licensee forfeits its assisted living facility with a dementia care license upon the proposed date of license relinquishment under subpart 2, item A, unless the commissioner has approved an extension to that date in writing.
B. The commissioner shall reclassify the license to the assisted living facility license category as of the date of relinquishment.
C. A licensee shall not reapply for an assisted living facility with dementia care license until one year after the date of license relinquishment.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144G.09
- History: 46 SR 33
Minn. R. 4659.0180 Staffing
Subpart 1. Definition.
For purposes of this part, "direct-care staff" means staff who provide services for residents that include assistance with activities of daily living, medication administration, resident-focused activities, supervision, and support.
Subp. 2. Clinical nurse supervisor.
The facility's clinical nurse supervisor may also fulfill any of the responsibilities that a registered nurse is required to perform at the facility under Minnesota Statutes, chapter 144G
Subp. 3. Direct-care staffing; plan required.
A clinical nurse supervisor must develop and implement a written staffing plan that provides an adequate number of qualified direct-care staff to meet the residents' needs 24 hours a day, seven days a week. When developing a direct-care staffing plan, the clinical nurse supervisor must ensure that staffing levels are adequate to address the following:
A. each resident's needs, as identified in the resident's service plan and assisted living contract;
B. each resident's acuity level, as determined by the most recent assessment or individualized review;
C. the ability of staff to timely meet the residents' scheduled and reasonably foreseeable unscheduled needs given the physical layout of the facility premises;
D. whether the facility has a secured dementia care unit; and
E. staff experience, training, and competency.
Subp. 4. Daily staffing schedule.
A. The clinical nurse supervisor must develop a 24-hour daily staffing schedule. The schedule must:
B. The daily work schedule in item A must be posted, after redacting direct-care staff members' resident assignments, at the beginning of each work shift in a central location in each building of a facility or campus, accessible to staff, residents, volunteers, and the public. The facility shall not disclose any information that is protected by law from public disclosure.
Subp. 5. Direct-care staff availability.
A minimum of two direct-care staff must be scheduled and available to assist at all times whenever a resident requires the assistance of two direct-care staff for scheduled reasonably foreseeable and unscheduled needs, as reflected in the resident's assessments and service plan.
Subp. 6. Direct-care staff availability; night supervision.
During the hours of 10:00 p.m. to 6:00 a.m., direct-care staff shall respond to a resident's request for assistance with health or safety needs within a reasonable amount of time as provided in Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.41, subdivision 1, clause (12), item (ii).
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144G.09
- History: 46 SR 33
Minn. R. 4659.0190 Training Requirements
Subpart 1. Training policy.
A facility must establish, implement, and keep current policies and procedures for staff orientation, training, and competency evaluation, and a process for evaluating staff performance as required under Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.41, subdivision 2, that meets:
A. the orientation, training, and competency requirements under this part and Minnesota Statutes, sections 144G.42 and 144G.60 to 144G.64; and
B. for a facility with an assisted living facility with dementia care license, the additional staff training requirements under Minnesota Statutes, sections 144G.80, 144G.82, and 144G.83.
Subp. 2. Additional orientation.
In addition to the staff orientation requirements identified in subpart 1, the facility's training policy must include orientation training on:
A. the staff person's job description upon hire and whenever there is a change to the job description that changes the nature of the job or how the job is to be performed;
B. the facility's organization chart and the roles of staff within the facility, and the services offered by the facility as identified in the uniform checklist disclosure of services; and
C. the identification of incidents of maltreatment as defined under Minnesota Statutes, section 626.5572, subdivision 15, including abuse, financial exploitation, and neglect, and an explanation that any act that constitutes maltreatment is prohibited.
Subp. 3. Additional training requirements for assisted living facilities with dementia care licenses.
A. In addition to the other training requirements identified in subpart 1, direct care dementia-trained staff under Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.83, subdivision 1, and other staff having direct contact with residents of a facility that has an assisted living facility with dementia care license must receive training on the following topics:
B. A facility with an assisted living facility with dementia care license is responsible for ensuring and maintaining documentation that individuals providing or overseeing staff training relating to dementia and dementia care have the work experience and training required under Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.83, subdivision 3, and have successfully passed a skills competency or knowledge test required by the commissioner before the individual provides or oversees staff training. The commissioner must publish and update as needed a list of acceptable skills competency or knowledge tests on the department's website that are based on current best practice standards in the field of dementia care and meet requirements of Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.83, subdivision 3, clause (2).
Subp. 4. Staff competency; retraining.
The facility's training policy must identify the requirements for retraining staff when the facility determines that a staff person is not demonstrating competency when performing assigned tasks. If retraining does not result in competency, the facility must identify the additional steps it will follow to ensure the staff person achieves competency, the time frame for completing the additional steps, and the actions the facility will take to protect resident rights until competency is achieved.
Subp. 5. Portability of staff training.
A. Unlicensed personnel providing assisted living services who transfer from one licensed assisted living facility to another or who are newly hired by a licensed assisted living facility may satisfy the training requirements under Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.61, subdivision 2, by providing written proof of previously completed training within the past 18 months.
B. The facility must complete an evaluation of the competency of the unlicensed personnel in the areas where the previously completed training is being accepted by the facility before the staff person may provide assisted living services to residents. Competency evaluations must be conducted by a competency evaluator under subpart 6 and Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.61, subdivision 1, and maintained under Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.42, subdivision 8.
Subp. 6. Training records and documentation.
A. The facility must maintain a record of staff training and competency required under this part and Minnesota Statutes, chapter 144G, that documents the following information for each competency evaluation, training, retraining, and orientation topic:
B. Documentation of the completed competency evaluation, training, retraining, or orientation must be provided to the employee at the time the evaluation or training is completed.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144G.09
- History: 46 SR 33
Minn. R. 4659.0200 Nonrenewal of Housing, Reduction in Services; Required Notices
Subpart 1. Relocation requirements for nonrenewal of housing and reduction in services.
A facility that decides not to renew a resident's housing under Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.53, paragraph (a), clause (1), or that reduces a resident's services to the extent that the resident is required to move under Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.55, subdivision 1, paragraph (a), must comply with part 4659.0120, subparts 6 to 9.
Subp. 2. Service reduction notice.
A. A facility providing notice to the ombudsman under Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.55, subdivision 1, paragraph (f), must provide the notice as soon as practicable but no later than two calendar days after determining that the resident will move.
B. The notice under item A must include:
Subp. 3. Change in facility operations notice.
A. A facility sending notice to the ombudsman or the Office of Ombudsman for Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities under Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.56, subdivision 5, paragraph (a), clause (4), must provide the notice in writing and as soon as practicable.
B. The notice under item A must include:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144G.09
- History: 46 SR 33
Minn. R. 4659.0210 Termination Appeals; Procedures and Timelines for Appeals
Subpart 1. Resident appeal notice of termination.
Upon receipt of the facility's written notice of an assisted living contract termination, a resident has:
A. 30 calendar days to appeal a termination under Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.52, subdivision 7, paragraph (b), based on nonpayment of rent or services, or violating the assisted living contract; and
B. 15 calendar days to appeal an expedited termination of housing or services under Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.52, subdivision 7, paragraph (c).
Subp. 2. Contact commissioner to start appeal.
Within the timelines stated in subpart 1, the resident or an individual acting on the resident's behalf shall contact the department in writing to request an appeal of the termination. The failure of a resident to request a hearing within the provided timelines constitutes a waiver of the right to a hearing.
Subp. 3. Hearing process.
A. Hearings under Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.54, shall be conducted in an expedited process, with a hearing held as soon as practicable, but in no event later than 14 calendar days after the Office of Administrative Hearings receives the request for hearing, unless the chief administrative law judge determines, under Minnesota Statutes, section 144G.54, subdivision. 3, paragraph (c), that the hearing should be a formal contested case proceeding conducted under parts 1400.5010 to 1400.8400 and Minnesota Statutes, chapter 14.
B. Formal contested case proceedings shall be held according to parts 1400.5010 to 1400.8400 and Minnesota Statutes, sections 14.57 to 14.62.
C. If the resident is unable to provide self-representation at the hearing or wishes to have an individual present on the resident's behalf, an individual of the resident's choosing may present the resident's appeal to the administrative law judge on the resident's behalf.
D. In cases involving unrepresented residents, the administrative law judge shall take appropriate steps to identify and develop in the hearing relevant facts necessary for making an informed and fair decision. An unrepresented resident shall be provided an adequate opportunity to respond to testimony or other evidence presented at the hearing. The administrative law judge shall ensure that an unrepresented resident has a full and reasonable opportunity at the hearing to establish a record for appeal.
Subp. 4. Order of commissioner.
If a hearing has been held, the commissioner may issue a final order within 14 calendar days after receipt of the recommendation of the administrative law judge. The parties may, within the first seven of those 14 calendar days, submit additional written argument to the commissioner on the recommendation and the commissioner will consider the written arguments. If the commissioner does not issue a final order within 14 calendar days after receipt of the recommendation, the recommendation of the administrative law judge constitutes the final order. Final orders may be appealed in the manner provided in Minnesota Statutes, sections 14.63 to 14.69.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144G.09
- History: 46 SR 33
Chapter 4660 BOARDING CARE HOMES; PHYSICAL PLANT
Minn. R. 4660.0090 Scope
This chapter applies to boarding care homes.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4660.0100 Definitions
Subpart 1. Existing facility.
An existing facility is defined in part 4655.0100, subpart 5. The term "existing" or "existing construction" as used in parts 4660.0100 to 4660.9940 of these rules shall be considered synonymous with "existing facility," as defined in part 4655.0100, subpart 5.
Subp. 2. New construction.
New construction involves all construction planned and commenced after the effective date of these rules. The term "new" or "new construction" as used in parts 4660.0100 to 4660.9940 of these rules means the erection of new facilities, expansion of or additions to existing facilities, modernization or major remodeling involving substantial changes in space or arrangement, and any building planned for conversion to be licensed under the provisions of these rules.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.0200 Licensure
As a condition of licensure, a certificate of need shall be obtained for "construction or modification" as defined in the Minnesota Certificate of Need Act, Laws of Minnesota 1971, chapter 628.
On matters affecting licensure which are not regulated by the Certificate of Need Act, the commissioner of health shall be notified directly in writing relative to proposed planning for all new construction as defined herein, remodeling, changes in existing service, function or bed capacity, addition of new services, sale, and change of ownership.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
- History: L 1977 c 305 s 39
Minn. R. 4660.0300 Compliance with Regulations
Subpart 1. Compliance.
The physical plant of all facilities shall be in compliance with these rules as follows.
Subp. 2. New construction.
All new construction shall be in accordance with the requirements for new construction as outlined in these rules.
Subp. 3. Existing facilities.
All existing facilities shall be deemed to be in substantial compliance with the physical plant requirements for new construction, except as noted in these regulations. When additional beds are added to existing facilities the required dayroom and dining room areas shall be based on the bed capacity of the entire facility. Compliance with the standards for new construction for existing facilities shall be for the areas involved and to the extent that the existing structure will permit. Selected improvements or correction of minor deficiencies in existing facilities shall not be a requirement for compliance with new construction criteria.
Subp. 4. Reclassification.
As a condition for reclassification of a boarding care home to a nursing home, the physical plant shall be in compliance with all new construction requirements for nursing homes.
Subp. 5. State fire marshal.
Fire protection shall be provided in accordance with the requirements of the state fire marshal and of these rules. The state fire marshal's approval of plans for new construction and of the fire protection of the completed facility shall be prerequisite for licensure. Facilities shall maintain a clearance by the state fire marshal in order to qualify for continued licensure.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.0400 Preparation of Plans
Architectural and engineering plans and specifications for new construction shall be prepared and signed by architects and engineers who are registered in the state of Minnesota and in accordance with the requirements by the Board of Architecture, Engineering, Land Surveying, Landscape Architecture, and Interior Design.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
- History: L 1992 c 507 s 22
Minn. R. 4660.0500 Approval of Plans
Preliminary plans and final working drawings and specifications for proposed construction shall be submitted to the commissioner of health for review and approval. Preliminary plans shall be approved before the preparation of final working drawings is undertaken. Final working drawings and specifications shall be approved before construction is begun.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
- History: L 1977 c 305 s 39
Minn. R. 4660.0600 Preliminary Plans
Preliminary plans shall be drawn to scale, show basic dimensions, and indicate the general layout and space arrangement of the proposed building or area and shall include a site plan when applicable. Plans shall indicate assignments of rooms and areas, and shall show bed capacities and fixed equipment.
The planning should include consideration for future expansion of a facility. This includes the site, orientation of the structure on the site, parking areas as well as patient, dietary, and laundry areas. If a laundry is not contemplated initially, provision should be made for its possible future location.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.0700 Final Plans
Final architectural plans and specifications shall include elevations and sections through the building showing types of construction, and shall indicate dimensions and assignments of rooms and areas, room finishes, door types and hardware, elevations and details of nurses' stations, utility rooms, toilets and bathing areas, and large-scale layouts of dietary and laundry areas. Plans shall show location of fixed equipment and sections and details of elevators, chutes, and other conveying systems. Fire walls and smoke partitions shall be indicated. The roof plan shall show all mechanical installations. The site plan, if applicable, shall indicate the proposed and existing buildings, topography, roadways, walks, and utility service lines.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.0800 Final Mechanical and Electrical Plans
Final mechanical and electrical plans and specifications shall cover the complete layout and type of all installations, systems and equipment to be provided in accordance with the requirements of these rules. Heating plans shall include heating elements, piping, thermostatic controls, pumps, tanks, heat exchangers, boilers, breeching, and accessories. Ventilation plans shall include room air quantities, ducts, fire and smoke dampers, exhaust fans, humidifiers, and air handling units. Plumbing plans shall include fixtures and equipment fixture schedule, water supply and circulating piping, pumps, tanks, riser diagrams, building drains, the size, location and elevation of water and sewer services, and the building fire protection systems. Electrical plans shall include fixtures and equipment, receptacles, switches, power outlets, circuits, power and light panels, transformers, and service feeders. Plans shall show location of nurse call signals, telephones, fire alarm stations and detectors, and emergency lighting.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.0900 Start of Construction
Subpart 1. Notice to department.
The department shall be notified in writing of the date of start of construction not less than seven days after commencement. Unless construction is commenced within one year after approval of final working drawings and specifications, the drawings shall be resubmitted for renewal of review and approval.
Subp. 2. Approval of construction changes.
All construction shall be executed in accordance with the approved final plans and specifications. Subsequent construction changes which involve these rules shall be approved by the department before such changes are made.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.1000 Final Inspection
The department shall be notified at least 30 days prior to the completion of construction so that arrangements can be made for a final inspection by the department and by the state fire marshal. Completion involves the entire construction, equipment, staffing patterns and services. Mechanical and electrical systems shall be completed and tested for performance and safety in accordance with specifications and state requirements before new construction can be licensed and patients or residents admitted.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.1100 Plan Safekeeping
At least one set of complete plans of the entire facility, including changes resulting from remodeling or alterations, shall be kept on file in the licensed facility.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.1200 New Construction Site
A care facility shall be so located as to promote at all times the health, comfort, and safety of patients and residents. The factors included in selecting the site for a new facility shall be as follows in items A to L.
A. Public utilities shall be available and such services provided for power and light.
B. The water supply shall be obtained from an approved public water supply system where such is available; otherwise, water shall be obtained from a water supply system, the location, construction, and operation of which is approved by the commissioner of health. Plans and specifications for a private water supply system shall be approved before construction of the system or the facility is started.
C. Sewage and other liquid wastes shall be discharged into an approved public sewerage system where such a system is available; otherwise, the sewage shall be collected, treated, and disposed of in a sewage disposal system which is approved by the commissioner of health and the Minnesota Pollution Control Agency. Plans and specifications for a private sewage disposal system shall be approved before construction of the system or the facility is started.
D. The site shall be away from insect-breeding swamps and shall be no closer than 300 feet to the right-of-way of a railroad main line or to the property line of industrial developments which are nuisance-producing or hazardous to health. The site shall not be contiguous to or in immediate view of a cemetery or a funeral home.
E. The site shall be located within five miles of a municipality and in an area which has a written contract with the municipality providing fire department service, or a written contract with the municipality to provide the services of an approved organized fire department to which an alarm can be sent by telephone or other suitable alarm sending device.
F. The site shall not be located within 85 feet of underground or 300 feet of above-ground storage tanks or warehouses containing flammable liquids used in connection with a service station, garage, bulk plant, or marine terminal or bottling plant of liquefied petroleum gas installation.
G. The topography shall be such that good natural drainage is available, and that the site is not subject to flooding.
H. Adequate all-weather roads and walks shall be provided within the lot lines to the main entrance and the service entrance, including employees' and visitors' parking at the site.
I. Grading to one primary entrance shall allow for access for the elderly and persons with physical disabilities.
J. The site shall include space for outdoor activities.
K. Community activities shall be accessible, and there shall be a maintained public access to the site.
L. Medical services shall be readily available, and the location shall be such that employees can be recruited.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
- History: L 1977 c 305 s 39; L 2005 c 56 s 2
Minn. R. 4660.1300 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4660.1400 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4660.1410 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4660.1420 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4660.1430 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4660.1440 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4660.1450 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4660.1460 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4660.1470 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4660.1480 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4660.1500 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4660.1600 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4660.1700 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4660.1800 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4660.1900 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4660.2000 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4660.2100 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4660.2200 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4660.2300 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4660.2400 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4660.2500 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4660.2600 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4660.2610 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4660.2620 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4660.2630 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4660.2640 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4660.2700 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4660.2800 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4660.2900 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4660.3000 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4660.3100 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4660.3200 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4660.3300 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4660.3400 Bedroom Capacities, New Construction
At least five percent of the rooms shall be designed for single-person occupancy (one bed), and shall have private toilet rooms. At least 75 percent of the beds shall be located in rooms designed for one or two beds. No room shall have more than four beds.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4660.3410 Location of Bedrooms, Existing and New
Bedrooms for residents shall be outside rooms; they shall be dry, well ventilated, naturally lighted, and otherwise suitable for occupancy. Each bedroom shall have direct access to an exit corridor. In existing facilities, the floor in existing bedrooms shall not be more than three feet below the outside grade level. All bedrooms for residents which are licensed on or after the effective date of these rules shall be at or above grade. In all new construction, the floor shall be located at or above the outside grade level or outside surface.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4660.3420 Usable Floor Area
Subpart 1. Existing and new.
The usable floor area and the arrangement and shape of the room shall provide space for furnishings and for the free movement of residents. The usable floor area does not include spaces occupied by toilet rooms, vestibules, lockers or closets, or heating units.
Subp. 2. Existing facilities.
The usable floor area per bed shall not be less than: 100 square feet for single rooms; 80 square feet for two-bed rooms; and 70 square feet for three- or four-bed rooms, when thus licensed prior to the effective date of these rules.
Subp. 3. New construction.
In new construction the usable floor area per bed shall not be less than: 100 square feet for single rooms, and 80 square feet for two-, three-, or four-bed rooms.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4660.3430 Bed Arrangement
Subpart 1. Existing and new.
Beds shall be located so as to avoid drafts, excessive heat, or other discomforts to residents. All single and multibed rooms shall allow for a bed arrangement which can provide at least three feet of floor space at both sides and the foot end of each bed.
Subp. 2. New construction.
Multibed rooms shall be arranged to permit not more than two beds side by side parallel to the window wall.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4660.3440 Windows, New Construction
The window area shall not be less than one-eighth of the usable floor area, and the window sill shall not be higher than two feet, six inches above the floor. The window shall face an open outside space not less than 30 feet deep, and shall provide an unobstructed angle of vision within this space of not less than 65 degrees. This angle may be read along the exterior wall.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4660.3450 Bedroom Doors, New Construction
The door to the corridor shall be of fire-resistive construction in accordance with chapters 1300 to 1365, the State Building Code, 1971 edition, open into the bedroom, and provide a clear opening of 36 inches. Bedroom doors shall not open directly to a dayroom, dining area, or any other common use area. Privacy locks on doors to residents' bedrooms shall be of a type which can be opened with a master key from the corridor side at all times.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4660.3460 Clothes Closet
Subpart 1. New construction.
A separate built-in closet or storage space for clothing and personal belongings shall be provided within the room for each resident. It shall be provided with shelving, at least one drawer, unless included in the bedroom, and a full-length hanging space sized to accommodate clothes on hangers. The interior closet area shall be at least 22 inches deep and 36 inches wide. Locks may be provided, if openable with a master key.
Subp. 2. Existing facilities.
See part 4655.7000, subpart 1, item C.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4660.3470 Cubicle Curtains, Existing and New
Cubicle curtains shall be installed for complete privacy for each resident in multibed rooms. Decorative types recommended.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4660.3500 Corridors, New Construction
The unobstructed width of all corridors in resident areas shall be at least six feet, and all exits shall comply with chapters 1300 to 1365, the State Building Code, 1971 edition.
It is recommended that the planning of a new boarding care home include provisions for ease of compliance with nursing home requirements in order to accommodate a future higher level of care.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4660.3600 Attendants' Station
Subpart 1. Existing facilities.
An attendants' station shall be provided with space for the residents' records and a medicine cabinet.
Subp. 2. New construction.
An attendants' station or stations shall be provided on each resident area or floor with space for the residents' records and a medicine cabinet.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4660.3700 Clean Linen Storage, Existing and New
One or more rooms, closets, or enclosed carts shall be provided for the storage of clean linen.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4660.3800 Nourishment Area, New Construction
A nourishment area or room shall be provided for between-meal refreshments; it may serve more than one resident area, and can be located contiguous with a dayroom. The nourishment area shall be provided with work counter and sink, storage cabinets, and a refrigerator. Ice storage or an ice maker-dispenser, if provided in the resident areas, shall be located here.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4660.3900 Sanitary Fixtures
Subpart 1. Existing facilities.
The number of sanitary fixtures shall not be less than: one toilet and one sink for eight beds, and one shower or tub for 20 beds.
When the licensed capacity is increased, the requirement under subpart 2 shall apply to the new addition. In resident toilets where grab bars or towel bars are not provided, such bars shall be installed in accordance with part 4658.4145 to the extent that the room arrangements will permit.
Subp. 2. New construction.
The number of sanitary fixtures shall not be less than one water closet and one lavatory for four beds, and one shower or tub for 15 beds.
Toilets in central bathing, other service areas, or for personnel or the public shall not be counted in the above requirement. If urinals are provided, they shall be floor mounted. No toilet room shall be without a lavatory and all lavatories shall be provided with hot and cold water. A single-service towel dispenser can use single or roll towels, either disposable or washable.
Subp. 3. Existing and new.
Water closets shall be located in separate toilet rooms, in stalls or within bathing areas only. Portable commodes, chemical toilets, or water closets with moving parts in the bowl or waste line assembly shall not be considered as substitutes for the required number of water closets.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4660.4000 Provision of Resident Toilet Rooms, New Construction
Each toilet room shall be directly accessible from the bedroom, except as noted; it may serve two bedrooms if residents are of the same sex, but not more than four beds. Hinged doors shall swing out, or they shall be double acting and be provided with an emergency type release stop. Privacy door locks shall be of a type which can be opened from the outside without the use of a separate device. Sliding doors shall be surface mounted. Folding doors shall be limited to toilet rooms with a single door access, and shall be capable of easy and positive latching when being closed, and of staying folded in the open position; the required width of door opening shall be increased to allow for the door when folded. Toilet rooms shall be designed for the elderly and infirm.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4660.4100 Toilet Room Layout, New Construction
The door opening shall be at least two feet, eight inches wide.
The center of the water closet shall be located 18 to 21 inches from the side wall and there shall be at least three feet of unobstructed space in front of the bowl. No basic interior room dimension shall be less than three feet, six inches.
The water closet shall be mounted at a height of not less than 16 inches nor more than 19 inches above the floor, measured to the top of seat. The bowl shall be elongated with an open front seat.
The paper holder shall be securely anchored on the side wall near the water closet, six inches above the seat, and six to 12 inches in front of the seat with both dimensions measured to the center of the holder.
A vertical grab bar, at least 18 inches long, shall be provided on the side wall near the water closet. The low end shall be mounted at a height of ten inches above the toilet seat and at a distance of 12 inches in front of the seat. A grab bar on each side of the water closet is recommended.
Grab bars shall have an outside diameter of one and one-half inches, and shall provide a clearance of one and one-half inches between the bar and the wall. Bars shall be securely anchored to sustain a load of 250 pounds for five minutes. The lavatory, with or without a counter top, shall be mounted at a height of 32 inches above the floor, measured to the top edge. A towel bar shall be provided at a height of 42 inches above the floor. It shall be a horizontal grab bar, securely anchored. A mirror shall be provided. A small shelf for personal toilet accessories shall be provided, unless such space is provided by a suitable lavatory or a counter.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4660.4110 Resident Toilet-Bath Combinations
Subpart 1. Existing and new.
In a room used by more than one resident the bathtub or shower area shall be provided with a draw curtain for privacy. Bathtubs and showers shall be provided with a nonslip bottom or floor surface, and the areas shall be provided with grab bars.
Subp. 2. New construction.
The toilet area shall comply with part 4660.4100. The shower or bathtub area shall comply with the requirements in part 4660.4120, subpart 3, and with the requirements for persons with physical disabilities in chapters 1300 to 1365, the State Building Code, 1971 edition. In addition to the above, shower and bathtub areas shall be provided with recessed soap holders without handles.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
- History: L 2005 c 56 s 2
Minn. R. 4660.4120 Central Bathing Area
Subpart 1. Fixtures.
Bathing fixtures shall be provided in accordance with part 4660.3900.
Subp. 2. Existing and new.
In bathing areas with more than one fixture, each bathtub or shower area shall be provided with privacy curtains and/or wall dividers. Bathtubs and showers shall be provided with a nonslip bottom or floor surface, and at least one grab bar, securely anchored, shall be provided at each fixture. There shall be convenient access to toilet facilities. If a water closet is located within an open area with multiple bathing fixtures, the toilet area shall be provided with privacy curtains or stall partitions. Such a toilet facility shall not be for general use by residents outside the bathing area.
Subp. 3. New construction.
All bathtub or shower areas shall be designed for the elderly and infirm. At least one special bathtub or shower area, designed for assisted bathing, shall be available for general use. Shower stalls shall be at least two feet, six inches by two feet, six inches inside dimension, and be without curbs. Bathtubs shall be at least 18 inches, but not more than 20 inches above the floor. Soap holders shall be without handles and be recessed. The special bathtub or shower facilities shall be provided in accordance with the provisions for persons with physical disabilities in chapters 1300 to 1365, the State Building Code, 1971 edition. A shower for assisted bathing shall not be less than four feet by four feet or four feet, six inches by three feet, six inches with the long side open without a curb, and with a 32-inch-high splash protection. The shower area shall have the controls located near the splash protection for easy reach by both resident and attendant, and the floor drain shall be located near the rear wall. A flexible hose hand shower shall be provided, and the soap holder shall be without handle and be recessed. A vertical, nonslip grab bar, 24 inches long, shall be provided at the shower and at the shower entrance location. The low end of the grab bar shall be three feet above the floor. Horizontal grab bars inside wet areas shall be mounted at a height of four feet, six inches above the floor. A folding shower seat, 16 inches deep and 19 inches above the floor, is recommended.
A bathtub area for assisted bathing shall provide at least three feet of working space for the attendant on at least two sides of the tub. A flexible hose hand shower shall be provided, and the soap holder shall be without handle and be recessed. A vertical, nonslip grab bar, 36 inches long, shall be provided at the point of access at each side or end of the tub. The low end of the grab bar shall be four inches above the rim. A horizontal grab bar, 36 inches long, shall be installed four inches above the inside rim, if the bathtub is installed with the long side toward the wall.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
- History: L 2005 c 56 s 2
Minn. R. 4660.4200 Storage Room, New Construction
A room or space for storage of bulky equipment shall be provided.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4660.4300 Janitor's Closet, New Construction
A janitor's closet shall be provided for each floor or resident area. It shall contain a floor receptor or service sink, storage for housekeeping supplies, and equipment.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4660.4400 Drinking Fountains, New Construction
Refrigerated drinking fountains shall be provided in resident areas and in the recreational or activities area.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4660.4500 Room Numbering, Existing and New
All bedrooms and service rooms shall be labeled utilizing a system of numbers. The numbers of rooms in multistory facilities shall be prefixed by the number of the corresponding floor level.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4660.4600 Staff Housing, Existing and New
When living quarters for staff or administration are provided within the facility, they shall be separated from the residents' areas.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4660.4700 Mechanical and Electrical Systems, Existing and New
The requirements for plumbing, heating, ventilation, and electrical systems are covered in parts 4660.7800 to 4660.8610 and 4660.9900 to 4660.9940.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4660.4810 Dining and Activity Areas, Required Floor Area
Subpart 1. New construction.
The total areas set aside for dining, dayroom and activities shall not be less than 30 square feet per bed. It is recommended that an additional, separate activities area be provided.
Subp. 2. Existing and new.
Additional space shall be provided for the above if the facility is offering a day care program.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.4820 Dayrooms, New Construction
The minimum dayroom and activities area shall be 20 square feet per bed. Areas used for corridor traffic or chapels with fixed pews shall not count as dayroom space. Dayrooms shall be located convenient to the bedroom areas and there shall be at least one on each bedroom floor in multistory construction. Dayrooms shall have outside windows, and the sill shall not be higher than two feet, six inches above the floor. It is recommended that an additional, separate activities area be provided.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.4830 Dining Area, New Construction
The minimum dining area shall be ten square feet per bed. The dining room area shall be separate from the kitchen.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.4840 Activities Area, New Construction
Subpart 1. In general.
The area for social and recreational activities or therapeutic treatment shall provide space, arrangement, and equipment to accommodate the activities program.
Subp. 2. Space arrangement.
Special consideration shall be given to space arrangement for obtaining maximum flexibility in divisions or separations of activities areas according to the type of function. Dirty and dusty activities shall be separate from clean activities, and noisy activities shall be completely separate and enclosed.
Subp. 3. Storage.
Storage for supplies and equipment, including storage accommodations and display space for individual participants' projects shall be provided.
Subp. 4. Sanitary facilities.
A counter with a sink or a lavatory and a single-service towel dispenser shall be provided within the area. A toilet room shall be available nearby.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.4900 Kitchen Area, New Construction
Subpart 1. In general.
The kitchen shall be located convenient to the service entrance, the food storage areas, and the dining area. Door openings to food preparation areas shall be located away from entrances to soiled linen or utility rooms, trash rooms, or a laundry. The kitchen area shall be arranged for efficient operation and shall contain sufficient space and equipment for the type of food service selected. If a commercial food service is utilized, or if meals are provided by another facility, the dietary areas and equipment shall be designed to provide for the sanitary storage, processing, and handling of such food. The kitchen area shall be subjected only to that traffic which is directly related to the functions of the food service; food storage areas shall be located to avoid delivery traffic through the kitchen area.
A dietary area designed for limited food preparation should be arranged for possible future expansion in the case that a facility reverts to a standard type food service at a later date.
It is recommended that doors with locks be provided to secure the kitchen and food storage areas during off-hours.
Subp. 2. Storage for nonperishable food.
A well-ventilated storeroom shall be provided for day storage, and for the reserve food supply. The supply room shall have storage capacity for at least one week's supplies. Shelving shall be finished with a washable surface, and the bottom shelf shall be at least eight inches above the floor. Floor drains shall not be provided.
Subp. 3. Storage for perishable food.
Refrigerated storage for perishable foods shall be provided for a minimum three-day supply, and refrigerators, freezers, and refrigerated storerooms shall each be equipped with a reliable thermometer. Walk-in coolers and freezers shall be equipped with open-grid, corrosion-resistant metal shelving with the lowest shelf at least eight inches above the floor; be provided with inside lighting and inside safety lock releases; and the floors shall be flush with the kitchen floor to accommodate movable equipment. Floor drains, directly connected to the building sewer system, shall not be provided inside the room. The required temperatures are covered under part 4655.8670, subpart 4.
Subp. 4. Storage for dishes and utensils.
Enclosed storage shall be provided for all china, glasses, flatware and other food service utensils, including cooking utensils, pots and pans. Dishes and utensils shall not be stored in the dishwashing area.
Subp. 5. Supervisor's office.
An office or separate desk space for the dietary supervisor shall be provided within or adjacent to the kitchen. The area shall include space for reference books and files. Dietary office space may be provided in the administrative area in a facility with 30 beds or less.
Subp. 6. Janitor's closet.
The dietary department shall be provided with its own janitor's closet with a floor receptor or service sink, and storage for housekeeping supplies and equipment.
Subp. 7. Lavatories.
At least one lavatory with a single-service towel dispenser, shall be provided in the food preparation area and in the clean end of the dishwashing area. A single lavatory may be provided for a smaller dietary department; it shall be located near the clean end of the dishwashing area. Mirrors shall not be installed in food preparation areas.
Subp. 8. Toilet room.
A toilet room shall be conveniently accessible for the dietary staff. It shall not open directly into any food service area. It shall contain a water closet, lavatory, mirror, and a single-service towel dispenser.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.4910 Food Service Equipment
Subpart 1. In general, new construction.
All food service equipment, including icemakers, drinking fountains and dishwashers, shall be of a type equal to the standards established by the National Sanitation Foundation (NSF); see part 4660.8610. Sufficient separation shall be provided between each piece of equipment and between equipment and walls to permit easy and effective cleaning, or the equipment shall be placed with a tight fit and the joints sealed. Equipment which is not sealed at the floor shall be installed on sanitary legs providing at least six inches clearance between the equipment and the floor, or it shall be provided with casters. Aisles between equipment shall have a minimum width of four feet to allow room for traffic in work areas and to permit movement of mobile equipment.
Subp. 2. Food carts, new construction.
Food carts shall be enclosed when used for the transport of uncovered food trays or containers through nondietary areas. Floor storage shall be provided for the storage of all carts.
Subp. 3. Cutting boards, new construction.
Cutting boards or similar use table tops shall be constructed of hard rubber, high-pressure laminate, or of similar nonporous, smooth, and cleanable material, and be free of cracks, crevices, and open seams.
Subp. 4. Scullery sink, new construction.
A three-compartment scullery sink shall be provided for the complete hand washing of pots and pans. A drainboard, at least 30 inches long, shall be provided on each end of the sink. Each compartment shall be of a size and depth which will accommodate utensils, pots, and pans. The sanitizing compartment shall be at least 14 inches deep, permit the introduction of long-handled wire baskets for small utensils, and shall be equipped with a unit heater capable of maintaining a water temperature of at least 170 degrees Fahrenheit. If the mechanical dishwasher or a mechanical utensil washer is used for the sanitizing of pots and pans, a sanitizing compartment may not be required and a two-compartment scullery sink may be acceptable.
Subp. 5. Existing facilities.
All food service equipment when it is being replaced shall be of a type equal to the standards established by the National Sanitation Foundation (NSF), see part 4660.8610.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.4920 Dishwashing Area, New Construction
The dishwashing area shall be separate and away from the kitchen food preparation area, and shall be arranged and equipped as follows in items A to D.
A. Soiled dishes shall arrive at the soiled dish counter without passing through the clean dish side of the dishwashing area or through the food preparation area of the kitchen. The soiled dish counter shall include provisions for prerinse of dishes and disposal of garbage.
B. Facilities with more than 30 beds shall be provided with a commercial hood type or conveyor dishwasher. The area containing the dishwasher and the soiled dish spray rinse shall be separated from the food preparation area and the clean dish storage area by a wall protection.
C. In facilities with 30 beds or less, a commercial type under-counter type dishwasher shall be a minimum requirement.
D. Clean dishes shall be returned directly from the clean dish counter to a clean area for storage. The clean dish counter shall not be less than four feet long in facilities with pass-through type dishwashers. If necessary, provision shall be made for the return of empty dish racks to the dishwasher area.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.4930 Washing of Food Carts, New Construction
A separate area shall be provided for the cleaning of food carts.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.4940 Washing of Garbage Cans, New Construction
An area, separated from the dietary area, shall be provided for the washing of garbage cans.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.5000 The Laundry, Size and Location
Subpart 1. Existing and new.
The laundry, if provided in the facility, shall be sized and equipped to handle the laundering of all linen and personal clothing to be processed in the facility.
Subp. 2. New construction.
The entrance to a soiled linen collection room or to a laundry processing room shall be located away from patient or resident living areas and the entrance to the kitchen. Door widths to laundry areas shall allow for movement of equipment and linen carts.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.5010 Soiled Linen Collection Room
Subpart 1. Existing and new.
A separate, enclosed soiled linen room shall be provided for the collection, storage, and sorting of soiled linen to be processed in the laundry processing room or by an outside laundry service.
Subp. 2. New construction.
The soiled linen collection room shall be located at the soiled side of the laundry processing room. A soiled linen collection room for facilities with outside laundry service shall be located near the service entrance.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.5020 Laundry Processing Room, New Construction
The laundry processing room shall be arranged to allow for the orderly, progressive flow of work from the soiled to the clean area. Equipment shall be arranged to minimize linen transportation, provide the necessary floor area between operations, and avoid cross-traffic between clean and soiled operations. The room shall provide space for storage of laundry supplies, cleaning equipment, and for parking of laundry trucks used in the operation. Hand-washing facilities shall be available for the area. A two-compartment laundry tub shall be provided and shall be of a material with a nonabsorbent, smooth, permanent finish. The laundry tub may be provided with fittings for the required hand-washing facilities.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.5030 Laundry Equipment, Existing and New
The equipment shall be of commercial type and shall consist of one or more washers, extractors, tumblers, or combinations of these, as well as ironers and presses, depending on the size of the facility. The washer installation shall be capable of meeting the operating requirements in part 4655.8300, subpart 4. The washers and extractors should each have a combined rated capacity of not less than 12 pounds of dry laundry per patient, when operating not more than 40 hours per week. The tumbler and flat work ironer should each have a rated capacity of 15 percent and 70 percent respectively of the washers when operating 40 hours per week.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08; 256B.431
- History: 20 SR 303
Minn. R. 4660.5040 Clean Linen Room, Existing and New
A separate, enclosed clean linen storage room shall be provided.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.5050 Laundry for Personal Clothing, Existing and New
Provision shall be made for the washing of personal clothing either within or outside the facility.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.5100 Central Storage, New Construction
Central storage shall be provided in all facilities for the storage of bulk supplies and equipment. At least ten square feet per bed shall be provided.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.5200 Refuse Area, Existing and New
An outside, fenced area or a separate room shall be provided for holding trash and garbage prior to disposal. It shall be located convenient to the service entrance and be sized to accommodate the refuse volume and the chosen type of disposal system. An incinerator, if provided, shall be in a separate room, or in a designated area within the boiler or heater room, or outdoors.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.5300 Yard Equipment, New Construction
Separate storage for yard maintenance equipment and supplies shall be provided outside the facility.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.5400 Main Entrance Area, New Construction
A lobby area appropriate to the size of the facility shall be provided. It shall be located near the main control area, with easy access to elevators, if provided. Public toilet facilities shall be provided in this area.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.5500 Administration, New Construction
Space shall be provided for administrative functions involving business records and for the safekeeping of patients' and residents' valuables.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.5600 Facilities for Personnel, Existing and New
Locker and toilet facilities shall be provided in accordance with the requirements of the Minnesota Department of Labor and Industry; see part 4660.8610.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.5700 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4660.5800 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4660.5810 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4660.6000 Access to Facility, New Construction
Accessibility to the facility by patients, residents, and persons with physical disabilities shall include at least one primary entrance without obstructions such as steps or curbs on walkways. Ramp slope shall not exceed one foot rise in 12 feet.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
- History: L 2005 c 56 s 2
Minn. R. 4660.6100 Area Heat Protection, Existing and New
Floors and walls for patient or resident living areas which are overheated due to adjoining heat sources shall be insulated or otherwise protected to prevent the surface from exceeding a temperature of 85 degrees Fahrenheit.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.6200 Ceilings
Subpart 1. Existing and new.
All ceiling finishes in living and service areas for patient and resident areas shall be washable and/or cleanable. Ceilings in high humidity areas shall be provided with a smooth and water resistant finish.
Subp. 2. New construction.
Ceilings shall be acoustically treated in corridors and in patient or resident living areas. Materials which flake or dust shall not be used.
Subp. 3. Ceiling heights, new construction.
Minimum ceiling heights shall be provided as follows:
A. Boiler room ceilings shall be at least five feet higher than the top of the boiler unit and at least two feet, six inches above the main boiler header and connecting piping with a minimum total height of nine feet.
B. Ceilings in corridors, storage rooms, patients' toilet rooms, and other minor rooms shall not be less than seven feet, six inches.
C. Ceilings in all other rooms shall not be less than eight feet.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.6300 Clean Air, Existing and New
All air supplied to the facility shall be free from harmful particulate matter, any type of combustion products or contaminants, obnoxious odors, or exhausted air from the building or adjoining property.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.6400 Door Handles, New Construction
Lever type door handles shall be provided on all doors to bedrooms, toilet rooms, dayroom, dining room, and activities areas.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.6500 Dumbwaiters and Conveyors, New Construction
Shaft enclosure and installation requirements for dumbwaiters or conveyors shall be in accordance with the provisions in chapters 1300 to 1365, the State Building Code, 1971 edition. Enclosed dumbwaiter pits and conveyor spaces shall be provided with access for cleaning.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.6600 Elevators, New Construction
Subpart 1. Elevator cab, shaft enclosure, and installation.
Shaft enclosures and elevator installations shall be provided in accordance with the requirements in chapters 1300 to 1365, the State Building Code, 1971 edition. Elevators shall be provided in all facilities where patients or residents occupy or use more than the entrance or first floor level. The elevator cab shall be at least five feet in each direction and the car door shall have a clear opening of at least three feet.
Subp. 2. Number of elevators.
The number of elevators required are: one elevator for one to 59 persons above the first floor, two elevators for 60 to 200 persons above the first floor, and three elevators for 201 to 350 persons above the first floor. One additional elevator shall be added for each 150 persons in facilities with more than 350 persons above first floor.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.6700 Electrical Safety, Existing and New
Major appliances such as washers and dryers shall be grounded. Electrical items such as radios, television sets, or lamps shall not be placed next to sanitary fixtures.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.6800 Exterior Mechanical Shafts, New Construction
Exterior shafts serving equipment for patient or resident areas shall be constructed to prevent accumulation of dirt, leaves, or snow.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.6900 Floors, Existing and New
Subpart 1. General requirements.
All floors in living and service areas for patients and residents shall be washable and/or cleanable.
Subp. 2. Dietary areas, wet areas.
Floors in areas subject to local wetting shall be finished with a smooth, hard, nonslip, nonabsorbent surface. In dietary areas, such floor surfaces shall be grease resistant.
Subp. 3. Carpeting requirements.
Carpeting, including padding or adhesives, shall conform with the required smoke and flamespread ratings in chapters 1300 to 1365, the State Building Code, 1971 edition; each square yard of the product, or the container, shall be marked for identification of its flamespread rating. Carpeting in patient or resident areas shall be of stain-resistant, high-density, low-pile construction which is cleanable and facilitates wheeled traffic. It shall be stretched and securely fastened to avoid looseness and bunching.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.6910 Floor Joints, New Construction
Thresholds and expansion joint covers shall be flush with the floor, except at exterior doors. Adjacent dissimilar floor materials shall be flush with each other to provide an unbroken surface.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.6920 Nonskid Surfaces, Existing and New
Stairways, ramps, bathtubs, and showers shall be provided with nonslip surfaces. Rubber nonskid mats in bath and shower stalls, and loose scatter rugs in patient or resident areas shall not be used.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.7000 Glass Protection
Subpart 1. Existing facilities.
All full height windows, glass partitions, or glass doors shall be provided with decals or markings.
Subp. 2. New construction.
Any full height window or glass partition of clear glass which has the sill placed at or near floor level and is located in areas accessible to patients or residents shall be provided with a railing or some other structural safety barrier at a height of at least 30 inches above the floor. Glass doors shall be provided with a push bar or with decals or markings.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.7100 The Incinerator, New Construction
An incinerator, if provided, shall comply with the requirements of the Minnesota Pollution Control Agency.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.7200 Linen and Trash Chutes, New Construction
Chute enclosures, service openings, and general installation shall be provided in accordance with the requirements of chapters 1300 to 1365, the State Building Code, 1971 edition. Minimum diameter of a gravity type chute shall be two feet.
The valve for the chute flushing equipment shall be located for convenient use. The ceiling space between shaft walls and the discharge end of the chute shall be sealed to prevent odors from leaking into the enclosing shaft space.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.7300 Overhead Piping, New Construction
Overhead piping shall not be exposed in dietary areas, clean supply and clean linen areas. Overhead sanitary waste lines in these areas shall be avoided.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.7400 Protection Railings, New Construction
Protection railings, 42 inches high, shall be provided in accordance with the requirements for guardrails in chapters 1300 to 1365, the State Building Code, 1971 edition. The provision shall include railings for top landings of stairs, and window wells and open air shafts in areas accessible to patients or residents.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.7500 Walls
Subpart 1. Existing and new.
Wall finishes in living and service areas for patients and residents shall be smooth, washable and/or cleanable. Colors shall be light and cheerful. Walls in areas subject to local wetting shall be provided with a hard, nonabsorbent surface in accordance with chapters 1300 to 1365, the State Building Code, 1971 edition. Walls in high humidity areas shall be provided with a water resistant finish. The juncture at floors and walls in dietary areas shall be sealed or coved.
Subp. 2. New construction.
The juncture at floors and walls shall be coved in all areas used for food preparation and storage of prepared foods.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.7600 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4660.7800 Plant Operation and Maintenance for Existing and New Construction
Subpart 1. General requirements.
The physical plant shall be kept in a continuous state of good repair and operation with regard to the health, comfort, safety and well-being of the occupants in accordance with an established routine maintenance and repair program.
Subp. 2. Walls, floors, and ceilings.
Walls, floors, and ceilings shall be kept in good and acceptable repair at all times. They shall be of a type or finish to permit good maintenance including frequent washing, cleaning, or painting.
Subp. 3. Illumination.
Lighting shall be provided and maintained throughout the facility in accordance with parts 4660.8420 to 4660.8460.
Subp. 4. Emergency electrical service.
If an emergency electrical service is provided it shall be maintained in working condition. An emergency generator shall be operated and tested at frequent intervals.
Subp. 5. Electrical wiring and appliances.
Electrical wiring, appliances, fixtures, equipment, and cords shall be maintained in a serviceable and safe condition. Light and power panels shall be properly indexed and locked when necessary. Radios, televisions, lamps, or clocks shall not be placed within reach of sanitary fixtures.
Subp. 6. Heating, air conditioning, and ventilation.
The mechanical systems shall be operated to maintain the necessary temperatures and air changes. Convectors, registers, ducts, and equipment shall be cleaned at regular intervals, and filters exchanged, when required. The heating system shall be capable of maintaining a minimum temperature of 75 degrees Fahrenheit in all living areas.
Subp. 7. Descaling of equipment.
Caution shall be taken that acid or other chemical solutions do not enter the potable water supply during the descaling operation of mechanical equipment.
Subp. 8. Boiler water additives.
Precautions shall be taken to assure that the type and concentration of boiler water additives is not harmful if steam is used for humidification or comes into direct contact with food.
Subp. 9. Brine tanks.
All brine tanks shall be provided with tight fitting, overlapping covers.
Subp. 10. Elevators and other machinery.
Elevators, dumbwaiters, conveyor systems, and other machinery shall be maintained so as to comply with the rules of the Minnesota Department of Labor and Industry. All dangerous areas and equipment shall be provided with proper safeguards and appropriate devices to prevent accidents.
Subp. 11. Periods of construction.
Special precautions shall be taken to protect patients or residents from dust, harmful and obnoxious odors, dangers, and excessive noise during construction periods.
Subp. 12. Testing of fire safety system.
The total fire alarm system and the fire fighting equipment shall be tested at regular intervals as required by the state fire marshal.
Subp. 13. Storage of hazardous materials.
The storage of gasoline containers, gasoline powered equipment, liquid petroleum gas, fuel oil, paints and other flammable items shall be in accordance with the requirements of the state fire marshal.
Subp. 14. Grounds.
The surrounding grounds within lot lines shall be maintained in an acceptable manner and be kept free of accumulations of refuse and debris. Driveways, walks, and outside steps or ramps shall be maintained in good condition for access and safe use at all times, including the winter months.
Subp. 15. Hot water temperature.
Hot water supplied to lavatories and bathing fixtures shall not exceed 110 degrees Fahrenheit at the fixtures.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4660.7900 Building Construction, New Construction
All new construction shall be in accordance with the requirements for Group D Occupancy in chapters 1300 to 1365, the State Building Code, 1971 edition.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.8000 Plumbing, New Construction
Subpart 1. Installation.
All plumbing systems shall be installed and tested in accordance with the requirements of chapter 4714, the Minnesota Plumbing Code, 1969 edition, and with these rules.
Subp. 2. Area drainage.
Roofs, basements, tunnels, pits, shafts, areaways, courts, yards, and drives shall be properly drained to eliminate intrusion of rain water or ground water into the building. Floor drains in exterior areaways and similar installations shall be provided with a running trap located inside the building to prevent freeze-up in the winter.
Subp. 3. Sanitary fixtures.
The numbers and special types of sanitary fixtures required in the various areas are covered under parts 4660.3400 to 4660.5600. The material used for sanitary fixtures shall be smooth and nonabsorbent with a nonslip bottom surface in bathtubs and showers. Flush valves in living areas shall be of a quiet operating type.
Subp. 4. Waste line interceptors.
Interceptors for sand, plaster, rags, buttons, and other solids shall be provided on the waste line for sinks used for ceramics in activity areas and for washers in the laundry. Grease interceptors are not recommended.
Subp. 5. Valves.
Each water service main, branch main, riser, and branch to a group of fixtures shall be valved. Stop valves shall be provided at each fixture. There shall be easy access to all valves, and if concealed, their location shall be marked.
Subp. 6. Booster heater.
If the water system provides only 110 degrees Fahrenheit hot water, a booster heater shall be provided for the dishwasher and for the washer(s) in the laundry. It shall be located and sized to maintain the required temperature at the point of use. A pressure and temperature relief valve and a conductor pipe which discharges within ten inches off the floor shall be provided. It is recommended that separate hot water heaters for 110 degrees Fahrenheit and 180 degrees Fahrenheit be provided.
Subp. 7. Pipe insulation.
Sufficient insulation shall be provided for all water and steam piping to assure proper functioning of the systems, provide safety against burns, and to prevent undesirable condensation or heat transfer in areas for patients or residents.
Subp. 8. Hot water supply.
Circulating hot water shall be provided in all hot water mains and in risers more than three stories high to assure hot water at the fixtures. The hot water heating equipment shall have sufficient capacity and recovery to supply water at temperatures at the point of use as follows:
A. patient and resident areas, 110 degrees Fahrenheit;
B. mechanical dishwashing, 180 degrees Fahrenheit; and
C. washers in the laundry, 180 degrees Fahrenheit. If a thermostatically controlled mixing valve is used, it shall be of the "fail safe" type, which prevents flow of hot water in case the cold water supply fails. Heaters shall be insulated and provided with a thermometer.
Subp. 9. Dishwashing machine.
The dishwashing machine shall be of a commercial type equal to the standards established by Standard No. 3 of the National Sanitation Foundation (NSF), April, 1965 and shall be of a size that can accommodate food trays. The water supply line at the machine shall be provided with a pressure reducing valve, a pressure gauge, and a vacuum breaker. The rinse water flow pressure shall be maintained between 15 and 25 pounds per square inch (psi) at the machine by the use of a pressure reducing valve. A pressure gauge shall be installed following the reducing valve. A recirculation system and pump shall be provided if the final rinse water heater is located more than five feet from the dishwasher. The drain shall be an indirect waste connection to a trapped floor drain, or it shall be a trapped connection to a branch with a floor drain without a backwater valve in the horizontal branch.
Subp. 10. Waste and vent piping restrictions.
Waste lines over food preparation areas, food storage areas, clean storage areas, and electrical panels shall be avoided. Precautions shall be taken to protect these areas from possible leakage or condensation from overhead lines. Plumbing waste lines and vents shall not be located within ventilation plenums.
Subp. 11. Floor drains.
Floor drains shall not be installed in areas for food storage nor shall they be directly connected to ventilation equipment or air supply plenums.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196; 40 SR 71
Minn. R. 4660.8010 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4660.8200 Heating and Cooling, New Construction
Subpart 1. Design and installation.
All heating and/or cooling systems shall be designed and installed in accordance with the requirements of chapters 1300 to 1365, the State Building Code, 1971 edition. The heating system shall be capable of maintaining a temperature of 75 degrees Fahrenheit in all patient and resident areas. Areas shall be zoned according to use and exposure, and be provided with thermostatic temperature controls. Provision is recommended for humidification of up to 25 percent relative humidity.
Subp. 2. Isolation of major components.
A means of isolating major sections or components in the heating system shall be provided. Supply and return mains, and risers of space heating systems shall be valved to isolate the various sections of each system. Each piece of equipment shall be valved at the supply and return ends. Any pump on which the heating system is dependent should be installed in duplicate for standby service in a nursing home.
Subp. 3. Controls and gauges.
All valves and controls shall be placed for convenient access and use, and thermometers and gauges shall be mounted for easy observation.
Subp. 4. Heating elements.
Heating elements shall be located so as not to interfere with beds in patients' or residents' rooms. Tubing and casing of gravity type heating convectors shall be mounted at least four inches above the floor and be provided with removable sturdy covers in order to facilitate cleaning.
Subp. 5. Forced flow room units.
Cabinets for forced flow heating/cooling units shall be sturdy and shall be mounted either continuously along the floor with a tight fit or at least four inches above the floor. Outside air shall be filtered. The interior air grill for recirculation shall be located not less than four inches above the floor on floor mounted units. Fans or blowers shall be of a quiet operating type, and the fan or blower housing shall not be directly connected to the metal of the unit cabinet. It is recommended that recirculated air also be passed through the filter, and that the filter be replaceable from within the room.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.8300 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4660.8310 Ventilation Requirements
Subpart 1. Existing construction.
Ventilation in existing facilities shall include mechanical exhaust ventilation in the following areas: kitchen; laundry; soiled linen collection room; soiled utility rooms; and toilets, except when private or semiprivate and provided with window ventilation. Ventilation is recommended for janitors' closets.
Subp. 2. New construction.
Mechanical supply and exhaust ventilation shall be provided for all areas as indicated in part 4660.9940. Areas not covered in this table shall be ventilated in accordance with the requirements in chapters 1300 to 1365, the State Building Code, 1971 edition. Areas indicated with equal or positive pressure relationship to adjacent areas shall be provided with tempered makeup air.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
- History: 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4660.8320 Fresh Air Intakes, New Construction
Fresh air intakes for ventilation systems shall be located not less than 25 feet away from a ventilation exhaust, combustion exhaust, driveway or parking area. The bottom of fresh air intakes serving central air systems shall be located as high as possible, but not less than four feet above grade, or, if installed through the roof, not less than two feet above roof level. Air intakes for individual room units shall not be less than one foot, six inches above outside grade. Any exhaust system or waste chute vent shall terminate not less than 25 feet away from windows that can be opened.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.8330 Height of Registers, New Construction
Registers for air supply or return shall be located not less than four inches above the floor.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.8340 Filters, New Construction
All outside air introduced into living and service areas of a facility shall be filtered. Return air to central ventilation systems shall be filtered.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.8350 Dietary Area, New Construction
The dietary area shall be ventilated separately. Ventilation hoods shall be provided for ranges and other heat-producing equipment in addition to the general ventilation. Grease extractors or filters shall be provided. Filters and grease drip pans shall be easily removable for cleaning and replacement. A separate exhaust from the mechanical dishwasher shall not satisfy the requirement for general ventilation of the dishwashing area. Exhaust ducts shall be provided with access panels for cleaning.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.8360 Laundry Area, New Construction
Air in the laundry shall be vented away from the finishing and ironing area and toward the extracting and washing area. The general air movement shall be from the clean area to the soiled area, and shall be of sufficient volume to remove steam, odors and excessive heat. Dryers shall be provided with a lint collector. Horizontal exhaust ducts shall be provided with access panels for cleaning. Spot ventilation for large heat-producing equipment such as dryers and ironers should be provided.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.8370 Mechanical Rooms, New Construction
Mechanical rooms below grade with equipment utilizing liquefied petroleum gas shall be provided with continuous mechanical ventilation providing a pressure which is equal or greater than atmospheric.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.8380 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4660.8410 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4660.8420 Distribution Panel Boards
Subpart 1. Existing and new.
All circuits in light and power panels shall be identified with a typewritten index. It is recommended that doors on electrical panel boards accessible to patients or residents be equipped with a lock.
Subp. 2. New construction.
Lighting and appliance panel boards shall be provided for the circuits on each floor, except for emergency system circuits.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.8430 Corridor Receptacles, New Construction
Single receptacles on a separate circuit for equipment such as floor cleaning machines shall be installed approximately 50 feet apart in all corridors and within 25 feet of ends of corridors.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.8440 Switches and Receptacles, New Construction
Switches shall not be placed higher than 42 inches above the floor. Convenience outlets for electrical appliances shall be located to avoid danger in wet areas.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.8450 Interior Lighting
Subpart 1. Existing facilities.
Each bedroom shall be provided with general illumination and a reading light for each occupant. General lighting levels measured 30 inches above the floor and special illumination at work surfaces shall not be less than:
A. 30 footcandles for all reading surfaces or locations;
B. 20 footcandles at work or activity surfaces in kitchen and laundry;
C. ten footcandles for all other areas, such as bedrooms, dining areas, dayrooms, bathrooms, toilets, corridors, and service stairways; and
D. five footcandles for exit stairways, mechanical equipment rooms, and storage areas.
Subp. 2. New construction.
Interior lighting for living and service areas for patients and residents shall be provided in accordance with the minimum levels of illumination listed in part 4660.9900. Each bedroom shall be provided with general illumination and a separate reading light for each occupant. The required illumination levels are given in footcandle power. General illumination shall be measured 30 inches above the floor and special illumination at the height of the work or reading surface, or location.
Subp. 3. Recommended lighting levels.
It is recommended that lighting levels for areas not covered in the regulations be provided in accordance with Illuminating Engineering Society Recommended Levels of Illumination, 1966 edition.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.8460 Fire Alarm Systems, Existing and New
Fire alarm systems and sprinkler systems shall be provided in accordance with the requirements by the state fire marshal. New construction shall be in accordance with chapters 1300 to 1365, the State Building Code, 1971 edition.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.8500 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4660.8510 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4660.8520 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4660.8530 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4660.8540 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4660.8550 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4660.8560 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4660.8610 Codes and Regulations, New Construction
All construction, installations, and equipment shall conform to the following codes and standards, provided that the requirements of such codes or standards are not inconsistent with the requirements of these regulations.
A. State Building Code, chapters 1300 to 1365, 1971 edition. Available from the Print Communications Division, 117 University Avenue, Saint Paul, Minnesota 55155.
B. Minnesota Plumbing Code, 1969 edition. Available from the Print Communications Division, 117 University Avenue, Saint Paul, Minnesota 55155.
C. Equipment Standards by the National Sanitation Foundation:
D. Vending Machines, State Health Department Regulation No. 10950, November, 1966.
E. "Illuminating Engineering Society, Lighting Handbook, 1966."
F. Nonflammable Medical Gas Systems, National Fire Protection Association, NFPA No. 56F, 1970 edition.
G. State of Minnesota rules of the Department of Labor and Industry, Occupational Safety and Health Rules, January 1971. Available from the Print Communications Division, 117 University Avenue, Saint Paul, Minnesota 55155.
H. Air Pollution Control Rules, Regulations, and Air Quality Standards, 1969 edition. Available from the Print Communications Division, 117 University Avenue, Saint Paul, Minnesota 55155.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.8700 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4660.9900 Minimum Illumination Levels
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.02 to 144A.08
Minn. R. 4660.9910 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4660.9920 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4660.9930 [Repealed, 21 SR 196]
[Repealed, 21 SR 196]
Minn. R. 4660.9940 Ventilation Pressure Relationships and Ventilation for Certain Areas
Subpart 1. Applicability.
Subpart 2 applies to boarding care homes only.
Subp. 2. Table.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.02 to 144A.08
Chapter 4664 HOSPICE SERVICES
Minn. R. 4664.0002 Applicability; Authority; Scope
Subpart 1. Scope; authority.
Parts 4664.0002 to 4664.0550 implement the licensing of hospice providers under Minnesota Statutes, sections 144A.75 to 144A.755, under the authority of Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.752. This chapter must be read together with Minnesota Statutes, sections 144A.75 to 144A.755.
Subp. 2. Medicare-certified hospice; exemptions.
A. As used in this part, the term "Medicare-certified hospice" means a hospice provider certified under the Medicare program and surveyed and enforced by the Minnesota Department of Health.
B. All licensed hospice providers must comply with this chapter, except that a Medicare-certified hospice need not comply with the following provisions of this chapter:
C. Medicare-certified hospices are exempt from the listed provisions under item B because Medicare-certified hospices must comply with equivalent federal statutes or regulations relating to the same subject matter. If a Medicare-certified hospice violates an equivalent federal statute or regulation, the violation is considered by the commissioner to be detrimental to the welfare of a patient and the Medicare-certified hospice is subject to licensing action under Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.754.
Subp. 3. Delegation.
The commissioner may delegate any authority or responsibility to an agent of the department.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639
Minn. R. 4664.0003 Definitions
Subpart 1. Applicability.
As used in parts 4664.0002 to 4664.0550, the terms in this part have the meanings given them.
Subp. 2. Attending physician.
"Attending physician" means a physician who is identified by the hospice patient at the time the patient receives hospice care as having the most significant role in the determination and delivery of the patient's medical care.
Subp. 3. Business.
"Business" means an individual or other legal entity that provides hospice services to persons in their residence of choice.
Subp. 4. Commissioner.
"Commissioner" means the commissioner of health.
Subp. 5. Contract.
"Contract" means a legally binding agreement.
Subp. 6. Core services.
"Core services" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.75, subdivision 3.
Subp. 7. Counseling services or bereavement counseling.
"Counseling services" or "bereavement counseling" has the meaning given to "counseling services" in Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.75, subdivision 4.
Subp. 8. Department.
"Department" means the Department of Health.
Subp. 9. Home health aide.
"Home health aide" means a person who meets the competency and training requirements of part 4664.0260.
Subp. 10. Home health aide services.
"Home health aide services" means services provided by a home health aide.
Subp. 11. Hospice patient.
"Hospice patient" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.75, subdivision 6.
Subp. 12. Hospice patient's family.
"Hospice patient's family" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.75, subdivision 7.
Subp. 13. Hospice provider.
"Hospice provider" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.75, subdivision 5.
Subp. 14. Hospice services or hospice care.
"Hospice services" or "hospice care" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.75, subdivision 8.
Subp. 15. Hospital.
"Hospital" means a facility licensed under Minnesota Statutes, sections 144.50 to 144.56.
Subp. 16. Inpatient facility.
"Inpatient facility" means a hospital, nursing home, or residential hospice facility.
Subp. 17. Interdisciplinary team.
"Interdisciplinary team" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.75, subdivision 9.
Subp. 18. Legend drug.
"Legend drug" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 151.01, subdivision 17.
Subp. 19. Licensee.
"Licensee" means the legal entity responsible for the operation of a hospice, including ensuring compliance with parts 4664.0002 to 4664.0550 and Minnesota Statutes, sections 144A.75 to 144A.755.
Subp. 20. Licensed practical nurse.
"Licensed practical nurse" means a person licensed and currently registered to practice practical nursing as defined under Minnesota Statutes, section 148.171, subdivision 14.
Subp. 21. Managerial official.
"Managerial official" means a director, officer, trustee, or employee of a hospice provider, however designated, who has the authority to establish or control business policy.
Subp. 22. Medical director.
"Medical director" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.75, subdivision 10.
Subp. 23. Medical social services.
"Medical social services" means social work related to the medical, health, or supportive care of patients.
Subp. 24. Nurse.
"Nurse" means a registered nurse or licensed practical nurse authorized to practice nursing in Minnesota in compliance with Minnesota Statutes, sections 148.171 to 148.285.
Subp. 25. Nursing home.
"Nursing home" means a facility licensed under Minnesota Statutes, sections 144A.01 to 144A.155.
Subp. 26. Nutritional counseling.
"Nutritional counseling" means services provided by a dietitian, registered nurse, or physician with respect to a hospice patient's nutrition, including evaluation of a hospice patient's nutritional status and recommendation for changes in nutritional care.
Subp. 27. Occupational therapist.
"Occupational therapist" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 148.6402, subdivision 14.
Subp. 28.
[Repealed, L 2020 c 79 art 2 s 26]
Subp. 29. Other services.
"Other services" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.75, subdivision 11.
Subp. 30. Over-the-counter drug.
"Over-the-counter drug" means any drug that is not a legend drug.
Subp. 31. Palliative care.
"Palliative care" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.75, subdivision 12.
Subp. 32. Pharmacist.
"Pharmacist" means a person licensed under Minnesota Statutes, chapter 151.
Subp. 33. Physical therapist.
"Physical therapist" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 148.65, subdivision 2.
Subp. 34. Physical therapy.
"Physical therapy" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 148.65, subdivision 1.
Subp. 35. Physician.
"Physician" means a person licensed under Minnesota Statutes, chapter 147.
Subp. 36. Prescriber.
"Prescriber" means a person who is authorized by Minnesota Statutes, section 151.01, subdivision 23, to prescribe legend drugs.
Subp. 37. Registered nurse.
"Registered nurse" means a person licensed to practice professional nursing as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 148.171, subdivision 15.
Subp. 38. Residential hospice facility.
"Residential hospice facility" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.75, subdivision 13.
Subp. 39. Responsible person.
"Responsible person" means a person who, because of a hospice patient's incapacity, makes decisions about the hospice patient's care on behalf of the hospice patient. A responsible person may be a hospice patient's family, guardian, conservator, attorney-in-fact, or other agent of the hospice patient. Nothing in this chapter expands or diminishes the rights of persons to act on behalf of hospice patients under other law.
Subp. 40. Social worker.
"Social worker" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 148B.21, subdivision 3.
Subp. 41. Speech-language pathology practice.
"Speech-language pathology practice" has the meaning given to "practice of speech-language pathology" in Minnesota Statutes, section 148.512, subdivision 13.
Subp. 42. Survey.
"Survey" means an inspection of a hospice provider for compliance with this chapter and Minnesota Statutes, sections 144A.75 to 144A.755. Survey includes inspections conducted as part of the investigation of a complaint.
Subp. 43. Surveyor.
"Surveyor" means a representative of the department authorized by the commissioner to conduct surveys of hospice providers.
Subp. 44. Unit of government.
"Unit of government" means a city, county, town, school district, other political subdivision of the state, or an agency of the state or the United States and includes any instrumentality of a unit of government.
Subp. 45. Volunteer services.
"Volunteer services" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.75, subdivision 14.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639; L 2020 c 79 art 2 s 26
Minn. R. 4664.0008 Services Included and Excluded from Licensure
Subpart 1. Determination of direct services.
According to Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.75, subdivision 3, a hospice must ensure that at least two core services are regularly provided directly by hospice employees. A service that is provided directly means a service provided to a hospice patient by employees of the hospice provider and not by contract with an independent contractor. The administration of a contract for hospice services is not in itself a direct service. Factors that must be considered in determining whether a business provides hospice services directly include whether the business:
A. has the right to control and does control the types of services provided;
B. has the right to control and does control when and how the services are provided;
C. establishes charges;
D. collects fees from the patients or receives payment from third-party payers on the patients' behalf;
E. pays compensation on an hourly, weekly, or similar time basis;
F. treats the individuals as employees for purposes of payroll taxes and workers' compensation insurance; and
G. holds itself out as a provider of hospice services or acts in a manner that leads patients or potential patients to reasonably believe that it is a provider of hospice services. None of the factors listed in items A to G is solely determinative.
Subp. 2. Contract services.
If a licensee contracts for a hospice service with a business that is not subject to licensure under this chapter, the licensee must require in the contract that the business comply with this chapter and Minnesota Statutes, sections 144A.75 to 144A.755.
Subp. 3. Governmental providers.
Except as otherwise provided in this chapter or in statute, hospice services that are provided by the state, counties, or other units of government must be licensed under this chapter.
Subp. 4. Fines.
A fine of $300 shall be assessed for a violation of subpart 2.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639
Minn. R. 4664.0010 Licensure
Subpart 1. License issued.
If a hospice provider complies with the requirements of this chapter and Minnesota Statutes, sections 144A.75 to 144A.755, the commissioner shall issue to the hospice provider a certificate of licensure that contains:
A. the licensee's name;
B. the provider's name and address;
C. the beginning and expiration dates;
D. a unique license number;
E. the type of license; and
F. the number of authorized beds for the residential hospice or hospices, if applicable.
Subp. 2. Multiple units or satellites.
Multiple units or satellites of a hospice provider must share the same management that supervises and administers services provided by all units. Each unit and satellite must provide the same full range of services that is required of the hospice provider. Multiple units or satellites of a hospice provider must be separately licensed if the commissioner determines that the units cannot adequately share supervision and administration of services with the main office because of distinct organizational structures.
Subp. 3. Duration of license.
A license is effective for one year after the date the license is issued, except as provided in subparts 11 and 12.
Subp. 4. License application.
An applicant for an initial or renewal license under this part must:
A. provide the following information on forms provided by the commissioner:
B. pay in full the license fee specified in Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.753, subdivision 1, paragraph (c), based on revenues derived from the provision of hospice services during the licensee's fiscal year prior to the year in which the application is being submitted; and
C. ensure that, if the application is for a license renewal, the commissioner receives the application at least 30 days before expiration of the license.
Subp. 5. Agent.
Each application for a hospice provider license or for renewal of a hospice provider license must designate one or more owners, managerial officials, or employees, as an agent:
A. who is authorized to transact business with the commissioner on all matters provided for in this chapter and Minnesota Statutes, sections 144A.75 to 144A.755; and
B. upon whom all notices and orders must be served and who is authorized to accept service of notices and orders on behalf of the applicant and, if licensed, the licensee, in proceedings under this chapter and Minnesota Statutes, sections 144A.75 to 144A.755. The designation of one or more persons under this subpart does not affect the legal responsibility of any other owner or managerial official under this chapter and Minnesota Statutes, sections 144A.75 to 144A.755.
Subp. 6. Notification of changes.
An applicant or licensee shall notify the commissioner in writing within ten working days after any change in the information required to be provided by subparts 4 and 5. A licensee shall notify the commissioner in writing 30 calendar days before the cessation of providing hospice services.
Subp. 7. Application processing.
The commissioner must process an application in the manner provided by Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.753, subdivision 1, paragraph (b). No application shall be processed without payment of the license fee in full, in the amount provided by Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.753, subdivision 1, paragraph (c).
Subp. 8. Verification of revenues.
A. "Revenues" means all money or the value of property or services received by an applicant and derived from the provision of hospice services, including fees for services, grants, bequests, gifts, donations, appropriations of public money, and earned interest or dividends. Under a circumstance listed in item B, the commissioner shall require each applicant to verify its revenues by providing a copy of:
B. The commissioner shall require an applicant to verify its revenues if:
Subp. 9. Prelicensing survey.
Before granting a license, the commissioner may investigate an applicant for compliance with this chapter and Minnesota Statutes, sections 144A.75 to 144A.755.
Subp. 10. Requirements and denial of license.
A. An applicant for an initial or renewal license as a hospice provider must meet all of the following requirements:
B. If an applicant for an initial or renewal license as a hospice provider does not meet all of the requirements in item A, the commissioner shall deny the application. In addition, the commissioner may refuse to grant or renew a license as provided in Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.754, subdivision 1, paragraph (a).
Subp. 11. Conditional license.
If a licensee that has applied for renewal is not in full compliance with this chapter and Minnesota Statutes, sections 144A.75 to 144A.755, at the time of expiration of its license, and the violations do not warrant denial of the license, the commissioner shall issue a license for a limited period conditioned on the licensee achieving full compliance with all applicable statutes, rules, and correction orders.
Subp. 12. Transfers prohibited; changes in ownership.
A license issued under this part may not be transferred to another party. Before a change of ownership of a hospice provider, the prospective owner must apply for a new license under this part. The commissioner must receive the completed application at least 30 days before the effective date of the change of ownership. A change of ownership means a transfer of operational control to a different business entity and includes:
A. transfer of the business to a different or new corporation;
B. in the case of a partnership, the dissolution or termination of the partnership under Minnesota Statutes, chapter 323A, with the business continuing by a successor partnership or other entity;
C. relinquishment of control of the hospice provider by the licensee to another party, including to a contract management firm that is not under the control of the owner of the business' assets;
D. transfer of the business by a sole proprietor to another party or entity; or
E. in the case of a privately held corporation, the change in ownership or control of 50 percent or more of the outstanding voting stock.
Subp. 13. Fire safety requirements.
A residential hospice facility that has been determined by the state fire marshal to be out of compliance with fire safety requirements of the state fire marshal is not eligible for licensure by the commissioner.
Subp. 14. Display of license.
A licensee must display the original license at the hospice provider's principal business office and copies must be displayed at all other offices and residential hospice facility sites. A licensee must provide a copy of the license to any person who requests it.
Subp. 15. Fines.
For a violation of the following subparts, the stated fine shall be assessed:
A. subpart 4, $500 for providing false information;
B. subpart 6, $100; and
C. subpart 14, $50.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639
Minn. R. 4664.0012 Fines for Uncorrected Violations
Subpart 1. Authority.
The fines provided under this part are under the authority of Minnesota Statutes, sections 144.653, subdivision 6, and 144A.752, subdivision 2, paragraph (a), clause (4).
Subp. 2. Fines.
For each violation of this chapter that is subject to a fine under Minnesota Statutes, section 144.653, subdivisions 5 to 8, a fine shall be assessed according to the schedules established in the parts violated. Fines assessed according to this chapter shall be in addition to any enforcement action taken by the commissioner under Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.754, subdivision 1.
Subp. 3. Failure to correct deficiency.
If, upon subsequent reinspection after a fine has been imposed under subpart 2, a deficiency is still not corrected, another fine must be assessed. The fine must be double the amount of the previous fine, except if a daily fine is required.
Subp. 4. Payment of fines.
Payment of fines is due 15 working days from the licensee's receipt of notice from the department.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639
Minn. R. 4664.0014 Schedule of Fines for Violations of Statutory Provisions
Subpart 1. Fines; statutory provisions.
For each violation of one of the following statutory provisions subject to a fine under Minnesota Statutes, section 144.653, subdivision 6, the listed fine shall be assessed:
A. section 144A.751, subdivision 1, clause (1), $250;
B. section 144A.751, subdivision 1, clause (2), $250;
C. section 144A.751, subdivision 1, clause (3), $50;
D. section 144A.751, subdivision 1, clause (4), $350;
E. section 144A.751, subdivision 1, clause (5), $250;
F. section 144A.751, subdivision 1, clause (6), $250;
G. section 144A.751, subdivision 1, clause (7), $50;
H. section 144A.751, subdivision 1, clause (8), $250;
I. section 144A.751, subdivision 1, clause (9), $250;
J. section 144A.751, subdivision 1, clause (10), $250;
K. section 144A.751, subdivision 1, clause (11), $350;
L. section 144A.751, subdivision 1, clause (12), $250;
M. section 144A.751, subdivision 1, clause (13), $500;
N. section 144A.751, subdivision 1, clause (14), $250;
O. section 144A.751, subdivision 1, clause (16), $350;
P. section 144A.751, subdivision 1, clause (17), $250;
Q. section 144A.751, subdivision 1, clause (18), $500;
R. section 144A.751, subdivision 1, clause (22), $350; and
S. section 144A.754, subdivision 5, paragraph (b), $500.
Subp. 2. Vulnerable Adults Act.
For each violation of Minnesota Statutes, section 626.557, the following fines shall be assessed:
A. section 626.557, subdivision 3, $250;
B. section 626.557, subdivision 4a, $100;
C. section 626.557, subdivision 14, paragraph (b), $250; and
D. section 626.557, subdivision 17, $250.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639; L 2005 c 122 s 1
Minn. R. 4664.0016 Waivers and Variances
Subpart 1. Definitions.
For purposes of this part:
A. "waiver" means an exemption from compliance with a requirement of this chapter; and
B. "variance" means a specified alternative to a requirement of this chapter.
Subp. 2. Criteria for waiver or variance.
Upon the application of a licensee, the commissioner must waive or vary any provision of this chapter, except for those provisions reflecting statutory requirements; relating to criminal disqualification, Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.754, subdivision 5, paragraph (b); or relating to the hospice bill of rights, part 4664.0030, if the commissioner finds that:
A. either:
B. the waiver or variance will not adversely affect the health, safety, or welfare of any hospice patient.
Subp. 3. Experimental variance.
The commissioner shall grant a variance to allow a hospice provider to offer hospice services of a type or in a manner that is innovative, will not impair the services provided, will not adversely affect the health, safety, or welfare of the hospice patients, and is likely to improve the services provided.
Subp. 4. Conditions.
The commissioner shall impose conditions on the granting of a waiver or variance that the commissioner considers necessary for the health, safety, and well-being of persons who receive hospice care.
Subp. 5. Duration.
The commissioner shall identify the duration of any waiver or variance.
Subp. 6. Application.
An application for waiver or variance from the requirements of this chapter may be made at any time, must be made in writing to the commissioner, and must specify the following:
A. the rule for which the waiver or variance is requested;
B. the time period for which the waiver or variance is requested;
C. if the request is for a variance, the specific alternative action that the licensee proposes;
D. the reasons for the request;
E. justification that subpart 2 or 3 will be satisfied; and
F. any other information that the commissioner requests to determine whether the requested waiver or variance would meet the criteria in subpart 2 or 3.
Subp. 7. Grants and denials.
The commissioner must grant or deny each request for waiver or variance in writing. Notice of a denial must contain the reasons for the denial. The terms of a requested variance may be modified upon agreement between the commissioner and a licensee.
Subp. 8. Violation of variances or waivers.
A failure to comply with the terms of a variance or waiver is a violation of this chapter.
Subp. 9. Revocation or denial of renewal.
The commissioner shall revoke or deny renewal of a waiver or variance if:
A. the waiver or variance adversely affects the health, safety, or welfare of the licensee's hospice patients;
B. the licensee fails to comply with the terms of the variance;
C. the licensee notifies the commissioner in writing that it wishes to relinquish the waiver or variance and be subject to the rule previously waived or varied; or
D. the revocation or denial is required by a change in law.
Subp. 10. Hearings.
A denial of a waiver or variance may be contested by requesting a hearing as provided by part 4664.0018. The licensee bears the burden of proving that the denial of a waiver or variance was in error.
Subp. 11. Fines.
A fine shall be assessed for a violation under subpart 8 in the amount of the fine established for the rule that was varied or waived.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639
Minn. R. 4664.0018 Hearings
Subpart 1. Hearing rights.
An applicant for a license or a licensee that has been assessed a fine under part 4664.0014, subpart 2, that has had a waiver or variance denied or revoked under part 4664.0016, or that has a right to a hearing under Minnesota Statutes, section 144.653, subdivision 8, or 144A.754, subdivision 1, may request a hearing to contest the action or decision according to the rights and procedures provided by this part and Minnesota Statutes, chapter 14.
Subp. 2. Request for hearing.
A request for a hearing shall be in writing and shall:
A. be mailed or delivered to the commissioner or the commissioner's designee;
B. contain a brief and plain statement describing every matter or issue contested; and
C. contain a brief and plain statement of any new matter that the licensee believes constitutes a defense or mitigating factor.
Subp. 3. Informal conference.
At any time, the licensee and the commissioner may hold an informal conference to exchange information, clarify issues, or resolve any or all issues.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639
Minn. R. 4664.0020 General Provisions
Subpart 1. Compliance.
A hospice provider must maintain compliance and provide hospice services and programs as required by this chapter and Minnesota Statutes, sections 144A.75 to 144A.755.
Subp. 2. Required services.
A hospice provider must be regularly engaged in providing care and services to hospice patients. The hospice provider must ensure that at least two core services are regularly provided by hospice employees. The core services are:
A. physician services;
B. registered nursing services;
C. medical social services; and
D. counseling services.
Subp. 3. Service availability.
A hospice provider must make hospice care, including nursing services, physician services, and short-term inpatient care, available on a 24-hour basis, seven days a week. The hospice provider must also ensure the availability of drugs and biologicals on a 24-hour basis, seven days a week.
Subp. 4. Additional services.
A hospice provider must provide physical therapy, occupational therapy, speech therapy, nutritional counseling, home health aide services, and volunteers as directed by the interdisciplinary team through the assessment and plan of care process.
Subp. 5. Respite care.
"Respite care" means short-term care in an inpatient facility, when necessary to relieve the hospice patient's family or other persons caring for the patient. Respite care may be provided on an occasional basis.
Subp. 6. Contingency plan.
A. A hospice provider must provide to the patient or the responsible person a contingency plan that contains:
B. A hospice provider must ensure that the contingency plan required by item A is implemented as written.
Subp. 7. Professional licenses.
Nothing in this chapter limits or expands the rights of health care professionals to provide services within the scope of their licenses or registrations.
Subp. 8. Illegal acts.
Neither a hospice provider nor any owner or managerial official of the hospice provider shall permit, aid, or abet the commission of any illegal act in the provision of hospice care.
Subp. 9. False statements.
Neither a hospice provider nor any owner or managerial official of the hospice provider shall make any false oral or written statement to the commissioner or any representative of the commissioner in a license application or in any other record or report required by this chapter or by Minnesota Statutes, sections 144A.75 to 144A.755.
Subp. 10. Access to information and property.
A hospice provider shall permit the commissioner or an employee or agent authorized by the commissioner, upon presentation of credentials, to:
A. examine and copy any files, books, papers, records, memoranda, or data of the hospice provider; and
B. enter upon any property, public or private, for the purpose of taking any action authorized by this chapter or Minnesota Statutes, sections 144A.75 to 144A.755, including obtaining information required in a license application or in any other record or report required by this chapter or Minnesota Statutes, sections 144A.75 to 144A.755, taking steps to remedy violations, or conducting surveys.
Subp. 11. Interference prohibited.
A hospice provider shall not interfere with or impede a representative of the commissioner:
A. in contacting the hospice provider's clients; or
B. in the enforcement of this chapter or Minnesota Statutes, sections 144A.75 to 144A.755.
Subp. 12. Destruction of evidence.
A hospice provider shall not destroy or otherwise make unavailable any records or other evidence relating to the hospice provider's compliance with this chapter and Minnesota Statutes, sections 144A.75 to 144A.755.
Subp. 13. Background studies.
A hospice provider shall:
A. complete background studies as provided in Minnesota Statutes, section 245A.04;
B. cooperate with the commissioners of health and human services in connection with background studies, as provided in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.057; and
C. comply with Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.754, subdivision 5.
Subp. 14. Fines.
For each violation of the following subparts, the stated fine shall be assessed:
A. subpart 2, $100;
B. subpart 3, $500;
C. subpart 4, $100;
D. subpart 6, item A, $100;
E. subpart 6, item B, $300;
F. subpart 8, $500;
G. subpart 9, $500;
H. subpart 10, $500;
I. subpart 11, $500;
J. subpart 12, $500; and
K. subpart 13, $500.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639
Minn. R. 4664.0025 Advertising
Subpart 1. Advertising.
Licensees shall not use false, fraudulent, or misleading advertising in the marketing of hospice services. For purposes of this part, advertising includes any means of communicating to potential hospice patients or their responsible persons the availability, nature, or terms of hospice services.
Subp. 2. Fines.
For each violation of this part, a fine of $250 shall be assessed.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639
Minn. R. 4664.0030 Hospice Bill of Rights and Notification of Service Charges
Subpart 1. Notification of bill of rights.
No later than the time hospice services are initiated, a hospice provider shall give a written copy of the hospice bill of rights, as required by Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.751, to each hospice patient or responsible person.
Subp. 2. Content of notice.
In addition to the text of the bill of rights in Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.751, subdivision 1, the written notice to the patient must include the following:
A. a statement, printed prominently in capital letters, as follows: IF YOU HAVE A COMPLAINT ABOUT THE AGENCY OR PERSON PROVIDING YOU HOSPICE SERVICES, YOU MAY CALL, WRITE, OR VISIT THE OFFICE OF HEALTH FACILITY COMPLAINTS, MINNESOTA DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH. YOU MAY ALSO CONTACT THE OMBUDSMAN FOR OLDER MINNESOTANS;
B. the telephone number, mailing address, and street address of the Office of Health Facility Complaints;
C. the telephone number and address of the Office of the Ombudsman for Older Minnesotans;
D. the licensee's name, address, telephone number, and name or title of the person to whom problems or complaints may be directed; and
E. if the hospice provider operates a residential hospice facility, the written notice to each residential hospice patient must include the number and qualifications of the personnel, including both staff persons and volunteers, employed by the provider to meet the requirements of part 4664.0390 on each shift at the residential hospice facility.
Subp. 3. Charges for services.
A hospice provider must provide to a hospice patient or responsible person within 48 hours of admission a written notice of charges for services, according to Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.751, subdivision 1, clause (8). Notice under this subdivision is in addition to the notice required by Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.751, subdivision 1, clause (7).
Subp. 4. Change in charges for services.
A hospice provider must provide written notice of changes in charges for services, according to Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.751, subdivision 1, clause (17). The notice must include the name, address, and telephone number of the Office of the Ombudsman for Older Minnesotans.
Subp. 5. Acknowledgment of receipt.
A hospice provider shall obtain written acknowledgment of the hospice patient's receipt of the bill of rights and notice of charges for services, or if unable to obtain written acknowledgment, document oral acknowledgment of receipt, including the date of the acknowledgment. The acknowledgment must be obtained from the hospice patient or the hospice patient's responsible person.
Subp. 6. Documentation.
The licensee shall retain in the hospice patient's record documentation of compliance with this part.
Subp. 7. Waivers prohibited.
A licensee shall not request or obtain from hospice patients any waiver of any of the rights enumerated in Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.751, subdivision 1. A waiver obtained in violation of this subpart is void.
Subp. 8. Fines.
For each violation of the following subparts, the stated fine shall be assessed:
A. subpart 1, $250;
B. subpart 2, $50;
C. subpart 3, $250;
D. subpart 4, $250;
E. subpart 5, $50; and
F. subpart 6, $50.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639; L 2005 c 122 s 1
Minn. R. 4664.0040 Handling of Patients' Finances and Property
Subpart 1. Powers-of-attorney.
A licensee must not accept powers-of-attorney from hospice patients for any purpose and must not accept appointments as guardians or conservators of hospice patients, unless the licensee maintains a clear organizational separation between the hospice service and the program that accepts guardianship or conservatorship appointments. This subpart does not apply to licensees that are Minnesota counties or other units of government.
Subp. 2. Handling patient finances.
A licensee may assist hospice patients with household budgeting, including paying bills and purchasing household goods, but must not otherwise manage a hospice patient's finances. A licensee must provide a hospice patient with receipts for all transactions and purchases paid with the hospice patient's funds. When receipts are not available, the transaction or purchase must be documented. A licensee must maintain records of all such transactions.
Subp. 3. Security of patient property.
A licensee must not borrow a hospice patient's property, nor in any way convert a hospice patient's property to the licensee's possession, except in payment of a fee at the fair market value of the property.
Subp. 4. Gifts and donations.
Nothing in this part precludes a licensee or its staff from accepting bona fide gifts of minimal value or precludes the acceptance of donations or bequests made to a licensee that are exempt from income tax under section 501(c) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986.
Subp. 5. Fines.
For each violation of the following subparts, the stated fine shall be assessed:
A. subpart 1, $250;
B. subpart 2, $100; and
C. subpart 3, $100.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639
Minn. R. 4664.0050 Complaint Procedure
Subpart 1. Requirement.
A hospice provider must establish a system for receiving, investigating, and resolving complaints from its hospice patients.
Subp. 2. Designated person.
A hospice provider must designate a person or position that is responsible for complaint follow-up, complaint investigation, resolution, and documentation. The person or position shall maintain a log of complaints received for one year from the date of receipt.
Subp. 3. Interdisciplinary team.
The interdisciplinary team must review any patient, family, or caregiver complaints about care provided and must take remedial action as appropriate.
Subp. 4. Patient notice.
The system required by subpart 1 must provide written notice to each hospice patient that includes:
A. the hospice patient's right to complain to the licensee about the services received;
B. the name or position of the person or persons to contact with complaints;
C. the method of submitting a complaint to the licensee;
D. the right to complain to the Department of Health, Office of Health Facility Complaints; and
E. a statement that the hospice provider shall in no way retaliate because of a complaint.
Subp. 5. Prohibition against retaliation.
A licensee must not take any action that negatively affects a hospice patient or hospice patient's family in retaliation for a complaint made by the hospice patient.
Subp. 6. Fines.
For each violation of the following subparts, the stated fines shall be assessed:
A. subpart 1, $250;
B. subpart 2, $100;
C. subpart 3, $300;
D. subpart 4, $100; and
E. subpart 5, $250.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639
Minn. R. 4664.0060 Acceptance of Patients; Discontinuance of Services
Subpart 1. Acceptance of hospice patients.
No licensee shall accept a person as a hospice patient unless the licensee has staff sufficient in qualifications and numbers to adequately provide the hospice services described in Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.75, subdivision 8.
Subp. 2. Discontinuance of services.
If the licensee discharges or transfers a hospice patient for any reason, then:
A. the reason for the discharge or transfer must be documented in the clinical record. The documentation must include:
B. a written notice must be given to the hospice patient or responsible person at least ten days in advance of termination of services by the hospice provider, except according to Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.751, subdivision 1, clause (17), and must include the information required under item D, and the name, address, and telephone number of the Office of the Ombudsman for Older Minnesotans. A copy of the discharge notice shall be placed in the clinical record;
C. if the hospice patient's health has improved sufficiently that the patient no longer needs the services of the licensee, the hospice patient's physician must document that the discharge is appropriate; and
D. before the discharge, the hospice provider must give the hospice patient or the responsible person a written list of providers that provide similar services in the hospice patient's geographical area and must document that the list was provided.
Subp. 3. Fines.
For each violation of the following subparts, the stated fine shall be assessed:
A. subpart 1, $500; and
B. subpart 2, $250.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639; L 2005 c 122 s 1
Minn. R. 4664.0070 Governing Body
Subpart 1. Governing body.
A hospice provider must have a governing body that assumes full legal responsibility for determining, implementing, and monitoring policies governing the hospice provider's total operation. The governing body members must participate in an initial orientation to the hospice philosophy.
Subp. 2. Administrator.
A licensee must designate an administrator who is responsible for the day-to-day management of the hospice program. The administrator must have defined lines of responsibility and authority and be responsible for the overall management of the hospice. The administrator is responsible to the governing body for:
A. implementing, monitoring, and reporting on the hospice's services;
B. ensuring the quality of patient care;
C. resolving problems, including the retention of all incident and accident reports for at least one year and the results of the investigations; and
D. ensuring that quality assurance activities are performed.
Subp. 3. Fines.
For each violation of the following subparts, the stated fine shall be assessed:
A. subpart 1, $100; and
B. subpart 2, $100.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639
Minn. R. 4664.0080 Medical Director
Subpart 1. Medical director.
A licensee must have a medical director, who may be an employee or contractor or may serve as a volunteer.
Subp. 2. Role of medical director.
A licensee must establish in writing the medical director's responsibilities and the procedures necessary to implement the licensee's policies and this chapter concerning medical care. The licensee must provide the policies and procedures to the medical director if the medical director is an employee or contractor of the licensee or a volunteer. If the medical director is a contractor, the policies and procedures must be incorporated into a written contract.
Subp. 3. Responsibilities.
A. The responsibilities of a medical director include, but are not limited to:
B. A medical director may:
Subp. 4. Fines.
For each violation of the following subparts, the stated fine shall be assessed:
A. subpart 1, $300;
B. subpart 2, $100; and
C. subpart 3, $100.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639
Minn. R. 4664.0085 Clinical Nurse Supervision
Subpart 1. Requirement.
A licensee must have a clinical nurse supervisor who is a registered nurse.
Subp. 2. Role.
A licensee must establish in writing the responsibilities of the clinical nurse supervisor and the procedures necessary to implement the licensee's policies and this chapter concerning nursing care and delegation. The licensee must provide the policies and procedures to the clinical nurse supervisor if the clinical nurse supervisor is an employee or contractor of the licensee or a volunteer. If the clinical nurse supervisor is a contractor, the licensee must incorporate the policies and procedures into a written contract.
Subp. 3. Responsibilities.
The responsibilities of a clinical nurse supervisor include, but are not limited to:
A. assuming overall responsibilities for the nursing component of the hospice patient's care program;
B. implementing policies and procedures described in subpart 2;
C. providing consultation to the interdisciplinary team, hospice management, staff, and other community health providers; and
D. ensuring that a registered nurse supervises nursing personnel.
Subp. 4. Fines.
For each violation of the following parts, the stated fine shall be assessed:
A. subpart 1, $300;
B. subpart 2, $100; and
C. subpart 3, $300.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639
Minn. R. 4664.0090 Professional Management Responsibility
Subpart 1. Professional management.
A hospice provider must ensure that all hospice services provided by contractual arrangement related to a hospice patient's care for terminal illness are provided according to this chapter and Minnesota Statutes, sections 144A.75 to 144A.755.
Subp. 2. Written contracts.
If a hospice provider arranges for another individual or entity, including an inpatient facility, to furnish hospice services to a hospice patient, then the hospice provider must have a written contract for the provision of the services. The contract must include:
A. a description of the services to be provided under contract;
B. a stipulation that services may only be provided with the express authorization of the hospice provider;
C. the manner in which the contracted services are coordinated, supervised, and evaluated by the hospice provider;
D. the delineation of the roles of the hospice provider and the contractor in the admission process, patient and family assessment, and interdisciplinary care conferences;
E. requirements for documenting that services are furnished according to the contract;
F. the qualifications of the personnel providing the services; and
G. a stipulation that the hospice provider is responsible for overall management of the hospice patient's care coordination with other providers.
Subp. 3. Inpatient services contracts.
If a hospice provider arranges for another individual or entity to furnish inpatient services to a hospice patient, then the hospice provider must have a written contract for the provision of the services. The contract must include:
A. a requirement that the hospice provider furnish to the contractor a copy of the patient's plan of care;
B. a statement that the contractor agrees to abide by the patient care protocols established by the hospice for its patients;
C. a requirement that the medical record includes a record of all inpatient services and events and that a copy of the discharge summary and a copy of the medical record, if requested, is provided to the hospice provider; and
D. a statement that the hospice provider retains responsibility for appropriate hospice care training of the personnel who provide hospice care under the contract.
Subp. 4. Fines.
For each violation of the following subparts, the stated fine shall be assessed:
A. subpart 1, $100;
B. subpart 2, $100; and
C. subpart 3, $100.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639
Minn. R. 4664.0100 Assessment
Subpart 1. Requirement.
A hospice provider must ensure that each hospice patient and hospice patient family has a current assessment. An interdisciplinary team must complete an individualized, comprehensive assessment of each hospice patient and hospice patient family's needs. The assessment must address, but is not limited to, the physical, nutritional, emotional, social, spiritual, pain, symptom management, medication, and special needs of the hospice patient and hospice patient's family during the final stages of illness, dying, and bereavement, and any other areas necessary to the provision of hospice care.
Subp. 2. Fines.
A fine of $350 shall be assessed for each violation of this part.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639
Minn. R. 4664.0110 Plan of Care
Subpart 1. Plan of care.
Each hospice patient and hospice patient's family must have a current and up-to-date written plan of care. The plan of care must be based on the assessments described in part 4664.0100 and developed by the interdisciplinary team, medical director or designee, and the attending physician prior to providing hospice care. The plan of care must be developed with the active participation of the hospice patient or the hospice patient's responsible person. The plan of care must:
A. reflect the current individualized needs of the hospice patient and the hospice patient's family and be based on the current assessments;
B. address the palliative care of the hospice patient, including medication side effects and monitoring;
C. include a description and frequency of hospice services needed to meet the hospice patient's and hospice patient family's needs. Services must include bereavement counseling for the hospice patient's family for up to one year following the death of the patient; and
D. include identification of the persons or categories of persons who are to provide the hospice services.
Subp. 2. Implementation.
A hospice provider must ensure that hospice services are provided according to the plan of care.
Subp. 3. Copy of plan of care.
A hospice provider must provide the hospice patient or the responsible person a copy of the initial plan of care. Changes to the plan of care must be made available to the hospice patient or responsible person upon request.
Subp. 4. Fines.
For each violation of the following subparts, the stated fine shall be assessed:
A. subpart 1, $300;
B. subpart 2, $350; and
C. subpart 3, $50.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639
Minn. R. 4664.0120 Reassessment and Review of Plan of Care
Subpart 1. Reassessment.
Each hospice patient and hospice patient's family shall be reassessed based on their individualized needs.
Subp. 2. Review of plan of care.
A plan of care must be reviewed and updated at intervals as specified in the plan, by the attending physician, medical director, and the interdisciplinary team. The reviews must be documented.
Subp. 3. Fines.
For each violation of the following subparts, the stated fine shall be assessed:
A. subpart 1, $300; and
B. subpart 2, $50.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639
Minn. R. 4664.0140 Orientation to Hospice Requirements
Subpart 1. Orientation training.
Every individual applicant for a license and every person who provides direct care, supervision of direct care, or management of services for a licensee must complete an orientation training to hospice requirements before providing hospice services to hospice patients. The orientation need only be completed once. The orientation training must include the following topics:
A. an overview of this chapter and Minnesota Statutes, sections 144A.75 to 144A.755;
B. handling of emergencies and use of emergency services;
C. reporting the maltreatment of vulnerable minors and adults under Minnesota Statutes, chapter 260E and section 626.557;
D. the hospice bill of rights;
E. handling of patients' complaints and reporting of complaints to the Office of Health Facility Complaints;
F. services of the Office of the Ombudsman for Older Minnesotans; and
G. hospice philosophy and the physical, spiritual, and psychosocial aspects of hospice care.
Subp. 2. Sources of orientation training.
The orientation training required by this part may be provided by the licensee or may be obtained from other sources. The commissioner shall provide a curriculum and materials that may be used to present the orientation training.
Subp. 3. Verification and documentation.
Each licensee shall retain evidence that the required orientation training has been completed by each person specified in subpart 1.
Subp. 4. Fines.
For each violation of the following subparts, the stated fine shall be assessed:
A. subpart 1, $300; and
B. subpart 3, $50.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639
Minn. R. 4664.0150 Employee Performance Review and in-Service Training
Subpart 1. Performance review.
A hospice provider must complete a performance review of every employee according to the provider's policy, but no less often than every 24 months.
Subp. 2. In-service training.
In-service training must address care of the terminally ill and special needs of the hospice patient and the hospice patient's family, as determined by the hospice staff and the interdisciplinary team.
Subp. 3. Employee proficiency.
A hospice provider must ensure that employees are able to demonstrate competency in skills and techniques necessary to care for hospice patient's needs as identified through assessments and described in the plan of care.
Subp. 4. Fines.
For each violation of the following subparts, the stated fine shall be assessed:
A. subpart 1, $50;
B. subpart 2, $50; and
C. subpart 3, $300.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639
Minn. R. 4664.0160 Quality Assurance
Subpart 1. Quality assurance.
A hospice provider must conduct an ongoing, integrated, self-assessment of the quality and appropriateness of hospice care provided, including inpatient care, home care, and hospice services provided under contract. The findings shall be used by the hospice provider to correct identified problems and to revise hospice policies if necessary. The licensee shall establish and implement a written quality assurance plan that requires the licensee to:
A. monitor and evaluate two or more selected components of its services at least once every 12 months; and
B. document the collection and analysis of data and the action taken as a result.
Subp. 2. Fines.
A fine of $100 shall be assessed for each violation of this part.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639
Minn. R. 4664.0170 Interdisciplinary Team
Subpart 1. Interdisciplinary team.
A hospice provider must designate an interdisciplinary team. The interdisciplinary team must include at least the following individuals, two of whom must be hospice employees:
A. a doctor of medicine or osteopathic medicine;
B. a registered nurse;
C. a social worker; and
D. a counselor.
Subp. 2. Coordinator.
A hospice provider must designate a registered nurse to coordinate the implementation of the plan of care for each hospice patient, as developed by the interdisciplinary team.
Subp. 3. Coordination with other services.
A hospice provider must ensure that the interdisciplinary team coordinates with any person or entity providing any service to the patient, so that all services are provided according to the plan of care.
Subp. 4. Fines.
For each violation of the following subparts, the stated fine shall be assessed:
A. subpart 1, $300;
B. subpart 2, $100; and
C. subpart 3, $100.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639; L 2016 c 119 s 7
Minn. R. 4664.0180 Volunteer Services
Subpart 1. Volunteer services.
A hospice provider may use volunteers to provide hospice services as identified by the interdisciplinary team, under the direction of the hospice volunteer coordinator, except for delegated nursing tasks, as described in subparts 6 and 7.
Subp. 2. Competency.
A hospice provider must ensure that all volunteers are competent to perform their assigned services consistent with the hospice patient's plan of care.
Subp. 3. Volunteer coordinator.
A hospice provider must designate a hospice provider employee or volunteer to coordinate volunteer services. The volunteer coordinator shall coordinate volunteer services to ensure that they are performed consistent with the individualized plan of care.
Subp. 4. Professional services.
A hospice provider must ensure that volunteers who provide professional services meet current state licensure or registration requirements.
Subp. 5. Training.
A hospice provider must ensure that each volunteer completes a volunteer training course before performing any volunteer services. The volunteer training course may be combined with other training, must be consistent with the specific tasks that volunteers perform, and must include the following topics:
A. the orientation required by part 4664.0140;
B. confidentiality of hospice patient records and communications between hospice patients and hospice provider employees, volunteers, and contractors;
C. goals and services of hospice care; and
D. record keeping.
Subp. 6. Home health aide services.
A hospice provider must ensure that volunteers who perform home health aide services as identified in part 4664.0260 have been determined by a registered nurse to be competent in those services.
Subp. 7. Supervision.
A hospice provider must ensure that supervision of volunteer home health aide services is provided according to part 4664.0260, subpart 4.
Subp. 8. Availability of clergy.
A hospice provider must make reasonable efforts to arrange for visits of clergy and other members of religious organizations in the community to hospice patients who request such visits and must advise hospice patients of the opportunity for visits of clergy.
Subp. 9. Fines.
For each violation of the following subparts, the stated fine shall be assessed:
A. subpart 2, $300;
B. subpart 3, $100;
C. subpart 4, $300;
D. subpart 5, $300;
E. subpart 6, $300;
F. subpart 7, $350; and
G. subpart 8, $100.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639
Minn. R. 4664.0190 Health Information Management
Subpart 1. Health information management.
A hospice provider must maintain health information management services, including clinical records, according to accepted professional standards and practices, federal regulations, and state statutes pertaining to content of the clinical record, health care data, computerization, confidentiality, retention, and retrieval. The clinical record must be readily accessible and systematically organized to facilitate retrieval. The hospice provider must maintain the records at the hospice provider's office site. For purposes of this part, "health information management" means the collection, analysis, and dissemination of data to support decisions related to patient care, effectiveness of care, reimbursement and payment, planning, research, and policy analysis.
Subp. 2. Form of entries.
A hospice provider must ensure that entries in the clinical record are made for all hospice services provided. Documentation of hospice services must be created and signed by the staff person providing the service no later than the end of the work period. Entries must be legible, permanently recorded in ink, dated, and authenticated with the name and title of the person making the entry.
Subp. 3. Content.
A hospice provider must ensure that each hospice patient's record contains:
A. identification data and the name of the responsible person;
B. the initial assessment and reassessments;
C. the plan of care and any changes to the plan of care;
D. pertinent medical history and allergies;
E. complete documentation of all events and services provided directly and by contract, treatments, medications, and progress notes;
F. documentation on the day of occurrence of any significant change in the patient's status or any significant incident and any actions by staff in response to the change or incident;
G. a summary following the discontinuation of services, which includes the reason for the initiation and discontinuation of services and the patient's condition at the discontinuation of services;
H. consent and authorization forms;
I. a copy of the patient's health care directive, if executed and available;
J. any complaints received, investigations, and resolutions;
K. documentation identifying coordination with other persons or entities providing services, as required by part 4664.0170, subpart 3;
L. documentation of tuberculosis screening of residential hospice patients; and
M. any other information necessary to provide hospice care for each individual hospice patient.
Subp. 4. Protection of information.
A hospice provider must safeguard clinical records against loss, destruction, and unauthorized use.
Subp. 5. Confidentiality.
A hospice provider must not disclose to any other person any personal, financial, medical, or other information about a hospice patient, except as may be required or permitted by law. A hospice provider must establish and implement written procedures for security of hospice patient records, including:
A. the use of patient records;
B. the removal of patient records from the establishment; and
C. the criteria for release of patient information.
Subp. 6. Retention.
A hospice provider must retain a hospice patient's record for at least six years following the patient's discharge or discontinuation of services. A hospice provider must make arrangements for secure storage and retrieval of hospice patient records if the licensee ceases business.
Subp. 7. Transfer.
If a hospice patient transfers to another hospice provider or other health care practitioner or provider or is admitted to an inpatient health care facility, a hospice provider, upon request of the hospice patient or as otherwise authorized by law, must send a copy or summary of the hospice patient's record to the new provider or facility or to the patient.
Subp. 8. Fines.
For each violation of the following subparts, the stated fine shall be assessed:
A. subpart 1, $100;
B. subpart 2, $50;
C. subpart 3, $100;
D. subpart 4, $100;
E. subpart 5, $250;
F. subpart 6, $50; and
G. subpart 7, $100.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.05; 14.3895; 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639; 44 SR 371
Minn. R. 4664.0210 Physician Services
Subpart 1. Medical need requirement.
A hospice provider must ensure that physician services are available and adequate in frequency to meet the general medical needs of the hospice patients to the extent that these needs are not met by the attending physician.
Subp. 2. Fines.
A fine of $300 shall be assessed for each violation of this part.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639
Minn. R. 4664.0220 Nursing Services
Subpart 1. Requirement.
A hospice provider must ensure that nursing services are available and adequate in frequency to meet the needs of the hospice patient.
Subp. 2. Fines.
A fine of $300 shall be assessed for each violation of this part.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639
Minn. R. 4664.0230 Medical Social Services
Subpart 1. Requirement.
A hospice provider must ensure that medical social services are provided by a qualified social worker and are available and adequate in frequency to meet the needs of the hospice patient.
Subp. 2. Fines.
A fine of $300 shall be assessed for each violation of this part.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639
Minn. R. 4664.0240 Counseling Services
Subpart 1. Requirement.
A hospice provider must ensure that counseling services are available and adequate in frequency to meet the needs of the hospice patient and hospice patient's family. A hospice provider must provide a planned program of supportive services and bereavement counseling under the supervision of a qualified professional according to qualifications identified by hospice policy. The services must be available to patients and families during hospice care and the bereavement period following the death of the hospice patient.
Subp. 2. Fines.
A fine of $300 shall be assessed for each violation of this part.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639
Minn. R. 4664.0250 Physical Therapy, Occupational Therapy, and Speech-Language Pathology
Subpart 1. Services required.
A hospice provider must ensure that physical therapy services, occupational therapy services, and speech-language pathology services are available and adequate in frequency to meet the needs of the hospice patient.
Subp. 2. Fines.
A fine of $300 shall be assessed for each violation of this part.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639
Minn. R. 4664.0260 Home Health Aide Services
Subpart 1. Home health aide services.
A hospice provider must ensure that home health aide services are available and adequate in frequency to meet the needs of the hospice patient.
Subp. 2. Competence.
A hospice provider must ensure that persons who perform home health aide services are competent in those services.
Subp. 3. Delegated home health aide services.
Home health aide services are delegated nursing services or assigned physical therapy services under the direction and supervision of a registered nurse or physical therapist. A registered nurse may delegate nursing services or a physical therapist may assign therapy services only to a home health aide who possesses the knowledge and skills consistent with the complexity of the nursing or physical therapy service being delegated or assigned and only according to Minnesota Statutes, sections 148.171 to 148.285 or 148.65 to 148.78, respectively. The licensee must establish and implement policies to communicate up-to-date information to the registered nurse or physical therapist regarding the current home health aides and their training and qualifications, so the registered nurse or physical therapist has sufficient information to determine the appropriateness of delegating or assigning home health aide services.
Subp. 4. Supervision.
A hospice provider must ensure that the home health aide services are supervised to verify that the services are adequately provided, identify problems, and assess the appropriateness to the patient needs. The hospice provider must ensure that a registered nurse or physical therapist visits the hospice patient's home site at least every two weeks or more frequently based on the plan of care. The home health aide may or may not be present at the time of the supervisory visit.
Subp. 5. Written instructions.
A hospice provider must ensure that a registered nurse or physical therapist prepares written instructions for hospice patient care to be performed by a home health aide. The hospice provider must ensure that the registered nurse or physical therapist orients each home health aide to each hospice patient for the services to be performed.
Subp. 6. Qualifications.
A hospice provider must ensure that persons who perform home health aide services:
A. successfully complete 75 hours of training, as described in subpart 7, and a competency evaluation, as described in subpart 8; or
B. successfully complete a competency evaluation, as described in subpart 8.
Subp. 7. Training.
A. If a hospice provider provides training for persons to perform home health aide services, the training must meet the requirements in this subpart.
B. The home health aide training must combine classroom and supervised practical training totaling at least 75 hours, with at least 16 hours devoted to supervised practical training. The individual being trained must complete at least 16 hours of classroom training provided by a registered nurse before beginning the supervised practical training. "Supervised practical training" as used in this subpart means training in a laboratory or other setting in which the trainee demonstrates knowledge while performing tasks on an individual.
C. The training of home health aides and the supervised practical portion of the training must be performed by or under the general supervision of a registered nurse who possesses a minimum of two years of nursing experience, at least one year of which must be in the provision of home health care. Other individuals may provide instruction under the supervision of the qualified registered nurse. A mannequin may be used for training.
D. Classroom and supervised practical training shall be based on an instruction plan that includes learning objectives, clinical content, and minimum acceptable performance standards.
Subp. 8. Competency evaluation.
A hospice provider must ensure that a home health aide competency evaluation:
A. is performed by a registered nurse;
B. addresses each of the following subject areas:
C. uses evaluation after observation of the tasks identified in item B, subitems (9) to (12). Subject areas identified in item B, subitems (1) to (8) and (13), must be evaluated through written examination, oral examination, or after observation of the home health aide with a hospice patient. Assistance with self-administration of medications, administration of medications, and other nursing procedures must be competency evaluated according to part 4664.0265; and
D. determines that a home health aide who is evaluated as satisfactory in all subject areas except one is considered competent. The aide is not allowed to perform the task in which the aide is evaluated as unsatisfactory, except under direct supervision of a registered nurse.
Subp. 9. Training and competency.
A. For each person who performs home health aide services, a licensee must comply with this subpart.
B. For each 12 months of employment or contracted services, a person who performs home health aide services must complete at least 12 hours of in-service training in topics relevant to the provision of hospice services.
C. A hospice provider must retain documentation that it has complied with this part and must provide documentation to persons who have completed the in-service training.
D. If a person has not performed home health aide services for a continuous period of 24 consecutive months, the person must demonstrate to a registered nurse competence in the skills listed in subpart 8, item B.
Subp. 10. Documentation.
A hospice provider must verify that persons employed or contracted to perform home health aide services have satisfied the requirements of this part and must retain documentation in the personnel records.
Subp. 11. Fines.
For a violation of the following subparts, the stated fine shall be assessed:
A. subpart 1, $300;
B. subpart 2, $300;
C. subpart 3, $350;
D. subpart 4, $350;
E. subpart 5, $300;
F. subpart 6, $300;
G. subpart 7, $300;
H. subpart 8, $300;
I. subpart 9, $300; and
J. subpart 10, $50.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639
Minn. R. 4664.0265 Home Health Aide Requirements
Subpart 1. Self-administration of medications; medication administration; other nursing and physical therapy procedures.
A. A home health aide may perform assistance with self-administration of medications, medication administration, and other nursing and physical therapy procedures if delegated the activity by a registered nurse or physical therapist.
B. "Assistance with self-administration of medications" means performing a task to enable a hospice patient to self-administer medication and includes one or more of the following:
C. "Medication administration" means performing a task to ensure that a hospice patient takes a medication and includes one or more of the following:
D. "Medication reminder" means providing an oral or visual reminder to a hospice patient to take medication.
E. "Pro re nata medication" or "p.r.n. medication" means a medication that is ordered to be administered to or taken by a hospice patient as necessary. The administration of a p.r.n. medication must be reported to a registered nurse:
Subp. 2. Training.
A home health aide performing assistance with self-administration of medication, medication administration, and other nursing and physical therapy procedures must:
A. be instructed by a registered nurse or physical therapist on specific written instructions and proper methods to perform the procedure;
B. be instructed by a registered nurse or physical therapist on reporting information to a registered nurse or physical therapist regarding the hospice patient's refusal of the procedure, when to report to the registered nurse or physical therapist, medication side effects, and reasons why the medication was not administered or not self-administered; and
C. demonstrate to a registered nurse or physical therapist the home health aide's ability to competently follow the procedure. The registered nurse or physical therapist shall provide patient-specific instructions as required under part 4664.0260, subpart 5.
Subp. 3. Authorization and limitations on administering medications.
Home health aides may be delegated to perform medication administration and assistance with self-administration of medications, whether oral, suppository, eye drops, ear drops, inhalant, topical, or administered through a gastrostomy tube. A home health aide delegated assistance with self-administration of medications and medication administration under this subpart must not be delegated administration of medications by injection, whether intravenously, intramuscularly, or subcutaneously.
Subp. 4. Fines.
For a violation of the following subparts, the stated fine shall be assessed:
A. subpart 1, $350;
B. subpart 2, $300; and
C. subpart 3, $350.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639
Minn. R. 4664.0270 Medication and Treatment Orders
Subpart 1. Administration.
A hospice provider must ensure that all medications and treatments are administered according to the plan of care.
Subp. 2. Authorizations.
For the purpose of this part, the term "prescriber's order" means an order for medication or treatment. A hospice provider must ensure that there is a written prescriber's order for each drug for which a hospice provider provides assistance with self-administration of medication or medication administration, as defined under part 4664.0265, including an over-the-counter drug. The prescriber's order must be dated and signed by the prescriber, except as provided by subparts 4 and 5, and must be current and consistent with the interdisciplinary team assessment. Medications may be administered by:
A. a licensed nurse or physician;
B. a home health aide who has been delegated the task of assistance with self-administration of medications or medication administration by a registered nurse;
C. the hospice patient, or the hospice patient's family, consistent with the plan of care; or
D. any other individual authorized by applicable state and local laws. The person, and each drug the person is authorized to administer, must be specified in the patient's plan of care.
Subp. 3. Medication orders.
A prescriber's order for medication must contain the name of the drug, frequency, dosage indication, and directions for use.
Subp. 4. Oral orders.
Upon receiving a prescriber's order orally from a prescriber, a licensed nurse or pharmacist must:
A. prepare and sign a written order reflecting the oral order; and
B. forward the written order to the prescriber for the prescriber's signature no later than seven days after receipt of the oral order. Written orders reflecting oral orders must be countersigned by the prescriber within 90 days of the oral order.
Subp. 5. Electronically transmitted orders.
A hospice provider must ensure that:
A. a prescriber's order received by telephone, facsimile machine, or other electronic means is communicated to a supervising registered nurse. The hospice provider must take action to implement the order in a time frame that is consistent with the needs of the hospice patient, but no later than 24 hours;
B. a prescriber's order received by electronic means, not including facsimile machine, is immediately recorded or placed in the hospice patient's record by a licensed nurse, forwarded to the prescriber for the prescriber's signature, and countersigned by the prescriber within 90 days after the order was received by electronic means; and
C. a prescriber's order that is signed by the prescriber may be transmitted by facsimile machine. The prescriber's order must be immediately recorded or a durable copy placed in the hospice patient's record by a person authorized by a supervising registered nurse.
Subp. 6. Implementation of order.
Upon receipt of a prescriber's order, a nurse must take action to implement the order within 24 hours or sooner to meet the hospice patient's needs.
Subp. 7. Renewal of orders.
A hospice provider must ensure that a prescriber's order is renewed and meets the individual needs of the hospice patient.
Subp. 8. Disposition of scheduled drugs.
A hospice provider must develop and implement a written policy for the disposal of drugs scheduled under Minnesota Statutes, section 152.02, that are maintained in the hospice patient's home when those drugs are no longer needed by the patient.
Subp. 9. Fines.
For a violation of the following subparts, the stated fine shall be assessed:
A. subpart 1, $350;
B. subpart 2, $350;
C. subpart 3, $350;
D. subpart 4, $350;
E. subpart 5, $300;
F. subpart 6, $500 per day;
G. subpart 7, $100; and
H. subpart 8, $100.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639
Minn. R. 4664.0290 Infection Control
Subpart 1.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 4.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 5.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 6.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 7. Training.
A hospice provider must ensure that, for each 12 months of association with the hospice provider, all employees, contractors, and volunteers of the hospice provider who have contact with hospice patients in their residences, and their supervisors, complete in-service training about infection control techniques. The training must include information on:
A. hand washing techniques;
B. the need for and appropriate use of protective gloves, gowns, and masks;
C. disposal of contaminated materials and equipment, such as dressings, needles, syringes, and razor blades;
D. disinfecting reusable equipment; and
E. disinfecting environmental surfaces.
Subp. 8. Fines.
For a violation of subpart 7, the stated fine shall be $300.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.05; 14.3895; 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639; 44 SR 371
Minn. R. 4664.0300 Personnel Records
Subpart 1. Personnel records.
A licensee must maintain a record of each employee, individual contractor, and volunteer. The record must include the following information:
A. evidence of current professional licensure, registration, or certification, if licensure, registration, or certification is required by state or federal law; and
B. records of training required by this chapter.
Subp. 2. Job descriptions.
A licensee must maintain current job descriptions, including qualifications, responsibilities, and identification of supervisors, if any, for each job classification.
Subp. 3. Criminal background checks.
A licensee must maintain documentation of criminal background checks as required in Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.754. Documentation of criminal background checks may be maintained in a confidential file, if made available to authorized parties upon request.
Subp. 4. Retention of personnel records.
A hospice provider must maintain each personnel record for at least three years after an employee or contractor ceases to be employed by or under contract with the licensee.
Subp. 5. Fines.
For each violation of the following subparts, the stated fine shall be assessed:
A. subpart 1, $50;
B. subpart 2, $50;
C. subpart 3, $50; and
D. subpart 4, $50.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639
Minn. R. 4664.0310 Information and Referral Services
Upon request by the commissioner, a hospice provider must provide to the commissioner information necessary to establish and maintain information and referral services required by Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.755.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639
Minn. R. 4664.0320 Surveys
Subpart 1. Coordination of surveys.
If feasible, the commissioner must survey licensees to determine compliance with this chapter at the same time as surveys for certification for Medicare and medical assistance if Medicare or Medicaid certification is based on compliance with the federal conditions of participation and on survey and enforcement by the Department of Health as agent for the United States Department of Health and Human Services.
Subp. 2. Scheduling surveys.
Surveys must be conducted without advance notice to licensees. Surveyors may contact licensees on the day of a survey to arrange for someone to be available at the survey site. The contact does not constitute advance notice.
Subp. 3. Contacting and visiting hospice patients.
Surveyors may contact or visit a hospice provider's patients without notice to the licensee. Before visiting a patient, a surveyor must obtain the patient's or responsible person's permission by telephone, by mail, or in person. Surveyors must inform all patients and responsible persons of their right to decline permission for a visit.
Subp. 4. Information from hospice patients.
The commissioner may solicit information from hospice patients by telephone, mail, or other means.
Subp. 5. Patient information.
Upon the commissioner's request, a hospice provider must provide to the commissioner information identifying some or all of its patients and any other information about the hospice provider's services to the patients.
Subp. 6. Hospice patient sample.
The commissioner may conduct a written survey of all, or a sampling of, hospice patients to determine their satisfaction with the services provided.
Subp. 7. Fines.
A fine of $500 shall be assessed for each violation of subpart 5.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639
Minn. R. 4664.0330 Inpatient Care
Subpart 1. Short-term inpatient care.
A hospice provider must ensure that inpatient care is available for pain control, symptom management, and respite purposes and is provided in a licensed hospital, a nursing home, or a residential hospice facility. Inpatient care must be provided directly or under arrangement with one or more hospitals, nursing homes, or residential hospice facilities.
Subp. 2. Fines.
A fine of $300 shall be assessed for each violation of this part.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639
Minn. R. 4664.0360 Review of Buildings
Subpart 1. Review of buildings.
Existing buildings and new construction must be reviewed and approved by the commissioner prior to licensure. Review includes submission of construction drawings and written specifications for new construction, additions, and major modifications.
Subp. 2. Fines.
A fine of $50 shall be assessed for each violation of this part.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639
Minn. R. 4664.0370 Building Classification
Subpart 1. Building classification.
Notwithstanding the Minnesota State Building Code and the Minnesota State Fire Code, new construction and existing buildings converted to residential hospice facility use must:
A. meet the requirements for Group R, Division 3 occupancy, if serving five or less persons, or Group R, Division 4 occupancy, if serving six to 12 persons, under the International Building Code as incorporated by reference under chapter 1305;
B. meet the requirements of NFPA 101 (Life Safety Code), 1997 edition, chapter 22, section 22-2, for small facilities housing persons with impractical evacuation capability. The Life Safety Code is incorporated by reference under part 4664.0380, subpart 2; and
C. if serving five or less persons, be protected throughout by an approved automatic sprinkler system designed and installed according to NFPA 13D or NFPA 13R, which are incorporated by reference under part 4664.0380, subpart 2.
Subp. 2. New construction, additions, and major modifications.
"New construction," as used in this part and part 4664.0360, means the erection of new buildings or the alterations of or additions to existing buildings commenced on or after September 26, 2004. Additions to and major modifications of existing residential hospice facilities must conform to new construction standards. Compliance of existing facilities with new construction shall be for the areas involved and to the extent that the existing structure will permit, provided the health, safety, and welfare of the patients will not be adversely affected.
Subp. 3. Existing residential hospice facilities.
Residential hospice facilities licensed before September 26, 2004, are deemed to be in compliance with the physical plant requirements for new construction.
Subp. 4. Existing building.
An existing building converted to a residential hospice facility must comply with new construction standards.
Subp. 5. Fines.
For each violation of the following subparts, the stated fine shall be assessed:
A. subpart 1, $500;
B. subpart 2, $500; and
C. subpart 4, $500.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639
Minn. R. 4664.0380 Other Law; Incorporations by Reference
Subpart 1. Minnesota Rules.
All residential hospice facility construction, installations, and equipment must comply with the following rules, provided that the rules are not inconsistent with the requirements of this chapter:
A. chapters 1300 to 1370, the State Building Code;
B. chapter 4714, the Plumbing Code;
C. chapter 4720, public water supplies;
D. chapter 4725, wells and borings; and
E. chapter 7080, individual sewage treatment systems.
Subp. 2. Incorporations by reference.
For purposes of this chapter, the documents listed in items A to D are incorporated by reference. They are available from the National Fire Protection Association, 1 Batterymarch Park, Quincy, Massachusetts 02269, and through the Minitex interlibrary loan system. They are subject to frequent change. All residential hospice facility construction, installations, and equipment must conform to the following codes, provided that the requirements of the codes are not inconsistent with the requirements of this chapter:
A. NFPA 101, Life Safety Code (1997);
B. NFPA 70, National Electrical Code (1996);
C. NFPA 13D, Standard for the Installation of Sprinkler Systems in One- and Two-Family Dwellings and Manufactured Homes (1999); and
D. NFPA 13R, Standard for the Installation of Sprinkler Systems in Residential Occupancies up to and Including Four Stories in Height (1999).
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639; 40 SR 71
Minn. R. 4664.0390 Residential Hospice Facility Staffing
Subpart 1. Requirements.
A hospice provider that operates a residential hospice facility must ensure that:
A. the residential hospice facility provides 24-hour, seven-day-a-week nursing services that are sufficient to meet total nursing needs according to each hospice patient's needs;
B. by March 26, 2005, each shift at the residential hospice facility includes a licensed nurse who provides, supervises, or monitors direct care, if the facility is licensed for five or more beds;
C. if the facility is licensed for four or fewer beds, at all times the residential hospice facility either:
D. the residential hospice facility has the number and type of personnel sufficient to meet the total needs of the hospice patients. At all times when the residential hospice facility has five or more residential hospice patients, the residential hospice facility must have on the premises two staff persons, or one staff person and one volunteer. At all times when the residential hospice facility has four or fewer residential hospice patients, the residential hospice facility must either:
E. a registered nurse is on call whenever a registered nurse is not on duty; and
F. the residential hospice facility maintains for at least three years documentation to demonstrate that the residential hospice facility is in compliance with the requirements of this part.
Subp. 2. Fines.
For each violation of the following items in subpart 1, the stated fine shall be assessed:
A. item A, $500;
B. item B, $500;
C. item C, $500;
D. item D, $500;
E. item E, $500; and
F. item F, $50.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639
Minn. R. 4664.0400 Facility Requirements
Subpart 1. Building maintenance.
A hospice provider that operates a residential hospice facility must ensure that every building, structure, or enclosure utilized by the facility is kept in good repair. The residential hospice provider shall develop and implement a written routine maintenance and repair program.
Subp. 2. Accessibility.
Every floor of a residential hospice facility that is used for patient care must be wheelchair accessible according to chapter 1341.
Subp. 3. Freestanding or separate.
A residential hospice facility must be either a freestanding building or separated from other occupancies according to the State Building Code.
Subp. 4. Floors, walls, and ceilings.
The floor coverings of all rooms, hallways, bathrooms, storage rooms, and all other spaces used or traversed by hospice patients and staff must be easily cleanable. Rugs, carpet, natural stone, ceramic tile, sheet vinyl, and vinyl tile, which can be easily cleaned, are acceptable. Abrasive strips to reduce or prevent slipping must be provided where slippery surfaces present a hazard. The floors, walls, and ceilings of all rooms, hallways, and stairways must be kept clean and maintained in good repair.
Subp. 5. Housekeeping.
A hospice provider that operates a residential hospice facility must provide housekeeping and maintenance services necessary to maintain a clean, orderly, and comfortable interior, including walls, floors, ceilings, registers, fixtures, equipment, lighting, and furnishings.
Subp. 6. Fines.
For each violation of the following subparts, the stated fine shall be assessed:
A. subpart 1, $200;
B. subpart 2, $200;
C. subpart 3, $500;
D. subpart 4, $200; and
E. subpart 5, $200.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639
Minn. R. 4664.0420 Patient Areas
Subpart 1. Comfort and privacy.
A hospice provider that operates a residential hospice facility must design and equip areas for the comfort and privacy of each hospice patient and hospice patient's family.
Subp. 2. Physical space.
Each residential hospice facility must have:
A. physical space for private patient and family visiting; and
B. accommodations for the hospice patient's family to remain with the patient throughout the night.
Subp. 3. Visitors.
A hospice provider that operates a residential hospice facility must ensure that hospice patients are permitted to receive visitors, including small children, at any hour.
Subp. 4. Furnishings.
Furnishings of a residential hospice facility must be home-like and noninstitutional. Lounge furniture must be provided in the living room, recreational, and social spaces. Accessories such as wallpaper, bedspreads, carpets, and lamps must be selected to create a home-like atmosphere. Provision must be made for each hospice patient to bring items from home to place in the bedroom to the extent that available space provides. All fixtures, furniture, and furnishings, including windows, draperies, curtains, and carpets, must be kept clean and must be maintained in a serviceable condition.
Subp. 5. Fines.
For each violation of the following subparts, the stated fine shall be assessed:
A. subpart 1, $200;
B. subpart 2, $200;
C. subpart 3, $100; and
D. subpart 4, $200.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639
Minn. R. 4664.0425 Central Medication Storage
Subpart 1. Applicability.
A hospice provider that operates a residential hospice facility must comply with this part.
Subp. 2. Central medication storage.
Central storage of medications must be managed under a system that is established by a pharmacist or a registered nurse in consultation with a pharmacist and that addresses the control of medications, handling of medications, medication containers, medication records, and disposition of medications, including ongoing security of drugs scheduled under Minnesota Statutes, section 152.02. Central medication storage must include a cabinet or device that stores medications for one or more persons. Medications requiring refrigeration must be stored in a separate locked box in the refrigerator or in a separate lockable drug-only refrigerator, capable of maintaining temperatures required for the storage of drugs. Central medication storage is not required for hospice patient medications in a private home unless assessed as needed by the interdisciplinary team.
Subp. 3. Control of medications.
A residential hospice facility must have in place and implement a written policy that contains at least the following provisions:
A. a statement of whether the staff will be delegated to provide medication reminders, assistance with self-administration of medication, medication administration, or a combination of those services;
B. a description of how the distribution of medications will be handled;
C. a requirement that all drugs be stored in locked compartments under proper temperature controls. Schedule II drugs, as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 152.02, must be stored in separately locked compartments, permanently affixed to the physical plant or medication cart;
D. a procedure for accounting for all Schedule II drugs after each shift;
E. procedures for recording medications that hospice patients are taking;
F. procedures for review and destruction of discontinued, outdated, or deteriorated drugs. Secure storage of all discontinued drugs must be provided until destruction. Schedule II drugs must be held in a separately locked compartment until destruction. Destruction of all legend drugs must be witnessed and documented by two persons, one of which is a registered nurse. The destruction notation must include the date, quantity, name of drug, prescription number, signature of the person destroying the drugs, and signature of the witness. The medication destruction must be recorded in the patient's clinical record;
G. procedures to address hospice patient medications brought from home; and
H. a statement that only authorized personnel are permitted to have access to keys to locked drug compartments.
Subp. 4. Over-the-counter drugs.
An over-the-counter drug may be retained in general stock supply and must be kept in the original labeled container.
Subp. 5. Legend drugs.
A legend drug must be kept in its original container bearing the original prescription label with legible information stating the prescription number, name of drug, strength and quantity of drug, expiration date of a time-dated drug, directions for use, patient's name, prescriber's name, date of issue, and the name and address of the licensed pharmacy that issued the medication.
Subp. 6. Medication samples.
A sample of medication provided to a hospice patient by an authorized prescriber may be used by the patient and must be identified with the patient's name and kept in its original container bearing the original label with legible directions for use. If assistance with self-administration of medication or medication administration is provided, a hospice patient's plan of care must address the use of a medication sample.
Subp. 7. Prohibitions.
No legend drug supply for one hospice patient may be used or saved for the use of another patient.
Subp. 8. Fines.
For each violation of the following subparts, the stated fine shall be assessed:
A. subpart 2, $300;
B. subpart 3, $300;
C. subpart 4, $300;
D. subpart 5, $300;
E. subpart 6, $300; and
F. subpart 7, $300.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639
Minn. R. 4664.0430 Patient Care Areas
Subpart 1. Applicability.
A hospice provider that operates a residential hospice facility must comply with this part.
Subp. 2. Space to meet needs of patients.
Appropriate space and arrangements for sleeping, dining, and recreation and other common use areas for patient activities must be provided.
Subp. 3. Patient bedroom.
A bedroom must be an exterior room with at least one window, which is easily opened to the outside. The floor of the bedroom at the exterior wall must be at or above grade. The windowsill must be no more than 30 inches above the floor. Each bedroom must have no more than two beds. Each bedroom must provide at least 100 square feet of useable floor area for a hospice patient in a private room or 80 square feet for each hospice patient in a double room. No basic interior room dimension may be less than nine feet. The shape of the bedroom must allow for the capability of a bed arrangement that provides at least three feet of floor space at both sides and the foot end of each bed. A bedroom must provide an individual enclosed wardrobe or closet space for each hospice patient. The wardrobe or closet must be accessible for use by each hospice patient. A bedroom or bathroom must be equipped with an individual towel bar for each hospice patient. A bedroom must have provisions to ensure visual privacy for treatment and visiting. A room with access only through a kitchen, bathroom, or bedroom will not be approved as a hospice patient bedroom.
Subp. 4. Patient bedroom furnishings.
A bedroom must contain a serviceable bed, pillow, and chair. The bed must be at least 36 inches wide. Beds must be of suitable construction and dimensions to accommodate persons using them.
Subp. 5. Bedding and linen.
A residential hospice facility must have available at all times a quantity of linen essential for proper care and comfort of hospice patients. All beds provided for hospice patients must be supplied with suitable pillowcases and bottom and top sheets. All bedding and bath linen, including mattresses, quilts, blankets, pillows, pillowcases, sheets, bedspreads, towels, and washcloths must be kept clean and in serviceable condition. Clean bed linen must be furnished at least once each week, or more frequently to maintain cleanliness, and at least one clean washcloth and one clean towel must be available each day to a hospice patient.
Subp. 6. Linen handling.
A hospice provider must ensure that all bedding and bath linen, including mattresses, quilts, blankets, pillows, pillow cases, sheets, bedspreads, towels, and washcloths are kept clean and in serviceable condition. The residential hospice facility must ensure that linens are handled, stored, processed, and transported in such a manner to prevent the spread of infection.
Subp. 7. Personal clothing and laundry.
Each hospice patient must have neat and clean clothing appropriate for the patient's needs. Laundry services must be provided and managed in a manner to provide clean clothing on a daily basis or more often if needed to maintain cleanliness.
Subp. 8. Residential-type equipment.
Provision must be made directly or by contract for washing and drying linen and personal clothing. If provided directly by the hospice provider, the washer and dryer may be residential-type equipment for linen and personal laundry.
Subp. 9. Patient bathroom.
Bathroom facilities must be conveniently accessible to hospice patient rooms. One bathroom may serve up to eight hospice patients. There must be at least one disability-accessible bathroom in each residential hospice facility. The bathroom must be furnished with a water closet, lavatory, mirror, paper towel dispenser, soap dispenser, and a tub or shower. If a tub or shower is provided in a separate bathing room, these fixtures are not required in the bathroom. The separate bathing room, if provided, must be disability-accessible. A disability-accessible bathroom and bathing room must be available on each inhabited floor.
Subp. 10. Call system.
An electrical hardwired or wireless electronic call system must be provided in each hospice patient bedroom and bathroom. If the tub or shower is in a room separate from a bathroom, a call system must be provided in the tub or shower room.
Subp. 11. Living and lounge space.
A minimum of 30 square feet per bed of living and lounge space must be provided.
Subp. 12. Space for social activities.
A minimum of 200 square feet, exclusive of corridors, hallways, and living and lounge space, must be provided for recreational and social activities.
Subp. 13. Soiled linen and infectious waste.
A separate enclosed room must be provided for the storage of soiled linen and infectious waste.
Subp. 14. Ancillary space.
Space must be provided for charting, storage of clean linen, clean supplies, personal effects of staff, patient care equipment, housekeeping and cleaning supplies and equipment, and medications.
Subp. 15. Fines.
For each violation of the following subparts, the stated fine shall be assessed:
A. subpart 2, $100;
B. subpart 3, $100;
C. subpart 4, $100;
D. subpart 5, $200;
E. subpart 6, $300;
F. subpart 7, $100;
G. subpart 8, $200;
H. subpart 9, $200;
I. subpart 10, $200;
J. subpart 11, $200;
K. subpart 12, $200;
L. subpart 13, $200; and
M. subpart 14, $200.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639; L 2005 c 56 s 2
Minn. R. 4664.0440 Mechanical Systems
Subpart 1. Applicability.
A hospice provider that operates a residential hospice facility must comply with this part.
Subp. 2. Water supply system.
An adequate and safe supply of potable water must be provided for the residential hospice facility. The water supply system must be located, constructed, and operated according to the standards of the commissioner. A community water supply system must comply with chapter 4720. A domestic water well system must comply with chapter 4725.
Subp. 3. Plumbing system.
All plumbing systems must be installed and tested according to chapter 4714, the Plumbing Code.
Subp. 4. Sewage disposal system.
All liquid waste must be disposed of in an approved public sewage system or in a sewage system that is designed, constructed, installed, and operated according to chapter 4714 and applicable local ordinances. An individual on-site sewage treatment system must comply with chapter 7080.
Subp. 5. Ventilation system.
Mechanical supply and exhaust ventilation must be provided in each living room, kitchen, bedroom, bathroom, soiled linen room, and laundry room. The system must be capable of maintaining excessive heat, odors, fumes, vapors, smoke, and condensation at a level barely perceptible to the normal senses.
Subp. 6. Heating, cooling, and humidification systems.
Heating and cooling systems must be capable of maintaining a minimum temperature of 72 degrees Fahrenheit during the heating season and a maximum temperature of 78 degrees Fahrenheit during the cooling season in all hospice patient use areas. Areas must be zoned according to use and exposure and must be provided with thermostatic temperature controls. The humidification system must be capable of maintaining a space humidity between 30 percent relative humidity and 50 percent relative humidity.
Subp. 7. Fines.
For each violation of the following subparts, the stated fine shall be assessed:
A. subpart 2, $200;
B. subpart 3, $200;
C. subpart 4, $200;
D. subpart 5, $200; and
E. subpart 6, $200.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639; 40 SR 71
Minn. R. 4664.0450 Electrical Systems
Subpart 1. Applicability.
A hospice provider that operates a residential hospice facility must ensure that the requirements of this part are met.
Subp. 2. Electrical systems.
All electrical systems must be installed and tested according to the National Electrical Code, incorporated by reference under part 4664.0380, subpart 2.
Subp. 3. Interior lighting.
Artificial lighting must be provided in every room of a residential hospice facility. The lighting must be consistent with a home-like atmosphere and provide illumination levels suitable to the tasks the hospice patient chooses to perform or the residential hospice facility staff must perform.
Subp. 4. Fines.
For each violation of the following subparts, the stated fine shall be assessed:
A. subpart 2, $200; and
B. subpart 3, $200.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639
Minn. R. 4664.0470 Isolation
Subpart 1. Isolation.
A hospice provider that operates a residential hospice facility must maintain and implement a procedure for isolating hospice patients with infectious diseases. The hospice provider must institute the most current isolation precautions recommendations of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). The recommendations are currently titled "Guideline for Isolation Precautions in Hospitals" (1996, and as subsequently amended). The recommendations, and subsequent amendments to the recommendations, are incorporated by reference. The recommendations are available on the CDC website at: www.cdc.gov/ncidod and are subject to frequent change.
Subp. 2. Fines.
A fine of $300 shall be assessed for each violation of this part.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639
Minn. R. 4664.0480 Communicable Disease Reporting
Subpart 1. Reportable diseases.
A hospice provider must comply with chapter 4605 as required by part 4605.7030, subpart 6.
Subp. 2. Fines.
A fine of $300 shall be assessed for each violation of this part.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639
Minn. R. 4664.0490 Meal Service
Subpart 1. Applicability.
A hospice provider that operates a residential hospice facility must comply with this part.
Subp. 2. Nutritional needs.
A hospice provider must provide services designed to meet the individualized nutritional needs of each hospice patient. Special dietary restrictions must be noted on the patient's plan of care. Food and nutritional supplements must be provided to meet individual needs.
Subp. 3. Meal preparation.
Employees, volunteers, licensed food service contractors, or providers licensed by the department may provide meal preparation in a residential hospice facility. All employees or volunteers who prepare or serve food must receive training in the safe practices of food handling. Food must be stored, prepared, distributed, and served under sanitary conditions to prevent food borne outbreaks.
Subp. 4. Kitchen and dining areas.
The kitchen must have a refrigerator, stovetop and oven, exhaust hood, microwave oven, double-compartment sink, and dishwashing machine. The exhaust hood must be located over the stovetop and be vented to the outside. The dining area must be adequate for the hospice patients. "Adequate" means large enough to provide space for both seating and safe circulation of all persons using the dining area.
Subp. 5. Food service equipment.
In a residential hospice facility licensed for 12 or fewer beds, the kitchen appliances may be domestic-type equipment. Enclosed storage space for nonperishables must be provided in the kitchen. All appliances must be maintained in working order.
Subp. 6. Fines.
For each violation of the following subparts, the stated fine shall be assessed:
A. subpart 2, $350;
B. subpart 3, $350;
C. subpart 4, $200; and
D. subpart 5, $200.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639
Minn. R. 4664.0500 Emergency Procedures
Subpart 1. Applicability.
A hospice provider that operates a residential hospice facility must comply with this part.
Subp. 2. Emergency plan.
A residential hospice facility must maintain a written plan that specifies action and procedures for responding to emergency situations such as fire, severe weather, or a missing person. The plan must be developed with the assistance and advice of at least the local fire or rescue authority or any other appropriate resource persons. An accident or incident report must be maintained for at least one year.
Subp. 3. Education.
The emergency plan must be clearly communicated to all staff persons during orientation. Each staff person must be knowledgeable of and must implement the emergency plan. The emergency plan must include:
A. assignment of persons to specific tasks and responsibilities in case of an emergency situation;
B. instructions relating to the use of alarm systems and signals;
C. systems for notification of appropriate persons outside of the facility;
D. information on the location of emergency equipment in the facility; and
E. specification of evacuation routes and procedures.
Subp. 4. Emergency medical services.
A residential hospice facility must have current and up to date written protocols for appropriate services for medical emergencies. Staff must implement these protocols in medical emergencies.
Subp. 5. Fines.
For each violation of the following subparts, the stated fine shall be assessed:
A. subpart 2, $100;
B. subpart 3, $350; and
C. subpart 4, $300.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639
Minn. R. 4664.0510 Keys
Subpart 1. Keys.
A hospice provider that operates a residential hospice facility must ensure that the person in charge of the residential hospice facility during each work shift has in the person's possession, at all times, keys to all locks on exits and egresses.
Subp. 2. Fines.
A fine of $100 shall be assessed for each violation of this part.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639
Minn. R. 4664.0520 Smoking
Subpart 1. Applicability.
A hospice provider that operates a residential hospice facility must ensure that the requirements of this part are met.
Subp. 2. Written policy.
A residential hospice facility may allow hospice patients and visitors to smoke in the facility. If smoking is permitted, the written policy and practices must be according to part 4620.1200 and Minnesota Statutes, sections 144.411 to 144.417.
Subp. 3. Mechanical ventilation.
Bedrooms in which smoking is permitted must be provided with adequate exhaust ventilation. The mechanical means of ventilation must provide a minimum of ten air changes per hour and be directly exhausted to the outside. A separate exhaust fan within the bedroom for this purpose is acceptable.
Subp. 4. Fines.
For each violation of the following subparts, the stated fine shall be assessed:
A. subpart 2, $100; and
B. subpart 3, $200.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639
Minn. R. 4664.0530 Census Data
Subpart 1. Census data.
A hospice provider that operates a residential hospice facility must maintain a separate record of admissions, discharges, deaths, and transfers of hospice patients and must ensure that these records are available for inspection by department employees for at least six years.
Subp. 2. Fines.
A fine of $100 shall be assessed for each violation of this part.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639
Minn. R. 4664.0540 Hospice Patient Death
Subpart 1. County coroner.
A hospice provider must notify the county coroner's office, according to county policy, of the death of any hospice patient.
Subp. 2. Personal belongings.
Personal belongings of a deceased hospice patient of a residential hospice facility shall be returned to the responsible person.
Subp. 3. Fines.
For each violation of the following subparts, the stated fine shall be assessed:
A. subpart 1, $100; and
B. subpart 2, $100.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639
Minn. R. 4664.0550 Pet Animals
Subpart 1. Pet animals.
Pet animals may be kept on the premises of a residential hospice facility only according to the hospice provider's policies and procedures for such animals. A hospice provider's policies and procedures must comply with applicable state and local rules and regulations. A hospice provider shall maintain records for inoculations and other care for the animals as required by ordinance of the local jurisdiction in which the residential hospice facility is located.
Subp. 2. Fines.
A fine of $100 shall be assessed for each violation of this part.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144A.752
- History: 28 SR 1639
Chapter 4665 SUPERVISED LIVING FACILITIES
Minn. R. 4665.0100 Definitions
Subpart 1. Ambulatory.
"Ambulatory" means the ability to walk independently and at least negotiate any barriers such as ramps, doors, stairs, corridors, etc., without assistance as may be necessary to get in and out of the facility.
Subp. 2. Department.
The term "department" means the Minnesota Department of Health.
Subp. 3. Health and safety component.
"Health and safety component" means those elements of a facility which influence all residents including, but not limited to, physical plant design, general sanitation, nutritional requirements, medication handling procedures and practices relating to health, such as provisions for health care arrangements, emergency medical care and physician's orders.
Subp. 4. Mobile.
"Mobile" means the ability to move from place to place with the use of devices such as walkers, crutches, wheelchairs, wheeled platforms, etc.
Subp. 5. New construction.
"New construction" as used in parts 4665.0100 to 4665.5600 means the erection of new buildings or the alterations of or additions to existing buildings commenced on or after the effective date of parts 4665.0100 to 4665.5600.
Subp. 6. Nonambulatory.
"Nonambulatory" means the inability to walk independently.
Subp. 7. Nonmobile.
"Nonmobile" means the inability to move independently from place to place.
Subp. 8. Physically disabled.
"Physically disabled" encompasses those orthopedic, incoordinative, sight and hearing disabilities that result in the significant reduction of mobility, flexibility, coordination, or preceptiveness and that, singly or in combination, interfere with the individual's ability to live independently; that are not the result of the normal aging process that are considered to be chronic conditions.
Subp. 9. Resident.
"Resident" means an individual who receives service from a supervised living facility.
Subp. 10. Supervised living facility.
"Supervised living facility" means a facility in which there is provided supervision, lodging, meals and in accordance with provisions of rules of the Department of Human Services, counseling and developmental habilitative or rehabilitative services to five or more persons who are developmentally disabled, chemically dependent, adult mentally ill, or physically disabled.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
- History: L 1984 c 654 art 5 s 58; L 2005 c 56 s 2
Minn. R. 4665.0200 Authority and Purpose
Subpart 1. Authority.
Minnesota Statutes 1971, sections 245.78, 252.28, and 257.081 to 257.123 provide for regulation by the Department of Human Services of residential facilities and services for persons with certain disabilities. The statute permits the incorporation of rules suggested by the commissioner of health.
These rules have been developed pursuant to a cooperative agreement with the Minnesota Department of Human Services, under which the Department of Human Services regulates the habilitative, rehabilitative, and social service programs provided to residents of these facilities and the commissioner of health, under provisions of Minnesota Statutes 1971, section 144.56 (Standards), establishes a supervised living facility (SLF) as a facility, licensed by both the Minnesota Department of Health and the Minnesota Department of Human Services, in which appropriate programs and services are provided. These rules establish minimum standards as to the construction, equipment, maintenance, and operation of supervised living facilities insofar as they relate to sanitation and safety of the buildings, and to the health, treatment, comfort, safety, and well-being of the persons accommodated for care, except for standards of the Department of Public Safety, which has the exclusive jurisdiction to enforce state fire and safety standards.
Subp. 2. Purpose.
The purpose of a supervised living facility is to provide a residential, home-like setting for persons who are developmentally disabled, adult mentally ill, chemically dependent, or physically disabled and who are able to live safely under supervision provided through programs licensed by the Department of Human Services.
Supervised living facilities are facilities in which certain services are provided. Among these services are the provision of meals, lodging, housekeeping services, health services, and other services, provided either by staff or by residents under supervision, but in all cases, in accordance with sanitary standards which must be observed in a group situation to prevent the creation of unsanitary conditions which endanger the health of individual residents and staff.
Subp. 3. Evaluation.
Of concern to the commissioner of health is that residents are provided appropriate services in a safe, sanitary, and healthful setting. Germane to this concern is the necessity for a procedure which will effectively ascertain at the time of admission of the resident and periodically thereafter, that persons admitted to a supervised living facility are persons who have disabilities that prevent or limit independent living, but who are not in need of continuing medical or nursing care. This procedure is implemented through program licensure by the Minnesota Department of Human Services.
Individualized ongoing evaluation is provided through licensed programs to help each resident reach the resident's maximum level of functional capabilities. Periodic evaluation of residents by representatives of the commissioner of health are made to assure that the needs of the residents do not exceed these services which the licensee is authorized to provide.
Subp. 4. Services.
Supervised living facilities may, but are not required to provide treatment, educational training, personal care, or sheltered workshop services on a 24 hour-a-day basis. Some of these services may be provided to residents either by having the service brought into the facility or by assuring that the resident receives appropriate services elsewhere.
The range of services required by residents of supervised living facilities includes services for persons who are dependent for reasons other than degenerative processes of aging as well as services for persons young or old, who are living and working in the community or are in transition from residential to independent community life.
Subp. 5. Licensure.
In all cases, only those facilities will receive and retain licensure as supervised living facilities that can demonstrate to the satisfaction of the commissioner of health that:
A. functional services are provided in safe, healthful, and sanitarily operated and maintained buildings; and
B. only those persons are accepted as residents whose needs can be met by the facility directly or in cooperation with other resources with which there is evidence of acceptable agreements or arrangements.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
- History: L 1977 c 305 s 39; L 1984 c 654 art 5 s 58; 17 SR 1279; L 2005 c 56 s 2
Minn. R. 4665.0300 Facility License
A license shall be issued by the commissioner of health to an applicant who satisfactorily meets all requirements contained in these regulations. The license is valid for one year.
Separate licenses are required for facilities maintained on separate premises, even though operated by the same ownership.
A separate license shall not be required for separate buildings maintained by the same owner on the same premises, unless such buildings represent different classifications.
Each license shall be conspicuously posted in the facility.
Facilities which have been determined by the state fire marshal to be out of compliance with fire safety requirements of the state fire marshal are not eligible for licensure by the commissioner of health.
Each license shall specify the maximum allowable number of residents that may be lodged in the facility.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
- History: L 1977 c 305 s 39
Minn. R. 4665.0400 Licensure Procedure
Subpart 1. Application.
Application for a facility license to establish or operate a supervised living facility shall be made in writing and submitted on forms provided by the department. The application for a new facility or for a change in classification shall include a copy of the proposed program or other acceptable indication from the Department of Human Services pertaining to the types of residents who are to be served by the facility.
Subp. 2. Documents required.
If the applicant is a corporation, the applicant shall furnish the department names and addresses of the governing body and names of current officers of the corporation.
Subp. 3. Out-of-state corporations.
In addition to the documents required in subpart 2, out-of-state corporations shall furnish the department with a copy of the certificate of authority to do business in Minnesota.
Subp. 4. Review of buildings.
Existing buildings and new construction shall be reviewed and approved by the department prior to licensure. Review includes submission of construction drawings and specifications for new construction and alterations.
Subp. 5. Fees.
Each application for either an initial or renewal license to operate a supervised living facility within the meaning of Minnesota Statutes, sections 144.50 to 144.56 and parts 4665.0100 to 4665.5600 shall be accompanied by a fee based upon the formula established in part 4735.0200. A bed must be licensed if it is available for use by residents. If the number of licensed beds is increased during the term of the license, $12 for each additional bed shall be paid. There shall be no refund for a decrease in licensed beds.
Subp. 6. Expiration.
Initial and renewal licenses issued pursuant to Minnesota Statutes, sections 144.50 to 144.56 and these regulations shall be issued for the calendar year for which application is made and shall expire on December 31 of such year. License renewals shall be applied for on an annual basis. Applications for license renewal shall be submitted no later than December 31 of the year preceding the year for which application is made. Any application for an initial license submitted after November 1 shall be considered as an application for the following year; provided, however, that a license may be issued and be effective prior to January 1 of the year for which application is made without payment of fees for two years.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
- History: L 1984 c 654 art 5 s 58
Minn. R. 4665.0500 Building Classification
For considerations of licensure, construction and major renovation, supervised living facilities are classified as follows in items A and B.
A. Class A supervised living facilities include homes for ambulatory and mobile persons who are capable of taking appropriate action for self-preservation under emergency conditions as determined by program licensure provisions. Class A supervised living facilities shall be in conformance with provisions of chapter 13 of the 1973 edition of the Uniform Building Code, as amended for Group H Occupancies. Persons with physical disabilities shall be housed at the street level.
B. Class B supervised living facilities include homes for ambulatory, nonambulatory, mobile, or nonmobile persons who are not mentally or physically capable of taking appropriate action for self-preservation under emergency conditions as determined by program licensure provisions. Class B supervised living facilities shall be in conformance with provisions of chapter 9 of the 1973 edition of the Uniform Building Code, as amended for Group D Occupancies.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
- History: L 2005 c 56 s 2
Minn. R. 4665.0600 Waivers
A supervised living facility may request in writing a waiver of a specific rule. The request for a waiver must cite the regulation in question, reasons for requesting the waiver, the period of time the licensee wishes to have the regulation waived, and the equivalent measures planned for protecting the health and safety of residents and staff. Waivers granted by the commissioner of health shall specify in writing the time limitation and required equivalent measures to be taken to protect the health and safety of residents and staff.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
- History: L 1977 c 305 s 39
Minn. R. 4665.0700 Program License
All applicants for licensure must have received or have applied for a program license from the Minnesota Department of Human Services under provisions of parts 9525.0210 to 9525.0430; 9530.2500 to 9530.4000; 9520.0500 to 9520.0690; or 9570.2000 to 9570.3600; before the supervised living facility license is issued by the commissioner of health.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
- History: L 1977 c 305 s 39; L 1984 c 654 art 5 s 58
Minn. R. 4665.0800 Staff
At all times that residents are up and about in the facility, there shall be at least one responsible person awake, dressed, and up and about in the facility. The responsible person shall be at least 18 years of age and capable of performing required duties in supervision of residents. This person shall be immediately accessible to all residents in the facility and shall be the person to whom residents can report injuries, symptoms of illness, and emergency situations. Facilities that accept persons who are not capable of adequate judgment in taking action for self-preservation, must assure that there is, additional to the requirement above, adequate staff on duty on a 24-hour-a-day basis to provide:
A. necessary physical services for activities of daily living;
B. maintenance of an appropriate personal hygiene program for each resident; and
C. for appropriate movement of residents to safe harborage within the facility, or evacuation from the facility, in the case of fire or other emergency situation.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4665.0900 Residents
Subpart 1. Persons who may be accepted.
Supervised living facilities may accept as residents such persons as are described in part 4665.0100, subpart 10, but may not accept as residents, nor provide lodging to any of the following persons:
A. persons who have or are suspected of having a communicable disease or a disease endangering the health of other residents; or
B. persons who require nursing care as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 144A.01, subdivision 6, except for brief episodic periods.
Subp. 2. Nursing care examples.
Examples of nursing care are: bedside care, including administration of medications, irrigations and catheterizations, applications of dressings or bandages; rehabilitative nursing techniques; and other treatments prescribed by a physician which require technical knowledge, skill, and judgment as possessed by a registered nurse.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56; 144A.04; 144A.08
- History: L 1977 c 305 s 39; 21 SR 196
Minn. R. 4665.1000 Resident Register
A register shall be kept in a separate bound book, listing in chronological order the dates and names of all persons admitted to and discharged from the facility. This register shall be available to department employees for inspection.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4665.1100 Census Data
Records shall be kept of admissions, discharges, deaths, and transfers of residents and shall be available for inspection by department employees.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4665.1200 Staff Health
The licensee shall ensure that:
A. any staff member with a communicable disease shall not be permitted to work in the facility until such time that a physician certifies that the staff member's condition will permit a return to work without endangering the health of other staff and residents;
B. the facility administrator may require that a staff member have a medical examination when a reasonable suspicion of communicable disease exists; and
C. personnel records shall be available for inspection by department employees.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.05; 14.3895; 144.56
- History: 17 SR 1279; 44 SR 371
Minn. R. 4665.1300 Resident Death
When a resident dies:
A. the date, time and circumstances of the resident's death shall be recorded in the resident's record;
B. if the resident dies in the facility, the coroner's office shall be notified;
C. personal belongings shall be handled in a responsible and legal manner; and
D. records of a deceased individual shall be retained for a period of three years following death.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4665.1310 Pet Animals
Pet animals may be kept on the premises of a supervised living facility only in accordance with the provisions of part 4638.0200.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4665.1320 [Repealed, 17 SR 6]
[Repealed, 17 SR 6]
Minn. R. 4665.1400 Building
Every building, structure, or enclosure utilized by the supervised living facility shall be kept in good repair and so maintained as to protect the health, comfort, safety, and well-being of persons accommodated. Buildings housing physically disabled residents shall have a plan acceptable to the commissioner of health with reasonable target dates for the removal of or the reduction of architectural barriers consistent with the resident program.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
- History: L 1977 c 305 s 39
Minn. R. 4665.1500 Floors, Walls, and Ceilings
The floors of all rooms, hallways, bathrooms, store rooms, and all other spaces used or traversed by residents and staff shall be of such construction as to be easily cleaned, shall be smooth, and shall be kept clean and in good repair. Cleaning of floors shall be so done as to minimize the raising of dust and the exposure of residents thereto. The safe use of rugs, carpets, or natural stone, which can be kept clean, is permitted. Abrasive strips to reduce or prevent slipping shall be used where slippery surfaces present a hazard.
The walls and ceilings of all rooms, halls and stairways shall be kept clean and in good repair.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4665.1600 Lighting
Lighting levels, measured 30 inches above the floor, shall not be less than 20 footcandles for all resident use areas, and not less than five footcandles for exit stairways, mechanical equipment, and storage areas.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4665.1700 Ventilation
An area shall be considered well ventilated when excessive heat, odors, fumes, vapors, smoke, or condensation is reduced to a level barely perceptible to the normal senses. Air replacement vents shall be designed to permit the entrance of an equal volume of displaced air and to prevent the entrance of insects, dust or other contaminating materials.
Toilet rooms shall be well ventilated by natural or mechanical methods. Interior toilet rooms, central toilets serving more than four persons, and soiled utility rooms shall be provided with mechanical exhaust ventilation.
During seasons when weather conditions require tempering of makeup air, adequate equipment shall be provided to temper the makeup air. Every gas-fired or oil-fired room heater and water heater and other heating appliance shall be vented to the outside air.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4665.1800 Space Arrangements and Requirements
Subpart 1. Space to meet needs of residents and program licensure requirements.
Provision of appropriate space and arrangements thereof for sleeping, dining, recreation, and other common use areas for activities or training shall be in conformance with the residents' mobility needs and with the program licensure requirements of the Department of Human Services.
Subp. 2. Dining and living areas.
Minimum areas for residents' dining and living areas shall be ten and 20 square feet respectively per resident, or 30 square feet total per resident when the area is used for a combination thereof. Common use areas for use by nonambulatory mobile residents require an increase of 50 percent. This increase applies also to dining areas serving disabled residents who require assistance with eating.
Subp. 3. Single bedrooms for ambulatory residents.
Single bedrooms for ambulatory residents shall provide at least 70 square feet of usable floor space with a side dimension of not less than seven feet.
Subp. 4. Multibedrooms for ambulatory residents.
Multibedrooms for ambulatory residents shall provide at least 60 square feet per person of usable floor space for each resident. There shall be at least three feet between beds placed side by side and at least one foot between beds placed end to end. In each case, there shall be at least three feet of unobstructed space between ends of beds where such space is used for resident or staff access.
Subp. 5. Single bedrooms for nonambulatory residents.
Single bedrooms for nonambulatory residents shall provide at least 100 square feet of usable floor area with a side dimension of not less than nine feet. Mobility space at the end and one side of each bed shall be not less than four feet.
Subp. 6. Multibedrooms for nonambulatory residents.
Multibedrooms for nonambulatory, nonmobile residents shall provide at least 80 square feet of usable floor space for each resident. Multibedrooms for active, nonambulatory, mobile residents, shall provide at least 100 square feet per adult resident. Mobility space at the end and one side of each bed shall be not less than four feet.
Subp. 7. Storage in bedrooms for nonambulatory residents.
Bedrooms for nonambulatory, mobile residents shall have adequate accessible space for storage of wheelchairs and other prosthetic or adaptive equipment for daily out-of-bed activity or acceptable similar storage space shall be provided outside the bedroom readily and handily accessible to the resident.
Subp. 8. Bed arrangements.
Bed arrangements shall be compatible with the physical and programmatic needs of the residents. Beds shall be located so as to avoid drafts from windows and excessive heat from heat sources.
Subp. 9. Ceilings.
Level ceilings in sleeping rooms shall not be less than seven feet in height. In sleeping rooms with sloped ceilings only the areas with vertical wall heights of five feet or more shall be included in the required usable floor areas. At least one-half of the usable floor area must have a ceiling of the required height.
Subp. 10. Storage.
Bedrooms shall be provided with a private enclosed space for each resident's belongings, preferably built-in. Such space shall be accessible and adjustable for use by each resident in conformance with program requirements.
Subp. 11. Bedroom window.
Bedrooms shall be exterior rooms with at least one window which is easily opened to the outside. In existing construction, the bedroom window area shall be at least one-tenth of the floor area and not less than nine square feet. The window sill shall not be more than three feet above the floor. Bedrooms with floor level located below the grade at the outside wall shall have floors and walls adequately sealed to prevent leakage or dampness from underground and surface runoff water. In new construction, the floors shall be located at or above the outside grade level.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
- History: L 1984 c 654 art 5 s 58
Minn. R. 4665.1900 Beds
Each resident shall have an individual bed. Adult beds shall be at least 36 inches wide. Each bed shall have good springs and a clean, firm, comfortable mattress. Beds shall be of suitable construction and dimensions to accommodate persons using them, and shall be able to accommodate siderails if necessary.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4665.2000 Bedding and Linen
All beds provided for residents shall be supplied with suitable pillowcases and under and top sheets. All bedding, including mattresses, mattress pads, quilts, blankets, pillows, sheets, spreads and all bath linen shall be kept clean. Bedding, including mattresses, mattress pads, quilts, blankets, pillows, bed and bath linen which is worn out or unfit for further use shall not be used. Bedding shall be appropriate to the season. Pillowcases, sheets and bath linen, after being used by one resident, shall be washed before they are used by another resident.
Clean bed linen shall be furnished at least once each week, or more frequently to maintain cleanliness, and at least a clean washcloth and a clean towel or appropriate paper service shall be available each day to each resident.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4665.2100 Room Furnishings
All equipment, fixtures, furniture and furnishings, including windows, draperies, curtains and carpets, shall be kept clean and free of dust, dirt, vermin, and other contaminants and shall be maintained in good order and repair. Each resident shall be provided with appropriate individual furniture, including a chest of drawers, an individual closet with clothes racks and shelves, unless built in, a mirror, and table or desk, where appropriate. Tilted mirrors or equivalent provisions shall be available to mobile nonambulatory residents. There shall be accessible private storage space for clothing in the bedroom area for each resident. Each resident shall have individual racks or other drying space for washcloths and towels.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4665.2200 Toilets and Baths
Every facility shall be equipped with adequate and conveniently located toilet rooms for its employees and residents. Water closets, lavatories, and bath tubs or showers for residents shall be available on each inhabited floor or in each resident unit when not provided for each individual bedroom.
Water closets and lavatories shall be provided in the ratio of at least one toilet and at least one lavatory for every eight residents, or fraction thereof. Additional water closets or space for commodes may be required by specific programs. At least one bath tub or shower shall be available for every eight residents, or fraction thereof. Toilets, bath tubs, and showers used by residents shall provide for individual privacy unless specifically contraindicated by program needs. Toilet and bathing areas and fixtures shall approximate normal patterns found in residential construction, except where special requirements are applicable for persons with physical disabilities or for special program needs. All toilet and bathing areas, facilities, and fixtures shall be kept clean and in good repair and shall be well lighted. Toilet rooms shall be well ventilated by natural or mechanical methods.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
- History: L 2005 c 56 s 2
Minn. R. 4665.2300 Insect and Rodent Control
Every facility shall be so constructed or equipped as to prevent the entrance, harborage, or breeding of flies, roaches, bedbugs, rats, mice, and all other insects and vermin. Cleaning, renovation, or fumigation by licensed pest control operators for the elimination of such pests shall be used when necessary.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4665.2400 Water Supply
A safe and adequate supply of water shall be provided. The water supply system shall be located, constructed, and operated in accordance with the standards of the commissioner of health. For information, contact Division of Environmental Health, Minnesota Department of Health, 717 Delaware Street SE, Minneapolis, Minnesota, 55440.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
- History: L 1977 c 305 s 39
Minn. R. 4665.2500 Plumbing
All systems of plumbing shall be installed in accordance with the provisions of the Minnesota Plumbing Code, chapter 4714. For information on compliance, contact the Division of Environmental Health, Minnesota Department of Health.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
- History: 40 SR 71
Minn. R. 4665.2600 Sewage Disposal
All liquid waste shall be disposed of in an approved public sewage system or in a sewage system which is designed, constructed, installed and operated in accordance with the standards and rules of the commissioner of health and the Minnesota Pollution Control Agency.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
- History: L 1977 c 305 s 39
Minn. R. 4665.2700 Food Handling Practices
Any food service provided in a supervised living facility shall be in accordance with chapter 4626 governing food and beverage service establishments. Wherever the food service in a supervised living facility is limited to serving ten residents or less, or where the main meals of the day are not prepared in the facility, certain variances from the requirements may be granted by the commissioner of health. These variances may include, but not be limited to, substitution of certain domestic type equipment for commercial type. When food is catered into a supervised living facility, it shall be obtained from a source acceptable to the commissioner of health and transported, handled, and served in accordance with provisions of applicable rules of the commissioner of health. It is recommended that the department's food handling guide entitled "Information for Food Service Personnel in Hospitals and Related Care Facilities" be made readily available for reference by all food service personnel.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 31.101; 31.11; 144.05; 144.08; 144.12; 144.56; 157.011
- History: L 1977 c 305 s 39; 23 SR 519
Minn. R. 4665.2800 Frequency of Meals
There shall be not more than 14 hours between a substantial evening meal and breakfast. Where residents are not routinely absent from the facility for work or other purposes, at least three meals shall be made available at regular times during each 24 hour period.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4665.2900 Quality and Variety
Foods and beverages shall be palatable, of adequate quantity and variety, attractively served at appropriate temperatures and prepared by methods which conserve nutritional value. It is recommended that dishes be used rather than compartment trays. Food services shall recognize and provide for the physiological, cultural, emotional, and developmental needs of each resident. All meals provided shall be planned, prepared, and served by persons who have received instruction in food-handling techniques and practices.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4665.3000 Dietary Service
The food and nutritional needs of residents shall be met in accordance with their needs and shall meet the dietary allowances, as stated in the Recommended Dietary Allowances, National Academy of Sciences, seventh edition, 1968. Providing each resident the specified servings per day from each of the following five food groups will satisfy this requirement.
A. Meat or protein group. Two or more servings per day. A serving of meat or protein is defined as:
B. Milk group. Two or more servings per day. A serving is defined as eight ounces (one cup) of milk. A portion of this amount may be served in cooked form, such as cream soups, desserts, etc.
C. Vegetable group. Three or more servings per day, one of which is deep green or yellow. A serving is defined as one-half cup.
D. Fruit group. Two or more servings per day, one of which is citrus (i.e. orange, grapefruit) or tomato. A serving of citrus fruit or tomato is defined as:
E. Cereal and bread group. Three to four servings per day of whole grain or enriched products. A serving is defined as:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4665.3100 Menu Planning
All menus, including special diets, shall be planned, dated and available for review for a minimum of one week in advance. Notations shall be made of any substitutions in the meals actually served and these shall be of equal nutritional value. Records of menus and of foods purchased shall be filed for six months. A reasonable variety of foods shall be provided. A file of tested recipes, adjusted to a yield appropriate for the size of the facility, shall be maintained on the premises.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4665.3200 Modified Diets
If the facility accepts or retains individuals in need of medically prescribed therapeutic diets, there shall be evidence that such diets are provided as ordered by the attending physician.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4665.3300 Purpose of Health Services
Health services shall be utilized to maintain an optimal general level of health and to maximize function, prevent disability, and promote optimal development of each resident.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4665.3400 Emergency Medical Services
The licensee shall make arrangements for appropriate medical services for medical emergencies.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4665.3500 Admission Health Assessment
Applicant residents shall have a general medical history and physical examination by a physician within 30 days preceding admission or within three days after admission. The licensee shall require a statement from the examining physician that the applicant, at the time of admission, is free of communicable disease. A report of the physical examination and the statement from the physician shall be provided to the licensee and shall be kept in the resident's health record. The report shall include appropriate instructions for meeting special needs, such as diet or medications.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4665.3600 Child Health Assessment
Resident children (infancy through 17 years) shall have health assessments periodically as recommended by the Council on Pediatric Practice, American Academy of Pediatrics, Standards of Child Health Care (Evanston, Illinois: 1972.) Periodic assessment shall include an evaluation of speech, vision, hearing, and special dietary needs. Records of these assessments shall be maintained in the resident health record.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4665.3700 Personal Hygiene
Supervised living facilities shall develop and implement a plan for attainment of personal hygiene practices of all residents, with special assistance for those residents who are unable to care for themselves. Personal hygiene shall include provision for, where appropriate, and instruction in: hand washing, brushing teeth after meals, regular bathing, hair combing, brushing and shampooing, shaving, caring for toenails and fingernails, and immediate cleaning of incontinent residents, unless specifically contraindicated by a plan for toilet training. Persons shall wash their hands after handling an incontinent resident. Each resident shall be assisted in learning normal grooming practices with individual toilet articles.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4665.3800 Dental Assessment
Dental assessment shall be performed at least annually. Dental examinations for children shall begin by three years of age.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4665.3900 Bed Rest
Orders prescribing bed rest for residents shall be self-terminating in three days unless renewed by a physician.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4665.4000 Reporting Illness
Any occurrence of sickness or communicable disease, listed in part 4665.9900, incurred by staff or residents shall be promptly reported to the agent of a community health board as authorized under Minnesota Statutes, section 145A.04 and the department.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
- History: L 1987 c 309 s 24; L 2015 c 21 art 1 s 109
Minn. R. 4665.4100 Resident's Health Record
Subpart 1. Maintaining a record.
Supervised living facilities shall maintain a resident's health record for each resident. It may be contained in a general resident record.
Subp. 2. Required data.
Basic health information to be maintained in each resident's health record shall include:
A. identifying information: name, previous address, date of admission and discharge, person to contact in an emergency;
B. the physician responsible for his/her medical care as designated by the resident or guardian;
C. the name of the resident's dentist as designated by the resident, parent, or guardian; dates of dental examinations and treatments; special instructions for care and oral hygiene as recommended;
D. adverse reactions to drugs recorded and prominently posted as a precaution;
E. where professional therapy services are provided to the resident, regular notations regarding the resident's progress in such therapies;
F. dates and descriptions of all illnesses, accidents, treatments thereof, and immunizations, including examinations required in parts 4665.3300 to 4665.4000;
G. summary of hospitalizations, to include recommendations for follow-up and treatment; and
H. where the resident is being treated through a special diet, a copy of the diet, length of time to be used, prescription signed by the supervising physician, and the dates of review of the diet.
Subp. 3. Nature of health record.
Upon request, a resident or parent or guardian shall be provided with a summary of the resident's health record within a reasonable period of time following discharge. All information contained in the resident's health records shall be considered privileged and confidential, and written consent of the resident or a parent shall be required for the release of information to persons not otherwise authorized to receive it. The resident shall have access to the health record upon request. All entries in the resident's health record shall be legible, dated, and authenticated by the signature and other identifying designation of the individual making the entry.
Subp. 4. Retention of health record.
All resident health records shall be kept by the facility for at least three years following discharge or death. Employees of the department may review such records for accuracy and completeness.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
- History: 17 SR 1279
Minn. R. 4665.4200 Control of Medications
Facilities shall develop and adhere to a written medication control plan acceptable to the commissioner of health. The plan shall be on file and available for inspection. The plan shall contain at least the following provisions:
A. a statement of: whether the staff will administer medications, how the staff will supervise self administration of medications, whether medications will be self-administered, or a combination of the above systems;
B. how the distribution and storage of medications will be handled, including a description of suitable storage facilities;
C. if the facility has both staff-administered and self-administered medications, the plan shall specify who will determine which system each resident will use;
D. procedures for recording medications that residents are taking;
E. procedures for periodic examination and review of medication regimens;
F. procedures for storage of prescription and nonprescription medications; and
G. method of refrigeration of biologicals.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
- History: L 1977 c 305 s 39
Minn. R. 4665.4300 Handling of Medications
Stock supplies of prescription medications shall not be maintained in a supervised living facility. Staff may administer prescription medications which can be safely self-administered only to residents for whom the medication is ordered by a physician. In no case shall such medications be maintained, distributed, or administered from containers other than individual prescription containers bearing appropriate labels.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4665.4400 Medication Containers
All prescription medications shall be kept in their original container bearing the original label with legible information stating the prescription number, name of drug, strength and quantity of drug, expiration dates of all time-dated drugs, directions for use, resident's name, physician's name, date of original issue or in case of a refill, the most recent date thereof, and name and address of the licensed pharmacy which issued the medications. It shall be the responsibility of the facility to secure the prescription number and name of the medication if these are not on the label.
Any drug container having detached, excessively soiled, or damaged labels shall be returned to the issuing pharmacy for relabeling.
The contents of any drug container having no label or with an illegible label shall be destroyed immediately.
Medications having a specific expiration date shall not be used after the date of expiration.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4665.4500 Record of Medications
All prescribed medications and comfort drugs used by each resident shall be recorded on the resident's health record. This information shall include the name and quantity of the drug prescribed. Special notations shall be made whenever medications are started or discontinued. Adverse reaction to a medication and the report to the physician of the same shall be recorded.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4665.4600 Disposition of Medications
If authorized by the attending physician or the resident's physician, medications belonging to residents shall be given to them when discharged or transferred. This shall be recorded in the resident's health record. Unused portions of controlled substances shall be handled by contacting the Minnesota Board of Pharmacy, which will furnish the necessary instructions and appropriate forms, a copy of which shall be kept on file in the facility for two years. Any other unused portions of prescription drugs remaining in the facility after the death or discharge of the resident for whom they were prescribed, or any prescriptions discontinued permanently, shall be destroyed by the licensee or designee by flushing them into the sewer system and removing and destroying the labels from the containers. A notation of such destruction giving date, quantity, name of medication, and prescription number shall be recorded on the resident's chart. Such destruction shall be witnessed and the notation signed by both persons.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4665.4700 First Aid
Every facility shall have on the premises a suitable first aid kit approved in writing by a physician for use for residents and staff. Tourniquets shall not be stored in the kit. The kit shall be maintained in a place known to and readily available to all personnel responsible for the health or well-being of residents, and such personnel shall be instructed in acceptable emergency first aid procedures.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4665.4800 Emergency Plan
There shall be a written plan on file which specifies action and procedures for meeting emergency situations such as fire, serious illness, severe weather, and missing persons. The procedures shall be clearly communicated to and reviewed with staff and residents. The plan shall be developed with the assistance and advice of at least the local fire and/or rescue authority and any other appropriate resource persons. The plan shall specify responsibilities assumed by the licensee for assisting residents who require emergency care or special assistance to residents in emergencies. An accident or incident report form shall be provided by and used by the staff of the facility.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4665.4900 Emergency Procedures Meeting
There shall be a meeting of all employees on each shift at least once every three months to discuss emergency procedures used in the facility. Business of the meetings shall cover:
A. assignment of persons to specific tasks and responsibilities in case of emergency situation;
B. instructions relating to the use of alarm systems and signals;
C. systems for notification of appropriate persons outside the facility;
D. information on the location of emergency equipment in the facility; and
E. specification of evacuation routes and procedures.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4665.5000 Telephones
There shall be at least one non-coin-operated telephone which is accessible to staff, residents, and visitors at all times for use in emergency. A list of the following telephone numbers shall be posted at this telephone: police, fire, ambulance, hospital, and emergency physician.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4665.5100 Keys
The person in charge of the facility on each work shift shall have keys to all locks on exits and egresses in the facility in possession.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
- History: 17 SR 1279
Minn. R. 4665.5200 Smoking
If smoking is permitted, it shall be permitted only in designated areas. Bedfast residents may be allowed to smoke only while under the direct supervision of a staff member.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4665.5300 Staff Training Program
There shall be a staff training program that is appropriate to the size and nature of the facility. The program shall include, but not be limited to, plans for assignment of staff and residents to specific tasks and responsibilities.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4665.5400 Emergency and Unusual Occurrence
In the event of an emergency or unusual occurrence, such as hospitalization, serious illness, accident, imminent death, or death, the resident's parent or others who maintain a close relationship with the patient shall be notified. The wishes of the resident and a parent about religious matters shall be determined and followed as closely as possible. In case of accident:
A. appropriate measures for the care and safety of the resident shall be undertaken; and
B. an accident report shall be made for use by the facility, and in case of injury, all relevant legal requirements shall be complied with. This includes Minnesota Statutes, section 626.554 relating to reporting of possible child abuse or neglect, as well as Minnesota Statutes, section 626.557, relating to abuse or neglect of residents of facilities licensed pursuant to Minnesota Statutes, sections 144.50 to 144.58.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
- History: L 1987 c 384 art 2 s 1; 17 SR 1279
Minn. R. 4665.5500 Clothing and Laundry Services
Subpart 1. Clothing.
Each resident shall have neat, clean clothing appropriate for the season. Each resident should have his or her own clothing, which is, when necessary, properly and inconspicuously marked with the resident's name. Washable, specially designed clothing should be utilized as needed for residents with multiple disabilities or who are incontinent.
Subp. 2. Laundry services.
Laundry services are to be managed so that daily clothing and linen needs are met without delay and there is a minimum loss and damage to clothing.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
- History: 17 SR 1279; L 2005 c 56 s 2
Minn. R. 4665.5600 Housekeeping Services
The licensee shall be responsible for or shall supervise the cleaning and maintenance of all areas in the supervised living facility. Such responsibility shall assure cleanliness and orderliness of the residents' rooms, furnishings, and equipment through regularly scheduled cleaning, which shall be provided at least weekly. Such responsibility shall provide for security of the residents' rooms and their personal belongings.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4665.9000 Fines for Uncorrected Deficiencies in Supervised Living Facilities and Authority
Parts 4665.9000 to 4665.9100 establish the schedule of penalty assessments to be assessed against supervised living facilities for the failure to comply with correction orders under the authority of Minnesota Statutes, section 144.653, subdivisions 5 and 6.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.653
- History: 17 SR 6
Minn. R. 4665.9010 General Requirements
Penalty assessments for violations of parts 4665.0200 to 4665.1300 are as follows:
A. part 4665.0200, subpart 5, item B, $350;
B. parts 4665.0300 and 4665.0400, $50;
C. part 4665.0500, $500;
D. that portion of part 4665.0800 that states: "... there shall be at least one responsible person awake, dressed, and up and about in the facility. The responsible person shall be at least 18 years of age and capable of performing required duties in supervision of residents. This person shall be immediately accessible to all residents in the facility and shall be the person to whom residents can report injuries, symptoms of illness, and emergency situations.", $500;
E. that portion of part 4665.0800 that states: "Facilities that accept persons who are not capable of adequate judgment in taking action for self-preservation, must assure that there is, additional to the requirement above, adequate staff on duty on a 24-hour-a-day basis to provide: A. necessary physical services for activities of daily living; B. maintenance of an appropriate personal hygiene program for each resident", $350;
F. that portion of part 4665.0800 that states: "C. for appropriate movement of residents to safe harborage within the facility, or evacuation from the facility, in the case of fire or other emergency situation.", $500;
G. part 4665.0900, $350;
H. parts 4665.1000 and 4665.1100, $50;
I. part 4665.1200, items A and B, $100;
J. part 4665.1200, item C, $50;
K. part 4665.1300, item A, $50;
L. part 4665.1300, items B and C, $100;
M. part 4665.1300, item D, $50;
N. a $50 penalty assessment will be issued for noncompliance with correction orders relating to part 4638.0200, subpart 2; and
O. a $250 penalty assessment will be issued for noncompliance with correction orders relating to part 4638.0200, subpart 3.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.653
- History: 17 SR 6
Minn. R. 4665.9020 Physical Plant
Penalty assessments for violations of parts 4665.1400 to 4665.2700 are as follows:
A. parts 4665.1400 to 4665.1700, $200;
B. part 4665.1800, subparts 1 to 10, $150;
C. part 4665.1800, subpart 11, $200;
D. part 4665.1900, $150;
E. parts 4665.2000 to 4665.2100, $200;
F. part 4665.2200, $150;
G. parts 4665.2300 to 4665.2600, $200; and
H. part 4665.2700, $350.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.653
- History: 17 SR 6
Minn. R. 4665.9030 Nutrition
Penalty assessments for violations of parts 4665.2800 to 4665.3200 are as follows:
A. parts 4665.2800 to 4665.3000, $350;
B. that portion of part 4665.3100 that states: "All menus, including special diets, shall be planned, dated and available for review for a minimum of one week in advance. Notations shall be made of any substitutions in the meals actually served.", $50;
C. that portion of part 4665.3100 that states: "... these shall be of equal nutritional value. Records of menus and of foods purchased shall be filed for six months. A reasonable variety of foods shall be provided. A file of tested recipes, adjusted to a yield appropriate for the size of the facility, shall be maintained on the premises.", $300; and
D. part 4665.3200, $350.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.653
- History: 17 SR 6
Minn. R. 4665.9040 Health Services
Penalty assessments for violations of parts 4665.3300 to 4665.4100 are as follows:
A. part 4665.3300, $300;
B. part 4665.3400, $300;
C. parts 4665.3500 to 4665.3900, $350;
D. part 4665.4000, $300;
E. part 4665.4100, subpart 1, $300;
F. part 4665.4100, subpart 2, items A to C, $100;
G. part 4665.4100, subpart 2, item D, $500;
H. part 4665.4100, subpart 2, items E to F, $100;
I. part 4665.4100, subpart 2, item G, $300;
J. part 4665.4100, subpart 2, item H, $100;
K. that portion of part 4665.4100, subpart 3, that states: "Upon request, a resident or parent or guardian shall be provided with a summary of the resident's health record within a reasonable period of time following discharge. All information contained in the resident's health records shall be considered privileged and confidential, and written consent of the resident or a parent shall be required for the release of information to persons not otherwise authorized to receive it. The resident shall have access to the health record upon request.", $250;
L. that portion of part 4665.4100, subpart 3, that states: "All entries in the resident's health record shall be legible, dated, and authenticated by the signature and other identifying designation of the individual making the entry.", $300; and
M. part 4665.4100, subpart 4, $300.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.653
- History: 17 SR 6; 17 SR 1279
Minn. R. 4665.9050 Medication Handling Procedures
Penalty assessments for violations of parts 4665.4200 to 4665.4600 are as follows:
A. part 4665.4200, $500;
B. part 4665.4300, $350;
C. part 4665.4400, $300;
D. part 4665.4500, $350;
E. that portion of part 4665.4600 that states: "If authorized by the attending physician or the resident's physician, medications belonging to residents shall be given to them when discharged or transferred. This shall be recorded in the resident's health record.", $300;
F. that portion of part 4665.4600 that states: "Unused portions of controlled substances shall be handled by contacting the Minnesota Board of Pharmacy, which will furnish the necessary instructions and appropriate forms, a copy of which shall be kept on file in the facility for two years. Any other unused portions of prescription drugs remaining in the facility after the death or discharge of the resident for whom they were prescribed, or any prescriptions discontinued permanently, shall be destroyed by the licensee or designee by flushing them into the sewer system and removing and destroying the labels from the containers.", $100; and
G. that portion of part 4665.4600 that states: "A notation of such destruction giving date, quantity, name of medication, and prescription number shall be recorded on the resident's chart. Such destruction shall be witnessed and the notation signed by both persons.", $50.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.653
- History: 17 SR 6
Minn. R. 4665.9060 Safety
Penalty assessments for violations of parts 4665.4700 to 4665.9900 are as follows:
A. part 4665.4700, $300;
B. parts 4665.4800 and 4665.4900, $200;
C. part 4665.5000, $250;
D. part 4665.5100, $100;
E. that portion of part 4665.5200 that states: "If smoking is permitted, it shall be permitted only in designated areas.", $200;
F. that portion of part 4665.5200 that states: "Bedfast residents may be allowed to smoke only while under the direct supervision of a staff member.", $500;
G. part 4665.5300, $300;
H. that portion of part 4665.5400 that states: "In the event of an emergency or unusual occurrence, such as hospitalization, serious illness, accident, imminent death, or death, the resident's parent or others who maintain a close relationship with the patient shall be notified. The wishes of the resident and a parent about religious matters shall be determined and followed as closely as possible.", $250;
I. part 4665.5400, item A, $350;
J. part 4665.5400, item B, $50;
K. part 4665.5500, subpart 1, $300;
L. part 4665.5500, subpart 2, $50;
M. part 4665.5600, $200; and
N. part 4665.9900, $300.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.653
- History: 17 SR 6; 17 SR 1279
Minn. R. 4665.9070 Department of Health Statutes
Penalty assessments for violations of Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651, are as follows:
A. subdivision 4, $100;
B. subdivision 5, $250;
C. subdivision 6, $250;
D. subdivision 7, $100;
E. subdivision 8, $100;
F. subdivision 9, $250;
G. subdivision 10, $250;
H. subdivision 11, $100;
I. subdivision 12, $250;
J. subdivision 13, $500;
K. subdivision 14, $500;
L. subdivision 15, $250;
M. subdivision 16:
N. subdivision 17, $100;
O. subdivision 18, $250;
P. subdivision 19, $250;
Q. subdivision 20, $250;
R. subdivision 21:
S. subdivision 22, $250;
T. subdivision 23, $250;
U. subdivision 24, $100;
V. subdivision 25, $250;
W. subdivision 26, $250;
X. subdivision 27, $250;
Y. subdivision 28, $250;
Z. subdivision 29, $250;
AA. subdivision 30, $250;
BB. subdivision 31, $500; and
CC. subdivision 32, $250.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.653
- History: 17 SR 6
Minn. R. 4665.9080 Reporting of Maltreatment of Vulnerable Adults
Penalty assessments for violations of Minnesota Statutes, section 626.557, are as follows:
A. subdivision 3, $250;
B. subdivision 3a, $100;
C. subdivision 4, $250;
D. subdivision 9, $250;
E. subdivision 14, $350;
F. subdivision 15, $350; and
G. subdivision 17, $250.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.653
- History: 17 SR 6
Minn. R. 4665.9090 Minnesota Clean Indoor Air Act
Except as noted in items A and B, a $200 penalty assessment shall be issued for any violation of Minnesota Statutes, sections 144.411 to 144.417, the Minnesota Clean Indoor Air Act, or any rules adopted under this act:
A. that portion of section 144.414, subdivision 3, paragraph (b), that states: "... pursuant to a policy established by the administrator of the program that identifies circumstances in which prohibiting smoking would interfere with the treatment of persons recovering from chemical dependency or mental illness.", $100; and
B. section 144.414, subdivision 3, paragraph (c), $100.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.653
- History: 17 SR 6
Minn. R. 4665.9100 Failure to Correct Deficiency After a Fine Has Been Imposed
If, upon subsequent reinspection after a fine has been imposed under parts 4665.9000 to 4665.9090, the deficiency has still not been corrected, another fine shall be assessed. This fine shall be double the amount of the previous fine.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.653
- History: 17 SR 6
Minn. R. 4665.9900 Reportable Diseases
When called to a case, suspected case, or death from any of the following diseases, the attending physician, within 24 hours, shall notify the agent of a community health board as authorized under Minnesota Statutes, section 145A.04 by means of the regular reporting post card or special blank provided for such reports. Diseases marked by asterisk shall also be reported directly to the Division of Personal Health Services, Minnesota Department of Health.
When no physician is in attendance, it shall be the duty of the head of the household, or other person in charge of any institution, school, hotel, boarding house, camp, dairy farm, or pasteurization plant, or any other person having knowledge of any individual believed to have or suspected of having any disease, presumably communicable, to report immediately the name and address of any such person to the authorized agent. Until official action on such has been taken, strict isolation shall be maintained.
Within 24 hours of the receipt of such notification or other knowledge of a case, the authorized agent shall forward same to the Minnesota Department of Health, Division of Personal Health Services, 717 Delaware Street SE, Minneapolis, Minnesota 55440 (651-296-5201) after transcribing essential information for permanent local record.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
- History: L 1977 c 305 s 39; L 1987 c 309 s 24; L 2015 c 21 art 1 s 109
Chapter 4666 OCCUPATIONAL THERAPISTS AND ASSISTANTS
Minn. R. 4666.0010 [Repealed, L 2000 c 361 s 24]
[Repealed, L 2000 c 361 s 24]
Minn. R. 4666.0020 [Repealed, L 2000 c 361 s 24]
[Repealed, L 2000 c 361 s 24]
Minn. R. 4666.0030 [Repealed, L 2000 c 361 s 24]
[Repealed, L 2000 c 361 s 24]
Minn. R. 4666.0040 [Repealed, L 2000 c 361 s 24]
[Repealed, L 2000 c 361 s 24]
Minn. R. 4666.0050 [Repealed, L 2000 c 361 s 24]
[Repealed, L 2000 c 361 s 24]
Minn. R. 4666.0060 [Repealed, L 2000 c 361 s 24]
[Repealed, L 2000 c 361 s 24]
Minn. R. 4666.0070 [Repealed, L 2000 c 361 s 24]
[Repealed, L 2000 c 361 s 24]
Minn. R. 4666.0080 [Repealed, L 2000 c 361 s 24]
[Repealed, L 2000 c 361 s 24]
Minn. R. 4666.0090 [Repealed, L 2000 c 361 s 24]
[Repealed, L 2000 c 361 s 24]
Minn. R. 4666.0100 [Repealed, L 2000 c 361 s 24]
[Repealed, L 2000 c 361 s 24]
Minn. R. 4666.0200 [Repealed, L 2000 c 361 s 24]
[Repealed, L 2000 c 361 s 24]
Minn. R. 4666.0300 [Repealed, L 2000 c 361 s 24]
[Repealed, L 2000 c 361 s 24]
Minn. R. 4666.0400 [Repealed, L 2000 c 361 s 24]
[Repealed, L 2000 c 361 s 24]
Minn. R. 4666.0500 [Repealed, L 2000 c 361 s 24]
[Repealed, L 2000 c 361 s 24]
Minn. R. 4666.0600 [Repealed, L 2000 c 361 s 24]
[Repealed, L 2000 c 361 s 24]
Minn. R. 4666.0700 [Repealed, L 2000 c 361 s 24]
[Repealed, L 2000 c 361 s 24]
Minn. R. 4666.0800 [Repealed, L 2000 c 361 s 24]
[Repealed, L 2000 c 361 s 24]
Minn. R. 4666.0900 [Repealed, L 2000 c 361 s 24]
[Repealed, L 2000 c 361 s 24]
Minn. R. 4666.1000 [Repealed, L 2000 c 361 s 24]
[Repealed, L 2000 c 361 s 24]
Minn. R. 4666.1100 [Repealed, L 2000 c 361 s 24]
[Repealed, L 2000 c 361 s 24]
Minn. R. 4666.1200 [Repealed, L 2000 c 361 s 24]
[Repealed, L 2000 c 361 s 24]
Minn. R. 4666.1300 [Repealed, L 2000 c 361 s 24]
[Repealed, L 2000 c 361 s 24]
Minn. R. 4666.1400 [Repealed, L 2000 c 361 s 24]
[Repealed, L 2000 c 361 s 24]
Chapter 4667 HOME CARE PROVIDERS; REGISTRATION FEES
Minn. R. 4667.0005 [Repealed, 28 SR 1249]
[Repealed, 28 SR 1249]
Minn. R. 4667.0010 [Repealed, 28 SR 1249]
[Repealed, 28 SR 1249]
Minn. R. 4667.0015 [Repealed, 28 SR 1249]
[Repealed, 28 SR 1249]
Minn. R. 4667.0020 [Repealed, 28 SR 1249]
[Repealed, 28 SR 1249]
Minn. R. 4667.0025 [Repealed, 28 SR 1249]
[Repealed, 28 SR 1249]
Minn. R. 4667.0030 [Repealed, 28 SR 1249]
[Repealed, 28 SR 1249]
Chapter 4668 HOME CARE LICENSURE
Minn. R. 4668.0002 [Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Minn. R. 4668.0003 Repealed by subpart
Subpart 1.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 2a.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 2b.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 2c.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 4.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 5.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 6.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 7.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 8.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 9.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 10.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 11.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 12.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 13.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 14.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 15.
[Repealed, 28 SR 1639; L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 16.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 17.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 17a.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 18.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 19.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 20.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 21.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 21a.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 21b.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 22.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 23.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 24.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 25.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 26.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 26a.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 26b.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 27.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 28.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 28a.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 29.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 30.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 31.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 32.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 33.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 34.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 35.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 36.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 37.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 38.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 39.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 40.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 41.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 42.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 43.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 44.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 44a.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 45.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Minn. R. 4668.0005 [Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Minn. R. 4668.0008 [Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Minn. R. 4668.0012 [Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Minn. R. 4668.0016 [Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Minn. R. 4668.0017 [Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Minn. R. 4668.0019 [Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Minn. R. 4668.0020 [Repealed, L 1997 c 248 s 51]
[Repealed, L 1997 c 248 s 51]
Minn. R. 4668.0030 [Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Minn. R. 4668.0035 [Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Minn. R. 4668.0040 [Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Minn. R. 4668.0050 [Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Minn. R. 4668.0060 [Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Minn. R. 4668.0065 [Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Minn. R. 4668.0070 [Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Minn. R. 4668.0075 [Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Minn. R. 4668.0080 [Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Minn. R. 4668.0100 [Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Minn. R. 4668.0110 Repealed by subpart
Subpart 1.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 4.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 5.
[Repealed, L 2009 c 174 art 2 s 12; L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Subp. 6.
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Minn. R. 4668.0120 [Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Minn. R. 4668.0130 [Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Minn. R. 4668.0140 [Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Minn. R. 4668.0150 [Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Minn. R. 4668.0160 [Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Minn. R. 4668.0170 [Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Minn. R. 4668.0180 [Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Minn. R. 4668.0190 [Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Minn. R. 4668.0200 [Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Minn. R. 4668.0210 [Repealed, 28 SR 1639]
[Repealed, 28 SR 1639]
Minn. R. 4668.0215 [Repealed, L 2006 c 282 art 19 s 20]
[Repealed, L 2006 c 282 art 19 s 20]
Minn. R. 4668.0218 [Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Minn. R. 4668.0220 [Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Minn. R. 4668.0230 [Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Minn. R. 4668.0240 [Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Minn. R. 4668.0800 [Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Minn. R. 4668.0805 [Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Minn. R. 4668.0810 [Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Minn. R. 4668.0815 [Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Minn. R. 4668.0820 [Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Minn. R. 4668.0825 [Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Minn. R. 4668.0830 [Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Minn. R. 4668.0835 [Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Minn. R. 4668.0840 [Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Minn. R. 4668.0845 [Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Minn. R. 4668.0855 [Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Minn. R. 4668.0860 [Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Minn. R. 4668.0865 [Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Minn. R. 4668.0870 [Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Chapter 4669 HOME CARE LICENSURE FEES
Minn. R. 4669.0001 [Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Minn. R. 4669.0010 [Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Minn. R. 4669.0020 [Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Minn. R. 4669.0030 [Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Minn. R. 4669.0040 [Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Minn. R. 4669.0050 [Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
[Repealed, L 2013 c 108 art 11 s 33; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 134]
Chapter 4670 LOCAL PUBLIC HEALTH AGENCIES; MERIT SYSTEM
Minn. R. 4670.0100 Repealed by subpart
Subpart 1.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 1a.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 3a.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 4.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 5.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 6.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 7.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 7a.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 7b.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 8.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 9.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 10.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 11.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 12.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 12a.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 13.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 13a.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 14.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 14a.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 15.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 16.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 17.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 17a.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 17b.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 18.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 19.
[Repealed, 23 SR 2404]
Subp. 19a.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 20.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 21.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 22.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 23.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 24.
[Repealed, 16 SR 2054]
Subp. 25.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 26.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 26a.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 27.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 28.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 29.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 30.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 31.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 32.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 33.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 34.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 34a.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 35.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 36.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 37.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 38.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 39.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 40.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 41.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 42.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 43.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 44.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 45.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 46.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 47.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 48.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 48a.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 49.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 50.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.0200 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.0300 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.0310 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.0320 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.0400 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.0500 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.0600 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.0610 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.0620 [Repealed, 14 SR 1008]
[Repealed, 14 SR 1008]
Minn. R. 4670.0700 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.0800 [Deleted under L 2014 c 192 art 4 s 2,3]
[Deleted under L 2014 c 192 art 4 s 2,3]
Minn. R. 4670.0810 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.0820 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.0830 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.0900 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.0910 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.0920 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.0930 Repealed by subpart
Subpart 1.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, 10 SR 1502]
Subp. 4.
[Repealed, 10 SR 1502]
Minn. R. 4670.0940 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.0950 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.1000 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.1010 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.1020 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.1100 [Repealed, 15 SR 452]
[Repealed, 15 SR 452]
Minn. R. 4670.1110 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.1120 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.1130 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.1140 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.1200 Repealed by subpart
Subpart 1.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, 12 SR 1335]
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 3a.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 4.
[Repealed, 12 SR 1335]
Subp. 5.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 6.
[Repealed, 12 SR 1335]
Minn. R. 4670.1210 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.1220 [Repealed, 22 SR 45]
[Repealed, 22 SR 45]
Minn. R. 4670.1300 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.1310 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.1320 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.1330 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.1340 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.1400 [Repealed, 22 SR 45]
[Repealed, 22 SR 45]
Minn. R. 4670.1410 [Repealed, 22 SR 45]
[Repealed, 22 SR 45]
Minn. R. 4670.1420 [Repealed, 22 SR 45]
[Repealed, 22 SR 45]
Minn. R. 4670.1430 [Repealed, 22 SR 45]
[Repealed, 22 SR 45]
Minn. R. 4670.1440 [Repealed, 22 SR 45]
[Repealed, 22 SR 45]
Minn. R. 4670.1450 [Repealed, 22 SR 45]
[Repealed, 22 SR 45]
Minn. R. 4670.1500 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.1600 [Repealed, 22 SR 45]
[Repealed, 22 SR 45]
Minn. R. 4670.1700 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.1800 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.1900 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.1910 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.1920 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.1930 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.1940 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.1950 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.1960 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.1970 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.1980 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.2000 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.2100 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.2200 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.2300 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.2400 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.2500 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.2510 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.2520 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.2530 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.2540 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.2550 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.2600 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.2610 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.2620 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.2630 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.2640 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.2650 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.2660 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.2670 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.2680 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.2690 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.2700 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.2710 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.2720 [Repealed, 12 SR 458]
[Repealed, 12 SR 458]
Minn. R. 4670.2800 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.2810 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.2900 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.2910 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.2920 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.2930 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.2940 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4670.2950 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.2960 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.2970 [Repealed, 12 SR 458]
[Repealed, 12 SR 458]
Minn. R. 4670.2980 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.3000 [Repealed, 22 SR 45]
[Repealed, 22 SR 45]
Minn. R. 4670.3010 [Repealed, 22 SR 45]
[Repealed, 22 SR 45]
Minn. R. 4670.3020 [Repealed, 22 SR 45]
[Repealed, 22 SR 45]
Minn. R. 4670.3030 [Repealed, 22 SR 45]
[Repealed, 22 SR 45]
Minn. R. 4670.3040 [Repealed, 22 SR 45]
[Repealed, 22 SR 45]
Minn. R. 4670.3050 [Repealed, 22 SR 45]
[Repealed, 22 SR 45]
Minn. R. 4670.3060 [Repealed, 22 SR 45]
[Repealed, 22 SR 45]
Minn. R. 4670.3070 [Repealed, 22 SR 45]
[Repealed, 22 SR 45]
Minn. R. 4670.3080 [Repealed, 22 SR 45]
[Repealed, 22 SR 45]
Minn. R. 4670.3100 [Repealed, 25 SR 487]
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4670.3200 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.3300 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.3400 [Repealed, 14 SR 1806]
[Repealed, 14 SR 1806]
Minn. R. 4670.3410 [Repealed, 14 SR 1806]
[Repealed, 14 SR 1806]
Minn. R. 4670.3420 [Repealed, 14 SR 1806]
[Repealed, 14 SR 1806]
Minn. R. 4670.3430 [Repealed, 14 SR 1806]
[Repealed, 14 SR 1806]
Minn. R. 4670.3440 [Repealed, 14 SR 1806]
[Repealed, 14 SR 1806]
Minn. R. 4670.3450 [Repealed, 14 SR 1806]
[Repealed, 14 SR 1806]
Minn. R. 4670.3460 [Repealed, 14 SR 1806]
[Repealed, 14 SR 1806]
Minn. R. 4670.3500 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.3510 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.3520 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.3530 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.3540 [Repealed, 23 SR 2404]
[Repealed, 23 SR 2404]
Minn. R. 4670.3550 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.3600 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.3700 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.3800 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.3900 [Repealed, 10 SR 1502]
[Repealed, 10 SR 1502]
Minn. R. 4670.3910 [Repealed, 10 SR 1502]
[Repealed, 10 SR 1502]
Minn. R. 4670.3920 [Repealed, 10 SR 1502]
[Repealed, 10 SR 1502]
Minn. R. 4670.3930 [Repealed, 10 SR 1502]
[Repealed, 10 SR 1502]
Minn. R. 4670.3940 [Repealed, 10 SR 1502]
[Repealed, 10 SR 1502]
Minn. R. 4670.4000 [Repealed, 23 SR 82]
[Repealed, 23 SR 82]
Minn. R. 4670.4010 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.4020 [Repealed, 23 SR 82]
[Repealed, 23 SR 82]
Minn. R. 4670.4030 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.4040 [Repealed, 23 SR 82]
[Repealed, 23 SR 82]
Minn. R. 4670.4050 [Repealed, 23 SR 82]
[Repealed, 23 SR 82]
Minn. R. 4670.4100 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.4110 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.4120 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.4130 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.4140 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.4150 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.4200 [Repealed, 44 SR 371]
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Minn. R. 4670.4210 Repealed by subpart
Subpart 1.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, 15 SR 452]
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, 15 SR 452]
Minn. R. 4670.4220 Repealed by subpart
Subpart 1.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, 15 SR 452]
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, 15 SR 452]
Minn. R. 4670.4230 Repealed by subpart
Subpart 1.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, 15 SR 452]
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, 15 SR 452]
Minn. R. 4670.4240 Repealed by subpart
Subpart 1.
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, 25 SR 487]
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, 15 SR 452; 25 SR 487]
Minn. R. 4670.4300 [Repealed, 23 SR 82]
[Repealed, 23 SR 82]
Chapter 4675 OUTPATIENT SURGICAL CENTERS
Minn. R. 4675.0100 Definitions
Subpart 1.
[Repealed by amendment, L 1977 c 305 s 39]
Subp. 2. Dentist.
"Dentist" means a person licensed by the Board of Dentistry under the provision of Minnesota Statutes, chapter 150A.
Subp. 3. Department.
"Department" means the Minnesota Department of Health.
Subp. 4. Facility.
"Facility" means the building or buildings, equipment, and supplies related to the operation of the center.
Subp. 5. Licensee.
"Licensee" means the responsible person or governing body to whom the license is issued.
Subp. 6. Modification.
"Modification" means alteration, remodeling, addition, or other change in a licensed facility or its services.
Subp. 7. Physician.
"Physician" means a person licensed by the Board of Medical Practice under the provision of Minnesota Statutes, chapter 147.
Subp. 8. Outpatient surgical center, center.
"Outpatient surgical center" or "center," means a freestanding facility organized for the specific purpose of providing elective outpatient surgery for preexamined, prediagnosed, low-risk patients. Admissions shall be limited to procedures which utilize local or general anesthesia and which do not require overnight inpatient care. It is not organized to provide regular emergency medical services and does not include the physician's and dentist's office or clinic for the practice of medicine or the delivery of primary care.
Subp. 9. Surgery.
"Surgery," for the purpose of parts 4675.0100 to 4675.2800, means treatment of conditions by operative means, involving incision or repair of human tissues.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
- History: L 1991 c 106 s 6
Minn. R. 4675.0200 Legal Authority
The Minnesota Department of Health pursuant to the authority granted in Minnesota Statutes, sections 144.12 and 144.55 to 144.56 hereby adopts parts 4675.0100 to 4675.2800 for the construction, equipment, maintenance, operation, and licensure of outpatient surgical centers.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4675.0300 Licensure
Subpart 1. Application.
Application for a license to establish and operate an outpatient surgery center shall be made in writing and submitted on forms provided by the department. The application shall be made by the person or persons who will be the licensee, operate the facility, and be responsible for its operation. Documentation shall be submitted which provides full disclosure of ownership.
Subp. 2. Corporation application.
If the applicant is a corporation, the applicant shall furnish the department names and addresses of the governing body and names of current officers of the corporation.
Subp. 3. Out-of-state corporations.
In addition to the documentation required in subpart 2 out-of-state corporations shall furnish the department with a copy of the certificate of authority to do business in the state of Minnesota.
Subp. 4. License.
A license shall be issued by the commissioner of health when compliance has been made with the requirements of parts 4675.0100 to 4675.2800. It is issued for one year. Renewal of a license is subject to demonstrated compliance with parts 4675.0100 to 4675.2800. A license is not transferable. A change in ownership requires a new application. Separate licenses are required for facilities maintained on separate sites, even though operated by the same ownership. The license shall be conspicuously posted in a public area in the center. The licensee shall notify the department in writing of any change of name or address of the licensee and of the administrator.
Subp. 5. Fire safety requirements.
A center which has been determined by the state fire marshal to be out of compliance with the fire safety requirements of the state fire marshal is not eligible for licensing.
Subp. 6. New centers.
Architectural and engineering drawings and specifications for new centers or modifications of facilities in existing centers shall be submitted to and approved by the department. New centers and their staffing require approval prior to licensure.
Subp. 7. Waiver.
Physical plant deficiencies relating to required area sizes or distance limits may be waived by the commissioner of health for a recognized existing center which was functioning prior to the effective date of parts 4675.0100 to 4675.2800 when such deficiencies do not constitute an unacceptable compromise in patient treatment and safety and correction would involve major remodeling and cause unusual hardship.
Subp. 8. Fees.
Fees shall be paid in accordance with part 4735.0200.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
- History: L 1977 c 305 s 39
Minn. R. 4675.0400 Administration
The person or governing body recorded as the licensee shall be responsible for its management, control, and operation. The licensee shall:
A. Appoint an administrator, and submit name, address, and qualifications to the commissioner of health. This person shall be responsible for management, control, operation, records, and reports, as well as compliance with parts 4675.0100 to 4675.2800.
B. Appoint a medical director or chief of staff who shall be a physician. This person shall be responsible for establishment, implementation, and supervision of all medical policies, patients records, procedures, and services of the facility.
C. Maintain a record of each physician and dentist on the staff. This record shall contain his or her name, qualifications, experience, and present hospital affiliation, accompanied by a list of procedures and services he or she is authorized to perform.
D. Designate a registered nurse who shall be responsible for all nursing services and assure that a registered nurse is in attendance at all times when patients are present in the facility.
E. Provide sufficient additional professional and allied health personnel to administer diagnostic and treatment services as necessary in accordance with the services provided in the facility.
F. Establish and maintain a program for periodic review of administrative and professional functions and services by means of utilization review and medical audit.
G. Maintain a written agreement with at least one of the general hospitals in the immediate vicinity for the transfer of patients requiring hospital care in case that emergency or inpatient care is required.
H. Maintain a written agreement with an emergency ambulance service to assure that such services will be available.
I. Provide a facility which is constructed, equipped, operated, and maintained to satisfy the needs of the services rendered and to maintain safe and sanitary conditions as required by accepted current practice and by parts 4675.0100 to 4675.2800.
J. Adopt a written disaster plan with procedures for the protection and/or evacuation of all persons in the case of fire or explosion or in the event of floods, tornadoes, or other emergencies.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
- History: L 1977 c 305 s 39
Minn. R. 4675.0500 Medical Staff
The medical director and the medical staff are responsible to the governing body for patient and staff policies and for medical procedures and services relative to admission, treatment, and related emergency treatment. The medical staff shall:
A. Establish written policies for the admission and treatment of patients for surgery, including but not limited to subitems (1) to (5).
B. Establish written policies for surgical procedures to be performed.
C. Establish written policies for the creation and maintenance of a program for infection control.
D. Provide for orientation and in-service programs for all center personnel as related to their activities, including medical emergency procedures.
E. Provide for emergency care procedures in the event of surgical complications.
F. Establish policies for transfer of patients needing hospital care.
G. Maintain medical records on each patient accepted for treatment. Each patient record shall include: the patient's name, address, and telephone number; the operating physician, admission and discharge notes and dates; a signed consent form; pertinent medical history; tests and examinations; admitting diagnosis; surgical procedure and anesthesia report; pathology report where indicated; patient aftercare instructions; prescribed medications; and other progress notes. Surgery-related or anesthesia-related complications which result in morbidity or mortality of a patient shall be recorded in detail. Patients' records shall be made available for inspection by the department and be preserved in accordance with Minnesota Statutes, sections 145.30 to 145.33.
H. Develop and maintain a system for professional peer review.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.05; 14.3895; 144.56
- History: 44 SR 371
Minn. R. 4675.0600 Administrative Areas
Administrative areas shall include the following elements:
A. a reserved access to the site for arrival and departure of patients;
B. a supervised waiting area with reception and seating for arriving and departing patients and persons accompanying patients;
C. a toilet room for each sex available for the waiting area;
D. at least one public telephone for use by patients; and
E. patient consultation room and administrative offices.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4675.0700 Separate Treatment Centers
Treatment areas for patient preparation, surgery, and recovery shall be separate. Each area shall be equipped to accommodate its functional needs.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4675.0800 Patient Preparation Area
The patient preparation area shall include the following elements:
A. An arrangement which permits patient access to the area for initial entry and final departure from the dressing area without passing through the postoperative recovery area; and provides gowned patients access to the surgical suite without entering the recovery area or a public space or corridor.
B. Dressing rooms which assure privacy, and space for storage and security of patients' clothing and belongings.
C. Examination rooms, each provided with a lavatory with an open grid strainer, a wrist- , knee- , or foot-controlled mixing faucet with gooseneck spout, and a single-service towel dispenser. It shall include examination table and light.
D. A nurses office or nurse station for patient management, for directing of nursing care, and for keeping patient records, unless the nurses station for the postoperative recovery area is accessible for use.
E. Space for clinical laboratory services, unless arrangements have been made for obtaining such services outside the center.
F. A radiology area with equipment, required protection, and toilet room(s) as appropriate, unless such services are provided for outside the center.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4675.0900 Surgical Suite
The surgical suite shall include the following elements:
A. Location and arrangement shall prevent unrelated traffic through the suite.
B. One or more operating rooms. Each operating room shall have a floor area of not less than 225 square feet with a minimum dimension of 15 feet. Walls, ceilings, and floors shall have smooth cleanable surfaces. Equipment shall include an operating table, surgical light, and provision for oxygen and vacuum. Operating rooms using flammable anesthetic shall be designed in accordance with the National Electrical Code, 1975 edition, for such use.
C. A scrub sink with foot, knee, or automatic controls adjacent to the entrance to each operating room, or in a central location convenient to such rooms.
D. A clean work room for assembly and storage of clean and sterile surgical supplies and instruments. It shall contain a work counter, sink with institutional fittings for hand washing, and storage cabinets or shelving. A high-speed sterilizer is required in this area if a sterilizer is not provided in the general clean and sterile supply room.
E. A soiled work room for disposal or collection of soiled materials generated in surgery. It shall contain a flushing rim sink, work counter and sink with institutional fittings, and space for collection of waste and soiled linen. Institutional fittings shall include: mixing faucet with gooseneck spout, wrist-action controls, and open grid strainer.
F. Space for cleaning, testing, and storage of anesthetic equipment. It shall contain a work counter and sink with institutional fittings.
G. A janitors closet with a service sink and shelving for cleaning supplies for exclusive use by the surgical suite.
H. Gowning areas for the surgical staff, both male and female. Each area shall contain lockers; toilet; and a lavatory with open grid strainer, wrist- , foot- , or knee-control mixing faucet for hand washing; and separate storage provisions for clean and soiled gowns and boots. The areas shall be arranged to provide initial entry without entering the operating suite and shall permit direct access to the surgical suite by staff prepared for surgery.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4675.1000 Postoperative Recovery Area
The postoperative recovery area shall include the following elements:
A. An arrangement which permits transfer of patients direct from the surgical suite or by route of a nonpublic corridor.
B. A recovery area that provides access and space for wheeled stretcher traffic and parking, and provides patient holding areas with privacy curtains and at least three feet of space on each side and foot end of stretchers or recovery beds.
C. A nurses office or nurse station for patient management, for directing of nursing care, and for keeping patient records. It shall be arranged to offer visual control of the recovery area.
D. Space for charting, drugs, nourishment, supplies, and equipment for patient care and emergency treatment. This includes facilities for hand washing, a flushing rim sink, space for soiled linen collection, and portable or built-in provisions for oxygen and suction in the recovery area.
E. Medications and narcotics stored in accordance with the requirements of the Minnesota Board of Pharmacy.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4675.1100 General Service Areas
The general service areas shall include the following elements:
A. Employee locker areas for street clothes and other belongings, with access to toilet facilities.
B. A clean supply room for receiving, storage, and assembly of clean and sterile supplies. It shall contain a sterilizer unless sterile supplies are received from a central supply service or a commercial supplier.
C. A room for the processing of soiled instruments and other reusable surgical items, unless such processing is provided by an outside central supply service.
D. A soiled linen collection room for collection and storage of linen which is to be processed either in an on-premise laundry or by an outside laundry service, unless an all-disposable linen service is utilized.
E. The laundry, if provided, shall be designed and operated as required by the department for the processing of institutional linen.
F. A separate storage area for solid waste. Collection, storage, and disposal of regular and infectious waste shall be in accordance with parts 4675.0100 to 4675.2800.
G. An elevator of a size which can accommodate a standard stretcher and two attendants, if the facility is located at a level without direct access from street or ground level.
H. A janitors closet with a service sink and with storage space for housekeeping items.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4675.1200 Medical Gases and Flammable Liquids
Storage and distribution systems for anesthetic gases and oxygen shall be in compliance with NFPA Standard No. 56A, 1973 edition, and NFPA Standard No. 56F, 1973 edition. Storage or installations for flammable liquids shall comply with NFPA Standard No. 30, 1973 edition.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4675.1300 General Maintenance
Provisions shall be made for the periodic inspection, testing, and calibration of systems and equipment, as appropriate, and records kept. The facility shall be clean, sanitary, and in good repair at all times. Maintenance shall include procedures and program to assure the safety and comfort of patients, visitors, and personnel.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4675.1400 Mechanical and Electrical Systems
Subpart 1. Mechanical systems.
The construction of all mechanical systems shall be in accordance with chapters 1300 to 1365, the State Building Code, 1973 edition, and with parts 4675.0100 to 4675.2800. New mechanical systems shall be tested, balanced, and operated by the contractors to satisfactorily demonstrate and document to the owner and the department that the installation and performance of these systems conform to the specified requirements.
Subp. 2. Plumbing.
Plumbing and other piping systems shall be designed, installed, and tested in accordance with the Minnesota Plumbing Code, 1973 edition. Lavatories and sinks required in patient care or treatment areas shall be provided with a gooseneck spout or similar elevated spout and shall be trimmed with valve controls which can be operated without the use of hands. All lavatories and sinks shall be provided with a single-service towel dispenser.
Subp. 3. Electrical systems.
Electrical installations and systems shall be installed and tested in accordance with the National Electrical Code, 1975 edition. A certificate of satisfactory testing for macro and micro shock hazards of sensitive electrical systems shall be submitted to the department for all new installations.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4675.1500 Emergency Electrical Service
Subpart 1. Automatic emergency power source.
An automatic emergency power source shall be provided for essential lighting, equipment, and alarm systems which will restore the power within ten seconds in case of failure of normal power.
Subp. 2. Essential lighting.
Essential lighting includes the following:
A. exitways and exit signs;
B. surgical lights in operating rooms and general illumination in surgical corridors;
C. laboratory, recovery room, nurses station, and in elevator; and
D. boiler room and near source of emergency electrical service within surgical center building.
Subp. 3. Essential equipment and alarm systems.
Essential equipment and alarm systems:
A. nurses call and/or paging system;
B. fire alarm system according to State Building Code's and state fire marshal's requirements;
C. receptacles in operating and recovery rooms;
D. receptacles for equipment that require continuous source of power; and
E. elevator -- automatic or manual transfer to emergency electrical service where elevator is used for vertical transport of patients to operating rooms.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4675.1600 Air Conditioning, Heating, and Ventilation
Subpart 1. Temperature and humidity range.
The systems shall be designed to provide temperatures and humidities as follows:
A. operating rooms: 70 to 76 degrees Fahrenheit (variable range), 50 to 60 percent relative humidity;
B. recovery rooms: 75 degrees Fahrenheit (variable range), 50 to 60 percent relative humidity; and
C. other areas: 75 degrees Fahrenheit (winter design condition).
Subp. 2. Mechanically operated.
All air-supply and air-exhaust systems shall be mechanically operated. All fans serving exhaust systems shall be located at the discharge end of the system. The ventilation rates shown in part 4675.2800 shall be considered as minimum acceptable rates and shall not be construed as precluding the use of higher ventilation rates.
Subp. 3. Outdoor air intakes.
Outdoor air intakes shall be located as far as practical but not less than 25 feet from the exhaust from any ventilating system, combustion equipment stack, medical-surgical vacuum system, or sewer vent stack four inches in diameter or greater, or from areas which may collect vehicular exhaust and other noxious fumes. The bottom of outdoor air intakes shall be located as high as practical but not less than four feet above ground level, or if installed through the roof, two feet above the roof level.
Subp. 4. Pressure.
The ventilation systems shall be designed and balanced to provide the pressure relationships as shown in part 4675.2800.
Subp. 5. Air to operating rooms.
All air supplied to operating rooms shall be delivered at or near the ceiling of the area served and all exhaust air from the area shall be removed near floor level. At least two exhaust outlets shall be used in all operating rooms.
Subp. 6. Air inlets.
The bottom of any room supply air inlets, recirculation and exhaust air outlets shall be located not less than three inches above the floor.
Subp. 7. Corridors.
Corridors shall not be used to supply air to or exhaust air from any room, except that air from corridors may be used to ventilate toilet rooms, janitors' closets, and small electrical or telephone closets opening directly on corridors.
Subp. 8. Induction units.
Induction units with reheat shall not be used in the operating suite.
Subp. 9. Filters.
All ventilation or air conditioning systems serving the operating suite and all central systems serving other facility areas shall have a minimum of two filter beds. Filter bed #1 shall be located upstream of the air conditioning equipment and shall have a minimum efficiency of 25 percent. Filter bed #2 shall be downstream of the supply fan and any recirculating spray water systems and/or water reservoir type humidifier(s). Filter bed #2 shall have a minimum efficiency of 90 percent. The efficiency of filter bed #2 may be reduced to 80 percent for central systems using 100 percent outdoor air and serving areas other than the operating suite.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4675.1700 Exceptions
Independent air handlers serving only a laundry shall have at least one filter bed and this filter bed shall have an efficiency of at least 80 percent. Independent air handlers serving only administrative spaces and/or bulk storage areas shall have at least one filter bed and this filter bed shall have an efficiency of at least 25 percent.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4675.1800 Filter Efficiencies
All filter efficiencies shall be certified by an independent testing agency and shall be based on ASHRAE Standard No. 52-68, except as noted in 7-30D-2-1(2).
Filter frames shall be durable and carefully dimensioned and shall provide an airtight fit with the enclosing duct work. All joints between filter segments and the enclosing duct work shall be gasketed or sealed to provide a positive seal against air leakage.
Each filter bed serving operating room areas or central air systems shall have a manometer installed across each filter bed.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4675.1900 Ducts
Ducts which penetrate construction intended for X-ray or other ray protection shall not impair the effectiveness of the protection.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4675.2000 Linings in Ducts
Linings in air ducts and equipment shall meet the erosion test method described in Underwriters Laboratories Publication No. 181. Duct linings shall not be used in air supply systems for operating rooms unless terminal filters of at least 90 percent efficiency per ASHRAE Standard No. 52-68 are installed downstream of linings.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4675.2100 Special Exhaust Systems
Subpart 1. Operating rooms.
Each operating room shall be provided with a separate evacuation system for the venting of waste anesthesia gas.
The system shall provide a gas venting intake of the head end of the operating table, and provide exhaust of collected gas directly to the outdoors.
Subp. 2. Laboratory.
If the air changes required in part 4675.2800 do not provide sufficient air for use by fume hoods and safety cabinets, additional air shall be provided.
Each laboratory hood shall have an independent exhaust with the fan installed at the discharge point of the system. Laboratory hoods for general use shall have a minimum average face velocity of 75 feet per minute. Hoods in which infectious or radioactive materials are processed shall have the following:
A. a minimum face velocity of 100 feet per minute;
B. filters in the exhaust having a 99.97 percent efficiency based on the DOP (dioctyl-phthalate) test method; and
C. equipment and/or procedure for the safe removal and replacement of contaminated filters. Duct systems serving hoods shall be constructed of corrosion-resistant material to meet the planned usage of the hood. Duct systems serving hoods in which radioactive materials and strong oxidizing agents (e.g. perchloric acid) are used shall be constructed of stainless steel for a minimum distance of ten feet from the hood and shall be equipped with washdown facilities. The ventilation system for anesthesia storage rooms and for flammable liquids storage areas shall conform to the requirements of NFPA Standard No. 56A, 1973 edition and NFPA Standard No. 30, 1973 edition.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4675.2200 [Repealed, 17 SR 2041]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2041]
Minn. R. 4675.2205 Infectious Waste and Pathological Waste
Infectious waste and pathological waste as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 116.76, must be managed according to Minnesota Statutes, sections 116.76 to 116.83 and parts 4622.0100 to 4622.1200. Pathological waste does not include the remains specified in Minnesota Statutes, section 145.1621 and such remains must be handled in accordance with that statute.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 116.81
- History: 17 SR 2041
Minn. R. 4675.2300 [Repealed, 17 SR 2041]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2041]
Minn. R. 4675.2400 [Repealed, 17 SR 2041]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2041]
Minn. R. 4675.2500 [Repealed, 17 SR 2041]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2041]
Minn. R. 4675.2600 [Repealed, 17 SR 2041]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2041]
Minn. R. 4675.2700 Laundry Requirements
Subpart 1. Application.
This part applies to all laundry services for the processing of institutional type linen. Such services may be provided by an on-premise laundry operated by the facility or by an outside laundry through contractual agreement.
Subp. 2. Sorting room.
A soiled linen collection and sorting room shall be located at the soiled side of the laundry processing room. It shall be provided with exhaust (negative) ventilation. The door to the corridor must be kept closed. Locate chute within this room, if a chute is provided.
Subp. 3. Processing room.
The laundry processing room shall be arranged to allow for an orderly, progressive flow of work from the soiled to the clean area. Equipment shall be arranged to minimize linen transportation, provide the necessary floor area between operations, and avoid cross traffic contamination between clean and soiled operations. The room shall provide space for storage of laundry supplies, cleaning equipment, and for parking of laundry trucks used in the operation. Hand-washing facilities shall be available for the area. A two compartment laundry tub shall be provided, and it shall be of a material with a nonabsorbent, smooth, permanent finish. The laundry tub may be equipped with fittings to provide for the required hand-washing facilities.
Subp. 4. Equipment.
The equipment shall be of a commercial type and shall consist of one or more washers, extractors, tumblers, or combinations of these, as well as ironers and presses. The washer installation shall be capable of meeting the necessary operating requirements.
Subp. 5. Storage.
A separate enclosed clean linen room for storage and delivery. This area shall be provided with fresh air supply (positive ventilation).
Subp. 6. Venting.
The air in the laundry shall be vented away from the clean storage and finishing or ironing area and toward the extracting and washing area. The general air movement shall be from the clean area to the soiled area, and shall be of sufficient volume to remove steam, odors, and excessive heat. Spot ventilation for large heat-producing equipment such as dryers and ironers should be provided. Dryers shall be provided with a lint collector. Horizontal exhaust ducts shall be provided with access panels for cleaning.
Subp. 7. Wash water temperature.
The wash water temperature inside the washers shall be at least 160 degrees Fahrenheit during the main washing and rinsing cycles for a total time of at least 30 minutes, excluding time for filling and draining.
Subp. 8. Contaminated linen.
Contaminated linen shall be thoroughly preflushed separately before being introduced to the main washing and rinsing process.
Contaminated linen, such as linen from patients with infectious drainage, dressings, or pads shall be stored and sent to the laundry in separate bags which are plainly marked to indicate that their contents are contaminated. The bags shall be tightly closed until the contents are removed from the bag and placed in the washer along with the bag, if nondisposable. Laundry personnel shall be instructed in the safe handling of such laundry.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Minn. R. 4675.2800 Table A; General Pressure Relationships and Minimum Ventilation Requirements
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.56
Chapter 4680 HEALTH FACILITIES GRIEVANCE MECHANISM
Minn. R. 4680.0100 Definitions
Subpart 1. Scope.
Definitions for parts 4680.0100 to 4680.1300 are as follows in subparts 2 to 6.
Subp. 2. Grievance mechanism.
"Grievance mechanism" means grievance and/or complaint procedures.
Subp. 3. Hospital.
"Hospital" means any entity licensed as such pursuant to Minnesota Statutes, sections 144.50 to 144.56.
Subp. 4. Outpatient surgery center.
"Outpatient surgery center" means a freestanding facility organized for the specific purpose of providing elective outpatient surgery for preexamined prediagnosed low risk patients. Services provided at an outpatient surgery center shall be limited to surgical procedures which utilize local or general anesthesia and which do not require overnight inpatient care. "Outpatient surgery center" does not mean emergency medical services, or physician or dentist offices.
Subp. 5. Patient.
"Patient" means an individual in or admitted to a hospital or outpatient surgery center for the purpose of prevention of disease, medical diagnosis, or medical treatment. The term "patient" includes inpatient, outpatient, and emergency room patient.
Subp. 6. Representative.
"Representative" means a person designated by the patient as a responsible party, a parent of a minor, a guardian, or one who is in loco parentis to a patient unable to act for himself or herself.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.691
- History: 17 SR 1279
Minn. R. 4680.0200 Applicability
Parts 4680.0100 to 4680.1300 apply to hospitals and outpatient surgery centers.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.691
Minn. R. 4680.0300 Minimum Standard
Every hospital and every outpatient surgery center shall establish, operate, and maintain a grievance mechanism designed to process and resolve patient grievances in accordance with parts 4680.0100 to 4680.1300.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.691
Minn. R. 4680.0400 Designated Person
Every hospital and every outpatient surgery center, shall designate an individual, by name or by title, to be accountable for the operation of a grievance mechanism.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.691
Minn. R. 4680.0500 Complaints
Any patient, or the patient's representative, may initiate any oral or written complaint related to those subjects specified in part 4680.1000.
Such complaints may be made to a person designated by the facility under part 4680.0400, or to any other person authorized to receive complaints by the facility. A person authorized to receive complaints shall be physically within the facility and able to receive complaints during ordinary business hours. Persons authorized to receive complaints, other than a person designated under part 4680.0400 shall, in all complaint cases, report any response or resolution, or refer the complaint, to a person designated under part 4680.0400.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.691
- History: 17 SR 1279
Minn. R. 4680.0600 Time for Response
Response to a complaint, or notice of the resolution of a complaint, shall be provided to the complainant as soon as possible. Such responses, or notices of resolution, shall be in writing, if requested by the complainant.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.691
Minn. R. 4680.0700 Notice of Time Limit
The authorized individual to whom any oral complaint is made shall, upon receipt of the complaint, inform the complainant of the best estimate of when the facility could respond to the complaint.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.691
- History: 17 SR 1279
Minn. R. 4680.0800 Complaint Records
The following complaint records shall be maintained by the facility for at least one year:
A. an annotation of the date, time, and substance of each complaint made by, or in behalf of, any patient;
B. a reference to any previous complaints made by, or in behalf of, the same patient during the patient's current stay in the facility; and
C. an annotation of the date, time, and substance of any response to, denial of, or resolution of, the complaint. The arrangement of such records shall be such that identification of particular patients and complainants is possible.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.691
- History: 17 SR 1279
Minn. R. 4680.0900 Patient Notice
Subpart 1. Notice of mechanism.
Written notice of the existence and availability of the grievance mechanism shall be posted conspicuously in all facilities, along with the notice required under Minnesota Statutes, section 144.652, and furnished, unless an emergency prevents such furnishing, to the patient or the patient's representative if and when the former is actually admitted to the facility. If an individual patient notice is required to be furnished to the patient or the patient's representative under Minnesota Statutes, section 144.652, written notice under these rules shall be furnished at the same time.
Subp. 2. Content of the notice.
Such written notice shall include the following:
A. a statement that complaints or grievances related to rights expressed in the Patients' Bill of Rights (Minnesota Statutes, section 144.651), or to any other rights, may be able to be resolved within the facility;
B. a statement that the facility maintains a grievance mechanism for this purpose;
C. a statement specifying an individual or type of individual to whom such complaints or grievances can be directed; and
D. a statement that any complainant has the right to request and to receive a written response to any complaint.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.691
- History: 17 SR 1279
Minn. R. 4680.1000 Patient Complaints
Complaints relating to at least the following shall be subject to being processed through a grievance mechanism:
A. lack of considerate or respectful care;
B. failure to provide complete, current, and understandable information concerning diagnosis, treatment, or prognosis;
C. failure to provide the name and specialty, if any, of the physician responsible for coordination of care;
D. failure to afford consideration of privacy;
E. failure to afford consideration of individual social, religious, and psychological well-being;
F. failure to preserve the confidentiality of the medical care program;
G. failure to provide, upon request, information bearing on the individual case with respect to any relationship of the facility to other health services facilities, medical groups, or other similar entities;
H. failure to afford continuity of care;
I. failure to provide requested information, prior to or at the time of admission and during the period spent in the facility, relating to charges for care;
J. failure to afford the opportunity to participate in the planning of medical treatment;
K. failure to inform of, or to offer an opportunity to refuse to participate in, experimental research;
L. retaliatory, arbitrary, or otherwise medically unjustifiable discharge;
M. interference with or retaliation for the free exercise of any legally prescribed rights;
N. mental and/or physical abuse;
O. medically unjustifiable physical and/or chemical restraints;
P. failure to comply with lawful requests to release or to withhold medical records;
Q. requiring the performance of services not included for therapeutic purposes in the plan of care;
R. restriction of the right to associate and communicate privately with others;
S. interference with the sending and receipt of personal mail;
T. restriction of the rights to meet with representatives and to participate in commercial, religious, and community activities;
U. restriction of the right to retain and use personal clothing and possessions, to the extent that space permits; and
V. failure to respond to questions concerning billing practices, the amount of a specific bill, and the like.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.691
Minn. R. 4680.1100 Reports
Every hospital and every outpatient surgery center shall, on or before each February 1, submit to the commissioner of health a report on the experience of their respective grievance mechanisms during the immediately preceding calendar year. Such reports shall include at least the following information:
A. the name and location of the reporting institution;
B. the reporting period in question;
C. the name of the individual(s) responsible for the operation of the grievance mechanism;
D. the total number of complaints filed with the facility pursuant to part 4680.0500;
E. the total number of complaints, according to classification under part 4680.1000;
F. the total number of any other complaints;
G. the number of patients by whom or for whom more than one complaint was made and the total number of such complaints; and
H. the total number of complaints resolved to the patient's apparent satisfaction.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.691
Minn. R. 4680.1200 Patient Notification and Complaint Mishandling
The following violations of these rules shall constitute grounds for the automatic assessment of a per violation $50 fine:
A. failure to give individual patient notice, as required under part 4680.0900; and
B. failure to respond to a patient complaint as soon as possible, as required under part 4680.0600. Multiple violations with respect to the current stay of a particular patient shall result in fines which in no case exceed $200. Such fines are payable within 30 days of the automatic assessment, unless there is a facility request for a hearing. Such a request shall stay the collection of the assessed fines, pending the outcome of the hearing.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.691
Minn. R. 4680.1300 Inadequate or Improperly Functioning Mechanism
Subpart 1. Grounds.
The following violations of these rules shall constitute grounds for the issuance of a correction order:
A. failure to have a grievance mechanism, as required under part 4680.0300;
B. failure to designate an individual, by name or title, to be responsible for the operation of a grievance mechanism, as required under part 4680.0400;
C. failure to have an individual within the facility and able to receive complaints during ordinary business hours, as required under part 4680.0500;
D. failure to maintain complaint records, as required by part 4680.0800;
E. failure to post notice, as required by part 4680.0900;
F. failure to submit an annual report, as required by part 4680.1100; and
G. failure to fulfill the criteria for content of the annual report, as required by part 4680.1100.
Subp. 2. Time periods for correction.
In no case may the allowable period for correction of any of the violations in subpart 1 exceed 60 days. In no case may the allowable period for correction of violations in subpart 1, items D, F, or G be less than 20 days.
Subp. 3. Fine amounts.
The amounts which shall be assessed in the event that the facility does not comply with correction orders within the allocated period of time are as follows:
A. violations as described in subpart 1, item A up to $200 per violation;
B. violations as described in subpart 1, item B to $100 per violation;
C. violations as described in subpart 1, item C up to $150 per violation;
D. violations as described in subpart 1, item D up to $50 per violation;
E. violations as described in subpart 1, item E up to $100 per violation;
F. violations as described in subpart 1, item F up to $200 per violation; and
G. violations as described in subpart 1, item G up to $100 per violation. Such fines are payable within 30 days of the assessment, unless there is a facility request for a hearing within that period. Such a request shall stay the collection of the assessed fines, pending the outcome of the hearing.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.691
Chapter 4685 HEALTH MAINTENANCE ORGANIZATIONS
Minn. R. 4685.0100 Definitions
Subpart 1. Scope.
For the purposes of parts 4685.0100 to 4685.3400 the terms used have the meanings given to them in this part and in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 62D.
Subp. 2. Accepted actuarial principles.
"Accepted actuarial principles" means those prevailing statistical rules relating to the calculation of risks and premiums or prepayment charges of health maintenance organizations, prepaid group practice plans or commercial health insurance carriers.
Subp. 3. Act.
"Act" means the Health Maintenance Act of 1973, Minnesota Statutes, chapter 62D.
Subp. 3a. Ancillary services.
"Ancillary services" means laboratory services, radiology services, durable medical equipment, pharmacy services, rehabilitative services, and similar services and supplies dispensed by order or prescription of the primary care physician, specialty physician, or other provider authorized to prescribe those services.
Subp. 4.
[Repealed, L 1999 c 239 s 43]
Subp. 4a.
[Repealed, L 1999 c 239 s 43]
Subp. 5. Comprehensive health maintenance service.
"Comprehensive health maintenance service" means a group of services which includes at least all of the types of services defined below:
A. "Emergency care" means medically necessary care which is immediately necessary to preserve life, prevent serious impairment to bodily functions, organs, or parts, or prevent placing the physical or mental health of the enrollee in serious jeopardy.
B. "In-patient hospital care" means necessary hospital services affording residential treatment to patients. Such services shall include room and board, drugs and medicine, dressings, nursing care, X-rays, and laboratory examination, and other usual and customary hospital services.
C. "In-patient physician care" means those health services performed, prescribed or supervised by physicians within a hospital, for registered bed patients therein, which services shall include diagnostic and therapeutic care.
D. "Outpatient health services" means ambulatory care including health supervision, preventive, diagnostic and therapeutic services, including diagnostic radiologic service; therapeutic services for congenital, developmental, or medical conditions that have delayed speech or motor development; treatment of alcohol and other chemical dependency; treatment of mental and emotional conditions; provision of prescription drugs; and other supportive treatment.
E. "Preventive health services" means health education, health supervision including evaluation and follow-up, immunization and early disease detection.
Subp. 5a. Cosmetic services.
"Cosmetic services" means surgery and other services performed primarily to enhance or otherwise alter an enrollee's physical appearance without correcting or improving a physiological function.
Subp. 5b. Custodial care.
"Custodial care" means assistance with meeting personal needs or the activities of daily living that does not require the services of a physician, registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, chiropractor, physical therapist, occupational therapist, speech therapist, or other health care professional, and includes bathing, dressing, getting in and out of bed, feeding, walking, elimination, and taking medications.
Subp. 6. Enrollee copayment provisions.
"Enrollee copayment provisions" means those contract clauses requiring charges to enrollees, in addition to fixed, prepaid sums, to supplement the cost of providing covered comprehensive health maintenance services; "enrollee copayment provisions" also means the difference between an indemnity benefit and the charge of a provider for health services rendered.
Subp. 6a. Experimental, investigative, or unproven.
"Experimental, investigative, or unproven" means a drug, device, medical treatment, diagnostic procedure, technology, or procedure for which reliable evidence does not permit conclusions concerning its safety, effectiveness, or effect on health outcomes.
Subp. 7. Formal procedural requirements.
"Formal procedural requirements" means those rules governing the conduct of administrative hearings applicable to and affecting the rights, duties, and privileges of each party of a contested case, as the term is defined and as the rules are set forth in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 14.
Subp. 7a. Formulary.
"Formulary" means a current list of covered outpatient prescription drug products that is subject to periodic review and update.
Subp. 8. Governing body.
"Governing body" means the board of directors, or if otherwise designated in the basic organizational document and/or bylaws, those persons vested with the ultimate responsibility for the management of the corporate entity that has been issued a certificate of authority as a health maintenance organization.
Subp. 8a.
[Repealed, 17 SR 2858]
Subp. 9. In-area services.
"In-area services" are those services provided within the geographical areas served by the health maintenance organization as described in its application for a certificate of authority and any subsequent changes therein filed with the commissioner of health.
Subp. 9a. NAIC Blank.
"NAIC Blank" means the most recent version of the National Association of Insurance Commissioners' Blank for Health Maintenance Organizations published by the Brandon Insurance Service Company, Nashville, Tennessee. The NAIC Blank is incorporated by reference and is available for inspection at the State Law Library, Judicial Center, 25 Rev. Dr. Martin Luther King Jr. Blvd., Saint Paul, Minnesota 55155. The NAIC Blank is subject to annual changes by the publisher. Health maintenance organizations must use the version current on December 31 of the year preceding the filing of a required report.
Subp. 9b.
[Repealed, L 2020 c 114 art 1 s 22]
Subp. 9c. Member.
"Member" means enrollee, as defined by Minnesota Statutes, section 62D.02, subdivision 6. "Member" also means "subscriber," and the terms may be used interchangeably.
Subp. 10. Open enrollment.
"Open enrollment" means the acceptance for coverage by health plans of group enrollees without regard to underwriting restrictions, and coverage of individual or nongroup enrollees with regard only to those underwriting restrictions permissible under Minnesota Statutes, section 62D.10, subdivision 4.
Subp. 11. Out-of-area health care services.
"Out-of-area health care services" are those services provided outside of the health maintenance organization's geographic service area, as such area is described in the health maintenance organization's application for a certificate of authority, and any subsequent changes therein filed with the commissioner of health.
Subp. 12. Period of confinement.
"Period of confinement" means a period of time specified in a health maintenance contract relating to the amount of days of inpatient hospital care and defining a period during which an enrollee may not receive any inpatient hospital care in order to become entitled to a renewed period of hospital coverage. This term means the same as "spell of illness" and similar terms as they may be used in provisions to limit hospital care.
Subp. 12a. Primary care physician.
"Primary care physician" means a licensed physician, either employed by or under contract with the health maintenance organization, who is in general practice, or who has special education, training, or experience, or who is board-certified or board-eligible and working toward certification in a board approved by the American Board of Medical Specialists or the American Osteopathic Association in family practice, pediatrics, internal medicine, or obstetrics and gynecology.
Subp. 12b. Primary care provider.
"Primary care provider" means a primary care physician as defined in subpart 12a or a licensed practitioner such as a licensed nurse, optometrist, or chiropractor who, within that practitioner's scope of practice as defined under the relevant state licensing law, provides primary care services.
Subp. 13. Provide.
"Provide" as that word is used in Minnesota Statutes, section 62D.09, means to send by United States postal service, by alternative carrier, or by other method to the place of residence or employment of each enrollee or, if such enrollee is a member of a specified group covered by a health maintenance contract, to the office of the authorized representative of any such group.
Subp. 13a. Referral.
"Referral" means a prior written authorization for specified services that is issued by a health maintenance organization or an authorized provider and that identifies the provider to which an enrollee is referred and the type, number, frequency, and duration of services to be covered as a benefit under the enrollee's health maintenance organization contract.
Subp. 13b. Specialty physician.
"Specialty physician" means a licensed physician, either employed by or under contract with the health maintenance organization, who has specialized education, training, or experience, or who is board-certified or board-eligible and working toward certification in a specialty board approved by the American Board of Medical Specialists or the American Osteopathic Association.
Subp. 14. Summary of current evidence of coverage.
"Summary of current evidence of coverage" means written notice to be provided to enrollees by every health maintenance organization as prescribed in the act. Such notice shall describe changes in health maintenance contract coverage but need not necessarily be specific as to changes respecting the coverage of any individual enrollee.
Subp. 15. Underwriting restrictions.
"Underwriting restrictions" means those internal predetermined standards within a health maintenance organization which specify and exclude from coverage certain health conditions or persons with certain health conditions which, if such persons or conditions were enrolled or covered, would obligate the health maintenance organization to provide a greater amount, kind or intensity of service than that required by the general population or that contemplated in the process of setting the prepayment amount.
Subp. 16. Urgently needed care.
"Urgently needed care" means medically necessary care which does not meet the definition of emergency care but is needed as soon as possible, usually within 24 hours.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.03; 62D.04; 62D.08; 62D.11; 62D.182; 62D.20; 62D.21
- History: 10 SR 2159; 14 SR 901; 14 SR 903; 17 SR 2858; 23 SR 1238; L 1999 c 239 s 43; L 2017 c 40 art 1 s 121 subd 2; L 2020 c 114 art 1 s 22
Minn. R. 4685.0200 Authority, Scope and Purpose
Parts 4685.0100 to 4685.3400 are adopted pursuant to Minnesota Statutes, sections 62D.03, subdivision 4, clause (m); 62D.04, subdivision 1, clauses (c), (d), and (g); 62D.06, subdivision 2; 62D.08, subdivisions 1 and 3; 62D.12, subdivision 2, clause (7); and 62D.20 relating to health maintenance organizations in particular, and Minnesota Statutes, sections 14.02, 14.04 to 14.36, and 14.38 relating generally to the adoption of administrative rules. Parts 4685.0100 to 4685.3400 and all future changes herein apply to all health maintenance organizations operating in Minnesota at the time of their adoption, to all health maintenance organizations hereafter certified, and to all community integrated service networks currently and hereafter licensed, with the exceptions specified in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 62N, and are adopted to carry out the Health Maintenance Act of 1973 and to facilitate the full and uniform implementation and enforcement of that law.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.20
- History: 23 SR 1238
Minn. R. 4685.0300 Application
Subpart 1. Forms.
Application for certificates of authority shall be submitted on forms provided by the commissioner of health which shall include, but not be limited to the matters covered in this part.
Subp. 2. Disclosure in applications.
Each application for a certificate of authority shall include disclosure of the following:
A. Any contractual or financial arrangements between members of the board of directors/principal officers and the health maintenance organization including: a description of any obligations, specified by contract or otherwise, to be met by each party in accordance with any such arrangement; and a listing of the dollar amounts of any consideration to be paid each party in accordance with any such arrangements.
B. Any financial arrangements between members of the board of directors/principal officers and any provider or other person, which provider or other person also has a financial relationship with the health maintenance organization. This disclosure shall include:
Subp. 3. Insurance.
Each application for a certificate of authority shall attach pertinent documents, including copies of insurance contracts, in verification of compliance with Minnesota Statutes, sections 62D.04, subdivision 1, clause (f), 62D.05, 62D.12, subdivisions 4 and 9, and 62D.13 with respect to assumption of risks and insurance against risks.
Subp. 4. Financial responsibility.
Each application shall state which option for demonstrating financial responsibility has been elected pursuant to Minnesota Statutes, section 62D.04, subdivision 1, clause (e) and any pertinent documents which demonstrate financial responsibility shall be attached to the application.
Subp. 5. Statistics.
The application shall detail procedures established to develop, compile, evaluate, and report statistics which shall include the collection and maintenance of at least the following data:
A. operational statistics sufficient to meet the requirements of Minnesota Statutes, section 62D.08, subdivision 3, clause (a), relating to annual financial reports;
B. gross utilization aggregates, including hospital discharges, surgical hospital discharges, hospital bed days, outpatient visits, laboratory tests and x-rays;
C. demographic characteristics, including the age and sex of enrollees;
D. disease-specific and age-specific mortality rates; and
E. enrollment statistics compiled in accordance with Minnesota Statutes, section 62D.08, subdivision 3, clause (b).
Subp. 6. Provider agreements.
The application shall include copies of all types of agreements with providers by virtue of which enrollees will receive health care from the providers, and a description of any other relationships with providers who might attend enrollees together with a statement describing the manner in which these other relationships assure availability and accessibility of health care.
Subp. 7. Other requirements.
Each application must also include documentation or evidence of compliance with all of the requirements of the act and parts 4685.0100 to 4685.3400, and the commissioner of health may require such other information in applications for certificates of authority as the commissioner feels is necessary to make a determination on the application.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.20
- History: 23 SR 1238
Minn. R. 4685.0400 Operating Requirements and Requirements for Issuance of a Certificate of Authority
Each health maintenance organization must submit the information required in part 4685.0300 and Minnesota Statutes, chapter 62D, and the commissioner must find that each health maintenance organization meets the statutory requirements and the standards of parts 4685.0100 to 4685.3400 before the commissioner may issue a certificate of authority. The failure of an operating health maintenance organization to comply with the requirements is proper basis for disciplinary action under Minnesota Statutes, sections 62D.15 to 62D.17.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.20
- History: 23 SR 1238
Minn. R. 4685.0500 Insurance
A health maintenance organization may provide for the payment for the cost of emergency services, out-of-area services or other services which go beyond the minimum services required herein through a policy of insurance.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.20
Minn. R. 4685.0600 [Repealed, L 2004 c 285 art 3 s 11]
[Repealed, L 2004 c 285 art 3 s 11]
Minn. R. 4685.0700 Comprehensive Health Maintenance Services
Subpart 1. Providing health maintenance services.
All health maintenance organizations shall provide comprehensive health maintenance services, as defined in part 4685.0100, subpart 5, to enrollees.
Subp. 2. Minimum services.
Such comprehensive health maintenance services shall include but need not be limited to:
A. provisions for emergency in area health care services which shall be available 24 hours a day, seven days a week; be provided either directly through health maintenance organization facilities or through arrangements with other providers; be provided by a physician and other licensed and ancillary health personnel, as appropriate, readily available at all times; and be covered for enrollees requiring such services but who, for reasons of medical necessity and not convenience, are unable to obtain them directly from the health maintenance organization in which they are enrolled or from providers or other persons with whom the health maintenance organization in which they are enrolled has arrangements for the provision of services;
B. provisions covering out-of-area services which must include out-of-area emergency care;
C. all inpatient hospital care, including mental health and chemical dependency care, except as exclusions or limitations are hereafter permitted;
D. all inpatient physician care except as exclusions or limitations are hereafter permitted;
E. all outpatient health services, including mental health and chemical dependency services, except as exclusions or limitations are hereafter permitted; and
F. procedures for providing preventive health services.
Subp. 3. Permissible limitations.
A health service that may be excluded under subpart 4 may instead be limited. The following health services may be limited, but cannot be excluded:
A. A health maintenance organization may limit outpatient prescription drug benefits through the use of a formulary.
B. A health maintenance organization may limit durable medical equipment, orthotics, prosthetics, and nondurable medical supplies.
C. A health maintenance organization may limit home health care services.
D. A health maintenance organization may limit inpatient hospital care as defined in part 4685.0100, subpart 5, item B, and required in subpart 2, item C, as specifically authorized by this item. Each health maintenance organization may have limitations upon the number of days of inpatient hospital care that at least correspond with the following minimum provisions:
Subp. 4. Permissible exclusions.
The following services may be excluded:
A. personal convenience devices;
B. cosmetic services, except for reconstructive surgery as required under Minnesota Statutes, section 62A.25;
C. dental services;
D. nonemergency ambulance services and special transportation services, except as provided by Minnesota Statutes, section 62J.48;
E. the fitting and provision of contact lenses, eyeglasses, and hearing aids;
F. a drug, device, medical treatment, diagnostic procedure, technology, or procedure that is experimental, investigative, or unproven as defined in part 4685.0100, subpart 6a. The health maintenance organization shall make its determination of experimental, investigative, or unproven based upon a preponderance of evidence after the examination of the following reliable evidence, none of which shall be determinative in and of itself:
G. custodial care;
H. care for injuries incurred while on military duty, to the extent that care for the injuries is covered or available in another program of coverage;
I. services and other items not prescribed, recommended, or approved by a provider who is providing services through the enrollee's health maintenance organization or a provider to whom the enrollee is referred;
J. the following services relating to inpatient hospitalization:
K. services for those conditions subject to underwriting restrictions when the imposition of the restrictions is otherwise proper, provided that underwriting restrictions may only relate to preexisting health conditions, and those acute health conditions for which an applicant is being treated at the time of the proposed enrollment.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.20
- History: 23 SR 1238
Minn. R. 4685.0800 [Repealed, 16 SR 2478]
[Repealed, 16 SR 2478]
Minn. R. 4685.0801 Copayments
Subpart 1. Copayments on specific services.
Copayments on comprehensive health maintenance organization services, as defined in part 4685.0700, are allowed provided the copayment does not exceed 25 percent of the provider's charge for the specific service or good received by the enrollee, except as provided in subparts 2 and 6.
For the purposes of this part, "provider's charge" for a specific service or good means the fees charged by the provider which do not exceed the fees that provider would charge any other person regardless of whether the person is a member of the health maintenance organization. This is typically known as the provider's fee schedule or billed charge for such service or good. The service must be based on a specific diagnosis or procedure code such as the codes defined by the Physicians' Current Procedural Terminology (CPT), published by the American Medical Association for physician charges, or the Diagnosis Related Groups (DRGs) used by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services, or any similar coding system used for billing purposes. For example, an enrollee who receives brief office medical services at a specific clinic may be charged up to 25 percent of that clinic's charge for brief office medical services.
Subp. 2. Flat fee copayments.
The health maintenance organization may establish predetermined flat fee copayments for categories of similar services or goods. Flat fee copayments based on categories of similar services or goods must be calculated independently for Medicare plans, individual plans, and group plans. For example, calculations may be made by combining data from all individual plans but data from individual plans may not be combined with data from group plans. The flat fee copayment cannot exceed 25 percent of the median provider's charges for similar services or goods received by enrollees. For example, if the median charge for all prescription drugs received by enrollees is $20, the health maintenance organization may determine a flat fee copayment of up to $5 for any prescription drug that is purchased by an enrollee.
A health maintenance organization may request a copayment which exceeds the 25 percent limitation for prescription drug benefits for Medicare related products. The request must be made in writing to the Department of Health and must include sufficient documentation to demonstrate to the department that the requested copayment is reasonable under the general provisions described in this part.
The categories of similar services or goods must be determined according to subpart 3. The median provider's charges for a category of similar services or goods must be determined according to subpart 4.
Subp. 3. Categories.
For the purposes of this part, a category of similar services or goods is any group of related services for which a single copayment is sought. Examples of categories include the following or any subset of the following:
A. inpatient hospital care;
B. inpatient physician care;
C. outpatient health services (or typically, "office visit") which may include outpatient laboratory, and radiology;
D. outpatient surgery which may include provider and facility charges;
E. emergency services which may include provider and facility charges;
F. outpatient prescription drugs;
G. skilled nursing care; and
H. any other nonphysician service categorized singly according to provider. For example, there may be one flat fee copayment for a physical therapy service and another flat fee copayment for a speech therapy service. Nonphysician services may include such services as chemical dependency services, speech therapy services, mental health services, or physical therapy services. Services or goods used to calculate the copayment for a category of services or goods may not be included in any other category. Services or goods used in this way must be eliminated from any other category in which they would otherwise be included, before the copayment is calculated. For example, if there is a copayment specifically for infertility or hormone therapy drugs, they must be eliminated from the category of outpatient prescription drugs.
Subp. 4. Determination and filing of median charge.
To determine the median aggregate charge for a category of similar services, the health maintenance organization must follow the following steps and submit the results to the Department of Health with the request for approval of the copayment:
A. Identify all charges for the service or good for the relevant type of product, Medicare, individual, or group. The health maintenance organization may use all charges or may choose a sample of charges from the total population. Any sample used must be randomly selected and large enough to be statistically reliable. "Statistically reliable" means that any other sample drawn in the same manner would produce essentially the same results.
B. If the health maintenance organization does not use charges that span 12 months, the health maintenance organization must explain how the time period used is sufficient to include seasonal fluctuations in the utilization of services.
C. A statement that the sample is statistically reliable, with an explanation of how the sample is drawn so that it is representative of the larger health maintenance organization population.
D. A narrative description of the services included in the category, including diagnosis or procedure codes if applicable.
E. If costs are adjusted for inflation, the health maintenance organization must base its inflation adjustments on changes in the medical care component of the consumer price index or a similar national or regional index.
Subp. 5. Required disclosure.
The health maintenance organization must include a notice which describes the copayment charges in its Medicare, individual, and master group contracts and certificates or evidences of coverage. The notice must include the following language or similar language approved by the commissioner: "THE AMOUNT CHARGED AS A COPAYMENT IS BASED ON THE PROVIDER CHARGES FOR THAT SERVICE."
If the copayment is a flat fee copayment based upon a category of services, the notice must include a general, narrative description of the types of services which were included in determining the median charge. For example, if the health maintenance organization is imposing a copayment upon office visits, the contract must disclose what types of services, such as laboratory services and radiology services, are included in the office visit copayment.
Subp. 6. Exclusions.
Any amount or form of copayment shall be deemed reasonable when imposed on services which, according to parts 4685.0400 to 4685.1300, may be excluded completely, provided that the copayment is not greater than the provider's charge for that particular service.
Subp. 7. Out-of-plan services.
Copayments may be imposed on out-of-plan emergency care, including inpatient, by providers who do not have arrangements with the health maintenance organization, in the form of a reasonable deductible not to exceed $150, plus a 25 percent copayment, plus all charges which exceed a specified annual aggregate amount not less than $90,000.
Subp. 8. Preventive health care services.
No copayment may be imposed on preventive health care services as defined in part 4685.0100, subpart 5, item E, including child health supervision, periodic health screening, and prenatal care.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.05; 62D.08; 62D.182; 62D.20
- History: 16 SR 2478; L 2002 c 277 s 32; 31 SR 35
Minn. R. 4685.0805 Uncovered Expenditures
Subpart 1. Defined.
Uncovered expenditures as referred to in Minnesota Statutes, section 62D.041, are expenditures by a health maintenance organization or a contracting provider for health care services by a provider who is not a participating entity and who is not under agreement with the health maintenance organization. Examples of providers not under such an agreement may include those providing out-of-area services, in-area emergency services, and certain referral services.
Subp. 2. Documentation required.
If a health maintenance organization claims certain expenditures that meet the criteria of subpart 1 are covered because they are guaranteed, insured, or assumed, the health maintenance organization must give to the commissioner, with its annual report, documentation of the arrangements. If the arrangements are unchanged from the previous year, the health maintenance organization may reference previously filed documents. Documentation means applicable contracts between the health maintenance organization and the entity guaranteeing, and an explanation thereof.
Subp. 3. When insured.
An uncovered expenditure may be considered insured within the applicable coverage limitation and covered if the health maintenance organization can demonstrate to the commissioner that:
A. the health maintenance organization has reinsurance under Minnesota Statutes, section 62D.04, subdivision 1, for nonelective emergency services and services provided outside the service area if those services were provided by nonparticipating providers and any other services provided by nonparticipating providers; or
B. the health maintenance organization has insolvency insurance that expressly covers enrollee obligations incurred before and after the date of insolvency, including obligations to nonparticipating providers.
Subp. 4. When guaranteed.
An uncovered expenditure may be considered guaranteed and covered if the health maintenance organization demonstrates to the commissioner that the guarantor has agreed to guarantee obligations of the health maintenance organization to nonparticipating providers and if:
A. the guarantor has demonstrated to the commissioner that it has set aside an amount of money in a restricted reserve or other method acceptable to the commissioner equal to the amount of deposit that it is guaranteeing; the guarantor has issued a letter of credit; or the guarantor has demonstrated to the commissioner that it is a governmental entity with the power to tax;
B. according to its terms, the guarantee cannot expire without written notice from the guarantor to the commissioner and the notice must occur at least 60 days before the expiration date;
C. the guarantee is irrevocable, unconditional, and may be drawn upon after the insolvency of the health maintenance organization; and
D. the guarantee may be drawn upon by the commissioner.
Subp. 5. When assumed.
An uncovered expenditure may be considered assumed and covered if the health maintenance organization can demonstrate to the commissioner any other arrangement for uncovered expenditures to be paid by an entity other than the health maintenance organization even in the event of the insolvency of the health maintenance organization. The commissioner shall require financial information relating to the capability of the entity to assume the risk of uncovered expenditures.
Subp. 6. Calculating uncovered expenditures.
The health maintenance organization must make an annual calculation of uncovered expenditures according to items A to E.
A. The health maintenance organization shall determine the amount of annual uncovered expenditures in the relevant year before adjustments for guarantees, insurance, or assumptions.
B. The health maintenance organization shall adjust the amount of uncovered expenditures in item A by subtracting:
C. The health maintenance organization shall multiply the adjusted amount in item B by 33 percent.
D. The health maintenance organization may subtract from the amount in item C the amounts of any guarantees and insolvency insurance that would reduce uncovered expenditures in the event of insolvency or nonpayment.
E. The health maintenance organization shall use forms supplied by the commissioner in annual reports to report uncovered expenditures.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.08; 62D.182; 62D.20
- History: 14 SR 901
Minn. R. 4685.0815 Incurred But Not Reported Liabilities
Subpart 1. Written records of claims.
A health maintenance organization shall keep written records of claims, according to items A to C.
A. A health maintenance organization shall establish and maintain files and records that accurately document its process for calculating claim liabilities, including incurred but not reported claims, that are submitted in annual and quarterly reports to the commissioner.
B. Written records pertaining to claims incurred but not reported shall be maintained separately from other records pertaining to claims payable.
C. The health maintenance organization must have complete and accurate claim data available for the commissioner to audit as required under Minnesota Statutes, section 62D.14.
Subp. 2. Calculation of incurred but not reported claims.
The liability for incurred but not reported claims shall be calculated in conformity with generally accepted accounting principals and actuarial standards. The health maintenance organization shall calculate its incurred but not reported claims by taking past actual claims experience and then adjusting this base figure for changing trends. Factors that shall be considered reasonable adjustments to the base figure include the following:
A. changes in enrollment mix, provider mix, and product mix;
B. changes in claims or billing procedures;
C. changes in utilization;
D. organizational changes;
E. medical advancements and new procedures; and
F. any other factors the health maintenance organization can demonstrate have an effect on incurred but not reported claims experience.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.08; 62D.182; 62D.20
- History: 14 SR 901
Minn. R. 4685.0900 Subrogation and Coordination of Benefits
The health maintenance organization may require an enrollee to reimburse it for the reasonable value of health maintenance services provided to an enrollee who is injured through the act or omission of a third person or in the course of employment to the extent the enrollee collects damages or workers' compensation benefits for the diagnosis, care, and treatment of an injury. The subrogation clause in an evidence of coverage must contain the information required by Minnesota Statutes, section 62A.095, subdivision 2. The health maintenance organization may be subrogated to the enrollee's rights against the third person or the enrollee's employer to the extent of the reasonable value of the health maintenance services provided including the right to bring suit in the enrollee's name.
The health maintenance organization shall provide covered health services first, and coordinate benefits according to parts 4685.0905 to 4685.0950.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.08; 62D.182; 62D.20
- History: 14 SR 901; 23 SR 1238
Minn. R. 4685.0905 Purpose and Applicability
The purpose of parts 4685.0905 to 4685.0950 is to:
A. permit, but not require, plans to include a coordination of benefits provision;
B. establish the order in which plans pay claims;
C. provide the authority for the orderly transfer of information needed to pay claims promptly;
D. reduce duplication of benefits by permitting a reduction of the benefits paid by a plan when the plan does not have to pay its benefits first;
E. reduce delays in payment of claims; and
F. make all contracts that contain a coordination of benefits provision consistent with this regulation.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.08; 62D.182; 62D.20
- History: 14 SR 901
Minn. R. 4685.0910 Definitions
Subpart 1. Scope.
The following words and terms, when used in parts 4685.0905 to 4685.0950, have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise.
Subp. 2. Allowable expense.
A. "Allowable expense" means the necessary, reasonable, and customary item of expense for health care when the item of expense is covered at least in part under any of the plans involved, except where a statute requires a different definition.
B. Notwithstanding this definition, items of expense under coverages such as dental care, vision care, or prescription drug or hearing aid programs may be excluded from the definition of allowable expense. A plan that provides benefits only for such items of expense may limit its definition of allowable expenses to those items of expense.
C. When a plan provides benefits in the form of service, the reasonable cash value of each service is both an allowable expense and a benefit paid.
D. The difference between the cost of a private hospital room and the cost of a semiprivate hospital room is not an allowable expense under this definition unless the patient's stay in a private hospital room is medically necessary in terms of generally accepted medical practice.
E. When coordination of benefits is restricted to specific coverage in a contract, for example, major medical or dental, the definition of allowable expense must include the corresponding expenses or services to which coordination of benefits applies.
F. When benefits are reduced under a primary plan because a covered person does not comply with the plan provisions, the amount of such reduction will not be considered an allowable expense. Examples of such provisions are those related to second surgical opinions, precertification of admissions or services, and preferred provider arrangements.
Subp. 3. Claim.
"Claim" means a request that benefits of a plan be provided or paid. The benefits claimed may be in the form of:
A. services, including supplies;
B. payment for all or a portion of the expenses incurred;
C. a combination of items A and B; or
D. an indemnification.
Subp. 4. Claim determination period.
A. "Claim determination period" means the period of time over which allowable expenses are compared with total benefits payable in the absence of coordination of benefits, to determine whether overinsurance exists and how much each plan will pay or provide. The claim determination period must not be less than 12 consecutive months.
B. The claim determination period is usually a calendar year, but a plan may use some other period of time that fits the coverage of the group contract. A person may be covered by a plan during a portion of a claim determination period if that person's coverage starts or ends during the claim determination period.
C. As each claim is submitted, each plan must determine its liability and pay or provide benefits based upon allowable expenses incurred to that point in the claim determination period. The determination may be adjusted as allowable expenses are incurred later in the same claim determination period.
Subp. 5. Coordination of benefits.
"Coordination of benefits" means a provision establishing the order in which plans pay their claims.
Subp. 6. Hospital indemnity benefits.
"Hospital indemnity benefits" are not related to expenses incurred. The term does not include reimbursement-type benefits even if they are designed or administered to give the insured the right to elect indemnity-type benefits at the time of claim.
Subp. 7. Plan.
"Plan" means a form of coverage with which coordination is allowed. The definition of plan in the group contract must state the types of coverage that will be considered in applying the coordination of benefits provision of that contract. The right to include a type of coverage is limited by the rest of this definition.
A. The definition shown in the Model Coordination of Benefits Provisions in part 4685.0950 is an example of what may be used. Any definition that satisfies this subpart may be used.
B. Instead of "plan," a group contract may use "program" or some other term.
C. Plan includes:
D. Plan does not include:
Subp. 8. Primary plan.
"Primary plan" means a plan that requires benefits for a person's health care coverage to be determined without taking into consideration the existence of any other plan. A plan is a primary plan if either of the following is true:
A. The plan either has no order of benefit determination rules or it has provisions that differ from those permitted by parts 4685.0905 to 4685.0950. There may be more than one primary plan.
B. All plans that cover the person use the order of benefit determination rules required by parts 4685.0905 to 4685.0950 and, under those rules, the plan determines its benefits first.
Subp. 9. Secondary plan.
"Secondary plan" means a plan that is not a primary plan. If a person is covered by more than one secondary plan, the order of benefit determination rules in parts 4685.0905 to 4685.0950 determine the order in which their benefits are determined in relation to each other. The benefits of each secondary plan may take into consideration the benefits of the primary plan or plans and the benefits of any other plan which under these rules has its benefits determined before those of that secondary plan.
Subp. 10. This plan.
In a coordination of benefits provision, "this plan" refers to the part of the group contract providing the health care benefits to which the coordination of benefits provision applies and that may be reduced because of the benefits of other plans. Any other part of the group contract providing health care benefits is separate from this plan. A group contract may apply one coordination of benefits provision to certain of its benefits, such as dental benefits, coordinating only with like benefits, and may apply other separate coordination of benefits provisions to coordinate other benefits.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.08; 62D.182; 62D.20
- History: 14 SR 901; 14 SR 2004
Minn. R. 4685.0915 Coordination of Benefits; Procedures
Subpart 1. General.
The general order of benefits is as follows:
A. The primary plan must pay or provide its benefits as if the secondary plan or plans do not exist. A plan that does not include a coordination provision may not take into account the benefits of another plan as defined in part 4685.0910 when it determines its benefits. The one exception is that a contract holder's coverage designed to supplement a part of a basic package of benefits may provide that the supplementary coverage shall be excess to any other parts of the plan provided by the contract holder.
B. A secondary plan may take the benefits of another plan into account only when, under this part, it is secondary to that other plan.
C. The benefits of the plan that covers the person as an employee, member, or subscriber, that is, other than as a dependent, are determined before those of the plan that covers the person as a dependent.
Subp. 2. Dependent child: parents not separated or divorced.
Benefits for a dependent child when the parents are not separated or divorced must be coordinated according to the procedures in items A to E.
A. The benefits of the plan of the parent whose birthday falls earlier in a year are determined before those of the plan of the parent whose birthday falls later in that year.
B. If both parents have the same birthday, the benefits of the plan that covered the parent longer are determined before those of the plan that covered the other parent for a shorter time.
C. The word "birthday" refers only to month and day in a calendar year, not the year in which the person was born.
D. A group contract that includes coordination of benefits and is issued or renewed or that has an anniversary date on or after 60 days after October 9, 1989, must include the substance of the provisions in items A to C. Until October 9, 1989, the group contract may contain wording such as: "Except as stated in subpart 3, the benefits of a plan that covers a person as a dependent of a male are determined before those of a plan that covers the person as a dependent of a female."
E. If one parent's plan contains the coordination plan described in items A to C, and the other parent's plan contains the coordination plan based on the gender of the parent, and if, as a result, the parents' plans do not agree on the coordination of benefits, the coordination plan based on the gender of the parent determines the order of benefits.
Subp. 3. Dependent child: separated or divorced parents.
If two or more plans cover a person as a dependent child of divorced or separated parents, benefits for the child are coordinated according to this subpart. If a court orders one of the parents to pay the health care expenses of the child, and the entity that pays or provides the parent's plan knows of the order, the benefits of that parent's plan are determined first. The plan of the other parent is the secondary plan. This paragraph does not apply to any claim determination period or plan year during which benefits are actually paid or provided before the entity knows of the order. If a court order does not require one of the parents to pay the child's health care expenses, benefits are coordinated according to items A to C.
A. The benefits of the plan of the parent with custody of the child are determined first.
B. The benefits of the plan of the spouse of the parent with the custody of the child are determined second.
C. The benefits of the plan of the parent without custody of the child are determined last.
D. In the case of joint custody, the primary plan will be determined according to subpart 2.
Subp. 4. Active/inactive employee.
The benefits of a plan that covers a person as an employee, who is neither laid off nor retired, or as a dependent of that employee are determined before benefits of a plan that covers that person as a laid-off or retired employee or as a dependent of that employee. If the other plan does not have this rule and if, as a result, the plans do not agree on the order of benefits, this rule does not apply.
Subp. 5. Longer/shorter length of coverage.
If none of these rules determines the order of benefits, the benefits of the plan that covered an employee, member, or subscriber longer are determined before those of the plan that covered that person for the shorter term.
A. To determine the length of time a person has been covered under a plan, two plans are treated as one if the claimant was eligible under the second plan within 24 hours after the first ended.
B. The start of a new plan does not include:
C. The claimant's length of time covered under a plan is measured from the claimant's first date of coverage under that plan. If that date is not readily available, the date the claimant first became a member of the group is the date used to determine the length of time the claimant's coverage under the present plan has been in force.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.08; 62D.182; 62D.20
- History: 14 SR 901
Minn. R. 4685.0925 Procedure to Be Followed by Secondary Plan
Subpart 1. Total allowable expenses.
When a plan is a secondary plan under part 4685.0915, its benefits may be reduced so that the total benefits paid or provided by all plans during a claim determination period are not more than total allowable expenses. The amount by which the secondary plan's benefits have been reduced shall be used by the secondary plan to pay allowable expenses, not otherwise paid, that were incurred during the claim determination period by the person for whom the claim is made. As each claim is submitted, the secondary plan determines its obligation to pay for allowable expenses based on all claims that were submitted up to that time during the claim determination period.
Subp. 2. Reducing benefits of a secondary plan.
The benefits of the secondary plan shall be reduced when the sum of the benefits that would be payable for the allowable expenses under the secondary plan in the absence of coordination of benefits provisions in parts 4685.0905 to 4685.0950 and the benefits that would be payable for the allowable expenses under the other plans, in the absence of coordination of benefits provisions in parts 4685.0905 to 4685.0950, whether or not claim is made, exceeds those allowable expenses in a claim determination period. In that case, the benefits of the secondary plan shall be reduced so that they and the benefits payable under the other plans do not total more than those allowable expenses.
A. When the benefits of this plan are reduced as described above, each benefit is reduced in proportion. It is then charged against any applicable benefit limit of this plan.
B. Item A may be omitted if the plan provides only one benefit, or may be altered to suit the coverage provided.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.08; 62D.182; 62D.20
- History: 14 SR 901; 14 SR 2004
Minn. R. 4685.0930 Miscellaneous Provisions
Subpart 1. Reasonable cash values of services.
A secondary plan that provides benefits in the form of services may recover the reasonable cash value of providing the services from the primary plan, if benefits for the services are covered by the primary plan and have not already been paid or provided by the primary plan. Nothing in this subpart shall be interpreted to require a plan to reimburse a covered person in cash for the value of services provided by a plan that provides benefits in the form of services.
Subp. 2. Coordination of benefits with a noncomplying plan.
Some plans contain a coordination provision that violates parts 4685.0905 to 4685.0950 by declaring that the plan's coverage is excess to all others, or is always secondary. This occurs because certain plans may not be subject to insurance regulation, or because some group contracts have not yet been conformed with this regulation under part 4685.0905. A plan may coordinate its benefits with a plan that does not comply with parts 4685.0905 to 4685.0950 according to items A to D.
A. If the complying plan is the primary plan, it must pay or provide its benefits on a primary basis.
B. If the complying plan is the secondary plan, it must pay or provide its benefits first, but the benefits payable are determined as if the complying plan is the secondary plan, and are limited to the complying plan's liability.
C. If the noncomplying plan does not provide the information needed by the complying plan to determine its benefits within a reasonable time after it is requested to do so, the complying plan shall pay benefits as if the benefits of the noncomplying plan are identical to its own. However, the complying plan must adjust its payments when it receives information on the actual benefits of the noncomplying plan.
D. If the noncomplying plan reduces its benefits so that the member receives less in benefits than the member would have received had the complying plan paid benefits as the secondary plan and the noncomplying plan paid benefits as the primary plan, and governing state law allows the right of subrogation set forth below, then the complying plan shall pay to or on behalf of the member an amount equal to the difference. The complying plan shall not pay more than the complying plan would have paid had it been the primary plan less any amount it previously paid. The complying plan is subrogated to all rights of the member against the noncomplying plan. A payment by the complying plan under this item does not prejudice any claim against the noncomplying plan in the absence of subrogation.
Subp. 3. Allowable expense.
A term such as "usual and customary," "usual and prevailing," or "reasonable and customary" may be substituted for the term "necessary," "reasonable," or "customary." A term such as "medical care" or "dental care" may be substituted for "health care" to describe the coverages to which the coordination provisions apply.
Subp. 4. Subrogation.
Provisions for coordination or subrogation may be included in health care benefits contracts without compelling the inclusion or exclusion of the other.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.08; 62D.182; 62D.20
- History: 14 SR 901; 14 SR 2004
Minn. R. 4685.0935 Effective Date; Existing Contracts
Subpart 1. Applicability of coordination rules.
Coordination requirements in parts 4685.0905 to 4685.0950 apply to every group contract that provides health care benefits issued on or after October 9, 1989.
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, 31 SR 35]
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.08; 62D.182; 62D.20
- History: 14 SR 901; 31 SR 35
Minn. R. 4685.0940 Model Coordination of Benefits Contract Provision
Subpart 1. General.
Use of the model coordination of benefits provision for group contracts in part 4685.0950 is subject to subparts 2 and 3 and part 4685.0915.
Subp. 2. Flexibility.
A group contract's coordination provision does not have to use the words and format shown in part 4685.0950. Changes may be made to fit the language and style of the rest of the group contract or to reflect the difference among plans that provide services, that pay benefits for expenses incurred, and that indemnify. No other substantive changes are allowed.
Subp. 3. Prohibited coordination and benefit design.
A. A group contract may not reduce benefits on the basis that:
B. No contract may contain a provision that its benefits are excess or always secondary to any plan, except as allowed in parts 4685.0905 to 4685.0950.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.08; 62D.182; 62D.20
- History: 14 SR 901; 14 SR 2004
Minn. R. 4685.0950 Text of Model Coordination of Benefits Provisions for Group Contracts
Group contracts must contain language on coordination of benefits that is substantially similar to the following model provisions.
COORDINATION OF THE GROUP CONTRACT'S BENEFITS WITH OTHER BENEFITS
I. APPLICABILITY.
(A) This coordination of benefits (COB) provision applies to this plan when an employee or the employee's covered dependent has health care coverage under more than one plan. "Plan" and "this plan" are defined below.
(B) If this coordination of benefits provision applies, the order of benefit determination rules should be looked at first. Those rules determine whether the benefits of this plan are determined before or after those of another plan. The benefits of this plan:
(1) shall not be reduced when, under the order of benefit determination rules, this plan determines its benefits before another plan; but
(2) may be reduced when, under the order of benefits determination rules, another plan determines its benefits first. The above reduction is described in section IV.
II. DEFINITIONS.
A. "Plan" is any of these which provides benefits or services for, or because of, medical or dental care or treatment:
(1) Group insurance or group-type coverage, whether insured or uninsured. This includes prepayment, group practice or individual practice coverage. It also includes coverage other than school accident-type coverage.
(2) Coverage under a governmental plan, or coverage required or provided by law. This does not include a state plan under Medicaid (Title XIX, Grants to States for Medical Assistance Programs, of the United States Social Security Act, as amended from time to time).
Each contract or other arrangement for coverage under (1) or (2) is a separate plan. Also, if an arrangement has two parts and COB rules apply only to one of the two, each of the parts is a separate plan.
B. "This Plan" is the part of the group contract that provides benefits for health care expenses.
C. "Primary Plan/Secondary plan:" The order of benefit determination rules state whether This Plan is a Primary Plan or Secondary Plan as to another plan covering the person.
When This Plan is a Primary Plan, its benefits are determined before those of the other plan and without considering the other plan's benefits.
- When This Plan is a Secondary Plan, its benefits are determined after those of the other plan and may be reduced because of the other plan's benefits.
When there are more than two plans covering the person, This Plan may be a Primary Plan as to one or more other plans, and may be a Secondary Plan as to a different plan or plans.
D. "Allowable Expense" means a necessary, reasonable and customary item of expense for health care: when the item of expense is covered at least in part by one or more plans covering the person for whom the claim is made.
The difference between the cost of a private hospital room and the cost of a semiprivate hospital room is not considered an Allowable Expense under the above definition unless the patient's stay in a private hospital room is medically necessary either in terms of generally accepted medical practice, or as specifically defined in the plan.
When a plan provides benefits in the form of services, the reasonable cash value of each service rendered will be considered both an Allowable Expense and a benefit paid.
When benefits are reduced under a primary plan because a covered person does not comply with the plan provisions, the amount of such reduction will not be considered an allowable expense. Examples of such provisions are those related to second surgical opinions, precertification of admissions or services, and preferred provider arrangements.
E. "Claim Determination Period" means a calendar year. However, it does not include any part of a year during which a person has no coverage under This Plan, or any part of a year before the date this COB provision or a similar provision takes effect.
III. ORDER OF BENEFIT DETERMINATION RULES.
A. General. When there is a basis for a claim under This Plan and another plan, This Plan is a Secondary Plan which has its benefits determined after those of the other plan, unless:
(1) The other plan has rules coordinating its benefits with those of This Plan; and
(2) Both those rules and This Plan's rules, in Subsection B below, require that This Plan's benefits be determined before those of the other plan.
B. Rules. This Plan determines its order of benefits using the first of the following rules which applies:
(1) Nondependent/Dependent. The benefits of the plan which covers the person as an employee, member or subscriber (that is, other than as a dependent) are determined before those of the plan which covers the person as a dependent.
(2) Dependent Child/Parents not Separated or Divorced. Except as stated in Paragraph (B)(3) below, when This Plan and another plan cover the same child as a dependent of different persons, called "parents:"
(a) The benefits of the plan of the parent whose birthday falls earlier in a year are determined before those of the plan of the parent whose birthday falls later in that year; but
(b) If both parents have the same birthday, the benefits of the plan which covered one parent longer are determined before those of the plan which covered the other parent for a shorter period of time.
However, if the other plan does not have the rule described in (a) immediately above, but instead has a rule based on the gender of the parent, and if, as a result, the plans do not agree on the order of benefits, the rule in the other plan will determine the order of benefits.
(3) Dependent Child/Separated or Divorced. If two or more plans cover a person as a dependent child of divorced or separated parents, benefits for the child are determined in this order:
(a) First, the plan of the parent with custody of the child;
(b) Then, the plan of the spouse of the parent with the custody of the child; and
(c) Finally, the plan of the parent not having custody of the child.
However, if the specific terms of a court decree state that one of the parents is responsible for the health care expense of the child, and the entity obligated to pay or provide the benefits of the plan of that parent has actual knowledge of those terms, the benefits of that plan are determined first. The plan of the other parent shall be the Secondary Plan. This paragraph does not apply with respect to any Claim Determination Period or Plan Year during which any benefits are actually paid or provided before the entity has that actual knowledge.
(4) Joint Custody. If the specific terms of a court decree state that the parents shall share joint custody, without stating that one of the parents is responsible for the health care expenses of the child, the plans covering follow the order of benefit determination rules outlined in Paragraph B(2).
(5) Active/Inactive Employee. The benefits of a plan which covers a person as an employee who is neither laid off nor retired (or as that employee's dependent) are determined before those of a plan which covers that person as a laid off or retired employee (or as that employee's dependent). If the other plan does not have this rule, and if, as a result, the plans do not agree on the order of benefits, this Rule (4) is ignored.
(6) Longer/Shorter Length of Coverage. If none of the above rules determines the order of benefits, the benefits of the plan which covered an employee, member, or subscriber longer are determined before those of the Plan which covered that person for the shorter term.
IV. EFFECT ON THE BENEFITS OF THIS PLAN.
A. When This Section Applies. This Section IV applies when, in accordance with Section III "Order of Benefit Determination Rules," This Plan is a Secondary Plan as to one or more other plans. In that event, the benefits of This Plan may be reduced under this section. Such other plan or plans are referred to as "the other plans" in B immediately below.
B. Reduction in this Plan's Benefits. The benefits of This Plan will be reduced when the sum of:
(1) The benefits that would be payable for the Allowable Expense under This Plan in the absence of this COB provision; and
(2) The benefits that would be payable for the Allowable Expenses under the other plans, in the absence of provisions with a purpose like that of this COB provision, whether or not claim is made, exceeds those Allowable Expenses in a Claim Determination Period. In that case, the benefits of This Plan will be reduced so that they and the benefits payable under the other plans do not total more than those Allowable Expenses.
When the benefits of This Plan are reduced as described above, each benefit is reduced in proportion. It is then charged against any applicable benefit limit of This Plan.
V. RIGHT TO RECEIVE AND RELEASE NEEDED INFORMATION.
Certain facts are needed to apply these COB rules. [health maintenance organization] has the right to decide which facts it needs. It may get needed facts from or give them to any other organization or person. [health maintenance organization] need not tell, or get the consent of, any person to do this. Unless applicable federal or state law prevents disclosure of the information without the consent of the patient or the patient's representative, each person claiming benefits under This Plan must give [health maintenance organization] any facts it needs to pay the claim.
VI. FACILITY OF PAYMENT.
A payment made under another plan may include an amount which should have been paid under this plan. If it does, [health maintenance organization] may pay that amount to the organization which made that payment. That amount will then be treated as though it were a benefit paid under This Plan. [health maintenance organization] will not have to pay that amount again. The term "payment made" includes providing benefits in the form of services, in which case "payment made" means reasonable cash value of the benefits provided in the form of services.
VII. RIGHT OF RECOVERY.
If the amount of the payments made by [health maintenance organization] is more than it should have paid under this COB provision, it may recover the excess from one or more of:
A. The persons it has paid or for whom it has paid;
B. Insurance companies; or
C. Other organizations. The "amount of the payments made" includes the reasonable cash value of any benefits provided in the form of services.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.08; 62D.182; 62D.20
- History: 14 SR 901; 14 SR 2004
Minn. R. 4685.1000 [Repealed, 17 SR 2858]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2858]
Minn. R. 4685.1010 Availability and Accessibility
Subpart 1. Definitions.
For the purpose of this part, the terms in items A and B have the meanings given them.
A. "Referral centers" means medical facilities that provide specialized medical care such as organ transplants and coronary artery bypass surgery. Examples of criteria the health maintenance organization may use in designating a facility as a referral center are volume of services provided annually and the case mix and severity adjusted mortality and morbidity rates. Referral centers may be located within or outside the health maintenance organization's service area.
B. "Service area" means the geographic locations in which the health maintenance organization is approved by the commissioner to sell its health maintenance organization products. Geographic locations shall be identified according to recognized political subdivisions such as cities, counties, and townships.
Subp. 2. Basic services.
The health maintenance organization shall have available, either directly or through arrangements, appropriate and sufficient personnel, physical resources, and equipment to meet the projected needs of its enrollees for covered health care services. The health maintenance organization, in coordination with participating providers, shall develop and implement written standards or guidelines that assess the capacity of each provider network to provide timely access to health care services in accordance with subpart 6.
A. Primary care services.
B. Specialty physician services.
C. Services of facilities licensed as general hospitals under chapter 4640 (general hospital services) shall be provided through contracts between the health maintenance organization and hospitals. These services shall be available and accessible, on a timely basis consistent with generally accepted practice parameters, 24 hours per day, seven days per week within the health maintenance organization's service area. Services of facilities licensed as specialized hospitals under chapter 4640 (specialized hospital services), including chemical dependency and mental health services, shall be provided through contracts between the health maintenance organization or its contracted providers and hospitals, either within or outside the health maintenance organization's service area. These services shall be available during normal business hours consistent with generally accepted practice parameters.
D. The health maintenance organization shall contract with or employ sufficient numbers of providers of ancillary services to meet the projected needs of its enrollees. The services shall be available during normal daytime business hours consistent with generally accepted practice parameters.
E. The health maintenance organization shall contract with or employ sufficient numbers of qualified providers of outpatient mental health and chemical dependency services to meet the projected needs of its enrollees consistent with generally accepted practice parameters.
F. The health maintenance organization shall provide directly, contract for, or otherwise arrange for residential treatment programs licensed by the Department of Human Services under parts 9530.4100 to 9530.4450 to provide services to people with alcohol and other chemical dependency problems.
G. The health maintenance organization shall provide directly, contract for, or otherwise arrange for emergency care and urgently needed care to be available and accessible within the health maintenance organization's service area 24 hours per day, seven days per week. Contracts may be with hospitals, urgent care centers, and after hours clinics. Emergency care and urgently needed care provided by noncontracted providers shall be covered in accordance with subpart 7.
H. If a specific health maintenance organization provider refuses to continue to provide care to a specific health maintenance organization enrollee, the health maintenance organization shall furnish the enrollee with the name, address, and telephone number of other participating providers in the same area of medical specialty. Examples of reasons for refusal to continue to provide care to an enrollee are: unpaid bills incurred by that individual before enrollment in the health maintenance organization; unpaid copayments or coinsurance incurred by the enrollee after enrollment in the health maintenance organization; an enrollee who is uncooperative or abusive toward the provider; and the inability of the enrollee and the provider to agree on a course of treatment.
I. The health maintenance organization is responsible for implementing a system that, to the greatest possible extent, assures that routine referrals, either by the health maintenance organization or by a participating provider, are made to participating providers. An enrollee cannot be held liable if the health maintenance organization provider, in error, gives a referral to a nonparticipating provider. This issue may be addressed in contracts between the health maintenance organization and its providers.
J. Referral procedures must be described in an enrollee's evidence of coverage and must be available to an enrollee upon request for information regarding referral procedures. Effective July 1, 1999, information regarding referral procedures shall clearly describe at least the following:
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, L 1999 c 239 s 43]
Subp. 4. Exceptions for access to care and geographic accessibility.
A request for an exception to the requirements of subparts 2 and 3 shall be considered a filing under part 4685.3300. The health maintenance organization shall submit specific data in support of its request. The commissioner shall consider the factors in items A to C in granting an exception if the health maintenance organization is unable to meet the requirements of subparts 2 and 3 in a particular service area or part of a service area:
A. the utilization patterns of the existing health care delivery system or the health maintenance organization's reasonably justified projections of utilization of health care services in the proposed service area;
B. the financial ability of the health maintenance organization to pay charges for health care services that are not provided under contract or by employees of the health maintenance organization. The commissioner shall determine what information must be submitted by the health maintenance organization in order to demonstrate its financial ability to pay charges and may require an analysis of the impact on minimum loss ratio requirements; and
C. the health maintenance organization's system of documentation of authorized referrals to nonparticipating providers. This system of documentation of authorized referrals shall explain how, under certain circumstances, enrollees will be given referrals to nonparticipating providers, either by the health maintenance organization or by a provider acting on behalf of the health maintenance organization.
Subp. 5. Coordination of care.
A. The health maintenance organization shall arrange for the services of primary care providers to provide initial and basic care to enrollees.
B. In plans in which referrals to specialty providers and ancillary services are required:
C. The health maintenance organization shall provide for the coordination of care for enrollees given a referral or standing referral. When possible, the health maintenance organization shall provide this coordination of care through the enrollee's primary care or other authorized provider.
Subp. 6. Timely access to health care services.
A. The health maintenance organization, either directly or through its provider contracts, shall arrange for covered health care services, including referrals to participating and nonparticipating providers, to be accessible to enrollees on a timely basis in accordance with medically appropriate guidelines consistent with generally accepted practice parameters.
B. The health maintenance organization, in coordination with its participating providers, shall develop and implement written appointment scheduling guidelines based on type of health care service. Examples of types of health care services include well baby and well child examinations, prenatal care appointments, routine physicals, follow up appointments for chronic conditions such as high blood pressure, and diagnosis of acute pain or injury.
Subp. 7. Access to emergency care.
A. In accordance with the requirements of Minnesota Statutes, section 62D.07, the health maintenance organization shall inform its enrollees, through the evidence of coverage or contract, as well as through other forms of communication, how to obtain emergency care.
B. The health maintenance organization may require enrollees to notify it of nonreferred emergency care, including mental health and chemical dependency care, as soon as possible after emergency care is initially provided, and no later than 48 hours after becoming physically or mentally able to give notice. However, the health maintenance organization shall make exceptions in situations in which:
C. Emergency care shall be covered whether provided by participating or nonparticipating providers.
D. Emergency care shall be covered whether provided within or outside the health maintenance organization's service area.
E. In determining whether care is reimbursable as emergency care, the health maintenance organization shall take the following factors into consideration:
Subp. 8.
[Repealed, 28 SR 1249]
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.20
- History: 17 SR 2858; 23 SR 1238; L 1999 c 239 s 43; 28 SR 1249
Minn. R. 4685.1100 [Repealed, 23 SR 1238]
[Repealed, 23 SR 1238]
Minn. R. 4685.1105 Definitions
Subpart 1. Scope.
The following definitions apply to parts 4685.1105 to 4685.1130, unless the context clearly requires another meaning.
Subp. 2. Criteria.
"Criteria" means standards that can be used to determine attainment of quality health care. Criteria may be explicit or implicit. Explicit criteria are a set of norms or indicators that are developed by health care professionals and are predetermined. Implicit criteria are the judgments of health care professionals regarding information related to quality of care.
Subp. 3. Data.
"Data" refers to the following and similar types of information: patient charts, reports, records, enrollee surveys, staff surveys, staff concerns, performance appraisals, research, financial information, observation, professional organization credentialing reviews, and complaints registered.
Subp. 4. Focused study.
"Focused study" means a study that begins with a hypothesis and includes systematic data collection, to provide information to identify or resolve problems or potential problems with quality of care. Focused studies include a written methodology and corrective action strategies when appropriate.
Subp. 5. Monitoring.
"Monitoring" means collection of information relating to quality of care. Monitoring may be in the form of prospective, concurrent, or retrospective audits; reports; surveys; observation; interviews; complaints; peer review; or evaluation of claims or encounter level data.
Subp. 6. Outcome.
"Outcome" means the end result of care, or a change in patient health status. Examples of outcomes of care include a hospital admission or readmission, an advanced stage of a disease, recovery, alleviation of symptoms, or death.
Subp. 7. Process.
"Process" means the nature of events and activities in the delivery of health care.
Subp. 8. Structure.
"Structure" means the institutional or organizational aspects of care. Structure includes the organizing framework that brings the provider and patient together, organizational processes, policies, financial resources, and staff qualifications.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.03; 62D.04; 62D.11; 62D.20
- History: 14 SR 903; 23 SR 1238
Minn. R. 4685.1110 Program
Subpart 1. Written quality assurance plan.
The health maintenance organization shall have a written quality assurance plan that includes the following:
A. mission statement;
B. philosophy;
C. goals and objectives;
D. organizational structure;
E. staffing and contractual arrangements;
F. a system for communicating information regarding quality assurance activities;
G. the scope of the quality assurance program activities; and
H. a description of peer review activities.
Subp. 2. Documentation of responsibility.
Quality assurance authority, function, and responsibility shall be delineated in specific documents, including documents such as bylaws, board resolutions, and provider contracts. These documents shall demonstrate that the health maintenance organization has assumed ultimate responsibility for the evaluation of quality of care provided to enrollees, and that the health maintenance organization's governing body has periodically reviewed and approved the quality assurance program activities.
Subp. 3. Appointed entity.
The governing body shall designate a quality assurance entity that may be a person or persons to be responsible for operation of quality assurance program activities. This entity shall maintain records of its quality assurance activities and shall meet with the governing body at least quarterly.
Subp. 4. Physician participation.
A physician or physicians designated by the governing body shall advise, oversee, and actively participate in the implementation of the quality assurance program.
Subp. 5. Staff resources.
There must be sufficient administrative and clinical staff with knowledge and experience to assist in carrying out quality assurance activities. In determining what is sufficient staff support, the commissioner shall consider the number of enrollees, types of enrollees, numbers of providers, the variety of health care services offered by the health maintenance organization, the organizational structure of the health maintenance organization, and the quality assurance staffing levels used by other health care organizations that perform similar health care functions.
Subp. 6. Delegated activities.
The health maintenance organization may delegate performance of quality assurance activities to other entities. The health maintenance organization shall retain responsibility for performance of all delegated activities. If the health maintenance organization delegates performance of quality assurance activities, the health maintenance organization shall develop and implement review and reporting requirements to ensure that the delegated entity performs all delegated quality assurance activities.
Subp. 7. Information system.
The data collection and reporting system shall support the information needs of the quality assurance program activities. The quality assurance program shall have prompt access to necessary medical record data including data by diagnoses, procedure, patient, and provider.
Subp. 8. Program evaluation.
An evaluation of the overall quality assurance program shall be conducted at least annually. The results of this evaluation shall be communicated to the governing body. The written quality assurance plan shall be amended when there is no clear evidence that the program continues to be effective in improving care.
Subp. 9. Complaints.
A. Effective July 1, 1999, a health maintenance organization shall conduct ongoing evaluation of all enrollee complaints as defined in part 4685.0100, subpart 4, including complaints filed with participating providers. Ongoing evaluations must be conducted according to the steps in part 4685.1120.
B. Evaluation methods must permit a health maintenance organization to track specific complaints, assess trends, and establish that corrective action is implemented and effective in improving the identified problem.
C. The quality assurance program shall conduct ongoing evaluation of enrollee complaints that are related to quality of care. The evaluations shall be conducted according to the steps in part 4685.1120. The data on complaints related to quality of care must be reported to and evaluated by the appointed quality assurance entity at least quarterly.
Subp. 10. Utilization review.
The data from the health maintenance organization's utilization review activities shall be reported to the quality assurance program for analysis at least quarterly.
Subp. 11. Provider selection and credentialing.
The health maintenance organization shall have policies and procedures for provider selection, credentialing, and recredentialing that, at a minimum, are consistent with accepted community standards.
Subp. 12. Qualifications.
Any health maintenance organization staff or contractees conducting quality assurance activities must be qualified by virtue of training and experience.
Subp. 13. Medical records.
The quality assurance entity appointed under subpart 3 shall conduct ongoing evaluation of medical records.
A. The health maintenance organization shall implement a system to assure that medical records are maintained with timely, legible, and accurate documentation of all patient interactions. Documentation must include information regarding patient history, health status, diagnosis, treatment, and referred service notes.
B. The health maintenance organization shall maintain a medical record retrieval system that ensures that medical records, reports, and other documents are readily accessible to the health maintenance organization.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.03; 62D.04; 62D.11; 62D.20
- History: 14 SR 903; 23 SR 1238
Minn. R. 4685.1115 Activities
Subpart 1. Ongoing quality evaluation.
The health maintenance organization, through the health maintenance organization staff or contracting providers, shall conduct quality evaluation activities according to the steps in part 4685.1120. The quality evaluation activities must address each of the components of the health maintenance organization described in subpart 2.
Subp. 2. Scope.
The components of the health maintenance organization subject to evaluation include the following:
A. Clinical components that include the following services:
B. Organizational components which are the aspects of the health plan that affect accessibility, availability, comprehensiveness, and continuity of health care, and which include the following:
C. Consumer components that are the enrollees' perceptions regarding all aspects of the quality of the health plan's services, and that include:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.03; 62D.04; 62D.11; 62D.20
- History: 14 SR 903; 17 SR 2858; 23 SR 1238
Minn. R. 4685.1120 Quality Evaluation Steps
Subpart 1. Problem identification.
The health maintenance organization shall identify the existence of actual or potential quality problems or identify opportunities for improving care through:
A. ongoing monitoring of process, structure, and outcomes of patient care or clinical performance including the consumer components listed under part 4685.1115, subpart 2, item C; and
B. evaluation of the data collected from ongoing monitoring activities to identify problems or potential problems in patient care or clinical performance using criteria developed and applied by health care professionals.
Subp. 2. Problem selection.
The health maintenance organization shall select problems or potential problems for corrective action or focused study based on the prevalence of the problem and its impact on patient care and professional practices.
Subp. 3. Corrective action.
The health maintenance organization shall identify and document any recommendations for corrective action designed to address the problem. The documentation of corrective action shall include:
A. measurable objectives for each action, including the degree of expected change in persons or situations;
B. time frames for corrective action; and
C. persons responsible for implementation of corrective action.
Subp. 4. Evaluation of corrective action.
The quality assurance entity shall monitor the effectiveness of corrective actions until problem resolution occurs. Results of the implemented corrective action must be documented and communicated to the governing body and involved providers.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.03; 62D.04; 62D.11; 62D.20
- History: 14 SR 903
Minn. R. 4685.1125 Focused Study Steps
Subpart 1. Focused studies.
As part of its overall quality evaluation activities, the health maintenance organization shall conduct focused studies to acquire information relevant to quality of care. The focused study must be directed at problems, potential problems, or areas with potential for improvements in care. The focused studies shall be included as part of the health maintenance organization's problem identification and selection activities.
Subp. 2. Topic identification and selection.
The health maintenance organization shall select topics for focused study that must be justified based on any of the following considerations:
A. areas of high volume;
B. areas of high risk;
C. areas where problems are expected or where they have occurred in the past;
D. areas that can be corrected or where prevention may have an impact;
E. areas that have potential adverse health outcomes; and
F. areas where complaints have occurred.
Subp. 3. Study.
The health maintenance organization shall document the study methodology employed, including:
A. the focused study question;
B. the sample selection;
C. data collection;
D. criteria; and
E. measurement techniques.
Subp. 4. Corrective actions.
Any corrective actions implemented to address problems identified through focused studies shall follow the requirements defined in part 4685.1120, subparts 3 and 4.
Subp. 5. Other studies.
An activity in which the health maintenance organization participates that meets any of the criteria in subparts 2 to 4 may satisfy in part or in total the focused study requirements. Examples of other activities that may satisfy the focused study requirements include external audits conducted by the professional review organization or other review organizations, multiple health plan surveys, or quality assurance studies across the community.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.03; 62D.04; 62D.11; 62D.20
- History: 14 SR 903
Minn. R. 4685.1130 Filed Written Plan and Work Plan
Subpart 1. Written plan.
The health maintenance organization shall file its written quality assurance plan, as described in part 4685.1110, subpart 1, with the commissioner, before being granted a certificate of authority.
Subp. 2. Annual work plan.
The health maintenance organization shall annually prepare a written work plan. The health maintenance organization shall file the work plan with the commissioner, as requested. The work plan must be approved by the governing body and meet the requirements of items A and B.
A. The work plan must give a detailed description of the proposed quality evaluation activities that will be conducted in the following year and a timetable for completion. The quality evaluation activities must address the components of the health care delivery system defined in part 4685.1115, subpart 2. The quality evaluation activities must be conducted according to the steps in part 4685.1120. In determining the level of quality evaluation activities necessary to address each of the components of the health maintenance organization, the commissioner shall consider the number of enrollees, the number of providers, the age of the health maintenance organization, and the level of quality evaluation activities conducted by health care organizations that perform similar functions.
B. The work plan must describe the proposed focused studies to be conducted in the following year. The focused studies must be conducted according to the steps in part 4685.1125. Each proposed study must include the following elements:
Subp. 3. Amendments to plan.
The health maintenance organization may change its written quality assurance plan by filing notice with the commissioner 30 days before modifying its quality assurance program or activities. If the commissioner does not disapprove of the modifications within 30 days of submission, the modifications are considered approved.
Subp. 4. Plan review.
Upon receipt of the filing, the commissioner shall review the health maintenance organization's annual proposed work plan to determine if it meets the criteria established in parts 4685.1105 to 4685.1130.
Subp. 5.
[Repealed, 23 SR 1238]
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.03; 62D.04; 62D.11; 62D.20
- History: 14 SR 903; 23 SR 1238
Minn. R. 4685.1200 Statistics
Each health maintenance organization shall establish and maintain procedures to develop, compile, evaluate, and report statistics which shall include the collection and maintenance of at least the following data:
A. operational statistics sufficient to meet the requirements of Minnesota Statutes, section 62D.08, subdivision 3, clause (a) relating to annual financial reports;
B. gross utilization aggregates, including hospital discharges, surgical hospital discharges, hospital bed days, outpatient visits, laboratory tests and x-rays;
C. demographic characteristics, including the age and sex of enrollees;
D. disease-specific and age-specific mortality rates; and
E. enrollment statistics compiled in accordance with Minnesota Statutes, section 62D.08, subdivision 3, clause (b).
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.20
Minn. R. 4685.1300 Effective Date of Operating Requirements
When changes are required in existing evidences of coverage or health maintenance contracts in order to implement the provisions of parts 4685.0100 to 4685.3400, the changes shall be implemented upon the renewal date of the documents commencing with the first renewal after May 29, 1999. New contracts or evidences of coverage to be implemented after May 29, 1999, must be in compliance with parts 4685.0100 to 4685.3400 upon implementation.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.20
- History: 23 SR 1238
Minn. R. 4685.1400 Selection of Governing Body
Subpart 1. Selection of nonconsumer members.
Nonconsumer members of the governing body shall be selected in accordance with procedures set forth in each health maintenance organization's basic organizational document and/or bylaws.
Subp. 2. Selection of enrollee directors.
The basic organizational document and/or bylaws shall also provide a reasonable procedure by which the enrollee directors are to be elected. Such procedure must include notification:
A. to those entitled to vote for enrollee directors of the time, place, and method by which such nomination and election is to be conducted at least two weeks prior to the nomination and election;
B. to those entitled to vote for enrollee directors of the names of consumer nominees, a general description of their backgrounds and a description of the method by which a ballot may be cast; and
C. to all enrollees of the results of such election including a general description of the backgrounds of the enrollee directors, to be given not later than at the time of issuance of the next annual summary of information to enrollees.
Subp. 3. Consumer representatives.
Consumer representatives on the governing body must be enrollees at the time of their election and during their term of office. Should a consumer representative be removed for failure to meet this qualification or for any other reason set forth in the bylaws, this person may be replaced only until the next election by another consumer elected by the remaining consumer representatives on the governing body.
Subp. 4. Definitions for determination of whether enrollee is a consumer.
The terms below which appear in Minnesota Statutes, section 62D.02, subdivision 10 will be defined as follows in determining whether or not an enrollee is a consumer:
A. A "licensed health professional" is any person licensed under Minnesota Statutes to provide or administer health services.
B. A "health care facility" is any hospital, nursing home, or boarding care home required to be licensed as such under Minnesota Statutes, sections 144.50 to 144.56.
C. A "substantial financial interest in the provision of health care services" is a person's receipt or right to receive not less than 25 percent of gross annual income directly from the rendering of health service.
D. A "substantial managerial interest in the provision of health care services" is a person's supervisory or administrative responsibilities as an employee of a health care facility.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.20
- History: 17 SR 1279
Minn. R. 4685.1500 Enrollee Opinion
The commissioner of health will review the proposed mechanism for affording enrollees an opportunity to express their opinions on matters of policy and operation to see if it reasonably provides such an opportunity. Permissible alternatives to those mechanisms described in Minnesota Statutes, section 62D.06, subdivision 2 may include but are not limited to one or more of the following:
A. permitting enrollees to attend, after prior reasonable notice, and express their opinions at certain regular meetings of the governing body or special meetings called for the express purpose of affording enrollees an opportunity to express their opinions;
B. creating a special committee of the governing body which will hold meetings on at least a quarterly basis and which will be open to all enrollees to express their opinions;
C. designating a special administrative office within the health maintenance organization, responsible directly to the governing body, which will be open to enrollees to express their opinions on a regular basis;
D. creating enrollee councils, representing enrolled groups and groups of individual enrollees which will be afforded a reasonable opportunity to meet with the governing body or its designee to express enrollee opinion; and
E. such other mechanisms as the commissioner may authorize or approve.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.20
Minn. R. 4685.1600 Enrollees Who Are Contract Holders
All enrollees who are contract holders, without regard to any membership or other status in the health maintenance organization corporation, must be afforded the opportunity to participate in the nomination and election of the consumer board members pursuant to Minnesota Statutes, section 62D.06, subdivision 1. All enrollees must be afforded the benefits of the enrollee opinion mechanisms and the complaint system. For the purpose of this part, a "contract holder" is the member of the covered group through which coverage is acquired, such as the employed person in an employment group, or in the case of an individual contract, is the person named in the contract as the covered person, as distinguished from others who may be covered as dependents of the covered person.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.20
Minn. R. 4685.1700 [Repealed, L 1999 c 239 s 43]
[Repealed, L 1999 c 239 s 43]
Minn. R. 4685.1800 [Repealed, 14 SR 903]
[Repealed, 14 SR 903]
Minn. R. 4685.1900 Records of Complaints
Subpart 1. Record requirements.
Every health maintenance organization shall maintain a record of each complaint filed with it during the prior five years. The record must, where applicable, include:
A. the complaint or a copy of the complaint and the date of its filing;
B. documentation of all informal discussions, consultations, conferences, and correspondence relative to each complaint, including the date or dates of each interaction and the outcomes of each interaction;
C. a copy of the hearing or reconsideration findings given the complainant;
D. a copy of the arbitrator's decision; and
E. all documents that have been filed with a court relating to a complaint and all orders and judgments of a court relating to the complaint.
Subp. 2. Log of complaints.
A. A health maintenance organization shall keep retrievable documentation of complaints submitted to the health maintenance organization by complainants.
B. The retrievable documentation must include the date the complaint was initially submitted; the name, address, and telephone number of the complainant, if provided; the enrollee's identification number; and the location of the complainant's complaint records.
C. The retrievable documentation must include the following information regarding an enrollee who complains orally to the health maintenance organization:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.03; 62D.04; 62D.11; 62D.20
- History: 14 SR 903; 23 SR 1238
Minn. R. 4685.1910 Uniform Reporting
Beginning April 1, 1989, health maintenance organizations shall submit as part of the annual report a completed NAIC Blank, subject to the amendments in parts 4685.1930, 4685.1940, 4685.1950, and 4685.1955.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.05; 62D.08; 62D.182; 62D.20; 62D.21
- History: 10 SR 2159; 14 SR 901; 16 SR 2478
Minn. R. 4685.1920 Annual Report Forms
By December 1, the commissioner shall notify health maintenance organizations of the manner in which the NAIC Blank may be obtained and provide a copy of those portions of the annual report to be completed as supplemental to the NAIC Blank.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.08; 62D.20; 62D.21
- History: 10 SR 2159
Minn. R. 4685.1930 Naic Blank for Health Maintenance Organizations, General Information, Definitions, and Instructions
Subpart 1. Filing date.
The GENERAL INFORMATION, DEFINITIONS, AND INSTRUCTIONS section is amended by requiring the submission of the annual report on or before April 1 of each year.
Subp. 2. Instructions for Report #2.
The instructions paragraph for Report #2: STATEMENT OF REVENUE AND EXPENSES in the GENERAL INFORMATION, DEFINITIONS, AND INSTRUCTION section is amended to require:
A. all revenue from the health maintenance organization's operations outside of Minnesota, and from business other than the operation of a health maintenance organization, conducted by the health maintenance organization, to be reported only under line 9, Other Revenue;
B. all nonadministrative expenses of these accounts to be reported only under line 19a, Other Expenses;
C. all administrative expenses of these accounts to be reported only under line 25a, Additional Administrative Expenses; and
D. health maintenance organizations, beginning with the annual report filed in 1987, to report revenue and expenses in the line items described by the definitions as amended and printed on Report #2, as amended.
Subp. 3. Premium.
The definition of premium as used on line 1 of Report #2: STATEMENT OF REVENUES AND EXPENSES is amended in the GENERAL INFORMATION, DEFINITIONS, AND INSTRUCTIONS section to include only revenues from the health maintenance organization's Minnesota health maintenance contracts.
Subp. 4. Other revenue.
The definition of Other Revenue as used on line 9 of Report #2: STATEMENT OF REVENUE AND EXPENSES is amended in the GENERAL INFORMATION, DEFINITIONS, AND INSTRUCTIONS section to include, in addition, revenue from the health maintenance organization's operations outside of Minnesota and from business other than the operation of a health maintenance organization, conducted by the health maintenance organization.
Subp. 5. Reinsurance expenses.
The definition of Reinsurance Expenses as used on line 17 of Report #2: STATEMENT OF REVENUE AND EXPENSES is amended in the GENERAL INFORMATION, DEFINITIONS AND INSTRUCTIONS section to include, in addition, expenditures to insurance companies or nonprofit health service plan corporations engaged to fulfill obligations arising out of the health maintenance contract. These expenditures include premiums paid for indemnification against the risks incurred in providing nonelective emergency and out of area services and premiums paid for coverage which supplements the minimum coverage required of a health maintenance organization.
Subp. 6. Other expenses and additional revenues.
GENERAL INFORMATION, DEFINITIONS, AND INSTRUCTIONS section for Report #2: STATEMENT OF REVENUES AND EXPENSES is amended by adding the following definitions:
A. Other expenses. Nonadministrative costs of the health maintenance organization's operations outside of Minnesota and of business other than the operation of a health maintenance organization, conducted by the health maintenance organization; and
B. Additional administrative expenses. Administrative costs of the health maintenance organization's operations outside of Minnesota and of business other than the operation of a health maintenance organization, conducted by the health maintenance organization.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.08; 62D.20; 62D.21
- History: 10 SR 2159
Minn. R. 4685.1940 Naic Blank for Health Maintenance Organizations, Report #2: Statement of Revenue and Expenses
Subpart 1. Separate statements.
The NAIC Blank for health maintenance organizations is amended by requiring the submission of a separate STATEMENT OF REVENUE AND EXPENSES for each of the following:
A. the health maintenance organization's total operations;
B. each demonstration project, as described under Minnesota Statutes, section 62D.30;
C. any Medicare risk enrollee contracts authorized by section 1876 of the Social Security Act;
D. any other Medicare contracts; and
E. the health maintenance organization's supplemental benefit operations including a separate schedule H.
Subp. 2. Other expenses.
Report #2: STATEMENT OF REVENUE AND EXPENSES is amended by adding line 19a, Other Expenses.
Subp. 3. Additional administrative expenses.
Report #2: STATEMENT OF REVENUE AND EXPENSES is amended by adding line 25a, Additional Administrative Expenses.
Subp. 4. Uncovered expenses.
Report #2: STATEMENT OF REVENUE AND EXPENSES is amended by requiring a schedule of uncovered expenses.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.05; 62D.08; 62D.182; 62D.20; 62D.21
- History: 10 SR 2159; 14 SR 901; 16 SR 2478
Minn. R. 4685.1950 Naic Blank for Health Maintenance Organizations, Report #4: Enrollment and Utilization Table
Subpart 1. Additional columns.
Report #4: ENROLLMENT AND UTILIZATION TABLE is amended by adding the following columns:
A. 9a, Total Ambulatory Encounters for Period for Mental health; and
B. 9b, Total Ambulatory Encounters for Period for Chemical Dependency.
Subp. 2. Total members at end of period.
The Report #4: ENROLLMENT AND UTILIZATION TABLE is amended by requiring the itemization of Cumulative Member Months for Period by gender and five-year age increments, and Total Members at End of Period by gender, by five-year age increments, and by county, for the health maintenance organization's Minnesota health maintenance contract enrollment, Medicare risk contract enrollment authorized by section 1876 of the Social Security Act, any other Medicare contract enrollment, and each demonstration project.
Subp. 3. Type of service.
Report #4: ENROLLMENT AND UTILIZATION TABLE is amended by requiring the itemization of Total Patient Days Incurred, Annualized Hospital Days per 1,000 Enrollees, and Average Length of Stay by five-year age increments and by the following types of service for Minnesota health maintenance contracts, Minnesota health maintenance Medicare risk contracts, authorized by section 1876 of the Social Security Act, any other Medicare contract enrollment, and each demonstration project:
A. medical/surgical, in a hospital;
B. obstetrical/gynecological, in a hospital;
C. mental health, in a hospital or other health care facility;
D. chemical dependency, in a hospital or other health care facility; and
E. other services provided in health care facilities other than hospitals.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.08; 62D.182; 62D.20; 62D.21
- History: 10 SR 2159; 14 SR 901
Minn. R. 4685.1955 Supplemental Benefits
Subpart 1. Definitions.
The terms used in this part have the meanings given them.
A. "Supplemental benefit" means an addition to the comprehensive health maintenance services required to be offered under a health maintenance contract which provides coverage for nonemergency, self-referred medical services which is either a comprehensive supplemental benefit or a limited supplemental benefit according to items B and C.
B. "Comprehensive supplemental benefit" means supplemental benefits for at least 80 percent of the usual and customary charges for all covered supplemental benefits, except emergency care, required for a qualified plan as provided by Minnesota Statutes, section 62E.06, or a qualified Medicare supplement plan as provided by Minnesota Statutes, section 62E.07, if it were offered as a separate health insurance policy.
C. "Limited supplemental benefit" means any supplemental benefit which provides coverage at a lower level of benefits than a comprehensive supplemental benefit as described under item B. A limited supplemental benefit may be for a single service or any combination of services.
Subp. 2. General requirements on provisions of coverage.
A. Every contract or evidence of coverage for supplemental benefits must clearly state that supplemental benefits are not used to fulfill comprehensive health maintenance services requirements as defined under part 4685.0700.
B. In any supplemental benefit providing coverage for a medical service, reimbursement for that service must include treatments by all credentialed practitioners providing that service within the lawful scope of their practice, unless the certificate of coverage specifically states the practitioners whose services are not covered. Practitioners described in item C cannot be excluded from coverage. For the purposes of this part, "credentialed practitioners" means any practitioner licensed or registered according to Minnesota Statutes, chapter 214.
C. In any supplemental benefit providing reimbursement for any service which is in the lawful scope of practice of a duly licensed osteopathic physician, optometrist, chiropractor, or registered nurse meeting the requirements of Minnesota Statutes, section 62A.15, subdivision 3a, the person entitled to benefits is entitled to access to that service on an equal basis, whether the service is performed by a physician, osteopathic physician, optometrist, chiropractor, or registered nurse meeting the requirements of Minnesota Statutes, section 62A.15, subdivision 3a, licensed under the laws of Minnesota.
D. A health maintenance organization may not deny supplemental benefit coverage of a service which the enrollee has already received solely on the basis of lack of prior authorization or second opinion, to the extent that the service would otherwise have been covered under the member's supplemental benefits contract by the health maintenance organization had prior authorization or second opinion been obtained. A health maintenance organization may, however, impose a reasonable assessment on coverage for lack of prior authorization or second opinion for supplemental benefit services. The assessment cannot exceed 20 percent of the usual and customary charges for the service received.
Subp. 3. Disclosure of comprehensive supplemental benefits.
Every contract or evidence of coverage for comprehensive supplemental benefits must include a detailed explanation of the services available, including:
A. that coverage is available for all benefits provided by the health maintenance organization's health maintenance services, except emergency services;
B. the level of coverage available under the supplemental benefits, including any limitations on benefits;
C. all applicable copayments, deductibles, or maximum lifetime benefits;
D. the procedure for any required preauthorization, including any applicable assessment for failure to obtain preauthorization; and
E. the procedure for filing claims under the supplemental benefits, which must comply with Minnesota Statutes, section 72A.201.
Subp. 4. Disclosure of limited supplemental benefits.
Every contract or evidence of coverage for limited supplemental benefits must include a detailed explanation of the services available including:
A. A listing of all benefits available through the limited supplemental benefits.
B. A listing of any excluded general grouping of services as listed in Minnesota Statutes, section 62D.02, subdivision 7. Those groupings include preventive health services, outpatient health services, and inpatient hospital and physician services. Emergency care is not permitted as a supplemental benefit. If less than all of the services in a grouping are covered, specific exclusions within that grouping must be clearly stated.
C. The level of coverage available for each benefit.
D. All applicable copayments, deductibles, or maximum lifetime benefits.
E. The procedure for any required preauthorization, including any applicable assessment for failure to obtain preauthorization.
F. The procedure for filing claims under the limited supplemental benefits, which must comply with Minnesota Statutes, section 72A.201.
Subp. 5. Consumer information.
All supplemental benefits evidences of coverage and contracts must contain a clear and complete statement of enrollees' rights as consumers. The statement must be in bold print and captioned "Important Consumer Information For Supplemental Benefits" and must include the provisions given in this subpart for either comprehensive or limited supplemental benefits, as appropriate.
If the supplemental benefit is presented as a separate section of a contract or evidence of coverage for comprehensive health maintenance services, the supplemental benefit section must begin with the consumer information statement described in this subpart.
If the supplemental benefit is presented as an integrated part of the comprehensive health maintenance services contract or evidence of coverage, the consumer information statement must appear directly after the "Enrollee Bill Of Rights" and "Consumer Information" sections at the beginning of the contract or evidence of coverage. When the supplemental benefits are integrated into the contract or evidence of coverage, the differences between the supplemental benefit and the comprehensive health maintenance services must be clearly set out in the contract or evidence of coverage.
The statement of consumer information must be in the language of item A or B, as appropriate, or in substantially similar language (to accommodate changes based on a prior authorization requirement, for example) approved in advance by the commissioner:
A. CONSUMER INFORMATION FOR COMPREHENSIVE SUPPLEMENTAL BENEFITS
(1) COVERED SERVICES: The comprehensive supplemental benefit of (name of health maintenance organization) covers similar services as the comprehensive health maintenance services, but at a different level of coverage. Copayments, deductibles, and maximum lifetime benefit restrictions may apply. Your contract describes the procedures for receiving coverage through the comprehensive supplemental benefit.
(2) PROVIDERS: To receive services through the comprehensive supplemental benefit, you may go to providers of covered services who are not on the provider list supplied by (name of health maintenance organization) and for whom you did not get a referral.
(3) REFERRALS: A referral from (name of health maintenance organization) for services covered by the comprehensive supplemental benefit is not required to receive coverage. However, if a referral is requested from (name of health maintenance organization) you may be eligible for the same services, from the same provider at a lower cost to you, as a benefit under your comprehensive health maintenance services. See section (section number) of the evidence of coverage for specific referral details.
(4) PRIOR AUTHORIZATION: You are not required to get prior authorization from (name of health maintenance organization) before using supplemental benefits. However, there may be a reduction in the level of benefits available to you if you do not get prior authorization. See section (section number) of your comprehensive supplemental benefit agreement for specific information about prior authorization.
(5) EXCLUSIONS: Coverage of supplemental benefits is limited to those services specified in your evidence of coverage. Section (specify number) lists related services which are excluded from coverage and clarifies any limitations imposed on coverage of the services.
(6) CONTINUATION: Your comprehensive health maintenance services contract provides for continuation and conversion rights under certain circumstances. If you continue your coverage as an individual under your group contract, the comprehensive supplemental benefits will also continue. If you convert to an individual plan, supplemental benefits may not be available. Your continuation and conversion rights to supplemental benefits are explained fully in your comprehensive supplemental benefits agreement.
(7) DISCONTINUATION: Your comprehensive supplemental benefits are an addition to your comprehensive health maintenance coverage. Changes in your contract may result in the discontinuation of one or more of your supplemental benefits. Please read all amendments to your contract carefully.
B. CONSUMER INFORMATION FOR LIMITED SUPPLEMENTAL BENEFITS
(1) COVERED SERVICES: The limited supplemental benefit of (name of health maintenance organization) covers selected services, at varying levels of coverage. It does not provide coverage from nonparticipating providers for all services which are covered under a qualified health insurance plan under Minnesota law. Copayments, deductibles, and maximum lifetime benefit restrictions may apply. Your certificate of coverage lists the services available and describes the procedures for receiving coverage through the limited supplemental benefit.
(2) PROVIDERS: To receive benefits through the limited supplemental benefit, you may go to providers of covered services who are not on the provider list supplied by (name of health maintenance organization) and for whom you did not get a referral.
(3) REFERRALS: A referral from (name of health maintenance organization) for services covered by the limited supplemental benefit is not required to receive coverage. However, if a referral is requested from (name of health maintenance organization) you may be eligible for the same services, from the same provider at a lower cost to you, as a benefit under your comprehensive health maintenance services. See section (section number) of the evidence of coverage for specific referral details.
(4) PRIOR AUTHORIZATION: You are not required to get prior authorization from (name of health maintenance organization) before using supplemental benefits. However, there may be a reduction in the level of benefits available to you if you do not get prior authorization. See section (section number) of your limited supplemental benefit agreement for specific information about prior authorization.
(5) EXCLUSIONS: Services are not covered by the limited supplemental benefit unless they are listed in the supplemental benefits provisions. Section (specify number) lists related services which are excluded from coverage and clarifies any limitations imposed on coverage of such services.
(6) CONTINUATION: Your comprehensive health maintenance services contract provides for continuation and conversion rights under certain circumstances. If you continue your coverage as an individual under your group contract, the limited supplemental benefits will also continue. If you convert to an individual plan, supplemental benefits may not be available. Your continuation and conversion rights to supplemental benefits are explained fully in your limited supplemental benefits agreement.
(7) DISCONTINUATION: Your limited supplemental benefits are an addition to your comprehensive health maintenance coverage. Changes in your contract may result in the discontinuation of one or more of your supplemental benefits. Please read all amendments to your contract carefully.
Subp. 6. Out-of-pocket expenditures.
The out-of-pocket expenses associated with supplemental benefits, including any deductibles, copayments, or assessments shall be included in the total out-of-pocket expenses for the entire package of benefits provided. The total out-of-pocket expenses for a plan, including those associated with supplemental benefits, may not exceed the maximum out-of-pocket expenses allowable for a number three qualified insurance plan as provided by Minnesota Statutes, section 62E.06.
A plan may designate what portion of the maximum out-of-pocket benefits may be used in relation to supplemental benefits, with the remaining amount applicable only to comprehensive health maintenance services. For example, if the maximum out-of-pocket expenses is $3,000, the health maintenance organization may designate in its contract that the maximum out-of-pocket expenses for supplemental benefits is $1,000 and the maximum for comprehensive health maintenance services is $2,000. Every contract and evidence of coverage must include a clear statement describing the maximum out-of-pocket expense limitations and, if applicable, how the maximum expenses are allocated between comprehensive health maintenance services and supplemental benefits. The contract must also include a statement explaining that enrollees must keep track of their own out-of-pocket expenses, provided however, that enrollees may contact the health maintenance organization member services department for assistance in determining the amount paid by the enrollee for specific services received.
Subp. 7. Annual reports.
A health maintenance organization which offers supplemental benefits shall include in its annual report the following schedules:
A. a schedule analyzing the previous year's estimation of incurred but not reported supplemental benefit claims; and
B. a schedule detailing claim development including historical data.
Subp. 8. Estimation of incurred but not reported claims.
A health maintenance organization must estimate incurred but not reported supplemental benefit claim liabilities according to generally accepted actuarial methods.
Appropriate claim expense reserves are required with respect to the estimated expense of settlement of all incurred but not reported supplemental benefit claims. All such reserves for prior years shall be tested for adequacy and reasonableness by reviewing the health maintenance organization's claim runoff schedules in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles and reported annually in the schedule required under subpart 7, item A.
Subp. 9. Accrued supplemental benefit claims.
NAIC BLANK FOR HEALTH MAINTENANCE ORGANIZATIONS, REPORT #1-B: Report#1-B: BALANCE SHEET LIABILITIES AND NET WORTH is amended by adding a line for Accrued Supplemental Benefit Claims, and requiring a separate schedule of such claims detailing direct claims adjusted or in the process of adjustment plus incurred but not reported claims.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.05; 62D.20
- History: 16 SR 2478; L 2016 c 119 s 7
Minn. R. 4685.1960 Audited Report
The following sections of the NAIC Blank must be audited by a public accountant certified under Minnesota Statutes, section 326.19 and retained by the health maintenance organization for purposes other than performing day to day accounting operations:
A. BALANCE SHEET ASSETS;
B. BALANCE SHEET LIABILITIES AND NET WORTH;
C. STATEMENTS OF REVENUE AND EXPENSES;
D. STATEMENT OF CHANGES IN FINANCIAL POSITION AND NET WORTH; AND
E. SUPPORTING SCHEDULES. The certified public accountant shall state whether the audit was conducted according to generally accepted auditing standards, and shall express an opinion as to whether the sections audited are in conformity with generally accepted accounting principles applied on a consistent basis.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.08; 62D.20; 62D.21
- History: 10 SR 2159
Minn. R. 4685.1970 Financial Disclosure
Subpart 1. Principal officer.
As provided by Minnesota Statutes, section 62D.03, subdivision 4, "principal officer" means an employee whose annual wages, expense reimbursements, and other payments exceed $60,000, if such employee performs the duties of:
A. president;
B. vice-president;
C. secretary;
D. treasurer;
E. executive director;
F. chief executive officer;
G. chief operating officer;
H. chief financial officer;
I. medical director; or
J. general counsel.
Subp. 2. Disclosure of contractual and financial arrangement.
The disclosure of contractual and financial arrangements under Minnesota Statutes, section 62D.03, subdivision 4, must include a detailed description of the obligations to be met by and compensation to be received by each party to the contract or arrangement.
Subp. 3. Disclosure of wages, expense reimbursements, and other payments.
The disclosure of wages, expense reimbursements, and other payments under Minnesota Statutes, section 62D.08, subdivision 3, to persons identified in Minnesota Statutes, section 62D.03, subdivision 4, clause (c) must include items taxable as income to such persons under Minnesota Statutes, chapter 290, if the items are received for:
A. direct services rendered in any capacity to the health maintenance organization; or
B. indirect services rendered in any capacity for the health maintenance organization. Indirect services are services essential to the operation of the health maintenance organization, including administration, management, and the provision of medical care, regardless of whether the individual providing the services is compensated by the health maintenance organization or the major participating entity.
Subp. 4. Allocation.
If the actual compensation for the services listed in subpart 3, items A and B, is unknown, the health maintenance organization shall calculate an allocation of the wages, expense reimbursements, and other payments for the persons identified in Minnesota Statutes, section 62D.03, subdivision 4. The allocation must be based on:
A. time;
B. number of enrollees;
C. gross revenues;
D. dollar volume of claims processed; or
E. number of claims processed. The health maintenance organization shall indicate in the annual report the allocation basis or bases chosen.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.08; 62D.20; 62D.21
- History: 10 SR 2159
Minn. R. 4685.1980 Quarterly Reports
The following sections of the NAIC Blank shall be submitted as the health maintenance organization's quarterly reports:
A. NAIC Reports #1, #2, #3; and
B. a description of the enrollment data included in NAIC report #4.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.08; 62D.182; 62D.20
- History: 14 SR 901
Minn. R. 4685.2000 [Repealed, L 2012 c 247 art 1 s 32]
[Repealed, L 2012 c 247 art 1 s 32]
Minn. R. 4685.2100 Annual Reports
In addition to all other information specified in the act, every health maintenance organization shall include in its annual report to the commissioner of health the following:
A. The results of any and all elections conducted during the preceding calendar year relative to consumer representation on the health maintenance organization's governing body.
B. A copy of the health maintenance organization's most recent information summary provided to its enrollees in accordance with Minnesota Statutes, section 62D.09.
C. A schedule of prepayment charges made to enrollees during the preceding year and any changes which have been implemented or approved up to the reporting date.
D. A listing of participating entities grouped by county, including the name, complete address, and clinic name, if applicable, of each health care provider and a description of each health care provider's specialty. This listing shall be submitted on forms prescribed by the commissioner.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.03; 62D.04; 62D.08; 62D.11; 62D.182; 62D.20
- History: 14 SR 901; 14 SR 903
Minn. R. 4685.2150 Extension of Reporting Deadline
Subpart 1. Good cause.
An extension of the reporting deadline may be granted if the health maintenance organization demonstrates that its delinquency is due to circumstances which it could not reasonably have anticipated or avoided.
Subp. 2. Procedure.
In order to be granted an extension, health maintenance organizations shall request an extension of a specific time period in writing at least three working days prior to April 1. If the annual report is not filed by the last day of the extension period, the fine imposed by Minnesota Statutes, section 62D.08, subdivision 4, accrues beginning on the following day.
Subp. 3. Automatic extension.
If the commissioner fails to have the annual report form available for inspection by December 1 as required by part 4685.1920, item A, good cause shall be deemed to exist for health maintenance organizations to have an automatic extension of time in which to file the annual reports. The extension must equal the number of days the commissioner is overdue in having the annual report form available for inspection.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.08; 62D.20; 62D.21
- History: 10 SR 2159
Minn. R. 4685.2200 Termination of Coverage
Subpart 1. Definitions.
For the purpose of this part, the following terms have the meanings given them.
A. "Notice date" means the date a written notice of cancellation of coverage is postmarked by the United States Postal Service.
B. "Effective date of notice" means the date that a notice of cancellation of coverage takes effect as stated in the notice.
C. "Cancellation date" means the date coverage ends, as stated in the notice of cancellation.
Subp. 1a. Justification.
In addition to those reasons specified in Minnesota Statutes, section 62D.12, subdivision 2, a health maintenance organization may, upon 30 days advance notice, cancel or fail to renew the coverage of an enrollee if the enrollee moves out of the geographic service area filed with the commissioner, provided the cancellation or nonrenewal is made within one year following the date the health maintenance organization was provided written notification of the address change. Written notification of the change of address of an enrollee may be from any reliable source, such as the United States Postal Service or providers. If notification is received from a source other than the enrollee, the health maintenance organization must verify that the enrollee has moved out of the service area before sending notice of termination. The verification may be in any form which is separate from the termination notice and which provides an adequate record for the commissioner to audit as required under Minnesota Statutes, section 62D.14.
A health maintenance organization may cancel or fail to renew the coverage of an enrollee if the enrollee knowingly gives false, material information at the time of enrollment relative to the enrollee's health status, provided the cancellation or nonrenewal is made within six months of the date of enrollment. This subpart does not prevent the enrollee from exercising the appeals rights provided by Minnesota Statutes, section 62D.11.
Subp. 2. Notice.
In any situation where 30 days notice of cancellation or nonrenewal of the coverage of a specified group plan or of the coverage of any individual therein is required, notice given by a health maintenance organization to an authorized representative of any such group shall be deemed to be notice to all affected enrollees in any such group and satisfy the notice requirement of the act, except as set out in subpart 2a.
The notice requirement of Minnesota Statutes, section 62D.12, subdivision 2a, shall be deemed to be satisfied in the event of voluntary enrollee cancellation or nonrenewal of coverage, including such voluntary cancellation manifested by the nongroup plan enrollee's failure to pay the prescribed prepayment amount.
The notice requirements of Minnesota Statutes, section 62D.12, subdivision 2a, are considered satisfied in the event of voluntary group cancellation or nonrenewal of coverage manifested by the group contract holder's notice to the health maintenance organization of the cancellation or nonrenewal.
Subp. 2a. Notice of cancellation to group enrollees.
In situations where the health maintenance organization is canceling coverage for all enrollees of a group plan for nonpayment of the premium for coverage under the group plan, the health maintenance organization is required to give all enrollees in the group plan 30 days notice of termination. The effective date of the notice shall not be less than 30 days after the notice date and shall clearly state the cancellation date which shall be no more than 60 days prior to the effective date of the notice. The notice shall include a statement of the enrollees' rights to convert to an individual policy without underwriting restrictions and shall include either an application for conversion coverage or a telephone number which the enrollees can call for further information about conversion to an individual plan.
The health maintenance organization shall not bill a group enrollee for any amount arising before the cancellation date, whether arising from past due premiums or from health services received by the enrollee.
Subp. 3. Termination of dependents at limiting age.
A health maintenance organization may terminate enrollees who are covered dependents in a family health maintenance contract upon the attainment by the dependent enrollee of a limiting age as specified in the contract. Provided, however, that no health maintenance contract may specify a limiting age of less than 18 years of age. If any health maintenance contract provides for the termination of coverage based on the attainment of a specified age it shall also provide in substance that attainment of that age shall not terminate coverage while the child is incapable of self-sustaining employment by reason of developmental disability or physical disability, and chiefly dependent upon the enrollee for support and maintenance. The enrollee must provide proof of the child's incapacity and dependency within 31 days of attainment of the age, and subsequently as required by the health maintenance organization, but not more frequently than annually after a two-year period following attainment of the age.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.05; 62D.20
- History: 16 SR 2478; L 2005 c 56 s 2
Minn. R. 4685.2250 Use of Filed Material
When a health maintenance organization modifies any documents as described in Minnesota Statutes, section 62D.08, subdivision 1, it shall not implement the modifications until notice of the modifications has been filed with the commissioner and the filing is approved, or deemed approved.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.08; 62D.182; 62D.20
- History: 14 SR 901
Minn. R. 4685.2300 Insurance Terminology
Except as it relates to the name of any health maintenance organization, Minnesota Statutes, section 62D.12, subdivision 3 shall not be construed to prohibit the use of the words cited or described therein if such usage is incidental to the text of any health maintenance organization contract or literature, enhances the accuracy or understanding thereof, and is not deceptive or misleading.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.20
Minn. R. 4685.2400 [Repealed, 31 SR 35]
[Repealed, 31 SR 35]
Minn. R. 4685.2500 Enrollment Discrimination
A health maintenance organization which refuses to enroll recipients of medical assistance or Medicare because of its good faith inability to qualify for such payments because of state or federal requirements shall not be deemed to be discriminating against any such recipients.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.20
Minn. R. 4685.2600 Certificate of Need
For the purpose of complying with Minnesota Statutes, section 62D.22, subdivision 6, any health maintenance organization intending to modify the construction of or construct a health care facility as defined in part 4685.1400, subpart 4, item B, shall be deemed to be an "applicant," as such term is defined in section 201(b), Minnesota State Planning Agency Certificate of Need Act Rules and Regulations, 1971.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.20
Minn. R. 4685.2700 Use of Funds
All income of a health maintenance organization, however derived, including refunds, dividends or rebates on its insurance policies or nonprofit health service plan contracts, shall be considered part of its net earnings and subject to the provisions of Minnesota Statutes, section 62D.12, subdivision 9.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.20
Minn. R. 4685.2800 Fees
Subpart 1. Filing fees.
Every filing submitted to the commissioner by a health maintenance organization subject to Minnesota Statutes, sections 62D.01 to 62D.29, shall be accompanied by the following fees:
A. for filing an application for a certificate of authority, $3,000;
B. for filing each annual report, $400;
C. for filing a quarterly report, $200;
D. for filing each amendment to a certificate of authority, including the filings required under Minnesota Statutes, section 62D.08, subdivision 1, $125;
E. for filing a health plan premium, $125 plus $30 per product for which the premium is applicable;
F. for each examination, the costs, including staff salaries and fringe benefits and indirect costs, incurred in preparing for and conducting the examination and preparing the subsequent report. The commissioner shall provide the health maintenance organization an itemized statement at the time of billing. For the purpose of this item, indirect costs include costs attributable to:
G. for all other filings, $125. These filings include, but are not limited to:
Subp. 2. Renewal fee.
The renewal fee for a certificate of authority is $21,500 for each health maintenance organization plus 70 cents for each person enrolled in the health maintenance organization on December 31 of the preceding year. The fee applies to the calendar year in which the fee is required to be paid.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.08; 62D.20; 62D.21; 62D.211; 144.122
- History: 10 SR 2159; L 1987 c 384 art 2 s 1; 13 SR 2609; 15 SR 2430; 23 SR 1238; 24 SR 1288
Minn. R. 4685.2900 Effective Date of Open Enrollment
Open enrollment requirements shall be implemented by an existing health plan within a one-year period commencing July 1, 1975. Health plans formed after the effective date of the act, shall implement such requirements within a one-year period to commence 24 months after beginning operation as a health plan.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.10
Minn. R. 4685.3000 Scope
The requirements of Minnesota Statutes, section 62D.10, subdivision 2, shall apply to those health plans which offer nongroup contracts.
The requirements of Minnesota Statutes, section 62D.10, subdivision 3, shall apply to those health plans which offer group contracts.
Health plans offering nongroup and group contracts shall be subjected to Minnesota Statutes, section 62D.10, subdivision 2, with respect to their nongroup and to Minnesota Statutes, section 62D.10, subdivision 3, with respect to their group contracts.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.10
Minn. R. 4685.3100 Notice
All health plans offering group plans shall provide for reasonable and timely notice of open enrollment provisions to prospective group enrollees or their representatives, including the dates of annual open enrollment and the manner in which to enroll. Such notice shall be given at least 15 days and not more than 45 days prior to the commencement of each annual open enrollment period. All health plans offering individual enrollments shall advertise the dates of their open enrollment and the manner in which to enroll in at least one newspaper of general distribution in the geographical area served by the plan. The advertisement shall run on at least two occasions at least 15 days and at most 45 days before the beginning of the open enrollment period. The advertisement shall be of sufficient size to reasonably apprise readers of the availability of the open enrollment period.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.10
Minn. R. 4685.3200 Waiver
Subpart 1. Application to the commissioner.
The requirements of Minnesota Statutes, section 62D.10 may be waived or the imposition of necessary underwriting restrictions may be authorized upon a written application to the commissioner stating the grounds for the request.
Subp. 2. Compliance.
The commissioner shall determine whether or not compliance with the requirement for open enrollment would:
A. contravene the maximum enrollment limitation of 500,000 enrollees imposed by the act;
B. prevent a health plan from competing effectively with other health plans or with commercial health insurers for the enrollment of new members or for the retention of current members;
C. result in a health plan incurring unreasonably high expenses in relation to the value of the benefits or services it provides;
D. jeopardize the availability or adequacy of a health plan's working capital and any required surpluses or reserves; or
E. endanger the ability of a health plan to meet its current and future obligations to enrollees.
Subp. 3. Considerations.
In making this determination the commissioner of health shall:
A. consider information supplied by a health plan in its application for the waiver or underwriting restrictions;
B. be permitted access to all health plan records pertinent to such application;
C. consider prevailing practices and standards relating to the financing and delivery of health care service in the community; and
D. consider any comments submitted by the commissioner of commerce or any interested party.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.10
- History: L 1983 c 289 s 114 subd 1; L 1984 c 655 art 1 s 92
Minn. R. 4685.3300 Periodic Filings
Subpart 1.
[Repealed, 14 SR 901]
Subp. 1a. Final form.
Copies of all contracts, contract forms or documents and their amendments which are required to be filed with the commissioner according to Minnesota Statutes, section 62D.08, subdivision 1, must be submitted in final typewritten form. However, minor legible handwritten changes to the typewritten form may be accepted.
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, 14 SR 901]
Subp. 2a. Insufficient information.
A filing shall be disapproved if supporting information is necessary to determine whether the filed material meets all standards in this chapter or Minnesota Statutes, chapter 62D, and supporting information does not accompany the filing, or the supporting information is not adequate.
In the disapproval letter, the commissioner shall specify the supporting information required, and the health maintenance organization may refile the additional information as an amended filing according to the provisions of subpart 7.
Subp. 3. Filing of contract.
The filing of any contracts or evidences of coverage under Minnesota Statutes, section 62D.07 or 62D.08, subdivision 1, shall be accompanied by sufficient evidence on cost of services on which copayments are being imposed to allow the commissioner of health to determine the impact and reasonableness of the copayment provisions.
If a health maintenance organization imposes a copayment which is a flat fee based upon the charges for a category of similar services for Medicare, individual, or group plans according to part 4685.0801, the health maintenance organization must include the information required according to part 4685.0801, subpart 4.
Subp. 4.
[Repealed, 14 SR 901]
Subp. 4a. Form identification.
Each contract, contract form or document and their amendments, filed for approval must contain the health maintenance organization's name, address, and telephone number and must be identified by a unique form number in the lower left hand corner on the first page of the form. If applicable, the health maintenance organization shall identify the filing as either a group or individual contract or evidence of coverage.
Subp. 5.
[Repealed, 14 SR 901]
Subp. 5a. Duplicate copies.
Each contract form or document and its amendments filed with the commissioner must be submitted in duplicate with a cover letter indicating the name and telephone number of the contact person for the health maintenance organization, and the address to which the commissioner's decision shall be mailed.
Subp. 6. Approval or disapproval.
One copy of each contract form or document and its amendments, filed with the commissioner must be stamped approved or disapproved and returned to the health maintenance organization within 30 days after the commissioner's receipt of the filing. If disapproved, the specific reason for denial shall be stated in writing by the commissioner or authorized representative.
Subp. 7. Amended filings.
A filing that has been disapproved may be amended and refiled with the commissioner without a filing fee, provided the health maintenance organization submits the amended filing to the commissioner within 30 days after the health maintenance organization receives notice of disapproval. An amended filing shall only address the issues that were the subject of the disapproval. When refiling an amended filing, the health maintenance organization shall use the same identification number that was used on the original filing.
When the health maintenance organization files an amended filing, it shall submit two copies of the amended filing. One copy must be stamped approved or disapproved and returned to the health maintenance organization within 30 days after the commissioner's receipt of the amended filing under subpart 7.
Subp. 8. Endorsements.
When filing an endorsement, amendment, or rider, the health maintenance organization shall indicate the form number or numbers with which the endorsement, amendment, or rider will be used.
Subp. 9. Service area expansion.
The filing of a request to expand a service area must be accompanied by sufficient supporting documentation including the following:
A. a detailed map with the proposed service area outlined;
B. provider locations charted on the map;
C. a description of driving distances, using major transportation routes, from the borders of the proposed service area to the participating providers;
D. a description of the providers' hours of operation;
E. evidence that the physicians have admitting privileges at the hospitals that enrollees in the new service area will use;
F. a list of providers in the new service area with the name, address, and specialty of every provider;
G. evidence of contractual arrangements with providers. Acceptable evidence is a copy of the signature page of the provider contract, or a sworn affidavit that states that the providers are under contract with the health maintenance organization; and
H. any other information relating to documentation of service area, facility, and personnel availability and accessibility to allow a determination of compliance with part 4685.1010.
Subp. 10. Marked up copies.
Any filing that amends or replaces a previously approved filing shall be accompanied by a copy of the previously approved filing with any changes, additions, or deletions noted.
Subp. 11.
[Repealed, 31 SR 35]
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.05; 62D.08; 62D.182; 62D.20
- History: 14 SR 901; 16 SR 2478; 17 SR 2858; 31 SR 35
Minn. R. 4685.3400 Improper Practices
It shall be an improper practice for a health maintenance organization to advertise or market its operation by making qualitative judgment or statements concerning any health professional who provides services for a health maintenance organization.
A health maintenance organization shall not enroll a person who resides outside the health maintenance organization's defined service area, unless the health maintenance organization provides the enrollee with written notice of the consequences of this special enrollment.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62D.12
- History: 17 SR 1279
Minn. R. 4685.3500 [Repealed, L 1985 1Sp14 art 19 s 38]
[Repealed, L 1985 1Sp14 art 19 s 38]
Minn. R. 4685.3600 [Repealed, L 1985 1Sp14 art 19 s 38]
[Repealed, L 1985 1Sp14 art 19 s 38]
Minn. R. 4685.3700 [Repealed, L 1985 1Sp14 art 19 s 38]
[Repealed, L 1985 1Sp14 art 19 s 38]
Minn. R. 4685.3800 [Repealed, L 1985 1Sp14 art 19 s 38]
[Repealed, L 1985 1Sp14 art 19 s 38]
Minn. R. 4685.3900 [Repealed, L 1985 1Sp14 art 19 s 38]
[Repealed, L 1985 1Sp14 art 19 s 38]
Minn. R. 4685.4000 [Repealed, L 1985 1Sp14 art 19 s 38]
[Repealed, L 1985 1Sp14 art 19 s 38]
Minn. R. 4685.4100 [Repealed, L 1985 1Sp14 art 19 s 38]
[Repealed, L 1985 1Sp14 art 19 s 38]
Minn. R. 4685.4200 [Repealed, L 1985 1Sp14 art 19 s 38]
[Repealed, L 1985 1Sp14 art 19 s 38]
Minn. R. 4685.4300 [Repealed, L 1985 1Sp14 art 19 s 38]
[Repealed, L 1985 1Sp14 art 19 s 38]
Minn. R. 4685.4400 [Repealed, L 1985 1Sp14 art 19 s 38]
[Repealed, L 1985 1Sp14 art 19 s 38]
Minn. R. 4685.4500 [Repealed, L 1985 1Sp14 art 19 s 38]
[Repealed, L 1985 1Sp14 art 19 s 38]
Minn. R. 4685.4600 [Repealed, L 1985 1Sp14 art 19 s 38]
[Repealed, L 1985 1Sp14 art 19 s 38]
Minn. R. 4685.4700 [Repealed, L 1985 1Sp14 art 19 s 38]
[Repealed, L 1985 1Sp14 art 19 s 38]
Minn. R. 4685.4800 [Repealed, L 1985 1Sp14 art 19 s 38]
[Repealed, L 1985 1Sp14 art 19 s 38]
Minn. R. 4685.4900 [Repealed, L 1985 1Sp14 art 19 s 38]
[Repealed, L 1985 1Sp14 art 19 s 38]
Minn. R. 4685.5000 [Repealed, L 1985 1Sp14 art 19 s 38]
[Repealed, L 1985 1Sp14 art 19 s 38]
Minn. R. 4685.5100 [Repealed, L 1985 1Sp14 art 19 s 38]
[Repealed, L 1985 1Sp14 art 19 s 38]
Minn. R. 4685.5200 [Repealed, L 1985 1Sp14 art 19 s 38]
[Repealed, L 1985 1Sp14 art 19 s 38]
Minn. R. 4685.5300 [Repealed, L 1985 1Sp14 art 19 s 38]
[Repealed, L 1985 1Sp14 art 19 s 38]
Minn. R. 4685.5400 [Repealed, L 1985 1Sp14 art 19 s 38]
[Repealed, L 1985 1Sp14 art 19 s 38]
Minn. R. 4685.5500 [Repealed, L 1985 1Sp14 art 19 s 38]
[Repealed, L 1985 1Sp14 art 19 s 38]
Minn. R. 4685.5600 [Repealed, L 1985 1Sp14 art 19 s 38]
[Repealed, L 1985 1Sp14 art 19 s 38]
Chapter 4688 ESSENTIAL COMMUNITY PROVIDERS
Minn. R. 4688.0001 Statutory Authority
Parts 4688.0001 to 4688.0160 are authorized by Minnesota Statutes, section 62Q.19. Parts 4688.0001 to 4688.0160 must be read in conjunction with all applicable federal and state, constitutional, treaty, statutory, and rule provisions which govern the Indian Health Service, service units and facilities, and Indian tribal governments. Nothing in parts 4688.0001 to 4688.0160 is intended to interfere with the sovereignty of Indian tribal governments, including the manner in which they provide, pay for, or charge for health care services.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62Q.19
- History: 21 SR 6
Minn. R. 4688.0005 Incorporation by Reference
The CPT 95 codes referenced in parts 4688.0020, item C, 4688.0040, subpart 6, and 4688.0160, item G, are incorporated by reference and are contained in the Physicians' Current Procedural Terminology, (CPT 95) 4th edition, 1994. It is subject to frequent change. It is published by and may be purchased from the American Medical Association, Order Department: SPO54195NW, OPO54195NQ, LPO54195NW, P.O. Box 10950, Chicago, Illinois 60610. It is available through the Minitex interlibrary loan system.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62Q.19
- History: 21 SR 6
Minn. R. 4688.0010 Definitions
Subpart 1. Scope.
For the purposes of this chapter, the terms defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 62Q.01, and this part have the meanings given them.
Subp. 2. Child care.
"Child care" means those services or facilities that are appropriate to care for, supervise, or otherwise safely accommodate children.
Subp. 3. Culturally sensitive and competent services.
"Culturally sensitive and competent services" means the ability to provide services that are receptive and sensitive to cultural differences as well as the awareness of behavior particular to a specific culture and the ability to carry out professional activities consistent with this awareness.
Subp. 4. Essential community provider or ECP.
"Essential community provider" or "ECP" means an entity that has demonstrated the ability to integrate appropriate supportive and stabilizing services with medical services for uninsured persons, high risk and special needs populations, and underserved and other special needs populations.
Subp. 5. High risk and special needs populations.
"High risk and special needs populations" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 62Q.07, subdivision 2, paragraph (e).
Subp. 6. Linguistic services.
"Linguistic services" means translation services and interpreter services that are appropriate to facilitate communication.
Subp. 7. Local government unit.
"Local government unit" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 62D.02, subdivision 11.
Subp. 8. Sliding fee schedule.
"Sliding fee schedule" means a schedule of fee reductions designed to provide assistance to low income clients based on federal poverty guidelines and family size.
Subp. 9. Transportation services.
"Transportation services" means those services that are appropriate to enable an ECP's clients to access health care from it.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62Q.19
- History: 21 SR 6
Minn. R. 4688.0020 Application
An application for ECP designation shall be made on forms provided by the commissioner. The applicant shall provide all of the information described in items A to G.
A. The name of the applicant's contact person and that person's address and telephone number.
B. The applicant's status as either:
C. A list of medical services provided, by Current Procedural Terminology 95 (CPT 95) codes or categories of Current Procedural Terminology 95 (CPT 95) codes.
D. Evidence of the applicant's capacity to provide medical services in a timely manner consistent with community norms, including the number and type of health professionals available and the applicant's appointment scheduling guidelines and procedures.
E. A list of which of the following populations the applicant serves: uninsured persons, high risk and special needs populations, and underserved and other special needs populations. In addition, the applicant must provide:
F. A list of supportive and stabilizing services available including an explanation of how the need for services is assessed, how clients access the services, how these services are made available to clients in need of such services, and to what extent these services are used by clients. If specific supportive and stabilizing services are not available, an explanation of why the following services are unavailable or inappropriate for the specific populations served by the applicant:
G. Any other information requested by the commissioner that is reasonably necessary to determine whether the application should be granted or denied.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62Q.19
- History: 21 SR 6
Minn. R. 4688.0030 Application Fee
A nonrefundable application fee of $46 is required for each ECP application.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62Q.19
- History: 21 SR 6
Minn. R. 4688.0040 Criteria for Ecp Designation by Commissioner
Subpart 1. Generally.
Upon receipt of a completed application for ECP designation, the commissioner of health shall determine whether the applicant satisfies all of the criteria in this part.
Subp. 2. Medical care.
The applicant must provide medical care to uninsured persons, high risk and special needs populations, and underserved and other special needs populations as follows:
A. the applicant must have sufficient personnel and facilities to provide timely medical care to its clients, consistent with community norms;
B. the applicant must have appointment scheduling guidelines that fall within community norms;
C. average waiting times must fall within community norms; and
D. the applicant must monitor appointment scheduling and waiting times and takes corrective action if times do not fall within community norms.
Subp. 3. Supportive and stabilizing services.
The applicant must provide or coordinate the provision of supportive and stabilizing services for uninsured persons, high risk and special needs populations, and underserved and other special needs populations in a manner that is appropriate to the populations served by the applicant as identified in the application and to the geographic area served by the applicant and must include the criteria in items A to D. If the applicant provides related services other than those listed, or if the service is not appropriate for the applicant to provide, the applicant shall report this, and provide an explanation, to the commissioner.
A. The applicant must provide at least one of the following transportation services:
B. The applicant must provide at least one of the following child care services:
C. The applicant must provide at least one of the following linguistic services:
D. The applicant must provide at least one of the following culturally sensitive and competent services options:
Subp. 4. Integration of supportive and stabilizing services with medical care.
The applicant must have developed and implemented a plan to identify the need for supportive and stabilizing services and to enable clients to access these services as available and appropriate in a timely manner.
Subp. 5. Fees.
Only nonprofit entities are required to utilize a sliding fee schedule. The applicant's sliding fee schedule must meet all of the following criteria:
A. it has been adopted by the applicant's governing body;
B. it is based on current federal poverty level guidelines and family size;
C. the applicant informs its clients of the availability of the sliding fee schedule; and
D. free care is available as needed in specific instances.
Subp. 6. Services provided.
The applicant must list the medical services it provides by CPT 95 codes or groups of CPT 95 codes.
Subp. 7. Basis for ECP designation.
The applicant must provide evidence that it satisfies the criteria under Minnesota Statutes, section 62Q.19, subdivision 1.
Subp. 8. Federal qualification.
An applicant that has been designated a federally qualified health center or a rural health clinic under applicable federal regulations may attach a copy of the information it provided to the federal agency that addresses any of the information required under subparts 2 to 7, and so indicate in the ECP application.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62Q.19
- History: 21 SR 6
Minn. R. 4688.0050 Requirements for Contracts with Health Plan Companies
A health plan company that contracts with providers shall offer a provider contract to all designated ECPs located within the health plan company's approved service area. An ECP shall agree to serve, with or without a contract, all health plan companies within whose approved service area the ECP is located. The provider contract shall be the same or substantially similar to those offered to health plan providers who provide the same type or category of services, unless the parties mutually agree to a different contract. The provider contract shall include all of the services designated by the commissioner to the extent the services are covered under any health plan company certificate of coverage. Every provider contract between a designated ECP and a health maintenance organization or community integrated service network shall contain the provisions of Minnesota Statutes, section 62D.123. Designation of an applicant as an ECP shall not directly or indirectly require a health plan company to contract with a related organization that is affiliated with the designated ECP but is neither designated nor eligible for designation as an ECP. For the purposes of parts 4688.0001 to 4688.0160, "related organization" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 317A.011, subdivision 18.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62Q.19
- History: 21 SR 6; L 1997 c 225 art 2 s 62
Minn. R. 4688.0060 Refusal to Contract
A health plan company shall give written notice to the ECP of the basis for refusal to contract. A designated ECP that has been refused a provider contract may use the dispute resolution methods available under Minnesota Statutes, section 62Q.11.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62Q.19
- History: 21 SR 6
Minn. R. 4688.0070 Payment
The negotiated rate of payment between an ECP and a health plan company may be cost-based, fee-for-service, capitated, or other risk-sharing arrangement, unless the parties mutually agree to a different rate of payment. An ECP may be capitated only to the extent, and in the same manner, as other health plan company providers are capitated for the same or similar services. An ECP may file a complaint with the commissioner according to Minnesota Statutes, section 62Q.19, if it believes that the negotiated rate is not the same rate per unit of services as is paid to other health plan company providers for the same or similar services. An ECP that has been refused a provider contract because of inability to agree on the rate of payment may use the dispute resolution methods available under Minnesota Statutes, section 62Q.11.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62Q.19
- History: 21 SR 6
Minn. R. 4688.0080 Information to Enrollees
A health plan company shall inform its enrollees that designated ECPs are available to provide designated services to uninsured persons, high risk and special needs populations, and underserved and other special needs populations. The health plan company shall clearly inform enrollees how to access services at an ECP, including which services require prior authorization, and how to obtain prior authorization. Enrollees shall be provided with a toll-free telephone number to call the member services section of the health plan company with questions about access to ECPs.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62Q.19
- History: 21 SR 6
Minn. R. 4688.0090 Prior Authorization
A health plan company may require prior authorization for services provided by an ECP only to the same extent that it requires prior authorization for these services from other health plan providers. A health plan company shall not impose any additional or different prior authorization requirements or standards for services provided by an ECP than it does for the same services if provided by other health plan company providers.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62Q.19
- History: 21 SR 6
Minn. R. 4688.0100 Other Providers
A health plan company may make other providers available to its high risk and special needs populations, and underserved and other special needs populations, for any and all services provided by an ECP. Nothing in this chapter requires that high risk and special needs populations, and underserved and other special needs populations be served exclusively by designated ECPs.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62Q.19
- History: 21 SR 6
Minn. R. 4688.0110 Coverage
Designation of a service included in a contract between an ECP and a health plan company as an ECP service does not require a health plan company to cover that service. Designation of an entity as an ECP does not add benefits to an enrollee's certificate of coverage.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62Q.19
- History: 21 SR 6
Minn. R. 4688.0120 Conflict of Interest
A conflict of interest may arise when a local government unit owns a health plan and also owns and operates an ECP. In these circumstances, if an enrollee files a complaint against the health plan or the ECP, the local government unit shall:
A. fully disclose in writing to every complainant that the health plan and the ECP are both owned and operated by local government unit;
B. clearly explain in writing to every complainant that there is the potential for a conflict of interest when local government unit is both the provider and the contractor of the health service; and
C. offer every complainant the option of filing the complaint with the appropriate state agency rather than with the health plan.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62Q.19
- History: 21 SR 6
Minn. R. 4688.0130 Primary Care Clinic
An ECP may be designated a primary care clinic by a health plan company.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62Q.19
- History: 21 SR 6
Minn. R. 4688.0140 Restrictions on Services
Minnesota Statutes, section 62Q.14, applies to the extent an ECP provides the services designated in that statute.
If a health plan company has a contract with an ECP, it may impose copayments only to the same extent and in the same manner that it imposes copayments for these services from other plan providers.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62Q.19
- History: 21 SR 6
Minn. R. 4688.0150 Penalties
Upon being designated an ECP by the commissioner, the entity must continue to operate in compliance with the standards in this chapter and Minnesota Statutes, section 62Q.19.
Noncompliance may result in the imposition of a fine, or in suspension, modification, or revocation of the ECP designation in accordance with Minnesota Statutes, section 62Q.19.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62Q.19
- History: 21 SR 6
Minn. R. 4688.0160 Annual Reports
Every ECP shall file an annual report with the commissioner on or before April 15. Except as otherwise provided by this part, the report shall be on forms prescribed by the commissioner and shall include all of the following information:
A. verification of tax exempt status under Internal Revenue Code, section 501(c)(3), and Minnesota Statutes, chapter 317A, if appropriate;
B. a copy of the sliding fee schedule currently in effect, if appropriate;
C. transportation options currently available to clients, if appropriate;
D. child care options currently available to clients, if appropriate;
E. linguistic service options currently available to clients, if appropriate;
F. culturally sensitive and competent services currently available to clients, if appropriate;
G. medical services currently being provided reported by CPT 95 codes or groups of CPT 95 codes;
H. the number of clients served during the previous 12 months who were uninsured, members of high risk and special needs populations, and members of underserved and other special needs populations; and
I. any other information requested by the commissioner that is reasonably necessary to determine whether the entity continues to qualify for ECP designation. An ECP that is a community health board as defined in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 145A, may attach a copy of the documentation provided to the Department of Health in the annual report for community health boards, including the maternal child health report, that provides the information required under one or more of items A to I. The ECP must indicate in the ECP annual report that the community health board annual report is being submitted in full or partial satisfaction of the requirements of this part.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62Q.19
- History: 21 SR 6
Chapter 4692 HEARING AID SELLER PERMITS
Minn. R. 4692.0010 [Repealed, L 1995 c 164 s 35]
[Repealed, L 1995 c 164 s 35]
Minn. R. 4692.0015 [Repealed, L 1995 c 164 s 35]
[Repealed, L 1995 c 164 s 35]
Minn. R. 4692.0020 [Repealed, L 1995 c 164 s 35]
[Repealed, L 1995 c 164 s 35]
Minn. R. 4692.0025 [Repealed, L 1995 c 164 s 35]
[Repealed, L 1995 c 164 s 35]
Minn. R. 4692.0030 [Repealed, L 1995 c 164 s 35]
[Repealed, L 1995 c 164 s 35]
Minn. R. 4692.0035 [Repealed, L 1995 c 164 s 35]
[Repealed, L 1995 c 164 s 35]
Minn. R. 4692.0040 [Repealed, L 1995 c 164 s 35]
[Repealed, L 1995 c 164 s 35]
Minn. R. 4692.0045 [Repealed, L 1995 c 164 s 35]
[Repealed, L 1995 c 164 s 35]
Chapter 4695 HUMAN RESOURCES
Minn. R. 4695.0100 Definitions
Subpart 1. Scope.
For the purposes of parts 4695.0100 to 4695.0400 the words, terms, and phrases listed in subparts 2 to 15 shall have the meaning stated herein, unless the language or context clearly indicates that a different meaning is intended.
Subp. 2. Boards.
"Boards" means the health-related licensing boards as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 214.01, subdivision 2.
Subp. 3. Commissioner.
"Commissioner" means the commissioner of health.
Subp. 4. Form of employment.
"Form of employment" means whether self-employed, working as employee, or other.
Subp. 5. Individual.
"Individual" means a natural person.
Subp. 6. Licensed.
"Licensed" means the state government regulation of an occupation as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 214.001, subdivision 3, clause (d).
Subp. 7. Licensure or registration status.
"Licensure or registration status" means the status of the individual license or registration as active or inactive under the regulatory authority of the commissioner or the boards. An active status means the individual is duly authorized to engage in the practice of activities for which he or she is licensed or registered. An inactive licensure or registration status means that the license or registration is not in effect.
Subp. 8. Locality.
"Locality" means city, state or foreign country, county, and zip code.
Subp. 9. Occupation.
"Occupation" means the health-related occupation for which an individual is licensed or registered by the commissioner or a board.
Subp. 10. Occupational specialty.
"Occupational specialty" means the area emphasized, such as clinical, teaching, or specialty practice, in the activities the licensee or registrant performs in the health-related occupation for which he or she is licensed or registered.
Subp. 11. Permanent license or registration number.
"Permanent license or registration number" means the number assigned to each licensee or registrant by the commissioner or a board upon initial licensure or registration and retained by the licensee or registrant over the period of his/her licensure or registration. The permanent number may differ from a number the individual may receive upon periodic renewal of his/her license or registration.
Subp. 12. Professional activity status.
"Professional activity status" means the licensee's or registrant's participation or potential participation in the practice of activities in the occupation for which he/she is licensed or registered. The individual's activity status may be identified as either active or inactive. If active, the extent to which the licensee or registrant is active is indicated by factors such as the duration over time of work in the occupation, whether currently working in the occupation, and by the average numbers of hours worked per week. If inactive, the potential for participation in the occupational labor force is indicated by the licensee's or registrant's status as retired, working in another occupation, disabled, or other employment statuses such as unemployed but seeking employment in the health-related occupation for which the individual is licensed or registered.
Subp. 13. Professional title.
"Professional title" means the title which designates the position held by a licensee or registrant in his/her work setting in the health-related occupation for which he/she is licensed or registered.
Subp. 14. Registered.
"Registered" means the state government regulation of an occupation as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 214.001, subdivision 3, clause (c).
Subp. 15. Type of setting.
"Type of setting" means the physical environment which may be institutional, such as a hospital, or noninstitutional, such as the patients' homes, in which the individual engages in the occupation for which he or she is licensed or registered.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.691
Minn. R. 4695.0200 Authority and Purpose
Parts 4695.0100 to 4695.0400 have been developed as required by Minnesota Statutes, sections 14.06, 144.05, 144.051, and 144.052. Parts 4695.0100 to 4695.0400 pertain to:
A. the types of information relating to numbers, distribution, and characteristics of health-related staffing which the commissioner of health deems necessary to collect as specified in parts 4695.0100 to 4695.0400 from individuals licensed or registered by the commissioner or the boards for the purpose of establishing an adequate information resource at the state level for making informed and reasonable decisions pertaining to health staffing; and
B. the forms which shall be used to collect the information.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.691
- History: 17 SR 1279
Minn. R. 4695.0300 Types of Information
Subpart 1. Information from licensed or registered individuals.
Individuals who are licensed or registered by the commissioner or the boards shall submit to the commissioner, on forms provided by him/her, the following types of information:
A. permanent license or registration number;
B. locality of principal residence;
C. educational background which shall include:
D. professional activity status in the occupation which shall include:
E. locality where currently working in the occupation;
F. type of setting where currently working in the occupation;
G. category of current form of employment in the occupation;
H. occupational specialty;
I. current active licensure or registration held in other states.
Subp. 2. Information from licensees of registrants in occupations.
The following types of information shall be collected only from the licensees or registrants in occupations for which the information is applicable given the practice characteristics of the occupation:
A. the approximate number of patients treated in the course of the licensee's or registrant's currently active practice during a specified period;
B. the range of employment of auxiliary personnel in the practice setting; and
C. professional title of licensee or registrant.
Subp. 3. Out-of-state registrants or licensees.
The commissioner may at the commissioner's option reduce the types of information for which responses are requested from licensees and registrants residing and practicing out-of-state.
Subp. 4. Additional information.
In addition to the types of information listed in parts 4695.0100 to 4695.0400, name, current (mailing) address, licensure or registration status (at the time of data collection), birth date, sex, professional activity status, and educational background shall be included in the required information, as specified in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.052, subdivision 1.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 214.13
- History: 10 SR 1908; 17 SR 1279
Minn. R. 4695.0400 Types of Forms for Collection of Information
Subpart 1. Forms.
Information shall be collected on forms designed by the commissioner which shall contain statements of the statutory authority for collecting the information and of the data classification as classified pursuant to the Minnesota Government Data Practices Act. Whenever a survey form is sent to licensees or registrants in the same envelope as their license or registration renewal application, a statement will be added to the form to the effect that the survey is independent of licensure or registration renewal and that responses to the survey will have no bearing on license or registration renewal. The exact form and wording of the questions may vary depending upon the specific occupation surveyed so that the questions will be specific and relevant to the characteristics of each occupation; and may change in form and wording over time so that a question can be classified or its emphasis modified.
Subp. 2. Additional information.
When resources available to the commissioner permit, the form may include questions in addition to the types of information specified in part 4695.0300, subparts 1 and 2. Such questions may solicit:
A. Information sought by the commissioner for the purpose of making decisions pertaining to health staffing, but to be provided by the licensee or registrant on a voluntary basis.
B. Information sought by parties other than the commissioner for purposes of making decisions pertaining to health staffing. In these instances:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.691
- History: 17 SR 1279
Minn. R. 4695.0500 Procedures for Determining Regulations of Human Service Occupations
Parts 4695.0500 to 4695.1600 establish the process to be used by the commissioner of health and the Human Services Occupations Advisory Council in carrying out the charges of Minnesota Statutes, sections 214.001, 214.13, and 214.141. They specify the procedures by which human services occupations are identified and decisions are made regarding the state's need to regulate persons in specific occupations. Parts 4695.0500 to 4695.1600 apply to all human services occupations that are not now credentialed by the state.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 214.13
Minn. R. 4695.0600 Definitions
Subpart 1. Scope.
For the purposes of parts 4695.0500 to 4695.1600, the words, terms, and phrases listed in subparts 2 to 21 shall have the meaning stated herein, unless the language or context clearly indicates that a different meaning is intended.
Subp. 2. Administrative authority.
"Administrative authority" means the state agency responsible for administering the law and rules establishing a credential for a human services occupation.
Subp. 3. Applicant group.
"Applicant group" means an occupational group that has submitted a letter of intent to begin the regulatory process.
Subp. 4. Career progression.
"Career progression" means opportunity to move up a career ladder or enter a related profession without loss of credit for previous education and experience.
Subp. 5. Commissioner.
"Commissioner" means the commissioner of health.
Subp. 6. Competence.
"Competence" means possession of requisite abilities to fulfill work obligations.
Subp. 7. Conflict of interest.
"Conflict of interest" means:
A. a direct or indirect financial or self-serving interest in the matter under consideration so that the member is not so free from personal bias, prejudice, or preconceived notion as to make it possible for the member to consider objectively the evidence presented and base a decision solely on such evidence;
B. circumstances such that a member finds it difficult, if not impossible to devote himself or herself to a consideration of the matter with complete energy, loyalty, and singleness of purpose to the general public interest.
Subp. 8. Continuing education.
"Continuing education" means education or training beyond the individual's precredentialing preparation for an occupation.
Subp. 9. Council.
"Council" means the Human Services Occupations Advisory Council.
Subp. 10. Credentialing.
"Credentialing" means licensure or registration and the process by which they are obtained and administered.
Subp. 11. Department.
"Department" means Minnesota Department of Health.
Subp. 12. Function.
"Function" means a special task, duty, or performance required in the course of work or activity.
Subp. 13. Functional differentiation.
"Functional differentiation" means those functions carried out by a particular occupational group that distinguish that group from others.
Subp. 14. Human services occupations.
"Human services occupations" means an occupation whose principal functions are performed customarily for remuneration on behalf of individuals, families, or groups to assist in achieving:
A. optimal economic security through the provision of employment services, income security services, and income maintenance and ancillary supportive services;
B. optimal health through the provision of maintenance, diagnostic, treatment, and ancillary supportive services in the area of physical health, environmental health, mental health, and developmental disabilities;
C. optimal knowledge and skills through the provision of formal educational services, supplementary educational services, and ancillary supportive services; or
D. optimal social functioning through the provision of social adjustment services, social development services, protective services, correctional services, services to victims of abuse, neglect, exploitation or crime, and ancillary supportive services.
Subp. 15. Letter of intent.
"Letter of intent" means an applicant group's written expression of aim to pursue regulation.
Subp. 16. Licensure.
"Licensure" means a system whereby a practitioner must receive recognition by the state that he or she has met predetermined qualifications, and persons not so licensed are prohibited from practicing.
Subp. 17. Not now credentialed.
"Not now credentialed" means those occupations whose members are not currently licensed or registered by the state and those occupations whose members are currently licensed or registered by the state but who seek to expand or specialize their functions within that licensed or registered occupation such that the group members seek further state recognition by new, expanded, or specialty licensure or registration.
Subp. 18. Occupational group.
"Occupational group" means human service workers who have common occupational functions.
Subp. 19. Public forum.
"Public forum" means public meeting(s) called to obtain comments on an applicant group's questionnaire. The meeting is open to the public, but it is not a hearing and does not require the hearings notification procedures called for by Minnesota Statutes.
Subp. 20. Questionnaire.
"Questionnaire" means document designed to provide information about an occupational group for purposes of aiding in making a regulatory determination.
Subp. 21. Registration.
"Registration" means a system whereby practitioners who will be the only persons permitted to use a designated title are listed on an official roster after having met predetermined qualifications.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 214.13
Minn. R. 4695.0700 Prohibition
A council member may not be appointed to a subcommittee, may not participate in subcommittee or council discussions, and may not vote on any matter in which he or she has a conflict of interest.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 214.13
Minn. R. 4695.0800 Factors for Determining the Necessity of Regulation
Subpart 1. Consideration of factors.
In the review of an applicant group questionnaire, the subcommittee, council, and commissioner shall base their recommendation or decision as to whether or not the applicant group shall be regulated upon the factors contained in Minnesota Statutes, section 214.001, subdivision 2.
Subp. 2. Factor of unregulated practice.
In applying the factor of whether the unregulated practice of an occupation may harm or endanger the health, safety, and welfare of citizens of the state and whether the potential for harm is recognizable and not remote, at a minimum the relevance of the following shall be considered:
A. harm shall be construed to be a condition representative of physical, emotional, mental, social, financial, or intellectual impairment resulting from the functions rendered or failed to be rendered by the applicant group;
B. potential for harm may be recognizable when evidenced by at least one or more of the following: expert testimony; client, consumer, or patient testimony; research findings; legal precedents, financial awards, or judicial rulings;
C. potential for harm may be recognizable when evidenced by at least one or more of the following characteristics of the applicant group;
D. potential for harm may be remote when evidenced by at least one or more of the following: infrequent or rare instances of impairment; impairment which is minor in nature; or secondary or tertiary effects of the applicant group's function.
Subp. 3. Occupation requiring special skill factor.
In applying the factor of whether the practice of an occupation requires specialized skill or training and whether the public needs and will benefit by assurances of initial and continuing occupational ability, the existence of the following items shall be considered as indicating that specialized skill or training or their continuation is required:
A. that the functions performed by the practitioner are several and their performance necessitates a thorough understanding of the complex relationship between those functions;
B. that the one or more functions performed by the practitioner requires a detailed understanding of the specific components of the function and the relationship between the functions and the symptoms, problem, or condition that function is intended to address or ameliorate;
C. that the absence of specialized skill or training is likely to increase the incidence and/or degree of harm as defined in subpart 2 to the consumer as client; and
D. that there occur frequent or major changes in areas of skilled knowledge and technique of which the practitioner must keep informed in order to meet current standards.
Subp. 4. Factor of more effective means.
In applying the factor of whether the citizens of this state are or may be effectively protected by other means, at a minimum the relevance of the following shall be considered:
A. Indicators of protection by other means shall include but not be limited to:
B. Indicators of protection by other means shall be assessed and evaluated at least in view of the extent to which they:
Subp. 5. Overall cost-effectiveness and economic impact.
In determining whether the overall cost-effectiveness and economic impact would be positive for citizens of the state, the following shall be considered:
A. Positive cost-effectiveness and economic impact results where the benefits expected to accrue to the public from a decision to regulate an occupation are greater than the costs resulting from that decision.
B. Cost-effectiveness and economic impact can be evaluated through consideration of the following factors:
Subp. 6. Nonlimiting guidelines.
Subparts 2 to 5 shall be considered nonlimiting guidelines to be used in applying the statutory factors contained in Minnesota Statutes, section 214.001, subdivision 2. Additional elements may be considered if necessary to permit a thorough review and evaluation of an applicant group questionnaire in light of the statutory factors; provided, however, that the additional elements shall be identified during the course of the review and evaluation process, all interested persons given the opportunity to comment thereon, and shall be specifically addressed in the commissioner's written decision required by part 4695.1500.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 214.13
- History: 10 SR 1908
Minn. R. 4695.0900 Applicant Initiated Identification
Subpart 1. Letter of intent and questionnaire.
The applicant group shall submit a letter of intent to the commissioner. Upon receipt of the letter of intent the commissioner shall send these rules and a questionnaire to the applicant group.
Subp. 2. Submission of questionnaire.
The applicant group shall submit the completed questionnaire to the commissioner within six months or shall make a written request for an extension of the time period. Failure to comply with either of those conditions during the six-month period voids the original letter of intent and discontinues the regulatory decision process. The applicant group shall submit a new letter of intent if it desires to pursue regulation.
Subp. 3. Transfer of questionnaire to council.
When the questionnaire is deemed complete by the department, the commissioner shall transmit the questionnaire to the council. If the department deems the questionnaire to be incomplete, it shall return the questionnaire to the applicant group with a report describing the deficiencies. If the applicant group considers the questionnaire to be complete, it may request that the questionnaire be submitted to the commissioner to determine whether the questionnaire contains adequate data for the commissioner to commence the process. Nothing in parts 4695.0500 to 4695.1600 shall prevent the department from informally assisting the applicant group in the completion of the questionnaire.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 214.13
Minn. R. 4695.1000 Commissioner-Initiated Identification
Subpart 1. Determination by commissioner of need for regulation.
When the commissioner, council, other groups, or individuals have reasons to suspect that an occupational group exists or is emerging but has not applied for credentialing and the question of regulation should be addressed the commissioner shall determine whether the need to regulate the group should be investigated. The determination shall be based upon evidence that raises the question of the need for occupational regulation. Such evidence may be derived from sources that include, but are not limited to court decisions, data collected by state and national regulatory agencies, federal law or rule, and information submitted by legislators, government or private agencies, or the public.
Subp. 2. Collection of data.
The commissioner may direct staff to collect data substantially equivalent to that on the questionnaire for evaluation in the manner specified in parts 4695.1300 to 4695.1600.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 214.13
Minn. R. 4695.1100 Contents of Questionnaire
The questionnaire shall direct an applicant group to submit information related to the following matters:
A. evidence that an applicant group claiming to speak for an occupational group represents a significant portion of an occupational group and that other organizations representing members of that occupational group have been identified;
B. evidence that the occupational group meets the regulatory factors contained in Minnesota Statutes, section 214.001, subdivision 2; and
C. such other and additional information or evidence consistent with the provisions of applicable statute and these rules as well as information necessary to clarify matters already contained in the application. Such information shall be requested for the sole purpose of enabling the commissioner to fairly, adequately, and completely evaluate the applicant questionnaire to determine whether an occupational group should be regulated, and if an occupational group is credentialed, under which administrative authority it will be regulated. The commissioner may suspend or terminate the regulatory decision process for failure to supply the information requested.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 214.13
Minn. R. 4695.1200 Questionnaire Processing Priorities
The commissioner may determine the priority for processing questionnaires. The priority of an applicant group will be based on evidence available in the questionnaire, particularly that relating to the potential harm to the public that the continued practice of the unregulated group may cause. After a determination of priority for entering the regulatory decision process has been made, the commissioner shall take the actions listed in parts 4695.1300 to 4695.1600.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 214.13
Minn. R. 4695.1300 Delayed Consideration
The commissioner shall proceed to notify the applicant group of the date at which its application might reasonably expect to be considered under parts 4695.1400 and 4695.1500. The notification will include the reasons for the delayed consideration.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 214.13
Minn. R. 4695.1400 Immediate Consideration
Subpart 1. Appointment of subcommittee.
When a questionnaire is received by the council, the chair of the council shall appoint a subcommittee of at least five members, none of whom shall have a conflict of interest, and shall name one of the members as subcommittee chair. Insofar as possible the subcommittee shall be broadly representative of the council.
Subp. 2. Subcommittee procedures.
The subcommittee will meet to study the questionnaire as it addresses the factors contained in Minnesota Statutes, section 214.001, subdivision 2, and materials available to the subcommittee and to raise any questions members feel ought to be addressed either in subcommittee meetings or at the public forum. All written material related to the regulatory decision for an occupational group will be available as part of a public file retained at the Minnesota Department of Health and other locations the commissioner deems appropriate.
Subp. 3. Public forum.
The subcommittee shall hold at least one public forum for the purpose of providing for public participation in the regulatory decision process, collecting information, raising and clarifying issues, and when possible, providing for the negotiation of differences. The first public forum shall be held within four months of the subcommittee appointments. The public forum shall be open to all persons.
Notification of the public forum shall be made in the following manner. All groups and persons identified by name as part of the occupational group by the questionnaire and through department study will be notified by mail. A news release will be sent out by the commissioner. Notice will be published in the department's monthly listing of health-related meetings. Notice will be sent to the public information offices of the Department of Corrections and the Department of Human Services for inclusion in any bulletins they use for public notification of meetings. Notice will be published in the State Register.
The conduct of the public forum(s) will be in accordance with procedures adopted by the council and available in writing to the public at the public forum. All interested persons will be given an opportunity to make a presentation although time limits may be imposed.
Subp. 4. Subcommittee recommendations.
The subcommittee shall make recommendations to the council with respect to: the need for regulation, the type of regulation, whether any recommended credential be licensure or registration and the administrative authority for any recommended credential. The department shall also make separate recommendations which accompany those of the subcommittee. Each recommendation shall be accompanied by the rational/justification used in arriving at the decision. Regulation of an occupational group shall be based on the factors contained in Minnesota Statutes, section 214.001, subdivision 2.
Subp. 5. Council action.
The council will review the subcommittee recommendation and approve or modify it as necessary. A council final report and recommendations, along with supporting documents, will be sent to the commissioner for action. The department report and recommendations, with supporting documents, will accompany the council report.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 214.13
- History: L 1984 c 654 art 5 s 58; 17 SR 1279
Minn. R. 4695.1500 Commissioner Actions
Subpart 1. Commissioner actions.
The commissioner, upon review of the council report and recommendations, will take one of the actions listed below. The commissioner's action will be accompanied by a report giving the reason for the decision. Notification of the action will be made in the same manner as that of the public forum as called for in part 4695.1400, subpart 3.
Subp. 2. Registration with existing licensing board.
If the commissioner determines that an occupational group shall be credentialed by registration with an existing health-related licensing board acting as the administrative authority, the commissioner will establish procedures and adopt rules in cooperation with the identified board. The rules shall include, if appropriate, but not be limited to the following:
A. functional differentiation of the group;
B. qualifications for registration for all entry routes;
C. requirements for different levels of registered titles corresponding to steps in the occupation's career progression;
D. organizational structure of any advisory councils to the administrative authority;
E. procedures for registration;
F. requirements for registration renewal, including but not limited to provisions attempting to assure continued competency;
G. disciplinary procedures;
H. fee setting for initial application for registration and for renewal application; and
I. such other information that the commissioner deems necessary for the regulation of the occupational group.
Subp. 3. Registration with existing licensing board, commissioner, or new licensing board.
If the commissioner determines that an occupational group should be credentialed by licensure, with either an existing health related licensing board, the commissioner, or a new and separate licensing board, acting as administrative authority, the commissioner shall promptly so report to the legislature.
Subp. 4. Registration with the commissioner.
If the commissioner determines that an occupational group shall be regulated by registration, with the commissioner acting as administrative authority, the commissioner shall establish procedures and adopt rules to implement the decision. The rules will include, if appropriate, but not be limited to, the items contained in subpart 2, items A to I.
Subp. 5. Regulation under Minnesota Statutes.
If the commissioner determines that an occupational group should be regulated pursuant to Minnesota Statutes, section 214.001, subdivision 3, clause (a), (b), or (d) or any combination thereof or in combination with credentialing under parts 4695.0500 to 4695.1600, the commissioner shall promptly so report to the legislature.
Subp. 6. No regulation.
If the commissioner determines that regulating the occupational group is not in the public interest, the applicant group (if the application was initiated by the group) or the council (if the application was initiated by the commissioner) shall be so notified.
Subp. 7. Further study required.
If the commissioner determines that further study of the occupational group is required, the commissioner shall refer the recommendation back to the council for further study in accordance with the commissioner's instructions. The instructions shall include a specified time in which to complete this study. Extensions of time may be granted if needed to complete adequately the further study.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 214.13
Minn. R. 4695.1600 Reconsideration Process
Subpart 1. Request for reconsideration.
If an interested person or the applicant group is dissatisfied with the decision of the commissioner, the person or applicant group may request, within 60 days of notification of that decision, that the commissioner reconsider the application. The person or applicant group shall submit in writing, along with the request for reconsideration, arguments detailing why the decision of the commissioner was not supported by the evidence presented or why new or changed evidence does not support the earlier decision of the commissioner.
Subp. 2. Commissioner action.
The commissioner may reconsider the regulatory decisions or remand them, along with all reports, recommendations, and supporting documents to the council. If the matter is remanded, the council shall reconsider the application and recommend either no change or appropriate changes to the commissioner. The council may refer the matter to the subcommittee which initially considered the application. The recommendation of the council shall include substantiating documentation. Reconsideration by the council may include new public forums if new or changed evidence warrants it.
Subp. 3. Notice of result.
The commissioner shall notify the person or applicant group of the results of the request to reconsider the regulatory decisions.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 214.13
Minn. R. 4695.2500 Registration of Environmental Health Specialists/Sanitarians
The purpose of parts 4695.2500 to 4695.3200 is to establish the administrative structure, the procedures, and the requirements for the registration of those persons who are qualified to present themselves as environmental health specialists/sanitarians.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 214.13
Minn. R. 4695.2600 Definitions
Subpart 1. Scope.
For the purposes of parts 4695.2500 to 4695.3200, the words, terms, and phrases listed in subparts 2 to 9 shall have the meaning stated herein, unless the language and context clearly indicates that a different meaning is intended.
Subp. 2. Acceptable continuing education activity.
"Acceptable continuing education activity" means a learning experience in which a registrant has participated, evidence of which he/she submits to the council as part of the application for registration renewal, and which meets the requirements stated in parts 4695.2500 to 4695.3200.
Subp. 3. Applicant.
"Applicant" means a person who applies pursuant to parts 4695.2500 to 4695.3200, either initially or on a renewal basis, to be registered as an environmental health specialist or sanitarian.
Subp. 4. Commissioner.
"Commissioner" means commissioner of health.
Subp. 5. Contact hour.
"Contact hour" means an instructional session of 50 consecutive minutes excluding coffee breaks, registration, meals (with or without speaker), or other social activities.
Subp. 6. Council.
"Council" means environmental health specialists/sanitarians advisory council as referenced in parts 4695.3100 and 4695.3200.
Subp. 7. Environmental health specialist/sanitarian.
"Environmental health specialist/sanitarian" means a person registered pursuant to these rules to plan, organize, manage, implement, and evaluate one or more program areas comprising the field of environmental health. Environmental program areas include but are not limited to: food, beverage, and lodging sanitation; housing; refuse disposal; water supply sanitation; rodent, insect, and vermin control; accident prevention; swimming pool and public bathing facility sanitation; radiation safety; air and water quality, noise pollution, and institutional and industrial hygiene. Implementation includes community education, investigation, consultation, review of construction plans, collection of samples and interpretation of laboratory data, enforcement actions, review and recommendation of policy and/or regulation.
Subp. 8. Registration.
"Registration" or "registered" means that an applicant has been found by the commissioner to meet the qualifications specified in parts 4695.2500 to 4695.3200 to protect environmental health. Only persons so registered are permitted to use the designated titles of "environmental health specialist" or "sanitarian" or the initials "R.S."
Subp. 9. Registration examination.
"Registration examination" means the examination approved by the commissioner and administered by the commissioner or the commissioner's designated agent. For approval the examination must meet the following criteria:
A. the examination has been validated by a content validity study which consists of data showing that the examination covers a representative sample of the job tasks, work behaviors, performance skills to be performed on the job for which the applicant is to be evaluated; and/or
B. the examination has been validated by a criterion related validity study which consists of empirical data demonstrating that the selection procedure is predictive of, or significantly correlated with, job performance and which has a validity coefficient significant at the .05 level of significance; and
C. validity studies are based upon a review of information about the job for which the examination is to be used, which shall include but is not limited to an analysis of job tasks, work behaviors, or performance skills that are relevant to the job; and
D. job tasks, work behaviors, or performance skills used as a basis for test developments and validity studies must include but are not limited to the knowledge areas in the definition of environmental health specialist/sanitarian as outlined in subpart 7; and
E. the examination has been determined to be reliable utilizing the parallel forms or internal consistency methods of estimating reliability and the reliability coefficient is no less than .70; and
F. the examination is revised or a new form is issued when technical advances in the field indicate the examination should be updated to acknowledge related changes in the definition of environmental health specialist/sanitarian as outlined in subpart 7. The commissioner may adopt for use at the commissioner's discretion any standardized national test which meets these criteria.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 214.13
- History: 17 SR 1279
Minn. R. 4695.2700 Initial Registration
Subpart 1. Application.
All applicants for initial registration shall submit an application on a form to be prepared by the commissioner and fees as prescribed in part 4695.2900. The information requested by the commissioner on the application shall be such so as to permit a complete evaluation of each applicant to determine whether the applicant meets the requirements for registration as specified in these rules and any applicable statutes. To clarify incomplete or ambiguous information presented in the application, the commissioner may request an applicant to submit additional information as may be necessary to determine the applicant's qualifications. In order to be registered, an applicant shall provide:
A. Evidence of receiving a baccalaureate or postbaccalaureate degree in environmental health, sanitary science, sanitary engineering, or other related environmental health field which includes at least 30 semester or 45 quarter hour credits in the physical or biological sciences.
B. Evidence of at least one year of supervised employment in one or more of the program areas listed in part 4695.2600, subpart 7, definition of "environmental health specialist/sanitarian." Supervision shall be provided by an environmental health specialist or a sanitarian or a licensed health professional, or an engineer or other professional with a graduate degree in one of the physical or biological sciences, or other person whom the commissioner deems has equivalent environmental health background.
C. Evidence of passing the registration examination.
Subp. 2. Applicants without a baccalaureate.
For a period of six months following August 1, 1979, an applicant may be registered without having received a baccalaureate or higher degree as provided in subpart 1 if the applicant:
A. submits evidence of experience in one or more of the program areas listed in part 4695.2600, subpart 7, definition of an "environmental health specialist" or "sanitarian" for at least the five years immediately preceding his/her application;
B. submits a statement of satisfactory employment by the employer or supervisor which indicates that the applicant has performed competently in one or more of the program areas listed in the definition of environmental health specialist/sanitarian;
C. submits evidence of having passed a civil service or other qualifying exam for a job classification of "environmental health specialist" or "sanitarian" or inspector or public health officer or engineer or other similar equivalent job title classification or of having successfully completed the registration exam.
Subp. 3. Examination retakes.
No applicant shall make more than two attempts within any 12-month period to successfully complete the registration examination.
Subp. 4. Applicants licensed outside Minnesota.
Persons who have attained a registration or license outside of Minnesota may be entitled to registration in Minnesota if they can provide evidence of meeting the requirements set forth in subpart 1, items A to C.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 214.13
Minn. R. 4695.2800 Renewal Registration
Subpart 1. Expiration and renewal.
An applicant's registration shall expire biennially on his/her birthday unless it is renewed. Each applicant shall be required to renew his/her registration every two years except that following the initial registration date, an applicant shall renew his/her registration no less than 24 months and no more than 36 months if he/she is registered for the first time on a date other than his/her birthday. Every applicant shall submit a completed registration renewal application, on a form provided by the commissioner together with the renewal fee for the biennium or part thereof. The information requested by the commissioner on the registration renewal application shall be such so as to permit a complete evaluation of each application to determine whether the applicant meets the requirements for registration renewal as specified in these rules and any applicable statutes. To clarify incomplete or ambiguous information presented in the application, the commissioner or the commissioner's agent may request an applicant to submit additional information as may be necessary to determine the applicant's qualifications for renewal. Applications submitted after the applicant's birthday must be accompanied by the late fee of $10 together with all other information required by parts 4695.2500 to 4695.3200.
Subp. 2. Continuing education.
For registration renewal, each registrant shall submit evidence of successful completion of 24 contact hours of acceptable continuing education activities the content of which is related to one or more of the environmental program areas contained in part 4695.2600, subpart 7.
Subp. 3. Criteria for continuing education.
A continued education activity must meet the following criteria in order for credit to be given:
A. It must have a specific, written objective(s) which describe expected outcomes for the participant.
B. It must be presented by knowledgeable person(s) who have reviewed the development in the subject being covered in the program within the last two years. His/her qualifications must be documented by one of the following: specialized training in the subject matter; experience in teaching the subject matter; experience in working in the subject areas.
C. It must last at least one contact hour.
D. It must have stated in written form what mechanism was utilized to demonstrate whether or not learning did occur. The mechanism may include, but is not limited to, a successfully completed written test or a performance component.
E. It must utilize a mechanism to validate participation. This may include, but is not limited to, earned credits and/or verification of attendance. Program sponsors shall maintain attendance sheets for three years.
Subp. 4. Council review of compliance with renewal requirements.
The council shall review the submitted evidence and decide if the evidence demonstrates that the registrant has complied with the renewal requirements set forth in subparts 2 and 3. If the council decides that the evidence demonstrates that the registrant has so complied, the council will recommend to the commissioner that the registrant's continuing education activities should be accepted.
If the council decides that the evidence does not demonstrate that the registrant has complied with subparts 2 and 3, the council will so inform the applicant who will then have an opportunity to submit additional evidence, decide if it demonstrates that the registrant has complied with subparts 2 and 3, and recommend to the commissioner that the registrant's continuing education activities should or should not be accepted. The commissioner will then make the final decision regarding the acceptability of the registrant's continuing education activities.
Subp. 5. Expiration for more than two years.
Applicants who have permitted their registrations to expire for more than two years may regain their registration when they successfully complete the registration examination, complete continuing education requirements, and submit the required renewal forms and fees.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 214.13
- History: 17 SR 1279
Minn. R. 4695.2900 [Repealed, L 2025 1Sp3 art 1 s 99]
[Repealed, L 2025 1Sp3 art 1 s 99]
Minn. R. 4695.3000 Disciplinary Actions
Subpart 1. Investigation upon complaint.
Upon receipt of a complaint or other communication, whether oral or written, which alleges or implies the existence of a ground for denial of registration or disciplinary action as specified in subpart 2 the commissioner or council may initiate an investigation.
Prior to any disciplinary action a written complaint shall be obtained from a complaining party. In so doing, the council may request the registrant to appear before them to determine the merits of the situation in question. In each case, the council shall make a recommendation to the commissioner as to whether proceedings under the Administrative Procedure Act would be appropriate and should be initiated.
Subp. 2. Refusal to grant or renew registration.
The commissioner may refuse to grant or renew a registration, suspend or revoke a registration, or use any reasonable lesser remedy against a registrant for any of the following reasons:
A. submission of false or misleading information or credentials in order to obtain or renew registration;
B. failure to meet the requirements for initial or renewal registration; or
C. incompetency, negligence, or inappropriate conduct in the performance or environmental health duties or related functions.
Subp. 3. Compliance with the Administrative Procedure Act.
Disciplinary actions shall comply with the provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act, Minnesota Statutes, chapter 14.
Subp. 4. Revocation or suspension.
Upon revocation or suspension, the registrant shall return to the commissioner his/her registration and current renewal certificates.
Subp. 5. Reregistration after revocation.
A registrant who has had his/her registration revoked shall not be entitled to apply for reregistration until at least one year following the effective date of the revocation or such longer period of time specified by the commissioner.
Subp. 6. Reinstatement.
A suspended registration may be reinstated upon fulfillment of the terms of suspension; provided, however, that all requirements of the rules for registration renewal, if applicable, shall be met prior to reinstatement.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 214.13
Minn. R. 4695.3100 Membership
The council shall consist of seven members appointed by the commissioner as follows:
A. two public members as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 214.02;
B. one educator or a representative from a regulated industry for which environmental health specialists/sanitarians are charged with enforcement of the regulation;
C. four environmental health specialists/sanitarians representative of county, municipal, and state agencies which reflect the distribution of environmental health specialists/sanitarians among these employers at the time of appointment.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 214.13
Minn. R. 4695.3200 Organization, Duties, and Responsibilities
The council shall be organized and administered under the provisions of Minnesota Statutes, section 15.059, and the commissioner's policies relating to advisory councils. The council shall:
A. advise the commissioner regarding environmental health specialist/sanitarian registration standards;
B. advise the commissioner on enforcement of the environmental health specialist/sanitarian rules;
C. provide for the dissemination of information regarding environmental health specialist/sanitarian registration standards; and
D. review applications and recommend applicants for registration or registration renewal.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 214.13
Chapter 4700 COMMUNITY HEALTH SERVICES
Minn. R. 4700.0100 [Repealed, 18 SR 2044]
[Repealed, 18 SR 2044]
Minn. R. 4700.0200 [Repealed, 18 SR 2044]
[Repealed, 18 SR 2044]
Minn. R. 4700.0300 [Repealed, 18 SR 2044]
[Repealed, 18 SR 2044]
Minn. R. 4700.0400 [Repealed, 18 SR 2044]
[Repealed, 18 SR 2044]
Minn. R. 4700.0500 [Repealed, 18 SR 2044]
[Repealed, 18 SR 2044]
Minn. R. 4700.0600 [Repealed, 18 SR 2044]
[Repealed, 18 SR 2044]
Minn. R. 4700.0700 [Repealed, 18 SR 2044]
[Repealed, 18 SR 2044]
Minn. R. 4700.0800 [Repealed, 18 SR 2044]
[Repealed, 18 SR 2044]
Minn. R. 4700.0900 [Repealed, 18 SR 2044]
[Repealed, 18 SR 2044]
Minn. R. 4700.1000 [Repealed, 18 SR 2044]
[Repealed, 18 SR 2044]
Minn. R. 4700.1100 [Repealed, 18 SR 2044]
[Repealed, 18 SR 2044]
Minn. R. 4700.1200 [Repealed, 18 SR 2044]
[Repealed, 18 SR 2044]
Minn. R. 4700.1300 [Repealed, 18 SR 2044]
[Repealed, 18 SR 2044]
Minn. R. 4700.1400 [Repealed, 18 SR 2044]
[Repealed, 18 SR 2044]
Minn. R. 4700.1500 [Repealed, 18 SR 2044]
[Repealed, 18 SR 2044]
Minn. R. 4700.1600 [Repealed, 18 SR 2044]
[Repealed, 18 SR 2044]
Minn. R. 4700.1700 [Repealed, 18 SR 2044]
[Repealed, 18 SR 2044]
Minn. R. 4700.1800 [Repealed, 18 SR 2044]
[Repealed, 18 SR 2044]
Minn. R. 4700.1900 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 4 s 113]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 4 s 113]
Minn. R. 4700.2000 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 4 s 113]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 4 s 113]
Minn. R. 4700.2100 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 4 s 113]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 4 s 113]
Minn. R. 4700.2200 [Repealed, 12 SR 1562]
[Repealed, 12 SR 1562]
Minn. R. 4700.2210 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 4 s 113]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 4 s 113]
Minn. R. 4700.2300 Repealed by subpart
Subpart 1.
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 4 s 113]
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, 16 SR 170]
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 4 s 113]
Subp. 4.
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 4 s 113]
Subp. 4a.
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 4 s 113]
Subp. 5.
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 4 s 113]
Minn. R. 4700.2400 [Repealed, 16 SR 170]
[Repealed, 16 SR 170]
Minn. R. 4700.2410 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 4 s 113]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 4 s 113]
Minn. R. 4700.2420 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 4 s 113]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 4 s 113]
Minn. R. 4700.2500 [Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 4 s 113]
[Repealed, L 2023 c 70 art 4 s 113]
Minn. R. 4700.2550 [Repealed, 16 SR 170]
[Repealed, 16 SR 170]
Minn. R. 4700.2600 [Repealed, 28 SR 1249]
[Repealed, 28 SR 1249]
Minn. R. 4700.2700 [Repealed, 28 SR 1249]
[Repealed, 28 SR 1249]
Minn. R. 4700.2800 [Repealed, 28 SR 1249]
[Repealed, 28 SR 1249]
Minn. R. 4700.2900 [Repealed, 28 SR 1249]
[Repealed, 28 SR 1249]
Minn. R. 4700.3000 [Repealed, 28 SR 1249]
[Repealed, 28 SR 1249]
Minn. R. 4700.3100 [Repealed, 28 SR 1249]
[Repealed, 28 SR 1249]
Minn. R. 4700.3200 [Repealed, 28 SR 1249]
[Repealed, 28 SR 1249]
Minn. R. 4700.3300 [Repealed, 28 SR 1249]
[Repealed, 28 SR 1249]
Minn. R. 4700.3400 [Repealed, 28 SR 1249]
[Repealed, 28 SR 1249]
Minn. R. 4700.3500 [Repealed, 28 SR 1249]
[Repealed, 28 SR 1249]
Minn. R. 4700.3600 [Repealed, 28 SR 1249]
[Repealed, 28 SR 1249]
Minn. R. 4700.3700 [Repealed, 28 SR 1249]
[Repealed, 28 SR 1249]
Minn. R. 4700.3800 [Repealed, 28 SR 1249]
[Repealed, 28 SR 1249]
Minn. R. 4700.3900 [Repealed, 28 SR 1249]
[Repealed, 28 SR 1249]
Minn. R. 4700.4000 [Repealed, 28 SR 1249]
[Repealed, 28 SR 1249]
Chapter 4705 SERVICES FOR CHILDREN WITH HANDICAPS
Minn. R. 4705.0100 [Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 8 s 32]
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 8 s 32]
Minn. R. 4705.0200 [Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 8 s 32]
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 8 s 32]
Minn. R. 4705.0300 [Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 8 s 32]
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 8 s 32]
Minn. R. 4705.0400 [Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 8 s 32]
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 8 s 32]
Minn. R. 4705.0500 [Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 8 s 32]
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 8 s 32]
Minn. R. 4705.0600 [Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 8 s 32]
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 8 s 32]
Minn. R. 4705.0700 [Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 8 s 32]
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 8 s 32]
Minn. R. 4705.0800 [Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 8 s 32]
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 8 s 32]
Minn. R. 4705.0900 [Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 8 s 32]
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 8 s 32]
Minn. R. 4705.1000 [Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 8 s 32]
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 8 s 32]
Minn. R. 4705.1100 [Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 8 s 32]
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 8 s 32]
Minn. R. 4705.1200 [Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 8 s 32]
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 8 s 32]
Minn. R. 4705.1300 [Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 8 s 32]
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 8 s 32]
Minn. R. 4705.1400 [Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 8 s 32]
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 8 s 32]
Minn. R. 4705.1500 [Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 8 s 32]
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 8 s 32]
Minn. R. 4705.1600 [Repealed, 11 SR 104]
[Repealed, 11 SR 104]
Chapter 4710 CERTIFICATES OF NEED; HEALTH FACILITIES
Minn. R. 4710.0100 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.0200 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.0300 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.0400 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.0500 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.0600 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.0700 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.0800 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.0900 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.1000 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.1100 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.1200 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.1300 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.1400 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.1500 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.1600 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.1700 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.1800 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.1900 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.2000 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.2100 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.2200 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.2300 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.2400 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.2500 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.2600 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.2700 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.2800 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.2900 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.3000 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.3100 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.3200 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.3300 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.3400 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.3500 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.3600 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.3700 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.3800 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.3900 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.4000 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.4100 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.4200 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.4300 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.4400 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.4500 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.4600 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.4700 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.4800 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.4900 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.5000 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.5100 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.5200 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.5300 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.5400 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.5500 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.5600 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.5700 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.5800 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.5900 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.6000 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.6100 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.6200 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Minn. R. 4710.6300 [Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
[Repealed, L 1982 c 614 s 12; L 1983 c 312 art 1 s 26]
Chapter 4717 ENVIRONMENTAL HEALTH
Minn. R. 4717.0100 [Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
Minn. R. 4717.0150 Applicability
Parts 4717.0150 to 4717.3975 establish operation and maintenance, design, installation, and construction standards for public pools and facilities related to them.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.123; 145A.02; 157.01
- History: 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637
Minn. R. 4717.0200 [Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
Minn. R. 4717.0250 Definitions
Subpart 1. Scope.
For the purposes of parts 4717.0150 to 4717.3975, the terms defined in this part have the meanings given them.
Subp. 2. Commissioner.
"Commissioner" means the commissioner of health or the commissioner's authorized representative.
Subp. 3. Operator.
"Operator" means the individual designated by the owner as responsible to operate and maintain the public pool in compliance with parts 4717.0150 to 4717.3975.
Subp. 4. Owner.
"Owner" means the person who owns the public pool and is responsible for compliance with parts 4717.0150 to 4717.3975.
Subp. 5. Person.
"Person" means an individual, firm, partnership, association, limited liability company, corporation, company, government agency, club, or organization of any kind.
Subp. 6. Pool.
"Pool" means any structure, chamber, or tank containing an artificial body of water for swimming, diving, relaxation, or recreational use including special purpose pools and wading pools.
Subp. 7. Private residential pool.
"Private residential pool" means a pool connected with a single-family residence or owner-occupied duplex, located on private property under the control of the homeowner, the use of which is limited to family members or the family's invited guests. A private residential pool is not a pool used as part of a business.
Subp. 8. Public pool.
"Public pool" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.1222, subdivision 4, paragraph (d).
Subp. 9. Spa pool.
"Spa pool" means a hot water pool intended for seated recreational use with a water agitation system in addition to the recirculation system. Spa pool is synonymous with the term "whirlpool."
Subp. 10. Special purpose pool.
"Special purpose pool" means a pool intended to accommodate a use other than normal swimming, diving, or wading. A special purpose pool includes, but is not limited to, spa pools, pools used for water therapy, dedicated plunge pools, flume water slides, and wave pools.
Subp. 11. Trained operator.
"Trained operator" means an individual who meets the requirements of part 4717.0650, subpart 5.
Subp. 12. Wading pool.
"Wading pool" means any pool with a maximum depth of 24 inches used or designed to be used exclusively for wading.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.123; 145A.02; 157.01
- History: 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637; L 2008 c 328 s 13
Minn. R. 4717.0275 Incorporations by Reference
This part indicates documents, specifications, methods, and standards that are incorporated by reference in parts 4717.0150 to 4717.3975. This material is not subject to frequent change and is available from the source listed, for loan or inspection from the Barr Library of the Minnesota Department of Health, or through the Minitex interlibrary loan system.
A. American Public Health Association, "Standard Methods for the Examination of Water and Wastewater," 18th edition (1992), 1015 Fifteenth Street NW, Washington, D.C., 20005.
B. American Society for Testing Materials (ASTM) Standard F1346-91 (1991) "Standard Performance Specification for Safety Covers and Labeling Requirements for All Covers for Swimming Pools, Spas and Hot Tubs," 100 Barr Harbor Drive, West Conshohocken, PA 19428-2959.
C. NSF International, Standard 50 "Circulation System Components for Swimming Pools, Spas or Hot Tubs," May 1992, 3475 Plymouth Road, P.O. Box 1468, Ann Arbor, MI 48106.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.123; 145A.02; 157.01
- History: 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637
Minn. R. 4717.0300 [Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
Minn. R. 4717.0310 [Repealed, 46 SR 175]
[Repealed, 46 SR 175]
Minn. R. 4717.0350 [Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
Minn. R. 4717.0375 Inspections; Water Sampling
The commissioner is authorized to inspect and sample the water in public pools for compliance with parts 4717.0150 to 4717.3975.
The commissioner has the right of entry at any reasonable hour to ensure compliance with parts 4717.0150 to 4717.3975.
The commissioner may collect and examine water samples for compliance with part 4717.1750 at any reasonable hour.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.123; 145A.02; 157.01
- History: 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637
Minn. R. 4717.0400 [Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
Minn. R. 4717.0450 Submission of Plans and Specifications
Subpart 1. Plan submission and review.
No public pool shall be constructed, installed, or materially altered until complete plans and specifications are submitted to the commissioner in duplicate and approved by the commissioner.
A. A separate plan is required for each pool site.
B. Plans shall be reviewed and approved by the commissioner for sanitation and safety.
C. Once a plan is approved by the commissioner, no modification affecting the safety and sanitation features of the public pool shall be made without prior approval of the commissioner.
D. The pool and related facilities must be built in accordance with the approved plan unless prior approval of changes are given in writing by the commissioner.
E. Projects that include design features not specifically addressed in parts 4717.0150 to 4717.3975 must be reviewed in the design development stage. Those design features shall be permitted only where the pool owner demonstrates that safety and water quality can be maintained based on the current technology and information provided to the commissioner at the time of review. The commissioner may require special provisions to assure that safety and water quality are maintained. Special provisions may include continuous supervision.
Subp. 2. Plan contents.
Plans and specifications for pool construction and any existing pool alteration must contain:
A. the name and address of the facility where the pool is located;
B. the name and address of the pool owner and operator;
C. the name, address, and telephone number of the organization or individual who prepared the plans and specifications;
D. a site plan or floor plan, drawn to scale, showing:
E. plans for the pool drawn to scale, with top and profile views, that include dimensions and all equipment or appurtenances such as skimmers, gutters, inlets, drains, lights, diving boards, slides, ladders, steps, and handrails;
F. a plan of the recirculation system showing all pipe sizing, fittings, valves, gauges, and equipment connections;
G. a plan for the deck and equipment room that shows all drains, sumps, deck slopes, and air gaps at discharges to the sewer from all deck drains, pool drains, and recirculation system drains;
H. a complete equipment list specifying manufacturer, model number, and size; and
I. the pool volume, surface area, and design recirculation rate.
Subp. 3. Inspection of completed project.
The owner of the pool or the owner's agent must notify the commissioner and any local jurisdiction which regulates pool use at the time the pool is complete to permit inspection of the pool and related facilities.
A. The pool must not be placed into public use until the commissioner's inspection shows compliance with parts 4717.0150 to 4717.3975.
B. If sustained construction of the pool does not begin within one year of the plan approval date, the approval is no longer valid.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.123; 145A.02; 157.01
- History: 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637
Minn. R. 4717.0500 [Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
Minn. R. 4717.0600 [Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
Minn. R. 4717.0650 Pool Operation and Maintenance; Operator Training
Subpart 1. Pool maintenance.
A public pool, pool equipment, and related facilities and equipment must be maintained in a properly operating condition.
Subp. 2. Responsibility for operation.
A public pool and the related facilities and equipment must be operated and maintained in working condition by a person who is designated as responsible for compliance with parts 4717.0150 to 4717.3975 and ensures that the pool poses no threat to public health or safety. The owner shall be responsible for the operation of the pool and related facilities and compliance with parts 4717.0150 to 4717.3975. Where another person has operational authority under an agreement with the owner, that person also has responsibility for the operation of the pool and related facilities and for compliance with parts 4717.0150 to 4717.3975.
Subp. 3. Designation of trained operator.
The owner or operator of the pool must designate a trained operator who is responsible for the direct operation of the pool whenever the pool is open for use.
A. The trained operator must be responsible for the daily operation of the pool and ensure that required testing is done and records are maintained. The trained operator, or a designated alternate trained operator, must be able to respond to emergency, unsafe and unsanitary conditions at any time the pool is open for use.
B. The trained operator must assure that other individuals who assist with chemical monitoring and pool equipment operation are trained for those functions.
Subp. 4. Operations manual.
An operations manual must be available that provides operational information relating to all pool equipment.
Subp. 5. Operator training.
The owner or operator must ensure that the designated trained operator is trained to operate the pool in compliance with parts 4717.0150 to 4717.3975.
A. The trained operator must be trained in safe chemical handling and the use of protective equipment in addition to pool operation and sanitation described in items B to F.
B. Until January 1, 1997, any operator is eligible for certification through attendance at and successful completion of a pool operator's training course.
C. After January 1, 1997, the trained operator must be certified as successfully completing a pool operator training course as specified in item E.
D. A certified trained operator must successfully complete a training course as specified in item E at least once every five years after January 1, 1997.
E. Acceptable training courses are:
F. After January 1, 1997, a copy of the trained operator's training certificate must be posted at the facility whenever the pool is open for use.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.123; 144.222; 145A.02; 157.01
- History: 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637; 46 SR 175
Minn. R. 4717.0700 [Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
Minn. R. 4717.0750 Pool Record
A record of a public pool's operation and routine maintenance must be kept by the operator. The record must be maintained for six years. The record must include the following for each day the pool is open to use:
A. the operating periods of recirculation pumps and filters and corresponding rate-of-flow meter readings;
B. amounts of chemicals used, except chemicals added through an automated system;
C. disinfectant residuals including both free and total disinfectant residuals;
D. pH readings;
E. the temperature readings of a pool with a heater;
F. any other pool chemistry measurements taken, although not required to be recorded daily, such as alkalinity and cyanuric acid concentrations;
G. maintenance of equipment;
H. any malfunction of equipment; and
I. any accidents or injuries requiring assistance from a lifeguard, attendant, or emergency medical personnel.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.123; 145A.02; 157.01
- History: 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637
Minn. R. 4717.0775 Reporting
All pool incidents resulting in death or serious injury that require assistance from emergency medical personnel must be reported to the commissioner by the owner or the owner's agent by the end of the next working day.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.123; 145A.02; 157.01
- History: 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637
Minn. R. 4717.0800 [Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
Minn. R. 4717.0900 [Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
Minn. R. 4717.0950 Lifeguard Requirement
An individual currently certified in first aid and adult, child, and infant cardiopulmonary resuscitation must be on duty at all times the pool is open to use, unless a sign warning that a lifeguard is not present is posted as specified in part 4717.1050.
The individual must have a Red Cross lifeguard certification or equivalent and be responsible for user supervision, safety, and sanitation at all times the pool is in use.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.123; 145A.02; 157.01
- History: 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637
Minn. R. 4717.1000 [Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
Minn. R. 4717.1050 No Lifeguard Warning Sign
When a lifeguard is not on duty at a public pool open to use, a warning sign must be placed in plain view.
A. The sign must state in clear, legible letters at least four inches high: "Warning - No lifeguard on duty."
B. The sign must state in clear, legible letters at least one inch high: "Children must not use the pool without an adult in attendance."
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.123; 145A.02; 157.01
- History: 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637
Minn. R. 4717.1100 [Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
Minn. R. 4717.1200 [Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
Minn. R. 4717.1250 [Repealed, 46 SR 175]
[Repealed, 46 SR 175]
Minn. R. 4717.1300 [Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
Minn. R. 4717.1350 Pool Facility Capacity
Subpart 1. Posting pool facility capacity.
The capacity for the pool, determined according to subpart 2, must be posted in the pool enclosure area.
Subp. 2. Pool user capacity.
User capacity must be determined as specified in this subpart.
A. One person is permitted for each 15 square feet of pool water surface in areas of the pool with five feet or less in water depth.
B. One person is permitted for each 25 square feet of pool water surface in areas of the pool over five feet in water depth.
C. Spa pools must be limited to one user for each three linear feet of seating space provided in the spa pool, measured along the front edge of the seats.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.123; 144.222; 145A.02; 157.01
- History: 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637; 46 SR 175
Minn. R. 4717.1400 [Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
Minn. R. 4717.1450 Lifeguard Stations and Lifesaving Equipment
Subpart 1. Lifeguard stations.
At any time a pool with more than 2,250 square feet of water surface is operated primarily for unorganized use, the pool must have an elevated lifeguard platform or chair. In a pool with 4,000 square feet or more of water surface, additional elevated platforms, or chairs must be located to provide a clear, unobstructed view of the pool bottom in the area under surveillance.
Subp. 2. Lifesaving equipment.
Except for a spa pool or wading pool, not less than one unit of lifesaving equipment as described in subpart 3, must be at every public pool. One unit must be provided for each 2,000 square feet of water surface or fraction thereof.
Subp. 3. Lifesaving equipment unit.
One unit of lifesaving equipment is:
A. a ring buoy attached to a 3/16 inch manila, or equivalent material, rope that is 1-1/2 times the pool width, but not over 60 feet; and
B. a lifepole or shepherd's crook pole with blunted ends and a minimum fixed length of 12 feet; or
C. where a lifeguard is provided, a rescue tube may be used instead of a ring buoy.
Subp. 4. Lifesaving equipment; access.
Lifesaving equipment must be mounted in conspicuous places, distributed around the pool deck, at lifeguard chairs or at another readily accessible location. The equipment must be plainly marked "For emergency use only." Equipment must be kept in repair and ready condition. No one may tamper with, use for any purpose other than its intended use, or remove equipment from its established location, except for emergency use.
Subp. 5.
[Repealed, 46 SR 175]
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.123; 145A.02; 157.01
- History: 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637; 46 SR 175
Minn. R. 4717.1500 [Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
Minn. R. 4717.1550 Pool Access Restriction; Fencing
Subpart 1. General.
Access to a public pool must be controlled to effectively prevent the entrance of children.
A. Where fencing is used to control access, it must comply with subparts 2 to 6 except as noted in item B, subitem (2).
B. Access to a public pool within a building or enclosure must be controlled:
Subp. 2. Fencing.
Fencing must:
A. be at least five feet high;
B. be equipped with self-closing, self-latching gates capable of being locked;
C. not have any opening greater than four inches;
D. not have any opening greater than two inches below the fence; and
E. not be a readily climbable design.
Subp. 3. Existing four-foot fencing.
Fencing in existence prior to January 4, 1995, that is less than five feet high must:
A. be no less than four feet high;
B. be equipped with self-closing, self-latching gates capable of being locked;
C. not have any opening greater than four inches; and
D. not be a readily climbable design.
Subp. 4. Wading pools.
Fencing for a wading pool enclosure must be at least 42 inches high for existing installations and 48 inches high for new installations.
Subp. 5. Chain link fencing.
New chain link fencing must not exceed 1-1/2 inch mesh for fencing less than eight feet high. New chain link fencing eight foot high or higher must have mesh which does not exceed two inches.
Subp. 6. Latches.
Latches for new installations must be four feet above the ground.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.123; 145A.02; 157.01
- History: 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637
Minn. R. 4717.1575 Pool Covers
If a pool cover is used, any new cover must comply with ASTM Standard F1346-91.
A. Pool covers must be maintained in a clean and sanitary condition to preclude contamination of the pool water.
B. If the deck area is accessible when the cover is in place, a fully secured safety cover must be used.
C. A pool cover may not be used in lieu of a fence or other access restrictions required by part 4717.1550.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.123; 145A.02; 157.01
- History: 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637
Minn. R. 4717.1600 [Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
Minn. R. 4717.1650 User Sanitation and Safety
Subpart 1. Posting user safety and sanitation rules.
Placards and pictorial representations, where appropriate, embodying the requirements in this part must be posted in plain view in the pool room or enclosure and in the dressing rooms of all public pools. Lettering must be clear, legible, and at least one-fourth inch high.
Subp. 2. Communicable disease.
No person with or suspected of having a communicable disease which could be transmitted through use of the pool shall work at or use any public pool.
Subp. 3. Warning.
A person with any considerable area of exposed subepidermal tissue, open blisters, or cuts must be warned that these may become infected and advised not to use the public pool.
Subp. 4. Showering.
Any person using a public pool must take a cleansing shower using warm water and soap and thoroughly rinse off all soap before entering the pool enclosure. A user leaving the pool to use the toilet must take a second cleansing shower before returning to the pool enclosure. A person who exercises, applies lotion, or uses a sauna or steam room must shower before using the pool.
Subp. 5. No spitting.
Spitting, spouting water from the mouth, and blowing the nose in the pool is prohibited.
Subp. 6. No running.
No running or boisterous or rough play, except supervised water sports, is permitted in the pool, in dressing rooms or shower rooms, on runways, on the diving board, or platforms.
Subp. 7. Glassware.
Glassware and similar material with a tendency to shatter on impact is not allowed in the pool enclosure area.
Subp. 8. Diving.
Diving is not permitted except in areas that comply with part 4717.3750.
Subp. 9. No pets.
Domestic animals are not permitted in the pool enclosure, showers, or dressing rooms.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.123; 145A.02; 157.01
- History: 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637
Minn. R. 4717.1700 [Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
Minn. R. 4717.1750 Pool Water Condition
Subpart 1. Maximum water temperature.
The water temperature in a pool must not be more than 104 degrees Fahrenheit.
Subp. 2. Test kits.
Each pool must have the testing equipment specified in this subpart:
A. a DPD (Diethyl-P-Phenylene Diamine) test kit to measure the concentration of disinfectant in water, accurate within 0.1 parts per million;
B. a phenol red pH testing kit accurate to the nearest 0.2 pH unit;
C. a test kit to measure alkalinity using the methyl orange or equivalent method; and
D. where cyanuric acid is used, a test kit to test cyanuric acid concentration.
Subp. 3. Disinfection residual.
When in use, a pool must be continuously disinfected with a chemical that imparts an easily measured, free available residual.
A. When chlorine is used, a free chlorine residual of at least 1.0 parts per million must be maintained throughout the pool.
B. When bromine is used, a bromine residual of at least 2.0 parts per million must be maintained throughout the pool.
C. The disinfectant concentration in an operating pool must not exceed ten parts per million for chlorine and 20 parts per million for bromine.
D. If other halogens are used, residuals of equivalent disinfectant strength must be maintained.
E. If the concentration of combined chlorine residual exceeds 0.5 parts per million, the pool must be superchlorinated or treated to reduce the concentration of the combined chlorine residual to not exceed 0.5 parts per million.
Subp. 4. Disinfection of spa pools.
The disinfectant residual in a spa pool must be at least 2.0 parts per million for free chlorine and 4.0 parts per million for bromine throughout the pool when in use.
Subp. 5. pH.
Water in the pool must be maintained with a pH of not less than 7.2 and not more than 7.8.
Subp. 6. Alkalinity.
The alkalinity of the water in the pool must be at least 50 parts per million.
Subp. 7. Water clarity.
Whenever the pool is open for use, the pool water must be clear enough so the bottom drain is easily visible.
Subp. 8. Use of nontoxic chemicals; chemical container security.
Chemicals used to control water quality must not impart toxic properties to the water. All containers used for chemicals must be kept in a secure location, inaccessible to pool users, and properly labeled and stored according to the manufacturer's instructions.
Subp. 9.
[Repealed, 46 SR 175]
Subp. 10.
[Repealed, 46 SR 175]
Subp. 11. Use of cyanuric acid.
A. Use of cyanuric acid in any new indoor pool is prohibited after February 23, 2022.
B. Use of cyanuric acid in any existing indoor pool is prohibited after February 23, 2024.
C. Use of cyanuric acid in any pool requires testing and recording of the cyanuric acid level at least once a week.
D. Where cyanuric acid is used to stabilize chlorine, the concentration of cyanuric acid in the pool must not exceed 100 parts per million.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.1222; 144.123; 144.222; 145A.02; 157.01
- History: 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637; 40 SR 1646; 46 SR 175
Minn. R. 4717.1800 [Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
Minn. R. 4717.1850 Depth of Pool Water
Subpart 1. General.
The minimum depth of water in a public pool must be three feet. The maximum depth at the shallow end of the pool must not exceed three feet six inches.
Subp. 2. Exceptions.
The requirements in subpart 1 do not apply to special purpose pools, wading pools, and pools used for supervised competition.
A. A wading pool must have a maximum depth of no more than 24 inches.
B. A pool with a zero depth area may be approved by the commissioner if:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.123; 145A.02; 157.01
- History: 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637
Minn. R. 4717.1900 [Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
Minn. R. 4717.1950 Pool Cleaning
Subpart 1. Cleaning schedule.
Visible dirt on the bottom of the pool must be removed every 24 hours or more frequently as needed to eliminate buildup. Visible scum or floating matter on the pool surface must be removed no less than every 24 hours by flushing or other effective means.
Subp. 2. Cleaning system.
A vacuum-cleaning system capable of cleaning the entire pool must be provided, except that it is not required for spa pools with less than 75 square feet of water surface.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.123; 145A.02; 157.01
- History: 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637
Minn. R. 4717.2000 [Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
Minn. R. 4717.2100 [Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
Minn. R. 4717.2150 Water Supply
Subpart 1. Potable supply.
The water supply serving a pool and all plumbing fixtures, including drinking fountains, lavatories, and showers, must meet the requirements of the commissioner for potable water specified in chapters 4720 and 4725.
Subp. 2. Backflow prevention.
All portions of the water distribution system serving the pool and related facilities must be protected against backflow. Water introduced into the pool, either directly or through the recirculation system, must be supplied through an air gap or protected with a suitable backflow preventer as specified in UPC sections 602.0 to 603.5.23.4 as incorporated by reference in part 4714.0050.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.123; 145A.02; 157.01
- History: 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637
Minn. R. 4717.2200 [Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
Minn. R. 4717.2250 Sewer System
The sewer system must adequately serve the pool, bathhouse, dressing rooms, and related facilities and must conform to the standards of the commissioner of health and the Minnesota Pollution Control Agency.
A. There must be no direct physical connection between the sewer system and any drain from the pool or recirculation system.
B. Any pool, gutter drain, or overflow from the recirculation system when discharged to a sewer system, storm drain, or other complying natural drainage course must discharge through a complying air gap or air break to preclude the backup of sewage or waste into the pool or piping system.
C. Valves and pumps used for draining the pool must be sized or designed to prevent the surcharging of the sanitary sewer.
D. Any sanitary sewer serving facilities related to the pool must discharge into the public sewer system.
E. Where a public sewer system is not available, the connection must be made to a treatment system designed, constructed, installed, and operated according to the requirements of the commissioner of health and the Minnesota Pollution Control Agency.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.123; 145A.02; 157.01
- History: 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637
Minn. R. 4717.2300 [Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
Minn. R. 4717.2350 Pool Structure
Subpart 1. General.
The pool and all appurtenances must be constructed of materials which:
A. are inert, nontoxic, impervious, permanent and enduring;
B. withstand design stress;
C. provide a tight tank with a smooth and easily cleaned surface; and
D. can be finished in a white or light color. Wood tank construction and vinyl liner pools are prohibited.
Subp. 2. Finish.
The pool basin finish, including bottom and sides, must:
A. be of white or light colored material;
B. be nontoxic to humans;
C. have a smooth finished surface;
D. be void of cracks; and
E. be bonded to the supporting members, excluding structural expansion joints.
Subp. 3. Design, detail, and structural stability.
The pool must be designed, installed, operated, and constructed to withstand all anticipated loading for both full and empty conditions.
Subp. 4. Designer responsibility.
The owner and the architect, engineer, contractor, or other designer is responsible for the structural stability and safety of the pool design.
Subp. 5. Relief valve.
A hydrostatic relief valve or an underdrain system must be provided where a high water table may affect the stability of the pool.
Subp. 6. Shape.
The pool's shape must:
A. be such that the circulation of pool water and control of users' safety are not impaired;
B. allow complete, continuous circulation of pool water throughout all parts of the pool; and
C. ensure that user safety is not impaired. Underwater or overhead projections or obstructions that would endanger user safety or interfere with operation are prohibited.
Subp. 7. Corners.
Corners formed by the intersection of walls and the bottom must be rounded with at least a one-half inch radius.
Subp. 8. Slope of bottom.
The slope must conform to the provisions in this subpart.
A. The slope of the bottom of any part of the pool with a water depth of less than five feet must not be more than one foot in ten feet and must be uniform.
B. In parts of the pool with a water depth greater than five feet, the slope must not exceed one foot in three feet.
Subp. 9. Side walls.
The walls of the pool must be either:
A. vertical for water depths of at least six feet; or
B. vertical for a distance of three feet below the water level, below which the wall may be curved to the bottom with a radius not greater than the difference between the depth at that point and three feet, provided that vertical is interpreted to permit slopes not greater than one foot, horizontally, for each five feet of depth of sidewall (11 degrees vertical).
Subp. 10. Ledges.
A ledge along the pool wall within the pool basin is permitted only if it is a necessary part of the sidewall construction. The ledge must be:
A. at least two feet six inches below the water surface;
B. not over four inches wide; and
C. sloped into the pool with a rounded outside edge.
Subp. 11. Wading pools.
Wading pools must be physically separated from other pools and have a separate recirculation system.
Subp. 12. Fountains.
Fountains or similar features require approval by the commissioner and must be located in areas of two feet or less of water depth. They must be designed to preclude climbing.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.123; 145A.02; 157.01
- History: 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637
Minn. R. 4717.2400 [Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
Minn. R. 4717.2450 Markings and Lines
Subpart 1. Depth markings.
The depth of the water in the pool must be plainly marked in numbers and letters, be in a color contrasting with the background, and specify the water depth and units in feet and inches. Numerals must be at least four inches high. The water depth must be indicated:
A. on the edge of the deck next to the pool;
B. at the maximum and minimum depths;
C. on all sides of the pool;
D. at the points of change of slope between deep and shallow portions; and
E. at intermediate increments of depth, spaced at not more than 25-foot intervals.
Subp. 2. Depth transition markings.
Where a transition to a steeper bottom slope occurs, the transition must be marked on the bottom and walls of the pool by a stripe of dark contrasting color at least six inches wide.
Subp. 3. No diving markings.
Pools and sections of pools that do not comply with the depth requirements for diving in part 4717.3750 must have:
A. the words "No Diving" in letters not less than four inches high and of a color contrasting with the background located on the pool deck on all sides of the pool where diving is not permitted and spaced at not more than 25 foot intervals; or
B. the universal no diving symbol at least four inches high accompanied by the words "No Diving" in letters not less than one-half inch high and of a color contrasting with the background located on the pool deck on all sides of the pool where diving is not permitted and spaced at not more than 25 foot intervals. This provision does not apply to spa pools, wading pools, flume or plunge pools.
Subp. 4. Stair markings.
The leading edge of stair treads must be marked by a stripe of dark, contrasting color between one-half inch and two inches in width.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.123; 145A.02; 157.01
- History: 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637
Minn. R. 4717.2500 [Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
Minn. R. 4717.2550 Recirculation System
All pools must have a water recirculation system with treatment and filtration equipment consisting of overflow gutters or skimmers, main drains, inlets, pumps, piping, filters, water conditioning, disinfection equipment, and other accessory equipment. The pumps, filter, disinfectant and chemical feeders, and related appurtenances must be kept in operation at all times during the swimming season unless approved by the commissioner.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.123; 145A.02; 157.01
- History: 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637
Minn. R. 4717.2560 Recirculation Rate
Subpart 1. General recirculation rate.
The water recirculation system must clarify and disinfect the pool volume of water in six hours or less.
Subp. 2. Wading pools and special purpose pools.
The water recirculation system of a wading pool or a special purpose pool must recirculate a water volume equal to the pool volume in two hours or less.
Subp. 3. Spa pools.
The recirculation system in a spa pool must recirculate a water volume equal to the pool volume in 30 minutes or less, except that a minimum rate of 35 gallons per minute is required.
Subp. 4. Dedicated plunge pools.
The recirculation system of a dedicated plunge pool must recirculate a water volume equal to the total volume of the pool in one hour or less.
Subp. 5. Pools with zero depth area.
The recirculation system of a pool with a zero depth end must recirculate water at the rate specified in this subpart.
A. The area of the pool with a water depth of less than three feet must have a recirculation rate of two hours or less.
B. The remainder of the pool must meet the requirements in subpart 1.
C. A system of bottom inlets must be provided in the shallow end.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.123; 145A.02; 157.01
- History: 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637
Minn. R. 4717.2570 Recirculation Equipment
Subpart 1. General.
Equipment which is part of the installation or alteration of a pool recirculation system must comply with Standard 50 "Circulation System Components for Swimming Pools, Spas or Hot Tubs" of the NSF International.
Subp. 2. Recirculation system strainers.
The recirculation system must include a strainer to prevent debris such as hair and lint from reaching the pump and filters. The strainer must:
A. be corrosion-resistant;
B. have openings not more than one-eighth inch;
C. provide a free flow area at least four times the area of the pump suction line; and
D. be readily accessible for frequent cleaning.
Subp. 3. Recirculation system piping.
Recirculation system piping must:
A. carry the recirculation quantity of water required in part 4717.2650 at a velocity not exceeding six feet per second for suction piping, eight feet per second for discharge piping, and three feet per second for gravity flow piping;
B. be nontoxic and corrosion-resistant, and able to withstand operating pressures; and
C. be identified by a label, color code, tag, or other distinguishing marking.
Subp. 4. Rate-of-flow indicator.
A rate-of-flow indicator, reading in gallons per minute, must be installed and located, preferably on the pool return line, so the rate of recirculation and backwash rate are indicated. The indicator must be accurate within ten percent of the true flow and be easy to read.
Subp. 5. Pumps.
Pumps must provide the number of turnovers of pool water specified in part 4717.2560.
If the pump or suction piping is located above the overflow level of the pool, the pump must be self-priming. The pump or pumps must be capable of providing flow to backwash filters.
Under normal conditions, the pump or pumps must supply the recirculation rate of flow specified in part 4717.2560 at a dynamic head of at least 50 feet for pressure filters.
Subp. 6. Heaters.
Pools equipped with heaters must have a fixed thermometer in the recirculation line to measure the temperature of the water returning to the pool.
Subp. 7. Valves.
Valves must be provided on the main drain and skimmer lines to permit balancing the recirculation flow.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.123; 144.222; 145A.02; 157.01
- History: 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637; 46 SR 175
Minn. R. 4717.2580 Inlets and Outlets
Subpart 1. Outlets.
All pools must have an outlet at the deepest point to permit the pool to be completely emptied.
A. Outlet openings must be covered by grating not readily removable by users.
B. Outlet openings of the grating on the floor of the pool must be at least four times the area of discharge pipe and provide enough area so the velocity of water passing the grate does not exceed 1-1/2 feet per second.
C. Grate openings must be no more than one-half inch wide.
D. When a single outlet is used, it must be at least 100 square inches in size, or have an antivortex cover.
E. In pools more than 30 feet wide, multiple outlets must be provided. The outlets must be no more than 30 feet apart, and no more than 15 feet from the side walls.
Subp. 2. Inlets.
Water inlets must be located to produce uniform circulation of water and maintain a uniform disinfectant residual throughout the entire pool without the existence of dead spots.
A. Inlets from the recirculation system must be flush with the pool wall and submerged at least 12 inches below the water level.
B. Over-the-rim fill spouts are not permitted unless located under a diving board or installed in a manner that does not present any hazard.
C. Make up water spouts must terminate at least six inches above the fill rim of the pool or surge tank.
Subp. 3. Adjustable inlets.
Inlets must be directionally adjustable and located so there is complete, uniform circulation of incoming water throughout the pool, a uniform disinfectant residual is maintained at all times, and there are no dead spots.
A. Each inlet must be adjustable or have an individual gate or similar valve to permit adjustment of water volume to obtain the best circulation.
B. The maximum spacing of inlets must be 20 feet based on the pool perimeter.
C. In a pool with a surface area greater than 1,600 square feet or longer than 60 feet, side inlets must be placed at 15-foot intervals around the entire perimeter.
D. An engineered, manufactured gutter system with integral supply orifices may be used instead of individual directional inlets.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.123; 145A.02; 157.01
- History: 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637
Minn. R. 4717.2590 Overflow Gutters
Subpart 1. General.
Overflow gutters must extend completely around the pool except at steps or recessed ladders.
A. The overflow gutter must also serve as a handhold.
B. The gutter must continuously remove 50 percent or more of the recirculated water and return it to the filter.
C. Pools with overflow gutters must be provided with surge capacity.
D. The gutters, drains, and return piping must be sized to remove overflow water caused by recirculation, displacement, wave action, or other cause produced from maximum pool user load.
E. Drain outlets must not be more than 15 feet apart.
F. The opening into the gutter beneath the coping must not be less than four inches wide. The interior of the gutter must not be less than three inches wide with a depth of at least three inches.
G. Gutters must be designed to prevent the entrance of or entrapment of a user's arms or legs.
H. The overflow edge or lip must be rounded and no thicker than 2-1/2 inches for the top two inches.
I. Overflow outlets must have outlet pipes at least two inches in diameter.
J. Outlet fittings must have a clear opening in the grating at least equal to 1-1/2 times the cross sectional area of the outlet pipe.
K. New overflow gutter system installations must include automatic water level control to provide automatic and continuous skimming during quiescence.
Subp. 2. Surge systems and surge capacity.
An in-pool surge system may be used only if it is part of an engineered and manufactured gutter system that has surge weirs which provide effective skimming during quiescence.
A. In-pool surge weirs must be self-closing during normal pool use.
B. The total surge capacity of the system must be at least one gallon per square foot of water surface.
C. If some of the surge capacity is within the gutter system, the system must be able to carry 50 percent of the recirculation flow while maintaining the surge capacity.
Subp. 3. Rollout and deck systems.
Nothing in this part precludes the use of a rollout overflow system or deck level system if proper surge capacity is provided as specified in subpart 2.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.123; 145A.02; 157.01
- History: 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637
Minn. R. 4717.2595 Skimmers
Subpart 1. Skimmers.
Skimmers are permitted in lieu of a gutter if the suction outlets induce enough motion to the pool water to remove floating oil and waste from the entire pool surface, and the edge of the pool deck provides a handhold for swimmers.
A. Skimming devices must be built into the pool wall.
B. At least one skimming device must be provided for each 400 square feet of water surface area or fraction thereof.
C. Where two or more skimmers are used, they must not interfere with each other and must ensure skimming of the entire pool surface.
D. The flow through rate must be no less than 30 gallons per minute.
E. Skimmer piping and other components must be designed for a total capacity of at least 80 percent of the required filter flow of the recirculation system.
F. The skimmer weir must automatically adjust and operate freely with continuous action to variations in water level over a range of at least four inches.
G. If skimmer equalizer pipes exist, or are constructed, they must include an ASME/ANSI VGB approved suction fitting or be permanently plugged.
Subp. 2. Screen.
Skimmers must have an easily removable and cleanable basket or screen through which all overflow water passes to trap large solids.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.123; 144.222; 145A.02; 157.01
- History: 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637; 46 SR 175
Minn. R. 4717.2600 [Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
Minn. R. 4717.2610 Disinfectant and Chemical Feeders
A pool must have a disinfectant feeder or feeders that meet the requirements in this part.
A. Feeders must be sturdy and withstand wear, corrosion, or attack by disinfectant solutions or vapors.
B. Feeders must not be adversely affected by repeated regular adjustment or other anticipated use.
C. Feeders must be capable of being disassembled for cleaning and maintenance.
D. The design and construction of feeders must preclude stoppage from chemicals intended to be used or foreign materials.
E. Feeders must incorporate failure-proof features so the disinfectant cannot feed directly into the pool, the pool piping system, water supply system, or pool enclosure under any type of failure of the equipment, or during its maintenance.
F. Feeders must be able to supply at least the equivalent of one pound of chlorine in eight hours for each 10,000 gallons of pool capacity.
G. Feeders must have a graduated and clearly marked dose adjustment ranging from full capacity to 25 percent of capacity.
H. Feeders must be capable of continuous delivery within ten percent of the dose at any setting.
I. When the disinfectant is introduced at the suction side of the pump, a device or method to prevent air lock of the pump or recirculation system must be provided.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.123; 145A.02; 157.01
- History: 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637
Minn. R. 4717.2620 Chemical Handling Equipment; Protective Equipment
Equipment and piping used to apply chemicals to the water must be sized, designed, and of material that does not clog and is easily cleaned. Material must be resistant to the action of the chemicals used.
Protective equipment recommended by the chemical manufacturer as necessary for the safe handling of any chemicals used must be provided.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.123; 145A.02; 157.01
- History: 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637
Minn. R. 4717.2630 Use of Gas Chlorine
Subpart 1. General.
The standards in this part apply when compressed gas chlorine is used. The gas chlorine and chlorinating equipment must be in:
A. a separate, mechanically ventilated room; or
B. a secure reach-in enclosure.
Subp. 2. Rooms.
When a room is used, it must comply with the provisions in this subpart.
A. The room must be above grade.
B. A shatter resistant inspection window must be installed in an interior wall or the door.
C. The room must have a ventilating fan with a capacity to provide one complete air change per minute when the room is occupied.
D. Separate switches for the fan and lights must be located outside the room. Outside switches must be protected from vandalism. A signal light indicating fan operation must be provided at each entrance when the fan can be controlled from more than one point.
E. The ventilating fan must take suction near the floor as far as practical from the door and air inlet, with the point of discharge located so as not to contaminate air inlets to any rooms or structures.
F. Air inlets must be through louvers or other ventilation openings near the ceiling.
G. When present, floor drains must discharge to the outside of the building and must not be connected to other internal or external drainage systems.
Subp. 3. Reach-in enclosures.
Reach-in enclosures must be:
A. not over two feet in depth;
B. vandal resistant; and
C. naturally ventilated by means of openings in the upper and lower parts of the enclosure.
Subp. 4. Doors.
The door of a room or enclosure must be labeled "DANGER - GAS CHLORINE" in letters at least four inches high.
Subp. 5. Seals.
All openings between a chlorine room or enclosure and other enclosed space must be sealed.
Subp. 6. Venting.
Vents from feeders and storage rooms or enclosures must discharge to the outside atmosphere, above grade.
Subp. 7. Chlorinating equipment.
Chlorinating equipment must be capable of withstanding wear without developing leaks.
A. All chlorine cylinders must be anchored to prevent falling over.
B. A valve stem wrench must be maintained on the chlorine cylinder so the supply can be shut off quickly in an emergency.
C. The valve protection hood must be kept in place except when the cylinder is connected to the system.
D. The chlorine feeding device must be designed so that during accidents or interruptions of the water supply, leaking chlorine gas is conducted to the out-of-doors.
E. The chlorinator must be a vacuum-operated solution-feed type, capable of delivering chlorine at its maximum rate without releasing chlorine gas to the atmosphere.
F. Pressurized chlorine feedlines must not carry chlorine gas beyond the chlorinating room.
G. Chlorinators must be designed to prevent the backflow of water into the chlorine solution container.
Subp. 8. Respiratory protection equipment.
Respiratory protection equipment, meeting the requirements of the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) or the United States Bureau of Mines for chlorine use must be available where chlorine gas is handled. The respiratory protection equipment must be stored at a convenient location, in a closed cabinet accessible without a key, but not inside any room where chlorine is used or stored.
A. The respirators must use compressed air, have at least a 30-minute capacity, and be compatible with or exactly the same as the respirators used by the fire or emergency rescue department responsible for the pool facility, or be a canister type gas mask with full face mask and replacement canisters provided.
B. A record of use and inspection must be kept to ensure that the respirators will be serviceable when needed.
Subp. 9. Chlorine leak detection.
A bottle of ammonium hydroxide, 56 percent ammonia solution, or a comparable solution recommended by the chlorine supplier, must be available for chlorine leak detection.
A. Where ton chlorine containers are used, an emergency leak repair kit recommended by the Chlorine Institute, Inc., 2001 "L" Street NW, Washington, D.C. 20036, must be provided.
B. Where an automatic leak detector is provided, it must be equipped with both an audible alarm and a visual warning sign.
Subp. 10. Trained personnel.
Installation of chlorinator equipment and its operation must be carried on by and under the supervision of personnel trained by the manufacturer or supplier for the installation and operation of such equipment.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.123; 145A.02; 157.01
- History: 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637
Minn. R. 4717.2650 Use of Hypochlorite Solution
When hypochlorite solution is fed through hypochlorinating equipment:
A. the feed must be continuous under all conditions of pressure in the circulating system and feed without artificial constriction of the pump suction line, whether or not the pump suction line is under vacuum or pressure head;
B. regulation must be provided to ensure constant feed with varying supply or back pressure;
C. positive features must be designed to prevent backflow from the recirculation system to the solution container and reduce to a minimum the entry into the pool of free calcium released from calcium hypochlorite; and
D. for aboveground installations, means must be provided to prevent siphoning of hypochlorite solution when the recirculation pump and hypochlorinator are both turned off.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.123; 145A.02; 157.01
- History: 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637
Minn. R. 4717.2700 [Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
Minn. R. 4717.2750 Use of Erosion Feeders
An erosion feeder must:
A. have enough capacity to achieve the disinfectant residual specified in part 4717.1750;
B. be adjustable in output rate; and
C. be capable of continuous operation.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.123; 145A.02; 157.01
- History: 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637
Minn. R. 4717.2800 [Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
Minn. R. 4717.2850 Sand Filters
Subpart 1. Applicability.
The requirements in this part apply to vacuum and pressure sand filters.
A. Pressure sand filters must filter at a maximum rate of three gallons per minute per square foot of bed area at the time of maximum head loss with enough area to meet the rate of flow specified in part 4717.2560.
B. The filtration rate for high-rate sand filters and vacuum sand filters must not exceed 20 gallons per minute per square foot of bed area.
Subp. 2. Filter material.
Filter material must be screened, sharp filter sand sized between 0.4 and 0.55 millimeters with a uniformity coefficient not exceeding 1.75. Anthracite sized between 0.6 and 0.8 millimeters with a uniformity coefficient not exceeding 1.8, may be used instead of sand.
A. The filter material must be at least 20 inches deep for standard pressure sand filters and at least 12 inches deep for high-rate sand filters.
B. The filter material must be supported by at least ten inches of graded filter gravel. The gravel must distribute water uniformly during filtration and backwashing.
C. A reduction in depth or an elimination of gravel is permitted when equivalent performance and service is demonstrated through compliance with NSF International Standard 50.
Subp. 3. Underdrain system.
The underdrain system must be corrosion-resistant, enduring, and provide even collection and distribution of the flow during filtration and backwashing. Orifices and other openings must maintain constant area.
Subp. 4. Freeboard.
Freeboard provided between the upper surface of the filter media and the lowest portion of the pipes or drains which serve as overflows during backwashing must be designed to prevent loss of filter material.
Subp. 5. Filter system.
The filter system must have influent and effluent pressure gauges or a filter-mounted pressure gauge, backwash sight glass on the waste discharge line, and an air-relief valve at or near the high point of the filter. The filter system must have valves and piping that permit:
A. filtering to the pool;
B. individual backwashing of filters to waste at a rate of not less than 15 gallons per minute per square foot of filter area;
C. isolation of individual filters for repair while other units are in service;
D. complete drainage of all parts of the system; and
E. maintenance, operation, and inspection.
Subp. 6. Filter access.
Each pressure filter tank must have an access opening to permit maintenance.
Subp. 7. Coagulant feed.
Devices with dosage control features must be provided if coagulants are added ahead of filters.
Subp. 8. Tank.
On pressure filters, the tank and integral parts must have a pressure safety factor of four based on the maximum shutoff head of the pump. For design purposes, the shutoff head must in no case be considered less than 50 pounds per square inch.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.123; 145A.02; 157.01
- History: 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637
Minn. R. 4717.2900 [Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
Minn. R. 4717.3000 [Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
Minn. R. 4717.3050 Diatomaceous Earth Filters
Subpart 1. Area.
The filter area for a diatomaceous earth filter must meet the design pump capacity as required by this part. Where fabric is used, the filter area is determined by the surfaces created by septum supports with no allowance for areas of impaired filtration such as broad supports, folds, or portions which may bridge.
Subp. 2. Rate of filtration.
The rate of filtration must not be greater than two gallons per minute per square foot of filter area without continuous body feed and no greater than 2.5 gallons per minute per square foot with continuous body feed.
Subp. 3. Use of body feeder.
If a body feeder is used, it must be accurate within ten percent and capable of continually feeding within a calibrated range adjustable from two to six parts per million at the capacity of the recirculation pump. The feeding of diatomaceous earth through skimmers is prohibited.
Subp. 4. Filter and components.
The filter and all component parts must withstand normal continuous use without significant deformation, deterioration, corrosion, or wear which adversely affects filter operation. The filter design, construction, or other provision must preclude introduction of filter aid into the pool during precoating operations.
A. Where dissimilar metals which may set up galvanic electric currents are used in the filters, provision must be made to resist electrolytic corrosion.
B. The filter and surrounding space must permit removal, replacement of any part, and maintenance.
C. The filter must be cleaned by backwashing, air pump assist backwashing, mechanical or manual spray wash, or agitation.
Subp. 5. Filter tank.
The tank containing the filter elements must be constructed of steel, plastic, or another material resistant to corrosion, with or without coating.
A. Pressure filters must be designed for a minimum working pressure of 50 pounds per square inch with a four-to-one safety factor.
B. Vacuum filters must withstand the pressure developed by the weight of the water contained therein with a safety factor of 1.5.
C. Closed vacuum filters must withstand crushing pressure developed under a vacuum of 25 inches of mercury with a safety factor of 1.5.
D. The septa or elements which support the filter-aid must be corrosion-resistant. The septa must resist rupture under conditions of maximum differential pressure between influent and effluent developed by the circulating pump, and resist stress developed by cleaning.
Subp. 6. Filter plant.
The filter plant must have pressure, vacuum, or compound gauges to indicate the condition of the filter. In vacuum filters where the circulating pump is two horsepower or higher, an adjustable high vacuum automatic shutoff must be provided to prevent damage to the pump by cavitation.
Subp. 7. Complete draining of filter.
The filter must provide for complete drainage.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.123; 145A.02; 157.01
- History: 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637
Minn. R. 4717.3100 [Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
Minn. R. 4717.3150 Cartridge Filters
Surface-type cartridge filters must be sized for a maximum filtration rate of 0.375 gallons per minute per square foot. An effluent pressure gauge and an air relief valve must be provided. A spare set of cartridges must be provided and available at all times.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.123; 145A.02; 157.01
- History: 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637
Minn. R. 4717.3200 [Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
Minn. R. 4717.3250 Steps, Ladders, Handholds, and Handrails
Subpart 1. Step or ladder location in-pool.
Steps or ladders must be provided at the shallow end of the pool if the vertical distance from the bottom of the pool to the deck or walk is over two feet. Recessed steps or ladders must be provided at the deep end of the pool. If the pool is over 30 feet wide, steps or ladders must be installed on each side.
Subp. 2. Steps.
Steps leading into the pool must be of nonslip material, have a minimum tread of 12 inches, and have a maximum rise or height of ten inches.
A. Steps must have accent stripes as specified in part 4717.2450, subpart 4.
B. There must be no abrupt drop-off or submerged projections into the pool, unless guarded by handrails.
C. At least one sturdy handrail, reachable from the pool bottom, must be provided for all steps.
D. At least two rails must be provided when the steps are over six feet wide or an additional railing is needed to define the location of the steps.
E. If steps are inserted in the walls or if stepholes are provided, they must be easily cleaned and drain into the pool to prevent the accumulation of dirt. Stepholes must have a minimum tread of five inches and a minimum width of 14 inches.
Subp. 3. Ladders.
Pool ladders must be corrosion-resistant and equipped with nonslip treads.
A. All ladders must provide a handhold and be rigidly installed.
B. There must be a clearance of not more than five inches nor less than three inches between any ladder and the pool wall.
Subp. 4. Handrails.
When stepholes or ladders are provided in the pool, handrails must be provided that extend over the coping or edge of the deck.
Subp. 5. Handholds; coping.
All pools, except wading pools and spa pools, must have a continuous handhold along the pool edge.
A. Handholds must be no more than nine inches above the normal water line.
B. Where bull-nosed coping is used, it must not be over 2-1/2 inches thick for the outer two inches.
C. If brick coping is used, it must be completely rounded on the pool side, overhang the pool wall 1-1/2 inches, and slope away from the pool at least one-half inch over the length of the brick.
Subp. 6. Diving boards.
Supports, platforms, and steps for diving boards must safely carry the maximum anticipated load.
A. Steps must be corrosion-resistant, cleanable, and constructed of nonslip material.
B. Handrails must be provided for all steps and ladders leading to any diving board more than one meter above the water.
C. Platforms and diving boards over one meter above the water must be protected with guardrails.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.123; 145A.02; 157.01
- History: 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637
Minn. R. 4717.3300 [Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
Minn. R. 4717.3350 Decks and Walkways
A continuous deck, free from fixed obstruction, at least five feet wide, must extend completely around the pool. The deck must be sloped away from the pool to drain at a grade of one-fourth inch per lineal foot. The deck must have a nonslip, nonabsorbent surface.
A. Deck drains connected to the recirculation system or gutters are prohibited for new installations.
B. Carpeting must not be used within ten feet of the pool unless it is outside the required deck area and separated from the deck by an effective access barrier. In deck areas where carpeting is contiguous to the deck area, water must be conveyed away from the carpeted area.
C. Wood decking is prohibited.
D. A minimum ceiling clearance of seven feet is required above pool edges and pool decks.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.123; 145A.02; 157.01
- History: 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637
Minn. R. 4717.3400 [Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
Minn. R. 4717.3450 Lighting, Ventilation, and Electrical Requirements
Subpart 1. Lighting.
Lighting must meet the criteria in this part.
A. Light must be located to provide illumination so all portions of the pool, including the bottom, may be seen without glare.
B. Area lighting must provide at least ten footcandles of illumination at all locations on the pool surface and on any deck within five feet of the pool whenever the pool is in use.
C. A pool used for education, training, or competition must have at least 30 footcandles of illumination on the pool surface and on any deck within five feet of the pool.
Subp. 2. Ventilation.
All indoor pools, dressing rooms, shower rooms, and toilet space must be ventilated by mechanical means.
A. Pool equipment rooms must have natural or mechanical ventilation.
B. For new installations, ventilation must comply with the Minnesota Building Code.
C. Gas chlorine rooms must have mechanical ventilation as specified in part 4717.2630, subpart 2.
Subp. 3. Electrical.
All electrical installations must conform with the standards of the Board of Electricity effective at the time of installation.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.123; 144.222; 145A.02; 157.01
- History: 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637; 46 SR 175
Minn. R. 4717.3475 Starting Blocks and Platforms; Slides; Other Objects
Subpart 1. Starting block or platform use.
Starting blocks or starting platforms located at any pool area with a water depth of less than five feet must be removed when the pool is used for other than supervised competitive swimming or training for competitive swimming. For installations after January 1, 1995, all starting blocks or starting platforms must be positioned at a water depth of five feet or greater.
Subp. 2. Play equipment.
All play equipment at a pool must be specifically designed for pool use and installed in accordance with the safe use parameters specified by the manufacturer and the requirements of the commissioner. All slides used at a pool must meet the requirements specified in part 4717.3870.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.123; 145A.02; 157.01
- History: 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637
Minn. R. 4717.3500 [Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
Minn. R. 4717.3550 Dressing Rooms
When dressing rooms are provided for both sexes, they must be separated by a tight partition and be designated for men or women.
A. The entrances must be screened to break line of sight.
B. Floors and wet paths between showers and the pool must have a smooth, nonslip surface, impervious to moisture, and sloped to a drain.
C. The junctions between walls and floors must be coved or provided with a sealed, easily cleaned joint.
D. Walls and partitions must be of smooth, impervious material, free from cracks or open joints.
E. Lockers must be set either on solid masonry bases four inches high or on legs with the bottom of the locker at least ten inches above the floor. Lockers must be vented.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.123; 145A.02; 157.01
- History: 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637
Minn. R. 4717.3600 [Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
Minn. R. 4717.3650 Toilets, Lavatories, Showers, and Dressing Rooms
Subpart 1. General.
Toilets, showers, and dressing rooms must be conveniently available to pool patrons.
A. Toilets, showers, and dressing rooms may be in a nearby toiletroom, locker room, or, if conveniently available, within the living units of an apartment building, hotel, or similar occupancy.
B. Toilet, shower, lavatory, and locker and other ancillary facilities must be maintained in a sanitary condition to preclude the possibility of spreading pathogens to the pool.
C. When toilet facilities are accessible to pool patrons in the pool area, each toilet facility must include showers which permit nude showering within each toilet facility.
D. At least one shower must be provided which is conveniently located to permit a shower before entering any pool when sauna or exercise facilities are provided.
Subp. 2. Ratios.
Toilet, handwashing, and shower facilities must be provided according to the following schedule.
Subp. 3. Additional fixtures.
Additional sanitation fixtures must be provided for pool facilities with extensive deck areas or facilities that provide other functions in accordance with the sanitation fixture requirements in the State Building Code.
Subp. 4. Shower temperature.
Showers must be supplied with water at a temperature of at least 90 degrees Fahrenheit at a rate of at least 2.0 gallons per minute. Thermostatic, tempering, or mixing valves must be installed if necessary to prevent water temperatures in excess of 130 degrees.
Subp. 5. Layout.
Pool users leaving the dressing room must pass the showers last in route to the pool.
Subp. 6. Floor finish.
The floor finish between the toilet and shower areas and the pool must be nonslip and nonabsorbent.
Subp. 7. Wading pool exception.
On-site showers are not required for freestanding wading pools if a free chlorine residual of at least two parts per million is maintained in the pool and the owner of the pool requests that on-site showers not be required.
Subp. 8. Lighting.
Lighting for toilet, shower, and locker facilities must provide at least ten footcandles illumination measured at floor level.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.123; 145A.02; 157.01
- History: 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637
Minn. R. 4717.3675 Drinking Fountains
Drinking fountains must be provided in the pool area for pools over 1,600 square feet.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.123; 145A.02; 157.01
- History: 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637
Minn. R. 4717.3700 [Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
Minn. R. 4717.3750 Standards for Pools with Diving
The dimensions of the pool and appurtenances in a diving area must meet the standards in this part.
A. There must be a completely unobstructed clear distance of 16 feet above the diving board measured from the center of the front end of the board. This area must extend at least eight feet behind, eight feet to each side, and 16 feet ahead of the measuring point.
B. Pools used for competitive diving must provide pool depths compatible with the level of competition anticipated.
C. Diving is not permitted, except in areas which conform to the minimum dimensions specified in this part.
D. The dimensions of the diving area in all pools must conform to the minimum dimensions specified in this part.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.123; 145A.02; 157.01
- History: 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637
Minn. R. 4717.3800 [Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
Minn. R. 4717.3850 Spa Pools
Subpart 1. Applicability.
Spa pools must comply with parts 4717.0150 to 4717.3975, except as modified in this part.
Subp. 2. Recirculation rate.
The recirculation system must recirculate a water volume equal to the pool volume in 30 minutes or less, except that a minimum rate of 35 gallons per minute is required.
Subp. 3. Inlets.
The recirculation system must have at least two remote inlets to the pool.
Subp. 4. Main drain.
The main drain must consist of:
A. a grate-covered bottom opening at least 100 square inches in size; or
B. a bottom opening with an antivortex cover.
Subp. 5. Agitation system.
The agitation system must have a separate pump. If sidewall suction fittings are used, at least two inlets, remotely located, must be provided.
Subp. 6. Timer.
The agitation system must be controlled by a timer with the control switch accessible to pool users but at least five feet from the pool. The maximum time setting must be 15 minutes.
Subp. 7. Access.
Access to a spa pool must be provided according to this subpart.
A. Access to the pool must be provided by an unobstructed deck, at the pool elevation, which extends at least five feet from the pool around the entire perimeter.
B. Where a deck cannot be provided as specified in item A, a five-foot wide deck at the pool elevation must extend along at least 25 percent of the pool perimeter. The remaining perimeter must be one foot or less to a wall, partition, or other effective barrier to restrict access. The deck must provide complete and unobstructed access to the steps in the pool.
C. Where access is provided by sitting on the edge of a raised pool and swinging the legs into the pool:
Subp. 8. Steps.
The requirements for steps in this subpart apply to spa pools.
A. Steps for access to an elevated spa pool must have a handrail and a finished surface that meets the requirements for decks in part 4717.3350.
B. Steps within manufactured spa pools may vary from the dimensions in part 4717.3250, subpart 2, if the commissioner determines that the design is safe.
Subp. 9. Disinfectant.
The disinfection residual must be maintained in accordance with part 4717.1750, subpart 4.
Subp. 10. Signs.
In addition to the signs required in parts 4717.1050, 4717.1350, and 4717.1650, signs with the warnings in items A to C must be posted and plainly visible in the spa pool area.
A. Pregnant women, small children, or persons with heart disease, diabetes, high blood pressure, or low blood pressure should not enter the spa except under advice of a physician.
B. Avoid use while under the influence of alcohol or drugs.
C. Exposure may result in nausea, dizziness, or fainting. Observe a reasonable time limit.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.123; 144.222; 145A.02; 157.01
- History: 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637; 46 SR 175
Minn. R. 4717.3870 Pool Slides
Subpart 1. General.
All slides used at a pool must be specifically designed and intended for use with a pool, and for use as a slide.
Subp. 2. Standard pool slide.
Standard pool slides must meet the Consumer Product Safety Commission Standard "Safety Standard for Swimming Pool Slides," Code of Federal Regulations, title 16, part 1207, as amended through December 18, 1978.
Subp. 3. Slides in wading pools.
Slides for use by children in wading pools must be designated by the manufacturer for use in 24 inches or less of water, and installed accordingly.
Subp. 4. Drop slides.
A slide other than a standard pool slide that discharges to a pool with a drop of more than two inches to the water surface must meet the requirements in this subpart.
A. At least one attendant must be continuously present observing the slide and controlling its use.
B. Slide entry areas must be designed so the rider is able to properly enter and position before sliding down the chute. This area must be a platform or flat portion of the chute with assist bars.
C. Handrails must be present on both sides of the ladder or steps. Platforms and landings must have 42-inch high guardrails, with at least one intermediate-height rail.
D. A landing area must be provided that extends five feet on either side of the center line of the slide and from the back wall to 20 feet in front of the slide terminus.
E. Each slide must have a separate dedicated ladder or stair to exit the pool.
F. The terminus of the slide chute must extend beyond the pool wall and be so oriented that the landing area in front of the slide does not interfere with the landing area of another slide or other pool equipment.
G. The maximum angle of the slide runway at the exit must be between zero degrees and 11 degrees, measured downward from horizontal.
H. The area from the slide terminus outward to six feet in front of the slide terminus must have a depth as specified in this item.
I. The maximum drop height at the terminus of the slide must not exceed 42 inches.
J. If water is pumped from a pool to the slide, the pump intake must be enclosed or constructed to prevent injury or entrapment of pool users. Intake velocity must not exceed 1-1/2 feet per second.
K. Slides must be located and constructed to allow easy supervision. When a slide is not supervised, or not open for use, it must be secured to prevent access.
L. The slide must have posted a set of rules that include the requirements in subitems (1) to (6).
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.123; 145A.02; 157.01
- History: 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637
Minn. R. 4717.3875 Flume Water Slides
Subpart 1. Applicability.
A flume water slide facility must comply with parts 4717.0150 to 4717.3975, except as modified in this part.
Subp. 2. Attendant required.
When the flume is in use, at least one attendant must be continuously present, observing the flume and controlling its use.
Subp. 3. Discharge pool.
A flume must discharge to a dedicated plunge pool or dedicated area of a pool with a separate ladder or stairs.
A. The pool's operating water depth at the end of the flume must be no less than three feet and no more than three feet six inches.
B. The depth specified in item A must be maintained in front of the flume's discharge point for a distance of at least ten feet.
C. Steps with handrails or a ladder must be provided at the exit from the pool.
Subp. 4. Flume exit design.
The exit end of the flume must be perpendicular to the plunge pool wall for a distance of at least ten feet.
A. The flume must terminate no more than six inches below the pool operating water surface level and no more than two inches above the pool operating water surface level.
B. The side of the exit end of the flume must be at least four feet from the side of the pool wall.
C. The distance between the sides of any adjacent flume exit must be at least six feet.
D. The distance between a flume exit end and the opposite side of the pool must be at least 20 feet.
Subp. 5. Water reservoirs.
Water pumped to the top of a flume must be pumped from a reservoir connected to the pool.
A. The reservoir must be inaccessible to patrons.
B. The reservoir must be secured to prevent unauthorized access.
C. Intakes must enable cleaning and be designed to prevent entrapment of patrons.
D. Where any entrance to a pump reservoir presents an underwater obstruction, patron access to that area must be prevented.
E. Water inlet velocity to the reservoir must not exceed 1-1/2 feet per second.
Subp. 6. Pump valves.
Each flume pump discharge pipe must have a check valve. The volume of water in the pool during use and shutdown of any flume pump must permit proper operation of the recirculation system.
Subp. 7. Dedicated plunge pools.
The recirculation system for a dedicated plunge pool must recirculate the water in accordance with part 4717.2560, subpart 4.
Subp. 8. Walkway, stairs, and platform surfaces.
Walkways from the pool deck to the top of the flume or tower, the tower stairs, and platforms must have finished surfaces which meet the requirements for decks in part 4717.3350.
Subp. 9. Fencing.
Fencing complying with part 4717.1550 or other enclosure must encompass the pool deck, walkways, and flume access.
Subp. 10. Flume plan content; certification.
Flume design plans must include:
A. flume construction and layout details;
B. flume support structure details;
C. tower structure, stair, and platform details; and
D. all related construction details. Flume support and tower structure plans must be certified by a registered engineer or approved by a local building official for structural integrity.
Subp. 11. Signs.
A legible sign with the warnings in this subpart must be located at the entrance to each flume slide.
A. Do not use this slide while under the influence of alcohol or drugs.
B. Follow the instructions of the flume attendant.
C. No running, standing, kneeling, rotating, tumbling, or stopping in the flume.
D. Only one person at a time.
E. Keep your hands inside the flume.
F. No diving from the flume.
G. Leave the flume pool promptly after entering.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.123; 145A.02; 157.01
- History: 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637
Minn. R. 4717.3900 [Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
[Repealed, 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637]
Minn. R. 4717.3950 Wave Pools
Subpart 1. Applicability.
Wave pools must comply with parts 4717.0150 to 4717.3975, except as modified in this part.
Subp. 2. Lifeguard required.
When the wave pool is in use:
A. the minimum number of lifeguards who must be continuously present must be one for every 2,000 square feet of pool surface water where the pool depth is greater than two feet; and
B. where the design, configuration, or operation requires additional lifeguards to provide complete observation of the entire pool they must be provided in addition to those required in item A.
Subp. 3. Water depth.
Water depth may reduce to zero at the shallow end of the pool to allow for dissipation of the waves.
Subp. 4. Access barriers.
In addition to the fencing required in part 4717.1550, a safety barrier of stanchions and ropes or a similar barrier at least 42 inches high must be located to prevent pool patrons from entering the pool at any location other than at the zero water depth end. The barrier must have at least one intermediate height rope.
Subp. 5. Emergency shut off.
An emergency shut off for wave generation must be provided at every lifeguard chair or station.
Subp. 6. Wave strength.
The wave generating equipment must not be capable of producing waves that could cause pool users to have contact with the pool bottom in a manner which may cause injury.
Subp. 7. Overflow gutters.
Overflow gutters may be omitted along the side of a pool with the wave generating equipment.
A. If overflow gutters are not provided on the pool side where the wave generating equipment is located, effective skimming devices are required and must be designed and maintained to function continuously during all periods when waves are not generated.
B. Overflow gutters are required on the sides of the pool where the wave generating equipment is not installed.
C. A gutter is required along the zero depth end of the pool.
Subp. 8. Decks.
Deck areas accessible to pool users may be omitted along the side of the pool with the wave generating equipment.
Subp. 9. Recirculation system.
The recirculation system must operate at a rate equivalent to recirculating the total volume of water in the pool in four hours or less. A system of bottom inlets must be provided in the shallow end.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.123; 145A.02; 157.01
- History: 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637
Minn. R. 4717.3970 Pool Closure
When any of the conditions in items A to E are found, a public pool must be immediately closed to use when so ordered by the commissioner. The owner of the pool or the owner's agent must place a sign at the entrance to the pool indicating that the pool is closed. The pool must remain closed until the condition is corrected and approval to reopen is granted by the commissioner. A pool must be closed when:
A. the units of lifesaving equipment specified in part 4717.1450 are not provided;
B. the water clarity standard specified in part 4717.1750, subpart 7, is not met;
C. the disinfection residual specified in part 4717.1750, subpart 3, item A or B, is not met;
D. the pool has been constructed or physically altered without approval of plans as required by part 4717.0450; or
E. there is any condition that endangers the health or safety of the public.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.123; 144.222; 145A.02; 157.01
- History: 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637; 46 SR 175
Minn. R. 4717.3975 Variance
The commissioner shall grant a variance to parts 4717.0100 to 4717.3950 only according to the procedures and criteria specified in parts 4717.7000 to 4717.7050.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.12; 144.123; 145A.02; 157.01
- History: 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637
Minn. R. 4717.4000 Pump
A self-priming pump, suitable for pumping raw sewage or other wastes, and easily serviceable in the event of clogging shall be provided for the on-land disposition of sewage or other wastes from watercraft or other marine conveyance equipped with a marine toilet and retention device. Head characteristics and capacity shall be based on installation needs for the site; however, as a minimum the pump shall be capable of lifting sewage or other wastes 12 feet. The pump may be either fixed in position or portable mounted.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
Minn. R. 4717.4100 Suction Hose
The suction hose shall be pliable, noncollapsible, nonkinking, and a minimum of 15 feet in length. It shall have a smooth interior. A quick-connect drip-proof connector shall be fitted to the end of the hose that is attached to the boat piping outlet. Such connector should be capable of a friction fit in the inside diameter of a 1-1/2-inch Schedule 40 pipe.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
Minn. R. 4717.4200 Discharge Hose
Flexible hose, compatible with the pump characteristics, shall be used. The discharge hose and suction hose of part 4717.4100 shall be labeled and color-coded brown. All permanent piping shall conform to the Minnesota Plumbing Code, chapter 4714.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
Minn. R. 4717.4300 Sewage or Other Waste Disposal Requirements
When connection to a public sanitary sewer is available, the disposal piping shall be designed to discharge thereto.
When a public sewer is not available, a private sewage disposal system installed in compliance with applicable state standards shall be provided unless adequate private treatment and disposal systems are already available. The sewage disposal system may be either a septic tank-soil absorption system or a holding tank.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
Minn. R. 4717.4400 Water Supply Requirements
The on-land disposal facility shall be served by a water supply piping system to permit flushing of the facilities serviced. If a potable water supply is the source of flushing, the distribution piping shall be protected from back-siphonage and back-pressure, labeled, and color-coded brown from the back-siphonage, back-pressure device to the end of the hose. A separate hose shall be provided for filling the drinking water system of the watercraft or other marine conveyance. That hose shall be labeled and color-coded blue.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
Minn. R. 4717.4500 Plan Approval
Subpart 1. Plans submitted.
Two sets of plans and specifications for the proposed construction of new, or modification of existing on-land disposal facilities for the receipt of sewage or other wastes from watercraft or other marine conveyances equipped with marine toilets and retention devices shall be submitted to the Minnesota Department of Health. The proposed modification or construction of the on land disposal facilities shall not commence until the plans and specifications are approved, in writing, by the Department of Health. If the disposal system is designed to discharge an effluent to the waters of the state, or involves a sewer extension from a municipal sewer system, plan approval and a permit shall also be obtained from the Minnesota Pollution Control Agency.
Subp. 2. Content of plans.
At a minimum, plans and specifications shall cover in detail the materials to be used, the pump characteristics, and the water supply system. Where applicable, the connection to the public sewer or the private disposal system, the size and construction details of the septic or holding tank, results of soil percolation tests and soil borings and the construction details of the soil absorption system shall be included. Location of all wells within 100 feet of the absorption system, the surface water high water level and the general topography of the area shall be shown on the plans.
Subp. 3. Plan approval.
Plans and specifications will not be reviewed for approval until they are submitted in sufficient detail to permit proper evaluation for compliance with Minnesota Statutes, sections 86B.325; 86B.401, subdivision 1, paragraph (c); and 86B.535; and these and all other applicable rules. The plan approval required by this section shall be in addition to any other permit, approval, or license required by federal, state, or local law.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
Minn. R. 4717.4600 [Repealed, 14 SR 1874]
[Repealed, 14 SR 1874]
Minn. R. 4717.4700 [Repealed, 14 SR 1874]
[Repealed, 14 SR 1874]
Minn. R. 4717.4800 [Repealed, 14 SR 1874]
[Repealed, 14 SR 1874]
Minn. R. 4717.4900 [Repealed, 14 SR 1874]
[Repealed, 14 SR 1874]
Minn. R. 4717.5000 [Repealed, 14 SR 1874]
[Repealed, 14 SR 1874]
Minn. R. 4717.5100 [Repealed, 14 SR 1874]
[Repealed, 14 SR 1874]
Minn. R. 4717.5200 [Repealed, 14 SR 1874]
[Repealed, 14 SR 1874]
Minn. R. 4717.5300 [Repealed, 14 SR 1874]
[Repealed, 14 SR 1874]
Minn. R. 4717.6000 [Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
Minn. R. 4717.6100 [Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
Minn. R. 4717.6200 [Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
Minn. R. 4717.6300 [Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
Minn. R. 4717.6400 [Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
Minn. R. 4717.6500 [Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
Minn. R. 4717.6600 [Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
Minn. R. 4717.6700 [Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
Minn. R. 4717.6800 [Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
Minn. R. 4717.6900 [Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
Minn. R. 4717.7000 Variance Request
Subpart 1. Request.
A party may ask the commissioner of health to grant a variance from the following items:
A. clean indoor air, parts 4620.0100 to 4620.1450;
B. formaldehyde in housing, part 4620.1800;
C. asbestos abatement, part 4620.3710, item A, and, where space limitations prevent compliance with the specified requirements or where compliance with the specified requirements would create a greater hazard, parts 4620.3566, 4620.3567, 4620.3568, subparts 1 to 4, 4620.3569, 4620.3571, subparts 1 and 2, and 4620.3575, subpart 3;
D. lodging establishments, parts 4625.0400 to 4625.0600; 4625.0900; 4625.1200 to 4625.1600; 4625.2000, except the last sentence; and 4625.2200;
E. manufactured home parks and recreational camping areas, parts 4630.0400; 4630.0600, subparts 2 to 4; and 4630.0900 to 4630.1700;
F. children's camps, parts 4630.2300 to 4630.4700;
G. enclosed sports arenas, parts 4620.3900 to 4620.4800, except part 4620.3950;
H. public swimming pools, parts 4717.0150 to 4717.3975;
I. [Repealed, L 2007 c 140 art 13 s 3]
J. general requirements for construction of surface water and groundwater under the direct influence of surface water treatment facilities, parts 4720.3920 to 4720.3965;
K. water haulers, parts 4720.4000 to 4720.4600;
L. wellhead protection, parts 4720.5200 to 4720.5570;
M. wells and borings, parts 4725.0100 to 4725.7450;
N. explorers and exploratory borings, parts 4727.0100 to 4727.1250;
O. explorers and exploratory borings, parts 4727.0100 to 4727.1250;
P. ionizing radiation, parts 4732.0100 to 4732.1130, except parts 4732.0200 and 4732.0210;
Q. lead poisoning prevention, parts 4761.2000 to 4761.2700, except parts 4761.2000, 4761.2100, 4761.2200, 4761.2220, and 4761.2510;
R. radon licensing, parts 4620.7000 to 4620.7950; and
S. radioactive materials, parts 4731.0100 to 4731.8140.
Subp. 2. Procedures for requesting a variance.
The procedures in this subpart apply to a request for a variance of the rules specified in subpart 1. Additional procedures may be specified in the rules listed in subpart 1 which also must be complied with. The party requesting the variance must submit the variance request in writing to the commissioner of health along with any applicable fee. A request must contain:
A. the specific language in the rule or rules from which the variance is requested;
B. the reasons why the rule cannot be met;
C. the alternative measures that will be taken to assure a comparable degree of protection to health or the environment if a variance is granted;
D. the length of time for which the variance is requested;
E. a statement that the party applying for the variance will comply with the terms of the variance, if granted; and
F. other relevant information the commissioner determines necessary to properly evaluate the request for the variance.
Subp. 3. Applicant for a variance.
The applicant for a variance must be the party to whom the rule specified in subpart 1 applies.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.05; 14.388; 31.101; 31.11; 103I.101; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.08; 144.12; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.123; 144.383; 144.4961; 144.9508; 145A.02; 157.01; 157.011; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13; 326.70 to 326.81
- History: 15 SR 1597; 17 SR 2773; 19 SR 1419; 19 SR 1637; 20 SR 2765; 22 SR 314; 22 SR 668; 23 SR 519; 23 SR 1591; 26 SR 31; 28 SR 147; 29 SR 531; L 2007 c 140 art 13 s 3; 33 SR 1771; L 2015 c 21 art 1 s 109; 43 SR 687; 44 SR 239
Minn. R. 4717.7010 Criteria for Decision; Conditions
Subpart 1. Criteria for granting a variance.
The commissioner may grant a variance if:
A. the variance was requested in a manner prescribed by part 4717.7000;
B. the variance will have no potential adverse effect on public health, safety, or the environment;
C. the alternative measures to be taken, if any, are equivalent to or superior to those prescribed in the rule;
D. strict compliance with the rule will impose an undue burden on the applicant; and
E. the variance does not vary a statutory standard.
Subp. 2. Conditions for variance.
In granting a variance the commissioner may attach conditions the commissioner determines are needed to protect public health, safety, or the environment.
Subp. 3. Future effect.
A variance shall have only future effect.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.05
- History: 15 SR 1597
Minn. R. 4717.7020 Notification of Decision
The commissioner of health shall notify the party in writing of the commissioner's decision to grant or deny the variance. If a variance is granted, the notification must specify the period of time for which the variance will be effective and the alternative measures or conditions, if any, the applicant must meet. If a variance is denied, the commissioner of health shall specify the reasons for the denial.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.05
- History: 15 SR 1597
Minn. R. 4717.7030 Effect of Alternative Measures or Conditions
Alternative measures or conditions attached to a variance have the force and effect of the applicable rule. If the party violates the alternative measures or conditions attached to the variance, the party is subject to the enforcement actions and penalties provided in the applicable law or rule. The party to whom a variance has been issued must notify the commissioner of health in writing within 30 days of any material change in the conditions upon which the variance was granted.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.05
- History: 15 SR 1597
Minn. R. 4717.7040 Renewal of Variance
A request for the renewal of a variance must be submitted to the commissioner of health in writing 30 days before its expiration date. Renewal requests must contain the information specified in part 4717.7000, subpart 2. The commissioner shall renew a variance if the party continues to satisfy the criteria contained in part 4717.7010 and demonstrates compliance with the alternative measures or conditions imposed at the time the original variance was approved. This provision does not apply if there has been any material change in the conditions upon which the variance was granted.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.05
- History: 15 SR 1597
Minn. R. 4717.7050 Denial, Revocation, or Refusal to Renew; Appeals
Subpart 1. Action.
The commissioner shall deny, revoke, or refuse to renew a variance if the commissioner determines that the criteria in part 4717.7010 are not met.
Subp. 2. Appeal procedure.
A party may appeal the denial, revocation, or refusal to renew a variance by requesting, in writing, a contested case hearing under the Administrative Procedure Act, Minnesota Statutes, chapter 14, within 30 days of receipt of the notice to deny, revoke, or refuse to renew the variance.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.05
- History: 15 SR 1597
Minn. R. 4717.7100 [Repealed, 33 SR 1792]
[Repealed, 33 SR 1792]
Minn. R. 4717.7150 Repealed by subpart
Subpart 1.
[Repealed, 33 SR 1792]
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, 33 SR 1792]
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, 33 SR 1792]
Subp. 4.
[Repealed, 33 SR 1792]
Subp. 5.
[Repealed, 19 SR 1191]
Subp. 6.
[Repealed, 33 SR 1792]
Subp. 7.
[Repealed, 33 SR 1792]
Subp. 8.
[Repealed, 33 SR 1792]
Subp. 9.
[Repealed, 33 SR 1792]
Subp. 10.
[Repealed, 33 SR 1792]
Subp. 11.
[Repealed, 33 SR 1792]
Minn. R. 4717.7200 [Repealed, 33 SR 1792]
[Repealed, 33 SR 1792]
Minn. R. 4717.7300 [Repealed, 33 SR 1792]
[Repealed, 33 SR 1792]
Minn. R. 4717.7400 [Repealed, 33 SR 1792]
[Repealed, 33 SR 1792]
Minn. R. 4717.7500 Table of Health Risk Limits
Subpart 1. Generally.
This part contains the table of the health risk limits.
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, 43 SR 262]
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, 35 SR 1395]
Subp. 3a.
[Repealed, 35 SR 1395]
Subp. 4. Aldicarb.
Aldicarb:
Subp. 4a. Allyl chloride (3 chloropropene).
Allyl chloride (3 chloropropene):
Subp. 5.
[Repealed, 50 SR 101]
Subp. 6. Antimony.
Antimony:
Subp. 6a.
[Repealed, 35 SR 1395]
Subp. 7. Barium.
Barium:
Subp. 8.
[Repealed, 35 SR 1395]
Subp. 9. Benzoic acid.
Benzoic acid:
Subp. 10. Beryllium.
Beryllium:
Subp. 11.
[Repealed, 48 SR 465]
Subp. 12. Bis(chloroethyl)ether (BCEE).
Bis(chloroethyl)ether (BCEE):
Subp. 13. Bis(chloromethyl)ether (BCME).
Bis(chloromethyl)ether (BCME):
Subp. 14.
[Repealed, 35 SR 1395]
Subp. 15.
[Repealed, 48 SR 465]
Subp. 16. Bromoform.
Bromoform:
Subp. 17. Bromomethane (Methyl bromide).
Bromomethane (Methyl bromide):
Subp. 18. n-Butanol.
n-Butanol:
Subp. 19.
[Repealed, 40 SR 689]
Subp. 20. Butylphthalyl butylglycolate (BPBG).
Butylphthalyl butylglycolate (BPBG):
Subp. 21.
[Repealed, 40 SR 689]
Subp. 22. Carbon disulfide.
Carbon disulfide:
Subp. 23.
[Repealed, 38 SR 397]
Subp. 23a. Chloramben.
Chloramben:
Subp. 24. Chlorobenzene.
Chlorobenzene:
Subp. 25.
[Repealed, 35 SR 1395]
Subp. 26. 2-Chlorophenol.
2-Chlorophenol:
Subp. 26a.
[Repealed, 50 SR 101]
Subp. 26b. Chromium III.
Chromium III:
Subp. 27. Chromium VI.
Chromium VI:
Subp. 28. Cumene (Isopropyl benzene).
Cumene (Isopropyl benzene):
Subp. 29. Cyanide, free.
Cyanide, free:
Subp. 30. Dibromochloromethane.
Dibromochloromethane:
Subp. 31.
[Repealed, 50 SR 101]
Subp. 32.
[Repealed, 40 SR 689]
Subp. 33. Dicamba.
Dicamba:
Subp. 34. 1,2-Dichlorobenzene.
1,2-Dichlorobenzene:
Subp. 34a.
[Repealed, 48 SR 465]
Subp. 35. 3,3'-Dichlorobenzidine.
3,3'-Dichlorobenzidine:
Subp. 36.
[Repealed, 35 SR 1395]
Subp. 37. p,p'-Dichlorodiphenyl dichloroethane (DDD).
p,p'-Dichlorodiphenyl dichloroethane (DDD):
Subp. 38. p,p'-Dichlorodiphenyldichloroethylene (DDE).
p,p'-Dichlorodiphenyldichloroethylene (DDE):
Subp. 39. p,p'-Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane (DDT).
p,p'-Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane (DDT):
Subp. 39a.
[Repealed, 35 SR 1395]
Subp. 40.
[Repealed, 38 SR 397]
Subp. 40a.
[Repealed, 35 SR 1395]
Subp. 41.
[Repealed, 35 SR 1395]
Subp. 42.
[Repealed, 38 SR 397]
Subp. 43.
[Repealed, 35 SR 1395]
Subp. 44. 2,4-Dichlorophenol.
2,4-Dichlorophenol:
Subp. 45.
[Repealed, 43 SR 262]
Subp. 45a.
[Repealed, 48 SR 465]
Subp. 45b. 1,3-Dichloropropene.
1,3-Dichloropropene:
Subp. 46.
[Repealed, 35 SR 1395]
Subp. 47. Diethyl phthalate.
Diethyl phthalate:
Subp. 48. 2,4-Dimethylphenol.
2,4-Dimethylphenol:
Subp. 48a. Dimethylphthalate.
Dimethylphthalate:
Subp. 49. 2,4-Dinitrophenol.
2,4-Dinitrophenol:
Subp. 49a. Disulfoton.
Disulfoton:
Subp. 50.
[Repealed, 35 SR 1395]
Subp. 51.
[Repealed, 43 SR 262]
Subp. 52.
[Repealed, 35 SR 1395]
Subp. 52a.
[Repealed, 35 SR 1395]
Subp. 53.
[Repealed, 43 SR 262]
Subp. 54.
[Repealed, 48 SR 465]
Subp. 54a. Formaldehyde.
Formaldehyde:
Subp. 55. Heptachlor.
Heptachlor:
Subp. 56. Heptachlor epoxide.
Heptachlor epoxide:
Subp. 57. Hexachlorobenzene.
Hexachlorobenzene:
Subp. 58. Hexachlorobutadiene.
Hexachlorobutadiene:
Subp. 58a.
[Repealed, 48 SR 465]
Subp. 59. Isophorone.
Isophorone:
Subp. 60. Linuron.
Linuron:
Subp. 61.
[Repealed, 48 SR 465]
Subp. 61a. Methanol.
Methanol:
Subp. 62. 2-Methyl-4-chlorophenoxyacetic acid (MCPA).
2-Methyl-4-chlorophenoxyacetic acid (MCPA):
Subp. 62a. Methyl ethyl ketone (MEK, 2-butanone).
Methyl ethyl ketone (MEK, 2-butanone):
Subp. 62b. Methyl isobutyl ketone (MIBK).
Methyl isobutyl ketone (MIBK):
Subp. 63. 2-Methylphenol (o-cresol).
2-Methylphenol (o-cresol):
Subp. 64. 3-Methylphenol (m-cresol).
3-Methylphenol (m-cresol):
Subp. 64a. 4-Methylphenol (p-cresol).
4-Methylphenol (p-cresol):
Subp. 65.
[Repealed, 35 SR 1395]
Subp. 66.
[Repealed, 38 SR 397]
Subp. 66a.
[Repealed, 38 SR 397]
Subp. 67. Nickel, soluble salts.
Nickel, soluble salts:
Subp. 68.
[Repealed, 35 SR 1395]
Subp. 69. N-Nitrosodiphenylamine.
N-Nitrosodiphenylamine:
Subp. 70.
[Repealed, 35 SR 1395]
Subp. 70a.
MR 2008 [Expired]
Subp. 70b.
MR 2008 [Expired]
Subp. 71. Phenol.
Phenol:
Subp. 72. Picloram.
Picloram:
Subp. 72a. Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs).
Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs):
Subp. 73. Prometon.
Prometon:
Subp. 74. Propachlor.
Propachlor:
Subp. 75.
[Repealed, 43 SR 262]
Subp. 76. Selenium.
Selenium:
Subp. 77. Silver.
Silver:
Subp. 77a.
[Repealed, 35 SR 1395]
Subp. 78. 1,1,1,2-Tetrachloroethane.
1,1,1,2-Tetrachloroethane:
Subp. 78a. 1,1,2,2-Tetrachloroethane.
1,1,2,2-Tetrachloroethane:
Subp. 78b.
[Repealed, 35 SR 1395]
Subp. 78c. Thallium salts.
Thallium salts:
Subp. 78d. Tin.
Tin:
Subp. 79.
[Repealed, 35 SR 1395]
Subp. 80. Toxaphene.
Toxaphene:
Subp. 80a.
[Repealed, 35 SR 1395]
Subp. 81. 1,1,2-Trichloroethane.
1,1,2-Trichloroethane:
Subp. 81a.
[Repealed, 35 SR 1395]
Subp. 82. Trichlorofluoromethane.
Trichlorofluoromethane:
Subp. 83. 2,4,6-Trichlorophenol.
2,4,6-Trichlorophenol:
Subp. 84. 2,4,5-Trichlorophenoxyacetic acid (2,4,5-T).
2,4,5-Trichlorophenoxyacetic acid (2,4,5-T):
Subp. 85.
[Repealed, 35 SR 1395]
Subp. 86.
[Repealed, 38 SR 397]
Subp. 87. 1,1,2-Trichloro-1,2,2-trifluoroethane.
1,1,2-Trichloro-1,2,2-trifluoroethane:
Subp. 88. 1,3,5-Trinitrobenzene.
1,3,5-Trinitrobenzene:
Subp. 88a. Vanadium.
Vanadium:
Subp. 88b.
[Repealed, 35 SR 1395]
Subp. 89.
[Repealed, 35 SR 1395]
Subp. 89a. Zinc.
Zinc:
Subp. 90. Reference doses and slope factors.
For purposes of this part:
- Substances or chemicals that have an RfD or slope factor annotated with a (C) are classified by the United States Environmental Protection Agency as possible human carcinogens.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103H.201; 144.0751; 144.12; L 2007 c 37
- History: 18 SR 1340; 19 SR 1191; 32 SR 373; 35 SR 1395; 38 SR 397; 40 SR 689; 43 SR 262
Minn. R. 4717.7600 [Repealed, 33 SR 1792]
[Repealed, 33 SR 1792]
Minn. R. 4717.7650 [Repealed, 33 SR 1792]
[Repealed, 33 SR 1792]
Minn. R. 4717.7700 [Repealed, 33 SR 1792]
[Repealed, 33 SR 1792]
Minn. R. 4717.7750 [Repealed, 33 SR 1792]
[Repealed, 33 SR 1792]
Minn. R. 4717.7800 [Repealed, 33 SR 1792]
[Repealed, 33 SR 1792]
Minn. R. 4717.7810 Health Risk Limits; Purpose and Scope
Subpart 1. Purpose.
The purpose of parts 4717.7810 to 4717.7900 is to establish health risk limits (HRLs) for substances found to degrade Minnesota groundwater.
Subp. 2. Scope.
A. As provided by Minnesota Statutes, sections 103H.005, subdivision 3, and 103H.201, subdivision 1, HRLs are derived as human health-based groundwater standards based on cancer or noncancer effects from consumption and federal maximum contaminant levels incorporated by reference as required by Laws 2007, chapter 147, article 17, section 2.
B. Health risk limits are for use by public agencies and private entities in Minnesota in determining whether groundwater, impacted by human activity, is subject to regulatory or advisory actions based on human health concerns. HRLs specify a minimum level of quality for water used for human consumption, such as ingestion of water, and do not imply that allowing degradation of water supplies to HRL levels is acceptable.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103H.201
- History: 33 SR 1792
Minn. R. 4717.7820 Definitions
Subpart 1. Scope.
For the purposes of parts 4717.7810 to 4717.7900, the terms in this part have the meanings given them.
Subp. 2. AFlifetime or lifetime adjustment factor.
"AFlifetime" or "lifetime adjustment factor" is a numerical multiplier used to modify the adult-based cancer slope factor for lifetime exposure based on chemical-specific data.
Subp. 3. ADAFs or age-dependent adjustment factors.
"ADAFs" or "age-dependent adjustment factors" are the default modifiers to the cancer slope factor that account for the increased susceptibility to cancer from early life exposures to linear carcinogens in the absence of chemical-specific data. For the default derivation of cancer HRLs, the following ADAFs and corresponding age groups are utilized:
ADAF<2=10, for birth until two years of age; ADAF2 to <16=3, for two up to 16 years of age; and ADAF16+=1, for 16 years of age and older.
Subp. 4. Additional lifetime cancer risk.
"Additional lifetime cancer risk" means the probability that daily exposure to a carcinogen over a lifetime may induce cancer. The Department of Health uses an additional cancer risk of 1x10-5 (1 in 100,000) to derive cancer HRLs.
Subp. 5. Carcinogen.
"Carcinogen" means a chemical:
A. classified as a human carcinogen or a probable human carcinogen according to the "EPA Classification System for Categorizing Weight of Evidence for Carcinogenicity from Human and Animal Studies," the Risk Assessment Guidelines of 1986, United States Environmental Protection Agency, Office of Health and Environmental Assessment (August 1987), which is incorporated by reference;
B. classified as "carcinogenic to humans" or "likely to be carcinogenic to humans" according to the Final Guidelines for Carcinogenic Risk Assessment, United States Environmental Protection Agency, Office of Research and Development (March 2005), which are incorporated by reference. The guidelines are not subject to frequent change. The final guidelines are available at: http://cfpub.epa.gov/ncea/cfm/recordisplay.cfm?deid=116283 or through the public library using the Minitex interlibrary loan system; or
C. classified as a substance known to be a human carcinogen or reasonably anticipated to be a human carcinogen in the Report on Carcinogens, United States Department of Health and Human Services, Public Health Service, National Toxicology Program. This report is incorporated by reference and is subject to frequent change. The report is available at: http://ntp.niehs.nih.gov/go/roc.
Subp. 6. Chemical.
"Chemical" includes a single chemical or a defined mixture of two or more chemicals.
Subp. 7. Chemical abstracts service registry number or CAS number.
The "chemical abstracts service registry number" or "CAS number" means the number assigned to a chemical by the Chemical Abstracts Service, a division of the American Chemical Society, 2540 Olentangy River Road, Box 3012, Columbus, OH 43210-0012. CAS numbers function as unique identifiers for chemicals in part 4717.7860. The Chemical Abstracts Service maintains a database of all CAS numbers at http://www.cas.org.
Subp. 8. Developmental health endpoint or developmental.
"Developmental health endpoint" or "developmental" means an adverse effect on the developing organism that may result from parental exposure prior to conception, maternal exposure during prenatal development, or direct exposure postnatally until the time of sexual maturation. Developmental toxicity may be detected at any point in the lifespan of the organism. The major manifestations of developmental toxicity include:
A. death of the developing organism;
B. structural abnormality;
C. altered growth; and
D. functional deficiency.
Subp. 9. Duration.
"Duration" means the length of the exposure period under consideration.
A. For the default derivation of noncancer health risk limits, the following durations are utilized:
B. For the default derivation of cancer health risk limits, the durations corresponding to the three age groups associated with the age-dependent adjustments (ADAFs) specified in subpart 3, are utilized:
C. For the chemical-specific derivation of a noncancer or cancer health risk limit, the duration is based on chemical-specific information regarding the relevant length of exposure.
Subp. 10. Endocrine or (E).
"Endocrine" or "(E)" means a change in circulating hormone levels or interactions with hormone receptors, regardless of the organ or organ system affected. Endpoints with or without the (E) designation are deemed equivalent, for example, thyroid (E)=thyroid, and shall be included in the same health risk index equation in part 4717.7880.
Subp. 11. Health risk index.
"Health risk index" is a sum of the quotients calculated by identifying all chemicals that share a common health endpoint and dividing the measured or statistically derived concentration of each chemical by its HRL. The multiple chemical health risk index is compared to the multiple chemical health risk limit, defined in subpart 19 as one, to identify exceedances. Equations to calculate multiple chemical health risk indices are found in parts 4717.7880 and 4717.7890.
Subp. 12. Health risk index endpoint or health endpoint.
"Health risk index endpoint" or "health endpoint" means the general description of toxic effects used to group chemicals for the purpose of calculating a health risk index. Health risk index endpoints or health endpoints for each chemical are listed in part 4717.7860.
Subp. 13. Health risk limit or HRL.
"Health risk limit" or "HRL" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 103H.005, subdivision 3. An HRL is expressed as µg/L.
Subp. 14. Intake rate or IR.
"Intake rate" or "IR" means the rate of ingestion of water, or the amount of water, on a per body weight basis, ingested per day, expressed as liters per kilogram body weight per day or L/kg-day. The time-weighted average of the 95th percentile intake rate for the derivation of cancer and noncancer HRLs is calculated for the relevant duration specified in subpart 9.
Subp. 15. Maximum contaminant level or MCL.
"Maximum contaminant level" or "MCL" means the maximum permissible level of a contaminant in water that is delivered to any user of a public water system under the Federal Drinking Water Program according to Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, section 141.2.
Subp. 16. Maximum contaminant level-based health risk limit or MCL-based HRL.
"Maximum contaminant level-based health risk limit" or "MCL-based HRL" means an MCL that is adopted as an HRL as authorized by Laws 2007, chapter 147, article 17, section 2.
Subp. 17. µg/L.
"µg/L" means micrograms of chemical per liter of water.
Subp. 18. mg/kg-day.
"mg/kg-day" means milligrams of chemical per kilogram of body weight per day.
Subp. 19. Multiple chemical health risk limit or multiple chemical HRL.
The "multiple chemical health risk limit" or "multiple chemical HRL" is equal to one. Equations to determine whether the multiple chemical health risk limit has been exceeded are in parts 4717.7880 and 4717.7890.
Subp. 20. Nonlinear carcinogen.
"Nonlinear carcinogen" means a chemical agent for which, particularly at low doses, the associated cancer risk does not rise in direct proportion to the extent of exposure, and for which a threshold level of exposure exists below which there is no cancer risk. The HRL for a nonlinear carcinogen is based on a reference dose that is lower than the threshold for cancer risk.
Subp. 21. Reference dose or RfD.
"Reference dose" or "RfD" means an estimate of a dose for a given duration to the human population, including susceptible subgroups such as infants, that is likely to be without an appreciable risk of adverse effects during a lifetime. It is derived from a suitable dose level at which there are few or no statistically or biologically significant increases in the frequency or severity of an adverse effect between the dosed population and its associated control group. The RfD includes one or more divisors, applied to the suitable dose level, accounting for: (i) uncertainty in extrapolating from mammalian laboratory animal data to humans; (ii) variation in toxicological sensitivity among individuals in the human population; (iii) uncertainty in extrapolating from effects observed in a short-term study to effects of long-term exposure; (iv) uncertainty in using a study in which health effects were found at all doses tested; and (v) uncertainty associated with deficiencies in the available data. An HRL is not derived if the product of the divisors exceeds 3,000. The RfD is expressed as mg/kg-day.
Subp. 22. Relative source contribution or RSC.
"Relative source contribution" or "RSC" means the fraction of total exposure to a substance or chemical that is allocated to drinking water. The default RSC is 0.2 for highly volatile chemicals. For other chemicals, the default RSC is 0.5 for acute and short-term HRLs and 0.2 for subchronic or chronic HRLs.
Subp. 23. Slope factor or SF.
"Slope factor" or "SF" means an upper-bound estimate of risk per increment of dose that can be used to estimate cancer risk probabilities for different exposure levels. A cancer slope factor is expressed as cancer incidence per mg/kg-day. Minnesota Statutes, section 103H.201, subdivision 1, paragraph (d), requires the Department of Health, when deriving cancer HRLs, to use cancer slope factors published by the United States Environmental Protection Agency.
Subp. 24. Toxic effects.
"Toxic effects" means an observable or measurable adverse biological event, or the organ, tissue, or system in which the effect is manifested. The designation of endpoints does not exclude other possible observable and measurable biological events. For the purpose of grouping chemicals and creating a health risk index when multiple chemicals are present, toxic effects may be ascribed to more general health risk index endpoints or health endpoints. Health endpoints are listed in part 4717.7860.
Subp. 25. Volatility.
"Volatility" means having a tendency to evaporate. Using Henry's Law constants, chemicals are characterized as nonvolatile or low, moderate, or high volatility as follows:
A. nonvolatile - Henry's Law constant <3x10-7 atm-m3/mol;
B. low - Henry's Law constant >3x10-7 to 1x10-5 atm-m3/mol;
C. moderate - Henry's Law constant >1x10-5 to 1x10-3 atm-m3/mol; and
D. high - Henry's Law constant >1x10-3 atm-m3/mol.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103H.201
- History: 33 SR 1792
Minn. R. 4717.7830 For Toxic Effects Other Than Cancer
Subpart 1. Scope.
This part establishes the method for determining a health risk limit for a toxic effect other than cancer.
Subp. 2. Equation for toxic effects other than cancer or MCL-based HRLs.
The equation for deriving a health risk limit for a toxic effect other than cancer or a maximum contaminant level-based health risk limit is:
Where:
A. nHRLduration is the noncancer health risk limit for a given duration as defined in part 4717.7820, subparts 9, item A, and 13, expressed as µg/L. The HRLs derived for each chemical are listed in part 4717.7860.
B. RfDduration is the reference dose for a given duration as defined in part 4717.7820, subparts 9, item A, and 21, expressed as mg/kg-day. The RfDs utilized for each chemical are listed in part 4717.7860.
C. RSC is the relative source contribution factor as defined in part 4717.7820, subpart 22. The RSCs utilized for each chemical are listed in part 4717.7860.
D. 1,000 is a factor used to convert milligrams (mg) to micrograms (µg). There are 1,000 micrograms per milligram.
E. IRduration is the intake rate for a given duration as defined in part 4717.7820, subparts 9, item A, and 14. The IRs utilized for each chemical are listed in part 4717.7860.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103H.201
- History: 33 SR 1792
Minn. R. 4717.7840 For Cancer
Subpart 1. Scope.
This part establishes the methods for determining a health risk limit for cancer.
Subp. 2. Equation for cancer for chemicals other than chemicals for which a lifetime adjustment factor has been derived or nonlinear carcinogens.
The equation for deriving the health risk limit for cancer for chemicals other than chemicals identified in subpart 3, or nonlinear carcinogens is:
Where:
A. cHRL is the cancer health risk limit expressed as µg/L.
B. (1x10-5) is the additional cancer risk level.
C. Units 1,000 are as described in part 4717.7830, subpart 2.
D. SF or slope factor is expressed in units of cancer incidence per mg/kg-day. The SFs utilized for each chemical are listed in part 4717.7860.
E. ADAF is the age-dependent adjustment factor as defined in part 4717.7820, subpart 3. The ADAFs utilized for each chemical are listed in part 4717.7860.
F. IRduration is the intake rate for a given duration as defined in part 4717.7820, subpart 14. The IRs utilized for each chemical are listed in part 4717.7860.
G. D is the duration corresponding to the three age groups birth up to two years of age (two-year duration), two up to 16 years of age (14-year duration), and 16 up to 70 years of age (54-year duration) as defined in part 4717.7820, subpart 9, item B.
H. 70 years is the standard lifetime duration utilized by the United States Environmental Protection Agency in the characterization of lifetime cancer risk.
Subp. 3. Equation for cancer for chemicals for which a lifetime adjustment factor has been derived.
The Department of Health may depart from the default equation presented in subpart 2 when an adjustment factor is based on chemical-specific information. The equation for deriving the health risk limit for cancer for these chemicals is:
Where:
A. Units or values for cHRL, (1x10-5), 1,000, and SF are as described in part 4717.7840, subpart 2.
B. AFlifetime is the lifetime adjustment factor utilized to adjust the adult exposure-based SF for lifetime exposure based on chemical-specific data. The AFlifetime utilized is described in part 4717.7860.
C. IRlifetime is the 95th percentile water intake rate representative of a lifetime period.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103H.201
- History: 33 SR 1792
Minn. R. 4717.7850 Use of Maximum Contaminant Levels
Subpart 1. Scope.
This part establishes the methods for determining a health risk limit based on a maximum contaminant level.
Subp. 2. Water level standards.
As authorized by Laws 2007, chapter 147, article 17, section 2, the maximum contaminant levels for the following chemicals are adopted by reference as health risk limits:
A. Atrazine;
B. Dichloromethane;
C. Nitrate (as N);
D. Simazine;
E. [Repealed, 48 SR 465]
F. 2(2,4,5-Trichlorophenoxy) propionic acid.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103H.201; 144.0751; 144.12
- History: 33 SR 1792; 40 SR 689
Minn. R. 4717.7860 Health Risk Limits Table
Subpart 1. Generally.
This table lists the health risk limits derived from methods specified in parts 4717.7830, 4717.7840, and 4717.7850. For each chemical, this table specifies:
A. the chemical name;
B. the CAS number;
C. the year the HRL was adopted;
D. the volatility classification;
E. any noncancer HRL;
F. any cancer HRL;
G. the RfD and RSC used in the derivation of any noncancer HRL;
H. the slope factor and any ADAF or AFlifetime used in the derivation of any cancer HRL;
I. the intake rate used in the derivation of any noncancer or cancer HRL; and
J. the health endpoints.
Subp. 2. Explanation of table in this part.
A. "--" symbol means not relevant.
B. "NA" means not applicable.
C. "ND" means not derived due to absence or paucity of toxicity information.
D. "None" means not applicable for inclusion in the health risk index.
E. The following explanations in subitems (1) to (3) apply where noted:
Subp. 2a. Acenaphthene.
Subp. 2b. Acetaminophen.
Subp. 3. Acetochlor.
Subp. 3a. Acetochlor ESA.
Subp. 3b. Acetochlor OXA.
Subp. 3c. Acetone.
Subp. 3d. 6-Acetyl-1,1,2,4,4,7-hexamethyltetraline (AHTN).
Subp. 3e. Acrylamide.
Subp. 4. Alachlor.
Subp. 4a. Aminomethylphosphonic acid (AMPA).
Subp. 5. Atrazine.
Subp. 5a. Bentazon.
Subp. 6. Benzene.
Subp. 6a.
[Renumbered subp 6f]
Subp. 6b.
[Renumbered subp 6g]
Subp. 6c. Benzo[a]pyrene.
Subp. 6d. Benzophenone.
Subp. 6e. 1H-Benzotriazole.
Subp. 6f. Biphenyl.
Subp. 6g. Bisphenol A (BPA).
Subp. 6h. Bromodichloromethane.
Subp. 6i. Butyl benzyl phthalate.
Subp. 6j. Cadmium.
Subp. 6k. Carbamazepine.
Subp. 6l. Carbon tetrachloride.
Subp. 7. Chloroform.
Subp. 7a.
[Renumbered subp 7c]
Subp. 7b. Chlorothalonil.
Subp. 7c. Clothianidin.
Subp. 7d. Cyanazine.
Subp. 7e. 1,2-Dibromoethane (EDB).
Subp. 8.
[Renumbered subp 7d]
Subp. 8a.
[Renumbered subp 8f]
Subp. 8b.
[Renumbered subp 8g]
Subp. 8c.
[Renumbered subp 8h]
Subp. 8d.
[Renumbered subp 8i]
Subp. 8e. Dibutyl phthalate.
Subp. 8f. 1, 4-Dichlorobenzene.
Subp. 8g.
[Repealed, 50 SR 101]
Subp. 8h. 1,2-Dichloroethane.
Subp. 8i. trans-1,2-Dichloroethene.
Subp. 8j. 1,1-Dichloroethylene (Vinylidene chloride).
Subp. 8k. 1, 2-Dichloropropane.
Subp. 9. cis 1,2-Dichloroethylene.
Subp. 10. Dichloromethane.
Subp. 10a. 2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid (2,4-D).
Subp. 11. Dieldrin.
Subp. 11a.
[Renumbered subp 11d]
Subp. 11b.
[Renumbered subp 11f]
Subp. 11c. Di(2-ethylhexyl) phthalate (DEHP).
Subp. 11d. N,N-Diethyl-meta-toluamide (DEET).
Subp. 11e. Dimethenamid and Dimethenamid-p.
Subp. 11f. Dinoseb.
Subp. 11g. 1,4-Dioxane.
Subp. 12.
[Repealed, 40 SR 689]
Subp. 12a. 17α-Ethinylestradiol.
Subp. 12b. Ethylbenzene.
Subp. 12c. S-Ethyl-N,N-dipropylthiocarbamate (EPTC).
Subp. 12d. Ethylene glycol.
Subp. 12e. Fluoranthene.
Subp. 12f. Fluorene (9H-Fluorene).
Subp. 12g. Fomesafen.
Subp. 12h. Imidacloprid.
Subp. 12i. Manganese.
Subp. 12j. Metolachlor and S-Metolachlor.
Subp. 12k. Metolachlor ESA.
Subp. 12l. Metolachlor OXA.
Subp. 12m. Metribuzin.
Subp. 12n. Naphthalene.
Subp. 13. Nitrate (as N).
Subp. 13a. p-Nonylphenol (4-Nonylphenol).
Subp. 13b. 4-tert-Octylphenol.
Subp. 14. Pentachlorophenol (PCP).
Subp. 14a. Perfluorobutane sulfonate (PFBS).
Subp. 14b. Perfluorobutanoate (PFBA).
Subp. 14c. Perfluorohexane sulfonate (PFHxS) and salts.
- 95th percentile water intake rates (Tables 3-1, 3-3, and 3-5 Environmental Protection Agency, Exposure Factors Handbook, 2019) or upper percentile breast milk intake rates (Table 15-1, Environmental Protection Agency, Exposure Factors Handbook, 2011), and MDH background information.
Subp. 14d. Perfluorohexanoate (PFHxA) and salts.
Subp. 15. Perfluorooctane sulfonate (PFOS) and salts.
- A reference serum concentration (ng/mL) rather than a reference dose (mg/kg-d) was used in MDH's toxicokinetic model to calculate noncancer guidance values for PFOS.
95th percentile water intake rates (Tables 3-1, 3-3, and 3-5 in the Environmental Protection Agency, Exposure Factors Handbook, 2019), or upper percentile breast milk intake rates (Table 15-1), Environmental Protection Agency Exposure Factors Handbook, 2011.
Subp. 16. Perfluorooctanoate (PFOA) and salts.
- A reference serum concentration (ng/mL) rather than a reference dose (mg/kg-d) was used in MDH's toxicokinetic model to calculate noncancer guidance values for PFOA.
95th percentile water intake rates (Tables 3-1, 3-3, and 3-5 in the Environmental Protection Agency, Exposure Factors Handbook, 2019), or upper percentile breast milk intake rates (Table 15-1), Environmental Protection Agency Exposure Factors Handbook, 2011.
Subp. 16a. Pyrene.
Subp. 16b. Quinoline.
Subp. 17. Simazine.
Subp. 17a. Sulfamethazine (includes sodium salt form).
Subp. 18. Tetrachloroethylene (PCE or PERC).
Subp. 18a. Tetrahydrofuran.
Subp. 18b. Thiamethoxam.
Subp. 18c. Toluene.
Subp. 18d. 1,2,4-Trichlorobenezene.
Subp. 19. 1,1,1-Trichloroethane.
Subp. 20. 1,1,2-Trichloroethylene (TCE).
Subp. 21. 2(2,4,5-Trichlorophenoxy)propionic acid (2,4,5-TP or Silvex).
Subp. 21a. 1,2,3-Trichloropropane.
Subp. 21b. 1,2,3-Trimethylbenzene.
Subp. 21c. 1,2,4-Trimethylbenzene.
Subp. 22. 1,3,5-Trimethylbenzene.
Subp. 22a. Tris(1,3-dichloro-2-propyl) phosphate (TDCPP)
Subp. 22b. Tris(2-butoxyethyl) phosphate (TBEP)
Subp. 22c. Tris(2-chloroethyl) phosphate.
Subp. 22d. Venlafaxine.
Subp. 23. Vinyl Chloride.
Subp. 23a. Xylenes.
Subp. 24. Transition.
The health risk limits established for the specific chemicals in this part supersede the health risk limits for those chemicals in part 4717.7500. For chemicals not included in this part, the health risk limits established in part 4717.7500 remain in place.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103H.201; 144.0751; 144.12; L 2023 c 60 art 3 s 34
- History: 33 SR 1792; 35 SR 1395; 38 SR 397; 40 SR 689; 43 SR 262; 48 SR 465; 50 SR 101
Minn. R. 4717.7865 Health Risk Limits for Triclosan
Subpart 1. Purpose.
Notwithstanding the purpose and scope of health risk limits described in part 4717.7810, and as authorized by Minnesota Statutes, section 144.12, subdivision 1, clause (5), the following values are adopted as health risk limits for triclosan.
Subp. 2. Triclosan.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103H.201; 144.0751; 144.12
- History: 40 SR 689
Minn. R. 4717.7870 Evaluating Concurrent Exposures to Multiple Chemicals
Risk from multiple chemicals detected in groundwater must be evaluated as specified in part 4717.7880 for effects other than cancer and in part 4717.7890 for cancer. If a chemical causes both cancer and effects other than cancer, the risk contributed by that chemical must be included in both evaluations. When the multiple chemical health risk index is greater than one, the multiple chemical health risk limit has been exceeded.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103H.201
- History: 33 SR 1792
Minn. R. 4717.7880 Multiple Chemical Health Risk Limits: Noncancer
Subpart 1. Scope.
To evaluate the risk of effects other than cancer from multiple chemicals detected in groundwater, a health risk index for each health endpoint must be calculated for each duration period using the procedure specified in this part.
Subp. 2. Grouping of chemicals.
Chemicals must be grouped according to health endpoints, other than cancer, specified in part 4717.7860, and according to duration except that:
A. chemicals for which no health endpoint is specified will not be grouped; and
B. a chemical will be included in the group for each health endpoint listed for that chemical.
Subp. 3. Equation.
Using the following equation, a noncancer health risk index must be determined for each group of two or more chemicals that have a common health endpoint and common duration period.
Where:
A. CN represents the concentration expressed as µg/L of the first through Nth chemical. In the case of a chemical that has been detected but cannot be quantified, CN is determined by standard statistical procedures.
B. nHRLNduration represents the duration specific acute, short-term, subchronic, or chronic noncancer health risk limit expressed as µg/L for the first through Nth chemical, as specified in part 4717.7860.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103H.201
- History: 33 SR 1792
Minn. R. 4717.7890 Multiple Chemical Health Risk Limits: Cancer
Subpart 1. Scope.
To evaluate the risk of cancer from multiple chemicals detected in groundwater, a cancer health risk index must be calculated using the procedure specified in this part.
Subp. 2. Equation.
To evaluate the risk of cancer from multiple chemicals detected in groundwater, a cancer index must be calculated using the following equation:
Where:
A. CN represents the concentration expressed as µg/L of the first through Nth chemical. In the case of a chemical that is detected but cannot be quantified, CN is determined by acceptable statistical procedures.
B. cHRLN represents the cancer health risk limit for the first through Nth chemical, as specified in part 4717.7860.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103H.201
- History: 33 SR 1792
Minn. R. 4717.7900 Chemical Breakdown Products
When testing indicates that chemical breakdown products (degradates) are present in groundwater, it is necessary to consider those breakdown products in a risk assessment. When no health risk limit or other health-based water value exists for a chemical breakdown product, due to absence or paucity of toxicity information on the chemical breakdown product, the health risk limit specified for the parent chemical in part 4717.7860 is the health risk limit for the chemical breakdown product. When a parent and one or more of its breakdown products are present, or when multiple breakdown products are present even in the absence of the parent, it is necessary to conduct a risk assessment for multiple chemicals, according to the procedures in parts 4717.7880 and 4717.7890.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103H.201
- History: 33 SR 1792
Minn. R. 4717.8000 Purpose and Scope
Subpart 1. Purpose.
The purpose of parts 4717.8000 to 4717.8600 is to establish health risk values (HRVs) and multimedia health risk values (MHRVs) for chemicals or defined mixtures of chemicals emitted to the ambient air.
Subp. 2. Scope.
The HRVs and MHRVs established in parts 4717.8000 to 4717.8600 are intended for use by public agencies or private entities in Minnesota as one set of criteria in evaluating risks to human health by chemical emissions to the ambient air. The chemicals and defined mixtures of chemicals included in parts 4717.8000 to 4717.8600 do not include every toxic chemical emitted to air.
The HRVs and MHRVs were not developed for evaluation of workplace exposures. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration, United States Department of Labor, is responsible for regulating workplace exposures.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 26 SR 1229
Minn. R. 4717.8050 Definitions
Subpart 1. Scope.
For the purposes of parts 4717.8000 to 4717.8600, the terms in this part have the meanings given them.
Subp. 2. Acute health risk value or acute HRV.
"Acute health risk value" or "acute HRV" means the concentration of a chemical or defined mixture of chemicals in ambient air, at or below which the chemical or defined mixture of chemicals is unlikely to cause an adverse health effect to the general public when exposure occurs over a prescribed time. For implementation purposes, acute HRVs are compared to one-hour averaged concentrations of chemicals or defined mixtures of chemicals in air. An acute HRV is expressed in units of micrograms of the chemical or defined mixture of chemicals per cubic meter of air (µg/m3).
Subp. 3. Additional lifetime risk.
"Additional lifetime risk" means the probability that daily exposure to a carcinogen over a lifetime may induce cancer. The Minnesota Department of Health uses an additional lifetime risk of 1E-5 (1 in 100,000) to set carcinogen exposure guidelines.
Subp. 4. Benchmark concentration or BMC.
"Benchmark concentration" or "BMC" means the statistical lower limit on the concentration of the chemical or defined mixture of chemicals that produces a predetermined change in response rate of an adverse effect (called a benchmark response or BMR) compared to background. The change in response rate over background of the BMR is usually in the range of five to ten percent. The benchmark concentration may be used instead of the NOAEL for noncancer endpoints and is expressed in units of milligrams of chemical or defined mixture of chemicals per cubic meter of air (mg/m3).
Subp. 5. Benchmark dose or BMD.
"Benchmark dose" or "BMD" means the the statistical lower limit on the dose of the chemical or defined mixture of chemicals that produces a predetermined change in response rate of an adverse effect (called a benchmark response or BMR) compared to background. The change in response rate over background of the BMR is usually in the range of five to ten percent. The benchmark dose may be used instead of the NOAEL for noncancer endpoints and is expressed in units of milligrams of chemical or defined mixture of chemicals per kilogram of body weight per day (mg/kg-day).
Subp. 6. Carcinogen.
"Carcinogen" means a chemical or defined mixture of chemicals:
A. listed as a human carcinogen or a probable human carcinogen according to "EPA Classification System for Categorizing Weight of Evidence for Carcinogenicity from Human and Animal Studies," The Risk Assessment Guidelines of 1986, United States Environmental Protection Agency, Office of Health and Environmental Assessment (August 1987). The classification system is incorporated by reference, is available through the Minitex interlibrary loan system, and is not subject to frequent change;
B. listed as "carcinogenic to humans" or "likely to be carcinogenic to humans" according to Proposed Guidelines for Carcinogen Risk Assessment, United States Environmental Protection Agency, Office of Research and Development (July 1999). The guidelines are incorporated by reference, are available through the Minitex interlibrary loan system, and are not subject to frequent change; or
C. listed as a substance known to be a human carcinogen or reasonably anticipated to be a human carcinogen in the Report on Carcinogens, United States Department of Health and Human Services, Public Health Service, National Toxicology Program. The report is incorporated by reference and is subject to frequent change. The report is available on the Internet at http://ntp-server.niehs.nih.gov/newhomeroc/aboutroc.html.
Subp. 7. Chemical abstracts service registry number or CAS RN.
"Chemical abstracts service registry number" or "CAS RN" means the number assigned to a chemical by the Chemical Abstracts Service, a division of the American Chemical Society, 2540 Olentangy River Road, Box 3012, Columbus, Ohio 43210. The chemical abstracts service registry numbers are published in Chemical Abstracts Service Registry Handbook - Number Section, American Chemical Society (1965). The handbook is incorporated by reference, is available through the Minitex interlibrary loan system, and is subject to annual change.
Subp. 8. Chronic health risk value or chronic HRV.
"Chronic health risk value" or "chronic HRV" means the concentration of a chemical or defined mixture of chemicals in ambient air, at or below which the chemical or defined mixture of chemicals is unlikely to cause an adverse health effect to the general public when exposure occurs daily throughout a person's lifetime. For implementation purposes, chronic HRVs are compared to an annual average concentration of a chemical or defined mixture of chemicals in air. A chronic HRV is expressed in units of micrograms of the chemical or defined mixture of chemicals per cubic meter of air (µg/m3).
Subp. 9. Cumulative health risk value or cumulative HRV.
"Cumulative health risk value" or "cumulative HRV" is a HRV calculated by summing the hazard quotients of chemicals sharing a common endpoint. A hazard quotient for a particular chemical is calculated by dividing the measured or modeled ambient air concentrations for a chemical by the HRV for that chemical. The equation used to calculate a cumulative HRV or hazard index for noncarcinogenic effects of chemicals is found in part 4717.8600. The equation used to calculate a cumulative HRV or cancer index for carcinogens is found in part 4717.8550.
Subp. 10. Cumulative multimedia health risk value or cumulative MHRV.
"Cumulative multimedia health risk value" or "cumulative MHRV" is a MHRV calculated by summing the hazard quotients of chemicals sharing a common endpoint. A hazard quotient for a particular chemical is calculated by dividing the measured or modeled ambient air concentrations for a chemical by the MHRV for that chemical. The equation used to calculate a cumulative MHRV or hazard index for noncarcinogenic effects of chemicals is found in part 4717.8600. The equation used to calculate a cumulative MHRV or cancer index for carcinogens is found in part 4717.8550.
Subp. 11. Defined mixture of chemicals.
"Defined mixture of chemicals" means a mixture of chemical compounds where the toxicity of that mixture of chemical compounds is quantified as a group, rather than individually, in an analytical procedure. Defined mixtures of chemicals include, but are not limited to, coke oven emissions, diesel particulate, and nickel refinery dust.
Subp. 12. Endpoint of concern or endpoint.
"Endpoint of concern" or "endpoint" means an observable and measurable adverse biological event used as a scientifically defensible index of an effect of a low dose chemical exposure. The designation of an endpoint of concern does not exclude other possible observable and measurable biological events.
Subp. 13. Extrarespiratory effect.
"Extrarespiratory effect" means a toxic effect produced at a site other than the respiratory system following inhalation of a chemical.
Subp. 14. Extrarespiratory regional dose deposition or RDDER.
"Extrarespiratory regional dose deposition" or "RDDER" is the estimated amount of inhaled chemical or defined mixture of chemicals that is transported to nonrespiratory tract tissues after absorption of the chemical has occurred. The default normalizing factor for extrarespiratory effects is body weight. Until clearance and distribution parameters can be incorporated, it is assumed that 100 percent of a deposited dose to the entire respiratory system is available for uptake by the systemic circulation.
Subp. 15. Extrarespiratory regional dose deposition ratio or RDDRER.
"Extrarespiratory regional dose deposition ratio" or "RDDRER" means the ratio of the extrarespiratory regional dose deposition calculated for an experimental animal to the calculated extrarespiratory regional dose deposition in a human.
Subp. 16. (Hb/g)A.
"(Hb/g)A" means the blood to gas (air) partition coefficient of a chemical in an experimental animal.
Subp. 17. (Hb/g)H.
"(Hb/g)H" means the blood to gas (air) partition coefficient of a chemical in a human.
Subp. 18. Health effects assessment summary tables or HEAST.
"Health effects assessment summary tables" or "HEAST" means the health effects assessment summary tables prepared by the United States Environmental Protection Agency, Office of Research and Development (1991). The tables are incorporated by reference, are available through the Minitex interlibrary loan system, and are subject to quarter-annual changes.
Subp. 19. Health risk value or HRV.
"Health risk value" or "HRV" means the concentration of a chemical or defined mixture of chemicals in ambient air, at or below which the chemical or defined mixture of chemicals is unlikely to cause an adverse health effect to the general public. The HRV is expressed in units of micrograms of the chemical or defined mixture of chemicals per cubic meter of air (µg/m3).
Subp. 20. Human equivalent concentration or HEC.
"Human equivalent concentration" or "HEC" means the concentration of inhalation exposure for humans of an agent that is believed to induce the same magnitude of a toxic effect as associated with the experimental animal species exposure concentration. HEC derivation may incorporate toxicokinetic information on the particular agent, if available, or use a default procedure, such as assuming that daily oral doses experienced for a lifetime are proportional to body weight raised to the 0.75 power.
Subp. 21. Integrated risk information system or IRIS.
"Integrated risk information system" or "IRIS" means the United States Environmental Protection Agency's electronic database for toxicologic information on chemicals. The IRIS is updated monthly and is available on the Internet at the website of the United States Environmental Protection Agency (www.epa.gov/iris/). The database is incorporated by reference and is subject to frequent change.
Subp. 22. Lowest observed adverse effect level or LOAEL.
"Lowest observed adverse effect level" or "LOAEL" means the lowest exposure dose or concentration of a chemical or defined mixture of chemicals at which adverse effects have been observed in test animals or human test subjects and where the adverse effects are statistically different from background or a control group. The LOAEL is expressed in units of either milligrams of a chemical or defined mixture of chemicals per cubic meter of air (mg/m3) for inhalation exposures or units of milligrams of a chemical or defined mixture of chemicals per kilogram of body weight per day (mg/kg-day) for multimedia exposures.
Subp. 23. Lowest observed adverse effect level adjusted or LOAEL[ADJ].
"Lowest observed adverse effect level adjusted" or "LOAEL[ADJ]" means the lowest observed adverse effect level for a chemical or defined mixture of chemicals adjusted to a specific period of time. For the chronic HRVs, the concentration in the scientific study is adjusted to a 24-hour per day, seven-day per week exposure period. For acute HRVs, the adjustment may include either a time adjustment to a one-hour exposure period or an adjustment for concentration as indicated in part 4717.8500, subparts 3, 4, and 5.
Subp. 24. µg/m3.
"µg/m3" means micrograms per cubic meter.
Subp. 25. mg/m3.
"mg/m3" means milligrams per cubic meter.
Subp. 26. Modifying factor.
"Modifying factor" means a factor used in the derivation of a reference dose or reference concentration. The magnitude of the modifying factor reflects the scientific uncertainties of the study and database not explicitly treated with standard uncertainty factors (e.g., the completeness of the overall database). A modifying factor is greater than zero and less than or equal to ten, and the default value for the modifying factor is one.
Subp. 27. Multimedia health risk value or MHRV.
"Multimedia health risk value" or "MHRV" means the total daily dose of a chemical or defined mixture of chemicals that results from an emission to ambient air, at or below which is unlikely to cause an adverse health effect to the general public over a lifetime exposure. Total daily dose is the sum of the exposure doses calculated from applicable inhalation or noninhalation exposure pathways. The MHRV is expressed in units of micrograms of the chemical or defined mixture of chemicals per kilogram of body weight per day (µg/kg-day).
Subp. 28. No observed adverse effect level or NOAEL.
"No observed adverse effect level" or "NOAEL" means the highest exposure level at which there are no statistically or biologically significant increases in the frequency or severity of adverse effect between the exposed population and its appropriate control. Some effects may be produced at this level, but they are not considered adverse or precursors to adverse effects. The NOAEL is expressed in units of milligrams of chemical or defined mixture of chemicals per cubic meter of air (mg/m3) or milligrams of chemical or defined mixture of chemicals per kilogram of body weight per day (mg/kg-day).
Subp. 29. No observed adverse effect level adjusted or NOAEL[ADJ].
"No observed adverse effect level adjusted" or "NOAEL[ADJ]" means the no observed adverse effect level for a chemical or defined mixture of chemicals adjusted to a specific period of time. For the chronic HRVs, the concentration is adjusted to a 24-hour per day, seven-day per week exposure period. For acute HRVs, the adjustment may include either a time adjustment to the scientific study data to a one-hour exposure period or an adjustment for concentration as indicated in part 4717.8500, subparts 3 and 4.
Subp. 30. Potency slope or slope factor.
"Potency slope" or "slope factor" means an upper bound, approximating a 95 percent confidence limit, on the increased cancer risk from a lifetime exposure to a chemical or defined mixture of chemicals. This estimate, usually expressed in units of proportion (of a population) affected per mg/kg/day, is generally reserved for use in the low-dose region of the dose-response relationship, that is, for exposures corresponding to risks less than one in 100. This number is derived from a mathematical extrapolation model that uses toxicologic data specific to each carcinogen. The potency slope for a carcinogen by ingestion is expressed in units of the inverse of milligrams of the chemical or defined mixture of chemicals per kilogram of body weight per day (mg/kg-day)-1.
Subp. 31. Reference concentration or RfC.
"Reference concentration" or "RfC" means an estimate, with uncertainty spanning perhaps an order of magnitude, of a continuous inhalation exposure to the human population, including sensitive subgroups, that is likely to be without an appreciable risk or deleterious effects during a lifetime. It can be derived from a NOAEL, LOAEL, or benchmark concentration, with uncertainty factors generally applied to reflect limitations on the scientific data available. The RfC is expressed in units of milligrams of the chemical or defined mixture of chemicals per cubic meter of air (mg/m3).
Subp. 32. Reference dose or RfD.
"Reference dose" or "RfD" means an estimate, with uncertainty spanning perhaps an order of magnitude, of a daily oral exposure to the human population, including sensitive subgroups, that is likely to be without an appreciable risk of deleterious effects during a lifetime. It can be derived from a NOAEL, LOAEL, or benchmark dose, with uncertainty factors generally applied to reflect limitations of the scientific data available. The RfD is expressed in units of milligrams of the chemical or defined mixture of chemicals per kilogram of body weight per day (mg/kg-day).
Subp. 33. Reference exposure level or REL.
"Reference exposure level" or "REL" means the concentration level of a chemical or defined mixture of chemicals at or below which no adverse health effects are anticipated for a specified exposure duration. Reference exposure levels have been derived by the California Environmental Protection Agency, the Office of Environmental Health Hazard Assessment, under the Air Toxics "Hot Spots" Information and Assessment Act of 1987. The exposure levels are available on the Internet at the website of the Office of Environmental Health Hazard Assessment (www.oehha.org/air/acute_rels/acuterel.html).
Subp. 34. Regional deposited dose or RDD.
"Regional deposited dose" or "RDD" means the deposited dose of particles calculated for a respiratory tract region of interest as related to an observed toxicity. For respiratory effects of particles, the deposited dose is adjusted for ventilatory volumes and the surface area of the respiratory region affected and is expressed as milligrams per minute per square centimeter (mg/min-sq. cm). For extrarespiratory effects of particles, the deposited dose in the total respiratory system is adjusted for ventilatory volumes and body weight and is expressed as milligrams per minute per kilogram (mg/min-kg).
Subp. 35. Regional deposited dose ratio or RDDR.
"Regional deposited dose ratio" or "RDDR" means the ratio of the regional deposited dose calculated for a given exposure in the animal species of interest (RDDA) to the regional deposited dose of the same exposure in a human (RDDH). This ratio is used to adjust the exposure effect level for interspecies dosimetric differences to derive a human equivalent concentration (HEC) for particles.
Subp. 36. Regional gas dose or RGD.
"Regional gas dose" or "RGD" means the gas dose calculated for the respiratory system region of interest as related to the observed effect for respiratory effects. The deposited dose is adjusted for ventilatory volumes and the surface area of the respiratory region affected. RGD is calculated per minute expressed as milligrams per minute per square centimeter (mg/min-sq. cm).
Subp. 37. Regional gas dose ratio or RGDR.
"Regional gas dose ratio" or "RGDR" means the ratio of the regional gas dose calculated for a given exposure in the animal species of interest (RGDA) to the regional gas dose of the same exposure in humans (RGDH). This ratio is used to adjust the exposure effect level for interspecies dosimetric differences to derive a human equivalent concentration (HEC) for gases with respiratory effects.
Subp. 38. Respiratory effect.
"Respiratory effect" means a toxic effect produced in the respiratory system. Respiratory effects are divided into the categories of upper respiratory effects and lower respiratory effects. Effects in the upper respiratory system consist of effects primarily in the extrathoracic (ET) region, consisting of the nose, mouth, nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx, and larynx, and in the upper tracheobronchial (TB) region consisting of the trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles.
The lower respiratory system effects consist of effects primarily in the pulmonary (PU) region, consisting of the respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveolar sacs, and alveoli, and effects in the lower tracheobronchial (TB) region, consisting of the trachea and bronchioles to the terminal bronchioles.
Subp. 39. Respiratory system.
"Respiratory system" means the nose, mouth, nasopharynx, oropharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, and the alveolar ducts, alveolar sacs, and alveoli of the lung.
Subp. 40. Statistical significance.
"Statistical significance" means the probability that a result is likely to be due to chance alone. By convention, a difference between two groups is usually considered statistically significant if chance could explain it only five percent of the time or less. Study design considerations may influence the a priori choice of a different statistical significance level.
Subp. 41. Subchronic health risk value or subchronic HRV.
"Subchronic health risk value" or "subchronic HRV" means the concentration of a chemical or defined mixture of chemicals in ambient air at or below which the chemical or defined mixture of chemicals is unlikely to cause an adverse health effect to the general public when exposure occurs on a continuous basis over a less than lifetime exposure. For implementation purposes, subchronic HRVs are compared to a 13-week averaged concentration of a chemical or defined mixture of chemicals in ambient air. A subchronic HRV is expressed in units of micrograms of the chemical or defined mixture of chemicals per cubic meter of air (µg/m3).
Subp. 42. Uncertainty factor.
"Uncertainty factor" means the numerical factors used to account for the variation in sensitivity among members of the human population; the uncertainty in extrapolating laboratory animal data to humans; the uncertainty in extrapolating from data obtained in a study that involves less than lifetime exposure to lifetime exposure; the uncertainty in using LOAEL data due to the absence of NOAEL data; and the inability of any single study to adequately address all possible adverse outcomes in humans.
Subp. 43. Unit risk.
"Unit risk" means the upper bound excess cancer risk from a continuous lifetime exposure to a chemical or defined mixture of chemical concentration at one microgram per cubic meter (1 µg/m3) in air.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 26 SR 1229; 26 SR 1395
Minn. R. 4717.8100 TABLE OF CHRONIC HRVs
The heading for each item contains the chemical name and, in parenthesis, the CAS RN. Each item lists the chronic HRV, the equation used to develop the chronic HRV, and the variables necessary for the equation. The equations used to develop the chronic HRV are designated as follows:
"A" means calculating the NOAEL[HEC] or LOAEL[HEC] or BMC[HEC] under part 4717.8300, subpart 3, and applying the general equation under part 4717.8300, subpart 2;
"B" means calculating the NOAEL[HEC] or LOAEL[HEC] or BMC[HEC] under part 4717.8300, subpart 4, and applying the general equation under part 4717.8300, subpart 2;
"C" means calculating the NOAEL[HEC] or LOAEL[HEC] or BMC[HEC] under part 4717.8300, subpart 5, and applying the general equation under part 4717.8300, subpart 2;
"D" means calculating the NOAEL[HEC] or LOAEL[HEC] or BMC[HEC] under part 4717.8300, subpart 6, and applying the general equation under part 4717.8300, subpart 2; and
"E" means applying the equation under part 4717.8400, subpart 2.
The endpoint of concern is listed for use in determining a cancer index under part 4717.8550 or a hazard index under part 4717.8600. The unit risk for carcinogens is expressed as risk per (µg/m3).
TABLE OF CHRONIC HRVs
A. Acetaldehyde (75-07-0)
B. Acetonitrile (75-05-8)
C. Acrylonitrile (107-13-1)
D. Ammonia (7664-41-7)
E. Antimony trioxide (1309-64-4)
F. Arsenic (7440-38-2)
G. Benzene (71-43-2)
H. Benzidine (92-87-5)
I. Beryllium (7440-41-7)
J. Bis(chloromethyl)ether (542-88-1)
K. Bromomethane (74-83-9)
L. 1,3-Butadiene (106-99-0)
M. Cadmium (7440-43-9)
N. Carbon disulfide (75-15-0)
O. 2-Chloroacetophenone (532-27-4)
P. Chromium VI (18540-29-9)
Q. Coke oven emissions (8007-45-2)
R. 1,2-Dibromoethane (106-93-4)
S. Dichloromethane (75-09-2)
T. 1,3-Dichloropropene (542-75-6)
U. Dichlorvos (62-73-7)
V. Diesel particulates (*)
W. N,N-dimethylformamide (68-12-2)
X. Epichlorohydrin (106-89-8)
Y. 1,2-Epoxybutane (106-88-7)
Z. Ethylene glycol monobutyl ether (111-76-2)
AA. Formaldehyde (50-00-0)
BB. 1,6-Hexamethylene diisocyanate (822-06-0)
CC. n-Hexane (110-54-3)
DD. Hydrazine/Hydrazine sulfate (302-01-2)
EE. Hydrogen chloride (7647-01-0)
FF. Hydrogen cyanide (74-90-8)
GG. Manganese (7439-96-5)
HH. Methyl methacrylate (80-62-6)
II. Methylene diphenyl diisocyanate (MDI) and polymeric MDI (101-68-8 and 9016-87-9)
JJ. Nickel refinery dust (*)
KK. Nickel subsulfide (12035-72-2)
LL. 2-Nitropropane (79-46-9)
MM. Propylene oxide (75-56-9)
NN. Styrene (100-42-5)
OO. Toluene (108-88-3)
PP. 2,4-/2,6-Toluene diisocyanate (26471-62-5)
QQ. Vinyl acetate (108-05-4)
RR. Vinyl chloride (75-01-4) * This HRV is for a chemical mixture which, therefore, does not have a chemical-specific number assigned by the Chemical Abstracts Service. ** This HRV may not provide protection for individuals who have been previously sensitized to this chemical.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 26 SR 1229; 26 SR 1395
Minn. R. 4717.8150 TABLE OF SUBCHRONIC HRVs
The heading for each item contains the chemical name and, in parenthesis, the CAS RN. Each item lists the subchronic HRV, the equation used to develop the subchronic HRV, and the variables necessary for the equation. The equations used to develop the subchronic HRV are designated as follows:
"A" means calculating the NOAEL[HEC] or LOAEL[HEC] or BMC[HEC] under part 4717.8300, subpart 3, and applying the general equation under part 4717.8300, subpart 2;
"B" means calculating the NOAEL[HEC] or LOAEL[HEC] or BMC[HEC] under part 4717.8300, subpart 4, and applying the general equation under part 4717.8300, subpart 2;
"C" means calculating the NOAEL[HEC] or LOAEL[HEC] or BMC[HEC] under part 4717.8300, subpart 5, and applying the general equation under part 4717.8300, subpart 2; and
"D" means calculating the NOAEL[HEC] or LOAEL[HEC] or BMC [HEC] under part 4717.8300, subpart 6, and applying the general equation under part 4717.8300, subpart 2.
The endpoint of concern is listed for use in determining a hazard index under part 4717.8600.
TABLE OF SUBCHRONIC HRVs
A. Acrolein (107-02-8)
B. Acrylic acid (79-10-7)
C. Allyl chloride (107-05-1)
D. Arsine (7784-42-1)
E. Chlordane (12789-03-6)
F. Chlorine dioxide (10049-04-4)
G. Chromic acid mists and dissolved Cr (VI) aerosols (18540-29-9)
H. Cr (VI) particulates (18540-29-9)
I. Cumene (98-82-8)
J. 1,2-Dibromo-3-chloropropane (96-12-8)
K. 1,4-Dichlorobenzene (106-46-7)
L. 1,2-Dichloropropane (78-87-5)
M. Dicyclopentadiene (77-73-6)
N. 2-Dimethylamino ethanol (101-01-0)
O. Ethylene glycol monomethyl ether (EGME) or 2-methoxyethanol (109-86-4)
P. Hydrogen sulfide (7783-06-4)
Q. Phosphine (7803-51-2)
R. Propylene glycol monomethyl ether (107-98-2)
S. Triethylamine (121-44-8)
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 26 SR 1229; 26 SR 1395
Minn. R. 4717.8200 TABLE OF ACUTE HRVs
The heading for each item contains the chemical name and, in parenthesis, the CAS RN. Each item lists the acute HRV, the equation used to develop the acute HRV, and the variables necessary for the equation. The equations used to develop the acute HRV are designated as follows:
"A" means calculating the NOAEL or LOAEL or BMC[ADJ] under part 4717.8500, subpart 3, and applying the general equation under part 4717.8500, subpart 2;
"B" means calculating the NOAEL[ADJ] or LOAEL[ADJ] or BMC [ADJ] under part 4717.8500, subpart 4, and applying the general equation under part 4717.8500, subpart 2;
"C" means calculating the BMC or BMC[ADJ] under part 4717.8500; and
"D" means applying the equation under part 4717.8500, subpart 5.
The endpoint of concern is listed for use in determining a hazard index under part 4717.8600.
TABLE OF ACUTE HRVs
A. Ammonia (7664-41-7)
B. Arsine (7784-42-1)
C. Benzene (71-43-2)
D. Carbon disulfide (75-15-0)
E. Chlorine (7882-50-5)
F. Chloroform (67-66-3)
G. Dichloromethane (75-09-2)
H. 1,4-Dioxane (123-91-1)
I. Ethyl benzene (100-41-4)
J. Ethyl chloride (75-00-3)
K. Ethylene glycol monoethyl ether (110-80-5)
L. Ethylene glycol monoethyl ether acetate (111-15-9)
M. Ethylene glycol monomethyl ether (EGME) (109-86-4) or 2-methoxyethanol
N. Formaldehyde (50-00-0)
O. Hydrogen chloride (7647-01-1)
P. Hydrogen cyanide (74-90-8)
Q. Hydrogen fluoride (7664-39-3)
R. Methanol (67-56-1)
S. Methyl bromide (74-83-9)
T. Methyl ethyl ketone (78-93-3)
U. Nickel and nickel compounds (**)
V. Nitric acid (7697-37-2)
W. Phenol (108-95-2)
X. Phosgene (75-44-5)
Y. Sodium hydroxide (1310-93-2)
Z. Styrene (100-42-5)
AA. Tetrachloroethylene or perchlorethylene (127-18-4)
BB. Toluene (108-88-3)
CC. 1,1,1-Trichloroethane or methyl chloroform (71-55-6)
DD. Trichloroethylene (79-01-6)
EE. Triethylamine (121-44-8)
FF. Vanadium pentoxide (1314-62-1)
GG. Xylenes (1330-20-7) * This HRV is for a chemical where there is little magnitude difference between the level where mild irritancy occurs and levels where more severe adverse health effects occur. ** This HRV is for a chemical mixture which, therefore, does not have a chemical-specific number assigned by the Chemical Abstracts Service.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 26 SR 1229; 26 SR 1395
Minn. R. 4717.8250 TABLE OF MHRVs FOR MULTIMEDIA EXPOSURE TO AIR TOXICS
The heading for each item contains the chemical name and, in parenthesis, the CAS RN. Each item lists the MHRV and the variables necessary for the equation. The equations used to develop the MHRV are designated as follows: "A" means applying the equation under part 4717.8350 for noncarcinogenic effects of toxicants and "B" means applying the equation under part 4717.8450 for carcinogens. The endpoint of concern is listed for use in determining a cancer index under part 4717.8550 or a hazard index under part 4717.8600.
TABLE OF MHRVs
A. Antimony (7440-36-0)
B. Arsenic (7440-38-2)
C. Benzo[a]pyrene (50-32-8)
D. Cadmium (7440-43-9)
E. Manganese (7439-96-5)
F. Methylmercury (22967-92-6)
G. Nickel (7440-02-0)
H. Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCB) (1336-36-3)
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 26 SR 1229
Minn. R. 4717.8300 EQUATIONS FOR CALCULATION OF HRVs FOR NONCARCINOGENIC EFFECTS OF TOXICANTS
Subpart 1. Scope.
This part establishes the method for determining the health risk values (HRVs) for noncarcinogenic effects of toxicants.
Subp. 2. General equation; calculating HRV for noncarcinogenic effect of toxicant.
The equation for calculating an HRV for a noncarcinogenic effect of a toxicant is:
or
Where:
A. HRV is expressed in units of micrograms per cubic meter (µg/m3) of air;
B. NOAEL[ADJ] or [HEC], LOAEL[ADJ] or [HEC], or BMC[ADJ] or [HEC] is expressed in units of milligrams per cubic meter (mg/m3) of air;
C. uncertainty factor and modifying factor are unitless;
D. the default value for modifying factor is one unless otherwise specified in part 4717.8100 or 4717.8150; and
E. 1,000 is a factor to convert milligrams to micrograms.
Subp. 3. Equation for NOAEL[HEC], LOAEL[HEC], or BMC[HEC]; particles with respiratory effect.
The equation for calculating a NOAEL[HEC], LOAEL[HEC], or BMC[HEC] for a particle having a respiratory effect is:
Where:
A. NOAEL[HEC], LOAEL[HEC], or BMC[HEC] is expressed in units of milligrams per cubic meter (mg/m3) of air;
B. NOAEL[ADJ], LOAEL[ADJ], or BMC[ADJ] is expressed in units of milligrams per cubic meter (mg/m3) of air; and
C. RDDR is the regional deposited dose ratio and is unitless.
Subp. 4. Equation for NOAEL[HEC], LOAEL[HEC], or BMC[HEC]; particles with extrarespiratory effect.
The equation for calculating a NOAEL[HEC], LOAEL[HEC], or BMC[HEC] for particles with an extrarespiratory effect is:
Where:
A. NOAEL[HEC], LOAEL[HEC], or BMC[HEC] is expressed in units of milligrams per cubic meter (mg/m3) of air;
B. NOAEL[ADJ], LOAEL[ADJ], or BMC[ADJ] is expressed in units of milligrams per cubic meter (mg/m3) of air; and
C. RDDRER is the regional deposited dose ratio for extrarespiratory effects and is unitless.
Subp. 5. Equation for NOAEL[HEC], LOAEL[HEC], or BMC[HEC]; gas with respiratory effect.
The equation for calculating the NOAEL[HEC], LOAEL[HEC], or BMC[HEC] for a gas having a respiratory effect is:
Where:
A. NOAEL[HEC], LOAEL[HEC], or BMC[HEC] is expressed in units of milligrams per cubic meter (mg/m3) of air;
B. NOAEL[ADJ], LOAEL[ADJ], or BMC[ADJ] is expressed in units of milligrams per cubic meter (mg/m3) of air; and
C. RGDR is the regional gas dose ratio in the specific region of the respiratory tract and is unitless.
Subp. 6. Equation for NOAEL[HEC], LOAEL[HEC], or BMC[HEC]; gas with extrarespiratory effect.
The equation for calculating the NOAEL[HEC], LOAEL[HEC], or BMC[HEC] for a gas having an extrarespiratory effect is:
or
or
Where:
A. NOAEL[HEC], LOAEL[HEC], or BMC[HEC] is expressed in units of milligrams per cubic meter (mg/m3) of air;
B. NOAEL[ADJ], LOAEL[ADJ], or BMC[ADJ] is expressed in units of milligrams per cubic meter (mg/m3) of air; and
C. (Hb/g)A/(Hb/g)H is the ratio of the blood:gas (air) partition coefficient of the chemical in the experimental animal to the blood:gas (air) partition coefficient of the chemical in a human; the ratio is unitless. If (Hb/g)A > (Hb/g)H or if the partition coefficient values are unknown, (Hb/g)A/(Hb/g)H = 1.0.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 26 SR 1229; 26 SR 1395
Minn. R. 4717.8350 Equation for Calculation of Mhrv for Noncarcinogenic Effects of Toxicants
Subpart 1. Scope.
This part establishes the method for determining the multimedia health risk value (MHRV) for a noncarcinogenic effect of a toxicant emitted to the air.
Subp. 2. Equation for MHRV for noncarcinogenic effect of toxicant.
The equation for calculating a MHRV for a noncarcinogenic effect of a toxicant is:
Where:
A. MHRV is expressed in units of micrograms of chemical or defined mixture of chemicals per kilogram of body weight per day (µg/kg-day);
B. NOAEL, LOAEL, or BMD is expressed in units of milligrams of chemical or defined mixture of chemicals per kilogram body weight per day (mg/kg-day);
C. uncertainty factor and modifying factor are unitless;
D. the default value for modifying factor is one unless otherwise specified in part 4717.8250; and
E. 1,000 is a factor to convert milligrams to micrograms.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 26 SR 1229; 26 SR 1395
Minn. R. 4717.8400 EQUATION FOR CALCULATION OF HRVs FOR CARCINOGENS
Subpart 1. Scope.
This part establishes the method for determining the health risk values (HRVs) for a carcinogen.
Subp. 2. Equation for carcinogens.
The equation for determining the HRV for a carcinogen is:
Where:
A. HRV is expressed in units of micrograms per cubic meter (µg/m3) of air;
B. unit risk is expressed in units of micrograms of the chemical or defined mixture of chemicals per cubic meter of air; and
C. additional lifetime risk is unitless.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 26 SR 1229
Minn. R. 4717.8450 Equation for Calculation of Mhrv for Carcinogens
Subpart 1. Scope.
This part establishes the methods for determining the multimedia health risk values (MHRVs) for carcinogens emitted to the air.
Subp. 2. General equation for calculating MHRVs for carcinogens.
The general equation for calculating MHRVs for carcinogens is:
Where:
A. MHRV is expressed in units of micrograms per kilogram of body weight per day (µg/kg-day);
B. potency slope is expressed in units of the inverse of milligrams per kilogram of body weight per day (mg/kg-day)-1;
C. additional lifetime risk is unitless; and
D. 1,000 is a factor to convert milligrams to micrograms.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 26 SR 1229
Minn. R. 4717.8500 EQUATIONS FOR CALCULATION OF HRVs FOR ACUTE TOXICITY
Subpart 1. Scope.
This part establishes the method for determining the health risk value (HRV) for toxicants having acute toxicity effects.
Subp. 2. General equation for calculating an HRV for an acute irritant.
The equation for calculating an HRV for an acute irritant is:
or
or
Where:
A. HRV is expressed in units of micrograms per cubic meter (µg/m3) of air;
B. NOAEL, NOAEL[ADJ], LOAEL, LOAEL[ADJ], BMC, or BMC[ADJ] is expressed in units of milligrams per cubic meter (mg/m3) of air;
C. uncertainty factors and modifying factor are unitless;
D. the default value for modifying factor is one unless otherwise specified in part 4717.8200; and
E. 1,000 is a factor to convert milligrams to micrograms.
Subp. 3. Methods of calculation for acute irritant; study exposure time from 30 minutes to two hours.
For acute irritants where the study time is 30 minutes to two hours, the study NOAEL or LOAEL will be used without adjustment. For studies where the exposure time is 30 minutes to two hours and a BMC approach is used, a time adjustment may be necessary. When a BMC approach is used, the equation for calculating a BMC[ADJ] is:
Where:
A. BMC(study) is expressed in units of milligrams of a chemical or defined mixture of chemicals per cubic meter (mg/m3) of air used in the study as the exposure concentration; and
B. BMC[ADJ] is expressed in units of milligrams per cubic meter (mg/m3) of air.
Subp. 4. Equation for acute irritant; study exposure time from two to eight hours.
The equation for calculating a NOAEL[ADJ], LOAEL[ADJ], or BMC[ADJ] for an acute irritant based on data from a study where the exposure time or adverse health effect onset time is greater than two hours but less than or equal to eight hours is:
(NOAEL(study)n or LOAEL(study)n or BMC(study)n) (exposure duration or onset of critical effect) = NOAEL[ADJ] or LOAEL[ADJ] or BMC [ADJ]
Where:
A. NOAEL(study), LOAEL(study), or BMC(study) is expressed in units of milligrams of a chemical or defined mixture of chemicals per cubic meter (mg/m3) of air used in the study as the exposure concentration;
B. the default value for n is 2 unless noted otherwise;
C. the exposure duration represents the time at which the critical effect occurred. This most often is the exposure duration, but in some instances the critical effect may differ from the exposure duration, depending on the critical endpoint being observed; and
D. NOAEL[ADJ], LOAEL[ADJ], or BMC[ADJ] is expressed in units of milligrams per cubic meter (mg/m3) of air.
Subp. 5. Calculation of HRV for chemical causing reproductive/developmental toxicity.
The equation for calculating an HRV for a chemical or defined mixture of chemicals causing reproductive/developmental toxicity is:
Where:
A. HRV is expressed in units of micrograms per cubic meter (µg/m3) of air;
B. NOAEL, LOAEL, or BMC is expressed in units of milligrams per cubic meter (mg/m3) of air;
C. uncertainty factor and modifying factor are unitless;
D. the default value for modifying factor is one unless otherwise specified in part 4717.8200; and
E. 1,000 is a factor to convert milligrams to micrograms.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 26 SR 1229; 26 SR 1395
Minn. R. 4717.8550 Procedure for Determining Cancer Index for Simultaneous Exposure to Multiple Carcinogens
Subpart 1. Cancer index.
To evaluate simultaneous exposure for multiple carcinogens, a cancer index must be calculated using the procedure in this part.
Subp. 2. Carcinogenic HRVs.
For health risk values (HRVs) that have cancer endpoints, items A to C apply.
A. A cancer index is determined for chemicals or defined mixtures of chemicals with an inhalation endpoint of cancer using the following equation: Where:
B. A cancer index of one is equivalent to a cumulative HRV. A cancer index greater than one exceeds the cumulative HRV.
Subp. 3. Carcinogenic MHRVs.
For mixtures of multimedia health risk values (MHRVs) that have cancer endpoints, items A to C apply.
A. A cancer index is determined for chemicals or defined mixtures of chemicals with an endpoint of cancer using the following equation: Where:
B. A cancer index of one is equivalent to a cumulative MHRV. A cancer index greater than one exceeds the cumulative MHRV.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 26 SR 1229
Minn. R. 4717.8600 Procedure for Determining Hazard Index for Assessing Simultaneous Exposure to Multiple Toxicants with Noncarcinogenic Effects
Subpart 1. Hazard index.
When simultaneous exposure is evaluated for multiple toxicants with noncarcinogenic effects, a hazard index must be calculated using the procedure in this part.
Subp. 2. HRVs for toxicants with noncarcinogenic effects.
For health risk values (HRVs) that have endpoints other than cancer, items A to D apply.
A. The chemicals or defined mixtures of chemicals detected in the air must be first grouped by endpoint of concern and by HRV type (acute, subchronic, chronic).
B. A separate hazard index is then calculated for each same endpoint of concern group within the chronic, subchronic, and acute categories.
C. When two or more chemicals or defined mixtures of chemicals have the same endpoint, a hazard index must be determined using the following equation: Where:
D. A hazard index of one or less indicates a combined concentration of chemicals unlikely to cause an adverse health effect to the general public.
E. A hazard index of one equals the cumulative HRV.
Subp. 3. MHRVs for toxicants with noncarcinogenic effects.
For multimedia health risk values (MHRVs) that have endpoints other than cancer, items A to C apply.
A. The chemicals or defined mixtures of chemicals measured or modeled in ambient air must first be grouped by endpoint of concern.
B. When two or more chemicals or defined mixtures of chemicals have the same endpoint, a hazard index must be determined using the following equation: Where:
C. A hazard index of one or less indicates a combined concentration of chemicals unlikely to cause an adverse health effect to the general public.
D. A hazard index of one equals the cumulative MHRV.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 26 SR 1229; 26 SR 1395
Chapter 4720 PUBLIC WATER SUPPLIES
Minn. R. 4720.0010 Water Supply and Sewerage Systems
No system of water supply or system for the on-site disposal of sewage where such system is for public use or for the use of any considerable number of persons, or in case any such system affects or tends to affect the public health in any manner, shall be installed by any public agency or by any person or corporation, nor shall any such existing system be materially altered or extended, until complete plans and specifications for the installation, alteration, or extension, together with such information as the commissioner of health may require, have been submitted in duplicate and approved by the commissioner of health insofar as any features thereof affect or tend to affect the public health, and no construction shall take place except in accordance with the approved plans. A well installed or materially altered for the purpose of providing water to a noncommunity or nontransient noncommunity water supply is exempt from this part.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12; 144.122; 144.383
- History: L 1977 c 305 s 39; 18 SR 1222
Minn. R. 4720.0012 New System Capacity Requirements
Subpart 1. Requirements generally.
New water systems shall not commence operation until the commissioner approves plans and specifications as required in part 4720.0010 and approves documentation submitted under this part that demonstrates a system's technical, managerial, and financial capacities.
Subp. 2. Technical capacity.
Technical capacity must be demonstrated by:
A. the system meeting the plan and specification requirements in part 4720.0010; and
B. the system employing or contracting with a water operator certified according to Minnesota Statutes, chapter 115, effective the first day of system operation.
Subp. 3. Managerial capacity.
Managerial capacity must be demonstrated by:
A. the system providing the identification, location, and contact method for the system's owner, manager, or chief executive officer; and
B. the system employing or contracting with a water operator certified according to Minnesota Statutes, chapter 115, effective the first day of system operation.
Subp. 4. Financial capacity.
Financial capacity must be demonstrated by the water system's owner, chief financial officer, or chief executive officer certifying that responsible individuals in the system have reviewed the potential and actual costs of operating and maintaining a public water system and the system has the financial capability to meet the following actual and potential costs:
A. Actual costs to be considered include:
B. Potential costs to be considered include:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.383
- History: 24 SR 301
Minn. R. 4720.0015 Fees for Review of Plans
All plans for water supply system construction, alteration, or extension submitted for review and approval to the Department of Health as required in part 4720.0010 shall be accompanied by the appropriate fees, as prescribed below:
A. watermains, $150;
B. wells, $250;
C. pumphouses, $150;
D. chemical feed, $150;
E. treatment plants (new), $1,000;
F. treatment plants (renovation), $250;
G. storage (installation), $300;
H. storage (coating), $100; and
I. booster stations, $150. The appropriate fees shall be paid by check made payable to "Minnesota Department of Health."
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.383
- History: 10 SR 1687
Minn. R. 4720.0020 [Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
Minn. R. 4720.0025 Unsafe Water Connections
There shall be no physical connection between any public water supply system intended for potable or domestic use and any system, equipment, or device that may serve as a source of contamination, unless protected by a properly maintained backflow preventer approved by the commissioner. Backflow prevention for fire sprinkler systems must comply with American Water Works Association Standard M14, section 6.3, as referenced in part 4715.2110.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.383
- History: 18 SR 1960
Minn. R. 4720.0030 Fluoridation
Subpart 1. Application.
This part shall be applicable to all municipal water supplies, as required by Minnesota Statutes, section 144.145.
Subp. 2. Fluoride content.
The fluoride content of the water shall be controlled to maintain an average concentration of 0.7 milligrams per liter; the concentration shall be neither less than 0.5 milligrams per liter nor more than 0.9 milligrams per liter.
Subp. 3. Chemical feeder.
The chemical feeder apparatus for introducing fluoride to the water supply shall conform to the standards of the commissioner of health.
Subp. 4. Testing.
Equipment for the adequate and reliable testing of the fluoride content shall be furnished for each installation. The method of testing the fluoride content of the water shall be approved by the commissioner of health. Approval shall require either a photometric colorimetric procedure, preceded when necessary by distillation or other treatment to remove interfering materials, or a fluoride-specific electrode and an associated potential measuring device. Continuous monitoring systems shall be approved when they can be installed to monitor a representative portion of the entire supply.
Subp. 5. Samples collected daily.
Samples shall be collected daily at a point(s) in the distribution system representative of the entire supply. Sampling point(s) shall be located downstream sufficiently distant from the point(s) at which fluoride is fed into the water supply to ensure that the distance traversed and the time elapsed since the introduction of the fluoride concentrate is adequate to allow its complete mixing with the water. At least once each three months, at a time designated by the commissioner of health, a duplicate of the usual daily sample(s) shall be collected in containers furnished by the commissioner of health and sent to the Department of Health for comparative analysis.
Subp. 6. Records of fluoridation.
Daily records of water fluoridation plant operations shall be maintained by the owners, officials, or their representatives. These records shall show the amount of water pumped, amount of fluoride chemical fed, fluoride test results, and any other pertinent information required by the commissioner of health. A report of the operation of each water fluoridation plant shall be submitted monthly to the commissioner of health on forms furnished by them.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12; 144.145; 144.383
- History: L 1977 c 305 s 39; 44 SR 1030
Minn. R. 4720.0040 Municipality Approval of Water Supply Contracts
No governing body of any municipality shall enter into any contract or agreement or renewal thereof for the furnishing and distribution, either or both, of water to be used for domestic purposes within the municipality until the approval of the commissioner of health, insofar as the sanitary features of the water supply system are concerned, has been obtained.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12; 144.383
- History: L 1977 c 305 s 39
Minn. R. 4720.0100 [Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
Minn. R. 4720.0200 Justification
Parts 4720.0200 to 4720.3970 are adopted pursuant to the Safe Drinking Water Act, Minnesota Statutes, sections 144.381 to 144.388, which requires that the commissioner of health adopt for all public water supplies rules which are at least as stringent as the federal regulations dealing with public water supplies adopted by the United States Environmental Protection Agency, in order for the commissioner to be able to assume the primary responsibility for enforcing the federal act.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.383
- History: 15 SR 1842
Minn. R. 4720.0300 Scope and Coverage
Parts 4720.0200 to 4720.3970 prescribe standards for water supply siting and construction, set maximum contaminant levels for turbidity, microbiological constituents, organic and inorganic chemicals, and radioactivity, prescribe a frequency for monitoring the levels of these constituents and sodium and corrosivity, and prescribe the procedures for reporting results, notifying the public and for maintaining records.
The standards and procedures adopted in parts 4720.0200 to 4720.3970 inclusive shall apply to all public drinking water supplies, pursuant to authority granted by existing statutes and amendments thereto, notwithstanding any other water quality standards or regulations.
A water supply which meets all of the following requirements shall not be a public supply for the purpose of parts 4720.0200 to 4720.3970:
A. consists only of distribution and storage facilities and does not have any collection and treatment facilities;
B. obtains all of its water from, but is not owned or operated by a public water supply to which the regulations apply;
C. does not sell water to any person; and
D. is not a carrier which conveys passengers in interstate commerce.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.383
- History: 15 SR 1842
Minn. R. 4720.0350 Rules and Standards Adopted by Reference
The National Primary Drinking Water Regulations in Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, part 141, and sections 142.40 to 142.64, are incorporated by reference in parts 4720.0200 to 4720.3970 and are subject to the alterations and amendments contained in parts 4720.0200 to 4720.3970.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.383
- History: 15 SR 1842; 18 SR 1960; 24 SR 301
Minn. R. 4720.0400 [Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
Minn. R. 4720.0450 Definitions; Section 141.2 of the National Primary Drinking Water Regulations
Subpart 1.
[Renumbered subp. 1b]
Subp. 1a. Capacity defined.
In section 141.2 of the National Primary Drinking Water Regulations, the following definition is added:
"Capacity" means the overall capability of a public water system to reliably produce and deliver water meeting all national primary drinking water regulations in effect, or likely to be in effect, on the date of commencement of operation. Capacity encompasses the technical, managerial, and financial capabilities that enable the water system to plan for, achieve, and maintain compliance with drinking water standards found in Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, section 141.
Subp. 1b. Central water treatment defined.
In section 141.2 of the National Primary Drinking Water Regulations, the following definition is added:
"Central water treatment" means providing treatment at a common location or facility and subsequently delivering it to the consumer of the public water supply.
Subp. 2. Commissioner of health defined.
In section 141.2 of the National Primary Drinking Water Regulations, the following definition is added:
"Commissioner of health" means the authority established by Minnesota Statutes, sections 144.381 to 144.387, for enforcement in the state of the National Primary Drinking Water Regulations and parts 4720.0200 to 4720.3970. For purposes of enforcing the National Primary Drinking Water Regulations, title 40, part 141, the term "state" contained in those regulations means the commissioner of health.
Subp. 3. Composite defined.
In section 141.2 of the National Primary Drinking Water Regulations, the following definition is added:
"Composite" means a sampling technique in which two or more samples are combined before an analysis is performed.
Subp. 4. Distribution system defined.
In section 141.2 of the National Primary Drinking Water Regulations, the following definition is added:
"Distribution system" means a network of pipes, valves, storage reservoirs, and pumping stations that delivers water to homes, businesses, and industries for drinking and other uses.
Subp. 5. Entry point samples defined.
In section 141.2 of the National Primary Drinking Water Regulations, the following definition is added:
"Entry point samples" means water samples collected at a location after any application of treatment but before the water is delivered to any consumer.
Subp. 6. Environmental Protection Agency methods defined.
In section 141.2 of the National Primary Drinking Water Regulations, the following definition is added:
"Environmental Protection Agency methods" means methods contained in Methods for the Determination of Organic Compounds in Finished Drinking Water and Raw Source Water, September 1986. These methods are issued by the Environmental Monitoring and Support Laboratory (EMSL) of the United States Environmental Protection Agency, Cincinnati, Ohio 45268. These methods are incorporated by reference and are not subject to frequent change. The methods are available through the Minitex interlibrary loan system.
Subp. 7. Federal act defined.
In section 141.2 of the National Primary Drinking Water Regulations, the following definition is added:
"Federal act" means the Safe Drinking Water Act of 1974, Public Law 93-523, title 42, United States Code, section 300f to 300j-11.
Subp. 8. Federal regulations defined.
In section 141.2 of the National Primary Drinking Water Regulations, the following definition is added:
"Federal regulations" means regulations dealing with public water supplies and drinking water quality, adopted by the Administrator of the United States Environmental Protection Agency pursuant to the federal act.
Subp. 8a. Financial capacity defined.
In section 141.2 of the National Primary Drinking Water Regulations, the following definition is added:
"Financial capacity" means a public water system's ability to acquire and manage sufficient financial resources to allow the system to achieve and maintain compliance with drinking water standards found in Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, section 141.
Subp. 9. Groundwater defined.
In section 141.2 of the National Primary Drinking Water Regulations, the following definition is added:
"Groundwater" means the water in the zone of saturation in which all of the pore spaces of the subsurface material are filled with water. The water that supplies a well is groundwater.
Subp. 9a. Managerial capacity defined.
In section 141.2 of the National Primary Drinking Water Regulations, the following definition is added:
"Managerial capacity" means a public water system's institutional and administrative capabilities to allow the system to achieve and maintain compliance with drinking water standards found in Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, section 141.
Subp. 9b. New water system defined.
In section 141.2 of the National Primary Drinking Water Regulations, the following definition is added:
For purposes of capacity development, "new water system" means a community water system (CWS) or nontransient noncommunity water system (NTNCWS) in which either there was no previously existing physical water system or the existing water system has undergone an infrastructure expansion that causes the system to satisfy the criteria for a CWS or NTNCWS as defined in Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, section 141.
Subp. 9c. Technical capacity defined.
In section 141.2 of the National Primary Drinking Water Regulations, the following definition is added:
"Technical capacity" means a public water system's physical and operational capabilities to allow the system to achieve and maintain compliance with drinking water standards found in Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, section 141.
Subp. 10. Turbidity unit defined.
In section 141.2 of the National Primary Drinking Water Regulations, the following definition is added:
"Turbidity unit" means an amount of turbidity equivalent to that in a solution composed of 0.000125 percent hydrazine sulfate and 0.00125 percent hexamethylenetetramine in distilled and filtered (100 µ pore size membrane) water, as measured by a nephelometric turbidimeter.
Subp. 11. Year-round resident defined.
In section 141.2 of the National Primary Drinking Water Regulations, the following definition is added:
"Year-round resident" means a person who resides in the area served by the public water supply for more than six months of the year.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.383
- History: 15 SR 1842; 18 SR 1960; 24 SR 301
Minn. R. 4720.0500 [Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
Minn. R. 4720.0550 Microbiological Contaminant Sampling and Analytical Requirements; Section 141.21 of the National Primary Drinking Water Regulations
Subpart 1. Section 141.21, paragraph (b), clause (1).
Section 141.21, paragraph (b), clause (1), of the National Primary Drinking Water Regulations is amended to read:
If a routine sample is total coliform-positive, the public water supplier must collect a set of repeat samples within 24 hours of being notified of the positive result. A supplier must collect no fewer than four repeat samples for each total coliform-positive sample found. The commissioner of health may extend the 24-hour limit on a case-by-case basis if the supplier has a logistical problem in collecting the repeat samples within 24 hours and the problem is beyond the supplier's control. In the case of an extension, the commissioner of health shall specify how much time the supplier has to collect the repeat samples.
Subp. 2. Section 141.21, paragraph (d), clause (2).
Section 141.21, paragraph (d), clause (2), of the National Primary Drinking Water Regulations is replaced with the sentence: "Sanitary surveys will be conducted by the department."
Subp. 3. Section 141.21, paragraph (e), clause (2).
Section 141.21, paragraph (e), clause (2), of the National Primary Drinking Water Regulations is deleted.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.383
- History: 15 SR 1842; 18 SR 1960
Minn. R. 4720.0600 [Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
Minn. R. 4720.0700 [Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
Minn. R. 4720.0800 [Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
Minn. R. 4720.0900 [Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
Minn. R. 4720.1000 [Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
Minn. R. 4720.1100 [Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
Minn. R. 4720.1200 [Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
Minn. R. 4720.1300 [Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
Minn. R. 4720.1400 [Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
Minn. R. 4720.1500 [Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
Minn. R. 4720.1510 [Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
Minn. R. 4720.1600 [Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
Minn. R. 4720.1700 [Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
Minn. R. 4720.1800 [Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
Minn. R. 4720.1900 [Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
Minn. R. 4720.2000 [Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
Minn. R. 4720.2100 [Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
Minn. R. 4720.2200 [Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
Minn. R. 4720.2300 Additional Monitoring Requirements
The commissioner may impose additional monitoring requirements if the results of a sanitary survey indicate that a public health risk may exist. The commissioner may impose a requirement for more frequent sampling if the analytical results of water tests show that a previously measured contaminant is approaching a maximum contaminant level prescribed in Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, part 141.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.383
- History: 15 SR 1842; 18 SR 1960; 24 SR 301
Minn. R. 4720.2400 [Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
Minn. R. 4720.2500 [Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
Minn. R. 4720.2600 [Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
Minn. R. 4720.2700 Application Procedure for Variance from Parts 4720.0200 to 4720.2300
A request for a variance from parts 4720.0200 to 4720.2300 shall be submitted to the commissioner in writing and shall follow the procedures and requirements for a variance specified in Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, part 142.20.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.383
- History: 18 SR 1960
Minn. R. 4720.2800 [Repealed, 18 SR 1960]
[Repealed, 18 SR 1960]
Minn. R. 4720.2900 [Repealed, 18 SR 1960]
[Repealed, 18 SR 1960]
Minn. R. 4720.3000 [Repealed, 18 SR 1960]
[Repealed, 18 SR 1960]
Minn. R. 4720.3100 [Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
Minn. R. 4720.3200 [Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
Minn. R. 4720.3300 [Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
Minn. R. 4720.3400 [Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
Minn. R. 4720.3500 [Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
Minn. R. 4720.3510 [Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
Minn. R. 4720.3600 [Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
Minn. R. 4720.3700 [Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
Minn. R. 4720.3800 Right of Inspection
The commissioner, or one of its authorized representatives, upon presenting appropriate credentials to any water supplier, is authorized to enter and inspect any establishment, facility, or other property of such supplier, in order to determine whether such supplier has acted or is acting in compliance with the rules of the commissioner relating to water supplies, including for this purpose the inspection of records, files, papers, processes, controls, and facilities, or in order to test any feature of a public water supply, including its raw water source.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.383
Minn. R. 4720.3900 [Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1842]
Minn. R. 4720.3910 [Repealed, 18 SR 1960]
[Repealed, 18 SR 1960]
Minn. R. 4720.3920 General Requirements for Construction of Surface Water and Groundwater Under the Direct Influence of Surface Water Treatment Facilities
Groundwater systems determined to be under the direct influence of surface water must meet all applicable requirements contained in parts 4720.3920 to 4720.3965. The source of surface water and groundwater under the direct influence of surface water selected for a public water supply must provide the highest quality water reasonably available which, with appropriate treatment and adequate safeguards, meets the requirements specified in Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, sections 141.72(b) and 141.73. The design of the treatment processes, equipment, and structures shall depend on an evaluation of the nature and quality of the particular water to be treated. Variations from the design criteria may be approved by the commissioner in cases where experimental, pilot, or full scale studies have demonstrated that acceptable results can be obtained. Any unfiltered surface water or groundwater under the direct influence of a surface water system that experiences a waterborne disease outbreak must comply with the appropriate treatment requirements contained in parts 4720.3920 to 4720.3965.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.383
- History: 15 SR 1842; 18 SR 1960; 24 SR 301
Minn. R. 4720.3922 Intakes
Intake structures must provide:
A. a velocity of flow 0.25 to 0.50 feet per second through the inlet structure so frazil ice is held to a minimum;
B. for the withdrawal of water from the depth of the best water quality;
C. inspection manholes every 1,000 feet for pipe sizes large enough to permit visual inspection;
D. protection against rupture by dragging anchors, ice, and other activity; and
E. permanent monuments to reference locations.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.383
- History: 15 SR 1842
Minn. R. 4720.3925 Shore Wells
Shore well structures must:
A. have motors and electrical controls located above grade and flood level;
B. be accessible for operation and service;
C. be designed to prevent flotation;
D. be equipped with removable or traveling screens before the pump suction well;
E. provide chlorination or other chemical addition facilities for raw water transmission mains;
F. have the intake valved with provisions for backflushing and testing for leaks; and
G. have provisions for controlling surges.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.383
- History: 15 SR 1842
Minn. R. 4720.3927 Pumping Stations; Design Requirements
Subpart 1. General.
Pumping stations must be designed to maintain the sanitary quality of the water being pumped. All raw or finished water pump stations must:
A. provide space to access and service all equipment;
B. have outward opening doors;
C. have a floor elevation at least six inches above the finished grade and at least 24 inches above the regional flood level. Below grade installations shall be permitted only if the terrain at the site is such that a gravity drain system can be provided;
D. have all floors drained without impairing the quality of water being handled; and
E. provide a suitable outlet for drainage from pump glands without discharging onto the floor.
Subp. 2. Pumping station suction well.
Suction wells, including installations where the pumps are installed on top of a reservoir, must:
A. be watertight;
B. have bottoms sloped to permit removal of water and entrained solids;
C. be vented by means of a pipe or other device terminating in a screened U-bend at least 24 inches above the floor; and
D. have curbs a minimum of four inches around all access openings, pipes, and other equipment which extend through the top of the suction well. Access openings must have covers which overlap at least two inches.
Subp. 3. Pumping station pumps.
Pumping stations must:
A. have at least two pumping units except where additional pumping stations which can meet the peak demand are available or where the commissioner determines that ample time will be available between pumping periods for necessary repairs. If only two units are provided, each must be capable of carrying the peak demand. If more than two units are installed, each must have sufficient capacity so that any one pump can be taken out of service with the remaining pump capable of carrying the peak demand;
B. have controls for proper alternation where two or more pumps are installed. Provision must be made to prevent operation of the pump during the backspin cycle. All electrical controls must be located above grade;
C. provide a power supply from at least two independent sources or from a standby, auxiliary power source; and
D. provide a prelubrication line with a valved bypass around the automatic control and backflow protection where required, whenever automatic prelubrication of pump bearings is necessary and an auxiliary power supply is provided.
Subp. 4. Pumping station suction lift.
A suction lift shall be allowed only for distances of less than 15 feet and where provision is made for priming the pumps. A suction lift shall not be permitted if used with buried piping carrying finished water.
Subp. 5. Pumping station priming.
Prime water must not be of lesser sanitary quality than that of the water being pumped. Means must be provided to prevent backflow. When an air-operated ejector is used, the screened intake must draw clean air from a point at least ten feet above the ground or other source of contamination, unless the air is filtered by apparatus approved by the commissioner. Vacuum priming may be used.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.383
- History: 15 SR 1842
Minn. R. 4720.3930 Water Clarification Procedures
Subpart 1. Duplicate systems.
Facilities designed to process surface water must provide duplicate systems for flocculation and sedimentation and be constructed to permit a system to be taken out of service without disrupting operation.
Subp. 2. Pretreatment.
Water containing high turbidity or having unusual treatment requirements shall be pretreated, usually by sedimentation or detention either with or without the addition of chemicals.
A. Sedimentation basins must have a means for sludge removal.
B. Inlets for incoming water must disperse water across the full width of the line of travel as quickly as possible; short circuiting must be prevented.
C. Means for bypassing sedimentation basins must be provided.
D. Three hours detention is the minimum period required for sedimentation. In individual cases where chemical pretreatment is required because of unusual water quality characteristics, a greater detention time shall be required.
Subp. 3. Flash or rapid mixing.
Mixing means the rapid dispersion of chemicals throughout the water to be treated, usually by vigorous agitation.
A. Basins must be equipped with mechanical mixing devices unless other methods, such as baffling or injection of chemicals at a point of high velocity, are approved by the commissioner after determining that the other requirements of this chapter are met.
B. The detention period for mechanical mixing must be as short as possible depending on the velocity gradient provided by the mixing units.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.383
- History: 15 SR 1842
Minn. R. 4720.3932 Flocculation (slow Mixing)
Subpart 1. Basin design.
Inlet and outlet design must prevent short circuiting and destruction of floc. A drain must be provided.
Subp. 2. Detention.
Minimum flow-through velocity must be not less than 0.5 feet or greater than 1.5 feet per minute with a detention time for floc formation of at least 30 minutes.
Subp. 3. Equipment.
Agitators must be driven by variable speed drives or other means which vary the peripheral speed of paddles in the range of 0.5 to 3.0 feet per second. Uniform mixing must be provided to prevent settling in the flocculation basin.
Subp. 4. Piping.
Flocculation and sedimentation basins must be as close together as possible to avoid settling out. The velocity of flocculated water through pipes or conduits to settling basins must be no less than 0.5 feet nor greater than 1.5 feet per second.
Subp. 5. Baffling; other designs.
Baffling may be used to provide flocculation only after the supplier consults with the commissioner and receives the commissioner's approval. The design must maintain the velocities and flows set forth in this subpart.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.383
- History: 15 SR 1842
Minn. R. 4720.3935 Sedimentation
Subpart 1. General.
Sedimentation must follow flocculation. The detention time for effective water clarification shall depend on basin design and the nature of the raw water, such as turbidity, color, colloidal matter, taste, and odor causing compounds.
Subp. 2. Detention time.
Facilities with a conventional sedimentation system must provide a minimum of four hours of settling time.
Subp. 3. Inlet devices.
Inlets must be designed to distribute the water equally and at uniform velocities. A baffle must be constructed across the basin, close to the inlet end. The baffle must project far enough below the water surface to dissipate inlet velocities and provide uniform flow across the basin.
Subp. 4. Outlet devices.
Outlet devices must maintain velocities suitable for settling in the basin and must minimize short circuiting.
Subp. 5. Weir overflow rate.
The rate of flow over the outlet weir must not exceed 20,000 gallons a day per foot of weir length. If submerged ports are used as an alternate for overflow weirs, they must not be lower than three feet below the flow line.
Subp. 6. Drainage.
Basins must be provided with a means for dewatering. Basin bottoms must slope toward the drain.
Subp. 7. Covers.
Covers or superstructures are required at all facilities. Where covers are used, manholes must be provided, as well as drop light connections, so the flow can be observed at the inlet midpoint and outlet of the basin.
Subp. 8. Velocity.
The velocity through settling basins must not exceed one foot a minute. The basins must be designed to minimize short circuiting. Baffles must be provided if the commissioner determines the flow through time cannot be met.
Subp. 9. Overflow.
An overflow weir or pipe must be installed which establishes the maximum water level on top of the filters. The overflow weir must discharge with a free fall at a location where the discharge is visible.
Subp. 10. Safety.
Guard rails must be installed around openings hazardous to maintenance personnel.
Subp. 11. Sludge disposal.
A facility must provide for sludge disposal. Provisions must be made for the operator to observe and sample sludge being withdrawn from the unit.
Subp. 12. Cross connection control.
Protection must be provided for all potable water lines used to backflush sludge lines and basins or for other purposes if potable water could become contaminated by nonpotable water.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.383
- History: 15 SR 1842
Minn. R. 4720.3940 Solids Contact Unit
Subpart 1. General.
A unit designed for combined water softening and sedimentation shall be permitted only if the unit is:
A. designed for the maximum uniform flow rate;
B. adjustable to changes in flow which are less than the design rate; and
C. designed for changes in water quality characteristics.
Subp. 2. Installation supervision.
Supervision by a representative of the manufacturer must be provided whenever mechanical equipment is installed at the facility and, also, at the time of initial operation.
Subp. 3. Sampling taps.
Sampling taps must be located to permit the collection of water samples from the solids contact unit.
Subp. 4. Chemical feed.
Chemicals must be applied at points and by means which ensure satisfactory mixing of the chemicals with the water.
Subp. 5. Mixing devices.
Mixing devices must be constructed to adequately mix raw water with previously formed sludge particles, and to prevent the deposit of solids in the mixing zone.
Subp. 6. Flocculation.
Flocculation equipment must be adjustable so that coagulation occurs in a separate chamber or baffled zone within the unit and so that there is a flocculation and mixing period of not less than 30 minutes.
Subp. 7. Sludge concentrators.
The solids contact unit must provide either internal or external concentrators which concentrate sludge and minimize wastewater.
Subp. 8. Sludge removal.
Design of the sludge removal system must provide:
A. sludge pipes not less than three inches in diameter, arranged to facilitate cleaning;
B. an entrance to sludge withdrawal piping to prevent clogging;
C. accessible valves located outside the tank; and
D. a means for an operator to observe or sample sludge being withdrawn from the solids contact unit.
Subp. 9. Cross connections.
Blow-off outlets and drains must terminate and discharge at places so backflow is prevented. Cross connection control must be included for all potable water lines including those used to backflush sludge lines and flush basins if potable water could become contaminated by nonpotable water.
Subp. 10. Detention period.
The detention time must be established on the basis of the raw water characteristics and local conditions that affect the operation of the unit. Based on design flow rates, the minimum detention time must be two hours for suspended solids contact clarifiers, and one hour for the suspended solids contact softeners.
Subp. 11. Suspended slurry concentrate.
Softening units must be designed so continuous slurry concentrates of one percent or more, by weight, are maintained.
Subp. 12. Weirs or orifices.
Units must be equipped with either overflow weirs or orifices. Weirs must be adjustable, must be at least equivalent in length to the perimeter of the tank, and must be constructed so surface water does not travel over ten feet horizontally to the collection trough.
Subp. 13. Weir; orifice loading.
Weir loading must not exceed 20 gallons a minute per foot of weir length for units used for softeners, or ten gallons a minute per foot of weir length for units used for clarifiers. Orifices must produce uniform rising rates over the entire area of the tank.
Subp. 14. Upflow rates.
The upflow rates in the solid contact unit must not exceed:
A. 1.75 gallons a minute per square foot of area at the slurry separation line if units are used for softeners; and
B. 1.0 gallon a minute per square foot of area at the sludge separation line if units are used for clarifiers.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.383
- History: 15 SR 1842
Minn. R. 4720.3942 Filtration
The application of any type of filter and media must be supported by water quality data for the period of use sufficient to characterize any variation in water quality. All public systems using surface water or groundwater under the direct influence of surface water must have filtration systems that meet the minimum requirements of parts 4720.3945 to 4720.3955. Filtration systems must meet the requirements in parts 4720.3945 to 4720.3955.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.383
- History: 15 SR 1842; 18 SR 1960
Minn. R. 4720.3945 Rapid Rate Gravity Filters
Subpart 1. Pretreatment.
Rapid rate gravity filters must only be used after coagulation, flocculation, and sedimentation.
Subp. 2. Number.
At least two filter units must be provided. Provisions must be made to meet the maximum day demand at the approved filtration rate if one filter is out of service.
Subp. 3. Rate of filtration.
The permissible rate of filtration shall be determined after consideration of factors such as raw water quality, the degree of pretreatment provided, the filter media, and water quality control parameters. In all cases the filtration rate must be reviewed and approved by a registered engineer and approved by the commissioner before the preparation of final plans.
Subp. 4. Structural details and hydraulics.
The filter structure must be designed to:
A. provide vertical walls within the filter;
B. prevent protrusion of the filter walls or other structures into the filter media or the area between the top of the media and the high water line during backwashing;
C. provide cover by superstructure;
D. provide head room to permit normal inspection and operation;
E. provide a minimum filter depth of 8-1/2 feet;
F. provide a minimum water depth three feet over the surface of the media;
G. provide a trap on the effluent pipe or conduit to prevent backflow of air to the bottom of the filter;
H. prevent drainage from the floor to the filter with a minimum four-inch curb around the filter;
I. prevent flooding by providing overflow if this is not provided in a pretreatment unit;
J. provide a maximum velocity of treated water in the pipe and conduits to the filter of two feet per second;
K. provide cleanouts and straight alignment for influent pipes or conduits where solids loading is heavy or following lime-soda softening;
L. provide wash water drain capacity to carry maximum backwash flow;
M. provide walkways around filters not less than 24 inches wide; and
N. provide safety handrails or walls around the filter areas adjacent to the walkways.
Subp. 5. Wash water troughs.
Wash water troughs must be designed to provide:
A. a bottom elevation above the maximum level of expanded media during washing;
B. a top elevation not exceeding 30 inches above the filter surface;
C. a two-inch freeboard at the maximum rate of wash;
D. a top or edge which is level;
E. spacing so each trough serves the same number of square feet of filter area; and
F. a maximum horizontal travel of suspended particles not exceeding three feet in reaching the trough.
Subp. 6. Filter media.
Filter media must meet the standards specified in this subpart.
A. Sand must be:
B. Clean crushed anthracite, or sand and anthracite may be used as a filter media if supported by experimental data obtained from the project. Anthracite used as the only media must have an effective size from 0.45 millimeter to 0.8 millimeter and a uniformity coefficient no greater than 1.6 millimeters. Anthracite used to cap sand filters must have an effective size from 0.7 millimeter to 1.2 millimeters and a uniformity coefficient no greater than 1.85 millimeters.
C. Granular activated carbon may be used as a filter material only if approved by the commissioner. A request for approval must:
D. Other media may be approved by the commissioner, but only on the basis of pilot tests and experience which demonstrate that the requirements of this part will be met.
E. Except as provided in item F, sand and gravel must be provided as supporting media according to subitems (1) and (2).
F. If the supplier submits substantiation to the commissioner that proprietary filter bottoms are used, the commissioner may allow elimination of certain layers of supporting media or a reduction in the depth of the layers of supporting media that are required in item E.
Subp. 7. Filter bottoms and strainer systems.
Departures from the standards in this subpart by using proprietary bottoms may be approved by the commissioner on a case-by-case basis if the effectiveness of the method is demonstrated by the supplier. Porous plate bottoms must not be used where iron or manganese may clog them or with water softened with lime. The design of a manifold-type collection system must:
A. minimize loss of head in the manifold and laterals;
B. assure even distribution of wash water and an even rate of filtration over the entire area of the filter;
C. provide a ratio of the area of the final openings of the strainer system to the area of the filter of not more than 0.003;
D. provide a total cross-sectional area of the laterals at least twice the total area of the final openings of the strainer system; and
E. provide a cross-sectional area of the manifold at 1-1/2 to two times the total cross-sectional area of the laterals.
Subp. 8. Surface wash.
Surface wash facilities consisting of either fixed nozzles or a revolving mechanism are required. All devices must be designed for:
A. water pressures of at least 45 pounds per square inch;
B. a volume of flow of 2.0 gallons per minute per square foot of filter area with fixed nozzles and 0.5 gallons per minute per square foot with revolving arms; and
C. a vacuum breaker installed above the high water elevation in the filter or other device approved by the commissioner to prevent back siphonage.
Subp. 9. Appurtenances.
The following shall be provided for every filter:
A. a sampling tap on the effluent line;
B. a loss-of-head gauge;
C. controls to indicate flow rate;
D. a drain to waste with appropriate measures for backflow prevention;
E. a means of monitoring the effluent from each filter for turbidity on a continuous basis or on a selective basis where one turbidimeter would monitor more than one filter on a rotating cycle. The turbidimeter must have a recorder. Access to the filter interior through wall sleeves must be provided in several locations to allow the installation of sampling lines, pressure sensors, and other devices, at different depths in the filter media; and
F. a one to 1-1/2 inch pressure hose and rack at the operating floor for washing the filter walls.
Subp. 10. Backwash.
Facilities must provide for the washing of filters as follows:
A. by filtered water at a rate no less than 15 gallons per square foot per minute from wash water tanks, a wash water pump from a reservoir, or a high service main, or a combination of these;
B. by wash water pumps in duplicate unless an alternate means of obtaining wash water is available;
C. by no less than 15 minutes wash of one filter at the design rate of wash;
D. by a wash water regulator or valve on the wash water line to obtain the desired rate of filter wash;
E. by a rate-of-flow indicator and totalizer on the main wash water line, located for convenient reading by the operator during the washing process; and
F. by a method which prevents rapid changes in the backwash water flow.
Subp. 11. Roof drains.
Roof drains must not discharge into the filters and basins or the conduits preceding the filters.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.383
- History: 15 SR 1842
Minn. R. 4720.3947 Slow Rate Gravity Filters
Subpart 1. Demonstration study.
The use of slow rate gravity filters shall require an engineering study to demonstrate the adequacy and suitability of this filtration method for a specific raw water supply. The standards in this part shall be applied to determine the adequacy and suitability of this filtration method.
Subp. 2. Quality of raw water.
Slow rate gravity filtration must be limited to water with a maximum turbidity of 50 units and maximum color of 30 units. The turbidity must not be attributable to colloidal clay. Raw water quality data must include an examination for algae.
Subp. 3. Structural details and hydraulics.
A slow rate gravity filter must be designed to provide:
A. no less than two filter units;
B. a cover or superstructure;
C. headroom to permit normal movement by operating personnel for scraping and sand removal operations;
D. manholes and access ports for handling sand; and
E. filtration to waste and overflow at the maximum filter water levels.
Subp. 4. Rates of filtration.
The permissible rates of filtration must be based on the quality of the raw water as determined from experimental data. Proposed rates must be submitted to the commissioner for approval. The design rate shall be 45 to 150 gallons a day per square foot of sand area. However, rates of 150 to 230 gallons a day per square foot shall be approved when effectiveness is demonstrated by the supplier to the satisfaction of the commissioner.
Subp. 5. Under drains.
Each filter unit must be equipped with a main drain and lateral drains under the filter media to collect the filtered water. The under drains must be spaced so the maximum velocity of the water flow in a lateral under drain does not exceed 0.75 feet per second. The maximum spacing of lateral under drains shall not exceed 12 feet.
Subp. 6. Filtering material.
A minimum depth of 30 inches of filter sand, clean and free of foreign matter, must be placed on graded gravel layers. The effective size of the filter media must be between 0.35 and 0.50 millimeter, and the uniformity coefficient must not exceed 2.5.
Subp. 7. Filter gravel.
The supporting gravel must conform to the size and depth distribution provided for rapid rate gravity filters.
Subp. 8. Depth of water on filter beds.
The design must provide a depth of at least three feet of water over the sand. Influent water must be distributed in a manner which does not scour the sand surfaces.
Subp. 9. Control appurtenances.
Each filter must be equipped with:
A. a loss-of-head gauge;
B. an orifice, Venturi meter, or other suitable metering device installed on each filter to enable control of the rate of filtration; and
C. an effluent pipe located at an elevation which maintains the water level in the filter above the top of the sand.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.383
- History: 15 SR 1842
Minn. R. 4720.3950 Diatomaceous Earth Filtration
Subpart 1. Applicability.
The use of diatomaceous earth filters may be considered for application to surface water with low turbidity and low bacterial contamination. Diatomaceous earth filters must not be used for bacterial removal, color removal, or turbidity removal where either the gross quantity of turbidity exceeds 40 turbidity units or the turbidity exhibits poor filterability characteristics.
Subp. 2. Pilot plant study.
Installation of a diatomaceous earth filtration system must be preceded by a pilot plant study on the water to be treated.
A. Conditions of the study such as duration, filter rates, head loss accumulation, slurry feed rates, turbidity removal, and bacteria removal, must be approved by the commissioner before the study.
B. The pilot plant study must demonstrate the ability of the system to meet the requirements of Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, part 141.73(c).
Subp. 3. Treated water storage capacity.
Treated water storage capacity in excess of normal requirements must be provided to allow operation of the filters at a uniform rate during all conditions of system demand at or below the approved filtration rate, and to guarantee continuity of service during adverse raw water conditions without bypassing the system.
Subp. 4. Number of filters.
There must be at least two filters provided. Where only two filters are provided, they must each be capable of meeting the plant's design capacity at the approved filtration rate.
Subp. 5. Precoat.
A uniform precoat of diatomaceous earth must be applied hydraulically to each septum by introducing a slurry to the tank influent line and employing a filter-to-waste or recirculation system. Diatomaceous earth in the amount of 0.1 pound per square foot of filter area or an amount sufficient to apply a 1/16 inch coating must be used with recirculation. When precoating is accomplished with a filter-to-waste system, 0.15 to 0.2 of a pound per square foot of filter area must be provided.
Subp. 6. Body feed.
A body feed system must apply additional amounts of diatomaceous earth slurry during the filter run to avoid short filter runs or excessive head loss.
A. The rate of body feed shall depend on raw water quality and characteristics and must be determined in the pilot plant study in subpart 2.
B. The feed systems and slurry lines must be accessible.
C. The body feed slurry must be continuously mixed.
Subp. 7. Rate of filtration.
The minimum rate of filtration is 1.0 gallon a minute per square foot of filter area with a maximum of 1.5 gallons a minute per square foot. The filtration rate must be mechanically controlled.
Subp. 8. Recirculation.
A recirculation or holding pump must be used to maintain differential pressure across the filter when the unit is not in operation to prevent the filter cake from dropping off the filter elements. A minimum recirculation rate of 0.1 gallon a minute per square foot of filter area must be provided.
Subp. 9. Septum or filter element.
The filter elements must be structurally capable of withstanding maximum pressure and velocity variations during filtration and backwash cycles, and must be spaced so no less than one inch is provided between elements or between any element and a wall.
Subp. 10. Inlet design.
The filter influent must be designed to prevent scour of the diatomaceous earth from the filter element.
Subp. 11. Backwash.
A satisfactory method to thoroughly remove and dispose of spent filter cake must be provided.
Subp. 12. Appurtenances.
The following must be provided for every filter:
A. sampling taps for raw and filtered water;
B. a loss of head or differential pressure gauge;
C. rate-of-flow indicator, preferable with totalizer; and
D. a throttling valve to reduce rates below normal during adverse raw water conditions.
Subp. 13. Monitoring turbidimeter.
A continuous monitoring turbidimeter with recorder is required on the filter effluent for plants treating surface water.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.383
- History: 15 SR 1842; 24 SR 301
Minn. R. 4720.3955 Direct Filtration Plants
Subpart 1. Studies.
A full scale direct filtration plant must not be constructed without a pilot study acceptable to the commissioner. An in-plant demonstration study shall be appropriate where conventional treatment plants are converted to direct filtration. Where direct filtration is proposed, the supplier must submit an engineering report to the commissioner. The commissioner must approve the report before the supplier conducts a pilot plant or in-plant demonstration study.
Subp. 2. Engineering report.
The engineering report must include a historical summary of meteorological conditions and of raw water quality with special reference to fluctuations in quality and possible sources of contamination. The following raw water parameters must be evaluated in the report:
A. color;
B. turbidity;
C. bacterial concentration;
D. microscopic biological organisms;
E. temperature;
F. total solids;
G. general inorganic chemical characteristics; and
H. additional parameters as required by the reviewing authority. The report must also include a description of methods and work to be done during a pilot plant study or where appropriate, an in-plant demonstration study.
Subp. 3. Pilot plant or in-plant demonstration studies.
After approval of the engineering report, a pilot study or, for existing plants where conventional treatment is being converted to direct filtration, an in-plant demonstration study, shall be conducted. The study must be conducted over a sufficient time to treat all expected raw water conditions throughout the year. The pilot plant filter must be of a similar type and operated in the same manner as proposed for full scale operation. The study shall emphasize but not be limited to, the following items:
A. chemical mixing conditions including shear gradients and detention periods;
B. chemical feed rates;
C. use of various coagulants and coagulant aids;
D. flocculation conditions;
E. filtration rates;
F. filter gradation, types of media, and depth of media;
G. filter breakthrough conditions; and
H. a description of the adverse impact of recycling backwash water due to solids, algae, trihalomethane formation and similar problems. Before initiation of design plans and specifications, the supplier shall submit a final report including the engineer's design recommendations. The study must demonstrate the minimum contact time necessary for optimum filtration for each coagulant proposed.
Subp. 4. Pretreatment - rapid mix and flocculation.
The final rapid mix and flocculation basin design shall be based on the pilot plant or in-plant demonstration studies augmented with applicable portions of parts 4720.3930, subpart 3, and 4720.3932.
Subp. 5. Filtration.
Filters must be rapid rate gravity filters, with dual or mixed media. The final filter design must be based on the pilot plant or in-plant demonstration studies augmented by applicable portions of part 4720.3945, subparts 1 to 7. Pressure filters or single media sand filters must not be used.
A. Surface wash, subsurface wash, or air scour must be provided for the filters according to part 4720.3945, subpart 8.
B. Provisions for filtration to waste must be provided with measures for backflow prevention according to chapter 4714.
Subp. 6. Siting requirements.
The plant design and land ownership surrounding the plant must allow for the installation of conventional sedimentation basins should the commissioner find that the installation of the direct filtration methods specified in this part do not achieve the water quality standard indicated in Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, part 141.73(a)(1), as amended through June 29, 1989.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.383
- History: 15 SR 1842; 40 SR 71
Minn. R. 4720.3957 Chemical Addition
Subpart 1. Feed equipment required.
If chemical feed such as chlorination, coagulation, or other processes are necessary for the protection of the water supply, a minimum of two feeders must be provided so a standby unit or combination of units is available to replace the largest unit during shutdowns. Spare parts must be available for all feeders to replace parts subject to wear and damage.
Subp. 2. Design and capacity.
The design of the facility must ensure that:
A. a separate feed system is provided for each chemical;
B. feeders supply, at all times, the necessary amounts of chemical at an accurate rate, throughout the range of feed. To allow for changes in pumping or application rates, the feeder must be designed to operate between 30 and 70 percent of the feeder range on initial start-up. If this is not possible with stock chemical solution, the chemical must be diluted;
C. proportioning of chemical feed to rate of flow is provided;
D. positive displacement-type solution feeders are used to feed liquid chemicals;
E. chemical solutions are prevented from being siphoned into the water supply by assuring discharge at points of positive pressure and by providing antisiphon devices, or through a suitable air gap or other effective means approved by the commissioner;
F. the service water supply is protected from contamination by chemical solutions either by equipping the supply line with backflow or backsiphonage prevention devices, or by providing an air gap of two pipe diameters, but not less than three inches, between the supply line and top of the solution tank;
G. materials and surfaces in contact with chemicals are resistant to the chemical solution;
H. dry chemical feeders:
I. no direct connection exists between any sewer and a drain or overflow from the feeder or solution chamber or tank.
Subp. 3. Location of feed equipment.
Chemical feed equipment must be:
A. readily accessible for servicing, repair, and observation of operation;
B. located and have protective curbings to prevent chemicals from equipment failure, spillage, or accidental drainage from entering the water in conduits, and treatment or storage basins; and
C. located above grade.
Subp. 4. Controls.
Feeders must be manually or automatically controlled if the water supply pumps are manually controlled. Where pumps are automatically controlled, the feeders must be automatically controlled. In all cases, automatic control shall be capable of reverting to manual control when necessary.
A. Feeders must be designed and controlled to provide rates proportional to flow.
B. Automatic chemical feed rate control may be used in combination with residual analyzers which have alarms for critical values and recording charts.
Subp. 5. Weighing scales.
Weighing scales:
A. must be provided to weigh cylinders at all plants using chlorine gas;
B. are required for solution feed unless a comparable means for determining use is approved by the commissioner;
C. are required for volumetric dry chemical feeders; and
D. must be accurate enough to measure increments of 0.5 percent of load.
Subp. 6. Feed lines.
Feed lines must:
A. be as short as possible in length of run; of durable, corrosion resistant material; easily accessible throughout entire length; protected against freezing; and readily cleanable;
B. slope upward from chemical source to feeder when conveying gases;
C. introduce corrosive chemicals so as to minimize the potential for corrosion;
D. be designed consistent with the scale-forming or solids-depositing properties of the water, chemical, solution, or mixture conveyed;
E. not carry chlorine gas under pressure beyond the chlorine feeder room; and
F. include an injection nozzle when application is into a pipeline.
Subp. 7. Service water supply.
Water used for dissolving dry chemicals, diluting liquid chemicals, or operating chemical feeders must be from a safe, approved source with appropriate backflow prevention provided. The commissioner may grant an exception in cases where the finished water quality is not affected by addition of the chemical mixed with untreated water.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.383
- History: 15 SR 1842
Minn. R. 4720.3960 Chemical Storage
Subpart 1. Storage space.
Storage space must provide for:
A. storage of at least 30 days of chemical supply;
B. convenient and efficient handling of chemicals;
C. dry storage conditions; and
D. a minimum of 1-1/2 truckloads storage volume where purchase is by truckload.
Subp. 2. Containers.
Covered or unopened shipping containers must be provided for storage unless the chemical is transferred into an approved covered storage unit. Solution tanks must have overlapping covers.
Subp. 3. Capacity.
Solution storage or day tanks supplying feeders directly must have sufficient capacity for one day of operation. When the chemical solution is prepared from a powder or slurry, two solution tanks are required to assure continuity of feed.
Subp. 4. Storage containers.
Storage must be constructed of or lined with materials compatible with the chemical being handled.
Subp. 5. Mixing equipment.
Mixing equipment must be provided where necessary to assure a uniform chemical solution strength.
Subp. 6. Measurements.
Means must be provided to accurately determine the amount of chemical applied either by measurement of the solution level in the tank or by weighing scales. A meter must be provided on the water fill line to a fluoride saturator. Liquid chemical storage tanks must have a liquid level indicator.
Subp. 7. Drainage.
Means to drain tanks must be provided in the storage space, but there must be no direct connection between any drain piping and a sewer. Drain piping must terminate at least two pipe diameters, but not less than three inches, above the overflow rim of a receiving sump, conduit, or waste receptacle.
Subp. 8. Overflow pipes.
Overflow pipes must be turned downward, be screened, have a free discharge, and be in a conspicuous location.
Subp. 9. Subsurface storage.
Where subsurface locations for solution or storage tanks are provided, the tanks must be free from sources of possible contamination and located to assure drainage for groundwater, accumulated water, chemical spills, and overflows.
Subp. 10. Compatibility of chemicals.
Incompatible chemicals must not be stored or handled in common areas.
Subp. 11. Venting.
Gases from feeders, storage, and equipment exhausts must be conveyed to the outside atmosphere above grade and remote from air intakes. Acid storage tanks must be vented to the outside but not through vents in common with day tanks.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.383
- History: 15 SR 1842
Minn. R. 4720.3962 Chemical Handling
Subpart 1. Measuring equipment.
Equipment must be provided in the handling facility to measure the chemicals used to prepare feed solutions.
Subp. 2. Piping.
Piping for chemicals must be compatible with the chemical being conveyed.
Subp. 3. Dust control.
Provision must be made for the transfer of dry chemicals from shipping containers to storage bins or hoppers in a way that minimizes dust. Control must be provided by use of one of the following:
A. vacuum pneumatic equipment or closed conveyor systems;
B. facilities for emptying shipping containers in special containers; or
C. exhaust fans and dust filters which place the hoppers or bins under negative pressure.
Subp. 4. Acids.
Acids must be kept in closed, acid-resistant shipping containers or storage units. Transfer from shipping containers to solution or day tanks must be through suitable hose or pipe by means of a transfer pump.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.383
- History: 15 SR 1842
Minn. R. 4720.3965 Disinfection
Subpart 1. Chlorine.
Chlorine must be the principal agent used to disinfect the water supply. Other agents may be approved by the commissioner on a case-by-case basis provided reliable feeding equipment is available and testing procedures for a residual are recognized in the 16th edition of Standard Methods for the Examination of Water and Wastewater (1985). This edition is incorporated by reference, is not subject to frequent change, and is available through the Minitex interlibrary loan system.
Subp. 2. Equipment.
A gas chlorinator or a positive displacement hypochlorite feeder must be provided by the supplier.
Subp. 3. Capacity.
The chlorinator capacity must provide that a free chlorine residual of at least two mg/1 is attained in the water after a contact time of at least 30 minutes when maximum flow rates coincide with anticipated maximum chlorine demands. The equipment must be designed to operate accurately over the desired feed range.
Subp. 4. Standby equipment.
Where chlorination is needed to protect the water supply, standby equipment of sufficient capacity must be available to replace the largest unit during shutdowns.
Subp. 5. Automatic proportioning.
Automatic proportioning chlorinators are required where the rate of flow is not reasonably constant or where the rate of flow of the water is not manually controlled.
Subp. 6. Contact time and point of application.
To determine the contact time of the chlorine in water, ammonia, taste-producing substances, temperature, bacterial quality, trihalomethane formation potential and other pertinent factors must be considered. All basins used for disinfection must be designed to minimize short circuiting.
A. At plants treating surface water, provisions must be made for applying chlorine to the raw water, settled water, filtered water, and water entering the distribution system. The contact time required in item B must be provided after filtration.
B. Surface water supplies using free residual chlorination must provide a minimum contact time of two hours. When combined residual chlorination is used for surface water supplies, a minimum of three hours contact time must be provided.
Subp. 7. Residual testing equipment.
Residual testing equipment must measure residuals to the nearest 0.1 mg/1 in the range below 0.5 mg/1 and to the nearest 0.2 mg/1 between 0.5 mg/1 to 2.0 mg/1.
Subp. 8. Chlorinator piping.
The water supply piping must be designed to prevent contamination of the treated water supply by water sources of impure or unknown quality.
Subp. 9. Housing.
Chlorine gas feed and storage must be:
A. separated from other operating areas by gas-tight enclosures to prevent injury to personnel and damage to equipment;
B. provided with an inspection window installed in an interior wall or exterior door to permit viewing of the interior of the room and the equipment;
C. provided with doors having emergency or panic hardware and opening outward to the building exterior;
D. heated to prevent freezing and insure proper operation of the equipment;
E. provided with restraints to prevent movement of the chlorine cylinders; and
F. designed so the ejector for mixing chlorine gas and water is located in the chlorine room where chlorine gas under pressure is used.
Subp. 10. Ventilation of chlorine rooms.
One complete air change a minute must be provided when the chlorine room is occupied. In addition:
A. the exhaust fan suction must be near the floor with the point of discharge located to avoid contamination of air inlets to other rooms and structures or blockage by snow or other obstructions;
B. air inlets must be located near the ceiling and controlled to prevent adverse temperature variation;
C. the exhaust fan switch must be located at the entrance to the chlorine room with a signal light indicating fan operation when the fan is controlled from more than one point; and
D. vents from feeder and storage units must discharge to the outside atmosphere, above grade as indicated in item A.
Subp. 11. Ammoniation.
Housing and ventilation for ammoniation must be provided as specified in subparts 9 and 10. Ammonia storage and feed facilities must be separate from chlorine facilities because of the combustion hazard. A plastic bottle of hydrochloric acid must be available and used for leak detection.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.383
- History: 15 SR 1842
Minn. R. 4720.3970 Variance Procedures and Criteria for Surface Water Construction Standards
The commissioner of health shall grant a variance to parts 4720.3920 to 4720.3965 according to the procedures and criteria in parts 4717.7000 to 4717.7050.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.383
- History: 15 SR 1842
Minn. R. 4720.4000 Purpose
Parts 4720.4000 to 4720.4600 are adopted for the purpose of assuring that sanitary procedures are followed by those who distribute drinking water by tank truck and that the public health is thereby preserved. The authority for adopting parts 4720.4000 to 4720.4600 may be found in Minnesota Statutes 1976, section 144.12, subdivision 1, clause (5) as amended by Laws of Minnesota 1977, chapter 66, section 10 which states that the commissioner of health may regulate the "distribution of water by persons."
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12; 144.383
Minn. R. 4720.4100 Definitions
Subpart 1. Accessible.
"Accessible" means capable of being exposed for cleaning and inspection.
Subp. 2. Approved source.
"Approved source" means a public water supply which is in compliance with state rules relating to water supplies, and is equipped with a permanent overhead delivery system designed to prevent the introduction of biological or chemical contaminants.
Subp. 3. Commissioner.
"Commissioner" means the commissioner of health or his or her authorized representative.
Subp. 4. Corrosion-resistant.
"Corrosion-resistant" means capable of maintaining original surface characteristics under the prolonged influence of the use environment, including the expected water contact and normal use of cleaning compounds and sanitizing solutions.
Subp. 5. Easily cleanable.
"Easily cleanable" means readily accessible, and of such material and finish and so fabricated that cleaning can be accomplished by hand scrubbing.
Subp. 6. Sanitize.
"Sanitize" means the bactericidal treatment of the interior surfaces of the tank by a process which has proven effective and does not leave a toxic residue.
Subp. 7. Smooth.
"Smooth" means a surface free of pits and inclusions.
Subp. 8. Toxic.
"Toxic" means having an adverse physiological effect on humans.
Subp. 9. Water hauler or hauler.
"Water hauler" or "hauler" means a person engaged in bulk vehicular transportation of water to other than the hauler's household, which is intended for use or used for drinking or domestic purposes.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12; 144.383
- History: 17 SR 1279
Minn. R. 4720.4200 Water Hauler
A. A water hauler shall be free of any infectious or communicable disease.
B. The water hauler shall consult with regional district personnel of the Minnesota Department of Health before implementing any questionable procedures.
C. Dipping into the filled tank is prohibited.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12; 144.383
Minn. R. 4720.4300 Tank Requirements
A. The tank shall be constructed of stainless steel or be lined with glass or other acceptable, corrosion resistant and nontoxic material, with rounded corners and a smooth surface so that the interior may be thoroughly cleaned and sanitized.
B. The system shall be completely closed except for vents which are properly constructed and screened.
C. Caps on inlets and outlets shall be hinged or chained to provide a permanent attachment.
D. The inlets and outlets shall be easy to clean and so located and protected as to minimize the hazard of contamination.
E. Filters shall not be used.
F. The tank shall be filled only from the top.
G. The outlet hose from the tank shall be maintained in a sanitary condition at all times, shall be flushed clean prior to every delivery, and shall not impart any taste or odor to the water.
H. The tank shall be accessible internally, for proper cleaning, disinfection, and inspection.
I. The tank shall never have been used to haul any materials which might have a deleterious effect on health or on the quality of the water being transported. If the tank has been used for transporting any materials other than water, the hauler shall obtain the approval of the commissioner before using the tank to haul water for drinking or domestic use.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12; 144.383
Minn. R. 4720.4400 Cleaning and Disinfection
A. The tank and all fittings shall be cleaned and sanitized according to the following procedures before they can be used to haul water, and thereafter once per week: the tank shall be cleaned by scrubbing manually with brushes and noncorrosive detergents, or by automation using a spray ball within the tank which provides cleaning solution with sufficient velocity to remove all soil from the tank interior; the tank and fittings shall then be rinsed.
B. The tank and fittings shall be sanitized by any of the following methods:
C. The tank may be cleaned and sanitized in a single step by using a commercial detergent sanitizer according to the manufacturer's directions.
D. After sanitizing, the tank shall be drained, and the tank and fittings shall be rinsed with water from an approved source.
E. The sanitized tank shall be filled with water from an approved source.
F. The hauler shall add sufficient chlorine to assure that there is one part per million free chlorine residual when the last remaining quantity of water is delivered to a user. The hauler shall test the chlorine residual in each tankful of water using the DPD method.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12; 144.383
Minn. R. 4720.4500 Testing
Once each month the hauler shall collect a sample of water from each tank and shall submit the water sample to the state Department of Health laboratory for a bacteriological analysis. Sample collecting bottles for this purpose may be obtained from any Minnesota Department of Health regional district office or by writing to the Minnesota Department of Health, Section of Analytical Services, 717 Delaware Street SE, Minneapolis, Minnesota 55440.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12; 144.383
Minn. R. 4720.4600 Records
The hauler shall retain a written log for each tank and shall record therein:
A. the date when the tank is sanitized;
B. the date on which the tank is filled and the name of the approved source from which the water is obtained;
C. the chlorine residual and date on which it is measured;
D. date on which water samples are sent for analysis; and
E. customer's name, address, date, and quantity delivered.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12; 144.383
Minn. R. 4720.5000 [Repealed, 17 SR 2715]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2715]
Minn. R. 4720.5100 Definitions
Subpart 1. Scope.
The terms used in parts 4720.5100 to 4720.5590 have the meanings given them in Minnesota Statutes, section 103I.005 and in this part.
Subp. 2. Angle of ambient groundwater flow.
"Angle of ambient groundwater flow" means the direction of groundwater flow through an aquifer undisturbed by pumping or human-caused activities. The angle of ambient groundwater flow is expressed in degrees, ranging from 0 to 360 degrees, and is measured in a clockwise direction from geographical north, not magnetic north.
Subp. 3. Aquifer.
"Aquifer" has the meaning given in part 4725.0100, subpart 21.
Subp. 4. Aquifer test plan.
"Aquifer test plan" means the document containing the plan by which the aquifer transmissivity value will be calculated for a public water supply well, as required under part 4720.5540.
Subp. 5. Casing.
"Casing" has the meaning given in part 4725.0100, subpart 22.
Subp. 6. Commissioner.
"Commissioner" means the commissioner of health.
Subp. 7. Community water supply.
"Community water supply" has the meaning given to "community water system" in Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, section 141.2 (1992 and as subsequently amended).
Subp. 8. Confined aquifer.
"Confined aquifer" has the meaning given in part 7045.0020, subpart 10.
Subp. 9. Confining layer.
"Confining layer" has the meaning given in part 4725.0100, subpart 24a.
Subp. 10. Contamination.
"Contamination" has the meaning given in part 4725.0100, subpart 34.
Subp. 11. Contingency strategy.
"Contingency strategy" means the part of a wellhead protection plan that describes an organized, planned, and coordinated course of action that identifies the location and provision of an alternate drinking water supply if the public water supply is disrupted by mechanical failure or contamination.
Subp. 12. Department.
"Department" means the Minnesota Department of Health.
Subp. 13. Drinking water supply management area.
"Drinking water supply management area" means the surface and subsurface area surrounding a public water supply well, including the wellhead protection area, that must be managed by the entity identified in a wellhead protection plan. The boundaries of the drinking water supply management area are:
A. center lines of highways, streets, roads, or railroad rights-of-way;
B. section, half-section, quarter-section, quarter-quarter-section, or other fractional section lines of the United States public land survey;
C. property or fence lines;
D. the center of public drainage systems;
E. public utility service lines; or
F. political boundaries.
Subp. 14. Drinking water supply management area vulnerability.
"Drinking water supply management area vulnerability" means an assessment of the likelihood for a potential contaminant source within the drinking water supply management area to contaminate a public water supply well based on:
A. the aquifer's inherent geologic sensitivity; and
B. the chemical and isotopic composition of the groundwater.
Subp. 15. Flow boundaries.
"Flow boundaries" means hydrologic or geologic boundaries, including:
A. the physical limits of an aquifer;
B. lakes, rivers, streams, drainage ditches, or other surface hydrologic features;
C. areas of contrasting geologic materials; or
D. the pumping influence of other wells.
Subp. 16. Geographic reference point.
"Geographic reference point" means a location on the earth's surface that is referenced in:
A. latitude and longitude;
B. a universal transverse mercator projection;
C. the public land survey system; or
D. the state plane coordinate system.
Subp. 17. Groundwater.
"Groundwater" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 115.01, subdivision 6.
Subp. 18. Hydraulic gradient.
"Hydraulic gradient" means the slope of the water table or potentiometric surface.
Subp. 19. Inner wellhead management zone.
"Inner wellhead management zone" means the land within a 200-foot radius of a public water supply well.
Subp. 20. Isolation distance.
"Isolation distance" means the distance from a contamination source as described in parts 4725.4450 and 4725.5850.
Subp. 21. Local unit of government.
"Local unit of government" has the meaning given in part 8405.0110, subpart 5.
Subp. 22. Municipal public water supply well.
"Municipal public water supply well" means a public water supply well owned, managed, or operated by a municipality as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 103B.305, subdivision 6.
Subp. 23. Noncommunity water supply.
"Noncommunity water supply" has the meaning given to "noncommunity water system" in Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, section 141.2 (1992 and as subsequently amended).
Subp. 24. Nontransient noncommunity water supply.
"Nontransient noncommunity water supply" has the meaning given to "nontransient noncommunity water system" in Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, section 141.2 (1992 and as subsequently amended).
Subp. 25. Official controls.
"Official controls" has the meaning given in part 8405.0110, subpart 7.
Subp. 26. Potential contaminant source.
"Potential contaminant source" means any human-related activity that presents a risk to groundwater quality.
Subp. 27. Public water supplier or supplier.
"Public water supplier" or "supplier" has the meaning given to "supplier of water" in Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, section 141.2 (1992 and as subsequently amended).
Subp. 28. Public water supply or supply.
"Public water supply" or "supply" has the meaning given to "public water system" in Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, section 141.2 (1992 and as subsequently amended).
Subp. 29. Public water supply well.
"Public water supply well" means a well as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 103I.005, subdivision 21, that serves a public water supply and is not a dewatering well or a monitoring well serving a public water supply.
Subp. 30. Pumping discharge rate.
"Pumping discharge rate" means the volume of water discharged by a well per unit of time.
Subp. 31. Pumping test.
"Pumping test" means a test, as described in parts 4720.5520 and 4720.5530, that is used to determine the aquifer transmissivity.
Subp. 32. Related land resources.
"Related land resources" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 103B.305, subdivision 8.
Subp. 33. Remaining portion of the wellhead protection plan.
"Remaining portion of the wellhead protection plan" means that portion of the wellhead protection plan that remains to be completed after the public water supplier has fulfilled the requirements of parts 4720.5320 and 4720.5330.
Subp. 34. Specific capacity test.
"Specific capacity test" means the productivity of a well obtained by dividing the gallons of water pumped per unit time by the number of feet the water level in the well is lowered due to its pumping.
Subp. 35. State identifier.
"State identifier" means the unique number assigned by the department to a well or the number assigned by a state agency responsible for a potential source of contamination.
Subp. 36. Time of travel.
"Time of travel" means the amount of time over which groundwater will move through a portion of an aquifer and the overlying geologic materials to recharge a well in use.
Subp. 37. Transient noncommunity water supply.
"Transient noncommunity water supply" means a public water supply that is not a community water supply or a nontransient noncommunity water supply.
Subp. 38. Transmissivity.
"Transmissivity" means the product of the average hydraulic conductivity and the saturated thickness of the aquifer. Hydraulic conductivity means the volume of water that will move through a porous medium in unit time under a unit hydraulic gradient through a unit area measured at right angles to groundwater flow.
Subp. 39. Unconfined aquifer.
"Unconfined aquifer" has the meaning given in part 6115.0630, subpart 17.
Subp. 40. Watershed district.
"Watershed district" means a district established under Minnesota Statutes, chapter 103D.
Subp. 41. Watershed management organization.
"Watershed management organization" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 103B.205, subdivision 13.
Subp. 42. Well vulnerability.
"Well vulnerability" means an assessment of the likelihood of contamination entering a public water supply well based on the criteria specified in part 4720.5550, subpart 2.
Subp. 43. Wellhead protection.
"Wellhead protection" means a method of preventing well contamination by effectively managing potential contaminant sources in all or a portion of the well's recharge area.
Subp. 44. Wellhead protection measure.
"Wellhead protection measure" means a method adopted and implemented by a public water supplier to prevent contamination of a public water supply, and approved by the department under parts 4720.5110 to 4720.5590.
Subp. 45. Wellhead protection plan or plan.
"Wellhead protection plan" or "plan" means a document that provides for the protection of a public water supply, is submitted to the department, is implemented by the public water supplier, and complies with:
A. the wellhead protection elements specified in the 1986 amendments to the federal Safe Drinking Water Act, United States Code, title 42, chapter 6A, subchapter XII, part C, section 300h-7 (1986 and as subsequently amended); and
B. parts 4720.5200 to 4720.5290.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 22 SR 668
Minn. R. 4720.5110 Applicability
Subpart 1. Inner wellhead management zone.
A public water supplier must:
A. maintain the isolation distances for new contaminant sources specified in parts 4725.4450 and 4725.5850 for potential contamination sources located around the public water supply well following the schedule specified in part 4720.5120;
B. monitor potential contaminant sources that were in existence, recorded, or authorized before May 10, 1993, and that are not in compliance with parts 4725.4450 and 4725.5850; and
C. implement wellhead protection measures for potential contaminant sources within the inner wellhead management zone.
Subp. 2. Wellhead protection area.
For a community public water supply well and a nontransient noncommunity public water supply well, the public water supplier must:
A. delineate the wellhead protection area and the drinking water supply management area;
B. prepare a wellhead protection plan for the drinking water supply management area; and
C. implement a wellhead protection plan for the drinking water supply management area.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 22 SR 668
Minn. R. 4720.5120 Schedule; Inner Wellhead Management Zone
Wellhead protection measures for the inner wellhead management zone of a public water supply well must be initiated:
A. at the time a new public water supply well is constructed;
B. before June 1, 1999, for an existing community water supply well;
C. before June 1, 1999, for an existing nontransient noncommunity water supply well serving a child care center regulated under chapter 9503 or a school;
D. before June 1, 2000, for any other existing nontransient noncommunity water supply well;
E. before June 1, 2001, for an existing transient noncommunity water supply well serving a facility licensed by the department;
F. before June 1, 2002, for an existing transient noncommunity water supply well serving a facility licensed by the department that is covered by a community health service delegation agreement entered under Minnesota Statutes, section 145A.07; and
G. before June 1, 2003, for any other existing transient noncommunity water supply well.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 22 SR 668
Minn. R. 4720.5130 Wellhead Protection Plan; Preliminary Requirements; Schedule
Subpart 1. New municipal public water supply well.
In addition to the requirements of part 4720.0010, a well construction plan for a new municipal public water supply well must have:
A. a preliminary delineation of a wellhead protection area based on available information; and
B. an assessment of the impacts that existing land use and existing water use in the preliminary wellhead protection area, as described in subpart 2, may have on the movement of contaminants resulting from human activity to the aquifer serving the proposed municipal public water supply well.
Subp. 2. Criteria; preliminary wellhead protection area delineation.
A preliminary wellhead protection area must be delineated using the criteria in this subpart.
A. The criteria described in part 4720.5510, subparts 2 and 4, must be identified.
B. For a well to be constructed in an unconfined aquifer, the preliminary wellhead protection area must be extended one-half mile in an upgradient direction from the proposed well site, if the delineation method used does not incorporate the criteria specified in part 4720.5510, subpart 5.
Subp. 3. Schedule.
An initial wellhead protection plan must be completed and submitted by the public water supplier for all the wells in a public water supply system within two years after:
A. an additional well is connected to a municipal public water supply system; or
B. the public water supplier receives notification from the department as specified in part 4720.5550 for:
Subp. 4. Additional time.
In addition to the two years allowed in subpart 3, the public water supplier has an additional six months to submit the plan:
A. for each two existing or new wells, up to six wells;
B. if the public water supply is not owned by a federal, state, or local unit of government;
C. if funds are not available to support plan development or implementation;
D. if the wellhead protection area lies in more than two governmental jurisdictions; or
E. if pumping of a well that is not a part of the water supply system influences the boundaries of the wellhead protection area being delineated.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 22 SR 668
Minn. R. 4720.5200 Data Elements; Assessment
Subpart 1. Required data elements.
The data elements identified in the scoping decision notice under parts 4720.5310, subpart 2, and 4720.5340, subpart 2, must be assessed by the public water supplier.
Subp. 2. Assessment of data elements.
A wellhead protection plan must assess the present and future implications of the data elements required in subpart 1 on:
A. the use of the well;
B. the wellhead protection area delineation criteria specified in part 4720.5510;
C. the quality and quantity of water supplying the public water supply well; and
D. the land and groundwater uses in the drinking water supply management area.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 22 SR 668
Minn. R. 4720.5205 Wellhead Protection Area and Drinking Water Supply Management Area Delineation
Subpart 1. Boundaries; wellhead protection area.
A wellhead protection plan must have a map showing the boundaries of the wellhead protection area that were determined using the criteria in part 4720.5510.
Subp. 2. Documentation.
A wellhead protection plan must document the delineation of the wellhead protection area. The documentation must:
A. describe the hydrogeologic setting used to characterize the aquifer;
B. identify the five delineation criteria described in part 4720.5510, subparts 2 to 6;
C. describe the delineation method used, including assumptions, and the supporting documentation for the assumptions;
D. describe all parameters, other than the delineation criteria described in part 4720.5510, used for the delineation;
E. describe the delineation results, including:
F. specify the data elements used, including data sources; and
G. contain a copy of the calculations performed or, when a computer model is used, the electronic data input and solution file.
Subp. 3. Boundaries; drinking water supply management area.
A wellhead protection plan must have a map showing the boundaries of the drinking water supply management area. The boundary of the drinking water supply management area must follow the wellhead protection area as closely as possible.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 22 SR 668
Minn. R. 4720.5210 Vulnerability Assessment
Subpart 1. Well vulnerability.
A wellhead protection plan must describe the results of the well vulnerability assessment conducted according to part 4720.5550.
Subp. 2. Drinking water supply management area vulnerability.
A wellhead protection plan must have an assessment of the drinking water supply management area vulnerability.
Subp. 3. Documentation; drinking water supply management area vulnerability assessment.
A wellhead protection plan must document the vulnerability assessment of the drinking water supply management area. The documentation must:
A. identify the method used to assess vulnerability;
B. describe the geologic conditions throughout the drinking water supply management area from the land surface to the aquifer used by the public water supply well;
C. contain copies of the data elements used, including data sources; and
D. contain maps, diagrams, reports, studies, and tables that were prepared to support the drinking water supply management area vulnerability assessment.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 22 SR 668
Minn. R. 4720.5220 Impact of Changes on Public Water Supply Well
Subpart 1. Changes identified.
A wellhead protection plan must identify and describe expected changes that may occur during the next ten years to:
A. the physical environment;
B. land use;
C. surface water; and
D. groundwater.
Subp. 2. Impact of changes.
A wellhead protection plan must list, describe, and assess the possible impact on the aquifer serving the public water supply well resulting from:
A. the expected changes identified in subpart 1;
B. the influence of existing water and land government programs and regulations; and
C. the administrative, technical, and financial considerations of the public water supplier and the property owners within the drinking water supply management area.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 22 SR 668
Minn. R. 4720.5230 Issues, Problems, and Opportunities
Subpart 1. Requirement.
A wellhead protection plan must identify water use and land use issues, problems, and opportunities related to:
A. the aquifer serving the public water supply well;
B. the well water; and
C. the drinking water supply management area.
Subp. 2. Identification.
To identify water use and land use issues, problems, and opportunities, the public water supplier must assess:
A. those problems and opportunities disclosed at public meetings and in written comment;
B. the data elements identified by the department in parts 4720.5310, subpart 2, and 4720.5340, subpart 2; and
C. the status and adequacy of official controls, plans, and other local, state, and federal programs on water use and land use.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 22 SR 668
Minn. R. 4720.5240 Wellhead Protection Goals
A wellhead protection plan must state goals for present and future water use and land use to provide a framework for determining plan objectives and related actions.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 22 SR 668
Minn. R. 4720.5250 Objectives and Plan of Action
Subpart 1. Objectives.
A wellhead protection plan must have measurable objectives for the well and drinking water supply management area.
Subp. 2. Plan of action.
A wellhead protection plan must state a plan of action. A plan of action must:
A. address the problems and opportunities identified in the wellhead protection plan;
B. identify and prioritize the wellhead protection measures that will be used;
C. identify proposed changes in well construction, maintenance, and use; and
D. identify a time frame for the implementation of the action identified in the plan.
Subp. 3. Establishing priorities.
A public water supplier must establish priorities in the plan of action that:
A. address:
B. reflect:
Subp. 4. Implementation responsibilities.
A plan of action must:
A. describe those actions that will be taken by the public water supplier alone;
B. describe those actions that will require the cooperation of a local unit of government or state and federal agencies; and
C. state whether the public water supplier has received commitments for the cooperation described in item B.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 22 SR 668
Minn. R. 4720.5270 Evaluation Program
Subpart 1. Program required.
A wellhead protection plan must identify a strategy for evaluating the progress of the plan of action and the impact of a contaminant release on the aquifer supplying the public water supply well.
Subp. 2. Strategy requirements.
The evaluation strategy must:
A. be conducted throughout the drinking water supply management area;
B. be based on the health risk the specific potential contaminant source presents to the public water supply well; and
C. specify the evaluation approach used for specific potential contaminant sources.
Subp. 3. Evaluation approaches.
Evaluation approaches are:
A. sampling the quality of the groundwater throughout the drinking water supply management area;
B. documenting inventory control of potential contaminants;
C. documenting the implementation of wellhead protection measures; and
D. using monitoring data already required by existing laws and rules in effect at the time of plan adoption.
Subp. 4. Evaluation frequency.
An evaluation must be conducted:
A. every 2.5 years or less; and
B. when a wellhead protection plan is amended as required in part 4720.5570, subpart 1.
Subp. 5. Evaluation submittal.
An evaluation conducted in accordance with subpart 4, item B, must be submitted to the department at the first scoping meeting held to amend an existing plan.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 22 SR 668
Minn. R. 4720.5280 Alternate Water Supply; Contingency Strategy
Subpart 1. Contingency strategy required.
A wellhead protection plan must have a contingency strategy that addresses disruptions of the water supply caused by contamination or mechanical failures of the public water supply system.
Subp. 2. Requirements.
The contingency strategy must:
A. identify the water supply replacement alternatives, including the location of the replacement supply that will be available during a disruption;
B. be based on:
C. be based on water use and demand;
D. prioritize water uses and demands into low, medium, and high categories;
E. have:
F. have a procedure to:
G. identify ways to reduce the vulnerability of the water supply system to disruption and to improve the community's response capabilities.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 22 SR 668
Minn. R. 4720.5290 Data Elements; Inclusion
A wellhead protection plan must have a copy of the data elements identified in the scoping decision notices described in parts 4720.5310, subpart 2, and 4720.5340, subpart 2.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 22 SR 668
Minn. R. 4720.5300 Wellhead Protection Plan Development; Procedures
Subpart 1. Applicability.
The procedures specified in parts 4720.5300 to 4720.5360 must be used by a public water supplier to develop and review a wellhead protection plan.
Subp. 2. Plan manager.
A public water supplier must identify a person to manage and coordinate plan development and implementation.
Subp. 3. Plan development; notice.
Before the development of a wellhead protection plan begins, a public water supplier must send notice of its decision to develop a plan to:
A. the governing bodies of counties, townships, municipalities, watershed districts, and watershed management organizations that may have jurisdiction wholly or partly within the estimated drinking water supply management area;
B. the regional development commission, if any; and
C. the department.
Subp. 4. Notice content.
The notice must contain:
A. the name, address, and telephone number of the wellhead protection plan manager;
B. the state identifier of each well to be addressed in the wellhead protection plan;
C. the date the wellhead protection plan must be completed;
D. a workplan for plan development;
E. a list of the data elements identified by the department in the scoping decision notice that the public water supplier does not have but needs to:
F. a request that the data elements identified in item E be shared, if available; and
G. a request for:
Subp. 5. Local units of government; meetings.
During the time the plan is being developed, a public water supplier must conduct at least one meeting with local units of government that may have jurisdiction in water and related land resources management within the drinking water supply management area.
Subp. 6. Public participation.
A public water supplier developing a wellhead protection plan must ensure that there is a process for public participation during plan development and implementation.
Subp. 7. Record keeping.
A public water supplier must maintain a record of each public meeting held.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 22 SR 668
Minn. R. 4720.5310 First Scoping Meeting Procedures
Subpart 1. Scoping meeting; delineation and vulnerability assessments.
A public water supplier and the department shall meet to discuss the data elements specified in part 4720.5400 that the department determines must be contained in the wellhead protection plan and be used to:
A. delineate the wellhead protection area and the drinking water supply management area; and
B. assess the vulnerability of the well and the drinking water supply management area.
Subp. 2. Scoping decision; notice.
No later than 30 days after the scoping meeting specified in subpart 1, the department shall notify the public water supplier in writing of the data elements specified in part 4720.5400 that must be:
A. used to perform the delineation and vulnerability assessments;
B. contained in the wellhead protection plan; and
C. submitted to the department.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 22 SR 668
Minn. R. 4720.5320 Aquifer Test Plan; Procedures
Subpart 1. Submittal.
An aquifer test plan as specified in part 4720.5540 must be submitted to the department by a public water supplier for department approval:
A. before the selection of the aquifer test method; and
B. before the delineation of the wellhead protection area.
Subp. 2. Review; notice.
No later than 30 days after receipt of an aquifer test plan, the department shall:
A. approve or disapprove the aquifer test plan based on the criteria specified in part 4720.5555; and
B. provide the public water supplier notice of approval or disapproval of the aquifer test plan.
Subp. 3. Disapproval notice.
If an aquifer test plan is disapproved, the department shall, as part of the notice of disapproval, provide the public water supplier with:
A. a written statement that identifies those portions of the disapproved aquifer test plan that require revision; and
B. the reasons for disapproval.
Subp. 4. Resubmittal.
A disapproved aquifer test plan must be revised by the public water supplier and resubmitted to the department within 45 days after receiving notice of disapproval.
Subp. 5. Revised aquifer test plan; review.
On receipt of a revised aquifer test plan, the department shall follow the same review process as for an original submittal.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 22 SR 668
Minn. R. 4720.5330 Delineation and Vulnerability Assessment Review; Procedures
Subpart 1. Delineation and vulnerability assessment; submittal.
Before the remaining portion of the wellhead protection plan is prepared, a public water supplier must submit to the department:
A. the maps and documentation required in part 4720.5205;
B. the vulnerability assessment required in part 4720.5210; and
C. the data elements required under part 4720.5310, subpart 2.
Subp. 2. Review; notice.
No later than 60 days after the filing of the information specified in subpart 1, the department shall:
A. approve or disapprove, based on the criteria in part 4720.5555, the following:
B. provide the public water supplier notice of approval or disapproval of the delineation.
Subp. 3. Disapproval notice.
If a wellhead protection area delineation, a drinking water supply management area boundary, or a vulnerability assessment is disapproved, the department shall, as part of its notice of disapproval, provide the public water supplier with:
A. a written statement that identifies those portions of the disapproved document that require revision; and
B. reasons for disapproval.
Subp. 4. Resubmittal.
A public water supplier must revise a disapproved wellhead protection area delineation, drinking water supply management area boundary, or vulnerability assessment and submit the revision to the department within 45 days after receiving notice of disapproval.
Subp. 5. Revised information; review.
On receipt of a revised wellhead protection area delineation, drinking water supply management area boundary, or vulnerability assessment, the department shall follow the same review process as for an original submittal.
Subp. 6. Submittal to local units of government.
Within 30 days of department approval, the public water supplier must submit a copy of the wellhead protection area delineation, the drinking water supply management area boundary, and the vulnerability assessments approved by the department to:
A. local units of government wholly or partly within the drinking water supply management area;
B. the regional development commission, if any; and
C. watershed districts and watershed management organizations wholly or partly within the drinking water supply management area.
Subp. 7. Public information meeting.
Within 60 days of the receipt of the notice of approval from the department, a public water supplier must hold one public information meeting for the general public about the approved:
A. wellhead protection area delineation;
B. drinking water supply management area boundary; and
C. vulnerability assessments.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 22 SR 668
Minn. R. 4720.5340 Second Scoping Meeting Procedures
Subpart 1. Scoping meeting; remaining portion of wellhead protection plan.
A public water supplier and the department shall meet to discuss the data elements specified in part 4720.5400 that the department determines must be contained in the wellhead protection plan and used to prepare the remaining portion of the wellhead protection plan.
Subp. 2. Scoping decision; notice.
No later than 30 days after the scoping meeting specified in subpart 1, the department shall notify the public water supplier in writing of the data elements specified in part 4720.5400 that must be:
A. used to prepare the remaining portion of the wellhead protection plan;
B. contained in the wellhead protection plan; and
C. submitted to the department.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 22 SR 668
Minn. R. 4720.5350 Local Review; Public Hearing
Subpart 1. Submittal to local units of government.
The public water supplier must submit a copy of the remaining portion of the wellhead protection plan to:
A. local units of government wholly or partly within the wellhead protection area;
B. the regional development commission, if any; and
C. watershed districts and watershed management organizations wholly or partly within the wellhead protection area.
Subp. 2. Local review.
A public water supplier must allow 60 days for the governmental units identified in subpart 1 to comment in writing on the remaining portion of the wellhead protection plan.
Subp. 3. Comments; consideration.
A public water supplier must consider comments of a local unit of government, regional development commission, watershed district, or water management organization, if any, that:
A. identify and describe any conflict the commenting party has with the plan, when the conflict is not already identified in the remaining portion of the wellhead protection plan; and
B. state the commenting party's position on a conflict identified by the public water supplier for consideration by the department during the department's review of the plan.
Subp. 4. Public hearing.
A public water supplier must conduct a public hearing on the wellhead protection plan after the 60-day period for local review and comment is completed and before submitting the plan to the department.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 22 SR 668
Minn. R. 4720.5360 Departmental Review; Remaining Portion of Plan
Subpart 1. Submittal to department.
After conducting a public hearing, a public water supplier must submit to the department six copies of:
A. the remaining portion of the wellhead protection plan, including the data elements to be submitted to the department as specified in part 4720.5340, subpart 2;
B. written comments received on the entire plan; and
C. a summary of changes made to the entire plan as a result of the local review process.
Subp. 2. Department consultation.
On receipt of the items specified in subpart 1, the department shall transmit a copy of the items, along with a map of the wellhead protection area, a map of the drinking water supply management area, and the vulnerability assessment of the drinking water supply management area to:
A. the Minnesota Department of Agriculture;
B. the Minnesota Department of Natural Resources;
C. the Minnesota Pollution Control Agency;
D. the Board of Water and Soil Resources; and
E. any other state or federal agency the department determines could assist the department with the review of the plan.
Subp. 3. Comment review.
The department shall:
A. evaluate a wellhead protection plan based on written comments from an entity specified in subpart 2 received no later than 60 days after the plan is transmitted to the entity; and
B. consider comments from an entity specified in subpart 2 that identifies any part of the remaining portion of a wellhead protection plan that is:
Subp. 4. Review; notice; resubmittal.
No later than 90 days after a public water supplier files the remaining portion of a wellhead protection plan, the department shall approve or disapprove the remaining portion of the wellhead protection plan based on the criteria specified in part 4720.5555, and shall provide the public water supplier notice of approval or disapproval of the wellhead protection plan.
A. If the remaining portion of a wellhead protection plan is disapproved, the department shall, as part of its notice of disapproval, provide the public water supplier with:
B. A public water supplier must revise a disapproved wellhead protection plan and submit the revision to the department within 120 days after receiving notice of disapproval.
C. On receipt of a revised plan, the department shall follow the same review process as for an originally submitted wellhead protection plan.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 22 SR 668
Minn. R. 4720.5400 Data Elements
Subpart 1. Selection.
The department shall select data elements to be used in a wellhead protection plan in accordance with parts 4720.5310 and 4720.5340 based on the hydrogeological setting and vulnerability of the well and the drinking water supply management area known at both the time the scoping meeting is held and the scoping decision notice is mailed.
Subp. 2. Physical environment.
The department shall select data elements about the physical environment from the areas described in items A to D.
A. Information about precipitation must include:
B. Information about the geology of the area must include:
C. Information about the soil conditions must include:
D. Information about water resources must include:
Subp. 3. Land use.
The department shall select data elements about land use from the areas described in items A and B.
A. Information about land use must include:
B. Information about public utility services must include an existing:
Subp. 4. Water quantity.
The department shall select data elements about water quantity from the areas described in items A and B.
A. Information about surface water quantity must include an existing:
B. Information about groundwater quantity must include an existing:
Subp. 5. Water quality.
The department shall select data elements about water quality from the areas described in items A and B.
A. Information about surface water quality must include an existing:
B. Information about groundwater quality must include an existing:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 22 SR 668
Minn. R. 4720.5500 Data Reporting Requirements
Subpart 1. Data requirements.
Data collected for a wellhead protection plan must:
A. have one geographic reference point for point information;
B. in the case of parcels, be identified with a parcel identification number assigned by the county auditor pursuant to Minnesota Statutes, section 272.193;
C. be identified with a state identifier, if available; and
D. be recorded and reported to the department on:
Subp. 2. Maps.
When information is presented in map form and the map is newly created for plan purposes, the map:
A. must be presented at a one to 24,000 scale or greater detail;
B. must be presented in an electronic format or on a stable base material;
C. must have four geographic reference points with x and y coordinates, located at the extremes of the map;
D. must be presented in a consistent map scale; and
E. may be combined on multiple maps or map overlays.
Subp. 3. Laboratory methods.
The laboratory methods used to analyze a well water sample must be at least as precise as those used by the department in part 4720.0350.
Subp. 4. Geographic reference point documentation.
The coordinate system used to define a geographic reference point must be documented, including a description of:
A. the units of measurement used;
B. the applicable zone;
C. the applicable reference datum; and
D. the map projection method used.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 22 SR 668
Minn. R. 4720.5510 Criteria for Wellhead Protection Area Delineation
Subpart 1. Criteria.
A method selected to delineate a wellhead protection area must incorporate the criteria specified in subparts 2 to 6.
Subp. 2. Time of travel.
The time of travel must be at least ten years.
Subp. 3. Flow boundaries.
The location and influence of flow boundaries must be identified using existing information.
Subp. 4. Daily volume.
The daily volume of water pumped must be calculated for each well in the public water supply system.
A. The daily volume calculation must be:
B. The daily volume of water pumped must be expressed in gallons per day.
Subp. 5. Groundwater flow field.
The groundwater flow field must be identified for the aquifer used by the public water supply well.
A. The ambient hydraulic gradient must be measured in a location:
B. Except as provided in item C, when a wellhead protection area is delineated for a public water supply well, an analytical method:
C. When the ambient groundwater flow field cannot be determined due to transient hydraulic conditions, seasonal differences in the hydraulic gradient and the angle of groundwater flow must be accounted for when delineating the wellhead protection area. The ambient groundwater flow field is the two dimensional representation of equipotentials and flowlines created by groundwater movement through an aquifer undisturbed by pumping or other human-caused activities.
D. The hydraulic gradient must be expressed as the ratio of vertical feet divided by the distance in horizontal feet.
Subp. 6. Aquifer transmissivity.
The aquifer transmissivity must be calculated.
A. The aquifer transmissivity must be expressed in feet squared per day.
B. The aquifer transmissivity must be based on the first of the following methods that is applicable to the public water supply system:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 22 SR 668
Minn. R. 4720.5520 Pumping Test Standards for Larger Sized Water Supply Systems
Subpart 1. Applicability.
A pumping test must be conducted as specified in this part if:
A. the public water supply system consists of two or more wells;
B. a well is accessible for measuring the water level in the aquifer used by the public water supply system;
C. the pump or the water distribution system can maintain a ten percent or less variation in the discharge rate;
D. the water storage facility of the public water supply system can hold enough water to meet the water needs for the length of the pumping test specified in subpart 5; or
E. the water storage facility of the public water supply system can hold the discharge water or the water disposal method is not a public safety hazard.
Subp. 2. Pumping capacity.
When a pumping test is conducted, the public water supply well must be pumped at its maximum obtainable capacity.
Subp. 3. Water level measurement.
The water level measurements must be recorded in units of one-hundredths of a foot.
Subp. 4. Total volume of water measurement.
The total volume of water pumped during the pumping phase of the test must be recorded as the total gallons pumped.
Subp. 5. Pumping test length.
The length of the pumping test for a public water supply well must be no less than:
A. 24-continuous hours pumping, followed by a 24-continuous hour recovery period, in a confined aquifer; or
B. 72-continuous hours pumping, followed by a 72-continuous hour recovery period, in an unconfined aquifer.
Subp. 6. Recording; start and finish.
The date and time of the start and the finish of the pumping test must be recorded to the second.
Subp. 7. Groundwater level monitoring.
For a public water supply well completed in geological materials specified in part 4720.5550, subpart 2, item D, subitem (2), at least one well or environmental bore hole must be used to monitor groundwater levels before, during, and after the pumping test.
A. The well or environmental bore hole used to monitor groundwater levels must be located where it is influenced by the pumping well.
B. The public water supplier is responsible for the construction of one well or environmental bore hole to monitor groundwater levels if an existing well or environmental bore hole cannot be used for the test requirements specified in this subpart.
Subp. 8. Frequency of readings; confined aquifer.
During the pumping phase and recovery phase of the test for a confined aquifer, water levels in the pumping well and any well or environmental bore hole used to monitor groundwater levels must be measured with sufficient frequency to characterize the drawdown versus time response in each of the following time intervals:
A. prepumping condition;
B. 0 to 5 minutes;
C. 5 to 10 minutes;
D. 10 to 20 minutes;
E. 20 to 60 minutes;
F. 60 to 120 minutes;
G. 120 to 180 minutes;
H. 180 to 360 minutes;
I. 360 to 720 minutes; and
J. 720 to 1,440 minutes.
Subp. 9. Frequency of readings; unconfined aquifer.
During the pumping phase and recovery phase of the test for an unconfined aquifer, water levels in the pumping well and any well or environmental bore hole used to monitor groundwater levels must be measured with sufficient frequency to characterize the drawdown versus time response in each of the following time intervals:
A. prepumping condition;
B. 0 to 5 minutes;
C. 5 to 10 minutes;
D. 10 to 20 minutes;
E. 20 to 60 minutes;
F. 60 to 120 minutes;
G. 120 to 180 minutes;
H. 180 to 360 minutes;
I. 360 to 720 minutes;
J. 720 to 1,440 minutes;
K. 1,440 to 2,880 minutes; and
L. 2,880 to 4,320 minutes.
Subp. 10. Readings; discontinuation.
The readings during the recovery phase of the test may be discontinued when the water levels in the pumping well and the well or environmental bore hole used to monitor groundwater level reach 95 percent recovery of the prepumping condition.
Subp. 11. Recording; pumping rate.
The pumping rate for a public water supply well must be recorded during the pumping phase of the test:
A. every five minutes during the first hour of the pumping phase of the test;
B. at hours 2, 3, 6, and 12 for a confined aquifer; and
C. at hours 2, 3, 6, 12, 24, and daily following the 24-hour reading for an unconfined aquifer.
Subp. 12. Final recording.
The final recording of the pumping rate for a public water supply well must be recorded five minutes before shutting off the pump.
Subp. 13. Pumping rate variation.
When the pumping rate of a public water supply well varies by ten percent or greater from the previous reading, except for the final recording specified in subpart 12, new readings must be recorded at five-minute intervals for either the next hour or until a variation of less than ten percent is observed, whichever is the greater length of time.
Subp. 14. Failure to record pumping rate.
Failure to record the pumping rate for a public water supply well at the times specified in subparts 11 and 12 requires the pump test to be redone.
Subp. 15. Pumping rate measurement.
The pumping rate must be expressed in gallons per minute.
Subp. 16. Recording and submittal requirements.
Pumping test data must be recorded and submitted to the department on forms or electronic data file templates provided by the department.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 22 SR 668
Minn. R. 4720.5530 Pumping Test Standards for Smaller Sized Water Supply Systems
Subpart 1. Applicability.
A pumping test must be conducted as specified in this part for public water supply systems not included under part 4720.5520, subpart 1.
Subp. 2. Pumping capacity.
When a pumping test is conducted, the public water supply well must be pumped at its maximum obtainable capacity.
Subp. 3. Pumping discharge rate.
The pumping discharge rate must be held to within ten percent of the discharge rate selected for the test.
Subp. 4. Water level measurement.
The water level measurements must be recorded in units of one-hundredths of a foot.
Subp. 5. Total volume of water measurement.
The total volume of water pumped during the pumping phase of the test must be recorded as the total gallons pumped.
Subp. 6. Pumping test length.
The length of the pumping test must be as long as allowed by the:
A. capability of the pump;
B. capacity of the water reservoirs;
C. capacity of the water distribution system; and
D. capability to dispose of excess discharge water.
Subp. 7. Frequency of readings.
Water levels must be measured for the duration of the test, and with sufficient frequency to characterize the drawdown versus time response in each of the time intervals specified in part 4720.5520, subpart 8 for a confined aquifer setting, or subpart 9 for an unconfined aquifer setting.
Subp. 8. Recording; start and finish.
The date and time of the start and the finish of the pumping test must be recorded to the second.
Subp. 9. Recording and submittal requirements.
Pumping test data must be recorded and submitted to the department on forms or electronic data file templates provided by the department.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 22 SR 668
Minn. R. 4720.5540 Aquifer Test Plan Content
An aquifer test plan must be prepared for the wells in a public water supply system and submitted to the department for approval. The aquifer test plan must contain:
A. the state identifier;
B. a map showing the location of the pumping well and the monitoring well or environmental bore hole;
C. the name and address of the public water supplier;
D. the name and address of the person preparing the aquifer test plan;
E. specification of the method used from part 4720.5510, subpart 6;
F. a description of why the method was selected; and
G. the existing data and the calculated transmissivity value, if the method selected is one of those specified in part 4710.5510, subpart 6, item B, subitem (1), (2), (5), (6), or (7).
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 22 SR 668
Minn. R. 4720.5550 Criteria for Assessing Well Vulnerability
Subpart 1. Department determination.
The department shall use the criteria specified in this part to assign priority and notify a public water supplier in writing that a wellhead protection plan must be prepared for an existing well.
Subp. 2. Well vulnerability criteria.
A public water supply well is vulnerable if:
A. the well water contains ten milligrams per liter or more nitrate plus nitrite nitrogen;
B. the well water contains quantifiable levels of pathogens as defined in part 7040.0100, subpart 26, or chemical compounds that indicate groundwater degradation as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 103H.005, subdivision 6;
C. the well water contains one tritium unit or more when measured with an enriched tritium detection method; or
D. an enriched tritium analysis of the well water has not been performed within the past ten years; and
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 22 SR 668
Minn. R. 4720.5555 Criteria for Plan Review
Subpart 1. Compliance with rules.
The department shall review:
A. an aquifer test plan for compliance with parts 4720.5320 and 4720.5510 to 4720.5540; and
B. a wellhead protection plan for compliance with parts 4720.5100 to 4720.5590.
Subp. 2. Principles of review.
In addition to verifying compliance with rules, the department shall determine if the plan is based on:
A. hydrologic management of water criteria, including:
B. health and environmental protection criteria, including:
C. management criteria, including:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 22 SR 668
Minn. R. 4720.5560 Implementation of Approved Wellhead Protection Plan
Subpart 1. Plan implementation.
A public water supplier must begin implementation of a plan no later than 60 days after the public water supplier has received department approval of the plan or amendments to the plan.
Subp. 2. Notification after plan adoption.
A public water supplier must notify local units of government within the drinking water supply management area of the adoption of a plan or amendments to a plan no later than 60 days after the public water supplier has received department approval of the plan or amendments to the plan.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 22 SR 668
Minn. R. 4720.5570 Amendments to Wellhead Protection Plan
Subpart 1. Amendments required.
A public water supplier must review and amend a wellhead protection plan:
A. if a well is added to the public water supply system;
B. if the boundaries of a wellhead protection area being delineated overlaps the boundaries of a department approved wellhead protection area of another public water supply system; or
C. every ten years from the date of the last approval of a plan by the department.
Subp. 2. Amendment procedure.
Amendments to a wellhead protection plan must be developed and reviewed in the same manner specified in parts 4720.5300 to 4720.5360 for an initial wellhead protection plan.
Subp. 3. Amendment timing.
The process of amending a wellhead protection plan in compliance with subpart 1, item C, must begin eight years after the date of the last approval of a plan by the department.
Subp. 4. Amendment criteria.
Amendments to a wellhead protection plan must comply with parts 4720.5200 to 4720.5290 and 4720.5500 to 4720.5540.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 22 SR 668
Minn. R. 4720.5580 Variance Procedures
The commissioner shall grant a variance to parts 4720.5200 to 4720.5570 only according to the procedures and criteria in parts 4717.7000 to 4717.7050.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 22 SR 668
Minn. R. 4720.5590 Informal Resolution of Disputes
Subpart 1. Applicability.
A public water supplier may use the procedures in this part to resolve any conflict between the public water supplier and the department about the development and implementation of a wellhead protection plan.
Subp. 2. Request for meeting.
A public water supplier must request a meeting with the department by submitting a written request to the department that specifically identifies the provision of the wellhead protection plan in question and the issue involved. No later than 60 days after the meeting, the department shall notify the public water supplier in writing of the results of the meeting.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 22 SR 668
Minn. R. 4720.9000 Purpose
The drinking water revolving fund provides financial assistance to eligible public drinking water suppliers for the planning, design, and construction of facilities to ensure safe and adequate drinking water. The program is jointly administered by the Minnesota Department of Health and the Minnesota Public Facilities Authority. The Minnesota Department of Health establishes priorities for the use of the drinking water revolving fund. All projects must be approved by the Minnesota Department of Health before they may be considered for funding by the Minnesota Public Facilities Authority. Parts 4720.9000 to 4720.9080 provide, for the Minnesota Department of Health, administration of its responsibilities under Minnesota Statutes, section 446A.081. Rules governing the Minnesota Public Facilities Authority's administration of its responsibilities under Minnesota Statutes, section 446A.081, are contained in chapter 7380.
The United States Environmental Protection Agency provides capitalization grants for this program to the state of Minnesota. Financial assistance projects must be in conformance with the requirements of the Public Health Service Act, United States Code, title 42, sections 300f et seq., Public Law 104-182, title XIV, section 1452, Part E.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 446A.081
- History: 22 SR 397
Minn. R. 4720.9005 Definitions
Subpart 1. Scope.
The terms defined in this part, in Minnesota Statutes, section 446A.081, and in the Public Health Service Act, apply to parts 4720.9000 to 4720.9080.
Subp. 2. Act.
"Act" means the Public Health Service Act, United States Code, title 42, sections 300f et seq., Public Law 104-184, title XIV, section 1452, Part E.
Subp. 3. Authority.
"Authority" means the Minnesota Public Facilities Authority.
Subp. 4. Commissioner.
"Commissioner" means the commissioner of the Minnesota Department of Health.
Subp. 5. Project priority list.
"Project priority list" means the document prepared pursuant to section 1452(b)(3)(B) of the act. The list shall identify all projects eligible for funding and the points assigned to the project as provided in parts 4720.9020 to 4720.9040.
Subp. 6. Treatment technique.
"Treatment technique" means an enforceable procedure developed by the United States Environmental Protection Agency when it is not economically or technologically feasible to ascertain the level of a contaminant and that public drinking water suppliers must follow to treat their drinking water.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 446A.081
- History: 22 SR 397
Minn. R. 4720.9010 Eligibility
The following entities are eligible to receive funds from the drinking water revolving fund for eligible activities listed in the act:
A. a community drinking water supply;
B. a nonprofit noncommunity drinking water supply;
C. a county, city, or town; or
D. any other governmental subdivision of the state responsible for the treatment and distribution of piped drinking water for human consumption, serving or proposing to serve a minimum of 15 connections or 15 living units, or serving or proposing to serve an average of 25 people daily for 60 days of the year.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 446A.081
- History: 22 SR 397
Minn. R. 4720.9015 Project Priority List
Subpart 1. General.
The commissioner must develop and maintain a project priority list for entities that have a need for a new or upgraded water supply system.
Subp. 2. Notice.
At least once a year, the commissioner must provide notification to all eligible public drinking water suppliers that requests for placement on the project priority list are being accepted. The notice must include the schedule for submittal of the requirements listed in subparts 4 and 5, or subpart 6, in order to be placed on the project priority list.
Subp. 3. Project priority list amendments.
As needed, but at least once per year, the commissioner must amend the project priority list to add or delete projects.
Subp. 4. General requirements.
To be eligible for placement on the project priority list, a written request for placement on the project priority list must be submitted to the commissioner. The request must include:
A. the type of project (planning, design, or construction) for which financial assistance is being requested;
B. a current cost estimate and, if different, the amount of financial assistance being requested; and
C. a proposed project schedule in a form acceptable to the commissioner.
Subp. 5. Additional requirements for applicants seeking financial assistance for planning activities and design.
The request for inclusion of a project under the planning or design section of the project priority list must include:
A. a description of the need for the project;
B. an estimate of the population and number of households to be served; and
C. a map showing the geographical area the project is expected to serve.
Subp. 6. Additional requirements for applicants seeking financial assistance for construction.
The request for listing a construction project on the project priority list under this part must include:
A. a map of the geographical area;
B. the population and number of households to be served;
C. a description of the current drinking water supply system;
D. a discussion of any existing and potential problems or failures in the current drinking water system;
E. an analysis of possible alternatives for the correction of the problems or failures, including a cost estimate for each alternative;
F. the selection of an alternative, including the reasons for the selection of this alternative and a detailed cost estimate; and
G. for public water suppliers serving more than 1,000 persons, the status of the applicant's implementation of an approved emergency and water conservation plan required under Minnesota Statutes, section 103G.291.
Subp. 7. Priority points.
A project must be assigned project priority points before being listed on the project priority list. The commissioner must review and approve the information submitted under subpart 4, 5, or 6 before assigning project priority points. Approval must be based on the determination that the information addresses the requirements under subpart 4, 5, or 6 and an evaluation that the selected alternative will provide a solution to the problems presented. A project's priority points must be the total number of priority points assigned under parts 4720.9020 to 4720.9040. The project priority points may be recalculated when new information becomes available until the project is placed on the intended use plan as provided in part 7380.0255.
Subp. 8. Listing order.
Projects must be listed on the project priority list in descending order according to the number of total priority points assigned to each one. When two or more projects have the same priority point total, the project sponsored by the entity with the lowest median household income must receive the highest priority.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 446A.081
- History: 22 SR 397
Minn. R. 4720.9020 Public Health Priority Points
Subpart 1. Existing eligible public drinking water supply.
Only existing eligible public drinking water supply projects can be assigned priority points under subparts 2 to 4b.
Subp. 2. Acute violations.
A maximum of 100 priority points may be assigned to a project as described in items A to E.
A. Twenty-five priority points must be assigned if there have been one or more violations defined as an acute violation in Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, section 141.32(a)(1)(iii)(A), within the past 36 calendar months.
B. Twenty-five priority points must be assigned if there have been one or more violations of the nitrate or nitrite maximum contaminant level defined in Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, section 141.62, within the past 36 calendar months.
C. Twenty-five priority points must be assigned if there have been one or more occurrences defined as a waterborne disease outbreak in Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, section 141.2, within the past 36 calendar months.
D. Twenty-five priority points must be assigned if there have been one or more violations of the maximum contaminant level for E. coli pursuant to Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, section 141.860(a), when E. coli is determined to be present in the wells of a groundwater system or at the point of entry for a surface water system within the past 36 calendar months.
E. Fifteen priority points must be assigned if there have been one or more violations of the maximum contaminant level for E. coli pursuant to Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, section 141.860(a), when E. coli is determined to be present in a part of the system other than the wells of a groundwater system or at the point of entry for a surface water system within the past 36 calendar months. Points may not be assigned under this item if points have been assigned under item D.
Subp. 3. Failure to comply with treatment technique requirements.
A. Fifteen priority points must be assigned if there have been one or more failures to comply with a treatment technique requirement pursuant to Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, sections 141.70 to 141.74.
B. Thirteen priority points must be assigned if there have been one or more failures to comply with a treatment technique requirement, other than those referred to in item A, within the past 36 calendar months. Additional points must not be assigned for multiple failures to comply with the same requirement.
Subp. 4. Violations of nonacute primary maximum contaminant levels.
Fifteen priority points must be assigned if there has been a violation of any nonacute primary maximum contaminant levels within the past 36 calendar months.
Subp. 4a. Exceeding a confirmed health advisory level.
Fifteen priority points must be assigned if a confirmed health advisory level has been exceeded within the past 36 calendar months.
Subp. 4b. Lead service lines.
Fifteen priority points must be assigned if the project results in the replacement of lead service lines. Documentation of the number of lead service lines in the project area must be provided. The proposed project must include replacing all portions of the water service line downstream of any lead components.
Subp. 5. Contaminated private wells.
Only projects that will result in the creation of an eligible public water supply or connection to an eligible public water supply may be assigned points under this subpart. More than 50 percent of the private wells in the proposed project service area must meet a criterion in item A or B for priority points to be assigned under item A or B. If 50 percent or less of the private wells in the proposed project service area meet a criterion, one-half of the listed points must be assigned. Results of tests, done in accordance with the United States Environmental Protection Agency approved analytical methods, must be submitted.
A. Twenty-five priority points must be assigned if test results indicate that a condition exists that meets the criteria in subpart 2, item A, B, C, or D.
B. Ten priority points must be assigned if a drinking water advisory has been issued or a special well construction area has been established by the Minnesota Department of Health.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 446A.081
- History: 22 SR 397; 48 SR 486
Minn. R. 4720.9025 Inadequate Water Supply Priority Points
Subpart 1. Consistently provide.
For the purposes of this part, the term "consistently provide" means that, at all times, the minimum pressures and flow rates for plumbing fixtures, as defined in the Minnesota Plumbing Code, chapter 4714, are maintained.
Subp. 2. Existing public drinking water suppliers.
For existing public drinking water suppliers serving more than 1,000 people, evidence of the implementation of an emergency and water conservation plan approved by the Minnesota Department of Natural Resources pursuant to Minnesota Statutes, section 103G.291, subdivision 3, must be provided to the commissioner before priority points may be assigned under this subpart.
A. Fifteen priority points must be assigned if an existing public drinking water supply is unable to consistently provide for the domestic water demand, excluding industrial and commercial uses.
B. Seven priority points must be assigned if an existing public drinking water supply is able to consistently provide domestic water demand for the uses listed under item A, but is unable to consistently provide water for other uses, including industrial and commercial uses.
Subp. 3. Inadequate supply from private wells.
Only projects that result in the creation of an eligible public water supply or connection to an eligible public water supply may be assigned points under this subpart.
A. Fifteen priority points must be assigned if more than 50 percent of the private wells in the proposed project service area are unable to consistently provide an adequate amount of water for general household purposes as demonstrated by an analysis of the aquifer supply and the demand for water in the area.
B. Five points must be assigned if 50 percent or less of the private wells in the proposed project service area meet the criteria in item A.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 446A.081
- History: 22 SR 397; 45 986
Minn. R. 4720.9030 Public Drinking Water Infrastructure Improvement Priority Points
Subpart 1. Existing public drinking water suppliers.
Only existing eligible public drinking water supply projects may be assigned priority points under this part. A project may be assigned priority points under only one subpart. If it has been assigned points under part 4720.9020 or 4720.9025, it may not be assigned points under this part.
Subp. 2. System reliability.
Seven priority points must be assigned to projects that will address a demonstrated need for a new backup well or interconnection with another public water supply.
Subp. 3. Looping of water mains.
Seven priority points must be assigned to projects that will address a demonstrated need for looping of water mains.
Subp. 4. Chlorine feed equipment.
Seven priority points must be assigned to projects that will address a demonstrated need for chlorine feed equipment.
Subp. 5. One-day storage.
Six priority points must be assigned to projects that allow the supply to have one-day storage capacity equal to the average daily use.
Subp. 6. Other infrastructure projects.
Five priority points must be assigned to projects that will address a demonstrated need for new or upgraded public drinking water facilities if priority points have not been assigned under subpart 2, 3, 4, or 5.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 446A.081
- History: 22 SR 397
Minn. R. 4720.9035 Additional Priority Points Categories
Subpart 1. Natural disaster.
In order to be assigned priority points under this subpart, a description of the existing public drinking water supply, or portion thereof, damaged or destroyed by a natural disaster, must be submitted along with a statement that other state or federal disaster relief is not available.
A. Fifteen extra priority points must be assigned if more than 50 percent of the proposed project will replace or repair the existing public drinking water supply damaged or destroyed by a natural disaster.
B. Ten extra priority points must be assigned if 50 percent or less of the proposed project will replace or repair the existing public drinking water supply damaged or destroyed by a natural disaster.
Subp. 2. Compliance.
Ten extra priority points must be assigned if the proposed project will enable an eligible public drinking water supply to comply with an administrative penalty order, bilateral compliance agreement, permit, or other enforceable document issued by the Minnesota Department of Health.
Subp. 3. Consolidation.
Ten extra priority points must be assigned if the proposed project will result in the consolidation of existing public drinking water suppliers.
Subp. 4. Source water protection.
Three extra priority points must be assigned if the proposed project, or any portion thereof, is needed in order to protect the drinking water source.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 446A.081
- History: 22 SR 397
Minn. R. 4720.9040 Financial Need
Subpart 1. General.
Only projects sponsored by community public drinking water suppliers can be assigned priority points under this part.
Subp. 2. Median household income.
The median household income levels of the state must be determined from income data from the most recent census of the United States or from data from the state demographer.
A. A municipal community public water supply must use the median household income for the appropriate political subdivision or subdivisions encompassing its service area, except as provided in item C.
B. A nonmunicipal community drinking water supply must use the median household income for the smallest political subdivision encompassing the nonmunicipal community drinking water supply, except as provided in item C.
C. If there is reason to believe that the United States census data or the data from the state demographer is not a currently accurate representation of the median household income, documentation of the reasons why the data is not an accurate representation may be submitted. If the commissioner, after review, agrees, the applicant may submit additional information regarding median household income. The information must consist of reliable data from local, regional, state, or federal sources, or from a survey conducted by a reliable impartial source. The median household income level must be updated to reflect the most current and accurate figures.
Subp. 3. Assignment of points.
A project sponsored by a community public drinking water supply with a median household income less than either the median household income for a metropolitan or nonmetropolitan area, as applicable, must be assigned five priority points.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 446A.081
- History: 22 SR 397
Minn. R. 4720.9045 Plan and Specification Requirements
Subpart 1. General.
An applicant seeking financial assistance from the drinking water revolving fund for a construction project must submit plans and specifications to the commissioner for review and approval. Plans and specifications must:
A. be signed by a professional engineer registered in Minnesota, except as provided in subpart 2;
B. be consistent with the selected alternative approved under part 4720.9015, subpart 6, item F;
C. describe the project in full and detail the construction requirements;
D. include the latest detailed cost estimate for the project prepared by the person preparing the plans and specifications for the project;
E. comply with applicable state statutes, rules, and requirements; and
F. for public water suppliers serving more than 1,000 persons, include the status of the applicant's implementation of an approved emergency and water conservation plan required under Minnesota Statutes, section 103G.291.
Subp. 2. Exception to registered professional engineer requirement.
Plans and specifications for a nonmunicipal community or noncommunity public drinking water supply project may be signed by a licensed plumber, a licensed water conditioning contractor, or a licensed water well contractor if the scope of the project is totally within the field for which the person is licensed to practice in Minnesota.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 446A.081
- History: 22 SR 397
Minn. R. 4720.9050 Department Approval of Projects
The commissioner must approve the project upon review of the documents submitted and a determination that the project meets the applicable requirements of the act, federal regulations, Minnesota Statutes, and parts 4720.9000 to 4720.9080.
If there is significant alteration to the project after the commissioner approves the project, the eligible applicant must request in writing an amended approval. The commissioner must review the request and project alteration and, upon a determination that the project meets the applicable requirements of the act, federal regulations, Minnesota Statutes, and parts 4720.9000 to 4720.9080, the commissioner must approve the project.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 446A.081
- History: 22 SR 397
Minn. R. 4720.9055 Emergency Loan Program
Subpart 1. General.
An eligible public drinking water supply may apply for emergency assistance in the case of catastrophic failure of the drinking water supply or unforeseen threats of contamination to the drinking water supply. Emergency projects need not comply with parts 4720.9015 to 4720.9050, but must be eligible under part 4720.9010.
Subp. 2. Notification.
An eligible public drinking water supply must notify the commissioner of the need for emergency remediation of threats of contamination or catastrophic failure of the drinking water supply. The notification must include the nature of the threat or failure, the proposed remediation, and estimated costs.
Subp. 3. Approval.
Upon review of the information required by subpart 2 and a determination that the project meets the applicable requirements of the act, federal regulations, Minnesota Statutes, and parts 4720.9000 to 4720.9010 and 4720.9055 to 4720.9080, the commissioner must approve the project. Approval must be based on the determination that the information demonstrates the need for emergency funding and that the proposed remediation will provide a solution to the problems presented.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 446A.081
- History: 22 SR 397
Minn. R. 4720.9060 Certification of Project to Authority
Upon approval of a project pursuant to part 4720.9050 or 4720.9055 and verification that the project is listed on the current project priority list, the commissioner must certify the project to the authority for review and consideration.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 446A.081
- History: 22 SR 397
Minn. R. 4720.9065 Construction Phase and Postconstruction Phase Requirements
Subpart 1. Project completion and final inspection.
The financial assistance recipient must notify the commissioner of the estimated date on which the operation of the project's major components is initiated or is capable of being initiated. A final inspection of the project must be performed if the commissioner determines it is necessary to verify that construction conforms with approved plans and specifications and any change orders.
The commissioner must consider the following criteria when determining the necessity of conducting a final inspection: previous site visits or other field reports; the nature and scope of the project; the experience, training, and capability of the facility operators; and other information received about the conduct of the project.
Subp. 2. Project performance.
A. Three months after initiation of operation of the project, the financial assistance recipient must certify to the commissioner that the project is operating as planned and designed. This certification must be made in a form acceptable to the commissioner.
B. If the financial assistance recipient is unable to certify the project is operating as planned and designed, the recipient must submit a corrective action report to the commissioner for review and approval. The corrective action report must contain an analysis of the project's failure to operate as planned and designed; a discussion of the nature, scope, and cost of the action necessary to correct the failure; and a schedule for completing the corrective work.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 446A.081
- History: 22 SR 397
Minn. R. 4720.9070 Certified Operator
Subpart 1. General.
Except as provided in subpart 2, before the financial assistance recipient submits its final financial assistance payment request to the authority, it must submit to the commissioner the name, certification number, and certification expiration date of the operator certified under chapter 9400 and directly responsible for the operation of the facility.
Subp. 2. Exception for transient noncommunity public drinking water supply.
A financial assistance recipient that is a transient noncommunity public drinking water supply is exempt from the requirement in subpart 1, but must perform monitoring of its drinking water supply as specified in the plans and specifications approval letter and have periodic inspections of the supply done by qualified personnel during the term of the loan.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 446A.081
- History: 22 SR 397
Minn. R. 4720.9075 Sanctions
If a project fails to conform to approved plans and specifications, or a financial assistance recipient fails to comply with the requirements of parts 4720.9000 to 4720.9080, the commissioner must request the authority to withhold or terminate either total or partial disbursements to the financial assistance recipient. Once an agreement for correcting the condition which led to the withholding of funds is reached between the commissioner and the financial assistance recipient, the commissioner must recommend to the authority that the retained funds be released according to the provisions of the agreement.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 446A.081
- History: 22 SR 397
Minn. R. 4720.9080 Disputes
A person adversely affected by an action of department staff may request a review of the action. A request for review must be submitted in writing to the commissioner by the person within 45 days of the date of notification of the commissioner's final decision. The request must be reviewed under parts 4720.9000 to 4720.9080 by the commissioner.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 446A.081
- History: 22 SR 397
Chapter 4725 WELLS AND BORINGS
Minn. R. 4725.0050 General
This chapter is adopted according to and must be read in conjunction with Minnesota Statutes, chapter 103I, relating to wells, borings, and underground uses.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773
Minn. R. 4725.0100 Definitions
Subpart 1. Scope.
Terms used in this chapter that are defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 103I.005, have the meanings given in statute. For the purposes of this chapter, the terms defined in this part have the meanings given them.
Subp. 1a. Absorption area.
"Absorption area" has the meaning given in part 7080.1100, subpart 2, and includes the area of soil designed to absorb sewage effluent.
Subp. 1b. Agricultural chemical.
"Agricultural chemical" has the meaning in Minnesota Statutes, section 18D.01, subdivision 3.
Subp. 1c. Animal unit.
"Animal unit" has the meaning in part 7020.0300, subpart 5, and is a unit of measure comparing the production of animal manure. One animal unit is equal to one slaughter steer, one horse, or for animals not listed in part 7020.0300, subpart 5, the average weight of the animal in pounds divided by 1,000.
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, 15 SR 78]
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, 15 SR 78]
Subp. 4.
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Subp. 5.
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Subp. 6.
[Repealed, 15 SR 78]
Subp. 7.
[Repealed, 15 SR 78]
Subp. 8.
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Subp. 9.
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Subp. 10.
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Subp. 11.
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Subp. 12.
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Subp. 13.
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Subp. 14.
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Subp. 15.
[Repealed, 15 SR 78]
Subp. 16.
[Repealed, 15 SR 78]
Subp. 17.
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Subp. 18.
[Repealed, 15 SR 78]
Subp. 19. Annular space.
"Annular space" means the space between two cylindrical objects one of which surrounds the other, such as the space between a bore hole and a casing pipe, or between a casing pipe and liner pipe.
Subp. 20.
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Subp. 21. Aquifer.
"Aquifer" means a stratum of saturated, permeable bedrock or unconsolidated material having a recognizable water table or potentiometric surface which is capable of producing water to supply a well.
Subp. 21a. At-grade.
"At-grade" means the termination of a well or boring at the established ground surface.
Subp. 21b. Bedrock.
"Bedrock" means a consolidated or coherent, hard, naturally formed aggregation of rock in the earth. Bedrock includes geologic materials deposited prior to the Cretaceous geologic period, and includes igneous and metamorphic rock such as granite, basalt, and iron formation, and sedimentary rock including sandstone, limestone, and shale. Bedrock includes sandstone formations such as the St. Peter or Jordan that may be semiconsolidated. Bedrock does not include alluvium, glacial drift, glacial outwash, glacial till, saprolite, or soil. For the purposes of this chapter, bedrock does not include mineral matter deposited during, or more recently than, the Cretaceous geologic period, or weathered portions of the formation surface where more than 50 percent of the parent bedrock is altered to an unconsolidated state.
Subp. 21c. Bentonite.
"Bentonite" means an aluminum silicate clay that contains at least 85 percent of the mineral montmorillonite and meets API specification 13A-04.
Subp. 21d. Bentonite grout.
"Bentonite grout" means water and a minimum of 15 percent by weight of powdered or granular bentonite, with no additives to promote temporary viscosity. An additional 15 percent by weight of either washed sand or cuttings taken from the bore hole may be mixed into the bentonite and water slurry. The bentonite must be designed by the manufacturer as a grout or well and boring sealant, and must be mixed according to the manufacturer's specifications.
Subp. 21e. Bored geothermal heat exchanger.
"Bored geothermal heat exchanger" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 103I.005, subdivision 1a, and includes bored geothermal heat exchanger piping installed in a boring for thermal conductivity testing. Bored geothermal heat exchanger does not include a closed-loop piping system installed in a boring 15 feet or less below the established ground surface.
Subp. 21f. Bored geothermal heat exchanger contractor.
"Bored geothermal heat exchanger contractor" means a person issued a limited well/boring contractor's license for constructing, repairing, and sealing bored geothermal heat exchangers.
Subp. 21g. Bored geothermal heat exchanger piping.
"Bored geothermal heat exchanger piping" means the pipe and fittings of a bored geothermal heat exchanger installed and buried below the ground surface and includes:
A. the pipe loop installed in a bore hole;
B. the buried pipe between a bore hole and a header or manifold;
C. the buried header or manifold; and
D. buried supply and return pipe between a buried header or manifold and the heat pump.
Subp. 21h. Boring.
"Boring" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 103I.005, subdivision 2, and includes environmental bore holes, bored geothermal heat exchangers, and elevator borings, except that for the purposes of this chapter, boring does not include exploratory borings regulated under chapter 4727.
Subp. 22. Casing.
"Casing" means a pipe or curbing placed in a well or boring to:
A. prevent the bore hole walls from caving;
B. seal off surface drainage; or
C. prevent gas, water, or other fluids from entering the well or boring except through the screen, open hole, or perforated casing.
Subp. 22a. Casing vent.
"Casing vent" means an outlet at the upper terminal of a casing, cap, or cover to allow equalization of air pressure in the casing and escape of toxic or flammable gases when present.
Subp. 22b. Cement-sand grout.
"Cement-sand grout" means a fluid mixture of Portland cement, sand, and water in the proportion of 94 pounds of Portland cement, not more than 1.0 cubic foot of dry sand, and not more than six gallons of water. Admixtures to reduce permeability or control setting time must meet ASTM Standard C494/C494M-04.
Subp. 22c. Certified representative.
"Certified representative" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 103I.005, subdivision 2a, and means an individual who acts on behalf of a licensee or registrant.
Subp. 23. Cesspool.
"Cesspool" means an underground pit into which raw household sewage or other untreated liquid waste is discharged and from which the liquid seeps into the surrounding soil.
Subp. 23a. Community water system.
"Community water system" has the meaning given in Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, section 141.2, and means a public water system that serves at least 15 service connections used by year-round residents, or regularly serves at least 25 year-round residents.
Subp. 23b. Completion of work.
"Completion of work" means the date on which the installation of the pump or pumping equipment is finished, the date on which construction of the well or boring is completed if a pump or pumping equipment is not installed by the person constructing the well or boring, the date that construction work regulated by this chapter is completed, the date the well or boring is put into service, or the date that the permit or notification expires, whichever occurs first.
Subp. 23c. Concrete.
"Concrete" means a mixture of Portland cement, sand and gravel aggregate, and water so that one cubic yard of concrete contains a minimum of 470 pounds (five 94-pound bags) of Portland cement, a maximum of 30 gallons of water, and sand and gravel aggregate passing a one-inch sieve. Admixtures to reduce permeability or control setting time must meet ASTM Standard C494/C494M-04.
Subp. 24.
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Subp. 24a. Confining layer.
"Confining layer" means a stratum of a geologic material that restricts vertical water movement. A confining layer includes:
A. a stratum at least ten feet in vertical thickness of unconsolidated materials or bedrock, that has a vertical hydraulic conductivity of 10-6 centimeters per second or less;
B. a stratum at least ten feet in vertical thickness of clay, sandy clay, or silty clay as defined by the United States Department of Agriculture in Handbook 18; or
C. a stratum at least ten feet in vertical thickness of the St. Lawrence or Eau Claire sedimentary bedrock formation, or a stratum at least two feet in vertical thickness of the Decorah or Glenwood sedimentary bedrock formation, as described in "Geology of Minnesota: A Centennial Volume" by Sims, P.K., and Morey, G.B., pages 459-473, "Paleozoic Lithostratigraphy of Southeastern Minnesota" by George Austin, which is incorporated by reference. The publication is available at the Minnesota Geological Survey, Minnesota Department of Health, or through the Minitex interlibrary loan program.
Subp. 24b. Confining materials.
"Confining materials" means geologic materials that restrict vertical water movement. Confining materials include:
A. unconsolidated material or bedrock that has a vertical hydraulic conductivity of 10-6 centimeters per second or less;
B. clay, sandy clay, or silty clay as defined by the United States Department of Agriculture in Handbook 18 which is incorporated by reference; or
C. the Decorah, Glenwood, St. Lawrence, or Eau Claire sedimentary bedrock formations, as described in "Geology of Minnesota: A Centennial Volume" by Sims, P.K., and Morey, G.B., pages 459-473, "Paleozoic Lithostratigraphy of Southeastern Minnesota" by George Austin, which is incorporated by reference.
Subp. 24c. Contact hour.
"Contact hour" means a minimum of 50 minutes of lecture, demonstration, workshop, or training excluding coffee breaks, registration, meals, or social activities.
Subp. 24d. Council.
"Council" means the Advisory Council on Wells and Borings created under Minnesota Statutes, chapter 103I.
Subp. 24e. Cuttings.
"Cuttings" means a mixture of drilling fluid, ground up rock, and unconsolidated material removed from a well or boring.
Subp. 24f. Dewatering well.
"Dewatering well" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 103I.005, subdivision 4a. Dewatering well includes a temporary well for construction dewatering greater than 25 feet deep, and permanent dewatering wells. Dewatering well does not include:
A. a well 25 feet or less in depth for temporary construction dewatering;
B. a well used to lower groundwater levels for control or removal of groundwater contamination regulated as a remedial well; or
C. a drain tile, perforated pipe, sump, or pit less than ten feet deep, or less than ten feet below the floor of a basement, used to lower groundwater levels for construction or use of underground space.
Subp. 24g. Dewatering well contractor.
"Dewatering well contractor" means a person issued a limited well/boring contractor's license to construct, repair, and seal dewatering wells.
Subp. 24h. Directional drilling.
"Directional drilling" means a drilling method that utilizes a steerable drill bit to cut a bore hole for installing underground pipe. Directional drilling is also known as horizontal directional drilling, or HDD.
Subp. 25.
[Repealed, 15 SR 78]
Subp. 26.
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Subp. 26a. Drilling machine.
"Drilling machine" means a motorized machine or mechanical device mounted on a truck, trailer, crawler, or skid used to excavate, drill, or bore a well or boring. A drilling machine includes a cable tool, hollow rod, auger, or rotary tool.
Subp. 26b. Drive-point well.
"Drive-point well" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 103I.005, subdivision 5.
Subp. 26c. Drive-point well or dug well contractor.
"Drive-point well or dug well contractor" means a person issued a limited well/boring contractor's license to construct, repair, or seal drive-point wells or dug wells.
Subp. 26d. Driven casing.
"Driven casing" means steel casing forced into the ground as the well or boring is advanced, where the outside diameter of the drill bit or drilling tools is equal to or less than the outside diameter of the casing, casing coupling, or drive shoe.
Subp. 27. Dug well.
"Dug well" means a well that is excavated or dug with unconventional drilling equipment in which the side walls may be supported by material other than standard weight steel casing, stainless steel casing, or plastic casing as specified in this chapter. Water enters a dug well through the side walls and bottom.
Subp. 27a. Elevator boring.
"Elevator boring" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 103I.005, subdivision 6, and does not include cable elevators, hydraulic cylinders used to elevate automobiles, or holeless elevators where the depth of the excavation is less than ten feet below the lowest landing of the elevator.
Subp. 27b. Elevator boring contractor.
"Elevator boring contractor" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 103I.005, subdivision 7.
Subp. 27c. Environmental bore hole.
"Environmental bore hole" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 103I.005, subdivision 8. An environmental bore hole must enter or go through a water bearing layer, be deeper than 25 feet or penetrate a confining layer, and be used for testing or for remediation of soil or groundwater contamination without extracting water. An environmental bore hole includes excavations used to:
A. measure groundwater levels, including an excavation used as a piezometer;
B. determine groundwater flow direction or velocity;
C. measure earth properties such as hydraulic conductivity, bearing capacity, or resistance;
D. obtain samples of geologic materials for testing or classification; or
E. remove or remediate pollution or contamination from groundwater or soil through the use of a vent, vapor recovery system, or sparge point without extracting groundwater.
Subp. 28. Established ground surface.
"Established ground surface" means the intended or actual finished grade (elevation) of the surface of the ground at the site of a well or boring.
Subp. 28a. Feedlot.
"Feedlot" has the meaning given in part 7020.0300, subpart 3.
Subp. 29.
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Subp. 29a. Groundwater.
"Groundwater" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 115.01, subdivision 6, and does not include water in an artificially created basin, such as a tank excavation, that is not hydrologically connected to the earth outside the basin.
Subp. 29b. Groundwater thermal exchange device.
"Groundwater thermal exchange device" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 103I.005, subdivision 11, and includes a water-supply well used to withdraw or inject groundwater for a heat pump.
Subp. 30. Grout.
"Grout" means a low permeability material used to fill the annular space around a casing, or to seal a well or boring. Grout is either neat-cement grout, cement-sand grout, or bentonite grout.
Subp. 30a.
[Repealed, 33 SR 211]
Subp. 30b.
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Subp. 30c. Hazardous substance.
"Hazardous substance" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 115B.02, subdivision 8.
Subp. 30d. Hoist.
"Hoist" means a motorized machine or mechanical device that is not a drilling machine, mounted on a truck, trailer, crawler, or skid, which is used to:
A. remove or install a pump or pumping equipment, casing, screen, pitless adapter, or pitless unit;
B. remove an obstruction from a well or boring;
C. install a tremie pipe when sealing a well or boring; or
D. conduct an activity which requires a license or registration issued under this chapter. Hoist does not include hand-operated equipment such as a pipe wrench, chain, pulley, or tripod.
Subp. 30e. Holding tank.
"Holding tank" has the meaning given in part 7080.1100, subpart 40, and means a watertight tank for storage of sewage until it can be transported to a point of approved treatment and dispersal.
Subp. 30f. Hydrofracturing.
"Hydrofracturing" means the process of placing one or more packers into a bedrock formation and injecting potable water under pressures high enough to open existing fractures or create new fractures in the bedrock for the purpose of increasing the water yield.
Subp. 30g. Individual well contractor.
"Individual well contractor" means an individual licensed according to Minnesota Statutes, section 103I.525.
Subp. 30h. Interceptor.
"Interceptor" has the meaning given in Uniform Plumbing Code (UPC) section 211.0 as incorporated by part 4714.0050.
Subp. 30i. Licensee.
"Licensee" means a person who is licensed as a well contractor, limited well/boring contractor, or elevator boring contractor under this chapter and Minnesota Statutes, chapter 103I.
Subp. 30j. Limited well/boring contractor.
"Limited well/boring contractor" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 103I.005, subdivision 12, and includes a person with a license to: construct, repair, or seal drive-point wells or dug wells; install or repair screens or pitless units or adapters and casing from the pitless unit or adapter to the upper termination of the casing; install a well pump or pumping equipment; seal wells or borings; construct, repair, or seal a dewatering well; or construct, repair, or seal a bored geothermal heat exchanger.
Subp. 30k. Manure storage area.
"Manure storage area" has the meaning given in part 7020.0300, subpart 14, and does not include a manure storage basin.
Subp. 30l. Manure storage basin.
"Manure storage basin" means a lagoon, pit, impoundment, or excavation in the ground used to store liquid and solid manure.
Subp. 30m. Monitoring well.
"Monitoring well" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 103I.005, subdivision 14.
Subp. 30n. Neat-cement grout.
"Neat-cement grout" means a fluid mixture in the proportion of 94 pounds of Portland cement and not more than six gallons of water. Bentonite up to five percent by weight of cement (4.7 pounds of bentonite per 94 pounds of Portland cement) may be used to reduce shrinkage. Not more than 0.6 additional gallons of water may be added for each one percent of bentonite. Admixtures to reduce permeability or control setting time must meet ASTM Standard C494/C494M-04. The minimum density of neat-cement grout using regular (Type I or Type IL) Portland cement without bentonite or entrained air is 15.0 pounds per gallon. The minimum density of regular neat-cement grout with bentonite and without entrained air is:
A. 14.7 pounds per gallon for neat-cement grout and two percent bentonite;
B. 14.4 pounds per gallon for neat-cement grout and three percent bentonite;
C. 14.1 pounds per gallon for neat-cement grout and four percent bentonite; and
D. 13.8 pounds per gallon for neat-cement grout and five percent bentonite.
Subp. 30o. Noncommunity water system.
"Noncommunity water system" means a public water system that serves an average of at least 25 persons daily at least 60 days a year, at a place other than their home, and that is not a community public water system. Any water system meeting the criteria identified in this subpart that serves churches, schools, resorts, parks, camps, rest areas, or businesses is deemed to be a noncommunity water system.
Subp. 30p. Ordinary high water level.
"Ordinary high water level" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 103G.005, subdivision 14.
Subp. 30q. Pasture.
"Pasture" has the meaning given in part 7020.0300, subpart 18.
Subp. 30r. Person.
"Person" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 103I.005, subdivision 16.
Subp. 30s. Petroleum.
"Petroleum" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 115C.02, subdivision 10.
Subp. 31.
[Repealed, 15 SR 78]
Subp. 31a. Petroleum bulk storage site.
"Petroleum bulk storage site" means a property on which petroleum products are stored for sale and excludes pipeline terminals and refineries.
Subp. 31b.
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Subp. 32. Pitless adapter.
"Pitless adapter" means a watertight device allowing discharge through one or more openings of a casing.
Subp. 33. Pitless unit.
"Pitless unit" means a watertight assembly with a cap that attaches to a casing below ground, allows subsurface discharge through one or more openings, and extends the upper termination of the casing above the established ground surface.
Subp. 34. Pollution or contamination.
"Pollution" or "contamination" means the presence or addition of any substance to groundwater which is or may become injurious to the health, safety, or welfare of the general public or private individuals using a well, boring, or groundwater; or which is or may become injurious to domestic, commercial, industrial, agricultural, or other uses which are being made of such water.
Subp. 34a. Portland cement.
"Portland cement" means:
A. construction material that conforms to ASTM Standard C150-04a, "Standard Specification for Portland Cement"; or
B. Type IL blended Portland-limestone cement that conforms to ASTM Standard C595, "Standard Specification for Blended Hydraulic Cements."
Subp. 35. Potable water.
"Potable water" means water which is safe for human consumption in that it is free from impurities in amounts sufficient to cause disease or harmful physiological effects.
Subp. 35a. Potable water-supply well.
"Potable water-supply well" means a water-supply well used to provide water to humans for such purposes as drinking; cooking; bathing; manufacturing or processing of food, drink, or pharmaceuticals; or to supply water to plumbing fixtures accessible to humans.
Subp. 36. Pressure tank or hydropneumatic tank.
"Pressure tank" or "hydropneumatic tank" means a closed water storage container constructed to operate under a designed pressure rating to modulate the water system pressure within a selected pressure range.
Subp. 37. Priming.
"Priming" means the first filling of a pump with water and the action of starting the flow in a pump.
Subp. 37a. Public water-supply well.
"Public water-supply well" means a well supplying water to a public water system.
Subp. 37b. Public water system.
"Public water system" means a community or noncommunity water system regulated under chapter 4720.
Subp. 38.
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Subp. 39.
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Subp. 40. Pumping water level.
"Pumping water level" means the distance measured from the established ground surface to the water surface in a well being pumped at a specified rate for a specified period of time.
Subp. 40a. Rapid setting cement.
"Rapid setting cement" means:
A. Type III Portland cement as designated in ASTM Standard C150-04a;
B. Type IL-HE Portland-limestone cement as designated in ASTM Standard C595, "Standard Specification for Blended Hydraulic Cements";
C. API Class C cement; or
D. any Portland cement containing calcium chloride or sodium chloride in an amount between two and four percent by weight of Portland cement, or gypsum in an amount between 20 and 100 percent by weight of Portland cement.
Subp. 40b. Regional flood.
"Regional flood" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 103F.111, subdivision 10.
Subp. 41.
[Repealed, 15 SR 78]
Subp. 41a. Registrant.
"Registrant" means a person who is registered as a monitoring well contractor under this chapter and Minnesota Statutes, chapter 103I.
Subp. 41b. Remedial well.
"Remedial well" means a water-supply well used to lower a groundwater level to control or remove contamination in groundwater and excludes horizontal trenches, and sumps or pits less than ten feet deep.
Subp. 41c.
[Repealed, 33 SR 211]
Subp. 41d. Rock.
"Rock" means a naturally formed aggregation of mineral matter including the rocks described in part 4725.1851, subpart 4, item B.
Subp. 41e. Sand.
"Sand" means unconsolidated mineral material composed principally of quartz ranging in size from 0.0025 to 0.040 inches in diameter.
Subp. 41f. Scrap yard.
"Scrap yard" means an establishment, place of business, or place of storage or deposit that is maintained, operated, or used for storing, keeping, buying, or selling scrap, junk, or waste metal obtained from automobiles, trucks, tractors, farm equipment, industrial equipment, containers, appliances, or similar items where the total scrap metal stored is greater than nine tons or consists of more than five motor vehicles.
Subp. 41g. Screen.
"Screen" means a wire-wrapped, gauze, shutter, slotted, or engineered perforated pipe at the bottom of a casing designed to allow water to enter a well or boring and to prevent sediment from entering the well or boring.
Subp. 41h. Screen leader or riser.
"Screen leader" or "riser" means a pipe smaller in diameter than the casing that is attached to the top of a screen and telescoped into a casing.
Subp. 41i. Screen sump.
"Screen sump" means a pipe attached to the bottom of a screen.
Subp. 41j. Sealing.
"Sealing" means the process of preparing a well or boring to be filled with grout and the process of filling a well or boring with grout.
Subp. 42.
[Repealed, 33 SR 211]
Subp. 43. Seepage pit, leaching pit, or dry well.
"Seepage pit," "leaching pit," or "dry well" means an underground pit, tank, or receptacle into which a septic tank discharges effluent or other liquid waste and from which the liquid seeps into the surrounding soil through the bottom or openings in the side of the pit, tank, or receptacle.
Subp. 43a. Sensitive water-supply well.
"Sensitive water-supply well" means a water-supply well with less than 50 feet of watertight casing where the casing does not penetrate a confining layer or multiple layers of confining materials with an aggregate thickness of ten feet or more.
Subp. 44. Septic tank.
"Septic tank" means a watertight tank of durable materials through which sewage flows very slowly and in which solids separate from the liquid to be decomposed or broken down by bacterial action.
Subp. 44a. Sewage.
"Sewage" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 115.01, subdivision 17, and includes gray water discharge from bathing and laundry.
Subp. 44b. Sewage sump.
"Sewage sump" means a sump, dosing chamber, lift station, tank, pit, or receptacle which contains a pump to discharge sewage.
Subp. 45. Sewer.
"Sewer" means a pipe or conduit carrying sewage or into which sewage may back up, including floor drains and traps.
Subp. 45a. Soil dispersal system.
"Soil dispersal system" has the meaning given in part 7080.1100, subpart 79, and means the piping and media such as gravel, where sewage effluent is treated and dispersed into the soil by percolation and filtration and includes trenches, seepage beds, drainfields, at-grade systems, and mound systems.
Subp. 46.
[Repealed, 33 SR 211]
Subp. 47. Static water level.
"Static water level" means the distance measured from the established ground surface to the water surface in a well or boring neither being pumped, nor under the influence of pumping nor flowing under artesian pressure.
Subp. 47a. Stormwater drain pipe.
"Stormwater drain pipe" means a pipe or conduit carrying stormwater or surface water from a building roof, parking lot, street, or paved area. Stormwater drain pipe does not include a pipe or conduit carrying:
A. domestic waste water, sewage, or industrial wastes;
B. clear water drainage from building perimeter drain tile; or
C. water from a floor drain, not connected to a sewer, to a point of surface discharge.
Subp. 47b. Submerged closed loop heat exchanger.
"Submerged closed loop heat exchanger" or "SCLHE" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 103I.005, subdivision 17a, and includes a SCLHE unit and SCLHE in-well piping.
Subp. 47c. Submerged closed loop heat exchanger unit.
"Submerged closed loop heat exchanger unit" or "SCLHE unit" means that portion of a SCLHE designed to transfer heat between the heat transfer fluid and groundwater.
Subp. 47d. Submerged closed loop heat exchanger in-well piping.
"Submerged closed loop heat exchanger in-well piping" or "SCLHE in-well piping" means the piping and fittings of a SCLHE used to convey heat transfer fluid in the well and fittings connecting the piping in the well to the pitless unit.
Subp. 47e. Submerged closed loop heat exchanger lateral piping.
"Submerged closed loop heat exchanger lateral piping" or "SCLHE lateral piping" means the piping and fittings of a SCLHE system used to convey heat transfer fluid between a building and the well.
Subp. 47f. Submerged closed loop heat exchanger system.
"Submerged closed loop heat exchanger system" or "SCLHE system" means one or more SCLHE connected by SCLHE lateral piping to a building or a network of buildings exchanging thermal energy.
Subp. 47g. Submerged closed loop heat exchanger system owner.
"Submerged closed loop heat exchanger system owner" or "system owner" means a person who owns and is responsible for overseeing the operation of the SCLHE system.
Subp. 48. Subterranean gas.
"Subterranean gas" means a gas occurring below the land surface. It may be flammable such as methane or highly toxic as hydrogen sulfide and may be associated with ground water.
Subp. 48a. Suction line.
"Suction line" means a pipe or line connected to the inlet side of a pump or pumping equipment or any connection to a casing that may conduct nonsystem water into the well or boring because of negative pressures.
Subp. 48b. Thermally enhanced bentonite grout.
"Thermally enhanced bentonite grout" means a bentonite-based grout that is mixed with sand or graphite to improve the thermal efficiency of a bored geothermal heat exchanger system.
Subp. 49.
[Renumbered subp. 48a]
Subp. 49a.
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Subp. 49b. Total coliform bacteria.
"Total coliform bacteria" means all of the aerobic and facultative anaerobic, gram-negative, non-spore-forming, rod-shaped bacteria that ferment lactose with gas formation within 48 hours at 35 degrees centigrade.
Subp. 49c. Tremie pipe.
"Tremie pipe" means a pipe or hose used to insert grout into an annular space, well, or boring.
Subp. 49d. Unconsolidated materials.
"Unconsolidated materials" means geological materials that are not bedrock and includes alluvium, glacial drift, glacial outwash, glacial till, lacustrine deposits, loess, saprolite, soil, and those materials specified in part 4725.1851, subpart 4, item A.
Subp. 49e.
[Repealed, 45 SR 986]
Subp. 49f.
[Repealed, 45 SR 986]
Subp. 49g.
[Repealed, 45 SR 986]
Subp. 49h. Wastewater treatment unit.
"Wastewater treatment unit" has the meaning given in part 7045.0020, subpart 103.
Subp. 50.
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Subp. 50a. Water-supply well.
"Water-supply well" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 103I.005, subdivision 20a.
Subp. 50b. Water table.
"Water table" has the meaning given in part 7060.0300, subpart 8.
Subp. 51. Well.
"Well" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 103I.005, subdivision 21.
Subp. 51a. Well pump or pumping equipment.
"Well pump or pumping equipment" means a device, machine, or material used to withdraw or otherwise obtain water from a well, and all necessary seals, fittings, and pump controls. Well pump or pumping equipment does not include:
A. water tanks except for buried pressure tanks;
B. sampling devices placed in a monitoring well to obtain a water sample and are then removed after the sample is collected; or
C. devices used in the construction or rehabilitation of a well.
Subp. 52.
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Subp. 53.
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Subp. 54.
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.208; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 156A.01 to 156A.08; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 8 SR 1625; 15 SR 78; 17 SR 2773; 25 SR 1207; 33 SR 211; L 2013 c 108 art 12 s 108; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 136; 45 SR 986; 48 SR 447; 49 SR 1261
Minn. R. 4725.0150 Incorporations by Reference and Abbreviations
This part indicates documents, specifications, and standards that are incorporated by reference in this chapter. This material is not subject to frequent change and is available from the source listed, for loan or inspection from the Minnesota Department of Health, or through the Minitex interlibrary loan system. To borrow or inspect a reference, email the Minnesota Department of Health Well Management section at health.wells@state.mn.us, or go to Search Minnesota Department of Health Library and Beyond (www.minnesotadepartmentofhealthlibrary.on.worldcat.org/discovery). The abbreviations listed in parenthesis after the source name are used in this chapter.
A. American Association of State Highway and Transportation Officials (AASHTO), 341 National Press Building, Washington, D.C. 20004.
B. American Petroleum Institute (API), 1220 L Street Northwest, Washington, DC 20005-4070.
C. American National Standards Institute (ANSI), 25 West 43rd Street, New York, New York 10036. ANSI Schedule 5 and Schedule 40, "Dimensions of Welded and Stainless Steel Pipe" as contained in ASA Standard B36.19 - 1965, "Welded and Seamless Wrought Steel Pipe."
D. American Society of Mechanical Engineers, ASME International, Three Park Avenue, New York, NY 10016-5990, USA, ASME B36.10M-2000, "Welded and Seamless Wrought Steel Pipe."
E. ASTM International, 100 Barr Harbor Drive, West Conshohocken, PA 19428-2959.
F. American Water Works Association, 6666 West Quincy Avenue, Denver, CO 80235, ANSI/AWWA C219-01, "Bolted, Sleeve-Type Couplings for Plain-End Pipe."
G. National Fire Protection Association, 1 Batterymarch Park, P.O. Box 9101, Quincy, MA 02269-9101, NFPA 30, "Flammable and Combustible Liquids Code, 2015 Edition."
H. NSF International, 789 Dixboro Road, P.O. Box 130140, Ann Arbor, Michigan 48113.
I. Sims, P.K. and Morey, G.B., "Geology of Minnesota: A Centennial Volume," pages 459-473, "Paleozoic Lithostratigraphy of Southeastern Minnesota" by George Austin, 1972.
J. United States Department of Agriculture, Agricultural Handbook Number 18, Soil Survey Manual pages 136 to 140, October 1993.
K. International Code Council, 200 Massachusetts Ave, NW, Suite 250, Washington, DC 20001, "2024 International Mechanical Code (IMC)," chapter 12.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.208; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 33 SR 211; 45 SR 986; 48 SR 447; 49 SR 1261
Minn. R. 4725.0200 Application to All Wells and Borings
Subpart 1. Applicability.
This chapter applies to all groundwater thermal exchange devices, SCLHE systems, and wells and borings except exploratory borings regulated under chapter 4727 and those wells and borings specifically exempted by Minnesota Statutes, chapter 103I.
Subp. 2. Owner responsibility.
The owner of a well, boring, groundwater thermal exchange device, or SCLHE system is bound by the location, construction, installation, maintenance, and sealing provisions of this chapter.
Subp. 3. Licensee or registrant responsibility.
The licensee or registrant is responsible to:
A. verify information and investigate conditions to comply with the requirements of this chapter, including the location of contamination sources; and
B. provide accurate and truthful information to the commissioner.
Subp. 4. Access to information and property.
Upon presentation of credentials, the commissioner or an employee or agent authorized by the commissioner, may examine records or data related to matters governed by Minnesota Statutes, chapter 103I, and section 144.99, of any person subject to regulation under Minnesota Statutes, chapter 103I, and, for the purpose of taking an action authorized under statute or rule, or otherwise identified in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.99, subdivision 1, relating to the enforcement of this chapter, may:
A. enter property to examine the records and data;
B. inspect equipment and material used in performing wells and borings work;
C. obtain and analyze water, air, and waste drill cuttings;
D. inspect drill holes and drilled, sealed, or repaired wells and borings; and
E. inspect groundwater thermal exchange devices and SCLHE systems. This authority must be exercised during regular working hours of Department of Health inspectors with respect to inspections of bored geothermal heat exchangers, groundwater thermal exchange devices, and SCLHE systems, and at reasonable times in all other cases.
Subp. 5. Applicability to delegated well programs.
This chapter applies within a political subdivision regulating construction, repair, or sealing of wells or elevator borings delegated by the commissioner under Minnesota Statutes, section 103I.111. This does not prohibit a local delegated authority from adopting an ordinance which is consistent with or more restrictive than this chapter.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.208; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 156A.01 to 156A.08; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 15 SR 78; 17 SR 2773; 33 SR 211; L 2013 c 108 art 12 s 108; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 136; 45 SR 986; 49 SR 1261
Minn. R. 4725.0250 Enforcement
Subpart 1. Enforcement actions.
The commissioner may take one or more enforcement actions for a violation of this chapter, Minnesota Statutes, chapter 103I, section 144.99 or 144.992, including:
A. issuing a correction order under Minnesota Statutes, section 144.99, subdivision 3;
B. issuing an administrative penalty order requiring a violation to be corrected, and assessing a monetary penalty under Minnesota Statutes, section 144.99, subdivision 4;
C. bringing an action for injunctive relief in district court under Minnesota Statutes, section 144.99, subdivision 5;
D. issuing a cease and desist order under Minnesota Statutes, section 144.99, subdivision 6;
E. denying or refusing to renew an application for a permit, license, registration, or certificate under Minnesota Statutes, section 144.99, subdivision 8;
F. suspending, revoking, or imposing limitations or conditions on a permit, certification, license, or registration under Minnesota Statutes, chapter 14, and section 144.99, subdivisions 8 and 9;
G. enforcing the requirements of a stipulation agreement, settlement, or compliance agreement provided by Minnesota Statutes, section 144.99, subdivision 1;
H. using the license or registration bond to compensate persons injured or suffering financial loss because of the failure of a licensee or registrant to perform work in compliance with duties under this chapter and Minnesota Statutes, chapter 103I;
I. requesting prosecution by the county attorney in the county where the violation occurred or is occurring;
J. impounding a drilling machine or hoist used by a person who is not licensed or registered according to this chapter and Minnesota Statutes, chapter 103I; and
K. using other remedies afforded by law and rule.
Subp. 2. Responsibility for correction.
The person responsible for creating a violation of this chapter is responsible for correcting the violation. In the case of a violation created or constructed by a licensee or registrant, the licensee or registrant is responsible for correcting the violation. The licensee or registrant who files a notification or obtains a permit for a well or boring is responsible for the well or boring's compliance with this chapter, even if the well or boring construction is subcontracted to another person. A well or boring that cannot be corrected, must be sealed and a complying well or boring constructed, unless the well or boring owner, responsible party, and commissioner agree otherwise in a stipulated agreement.
Subp. 3. Time of correction.
Correction of a violation of this chapter must be completed under the supervision of the commissioner during normal business hours, within 30 days of notice of the violation, or as specified in an approved variance, work plan, or stipulation.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621
- History: 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.0300 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.0350 Fees Applicable to This Chapter
Subpart 1. Applicability.
The fees specified in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 103I, apply to this chapter, except:
A. that a federal agency, state agency, or local unit of government is exempt from payment of the fees; and
B. for notification and permits regulated by a community health board delegated under Minnesota Statutes, section 103I.111. Fees are not refundable, except as specified in part 4725.1836.
Subp. 2. Qualification application fee.
A nonrefundable fee as specified in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 103I, must be submitted to apply for qualification and examination for licensure as an individual well contractor as specified in part 4725.0475, subpart 3, or certification as a representative for any of the following:
A. a well contractor as specified in part 4725.0475, subpart 3;
B. a limited well/boring contractor as specified in part 4725.0475, subpart 4;
C. an elevator boring contractor as specified in part 4725.0475, subpart 5; or
D. a monitoring well contractor as specified in part 4725.0475, subpart 6.
Subp. 3. License or registration fees.
An application for an original or renewal license or registration must be accompanied by a nonrefundable license or registration fee as specified in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 103I.
Subp. 4. License or registration late renewal fee.
If a licensee or registrant fails to submit all information required for the renewal of a license or registration or submits the application and information after the required renewal date as specified in part 4725.1300, a late fee as specified in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 103I, must be paid in addition to the fees specified in subpart 3.
Subp. 5. Notification fees.
A notification fee as specified in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 103I, must be paid by a property owner or the owner's agent for:
A. each new water-supply well constructed;
B. each dewatering well constructed, or for a dewatering project comprising five or more dewatering wells; and
C. each well sealed, or for sealing multiple monitoring wells located on a single property with depths varying by no more than 25 feet that are sealed within 72 hours of the start of construction.
Subp. 6. Permit fees.
A nonrefundable permit fee as specified in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 103I, must be paid by a property owner or owner's agent:
A. annually for a water-supply well that is not in use and under a maintenance permit;
B. for construction of a monitoring well;
C. annually per well for a monitoring well that is unsealed and under a maintenance permit;
D. per site for construction of all monitoring wells, regardless of number, used as leak detection devices at a single motor fuel retail outlet, a single petroleum bulk storage site excluding tank farms, or a single agricultural chemical facility site;
E. for installation and injection of water by a groundwater thermal exchange device in addition to the notification fee specified in subpart 5;
F. for construction of a bored geothermal heat exchanger;
G. annually for a dewatering well that is unsealed and under a maintenance permit except that a dewatering project comprising more than five wells shall be issued a single permit for wells recorded on the permit;
H. for construction of a boring to install an elevator hydraulic cylinder; and
I. for installation of a SCLHE system, in addition to the notification fee specified in subpart 5.
Subp. 7. Drilling machine registration fee.
A person must not use a drilling machine unless a nonrefundable fee as specified in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 103I, is paid annually to register the drilling machine.
Subp. 8. Hoist registration fee.
A person must not use a hoist unless a nonrefundable fee as specified in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 103I, is paid annually to register the hoist.
Subp. 9. Well disclosure fee.
According to Minnesota Statutes, section 103I.235, a nonrefundable disclosure fee as specified in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 103I, shall be collected.
Subp. 10. Variance fee.
A nonrefundable fee as specified in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 103I, shall be charged by the commissioner to request a variance from this chapter.
Subp. 11. Electronic payment.
Notification and permit fees for construction and sealing may be paid electronically.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.208; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.122
- History: 18 SR 1222; 33 SR 211; L 2013 c 108 art 12 s 108; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 136; L 2015 c 21 art 1 s 109; 49 SR 1261
Minn. R. 4725.0400 [Repealed, 15 SR 1597]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1597]
Minn. R. 4725.0410 Variance
Subpart 1. General.
A. The commissioner shall grant a variance to any provision of this chapter according to the procedures and criteria specified in parts 4717.7000 to 4717.7050.
B. A person requesting a variance must submit a written request on a form prescribed by the commissioner, along with the nonrefundable fee as required in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 103I.
C. A variance application for a well or boring located in the jurisdiction of a delegated program must be submitted, along with the fee as specified in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 103I, to the commissioner. The delegated program may require a separate application and fee.
D. A variance must be applied for and granted prior to commencing the activity for which the variance is requested.
E. An application submitted without the information required by this part and parts 4717.7000 to 4717.7050 shall be denied 18 months after the date received by the commissioner.
F. Construction, and the conditions of a granted variance, must be completed within 18 months of variance approval or the variance is void, unless conditions of the variance specify otherwise.
Subp. 2. Requests for construction, repair, or sealing variance.
In addition to the information required in part 4717.7000, subpart 2, the applicant must submit to the commissioner, in writing, the following information for a request to vary a construction, repair, or sealing provision related to wells or borings in parts 4725.2010 to 4725.7450:
A. the location of the well or boring in terms of the township number, range number, section number, three-quarter sections, and the street address if assigned;
B. the unique number, if assigned;
C. the name, address, and telephone number of the contractor doing work, the property owner, and the well owner;
D. a scaled map showing the location of the well or boring in relation to all property lines, structures, utilities, and contamination sources cited in part 4725.4450;
E. the proposed depth of the well or boring;
F. the casing type, its diameter, and its depth;
G. a description of the method of construction, grout materials, and method of emplacement;
H. a description of the anticipated geologic conditions;
I. the depth to water, pumping rate, number of persons served by the well, and a description of the use of the well; and
J. information on special construction methods, safety measures, or precautions proposed to protect public health, safety, and the environment.
Subp. 3. Additional standards for variance request from isolation distance.
In addition to the information in subparts 1 and 2, a variance request to part 4725.4450 must include:
A. information on special construction methods or precautions proposed to prevent contamination of the well and groundwater;
B. a description of the age, design, size, and type of construction of any existing or potential contamination source as specified in part 4725.4450;
C. any testing, inspection, or certification data and the name and address of the person supplying the data;
D. information on soil type from a soil survey, percolation test, or soil boring report; and
E. a copy of any review of contamination sources done by a local or state unit of government under other applicable regulations.
Subp. 4. Additional standards for variance to be placed on a deed.
In addition to the information in subparts 1 and 2, a variance to be placed on a real property deed must include:
A. the complete name(s) of the fee owner(s) as the name(s) appears on the deed;
B. the property identification number;
C. the Torrens certificate number if the property is Torrens property; and
D. the legal property description.
Subp. 5. Emergency variances.
A variance may be verbally granted by the commissioner in an emergency where a delay in starting work poses an immediate and significant danger to health or safety.
A. The person applying for the variance must submit a completed application and fee to the commissioner prior to receiving approval.
B. Verbal approval must be given by the commissioner prior to starting construction.
C. Construction must be according to conditions verbally reported.
D. The emergency variance shall be void if construction is not started within 72 hours of verbal approval.
E. All construction and location standards in this chapter, except those specifically modified under the variance, shall apply to wells and borings constructed under an emergency variance.
F. The commissioner shall not issue an emergency variance to persons who have violated the emergency variance requirements.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.05; 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.122; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 15 SR 1597; 17 SR 2773; 18 SR 1222; 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.0450 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.0475 Activities Requiring Licensure or Registration
Subpart 1. Activity requiring licensure or registration.
Except for those persons exempted under Minnesota Statutes, section 103I.205, subdivision 4, paragraph (e), a person must hold a license or registration issued by the commissioner to:
A. construct, repair, modify, or seal a well or boring;
B. construct or seal a bored geothermal heat exchanger;
C. install or remove a groundwater thermal exchange device or SCLHE;
D. construct, repair, or seal an elevator boring;
E. install or remove a well pump or pumping equipment;
F. install, modify, or remove a screen, pitless unit, or pitless adapter; or
G. modify or materially affect the yield, water quality, diameter, depth, or casing of a well or boring including:
Subp. 2. Exceptions to licensure or registration.
Nothing in this part shall prohibit:
A. a person from placing a water sampling device including a well pump or pumping equipment in a monitoring well or remedial well to obtain a water sample if the device is immediately removed after the sample is collected;
B. a plumber or plumbing contractor from installing and servicing a water service pipe according to chapter 4714, from the source of supply;
C. a water conditioning contractor from installing water conditioning equipment within a building according to chapter 4714;
D. a limited well/boring contractor from repairing, installing a pump or pumping equipment, or repairing or sealing a well that the limited well/boring contractor is licensed to construct; and
E. a water-supply system operator certified under chapter 9400 or the owner of a transient, noncommunity water system from disinfecting the public well they are directly responsible for, according to part 4725.5550.
Subp. 3. Well contractor license.
A person must be licensed as a well contractor to:
A. construct, repair, modify, or seal a well or boring except exploratory borings;
B. install or remove a pump or pumping equipment;
C. any of the activities in subpart 1, item G; and
D. install or remove a SCLHE or groundwater thermal exchange device.
Subp. 4. Limited well/boring contractor licenses.
A person performing any of the activities in items A to F must have either a well contractor's license or have a separate limited well/boring contractor license for each of the limited licensure areas listed in items A to F:
A. limited licensure to construct, repair, modify as specified in subpart 1, item G, or seal a dug well or drive-point well;
B. limited licensure to install, modify, or repair screens, pitless units or adapters, and casings from the frost line or pitless unit or adapter to the upper termination of the casing;
C. limited licensure to install a well pump or pumping equipment, or any of the activities in subpart 1, item G, subitems (1) and (2);
D. limited licensure to seal wells or borings, remove obstructions from a well or boring before sealing, remove or perforate casing before sealing, or other activities to seal a well or boring, except that a drive-point well or dug well contractor may seal a dug well or drive-point well, a dewatering well contractor may seal a dewatering well, an elevator boring contractor may seal an elevator boring, a bored geothermal heat exchanger contractor may seal a bored geothermal heat exchanger, and a monitoring well contractor may seal a monitoring well or environmental bore hole;
E. limited licensure to construct, repair, seal, or modify as specified in subpart 1, item G, a dewatering well; or
F. limited licensure to construct, repair, seal, or modify as specified in subpart 1, item G, a bored geothermal heat exchanger.
Subp. 5. Elevator boring contractor license.
A person must have an elevator boring contractor's license or a well contractor's license to construct, repair, or seal an elevator boring.
Subp. 6. Monitoring well contractor registration.
A person must be either licensed as a well contractor or registered as a monitoring well contractor to:
A. construct, repair, modify, or seal monitoring wells or environmental bore holes; or
B. install pumps in monitoring wells. A person with a limited well/boring contractor license to install a well pump or pumping equipment may install pumps in monitoring wells.
Subp. 7. Individual well contractor license.
A person who is licensed as an individual well contractor must meet the requirements for licensure for a well contractor, except the requirements for a bond as specified in part 4725.1250.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.208; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 25 SR 1207; 33 SR 211; L 2013 c 108 art 12 s 108; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 136; 40 SR 71; 45 SR 986; 49 SR 1261
Minn. R. 4725.0500 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.0550 Certified Representative or Individual Well Contractor
Subpart 1. Qualification application for certification to represent a licensee or registrant, or to be an individual well contractor.
Anyone applying to be certified as a representative of a licensee or registrant or an individual well contractor must submit to the commissioner a properly completed qualification application. The applicant must submit written documentation of the experience required in part 4725.0650. Written documentation includes, but is not limited to, well or boring construction or sealing records, letters from employers verifying employment, and work reports.
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, 18 SR 1222]
Subp. 3. Qualifications, responsibilities, requirements.
A certified representative and individual well contractor must have honesty and integrity.
A. The certified representatives, or the individual well contractor, must be named on the license or registration for the licensee or registrant.
B. A certified representative must not represent more than one licensee or registrant.
C. The certified representative must:
D. The certified representative and individual well contractor must annually complete the continuing education requirements in part 4725.1650.
Subp. 4. Loss of certified representative.
When a certified representative no longer works for the registrant or licensee, the registrant or licensee must inform the commissioner within five days of that fact. If a licensee or registrant has only one certified representative and the representative no longer works for the registrant or licensee, the registrant or licensee must name an acting representative until a representative who meets the requirements in parts 4725.0550 to 4725.1025 is certified by the commissioner. The licensee or registrant may operate with an acting representative for no more than 150 days. The acting representative must notify the commissioner during business hours, a minimum of 24 hours prior to commencing work, of the proposed starting time of each well or boring construction or sealing.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.122; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 18 SR 1222; 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.0600 [Repealed, 15 SR 78]
[Repealed, 15 SR 78]
Minn. R. 4725.0650 Experience Requirements; Certified Representative and Individual Well Contractor
Subpart 1. Well contractor certified representative and individual well contractor.
Anyone applying to be certified as a representative of a well contractor or to be an individual well contractor must have four years of experience. A year of experience is a year in which the applicant personally, and under the supervision of a licensed well contractor:
A. worked for a minimum of 1,000 hours. The applicant's 1,000 hours of experience must include drilling water-supply wells, grouting, sealing wells, repairing wells, installing pumps, disinfecting wells, and completing well construction and sealing records; and
B. constructed a minimum of ten water-supply wells; or
C. constructed at least one or more multiple cased water-supply wells with an outer casing diameter of ten inches or more and a well depth or cumulative depth of 700 feet or more. An applicant with experience prior to 2006 must have constructed a minimum of five water-supply wells per year. An applicant shall be deemed to have one year of experience if the applicant has successfully completed one year of education in well construction practices at an accredited college, university, or postsecondary institution. An applicant shall be deemed to have up to a maximum of two years of experience if the applicant has successfully completed an associate or technical degree in well construction practices at an accredited college, university, or postsecondary institution. Supervision is not equivalent to personally doing the work.
Subp. 2. Monitoring well contractor certified representative.
Anyone applying to be certified as a representative of a monitoring well contractor must meet the requirements in items A to C or meet the requirements in item D.
A. The applicant must be:
B. The applicant must have three years of experience. A year of experience is a year in which the applicant worked a minimum of 500 hours in construction, repair, and sealing of monitoring wells, or environmental bore holes including design, field supervision, or actual construction.
C. The applicant must have designed, field supervised, or actually constructed 50 monitoring wells or environmental bore holes.
D. The applicant must have three years of experience in construction, repair, and sealing of monitoring wells and environmental bore holes. A year of experience is a year in which the applicant, personally and under the supervision of a registered monitoring well contractor or licensed well contractor, constructed a minimum of 20 monitoring wells or environmental bore holes, of which at least five must be monitoring wells, and constructed, sealed, and repaired monitoring wells or environmental bore holes for 1,000 hours.
Subp. 3. Limited well/boring contractor certified representative; drive-point wells or dug wells.
Anyone applying to be certified as a representative for a limited well/boring contractor licensed to construct, repair, and seal dug wells and drive-point wells must have three years of experience. A year of experience is a year in which the applicant personally constructed five dug wells or drive-point wells and worked for a minimum of 1,000 hours constructing, repairing, or sealing dug wells or drive-point wells, and installing pumps in dug wells or drive-point wells. An applicant must have gained the experience under a licensed well contractor or a licensed drive-point well or dug well contractor.
Subp. 4. Limited well/boring contractor certified representative; well screens, pitless adapters, and pitless units.
Anyone applying to be certified as a representative for a limited well/boring contractor licensed to install or repair well screens or pitless adapters or units and well casing from the pitless device to the upper termination of the well must have two years of experience. A year of experience is a year in which the applicant worked a minimum of 1,000 hours and personally installed or repaired five well screens or pitless units or adapters and well casings from the pitless unit or adapter to the upper termination of the well. The experience must have been gained under the supervision of a licensed well contractor or limited well/boring contractor licensed to install or repair well screens or pitless units or adapters and well casings from the pitless unit or adapter to the upper termination of the well.
Subp. 5. Limited well/boring contractor certified representative; pumps and pumping equipment.
Anyone applying to be certified as a representative for a limited well/boring contractor licensed to install a pump or pumping equipment must have two years of experience in pump installation and repair. The applicant must have personally installed 20 pumps. The work must include a minimum of 1,000 hours installing well pumps or pumping equipment.
Subp. 6. Limited well/boring contractor certified representative; well sealing.
A. Anyone applying to be certified as a representative for a limited well/boring contractor licensed to seal wells must have three years of experience. A year of experience is a year in which the applicant:
B. The applicant must have gained the experience under a licensed well contractor or limited well/boring sealing contractor.
Subp. 7. Limited well/boring contractor certified representative; dewatering wells.
Anyone applying to be certified as a representative for a limited well/boring contractor licensed to construct, repair, or seal dewatering wells must have two years of experience. A year of experience is a year in which the applicant:
A. worked a minimum of 500 hours designing, constructing, or field supervising the construction, repair, or sealing of dewatering wells; and
B. designed, constructed, or field supervised the construction of a minimum of five dewatering wells.
Subp. 7a. Limited well/boring contractor certified representative; bored geothermal heat exchanger.
Anyone applying to be certified as a representative for a limited well/boring contractor licensed to construct, repair, or seal bored geothermal heat exchangers must meet the requirements in item A or B.
A. The applicant must have three years of experience constructing, repairing, and sealing bored geothermal heat exchangers. A year of experience is a year in which the applicant:
B. The applicant must:
Subp. 8. Elevator boring contractor certified representative.
Anyone applying to be certified as a representative for an elevator boring contractor licensed to construct, repair, or seal an elevator boring must have two years of experience related to the construction, repair, and sealing of elevator borings. A year of experience is a year in which the applicant designed, supervised, or actually constructed three elevator borings.
Subp. 9. Experience outside state.
If all or part of the experience required in this part was gained by an applicant outside Minnesota, the applicant must provide the commissioner with information satisfactorily demonstrating that the experience was gained constructing, repairing, and sealing wells or borings in geological conditions substantially similar to conditions in Minnesota and in a jurisdiction with certification, licensing, or registration requirements comparable to those in Minnesota.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; L 1992 c 507 s 2; 25 SR 1207; 33 SR 211; L 2013 c 108 art 12 s 108; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 136; 45 SR 986
Minn. R. 4725.0700 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.0800 [Repealed, 15 SR 78]
[Repealed, 15 SR 78]
Minn. R. 4725.0900 Council Evaluation of Applicants
Upon request by the commissioner, the council may conduct oral examinations using a standardized examination developed by the commissioner in consultation with the council. Upon request by the commissioner, the council may also provide recommendations as to the appropriate disciplinary action for representatives, licensees, and registrants found to be in violation of this chapter and Minnesota Statutes, chapter 103I.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 156A.01 to 156A.08
- History: 15 SR 78; 33 SR 211; 45 SR 986
Minn. R. 4725.1000 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.1025 Examination
Anyone applying to be a certified representative of a licensee or registrant or as an individual well contractor must pass an examination which may be a combination of written and oral questions as determined by the commissioner with the advice of the Advisory Council on Wells and Borings established by Minnesota Statutes, section 103I.105. The applicant must pass the examination within one year from the date notified by the commissioner that the applicant is qualified to take the examination. An applicant who fails an examination must not retake the examination within two weeks of the failed attempt. An applicant who fails to successfully complete the examination after three attempts must reapply for certification as a representative or licensure as an individual well contractor, according to parts 4725.0550 to 4725.1025, and must not reapply within one year of the third failure to pass the examination. If, upon passing the examination, the applicant is not licensed as an individual well contractor or listed as a certified representative of a licensee or registrant within one year, reapplication as a certified representative or individual well contractor must be made according to parts 4725.0550 to 4725.1025.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.1050 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.1075 Application for Licensure or Registration
Subpart 1. Application for licensure or registration.
A person must apply for licensure or registration on a form provided by the commissioner.
A. The application must include the name, address, and telephone number of the person applying for licensure or registration and list the name, business address, and telephone number, if different, of all certified representatives of the licensee or registrant who meet the qualifications in parts 4725.0550 to 4725.1025. The licensee or registrant must have at least one certified representative.
B. The application form must be signed by an officer or other legally authorized agent of the person making application for licensure or registration.
C. The application for licensure or registration must be accompanied by the nonrefundable licensure or registration fee specified in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 103I.
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, 18 SR 1222]
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.122; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 18 SR 1222; 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.1100 [Repealed, 15 SR 78]
[Repealed, 15 SR 78]
Minn. R. 4725.1200 [Repealed, 15 SR 78]
[Repealed, 15 SR 78]
Minn. R. 4725.1250 Bonding
At the time the fee is submitted for initial licensure or registration, or licensure or registration renewal, the licensee or registrant must show proof of holding a corporate surety bond as required by Minnesota Statutes, chapter 103I. The bond must be submitted to the commissioner. One bond is required for each licensee or registrant. If on proof to the commissioner it is shown that multiple licenses or registrations are held by one licensee or registrant, the bond held by that licensee or registrant may cover all licenses and registrations. The licensee or registrant must be named as the principal. The bond must be signed by an official of the company who is legally authorized to represent the company. The bond may be used by the commissioner to compensate persons injured or suffering financial loss because of failure of a licensee or registrant to properly perform the duties under part 4725.0475 and Minnesota Statutes, chapter 103I. The term of the bond must be continuous or concurrent with the term of the license or registration. The penal sum of the bond is noncumulative and is not to be aggregated every year that the bond is in force. The bond must be written by a corporate surety licensed to do business in Minnesota. The corporate surety shall be responsible for providing 30 days' written notice to the commissioner of cancellation of a licensee's or registrant's bond. If a bond is canceled, a licensee or registrant must not perform work requiring the license or registration until the licensee or registrant obtains another bond meeting the requirements of this part. An individual well contractor, as described in Minnesota Statutes, section 103I.525, subdivision 1, paragraph (c), is exempt from the requirements of this part.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.122; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 15 SR 78; 17 SR 2773; 18 SR 1222
Minn. R. 4725.1300 License or Registration Renewal
Subpart 1. Renewal.
Licenses expire on January 31 of each year and registrations expire on December 31 of each year. Each licensee or registrant shall submit an application for license or registration renewal on forms provided by the commissioner no later than January 31 for licenses and December 31 for registrations. The renewal application must be accompanied by the license and registration fees. A penalty fee, as specified in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 103I, must also be paid if the renewal is submitted after the January 31 license or December 31 registration deadline. At the time of license or registration renewal, the approved continuing education courses completed by the individual well contractor as required by part 4725.1650, or the name(s) of the certified representative(s), must be listed, and the licensee or registrant must provide the bond required under part 4725.1250.
Subp. 2. Failure to renew.
A licensee or registrant who fails to renew a license or registration before the expiration date, and later wishes to renew, must pay all license or registration fees and late fees.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.122; 144.383; 156A.01 to 156A.08; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 15 SR 78; 17 SR 2773; 18 SR 1222; 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.1310 Certification Renewal
Subpart 1. Renewal.
Certification of licensee representatives expires on January 31 of each year and certification of registrant representatives expires on December 31 of each year. Each representative shall submit an application for certification renewal on forms provided by the commissioner no later than January 31 for licensee representatives and December 31 for registrant representatives. At the time of certification renewal, the approved continuing education courses completed by the representative as required by part 4725.1650 must be listed.
Subp. 2. Failure to renew.
A person who fails to renew a certification within two years of expiration may not renew the certification. Requalification for certification must be according to parts 4725.0550 to 4725.1250.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621
- History: 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.1325 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.1350 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.1400 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.1500 Disciplinary Action; Return of Documents
Subpart 1. Commissioner action.
The commissioner may suspend, revoke, or impose limitations or conditions on a license, certification, or registration if the certified representative, individual well contractor, registrant, or licensee:
A. violates a provision of this chapter or Minnesota Statutes, chapter 103I;
B. obtains a certification, license, or registration through error, fraud, or cheating;
C. provides false or fraudulent information verbally, or on renewal forms, construction or sealing reports, water sample reports, or other required reports;
D. knowingly aids or allows an unlicensed or unregistered person to engage in activities requiring a license or registration under Minnesota Statutes, section 103I.205, subdivision 4;
E. engages in conduct, in the course of performing work requiring licensure or registration, that is likely to harm the public, or conduct that demonstrates a willful or careless disregard for the health or safety of a property owner or other person;
F. has been convicted during the previous five years of a felony or gross misdemeanor reasonably related to the business of well or boring construction, repair, or sealing;
G. fails to pay monetary penalties that are assessed according to an administrative penalty order issued under Minnesota Statutes, chapter 144; or
H. violates the conditions of a stipulated agreement, variance, order, settlement, compliance agreement, license, registration, certification, notification, or permit.
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Subp. 4. Revoked certification, license, or registration.
A suspended or revoked certification, license, or registration along with the current drilling machine and hoist registration decals must be returned to the commissioner when the certification, license, or registration is revoked or suspended.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 156A.01 to 156A.08; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 15 SR 78; 17 SR 2773; 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.1600 Reapplication After Certification, License, or Registration Revocation
Subpart 1. Revoked license, certification, or registration.
A person whose certification as a representative, license, or registration has been revoked may not reapply for certification, licensure, or registration within one year of the date of revocation. A person whose certification, license, or registration has been revoked must reapply as required by parts 4725.0550 to 4725.1250.
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 156A.01 to 156A.08; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 15 SR 78; 17 SR 2773; 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.1650 Continuing Education Requirements
An individual well contractor or a certified representative of a well contractor or monitoring well contractor must successfully complete six contact hours of continuing education activities annually, of which at least two hours must be obtained from a continuing education program presented or sponsored by the commissioner. A certified representative of a limited well/boring contractor or elevator boring contractor must successfully complete two contact hours of continuing education annually presented or sponsored by the commissioner. A certified representative with multiple limited well/boring or elevator boring certifications need only successfully complete two contact hours of continuing education annually presented or sponsored by the commissioner.
An individual well contractor or certified representative is exempt from the continuing education requirements for one year following the completion of the examination in part 4725.1025.
An individual well contractor or certified representative who fails to complete the continuing education required by this part, must not conduct contracting, or represent a licensee or registrant, for activities regulated by this chapter.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 15 SR 78; 17 SR 2773; 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.1675 Criteria for Continuing Education
Continuing education must meet the criteria in items A to E for credit to be given.
A. Continuing education must be related to wells or borings, drilling technology, groundwater contamination, health aspects of water quality, groundwater monitoring, geology, hydrology, well or boring construction or sealing, water systems or treatment, geothermal systems, dewatering, or elevator borings. Any other continuing education topic must be approved by the commissioner.
B. The activity must have a specific, written objective that describes expected outcomes for the participant.
C. The activity must be presented by a person knowledgeable about recent developments in the subject. The person's qualifications must be documented by either specialized training in the subject matter or work experience in the subject area.
D. The activity must be at least one contact hour as defined in part 4725.0100, subpart 24c.
E. The activity must document participation, including but not limited to earned credits and verification of attendance. Program sponsors shall maintain attendance sheets for two years.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621
- History: 15 SR 78; 33 SR 211; 45 SR 986
Minn. R. 4725.1685 Advisory Council Review of Continuing Education Programs
The Advisory Council on Wells and Borings may review continuing education programs and make recommendations to the commissioner as to the acceptability for continuing education credits for each license or registration category.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 15 SR 78
Minn. R. 4725.1700 Placement of Decals and License or Registration Number
A licensee or registrant shall place in a conspicuous location on both sides of each drilling machine or hoist the license or registration number in figures not less than three inches high and 1-1/2 inches wide. The figures must be in a contrasting color to the rest of the machine or hoist. Decals issued by the commissioner designating the year for which the license or registration was issued or renewed must be affixed directly adjacent to and below the license or registration number on each drilling machine or hoist. Contractors using small drilling machines or hoists shall attach their decals on a portable display to be shown at the well or boring site. The decals shall be issued by the commissioner upon licensure or registration and renewal.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 156A.01 to 156A.08; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 15 SR 78; 17 SR 2773; 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.1800 Drilling Machine and Hoist Registration
A. Upon licensure or registration, the licensee or registrant must register all drilling machines and hoists and pay a fee for each machine or hoist. Each time the licensee or registrant renews licensure or registration under part 4725.1300, the licensee or registrant must renew each drilling machine and hoist registration and must pay a renewal fee for each drilling machine or hoist. Upon acquiring additional drilling machines or hoists after initial licensure or registration or after renewal of licensure or registration, the licensee or registrant must register the machine or hoist and pay the hoist or drilling machine registration fee. The drilling machine and hoist registrations are concurrent with the license or registration, are not prorated, and expire on January 31 of each year for licensees and December 31 of each year for registrants. Upon receipt of the required fee and information, a drilling machine or hoist registration card shall be issued for identification purposes for each drilling machine and hoist registered by the contractor. The card shall be carried on the drilling machine or hoist at all times where it may be inspected by the commissioner.
B. The registration card and decals furnished for a drilling machine or hoist are not transferable.
C. A person must not use a drilling machine or hoist to conduct activities requiring a license or registration under this chapter unless the drilling machine or hoist is registered, displays the licensee's or registrant's license or registration number, and displays current decals.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.122; 156A.01 to 156A.08
- History: 15 SR 78; 18 SR 1222; 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.1810 Permits and Notifications, General
Subpart 1. Well on property of another.
A person must not construct, or have constructed, a well on another person's property unless a written agreement exists according to Minnesota Statutes, section 103I.205, subdivision 8. The well owner, or other person identified in the agreement as being responsible for the well, has the responsibilities, authorities, and obligations of the property owner specified in this chapter.
Subp. 2. Delegated programs.
A person constructing or sealing a well or boring that is located within a political subdivision with a well and boring program delegated under Minnesota Statutes, chapter 103I, must file a notification with, or obtain a permit from, the delegated program prior to construction or sealing of a well or boring regulated by the delegated program, except that a notification for construction or sealing of a community public water-supply well must be filed with the commissioner.
Subp. 3. Fees.
Notification and permit fees must be paid according to parts 4725.0350 and 4725.1836 and Minnesota Statutes, chapter 103I.
Subp. 4. Reporting measurements.
Depths or heights reported on a permit or notification must be measured from the established ground surface.
Subp. 5. Hours of receipt, valid notification and permit.
A notification is not valid until the notification is received by the commissioner between the hours of 8:00 a.m. and 4:30 p.m., Monday through Friday, excluding holidays, except for emergency notifications and permits according to part 4725.1838. A notification received by facsimile after 4:30 p.m. is not valid until the next business day. A permit is not valid until the commissioner has approved the permit. A notification or permit is not valid unless accompanied by the proper fee. Work regulated under a notification or permit must not be done without a valid notification or permit.
Subp. 6. Transfer of notification or permit.
A permit or notification is not transferable. Only the licensee or registrant who submits the notification, or the licensee or registrant who was issued the permit, may construct or seal the well or boring.
Subp. 7. Conversion.
A well or boring must not be converted to another type of well or boring unless:
A. a variance is granted according to part 4725.0410; or
B. the well or boring was constructed by a contractor licensed or registered to construct that type of well or boring, the well or boring complies with the requirements of this chapter for that type of well or boring, and a new notification or permit, and fee if required, is submitted to the commissioner.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621
- History: 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.1820 Notification for Construction of Water-Supply Wells
The owner of the property where a water-supply well is to be located, the property owner's agent, a licensed well contractor, or for a drive-point water-supply well, a limited drive-point well or dug well/boring contractor must submit notification of construction of the proposed water-supply well to the commissioner according to this part. This part does not apply to the construction of monitoring wells regulated by part 4725.1830; dewatering wells regulated by part 4725.1825; or drive-point water-supply wells installed by the well owner on the owner's property for residential or agricultural use regulated by part 4725.1849. This part applies to water-supply wells, including wells constructed for the purpose of testing water yields for irrigation, commercial use, residential supply, or a public water system.
A. A well must not be constructed, deepened through a confining layer, or have casing installed or removed below the frost line until notification is made to the commissioner.
B. Notification must be made on a form provided by the commissioner, or in a format approved by the commissioner. The notification must be legible, accompanied by the required fee, and signed by the certified representative of the licensee or the owner of the property where the well is located, or the property owner's agent.
C. A notification must be completed for each well.
D. The notification must include the following information for each well:
E. A new notification must be filed with the commissioner if:
F. The notification is valid for 18 months from the date it is filed.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.122; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 15 SR 78; 17 SR 2773; 18 SR 1222; 25 SR 1207; 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.1825 Dewatering Well Construction Notification
This part applies to all dewatering wells as defined in part 4725.0100, subpart 24f, including drive-point wells used for dewatering.
A. A dewatering well must not be constructed, deepened through a confining layer, have casing installed or removed below the frost line, or completed as an at-grade well until a notification has been made to the commissioner by a dewatering well contractor or well contractor.
B. The dewatering well contractor or well contractor must submit to the commissioner a dewatering well construction notification on a form provided by the commissioner, or in a format approved by the commissioner. The notification must be legible and signed by the dewatering well contractor or well contractor.
C. A construction notification must be completed for each dewatering well or dewatering well project including any wells deepened through a confining layer, having casing installed or removed below the frost line, or converted to an at-grade well. The notification must indicate whether the dewatering well, or dewatering well project will affect wells used for potable purposes, and if so, what measures will be taken to provide potable water to persons adversely affected by the dewatering.
D. The construction notification must include the following information for each well:
E. Construction notifications are not transferable. Only the licensee who submitted the notification is authorized to construct the dewatering well or wells.
F. The construction notification is valid for 18 months from the date issued.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.122; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 15 SR 78; 15 SR 1474; 17 SR 2773; 18 SR 1222; 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.1830 Monitoring Well Construction Permit
This part applies to all monitoring wells, including drive-point wells used as monitoring wells.
A. A monitoring well must not be constructed, deepened through a confining layer, have casing installed or removed below the frost line, or be converted to an at-grade well until a permit has been issued by the commissioner to the monitoring well contractor, well contractor, or to a limited well screen and pitless adapter and pitless unit contractor for modification to an at-grade well.
B. A well contractor or monitoring well contractor must submit to the commissioner a permit application on a form provided by the commissioner, or in a format approved by the commissioner. The application must be legible and signed by the monitoring well contractor or well contractor and the property owner or agent.
C. A permit application must be completed for each monitoring well.
D. A permit application for a monitoring well owned by a person other than the property owner must include a copy of a written agreement meeting the requirements of Minnesota Statutes, section 103I.205, subdivision 8.
E. The permit application must include the following information for each well:
F. Permit applications for monitoring wells constructed through a confining layer or into bedrock must include the following information for each well in addition to that required in item E:
G. Permit applications for at-grade wells must include the following information for each well in addition to that required in item E:
H. The permit is valid for 18 months from the date issued.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.122; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 15 SR 78; 17 SR 2773; 18 SR 1222; 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.1831 Groundwater Thermal Exchange Device Permits
This part applies to the construction of a groundwater thermal exchange device (heat pump) with reinjection to an aquifer.
A. A groundwater thermal exchange device with reinjection to an aquifer must not be constructed until a permit has been issued by the commissioner to the property owner.
B. The property owner or the property owner's agent must submit to the commissioner a permit application on a form provided by the commissioner, or in a format approved by the commissioner. The application must be legible and must contain:
C. The diagram must show that the proposed piping system includes:
D. The system must comply with chapter 4714.
E. The groundwater thermal exchange device must be constructed within 18 months of the date the permit is issued.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.122; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 18 SR 1222; 33 SR 211; 40 SR 71
Minn. R. 4725.1832 Notification for Well Sealing
This part applies to the sealing of wells, including water supply, remedial, monitoring, temporary monitoring, and dewatering wells, as provided by Minnesota Statutes, sections 103I.231, 103I.301, and 103I.315. This part does not apply to the sealing of borings.
A. A well must not be sealed until the owner of the property where the well is located, the owner's agent, or a licensee or registrant submits notification of proposed sealing of the well to the commissioner. Notification must be on a form provided by the commissioner or in a format approved by the commissioner. The notification must be legible and must include the following information for each well:
B. A new notification must be filed with the commissioner if a licensee or registrant other than the one listed on the original notification seals the well.
C. The notification is valid for 18 months from the date filed.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.1833 Bored Geothermal Heat Exchanger Construction Permits
This part applies to the construction of bored geothermal heat exchangers, including bored geothermal heat exchanger piping installed in a boring for thermal conductivity testing.
A. A bored geothermal heat exchanger must not be constructed, or have piping installed or removed below the frost line, until a permit has been issued by the commissioner to the well or bored geothermal heat exchanger contractor.
B. The well contractor or bored geothermal heat exchanger contractor must submit to the commissioner a bored geothermal heat exchanger permit application on a form provided by the commissioner. The application must be legible and signed by the well contractor or bored geothermal heat exchanger contractor and the property owner or property owner's agent. The application must include:
C. The well contractor or bored geothermal heat exchanger contractor must inform the commissioner of the proposed construction starting time 24 hours before starting construction of bored geothermal heat exchanger borings. The information must be reported by telephone, by facsimile, electronically, or in person between 8:00 a.m. and 4:30 p.m., Monday through Friday, excluding holidays.
D. The bored geothermal heat exchanger must be constructed within 18 months of the date the permit is issued.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.122; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 18 SR 1222; 25 SR 1207; 33 SR 211; L 2013 c 108 art 12 s 108; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 136; 45 SR 986
Minn. R. 4725.1834 Submerged Closed Loop Heat Exchanger System Permit
Subpart 1. General requirements.
A person must not install or operate a SCLHE system until the commissioner issues a permit to the well contractor installing the SCLHE system, the system owner, and the property owner where a SCLHE is located, if different than the system owner.
A. An applicant must submit a new SCLHE system permit application to the commissioner, according to subpart 2, if a well contractor installing the SCLHE system is not the well contractor listed on the SCLHE system permit.
B. A system owner must provide the commissioner with Minnesota unique well numbers for proposed wells on a SCLHE system permit before construction of the wells.
C. A well contractor must construct all wells used for a SCLHE system within 18 months of the original SCLHE system permit approval.
D. A person must not use the wells in a SCLHE system to provide potable water while the SCLHE system is installed.
Subp. 2. Permit application.
A. The property owner, or the property owner's agent, where a SCLHE system is proposed to be installed must submit to the commissioner:
B. A SCLHE system permit application must include:
Subp. 3. Permit application denial.
The commissioner must deny a SCLHE system permit application according to requirements in part 4725.1845 and Minnesota Statutes, section 144.99, subdivision 8.
Subp. 4. Permit conditions.
The well contractor installing the SCLHE system, system owner, and property owner where the SCLHE system is located must comply with the permit conditions. The commissioner may require additional permit conditions to protect the public health and prevent degradation of the groundwater.
Subp. 5. Permit modifications.
The system owner must obtain the commissioner's written approval before making changes to permitted SCLHE system specifications, including:
A. wells, including:
B. SCLHE in-well piping and SCLHE lateral piping specifications, including:
C. SCLHE unit specifications, including:
D. the maximum SCLHE system design operating pressure;
E. a submersible pump maximum design flow rate;
F. heat transfer fluid additives;
G. heat transfer fluid additive maximum use concentrations; or
H. a plan for monitoring and mitigating leaks in the SCLHE system.
Subp. 6. Installation record.
The system owner must submit a SCLHE system installation record to the commissioner within 60 days of the date of the first successful SCLHE system pressure test. The installation record must be legible and completed on a form provided by the commissioner.
A. The installation record for the SCLHE system must include:
B. A cross-sectional diagram must include:
Subp. 7. SCLHE system maintenance.
A. A well contractor must perform any maintenance of the SCLHE unit and SCLHE in-well piping.
B. A well contractor must ensure chemicals placed in the well to clean or rehabilitate the well or SCLHE unit meet the requirements of and are used in accordance with part 4725.3725.
C. Treatment or rehabilitation chemicals must:
D. ANSI/NSF-60 certified treatment or rehabilitation chemicals are exempt from the requirements in item C and must be used in accordance with the certification for each chemical;
E. A well contractor must ensure the heat transfer fluid and treatment or rehabilitation chemicals are:
F. A SCLHE system must be pressure tested according to part 4725.7075, subpart 4, items A to I, when the SCLHE unit and SCLHE in-well piping is removed from the well and reinstalled or replaced.
G. The system owner must conduct leak monitoring and mitigation according to the plan approved in the SCLHE system permit.
H. The system owner must notify the commissioner electronically within 24 hours of pressure loss or leakage from the SCLHE system piping that causes an alert or shut-off.
I. The system owner must notify the Minnesota duty officer according to Minnesota Statutes, section 115.061, of a SCLHE system leak.
J. The system owner is responsible for the repair and mitigation of a leak.
Subp. 8. SCLHE system disclosure and ownership.
A property owner must notify the commissioner electronically or in writing within 30 days of the sale or transfer of the property.
A. The property owner must submit to the commissioner the:
B. A property owner must provide a copy of the SCLHE system permit to a buyer or lessee of the property prior to the transfer of sale or the term of the lease.
C. A property owner is responsible for the SCLHE system compliance with this part in the absence of a system owner.
Subp. 9. Termination and removal.
A. A system owner must notify the commissioner in writing within 30 days if the SCLHE system is inoperable for more than one year.
B. A well contractor must remove the SCLHE unit from the well and SCLHE in-well piping within 30 days after notifying the commissioner in writing that the SCLHE system has been inoperable for more than one year.
C. A well contractor is responsible for the handling and disposal of the heat transfer fluid according to subpart 7, item E.
D. The requirements of this chapter must be met prior to a well being put into use for another purpose. Conversion to another type of well must be in accordance with part 4725.1810, subpart 7.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.208
- History: 49 SR 1261
Minn. R. 4725.1835 Elevator Boring Construction Permits
This part applies to an excavation or hole for installation of an elevator boring.
A. An elevator boring must not be constructed until a permit has been issued by the commissioner to the elevator boring contractor or well contractor.
B. An elevator boring contractor or well contractor must submit to the commissioner an elevator boring permit application on a form provided by the commissioner, or in a format approved by the commissioner. The application must be legible and signed by the elevator boring contractor or well contractor.
C. The permit must include the following information for each elevator boring:
D. Permit applications for elevator borings constructed through a confining layer must include the following information in addition to that required in item C:
E. The permit is valid for 18 months from the date issued.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.122; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 15 SR 78; 17 SR 2773; 18 SR 1222; 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.1836 Notification and Permit Fees
The fees specified in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 103I, must accompany all notifications and permit applications. Notification or permit fees may be paid electronically and the permit requests or notifications may be submitted by facsimile. A notification or permit is not valid if payment by check is returned for nonsufficient funds, or electronic payment is refused by the financial institution. Notification and permit application fees shall not be refunded, except that a water-supply well notification fee may be refunded to the person who paid the fee if drilling has not taken place, and a written request for refund is received by the commissioner within 18 months of receipt of the fee.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.122; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 15 SR 78; 17 SR 2773; 18 SR 1222; 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.1837 Exception to Notification and Permit Requirements
A permit or notification is not required for installation of a pump, pumping equipment, pitless unit, pitless adapter, screen, or the repair of an existing well or boring if the repair does not involve deepening the well or boring through a confining layer or having casing installed or removed below the frost line.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 15 SR 78; 17 SR 2773; 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.1838 Emergency Notifications and Permits
Notifications and applications for permits may be verbally reported under emergency conditions for construction of water-supply wells, elevator borings, monitoring wells, and dewatering wells, except for monitoring wells and dewatering wells constructed through a confining layer and for at-grade monitoring wells. Emergency conditions are exceptional circumstances where a delay in starting construction poses an immediate and significant danger to health or safety and there is no time for prior notification or obtaining the required permit.
Exceptional circumstances include, but are not limited to, cases where well failure will leave livestock or persons without drinking water, where inaction presents an imminent threat to contamination of the well, boring, or groundwater, where delay will result in collapse or damage to the well or boring, where delay will result in the endangerment of health or safety such as in an unstable excavation, or where such construction is court ordered.
A. If emergency conditions affecting construction of a water-supply well, or dewatering well occur during normal business hours, the property owner, the property owner's agent or a licensed contractor may verbally provide to an authorized representative of the commissioner the information required for notification under part 4725.1820 or 4725.1825. If emergency conditions affecting construction of a monitoring well or elevator boring occur during normal business hours, the contractor may verbally provide the information required for permits under part 4725.1830 or 4725.1835, whichever is applicable, to an authorized representative of the commissioner.
B. If emergency conditions occur after business hours or on a nonbusiness day, construction of a water-supply well, monitoring well, dewatering well, or elevator boring may begin if the property owner, property owner's agent, or contractor, as required in item A, telephones the Minnesota Department of Health and leaves a message on the answering service reporting the applicable information required in part 4725.1820, 4725.1825, 4725.1830, or 4725.1835.
C. A written notification or written permit application and the applicable fees must be received by the commissioner within five working days after emergency notification of the start of construction of a water-supply well or dewatering well, or within five working days after the start of construction under an emergency permit for a monitoring well or elevator boring. The property owner, the property owner's agent, or a licensed or registered contractor is responsible for submitting a written notification or permit and fee.
D. The emergency notification or permit shall be void if construction is not started within 72 hours of verbal reporting.
E. All construction and location standards in this chapter shall apply to wells and borings constructed under emergency conditions.
F. The commissioner shall not issue emergency permits to, or accept emergency notifications from, contractors who violate the emergency notification or permit requirements.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621
- History: 15 SR 78; 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.1840 Unsuccessful Completion of a Well or Boring
If a water-supply well, monitoring well, dewatering well, bored geothermal heat exchanger, or elevator boring for which a notification or permit has been filed is unsuccessful, a new well or boring may be constructed for the same owner on the same property within 18 months of notification or permit approval, without submitting a new construction fee, notification, or permit application if:
A. the construction and depth of the new well or boring is not substantially different from the initial well or boring;
B. the person installing the well or boring submits an amended well and boring construction record; and
C. the unsuccessful well or boring is sealed according to this chapter and a sealing record is submitted.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621
- History: 15 SR 78; 33 SR 211; L 2013 c 108 art 12 s 108; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 136
Minn. R. 4725.1842 Approval of Permit Application
The commissioner shall review a permit application upon submission. A permit shall be issued if the application is complete and is in compliance with this chapter.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 15 SR 78
Minn. R. 4725.1845 Denial of Permit Application
Subpart 1. Grounds for denial of application.
The commissioner may deny a permit application or revoke a permit for construction of a monitoring well, bored geothermal heat exchanger, or elevator boring, or installation of a groundwater thermal exchange device or SCLHE system if:
A. the person constructing the well or boring, or installing the SCLHE or groundwater thermal exchange device, is not licensed according to this chapter;
B. information submitted in the permit application is determined to be incomplete, incorrect, omitted, false, or misrepresented;
C. the construction of the well or boring would not be in conformance with this chapter;
D. issuance of the permit conflicts with statute or rule;
E. a provision of the permit is violated;
F. the well or boring would be constructed into or through contaminated soil or groundwater, and construction or use of the well or boring would result in contamination of a well or boring, allow contamination to spread, or would adversely affect groundwater remediation; or
G. pumping from the well or boring would intercept groundwater contamination and construction or use of the well or boring would result in contamination of a well or boring, allow contamination to spread, or would adversely affect groundwater remediation.
Subp. 2. Notice requirement.
The commissioner shall give the applicant or permit holder written notice of the permit application denial or permit revocation. The notice shall state the reason for denial or revocation. A denied permit application or revoked permit may be revised or corrected and resubmitted to the commissioner for reconsideration.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.208; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621
- History: 15 SR 78; 33 SR 211; L 2013 c 108 art 12 s 108; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 136; 49 SR 1261
Minn. R. 4725.1848 Well Maintenance Permits
Subpart 1. Permit required.
A. Annual maintenance permits are required for monitoring wells and dewatering wells that were constructed after January 1, 1990, and are not permanently sealed within 14 months of construction.
B. Annual maintenance permits are required for wells, including monitoring wells, dewatering wells, and water-supply wells, that are not in use and not sealed.
Subp. 2. Permit application.
The owner of the property where the well is located must submit to the commissioner a maintenance permit application on a form provided by the commissioner. The application must be legible, accompanied by the correct fee, and signed by the property owner where the well is located. The permit application shall include the following information for each well:
A. the name, telephone number, and address of the property owner and well owner, if different;
B. the legal description of the well location; and
C. the Minnesota unique well number. If the unique number is not known, the depth, diameter, and construction of the well must be reported. The commissioner shall review a permit application upon submission. A permit shall be issued if the application is complete and is in compliance with this chapter. A permit shall not be issued for a well that is required to be sealed by this chapter or Minnesota Statutes, section 103I.301.
Subp. 3. Permit conditions.
The conditions in this subpart apply to maintenance permits.
A. Maintenance permits are not transferable. If ownership of the property changes, an application must be made for a new maintenance permit.
B. A maintenance permit is valid for one year from the date it is issued.
C. A maintenance permit does not allow construction or repair that would require notification or a permit according to this chapter.
D. The commissioner may deny a permit application or revoke a permit for violation of this chapter. The commissioner shall give the applicant or permit holder written notice of the permit application denial or permit revocation. The notice shall state the reason for denial or revocation.
Subp. 4. Well maintenance permits.
An annual well maintenance permit is required for an unsealed dewatering well, monitoring well, or water-supply well that is not in use or that is inoperable. The owner of the property on which such a well is located must submit the annual permit fee along with the permit application, or have the well sealed.
Subp. 5. Monitoring well maintenance permits.
The provisions in items A to C apply to monitoring wells constructed after January 1, 1990.
A. The owner of property on which an unsealed monitoring well is located must obtain a maintenance permit starting 14 months after construction of the well and must pay the required permit fee. The permit must be renewed annually until the well is sealed.
B. A maintenance permit application must be completed for each monitoring well. However, a single permit application may be completed for monitoring wells used as leak detection devices at a petroleum bulk storage site or a motor fuel retail outlet. The permit must list each well and include the well location and unique well number. A site or outlet consists of a single continuous piece of property on which the petroleum bulk storage or retail motor fuel outlet is located. The site does not include other properties on which monitoring wells are constructed to evaluate a spill or leak associated with the petroleum facility.
C. Monitoring wells that are inoperable or not in use, or for which no maintenance permit has been obtained 14 months after construction, must be permanently sealed.
Subp. 6. Dewatering well maintenance permits.
The conditions in items A to C apply to dewatering wells constructed after January 1, 1990.
A. No later than 14 months after construction of a dewatering well, the owner of the property on which a dewatering well is located must obtain a maintenance permit for an unsealed dewatering well and must pay the required permit fee. The permit must be renewed annually for wells that are in use.
B. A maintenance permit for a dewatering project of ten or more dewatering wells must list each well and include the well location and unique well number.
C. Dewatering wells that are inoperable or not in use, or for which no maintenance permit has been obtained, must be permanently sealed.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.122; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 15 SR 78; 17 SR 2773; 18 SR 1222; 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.1849 Property Owner or Lessee Drive-Point Water-Supply Well Construction Notification
Subpart 1. Scope.
This part applies to drive-point water-supply wells constructed by an individual on property that is owned or leased by the individual and that is used for agricultural purposes or as the individual's place of residence. The construction, maintenance, and repair of the drive-point well must comply with parts 4725.2010 to 4725.5650. This part does not grant authority for the individual to seal the drive-point well. This part does not apply to drive-point water-supply wells constructed by a well contractor, drive-point wells installed for purposes other than water supply, or to wells other than drive-point wells installed by the property owner or lessee.
Subp. 2. Notification.
Written notification of construction of a drive-point well installed by a property owner must be filed with the commissioner within ten days after completion of the well. The owner of the drive-point well must provide the following information on a notification form provided by the commissioner:
A. the name, address, and telephone number of the drive-point well owner and property owner, if different;
B. the legal description of the well location; and
C. the date the well was constructed.
Subp. 3. Retail sale of drive-point well screens.
A person who sells drive-point well screens at retail must provide each buyer with a copy of the notification form and informational materials provided by the department.
The commissioner shall provide copies of the drive-point notification form and information about well regulations to retail sellers of drive-point well screens.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621
- History: 15 SR 78; 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.1850 [Repealed, 15 SR 78]
[Repealed, 15 SR 78]
Minn. R. 4725.1851 Well and Boring Records
Subpart 1. General.
A licensee, registrant, or property owner or lessee for a well constructed according to Minnesota Statutes, section 103I.205, subdivision 4, paragraph (e), clause (1), must submit an accurate, verified, legible written record of well or boring construction or sealing on forms provided by the commissioner, or in a format approved by the commissioner, containing the information in subparts 2 to 4 within 30 days after completion of the work. A written construction record is not required for any well or boring sealed within 30 days of the time construction began and for which a sealing record is submitted.
A. A new or amended record is required if a notification or permit is required under parts 4725.1820 to 4725.1838.
B. The licensee or registrant must furnish the owner or owner's agent one copy, retain one copy, and submit the remaining copies to the commissioner, except that where a community health board has been delegated authority under Minnesota Statutes, section 103I.111, the remaining copies must be submitted to the delegated program.
C. A single record may be used to report more than one temporary monitoring well, dewatering well, or environmental bore hole if all the wells or borings on the record are located on a continuous parcel of property, the well or boring depths do not vary by more than 25 feet, and the wells or borings terminate in the same geologic formation. All wells or borings must be of the same type. A map must be attached to the record containing multiple wells or borings, showing all well or boring unique numbers and locations with distances and directions in relation to recognizable landmarks.
D. All depth measurements must be reported from the established ground surface.
Subp. 2. Construction records.
Construction records for wells and borings must be completed on a form provided by the commissioner and must contain the information in subpart 3, items A to F, and the following information:
A. intended use;
B. depth;
C. drilling method;
D. casing material, diameter, and depth;
E. bore hole diameters and depths;
F. gravel pack and screen type and depth interval, or open hole interval;
G. static water level;
H. type, amount, and intervals of grout or sealing materials;
I. wellhead description including pitless adapter manufacturer and model if installed, and type of casing protection if installed;
J. date of completion;
K. pump and pumping equipment description;
L. description of the geological materials penetrated by the well or boring using terms in subpart 4;
M. hydrofractured interval if hydrofractured;
N. drilling fluid used; and
O. for bored geothermal heat exchangers, the following additional information must be provided either on the commissioner's form or on an accompanying document:
Subp. 3. Sealing record.
A sealing record must be submitted for all wells and borings sealed.
The sealing record must contain the following information:
A. name and address of the property owner, and the well owner if different;
B. name, license or registration number of the contractor doing the work, name of the driller performing the work, and the signature of the certified representative;
C. date work was completed;
D. the county, township, range, section and three quartiles, and the property street address, if assigned, of the well or boring;
E. a map showing the well or boring location with distances and directions in relation to recognizable landmarks;
F. for records submitted under subpart 1, item C, the location data at the center of the project, the number of wells or borings included on the record, and a sketch map showing the location of each well or boring;
G. a description of the geological materials penetrated by the well or boring or a description of material penetrated by the nearest well or boring for which records are available, using terms in subpart 4;
H. the original well or boring depth, if known, and current well or boring depth;
I. the approximate date of construction;
J. the grout or sealing materials, quantities, and intervals;
K. the casing type, diameter, and depth if present;
L. the screen or open hole depth interval if present;
M. a description of any obstruction or pump, if present;
N. the method of sealing the annular space around the casing, if present; and
O. a description of the wellhead completion before sealing was performed.
Subp. 4. Geological materials.
The geological materials penetrated in drilling a well or boring must be reported. The person completing the record must include the rock and unconsolidated material types, color, and relative hardness. The grain size must be reported for unconsolidated materials and may be based on field observation without technical size measurement. Geological materials must be described using the terms in items A and B, terms contained in the Dictionary of Geological Terms, Third Revision, by the American Geological Institute, or ASTM Standard D2487-00.
A. Unconsolidated materials:
B. Rock:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 33 SR 211; L 2015 c 21 art 1 s 109; 45 SR 986
Minn. R. 4725.1855 Cutting Formation Samples
A licensee or registrant must submit cutting samples as specified in this part when the commissioner determines that samples are needed to provide subsurface geological and hydrological information for the state water information system.
A. The commissioner shall notify licensees and registrants of the areas from which cutting samples are required and provide licensees and registrants operating within the areas with maps or lists indicating counties, townships, sections, or other designated areas where cutting samples are required.
B. Licensees and registrants so notified and supplied shall collect cutting samples during the course of drilling in the designated areas according to the requirements specified. Licensees or registrants not supplied with sample collecting materials but who drill in an area designated for sampling shall notify the commissioner. Licensees or registrants shall collect the cutting samples in a manner representative of the materials encountered. Samples must be taken at five-foot intervals and at every change in geological material type. The cuttings must be placed in the sample bags provided, which shall have an attached tag on which the unique number, owner's name, location, and sample depth must be written.
C. Licensees or registrants shall notify the commissioner within 30 days of completion of work, so that the cutting samples can be collected. Until collected, the licensee or registrant shall store the samples protected from weather and disturbance and segregated by unique number and depth interval.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.1860 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.1900 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.2000 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.2010 Applicability
The general construction and use requirements specified in parts 4725.2010 to 4725.3875 apply to all wells and borings except exploratory borings regulated under chapter 4727. The additional requirements or exemptions in parts:
A. 4725.4050 to 4725.6050 apply to water-supply wells;
B. 4725.6150 apply to dewatering wells;
C. 4725.6450 to 4725.6850 apply to monitoring wells and cased environmental bore holes;
D. 4725.7050 apply to bored geothermal heat exchangers;
E. 4725.7250 apply to elevator borings;
F. 4725.7450 apply to environmental bore holes; and
G. 4725.7075 apply to submerged closed loop heat exchangers systems.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.208; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.122; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 18 SR 1222; 33 SR 211; L 2013 c 108 art 12 s 108; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 136; 49 SR 1261
Minn. R. 4725.2020 Interconnection of Aquifers Prohibited
Subpart 1. Aquifer interconnections.
A well or boring must not be constructed to interconnect aquifers separated by a confining layer or interconnect an unconsolidated aquifer and a bedrock aquifer.
Subp. 1a. Open bore hole, gravel pack, or screen in a confining layer.
A well or boring must not have open bore hole, gravel pack, or screen extending through more than:
A. ten feet of a confining layer, except for the Decorah or Glenwood formations;
B. two feet of the Decorah or Glenwood formations; and
C. 50 percent of the confining layer. The commissioner may establish less stringent standards than identified in this subpart where protective conditions exist or unique characteristics of the confining layer exist, including low permeability overlying materials, favorable groundwater gradients, the presence of fractures or permeable horizons in the confining layer, or reduced contaminant loading in recharge areas. The areas subject to less stringent standards under this provision will be designated on a map published by the commissioner, along with the standards that do apply to those areas.
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, 33 SR 211]
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, 33 SR 211]
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.122; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 18 SR 1222; 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.2050 Use of Wells or Borings for Disposal or Injection Prohibited
A well or boring must not be used for disposal or injection of surface water, groundwater, or any other liquid, gas, or chemical, except for groundwater thermal exchange devices, bored geothermal heat exchangers, drilling fluids, vertical turbine prelubrication water, treatment chemicals, priming water, water used for hydrofracturing, and water used for disinfection according to parts 4725.1831, 4725.1833, 4725.2950, 4725.3250, 4725.3725, 4725.5050, 4725.5475, and 4725.5550. This does not prohibit the injection of air for drilling, development, or sparging.
A. Water used to cool parts of engines, air compressors or other equipment, or air conditioning equipment must not be returned to a well or any part of a potable water system except if permitted as a groundwater thermal exchange device under part 4725.1831 and Minnesota Statutes, section 103I.621.
B. A well may be used for the injection of water to conduct a slug test if the injected water was originally taken from that well or is potable water.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 33 SR 211; 45 SR 986
Minn. R. 4725.2100 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.2150 Required Distance from Gas Pipes, Liquid Propane Tanks, and Electric Lines
Subpart 1. General distance.
The minimum isolation distances in item A or B must be maintained during construction, repair, or sealing of a well or boring, and installation of a pipe with flammable or volatile gas, an overhead or underground electric transmission, distribution, service, supply, feeder, branch, or conductor line hereafter called "electric line" or "line," or a liquid propane tank. The distances are measured horizontally from the closest part of the well or boring to the closest part of the pipe, tank, or line; or closest part of the vertical projection on the earth of an overhead or buried pipe, tank, or line. The minimum isolation distance between a well or boring and a pipe with flammable or volatile gas, an electric line, or a liquid propane tank is:
A. ten feet; or
B. five feet if:
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, 33 SR 211]
Subp. 3. Exceptions.
Subpart 1 does not apply to:
A. an electrical service line for the well or boring;
B. a television, fiber optic, or other low voltage electric line with a voltage less than 50 volts;
C. a temporary liquid propane tank used during the construction, repair, or sealing of a well or boring;
D. an overhead electric line when the repairing or sealing of a well or boring does not involve the use of a drilling machine or hoist;
E. a buried electric line or buried gas pipe when the repairing or sealing of a well or boring does not involve excavation; or
F. a buried electric line or gas pipe when a nonvertical bored geothermal heat exchanger boring is installed using directional drilling technology, provided that:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 33 SR 211; 45 SR 986
Minn. R. 4725.2175 Location of Well or Boring Within Building
Subpart 1. Location in a building.
A well or boring must not be located within a building, and a building must not be constructed to enclose a well or boring, unless the building (well house) meets the requirements of this part. Environmental bore holes and monitoring wells are exempt from this subpart if sealed within 72 hours of the time construction begins on the well or boring.
Subp. 2. Requirements for a building (well house) containing a well or boring.
A building (well house) containing a well or boring must:
A. have adequate access for a drilling machine and hoist to construct, maintain, repair, and seal the well or boring;
B. be constructed at or above the established ground surface. If a floor drain is installed, it must discharge to the established ground surface, a gravel pocket, or a sewer constructed to prevent backup of sewage within 50 feet of the well or boring;
C. not be used to store materials or chemicals that may cause contamination of the well, boring, or groundwater, including fertilizers, pesticides, petroleum products, paints, and cleaning solvents;
D. have a concrete floor sloped to divert water away from the casing;
E. have a watertight gasket or caulk between the casing and the floor;
F. have any door hinged to swing outward;
G. be constructed according to this part exclusively to contain and protect the well, boring, pump, and water treatment equipment and water treatment chemicals; no other uses of the building are permitted; and
H. not be contained in, or part of, another building, except that a well house may be constructed with not more than one wall in common with another building. The common wall must not allow access to, or be open to, the well house.
Subp. 3. Requirements for a well or boring inside a building.
A well or boring located in a separate building (well house) must:
A. have casing extending at least 12 inches above the established ground surface, and at least 12 inches above the building floor; and
B. be located according to part 4725.2185, except that this does not apply to a removable well house.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.2185 Distance from a Building
A minimum horizontal isolation distance of three feet must be maintained between a well or boring and the farthest exterior projection of a building, including the walls, roofs, decks, overhangs, and other permanent structures unless the well or boring is located in a building constructed according to part 4725.2175. A building, deck, or other permanent structure, except a well house, must not be built to enclose a well or boring. The well or boring must be accessible for repair and sealing. Environmental bore holes and monitoring wells are exempt from this subpart if sealed within 72 hours of the time construction begins on the well or boring. A directionally drilled bored geothermal heat exchanger is exempt from this provision if constructed according to part 4725.7050, subpart 3.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 33 SR 211; 45 SR 986
Minn. R. 4725.2200 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.2250 General Casing Requirements
Subpart 1. Casing types.
Permanent casing installed in a well or boring must be:
A. steel casing as specified in part 4725.2350;
B. stainless steel casing as specified in part 4725.6650 when used for a monitoring well, environmental bore hole, or remedial well;
C. flush threaded polyvinyl chloride casing as specified in part 4725.6650 when used for a monitoring well or environmental bore hole; or
D. plastic casing as specified in part 4725.2550.
Subp. 2. Watertight casing required.
All casing couplings and casing joints must be watertight throughout their lengths. Casing must not have holes, cracks, or separations.
Subp. 2a. Casing joints.
All casing joints must be watertight, with threaded, welded, or solvent welded joints, and comply with the standards in part 4725.2350, 4725.2550, or 4725.6650.
A. Threaded joints must have recessed couplings, reamed and drifted couplings, or other couplings that match the design, taper, and thread type of the casing. Thread must not be exposed on the pipe when the casing is joined.
B. Welded casing, except where an approved welding coupling is used, must have beveled joints. The weld must extend the full circumference of the casing and must completely fill the bevel.
C. Welding couplings must be made of material equivalent to the casing. The upper and lower welds must extend the full circumference of the casing, and completely fill the gap between the coupling and casing. Welding the casing to the inside of the coupling is prohibited.
Subp. 3. New casing required.
Casing used in the permanent construction of a well or boring must be new casing produced to the specifications of this part. Casing salvaged from the same type of well or boring within 120 days of installation is acceptable for reuse if it meets the specifications for new casing. A potable water well must be constructed with new casing or casing salvaged from a potable water well.
Subp. 4. Casing markings required.
Steel and plastic permanent casing except flush-threaded PVC and stainless steel casing must be marked by the manufacturer in accordance with casing specifications in parts 4725.2350 to 4725.2550. Markings must be rolled, stamped, or stenciled by the manufacturer.
Subp. 5. Casing testing.
Casing rejected by the manufacturer must not be used. The commissioner may require that casing be submitted to an independent testing agency to evaluate if it meets or exceeds specifications when the casing:
A. lacks markings or has illegible or altered markings;
B. contains pits, cracks, patches, partial welds, bends, or other manufacturing defects; or
C. lacks mill certification papers from the original manufacturer.
Subp. 6. Casing rejection.
The commissioner shall reject casing for use in a well or boring if:
A. the casing is not submitted for evaluation and verification when required by the commissioner;
B. the casing fails to meet the specifications in part 4725.2350, 4725.2550, or 4725.6650; or
C. the lot of casing contains defective lengths, including casing with girth-welded joints, or welded patches, or the lot has more than five percent of the casings with lengths less than five feet.
Subp. 7. Temporary casing.
Casing installed temporarily during drilling is not required to meet the specifications for casing in this part except subparts 2, 7, and 16 and part 4725.2350, 4725.2550, or 4725.6650, but must be of sufficient strength to withstand the structural load imposed by conditions both inside and outside the well or boring, and free of oil or other contaminants. The casing must be removed on completion of the well or boring.
Subp. 8. Inner and outer casing.
The inside diameter of an outer casing must be at least 3.0 inches larger than the outside diameter of the inner casing, couplings, or bell-end, whichever is larger, except that the inside diameter of an outer casing must be at least 3.5 inches larger than the outside diameter of the inner casing, couplings, or bell end, whichever is larger, for inner casings deeper than 100 feet and larger than 12 inches inside diameter. The annular space between an inner casing and an outer casing must be grouted for its entire length by pumping neat-cement grout or cement-sand grout through a tremie pipe or through the casing as specified in part 4725.3050. The inner casing must extend above the established ground surface at least 12 inches.
Subp. 9. Outer casing in unconsolidated materials.
A permanent outer steel casing installed in unconsolidated materials is not required to meet the requirements of this part except subparts 2, 9, and 17, or the material specifications for casing in part 4725.2350 if the casing is of sufficient strength to withstand the structural load imposed by conditions both inside and outside the well or boring, the casing is free of oil or other contaminants, an inner casing meeting the requirements of this chapter is installed, and the annular space between the casings is filled with neat-cement grout, or cement-sand grout. The outer casing must be installed in accordance with part 4725.3050, subpart 3 or 5.
Subp. 10. Casing inside diameter.
The inside diameter of a permanent casing must not be less than two inches for a well or boring greater than 50 feet in depth.
Subp. 11. Casing height.
A casing or casing extension must extend vertically at least 12 inches above the established ground surface, the floor of a building (well house) as specified in part 4725.2175, or a concrete slab, except that the casing for a hand pump may terminate a minimum of six inches above a concrete slab in accordance with part 4725.3250, item A, if the concrete slab is at least six inches above the established ground surface. The established ground surface, slab, or floor immediately adjacent to the casing must be graded to divert water away from the casing. Termination of the top of the casing below the established ground surface, such as in a well pit, is prohibited except that an outer casing may terminate immediately below a pitless adapter installed on an inner casing.
Subp. 12. Casing offsets.
Casing offsets are prohibited.
Subp. 13. Multiple casings.
Except for inner and outer casings installed in accordance with subpart 8, multiple casings must not be installed in a single bore hole.
Subp. 14. Casing reduction and enlargement.
A casing must maintain the same inside diameter throughout the length of the casing, except that a larger diameter pitless unit may be installed.
Subp. 15. Casing drive shoes.
A drive shoe must be installed on driven casing except for a drive-point casing, temporary casing, or outer casing that has a neat-cement or cement-sand grouted inner casing. The drive shoe must:
A. be made of steel or iron, with a hardened, beveled cutting edge;
B. have a wall thickness equal to or larger than the casing thickness; and
C. be threaded or welded to the bottom of the casing.
Subp. 16. Temporary cap or cover required.
Until a well or boring is completed and a permanent cap or cover installed, the installer must temporarily cap or cover the bore hole, casing, and annular space of a well or boring when not actively working on the well or boring, in accordance with subpart 17, or install a weatherproof, tamper-proof cover. An overlapping steel plate is permitted. Tape, pails, loose plastic, or similar covers are not permitted.
Subp. 17. Permanent cap or cover required.
A permanent watertight and vermin-proof cap or cover must be installed on the inner casing of a well or boring. The cap or cover must be constructed of metal or plastic materials having a thickness comparable to the casing requirements specified in subpart 1. The cap or cover must consist of:
A. an overlapping cover or cap;
B. a threaded plug, cover, or plate;
C. a welded or solvent welded overlapping plate or cover;
D. an extension of the casing at least one inch into the base of a power pump; or
E. a sanitary seal or plug with a one-piece top plate, compression gasket, and noncorrodible draw bolt(s). If the well or boring is in a building that meets the requirements in part 4725.2175, a two-piece top plate, compression gasket, and noncorrodible draw bolts may be used.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 33 SR 211; 45 SR 986
Minn. R. 4725.2300 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.2350 Steel Casing Requirements
Subpart 1. General.
Steel casing used in the permanent construction of a well or boring must be new casing produced to:
A. ASTM Standard A53/A53M-04a;
B. ASTM Standard A589-96 (2001), Types I, II, and III; or
C. API Standard 5L-04. Steel casing must have the minimum weights and thicknesses specified in the table in subpart 2 subject to the tolerances in the specifications in this subpart.
Subp. 2. Steel casing pipe weight and dimensions.
- Nominal weight based on length of 20 feet including coupling.
Steel casing up to ten inches in diameter must be Schedule 40. Larger diameter casing must be standard weight.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.2400 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.2450 [Repealed, 33 SR 211]
[Repealed, 33 SR 211]
Minn. R. 4725.2500 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.2550 Plastic Casing and Coupling Requirements
Subpart 1. General requirements.
Plastic casing and couplings used in the permanent construction of a well or boring must:
A. meet ASTM Standard F480-02, except that flush threaded polyvinyl chloride casing must not be used except for a monitoring well or environmental bore hole; and
B. withstand internal pressures of 200 pounds per square inch (psi). Standard dimension ratios (SDR) and water pressure ratings (PR) at 23 degrees Celsius (73 degrees Fahrenheit) for nonthreaded polyvinyl chloride (PVC) and acrylonitrile-butadiene-styrene (ABS) plastic casing equal to or greater than 200 psi are as follows:
Subp. 2. Additional approved fittings and couplings.
In addition to the plastic couplings approved under subpart 1, the following fittings and couplings may be used to connect a steel pitless unit or screen to plastic casing:
A. fittings or couplings with socket dimensions meeting the requirements of ASTM Standard F480-02, Table 3 and having a water pressure rating of at least 200 psi;
B. Schedule 40, slip x internal thread fittings, four-inch and smaller meeting the requirements of ASTM D2466-02; or
C. Schedule 40, slip x internal thread fittings and slip x external thread fittings, five-inch diameter meeting the requirements of ASTM D2466-02.
Subp. 3. Compliance with ANSI/NSF standard required.
All plastic casings, couplings, components, and related joining materials including solvents, cements, or primers used in the construction of a well or boring must conform with the requirements of ANSI/NSF Standard 61-2003e or the health effects portion of ANSI/NSF Standard 14-2003 and be tested as conforming by an agency certified by the ANSI. Conformance to the ANSI/NSF standard must be coded, stamped, or marked on the casings, couplings, components, and related joining materials including solvents, cements, or primers.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.2600 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.2650 Plastic Casing Installation
Subpart 1. General.
When preparing to install plastic casing, a person must:
A. inspect casing and couplings carefully for cuts, gouges, deep scratches, damaged ends, and other major imperfections and not use any plastic casing or coupling having such defects or imperfections;
B. use solvent cement meeting the requirements of the specifications for the plastic that will be used;
C. use only casing and coupling combinations that give interference fits;
D. use plastic couplings with molded or formed threads and thread lubricants suitable for the plastic material that will be used; and
E. use a coupling appropriate for the specific transition intended when a nonplastic screen is attached to a plastic casing.
Subp. 2. Cutting.
When cutting plastic casing, casing ends must be cut square using fine-tooth blades with little or no set or a plastic pipe cutter equipped with extra wide rollers and thin cutting wheels. Standard steel pipe or tubing cutters must not be used for cutting plastic casing.
Subp. 3. Cleaning.
All dirt, dust, moisture, and burrs must be cleaned from casing ends and couplings using chemical or mechanical cleaners suitable for the particular plastic material. All burrs must be removed.
Subp. 4. Primer.
A primer must be used when the type of solvent cement used requires one.
Subp. 5. Cementing.
An even coat of cement must be applied to the inside of the couplings to cover the distance of the joining surface only. An even coat of solvent cement must then be applied to the outside of the casing being joined to a distance equal to the depth of the casing coupling socket.
Subp. 6. Assembling.
When assembling plastic casing, a person must:
A. make the joint with solvent cement before the solvent cement dries;
B. reapply cement before assembling if the solvent cement dries partially;
C. turn the casing to evenly distribute the solvent cement while inserting the coupling into the coupling socket;
D. insert the casing to the full depth of the coupling socket and assemble casing;
E. remove excess solvent cement from the exterior of the joint with a clean, dry cloth;
F. tighten a threaded joint by no more than one full turn using a strap wrench;
G. not disturb the coupling joint until after the solvent cement has set; and
H. allow sufficient time for the solvent cemented joint to set.
Subp. 7. Screws.
Screws must not be used to join plastic casing.
Subp. 8. Drilling inside permanent plastic casing prohibited.
A person must not drill inside permanent plastic casing. Drilling tools such as drill bits must not be inserted in plastic casing. This prohibition does not include the installation or repair of screens or development of the well or boring.
Subp. 9. Limestone, dolomite restriction.
Plastic casing must not be used as an outside casing in wells and borings cased more than five feet into limestone or dolomite bedrock. In limestone and dolomite bedrock, plastic casing may be used as an inner casing if surrounded for the entire length by an outer steel casing.
Subp. 9a. Plastic cased wells or borings completed in bedrock.
A plastic cased well or boring completed in bedrock, whether screened or open hole, must be cased into the bedrock a minimum of five feet and the annular space surrounding the casing in bedrock must be filled with neat-cement grout or cement-sand grout according to part 4725.3050, subpart 7.
Subp. 10. Driving prohibition.
Plastic casing must not be driven. Use of a drive shoe with plastic casing is prohibited.
Subp. 11. Sealing, removal, or replacement.
A person installing plastic casing must either seal a well or boring or remove and replace all casing when:
A. the plastic casing cannot be installed without driving the casing;
B. a screen or pump cannot be installed without force; or
C. the casing fails during construction or pumping of the well or boring.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.2700 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.2750 Screens; Screen Leaders, Risers, and Sumps
If a screen is attached or connected to the casing, the connection must be made by a threaded, solvent-welded, or welded joint, or by a nontoxic packer. Lead packers must not be used. A screen riser or leader must not extend more than 21 feet above the screen. A screen sump must not extend more than ten feet below the screen. The total combined length of screen riser or leader and screen sump must not exceed 21 feet. A screen riser, leader, or screen sump must comply with the confining layer requirements of part 4725.2020, subpart 1a. Multiple screens separated by a screen riser, leader, or sump are not permitted.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.2800 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.2850 Gravel Packs
Gravel packs, filter sand, or stabilizer materials must be comprised of mineral material or inert, nontoxic artificial materials, contain less than five percent calcareous material, and must be graded, cleaned, and washed. Gravel packs, filter sand, or stabilizer materials must not extend:
A. more than ten feet above the static water level;
B. more than ten feet above the top or below the bottom of the screen when a screen riser, leader, or screen sump is not installed;
C. above a screen riser or leader, or below a screen sump;
D. through a confining layer in violation of part 4725.2020, subpart 1a; or
E. through more than ten feet of open hole.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.2900 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.2950 Drilling Fluids
Subpart 1. Water.
Water used for drilling, development, hydrofracturing, sealing, repair, or rehabilitation, other than water from the well or boring itself, must:
A. come from a potable water system or from a well or boring of similar use and construction;
B. contain a free chlorine residual at all times, except for monitoring wells and remedial wells where chlorine will interfere with water quality analysis or remediation; and
C. be conveyed and stored in clean, sanitary tanks and water lines.
Subp. 2. Drilling additives.
Drilling additives, including bentonite, must meet the requirements of ANSI/NSF Standard 60-2016 as determined by a person accredited by ANSI. A drilling additive is a substance added to the air or water used in the fluid system of drilling a well or boring.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 33 SR 211; 45 SR 986
Minn. R. 4725.2975 Disposal of Materials
The disposal of drilling mud, cuttings, treatment chemicals, and discharged water must be according to applicable state and local regulations. Drilling mud, cuttings, and discharged water must not be disposed in a manner that creates a health hazard. During test pumping, discharged water must be piped to a point of overland drainage.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773
Minn. R. 4725.3000 [Repealed, 8 SR 1625]
[Repealed, 8 SR 1625]
Minn. R. 4725.3050 Grouting
Subpart 1. Grouting materials.
The following grout materials as listed in part 4725.0100 are approved for filling an annular space between unconsolidated material or bedrock and a casing:
A. neat-cement grout, except that rapid setting cement must not be used with plastic casing;
B. cement-sand grout; and
C. bentonite grout when used in unconsolidated materials.
Subp. 2. Grouting requirements and methods.
The following general requirements apply to the grouting of wells and borings.
A. Grouting must start immediately on completion of drilling and be completed before placing a well or boring in service.
B. The annular space to be grouted must be protected from collapse and the introduction of materials other than grout.
C. A steel plate, or a nontoxic metal, rubber, or plastic grout basket may be attached to the casing within ten feet of the bottom. Wood, burlap, or other organic material must not be used.
D. Grout must be pumped under pressure into the annular space from the bottom up to the established ground surface or base of the pitless adapter or unit. Grout must be pumped through the casing or through a tremie pipe placed within ten feet of the bottom of the space to be grouted. The tremie pipe may be retracted as grouting proceeds; however, the bottom of the tremie pipe must remain submerged in grout while grouting.
E. Grout flowing out of the annular space at the surface must meet the minimum specifications and densities in this chapter before grouting may stop.
F. Dumping of grout is not allowed except when the depth of the space to be grouted is less than ten feet.
Subp. 2a. Wait on cement.
Neat-cement grout or cement-sand grout must be allowed to set a minimum of 24 hours. Rapid setting cement must be allowed to set a minimum of 12 hours. Drilling, development, or pump operation is prohibited during the time the cement is setting.
Subp. 3. Grouting depth requirement.
When constructing a well or boring with a method such as mud or air rotary, auger, or jetting that creates an open annular space or drills a bore hole larger than the casing or casing couplings outside diameter, a grouting material specified in subpart 1 and the grouting methods specified in subpart 2 must be used to fill the annular space between the casing and the bore hole.
A. If the depth of the casing is 50 feet or less, the grout must extend from the bottom of the casing, top of the bentonite seal as specified in subpart 8, or top of the gravel pack, to the established ground surface, or the base of the pitless adapter or unit.
B. If the depth of the casing is more than 50 feet, the annular space below 50 feet must be filled with grout, except that the portion of the well or boring in an unconsolidated formation below 50 feet in depth may be filled with cuttings. The cuttings must be placed without bridging, and must be the unconsolidated materials taken from the bore hole. The annular space above 50 feet must be filled from:
Subp. 4. Grouting between casings.
The annular space between an inner and outer casing must be filled with neat-cement grout or cement-sand grout according to subpart 2.
Subp. 5. Driving casing.
When driving casing in an unconsolidated formation, a cone-shaped depression or temporary outer casing filled with bentonite grout, bentonite powder, or granular bentonite must be maintained around the outside of the casing. The bottom of driven casing, except for a drive-point, temporary casing, or outer casing that has a neat-cement or cement-sand grouted inner casing must be equipped with a drive shoe in accordance with part 4725.2250, subpart 15. Casing may only be driven through:
A. an unconsolidated formation;
B. sandstone bedrock including the St. Peter, Jordan, Franconia, Ironton-Galesville, Mt. Simon, Hinckley, or Fond du Lac formations;
C. ten feet or less of limestone or dolomite bedrock including the Cedar Valley through Galena groups, the Platteville formation, or the Prairie du Chien group;
D. ten feet or less of the St. Lawrence or Eau Claire confining layers; and
E. two feet or less of the Decorah or Glenwood confining layers.
Subp. 6. Sealing bore hole below screen.
If a bore hole extends more than ten feet below the bottom of a screen, the bore hole must be filled with grout from the bottom of the bore hole to within ten feet or less of the screen.
Subp. 7. Grouting in bedrock.
The additional requirements in items A to C apply to grouting a well or boring in bedrock.
A. When bedrock is encountered in the construction of a well or boring, the casing must be equipped with a drive shoe driven firmly into stable bedrock or the casing must be grouted with neat-cement grout, or cement-sand grout from the bottom of the casing to the top of the bedrock.
B. When the casing of a well or boring extends more than ten feet into bedrock, or extends through any portion of a bedrock confining layer, the casing must be installed in a bore hole 3.0 inches larger, or 3.5 inches larger for casings deeper than 100 feet and larger than 12 inches inside diameter, than the outside diameter of the casing or couplings, whichever is larger, and the annular space in bedrock must be grouted with neat-cement grout or cement-sand grout, except that steel casing may be driven more than ten feet in a sandstone formation.
C. If a cavern more than twice the diameter of the bore hole exists or the grout level fails to rise after insertion of either more than one cubic yard of grout or the quantity of grout necessary to fill ten vertical feet of hole, then the following grouting materials and methods may also be used in the portions where the conditions exist:
Subp. 8. Bentonite seal between gravel pack and grout.
A layer of bentonite pellets, bentonite chips, or granular bentonite not to exceed five feet in thickness is allowed between a gravel pack and grout. The bentonite pellets, bentonite chips, or granular bentonite must not extend into a confining layer or extend more than ten feet above the static water level, and must be poured without voids or bridging. A tremie pipe must be inserted to within ten feet of the top of the pellets, chips, or granular bentonite, and the annular space grouted to the established ground surface or base of the pitless unit or adapter.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.3100 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.3150 Casing Connections and Caps
Subpart 1. Casing connections and caps 12 inches above ground.
A connection or fitting 12 inches or more above the established ground surface into the top or side of a casing must be constructed to be weatherproof and insect proof. The connection, including a cap, cover, electrical connection, water treatment connection, discharge piping, vent, access pipe, or other connection to the casing must consist of:
A. a threaded connection;
B. a welded or solvent welded connection;
C. a rubber expansion sealer;
D. a bolted flange with rubber gasket;
E. an overlapping cap or cover with compression gasket;
F. an extension of the casing at least one inch into the base of a pump; or
G. a sanitary well seal with a one-piece top plate, compression gasket, and noncorrodible draw bolts. The cap or seal must be equivalent to the casing in weight and strength. If the well or boring is in a building that meets the requirements in part 4725.2175, a two-piece top plate, compression gasket, and noncorrodible draw bolts may be used.
Subp. 2. Casing connections less than 12 inches above ground.
A connection to, or a fitting on a casing made less than 12 inches above the established ground surface must be constructed to be watertight, vermin-proof, and provide complete clearance within the internal diameter of the casing. The connection must not be submerged in water at the time of installation. The connection must be made at or above the frost line. The connection or fitting must consist of a:
A. threaded connection equivalent to the material and threading standards of ASTM A53/A53M-04a, ASTM A589-96 (2001), API Standard 5L-04, ASTM A312/A312M-04b, or ASTM F480-02;
B. welded connection for steel or stainless steel casing where:
C. solvent welded connection for plastic casing equivalent to the standards of ASTM F480-02, or part 4725.2550;
D. bolted sleeve-type coupling meeting ANSI/AWWA Standard C219-01 where:
E. pitless adapter or pitless unit meeting the requirements of part 4725.4850, subpart 1. A welded, solvent welded, or threaded coupling, adapter, or swaged fitting meeting the material standards of part 4725.2350, 4725.2550, or 4725.6650 may be used to connect a casing to a pitless adapter or unit.
Subp. 3. Electrical connections.
Electrical wire must enter a casing, cap, cover, or pump base a minimum of 12 inches above the established ground surface except for a well or boring completed at-grade in accordance with part 4725.6850. Electrical wires above the ground surface must be contained within a conduit or the casing. The electrical wire connection through the casing, cap, cover, or pump base must be made watertight and vermin-proof with a compression fitting, gasket, or electrical conduit installed according to Minnesota Statutes, section 326B.35, or caulk meeting the standards of ANSI/NSF Standard 14-2003 or 61-2003e.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; L 2007 c 140 art 5 s 32; art 13 s 4; 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.3200 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.3250 Pumps and Pumping Equipment
A pump or pump base installed on a well must be constructed so no unprotected openings exist into the interior of the pump or well casing.
A. A hand pump, hand pump head, stand, or similar device must have a closed and screened spout, directed downward. The pump must have a concrete slab at least four inches thick extending horizontally at least one foot in every direction from the well casing and sloped to divert water away from the casing. A watertight seal must be provided between the casing and the slab.
B. A reciprocating pump rod must operate through a stuffing box, packing gland, or other watertight and vermin-proof fitting.
C. An oil lubricated vertical turbine pump must not be installed in a well.
D. A water lubricated vertical turbine pump must be lubricated with water from the well or a potable source.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.3300 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.3350 Interconnections and Cross Connections
No connection between a well or boring and another well, boring, water supply system, or contamination source is allowed unless the connection is:
A. protected by an air gap as described in UPC section 603.3.1 as incorporated by part 4714.0050;
B. protected with a backflow prevention device as specified in UPC sections 603.0 to 603.5.23.4 as incorporated by part 4714.0050;
C. protected with a backflow prevention device as specified in parts 1505.2100 to 1505.2800 if the well is an irrigation well used for chemigation; or
D. between wells or borings that meet the construction standards of this chapter, are used for the same purpose, and have equivalent water quality. This part does not apply to a water distribution system after the pressure tank; however, this part does not exempt water distribution systems otherwise regulated by chapter 4714.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.122; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 18 SR 1222; 33 SR 211; 45 SR 986
Minn. R. 4725.3400 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.3450 Flowing Well or Boring
Subpart 1. General construction; flowing well or boring.
A well or boring from which groundwater flows above the established ground surface without pumping must be constructed to prevent erosion of the aquifer and the confining layer. Casing must be installed into the flowing aquifer to prevent water flowing up the outside of the casing. The requirements in this part are in addition to other requirements of this chapter.
Subp. 1a. Low flow and low pressure.
A flowing well or boring that flows 70 gallons per minute or less, and that has an artesian pressure ten pounds per square inch or less, must be constructed by:
A. drilling a bore hole larger than the casing into the flowing aquifer, installing casing into the flowing aquifer, and grouting the annular space surrounding the casing with neat-cement grout or cement-sand grout from the bottom of the casing to the base of the pitless adapter or unit, or to the established ground surface according to part 4725.3050;
B. driving steel casing with welded or threaded and coupled joints into the flowing aquifer; or
C. for a bored geothermal heat exchanger, grouting the annular space surrounding the bored geothermal heat exchanger piping with neat-cement grout or cement-sand grout from the bottom of the bore hole to the established ground surface or upper termination of the bored geothermal heat exchanger piping.
Subp. 2. High flow, high pressure, or special construction area.
A. A well or boring, including a bored geothermal heat exchanger boring, must be constructed according to the requirements in this subpart when:
B. A well or boring meeting the criteria in item A must be constructed by:
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, 33 SR 211]
Subp. 4. Flow control.
A flowing well or boring must be provided with flow control capable of stopping all flow, consisting of a valved pipe connection, watertight pump connection, specially designed pitless unit, or a receiving tank set at an altitude corresponding to that of the artesian head.
Subp. 5. Overflow discharge.
A water discharge from a flowing well or boring that disposes of water to the surface, a surface water body, sewer, or subsurface must:
A. be protected with an air gap according to UPC section 603.3.1 as incorporated in part 4714.0050;
B. have a valve or other mechanism as required in subpart 4 capable of stopping all flow; and
C. have the outlet screened with a noncorrosive mesh screen having openings of 1/16 inch or less.
Subp. 6. Temporary wells and borings.
Temporary wells and borings that flow, and are sealed within 30 days of the time construction begins, are not required to be constructed according to this part, but must be constructed to prevent erosion of the aquifer, drill hole, or surrounding property, and must be sealed to stop all flow with neat-cement grout or cement-sand grout according to part 4725.3850.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 33 SR 211; 45 SR 986
Minn. R. 4725.3500 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.3550 Well Label
Subpart 1. Label required.
A person who has constructed a well must attach a well identification label provided by the commissioner to the well before placing the well into service unless the well is sealed within 90 days of construction.
Subp. 2. Attachment.
The well identification label must be attached to the well casing in a visible location using a stainless steel clamp, band, or strap. Alternatively, the label may be attached to a concrete pump base or pedestal, or at-grade well vault using screws or fasteners.
Subp. 3. Maintenance.
The property owner must maintain the well identification label in a readable condition.
Subp. 4. Removal; reattachment.
The well identification label must not be removed except to work on the well. On completing work, the label must be reattached.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.3600 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.3650 Special Well and Boring Construction Areas
Subpart 1. Plan review.
When the commissioner designates an area where contamination is detected as a special well and boring construction area, a well or boring must not be constructed, repaired, or sealed until the commissioner has reviewed and approved a proposed plan submitted by the installer. Sealing, repair, construction, and location must comply with the approved plans. In addition to the information on the permit or notification, the plan must include the:
A. depth;
B. location;
C. casing type, diameter, and depth;
D. method of construction, including grout materials and grout method;
E. pumping rate; and
F. use.
Subp. 2. Water quality monitoring.
The commissioner may require water quality monitoring by the property owner, well or boring owner, or other person in a designated special construction area if the commissioner finds monitoring is needed to determine the degree of contamination.
Subp. 3. Additional requirements.
The commissioner may specify well and boring location and construction requirements more stringent than those specified in this chapter if the commissioner determines, based on an assessment of hydrogeologic conditions and contaminant characteristics, that additional requirements are needed to protect the public health or prevent degradation of the groundwater.
Subp. 4. Water treatment.
The commissioner shall require the owner of a newly constructed contaminated well in a special well and boring construction area to install, use, and monitor an effective water treatment device if the commissioner determines that the device is reasonably necessary to ensure a safe drinking water supply or monitor the degree of contamination.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.3700 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.3725 Chemical Treatment and Rehabilitation
Subpart 1. Treatment chemicals.
Chemicals placed in a well or boring to increase the yield, remove or treat contaminants or objectionable tastes or odors, or rehabilitate the well or boring must meet the requirements of ANSI/NSF Standard 60 as determined by a person accredited by ANSI. Sodium or calcium hypochlorite may be used if registered by the United States Environmental Protection Agency according to the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA), section 3(c)(7)(A), as an antimicrobial pesticide for use in potable water. Treatment chemicals must be neutralized or removed from the well, boring, and any connected piping systems prior to use of the well or boring. This part does not apply to chlorine or other treatment chemicals added to a water distribution system, or to a drilling additive used according to part 4725.2950.
Subp. 2. Treatment with an acid.
A. Before treating a well or boring with an acid, all confined spaces enclosing the well or boring must be blown out with fresh air before entry and a supply of fresh air must be provided during occupancy. When there is a question of adequate fresh air supply, a self-contained breathing apparatus must be worn.
B. The pH (hydrogen ion concentration) of the water must be measured prior to treatment.
C. The well or boring must not be placed back into service until the pH is within one pH unit of the pretreatment value.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.208; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621
- History: 33 SR 211; 45 SR 986; 49 SR 1261
Minn. R. 4725.3750 Repair, Correction, or Sealing of Wells and Borings
Subpart 1. Repair, correction, or sealing required.
The property owner must:
A. have a defective part of a well or boring repaired, including a broken, punctured, or otherwise defective or unserviceable casing, screen, fixture, seal, connection, cover, or cap;
B. eliminate injection or disposal of wastes, surface drainage, or flood water, directly entering a well or boring; and
C. disconnect a cross-connection between a well or boring and a public water system unless approved by the public water supplier and protected with an air gap or backflow prevention device according to UPC sections 603.0 to 603.5.23.4 as incorporated by part 4714.0050. A well or boring not repaired or corrected must be permanently sealed.
Subp. 2. Materials.
Materials used in maintenance, replacement, or repair must meet the requirements of this chapter for new installation.
Subp. 3. Casing removal.
When all casing is removed from a well or boring, the installation of new casing or the reinstallation of casing is considered new construction and must meet all the requirements of this chapter for new construction, including termination of the casing at least 12 inches above the established ground surface, and compliance with the applicable isolation distance requirements.
Subp. 4.
[Repealed, 33 SR 211]
Subp. 5. Repair of noncomplying well or boring.
A noncomplying well or boring constructed prior to July 15, 1974, may be repaired as long as the repair meets the requirements of this chapter.
Subp. 6. Casing extension on buried well or boring.
A well or environmental bore hole with the upper termination of the casing buried below the established ground surface must have the casing extended 12 inches above the ground surface when the well or boring is uncovered.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 33 SR 211; 45 SR 986
Minn. R. 4725.3800 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.3850 Sealing Well or Boring
Subpart 1. Sealing required.
A well or boring, including an unsuccessful well or boring, regardless of when constructed, that is not in use, and that has not been issued a maintenance permit, or that is required to be sealed according to Minnesota Statutes, section 103I.301, must be sealed according to this part by a contractor licensed or registered according to this chapter.
Subp. 2. Removal of obstruction; debris.
Materials, debris, and obstructions that may interfere with sealing must be removed from the well or boring. Sand, aggregate, or fill materials must be removed when sealing a well or boring, except that:
A. sand from a blasted and bailed sandstone formation may remain in a blasted and bailed sandstone formation; and
B. sediment may remain in a well or boring if:
Subp. 3. Casing grouting, removal, and perforation.
The open annular space surrounding a casing must be grouted by:
A. filling the annular space with grout according to this part;
B. removing the casing and filling the well or boring with grout. If casing is to be removed from a collapsing formation, grout must be inserted so that the bottom of the casing remains submerged in grout; or
C. perforating or ripping the casing and forcing grout through the perforations. Grouting must start within 24 hours of perforating. Perforations or rips must penetrate the full thickness of the casings to be perforated or ripped. Casing to be perforated or ripped must:
Subp. 3a. Sealing with grout, general requirements.
A well or boring must be sealed by filling the well or boring, including an open annular space, with grout or approved sealing materials to within two feet of the established ground surface or floor. Grout must be pumped through a tremie pipe or the casing from the original bottom of the well or boring upward. The bottom of the tremie pipe must be inserted to within ten feet of the bottom of the well or boring, and remain submerged in grout while grouting.
Subp. 4. Approved grout for sealing well or boring in unconsolidated materials.
The portion of a well or boring in unconsolidated material must be filled with bentonite grout, neat-cement grout, or cement-sand grout. The grout must be pumped through a tremie pipe or the casing from the bottom of the well or boring upward to within two feet of the established ground surface. Clean sand or cuttings equal to the volume of bentonite grout may be mixed with the bentonite grout, or poured into the well or boring while bentonite grout is pumped through a tremie pipe. The sand or cuttings must be poured at a rate which prevents bridging.
Subp. 4a. Alternative materials for sealing specified large diameter wells in unconsolidated materials.
In addition to the grout materials approved in subpart 4, a well or boring 16 inches or greater in inside diameter, less than 200 feet in depth, completed in unconsolidated materials, and containing less than 20 feet of water may be sealed by pouring at a rate sufficient to completely fill the well or boring without bridging:
A. uniformly mixed dry bentonite powder or granular bentonite and sand in a ratio of one part bentonite by volume to five parts sand;
B. clean unconsolidated materials including clay, sandy clay, and silty clay with a permeability of 10-6 centimeters per second or less;
C. concrete; or
D. granular, pelletized, or chipped bentonite not to exceed three-fourths inch in diameter along with sufficient water to hydrate the bentonite. Sealing materials must have bearing strength sufficient to prevent subsidence and support traffic or building loads.
Subp. 5. Approved grout for sealing well or boring in bedrock.
The portion of a well or boring in bedrock must be sealed with neat-cement grout or cement-sand grout.
Subp. 5a. Alternatives for grout loss in bedrock.
A. The materials and methods described in item B are approved for sealing in those uncased bedrock portions of a well or boring where the following conditions exist:
B. The materials and methods in this item are approved in those portions of a well or boring where the conditions in item A exist:
Subp. 5b. Alternative materials for sealing specified large diameter wells in bedrock.
In addition to the grout materials approved in subpart 5, a well or boring 16 inches or greater in inside diameter, less than 200 feet in depth, completed in bedrock, and containing less than 20 feet of water, may be sealed by pouring concrete at a rate sufficient to completely fill the well or boring without bridging.
Subp. 6.
[Repealed, 33 SR 211]
Subp. 7. Sealing flowing well or boring.
The discharge from a flowing well or boring must be stopped and the well or boring sealed according to this part with neat-cement grout or cement-sand grout. It is approved to use rapid-setting cement, or to use hematite or barite as a weighting agent in a proportion not to exceed equal parts weighting agent and Portland cement. When a well or boring cannot be sealed as described in this part, the licensee or registrant must notify the commissioner.
Subp. 8. Sealing disturbed.
The casing and grout seal must not be disturbed after a well or boring is sealed, except that the casing may be cut off at the base of an excavation encountering a sealed well or boring.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.3875 Responsibility for Sealing
Subpart 1. Responsibility for sealing, general.
A property owner is responsible for having a contractor licensed or registered in accordance with part 4725.0475 seal an unused well or boring except in accordance with subparts 2 and 5.
Subp. 2. Corrective work.
When a person, including a licensee or registrant seals a well or boring in violation of these rules, the person is responsible for sealing the well or boring in accordance with this chapter.
Subp. 3. Report of well or boring not in use.
A licensee or registrant must report to the commissioner a well or boring that the licensee or registrant knows is not in use and is not sealed.
Subp. 4. Unsuccessful or "test" well or boring.
An unsuccessful or "test" well or boring must be sealed in accordance with part 4725.3850 by the licensee or registrant who constructed the well or boring, unless the property owner has the well or boring sealed by another licensed or registered contractor, or completes the well or boring and places it in use.
Subp. 5. Burial or building over an unsealed well or boring.
A person who buries, or constructs a building over, an unsealed, unused well or boring is responsible for having the well or boring sealed by a licensed or registered contractor.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.3900 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.4000 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.4050 Applicability
Parts 4725.4050 to 4725.6050 are standards that apply to water-supply wells in addition to the requirements in parts 4725.2010 to 4725.3875.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.4100 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.4150 Bentonite Drilling Fluids
Bentonite drilling fluids used to construct or repair a water-supply well must have a measurable chlorine residual at all times during drilling or repair, except for a remedial well where chlorine will interfere with water quality analysis or remediation.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621
- History: 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.4200 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.4250 Limestone or Dolomite Water-Supply Wells
Subpart 1. Applicability.
This part applies to water-supply wells, including private drinking water supply, public drinking water supply, irrigation, commercial, groundwater thermal exchange, and remedial wells completed in or below limestone or dolomite. This part does not apply to borings, monitoring wells, or dewatering wells.
Subp. 2. Plastic casing.
Plastic casing must not be used as an outside casing in a water-supply well cased more than five feet into limestone or dolomite bedrock, except that an inner plastic casing may be installed entirely inside an outer steel casing in accordance with part 4725.2250, subpart 8.
Subp. 3. Bore hole size.
A casing that extends more than ten feet into limestone or dolomite bedrock must be installed in a bore hole a minimum of 3.0 inches larger, or 3.5 inches larger for casings deeper than 100 feet and larger than 12 inches inside diameter, than the outer diameter of the casing or couplings, whichever is larger.
Subp. 4. Use of limestone or dolomite for potable supply.
A. A water-supply well used to provide potable water must not be completed in limestone or dolomite bedrock unless the limestone or dolomite bedrock is overlain by at least 50 feet of unconsolidated material, sandstone, or shale that extends in all directions around the well for a minimum one-mile radius. Limestone or dolomite bedrock includes the Cedar Valley through Galena groups, Platteville formation, and the Prairie du Chien group.
B. The commissioner may establish limestone and dolomite bedrock well construction maps identifying areas of known or suspected contamination, areas with unique hydrologic or geologic conditions, or areas where protective conditions exist, including low permeability overlying materials, favorable groundwater gradients, or reduced contaminant loading in recharge areas. The conditions in item A do not apply in areas designated as approved for drilling on the limestone and dolomite bedrock well construction maps published by the commissioner.
Subp. 5. Water-supply well completed in limestone or dolomite.
Where a potable water-supply well meeting the conditions of subpart 4 or a nonpotable water-supply well is completed in limestone or dolomite bedrock, the following apply:
A. If the static water level in the well is more than ten feet above the limestone or dolomite:
B. If the static water level in the well is less than ten feet above the limestone or dolomite, a bore hole must be drilled a minimum of 3.0 inches larger, or 3.5 inches larger for casings deeper than 100 feet and larger than 12 inches inside diameter, than the outside diameter of the casing or couplings, whichever is larger. The bore hole must extend a minimum of 20 feet below the static water level. Steel casing must be installed to the bottom of the bore hole. The annular space from the bottom of the casing to the top of bedrock must be filled with neat-cement grout or cement-sand grout. The unconsolidated materials portion of the annular space must be grouted according to part 4725.3050, subparts 1 to 3.
Subp. 6. Water-supply well completed below limestone or dolomite.
A water-supply well completed below limestone or dolomite where the conditions of subpart 4 apply must be constructed by drilling a bore hole a minimum of 3.0 inches larger, or 3.5 inches larger for casings deeper than 100 feet and larger than 12 inches inside diameter, than the outside diameter of the casing or couplings a minimum of ten feet below the limestone or dolomite, and a minimum of ten feet below the static water level. Steel casing must be installed to the bottom of the bore hole, and the annular space from the bottom of the casing to the top of bedrock must be filled with neat-cement grout or cement-sand grout. The unconsolidated materials portion of the annular space must be grouted according to part 4725.3050, subparts 1 to 3.
Subp. 7. Remedial well in limestone or dolomite.
A remedial well is exempt from the requirement in subpart 5 to extend the casing 20 feet below the static water level if the well screen or open hole intersects the water table, the casing terminates no more than ten feet above the static water level, and all casing installed in limestone or dolomite is grouted with neat-cement grout or cement-sand grout.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621
- History: 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.4300 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.4350 Water-Supply Well Distance from Water Bodies; Protections in Flood Areas
Subpart 1. Distance from water bodies.
The minimum horizontal distance between a water-supply well and the ordinary high water level of a stream, river, pond, stormwater retention pond, or lake is 35 feet. The isolation distance does not apply to:
A. an area protected by a flood control structure accepted by the United States Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA), as designated on a FEMA flood map;
B. a wetland, grassed waterway, depression, culvert, or ditch holding water less than six months of the year; or
C. an artificial pond holding less than 5,000 gallons of water.
Subp. 2. Flood protection.
A water-supply well must be constructed to prevent the entry of flood water into the well by:
A. extending the casing at least five feet above the regional flood level;
B. installing a watertight seal and extending the casing ten feet above the established ground surface, if the regional flood level is more than five feet above the established ground surface;
C. installing an outer, neat-cement grouted protective casing in accordance with part 4725.6755, subpart 2, item B, extending the protective casing and well casing a minimum of two feet above the established ground surface, and installing a waterproof threaded cap or a waterproof compression seal with drawbolts and a one-piece top plate on both casings; or
D. extending the casing a minimum of two feet above the established ground surface, installing a sealed spool, or flowing well pitless unit, and installing a waterproof, nonvented compression seal. The requirements in this subpart do not apply to a water-supply well located in an area protected by a flood control structure accepted by the United States Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA), as designated on a FEMA flood map.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.4400 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.4450 Water-Supply Well Distances from Contamination
Subpart 1. Isolation distances.
A water-supply well must be located where there is optimum surface drainage and at the highest practical elevation. Whenever possible, water-supply wells should not be located down slope or down gradient of a contamination source. A water-supply well must be constructed as far as practical from a contamination source, but no less than the distances in this part.
The isolation distances in this part are minimum distances measured horizontally from the closest part of the upper termination of the water-supply well casing to the closest part of the contamination source, or the vertical projection of the contamination source on the established ground surface, whichever is closer.
Where this chapter establishes a minimum regulatory volume of a liquid, the volume of multiple tanks, each below the minimum, are not additive, unless the tanks are interconnected without backflow protection.
The minimum isolation distances must be maintained between a new well and a source of contamination no longer in use, unless all contaminants have been removed from the source, and visibly contaminated soils have been removed.
A contamination source must not be placed, constructed, or installed any closer to a water-supply well than the distances in this part.
A water-supply well must be no less than:
A. 300 feet from:
B. 150 feet from:
C. 100 feet from:
D. 75 feet from a cesspool, seepage pit, leaching pit, or dry well, except that the minimum distance to a sensitive water-supply well is increased to 150 feet as provided in subpart 2;
E. 50 feet from:
F. 35 feet from:
G. 20 feet from:
H. ten feet from:
Subp. 2. Increased isolation distances for sensitive water-supply wells.
The distances in items A to F are exceptions to the isolation distances in subpart 1. The isolation distances in subpart 1 are doubled between a sensitive water-supply well and a contamination source directly entering the soil. A sensitive water-supply well must be located at least:
A. 600 feet from the absorption area of a soil dispersal system with an average design flow greater than 10,000 gallons per day, a landfill or dump containing mixed municipal solid waste from multiple persons, a permitted demolition debris landfill, a municipal or industrial wastewater rapid infiltration basin, a municipal wastewater stabilization pond with 500 or more gallons/acre/day leakage, or a liquid manure storage basin or lagoon that is unpermitted or noncertified according to chapter 7020;
B. 300 feet from the absorption area of a soil dispersal system serving a facility such as a hospital, nursing home, mortuary, veterinary clinic, health care clinic, or similar facility handling infectious or pathological wastes; a municipal wastewater stabilization pond with less than 500 gallons/acre/day leakage; an industrial wastewater stabilization pond; a municipal or industrial wastewater spray irrigation area; or a liquid manure storage basin or lagoon that does not have a concrete or composite liner, but has an earthen liner that was constructed under a Minnesota Pollution Control Agency permit or is certified according to chapter 7020;
C. 200 feet from a manure storage area, a liquid manure storage basin or lagoon with a concrete or composite liner according to chapter 7020, or an unroofed animal feedlot holding 300 or more animal units;
D. 150 feet from a cesspool, seepage pit, leaching pit, or dry well;
E. 100 feet from an animal feedlot holding more than one animal unit except as provided in item C; an animal or poultry feeding or watering area within a pasture holding more than one animal unit; an animal or poultry building including a horse riding arena holding more than one animal unit; the absorption area of a soil dispersal system; a privy; a storage area for road deicing chemicals; a sewage, septage, sludge, or waste landspreading area; a disposal area for construction or demolition debris; a disposal area for household solid waste from a single residence; a disposal area for water treatment backwash; an industrial cooling water pond; a gray-water dispersal area; or similar contamination source; and
F. 40 feet from an animal building, feedlot, confinement area, or kennel holding 0.1 to 1.0 animal unit.
Subp. 3. Exception for irrigation well and fertilizer chemigation tank.
An irrigation well used only for nonpotable purposes must be at least 20 feet from a fertilizer chemigation supply tank conforming to the applicable requirements, setbacks, safeguarding, antipollution devices, purging, and posting requirements of parts 1505.2100 to 1505.2800.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.122; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 18 SR 1222; 33 SR 211; L 2013 c 108 art 12 s 108; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 136; 45 SR 986
Minn. R. 4725.4500 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.4550 Minimum Protective Depth
A potable water-supply well must be cased to a depth of at least 15 feet from the established ground surface. The top of a gravel pack must terminate at least 15 feet below the established ground surface.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.4600 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.4650 Sediment in Potable Water-Supply Wells
The following requirements apply to a new potable water-supply well.
A. A water-supply well must be developed to remove drilling fluid, native silts and clays deposited during drilling, and the predetermined finer fraction of the natural formation or the gravel pack.
B. A new water-supply well must not produce a sustained quantity of more than five milligrams per liter (mg/l) of sand, or more than 200 mg/l of silt and clay as defined in part 4725.1851, subpart 4, item A, for potable water at the design capacity of the well, except when geological conditions preclude meeting the standard, and the well owner, licensee, and commissioner agree to accept the sediment in a stipulated agreement.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.4700 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.4750 Lead Prohibition in Potable Water-Supply Wells
Materials used in construction of a potable water-supply well that contact water must not exceed eight percent lead except that solders and flux must not contain more than 0.2 percent lead.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.4800 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.4825 Nonpotable Water-Supply Wells
Subpart 1. Construction.
A water-supply well used to provide water for nonpotable purposes such as irrigation, heating and cooling, or industrial processing, that is not used for purposes listed in part 4725.0100, subpart 35a, must be constructed according to parts 4725.2010 to 4725.5550, except parts 4725.4550, 4725.4650, and 4725.4750.
Subp. 2. Interconnection prohibited.
A nonpotable well or water system must not be interconnected with a potable well or water system except as provided in part 4725.3350.
Subp. 3. Identification required.
A nonpotable well water system providing water to a building with a potable water system, or accessible to the public, must be marked as nonpotable according to UPC section 601.2 as incorporated by part 4714.0050.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621
- History: 33 SR 211; 45 SR 986
Minn. R. 4725.4850 Water-Supply Well Pitless Adapter or Pitless Unit, and Welded or Threaded Fitting
Subpart 1. Pitless adapter or pitless unit.
Except as provided in subpart 2, a connection to a casing of a water-supply well made less than 12 inches above the established ground surface must be made with a pitless adapter or pitless unit. The connection must not be submerged in water at the time of installation. Native materials must be packed tightly around the pitless adapter or pitless unit to the ground surface. The pitless adapter or pitless unit must:
A. be constructed to provide complete clearance within the internal diameter of the casing;
B. be designed to be field-welded by holding the welding rod in a vertical or horizontal position, or bench-welded before field installation with a material as corrosion-resistant as the parent material;
C. have all threaded joints watertight with no threads exposed;
D. impart no taste, odor, or toxic material to the water; and
E. connect to the casing by a threaded connection, welded connection, bolted flange with gasket, clamp and gasket, or compression gasket. A welded, solvent welded, or threaded coupling, adapter, or swaged fitting meeting the material standards of part 4725.2350, 4725.2550, or 4725.6650 may be used to connect a casing to a pitless adapter or unit. Additionally, a pitless unit using a compression seal must provide for the well casing to extend at least 2.5 inches into the throat of the pitless unit. The compression collar must be held in place with corrosion-resistant bolts, nuts, and washers. The installer of a clamp-on or weld-on pitless adapter must use a guide or template for cutting the hole in the casing to accommodate the pitless adapter.
Subp. 2. Welded or threaded fitting.
A welded or threaded fitting meeting the requirements of part 4725.3150, subpart 2, may be connected to the side, cap, or cover of a water-supply well casing and be used for venting, remediation, measurement of water levels or testing, treatment, or for an electrical connection. A water discharge line must be connected with a pitless unit or pitless adapter.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621
- History: 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.4900 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.4950 [Repealed, 33 SR 211]
[Repealed, 33 SR 211]
Minn. R. 4725.5000 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.5050 Priming Water-Supply Well Pumps
A pump that requires priming for ordinary use must not be installed on a water-supply well unless the well is only used for a water irrigation system. An irrigation well pump must be primed only with water free of contamination and carrying a measurable chlorine residual. An irrigation well equipped with a centrifugal pump may be primed without chlorination when the pump is filled with water taken directly from the well.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.5100 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.5150 Water-Supply Well Suction Line
Subpart 1. Construction.
As specified in UPC section 604.1 as incorporated by part 4714.0050, a suction line for a water-supply well must be constructed of:
A. copper;
B. galvanized iron or steel;
C. cast iron; or
D. plastic pipe. For well water irrigation systems, aluminum pipe may also be used.
Subp. 2. Extensions.
A suction line extending outside the well casing must be protected by being:
A. fully exposed in a building as specified in part 4725.2175;
B. fully exposed above the established ground surface; or
C. installed within an outer, concentric pipe with the annular space between the pipes filled with water from the system and maintained at system pressure.
Subp. 3. Exception.
An unprotected suction line may be installed below the established ground surface for an irrigation well if the well is:
A. located in an agricultural field;
B. installed in an unconfined aquifer in unconsolidated material; and
C. used for a manifold collection system under negative pressure.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 33 SR 211; 45 SR 986
Minn. R. 4725.5200 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.5250 Water-Supply Well Pump Discharge Lines
A buried discharge line between a water-supply well casing and the pressure tank in an installation, including a deep well turbine or a submersible pump, must not be under negative pressure at any time. If a check valve is installed in a buried water line between the well casing and the pressure tank, the water line between the well casing and the check valve must meet the requirements of part 4725.5150 unless equipped with a vacuum release or combination air release and vacuum release device located between the check valve and the well. Pump discharge lines must be constructed of materials approved in part 4725.5150, subpart 1.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.5300 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.5350 Pressure Tanks for Water-Supply Wells
Subpart 1. Venting.
A pressure relief or air release valve on a pressure tank that contains subterranean gas and is located in a building must be vented to the outside.
Subp. 2. Buried tanks.
A buried or partially buried pressure tank installed on a water-supply well must:
A. be identified with the manufacturer's name, a serial number, the allowable working pressure, and the year fabricated;
B. have an interior coating that complies with ANSI/NSF Standard 61-2003e if the tank has an interior coating in contact with water;
C. have a minimum one-fourth inch wall thickness for a steel pitless adapter tank attached directly to the well casing;
D. have all connections to the pressure tank welded or threaded; and
E. be installed above the water table.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.5400 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.5450 Venting Water-Supply Wells
Subpart 1. Venting exceptions.
A water-supply well must be vented unless the well:
A. is a flowing well;
B. casing is used as a suction pipe;
C. has a packer jet assembly;
D. is used as a remedial well; or
E. is constructed with a watertight seal in lieu of a casing extension as specified in part 4725.4350, subpart 2.
Subp. 2. Vent construction.
A well vent must:
A. be constructed of materials complying with parts 4725.2250 to 4725.2650, or 4725.5150, subpart 1;
B. have watertight joints and terminate at least five feet above the regional flood level unless provided with a watertight seal as specified in part 4725.4350, subpart 2;
C. terminate a minimum of 12 inches above the established ground surface or the floor of a building as specified in part 4725.2175, except that a vent for a community public water-supply well must terminate a minimum of 18 inches above the established ground surface and the floor of a building as specified in part 4725.2175;
D. be screened with a noncorrosive mesh screen having openings of 1/16 inch or less and pointed downward; and
E. be connected to the casing according to part 4725.4850.
Subp. 3. Screened vents.
A screened vent incorporated into the underside of a well cap or cover may be used.
Subp. 4. Gas.
Any toxic or flammable gas must be vented from the well to the outside atmosphere.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.5475 Hydrofracturing Water-Supply Wells
Subpart 1. Scope.
This part applies to hydrofracturing a water-supply well, as defined in part 4725.0100, subpart 30f. A remedial water-supply well, or other well or boring regulated by this chapter, must not be hydrofractured. Hydrofracturing must be done by a well contractor licensed according to Minnesota Statutes, section 103I.525.
Subp. 2. Injection materials, water, and proppants.
A. Water used for hydrofracturing must be potable water containing a chlorine residual. The use of surface water, unless obtained from a public water system, is prohibited.
B. Additives must meet the requirements of ANSI/NSF Standard 60 as determined by a person accredited by ANSI.
C. Proppants may be used to hold the joints and fractures open, and must be inert, clean, and nontoxic materials, including chlorinated, noncalcareous, washed sand.
Subp. 3. Restrictions.
The following restrictions apply when hydrofracturing.
A. The upper packer must be a minimum of 50 feet below the established ground surface.
B. Hydrofracturing must not occur inside a casing. The upper packer must be a minimum of ten feet below the lower termination of a casing.
C. Hydrofracturing must only be done in igneous or metamorphic bedrock.
D. A water-supply well must not be hydrofractured unless located according to the isolation distances in parts 4725.4350 and 4725.4450.
Subp. 4. Requirements.
The following requirements apply when hydrofracturing. The person hydrofracturing must:
A. remove additives injected during hydrofracturing;
B. disinfect a hydrofractured water-supply well upon completion of hydrofracturing, according to part 4725.5550;
C. collect a water sample from a hydrofractured water-supply well used for drinking or other potable purposes, and test the sample according to part 4725.5650; and
D. complete and submit a well and boring construction record, or amended record, within 30 days of completion of hydrofracturing.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.208; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621
- History: 33 SR 211; 45 SR 986; 49 SR 1261
Minn. R. 4725.5500 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.5550 Water-Supply Well Disinfection
Subpart 1. Disinfection procedure.
A water-supply well must be disinfected according to this part. A disinfection procedure is presumed adequate when one or more water samples collected as specified in part 4725.5650 indicate the absence of total coliform bacteria.
Subp. 2. Disinfection of new well or pump.
A person installing a new well or pump must ensure that the well is pumped until three volumes of the water contained in the well are pumped or until the water is as clear as groundwater conditions allow. After pumping, the person installing a new well or new pumping equipment must disinfect the well and pumping equipment with chlorine at a concentration sufficient to produce at least 50 parts per million of free chlorine in all parts of the well. The chlorine solution must contact the well surfaces above the static water level. The chlorine solution must remain in the well at least two hours before pumping all the chlorinated water from the well and the solution from the distribution system.
Subp. 3. Disinfection during repair or modification.
A person repairing or modifying a well or pump must disinfect the well as specified in subpart 2 or disinfect at the start of the repair or reconditioning by applying chlorine at a concentration sufficient to produce 200 parts per million free chlorine in all parts of the well for the period of the well repair or reconditioning operation. Before taking water samples or returning the well to use, all chlorinated water must be pumped from the well and distribution system.
Subp. 4. Disinfection materials.
Chlorine materials must meet the requirements of ANSI/NSF Standard 60 as determined by a person accredited by ANSI or be registered by the United States Environmental Protection Agency according to the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA), section 3(c)(7)(A), as an antimicrobial pesticide for use in potable water. Chlorine compounds with additives such as perfumes or algaecides must not be used for disinfection. An alternate disinfection material may be used if the material is a biocide meeting the material and use standards of this part and provides biocidal activity equivalent to the chlorine concentrations and contact times required in this part.
Subp. 5. Chlorine in solid form.
Chlorine compounds in solid form used to comply with subparts 2 and 3 must be dissolved in potable water prior to placement in a water-supply well or circulated in the well to contact all well surfaces above the static water level, except that:
A. additional solid chlorine in excess of that necessary to produce the free chlorine required in subpart 2 or 3 may be added; and
B. solid chlorine may be used to disinfect a flowing well by placing the solid in the bottom of the well.
Subp. 6. Remedial well exemption.
The requirement to disinfect a water-supply well does not apply to a remedial well if the disinfection will interfere with water quality analysis or create dangerous reactions with contaminants.
Subp. 7. SCLHE exemption.
This part does not apply to a submersible pump installed within a SCLHE system that does not discharge water to the surface or a distribution system.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.208; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621
- History: 33 SR 211; 45 SR 986; 49 SR 1261
Minn. R. 4725.5600 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.5650 Water Quality Samples from Newly Constructed Potable Water-Supply Well
Within 30 days of completion and before the use of a newly constructed potable water-supply well, the person constructing the well must assure that a water sample is collected from the well. A water sample is not required from a new pump installation in an existing well, or a well repair, unless a notification must be submitted according to part 4725.1820, item A.
A. The person constructing the well must inform the well owner that until analysis of one or more water samples from the well indicates the absence of total coliform bacteria, and the nitrate-nitrogen and arsenic analysis have been completed and reported, the well must not be used for human consumption.
B. The person constructing the well must assure that water samples are properly collected and submitted to a laboratory certified under parts 4740.2010 to 4740.2120. The laboratory must be certified to analyze total coliform bacteria nitrate-nitrogen, and arsenic, under the safe drinking water program test category. The laboratory reporting limit must be no greater than 1.0 milligrams per liter for nitrate-nitrogen, and no greater than 2.0 micrograms per liter for arsenic.
C. The sample must be analyzed for total coliform bacteria, arsenic, and nitrate-nitrogen. The person constructing the well must assure that the property owner and the commissioner receive a legible, reproducible copy of the analysis results within 30 days of analysis. The copy of analysis results sent to the commissioner must include the unique well number, the property owner's name and address, and the dates of sample collection and analysis.
D. If a water sample collected according to this part, or a water sample collected by the commissioner from a newly constructed potable water-supply well indicates the presence of total coliform bacteria, the person constructing the well is responsible for actions needed to eliminate possible causes of total coliform bacteria, redisinfect the well, and resample for total coliform bacteria.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 144.97; 144.98; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 31 SR 446; 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.5675 [Repealed, 33 SR 211]
[Repealed, 33 SR 211]
Minn. R. 4725.5700 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.5750 Dug Water-Supply Wells
Subpart 1. Construction.
A dug well must be constructed to comply with all requirements of this chapter including the materials, grouting, and casing standards. Where geological conditions preclude the possibility of completing a water-supply well with conventional drilling methods, materials, or casing, a variance may be granted under part 4725.0410 to install a dug well for a residential water supply using unconventional techniques or materials. A dug water-supply well may only be constructed in an unconsolidated formation.
Subp. 2. Cover.
A dug water-supply well must be protected with a cap or cover meeting the requirements of part 4725.3150, subpart 1, or a precast, overlapping, steel-reinforced, concrete cover at least four inches in thickness, or a locked, overlapping, metal cover at least 3/16 inch in thickness. The junction of cover with the well casing must be made with a watertight gasket and must be provided with a well vent according to part 4725.5450.
Subp. 3. Watertight openings.
A pump opening and a connection below the established ground surface for a dug water-supply well must be made watertight according to part 4725.4850, subpart 1, or with concrete or cement.
Subp. 4. Location.
Unless a dug water-supply well is grouted from the surface to a depth of 50 feet or through a confining layer, the well must be located according to part 4725.4450, subpart 2.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.5800 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.5825 Public Water-Supply Wells
Subpart 1. Requirements.
In addition to the requirements of parts 4725.2010 to 4725.5650, a water-supply well used to provide water for a noncommunity or community water system must comply with the requirements in subparts 2 to 6.
Subp. 2. Notification of drilling required.
The licensee must notify the commissioner of the proposed construction starting time of a community or noncommunity public water-supply well 24 hours in advance of beginning construction. The information may be placed on the notification form required in part 4725.1820 or may be reported by telephone, facsimile, or in person. The notification must be made between 8:00 a.m. and 4:30 p.m., Monday through Friday, excluding holidays.
Subp. 3. Additional disinfection or development required.
A public water-supply well constructed in an unconsolidated formation using a rotary or other method that creates an annular space and uses a bentonite drilling fluid, in addition to the disinfection requirements of part 4725.5550, must be either:
A. disinfected upon completion of drilling and prior to grouting by placing a minimum 200 mg/l free chlorine solution in the bottom of the well and circulating the solution both inside the casing and in the annular space to the established ground surface for a minimum of 30 minutes; or
B. developed by agitating and forcing water out of the screen for a minimum of one hour.
Subp. 4. Grouting required.
A public water-supply well constructed with a method that creates an open annular space must be grouted as specified in part 4725.3050 from within ten feet of the lower termination of the casing to the established ground surface or base of the pitless adapter or unit. Casing may be driven according to part 4725.3050, subpart 5.
Subp. 5. Sampling faucet required.
A sampling faucet must be installed for each new public water-supply well. The faucet must be:
A. metal;
B. installed a minimum of 12 inches above the established ground surface or floor; and
C. installed before any treatment devices and between the well and water storage.
Subp. 6. Conversion to a public water-supply well.
A well, previously not used as a public water-supply well, may be used as a noncommunity or community public water-supply well only if the well meets the standards of this chapter. Plans and specifications must be submitted to, and approved by, the commissioner prior to use as a public water-supply well. This provision is not meant to be used for the construction of a "test" well or environmental bore hole converted to a public water-supply well in order to circumvent the notification, inspection, and plan approval requirements of this chapter.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621
- History: 33 SR 211; 45 SR 986
Minn. R. 4725.5850 Community Public Water-Supply Wells
Subpart 1. Requirements.
In addition to the requirements of parts 4725.2010 to 4725.5825, a public water-supply well used to provide water for a community water system must comply with the requirements in subparts 1a to 8.
Subp. 1a. Approval of plans and specifications.
A licensee must not construct or materially alter a well, including adding or removing casing below the frost line for a well providing water to a community water system, until plans and specifications have been approved according to part 4720.0010.
Subp. 2. Site approval.
A licensee must not construct a well for a community public water system until the site has been approved by the commissioner.
Subp. 3. Contamination sources.
A well for a community public water system must be located according to the distances specified in parts 4725.2150, 4725.2185, 4725.4350, and 4725.4450, but in no case less than 50 feet from a source of contamination except:
A. the minimum isolation distance is 20 feet for contamination sources listed in part 4725.4450, subpart 1, item G, subitems (2), (3), (8), (9), (11), and (12);
B. the minimum isolation distance is 20 feet to an aboveground petroleum storage tank holding less than 1,100 gallons used for emergency pumping of a community public supply well if the petroleum storage tank:
C. the minimum isolation distance is ten feet for contamination sources listed in part 4725.4450, subpart 1, item H, subitem (1); and
D. there is no minimum distance to a pipe or conduit carrying only clear water from a floor drain in a community well house to a gravel pocket or French drain.
Subp. 4. Flood protection.
A. The established ground surface at the well site must be at least two feet above the highest known water elevation of a lake, pond, river, stream, or other body of surface water, the waters of which at the highest level would approach to within 50 feet measured horizontally of the well.
B. The established ground surface must be sloped to drain away from the well and be graded to prevent the accumulation and retention of surface water within 50 feet of the well. Filling must be protected from erosion by riprap or other suitable means.
Subp. 5. Casing height.
The casing or casing extension must extend vertically at least 12 inches above the established ground surface, floor, or slab according to part 4725.2250, subpart 11.
Subp. 6. Casing vent.
Casing vents must be constructed in accordance with parts 4725.4850 and 4725.5450 and terminate a minimum of 18 inches above the established ground surface or floor of a building as specified in part 4725.2175.
Subp. 7. Property ownership or easement required.
The owner of a community public water-supply well must own or legally control, through a permanent easement, the property within a 50-foot radius of the well.
Subp. 8. Radial water collectors.
Projection of radial water collectors must be in areas and at depths approved by the commissioner.
A. The exact location of caisson construction joints and porthole assemblies must be indicated on the submitted plans.
B. The caisson wall must be reinforced.
C. Procedures must be used that assure minimum vertical rise of the collectors.
D. The top of the caisson must be covered with a watertight floor.
E. Pump or other openings through the floor must have a minimum four-inch high curbing.
F. Pump discharge piping must not be placed through the caisson walls.
G. There must be no construction joint within 15 feet of the established ground surface.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.5900 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.6000 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.6050 Remedial Wells
Subpart 1. Additional requirements.
In addition to the general standards in parts 4725.2010 to 4725.3875, and the standards for water-supply wells, in parts 4725.4050 to 4725.5550, a remedial well must:
A. have spark arresters installed if petroleum products or other flammable or explosive materials are present;
B. be equipped with a casing vent or collect and treat gases, if toxic or flammable gases are present; and
C. have connections protected with an air gap or back flow prevention device as specified in UPC sections 602.0 to 603.5.23.4 as incorporated by part 4714.0050 if the well discharges to a sewer or surface water.
Subp. 2. Exemptions.
A remedial well is exempt from:
A. the distance from contamination source requirements in parts 4725.4350, subpart 1, and 4725.4450;
B. the minimum protective depth requirements in part 4725.4550;
C. the requirement in part 4725.2250, subpart 11, to extend the casing 12 inches above the established ground surface if the remedial well is constructed according to part 4725.6850 for at-grade construction;
D. the requirement in part 4725.4250, subpart 5, to extend the casing 20 feet below the static water level if the well screen or open hole intersects the water table, the casing terminates no more than ten feet above the static water level, and all casing installed in limestone or dolomite is grouted with neat-cement grout or cement-sand grout;
E. the venting requirements in part 4725.5450, except as provided in subpart 1, item B; and
F. the disinfection requirements in part 4725.5550 where disinfection will interfere with water quality analysis or create dangerous reactions with contaminants.
Subp. 3. Screen or open hole across an unconsolidated formation and bedrock contact.
A remedial well that is constructed to remove contaminants from the water surface by placing a screen or open hole across the contact of an unconsolidated formation and bedrock is exempt from the requirements of part 4725.2020, subpart 1, if the screen or open hole:
A. intersects the water surface of an unconfined aquifer;
B. does not penetrate a confining layer; and
C. does not extend more than 20 feet into bedrock.
Subp. 4. Stainless steel casing.
A remedial well may be constructed with stainless steel casing meeting ASTM Standard A312/312M-04b, having at least ANSI Schedule 5 for welded joints, and ANSI Schedule 40 for threaded joints.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 33 SR 211; 45 SR 986
Minn. R. 4725.6100 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.6150 Dewatering Well
Subpart 1. Scope.
This part applies to a dewatering well as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 103I.005, subdivision 4a. A dewatering well must be constructed, repaired, maintained, and sealed in accordance with the general standards in parts 4725.2010 to 4725.3875, and the requirements of this part. A dewatering well must not be used for a purpose other than dewatering. A dewatering well is exempt from the provisions in parts 4725.4050 to 4725.6050.
Subp. 2. General construction requirements.
A discharge from a dewatering system must not connect to a potable water system.
Subp. 3. At-grade dewatering wells.
A dewatering well cased and completed at-grade must conform to part 4725.6850.
Subp. 4. Loss of potable supply.
A licensee who installs a dewatering well that causes the loss of an adequate private potable water supply must provide the private well owner with a temporary supply of potable water during the operation of the dewatering well. The supply must be adequate for drinking, cooking, and other household uses. The commissioner may require the private well to be tested to determine if a health risk exists before the licensee discontinues an alternate water supply. The licensee must assure that the required testing is completed and reported to the commissioner.
Subp. 5. Sealing.
A dewatering well that is not in use must be sealed according to this chapter.
Subp. 6. Exceptions.
A dewatering well in an unconsolidated formation installed for less than 18 months and less than 50 feet in depth may be constructed and sealed according to the conditions and exemptions in items A to E.
A. Casing is not required to meet the standards of parts 4725.2350 to 4725.2650, if the casing is water tight, free of oil or other contaminants, and withstands the forces exerted on it during installation and removal.
B. The upper termination of the casing must be covered with a tamper-resistant overlapping cover on the casing as specified in part 4725.2250, subpart 17. The casing is not required to terminate at least 12 inches above the established ground surface if the casing extends at least 12 inches above the working grade. The working grade is the temporary elevation of the ground surface during a construction project.
C. The gravel pack must not extend more than ten feet above the static water level.
D. The annular space is not required to be grouted to a depth of 50 feet according to part 4725.3050, subpart 3, if the annular space is filled with cuttings taken from the bore hole.
E. At 18 months after construction or sooner, the well must be sealed according to this chapter. A dewatering well installed for 18 months or less, not encountering a confining layer, less than 50 feet in depth, completed in an unconsolidated formation, and that is not flowing, may be sealed according to part 4725.7450, subpart 4.
Subp. 7. Special construction areas.
The commissioner may require additional construction standards in special well and boring construction areas as described in part 4725.3650.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.122; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 18 SR 1222; 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.6200 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.6300 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.6400 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.6450 Applicability and Use
This part applies to monitoring wells as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 103I.005, subdivision 14.
In addition to the general construction, repair, maintenance, and sealing requirements in parts 4725.2010 to 4725.3875, a monitoring well must be constructed, repaired, maintained, and sealed according to this part. A monitoring well is exempt from the requirements in parts 4725.4050 to 4725.6050.
A monitoring well that is not in use must be sealed.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.122; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 18 SR 1222; 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.6500 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.6600 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.6650 Construction of Monitoring Wells
Subpart 1. Casing.
Casing for a monitoring well must be steel or plastic casing meeting the standards of parts 4725.2250 to 4725.2650, or stainless steel or flush threaded polyvinyl chloride meeting the standards of this subpart.
A. A monitoring well may be constructed with flush threaded polyvinyl chloride (PVC) casing if:
B. A monitoring well may be constructed with stainless steel casing meeting ASTM Standard A312/A312M-04b, having at least ANSI Schedule 5 for welded joints and ANSI Schedule 40 for threaded joints.
Subp. 2. Grouting of annular space.
The annular space of a monitoring well must be grouted from ten feet or less above the screen or open bore hole to the established ground surface according to part 4725.3050, except that no cuttings from the bore hole must be added to the grout. Neat-cement or cement-sand grout may terminate at the base of the manhole or vault for an at-grade installation.
Subp. 3. Exception to drilling fluids.
Drilling fluids used to construct a monitoring well must comply with part 4725.2950, except that a free chlorine residual is not required.
Subp. 4. Screen or open hole across an unconsolidated formation and bedrock contact.
A monitoring well, that is constructed to monitor contaminants at the water surface, by placing a screen or open hole across the contact of an unconsolidated formation and bedrock according to part 4725.6050, subpart 3, is exempt from part 4725.2020, subpart 1.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.122; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 18 SR 1222; 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.6700 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.6750 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.6755 Protection of Monitoring Wells
Subpart 1. Casing, protective casing, and capping.
The inner casing of a monitoring well, and when installed, the protective outer casing as specified in subpart 2, item B, with bentonite grout in the annular space, must be covered with a cap or cover according to part 4725.2250, subpart 17. The protective outer casing may be covered with an overlapping cap or cover without a compression gasket.
A. Either the inner casing or the protective outer casing must be closed with a watertight, locked cap or a wrench-tightened, threaded metal cap.
B. The top of the well must be constructed to prevent entry of flood waters according to part 4725.4350, subpart 2.
C. A monitoring well cased with plastic must be protected with an outer steel protective casing as specified in subpart 2, item B.
Subp. 2. Protection.
A monitoring well must be protected by:
A. surrounding the casing with a concrete pyramid or cone that has horizontal dimensions of at least 24 inches by 24 inches at the established ground surface, that rises 12 inches above the established ground surface at the casing, and has a base with a mass of at least three cubic feet below the established ground surface;
B. installing a steel outer casing meeting the material standards of part 4725.2350 that is at least 3.0 inches in diameter greater than the inner casing, that extends at least two feet above and four feet below the established ground surface, and that has bentonite grout, neat-cement grout, or cement-sand grout in the annular space between the casings from the bottom of the outer casing to the established ground surface; or
C. placing three posts at least four inches square or four inches in diameter around the well at equal distances from each other and two feet from the casing. The posts must extend two feet above and four feet below the established ground surface or to a depth of two feet if each post is set in concrete to a depth of two feet. The posts must be made of reinforced concrete, decay-resistant wood, or ASTM Schedule 40 steel pipe capped with an overlapping, threaded, welded steel or iron cap, or be filled with cement.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.6775 Repair; Sealing of Monitoring Well
A monitoring well owner must repair or seal a damaged monitoring well within seven days after the property owner becomes aware of the damage.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773
Minn. R. 4725.6800 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.6850 At-Grade Monitoring Well
Subpart 1. At-grade termination.
A monitoring well must terminate at least 12 inches above the established ground surface unless the commissioner determines that no location exists for such a well to provide monitoring information equivalent to an at-grade well.
Subp. 2. Termination location; map.
A monitoring well casing may terminate at-grade only on a roadway, sidewalk, driveway, or a parking area. The location of the well identified by unique well number must be marked on a scaled map with angles and directions from surveyed property corners, a permanent benchmark, or the corners of a permanent structure. The map must be submitted to the commissioner with the well record.
Subp. 3. Construction.
An at-grade monitoring well must be constructed as specified in this subpart.
A. At-grade well casing must terminate no lower than the established ground surface.
B. The well must be contained in a protective manhole cover or vault. The top of the manhole cover or vault must be no less than two inches above the established ground surface.
C. The established ground surface must be sloped to divert surface water or spills away from the well and to allow for traffic movement and snow plowing.
D. The manhole cover or vault must be installed in a concrete pad at least four inches in thickness and four feet square or four feet in diameter and of sufficient load-bearing capacity to support vehicular traffic.
E. The manhole cover or vault must be labeled with the words "Monitoring Well" cast or stamped in letters at least one centimeter or one-half inch in height.
F. All materials used to construct the manhole cover or vault must be resistant and impervious to water, petroleum products, and chemicals likely to be present.
G. The manhole cover or vault must have a watertight, impervious compression O-ring or gasket.
H. The manhole cover or vault must meet AASHTO Standards H20-44 and M306-04.
I. The well casing must be secured with a locking cap or cover according to part 4725.2250, subpart 17. The manhole cover or vault must be secured with a lock or tamper-resistant bolts.
J. The well label must be placed on the well casing, manhole cover, or vault, or the unique well number may be stamped on the vault.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.6900 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.7000 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.7050 Bored Geothermal Heat Exchangers
Subpart 1. Construction.
A bored geothermal heat exchanger must be constructed according to the construction standards in this part and the general construction standards in parts 4725.2010 to 4725.3875.
A. Bored geothermal heat exchanger piping must be high-density polyethylene or cross-linked polyethylene that meets the following requirements:
B. The licensee must complete a successful pressure test of the bored geothermal heat exchanger piping after the piping is installed in the bore holes. Pipe must be pressure tested with potable water at a pressure of 1.5 times the system operating pressure or 100 psi, whichever is greater. The pressure must remain constant for 30 minutes without adding additional water.
C. The annular space between the bored geothermal heat exchanger piping and a bore hole must be filled with grout according to the procedures in part 4725.3050, subpart 2, and according to the procedures in part 4725.3450 for a bored geothermal heat exchanger boring from which groundwater flows above the established ground surface. The annular space must be filled with:
D. Heat transfer fluids must be propylene glycol or ethanol that meets the following requirements:
E. A permanent sign must be attached to the heat pump identifying the heat transfer fluid in the bored geothermal heat exchanger and specifying that only heat transfer fluids approved in this part may be used.
F. Water make-up lines to the bored geothermal heat exchanger must be protected with backflow prevention according to UPC sections 602.0 to 603.5.23.4 as incorporated by part 4714.0050.
G. The isolation distance between a water-supply well and a bored geothermal heat exchanger constructed according to this part must be no less than the distances specified in part 4725.4450, subpart 1, items F and H.
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, 45 SR 986]
Subp. 3. Marking locations.
The locations of all buried bored geothermal heat exchanger piping from the point where the pipe loop exits the bore hole to the point where the pipe is exposed above the ground surface or floor of a building must be marked by:
A. a tracer wire;
B. an underground marking tape detectable from the ground surface; or
C. a ferromagnetic metal marker, detectable from the ground surface, located above the point where the pipe loop exits the bore hole.
Subp. 4. Separation under buildings.
A bored geothermal heat exchanger boring installed using directional drilling technology that extends under a building or within three feet horizontally of the farthest exterior projection of the building must be located at least ten feet below the lowest part of the building, including the foundation and footings. Supply-return piping that is plumbed through the building wall or floor is exempt from this requirement.
Subp. 5. Isolation distances from certain contaminant sources.
The point where the drill bit penetrates the ground surface for a geothermal heat exchanger boring must be located at least ten feet horizontally from a contaminant source that has contaminants directly entering the soil, including:
A. the absorption area of a soil dispersal system;
B. animal feedlot, confining area, or feeding or watering area;
C. cesspool;
D. landspreading area for sewage, septage, or sludge;
E. manure basin, lagoon, or storage area;
F. rapid infiltration basin;
G. seepage pit, leaching pit, or dry well; or
H. wastewater spray irrigation area.
Subp. 6. Bored geothermal heat exchanger borings onto the property of another.
Bored geothermal heat exchanger piping must not be installed on or under property other than the property identified in the approved permit without the affected property owner's written consent or other legal authority.
Subp. 7. Accessibility.
The ends of each pipe loop must be accessible within a building or buried no deeper than ten feet below the ground surface. The buried ends of a pipe loop must not be built over or otherwise made inaccessible.
Subp. 8. Pipe loop not connected to a geothermal heat exchanger system.
A pipe loop that is not connected to a geothermal heat exchanger system, such as a loop installed for thermal conductivity testing, must be protected by:
A. extending the ends of the pipe loop to at least one foot above the ground surface;
B. encasing the ends of the pipe loop in an ASTM Schedule 40 steel or plastic outer protective pipe that is at least four inches in diameter and extends at least one foot above and two feet below the ground surface; and
C. covering the outer protective pipe with an overlapping cap or cover.
Subp. 9. Sealing bored geothermal heat exchangers.
When sealing all or part of a bored geothermal heat exchanger:
A. all heat transfer fluid must be removed from the bored geothermal heat exchanger piping that is to be sealed;
B. the heat transfer fluid must be contained and recycled or disposed of according to applicable federal, state, and local requirements;
C. the ends of each pipe loop must be accessed and grouted by pumping grout through a tremie pipe inserted to within ten feet of the bottom of the loop, or by pumping grout into one end of the loop until grout flowing from the other end of the loop meets the minimum specifications and densities in part 4725.0100, subpart 21d, 22b, or 30n;
D. the portion of the piping in unconsolidated geologic materials must be filled with bentonite grout, neat-cement grout, or cement-sand grout; and
E. the portion of the piping in bedrock must be filled with cement-sand grout or neat-cement grout.
Subp. 10. Notice of loss or leak.
The owner of a bored geothermal heat exchanger system must:
A. notify the commissioner of leakage from the system piping or loss of pressure in the system within 24 hours after the owner becomes aware of the loss or leak; and
B. notify the Minnesota duty officer of a bored geothermal heat exchanger leak according to Minnesota Statutes, section 115.061.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.208; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 33 SR 211; L 2013 c 108 art 12 s 108; L 2014 c 275 art 1 s 136; 45 SR 986; 49 SR 1261
Minn. R. 4725.7075 Submerged Closed Loop Heat Exchanger System Installation
Subpart 1. Installation.
An installed SCLHE system must meet the requirements in this part.
A. A well used for a SCLHE system must meet the requirements in this chapter and Minnesota Statutes, chapter 103I.
B. A well contractor must install or remove a SCLHE.
C. A well contractor or bonded mechanical contractor may install SCLHE lateral piping.
D. A well contractor must notify the commissioner at least 24 hours prior to the initial installation of a SCLHE. The notification must occur electronically during business hours.
E. SCLHE system piping connections to a water-supply well or a potable water-supply system must be protected with a backflow prevention device as specified in UPC sections 602.0 to 603.5.23.4, as incorporated by reference in part 4714.0050.
F. A heat transfer fluid sampling port must be installed on a SCLHE system.
G. Buried SCLHE lateral piping must be marked by:
Subp. 2. SCLHE unit.
A. A SCLHE unit must have a minimum pressure rating that exceeds 1.5 times the maximum SCLHE system design operating pressure or 100 psi, whichever is greater, plus the hydrostatic pressure on the SCLHE unit when installed in the well.
B. Materials and finishes used in a SCLHE unit must not exceed eight percent lead except that solders and flux must not contain more than 0.2 percent lead.
C. Materials must not contain constituents that would cause groundwater concentrations to exceed a regulatory or advisory action value under parts 4717.7810 to 4717.7900.
Subp. 3. Piping and fittings.
A. SCLHE lateral piping must comply with the:
B. SCLHE lateral piping must have a minimum pressure rating of 100 psi or 1.5 times the maximum SCLHE system design operating pressure, whichever is greater.
C. SCLHE in-well piping must comply with the:
D. SCLHE in-well piping must have a minimum pressure rating that exceeds 1.5 times the maximum SCLHE system design operating pressure or 100 psi, whichever is greater, plus the hydrostatic pressure on the deepest pipe installed in the well.
Subp. 4. Pressure test.
A. A system owner is responsible for having a SCLHE system successfully pressure tested after installation and before circulation of heat transfer fluid additives, or any other fluid in the SCLHE system. Potable water without additives may be used for the pressure test and circulated to purge the SCLHE system before the pressure test.
B. All portions of the SCLHE system used to convey heat transfer fluid must be pressure tested, including the:
C. The SCLHE system must be pressure tested:
D. A system owner must notify the commissioner at least 24 hours before the pressure test. The notification must occur electronically during business hours.
E. A system owner is exempt from item D in the event of an exceptional circumstance where inaction poses an immediate and significant loss of heating or cooling preventing prior notification. The system owner must notify the commissioner electronically within 12 hours of completing the pressure test.
F. A pressure test must:
G. For purposes of this part, a successful pressure test is one that maintains a constant pressure without adding fluid during the duration of the pressure test.
H. The system owner is responsible for maintaining complete, successful pressure test records according to this part. Copies of pressure test records must be:
I. A pressure test record must include:
J. A SCLHE system must be pressure tested according to items A to I when a SCLHE unit or SCLHE in-well piping is removed from the well and reinstalled or replaced.
Subp. 5. Heat transfer fluid.
A. Heat transfer fluid must be sourced from a potable water supply.
B. Heat transfer fluid may be amended with additives that meet the requirements of ANSI/NSF-60 certification for each additive.
C. A system owner must attach a permanent indelible sign to all fill locations in the building. The sign must indicate that:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.208
- History: 49 SR 1261
Minn. R. 4725.7100 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.7200 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.7250 Elevator Borings
Subpart 1. General.
An elevator boring must be constructed according to the general construction standards in parts 4725.2010 to 4725.3875 and cased, sealed, and maintained according to this chapter to prevent the vertical movement of water.
Subp. 2. Casing.
The boring must be cased to the bottom of the excavation.
Subp. 3. Exception.
The boring is exempt from the requirements in parts 4725.2150; 4725.2175; 4725.2185; 4725.2250, subpart 8, concerning extension of the casing 12 inches above the established ground surface; and 4725.2250, subpart 11.
Subp. 4. Hydraulic fluid leakage protection.
Hydraulic fluid must be protected from leakage by:
A. attaching a watertight cap or plate to the bottom of the casing and surrounding the casing with neat-cement or cement-sand grout. The grout must extend at least three inches above and three inches below the bottom of the casing. The grout must be inserted according to part 4725.3050, subpart 2;
B. grouting the inside of the casing with cement-sand grout or neat-cement grout. The grout must extend at least two feet above the bottom of the casing and be inserted according to part 4725.3050, subpart 2; or
C. encasing the hydraulic cylinder in a Schedule 30 plastic outer pipe or sleeve with the bottom of the pipe or sleeve capped and the top extending above the pit floor.
Subp. 5. Repair.
In addition to the requirements of part 4725.3750, when a hydraulic cylinder is removed from an elevator boring for repair or replacement, the boring must be protected from hydraulic fluid leakage according to subpart 4.
Subp. 6. Sealing.
An elevator boring which is unsuccessful or no longer in use must be sealed according to part 4725.3850. The hydraulic cylinder, debris or obstructions, and sand placed around the hydraulic cylinder must be removed prior to sealing.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.7400 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.7450 Environmental Bore Holes
Subpart 1. Construction.
An environmental bore hole must be constructed, repaired, maintained, and sealed according to the general standards in parts 4725.2010 to 4725.3875. In addition, an environmental bore hole that is cased must be constructed to conform to the monitoring well requirements in parts 4725.6650 to 4725.6850.
Subp. 2. At-grade bore holes.
An environmental bore hole cased and completed at-grade must conform to part 4725.6850.
Subp. 3. Sealing.
An environmental bore hole that is not in use or that serves as a potential or actual source of contamination must be sealed according to this chapter.
Subp. 4. Exception to sealing requirements.
An environmental bore hole less than 50 feet in depth, in an unconsolidated formation, and not encountering a confining layer may be sealed by removing the casing and screen and allowing the bore hole to collapse, except for a flowing boring which must meet the requirements of part 4725.3850.
A. The bore hole must not encounter pollution or contamination or have been installed to detect pollution or contaminants.
B. The collapse must not be induced other than by removal of the screen or casing.
C. The portion of the bore hole that does not collapse must be sealed immediately upon removal of the casing as specified in part 4725.3850 with bentonite grout, neat-cement grout, or cement-sand grout.
Subp. 5. Screen or open hole across an unconsolidated formation and bedrock contact.
An environmental bore hole may be constructed to test contaminants without extracting water, or to vent, recover vapor, or sparge contaminants from the water surface, by placing a screen or open hole across the contact of an unconsolidated formation and bedrock according to part 4725.6050, subpart 3.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 103I.111; 103I.205; 103I.221; 103I.301; 103I.401; 103I.451; 103I.501; 103I.525; 103I.531; 103I.535; 103I.541; 103I.621; 144.05; 144.12; 144.383; 157.04; 157.08; 157.09; 157.13
- History: 17 SR 2773; 33 SR 211
Minn. R. 4725.7500 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.7600 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Minn. R. 4725.7605 [Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
[Repealed, 17 SR 2773]
Chapter 4727 EXPLORERS AND EXPLORATORY BORINGS
Minn. R. 4727.0050 General
Parts 4727.0050 to 4727.1250 are adopted pursuant to, and must be read in conjunction with, Minnesota Statutes, chapter 103I, relating to wells, borings, and underground uses.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 28 SR 147
Minn. R. 4727.0100 Definitions
Subpart 1. Scope.
The terms used in parts 4727.0050 to 4727.1250 have the meanings given them in this part and in Minnesota Statutes, section 103I.005.
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, 28 SR 147]
Subp. 3. Annular space.
"Annular space" means the space between two cylindrical objects one of which surrounds the other, such as the space between a drillhole and a casing pipe, or between a casing pipe and liner pipe.
Subp. 4.
[Repealed, 28 SR 147]
Subp. 5. Aquifer.
"Aquifer" means a stratum of saturated, permeable bedrock or unconsolidated material having a recognizable water table or potentiometric surface that is capable of producing water to supply a well.
Subp. 5a. Bedrock.
"Bedrock" means a consolidated or coherent, hard, naturally formed aggregation of rock in the earth. Bedrock does not include alluvium, glacial drift, glacial outwash, glacial till, loess, saprolite, or soil.
Subp. 5b. Bentonite.
"Bentonite" means an aluminum silicate clay that contains at least 85 percent of the mineral montmorillonite and meets API Specification 13A.
Subp. 6. Casing.
"Casing" means an impervious durable pipe placed in an exploratory boring to prevent the walls from caving and to seal off surface drainage or undesirable water, gas, or other fluids to prevent their entering the boring and the groundwater.
Subp. 7. Commissioner.
"Commissioner" means the commissioner of health or an authorized representative.
Subp. 8. Concrete grout.
"Concrete grout" means a mixture of Portland cement, sand as described in part 4727.0920, subpart 4, item A, subitems (3) to (6), and water in the proportion of 94 pounds of Portland cement and an equal volume of dry sand and not more than six gallons of clean water. Admixtures to reduce permeability or control setting time must meet ASTM Standard C494-86.
Subp. 8a. Confining layer.
"Confining layer" means a geological material that restricts water movement relative to an aquifer. A confining layer includes:
A. a stratum of unconsolidated materials or bedrock ten feet or more in vertical thickness that has a vertical hydraulic conductivity of 10-6 centimeters per second or less;
B. a stratum of clay, sandy clay, or silty clay ten feet or more in vertical thickness, as defined in the Soil Survey Manual, incorporated by reference under part 4727.0150, item I; or
C. any portion of the Decorah, Glenwood, St. Lawrence, or Eau Claire sedimentary bedrock formations as described in Paleozoic Lithostratigraphy of Southeastern Minnesota, incorporated by reference under part 4727.0150, item H.
Subp. 9.
[Repealed, 28 SR 147]
Subp. 9a. Drilling machine.
"Drilling machine" means a machine or mechanical device that is used to excavate, drill, or bore an exploratory boring and is mounted on a truck, trailer, crawler, or skid. A drilling machine includes, but is not limited to, a core drill, cable tool, hollow rod, auger, sonic, or rotary tool.
Subp. 10. Established ground surface.
"Established ground surface" means the intended or actual finished grade (elevation) of the surface of the ground at the site of the exploratory boring.
Subp. 11. Exploratory boring.
"Exploratory boring" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 103I.005, subdivision 9.
Subp. 12. Explorer.
"Explorer" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 103I.005, subdivision 10. For the purposes of this chapter, explorer includes a person licensed to construct or seal an exploratory boring.
Subp. 13.
[Repealed, 28 SR 147]
Subp. 14. Groundwater.
"Groundwater" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 115.01, subdivision 6.
Subp. 15. Grout.
"Grout" means a material used to fill the annular space around a casing or between casings or to seal an exploratory boring. Grout is either neat cement grout, concrete grout, kaolin clay in the kaolin clay portion of a boring, or high solids bentonite grout.
Subp. 16.
[Repealed, 28 SR 147]
Subp. 16a. High solids bentonite grout.
"High solids bentonite grout" means a fluid mixture of water and a minimum of 15 percent by weight of bentonite, with no additives to promote temporary viscosity. The bentonite must be marketed as a grout or well sealant and must be mixed according to the manufacturer's specifications.
Subp. 16b. Hoist.
"Hoist" means a machine or mechanical device that is mounted on a truck, trailer, crawler, or skid and used to:
A. remove or install a pump, pumping equipment, or casing;
B. remove an obstruction from an exploratory boring;
C. install a tremie pipe when sealing an exploratory boring; or
D. conduct any other activity that requires an explorer's license. A hoist does not include a drilling machine.
Subp. 16c. Igneous or metamorphic bedrock.
"Igneous or metamorphic bedrock" means a mass of rock in the earth solidified from a molten state or formed as a result of pronounced changes in pressure and temperature, including granite and slate.
Subp. 16d. Kaolin clay.
"Kaolin clay" means a hydrous aluminum silicate chiefly comprised of the mineral kaolinite.
Subp. 16e. Licensee.
"Licensee" means a person who is licensed as an explorer under this chapter and Minnesota Statutes, chapter 103I.
Subp. 17.
[Repealed, 28 SR 147]
Subp. 18. Neat cement grout.
"Neat cement grout" means a mixture in the proportion of 94 pounds of Portland cement and not more than six gallons of clean water. Bentonite up to five percent by weight of cement (4.7 pounds of bentonite per 94 pounds of Portland cement) may be used to reduce shrinkage. Admixtures meeting the standard specifications of ASTM Standard C494-86 may be used to reduce permeability and/or control time of set.
Subp. 18a. Permanent sealing.
"Permanent sealing" means the process of preparing an exploratory boring to be filled with grout and filling the exploratory boring with grout.
Subp. 19. Person.
"Person" means an individual, firm, partnership, association, or corporation or any other entity including the United States government, any interstate body, the state, and any agency, department, or political subdivision of the state.
Subp. 20. Pollution or contamination.
"Pollution" or "contamination" means the presence or addition of any substance to water which is or may become injurious to the health, safety, or welfare of the general public or private individuals and which is or may become injurious to domestic, commercial, industrial, agricultural, or other uses which are being made of such water.
Subp. 20a. Portland cement.
"Portland cement" means:
A. construction material that conforms to ASTM Standard C150-85a; or
B. Type IL blended Portland-limestone cement that conforms to ASTM Standard C595, "Standard Specification for Blended Hydraulic Cements."
Subp. 20b. Potable water.
"Potable water" means water that is safe for human consumption in that it is free from impurities in amounts sufficient to cause disease or harmful physiological effects.
Subp. 20c. Rapid setting cement.
"Rapid setting cement" means:
A. Type III Portland cement as designated in ASTM Standard C150-85a;
B. Type IL-HE Portland-limestone cement as designated in ASTM Standard C595, "Standard Specification for Blended Hydraulic Cements";
C. a cement labeled as an API Class C cement; or
D. any Portland cement containing calcium chloride, sodium chloride, or gypsum in an amount between two and four percent by weight of Portland cement.
Subp. 20d. Regional flood.
"Regional flood" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 103F.111, subdivision 10.
Subp. 21. Responsible individual.
"Responsible individual" means a person who has met the qualifications prescribed in part 4727.0600 and has been approved for certification by the commissioner according to part 4727.0700.
Subp. 22. Rock.
"Rock" means a naturally formed aggregation of mineral matter including rock described in part 4727.0920, subpart 4, item B.
Subp. 23. Sealing.
"Sealing" means permanent sealing or temporary sealing.
Subp. 24. Sedimentary bedrock.
"Sedimentary bedrock" means a consolidated or coherent naturally formed aggregation of mineral matter in the earth formed of clastic fragments of other rock or sediment or minerals formed by precipitation from solution in water and includes sandstone, shale, and limestone. Sedimentary bedrock does not include mineral matter deposited during, or more recently than, the Cretaceous geologic period.
Subp. 25. Temporary sealing.
"Temporary sealing" means protecting an exploratory boring by following the construction and operation practices under parts 4727.0950 to 4727.0985 until the boring is permanently sealed.
Subp. 26. Tremie pipe.
"Tremie pipe" means a pipe or hose used to insert grout into an annular space or to seal an exploratory boring.
Subp. 27. Unconsolidated materials.
"Unconsolidated materials" means geologic materials that are not bedrock, including alluvium, glacial drift, glacial outwash, glacial till, loess, saprolite, soil, and those materials specified in part 4727.0920, subpart 4, item A.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 156A.01 to 156A.08
- History: 28 SR 147; 48 SR 447
Minn. R. 4727.0150 Incorporation by Reference and Abbreviations
This part lists documents, specifications, and standards that are incorporated by reference in this chapter. The material is not subject to frequent change and is available for loan or inspection through the Minitex interlibrary loan system. The abbreviations listed in parentheses after the source names are used in this chapter.
A. Dictionary of Geological Terms (Robert L. Bates and Julia A. Jackson, eds., 3d ed. 1984).
B. American Petroleum Institute (API), distributed by Global Engineering Documents, 15 Inverness Way East, Englewood, CO 80112-5776:
C. American National Standards Institute (ANSI), 1819 L Street NW, Suite 600, Washington, DC 20036:
D. ASTM International (ASTM), 100 Barr Harbor Drive, West Conshohocken, PA 19428-2959:
E. Canadian Standards Association (CSA), 178 Rexdale Boulevard, Toronto, Ontario, M9W 1R3, Canada: "Diamond Core Drilling Equipment - General," CSA Standard M253.1 - M1981.
F. Diamond Core Drill Manufacturers Association, Inc., DCDMA Technical Manual (1991).
G. NSF International (NSF), 789 Dixboro Road, Ann Arbor, Michigan 48113:
H. George Austin, "Paleozoic Lithostratigraphy of Southeastern Minnesota," in Geology of Minnesota: A Centennial Volume in Honor of George M. Schwartz (P.K. Sims and G.B. Morey eds., 1972), pages 459 to 473.
I. United States Bureau of Plant Industry, Soils and Agricultural Engineering, Soil Survey Manual, United States Department of Agriculture Handbook, no. 18 (1951), pages 205 to 213.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 28 SR 147; 48 SR 447
Minn. R. 4727.0200 Applicability; Scope
Parts 4727.0050 to 4727.1250 apply to all exploratory borings constructed in Minnesota, except those specifically exempted by Minnesota Statutes, section 103I.113. Those aspects covered are the licensing of explorers, the examination of responsible individuals, the construction of exploratory borings, and the proper sealing of exploratory borings to protect the quality of groundwater aquifers.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 156A.01 to 156A.08
- History: 17 SR 1279; 28 SR 147
Minn. R. 4727.0250 Explorer Responsibilities
An explorer is responsible for the construction, maintenance, and sealing of all exploratory borings completed under the explorer's license. The explorer may transfer the responsibility for maintenance and sealing to another explorer. The transfer of responsibility must be described in a written agreement, signed by both parties, that identifies which party is responsible for filing notification, maintaining the boring, and sealing the boring. A copy of the agreement must be submitted to the commissioner.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 28 SR 147
Minn. R. 4727.0300 [Repealed, 15 SR 1597]
[Repealed, 15 SR 1597]
Minn. R. 4727.0350 Variance
Subpart 1. General.
The commissioner shall grant a variance to any provision of this chapter according to the procedures and criteria in parts 4717.7000 to 4717.7050. The variance request must be accompanied by the fee specified in Minnesota Statutes, section 103I.101, subdivision 6.
Subp. 2. Construction, repair, or sealing variance requests.
In addition to the requirements of subpart 1, a request to vary a construction, repair, or sealing provision related to an exploratory boring in parts 4727.0925 to 4727.1250 must also include:
A. the location of the exploratory boring in terms of township, range, and three-quarter sections;
B. the Minnesota unique number, if assigned;
C. the name, address, and telephone number of the explorer doing work and the property owner;
D. a scaled map showing the location of the exploratory boring in relation to all property lines and structures;
E. the proposed depth of the exploratory boring;
F. the casing type, diameter, and depth;
G. a description of the method of construction, grout materials, and method of emplacement;
H. a description of the anticipated geologic conditions;
I. the depth to water and hydrogeologic conditions; and
J. information on special construction methods or precautions proposed to prevent contamination of the exploratory boring and groundwater.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 28 SR 147
Minn. R. 4727.0400 Licensing Required
Subpart 1. License required.
No person shall drill, construct or otherwise cause to be made, repair, or seal an exploratory boring unless:
A. the person possesses, or performs labor or services for a person who possesses, a valid explorer's license issued by the commissioner;
B. the person is registered with, or is performing labor or services for a person who is registered with, the commissioner of natural resources according to Minnesota Statutes, section 103I.601, subdivision 3; and
C. the construction, repair, or sealing of the exploratory boring is supervised by a responsible individual.
Subp. 2. Licensing requirements.
An explorer engaging in exploratory boring shall obtain a license according to parts 4727.0500 to 4727.0860.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 156A.01 to 156A.08
- History: 17 SR 1279; 28 SR 147
Minn. R. 4727.0500 License Application
A person shall annually apply for an explorer's license by submitting to the commissioner a properly completed application. The application form must include the name, address, and telephone number of the person applying for licensure. The application form must be signed by an officer or other legally authorized representative of the person making application for licensure. An explorer's license is effective for the calendar year for which it is issued. The person applying for an explorer's license shall include the name of the responsible individual who will supervise or oversee the location, construction, and sealing of exploratory borings on behalf of the explorer. If the person applying for the explorer's license does not designate a responsible individual, the commissioner shall issue a conditional license. A conditional license is not considered valid for the purpose of engaging in the construction of exploratory borings until a certified, responsible individual has been designated and the commissioner has been notified of the designation. The notification of designation shall be made at least ten days prior to the commencement of exploratory boring.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 156A.01 to 156A.08
- History: 28 SR 147
Minn. R. 4727.0550 License Renewal
Explorer's licenses expire on December 31 of each year. A licensee must submit an application for license renewal according to part 4727.0500 no later than December 31 of the year prior to that for which the licensee is seeking renewal.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 28 SR 147
Minn. R. 4727.0600 Certification as Responsible Individual
A person who seeks to qualify for certification as a responsible individual shall:
A. complete and submit an application for certification to the commissioner, including the name, address, telephone number, and signature of the person applying for certification; and
B. take and pass an examination relating to construction, location, and sealing of exploratory borings or document the fact that the person is a professional engineer licensed according to Minnesota Statutes, sections 326.02 to 326.15, or a professional geologist licensed under Minnesota Statutes, sections 326.02 to 326.15, or certified by the American Institute of Professional Geologists. A person may take the examination as many times as desired. All applicants in any one examination session shall be given the same combination of written, oral, or practical work.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 156A.01 to 156A.08
- History: 17 SR 1279; 28 SR 147
Minn. R. 4727.0700 Commissioner Action; Responsible Individual
The commissioner shall not act upon the application for certification until the commissioner has received all the information required by part 4727.0600. When the commissioner determines that an individual has met all the qualifications prescribed in part 4727.0600, the commissioner shall notify the person and shall enter that person's name on a list of persons who are certified as responsible individuals. The person remains certified unless the person requests in writing that the person's name be removed or unless the certification is revoked or suspended according to part 4727.0830.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 156A.01 to 156A.08
- History: 17 SR 1279; 28 SR 147
Minn. R. 4727.0800 [Repealed, 28 SR 147]
[Repealed, 28 SR 147]
Minn. R. 4727.0830 Disciplinary Action; Return of Documents
Subpart 1. Commissioner action.
The commissioner may suspend, revoke, or impose limitations or conditions on a responsible individual or licensee if the responsible individual or licensee:
A. violates a provision of this chapter or Minnesota Statutes, chapter 103I;
B. obtains a license or certification through error, fraud, or cheating;
C. provides false or fraudulent information on renewal forms, sealing reports, or other required reports;
D. knowingly aids or allows an unlicensed person to engage in activities requiring a license under Minnesota Statutes, section 103I.601;
E. engages in conduct, in the course of performing work requiring licensure, that is likely to harm the public or demonstrates a willful or careless disregard for the health or safety of a property owner or other person; or
F. has been convicted during the previous five years of a felony or gross misdemeanor reasonably related to the business of exploratory boring.
Subp. 2. Revoked license or certification.
A suspended or revoked license or certification must be returned to the commissioner when the license or certification is revoked or suspended.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 28 SR 147
Minn. R. 4727.0840 Reapplication After Revocation
A person whose explorer's license has been revoked or whose certification as a responsible individual has been revoked may not reapply for licensure or certification for one year from the date of revocation. A person whose explorer's license has been revoked must reapply for licensure according to part 4727.0500. A person whose certification as a responsible individual has been revoked must reapply for certification according to part 4727.0600.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 28 SR 147
Minn. R. 4727.0850 Drilling Machine and Hoist Registration
Subpart 1. Registration required.
A drilling machine or hoist may not be used for exploratory boring, or for any drilling activity requiring a license, unless the drilling machine or hoist is registered with the commissioner. The licensee is responsible for ensuring that each drilling machine or hoist is registered before it is used to conduct exploratory boring. The explorer or drilling contractor must register each drilling machine or hoist used to conduct exploratory boring. The person registering a drilling machine or hoist must pay an annual registration fee for each machine or hoist according to Minnesota Statutes, section 103I.545. Drilling machine and hoist registrations expire on December 31 of each year. Upon receipt of the required fee and information, the commissioner shall issue a drilling machine or hoist registration card for identification purposes for each drilling machine and hoist registered. The card shall be carried on the drilling machine or hoist at all times and must be readily available for review by the commissioner.
Subp. 2. Registration not transferable.
The registration card and decals furnished for a drilling machine or hoist are not transferable. The card and decals shall be returned to the commissioner when a drilling machine or hoist is sold, traded, or otherwise disposed of.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 28 SR 147
Minn. R. 4727.0860 Placement of License Number and Decals
Subpart 1. License number display.
Before beginning exploratory boring, the licensee must place the explorer's license number in a conspicuous location. The license number must be attached to both sides of each drilling machine or hoist or, if the licensee does not own the drilling machine or hoist, the license number must be attached to a portable sign that is displayed near the exploratory boring while work is being conducted. The license number figures must be at least three inches high and 1-1/2 inches wide and must be in a contrasting color to the rest of the machine, hoist, or sign.
Subp. 2. Registration decal display.
Before beginning exploratory boring, the person registering the drilling machine or hoist is responsible for affixing the decals issued by the commissioner to the drilling machine or hoist. The licensee may not conduct exploratory boring unless the drilling machine or hoist is registered with the commissioner and has current decals issued by the commissioner.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 28 SR 147
Minn. R. 4727.0900 [Repealed, 28 SR 147]
[Repealed, 28 SR 147]
Minn. R. 4727.0910 Notification of Exploratory Boring
This part applies to the construction or modification of exploratory borings.
A. An exploratory boring must not be drilled, deepened through a confining layer, or have casing installed or removed until notification is made to the commissioner.
B. The commissioner must be notified at least ten days before exploratory boring begins.
C. When notification is required, the explorer must submit to the commissioner of health and the commissioner of natural resources a written notification containing the following:
D. If notification has been made according to item C and the explorer wishes to construct additional exploratory borings in the area shown by the map submitted under item C, the explorer is exempt from the ten-day notification period in item B so long as a new or amended map meeting the requirements of item C, subitem (1), is submitted before drilling.
E. The notification is valid for 180 days from the date it is filed.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 28 SR 147
Minn. R. 4727.0920 Temporary and Permanent Sealing Report
Subpart 1. General.
A. A licensee must submit an exploratory boring sealing report to the commissioner that contains the information in subparts 2 and 3 within 30 days of temporary or permanent sealing. The report must be submitted on a form provided by the commissioner.
B. A permanent sealing report must be filed when a temporarily sealed exploratory boring is permanently sealed. A new temporary sealing report must be filed when a temporarily sealed exploratory boring is drilled deeper or otherwise reconstructed and the explorer again wants to temporarily seal the boring.
C. The average scintillometer reading of waste drill cuttings must be reported only for exploratory borings that are drilled to explore or prospect for uranium or other radioactive metallic minerals.
Subp. 2. Temporary sealing report.
If an exploratory boring is not permanently sealed within 30 days of the completion of drilling, the licensee must submit a temporary sealing report to the commissioner. The sealing report must contain the following information:
A. the name and address of the property owner;
B. the name and license number of the explorer doing the work, the name of the drilling contractor performing the work, and the signature of the responsible individual;
C. the date work was completed;
D. the county, township, range, section, and three quartiles where the exploratory boring is located;
E. a description of the geological materials penetrated by the boring according to subpart 4;
F. the original and current exploratory boring depth;
G. the date of construction;
H. the drilling method;
I. the drilling fluids used;
J. the bore hole diameter and depth;
K. the casing type, diameter, and depth, if present;
L. the method of covering and protecting the casing;
M. the open hole, screen, or perforation depth interval, if present;
N. the static water level;
O. the scintillometer reading, if required by subpart 1; and
P. the materials and methods used to grout the annular space around the casing, if present.
Subp. 3. Permanent sealing report.
In addition to the information in subpart 2, a permanent sealing report must contain the following information:
A. the grout or sealing materials, quantities, and intervals where the grout was placed; and
B. a description of any obstructions removed or remaining in the exploratory boring.
Subp. 4. Geological materials.
A licensee must report the geological materials penetrated in drilling an exploratory boring. The report must include the rock or sediment types, color, and relative hardness. The grain size must be reported for unconsolidated sediments and may be based on field observation without technical size measurement. Descriptions must use terms contained in items A and B, the Dictionary of Geological Terms, or ASTM Standard D2487-85.
A. Unconsolidated materials:
B. Rock:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 28 SR 147
Minn. R. 4727.0922 Scope
Parts 4727.0925 to 4727.0985 apply to the construction and use of all exploratory borings until the boring is permanently sealed.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 28 SR 147
Minn. R. 4727.0925 Use of Exploratory Borings
Subpart 1. Injection or disposal prohibited.
An exploratory boring must not be used for injection or disposal of surface water, groundwater, or any other liquid, gas, or chemical.
Subp. 2. Other uses.
An exploratory boring must not be used for purposes regulated under chapter 4725, unless the boring is constructed according to that chapter by a person licensed or registered to construct the well or boring.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 28 SR 147
Minn. R. 4727.0930 Location of Exploratory Borings
The isolation distances in items A and B apply to exploratory borings being constructed and to exploratory borings that are temporarily sealed.
A. An exploratory boring must be at least ten feet horizontally from a pipe with flammable or volatile gas, an overhead or underground electric transmission line, or a liquid propane tank, except a temporary liquid propane tank used during construction or sealing of an exploratory boring. If an electric transmission line is in excess of 50 kilovolts or of unknown voltage, an exploratory boring must be at least 25 feet horizontally from the electric transmission line.
B. An exploratory boring must be at least three feet horizontally from the farthest exterior projection of a building, including the walls, roofs, decks, and overhangs. An exploratory boring must not be located inside a building unless the boring is permanently sealed within 30 days of completion of drilling.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 28 SR 147
Minn. R. 4727.0935 Drilling Fluids
Subpart 1. Water.
Water used for drilling, repair, or sealing of an exploratory boring must:
A. come from a potable water system, the boring itself, an exploratory boring of similar use and construction, or surface water. Surface water may be used only if the exploratory boring is located in a remote area where a potable water source is not available and the water has been disinfected by mixing sufficient chlorine so that after a minimum 30-minute contact time a chlorine residual exists;
B. contain a free chlorine residual at all times, except for water taken from the boring itself; and
C. if transported, be conveyed in clean and sanitary tanks, storage vessels, and water lines.
Subp. 2. Drilling additives.
Drilling additives must meet the requirements of NSF Standard 60-1988 as determined by a person accredited by ANSI under ANSI Standard Z34.1-1987. A drilling additive is a substance added to the air or water used in the fluid system of drilling an exploratory boring.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 28 SR 147
Minn. R. 4727.0940 Disposal of Materials; Recirculation Pits
Subpart 1. Disposal of materials.
Drilling mud, cuttings, treatment chemicals, and discharged water must be disposed of according to applicable federal, state, and local requirements. Drilling mud, cuttings, treatment chemicals, and discharged water must not be disposed of in a manner that creates a health or environmental hazard.
Subp. 2. Backfilling pits.
Oil or other hazardous materials must be removed from drilling fluid recirculation pits before backfilling. Pits must be backfilled with clean soil materials, leveled, and graded.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 28 SR 147
Minn. R. 4727.0942 Groundwater Protection
During the drilling process and until an exploratory boring is permanently sealed, the boring shall be:
A. constructed and maintained to prevent the introduction of surface contaminants into the boring and to prevent the passage of water from one aquifer to another; and
B. covered and protected to prevent vandalism or entry of debris into the boring.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 28 SR 147
Minn. R. 4727.0945 Nuclear Logging
Exploratory borings logged with naturally occurring or accelerator-produced radioactive materials, as defined in part 4730.0100, must comply with part 4730.2750.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 28 SR 147
Minn. R. 4727.0947 Scope
Exploratory borings that are not permanently sealed within 30 days of the completion of drilling must be temporarily sealed and must be constructed according to parts 4727.0950 to 4727.0985.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 28 SR 147
Minn. R. 4727.0950 Casing Requirements for Temporarily Sealed Exploratory Borings
Subpart 1. Casing types.
If casing is used in a temporarily sealed exploratory boring, the casing must be:
A. steel casing as specified in subpart 15;
B. stainless steel casing as specified in subpart 16; or
C. plastic casing as specified in subparts 17 and 18.
Subp. 2. Watertight casing required.
All casing must be watertight throughout its length, with threaded, solvent welded, or welded joints. Recessed couplings, reamed and drifted couplings, integral flush-threads, or other couplings that match the design, taper, and thread type of the casing must be used on threaded casing. Thread must not be exposed on the exterior of the pipe when the casing is joined to the coupling or when the pipe sections are joined together.
Subp. 3. New casing required.
Casing installed in a temporarily sealed exploratory boring must be new casing produced to specifications. Casing removed from an exploratory boring is acceptable for reuse in an exploratory boring if the casing meets the specifications for new casing.
Subp. 4. Casing markings required.
Casing must be marked by the manufacturer according to casing specifications in subparts 15 to 18. Markings must be rolled, stamped, or stenciled by the manufacturer.
Subp. 5. Casing testing.
Casing rejected by the manufacturer must not be used. The commissioner may require that casing be submitted to an independent testing agency to evaluate whether it meets or exceeds specifications when the casing:
A. lacks markings or has illegible or altered markings;
B. contains pits, cracks, patches, partial welds, bends, or other manufacturing defects; or
C. lacks mill certification papers from the original manufacturer.
Subp. 6. Casing rejection.
The commissioner shall reject casing if:
A. the casing is not submitted for evaluation and verification when required by the commissioner;
B. the casing fails to meet the specifications in subparts 15 to 18; or
C. the lot of casing contains defective lengths, including casing with girth-welded joints or casing with welded patches.
Subp. 7. Removed casing.
Casing that is installed during drilling, sometimes referred to as surface casing, and that is removed upon completion of drilling is not required to meet the specifications for casing in subparts 15 to 18, but must be of sufficient strength to withstand the structural load imposed by conditions both inside and outside the exploratory boring.
Subp. 8. Outer casing; unconsolidated materials.
An outer casing installed in unconsolidated materials is not required to meet the specifications for casing in subparts 15 to 18 if:
A. the casing is of sufficient strength to withstand the structural load imposed by conditions both inside and outside the boring;
B. an inner casing meeting the requirements of subpart 1 is installed; and
C. the annular space between the casings is filled with neat cement grout.
Subp. 9. Inner and outer casing.
The annular space between an inner casing and an outer casing must be grouted for its entire length by pumping neat cement grout through a tremie pipe, a drill rod, or the casing as specified in part 4727.0980.
Subp. 10. Casing height.
All casings of a temporarily sealed exploratory boring must extend vertically at least one foot above the established ground surface and at least five feet above the regional flood level. The established ground surface immediately adjacent to the casing must be graded to divert water away from the casing. Termination of the top of the casing below the established ground surface, such as in a vault or pit, is prohibited.
Subp. 11. Casing offsets.
Casing offsets are prohibited.
Subp. 12. Minimum casing depth.
An exploratory boring that is temporarily sealed must be cased according to items A to C. Borings that flow must meet the special requirements in part 4727.0985.
A. A boring that terminates in unconsolidated materials must be cased from a point one foot above the established ground surface and at least five feet above the regional flood level to the bottom of the boring.
B. A boring that terminates in igneous or metamorphic bedrock must be cased from a point one foot above the established ground surface and at least five feet above the regional flood level into igneous or metamorphic bedrock.
C. A boring that terminates in sedimentary bedrock must be cased from a point of one foot above the established ground surface and at least five feet above the regional flood level into sedimentary bedrock. When a confining layer is encountered, the boring must be cased according to part 4727.0975.
Subp. 13. Casing cover.
The casing of a temporarily sealed exploratory boring must be covered with a water tight and insect-proof cap or cover equivalent to the casing in weight and strength consisting of:
A. an overlapping cap with compression gasket; or
B. a threaded or welded cover or cap.
Subp. 14. Casing protection.
The casing of an exploratory boring that is temporarily sealed must be protected by at least one of the following methods:
A. surrounding the casing with a concrete pyramid or cone that has horizontal dimensions of at least 24 inches by 24 inches at the established ground surface, rises 12 inches above the established ground surface at the casing, and has a base with a volume of at least three cubic feet below the established ground surface;
B. installing a steel outer protective casing meeting the specifications of subpart 15 that is at least 3.25 inches in diameter larger than the inner casing, extends at least two feet above the established ground surface and four feet below the established ground surface, and has neat cement grout or concrete grout in the annular space between the casings from the bottom of the outer protective casing to the established ground surface;
C. placing three posts at least four inches square or four inches in diameter around the boring at equal distances from each other and two feet from the exploratory boring. The posts must extend two feet above the established ground surface and four feet below the established ground surface, or to a depth of two feet if each post is set in concrete to a depth of two feet. The posts must be made of reinforced concrete, decay-resistant wood, or steel pipe meeting the specifications of subpart 15. Steel pipe must be covered with an overlapping, threaded, or welded steel or iron cap or be filled with concrete or cement; or
D. extending the casing vertically at least four feet above the established ground surface and reporting the accurate location of the exploratory boring on the temporary sealing report. The location must be determined and reported by using either a differential global positioning system or a survey with bearings and distances taken from property corners or a permanent survey control point.
Subp. 15. Steel casing requirements.
A. Steel casing used in the construction of a temporarily sealed exploratory boring must be produced to the following specifications:
B. Steel casing must have the minimum weights and thicknesses specified in this item, subject to the tolerance in the specifications in item A. * Nominal weight based on length of 20 feet including coupling. Steel casing up to ten inches in diameter must be Schedule 40. Larger diameter casing must be standard weight.
Subp. 16. Stainless steel casing requirements.
Stainless steel casing used in the construction of a temporarily sealed exploratory boring must meet ASTM Standard A312-86a and meet at least:
A. ANSI Schedule 5 for welded joints; and
B. ANSI Schedule 40 for threaded joints.
Subp. 17. Plastic casing requirements.
Plastic casing and couplings used in the construction of a temporarily sealed exploratory boring must:
A. meet ASTM Standard F480-88;
B. withstand internal pressures of 200 pounds per square inch (psi); and
C. have a minimum standard dimension ratio (SDR) of 21.
Subp. 18. Additional approved plastic couplings.
In addition to plastic couplings approved under subpart 17, couplings meeting the following requirements are also approved:
A. couplings with socket dimensions meeting the requirements of ASTM Standard F480-88, Table 3; and
B. ANSI Schedule 40, four-inch and five-inch diameter slip x female thread and five-inch diameter slip x male thread couplings meeting the requirements of ASTM Standard D2466-90a.
Subp. 19. NSF standard for plastic material.
All plastic casings, couplings, components, and related joining materials, including solvents, cements, or primers, used in the construction of a temporarily sealed exploratory boring must conform with the requirements of NSF Standard 61-1991 or the health effects portion of NSF Standard 14-1990 and be tested as conforming by an agency certified by ANSI. Conformance to the NSF standard must be coded, stamped, or marked on the casings, couplings, and components, as well as on the containers of related joining materials, including solvents, cements, or primers.
Subp. 20. Plastic casing installation.
A. When preparing to install plastic casing, a person must:
B. When cutting plastic casing, casing ends must be cut square using fine-tooth blades with little or no set or a plastic pipe cutter equipped with extra wide rollers and thin cutting wheels. Standard steel pipe or tubing cutters must not be used for cutting plastic casing.
C. All dirt, dust, and moisture must be cleaned from casing ends and couplings using chemical or mechanical cleaners suitable for the particular plastic material. All burrs must be removed from casing ends and couplings.
D. A primer must be used when required or recommended by the solvent cement label instructions.
E. An even coat of solvent cement must be applied to the inside of the couplings to cover the distance of the joining surface only. An even coat of solvent cement must then be applied to the outside of the casing being joined to a distance equal to the depth of the casing coupling socket.
F. When assembling plastic casing, a person must:
G. Screws must not be used to join plastic casing.
H. A person must not drill inside plastic casing. Drilling tools such as drill bits must not be inserted in plastic casing.
I. Plastic casing must not be used as an outside casing in exploratory borings cased more than five feet into limestone or dolomite bedrock. In limestone or dolomite bedrock, plastic casing may be used as an inner casing if surrounded by an outer steel casing.
J. Plastic casing must not be driven.
K. A person installing plastic casing must either seal the exploratory boring or remove and replace all casing when:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 28 SR 147
Minn. R. 4727.0975 Interconnection of Aquifers Prohibited
A temporarily sealed exploratory boring must not be constructed to interconnect aquifers separated by a confining layer.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 28 SR 147
Minn. R. 4727.0980 Grouting of Temporarily Sealed Exploratory Borings
Subpart 1. Grouting requirements.
All annular space surrounding the casing of a temporarily sealed exploratory boring must be grouted from the bottom of the casing to the established ground surface. When constructing the exploratory boring with a method such as mud or air rotary, auger, coring, or jetting that creates an open annular space, a grouting material specified in subpart 2 and the grouting methods specified in subpart 3 must be used to fill the annular space between the casing and the bore hole. Driven casing must be grouted according to subpart 6.
Subp. 2. Grouting materials.
The following grout materials are approved for use in temporarily sealed exploratory borings:
A. neat cement grout, except that rapid setting cement must not be used with plastic casing;
B. concrete grout when used in the dry portion of the open annular space;
C. high solids bentonite grout when used in unconsolidated materials; and
D. kaolin clay in the kaolin clay portion of the boring.
Subp. 3. Grouting methods.
Grouting must start immediately on completion of drilling and testing an exploratory boring. Grout must be pumped into the annular space from the bottom up through the casing, drill rods, or a tremie pipe. Neat cement grout or concrete grout must be allowed to set a minimum of 48 hours. Rapid setting cement must be allowed to set a minimum of 12 hours. Drilling is prohibited during the time the cement is setting.
Subp. 4. Alternative methods and materials for grout loss.
A. If the grout level fails to rise after insertion of more than one cubic yard of grout or the quantity of grout necessary to fill ten vertical feet of hole, or if a cavity more than twice the diameter of the bore hole exits, then the following grouting materials and methods may be used in the portions where the conditions exist:
B. Neat cement grout or concrete grout must be pumped through the casing or a tremie pipe. The aggregate must be poured into the bore hole at a rate that prevents bridging.
Subp. 5. Grouting between casings.
The annular space between an inner casing and an outer casing must be filled with neat cement grout according to subpart 3.
Subp. 6. Driving casing.
When driving casing, a cone-shaped depression or temporary outer casing filled with high solids bentonite grout, bentonite powder, or granular bentonite must be maintained around the outside of the casing. The bottom of driven casing must be equipped with a drive shoe. Casing may only be driven in unconsolidated materials or sandstone bedrock.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 28 SR 147
Minn. R. 4727.0985 Temporarily Sealed Exploratory Borings That Flow
Subpart 1. General construction.
A temporarily sealed exploratory boring from which groundwater flows above the established ground surface without pumping and which does not require special construction under subpart 2 must be constructed to prevent erosion of the aquifer and confining layer. Casing must be installed into the flowing aquifer to prevent water flowing up the outside of the casing by either:
A. driving steel casing into the flowing aquifer according to part 4727.0980, subpart 6; or
B. grouting the annular space surrounding the casing with neat cement grout according to part 4727.0980, subpart 3.
Subp. 2. Special construction required.
A temporarily sealed exploratory boring must be constructed according to subpart 3 when:
A. the artesian flow rate at the established ground surface is greater than 70 gallons per minute;
B. the artesian pressure at the established ground surface exceeds ten pounds per square inch; or
C. the commissioner designates an area where the use of standard construction techniques have resulted in uncontrolled flows or where hydrogeologic conditions such as eroded or unstable confining layers require special construction to successfully complete an exploratory boring and confine the artesian pressure.
Subp. 3. Special construction standards.
A temporarily sealed exploratory boring requiring special construction under subpart 2 must be constructed by:
A. installing an outer steel casing into, but not penetrating the entire thickness of, the confining layer overlying the flowing aquifer by:
B. drilling through the confining layer into the aquifer;
C. installing an inner casing, which is 3.25 inches smaller than the bore hole, into the aquifer; and
D. grouting the annular space surrounding the inner casing with neat cement grout according to part 4727.0980, subpart 3.
Subp. 4. Flow control.
A temporarily sealed flowing exploratory boring must be provided with flow control capable of stopping all flow.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 28 SR 147
Minn. R. 4727.1000 Sealing Exploratory Borings
Sealing of exploratory borings shall be carried out according to Minnesota Statutes, chapter 103I and parts 4727.0050 to 4727.1250. Sealing, whether temporary or permanent, shall be undertaken within 30 days of completion of drilling activities. The commissioner may order that an exploratory boring be sampled and any contamination be removed prior to sealing. If an exploratory boring provides a potential or actual source or channel of contamination for an aquifer, the commissioner may order that the boring be permanently sealed. The explorer is responsible for temporary and permanent sealing of exploratory borings constructed by the explorer except when a written agreement exists, as provided in part 4727.0250, that assigns the responsibility to another.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 156A.01 to 156A.08
- History: 28 SR 147
Minn. R. 4727.1100 Temporary Sealing of Exploratory Borings
Subpart 1. General.
A temporarily sealed exploratory boring must be constructed according to parts 4727.0922 to 4727.0985 and shall be maintained so that it is not a source or channel of contamination for any aquifer.
Until a boring is permanently sealed, all provisions for protection of the groundwater against contamination and pollution and for maintaining satisfactory sanitary conditions around the boring shall be carried out.
Subp. 2. Time limit for temporarily sealing.
An exploratory boring must not be temporarily sealed for more than ten years. The boring must be permanently sealed at the end of the tenth year, or sooner if:
A. the explorer determines that an exploratory boring need not remain open any longer;
B. any legal or contractual right necessary for the explorer to seal the boring will expire within 30 days;
C. the boring is required to be sealed under Minnesota Statutes, chapter 103I;
D. a license or registration required under Minnesota Statutes, section 103I.601, will expire within 30 days and the explorer has not applied to renew or is not qualified to renew the license or registration; or
E. any registration bond or security required by the commissioner of natural resources will expire within 30 days and the explorer has not submitted a new bond or security.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101; 156A.01 to 156A.08
- History: 28 SR 147
Minn. R. 4727.1200 [Repealed, 28 SR 147]
[Repealed, 28 SR 147]
Minn. R. 4727.1250 Permanent Sealing of Exploratory Borings
Subpart 1. Permanent sealing required.
The explorer must permanently seal an exploratory boring that is not temporarily sealed or that is required to be permanently sealed under part 4727.1100, subpart 2.
Subp. 2. Sealing with grout.
An exploratory boring must be permanently sealed by filling the boring, including any open annular space, with grout. The grout must be pumped through a tremie pipe or the casing from the bottom of the annular space or boring upward to within two feet of the established ground surface. The bottom of the tremie pipe must remain submerged in grout while grouting.
Subp. 3. Removal of obstruction, debris.
Materials, debris, and obstructions that may interfere with permanent sealing must be removed from the exploratory boring. Casing may be salvaged, except casing that has been cemented in place.
Subp. 4. Grouting an annular space.
Open annular space surrounding a casing must be grouted by:
A. filling the annular space with grout according to subpart 2;
B. removing the casing and filling the boring with grout. If casing is to be removed from a collapsing formation, grout must be inserted so the bottom of the casing remains submerged in grout;
C. perforating the casing with a minimum of one 1/2-square-inch hole in each foot of casing and forcing grout through the perforations; or
D. ripping a minimum of five feet of casing for every 20 feet of casing and forcing grout through the ripped casing, except that casing must be ripped through the entire length of a confining layer.
Subp. 5. Additional sealing requirements; unconsolidated materials.
The additional requirements in items A and B apply to the permanent sealing of a boring in unconsolidated materials.
A. The portion of a boring in unconsolidated material must be filled with high solids bentonite grout or neat cement grout. Concrete grout is approved for grouting only in the dry portion of the hole. The grout must be pumped through a tremie pipe or the casing from the bottom of the boring upward to within two feet of the established ground surface.
B. The portion of a boring in kaolin clay may be sealed with kaolin clay in addition to the grout materials in item A. Up to 20 percent water by volume may be added to the kaolin clay to allow for placement. The kaolin clay, or kaolin clay and water mixture, must be inserted through a tremie pipe or the casing.
Subp. 6. Additional sealing requirements; bedrock.
The additional requirements in items A and B apply to the permanent sealing of a boring in bedrock.
A. The portion of a boring in bedrock must be filled and sealed through the entire interval of the bedrock with neat cement grout, except that:
B. Neat cement grout or concrete grout must be pumped through the casing or a tremie pipe. The aggregate must be poured into the bore hole at a rate that prevents bridging.
Subp. 7. Sealing flowing boring.
An exploratory boring from which groundwater flows above the established ground surface must be permanently sealed with neat cement grout. The discharge from a flowing exploratory boring must be stopped and the boring sealed according to this part.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 103I.101
- History: 28 SR 147
Minn. R. 4727.1300 [Repealed, 28 SR 147]
[Repealed, 28 SR 147]
Chapter 4730 IONIZING RADIATION
Minn. R. 4730.0100 Repealed by subpart
Subpart 1.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 2.
MR 1991 [Renumbered as Subp. 13, 16 SR 485]
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 3.
[Repealed by amendment, L 1977 c 305 s 39]
Subp. 4.
MR 1991 [Renumbered as Subp. 37, 16 SR 485]
Subp. 4.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 5.
MR 1991 [Renumbered as Subp. 39, 16 SR 485]
Subp. 5.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 5a.
[Repealed, 29 SR 755; 32 SR 777]
Subp. 6.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 6a.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 7.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 7a.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 7b.
[Repealed, 29 SR 755; 32 SR 777]
Subp. 8.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 9.
MR 1991 [Renumbered as Subp. 54, 16 SR 485]
Subp. 9.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 10.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 11.
[Repealed, 16 SR 485; 32 SR 777]
Subp. 12.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 13.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 14.
MR 1991 [Renumbered as Subp. 83, 16 SR 485]
Subp. 14.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 15.
MR 1991 [Renumbered as Subp. 89, 16 SR 485]
Subp. 15.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 16.
MR 1991 [Renumbered as Subp. 90, 16 SR 485]
Subp. 16.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 17.
[Repealed, 16 SR 485; 32 SR 777]
Subp. 18.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 19.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 20.
MR 1991 [Renumbered as Subp. 97, 16 SR 485]
Subp. 20.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 21.
[Repealed, 16 SR 485; 32 SR 777]
Subp. 22.
[Repealed, 29 SR 755; 32 SR 777]
Subp. 22a.
[Repealed, 29 SR 755; 32 SR 777]
Subp. 23.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 24.
[Repealed, 29 SR 755; 32 SR 777]
Subp. 25.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 26.
MR 1991 [Renumbered as Subp. 113, 16 SR 485]
Subp. 26.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 27.
[Repealed, 16 SR 485; 32 SR 777]
Subp. 27a.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 28.
MR 1991 [Renumbered as Subp. 125, 16 SR 485]
Subp. 28.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 28a.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 29.
[Repealed, 16 SR 485; 32 SR 777]
Subp. 30.
MR 1991 [Renumbered as Subp. 129, 16 SR 485]
Subp. 30.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 31.
[Repealed, 16 SR 485; 32 SR 777]
Subp. 32.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 33.
MR 1991 [Renumbered as Subp. 135, 16 SR 485]
Subp. 33.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 34.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 35.
MR 1991 [Renumbered as Subp. 137, 16 SR 485]
Subp. 35.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 36.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 37.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 38.
MR 1991 [Renumbered as Subp. 144, 16 SR 485]
Subp. 38.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 39.
MR 1991 [Renumbered as Subp. 146, 16 SR 485]
Subp. 39.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 39a.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 39b.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 40.
MR 1991 [Renumbered as Subp. 147, 16 SR 485]
Subp. 40.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 41.
[Repealed, 16 SR 485; 32 SR 777]
Subp. 42.
MR 1991 [Renumbered as Subp. 148, 16 SR 485]
Subp. 42.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 43.
MR 1991 [Renumbered as Subp. 151, 16 SR 485]
Subp. 43.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 44.
MR 1991 [Renumbered as Subp. 155, 16 SR 485]
Subp. 44.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 45.
MR 1991 [Renumbered as Subp. 159, 16 SR 485]
Subp. 45.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 46.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 47.
MR 1991 [Renumbered as Subp. 163, 16 SR 485]
Subp. 47.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 48.
MR 1991 [Renumbered as Subp. 164, 16 SR 485]
Subp. 48.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 49.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 50.
[Repealed, 29 SR 755; 32 SR 777]
Subp. 51.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 52.
MR 1991 [Renumbered as Subp. 178, 16 SR 485]
Subp. 52.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 52a.
[Repealed, 29 SR 755; 32 SR 777]
Subp. 53.
MR 1991 [Renumbered as Subp. 188, 16 SR 485]
Subp. 53.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 54.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 55.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 56.
MR 1991 [Renumbered as Subp. 193, 16 SR 485]
Subp. 56.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 57.
MR 1991 [Renumbered as Subp. 197, 16 SR 485]
Subp. 57.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 58.
[Repealed, 29 SR 755; 32 SR 777]
Subp. 59.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 60.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 61.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 62.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 63.
[Repealed, 29 SR 755; 32 SR 777]
Subp. 64.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 65.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 66.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 67.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 68.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 69.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 70.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 71.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 72.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 73.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 73a.
[Repealed, 29 SR 755; 32 SR 777]
Subp. 74.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 75.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 76.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 77.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 78.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 79.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 80.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 81.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 82.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 83.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 84.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 85.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 86.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 87.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 88.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 88a.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 88b.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 89.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 89a.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 90.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 91.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 92.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 93.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 94.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 95.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 96.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 97.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 98.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 99.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 100.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 101.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 102.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 103.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 104.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 105.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 106.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 106a.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 106b.
[Repealed, 29 SR 755; 32 SR 777]
Subp. 106c.
[Repealed, 29 SR 755; 32 SR 777]
Subp. 107.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 108.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 109.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 110.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 111.
[Repealed, 22 SR 314; 32 SR 777]
Subp. 112.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 113.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 114.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 115.
[Repealed, 29 SR 755; 32 SR 777]
Subp. 116.
[Repealed, 29 SR 755; 32 SR 777]
Subp. 117.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 118.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 119.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 119a.
[Repealed, 29 SR 755; 32 SR 777]
Subp. 120.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 120a.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 121.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 121a.
[Repealed, 29 SR 755; 32 SR 777]
Subp. 122.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 123.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 124.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 125.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 125a.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 126.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 127.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 128.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 128a.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 129.
[Repealed, 29 SR 755; 32 SR 777]
Subp. 130.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 131.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 132.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 132a.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 133.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 134.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 135.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 136.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 137.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 137a.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 138.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 139.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 140.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 141.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 142.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 143.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 144.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 145.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 146.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 147.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 148.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 149.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 150.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 151.
[Repealed, 29 SR 755; 32 SR 777]
Subp. 152.
[Repealed, 29 SR 755; 32 SR 777]
Subp. 153.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 154.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 155.
[Repealed, 29 SR 755; 32 SR 777]
Subp. 156.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 157.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 157a.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 158.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 159.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 160.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 161.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 162.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 163.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 164.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 165.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 166.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 167.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 168.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 169.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 169a.
[Repealed, 29 SR 755; 32 SR 777]
Subp. 170.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 171.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 172.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 173.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 174.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 174a.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 175.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 176.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 177.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 178.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 179.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 180.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 181.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 181a.
[Repealed, 29 SR 755; 32 SR 777]
Subp. 182.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 183.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 184.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 185.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 186.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 187.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 187a.
[Repealed, 29 SR 755; 32 SR 777]
Subp. 188.
[Repealed, 29 SR 755; 32 SR 777]
Subp. 189.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 190.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 191.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 192.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 193.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 193a.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 194.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 195.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 196.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 197.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 198.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 199.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 200.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 201.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 201a.
[Repealed, 29 SR 755; 32 SR 777]
Subp. 202.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 203.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 204.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 205.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 206.
[Repealed, 29 SR 755; 32 SR 777]
Subp. 207.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 208.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 209.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 210.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 210a.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 211.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 212.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 213.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 213a.
[Repealed, 29 SR 755; 32 SR 777]
Subp. 213b.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 214.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 215.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 216.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 217.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 218.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 219.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 220.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 221.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.0200 [Repealed, 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.0300 Repealed by subpart
Subpart 1.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 1a.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 4.
[Repealed, 16 SR 485; 32 SR 777]
Subp. 5.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 6.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 7.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 8.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.0310 [Repealed, 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.0340 Repealed by subpart
Subpart 1.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, 23 SR 1760; 32 SR 777]
Subp. 3.
[Repealed 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.0360 [Repealed, 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.0380 [Repealed, 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.0400 [Repealed, 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.0500 [Repealed, 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.0600 [Repealed, 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.0700 Repealed by subpart
Subpart 1.
[Repealed, 16 SR 485; 32 SR 777]
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, 16 SR 485; 32 SR 777]
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.0800 [Repealed, 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.0850 [Repealed, 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.0900 [Repealed, 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.1000 [Repealed, 29 SR 755; 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 29 SR 755; 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.1100 [Repealed, 16 SR 485; 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 16 SR 485; 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.1110 [Repealed, 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.1120 Repealed by subpart
Subpart 1.
[Repealed, 23 SR 1760; 32 SR 777]
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.1130 Repealed by subpart
Subpart 1.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777 ]
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, 23 SR 1760; 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.1140 Repealed by subpart
Subpart 1.
[Repealed, 23 SR 1760; 32 SR 777]
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 4.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.1200 [Repealed, 16 SR 485; 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 16 SR 485; 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.1210 [Repealed, 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.1300 [Repealed, 16 SR 485; 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 16 SR 485; 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.1310 [Repealed, 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.1400 [Repealed, 23 SR 1760; 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 23 SR 1760; 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.1450 [Repealed, 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.1475 [Repealed, 17 SR 3414; 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 17 SR 3414; 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.1500 [Repealed, 16 SR 485; 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 16 SR 485; 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.1510 [Repealed, 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.1520 [Repealed, 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.1530 [Repealed, 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.1600 [Repealed, 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.1610 [Repealed, 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.1620 [Repealed, 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.1630 [Repealed, 32 SR 777 ]
[Repealed, 32 SR 777 ]
Minn. R. 4730.1640 [Repealed, 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.1650 [Repealed, 16 SR 485; 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 16 SR 485; 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.1655 [Repealed, 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.1660 [Repealed, 16 SR 485; 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 16 SR 485; 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.1665 [Repealed, 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.1670 [Repealed, 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.1675 [Repealed, 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.1680 [Repealed, 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.1685 [Repealed, 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.1688 [Repealed, 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.1690 [Repealed, 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.1691 Repealed by subpart
Subpart 1.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 1a.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 4.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 5.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 5a.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 6.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 7.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 8.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 9.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 10.
[Repealed, 23 SR 1760; 32 SR 777]
Subp. 11.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 12.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.1692 [Repealed, 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.1693 [Repealed, 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.1695 Repealed by subpart
Subpart 1.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 4.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 5.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 6.
[Repealed, 23 SR 1760; 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.1700 [Repealed, 16 SR 485; 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 16 SR 485; 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.1750 [Repealed, 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.1800 [Repealed, 16 SR 485; 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 16 SR 485; 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.1850 Repealed by subpart
Subpart 1.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 4.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 5.
[Repealed, 23 SR 1760; 32 SR 777]
Subp. 6.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 7.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 8.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 9.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 10.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 11.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.1900 [Repealed, 16 SR 485; 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 16 SR 485; 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.1950 [Repealed, 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.2000 [Repealed, 16 SR 485; 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 16 SR 485; 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.2050 [Repealed, 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.2100 [Repealed, 16 SR 485; 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 16 SR 485; 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.2150 [Repealed, 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.2200 [Repealed, 16 SR 485; 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 16 SR 485; 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.2250 [Repealed, 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.2300 [Repealed, 16 SR 485; 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 16 SR 485; 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.2350 [Repealed, 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.2400 [Repealed, 16 SR 485; 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 16 SR 485; 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.2450 Repealed by subpart
Subpart 1.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 4.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 5.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 6.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 7.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 8.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 9.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 10.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 11.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 12.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 13.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 14.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 15.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 16.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 17.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 18.
[Repealed, 23 SR 1760; 32 SR 777]
Subp. 19.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 20.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.2475 [Repealed, 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.2500 [Repealed, 22 SR 314; 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 22 SR 314; 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.2510 [Repealed, 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.2520 [Repealed, 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.2530 [Repealed, 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.2540 [Repealed, 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.2550 [Repealed, 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.2560 [Repealed, 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.2570 [Repealed, 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.2580 [Repealed, 29 SR 755; 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 29 SR 755; 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.2600 [Repealed, 29 SR 755; 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 29 SR 755; 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.2700 [Repealed, 22 SR 314; 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 22 SR 314; 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.2710 [Repealed, 29 SR 755; 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 29 SR 755; 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.2750 [Repealed, 29 SR 755; 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 29 SR 755; 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.2800 [Repealed, 29 SR 755; 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 29 SR 755; 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.2900 [Repealed, 22 SR 314; 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 22 SR 314; 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.3000 [Repealed, 23 SR 1760; 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 23 SR 1760; 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.3300 [Repealed, 16 SR 485; 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 16 SR 485; 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.3400 [Repealed, 29 SR 755; 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 29 SR 755; 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.3500 [Repealed, 29 SR 755; 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 29 SR 755; 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.3600 [Repealed, 16 SR 485; 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 16 SR 485; 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.3605 [Repealed, 22 SR 314; 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 22 SR 314; 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.3610 [Repealed, 29 SR 755; 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 29 SR 755; 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.5000 [Repealed, 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.5050 [Repealed, 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.5100 [Repealed, 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.5200 [Repealed, 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.5400 Repealed by subpart
Subpart 1.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, 21 SR 916; 32 SR 777]
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, 21 SR 916; 32 SR 777]
Subp. 4.
[Repealed, 21 SR 916; 32 SR 777]
Subp. 5.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 6.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 7.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Subp. 8.
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Minn. R. 4730.5500 [Repealed, 32 SR 777]
[Repealed, 32 SR 777]
Chapter 4731 RADIATION SAFETY
Minn. R. 4731.0100 Definitions
Subpart 1. Scope.
For purposes of this chapter, the terms in this part have the meanings given them.
Subp. 2. A1.
"A1" means the maximum activity of special form radioactive material permitted in a Type A package. These values are either listed in part 4731.0422 or may be derived according to the procedure in part 4731.0423.
Subp. 3. A2.
"A2" means the maximum activity of radioactive material, other than special form radioactive material, low specific activity material, and surface contaminated object material permitted in a Type A package. These values are either listed in part 4731.0422 or may be derived according to the procedure in part 4731.0423.
Subp. 4. Absorbed dose.
"Absorbed dose" means the energy imparted by ionizing radiation per unit mass of irradiated material. The units of absorbed dose are the rad and the gray.
Subp. 4a. Accelerator-produced radioactive material.
"Accelerator-produced radioactive material" means any material made radioactive by a particle accelerator.
Subp. 4b. Access control.
"Access control" means a system for allowing only approved individuals to have unescorted access to the security zone and for ensuring that all other individuals are subject to escorted access.
Subp. 5. Active maintenance.
"Active maintenance" means any significant remedial activity needed during the period of institutional control to maintain a reasonable assurance that the performance objectives in Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, sections 61.41 and 61.42, are met. Active maintenance includes ongoing activities, such as the pumping and treatment of water from a disposal unit, or one time measures, such as replacement of a disposal unit cover. Active maintenance does not include custodial activities such as repair of fencing, repair or replacement of monitoring equipment, revegetation, minor additions to soil cover, minor repair of disposal unit covers, and general disposal site upkeep, such as mowing grass.
Subp. 6. Activity.
"Activity" is the rate of disintegration (transformation) or decay of radioactive material. The units of activity are the curie and becquerel.
Subp. 7. Acute.
"Acute" is a single radiation dose or chemical exposure event or multiple radiation doses or chemical exposure events occurring within a short time, 24 hours or less.
Subp. 8. Address of use.
"Address of use" means the building or buildings that are identified on a license and where radioactive material may be received, prepared, used, or stored.
Subp. 9. Adult.
"Adult" means an individual 18 or more years of age.
Subp. 9a. Aggregated.
"Aggregated" means accessible by the breach of a single physical barrier that would allow access to radioactive material in any form, including any devices that contain the radioactive material, when the total activity equals or exceeds a category 2 quantity of radioactive material.
Subp. 10. Agreement state.
"Agreement state" means a state with which the NRC or the federal Atomic Energy Commission has entered into an effective agreement under subsection 274b of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, United States Code, title 42, section 2021, paragraph (b), as amended.
Subp. 11. Air-purifying respirator.
"Air-purifying respirator" means a respirator with an air-purifying filter, cartridge, or canister that removes specific air contaminants by passing ambient air through the air-purifying element.
Subp. 12. Airborne radioactive material.
"Airborne radioactive material" means radioactive material dispersed in the air in the form of dusts, fumes, particulates, mists, vapors, or gases.
Subp. 13. Airborne radioactivity area.
"Airborne radioactivity area" means a room, enclosure, or area in which airborne radioactive materials, composed wholly or partly of licensed material, exist in concentrations:
A. in excess of the derived air concentrations (DACs) specified in part 4731.2750; or
B. to such a degree that an individual present in the area without respiratory protective equipment could exceed, during the hours an individual is present in a week, an intake of 0.6 percent of the annual limit on intake (ALI) or 12 DAC-hours.
Subp. 14. Alert.
"Alert" means a situation in which events may occur, are in progress, or have occurred that could lead to a release of radioactive material, but the release is not expected to require a response by off-site response organizations to protect persons off site.
Subp. 15. Annual limit on intake or ALI.
"Annual limit on intake" or "ALI" means the derived limit for the amount of radioactive material taken into the body of an adult worker by inhalation or ingestion in a year. ALI is the smaller value of intake of a given radionuclide in a year by the reference man that would result in a committed effective dose equivalent of five rems (0.05 Sv) or a committed dose equivalent of 50 rems (0.5 Sv) to any individual organ or tissue. ALI values for intake by ingestion and by inhalation of selected radionuclides are given in part 4731.2750.
Subp. 16. Annual refresher safety training or safety review.
"Annual refresher safety training" or "safety review" means a review conducted or provided by the licensee for its employees on radiation safety aspects of industrial radiography or well logging using radioactive materials.
Subp. 16a. Approved individual.
"Approved individual" means an individual whom the licensee has determined to be trustworthy and reliable for unescorted access in accordance with parts 4731.8010 to 4731.8040 and who has completed the training required by part 4731.8055, subpart 3.
Subp. 17. Area of use.
"Area of use" means a portion of an address of use that has been set aside for the purpose of receiving, preparing, using, or storing radioactive material.
Subp. 18. As low as reasonably achievable or ALARA.
"As low as reasonably achievable" or "ALARA" means making every reasonable effort to maintain exposures to radiation as far below the dose limits as is practical, consistent with the purpose for which the licensed or registered activity is undertaken, taking into account the state of technology, the economics of improvement in relation to benefits to the public health and safety, and other societal and socioeconomic considerations, and in relation to utilization of nuclear energy and licensed materials in the public interest.
Subp. 19. Assigned protection factor or APF.
"Assigned protection factor" or "APF" means the expected workplace level of respiratory protection that would be provided by a properly functioning respirator or a class of respirators to properly fitted and trained users. Operationally, the inhaled concentration can be estimated by dividing the ambient airborne concentration by the APF.
Subp. 19a. Associate radiation safety officer.
"Associate radiation safety officer" means an individual who:
A. meets the requirements in parts 4731.4411 and 4731.4415; and
B. is currently identified as an associate radiation safety officer for the types of use of radioactive material for which the individual has been assigned duties and tasks by the radiation safety officer on:
Subp. 20. Associated equipment.
"Associated equipment" means equipment, which is used in conjunction with a radiographic exposure device to make radiographic exposures, that drives, guides, or comes in contact with the sealed source when it is used as an exposure head, for example a guide tube, control tube, control cable, removable source stop, "J" tube, or collimator.
Subp. 21. Atmosphere-supplying respirator.
"Atmosphere-supplying respirator" means a respirator that supplies the respirator user with breathing air from a source independent of the ambient atmosphere and includes supplied-air respirators and self-contained breathing apparatus units.
Subp. 22. Authorized medical physicist.
"Authorized medical physicist" means an individual who:
A. meets the requirements in parts 4731.4412 and 4731.4415; or
B. is identified as an authorized medical physicist or teletherapy physicist on:
Subp. 23. Authorized nuclear pharmacist.
"Authorized nuclear pharmacist" means a pharmacist who:
A. meets the requirements in parts 4731.4413 and 4731.4415;
B. is identified as an authorized nuclear pharmacist on:
C. is identified as an authorized nuclear pharmacist by a commercial nuclear pharmacy that has been authorized to identify authorized nuclear pharmacists; or
D. is designated as an authorized nuclear pharmacist according to part 4731.3395, subpart 2, item C.
Subp. 24. Authorized user.
"Authorized user" means a licensed practitioner of the healing arts who:
A. meets the requirements in part 4731.4415 and in parts 4731.4433, 4731.4436, 4731.4443 to 4731.4445, 4731.4458, 4731.4461, or 4731.4479; or
B. is identified as an authorized user on:
Subp. 24a. Background investigation.
"Background investigation" means the investigation conducted by a licensee or applicant to support the determination of trustworthiness and reliability.
Subp. 25. Background radiation.
"Background radiation" means radiation from cosmic sources; naturally occurring radioactive material, including radon, except as a decay product of source or special nuclear material; and global fallout as it exists in the environment from the testing of nuclear explosive devices or from past nuclear accidents such as Chernobyl that are not under the control of the licensee. Background radiation does not include radiation from source, radioactive, or special nuclear materials regulated by the commissioner.
Subp. 26. Becquerel or Bq.
One "becquerel" or "Bq" is equal to one disintegration per second. One curie is equal to 3.7 x 1010 becquerels. The conventional system equivalent is the curie.
Subp. 27. Bioassay or radiobioassay.
"Bioassay" or "radiobioassay" means the determination of kinds, quantities, or concentrations, and, in some cases, the locations of radioactive material in the human body, whether by direct measurement (in vivo counting) or by analysis and evaluation of materials excreted or removed from the human body.
Subp. 28. Boring.
"Boring" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 103I.005, subdivision 2.
Subp. 29. Brachytherapy.
"Brachytherapy" means a method of radiation therapy in which sources are used to deliver a radiation dose at a distance of up to a few centimeters by surface, intracavitary, intraluminal, or interstitial application.
Subp. 30. Brachytherapy source.
"Brachytherapy source" means a radioactive sealed source or a manufacturer-assembled source train or a combination of these sources that is designed to deliver a therapeutic dose within a distance of a few centimeters.
Subp. 31. Broad scope license.
"Broad scope license" is one kind of a specific license that permits the licensee to use radionuclides, in any chemical or physical form, as long as the amount does not exceed the quantity indicated in the broad scope license.
Subp. 32. Byproduct material.
"Byproduct material" means:
A. any radioactive material, except special nuclear material, yielded in, or made radioactive by, exposure to the radiation incident to the process of producing or using special nuclear material;
B. the tailings or wastes produced by the extraction or concentration of uranium or thorium from ore processed primarily for its source material content, including discrete surface wastes resulting from uranium solution extraction processes. Underground ore bodies depleted by these solution extraction operations do not constitute byproduct material within this definition;
C. any discrete source of radium-226 that is produced, extracted, or converted after extraction for commercial, medical, or research activity, or any material that:
D. any discrete source of naturally occurring radioactive material, other than source material, that:
Subp. 33. Carrier.
"Carrier" means a person engaged in the transportation of passengers or property by land or water as a common, contract, or private carrier, or by civil aircraft.
Subp. 33a. Category 1 quantity of radioactive material.
"Category 1 quantity of radioactive material" means a quantity of radioactive material meeting or exceeding the category 1 threshold under part 4731.8140, subpart 1. This is determined by calculating the ratio of the total activity of each radionuclide to the category 1 threshold for that radionuclide and adding the ratios together. If the sum is equal to or exceeds one, the quantity would be considered a category 1 quantity. Category 1 quantities of radioactive material do not include the radioactive material contained in any fuel assembly, subassembly, fuel rod, or fuel pellet.
Subp. 33b. Category 2 quantity of radioactive material.
"Category 2 quantity of radioactive material" means a quantity of radioactive material meeting or exceeding the category 2 threshold but less than the category 1 threshold under part 4731.8140, subpart 1. This is determined by calculating the ratio of the total activity of each radionuclide to the category 2 threshold for that radionuclide and adding the ratios together. If the sum is equal to or exceeds one, the quantity would be considered a category 2 quantity. Category 2 quantities of radioactive material do not include the radioactive material contained in any fuel assembly, subassembly, fuel rod, or fuel pellet.
Subp. 33c. Certificate holder.
"Certificate holder" means a person who has been issued a certificate of compliance or other package approval by the NRC.
Subp. 33d. Certificate of compliance.
"Certificate of compliance" means the certificate issued by the NRC under Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, part 71, subpart D, which approves the design of a package for transportation of radioactive material.
Subp. 34. Certifying entity or independent certifying organization.
"Certifying entity" or "independent certifying organization" means an independent certifying organization meeting the requirements in part 4731.4360 or an agreement state meeting the requirements in part 4731.4360, subparts 2 and 3, for certifying industrial radiographers.
Subp. 35. Chelating agent.
"Chelating agent" means amine polycarboxylic acids, for example EDTA and DTPA; hydroxy-carboxylic acids; and polycarboxylic acids, for example citric acid, carbolic acid, and glucinic acid.
Subp. 36. Class, inhalation class, or lung class.
"Class," "inhalation class," or "lung class" means a classification scheme for inhaled material according to its rate of clearance from the pulmonary region of the lung. Materials are classified as D, W, or Y, which applies to a range of clearance half-times of:
A. less than ten days for class D (days);
B. from ten to 100 days for class W (weeks); and
C. greater than 100 days for class Y (years).
Subp. 37. Client's address.
"Client's address" means the area of use or a temporary job site for the purpose of providing mobile medical service according to part 4731.4428.
Subp. 38. Collective dose.
"Collective dose" is the sum of the individual doses received in a given period of time by a specified population from exposure to a specified source of radiation.
Subp. 39. Collimator.
"Collimator" means a radiation shield that is placed on the end of the guide tube or directly onto a radiographic exposure device to restrict the size of the radiation beam when the sealed source is cranked into position to make a radiographic exposure.
Subp. 40. Commencement of construction.
"Commencement of construction" means taking any action defined as construction or any other activity at the site of a facility subject to the regulations in this chapter that has a reasonable nexus to radiological health and safety.
Subp. 41. Commissioner.
"Commissioner" means the commissioner of the Minnesota Department of Health.
Subp. 42. Committed dose equivalent or HT,50.
"Committed dose equivalent" or "HT,50" means the dose equivalent to organs or tissues of reference (T) that will be received from an intake of radioactive material by an individual during the 50-year period following the intake.
Subp. 43. Committed effective dose equivalent or HE,50.
"Committed effective dose equivalent" or "HE,50" is the sum of the products of the weighting factors (WT) applicable to each of the body organs or tissues that are irradiated and the committed dose equivalent to these organs or tissues (HE,50 = Σ WTHT,50).
Subp. 43a. Consignment.
"Consignment" means each shipment of a package or groups of packages or load of radioactive material offered by a shipper for transport.
Subp. 43b. Consortium.
"Consortium" means an association of medical use licensees and a PET radionuclide production facility in the same geographical area that jointly own or share in the operation and maintenance cost of the PET radionuclide production facility that produces PET radionuclides for use in producing radioactive drugs within the consortium for noncommercial distributions among its associated members for medical use. The PET radionuclide production facility within the consortium must be located at an educational institution or a federal facility or a medical facility.
Subp. 44. Constraint or dose constraint.
"Constraint" or "dose constraint" means a value above which specified licensee or registrant actions are required.
Subp. 44a. Construction.
"Construction" means the installation of foundations or in-place assembly, erection, fabrication, or testing for any structure, system, or component of a facility or activity subject to the regulations in this chapter that are related to radiological safety or security. Construction does not include:
A. changes for temporary use of the land for public recreational purposes;
B. site exploration, including necessary borings to determine foundation conditions or other preconstruction monitoring to establish background information related to the suitability of the site, the environmental impacts of construction or operation, or the protection of environmental values;
C. preparation of the site for construction of the facility, including clearing of the site, grading, installation of drainage, erosion and other environmental mitigation measures, and construction of temporary roads and borrow areas;
D. erection of fences and other access control measures that are not related to the safe use of, or security of, radiological materials subject to this part;
E. excavation;
F. erection of support buildings, such as construction equipment storage sheds, warehouse and shop facilities, utilities, concrete mixing plants, docking and unloading facilities, and office buildings for use in connection with the construction of the facility;
G. building of service facilities, such as paved roads, parking lots, railroad spurs, exterior utility and lighting systems, potable water systems, sanitary sewerage treatment facilities, and transmission lines;
H. procurement or fabrication of components or portions of the proposed facility occurring at other than the final, in-place location at the facility; or
I. taking any other action that has no reasonable nexus to radiological health and safety.
Subp. 44b. Containment system.
"Containment system" means the assembly of components of the packaging intended to retain the radioactive material during transport.
Subp. 45. Contiguous sites.
"Contiguous sites" means licensee-controlled locations that are deemed by the commissioner to be in close enough proximity to each other so that the special nuclear material must be considered in the aggregate for the purpose of physical protection.
Subp. 46. Control cable or drive cable.
"Control cable" or "drive cable" means the cable that is connected to the source assembly and used to drive the source to and from the exposure location.
Subp. 47. Control drive mechanism.
"Control drive mechanism" means a device that enables the source assembly to be moved to and from the exposure device.
Subp. 48. Control tube.
"Control tube" means a protective sheath for guiding the control cable. The control tube connects the control drive mechanism to the radiographic exposure device.
Subp. 49. Controlled area.
"Controlled area" means an area outside of a restricted area but inside the site boundary, access to which can be limited by the licensee or registrant for any reason.
Subp. 49a. Conveyance.
"Conveyance" means:
A. for transport by public highway or rail, any transport vehicle or large freight container;
B. for transport by water, any vessel or any hold, compartment, or defined deck area of a vessel, including any transport vehicle on board the vessel; and
C. for transport by air, any aircraft.
Subp. 50. Critical group.
"Critical group" means the group of individuals reasonably expected to receive the greatest exposure to residual radioactivity for any applicable set of circumstances.
Subp. 50a. Criticality safety index or CSI.
"Criticality safety index" or "CSI" means the dimensionless number, rounded up to the next tenth, assigned to and placed on the label of a fissile material package, to designate the degree of control of accumulation of packages, overpacks, or freight containers containing fissile material during transportation. Determination of the criticality safety index is described in parts 4731.0410 and 4731.0411 and Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, section 71.59. The criticality safety index for an overpack, freight container, consignment, or conveyance containing fissile material packages is the arithmetic sum of the criticality safety indices of all the fissile material packages contained within the overpack, freight container, consignment, or conveyance.
Subp. 51. Curie or Ci.
One "curie" or "Ci" is the quantity of radioactive material that decays at the rate of 3.7 x 1010 disintegrations per second (dps). The SI equivalent is the becquerel.
Subp. 51a. Cyclotron.
"Cyclotron" means a particle accelerator in which the charged particles travel in an outward spiral or circular path. A cyclotron accelerates charged particles at energies usually in excess of ten MeV and is commonly used for production of short half-life radionuclides for medical use.
Subp. 52. Declared pregnant woman.
"Declared pregnant woman" means a woman who has voluntarily informed the licensee or registrant, in writing, of her pregnancy and the estimated date of conception. The declaration remains in effect until the declared pregnant woman withdraws the declaration in writing or is no longer pregnant.
Subp. 53. Decommission.
"Decommission" means to safely remove a facility or site from service and reduce residual radioactivity to a level that permits:
A. release of the property for unrestricted use and termination of the license or registration; or
B. release of the property under restricted conditions and termination of the license or registration.
Subp. 54. Dedicated check source.
"Dedicated check source" means a radioactive source that is used to ensure the constant operation of a radiation detection or measurement device over several months or years.
Subp. 55. Deep dose equivalent or Hd.
"Deep dose equivalent" or "Hd," which applies to external whole-body exposure, is the dose equivalent at a tissue depth of one centimeter (1,000 mg/cm2).
Subp. 56. Demand respirator.
"Demand respirator" means an atmosphere-supplying respirator that admits breathing air to the facepiece only when a negative pressure is created inside the facepiece by inhalation.
Subp. 57. Depleted uranium.
"Depleted uranium" means the source material uranium in which the isotope uranium-235 is less than 0.711 weight percent of the total uranium present. Depleted uranium does not include special nuclear material.
Subp. 58. Derived air concentration or DAC.
"Derived air concentration" or "DAC" means the concentration of a given radionuclide in air which, if breathed by the reference man for a working year of 2,000 hours under conditions of light work (inhalation rate 1.2 cubic meters of air per hour), results in an intake of one ALI. DAC values are given in part 4731.2750, subpart 7, Table 1, column 3.
Subp. 59. Derived air concentration-hour or DAC-hour.
"Derived air concentration-hour" or "DAC-hour" is the product of the concentration of radioactive material in air, expressed as a fraction or multiple of the derived air concentration for each radionuclide, and the time of exposure to that radionuclide, in hours. A licensee or registrant may take 2,000 DAC-hours to represent one ALI, equivalent to a committed effective dose equivalent of five rems (0.05 Sv).
Subp. 59a. Deuterium.
"Deuterium" means, for purposes of parts 4731.0403, subpart 4, and 4731.0410, deuterium and any deuterium compounds, including heavy water, in which the ratio of deuterium atoms to hydrogen atoms exceeds 1:5000.
Subp. 60. Disposable respirator.
"Disposable respirator" means a respirator for which maintenance is not intended and that is designed to be discarded after excessive breathing resistance, sorbent exhaustion, physical damage, or end-of-service-life renders it unsuitable for use. Examples of this type of respirator are a disposable half-mask respirator or a disposable escape-only self-contained breathing apparatus.
Subp. 60a. Discrete source.
"Discrete source" means a radionuclide that has been processed so that its concentration within a material has been purposely increased for use for commercial, medical, or research activities.
Subp. 61. Distinguishable from background.
"Distinguishable from background" means that the detectable concentration of a radionuclide is statistically different from the background concentration of that radionuclide in the vicinity of the site or, in the case of structures, in similar materials using adequate measurement technology, survey, and statistical techniques.
Subp. 62. Distribution.
"Distribution" means the act of distributing or the condition of being distributed.
Subp. 63. Distributor.
"Distributor" means one who distributes, markets, or sells merchandise that includes a radiation source or radiation-producing equipment, especially a wholesaler.
Subp. 63a. Diversion.
"Diversion" means the unauthorized movement of radioactive material subject to this chapter to a location different from the material's authorized destination inside or outside of the site at which the material is used or stored.
Subp. 64. Dose or radiation dose.
"Dose" or "radiation dose" means absorbed dose, dose equivalent, effective dose equivalent, committed dose equivalent, committed effective dose equivalent, or total effective dose equivalent.
Subp. 64a. Dose commitment.
"Dose commitment" means the total radiation dose to a part of the body that will result from retention in the body of radioactive material. For purposes of estimating the dose commitment, it is assumed from the time of intake the period of exposure to retained material will not exceed 50 years.
Subp. 65. Dose equivalent or HT.
"Dose equivalent" or "HT" means the product of the absorbed dose in tissue, quality factor, and all other necessary modifying factors at the location of interest. The units of dose equivalent are the rem and sievert.
Subp. 66. Dose limits or limits.
"Dose limits" or "limits" means the permissible upper bounds of radiation doses.
Subp. 67. DOT.
"DOT" means the United States Department of Transportation.
Subp. 68. Doubly encapsulated sealed source.
"Doubly encapsulated sealed source" means a sealed source in which the radioactive material is sealed within a capsule and that capsule is sealed within another capsule.
Subp. 69. Effective dose equivalent or HE.
"Effective dose equivalent" or "HE" means the sum of the products of the dose equivalent to the organ or tissue (HT) and the weighting factors (WT) applicable to each of the body organs or tissues that are irradiated. (HE = Σαµρ× WT HT).
Subp. 70. Effective kilogram.
"Effective kilogram" means:
A. for the source material uranium in which the uranium isotope uranium-235 is greater than 0.005 (0.5 weight percent) of the total uranium present, 10,000 kilograms; and
B. for any other source material, 20,000 kilograms.
Subp. 71. Electron-beam generator.
"Electron-beam generator" means a type of electron accelerator in which the electron beam is brought out into the atmosphere for irradiation purposes.
Subp. 72. Embryo/fetus.
"Embryo/fetus" means the developing human organism from conception until the time of birth.
Subp. 73. Energy compensation source or ECS.
"Energy compensation source" or "ECS" means a small sealed source, with an activity not exceeding 100 microcuries (3.7 MBq), used within a logging tool, or other tool components, to provide a reference standard to maintain the tool's calibration when in use.
Subp. 74. Enriched uranium.
"Enriched uranium" means uranium containing more uranium-235 than the naturally occurring distribution of uranium isotopes.
Subp. 75. Entrance or access point.
"Entrance" or "access point" means any location through which an individual could gain access to radiation areas or to radioactive materials. Entrance or access point includes entry or exit portals of sufficient size to permit human entry, irrespective of their intended use.
Subp. 75a. Escorted access.
"Escorted access" means accompaniment while in a security zone by an approved individual who maintains continuous direct visual surveillance at all times over an individual who is not approved for unescorted access.
Subp. 76. Exclusive use.
"Exclusive use" means the sole use by a single consignor of a conveyance for which all initial, intermediate, and final loading and unloading are carried out according to the direction of the consignor or consignee. The consignor and the carrier must ensure that any loading or unloading is performed by personnel having radiological training and resources appropriate for safe handling of the consignment. The consignor must issue specific instructions, in writing, for maintenance of exclusive use shipment controls and include them with the shipping paper information provided to the carrier by the consignor.
Subp. 77. Exposure.
"Exposure" means being exposed to ionizing radiation or to radioactive material.
Subp. 78. Exposure head or source stop.
"Exposure head" or "source stop" means a device that locates the gamma radiography sealed source in the selected working position.
Subp. 79. Exposure rate.
"Exposure rate" means the exposure per unit of time, such as roentgen per minute, milliroentgen per hour, sievert per minute, or millisievert per hour.
Subp. 80. External dose.
"External dose" means that portion of the dose equivalent received from radiation sources outside the body.
Subp. 81. Extremity.
"Extremity" means hand, elbow, arm below the elbow, foot, knee, or leg below the knee.
Subp. 82. Field station.
"Field station" means a facility where licensed or registered material may be stored or used and from which equipment is dispatched to a temporary job site.
Subp. 83. Filtering facepiece or dust mask.
"Filtering facepiece" or "dust mask" means a negative pressure particulate respirator with a filter as an integral part of the facepiece or with the entire facepiece composed of the filtering medium, not equipped with elastomeric sealing surfaces and adjustable straps.
Subp. 83a. Fingerprint orders.
"Fingerprint orders" means the orders issued by the NRC or the legally binding requirements issued by agreement states that require fingerprints and criminal history records checks for individuals with unescorted access to category 1 and category 2 quantities of radioactive material or safeguards information-modified handling.
Subp. 84. Fissile material.
"Fissile material" means the radionuclides plutonium-239, plutonium-241, uranium-233, uranium-235, or any combination of these radionuclides. Fissile material means the fissile nuclides themselves, not material containing fissile nuclides. Unirradiated natural uranium and depleted uranium and natural uranium or depleted uranium, that has been irradiated in thermal reactors only, are not included in this definition. Certain exclusions from fissile material controls are provided in parts 4731.0400 to 4731.0424.
Subp. 85. Fit factor.
"Fit factor" means a quantitative estimate of the fit of a particular respirator to a specific individual and typically estimates the ratio of the concentration of a substance in ambient air to its concentration inside the respirator when worn.
Subp. 86. Fit test.
"Fit test" means the use of a protocol to qualitatively or quantitatively evaluate the fit of a respirator on an individual.
Subp. 87. Freshwater aquifer.
"Freshwater aquifer" means a geologic formation that is capable of yielding fresh water to a well or spring.
Subp. 88. General license.
"General license" means a license that is provided by rule, grants authority to a person for certain activities involving radioactive material, and is effective without the filing of an application with the commissioner or the issuance of a licensing document to a particular person. The commissioner may require registration by the particular general licensee.
Subp. 89. Geologic repository.
"Geologic repository" means a system that is intended to be used for, or may be used for, the disposal of radioactive wastes in excavated geologic media. Geologic repository includes:
A. the geologic repository operations area; and
B. the portion of the geologic setting that provides isolation of the radioactive waste.
Subp. 90. Government agency.
"Government agency" means an executive department, commission, independent establishment, or corporation wholly or partly owned by the United States or the state of Minnesota and which is an instrumentality of the United States or the state of Minnesota or a board, bureau, division, service, office, officer, authority, administration, or other establishment in the executive branch of federal government.
Subp. 90a. Graphite.
"Graphite" means graphite with a boron equivalent content less than five parts per million and density greater than 1.5 grams per cubic centimeter.
Subp. 91. Gray or Gy.
"Gray" or "Gy" is the SI unit of absorbed dose. One gray is equal to an absorbed dose of one joule/kilogram. One gray is also equal to 100 rads.
Subp. 92. Guide tube or projection sheath.
"Guide tube" or "projection sheath" means a flexible or rigid tube, such as a "J" tube, for guiding the source assembly and the attached control cable from the exposure device to the exposure head. Guide tube or projection sheath includes the connections necessary for attachment to the exposure device and to the exposure head.
Subp. 93. Hands-on experience.
"Hands-on experience" means experience in all of those areas considered to be directly involved in the industrial radiography process.
Subp. 94. Hazardous waste.
"Hazardous waste" means those wastes designated as hazardous by the Environmental Protection Agency regulations in Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, part 261.
Subp. 95. Helmet.
"Helmet" means a rigid respiratory inlet covering that also provides head protection against impact and penetration.
Subp. 96. High dose-rate remote afterloader.
"High dose-rate remote afterloader" means a device that remotely delivers a dose rate in excess of 1,200 rads (12 Gy) per hour at the point or surface where the dose is prescribed.
Subp. 96a. High integrity container or HIC.
"High integrity container" or "HIC" means a container commonly designed to meet the structural stability requirements of Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, section 61.56, and to meet the United States Department of Transportation requirements for a Type A package.
Subp. 97. High radiation area.
"High radiation area" means an area, accessible to individuals, in which radiation levels from radiation sources external to the body could result in an individual receiving a dose equivalent in excess of 0.1 rem (1 mSv) in one hour at 30 centimeters from the radiation source or 30 centimeters from any surface that the radiation penetrates.
Subp. 98. Hood.
"Hood" means a respiratory inlet covering that completely covers the head and neck and may also cover portions of the shoulders and torso.
Subp. 99. Inadvertent intruder.
"Inadvertent intruder" means a person who might occupy a disposal site after closure and engage in normal activities, such as agriculture, dwelling construction, or other pursuits in which the person might be unknowingly exposed to radiation from the waste.
Subp. 100. Incident.
"Incident" means an occurrence or event that interrupts normal procedure or precipitates a crisis.
Subp. 100a. Indian Tribe.
"Indian Tribe" means an Indian or Alaska Native Tribe, band, nation, pueblo, village, or community that the Secretary of the Interior acknowledges to exist as an Indian Tribe pursuant to the Federally Recognized Indian Tribe List Act of 1994, United States Code, title 25, section 479a.
Subp. 101. Individual.
"Individual" means a human being.
Subp. 102. Individual monitoring.
"Individual monitoring" means:
A. the assessment of dose equivalent by the use of devices designed to be worn by an individual;
B. the assessment of committed effective dose equivalent by bioassay or by determination of the time-weighted air concentrations to which an individual has been exposed, such as derived air concentration-hours (DAC-hours); or
C. the assessment of dose equivalent by the use of survey data.
Subp. 103. Individual monitoring devices.
"Individual monitoring devices" means devices designed to be worn by a single individual for the assessment of dose equivalent such as film badges, thermoluminescence dosimeters, pocket ionization chambers, or personal air sampling devices.
Subp. 104. Industrial radiographer or radiographer.
"Industrial radiographer" or "radiographer" means an individual who performs or who, in attendance at the site where radiation exposure devices, sealed source, or sources are being used, personally supervises industrial radiographic operations and who is responsible to the licensee or registrant for ensuring compliance with the requirements of this chapter and the conditions of the license or registration.
Subp. 105. Industrial radiographer certification or radiographer certification.
"Industrial radiographer certification" or "radiographer certification" means written approval received from a certifying entity stating that an individual has satisfactorily met certain established radiation safety, testing, and experience criteria.
Subp. 106. Industrial radiographer's assistant or radiographer's assistant.
"Industrial radiographer's assistant" or "radiographer's assistant" means an individual who, under the direct supervision of a radiographer, uses radiographic exposure devices, sealed sources, or related handling tools or radiation survey instruments in industrial radiography.
Subp. 107. Industrial radiography or radiography.
"Industrial radiography" or "radiography" means an examination of the structure of materials by nondestructive methods, utilizing ionizing radiation to make radiographic images.
Subp. 108. Injection tool.
"Injection tool" means a device used for controlled subsurface injection of radioactive tracer material.
Subp. 109. Internal dose.
"Internal dose" means that portion of the dose equivalent received from radioactive material taken into the body.
Subp. 110. Intruder barrier.
"Intruder barrier" means a sufficient depth of cover over radioactive waste that inhibits contact with the waste and helps to ensure that radiation exposure to an inadvertent intruder meets the performance objectives in this chapter or an engineered structure that provides equivalent protection to an inadvertent intruder.
Subp. 111. Irradiation.
"Irradiation" means the exposure of matter to ionizing radiation.
Subp. 112. Irradiator.
"Irradiator" means a facility that uses radioactive sealed sources for the irradiation of objects or materials and in which radiation dose rates exceeding 500 rads (5 Gy) per hour exist at one meter from the sealed radioactive sources in air or water, as applicable for the irradiator type. Irradiator does not include facilities in which both the sealed source and the area subject to irradiation are contained within a device and are not accessible to personnel.
Subp. 113. Irradiator operator.
"Irradiator operator" means an individual who has successfully completed the training and testing described in part 4731.6160 and is authorized by the terms of the license to operate the irradiator without a supervisor present.
Subp. 114. Irretrievable well logging source.
"Irretrievable well logging source" means any sealed source containing licensed material that is pulled off or not connected to the wireline that suspends the source in the well and for which all reasonable effort at recovery has been expended.
Subp. 115. Land disposal facility.
"Land disposal facility" means the land, buildings and structures, and equipment that are intended to be used for the disposal of radioactive wastes. A geologic repository is not a land disposal facility.
Subp. 116. Lay-barge radiography.
"Lay-barge radiography" means industrial radiography performed on any water vessel used for laying pipe.
Subp. 117. Lens dose equivalent or eye dose equivalent.
"Lens dose equivalent" or "eye dose equivalent" applies to the external exposure of the lens of the eye and is taken as the dose equivalent at a tissue depth of 0.3 centimeter (300 mg/cm2).
Subp. 118. License.
"License" means a license issued under this chapter.
Subp. 118a. License issuing authority.
"License issuing authority" means the commissioner, the NRC, or the appropriate agency of an agreement state that issued the license.
Subp. 119. Licensee.
"Licensee" means a person issued a license under this chapter.
Subp. 120. Licensed material.
"Licensed material" means source material, special nuclear material, or radioactive material received, possessed, used, transferred, or disposed of under a general or specific license issued by the commissioner.
Subp. 121. Licensed practitioner of the healing arts.
"Licensed practitioner of the healing arts" means a health professional for diagnostic or healing treatment of human and animal maladies who is licensed under Minnesota Statutes, chapter 147, 153, or 156, Minnesota Statutes, section 148.01 or 150A.05, subdivision 1, clause (4), or Minnesota Statutes 1961, sections 148.11 to 148.16, for the lawful practice of medicine, podiatry, veterinary medicine, chiropractic, dentistry, or osteopathic medicine, respectively.
Subp. 121a. Licensing state.
"Licensing state" means any state that has been finally designated as a licensing state by the Conference of Radiation Control Program Directors, Inc., which reviews state regulations to establish equivalency with the suggested state regulations and ascertains whether a state has an effective program for control of natural occurring or accelerator produced radioactive material (NARM). The conference will designate as licensing states those states with regulations for control of radiation relating to, and an effective program for, the regulatory control of NARM.
Subp. 121b. Local law enforcement agency or LLEA.
"Local law enforcement agency" or "LLEA" means a public or private organization that has been approved by a federal, state, or local government to carry firearms and make arrests, and is authorized and has the capability to provide an armed response in the jurisdiction where the licensed category 1 or category 2 quantity of radioactive material is used, stored, or transported.
Subp. 122. Logging assistant.
"Logging assistant" means an individual who, under the personal supervision of a logging supervisor, handles sealed sources or tracers that are not in logging tools or shipping containers or who performs surveys required under part 4731.7230.
Subp. 123. Logging supervisor.
"Logging supervisor" means an individual who uses licensed material or provides personal supervision in the use of licensed material at a temporary job site and who is responsible to the licensee for ensuring compliance with this chapter and the conditions of the license.
Subp. 124. Logging tool.
"Logging tool" means a device used subsurface to perform well logging.
Subp. 125. Loose-fitting facepiece.
"Loose-fitting facepiece" means a respiratory inlet covering that is designed to form a partial seal with the face.
Subp. 126. Lost or missing licensed material.
"Lost or missing licensed material" means licensed material, the location of which is unknown. Lost or missing licensed material includes material that has been shipped but has not reached its destination and for which the location cannot be readily traced in the transportation system.
Subp. 127. Lot tolerance percent defective.
"Lot tolerance percent defective" means, expressed in percent defective, the poorest quality in an individual inspection lot that should be accepted.
Subp. 128. Low dose-rate remote afterloader.
"Low dose-rate remote afterloader" means a brachytherapy device that remotely delivers a dose rate of less than or equal to 200 rads (2 Gy) per hour at the point or surface where the dose is prescribed.
Subp. 129. Low specific activity material or LSA.
"Low specific activity material" or "LSA" means radioactive material with limited specific activity that is nonfissile or is excepted under part 4731.0403, subpart 3, and that satisfies the descriptions and limits in subpart 130, 131, or 132. Shielding materials surrounding the LSA material may not be considered in determining the estimated average specific activity of the package contents. LSA material must be in group I, group II, or group III.
Subp. 130. Low specific activity material group I.
"Low specific activity material group I" means:
A. uranium and thorium ores, concentrates of uranium and thorium ores, and other ores containing naturally occurring radioactive radionuclides that are intended to be processed for the use of these radionuclides;
B. natural uranium, depleted uranium, natural thorium, or their compounds or mixtures, provided they are unirradiated and in solid or liquid form;
C. radioactive material, other than fissile material, for which the A2 value is unlimited; or
D. other radioactive material in which the activity is distributed throughout and the estimated average specific activity does not exceed 30 times the value for exempt material activity concentration determined according to part 4731.0423.
Subp. 131. Low specific activity material group II.
"Low specific activity material group II" means:
A. water with tritium concentration up to 20.0 Ci/liter (0.8 TBq/liter); or
B. other radioactive material in which the activity is distributed throughout and the estimated average specific activity does not exceed 10-4 A2/g for solids and gases or 10-5 A2/g for liquids.
Subp. 132. Low specific activity material group III.
"Low specific activity material group III" means solids, such as consolidated wastes and activated materials, excluding powders, that satisfy the requirements in Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, section 71.77, in which:
A. the radioactive material is distributed throughout a solid or a collection of solid objects or is essentially uniformly distributed in a solid compact binding agent such as concrete, bitumen, or ceramic;
B. the radioactive material is relatively insoluble or it is intrinsically contained in a relatively insoluble material, so that even under loss of packaging, the loss of radioactive material per package by leaching, when placed in water for seven days, would not exceed 0.1 A2; and
C. the estimated average specific activity of the solid, excluding any shielding material, does not exceed 2 x 10-3A2/g.
Subp. 133. Low toxicity alpha emitters.
"Low toxicity alpha emitters" means:
A. natural uranium, depleted uranium, natural thorium;
B. uranium-235, uranium-238, thorium-232, thorium-228, or thorium-230 when contained in ores or physical or chemical concentrates or tailings; or
C. alpha emitters with a half-life of less than ten days.
Subp. 134. Management.
"Management" means the chief executive officer or other individual having the authority to manage, direct, or administer a licensee's activities or the delegate of a chief executive officer or other individual having the authority to manage, direct, or administer a licensee's activities.
Subp. 135. Manual brachytherapy.
"Manual brachytherapy" means a type of brachytherapy in which the brachytherapy sources are manually placed topically on or inserted either into the body cavities that are in close proximity to a treatment site or directly into the tissue volume.
Subp. 136. Maximum normal operating pressure.
"Maximum normal operating pressure" means the maximum gauge pressure that would develop in a containment system in a period of one year under the heat condition specified in Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, section 71.71, paragraph (c), clause (1), in the absence of venting, external cooling by an ancillary system, or operational controls during transport.
Subp. 137. Medical event.
"Medical event" means an event that requires a report under part 4731.4525.
Subp. 138. Medical institution.
"Medical institution" means an organization in which more than one medical discipline is practiced.
Subp. 139. Medical use.
"Medical use" means the intentional internal or external administration of radioactive material or the radiation from radioactive material to patients or human research subjects under the supervision of an authorized user.
Subp. 140. Medium dose-rate remote afterloader.
"Medium dose-rate remote afterloader" means a brachytherapy device that remotely delivers a dose rate of greater than 200 rads (2 Gy), but less than or equal to 1,200 rads (12 Gy) per hour at the point or surface where the dose is prescribed.
Subp. 141. Member of the public.
"Member of the public" means an individual other than an individual receiving an occupational dose.
Subp. 142. Microcurie or µCi.
"Microcurie" or "µCi" means the amount of radioactive material that disintegrates at the rate of 37,000 atoms per second.
Subp. 143. Millicurie or mCi.
"Millicurie" or "mCi" means the amount of radioactive material that disintegrates at the rate of 37,000,000 atoms per second.
Subp. 144. Minor.
"Minor" means an individual less than 18 years of age.
Subp. 144a. Mobile device.
"Mobile device" means a piece of equipment containing licensed radioactive material that is either mounted on wheels or casters, or otherwise equipped for moving without a need for disassembly or dismounting; or designed to be hand carried. A mobile device does not include stationary equipment installed in a fixed location.
Subp. 145. Mobile medical service.
"Mobile medical service" means the transportation of radioactive materials and its medical use by the same licensee or registrant at a client's address.
Subp. 146. Monitoring.
"Monitoring" means:
A. the measurement of radiation levels, concentrations, surface area concentrations, or quantities of radioactive material; and
B. the use of the results of the measurements to evaluate potential exposures and doses.
Subp. 146a. Movement control center.
"Movement control center" means an operations center that is remote from transport activity and that maintains position information on the movement of radioactive material, receives reports of attempted attacks or thefts, provides a means for reporting these and other problems to appropriate agencies, and can request and coordinate appropriate aid.
Subp. 147. National Voluntary Laboratory Accreditation Program or NVLAP.
"National Voluntary Laboratory Accreditation Program" or "NVLAP" is the laboratory accreditation program of the National Institute of Standards and Technology.
Subp. 147a. Nationally tracked source.
"Nationally tracked source" means a sealed source containing a quantity equal to or greater than Category 1 or Category 2 levels of any radioactive material listed in part 4731.2820. In this context, a sealed source is defined as radioactive material that is sealed in a capsule or closely bonded, in a solid form, and which is not exempt from regulatory control. It does not mean material encapsulated solely for disposal, or nuclear material contained in any fuel assembly, subassembly, fuel rod, or fuel pellet. Category 1 nationally tracked sources are those containing radioactive material at a quantity equal to or greater than the Category 1 threshold. Category 2 nationally tracked sources are those containing radioactive material at a quantity equal to or greater than the Category 2 threshold but less than the Category 1 threshold.
Subp. 148. Natural thorium.
"Natural thorium" means thorium with the naturally occurring distribution of thorium isotopes, essentially 100 weight percent thorium-232.
Subp. 149. Natural uranium.
"Natural uranium" means uranium, which may be chemically separated, with the naturally occurring distribution of uranium isotopes, approximately 0.711 weight percent uranium-235, and the remainder by weight essentially uranium-238.
Subp. 150. Naturally occurring or accelerator-produced radioactive material or NARM.
"Naturally occurring or accelerator-produced radioactive material" or "NARM" does not include by-product, source, or special nuclear material.
Subp. 151. Negative pressure respirator (tight fitting).
"Negative pressure respirator (tight fitting)" means a respirator in which the air pressure inside the facepiece is negative during inhalation with respect to the ambient air pressure outside the respirator.
Subp. 152. Neutron generator.
"Neutron generator" means a type of accelerator in which the ion beam is used mainly for the production of neutrons. Neutron generation is also possible for high energy photon-producing equipment.
Subp. 152a. No-later-than arrival time.
"No-later-than arrival time" means the date and time that the shipping licensee and receiving licensee have established as the time at which an investigation will be initiated if the shipment has not arrived at the receiving facility. The no-later-than arrival time may not be more than six hours after the estimated arrival time for shipments of category 2 quantities of radioactive material.
Subp. 153. Nonstochastic effect or deterministic effect.
"Nonstochastic effect" or "deterministic effect" means a health effect, the severity of which varies with the dose and for which a threshold is believed to exist. Radiation-induced cataract formation is an example of a nonstochastic effect.
Subp. 154. Normal form radioactive material.
"Normal form radioactive material" means radioactive material that has not been demonstrated to qualify as special form radioactive material.
Subp. 154a. NRC.
"NRC" means the United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Subp. 155. Occupational dose.
"Occupational dose" means the dose received by an individual in the course of employment in which the individual's assigned duties involve exposure to radiation or to radioactive material from registered, licensed, or unlicensed sources of radiation, whether in the possession of a licensee, registrant, or other person. Occupational dose does not include doses received:
A. from background radiation;
B. from any medical administration the individual has received;
C. from exposure to individuals administered radioactive materials and released according to part 4731.4427;
D. from voluntary participation in medical research programs; or
E. as a member of the public.
Subp. 156. Offshore platform radiography.
"Offshore platform radiography" means industrial radiography conducted from a platform over a body of water.
Subp. 157. Offshore waters.
"Offshore waters" means that area of land and water on or above the United States outer continental shelf and beyond the jurisdiction of an agreement state according to the Submerged Lands Act, United States Code, title 43, sections 1301 to 1314.
Subp. 157a. Ophthalmic physicist.
"Ophthalmic physicist" means an individual who:
A. meets the requirements in parts 4731.4456, item A, subitem (2), and 4731.4415; and
B. is identified as an ophthalmic physicist on a:
Subp. 158. Output.
"Output" means the exposure rate, dose rate, or a quantity related in a known manner to these rates from a brachytherapy source, teletherapy remote afterloader, or gamma stereotactic radiosurgery unit for a specified set of exposure conditions.
Subp. 159. Package.
"Package" means the packaging together with its radioactive contents as presented for transport.
A. "Fissile material package" or "Type AF package, Type BF package, Type B(U)F package, or Type B(M)F package" means a fissile material packaging together with its fissile material contents.
B. "Type A package" means a Type A packaging together with its radioactive contents. A Type A package is defined and must comply with DOT regulations in Code of Federal Regulations, title 49, part 173.
C. "Type B package" means a Type B packaging together with its radioactive contents. On approval, a Type B package design is designated by the NRC as B(U) unless the package has a maximum normal operating pressure of more than 100 lb/in2 (700 kPascal) gauge or a pressure relief device that would allow the release of radioactive material to the environment under the tests specified in Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, section 71.73, for hypothetical accident conditions, in which case it will receive a designation B(M). B(U) refers to the need for unilateral approval of international shipments. B(M) refers to the need for multilateral approval of international shipments. There is no distinction made in how packages with these designations may be used in domestic transportation. To determine their distinction for international transportation, see DOT regulations in Code of Federal Regulations, title 49, part 173. A Type B package approved before September 6, 1983, was designated only as Type B. Limitations on its use are specified in Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, section 71.19.
Subp. 160. Packaging.
"Packaging" means the assembly of components necessary to ensure compliance with the packaging requirements in this chapter. Packaging may consist of one or more receptacles, absorbent materials, spacing structures, thermal insulation, radiation shielding, and devices for cooling or absorbing mechanical shocks. The vehicle, tie-down system, and auxiliary equipment may be designated as part of the packaging.
Subp. 161. Panoramic dry-source-storage irradiator.
"Panoramic dry-source-storage irradiator" means an irradiator in which the irradiations occur in air in areas potentially accessible to personnel and in which the sources are stored in shields made of solid material. Panoramic dry-source-storage irradiator includes beam-type dry-source-storage irradiators in which only a narrow beam of radiation is produced for performing irradiations.
Subp. 162. Panoramic irradiator.
"Panoramic irradiator" means an irradiator in which the irradiations occur in air in areas potentially accessible to personnel. Panoramic irradiator includes beam-type irradiators.
Subp. 163. Panoramic wet-source-storage irradiator.
"Panoramic wet-source-storage irradiator" means an irradiator in which the irradiations occur in air in areas potentially accessible to personnel and in which the sources are stored under water in a storage pool.
Subp. 163a. Particle accelerator.
"Particle accelerator" means any machine capable of accelerating electrons, protons, deuterons, or other charged particles in a vacuum and of discharging the resultant particulate or other radiation into a medium at energies usually in excess of one megaelectron volt (MeV). For purposes of this definition, "accelerator" is an equivalent term.
Subp. 164. Patient intervention.
"Patient intervention" means actions by the patient or human research subject, whether intentional or unintentional, such as dislodging or removing treatment devices or prematurely terminating the administration.
Subp. 165. Permanent radiographic installation.
"Permanent radiographic installation" means a shielded, enclosed room, cell, vault, or structure that is not moved, is not located at a temporary job site, and is designed or intended for radiography where radiography is regularly performed.
Subp. 166. Person.
"Person" means an individual, corporation, partnership, firm, association, trust, estate, public or private institution, group, agency, state or political subdivision of a state, or a legal successor, representative, agent, or agency of the foregoing. Person does not include federal government agencies.
Subp. 167. Personal supervision.
"Personal supervision" means guidance and instruction by an industrial radiographer or logging supervisor who:
A. is physically present at a temporary job site;
B. is in personal contact with an industrial radiographer's assistant or logging assistant; and
C. can give immediate assistance.
Subp. 168. Pharmacist.
"Pharmacist" means an individual licensed by a state or territory of the United States, the District of Columbia, or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico to practice pharmacy.
Subp. 169. Planned special exposure.
"Planned special exposure" means an infrequent exposure to radiation, separate from and in addition to the annual dose limits.
Subp. 170. Pool irradiator.
"Pool irradiator" means an irradiator at which the sources are stored or used in a pool of water, including panoramic wet-source-storage irradiators and underwater irradiators.
Subp. 171. Positive pressure respirator.
"Positive pressure respirator" means a respirator in which the pressure inside the respiratory inlet covering exceeds the ambient air pressure outside the respirator.
Subp. 171a. Positron emission tomography (PET) radionuclide production facility.
"Positron emission tomography (PET) radionuclide production facility" is defined as a facility operating a cyclotron or accelerator for the purpose of producing PET radionuclides.
Subp. 172. Powered air-purifying respirator.
"Powered air-purifying respirator" means an air-purifying respirator that uses a blower to force the ambient air through air-purifying elements to the inlet covering.
Subp. 173. Practical examination.
"Practical examination" means a demonstration through practical application of the safety rules and principles in industrial radiography, including use of all appropriate equipment and procedures.
Subp. 174. Preceptor.
"Preceptor" means an individual who provides, directs, or verifies the training and experience required for an individual to become an authorized user, authorized medical physicist, authorized nuclear pharmacist, a radiation safety officer, or an associate radiation safety officer.
Subp. 175. Prescribed dosage.
"Prescribed dosage" means the specified activity or range of activity of unsealed radioactive material as documented:
A. in a written directive; or
B. according to the directions of the authorized user for procedures performed according to parts 4731.4432 and 4731.4434.
Subp. 176. Prescribed dose.
"Prescribed dose" means:
A. for gamma stereotactic radiosurgery, the total dose as documented in a written directive;
B. for teletherapy, the total dose and dose per fraction as documented in a written directive;
C. for manual brachytherapy, either the total source strength and exposure time or the total dose, as documented in a written directive; and
D. for remote brachytherapy afterloaders, the total dose and dose per fraction as documented in a written directive.
Subp. 177. Pressure demand respirator.
"Pressure demand respirator" means a positive pressure atmosphere-supplying respirator that admits breathing air to the facepiece when the positive pressure is reduced inside the facepiece by inhalation.
Subp. 178. Principal activities.
"Principal activities" means activities authorized by the license that are essential to achieving the purpose for which the license was issued or amended. Principal activities does not include storage during which no licensed material is accessed for use or disposal or activities incidental to decontamination or decommissioning.
Subp. 179. Product conveyor system.
"Product conveyor system" means a system for moving the product to be irradiated to, from, and within the area where irradiation takes place. Product conveyor system does not include a hand fed system.
Subp. 180. Public dose.
"Public dose" means the dose received by a member of the public from exposure to radiation or radioactive material released by a licensee or registrant or to any other source of radiation under the control of a licensee or registrant. Public dose does not include occupational dose or doses received from background radiation, from any medical administration the individual has received, from exposure to individuals administered radioactive material and released according to part 4731.4427, or from voluntary participation in medical research programs.
Subp. 181. Pulsed dose-rate remote afterloader.
"Pulsed dose-rate remote afterloader" means a special type of remote afterloading brachytherapy device that uses a single source capable of delivering dose rates in the high dose-rate range, but:
A. is approximately one-tenth of the activity of typical high dose-rate remote afterloader sources; and
B. is used to simulate the radiobiology of a low dose-rate treatment by inserting the source for a given fraction of each hour.
Subp. 182. Qualitative fit test.
"Qualitative fit test" means a pass or fail fit test to assess the adequacy of respirator fit that relies on the individual's response to the test agent.
Subp. 183. Quality factor.
A. "Quality factor" means the modifying factor that is used to derive dose equivalent from absorbed dose, as follows: aAbsorbed dose in rad equal to one rem or the absorbed dose in gray equal to one sievert.
B. If it is more convenient to measure the neutron fluence rate than to determine the neutron dose equivalent rate in rems per hour or sieverts per hour, one rem (0.01 Sv) of neutron radiation of unknown energies may, for purposes of this subpart, be assumed to result from a total fluence of 25 million neutrons per square centimeter incident upon the body. If sufficient information exists to estimate the approximate energy distribution of the neutrons, a licensee may use the fluence rate per unit dose equivalent or the appropriate Q value as follows to convert a measured tissue dose in rads to dose equivalent in rems. aValue of quality factor (Q) at the point where the dose equivalent is maximum in a 30-cm diameter cylinder tissue-equivalent phantom. bMonoenergetic neutrons incident normally on a 30-cm diameter cylinder tissue-equivalent phantom.
Subp. 184. Quantitative fit test.
"Quantitative fit test" means an assessment of the adequacy of respirator fit by numerically measuring the amount of leakage into the respirator.
Subp. 185. Quarter.
"Quarter" means a period of time equal to one-fourth of the year observed by the licensee or registrant, approximately 13 consecutive weeks, provided that the first quarter in a year coincides with the starting date of the year and that no day is omitted or duplicated in consecutive quarters.
Subp. 186. Rad.
"Rad" is the special unit of absorbed dose. One rad is equal to an absorbed dose of 100 ergs/gram or 0.01 joule/kilogram (0.01 Gy).
Subp. 187. Radiation.
"Radiation" means the emission and propagation of waves or alpha particles, beta particles, gamma rays, x-rays, neutrons, high-speed electrons, high-speed protons, and other particles capable of producing ions. Radiation does not include nonionizing radiation such as radio or microwaves or visible, infrared, or ultraviolet light.
Subp. 188. Radiation area.
"Radiation area" means an area accessible to individuals in which radiation levels could result in an individual receiving a dose equivalent in excess of 0.005 rem (0.05 mSv) in one hour at 30 centimeters from the radiation source or from any surface that the radiation penetrates.
Subp. 189. Radiation detector or detector.
"Radiation detector" or "detector" means a device that in the presence of radiation provides a signal or other indication suitable for use in measuring one or more quantities of incident radiation.
Subp. 190. Radiation hazard.
"Radiation hazard" means a condition under which individuals might receive radiation in excess of the dose limits.
Subp. 191. Radiation protection.
"Radiation protection" means the use of shielding, protective clothing, protective equipment, and other means to eliminate or reduce exposure to ionizing radiation.
Subp. 192. Radiation room.
"Radiation room" means a shielded room in which irradiations take place.
Subp. 193. Radiation safety officer or RSO.
"Radiation safety officer" or "RSO" is an individual who:
A. has the training, knowledge, authority, and responsibility to apply appropriate radiation protection regulations according to part 4731.4130 on behalf of the licensee; or
B. meets the requirements in part 4731.4411, subpart 1, item A, or parts 4731.4411, subpart 1, item C, and 4731.4415 or is identified as a radiation safety officer on:
Subp. 194. Radioactive marker.
"Radioactive marker" means licensed material used for depth determination or direction orientation. Radioactive marker includes radioactive collar markers and radioactive iron nails.
Subp. 195. Radioactive material.
"Radioactive material" means a solid, liquid, or gaseous substance that emits radiation spontaneously.
Subp. 196. Radioactive waste or waste.
"Radioactive waste" or "waste" means those low-level radioactive wastes containing source, special nuclear, or byproduct material that are acceptable for disposal in a land disposal facility. For the purposes of this definition, low-level radioactive waste means radioactive waste not classified as high-level radioactive waste, transuranic waste, spent nuclear fuel, or byproduct material as defined in subpart 32, items B, C, and D.
Subp. 197. Radiographic exposure device.
"Radiographic exposure device" means an instrument containing a sealed source, fastened or contained therein, in which the sealed source or shielding thereof may be moved, or otherwise changed, from a shielded to an unshielded position for purposes of making a radiographic exposure.
Subp. 198. Radiographic operations.
"Radiographic operations" means all activities associated with the presence of radiation sources in a radiographic exposure device, including x-ray radiographic devices, during use of the device or transport, except when being transported by a common or contract transport. Radiographic operations include surveys to confirm the adequacy of boundaries, setting up equipment, and any activity inside restricted area boundaries.
Subp. 199. Reference man.
"Reference man" means a hypothetical aggregation of human physical and physiological characteristics arrived at by international consensus. The characteristics may be used by researchers and public health workers to standardize results of experiments and to relate biological insult to a common base.
Subp. 200. Registrant.
"Registrant" means a person or facility registered with the commissioner or legally obligated to register with the commissioner according to this chapter.
Subp. 201. Rem.
"Rem" is the special unit of any of the quantities expressed as dose equivalent. The dose equivalent in rems is equal to the absorbed dose in rads multiplied by the quality factor (1 rem = 0.01 sievert).
Subp. 202. Research and development.
"Research and development" means:
A. theoretical analysis, exploration, or experimentation; or
B. the extension of investigative findings and theories of a scientific or technical nature into practical application for experimental and demonstration purposes, including the experimental production and testing of models, devices, equipment, materials, and processes. Research and development does not include the internal or external administration of radioactive material, or the radiation therefrom, to human beings, unless the research using human subjects is conducted according to part 4731.4401.
Subp. 203. Residual radioactivity.
"Residual radioactivity" means radioactivity in structures, materials, soils, groundwater, and other media at a site resulting from activities under a licensee's or registrant's control. Residual radioactivity includes radioactivity from all licensed and unlicensed sources used by the licensee or registrant, but excludes background radiation. Residual radioactivity includes radioactive materials remaining at a site as a result of routine or accidental releases of radioactive material at the site and previous burials at the site, even if those burials were made according to this chapter.
Subp. 204. Respiratory protective device.
"Respiratory protective device" means an apparatus, such as a respirator, used to reduce an individual's intake of airborne radioactive materials.
Subp. 205. Restricted area.
"Restricted area" means an area, access to which is limited by a licensee or registrant to protect individuals against undue risks from exposure to radiation and radioactive materials. Restricted area does not include areas used as residential quarters, but includes separate rooms in a residential building that are set apart as a restricted area.
Subp. 205a. Reviewing official.
"Reviewing official" means the individual who must make the trustworthiness and reliability determination of an individual to determine whether the individual may have, or continue to have, unescorted access to the category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive materials that are possessed by the licensee.
Subp. 206. Roentgen or R.
"Roentgen" or "R" is a special unit of exposure equal to 2.58 x 10-4 coulomb per kilogram of air. One milliroentgen (mR) equals 0.001 roentgen.
Subp. 207. S-tube.
"S-tube" means a tube through which the radioactive source travels when inside a radiographic exposure device.
Subp. 207a. Sabotage.
"Sabotage" means deliberate damage, with malevolent intent, to a category 1 or category 2 quantity of radioactive material, a device that contains a category 1 or category 2 quantity of radioactive material, or the components of the security system.
Subp. 207b. Safe haven.
"Safe haven" means a readily recognizable and readily accessible site at which security is present or from which, in the event of an emergency, the transport crew can notify and wait for the local law enforcement authorities.
Subp. 208. Sanitary sewerage.
"Sanitary sewerage" means a system of public sewers for carrying off waste water and refuse, but excluding sewage treatment facilities, septic tanks, and leach fields owned or operated by a licensee.
Subp. 209. Sealed source.
"Sealed source" means radioactive material that is encased in a capsule designed to prevent leakage or escape of the radioactive material.
Subp. 210. Sealed source and device registry.
"Sealed source and device registry" means the national registry that contains all the registration certificates, generated by both the NRC and agreement states, that summarize the radiation safety information for sealed sources and devices and describe the licensing and use conditions approved for the product.
Subp. 210a. Security zone.
"Security zone" means any temporary or permanent area determined and established by the licensee for the physical protection of category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material.
Subp. 211. Self-contained breathing apparatus.
"Self-contained breathing apparatus" means an atmosphere-supplying respirator for which the breathing air source is designed to be carried by the user.
Subp. 212. Shallow dose equivalent or HS.
"Shallow dose equivalent" or "HS" means the dose equivalent at a tissue depth of 0.007 centimeter (7 mg/cm2) averaged over an area of one square centimeter. Shallow dose equivalent applies to the external exposure of the skin or an extremity.
Subp. 213. Shielded position.
"Shielded position" means the location within the radiographic exposure device or source changer where the sealed source is secured and restricted from movement.
Subp. 214. SI.
"SI" means the international system of units.
Subp. 215. Sievert or Sv.
"Sievert" or "Sv" is the SI unit of any of the quantities expressed as dose equivalent. The dose equivalent in sieverts is equal to the absorbed dose in grays multiplied by the quality factor identified in subpart 183 (1 Sv = 100 rems).
Subp. 216. Site area emergency.
"Site area emergency" means a situation in which events may occur, are in progress, or have occurred that could lead to a significant release of radioactive material and that could require a response by off-site response organizations to protect persons off-site.
Subp. 217. Site boundary.
"Site boundary" means the line beyond which the land or property is not owned, leased, or otherwise controlled by the licensee.
Subp. 218. Source.
"Source" means a discrete amount of radioactive material.
Subp. 219. Source assembly.
"Source assembly" means an assembly that consists of the sealed source and a connector that attaches the source to the control cable. The source assembly may also include a stop ball used to secure the source in the shielded position.
Subp. 220. Source changer.
"Source changer" means a device designed and used for replacement of sealed sources in radiographic exposure devices, including those also used for transporting and storage of sealed sources.
Subp. 221. Source holder.
"Source holder" means a housing or assembly into which a sealed source is placed to facilitate the handling and use of the source in well logging.
Subp. 222. Source material.
"Source material" means:
A. uranium, thorium, or any combination thereof, in any physical or chemical form; or
B. ores that contain by weight 1/20 of one percent (0.05 percent) or more of:
Subp. 223. Source of radiation.
"Source of radiation" means radioactive material, a device, or equipment that emits, or is capable of producing, radiation.
Subp. 224. Special form radioactive material.
"Special form radioactive material" means radioactive material that satisfies the following conditions:
A. it is either a single solid piece or is contained in a sealed capsule that can be opened only by destroying the capsule;
B. the piece or capsule has at least one dimension not less than 0.2 inches (5 mm); and
C. it satisfies the requirements of Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, section 71.75. A special form encapsulation designed according to Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, section 71.4, in effect on June 30, 1983, and constructed before July 1, 1985, a special form encapsulation designed according to Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, section 71.4, in effect on March 31, 1996, and constructed before April 1, 1998, and special form material that was successfully tested before September 10, 2015, according to the requirements of Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, section 71.75 (d), in effect before September 10, 2015, may continue to be used. Any other special form encapsulation must meet the specifications of this subpart.
Subp. 225. Special nuclear material.
"Special nuclear material" means:
A. plutonium, uranium-233, uranium enriched in the isotope 233 or in the isotope 235, and any other material the NRC, under the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, United States Code, title 42, section 2071, determines to be special nuclear material; or
B. any material artificially enriched by a material listed in item A. Special nuclear material does not include source material.
Subp. 226. Specific activity.
"Specific activity" means the radioactivity of the radionuclide per unit mass of that nuclide. The specific activity of a material in which the radionuclide is essentially uniformly distributed is the radioactivity per unit mass of the material.
Subp. 227. Stereotactic radiosurgery.
"Stereotactic radiosurgery" means the use of external radiation in conjunction with a stereotactic guidance device to very precisely deliver a dose to a tissue volume. Use of a gamma knife is stereotactic radiosurgery.
Subp. 228. Stochastic effect.
"Stochastic effect" means a health effect that occurs randomly and for which the probability of the effect occurring, rather than its severity, is assumed to be a linear function of dose without threshold, such as hereditary effects and cancer incidence.
Subp. 229. Storage area.
"Storage area" means a location, facility, or vehicle that is used to store or secure a radiographic exposure device, a storage container, or a sealed source when it is not in use and that is locked or has a physical barrier to prevent accidental exposure to, tampering with, or unauthorized removal of the device, container, or source.
Subp. 230. Storage container.
"Storage container" means a container in which sealed sources are secured and stored.
Subp. 231. Structured educational program.
"Structured educational program" means an educational program designed to impart particular knowledge and practical education through interrelated studies and supervised training.
Subp. 232. Subsurface tracer study.
"Subsurface tracer study" means the release of unsealed licensed material or a substance labeled with licensed material in a single well or boring to trace the movement or position of the material or substance in the well, boring, or adjacent formation.
Subp. 233. Supplied-air respirator or airline respirator.
"Supplied-air respirator" or "airline respirator" means an atmosphere-supplying respirator for which the source of breathing air is not designed to be carried by the user.
Subp. 234. Surface casing for protecting freshwater aquifers.
"Surface casing for protecting freshwater aquifers" means a pipe or tube used as a lining in a well or boring to isolate freshwater aquifers from the well or boring.
Subp. 235. Surface contaminated object or SCO.
"Surface contaminated object" or "SCO" means a solid object that is not itself classed as radioactive material, but that has radioactive material distributed on any of its surfaces. SCO must be in one of two groups, with surface activity not exceeding the following limits:
A. SCO-I is a solid object on which:
B. SCO-II is a solid object on which the limits for SCO-I are exceeded and on which:
Subp. 236. Survey or radiation safety survey.
"Survey" or "radiation safety survey" means an evaluation of the radiological conditions and potential hazards incident to the production, use, transfer, release, disposal, or presence of radioactive material or other sources of radiation. When appropriate, such an evaluation includes a physical survey of the location of radioactive material or other radiation sources and measurements or calculations of levels of radiation or concentrations or quantities of radioactive material present.
Subp. 237. Target.
"Target" means the part of a radiation-producing system that by design intercepts a beam of accelerated particles with subsequent emission of other radiation.
Subp. 237a. Telemetric position monitoring system.
"Telemetric position monitoring system" means a data transfer system that captures information by instrumentation and measuring devices about the location and status of a transport vehicle or package between the departure and destination locations.
Subp. 238. Teletherapy.
"Teletherapy" means a method of radiation therapy in which collimated gamma rays are delivered at a distance from the patient or human research subject.
Subp. 239. Temporary job site.
"Temporary job site" means a location where licensed operations are conducted and where licensed or registered material may be stored, other than those locations of use authorized on the license or registration.
Subp. 240. Therapeutic dosage.
"Therapeutic dosage" means a dosage of unsealed radioactive material that is intended to deliver a radiation dose to a patient or human research subject for palliative or curative treatment.
Subp. 241. Therapeutic dose.
"Therapeutic dose" means a radiation dose delivered from a source containing radioactive material to a patient or human research subject for palliative or curative treatment.
Subp. 242. Tight-fitting facepiece.
"Tight-fitting facepiece" means a respiratory inlet covering that forms a complete seal with the face.
Subp. 243. Total effective dose equivalent or TEDE.
"Total effective dose equivalent" or "TEDE" means the sum of the effective dose equivalent for external exposures and the committed effective dose equivalent for internal exposures.
Subp. 244. Traceable to a standard.
"Traceable to a standard" means a comparison directly to a standard maintained by the National Institute of Standards and Technology, provided that all comparisons are documented.
Subp. 245. Transient shipment.
"Transient shipment" means a shipment of nuclear material originating and terminating in foreign countries on a vessel or aircraft that stops at a United States port.
Subp. 246. Transport index.
"Transport index" means the dimensionless number, rounded up to the next tenth, placed on the label of a package to designate the degree of control to be exercised by the carrier during transportation. The transport index is the number determined by multiplying the maximum radiation level in millisievert (mSv) per hour at 3.3 feet (one meter) from the external surface of the package by 100 (equivalent to the maximum radiation level in millirem per hour at 3.3 feet (one meter)).
Subp. 247. Treatment site.
"Treatment site" means the anatomical description of the tissue intended to receive a radiation dose, as described in a written directive.
Subp. 247a. Tribal official.
"Tribal official" means the highest ranking individual that represents Tribal leadership, such as the chief, president, or Tribal council leadership.
Subp. 248. Tritium neutron generator target source.
"Tritium neutron generator target source" means a tritium source used within a neutron generator tube to produce neutrons for use in well logging applications.
Subp. 248a. Trustworthiness and reliability.
"Trustworthiness and reliability" means characteristics of an individual considered dependable in judgment, character, and performance, such that unescorted access to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material by that individual does not constitute an unreasonable risk to public health and safety or security. A determination of trustworthiness and reliability for this purpose is based upon the results from a background investigation.
Subp. 249. Type A quantity.
"Type A quantity" means a quantity of radioactive material, the aggregate radioactivity of which does not exceed A1 for special form radioactive material or A2 for normal form radioactive material where A1 and A2 are given in part 4731.0422 or determined by procedures described in part 4731.0423.
Subp. 250. Type B quantity.
"Type B quantity" means a quantity of radioactive material greater than a Type A quantity.
Subp. 251. Type of use.
"Type of use" means use of radioactive material under part 4731.4404, 4731.4432, 4731.4434, 4731.4440, 4731.4450, 4731.4460, or 4731.4463.
Subp. 252. Underwater irradiator.
"Underwater irradiator" means an irradiator in which the sources always remain shielded under water and humans do not have access to the sealed sources or the space subject to irradiation without entering the pool.
Subp. 253. Underwater radiography.
"Underwater radiography" means industrial radiography performed when the radiographic exposure device or related equipment are beneath the surface of the water.
Subp. 253a. Unescorted access.
"Unescorted access" means solitary access to an aggregated category 1 or category 2 quantity of radioactive material or the devices that contain the material.
Subp. 253b. Unirradiated uranium.
"Unirradiated uranium" means uranium containing not more than 2 x 103 Bq of plutonium per gram of uranium-235, not more than 9 x 106 Bq of fission products per gram of uranium-235, and not more than 5 x 10-3gram of uranium-236 per gram of uranium-235.
Subp. 254. Unit dosage.
"Unit dosage" means a dosage prepared for medical use in a single patient or human research subject without any further manipulations of the dosage after it is initially prepared.
Subp. 255. Unrefined and unprocessed ore.
"Unrefined and unprocessed ore" means ore in its natural form prior to any processing, such as grinding, roasting, or beneficiating, or refining. Processing does not include sieving or encapsulation of ore or preparation of samples for laboratory analysis.
Subp. 256. Unrestricted area.
"Unrestricted area" means an area, the access to which is neither limited nor controlled by the licensee or registrant.
Subp. 257. Uranium sinker bar.
"Uranium sinker bar" means a weight containing depleted uranium used to pull a logging tool toward the bottom of a well.
Subp. 258. User seal check or fit check.
"User seal check" or "fit check" means an action by the respirator user to determine if the respirator is properly seated to the face, including a negative pressure check, positive pressure check, irritant smoke check, or isoamyl acetate check.
Subp. 259. Very high radiation area.
"Very high radiation area" means an area accessible to individuals in which radiation levels from radiation sources external to the body could result in an individual receiving an absorbed dose in excess of 500 rads (5 Gy) in one hour at one meter from a radiation source or one meter from any surface that the radiation penetrates. At very high doses received at high dose rates, units of absorbed dose (rads and grays) are appropriate, rather than units of dose equivalent (rems and sieverts).
Subp. 260. Week.
"Week" means seven consecutive days.
Subp. 261. Weighting factor or WT.
"Weighting factor" or WT" for an organ or tissue (T) is the proportion of the risk of stochastic effects resulting from irradiation of that organ or tissue to the total risk of stochastic effects when the whole body is irradiated uniformly. For calculating the effective dose equivalent, the values of WT are:
Organ Dose Weighting Factors
10.30 results from 0.06 for each of five remainder organs (excluding the skin and the lens of the eye) that receive the highest doses.
2For the purpose of weighting the external whole body dose (for adding it to the internal dose), a single weighting factor, WT=1.0, has been specified. The use of other weighting factors for external exposure may be approved on a case-by-case basis until such time as specific guidance is issued.
Subp. 262. Well.
"Well" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 103I.005, subdivision 21.
Subp. 263. Well logging or logging.
"Well logging" or "logging" means all operations involving the lowering and raising of measuring devices or tools that contain licensed material or are used to detect licensed materials in wells or borings to obtain information about the well, boring, or adjacent formations, which may be used in oil, gas, mineral, groundwater, or geological exploration.
Subp. 264. Whole body.
"Whole body" means, for purposes of external exposure, head, trunk including male gonads, arms above the elbow, or legs above the knee.
Subp. 265. Worker.
"Worker" means an individual who engages in activities that are licensed or registered by the commissioner and that are controlled by a licensee. Worker does not include a licensee or registrant.
Subp. 266. Working level.
"Working level" is any combination of short-lived radon daughters in one liter of air that results in the ultimate emission of 1.3 x 105 MeV of potential alpha particle energy. Radon daughters include:
A. for radon-220: polonium-216, lead-212, bismuth-212, and polonium-212; and
B. for radon-222: polonium-218, lead-214, bismuth-214, and polonium-214.
Subp. 267. Working level month.
"Working level month" means an exposure to one working level for 170 hours (2,000 working hours per year/12 months per year=approximately 170 hours per month).
Subp. 268. Written directive.
"Written directive" means an authorized user's written order for the administration of radioactive material or radiation from radioactive material to a specific patient or human research subject, as specified under part 4731.4408.
Subp. 269. Year.
"Year" means the 12-month period of time used to determine compliance with this chapter, beginning in January unless the licensee changes the starting date of the 12-month period used to determine compliance by the licensee, provided that the change is made at the beginning of the year and that no day is omitted or duplicated in consecutive years.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 29 SR 755; 32 SR 831; 33 SR 1440; 40 SR 145; L 2016 c 119 s 7; 44 SR 239; 46 SR 791
Minn. R. 4731.0200 General Applications
Subpart 1. Applicability.
A. This chapter consists of rules for the regulation of radiation from radioactive materials, including source and special nuclear material not sufficient to form a critical mass and other nonpower plant radiation hazards. Except as otherwise specifically provided, this chapter applies to all persons who own, receive, possess, use, transfer, acquire, or dispose of any radioactive material.
B. Nothing in this chapter applies to a person to the extent that the person is subject to rules of the NRC or to sources in the possession of federal agencies.
C. Nothing in this chapter relieves a licensee from complying with applicable Food and Drug Administration requirements or any other federal and state requirements governing radioactive drugs or devices or any other toxic or hazardous properties of materials that may be disposed of under this chapter.
Subp. 2. Exemptions or variances.
The commissioner may, according to parts 4717.7000 to 4717.7050, grant an exemption or variance from the requirements of this chapter, if it is determined to be authorized by law, would not endanger life or property, and is otherwise in the public interest.
Subp. 3. Responsibilities.
A. Responsibilities of licensees include compliance with applicable parts of this chapter that are consistent with each licensee's area of use.
B. It is the responsibility of each applicant or licensee to notify the commissioner of any change in information related to the regulated activity that has an impact on public health and safety according to this subpart. Notification must be provided to the commissioner within two working days of identifying the information. This item does not apply to information that a person is otherwise required to provide to the commissioner by other reporting requirements of this chapter.
C. Information provided to the commissioner by an applicant for a license must be complete and accurate in all material submitted.
Subp. 4. Submissions.
Except as otherwise specified in this chapter, all communications and reports under this chapter must be addressed to or delivered in person to: Radioactive Materials Unit, Minnesota Department of Health, 625 Robert Street N, P.O. Box 64975, St. Paul, MN 55164-0975.
Subp. 5. Telephone notifications.
Telephone notifications required by this chapter must be made to the Radioactive Materials Unit at 651-201-4400. If an immediate or 24-hour notification is required after business hours or if no one can be reached at the contact telephone number, notify the Minnesota duty officer at 651-649-5451 or 1-800-422-0798.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 32 SR 831; 44 SR 239
Minn. R. 4731.0210 Records
Subpart 1. Applicability.
Each person who receives source or radioactive material pursuant to a license issued under this chapter must keep records showing the receipt, transfer, and disposal of the source or radioactive material. Subparts 2 to 5 are in addition to other applicable rules in this chapter pertaining to records. If there is a conflict between this chapter, a license condition, or other written commissioner approval or authorization pertaining to the retention period for the same type of record, the longest retention period specified takes precedence.
Subp. 2. Format and safeguarding.
A. A record required under this chapter must be legible throughout the specified retention period. The record may be:
B. Records, such as letters, drawings, and specifications, must include all pertinent information, such as stamps, initials, and signatures.
C. A licensee must maintain adequate safeguards against tampering with and loss of records.
Subp. 3. Reporting units.
A licensee must use the units curie, rad, or rem or the international systems of units (SI) as appropriate, including multiples and subdivisions, and must clearly indicate the units of all quantities on records required under this chapter.
Subp. 4. Shipment manifests.
Notwithstanding the requirements of subpart 3, when recording information on shipment manifests, required under part 4731.2450, subpart 2, information must be recorded in SI units or in SI and units as specified in subpart 3.
Subp. 5. Distinguishing quantities.
A licensee must make a clear distinction among the quantities entered on records required under this chapter, for example, among the quantities of total effective dose equivalent, shallow dose equivalent, lens dose equivalent, deep dose equivalent, and committed effective dose equivalent.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.0230 Request for Written Statements
The commissioner may at any time after the filing of an original application, and before the expiration of a license, require further statements to enable the commissioner to determine whether the application should be granted or denied or whether a license should be revoked.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.0240 Data Privacy
Collection, security, and dissemination of information gathered for a license or registration is governed by Minnesota Statutes, chapter 13.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.0250 Inspections and Testing
Subpart 1. Inspections.
A. A licensee or registrant must afford to the commissioner or commissioner's designee, at all reasonable times, opportunity to inspect radioactive material and the premises and facilities wherein the radioactive material is used or stored for compliance with this chapter.
B. A licensee or registrant must make available to the commissioner or commissioner's designee for inspection, upon reasonable notice, records kept by the licensee or registrant according to this chapter.
Subp. 2. Tests.
A licensee or registrant must perform, or permit the commissioner or commissioner's designee to perform, such tests as the commissioner deems appropriate or necessary for the administration of this chapter, including tests of:
A. radioactive material;
B. facilities wherein the radioactive material is utilized or stored;
C. radiation detection and monitoring instruments; and
D. other equipment and devices used in connection with the utilization or storage of radioactive material.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.0260 Violations, Enforcement, and Penalties
Violations found by a routine inspection, complaint based inspection, incident or accident inspection, or other inspection deemed necessary by the commissioner must be brought into compliance within 30 days from the date of the inspection report or as otherwise instructed in writing. All violations are subject to penalty under Minnesota Statutes, sections 144.989 to 144.993.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.0270 Modification and Revocation of Licenses
Subpart 1. Modification.
The terms and conditions of a license are subject to amendment, revision, or modification for compliance with this chapter or orders issued according to this chapter.
Subp. 2. Revocation and suspension.
A license may be revoked, suspended, or modified, in whole or in part:
A. for any materially false statement in an application or any false statement of fact required under this chapter;
B. because of conditions revealed by an application, a statement of fact, a report, a record, an inspection, or other means that would warrant the commissioner to refuse to grant a license on an original application; or
C. for violation of or failure to observe any of the terms and provisions of this chapter or an order of the commissioner.
Subp. 3. Notice of noncompliance.
Except in cases of willfulness or when the public health, interest, or safety requires otherwise, the commissioner shall not modify, suspend, or revoke a license unless, prior to the institution of proceedings, facts or conduct that warrant such action are called to the attention of the licensee in writing and the licensee is accorded an opportunity to demonstrate or achieve compliance with all lawful requirements.
Subp. 4. Possession upon modification.
Upon revocation, suspension, or modification of a license, the commissioner may immediately take possession of all radioactive material held by the licensee.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.0280 Deliberate Misconduct
Subpart 1. Applicability.
This part applies to:
A. a licensee, registrant, industrial radiography certificate holder, or quality assurance program approval holder;
B. an applicant for a license or registration, applicant for industrial radiography certificate, or applicant for quality assurance program approval;
C. a contractor, including a supplier or consultant, or subcontractor to any person identified in this subpart; or
D. an employee of any person identified in this subpart.
Subp. 2. Prohibition.
A person identified in subpart 1 who knowingly provides to any entity listed in subpart 1, any components, equipment, materials, or other goods or services that relate to a licensee's, industrial radiography certificate holder's, quality assurance program approval holder's, registrant's, or applicant's activities in this chapter may not:
A. engage in deliberate misconduct that causes or would have caused, if not detected, any entity listed in subpart 1 to be in violation of a rule; an order; a regulation; or a term, condition, or limitation of a license, certificate, approval, or registration issued by the commissioner; or
B. deliberately submit to the commissioner, a licensee, a registrant, an industrial radiography certificate holder, a quality assurance program approval holder, an applicant for a license, certificate, or quality assurance program approval, or a licensee's, registrant's, or applicant's contractor or subcontractor, any information that the person submitting the information knows to be incomplete or inaccurate in some respect material to the commissioner.
Subp. 3. Enforcement.
A person who violates this part may be subject to enforcement action under part 4731.0260.
Subp. 4. Definition.
For purposes of this part, deliberate misconduct by a person means an intentional act or omission that the person knows:
A. would cause a licensee, registrant, or applicant to be in violation of a rule, an order, or a term, condition, or limitation of a license issued by the commissioner; or
B. constitutes a violation of a requirement, procedure, instruction, contract, purchase order, or policy of a licensee, registrant, applicant, contractor, or subcontractor.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 32 SR 831
Minn. R. 4731.0290 Employee Protection
Employee protection and employment discrimination issues are governed by Minnesota Statutes, sections 181.931 to 181.935.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.0300 Federal Jurisdiction Exclusion
In areas under exclusive federal jurisdiction, nothing in this chapter applies to the extent that the persons are subject to regulation by the NRC or other federal agencies.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.0315 Critical Mass
Subpart 1. Calculation.
A. For purposes of this chapter, special nuclear material in quantities not sufficient to form a critical mass means:
B. For each kind of special nuclear material, determine the ratio between the quantity of that special nuclear material and the quantity under item A for the same kind of special nuclear material. The sum of the ratios for all kinds of special nuclear materials in combination must not exceed unity. For example, the following quantities in combination would not exceed the limitation and are within the formula, as follows: (175 grams U-235/350) + (50 grams U-233/200) + (50 grams Pu/200) = 1
Subp. 2. Exemption.
To determine whether the exemption granted in Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, part 150.10, applies to the receipt, possession, or use of special nuclear material at any particular plant or other authorized location of use, a person must include in the quantity computed according to subpart 1 the total quantity of special nuclear material that the person is authorized to receive, possess, or use at the plant or other location of use at any one time.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.0355 Reciprocity
Subpart 1. Application; recognition.
A. Subject to this chapter, a person who holds a specific license from the NRC or an agreement state, and issued by the agency having jurisdiction where the licensee maintains an office for directing the licensed activity and at which radiation safety records are normally maintained, may apply for reciprocity. Once reciprocity is approved, the out-of-state licensee is granted a general license to conduct the activities authorized in the NRC or agreement state license within this state for a period not in excess of 180 days in a calendar year.
B. Applications for reciprocal recognition of licenses issued by the NRC or other agreement states may be made by completing a report of proposed activity reciprocity form prescribed by the commissioner. The form may be obtained by contacting the Radioactive Materials Unit, Minnesota Department of Health, 625 Robert Street N, P.O. Box 64975, St. Paul, MN 55164-0975.
C. The application must be signed and dated by the radiation safety officer or the responsible management representative.
D. The applicant must submit a copy of the current licensing document. The licensing document must not limit the activity authorized by the document to specified installations or locations.
E. The applicant must pay the reciprocity fee under Minnesota Statutes, section 144.1205.
Subp. 2. Review and inspection.
A. The commissioner shall review applications for reciprocity for compliance with this chapter. The commissioner may withdraw, limit, or qualify acceptance of a specific license or equivalent licensing document issued by the NRC or an agreement state or a product distributed under the licensing document upon determining that the action is necessary to prevent undue hazard to public health and safety or property.
B. Inspections by the commissioner may be performed on any licensee who has been granted a reciprocal license.
Subp. 3. Notification.
A. An out-of-state licensee approved for reciprocity must notify the commissioner in writing at least three days before engaging in activities in the state. The notification must include:
B. The out-of-state licensee must:
C. The out-of-state licensee must not transfer or dispose of radioactive material possessed or used under the general license under this part except by transfer to a person who is specifically licensed by the NRC or an agreement state to receive the material.
D. If, for a specific case, the three-day notification period would impose an undue hardship on the out-of-state licensee, the licensee may, upon written application to the commissioner, obtain permission to proceed sooner.
Subp. 4. Jurisdictional status.
A. A licensee must determine the jurisdictional status of a temporary job site before radioactive materials may be used at a job site at any federal facility within the state. If the jurisdictional status is unknown, the licensee must contact the federal agency that controls the site to determine if the job site is under exclusive federal jurisdiction.
B. A licensee must obtain authorization from the NRC or an agreement state before radioactive material may be used at a temporary job site in another state. Authorization may be obtained by applying for reciprocity or a specific license from the state or the NRC in areas of exclusive federal jurisdiction.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 29 SR 755; 32 SR 831; 33 SR 1440; 40 SR 145; 44 SR 239
Minn. R. 4731.0400 Scope; Enforcement Notice
Subpart 1. Scope.
Parts 4731.0400 to 4731.0424 establish requirements for the packaging, preparation for shipment, and transportation of licensed material.
Subp. 2. Application of other law.
The packaging and transport of licensed material are subject to this chapter and the regulations of other agencies, such as the NRC, DOT, and United States Postal Service, having jurisdiction over means of transport. The requirements of parts 4731.0400 to 4731.0424 are in addition to, and not in substitution for, other requirements.
Subp. 3. Applicability.
Parts 4731.0400 to 4731.0424 apply to any licensee authorized by a specific or general license issued by the commissioner to receive, possess, use, or transfer licensed material, if the licensee delivers that material to a carrier for transport, transports the material outside the site of usage as specified in an NRC or agreement state license, or transports that material on public highways. Parts 4731.0400 to 4731.0424 do not authorize possession of licensed material.
Subp. 4. Definitions.
The following definitions apply to parts 4731.0400 to 4731.0424.
A. Contamination means the presence of a radioactive substance on a surface in quantities in excess of 1 x 10-5 µCi/cm2 (0.4 Bq/cm2) for beta and gamma emitters and low-toxicity alpha emitters, or (1 x 10-6 µCi/cm2) 0.04 Bq/cm2for all other alpha emitters.
B. Fixed contamination means contamination that cannot be removed from a surface during normal conditions of transport.
C. Nonfixed contamination means contamination that can be removed from a surface during normal conditions of transport.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 32 SR 831; 44 SR 239
Minn. R. 4731.0401 Requirement for License
No licensee shall deliver licensed material to a carrier for transport or transport licensed material, except as authorized in a general license or a specific license issued by the commissioner or as exempted under parts 4731.0400 to 4731.0424.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 32 SR 831; 44 SR 239
Minn. R. 4731.0402 Transportation of Licensed Material
Subpart 1. DOT regulations.
A. A licensee who transports licensed material outside of the site of usage, as specified in a license issued by the NRC or an agreement state, or where transport is on public highways or a licensee who delivers licensed material to a carrier for transport must comply with the applicable DOT regulations in Code of Federal Regulations, title 49, parts 107, 171 to 180, and 390 to 397, appropriate to the mode of transport.
B. A licensee must particularly note DOT regulations in the following areas:
C. A licensee must also note DOT regulations pertaining to the following modes of transportation:
Subp. 2. Compliance; waiver.
If DOT regulations are not applicable to a shipment of licensed material, a licensee must conform to the standards and requirements of the DOT specified in subpart 1 to the same extent as if the shipment or transportation were subject to DOT regulations. A request for modification, waiver, or exemption from those requirements, and any notification referred to in those requirements, must be filed with or made to the commissioner.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 32 SR 831
Minn. R. 4731.0403 Specific Exemptions
Subpart 1. Physicians.
A physician licensed by a state to dispense drugs in the practice of medicine is exempt from part 4731.0402 with respect to transport by the physician of licensed material for use in the practice of medicine. A physician operating under this exemption must be licensed under parts 4731.4400 to 4731.4527 or equivalent regulations of the NRC or an agreement state.
Subp. 1a. Grounds.
On application of any interested person or on the commissioner's own initiative, the commissioner may grant any exemption from parts 4731.0400 to 4731.0424 that the commissioner determines is authorized by law and will not endanger life or property nor the common defense and security.
Subp. 2. Low-level materials.
A licensee is exempt from the requirements of parts 4731.0400 to 4731.0424 with respect to shipment or carriage of a package of the following low-level material:
A. natural material and ores containing naturally occurring radionuclides that are either in their natural state, or have only been processed for purposes other than for the extraction of the radionuclides, and that are not intended to be processed for use of these radionuclides, provided the activity concentration of the material does not exceed ten times the applicable radionuclide activity concentration values specified in part 4731.0422, subpart 3;
B. materials for which the activity concentration is not greater than the activity concentration values specified in part 4731.0422, subpart 3, or for which the consignment activity is not greater than the limit for an exempt consignment under part 4731.0422, subpart 3; and
C. nonradioactive solid objects with radioactive substances present on any surfaces in quantities that do not exceed the levels cited in the definition of contamination in part 4731.0400, subpart 4, item A.
Subp. 3. Exemption from classification as fissile material.
Fissile material meeting at least one of the requirements in items A to F is exempt from classification as fissile material and from the fissile material package standards of Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, sections 71.55 and 71.59, but is subject to all other requirements of this chapter, except as noted:
A. an individual package containing two grams or less of fissile material;
B. individual or bulk packaging containing 15 grams or less of fissile material, provided the package has at least 200 grams of solid nonfissile material for every gram of fissile material. Lead, beryllium, graphite, and hydrogenous material enriched in deuterium may be present in the package but must not be included in determining the required mass for solid nonfissile material;
C. low concentrations of solid fissile material commingled with solid nonfissile material, provided that:
D. uranium enriched in uranium-235 to a maximum of one percent by weight, and with total plutonium and uranium-233 content of up to one percent of the mass of uranium-235, provided that the mass of any beryllium, graphite, and hydrogenous material enriched in deuterium constitutes less than five percent of the uranium mass, and that the fissile material is distributed homogenously and does not form a lattice arrangement within the package;
E. liquid solutions of uranyl nitrate enriched in uranium-235 to a maximum of two percent by mass, with a total plutonium and uranium-233 content not exceeding 0.002 percent of the mass of uranium, and with a minimum nitrogen to uranium atomic ratio (N/U) of two. The material must be contained in at least a DOT Type A package; or
F. packages containing, individually, a total plutonium mass of not more than 1,000 grams, of which not more than 20 percent by mass may consist of plutonium-239, plutonium-241, or any combination of these radionuclides.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 32 SR 831; 44 SR 239
Minn. R. 4731.0405 [Repealed, 32 SR 831]
[Repealed, 32 SR 831]
Minn. R. 4731.0406 General License; Nrc-Approved Package
Subpart 1. License to transport or deliver.
A general license is issued to any licensee of the commissioner to transport, or to deliver to a carrier for transport, licensed material in a package for which a license, certificate of compliance, or other approval has been issued by the NRC.
Subp. 2. Approved quality assurance program.
The general license issued under subpart 1 applies only to a licensee who has a quality assurance program approved by the commissioner as complying with part 4731.0420.
Subp. 3. Compliance with conditions.
Each licensee issued a general license under subpart 1 must:
A. maintain a copy of the certificate of compliance or other approval of the package and have the drawings and other documents referenced in the approval relating to the use and maintenance of the packaging and to the actions to be taken before shipment;
B. comply with the terms and conditions of the license, certificate, or other approval, as applicable, and the applicable requirements of this chapter and Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, part 71, subpart H; and
C. submit in writing to the NRC, before the licensee's first use of the package, the licensee's name and license number and the package identification number specified in the package approval. For the submittal to the NRC, the licensee must use an approved method listed in the Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, section 71.1(a), addressed to: ATTN: Document Control Desk, Director, Division of Fuel Management, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards.
Subp. 4. Package approval.
The general license issued under subpart 1 applies only when the package approval authorizes use of the package under the general license under subpart 1.
Subp. 5. Type B or fissile material package.
For a Type B or fissile material package, the design of which was approved by the NRC before April 1, 1996, the general license under subpart 1 is subject to the additional restrictions of Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, section 71.19.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 32 SR 831; 44 SR 239; 46 SR 791
Minn. R. 4731.0407 [Repealed, 44 SR 239]
[Repealed, 44 SR 239]
Minn. R. 4731.0408 MR 2008 [Expired]
MR 2008 [Expired]
Minn. R. 4731.0409 General License; Foreign-Approved Package
Subpart 1. License for foreign-approved package.
A general license is issued to any licensee of the commissioner to transport, or to deliver to a carrier for transport, licensed material in a package the design of which has been approved in a foreign national competent authority certificate that has been revalidated by the DOT as meeting the applicable requirements of Code of Federal Regulations, title 49, section 171.23.
Subp. 2. Approved quality assurance program.
Except as otherwise provided in parts 4731.0400 to 4731.0424, the general license issued under subpart 1 applies only to a licensee who has a quality assurance program approved by the commissioner as complying with part 4731.0420.
Subp. 3. Use outside United States.
The general license issued under subpart 1 applies only to shipments made to or from locations outside the United States.
Subp. 4. Certificate conditions.
Each licensee issued a general license under subpart 1 must:
A. maintain a copy of the applicable certificate, the revalidation, and the drawings and other documents referenced in the certificate relating to the use and maintenance of the packaging and to the actions to be taken before shipment; and
B. comply with the terms and conditions of the certificate and revalidation and with the applicable requirements of this chapter and Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, part 71, subpart H.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 32 SR 831; 44 SR 239
Minn. R. 4731.0410 General License; Fissile Material
Subpart 1. License to transport or deliver fissile material.
A general license is issued to any licensee of the commissioner to transport fissile material, or to deliver fissile material to a carrier for transport, if the material is shipped according to this part. The fissile material need not be contained in a package that meets the standards of part 4731.0412 and Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, sections 71.41 to 71.77, if the material is shipped according to this part. However, the material must be contained in a Type A package. The Type A package must also meet the DOT requirements in Code of Federal Regulations, title 49, section 173.417(a).
Subp. 2. Approved quality assurance program.
The general license issued under subpart 1 applies only to a licensee who has a quality assurance program approved by the NRC as complying with Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, part 71, subpart H.
Subp. 3. Type A quantity limits.
The general license issued under subpart 1 applies only when a package's contents:
A. contain less than a Type A quantity of fissile material; and
B. contain less than 500 total grams of beryllium, graphite, or hydrogenous material enriched in deuterium.
Subp. 4. Fissile material labeled with a criticality safety index.
A. The general license applies only to packages containing fissile material that are labeled with a criticality safety index that:
B. For a shipment of multiple packages containing fissile material, the sum of the criticality safety indices must be less than or equal to 50 for shipment on a nonexclusive use conveyance and less than or equal to 100 for shipment on an exclusive use conveyance.
Subp. 5.
[Repealed, 32 SR 831]
Subp. 6.
[Repealed, 32 SR 831]
Subp. 7. Criticality safety index values.
A. The value for the criticality safety index must be greater than or equal to the number calculated by the following equation:
B. The calculated criticality safety index must be rounded up to the first decimal place.
C. The values of X, Y, and Z used in the criticality safety index equation must be taken from subpart 8 or 9, as appropriate.
D. If subpart 9 is used to obtain the value of X, then the values for the terms in the equation for uranium-233 and plutonium must be assumed to be zero.
E. The values in subpart 8 for X, Y, and Z must be used to determine the criticality safety index if:
Subp. 8. Mass limits for general license packages containing mixed quantities of fissile material of uranium-235 of unknown enrichment.
aWhen mixtures of moderating substances are present, the lower mass limits shall be used if more than 15 percent of the moderating substance has an average hydrogen density greater than H2O.
Subp. 9. Mass limits for general license packages containing uranium-235 of known enrichment.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 32 SR 831
Minn. R. 4731.0411 General License; Plutonium-Beryllium Special Form Material
Subpart 1. Transport of plutonium-beryllium.
A general license is issued to any licensee of the commissioner to transport fissile material in the form of plutonium-beryllium (Pu-Be) special form sealed sources, or to deliver Pu-Be sealed sources to a carrier for transport, if the material is shipped according to this part. The material need not be contained in a package that meets the requirements of part 4731.0412 and Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, sections 71.41 to 71.77; however, the material must be contained in a Type A package. The Type A package must also meet the DOT requirements of Code of Federal Regulations, title 49, section 173.417(a).
Subp. 2. Approved quality assurance program.
The general license issued under subpart 1 applies only to a licensee who has a quality assurance program approved by the NRC as complying with part 4731.0412 and Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, part 71, subpart H.
Subp. 3. Package contents.
The general license issued under subpart 1 applies only when a package's contents:
A. contain no more than a Type A quantity of radioactive material; and
B. contain less than 1,000 grams of plutonium, provided that plutonium-239, plutonium-241, or any combination of these radionuclides, constitutes less than 240 grams of total quantity of plutonium in the package.
Subp. 4. Packages labeled with criticality safety index.
The general license issued under subpart 1 applies only to packages labeled with a criticality safety index that:
A. has been determined according to subpart 5;
B. has a value less than or equal to 100; and
C. for a shipment of multiple packages containing Pu-Be sealed sources, the sum of the criticality safety indices must be less than or equal to 50 (for shipment on a nonexclusive use conveyance) and less than or equal to 100 (for shipment on an exclusive use conveyance).
Subp. 5. Criticality safety index.
A. The value for the criticality safety index must be greater than or equal to the number calculated by the following equation:
B. The calculated criticality safety index must be rounded up to the first decimal place.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 32 SR 831
Minn. R. 4731.0412 External Radiation Standards for All Packages
Subpart 1. Radiation level limit.
Except as provided in subpart 2, a package of radioactive material offered for transportation must be designed and prepared for shipment so that under conditions normally incident to transportation, the radiation level does not exceed 200 millirems per hour (2 mSv/hr) at any point on the external surface of the package and the transport index does not exceed ten.
Subp. 2. Packages in excess of limit.
A package that exceeds the radiation level limits under subpart 1 must be transported by exclusive use shipment only and the radiation levels for such shipment must not exceed the following during transportation:
A. 200 millirems per hour (2 mSv/hr) on the external surface of the package, unless the following conditions are met, in which case the limit is 1,000 millirems per hour (10 mSv/hr):
B. 200 millirems per hour (2 mSv/hr) at any point on the outer surface of the vehicle, including the top and underside of the vehicle; or in the case of a flat-bed style vehicle, at any point on the vertical planes projected from the outer edges of the vehicle, on the upper surface of the load or enclosure, if used, and on the lower external surface of the vehicle;
C. ten millirems per hour (0.1 mSv/hr) at any point 80 inches (2 meters) from the outer lateral surfaces of the vehicle, excluding the top and underside of the vehicle; or in the case of a flat-bed style vehicle, at any point 6.6 feet (2 meters) from the vertical planes projected by the outer edges of the vehicle, excluding the top and underside of the vehicle; and
D. two millirems per hour (0.02 mSv/hr) in any normally occupied space, except that this item does not apply to private carriers, if exposed personnel under their control wear radiation dosimetry devices according to part 4731.2210.
Subp. 3. Written instructions.
A. For shipments made under subpart 2, the shipper must provide specific written instructions to the carrier for maintenance of the exclusive use shipment controls. The instructions must be included with the shipping paper information.
B. The written instructions required for exclusive use shipments must be sufficient so that, when followed, they will cause the carrier to avoid actions that will unnecessarily delay delivery or unnecessarily result in increased radiation levels or radiation exposures to transport workers or members of the general public.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.0413 Assumptions as to Unknown Properties
When the isotopic abundance, mass, concentration, degree of irradiation, degree of moderation, or other pertinent property of fissile material in any package is not known, the licensee must package the fissile material as if the unknown properties have credible values that will cause the maximum neutron multiplication.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.0414 Preliminary Determinations
Before the first use of any packaging for the shipment of licensed material, the licensee must ascertain that the determinations in Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, section 71.85, have been made.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 44 SR 239
Minn. R. 4731.0415 Routine Determinations
Before each shipment of licensed material, a licensee must ensure that the package with its contents satisfies the applicable requirements of the license and parts 4731.0400 to 4731.0424. The licensee must determine that:
A. the package is proper for the contents to be shipped;
B. the package is in an unimpaired physical condition, except for superficial defects such as marks or dents;
C. each closure device of the packaging, including any required gasket, is properly installed and secured and free of defects;
D. any system for containing liquid is adequately sealed and has adequate space or other specified provision for expansion of the liquid;
E. any pressure relief device is operable and set according to written procedures;
F. the package has been loaded and closed according to written procedures;
G. for fissile material, any moderator or neutron absorber, if required, is present and in proper condition;
H. any structural part of the package that could be used to lift or tie down the package during transport is rendered inoperable for that purpose, unless it satisfies the design requirements under Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, section 71.45;
I. the level of nonfixed (removable) radioactive contamination on the external surfaces of each package offered for shipment is as low as reasonably achievable and within the limits specified in DOT regulations under Code of Federal Regulations, title 49, section 173.443;
J. external radiation levels around the package and around the vehicle, if applicable, will not exceed the limits specified in part 4731.0412 at any time during transportation; and
K. accessible package surface temperatures will not exceed the limits specified in Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, section 71.43, paragraph (g), at any time during transportation.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 32 SR 831; 44 SR 239
Minn. R. 4731.0416 Air Transport of Plutonium
Subpart 1. Limitations for plutonium transport.
Notwithstanding the provisions of any general license and notwithstanding any exemptions stated directly in parts 4731.0400 to 4731.0424 or included indirectly by citation to Code of Federal Regulations, title 49, chapter I, as may be applicable, a licensee must ensure that plutonium in any form, whether for import, export, or domestic shipment, is not transported by air, or delivered to a carrier for air transport, unless:
A. the plutonium is contained in a medical device designed for individual human application;
B. the plutonium is contained in a material in which the specific activity is less than or equal to the activity concentration values for plutonium specified in part 4731.0422, subpart 3, and in which the radioactivity is essentially uniformly distributed;
C. the plutonium is shipped in a single package containing no more than an A2 quantity of plutonium in any isotope or form and is shipped according to part 4731.0402; or
D. the plutonium is shipped in a package specifically authorized for shipment of plutonium by air in the certificate of compliance for that package issued by the NRC.
Subp. 2. Federal law.
A. Nothing in subpart 1 is to be interpreted as removing or diminishing the requirements of Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, section 73.24.
B. For a shipment of plutonium by air that is subject to subpart 1, item D, a licensee must, through special arrangement with the carrier, require compliance with the DOT regulations applicable to the air transport of plutonium under Code of Federal Regulations, title 49, section 175.704.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 32 SR 831; 44 SR 239
Minn. R. 4731.0417 Opening Instructions
Before delivery of a package to a carrier for transport, a licensee must ensure that any special instructions needed to safely open the package have been sent to, or otherwise made available to, the consignee for the consignee's use, according to part 4731.2350, subpart 5.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.0418 Records and Reports
Subpart 1. Record of shipment.
Each licensee must maintain, for a period of three years after shipment, a record of each shipment of licensed material that is not exempt under part 4731.0403, subpart 2, showing, where applicable:
A. identification of the packaging by model number and serial number;
B. verification that there are no significant defects in the packaging, as shipped;
C. volume and identification of coolant;
D. type and quantity of licensed material in each package, and the total quantity of each shipment;
E. for each item of irradiated fissile material:
F. date of the shipment;
G. for fissile packages and for Type B packages, any special controls exercised;
H. name and address of the transferee;
I. address to which the shipment was made; and
J. results of the determinations required by part 4731.0415 and by the conditions of the package approval.
Subp. 2. Record availability.
The licensee must make available to the commissioner for inspection, upon reasonable notice, all records required by parts 4731.0400 to 4731.0424. Records are only valid if stamped, initialed, or signed and dated by authorized personnel, or otherwise authenticated.
Subp. 3. Record of package quality.
The licensee must maintain sufficient written records to furnish evidence of the quality of packaging. The records to be maintained include results of the determinations required by Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, part 71.85; design, fabrication, and assembly records; results of reviews, inspections, tests, and audits; results of monitoring work performance and materials analyses; and results of maintenance, modification, and repair activities. Inspection, test, and audit records must identify the inspector or data recorder, the type of observation, the results, the acceptability, and the action taken in connection with any deficiencies noted. These records must be retained for three years after the life of the packaging to which they apply.
Subp. 4. Reports.
A licensee must report to the commissioner within 30 days:
A. any instance in which there is significant reduction in the effectiveness of any approved Type B or fissile packaging during use;
B. details of any defects with safety significance in Type B or fissile packaging after first use, with the means employed to repair the defects and prevent their recurrence; and
C. instances in which the conditions of approval in the certificate of compliance were not observed in making a shipment.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 44 SR 239
Minn. R. 4731.0419 Advance Notification of Shipment of Irradiated Reactor Fuel and Nuclear Waste
Subpart 1. Notice required.
As specified in subparts 2 to 4, a licensee must provide advance notification to:
A. the commissioner, the governor of the state or the governor's designee, and the NRC of a shipment of licensed material through or across the boundary of the state before the transport, or delivery to a carrier for transport, of licensed material outside the confines of the licensee's plant or other place of use or storage; and
B. the Tribal official of participating Tribes referenced in subpart 3, item B, or the official's designee, of the shipment of licensed material, within or across the boundary of the Tribe's reservation, before the transport, or delivery to a carrier, for transport, of licensed material outside the confines of the licensee's plant or other place of use or storage.
Subp. 2. Shipments requiring notice.
Advance notification is required under this part for shipments of licensed material, other than irradiated fuel, meeting the following three conditions:
A. the licensed material is required by parts 4731.0400 to 4731.0424 to be in Type B packaging for transportation;
B. the licensed material is being transported to or across the state boundary enroute to a disposal facility or to a collection point for transport to a disposal facility; and
C. the quantity of licensed material in a single package exceeds the least of the following:
Subp. 3. Procedures for submitting notification.
A. The notification required under this part must:
B. Contact information, including telephone and mailing addresses of the governors' designees and Tribal officials' designees of participating Tribes is available on the NRC website at: https://scp.nrc.gov/special/designee.pdf. The information is also available on request from the Director, Division of Materials Safety, Security, State, and Tribal Programs, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001.
C. The licensee must retain a copy of the notification as a record for three years.
Subp. 4. Information to be furnished in advance notification of shipment.
An advance notification of shipment of irradiated reactor fuel or nuclear waste must contain the following information:
A. the name, address, and telephone number of the shipper, carrier, and receiver of the irradiated reactor fuel or nuclear waste shipment;
B. a description of the irradiated reactor fuel or nuclear waste contained in the shipment according to DOT regulations in Code of Federal Regulations, title 49, sections 172.202 and 172.203, paragraph (d);
C. the point of origin of the shipment and the seven-day period during which departure of the shipment is estimated to occur;
D. the seven-day period during which arrival of the shipment at state boundaries or Tribal reservation boundaries is estimated to occur;
E. the destination of the shipment and the seven-day period during which arrival of the shipment is estimated to occur; and
F. a point of contact, with a telephone number, for current shipment information.
Subp. 5. Revision notice.
A licensee who finds that schedule information, previously furnished under this part to the commissioner and a governor or governor's designee or a Tribal official or Tribal official's designee, will not be met must telephone a responsible individual in the commissioner's office and the governor or governor's designee or the Tribal official or the Tribal official's designee and inform the individual of the extent of the delay beyond the schedule originally reported.
Subp. 5a. Record retained.
The licensee must maintain a record of the name of the individual contacted for three years.
Subp. 6. Cancellation notice.
A. A licensee who cancels an irradiated reactor fuel or nuclear waste shipment for which advance notification has been sent must send a cancellation notice to the commissioner, the governor of each state or the governor's designee previously notified, each Tribal official or the Tribal official's designee previously notified, and the director, Office of Nuclear Security and Incident Response, NRC.
B. The licensee must state in the notice that it is a cancellation and identify the advance notification that is being canceled.
C. The licensee must retain a copy of the notice as a record for three years.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 29 SR 755; 32 SR 831; 40 SR 145; 44 SR 239; 46 SR 791
Minn. R. 4731.0420 Quality Assurance Requirements
Subpart 1. Program requirement.
A. A licensee who uses a general license under part 4731.0406, 4731.0409, 4731.0410, or 4731.0411 must establish, maintain, and execute a quality assurance program satisfying each of the applicable criteria of this part.
B. As used in this subpart, "quality assurance" comprises all those planned and systematic actions necessary to provide adequate confidence that a system or component will perform satisfactorily in service. Quality assurance includes quality control, which comprises those quality assurance actions related to control of the physical characteristics and quality of the material or component to predetermined requirements.
C. Before the use of any package for the shipment of licensed material subject to this part, a licensee must obtain the commissioner's approval of its quality assurance program. The licensee must file a description of its quality assurance program, including a discussion of which requirements of this part are applicable and how they will be satisfied.
D. A program for transport container inspection and maintenance limited to radiographic exposure devices, source changers, or packages transporting these devices and meeting the requirements of part 4731.4090, subpart 2, items A to C, or an equivalent requirement of the NRC or an agreement state, is deemed to satisfy the requirements of subpart 1 and part 4731.0406, subpart 2.
Subp. 2. Quality assurance organization.
A. A licensee is responsible for the establishment and execution of the quality assurance program. The licensee may delegate to others, such as contractors, agents, or consultants, the work of establishing and executing the quality assurance program, or any part of the quality assurance program, but must retain responsibility for the program. These activities include performing the functions associated with attaining quality objectives and the quality assurance functions.
B. The quality assurance functions are:
Subp. 3. Quality assurance program.
A. The licensee must document the quality assurance program by written procedures or instructions and carry out the program according to those procedures throughout the period during which the packaging is used. The licensee must identify the material and components to be covered by the quality assurance program, the major organizations participating in the program, and the designated functions of these organizations.
B. The licensee, through its quality assurance program, must provide control over activities affecting the quality of the identified materials and components to an extent consistent with their importance to safety, and as necessary to ensure conformance to the approved design of each individual package used for the shipment of radioactive material. The licensee must ensure that activities affecting quality are accomplished under suitably controlled conditions. Controlled conditions include the use of appropriate equipment; suitable environmental conditions for accomplishing the activity, such as adequate cleanliness; and assurance that all prerequisites for the given activity have been satisfied. The licensee must take into account the need for special controls, processes, test equipment, tools, and skills to attain the required quality and the need for verification of quality by inspection and test.
C. The licensee must base the requirements and procedures of its quality assurance program on the following considerations concerning the complexity and proposed use of the package and its components:
D. The licensee must provide for the indoctrination and training of personnel who perform activities that affect quality, as necessary to ensure that suitable proficiency is achieved and maintained. The licensee must review the status and adequacy of the quality assurance program at established intervals. Management of other organizations participating in the quality assurance program shall review regularly the status and adequacy of that part of the quality assurance program that a participating organization is executing.
Subp. 4. Changes to quality assurance program.
A. A quality assurance program approval holder must submit a description of a proposed change to its commissioner-approved quality assurance program that will reduce commitments in the program description as approved by the commissioner. The quality assurance program approval holder shall not implement the change before receiving commissioner approval. The description of a proposed change to the commissioner-approved quality assurance program must identify the change, the reason for the change, and the basis for concluding that the revised program incorporating the change continues to satisfy the applicable requirements of this part.
B. Each quality assurance program approval holder may change a previously approved quality assurance program without prior approval from the commissioner if the change does not reduce the commitments in the quality assurance program previously approved by the commissioner. Changes to the quality assurance program that do not reduce the commitments must be submitted to the commissioner every 24 months. In addition to quality assurance program changes involving administrative improvements and clarifications, spelling corrections, and nonsubstantive changes to punctuation or editorial items, the following changes are not considered reductions in commitment:
C. Each quality assurance program approval holder must maintain records of quality assurance program changes.
Subp. 5. Handling, storage, and shipping control.
The licensee must establish measures to control, according to instructions, the handling, storage, shipping, cleaning, and preservation of materials and equipment to be used in packaging to prevent damage or deterioration. When necessary for particular products, special protective environments, such as inert gas atmosphere, and specific moisture content and temperature levels must be specified and provided.
Subp. 6. Inspection, test, and operating status.
A. The licensee must establish measures to indicate, by the use of markings such as stamps, tags, labels, routing cards, or other suitable means, the status of inspections and tests performed upon individual items of the packaging. These measures must provide for the identification of items that have satisfactorily passed required inspections and tests, where necessary, to preclude inadvertent bypassing of the inspections and tests.
B. The licensee must establish measures to identify the operating status of components of the packaging, such as tagging valves and switches, to prevent inadvertent operation.
Subp. 7. Nonconforming materials, parts, or components.
The licensee must establish measures to control materials, parts, or components that do not conform to the licensee's requirements to prevent inadvertent use or installation. These measures must include, as appropriate, procedures for identification, documentation, segregation, disposition, and notification to affected organizations. Nonconforming items must be reviewed and accepted, rejected, repaired, or reworked according to documented procedures.
Subp. 8. Corrective action.
The licensee must establish measures to ensure that conditions adverse to quality, such as deficiencies, deviations, defective material and equipment, and nonconformances, are promptly identified and corrected. In the case of a significant condition that is adverse to quality, the measures must ensure that the cause of the condition is determined and corrective action is taken to preclude repetition. The identification of the significant condition that is adverse to quality, the cause of the condition, and the corrective action taken must be documented and reported to appropriate levels of management.
Subp. 9. Quality assurance records.
The licensee must maintain sufficient written records to describe the activities affecting quality. These records must include changes to the quality assurance program as required by subpart 4, and closely related specifications, such as required qualifications of personnel, procedures, and equipment. The records must include the instructions or procedures that establish a records retention program that is consistent with applicable regulations and that designates factors such as duration, location, and assigned responsibility for the records. The licensee must retain these records for three years beyond the date when the licensee last engages in the activity for which the quality assurance program was developed. If any portion of the quality assurance program, written procedures, or instructions is superseded, the licensee must retain the superseded material for three years.
Subp. 10. Audits.
The licensee must carry out a comprehensive system of planned and periodic audits to verify compliance with all aspects of the quality assurance program and determine the effectiveness of the program. The audits must be performed according to written procedures or checklists by appropriately trained personnel who do not have direct responsibilities in the areas being audited. Audited results must be documented and reviewed by management having responsibility in the area audited. Follow-up action, including reaudit of deficient areas, must be taken where indicated.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 44 SR 239
Minn. R. 4731.0421 [Repealed, 44 SR 239]
[Repealed, 44 SR 239]
Minn. R. 4731.0422 A1 and A2 Values for Radionuclides
Subpart 1.
[Repealed, 32 SR 831]
Subp. 1a. A1 and A2 values.
aA1 and A2 values include contributions from daughter nuclides with half-lives less than ten days as listed in the following:
bThe values of A1 and A2 in curies (Ci) are approximate and for information only; the regulatory standard units are Terabecquerels (TBq). See part 4731.0423, subpart 1 - Determination of A1 and A2.
cThe activity of Ir-192 in special form may be determined from a measurement of the rate of decay or a measurement of the radiation level at a prescribed distance from the source.
dThese values apply only to compounds of uranium that take the chemical form of UF6, UO2F2, and UO2(NO3)2 in both normal and accident conditions of transport.
eThese values apply only to compounds of uranium that take the chemical form of UO3, UF4, and UCl4 and hexavalent compounds in both normal and accident conditions of transport.
fThese values apply to all compounds of uranium other than those specified in notes d and e.
gThese values apply to unirradiated uranium only.
hA2 = 0.74 TBq (20 Ci) for Mo-99 for domestic use.
Subp. 2. Specific activity.
This subpart specifies specific activity for individual radionuclides.
Subp. 3. Exempt material activity concentrations and exempt consignment activity limits.
This subpart specifies exempt material activity concentrations and exempt consignment activity levels for radionuclides.
aParent nuclides and their progeny included in secular equilibrium are listed as follows:
bThese values apply only to compounds of uranium that take the chemical form of UF6, UO2F2 and UO2(NO3)2 in both normal and accident conditions of transport.
cThese values apply only to compounds of uranium that take the chemical form of UO3, UF4, UCl4 and hexavalent compounds in both normal and accident conditions of transport.
dThese values apply to all compounds of uranium other than those specified in notes b and c of this table.
eThese values apply to unirradiated uranium only.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 29 SR 755; 32 SR 831; 40 SR 145; 44 SR 239; 46 SR 791
Minn. R. 4731.0423 Determination of A1 and A2
Subpart 1. Generally.
Values of A1 and A2 for individual radionuclides, which are the bases for many activity limits elsewhere in this chapter, are given in part 4731.0422, subpart 1a. The curie (Ci) values specified are obtained by converting from the Terabecquerel (TBq) values. The Terabecquerel values are the regulatory standard. The curie values are for information only and are not intended to be the regulatory standard. Where values of A1 and A2 are unlimited, it is for radiation control purposes only. For nuclear criticality safety, some materials are subject to controls placed on fissile material.
Subp. 2. Individual radionuclides; not listed in part 4731.0422, subpart 1a.
For individual radionuclides whose identities are known, but which are not listed in part 4731.0422, subpart 1a, the A1 and A2 values contained in subpart 6 may be used. Otherwise, the licensee shall obtain prior commissioner, NRC, or agreement state approval of the radionuclides not listed in part 4731.0422, subpart 1a, before shipping the material.
Subp. 2a. Individual radionuclides; not listed in part 4731.0422, subpart 3.
For individual radionuclides whose identities are known, but which are not listed in part 4731.0422, subpart 3, the exempt material activity concentration and exempt consignment activity values contained in subpart 6 may be used. Otherwise, the licensee shall obtain prior commissioner, NRC, or agreement state approval of the exempt material activity concentration and exempt consignment activity values for radionuclides not listed in part 4731.0422, subpart 3, before shipping the material.
Subp. 2b. Prior approval.
The licensee must submit requests for prior approval, described under subparts 2 and 2a, to the commissioner, NRC, or agreement state, according to this chapter.
Subp. 3. Radioactive decay chain.
In the calculations of A1 and A2 for a radionuclide not in part 4731.0422, subpart 1a, a single radioactive decay chain, in which radionuclides are present in their naturally occurring proportions and in which no daughter nuclide has a half-life longer than ten days or longer than that of the parent nuclide, shall be considered as a single radionuclide. The activity to be taken into account and the A1 and A2 value to be applied shall be those corresponding to the parent nuclide of the chain. In the case of radioactive decay chains in which any daughter nuclide has a half-life longer than ten days or greater than that of the parent radionuclide, the parent and those daughter radionuclides shall be considered as mixtures of different radionuclides.
Subp. 4. Radionuclide mixture.
For mixtures of radionuclides whose identities and respective activities are known, the following conditions apply:
A. For special form radioactive material, the maximum quantity transported in a Type A package: where B(i) is the activity of radionuclide i in special form and A1(i) is the A1 value for radionuclide i.
B. For normal form radioactive material, the maximum quantity transported in a Type A package: where B(i) is the activity of radionuclide i in normal form and A2(i) is the A2 value for radionuclide i.
C. If the package contains both a special and normal form radioactive material, the activity that may be transported in a Type A package: where B(i) is the activity of radionuclide i in special form, A1(i) is the A1 value for radionuclide i, C(j) is the activity of radionuclide j in normal form, and A2(j) is the A2 value for radionuclide j.
D. Alternatively, an A1 value for mixtures of special form material may be determined as follows: where f(i) is the fraction of activity of radionuclide i in the mixture and A1(i) is the appropriate A1 value for radionuclide i.
E. Alternatively, the A2 value for mixtures of normal form material may be determined as follows: where f(i) is the fraction of activity of radionuclide i in the mixture and A2(i) is the appropriate A2 value for radionuclide i.
F. The exempt activity concentration for mixtures of radionuclides may be determined as follows: where f(i) is the fraction of activity concentration of radionuclide i in the mixture, and [A] (i) is the activity concentration for exempt material containing radionuclide i.
G. The activity limit for an exempt consignment for mixtures of radionuclides may be determined as follows: where f(i) is the fraction of activity of radionuclide i in the mixture, and A (i) is the activity limit for exempt consignments for radionuclide i.
Subp. 5. Activities unknown.
A. When the identity of each radionuclide is known, but the individual activities of some of the radionuclides are not known, the radionuclides may be grouped and the lowest A1 or A2 value, as appropriate, for the radionuclides in each group may be used in applying the formulas in subpart 4. Groups may be based on the total alpha activity and the total beta/gamma activity when these are known, using the lowest A1 or A2 values for the alpha emitters and beta/gamma emitters.
B. When the identity of each radionuclide is known but the individual activities of some of the radionuclides are not known, the radionuclides may be grouped and the lowest [A] (activity concentration for exempt material) or A (activity limit for exempt consignment) value, as appropriate, for the radionuclides in each group may be used in applying the formulas in subpart 4. Groups may be based on the total alpha activity and the total beta/gamma activity when these are known, using the lowest [A] or A values for the alpha emitters and beta/gamma emitters, respectively.
Subp. 6. General values for A1 and A2.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 32 SR 831; 44 SR 239
Minn. R. 4731.0424 Activity-Mass Relationships for Uranium
1 The figures for uranium include representative values for the activity of the uranium-234 that is concentrated during the enrichment process.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.0455 [Repealed, 44 SR 239]
[Repealed, 44 SR 239]
Minn. R. 4731.0525 Domestic Licensing of Special Nuclear Material
Subpart 1. Scope.
Parts 4731.0525 to 4731.0630 establish procedures and criteria for the issuance of licenses to receive title to, own, acquire, deliver, receive, possess, use, and transfer special nuclear material and establish and provide for the terms and conditions upon which the commissioner will issue such licenses.
Subp. 2. Applicability.
Except as provided in part 4731.0535, parts 4731.0525 to 4731.0630 apply to all persons in the United States. Parts 4731.0525 to 4731.0630 give notice to all persons who knowingly provide to any licensee, applicant, contractor, or subcontractor, components, equipment, materials, or other goods or services that relate to a licensee's or applicant's activities subject to parts 4731.0525 to 4731.0630, that they may be individually subject to enforcement action for violation of part 4731.0280.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.0530 License Requirement; Special Nuclear Material
No person shall receive title to, own, acquire, deliver, receive, possess, use, or transfer special nuclear material, except as authorized in a license issued by the commissioner according to parts 4731.0525 to 4731.0630.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.0535 Exemption; Certain Federal Contracts
A. Except to the extent that United States Department of Energy (DOE) facilities or activities of the types subject to licensing under the federal Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, United States Code, title 42, section 5842, are involved, a prime contractor of the DOE is exempt from parts 4731.0525 to 4731.0630 to the extent that the contractor, under the prime contract with the DOE, receives title to, owns, acquires, delivers, receives, possesses, uses, or transfers special nuclear material for:
B. Subject to the requirement for licensing of DOE facilities and activities according to United States Code, title 42, section 5842, a prime contractor or subcontractor of the DOE or the NRC is exempt from parts 4731.0525 to 4731.0630 to the extent that the prime contractor or subcontractor receives title to, owns, acquires, delivers, receives, possesses, uses, or transfers special nuclear material under the prime contract or subcontract when the NRC determines that the exemption is authorized by law and that under the terms of the contract or subcontract, there is adequate assurance that the work thereunder can be accomplished without undue risk to the public health and safety.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.0540 Exemption; Carriers
Common and contract carriers, freight forwarders, warehousers, and the United States Postal Service are exempt from parts 4731.0525 to 4731.0630 to the extent that they transport special nuclear material in the regular course of carriage for another or storage incident thereto. This exemption does not apply to the storage in transit or transport of material by persons covered by the general license issued under Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, sections 70.20a and 70.20b.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.0550 Types of Licenses
Licenses for special nuclear material are of two types: general and specific. A general license issued under parts 4731.0525 to 4731.0630 is effective without the filing of an application with the commissioner or the issuance of licensing documents to particular persons. Specific licenses are issued to named persons upon application filed according to parts 4731.0525 to 4731.0630.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.0555 General License; Calibration or Reference Sources
Subpart 1. Calibration or reference sources.
Persons listed in items A to C are issued a general license to receive title to, own, acquire, deliver, receive, possess, use, and transfer, according to subparts 2 to 4, plutonium in the form of calibration or reference sources:
A. a person who holds a specific license issued by the commissioner that authorizes the person to receive, possess, use, and transfer radioactive material, including source material and special nuclear material;
B. a person who holds a specific license issued by the NRC or an agreement state that authorizes the person to receive, possess, use, and transfer radioactive material, including source and special nuclear material; and
C. a government agency that holds a specific license issued by the NRC that authorizes the agency to receive, possess, use, or transfer by-product material, source material, or special nuclear material.
Subp. 2. Applicability.
The general license issued under subpart 1 applies only to calibration or reference sources that have been manufactured or initially transferred according to a specific license issued under part 4731.0605 or according to a specific license issued by the commissioner, the NRC, or an agreement state that authorizes manufacture of the sources for distribution to persons generally licensed by the commissioner, the NRC, or an agreement state.
Subp. 3. Other law.
The general license issued under subpart 1 is subject to the provisions of parts 4731.0260; 4731.0590; 4731.0620; 4731.0630; and 4731.1000 to 4731.2950 and the provisions of Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, part 21, and sections 70.62, 74.11, and 74.19.
Subp. 4. Requirements.
Persons who receive title to, own, acquire, deliver, receive, possess, use, or transfer one or more calibration or reference sources under the general license issued under subpart 1:
A. shall not possess at any one time, at any one location of storage or use, more than five microcuries (185 kBq) of plutonium or five microcuries (185 kBq) of radium-226 in the sources;
B. shall not receive, possess, use, or transfer the source unless the source or storage container bears a label that includes the following statement or a substantially similar statement that contains the information called for in the following statement: "The receipt, possession, use, and transfer of this source, Model No. ....., Serial No. ....., are subject to a general license and the regulations of the Minnesota commissioner of health, the Nuclear Regulatory Commission, or a state with which the Nuclear Regulatory Commission has entered into an agreement for the exercise of regulatory authority. Do not remove this label. CAUTION - RADIOACTIVE MATERIAL - THIS SOURCE CONTAINS PLUTONIUM. DO NOT TOUCH RADIOACTIVE PORTION OF THIS SOURCE. (Name of manufacturer or initial transferor)";
C. shall not transfer, abandon, or dispose of the source except by transfer to a person authorized by a license from the commissioner, the NRC, the Atomic Energy Commission, or an agreement state to receive the source;
D. shall store the source, except when the source is being used, in a closed container adequately designed and constructed to contain plutonium or radium-226, which might otherwise escape during storage; and
E. shall not use the source for any purpose other than the calibration of radiation detectors or the standardization of other sources.
Subp. 5. Limitation.
The general license issued under subpart 1 does not authorize the manufacture, import, or export of calibration or reference sources containing plutonium or radium-226.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.0560 General License; Owning Special Nuclear Material
A general license is issued to receive title to and own special nuclear material without regard to quantity. Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter, a general licensee under this part is not authorized to acquire, deliver, receive, possess, use, transfer, import, or export special nuclear material, except as authorized in a specific license.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.0565 Application; Filing
Subpart 1. Generally.
A. A person may apply for a specific license issued under parts 4731.0525 to 4731.0630 by filing an application according to part 4731.0200, subpart 4.
B. Applications and documents submitted to the commissioner in connection with applications may be made available for public inspection according to part 4731.0240.
Subp. 2. Fees.
An application for a special nuclear material license must be accompanied by the fee prescribed in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.1205.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 44 SR 239
Minn. R. 4731.0570 Application; Contents
Subpart 1. Required information.
A. An application for a license under parts 4731.0525 to 4731.0630 must contain:
B. If the applicant is a corporation or other entity, the application must contain:
C. All applications must contain:
D. Where the nature of the proposed activities is such as to require consideration of the applicant's financial qualifications to engage in the proposed activities according to this chapter, the commissioner may request the applicant to submit information regarding the applicant's financial qualifications.
E. As provided under part 4731.0580, certain applications for specific licenses filed under parts 4731.0525 to 4731.0630 must contain a proposed decommissioning funding plan or a certification of financial assurance for decommissioning.
F. Each application and statement must contain complete and accurate disclosure as to all matters and things required to be disclosed.
Subp. 2. Additional information.
The commissioner may, at any time after the filing of the original application and before the expiration of the license, require further statements to enable the commissioner to determine whether an application should be granted or denied or whether a license should be modified or revoked. All applications and statements must be signed by the applicant or licensee or a corporate officer thereof.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.0575 Application Approval Requirements
An application for a license under parts 4731.0525 to 4731.0630 shall be approved if the commissioner determines that:
A. the special nuclear material is to be used for the conduct of research or development activities of a type specified in parts 4731.3200 to 4731.3245, in activities licensed by the commissioner, or for such other uses as the commissioner determines to be appropriate to carry out the purposes of this chapter. Types of research and development activities specified in parts 4731.3200 to 4731.3245 are those relating to:
B. the applicant is qualified by reason of training and experience to use the material for the purpose requested according to this chapter;
C. the applicant's proposed equipment and facilities are adequate to protect health and minimize danger to life or property;
D. the applicant's proposed procedures to protect health and to minimize danger to life or property are adequate; and
E. where the nature of the proposed activities is such as to require consideration by the commissioner, the applicant appears to be financially qualified to engage in the proposed activities according to parts 4731.0525 to 4731.0630.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.0580 Application; Financial Assurance and Record Keeping for Decommissioning
Subpart 1. Requirements.
A. An applicant for a specific license authorizing possession and use of unsealed special nuclear material in quantities exceeding 105 times the applicable quantities under part 4731.3160 must submit a decommissioning funding plan according to subpart 4. A decommissioning funding plan must also be submitted when a combination of isotopes is involved if R divided by 105 is greater than 1 (unity rule), where R is the sum of the ratios of the quantity of each isotope to the applicable value in part 4731.3160.
B. An applicant for a specific license authorizing possession and use of unsealed special nuclear material in quantities specified in subpart 3 must:
C. If an applicant defers execution of the financial instrument until after the license has been issued, a signed original of the financial instrument obtained to satisfy the requirements of subpart 5 must be submitted to the commissioner before receipt of licensed material.
D. If the applicant does not defer execution of the financial instrument, the applicant must submit to the commissioner, as part of the certification, a signed original of the financial instrument obtained to satisfy the requirements of subpart 5.
Subp. 2. Financial assurance required.
A holder of a specific license described in subpart 1 must provide financial assurance for decommissioning according to the criteria set forth in this part.
Subp. 3. Financial assurance; amounts.
The following amounts of financial assurance are required for decommissioning by quantity of material:
Subp. 4. Funding plan requirements.
Each decommissioning funding plan must be submitted for review and approval and must contain:
A. a detailed cost estimate for decommissioning, in an amount reflecting:
B. identification of and justification for using the key assumptions contained in the DCE;
C. a description of the method of assuring funds for decommissioning from subpart 5, including the means for adjusting cost estimates and associated funding levels periodically over the life of the facility;
D. a certification by the licensee that financial assurance for decommissioning has been provided in the amount of the cost estimate for decommissioning; and
E. a signed original, or, if permitted, a copy, of the financial instrument obtained to satisfy the requirements of subpart 5, unless a previously submitted and accepted financial instrument continues to cover the cost estimate for decommissioning.
Subp. 4a. Resubmittal of decommissioning funding plan.
At the time of license renewal and at intervals not to exceed three years, the decommissioning funding plan must be resubmitted with adjustments as necessary to account for changes in costs and the extent of contamination. If the amount of financial assurance will be adjusted downward, this cannot be done until the updated decommissioning funding plan is approved. The decommissioning funding plan must update the information submitted with the original or prior approved plan, and must specifically consider the effect of the following events on decommissioning costs:
A. spills of radioactive material producing additional residual radioactivity in on-site subsurface material;
B. waste inventory increasing above the amount previously estimated;
C. waste disposal costs increasing above the amount previously estimated;
D. facility modifications;
E. changes in authorized possession limits;
F. actual remediation costs that exceed the previous cost estimate;
G. on-site disposal; and
H. use of a settling pond.
Subp. 5. Financial assurance requirements.
A. Financial assurance for decommissioning must be provided by one of the methods described in items B to F.
B. Prepayment is the deposit prior to the start of operation into an account segregated from licensee assets and outside the licensee's administrative control of cash or liquid assets such that the amount of funds would be sufficient to pay decommissioning costs. Prepayment may be in the form of a trust, escrow account, government fund, certificate of deposit, or deposit of government securities.
C. A surety method, insurance, or other guarantee method guarantees that decommissioning costs will be paid. A surety method may be in the form of a surety bond, letter of credit, or line of credit. A parent company guarantee of funds for decommissioning costs based on a financial test may be used if the guarantee and test comply with part 4731.3155, but may not be used in combination with other financial methods to satisfy the requirements of this part. For commercial corporations that issue bonds, a guarantee of funds by the applicant or licensee for decommissioning costs based on a financial test may be used if the guarantee and test comply with part 4731.3165. For commercial corporations that do not issue bonds, a guarantee of funds by the applicant or licensee for decommissioning costs may be used if the guarantee and test comply with part 4731.3170. For nonprofit entities, such as colleges, universities, and nonprofit hospitals, a guarantee of funds by the applicant or licensee may be used if the guarantee and test comply with part 4731.3175. A guarantee by the applicant or licensee may not be used in combination with other financial methods used to satisfy this part or in any situation where the applicant or licensee has a parent company holding majority control of the voting stock of the company. Any surety method or insurance used to provide financial assurance for decommissioning must:
D. An external sinking fund in which deposits are made at least annually, coupled with a surety method or insurance, the value of which may decrease by the amount being accumulated in the sinking fund, may be used as a method of financial assurance. The surety or insurance provisions must be as stated in item C. An external sinking fund:
E. In the case of federal, state, or local government licensees, a statement of intent containing a cost estimate for decommissioning or an amount according to subpart 3 and indicating that funds for decommissioning will be obtained when necessary may be used as a method of financial assurance.
F. When a governmental entity assumes custody and ownership of a site, an arrangement that is deemed acceptable by the governmental entity may be used as a method of financial assurance.
Subp. 6. Record keeping.
A licensee must keep records of information important to the decommissioning of a facility in an identified location until the site is released for unrestricted use. If records important to the decommissioning of a facility are kept for other purposes, reference to the records and their location may be used. Information the commissioner considers important to decommissioning includes:
A. records of spills or other unusual occurrences involving the spread of contamination in and around the facility, equipment, or site, which:
B. as-built drawings and modifications of structures and equipment in restricted areas where radioactive materials are used or stored and of locations of possible inaccessible contamination, such as buried pipes, that may be subject to contamination. If required drawings are referenced, each relevant document need not be indexed individually. If drawings are not available, the licensee must substitute appropriate records of available information concerning these areas and locations;
C. a list of the following, contained in a single document and updated every two years. Areas containing only sealed sources, if the sources have not leaked or no contamination remains after cleanup of any leak, need not be included:
D. records of:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 29 SR 755; 40 SR 145; 44 SR 239
Minn. R. 4731.0585 Issuance of Licenses
Subpart 1. Issuance.
Upon a determination that an application meets the requirements of this chapter, the commissioner shall issue a license in such form and containing such conditions and limitations as the commissioner deems appropriate or necessary to effectuate the purposes of this chapter.
Subp. 2. Denial.
The commissioner shall not issue a license to any person if the commissioner finds that the issuance of the license would be inimical to the common defense and security or would constitute an unreasonable risk to the health and safety of the public.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.0590 License Conditions
Subpart 1. Required conditions.
A specific license issued under parts 4731.0525 to 4731.0630 must contain and be subject to the following conditions:
A. no right to the special nuclear material shall be conferred by the license except as defined by the license;
B. neither the license nor any right under the license shall be assigned or otherwise transferred in violation of this chapter; and
C. the license is subject to and the licensee must observe, all applicable rules and orders of the commissioner.
Subp. 2. Bankruptcy.
A. A licensee under parts 4731.0525 to 4731.0630 must notify the commissioner, in writing, immediately following the filing of a voluntary or involuntary petition for bankruptcy under any chapter of United States Code, title 11, by or against:
B. The bankruptcy notification must indicate the bankruptcy court in which the petition for bankruptcy was filed and the date of the filing of the petition.
Subp. 3. Additional conditions.
The commissioner may incorporate in any license such additional conditions and requirements with respect to the licensee's ownership, receipt, possession, use, and transfer of special nuclear material as the commissioner deems appropriate or necessary to protect health or to minimize danger to life or property.
Subp. 4. Additional requirements.
The commissioner may require reports, record keeping, and inspections of activities under the license as may be necessary or appropriate to effectuate the purposes of this chapter.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 49 SR 1193
Minn. R. 4731.0595 License Renewal and Amendment
Subpart 1. Renewal application.
Applications for renewal of a license must be filed according to parts 4731.0565 and 4731.0570. Information contained in previous applications, statements, or reports filed with the commissioner under the license may be incorporated by reference, if the references are clear and specific.
Subp. 2. Extension; renewal pending.
If a licensee granted the extension under part 4731.0600, subpart 1, item B, has a currently pending renewal application for the extended license, the application is considered withdrawn by the licensee and any renewal fees paid by the licensee for the application shall be refunded.
Subp. 3. Amendment applications.
Applications for amendment of a license must be filed according to part 4731.0565, subpart 1, and must specify the respects in which the licensee desires the license to be amended and the grounds for the amendment.
Subp. 4. Consideration criteria.
In considering an application by a licensee to renew or amend a license, the commissioner shall apply the criteria under part 4731.0575.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.0597 Inalienability of Licenses
A. No license granted under parts 4731.0525 to 4731.0630 and no right to possess or utilize special nuclear material granted by a license issued under parts 4731.0525 to 4731.0630 shall be transferred, assigned, or in any manner disposed of, either voluntarily or involuntarily, directly or indirectly, through transfer of control of a license to a person unless the commissioner, after securing full information, finds that the transfer is in accordance with this chapter and gives consent in writing.
B. An application for transfer of license must include:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 29 SR 755; 40 SR 145
Minn. R. 4731.0600 License Expiration and Termination; Decommissioning
Subpart 1. Expiration.
A. A specific license issued under parts 4731.0525 to 4731.0630 expires at the end of the day on the expiration date stated in the license, unless the licensee has filed an application for renewal under part 4731.0595 not less than 30 days before the expiration date stated in the existing license.
B. If an application for renewal has been filed at least 30 days before the expiration date stated in the existing license, the existing license expires at the end of the day on which the commissioner makes a final determination to deny the renewal application or, if the determination states an expiration date, the expiration date stated in the determination.
Subp. 1a. Revocation.
A specific license revoked by the commissioner expires at the end of the day on the date of the commissioner's final determination to revoke the license, on the expiration date stated in the determination, or as otherwise provided by a commissioner's order.
Subp. 1b. Termination notice.
A specific license continues in effect, beyond the expiration date if necessary, with respect to possession of special nuclear material until the commissioner notifies the licensee in writing that the license is terminated. During this time, the licensee must:
A. limit actions involving special nuclear material to those related to decommissioning; and
B. continue to control entry to restricted areas until they are suitable for release according to this chapter.
Subp. 2. Decommissioning.
A. Within 60 days of any of the occurrences under item B, and consistent with the administrative directions under part 4731.0200, subpart 3, a licensee must provide notification to the commissioner in writing of such occurrence and:
B. Notice under item A is required when:
C. Coincident with the notification required under this subpart, the licensee must maintain in effect all decommissioning financial assurances established by the licensee under part 4731.0580 in conjunction with license issuance or renewal or as required under this part. The amount of the financial assurance must be increased, or may be decreased, as appropriate, to cover the detailed cost estimate for decommissioning established under item H, subitem (5). A licensee who has not provided financial assurance to cover the detailed cost estimate submitted with the decommissioning plan must do so when this chapter becomes effective. Following approval of the decommissioning plan, a licensee may reduce the amount of the financial assurance as decommissioning proceeds and radiological contamination is reduced at the site with the approval of the commissioner.
D. The commissioner may grant a request to delay or postpone initiation of the decommissioning process if the commissioner determines that this relief is not detrimental to the public health and safety and is otherwise in the public interest. The request must be submitted no later than 30 days before notification under this subpart. The schedule for decommissioning in this subpart may not commence until the commissioner has made a determination on the request.
E. A decommissioning plan must be submitted if:
F. The commissioner may approve an alternate schedule for submittal of a decommissioning plan required under this subpart if the commissioner determines that the alternative schedule is necessary to the effective conduct of decommissioning operations and presents no undue risk from the radiation to the public health and safety and is otherwise in the public interest.
G. The procedures under item E, subitem (2), may not be performed before approval of the decommissioning plan.
H. The proposed decommissioning plan for the site or separate building or outdoor area must include:
I. The commissioner shall approve a proposed decommissioning plan if the information in the plan demonstrates that the decommissioning will be completed as soon as practicable and that the health and safety of workers and the public will be adequately protected.
J. Except as provided in item K, a licensee must:
K. The commissioner may approve a request for an alternative schedule for completion of decommissioning of the site or separate building or outdoor area, and license termination if appropriate, if the commissioner determines that the alternative is warranted by consideration of:
L. As the final step in decommissioning, the licensee must:
M. Specific licenses, including expired licenses, shall be terminated by written notice to the licensee when the commissioner determines that:
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, 44 SR 239]
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 44 SR 239
Minn. R. 4731.0605 Specific License; Manufacture or Initial Transfer of Calibration or Reference Sources
Subpart 1. Manufacture or initial transfer of certain calibration sources.
An application for a specific license to manufacture or initially transfer calibration and reference sources containing plutonium for distribution to persons generally licensed under part 4731.0555 shall be approved if:
A. the applicant satisfies the general requirements of part 4731.0575;
B. the applicant submits sufficient information regarding each type of calibration or reference source pertinent to evaluation of the potential radiation exposure, including:
C. each source contains no more than five microcuries of plutonium;
D. the commissioner determines, with respect to any type of source containing more than 0.005 microcurie of plutonium that:
E. for any type of source that is designed to contain more than 0.005 microcurie of plutonium, the applicant has conducted prototype tests, in the order listed, on each of five prototypes of such source, which contains more than 0.005 microcurie of plutonium, as follows:
Subp. 2. Labeling.
A person licensed under this part must affix to each source or storage container for the source a label that:
A. contains sufficient information relative to safe use and storage of the source; and
B. includes the following statement or a substantially similar statement containing the information called for: "The receipt, possession, use, and transfer of this source, Model ..., Serial No. ..., are subject to a general license and the regulations of the Minnesota Department of Health, the Nuclear Regulatory Commission, or a state with which the Nuclear Regulatory Commission has entered into an agreement for the exercise of regulatory authority. Do not remove this label. CAUTION -- RADIOACTIVE MATERIAL -- THIS SOURCE CONTAINS PLUTONIUM. DO NOT TOUCH RADIOACTIVE PORTION OF THIS SOURCE. (Name of manufacturer or initial transferor)".
Subp. 3. Test before transfer.
A person licensed under this part must perform a dry wipe test upon each source containing more than 0.1 microcurie of plutonium before transferring the source to a general licensee under part 4731.0555. The test must be performed by wiping the entire radioactive surface of the source with a filter paper with the application of moderate finger pressure. The radioactivity on the paper must be measured by using radiation detection instrumentation capable of detecting 0.005 microcurie of plutonium. If the test discloses more than 0.005 microcurie of radioactive material, the source is deemed to be leaking or losing plutonium and must not be transferred to a general licensee under part 4731.0555.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.0610 Authorized Use of Special Nuclear Material
Subpart 1. Authority under license.
A licensee must confine the licensee's possession and use of special nuclear material to the locations and purposes authorized in the license. Except as otherwise provided in the license, a license issued under this chapter carries with it the right to receive title to, own, acquire, receive, possess, and use special nuclear material. Preparation for shipment and transport of special nuclear material must be according to parts 4731.0400 to 4731.0424.
Subp. 2. Material produced under license.
The possession, use, and transfer of any special nuclear material produced by a licensee, in connection with or as a result of use of special nuclear material received under the license, is subject to the provisions of the license and this chapter.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 32 SR 831; 44 SR 239
Minn. R. 4731.0615 Transfer of Special Nuclear Material
Subpart 1. Authorization required.
No licensee shall transfer special nuclear material except as authorized under this part.
Subp. 2. Approved transfer.
Except as otherwise provided in a license and subject to subpart 3, a licensee may transfer special nuclear material:
A. to the commissioner after approval from the commissioner;
B. to the United States Department of Energy;
C. to the agency in an agreement state that regulates radioactive material according to an agreement with the NRC, if the quantity transferred is not sufficient to form critical mass;
D. to a person exempt from this chapter to the extent permitted under the exemption;
E. to a person in an agreement state, subject to the jurisdiction of that state, who has been exempted from licensing requirements of that state, to the extent permitted under the exemption;
F. to a person authorized to receive such material under terms of a specific license or a general license or their equivalents issued by the commissioner, the NRC, an agreement state, or a licensing state; or
G. as otherwise authorized by the commissioner in writing.
Subp. 3. Verification for transfer.
A. Before transferring special nuclear material to a specific licensee of the commissioner, the NRC, an agreement state, or a licensing state or to a general licensee who is required to register with the commissioner, the NRC, an agreement state, or a licensing state before receipt of the special nuclear material, the licensee transferring radioactive material must verify that the transferee's license authorizes the receipt of the type, form, and quantity of special nuclear material to be transferred.
B. Any of the following methods of verification are acceptable:
Subp. 4. Other sources of information.
The transferor may obtain other information compiled by a reporting service from official records of the commissioner, the NRC, or the licensing agency of an agreement state regarding the identity of licensees or registrants and the scope and expiration dates of the licenses and registrations. The transferor must retain the compilation of information as a record for three years from the date that it was obtained.
Subp. 5. Confirmation.
The transferor may obtain and record confirmation from the commissioner, the NRC, or the licensing agency of an agreement state or licensing state that the transferee is licensed to receive the special nuclear material:
A. when none of the methods of verification described in subparts 3 and 4 are readily available; or
B. when a transferor desires to verify that information received by one of the verification methods is correct or up-to-date. The transferor must retain the record of confirmation for three years from the date the record is made.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.0620 Reporting Requirements
Subpart 1. Immediate notification required.
A licensee must notify the commissioner as soon as possible but not later than four hours after the discovery of an event that prevents immediate protective actions necessary to avoid exposures to radiation and radioactive materials that could exceed regulatory limits or releases of licensed material that could exceed regulatory limits. Reportable events under this subpart include fires, explosions, toxic gas release, or similar hazards.
Subp. 2. 24-hour notification required.
A licensee must notify the commissioner within 24 hours after discovery of any of the following events involving licensed material:
A. an unplanned contamination event that:
B. an event in which equipment is disabled or fails to function as designed when:
C. an event that requires unplanned medical treatment at a medical facility of an individual with spreadable radioactive contamination on the individual's clothing or body; or
D. an unplanned fire or explosion that damages any licensed material or any device, container, or equipment containing licensed materials when:
Subp. 3. Preparation and submission of reports.
A. A licensee must make reports required under subparts 1 and 2 by telephone to the commissioner according to part 4731.0200, subpart 5. To the extent that the information is available at the time of notification, the information provided in the report must include:
B. A licensee that makes a report required under subpart 1 or 2 must submit a written follow-up report within 30 days of the initial notification. Written reports prepared as required by other rules may be submitted to fulfill this requirement if the reports contain all of the necessary information. The written reports must be sent to the commissioner. The reports must include:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 44 SR 239
Minn. R. 4731.0625 Record Transfer Requirements
Subpart 1. Transfer to commissioner.
Prior to license termination, a licensee authorized to possess radioactive materials must forward the following records to the commissioner:
A. records of disposal of licensed material made under parts 4731.2410 to 4731.2440;
B. records required under part 4731.2510; and
C. records required under part 4731.0580.
Subp. 2. Transfer to new licensee.
If licensed activities are transferred or assigned according to part 4731.0597, the licensee must transfer the following records to the new licensee and the new licensee is responsible for maintaining the records until the license is terminated:
A. records of disposal of licensed material made under parts 4731.2410 to 4731.2440;
B. records required under part 4731.2510; and
C. records required under part 4731.0580.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.0630 Inspections and Tests
Subpart 1. Material and premises inspection.
A licensee must afford to the commissioner at all reasonable times opportunity to inspect special nuclear material and the premises and facilities wherein special nuclear material is used, produced, or stored.
Subp. 2. Record inspection.
A licensee must make available to the commissioner for inspection, upon reasonable notice, records kept by the licensee pertaining to the licensee's receipt, possession, use, acquisition, import, export, or transfer of special nuclear material.
Subp. 3. Testing.
A licensee must perform, or permit the commissioner to perform, such tests as the commissioner deems appropriate or necessary for the administration of parts 4731.0525 to 4731.0630, including tests of:
A. special nuclear material;
B. facilities wherein special nuclear material is utilized, produced, or stored;
C. radiation detection and monitoring instruments; and
D. other equipment and devices used in connection with the production, utilization, or storage of special nuclear material.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.0700 Purpose and Scope
Subpart 1. Scope.
The purpose of parts 4731.0700 to 4731.0840 is to establish procedures and criteria for the issuance of licenses to receive title to, receive, possess, use, transfer, or deliver source and by-product materials and establish and provide for the terms and conditions upon which the commissioner will issue such licenses. Parts 4731.0700 to 4731.0840 also provide for the disposal of by-product material and for the long-term care and custody of by-product material and residual radioactive material.
Subp. 2. Applicability; enforcement notice.
Except as provided in parts 4731.0715 to 4731.0730, parts 4731.0700 to 4731.0840 apply to all persons in the area in which the Department of Health maintains jurisdiction. Parts 4731.0700 to 4731.0840 give notice to all persons who knowingly provide to any licensee, applicant, contractor, or subcontractor, components, equipment, materials, or other goods or services that relate to a licensee's or applicant's activities subject to parts 4731.0700 to 4731.0840 that they may be individually subject to the commissioner's enforcement action for violation of part 4731.0260, subpart 3.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.0705 Inactive Tailings Sites
The NRC regulates by-product material that is located at a site where milling operations are no longer active, if the site is not covered by the remedial action program of title I of the Uranium Mill Tailings Radiation Control Act of 1978, Public Law 95-604. Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, part 40, Appendix A, applies to such sites.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.0710 License Requirement
A person subject to parts 4731.0700 to 4731.0840 may not receive title to, own, receive, possess, use, transfer, provide for long-term care, deliver, or dispose of any source material after removal from its place of deposit in nature, unless authorized in a specific or general license issued by the commissioner under parts 4731.0700 to 4731.0840.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.0715 Exemption; Use of Source Material Under Certain Federal Contracts
A. Except to the extent that United States Department of Energy (DOE) facilities or activities of the types subject to licensing under United States Code, title 42, section 5842, the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, or the Uranium Mill Tailings Radiation Control Act of 1978, Public Law 95-604, are involved, a prime contractor of the DOE is exempt from parts 4731.0700 to 4731.0840 to the extent that the contractor, under the prime contract with the DOE, receives, possesses, uses, transfers, or delivers source material for:
B. In addition to the exemptions under item A, and subject to the requirement for licensing of DOE facilities and activities under the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974 or the Uranium Mill Tailings Radiation Control Act of 1980, a prime contractor or subcontractor of the DOE or the NRC is exempt from parts 4731.0700 to 4731.0840 to the extent that:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.0720 Exemption; Carriers
Common and contract carriers, freight forwarders, warehousers, and the United States Postal Service are exempt from parts 4731.0700 to 4731.0840, to the extent that they transport or store source material in the regular course of the carriage for another or storage incident thereto.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.0725 Exemption; Unimportant Quantities of Source Material
Subpart 1. Low percentage source material.
A person is exempt from parts 4731.0700 to 4731.0840 to the extent that the person receives, possesses, uses, transfers, or delivers source material in any chemical mixture, compound, solution, or alloy in which the source material is by weight less than 1/20 of one percent (0.05%) of the mixture, compound, solution, or alloy.
Subp. 2. Ores containing source material.
A person is exempt from parts 4731.0700 to 4731.0840 to the extent that the person receives, possesses, uses, or transfers unrefined and unprocessed ore containing source material, provided that, except as authorized in a specific license, the person does not refine or process the ore.
Subp. 3. Certain items and materials.
A. A person is exempt from parts 4731.0700 to 4731.2950 to the extent that the person receives, possesses, uses, or transfers:
B. The exemptions in this subpart do not authorize the manufacture of any of the products described.
C. No person may initially transfer for sale or distribution a product containing source material to persons exempt under this subpart, or equivalent regulations of the NRC or an agreement state, unless authorized by a license issued under Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, section 40.52, to initially transfer such products for sale or distribution.
Subp. 4.
[Repealed, 40 SR 145]
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 29 SR 755; 40 SR 145
Minn. R. 4731.0730 Other Exemptions
A. The commissioner may, upon application of any interested person or upon the commissioner's own initiative, grant exemptions from parts 4731.0700 to 4731.0840 as the commissioner determines are authorized by law and will not endanger life or property and are otherwise in the public interest.
B. The United States Department of Energy is exempt from parts 4731.0700 to 4731.0840.
C. Except as specifically provided in Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, part 61, a licensee is exempt from parts 4731.0700 to 4731.0840 to the extent that the licensee's activities are subject to Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, part 61.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.0735 Types of Licenses
A. Licenses for radioactive material are of two types: general and specific.
B. Licenses for long-term care and custody of residual radioactive material at disposal sites are general licenses. The general licenses provided under parts 4731.0700 to 4731.0840 are effective without the filing of applications with the commissioner or the issuance of licensing documents to particular persons.
C. Licenses issued to named persons upon applications filed according to parts 4731.0700 to 4731.0840 are specific licenses.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.0740 General License; Title to Source or Radioactive Material
A general license is issued authorizing the receipt of title to source or radioactive material without regard to quantity. This general license does not authorize any person to receive, possess, deliver, use, or transfer source or radioactive material.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.0745 General License; Small Quantities of Source Material
Subpart 1. General license issued.
A general license is issued authorizing commercial and industrial firms; research, educational, and medical institutions; and state and local government agencies to receive, possess, use, and transfer uranium and thorium, in their natural isotopic concentrations and in the form of depleted uranium, for research, development, educational, commercial, or operational purposes in the following forms and quantities:
A. no more than 1.5 kg (3.3 lb) of uranium and thorium in dispersible forms, for example gaseous, liquid, or powder, at any one time. Any material processed by the general licensee that alters the chemical or physical form of the material containing source material must be accounted for as a dispersible form. A person authorized to possess, use, and transfer source material under this item may not receive more than a total of 7 kg (15.4 lb) of uranium and thorium in any one calendar year. Persons possessing source material in excess of these limits as of December 31, 2014, may continue to possess up to 7 kg (15.4 lb) of uranium and thorium at any one time for one year beyond this date, or until the commissioner takes final action on a pending application submitted on or before December 31, 2015, for a specific license for such material and receive up to 70 kg (154 lb) of uranium or thorium in any one calendar year until December 31, 2015, or until the commissioner takes final action on a pending application submitted on or before December 31, 2015, for a specific license for such material; and
B. no more than a total of 7 kg (15.4 lb) of uranium and thorium at any one time. A person authorized to possess, use, and transfer source material under this item may not receive more than a total of 70 kg (154 lb) of uranium and thorium in any one calendar year. A person may not alter the chemical or physical form of the source material possessed under this item unless it is accounted for under the limits of item A; or
C. no more than 7 kg (15.4 lb) of uranium, removed during the treatment of drinking water, at any one time. A person may not remove more than 70 kg (154 lb) of uranium from drinking water during a calendar year under this item; or
D. no more than 7 kg (15.4 lb) of uranium and thorium at laboratories for the purpose of determining the concentration of uranium and thorium contained within the material being analyzed at any one time. A person authorized to possess, use, and transfer source material under this item may not receive more than a total of 70 kg (154 lb) of source material in any one calendar year.
Subp. 2. Other law.
A person who receives, possesses, uses, or transfers source material under the general license issued under subpart 1:
A. is prohibited from administering source material, or the radiation therefrom, either externally or internally, to human beings except as authorized by the commissioner in a specific license;
B. must not abandon the source material. Source material may be disposed of as follows:
C. is subject to the provisions in parts 4731.0700 to 4731.0710, 4731.0785, and 4731.0810 to 4731.0840;
D. must respond to written requests from the commissioner to provide information relating to the general license within 30 calendar days of the date of the request, or other time specified in the request. If the person cannot provide the requested information within the allotted time, the person must, within that same time period, request a longer period to supply the information by providing the commissioner a written justification for the request; and
E. must not export such source material except in accordance with Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, section 110.
Subp. 2a. Contamination.
Any person who receives, possesses, uses, or transfers source material in accordance with subpart 1 must conduct activities to minimize contamination of the facility and the environment. When activities involving source material are permanently ceased at any site, if evidence of significant contamination is identified, the general licensee must notify the commissioner about the contamination and may consult with the commissioner as to the appropriateness of sampling and restoration activities to ensure that any contamination or residual source material remaining at the site where source material was used under this general license is not likely to result in exposures that exceed the limits in part 4731.2100.
Subp. 3. Exemption.
A person who receives, possesses, uses, or transfers source material under the general license issued under subpart 1 is exempt from the provisions of parts 4731.1000 to 4731.2950 to the extent that receipt, possession, use, and transfer are within the terms of this general license, except that the person must comply with the provisions of parts 4731.2100, subpart 1, and 4731.2400 to the extent necessary to meet the provisions of subparts 2, item B, and 3. However, this exemption does not apply to any person who also holds a specific license issued under this chapter.
Subp. 4. Transfer authorization required.
No person may initially transfer or distribute source material to persons generally licensed under subpart 1, item A or B, or equivalent regulations of the NRC or an agreement state, unless authorized by a specific license issued in accordance with part 4731.0816 or equivalent provisions of the NRC or an agreement state. This prohibition does not apply to analytical laboratories returning processed samples to the client who initially provided the sample. Initial distribution of source material to persons generally licensed by subpart 1 before December 31, 2014, without specific authorization may continue for one year beyond this date. Distribution may also be continued until the commissioner takes final action on a pending application for license or license amendment to specifically authorize distribution submitted on or before December 31, 2014.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 29 SR 755; 40 SR 145
Minn. R. 4731.0750 General License; Use of Certain Industrial Products or Devices
Subpart 1. General license issued.
A general license is issued to receive, acquire, possess, use, or transfer, according to this part, depleted uranium contained in industrial products or devices for the purpose of providing a concentrated mass in a small volume of the product or device.
Subp. 2. Scope.
The general license issued under subpart 1 applies only to industrial products or devices that have been manufactured or initially transferred according to a specific license issued under part 4731.0770 or according to a specific license issued by the NRC or an agreement state that authorizes manufacture of the products or devices for distribution to persons generally licensed by the NRC or an agreement state.
Subp. 3. Registration certificate.
A. A person who receives, acquires, possesses, or uses depleted uranium under the general license issued under subpart 1 must submit to the commissioner a form for a registration certificate for use of depleted uranium under a general license, as prescribed by the commissioner. The form must be submitted within 30 days after the first receipt or acquisition of the depleted uranium.
B. A registrant must furnish the following information on the form and any other information as may be prescribed by the commissioner:
C. A registrant possessing or using depleted uranium under the general license issued under subpart 1 must report in writing to the commissioner any changes in information furnished by the registrant under item B. The report must be submitted within 30 days after the effective date of the change.
Subp. 4. License requirements.
A. A person who receives, acquires, possesses, or uses depleted uranium under the general license issued in subpart 1:
B. A person receiving, acquiring, possessing, using, or transferring depleted uranium under the general license issued under subpart 1 is exempt from parts 4731.1000 to 4731.2950 with respect to the depleted uranium covered by the general license.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.0760 Specific License; Application
Subpart 1. Application generally.
A. An application for a specific license must be filed on an application for radioactive material license form prescribed by the commissioner.
B. Applications and statements must be signed by the applicant or licensee or a person duly authorized to act for and on behalf of the applicant or licensee.
C. The commissioner may at any time after the filing of the original application, and before the expiration of the license, require further statements to enable the commissioner to determine whether the application should be granted or denied or whether a license should be modified or revoked.
D. An application for a source material license must be accompanied by the fee prescribed under Minnesota Statutes, section 144.1205.
Subp. 2. Decommissioning requirements.
As provided under part 4731.0780, certain applications for specific licenses filed under this part must contain a proposed decommissioning funding plan or a certification of financial assurance for decommissioning.
Subp. 3. Additional requirements; uranium hexafluoride.
A. An application to possess uranium hexafluoride in excess of 50 kilograms in a single container or 1,000 kilograms total must contain:
B. One or more of the following factors may be used to support an evaluation submitted under item A, subitem (1):
C. An emergency plan submitted under item A, subitem (2), must include:
Subp. 4. Comments.
A licensee must:
A. allow the off-site response organizations expected to respond in case of an accident 60 days to comment on the licensee's emergency plan before submitting it to the commissioner; and
B. provide any comments received within the 60 days to the commissioner along with the emergency plan.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 44 SR 239
Minn. R. 4731.0765 Specific License; Approval
The commissioner shall approve an application for a specific license if:
A. the application is for a purpose authorized under this chapter;
B. the applicant is qualified by reason of training and experience according to this chapter to use the source material for the purpose requested in such manner as to protect health and minimize danger to life and property;
C. the applicant's proposed equipment, facilities, and procedures are in accordance with this chapter and are adequate to protect health and minimize danger to life and property; and
D. the applicant satisfies any applicable special requirements under part 4731.0770.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.0770 Specific License; Certain Industrial Products and Devices
Subpart 1. License requirements.
An application for a specific license to manufacture industrial products and devices containing depleted uranium or to initially transfer such products and devices, for use according to part 4731.0750 or equivalent regulations of the NRC or an agreement state, shall be approved if the applicant:
A. satisfies the general requirements under part 4731.0765;
B. submits sufficient information relating to the design, manufacture, prototype testing, quality control procedures, labeling or marking, proposed uses, and potential hazards of the industrial product or device to provide reasonable assurance that possession, use, or transfer of the depleted uranium in the product or device is not likely to cause any individual to receive in one year a radiation dose in excess of ten percent of the annual limits specified in part 4731.2020, subpart 1; and
C. submits sufficient information regarding the industrial product or device and the presence of depleted uranium for a mass-volume application in the product or device to provide reasonable assurance that unique benefits will accrue to the public because of the usefulness of the product or device.
Subp. 2. Questionable benefits.
In the case of an industrial product or device whose unique benefits are questionable, the commissioner shall approve an application for a specific license under this part only if the product or device is found to combine a high degree of utility and low probability of uncontrolled disposal and dispersal of significant quantities of depleted uranium into the environment.
Subp. 3. End uses unforeseeable.
The commissioner may deny an application for a specific license under this part if the end uses of the industrial product or device cannot be reasonably foreseen.
Subp. 4. License conditions.
A person licensed under this part must:
A. maintain the level of quality control required by the license in the manufacture of the industrial product or device and in the installation of the depleted uranium into the product or device;
B. label or mark each unit to:
C. ensure that the depleted uranium, before being installed in each product or device, has been impressed with the following legend clearly legible through any plating or other covering: "Depleted Uranium";
D. furnish a copy of:
E. report to the commissioner all transfers of industrial products or devices to persons for use under the general license issued under part 4731.0750. The report must be submitted within 30 days after the end of each calendar quarter in which the product or device is transferred to a generally licensed person. If no transfers have been made to a person generally licensed under part 4731.0750 during the reporting period, the report must so indicate. The report must identify:
Subp. 5. Record keeping.
A licensee must keep records for three years from the date of transfer showing:
A. the name, address, and point of contact for each general licensee to whom the licensee transfers depleted uranium in industrial products or devices for use according to the general license issued under part 4731.0750 or equivalent regulations of the NRC or an agreement state;
B. the date of each transfer;
C. the quantity of depleted uranium in each product or device transferred; and
D. compliance with the report requirements of this part.
Subp. 6. Emergency plan.
A licensee that is required to submit an emergency plan under part 4731.0760 must follow the emergency plan approved by the commissioner. The licensee:
A. may change the plan without commissioner approval if the changes do not decrease the effectiveness of the plan;
B. must furnish the change to the commissioner within six months after the change is made; and
C. may not implement proposed changes that decrease the effectiveness of the approved emergency plan without prior application to and prior approval by the commissioner.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.0780 Financial Assurance and Record Keeping for Decommissioning
Subpart 1. Applicability.
This part establishes criteria for providing financial assurance for decommissioning, except for licenses authorizing the receipt, possession, and use of source material for uranium or thorium milling or radioactive material at sites formerly associated with such milling, for which financial assurance requirements are set forth in part 4731.0580.
Subp. 2. More than 100 mCi.
An applicant for a specific license authorizing the possession and use of more than 100 millicuries (3.7 GBq) of source material in a readily dispersible form must submit a decommissioning funding plan according to subpart 4.
Subp. 3. Between ten mCi and 100 mCi.
A. An applicant for a specific license authorizing possession and use of quantities of source material greater than ten millicuries (370 MBq) but less than or equal to 100 millicuries (3.7 GBq) in a readily dispersible form must:
B. If an applicant defers execution of the financial instrument until after the license has been issued, a signed original of the financial instrument obtained to satisfy the requirements of subpart 5 must be submitted to the commissioner before receipt of licensed material.
C. If an applicant does not defer execution of the financial instrument, the applicant must submit to the commissioner, as part of the certification, a signed original of the financial instrument obtained to satisfy the requirements of subpart 5.
D. A holder of a specific license:
Subp. 4. Funding plan requirements.
A. Each decommissioning funding plan must be submitted for review and approval and must contain:
B. At the time of license renewal and at intervals not to exceed three years, the decommissioning funding plan must be resubmitted with adjustments as necessary to account for changes in costs and the extent of contamination. If the amount of financial assurance will be adjusted downward, this cannot be done until the updated decommissioning funding plan is approved. The decommissioning funding plan must update the information submitted with the original or prior approved plan, and must specifically consider the effect of the following events on decommissioning costs:
Subp. 5. Financial assurance requirements.
A. Financial assurance for decommissioning must be provided by one of the methods described in items B to F.
B. Prepayment is the deposit prior to the start of operation into an account segregated from licensee assets and outside the licensee's administrative control of cash or liquid assets such that the amount of funds would be sufficient to pay decommissioning costs. Prepayment may be in the form of a trust, escrow account, government fund, certificate of deposit, or deposit of government securities.
C. A surety method, insurance, or other guarantee method guarantees that decommissioning costs will be paid. A surety method may be in the form of a surety bond, letter of credit, or line of credit. A parent company guarantee of funds for decommissioning costs based on a financial test may be used if the guarantee and test comply with part 4731.3155, but may not be used in combination with other financial methods to satisfy the requirements of this part. For commercial corporations that issue bonds, a guarantee of funds by the applicant or licensee for decommissioning costs based on a financial test may be used if the guarantee and test comply with part 4731.3165. For commercial corporations that do not issue bonds, a guarantee of funds by the applicant or licensee for decommissioning costs may be used if the guarantee and test comply with part 4731.3170. For nonprofit entities, such as colleges, universities, and nonprofit hospitals, a guarantee of funds by the applicant or licensee may be used if the guarantee and test comply with part 4731.3175. A guarantee by the applicant or licensee may not be used in combination with other financial methods used to satisfy this part or in any situation where the applicant or licensee has a parent company holding majority control of the voting stock of the company. Any surety method or insurance used to provide financial assurance for decommissioning must:
D. An external sinking fund in which deposits are made at least annually, coupled with a surety method or insurance, the value of which may decrease by the amount being accumulated in the sinking fund, may be used as a method of financial assurance. The surety or insurance provisions must be as stated in item C. An external sinking fund:
E. In the case of federal, state, or local government licensees, a statement of intent containing a cost estimate for decommissioning or an amount according to subpart 3 and indicating that funds for decommissioning will be obtained when necessary may be used as a method of financial assurance.
F. When a governmental entity assumes custody and ownership of a site, an arrangement that is deemed acceptable by the governmental entity may be used as a method of financial assurance.
Subp. 6. Record keeping.
A. A licensee must keep records of information important to the decommissioning of a facility in an identified location until the site is released for unrestricted use.
B. Before licensed activities are transferred or assigned according to part 4731.0785, subpart 1, item A, a licensee must transfer all records described in this subpart to the new licensee. The new licensee is responsible for maintaining the records until the license is terminated.
C. If records important to the decommissioning of a facility are kept for other purposes, reference to the records and their location may be used.
D. Information the commissioner considers important to decommissioning are:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 29 SR 755; 32 SR 831; 40 SR 145
Minn. R. 4731.0785 License Conditions
Subpart 1. Required conditions.
A specific license issued under parts 4731.0700 to 4731.0840 must contain and be subject to the following conditions:
A. neither the license nor any right under the license shall be assigned or otherwise transferred in violation of this chapter; and
B. the license is subject to and the licensee must observe, all applicable rules and orders of the commissioner.
Subp. 2. Scope of license.
A person licensed by the commissioner under parts 4731.0700 to 4731.0840 must confine the licensee's possession and use of radioactive material to the locations and purposes authorized in the license. Except as otherwise provided in the license, a license issued under parts 4731.0700 to 4731.0840 carries with it the right to receive, possess, and use radioactive material. Preparation for shipment and transport of radioactive material must be according to this chapter.
Subp. 3. Bankruptcy.
A. A licensee under parts 4731.0700 to 4731.0840 must notify the commissioner, in writing, immediately following the filing of a voluntary or involuntary petition for bankruptcy under any chapter of United States Code, title 11, by or against:
B. The bankruptcy notification must indicate the bankruptcy court in which the petition for bankruptcy was filed and the date of the filing of the petition.
Subp. 4. Additional conditions.
The commissioner may incorporate in any license, at the time of issuance or thereafter by appropriate rule or order, such additional conditions and requirements with respect to the licensee's receipt, possession, use, and transfer of source or radioactive material as the commissioner deems appropriate or necessary to protect health or to minimize danger to life or property.
Subp. 5. Additional requirements.
The commissioner may require reports, record keeping, and inspections of activities under the license as may be necessary or appropriate to effectuate the purposes of this chapter.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.0790 License Expiration and Termination; Decommissioning
Subpart 1. Expiration.
A. A specific license issued under parts 4731.0700 to 4731.0840 expires at the end of the day on the expiration date stated in the license, unless the licensee has filed an application for renewal under part 4731.0795 not less than 30 days before the expiration date stated in the existing license.
B. If an application for renewal has been filed at least 30 days before the expiration date stated in the existing license, the existing license expires at the end of the day on which the commissioner makes a final determination to deny the renewal application or, if the determination states an expiration date, the expiration date stated in the determination.
Subp. 2. Revocation.
A specific license revoked by the commissioner expires at the end of the day on the date of the commissioner's final determination to revoke the license, on the expiration date stated in the determination, or as otherwise provided by a commissioner's order.
Subp. 3. Termination notice.
A specific license continues in effect, beyond the expiration date if necessary, with respect to possession of source material, until the commissioner notifies the licensee in writing that the license is terminated. During this time, the licensee must:
A. limit actions involving source material to those related to decommissioning; and
B. continue to control entry to restricted areas until they are suitable for release according to this chapter.
Subp. 4. Decommissioning.
A. Within 60 days of any of the occurrences under item B, a licensee must provide notification to the commissioner in writing of such occurrence and:
B. Notice under item A is required when:
C. Coincident with the notification required under item A, the licensee must maintain in effect all decommissioning financial assurances established by the licensee under part 4731.0780 in conjunction with license issuance or renewal or as required under this part. The amount of the financial assurance must be increased, or may be decreased, as appropriate, to cover the detailed cost estimate for decommissioning established under item H, subitem (5). Following approval of the decommissioning plan, a licensee may reduce the amount of the financial assurance as decommissioning proceeds and radiological contamination is reduced at the site with the approval of the commissioner.
D. The commissioner may grant a request to delay or postpone initiation of the decommissioning process if the commissioner determines that this relief is not detrimental to the public health and safety and is otherwise in the public interest. The request must be submitted no later than 30 days before notification under item A. The schedule for decommissioning in this subpart may not commence until the commissioner has made a determination on the request.
E. A decommissioning plan must be submitted if:
F. The commissioner may approve an alternate schedule for submittal of a decommissioning plan required under this subpart if the commissioner determines that the alternative schedule is necessary to the effective conduct of decommissioning operations and presents no undue risk from the radiation to the public health and safety and is otherwise in the public interest.
G. The procedures under item E, subitem (2), may not be performed before approval of the decommissioning plan.
H. The proposed decommissioning plan for the site or separate building or outdoor area must include:
I. The commissioner shall approve a proposed decommissioning plan if the information in the plan demonstrates that the decommissioning will be completed as soon as practicable and that the health and safety of workers and the public will be adequately protected.
J. Except as provided in item K, a licensee must:
K. The commissioner may approve a request for an alternative schedule for completion of decommissioning of the site or separate building or outdoor area, and license termination if appropriate, if the commissioner determines that the alternative is warranted by consideration of:
L. As the final step in decommissioning, the licensee must:
M. Specific licenses, including expired licenses, shall be terminated by written notice to the licensee when the commissioner determines that:
Subp. 5. Exemptions.
Specific licenses for uranium and thorium milling are exempt from subpart 4, items B, subitem (4), and D to I, with respect to reclamation of tailings impoundments and waste disposal areas.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 44 SR 239
Minn. R. 4731.0795 License Renewal and Amendment
Subpart 1. Renewal application.
Applications for renewal of a specific license must be filed on an application for radioactive material license form, as prescribed by the commissioner, according to part 4731.0760.
Subp. 2. Amendment applications.
Applications for amendment of a license must be filed on an application for radioactive material license form, as prescribed by the commissioner, according to part 4731.0760 and must specify the respects in which the licensee desires the license to be amended and the grounds for the amendment.
Subp. 3. Consideration criteria.
In considering an application by a licensee to renew or amend a license, the commissioner shall apply the criteria under part 4731.0765.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.0810 Inalienability of Licenses
A. No license issued or granted under parts 4731.0700 to 4731.0840 shall be transferred, assigned, or in any manner disposed of, either voluntarily or involuntarily, directly or indirectly, through transfer of control of a license to a person unless the commissioner, after securing full information, finds that the transfer is in accordance with this chapter and gives consent in writing.
B. An application for transfer of license must include:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 29 SR 755; 40 SR 145
Minn. R. 4731.0815 Transfer of Radioactive Material
Subpart 1. Authorization required.
No licensee shall transfer radioactive material except as authorized under this part.
Subp. 2. Approved transfer.
Except as otherwise provided in a license and subject to subpart 3, a licensee may transfer radioactive material:
A. to the United States Department of Energy;
B. to the agency in an agreement state that regulates radioactive material;
C. to a person exempt from parts 4731.0700 to 4731.0840, to the extent permitted under the exemption;
D. to a person in an agreement state, subject to the jurisdiction of that state, who has been exempted from licensing requirements of that state, to the extent permitted under the exemption;
E. to a person authorized to receive radioactive material under terms of a specific license or a general license or their equivalents issued by the commissioner, the NRC, or an agreement state; or
F. as otherwise authorized by the commissioner in writing.
Subp. 3. Verification for transfer.
A. Before transferring radioactive material to a specific licensee of the commissioner, the NRC, an agreement state, or a licensing state or to a general licensee who is required to register with the commissioner, the NRC, an agreement state, or a licensing state before receipt of the radioactive material, the licensee transferring radioactive material must verify that the transferee's license authorizes the receipt of the type, form, and quantity of radioactive material to be transferred.
B. Any of the following methods of verification are acceptable:
Subp. 4. Other sources of information.
The transferor may obtain other information compiled by a reporting service from official records of the commissioner, the NRC, or the licensing agency of an agreement state or licensing state regarding the identity of licensees or registrants and the scope and expiration dates of the licenses and registrations, to verify that the transferee is licensed or registered to receive the radioactive material.
Subp. 5. Confirmation.
The transferor may obtain and record confirmation from the commissioner, the NRC, or the licensing agency of an agreement state or licensing state that the transferee is licensed to receive the radioactive material:
A. when none of the methods of verification described in subparts 3 and 4 are readily available; or
B. when a transferor desires to verify that information received by one of the verification methods is correct or up-to-date.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.0816 License to Transfer Source Material
An application for a specific license to initially transfer source material for use under part 4731.0745 or equivalent regulations of the NRC or an agreement state shall be approved if:
A. the applicant satisfies the general requirements specified in part 4731.0765; and
B. the applicant submits adequate information on, and the commission approves, the methods to be used for quality control, labeling, and providing safety instructions to recipients.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 40 SR 145
Minn. R. 4731.0817 Requirements for Labeling Source Material; Instructions
Subpart 1. Label required.
Each person licensed under part 4731.0816 must label the immediate container of each quantity of source material with the type of source material and quantity of material and the words "radioactive material."
Subp. 2. Transfer records.
Each person licensed under part 4731.0816 must ensure that the quantities and concentrations of source material are as labeled and indicated in any transfer records.
Subp. 3. Transfer information.
A person licensed under part 4731.0816 must provide the information specified in this subpart to each person to whom source material is transferred for use under part 4731.0745 or equivalent regulations of the NRC or an agreement state. This information must be transferred before the source material is transferred for the first time in each calendar year to the particular recipient. The required information includes:
A. a copy of parts 4731.0745 and 4731.0815 or equivalent regulations of the NRC or an agreement state; and
B. appropriate radiation safety precautions and instructions relating to handling, use, storage, and disposal of the material.
Subp. 4. Transfer report.
Each person licensed under part 4731.0816 must report transfers as follows:
A. file a report with the commissioner. The report must include the following information:
B. file a report with the commissioner, NRC, and each responsible agreement state agency that identifies all persons operating under provisions equivalent to part 4731.0745 to whom greater than 50 grams (0.11 lb) of source material has been transferred within a single calendar quarter. The report must include the following information specific to those transfers made to the agreement state being reported to:
C. submit each report by January 31 of each year covering all transfers for the previous calendar year. If no transfers were made to persons generally licensed under part 4731.0745 or equivalent NRC or agreement state regulations during the current period, a report must be submitted to the commissioner indicating so. If no transfers have been made to general licensees in NRC jurisdiction or a particular agreement state during the reporting period, this information must be reported to the NRC or responsible agreement state agency upon request of the agency.
Subp. 5. Records retention.
Each person licensed under part 4731.0816 must maintain all information that supports the reports required by this part concerning each transfer to a general licensee for a period of one year after the event is included in a report to the commissioner or to the NRC or an agreement state agency.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 40 SR 145
Minn. R. 4731.0820 Reporting Requirements
Subpart 1. Immediate notification required.
A licensee must notify the commissioner as soon as possible but not later than four hours after the discovery of an event that prevents immediate protective actions necessary to avoid exposures to radiation or radioactive materials that could exceed regulatory limits or releases of licensed material that could exceed regulatory limits. Reportable events under this subpart include fires, explosions, toxic gas release, or similar hazards.
Subp. 2. 24-hour notification required.
A licensee must notify the commissioner within 24 hours after discovery of any of the following events involving licensed material:
A. an unplanned contamination event that:
B. an event in which equipment is disabled or fails to function as designed when:
C. an event that requires unplanned medical treatment at a medical facility of an individual with spreadable radioactive contamination on the individual's clothing or body; or
D. an unplanned fire or explosion that damages any licensed material or any device, container, or equipment containing licensed materials when:
Subp. 3. Preparation and submission of reports.
A. A licensee must make reports required under subparts 1 and 2 by telephone to the commissioner according to part 4731.0200, subpart 5. To the extent that the information is available at the time of notification, the information provided in the report must include:
B. A licensee that makes a report required under subpart 1 or 2 must submit a written follow-up report within 30 days of the initial notification. Written reports prepared as required by other rules may be submitted to fulfill this requirement if the reports contain all of the necessary information and the appropriate distribution is made. The written reports must be sent to the commissioner. The reports must include:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 44 SR 239
Minn. R. 4731.0825 Records
Subpart 1. Requirements.
A. A person who receives radioactive material pursuant to a license issued under parts 4731.0700 to 4731.0840 must keep records showing the receipt, transfer, and disposal of the radioactive material according to this subpart.
B. A licensee must retain each record of receipt of radioactive material as long as the material is possessed and for three years following transfer or disposition of the source or radioactive material.
C. A licensee who transferred the material must retain each record of transfer of radioactive material until the commissioner terminates each license that authorizes the activity that is subject to the record-keeping requirement.
D. A licensee must retain each record of disposal of radioactive material until the commissioner terminates each license that authorizes the activity that is subject to the record-keeping requirement.
E. If radioactive material is combined or mixed with other licensed material and subsequently treated in a manner that makes direct correlation of a receipt record with a transfer, export, or disposition record impossible, a licensee may use evaluative techniques, such as first-in-first-out, to make the records that are required by this part account for 100 percent of the material received.
Subp. 2. Retention.
A. A licensee must retain each record that is required by this part or by license condition for the period specified by the appropriate rule or license condition. If a retention period is not otherwise specified by rule or license condition, each record must be maintained until the commissioner terminates the license that authorizes the activity that is subject to the record-keeping requirement.
B. If there is a conflict between this chapter, a license condition, or other written commissioner approval or authorization pertaining to the retention period for the same type of record, the retention period specified in this chapter applies unless the commissioner, under part 4731.0730, has granted a specific exemption from the record retention requirements specified in this chapter.
Subp. 3. Format.
A. Records that must be maintained according to this chapter may be the original or a reproduced copy or microform if the reproduced copy or microform is duly authenticated by authorized personnel and the microform is capable of producing a clear and legible copy after storage for the period specified by this chapter.
B. Records may also be stored in electronic media with the capability for producing legible, accurate, and complete records during the required retention period.
C. Records such as letters, drawings, or specifications must include all pertinent information such as stamps, initials, and signatures.
D. A licensee must maintain adequate safeguards against tampering with and loss of records.
Subp. 4. Transfer to commissioner.
Prior to license termination, a licensee authorized to possess source material, in an unsealed form, must forward the following records to the commissioner:
A. records of disposal of licensed material made under parts 4731.2410 to 4731.2440; and
B. records required under part 4731.2510, subpart 2, item D.
Subp. 5. Transfer to new licensee.
If licensed activities are transferred or assigned under part 4731.0785, a licensee authorized to possess source material in an unsealed form must transfer the following records to the new licensee and the new licensee is responsible for maintaining the records until the license is terminated:
A. records of disposal of licensed material made under parts 4731.2410 to 4731.2440; and
B. records required under part 4731.2510, subpart 2, item D.
Subp. 6. Decommissioning records.
Prior to license termination, a licensee must forward the records required under part 4731.0780, subpart 6, to the commissioner.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.0830 Inspections and Tests
Subpart 1. Material and premises inspection.
A licensee or registrant must afford to the commissioner at all reasonable times opportunity to inspect radioactive material and the premises and facilities wherein radioactive material is used or stored.
Subp. 2. Record inspection.
A licensee or registrant must make available to the commissioner for inspection, upon reasonable notice, records kept by the licensee as required under this chapter.
Subp. 3. Radioactive materials inspection.
The commissioner shall perform inspections to ensure the radiation sources and radioactive materials are used only as specified in this chapter. Inspections for radioactive materials may be announced or unannounced.
Subp. 4. Testing.
A. A licensee or registrant must perform, or permit the commissioner to perform, such tests as the commissioner deems appropriate or necessary for the administration of parts 4731.0700 to 4731.0840, including tests of:
B. A licensee or registrant must also permit the commissioner to perform such tests as are deemed necessary to determine compliance with this chapter.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.0840 Modification and Revocation of Licenses
The terms and conditions of each license issued under parts 4731.0700 to 4731.0840 are subject to amendment, revision, or modification by reason of this chapter or orders issued by the commissioner, according to part 4731.0270.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.1000 Scope; Notices, Instructions, Reports
Parts 4731.1000 to 4731.1090 apply to all persons who receive, possess, use, or transfer material licensed by the commissioner under this chapter. Parts 4731.1000 to 4731.1090 establish requirements for notices, instructions, and reports by licensees to individuals participating in licensed activities and options available to these individuals in connection with commissioner inspections of licensees to ascertain compliance with this chapter and orders and licenses issued thereunder regarding radiological working conditions. Parts 4731.1000 to 4731.1090 also establish the rights and responsibilities of the commissioner and individuals during interviews, inspections, or investigations according to part 4731.1060 on any matter within the commissioner's jurisdiction.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.1010 Posting Worker Notices
Subpart 1. Required postings.
A. A licensee must post current copies of the following documents:
B. If posting of a document specified in item A, subitems (1) to (3), is not practicable, a licensee may post a notice that describes the document and states where it may be examined.
Subp. 2. Notice to employees.
Each licensee and each applicant for a specific license must prominently post a MDH Form 3, "Notice to Employees," provided by the commissioner. A copy of any revision of the Notice to Employees must be posted within 30 days of receiving the revised notice from the commissioner. Copies of the Notice to Employees may be obtained by writing to the Radioactive Materials Unit, Minnesota Department of Health, 625 Robert Street N, P.O. Box 64975, St. Paul, MN 55164-0975.
Subp. 3. Posting locations.
Documents, notices, or forms posted according to this part must:
A. appear in a sufficient number of places to permit individuals engaged in licensed activities to observe them on the way to or from any particular licensed activity location to which the document applies;
B. be conspicuous; and
C. be replaced if defaced or altered.
Subp. 4. Correction order and APO.
Documents posted according to subpart 1, item A, subitem (4), must be posted within two working days after receipt of the documents from the commissioner. A licensee's response, if any, must be posted within two working days after dispatch by the licensee. The documents must remain posted for a minimum of five working days or until action correcting the violation is completed, whichever is later.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 29 SR 755; 32 SR 831; 40 SR 145
Minn. R. 4731.1020 Worker Instructions
Subpart 1. Required instruction.
All individuals who, in the course of employment, are likely to receive in a year an occupational dose in excess of 100 millirems (1 mSv) must be:
A. kept informed of the storage, transfer, or use of radiation and radioactive material;
B. instructed in the health protection problems associated with exposure to radiation and radioactive material, in precautions or procedures to minimize exposure, and in the purposes and functions of protective devices employed;
C. instructed in and required to observe, to the extent within the worker's control, the applicable provisions of this chapter and the license that protect personnel from exposure to radiation and radioactive material;
D. instructed of their responsibility to report promptly to the licensee any condition that may lead to or cause a violation of this chapter or the license or any unnecessary exposure to radiation or radioactive material;
E. instructed in the appropriate response to warnings made in the event of any unusual occurrence or malfunction that may involve exposure to radiation or radioactive material; and
F. advised as to the radiation exposure reports that workers may request according to part 4731.1030.
Subp. 2. Applicability.
In determining which individuals are subject to subpart 1, a licensee must take into consideration an individual's assigned activities during normal and abnormal situations involving exposure to radiation or radioactive material that can reasonably be expected to occur during the life of a licensed facility. The extent of the instructions must be commensurate with potential radiological health protection problems present in the workplace.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.1030 Exposure Notifications and Reports
Subpart 1. Exposure data notification.
A. Radiation exposure data for an individual and the results of any measurements, analyses, and calculations of radioactive material deposited or retained in the body of an individual must be reported to the individual as specified in this part.
B. The information reported must include data and results obtained pursuant to this chapter, commissioner's orders, or license conditions, as shown in records maintained by the licensee according to this chapter.
C. Each notification and report to the individual must:
Subp. 2. Frequency of report.
Each licensee shall make dose information available to workers as shown in records maintained by the licensee under the provisions of part 4731.2540. The licensee shall provide an annual report to each individual monitored under part 4731.2210 of the dose received in that monitoring year if:
A. the individual's occupational dose exceeds 100 mrem (1 mSv) TEDE or 100 mrem (1 mSv) to any individual organ or tissue; or
B. the individual requests their report.
Subp. 3. Report to former employee; report to commissioner.
A. At the request of a worker formerly engaged in licensed activities controlled by the licensee, a licensee must furnish to the worker a report of the worker's exposure to radiation and radioactive material:
B. The report under item A must:
C. When a licensee is required under part 4731.2610, 4731.2620, or 4731.2630 to report to the commissioner any exposure of an individual to radiation or radioactive material, the licensee must also provide the individual a report on the individual's exposure data included in the report to the commissioner. The report must be transmitted to the individual no later than the transmittal to the commissioner.
Subp. 4. Report upon termination.
At the request of a worker who is terminating employment with the licensee that involved exposure to radiation or radioactive materials during the current calendar quarter or the current year, a licensee must provide at termination to each worker, or to the worker's designee, a written report regarding the radiation dose received by that worker from operations of the licensee during the current year or fraction thereof. If the most recent individual monitoring results are not available at that time, a written estimate of the dose must be provided together with a clear indication that this is an estimate.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 33 SR 1440
Minn. R. 4731.1040 Inspections; Presence of Representatives
A. A licensee must afford to the commissioner at all reasonable times opportunity to inspect materials, activities, facilities, premises, and records according to this chapter.
B. During an inspection, the commissioner's inspectors may consult privately with workers according to part 4731.1050. The licensee or licensee's representative may accompany the commissioner's inspectors during other phases of an inspection.
C. If, at the time of inspection, an individual has been authorized by the workers to represent them during commissioner's inspections, the licensee must notify the inspectors of such authorization and must give the workers' representative an opportunity to accompany the inspectors during the inspection of physical working conditions.
D. Each workers' representative must be routinely engaged in licensed activities under control of the licensee and must have received instruction according to part 4731.1020.
E. Different representatives of licensees and workers may accompany the inspectors during different phases of an inspection if there is no resulting interference with the conduct of the inspection. Only one workers' representative at a time may accompany the inspectors.
F. With the approval of the licensee and the workers' representative, an individual who is not routinely engaged in licensed activities under control of the licensee, for example, a consultant to the licensee or workers' representative, must be afforded the opportunity to accompany the commissioner's inspectors during the inspection of physical working conditions.
G. Notwithstanding other provisions of this part, inspectors may refuse to permit accompaniment by an individual who deliberately interferes with a fair and orderly inspection.
H. With regard to areas containing information classified by an agency of the federal government in the interest of national security, an individual who accompanies an inspector must be authorized to have access to such information.
I. With regard to an area containing proprietary information, the workers' representative for that area must be an individual previously authorized by the licensee to enter the area.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.1050 Inspections; Consultation with Workers
Subpart 1. Consultation permitted.
The commissioner's inspectors may consult privately with workers concerning matters of occupational radiation protection and other matters related to this chapter and to licenses to the extent the inspectors deem necessary for the conduct of an effective and thorough inspection.
Subp. 2. Worker allegations and complaints.
During the course of an inspection, a worker may privately bring to the attention of the inspectors, either orally or in writing, any past or present condition that the worker has reason to believe may have contributed to or caused a violation of this chapter or a license condition or any unnecessary exposure of an individual to radiation from licensed radioactive material under the licensee's control. A written notice under this subpart must comply with part 4731.1060, subparts 1 and 2. This subpart must not be interpreted as authorization to disregard instructions under part 4731.1020.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.1060 Inspections; Requests by Workers
Subpart 1. Worker request for inspection.
A worker or representative of workers who believes that a violation of this chapter or a license condition exists or has occurred in licensed activities with regard to radiological working conditions in which the worker is engaged may request an inspection by giving notice of the alleged violation to the supervisor of the Radioactive Materials Unit of the Department of Health or to the commissioner's inspectors.
Subp. 2. Requirements.
A notice under subpart 1 must be in writing, must set forth the specific grounds for the notice, and must be signed by the worker or workers' representative. A copy of the notice must be provided to the licensee by the Radioactive Materials Unit supervisor or the inspector no later than at the time of inspection, except that upon the request of the worker giving the notice, the worker's name and the name of individuals referred to in the notice must not appear in the copy or on any record published, released, or made available by the commissioner, except for good cause shown.
Subp. 3. Inspection required.
If, upon receipt of a notice, the Radioactive Materials Unit supervisor determines that the complaint meets the requirements of subparts 1 and 2, and that there are reasonable grounds to believe that the alleged violation exists or has occurred, the supervisor must require an inspection to be made as soon as practicable to determine if the alleged violation exists or has occurred. Inspections under this subpart need not be limited to matters referred to in the complaint.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.1070 Inspection Not Warranted; Informal Review
Subpart 1. Review of inspection denial.
A. If the Radioactive Materials Unit supervisor determines, with respect to a complaint under part 4731.1060, that an inspection is not warranted because there are no reasonable grounds to believe that a violation exists or has occurred, the supervisor must notify the complainant in writing of the determination.
B. The complainant may obtain review of the determination under item A by submitting a written statement of position to the commissioner, who shall provide the licensee with a copy of the statement by certified mail, excluding at the request of the complainant the name of the complainant. The licensee may submit an opposing written statement of position to the commissioner, who shall provide the complainant with a copy of the statement by certified mail.
C. Upon the request of the complainant, the commissioner may hold an informal conference in which the complainant and the licensee may orally present their views.
D. An informal conference may also be held at the request of the licensee, but disclosure of the identity of the complainant shall be made only following receipt of written authorization from the complainant.
E. After considering all written and oral views presented, the commissioner must affirm, modify, or reverse the determination of the supervisor of the Radioactive Materials Unit and furnish the complainant and the licensee a written notification of the commissioner's decision and the reason therefore.
Subp. 2. Procedural defects.
If the commissioner determines that an inspection is not warranted because the requirements of part 4731.1060, subparts 1 and 2, have not been met, the commissioner must notify the complainant in writing of the determination. The determination must be without prejudice to the filing of a new complaint meeting the requirements of part 4731.1060, subparts 1 and 2.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.1080 Variances
The commissioner may grant a variance to this chapter, except parts 4731.3000 to 4731.3175, only according to parts 4717.7000 to 4717.7050.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.1090 Discrimination Prohibited
No person, on the grounds of race, color, creed, religion, national origin, sex, disability, sexual orientation, or age, shall be excluded from participation in; denied the benefits of; or subjected to discrimination under any program or activity licensed by the commissioner. This part shall be enforced according to Minnesota Statutes, sections 181.931 to 181.935.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.2000 General Provisions
Subpart 1. Scope.
Parts 4731.2000 to 4731.2950 establish standards for protection against ionizing radiation resulting from activities conducted under licenses issued by the commissioner. Parts 4731.2000 to 4731.2950 apply to persons licensed by the commissioner to receive, possess, use, transfer, or dispose of radioactive, source, or special nuclear material under this chapter.
Subp. 2. Purpose.
It is the purpose of parts 4731.2000 to 4731.2950 to control the receipt, possession, use, transfer, and disposal of licensed material by a licensee so that the total dose to an individual, including doses resulting from licensed and unlicensed radioactive material and from radiation sources other than background radiation, does not exceed the standards for protection against radiation prescribed in parts 4731.2000 to 4731.2950.
Subp. 3. Exclusions.
The limits in parts 4731.2000 to 4731.2950 do not apply to doses due to background radiation, exposure of patients to radiation for the purpose of medical diagnosis or therapy, exposure from individuals administered radioactive material and released under part 4731.4427, or exposure from voluntary participation in medical research programs.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.2010 Radiation Protection Programs
Subpart 1. General requirements.
A licensee must develop, document, and implement a radiation protection program commensurate with the scope and extent of licensed activities and sufficient to ensure compliance with parts 4731.2000 to 4731.2950. Records of the program must be kept according to part 4731.2500.
Subp. 2. Protection methods.
A licensee must use, to the extent practicable, procedures and engineering controls based upon sound radiation protection principles to achieve occupational doses and doses to members of the public that are as low as reasonably achievable (ALARA).
Subp. 3. Review.
A licensee must periodically, at least annually, review the radiation protection program content and implementation.
Subp. 4. Air emissions.
A. To implement the ALARA requirement of subpart 2, and notwithstanding part 4731.2090, a constraint on air emissions of radioactive material to the environment, excluding radon-222 and its daughter, must be established by the licensee, other than those subject to Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, section 50.34a, such that the individual member of the public likely to receive the highest dose is not expected to receive a total effective dose equivalent in excess of ten millirems (0.1 mSv) per year from these emissions.
B. If a licensee exceeds the dose constraint under item A, the licensee must report the exceedance according to part 4731.2620 and promptly take appropriate corrective action to ensure against recurrence.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.2020 Occupational Dose Limits for Adults
Subpart 1. Dose limits.
Except for planned special exposures according to part 4731.2060, a licensee must control the occupational dose to individual adults to the following dose limits:
A. an annual limit, which is the more limiting of:
B. the annual limits to the lens of the eye, to the skin of the whole body, and to the skin of the extremities, which are:
Subp. 2. Excess doses.
Doses received in excess of the annual limits, including doses received during accidents, emergencies, and planned special exposures, must be subtracted from the limits for planned special exposures that the individual may receive during the current year as specified under part 4731.2060, item E, subitem (1), and during the individual's lifetime as specified under part 4731.2060, item E, subitem (2).
Subp. 3. Assessing dose.
When the external exposure is determined by measurement with an external personal monitoring device, the deep-dose equivalent must be used in place of the effective dose equivalent, unless the effective dose equivalent is determined by a dosimetry method approved by the commissioner. The assigned deep dose equivalent must be for the part of the body receiving the highest exposure. The assigned shallow dose equivalent must be the dose averaged over the contiguous ten square centimeters of skin receiving the highest exposure. The deep dose equivalent, lens dose equivalent, and shallow dose equivalent may be assessed from surveys or other radiation measurements to demonstrate compliance with the occupational dose limits if the individual monitoring device was not in the region of highest potential exposure or if the results of individual monitoring are unavailable.
Subp. 4. DAC and ALI values.
Derived air concentration (DAC) and annual limit on intake (ALI) values in part 4731.2750 may be used by the licensee to determine an individual's dose according to part 4731.2540 and to demonstrate compliance with the occupational dose limits.
Subp. 5. Soluble uranium intake.
In addition to the annual dose limits, a licensee must limit the soluble uranium intake by an individual to ten milligrams in a week in consideration of chemical toxicity according to part 4731.2750, subpart 7, footnote 3.
Subp. 6. Other employment.
A licensee must reduce the dose that an individual may be allowed to receive in the current year by the amount of occupational dose received while employed by any other person according to part 4731.2520, subpart 5.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 33 SR 1440
Minn. R. 4731.2030 Summation of External and Internal Doses
Subpart 1. Summation required.
If a licensee is required to monitor under part 4731.2210, subparts 2 and 3, the licensee must demonstrate compliance with the dose limits by summing external and internal doses.
Subp. 2. Summation not required.
If a licensee is required to monitor only under part 4731.2210, subpart 2, or only under part 4731.2210, subpart 3, then summation is not required to demonstrate compliance with the dose limits. The licensee may demonstrate compliance with the requirements for summation of external and internal doses by meeting one of the conditions specified under subpart 3 and the conditions specified under subparts 4 and 5. The dose equivalents for the lens of the eye, the skin, and the extremities are not included in the summation, but are subject to separate limits.
Subp. 3. Intake by inhalation.
If the only intake of radionuclides is by inhalation, the total effective dose equivalent (TEDE) limit is not exceeded if the sum of the deep dose equivalent divided by the total effective dose equivalent limit, and one of the following, does not exceed unity:
A. the sum of the fractions of the inhalation ALI for each radionuclide;
B. the total number of derived air concentration-hours (DAC-hours) for all radionuclides divided by 2,000; or
C. the sum of the calculated committed effective dose equivalents to all significantly irradiated organs or tissues (T) calculated from bioassay data using appropriate biological models and expressed as a fraction of the annual limit. For purposes of this item, an organ or tissue is considered significantly irradiated if, for that organ or tissue, the product of the weighting factors, WT, and the committed dose equivalent, HT,50, per unit intake is greater than ten percent of the maximum weighted value of HT,50 per unit intake for any organ or tissue.
Subp. 4. Intake by oral ingestion.
If the occupationally exposed individual also receives an intake of radionuclides by oral ingestion greater than ten percent of the applicable oral ALI, a licensee must account for this intake and include it in demonstrating compliance with the limits.
Subp. 5. Intake by wound or absorption.
A licensee must evaluate and, to the extent practical, account for intakes through wounds or skin absorption. The intake through intact skin is included in the calculation of DAC for hydrogen-3 and does not need to be further evaluated.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.2040 Determination of External Dose; Airborne Radioactive Material
A. When determining the dose from airborne radioactive material, a licensee must include the contribution to the deep dose equivalent, lens dose equivalent, and shallow dose equivalent from external exposure to the radioactive cloud according to part 4731.2750, subpart 7, footnotes 1 and 2.
B. Airborne radioactivity measurements and DAC values must not be used as the primary means to assess the deep dose equivalent when the airborne radioactive material includes radionuclides other than noble gases or if the cloud of airborne radioactive material is not relatively uniform. The determination of the deep dose equivalent to an individual must be based upon measurements using instruments or individual monitoring devices.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.2050 Determination of Internal Exposure
Subpart 1. Required measurements.
For purposes of assessing dose used to determine compliance with occupational dose equivalent limits, a licensee must, when required under part 4731.2210, take suitable and timely measurements of:
A. concentrations of radioactive materials in air in work areas;
B. quantities of radionuclides in the body;
C. quantities of radionuclides excreted from the body; or
D. a combination of the measurements in items A to C.
Subp. 2. Assumption.
Unless respiratory protective equipment is used according to part 4731.2260 or the assessment of intake is based on bioassays, a licensee must assume that an individual inhales radioactive material at the airborne concentration in which the individual is present.
Subp. 3. Alternative assessment.
When specific information on the physical and biochemical properties of the radionuclides taken into the body or the behavior or the material in an individual is known, a licensee may:
A. use that information to calculate the committed effective dose equivalent and, if used, the licensee must document that information in the individual's record;
B. upon prior approval of the commissioner, adjust the DAC or ALI values to reflect the actual physical and chemical characteristics of airborne radioactive material, for example, aerosol size distribution or density; and
C. separately assess the contribution of fractional intakes of Class D, W, or Y compounds of a given radionuclide as listed in part 4731.2750 to the committed effective dose equivalent.
Subp. 4. Delayed recording.
If a licensee chooses to assess intakes of Class Y material using the measurements given in subpart 1, item B or C, the licensee may delay the recording and reporting of the assessments for periods up to seven months, unless otherwise required under part 4731.2610 or 4731.2620, to permit the licensee to make additional measurements basic to the assessments.
Subp. 5. Mixture; identity and concentration known.
If the identity and concentration of each radionuclide in a mixture are known, the fraction of the DAC applicable to the mixture for use in calculating DAC-hours must be:
A. the sum of the ratios of the concentration to the appropriate DAC value, for example, D, W, Y, from part 4731.2750, for each radionuclide in the mixture; or
B. the ratio of the total concentration for all radionuclides in the mixture to the most restrictive DAC value for any radionuclide in the mixture.
Subp. 6. Mixture; identity known.
If the identity of each radionuclide in a mixture is known, but the concentration of one or more of the radionuclides in the mixture is not known, the DAC for the mixture must be the most restrictive DAC of any radionuclide in the mixture.
Subp. 7. Mixture in air.
When a mixture of radionuclides in air exists, a licensee may disregard certain radionuclides in the mixture if:
A. the licensee uses the total activity of the mixture in demonstrating compliance with the dose limits in part 4731.2020 and in complying with the monitoring requirements in part 4731.2210, subpart 2;
B. the concentration of any radionuclide disregarded is less than ten percent of its DAC; and
C. the sum of these percentages for all of the radionuclides disregarded in the mixture does not exceed 30 percent.
Subp. 8. Committed effective dose equivalent considerations.
When determining the committed effective dose equivalent, the following information may be considered:
A. to calculate the committed effective dose equivalent, the licensee may assume that the inhalation of one ALI, or an exposure of 2,000 DAC-hours, results in a committed effective dose equivalent of five rems (0.05 Sv) for radionuclides that have their ALIs or DACs based on the committed effective dose equivalent; and
B. when the ALI and the associated DAC are determined by the nonstochastic organ dose limit of 50 rems (0.5 Sv), the intake of radionuclides that would result in a committed effective dose equivalent of five rems (0.05 Sv), the stochastic ALI, is listed in parentheses in part 4731.2750, subpart 7, Table 1. In this case, the licensee may, as a simplifying assumption, use the stochastic ALIs to determine committed effective dose equivalent. However, if the licensee uses the stochastic ALIs, the licensee must also demonstrate that the limit in part 4731.2020, subpart 1, item A, subitem (2), is met.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.2060 Planned Special Exposures
A licensee may authorize an adult worker to receive doses in addition to, and accounted for separately from, the doses received under the limits specified in part 4731.2020, provided that each of the following conditions is satisfied:
A. the licensee authorizes a planned special exposure only in an exceptional situation when alternatives that might avoid the dose estimated to result from the planned special exposure are unavailable or impractical;
B. the licensee and employer, if the employer is not the licensee, specifically authorizes the planned special exposure, in writing, before the exposure occurs;
C. before a planned special exposure, the licensee ensures that the individuals involved are:
D. before permitting an individual to participate in a planned special exposure, the licensee ascertains prior doses as required under part 4731.2520, subpart 2, during the lifetime of the individual for each individual involved;
E. subject to part 4731.2020, subpart 2, the licensee does not authorize a planned special exposure that would cause an individual to receive a dose from all planned exposures and all doses in excess of the limits to exceed:
F. the licensee maintains records of the conduct of a planned special exposure according to part 4731.2530 and submits a written report according to part 4731.2630; and
G. the licensee records the best estimate of the dose resulting from the planned special exposure in the individual's record and informs the individual, in writing, of the dose within 30 days from the date of the planned special exposure. The dose from planned special exposures is not to be considered in controlling future occupational dose of the individual under part 4731.2020, subpart 1, but is to be included in evaluations required under items D and E.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.2070 Occupational Dose Limits for Minors
The annual occupational dose limits for minors are ten percent of the annual dose limits specified for adult workers under part 4731.2020.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.2080 Dose Equivalent to Embryo/Fetus
Subpart 1. Dose limit.
A licensee must ensure that the dose equivalent to an embryo/fetus during the entire pregnancy due to occupational exposure of a declared pregnant woman does not exceed 0.5 rem (5 mSv). Records must be kept according to part 4731.2540.
Subp. 2. Uniform exposure.
A licensee must make efforts to avoid substantial variation above a uniform monthly exposure rate to a declared pregnant woman so as to satisfy the limit in subpart 1.
Subp. 3. Dose equivalent.
The dose to an embryo/fetus is the sum of:
A. the deep dose equivalent to the declared pregnant woman; and
B. the dose equivalent to the embryo/fetus from radionuclides in the embryo/fetus and radionuclides in the declared pregnant woman.
Subp. 4. Dose after pregnancy declaration.
If the dose equivalent to the embryo/fetus is found to have exceeded 0.5 rem (5 mSv), or is within 0.05 rem (0.5 mSv) of this dose, by the time the woman declares the pregnancy to the licensee, the licensee shall be deemed to be in compliance with subpart 1 if the additional dose equivalent to the embryo/fetus does not exceed 0.05 rem (0.5 mSv) during the remainder of the pregnancy.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.2090 Radiation Dose Limits for the Public
Subpart 1. Dose limits.
A licensee must conduct operations so that:
A. the total effective dose equivalent to individual members of the public from the licensed operation does not exceed 0.1 rem (1 mSv) in a year, exclusive of the dose contributions from background radiation, from any medical administration the individual has received, from exposure to individuals administered radioactive material and released according to part 4731.4427, from voluntary participation in medical research programs, and from the licensee's disposal of radioactive material into sanitary sewerage according to part 4731.2420; and
B. the dose in any unrestricted area from external sources, exclusive of the dose contributions from patients administered radioactive material and released according to part 4731.4427, does not exceed 0.002 rem (0.02 mSv) in any one hour.
Subp. 2. Access to controlled areas.
If a licensee permits members of the public to have access to controlled areas, the limits for members of the public continue to apply to those individuals.
Subp. 3. Exception.
Notwithstanding subpart 1, item A, a licensee may permit visitors to an individual who cannot be released under part 4731.4427 to receive a radiation dose greater than 0.1 rem (1 mSv) if:
A. the radiation dose received does not exceed 0.5 rem (5 mSv); and
B. the authorized user under part 4731.4427 has determined before the visit that the visit is appropriate.
Subp. 4. Prior authorization.
A licensee or license applicant may apply for prior authorization from the commissioner to operate up to an annual dose limit for an individual member of the public of 0.5 rem (5 mSv). The licensee or applicant must include in the application for prior authorization:
A. a demonstration of the need for and the expected duration of operations in excess of the limit under subpart 1;
B. a description of the licensee's program to assess and control the dose within the 0.5 rem (5 mSv) annual limit; and
C. the procedures to be followed to maintain the dose as low as is reasonably achievable.
Subp. 5. Federal law.
In addition to the requirements of this part, a licensee subject to Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, part 190, must comply with those standards.
Subp. 6. Additional restrictions.
The commissioner may impose additional restrictions on radiation levels in unrestricted areas and on the total quantity of radionuclides that a licensee may release in effluents in order to restrict the collective dose to individual members of the public.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.2095 Compliance; Dose Limits for the Public
Subpart 1. Surveys required.
A licensee must make or cause to be made, as appropriate, surveys of radiation levels in unrestricted and controlled areas and radioactive materials in effluents released to unrestricted and controlled areas to demonstrate compliance with the dose limits for individual members of the public under part 4731.2090.
Subp. 2. Showing compliance.
A licensee must show compliance with the annual dose limit under part 4731.2090 by:
A. demonstrating by measurement or calculation that the total effective dose equivalent to the individual likely to receive the highest dose from the licensed operation does not exceed the annual dose limit; or
B. demonstrating that:
Subp. 3. Adjustments.
Upon approval from the commissioner, a licensee may adjust the effluent concentration values under part 4731.2750, subpart 7, Table 2, for members of the public, to take into account the actual physical and chemical characteristics of the effluents, for example, aerosol size distribution, solubility, density, radioactive decay equilibrium, or chemical form.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.2100 Radiological Criteria for License Termination
Subpart 1. General provisions and applicability.
A. This part applies to the decommissioning of facilities licensed under this chapter and to facilities subject to the NRC's jurisdiction under the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, and the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended. This part does not apply to uranium and thorium recovery facilities already subject to Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, part 40, Appendix A, or to uranium solution extraction facilities.
B. This part does not apply to sites that:
C. After a site has been decommissioned and the license terminated according to this part, the commissioner shall require additional cleanup only if, based on new information, the commissioner determines that the criteria of this part were not met and residual radioactivity remaining at the site could result in a significant threat to public health and safety.
D. When calculating the TEDE to the average member of the critical group, the licensee must determine the peak annual TEDE expected within the first 1,000 years after decommissioning.
Subp. 2. Radiological criteria for unrestricted use.
A site is considered acceptable for unrestricted use if:
A. the residual radioactivity that is distinguishable from background radiation results in a TEDE to an average member of the critical group that does not exceed 25 millirems (0.25 mSv) per year, including that from groundwater sources of drinking water; and
B. the residual radioactivity has been reduced to levels that are ALARA. Determination of levels that are ALARA must take into account consideration of any detriments, such as deaths from transportation accidents, expected to potentially result from decontamination and waste disposal.
Subp. 3. Criteria for termination under restricted conditions.
A site is considered acceptable for license termination under restricted conditions, if the licensee:
A. can demonstrate that further reductions in residual radioactivity necessary to comply with subpart 2:
B. has made provisions for legally enforceable institutional controls that provide reasonable assurance that the TEDE from residual radioactivity, distinguishable from background radiation, will not exceed 25 millirems (0.25 mSv) per year to the average member of the critical group;
C. has provided sufficient financial assurance to enable an independent third party, including a governmental custodian of a site, to assume and carry out responsibilities for any necessary control and maintenance of the site. Acceptable financial assurance mechanisms are:
D. has submitted a decommissioning plan or a license termination plan to the commissioner indicating the licensee's intent to decommission according to part 4731.0600, subpart 2, 4731.0790, subpart 4, or 4731.3085, subpart 4, or Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, section 50.82, paragraphs (a) and (b), or 72.54, and specifying that the licensee intends to decommission by restricting use of the site. The licensee must document in the license termination plan or decommissioning plan how the advice of individuals and institutions in the community has been sought according to items E and F and incorporated, as appropriate, following analysis of that advice;
E. if proposing to decommission by restricting use of the site, seeks advice from individuals and institutions in the community who may be affected by the decommissioning regarding whether:
F. while seeking advice under item E, provides for:
G. reduces residual radioactivity at the site so that if the institutional controls were no longer in effect, there is reasonable assurance that the TEDE from residual radioactivity distinguishable from background radiation to the average member of the critical group is as low as reasonably achievable and would not exceed:
Subp. 4. Alternative criteria for license termination.
A. The commissioner may terminate a license using alternative criteria greater than the dose criterion of subparts 2 and 3, items B and E, subitem (1), unit (a), if the licensee:
B. The use of alternate criteria to terminate a license requires the approval of the commissioner after consideration of staff recommendations of the Radioactive Materials Unit of the Department of Health that address any comments provided by the Environmental Protection Agency or the Pollution Control Agency and any public comments submitted under subpart 5.
Subp. 5. Public notification and public participation.
Upon receipt of a license termination plan or decommissioning plan from a licensee or a proposal by a licensee for release of a site according to subpart 3 or 4, or whenever the commissioner deems such notice to be in the public interest, the commissioner must:
A. notify and solicit comments from:
B. publish a notice in the State Register and in a forum, such as local newspapers, letters to state and local organizations, or other appropriate forum, that is readily accessible to individuals in the vicinity of the site and solicit comments from affected parties.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 29 SR 755; 40 SR 145
Minn. R. 4731.2150 Minimization of Contamination
A. Applicants for licenses, other than renewals, must describe in the application how facility design and procedures for operation will minimize, to the extent practicable, contamination of the facility and the environment, facilitate eventual decommissioning, and minimize, to the extent practicable, the generation of radioactive waste.
B. Licensees must, to the extent practical, conduct operations to minimize the introduction of residual radioactivity into the site, including the subsurface, in accordance with the existing radiation protection requirements in part 4731.2010 and radiological criteria for license termination in item A and part 4731.2100.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 29 SR 755; 40 SR 145
Minn. R. 4731.2200 Surveys and Monitoring
Subpart 1. Required surveys.
A licensee must make or cause to be made, surveys of areas, including the subsurface, that:
A. may be necessary for the licensee to comply with this chapter; and
B. are reasonable under the circumstances to evaluate:
Subp. 1a. Records.
Notwithstanding part 4731.2510, subpart 1, records from surveys describing the location and amount of subsurface residual radioactivity identified at the site must be kept with records important for decommissioning, and must be retained according to part 4731.0580, subpart 6; 4731.0780, subpart 6; or 4731.3080, subpart 7, as applicable.
Subp. 2. Calibration required.
Except as otherwise required in this chapter, a licensee must ensure that instruments and equipment used for quantitative radiation measurements, for example, dose rate and effluent monitoring, are calibrated at intervals not to exceed 12 months for the radiation measured.
Subp. 3. Dosimeter processing.
All personnel dosimeters, except for direct and indirect reading pocket ionization chambers and those dosimeters used to measure the dose to the extremities, that require processing to determine the radiation dose and that are used by a licensee to comply with part 4731.2020, with other applicable provisions of this chapter, or with conditions specified in a license, must be processed and evaluated by a dosimetry processor that:
A. holds current personnel dosimetry accreditation from the National Voluntary Laboratory Accreditation Program (NVLAP) of the National Institute of Standards and Technology; and
B. is approved in the accreditation process for the type of radiation or radiations included in the NVLAP program that most closely approximates the type of radiation or radiations for which the individual wearing the dosimeter is monitored.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 29 SR 755; 33 SR 1440; 40 SR 145
Minn. R. 4731.2210 Individual Monitoring; External and Internal Occupational Dose
Subpart 1. General requirement.
A licensee must monitor exposures to radiation and radioactive material at levels sufficient to demonstrate compliance with the occupational dose limits of parts 4731.2000 to 4731.2950. At a minimum, a licensee must comply with this part.
Subp. 2. External dose.
A licensee must monitor occupational exposure to radiation from licensed and unlicensed radiation sources under the control of the licensee and must supply and require the use of individual monitoring devices by:
A. adults likely to receive, in one year from sources external to the body, a dose in excess of ten percent of the limits in part 4731.2020, subpart 1;
B. minors likely to receive, in one year from radiation sources external to the body, a deep dose equivalent in excess of 0.1 rem (1 mSv), a lens dose equivalent in excess of 0.15 rem (1.5 mSv), or a shallow dose equivalent to the skin or to the extremities in excess of 0.5 rem (5 mSv);
C. declared pregnant women likely to receive, during the entire pregnancy from radiation sources external to the body, a deep dose equivalent in excess of 0.1 rem (1 mSv). All of the occupational doses under part 4731.2020 continue to be applicable to the declared pregnant worker as long as the embryo/fetus dose limit is not exceeded; and
D. individuals entering a high or very high radiation area.
Subp. 3. Internal dose.
A licensee must monitor, as required under part 4731.2050, the occupational intake of radioactive material by and assess the committed effective dose equivalent to:
A. adults likely to receive, in one year, an intake in excess of ten percent of the applicable ALIs in part 4731.2750, subpart 7, Table 1, columns 1 and 2;
B. minors likely to receive, in one year, a committed effective dose equivalent in excess of 0.1 rem (1 mSv); and
C. declared pregnant women likely to receive, during the entire pregnancy, a committed effective dose equivalent in excess of 0.1 rem (1 mSv).
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.2220 High Radiation Areas; Control of Access
Subpart 1. Entrance controls required.
A. A licensee must ensure that each entrance or access point to a high radiation area has one or more of the following features:
B. In place of the controls required under item A for a high radiation area, a licensee may substitute continuous direct or electronic surveillance that is capable of preventing unauthorized entry.
C. A licensee may apply to the commissioner for approval of alternative methods for controlling access to high radiation areas.
Subp. 2. Egress required.
A licensee must establish the controls required under subpart 1 in a way that does not prevent individuals from leaving a high radiation area.
Subp. 3. Exception; package for transport.
Control is not required for each entrance or access point to a room or other area that is a high radiation area solely because of the presence of radioactive materials prepared for transport and packaged and labeled according to the regulations of the DOT, provided that:
A. the packages do not remain in the area longer than three days; and
B. the dose rate at one meter from the external surface of any package does not exceed 0.01 rem (0.1 mSv) per hour.
Subp. 4. Exception; hospitals.
Control of entrance or access to rooms or other areas in hospitals is not required solely because of the presence of patients containing radioactive materials, provided that there are personnel in attendance who will take the necessary precautions to:
A. prevent the exposure of individuals to radiation or radioactive material in excess of the limits established under parts 4731.2000 to 4731.2950; and
B. operate within the ALARA provisions of the licensee's radiation protection program.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.2230 Very High Radiation Areas; Control of Access
In addition to the requirements under part 4731.2220, a licensee must institute additional measures to ensure that an individual is not able to gain unauthorized or inadvertent access to areas in which radiation levels could be encountered at 500 rads (5 Gy) or more in one hour at one meter from a radiation source or any surface through which the radiation penetrates.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.2240 Controlling Concentration of Radioactive Material in Air
Subpart 1. Process or other engineering controls.
A licensee must use, to the extent practical, process or other engineering controls, such as containment, decontamination, or ventilation, to control the concentrations of radioactive material in air.
Subp. 2. Other controls.
A. When it is not practical to apply process or other engineering controls to control the concentrations of radioactive material in air to values below those that define an airborne radioactivity area, a licensee must, consistent with maintaining the total effective dose equivalent ALARA, increase monitoring and limit intakes by one or more of the following means:
B. If a licensee performs an ALARA analysis to determine whether or not respirators should be used, the licensee may consider safety factors other than radiological factors. The licensee must also consider the impact of respirator use on workers' industrial health and safety.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.2260 Use of Individual Respiratory Protection Equipment
Subpart 1. Applicability.
This part applies if a licensee assigns or permits the use of respiratory protection equipment to limit intake of radioactive material.
Subp. 2. NIOSH certification.
A licensee must use only respiratory protection equipment that is tested and certified by the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH), except as otherwise noted in this part.
Subp. 3. Alternative equipment.
If a licensee wishes to use equipment that has not been tested or certified by NIOSH, or for which there is no schedule for testing or certification, the licensee must submit an application to the commissioner for authorized use of the equipment, except as provided in this part. The application must include evidence that the material and performance characteristics of the equipment are capable of providing the proposed degree of protection under anticipated conditions of use. This must be demonstrated by licensee testing or on the basis of reliable test information.
Subp. 4. Respiratory protection program.
A licensee must implement and maintain a respiratory protection program that includes:
A. air sampling sufficient to identify a potential hazard, permit proper equipment selection, and estimate doses;
B. surveys and bioassays, as necessary, to evaluate actual intakes;
C. testing of respirators for operability and user seal check for face sealing devices and functional check for others immediately prior to each use;
D. written procedures regarding:
E. a determination by a physician that an individual user is medically fit to use the respiratory protection equipment:
F. fit testing, with a fit factor greater than or equal to 10 times the APF for negative pressure devices and a fit factor greater than or equal to 500 for any positive pressure, continuous flow, and pressure-demand devices, before the first field use of tight fitting, face-sealing respirators and periodically thereafter at a frequency not to exceed one year. Fit testing must be performed with the facepiece operating in the negative pressure mode.
Subp. 5. User advise.
A licensee must advise each respirator user that the user may leave the area at any time for relief from respirator use in the event of equipment malfunction, physical or psychological distress, procedural or communication failure, significant deterioration of operating conditions, or any other conditions that might require such relief.
Subp. 6. Equipment limitations.
A licensee must consider limitations appropriate to the type and mode of use. When selecting respiratory devices, a licensee must provide for vision correction, adequate communication, low temperature work environments, and the concurrent use of other safety or radiological protection equipment. A licensee must use the equipment in such a way as not to interfere with the proper operation of the respirator.
Subp. 7. Standby rescue persons.
A. Standby rescue persons are required whenever one-piece atmosphere-supplying suits or any combination of supplied-air respiratory protection device and personnel protective equipment are used from which an unaided individual would have difficulty extricating himself or herself.
B. The standby persons must be equipped with respiratory protection devices or other apparatus appropriate for the potential hazards.
C. The standby rescue persons must observe or otherwise maintain continuous communication with the workers, by voice, visual, signal line, telephone, radio, or other suitable means, and be immediately available to assist them in case of a failure of the air supply or for any other reason that requires relief from distress.
D. A sufficient number of standby rescue persons must be immediately available to assist all users of this type of equipment and to provide effective emergency rescue if needed.
Subp. 8. Respirator requirements.
A. Atmosphere-supplying respirators must be supplied with respirable air of Grade D quality or better as defined in "Commodity Specification for Air G-7.1," Compressed Gas Association (1997), as included in Code of Federal Regulations, title 29, section 1910.134. Grade D quality air criteria include:
B. A licensee must ensure that no objects, materials or substances, such as facial hair, or conditions that interfere with the face-facepiece seal or valve function and that are under the control of the respirator wearer are present between the skin of the wearer's face and the sealing surface of a tight-fitting respirator facepiece.
Subp. 9. Dose calculation.
In estimating the dose to individuals from intake of airborne radioactive materials, the concentration of radioactive material in the air that is inhaled when respirators are worn is initially assumed to be the ambient concentration in air without respiratory protection, divided by the assigned protection factor. If the dose is later found to be greater than the estimated dose, the corrected value must be used. If the dose is later found to be less than the estimated dose, the corrected value may be used.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.2270 Respiratory Protection Equipment Restrictions
The commissioner may impose restrictions in addition to those under parts 4731.2240, 4731.2260, and 4731.2700 to:
A. ensure that the respiratory protection program of the licensee is adequate to limit doses to individuals from intakes of airborne radioactive materials, consistent with maintaining total effective dose equivalent ALARA; and
B. limit the extent to which a licensee may use respiratory protection equipment instead of process or other engineering controls.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.2280 Use of Higher Assigned Protection Factors
A licensee must obtain authorization from the commissioner before using assigned protection factors in excess of those specified in part 4731.2700. The commissioner may authorize a licensee to use higher assigned protection factors on receipt of an application that:
A. describes the situation for which a need exists for higher protection factors; and
B. demonstrates that the respiratory protection equipment provides these higher protection factors under the proposed conditions of use.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.2290 Storage and Control of Licensed Material
Subpart 1. Security of stored material.
A licensee must secure from unauthorized removal or access licensed materials that are stored in controlled or unrestricted areas.
Subp. 2. Control of material not in storage.
A licensee must control and maintain constant surveillance of licensed material that is in a controlled or unrestricted area and that is not in storage.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.2300 Caution Signs
Subpart 1. Radiation symbol.
Unless otherwise authorized by the commissioner, the standard radiation symbol used to designate a radiation hazard is as prescribed in this subpart. The radiation symbol is the three-bladed design:
A. the cross-hatched area must be magenta, purple, or black; and
B. the background must be yellow.
Subp. 2. Exception; radiation symbol.
Notwithstanding the requirements of subpart 1, licensees may label sources, source holders, or device components containing sources of licensed materials that are subjected to high temperatures with conspicuously etched or stamped radiation caution symbols and without a color requirement.
Subp. 3. Additional information.
In addition to the contents of signs and labels prescribed in this chapter, a licensee may provide, on or near the required signs and labels, additional information, as appropriate, to make individuals aware of potential radiation exposures and to minimize the exposures.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.2310 Posting Requirements
Subpart 1. Radiation area.
A licensee must post each radiation area with a conspicuous sign or signs bearing the radiation symbol and the words "CAUTION, RADIATION AREA."
Subp. 2. High radiation area.
A licensee must post each high radiation area with a conspicuous sign or signs bearing the radiation symbol and the words "CAUTION, HIGH RADIATION AREA" or "DANGER, HIGH RADIATION AREA."
Subp. 3. Very high radiation area.
A licensee must post each very high radiation area with a conspicuous sign or signs bearing the radiation symbol and the words "GRAVE DANGER, VERY HIGH RADIATION AREA."
Subp. 4. Airborne radioactivity area.
A licensee must post each airborne radioactivity area with a conspicuous sign or signs bearing the radiation symbol and the words "CAUTION, AIRBORNE RADIOACTIVITY AREA" or "DANGER, AIRBORNE RADIOACTIVITY AREA."
Subp. 5. Use or storage area.
A licensee must post each area or room in which there is used or stored an amount of licensed material exceeding ten times the quantity of such material specified in part 4731.2800 with a conspicuous sign or signs bearing the radiation symbol and the words "CAUTION, RADIOACTIVE MATERIAL" or "DANGER, RADIOACTIVE MATERIAL."
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.2320 Exceptions to Posting Requirements
Subpart 1. Short-term storage.
A licensee is not required to post a caution sign in areas or rooms containing radioactive materials for periods of less than eight hours, if:
A. the materials are constantly attended during these periods by an individual who takes the precautions necessary to prevent the exposure of individuals to radiation or radioactive materials in excess of the limits established in parts 4731.2000 to 4731.2950; and
B. the area or room is subject to the licensee's control.
Subp. 2. Hospital; patient room.
A room or other area in a hospital that is occupied by a patient is not required to be posted with a caution sign if the patient could be released from licensee control under part 4731.4427.
Subp. 3. Sealed sources.
A room or area is not required to be posted with a caution sign because of the presence of a sealed source if the radiation level at 30 centimeters from the surface of the source container or housing does not exceed 0.005 rem (0.05 mSv) per hour.
Subp. 4. Hospital; teletherapy, remote afterloader, or gamma stereotactic radiosurgery units.
A room in a hospital or clinic that is used for teletherapy, remote afterloader, or gamma stereotactic radiosurgery units is exempt from the requirement to post a caution sign if:
A. access to the room is controlled according to part 4731.4467; and
B. personnel in attendance take necessary precautions to prevent the inadvertent exposure of workers, other patients, and members of the public to radiation in excess of the limits established in parts 4731.2000 to 4731.2950.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 36 SR 74
Minn. R. 4731.2330 Labeling Containers
Subpart 1. Label requirements.
A licensee must ensure that each container of licensed material bears a durable, clearly visible label bearing the radiation symbol and the words "CAUTION, RADIOACTIVE MATERIAL" or "DANGER, RADIOACTIVE MATERIAL." The label must provide sufficient information, such as the radionuclides present, an estimate of the quantity of radioactivity, the date for which the activity is estimated, radiation levels, kinds of materials, and mass enrichment, to permit individuals handling or using the containers or working in the vicinity of the containers to take precautions to avoid or minimize exposures.
Subp. 2. Label removal.
A licensee must, prior to removal or disposal of empty uncontaminated containers to unrestricted areas, remove or deface the radioactive material label or otherwise clearly indicate that the container no longer contains radioactive materials.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.2340 Labeling Requirements; Exemptions
A licensee is not required to label:
A. containers holding licensed material in quantities less than the quantities listed in part 4731.2800;
B. containers holding licensed material in concentrations less than those specified in part 4731.2750, subpart 7, Table 3;
C. containers attended to by an individual who takes the precautions necessary to prevent the exposure of individuals in excess of the limits established by parts 4731.2000 to 4731.2950;
D. containers when they are in transport and packaged and labeled according to DOT regulations. Labeling of packages containing radioactive materials is required by the DOT if the amount and type of radioactive material exceeds the limits for an excepted quantity or article as defined and limited under Code of Federal Regulations, title 49, sections 173.403 and 173.421 to 173.424;
E. containers that are accessible only to individuals authorized to handle or use them or to work in the vicinity of the containers, if the contents are identified to the individuals by a readily available written record. Containers of this type include containers in water-filled canals, storage vaults, or hot cells. The record must be retained as long as the containers are in use for the purpose indicated on the record; or
F. installed manufacturing or process equipment, such as reactor components, piping, or tanks.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.2350 Procedures for Receiving and Opening Packages
Subpart 1. Package receipt.
A licensee who expects to receive a package containing quantities of radioactive material in excess of a Type A quantity must make arrangements to receive:
A. the package when the carrier offers it for delivery; or
B. notification of the arrival of the package at the carrier's terminal and to take possession of the package expeditiously.
Subp. 2. Monitoring requirements.
A licensee must:
A. monitor the external surfaces of a package with a Radioactive White I, Yellow II, or Yellow III label as specified in Code of Federal Regulations, title 49, sections 172.403 and 172.436 to 172.440, for radioactive contamination unless the package contains only radioactive material in the form of a gas or in special form;
B. monitor the external surfaces of a package with a Radioactive White I, Yellow II, or Yellow III label as specified in Code of Federal Regulations, title 49, sections 172.403 and 172.436 to 172.440, for radiation levels unless the package contains quantities of radioactive material that are less than or equal to a Type A quantity; and
C. monitor all packages known to contain radioactive material for radioactive contamination and radiation levels if there is evidence of degradation of package integrity, such as packages that are crushed, wet, or damaged.
Subp. 3. Timing.
A licensee must perform the monitoring required under subpart 2 as soon as practical after receipt of the package, but not later than three hours after the package is received at the licensee's facility if it is received during the licensee's normal working hours, or not later than three hours from the beginning of the next working day if it is received after working hours.
Subp. 4. Immediate notification.
A licensee must immediately notify the final delivery carrier and the commissioner, by telephone, when:
A. removable radioactive surface contamination exceeds the limits of part 4731.0415, item I; or
B. external radiation levels exceed the limits under part 4731.0412. The telephone notification to the commissioner required under this subpart must be made according to part 4731.0200, subpart 5.
Subp. 5. Procedures required.
A licensee must:
A. establish, maintain, and retain written procedures for safely opening packages in which radioactive material is received; and
B. ensure that the procedures are followed and that due consideration is given to special instructions for the type of package being opened.
Subp. 6. Exemption.
A licensee transferring special form sources in licensee-owned or licensee-operated vehicles to and from a work site is exempt from the contamination monitoring requirements under subpart 2, but is not exempt from the survey requirement under subpart 2 for measuring radiation levels that is required to ensure that the source is still properly lodged in its shield.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 44 SR 239
Minn. R. 4731.2360 Leak Test Requirements
Subpart 1. Sealed sources.
Except as otherwise required, sealed sources must be tested for leakage at intervals not to exceed the intervals specified in the certificate of registration issued by the NRC or an agreement state.
Subp. 2. Sealed source received from another person.
In the absence of a certificate from a transferor indicating that a leak test has been made within the intervals specified in the certificate of registration issued by the NRC or an agreement state, prior to the transfer, a sealed source received from another person must not be put into use until tested and the test results received.
Subp. 3. Storage of sealed sources.
Sealed sources, except those containing radium, may be stored for a period of no more than three years without being tested for leakage and contamination. When sealed sources are removed from storage for use or for transfer to another person and have not been tested within the required leak test interval, they must be tested and test results received before use or transfer.
Subp. 4. Test samples.
Test samples must be taken from the source or from the surfaces of the device in which the source is mounted or stored on which radioactive contamination might be expected to accumulate.
Subp. 5. Level of detection.
The leak test must be capable of detecting the presence of 0.005 microcurie (185 becquerel) of radioactive material on the test sample.
A. If the test reveals the presence of 0.005 microcurie (185 becquerel) or more of removable contamination, the source must be removed immediately from service and decontaminated, repaired, or disposed of according to this chapter.
B. The licensee must file a report with the commissioner within five days. The report must include:
Subp. 6. Tests administered by.
Tests for leakage must be performed by the licensee or by other persons specifically licensed by the NRC or an agreement state to perform these services.
Subp. 7. Retention of leak test records.
A licensee shall retain leak test records for three years. The records must contain the model number and serial number, if assigned, of each source tested, the identity of each source radionuclide and its estimated activity, the measured activity of each test sample expressed in microcuries (becquerel), the date of the test, and the name or initials of the individual who performed the test.
Subp. 8. Sources exempt from testing.
A licensee need not perform a leak test on the following sources:
A. sources containing only radioactive material with a half-life of less than 30 days;
B. sources containing only radioactive material as a gas;
C. sources containing 100 microcuries (3.7 MBq) or less of beta or photon-emitting material or ten microcuries (0.37 MBq) or less of alpha-emitting material; and
D. seeds of iridium-192 encased in nylon ribbon.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 33 SR 1440; 36 SR 74
Minn. R. 4731.2400 Waste Disposal
Subpart 1. General requirements.
A licensee must dispose of licensed material only:
A. by transfer to an authorized recipient as provided under parts 4731.0525 to 4731.0840, 4731.2450, and 4731.3000 to 4731.3175 or in Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, parts 60, 63, and 72;
B. by decay in storage;
C. by release in effluents within the limits under part 4731.2090; or
D. as authorized under parts 4731.2410 to 4731.2440 or 4731.2460.
Subp. 2. Waste receipt.
A person must be specifically licensed to receive waste containing licensed material from other persons for:
A. treatment prior to disposal;
B. treatment or disposal by incineration; or
C. decay in storage.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 33 SR 1440
Minn. R. 4731.2405 Decay-in-Storage
Subpart 1. Disposal in ordinary trash.
A licensee may hold radioactive material with half-lives of less than or equal to 120 days for decay-in-storage before disposal in ordinary trash if the licensee:
A. monitors radioactive material at the surface before disposal;
B. determines that its radioactivity cannot be distinguished from the background radiation level with an appropriate radiation detection survey meter set on its most sensitive scale and with no interposed shielding; and
C. removes or obliterates all radiation labels, except for radiation labels on materials that are within containers and that will be managed as biomedical waste after they are released from the licensee.
Subp. 2. Record retention.
The licensee shall retain a record of each disposal for three years. The record must include:
A. the date of the disposal;
B. the date on which the radioactive material was placed in storage;
C. the radionuclide with the longest half-life;
D. the manufacturer's name, model number, and serial number of the survey instrument used, or a unique survey meter identification that can be cross-referenced to a specific manufacturer, model, and serial number;
E. the background radiation level;
F. the radiation level measured at the surface of each waste container; and
G. the name of the individual who performed the disposal.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 33 SR 1440
Minn. R. 4731.2410 Approval of Proposed Disposal Procedures
A licensee or applicant for a license may apply to the commissioner for approval of proposed procedures, not otherwise authorized in this chapter, to dispose of licensed material generated in the licensee's or applicant's activities. An application must include:
A. a description of the waste containing licensed material to be disposed of, including the physical and chemical properties important to risk evaluation, and the proposed manner and conditions of waste disposal;
B. an analysis and evaluation of pertinent information on the nature of the environment;
C. the nature and location of other potentially affected licensed and unlicensed facilities; and
D. analyses and procedures to ensure that doses are maintained ALARA and within the dose limits under parts 4731.2000 to 4731.2950.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.2420 Disposal by Release Into Sanitary Sewerage
Subpart 1. Discharge limitations.
A licensee may discharge licensed material into sanitary sewerage if:
A. the material is readily soluble in water or is a biological material that readily disperses in water;
B. the quantity of licensed or other radioactive material that the licensee releases into the sewer in one month divided by the average monthly volume of water released into the sewer by the licensee does not exceed the concentration listed in part 4731.2750, subpart 7, Table 3;
C. if more than one radionuclide is released, the following conditions are also satisfied:
D. the total quantity of licensed and other radioactive material that the licensee releases into the sanitary sewerage system in a year does not exceed five curies (185 GBq) of hydrogen-3, one curie (37 GBq) of carbon-14, and one curie (37 GBq) of all other radioactive materials combined.
Subp. 2. Excreta exemption.
Excreta from individuals undergoing medical diagnosis or therapy with radioactive material are not subject to subpart 1.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.2430 Treatment or Disposal by Incineration
A licensee may treat or dispose of licensed material by incineration only:
A. if the material is in a form and concentration specified in part 4731.2440; or
B. as specifically approved by the commissioner according to part 4731.2410.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.2440 Disposal of Specific Wastes
A. A licensee may dispose of the following licensed material as if it were not radioactive:
B. A licensee may not dispose of tissue under item A, subitem (2), in a manner that would permit its use as food for humans or as animal feed.
C. A licensee must maintain records of disposal under this part according to part 4731.2560.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.2450 Transfer for Disposal; Manifests
Subpart 1. Purpose.
The requirements of this part and part 4731.2950 are designed to:
A. control transfers of low-level radioactive waste by any waste generator, waste collector, or waste processor licensee who ships low-level waste directly or indirectly through a waste collector or waste processor to a licensed low-level waste land disposal facility;
B. establish a manifest tracking system; and
C. supplement existing requirements concerning transfers and record keeping for those wastes.
Subp. 2. Manifest required.
A. A licensee shipping radioactive waste intended for ultimate disposal at a licensed land disposal facility must document the information required by the NRC's Uniform Low-Level Radioactive Waste Manifest and transfer the manifest information to the intended consignee according to part 4731.2950.
B. A shipment manifest must include a certification by the waste generator according to part 4731.2950, subpart 9.
Subp. 3. Control and tracking.
A person involved in the transfer for disposal and disposal of waste, including a waste generator, waste collector, waste processor, and disposal facility operator, must comply with part 4731.2950, subparts 10 to 14.
Subp. 4. Shipping byproduct material.
Any licensee shipping byproduct material, as defined in part 4731.0100, subpart 32, items C and D, intended for ultimate disposal at a land disposal facility licensed under Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, part 61, must document the information on the NRC's Uniform Low-Level Radioactive Waste Manifest and transfer this recorded manifest information to the intended consignee according to part 4731.2950.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 33 SR 1440
Minn. R. 4731.2460 Disposal of Certain Byproduct Material
Subpart 1. Disposal of licensed material.
Licensed material as defined in part 4731.0100, subpart 32, items C and D, may be disposed of according to Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, part 61, even though it is not defined as low-level radioactive waste. Therefore, any licensed byproduct material being disposed of at a facility, or transferred for ultimate disposal under Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, part 61, must meet the requirements of part 4731.2450.
Subp. 2. Disposal of byproduct material.
A licensee may dispose of byproduct material as defined in part 4731.0100, subpart 32, items C and D, at a disposal facility authorized to dispose of such material according to federal or state solid or hazardous waste law, including the Solid Waste Disposal Act, as authorized under the Energy Policy Act of 2005.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 33 SR 1440
Minn. R. 4731.2500 Records; Radiation Protection Programs
A. A licensee must maintain records of the radiation protection program, including:
B. A licensee must retain the records under item A, subitem (1), until the commissioner terminates each pertinent license requiring the record. The licensee must retain the records under item A, subitem (2), for three years after the record is made.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.2510 Records; Surveys
Subpart 1. Record maintenance; three years.
A licensee must maintain records showing the results of surveys and calibrations required under parts 4731.2200 and 4731.2350, subpart 2, for three years after the record is made. The record must include:
A. the date of the measurements;
B. the manufacturer's name, model number, and serial number for the instrument used to measure radiation or contamination levels;
C. the radiation or contamination level; and
D. the name or initials of the individual who performed the surveys or calibrations.
Subp. 2. Record maintenance; license termination.
A licensee must retain the following records until the commissioner terminates each pertinent license requiring the record:
A. records of the results of surveys to determine the dose from external sources and used, in the absence of or in combination with individual monitoring data, in the assessment of the individual dose equivalents. This includes those records of results of surveys to determine the dose from external sources and used, in the absence of or in combination with individual monitoring data, in the assessment of individual dose equivalents required under the standards for protection against radiation in effect prior to January 1, 1994;
B. records of the results of measurements and calculations used to determine individual intakes of radioactive material and used in the assessment of internal dose. This includes those records of the results of measurements and calculations used to determine individual intakes of radioactive material and used in the assessment of internal dose required under the standards for protection against radiation in effect prior to January 1, 1994;
C. records showing the results of air sampling, surveys, and bioassays required under part 4731.2260, subpart 4, items A and B. This includes those records showing the results of air sampling, surveys, and bioassays required under the standards for protection against radiation in effect prior to January 1, 1994; and
D. records of the results of measurements and calculations used to evaluate the release of radioactive effluents to the environment. This includes the records of the results of measurements and calculations used to evaluate the release of radioactive effluents to the environment required under the standards for protection against radiation in effect before January 1, 1994.
Subp. 3. Instrument identification.
To satisfy the requirements in subpart 1, item B, licensees may assign a unique identification to an instrument provided:
A. the manufacturer's name, model number, and serial number for each instrument is maintained and available for inspection by the department; and
B. the unique identification is indicated on each instrument.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 33 SR 1440; 36 SR 74
Minn. R. 4731.2520 Determination of Prior Occupational Dose
Subpart 1. Determining occupational dose.
For each individual who is likely to receive in a year an occupational dose requiring monitoring under part 4731.2210, a licensee must determine the occupational radiation dose received during the current year.
Subp. 2. Planned special exposures.
Before permitting an individual to participate in a planned special exposure, a licensee must determine:
A. the internal and external doses from all previous planned special exposures; and
B. all doses in excess of the limits, including doses received during accidents and emergencies, received during the lifetime of the individual.
Subp. 3. Compliance methods.
In complying with the requirements of subparts 1 and 2, a licensee may:
A. accept, as a record of the occupational dose that the individual received during the current year, a written signed statement from the individual, or from the individual's most recent employer for work involving radiation exposure, that discloses the nature and the amount of any occupational dose that the individual may have received during the current year;
B. accept, as the record of cumulative radiation dose, an up-to-date cumulative occupational exposure form as described under subpart 4, or its equivalent, signed by the individual and countersigned by an appropriate official of the most recent employer for work involving radiation exposure, or the individual's current employer if the individual is not employed by the licensee; and
C. obtain reports of the individual's dose equivalent from the most recent employer for work involving radiation exposure, or the individual's current employer if the individual is not employed by the licensee, by telephone, telegram, electronic media, or letter. The licensee must request a written verification of the dose data if the authenticity of the transmitted report cannot be established.
Subp. 4. Record keeping.
A licensee must record the exposure history of each individual, as required by subpart 1 or 2, on a cumulative occupational exposure record form prescribed by the commissioner, or other clear and legible record including all of the information required by the commissioner's form. The form or record must show each period in which the individual received occupational exposure to radiation or radioactive material and must be signed by the individual who received the exposure. For each period for which the licensee obtains reports, the licensee must use the dose shown in the report in preparing the exposure record. For any period in which the licensee does not obtain a report, the licensee must place a notation on the record indicating the periods and time for which data are not available.
Subp. 5. Assumptions.
If a licensee is unable to obtain a complete record of an individual's current and previously accumulated occupational dose, the licensee must assume:
A. in establishing administrative controls under part 4731.2020, subpart 6, for the current year, that the allowable dose limit for the individual is reduced by 1.25 rems (12.5 mSv) for each quarter for which records are unavailable and the individual was engaged in activities that could have resulted in occupational radiation exposure; and
B. that the individual is not available for planned special exposures.
Subp. 6. Record retention.
A licensee must retain the records under subpart 4 until the commissioner terminates each pertinent license requiring the records. A licensee must retain records used in preparing the cumulative occupational exposure record form, or its equivalent, for three years after the record was made. This includes records required under the standards for protection against radiation in effect prior to January 1, 1994.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 33 SR 1440; 36 SR 74
Minn. R. 4731.2530 Records; Planned Special Exposures
Subpart 1. Required records.
For each planned special exposure under part 4731.2060, a licensee must maintain records that describe:
A. the exceptional circumstances requiring the use of a planned special exposure;
B. the name of the management official who authorized the planned special exposure and a copy of the signed authorization;
C. what actions were necessary;
D. why the actions were necessary;
E. how doses were maintained ALARA; and
F. what individual and collective doses were expected to result and the doses actually received in the planned special exposure.
Subp. 2. Retention period.
A licensee must retain records under this part until the commissioner terminates each pertinent license requiring the records.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.2540 Records; Individual Monitoring Results
Subpart 1. Required records.
A licensee must maintain records of doses received by all individuals for whom monitoring is required under part 4731.2210 and records of doses received during planned special exposures, accidents, and emergency conditions. Assessments of dose equivalent and records made using units in effect before January 3, 2005, need not be changed. The records must include, when applicable:
A. the deep dose equivalent to the whole body, lens dose equivalent, shallow dose equivalent to the skin, and shallow dose equivalent to the extremities;
B. the estimated intake of radionuclides according to part 4731.2030;
C. the committed effective dose equivalent assigned to the intake of radionuclides;
D. the specific information used to assess the committed effective dose equivalent according to part 4731.2050, subparts 1 and 3, and, when required, part 4731.2210;
E. the total effective dose equivalent, when required under part 4731.2030; and
F. the total of the deep dose equivalent and the committed dose to the organ receiving the highest total dose.
Subp. 2. Record keeping frequency.
A licensee must make entries of the records required under subpart 1 at least annually.
Subp. 3. Record format.
A licensee must maintain the records required under subpart 1 on the NRC's Form 5, or its equivalent, according to the instructions for the form, or in clear and legible records containing all the information required by the NRC form.
Subp. 4. Privacy protection.
The records required under this part must be protected from public disclosure because of their personal privacy nature. The records are protected by most state privacy laws and, when transferred to the commissioner, are protected by the Minnesota Data Practices Act, Minnesota Statutes, chapter 13.
Subp. 5. Embryo/fetus records.
A licensee must maintain the records of dose to an embryo/fetus with the records of dose to the declared pregnant woman. The declaration of pregnancy must be kept on file, but may be maintained separately from the dose records.
Subp. 6. Retention period.
A licensee must retain the records required under this part until the commissioner terminates each pertinent license requiring the record. This includes records required under the standards for protection against radiation in effect prior to January 1, 1994.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.2550 Records; Dose to Individual Members of the Public
A licensee must maintain records sufficient to demonstrate compliance with the dose limit for individual members of the public under part 4731.2090. A licensee must retain the records required under this part until the commissioner terminates each pertinent license requiring the record.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.2560 Records; Waste Disposal
A. A licensee must maintain records of:
B. A licensee must retain the records required under this part until the commissioner terminates each pertinent license requiring the record. Requirements for disposition of the records, before license termination, are found in parts 4731.0625, 4731.0825, and 4731.3115, and in Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, section 72.80, for activities licensed under this chapter.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.2600 Reports; Theft or Loss of Licensed Material
Subpart 1. Telephone reports.
A licensee must report to the commissioner by telephone, according to part 4731.0200, subpart 5, as follows:
A. immediately after its occurrence becomes known to the licensee, any lost, stolen, or missing licensed material in an aggregate quantity equal to or greater than 1,000 times the quantity under part 4731.2800, under such circumstances that it appears to the licensee that an exposure could result to persons in unrestricted areas; or
B. within 30 days after an occurrence of any lost, stolen, or missing licensed material becomes known to the licensee, all licensed material in a quantity greater than ten times the quantity under part 4731.2800 that is still missing at the time of the report.
Subp. 2. Written reports.
A licensee required to make a report under subpart 1 must, within 30 days after making the telephone report, make a written report to the commissioner that includes:
A. a description of the licensed material involved, including kind, quantity, and chemical and physical form;
B. a description of the circumstances under which the loss or theft occurred;
C. a statement of disposition, or probable disposition, of the licensed material involved;
D. exposures of individuals to radiation, circumstances under which the exposures occurred, and the possible total effective dose equivalent to persons in unrestricted areas;
E. actions that have been taken, or will be taken, to recover the material; and
F. procedures or measures that have been, or will be, adopted to ensure against a recurrence of the loss or theft of licensed material.
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, 44 SR 239]
Subp. 4. Additional information.
Subsequent to filing a written report, a licensee must report any additional substantive information on the loss or theft within 30 days after the licensee learns of the information.
Subp. 5. Individual names.
A licensee must prepare any report filed with the commissioner under this part so that names of individuals who may have received exposure to radiation are stated in a separate and detachable part of the report.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 32 SR 831; 44 SR 239
Minn. R. 4731.2610 Notification of Incidents
Subpart 1. Immediate notification required.
Notwithstanding any other requirements for notification, a licensee must immediately report any event involving radioactive material possessed by the licensee that may have caused or threatens to cause:
A. an individual to receive:
B. the release of radioactive material, inside or outside of a restricted area, so that, had an individual been present for 24 hours, the individual could have received an intake of five times the annual limit on intake. This item does not apply to locations where personnel are not normally stationed during routine operations, such as hot cells or process enclosures.
Subp. 2. 24-hour notification required.
A licensee must, within 24 hours of discovery of the event, report any event involving loss of control of a licensed material possessed by the licensee that may have caused or threatens to cause:
A. an individual to receive in a period of 24 hours:
B. the release of radioactive material, inside or outside of a restricted area, so that, had an individual been present for 24 hours, the individual could have received an intake in excess of one occupational annual limit on intake. This item does not apply to locations where personnel are not normally stationed during routine operation, such as hot cells or process enclosures.
Subp. 3. Individual names.
A licensee must prepare any report filed with the commissioner under this part so that names of individuals who have received exposure to radiation or radioactive material are stated in a separate and detachable part of the report.
Subp. 4. Reporting method.
Licensees must make the reports required under this part to the commissioner by telephone according to part 4731.0200, subpart 5.
Subp. 5. Exception.
This part does not apply to doses that result from planned special exposures, that are within the limits for planned special exposures, and that are reported under part 4731.2630.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 44 SR 239
Minn. R. 4731.2620 Reports; Radiation Exposures, Levels, and Concentrations Exceeding Constraints or Limits
Subpart 1. Reportable events.
In addition to the notification required under part 4731.2610, a licensee must submit a written report within 30 days after learning of:
A. an incident for which notification is required under part 4731.2610;
B. doses in excess of:
C. levels of radiation or concentrations of radioactive material in:
D. for licensees subject to the provisions of the Environmental Protection Agency's generally applicable environmental radiation standards under Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, part 190, levels of radiation or releases of radioactive material in excess of those standards or of license conditions related to those standards.
Subp. 2. Contents of reports.
A report required under subpart 1 must describe the extent of exposure of individuals to radiation and radioactive material, including, as appropriate:
A. estimates of each individual's dose;
B. the levels of radiation and concentrations of radioactive material involved;
C. the cause of the elevated exposures, dose rates, or concentrations; and
D. corrective steps taken or planned to ensure against a recurrence, including the schedule for achieving conformance with applicable limits, ALARA constraints, generally applicable environmental standards, and associated license conditions.
Subp. 3. Individual information.
A. A report filed under subpart 1 must include, for each occupationally overexposed individual:
B. With respect to the limit for the embryo/fetus under part 4731.2080, the identifiers must be those of the declared pregnant woman.
C. The report must be prepared so that the information under this subpart is stated in a separate and detachable part of the report.
Subp. 4. Reporting method.
All licensees, other than those holding an operating license for a nuclear power plant, who make reports according to this part must submit the report in writing to the commissioner according to part 4731.2610.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 29 SR 755; 40 SR 145
Minn. R. 4731.2630 Reports; Planned Special Exposures
A licensee must submit a written report to the commissioner within 30 days following any planned special exposure conducted according to part 4731.2060. The report must inform the commissioner that a planned special exposure was conducted, indicate the date the planned special exposure occurred, and provide the information required under part 4731.2530.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.2640 Reports to Individuals; Dose Limits Exceeded
When a licensee is required, under part 4731.2620 or 4731.2630 to report to the commissioner any exposure of an identified occupationally exposed individual or an identified member of the public to radiation or radioactive material, the licensee must also provide the individual a report on the individual's exposure data included in the report to the commissioner. The report must be transmitted at a time no later than the transmittal to the commissioner.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 33 SR 1440
Minn. R. 4731.2650 [Repealed, 40 SR 145]
[Repealed, 40 SR 145]
Minn. R. 4731.2700 Assigned Protection Factors for Respirators
Subpart 1. Applicability.
A. The assigned protection factors in subpart 2 apply only in a respiratory protection program that meets the requirements of this chapter. They are applicable only to airborne radiological hazards and may not be appropriate to circumstances when chemical or other respiratory hazards exist instead of, or in addition to, radioactive hazards. Selection and use of respirators for such circumstances must also comply with United States Department of Labor regulations.
B. Radioactive contaminants for which the concentration values in part 4731.2750, subpart 7, Table 1, column 3, are based on internal dose due to inhalation may, in addition, present external exposure hazards at higher concentrations. Under these circumstances, limitations on occupancy may have to be governed by external dose limits.
Subp. 2. Table of protection factors.
A. Air purifying respirators [particulate only]
B. Atmosphere supplying respirators [particulate, gases and vapors]:
C. Combination respirators:
Subp. 3. Explanations.
A. Subpart 2, item A: Air purifying respirators with APF<100 must be equipped with particulate filters that are at least 95 percent efficient. Air purifying respirators with APF=100 must be equipped with particulate filters that are at least 99 percent efficient. Air purifying respirators with APF> 100 must be equipped with particulate filters that are at least 99.97 percent efficient.
B. Subpart 2, item A: A licensee may apply to the commissioner for the use of an APF greater than 1 for sorbent cartridges as protection against airborne radioactive gases and vapors, such as radioiodine.
C. Subpart 2, item A, subitem (1): Licensees may permit individuals to use this type of respirator who have not been medically screened or fit tested on the device, provided that no credit be taken for their use in estimating intake or dose. It is also recognized that it is difficult to perform an effective positive or negative pressure pre-use user seal check on this type of device. All other respiratory protection program requirements under part 4731.2260 apply. An assigned protection factor has not been assigned for these devices. However, an APF equal to ten may be used if the licensee can demonstrate a fit factor of at least 100 by use of a validated or evaluated, qualitative or quantitative fit test.
D. Subpart 2, item A, subitem (2): Under-chin type only. No distinction is made in this part between elastomeric half-masks with replaceable cartridges and those designed with the filter medium as an integral part of the facepiece, for example, disposable or reusable disposable. Both types are acceptable so long as the seal area of the latter contains some substantial type of seal-enhancing material such as rubber or plastic, the two or more suspension straps are adjustable, the filter medium is at least 95 percent efficient, and all other requirements of this chapter are met.
E. Subpart 2, item B: The assigned protection factors for gases and vapors are not applicable to radioactive contaminants that present an absorption or submersion hazard. For tritium oxide vapor, approximately one-third of the intake occurs by absorption through the skin so that an overall protection factor of 3 is appropriate when atmosphere-supplying respirators are used to protect against tritium oxide. Exposure to radioactive noble gases is not considered a significant respiratory hazard and protective actions for these contaminants should be based on external (submersion) dose considerations.
F. Subpart 2, item B, subitem (1), unit (i): A National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health approval schedule is currently not available for atmosphere supplying suits. This equipment may be used in an acceptable respiratory protection program as long as all the other minimum program requirements under part 4731.2260, with the exception of fit testing, are met.
G. Subpart 2, item B, subitem (2), units (a) and (c): A licensee should implement institutional controls to ensure that these devices are not used in areas immediately dangerous to life or health.
H. Subpart 2, item B, subitem (2), units (b) and (d): This type of respirator may be used as an emergency device in unknown concentrations for protection against inhalation hazards. External radiation hazards and other limitations to permitted exposure such as skin absorption must be taken into account in these circumstances. The device may not be used by any individual who experiences perceptible outward leakage of breathing gas while wearing the device.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.2705 National Source Tracking Transaction Reporting
Subpart 1. Report required.
Each licensee who manufactures, transfers, receives, disassembles, or disposes of a nationally tracked source must complete and submit a National Source Tracking Transaction Report as specified in subparts 2 to 6 for each type of transaction.
Subp. 2. Manufacturing report requirements.
Each licensee who manufactures a nationally tracked source must complete and submit a National Source Tracking Transaction Report. The report must include the following information:
A. the name, address, and license number of the reporting licensee;
B. the name of the individual preparing the report;
C. the manufacturer, model, and serial number of the source;
D. the radioactive material in the source;
E. the initial source strength in becquerels or curies at the time of manufacture; and
F. the manufacture date of the source.
Subp. 3. Transfer report requirements.
Each licensee that transfers a nationally tracked source to another person must complete and submit a National Source Tracking Transaction Report. The report must include the following information:
A. the name, address, and license number of the reporting licensee;
B. the name of the individual preparing the report;
C. the name and license number of the recipient facility and the shipping address;
D. the manufacturer, model, and serial number of the source or, if not available, other information to uniquely identify the source;
E. the radioactive material in the source;
F. the initial or current source strength in becquerels or curies;
G. the date for which the source strength is reported;
H. the shipping date;
I. the estimated arrival date; and
J. for nationally tracked sources transferred as waste under a Uniform Low-Level Radioactive Waste Manifest, the waste manifest number and the container identification of the container with the nationally tracked source.
Subp. 4. Material received report requirements.
Each licensee that receives a nationally tracked source must complete and submit a National Source Tracking Transaction Report. The report must include the following information:
A. the name, address, and license number of the reporting licensee;
B. the name of the individual preparing the report;
C. the name, address, and license number of the person that provided the source;
D. the manufacturer, model, and serial number of the source or, if not available, other information to uniquely identify the source;
E. the radioactive material in the source;
F. the initial or current source strength in becquerels or curies;
G. the date for which the source strength is reported;
H. the date of receipt; and
I. for material received under a Uniform Low-Level Radioactive Waste Manifest, the waste manifest number and the container identification with the nationally tracked source.
Subp. 5. Disassemble report requirements.
Each licensee that disassembles a nationally tracked source must complete and submit a National Source Tracking Transaction Report. The report must include the following information:
A. the name, address, and license number of the reporting licensee;
B. the name of the individual preparing the report;
C. the manufacturer, model, and serial number of the source or, if not available, other information to uniquely identify the source;
D. the radioactive material in the source;
E. the initial or current source strength in becquerels or curies;
F. the date for which the source strength is reported; and
G. the disassemble date of the source.
Subp. 6. Disposal report requirements.
Each licensee who disposes of a nationally tracked source must complete and submit a National Source Tracking Transaction Report. The report must include the following information:
A. the name, address, and license number of the reporting licensee;
B. the name of the individual preparing the report;
C. the waste manifest number;
D. the container identification with the nationally tracked source;
E. the date of disposal; and
F. the method of disposal.
Subp. 7. Report submission.
The reports discussed in subparts 2 to 6 must be submitted by the close of the next business day after the transaction. A single report may be submitted for multiple sources and transactions. The reports must be submitted to the National Source Tracking System by:
A. using the online National Source Tracking System;
B. electronically using a computer-readable format;
C. facsimile;
D. mail to the address on the National Source Tracking Transaction Report Form (NRC Form 748); or
E. telephone with follow-up by facsimile or mail.
Subp. 8. Report corrections.
Each licensee must correct any error in previously filed reports or file a new report for any missed transaction within five business days of the discovery of the error or missed transaction. Errors may be detected by a variety of methods including administrative reviews or by physical inventories required by regulation. In addition, each licensee must reconcile the inventory of nationally tracked sources possessed by the licensee against that licensee's data in the National Source Tracking System. The reconciliation must be conducted during the month of January in each year. The reconciliation process must include resolving any discrepancies between the National Source Tracking System and the actual inventory by filing the reports identified by subparts 2 to 6. By January 31 of each year, each licensee must submit to the National Source Tracking System confirmation that the data in the National Source Tracking System is correct.
Subp. 9.
[Repealed, 49 SR 1193]
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 33 SR 1440
Minn. R. 4731.2750 Annual Limits on Intake and Derived Air Concentrations
Subpart 1. General explanation.
For each radionuclide, subpart 7, Table 1, indicates the chemical form that is to be used for selecting the appropriate annual limit on intake (ALI) or derived air concentration (DAC) value. The ALIs and DACs for inhalation are given for an aerosol with an activity median aerodynamic diameter (AMAD) of 1 µm and for three classes (D,W,Y) of radioactive material, which refer to their retention (approximately days, weeks, or years) in the pulmonary region of the lung. This classification applies to a range of clearance half-times for D of less than ten days, for W from ten to 100 days, and for Y greater than 100 days. The class (D, W, or Y) given in the column headed "Atomic Number (AN), Radionuclide, and Class" applies only to the inhalation ALIs and DACs given in subpart 7, Table 1, columns 2 and 3. Subpart 7, Table 2, provides concentration limits for airborne and liquid effluents released to the general environment. Subpart 7, Table 3, provides concentration limits for discharges to sanitary sewer systems.
Subp. 2. Notation.
The values in subpart 7, Tables 1, 2, and 3, are presented in the computer "E" notation. In this notation, a value of 6E-02 represents a value of 6 x 10-2 or 0.06, 6E+2 represents 6 x 102 or 600, and 6E+0 represents 6 x 100 or 6.
Subp. 3. Table 1 explanation; occupational values.
A. The columns in subpart 7, Table 1, are applicable to occupational exposure to radioactive material. Column 1 is the oral ingestion ALI, expressed in µCi. Column 2 is the inhalation ALI, expressed in µCi. Column 3 is the inhalation DAC, expressed in µCi/ml.
B. The ALIs in this part are the annual intakes of a given radionuclide by reference man that would result in:
C. The stochastic ALIs were derived to result in a risk, due to irradiation of organs and tissues, comparable to the risk associated with deep dose equivalent to the whole body of five rems.
D. The derivation includes multiplying the committed dose equivalent to an organ or tissue by a weighting factor, WT. This weighting factor is the proportion of the risk of stochastic effects resulting from irradiation of the organ or tissue, T, to the total risk of stochastic effects when the whole body is irradiated uniformly. The values of WT are listed under part 4731.0100, subpart 261. The nonstochastic ALIs were derived to avoid nonstochastic effects, such as prompt damage to tissue or reduction in organ function.
E. A value of WT=0.06 is applicable to each of the five organs or tissues in the "remainder" category receiving the highest dose equivalents and the dose equivalents of all other remaining tissues may be disregarded.
F. The following parts of the gastrointestinal tract are to be treated as four separate organs: stomach, small intestine, upper large intestine, and lower large intestine.
G. The dose equivalents for extremities (hands and forearms, feet and lower legs), skin, and lens of the eye are not considered in computing the committed effective dose equivalent, but are subject to limits that must be met separately.
H. When an ALI is defined by the stochastic dose limit, this value alone is given. When an ALI is determined by the nonstochastic dose limit to an organ, the organ or tissue to which the limit applies is shown, and the ALI for the stochastic limit is shown in parentheses. Abbreviated organ or tissue designations are used: LLI = lower large intestine wall; Stom = stomach wall; Blad = bladder wall; Bone = bone surface; Kid = kidneys; and Thyr = thyroid.
I. The use of the ALIs listed first, the more limiting of the stochastic and nonstochastic ALIs, will ensure that nonstochastic effects are avoided and that the risk of stochastic effects is limited to an acceptably low value. If, in a particular situation involving a radionuclide for which the nonstochastic ALI is limiting, use of that nonstochastic ALI is considered unduly conservative, a licensee may use the stochastic ALI to determine the committed effective dose equivalent. However, the licensee must also ensure that the 50-rem dose equivalent limit for any organ or tissue is not exceeded by the sum of the external deep dose equivalent plus the internal committed dose to that organ (not the effective dose). For the case where there is no external dose contribution, this would be demonstrated if the sum of the fractions of the nonstochastic ALIs (ALIns) that contribute to the committed dose equivalent to the organ receiving the highest dose does not exceed unity: Σαµρ× (intake(in µCi) of each radionuclide/ALIns) < 1.0. If there is an external deep dose equivalent contribution of Hd, then this sum must be less than 1-(Hd/50) instead of being less than 1.0.
J. The DAC values are derived limits intended to control chronic occupational exposures. The relationship between the DAC and the ALI is given by: DAC = ALI(in µCi)/(2000 hours per working year x 60 minutes/hour x 2 x 104 ml per minute) = [ALI/2.4 x 109] µCi/ml where 2 x 104 ml is the volume of air breathed per minute at work by reference man under working conditions of light work.
K. The DAC values relate to one of two modes of exposure: either external submersion or the internal committed dose equivalents resulting from inhalation of radioactive materials. Derived air concentrations based upon submersion are for immersion in a semi-infinite cloud of uniform concentration and apply to each radionuclide separately.
L. The ALI and DAC values relate to exposure to the single radionuclide named, but also include contributions from the in-growth of any daughter radionuclide produced in the body by the decay of the parent. However, intakes that include both the parent and daughter radionuclides should be treated by the general method appropriate for mixtures.
M. The values of ALI and DAC do not apply directly when the individual both ingests and inhales a radionuclide, when the individual is exposed to a mixture of radionuclides by either inhalation or ingestion or both, or when the individual is exposed to both internal and external irradiation.
N. When an individual is exposed to radioactive materials that fall under several of the translocation classifications (Class D, W, or Y) of the same radionuclide, the exposure may be evaluated as if it were a mixture of different radionuclides.
O. The classification of a compound as Class D, W, or Y is based on the chemical form of the compound and does not take into account the radiological half-life of different radioisotopes. For this reason, values are given for Class D, W, and Y compounds, even for very short-lived radionuclides.
Subp. 4. Table 2 explanation; effluent concentrations.
A. The columns in subpart 7, Table 2, are applicable to the assessment and control of dose to the public, particularly in the implementation of part 4731.2095. Column 1 is the effluent concentration limit for air, expressed in µCi/ml. Column 2 is the effluent concentration limit for water, expressed in µCi/ml. The concentration values given in subpart 7, Table 2, columns 1 and 2, are equivalent to the radionuclide concentrations that, if inhaled or ingested continuously over the course of a year, would produce a total effective dose equivalent of 0.05 rem (50 mrem or 0.5 mSv).
B. Consideration of nonstochastic limits has not been included in deriving the air and water effluent concentration limits because nonstochastic effects are presumed not to occur at the dose levels established for individual members of the public. For radionuclides, where the nonstochastic limit was governing in deriving the occupational DAC, the stochastic ALI was used in deriving the corresponding airborne effluent limit in subpart 7, Table 2. For this reason, the DAC and airborne effluent limits are not always proportional as they were in previous Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, sections 20.1 to 20.602, Appendix B.
C. The air concentration values in subpart 7, Table 2, column 1, were derived by one of two methods. For those radionuclides for which the stochastic limit is governing, the occupational stochastic inhalation ALI was divided by 2.4 x 109 (ml), relating the inhalation ALI to the DAC, and then divided by a factor of 300. The factor of 300 includes the following components: a factor of 50 to relate the five-rem annual occupational dose limit to the 0.1-rem limit for members of the public; a factor of three to adjust for the difference in exposure time and inhalation rate for a worker and for members of the public; and a factor of two to adjust the occupational values derived for adults so that they are applicable to other age groups.
D. For those radionuclides for which submersion (external dose) is limiting, the occupational DAC in subpart 7, Table 1, column 3, was divided by 219. The factor of 219 is composed of a factor of 50, according to item C, and a factor of 4.38 relating occupational exposure for 2,000 hours per year to full-time exposure (8,760 hours per year). An additional factor of two for age considerations is not warranted in the submersion case.
E. The water concentrations were derived by taking the most restrictive occupational stochastic oral ingestion ALI and dividing by 7.3 x 107. The factor of 7.3 x 107(ml) includes the following components: the factors of 50 and two, according to item C, and a factor of 7.3 x 105(ml), which is the annual water intake of reference man.
F. Subpart 8 provides groupings of radionuclides that are applicable to unknown mixtures of radionuclides. These groupings, including occupational inhalation ALIs and DACs, air and water effluent concentrations and sewerage, require demonstrating that the most limiting radionuclides in successive classes are absent. The limit for the unknown mixture is defined when the presence of one of the listed radionuclides cannot be definitely excluded, either from knowledge of the radionuclide composition of the source or from actual measurements.
Subp. 5. Table 3 explanation; releases to sewers.
Subpart 7, Table 3, gives the monthly average concentrations for release to sanitary sewers, expressed in µCi/ml. The monthly average concentrations for release to sanitary sewers are applicable to part 4731.2420. The concentration values were derived by taking the most restrictive occupational stochastic oral ingestion ALI and dividing by 7.3 x 106(ml). The factor of 7.3 x 106(ml) is composed of a factor of 7.3 x 105(ml), the annual water intake by reference man, and a factor of ten, such that the concentrations, if the sewage released by the licensee were the only source of water ingested by a reference man during a year, would result in a committed effective dose equivalent of 0.5 rem.
Subp. 6. List of elements.
Subp. 7. Table of ALIs and DACs.
FOOTNOTES:
1 "Submersion" means that values given are for submersion in a hemispherical semi-infinite cloud of airborne material.
2 These radionuclides have radiological half-lives of less than two hours. The total effective dose equivalent received during operations with these radionuclides might include a significant contribution from external exposure. The DAC values for all radionuclides, other than those designated Class "Submersion," are based upon the committed effective dose equivalent due to the intake of the radionuclide into the body and do not include potentially significant contributions to dose equivalent from external exposures. The licensee may substitute 1E-7 µCi/ml for the listed DAC to account for the submersion dose prospectively, but must use individual monitoring devices or other radiation measuring instruments that measure external exposure to demonstrate compliance with the limits according to part 4731.2040.
3 For soluble mixtures of U-238, U-234, and U-235 in air, chemical toxicity may be the limiting factor according to part 4731.2020, subpart 5. If the percent by weight (enrichment) of U-235 is not greater than five, the concentration value for a 40-hour work week is 0.2 milligrams uranium per cubic meter of air average. For any enrichment, the product of the average concentration and time of exposure during a 40-hour work week must not exceed 8E-3 (SA) µCi-hr/ml, where SA is the specific activity of the uranium inhaled. The specific activity for natural uranium is 6.77E-7 curies per gram U. The specific activity for other mixtures of U-238, U-235, and U-234, if not known, is:
SA = [0.4 + 0.38 (enrichment) + 0.0034 (enrichment) 2] E-6, enrichment > 0.72
where enrichment is the percentage by weight of U-235, expressed as percent.
Subp. 8. Additional explanations.
A. If the identity of each radionuclide in a mixture is known, but the concentration of one or more of the radionuclides in the mixture is not known, the DAC for the mixture is the most restrictive DAC of any radionuclide in the mixture.
B. If the identity of each radionuclide in the mixture is not known, but it is known that certain radionuclides specified in this part are not present in the mixture, the inhalation ALI, DAC, and effluent and sewage concentrations for the mixture are the lowest values specified in this part for any radionuclide that is not known to be absent from the mixture; or
C. If a mixture of radionuclides consists of uranium and its daughters in ore dust (10 µm AMAD particle distribution assumed) prior to chemical separation of the uranium from the ore, the following values may be used for the DAC of the mixture: 6E-11 µCi of gross alpha activity from uranium-238, uranium-234, thorium-230, and radium-226 per milliliter of air; 3E-11 µCi of natural uranium per milliliter of air; or 45 micrograms of natural uranium per cubic meter of air.
D. If the identity and concentration of each radionuclide in a mixture are known, the limiting values should be derived as follows: determine, for each radionuclide in the mixture, the ratio between the concentration present in the mixture and the concentration otherwise established in this part for the specific radionuclide when not in a mixture. The sum of such ratios for all of the radionuclides in the mixture may not exceed one. Example: If radionuclides A, B, and C are present in concentrations CA, CB, CC, and if the applicable DACs are DACA, DACB, and DACC, respectively, then the concentrations shall be limited so that the following relationship exists:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 33 SR 1440; 46 SR 791
Minn. R. 4731.2800 Quantities of Licensed Material Requiring Labeling
Subpart 1. Explanation.
The quantities listed in subpart 3 were derived by taking one-tenth of the most restrictive ALI listed in part 4731.2750, subpart 7, Table 1, columns 1 and 2, rounding to the nearest factor of ten, and arbitrarily constraining the values listed between 0.001 and 1,000 µCi. Values of 100 µCi have been assigned for radionuclides having a radioactive half-life in excess of 109 years (except rhenium, 1,000 µCi) to take into account their low specific activity.
Subp. 2. Combination of radionuclides.
For purposes of parts 4731.2310, subpart 5; 4731.2340, item A; and 4731.2600, subpart 1, where there is involved a combination of radionuclides in known amounts, the limit for the combination should be derived as follows: determine, for each radionuclide in the combination, the ratio between the quantity present in the combination and the limit otherwise established for the specific radionuclide when not in combination. The sum of such ratios for all radionuclides in the combination may not exceed one.
Subp. 3. Quantities requiring labeling.
The following quantities of licensed material require labeling:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 32 SR 831
Minn. R. 4731.2820 Nationally Tracked Source Thresholds
The terabecquerel (TBq) values are the regulatory standard. The curie (Ci) values specified are obtained by converting from the TBq value. The curie values are provided for practical usefulness only and are rounded after conversion.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 33 SR 1440
Minn. R. 4731.2950 Low-Level Radioactive Waste; Transfer and Disposal
Subpart 1. Definitions.
A. The terms used in this part have the meanings given in this subpart and part 4731.0100.
B. "Chemical description" means a description of the principal chemical characteristics of a low-level radioactive waste.
C. "Computer-readable medium" means that the regulatory agency's computer can transfer the information from the medium into its memory.
D. "Consignee" means the designated receiver of the shipment of low-level radioactive waste.
E. "Decontamination facility" means a facility, operating under a license issued by the commissioner, the NRC, or an agreement state, whose principal purpose is decontamination of equipment or materials to accomplish recycle, reuse, or other waste management objectives, and which, for purposes of this part, is not considered to be a consignee for low-level radioactive waste shipments.
F. "Disposal container" means a container principally used to confine low-level radioactive waste during disposal operations at a land disposal facility. For some shipments, the disposal container may be the transport package.
G. "EPA identification number" means the number received by a transporter following application to the administrator of the Environmental Protection Agency as required under Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, part 263.
H. "Generator" means a licensee, operating under a license issued by the commissioner, the NRC, or an agreement state, that:
I. "NRC Form 540," "NRC Form 540A," "NRC Form 541," "NRC Form 541A," "NRC Form 542," and "NRC Form 542A" are official NRC forms referenced in this part. Licensees need not use originals of the NRC forms as long as any substitute forms are equivalent to the original documentation in respect to content, clarity, size, and location of information. Upon agreement between the shipper and consignee, NRC Forms 541, 541A, 542, and 542A may be completed, transmitted, and stored in electronic media. The electronic media must have the capability for producing legible, accurate, and complete records in the format of the uniform manifest.
J. "Package" means the assembly of components necessary to ensure compliance with the packaging requirements of DOT regulations, together with its radioactive contents, as presented for transport.
K. "Physical description" means the items called for on NRC Form 541 to describe a low-level radioactive waste.
L. "Residual waste" means low-level radioactive waste resulting from processing or decontamination activities that cannot be easily separated into distinct batches attributable to specific waste generators. Residual waste is attributable to the waste processor or decontamination facility, as applicable.
M. "Shipper" means the licensed waste generator, waste collector, or waste processor that offers low-level radioactive waste for transportation, typically consigning this type of waste to a licensed waste collector, waste processor, or land disposal facility operator.
N. "Shipping paper" means NRC Form 540 and, if required, NRC Form 540A, which includes the information required under Code of Federal Regulations, title 49, part 172.
O. "Uniform low-level radioactive waste manifest" or "uniform manifest" means the combination of NRC Forms 540, 541, and, if necessary, 542, and their respective continuation sheets as needed, or equivalent.
P. "Waste collector" means an entity, operating under a license issued by the commissioner, the NRC, or an agreement state, whose principal purpose is to collect and consolidate waste generated by others and to transfer the waste, without processing or repackaging the collected waste, to another licensed waste collector, licensed waste processor, or licensed land disposal facility.
Q. "Waste description" means the physical, chemical, and radiological description of a low-level radioactive waste as called for on NRC Form 541.
R. "Waste generator" means an entity, operating under a license issued by the commissioner, the NRC, or an agreement state, that:
S. "Waste processor" means an entity, operating under a license issued by the commissioner, the NRC, or an agreement state, whose principal purpose is to process, repackage, or otherwise treat low-level radioactive material or waste generated by others before eventual transfer of the waste to a licensed low-level radioactive waste land disposal facility.
T. "Waste type" means a waste within a disposal container having a unique physical description, such as a specific waste descriptor code or description or a waste sorbed on or solidified in a specifically defined media.
Subp. 2. Manifest.
A. A waste generator, waste collector, or waste processor that transports, or offers for transportation, low-level radioactive waste intended for ultimate disposal at a licensed low-level radioactive waste land disposal facility must prepare a manifest reflecting information requested on applicable NRC Forms 540 (Uniform Low-Level Radioactive Waste Manifest (Shipping Paper)) and 541 (Uniform Low-Level Radioactive Waste Manifest (Container and Waste Description)) and, if necessary, on an applicable NRC Form 542 (Uniform Low-Level Radioactive Waste Manifest (Manifest Index and Regional Compact Tabulation)).
B. NRC Forms 540 and 540A must be completed and must physically accompany the pertinent low-level waste shipment.
C. Upon agreement between shipper and consignee, NRC Forms 541, 541A, 542, and 542A may be completed, transmitted, and stored in electronic media with the capability for producing legible, accurate, and complete records on the respective forms.
D. Licensees are not required by the commissioner, the NRC, or an agreement state to comply with the manifesting requirements of this subpart when they ship:
E. For guidance in completing the forms required under item A, refer to the instructions that accompany the forms. Copies of manifests required by this subpart may be legible carbon copies, photocopies, or computer printouts that reproduce the data in the format of the uniform manifest.
F. NRC Forms 540, 540A, 541, 541A, 542, and 542A, and the accompanying instructions, in hard copy, may be obtained from the Information and Records Management Branch, Office of the Chief Information Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555, telephone (301) 415-7232. The forms are available online at http://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/doc-collections/forms.
Subp. 3. Other federal law.
This part includes information requirements of the DOT, as codified in Code of Federal Regulations, title 49, part 172. Information on hazardous, medical, or other waste, required to meet Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) regulations, as codified in Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, part 261 or elsewhere, is not addressed in this part and must be provided on the required EPA forms. However, the required EPA forms must accompany the uniform low-level radioactive waste manifest required by this part.
Subp. 4. General information.
The shipper of the radioactive waste must provide the following information on the uniform manifest:
A. the name, facility address, and telephone number of the licensee shipping the waste;
B. an explicit declaration indicating whether the shipper is acting as a waste generator, waste collector, waste processor, or a combination of these identifiers for purposes of the manifested shipment; and
C. the name, address, and telephone number, or the name and EPA identification number for the carrier transporting the waste.
Subp. 5. Shipment information.
The shipper of the radioactive waste must provide the following information regarding the waste shipment on the uniform manifest:
A. the date of the waste shipment;
B. the total number of packages or disposal containers;
C. the total disposal volume and disposal weight in the shipment;
D. the total radionuclide activity in the shipment;
E. the activity of each of the radionuclides H-3, C-14, Tc-99, and I-129 contained in the shipment; and
F. the total masses of U-233, U-235, and plutonium in special nuclear material and the total mass of uranium and thorium in source material.
Subp. 6. Disposal container and waste information.
The shipper of the radioactive waste must provide the following information on the uniform manifest regarding the waste and each disposal container of waste in the shipment:
A. an alphabetic or numeric identification that uniquely identifies each disposal container in the shipment;
B. a physical description of the disposal container, including the manufacturer and model of any high integrity container;
C. the volume displaced by the disposal container;
D. the gross weight of the disposal container, including the waste;
E. for waste consigned to a disposal facility, the maximum radiation level at the surface of each disposal container;
F. a physical and chemical description of the waste;
G. the total weight percentage of chelating agent for any waste containing more than 0.1 percent chelating agent by weight, plus the identity of the principal chelating agent;
H. the approximate volume of waste within a container;
I. the sorbing or solidification media, if any, and the identity of the solidification media vendor and brand name;
J. the identities and activities of individual radionuclides contained in each container, the masses of U-233, U-235, and plutonium in special nuclear material, and the masses of uranium and thorium in source material. For discrete waste types, such as activated materials, contaminated equipment, mechanical filters, sealed source or devices, and wastes in solidification or stabilization media, the identities and activities of individual radionuclides associated with or contained on these waste types within a disposal container must be reported; and
K. the total radioactivity within each container.
Subp. 7. Uncontainerized waste information.
The shipper of the radioactive waste must provide the following information on the uniform manifest regarding a waste shipment delivered without a disposal container:
A. the approximate volume and weight of the waste;
B. a physical and chemical description of the waste;
C. the total weight percentage of chelating agent if the chelating agent exceeds 0.1 percent by weight, plus the identity of the principal chelating agent;
D. for waste consigned to a disposal facility, the classification of the waste according to Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, section 61.55. Waste not meeting the structural stability requirements of Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, section 61.56, paragraph (b), must be identified;
E. the identities and activities of individual radionuclides contained in the waste, the masses of U-233, U-235, and plutonium in special nuclear material, and the masses of uranium and thorium in source material; and
F. for wastes consigned to a disposal facility, the maximum radiation levels at the surface of the waste.
Subp. 8. Multigenerator disposal container information.
A. This subpart applies to disposal containers enclosing mixtures of waste originating from different generators. The origin of the low-level radioactive waste resulting from a waste processor's activities may be attributable to one or more generators, including waste generators. This subpart also applies to mixtures of wastes shipped in an uncontainerized form, for which portions of the mixture within the shipment originate from different generators.
B. For homogeneous mixtures of waste, such as incinerator ash, the shipper must provide the waste description applicable to the mixture and the volume of the waste attributed to each generator.
C. For heterogeneous mixtures of waste, such as the combined products from a large compactor, the shipper must identify each generator contributing waste to the disposal container and for discrete waste types, such as activated materials, contaminated equipment, mechanical filters, sealed source or devices, and wastes in solidification or stabilization media, the identities and activities of individual radionuclides contained on these waste types within the disposal container. For each generator, the shipper must provide the following:
Subp. 9. Certification.
An authorized representative of the waste generator, waste processor, or waste collector must certify by signing and dating the shipment manifest that the transported materials are properly classified, described, packaged, marked, and labeled and are in proper condition for transportation according to the applicable regulations of the DOT and the NRC, the commissioner, or an agreement state. A waste collector, in signing the certification, is certifying that nothing has been done to the collected waste that would invalidate the waste generator's certification.
Subp. 10. Control and tracking; transfers.
A licensee that transfers radioactive waste to a land disposal facility or a licensed waste collector must comply with this subpart. A licensee that transfers waste to a licensed waste processor for waste treatment or repackaging must comply with items D to I. A licensee must:
A. prepare all wastes so that the waste is classified according to Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, section 61.55, and meets the waste characteristics requirements under Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, section 61.56;
B. label each disposal container of waste, or transport package if potential radiation hazards preclude labeling of the individual disposal container, to identify whether it is Class A waste, Class B waste, Class C waste, or greater than Class C waste, according to Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, section 61.55;
C. conduct a quality assurance program to ensure compliance with Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, sections 61.55 and 61.56. The program must include management evaluation of audits;
D. prepare the uniform low-level radioactive waste manifest as required by this part;
E. forward a copy or electronically transfer the uniform low-level radioactive waste manifest to the intended consignee so that receipt of the manifest precedes the low-level radioactive waste shipment or the manifest is delivered to the consignee with the waste at the time the waste is transferred to the consignee, or both;
F. include NRC Form 540, and Form 540A if required, with the shipment regardless of the option chosen in item E;
G. receive acknowledgment of the receipt of the shipment in the form of a signed copy of NRC Form 540;
H. retain a copy of or electronically store the uniform low-level radioactive waste manifest and documentation of acknowledgment of receipt as the record of transfer of licensed material as required under parts 4731.0525 to 4731.0840 and 4731.3000 to 4731.3175; and
I. for any shipment or any part of a shipment for which acknowledgment of receipt has not been received within the times set forth in this part, conduct an investigation according to subpart 14.
Subp. 11. Control and tracking; prepackaged waste.
A waste collector licensee that handles only prepackaged waste must:
A. acknowledge receipt of the waste from the shipper within one week of receipt by returning a signed copy of NRC Form 540;
B. prepare a new manifest to reflect consolidated shipments that meet the requirements of this part. The waste collector must ensure that, for each container of waste in the shipment, the manifest identifies the generator of that container of waste;
C. forward a copy or electronically transfer the uniform low-level radioactive waste manifest to the intended consignee so that receipt of the manifest precedes the low-level radioactive waste shipment or the manifest is delivered to the consignee with the waste at the time the waste is transferred to the consignee, or both;
D. include NRC Form 540, and 540A if required, with the shipment regardless of the option chosen in item C;
E. receive acknowledgment of the receipt of the shipment in the form of a signed copy of NRC Form 540;
F. retain a copy of or electronically store the uniform low-level radioactive waste manifest and documentation of acknowledgment of receipt as the record of transfer of licensed material as required under parts 4731.0525 to 4731.0840 and 4731.3000 to 4731.3120;
G. for any shipment or any part of a shipment for which acknowledgment of receipt has not been received within the times set forth in this part, conduct an investigation according to subpart 14; and
H. notify the shipper and the commissioner, the administrator of the nearest NRC regional office, or an agreement state licensing agency when any shipment, or part of a shipment, has not arrived within 60 days after receipt of an advance manifest, unless notified by the shipper that the shipment has been canceled.
Subp. 12. Control and tracking; treatment or repackaging.
A licensed waste processor that treats or repackages waste must:
A. acknowledge receipt of the waste from the shipper within one week of receipt by returning a signed copy of NRC Form 540;
B. prepare a new manifest that meets the requirements of this part. Preparation of the new manifest reflects that the waste processor is responsible for meeting these requirements. For each container of waste in the shipment, the manifest must identify the waste generators, the preprocessed waste volume, and the other information as required under subpart 8;
C. prepare all wastes so that the waste is classified according to Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, section 61.55, and meets the waste characteristics requirements under Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, section 61.56;
D. label each package of waste to identify whether it is Class A waste, Class B waste, or Class C waste, according to Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, sections 61.55 and 61.57;
E. conduct a quality assurance program to ensure compliance with Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, sections 61.55 and 61.56. The program must include management evaluation of audits;
F. forward a copy or electronically transfer the uniform low-level radioactive waste manifest to the intended consignee so that receipt of the manifest precedes the low-level radioactive waste shipment or the manifest is delivered to the consignee with the waste at the time the waste is transferred to the consignee, or both;
G. include NRC Form 540, and Form 540A if required, with the shipment regardless of the option chosen in item F;
H. receive acknowledgment of the receipt of the shipment in the form of a signed copy of NRC Form 540;
I. retain a copy of or electronically store the uniform low-level radioactive waste manifest and documentation of acknowledgment of receipt as the record of transfer of licensed material as required under parts 4731.0525 to 4731.0840 and 4731.3000 to 4731.3120;
J. for any shipment or any part of a shipment for which acknowledgment of receipt has not been received within the times set forth in this part, conduct an investigation according to subpart 14; and
K. notify the shipper and the commissioner, the administrator of the nearest NRC regional office, or an agreement state licensing agency when any shipment, or part of a shipment, has not arrived within 60 days after receipt of an advance manifest, unless notified by the shipper that the shipment has been canceled.
Subp. 13. Control and tracking; land disposal facility.
A land disposal facility operator must:
A. acknowledge receipt of the waste within one week of receipt by returning, as a minimum, a signed copy of NRC Form 540 to the shipper. The shipper to be notified is the licensee that last possessed the waste and transferred the waste to the operator. If any discrepancy exists between materials listed on the uniform low-level radioactive waste manifest and materials received, copies or electronic transfer of the affected forms must be returned indicating the discrepancy;
B. maintain copies of all completed manifests and electronically store the information required under Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, section 61.80, paragraph (l), until the commissioner or the NRC terminates the license; and
C. notify the shipper and the commissioner, the administrator of the nearest NRC regional office, or an agreement state licensing agency when any shipment, or part of a shipment, has not arrived within 60 days after receipt of an advance manifest, unless notified by the shipper that the shipment has been canceled.
Subp. 14. Investigation.
A shipment or part of a shipment for which acknowledgment is not received within the times set forth in this part must:
A. be investigated by the shipper if the shipper has not received notification or receipt within 20 days after transfer; and
B. be traced and reported. The investigation must include tracing the shipment and filing a report with the commissioner, the administrator of the nearest NRC regional office, or an agreement state licensing agency. A licensee that conducts a trace investigation must file a written report with the commissioner within two weeks of completing the investigation.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 44 SR 239
Minn. R. 4731.3000 Applicability; Domestic Licensing of Radioactive Material
Parts 4731.3000 to 4731.3245 apply to all persons and govern domestic licensing of radioactive material. Parts 4731.3000 to 4731.3245 also give notice to all persons who knowingly provide to any licensee, applicant, certificate of registration holder, contractor, or subcontractor, components, equipment, materials, or other goods or services, that relate to a licensee's, applicant's, or certificate of registration holder's activities subject to parts 4731.3000 to 4731.3245, that they may be individually subject to the commissioner's enforcement action for violation of part 4731.0260.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.3005 Activities Requiring License
Except for persons exempt under parts 4731.0300 to 4731.0370 and 4731.3010 to 4731.3245, no person shall manufacture, produce, transfer, receive, acquire, own, possess, or use radioactive material except as authorized in a specific or general license issued under this chapter.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.3010 Specific Exemptions
A. The commissioner may, upon application of any interested person or upon the commissioner's own initiative, grant exemptions from parts 4731.3200 to 4731.7280 as the commissioner determines are authorized by law and will not endanger life or property or the common defense and security and are otherwise in the public interest.
B. A licensee's activities are exempt from parts 4731.3000 to 4731.3245 to the extent that the licensee's activities are licensed under Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, part 72.
C. The United States Department of Energy is exempt from parts 4731.3000 to 4731.3245 to the extent that the licensee's activities are subject to the requirements of Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, parts 60 and 63.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.3015 Exemption; Use of Radioactive Material Under Certain Federal Contracts
A. Except to the extent that United States Department of Energy facilities or activities of the types subject to licensing under United States Code, title 42, section 5842, the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974 are involved, a prime contractor of the United States Department of Energy is exempt from parts 4731.3000 to 4731.3245 to the extent that the contractor, under the prime contract with the United States Department of Energy, manufactures, produces, transfers, receives, acquires, owns, possesses, or uses radioactive material for:
B. In addition to the exemptions under item A, and subject to the requirement for licensing of Department of Energy facilities and activities under the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, a prime contractor or subcontractor of the Department of Energy or the NRC is exempt from parts 4731.3000 to 4731.3245 to the extent that:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.3020 Exemption; Carriers
Common and contract carriers, freight forwarders, warehousers, and the United States Postal Service are exempt from parts 4731.3000 to 4731.8140 to the extent that they transport or store radioactive material in the regular course of the carriage for another or storage incident thereto.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 29 SR 755; 40 SR 145
Minn. R. 4731.3025 Exemption; Certain Concentrations
Subpart 1. Exemption.
Except as provided in subparts 3 and 4, a person is exempt from parts 4731.3000 to 4731.7280 to the extent that the person receives, possesses, uses, transfers, owns, or acquires products or materials containing radioactive material in concentrations not in excess of those listed in part 4731.3140.
Subp. 2. Import not authorized.
Parts 4731.3000 to 4731.3245 do not authorize the import of radioactive material or products containing radioactive materials.
Subp. 3. Introduction by specific licensee.
A manufacturer, processor, or producer of a product or material in an agreement state is exempt from parts 4731.3000 to 4731.7280 to the extent that:
A. the manufacturer, processor, or producer transfers radioactive material contained in a product or material in concentrations not in excess of those specified in part 4731.3140; and
B. the radioactive material is introduced into the product or material by a licensee holding a specific license issued by the NRC expressly authorizing such introduction. The exemption in this subpart does not apply to the transfer of radioactive material in any food, beverage, cosmetic, drug, or other commodity or product designed for ingestion or inhalation by, or application to, a human being.
Subp. 4. Transfer limitations.
No person may introduce radioactive material into a product or material knowing or having reason to believe that it will be transferred to persons exempt under this part or equivalent regulations of the NRC or an agreement state, except according to a specific license issued under Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, section 32.11.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 33 SR 1440
Minn. R. 4731.3030 Exemption; Certain Items Containing Radioactive Material
Subpart 1. Exempt products.
Except for persons who apply radioactive material to or incorporate radioactive material into the following products or persons who initially transfer for sale or distribution the following products containing radioactive material, a person is exempt from parts 4731.3000 to 4731.7280 to the extent that the person receives, possesses, uses, transfers, owns, or acquires the following products:
A. timepieces or hands or dials of timepieces that:
B.
C. balances of precision containing not more than one millicurie of tritium per balance or not more than 0.5 millicurie of tritium per balance part manufactured before December 17, 2007;
D. marine compasses containing not more than 750 millicuries of tritium gas and other marine navigational instruments containing not more than 250 millicuries of tritium gas manufactured before December 17, 2007;
E. ionization chamber smoke detectors containing not more than one microcurie (μCi) of americium-241 per detector in the form of a foil and designed to protect life and property from fires;
F. electron tubes. For purposes of this item, "electron tubes" include spark gap tubes, power tubes, gas tubes including glow lamps, receiving tubes, microwave tubes, indicator tubes, pickup tubes, radiation detection tubes, and any other completely sealed tube that is designed to conduct or control electrical currents. The exemption under this item applies only if the levels of radiation from each electron tube containing radioactive material do not exceed one millirad per hour at one centimeter from any surface when measured through seven milligrams per square centimeter of absorber and if each tube does not contain more than one of the following specified quantities of radioactive materials:
G. ionizing radiation measuring instruments containing, for purposes of internal calibration or standardization, one or more sources of radioactive material. For purposes of this item, an instrument's source may contain either one type or different types of radionuclides and an individual exempt quantity may be composed of fractional parts of one or more of the exempt quantities in part 4731.3145, provided that the sum of the fractions does not exceed unity. For purposes of this item, 0.05 microcurie of americium-241 is an exempt quantity under part 4731.3145. The exemption under this item applies only if:
Subp. 2. Specific license required.
A person who desires to apply radioactive material to or incorporate radioactive material into the products exempted under subpart 1 or who desires to initially transfer for sale or distribution such products containing radioactive material must apply for a specific license under Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, section 32.14, which license states that the product may be distributed by the licensee to persons exempt under subpart 1.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 29 SR 755; 33 SR 1440; 40 SR 145; 44 SR 239
Minn. R. 4731.3035 [Repealed, 33 SR 1440]
[Repealed, 33 SR 1440]
Minn. R. 4731.3040 Exempt Quantities
Subpart 1. Exempt quantities.
Except as provided in subparts 3 to 5, a person is exempt from parts 4731.3000 to 4731.7280 to the extent that the person receives, possesses, uses, transfers, owns, or acquires radioactive material in individual quantities, each of which does not exceed the applicable quantity in part 4731.3145.
Subp. 2. Receipt under prior license.
A person who possesses radioactive material received or acquired before September 25, 1971, under the general license then provided under Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, section 31.4, or similar general license of a state, is exempt from parts 4731.3000 to 4731.4360, and 4731.6000 to 4731.7280 to the extent that the person possesses, uses, transfers, or owns such radioactive material.
Subp. 3. Limitation.
This part does not authorize, for purposes of commercial distribution, the production, packaging, repackaging, or transfer of radioactive material or the incorporation of radioactive material into products intended for commercial distribution.
Subp. 4. Specific license required.
No person may, for purposes of commercial distribution, transfer radioactive material in the individual quantities under part 4731.3145, knowing or having reason to believe that such quantities of radioactive material will be transferred to persons exempt under this part or equivalent regulations of the NRC or an agreement state, except according to a license issued under Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, section 32.18, that states that the radioactive material may be transferred by the licensee to persons exempt under this part or equivalent regulations of the NRC or an agreement state.
Subp. 5. Aggregation.
No person may, for purposes of producing an increased radiation level, combine quantities of radioactive material covered by this exemption so that the aggregate quantity exceeds the limits set forth in part 4731.3145, except for radioactive material combined within a device placed in use before May 3, 1999, or as otherwise permitted by this part.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 33 SR 1440
Minn. R. 4731.3045 Exemption; Self-Luminous Products Containing Tritium, Krypton-85, or Promethium-147
Subpart 1. Specific license exemption.
Except for persons who manufacture, process, produce, or initially transfer for sale or distribution self-luminous products containing tritium, krypton-85, or promethium-147, and except as provided in subpart 3, a person is exempt from parts 4731.2000 to 4731.2090 and 4731.3000 to 4731.7280 to the extent that the person receives, possesses, uses, transfers, owns, or acquires tritium, krypton-85, or promethium-147 in self-luminous products manufactured, processed, produced, or initially transferred according to a specific license issued under Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, section 32.22, that authorizes the initial transfer of the product for use under this part.
Subp. 2. Specific license required.
A person who desires to manufacture, process, produce, or initially transfer for sale or distribution self-luminous products containing tritium, krypton-85, or promethium-147 for use under subpart 1 must apply for a license according to Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, section 32.22, and for a certificate of registration in accordance with Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, section 32.210.
Subp. 3. Limitation.
The exemption in subpart 1 does not apply to tritium, krypton-85, or promethium-147 used in products primarily for frivolous purposes or in toys or adornments.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 29 SR 755; 40 SR 145
Minn. R. 4731.3050 Exemption; Gas and Aerosol Detectors Containing Radioactive Material
Subpart 1. Specific license exemption.
Except for persons who manufacture, process, produce, or initially transfer for sale or distribution gas and aerosol detectors containing radioactive material, a person is exempt from parts 4731.1000 to 4731.2090 and 4731.3000 to 4731.7280 to the extent that the person receives, possesses, uses, transfers, owns, or acquires radioactive material in gas or aerosol detectors designed to protect health, safety, or property, and manufactured, processed, produced, or initially transferred according to a specific license issued under Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, section 32.26, that authorizes the initial transfer of the product for use under this part. This exemption also covers gas and aerosol detectors manufactured or distributed before November 30, 2007, in accordance with a specific license issued by a state under comparable provisions to Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, section 32.26, authorizing distribution to persons exempt from regulatory requirements.
Subp. 2. Specific license required.
A person who desires to manufacture, process, or produce gas and aerosol detectors containing radioactive material or to initially transfer such products for use under subpart 1 must apply for a license under Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, section 32.26, and for a certificate of registration under Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, section 32.210.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 29 SR 755; 33 SR 1440; 40 SR 145
Minn. R. 4731.3055 Exemption; Radioactive Drugs
Subpart 1. Exemption.
Except as provided in subparts 2 and 3, a person is exempt from parts 4731.3000 to 4731.3245 and 4731.4400 to 4731.4527, if the person receives, possesses, uses, transfers, owns, or acquires capsules containing one µCi (37 kBq) carbon-14 urea (allowing for nominal variation that may occur during the manufacturing process) each, for in vivo diagnostic use for humans.
Subp. 2. Research; license required.
A person who desires to use the capsules under subpart 1 for research involving human subjects must apply for and receive a specific license according to parts 4731.4400 to 4731.4527.
Subp. 3. Specific license required.
A person who desires to manufacture, prepare, process, produce, package, repackage, or transfer for commercial distribution the capsules under subpart 1 must apply for and receive a specific license under Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, section 32.21.
Subp. 4. Other law.
Nothing in this part relieves a person from complying with applicable United States Food and Drug Administration or other federal and state requirements governing receipt, administration, and use of drugs.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.3056 Exemption; Certain Industrial Devices
Subpart 1. Specific license exemption.
Except for persons who manufacture, process, produce, or initially transfer for sale or distribution industrial devices containing radioactive material designed and manufactured for the purpose of detecting, measuring, gauging, or controlling thickness, density, level, interface location, radiation leakage, or qualitative or quantitative chemical composition, or for producing an ionized atmosphere, a person is exempt from parts 4731.1000 to 4731.2090 and 4731.3000 to 4731.7280 to the extent that the person receives, possesses, uses, transfers, owns, or acquires radioactive material in these certain detecting, measuring, gauging, or controlling devices and certain devices for producing an ionized atmosphere, and manufactured, processed, produced, or initially transferred according to a specific license issued under Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, section 32.30, that authorizes the initial transfer of the device for use under this part. This exemption does not cover sources not incorporated into a device, such as calibration and reference sources.
Subp. 2. Specific license required.
A person who desires to manufacture, process, produce, or initially transfer for sale or distribution industrial devices containing radioactive material for use under subpart 1 must apply for a license under Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, section 32.30, and for a certificate of registration under Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, section 32.210.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 40 SR 145
Minn. R. 4731.3060 Types of Licenses
A. Licenses for radioactive material are of two types: general and specific.
B. The commissioner issues a specific license to a named person who has filed an application for the license under parts 4731.3300 to 4731.7280.
C. A general license is provided by rule, grants authority to a person for certain activities involving radioactive material, and is effective without the filing of an application with the commissioner or the issuance of a licensing document to a particular person. However, registration with the commissioner may be required by the particular general license.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.3065 Specific Licenses; Application
Subpart 1. General requirements.
A. Applications for specific licenses must be filed on an application for radioactive material license form prescribed by the commissioner.
B. An application must be signed by the applicant or licensee or a person duly authorized to act for and on behalf of the applicant or licensee.
C. The commissioner may at any time after the filing of the original application, and before the expiration of the license, require further statements to enable the commissioner to determine whether the application should be granted or denied or whether a license should be modified or revoked.
D. An application must be accompanied by the fee prescribed under Minnesota Statutes, section 144.1205.
E. An application for a license to receive and possess radioactive material that the commissioner has determined will significantly affect the quality of the environment must be filed at least nine months prior to commencement of construction of the plant or facility in which the activity will be conducted and must be accompanied by any environmental report as required under Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, part 51, subpart A.
Subp. 2. Sealed source requirements.
A. Except as provided in items B, C, and D, an application for a specific license to use radioactive material in the form of a sealed source or in a device that contains the sealed source must:
B. For sources or devices manufactured prior to October 23, 2012, that are not registered with the NRC under Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, section 32.210, or with an agreement state, and for which the applicant is unable to provide all categories of information specified in Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, section 32.210 (c), the applicant must provide:
C. For sealed sources and devices allowed to be distributed without registration of safety information according to Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, section 32.210 (g)(1), the applicant may supply only the manufacturer, model number, and radionuclide and quantity.
D. If it is not feasible to identify each sealed source and device individually, the applicant may propose constraints on the number and type of sealed sources and devices to be used and the conditions under which they will be used, in lieu of identifying each sealed source and device.
Subp. 3. Decommissioning requirements.
As provided under part 4731.3080, certain applications for specific licenses filed under parts 4731.3000 to 4731.3175 and 4731.3300 to 4731.4527 must contain a proposed decommissioning funding plan or a certification of financial assurance for decommissioning.
Subp. 4. Additional requirements.
A. An application to possess radioactive materials in unsealed form, on foils or plated sources, or sealed in glass in excess of the quantities in part 4731.3150 must contain:
B. One or more of the following factors may be used to support an evaluation submitted under item A, subitem (1):
Subp. 5. Emergency plan.
An emergency plan submitted under subpart 4, item A, subitem (2), must include:
A. a brief description of the licensee's facility and area near the site;
B. identification of each type of radioactive materials accident for which protective actions may be needed;
C. a classification system for classifying accidents as alert or site area emergencies;
D. identification of the means of detecting each type of accident in a timely manner;
E. a brief description of the means and equipment for mitigating the consequences of each type of accident, including those provided to protect workers on-site, and a description of the program for maintaining the equipment;
F. a brief description of the methods and equipment to assess releases of radioactive materials;
G. a brief description of the responsibilities of licensee personnel should an accident occur, including identification of personnel responsible for promptly notifying off-site response organizations and the commissioner, and the responsibilities for developing, maintaining, and updating the plan;
H. a commitment to and a brief description of the means to promptly notify off-site response organizations and request off-site assistance, including medical assistance for the treatment of contaminated injured on-site workers when appropriate. A control point must be established. The notification and coordination must be planned so that unavailability of some personnel, parts of the facility, and some equipment does not prevent notification and coordination. The licensee must also commit to notifying the commissioner immediately after the licensee has notified the appropriate off-site response organizations and not later than one hour after the licensee declares an emergency. These reporting requirements do not supersede or release a licensee's responsibility to comply with the Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act of 1986, title III, Public Law 99-499, or other state or federal reporting requirements;
I. a brief description of the types of information on facility status, radioactive releases, and recommended protective actions, if necessary, to be given to off-site response organizations and to the commissioner;
J. a brief description of the frequency, performance objectives, and plans for the training that the licensee will provide workers on how to respond to an emergency, including any special instructions and orientation tours the licensee would offer to fire, police, medical, and other emergency personnel. The training must:
K. a brief description of the means of restoring the facility to a safe condition after an accident;
L. provisions for conducting quarterly communications checks with off-site response organizations and biennial on site exercises to test response to simulated emergencies. Quarterly communications checks with off-site response organizations must include checking and updating all necessary telephone numbers. The licensee must invite off-site response organizations to participate in the biennial exercises. Participation of off-site response organizations in biennial exercises, although recommended, is not required. Exercises must use accident scenarios postulated as most probable for the specific site and the scenarios must not be known to most exercise participants. The licensee must critique the exercises using individuals not having direct implementation responsibility for the plan. Critiques of exercises must evaluate the appropriateness of the plan, emergency procedures, facilities, equipment, training of personnel, and overall effectiveness of the response. Deficiencies found by the critiques must be corrected; and
M. a certification that the applicant has met its responsibilities under the Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act of 1986, title III, Public Law 99-499, if applicable to the applicant's activities at the proposed place of use of the radioactive material.
Subp. 6. Comments.
A licensee must:
A. allow the off-site response organizations expected to respond in case of an accident 60 days to comment on the licensee's emergency plan before submitting it to the commissioner; and
B. provide any comments received within the 60 days to the commissioner along with the emergency plan.
Subp. 7. Application to produce PET radioactive drugs.
An application from a medical facility, educational institution, or federal facility to produce positron emission tomography (PET) radioactive drugs for noncommercial transfer to licensees in its consortium authorized for medical use under NRC, or equivalent agreement state requirements must include:
A. a request for authorization for the production of PET radionuclides or evidence of an existing license issued by the NRC, or an agreement state with requirements for a PET radionuclide production facility within its consortium from which it receives PET radionuclides;
B. evidence that the applicant is qualified to produce radioactive drugs for medical use by meeting one of the criteria in part 4731.3395, subpart 1;
C. identification of individuals authorized to prepare the PET radioactive drugs if the applicant is a pharmacy, and documentation that each individual meets the requirements of an authorized nuclear pharmacist as specified in part 4731.3395, subpart 2; and
D. information identified in part 4731.3395, subpart 1, on the PET drugs to be noncommercially transferred to members of its consortium.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 29 SR 755; 33 SR 1440; 40 SR 145; 44 SR 239
Minn. R. 4731.3070 Specific Licenses; Approval
Subpart 1. Application.
The commissioner shall approve an application for a specific license if:
A. the application is for a purpose authorized under this chapter;
B. the applicant is qualified by training and experience to use the material for the purpose requested in such manner as to protect health and minimize danger to life and property;
C. the applicant's proposed equipment and facilities are adequate to protect health and minimize danger to life and property;
D. the applicant satisfies any applicable special requirements under this chapter; and
E. in the case of an application for a license to receive and possess radioactive material for the conduct of any activity that the commissioner determines will significantly affect the quality of the environment, before commencement of construction of the plant or facility in which the activity will be conducted, the commissioner, on the basis of information filed and evaluations made according to Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, part 51, subpart A, has concluded, after weighing the environmental, economic, technical, and other benefits against environmental costs and considering available alternatives, that the action called for is the issuance of the proposed license, with any appropriate conditions to protect environmental values. Commencement of construction prior to such conclusion is grounds for denial of a license to receive and possess radioactive material in such plant or facility.
Subp. 2. License.
Upon a determination that an application meets the requirements of this chapter, the commissioner shall issue a specific license authorizing the possession and use of radioactive material.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 29 SR 755; 40 SR 145
Minn. R. 4731.3075 Terms and Conditions of Licenses
Subpart 1. Applicable regulation.
A license issued under this chapter is subject to all rules and orders of the commissioner.
Subp. 2. Transfer prohibited.
A. No license issued or granted under this chapter nor any right under a license must be transferred, assigned, or in any manner disposed of, either voluntarily or involuntarily, directly or indirectly, through transfer of control of a license to any person, unless the commissioner, after securing full information, finds that the transfer is in accordance with this chapter and gives consent in writing.
B. An application for transfer of license must include:
Subp. 3. Scope of license.
A person licensed by the commissioner under this chapter must confine the licensee's possession and use of radioactive material to the locations and purposes authorized in the license. Except as otherwise provided in the license, a license issued under parts 4731.3000 to 4731.7280 carries with it the right to receive, acquire, own, and possess radioactive material. Preparation for shipment and transport of radioactive material must be according to parts 4731.0400 to 4731.0424.
Subp. 4. Bankruptcy.
A. A general licensee required to register under part 4731.3215, subpart 3a, and a specific licensee issued a license under this chapter must notify the commissioner, in writing, immediately following the filing of a voluntary or involuntary petition for bankruptcy under any chapter of United States Code, title 11, by or against:
B. The bankruptcy notification must indicate the bankruptcy court in which the petition for bankruptcy was filed and the date of the filing of the petition.
Subp. 5. Additional conditions.
A. The commissioner may incorporate in any license, at the time of issuance or thereafter by appropriate rule or order, such additional conditions and requirements with respect to the licensee's receipt, possession, use, and transfer of radioactive material as the commissioner deems appropriate or necessary to protect health or to minimize danger to life or property.
B. The commissioner may require reports, record keeping, and inspections of activities under the license as may be necessary or appropriate to effectuate the purposes of this chapter.
Subp. 6. Emergency plan.
A licensee that is required to submit an emergency plan under part 4731.3065, subpart 4, item A, must follow the emergency plan approved by the commissioner. The licensee:
A. may change the plan without commissioner approval only if the changes do not decrease the effectiveness of the plan;
B. must furnish the change to the commissioner and to affected off-site response organizations within six months after the change is made; and
C. may not implement proposed changes that decrease, or potentially decrease, the effectiveness of the approved emergency plan without prior application to and prior approval by the commissioner.
Subp. 7. Generator testing.
A licensee preparing technetium-99m radiopharmaceuticals from molybdenum-99 / technetium-99m generators or rubidium-82 from strontium-82/rubidium-82 generators must test the generator eluates for molybdenum-99 breakthrough or strontium-82 and strontium-85 contamination, respectively, according to part 4731.4435. The licensee must record the results of each test and retain each record for three years after the record is made. The licensee must report the results of any test that exceeds the permissible concentration listed in part 4731.4435, item A, at the time of generator elution, in accordance with part 4731.4528.
Subp. 8. Security requirements for portable gauges.
A portable gauge licensee must use a minimum of two independent physical controls that form tangible barriers to secure portable gauges from unauthorized removal, whenever portable gauges are not under the control and constant surveillance of the licensee.
Subp. 9. Authorization to produce PET.
Authorization under part 4731.3065, subpart 7, to produce positron emission tomography (PET) radioactive drugs for noncommercial transfer to medical use licensees in its consortium does not relieve the licensee from complying with applicable FDA requirements or other federal and state requirements governing radioactive drugs.
A. Each licensee authorized under part 4731.3065, subpart 7, to produce PET radioactive drugs for noncommercial transfer to medical use licensees in its consortium must:
B. A licensee that is a pharmacy authorized under part 4731.3065, subpart 7, to produce PET radioactive drugs for noncommercial transfer to medical use licensees in its consortium must require that any individual that prepares PET radioactive drugs must be:
C. A pharmacy, authorized under part 4731.3065, subpart 7, to produce PET radioactive drugs for noncommercial transfer to medical use licensees in its consortium that allows an individual to work as an authorized nuclear pharmacist, must meet the requirements of part 4731.3395, subpart 2.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 29 SR 755; 32 SR 831; 33 SR 1440; 40 SR 145; 44 SR 239; 46 SR 791
Minn. R. 4731.3080 Financial Assurance and Record Keeping for Decommissioning
Subpart 1. Decommissioning funding plan required.
A. An applicant for a specific license authorizing the possession and use of unsealed radioactive material of half-life greater than 120 days and in quantities exceeding 105 times the applicable quantities under part 4731.3160 must submit a decommissioning funding plan according to subpart 5. A decommissioning funding plan must also be submitted when a combination of isotopes is involved, if R divided by 105 is greater than one (unity rule), where R is the sum of the ratios of the quantity of each isotope to the applicable value under part 4731.3160.
B. A holder of or an applicant for a specific license authorizing possession and use of sealed sources or plated foils of half-life greater than 120 days and in quantities exceeding 1012 times the applicable quantities set forth in part 4731.3160 or, when a combination of isotopes is involved, if R, as defined in subpart 1, divided by 1012 is greater than 1, must submit a decommissioning funding plan as described in subpart 5.
Subp. 2. Plan or financial assurance required.
A. A holder of or an applicant for a specific license authorizing possession and use of radioactive material of half-life greater than 120 days and in quantities specified in subpart 4 must:
B. If the applicant defers execution of the financial instrument until after the license has been issued, a signed original of the financial instrument obtained to satisfy the requirements of subpart 6 must be submitted to the commissioner before receipt of licensed material.
C. If the applicant does not defer execution of the financial instrument, the applicant must submit to the commissioner, as part of the certification, a signed original of the financial instrument obtained to satisfy the requirements of subpart 6.
Subp. 3. Date-specific requirements.
A. A holder of a specific license issued on or after July 27, 1990, which is of a type described in subpart 1 or 2, must provide financial assurance for decommissioning according to this subpart.
B. A holder of a specific license issued before July 27, 1990, and of a type described in subpart 1, must submit, on or before July 27, 1990, a decommissioning funding plan according to subpart 5 or a certification of financial assurance for decommissioning in an amount at least equal to $1,125,000 according to this part. If the licensee submits the certification of financial assurance rather than a decommissioning funding plan, the licensee must include a decommissioning funding plan in any application for license renewal.
C. A holder of a specific license issued before July 27, 1990, and of a type described in subpart 2, must submit, on or before July 27, 1990, a decommissioning funding plan as described in subpart 5 or a certification of financial assurance for decommissioning according to this part.
D. A licensee who has submitted an application before July 27, 1990, for renewal of a license according to part 4731.3090, must provide financial assurance for decommissioning according to subparts 1 and 2.
E. Waste collectors and waste processors, as defined under part 4731.2950, must provide financial assurance in an amount based on a decommissioning funding plan as described in subpart 5. The decommissioning funding plan must include the cost of disposal of the maximum amount (curies) of radioactive material permitted by license and the cost of disposal of the maximum quantity, by volume, of radioactive material that could be present at the licensee's facility at any time, in addition to the cost to remediate the licensee's site to meet the license termination criteria of parts 4731.2000 to 4731.2950. The decommissioning funding plan must be submitted by December 2, 2005.
Subp. 4. Financial assurance; amounts.
The following amounts of financial assurance are required for decommissioning by quantity of material. Licensees required to submit the $113,000 or $225,000 amount must do so by June 2, 2005. Licensees having possession limits exceeding the upper bounds of this subpart must base financial assurance on a decommissioning funding plan:
Subp. 5. Funding plan requirements.
A. Each decommissioning funding plan must be submitted for review and approval and must contain:
B. At the time of license renewal and at intervals not to exceed three years, the decommissioning funding plan must be resubmitted with adjustments as necessary to account for changes in costs and the extent of contamination. If the amount of financial assurance will be adjusted downward, this cannot be done until the updated decommissioning funding plan is approved. The decommissioning funding plan must update the information submitted with the original or prior approved plan, and must specifically consider the effect of the following events on decommissioning costs:
Subp. 6. Financial assurance requirements.
A. Financial assurance for decommissioning must be provided by one or more of the methods described in items B to F.
B. Prepayment is the deposit prior to the start of operation into an account segregated from licensee assets and outside the licensee's administrative control of cash or liquid assets such that the amount of funds would be sufficient to pay decommissioning costs. Prepayment may be in the form of a trust, escrow account, government fund, certificate of deposit, or deposit of government securities.
C. A surety method, insurance, or other guarantee method guarantees that decommissioning costs will be paid. A surety method may be in the form of a surety bond, letter of credit, or line of credit. A parent company guarantee of funds for decommissioning costs based on a financial test may be used if the guarantee and test comply with part 4731.3155, but may not be used in combination with other financial methods to satisfy the requirements of this part. For commercial corporations that issue bonds, a guarantee of funds by the applicant or licensee for decommissioning costs based on a financial test may be used if the guarantee and test comply with part 4731.3165. For commercial corporations that do not issue bonds, a guarantee of funds by the applicant or licensee for decommissioning costs may be used if the guarantee and test comply with part 4731.3170. For nonprofit entities, such as colleges, universities, and nonprofit hospitals, a guarantee of funds by the applicant or licensee may be used if the guarantee and test comply with part 4731.3175. A guarantee by the applicant or licensee may not be used in combination with other financial methods used to satisfy this part or in any situation where the applicant or licensee has a parent company holding majority control of the voting stock of the company. Any surety method or insurance used to provide financial assurance for decommissioning must:
D. An external sinking fund in which deposits are made at least annually, coupled with a surety method or insurance, the value of which may decrease by the amount being accumulated in the sinking fund, may be used as a method of financial assurance. The surety or insurance provisions must be as stated in item C. An external sinking fund:
E. In the case of federal, state, or local government licensees, a statement of intent containing a cost estimate for decommissioning or an amount according to subpart 4 and indicating that funds for decommissioning will be obtained when necessary may be used as a method of financial assurance.
F. When a governmental entity assumes custody and ownership of a site, an arrangement that is deemed acceptable by the governmental entity may be used as a method of financial assurance.
Subp. 7. Record keeping.
A. A person issued a license under parts 4731.3000 to 4731.7280 must keep records of information important to the decommissioning of the facility in an identified location until the site is released for unrestricted use.
B. Before licensed activities are transferred or assigned according to part 4731.3075, subpart 2, a licensee must transfer all records described in this subpart to the new licensee. The new licensee is responsible for maintaining the records until the license is terminated.
C. If records important to the decommissioning of a facility are kept for other purposes, reference to the records and their location may be used.
D. Information the commissioner considers important to decommissioning are:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 29 SR 755; 32 SR 831; 40 SR 145
Minn. R. 4731.3085 License Expiration and Termination; Decommissioning
Subpart 1. Expiration.
A. A specific license expires at the end of the day on the expiration date stated in the license, unless the licensee has filed an application for renewal under part 4731.3090 not less than 30 days before the expiration date stated in the existing license.
B. If an application for renewal has been filed at least 30 days before the expiration date stated in the existing license, the existing license expires at the end of the day on which the commissioner makes a final determination to deny the renewal application or, if the determination states an expiration date, the expiration date stated in the determination.
Subp. 2. Revocation.
A specific license revoked by the commissioner expires at the end of the day on the date of the commissioner's final determination to revoke the license, on the expiration date stated in the determination, or as otherwise provided by a commissioner's order.
Subp. 3. Termination notice.
A specific license continues in effect, beyond the expiration date if necessary, with respect to possession of radioactive material, until the commissioner notifies the licensee in writing that the license is terminated. During this time, the licensee must:
A. limit actions involving radioactive material to those related to decommissioning; and
B. continue to control entry to restricted areas until they are suitable for release according to this chapter.
Subp. 4. Decommissioning.
A. Within 60 days of any of the occurrences under item B, and consistent with the administrative directions under part 4731.0200, subpart 3, a licensee must provide notification to the commissioner in writing of such occurrence and:
B. Notice under item A is required when:
C. Coincident with the notification required under item A, the licensee must maintain in effect all decommissioning financial assurances established by the licensee under part 4731.3080 in conjunction with license issuance or renewal or as required under this part. The amount of the financial assurance must be increased, or may be decreased, as appropriate, to cover the detailed cost estimate for decommissioning established under item H, subitem (5). Following approval of the decommissioning plan, a licensee may reduce the amount of the financial assurance as decommissioning proceeds and radiological contamination is reduced at the site with the approval of the commissioner.
D. The commissioner may grant a request to extend the time periods established under item A if the commissioner determines that this relief is not detrimental to the public health and safety and is otherwise in the public interest. The request must be submitted no later than 30 days before notification under item A. The schedule for decommissioning in this subpart may not commence until the commissioner has made a determination on the request.
E. A decommissioning plan must be submitted if:
F. The commissioner may approve an alternate schedule for submittal of a decommissioning plan required under this subpart if the commissioner determines that the alternative schedule is necessary to the effective conduct of decommissioning operations and presents no undue risk from the radiation to the public health and safety and is otherwise in the public interest.
G. Procedures such as those under item E, subitem (2), with potential health and safety impacts, may not be performed before approval of the decommissioning plan.
H. The proposed decommissioning plan for the site or separate building or outdoor area must include:
I. The commissioner shall approve a proposed decommissioning plan if the information in the plan demonstrates that the decommissioning will be completed as soon as practicable and that the health and safety of the workers and the public will be adequately protected.
J. Except as provided in item K, a licensee must:
K. The commissioner may approve a request for an alternative schedule for completion of decommissioning of the site or separate building or outdoor area, and license termination if appropriate, if the commissioner determines that the alternative is warranted by consideration of the following:
L. As the final step in decommissioning, the licensee must:
M. Specific licenses, including expired licenses, shall be terminated by written notice to the licensee when the commissioner determines that:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 44 SR 239
Minn. R. 4731.3090 Renewal and Amendment of Licenses
Subpart 1. Renewal application.
Applications for renewal of a specific license must be filed on an application for radioactive material license form, as prescribed by the commissioner, according to part 4731.3065.
Subp. 2. Extension; renewal pending.
If a licensee granted the extension described under part 4731.3085, subpart 1, item C, has a currently pending renewal application for the extended license, the application shall be considered withdrawn by the licensee and any renewal fees paid by the licensee for the application shall be refunded.
Subp. 3. Amendment applications.
Applications for amendment of a license must be filed on an application for radioactive material license form, as prescribed by the commissioner, according to part 4731.3065 and must specify the respects in which the licensee desires the license to be amended and the grounds for the amendment.
Subp. 4. Consideration criteria.
In considering an application by a licensee to renew or amend a license, the commissioner shall apply the applicable criteria under parts 4731.3070 and 4731.3300 to 4731.7280.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.3105 Transfer of Radioactive Material
Subpart 1. Authorization required.
No licensee shall transfer radioactive material except as authorized under this chapter.
Subp. 2. Approved transfer.
Except as otherwise provided in a license and subject to subpart 3, a licensee may transfer radioactive material:
A. to the commissioner;
B. to the DOE or an agency in an agreement state that regulates radioactive material;
C. to any person exempt from the licensing requirements of parts 4731.3000 to 4731.3245, to the extent permitted under the exemption;
D. to a person in an agreement state subject to the jurisdiction of that state or the NRC who has been exempted from the licensing requirements of that state or the NRC, to the extent permitted under the exemption;
E. to a person authorized to receive radioactive material under terms of a specific license or a general license or their equivalents issued by the Atomic Energy Commission, the NRC, or an agreement state; or
F. as otherwise authorized by the commissioner in writing.
Subp. 3. Verification for transfer.
A. Before transferring radioactive material to a specific licensee of the NRC or an agreement state, or to a general licensee who is required to register with the NRC or an agreement state before receipt of the radioactive material, the licensee transferring the material must verify that the transferee's license authorizes the receipt of the type, form, and quantity of radioactive material to be transferred.
B. Any of the following methods of verification are acceptable:
Subp. 4. Confirmation.
The transferor may obtain and record confirmation from the NRC or the licensing agency of an agreement state that the transferee is licensed to receive the radioactive material:
A. when none of the methods of verification described in subpart 3 are readily available; or
B. when a transferor desires to verify that information received by one of the verification methods is correct or up-to-date.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.3110 Reporting Requirements
Subpart 1. Immediate notification required.
A licensee must notify the commissioner as soon as possible but not later than four hours after the discovery of an event that prevents immediate protective actions necessary to avoid exposures to radiation or radioactive materials that could exceed regulatory limits or releases of licensed material that could exceed regulatory limits. Reportable events under this subpart include fires, explosions, toxic gas release, or similar hazards.
Subp. 2. 24-hour notification required.
A licensee must notify the commissioner within 24 hours after discovery of any of the following events involving licensed material:
A. an unplanned contamination event that:
B. an event in which equipment is disabled or fails to function as designed when:
C. an event that requires unplanned medical treatment at a medical facility of an individual with spreadable radioactive contamination on the individual's clothing or body; or
D. an unplanned fire or explosion that damages any licensed material or any device, container, or equipment containing licensed materials when:
Subp. 3. Preparation and submission of reports.
A. A licensee must make reports required under subparts 1 and 2 by telephone to the commissioner according to part 4731.0200, subpart 5. To the extent that the information is available at the time of notification, the information provided in the report must include:
B. A licensee who makes a report required under subpart 1 or 2 must submit a written follow-up report within 30 days of the initial report. Written reports prepared as required by other rules may be submitted to fulfill this requirement if the reports contain all of the necessary information and the appropriate distribution is made. The reports must be sent to the commissioner and include:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 44 SR 239
Minn. R. 4731.3115 Records
Subpart 1. Requirements.
A. A person who receives radioactive material pursuant to a license issued under parts 4731.3000 to 4731.6270 must keep records showing the receipt, transfer, and disposal of the radioactive material according to this subpart and part 4731.0210.
B. A licensee must retain each record of receipt of radioactive material as long as the material is possessed and for three years following transfer or disposal of the material.
C. A licensee who transferred the material must retain each record of transfer for three years after each transfer unless a specific requirement in this chapter dictates otherwise.
D. A licensee who disposed of the material must retain each record of disposal of radioactive material until the commissioner terminates each license that authorizes the disposal of the material.
Subp. 2. Retention.
A. A licensee must retain each record that is required by this part or parts 4731.3200 to 4731.7280 or by license condition for the period specified by the appropriate rule or license condition.
B. If a retention period is not otherwise specified by rule or license condition, the record must be retained until the commissioner terminates the license that authorizes the activity that is subject to the record-keeping requirement.
C. If there is a conflict between this chapter, a license condition, or other written commissioner approval or authorization pertaining to the retention period for the same type of record, the retention period specified in this chapter applies unless the commissioner, under part 4731.3010, grants a specific exemption from the record retention requirements specified in this chapter.
D. Required records must be maintained according to part 4731.0210.
Subp. 3. Transfer to commissioner.
Prior to license termination, a licensee authorized to possess radioactive material with a half-life greater than 120 days, in an unsealed form, must forward the following records to the commissioner:
A. records of disposal of licensed material made under parts 4731.2410 to 4731.2440, including burials authorized before January 28, 1981; and
B. records required under part 4731.2510, subpart 2, item D.
Subp. 4. Transfer to new licensee.
If licensed activities are transferred or assigned under part 4731.3075, subpart 2, a licensee authorized to possess radioactive material, with a half-life greater than 120 days, in an unsealed form, must transfer the following records to the new licensee and the new licensee is responsible for maintaining the records until the license is terminated:
A. records of disposal of licensed material made under parts 4731.2410 to 4731.2440, including burials authorized before January 28, 1981; and
B. records required under part 4731.2510, subpart 2, item D.
Subp. 5. Decommissioning records.
Prior to license termination, a licensee must forward the records required under part 4731.3080, subpart 7, to the commissioner.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.3120 Inspections and Tests
Subpart 1. Material and premises inspection.
A licensee must afford to the commissioner at all reasonable times opportunity to inspect radioactive material and the premises and facilities wherein radioactive material is used or stored.
Subp. 2. Record inspection.
A licensee must make available to the commissioner for inspection, upon reasonable notice, records kept by the licensee as required under this chapter.
Subp. 3. Testing.
A. A licensee must perform, or permit the commissioner to perform, such tests as the commissioner deems appropriate or necessary for the administration of this chapter, including tests of:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.3130 Modification and Revocation of Licenses
A. The terms and conditions of a license issued under parts 4731.3000 to 4731.3245 are subject to amendment, revision, or modification by reason of rules and orders issued according to this chapter.
B. A license may be revoked, suspended, or modified, in whole or in part, for any material false statement in the application or any statement of fact required under Section 182 of the Act, or because of conditions revealed by such application or statement of fact or any report, record, or inspection or other means, which would warrant the commissioner to refuse to grant a license on an original application or for violation of or failure to observe any of the terms and provisions of any rule or order of the commissioner.
C. Except in cases of willfulness or those in which the public health, interest, or safety requires otherwise, no license must be modified, suspended, or revoked unless, prior to the institution of proceedings therefore, facts or conduct that may warrant such action are called to the attention of the licensee in writing and the licensee is accorded an opportunity to demonstrate or achieve compliance with all lawful requirements.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.3135 Withholding or Recall of Radioactive Material
The commissioner may cause the withholding or recall of radioactive material from a licensee who is not equipped to observe or fails to observe safety standards to protect health as may be established by the commissioner or who uses radioactive materials in violation of law or rule of the commissioner or in a manner other than as disclosed in the license application therefore or approved by the commissioner.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.3140 Exempt Concentrations
Subpart 1. Parent isotope.
Many radioisotopes disintegrate into isotopes that are also radioactive. In expressing the concentrations in subpart 3, the activity stated is that of the parent isotope and takes into account the daughters.
Subp. 2. Combination of isotopes.
For purposes of part 4731.3025, where a combination of isotopes is involved, the limit for the combination should be derived as follows: determine for each isotope in the product the ratio between the concentration present in the product and the exempt concentration established in subpart 3 for the specific isotope when not in combination. The sum of the ratios may not exceed one.
Subp. 3. Exempt concentrations.
1Values are given only for those materials normally used as gases.
2µCi/gm for solids.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.3145 Exempt Quantities
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 29 SR 755; 33 SR 1440; 40 SR 145
Minn. R. 4731.3150 Radioactive Materials; Emergency Plan Quantities
This part specifies quantities of radioactive materials requiring consideration of the need for an emergency plan for responding to a release.
1 For combinations of radioactive materials, consideration of the need for an emergency plan is required if the sum of the ratios of the quantity of each radioactive material authorized to the quantity listed for that material in this part exceeds one.
2 Waste packaged in Type B containers does not require an emergency plan.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 33 SR 1440
Minn. R. 4731.3155 Assuring Decommissioning Funds; Parent Company Guarantees
Subpart 1. General requirement.
An applicant or licensee may provide reasonable assurance of the availability of funds for decommissioning based on obtaining a parent company guarantee that funds will be available for decommissioning costs and on a demonstration that the parent company passes the financial test under subpart 2. This part establishes criteria for passing the financial test and for obtaining the parent company guarantee.
Subp. 2. Financial test requirements.
A. To pass the financial test, a parent company must meet the criteria of item B or C.
B. The parent company must have:
C. The parent company must have:
Subp. 3. Audit.
A parent company's independent certified public accountant must compare the data used by the parent company in the financial test, which must be derived from the independently audited, year-end financial statements for the latest fiscal year, with the amounts in such financial statements. In connection with that procedure, the licensee must inform the NRC within 90 days of any matters coming to the auditor's attention that cause the auditor to believe that the data in the financial test should be adjusted and that the company no longer passes the test.
Subp. 4. Continued compliance.
A. After the initial financial test, a parent company must repeat the passage of the test within 90 days after the close of each succeeding fiscal year.
B. If a parent company no longer meets the requirements of subpart 2, the licensee must send notice to the commissioner of intent to establish alternate financial assurance according to this chapter. The notice must be sent by certified mail within 90 days after the end of the fiscal year for which the year-end financial data show that the parent company no longer meets the financial test requirements. The licensee must provide alternate financial assurance within 120 days after the end of such fiscal year.
Subp. 5. Terms of guarantee.
The terms of a parent company guarantee that an applicant or licensee obtains must provide that:
A. the parent company guarantee remains in force unless the guarantor sends notice of cancellation by certified mail to the licensee and the commissioner. Cancellation may not occur, however, during the 120 days beginning on the date of receipt of the notice of cancellation by both the licensee and the commissioner, as evidenced by the return receipts;
B. if the licensee fails to provide alternate financial assurance according to this chapter within 90 days after receipt by the licensee and commissioner of a notice of cancellation of the parent company guarantee from the guarantor, the guarantor must provide alternative financial assurance in the name of the licensee;
C. the parent company guarantee and financial test provisions remain in effect until the commissioner terminates the license; and
D. if a trust is established for decommissioning costs, the trustee and trust must be acceptable to the commissioner. An acceptable trustee includes an appropriate state or federal government agency or an entity that has the authority to act as a trustee and whose trust operations are regulated and examined by a federal or state agency.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.3160 Quantities of Licensed Material Requiring Labeling for Decommissioning
Subpart 1. Table.
The following quantities of licensed material require labeling for decommissioning:
1Based on alpha disintegration rate of Th-232, Th-230, and their daughter products.
2Based on alpha disintegration rate of U-238, U-234, and U-235.
Subp. 2. Combination of isotopes.
For purposes of parts 4731.3000 to 4731.3245, where a combination of isotopes in known amounts is involved, the limit for the combination should be derived as follows: determine, for each isotope in the combination, the ratio between the quantity present in the combination and the limit otherwise established for the specific isotope when not in combination. The sum of such ratios for all the isotopes in the combination must not exceed one.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.3165 Assuring Decommissioning Funds; Self-Guarantees; Bond Rating
Subpart 1. General requirement.
This part applies to an applicant or licensee that has a rated bond issuance and wishes to self-guarantee. An applicant or licensee may provide reasonable assurance of the availability of funds for decommissioning based on furnishing its own guarantee that funds will be available for decommissioning costs and on a demonstration that the company passes the financial test under subpart 2. This part establishes criteria for passing the financial test for the self-guarantee and establishes the terms for a self-guarantee.
Subp. 2. Financial test requirements.
To pass the financial test, a company must have:
A. tangible net worth at least ten times the total current decommissioning cost estimate for the total of all facilities or parts thereof, or the current amount required if certification is used, or, for a power reactor licensee, at least ten times the amount of decommissioning funds being assured by a self-guarantee, for all decommissioning activities for which the company is responsible as a self-guaranteeing licensee and as a parent-guarantor for the total of all reactor units or parts thereof. Tangible net worth must be calculated to exclude the net book value of the nuclear units;
B. assets located in the United States amounting to at least 90 percent of total assets or at least ten times the total current decommissioning cost estimate for the total of all facilities or parts thereof, or the current amount required if certification is used, or, for a power reactor licensee, at least ten times the amount of decommissioning funds being assured by a self-guarantee, for all decommissioning activities for which the company is responsible as a self-guaranteeing licensee and as a parent-guarantor for the total of all reactor units or parts thereof;
C. a current rating for its most recent bond issuance of AAA, AA, or A as issued by Standard and Poor's or Aaa, Aa, or A as issued by Moody's; and
D. at least one class of equity securities registered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, United States Code, title 15, sections 78a to 78mm.
Subp. 3. Audit.
A company's independent certified public accountant must compare the data used by the company in the financial test, which must be derived from the independently audited, year-end financial statements for the latest fiscal year, with the amounts in such financial statements. In connection with that procedure, the licensee must inform the commissioner within 90 days of any matters coming to the attention of the auditor that cause the auditor to believe that the data in the financial test should be adjusted and that the company no longer passes the test.
Subp. 4. Continued compliance.
A. After the initial financial test, a company must repeat passage of the test within 90 days after the close of each succeeding fiscal year.
B. If a licensee no longer meets the requirements of subpart 2, the licensee must send immediate notice to the commissioner of its intent to establish alternate financial assurance according to this chapter within 120 days of the notice.
Subp. 5. Terms of guarantee.
The terms of a self-guarantee that an applicant or licensee furnishes must provide that:
A. the guarantee remains in force unless the licensee sends notice of cancellation by certified mail to the commissioner. Cancellation may not occur, however, during the 120 days beginning on the date of receipt of the notice of cancellation by the commissioner, as evidenced by the return receipt;
B. the licensee must provide alternative financial assurance according to this chapter within 90 days following receipt by the commissioner of a notice of cancellation of the guarantee;
C. the guarantee and financial test provisions remain in effect until the commissioner terminates the license or until another financial assurance method acceptable to the commissioner is put in effect by the licensee;
D. the licensee must promptly forward to the commissioner and the licensee's independent auditor all reports covering the latest fiscal year filed by the licensee with the Securities and Exchange Commission according to section 13 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, United States Code, title 15, section 78m;
E. if, at any time, the licensee's most recent bond issuance ceases to be rated in any category of A or above by either Standard and Poor's or Moody's, the licensee must provide notice in writing of such fact to the commissioner within 20 days after publication of the change by the rating service. If the licensee's most recent bond issuance ceases to be rated in any category of A or above by both Standard and Poor's and Moody's, the licensee no longer meets the requirements of subpart 2; and
F. the applicant or licensee must provide to the commissioner a written guarantee (a written commitment by a corporate officer) that states that the licensee shall fund and carry out the required decommissioning activities or, upon issuance of an order by the commissioner, the licensee shall set up and fund a trust in the amount of the current cost estimates for decommissioning.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.3170 Assuring Decommissioning Funds; Self-Guarantee; No Outstanding Rated Bonds
Subpart 1. General requirement.
This part applies to an applicant or licensee that has no outstanding rated bonds and wishes to self-guarantee. An applicant or licensee may provide reasonable assurance of the availability of funds for decommissioning based on furnishing its own guarantee that funds will be available for decommissioning costs and on a demonstration that the company passes the financial test under subpart 2. This part establishes criteria for passing the financial test for the self-guarantee and establishes the terms for a self-guarantee.
Subp. 2. Financial test requirement.
To pass the financial test, a company must have:
A. tangible net worth greater than $10,000,000, or at least ten times the total current decommissioning cost estimate, or the current amount required if certification is used, whichever is greater, for all decommissioning activities for which the company is responsible as a self-guaranteeing licensee and as a parent-guarantor;
B. assets located in the United States amounting to at least 90 percent of total assets or at least ten times the total current decommissioning cost estimate, or the current amount required if certification is used, for all decommissioning activities for which the company is responsible as a self-guaranteeing licensee and as a parent-guarantor; and
C. a ratio of cash flow divided by total liabilities greater than 0.15 and a ratio of total liabilities divided by net worth less than 1.5.
Subp. 3. Audit.
A company's independent certified public accountant must compare the data used by the company in the financial test, which must be derived from the independently audited year-end financial statements, based on United States generally accepted accounting practices, for the latest fiscal year, with the amounts in such financial statements. In connection with that procedure, the licensee must inform the commissioner within 90 days of any matters that may cause the auditor to believe that the data in the financial test should be adjusted and that the company no longer passes the test.
Subp. 4. Continued compliance.
A. After the initial financial test, a company must repeat passage of the test within 90 days after the close of each succeeding fiscal year.
B. If a licensee no longer meets the requirements of subpart 2, the licensee must send notice to the commissioner of intent to establish alternative financial assurance according to this chapter. The notice must be sent by certified mail, return receipt requested, within 90 days after the end of the fiscal year for which the year-end financial data show that the licensee no longer meets the financial test requirements. The licensee must provide alternative financial assurance within 120 days after the end of the fiscal year.
Subp. 5. Terms of guarantee.
The terms of a self-guarantee that an applicant or licensee furnishes must provide that:
A. the guarantee remains in force unless the licensee sends notice of cancellation by certified mail, return receipt requested, to the commissioner. Cancellation may not occur until an alternative financial assurance mechanism is in place;
B. the licensee must provide alternative financial assurance according to this chapter within 90 days following receipt by the commissioner of a notice of cancellation of the guarantee;
C. the guarantee and financial test provisions remain in effect until the commissioner terminates the license or until another financial assurance method acceptable to the commissioner is put in effect by the licensee; and
D. the applicant or licensee must provide to the commissioner a written guarantee (a written commitment by a corporate officer) that states that the licensee shall fund and carry out the required decommissioning activities or, upon issuance of an order by the commissioner, the licensee shall set up and fund a trust in the amount of the current cost estimates for decommissioning.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.3175 Assuring Decommissioning Funds; Nonprofit Entities
Subpart 1. General requirement.
This part applies to an applicant or licensee that is a nonprofit entity, such as a college, university, or nonprofit hospital, and wishes to self-guarantee. An applicant or licensee may provide reasonable assurance of the availability of funds for decommissioning based on furnishing its own guarantee that funds will be available for decommissioning costs and on a demonstration that the applicant or licensee passes the financial test under subpart 2. This part establishes criteria for passing the financial test for the self-guarantee and establishes the terms for a self-guarantee.
Subp. 2. Financial test requirements.
A. To pass the financial test, a college or university must:
B. To pass the financial test, a hospital must:
Subp. 3. Audit.
A licensee's independent certified public accountant must compare the data used by the licensee in the financial test, which must be derived from the independently audited, year-end financial statements, based on United States generally accepted accounting practices, for the latest fiscal year, with the amounts in such financial statements. In connection with that procedure, the licensee must inform the commissioner within 90 days of any matters coming to the attention of the auditor that cause the auditor to believe that the data in the financial test should be adjusted and that the licensee no longer passes the test.
Subp. 4. Continued compliance.
A. After the initial financial test, a licensee must repeat passage of the test within 90 days after the close of each succeeding fiscal year.
B. If a licensee no longer meets the requirements of subpart 2, the licensee must send notice to the commissioner of its intent to establish alternative financial assurance according to this chapter. The notice must be sent by certified mail, return receipt requested, within 90 days after the end of the fiscal year for which the year-end financial data show that the licensee no longer meets the financial test requirements. The licensee must provide alternate financial assurance within 120 days after the end of the fiscal year.
Subp. 5. Terms of guarantee.
The terms of a self-guarantee that an applicant or licensee furnishes must provide that:
A. the guarantee remains in force unless the licensee sends notice of cancellation by certified mail or return receipt requested to the commissioner. Cancellation may not occur unless an alternative financial assurance mechanism is in place;
B. the licensee must provide alternative financial assurance according to this chapter within 90 days following receipt by the commissioner of a notice of cancellation of the guarantee;
C. the guarantee and financial test provisions remain in effect until the commissioner terminates the license or until another financial assurance method acceptable to the commissioner is put in effect by the licensee;
D. the applicant or licensee must provide to the commissioner a written guarantee (a written commitment by a corporate officer or officer of the institution) that states that the licensee shall fund and carry out the required decommissioning activities or, upon issuance of an order by the commissioner, the licensee shall set up and fund a trust in the amount of the current cost estimates for decommissioning; and
E. if, at any time, the licensee's most recent bond issuance ceases to be rated in any category of A or above by either Standard and Poor's or Moody's, the licensee must provide notice in writing of the fact to the commissioner within 20 days after publication of the change by the rating service.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.3200 General Domestic Licenses for Radioactive Material
A. Parts 4731.3200 to 4731.3245 establish general licenses for the possession and use of radioactive material and a general license for ownership of radioactive material. Specific provisions of this chapter are applicable to general licenses established under parts 4731.3200 to 4731.3245, as provided under item B and as provided in the particular general license.
B. A general license issued under parts 4731.3200 to 4731.3245 is subject to parts 4731.1000 to 4731.1090, 4731.2000 to 4731.2950, and 4731.3000 to 4731.3175 and Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, part 21, unless indicated otherwise in the specific provision of the general license. Attention is directed particularly to the provisions of parts 4731.2000 to 4731.2950 concerning labeling of containers.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.3210 [Repealed, 40 SR 145]
[Repealed, 40 SR 145]
Minn. R. 4731.3215 General License; Detecting, Measuring, Gauging, Controlling, and Other Devices
Subpart 1. License issued.
Commercial and industrial firms; research, educational, and medical institutions; individuals in the conduct of their business; and state or local government agencies are issued a general license to acquire, receive, possess, use, or transfer, according to this part, radioactive material contained in devices designed and manufactured for:
A. detecting, measuring, gauging, or controlling thickness, density, level, interface location, radiation, leakage, or qualitative or quantitative chemical composition; or
B. producing light or an ionized atmosphere.
Subp. 2. Applicability.
A. The general license under subpart 1 applies only to radioactive material contained in devices that have been manufactured or initially transferred and labeled according to:
B. The devices must have been received from one of the specific licensees described in item A or through a transfer made under subpart 3, item M.
Subp. 3. Requirements.
A person who acquires, receives, possesses, uses, or transfers radioactive material in a device according to the general license issued under subpart 1 must:
A. ensure that all labels that are affixed to the device at the time of receipt and that bear a statement that removal of the label is prohibited are maintained on the device and must comply with all instructions and precautions provided by the labels;
B. ensure that the device is tested for leakage of radioactive material and proper operation of the on-off mechanism and indicator, if any, at no longer than six-month intervals or at such other intervals as are specified in the label, except:
C. ensure that the tests under item B and other testing, installation, servicing, and removal from installation involving the radioactive material, its shielding, or its containment are performed:
D. maintain records showing compliance with items B and C. The records must include:
E. retain the records under item D as follows:
F. immediately suspend operation of the device if there is a failure of or damage to or any indication of a possible failure of or damage to the shielding of the radioactive material or the on-off mechanism or indicator or upon the detection of 0.005 microcurie (185 Bq) or more removable radioactive material until the device has been repaired by the manufacturer or other person holding a specific license issued under parts 4731.3000 to 4731.3175 or 4731.3300 to 4731.3400 or issued by the NRC or an agreement state to repair the device. The device and any radioactive material from the device may only be disposed of by transfer to a person authorized by a specific license to receive the radioactive material contained in the device or as otherwise approved by the commissioner;
G. within 30 days, furnish to the commissioner a report containing a brief description of any event under item F and the remedial actions taken and, in the case of detection of 0.005 microcurie or more of removable radioactive material or failure of or damage to a source likely to result in contamination of the premises or environs, a plan for ensuring that the premises and environs are acceptable for unrestricted use. Under these circumstances, the criteria under part 4731.2100, subpart 2, may be applicable, as determined by the commissioner on a case-by-case basis;
H. not abandon the device containing radioactive material;
I. not export the device containing radioactive material, except according to Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, part 110;
J. transfer or dispose of the device containing radioactive material only:
K. within 30 days of a transfer under item J, report to the commissioner:
L. obtain written approval from the commissioner before transferring the device to another specific licensee not specifically identified in item J; however, a holder of a specific license may transfer a device for possession and use under its own specific license without prior approval, if the holder:
M. transfer the device to another general licensee only if:
N. comply with parts 4731.2600 and 4731.2610 for reporting radiation incidents, theft, and loss of licensed material, but is exempt from the remainder of parts 4731.1000 to 4731.1090 and 4731.2000 to 4731.2950 and Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, part 21;
O. respond to written requests from the commissioner to provide information relating to the general license within 30 calendar days of the date of the request, or other time specified in the request. If the general licensee cannot provide the requested information within the allotted time, the general licensee must, within the same time period, request a longer period to supply the information by submitting a letter to the commissioner and provide written justification as to why it cannot comply;
P. appoint an individual responsible for having knowledge of the appropriate rules and requirements and the authority for taking required actions to comply with appropriate rules and requirements. The general licensee, through the appointed individual, must ensure the day-to-day compliance with appropriate rules and requirements. The appointment does not relieve the general licensee of any of the general licensee's responsibility in this regard;
Q. report changes to the mailing address for the location of use, including change in name of the general licensee, to the commissioner within 30 days of the effective date of the change. For a portable device, a report of address change is required only for a change in the device's primary place of storage; and
R. not hold devices that are not in use for more than two years. If a device with shutters is not being used, the shutters must be locked in the closed position. The testing required under item B need not be performed during the period of storage only. When a device is put back into service or transferred to another person, and has not been tested within the required test interval, the device must be tested for leakage before use or transfer and the shutters must be tested before use. Devices kept in standby for future use are excluded from the two-year time limit if the general licensee performs quarterly physical inventories of these devices while they are in standby.
Subp. 3a. Registration of generally licensed devices.
A. A person to whom subpart 3 applies shall register generally licensed devices according to items B and C. These devices contain:
B. If in possession of a device meeting the criteria of item A, a person to whom subpart 3 applies must register the device annually with the commissioner and pay the fee required under Minnesota Statutes, section 144.1205.
C. In registering devices under item B, a person to whom subpart 3 applies must furnish the following information and any other information specifically requested by the commissioner:
Subp. 4. Limitation.
The general license issued under subpart 1 does not authorize the manufacture or import of devices containing radioactive material.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 29 SR 755; 32 SR 831; 33 SR 1440; 40 SR 145
Minn. R. 4731.3220 General License; Installation of Generally Licensed Devices
A person who holds a specific license issued by the NRC or an agreement state authorizing the holder to manufacture, install, or service a device described under part 4731.3215 is issued a general license to install and service such device in areas subject to the commissioner's authority, if:
A. the device has been manufactured, labeled, installed, and serviced according to applicable provisions of the specific license issued to the person by the commissioner, the NRC, or an agreement state; and
B. the specific license holder ensures that any labels required to be affixed to the device under rules of the commissioner, the NRC, or the agreement state that licensed manufacture of the device bear a statement that removal of the label is prohibited.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.3225 General License; Luminous Safety Devices for Aircraft
Subpart 1. License issued.
A general license is issued to own, receive, acquire, possess, and use tritium or promethium-147 contained in luminous safety devices for use in aircraft, provided that:
A. each device contains not more than ten curies (370 GBq) of tritium or 300 millicuries (11.1 GBq) of promethium-147; and
B. each device:
Subp. 2. Exemption.
Persons who own, receive, acquire, possess, or use luminous safety devices under the general license issued in subpart 1 are exempt from parts 4731.1000 to 4731.1090 and 4731.2000 to 4731.2950 and Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, part 21, except that they must comply with parts 4731.2600 and 4731.2610.
Subp. 3. Limitation.
The general license under this part does not authorize:
A. the manufacture, assembly, repair, export, or import of luminous safety devices containing tritium or promethium-147; or
B. the ownership, receipt, acquisition, possession, or use of promethium-147 contained in instrument dials.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.3230 General License; Americium-241 and Radium-226 Calibration or Reference Sources
Subpart 1. License issued; americium-241.
A general license is issued to persons listed in this part to own, receive, acquire, possess, use, and transfer, according to the provisions of subparts 4 and 5, americium-241 or radium-226 in the form of calibration or reference sources:
A. a person who holds a specific license issued by the commissioner that authorizes the person to receive, possess, use, and transfer radioactive material; and
B. a government agency that holds a specific license issued by the NRC that authorizes the person to receive, possess, use, and transfer radioactive material.
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, 33 SR 1440]
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, 33 SR 1440]
Subp. 4. Calibration or reference source requirements.
The general licenses in subpart 1 apply only to calibration or reference sources that have been manufactured or initially transferred according to a specific license issued to the manufacturer under part 4731.3365 or by the NRC or an agreement state that authorizes manufacture of the sources for distribution to persons generally licensed by an agreement state.
Subp. 5. Additional requirements.
A. The general licenses issued under this part are subject to parts 4731.0260; 4731.1000 to 4731.2950; 4731.3025, subpart 4; 4731.3075, subparts 1, 2, 3, 5, and 6; and 4731.3110 to 4731.3135 and Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, part 21.
B. Persons who own, receive, acquire, possess, use, or transfer one or more calibration or reference sources under the general licenses:
C. Sources generally licensed under this part before January 19, 1975, may bear labels authorized by the regulations in effect on January 1, 1975. Sources containing radium-226 generally licensed under this part and manufactured before November 30, 2007, must be labeled according to the applicable state regulations at the time of manufacture or import.
Subp. 6. Limitation.
The general licenses under this part do not authorize the manufacture, export, or import of calibration or reference sources containing americium-241 or radium-226.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 33 SR 1440
Minn. R. 4731.3235 General License; Owning Radioactive Material
A general license is issued to own radioactive material without regard to quantity. Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter, a general licensee under this part is not authorized to manufacture, produce, transfer, receive, possess, use, import, or export radioactive material, except as authorized in a specific license.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.3240 General License; Strontium-90 Ice Detection Devices
Subpart 1. License issued.
A general license is issued to own, receive, acquire, possess, use, and transfer strontium-90 contained in ice detection devices, provided that:
A. each device contains not more than 50 microcuries (1.85 MBq) of strontium-90; and
B. each device has been manufactured or initially transferred according to a license issued under part 4731.3380 or according to a specific license issued to the manufacturer by the commissioner, the NRC, or an agreement state that authorizes manufacture of the ice detection devices for distribution to persons generally licensed by the commissioner, the NRC, or an agreement state.
Subp. 2. Requirements.
Persons who own, receive, acquire, possess, use, or transfer strontium-90 contained in ice detection devices under the general license issued under subpart 1:
A. must, upon occurrence of visually observable damage to the device, such as a bend, crack, or discoloration from overheating:
B. must ensure that all labels affixed to the device at the time of receipt, and which bear a statement that prohibits removal of the labels, are maintained thereon; and
C. are exempt from parts 4731.1000 to 4731.2950 and Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, part 21, except that the persons must comply with parts 4731.2400, 4731.2600, and 4731.2610.
Subp. 3. Limitation.
The general license issued under subpart 1 does not authorize the manufacture, assembly, disassembly, repair, or import of strontium-90 in ice detection devices.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 29 SR 755; 40 SR 145
Minn. R. 4731.3245 General License; in Vitro Clinical or Laboratory Testing Use
Subpart 1. License issued.
A physician, veterinarian in the practice of veterinary medicine, clinical laboratory, or hospital is issued a general license to receive, acquire, possess, transfer, or use, according to this part, the following radioactive materials in prepackaged units for use in in vitro clinical or laboratory tests not involving internal or external administration of radioactive material, or the radiation therefrom, to human beings or animals:
A. iodine-125, in units not exceeding ten microcuries (0.37 MBq) each;
B. iodine-131, in units not exceeding ten microcuries (0.37 MBq) each;
C. carbon-14, in units not exceeding ten microcuries (0.37 MBq) each;
D. hydrogen-3 (tritium), in units not exceeding 50 microcuries (1.85 MBq) each;
E. iron-59, in units not exceeding 20 microcuries (0.74 MBq) each;
F. selenium-75, in units not exceeding ten microcuries (0.37 MBq) each;
G. mock iodine-125 reference or calibration sources, in units not exceeding 0.05 microcurie (1.85 kBq) of iodine-129 and 0.005 microcurie (0.185 kBq) of americium-241 each; and
H. cobalt-57, in units not exceeding ten microcuries (0.37 MBq) each.
Subp. 2. License requirements.
A person must not receive, acquire, possess, use, or transfer radioactive material under the general license issued under subpart 1 unless the person:
A. has filed a registration certificate in vitro testing with radioactive material under general license form, as prescribed by the commissioner, with the commissioner and received from the commissioner a validated copy of the form with a registration number assigned; or
B. has a license that authorizes the medical use of radioactive material issued under parts 4731.4400 to 4731.4527.
Subp. 3. Additional requirements.
A person who receives, acquires, possesses, or uses radioactive material under the general license issued under subpart 1 must:
A. not possess at any one time, at any one location of storage or use, a total amount of iodine-125, iodine-131, selenium-75, iron-59, or cobalt-57 in excess of 200 microcuries (7.4 MBq);
B. store the radioactive material, until used, in the original shipping container or in a container providing equivalent radiation protection;
C. use the radioactive material only for the uses authorized under subpart 1;
D. not transfer the radioactive material, except by transfer to a person who is authorized to receive it under a license issued by the commissioner, the NRC, or an agreement state, nor transfer the radioactive material in any manner other than in the unopened, labeled shipping container as received from the supplier; and
E. dispose of the mock iodine-125 reference or calibration sources described in subpart 1, item G, as required under part 4731.2400.
Subp. 4. Limitation.
A general licensee under this part must not receive, acquire, possess, or use radioactive material:
A. except as prepackaged units that are labeled according to:
B. unless the following statement, or a substantially similar statement that contains the information called for, appears on a label affixed to each prepackaged unit or appears in a leaflet or brochure that accompanies the package: "This radioactive material may be received, acquired, possessed, and used only by physicians, veterinarians in the practice of veterinary medicine, clinical laboratories, or hospitals and only for in vitro clinical or laboratory tests not involving internal or external administration of the material, or the radiation therefrom, to human beings or animals. Its receipt, acquisition, possession, use, and transfer are subject to the rules of and a general license issued by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission or a state with which the Nuclear Regulatory Commission has entered into an agreement for the exercise of regulatory authority. (Name of manufacturer)"
Subp. 5. Changes in registration.
A registrant possessing or using radioactive material under the general license issued under subpart 1 must report in writing to the commissioner any changes in the information provided in the form under subpart 2, item A. The report must be furnished within 30 days after the effective date of the change.
Subp. 6. Exemptions.
A person using radioactive material under the general license issued under subpart 1 is exempt from parts 4731.1000 to 4731.2950 and Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, part 21, with respect to radioactive material covered by the general license, except that persons using mock iodine-125 under subpart 1, item G, must comply with parts 4731.2400, 4731.2600, and 4731.2610.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 33 SR 1440
Minn. R. 4731.3250 General License; Certain Items and Self-Luminous Products Containing Radium-226
Subpart 1. General license.
A general license is hereby issued to any person to acquire, receive, possess, use, or transfer, according to the provisions of subparts 2 to 4, radium-226 contained in the following products manufactured prior to November 30, 2007.
A. Antiquities originally intended for use by the general public. For the purposes of this item, "antiquities" means products originally intended for use by the general public and distributed in the late 19th and early 20th centuries, such as radium emanator jars, revigators, radium water jars, radon generators, refrigerator cards, radium bath salts, and healing pads.
B. Intact timepieces containing greater than one microcurie (0.037 MBq), nonintact timepieces, and timepiece hands and dials no longer installed in timepieces.
C. Luminous items installed in air, marine, or land vehicles.
D. All other luminous products, provided that no more than 100 items are used or stored at the same location at any one time.
E. Small radium sources containing no more than one microcurie (0.037 MBq) of radium-226. For the purposes of this item, "small radium sources" means discrete survey instrument check sources, sources contained in radiation measuring instruments, sources used in educational demonstrations, such as cloud chambers and spinthariscopes, electron tubes, lightning rods, ionization sources, static eliminators, or as designated by the NRC.
Subp. 2. Exempt provisions.
Persons who acquire, receive, possess, use, or transfer byproduct material under the general license issued in subpart 1 are exempt from the provisions of parts 4731.1000 to 4731.2950, 4731.3110 and 4731.3115, and Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, part 21, to the extent that the receipt, possession, use, or transfer of byproduct material is within the terms of the general license; provided, that this exemption is not deemed to apply to any person specifically licensed under this chapter.
Subp. 3. General requirements.
Any person who acquires, receives, possesses, uses, or transfers byproduct material according to the general license in subpart 1:
A. must notify the commissioner if there is any indication that damage to the product may result in a loss of the radioactive material. A report containing a brief description of the event, and the remedial action taken, must be furnished within 30 days to the Radioactive Materials Unit, Minnesota Department of Health, 625 Robert Street N., P.O. Box 64975, St. Paul, MN 55164-0975;
B. must not abandon products containing radium-226. The product, and any radioactive material from the product, may only be disposed of according to part 4731.2460 or by transfer to a person authorized by a specific license to receive the radium-226 in the product or as otherwise approved by the NRC;
C. must not export products containing radium-226 except according to Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, part 110;
D. must dispose of products containing radium-226:
E. must respond to written requests from the commissioner to provide information relating to the general license within 30 calendar days of the date of the request, or other time specified in the request. If the general licensee cannot provide the requested information within the allotted time, the licensee must, within that same time period, request a longer period to supply the information by providing the commissioner a written justification for the request.
Subp. 4. Limitation.
The general license in subpart 1 does not authorize the manufacture, assembly, disassembly, repair, or import of products containing radium-226, except that timepieces may be disassembled and repaired.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 33 SR 1440; 40 SR 145
Minn. R. 4731.3300 Specific Domestic Licenses to Manufacture or Transfer Certain Items Containing Radioactive Material
Subpart 1. Scope.
Parts 4731.3300 to 4731.3400 provide for:
A. issuance of specific licenses to persons who manufacture or initially transfer items containing radioactive material for sale or distribution to persons exempted from the licensing requirements of parts 4731.3000 to 4731.3175 or persons generally licensed under parts 4731.3200 to 4731.3245 or 4731.4400 to 4731.4527 and rules governing holders of such licenses;
B. issuance of specific licenses to persons who introduce radioactive material into a product or material owned by or in the possession of the licensee or another and rules governing holders of such licenses; and
C. issuance of certificates of registration (governing radiation safety information about a product) to manufacturers or initial transferors of sealed source or devices containing sealed sources that are to be used by persons specifically licensed under parts 4731.3000 to 4731.3175 or equivalent regulations of the NRC or an agreement state.
Subp. 2. Applicability.
Parts 4731.3300 to 4731.3400 are in addition to, and not in substitution for, other requirements of this chapter. In particular, the provisions of parts 4731.3000 to 4731.3175 apply to applications, licenses, and certificates of registration subject to parts 4731.3300 to 4731.3400.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 29 SR 755; 40 SR 145
Minn. R. 4731.3305 [Repealed, 33 SR 1440]
[Repealed, 33 SR 1440]
Minn. R. 4731.3315 Prohibition of Introduction
No person may introduce radioactive material in a product or material knowing or having reason to believe that it will be transferred to a person that is exempt under part 4731.3025 or equivalent regulations of the NRC or an agreement state, except according to a specific license issued under Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, section 32.11.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 33 SR 1440
Minn. R. 4731.3320 [Repealed, 33 SR 1440]
[Repealed, 33 SR 1440]
Minn. R. 4731.3325 Organ Doses
This part specifies dose limits for exposure to radioactive materials in self-luminous products containing tritium or promethium-147 and certain other devices containing radioactive material according to part 4731.3225.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.3330 Specific License; Certain Devices Containing Radioactive Materials; Manufacture or Initial Transfer
Subpart 1. Approval criteria.
An application for a specific license to manufacture or initially transfer devices containing radioactive material to a person generally licensed under part 4731.3215 or equivalent regulations of the NRC or an agreement state shall be approved if:
A. the applicant satisfies the general requirements of part 4731.3070;
B. the applicant submits sufficient information relating to the design, manufacture, prototype testing, quality control, labels, proposed uses, installation, servicing, leak testing, operating and safety instructions, and potential hazards of the device to provide reasonable assurance that:
C. each device bears a durable, legible, clearly visible label or labels approved by the commissioner, which contain in a clearly identified and separate statement:
D. each device having a separable source housing that provides the primary shielding for the source also bears, on the source housing, a durable label containing the device model number and serial number, the isotope and quantity, the words "Caution-Radioactive Material," the radiation symbol described in part 4731.2300, and the name of the manufacturer or initial distributor;
E. each device meeting the criteria of part 4731.3215, subpart 3a, bears a permanent embossed, etched, stamped, or engraved label affixed to the source housing if separable, or the device if the source housing is not separable, that includes the words "Caution-Radioactive Material" and, if practicable, the radiation symbol described in part 4731.2300; and
F. the device has been registered in the Sealed Source and Device Registry.
Subp. 2. Additional requirements; alternate testing intervals.
In the event the applicant desires that the device be required to be tested at intervals longer than six months, for proper operation of the on-off mechanism and indicator, if any, or for leakage of radioactive material, or for both:
A. the applicant must include in the application sufficient information to demonstrate that the longer interval is justified:
B. the commissioner, in determining the acceptable interval for the test for leakage of radioactive material, shall consider information that includes, but is not limited to:
Subp. 3. Additional requirements; general licensee authority.
If the applicant desires that a general licensee under part 4731.3215 or under equivalent regulations of the NRC or an agreement state be authorized to install the device, collect the sample to be analyzed by a specific licensee for leakage of radioactive material, service the device, test the on-off mechanism and indicator, or remove the device from installation, the applicant must:
A. include in the application written instructions to be followed by the general licensee, the estimated calendar quarter doses associated with such activity, and the bases for these estimates; and
B. submit information to demonstrate that performance of the activity by an individual untrained in radiological protection, in addition to other handling, storage, and use of devices under the general license, is unlikely to cause the individual to receive a dose in excess of ten percent of the annual limits under part 4731.2020, subpart 1.
Subp. 4. Transfer for use under general license; requirements.
If a device containing radioactive material is to be transferred for use under a general license issued under part 4731.3215, a person that is licensed under this part must provide the information specified in this subpart to each person to whom a device is to be transferred. The information must be provided before the device may be transferred. In case of a transfer through an intermediate person, the information must also be provided to the intended user before the initial transfer to the intermediate person. The required information includes:
A. a copy of the general license issued under part 4731.3215. If part 4731.3215, subpart 3, items B to D, or 3a, do not apply to the particular device, those items may be omitted;
B. a copy of parts 4731.2600, 4731.2610, 4731.3115, and 4731.3200, item B;
C. a list of the services that can only be performed by a specific licensee;
D. information on acceptable disposal options, including estimated costs of disposal; and
E. an indication that the commissioner's policy is to issue high civil penalties for improper disposal.
Subp. 5. Transfer for use under equivalent regulations; requirements.
If radioactive material is to be transferred in a device for use under an equivalent general license of the NRC or an agreement state, a person that is licensed under this part must provide the information specified in this subpart to each person to whom a device is to be transferred. The information must be provided before the device may be transferred. In the case of a transfer through an intermediate person, the information must also be provided to the intended user before initial transfer to the intermediate person. The required information includes:
A. a copy of the NRC or agreement state regulations equivalent to parts 4731.2600; 4731.2610; 4731.3115; 4731.3205; and 4731.3215, or a copy of parts 4731.2600; 4731.2610; 4731.3115; 4731.3205; and 4731.3215. If a copy of the commissioner's rules is provided to a prospective general licensee in lieu of the NRC or agreement state regulations, the copy must be accompanied by a note explaining that use of the device is regulated by the NRC or agreement state. If certain subparts, items, or subitems do not apply to the particular device, those subparts, items, and subitems may be omitted;
B. a list of the services that can only be performed by a specific licensee;
C. information on acceptable disposal options, including estimated costs of disposal; and
D. the name or title, address, and telephone number of the contact at the NRC or agreement state regulatory agency from which additional information may be obtained.
Subp. 6. Alternative methods.
A licensee may propose an alternative method of informing customers, other than that specified under subparts 4 and 5, for approval by the commissioner.
Subp. 7. Labeling requirements.
A device that is transferred after February 19, 2002, must meet the labeling requirements in subpart 1, items D and E.
Subp. 8. Records upon bankruptcy.
If a notification of bankruptcy is made under part 4731.3075, subpart 4, or the license is to be terminated, a person licensed under this part must provide, upon request, to the commissioner, the NRC, and any appropriate agreement state, records of final disposition required under subpart 11.
Subp. 9. Report; transfer for use under general license.
A person licensed under this part to initially transfer devices to generally licensed persons must report all transfers of devices to persons for use under the general license in part 4731.3215 and all receipts of devices from persons licensed under part 4731.3215 to the commissioner. The report must be submitted on a quarterly basis on a transfers of industrial devices report form prescribed by the commissioner or in a clear and legible report containing all the data required by the form. The report must:
A. include:
B. if one or more intermediate persons will temporarily possess the device at the intended place of use before its possession by the user, include the same information for both the intended user and the intermediate person and clearly designate the intermediate person;
C. for devices received from a person generally licensed under part 4731.3215, include the identity of the general licensee by name and address, the type, model number, and serial number of the device received, the date of receipt, and, in the case of devices not initially transferred by the reporting licensee, the name of the manufacturer or initial transferor;
D. if the licensee makes changes to a device possessed by a person generally licensed under part 4731.3215, such that the label must be changed to update the required information, identify the general licensee, the device, and the changes to information on the device label;
E. cover each calendar quarter, be filed within 30 days of the end of the calendar quarter, and clearly indicate the period covered by the report;
F. clearly identify the specific licensee submitting the report and include the license number of the specific licensee; and
G. if no transfers have been made to or from persons generally licensed under part 4731.3215 during the reporting period, so indicate.
Subp. 10. Report; transfer for use under equivalent regulations.
A person licensed under this part to initially transfer devices to generally licensed persons must report all transfers of devices to persons for use under a general license issued by the NRC or an agreement state under regulations that are equivalent to part 4731.3215, and all receipts of devices from general licensees in the NRC's or agreement state's jurisdiction to the NRC or the responsible agreement state agency. The report must be submitted on a transfers of industrial devices report form prescribed by the NRC or in a clear and legible report containing all of the data required by the form. The report must:
A. include:
B. if one or more intermediate persons will temporarily possess the device at the intended place of use before its possession by the user, include the same information for both the intended user and each intermediate person and clearly designate the intermediate person;
C. for devices received from a general licensee, include the identity of the general licensee by name and address; the type, model number, and serial number of the device received; the date of receipt; and in the case of devices not initially transferred by the reporting licensee, the name of the manufacturer or initial transferor;
D. if the licensee makes changes to a device possessed by a general licensee, such that the label must be changed to update required information, identify the general licensee, the device, and the changes to information on the device label;
E. cover each calendar quarter, be filed within 30 days of the end of the calendar quarter, and clearly indicate the period covered by the report;
F. clearly identify the specific licensee submitting the report and include the license number of the specific licensee; and
G. upon request of the NRC or responsible agreement state agency, include a statement that no transfers have been made to or from a general licensee during the reporting period, if applicable.
Subp. 11. Record retention.
A person licensed under this part to initially transfer devices to generally licensed persons must maintain all information concerning transfers and receipts of devices that supports the reports required under subparts 9 and 10. The records must be maintained for three years following the date of the recorded event.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 29 SR 755; 32 SR 831; 40 SR 145; 46 SR 791
Minn. R. 4731.3345 Specific License; Luminous Safety Devices; Manufacture, Assemble, Repair, or Initially Transfer
Subpart 1. Approval criteria.
An application for a specific license to manufacture, assemble, repair, or initially transfer luminous safety devices containing tritium or promethium-147 for use in aircraft, for distribution to persons generally licensed under part 4731.3225, shall be approved if:
A. the applicant satisfies the general requirements of part 4731.3070;
B. the applicant submits sufficient information regarding each device pertinent to evaluation of the potential radiation exposure, including:
C. each device will contain no more than ten curies of tritium or 300 millicuries of promethium-147. The levels of radiation from each device containing promethium-147 will not exceed 0.5 millirad per hour at ten centimeters from any surface when measured through 50 milligrams per square centimeter of absorber;
D. the commissioner determines that:
E. the applicant must subject at least five prototypes of the device to tests as follows:
F. the device has been registered in the Sealed Source and Device Registry.
Subp. 2. Labeling requirements.
A person licensed under this part to manufacture, assemble, or initially transfer devices containing tritium or promethium-147 for distribution to persons generally licensed under part 4731.3225 must, except as provided in subpart 3, affix to each device a label containing:
A. the radiation symbol prescribed by part 4731.2300;
B. such other information as may be required by the commissioner, including disposal instructions when appropriate; and
C. the following or a substantially similar statement that contains all of the information called for: "The receipt, possession, use, and transfer of this device, Model ..., Serial No. ..., containing ... (identity and quantity of radioactive material) are subject to a general license or the equivalent and the regulations of the Minnesota commissioner of health, the Nuclear Regulatory Commission, or a state with which the Nuclear Regulatory Commission has entered into an agreement for the exercise of regulatory authority. Do not remove this label. CAUTION -- RADIOACTIVE MATERIAL (Name of manufacturer, assembler, or initial transferor)" The model, serial number, and name of manufacturer, assembler, or initial transferor may be omitted from the label if they are elsewhere specified in the labeling affixed to the device.
Subp. 3. Alternative labeling.
If the commissioner determines that it is not feasible to affix a label to the device containing all the information required under subpart 2, the commissioner may waive those requirements and require in lieu thereof that:
A. a label be affixed to the device identifying:
B. a leaflet bearing the following information be enclosed in or accompany the container in which the device is shipped:
Subp. 4. Quality assurance; transfer prohibition.
A. A person licensed under this part must visually inspect each device and must reject any that has an observable physical defect that could adversely affect containment of the tritium or promethium-147.
B. A person licensed under this part must:
C. The licensee must subject each inspection lot to:
D. No person licensed under this part shall transfer to persons generally licensed under part 4731.3225 or under an equivalent general license of the NRC or an agreement state:
Subp. 5. Transfer reports.
A. A person licensed under this part must file an annual report with the commissioner that covers the year ending June 30 and is filed within 30 days thereafter. If no transfers have been made to persons generally licensed under part 4731.3225 during the reporting period, the report must so indicate. The report must:
B. A person licensed under this part must report annually all transfers of devices to persons for use under a general license in the NRC's or an agreement state's regulations that are equivalent to part 4731.3225 to the NRC or responsible agreement state agency. If no transfers have been made to the NRC or a particular agreement state during the reporting period, this information must be reported to the NRC or responsible agreement state agency upon request of the agency. The report must:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 29 SR 755; 40 SR 145
Minn. R. 4731.3365 Specific License; Calibration or Reference Sources; Manufacture or Initial Transfer
Subpart 1. Approval criteria.
An application for a specific license to manufacture or initially transfer calibration and reference sources containing americium-241 or radium-226 for distribution to persons generally licensed under part 4731.3230 shall be approved if:
A. the applicant satisfies the general requirements of part 4731.3070;
B. the applicant submits sufficient information regarding each type of calibration or reference source pertinent to evaluation of the potential radiation exposure, including:
C. each source will contain no more than five microcuries (185 kBq) of americium-241 or radium-226;
D. the commissioner determines, with respect to any type of source containing more than 0.005 microcurie (185 Bq) of americium-241 or radium-226, that:
E. the applicant subjects at least five prototypes of each source that is designed to contain more than 0.005 microcurie (0.185 kilobecquerel) of americium-241 or radium-226 to tests as follows:
Subp. 2. Labeling requirements.
A person licensed under this part must affix to each source or storage container for the source a label that:
A. contains sufficient information relative to safe use and storage of the source; and
B. includes the following statement or a substantially similar statement that contains the information called for: "The receipt, possession, use, and transfer of this source, Model ..., Serial No. ..., are subject to a general license and the regulations of the Minnesota commissioner of health, the Nuclear Regulatory Commission, or a state with which the Nuclear Regulatory Commission has entered into an agreement for the exercise of regulatory authority. Do not remove this label. CAUTION -- RADIOACTIVE MATERIAL -- THIS SOURCE CONTAINS AMERICIUM-241 [or RADIUM-226, as appropriate]. DO NOT TOUCH RADIOACTIVE PORTION OF THIS SOURCE. (Name of manufacturer or initial transferor)" Sources licensed under Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, before January 19, 1975, may bear labels authorized by the regulations in effect on January 1, 1975.
Subp. 3. Leak testing.
A. A person licensed under this part must perform a dry wipe test upon each source containing more than 0.1 microcurie (3.7 kBq) of americium-241 or radium-226 before transferring the source to a general licensee under part 4731.3230 or equivalent regulations of the NRC or an agreement state.
B. The test must be performed by wiping the entire radioactive surface of the source with a filter paper with the application of moderate finger pressure.
C. The radioactivity on the paper must be measured by using methods capable of detecting 0.005 microcurie (0.185 kBq) of americium-241 or radium-226.
D. If a source has been shown to be leaking or losing more than 0.005 microcurie (0.185kBq) of americium-241 or radium-226 by the methods described in this subpart, the source must be rejected and must not be transferred to a general licensee under part 4731.3230, or equivalent regulations of the NRC or an agreement state.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 29 SR 755; 33 SR 1440; 40 SR 145
Minn. R. 4731.3380 Specific License; Ice Detection Devices; Manufacture or Initial Transfer
Subpart 1. Approval criteria.
An application for a specific license to manufacture or initially transfer ice detection devices containing strontium-90 for distribution to persons generally licensed under part 4731.3240 shall be approved if:
A. the applicant satisfies the general requirements of part 4731.3070;
B. the applicant submits sufficient information regarding each type of device pertinent to evaluation of the potential radiation exposure, including:
C. each device will contain no more than 50 microcuries of strontium-90 in an insoluble form;
D. each device will bear durable, legible labeling that includes:
E. the commissioner determines that:
F. the applicant subjects at least five prototypes of the device to tests as follows:
G. the device has been registered in the Sealed Source and Device Registry.
Subp. 2. Quality assurance; transfer prohibition.
A. A person licensed under this part must visually inspect each device and must reject any that has an observable physical defect that could affect containment of the strontium-90.
B. A person licensed under this part must test each device for possible loss of strontium-90 or for contamination by wiping with filter paper an area of at least 100 square centimeters on the outside surface of the device or wiping the entire surface area if it is less than 100 square centimeters. Detection on the filter paper of more than 2,200 disintegrations per minute of radioactive material per 100 square centimeters of surface wiped must be cause for rejection of the tested device.
C. A person licensed under this part must:
D. Each person licensed under this part must subject each inspection lot to:
E. No person licensed under this part shall transfer to persons generally licensed under part 4731.3240, or under an equivalent general license of the NRC or an agreement state:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 29 SR 755; 40 SR 145
Minn. R. 4731.3390 Specific License; Material for in Vitro Clinical or Laboratory Testing; Manufacture and Distribution
An application for a specific license to manufacture or distribute radioactive material for use under the general license under part 4731.3245 shall be approved if:
A. the applicant satisfies the general requirements of part 4731.3070;
B. the radioactive material is prepared for distribution in prepackaged units of:
C. each prepackaged unit bears a durable, clearly visible label that:
D. the following statement, or a substantially similar statement that contains all the information called for, appears on a label affixed to each prepackaged unit or appears in a leaflet or brochure that accompanies the package: "The radioactive material may be received, acquired, possessed, and used only by physicians, veterinarians in the practice of veterinary medicine, clinical laboratories, or hospitals and only for in vitro clinical or laboratory tests not involving internal or external administration of the material, or the radiation therefrom, to human beings or animals. Its receipt, acquisition, possession, use, and transfer are subject to the regulations and a general license of the Minnesota commissioner of health, the Nuclear Regulatory Commission, or a state with which the Nuclear Regulatory Commission has entered into an agreement for the exercise of regulatory authority. (Name of manufacturer)"; and
E. the label affixed to the unit, or the leaflet or brochure that accompanies the package, contains adequate information as to the precautions to be observed in handling and storing the radioactive material. In the case of a mock iodine-125 reference or calibration source, the information accompanying the source must also contain directions to the licensee regarding the waste disposal requirements under part 4731.2400.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 33 SR 1440
Minn. R. 4731.3395 Specific License; Radioactive Drugs for Medical Use; Manufacture, Preparation, or Transfer
Subpart 1. Approval criteria.
An application for a specific license to manufacture, prepare, or transfer for commercial distribution radioactive drugs containing radioactive material for use by persons authorized according to parts 4731.4400 to 4731.4527 shall be approved if the applicant:
A. satisfies the general requirements specified in part 4731.3070;
B. submits evidence that the applicant is at least one of the following:
C. submits the following information regarding the radionuclide:
D. commits to the following labeling requirements:
Subp. 2. Pharmacy licensees.
A. A licensee described in subpart 1, item B, subitem (3) or (4) may:
B. The actions authorized in item A are permitted notwithstanding more restrictive language in license conditions.
C. A licensee described in subpart 1, item B, subitem (3) or (4), may designate a pharmacist as an authorized nuclear pharmacist if the individual was a nuclear pharmacist preparing only radioactive drugs containing accelerator-produced radioactive material, and the individual practiced at a pharmacy at a government agency or federally recognized Indian Tribe before November 30, 2007, or at all other pharmacies before August 8, 2009, or an earlier date as noticed by the NRC.
D. No later than 30 days after the date that a licensee described in subpart 1, item B, subitem (3) or (4), allows an individual to work as an authorized nuclear pharmacist under item A, subitem (2), unit (a) or (c), the licensee must provide to the commissioner a copy of:
Subp. 3. Measuring radioactivity.
A licensee under this part must:
A. possess and use instrumentation to measure the radioactivity of radioactive drugs;
B. have procedures for use of the instrumentation;
C. measure, by direct measurement or a combination of measurements and calculations, the amount of radioactivity in dosages of alpha-, beta-, or photon-emitting radioactive drugs prior to transfer for commercial distribution;
D. perform tests before initial use, periodically, and following repair on each instrument for accuracy, linearity, and geometry dependence, as appropriate for the use of the instrument, and make adjustments when necessary; and
E. check each instrument for constancy and proper operation at the beginning of each day of use.
Subp. 3a. Labeling requirements.
A licensee must satisfy the labeling requirements of subpart 1, item D.
Subp. 4. Other law.
Nothing in this part relieves a licensee from complying with applicable United States Food and Drug Administration, other federal, or state requirements governing radioactive drugs.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 32 SR 831; 33 SR 1440; 44 SR 239; 46 SR 791; 49 SR 1193
Minn. R. 4731.3400 Specific License; Sources or Devices for Medical Use; Manufacture and Distribution
Subpart 1. Approval criteria.
An application for a specific license to manufacture and distribute sources and devices containing radioactive material to persons licensed according to parts 4731.4400 to 4731.4527 for use as a calibration, transmission, or reference source or for the uses listed under parts 4731.4404, 4731.4450, 4731.4460, and 4731.4463 shall be approved if:
A. the applicant satisfies the general requirements of part 4731.3070;
B. the applicant submits sufficient information regarding each type of source or device pertinent to an evaluation of its radiation safety, including:
C. the label affixed to the source or device, or to the permanent storage container for the source or device, contains:
D. the source or device has been registered in the Sealed Source and Device Registry.
Subp. 2. Alternative testing intervals.
A. In the event the applicant desires that the source or device be required to be tested for leakage of radioactive material at intervals longer than six months, the applicant must include in the application sufficient information to demonstrate that the longer interval is justified by:
B. In determining the acceptable interval for testing leakage of radioactive material, the commissioner shall consider information that includes, but is not limited to:
Subp. 3. Application pending.
If an application was filed according to subpart 1 on or before October 15, 1974, for a license to manufacture and distribute a source or device that was distributed commercially on or before August 16, 1974, the applicant may continue the distribution until the commissioner issues the license or notifies the applicant otherwise.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 29 SR 755; 32 SR 831; 33 SR 1440; 40 SR 145
Minn. R. 4731.3405 [Repealer, 40 SR 145]
[Repealer, 40 SR 145]
Minn. R. 4731.3410 [Repealed, 40 SR 145]
[Repealed, 40 SR 145]
Minn. R. 4731.3415 [Repealed, 40 SR 145]
[Repealed, 40 SR 145]
Minn. R. 4731.3420 [Repealed, 40 SR 145]
[Repealed, 40 SR 145]
Minn. R. 4731.3450 Serialization of Nationally Tracked Sources
Each licensee who manufactures a nationally tracked source after February 6, 2007, shall assign a unique serial number to each nationally tracked source. Serial numbers must be composed only of alphanumeric characters.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 33 SR 1440
Minn. R. 4731.3500 Specific Domestic Licenses of Broad Scope for Radioactive Material
Subpart 1. Applicability.
Parts 4731.3500 to 4731.3580 contain requirements for the issuance of specific licenses of broad scope for radioactive material and for holders of such licenses. Parts 4731.3500 to 4731.3580 are in addition to and not in substitution for other requirements of this chapter. In particular, parts 4731.3000 to 4731.3175 apply to applications and licenses subject to parts 4731.3500 to 4731.3580.
Subp. 2. Types of broad scope licenses.
The different types of broad scope licenses are as follows:
A. "Type A specific license of broad scope" is a specific license authorizing receipt, acquisition, ownership, possession, use, and transfer of any chemical or physical form of the radioactive material specified in the license, but not exceeding quantities specified in the license, for purposes authorized by the commissioner. The quantities specified are usually in the multicurie range;
B. "Type B specific license of broad scope" is a specific license authorizing receipt, acquisition, ownership, possession, use, and transfer of any chemical or physical form of radioactive material specified in part 4731.3580 for purposes authorized by the commissioner. The possession limit for a Type B specific license of broad scope:
C. "Type C specific license of broad scope" is a specific license authorizing receipt, acquisition, ownership, possession, use, and transfer of any chemical or physical form of radioactive material specified in part 4731.3580 for purposes authorized by the commissioner. The possession limit for a Type C specific license of broad scope:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.3520 Specific License of Broad Scope; Application
A person must file an application for a specific license of broad scope on an application for radioactive material license form according to part 4731.3065.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 29 SR 755; 40 SR 145
Minn. R. 4731.3530 Type a Specific License of Broad Scope
An application for a Type A specific license of broad scope shall be approved if the applicant:
A. satisfies the general requirements under part 4731.3070;
B. has engaged in an appropriate number of activities involving the use of radioactive material; and
C. has established administrative controls and provisions relating to organization and management, procedures, record keeping, material control and accounting, and management review that are necessary to ensure safe operations, including:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.3540 Type B Specific License of Broad Scope
An application for a Type B specific license of broad scope shall be approved if the applicant:
A. satisfies the general requirements under part 4731.3070; and
B. has established administrative controls and provisions relating to organization and management, procedures, record keeping, material control and accounting, and management review that are necessary to ensure safe operations, including:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.3550 Type C Specific License of Broad Scope
An application for a Type C specific license of broad scope shall be approved if the applicant:
A. satisfies the general requirements under part 4731.3070;
B. submits a statement that radioactive material will be used only by, or under the direct supervision of, individuals who have received:
C. has established administrative controls and provisions relating to procurement of radioactive material, procedures, record keeping, material control and accounting, and management review necessary to ensure safe operation.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.3560 Application for Other Specific Licenses
An application filed under parts 4731.3000 to 4731.3175 for a specific license other than one of broad scope shall be considered by the commissioner as an application for a specific license of broad scope under parts 4731.3500 to 4731.3580 if the applicable requirements of parts 4731.3500 to 4731.3580 are satisfied.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.3570 Specific Licenses of Broad Scope; Conditions
A. Unless specifically authorized in this chapter, persons licensed under parts 4731.3500 to 4731.3580 must not:
B. Each Type A specific license of broad scope issued under parts 4731.3500 to 4731.3580 is subject to the condition that radioactive material possessed under the license may only be used by, or under the direct supervision of, individuals approved by the licensee's radiation safety committee.
C. Each Type B specific license of broad scope issued under parts 4731.3500 to 4731.3580 is subject to the condition that radioactive material possessed under the license may only be used by, or under the direct supervision of, individuals approved by the licensee's radiation safety officer.
D. Each Type C specific license of broad scope issued under parts 4371.3500 to 4731.3580 is subject to the condition that radioactive material possessed under the license may only be used by, or under the direct supervision of, individuals who satisfy the requirements of part 4731.3550.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.3580 Limits for Broad Scope Licenses
The following limits apply to specific licenses of broad scope issued under parts 4731.3500 to 4731.3580:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 33 SR 1440
Minn. R. 4731.4000 Licenses for Industrial Radiography and Radiation Safety Requirements for Industrial Radiographic Operations
Parts 4731.4000 to 4731.4360 prescribe licensing requirements for the use of sealed sources containing radioactive material and radiation safety requirements for persons using these sealed sources in industrial radiography. The requirements of parts 4731.4000 to 4731.4360 are in addition to, and not in substitution for, other requirements of this chapter. In particular, parts 4731.0300 to 4731.0424 and 4731.1000 to 4731.3175 apply to applications and licenses subject to parts 4731.4000 to 4731.4360. Parts 4731.4000 to 4731.4360 do not apply to medical uses of radioactive material.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4010 Specific License; Application
A person must file an application for a specific license for use of sealed sources in industrial radiography on the application for radioactive material license form according to part 4731.3070.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 29 SR 755; 40 SR 145
Minn. R. 4731.4020 Specific License; Industrial Radiography
An application for a specific license for the use of licensed material in industrial radiography shall be approved if the applicant:
A. satisfies the general requirements under part 4731.3070, as appropriate, and any special requirements contained in parts 4731.4000 to 4731.4360;
B. submits a program for training radiographers and radiographers' assistants that meets the requirements of part 4731.4140;
C. submits procedures for verifying and documenting the certification status of radiographers and for ensuring that the certification of individuals acting as radiographers remains valid;
D. submits written operating and emergency procedures according to part 4731.4150;
E. submits a description of a program for inspections of the job performance of each radiographer and radiographer's assistant at intervals not to exceed six months according to part 4731.4140, subpart 4;
F. submits a description of the applicant's overall organizational structure as it applies to the radiation safety responsibilities in industrial radiography, including specified delegation of authority and responsibility;
G. identifies and lists the qualifications of the individual designated as the radiation safety officer under part 4731.4130 and potential designees responsible for ensuring that the licensee's radiation safety program is implemented according to approved procedures;
H. if the applicant intends to perform leak testing of sealed sources or exposure devices containing depleted uranium shielding, describes the procedures for performing leak testing and the qualifications of the person authorized to do the leak testing. If the applicant intends to analyze its own wipe samples, the application must include a description of the procedures to be followed. The description must include:
I. if the applicant intends to perform in-house calibrations of survey instruments, describes methods to be used and the relevant experience of the person who will perform the calibrations. All calibrations must be performed according to part 4731.4060; and
J. identifies and describes the location of all field stations and permanent radiographic installations and the locations where all records required by this chapter will be maintained.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4030 Performance Requirements; Industrial Radiography Equipment
Subpart 1. ANSI standard.
A. This subpart applies to equipment used in industrial radiographic operations.
B. A radiographic exposure device, source assembly, or sealed source and all associated equipment must meet the requirements specified in American National Standard N432, "Radiological Safety for the Design and Construction of Apparatus for Gamma Radiography," American National Standards Institute (ANSI) (1981). The ANSI standard is incorporated by reference, is not subject to frequent change, and is available through the MnLink system. This publication may be purchased from the American National Standards Institute, Inc., 25 West 43rd Street, New York, NY 10036; telephone: (212) 642-4900.
C. Engineering analysis may be submitted by an applicant or licensee to demonstrate the applicability of previously performed testing on similar individual radiography equipment components. Upon review, the commissioner may find the engineering analysis an acceptable alternative to actual testing of the component according to the ANSI standard.
Subp. 2. Additional requirements.
A. In addition to the requirements under subpart 1, the requirements in this subpart apply to radiographic exposure devices, source changers, source assemblies, and sealed sources.
B. A licensee must ensure that a radiographic exposure device has attached to it a durable, legible, clearly visible label bearing:
C. Radiographic exposure devices intended for use as Type B transport containers must meet the applicable requirements under parts 4731.0400 to 4731.0424.
D. Modification of radiographic exposure devices, source changers, source assemblies, and associated equipment is prohibited, unless the design of a replacement component, including source holder, source assembly, controls, or guide tubes, would not compromise the design safety features of the system.
Subp. 3. Removable sources and source changers; requirements.
A. In addition to the requirements in subparts 1 and 2, the requirements in this subpart apply to radiographic exposure devices, source assemblies, and associated equipment that allow the source to be moved out of the device for radiographic operations or to source changers.
B. The coupling between the source assembly and the control cable must be designed so that the source assembly will not become disconnected if cranked outside the guide tube. The coupling must be such that it cannot be unintentionally disconnected under normal and reasonably foreseeable abnormal conditions.
C. The device must automatically secure the source assembly when it is cranked back into the fully shielded position within the device. This securing system may only be released by means of a deliberate operation on the exposure device.
D. The outlet fittings, lock box, and drive cable fittings on each radiographic exposure device must be equipped with safety plugs or covers that must be installed during storage and transportation to protect the source assembly from water, mud, sand, or other foreign matter.
E. A sealed source or source assembly must have attached to it or engraved on it a durable, legible, visible label with the words: "DANGEROUS--RADIOACTIVE" and the label may not interfere with the safe operation of the exposure device or associated equipment.
F. The guide tube must be:
G. Guide tubes must be used when moving the source out of the device.
H. An exposure head or similar device that is designed to prevent the source assembly from passing out of the end of the guide tube must be attached to the outermost end of the guide tube during industrial radiography operations.
I. The guide tube exposure head connection must be able to withstand the tensile test for control units specified in ANSI N432, incorporated by reference under subpart 1, item B.
J. Source changers must provide a system that ensures the source will not be accidentally withdrawn from the changer when connecting or disconnecting the drive cable to or from a source assembly.
Subp. 4. Exception.
Notwithstanding subpart 1, item B, equipment used in industrial radiographic operations need not comply with section 8.9.2(c) of the endurance test in ANSI N432 if the prototype equipment has been tested using a torque value representative of the torque that an individual using the radiography equipment can realistically exert on the lever or crankshaft of the drive mechanism.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 32 SR 831; 44 SR 239
Minn. R. 4731.4040 Limits on External Radiation Levels
The maximum exposure rate limits for storage containers and source changers are 200 millirems (2 mSv) per hour at any exterior surface, and ten millirems (0.1 mSv) per hour at one meter from any exterior surface with the sealed source in the shielded position.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4050 Locking of Radiographic Exposure Devices, Storage Containers, and Source Changers
Subpart 1. Radiographic exposure devices.
A. A radiographic exposure device must have a lock or outer locked container designed to prevent unauthorized or accidental removal of the sealed source from its shielded position.
B. The exposure device and its container must be kept locked, and if a keyed lock, with the key removed at all times, when not under the direct surveillance of a radiographer or a radiographer's assistant, except at permanent radiographic installations according to part 4731.4190.
C. During radiographic operations, the sealed source assembly must be secured in the shielded position each time the source is returned to that position.
Subp. 2. Storage containers and source changers.
A sealed source storage container and source changer must:
A. have a lock or outer locked container designed to prevent unauthorized or accidental removal of the sealed source from its shielded position; and
B. be kept locked, and if a keyed lock, with the key removed at all times, when containing sealed sources, except when under the direct surveillance of a radiographer or a radiographer's assistant.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4060 Radiation Survey Instruments
Subpart 1. Required instruments.
A licensee must keep sufficient calibrated and operable radiation survey instruments at each location where radioactive material is present to make the radiation surveys required under parts 4731.2000 to 4731.2950 and 4731.4000 to 4731.4360. Instrumentation required under this part must be capable of measuring a range from two millirems (0.02 mSv) per hour through one rem (0.01 Sv) per hour.
Subp. 2. Calibration.
A licensee must have each radiation survey instrument required under subpart 1 calibrated:
A. at intervals not to exceed six months and after instrument servicing, except for battery changes;
B. for linear scale instruments, at two points located approximately one-third and two-thirds of full-scale on each scale; for logarithmic scale instruments, at midrange of each decade and at two points of at least one decade; and for digital instruments, at three points between two and 1,000 millirems (0.02 and 10 mSv) per hour; and
C. so that an accuracy within plus or minus 20 percent of the calibration source can be demonstrated at each point checked.
Subp. 3. Record keeping.
A licensee must maintain records of the instrument calibrations that are required under this part and must retain each record for three years after it is made.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4070 Leak Testing, Replacement, and Other Modifications of Sealed Sources
Subpart 1. Authorized personnel.
A. The replacement of any sealed source fastened to or contained in a radiographic exposure device and leak testing of any sealed source must be performed by persons authorized to do so by the NRC or an agreement state.
B. The opening, repair, or modification of any sealed source must be performed by persons specifically authorized to do so by the NRC or an agreement state.
Subp. 2. Leak testing requirements.
A. A licensee who uses a sealed source must have the source tested for leakage at intervals not to exceed six months.
B. Leak testing of a sealed source must be performed using a method approved by the NRC or an agreement state.
C. A wipe sample must be taken from the nearest accessible point to the sealed source where contamination might accumulate. The wipe sample must be analyzed for radioactive contamination. The analysis must be capable of detecting the presence of 0.005 microcurie (185 Bq) of radioactive material on the test sample. The analysis must be performed by a person specifically authorized by the NRC or an agreement state to perform the analysis.
D. A licensee must maintain records of the leak tests according to part 4731.4240.
E. Unless a sealed source is accompanied by a certificate from the transferor that shows that it has been leak tested within six months before the transfer, the sealed source may not be used by the licensee until tested for leakage. Sealed sources that are in storage and not in use do not require leak testing, but must be tested before use or transfer to another person if the interval of storage exceeds six months.
Subp. 3. Leaking source.
A. A test conducted under subpart 2 that reveals the presence of 0.005 microcurie (185 Bq) or more of removable radioactive material must be considered evidence that the sealed source is leaking.
B. The licensee must immediately withdraw the equipment involved from use and must have it decontaminated and repaired or disposed of according to this chapter.
C. A report must be filed with the commissioner, within five days and must include:
Subp. 4. Depleted uranium testing.
A. An exposure device using depleted uranium shielding and an S-tube configuration must be tested for depleted uranium contamination at intervals not to exceed 12 months. The analysis must be capable of detecting the presence of 0.005 microcuries (185 Bq) of radioactive material on the test sample and must be performed by a person specifically authorized by the NRC or an agreement state to perform the analysis.
B. If testing under item A reveals the presence of 0.005 microcuries (185 Bq) or more of removable depleted uranium contamination, the exposure device must be removed from use until an evaluation of the wear on the S-tube has been made.
C. If the evaluation under item B reveals that the S-tube is worn through, the device may not be used again.
D. Depleted uranium shielded devices do not have to be tested for depleted uranium contamination while in storage and not in use.
E. Before using or transferring a depleted uranium shielded device, the device must be tested for depleted uranium contamination if the interval of storage exceeded 12 months.
F. A record of the depleted uranium leak test must be made according to part 4731.4240.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 36 SR 74
Minn. R. 4731.4080 Quarterly Inventory
Subpart 1. Inventory required.
A licensee must conduct a quarterly physical inventory to account for all sealed sources and for devices containing depleted uranium received and possessed under a license issued under parts 4731.4000 to 4731.4360.
Subp. 2. Record keeping.
A licensee must maintain records of the quarterly inventory according to part 4731.4250.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4090 Equipment Inspection and Maintenance
Subpart 1. Daily checks required.
A licensee must perform visual and operability checks on survey meters, radiographic exposure devices and associated equipment, transport and storage containers, and source changers before use on each day the equipment is to be used to ensure that the equipment is in good working condition, that the sources are adequately shielded, and that required labeling is present. Survey instrument operability must be performed using check sources or other appropriate means. If equipment problems are found, the equipment must be removed from service until repaired.
Subp. 2. Written procedures.
A licensee must have written procedures for:
A. inspection and routine maintenance, at intervals not to exceed three months or before the first use thereafter to ensure the proper functioning of components important to safety, of the following. If equipment problems are found, the equipment must be removed from service until repaired:
B. ensuring that replacement components meet design specifications;
C. inspection and maintenance necessary to maintain the Type B packaging used to transport radioactive materials. The inspection and maintenance program must include procedures to ensure that Type B packages are shipped and maintained according to the certificate of compliance or other approval; and
D. maintaining records of equipment problems and of any maintenance performed under subpart 1 according to part 4731.4270.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4100 Permanent Radiographic Installations; Entrance Controls
Subpart 1. Required entrance controls.
An entrance that is used for personnel access to the high radiation area in a permanent radiographic installation must have:
A. an entrance control of the type described in part 4731.2220, subpart 1, item A, subitem (1), that reduces the radiation level upon entry into the area; or
B. conspicuous visible and audible warning signals to warn of the presence of radiation. The visible signal must be actuated by radiation whenever the source is exposed. The audible signal must be actuated when an attempt is made to enter the installation while the source is exposed.
Subp. 2. Testing.
A. The alarm system under subpart 1 must be tested for proper operation with a radiation source each day before the installation is used for radiographic operations. The test must include a check of both the visible and audible signals. Entrance control devices that reduce the radiation level upon entry as provided under subpart 1, item A, must be tested monthly.
B. If an entrance control device or an alarm is operating improperly, it must be immediately labeled as defective and repaired within seven calendar days. The facility may continue to be used during the seven-day period if the licensee implements the continuous surveillance requirements under part 4731.4190 and uses an alarming ratemeter.
C. A licensee must maintain records of alarm system and entrance control device tests required under this part and retain each record for three years after it is made.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4110 Labeling; Packaging; Security
Subpart 1. Required label.
A licensee may not use a source changer or a container to store licensed material unless the source changer or the storage container has securely attached to it a durable, legible, and clearly visible label bearing the standard radiation symbol under part 4731.2300, having a minimum diameter of 25 millimeters, and the wording: "CAUTION (or DANGER) - RADIOACTIVE MATERIAL. NOTIFY CIVIL AUTHORITIES (or name of company)."
Subp. 2. Required packaging.
A licensee may not transport licensed material unless the material is packaged, and the package is labeled, marked, and accompanied with appropriate shipping papers, according to parts 4731.0400 to 4731.0424.
Subp. 3. Required security.
Locked radiographic exposure devices and storage containers must be physically secured to prevent tampering or removal by unauthorized personnel. A licensee must store licensed material in a manner that minimizes danger from explosion or fire.
Subp. 4. Required transport security.
A licensee must lock and physically secure the transport package containing licensed material in the transporting vehicle to prevent accidental loss, tampering, or unauthorized removal of the licensed material from the vehicle.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 32 SR 831; 44 SR 239
Minn. R. 4731.4120 Industrial Radiographic Operations
Subpart 1. Qualified personnel present.
When radiography is performed at a location other than a permanent radiographic installation, the radiographer must be accompanied by at least one other qualified radiographer or an individual who has at a minimum met the requirements of part 4731.4140, subpart 2. The additional qualified individual must observe the operations and be capable of providing immediate assistance to prevent unauthorized entry. Radiography may not be performed if only one qualified individual is present.
Subp. 2. Permanent installation; requirement.
All radiographic operations conducted at locations of use authorized on the license must be conducted in a permanent radiographic installation, unless specifically authorized by the commissioner.
Subp. 3. Offshore water operations.
A licensee may conduct lay-barge, offshore platform, or underwater radiography only if procedures have been approved by the commissioner, the NRC, or an agreement state.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4130 Radiation Safety Officer
Subpart 1. Generally.
A licensee's radiation safety officer must ensure that radiation safety activities are performed according to approved procedures and regulatory requirements in the daily operation of the licensee's program.
Subp. 2. Minimum qualifications.
At a minimum, a radiation safety officer for industrial radiography must complete:
A. training and testing according to part 4731.4140, subpart 1;
B. 2,000 hours of hands-on experience as a qualified radiographer in industrial radiographic operations; and
C. formal training in the establishment and maintenance of a radiation protection program.
Subp. 3. Alternate qualifications.
The commissioner shall consider alternatives to subpart 2 when the radiation safety officer has appropriate training or experience in the field of ionizing radiation and has adequate formal training with respect to the establishment and maintenance of a radiation safety protection program.
Subp. 4. Duties.
Duties of the radiation safety officer include, but are not limited to:
A. establishing and overseeing all operating, emergency, and ALARA procedures as required under parts 4731.2000 to 4731.2950, and reviewing them regularly to ensure that the procedures in use conform to parts 4731.2000 to 4731.2950, to other rules, and to the license conditions;
B. overseeing and approving all phases of the training program for radiographic personnel, ensuring that appropriate and effective radiation protection practices are taught;
C. ensuring that required radiation surveys and leak tests are performed and documented according to this chapter, including any corrective measures when levels of radiation exceed established limits;
D. ensuring that personnel monitoring devices are calibrated and used properly by occupationally exposed personnel, that records are kept of the monitoring results, and that timely notifications are made as required under part 4731.2620; and
E. ensuring that operations are conducted safely and assuming control for instituting corrective actions, including stopping operations when necessary.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4140 Radiographer Training
Subpart 1. Requirements; radiographer.
A licensee may not permit an individual to act as a radiographer until the individual:
A. receives training according to subpart 6;
B. completes a minimum of two months of on-the-job training;
C. is certified through a radiographer certification program by a certifying entity according to part 4731.4360;
D. receives copies of and instruction in parts 4731.0200, 4731.0280, and 4731.0290; the applicable DOT regulations under parts 4731.0400 to 4731.0424; the applicable portions of parts 4731.1000 to 4731.2950; parts 4731.4000 to 4731.4360; the license under which the radiographer will perform industrial radiography; and the licensee's operating and emergency procedures;
E. demonstrates understanding of the licensee's license and operating and emergency procedures by successfully completing a written or oral examination covering the material;
F. receives training in the use of the licensee's radiographic exposure devices and sealed sources, in the daily inspection of devices and associated equipment, and in the use of radiation survey instruments; and
G. demonstrates understanding of the use of the radiographic exposure devices, sources, survey instruments, and associated equipment under item F by successfully completing a practical examination covering the material.
Subp. 2. Requirements; radiographer's assistant.
A licensee may not permit an individual to act as a radiographer's assistant until the individual:
A. receives copies of and instruction in parts 4731.0200, 4731.0280, and 4731.0290; the applicable DOT regulations under parts 4731.0400 to 4731.0424; the applicable portions of parts 4731.1000 to 4731.2950; parts 4731.4000 to 4731.4360; the license under which the radiographer's assistant will perform industrial radiography; and the licensee's operating and emergency procedures;
B. develops competence to use, under the personal supervision of a radiographer, the radiographic exposure devices, sealed sources, associated equipment, and radiation survey instruments that the assistant will use; and
C. demonstrates understanding of the instructions provided under item A by successfully completing a written test on the subjects covered and demonstrates competence in the use of hardware described under item B by successfully completing a practical examination on the use of the hardware.
Subp. 3. Refresher training.
A licensee must provide annual refresher safety training for each radiographer and radiographer's assistant at intervals not to exceed 12 months.
Subp. 4. Job performance review.
A. Except as provided in item C, the radiation safety officer or designee must conduct an inspection program of the job performance of each radiographer and radiographer's assistant to ensure that this chapter, the license requirements, and the licensee's operating and emergency procedures are followed. The inspection program must:
B. The commissioner may consider alternatives to item A in situations where an individual serves as both radiographer and radiation safety officer.
C. In those operations where a single individual serves as both radiographer and radiation safety officer, and performs all radiography operations, an inspection program is not required.
Subp. 5. Record keeping.
A licensee must maintain records of training under this part, including certification documents, written and practical examinations, refresher safety training, and inspections of job performance, according to part 4731.4290.
Subp. 6. Required subjects.
A radiographer must receive training in:
A. the fundamentals of radiation safety, including:
B. radiation detection instruments, including:
C. equipment to be used, including:
D. the requirements of pertinent portions of this chapter; and
E. case histories of accidents in radiography.
Subp. 7. Certification records.
Records of radiographer certification maintained according to part 4731.4290, subpart 1, must provide appropriate affirmation of the certification requirements specified in subpart 1, item C.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 32 SR 831; 44 SR 239
Minn. R. 4731.4150 Operating and Emergency Procedures
Subpart 1. Required procedures.
A licensee must establish operating and emergency procedures that include, as a minimum, instructions in:
A. appropriate handling and use of licensed sealed sources and radiographic exposure devices so that no person is likely to be exposed to radiation doses in excess of the limits established under parts 4731.2000 to 4731.2950;
B. methods and occasions for conducting radiation surveys;
C. methods for controlling access to radiographic areas;
D. methods and occasions for locking and securing radiographic exposure devices, transport and storage containers, and sealed sources;
E. personnel monitoring and the use of personnel monitoring equipment;
F. transporting sealed sources to field locations, including packing of radiographic exposure devices and storage containers in the vehicles, placarding of vehicles when needed, and control of the sealed sources during transportation;
G. inspection, maintenance, and operability checks of radiographic exposure devices, survey instruments, transport containers, and storage containers;
H. steps that must be taken immediately by radiography personnel in the event a pocket dosimeter is found to be off-scale or an alarm ratemeter alarms unexpectedly;
I. procedures for identifying and reporting defects and noncompliance, as required under Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, part 21;
J. procedures for notifying proper persons in the event of an accident;
K. minimizing exposure of persons in the event of an accident;
L. source recovery procedures, if the licensee will perform source recovery; and
M. maintaining records.
Subp. 2. Record keeping.
A licensee must maintain a copy of current operating and emergency procedures until the commissioner terminates the license. Superseded material must be retained for three years after the change is made. The licensee must maintain copies of current operating and emergency procedures according to part 4731.4330.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4160 Supervision of Radiographer's Assistants
When a radiographer's assistant uses radiographic exposure devices, associated equipment, or sealed sources or conducts radiation surveys required under part 4731.4180, subpart 1, item B, to determine that the sealed source has returned to the shielded position after an exposure, the assistant must be under the personal supervision of a radiographer. The personal supervision must include:
A. the radiographer's physical presence at the site where the sealed sources are being used;
B. the availability of the radiographer to give immediate assistance if required; and
C. the radiographer's direct observation of the assistant's performance of the operations referred to in this part.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4170 Personnel Monitoring
Subpart 1. Monitoring requirements.
A. A licensee may not permit an individual to act as a radiographer or a radiographer's assistant unless, at all times during radiographic operations, each individual wears, on the trunk of the body, a combination of direct reading dosimeter, an operating alarm ratemeter, and a personnel dosimeter.
B. At permanent radiography installations where other appropriate alarm or warning devices are in routine use, wearing an alarm ratemeter is not required.
C. Pocket dosimeters must have a range from zero to 200 millirems (2 mSv) and must be recharged at the start of each shift. Electronic personal dosimeters may only be used in place of ion-chamber pocket dosimeters.
D. Each personnel dosimeter must be assigned to and worn by only one individual.
E. Film badges must be replaced at periods not to exceed one month and other personnel dosimeters that require replacement must be replaced at periods not to exceed three months. All personnel dosimeters must be evaluated at periods not to exceed three months or promptly after replacement, whichever is more frequent.
Subp. 2. Direct reading dosimeters.
Direct reading dosimeters, such as pocket dosimeters or electronic personal dosimeters, must be read and the exposures recorded at the beginning and end of each shift and records must be maintained according to part 4731.4310.
Subp. 3. Pocket dosimeters.
Pocket dosimeters, or electronic personal dosimeters, must be checked at periods not to exceed 12 months for correct response to radiation and records must be maintained according to part 4731.4310. Acceptable dosimeters must read within plus or minus 20 percent of the true radiation exposure.
Subp. 4. High readings.
If an individual's pocket chamber is found to be off-scale, or if the individual's electronic personal dosimeter reads greater than 200 millirems (2 mSv), and the possibility of radiation exposure cannot be ruled out as the cause, the individual's personnel dosimeter that requires processing must be sent for processing and evaluation within 24 hours. For personnel dosimeters that do not require processing, evaluation of the dosimeter must be started within 24 hours. The individual may not resume work associated with licensed material use until a determination of the individual's radiation exposure has been made. The determination must be made by the radiation safety officer or the radiation safety officer's designee. The results of the determination must be included in the records maintained according to part 4731.4310.
Subp. 5. Lost or damaged dosimeters.
If the personnel dosimeter that is required under subpart 1 is lost or damaged, the worker must cease work immediately until a replacement personnel dosimeter meeting the requirements of subpart 1 is provided and the exposure is calculated for the time period from issuance to loss or damage of the personnel dosimeter. The results of the calculated exposure and the time period for which the personnel dosimeter was lost or damaged must be included in the records maintained according to part 4731.4310.
Subp. 6. Report retention.
Dosimetry results must be retained according to part 4731.4310.
Subp. 7. Ratemeter requirements.
An alarm ratemeter must:
A. be checked to ensure that the alarm functions properly (sounds) before use at the start of each shift;
B. be set to give an alarm signal at a preset dose rate of 500 millirems per hour (5 mSv/hr), with an accuracy of plus or minus 20 percent of the true radiation dose rate;
C. require special means to change the preset alarm function; and
D. be calibrated at periods not to exceed 12 months for correct response to radiation. A licensee must maintain records of alarm ratemeter calibrations according to part 4731.4310.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 46 SR 791
Minn. R. 4731.4180 Radiation Surveys
Subpart 1. Survey requirements.
A licensee must:
A. conduct radiation surveys with a calibrated and operable radiation survey instrument that meets the requirements under part 4731.4060;
B. using a survey instrument meeting the requirements of item A, conduct a survey of the radiographic exposure device and the guide tube after each exposure when approaching the device or the guide tube. The survey must determine that the sealed source has returned to its shielded position before exchanging films, repositioning the exposure head, or dismantling equipment;
C. conduct a survey of the radiographic exposure device with a calibrated radiation survey instrument any time the source is exchanged and whenever a radiographic exposure device is placed in a storage area to ensure that the sealed source is in its shielded position; and
D. maintain records according to subpart 2.
Subp. 2. Record keeping.
A licensee must maintain a record of each exposure device survey conducted before the device is placed in storage under subpart 1, item C, if that survey is the last one performed in the workday. Each record must be maintained for three years after it is made.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4190 Surveillance
During a radiographic operation, the radiographer, or the other individual present as required under part 4731.4120, must maintain continuous direct visual surveillance of the operation to protect against unauthorized entry into a high radiation area except at permanent radiographic installations where all entryways are locked and the requirements under part 4731.4100 are met.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4200 Posting
All areas in which industrial radiography is being performed must be conspicuously posted according to part 4731.2310. Exceptions under part 4731.2320 do not apply to industrial radiographic operations.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4210 Records; Specific License for Industrial Radiography
A licensee must maintain a copy of its license, license conditions, documents incorporated by reference, and amendments to each of these items until superseded by new documents approved by the commissioner, or until the commissioner terminates the license.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4220 Records; Receipt and Transfer of Sealed Sources
Subpart 1. Receipt and transfer records.
A licensee must maintain records showing the receipts and transfers of sealed sources and devices using depleted uranium for shielding and retain each record for three years after it is made.
Subp. 2. Record requirements.
Records under subpart 1 must include:
A. the date;
B. the name of the individual making the record;
C. the radionuclide and number of curies (becquerels) or mass for depleted uranium; and
D. the manufacturer, model, and serial number of each sealed source or device, as appropriate.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4240 Records; Leak Testing
A licensee must maintain records of leak test results for sealed sources and for devices containing depleted uranium. The results must be stated in units of microcuries (becquerels). The licensee must retain each record for three years after it is made or until the source in storage is removed.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4250 Records; Quarterly Inventory
Subpart 1. Quarterly inventory records.
A licensee must maintain records of the quarterly inventory of sealed sources and of devices containing depleted uranium as required under part 4731.4080 and retain each record for three years after it is made.
Subp. 2. Record requirements.
Records required under subpart 1 must include:
A. the date of the inventory;
B. the name of the individual conducting the inventory;
C. the radionuclide;
D. the number of curies (becquerels) or mass for depleted uranium in each device;
E. the location of sealed source or devices; and
F. the manufacturer, model, and serial number of each sealed source or device, as appropriate.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4260 Utilization Logs
Subpart 1. Logs required.
A licensee must maintain utilization logs showing for each sealed source:
A. a description, including the make, model, and serial number, of the radiographic exposure device or transport or storage container in which the sealed source is located;
B. the identity and signature of the radiographer to whom assigned; and
C. the plant or site where used and dates of use, including the dates removed and returned to storage.
Subp. 2. Retention.
A licensee must retain the logs required under subpart 1 for three years after the log is made.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4270 Records; Inspection and Maintenance
Subpart 1. Inspection and maintenance records.
A licensee must maintain records specified under part 4731.4090 of equipment problems found in daily checks and quarterly inspections of radiographic exposure devices, transport and storage containers, associated equipment, source changers, and survey instruments and retain each record for three years after it is made.
Subp. 2. Record requirements.
The records under subpart 1 must include:
A. the date of check or inspection;
B. the name of inspector;
C. equipment involved;
D. any problems found; and
E. what repair or maintenance, if any, was done.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4290 Records; Training and Certification
Subpart 1. Training and certification records.
A licensee must maintain records of training and certification of each radiographer and each radiographer's assistant for three years and must include:
A. radiographer certification documents and verification of certification status;
B. copies of written tests;
C. dates of oral and practical examinations; and
D. names of individuals conducting and receiving the oral and practical examinations.
Subp. 2. Refresher training and inspection records.
A licensee must maintain records of annual refresher safety training and semiannual inspections of job performance for each radiographer and each radiographer's assistant. The records must list the topics discussed during the refresher safety training, the dates the annual refresher safety training was conducted, and names of the instructors and attendees. For inspections of job performance, the records must include a list showing the items checked and any noncompliances observed by the radiation safety officer.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4310 Records; Personnel Monitoring
According to part 4731.4170, a licensee must maintain records of:
A. direct reading dosimeter readings and yearly operability checks according to part 4731.4170, subparts 2 and 3, for three years after the record is made;
B. alarming ratemeter calibrations for three years after the record is made;
C. personnel dosimeter results until the commissioner terminates the license; and
D. estimates of exposures as a result of off-scale personal direct reading dosimeters or lost or damaged personnel dosimeters until the commissioner terminates the license.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 46 SR 791
Minn. R. 4731.4330 Location of Documents and Records
Subpart 1. Records in one location.
A licensee must maintain copies of all records required under this chapter at the location identified under part 4731.4020, item J.
Subp. 2. Records at each location.
A licensee must maintain copies of the following documents and records, sufficient to demonstrate compliance, at each applicable field station and each temporary job site:
A. the license authorizing the use of licensed material;
B. a copy of parts 4731.1000 to 4731.2950 and 4731.4000 to 4731.4360;
C. utilization records for each radiographic exposure device dispatched from that location as required under part 4731.4260;
D. records of equipment problems identified in daily checks of equipment as required under part 4731.4270, subpart 1;
E. records of alarm system and entrance control checks required under part 4731.4100, if applicable;
F. records of direct reading dosimeters such as pocket dosimeter or electronic personal dosimeters readings as required under part 4731.4310;
G. operating and emergency procedures required under part 4731.4150;
H. evidence of the latest calibration of the radiation survey instruments in use at the site, as required under part 4731.4060;
I. evidence of the latest calibrations of alarm ratemeters and operability checks of pocket dosimeters or electronic personal dosimeters as required under part 4731.4310;
J. the latest survey records required under part 4731.4180;
K. the shipping papers for the transportation of radioactive materials required under part 4731.0402; and
L. when operating under reciprocity according to part 4731.0355, a copy of the NRC or agreement state license authorizing the use of licensed materials.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4350 Notifications
Subpart 1. Immediate notification required.
A licensee must notify the commissioner as soon as possible but not later than four hours after the discovery of any event that prevents immediate protective actions necessary to avoid exposures to radiation or radioactive materials that could exceed regulatory limits or releases of licensed material that could exceed regulatory limits. Reportable events under this subpart include fires, explosions, toxic gas release, or similar hazards.
Subp. 2. 24-hour notification required.
A licensee must notify the commissioner within 24 hours after discovery of any of the following events involving licensed material:
A. the occurrence of any of the following incidents involving radiographic equipment:
B. an event in which equipment is disabled or fails to function as designed when:
C. an unplanned contamination event that:
D. an event that requires unplanned medical treatment at a medical facility of an individual with spreadable radioactive contamination on the individual's clothing or body; or
E. an unplanned fire or explosion that damages any licensed material or any device, container, or equipment containing licensed materials when:
Subp. 3. Preparation and submission of notifications.
A licensee must make notifications required under subparts 1 and 2 by telephone to the commissioner according to part 4731.0200, subpart 5. To the extent the information is available at the time of notification, the information provided must include:
A. the caller's name and call-back telephone number;
B. a description of the event, including date and time;
C. the exact location of the event;
D. the isotopes, quantities, and chemical and physical form of the licensed material involved; and
E. any personnel radiation exposure data available.
Subp. 4. Reports required.
A licensee who makes a notification required under subpart 1 or 2 must submit a written follow-up report within 30 days of the notification. Written reports prepared as required by other rules may be submitted to fulfill this requirement if the reports contain all of the necessary information and the appropriate distribution is made. The reports must be sent to the commissioner and include:
A. a description of the incident;
B. the cause of each incident, if known;
C. the name of the manufacturer and model number of equipment involved in the incident;
D. the place, date, and time of the incident;
E. the actions taken to establish normal operations;
F. the corrective actions taken or planned to prevent recurrence;
G. the qualifications of personnel involved in the incident;
H. the isotopes, quantities, and chemical and physical form of the licensed material involved;
I. the results of any evaluations or assessments; and
J. the extent of exposure of individuals to radiation or to radioactive materials, without identification of the individuals by name.
Subp. 5. Reporting unlisted use.
A licensee conducting radiographic operations or storing radioactive material at any location not listed on the license for a period in excess of 180 days in a calendar year must notify the commissioner prior to exceeding the 180 days.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 36 SR 74; 44 SR 239
Minn. R. 4731.4360 Radiographer Certification
Subpart 1. Requirements for an independent certifying organization.
An independent certifying organization must:
A. be an organization such as a society or association whose members participate in, or have an interest in, the fields of industrial radiography;
B. make its membership available to the general public nationwide that is not restricted because of race, color, creed, religion, national origin, sex, disability, sexual orientation, or age;
C. have a certification program open to nonmembers as well as members;
D. be an incorporated, nationally recognized organization that is involved in setting national standards of practice within its fields of expertise;
E. have an adequate staff, a viable system for financing its operations, and a policy and decision-making review board;
F. have a set of written organizational bylaws and policies that provide adequate assurance of lack of conflict of interest and a system for monitoring and enforcing those bylaws and policies;
G. have a committee, whose members can carry out their responsibilities impartially, to review and approve the certification guidelines and procedures and to advise the organization's staff in implementing the certification program;
H. have a committee, whose members can carry out their responsibilities impartially, to review complaints against certified individuals and to determine appropriate sanctions;
I. have written procedures describing all aspects of its certification program and maintain records of the current status of each individual's certification and the administration of its certification program;
J. have procedures to ensure that certified individuals are provided due process with respect to the administration of its certification program, including the process of becoming certified and any sanctions imposed against certified individuals;
K. have procedures for proctoring examinations, including qualifications for proctors. The procedures must ensure that the individuals proctoring each examination are not employed by the same company or corporation, or a wholly-owned subsidiary of such company or corporation, as any of the examinees;
L. exchange information about certified individuals with the commissioner, other independent certifying organizations, the NRC, and agreement states and allow periodic review of its certification program and related records; and
M. provide a description to the commissioner of its procedures for choosing examination sites and for providing an appropriate examination environment.
Subp. 2. Requirements for certification programs.
All certification programs must:
A. require applicants for certification to:
B. require applicants for certification to provide documentation that demonstrates that the applicant has:
C. include procedures to ensure that all examination questions are protected from disclosure;
D. include procedures for denying an application and revoking, suspending, and reinstating certification;
E. provide a certification period of not less than three years nor more than five years;
F. include procedures for renewing certifications and, if the procedures allow renewals without examination, require evidence of recent full-time employment and annual refresher training; and
G. provide a timely response to inquiries, by telephone or letter, from members of the public about an individual's certification status.
Subp. 3. Requirements for written examinations.
All examinations must:
A. be designed to test an individual's knowledge and understanding of the topics under part 4731.4140, subpart 6, or equivalent NRC or agreement state requirements;
B. be written in a multiple-choice format; and
C. have test items drawn from a question bank containing psychometrically valid questions based on the material under part 4731.4140, subpart 6.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4400 Applicability for the Use of Radioactive Materials in the Healing Arts
Parts 4731.4400 to 4731.4527 apply to the medical use of radioactive material and provide for issuing specific licenses authorizing the medical use of radioactive material. Parts 4731.4400 to 4731.4527 provide for the radiation safety of workers, the general public, patients, and human research subjects. Parts 4731.4400 to 4731.4527 are in addition to, and not in substitution for, other requirements in this chapter. All requirements of this chapter apply to applicants and licensees subject to parts 4731.4400 to 4731.4527 unless specifically exempted.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4401 Protection of Human Research Subjects
A. A licensee may conduct research involving human research subjects only if the licensee uses radioactive materials specified in the license and for the uses authorized in the license.
B. If the research is conducted, funded, supported, or regulated by a federal agency that has implemented Code of Federal Regulations, title 45, part 46, subpart A, the federal policy for the protection of human subjects, the licensee must, before conducting research:
C. If the research will not be conducted, funded, supported, or regulated by a federal agency that has implemented the federal policy, the licensee must, before conducting research, apply for and receive a specific amendment to its medical use license. The amendment request must include a written commitment that the licensee will, before conducting research:
D. Nothing in this part relieves licensees from complying with other parts of this chapter.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4402 Implementation
Subpart 1. License exemption.
If a license condition exempted a licensee from a provision of Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, part 35, on October 24, 2002, then the license condition continues to exempt the licensee from the requirements in the corresponding provision of parts 4731.4400 to 4731.4527.
Subp. 2. Superseding law.
When a requirement in parts 4731.4400 to 4731.4527 differs from a requirement in an existing license condition, the requirement in parts 4731.4400 to 4731.4527 governs.
Subp. 3. Continued compliance.
A licensee must continue to comply with any license condition that requires the licensee to implement procedures required under parts 4731.4466 and 4731.4472 to 4731.4474 until there is a license amendment or renewal that modifies the license condition.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4403 Specific License; Medical Use of Radioactive Materials
Subpart 1. Specific license required.
A. Except as provided in item B, a person may manufacture, produce, acquire, receive, possess, prepare, use, or transfer radioactive material for medical use only under a specific license issued by the NRC or an agreement state.
B. A specific license is not needed for an individual who:
Subp. 2. Application for license, amendment, or renewal.
A. An application for a specific license under subpart 1 must be signed by the applicant's or licensee's management.
B. An application for a license for medical use of radioactive materials as described in parts 4731.4404, 4731.4432, 4731.4434, 4731.4440, 4731.4450, 4731.4460, and 4731.4463 must include:
C. A request for a license amendment or renewal must include:
D. In addition to the requirements under items B and C, an application for a license or amendment for medical use of radioactive material under part 4731.4404 must include:
E. An applicant that satisfies the requirements under part 4731.3530 may apply for a Type A specific license of broad scope.
Subp. 3. License amendments.
A licensee must apply for and receive a license amendment:
A. before the licensee receives, prepares, or uses radioactive material for a type of use that is permitted under this chapter, but not authorized under the licensee's current license issued under parts 4731.4400 to 4731.4527;
B. before the licensee permits anyone to work as an authorized user, authorized nuclear pharmacist, authorized medical physicist, or ophthalmic physicist under the license, except that the licensee may permit an individual to work as an authorized user, authorized nuclear pharmacist, authorized medical physicist, or ophthalmic physicist for 60 days before being authorized on a license if the individual is an authorized user, authorized nuclear pharmacist, authorized medical physicist, or ophthalmic physicist for the same type of use:
C. before the licensee changes radiation safety officers, except as provided under part 4731.4405, subpart 1, item C;
D. before the licensee permits anyone to work as an associate radiation safety officer, or before the radiation safety officer assigns duties and tasks to an associate radiation safety officer that differ from those for which the individual is authorized on the license;
E. before the licensee receives radioactive material in excess of the amount or in a form different than authorized in the license or before the licensee receives a radionuclide that is different than the radionuclide authorized in the license;
F. before the licensee adds or changes the areas of use identified in the application or in the license, except for areas of use where radioactive material is used only according to part 4731.4432 or 4731.4434;
G. before the licensee changes an address identified in the application or on the license;
H. before the licensee revises procedures required under parts 4731.4466 and 4731.4472 to 4731.4474, as applicable, when the revision reduces radiation safety; and
I. before the licensee receives a sealed source from a different manufacturer or of a different model number than authorized by its license unless the sealed source is used for manual brachytherapy, is listed in the Sealed Source and Device Registry, and is in a quantity and for an isotope authorized by the license. If a licensee obtains a sealed source in accordance with this item, the licensee must submit an amendment request to add the sealed source to the licensee's radioactive materials license within 30 days after receiving the source.
Subp. 4. Notifications of changes.
A. A licensee must notify the commissioner by letter no later than 30 days after:
B. A licensee must mail required documents to the address under part 4731.0200, subpart 4.
Subp. 5. Exemptions; broad scope license.
A licensee possessing a Type A specific license of broad scope for medical use, issued under parts 4731.3500 to 4731.3580, is exempt from:
A. subpart 2, item D, regarding the need to file an amendment to the license for medical use of radioactive materials under part 4731.4404;
B. subpart 3, item B;
C. subpart 3, item F, regarding additions to or changes in the areas of use at the addresses identified in the application or license;
D. subpart 4, item A, subitem (1), for an authorized user, authorized nuclear pharmacist, authorized medical physicist, or ophthalmic physicist;
E. subpart 4, item A, subitem (4), regarding additions to or changes in the areas of use identified in the application or license where radioactive material is used under part 4731.4432 or 4731.4434; and
F. part 4731.4410, item A.
Subp. 6. License issuance.
A. The commissioner shall issue a license for the medical use of radioactive material if:
B. The commissioner shall issue a license for mobile medical services if the applicant:
Subp. 7. Specific exemptions.
The commissioner may, upon application of any interested person or upon the commissioner's own initiative, grant exemptions from parts 4731.4400 to 4731.4527 that the commissioner determines are authorized by law and will not endanger life or property or the common defense and security and are otherwise in the public interest.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 32 SR 831; 33 SR 1440; 46 SR 791
Minn. R. 4731.4404 Other Medical Uses
A licensee may use radioactive material or a radiation source approved for medical use that is not specifically addressed in parts 4731.4432 to 4731.4479 if the applicant or licensee:
A. submits the information required under part 4731.4403, subpart 2, items B to D; and
B. receives written approval from the commissioner in a license or license amendment and uses the material according to rules and specific conditions the commissioner considers necessary for the medical use of the material.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4405 Radiation Protection Program
Subpart 1. Authority and responsibilities.
A. In addition to the radiation protection program requirements under part 4731.2010, a licensee's management must approve in writing:
B. A licensee's management must appoint a radiation safety officer, who agrees, in writing, to be responsible for implementing the radiation protection program. The licensee, through the radiation safety officer, must ensure that radiation safety activities are being performed according to licensee-approved procedures and this chapter. A licensee's management may appoint, in writing, one or more associate radiation safety officers to support the radiation safety officer. The radiation safety officer, with written agreement of the licensee's management, must assign the specific duties and tasks to each associate radiation safety officer. These duties and tasks are restricted to the types of use for which the associate radiation safety officer is listed on a license. The radiation safety officer may delegate duties and tasks to the associate radiation safety officer but shall not delegate the authority or responsibilities for implementing the radiation protection program.
C. For up to 60 days each year, a licensee may permit an individual qualified to be a radiation safety officer under parts 4731.4411 and 4731.4415 to function as a temporary radiation safety officer and to perform the functions of a radiation safety officer, as provided in item G, if the licensee takes the actions required by items B, E, G, and H, and notifies the commissioner according to part 4731.4403, subpart 4, item A.
D. A licensee may simultaneously appoint more than one temporary radiation safety officer according to item C if needed to ensure that the licensee has a temporary radiation safety officer that satisfies the requirements to be a radiation safety officer for each of the different types of uses of radioactive material permitted by the license.
E. A licensee must establish in writing the authority, duties, and responsibilities of the radiation safety officer.
F. Licensees that are authorized for two or more different types of uses of radioactive materials under parts 4731.4440 to 4731.4459 and 4731.4463 to 4731.4479, or two or more types of units under parts 4731.4463 to 4731.4479 must establish a radiation safety committee to oversee all uses of radioactive material permitted by the license. The committee must include an authorized user of each type of use permitted by the license, the radiation safety officer, a representative of the nursing service, and a representative of management who is neither an authorized user nor a radiation safety officer. The committee may include other members the licensee considers appropriate.
G. A licensee must provide the radiation safety officer sufficient authority, organizational freedom, time resources, and management prerogative to:
H. A licensee must retain a record of actions taken under items A, B, and E, according to part 4731.4500, subpart 1.
Subp. 2. Program changes.
A. A licensee may revise its radiation protection program without commissioner approval if:
B. A licensee must retain a record of each change according to part 4731.4500, subpart 2.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 46 SR 791
Minn. R. 4731.4407 Supervised Individuals
A. A licensee that permits the receipt, possession, use, or transfer of radioactive material by an individual under the supervision of an authorized user, as allowed under part 4731.4403, subpart 1, item B, subitem (1), must:
B. A licensee that permits the preparation of radioactive material for medical use by an individual under the supervision of an authorized nuclear pharmacist or physician who is an authorized user, as allowed under part 4731.4403, subpart 1, item B, subitem (2), must:
C. A licensee that permits supervised activities under item A or B is responsible for the acts and omissions of the supervised individual.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4408 Written Directives
Subpart 1. Written directive required.
A. A written directive must be dated and signed by an authorized user before administration of:
B. If, because of the emergent nature of a patient's condition, a delay to provide a written directive would jeopardize the patient's health, an oral directive is acceptable. The information contained in the oral directive must be documented as soon as possible in writing in the patient's record. A written directive must be prepared within 48 hours of the oral directive.
Subp. 2. Content requirements.
The written directive under subpart 1 must contain the patient or human research subject's name and:
A. for an administration of quantities greater than 30 microcuries (1.11 MBq) of sodium iodide I-131, the dosage;
B. for an administration of a therapeutic dosage of an unsealed radioactive material other than sodium iodide I-131, the radioactive drug, dosage, and route of administration;
C. for gamma stereotactic radiosurgery, the total dose, treatment site, and values for the target coordinate settings per treatment for each anatomically distinct treatment site;
D. for teletherapy, the total dose, dose per fraction, number of fractions, and treatment site;
E. for high dose-rate remote afterloading brachytherapy, the radionuclide, treatment site, dose per fraction, number of fractions, and total dose;
F. for permanent implant brachytherapy:
G. for all other brachytherapy, including low, medium, and pulsed dose-rate remote afterloaders:
Subp. 3. Revisions.
A. A written revision to an existing written directive may be made if the revision is dated and signed by an authorized user before the administration of the dosage of unsealed radioactive material, the brachytherapy dose, the gamma stereotactic radiosurgery dose, the teletherapy dose, or the next fractional dose.
B. If, because of a patient's condition, a delay to provide a written revision to an existing written directive would jeopardize the patient's health, an oral revision to an existing written directive is acceptable. The oral revision must be documented as soon as possible in the patient's record. A revised written directive must be signed by the authorized user within 48 hours of the oral revision.
Subp. 4. Retention.
A licensee must retain a copy of the written directive according to part 4731.4501, subpart 1.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 46 SR 791
Minn. R. 4731.4409 Procedures for Administrations Requiring Written Directive
A. For any administration requiring a written directive, a licensee must develop, implement, and maintain written procedures to provide high confidence that:
B. At a minimum, the procedures required by item A must address the following that are applicable to the licensee's use of radioactive material:
C. A licensee must retain a copy of the procedures required under item A according to part 4731.4501, subpart 2.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 33 SR 1440; 46 SR 791
Minn. R. 4731.4410 Suppliers of Medical Use Sealed Sources or Devices
For medical use, a licensee may use only:
A. sealed sources or devices manufactured, labeled, packaged, and distributed according to a license issued under parts 4731.3000 to 4731.3175 and 4731.3400 or equivalent requirements of the NRC or an agreement state;
B. sealed sources or devices noncommercially transferred from a licensee licensed under parts 4731.4400 to 4731.4527 or equivalent requirements of the NRC or an agreement state; or
C. teletherapy sources manufactured and distributed according to a license issued under parts 4731.3000 to 4731.3175 or equivalent requirements of the NRC or an agreement state.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 32 SR 831
Minn. R. 4731.4411 Radiation Safety Officer and Associate Radiation Safety Officer Training
Subpart 1. Training and education requirements.
Except as provided under part 4731.4414, a licensee must require an individual fulfilling the responsibilities of a radiation safety officer or an individual assigned duties and tasks as an associate radiation safety officer as provided under part 4731.4405, subpart 1, to be an individual who:
A. (1) is certified by a specialty board whose certification process has been recognized by the NRC or an agreement state. The names of board certifications that have been recognized by the NRC or an agreement state are posted on the NRC's Medical Use Licensee Toolkit web page; and
B.
C. (1) is a medical physicist who has been certified by a specialty board whose certification process has been recognized by the NRC or an agreement state under part 4731.4412, has experience in radiation safety for similar types of use of radioactive material for which the licensee is seeking approval of the individual as radiation safety officer or associate radiation safety officer; and
D. (1) is an authorized user, authorized medical physicist, or authorized nuclear pharmacist identified on an NRC or agreement state license, a permit issued by an NRC master material licensee, a permit issued by an NRC or agreement state licensee of broad scope, or a permit issued by an NRC master material license broad scope permittee, and has experience with the radiation safety aspects of similar types of use of radioactive material for which the individual has radiation safety officer responsibilities; and
E. has experience with the radiation safety aspects of the types of use for which the individual is seeking simultaneous approval both as the radiation safety officer and the authorized user on the same new medical use license, and has training in the radiation safety, regulatory issues, and emergency procedures for the types of use for which a licensee seeks approval. This training requirement may be satisfied by completing training that is supervised by a radiation safety officer, associate radiation safety officer, authorized medical physicist, authorized nuclear pharmacist, or authorized user, as appropriate, who is authorized for the types of use for which the licensee is seeking approval.
Subp. 2. Certification requirements.
A specialty board under subpart 1, item A, shall require all candidates for certification to:
A.
B.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 32 SR 831; 36 SR 74; 46 SR 791
Minn. R. 4731.4412 Authorized Medical Physicist Training
Subpart 1. Training and education requirements.
Except as provided in part 4731.4414, a licensee must require an authorized medical physicist to be an individual who:
A. (1) is certified by a specialty board whose certification process has been recognized by the NRC or an agreement state. The names of board certifications that have been recognized by the NRC or an agreement state are posted on the NRC's Medical Use Licensee Toolkit web page; and
B.
Subp. 2. Certification requirements.
A specialty board under subpart 1, item A, shall require all candidates for certification to:
A. hold a master's or doctor's degree in physics, medical physics, or other physical science, engineering, or applied mathematics from an accredited college or university; and
B. have two years of full-time practical training or supervised experience in medical physics:
C. pass an examination, administered by diplomates of the specialty board, that assesses knowledge and competence in clinical radiation therapy, radiation safety, calibration, quality assurance, and treatment planning for external beam therapy, brachytherapy, and stereotactic radiosurgery.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 32 SR 831; 36 SR 74; 46 SR 791
Minn. R. 4731.4413 Authorized Nuclear Pharmacist Training
Subpart 1. Training and education requirements.
Except as provided in part 4731.4414, a licensee must require an authorized nuclear pharmacist to be a pharmacist who:
A. is certified by a specialty board whose certification process has been recognized by the NRC or an agreement state. The names of board certifications that have been recognized by the NRC or an agreement state are posted on the NRC's Medical Use Licensee Toolkit web page; or
B.
Subp. 2. Certification requirements.
A specialty board under subpart 1, item A, shall require all candidates for certification to:
A. have graduated from a pharmacy program accredited by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education (ACPE), previously named the American Council on Pharmaceutical Education, or have passed the Foreign Pharmacy Graduate Examination Committee (FPGEC) examination;
B. hold a current, active license to practice pharmacy;
C. provide evidence of having acquired at least 4,000 hours of training or experience in nuclear pharmacy practice. Academic training may be substituted for no more than 2,000 hours of the required training and experience; and
D. pass an examination in nuclear pharmacy, administered by diplomates of the specialty board, that assesses knowledge and competency in procurement, compounding, quality assurance, dispensing, distribution, health and safety, radiation safety, provision of information and consultation, monitoring patient outcomes, research, and development.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 32 SR 831; 46 SR 791; 49 SR 1193
Minn. R. 4731.4414 Training; Experienced Radiation Safety Officer, Teletherapy or Medical Physicist, Authorized User, and Nuclear Pharmacist
A. An individual identified as a radiation safety officer, a teletherapy or medical physicist, or a nuclear pharmacist on a license issued by the NRC or an agreement state; a permit issued by an NRC or agreement state broad scope licensee; a master material license permit; or a permit issued by a master material license permittee of broad scope on or before January 14, 2019, need not comply with the training requirements under part 4731.4411, 4731.4412, or 4731.4413, respectively, except a radiation safety officer or authorized medical physicist identified in this item must meet the training requirements in part 4731.4411, subpart 1, item A, subitem (2), or 4731.4412, subpart 1, item A, subitem (2), as appropriate, for any material or uses for which they were not authorized prior to this date.
B. An individual certified by the American Board of Health Physics in Comprehensive Health Physics; American Board of Radiology; American Board of Nuclear Medicine; American Board of Science in Nuclear Medicine; Board of Pharmaceutical Specialties in Nuclear Pharmacy; American Board of Medical Physics in radiation oncology physics; Royal College of Physicians and Surgeons of Canada in nuclear medicine; American Osteopathic Board of Radiology; or American Osteopathic Board of Nuclear Medicine on or before October 24, 2005, need not comply with the training requirements of part 4731.4411 to be identified as a radiation safety officer or as an associate radiation safety officer on a commission or an agreement state license or commission master material license permit for those materials and uses that these individuals performed on or before October 24, 2005.
C. An individual certified by the American Board of Radiology in therapeutic radiological physics, roentgen ray and gamma ray physics, x-ray and radium physics, or radiological physics, or certified by the American Board of Medical Physics in radiation oncology physics on or before October 24, 2005, need not comply with the training requirements for an authorized medical physicist in part 4731.4412 for those materials and uses that these individuals performed on or before October 24, 2005.
D. Physicians, dentists, or podiatrists identified as authorized users for the medical use of radioactive material on a license issued by the NRC or an agreement state; a permit issued by an NRC master material licensee; a permit issued by an NRC or agreement state broad scope licensee; or a permit issued by an NRC master material license broad scope permittee on or before January 14, 2019, who perform only those medical uses for which they were authorized on that date, need not comply with the training requirements of parts 4731.4432 to 4731.4479.
E. Physicians, dentists, or podiatrists not identified as authorized users for the medical use of radioactive material on a license issued by the NRC or an agreement state, a permit issued by an NRC master material licensee, a permit issued by an NRC or agreement state broad scope licensee, or a permit issued in accordance with an NRC master material broad scope license on or before October 24, 2005, need not comply with the training requirements of parts 4731.4432 to 4731.4479 for those materials and uses that these individuals performed on or before October 24, 2005, as follows:
F. Individuals who need not comply with training requirements described in this part may serve as preceptors for, and supervisors of, applicants seeking authorization on licenses issued under this chapter for the same uses for which these individuals are authorized.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 32 SR 831; 36 SR 74; 46 SR 791; 49 SR 1193
Minn. R. 4731.4415 Recentness of Training
The training and experience specified under parts 4731.4405 to 4731.4414 and 4731.4432 to 4731.4479 must have been obtained within the seven years preceding the date of application or the individual must have had related continuing education and experience since the required training and experience was completed.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4420 Measuring Activity of Unsealed Radioactive Material; Instruments Required
A. For direct measurements performed according to part 4731.4422, a licensee must possess and use instrumentation to measure the activity of unsealed radioactive material before it is administered to a patient or human research subject.
B. A licensee must check and test the instrumentation required under item A according to nationally recognized standards or the manufacturer's instructions and at the following intervals as applicable:
C. A licensee must also perform the required checks and tests in this part following adjustment or repair of the instrument.
D. The licensee must keep a record of geometry dependence for the duration of the use of the instrument and must retain a record of all other instrument checks and tests for three years. The records must include:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 33 SR 1440
Minn. R. 4731.4421 Calibration of Survey Instruments
A. A licensee must calibrate the survey instruments used to show compliance with parts 4731.2000 to 4731.2950 and 4731.4400 to 4731.4527 before first use, intervals not to exceed 12 months, and following a repair that affects the calibration. A licensee must:
B. A licensee may not use survey instruments if the difference between the indicated exposure rate and the calculated exposure rate is more than 20 percent.
C. A licensee must retain a record of each survey instrument calibration according to part 4731.4502, subpart 2.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 29 SR 755; 40 SR 145
Minn. R. 4731.4422 Determination of Dosages; Unsealed Radioactive Material
A. A licensee must determine and record the activity of each dosage before medical use.
B. For a unit dosage, the determination under item A must be made by:
C. For other than unit dosages, the determination under item A must be made by:
D. Unless otherwise directed by the authorized user, a licensee may not use a dosage if the dosage does not fall within the prescribed dosage range or if the dosage differs from the prescribed dosage by more than 20 percent.
E. A licensee must retain a record of the dosage determination required under this part according to part 4731.4503.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 33 SR 1440
Minn. R. 4731.4423 Authorization for Check, Calibration, Transmission, and Reference Use
Subpart 1. Check, calibration, transmission, and reference use.
A person authorized under part 4731.4403, subpart 1, for medical use of radioactive material may receive, possess, and use the following radioactive material for check, calibration, transmission, and reference use:
A. sealed sources that do not exceed 30 millicuries (1.11 GBq) each and that are manufactured and distributed by a person licensed under part 4731.3400 or equivalent requirements of the NRC or an agreement state;
B. sealed sources that do not exceed 30 millicuries (1.11 GBq) each and that are redistributed by a licensee authorized to redistribute the sealed sources manufactured and distributed by a person licensed under part 4731.3400, providing the redistributed sealed sources are in the original packaging and shielding and are accompanied by the manufacturer's approved instructions;
C. any radioactive material with a half-life not longer than 120 days in individual amounts not to exceed 15 millicuries (0.56 GBq);
D. any radioactive material with a half-life longer than 120 days in individual amounts not to exceed the smaller of 200 microcuries (7.4 MBq) or 1,000 times the quantities in part 4731.3160; and
E. technetium-99m in amounts as needed.
Subp. 2. Restriction of use.
Radioactive material in sealed sources authorized by this part must not be:
A. used for medical use as defined in part 4731.0100 except in accordance with the requirements in part 4731.4460; or
B. combined (i.e., bundled or aggregated) to create an activity greater than the maximum activity of any single sealed source authorized under this part.
Subp. 3. Listing on license.
A licensee using calibration, transmission, and reference sources in accordance with subpart 1 or 2 need not list these sources on a specific medical use license.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 32 SR 831; 46 SR 791
Minn. R. 4731.4424 Possession of Sealed Sources and Brachytherapy Sources; Requirements
A. A licensee in possession of any sealed source or brachytherapy source must follow the radiation safety and handling instructions supplied by the manufacturer.
B. A licensee in possession of a sealed source must:
C. To satisfy the leak test requirements under item B, a licensee must measure the sample so that the leak test can detect the presence of 0.005 microcurie (185 Bq) of radioactive material on the sample.
D. A licensee must retain leak test records according to part 4731.4504, subpart 1.
E. If the leak test reveals the presence of 0.005 microcurie (185 Bq) or more of removable contamination, the licensee must:
F. A licensee need not perform a leak test on:
G. A licensee in possession of sealed sources or brachytherapy sources, except for gamma stereotactic radiosurgery sources, must conduct a semiannual physical inventory of all such sources in the licensee's possession. The licensee must retain each inventory record according to part 4731.4504, subpart 2.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4425 Labeling Vials and Syringes
Each syringe and vial that contains unsealed radioactive material must be labeled to identify the radioactive drug. Each syringe shield and vial shield must also be labeled unless the label on the syringe or vial is visible when shielded.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4426 Surveys of Ambient Radiation Exposure Rate
A. In addition to the surveys required under parts 4731.2000 to 4731.2950, a licensee must survey with a radiation detection survey instrument at the end of each day of use all areas where unsealed radioactive materials requiring a written directive were prepared for use or administered.
B. A licensee need not perform the surveys required under item A in an area where patients or human research subjects are confined when they cannot be released under part 4731.4427.
C. A licensee must retain a record of each survey according to part 4731.4505.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4427 Release of Individuals Containing Unsealed Radioactive Material or Implants
A. A licensee may authorize release from licensee control of an individual who has been administered unsealed radioactive material or implants containing radioactive material if the total effective dose equivalent to any other individual from exposure to the released individual is not likely to exceed 0.5 rem (5 mSv).
B. A licensee must provide the released individual, or the individual's parent or guardian, with instructions, including written instructions, on actions recommended to maintain doses to other individuals as low as is reasonably achievable if the total effective dose equivalent to any other individual is likely to exceed 0.1 rem (1 mSv). If the total effective dose equivalent to a nursing infant or child could exceed 0.1 rem (1 mSv), assuming there were no interruption of breast-feeding, the instructions must also include guidance on the interruption or discontinuation of breast-feeding and information on the potential consequences, if any, of failure to follow the guidance.
C. A licensee must maintain a record of the basis for authorizing the release of the individual according to part 4731.4506, subpart 1.
D. A licensee must maintain a record of instructions provided to a breast-feeding woman according to part 4731.4506, subpart 2.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 32 SR 831
Minn. R. 4731.4428 Mobile Medical Service
A. A licensee providing mobile medical service must:
B. A mobile medical service may not have radioactive material delivered from the manufacturer or the distributor to the client unless the client has a license allowing possession of the radioactive material. Radioactive material delivered to the client must be received and handled in conformance with the client's license.
C. A licensee providing mobile medical services must retain the letter required under item A, subitem (1), and the record of each survey required under item A, subitem (4), according to part 4731.4507.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4429 Decay-in-Storage
A licensee may hold radioactive material with a physical half-life of less than or equal to 120 days for decay-in-storage before disposal without regard to its radioactivity, if the licensee adheres to the requirements of part 4731.2405.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 33 SR 1440
Minn. R. 4731.4430 Control of Aerosols and Gases
Subpart 1. Collection system.
A licensee who administers radioactive aerosols or gases must do so with a system that will keep airborne concentrations within the limits prescribed by parts 4731.2020 and 4731.2090.
Subp. 2. System vented or system collection.
The system must either be directly vented to the atmosphere through an air exhaust or provide for collection and decay or disposal of the aerosol or gas in a shielded container.
Subp. 3. Negative pressure required.
A licensee must only administer radioactive gases in rooms that are at negative pressure compared to surrounding rooms.
Subp. 4. Calculation of time needed after a release.
Before receiving, using, or storing a radioactive gas, the licensee must calculate the amount of time needed after a release to reduce the concentration in the area of use to the occupational limit listed in part 4731.2750. The calculation must be based on the highest activity of gas handled in a single container and the measured available air exhaust rate.
Subp. 5. Posting time needed after a release.
A licensee must post the time needed after a release to reduce the concentration to the occupational limit calculated for the area of use and require that, in case of a gas spill, individuals evacuate the room until the posted time has elapsed.
Subp. 6. Monthly check on collection system.
A licensee must check the operation of collection systems monthly and measure the ventilation rates in areas of use at intervals not to exceed six months.
Subp. 7. Records retention.
Records of these checks and measurements must be maintained for three years.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 36 SR 74
Minn. R. 4731.4432 Unsealed Radioactive Material; Uptake, Dilution, and Excretion Studies; Written Directive Not Required
Except for quantities that require a written directive under part 4731.4408 or 4731.4409, a licensee may use any unsealed radioactive material prepared for medical use for uptake, dilution, or excretion studies that is:
A. obtained from a manufacturer or preparer licensed under part 4731.3395 or equivalent requirements of the NRC or an agreement state or a PET radioactive drug producer licensed according to part 4731.3065, subpart 7, or equivalent requirements of the NRC or an agreement state;
B. excluding production of PET radionuclides, prepared by:
C. obtained from and prepared for a commissioner, NRC, or agreement state licensee for use in research according to a radioactive drug research committee-approved protocol or an investigational new drug protocol accepted by the Food and Drug Administration; or
D. prepared by the licensee for use in research according to a radioactive drug research committee-approved application or an investigational new drug protocol accepted by the Food and Drug Administration.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 32 SR 831; 33 SR 1440
Minn. R. 4731.4433 Uptake, Dilution, and Excretion Studies; Training
Subpart 1. Training and education requirements.
Except as provided under part 4731.4414, a licensee must require the authorized user of unsealed radioactive material for the uses authorized under part 4731.4432 to be a physician who:
A. is certified by a medical specialty board whose certification process has been recognized by the NRC or an agreement state. The names of board certifications that have been recognized by the NRC or an agreement state are posted on the NRC's Medical Use Licensee Toolkit web page;
B. is an authorized user under part 4731.4436 or 4731.4443 or under equivalent requirements of the NRC or an agreement state; or
C. has:
Subp. 2. Certification requirements.
A specialty board under subpart 1, item A, shall require all candidates for certification to:
A. complete 60 hours of training and experience in basic radionuclide handling techniques and radiation safety applicable to the medical use of unsealed radioactive material for uptake, dilution, and excretion studies that include the topics listed in subpart 1, item C, subitem (1), units (a) and (b); and
B. pass an examination, administered by diplomates of the specialty board, that assesses knowledge and competence in radiation safety, radionuclide handling, and quality control.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 32 SR 831; 36 SR 74; 46 SR 791
Minn. R. 4731.4434 Unsealed Radioactive Material; Imaging and Localization Studies; Written Directive Not Required
Except for quantities that require a written directive under part 4731.4408, a licensee may use any unsealed radioactive material prepared for medical use for imaging and localization studies that is:
A. obtained from a manufacturer or preparer licensed under part 4731.3395 or equivalent requirements of the NRC or an agreement state or a PET radioactive drug producer licensed according to part 4731.3065, subpart 7, or equivalent requirements of the NRC or an agreement state;
B. excluding production of PET radionuclides, prepared by:
C. obtained from and prepared by an NRC or agreement state licensee for use in research according to a radioactive drug research committee-approved protocol or an investigational new drug protocol accepted by the Food and Drug Administration; or
D. prepared by the licensee for use in research according to a radioactive drug research committee-approved application or an investigational new drug protocol accepted by the Food and Drug Administration.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 32 SR 831; 33 SR 1440
Minn. R. 4731.4435 Permissible Molybdenum-99, Strontium-82, and Strontium-85 Concentration
A. A licensee may not administer to humans a radiopharmaceutical that contains:
B. A licensee that uses molybdenum-99/technetium-99m generators for preparing a technetium-99m radiopharmaceutical must measure the molybdenum-99 concentration in each eluate from a generator to demonstrate compliance with item A.
C. A licensee that uses a strontium-82/rubidium-82 generator for preparing a rubidium-82 radiopharmaceutical must, before the first patient use of the day, measure the concentration of strontium-82 and strontium-85 radionuclides to demonstrate compliance with item A.
D. If a licensee is required to measure the molybdenum-99 concentration or strontium-82 and strontium-85 concentrations, the licensee must retain a record of each measurement according to part 4731.4509.
E. The licensee must report any measurement that exceeds the limits in item A at the time of generator elution, in accordance with part 4731.4528.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 33 SR 1440; 46 SR 791
Minn. R. 4731.4436 Imaging and Localization Studies; Training
Subpart 1. Training and education requirements.
Except as provided under part 4731.4414, a licensee must require an authorized user of unsealed radioactive material for the uses authorized under part 4731.4434 to be a physician who:
A. is certified by a medical specialty board whose certification process has been recognized by the NRC or an agreement state. The names of board certification that have been recognized by the NRC or an agreement state are posted on the NRC's Medical Use Licensee Toolkit web page;
B. is an authorized user under part 4731.4443 and meets the requirements in item C, subitem (1), unit (b), subunit vii, or equivalent requirements of the NRC or an agreement state; or
C. has:
Subp. 2. Certification requirements.
A specialty board under subpart 1, item A, shall require all candidates for certification to:
A. complete 700 hours of training and experience in basic radionuclide handling techniques and radiation safety applicable to the medical use of unsealed radioactive material for imaging and localization studies that include the topics listed in subpart 1, item C, subitem (1), units (a) and (b); and
B. pass an examination administered by diplomates of the specialty board, which assesses knowledge and competence in radiation safety, radionuclide handling, and quality control.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 32 SR 831; 36 SR 74; 46 SR 791
Minn. R. 4731.4440 Unsealed Radioactive Material; Written Directive Required
A licensee may use any unsealed radioactive material identified in part 4731.4443, subpart 1, item B, subitem (1), unit (b), subunit vi, prepared for medical use and for which a written directive is required that is:
A. obtained from a manufacturer or preparer licensed under part 4731.3395 or equivalent requirements of the NRC or an agreement state or a PET radioactive drug producer licensed according to part 4731.3065, subpart 7, or equivalent requirements of the NRC or an agreement state;
B. excluding production of PET radionuclides, prepared by an authorized nuclear pharmacist, a physician who is an authorized user and meets the requirements under part 4731.4436 or 4731.4443, or an individual under the supervision of either, as specified under part 4731.4407;
C. obtained from and prepared by a commissioner, NRC, or agreement state licensee for use in research according to an investigational new drug protocol accepted by the Food and Drug Administration; or
D. prepared by the licensee for use in research according to an investigational new drug protocol accepted by the Food and Drug Administration.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 33 SR 1440; 46 SR 791
Minn. R. 4731.4441 Safety Instructions
A. In addition to the requirements of part 4731.1020, a licensee must provide radiation safety instruction, initially and at least annually, to personnel caring for patients or human research subjects who cannot be released under part 4731.4427. To satisfy this requirement, the instruction must be commensurate with the duties of the personnel and include:
B. A licensee must retain a record of individuals receiving instruction according to part 4731.4510.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4442 Safety Precautions
A. For each patient or human research subject who cannot be released under part 4731.4427, a licensee must:
B. A licensee must notify the radiation safety officer or the officer's designee and the authorized user as soon as possible if the patient or human research subject has a medical emergency or dies.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4443 Unsealed Radioactive Material; Written Directive Required; Training
Subpart 1. Training and education requirements.
Except as provided under part 4731.4414, a licensee must require an authorized user of unsealed radioactive material for the uses authorized under part 4731.4440 to be a physician who:
A. is certified by a medical specialty board whose certification process has been recognized by the NRC or an agreement state, and meets the requirements in item B, subitem (1), unit (b), subunit vi. The names of board certifications that have been recognized by the NRC or an agreement state are posted on the NRC's Medical Use Licensee Toolkit web page; or
B. has:
Subp. 2. Certification requirements.
A specialty board under subpart 1, item A, shall require all candidates for certification to:
A. successfully complete residency training in a radiation therapy or nuclear medicine training program or a program in a related medical specialty. These residency training programs must include 700 hours of training and experience as described in subpart 1, item B, subitem (1), units (a) and (b), subunits i to v. Eligible training programs must be approved by the Residency Review Committee of the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education, the Royal College of Physicians and Surgeons of Canada, or the Council on Postdoctoral Training of the American Osteopathic Association; and
B. pass an examination, administered by diplomates of the specialty board, that tests knowledge and competence in radiation safety, radionuclide handling, quality assurance, and clinical use of unsealed radioactive material for which a written directive is required.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 32 SR 831; 36 SR 74; 46 SR 791
Minn. R. 4731.4444 ORAL ADMINISTRATION OF SODIUM IODIDE I-131; QUANTITIES LESS THAN OR EQUAL TO 33 MILLICURIES (1.22 GBq); WRITTEN DIRECTIVE REQUIRED; TRAINING
Except as provided under part 4731.4414, a licensee must require an authorized user for the oral administration of sodium iodide (I-131) requiring a written directive in quantities less than or equal to 33 millicuries (1.22 GBq) to be a physician who:
A. is certified by a medical specialty board whose certification process has been recognized by the NRC or an agreement state and includes all of the requirements of item C, subitems (1) and (2). The names of board certifications that have been recognized by the NRC or an agreement state are posted on the NRC's Medical Use Licensee Toolkit web page;
B. is an authorized user under part 4731.4443, for oral administration of less than or equal to 33 millicuries (1.22 GBq) of sodium iodide (I-131) for which a written directive is required or oral administration of greater than 33 millicuries (1.22 GBq) of sodium iodide (I-131) under part 4731.4443 or 4731.4445, or under equivalent requirements of the NRC or an agreement state; or
C. has:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 32 SR 831; 36 SR 74; 46 SR 791
Minn. R. 4731.4445 ORAL ADMINISTRATION OF SODIUM IODIDE; QUANTITIES GREATER THAN 33 MILLICURIES (1.22 GBq); WRITTEN DIRECTIVE REQUIRED; TRAINING
Except as provided under part 4731.4414, a licensee must require an authorized user for the oral administration of sodium iodide (I-131) requiring a written directive in quantities greater than 33 millicuries (1.22 GBq) to be a physician who:
A. is certified by a medical specialty board whose certification process has been recognized by the NRC or an agreement state and includes all the requirements in item C, subitems (1) and (2). The names of board certifications that have been recognized by the NRC or an agreement state are posted on the NRC's Medical Use Licensee Toolkit web page;
B. is an authorized user for the oral administration of I-131 in quantities greater than 33 millicuries under part 4731.4443, subpart 1, item B, subitem (1), unit (b), subunit vi; or equivalent requirements of the NRC or an agreement state; or
C. has:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 32 SR 831; 36 SR 74; 46 SR 791
Minn. R. 4731.4446 Parenteral Administration of Unsealed Radioactive Material; Written Directive Required; Training
A. Except as provided in part 4731.4414, the licensee must require an authorized user for the parenteral administration requiring a written directive to be a physician who is:
B. The physician under item A, subitems (2) and (3), must have:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 32 SR 831; 36 SR 74; 46 SR 791
Minn. R. 4731.4450 Use of Brachytherapy Sources
A licensee must use only brachytherapy sources:
A. as approved in the sealed source and device registry for manual brachytherapy medical use. The manual brachytherapy sources may be used for manual brachytherapy uses that are not explicitly listed in the sealed source and device registry, but must be used in accordance with the radiation safety conditions and limitations described in the sealed source and device registry; or
B. in research to deliver therapeutic doses for medical use, according to an active investigational device exemption application accepted by the Food and Drug Administration, provided the requirements of part 4731.4410, item A, are met.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 46 SR 791
Minn. R. 4731.4451 Surveys After Source Implant and Removal
A. Immediately after implanting sources in a patient or human research subject, a licensee must make a survey to locate and account for all sources that have not been implanted.
B. Immediately after removing the last temporary implant source from a patient or human research subject, a licensee must make a survey of the patient or human research subject with a radiation detection survey instrument to confirm that all sources have been removed.
C. A licensee must retain a record of the surveys required under this part according to part 4731.4511.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4452 Brachytherapy Sources Accountability
A. A licensee must maintain accountability at all times for all brachytherapy sources in storage or use.
B. As soon as possible after removing sources from a patient or human research subject, a licensee must return brachytherapy sources to a secure storage area.
C. A licensee must maintain a record of the brachytherapy source accountability according to part 4731.4512.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4453 Brachytherapy; Safety Instructions
A. In addition to the requirements of part 4731.1020, a licensee must provide radiation safety instruction, initially and at least annually, to personnel caring for patients or human research subjects who are receiving brachytherapy and cannot be released under part 4731.4427. To satisfy this requirement, the instruction must be commensurate with the duties of the personnel and include:
B. A licensee must retain a record of individuals receiving instruction according to part 4731.4510.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4454 Brachytherapy; Safety Precautions
A. For each patient or human research subject who is receiving brachytherapy and cannot be released under part 4731.4427, a licensee must:
B. A licensee must have applicable emergency response equipment available near each treatment room to respond to a source:
C. A licensee must notify the radiation safety officer or the officer's designee and an authorized user as soon as possible if the patient or human research subject has a medical emergency or dies.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4455 Brachytherapy; Calibration Measurements
A. Before the first medical use of a brachytherapy source, a licensee must have:
B. A licensee may use measurements provided by the source manufacturer or by a calibration laboratory accredited by the American Association of Physicists in Medicine that are made according to item A.
C. A licensee must mathematically correct the outputs or activities determined under item A for physical decay at intervals consistent with one percent physical decay.
D. A licensee must retain a record of each calibration according to part 4731.4513.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4456 Decay of Strontium-90 Sources for Ophthalmic Treatments
A. Licensees who use strontium-90 for ophthalmic treatments must ensure that certain activities as specified in item B are performed by either:
B. The individuals who are identified in item A must:
C. A licensee must maintain a record of the activity of each strontium-90 source according to part 4731.4514.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 46 SR 791
Minn. R. 4731.4457 Therapy-Related Computer Systems
A licensee must perform acceptance testing on the treatment planning system of therapy-related computer systems according to published protocols accepted by nationally recognized bodies. At a minimum, the acceptance testing must include, as applicable, verification of:
A. the source-specific input parameters required by the dose calculation algorithm;
B. the accuracy of dose, dwell time, and treatment time calculations at representative points;
C. the accuracy of isodose plots and graphic displays; and
D. the accuracy of the software used to determine sealed source positions from radiographic images.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4458 Manual Brachytherapy Training
Subpart 1. Training and education requirements.
Except as provided under part 4731.4414, a licensee must require an authorized user of a manual brachytherapy source for the uses authorized under part 4731.4450 to be a physician who:
A. is certified by a medical specialty board whose certification has been recognized by the NRC or an agreement state. The names of board certifications that have been recognized by the NRC or an agreement state are posted on the NRC's Medical Use Licensee Toolkit web page; or
B. has:
Subp. 2. Certification requirements.
A specialty board under subpart 1, item A, shall require all candidates for certification to:
A. successfully complete a minimum of three years of residency training in a radiation oncology program approved by the Residency Review Committee of the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education, the Royal College of Physicians and Surgeons of Canada, or the Council on Postdoctoral Training of the American Osteopathic Association; and
B. pass an examination, administered by diplomates of the specialty board, that tests knowledge and competence in radiation safety, radionuclide handling, treatment planning, quality assurance, and clinical use of manual brachytherapy.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 32 SR 831; 36 SR 74; 46 SR 791
Minn. R. 4731.4459 Ophthalmic Use of Strontium-90; Training
Except as provided under part 4731.4414, a licensee must require an authorized user of strontium-90 for ophthalmic radiotherapy to be a physician who:
A. is an authorized user under part 4731.4458 or equivalent requirements of the NRC or an agreement state; or
B. has:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 32 SR 831; 36 SR 74; 46 SR 791
Minn. R. 4731.4460 Use of Sealed Sources and Medical Devices for Diagnosis
A. A licensee must use only sealed sources that are not in medical devices for diagnostic medical uses if the sealed sources are approved in the sealed source and device registry for diagnostic medicine. The sealed sources may be used for diagnostic medical uses that are not explicitly listed in the sealed source and device registry but must be used in accordance with the radiation safety conditions and limitations described in the sealed source and device registry.
B. A licensee must only use medical devices containing sealed sources for diagnostic medical uses if both the sealed sources and medical devices are approved in the sealed source and device registry for diagnostic medical uses. The diagnostic medical devices may be used for diagnostic medical uses that are not explicitly listed in the sealed source and device registry but must be used in accordance with the radiation safety conditions and limitations described in the sealed source and device registry.
C. Sealed sources and devices for diagnostic medical uses may be used in research in accordance with an active Investigational Device Exemption (IDE) application accepted by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration provided the requirements of part 4731.4410, item A, are met.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 46 SR 791
Minn. R. 4731.4461 Use of Sealed Sources for Diagnosis; Training
Except as provided under part 4731.4414, a licensee must require an authorized user of a diagnostic sealed source or a device authorized under part 4731.4460 to be a physician, dentist, or podiatrist who:
A. is certified by a specialty board whose certification process includes all of the requirements of items C and D and whose certification has been recognized by the NRC or an agreement state. The names of board certifications that have been recognized by the NRC or an agreement state are posted on the NRC's Medical Use Licensee Toolkit web page;
B. is an authorized user for uses listed in part 4731.4434 or equivalent requirements of the NRC or an agreement state;
C. has completed eight hours of classroom and laboratory training in basic radionuclide handling techniques specifically applicable to the use of the device. The training must include:
D. has completed training in the use of the device for the uses requested.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 32 SR 831; 46 SR 791
Minn. R. 4731.4463 Use of a Sealed Source; Remote Afterloader Unit, Teletherapy Unit, or Gamma Stereotactic Radiosurgery Unit
A. A licensee must only use sealed sources:
B. A licensee must use photon-emitting remote afterloader units, teletherapy units, or gamma stereotactic radiosurgery units:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 46 SR 791
Minn. R. 4731.4464 Treatment with Remote Afterloader Unit; Surveys
A. Before releasing a patient or human research subject who has been treated with a remote afterloader unit from licensee control, a licensee must survey the patient or human research subject and the remote afterloader unit with a portable radiation detection survey instrument to confirm that the source has been removed from the patient or human research subject and returned to the safe shielded position.
B. A licensee must retain a record of the required surveys according to part 4731.4511.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4465 Installation, Maintenance, Adjustment, and Repair Requirements
A. Only a person specifically licensed by the commissioner, the NRC, or an agreement state shall install, maintain, adjust, or repair a remote afterloader unit, teletherapy unit, or gamma stereotactic radiosurgery unit that involves work on the source shielding, the source driving unit, or other electronic or mechanical component that could expose the source, reduce the shielding around the source, or compromise the radiation safety of the unit or the source.
B. Except for low dose-rate remote afterloader units, only a person specifically licensed by the commissioner, the NRC, or an agreement state shall install, replace, relocate, or remove a sealed source or source contained in other remote afterloader units, teletherapy units, or gamma stereotactic radiosurgery units.
C. For a low dose-rate remote afterloader unit, only a person specifically licensed by the commissioner, the NRC, or an agreement state or an authorized medical physicist shall install, replace, relocate, or remove a sealed source contained in the unit.
D. A licensee must retain a record of the installation, maintenance, adjustment, and repair of remote afterloader units, teletherapy units, and gamma stereotactic radiosurgery units according to part 4731.4515.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4466 Remote Afterloader Units, Teletherapy Units, and Gamma Stereotactic Radiosurgery Units; Safety Procedures and Instructions
A. This part applies to remote afterloader units, teletherapy units, and gamma stereotactic radiosurgery units.
B. A licensee must:
C. A copy of the procedures required under item B, subitem (4), must be physically located at the unit console.
D. A licensee must post instructions at the unit console to inform the operator of:
E. A licensee must:
F. A licensee must ensure that operators, authorized medical physicists, and authorized users participate in drills of the emergency procedures, initially and at least annually.
G. A licensee must retain a record of individuals receiving instruction required under item E according to part 4731.4510.
H. A licensee must retain a copy of the procedures required under item B, subitem (4), and item E, subitem (2), unit (b), according to part 4731.4516.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 46 SR 791
Minn. R. 4731.4467 Remote Afterloader Units, Teletherapy Units, and Gamma Stereotactic Radiosurgery Units; Safety Precautions
A. This part applies to remote afterloader units, teletherapy units, and gamma stereotactic radiosurgery units.
B. A licensee must control access to the treatment room by a door at each entrance.
C. A licensee must equip each entrance to the treatment room with an electrical interlock system that:
D. A licensee must require any individual entering the treatment room to ensure, through the use of appropriate radiation monitors, that radiation levels have returned to ambient levels.
E. Except for low-dose remote afterloader units, a licensee must construct or equip each treatment room with viewing and intercom systems to permit continuous observation of the patient or human research subject from the treatment console during irradiation.
F. For licensed activities where sources are placed within the patient's or human research subject's body, a licensee must only conduct treatments that allow for expeditious removal of a decoupled or jammed source.
G. A licensee must:
H. A licensee must have applicable emergency response equipment available near each treatment room to respond to a source:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4468 Dosimetry Equipment
Subpart 1. Required equipment.
Except for low dose-rate remote afterloader sources where the source output or activity is determined by the manufacturer, a licensee must have a calibrated dosimetry system available for use. To satisfy this requirement:
A. the system must have been calibrated by a calibration laboratory accredited by the American Association of Physicists in Medicine (AAPM) or by using a source or system traceable to the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) and published protocols accepted by nationally recognized bodies:
B. the system must have been calibrated within the previous four years. Eighteen to 30 months after that calibration:
Subp. 2. Spot check measurements.
A licensee must have a dosimetry system available for spot check output measurements, if applicable. To satisfy this requirement, the system may be compared with a system that has been calibrated according to subpart 1. The comparison must have been performed within the previous year and after each servicing that may have affected system calibration. The spot check system may be the same system used to meet the requirement under subpart 1.
Subp. 3. Record retention.
A licensee must retain a record of each calibration, intercomparison, and comparison according to part 4731.4517.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4469 Teletherapy Units; Full Calibration
Subpart 1. Calibration required.
A licensee authorized to use a teletherapy unit for medical use must perform full calibration measurements on each teletherapy unit:
A. before the first medical use of the unit;
B. before medical use under the following conditions:
C. at intervals not exceeding one year.
Subp. 2. Required determinations.
To satisfy subpart 1, full calibration measurements must include determination of:
A. the output within plus or minus three percent for the range of field sizes and for the distance or range of distances used for medical use;
B. the coincidence of the radiation field and the field indicated by the light beam localizing device;
C. the uniformity of the radiation field and its dependence on the orientation of the useful beam;
D. timer accuracy and linearity over the range of use;
E. on-off error; and
F. the accuracy of all distance-measuring and localization devices in medical use.
Subp. 3. Required system.
A licensee must use the dosimetry system described in part 4731.4468, subpart 1, to measure the output for one set of exposure conditions. The remaining radiation measurements required under subpart 2 may be made using a dosimetry system that indicates relative dose rates.
Subp. 4. Required protocols.
A licensee must make full calibration measurements required under subpart 1 according to published protocols accepted by nationally recognized bodies.
Subp. 5. Required corrections.
A licensee must mathematically correct the outputs determined in subpart 2, item A, for physical decay for intervals not exceeding one month for cobalt-60, six months for cesium-137, or at intervals consistent with one percent decay for all other nuclides.
Subp. 6. Authorized medical physicist.
Full calibration measurements required under subpart 1 and physical decay corrections required under subpart 5 must be performed by the authorized medical physicist.
Subp. 7. Record retention.
A licensee must retain a record of each calibration according to part 4731.4518.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4470 Remote Afterloader Units; Full Calibration
Subpart 1. Calibration required.
A licensee authorized to use a remote afterloader unit for medical use must perform full calibration measurements on each unit:
A. before the first medical use of the unit;
B. before medical use under the following conditions:
C. at intervals not exceeding one quarter for high dose-rate, medium dose-rate, and pulsed dose-rate remote afterloader units with sources whose half-life exceeds 75 days; and
D. at intervals not exceeding one year for low dose-rate remote afterloader units.
Subp. 2. Required determinations.
To satisfy subpart 1, full calibration measurements must include, as applicable, determination of:
A. the output within plus or minus five percent;
B. source positioning accuracy to within plus or minus one millimeter;
C. source retraction with backup battery upon power failure;
D. length of the source transfer tubes;
E. timer accuracy and linearity over the typical range of use;
F. length of the applicators; and
G. function of the source transfer tubes, applicators, and transfer tube-applicator interfaces.
Subp. 3. Required system.
A licensee must use the dosimetry system described in part 4731.4468, subpart 1, to measure the output.
Subp. 4. Required protocols.
A licensee must make full calibration measurements required under subpart 1 according to published protocols accepted by nationally recognized bodies.
Subp. 5. Autoradiograph required.
In addition to the requirements for full calibrations for low dose-rate remote afterloader units under subpart 2, a licensee must perform an autoradiograph of the source to verify inventory and source arrangement at intervals not exceeding one quarter.
Subp. 6. Measurements by manufacturer.
For low dose-rate remote afterloader units, a licensee may use measurements provided by the source manufacturer that are made according to subparts 1 to 5.
Subp. 7. Required corrections.
A licensee must mathematically correct the outputs determined in subpart 2, item A, for physical decay at intervals consistent with one percent physical decay.
Subp. 8. Authorized medical physicist.
Full calibration measurements required under subpart 1 and physical decay corrections required under subpart 7 must be performed by the authorized medical physicist.
Subp. 9. Record retention.
A licensee must retain a record of each calibration according to part 4731.4518.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4471 Gamma Stereotactic Radiosurgery Units; Full Calibration
Subpart 1. Calibration required.
A licensee authorized to use a gamma stereotactic radiosurgery unit for medical use must perform full calibration measurements on each unit:
A. before the first medical use of the unit;
B. before medical use under the following conditions:
C. at intervals not exceeding one year, except that relative helmet factors need only be determined before the first medical use of a helmet and following any damage to a helmet.
Subp. 2. Required determinations.
To satisfy subpart 1, full calibration measurements must include determination of:
A. the output within plus or minus three percent;
B. relative helmet factors;
C. isocenter coincidence;
D. timer accuracy and linearity over the range of use;
E. on-off error;
F. trunnion centricity;
G. treatment table retraction mechanism, using backup battery power or hydraulic backups with the unit off;
H. helmet microswitches;
I. emergency timing circuits; and
J. stereotactic frames and localization devices (trunnions).
Subp. 3. Required system.
A licensee must use the dosimetry system described in part 4731.4468, subpart 1, to measure the output for one set of exposure conditions. The remaining radiation measurements required under subpart 2 may be made using a dosimetry system that indicates relative dose rates.
Subp. 4. Required protocols.
A licensee must make full calibration measurements required under subpart 1 according to published protocols accepted by nationally recognized bodies.
Subp. 5. Required corrections.
A licensee must mathematically correct the outputs determined under subpart 2, item A, at intervals not exceeding one month for cobalt-60 and at intervals consistent with one percent physical decay for all other radionuclides.
Subp. 6. Authorized medical physicist.
Full calibration measurements required under subpart 1 and physical decay corrections required under subpart 5 must be performed by the authorized medical physicist.
Subp. 7. Record retention.
A licensee must retain a record of each calibration according to part 4731.4518.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4472 Teletherapy Units; Periodic Spot Checks
Subpart 1. Output spot checks required.
A licensee authorized to use teletherapy units for medical use must perform output spot checks on each teletherapy unit once in each calendar month that include determination of:
A. timer accuracy and timer linearity over the range of use;
B. on-off error;
C. the coincidence of the radiation field and the field indicated by the light beam localizing device;
D. the accuracy of all distance-measuring and localization devices used for medical use;
E. the output for one typical set of operating conditions measured with the dosimetry system described in part 4731.4468, subpart 2; and
F. the difference between the measurement made in item E and the anticipated output, expressed as a percentage of the anticipated output, that is, the value obtained at last full calibration corrected mathematically for physical decay.
Subp. 2. Written procedures.
A licensee must perform measurements required under subpart 1 according to written procedures established by the authorized medical physicist. The authorized medical physicist need not actually perform the spot check measurements.
Subp. 3. Review.
A licensee must have the authorized medical physicist review the results of each spot check within 15 days. The authorized medical physicist must notify the licensee as soon as possible in writing of the results of each spot check.
Subp. 4. Safety spot checks required.
A licensee authorized to use a teletherapy unit for medical use must perform safety spot checks of each teletherapy facility once in each calendar month and after each source installation to ensure proper operation of:
A. electrical interlocks at each teletherapy room entrance;
B. electrical or mechanical stops installed to limit use of the primary beam of radiation, including restriction of source housing angulation or elevation, carriage or stand travel, and operation of the beam on-off mechanism;
C. source exposure indicator lights on the teletherapy unit, on the control console, and in the facility;
D. viewing and intercom systems;
E. treatment room doors from inside and outside the treatment room; and
F. electrically assisted treatment room doors with the teletherapy unit electrical power turned off.
Subp. 5. Malfunctions.
If the results of the checks required under subpart 4 indicate the malfunction of any system, a licensee must lock the control console in the off position and not use the unit except as may be necessary to repair, replace, or check the malfunctioning system.
Subp. 6. Record retention.
A licensee must retain a record of each spot check required under subparts 1 and 4 and a copy of the procedures required under subpart 2 according to part 4731.4519.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4473 Remote Afterloader Units; Periodic Spot Checks
Subpart 1. Spot check required.
A licensee authorized to use remote afterloader units for medical use must perform spot checks of each remote afterloader facility and on each unit:
A. before the first use of a high dose-rate, medium dose-rate, or pulsed dose-rate remote afterloader unit on a given day;
B. before each patient treatment with a low dose-rate remote afterloader unit; and
C. after each source installation.
Subp. 2. Written procedures.
A licensee must perform the measurements required under subpart 1 according to written procedures established by the authorized medical physicist. The authorized medical physicist need not actually perform the spot check measurement.
Subp. 3. Review.
A licensee must have the authorized medical physicist review the results of each spot check within 15 days. The authorized medical physicist must notify the licensee as soon as possible in writing of the results of the spot check.
Subp. 4. Minimum requirements.
To satisfy subpart 1, spot checks must, at a minimum, ensure proper operation of:
A. electrical interlocks at each remote afterloader unit room entrance;
B. source exposure indicator lights on the remote afterloader unit, on the control console, and in the facility;
C. viewing and intercom systems in each high dose-rate, medium dose-rate, and pulsed dose-rate remote afterloader facility;
D. emergency response equipment;
E. radiation monitors used to indicate the source position;
F. timer accuracy;
G. date and time in the unit's computer; and
H. decayed source activity in the unit's computer.
Subp. 5. Malfunctions.
If the results of the checks required under subpart 4 indicate the malfunction of any system, a licensee must lock the control console in the off position and not use the unit except as may be necessary to repair, replace, or check the malfunctioning system.
Subp. 6. Record retention.
A licensee must retain a record of each check required under subpart 4 and a copy of the procedures required under subpart 2 according to part 4731.4520.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4474 Gamma Stereotactic Radiosurgery Units; Periodic Spot Checks
Subpart 1. Spot checks required.
A licensee authorized to use gamma stereotactic radiosurgery units for medical use must perform spot checks of each gamma stereotactic radiosurgery facility and on each unit:
A. monthly;
B. before the first use of the unit on a given day; and
C. after each source installation.
Subp. 2. Written procedures; review.
A licensee must:
A. perform the spot checks required under subpart 1 according to written procedures established by the authorized medical physicist. The authorized medical physicist need not actually perform the spot check measurements; and
B. have the authorized medical physicist review the results of each spot check within 15 days. The authorized medical physicist must notify the licensee as soon as possible in writing of the results of each spot check.
Subp. 3. Monthly requirements.
To satisfy subpart 1, item A, monthly spot checks must, at a minimum:
A. ensure proper operation of:
B. determine:
Subp. 4. Other requirements.
To satisfy subpart 1, items B and C, spot checks must ensure proper operation of:
A. electrical interlocks at each gamma stereotactic radiosurgery room entrance;
B. source exposure indicator lights on the gamma stereotactic radiosurgery unit, on the control console, and in the facility;
C. viewing and intercom systems;
D. timer termination;
E. radiation monitors used to indicate room exposures; and
F. emergency off buttons.
Subp. 5. Repair.
A licensee must arrange for repair of any system identified under subpart 3 that is not operating properly as soon as possible.
Subp. 6. Malfunctions.
If the results of the checks required under subpart 4 indicate the malfunction of any system, a licensee must lock the control console in the off position and not use the unit except as may be necessary to repair, replace, or check the malfunctioning system.
Subp. 7. Record retention.
A licensee must retain a record of each check required under subparts 3 and 4 and a copy of the procedures required under subpart 2 according to part 4731.4521.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4475 Mobile Remote Afterloader Units; Additional Requirements
Subpart 1. General requirements.
A licensee providing mobile remote afterloader service must:
A. check survey instruments before medical use at each address of use or on each day of use, whichever is more frequent; and
B. account for all sources before departure from a client's address of use.
Subp. 2. Check requirements.
In addition to the periodic spot checks required under part 4731.4473, a licensee authorized to use mobile afterloaders for medical use must perform checks on each remote afterloader unit before use at each address of use. At a minimum, checks must be made to verify the operation of:
A. electrical interlocks on treatment area access points;
B. source exposure indicator lights on the remote afterloader unit, on the control console, and in the facility;
C. viewing and intercom systems;
D. applicators, source transfer tubes, and transfer tube-applicator interfaces;
E. radiation monitors used to indicate room exposures;
F. source positioning (accuracy); and
G. radiation monitors used to indicate whether the source has returned to a safe shielded position.
Subp. 3. Simulated treatment cycle.
In addition to the requirements for checks under subpart 2, a licensee must ensure proper overall operation of the remote afterloader unit by conducting a simulated cycle of treatment before use at each address of use.
Subp. 4. Malfunctions.
If the results of the checks required under subpart 2 indicate the malfunction of any system, a licensee must lock the control console in the off position and not use the unit except as may be necessary to repair, replace, or check the malfunctioning system.
Subp. 5. Record retention.
A licensee must retain a record of each check required under subpart 2 according to part 4731.4522.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4476 Radiation Surveys
Subpart 1. Surveys required.
In addition to the survey requirement under part 4731.2200, a licensee must make surveys to ensure that the maximum radiation levels and average radiation levels from the surface of the main source safe with the source in the shielded position do not exceed the levels stated in the sealed source and device registry.
Subp. 2. When required.
A licensee must make the survey required under subpart 1 upon installation of a new source and following repairs to the source shielding, the source driving unit, or other electronic or mechanical component that could:
A. expose the source;
B. reduce the shielding around the source; or
C. compromise the radiation safety of the unit or the source.
Subp. 3. Record retention.
A licensee must retain a record of the radiation surveys required under subpart 1 according to part 4731.4523.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4477 Teletherapy and Gamma Stereotactic Radiosurgery Units; Full-Inspection Servicing
Subpart 1. Inspection and servicing required.
A licensee must have each teletherapy unit and gamma stereotactic radiosurgery unit fully inspected and serviced during source replacement to ensure proper functioning of the source exposure mechanism and other safety components. The interval between each full-inspection servicing must not exceed five years for each teletherapy unit, and must not exceed seven years for each gamma stereotactic radiosurgery unit.
Subp. 2. Qualified inspectors.
The inspection and servicing must be performed by persons specifically licensed to do so by the commissioner, the NRC, or an agreement state.
Subp. 3. Record retention.
A licensee must keep a record of the inspection and servicing according to part 4731.4524.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 46 SR 791
Minn. R. 4731.4478 Teletherapy and Gamma Stereotactic Computer Systems
A licensee must perform acceptance testing on the treatment planning system of teletherapy and gamma stereotactic computer systems according to published protocols accepted by nationally recognized bodies. At a minimum, the acceptance testing must include, as applicable, verification of:
A. the source-specific input parameters required by the dose calculation algorithm;
B. the accuracy of dose, dwell time, and treatment time calculations at representative points;
C. the accuracy of isodose plots and graphic displays;
D. the accuracy of the software used to determine sealed source positions from radiographic images; and
E. the accuracy of electronic transfer of the treatment delivery parameters to the treatment delivery unit from the treatment planning system.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4479 Remote Afterloader Units, Teletherapy Units, and Gamma Stereotactic Radiosurgery Units; Training
Subpart 1. Training and education requirements.
Except as provided under part 4731.4414, a licensee must require an authorized user of a sealed source for a use authorized under part 4731.4463 to be a physician who:
A. is certified by a medical specialty board whose certification process has been recognized by the NRC or an agreement state, and meets the requirements in item B, subitem (4). The names of board certifications that have been recognized by the NRC or an agreement state are posted on the NRC's Medical Use Licensee Toolkit web page; or
B. has:
Subp. 2. Certification requirements.
A specialty board under subpart 1, item A, shall require all candidates for certification to:
A. successfully complete a minimum of three years of residency training in a radiation therapy program approved by the Residency Review Committee of the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education, the Royal College of Physicians and Surgeons of Canada, or the Council on Postdoctoral Training of the American Osteopathic Association; and
B. pass an examination, administered by diplomates of the specialty board, that tests knowledge and competence in radiation safety, radionuclide handling, treatment planning, quality assurance, and clinical use of stereotactic radiosurgery, remote afterloaders, and external beam therapy.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 32 SR 831; 36 SR 74; 46 SR 791
Minn. R. 4731.4500 Radiation Protection Program Records
Subpart 1. Records of authority and responsibilities; radiation protection programs.
A licensee must retain:
A. a record of actions taken by the licensee's management according to part 4731.4405, subpart 1, item A, for five years. The record must include a summary of the actions taken and a signature of licensee management;
B. a copy of the authorities, duties, and responsibilities of the radiation safety officer, as required under part 4731.4405, subpart 1, item E, and a signed copy of the radiation safety officer's agreement to be responsible for implementing the radiation safety program, as required under part 4731.4405, subpart 1, item B, for the duration of the license. The records must include the signature of the radiation safety officer and licensee management; and
C. for each associate radiation safety officer appointed under part 4731.4405, subpart 1, item B, the licensee shall retain, for five years after the associate radiation safety officer is removed from the license, a copy of the written document appointing the associate radiation safety officer signed by the licensee's management.
Subp. 2. Protection program changes.
A licensee must retain a record of each radiation protection program change made under part 4731.4405, subpart 2, for five years. The record must include a copy of the old and new procedures, the effective date of the change, and the signature of the licensee's management that reviewed and approved the change.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 46 SR 791
Minn. R. 4731.4501 Written Directive Records
Subpart 1. Written directive.
A licensee must retain a copy of each written directive required under part 4731.4408 for three years.
Subp. 2. Administration procedures.
A licensee must retain a copy of the procedures required under part 4731.4409, item A, for the duration of the license.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4502 Instrument Calibration Records
Subpart 1. Activity measurement instruments.
A licensee must maintain a record of instrument calibrations required under part 4731.4420 for three years. The record must include:
A. the model and serial numbers of the instrument;
B. the date of the calibration;
C. the results of the calibration; and
D. the name of the individual who performed the calibration.
Subp. 2. Survey instruments.
A licensee must maintain a record of radiation survey instrument calibrations required under part 4731.4421 for three years. The record must include:
A. the model and serial number of the instrument;
B. the date of the calibration;
C. the results of the calibration; and
D. the name of the individual who performed the calibration.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4503 Dosage Records
A licensee must maintain a record of dosage determinations required under part 4731.4422 for three years. The record must contain:
A. the identity of the radiopharmaceutical;
B. the patient's or human research subject's name or identification number, if one has been assigned;
C. the prescribed dosage, the determined dosage, or a notation that the total activity is less than 30 microcuries (1.1 MBq);
D. the date and time of the dosage determination; and
E. the name of the individual who determined the dosage.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4504 Leak Test and Inventory Records
Subpart 1. Leak tests.
A licensee must retain records of leak tests required under part 4731.4424, item B, for three years. The records must contain:
A. the model number and serial number, if one has been assigned, of each source tested;
B. the identity of each source radionuclide and its estimated activity;
C. the results of the test;
D. the date of the test; and
E. the name of the individual who performed the test.
Subp. 2. Inventories.
A licensee must retain records of the semiannual physical inventory of sealed sources and brachytherapy sources required under part 4731.4424, item G, for three years. The inventory records must contain:
A. the model number and serial number, if one has been assigned, of each source;
B. the identity of each source radionuclide and its nominal activity;
C. the location of each source; and
D. the name of the individual who performed the inventory.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4505 Survey Records; Ambient Radiation Exposure
A licensee must retain a record of each survey required under part 4731.4426 for three years. The record must include:
A. the date of the survey;
B. the results of the survey;
C. the instrument used to make the survey; and
D. the name of the individual who performed the survey.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4506 Release Records; Individuals Containing Radioactive Material or Implants
Subpart 1. Release basis.
A licensee must retain a record of the basis for authorizing the release of an individual according to part 4731.4427, if the total effective dose equivalent is calculated by:
A. using the retained activity rather than the activity administered;
B. using an occupancy factor less than 0.25 at one meter;
C. using the biological or effective half-life; or
D. considering the shielding by tissue.
Subp. 2. Instructions to mothers.
A licensee must retain a record that the instructions required under part 4731.4427, item B, were provided to a breast-feeding woman if the radiation dose to the infant or child from continued breast-feeding could result in a total effective dose equivalent exceeding 0.5 rem (5 mSv).
Subp. 3. Retention period.
The records required under this part must be retained for three years after the date of release of the individual.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4507 Mobile Medical Service Records
A. A licensee must retain a copy of each letter that permits the use of radioactive material at a client's address of use, according to part 4731.4428, item A, subitem (1). Each letter must clearly delineate the authority and responsibility of the licensee and the client and must be retained for three years after the last provision of service.
B. A licensee must retain the record of each survey required under part 4731.4428, item A, subitem (4), for three years. The record must include:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4508 [Repealed, 33 SR 1440]
[Repealed, 33 SR 1440]
Minn. R. 4731.4509 Molybdenum-99, Strontium-82, and Strontium-85 Concentration Records
A licensee must maintain a record of the molybdenum-99 concentration or strontium-82 and strontium-85 concentration tests required under part 4731.4435, item B, for three years. The record must include:
A. for each measured elution of technetium-99m:
B. for each measured elution of rubidium-82:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 33 SR 1440
Minn. R. 4731.4510 Safety Instruction Records
A licensee must maintain a record of safety instructions required under parts 4731.4441 and 4731.4453 and the operational and safety instructions required by part 4731.4466 for three years. The record must include:
A. a list of the topics covered;
B. the date of the instruction;
C. the names of the attendees; and
D. the names of the individuals who provided the instruction.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 46 SR 791
Minn. R. 4731.4511 Survey Records; Source Implant and Removal
A licensee must maintain a record of the surveys required under parts 4731.4451 and 4731.4464 for three years. The record must include:
A. the date and results of the survey;
B. the survey instrument used; and
C. the name of the individual who made the survey.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4512 Brachytherapy Source Accountability Records
A licensee must maintain a record of brachytherapy source accountability required under part 4731.4452 for three years as follows:
A. for temporary implants, the record must include:
B. for sources being returned to storage, the record must include:
C. for permanent implants, the record must include:
D. for sources that were not implanted, the record must include:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4513 Brachytherapy Source Calibration Records
A licensee must maintain a record of the calibrations of brachytherapy sources required under part 4731.4455 for three years after the last use of the source. The records must include:
A. the date of the calibration;
B. the manufacturer's name, the model number and serial number for the source, and instruments used to calibrate the source;
C. the source output or activity;
D. the source positioning accuracy within the applicators; and
E. the signature of the authorized medical physicist.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4514 Strontium-90 Decay Records
A licensee must maintain a record of the activity of a strontium-90 source required under part 4731.4456 for the life of the source. The record must include:
A. the date and initial activity of the source as determined under part 4731.4455; and
B. for each decay calculation, the date and the source activity as determined under part 4731.4456.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4515 Installation, Maintenance, Adjustment, and Repair Records
A licensee must retain a record of the installation, maintenance, adjustment, and repair of remote afterloader units, teletherapy units, and gamma stereotactic radiosurgery units as required under part 4731.4465 for three years. For each installation, maintenance, adjustment, and repair, the record must include:
A. the date;
B. a description of the service; and
C. the name of the individual who performed the work.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4516 Safety Procedures Records
A licensee must retain a copy of the procedures required under part 4731.4466, items B, subitem (4), and E, subitem (2), until the licensee no longer possesses the remote afterloader unit, teletherapy unit, or gamma stereotactic radiosurgery unit.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4517 Dosimetry Equipment Records
A licensee must retain a record of the calibrations, intercomparisons, and comparisons of dosimetry equipment required under part 4731.4468 for the duration of the license. For each calibration, intercomparison, or comparison, the record must include:
A. the date;
B. the manufacturer's name, model number, and serial number for the instrument that was calibrated, intercompared, or compared;
C. the correction factor that was determined from the calibration or comparison or the apparent correction factor that was determined from an intercomparison; and
D. the name of the individual who performed the calibration, intercomparison, or comparison.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4518 Calibration Records; Teletherapy, Remote Afterloader, and Gamma Stereotactic Radiosurgery Units
A licensee must maintain a record of the teletherapy unit, remote afterloader unit, and gamma stereotactic radiosurgery unit full calibrations required under parts 4731.4469 to 4731.4471 for three years. The record must include:
A. the date of the calibration;
B. the unit manufacturer's name;
C. the model number and serial number of the teletherapy, remote afterloader, and gamma stereotactic radiosurgery unit;
D. the model number, serial number, and identity of the source;
E. the model number, serial number, and identity of the source instruments used to calibrate the units;
F. the results and an assessment of the full calibrations;
G. the results of the autoradiograph required for low dose-rate remote afterloader units; and
H. the signature of the authorized medical physicist who performed the full calibration.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4519 Spot Check Records; Teletherapy Units
A. A licensee must retain a record of each periodic spot check for teletherapy units required under part 4731.4472 for three years. The record must include:
B. A licensee must retain a copy of the procedures required under part 4731.4472, subpart 2, until the licensee no longer possesses the teletherapy unit.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4520 Spot Check Records; Remote Afterloader Units
A. A licensee must retain a record of each spot check for remote afterloader units required under part 4731.4473 for three years. The record must include, as applicable:
B. A licensee must retain a copy of the procedures required under part 4731.4473, subpart 2, until the licensee no longer possesses the remote afterloader unit.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4521 Spot Check Records; Gamma Stereotactic Radiosurgery Units
A. A licensee must retain a record of each spot check for gamma stereotactic radiosurgery units required under part 4731.4474 for three years. The record must include:
B. A licensee must retain a copy of the procedures required under part 4731.4474, subpart 2, until the licensee no longer possesses the gamma stereotactic radiosurgery unit.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4522 Operability Records; Mobile Remote Afterloader Units
A licensee must retain a record of each check for mobile remote afterloader units required under part 4731.4475 for three years. The record must include:
A. the date of the check;
B. the manufacturer's name, model number, and serial number for the remote afterloader unit;
C. notations accounting for all sources before the licensee departs from a facility;
D. notations indicating the operability of each entrance door electrical interlock, radiation monitor, source exposure indicator light, viewing and intercom system, applicator, source transfer tube, and transfer tube applicator interface and the source positioning accuracy; and
E. the signature of the individual who performed the check.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4523 Survey Records; Therapeutic Treatment Units
A licensee must maintain a record of radiation surveys of treatment units made according to part 4731.4476 for the duration of use of the unit. The record must include:
A. the date of the measurements;
B. the manufacturer's name, model number, and serial number for the treatment unit, source, and instrument used to measure radiation levels;
C. each dose rate measured around the source while the unit is in the off position and the average of all measurements; and
D. the signature of the individual who performed the test.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4524 Full-Inspection Servicing Records; Teletherapy and Gamma Stereotactic Radiosurgery Units
A licensee must maintain a record of the full-inspection servicing for teletherapy and gamma stereotactic radiosurgery units required under part 4731.4477 for the duration of use of the unit. The record must contain:
A. the inspector's radioactive material license number;
B. the date of inspection;
C. the manufacturer's name, model number, and serial number for both the treatment unit and source;
D. a list of components inspected and serviced and the type of service; and
E. the signature of the inspector.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 46 SR 791
Minn. R. 4731.4525 Medical Event; Report and Notification
Subpart 1. Report required.
A licensee must report any event as a medical event, except for an event that results from patient intervention, in which:
A. the administration of radioactive material or radiation from radioactive material, except permanent implant brachytherapy, results in:
B. for permanent implant brachytherapy, the administration of radioactive material or radiation from radioactive material excluding sources that were implanted in the correct site but migrated outside the treatment site that results in:
Subp. 2. Events from patient intervention.
A licensee must report any event resulting from intervention of a patient or human research subject in which the administration of radioactive material or radiation from radioactive material results or will result in unintended permanent functional damage to an organ or a physiological system, as determined by a physician.
Subp. 3. 24-hour notification required.
A licensee must notify the commissioner within 24 hours after discovery of a medical event.
Subp. 4. Written report.
A licensee must submit a written report to the commissioner within 15 days after discovery of a medical event. The report must not contain an individual's name or any other information that could lead to identification of an individual. The report must include:
A. the licensee's name;
B. the name of the prescribing physician;
C. a brief description of the event;
D. why the event occurred;
E. the effect, if any, on the individual who received the administration;
F. what actions, if any, have been taken or are planned to prevent recurrence; and
G. certification that the licensee notified the individual or the individual's responsible relative or guardian and, if not, why.
Subp. 5. Notification of individual.
A. A licensee must provide notification of a medical event to the referring physician and also notify the individual who is the subject of the medical event no later than 24 hours after its discovery, unless the referring physician personally informs the licensee either that the physician will inform the individual or that, based on medical judgment, telling the individual would be harmful.
B. A licensee is not required to notify the individual without first consulting the referring physician. If the referring physician or the affected individual cannot be reached within 24 hours, the licensee must notify the individual as soon as possible thereafter.
C. A licensee may not delay any appropriate medical care for the individual, including any necessary remedial care as a result of the medical event, because of any delay in notification.
D. To meet the notification requirements in this subpart, notification of the individual who is the subject of the medical event may be made instead to that individual's responsible relative or guardian.
E. If a verbal notification is made, the licensee must inform the individual, or appropriate responsible relative or guardian, that a written description of the event can be obtained from the licensee upon request. The licensee must provide a written description if requested.
Subp. 6. Construction.
Aside from the notification requirement, nothing in this part affects any rights or duties of licensees and physicians in relation to each other, to individuals affected by a medical event, or to that individual's responsible relatives or guardians.
Subp. 7. Individual identification.
A licensee must:
A. annotate a copy of the report provided to the commissioner with:
B. provide a copy of the annotated report to the referring physician, if other than the licensee, no later than 15 days after the discovery of the medical event.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 36 SR 74; 46 SR 791
Minn. R. 4731.4526 Dose to an Embryo/Fetus or Child; Report and Notification
Subpart 1. Report required; embryo/fetus.
A licensee must report any dose to an embryo/fetus that is greater than five rems (50 mSv) dose equivalent that is a result of an administration of radioactive material or radiation from radioactive material to a pregnant woman unless the dose to the embryo/fetus was specifically approved, in advance, by the authorized user.
Subp. 2. Report required; nursing child.
A licensee must report a dose to a nursing child that is a result of an administration of radioactive material to a breast-feeding woman that:
A. is greater than five rems (50 mSv) total effective dose equivalent; or
B. has resulted in unintended permanent functional damage to an organ or a physiological system of the child, as determined by a physician.
Subp. 3. 24-hour notification required.
A licensee must notify the commissioner within 24 hours after discovery of a dose to an embryo/fetus or nursing child that requires a report under subpart 1 or 2.
Subp. 4. Written report.
A licensee must submit a written report to the commissioner within 15 days after discovery of a dose to an embryo/fetus or nursing child that requires a report under subpart 1 or 2. The report must not contain the individual's or child's name or any other information that could lead to identification of the individual or child. The report must include:
A. the licensee's name;
B. the name of the prescribing physician;
C. a brief description of the event;
D. why the event occurred;
E. the effect, if any, on the embryo/fetus or the nursing child;
F. what actions, if any, have been taken or are planned to prevent recurrence; and
G. certification that the licensee notified the pregnant woman or mother, or the mother's or child's responsible relative or guardian, and if not, why.
Subp. 5. Notification of individual.
A. A licensee must provide notification of an event requiring a report under subpart 1 or 2 to the referring physician and to the pregnant woman or mother, both hereafter referred to as the mother, no later than 24 hours after discovery of the event, unless the referring physician personally informs the licensee either that the physician will inform the mother or that, based on medical judgment, telling the mother would be harmful.
B. A licensee is not required to notify the mother without first consulting with the referring physician. If the referring physician or mother cannot be reached within 24 hours, the licensee must make the appropriate notifications as soon as possible thereafter.
C. A licensee may not delay any appropriate medical care for the embryo/fetus or for the nursing child, including any necessary remedial care as a result of the event, because of any delay in notification.
D. To meet the requirements of this subpart, notification may be made to the mother's or child's responsible relative or guardian instead of the mother.
E. If a verbal notification is made, the licensee must inform the mother, or the mother's or child's responsible relative or guardian, that a written description of the event can be obtained from the licensee upon request. The licensee must provide a written description if requested.
Subp. 6. Individual identification.
A licensee must:
A. annotate a copy of the report provided to the commissioner with:
B. provide a copy of the annotated report to the referring physician, if other than the licensee, no later than 15 days after the discovery of the event.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 36 SR 74; 46 SR 791
Minn. R. 4731.4527 Report of Leaking Source
A licensee must file a report within five days if a leak test required under part 4731.4424 reveals the presence of 0.005 microcurie (185 Bq) or more of removable contamination. The report must be filed with the commissioner. The written report must include:
A. the model number and serial number, if assigned, of the leaking source;
B. the identity of the radionuclide and its estimated activity;
C. the results of the test;
D. the date of the test; and
E. the action taken.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.4528 Report and Notification for an Eluate Exceeding Permissible Molybdenum-99, Strontium-82, and Strontium-85 Concentrations
Subpart 1. Telephone notification.
The licensee must notify, by telephone, the commissioner and the distributor of the generator, within seven days after discovery, that an eluate exceeded the permissible concentration listed in part 4731.4435, item A, at the time of generator elution. The telephone report to the commissioner must include the manufacturer, model number, and serial number (or lot number) of the generator; the results of the measurement; the date of the measurement; whether dosages were administered to patients or human research subjects, when the distributor was notified, and the action taken.
Subp. 2. Written report.
The licensee must submit a written report to the commissioner within 30 days after discovery of an eluate exceeding the permissible concentration at the time of generator elution. The written report must include the action taken by the licensee; the patient dose assessment; the methodology used to make this dose assessment if the eluate was administered to patients or human research subjects; the probable cause and an assessment of failure in the licensee's equipment, procedures, or training that contributed to the excessive readings if an error occurred in the licensee's breakthrough determination; and the information in the telephone report as required by subpart 1.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 46 SR 791
Minn. R. 4731.4600 Definitions
Subpart 1. Scope.
The following definitions apply to parts 4731.4605 to 4731.4620.
Subp. 2. Accredited.
"Accredited" means an individual who has satisfactorily completed a nationally recognized examination in nuclear medicine and who maintains the registration or certification of the examining organization. Nationally recognized examinations are provided by the following organizations:
A. the American Registry of Radiologic Technologists (N) (ARRT);
B. the Nuclear Medicine Technology Certification Board (NMTCB); or
C. the American Society of Clinical Pathologists (NM) (ASCP).
Subp. 3. Nuclear medicine technologist.
"Nuclear medicine technologist" means a person other than a licensed practitioner of the healing arts who administers radiopharmaceuticals and related drugs to human beings for diagnostic purposes, performs in vivo and in vitro detection and measurement of radioactivity, and administers radiopharmaceuticals to human beings for therapeutic purposes. A nuclear medicine technologist may perform such procedures only while under the general supervision of a licensed practitioner of the healing arts who is licensed to possess and use radioactive materials.
Subp. 4. Direct supervision.
"Direct supervision" means an accredited nuclear medicine technologist or an authorized user currently listed on an agreement state or United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission radioactive materials license is physically present in the facility and available to respond.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 36 SR 74
Minn. R. 4731.4605 Minimum Standards for Nuclear Medicine Technologists
Subpart 1. General requirements.
Except as specified in part 4731.4610, any individual working as a nuclear medicine technologist in Minnesota must meet the following minimum eligibility requirements:
A. graduation from high school or its equivalent;
B. attainment of 18 years of age; and
C. ability to adequately perform necessary duties without posing a hazard to the health or safety of patients, other employees, or members of the public.
Subp. 2. Accreditation required.
Except as specified in part 4731.4610, any individual working as a nuclear medicine technologist in Minnesota on or after January 1, 2011, must be accredited.
Subp. 3. Record retention.
The licensee must retain documentation of accreditation for five years and make it available for inspection upon request by the department.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 36 SR 74
Minn. R. 4731.4610 Exceptions
The individuals in items A to D are exempt from the examination requirement in part 4731.4600, subpart 2:
A. a licensed practitioner of the healing arts who is listed as an authorized user on an agreement state or United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission radioactive materials license;
B. individuals working as nuclear medicine technologists under the direct supervision of: (1) an individual who is accredited in nuclear medicine; or (2) a physician who appears as an authorized user on an agreement state or United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission radioactive materials license;
C. students enrolled in and participating in an accredited program for nuclear medicine technology or a school of medicine, osteopathic medicine, podiatry, or chiropractic who, as a part of the students' course of study, administers radioactive material during supervised clinical experience; or
D. an individual working as a nuclear medicine technologist before January 1, 2011, who is not accredited, provided the individual has completed the training in part 4731.4612.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 36 SR 74; L 2016 c 119 s 7
Minn. R. 4731.4612 Training for Individuals Functioning as a Nuclear Medicine Technologist Before January 1, 2011, Who Are Not Accredited
Subpart 1. Training program.
Individuals working as a nuclear medicine technologist before January 1 , 2011, who are not accredited must complete a training program designed to demonstrate competency in the following areas:
A. patient and personnel protection including:
B. radiopharmaceutical characteristics including:
C. proper handling of radioactive materials including:
D. factors affecting image quality including:
E. facility monitoring including:
F. administration of radiopharmaceuticals during supervised clinical experience.
Subp. 2. Clinical experience.
Clinical experience must be supervised by an individual who is accredited in nuclear medicine or by a physician who appears as an authorized user on an agreement state or United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission radioactive materials license.
Subp. 3. Restrictions during training.
Individuals in a training program indicated in subpart 1 cannot work as a nuclear medicine technologist before obtaining documentation of competency as required in part 4731.4615 unless the individual works under the direct supervision of:
A. an individual who is accredited in nuclear medicine; or
B. a physician who appears as an authorized user on an agreement state or United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission radioactive materials license.
Subp. 4. Continuing education.
Individuals working as nuclear medicine technologists before January 1, 2011, who are not accredited must:
A. obtain 24 hours of continuing education every 24 months;
B. have the continuing education training approved by any of the organizations listed in part 4731.4600, subpart 2; and
C. retain documentation of continuing education for five years and make it available for inspection upon request by the department.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 36 SR 74; 40 SR 145
Minn. R. 4731.4615 Documentation of Competency
Subpart 1. Nuclear medicine technologist; January 1, 2011.
An individual functioning as a nuclear medicine technologist prior to January 1, 2011, and who is not accredited must obtain documentation that the individual is competent to apply ionizing radiation to human beings.
Subp. 2. Who can document competency.
The documentation of competency must be provided by a licensed practitioner of the healing arts under whose general supervision the individual is employed or has been employed.
Subp. 3. Procedures and equipment.
The documentation of competency must specify the nature of procedures and the equipment the individual is competent to utilize and must be limited to work performed before January 1, 2011.
Subp. 4. Record retention.
The documentation of competency must be retained by the individual for inspection upon request by the department.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 36 SR 74
Minn. R. 4731.4620 Requirements for Operators of Fusion Imaging Devices
Subpart 1. Accreditation required.
When a unit is operated as a fusion imaging device or in a dual mode such as a SPECT/CT or PET/CT device, the operator must be accredited or must meet the requirements in chapter 4732.
Subp. 2. Diagnostic CT imaging device.
When the unit is operated as a stand-alone diagnostic CT imaging device, the operator must meet the requirements in chapter 4732.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 36 SR 74
Minn. R. 4731.6000 Purpose and Scope
Subpart 1. Applicability.
Parts 4731.6000 to 4731.6270 apply to the issuance of a license authorizing the use of and the radiation safety requirements for sealed sources containing radioactive materials used to irradiate objects or materials using gamma radiation in the following types of irradiators:
A. panoramic irradiators that have either dry or wet storage of the radioactive sealed sources;
B. underwater irradiators in which both the source and the product being irradiated are underwater; and
C. irradiators for which dose rates exceed five grays (500 rads) per hour at one meter from the radioactive sealed sources in air or in water, as applicable for the irradiator type.
Subp. 2. Exemptions.
Parts 4731.6000 to 4731.6270 do not apply to:
A. self-contained dry-source-storage irradiators (those in which both the source and the area subject to irradiation are contained within a device and are not accessible by personnel);
B. medical radiology;
C. teletherapy;
D. radiography (the irradiation of materials for nondestructive testing purposes);
E. gauging; or
F. open-field (agricultural) irradiations.
Subp. 3. Other law.
Parts 4731.6000 to 4731.6270 are in addition to other requirements of this chapter. Nothing in parts 4731.6000 to 4731.6270 relieves a licensee from complying with other applicable federal, state, and local regulations governing the siting, zoning, land use, and building code requirements for industrial facilities.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.6010 Specific License; Application
A person must file an application for a specific license authorizing the use of sealed sources in an irradiator on the application for material license form prescribed by the commissioner. An application for a license, other than a license exempted from Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, part 170, must be accompanied by a fee according to Minnesota Statutes, section 144.1205. The application and one copy must be sent to the commissioner.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.6020 Specific License; Approval
The commissioner shall approve an application for a specific license for the use of licensed material in an irradiator if the applicant meets the general requirements under parts 4731.3070, subpart 1, items A to D, and 4731.3070, subpart 2, and if the application includes:
A. a description of the training provided to irradiator operators including:
B. an outline of written operating and emergency procedures listed in part 4731.6170 that describes the radiation safety aspects of the procedures;
C. a description of the organizational structure for managing the irradiator, including:
D. a description of the training and experience required for the position of radiation safety officer;
E. a description of:
F. a diagram of the facility that shows the locations of all required interlocks and radiation monitors;
G. if the applicant intends to perform leak testing of dry-source-storage sealed sources, a description of the applicant's established procedures for leak testing. The description must include the:
H. if the applicant's personnel are to load or unload sources, a description of the qualifications and training of the personnel and the procedures to be used. If the applicant intends to contract for source loading and unloading at the applicant's facility, the loading or unloading must be done by an organization specifically authorized by the commissioner, the NRC, or an agreement state to load or unload irradiator sources; and
I. a description of the inspection and maintenance checks, including the frequency of the checks, required under part 4731.6210.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 29 SR 755; 40 SR 145
Minn. R. 4731.6030 Start of Construction
An applicant may not begin construction of a new irradiator before submitting to the commissioner an application for a license for the irradiator and the fee required under Minnesota Statutes, section 144.1205. Activities undertaken before the issuance of a license are entirely at the risk of the applicant and have no bearing on the issuance of a license with respect to the requirements of this chapter. For purposes of this part, construction includes the construction of any portion of the permanent irradiator structure on the site, but does not include:
A. engineering and design work;
B. purchase of a site;
C. site surveys or soil testing;
D. site preparation, site excavation, or construction of warehouse or auxiliary structures; or
E. other preconstruction tasks.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.6040 Applications for Exemptions
An application for a license or for amendment of a license authorizing use of a teletherapy-type unit for industrial irradiation of materials or objects may include proposed alternatives to the requirements under parts 4731.6000 to 4731.6270. The commissioner shall approve the proposed alternatives if the applicant provides adequate rationale for the proposed alternatives and demonstrates that the alternatives are likely to provide an adequate level of safety for workers and the public.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.6050 Performance Criteria; Sealed Sources
Subpart 1. Applicability.
Sealed sources installed after July 1, 1993, must meet the performance criteria of subparts 2 to 4.
Subp. 2. General requirements.
Sealed sources must:
A. have a certificate of registration issued by the NRC under Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, section 32.210, or by an agreement state;
B. be doubly encapsulated; and
C. use radioactive material that is as nondispersible as practical and that is as insoluble as practical if the source is used in a wet-source-storage or wet-source-change irradiator.
Subp. 3. Irradiator pools.
If sealed sources are to be used in irradiator pools, the sealed sources must be encapsulated in a material resistant to general corrosion and to localized corrosion, such as 316L stainless steel or other material with equivalent resistance.
Subp. 4. Required leak testing.
In prototype testing of a sealed source, the sealed source must have been leak tested and found leak-free after each of the following tests:
A. temperature test. The test source must be held at -40 degrees Celsius for 20 minutes, 600 degrees Celsius for one hour, and then subjected to a thermal shock test with a temperature drop from 600 degrees Celsius to 20 degrees Celsius within 15 seconds;
B. pressure test. The test source must be twice subjected for at least five minutes to an external pressure (absolute) of 2,000,000 newtons per square meter;
C. impact test. A two-kilogram steel weight, 2.5 centimeters in diameter, must be dropped from a height of one meter onto the test source;
D. vibration test. The test source must be subjected three times for ten minutes each to vibrations sweeping from 25 hertz to 500 hertz with a peak amplitude of five times the acceleration of gravity. The test source must be vibrated for 30 minutes at each resonant frequency found;
E. puncture test. A 50-gram weight and pin, 0.3-centimeter pin diameter, must be dropped from a height of one meter onto the test source; and
F. bend test. If the length of the source is more than 15 times larger than the minimum cross-sectional dimension, the test source must be subjected to a force of 2,000 newtons at its center equidistant from two support cylinders, the distance between which is ten times the minimum cross-sectional dimension of the source.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.6060 Access Control
Subpart 1. Panoramic irradiators.
A. Each entrance to a radiation room at a panoramic irradiator must have a door or other physical barrier to prevent entry of personnel if the sources are not in the shielded position. Product conveyor systems may serve as barriers, as long as they reliably and consistently function as a barrier. It must not be possible to move the sources out of their shielded position if the door or barrier is open. Opening the door or barrier while the sources are exposed must cause the sources to return promptly to their shielded position. The personnel entrance door or barrier must have a lock that is operated by the same key used to move the sources. The doors and barriers must not prevent an individual in the radiation room from leaving.
B. Each entrance to a radiation room at a panoramic irradiator must have an independent backup access control to detect personnel entry while the sources are exposed. Detection of entry while the sources are exposed must cause the sources to return to their fully shielded position and must also activate a visible and audible alarm to make the individual entering the room aware of the hazard. The alarm must also alert at least one other individual who is on site of the entry. That individual must be trained on how to respond to the alarm and prepared to promptly render or summon assistance.
C. A radiation monitor must be provided to detect the presence of high radiation levels in the radiation room of a panoramic irradiator before personnel entry. The monitor must be integrated with personnel access door locks to prevent room access when radiation levels are high. Attempted personnel entry while the monitor measures high radiation levels must activate the alarm described in item B. The monitor may be located in the entrance, normally referred to as the maze, but not in the direct radiation beam.
D. Before the sources move from their shielded position in a panoramic irradiator, the source control must automatically activate conspicuous visible and audible alarms to alert people in the radiation room that the sources will be moved from their shielded position. The alarms must give individuals enough time to leave the room before the sources leave the shielded position.
E. Each radiation room at a panoramic irradiator must have a clearly visible and readily accessible control that allows an individual in the room to make the sources return to their fully shielded position.
F. Each radiation room of a panoramic irradiator must contain a control that prevents the sources from moving from the shielded position unless the control has been activated and the door or barrier to the radiation room has been closed within a preset time after activation of the control.
G. Each entrance to the radiation room of a panoramic irradiator must be posted according to part 4731.2310. Radiation postings for panoramic irradiators must comply with part 4731.2310, except that signs may be removed, covered, or otherwise made inoperative when the sources are fully shielded.
H. After entering the panoramic irradiator, if the radiation room of a panoramic irradiator has roof plugs or other movable shielding, it must not be possible to operate the irradiator unless the shielding is in its proper location. This requirement may be met:
Subp. 2. Underwater irradiators.
A. Each entrance to the area within the personnel access barrier of an underwater irradiator must be posted according to part 4731.2310.
B. There must be a personnel access barrier around the pool, which must be locked to prevent access when the irradiator is not attended.
C. Only operators and facility management may have access to keys to the personnel access barrier.
D. There must be an intrusion alarm to detect unauthorized entry when the personnel access barrier is locked. Activation of the intrusion alarm must alert an individual, not necessarily on site, who is prepared to respond or summon assistance.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.6070 Shielding
Subpart 1. Panoramic irradiators.
For panoramic irradiators, the radiation dose rate in areas that are normally occupied during operation may not exceed two millirems (0.02 mSv) per hour at any location 30 centimeters or more from the wall of the room when the sources are exposed. The dose rate must be averaged over an area not to exceed 100 square centimeters having no linear dimension greater than 20 centimeters. Areas where the radiation dose rate exceeds two millirems (0.02 mSv) per hour must be locked, roped off, or posted.
Subp. 2. Dry-source-storage panoramic irradiators.
For dry-source-storage panoramic irradiators, the radiation dose rate at one meter from the shield when the source is shielded may not exceed two millirems (0.02 mSv) per hour and at five centimeters from the shield may not exceed 20 millirems (0.2 mSv) per hour.
Subp. 3. Pool irradiators.
For pool irradiators, the radiation dose at 30 centimeters over the edge of the pool may not exceed two millirems (0.02 mSv) per hour when the sources are in the fully shielded position.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.6080 Fire Protection
For panoramic irradiators, the radiation room must have:
A. heat and smoke detectors, which must activate an audible alarm. The alarm must be capable of alerting a person who is prepared to summon assistance promptly;
B. a system whereby the sources automatically become fully shielded if a fire is detected; and
C. a fire extinguishing system capable of extinguishing a fire without the entry of personnel into the room. The system for the radiation room must have a shut-off valve to control flooding into unrestricted areas.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.6090 Radiation Monitors
Subpart 1. Automatic product conveyor systems.
A. Irradiators with automatic product conveyor systems must have a radiation monitor with an audible alarm located to detect loose radioactive sources that are carried toward the product exit. The alarms must comply with items B to D.
B. If the monitor detects a source, an alarm must sound and product conveyors must stop automatically.
C. The alarm must be capable of alerting an individual in the facility who is prepared to summon assistance.
D. Underwater irradiators in which the product moves within an enclosed stationary tube are exempt from the requirements of this subpart.
Subp. 2. Underwater irradiators.
A. Underwater irradiators that are not in a shielded radiation room must have a radiation monitor over the pool to detect abnormal radiation levels. The monitor must comply with items B to D.
B. The monitor must have an audible alarm and a visible indicator at entrances to the personnel access barrier around the pool.
C. The audible alarm may have a manual shut-off.
D. The alarm must be capable of alerting an individual who is prepared to respond promptly.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.6100 Control of Source Movement; Panoramic Irradiators
A. Items B to E apply to panoramic irradiators.
B. The mechanism that moves the sources must:
C. The console must have a source position indicator that indicates when the sources are in the fully shielded position, when they are in transit, and when the sources are exposed.
D. The control console must have a control that promptly returns the sources to the shielded position.
E. Each control must be clearly marked as to its function.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.6110 Irradiator Pools
Irradiator pools initially licensed after July 1, 1993, must:
A. have a watertight stainless steel liner or a liner metallurgically compatible with other components in the pool or be constructed so that there is a low probability of substantial leakage and have a surface designed to facilitate decontamination;
B. have a method to safely store sources during repairs of the pool;
C. have no outlets greater than 0.5 meter below the normal low water level that could allow water to drain out of the pool. Pipes that have intakes more than 0.5 meter below the normal low water level and that could act as siphons must have siphon breakers to prevent the siphoning of pool water;
D. be provided with a means to replenish water losses from the pool;
E. be provided with a water level indicator in a clearly visible location to indicate if the pool water level is below the normal low water level or above the normal high water level;
F. be equipped with a purification system designed to be capable of maintaining the water during normal operation at a conductivity of 20 microsiemens per centimeter or less and with a clarity so that the sources can be seen clearly;
G. be provided with a physical barrier, such as a railing or cover, around or over irradiator pools during normal operation to prevent personnel from accidentally falling into the pool. The barrier may be removed during maintenance, inspection, and service operations; and
H. not expose handling areas of tools or poles to radiation dose rates greater than two millirems (0.02 mSv) per hour.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.6120 Source Rack Protection
If the product to be irradiated moves on a product conveyor system, the source rack and the mechanism that moves the rack must be protected by a barrier or guides to prevent products and product carriers from hitting or touching the rack or mechanism.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.6130 Power Failures
A. If electrical power at a panoramic irradiator is lost for longer than ten seconds, the sources must automatically return to the shielded position.
B. The lock on the door of the radiation room of a panoramic irradiator may not be deactivated by a power failure.
C. During a power failure, the area of any irradiator where sources are located may be entered only when using an operable and calibrated radiation survey meter.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.6140 Design Requirements
Subpart 1. Applicability.
This part applies to irradiators whose construction began after July 1, 1993.
Subp. 2. Panoramic irradiators.
For panoramic irradiators, a licensee must:
A. design shielding walls to meet generally accepted building code requirements for reinforced concrete and design the walls, wall penetrations, and entranceways to meet the radiation shielding requirements of part 4731.6070. If the irradiator will use more than 5,000,000 curies (2 x 1017 becquerels) of activity, the licensee must evaluate the effects of heating of the shielding walls by the irradiator sources;
B. design the foundation, with consideration given to soil characteristics, to ensure it is adequate to support the weight of the facility shield walls;
C. verify from the design and logic diagram that the access control system will meet the requirements of part 4731.6060;
D. verify that the number, location, and spacing of the smoke and heat detectors are appropriate to detect fires and that the detectors are protected from mechanical and radiation damage;
E. verify that the design of the fire extinguishing system provides the necessary discharge patterns, densities, and flow characteristics for complete coverage of the radiation room and that the system is protected from mechanical and radiation damage;
F. verify that the source rack will automatically return to the fully shielded position if off-site power is lost for more than ten seconds;
G. if the irradiator is to be built in seismic areas, design the reinforced concrete radiation shields to retain their integrity in the event of an earthquake by designing to the seismic requirements of an appropriate source, including:
H. verify that electrical wiring and electrical equipment in the radiation room are selected to minimize failures due to prolonged exposure to radiation;
I. determine that source rack drops due to loss of power will not damage the source rack and that source rack drops due to failure of cables (or alternate means of support) will not cause loss of integrity of sealed sources; and
J. review the design of the mechanism that moves the sources to ensure that the likelihood of a stuck source is low and that, if the rack sticks, a means exists to free it with minimal risk to personnel.
Subp. 3. Pool and underwater irradiators.
For pool and underwater irradiators, a licensee must:
A. design the pool to ensure that:
B. verify that the design of the water purification system is adequate to meet the requirements of part 4731.6110, item F. The system must be designed so that water leaking from the system does not drain to unrestricted areas without being monitored;
C. when using radiation monitoring systems to detect contamination under part 4731.6200, subpart 2, verify that the design of radiation monitoring systems to detect pool contamination includes sensitive detectors located close to where contamination is likely to concentrate; and
D. verify that there are no crevices on the source or between the source and source holder that would promote corrosion on a critical area of the source.
Subp. 4. All irradiators.
For all irradiators, a licensee must:
A. evaluate the location and sensitivity of the monitor to detect sources carried by the product conveyor system as required under part 4731.6090, subpart 1; and
B. verify that the product conveyor is designed to stop before a source on the product conveyor would cause a radiation overexposure to any person.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.6150 Construction Monitoring and Acceptance Testing
Subpart 1. Applicability.
This part applies to irradiators whose construction began after July 1, 1993. The requirements of this part must be met prior to loading sources.
Subp. 2. Panoramic irradiators.
For panoramic irradiators, a licensee must:
A. monitor the construction of the shielding to verify that its construction meets design specifications and generally accepted building code requirements for reinforced concrete;
B. monitor the construction of the foundations to verify that their construction meets design specifications;
C. test the movement of the source racks for proper operation prior to source loading. Testing must include source rack lowering due to simulated loss of power;
D. test the completed access control system to ensure that it functions as designed and that all alarms, controls, and interlocks work properly;
E. test the ability of the heat and smoke detectors to detect a fire, to activate alarms, and to cause the source rack to automatically become fully shielded;
F. test the operability of the fire extinguishing system;
G. demonstrate that the source racks can be returned to their fully shielded positions without off-site power;
H. if a computer system is used to control the access control system, verify that the access control system will operate properly if off-site power is lost and verify that the computer has security features that prevent an irradiator operator from commanding the computer to override the access control system when it is required to be operable; and
I. verify that the electrical wiring and electrical equipment that were installed meet the design specifications.
Subp. 3. Pool and underwater irradiators.
For pool and underwater irradiators, a licensee must verify:
A. that the pool meets design specifications and must test the integrity of the pool;
B. that outlets and pipes meet the requirements under part 4731.6110, item C;
C. that the water purification system, the conductivity meter, and the water level indicators operate properly;
D. for pool irradiators, the proper operation of the radiation monitors and the related alarm if used to comply with part 4731.6190, subpart 2; and
E. for underwater irradiators, the proper operation of the over-the-pool monitor, alarms, and interlocks required under part 4731.6090, subpart 2.
Subp. 4. All irradiators.
For all irradiators, a licensee must verify the proper operation of the monitor to detect sources carried on the product conveyor system and the related alarms and interlocks required under part 4731.6090, subpart 1.
Subp. 5. Irradiators with product conveyor systems.
For all irradiators with product conveyor systems, a licensee must observe and test the operation of the conveyor system to ensure that the requirements under part 4731.6120 are met for protection of the source rack and the mechanism that moves the rack. Testing must include tests of any limit switches and interlocks used to protect the source rack and mechanism that moves the rack from moving product carriers.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.6160 Training
Subpart 1. Required instruction.
Before an individual is permitted to operate an irradiator without a supervisor present, the individual must be instructed in:
A. the fundamentals of radiation protection applied to irradiators, including:
B. the requirements of parts 4731.1000 to 4731.1090 and 4731.6000 to 4731.6270 that are relevant to the irradiator;
C. the operation of the irradiator;
D. those operating and emergency procedures under part 4731.6170 that the individual is responsible for performing; and
E. case histories of accidents or problems involving irradiators.
Subp. 2. Required qualifications.
Before an individual is permitted to operate an irradiator without a supervisor present, the individual must:
A. pass a written test on the instruction received consisting primarily of questions based on the licensee's operating and emergency procedures that the individual is responsible for performing and other operations necessary to safely operate the irradiator without supervision;
B. have received on-the-job training or simulator training in the use of the irradiator as described in the license application; and
C. demonstrate the ability to perform those portions of the operating and emergency procedures that the individual is to perform.
Subp. 3. Safety reviews.
A licensee must conduct safety reviews for irradiator operators at least annually. The licensee must give each operator a brief written test on the information. Each safety review must include, to the extent appropriate:
A. changes in operating and emergency procedures since the last review, if any;
B. changes in rules and license conditions since the last review, if any;
C. reports on recent accidents, mistakes, or problems that have occurred at irradiators, if any;
D. relevant results of inspections of operator safety performance;
E. relevant results of the facility's inspection and maintenance checks; and
F. a drill to practice an emergency or abnormal event procedure.
Subp. 4. Safety performance.
A licensee must evaluate the safety performance of each irradiator operator at least annually to ensure that rules, license conditions, and operating and emergency procedures are followed. The licensee must discuss the results of the evaluation with the operator and must instruct the operator on how to correct any mistakes or deficiencies observed.
Subp. 5. Individuals with access.
Individuals who will be permitted unescorted access to the radiation room of an irradiator or the area around the pool of an underwater irradiator, but who have not received the training required for operators or radiation safety officers, must be instructed and tested in any precautions they should take to avoid radiation exposure, any procedures or parts of procedures under part 4731.6170 that they are expected to perform or comply with, and their proper response to alarms required under parts 4731.6000 to 4731.6270. Tests may be oral.
Subp. 6. Response training.
Individuals who must be prepared to respond to alarms required under parts 4731.6060, subparts 1, item B, and 2, item D; 4731.6080; 4731.6090; and 4731.6200, subpart 2, must be trained and tested on how to respond. Each individual must be retested at least once a year. Tests may be oral.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.6170 Operating and Emergency Procedures
Subpart 1. Operating procedures.
A licensee must have and follow written operating procedures for:
A. operation of the irradiator, including entering and leaving the radiation room;
B. use of personnel dosimeters;
C. surveying the shielding of panoramic irradiators;
D. monitoring pool water for contamination while the water is in the pool and before release of pool water to unrestricted areas;
E. leak testing of sources;
F. inspection and maintenance checks required under part 4731.6210;
G. loading, unloading, and repositioning sources, if the operations will be performed by the licensee; and
H. inspection of movable shielding required under part 4731.6060, subpart 1, item H, if applicable.
Subp. 2. Emergency procedures.
A licensee must have and follow emergency or abnormal event procedures, appropriate for the irradiator type, for:
A. sources stuck in the unshielded position;
B. personnel overexposures;
C. a radiation alarm from the product exit portal monitor or pool monitor;
D. detection of leaking sources, pool contamination, or an alarm caused by contamination of pool water;
E. a low or high water level indicator, an abnormal water loss, or leakage from the source storage pool;
F. a prolonged loss of electrical power;
G. a fire alarm or explosion in the radiation room;
H. an alarm indicating unauthorized entry into the radiation room, area around the pool, or another alarmed area;
I. natural phenomena, including an earthquake, a tornado, flooding, or other phenomena as appropriate for the geographical location of the facility; and
J. the jamming of automatic conveyor systems.
Subp. 3. Revision of procedures.
A licensee may revise operating and emergency procedures without commissioner approval only if:
A. the revisions do not reduce the safety of the facility;
B. the revisions are consistent with the outline or summary of procedures submitted with the license application;
C. the revisions have been reviewed and approved by the radiation safety officer; and
D. the users or operators have been instructed and tested on the revised procedures before the procedures are put into use.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.6180 Personnel Monitoring
Subpart 1. Irradiator operators.
Irradiator operators must wear a personnel dosimeter while operating a panoramic irradiator or while in the area around the pool of an underwater irradiator. The personnel dosimeter must be capable of detecting high energy photons in the normal and accident dose ranges. Each personnel dosimeter must be assigned to and worn by only one individual. Film badges must be replaced at least monthly and other personnel dosimeters that require replacement must be replaced at least quarterly. All personnel dosimeters must be evaluated at least quarterly or promptly after replacement, whichever is more frequent.
Subp. 2. Other personnel.
Other individuals who enter the radiation room of a panoramic irradiator must wear a dosimeter, which may be a pocket dosimeter. For groups of visitors, only two people who enter the radiation room are required to wear dosimeters. If pocket dosimeters are used to meet the requirements of this subpart, a check of their response to radiation must be done at least annually. Acceptable dosimeters must read within plus or minus 30 percent of the true radiation dose.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 46 SR 791
Minn. R. 4731.6190 Radiation Surveys
Subpart 1. Panoramic irradiators.
For panoramic irradiators, the following radiation surveys must be conducted:
A. before the facility starts to operate, in the area outside the shielding of the radiation room, with the sources in the exposed position;
B. at intervals not to exceed three years, by the shielding of the irradiator;
C. before resuming operation after addition of new sources; and
D. after any modification to the radiation room shielding or structure that might increase dose rates.
Subp. 2. Pool irradiators.
For pool irradiators, the following radiation surveys must be conducted:
A. before the facility starts to operate, in the area above the pool, after the sources are loaded;
B. at intervals not to exceed three years, by the shielding of the irradiator;
C. before resuming operation after addition of new sources;
D. after any modification to the radiation room shielding or structure that might increase dose rates; and
E. before release to unrestricted areas, water from the irradiator pool, other potentially contaminated liquids, and sediments from pool vacuuming must be monitored for radioactive contamination. Radioactive concentrations must not exceed those specified in part 4731.2750, subpart 7, Table 2 or 3.
Subp. 3. All irradiators.
A. For all irradiators, radiation surveys must:
B. Before releasing resins for unrestricted use, the resins must be monitored before release in an area with a background level less than 0.05 millirem (0.5 µSv) per hour. The resins may be released only if the survey does not detect radiation levels above background radiation levels. The survey meter used must be capable of detecting radiation levels of 0.05 millirem (0.5 µSv) per hour.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.6200 Detection of Leaking Sources
Subpart 1. Dry-source-storage sealed sources.
Each dry-source-storage sealed source must be tested for leakage at intervals not to exceed six months using a leak test kit or method approved by the commissioner, the NRC, or an agreement state. In the absence of a certificate from a transferor that a test has been made within the six months before the transfer, the sealed source may not be used until tested. The test must be capable of detecting the presence of 0.005 microcurie (200 becquerels) of radioactive material and must be performed by a person approved by the commissioner, the NRC, or an agreement state to perform the test.
Subp. 2. Pool irradiators.
A. This subpart applies to pool irradiators.
B. Sources may not be put into the pool unless the licensee tests the sources for leaks or has a certificate from a transferor that a leak test has been done within six months before the transfer.
C. Water from the pool must be checked for contamination each day the irradiator operates. The check may be done by using:
D. If a check for contamination under item C is done by analysis of a sample of pool water, the results of the analysis must be available within 24 hours.
E. If a licensee uses a radiation monitor on a pool water circulating system under item C, the detection of above normal radiation levels must activate an alarm. The alarm set-point must be set as low as practical, but high enough to avoid false alarms. The licensee may reset the alarm set-point to a higher level if necessary to operate the pool water purification system to clean up contamination in the pool if specifically provided for in written emergency procedures.
Subp. 3. All irradiators.
A. If a leaking source is detected:
B. Records must be maintained according to part 4731.3110.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.6210 Inspection and Maintenance
Subpart 1. Required checks.
A licensee must perform inspection and maintenance checks that include, as a minimum, each of the following at the frequency specified in the license or license application:
A. operability of each aspect of the access control system required under part 4731.6060;
B. functioning of the source position indicator required under part 4731.6100, item C;
C. operability of the radiation monitor for radioactive contamination in pool water required under part 4731.6200, subpart 2, using a radiation check source, if applicable;
D. operability of the over-the-pool radiation monitor at underwater irradiators as required under part 4731.6090, subpart 2;
E. operability of the product exit monitor required under part 4731.6090, subpart 1;
F. operability of the emergency source return control required under part 4731.6100, item D;
G. leak-tightness of systems through which pool water circulates, by visual inspection;
H. operability of the heat and smoke detectors and extinguisher system required under part 4731.6080, but without turning extinguishers on;
I. operability of the means of pool water replenishment required under part 4731.6110, item D;
J. operability of the indicators of high and low pool water levels required under part 4731.6110, item E;
K. operability of the intrusion alarm required under part 4731.6060, subpart 2, if applicable;
L. functioning and wear of the system, mechanisms, and cables used to raise and lower sources;
M. condition of the barrier to prevent products from hitting the sources or source mechanism as required under part 4731.6120;
N. amount of water added to the pool to determine if the pool is leaking;
O. electrical wiring on required safety systems for radiation damage; and
P. pool water conductivity measurements and analysis as required under part 4731.6220, item B.
Subp. 2. Repair.
Malfunctions and defects found during inspection and maintenance checks must be repaired without undue delay.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.6220 Pool Water Purity
A. A pool water purification system must be run sufficiently to maintain the conductivity of the pool water below 20 microsiemens per centimeter under normal circumstances. If pool water conductivity rises above 20 microsiemens per centimeter, a licensee must take prompt actions to lower the pool water conductivity and take corrective actions to prevent future recurrences.
B. A licensee must measure the pool water conductivity frequently enough, but no less than weekly, to ensure that the conductivity remains below 20 microsiemens per centimeter. Conductivity meters must be calibrated at least annually.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.6230 Attendance During Operation
A. An irradiator operator and at least one other individual who is trained in how to respond and prepared to promptly render or summon assistance if the access control alarm sounds must be present on site:
B. At a panoramic irradiator at which static irradiations, when there is no movement of the product, occur, a person who has received the training on how to respond under part 4731.6160, subpart 6, must be on site.
C. At an underwater irradiator, an irradiator operator must be present at the facility whenever the product is moved into or out of the pool. Individuals who move the product into or out of the pool of an underwater irradiator need not be qualified as irradiator operators, but must have received the training under part 4731.6160, subparts 5 and 6. Static irradiations may be performed at an underwater irradiator without a person present at the facility.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.6240 Entering and Leaving the Radiation Room
Subpart 1. Entry.
Upon first entering the radiation room of a panoramic irradiator after an irradiation, the irradiator operator must use a survey meter to determine that the source has returned to its fully shielded position. The operator must check the functioning of the survey meter with a radiation check source before entry.
Subp. 2. Exit.
Before exiting from and locking the door to the radiation room of a panoramic irradiator prior to a planned irradiation, the irradiator operator must:
A. visually inspect the entire radiation room to verify that no one else is in it; and
B. activate a control in the radiation room that permits the sources to be moved from the shielded position only if the door to the radiation room is locked within a preset time after setting the control.
Subp. 3. Entry during power failure.
During a power failure, the area around the pool of an underwater irradiator may not be entered without using an operable and calibrated radiation survey meter, unless the over-the-pool monitor required under part 4731.6090, subpart 2, is operating with backup power.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.6250 Irradiation of Explosive or Flammable Materials
A. Irradiation of explosive material is prohibited unless a licensee has received prior written authorization from the commissioner. Authorization shall not be granted unless the licensee can demonstrate that detonation of the explosive would not rupture the sealed sources, injure personnel, damage safety systems, or cause radiation overexposures of personnel.
B. Irradiation of more than small quantities of flammable material, with a flash point below 140 degrees Fahrenheit, is prohibited in panoramic irradiators unless a licensee has received prior written authorization from the commissioner. Authorization shall not be granted unless the licensee can demonstrate that a fire in the radiation room could be controlled without damage to sealed sources or safety systems and without radiation overexposures of personnel.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.6260 Records and Retention Periods
A licensee must maintain the following records at the irradiator for the periods specified:
A. a copy of the license, license conditions, documents incorporated into a license by reference, and amendments thereto, until superseded by new documents or until the commissioner terminates the license for documents not superseded;
B. records of each individual's training, tests, and safety reviews provided to comply with part 4731.6160, subparts 1, 2, 3, 5, and 6, for three years after the individual terminates work;
C. records of the annual evaluations of the safety performance of irradiator operators required under part 4731.6160, subpart 4, for three years after the evaluation;
D. a copy of the current operating and emergency procedures required under part 4731.6170, until superseded or the commissioner terminates the license;
E. records of the radiation safety officer's review and approval of changes in procedures as required under part 4731.6170, subpart 3, item C, for three years from the date of the change;
F. evaluations of personnel dosimeters required under part 4731.6180, until the commissioner terminates the license;
G. records of radiation surveys required under part 4731.6190, for three years from the date of the survey;
H. records of radiation survey meter calibrations required under part 4731.6190 and pool water conductivity meter calibrations required under part 4731.6220, item B, for three years from the date of calibration;
I. records of the results of leak tests required under part 4731.6200, subpart 1, and the results of contamination checks required under part 4731.6200, subpart 2, for three years from the date of each test;
J. records of inspection and maintenance checks required under part 4731.6210, for three years;
K. records of major malfunctions, significant defects, operating difficulties or irregularities, and major operating problems that involve required radiation safety equipment, for three years after repairs are completed;
L. records of the receipt, transfer, and disposal of all licensed sealed sources as required under parts 4731.3105 and 4731.3115;
M. records on the design checks required under part 4731.6140 and the construction control checks as required under part 4731.6150, until the license is terminated. The records must be signed and dated. The title or qualification of the person signing must be included; and
N. records relating to decommissioning of the irradiator as required under part 4731.3080, subpart 7.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.6270 Reports
Subpart 1. Required reports.
If not reported under other parts of this chapter, a licensee must report the following events:
A. source stuck in an unshielded position;
B. any fire or explosion in a radiation room;
C. damage to the source racks;
D. failure of the cable or drive mechanism used to move the source racks;
E. inoperability of the access control system;
F. detection of radiation source by the product exit monitor;
G. detection of radioactive contamination attributable to licensed radioactive material;
H. structural damage to the pool liner or walls;
I. abnormal water loss or leakage from the source storage pool; and
J. pool water conductivity exceeding 100 microsiemens per centimeter.
Subp. 2. Content.
A report under subpart 1 must include a telephone report within 24 hours according to part 4731.3110, subpart 3, item A, and a written report within 30 days according to part 4731.3110, subpart 3, item B.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.7000 Licenses and Radiation Safety Requirements for Well Logging
Subpart 1. Applicability.
Parts 4731.7000 to 4731.7280 provide for the issuance of a license authorizing the use of licensed materials including sealed sources, radioactive tracers, radioactive markers, and uranium sinker bars in well logging in a single well and prescribe radiation safety requirements for persons using licensed materials in these operations. Parts 4731.7000 to 4731.7280 are in addition to, and not in substitution for, other requirements of this chapter.
Subp. 2. Exemptions.
Parts 4731.7000 to 4731.7280 do not apply to the issuance of a license authorizing the use of licensed material in tracer studies involving multiple wells, such as field flooding studies, or to the use of sealed sources auxiliary to well logging but not lowered into wells.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.7010 Application
A person must file an application for a specific license authorizing the use of licensed material in well logging on an application for material license form prescribed by the commissioner. An application for a license, other than a license exempted from Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, part 170, must be accompanied by the fee prescribed in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.1205. The application must be sent to the Radioactive Materials Unit, Minnesota Department of Health, St. Paul, Minnesota.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.7020 Specific License; Well Logging
The commissioner shall approve an application for a specific license for the use of licensed material in well logging if the applicant:
A. satisfies the general licensing requirements under parts 4731.0575 for special nuclear material, 4731.0765 for source material, and 4731.3070 for radioactive material, as appropriate, and any special requirements under parts 4731.7000 to 4731.7280;
B. develops a program for training logging supervisors and logging assistants and submits to the commissioner a description of the program that specifies:
C. creates and submits written operating and emergency procedures according to part 4731.7210 or an outline summary of the procedures that includes the important radiation safety aspects of the procedures;
D. establishes and submits a description of the applicant's program for annual inspections of the job performance of each logging supervisor to ensure that this chapter, license requirements, and the applicant's written operating and emergency procedures are followed. Inspection records must be retained for three years after each annual internal inspection;
E. submits a description of the applicant's overall organizational structure as it applies to the radiation safety responsibilities in well logging, including specified delegations of authority and responsibility;
F. identifies the manufacturers and the model numbers of the leak test kits to be used if the applicant wants to perform leak testing of sealed sources; and
G. establishes and submits a description of procedures to be followed if the applicant wants to analyze its own wipe samples. The description must include:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 29 SR 755; 40 SR 145
Minn. R. 4731.7030 Agreement with Well Owner or Operator
Subpart 1. Agreement required.
A. A licensee may perform well logging with a sealed source only after the licensee has a written agreement with the employing well owner or operator. The written agreement must be kept for three years after completion of the well logging operation. The agreement must include the terms in items B to F and identify who will perform the requirements in items B to F.
B. If a sealed source becomes lodged in the well, a reasonable effort must be made to recover it.
C. A person may not attempt to recover a sealed source in a manner that, in the licensee's opinion, could result in its rupture.
D. The radiation monitoring required under part 4731.7240 must be performed.
E. If the environment, any equipment, or personnel are contaminated with licensed material, they must be decontaminated before release from the site or release for unrestricted use.
F. If the sealed source is classified as irretrievable after reasonable efforts at recovery have been expended, the following requirements must be implemented within 30 days:
Subp. 2. Variance.
A licensee may apply, under part 4731.0200, for commissioner approval, on a case-by-case basis, of proposed procedures to abandon an irretrievable well logging source in a manner not otherwise authorized in subpart 1, item F.
Subp. 3. Exemption.
The written agreement between the licensee and the well owner or operator is not required if the licensee and the well owner or operator are part of the same corporate structure or otherwise similarly affiliated, but the licensee must still comply with subpart 1, items B to F.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.7040 Request for Written Statements
A license is issued with the condition that the licensee shall, at any time before expiration of the license, upon the commissioner's request, submit written statements, signed under oath or affirmation, to enable the commissioner to determine whether the license should be modified, suspended, or revoked.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.7050 Labels, Security, and Transportation Precautions
Subpart 1. Labeling.
A. A licensee may not use a source, source holder, or logging tool that contains licensed material unless the smallest component that is transported as a separate piece of equipment with the licensed material inside bears a durable, legible, and clearly visible marking or label. The marking or label must contain:
B. A licensee may not use a container to store licensed material unless the container has securely attached to it a durable, legible, and clearly visible label. The label must contain:
C. A licensee may not transport licensed material unless the material is packaged, labeled, marked, and accompanied with appropriate shipping papers according to parts 4731.0400 to 4731.0424.
Subp. 2. Storage and transportation.
A. A licensee must store each source containing licensed material in a storage container or transportation package that is locked and physically secured to prevent tampering or removal of licensed material from storage by unauthorized personnel.
B. A licensee must store licensed material in a manner that minimizes danger from explosion or fire.
C. A licensee must lock and physically secure the transport package containing licensed material in the transporting vehicle to prevent:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 32 SR 831; 44 SR 239
Minn. R. 4731.7060 Radiation Detection Instruments
Subpart 1. Required survey instruments.
A licensee must keep a calibrated and operable radiation survey instrument capable of detecting beta and gamma radiation at each field station and temporary job site to make the radiation surveys required under parts 4731.2000 to 4731.2950 and 4731.7000 to 4731.7280. The radiation survey instrument must be capable of measuring 0.1 millirem (0.001 mSv) per hour through at least 50 millirems (0.5 mSv) per hour.
Subp. 2. Availability.
A licensee must have available additional calibrated and operable radiation detection instruments sensitive enough to detect the low radiation and contamination levels that could be encountered if a sealed source ruptured. A licensee may own the instruments or may have a procedure to obtain them quickly from a second party.
Subp. 3. Required calibrations.
A licensee must have each radiation survey instrument required under subpart 1 calibrated:
A. at intervals not to exceed six months and after instrument servicing;
B. for linear scale instruments, at two points located approximately one-third and two-thirds of full-scale on each scale; for logarithmic scale instruments, at midrange of each decade and at two points of at least one decade; and for digital instruments, at appropriate points; and
C. so that an accuracy within plus or minus 20 percent of the calibration standard can be demonstrated on each scale.
Subp. 4. Record retention.
A licensee must retain calibration records for three years after the date of calibration for inspection by the commissioner.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.7070 Leak Testing; Sealed Sources
Subpart 1. Testing and record keeping requirements.
A licensee that uses a sealed source must have the source periodically tested for leakage. The licensee must keep a record of leak test results in units of microcuries and retain the record for inspection by the commissioner for three years after the leak test is performed.
Subp. 2. Method of testing.
The wipe of a sealed source must be performed using a leak test kit or method approved by the commissioner, the NRC, or an agreement state. The wipe sample must be taken from the nearest accessible point to the sealed source where contamination might accumulate. The wipe sample must be analyzed for radioactive contamination. The analysis must be capable of detecting the presence of 0.005 microcuries (185 Bq) of radioactive material on the test sample and must be performed by a person approved by the commissioner, the NRC, or an agreement state to perform the analysis.
Subp. 3. Test frequency.
A. Each sealed source, except an energy compensation source (ECS), must be tested at intervals not to exceed six months. In the absence of a certificate from a transferor that a test has been made within the six months before the transfer, the sealed source may not be used until tested.
B. Each ECS that is not exempt from testing under subpart 5 must be tested at intervals not to exceed three years. In the absence of a certificate from a transferor that a test has been made within the three years before the transfer, the ECS may not be used until tested.
Subp. 4. Removal of leaking source from service.
A. If the test conducted under subparts 1 and 2 reveals the presence of 0.005 microcuries (185 Bq) or more of removable radioactive material, the licensee must remove the sealed source from service immediately and have it decontaminated, repaired, or disposed of by a person licensed by the commissioner, the NRC, or an agreement state to perform these functions. The licensee must check the equipment associated with the leaking source for radioactive contamination and, if contaminated, have it decontaminated or disposed of by a person licensed by the commissioner, the NRC, or an agreement state to perform these functions.
B. The licensee must submit a report to the commissioner within five days of receiving the test results. The report must:
Subp. 5. Exemptions.
The following sealed sources are exempt from the periodic leak test requirements under this part:
A. hydrogen-3 (tritium) sources;
B. sources containing licensed material with a half-life of 30 days or less;
C. sealed sources containing licensed material in gaseous form;
D. sources of beta- or gamma-emitting radioactive material with an activity of 100 microcuries (3.7 MBq) or less; and
E. sources of alpha- or neutron-emitting radioactive material with an activity of ten microcuries (0.37 MBq) or less.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.7080 Physical Inventory
A. A licensee must conduct a semiannual physical inventory to account for all licensed material received and possessed under the license. The licensee must retain records of the inventory for three years from the date of the inventory for inspection by the commissioner. The inventory must include:
B. The physical inventory records may be combined with leak test records.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.7090 Records of Material Use
Subpart 1. Use records.
A licensee must maintain records for each use of licensed material showing:
A. the make, model number, and a serial number or a description of each sealed source used;
B. in the case of unsealed licensed material used for subsurface tracer studies, the radionuclide and quantity of activity used in a particular well and the disposition of any unused tracer materials;
C. the identity of the logging supervisor who is responsible for the licensed material and the identity of logging assistants present; and
D. the location and date of use of the licensed material.
Subp. 2. Record retention.
A licensee must make the records required under subpart 1 available for inspection by the commissioner. A licensee must retain the records for three years from the date of the recorded event.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.7100 Design and Performance Criteria for Sources
Subpart 1. General requirements.
A licensee may only use sealed sources in well logging applications that:
A. are doubly encapsulated;
B. contain licensed material whose chemical and physical forms are as insoluble and nondispersible as practical; and
C. meet the requirements of subparts 2 to 4, as applicable.
Subp. 2. Pre-1989 sources.
For a sealed source manufactured on or before July 14, 1989, a licensee may use the sealed source for use in well logging applications if it meets the requirements of USASI N5.10-1968, "Classification of Sealed Radioactive Sources," American Institute of Chemical Engineers, or the requirements in subpart 3 or 4. The standard is incorporated by reference, is not subject to frequent change, and is available through the Minitex interlibrary loan system.
Subp. 3. Post-1989 sources; ANSI standard.
For a sealed source manufactured after July 14, 1989, a licensee may use the sealed source for use in well logging applications if it meets the oil-well logging requirements of "Sealed Radioactive Sources-Classification" ANSI/HPS N43.6-1997, American National Standards Institute (1997). The standard is incorporated by reference, is not subject to frequent change, and is available through the Minitex interlibrary loan system.
Subp. 4. Post-1989 sources; prototype testing.
For a sealed source manufactured after July 14, 1989, a licensee may use the sealed source for use in well logging applications if the sealed source's prototype has been tested and found to maintain its integrity after each of the following tests:
A. temperature test. The test source must be held at -40 degrees Celsius for 20 minutes, 600 degrees Celsius for one hour, and then be subject to a thermal shock test with a temperature drop from 600 degrees Celsius to 20 degrees Celsius within 15 seconds;
B. impact test. A five kilogram steel hammer, 2.5 centimeters in diameter, must be dropped from a height of one meter onto the test source;
C. vibration test. The test source must be subjected to a vibration from 25 hertz to 500 hertz at an amplitude of five times the acceleration of gravity for 30 minutes;
D. puncture test. A one gram hammer and pin, 0.3 centimeters pin diameter, must be dropped from a height of one meter onto the test source; and
E. pressure test. The test source must be subjected to an external pressure of 24,600 pounds per square inch absolute (1.695 x 107 pascals).
Subp. 5. Exemptions.
A. Subparts 1 to 4 do not apply to sealed sources that contain licensed material in gaseous form.
B. Subparts 1 to 4 do not apply to energy compensation sources. An energy compensation source must be registered with the NRC under Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, section 32.210, or with an agreement state.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.7110 Inspection and Maintenance; Opening Source or Source Holder
Subpart 1. Checks before use.
A. Before each use, a licensee must visually check source holders, logging tools, and source handling tools for defects to ensure that the equipment is in good working condition and that required labeling is present.
B. If defects are found, the equipment must be removed from service until repaired and a record must be made listing:
C. Records made under item B must be retained for three years after the defect is found.
Subp. 2. Semiannual inspections.
A. A licensee must have a program to ensure that required labeling is legible and that no physical damage is visible. This must be done by semiannual visual inspections and routine maintenance of:
B. If defects are found, the equipment must be removed from service until repaired, and a record must be made and retained for three years after the defect is found, listing:
Subp. 3. Written procedure for removal.
Removal of a sealed source from a source holder or logging tool and maintenance on sealed sources or holders in which sealed sources are contained may not be performed by the licensee unless a written procedure developed under part 4731.7210 has been approved by the commissioner under part 4731.7020, item C, or by the NRC or an agreement state.
Subp. 4. Stuck source requirements.
If a sealed source is stuck in the source holder, the licensee may not perform any operation, such as drilling, cutting, or chiseling, on the source holder unless the licensee is specifically approved by the commissioner, the NRC, or an agreement state to perform the operation.
Subp. 5. Opening; repair; modification.
The opening, repair, or modification of any sealed source must be performed by persons specifically approved to do so by the commissioner, the NRC, or an agreement state.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.7120 Subsurface Tracer Studies
A. A licensee must require all personnel handling radioactive tracer material to use protective gloves and, if required by the license, other protective clothing and equipment. The licensee must take precautions to avoid ingestion or inhalation of radioactive tracer material and to avoid contamination of field stations and temporary job sites.
B. A licensee may not knowingly inject licensed material into freshwater aquifers unless a variance to chapter 4725 or 4727 has been specifically authorized by the commissioner to do so.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.7130 Radioactive Markers
A licensee may use radioactive markers in wells only if the individual markers contain quantities of licensed material not exceeding the quantities specified under part 4731.3145. The use of markers is subject only to the requirements of part 4731.7080.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.7140 Uranium Sinker Bars
A licensee may use a uranium sinker bar in well logging applications only if it is legibly impressed with the words "CAUTION: RADIOACTIVE-DEPLETED URANIUM. NOTIFY CIVIL AUTHORITIES (or company name) IF FOUND."
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.7150 Use Without a Surface Casing
A licensee may use a sealed source in a well without a surface casing for protecting freshwater aquifers only if the licensee follows a procedure for reducing the probability of the source becoming lodged in the well. The procedure must be approved by the commissioner according to part 4731.7020, item C, or by the NRC or an agreement state.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.7160 Energy Compensation Source
A. A licensee may use an energy compensation source (ECS) that is contained within a logging tool or other tool components only if the ECS contains quantities of licensed material not exceeding 100 microcuries (3.7 MBq).
B. For well logging applications with a surface casing for protecting freshwater aquifers, use of the ECS is subject only to parts 4731.7070 to 4731.7090.
C. For well logging applications without a surface casing for protecting freshwater aquifers, use of the ECS is subject only to parts 4731.7030, 4731.7070 to 4731.7090, 4731.7150, and 4731.7280.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.7170 Tritium Neutron Generator Target Source
A. Use of a tritium neutron generator target source, containing quantities not exceeding 30 curies (1,110 MBq) and in a well with a surface casing to protect freshwater aquifers, is subject to parts 4731.7000 to 4731.7270, except parts 4731.7030 and 4731.7100.
B. Use of a tritium neutron generator target source, containing quantities exceeding 30 curies (1,110 MBq) or in a well without a surface casing to protect freshwater aquifers, is subject to parts 4731.7000 to 4731.7280, except part 4731.7100.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.7200 Training
Subpart 1. Logging supervisor.
A licensee must not permit an individual to act as a logging supervisor until the individual:
A. completes training in the subjects under subpart 5;
B. receives copies of and instruction in:
C. completes on-the-job training and demonstrates competence in the use of licensed materials, remote handling tools, and radiation survey instruments by a field evaluation; and
D. demonstrates understanding of the materials under items A and B by successfully completing a written test.
Subp. 2. Logging assistant.
A licensee must not permit an individual to act as a logging assistant until the individual:
A. receives instruction in applicable provisions of parts 4731.1000 to 4731.2950;
B. receives copies of and instruction in the licensee's operating and emergency procedures required under part 4731.7210;
C. demonstrates understanding of the materials under items A and B by successfully completing a written or oral test; and
D. receives instruction in the use of licensed materials, remote handling tools, and radiation survey instruments, as appropriate for the logging assistant's intended job responsibilities.
Subp. 3. Safety reviews.
A licensee must provide safety reviews for logging supervisors and logging assistants at least once during each calendar year.
Subp. 4. Records.
A licensee must maintain a record on each logging supervisor's and logging assistant's training and annual safety review. The training records must include copies of written tests and dates of oral tests given after July 14, 1987. The training records must be retained for three years following the termination of employment. Records of annual safety reviews must list the topics discussed and must be retained for three years.
Subp. 5. Training subjects.
A licensee must include the following subjects in the training required under subpart 1, item A:
A. fundamentals of radiation safety, including:
B. radiation detection instruments, including:
C. equipment to be used, including:
D. the requirements of pertinent state rules; and
E. case histories of accidents in well logging.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.7210 Operating and Emergency Procedures
Subpart 1. Requirement.
A licensee must develop and follow written operating and emergency procedures.
Subp. 2. Operating and emergency procedures.
A licensee's written operating and emergency procedures must address:
A. the handling and use of licensed materials, including the use of sealed sources in wells without surface casing for protecting freshwater aquifers, if appropriate;
B. the use of remote handling tools for handling sealed sources and radioactive tracer material, except low-activity calibration sources;
C. methods and occasions for conducting radiation surveys, including surveys for detecting contamination, as required under part 4731.7230, subpart 2, items B to D;
D. minimizing personnel exposure, including exposures from inhalation and ingestion of licensed tracer materials;
E. methods and occasions for locking and securing stored licensed materials;
F. personnel monitoring and the use of personnel monitoring equipment;
G. transportation of licensed materials to field stations or temporary job sites, packaging of licensed materials for transport in vehicles, placarding of vehicles when needed, and physically securing licensed materials in transport vehicles during transportation to prevent accidental loss, tampering, or unauthorized removal;
H. picking up, receiving, and opening packages containing licensed materials, according to part 4731.2350;
I. for the use of tracers, decontamination of the environment, equipment, and personnel;
J. maintenance of records generated by logging personnel at temporary job sites;
K. inspection and maintenance of sealed sources, source holders, logging tools, injection tools, source handling tools, storage containers, transport containers, and uranium sinker bars as required under part 4731.7110;
L. identifying and reporting to the commissioner and the NRC regarding defects and noncompliance, as required under Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, part 21;
M. notifying proper persons, including the licensee's radiation safety officer and the commissioner, in the event of an accident or incident or abandonment of a source;
N. actions to be taken if a sealed source is lodged or damaged in a well; and
O. actions to be taken if a sealed source is ruptured, including:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.7220 Personnel Monitoring
A. A licensee may not permit an individual to act as a logging supervisor or logging assistant unless the individual wears a personnel dosimeter at all times during the handling of licensed radioactive materials. Each personnel dosimeter must be assigned to and worn by only one individual. Film badges must be replaced at least monthly and other personnel dosimeters that require replacement must be replaced at least quarterly. All personnel dosimeters must be evaluated at least quarterly or promptly after replacement, whichever is more frequent.
B. A licensee must provide bioassay services to individuals using licensed materials in subsurface tracer studies if required by the license.
C. A licensee must retain records of personnel dosimeters required under item A and bioassay results for inspection until the commissioner authorizes disposition of the records.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 46 SR 791
Minn. R. 4731.7230 Radiation Surveys
Subpart 1. Requirement.
A licensee must make radiation surveys, including but not limited to the surveys required under subpart 2, of each area where licensed materials are used and stored.
Subp. 2. Safety surveys.
A. Before transporting licensed materials, a licensee must make a radiation survey of the position occupied by each individual in the vehicle and of the exterior of each vehicle used to transport the licensed materials.
B. If the sealed source assembly is removed from the logging tool before departure from the temporary job site, a licensee must confirm that the logging tool is free of contamination by energizing the logging tool detector or by using a survey meter.
C. If a licensee has reason to believe that, as a result of any operation involving a sealed source, the encapsulation of the sealed source could be damaged by the operation, the licensee must conduct a radiation survey, including a contamination survey, during and after the operation.
D. A licensee must make a radiation survey at the temporary job site before and after each subsurface tracer study to confirm the absence of contamination.
Subp. 3. Records.
A. The results of surveys required under this part must be recorded and must include:
B. A licensee must retain records of surveys for inspection by the commissioner for three years after they are made.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.7240 Radioactive Contamination Control
A. If a licensee detects evidence that a sealed source has ruptured or licensed materials have caused contamination, the licensee must immediately initiate the emergency procedures required under part 4731.7210.
B. If contamination results from the use of licensed material in well logging, the licensee must decontaminate all work areas, equipment, and unrestricted areas.
C. During efforts to recover a sealed source lodged in a well, a licensee must continuously monitor, with an appropriate radiation detection instrument or a logging tool with a radiation detector, the circulating fluids from the well, if any, to check for contamination resulting from damage to the sealed source.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.7250 Security
A. A logging supervisor must be physically present at a temporary job site whenever licensed materials are being handled or are not stored and locked in a vehicle or storage place. The logging supervisor may leave the job site to obtain assistance if a source becomes lodged in a well.
B. During well logging, except when radiation sources are below ground or in shipping or storage containers, the logging supervisor or other individual designated by the logging supervisor must maintain direct surveillance of the operation to prevent unauthorized entry into a restricted area.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.7260 Documents and Records; Field Stations
A licensee must maintain the following documents and records at a field station:
A. a copy of parts 4731.1000 to 4731.2950 and 4731.7000 to 4731.7280;
B. the license authorizing the use of licensed material;
C. the operating and emergency procedures required under part 4731.7210;
D. the record of radiation survey instrument calibrations required under part 4731.7060;
E. the record of leak test results required under part 4731.7070;
F. physical inventory records required under part 4731.7080;
G. utilization records required under part 4731.7090;
H. records of inspection and maintenance required under part 4731.7110;
I. training records required under part 4731.7200, subpart 4; and
J. survey records required under part 4731.7230.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.7270 Documents and Records; Temporary Job Sites
A licensee conducting operations at a temporary job site must maintain the following documents and records at the temporary job site until the well logging operation is completed:
A. the operating and emergency procedures required under part 4731.7210;
B. evidence of the latest calibration of the radiation survey instruments in use at the site as required under part 4731.7060;
C. the latest survey records required under part 4731.7230, subpart 2, items A, B, and D;
D. the shipping papers for the transportation of radioactive materials required under part 4731.0402; and
E. when operating under reciprocity according to part 4731.0355, a copy of the NRC or agreement state license authorizing the use of licensed materials.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755
Minn. R. 4731.7280 Notification of Incidents and Lost Sources; Abandonment Procedures
Subpart 1. Notification; ruptured source.
A licensee must immediately notify the commissioner by telephone according to part 4731.0200, subpart 5, and subsequently, within 30 days, by confirmatory letter if the licensee knows or has reason to believe that a sealed source has been ruptured. The letter must:
A. designate the well or other location;
B. describe the magnitude and extent of the escape of licensed materials;
C. assess the consequences of the rupture; and
D. explain efforts planned or being taken to mitigate these consequences.
Subp. 2. Notification; other incidents.
A licensee must notify the commissioner of the theft or loss of radioactive materials, radiation overexposures, excessive levels and concentrations of radiation, and certain other accidents as required under parts 4731.2600 to 4731.2620 and 4731.3110.
Subp. 3. Abandonment and sealing procedures.
If a sealed source becomes lodged in a well, and when it becomes apparent that efforts to recover the sealed source will not be successful, the licensee must:
A. notify the commissioner by telephone according to part 4731.0200, subpart 5, of the circumstances that resulted in the inability to retrieve the source;
B. obtain commissioner approval to implement abandonment procedures;
C. obtain a variance from the sealing requirements of chapter 4725 or 4727 and comply with the conditions of the variance;
D. if applicable, inform the commissioner that the licensee implemented abandonment before receiving commissioner approval because the licensee believed there was an immediate threat to public health and safety;
E. advise the well owner or operator, as appropriate, of the abandonment procedures under part 4731.7030, subpart 1 or 2; and
F. ensure that abandonment procedures are implemented within 30 days after the sealed source has been classified as irretrievable or request of the commissioner an extension of time if unable to complete the abandonment procedures.
Subp. 4. Report of irretrievable source.
A licensee must, within 30 days after a sealed source has been classified as irretrievable, make a report in writing to the commissioner. The licensee must send a copy of the report to each appropriate state or federal agency that issued permits or otherwise approved of the drilling operation. The report must contain:
A. the date of occurrence;
B. a description of the irretrievable well logging source involved, including the radionuclide and its quantity, chemical, and physical form;
C. surface location and identification of the well;
D. results of efforts to immobilize and seal the source in place;
E. a brief description of the attempted recovery effort;
F. depth of the source;
G. depth of the top of the cement plug;
H. depth of the well;
I. the immediate threat to public health and safety justification for implementing abandonment if prior commissioner and variance approval was not obtained according to subpart 3, item D;
J. any other information, such as a warning statement, contained on the permanent identification plaque; and
K. the identity of state and federal agencies receiving a copy of this report.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1202; 144.1203
- History: 29 SR 755; 44 SR 239
Minn. R. 4731.8000 Physical Protection of Category 1 or Category 2 Quantities of Radioactive Material
A. Parts 4731.8010 to 4731.8090 apply to any person who, under the regulations in this chapter, possesses or uses at any site, an aggregated category 1 or category 2 quantity of radioactive material.
B. Parts 4731.8100 to 4731.8125 apply to any person who, under the regulations of this chapter:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 40 SR 145
Minn. R. 4731.8005 Exemption for Waste
A licensee that possesses radioactive waste that contains category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material is exempt from the requirements of parts 4731.8010 to 4731.8125. Except that any radioactive waste that contains discrete sources, ion-exchange resins, or activated material that weighs less than 2,000 kg (4.409 lbs) is not exempt from the requirements of this part. The licensee must implement the following requirements to secure the radioactive waste:
A. use continuous physical barriers that allow access to the radioactive waste only through established access control points;
B. use a locked door or gate with monitored alarm at the access control point;
C. assess and respond to each actual or attempted unauthorized access to determine whether an actual or attempted theft, sabotage, or diversion occurred; and
D. immediately notify the local law enforcement agency (LLEA) and request an armed response from the LLEA upon determination that there was an actual or attempted theft, sabotage, or diversion of the radioactive waste that contains category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 40 SR 145
Minn. R. 4731.8010 Personnel Access Authorization Requirements for Category 1 or Category 2 Quantities of Radioactive Material
Subpart 1. General.
A. Each licensee that possesses an aggregated quantity of radioactive material at or above the category 2 threshold must establish, implement, and maintain its access authorization program in accordance with the requirements of parts 4731.8010 to 4731.8040.
B. An applicant for a new license and each licensee that is newly subject to the requirements of parts 4731.8010 to 4731.8040 upon application for modification of its license must implement the requirements of parts 4731.8010 to 4731.8040, as appropriate, before taking possession of an aggregated category 1 or category 2 quantity of radioactive material.
C. Any licensee that has not previously implemented the Security Orders or been subject to the provisions of parts 4731.8010 to 4731.8040 must implement the provisions of parts 4731.8010 to 4731.8040 before aggregating radioactive material to a quantity that equals or exceeds the category 2 threshold.
Subp. 2. General performance objective.
The licensee's access authorization program must ensure that the individuals specified in subpart 3, item A, are trustworthy and reliable.
Subp. 3. Applicability.
A. Licensees must subject the following individuals to an access authorization program:
B. Licensees need not subject the categories of individuals listed in part 4731.8030, subpart 1, items A to M, to the investigation elements of the access authorization program.
C. Licensees must approve for unescorted access to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material only those individuals with job duties that require unescorted access to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material.
D. Licensees may include individuals needing access to safeguards information-modified handling under Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, part 73, in the access authorization program under parts 4731.8010 to 4731.8040.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 40 SR 145
Minn. R. 4731.8015 Access Authorization Program Requirements
Subpart 1. Granting unescorted access authorization.
A. Licensees must implement the requirements of parts 4731.8010 to 4731.8040 for granting initial or reinstated unescorted access authorization.
B. Individuals who have been determined to be trustworthy and reliable must also complete the security training required by part 4731.8055, subpart 3, before being allowed unescorted access to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material.
Subp. 2. Reviewing officials.
A. Reviewing officials are the only individuals authorized to make trustworthiness and reliability determinations that allow individuals to have unescorted access to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive materials possessed by the licensee.
B. Each licensee must name one or more individuals to be reviewing officials. After completing the background investigation on the reviewing official, the licensee must provide, under oath or affirmation, a certification that the reviewing official is deemed trustworthy and reliable by the licensee. The licensee must provide oath or affirmation certifications to the Radioactive Materials Unit, Minnesota Department of Health, 625 Robert Street N, P.O. Box 64975, St. Paul, MN 55164-0975. The fingerprints of the named reviewing official must be taken by a law enforcement agency, federal or state agency that provides fingerprinting services to the public, or commercial fingerprinting services authorized by a state to take fingerprints. The licensee must recertify that the reviewing official is deemed trustworthy and reliable every ten years in accordance with part 4731.8020, subpart 3.
C. Reviewing officials must be permitted to have unescorted access to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive materials or access to safeguards information or safeguards information-modified handling, if the licensee possesses safeguards information or safeguards information-modified handling.
D. Reviewing officials cannot approve other individuals to act as reviewing officials.
E. A reviewing official does not need to undergo a new background investigation before being named by the licensee as the reviewing official if:
Subp. 3. Informed consent.
A. Licensees must not initiate a background investigation without the informed and signed consent of the subject individual. This consent must include authorization to share personal information with other individuals or organizations as necessary to complete the background investigation. Before a final adverse determination, the licensee must provide the individual with an opportunity to correct any inaccurate or incomplete information that is developed during the background investigation. Licensees do not need to obtain signed consent from those individuals that meet the requirements of part 4731.8020, subpart 2. A signed consent must be obtained prior to any reinvestigation.
B. The subject individual may withdraw consent at any time. Licensees must inform the individual that:
Subp. 4. Personal history disclosure.
Any individual who is applying for unescorted access authorization must disclose the personal history information that is required by the licensee's access authorization program for the reviewing official to make a determination of the individual's trustworthiness and reliability. Refusal to provide, or the falsification of, any personal history information required by parts 4731.8010 to 4731.8040 is sufficient cause for denial or termination of unescorted access.
Subp. 5. Determination basis.
A. The reviewing official must determine whether to permit, deny, unfavorably terminate, maintain, or administratively withdraw an individual's unescorted access authorization based on an evaluation of all information collected to meet the requirements of parts 4731.8010 to 4731.8040.
B. The reviewing official must not permit any individual to have unescorted access until the reviewing official has evaluated all of the information collected to meet the requirements of parts 4731.8010 to 4731.8040 and determined that the individual is trustworthy and reliable. The reviewing official has authority to deny unescorted access to any individual based on information obtained at any time during the background investigation.
C. The licensee must document the basis for concluding whether or not there is reasonable assurance that an individual is trustworthy and reliable.
D. The reviewing official has authority to terminate or administratively withdraw an individual's unescorted access authorization based on information obtained after the background investigation has been completed and the individual granted unescorted access authorization.
E. Licensees must maintain a list of persons currently approved for unescorted access authorization. When a licensee determines that a person no longer requires unescorted access or meets the access authorization requirement, the licensee must remove the person from the approved list as soon as possible, but no later than seven working days, and take prompt measures to ensure that the individual is unable to have unescorted access to the material.
Subp. 6. Procedures.
Licensees must develop, implement, and maintain written procedures for implementing the access authorization program. The procedures must include provisions for the notification of individuals who are denied unescorted access. The procedures must include provisions for the review, at the request of the affected individual, of a denial or termination of unescorted access authorization. The procedures must contain a provision to ensure that the individual is informed of the grounds for the denial or termination of unescorted access authorization and allow the individual an opportunity to provide additional relevant information.
Subp. 7. Right to correct and complete information.
A. Prior to any final adverse determination, licensees must provide each individual subject to parts 4731.8010 to 4731.8040 with the right to complete, correct, and explain information obtained as a result of the licensee's background investigation. Confirmation of receipt by the individual of this notification must be maintained by the licensee for a period of one year from the date of the notification.
B. If, after reviewing a criminal history record, an individual believes that it is incorrect or incomplete in any respect and wishes to change, correct, update, or explain anything in the record, the individual may initiate challenge procedures. These procedures include direct application by the individual challenging the record to the law enforcement agency that contributed the questioned information or a direct challenge as to the accuracy or completeness of any entry on the criminal history record and must be sent to the Federal Bureau of Investigation, Criminal Justice Information Services (CJIS) Division, ATTN: SCU, Mod. D-2, 1000 Custer Hollow Road, Clarksburg, WV 26306, as specified in Code of Federal Regulations, title 28, sections 16.30 to 16.34. In the latter case, the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) will forward the challenge to the agency that submitted the data, and will request that the agency verify or correct the challenged entry. Upon receipt of an official communication directly from the agency that contributed the original information, the FBI Identification Division makes any changes necessary according to the information supplied by that agency. Licensees must provide at least ten days for an individual to initiate action to challenge the results of an FBI criminal history records check after the individual has reviewed the criminal history record. The licensee shall make a final adverse determination based upon the criminal history records only after receipt of the FBI's confirmation or correction of the record.
Subp. 8. Records.
A. The licensee must retain documentation regarding the trustworthiness and reliability of individual employees for three years from the date the individual no longer requires unescorted access to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material.
B. The licensee must retain a copy of the current access authorization program procedures as a record for three years after the procedure is no longer needed. If any portion of the procedure is superseded, the licensee must retain the superseded material for three years after the record is superseded.
C. The licensee must retain the list of persons approved for unescorted access authorization for three years after the list is superseded or replaced.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 40 SR 145; 46 SR 791
Minn. R. 4731.8020 Background Investigations
Subpart 1. Initial investigation.
A. Before allowing an individual unescorted access to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material or to the devices that contain the material, licensees must complete a background investigation of the individual seeking unescorted access authorization. The scope of the investigation must encompass at least the seven years preceding the date of the background investigation or since the individual's 18th birthday, whichever is shorter. The background investigation must include, at a minimum:
B. If a previous employer, educational institution, or any other entity with which the individual claims to have been engaged fails to provide information or indicates an inability or unwillingness to provide information within a time frame deemed appropriate by the licensee, but at least after ten business days of the request, or if the licensee is unable to reach the entity, the licensee must document the refusal, unwillingness, or inability in the record of investigation; and attempt to obtain the information from an alternate source.
Subp. 2. Grandfathering.
A. Individuals who have been determined to be trustworthy and reliable for unescorted access to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material under a Fingerprint Order may continue to have unescorted access to category 1 and category 2 quantities of radioactive material without further investigation. These individuals must be subject to the reinvestigation requirement under subpart 3.
B. Individuals who have been determined to be trustworthy and reliable under the provisions of Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, part 73, or the security orders for access to safeguards information, safeguards information-modified handling, or risk-significant material may have unescorted access to category 1 and category 2 quantities of radioactive material without further investigation. The licensee must document that the individual was determined to be trustworthy and reliable under the provisions of Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, part 73, or a security order. Security order, in this context, refers to any order that was issued by the NRC that required fingerprints and an FBI criminal history records check for access to safeguards information, safeguards information-modified handling, or risk-significant material such as special nuclear material or large quantities of uranium hexafluoride. These individuals must be subject to the reinvestigation requirement under subpart 3.
Subp. 3. Reinvestigations.
Licensees must conduct a reinvestigation every ten years for any individual with unescorted access to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material. The reinvestigation must consist of fingerprinting and an FBI identification and criminal history records check in accordance with part 4731.8025. The reinvestigations must be completed within ten years of the date on which these elements were last completed.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 40 SR 145
Minn. R. 4731.8025 Requirements for Criminal History Records Checks of Individuals Granted Unescorted Access to Category 1 or Category 2 Quantities of Radioactive Material
Subpart 1. General performance objective and requirements.
A. Except for those individuals listed in part 4731.8030 and those individuals grandfathered under part 4731.8020, subpart 2, each licensee subject to the provisions of parts 4731.8010 to 4731.8040 must fingerprint each individual who is to be permitted unescorted access to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material. Licensees must transmit all collected fingerprints to the NRC for transmission to the FBI. The licensee must use the information received from the FBI as part of the required background investigation to determine whether to grant or deny further unescorted access to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive materials for that individual.
B. The licensee must notify each affected individual that fingerprints are used to secure a review of the individual's criminal history record, and must inform the individual of the procedures for revising the record or adding explanations to the record.
C. Fingerprinting is not required if a licensee is reinstating an individual's unescorted access authorization to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive materials if:
D. Fingerprints do not need to be taken if an individual who is an employee of a licensee, contractor, manufacturer, or supplier has been granted unescorted access to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material, access to safeguards information, or safeguards information-modified handling by another licensee, based upon a background investigation conducted under parts 4731.8010 to 4731.8040, the Fingerprint Orders, or Code of Federal Regulations, title 10, part 73. An existing criminal history records check file may be transferred to the licensee asked to grant unescorted access in accordance with the provisions of part 4731.8035, item C.
E. Licensees must use the information obtained as part of a criminal history records check solely for the purpose of determining an individual's suitability for unescorted access authorization to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive materials, access to safeguards information, or safeguards information-modified handling.
Subp. 2. Prohibitions.
A. Licensees shall not base a final determination to deny an individual unescorted access authorization to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material solely on the basis of information received from the FBI involving:
B. Licensees shall not use information received from a criminal history records check obtained under parts 4731.8010 to 4731.8040 in a manner that would infringe upon the rights of any individual under the First Amendment to the Constitution of the United States, nor shall licensees use the information in any way that would discriminate among individuals on the basis of race, religion, national origin, gender, or age.
Subp. 3. Procedures for processing of fingerprint checks.
A. For the purpose of complying with parts 4731.8010 to 4731.8040, licensees must submit to the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Director, Division of Physical and Cyber Security Policy, 11545 Rockville Pike, ATTN: Criminal History Program/Mail Stop T-07D04M, Rockville, MD 20852, one completed, legible standard fingerprint card (Form FD-258, ORIMDNRCOOOZ), electronic fingerprint scan or, where practicable, other fingerprint record for each individual requiring unescorted access to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material. Copies of these forms may be obtained by emailing MAILSVS.Resource@nrc.gov. Guidance on submitting electronic fingerprints can be found at https://www.nrc.gov/security/chp.html.
B. Fees for the processing of fingerprint checks are due upon application. Licensees must submit payment with the application for the processing of fingerprints through corporate check, certified check, cashier's check, money order, or electronic payment, made payable to "U.S. NRC." For guidance on making electronic payments, contact the, Division of Physical and Cyber Security Policy by emailing crimhist.resource@nrc.gov. Combined payment for multiple applications is acceptable. The NRC publishes the amount of the fingerprint check application fee on the NRC public website. To find the current fee amount, go to the Licensee Criminal History Records Checks & Firearms Background Check information page at https://www.nrc.gov/security/chp.html and see the link for "How do I determine how much to pay for the request?".
C. The commission must forward to the submitting licensee all data received from the FBI as a result of the licensee's applications for criminal history records checks.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 40 SR 145; 44 SR 239; 46 SR 791; 49 SR 1193
Minn. R. 4731.8030 Relief from Fingerprinting, Identification, and Criminal History Records Checks and Other Elements of Background Investigations
Subpart 1. Exemption to certain security checks.
Fingerprinting, and the identification and criminal history records checks required by section 149 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, and other elements of the background investigation are not required for the following individuals prior to granting unescorted access to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive materials:
A. an employee of the commission or of the Executive Branch of the U.S. government who has undergone fingerprinting for a prior U.S. government criminal history records check;
B. a member of Congress;
C. an employee of a member of Congress or a congressional committee who has undergone fingerprinting for a prior U.S. government criminal history records check;
D. the governor of a state or the governor's designated state employee representative;
E. federal, state, or local law enforcement personnel;
F. state radiation control program directors and state homeland security advisors or their designated state employee representatives;
G. agreement state employees conducting security inspections on behalf of the NRC under an agreement executed under section 274.i. of the Atomic Energy Act;
H. representatives of the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) engaged in activities associated with the U.S./IAEA Safeguards Agreement who have been certified by the NRC;
I. emergency response personnel who are responding to an emergency;
J. commercial vehicle drivers for road shipments of category 1 and category 2 quantities of radioactive material;
K. package handlers at transportation facilities such as freight terminals and railroad yards;
L. any individual who has an active federal security clearance, provided that the individual makes available the appropriate documentation. Written confirmation from the agency/employer that granted the federal security clearance or reviewed the criminal history records check must be provided to the licensee. The licensee must retain this documentation for a period of three years from the date the individual no longer requires unescorted access to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material; and
M. any individual employed by a service provider licensee for which the service provider licensee has conducted the background investigation for the individual and approved the individual for unescorted access to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material. Written verification from the service provider must be provided to the licensee. The licensee must retain the documentation for a period of three years from the date the individual no longer requires unescorted access to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material.
Subp. 2. Additional exemption.
Fingerprinting, and the identification and criminal history records checks required by section 149 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, are not required for an individual who has had a favorably adjudicated U.S. government criminal history records check within the last five years, under a comparable U.S. government program involving fingerprinting and an FBI identification and criminal history records check provided that the individual makes available the appropriate documentation. Written confirmation from the agency/employer that reviewed the criminal history records check must be provided to the licensee. The licensee must retain this documentation for a period of three years from the date the individual no longer requires unescorted access to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material. These programs include, but are not limited to:
A. national agency check;
B. Transportation Worker Identification Credentials (TWIC) under Code of Federal Regulations, title 49, part 1572;
C. Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms, and Explosives background check and clearances under Code of Federal Regulations, title 27, part 555;
D. Health and Human Services security risk assessments for possession and use of select agents and toxins under Code of Federal Regulations, title 42, part 73;
E. hazardous material security threat assessment for hazardous material endorsement to commercial driver's license under Code of Federal Regulations, title 49, part 1572; and
F. Customs and Border Protection's Free and Secure Trade (FAST) Program.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 40 SR 145; 44 SR 239
Minn. R. 4731.8035 Protection of Information
A. Each licensee who obtains background information on an individual under parts 4731.8010 to 4731.8040 must establish and maintain a system of files and written procedures for protection of the record and the personal information from unauthorized disclosure.
B. The licensee shall not disclose the record or personal information collected and maintained to persons other than the subject individual, the individual's representative, or to those who have a need to have access to the information in performing assigned duties in the process of granting or denying unescorted access to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material, safeguards information, or safeguards information-modified handling. No individual authorized to have access to the information shall disseminate the information to any other individual who does not have a need to know.
C. The personal information obtained on an individual from a background investigation may be provided to another licensee:
D. The licensee must make background investigation records obtained under parts 4731.8010 to 4731.8040 available for examination by an authorized representative of the commissioner to determine compliance with the regulations and laws.
E. The licensee must retain all fingerprint and criminal history records received from the FBI, including data indicating no record, or a copy of these records if the individual's file has been transferred, on an individual for three years from the date the individual no longer requires unescorted access to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 40 SR 145
Minn. R. 4731.8040 Access Authorization Program Review
A. Each licensee must be responsible for the continuing effectiveness of the access authorization program. Each licensee must ensure that access authorization programs are reviewed to confirm compliance with the requirements of parts 4731.8010 to 4731.8040 and that comprehensive actions are taken to correct any noncompliance that is identified. The review program must evaluate all program performance objectives and requirements. Each licensee must at least annually review the access program content and implementation.
B. The results of the reviews, along with any recommendations, must be documented. Each review report must identify conditions that are adverse to the proper performance of the access authorization program, the cause of the conditions, and, when appropriate, recommend corrective actions, and corrective actions taken. The licensee must review the findings and take any additional corrective actions necessary to preclude repetition of the condition, including reassessment of the deficient areas where indicated.
C. Review records must be maintained for three years.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 40 SR 145
Minn. R. 4731.8050 Security Program
Subpart 1. Applicability.
A. Each licensee that possesses an aggregated category 1 or category 2 quantity of radioactive material must establish, implement, and maintain a security program in accordance with the requirements of parts 4731.8050 to 4731.8090.
B. An applicant for a new license and each licensee that would become newly subject to the requirements of parts 4731.8050 to 4731.8090 upon application for modification of its license must implement the requirements of parts 4731.8050 to 4731.8090, as appropriate, before taking possession of an aggregated category 1 or category 2 quantity of radioactive material.
C. Any licensee that has not previously implemented the security orders or been subject to the provisions of parts 4731.8050 to 4731.8090 must provide written notification to the commissioner at least 90 days before aggregating radioactive material to a quantity that equals or exceeds the category 2 threshold.
Subp. 2. General performance objective.
Each licensee must establish, implement, and maintain a security program that is designed to monitor and, without delay, detect, assess, and respond to an actual or attempted unauthorized access to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material.
Subp. 3. Program features.
Each licensee's security program must include the program features, as appropriate, described in parts 4731.8055 to 4731.8085.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 40 SR 145
Minn. R. 4731.8055 General Security Program Requirements
Subpart 1. Security plan.
A. Each licensee identified in part 4731.8050 must develop a written security plan specific to its facilities and operations. The purpose of the security plan is to establish the licensee's overall security strategy to ensure the integrated and effective functioning of the security program required by parts 4731.8050 to 4731.8090. The security plan must, at a minimum:
B. The security plan must be reviewed and approved by the individual with overall responsibility for the security program.
C. A licensee must revise its security plan as necessary to ensure the effective implementation of commissioner requirements. The licensee must ensure that:
D. The licensee must retain a copy of the current security plan as a record for three years after the security plan is no longer required. If any portion of the plan is superseded, the licensee must retain the superseded material for three years after the record is superseded.
Subp. 2. Implementing procedures.
A. The licensee must develop and maintain written procedures that document how the requirements of parts 4731.8050 to 4731.8090 and the security plan will be met.
B. The implementing procedures and revisions to these procedures must be approved in writing by the individual with overall responsibility for the security program.
C. The licensee must retain a copy of the current procedure as a record for three years after the procedure is no longer needed. Superseded portions of the procedure must be retained for three years after the record is superseded.
Subp. 3. Training.
A. Each licensee must conduct training to ensure that those individuals implementing the security program possess and maintain the knowledge, skills, and abilities to carry out their assigned duties and responsibilities effectively. The training must include instruction in:
B. In determining those individuals who must be trained on the security program, the licensee must consider each individual's assigned activities during authorized use and response to potential situations involving actual or attempted theft, diversion, or sabotage of category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material. The extent of the training must be commensurate with the individual's potential involvement in the security of category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material.
C. Refresher training must be provided at a frequency not to exceed 12 months and when significant changes have been made to the security program. This training must include:
D. The licensee must maintain records of the initial and refresher training for three years from the date of the training. The training records must include dates of the training, topics covered, a list of licensee personnel in attendance, and related information.
Subp. 4. Protection of information.
A. Licensees authorized to possess category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material must limit access to and unauthorized disclosure of their security plan, implementing procedures, and the list of individuals that have been approved for unescorted access.
B. Efforts to limit access must include the development, implementation, and maintenance of written policies and procedures for controlling access to, and for proper handling and protection against unauthorized disclosure of, the security plan, implementing procedures, and the list of individuals that have been approved for unescorted access.
C. Before granting an individual access to the security plan, implementing procedures, or the list of individuals that have been approved for unescorted access, licensees must:
D. Licensees need not subject the following individuals to the background investigation elements for protection of information:
E. The licensee must document the basis for concluding that an individual is trustworthy and reliable in order to be granted access to the security plan, implementing procedures, or the list of individuals that have been approved for unescorted access.
F. Licensees must maintain a list of persons currently approved for access to the security plan, implementing procedures, or the list of individuals that have been approved for unescorted access. When a licensee determines that a person no longer needs access to the security plan, implementing procedures, or the list of individuals that have been approved for unescorted access, or no longer meets the access authorization requirements for access to the information, the licensee must remove the person from the approved list as soon as possible, but no later than seven working days, and take prompt measures to ensure that the individual is unable to obtain the security plan, implementing procedures, or the list of individuals that have been approved for unescorted access.
G. When not in use, the licensee must store its security plan, implementing procedures, and the list of individuals that have been approved for unescorted access in a manner to prevent unauthorized access. Information stored in nonremovable electronic form must be password protected.
H. The licensee must retain as a record for three years after the document is no longer needed:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 40 SR 145; 46 SR 791
Minn. R. 4731.8060 Local Law Enforcement Agency (llea) Coordination
A. A licensee subject to parts 4731.8050 to 4731.8090 must coordinate, to the extent practicable, with an LLEA for responding to threats to the licensee's facility, including any necessary armed response. The information provided to the LLEA must include:
B. The licensee must notify the commissioner within three business days if:
C. The licensee must document its efforts to coordinate with the LLEA. The documentation must be kept for three years.
D. The licensee must coordinate with the LLEA at least every 12 months, or when changes to the facility design or operation adversely affect the potential vulnerability of the licensee's material to theft, sabotage, or diversion.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 40 SR 145
Minn. R. 4731.8065 Security Zones
A. Licensees must ensure that all aggregated category 1 and category 2 quantities of radioactive material are used or stored within licensee-established security zones. Security zones may be permanent or temporary.
B. Temporary security zones must be established as necessary to meet the licensee's transitory or intermittent business activities, such as periods of maintenance, source delivery, and source replacement.
C. Security zones must, at a minimum, allow unescorted access only to approved individuals through:
D. For category 1 quantities of radioactive material during periods of maintenance, source receipt, preparation for shipment, installation, or source removal or exchange, the licensee must, at a minimum, provide sufficient individuals approved for unescorted access to maintain continuous surveillance of sources in temporary security zones and in any security zone in which physical barriers or intrusion detection systems have been disabled to allow such activities.
E. Individuals not approved for unescorted access to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material must be escorted by an approved individual when in a security zone.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 40 SR 145
Minn. R. 4731.8070 Monitoring, Detection, and Assessment
Subpart 1. Monitoring and detection.
A. Licensees must establish and maintain the capability to continuously monitor and detect without delay all unauthorized entries into its security zones. Licensees must provide the means to maintain continuous monitoring and detection capability in the event of a loss of the primary power source, or provide for an alarm and response in the event of a loss of this capability to continuously monitor and detect unauthorized entries.
B. Monitoring and detection must be performed by:
C. A licensee subject to parts 4731.8050 to 4731.8090 must also have a means to detect unauthorized removal of the radioactive material from the security zone. This detection capability must provide:
Subp. 2. Assessment.
Licensees must immediately assess each actual or attempted unauthorized entry into the security zone to determine whether the unauthorized access was an actual or attempted theft, sabotage, or diversion.
Subp. 3. Personnel communications and data transmission.
For personnel and automated or electronic systems supporting the licensee's monitoring, detection, and assessment systems, licensees must:
A. maintain continuous capability for personnel communication and electronic data transmission and processing among site security systems; and
B. provide an alternative communication capability for personnel, and an alternative data transmission and processing capability, in the event of a loss of the primary means of communication or data transmission and processing. Alternative communications and data transmission systems may not be subject to the same failure modes as the primary systems.
Subp. 4. Response.
Licensees must immediately respond to any actual or attempted unauthorized access to the security zones, or actual or attempted theft, sabotage, or diversion of category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material at licensee facilities or temporary job sites. For any unauthorized access involving an actual or attempted theft, sabotage, or diversion of category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material, the licensee's response must include requesting, without delay, an armed response from the LLEA.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 40 SR 145
Minn. R. 4731.8075 Maintenance and Testing
A. Each licensee subject to parts 4731.8050 to 4731.8090 must implement a maintenance and testing program to ensure that intrusion alarms, associated communication systems, and other physical components of the systems used to secure or detect unauthorized access to radioactive material are maintained in operable condition and are capable of performing their intended function when needed. The equipment relied on to meet the security requirements of this part must be inspected and tested for operability and performance at the manufacturer's suggested frequency. If there is no suggested manufacturer's suggested frequency, the testing must be performed at least annually, not to exceed 12 months.
B. The licensee must maintain records on the maintenance and testing activities for three years.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 40 SR 145
Minn. R. 4731.8080 Requirements for Mobile Devices
Each licensee that possesses mobile devices containing category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material must:
A. have two independent physical controls that form tangible barriers to secure the material from unauthorized removal when the device is not under direct control and constant surveillance by the licensee; and
B. for devices in or on a vehicle or trailer, unless the health and safety requirements for a site prohibit the disabling of the vehicle, the licensee must utilize a method to disable the vehicle or trailer when not under direct control and constant surveillance by the licensee. Licensees must not rely on the removal of an ignition key to meet this requirement.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 40 SR 145
Minn. R. 4731.8085 Security Program Review
A. Each licensee must be responsible for the continuing effectiveness of the security program. Each licensee must ensure that the security program is reviewed to confirm compliance with the requirements of parts 4731.8050 to 4731.8090 and that comprehensive actions are taken to correct any noncompliance that is identified. The review must include the radioactive material security program content and implementation. Each licensee must, at least annually, review the security program content and implementation.
B. The results of the review, along with any recommendations, must be documented. Each review report must identify conditions that are adverse to the proper performance of the security program, the cause of the conditions, and, when appropriate, recommend corrective actions, and any corrective actions taken. The licensee must review the findings and take any additional corrective actions necessary to preclude repetition of the condition, including reassessment of the deficient areas where indicated.
C. The licensee must maintain the review documentation for three years.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 40 SR 145
Minn. R. 4731.8090 Reporting of Events
A. The licensee must immediately notify the local law enforcement agency (LLEA) after determining that an unauthorized entry resulted in an actual or attempted theft, sabotage, or diversion of a category 1 or category 2 quantity of radioactive material. As soon as possible after initiating a response, but not at the expense of causing delay or interfering with the LLEA response to the event, the licensee must notify the commissioner. In no case shall the notification to the commissioner be later than four hours after the discovery of any attempted or actual theft, sabotage, or diversion.
B. The licensee must assess any suspicious activity related to possible theft, sabotage, or diversion of category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material and notify the LLEA as appropriate. As soon as possible, but not later than four hours after notifying the LLEA, the licensee must notify the commissioner.
C. The initial telephone notification required by item A must be followed within 30 days by a written report submitted to the commissioner. The report must include sufficient information for the commissioner's analysis and evaluation, including identification of any necessary corrective actions to prevent future instances.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 40 SR 145
Minn. R. 4731.8100 Additional Requirements for Transfer of Category 1 and Category 2 Quantities of Radioactive Material
A licensee transferring a category 1 or category 2 quantity of radioactive material to a licensee of the commissioner, the NRC, or an agreement state must meet the license verification provisions of this part instead of those listed in part 4731.3105, subpart 3.
A. Any licensee transferring category 1 quantities of radioactive material to a licensee of the commissioner, the NRC, or an agreement state, prior to conducting the transfer, must verify with the NRC's license verification system or the license-issuing authority that the transferee's license authorizes the receipt of the type, form, and quantity of radioactive material to be transferred and that the licensee is authorized to receive radioactive material at the location requested for delivery. If the verification is conducted by contacting the license-issuing authority, the transferor must document the verification. For transfers within the same organization, the licensee does not need to verify the transfer.
B. Any licensee transferring category 2 quantities of radioactive material to a licensee of the commissioner, the NRC, or an agreement state, prior to conducting the transfer, must verify with the NRC's license verification system or the license-issuing authority that the transferee's license authorizes the receipt of the type, form, and quantity of radioactive material to be transferred. If the verification is conducted by contacting the license-issuing authority, the transferor must document the verification. For transfers within the same organization, the licensee does not need to verify the transfer.
C. In an emergency where the licensee cannot reach the license-issuing authority and the license verification system is nonfunctional, the licensee may accept a written certification by the transferee that it is authorized by license to receive the type, form, and quantity of radioactive material to be transferred. The certification must include the license number, current revision number, issuing agency, expiration date, and, for a category 1 shipment, the authorized address. The licensee must keep a copy of the certification. The certification must be confirmed by use of the NRC's license verification system or by contacting the license-issuing authority by the end of the next business day.
D. The transferor must keep a copy of the verification documentation as a record for three years.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 40 SR 145; 44 SR 239
Minn. R. 4731.8105 Applicability of Physical Protection of Category 1 and Category 2 Quantities of Radioactive Material During Transit
The shipping licensee must meet the requirements of parts 4731.8100 to 4731.8125 unless the receiving licensee has agreed in writing to arrange for the in-transit physical protection required under parts 4731.8100 to 4731.8125.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 40 SR 145
Minn. R. 4731.8110 Preplanning and Coordination of Shipment of Category 1 or Category 2 Quantities of Radioactive Material
A. Each licensee that plans to transport, or deliver to a carrier for transport, licensed material that is a category 1 quantity of radioactive material outside the confines of the licensee's facility or other place of use or storage must:
B. Each licensee that plans to transport, or deliver to a carrier for transport, licensed material that is a category 2 quantity of radioactive material outside the confines of the licensee's facility or other place of use or storage must coordinate the shipment no-later-than arrival time and the expected shipment arrival with the receiving licensee. The licensee must document the coordination activities.
C. Each licensee who receives a shipment of a category 2 quantity of radioactive material must confirm receipt of the shipment with the originator. If the shipment has not arrived by the no-later-than arrival time, the receiving licensee must notify the originator.
D. Each licensee who transports or plans to transport a shipment of a category 2 quantity of radioactive material, and determines that the shipment will arrive after the no-later-than arrival time provided in item B must promptly notify the receiving licensee of the new no-later-than arrival time.
E. The licensee must retain a copy of the documentation for preplanning and coordination, and any revision thereof, as a record for three years.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 40 SR 145
Minn. R. 4731.8115 Advance Notification of Shipment of Category 1 Quantities of Radioactive Material
Subpart 1. Advanced notification required.
As specified in subparts 2 and 3, each licensee must provide advance notification to the commissioner and the governor of a state, or the governor's designee, of the shipment of licensed material in a category 1 quantity, through or across the boundary of the state, before the transport or delivery to a carrier for transport of the licensed material outside the confines of the licensee's facility or other place of use or storage.
Subp. 2. Procedures for submitting advance notification.
A. The notification must be made to the commissioner and to the office of each appropriate governor or governor's designee. The contact information, including telephone numbers and mailing addresses, of governors and governors' designees, is available on the NRC website at https://scp.nrc.gov/special/designee.pdf. A list of the contact information is also available upon request from the Director, Division of Materials Safety, Security, State, and Tribal Programs, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001. Notifications to the commissioner must be to the Radioactive Materials Unit, Minnesota Department of Health, 625 Robert Street N, P.O. Box 64975, St. Paul, MN 55164-0975, or email at health.ram@state.mn.us.
B. A notification delivered by mail must be postmarked at least seven days before transport of the shipment commences at the shipping facility.
C. A notification delivered by any means other than mail must reach the commissioner at least four days before the transport of the shipment commences and must reach the office of the governor or the governor's designee at least four days before transport of a shipment within or through the state.
Subp. 3. Information to be furnished in advance notification of shipment.
Each advance notification of shipment of category 1 quantities of radioactive material must contain the following information, if available at the time of notification:
A. the name, address, and telephone number of the shipper, carrier, and receiver of the category 1 radioactive material;
B. the license numbers of the shipper and receiver;
C. a description of the radioactive material contained in the shipment, including the radionuclides and quantity;
D. the point of origin of the shipment and the estimated time and date that shipment will commence;
E. the estimated time and date that the shipment is expected to enter each state along the route;
F. the estimated time and date of arrival of the shipment at the destination; and
G. a point of contact, with a telephone number, for current shipment information.
Subp. 4. Revision notice.
A. The licensee must provide any information not previously available at the time of the initial notification, as soon as the information becomes available but not later than commencement of the shipment, to the governor of the state or the governor's designee and to the commissioner.
B. A licensee must promptly notify the governor of the state or the governor's designee of any changes to the information provided under item A and subpart 3. The licensee must also immediately notify the commissioner of any such changes.
Subp. 5. Cancellation notice.
Each licensee who cancels a shipment for which advance notification has been sent must send a cancellation notice to the commissioner and to the governor of each state or to the governor's designee previously notified. The licensee must send the cancellation notice before the shipment would have commenced or as soon thereafter as possible. The licensee must state in the notice that it is a cancellation and identify the advance notification that is being canceled.
Subp. 6. Records.
The licensee must retain a copy of the advance notification and any revision and cancellation notices as a record for three years.
Subp. 7. Protection of information.
State officials, state employees, and other individuals, whether or not licensees of the commissioner, the NRC, or an agreement state, who receive schedule information of the kind specified in subpart 3 must protect that information against unauthorized disclosure as specified in part 4731.8055, subpart 4.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 40 SR 145; 44 SR 239; 46 SR 791
Minn. R. 4731.8120 Physical Protection of Category 1 and Category 2 Quantities of Radioactive Material During Shipment
Subpart 1. Shipments by road.
A. Each licensee who transports, or delivers to a carrier for transport, in a single shipment, a category 1 quantity of radioactive material, must:
B. Each licensee who transports category 2 quantities of radioactive material must maintain constant control and/or surveillance during transit and have the capability for immediate communication to summon appropriate response or assistance.
C. Each licensee who delivers to a carrier for transport, in a single shipment, a category 2 quantity of radioactive material must:
Subp. 2. Shipments by rail.
A. Each licensee who transports, or delivers to a carrier for transport, in a single shipment a category 1 quantity of radioactive material must:
B. Each licensee who transports, or delivers to a carrier for transport, in a single shipment a category 2 quantity of radioactive material must:
Subp. 3. Investigations.
Each licensee who makes arrangements for the shipment of category 1 quantities of radioactive material must immediately conduct an investigation upon the discovery that a category 1 shipment is lost or missing. Each licensee who makes arrangements for the shipment of category 2 quantities of radioactive material must immediately conduct an investigation, in coordination with the receiving licensee, of any shipment that has not arrived by the designated no-later-than arrival time.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 40 SR 145
Minn. R. 4731.8125 Reporting of Events
A. The shipping licensee must notify the appropriate local law enforcement agency (LLEA) and the commissioner within one hour of its determination that a shipment of category 1 quantities of radioactive material is lost or missing. The appropriate LLEA is the law enforcement agency in the area of the shipment's last confirmed location. During the investigation required by part 4731.8120, subpart 3, the shipping licensee must provide agreed upon updates to the commissioner on the status of the investigation.
B. The shipping licensee must notify the commissioner within four hours of its determination that a shipment of category 2 quantities of radioactive material is lost or missing. If, after 24 hours of its determination that the shipment is lost or missing, the radioactive material has not been located and secured, the licensee must immediately notify the commissioner.
C. The shipping licensee must notify the designated LLEA along the shipment route as soon as possible upon discovery of any actual or attempted theft or diversion of a shipment or suspicious activities related to the theft or diversion of a shipment of a category 1 quantity of radioactive material. As soon as possible after notifying the LLEA, the licensee must notify the commissioner upon discovery of any actual or attempted theft or diversion of a shipment, or any suspicious activity related to the shipment of category 1 radioactive material.
D. The shipping licensee must notify the commissioner as soon as possible upon discovery of any actual or attempted theft or diversion of a shipment, or any suspicious activity related to the shipment, of a category 2 quantity of radioactive material.
E. The shipping licensee must notify the commissioner and the LLEA as soon as possible upon recovery of any lost or missing category 1 quantities of radioactive material.
F. The shipping licensee must notify the commissioner as soon as possible upon recovery of any lost or missing category 2 quantities of radioactive material.
G. The initial telephone notification required by items A to D must be followed within a period of 30 days by a written report submitted to the commissioner. The report must include:
H. Subsequent to filing the written report, the licensee must also report any additional substantive information on the loss or theft within 30 days after the licensee learns of such information.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 40 SR 145
Minn. R. 4731.8130 Form of Records
Each record required by this part must be legible throughout the retention period specified by the applicable rule part. The record may be the original or a reproduced copy or a microform, provided that the copy or microform is authenticated by authorized personnel and that the microform is capable of producing a clear copy throughout the required retention period. The record may also be stored in electronic media with the capability for producing legible, accurate, and complete records during the required retention period. Records such as letters, drawings, and specifications must include all pertinent information such as stamps, initials, and signatures. The licensee must maintain adequate safeguards against tampering with and loss of records.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 40 SR 145
Minn. R. 4731.8135 Record Retention
Licensees must maintain the records that are required by parts 4731.8000 to 4731.8140 for the period specified by the applicable rule. If a retention period is not otherwise specified, these records must be retained until the commissioner terminates the facility's license. All records related to parts 4731.8000 to 4731.8140 may be destroyed upon termination of the license.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 40 SR 145
Minn. R. 4731.8140 Category 1 and Category 2 Radioactive Materials
Subpart 1. Table 1 - category 1 and category 2 threshold.
The Terabecquerel (TBq) values are the regulatory standard. The curie (Ci) values specified are obtained by converting from the TBq value. The Ci values are provided for practical usefulness only.
Subp. 2. Calculations concerning multiple sources or multiple radionuclides.
The "sum of fractions" methodology for evaluating combinations of multiple sources or multiple radionuclides, described in items A and B, is to be used in determining whether a location meets or exceeds the threshold and is thus subject to the requirements of parts 4731.8000 to 4731.8140.
A. If multiple sources of the same radionuclide and/or multiple radionuclides are aggregated at a location, the sum of the ratios of the total activity of each of the radionuclides must be determined to verify whether the activity at the location is less than the category 1 or category 2 thresholds of Table 1, as appropriate. If the calculated sum of the ratios, using the equation below, is greater than or equal to 1.0, then the applicable requirements of parts 4731.8000 to 4731.8140 apply.
B. First determine the total activity for each radionuclide from Table 1. This is done by adding the activity of each individual source, material in any device, and any loose or bulk material that contains the radionuclide. Then use the equation in this item to calculate the sum of the ratios by inserting the total activity of the applicable radionuclides from Table 1 in the numerator of the equation and the corresponding threshold activity from Table 1 in the denominator of the equation. Calculations must be performed in metric values (i.e., TBq) and the numerator and denominator values must be in the same units. Where, R1 = total activity for radionuclide 1 R2 = total activity for radionuclide 2 Rn = total activity for radionuclide n AR1 = activity threshold for radionuclide 1 AR2 = activity threshold for radionuclide 2 ARn = activity threshold for radionuclide n
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.1201; 144.1202; 144.1203; 144.1204; 144.1205
- History: 40 SR 145; 49 SR 1193
Chapter 4732 IONIZING RADIATION
Minn. R. 4732.0100 Purpose and Scope
Subpart 1. Purpose.
The purpose of this chapter is to control and prevent hazards to health and safety from ionizing radiation without limiting or interfering with its constructive uses.
Subp. 2. Scope.
Except as otherwise specified, this chapter applies to all persons who receive, possess, use, transfer, own, or acquire any radiation-producing equipment. The scope of this chapter does not include those sources of ionizing radiation known as radioactive materials, which are covered under chapter 4731.
Subp. 3. Additional requirements.
In addition to the requirements established in this chapter, the commissioner must impose upon any registrant any requirements deemed appropriate or necessary to minimize danger to public health and safety.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0110 Definitions
Subpart 1. Scope.
For purposes of this chapter, the terms in this part have the meanings given them.
Subp. 2. Absorbed dose.
"Absorbed dose" means the energy imparted by ionizing radiation per unit mass of irradiated material. The special unit of absorbed dose is the rad under the conventional system of measurement and is the gray under the SI system of measurement.
Subp. 3. Absorbed dose rate.
"Absorbed dose rate" means absorbed dose per unit time for machine with timers, or dose-monitor unit per unit time for linear accelerators.
Subp. 4. Accelerator.
"Accelerator" means any machine capable of accelerating electrons, protons, deuterons, or other charged particles in a vacuum and of discharging the resultant particulate or other radiation into a medium at energies usually in excess of 1 MeV. For purposes of this definition, linear accelerator, particle accelerator, and cyclotron are equivalent terms.
Subp. 5. Added filtration.
"Added filtration" means filtration that is in addition to the inherent filtration.
Subp. 6. Adult.
"Adult" means an individual 18 or more years of age or older.
Subp. 7. Air kerma (K).
"Air kerma (K)" means the kinetic energy released in air by ionizing radiation. Kerma is determined as the quotient of dE by dM, where dE is the sum of the initial kinetic energies of all the charged ionizing particles liberated by uncharged ionizing particles in air of mass dM. The special name for the unit of kerma is the gray (Gy). The SI unit is joule per kilogram.
Subp. 8. Aluminum equivalent.
"Aluminum equivalent" means the thickness of type 1100 aluminum alloy affording the same attenuation, under specified conditions, as the material in question.
Subp. 9. Annual.
"Annual" means an activity is done or is performed at intervals not to exceed 12 months.
Subp. 10. Appropriate limit or appropriate limits.
"Appropriate limit" or "appropriate limits" means the maximum permissible dose or doses of radiation that may be administered to the whole body or a given part of a human being.
Subp. 11. As low as reasonably achievable or ALARA.
"As low as reasonably achievable" or "ALARA" means making every reasonable effort to maintain exposure to radiation as far below the dose limits as is practical, consistent with the purpose for which the registered activity is undertaken, taking into account the state of technology, the economics of improvement in relation to benefits to the public health and safety, and other societal and socioeconomic considerations.
Subp. 12. Attenuation.
"Attenuation" means the reduction of exposure rate upon passage of radiation through matter.
Subp. 13. Attenuation block.
"Attenuation block" means a block or stack, having dimensions 20 centimeters or larger by 20 centimeters or larger by 3.8 centimeters, of type 1100 aluminum alloy or other materials having equivalent attenuation that is large enough to intercept the entire x-ray beam.
Subp. 14. Audit.
"Audit" means a planned and documented activity performed according to procedures to determine, by examination and evaluation of objective evidence, the adequacy of and extent to which applicable elements of the quality assurance program have been developed, documented, and effectively implemented.
Subp. 15. Automatic exposure control or AEC.
"Automatic exposure control" or "AEC" means a device that automatically controls one or more technique factors in order to obtain a required quantity of radiation at a preselected location or locations.
Subp. 16. Base plus fog density.
"Base plus fog density" means the optical density of a film due to its base density plus any action of the developer on the unexposed silver halide crystals.
Subp. 17. Beam axis.
"Beam axis" means a line from the source through the centers of the x-ray fields, or for therapy the axis of rotation of the beam-limiting device.
Subp. 18. Beam-limiting device or BLD.
"Beam-limiting device" or "BLD" means a device used to restrict the dimensions of the x-ray field or useful beam.
Subp. 19. Beam-monitoring system.
"Beam-monitoring system" means a system designed and installed to detect and measure the radiation present in the useful beam.
Subp. 20. Beam-scattering filter or foil.
"Beam-scattering filter" or "foil" means a thin piece of material, usually metallic, placed in the beam to scatter a beam of electrons in order to provide a more uniform electron distribution in the useful beam.
Subp. 21. Bent beam linear accelerator.
"Bent beam linear accelerator" means a linear accelerator geometry in which the accelerated electron beam must change direction by passing through a bending magnet.
Subp. 22. Bone densitometry system.
"Bone densitometry system" means a medical device that uses electronically produced ionizing radiation to determine the density of bone structures of human patients.
Subp. 23. C-arm system.
"C-arm system" means an x-ray system in which the image receptor and the x-ray tube housing assembly are connected by a common mechanical support system to maintain a desired spatial relation.
Subp. 24. Cabinet x-ray system.
"Cabinet x-ray system" means an x-ray system with the x-ray tube installed in an enclosure independent of existing architectural structure except the floor on which it may be placed. The cabinet x-ray system is intended to:
A. contain at least that portion of a material being irradiated;
B. provide radiation attenuation; and
C. exclude personnel from its interior during generation of radiation. Included are all x-ray systems designed primarily for the inspection of carry-on baggage at airline, railroad, and bus terminals and in similar facilities. An x-ray tube used within a shielded part of a building or x-ray equipment that may temporarily or occasionally incorporate portable shielding is not considered a cabinet x-ray system.
Subp. 25. Calibration.
"Calibration" means:
A. the determination of the response or reading of an instrument relative to a series of known radiation values over the range of the instrument;
B. the determination of the radiation dose or exposure rate at a designated distance from a radiation source under specified conditions of measurement;
C. to check, adjust, or systematically standardize to graduations of a quantitative measuring instrument; and
D. to check, adjust, or systematically bring radiation-producing equipment into manufacturer's specifications.
Subp. 26. Cephalometric device.
"Cephalometric device" means a device intended for the radiographic visualization and measurement of the dimensions of the human head.
Subp. 27. Certified cabinet x-ray system.
"Certified cabinet x-ray system" means an x-ray system that has been certified according to Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, section 1010.2, as being manufactured and assembled pursuant to Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, section 1020.40.
Subp. 28. Certified components.
"Certified components" means components of x-ray systems that are subject to the x-ray equipment performance standards adopted under Public Law 90-602, the Radiation Control for Health and Safety Act of 1968.
Subp. 29. Certified system.
"Certified system" means an x-ray system that has one or more certified components.
Subp. 30. Changeable filters.
"Changeable filters" means any filter, exclusive of inherent filtration, that can be removed from the useful beam through any electronic, mechanical, or physical process.
Subp. 31. Clinical range.
"Clinical range" means the range of control console technique settings that a facility would use in its routine x-ray projections. Equipment performance tests are performed over clinical ranges.
Subp. 32. Coefficient of variation or C.
"Coefficient of variation" or "C" means the standard deviation divided by the average of the parameters measured.
Subp. 33. Collimation.
"Collimation" means the restriction of the useful beam to an appropriate area.
Subp. 34. Collimator.
"Collimator" means a device used to limit the size, shape, and direction of the primary beam.
Subp. 35. Commissioner.
"Commissioner" means the commissioner of the Department of Health.
Subp. 36. Computed radiography.
"Computed radiography" means a system of creating digital radiographic images that utilizes a storage-phosphor plate instead of film in a cassette. Once the plate is exposed, a laser beam scans it to produce the digital data that is translated into an image.
Subp. 37. Computed tomography or CT.
"Computed tomography" or "CT" means the production of a tomogram by the acquisition and computer processing of x-ray transmission data.
Subp. 38. Control panel.
"Control panel" means the part of the x-ray control upon which the switches, knobs, push buttons, and other hardware necessary for manually setting the technique factors are mounted.
Subp. 39. CT conditions of operation.
"CT conditions of operation" means all selectable parameters governing the operation of a CT system including, but not limited to, nominal tomographic section thickness, filtration, and the technique factors defined in subpart 195.
Subp. 40. CT dose index or CTDI.
"CT dose index" or "CTDI" means the integral from minus 7T to plus 7T of the dose profile along a line perpendicular to the tomographic plane divided by the product of the nominal tomographic section thickness (T) and the number of tomograms produced in a single scan (n), that is:
where:
z = position along a line perpendicular to the tomographic plane;
D(z) = dose at position z;
T = nominal tomographic section thickness; and
n = number of tomograms produced in a single scan.
This definition assumes that the dose profile is centered around z=0 and that, for a multiple tomogram system, the increment of adjacent scans is nT.
Subp. 41. CT gantry.
"CT gantry" means the tube housing assemblies, beam-limiting devices, and detectors, as well as the supporting structures and frames that hold those components.
Subp. 42. CT number.
"CT number" means the number used to represent the x-ray attenuation associated with each elemental area of the CT image.
Subp. 43. CT scan.
"CT scan" means the complete process of collecting x-ray transmission data for the production of a tomogram. This includes data collected simultaneously during a single scan for the production of one or more tomogram.
Subp. 44. CT scan increment.
"CT scan increment" means the amount of relative displacement of the patient with respect to the CT system between successive scans measured along the direction of the displacement.
Subp. 45. CT scan time.
"CT scan time" means the time between the beginning and end of x-ray transmission data accumulation for a CT scan.
Subp. 46. Dead-man switch.
"Dead-man switch" means a switch so constructed that a circuit-closing contact can be maintained only by continuous pressure on the switch by the operator.
Subp. 47. Declared pregnant woman.
"Declared pregnant woman" means a woman who has voluntarily informed the registrant, in writing, of her pregnancy and the estimated date of conception. The declaration remains in effect until the declared pregnant woman withdraws the declaration in writing or is no longer pregnant.
Subp. 48. Densitometer.
"Densitometer" means an instrument that measures the degree of blackening or radiographic density of a film due to radiation or light by measuring the ratio of the light intensity incident on the film to the light intensity transmitted by the film.
Subp. 49. Diagnostic radiological physicist.
"Diagnostic radiological physicist" means an individual who is qualified to practice independently in the appropriate subfields for medical diagnostic physics and is:
A. certified in radiological physics or diagnostic radiological physics by the American Board of Radiology;
B. certified in diagnostic physics by the American Board of Medical Physics;
C. certified in diagnostic physics by the Canadian College of Medical Physics; or
D. a holder of a masters degree in medical physics, radiological sciences, or an equivalent field involving graduate study in physics applied to the application of radiation to humans from an accredited college or university and has at least two years of full-time practical training or supervised experience under an individual who meets the qualifications in item A, B, or C.
Subp. 50. Diagnostic x-ray imaging system.
"Diagnostic x-ray imaging system" means an assemblage of components for the generation, emissions, and reception of x-rays and the transformation, storage, and visual display of the resultant x-ray image which are designed and used for irradiation of any part of a body for the purpose of diagnosis or visualization.
Subp. 51. Digital radiography.
"Digital radiography" means a radiographic image displayed on a video monitor after computer processing.
Subp. 52. Direct supervision.
"Direct supervision" means guidance and instruction by a qualified individual who is physically present and watching the performance of the radiological operation or procedure and in such proximity that contact can be maintained and immediate assistance can be given as required.
Subp. 53. Dose.
"Dose" means absorbed radiation dose, radiation dose equivalent, effective radiation dose equivalent, committed radiation dose equivalent, committed effective radiation dose equivalent, or total effective radiation dose equivalent. For purposes of this chapter, "radiation dose" is an equivalent term.
Subp. 54. Dose equivalent or DE.
"Dose equivalent" or "DE" means a quantity used for radiation protection purposes that expresses on a common scale for all radiations the irradiation incurred by exposed persons. It is defined as the product of the absorbed radiation dose and the quality factor. For x-rays and gamma rays, the dose equivalent in rem is usually assumed to be numerically equal to either the exposure in roentgens or the absorbed dose in rad. The special unit radiation dose equivalent is the rem under the conventional measurement system and is the sievert under the SI measurement system.
Subp. 55. Dose limits or limits.
"Dose limits" or "limits" means the permissible upper bounds of radiation doses.
Subp. 56. Dose-monitoring system.
"Dose-monitoring system" means a system of devices for the detection, measurement, and display of quantities of radiation that can be related to the absorbed dose at a given location within a defined geometry.
Subp. 57. Dose-monitor unit.
"Dose-monitor unit" means a unit response from the dose-monitoring system from which the absorbed radiation dose has been calculated.
Subp. 58. Effective dose equivalent or HE.
"Effective dose equivalent" or "HE" means the sum of the products of the dose equivalent to each organ or tissue (HT) and the weighting factor (wT) applicable to each of the body organs or tissues that are irradiated.
Subp. 59. Electron-beam generator.
"Electron-beam generator" means a type of electron accelerator in which the electron beam is brought out into the atmosphere for irradiation purposes.
Subp. 60. Electronic signature.
"Electronic signature" means an electronic sound, symbol, or process attached to or logically associated with a record, and executed or adopted by a person with the intent to sign the record according to Minnesota Statutes, chapter 325L.
Subp. 61. Exposure.
"Exposure" means being exposed to ionizing radiation. The unit of exposure is the Roentgen in air (R). The SI unit is 2.58 x 10-4 coulombs per kilogram.
Subp. 62. Exposure rate.
"Exposure rate" means the exposure per unit of time, such as roentgen per minute, milliroentgen per hour. The SI unit is 10-4 coulombs per kilogram per hour.
Subp. 63. External beam radiation therapy.
"External beam radiation therapy" means therapeutic irradiation in which the source of radiation is at a distance from the body.
Subp. 64. Facility.
"Facility" means the location at which one or more sources of radiation are installed or located within one building, one vehicle, at one address, and are under the same administrative control.
Subp. 65. Field emission equipment.
"Field emission equipment" means equipment that uses an x-ray tube in which electron emission from the cathode is due solely to the action of an electric field.
Subp. 66. Field-flattening filter.
"Field-flattening filter" means a filter used to homogenize the absorbed dose rate over the radiation field.
Subp. 67. Filmless radiography or photostimulable storage phosphor (PSP) imaging.
"Filmless radiography" or "photostimulable storage phosphor (PSP) imaging" means a system that could employ reusable imaging plates, associated hardware and software to acquire and display digital projection radiographs. These imaging devices are known by a number of names including computed radiography (CR), photostimulable storage phosphor (PSP) imaging, or digital radiography (DR). In the digital form, PSP images are readily put into picture archiving and communications systems and viewed on a monitor rather than viewing an image on x-ray film.
Subp. 68. Filter or filtration.
"Filter" or "filtration" means material placed in the useful beam to preferentially absorb selected radiations.
Subp. 69. Fluoroscopic imaging assembly.
"Fluoroscopic imaging assembly" means a subsystem in which x-ray photons produce a set of fluoroscopic or radiographic recorded images from the fluoroscopic image receptor. Fluoroscopic imaging assembly includes image receptors such as the image intensifier and spot-film device, electrical interlocks, if any, and structural material providing linkage between the image receptor and diagnostic source assembly.
Subp. 70. Focal spot.
"Focal spot" means the area of the anode of the x-ray tube bombarded by the electrons accelerated from the cathode and from which the useful beam originates.
Subp. 71. Gantry.
"Gantry" means the part of the system supporting and allowing possible movements of the radiation head.
Subp. 72. General purpose radiographic x-ray system.
"General purpose radiographic x-ray system" means a radiographic x-ray system that, by design, is not limited to radiographic examination of specific anatomical regions.
Subp. 73. Gonad shield.
"Gonad shield" means a protective barrier for the testes or ovaries.
Subp. 74. Gray or Gy.
"Gray" or "Gy" means the unit of absorbed radiation dose equal to one joule per kilogram. The conventional system equivalent is 100 rad.
Subp. 75. Half-value layer or HVL.
"Half-value layer" or "HVL" means the thickness of a specified material that attenuates the beam of radiation to such an extent that the exposure rate is reduced to one-half of its original value. The contribution of all scattered radiation, other than any that might be present initially in the beam concerned, is considered excluded.
Subp. 76. Healing arts.
"Healing arts" means health professions for diagnostic or healing treatment of human and animal maladies that are regulated under Minnesota Statutes, chapter 147, 153, or 156; or section 148.01, 148.106, or 150A.05, subdivision 1, clause (4), for the lawful practice of medicine, dentistry, veterinary medicine, osteopathic medicine, chiropractic, and podiatry.
Subp. 77. Healing arts screening or screening.
"Healing arts screening" or "screening" means the testing of individuals with x-ray equipment to detect or evaluate health conditions when the tests are not specifically and individually ordered by a licensed practitioner of the healing arts who is legally authorized to prescribe the tests for the purpose of diagnosis or treatment.
Subp. 78. High radiation area.
"High radiation area" means any area, accessible to individuals, in which radiation levels from radiation sources external to the body could result in an individual receiving a radiation dose equivalent in excess of 0.1 rem (1.0 mSv) in one hour at 30 centimeters from any source of radiation or 30 centimeters from any surface that the radiation penetrates.
Subp. 79. Image intensifier.
"Image intensifier" means a device, installed in its housing, that instantaneously converts an x-ray pattern into a corresponding light image of higher energy intensity.
Subp. 80. Image quality.
"Image quality" means the overall clarity and detail of a radiographic image. Limiting spatial resolution (or resolving power), image sharpness, and image contrast are three common measures of image quality.
Subp. 81. Image receptor.
"Image receptor" means a device such as a fluorescent screen or radiographic film, solid-state detector, or gaseous detector that transforms incident x-ray photons either into a visible image or into another form that can be made into a visible image by further transformations.
Subp. 82. Individual.
"Individual" means a human being.
Subp. 83. Individual monitoring.
"Individual monitoring" means the assessment of dose equivalent by the use of individual monitoring devices or by the use of radiation survey data.
Subp. 84. Individual monitoring devices.
"Individual monitoring devices" means devices designed to be worn by a single individual for the assessment of dose equivalent. For purposes of this chapter, "personal dosimeter" and "dosimeter" are equivalent terms. Examples of individual monitoring devices are film badges, thermoluminescent devices, pocket ionization chambers, and optically stimulated luminescence devices.
Subp. 85. Industrial cabinet baggage system.
"Industrial cabinet baggage system" has the meaning given for cabinet x-ray systems in subpart 24.
Subp. 86. Industrial vault radiography.
"Industrial vault radiography" means industrial radiography conducted in an enclosure, shielded so that radiation levels at every location on the exterior meet the unrestricted limitations in this chapter.
Subp. 87. Industrial radiographer.
"Industrial radiographer" means any individual who performs or who, in attendance at the site where ionizing radiation sources are being used, personally supervises industrial radiographic operations and who is responsible to the registrant for ensuring compliance with this chapter.
Subp. 88. Industrial radiographer's assistant.
"Industrial radiographer's assistant" means an individual who uses radiographic exposure devices or radiation survey instruments in industrial radiography under the supervision of an industrial radiographer.
Subp. 89. Industrial radiography.
"Industrial radiography" means an examination of the structure of materials by the nondestructive methods of utilizing ionizing radiation to make images. Industrial radiography does not include cabinet x-ray or the use of ionizing radiation-producing equipment to measure thickness, to identify levels and material in containers, or to analyze the chemical compositions. Industrial x-ray does not include the use of ionizing radiation-producing equipment in forensic, medical, or veterinary research.
Subp. 90. Inherent filtration.
"Inherent filtration" means the filtration of the useful beam provided by the permanently installed components of the tube housing assembly.
Subp. 91. Inspection.
"Inspection" means an official examination or observation, including but not limited to tests, radiation surveys, and monitoring to determine compliance with rules, regulations, and requirements of the commissioner.
Subp. 92. Instrument traceability.
"Instrument traceability" for ionizing radiation measurements means the ability to show that an instrument has been calibrated at specified time intervals using a national standard or a transfer standard. If a transfer standard is used, the calibration must be at a laboratory accredited by a program that requires continuing participation in measurement quality assurance with the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), or other equivalent national or international programs.
Subp. 93. Interlock.
"Interlock" means a device that automatically causes a reduction of the exposure rate upon entry by personnel into a high radiation area. An interlocking device must prevent the start or continued operation of equipment unless certain predetermined conditions prevail.
Subp. 94. Ionizing radiation.
"Ionizing radiation" means any radiation capable of producing displacing electrons from atoms or molecules, thereby producing ions. Examples: alpha, beta, gamma, x-ray, and neutron radiation.
Subp. 95. Irradiation.
"Irradiation" means the exposure of a living being or matter to ionizing radiation.
Subp. 96. Isocenter.
"Isocenter" means a fixed point in space through which pass the central axes of radiation beams for all possible beam orientations and field sizes.
Subp. 97. Kilovolt peak or kVp.
"Kilovolt peak" or "kVp" has the meaning given for peak tube potential in subpart 120.
Subp. 98. Lead equivalence or lead equivalent.
"Lead equivalence" or "lead equivalent" means the thickness of lead affording the same attenuation, under specified conditions, as the material in question.
Subp. 99. Leakage radiation.
"Leakage radiation" means radiation emanating from the radiation source assembly except for the useful beam and radiation produced when the exposure switch or timer is not activated.
Subp. 100. Leakage technique factors.
"Leakage technique factors" means the technique factors associated with the diagnostic or therapeutic source assembly that are used in measuring leakage radiation.
Subp. 101. Licensed practitioner of the healing arts.
"Licensed practitioner of the healing arts" means health professionals for diagnostic or healing treatment of human and animal maladies, which are licensed under Minnesota Statutes, chapter 147, 153, or 156; or section 148.01, 148.106, or 150A.05, subdivision 1, clause (4), for the lawful practice of medicine, dentistry, veterinary medicine, osteopathic medicine, chiropractic, and podiatry.
Subp. 102. Light field.
"Light field" means the area of the intersection of the light beam from the beam-limiting device and one of the set of planes parallel to and including the plane of the image receptor whose perimeter is the locus of points at which the illumination is one-fourth of the maximum in the intersection.
Subp. 103. Line-voltage regulation.
"Line-voltage regulation" means the difference between the no-load and the load line potentials expressed as a percent of the load line potential. It is calculated using the following equation:
Percent line-voltage regulation = 100 (Vn - V1)/V1
Subp. 104. mA.
"mA" means milliampere.
Subp. 105. mAs.
"mAs" means milliampere-second.
Subp. 106. Maximum line current.
"Maximum line current" means the root-mean-square current in the supply line of an x-ray system operating at its maximum rating.
Subp. 107. Medical event.
"Medical event" means the administration of radiation received from radiation-producing equipment and includes:
A. therapeutic administration involving:
B. when the patient radiation dose during a fluoroscopic procedure exceeds 600 rads for an adult.
Subp. 108. Medical particle accelerator.
"Medical particle accelerator" has the meaning given for accelerator in subpart 4.
Subp. 109. Medical physicist.
"Medical physicist" has the meaning given for diagnostic radiological physicist in subpart 49, or therapeutic radiological physicist in subpart 200.
Subp. 110. Medical uses.
"Medical uses" means the intentional internal or external administration of radiation to human and animal patients or human research subjects.
Subp. 111. Megavolt (MV) or mega electron volt (MeV).
"Megavolt," "MV," or "mega electron volt," "MeV," means the energy equal to that acquired by a particle with one electron charge in passing through a potential difference of 1,000,000 volts in a vacuum. Current convention is to use MV for photons and MeV for electrons.
Subp. 112. Moving beam radiation therapy.
"Moving beam radiation therapy" means radiation therapy with continuous displacement of one or more mechanical axes relative to the patient during irradiation. It includes arc therapy, skip therapy, conformal therapy, and rotational therapy.
Subp. 113. Nominal tomographic section thickness.
"Nominal tomographic section thickness" means the full width at half-maximum at the center of the cross-sectional volume over which x-ray transmission data are collected.
Subp. 114. Nominal treatment distance.
"Nominal treatment distance" means:
A. for electron irradiation, the distance from the scattering foil, virtual source, or exit window of the electron beam to the entrance surface of the irradiated object along the central axis of the useful beam;
B. for x-ray irradiation, the virtual source or target to isocenter distance along the central axis of the useful beam; and
C. for nonisocentric equipment, the distance specified by the manufacturer.
Subp. 115. Nonstochastic effects.
"Nonstochastic effects" means health effects the severity of which varies with the radiation dose, and for which a threshold is believed to exist. Radiation-induced cataract formation is an example of a nonstochastic effect.
Subp. 116. Occupational dose.
"Occupational dose" means the dose received by an individual in the course of employment in which the individual's assigned duties for the registrant involve exposure to radiation-producing equipment, whether or not the radiation-producing equipment is in the possession of the registrant. Occupational dose does not include doses received from background radiation, from any medical administration the individual has received, from exposure to individuals administered radioactive material and released in accordance with chapter 4731, from voluntary participation in medical research programs, or as a member of the public.
Subp. 117. Open-beam configuration.
"Open-beam configuration" means an analytical x-ray system in which an individual could accidentally place some part of the body in the primary beam or secondary scattered beam path during normal operation.
Subp. 118. Optical density or O.D.
"Optical density" or "O.D." means the logarithm of the incident light intensity minus the logarithm of the transmitted light intensity.
Subp. 119. Patient.
"Patient" means an individual or animal subjected to healing arts examination, diagnosis, or treatment.
Subp. 120. Peak tube potential.
"Peak tube potential" means the maximum value of the potential difference across the x-ray tube during an exposure.
Subp. 121. Permanent radiographic installation.
"Permanent radiographic installation" means a shielded enclosed room, cell, vault, or structure that is not moved and is not located at a temporary job site. The installation is designed or intended for radiography, and in which radiography is regularly performed.
Subp. 122. Person.
"Person" means any individual, corporation, partnership, firm, association, trust, estate, public or private institution, group, agency, political subdivision of this state, and any legal successor, representative, agent or agency of the foregoing, excluding federal government agencies.
Subp. 123. Personal protective garments.
"Personal protective garments" mean garments, including aprons, gloves, and thyroid collars made of radiation absorbing materials used to reduce radiation exposure.
Subp. 124. Personal monitoring dosimeter.
"Personal monitoring dosimeter" has the meaning given for individual monitoring devices in subpart 84.
Subp. 125. Phantom.
"Phantom" means a volume of material behaving in a manner similar to tissue with respect to the attenuation and scattering of radiation.
Subp. 126. Phototimer.
"Phototimer" means a method for controlling radiation exposures to image receptors by measuring the amount of radiation that reaches a radiation monitoring device. A radiation monitoring device is part of an electronic circuit that controls the duration of time the x-ray tube is activated. "Phototimer" includes the meaning given for automatic exposure control in subpart 15.
Subp. 126a. Physician assistant.
"Physician assistant" means a person registered according to Minnesota Statutes, chapter 147A, who is qualified by academic, practical training, or both to provide patient services as specified in the physician-physician assistant agreement recognized by the Minnesota Board of Medical Practice.
Subp. 127. Pixel or picture element.
"Pixel" or "picture element" means an elemental area of a digital image.
Subp. 128. Port film or portal imaging.
"Port film" or "portal imaging" means a radiographic film or electronic image taken with a therapeutic x-ray system to verify proper setup of the treatment field.
Subp. 129. Positive beam limiting or limitation or PBL.
"Positive beam limiting or limitation" or "PBL" means the automatic or semiautomatic adjustment of an x-ray beam to the size of the selected image receptor, whereby exposures cannot be made without this adjustment.
Subp. 130. Position-indicating device or PID.
"Position-indicating device" or "PID" means a device on dental x-ray equipment used to indicate the beam position and to establish the source-to-skin distance.
Subp. 131. Prescribed dose.
"Prescribed dose" means the total radiation dose and radiation dose per fraction as documented in the written directive or therapeutic order.
Subp. 132. Primary beam.
"Primary beam" means radiation that passes through an aperture of the source housing by a direct path from the x-ray tube located in the radiation-producing equipment housing.
Subp. 133. Primary dose-monitoring system.
"Primary dose-monitoring system" means a system that will monitor the useful beam during irradiation and will terminate irradiation when a preselected number of dose monitor units have been acquired.
Subp. 134. Primary protective barrier.
"Primary protective barrier" means the material, excluding filters, placed in the useful beam for protection purposes to reduce the radiation exposure.
Subp. 135. Protective apron.
"Protective apron" see personal protective garments in subpart 123.
Subp. 136. Protective barrier or barrier.
"Protective barrier" or "barrier" means a barrier of radiation absorbing materials used to reduce radiation exposure.
Subp. 137. Protective glove.
"Protective glove," see personal protective garments in subpart 123.
Subp. 138. Pulsed mode.
"Pulsed mode" means operation of an x-ray system so that the x-ray tube current is pulsed by the x-ray control to produce one or more exposure intervals of less than one-half second duration.
Subp. 139. Quality assurance program.
"Quality assurance program" means an all-encompassing program including quality control that extends to administrative, education, and preventive maintenance methods. It includes a continuing evaluation of the adequacy and effectiveness of the overall imaging program, with a view to initiating corrective measures when necessary. The nature and extent of this program will vary with the size and type of the facility, and the type of activities conducted.
Subp. 140. Quality control.
"Quality control" means a series of distinct technical procedures that ensure the production of a satisfactory product. Its aim is to provide quality that is not only satisfactory but also dependable and economic. The quality control procedures are concerned directly with the equipment.
Subp. 141. Quarter.
"Quarter" means at intervals not to exceed 12 consecutive weeks.
Subp. 142. Rad.
"Rad" means the special unit of absorbed dose. The SI equivalent is 0.01 gray.
Subp. 143. Radiation.
"Radiation" means ionizing radiation.
Subp. 144. Radiation area.
"Radiation area" means an area accessible to individuals in which the radiation levels could result in an individual receiving a dose equivalent in excess of 0.005 rem (0.05 mSv) in one hour at 30 centimeters from the source of radiation or from any surface that the radiation penetrates.
Subp. 145. Radiation detector or detector.
"Radiation detector" or "detector" means a device that in the presence of radiation provides a signal or other indication suitable for use in measuring one or more quantities of incident radiation.
Subp. 146. Radiation head.
"Radiation head" means the structure from which the useful beam emerges.
Subp. 147. Radiation-producing equipment.
"Radiation-producing equipment" means any device capable of producing radiation.
Subp. 148. Radiation protection.
"Radiation protection" means the use of time, distance, shielding, and other personnel protective garments.
Subp. 149. Radiation safety officer.
"Radiation safety officer" means an individual who has the knowledge and training to apply appropriate radiation protection standards, and has been assigned such responsibility by the registrant.
Subp. 150. Radiation therapy simulation system.
"Radiation therapy simulation system" means a radiographic, fluoroscopic, or CT x-ray system including all software applicable to the process intended for localizing the volume to be exposed during radiation therapy and confirming the position and size of the therapeutic irradiation field.
Subp. 151. Radiograph.
"Radiograph" means an image produced on a radiosensitive surface, such as a photographic film or digital plate, by radiation other than visible light, such as by x-rays passed through an object or by photographing a fluoroscopic image that results in a permanent record.
Subp. 152. Radiographic imaging system.
"Radiographic imaging system" means any system where a permanent or semipermanent image is recorded on an image receptor by the action of ionizing radiation.
Subp. 152a. Radiology practitioner assistant or RPA.
"Radiology practitioner assistant" or "RPA" means an individual who is an advanced level radiographer registered with the American Registry of Radiologic Technologists and certified by the Certification Board for Radiology Practitioner Assistants. The individual is qualified by completion of an educational program recognized by the Board of Directors of the Certification Board for Radiology Practitioner Assistants. The RPA may provide patient services as specified in an agreement with a supervising radiologist.
Subp. 153. Rated line voltage.
"Rated line voltage" means the range of potentials, in volts, of the supply line specified by the manufacturer at which the radiation-producing equipment is designed to operate.
Subp. 154. Rating.
"Rating" means the operating limits as specified by the component manufacturer.
Subp. 155. Recording.
"Recording" means producing a retrievable form of an image resulting from x-ray photons.
Subp. 156. Reference man.
"Reference man" means a hypothetical aggregation of human physical and physiological characteristics. These characteristics may be used by researchers and public health workers to standardize results of experiments and to relate biological insult to a common base.
Subp. 157. Reference plane.
"Reference plane" means a plane that is displaced from and parallel to the tomographic plane.
Subp. 159. Registered radiologist assistant or RRA.
"Registered radiologist assistant" or "RRA" means a person who is an advanced level radiographer certified and registered in radiography by the American Registry of Radiologic Technologists and has successfully completed all elements of a radiologist assistant educational program recognized by the ARRT. The RRA would be able to provide patient services as specified in an agreement with a supervising radiologist.
Subp. 160. Registrant.
"Registrant" means:
A. a person having administrative control of any radiation-producing equipment except those specifically exempted under this chapter and who is legally obligated to register with the commissioner according to this chapter; or
B. a person who is legally obligated to register with the commissioner as a service provider.
Subp. 161. Registration.
"Registration" means registration with the commissioner according to this chapter.
Subp. 162. Rem.
"Rem" means a special unit of dose equivalence. The SI equivalent is 0.01 sievert.
Subp. 163. Restricted area.
"Restricted area" means any area to which access or egress may be limited by the registrant for purposes of protection of individuals from exposure to radiation.
Subp. 164. Retake or reject.
"Retake" or "reject" means any diagnostic radiographic imaging that had to be retaken, reexposing the patient to radiation because of some error, failure, or degradation in the radiographic imaging process.
Subp. 165. Retake or reject analysis program.
"Retake or reject analysis program" means an ongoing analysis of retakes or rejects that provides information about existing imaging problems in a radiology department.
Subp. 166. Roentgen or R.
"Roentgen" or "R" means a special unit of exposure. The roentgen is equal to 2.58 x 10-4 coulombs per kilogram of air.
Subp. 167. Scattered radiation or secondary radiation.
"Scattered radiation" or "secondary radiation" means radiation that, during passage through matter, has been deviated in direction and may have also been modified by a decrease in energy.
Subp. 168. Secondary dose-monitoring system.
"Secondary dose-monitoring system" means a system that will terminate irradiation if the primary dose-monitoring system fails.
Subp. 169. Secondary protective barrier.
"Secondary protective barrier" means a barrier sufficient to attenuate stray radiation.
Subp. 170. Sensitometer.
"Sensitometer" means an instrument designed to reproducibly expose a piece of film to a number of different levels of light intensity.
Subp. 171. Sensitometric strip.
"Sensitometric strip" means a film exposed by a sensitometer, resulting in a gray scale range. The strips are used to measure the range of densities from minimum to maximum.
Subp. 172. Sensitometry.
"Sensitometry" means a quantitative measurement of the response of film to exposure and development. Sensitometry is used to test the processor setup and stability.
Subp. 173. Service provider.
"Service provider" means a person engaged in the business of assembling, installing, repairing, or replacing one or more components into diagnostic or industrial radiation-producing equipment system or subsystem or conducting equipment performance evaluations on diagnostic or industrial equipment. Service providers must be registered with the commissioner under part 4732.0275.
Subp. 174. Shadow tray.
"Shadow tray" means a device attached to the radiation head to support auxiliary beam-limiting material.
Subp. 175. Shutter.
"Shutter" means a device attached to the tube housing assembly that can totally intercept the useful beam and has a lead equivalency not less than that of the tube housing assembly.
Subp. 176. SI equivalent.
"SI equivalent" means units that conform to the international system of units.
Subp. 177. Sievert or Sv.
"Sievert" or "Sv" means the SI unit of any quantities expressed as dose equivalent. The conventional system equivalent is the rem.
Subp. 178. Source.
"Source" means the target or focal spot of the x-ray tube or accelerator.
Subp. 179. Source of radiation.
"Source of radiation" means a device or equipment that emits or is capable of producing radiation. For purposes of this chapter, this is equivalent to radiation-producing equipment.
Subp. 180. Source-to-image distance or SID.
"Source-to-image distance" or "SID" means the distance from the source to the center of the input surface of the image receptor.
Subp. 181. Source-to-skin distance or SSD.
"Source-to-skin distance" or "SSD" means the distance between the source and the skin of the patient.
Subp. 182. Spot check.
"Spot check" means a procedure that is performed to ensure that a previous calibration continues to be valid.
Subp. 183. Spot film.
"Spot film" means a radiograph that is made during a fluoroscopic procedure to permanently record conditions that exist during that fluoroscopic procedure.
Subp. 184. Spot-film device.
"Spot-film device" means a device intended to transport and position a radiographic image receptor between the x-ray source and fluoroscopic image receptor. Spot-film device includes a device intended to hold a cassette over the input end of the fluoroscopic image receptor to produce a radiograph.
Subp. 185. Stationary beam therapy.
"Stationary beam therapy" means radiation therapy without relative displacement of the useful beam and the patient during irradiation.
Subp. 186. Step wedge.
"Step wedge" means a quality control test tool made of type 1100 aluminum with 11 steps.
Subp. 187. Stepless adjustment.
"Stepless adjustment" means a method of adjusting collimator blades continuously rather than in fixed increments.
Subp. 188. Stochastic effects.
"Stochastic effects" means health effects that occur randomly and for which the probability of the effect occurring, rather than its severity, is assumed to be a linear function of dose without threshold. Hereditary effects and cancer incidence are examples of stochastic effects.
Subp. 189. Storage.
"Storage" means a condition in which a device or radiation-producing equipment is not being used for an extended period of time and has been made inoperable.
Subp. 190. Storage area.
"Storage area" means a location, facility, or vehicle that is locked or has a physical barrier to prevent accidental exposure to, tampering with, or unauthorized removal of the device, container, or source.
Subp. 191. Stray radiation.
"Stray radiation" means the sum of leakage radiation and scattered radiation.
Subp. 192. Supervising physician.
"Supervising physician" means a Minnesota licensed physician who accepts full medical responsibility for the performance, practice, and activities of a registered radiologist assistant or a radiology practitioner assistant.
Subp. 193. Survey or radiation survey.
"Survey" or "radiation survey" means an evaluation of the radiological conditions and potential hazards incident to the use of radiation-producing equipment. When appropriate, such evaluation includes, but is not limited to, tests, physical examinations, and measurements of levels of radiation.
Subp. 194. Target.
"Target" means the part of an x-ray tube or accelerator onto which a beam of accelerated particles is directed to produce ionizing radiation or other particles.
Subp. 195. Technique factors.
"Technique factors" means the conditions of operation, specified as follows:
A. for capacitor energy storage equipment, peak tube potential in kV and quantity of charge in mAs;
B. for field emission equipment rated for pulsed operation, peak tube potential in kV, and number of x-ray pulses;
C. for CT x-ray systems designed for pulsed operation, peak tube potential in kV, scan time in seconds, and either tube current in mA, x-ray pulse width in seconds, and the number of x-ray pulses per scan, or the product of milliamperage, x-ray pulse width, and the number of x-ray pulses in mAs;
D. for CT x-ray systems not designed for pulsed operation, peak tube potential in kV, and either the tube current in mA and scan time in seconds, or the product of milliamperage and exposure time in mAs and the scan time when the scan time and exposure time are equivalent;
E. for phototimed or automatic exposure controlled equipment, all necessary indicators including anatomical, if applicable, that must be activated before exposure; and
F. for all other equipment, peak tube potential in kV and either tube current in mA and exposure time in seconds, or the product of milliamperage and exposure time in mAs.
Subp. 196. Television receiver.
"Television receiver" means an electronic product designed to receive and display a television picture through broadcast, cable, or closed-circuit television.
Subp. 197. Temporary job site.
"Temporary job site" means a location where radiography is performed, other than a location listed in a registration.
Subp. 198. Termination of irradiation.
"Termination of irradiation" means the stopping of irradiation in a fashion that will not permit continuance of irradiation without the resetting of operating conditions at the control panel.
Subp. 199. Therapeutic radiation machine.
"Therapeutic radiation machine" means x-ray or electron-producing equipment designed and used for external beam radiation therapy.
Subp. 200. Therapeutic radiological physicist.
"Therapeutic radiological physicist" means an individual qualified to practice independently in the subfields for medical therapeutic physics who:
A. is certified in radiological physics or therapeutic radiological physics by the American Board of Radiology;
B. is certified in therapeutic radiological physics by the American Board of Medical Physics;
C. is certified in therapeutic radiological physics by the Canadian College of Medical Physics; or
D. holds a masters degree or doctor's degree in medical physics, radiological sciences, or an equivalent field involving graduate study in physics applied to the application of radiation to humans from an accredited college or university and have at least one year of full-time practical training and experience involving work in a radiation therapy facility under an individual who meets the qualifications in this item or item A, B, or C.
Subp. 201. Therapeutic-type protective tube housing.
"Therapeutic-type protective tube housing" means the definitions in items A to C.
A. For x-ray therapy equipment not capable of operating at 500 kilovolt peak (kVp) or above, the following definition applies: an x-ray tube housing so constructed that the leakage radiation at a distance of one meter from the source does not exceed one rad (0.01 Gy) in an hour when the tube is operated at its maximum rated continuous current for the maximum rated tube potential.
B. For x-ray therapy equipment capable of operation at 500 kilovolt peak (kVp) or above, the following definition applies: an x-ray tube housing so constructed that leakage radiation at a distance of one meter from the source does not exceed either one rad (0.01 Gy) in an hour or 0.1 percent of the useful beam dose rate at one meter from the source, whichever is greater, when the machine is operated at its maximum rated continuous current for the maximum rated accelerating potential.
C. In either case, small areas of reduced protection are acceptable provided the average reading over any 100 square centimeters area at one meter distance from the source does not exceed the values given in items A and B.
Subp. 202. Tomogram.
"Tomogram" means an x-ray image of a thin section of the body.
Subp. 203. Tomographic plane.
"Tomographic plane" means the geometric plane that is identified as corresponding to the output tomogram.
Subp. 204. Tomographic section.
"Tomographic section" means the volume of an object whose x-ray attenuation properties are imaged in a tomogram.
Subp. 205. Traceable to a standard.
"Traceable to a standard" means a comparison, either directly or indirectly, to a standard maintained by the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) and that all comparisons have been documented.
Subp. 206. Tube housing assembly.
"Tube housing assembly" means the tube housing with tube installed. It includes high voltage and filament transformers and other appropriate elements when contained within the tube housing.
Subp. 207. Tube rating chart.
"Tube rating chart" means the set of curves that specify the rated limits of operation of the tube in terms of the technique factors.
Subp. 208. Type 1100 aluminum alloy.
"Type 1100 aluminum alloy" means an alloy of aluminum that has a nominal chemical composition of 99 percent minimum aluminum and 0.12 percent copper.
Subp. 209. Useful beam.
"Useful beam" means the radiation emanating from the tube housing port or the radiation head and passing through the aperture of the beam-limiting device when the exposure controls are in a mode to cause the system to produce radiation.
Subp. 210. Utilization log.
"Utilization log" means a record of procedures conducted in a certain time frame and following a set of requirements:
A. medical in part 4732.0545;
B. fluoroscopic in part 4732.0825; and
C. industrial in part 4732.1040.
Subp. 211. Variable-aperture beam-limiting device.
"Variable-aperture beam-limiting device" means a beam-limiting device that has a capacity for stepless adjustment of the x-ray field size at a given SID.
Subp. 212. Very high radiation area.
"Very high radiation area" means an area accessible to individuals, where radiation levels from radiation-producing equipment external to the body could result in an individual receiving an absorbed dose in excess of 500 rad (5 Gy) in one hour at one meter from any surface that the radiation penetrates.
Subp. 213. Virtual source.
"Virtual source" means a point from which radiation appears to originate.
Subp. 214. Visible area.
"Visible area" means the portion of the input surface of the image receptor over which incident x-ray photons are producing a visible image.
Subp. 215. Wedge filter.
"Wedge filter" means an added filter effecting continuous change in transmission on all or part of the useful beam.
Subp. 216. Worker.
"Worker" means an individual who engages in activities with sources of ionizing radiation that require registration by the commissioner and that are controlled by a registrant.
Subp. 217. Written directive or written order.
"Written directive" or "written order" means a dated order either in writing or electronically for a specific patient, specific procedure, and has an indication of the licensed practitioner of the healing arts ordering the procedure.
Subp. 218. X-ray control.
"X-ray control" means a device, switch, or other similar means by which an operator initiates and terminates the radiation exposure. The x-ray exposure control may include associated equipment such as timers and back-up timers.
Subp. 219. X-ray equipment.
"X-ray equipment" means an x-ray system, subsystem, or component. Types of x-ray equipment are listed in items A to D.
A. "Mobile x-ray equipment" means x-ray equipment mounted in a self-contained transport vehicle.
B. "Portable industrial x-ray equipment" means industrial x-ray equipment designed to be brought to a temporary job site to perform temporary industrial radiography.
C. "Portable x-ray equipment" means x-ray equipment on wheels or casters and designed to be brought to a patient when the patient's condition does not permit transfer to a fixed location.
D. "Stationary x-ray equipment" means x-ray equipment installed in a fixed location within a facility.
Subp. 220. X-ray field.
"X-ray field" means the area of the intersection of the useful beam and any one of the set of planes parallel to and including the plane of the image receptor, whose perimeter is the locus of points at which the exposure rate is one-fourth of the maximum in the intersection.
Subp. 221. X-ray generator.
"X-ray generator" means a type of electron accelerator in which the electron beam is used mainly for the production of x-rays.
Subp. 222. X-ray high-voltage generator.
"X-ray high-voltage generator" means a device that transforms electrical energy from the potential supplied by the x-ray control to the tube operating potential. The device may also include means for transforming alternating current to direct current filament transformers for the x-ray tube, high-voltage switches, electrical protective devices, and other appropriate elements.
Subp. 223. X-ray system.
"X-ray system" means an assemblage of components for the controlled production of x-rays. It includes minimally an x-ray high-voltage generator, an x-ray control, a tube housing assembly, a beam-limiting device, and the necessary supporting structures. Additional components that function with the system are considered integral parts of the system.
Subp. 224. X-ray tube or tube.
"X-ray tube" or "tube" means an electron tube designed to be used primarily for the production of x-rays.
Subp. 225. Year.
"Year" means a period of time consisting of 12 consecutive months.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777; L 2016 c 119 s 7
Minn. R. 4732.0200 Registration Requirements for Radiation-Producing Equipment and Other Electronic Devices That Produce Radiation
Subpart 1. Applicability.
For any facility, except those specifically exempted under this part or part 4732.0300, the person having administrative control of any ionizing radiation-producing equipment must be responsible for completing the registration form and submitting the applicable fee according to Minnesota Statutes, section 144.121. It is the registrant's obligation to keep the information for registration current. Should a change of control result in a change to the registrant's program, the registrant must notify the commissioner of that change according to this part. Persons with administrative control of the radiation-producing equipment must be responsible for maintaining equipment in compliance with a nationally recognized standard, such as Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, section 1020.30, the manufacturer's specifications, or parts 4732.1100 to 4732.1130.
Subp. 2. New facility.
For a new facility, an application for registration must be submitted to the commissioner and approved prior to the operation of the equipment. Application for registration must be completed on forms furnished by the commissioner or an acceptable alternative and must be complete and accurate. The application must include the appropriate fee established in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.121, subdivision 1a.
A. The registrant is subject to all applicable requirements of this chapter.
B. The registrant should notify the commissioner within 30 days of the following changes:
C. A person shall not refer in any advertisement, to the fact that the ionizing radiation-producing equipment is registered with the commissioner, and shall not state or imply that the commissioner has approved any activity under such registration.
Subp. 3. Issuance of notice of registration.
A. Upon receipt of registration, the commissioner shall issue a notice of registration. Each notice of registration shall expire at the end of the indicated month and year.
B. The commissioner may incorporate in the registration at the time of issuance or thereafter any additional requirements with respect to the registrant's receipt, possession, use, and transfer of radiation-producing equipment as the commissioner deems appropriate or necessary.
Subp. 4. Renewal of registration.
A. Renewal of registration must be submitted according to this subpart. Each registrant must renew following the schedule in subpart 5 as long as the activity requiring registration continues.
B. The registrant must certify by signature or electronic signature that the information is accurate and complete.
C. If there has been any additional radiation-producing equipment or other substantial change made after the existing registration or renewal, the registrant must include all pertinent information regarding the addition or change.
Subp. 5. Staggered schedule for renewal of registration.
Each registration under this chapter must be renewed on or before the first day of the calendar quarter specified in items A to D. The following schedule is based on the registrant's business address within the state:
A. Beginning January 1, 2008: Hennepin County registrants including the University of Minnesota, Minneapolis campus;
B. Beginning April 1, 2008: Ramsey, Anoka, Dakota, and Washington County registrants;
C. Beginning July 1, 2008: Aitkin, Benton, Carlton, Cass, Chisago, Cook, Crow Wing, Isanti, Itasca, Kanabec, Koochiching, Lake Mille Lacs, Morrison, Pine, St. Louis, Becker, Beltrami, Big Stone, Chippewa, Clay, Clearwater, Douglas, Grant, Hubbard, Kittson, Lac Qui Parle, Lake of the Woods, Mahnomen, Marshall, Norman, Otter Tail, Pennington, Polk, Pope, Red Lake, Roseau, Stearns, Stevens, Swift, Todd, Traverse, Wadena, and Wilkin County registrants, and registrants whose business addresses are outside the state; and
D. Beginning October 1, 2007: Brown, Carver, Cottonwood, Faribault, Jackson, Kandiyohi, Lincoln, Lyon, Martin, McLeod, Meeker, Murray, Nicollet, Nobles, Pipestone, Redwood, Renville, Rock, Sherburne, Sibley, Watonwan, Wright, Yellow Medicine, Blue Earth, Dodge, Fillmore, Freeborn, Goodhue, Houston, Le Sueur, Mower, Olmsted, Rice, Scott, Steele, Wabasha, Waseca, and Winona County registrants.
Subp. 6. Renewals affected by change of location.
A registrant whose business address changes from one county to another must renew the registration with the county of relocation according to the schedule in subpart 5. The registrant shall not be assessed penalty fees for not renewing with the county of previous location.
Subp. 7. Change of ownership.
In addition to the notification required in subpart 1, the registration of the facility is not transferable as part of a change in ownership.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0210 Registration Fees
The initial registration application or renewal for registration of radiation-producing equipment required under part 4732.0200 must be accompanied by the fee established in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.121, subdivision 1a. The registration fee is nonrefundable.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0220 General Requirements for All Facilities
Subpart 1. Responsibilities of registrant.
The registrant must:
A. ensure compliance with applicable parts of this chapter and in the operation of the equipment that are consistent with each registrant's area of use;
B. notify the commissioner within 30 days of any change in the ownership, addition of, or disposition of registered radiation-producing equipment; and
C. designate an individual as the radiation safety officer according to part 4732.0500, subpart 2.
Subp. 2. Submissions.
A. Any submission of any information provided to the commissioner by a registrant must be complete and accurate in all material submitted.
B. All communications and reports concerning these regulations, applications, and violations filed thereunder, must be addressed to or delivered to the Minnesota Department of Health, Radiation Control Unit, 625 Robert Street North, P. O. Box 64975, St. Paul, Minnesota 55164-0975.
Subp. 3. Shielding requirements.
All registrants must maintain documentation of the radiation shielding installed in their facility. The documentation must be:
A. a blue print or architectural drawing indicating installed shielding;
B. a shielding plan that was completed by a service provider or an appropriate radiological physicist;
C. by calculation;
D. verified by a detailed radiation survey covering radiation levels at the operator position and at pertinent points outside the room during normal operation; and
E. if the registrant cannot verify shielding compliance by items A to C, a detailed radiation survey covering the radiation levels at the operator position and at pertinent points outside the room during normal operation must be completed and the documentation maintained.
Subp. 4. Exemption.
Dental facilities with only intraoral capabilities are exempted from the shielding requirements in subpart 3.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0250 Reciprocity for Out-of-State Radiation-Producing Equipment
Subpart 1. Applicability.
Whenever radiation-producing equipment is to be brought into the state for any temporary use, a written notice must be provided to the commissioner at least three working days before the equipment is to be used in the state. Upon request to the department, permission to process use of equipment sooner may be granted if the three-day notification period would impose an undue hardship on the person. The notice required in this subpart must include:
A. the type of radiation-producing equipment;
B. the nature, duration, and scope of use;
C. the locations where the equipment is to be used;
D. the name and telephone number of the contact person at the site if applicable; and
E. the states in which this equipment is registered or licensed.
Subp. 2. Compliance.
Persons using radiation-producing equipment under reciprocity must:
A. comply with all applicable rules of the commissioner;
B. supply the commissioner with any other information the commissioner deems necessary; and
C. the radiation-producing equipment must be registered according to part 4732.0200.
Subp. 3. Inspections.
Inspections by the commissioner may be performed on any radiation-producing equipment being used in Minnesota on a reciprocal basis for compliance with this chapter.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0275 Registration of Service Providers
Subpart 1. Application for service provider registration.
A. A person who is engaged in the business of assembling, installing, repairing, or replacing one or more components in a radiation-producing equipment system or conducting equipment performance evaluations on diagnostic or industrial radiation-producing equipment must apply for registration with the commissioner within 30 days following the effective date of this chapter or prior to furnishing or offering to furnish any services. The services may include, but are not limited to:
B. All applications for registration must be completed on forms furnished by the commissioner and must include all information specified by the commissioner.
C. A person applying for registration under this part must specify:
D. An individual shall not perform services that are not specifically stated for that individual.
Subp. 2. Issuance of notice of registration.
A. Upon a determination that an applicant meets the requirements of this chapter, the commissioner shall issue a notice of registration. Each notice of registration expires at the end of the specified day in the month and year stated in the notice.
B. The commissioner may incorporate in the notice of registration at the time of issuance or after by appropriate rule, or regulation, any additional requirements and conditions deemed appropriate or necessary by the commissioner.
Subp. 3. Renewal of registration.
Renewal of the registration for service providers must be completed 30 days prior to the end of the month of the current registration.
Subp. 4. Exemption.
An individual employed by a registrant to perform in-house calibrations, equipment performance evaluations, or repairs of diagnostic or industrial radiation-producing equipment is exempt from registering as a service provider. An in-house employee may not perform these tasks elsewhere unless registered as a service provider.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0280 Service Provider's Responsibility
Subpart 1. General requirements.
A person shall not make, sell, lease, transfer, lend, repair, or install radiation-producing equipment or the parts used in connection with this equipment unless the parts and equipment, when properly placed in operation, meet the federal requirements for the equipment manufacturer's specifications and the requirements of this chapter.
Subp. 2. Notification requirements.
A registered service provider must meet the notification requirements in this subpart.
A. A person selling, leasing, or transferring radiation-producing equipment must notify the commissioner in writing within 15 days of the sale, lease, or transfer, and must supply the name and address of the purchaser and other pertinent information required by the commissioner.
B. Installation calibrations and equipment performance test reports must be sent to the facility within 30 days of the tests. The service provider must keep copies of these test reports for four years after completion.
C. The test reports must include written recommendations for necessary corrections or improvements.
Subp. 3. Calibration reports at time of installation.
At the time of installation, calibrations must be performed on diagnostic or industrial radiation-producing equipment prior to first use on patients according to nationally recognized standards, such as:
A. Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, section 1020;
B. the manufacturer's specifications;
C. parts 4732.1100 to 4732.1130; and
D. the service provider's written report, which must include:
Subp. 4. Equipment performance tests.
At the time of the equipment performance tests, the tests must be completed at intervals not to exceed 24 months. The tests must be performed over the clinical range on the equipment according to parts 4732.1100 to 4732.1130; Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, section 1020; or the manufacturer's specifications. The registered service provider must keep copies of these test reports for four years after completion. The service provider's written report to the facility must include:
A. the facility name, address, and contact person;
B. the date of equipment performance tests;
C. the serial number of the equipment, room number, or name if applicable;
D. the numerical results of the tests including any appropriate films. If the result of the test is not a numerical answer, a pass or fail or "yes" or "no" answer is acceptable;
E. any written recommendations necessary for corrective actions to maintain compliance with this chapter; and
F. the name and registration information of the service provider performing the testing.
Subp. 5. Individual monitoring.
The vendor employing registered service providers must provide individual monitoring devices and reports for their occupational exposure according to part 4732.0440, where applicable.
Subp. 6. Phantom use.
The use of humans is prohibited for maintenance, demonstration, and training. A phantom must be used for these purposes.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0300 Exemptions
This chapter shall not apply to:
A. any radioactive materials;
B. domestic television receivers, provided the dose rate at five cm from any outer surface of ten cm2 is less than 0.5 mrem per hour; and
C. radiation sources specifically designated by the commissioner as exempt by virtue of being known to be without hazard to health.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0305 Prohibited Uses
Subpart 1. General provision.
An individual shall not be exposed to the useful beam of radiation except for healing arts purposes and only if the exposure has been authorized by a licensed practitioner of the healing arts. Exposure of an individual for the purposes in items A, B, and C is prohibited.
A. Exposure for training, instruction, demonstration, or research is prohibited except when the research has been approved by an institutional review board and is conducted under federal regulations for the protection of human subjects in research under Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, part 56, or title 45, part 46. Any other exposure of a human subject for the purpose of research may be made only with an approved variance as described in parts 4717.7000 to 4717.7050.
B. Exposure for the purpose of healing arts screening is prohibited except as authorized by part 4732.0565.
C. Exposure for the purpose of training bone density operators through the use of the precision testing procedures is prohibited except when a licensed practitioner of the healing arts orders the procedure according to part 4732.0560.
Subp. 2. Other prohibited radiation dose levels.
A worker shall not be subjected to an occupational radiation dose or a radiation dose for training that would exceed the doses specified in parts 4732.0400 to 4732.0430.
Subp. 3. Prohibited radiation-producing equipment and procedures.
The following equipment or procedures are prohibited:
A. fluoroscopic devices for fitting shoes;
B. photofluorographic equipment;
C. hand-held therapy units and contact therapy units;
D. the use of direct exposure x-ray film, without intensifying screens, for all radiological imaging other than intraoral dental radiography, therapeutic portal imaging, industrial radiography, and radiographic absorptiometry using readipack film especially designed for radiographic absorptiometry;
E. nonimage intensified fluoroscopic x-ray equipment;
F. dental intraoral radiography units operating less than 50 kVp; and
G. the use of mammographic imaging systems not specifically designed by the manufacturer for imaging of the breast.
Subp. 4. Unauthorized exposure of individual monitoring devices.
Exposure of individual monitoring devices to deceptively indicate a dose delivered to an individual is prohibited.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0306 Unauthorized Uses
Except as authorized by part 4732.0308, the following equipment or procedures are unauthorized:
A. hand-held diagnostic imaging devices except forensic examinations during emergency situations provided that all manufacturer's radiation shielding devices are in place;
B. except for radiation therapy simulators, the use of fluoroscopy by x-ray machine operators for positioning a patient for radiographic imaging, except when done by a licensed practitioner of the healing arts;
C. the use of fluoroscopy by a person other than a licensed practitioner of the healing arts, physician assistant, registered radiologist assistant, or radiology practitioner assistant when the licensed practitioner of the healing arts, physician assistant, or registered radiologist assistant or radiology practitioner assistant is not physically present in the room, except for maintenance or quality assurance activities, training courses, and animal research procedures being performed by trained individuals;
D. dental fluoroscopic imaging assemblies; and
E. demonstrations or training without the use of phantoms and without proper shielding for observers and x-ray machine operators as specified in item A and part 4732.0275.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0308 Variance Ionizing Radiation Rules
Except for parts 4732.0200 and 4732.0210, the commissioner shall, according to the procedures and criteria in parts 4717.7000 to 4717.7050, grant a variance from the requirements of this chapter, if it is determined to be authorized by law, would not endanger life or property, and is otherwise in the public interest.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0310 Data Privacy
Collection, security, and dissemination of information gathered for registration is governed by Minnesota Statutes, chapter 13.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0315 Deliberate Misconduct
For purposes of this chapter, deliberate misconduct would be a registrant, employee of a registrant, or service provider who knowingly:
A. engages in deliberate misconduct that causes or would have caused, if not detected, a registrant to be in violation of the rule issued by the commissioner; or
B. deliberately submits to the commissioner or the registrant information that the person submitting the information knows to be incomplete or inaccurate in some respect.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0320 Employee Protection
Employee protection and employment discrimination issues are governed by Minnesota Statutes, sections 181.931 to 181.935.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0330 Records
Subpart 1. Applicability.
A facility required to register with the commissioner must maintain records according to this chapter. If there is a conflict between this chapter and other required retention periods for the same type of record, the longest retention period specified takes precedence.
A. Each registrant must maintain records showing the receipt, transfer, and disposal of all radiation-producing equipment.
B. Records of individual monitoring, radiation monitoring, radiation surveys, calibrations, and equipment performance measurements for radiation-producing equipment must be kept according to this part.
C. These records must be available at the time of inspection by the commissioner.
D. At all times, the registrant is responsible for record retention required by this chapter. If the registrant ceases operation for any reason, provisions must be made for record retention required by this chapter.
Subp. 2. Format and safeguarding records.
A. A record required under this chapter must be legible throughout the specified retention period. The record can be:
B. Records such as letters, drawings, and specifications, must include all pertinent information.
C. Registrants must maintain adequate safeguards against tampering with and loss of records.
Subp. 3. Reporting units.
As appropriate, a registrant must use the units of rad, roentgen, or rem or the international systems of units (SI), including the multiples and subdivisions. The registrant must clearly indicate the units on all records required by this chapter.
Subp. 4. Retention schedule for records.
The registrant must ensure that, when applicable, the records are retained in the facility until the inspection by the commissioner. The following records specified in this subpart must be maintained:
A. quality control test result records that include documentation of:
B. employee training documentation including training content, dates, and attendees;
C. individual monitoring dosimetry results kept according to part 4732.0440;
D. registration information;
E. manufacturer's specifications on any new radiation-producing equipment;
F. shielding plans and associated radiation verification surveys;
G. utilization logs, where applicable;
H. results of radiological program audits;
I. records of fluoroscopic on time for durations over five minutes;
J. job site records for radiography;
K. calibration records for instruments, survey meters, and electronic devices; and
L. current copies of the physician assistant's physician-physician assistant agreement recognized by the Minnesota Board of Medical Practice, or the written agreement with the supervising physician for either the registered radiologic assistant or radiologic practitioner assistant.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0335 Inspections and Testing
Subpart 1. Inspections.
At all reasonable times during the hours of operation, each registrant must allow the commissioner or commissioner's designee access to the facilities and premises where the radiation-producing equipment is used or stored to inspect and test the radiation-producing equipment. Access also includes inspection of all records under the registrant's control that are required to be kept according to part 4732.0330.
Subp. 2. Tests.
Each registrant must perform or cause to be performed reasonable procedures that are necessary to ensure radiation safety including, but not limited to tests of:
A. radiation-producing equipment;
B. radiographic processing equipment, if applicable; and
C. radiation detection and monitoring devices.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0340 Violations and Enforcement Requirements
Subpart 1. Notice of violation.
The commissioner must issue a written notice of violation to the regulated facility listing the violations identified during an inspection, incident, or medical event. The notice of violation must require that the regulated facility submit, within 30 days of the date of receipt of the notice or other specified time, a written explanation or statement in reply including:
A. the corrective steps that have been taken by the registrant and the results achieved through verification tests; or
B. a plan to correct the identified deficiencies and the date when full compliance will be achieved, if it cannot be achieved within the 30 days; and
C. the corrective action that will be taken to prevent a recurrence.
Subp. 2. Notice of enforcement.
All violations are subject to possible penalty under Minnesota Statutes, sections 144.989 to 144.993.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0355 General Requirements for Shielding Against Ionizing Radiation
Subpart 1. Applicability.
This part applies to all regulated facilities constructed or structurally remodeled 90 days after November 5, 2007.
Subp. 2. Requirements.
The registrant must ensure that the applicable structural shielding requirements specified in parts 4732.0355 to 4732.0380 are met. Structural shielding modifications must be made if an analysis of operating conditions indicates the possibility of an individual receiving an occupational dose or a dose to the public in excess of the limits in parts 4732.0400 to 4732.0430.
Subp. 3. Shielding details.
The shielding must be constructed so that the protection is not impaired by objects passing through the barriers or embedded in the barriers. The primary and secondary barriers must meet the dose limits in parts 4732.0400 to 4732.0430. This includes, but is not limited to, areas of walls containing wall-mounted image receptors.
Subp. 4. Operator's booth design requirements.
The operator's booth, exposure control, and viewing system must meet the following specifications:
A. must have no less than 7.5 square feet (0.7 square meters) of unobstructed floor space with no dimension less than two feet (0.6 meters);
B. must be located and constructed so the unattenuated direct scattered radiation does not reach the operator in the booth;
C. the booth walls must be permanently fixed barriers at least seven feet (2.1 meters) high;
D. the radiation exposure control placement must:
E. the viewing system must be designed so that:
Subp. 5. Records.
The registrant must maintain all records of shielding plans and results of radiation measurements at the facility according to part 4732.0330.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0360 Shielding Plan
Subpart 1. Shielding plan applicability.
inety days after November 5, 2007, the registrant is required to have a shielding plan complete for new constructions or structural remodeling of their radiation-producing equipment areas.
Subp. 2. Shielding plan requirements.
The shielding plan must show all basic assumptions used in the development of the shielding specifications and show, at a minimum:
A. the dimensions of the rooms concerned;
B. the normal location of the radiation-producing system's x-ray tube's general direction of the useful beam and the tube's travel and transverse limits;
C. locations of any windows, doors, or other openings;
D. the location of the operator's booth and the location of the control panel;
E. the structural composition and thickness or lead equivalent of all walls, doors, partitions, and, if occupied spaces above or below, the floor and ceiling of the rooms concerned;
F. the make and model of the equipment;
G. the maximum technique factors and the energy waveform;
H. the type of examinations or treatments that will be performed with the equipment;
I. information on the anticipated workload of the systems in mA-minutes per week; and
J. the use of areas adjacent and an estimation of the extent of occupancy in these areas.
Subp. 3. Modifications.
The review of shielding plans must not preclude the requirement of additional modifications should a subsequent analysis of operating conditions indicate the possibility of an individual receiving a dose in excess of the dose limits prescribed in parts 4732.0400 to 4732.0430.
Subp. 4. Shielding review.
Ninety days after November 5, 2007, the shielding plan must be submitted to the commissioner prior to any new construction or structural remodeling.
Subp. 5. Exemptions.
Exemptions from the shielding review:
A. dental facilities with only intraoral capabilities;
B. bone densitometry units;
C. mammography units;
D. podiatry units;
E. if the replacement of a piece of radiation-producing equipment does not increase the risk of radiation beyond the dose limits in parts 4732.0400 to 4732.0430;
F. self-shielded x-ray systems, such as cabinet x-ray units, x-ray diffraction or fluorescence units with interlocked shield barriers; and
G. for a self-shielded accelerator, the applicant need not submit an evaluation of a shielding plan if an evaluation by an appropriate regulatory authority has been performed. The applicant must reference the evaluation and maintain a copy of the evaluated shielding plan for commissioner review.
Subp. 6. Records.
The following shielding plan documentation must be maintained on a permanent basis by the registrant of the facility:
A. shielding plan data including all assumptions and specifications;
B. construction, or as-built, documents showing location and amounts of shielding material installed;
C. postconstruction radiation evaluation;
D. information regarding remedies, if any was required;
E. all reevaluations of the room shielding relative to changes in utilization that have been made; and
F. the shielding plan information must include the name of the individual completing the plan and the date on which it was completed.
Subp. 7. Permanent placard.
A permanent placard must be mounted in the room specifying the amount and type of shielding in all walls, doors, partitions, and, if occupied, spaces above or below the floor and ceiling. If mounting the information is not practical, a registrant may post a notice in the room that describes the document and states where it may be examined.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0365 Additional Shielding Requirements for Dental Facilities
In addition to parts 4732.0355 and 4732.0360 the following shielding requirements are required.
A. When radiographic systems are installed in adjacent rooms or areas, protective barriers must be provided between the rooms or areas to ensure that the doses are as low as reasonably achievable (ALARA) and do not exceed the dose limits in parts 4732.0400 to 4732.0430.
B. Each installation must be provided with a protective barrier for the operator or must be arranged so the operator can stand at least six feet from the patient and the tube head and not be in the path of the useful beam.
C. Protective barriers must be arranged so that the operator is able to view the patient and all entrances to the area during the exposure.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0370 Additional Shielding Requirements for Industrial Facilities Using Radiation-Producing Equipment
Subpart 1. Industrial facilities.
Industrial facilities must meet the applicable requirements of parts 4732.0355 and 4732.0360 and the shielding requirements in subparts 2 to 4.
Subp. 2. Applicability.
This part applies to all new construction and structural remodeling that commences 90 days after November 5, 2007.
Subp. 3. General shielding and design requirements for industrial radiography.
Facilities must be designed to ensure that the dose limits in parts 4732.0400 to 4732.0430 are not exceeded. Stationary industrial ionizing radiation-producing facilities must have fixed protective barriers, except for entrance doors or beam interceptors. The control panel must be located outside the radiography room.
Subp. 4. Exception.
Registrants who possess cabinet x-ray systems, industrial cabinet baggage x-ray systems, portable industrial x-ray systems, and analytical ionizing radiation-producing equipment are exempt from this part.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0380 Shielding Requirements for Accelerators
Subpart 1. Applicability.
This part applies to accelerators and is in addition to other applicable parts of this chapter.
Subp. 2. Design requirements for accelerator facilities.
Accelerator facilities must have the following safety features:
A. be designed with primary and secondary barriers to ensure compliance with the dose limits in parts 4732.0400 to 4732.0430;
B. have protective barriers that are fixed except for entrance doors or beam interceptors;
C. have shielding for neutrons, as applicable, if the accelerator can operate above ten MeV;
D. accelerator room entrances must be provided with warning lights in readily observable positions near the outside of all access doors to indicate when the useful beam is in the "on" position;
E. interlocks or safety devices must be in place so all access into the room is blocked before irradiation is initiated or continued. If the useful radiation beam is interrupted by any door opening or tripping of the safety device, it must not be possible to restore the system to operation without closing the door or resetting the safety device and reinitiating irradiation by manual action at the control panel;
F. an emergency power cutoff switch must be located on either side of the primary beam and easily identifiable in all high radiation areas. The cutoff switch must include a manual reset so that the accelerator cannot be restarted from the accelerator control console without resetting the cutoff switch;
G. instrumentation, readouts, and controls on the accelerator control console must be clearly identified, easily discernible, and located outside the high radiation area;
H. each entrance into a target area or other high radiation area must be provided with two safety interlocks that shut down the machine when the barrier is breached;
I. each safety interlock must be on a circuit that allows it to operate independently of the accelerator; and
J. all safety interlocks must be designed so that any defect or component failure in the safety interlock system prevents operation of the accelerator.
Subp. 3. Additional design requirements for medical use accelerators.
A. Closed-circuit television, or an equivalent system, must be provided to permit continuous observation of the patient during irradiation and must be located so the operator may observe the patient from the control panel.
B. Two-way audio communication between the patient and the operator must be provided at the control panel. However, where excessive noise levels or treatment requirements make audio communication impractical, other methods of communication must be used.
Subp. 4. Modification of an accelerator or room before use.
If radiation surveys indicate that an individual in an unrestricted area may be exposed to levels of radiation greater than those permitted by part 4732.0430 before use, the registrant must:
A. equip the unit with beam direction interlocks or add additional radiation shielding to ensure compliance with part 4732.0430;
B. perform a radiation survey; and
C. include the initial radiation survey, a description of the modification made, and the results of the subsequent survey; or
D. request and receive written authorization to operate the accelerator from the commissioner.
Subp. 5. Radiation surveys.
A. The registrant must ensure that radiation surveys are performed at intervals not to exceed 12 months. The radiation survey must be performed with the accelerator in a "BEAM-ON" condition, with the largest available field and with a scattering phantom in the useful beam of radiation, if applicable, to ensure that radiation levels in restricted areas are not likely to cause personnel exposures in excess of the limits specified in parts 4732.0400 to 4732.0430. A radiation survey must also be performed:
B. The radiation survey record must also include:
Subp. 6. Corrective actions.
If the results of the radiation surveys indicate any radiation levels in excess of the limits in parts 4732.0400 to 4732.0430 the registrant must lock the control in the "OFF" position and not use the unit except as follows:
A. if necessary to repair, replace, or test the accelerator or the shielding; or
B. until the registrant has submitted a corrective action plan and received authorization in writing from the commissioner.
Subp. 7. Records retention.
Records must be maintained according to part 4732.0330.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0385 Caution Signs
Subpart 1. Standard radiation symbol and labeling.
Each radiation sign or label must bear the standard symbol specified in this subpart and the printed warning, in capital block letters, specified in subpart 4. The standard symbol for designating any radiation hazard is a circle with three propeller-like blades arranged around it as illustrated:
A. cross-hatched area shall be magenta, purple, or black; and
B. the background shall be yellow.
Subp. 2. Additional information on signs and labels.
In addition to the contents of signs and labels prescribed in this part, the registrant must provide, on or near the required signs and labels additional information, as appropriate, to make individuals aware of potential radiation exposures and to minimize the exposures.
Subp. 3. Prohibitions on use of symbol.
The use of the specified radiation symbol for any purpose other than designating or referring to an area of applicable radiation levels is prohibited.
Subp. 4. Posting and labeling requirements.
Conspicuous radiation warning labels must be posted in areas in which a radiation hazard may exist.
A. The warning "CAUTION RADIATION AREA" or "DANGER RADIATION AREA" must appear on signs in an area in which a radiation hazard may exist.
B. The warning "CAUTION HIGH RADIATION AREA" or "DANGER HIGH RADIATION AREA" must appear on signs in an area in which a high radiation hazard may exist.
C. The warning "CAUTION VERY HIGH RADIATION AREA" or "DANGER VERY HIGH RADIATION AREA" must appear on signs in an area in which a very high radiation hazard may exist.
D. Analytical ionizing radiation-producing equipment complying with part 4732.1000 must be labeled with a readily discernible sign or signs bearing the radiation symbol and the words:
Subp. 5. Exceptions to posting requirements.
A. A registrant is not required to post caution signs because of the presence of radiation machines used solely for diagnosis in the healing arts.
B. Rooms in hospitals or clinics that are used for teletherapy are exempt from the requirement to post caution signs under this part if:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0400 Determination of Accumulated Occupational Dose
Subpart 1. Determination of prior occupational dose.
For each individual who is likely to receive in a year, an occupational dose requiring monitoring according to part 4732.0440, the registrant must:
A. determine the occupational radiation dose received during the current year; and
B. attempt to obtain the records of the cumulative occupational radiation dose.
Subp. 2. Complying with determination of prior occupational dose.
A. A registrant may:
B. The registrant must record all the required history in a legible record.
C. If the registrant is unable to obtain a complete record of an individual's current and previously accumulated occupational dose, the registrant must assume:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0410 Occupational Dose Limits for Adults
Subpart 1. Applicability.
This part applies to all registrants.
Subp. 2. Occupational dose control.
The registrant must control the occupational dose to individual adults, except for planned special exposures, according to part 4732.0425, to the following annual dose limit, which is the more limiting of:
A. the total effective dose equivalent being equal to five rem (0.05 Sv); or
B. the sum of the deep dose equivalent and the committed dose equivalent to any individual organ or tissue other than the lens of the eye being equal to 50 rem (0.5 Sv); and
C. the annual limits to the lens of the eye, to the skin, and to the extremities, which are:
Subp. 3. Doses in excess of limits.
Doses received in excess of the annual limits, including doses received during accidents, emergencies, and planned special exposures, must be subtracted from the limits for planned special exposures that the individual may receive during the current year.
Subp. 4. Dose equivalent.
A. The assigned deep dose equivalent and shallow dose equivalent must be for the portion of the body receiving the highest exposure.
B. The deep dose equivalent, lens dose equivalent, and shallow dose equivalent may be assessed from surveys or other radiation measurements for the purpose of demonstrating compliance with the occupational dose limits if the individual monitoring device was not in the region of highest potential exposure or the results of individual monitoring are unavailable.
C. When a protective apron is worn while working with fluoroscopic equipment and monitoring is conducted as specified in part 4732.0440, subpart 3, the effective dose equivalent for external radiation must be determined as follows:
D. Any alternative method of determining dose must be approved by the commissioner.
Subp. 5. Reduction of dose.
The registrant must reduce the dose that an individual may be allowed to receive in the current year by the amount of occupational dose received while employed by any other person during the current year.
Subp. 6. Dose information.
The employee must supply information to the registrant about other current occupational doses received due to employment at multiple facilities.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0415 Dose Equivalent to an Embryo or Fetus
A. When a woman declares her pregnancy in writing, the registrant must ensure that the dose equivalent to an embryo or fetus during the entire pregnancy, due to occupational exposure of a declared pregnant woman, does not exceed 0.5 rem (5 mSv). Records must be kept according to part 4732.0440.
B. The registrant must make efforts to avoid substantial variation above a uniform monthly exposure rate to a declared pregnant woman to satisfy the limit in item A.
C. A registrant must make a reasonable effort to limit the occupational dose to the embryo or fetus to 0.05 rem (0.5 mSv) in any one month of pregnancy, excluding medical exposure.
D. If the dose to the embryo or fetus is found to have exceeded 0.5 rem (5 mSv) or is within 0.05 rem (0.5 mSv) of this dose by the time the woman declares her pregnancy, the registrant must ensure that additional occupational dose equivalent to the embryo or fetus does not exceed 0.05 rem (0.5 mSv) during the remainder of the pregnancy.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0420 Exposure of Minors
A registrant shall not use sources of radiation in a manner that causes an individual within a restricted area who is under 18 years of age to receive an occupational radiation dose greater than ten percent of the annual occupational dose limits specified for adult workers in part 4732.0410.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0425 Planned Special Exposures
A registrant may authorize an adult worker to receive doses in addition to and accounted for separately from the doses received under the limits in part 4732.0410, subpart 2, provided that each of the following conditions is satisfied:
A. the registrant authorized a planned special exposure only in an exceptional situation when alternatives that might avoid the dose estimated to result from the planned special exposure are unavailable or impractical;
B. the registrant and employer, if the employer is not the registrant, specifically authorizes the planned special exposure, in writing, before the exposure occurs;
C. before a planned special exposure, the registrant ensures that each individual involved is:
D. prior to permitting an individual to participate in a planned special exposure, the registrant ascertains prior doses as required by part 4732.0400 during the individual's lifetime;
E. subject to part 4732.0410, the registrant must not authorize a planned special exposure that would cause an individual to receive a dose from all planned special exposures and all doses in excess of the limits to exceed:
F. the registrant records the best estimate of the dose resulting from the planned special exposure in the individual's record and informs the individual, in writing, of the dose within 30 days from the date of the planned special exposure. The dose from planned special exposures must not be considered in controlling future occupational dose of the individual according to part 4732.0610, subpart 2, but must be included in dose determinations required by part 4732.0410.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0430 Dose Limits for Individual Members of the Public
A. A registrant shall not use radiation-producing equipment in a manner that could result in individual members of the public receiving an annual effective dose equivalent in excess of 0.1 rem (1.0 mSv).
B. The registrant must conduct operations so that the dose in any unrestricted area does not exceed 0.002 rem (0.02 mSv) in any one hour.
C. The registrant must show compliance with the annual public dose limit in this part, by demonstrating by measurement or calculation that the total effective dose equivalent to the individual member of the public likely to receive the highest dose from the registered operation does not exceed the annual dose limit.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0440 Individual Monitoring
Subpart 1. Applicability.
Each registrant must supply the following personnel with appropriate individual monitoring devices and require the personnel to wear the monitoring devices:
A. adults likely to receive in one year, a dose in excess of ten percent of the limits in part 4732.0410;
B. declared pregnant women likely to receive, during the entire pregnancy, a dose in excess of 0.1 rem (1.0 mSv);
C. each individual who enters a high radiation area or very high radiation area; and
D. minors likely to receive in one year a dose in excess of 0.1 rem (1.0 mSv).
Subp. 2. Assignment.
Each individual monitoring device must be assigned to and worn by only one individual.
Subp. 3. Placement of individual monitoring device.
Each registrant must ensure that individuals who are required to be monitored for occupational doses according to this part wear individual monitoring devices as follows:
A. an individual monitoring device used for monitoring the dose to the whole body must be worn on the trunk of the body or at the unshielded location of the whole body likely to receive the highest exposure;
B. when a protective apron is worn, the individual monitoring device must be worn at the collar outside of the protective apron;
C. when more than one individual monitoring device is used, the record must identify the location of the monitor on the body and must state whether it was worn outside or under the protective clothing. The effective dose equivalent must be recorded in the reports required by this part; and
D. according to part 4732.0415, when a woman declares her pregnancy a dosimeter must be worn at the level of the abdomen and under any lead shielding.
Subp. 4. Individual monitoring control devices.
The registrant must obtain a control device that accompanies individual personal monitoring devices during shipment. The control device must be kept in an area of natural background radiation at the facility between shipments.
Subp. 5. Veterinary facilities.
Veterinary facility requirements for individual monitoring have been repealed from Minnesota Statutes, section 144.121, subdivision 4. Veterinary staff must follow occupational dose limits for individual monitoring in this part.
Subp. 6. Industrial facilities.
The registrant in an industrial radiography facility must not permit an individual to act as a radiographer or a radiographer's assistant unless the individual wears a combination of a direct reading dosimeter, an alarming ratemeter, and an individual monitoring device at all times during radiographic operations. The use of electronic dosimeters must only be used in place of ion-chamber pocket dosimeters.
Subp. 7. Exception for permanent industrial radiographic installations.
At permanent industrial radiographic installations where other appropriate alarming or warning devices are in use, an alarming ratemeter and a direct reading dosimeter are not required.
Subp. 8. Exception for industrial pulsed x-ray devices.
Alarming ratemeters are not required for individuals using industrial pulsed x-ray devices.
Subp. 9. Direct reading pocket dosimeters.
When direct reading pocket dosimeters are used, the registrant must:
A. provide direct reading pocket dosimeters that have a range from zero to 200 mR;
B. ensure that the dosimeters are recharged at the start of each shift;
C. check the pocket dosimeters at intervals not to exceed 12 months for correct response to radiation. Acceptable dosimeters must read within plus or minus 20 percent of the true radiation exposure; and
D. maintain records of the response to the radiation check according to part 4732.0330.
Subp. 10. Off-scale dosimeters.
If an individual's monitoring device is found to be off-scale or the electronic personal dosimeter reads greater than 200 mrem (2 mSv):
A. the individual's monitoring device must be sent for processing within 24 hours;
B. the individual may not resume work associated with the use of radiation-producing equipment until a determination of the individual's radiation exposure has been made by the radiation safety officer or the radiation safety officer's designee; and
C. the results of this determination must be included in the records maintained according to part 4732.0330.
Subp. 11. Lost or damaged direct reading pocket dosimeters.
If an individual monitoring device is lost or damaged the registrant must require the worker to cease work immediately until a replacement is provided and the dose is calculated for the time period from issuance to loss or damage.
Subp. 12. Alarming ratemeters.
To ensure correct response to radiation, each alarming ratemeter must:
A. be tested before use at the start of each shift to ensure that the alarm sounds;
B. be set to sound at a preset exposure rate less than or equal to 500 mR/hr (1.29 x 10-4 C/kg/hr), except for industrial radiography where it must be set at 500 mR/hr (1.29 x 10-4 C/kg/hr);
C. require special means to change the preset alarm function;
D. be calibrated at intervals not to exceed 12 months; and
E. sound, vibrate, activate a light, or otherwise signal within plus or minus 20 percent of the true radiation exposure rate.
Subp. 13. Individual monitoring dosimetry records.
A. A registrant must maintain records showing the radiation doses of all individuals for whom individual monitoring is required according to this part. The records must be clear and legible.
B. The registrant must retain records of individual doses for the lifetime of the individual worker or a minimum of 30 years after termination of employment with the facility, whichever is less.
Subp. 14. Individual monitoring reports.
A. A registrant must advise each worker annually of the worker's dose of radiation as shown in records maintained by the registrant according to this part.
B. The notification must be in writing.
C. At the request of a worker formerly engaged in registered activities controlled by the registrant, the registrant must furnish to the worker a written report of the worker's exposure to radiation as shown in records maintained by the registrant according to part 4732.0330. The report required by this item must:
D. A registrant must furnish a report of the worker's dose of radiation to a worker who is terminating employment, or to a worker who while employed by another person is terminating a work assignment involving radiation dose in the registrant's facility. This report must:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0500 Registrant's Safety Responsibilities
Subpart 1. Applicability.
The registrant is responsible for the operation of radiation-producing equipment under the registrant's administrative control and must ensure that the requirements of this chapter are met.
Subp. 2. Designation of radiation safety officer.
A. If the registrant is not the radiation safety officer, the registrant must appoint a radiation safety officer. The individual must be qualified by training and knowledge concerning radiation hazards and precautions involved in the operation of the radiation-producing equipment.
B. The individual designated as a radiation safety officer must be either a licensed practitioner of the healing arts; or an individual who has completed training in the following items:
C. The radiation safety officer must agree in writing to be responsible for implementing the radiation protection program.
D. The registrant, through the radiation safety officer, must ensure that radiation safety activities are being performed according to registrant-approved procedures and this chapter.
E. The registrant must provide the radiation safety officer sufficient authority, organizational freedom, time, resources, and management prerogative to:
Subp. 3. Individuals who may apply radiation to humans.
Only those individuals who are licensed practitioners of the healing arts, physician assistants, registered radiologic assistants or radiology practitioner assistants, or individuals who have successfully passed an examination under Minnesota Statutes, section 144.121, subdivision 5, may apply radiation to an individual.
Subp. 4. Records.
Records must be maintained according to part 4732.0330.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0505 Radiation Safety Officer Responsibilities
The individual who is the radiation safety officer must:
A. establish a quality assurance program for compliance with the applicable requirements of this chapter;
B. review the quality assurance program content and implementation at intervals not to exceed 12 months;
C. ensure that instructions concerning hazards and safety practices are provided to individuals under the radiation safety officer's supervision who may be exposed to radiation;
D. establish criteria for audits of the radiation safety program;
E. perform or arrange to have performed:
F. implement or arrange to implement other procedures as required by this chapter; and
G. ensure documentation of initial and any additional instruction, equipment test results, calibrations, radiation surveys, equipment performance, and maintenance of the radiation-producing equipment and radiographic processors are maintained according to part 4732.0330.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0510 Procedures and Safety Instruction for Facilities
Subpart 1. Training requirement.
An individual operating radiation-producing equipment must be instructed initially in facility specific and system specific safe operating procedures, emergency procedures, quality control procedures, and the proper protective shielding to be used. Additional training must be conducted at the time of any change to the quality assurance program or change in radiation output.
Subp. 2. Safety procedures for the facility.
A. The registrant must maintain safety procedures including patient holding, if applicable, and any restrictions of the operating technique required for the safe operation of the particular system. The procedures must be made available to x-ray operators.
B. All individuals who, in the course of employment in a year, are likely to receive an occupational dose in excess of 100 millirems (1.0 mSv) must be:
C. The registrant must maintain the documentation of training in this subpart according to part 4732.0330.
Subp. 3. Exposure of individuals other than patient.
Except for the patient, only the staff, ancillary personnel, or nonmedical persons required for the medical, dental, and veterinary medical procedures or training must be in the room during the radiographic exposure. All individuals including staff, ancillary personnel, or nonmedical persons required for assistance with the radiographic procedures must be positioned so that no part of the body will be struck by the useful beam unless protected by 0.5 millimeter lead equivalent material.
A. During any radiographic or fluoroscopic exposure, any door that is part of the protective barrier must be closed.
B. No individual other than the patient must be in a therapy treatment room during exposures from a therapeutic x-ray system operating above 150 kVp.
C. The thyroid and eyes must be protected if the potential exposure to the worker would exceed the dose limits in part 4732.0410.
Subp. 4. Gonad protection.
Except for cases in which it would interfere with the diagnostic procedure, during radiographic procedures in which the gonads are in or within two inches (5cm) of the useful beam, gonad shielding of not less than 0.5 millimeters lead equivalence must be used for patients who have procreative potential.
Subp. 5. Holding.
When a patient, film cassette, or intraoral film must be provided with auxiliary support during a radiation exposure, the following conditions apply:
A. mechanical holding devices must be used when the technique permits;
B. safety procedures, as required by subpart 2, must indicate the requirements for selecting the individual holding and the procedure that the individual must follow;
C. the human holder must be instructed in personal radiation safety and protected as required by subpart 2, item B, subitem (2); and
D. no individual must be used routinely to hold intraoral film, film cassettes, or patients.
Subp. 6. Records.
Records must be maintained according to part 4732.0330.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0520 Quality Assurance Program
Subpart 1. General requirements.
A registrant conducting radiographic or therapeutic procedures using radiation-producing equipment must implement a site-specific quality assurance program. The program must include:
A. a description of the quality control procedures for radiation protection;
B. initial training and documentation for employees as specified in part 4732.0510;
C. the equipment performance tests which are to be completed at intervals not to exceed 24 months and related evaluation documentation, including films, as appropriate, as specified in nationally recognized standards, according to:
D. the documentation of any correction of any deficiencies found during the equipment performance tests and verification of the actions taken;
E. when an operating parameter has been exceeded, the radiation-producing equipment must not be used or must be limited to those uses permitted by the registrant, radiation safety officer, or physicist by established written procedures for no longer than 14 days until corrective actions have been taken and verified to have corrected the out-of-limits parameters;
F. calibrations and documentation as required in part 4732.0700. This includes the calibration record of any electronic equipment used in quality control tests;
G. radiation program audits as specified in part 4732.0540; and
H. a retake or reject analysis program as specified in part 4732.0535.
Subp. 2. Additions.
In addition to subpart 1, each registrant with therapeutic x-ray equipment must also make spot checks as specified in parts 4732.0900 to 4732.0940.
Subp. 3. Records.
The registrant must maintain the quality assurance program records according to part 4732.0330.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0530 Alara Program
The registrant must use, to the extent practical, procedures and engineering controls based upon sound radiation protection principles to achieve occupational doses and dose to the public that are as low as is reasonably achievable and do not exceed the dose limits in parts 4732.0410 to 4732.0430.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0535 Retake or Reject Analysis Program
Subpart 1. Applicability.
Except for dental facilities, for radiographs or images used in patient diagnosis, the registrant will perform or have performed an analysis of the retaken or rejected radiographs or images used in patient diagnosis:
A. retake or reject analysis must be done quarterly;
B. facilities must include the retake or reject analysis results in the audit according to part 4732.0540;
C. the analysis must include at a minimum, the overall retake or reject rate and a summary of the causes for the retakes or rejects; and
D. the registrant or radiation safety officer must design the facility specific procedures for the retake and reject analysis. The written procedure must be included in the facility operating procedures.
Subp. 2. Corrective actions.
Appropriate corrective actions taken based on the results of the analysis must be documented.
Subp. 3. Records.
The registrant must maintain records according to part 4732.0330.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0540 Radiation Program Audits
Subpart 1. Applicability.
A registrant must ensure that the quality assurance program, its content, and implementation are reviewed annually. The radiation program audit in this part must be reviewed for compliance with this chapter.
Subp. 2. Procedures.
The registrant must ensure that all radiation program audits are performed according to procedures established by the registrant or radiation safety officer.
Subp. 3. Corrective actions.
Any noncompliance issues found during the audit must be corrected and documented. The radiation safety officer must review any corrective actions.
Subp. 4. Records.
A record of each audit must be prepared and maintained at the facility according to the record retention requirements in part 4732.0330.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0545 Utilization Log
A. Excluding dental facilities, facilities performing radiographic or fluoroscopic procedures must maintain a utilization log containing:
B. Facilities performing industrial radiography must maintain a utilization log containing:
C. Facilities using radiation-producing equipment for gauging must maintain a utilization log containing:
D. Industrial cabinet, baggage units, and ion implanters are exempt from the requirements of this part.
E. The registrant must maintain these records according to part 4732.0330.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0550 Radiological Practice Standards
Subpart 1. Required standards.
The following procedures and auxiliary equipment designed to minimize patient and personnel exposure must be used.
A. The speed of screen-film combinations, or direct exposure x-ray film in intraoral dental radiography, must be the fastest speed consistent with the diagnostic objective of the examinations.
B. Except for dental intraoral films and radiation therapy port films, intensifying screens must be used in combination with the compatible film.
C. The radiation exposure to the patient must be the minimum exposure required to produce images of good diagnostic quality utilizing the ALARA concept.
D. Portable x-ray equipment must be used only for examinations where it is impractical to transfer the patient to a stationary x-ray system.
E. Other than fluoroscopic and dental intraoral systems, radiographic systems must not be used in procedures where the source-to-skin distance is less than 11.8 inches (30 centimeters), except as described in part 4732.0825.
F. Personal protective garments must be monitored for integrity initially and at intervals not to exceed 24 months.
G. The registrant must maintain the record of the monitoring and evaluation including films if applicable, according to part 4732.0330.
Subp. 2. Radiographic technique chart.
A radiographic technique chart must be provided in the vicinity of the x-ray system's control panel.
A. The technique chart must specify the following information for all examinations:
B. For computed tomography systems, a current technique chart for each routine examination and the computed tomography conditions of operation must be provided.
C. For filmless radiography, including computed radiography, digital radiography, computed tomography systems, and photostimulable storage phosphor imaging, the technique chart must reflect the adult and pediatric technique parameters for the individual system. This includes the manufacturer's requirements for technique parameters.
Subp. 3. Exceptions.
Diagnostic radiation-producing equipment manufactured with anatomical programming and industrial facilities with radiation-producing equipment are exempt from subpart 2.
Subp. 4. Records.
Records must be maintained according to part 4732.0330.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0555 X-Ray Film Processing Requirements
Subpart 1. Processing equipment.
A facility with a radiographic x-ray system using radiographic film must have available suitable equipment for handling and processing radiographic film according to the following provisions.
A. Manual processing:
B. Automatic processing:
Subp. 2. Processing quality control.
A. Processing quality control testing must be performed each day prior to any diagnostic films being processed at the facility. This is to be done by using:
B. The sensitometry test in item A, subitem (1), must be performed and evaluated using the most sensitive clinical film or mammographic film if mammography films are processed in the same processor as other patient films.
Subp. 3. Darkroom or glove box fog tests.
A. The darkroom or glove box must be free of extraneous light and use proper safe lighting so that any film type in use when exposed to x-radiation will not suffer an increase in density during processing. If used, daylight film handling boxes must preclude fogging of the film.
B. The darkroom or glove box must be tested for film fog using the most sensitive clinical film or mammographic film if mammography films are processed in the same darkroom as other patient films. Tests for the film fog must be completed:
C. In medical facilities, the amount of fog, the increase in optical density, for a two-minute test must not exceed 0.08 for radiographic film development.
D. In dental facilities with extraoral equipment, the amount of fog for a two-minute test must not exceed one step on either side of the designated step when using the step wedge for the fog test.
E. In dental facilities with intraoral equipment only, the amount of fog for a two-minute test must not allow visualization of the outline of a coin on the intraoral film.
Subp. 4. Outdated x-ray film.
Outdated x-ray film must not be used for diagnostic radiographs, unless the film has been stored according to the manufacturer's recommendations and passes the sensitometric test, step wedge test, or the dental radiographic normalizing and monitoring device test for normal ranges of base plus fog and speed.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0560 Ordering of Diagnostic Radiographic or Therapeutic Procedures
Subpart 1. Applicability.
Except when the radiographic procedure is part of a healing arts screening program approved by the commissioner, the registrant must be responsible for ensuring that the requirements in subpart 2 on ordering radiographic or therapeutic procedures are met.
Subp. 2. Diagnostic radiographic procedure orders.
A. The order for a radiographic examination can be made only by a licensed practitioner of the healing arts, a certified clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse midwife, certified nurse practitioner, or physician assistant. The physician assistant must show eligibility to order radiographic procedures through the physician assistant's written physician-physician assistant agreement with a copy on site at the facility.
B. The operator must not carry out a radiographic procedure unless ordered by individuals listed in this subpart.
C. An order for a radiographic procedure must be available to procedure personnel at the time of the examination.
D. The order for a radiographic procedure must include:
E. A licensed dental hygienist may order radiographs in facilities under a collaborative agreement authorized by the Board of Dentistry under Minnesota Statutes, chapter 150A.
Subp. 3. Exception for dental facilities.
Dental facilities are exempt from the provisions of subpart 2 for recall patients provided:
A. the facility has a signed, written standing order limited to recall patients; and
B. the facility's policy defines the scope of the recall standing order.
Subp. 4. Therapeutic procedure orders.
A. The order for radiation therapeutic treatments can be made only by a licensed practitioner of the healing arts or a physician assistant supervised by a therapeutic radiologist or a radiation oncologist. The physician assistant must show eligibility to order therapeutic procedures through a written delegation agreement with a copy on site at the facility.
B. The operator must not carry out radiation therapeutic treatments unless ordered by individuals listed in this subpart.
C. An order for radiation therapeutic treatments must be available to personnel at the time of the treatment.
D. The order for a therapeutic procedure must include:
Subp. 5. Identification prior to administration of treatment.
Prior to each administration of a treatment series, the patient's identity must be verified as the individual named in the procedure order. This should be done using two means of identification.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0565 Healing Arts Screening
Subpart 1. General requirements.
A person proposing to conduct a healing arts screening program must not implement the program without prior approval of the commissioner. An applicant must meet the requirements in this chapter. In addition:
A. an applicant must be registered with the commissioner before application for screening is initiated; and
B. the applicant must submit the information in this part on an application form provided by the commissioner or an equivalent form.
Subp. 2. Content of application.
In the application for screening, the applicant must provide:
A. the name and address of the applicant;
B. each location of the proposed screening and the name and telephone number of a contact person at each location;
C. the purpose of the proposed screening program planned. This purpose must include the diseases or conditions for which the x-ray examinations are to be used in diagnoses;
D. a detailed description of the x-ray examination proposed in the screening program;
E. a description of the population to be examined in the screening program, for example, age, sex, physical condition, and other appropriate information;
F. an evaluation of any known alternate methods not involving ionizing radiation that could achieve the goals of the screening program and why these methods are not used instead of the x-ray examinations;
G. an evaluation by a diagnostic radiological physicist of the x-ray systems to be used in the screening program. The evaluation must show that the system satisfies all requirements of these regulations;
H. a measurement of patient exposures from the x-ray examination to be performed during the screening;
I. a description of the diagnostic x-ray quality assurance program;
J. a copy of the technique chart for the x-ray examination procedures to be used;
K. a list of the qualifications of each individual who will be operating the x-ray system;
L. the qualifications of the individual who will be supervising the operators of the x-ray system. The extent of supervision and the method of work performance evaluation must be specified;
M. a list of the name(s), business address(es), and qualifications of the individual(s) who will interpret the radiographs;
N. the procedures for informing the individuals screened and their private practitioners of the healing arts of the results of the screening procedure and any further medical needs indicated;
O. the procedures for the retention or disposition of the radiographs and other records pertaining to the x-ray examinations;
P. the frequency of screening; and
Q. the duration of the entire screening program if less than the one year authorization period.
Subp. 3. Notification of commissioner's decision.
The applicant must be notified in writing of the commissioner's decision.
Subp. 4. Changes in screening program.
The applicant is responsible for informing the commissioner of any changes in the screening program described in the application. The applicant must obtain commissioner approval of the changes before the implementation.
Subp. 5. Appeal procedure.
The applicant may appeal the denial or refusal to approve an application or renewal application by requesting a contested case hearing under the provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act, Minnesota Statutes, chapter 14. The applicant must submit, within 15 days of the receipt of the department's decision, a written request for a hearing. The request for a hearing must set forth in detail the reasons why the applicant contends that the decision of the department should be reversed or modified.
Subp. 6. Renewal of screening program application.
Any request for the renewal of a screening program application must be submitted in writing 30 days before its expiration date. Renewal requests must contain the information specified in subpart 2.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0570 Operator Requirements
Except for an individual licensed under Minnesota Statutes, chapter 147, 147A, 150A, or 153, or sections 148.01 to 148.106, and an individual operating x-ray equipment for use on humans must pass an examination as specified in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.121, subdivision 5.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0575 Examination Requirements
Subpart 1. Notice to individual.
Upon passing the examination, a written notice to the individual will be sent by the commissioner.
Subp. 2. Passing level.
The passing level for each examination must be 70 percent.
Subp. 3. Validity standards.
An examination must meet validity standards for educational and psychological testing specified in the American Psychological Association's "Standards for Educational and Psychological Testing" (1986). The "Standards for Educational and Psychological Testing" are incorporated by reference, are not subject to frequent change, and are available at the Minnesota State Law Library at Room 625, Minnesota Judicial Center, 25 Rev. Dr. Martin Luther King Jr. Blvd., St. Paul, MN 55155.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0580 Registrant Requirements for Operators in Facilities Using X-Ray Equipment
A registrant in a facility with x-ray equipment used on humans must ensure that:
A. only individuals who have met the requirements in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.121, subdivision 5, are allowed to operate x-ray equipment;
B. written verification that the individual who operates x-ray equipment has met the requirements in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.121, subdivision 5, must be available for inspection by the commissioner; and
C. only individuals who have met the requirements in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.121, subdivision 5, may evaluate quality control tests.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0585 Equivalent Examinations
Subpart 1. General.
An individual must be determined by the commissioner to have met the requirements in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.121, subdivision 5, if the individual has passed any of the examinations listed in this part.
Subp. 2. Radiologic technologist registration examination.
If an individual has passed the radiography examination of the American Registry of Radiologic Technologists, the individual must be determined to have met the requirements in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.121, subdivision 5.
Subp. 3. Chiropractic radiologic technologist registration examination.
If an individual has passed the radiography examination of the American Chiropractic Registry of Radiologic Technologists, the individual must be determined to have met the requirements in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.121, subdivision 5.
Subp. 4. License from other United States jurisdictions.
If an individual has passed a full or limited license examination in radiography from other United States jurisdictions, the individual may request that the commissioner review the license examination to determine if the license examination is equivalent to the examination described in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.121, subdivision 5. If the examination meets the requirements of Minnesota Statutes, section 144.121, subdivision 5, the individual must be determined by the commissioner to have met the requirements of this part.
Subp. 5. Other professional registrations.
If an individual has passed a registration examination other than one specified in this part, or an examination not approved under part 4732.0580, the individual may request a determination of equivalency according to the procedures and criteria in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.121, subdivision 5.
Subp. 6. Physician assistants.
Physician assistants registered under Minnesota Statutes, chapter 147A, can operate equipment only as delegated by the supervising physicians in the supervisory agreement.
Subp. 7. Examination for dual modality studies.
Individuals who have passed the nuclear medicine examination of the American Registry of Radiologic Technologists or the examination of the Nuclear Technology Certification Board meet the requirements in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.121, subdivision 5, for the purpose of operating PET/CT in nuclear medicine procedure provided they have received specific training in CT operations.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0590 Individuals Operating X-Ray Equipment During Training
Subpart 1. Exemptions from x-ray machine operator's exam.
An individual participating in an approved training course for physicians, dentists, chiropractors, podiatrists, radiologic technologists, chiropractic radiologic technologists, dental hygienists, or dental assistants is exempt from the requirements of part 4732.0570 for the duration of the training course. The exemption applies to activities conducted within the scope of the training course. If an individual is operating x-ray equipment for use on humans outside the scope of the training course, the individual must comply with part 4732.0570.
Subp. 2. Externships.
If the approved program or approved course uses externships as part of the practical training, the program or course must notify the commissioner of the externship sites and dates the site is to be used. The program or course must ensure the exposure of humans to radiation during that period of training is as low as reasonably achievable and the radiation doses do not exceed the limits in parts 4732.0410 to 4732.0430.
Subp. 3. Utilization logs.
Each of the externship sites must keep the daily utilization log as required in part 4732.0545 according to part 4732.0330.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0600 Reports of Theft or Loss of Radiation-Producing Equipment
Subpart 1. Telephone reports.
A registrant must report to the commissioner the theft or loss of any radiation-producing equipment immediately after the theft or loss becomes known. The report must be made by telephone or facsimile.
Subp. 2. Written follow-up reports.
A registrant that is required to make a report by telephone or facsimile must, within 30 days after making the telephone report, make a written report to the commissioner listing the following information:
A. a description of the registered source of radiation involved, including the manufacturer, model, and serial number;
B. a description of the circumstances under which the loss or theft occurred;
C. actions that have been taken, or will be taken, to recover the radiation-producing equipment; and
D. procedures or measures that have been, or will be, adopted to ensure against a recurrence of the loss or theft of registered equipment.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0610 Reports of Medical Events or Incidents Involving Radiation-Producing Equipment
Subpart 1. Notification within 24 hours.
A registrant possessing any radiation-producing equipment must notify the commissioner within 24 hours of discovering any medical event.
Subp. 2. Additional reports.
In addition to any notification required by subpart 1, the registrant must submit a written report within 30 days to the commissioner to include:
A. a description of any event or incident for which notification is required;
B. what corrective actions were taken or planned to ensure against a recurrence; and
C. the extent of the dose of radiation to any individual, including:
Subp. 3. Notification of occupational levels exceeded.
A registrant must notify the commissioner of any individual worker who was exposed beyond the worker's occupational dose under part 4732.0410 within 30 days of discovery. The registrant must notify the individual and provide a copy of the report. The information reported must include the dose data and results obtained under this chapter, as shown in records maintained by the registrant according to part 4732.0440, subpart 10. Each notification and report must:
A. be in writing; and
B. include appropriate identifying data, including the name of the registrant, the name of the exposed individual worker, and the date of the dose.
Subp. 4. Notification of a fluoroscopic event.
Each facility using fluoroscopic equipment for interventional or special procedures must have available a record of patient exposure received per procedure for the commissioner's review. A patient's skin entrance exposure dose that exceeds 600 rads (6,000 milliGray) must be reviewed by the facility's radiation safety committee (RSC). If a facility does not have a radiation safety committee, the registrant must provide the commissioner within 30 days of the event, documentation stating why the patient's dose exceeded 600 rads (6,000 milliGray). In addition, if the patient's entrance exposure dose exceeds 600 rads (6,000 milliGray), the RSC or registrant must have an established policy and procedure to ensure appropriate potential skin injury and follow-up information is given to the patient.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0620 Warning and Control Devices for High and Very High Radiation Areas
Subpart 1. Entrance or access points.
Each entrance or access point to a high or very high radiation area must be:
A. equipped with a control device that causes the level of radiation to be reduced so that an individual cannot receive a dose in excess of 100 millirems (1.0 mSv) in one hour upon entry into the area;
B. equipped with a warning device that energizes a visible or audible alarm to alert an individual entering the high or very high radiation area and other nearby nonoccupationally exposed workers;
C. kept locked except during periods when access to the area is required; or
D. monitored or supervised.
Subp. 2. Exception.
When a high or very high radiation area is established for 30 calendar days or less, direct surveillance to prevent unauthorized entry may be substituted for the devices required by this subpart.
Subp. 3. Egress.
The devices required by this subpart must not prevent an individual from leaving a high or very high radiation area.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0630 Bypassing a Safety Device
The registrant must ensure that:
A. a safety device or interlock is not bypassed unless written approval has been obtained from the radiation safety officer or an alternate designated by the radiation safety officer:
B. the bypass or safety interlock must be terminated as soon as possible; and
C. a readily discernible sign stating "SAFETY DEVICE OR INTERLOCK NOT WORKING" must be posted on the radiation source housing and at the control panel, when a safety device is bypassed.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0700 Calibrations
Subpart 1. Diagnostic radiographic system calibrations.
The registrant must ensure that corrective actions or calibrations are performed on a diagnostic radiographic system whenever that system does not meet the minimum equipment performance criteria in nationally recognized standards, such as:
A. Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, section 1020.30;
B. the manufacturer's specifications; or
C. specified in part 4732.1100.
Subp. 2. Therapeutic system calibrations.
The registrant must ensure that the corrective actions or calibrations are performed on the therapeutic equipment whenever that system does not meet the minimum equipment performance criteria in nationally recognized standards, such as:
A. Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, section 892;
B. the manufacturer's specifications; or
C. specified in part 4732.1120 or 4732.1130.
Subp. 3. Tests after change or replacement.
Calibration or an equipment performance evaluation must be performed when there is any change or replacement of components that could cause a change in the radiation output of that system.
Subp. 4. Records.
The registrant must ensure that the records are maintained according to part 4732.0330.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0710 Radiation Survey or Measurement Instruments
Subpart 1. Requirements.
To ensure correct response to radiation, each radiation survey instrument must be calibrated at intervals not to exceed 24 months and after each servicing:
A. be calibrated at energy levels and over a range appropriate for the use;
B. be calibrated to accuracy within plus or minus 20 percent over the applicable range of the instrument;
C. have records of the calibrations maintained according to part 4732.0330;
D. the calibration of any electronic equipment must be traceable to its calibration standard at the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST); and
E. noninvasive kVp meters must be calibrated by the manufacturer or an accredited calibration laboratory.
Subp. 2. Records.
The registrant must maintain the records of the tests and calibrations according to part 4732.0330.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0800 General Equipment Requirements for All Diagnostic Radiation-Producing Systems
Subpart 1. Applicability.
All diagnostic radiation-producing systems must comply with nationally recognized standards, such as:
A. Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, sections 1020.30 to 1020.33;
B. manufacturer's specifications;
C. in part 4732.1100; or
D. all equipment manufactured before the effective date of Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, sections 1020.30 to 1020.33, must meet the requirements of a nationally recognized standard, or this chapter.
Subp. 2. Radiation exposure x-ray control.
An x-ray control must be incorporated into each x-ray system to comply with Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, section 1020.31. In addition, the x-ray control must meet the requirements in this subpart.
A. The exposure control switch must be a dead-man type, which requires continuous pressure to complete the exposure.
B. Each x-ray control console other than dental intraoral systems must be located in such a way as to meet the requirements in subitems (1) to (3).
C. The x-ray control console must provide visual indication observable at or from the operator's protected position whenever x-rays are produced.
D. The control panel containing the main power switch must bear the warning statement which is legible and accessible to view: "WARNING This x-ray unit may be dangerous to patient and operator unless safe exposure factors, operating instructions, and maintenance schedules are observed."
E. Any deviation of technique factors for kVp must be those specified by the manufacturer. For other technique factors, the deviation must have a coefficient of variation of no more than five percent.
F. The x-ray control console must provide a signal audible to the operator that the exposure has terminated.
G. Automatic or semiautomatic collimators (PBL) may be permanently changed to a manual mode, if the facility chooses. This requires the automatic system to be permanently disabled. The collimator must be relabeled with a durable sign that is clearly observable to the operator that states "manual operation required."
Subp. 3. Radiation exposure automatic exposure controls.
When an automatic exposure control is provided, the control must meet Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, section 1020.31.
Subp. 4. Radiation from capacitor energy storage equipment.
Radiation emitted from the x-ray tube must comply with Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, section 1020.31.
Subp. 5. Diagnostic radiographic systems designed for one image receptor size.
These systems must meet Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, section 1020.31.
Subp. 6. Beam quality, half-value layer.
The half-value layer of the useful beam for a given kVp must not be less than the values shown in item A. If it is necessary to determine a half-value layer at a kVp, which is not listed in item A, linear interpolation or extrapolation may be made.
A. Values for half-value layer of useful beam for x-ray tube: *Systems manufactured after June 10, 2006, are in brackets. All other systems were manufactured before June 10, 2006.
B. All intraoral dental radiographic systems installed on and after December 1, 1980, must have a minimum half-value layer not less than 1.5 millimeters aluminum.
C. For capacitor energy storage equipment, compliance with the requirements of this subpart must be determined with the capacitors fully charged and with a technique that discharges at least half of the energy stored in the capacitors, half of the maximum milliampere-second.
D. The half-value layer of the useful beam must be measured with all the materials in the beam that normally are present between the source and the patient.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0820 General Purpose Diagnostic Radiation-Producing Equipment Manufactured Before 1973
Subpart 1. Applicability.
Diagnostic radiation-producing equipment in veterinary facilities or equipment manufactured before 1973 must meet the requirements of the manufacturer's specifications or the requirements in this part in addition to other requirements in this chapter.
Subp. 2. Beam limitation.
The useful beam must be limited to the patient's area of clinical interest.
A. Means must be provided to limit the x-ray field in the plane of the image receptor so the field does not exceed each dimension of the image receptor by more than two percent of the SID when the axis of the x-ray beam is perpendicular to the plane of the image receptor.
B. Means must be provided to align the center of the x-ray field with the center of the image receptor to within two percent of the SID, or means must be provided to align the x-ray field so the x-ray field at the plane of the image receptor does not extend beyond any edge of the image receptor.
C. The requirements of items A and B may be met with either:
Subp. 3. X-ray control console.
A. All x-ray control console panel indicator lights must be operational.
B. The x-ray control console must provide visual indication observable at or from the operator's protected position whenever x-rays are produced.
C. The x-ray control console must provide a signal audible to the operator that the exposure has terminated.
Subp. 4. Beam quality half-value layer.
The requirements for half-value layer found in part 4732.0800, subpart 6, must be met.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0825 Fluoroscopic X-Ray Systems Except Radiation Therapy Simulators
Subpart 1. Applicability.
All fluoroscopic systems must meet the requirements in this chapter and the applicable performance standards of nationally recognized standards, such as:
A. Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, section 1020.32;
B. the manufacturer's specifications; or
C. part 4732.1100.
Subp. 2. Fluoroscopic training requirements.
Except licensed practitioners of the healing arts, any individual activating the fluoroscopic system must be trained in the aspects of fluoroscopic equipment use listed in items A to J. The topics to be covered and documented are:
A. x-ray generation and control;
B. x-ray dosimetry;
C. image formation;
D. image acquisition;
E. image processing and management;
F. radiation effects;
G. patient dose-management fundamentals;
H. staff radiation safety;
I. professional standards and regulatory requirements; and
J. other miscellaneous items appropriate to site-specific use.
Subp. 3. Registrant requirements.
The registrant must ensure that:
A. the written safety procedures provide precautionary measures to be adhered to when image intensified fluoroscopes are used for specific surgical applications;
B. portable fluoroscopic equipment must have spacer cones and the spacer cones must remain with the portable fluoroscopic equipment at all times. Appropriate spacer cones must be placed on the portable fluoroscopic equipment that is used outside of the surgical setting;
C. any individual who is in the room during a fluoroscopic procedure must wear a protective garment of not less than 0.5 millimeter lead equivalence; and
D. all fluoroscopic x-ray equipment must be provided with a bucky-slot cover panel, if applicable, and either lead drapes attached to the intensifying tower or self-supporting shields of not less than 0.5 millimeter lead equivalent material.
Subp. 4. Limitation of useful beam x-ray field.
A. All fluoroscopic systems must be provided with image intensification equipment to view the fluoroscopic images.
B. Spot-film devices must meet the field limitation and alignment requirements in Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, section 1020.31.
Subp. 5. Entrance exposure rate allowable limits.
Fluoroscopic systems must meet requirements in Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, section 1020.32.
A. Fluoroscopic equipment with automatic exposure rate control (AERC) must not be operable at any combination of tube potential and current that results in an air kerma rate in excess of ten roentgens per minute or 2.58 x 10-3 C/kg per minute at the point where the center of the useful beam enters the patient, except:
B. Fluoroscopic equipment without AERC (manual mode) must not be operable at any combination of tube potential and current that results in an air kerma rate in excess of five R/min (1.29 x 10-3 C/kg per minute) at the point where the center of the useful beam enters the patient:
C. Fluoroscopic equipment with both an AERC mode and a manual mode must not be operable at any combination of tube potential and current that results in an air kerma rate in excess of ten R/min (2.58 x 10-3 C/kg per minute) in either mode at the point where the center of the useful beam enters the patient, except:
D. The registrant with fluoroscopic systems manufactured after May 19, 1995, must ensure that the entrance exposure rate allowable limits in this subpart are met.
Subp. 6. Indication of kilovoltage and milliamperage.
For fluoroscopic x-ray systems, kilovoltage and the milliamperage must be continuously indicated.
Subp. 7. Source-to-skin distance.
The source-to-skin distance must not be less than:
A. 15 inches (38 centimeters) on stationary fluoroscopes;
B. 14 inches (35.5 centimeters) on stationary fluoroscopes manufactured prior to August 1, 1974;
C. 11.8 inches (30 centimeters) on all portable fluoroscopes; and
D. 7.9 inches (20 centimeters) for image intensified fluoroscopes used for specific surgical applications.
Subp. 8. Control of scattered radiation.
The procedures in this subpart must be used to control scattered radiation from all fluoroscopes.
A. When a fluoroscopic table with an under table x-ray tube is used, the bucky opening must be shielded to attenuate the scattered radiation by at least 70 percent. Lead drapes must be attached to the intensifier tower to attenuate scattered radiation by at least 70 percent.
B. For other under table configurations, provisions must be made through equipment design or radiation protection measures to ensure that individuals do not receive a dose in excess of the allowable dose limits listed in parts 4732.0410 to 4732.0430.
C. For single-tube above table combination radiographic and fluoroscopic x-ray systems used in the fluoroscopic mode, protective aprons of not less than 0.5 millimeter lead equivalence must be used to ensure that any individual who is in the room during a fluoroscopic procedure does not receive a dose greater than the allowable dose limits in part 4732.0410. In addition, portable lead shields, barriers, or aprons of not less than 0.5 millimeter lead equivalence must be used.
D. For portable C-arm fluoroscopes, provisions must be made through the use of protective aprons of not less than 0.5 millimeter lead equivalence to ensure that any individual other than the patient who may be exposed during a fluoroscopic procedure does not receive a dose in excess of the allowable dose limits in part 4732.0410.
Subp. 9. Radiation therapy simulation systems.
A radiation therapy simulation system is exempt from the requirements of subpart 3, provided:
A. the system is designed and used so that no individual other than the patient is in the simulation room when the system is producing x-rays; and
B. the system has a means to indicate the cumulative time that an individual patient has been exposed to x-rays. Procedures must require in such cases that the timer be reset between examinations.
Subp. 10. Real-time cabinet fluoroscopic systems.
A real-time cabinet fluoroscopic system used for research must meet the requirements in part 4732.1040.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0830 Fluoroscopic Dose-Area-Product Monitor
All fluoroscopic equipment installed 90 days after November 5, 2007, must be equipped with a dose-area-product monitor or comparable device, capable of recording the total radiation dose received by a patient when the fluoroscopic tube is used.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0835 Requirements for Computed Radiography, Digital Radiography, or Photostimulable Storage Phosphor Radiation-Producing Equipment
Subpart 1. Requirements.
Persons registered to possess radiation-producing equipment must be responsible for maintaining equipment in compliance with this chapter and:
A. a nationally recognized standard, such as Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, section 1020;
B. the manufacturer's specifications; or
C. part 4732.1100.
Subp. 2. Applicability.
Facilities that have radiation-producing equipment that is filmless, photostimulable storage phosphor, computed radiography, or digital radiography must comply with this part and other pertinent requirements in this chapter.
Subp. 3. Registrant requirements.
The registrant using computed radiography, digital radiography, or photostimulable storage phosphor radiation-producing equipment must ensure that:
A. the equipment is registered according to part 4732.0200;
B. occupational dose and dose to the public limits in parts 4732.0410 to 4732.0430 are not exceeded;
C. equipment calibration tests at the time of installation and equipment performance evaluations are conducted at intervals not to exceed 24 months according to:
D. any necessary corrective actions are made and documented;
E. individuals who will be operating or maintaining the radiation-producing equipment meet the requirements in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.121, subdivision 5, and:
F. a technique chart is used for all radiographic exposures. The technique chart must reflect the technique parameters for the individual system.
Subp. 4. Quality assurance or quality control procedures.
The registrant must ensure that:
A. all quality assurance or quality control procedures must be established by the registrant, recommended by a nationally recognized professional organization, or be recommended by the manufacturer;
B. the quality assurance or quality control procedure frequency, corrective actions taken, and date and initials of the individual completing the procedures are documented and maintained at the site; and
C. the procedures and frequency are in the facility's operating and safety procedures.
Subp. 5. Records.
The registrant must ensure that records are maintained according to part 4732.0330.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0850 Bone Densitometry Systems
Subpart 1. Applicability.
Facilities using bone densitometry systems or pQCT peripheral systems must comply with the requirements in this part and other relevant requirements in this chapter. Persons registered to possess radiation-producing equipment must be responsible for maintaining the equipment in compliance with:
A. nationally recognized standards, such as Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, section 1020;
B. the manufacturer's specifications; or
C. part 4732.1100.
Subp. 2. General requirements for bone densitometry systems.
The registrant must ensure that:
A. systems with stepless collimators are provided with the means to both size and align the x-ray field at the place of the image receptor and does not exceed the SID by two percent;
B. during the operation of the bone densitometry system, the operator, ancillary personnel, and members of the general public must be positioned to maintain occupational radiation dose and dose to the public as low as reasonably achievable during the examination so as not to exceed the limits in parts 4732.0410 to 4732.0430;
C. the radiographic procedures are conducted according to radiographic order requirements in part 4732.0560, subpart 2; and
D. the equipment performance evaluations are completed at intervals not to exceed 24 months according to:
Subp. 3. Quality assurance or quality control procedures.
The registrant must ensure that:
A. all quality assurance or quality control procedures follow the recommendations of a nationally recognized standard, and the manufacturer's specifications for quality control tests;
B. the frequency of quality assurance or quality control procedures, and corrective actions taken as a result of the quality control testing are followed and documented; and
C. the facility's operating and emergency procedures include quality assurance or quality control procedures.
Subp. 4. Bone density system operators.
The registrant must ensure that an operator of bone densitometry equipment must:
A. be a licensed practitioner of the healing arts, physician assistant, registered radiologist assistant or radiology practitioner assistant, or be an x-ray operator having fulfilled the requirements of Minnesota Statutes, section 144.121, subdivision 5;
B. complete specific manufacturer's training or the equivalent on bone densitometry equipment; and
C. have site-specific training on the registrant's operating and emergency procedures.
Subp. 5. Records.
The registrant must ensure that the records are maintained according to part 4732.0330.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0860 Computed Tomography Requirements
Subpart 1. Applicability.
A. All computed tomography systems must meet the requirements of:
B. Computed tomography facilities must meet the requirements in this part and other pertinent requirements in this chapter.
Subp. 2. Facility design requirements.
A. The control panel must be mounted in a permanently protected area outside the computed tomography room meeting the requirements in part 4732.0355, subpart 4.
B. If the control booth is located within the CT room, the control booth must meet the requirements of part 4732.0355, subpart 4.
C. In either case, the operator is required to remain in that protected area during the entire exposure.
Subp. 3. Viewing systems.
A. Windows, mirrors, closed-circuit television, or an equivalent must be provided to permit continuous operator observation of the patient from the control panel during irradiation.
B. When the primary viewing system is by electronic means, an alternate viewing system must be available for use in the event of failure of the primary viewing system.
Subp. 4. Audio communication.
Provision must be made for two-way audio communication between the patient and operator at the control panel.
Subp. 5. Radiation surveys.
All computed tomography systems installed 90 days after November 5, 2007, and those systems not previously surveyed, must have a radiation survey made to identify radiation levels at the control panel and spaces adjoining the room. In addition, the radiation surveys must be completed after any change in the facility or equipment which might cause a significant increase in radiation hazard. The radiation survey must be maintained by the registrant according to part 4732.0330.
Subp. 6. Equipment performance measurements.
A. The registrant must ensure that the equipment performance measurement procedures in this part are performed at intervals not to exceed 24 months according to:
B. The equipment performance measurement of the radiation output of the CT x-ray system must be performed by a registered service provider.
C. The equipment performance measurements of a CT system must be performed at intervals not to exceed 24 months or after change or replacement of components that could cause an increase in radiation hazard or that could result in the minimum performance criteria in part 4732.1100 not being met.
D. The measurements of the radiation output of a CT system must be performed with a calibrated dosimetry system. The calibration of such system must be traceable to a national standard. The dosimetry system must have been calibrated within the preceding 24 months.
E. CT dosimetry phantoms must be used in determining the radiation output of a CT system. The phantoms must comply with Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, section 1020.33.
F. The computed tomography dose index (CTDI) must be completed using the CT dosimetry phantom. For the purpose of determining the CTDI, the manufacturer's statement as to the nominal tomographic section thickness for that particular system may be used.
G. The dose measurements must be made for standard head and body scan modes of operation used at the facility.
H. The image quality measurements must be made using a typical clinical technique in the standard head and body scan modes of operation.
Subp. 7. Spot checks.
The registrant must ensure the spot checks for the computed tomography equipment specified in this part are performed at intervals not to exceed 12 months to verify the system's integrity.
A. The spot check procedures must be written procedures developed by the manufacturer or a registered service provider.
B. The spot check procedures must incorporate the use of a CT image quality phantom to provide an indication of contrast scale, noise, nominal tomographic section thickness, the resolution capability of the system for low and high contrast objects, and measuring the mean computed tomography noise (CTN) for water or other reference material.
C. Spot checks must include acquisition of images obtained with the CT image quality phantoms using the same processing mode and CT conditions of operation as are used to perform equipment performance measurements in part 4732.1100. The images must be maintained, until a new equipment performance test is performed.
D. Records must be retained as:
E. Documentation of the spot checks must be maintained according to part 4732.0330 for inspection by the commissioner.
Subp. 8. Equipment performance measurements performed by the CT operator.
In addition to the equipment performance measurements in subpart 6, an operator must:
A. complete the daily or monthly equipment performance procedures in part 4732.1100, including all processing procedures in part 4732.0510; and
B. acquisition of images obtained with the CT dosimetry phantoms using the same processing mode and CT conditions of operation that are used to perform the equipment performance measurements required by part 4732.1100.
Subp. 9. Program review.
The registrant or radiation safety officer must review, sign, and date the operator's equipment performance measurements at least quarterly.
Subp. 10. Operating procedures.
Information about the operation, radiation surveys, and equipment performance measurements of the system must be available for the employees and for the commissioner at the time of an inspection. The registrant must ensure that:
A. the CT system is operated by an individual who:
B. information about the system must be available at the control panel regarding the operation. The information must include the following:
Subp. 11. Corrective actions.
A. Correction of the problem must take place and be verified by performing the equipment performance measurements according to Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, section 1030, the manufacturer's specifications, or part 4732.1100.
B. Corrective action must take place if the equipment performance measurements or spot checks of the CT system indicate that a system operating parameter has exceeded a tolerance established:
Subp. 12. CT fluoroscopic procedures.
If the equipment has the capabilities of performing fluoroscopic procedures, the x-ray control may be operated in the CT room and essential personnel may remain in the room during the fluoroscopic procedures provided they:
A. have been trained on radiation safety issues of CT;
B. are wearing personal protective garments; and
C. have individual personal monitoring devices.
Subp. 13. Records.
The registrant will ensure that the required documentation is maintained according to part 4732.0330.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0865 Computerized Tomography Designed for Visualization of the Head and Soft Tissue of the Neck
Subpart 1. Applicability.
Computed tomography systems designed for visualization of head and soft tissues of the neck must meet requirements of this chapter and:
A. nationally recognized standards such as Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, section 1020;
B. the manufacturer's specifications; or
C. part 4731.1100.
Subp. 2. Facility design requirements.
A. The control panel must be mounted in a permanently protected area outside the computed tomography room and meet the requirements of part 4732.0355, subpart 2.
B. If the control area is within the CT room, the requirements for a control booth in part 4732.0355, subpart 2, must be followed.
C. The operator is required to remain in the protected area during the entire exposure.
D. Viewing systems must be windows, mirrors, closed-circuit television, or an equivalent able to provide continuous operator observation of the patient from the control panel during irradiation.
E. Provision must be made for two-way audio communication between the patient and operator at the control panel.
Subp. 3. Radiation surveys.
All computed tomography systems installed 90 days after November 5, 2007, and those systems not previously surveyed, must have a radiation survey to identify radiation levels at the control panel and the spaces adjoining the CT room. In addition, the surveys must be completed after any change in the facility or equipment that might cause a significant increase in radiation hazard. The survey must be maintained by the registrant according to part 4732.0330.
Subp. 4. Equipment performance measurements.
A. The registrant must ensure that the equipment performance measurement procedures are performed at intervals not to exceed 24 months according to:
B. The equipment performance measurement of the radiation output of the CT x-ray system must be performed by a registered service provider.
C. The equipment performance measurements of a CT system must be performed at intervals not to exceed 24 months or after change or replacement of components that could cause an increase in radiation hazard or that could result in the minimum performance criteria in part 4732.1100 not being met.
D. The measurements of the radiation output of a CT system must be performed with a calibrated dosimetry system. The calibration of such system must be traceable to a national standard. The dosimetry system must have been calibrated within the preceding 24 months.
E. CT dosimetry phantoms must be used in determining the radiation output of a CT system. The phantoms must comply with Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, section 1020.33 or equivalent phantom.
F. The dose measurements must be made for standard head scan mode of operation used at the facility.
G. The image quality measurements must be made using a typical clinical technique in the standard head scan mode of operation.
Subp. 5. Spot checks.
The registrant must ensure the spot checks for the computed tomography equipment in this part are performed at intervals not to exceed 12 months to verify the system's integrity.
A. The spot check procedures must be written procedures developed by the manufacturer or a registered service provider.
B. All spot checks must be included in the equipment performance measurements and at time intervals and system conditions specified by the manufacturer or a registered service provider.
C. The spot check procedures must incorporate the use of a CT image quality phantom to provide an indication of contrast scale, noise, the resolution capability of the system for low and high contrast objects, and must measure the mean computed tomography noise (CTN) for water or other reference material.
D. Spot checks must include acquisition of images obtained with the CT image quality phantoms using the same processing mode and CT conditions of operation that are used to perform equipment performance measurements according to part 4732.1100. The images must be maintained until a new equipment performance test is performed.
E. Records must be retained as:
F. Documentation of the spot checks must be maintained according to part 4732.0330.
Subp. 6. Equipment performance measurements performed by the CT operator.
In addition to the equipment performance measurements described in subpart 4, an operator must:
A. complete daily and monthly equipment performance procedures according to part 4732.1100 or those equipment performance procedures designed by the manufacturer and include all processing procedures in part 4732.0510; and
B. complete acquisition of images obtained with a CT phantom recommended by the manufacturer using the same processing mode and CT conditions of operation that are used to perform the equipment performance measurements required by part 4732.1100.
Subp. 7. Program review.
The registrant or radiation safety officer must review, sign, and date the operator's equipment performance measurements at intervals not to exceed 12 months.
Subp. 8. Operating procedures.
The registrant must ensure that:
A. the CT system is operated by an individual who:
B. information of the system is available at the control panel regarding the operation. The information must include the following:
Subp. 9. Corrective actions.
A. Correction of the problem must take place and be verified by performing the equipment performance measurements according to:
B. The equipment must not be used until corrective actions have been taken, verified, and documented, if the equipment performance measurement or spot check of the CT system indicates that a system operating parameter has exceeded a tolerance established:
Subp. 10. CT fluoroscopic procedures.
If the equipment has the capabilities of performing fluoroscopic procedures, the x-ray control may be operated in the CT room and essential personnel may remain in the room during the fluoroscopic procedures provided they:
A. have been trained on radiation safety issues of CT;
B. are wearing personal protective garments; and
C. have individual personal monitoring devices.
Subp. 11. Records.
The registrant will ensure that the required documentation is maintained according to part 4732.0330.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0870 Requirements for Stereotactic Mammographic Equipment
Subpart 1. Equipment requirements.
Radiation-producing equipment specifically designed to perform stereotactically guided breast biopsies must meet the requirements of this chapter and:
A. nationally recognized standards such as Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, section 1020;
B. the equipment manufacturer's specifications; or
C. part 4732.1100.
Subp. 2. Registrant requirements.
The registrant must ensure that:
A. individuals operating the equipment meet the requirements of Minnesota Statutes, section 144.121, subdivision 5, or the Food and Drug Administration's Mammographic Quality Standards Act requirements;
B. individuals have completed equipment manufacturer's training or equivalent and initial site-specific training in the registrant's operating and emergency procedures;
C. the training in item B is documented and records kept; and
D. the entire system for stereotactic breast biopsies including the equipment performance, procedures, and records are evaluated annually by a diagnostic radiographic physicist.
Subp. 3. Quality assurance and quality control procedures.
The registrant must ensure that:
A. all manufacturer's quality assurance or quality control procedures follow the test procedures established by the registrant, recommendations of a nationally recognized standard, or the manufacturer's specifications;
B. the frequency of the quality assurance or quality control procedures, and corrective actions as a result of quality control testing are followed and documented; and
C. the facility's operating and emergency procedures include quality assurance or quality control procedures.
Subp. 4. Records.
Records must be maintained according to part 4732.0330.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0875 Veterinary Medical Radiographic Systems
Subpart 1. Applicability.
A. This part applies to x-ray systems used for diagnostic veterinary medicine radiography. The registrant must meet the requirements in this part and other pertinent requirements in this chapter, and the equipment must meet:
B. For new installations and remodeling occurring 90 days after November 5, 2007, the shielding requirements in parts 4732.0355 and 4732.0360 must be met.
Subp. 2. Beam limitation.
The useful beam must be limited to the area of clinical interest.
A. Means must be provided to limit the x-ray field in the plane of the image receptor so the field does not exceed each dimension of the image receptor by more than two percent of the SID when the axis of the x-ray beam is perpendicular to the place of the image receptor.
B. Means must be provided to align the center of the x-ray field with the center of the image receptor to within two percent of the SID, or means must be provided to align the x-ray field so the x-ray field at the plane of the image receptor does not extend beyond any edge of the image receptor.
C. The requirements of items A and B may be met with either:
Subp. 3. X-ray control console.
A. All x-ray control console panel indicator lights must be operational.
B. The x-ray control console must provide visual indication observable from the operator's protected position whenever x-rays are produced.
C. The x-ray control console must provide a signal audible to the operator when the exposure has terminated.
Subp. 4. Beam quality half-value layer.
The requirements for half-value layer found in part 4732.0800, subpart 6, must be met.
Subp. 5. Operating procedures.
The registrant must provide operating procedures to ensure that dose limits in parts 4732.0400 to 4732.0430 are not exceeded.
A. The operator must not stand in the path of the useful beam during radiographic procedures.
B. No individual other than the operator can be in the radiographic room while exposures are being made unless the individual's assistance is required.
C. When an animal must be held by an individual during radiography, that individual must wear protective aprons and gloves of at least 0.5 millimeters lead equivalency. The individual must be positioned so that no part of the body, protected or unprotected, will be struck by the useful beam.
D. A mechanical cassette holding device must be used for horizontal beam x-rays whenever possible.
Subp. 6. Additional requirements for fluoroscopic systems in veterinary facilities.
All fluoroscopic x-ray systems must be image intensified and meet the requirements in items A to J:
A. The fluoroscopic imaging assembly must be provided with a primary protective barrier that intercepts the entire cross section of the useful beam at any SID.
B. The x-ray tube used for fluoroscopy must not produce x-rays unless the barrier is in position to intercept the entire useful beam.
C. For fluoroscopic systems with or without a spot film device, the length or the width of the x-ray field in the plane of the image receptor must not exceed the length or width of the visible area of the image receptor by more than three percent of the SID.
D. For spot-film beam limitation, the x-ray field size in the plane of the film must be adjustable to a size smaller than the selected portion of the film. The minimum field size at the greatest SID must be equal to, or less than, five centimeters by five centimeters.
E. The center of the x-ray field in the plane of the film must be aligned with the center of the selected portion of the film to within two percent of the SID.
F. Fluoroscopic equipment that is provided with automatic exposure rate control must not be operable at any combination of kVp and mA which will result in an exposure rate in excess of ten roentgens (2.6 mC/kg) per minute at the point where the center of the useful beam enters the patient, except:
G. Fluoroscopic equipment that is not provided with automatic exposure rate control must not be operable at any combination of kVp or mA which will result in an exposure rate in excess of five roentgens (1.3 mC/kg) per minute at the point where the center of the useful beam enters the patient, except:
H. If a high-level control is available, a continuous signal audible to the fluoroscopist must indicate that the high-level control is being employed.
I. X-ray production in the fluoroscopic mode must be controlled by a device that requires continuous pressure by the fluoroscopist for the entire time of any exposure.
J. The source-to-skin distance must not be less than:
Subp. 7. Additional requirements for therapeutic systems in veterinary medical facilities.
Veterinary therapeutic equipment must meet the specifications in items A to C.
A. When the x-ray tube is operated at its maximum rated mA for the maximum kV, the leakage air kerma rate must not exceed the following value:
B. A suitable irradiation timer control device must be provided to terminate the irradiation after a preset time interval.
C. The control panel, in addition to the displays, must have an indication of whether electrical power is available at the control panel and if activation of the x-ray tube is possible; and:
Subp. 8. Additional requirements for dental intraoral systems in veterinary medical facilities.
Veterinary dental intraoral equipment must:
A. be provided with a position-indicating device to limit source-to-skin distance to not less than 7.1 inches (18 centimeters);
B. employ collimation to limit the x-ray field such that:
C. be such that the tube housing and position-indicating device must be stable before and during the exposure. The tube housing cannot be hand-held during an exposure.
Subp. 9. Records.
Veterinary facilities must maintain records according to part 4732.0330.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0880 Intraoral Dental Radiographic Systems
Subpart 1. Applicability.
This part applies to intraoral dental radiographic systems. The dental intraoral x-ray systems must meet the requirements of:
A. nationally recognized standards such as Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, sections 1020.31 to 1020.33;
B. the manufacturer's specification; or
C. part 4732.1100.
Subp. 2. Safety controls.
The registrant must ensure that the safety controls in this subpart are followed.
A. Intraoral film holders and bite blocks must be used except when endodontic procedures do not permit.
B. Film must not be routinely held by hand.
C. The tube housing and the position-indicating device must not be hand-held during an exposure and must be stable before the exposure is initiated and during the exposure.
D. The exposure at the end of the cone for a posterior bitewing technique must not exceed the values listed in the table below:
E. The operator of the radiographic equipment must be protected and able to view the patient during the taking of any radiographs.
Subp. 3. Beam quality half-value layer.
The requirements for half-value layer found in part 4732.0800, subpart 6, must be met.
Subp. 4. Digital radiography.
In addition to the requirements of this part, the exposure at the end of the cone of digital dental radiographic equipment must not exceed 120 mR for a posterior bitewing.
Subp. 5. Records.
Dental facilities must maintain records according to part 4732.0330 until the inspection by the commissioner.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0890 Extraoral Dental Systems
Subpart 1. Requirements.
X-ray systems used for extraoral dental radiography must meet the requirements in this chapter and in:
A. nationally recognized standards, such as Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, section 1020;
B. the manufacturer's specifications; or
C. part 4732.1100.
Subp. 2. Safety controls.
The registrant must ensure that the following safety controls are followed:
A. the useful beam must be limited to the patient's area of clinical interest;
B. the other requirements in part 4732.0800 must be met;
C. the operator of the radiation-producing equipment must be protected and able to view the patient during the taking of any radiographs; and
D. the doses in parts 4732.0410 to 4732.0430 are not exceeded.
Subp. 3. Quality assurance and quality control procedures.
The registrant must ensure that:
A. quality assurance or quality control procedures follow the test procedures established by the registrant, recommendations of a nationally recognized professional organization, or the manufacturer's specifications; and
B. quality assurance or quality control procedures are completed at the required frequency, corrective actions are taken, and verification tests are accomplished as applicable.
Subp. 4. Digital radiography.
For digital radiography, the registrant must ensure that, in addition to the requirements of this part, the following requirements are met:
A. the radiation-producing equipment must be used according to a nationally recognized standard, the manufacturer's specifications, or part 4732.1100; and
B. the technique chart used for all radiographic exposures reflects the technique parameters for the individual system.
Subp. 5. Records.
The registrant must ensure that records are maintained according to part 4732.0330.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0895 Dental Computed Tomography Systems
Refer to part 4732.0865, computerized tomography designed for visualization of the head and soft tissues of the neck.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0900 General Requirements for Facilities Using Accelerators
Subpart 1. Applicability.
Facilities using accelerators must comply with the requirements in this part and other pertinent requirements in this chapter.
Subp. 2. Operations.
A. A registrant shall not permit an individual to act as an operator of an accelerator until the individual:
B. In addition to the audit required in part 4732.0535, each operator's performance during an actual accelerator operation must be audited by the radiation safety officer or designee at intervals not to exceed 12 months. If an operator has not participated in an accelerator operation for more than six months since the last audit, the individual's performance must be observed and recorded at the first opportunity the individual participates in an accelerator operation.
C. Records of the audits must be maintained according to part 4732.0330.
D. Operators of accelerators used for industrial radiography must meet the requirements of part 4732.1050.
Subp. 3. Radiation safety officer duties for accelerator facilities.
In addition to the requirements in part 4732.0505, a radiation safety officer's duties include, but are not limited to, the duties in items A to L. The radiation safety officer must:
A. establish and oversee operating, emergency, and ALARA procedures;
B. review the established procedures regularly to ensure that the procedures are current and conform to this chapter;
C. oversee and approve all phases of the training program for accelerator operators so that appropriate and effective radiation protection practices are taught;
D. ensure that personnel are complying with this chapter and the operating and emergency procedures;
E. ensure that individual monitoring devices are calibrated and used properly;
F. assume control and institute corrective actions including shutdown of operations when necessary in emergency situations or unsafe conditions;
G. ensure that inspection and maintenance programs are performed according to this part and the manufacturer's specifications;
H. ensure that required radiation surveys are performed;
I. document any corrective measures when levels of radiation exceed established limits;
J. ensure that any required interlock switches and warning signals are functioning and that radiation signs, ropes, and barriers are properly posted and positioned;
K. investigate and report to the commissioner each known or suspected case of radiation exposure to an individual or radiation level detected in excess of limits established by this chapter, to determine the cause, and to take steps to prevent its recurrence; and
L. maintain records as required by this chapter.
Subp. 4. Individual monitoring.
In addition to the requirements of part 4732.0440, individual monitoring devices must be required for all individuals entering any area for which interlocks are required unless:
A. a radiation survey of that area has determined that radiation levels are below that of a high radiation area; and
B. power to an accelerator cannot be activated; or
C. an accelerated beam cannot be directed to the area.
Subp. 5. Operating and emergency procedures.
A. Accelerators, when not in operation, must be secured to prevent unauthorized use.
B. Unless otherwise specified in this chapter, all safety and warning devices, including interlocks, must be checked for proper operation at intervals not to exceed three months. Results of these tests must be maintained at the accelerator facility for inspection by the commissioner according to part 4732.0330.
C. The registrant's operating and emergency procedures must include the following:
D. A copy of the current operating and emergency procedures must be maintained at the accelerator control panel.
Subp. 6. Records.
All records must be kept according to part 4732.0330.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0925 General Requirements for Therapeutic Equipment
Subpart 1. Protection radiation survey measurements.
A. The registrant must ensure that facility radiation surveys required by part 4732.0380, subpart 4, are performed with the therapeutic radiation machine in a "BEAM-ON" condition, with the largest clinically available treatment field and with a scattering phantom in the useful beam of radiation.
B. The registrant must ensure that equipment quality control measurements are performed at intervals not to exceed 12 months.
Subp. 2. Dosimetry equipment.
A. The registrant must have a calibrated dosimetry system available for quality control measurements. The system must be calibrated by the National Institute for Standards and Technology (NIST) or by an American Association of Physicists in Medicine (AAPM) Accredited Dosimetry Calibration Laboratory (ADCL). The calibration must have been performed within the previous 24 months and after any servicing that may have affected system calibration.
B. The dosimetry system may be compared with a system that has been calibrated according to this subpart. This comparison must have been performed within the previous 12 months and after each servicing that may have affected system calibration. The quality control check system may be the same system used to meet the requirements in this subpart.
C. The registrant must maintain a record of each dosimetry system calibration, intercomparison, and comparison for the duration of the license or registration. For each calibration, intercomparison, or comparison, the record must include:
Subp. 3. Reports of external beam radiation therapy surveys and measurements.
The registrant of any therapeutic accelerator must maintain the records according to part 4732.0330.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0930 Therapeutic Radiation Machines of Less Than 500 Kv
Subpart 1. Equipment requirements.
A. When the x-ray tube is operated at its maximum rated tube current for the maximum kV, the leakage air kerma rate must not exceed the value specified at the distance specified for that classification of therapeutic radiation machine.
B. For 150 kV systems, the leakage air kerma rate measured at any position five centimeters from the tube housing assembly must not exceed 100 mrad (one mGy) in any one hour.
C. For systems greater than 150 kVp and less than 500 kV, the leakage air kerma rate measured at a distance of one meter from the target in any direction must not exceed one rad (one cGy) in any one hour. This air kerma rate measurement may be averaged over areas no larger than 100 square centimeters. In addition, the air kerma rate at a distance of five centimeters from the surface of the tube housing assembly must not exceed 30 rad (30 cGy) per hour.
D. For each therapeutic machine, the registrant must determine, or obtain from the manufacturer, the leakage radiation existing for the specified operating conditions.
E. The registrant must maintain the records on leakage radiation measurements at the facility according to part 4732.0330.
F. Permanent diaphragms or cones used for limiting the useful beam must provide at least the same degree of attenuation as required for the tube housing assembly.
G. Adjustable or removable beam-limiting devices, diaphragms, cones, or blocks must not transmit more than five percent of the useful beam for the most penetrating beam used. When adjustable beam-limiting devices are used, the position and shape of the radiation field must be indicated by a light beam.
H. The filter system must be designed so that:
I. The x-ray tube must be mounted so that it cannot accidentally turn or slide with respect to the housing aperture. The tube housing assembly must be capable of being immobilized for stationary portal treatments.
J. The tube housing assembly must be so marked that it is possible to determine the location of the source to within five millimeters, and such marking must be readily accessible for use during calibration procedures.
K. Contact therapy tube housing assemblies must have a removable shield equivalent in attenuation to 0.5 millimeters of lead at 100 kV, which can be positioned over the entire useful beam exit port during periods when the beam is not in use.
L. A suitable irradiation control device must be provided to terminate the irradiation after a preset time interval.
M. The control panel, in addition to the provisions in subpart 2, must have:
N. When a control panel can energize more than one x-ray tube:
O. There must be a means of determining the central axis TSD to within one centimeter and of reproducing this measurement to within two millimeters thereafter.
P. Unless it is possible to bring the x-ray output to the prescribed exposure parameters within five seconds after the x-ray "ON" switch is energized, the following conditions must be met:
Q. Each therapeutic radiation machine equipped with a beryllium or other low-filtration window must be clearly labeled as such upon the tube housing assembly and must be provided with a permanent warning device on the control panel that is activated when no additional filtration is present to indicate that the dose rate is very high.
Subp. 2. Facility design requirements.
In addition to shielding requirements of this chapter, the treatment room must meet the following design requirements.
A. Provisions must be made for continuous two-way communication between the patient and the operator at the control panel.
B. Provisions must be made to permit continuous observation of the patient during irradiation. The viewing system must be so located that the operator can observe the patient from the control panel. The therapeutic radiation machine must not be used for patient irradiation unless the viewing system is operational.
C. Treatment rooms, which contain a therapeutic radiation machine capable of operating in a range of 150 kV to 500 kV, must meet the following additional requirements:
Subp. 3. Full calibration measurements.
A. Full calibration must be performed by, or under the direct supervision of, a therapeutic radiological physicist:
B. The registrant must maintain a record of each calibration for the duration of the registration. The record must include:
Subp. 4. Periodic quality control checks.
A. Periodic quality control checks must be performed on therapeutic radiation machines, subject to subpart 3, which are capable of operation at greater than or equal to 150 kV.
B. To satisfy the requirements of this part, quality control checks must meet the following requirements:
C. The cause for a parameter exceeding an established tolerance must be investigated and corrected before the system is used for patient or human research subject irradiation.
D. Whenever a quality control check indicates a significant change in the specified operating characteristics of a system, the system must be recalibrated as required in subpart 3.
E. The registrant must use the dosimetry system described in part 4732.0925, subpart 2, to make the quality control checks required in this part.
F. The registrant must have the therapeutic radiological physicist review and sign the results of each radiation output quality control check within one month of test completion.
G. The registrant must ensure that safety quality control checks of therapeutic radiation machines are performed at intervals not to exceed one month.
H. Notwithstanding the requirements of this part, the registrant must ensure that no therapeutic radiation machine is used to administer radiation to humans unless the quality control checks required by this part are completed.
I. Periodic quality control checks must have been performed within the 30 days prior to administration.
J. Safety quality control checks must ensure proper operation of:
K. The registrant must maintain a record of each quality control check for inspection by the commissioner. The record must include:
Subp. 5. Operating procedures.
A. Therapeutic radiation machines must not be left unattended unless secured by means identified in subpart 1.
B. When a patient must be held in position for radiation therapy, mechanical supporting or restraining devices must be used.
C. The tube housing assembly must not be held by an individual during operation unless the assembly is designed to require such holding and the peak tube potential of the system does no exceed 150 kV. In these cases, the holder must wear protective apron and gloves of not less that 0.5 millimeters lead equivalency at 100 kV.
D. A copy of the current operating and emergency procedures must be maintained at the therapeutic radiation machine control console.
E. No individual other than the patient must be in the treatment room during exposures from therapeutic radiation machines operating above 150 kV.
Subp. 6. Records.
All records must be maintained according to part 4732.0330.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.0940 Therapeutic Radiation Machines - Photon Therapy Systems (500 Kv and Above) and Electron Therapy Systems (500 Kev and Above)
Subpart 1. Equipment requirements.
A. Leakage radiation outside the maximum useful beam in photon and electron modes must meet the following:
B. Leakage radiation through beam-limiting devices must meet the following:
C. Measurement of leakage radiation must meet the following:
D. Filters and wedges must meet the following:
E. For equipment manufactured after July 9, 1997, the registrant must determine during acceptance testing, or obtain from the manufacturer, data sufficient to ensure that x-ray stray radiation in the useful electron beam, absorbed dose at the surface during x-ray irradiation, and stray neutron radiation in the useful x-ray beam are in compliance.
F. All therapeutic radiation machines must be provided with redundant beam monitoring systems. The sensors for these systems must be fixed in the useful beam during treatment to indicate the dose monitor unit rate.
G. Selection and display of dose monitor units.
H. For equipment manufactured after July 9, 1997, a system must be provided from whose readings the air kerma rate or absorbed dose rate at a reference point can be calculated. The radiation detectors specified in this subpart may form part of this system. In addition:
I. Termination of irradiation by the beam-monitoring system or systems during stationary beam radiation therapy.
J. It must be possible to terminate irradiation and equipment movement or go from an interruption condition to termination condition at any time from the operator's position at the treatment control panel.
K. If a therapeutic radiation machine has an interrupt mode, it must be possible to interrupt irradiation and equipment movements at any time from the treatment control panel. Following an interruption it must be possible to restart irradiation by operator action without any reselection of operating conditions. If any change of a preselected value is made during an interruption, irradiation and equipment movements must be automatically terminated.
L. A suitable irradiation control device must be provided to terminate the irradiation after a preset time interval.
M. Equipment capable of both x-ray therapy and electron therapy must meet the following additional requirements:
N. Equipment capable of generating radiation beams of different energies must meet the following requirements:
O. Therapeutic radiation machines capable of both stationary beam radiation therapy and moving beam radiation therapy must meet the following requirements:
Subp. 2. Facility design requirements for therapeutic radiation machines operating above 500 kV.
In addition to shielding adequate to meet requirements of part 4732.0380, the following design requirements are made.
A. Protective barriers must be fixed, except for access doors to the treatment room or movable beam interceptors.
B. In addition to other requirements in this subpart, the control panel must also:
C. Provisions must be made for continuous two-way audio communication between the patient and the operator at the control panel. The therapeutic radiation machine must not be used for irradiation of patients unless continuous two-way audio communication is possible.
D. Windows, mirrors, closed-circuit television, or an equivalent viewing system must be provided to permit continuous observation of the patient following positioning and during irradiation and must be located so that the operator may observe the patient from the treatment control panel. The therapeutic radiation machine must not be used for patient irradiation unless at least one viewing system is operational.
E. Treatment room entrances must be provided with warning lights in a readily observable position near the outside of all access doors, which will indicate when the useful beam is "ON" and when it is "OFF."
F. Interlocks must be provided such that all access controls are activated before treatment can be initiated or continued. If the radiation beam is interrupted by any access control, it must not be possible to restore the machine to operation without resetting the access control and reinitiating irradiation by manual action at the control panel.
G. If the shielding material in any protective barrier requires the presence of a beam interceptor to ensure compliance with part 4732.0380, interlocks must be provided to prevent the production of radiation, unless the beam interceptor is in place, whenever the useful beam is directed at the designated barriers.
H. At least one emergency power cutoff switch must be located in the radiation therapy room on either side of the primary beam and must terminate all equipment electrical power including radiation and mechanical motion. This switch is in addition to the termination switch required by subpart 1. All emergency power cutoff switches must include a manual reset so that the therapeutic radiation machine cannot be restarted from the unit's control console without resetting the emergency cutoff switch.
I. Safety interlocks must be designed so that any defect or component failure in the safety interlock system prevents or terminates operation of the therapeutic radiation machine.
J. Surveys for residual activity must be conducted on all therapeutic radiation machines capable of generating photon and electron energies above ten MV prior to machining, removing, or working on therapeutic radiation machine components that may have become activated due to photoneutron production.
K. A facility location authorized to use a therapeutic radiation machine according to this part must have at its disposal appropriately calibrated portable monitoring equipment. As a minimum, the equipment must include a portable radiation measurement survey instrument capable of measuring dose rates over the range one mrem (ten µSv) per hour to 1,000 mrem (ten mSv) per hour. The survey instruments must be operable and calibrated at intervals not to exceed 12 months for the radiation measured.
Subp. 3. Therapeutic radiological physicist support.
A. The registrant must obtain the support of a therapeutic radiological physicist. The therapeutic radiological physicist must be responsible for:
B. If the therapeutic radiological physicist is not a full-time employee of the registrant, the operating procedures required by subpart 4 must also specifically address how the therapeutic radiological physicist is to be contacted for problems or emergencies, as well as the specific actions, if any, to be taken until the therapeutic radiological physicist can be contacted.
Subp. 4. Operating procedures.
A. No individual, other than the patient, must be in the treatment room during treatment or during any irradiation for testing or calibration purposes.
B. Therapeutic radiation machines must not be made available for medical use unless the requirements of part 4732.0925 and this part have been met.
C. Therapeutic radiation machines, when not in operation, must be secured to prevent unauthorized use.
D. When adjustable beam-limiting devices are used, the position and shape of the radiation field must be indicated by a light field.
E. If a patient must be held in position during treatment, mechanical supporting or restraining devices must be used.
F. A copy of the current operating and emergency procedures must be maintained at the therapeutic radiation machine control console.
Subp. 5. Full calibration measurements.
A. Full calibration of a therapeutic radiation machine must be performed by, or under the direct supervision of, a therapeutic radiological physicist:
B. The registrant must use the dosimetry system described in part 4732.0925, subpart 2, to measure the radiation output for one set of exposure conditions.
C. The registrant must maintain a record of each calibration for the duration of the registration. The record must include:
Subp. 6. Periodic quality control checks.
A. Periodic quality control checks must be performed at intervals as specified in this chapter.
B. To satisfy the requirement of this subpart, quality control checks must include determination of central axis radiation output and a representative sampling of periodic quality control checks contained in this chapter. Representative sampling must include all referenced periodic quality control checks at intervals not to exceed 12 months.
C. The registrant must use a dosimetry system that has been intercompared within the previous 12 months with the dosimetry system described in part 4732.0925, subpart 2, to make the periodic quality control checks required in this subpart.
D. The registrant must perform periodic quality control checks required by this subpart according to procedures established by the therapeutic radiological physicist.
E. The registrant must review the results of each periodic radiation output check according to the following procedures:
F. Therapeutic radiation machines subject to this part must have safety quality control checks of each external beam radiation therapy machine performed at intervals not to exceed one week.
G. To satisfy the requirement of this subpart, safety quality control checks must ensure proper operation of:
H. Emergency power cutoff switches must be checked for proper operation at intervals not to exceed three months. If more than one emergency power cutoff switch is installed and not all switches are tested at once, each switch must be tested on a rotating basis. Safety quality control checks of the emergency power cutoff switches may be conducted at the end of the treatment day in order to minimize possible stability problems with the therapeutic radiation machine.
I. The registrant must promptly repair any system identified in this subpart that is not operating properly.
Subp. 7. Records.
The registrant must maintain records according to part 4732.0330. The record must include:
A. the date of the quality control check;
B. the manufacturer's name, model number, and serial number for the therapeutic radiation machine;
C. the manufacturer's name, model number, and serial number of the instruments used to measure the radiation output of the therapeutic radiation machine; and
D. the signature or electronic signature of the individual who performed the periodic quality control check.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.1000 Requirements for X-Ray Fluorescent Analyzers and Bomb Detection Units
Subpart 1. Applicability.
This part applies to the use of radiation-producing equipment in x-ray fluorescent analyzers or bomb detection units. The requirements of this part are in addition to any applicable requirements of this chapter.
Subp. 2. Operating and emergency procedures.
A copy of the registrant's operating and emergency procedures must be available to the employees.
Subp. 3. Instruction and training.
The registrant must provide initial system-specific training on safe operating and emergency procedures. Additional training must be conducted when any changes in the system occur that would change the quality assurance program. The training must be commensurate with the registered activities. They must include:
A. procedures for handling and using the radiation-producing equipment so the occupational dose limits in part 4732.0410 are not exceeded;
B. procedures for controlling the area of use so the limits for the dose to the public in part 4732.0430 are not exceeded;
C. procedures for appropriate individual monitoring according to part 4732.0440, if applicable;
D. procedures for inspecting and maintaining the radiation-producing equipment; and
E. emergency procedures for the registrant's employees to minimize radiation exposure in the event of an accident or equipment malfunction.
Subp. 4. Inspection and maintenance of equipment.
The registrant must ensure that:
A. equipment is inspected prior to initial use and after any changes that would affect the radiation output. The inspection must be done according to the manufacturer's specifications;
B. equipment is maintained according to the manufacturer's specifications;
C. the manufacturer or registered service providers are used to conduct repair and maintenance on the system; and
D. repairs or corrective actions are completed when an inspection reveals a condition that could change the radiation output or increase the dose levels for the occupational worker.
Subp. 5. Records.
The registrant must ensure that the records are maintained according to part 4732.0330.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.1040 Industrial Facility Requirements for Using Radiation-Producing Equipment in Manufacturing Processes, Gauges, and Cabinets
Subpart 1. Applicability.
This part establishes standards for the use of radiation-producing equipment for manufacturing processes, gauges, and cabinets in industrial settings. The requirements of this part are in addition to other pertinent requirements of this chapter.
A. A registrant who performs industrial radiography using a certified cabinet system must comply with all requirements of Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, section 1020.40, as subsequently amended.
B. Individuals who use equipment regulated under this part are not required to hold a radiographer certification.
Subp. 2. Operating procedures.
The registrant must have operating procedures that include:
A. maintaining radiation doses as low as reasonably achievable and actions to prevent exceeding the dose limits in parts 4732.0410 to 4732.0430;
B. identification of radiation hazards associated with the equipment use;
C. identification of the various radiation warning signs, safety devices, and interlocks incorporated into the equipment;
D. methods of locking and securing the radiation-producing equipment;
E. inspecting and maintaining the equipment according to manufacturer's specifications;
F. utilization log preparation as applicable; and
G. maintenance of required records according to part 4732.0330.
Subp. 3. Emergency procedures.
The registrant must have emergency procedures that include emergency procedures for employees and the procedures for notifying personnel in the event of an accident or equipment malfunction.
Subp. 4. Instruction and training.
The registrant must ensure that:
A. An individual operating or maintaining the radiation-producing equipment is adequately instructed initially in operating and emergency procedures. The training must include:
B. Additional training must be conducted with the addition of any new radiation-producing equipment.
C. Documentation of the initial and any additional instruction must be maintained according to part 4732.0330.
Subp. 5. Analytical ionizing radiation-producing equipment.
The registrant must ensure:
A. any unused ports on radiation-producing housings must be closed to prevent opening by an individual other than the operator;
B. each port on an open-beam configuration housing must be equipped with a shutter that cannot be operated unless either a collimator or a coupling has been connected to the port; and
C. the dose does not exceed 0.5 millirem (0.005 mSv) in one hour at a distance of 1.97 inches (five centimeters) from the protective surfaces.
Subp. 6. Bypassing a safety device.
The registrant must ensure the requirements in part 4732.0630 are met in order to bypass a safety device.
Subp. 7. Manufacturing process equipment.
In addition to any other applicable requirements in this chapter, the registrant using any manufacturing process equipment must ensure:
A. that the materials exposed to ionizing radiation are contained within a permanent enclosure; and
B. that shielding of the enclosure attenuates the primary and secondary radiation beam so dose limits in parts 4732.0400 to 4732.0430 are not exceeded.
Subp. 8. Records.
The registrant must ensure that records are maintained for each piece of industrial ionizing radiation-producing equipment according to part 4732.0330.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.1050 Requirements for Permanent Industrial Radiographic Installations
Subpart 1. Applicability.
The requirements of this part are in addition to other applicable requirements of this chapter.
Subp. 2. Permanent installation; requirement.
All radiographic operations must be conducted in a permanent radiographic installation, unless specifically authorized by the commissioner.
Subp. 3. Locking of sources of radiation.
The control panel of each radiation-producing machine must be equipped with a locking device that will prevent the unauthorized use of an x-ray system or the accidental production of radiation. The radiation-producing machine must be kept locked and the key removed at all times except when under the direct visual surveillance of a radiographer.
Subp. 4. Permanent storage precautions.
Radiation-producing machines must be secured while in storage to prevent tampering or removal by unauthorized individuals.
Subp. 5. Required entrance controls.
An entrance that is used for personnel access to the high radiation area in a permanent industrial radiographic installation must meet the requirements of part 4732.0620, subpart 1.
Subp. 6. Testing.
A. The alarm system must be tested for proper operation by energizing the tube each day before the installation is used for radiographic operations. The test must include a check of both the visible and audible signals. Entrance control devices that reduce the radiation level upon entry must be tested monthly.
B. If an entrance control device or an alarm is operating improperly, it must be immediately labeled as defective and repaired within seven calendar days. The facility may continue to be used during the seven-day period if the registrant implements the continuous surveillance requirements under part 4732.1067.
C. The registrant must document all instances of interlock or alarm failures, record all corrective actions, and indicate the date that the safety device was restored to working condition.
Subp. 7. Individual monitoring.
Registrants must provide individual monitoring devices according to part 4732.0440. At permanent radiographic installations where alarming or warning devices are in routine use, the use of a direct reading dosimeter is not required.
Subp. 8. Records.
Registrants must maintain records of alarm system and entrance control device tests required under this part and retain each record according to part 4732.0330.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.1055 Industrial Radiographic Operating and Emergency Procedures
Subpart 1. Operating and emergency procedures.
The registrant must have operating and emergency procedures that include:
A. operating and safety instructions to maintain radiation doses as low as reasonably achievable and actions to prevent exceeding the dose limits in parts 4732.0410 to 4732.0430;
B. methods and occasions for conducting radiation surveys;
C. methods of controlling access to radiographic areas;
D. methods of locking and securing the radiation-producing equipment;
E. individual monitoring and the use of individual monitoring equipment, including steps that must be taken by radiography personnel in the event that a pocket dosimeter is found to be off-scale;
F. minimizing exposure of an individual in the event of an accident;
G. a procedure for notifying personnel in the event of an accident or equipment malfunction;
H. inspection and maintenance of radiation machines;
I. utilization log preparation; and
J. maintenance of required records according to part 4732.0330.
Subp. 2. Radiation surveys and survey records.
The radiation survey requirements in this subpart must be met for industrial radiation-producing equipment.
A. No radiographic operation must be conducted unless calibrated and operable radiation survey instrumentation, as described in part 4732.0710, is available and used at each site where radiographic exposures are made.
B. A physical radiation survey must be made after each radiographic exposure using radiation machines to determine that the machine is "off."
C. An area radiation survey must be performed during the first radiographic exposure to confirm that appropriate posting, ropes, or barriers are in place to prevent unauthorized entry and that unrestricted areas do not have radiation levels in excess of the limits in parts 4732.0410 to 4732.0430.
Subp. 3. Calibrated and operable radiation survey instruments.
The registrant must have sufficient calibrated and operable radiation survey instruments accessible at each facility to make a radiation survey as required by subpart 2. Each radiation survey instrument must be calibrated according to part 4732.0710.
Subp. 4. Utilization logs.
Each registrant must maintain a utilization log for review at the inspection by the commissioner. The log must contain:
A. serial number or other unique identification of the equipment;
B. identity of the operator assigned to the equipment;
C. the locations and dates where the equipment was used; and
D. the technique factors used for the exposure and the number of exposures.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.1058 Industrial Radiography in a Temporary Job Site
Subpart 1. Applicability.
This part applies to industrial radiation-producing equipment used for less than 30 days at a job site.
Subp. 2. Restricted areas.
A fence, rope, or other suitable personnel barrier must be used outside the two mR (5.16 x 107 C/kg) in any one hour dose line to restrict entry.
Subp. 3. Qualified personnel present.
When radiography is performed at a location other than a permanent radiographic installation, the radiographer must be accompanied by at least one other qualified radiographer or a radiographer's assistant. The additional qualified individual must be capable of providing immediate assistance to prevent unauthorized entry.
Subp. 4. Records for temporary job site.
For records at temporary job sites, each registrant conducting industrial radiography must have available at the temporary job site:
A. a copy of operating and emergency procedures;
B. industrial radiation survey records as required by part 4731.1080;
C. direct reading pocket dosimeter records for the period of operation in use at the site; and
D. the latest instrument calibration records for instruments in use at the site.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.1060 Instruction and Training for Industrial Radiography
Subpart 1. Registrant requirements.
The registrant must ensure that:
A. any individual who will be operating or maintaining the radiation-producing equipment is adequately instructed initially in system-specific operating and emergency procedures;
B. training is conducted at the addition of any new radiation-producing equipment; and
C. documentation of the initial and any additional instruction is maintained according to part 4732.0330.
Subp. 2. Individual requirements.
Ninety days after November 5, 2007, the individual to act as a radiographer must:
A. receive training according to subpart 3;
B. complete a minimum of two months of on-the-job training;
C. be certified through a radiographer certification program by a certifying entity according to part 4732.1070;
D. receive copies of registrant's operating and emergency procedures; and
E. demonstrate understanding of the registrant's operating and emergency procedures by successfully completing a written or oral examination covering the material.
Subp. 3. Required subjects.
An industrial radiographer must receive training in:
A. the fundamentals of radiation safety, including:
B. radiation detection, including:
C. equipment to be used, including:
D. requirements of pertinent parts of this chapter; and
E. case histories of accidents in radiography.
Subp. 4. Records.
The registrant must ensure that records are maintained according to part 4732.0330.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.1063 Warning Devices for Industrial Radiography Facilities
Subpart 1. Open-beam configurations.
Open-beam configurations must have a readily discernible indication of:
A. x-ray tube "on-off" status located near the radiation-producing equipment housing, if the primary beam is controlled in an "on-off" manner; or
B. shutter "open-closed" status located near each port on the radiation-producing equipment housing, if the primary beam is controlled in "open-closed" manner.
Subp. 2. Warning light.
An easily visible warning light labeled with the words "X-RAY ON" or other visible warning indicator that clearly shows the equipment is producing ionizing radiation, must be located near a switch that energizes an x-ray tube and illuminated only when the tube is energized.
Subp. 3. Warning device labeling.
Warning devices must be labeled so that their purpose is easily identified.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.1065 Posting Requirements for Industrial Radiography
All areas in which industrial radiography is being performed must be conspicuously posted according to part 4732.0385, subpart 4, and this part.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.1067 Surveillance for Industrial Radiography
During a radiographic operation, the radiographer, or the other individual present as required under part 4732.1040, must maintain continuous direct visual surveillance of the operation to protect against unauthorized entry into a high radiation area except at permanent radiographic installations where all entryways are locked and the requirements under part 4732.1050 are met.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.1070 Radiographer Certification
Subpart 1. Requirements for an independent certifying organization.
An independent certifying organization must:
A. be an organization such as a society or association whose members participate in, or have an interest in, the fields of industrial radiography;
B. make its membership available to the general public nationwide that is not restricted because of race, color, creed, religion, national origin, sex, disability, sexual orientation, or age;
C. have a certification program open to nonmembers as well as members;
D. be an incorporated, nationally recognized organization that is involved in setting national standards of practice within its fields of expertise;
E. have an adequate staff, a viable system for financing its operations, and a policy and decision-making review board;
F. have a set of written organizational bylaws and policies that provide adequate assurance of lack of conflict of interest and a system for monitoring and enforcing those bylaws and policies;
G. have a committee, whose members carry out their responsibilities impartially, to review and approve the certification guidelines and procedures, and to advise the organization's staff in implementing the certification program;
H. have a committee, whose members can carry out their responsibilities impartially, to review complaints against certified individuals and to determine appropriate sanctions;
I. have written procedures describing all aspects of its certification program and maintain records of the current status of each individual's certification and the administration of its certification program;
J. have procedures to ensure that certified individuals are provided due process with respect to the administration of its certification program, including the process of becoming certified and any sanctions imposed against certified individuals;
K. have procedures for proctoring examinations, including qualifications for proctors. The procedures must ensure that the individuals proctoring each examination are not employed by the same company or corporation, or a wholly owned subsidiary of such company or corporation, as any of the examinees;
L. exchange information about certified individuals with the commissioner, other independent certifying organization, and allow periodic review of its certification program and related records; and
M. provide a description to the commissioner of its procedures for choosing examination sites and for providing an appropriate examination environment.
Subp. 2. Requirements for certification programs.
Certification programs must:
A. require applicants for certification to:
B. require applicants for certification to provide documentation that demonstrates that the applicant has:
C. include procedures to ensure that all examination questions are protected from disclosure;
D. include procedures for denying an application and revoking, suspending, and reinstating certifications;
E. provide a certification period of not less than three years and no more than five years;
F. include procedures for renewing certifications and, if the procedures allow renewals without examination, require evidence of recent full-time employment and annual refresher training; and
G. provide a timely response to inquiries, by telephone or letter, from members of the public about an individual's certification status.
Subp. 3. Requirements for written examination.
Examinations must:
A. be designed to test an individual's knowledge and understanding of the topics under part 4732.1060, subpart 3;
B. be written in a multiple-choice format; and
C. have test items drawn from a question bank containing psychometrically valid questions based on the material in part 4732.1060, subpart 3.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.1100 Installation Calibration Tests and Equipment Performance Tests for a Quality Assurance Program
Subpart 1. Tests required.
A. Installation calibration tests must be conducted prior to any patient use. Any adjustments must be made to bring the equipment up to a nationally recognized standard such as Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, section 1020, or the manufacturer's specifications, and to ensure compliance with this chapter prior to first use.
B. Equipment performance tests must be conducted over all clinical ranges, when applicable. For equipment performance tests, any adjustments must be made to bring equipment to a nationally recognized standard or manufacturer's specifications; and to ensure compliance with this chapter prior to using the equipment again.
Subp. 2. Frequency of tests.
The tests in this part are to be made at the time of installation and at the specified intervals thereafter.
Subp. 3. Image receptors.
Subp. 4. Processing.
Subp. 5. All diagnostic radiographic tubes; required when applicable.
Subp. 6. For facilities with fluoroscopes and C-arm fluoroscopes, except radiation therapy simulators, manufactured before May 19, 1995.
Subp. 7. For facilities with fluoroscopes and C-arm fluoroscopes, except radiation therapy simulators, manufactured on or after May 19, 1995.
Subp. 8. For facilities with tomography systems other than computed tomography.
Subp. 9. For facilities with computed tomography scanners.
Subp. 10. For facilities with cinefluorographic and special procedure systems.
Subp. 11. For facilities with dental intraoral systems.
Subp. 12. For facilities with dental extraoral systems including panoramic systems.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.1120 Therapeutic Equipment Performance Tests and Limits for Measurement Equipment
Subpart 1. Required tests.
A. Installation calibration tests must be conducted prior to any patient use. Any adjustments must be made to bring the equipment up to a nationally recognized standard, such as Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, section 892, or manufacturer's specifications and to ensure compliance with this chapter prior to first use.
B. Equipment performance tests must be conducted over all clinical ranges, when applicable. For equipment performance tests, any adjustments must be made to bring equipment to compliance with a nationally recognized standard, such as Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, section 892, or manufacturer's specifications and to ensure compliance with this chapter prior to using the equipment again.
Subp. 2. Local standard (Loc. Std.) instrument.
Subp. 3. Other field instruments.
Subp. 4. Relative dosimetry equipment.
Subp. 5. Radiation survey instruments.
Subp. 6. Positioning equipment lasers.
Subp. 7. Phantoms and attenuators.
Subp. 8. Accessory equipment.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Minn. R. 4732.1130 Equipment Performance Tests for External Beam Teletherapy and Simulation Systems
Subpart 1. Dosimetry.
Subp. 2. Geometry.
Subp. 3. Constancy checks-electrons.
Subp. 4. Treatment accessories.*
*Attenuation in blocks, wedge factors, and compensator data must be checked annually. A visual inspection of the mechanical integrity of these accessories must be done monthly.
Subp. 5. Simulators.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.12
- History: 32 SR 777
Chapter 4735 DISEASE CONTROL
Minn. R. 4735.0010 [Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
[Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
Minn. R. 4735.0020 [Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
[Repealed, 9 SR 2584]
Minn. R. 4735.0100 Definitions
Subpart 1. Commissioner.
"Commissioner" means the state commissioner of health or authorized officers, employees, or agents of the Minnesota Department of Health.
Subp. 2. Community health services plan.
"Community health services plan" means plans and plan revisions developed under Minnesota Statutes, section 145A.10, subdivision 10.
Subp. 3. Community health board.
"Community health board" means the duly authorized administrators, officers, agents, or employees of the county, multicounty, or city community health board organized within the provisions of Minnesota Statutes, sections 145A.09 to 145A.13.
Subp. 4. Public health emergency.
"Public health emergency" means an unanticipated and temporary condition threatening the health of a specific population such that the resources of one or more community health boards cannot reasonably be considered adequate to respond to the emergency needs of the affected population.
Subp. 5. Public health hazard.
"Public health hazard" means the presence of a disease organism or condition in the environment which endangers the health of a specified population.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.0742; 144.12
- History: 9 SR 2584; L 1987 c 309 s 24; L 2015 c 21 art 1 s 109
Minn. R. 4735.0110 Duties of Commissioner
Subpart 1. General duties.
The state commissioner of health or an authorized officer shall be responsible for the collection and review of disease reports, epidemiologic investigations, and control of disease in all areas of the state.
Subp. 2. Agreements.
The commissioner may enter into written agreements with community health boards for the purposes of specifying shared responsibilities for the collection of data and information described in parts 4605.7000 to 4605.7800. The agreement must be made a part of the biennial community health services plan. The agreement shall include but not be limited to:
A. requirements pertaining to data to be collected and disease investigations to be conducted;
B. minimum personnel requirements;
C. duties of the commissioner regarding the provision of technical or other assistance to fulfill the agreement;
D. specification of means by which the community health board as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 145A.02, subdivision 5, shall coordinate data collection and other duties of the agreement with related activities of the commissioner or other community health boards;
E. criteria by which the commissioner will determine that the duties and responsibilities agreed upon are met;
F. procedures for renewal of the agreement; and
G. grounds for termination.
Subp. 3. Notice to community health board.
The commissioner shall bring to the attention of the community health board any conditions within the jurisdiction of the community health board which represent the potential for a public health hazard.
Subp. 4. Assistance to community health board.
The commissioner shall provide technical assistance and personnel as he or she determines are available and necessary to answer the requests of the community health board for assistance in the investigation and control of disease.
Subp. 5. Public health emergency.
In the event of a public health emergency, the commissioner may, after giving reasonable notice to the community health board, suspend all or certain specified terms of the agreement for a period of time sufficient to respond to the public health emergency.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.0742; 144.12
- History: 9 SR 2584; L 1987 c 309 s 24; L 2015 c 21 art 1 s 109
Minn. R. 4735.0120 Duties of Community Health Board
Subpart 1. Community health board request.
The community health board as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 145A.02, subdivision 5, shall, when the public health hazard exceeds the capacity of the community health board to respond, request assistance from the commissioner for the investigation and control of disease.
Subp. 2. Duty to report health hazards.
The community health board shall bring to the attention of the commissioner any conditions which represent the potential for a public health hazard.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.05; 144.0742; 144.12
- History: 9 SR 2584; L 1987 c 309 s 24; L 2015 c 21 art 1 s 109
Minn. R. 4735.0200 [Repealed, 28 SR 1249]
[Repealed, 28 SR 1249]
Minn. R. 4735.5000 [Repealed, L 1999 c 245 art 9 s 66]
[Repealed, L 1999 c 245 art 9 s 66]
Minn. R. 4735.5100 [Repealed, L 2000 c 313 s 10]
[Repealed, L 2000 c 313 s 10]
Chapter 4736 LOCAL PUBLIC HEALTH SERVICES
Minn. R. 4736.0010 [Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 8 s 32]
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 8 s 32]
Minn. R. 4736.0020 [Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 8 s 32]
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 8 s 32]
Minn. R. 4736.0030 [Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 8 s 32]
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 8 s 32]
Minn. R. 4736.0040 [Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 8 s 32]
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 8 s 32]
Minn. R. 4736.0050 [Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 8 s 32]
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 8 s 32]
Minn. R. 4736.0060 [Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 8 s 32]
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 8 s 32]
Minn. R. 4736.0070 [Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 8 s 32]
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 8 s 32]
Minn. R. 4736.0080 [Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 8 s 32]
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 8 s 32]
Minn. R. 4736.0090 [Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 8 s 32]
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 8 s 32]
Minn. R. 4736.0100 [Repealed, 31 SR 35]
[Repealed, 31 SR 35]
Minn. R. 4736.0110 Personnel Standards
Subpart 1. Purpose of standards.
This part establishes minimum standards for training, experience, and skill for the community health services administrator under Minnesota Statutes, sections 145A.09 to 145A.13. This part does not apply to employees of community health boards with a personnel system approved by the United States Civil Service Commission.
Subp. 2. Persons who must meet standards.
A community health board must have a community health services administrator. Persons who are appointed as community health services administrators after March 21, 1994, must meet the minimum training and experience standards of this part.
Subp. 3. Minimum training and experience standards for community health services administrators.
A community health services administrator must have:
A. a baccalaureate or higher degree in administration, public health, community health, environmental health, or nursing, and two years of documented public health experience in an administrative or supervisory capacity, or be registered as an environmental health specialist or sanitarian in the state of Minnesota and have two years of documented public health experience in an administrative or supervisory capacity;
B. a master's or higher degree in administration, public health, community health, environmental health, or nursing, and one year of documented public health experience in an administrative or supervisory capacity; or
C. a baccalaureate or higher degree and four years of documented public health experience in an administrative or supervisory capacity.
Subp. 4. Community health services administrator skills.
The documented experience of a community health services administrator must include skills necessary to:
A. direct and implement health programs;
B. prepare and manage budgets;
C. manage a planning process to identify, coordinate, and deliver necessary services;
D. prepare necessary reports;
E. evaluate programs for efficiency and effectiveness;
F. coordinate the delivery of community health services with other public and private services; and
G. advise and assist the community health board in the selection, direction, and motivation of personnel.
Subp. 5. Additional personnel standards.
Persons implementing or supervising community health services programs by agreement with the commissioner shall meet the personnel standards required in those agreements.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 145A.12
- History: 18 SR 2044
Minn. R. 4736.0120 [Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 8 s 32]
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 8 s 32]
Minn. R. 4736.0130 [Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 8 s 32]
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 8 s 32]
Chapter 4740 LABORATORIES; ACCREDITATION REQUIREMENTS
Minn. R. 4740.0100 [Repealed, L 1991 c 60 s 12]
[Repealed, L 1991 c 60 s 12]
Minn. R. 4740.0110 [Repealed, L 1999 c 60 s 12]
[Repealed, L 1999 c 60 s 12]
Minn. R. 4740.0120 [Repealed, L 1991 c 60 s 12]
[Repealed, L 1991 c 60 s 12]
Minn. R. 4740.0130 [Repealed, L 1991 c 60 s 12]
[Repealed, L 1991 c 60 s 12]
Minn. R. 4740.0140 [Repealed, L 1991 c 60 s 12]
[Repealed, L 1991 c 60 s 12]
Minn. R. 4740.0150 [Repealed, L 1991 c 60 s 12]
[Repealed, L 1991 c 60 s 12]
Minn. R. 4740.0160 [Repealed, L 1991 c 60 s 12]
[Repealed, L 1991 c 60 s 12]
Minn. R. 4740.0170 [Repealed, L 1991 c 60 s 12]
[Repealed, L 1991 c 60 s 12]
Minn. R. 4740.1010 [Repealed, L 1991 c 60 s 12]
[Repealed, L 1991 c 60 s 12]
Minn. R. 4740.1020 [Repealed, L 1991 c 60 s 12]
[Repealed, L 1991 c 60 s 12]
Minn. R. 4740.1025 [Repealed, L 1991 c 60 s 12]
[Repealed, L 1991 c 60 s 12]
Minn. R. 4740.1040 [Repealed, L 1991 c 60 s 12]
[Repealed, L 1991 c 60 s 12]
Minn. R. 4740.1050 [Repealed, L 1991 c 60 s 12]
[Repealed, L 1991 c 60 s 12]
Minn. R. 4740.1060 [Repealed, L 1991 c 60 s 12]
[Repealed, L 1991 c 60 s 12]
Minn. R. 4740.1065 [Repealed, L 1991 c 60 s 12]
[Repealed, L 1991 c 60 s 12]
Minn. R. 4740.1070 [Repealed, L 1991 c 60 s 12]
[Repealed, L 1991 c 60 s 12]
Minn. R. 4740.1075 [Repealed, L 1991 c 60 s 12]
[Repealed, L 1991 c 60 s 12]
Minn. R. 4740.1080 [Repealed, L 1991 c 60 s 12]
[Repealed, L 1991 c 60 s 12]
Minn. R. 4740.1090 [Repealed, L 1991 c 60 s 12]
[Repealed, L 1991 c 60 s 12]
Minn. R. 4740.2010 Definitions
Subpart 1. Scope.
The terms used in parts 4740.2050 to 4740.2120 have the meanings given them in this part and in the National Environmental Laboratory Accreditation Conference (NELAC) Standards, chapters 1 to 6, effective July 1, 2005, or a more current revision, provided the revision is in effect, upon the date it becomes effective. The standards are incorporated by reference, are not subject to frequent change, and are available on the Internet at http://www.epa.gov/nelac or by contacting the National Technical Information Service in the United States Department of Commerce.
Subp. 2. Acceptable performance or acceptable results.
"Acceptable performance" or "acceptable results" means analytical test results generated by a laboratory using methods as specified in part 4740.2060 that fall within the acceptance range allowed by the approved provider.
Subp. 3. Approved provider or approved PT provider.
"Approved provider" or "approved PT provider" means a provider of proficiency testing samples that the commissioner has determined meets the requirements of part 4740.2075.
Subp. 4. Base certification.
"Base certification" means acknowledgment by the commissioner that a laboratory has the policies, procedures, equipment, and practices to produce reliable data in the analysis of environmental analytes.
Subp. 5. Batch.
"Batch" means one to 20 environmental samples of the same matrix that are prepared together with the same process and personnel, using the same lot of reagents, with the maximum time between the start of processing of the first sample and the start of processing of the last sample being 24 hours, unless the method requirements are more stringent.
Subp. 6. Bias.
"Bias" means the systematic or persistent distortion of a measurement system that causes errors in one direction, so that the expected sample measurement is different from the true value.
Subp. 7. Calibration.
"Calibration" means testing an instrument's response by analyzing a series of analyte standards of differing concentrations, which are plotted on a graph that defines the instrument's linearity and dynamic range.
Subp. 8. Calibration range.
"Calibration range" means the concentrations between and including the concentration of the lowest calibration standard at or above the detection limit and the highest concentration at which linearity has been established.
Subp. 9. Certified test category or test category.
"Certified test category" or "test category" means a group of analytes available for certification. The analysis of the analytes is intended to test for compliance with specific environmental programs.
Subp. 10. Certification.
"Certification" means the written acknowledgment of a laboratory's demonstrated capability to perform tests for a specific purpose.
Subp. 11. Chain of custody.
"Chain of custody" means the procedures and records that document the possession and handling of samples from collection through disposal.
Subp. 12. Chemical materials.
"Chemical materials" means a product or by-product of an industrial process or collection mechanism that results in a matrix not otherwise defined in subpart 30.
Subp. 13. Commissioner.
"Commissioner" means the commissioner of health or the commissioner's designee.
Subp. 14. Corrective action.
"Corrective action" means an action taken by the laboratory to eliminate or correct the causes of an existing nonconformance to prevent the recurrence of the nonconformance.
Subp. 15. Corrective action plan.
"Corrective action plan" means a report, including specific items addressed and a specific date of completion, generated by a laboratory in response to deficiencies.
Subp. 16. Deficiency or deviation.
"Deficiency" or "deviation" means a failure of the laboratory to meet any of the requirements in parts 4740.2010 to 4740.2120.
Subp. 17. Denial.
"Denial" means the commissioner's refusal to certify a laboratory after submission of an application.
Subp. 18. Document.
"Document" means any written or pictorial information describing, defining, specifying, reporting, or certifying any activities, requirements, procedures, or results.
Subp. 19. Drinking water.
"Drinking water" means water used or intended for use as potable water.
Subp. 20. Duplicate.
"Duplicate" means replicate.
Subp. 21. EPA.
"EPA" means the United States Environmental Protection Agency.
Subp. 22. Fees.
"Fees" means the fees described in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.98, subdivision 3.
Subp. 23. Field of testing.
"Field of testing" means the combination of analyte, method, matrix, and test category for which a laboratory has applied or received certification by the commissioner.
Subp. 24. Inspection.
"Inspection" means an on-site evaluation of laboratory facilities, records, personnel, equipment, methodology, and quality assurance practices by the commissioner for compliance with the applicable provisions of this chapter.
Subp. 25. Internal standard.
"Internal standard" means a pure analyte or analytes added to a test sample, extract, or standard solution in known amounts and used to measure the relative responses of other method analytes and surrogates that are components of the sample or solution. The analyte or analytes used for the internal standard is not present in the test sample.
Subp. 26. Laboratory.
"Laboratory" means the state, a person, corporation, or other entity, including a governmental entity, that examines, analyzes, or tests samples.
Subp. 27. Laboratory control sample or LCS.
"Laboratory control sample" or "LCS" means a sample of a controlled matrix known to be free of the analyte of interest, to which the laboratory has added a known and verified concentration of analyte and that the laboratory has taken through all preparation and analytical steps in the method.
Subp. 28. Laboratory director.
"Laboratory director" means an agent or affiliate of the laboratory responsible for ensuring compliance with parts 4740.2010 to 4740.2120.
Subp. 29. Managing agent.
"Managing agent" means a person, as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 326.71, subdivision 8, who is legally authorized to direct the activities of a laboratory and commit the appropriate resources to comply with parts 4740.2010 to 4740.2120.
Subp. 30. Matrix or matrices.
"Matrix" or "Matrices" means the predominant material of which the sample to be analyzed is composed. Matrices include but are not limited to air, drinking water, nonpotable water, sewage sludge, and solid and chemical materials.
Subp. 31. Matrix spike.
"Matrix spike" means a sample prepared by adding a known quantity of analyte and subjecting the sample to the entire analytical procedure to determine the ability to recover the known analyte or compound.
Subp. 32. Matrix spike duplicate.
"Matrix spike duplicate" means a replicate matrix spike that is prepared and analyzed to determine the precision of the approved test method.
Subp. 33. Measurement system.
"Measurement system" means any instruments, gauges, tools, devices, equipment, procedures, methods, or aggregates thereof, used to acquire or control sample data generated according to parts 4740.2010 to 4740.2120.
Subp. 34. Method.
"Method" means the published scientific technique recognized by the commissioner for performing a specific measurement. Methods include instructions for sample preparation and sample analysis.
Subp. 35. Method blank or blank.
"Method blank" or "blank" means a sample free of the analyte of interest and processed according to the laboratory's standard operating procedures manual according to part 4740.2065.
Subp. 36. Method detection limit or MDL.
"Method detection limit" or "MDL" means the minimum concentration of a substance that can be measured and reported with 99 percent confidence that the analyte concentration is greater than zero and is determined from the analysis of a sample in a given matrix type containing the analyte. Unless specified in the approved test method, the method detection limit is determined using the procedures specified in the applicable permit, program, or rule.
Subp. 37. NELAC.
"NELAC" means the National Environmental Laboratory Accreditation Conference, which is a voluntary association of state and federal agencies whose purpose is to establish and promote mutually acceptable performance standards for the operation of environmental laboratories.
Subp. 38. Nonconformance or noncompliance.
"Nonconformance" or "noncompliance" means deficiency of a laboratory to meet any requirement in parts 4740.2010 to 4740.2120.
Subp. 39.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 40. Owner.
"Owner" means a person who:
A. is a sole proprietor of a laboratory;
B. holds a partnership interest in a laboratory; or
C. owns five percent or more of the shares in a corporation that owns a laboratory.
Subp. 41. Parameter.
"Parameter" means an analyte.
Subp. 42. Precision.
"Precision" means the measure of mutual agreement among individual measurements of a sample, usually under prescribed similar conditions, usually expressed as the standards deviation, variance, or range, in either absolute or relative terms.
Subp. 43. Proficiency testing sample or PT sample.
"Proficiency testing sample" or "PT sample" means a sample obtained from an approved provider to evaluate the ability of a laboratory to produce an analytical test result meeting the definition of acceptable performance. The concentration of the analyte in the sample is unknown to the laboratory at the time of analysis.
Subp. 44. Quality control.
"Quality control" means the overall system of technical activities, the purpose of which is to measure and control the quality of a product or service so that it meets the needs of users.
Subp. 45. Quality control data.
"Quality control data" means data generated to assess the accuracy and precision of test data. Quality control data includes data on calibration standards, proficiency testing samples, known standards, duplicate samples, blanks, spiked samples, and limits for quality control spiked samples, reference standards, duplicates, and detection levels.
Subp. 46. Quality system or quality assurance.
"Quality system" or "quality assurance" means the actions planned and taken that involve activities including control, assessment, reporting, and improvement in a laboratory's processes to ensure that a product or service meets the requirements of parts 4740.2010 to 4740.2120.
Subp. 47. Quantitate.
"Quantitate" means the arithmetic process of determining the amount of analyte in a sample.
Subp. 48. Replicate.
"Replicate" means two or more substantially equal aliquots analyzed independently for the same parameter.
Subp. 49. Reporting limit.
"Reporting limit" means the lowest level of an analyte that can be accurately recovered from the matrix of interest, for example, the level of quantitation.
Subp. 50. Revocation.
"Revocation" means a determination by the commissioner to invalidate in part or in total a laboratory's certification.
Subp. 51. Sample or environmental sample.
"Sample" or "environmental sample" means a substance derived from a nonhuman source and collected for the purpose of analysis.
Subp. 52. Scope of certification.
"Scope of certification" means the sum of all fields of testing for which a laboratory has been granted certification by the commissioner.
Subp. 53. Second source.
"Second source" means a different vendor or manufacturer, or different lots from the same vendor or manufacturer, usually in reference to standards.
Subp. 54. Solid.
"Solid" means:
A. soils as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 103F.401, subdivision 10;
B. sediments as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 103F.401, subdivision 9;
C. solid waste as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 115A.03, subdivision 31; and
D. biosolids as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 115A.03, subdivision 29.
Subp. 55. Standard.
"Standard" means:
A. the certified reference materials produced by the U.S. National Institute of Standards and Technology or other equivalent organization and characterized for absolute content, independent of analytical method; or
B. the dilutions made from these certified reference materials for the purposes of calibration or determining accuracy of a test method.
Subp. 56. Successor in interest.
"Successor in interest" means a laboratory that is owned or controlled by a majority of persons owning or controlling a laboratory certified under a previously issued certificate.
Subp. 57. Surrogate.
"Surrogate" means a compound that is similar to the analytes of interest in chemical composition and behavior in the analytical process, but that is not normally found in environmental samples.
Subp. 58. Suspension.
"Suspension" means the temporary invalidation in part or in total of a laboratory's certification for a defined period of time according to part 4740.2050, subpart 9, to allow a laboratory time to correct deficiencies or areas of noncompliance to comply with parts 4740.2010 to 4740.2120.
Subp. 59. Target or target analyte.
"Target" or "target analyte" means an analyte or list of analytes within a test method that may be analyzed and for which the laboratory has obtained certification from the commissioner to test as part of a field of testing.
Subp. 60. Verification.
"Verification" means confirmation by examination of and provision of objective evidence that specified requirements have been fulfilled. Verification is the process of examining a result of a given activity to determine conformance with parts 4740.2010 to 4740.2120.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.97; 144.98
- History: 14 SR 1874; 31 SR 446; 14 SR 1874; 31 SR 446; 44 SR 371
Minn. R. 4740.2020 [Repealed, 31 SR 446]
[Repealed, 31 SR 446]
Minn. R. 4740.2030 [Repealed, 31 SR 446]
[Repealed, 31 SR 446]
Minn. R. 4740.2040 [Repealed, 31 SR 446]
[Repealed, 31 SR 446]
Minn. R. 4740.2050 Application for Certification
Subpart 1. Base certification requirements.
A. A laboratory may request to be certified by the commissioner for the use of methods to test the analytes eligible for certification.
B. A laboratory must specify the fields of testing for which it seeks certification. No certification shall be awarded for any field of testing without the laboratory meeting base certification requirements. No laboratory may receive base certification without approval of at least one field of testing.
C. A laboratory must apply on a form that is provided by the commissioner.
D. Applications for renewal of certification must be received no later than 90 days before the expiration of certification. The application must meet the criteria of this subpart. If a laboratory fails to submit a renewal application within 90 days before the expiration of certification, the commissioner must notify the regulatory authorities that receive data that the laboratory did not apply to renew its certification. The laboratory must not report results as certified after its certification expires.
Subp. 2. Requirements for mobile laboratories.
A. A mobile laboratory is considered a separate laboratory and is subject to all requirements, including application requirements, of parts 4740.2010 to 4740.2120.
B. In addition to the requirements under subpart 1, a mobile laboratory must submit a vehicle identification number, license plate number, or other uniquely identifying information.
C. A mobile laboratory must designate which fields of testing, equipment, and personnel are associated with the mobile laboratory. Changes to the numbers and types of equipment within the mobile laboratory may require reapplication according to subpart 1.
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 4. Changes in scope of certification.
A. The commissioner shall approve a laboratory's application to add a field of testing at any time other than the time of renewal if the laboratory meets the criteria in parts 4740.2010 to 4740.2120 and submits the applicable fees.
B. Requests to add fields of testing for new analytes in response to a notice of availability do not require payment of additional fees if the laboratory holds a certification for that test category and applies for additional analytes within the same test category. Applications for fields of testing for new analytes in response to a notice of availability must meet the requirements of subpart 1 and must be received by the commissioner no later than 180 days after the notice of availability is posted.
C. Requests for the addition of fields of testing received more than 180 days after the notice of availability is posted are subject to fees according to subpart 16.
Subp. 5. Review of application.
After receiving the application and information required in subpart 1, the commissioner shall:
A. notify the laboratory in writing of any omission or error in the application;
B. deny certification for an initial application or revoke certification for a renewal application if the laboratory does not submit to the commissioner the required information within 15 days after receiving an error notice under item A;
C. award certification according to subpart 7 if the laboratory's application meets the applicable standards of parts 4740.2010 to 4740.2120; or
D. notify the laboratory that its current certification for fields of testing shall be continued until the commissioner fully reviews all documentation for compliance with parts 4740.2010 to 4740.2120.
Subp. 6. Laboratory inspection.
A. The commissioner may conduct inspections of certified laboratories or laboratories applying for certification.
B. The commissioner may notify the laboratory prior to arrival at the facility or may conduct an inspection without prior notice at any time during normal business hours to verify compliance with parts 4740.2010 to 4740.2120. When the commissioner provides notification, the notification may be written or oral.
C. When the commissioner determines after inspection that a certified laboratory does not comply with applicable provisions of parts 4740.2010 to 4740.2120, the commissioner shall notify the laboratory of the deficiencies in writing.
D. A laboratory must remedy any deficiencies and provide documentation of the correction to the commissioner. Within 30 days of receiving the report of deficiencies, the laboratory must submit documentation of corrective actions planned and taken. If the laboratory does not provide acceptable documentation of corrective actions or corrective action plans within 30 days, the commissioner shall notify the laboratory that its certification may be suspended in total or in part according to subpart 9. If the laboratory does not provide any documentation of deficiency corrections within 30 days, the commissioner shall notify the laboratory that its certification is revoked in total according to subpart 10.
E. A laboratory may not reapply for certification after suspension or revocation until it has corrected all deficiencies. After all deficiencies are corrected, the laboratory may apply for certification according to subpart 1. With its new application, the laboratory must submit written documentation of the steps taken to correct the deficiencies.
Subp. 7. Awarding certification.
A. Documentation of a laboratory's certification must include:
B. If a laboratory's scope of certification changes, the commissioner shall issue a new certificate and scope of certification.
C. A laboratory must return its certificate to the commissioner upon suspension or revocation of certification.
D. A certified laboratory must not misrepresent its certification on any document, including laboratory reports, catalogs, advertising, business solicitations, proposals, quotations, or other materials.
E. A laboratory must make available its current certificate and corresponding scope of certification upon the request of a client, certification authority, or regulatory agency. The laboratory must not supply a copy of its current certificate without the accompanying copy of its scope of certification.
Subp. 8. Denial.
A. The commissioner shall deny certification if a laboratory's initial or renewal application does not meet the requirements of subpart 1 or if a laboratory's request for variance does not satisfactorily address all items in subpart 13.
B. A laboratory that has had its request for certification denied may reapply according to subpart 1. The application and all required documentation must be accompanied by repayment of applicable fees.
C. The commissioner shall not refund fees if an application is denied.
Subp. 9. Suspension.
A. When the commissioner determines that there are grounds for suspension, the commissioner must notify the laboratory in writing. A laboratory's certification may be suspended in total or in part for a period not to exceed 180 days and not to extend beyond the expiration date of the current certification. If a laboratory takes corrective action before the end of the suspension period, certification for the suspended fields of testing or for the base certification and fields of testing must be restored if the corrective actions satisfactorily address the deficiencies cited in the notice of suspension, except when contrary to an applicable reciprocity agreement. The laboratory shall retain certification for the fields of testing for which it continues to meet the requirements of parts 4740.2010 to 4740.2120.
B. Grounds for suspension of certification are:
C. The effective date of suspension is the date that the laboratory receives the suspension notice from the commissioner. Upon receiving the notice, the laboratory must notify all clients whose samples have been received or analyzed within 30 days prior to the notification or back to the date at which the laboratory was in compliance, whichever is greater. Notification is required for all fields of testing for which the laboratory's certification has been suspended. The notification from the laboratory must be in writing. The laboratory must submit copies of each notification to the commissioner at the time that the notification is sent to the client.
D. A laboratory that has had its certification suspended may reapply according to subpart 1. Repayment of fees is not required for reinstatement if the laboratory corrects the deficiencies within the time frame required by the commissioner, not to exceed 180 days or the expiration date of the current certification, whichever is sooner. If the laboratory fails to correct the causes of suspension within the specified time frame, the commissioner shall revoke in total or in part the laboratory's certification according to subpart 10, item A.
E. A laboratory that has had its certification suspended due to unacceptable proficiency testing results must submit acceptable proficiency testing results for the fields of testing from two successive studies to restore certification.
Subp. 10. Revocation.
A. When the commissioner determines that there are grounds for partial or total revocation of a laboratory certification, the commissioner must notify the laboratory in writing. The laboratory shall retain certification for the fields of testing for which it continues to meet the requirements of parts 4740.2010 to 4740.2120.
B. Grounds for partial or total revocation of certification are:
C. Grounds for total revocation of a laboratory's certification are:
D. The effective date of revocation is the date that the laboratory receives the revocation notice from the commissioner. Upon receiving the notice, the laboratory must notify all clients whose samples have been received or analyzed within 30 days prior to the notification or back to the date at which the laboratory was in compliance, whichever is greater. Notification is required for all fields of testing for which the laboratory's certification has been revoked. The notification from the laboratory must be in writing. The laboratory must submit a copy of each notification to the commissioner at the time that the notification is sent to the client.
E. A laboratory that has had its certification revoked must not advertise itself as certified and, when possible, must remove or replace any advertisements that indicate that the laboratory is certified.
F. A laboratory that has had its certification revoked may not reapply for certification until it has corrected all deficiencies. The laboratory may reapply according to subpart 1 and, with the application, must provide documentation of the steps taken to correct the deficiencies.
Subp. 11. Successor in interest; recertification.
A successor in interest of a laboratory that has had its certification revoked or suspended may not apply for recertification until the end of the term for which the certification was suspended or until all conditions for reapplication after revocation are met.
Subp. 12. Reciprocity and laboratories in other states.
A. A laboratory in another state may request certification in Minnesota. In addition to following the application process under subpart 1, the laboratory must submit the appropriate fees with its application.
B. The commissioner may enter into agreements with certifying authorities of federal agencies and agencies of other states for reciprocal recognition of laboratory certification programs or portions of programs that are substantially equivalent.
C. When a reciprocal agreement exists, the commissioner shall certify an out-of-state laboratory that:
D. A laboratory certified under this subpart must notify the commissioner within 30 days after any enforcement action is taken by the reciprocal certifying authority.
E. Laboratories certified under reciprocity agreements are subject to parts 4740.2010 to 4740.2120.
F. The commissioner shall provide a list of reciprocity agreements upon request.
Subp. 13. Request for variance.
A. The commissioner may grant a variance from parts 4740.2010 to 4740.2120. Variances from the use of an approved method may be granted according to part 4740.2060. To request a variance, a laboratory must pay the appropriate variance fee and must indicate in writing:
B. The commissioner shall review information submitted with the variance request. If the laboratory proposes alternatives equivalent or superior to those requirements in the rule, shows that strict enforcement of the rule would cause undue hardship, and shows that the variance will not adversely affect the reliability of the data produced by the laboratory, the commissioner shall grant the variance provided the variance does not conflict with statutory provisions. The commissioner shall grant or deny the variance within 60 days after receipt of the request, giving the laboratory written justification for the decision. The commissioner must specify an expiration date for the variances the commissioner issues.
Subp. 14. Voluntary withdrawal of certification.
A. If a laboratory chooses to withdraw its application for certification or its current certification in total or in part, the laboratory must notify the commissioner in writing and specify the effective date of withdrawal.
B. The commissioner shall consider that a laboratory has chosen to voluntarily withdraw its certification if the laboratory has not submitted a complete renewal application within 90 days before the expiration date of its current certification. In this situation, the effective date is the expiration date of the laboratory's current certification.
C. By the effective date of the withdrawal of certification, in total or in part, the laboratory must notify current clients and regulatory agencies of its intent to withdraw its certification and must indicate the effective date of the withdrawal. Notification is required for all fields of testing for which the laboratory has chosen to voluntarily withdraw certification. The notification from the laboratory must be in writing. The laboratory must submit a copy of each notification to the commissioner at the time that the notification is sent to the client.
D. The commissioner shall not refund fees if a current certification is voluntarily withdrawn by the laboratory.
Subp. 15. Duty to notify.
A. A laboratory must notify the commissioner in writing within 30 days of a change in:
B. With the notification, a laboratory must provide results of proficiency testing samples, or a demonstration of capability, analyzed in the new laboratory location or analyzed under the change in laboratory owner, instrumentation, or methods.
Subp. 16. Payment of fees.
A. All applications or requests to change the scope of certification submitted to the commissioner for approval must be accompanied by the fee specified in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.98.
B. When a laboratory requests certification for additional fields of testing at any time other than the time of initial or renewal application, the laboratory must submit fees equal to the fees for the test category in which the method or analyte is requested. The fee also applies to the addition of methods or analytes for reinstatement after revocation or denial of certification. No fee shall be assessed for the addition of fields of testing in response to a notice of availability when an application is submitted under the conditions specified in subpart 4.
C. When a laboratory requests a variance according to subpart 13, the request must be accompanied by applicable fees according to Minnesota Statutes, section 144.98.
D. Payment of fees must be in the form of a check, money order, or electronic transfer of funds. When payment is in the form of an electronic transfer of funds, proof of deposit must be verifiable before the date the fees are due to the commissioner.
Subp. 17. Appeal of administrative decision.
A. The commissioner shall notify a laboratory in writing of the reasons for a decision to suspend or revoke a certification.
B. A laboratory has 30 days from the date of receiving the decision to appeal the decision. A request to appeal the decision must:
C. Upon receipt of an appeal request, the commissioner shall initiate the procedure for a contested case hearing according to Minnesota Statutes, chapter 14, and rules of the Office of Administrative Hearings.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.05; 14.3895; 144.97; 144.98
- History: 31 SR 446; 44 SR 371
Minn. R. 4740.2060 Methods Required for Certification
Subpart 1. Scope.
Laboratories must observe appropriate methodologies for conducting analyses. Methods contain specific instructions on sample collection and preservation procedures. The federal and state methods under subparts 2 to 5 are incorporated by reference, are not subject to frequent change, and are available on the Internet at http://www.gpo.gov or through the Minitex interlibrary loan system.
Subp. 2. Clean water program.
A. Methods for the clean water program test category are as provided under Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, part 136.
B. In the absence of an applicable federal regulation, alternative methods may be used for state-specific testing if the state agency administering the permit, program, or rule grants written approval citing the laboratory's name and the title, revision date, and revision number of the procedure receiving approval.
C. The laboratory must submit a copy of the approval for alternate methods to the commissioner along with an application, as required under part 4740.2050.
D. If certification for an alternative method is requested, the laboratory must apply for a variance from this subpart according to part 4740.2050, subpart 13.
Subp. 3. Safe drinking water program.
A. Methods for the safe drinking water program test category are as provided under chapter 4720 and Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, parts 141 and 143.
B. In the absence of an applicable federal regulation alternative methods may be used for state-specific testing if the state agency administering the permit, program, or rule grants written approval citing the laboratory's name and the title, revision date, and revision number of the procedure receiving approval.
C. The laboratory must submit a copy of the approval for alternate methods to the commissioner along with an application, as required under part 4740.2050.
D. If certification for an alternative method is requested, the laboratory must apply for a variance from this subpart according to part 4740.2050, subpart 13.
Subp. 4. Resource conservation recovery program.
A. Methods for the resource conservation recovery program test category are as provided under Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, part 261, and "Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste: Physical/Chemical Methods," Publication SW-846, third edition, as updated and published as final, United States Environmental Protection Agency. The test methods are available on the Internet at http://www.epa.gov/epaoswer/hazwaste/test/main.htm.
B. In the absence of an applicable federal regulation, alternative methods may be used for state-specific testing if the state agency administering the permit, program, or rule grants written approval citing the laboratory's name and the title, revision date, and revision number of the procedure receiving approval.
C. The laboratory must submit a copy of the approval of alternate methods to the commissioner along with an application, as required under part 4740.2050.
D. If certification for an alternative method is requested, the laboratory must apply for a variance from this subpart according to part 4740.2050, subpart 13.
Subp. 5. Underground storage tank program.
A. Methods for the underground storage tank program test category are "Modified DRO Method for Determining Diesel Range Organics," Wisconsin Department of Natural Resources, Publication PUBL-SW-141 (September 1995), available on the Internet at http://www.health.state.mn.us/divs/phl/accreditation/statereq.html; "Modified GRO Method for Determining Gasoline Range Organics," Wisconsin Department of Natural Resources, Publication PUBL-SW-140 (September 1995), available on the Internet at http://www.health.state.mn.us/divs/phl/accreditation/statereq.html; and "Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste: Physical/Chemical Methods," Publication SW-846, United States Environmental Protection Agency, third edition, as updated, available on the Internet at http://www.epa.gov/epaoswer/hazwaste/test/main.htm.
B. In the absence of an applicable federal regulation, alternative methods may be used for state-specific testing if the state agency administering the permit, program, or rule grants written approval citing the laboratory's name and the title, revision date, and revision number of the procedure receiving approval.
C. The laboratory must submit a copy of the approval for alternate methods to the commissioner along with an application, as required under part 4740.2050.
D. If certification for an alternative method is requested, the laboratory must apply for a variance from this subpart according to part 4740.2050, subpart 13.
Subp. 6. Other required methods.
The analytical methods, sample collection, and preservation procedures used for samples required to be analyzed under a permit, program, or rule administered by a state agency must meet the requirements specified by the permit, program, or rule. The analytical methods, sample collection, and preservation procedures used to analyze samples for programs required by a federal agency must meet the requirements specified in the relevant parts of the Code of Federal Regulations.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.05; 14.3895; 144.97; 144.98
- History: 31 SR 446; 44 SR 371
Minn. R. 4740.2065 Standard Operating Procedures
Subpart 1. Written procedures required.
A laboratory must possess a written manual of standard operating procedures used by laboratory personnel for the analysis of samples. A laboratory must prepare written procedures for all laboratory activities including, but not limited to, sample analysis, operation of instrumentation, generation of data, and performance of corrective action.
Subp. 2. Quality control.
Actual practice must conform to the written procedures. A laboratory must ensure that the applicable requirements in parts 4740.2080 to 4740.2120 are incorporated into each procedure. All quality control measures must be assessed and evaluated on an ongoing basis. Quality control acceptance criteria in the laboratory's quality assurance manual must be used to determine the validity of the data.
Subp. 3. Manual requirements.
A standard operating procedures manual must contain:
A. a table of contents;
B. a unique identification of the manual, such as a serial number, an identification on each page to ensure that the page is recognized as a part of the manual, and a clear identification of the end of the manual;
C. the laboratory's name. When several separate procedures are included in the manual, the name must appear on each procedure;
D. a revision number; and
E. a date indicating when the revision became effective.
Subp. 4. Effective dates.
A laboratory must maintain a record of effective dates for all procedures. A copy of the procedure and the record of effective dates must be maintained for the same period of time that records of the data generated by those procedures are required to be maintained.
Subp. 5. Availability.
A copy of a written procedure must be available to all personnel that engage in that particular activity.
Subp. 6. Required use.
An analyst must use the laboratory's standard operating procedure beginning on the effective date for all laboratory activities for the analysis of samples for which certification is required.
Subp. 7. Copy to commissioner.
A laboratory must submit a copy of its laboratory standard operating procedures manual to the commissioner at the time of application and within 30 days after the effective date of the revision. All changes to the standard operating procedures must be documented. The changes must be incorporated into the manual at least annually. All updated standard operating procedures must include the signature of the managing agent upon revision. The revised procedure manual must be forwarded to the commissioner in its entirety no later than 30 days after its effective date of revision.
Subp. 8.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.97; 144.98
- History: 31 SR 446; 44 SR 371
Minn. R. 4740.2070 Proficiency Testing Requirements
Subpart 1. Use of approved providers.
A laboratory must obtain proficiency testing samples from an approved provider meeting the requirements under part 4740.2075.
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 4. Laboratory testing of PT study samples.
A. A laboratory's management and all analysts must ensure that all PT samples are managed, analyzed, reported, and otherwise handled in the same manner as routine samples, including utilizing the same staff, procedures, equipment, facilities, and frequency of analysis as used for routine analysis for that field of testing.
B. When analyzing a PT sample, a laboratory must employ the same calibration, quality control, acceptance criteria, sequence of analytical steps, number of replicates, and other standard operating procedures as used when analyzing routine samples. The laboratory must follow sample preparation steps for the PT sample as instructed by the approved PT provider for which the PT sample was obtained.
Subp. 5.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 6.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 7. Evaluation of results.
A laboratory may not request from the PT provider a revised report when the revisions to the report are due to any error on the part of the laboratory.
Subp. 8.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 9. Corrective actions for unacceptable results.
When an approved provider notifies a laboratory that a PT sample result for any reported field of testing is unacceptable, the laboratory must:
A. within 30 days after receiving the notification of unacceptable results from the approved provider, submit written documentation to the commissioner indicating corrective actions planned and taken;
B. within 30 days after receiving the notification of unacceptable results from the approved provider, submit written documentation to the commissioner indicating the laboratory's request to purchase a PT sample from an approved provider; and
C. within 30 days after receiving the results of the PT sample under item B, supply a copy of the results to the commissioner.
Subp. 10.
[Repealed, 44 SR 371]
Subp. 11. Additional samples for compliance.
The commissioner may require certified laboratories to test additional PT samples at any time to determine compliance with parts 4740.2010 to 4740.2120.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.05; 14.3895; 144.97; 144.98
- History: 31 SR 446; 44 SR 371
Minn. R. 4740.2075 Approval of Providers of Pt Samples
Subpart 1. Provider availability.
The commissioner shall make available a list of approved PT providers.
Subp. 2. Criteria for approval.
The commissioner must approve a PT provider if the PT provider:
A. is compliant with the NELAC standards effective July 1, 2004, to June 30, 2005, or a more current revision, provided the revision is in effect, upon the date it becomes effective;
B. defines the scope of each PT study;
C. evaluates results from all proficiency testing studies using the acceptance criteria described in the NELAC standards or those specified by the commissioner;
D. scores each result as either "acceptable," "not acceptable," "no evaluation," or "not reported";
E. provides to participant laboratories reports that include:
F. sends reports of results no later than 21 calendar days after the study closing date. If the report and other proficiency testing sample information are available in electronic format, it must be available only to the participant laboratory and the state agencies selected by the laboratory;
G. maintains the overall effectiveness of the provider's quality system to indicate that samples provided for testing are verifiable, homogeneous, and stable;
H. makes available to the commissioner and any participating laboratory, upon request, a complete report of the provider's analytical data and documentation of the provider's quality system, which relates to the assigned values, homogeneity, and stability of a particular proficiency testing study;
I. makes available to the commissioner, upon request, a report listing the total number of participating laboratories and the number of laboratories scoring "not acceptable" for each analyte;
J. supplies reports to the commissioner in an electronic format acceptable to the commissioner; and
K. supplies the laboratory with a PT sample formulated from a lot that has not been previously sent to the laboratory. If the lot has previously been used in a proficiency testing sample or its assigned values sent to any laboratory, the original PT sample tracking ID must be obliterated and the new sample tracking ID must be unique.
Subp. 3. Obtaining or maintaining approval status.
In order to obtain and maintain the commissioner's approval to supply PT samples for particular fields of testing, providers must establish and maintain a quality system meeting the requirements of this part.
Subp. 4. Questionable PT samples.
Upon notice from a laboratory and verification by the approved provider that a PT sample did not meet the requirements in this part, the commissioner may:
A. determine that the affected laboratory must analyze another PT sample for that field of testing; or
B. review quality control data produced by the laboratory to determine compliance with parts 4740.2010 to 4740.2120.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.97; 144.98
- History: 31 SR 446
Minn. R. 4740.2080 Quality Assurance Practices; All Test Categories
Parts 4740.2087, 4740.2089, and 4740.2095 to 4740.2099 apply to all practices related to the analysis of samples for environmental testing from the time of collection to disposal for all fields of testing whenever a requirement is not listed in the approved method or by permit, program, or rule. The requirements of parts 4740.2087, 4740.2089, and 4740.2095 to 4740.2099 must be included in a laboratory's quality assurance manual. If a requirement is included in an approved method or by permit, program, or rule, a laboratory must demonstrate that the requirements therein are met. If it is not clear which requirements are more stringent, the requirements in parts 4740.2010 to 4740.2120 are to be followed.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.97; 144.98
- History: 31 SR 446
Minn. R. 4740.2085 Quality Assurance Manual
A. A laboratory must possess and follow a written manual of quality assurance.
B. The manual may include several separate procedures or incorporate documents by reference.
C. The manual or its separate procedures must contain:
D. The manual must be reviewed periodically and updated when necessary. Documentation of the review process must include the scope of the review, identification of the reviewer, and the date the review was completed.
E. At the time of application, a laboratory must submit a copy of the manual, including documents incorporated by reference if these documents are not generally available to the commissioner. Each subsequent revision of the manual or any of its separate procedures must be submitted to the commissioner in its entirety no later than 30 days after the effective date of the revision.
F. Unless a laboratory justifies why an item is not applicable, the manual must incorporate the quality assurance practices described in parts 4740.2087 and 4740.2089, including but not limited to policies and procedures used to:
G. A laboratory must routinely evaluate and document the effectiveness of its quality system to ensure that requirements for certification in parts 4740.2010 to 4740.2120 are met.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.97; 144.98
- History: 31 SR 446; 44 SR 371
Minn. R. 4740.2087 Sample Handling, Receipt, and Acceptance
Subpart 1. Handling samples.
A. A laboratory must have procedures for the transportation, receipt, handling, protection, storage, retention, and disposal of samples. The procedures must include provisions necessary to protect the integrity of the sample and to protect the interests of the laboratory and the client.
B. A laboratory must have a system for identifying samples. The sample's identification must be retained throughout the life of the sample in the laboratory. The identification system must be designed and operated so as to ensure that samples cannot be confused physically or when referred to in laboratory documentation. The identification of samples must accommodate a subdivision of groups of samples and the transfer of samples between laboratories.
C. Upon receipt of samples, the condition, including any abnormalities or departures from specified conditions as described in the laboratory's quality assurance manual, must be recorded. When there is doubt as to the suitability of a sample for environmental testing, when a sample does not conform to the description provided, or when the environmental test required is not specified in sufficient detail, the laboratory must consult the client for further instructions before proceeding and must maintain a written record of the discussion.
D. When an insufficient amount of sample is received, a laboratory may choose to subsample if subsampling would not cause loss of sample integrity. Information concerning the insufficient amount of sample and any decision to subsample must be indicated with the test results.
E. A laboratory must have procedures and appropriate facilities for avoiding deterioration, contamination, loss, or damage to the sample during storage, handling, preparation, and testing.
F. When samples require storage under specified environmental conditions, the conditions must be maintained, monitored, and recorded. When a sample or a portion of a sample is to be held secure, a laboratory must have arrangements for storage and security that protect the condition and integrity of the secured samples or portions concerned.
G. Samples, sample fractions, extracts, leachates, and other products of sample preparation must be kept in storage units, such as cabinets, refrigerators, or freezers, that are separate from the storage units for all standards, reagents, food, and other potentially contaminating sources. Samples must be stored in such a manner to prevent contamination between samples.
Subp. 2. Sample receipt protocols.
The following items must be verified and the results documented:
A. all samples that require chemical preservation are considered acceptable if the laboratory verifies that the preservation meets the requirements of the approved method. A laboratory must implement procedures for checking chemical preservation before sample preparation or analysis except for methods where postanalysis preservation checks are required to ensure that sample integrity is not compromised. When specified in permit, program, or rule, chemical preservation must be verified upon receipt; and
B. a laboratory must maintain chronological records, either paper-based or electronic, such as a log book or database, to document receipt of all samples, including the number and types of containers received for each field of testing. The records must include:
Subp. 3. Sample acceptance policy.
A. A laboratory must have a written sample acceptance policy that clearly outlines the circumstances under which samples will be accepted or rejected by the laboratory. Data from samples that do not meet the laboratory's criteria must be recorded in an unambiguous manner clearly defining the nature and substance of the deviation from acceptable procedures.
B. A laboratory's sample acceptance policy must be made available to sample collection personnel and must address, at a minimum:
C. If the sample does not meet the sample receipt acceptance criteria listed in the laboratory's quality assurance manual, the laboratory must retain correspondence and records of conversations concerning the final disposition of rejected samples or fully document any decision to proceed with the analysis of samples not meeting acceptance criteria. The report of samples analyzed without meeting the sample acceptance criteria must indicate, at a minimum, the condition of the samples on the chain-of-custody, transmittal form, or the laboratory receipt documents in addition to appropriately qualifying the analysis data on the final report.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.05; 14.3895; 144.97; 144.98
- History: 31 SR 446; 44 SR 371
Minn. R. 4740.2089 Standards, Reagents, and Bacteriological Media
A. Reference standards that are used in the laboratory must be obtained, when available, from the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), manufacturers that supply NIST standards or NIST traceable standards, or an international standard-setting organization.
B. A laboratory must retain records for all standards, reagents, and bacteriological media. The records must include:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.05; 14.3895; 144.97; 144.98
- History: 31 SR 446; 44 SR 371
Minn. R. 4740.2091 Requirements for Calibration of Support Equipment
Subpart 1. Scope.
This part applies to all devices that may not be the actual test instrument, but that are necessary to support laboratory operations, if quantitative results are dependent on their accuracy. Such devices include, but are not limited to, balances; ovens; refrigerators; freezers; incubators; water baths; temperature measuring devices, including thermometers and thermistors; thermal/pressure sample preparation devices; autoclaves; and volumetric dispensing devices, such as Eppendorf or automatic diluter/dispensing devices.
Subp. 2. Requirements.
A. Equipment must be operated by trained personnel. Up-to-date instructions on the use and maintenance of equipment, including any relevant manuals provided by the manufacturer of the equipment, must be readily available for use by the appropriate laboratory personnel.
B. All equipment must be properly maintained, including inspection, calibration, and cleaning. Maintenance procedures must be documented. Calibration of balances, weights, temperature recording devices, light sources, and detectors must be appropriate to the required precision and accuracy of the method. Calibrations must be performed at least annually and must be traceable to appropriate standards.
C. Records must be maintained for each major item of equipment, including software. The records must include:
Subp. 3. Frequency of calibration.
A. All support equipment described in subpart 1 must be calibrated or verified at least annually, using National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) traceable references when available, over the entire range of use.
B. On each working day, balances, ovens, refrigerators, freezers, and water baths must be checked in the expected use range with NIST traceable references, when available.
C. Mechanical volumetric dispensing devices including burettes, except Class A glassware, must be checked for accuracy at least quarterly. All glassware, including glass microliter syringes used for calibration, must be checked for accuracy and documented before its first use in the laboratory if the glassware does not come with a certificate attesting to established accuracy.
D. For chemical and biological tests using an autoclave, the temperature, cycle time, and pressure of each run must be documented by the use of appropriate chemical indicators, temperature recorders, and pressure gauges.
E. Volumetric equipment must be calibrated as follows:
F. Dial thermometers must be checked on a quarterly basis. All measurements must be recorded. When the thermometer is used for microbiological methods, all thermometers must be calibrated on an annual basis against a NIST thermometer. When the thermometer is used for nonmicrobiological methods, the thermometer is valid for the time period specified on the vendor's certificate. If a time period is not specified, the thermometer must be calibrated on an annual basis against an NIST thermometer.
Subp. 4. Acceptance criteria.
A. The results of calibrations must be within the specifications required of the application for which the equipment is used.
B. The acceptability for use or continued use must be according to the needs of the analysis or application for which the equipment is being used.
C. When the results of calibration of support equipment are not within the required specifications, the laboratory must remove the equipment from service until repaired.
D. Records must be retained to document equipment performance.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.97; 144.98
- History: 31 SR 446
Minn. R. 4740.2093 Requirements for Instrument Calibration
Subpart 1. Scope.
This part applies to all devices that are the actual test instrument used to quantify the test results.
Subp. 2. Requirements.
A. Equipment must be operated by trained personnel. Up-to-date instructions on the use and maintenance of equipment, including any relevant manuals provided by the manufacturer of the equipment, must be readily available for use by the appropriate laboratory personnel.
B. All equipment must be properly maintained, including inspection, calibration, and cleaning. Maintenance procedures must be documented. Calibration of balances, weights, temperature recording devices, light sources, and detectors must be appropriate to the required precision and accuracy of the method. Calibrations must be performed at least annually and must be traceable to appropriate standards.
C. Records must be maintained for each major item of equipment, including software. The records must include:
Subp. 3. Initial calibration.
A. Sufficient records must be retained to permit reconstruction of the instrument calibration, such as calibration date, approved method, instrument, analysis date, each analyte name, the manual or electronic identification of the analyst performing the test, concentration and response, calibration curve or response factor, or unique equation or coefficient used to reduce instrument responses to concentration.
B. Sample results must be quantitated from the most recent instrument calibration and may not be quantitated from any instrument calibration verification unless otherwise allowed by permit, program, or rule.
C. All instrument calibrations must be verified with a standard obtained from a second source. Traceability must be to a national standard, when available.
D. Criteria for the acceptance of an instrument calibration must be established, such as correlation coefficient or relative standard deviation. The criteria used must be appropriate to the calibration technique employed and must be documented in the laboratory's standard operating procedure.
E. If allowed in the permit, program, or rule, results of samples outside of the concentration range established by the calibration must be reported with defined qualifiers, flags, or explanations estimating the quantitative error.
F. The following must occur for methods employing standardization with a zero point and a single point calibration standard:
G. If the instrument calibration results are outside established acceptance criteria, corrective actions must be performed and all associated samples reanalyzed. If reanalysis of the samples is not possible, data associated with an unacceptable instrument calibration must be appropriately qualified on the test report.
H. Calibration standards must include concentrations at or below the limit specified in the permit, program, or rule.
I. If an approved method does not specify the number of calibration standards, the minimum number is three, one of which must be at the reporting limit, not including blanks or a zero standard, with the exception of instrument technology for which it has been established by methodologies and procedures that a zero and a single point standard are appropriate for calibrations. The laboratory must document in its standard operating procedures how it determines the number of points required for the instrument calibration employed, and the acceptance criteria for calibration.
Subp. 4. Calibration verification.
A. When an instrument calibration is not performed on the day of analysis, the instrument calibration must be verified before analysis of samples by analyzing a calibration standard with each batch.
B. If calibration verification is not described in the approved method, a calibration verification must be repeated at the beginning and end of each batch.
C. Sufficient raw data records must be retained to permit reconstruction of the calibration verification, such as test method; instrument; analysis date; each analyte name, concentration, and response; calibration curve or response factor; or unique equations or coefficients used to convert instrument responses into concentrations. Calibration verification records must explicitly connect the verification data to the instrument calibration.
D. Criteria for the acceptance of a calibration verification must be established and evaluated using the same technique used to evaluate the instrument calibration.
E. If the calibration verification results obtained are outside established acceptance criteria, corrective actions must be performed. If routine corrective action procedures fail to produce a second consecutive (immediate) calibration verification within acceptance criteria, then the laboratory must either demonstrate performance after corrective action with two consecutive successful calibration verifications or perform a new instrument calibration. If the laboratory has not demonstrated acceptable performance, sample analyses must not occur until a new instrument calibration is established and verified. However, sample data associated with an unacceptable calibration verification may be reported as qualified data under the following special conditions:
F. When allowed by permit, program, or rule, verification procedures may result in a set of correction factors. If correction factors are employed, the laboratory must have procedures to ensure that copies of all data records, such as in computer software, are correctly updated.
G. Test equipment, including both hardware and software, must be safeguarded from adjustments that would invalidate the test results.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.97; 144.98
- History: 31 SR 446
Minn. R. 4740.2095 Reporting
A. Analytical results must be reported accurately, legibly, unambiguously, objectively, and according to any specific instructions in the laboratory's standard operating procedure or quality assurance manual.
B. Laboratories that are operated by a facility and whose sole function is to provide data to the facility management for compliance purposes must have all applicable information specified in item C readily available for review by the state agency administering the permit, program, or rule. Formal reports detailing the information are not required if:
C. The test report must include:
D. When the laboratory analyzes samples by a procedure other than as written, the laboratory record must include:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.97; 144.98
- History: 31 SR 446
Minn. R. 4740.2097 Records Retention and Retrieval
A. The record-keeping system must allow historical reconstruction of all laboratory activities that produced the analytical data. This also applies to interlaboratory transfers of samples or extracts and the data resulting from the analysis of the samples or extracts.
B. Unless otherwise required by permit, program, or rule, all records must be retained for a minimum of five years after generation of the last entry in the record. All information required for the historical reconstruction of the data must be maintained by the laboratory. If records are retained only in electronic form, the hardware and software required for the retrieval of electronic records must be retained for the same time period as the records to be retrieved.
C. The records must include the identity of personnel designated by the laboratory as responsible for the task performed, as described in the person's job description. The laboratory must retain records of the signatures and initials of designated personnel.
D. All information relating to the laboratory facilities, equipment, analytical test methods, and related laboratory activities, such as sample receipt, sample preparation, or data verification, must be documented.
E. The record-keeping system must allow the retrieval of all working files and archived records for inspection and verification purposes, including but not limited to systematic naming of electronic files.
F. All records must be signed or initialed by personnel designated by the laboratory as responsible for the task performed. All changes must be clearly indicated in the records. The laboratory must have procedures for recording changes and identifying the personnel making the change.
G. All observations used to calculate the final result must be recorded immediately. If the record is handwritten, the record must be legible and in permanent ink.
H. Entries in records must not be obliterated by methods such as erasures, overwritten files, or markings. All corrections to records on paper must be made by one line marked through the error. The individual making the correction must sign or initial and date the handwritten or electronic correction.
I. A laboratory must maintain a record-keeping system that includes procedures for protecting the integrity and security of the data.
J. A laboratory must supply any documentation or data listed in parts 4740.2010 to 4740.2120 within 30 days of the date that the commissioner requests the information.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.97; 144.98
- History: 31 SR 446
Minn. R. 4740.2099 Documentation of Laboratory Personnel Training
A. The laboratory must maintain current job descriptions for all personnel who manage, perform, or verify work affecting the quality of the environmental tests.
B. The laboratory must maintain a current table of organization showing relationships between all job classifications and responsible lines of authority associated with the procurement, analysis, reporting, and disposal of samples.
C. The laboratory's managing agents and owners must ensure that all laboratory staff have demonstrated capability in the activities for which they are responsible. Such demonstration must be documented. For new laboratory personnel, the demonstration of capability must be performed prior to their analysis of any sample for that field of testing. Failure to maintain records that demonstrate the capability of laboratory staff as required in this part is grounds for suspension of certification under part 4740.2050, subpart 9. In the absence of method requirements, an analyst must analyze four reagent blanks spiked at the concentration of the calibration check standard. The recoveries must meet the criteria in the laboratory's quality assurance manual.
D. Data produced by analysts while in the process of obtaining required training are acceptable only when reviewed and validated by an analyst or supervisor trained in such evaluations and assessments.
E. The laboratory's managing agents and owners must ensure that laboratory staff maintain capability to perform job functions by:
F. The laboratory must maintain initials and signatures of anyone analyzing or reviewing data so that the records can be traced back to an individual approving the data.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.97; 144.98
- History: 31 SR 446
Minn. R. 4740.2100 Quality Control Criteria for Chemistry Except Radiochemistry
Subpart 1. Scope.
This part applies to laboratories performing testing under the inorganic chemistry, metals, volatile organic compounds, and other organic compounds test categories unless otherwise indicated. All requirements in this part must be incorporated into the laboratory's procedures unless otherwise directed by the approved method. The quality control requirements specified by the laboratory's standard operating procedures manual must be followed. All quality control measures must be assessed and evaluated on an ongoing basis and quality control acceptance criteria must be used to determine the validity of the data.
Subp. 2. Method blanks.
A. The method blank must be processed along with and under the same conditions as the associated samples to include all steps of the analytical procedure.
B. Each contaminated method blank must be critically evaluated as to the nature of the interference and the effect on the analysis of each sample within the batch. The source of contamination must be investigated and measures taken to minimize or eliminate the problem. Affected samples must be reprocessed or data must be appropriately qualified if:
C. Procedures must be in place to determine whether a method blank is contaminated. Any affected samples associated with a contaminated method blank must be reprocessed for analysis or the results reported with appropriate data qualifying codes.
D. The method blank must be analyzed at a minimum of one per batch.
Subp. 3. Laboratory control sample.
A. A laboratory control sample (LCS) must be used to evaluate the performance of the total analytical system, including all preparation and analysis steps. Results of the LCS must be compared to established criteria and, if found to be outside of established criteria, must indicate that the analytical system is "out of control." Any affected samples associated with an out-of-control LCS must be reprocessed for reanalysis or the results reported with appropriate data qualifying codes.
B. A laboratory control sample must be analyzed at a minimum of one per preparation batch except:
C. All analyte concentrations must be within the calibration range of the instrument calibration. The components to be spiked must be as specified by the permit, program, or rule requirement. In the absence of permit, program, rule, or method requirements, the laboratory must spike as follows:
D. The results of the analytes included in the LCS are calculated in percent recovery or measure that allows comparison to established acceptance criteria. The laboratory must document the calculation. The individual LCS is compared to the acceptance criteria as published in the approved method. When there are no established criteria, the laboratory must determine its own criteria and document the method used to establish the limits or utilize client-specified assessment criteria within a permit, program, or rule requirement.
E. A laboratory control sample that is determined to be within the criteria effectively establishes that the analytical system is in control and validates system performance for the samples in the associated batch. Samples analyzed along with a LCS determined to be "out of control" must be considered suspect. The samples must be reprocessed and reanalyzed or the data reported with appropriate data qualifying codes.
Subp. 4. Matrix spike and matrix spike duplicates.
A. The frequency of the analysis of matrix spikes and matrix spike duplicates must be determined as part of a systematic planning process or as specified by the required approved method. The matrix spikes must be prepared from samples contained in the batch.
B. For a matrix spike, the components to be spiked must be as specified by the approved method or permit, program, or rule requirement. In the absence of specified spiking components, the laboratory may follow client instructions and then must document its criteria for quality control. In the absence of client instruction, the laboratory must spike as follows:
C. The results from matrix spikes and matrix spike duplicates must be expressed as percent recovery, relative percent difference, absolute difference, or other measure. Results of matrix spikes and matrix spike duplicates must be compared to the acceptance criteria as published in the approved method. When there are no established criteria, the laboratory must determine its own criteria and document the procedure used to establish the limits or utilize client-specified assessment criteria within a permit, program, or rule requirement.
Subp. 5. Surrogate spikes.
A. This subpart applies to the analysis of organic compounds.
B. Except when the matrix precludes their use, or when not available, surrogate compounds must be added to all samples, standards, and blanks for all appropriate test methods.
C. Surrogate compounds must be chosen to represent the various chemistries of the analytes in the method. When specified, the surrogates mandated in the method must be used.
D. The results from surrogate spikes must be expressed as percent recovery. Results of surrogate spikes must be compared to the acceptance criteria as published in the approved method. When there are no established criteria, the laboratory must determine its own criteria and document the method used to establish the limits or utilize client-specified assessment criteria within a permit, program, or rule requirement.
Subp. 6. Internal standards.
A. When internal standards are recommended or required by the test method, such as mass spectrometry techniques, a laboratory must add the internal standards to all samples, standards, blanks, and quality control samples before analysis.
B. When specified in the test method, a laboratory must use the internal standards mandated in the test method. If internal standards are not recommended in the method, then the analyst must select one or more internal standards that are similar in analytical behavior to the compounds of interest and not expected to be found in the samples otherwise.
C. A laboratory must monitor and document the results from analysis of internal standards.
D. Results of internal standards must be compared to the acceptance criteria as published in the approved method. When there are no established criteria, the laboratory must determine its own criteria and document the procedure used to establish the limits or utilize client-specified assessment criteria within a permit, program, or rule requirement.
Subp. 7. Detection limits.
A. A laboratory must utilize a test method that provides a detection limit that is appropriate and relevant for the intended use of the data. The detection limit, such as method detection limit (MDL), must be determined by the protocol in the approved method or applicable regulation. If the protocol for determining detection limits is not specified, the selection of the procedure must reflect instrument limitations and the intended application of the test method.
B. The commissioner shall not require a detection limit study for any component for which spiking solutions or quality control samples are not available.
C. A laboratory must initially determine the detection limit for the compounds of interest in each test method in a matrix in which there are not target analytes or interferences at a concentration that would impact the results or the laboratory must determine the detection limit in the matrix of interest.
D. A laboratory must determine the detection limits each time there is a change in the test method that may affect how the test is performed or when a change in instrumentation occurs that affects the sensitivity of the analysis.
E. A laboratory must include all sample processing steps of the analytical method in the determination of the detection limit.
F. A laboratory must document all procedures used to determine the detection limit, including the matrix type of the sample and all supporting data.
Subp. 8. Reporting limits.
A. A laboratory must document all procedures used to determine the reporting limit.
B. A laboratory must establish reporting limits for each field of testing. The reporting limits must be greater than detection limits.
C. A laboratory must verify the reporting limit each time the instrument is calibrated, or monthly at a minimum. The laboratory must analyze a verification standard with a concentration at or below the reporting limit. The percent recovery of the standard must fall within plus or minus 40 percent of the true value.
D. If the percent recovery of the reporting limit verification standard is outside the acceptance criteria, a laboratory must elevate the reporting limit for the associated samples to the concentration of the lowest point, above the zero blank, that meets the acceptance criteria defined in item C. The laboratory must report all samples analyzed after the failed reporting limit check using the elevated reporting limit until a new calibration curve and reporting limit verification standard meet the acceptance criteria.
Subp. 9. Selectivity.
A. Absolute retention time and relative retention time aid in identifying components in chromatographic analyses and evaluating the effectiveness of a chromatographic medium to separate constituents. A laboratory must develop and document acceptance criteria for retention time windows if the acceptance criteria are not specified in the approved method.
B. A confirmation must be performed to verify the compound identification when positive results are detected on drinking water. The confirmations must be performed on organic tests, such as pesticides, herbicides, or acid-extractable compounds, or when recommended by the analytical test method, except when the analysis involves the use of a mass spectrometer or Fourier transform infrared spectrometer (FTIR). All confirmations must be documented.
C. A confirmation must be performed to verify the compound identification when positive results are detected on a sample from a location that has not been previously tested. The confirmations must be performed on organic tests, such as pesticides, herbicides, or acid-extractable compounds, or when recommended by the analytical test method, except when the analysis involves the use of a mass spectrometer or Fourier transform infrared spectrometer. A confirmation is not required on positive results for samples analyzed for diesel range organics and gasoline range organics under the underground storage tank program. All confirmations must be documented.
D. A laboratory must document acceptance criteria for mass spectral tuning. The laboratory must ensure that the tuning criteria meets the specifications in the approved method or as established by the client, whichever is more stringent.
Subp. 10. Manual integrations.
If the integrations are not calculated by the equipment's software, a laboratory must document acceptable use of manual integrations and must have in place a system for review of manual integrations performed to verify adherence to the policies and procedures of the laboratory.
Subp. 11. Constant and consistent test conditions.
A. A laboratory must ensure that the test instruments consistently operate within the specifications required of the application for which the equipment is used.
B. A laboratory must ensure that glass and plastic containers are cleaned so that they meet the sensitivity of the test method. Any cleaning and storage procedures that are not specified by the test method must be documented in laboratory records and the laboratory standard operating procedures manual.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.05; 14.3895; 144.97; 144.98
- History: 31 SR 446; 44 SR 371
Minn. R. 4740.2110 Quality Control Criteria for Bacteriology
Subpart 1. Scope.
This part applies to laboratories performing tests under the bacteriological test category unless otherwise indicated. All requirements in this part must be incorporated into the laboratory's procedures unless otherwise directed by the approved method. The quality control requirements specified by the laboratory's standard operating procedures manual must be followed. All quality control measures must be assessed and evaluated on an ongoing basis and quality control acceptance criteria must be used to determine the validity of the data.
Subp. 2. Sterility checks and blanks.
A. A blank must be analyzed for each lot of preprepared, ready-to-use media, including chromofluorogenic reagent, and for each lot of media prepared in the laboratory. The analysis must be done before first use of each lot of media.
B. For filtration technique, a laboratory must conduct one beginning and one ending sterility check for each laboratory-sterilized filtration unit used in a filtration series. The filtration series may include single or multiple filtration units that have been sterilized before beginning the series. For presterilized single-use funnels purchased, a sterility check must be performed on one funnel per lot. The filtration series is considered ended when more than 30 minutes elapse between successive filtrations. During a filtration series, filter funnels must be rinsed with three 20 to 30 milliliter portions of sterile rinse water after each sample filtration. In addition, laboratories must insert a sterility blank after every ten samples per filtration unit or sanitize filtration units by ultraviolet light after each sample filtration.
C. For pour-plate technique, sterility blanks of the media must be made by pouring, at a minimum, one uninoculated plate for each lot of preprepared, ready-to-use media and one for each lot of media prepared in the laboratory.
D. Sterility checks on sample containers must be performed on at least one container for each lot of purchased, presterilized containers. For containers sterilized in the laboratory, a sterility check must be performed on one container per sterilized batch using nonselective growth media.
E. A sterility check must be performed on each batch of dilution water prepared in the laboratory and on each batch of preprepared, ready-to-use dilution water using nonselective growth media.
F. At least one filter from each new lot of membrane filters must be checked for sterility using nonselective growth media.
Subp. 3. Positive controls.
Each preprepared, ready-to-use lot of media, including chromofluorogenic reagent, and each lot of media prepared in the laboratory must be tested with at least one pure culture of a microorganism known to elicit a positive reaction. This must be done before first use of each lot of media.
Subp. 4. Negative controls.
Each preprepared, ready-to-use lot of selective media, including chromofluorogenic reagent, and each lot of selective media prepared in the laboratory must be analyzed with one or more known negative culture controls, that is, nontarget microorganisms that should not grow on the test media, as appropriate to the method. This must be done before first use of each lot of media.
Subp. 5. Test variability.
For test methods that specify colony counts, such as methods using membrane filters or plated media, duplicate counts must be performed monthly on at least one positive sample for each month that the test is performed. With respect to this test for variability, if the laboratory has two or more analysts, each analyst must count typical colonies on the same plate and counts must be within ten percent difference between analysts to be acceptable. In a laboratory with only one microbiology analyst, the same plate must be counted twice by the analyst, with no more than five percent difference between the counts.
Subp. 6. Method evaluation.
A laboratory must demonstrate proficiency with the test method before first use, by comparison to a method already approved for use in the laboratory, by analyzing a minimum of ten spiked samples whose matrix is representative of those normally submitted to the laboratory, or by analyzing and passing one proficiency test series provided by an approved proficiency sample provider. The laboratory must maintain documentation of the proficiency demonstration as long as the method is in use and for at least five years after the date of last use.
Subp. 7. Test performance.
To ensure that analytical results are accurate, a laboratory must confirm a target organism specified in the method.
Subp. 8. Quality of standards, reagents, and media.
A. Culture media may be prepared from commercial dehydrated powders or may be purchased ready to use, unless otherwise indicated in the approved method. Media may be prepared by the laboratory from basic ingredients when commercial media are not available or when it can be demonstrated that commercial media do not provide adequate results. Media prepared by the laboratory from basic ingredients must be tested for performance, such as for selectivity, sensitivity, sterility, growth promotion, and growth inhibition, before first use. Detailed testing criteria information must be defined in the laboratory's standard operating procedures manual or quality assurance manual.
B. Reagents, commercial dehydrated powders, and media must be used within the shelf life of the product. The specifications of the reagent, powder, or media must be documented according to the laboratory's quality assurance manual.
C. Distilled water, deionized water, or reverse-osmosis produced water that is free from bactericidal and inhibitory substances must be used in the preparation of media, solutions, and buffers. The quality of the water must be monitored for chlorine residual, specific conductance, and heterotrophic bacteria plate count monthly, when in use; when maintenance is performed on the water treatment system; or at startup after a period of disuse longer than one month. Analysis for metals and the bacteriological water quality test, to determine the presence of toxic agents or growth promoting substances, must be performed annually. Results of these analyses must meet the specifications of the required method and records of analyses must be maintained for five years. Laboratories that can supply documentation to show that their water source meets the criteria, as specified by the method, for ASTM or NCCL Type I or Type II reagent water and is free of bacteria that can grow under these test conditions are exempt from performing the bacteriological water quality test.
D. Media, solutions, and reagents must be prepared, used, and stored according to a documented procedure following the manufacturer's instructions or the test method. Documentation for media prepared in the laboratory must include the date of preparation, preparer's initials, type and amount of media prepared, manufacturer and lot number, final pH of the media, and expiration date.
E. Documentation for media purchased preprepared and ready-to-use must include the manufacturer, lot number, type and amount of media received, date of receipt, expiration date of the media, and the verification pH of the liquid.
Subp. 9. Selectivity.
A. To ensure identity and traceability, reference cultures used for positive and negative controls must be obtained from a recognized national collection or organization.
B. Microorganisms may be single-use preparations or cultures maintained by documented procedures that demonstrate the continued purity and viability of the organism.
C. Reference cultures may be revived, if freeze-dried, or transferred from slants and subcultured once to provide reference stocks. The reference stocks must be preserved by a technique that maintains the characteristics of the strains. Reference stocks must be used to prepare working stocks for routine work. If reference stocks have been thawed, they must not be refrozen and reused.
D. Working stocks must not be cultured sequentially more than five times and must not be subcultured to replace reference stocks.
Subp. 10. Temperature measuring devices.
Temperature measuring devices such as liquid-in-glass thermometers, thermocouples, and platinum resistance thermometers used in incubators, autoclaves, and other equipment must be of the appropriate quality to meet specifications in the test method. The gradation of the temperature measuring devices must be appropriate for the required accuracy of measurement and the devices must be calibrated to national or international standards for temperature. All measurements must be recorded.
Subp. 11. Autoclaves.
A. The performance of each autoclave must be evaluated initially by establishing its functional properties and performance, for example heat distribution characteristics with respect to typical uses. Autoclaves must meet specified temperature tolerances. Pressure cookers must not be used for sterilization of growth media.
B. Demonstration of sterilization temperature must be provided by use of a continuous temperature recording device or by use of a maximum registering thermometer with every cycle. Appropriate biological indicators must be used once per month to determine effective sterilization. Temperature-sensitive tape must be used with the contents of each autoclave run to indicate that the autoclave contents have been processed.
C. Records of autoclave operations must be maintained for every cycle. Records must include: date, contents, maximum temperature reached, pressure, time in sterilization mode, total run time, which may be recorded as time in and time out, and operator's initials.
D. Autoclave maintenance, either internally or by service contract, must be performed annually and must include a pressure check and calibration of the temperature device. Records of the maintenance must be maintained in equipment logs.
E. The autoclave's mechanical timing device must be checked quarterly against a stopwatch and the actual time elapsed must be documented.
Subp. 12. Ultraviolet instruments.
Ultraviolet (UV) instruments used for sanitization must be tested quarterly for effectiveness with an appropriate UV light meter or by plate counts on agar spread plates. Bulbs must be replaced if output is less than 70 percent of original for light tests or if count reduction is less than 99 percent for a plate containing 200 to 300 organisms.
Subp. 13. Incubators, water baths, ovens.
A. The stability and uniformity of temperature distribution and the time required after test sample addition to reestablish equilibrium conditions in incubators and water baths must be documented. Temperature of incubators and water baths must be documented twice daily, at least four hours apart, on each day of use.
B. Ovens used for sterilization must be checked for sterilization effectiveness monthly with appropriate biological indicators. Records must be maintained for each cycle that include the date, cycle time, temperature, contents, and analyst's initials.
Subp. 14. Procedure for washing labware.
A. A laboratory must have a documented procedure for washing labware, if applicable. Detergents designed for laboratory use must be used.
B. Glassware must be made of borosilicate or other noncorrosive material, free of chips and cracks, and have readable measurement marks.
C. Labware that is washed and reused must be tested for possible presence of residues that may inhibit or promote growth of microorganisms by performing the inhibitory residue test annually and each time the laboratory changes the lot of detergent or washing procedures.
D. Washed labware must be tested at least once daily, each day of washing, for possible acid or alkaline residue by testing at least one piece of labware with a suitable pH indicator such as bromothymol blue. Records of tests must be maintained.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.97; 144.98
- History: 31 SR 446
Minn. R. 4740.2120 Quality Control Criteria for Radiochemistry
Subpart 1. Scope.
This part applies to laboratories performing radiochemistry testing on environmental samples. All requirements in this part must be incorporated into the laboratory's standard operating procedures unless otherwise directed by the approved method. The quality control requirements specified by the laboratory's standard operating procedures manual must be followed. All quality control measures must be assessed and evaluated on an ongoing basis and quality control acceptance criteria must be used to determine the validity of the data.
Subp. 2. Method blanks.
A. A laboratory must analyze at least one method blank per batch. The method blank result must be evaluated according to the acceptance criteria in the laboratory's standard operating procedures manual.
B. When the method blank acceptance criteria are not met, a laboratory must take corrective action. The occurrence of a failed method blank and the actions taken must be noted in the laboratory report.
C. In the case of gamma spectrometry where the sample matrix is simply aliquoted into a calibrated counting geometry, the method blank must be of similar counting geometry that is empty or filled to similar volume with ASTM Type II water to partially simulate gamma attenuation due to the sample matrix.
D. A laboratory must not subtract results of method blank analysis from the sample results in the associated batch unless permitted by the approved method. This does not preclude the application of any correction factor, such as instrument background, analyte presence in tracer, reagent impurities, peak overlap, or calibration blank, to all analyzed samples, both program- or project-submitted and internal quality control samples. However, the correction factors must not depend on the required method blank result in the associated analytical batch.
E. The method blank sample must be prepared with similar aliquot size to that of the routine samples for analysis whenever possible.
Subp. 3. Laboratory control sample.
A. Laboratory control samples must be performed at a frequency of one per batch. The results of the analysis must be one of the quality control measures to be used to assess the batch. The laboratory control sample result must be assessed against the specific acceptance criteria specified in the laboratory standard operating procedures manual. When the specified laboratory control sample acceptance criteria are not met, the specified corrective action and contingencies must be followed. The occurrence of a failed laboratory control sample acceptance criterion and the actions taken must be noted in the laboratory report.
B. The activity of the laboratory control sample must:
C. The laboratory standards used to prepare the laboratory control sample must be from a source independent of the laboratory standards used for instrument calibration, if available.
D. The matrix spike must be prepared by adding a known activity of target analyte. When a radiochemical method, other than gamma spectroscopy, has more than one reportable analyte isotope, such as plutonium, Pu 238 and Pu 239, using alpha spectrometry, only one of the analyte isotopes need be included in the laboratory control sample. When more than one analyte isotope is added to the laboratory control sample, each isotope must be assessed against the specified acceptance criteria.
Subp. 4. Matrix spikes.
A. Matrix spikes must be performed at a frequency of one per batch for those methods that do not utilize an internal standard or carrier for which there is a chemical separation process and when there is sufficient sample to do so. The exceptions are gross alpha, gross beta, and tritium, which require matrix spikes for aqueous samples. The results of the analysis must be one of the quality control measures to be used to assess the sample results acceptance. The matrix spike result must be assessed against the specific acceptance criteria specified in the laboratory standard operating procedures manual. When the specified matrix spike acceptance criterion is not met, the corrective actions specified in the laboratory's standard operating procedures must be followed. The occurrence of a failed matrix spike acceptance criterion and the actions taken must be noted in the laboratory report. The lack of sufficient sample aliquot size to perform a matrix spike must be noted in the laboratory report.
B. The activity of the analytes in the matrix spike must be greater than ten times the detection limit.
C. The laboratory standards used to prepare the matrix spike must be from a source independent of the laboratory standards used for instrument calibration, if available.
D. The matrix spike must be prepared by adding a known activity of target analyte. When a radiochemical method, other than gamma spectroscopy, has more than one reportable analyte isotope, such as plutonium, Pu 238 and Pu 239, using alpha spectrometry, only one of the analyte isotopes need be included in the matrix spike sample. When more than one analyte isotope is added to the matrix spike, each isotope must be assessed against the specified acceptance criteria.
E. When gamma spectrometry is used to identify and quantitate more than one analyte isotope, the laboratory control sample and matrix spike must contain isotopes that represent the low (americium-241), medium (cesium-137), and high (cobalt-60) energy range of the analyzed gamma spectra. As indicated by these examples, the isotopes need not exactly bracket the calibrated energy range or the range over which isotopes are identified and quantitated.
F. The matrix spike sample must be prepared with similar aliquot size to that of the routine samples of analyses.
Subp. 5. Tracer.
For those approved methods that allow or require the use of a tracer, that is, internal standard, each sample result must have an associated tracer recovery calculated and reported. The tracer recovery for each sample result must be one of the quality control measures used to assess the associated sample result acceptance. The tracer recovery must be assessed against the specific acceptance criteria specified in the laboratory standard operating procedures manual. When the specified tracer recovery acceptance criteria are not met, corrective actions specified in the laboratory's standard operating procedures must be followed. The occurrence of a failed tracer recovery and the corrective actions taken must be noted in the laboratory report.
Subp. 6. Carrier.
For those approved methods that allow or require the use of a carrier, each sample must have an associated carrier recovery calculated and reported. The carrier recovery for each sample must be one of the quality control measures used to assess the associated sample result acceptance. The carrier recovery must be assessed against the specific acceptance criteria specified in the laboratory standard operating procedures manual. When the specified carrier recovery acceptance criteria are not met, the corrective actions specified in the laboratory's quality assurance manual must be followed. The occurrence of failed carrier recovery acceptance criteria and the actions taken must be noted in the laboratory report.
Subp. 7. Analytical variability; reproducibility for radiochemistry testing.
A. A laboratory must analyze replicate samples at least once per batch when there is sufficient sample to do so. The results of the analysis must be one of the quality control measures used to assess sample results acceptance. The replicate result must be assessed against the specific acceptance criteria specified in the laboratory's standard operating procedures manual.
B. When the specified replicate acceptance criteria are not met, the corrective actions specified in the laboratory's standard operating procedures manual must be followed. The occurrence of failed replicate acceptance criteria and the actions taken must be noted in the laboratory test results.
C. If sample concentrations are expected to contain analytes of interest below three times the detection limit, a laboratory may substitute replicate laboratory control samples or replicate matrix spiked samples for replicate samples in item A. The replicate result must be assessed against the specific acceptance criteria specified in the laboratory's standard operating procedures manual. When the specified replicate acceptance criteria are not met, the corrective actions specified in the laboratory's standard operating procedures manual must be followed. The occurrence of failed replicate acceptance criteria and the actions taken must be noted in the laboratory test results.
Subp. 8. Instrument calibration.
A. Radiochemistry analytical instruments must be calibrated prior to first use in sample analysis.
B. Calibration must be verified when:
C. The standards used for calibration must have the same general characteristics, that is, geometry, homogeneity, and density, as the associated samples.
D. The calibration must be described in the laboratory's standard operating procedures manual.
Subp. 9. Continuing calibration verification.
A. Calibration verification checks must be performed using appropriate check standards and monitored with control charts or tolerance charts to ensure that the instrument is operating properly and that the calibration has not changed.
B. The same check standards used in the preparation of the tolerance chart or control chart at the time of calibration must be used in the calibration verification of the instrument.
C. The check standards must provide adequate counting statistics for a relatively short count time. The sources must be sealed or encapsulated to prevent leakage and contamination of the instrument and laboratory personnel.
D. For alpha and gamma spectroscopy systems, the instrument calibration verification must include checks on the counting efficiency and the relationship between channel number and alpha or gamma ray energy.
E. For gamma spectroscopy systems, the calibration verification checks for efficiency and energy must be performed at least weekly along with performance checks on peak resolution.
F. For alpha spectroscopy systems, the calibration verification check for energy must be performed at least weekly and the performance check for counting efficiency must be performed at least monthly for each day the instrument is used for sample analysis.
G. For gas-proportional and scintillation counters, the calibration verification check for counting efficiency must be performed each day of use.
Subp. 10. Background radiation measurement.
A. Background radiation measurements must be made on a regular basis and monitored using control charts or tolerance charts to ensure that a laboratory maintains its capability to meet required data quality objectives.
B. Background radiation measurement values must be subtracted from the total measured activity in the determination of the sample activity.
C. For gamma spectroscopy systems, background radiation measurements must be performed at least monthly.
D. For alpha spectroscopy systems, background radiation measurements must be performed at least monthly.
E. For gas-proportional counters, background radiation measurements must be performed at least weekly.
F. For scintillation counters, background radiation measurements must be performed each day of use.
Subp. 11. Instrument contamination monitoring.
A laboratory must have a written procedure for monitoring radiation measurement instrumentation for radioactive contamination. The procedure must indicate the frequency of the monitoring and must indicate criteria that initiate corrective action.
Subp. 12. Detection limits.
A. Detection limits must be determined before sample analysis and must be redetermined each time there is a significant change in the test method or instrument type.
B. The procedures employed must be documented and consistent with published references.
Subp. 13. Quality of standards and reagents.
A. The quality assurance manual must describe the procurement, use, and storage of radioisotope standards.
B. Reference standards that are used in a radiochemical laboratory must be obtained from the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), EPA, suppliers of NIST standards or NIST traceable radioisotopes, or suppliers located outside of the United States. Reference standards must be traceable back to the appropriate country's national standards laboratory.
C. Reference standards must be accompanied with a certificate of calibration that describes traceability to NIST or another country's national standards laboratory, when appropriate.
D. Laboratories must consult with the supplier if the laboratory's assessment of the activity of the reference traceable standard indicates a noticeable deviation from the certified value. The laboratory must not use a value other than the decay-corrected certified value.
E. All reagents used must be analytical reagent grade or better.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.97; 144.98
- History: 31 SR 446
Chapter 4745 HEARING INSTRUMENT DISPENSER REGISTRATION
Minn. R. 4745.0010 [Repealed, L 1995 c 164 s 35]
[Repealed, L 1995 c 164 s 35]
Minn. R. 4745.0020 [Repealed, L 1995 c 164 s 35]
[Repealed, L 1995 c 164 s 35]
Minn. R. 4745.0025 [Repealed, L 1995 c 164 s 35]
[Repealed, L 1995 c 164 s 35]
Minn. R. 4745.0030 [Repealed, L 1995 c 164 s 35]
[Repealed, L 1995 c 164 s 35]
Minn. R. 4745.0035 [Repealed, L 1995 c 164 s 35]
[Repealed, L 1995 c 164 s 35]
Minn. R. 4745.0040 [Repealed, L 1995 c 164 s 35]
[Repealed, L 1995 c 164 s 35]
Minn. R. 4745.0045 [Repealed, L 1995 c 164 s 35]
[Repealed, L 1995 c 164 s 35]
Minn. R. 4745.0050 [Repealed, L 1995 c 164 s 35]
[Repealed, L 1995 c 164 s 35]
Minn. R. 4745.0055 [Repealed, L 1995 c 164 s 35]
[Repealed, L 1995 c 164 s 35]
Minn. R. 4745.0060 [Repealed, L 1995 c 164 s 35]
[Repealed, L 1995 c 164 s 35]
Chapter 4750 SPEECH-LANGUAGE PROFESSIONALS REGISTRATION
Minn. R. 4750.0010 [Repealed, L 1996 c 363 s 16]
[Repealed, L 1996 c 363 s 16]
Minn. R. 4750.0020 [Repealed, L 1996 c 363 s 16]
[Repealed, L 1996 c 363 s 16]
Minn. R. 4750.0030 [Repealed, L 1996 c 363 s 16]
[Repealed, L 1996 c 363 s 16]
Minn. R. 4750.0040 [Repealed, L 1996 c 363 s 16]
[Repealed, L 1996 c 363 s 16]
Minn. R. 4750.0050 [Repealed, L 1996 c 363 s 16]
[Repealed, L 1996 c 363 s 16]
Minn. R. 4750.0060 [Repealed, L 1996 c 363 s 16]
[Repealed, L 1996 c 363 s 16]
Minn. R. 4750.0070 [Repealed, L 1996 c 363 s 16]
[Repealed, L 1996 c 363 s 16]
Minn. R. 4750.0080 [Repealed, L 1996 c 363 s 16]
[Repealed, L 1996 c 363 s 16]
Minn. R. 4750.0090 [Repealed, L 1996 c 363 s 16]
[Repealed, L 1996 c 363 s 16]
Minn. R. 4750.0100 [Repealed, L 1996 c 363 s 16]
[Repealed, L 1996 c 363 s 16]
Minn. R. 4750.0200 [Repealed, L 1996 c 363 s 16]
[Repealed, L 1996 c 363 s 16]
Minn. R. 4750.0300 [Repealed, L 1996 c 363 s 16]
[Repealed, L 1996 c 363 s 16]
Minn. R. 4750.0400 [Repealed, L 1996 c 363 s 16]
[Repealed, L 1996 c 363 s 16]
Minn. R. 4750.0500 [Repealed, L 1996 c 363 s 16]
[Repealed, L 1996 c 363 s 16]
Minn. R. 4750.0600 [Repealed, L 1996 c 363 s 16]
[Repealed, L 1996 c 363 s 16]
Minn. R. 4750.0700 [Repealed, L 1996 c 363 s 16]
[Repealed, L 1996 c 363 s 16]
Chapter 4761 RESIDENTIAL LEAD ABATEMENT
Minn. R. 4761.0100 [Repealed, 23 SR 1591]
[Repealed, 23 SR 1591]
Minn. R. 4761.0200 [Repealed, 23 SR 1591]
[Repealed, 23 SR 1591]
Minn. R. 4761.0300 [Repealed, 23 SR 1591]
[Repealed, 23 SR 1591]
Minn. R. 4761.0400 [Repealed, 23 SR 1591]
[Repealed, 23 SR 1591]
Minn. R. 4761.0500 [Repealed, 23 SR 1591]
[Repealed, 23 SR 1591]
Minn. R. 4761.0600 [Repealed, 23 SR 1591]
[Repealed, 23 SR 1591]
Minn. R. 4761.0700 [Repealed, 23 SR 1591]
[Repealed, 23 SR 1591]
Minn. R. 4761.0710 [Repealed, 23 SR 1591]
[Repealed, 23 SR 1591]
Minn. R. 4761.0720 [Repealed, 23 SR 1591]
[Repealed, 23 SR 1591]
Minn. R. 4761.0730 [Repealed, 23 SR 1591]
[Repealed, 23 SR 1591]
Minn. R. 4761.0740 [Repealed, 23 SR 1591]
[Repealed, 23 SR 1591]
Minn. R. 4761.0750 [Repealed, 23 SR 1591]
[Repealed, 23 SR 1591]
Minn. R. 4761.0760 [Repealed, 23 SR 1591]
[Repealed, 23 SR 1591]
Minn. R. 4761.0780 [Repealed, 23 SR 1591]
[Repealed, 23 SR 1591]
Minn. R. 4761.0790 [Repealed, 23 SR 1591]
[Repealed, 23 SR 1591]
Minn. R. 4761.0795 [Repealed, 23 SR 1591]
[Repealed, 23 SR 1591]
Minn. R. 4761.0800 [Repealed, 23 SR 1591]
[Repealed, 23 SR 1591]
Minn. R. 4761.1000 [Repealed, 29 SR 531]
[Repealed, 29 SR 531]
Minn. R. 4761.1010 [Repealed, 29 SR 531]
[Repealed, 29 SR 531]
Minn. R. 4761.1020 [Repealed, 29 SR 531]
[Repealed, 29 SR 531]
Minn. R. 4761.1030 MR 1999 [Expired, 23 SR 1591]
MR 1999 [Expired, 23 SR 1591]
Minn. R. 4761.1040 [Repealed, 29 SR 531]
[Repealed, 29 SR 531]
Minn. R. 4761.1050 [Repealed, 29 SR 531]
[Repealed, 29 SR 531]
Minn. R. 4761.1060 [Repealed, 29 SR 531]
[Repealed, 29 SR 531]
Minn. R. 4761.1070 [Repealed, 29 SR 531]
[Repealed, 29 SR 531]
Minn. R. 4761.1080 [Repealed, 29 SR 531]
[Repealed, 29 SR 531]
Minn. R. 4761.1090 [Repealed, 29 SR 531]
[Repealed, 29 SR 531]
Minn. R. 4761.1100 [Repealed, 29 SR 531]
[Repealed, 29 SR 531]
Minn. R. 4761.1110 [Repealed, 29 SR 531]
[Repealed, 29 SR 531]
Minn. R. 4761.1120 [Repealed, 29 SR 531]
[Repealed, 29 SR 531]
Minn. R. 4761.1130 [Repealed, 29 SR 531]
[Repealed, 29 SR 531]
Minn. R. 4761.1140 [Repealed, 29 SR 531]
[Repealed, 29 SR 531]
Minn. R. 4761.1150 [Repealed, 29 SR 531]
[Repealed, 29 SR 531]
Minn. R. 4761.1160 [Repealed, 29 SR 531]
[Repealed, 29 SR 531]
Minn. R. 4761.1170 [Repealed, 29 SR 531]
[Repealed, 29 SR 531]
Minn. R. 4761.1180 [Repealed, 29 SR 531]
[Repealed, 29 SR 531]
Minn. R. 4761.1190 [Repealed, 29 SR 531]
[Repealed, 29 SR 531]
Minn. R. 4761.1200 [Repealed, 29 SR 531]
[Repealed, 29 SR 531]
Minn. R. 4761.1210 [Repealed, 29 SR 531]
[Repealed, 29 SR 531]
Minn. R. 4761.1220 [Repealed, 29 SR 531]
[Repealed, 29 SR 531]
Minn. R. 4761.1230 [Repealed, 28 SR 1249; 29 SR 531]
[Repealed, 28 SR 1249; 29 SR 531]
Minn. R. 4761.2000 Definitions
Subpart 1. Scope.
The terms used in parts 4761.2000 to 4761.2700 have the meanings given them in this part and in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.9501.
Subp. 2. Abatement.
"Abatement" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.9501, subdivision 3.
Subp. 3. Abrasive blasting.
"Abrasive blasting" has the meaning given in part 7025.0020, subpart 2.
Subp. 4. Affected property.
"Affected property" means a:
A. residence;
B. school;
C. child-occupied facility; or
D. play area as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.9501, subdivision 25a.
Subp. 5. Assessing agency.
"Assessing agency" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.9501, subdivision 4a.
Subp. 6. Building component.
"Building component" means a specific design or structural element or fixture of a building that is distinguished from other elements or fixtures by form, function, and location, including, but not limited to, a bedroom wall, an exterior window sill, a baseboard in a living room, a kitchen floor, an interior bathroom window sill, a porch floor, stair treads on a stairwell, or an exterior wall.
Subp. 7. Certified lead firm.
"Certified lead firm" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.9501, subdivision 6d.
Subp. 8. Child.
"Child" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.9501, subdivision 6a.
Subp. 9. Child-occupied facility.
"Child-occupied facility" means a building, or portion of a building, that is visited by the same child for at least two days a week for at least three hours each day and:
A. the combined weekly visits last at least six hours; and
B. the combined annual visits last at least 60 hours. Child-occupied facility includes the indoor and outdoor spaces that are used to provide a child care program, as defined in part 9503.0005, subpart 7; exterior structures; and ground surfaces.
Subp. 10. Clearance inspection.
"Clearance inspection" means a visual identification of deteriorated paint and bare soil and the sampling and analyses of interior dust and exterior soil lead concentrations in an affected property to ensure that the lead standards under part 4761.2510, subparts 2 and 3, are not exceeded.
Subp. 11. Common area.
"Common area" means a portion of a building that is generally accessible to all residential occupants, including, but not limited to, a hallway, stairway, laundry or recreational room, play area, community center, on-site day care facility, garage, or boundary fence.
Subp. 12. Composite sample.
"Composite sample" means collection of more than one sample of the same medium, such as dust, soil, or paint, from the same type of surface, such as a floor, interior window sill, or window trough. A composite sample allows multiple samples to be analyzed as a single sample.
Subp. 13. Containment.
"Containment" means the area that is prepared according to part 4761.2645, subparts 3 and 4, to isolate the area where lead hazard reduction activities will occur.
Subp. 14. Deteriorated paint.
"Deteriorated paint" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.9501, subdivision 8.
Subp. 15. Documented methodologies.
"Documented methodologies" means the following written protocols, standards, or methods that are generally used and accepted for conducting regulated lead work:
A. Soil Testing and Research Analytical Laboratories, Department of Soil Science, Agricultural Experiment Station, University of Minnesota, Determination of Lead in Soil (July 1990);
B. American Society for Testing and Materials, Standard Practice for Field Collection of Settled Dust Samples Using Wipe Sampling Methods for Lead Determination by Atomic Spectrometry Techniques (E 1728-99) (March 2000);
C. American Society for Testing and Materials, Standard Specification for Wipe Sampling Materials for Lead in Surface Dust (E 1792-01) (March 2002);
D. American Society for Testing and Materials, Standard Practice for Collection of Floor Dust for Chemical Analysis (D 5438-00) (June 2000);
E. American Society for Testing and Materials, Standard Specification for Non-Reinforced Liquid Coating Encapsulation Products for Leaded Paint in Buildings (E 1795-00) (August 2000);
F. American Society for Testing and Materials, Standard Specification for Reinforced Liquid Coating Encapsulation Products for Leaded Paint in Buildings (E 1797-00) (August 2000);
G. American Society for Testing and Materials, Standard Guide for Selection and Use of Liquid Coating Encapsulation Products for Leaded Paint in Buildings (E 1796-97) (May 1998);
H. United States Department of Housing and Urban Development, Guidelines for the Evaluation and Control of Lead-Based Paint Hazards in Housing (June 1995), including the 1997 edition of Chapter 7. The guidelines are available on the Internet at: www.hud.gov/offices/lead/guidelines/hudguidelines/index.cfm;
I. Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, section 141.86, paragraph (b), clause (2), for water sampling methodology to determine lead content;
J. United States Environmental Protection Agency, Residential Sampling for Lead: Protocols for Dust and Soil Sampling (EPA 747-R-95-001) (March 1995); and
K. any other protocol or method referenced in the EPA regulation for lead-based paint activities, Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, section 745.227, paragraph (a), or any future documented protocol or method adopted or accepted by the EPA. The publications listed in items A to J are incorporated by reference. The publications are not subject to frequent change and, unless otherwise noted, are available through the Minitex interlibrary loan system.
Subp. 16. Dry sanding.
"Dry sanding" means sanding without moisture and includes both hand and machine sanding.
Subp. 17. Dry scraping.
"Dry scraping" means scraping without moisture and includes both hand and machine scraping.
Subp. 18. Dust sampling.
"Dust sampling" means collecting dust samples, either from single surfaces or as a composite sample, according to documented methodologies.
Subp. 19. Emergency project.
"Emergency project" means a project that is not planned but results from a sudden, unexpected event the consequences of which, if not immediately attended to, present a safety or public health hazard or would damage a building or building components. Emergency project includes work required by nonroutine failures of equipment.
Subp. 20. Encapsulation.
"Encapsulation" means application of a covering or coating that acts as a barrier between the lead-based painted surface and the environment.
Subp. 21. Enclosure.
"Enclosure" means the use of rigid, durable construction materials that are mechanically fastened to the substrate to act as a barrier between the lead-based painted surface and the environment and to prevent the escape of lead dust and debris to the environment.
Subp. 22. EPA.
"EPA" means the United States Environmental Protection Agency.
Subp. 23. Expected to reside.
"Expected to reside" means there is actual knowledge of an intention that a child will reside in a residence. If a female resident is known to be pregnant, there is actual knowledge that a child will reside in the residence.
Subp. 24. Ground surface.
"Ground surface" means any horizontal surface at or near ground level, including, but not limited to, bare soil, grass, sidewalks, and driveways.
Subp. 25. High-efficiency particulate air filter or HEPA filter.
"High-efficiency particulate air filter" or "HEPA filter" means a filter capable of trapping and retaining at least 99.97 percent of all monodispersed particles 0.3 microns in diameter or larger.
Subp. 26. Housing for the elderly.
"Housing for the elderly" means retirement communities or similar types of housing reserved for households composed of one or more persons 62 years of age or older or another age if recognized as elderly by a specific federal housing assistance program.
Subp. 27. HUD.
"HUD" means the United States Department of Housing and Urban Development.
Subp. 28. Lead-based or lead-contaminated.
"Lead-based" or "lead-contaminated" means containing lead at or in excess of the lead levels under part 4761.2510, subparts 1, 2, 3, and 4.
Subp. 29. Lead hazard reduction.
"Lead hazard reduction" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.9501, subdivision 17.
Subp. 30. Modified-wet abrasive blasting.
"Modified-wet abrasive blasting" has the meaning given in part 7025.0020, subpart 8.
Subp. 31. Occupant.
"Occupant" means a person who lives or resides in a residence.
Subp. 32. Paint.
"Paint" means any coating applied to cover a surface. Surface coatings include, but are not limited to, latex and oil-based paints, varnishes, and sealants.
Subp. 33. Person.
"Person" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 326.71, subdivision 8.
Subp. 34. Project.
"Project" means the area preparation, paint stabilization, enclosure, replacement, removal, or encapsulation operations and clearance inspection, which includes dust and soil sampling, for lead hazard reduction in a quantity that exceeds 20 square feet on exterior surfaces, two square feet in an interior room, or ten percent of the total surface area on an interior or exterior type of component with a small surface area. Project includes paint stabilization, enclosure, replacement, removal, or encapsulation operations when work is subdivided into quantities less than those specified in this subpart, if the total area affected by the lead hazard reduction exceeds the specified quantities.
Subp. 35. Regulated lead work.
"Regulated lead work" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.9501, subdivision 26a.
Subp. 36. Residence.
"Residence" means:
A. a building used or intended for use as single-family habitation, including attached structures such as porches and stoops. Residence includes ground surfaces and all other structures located within the same lot; or
B. a dwelling unit within a building used or intended for use as multifamily habitation, including common areas located within the same building, exterior structures, and ground surfaces. Residence does not include other dwelling units within the same building.
Subp. 37. School.
"School" means an elementary school, as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 120A.05, subdivision 9, or a nonpublic school, as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 123B.41, subdivision 9, that ordinarily enrolls pupils in prekindergarten through grade 6, or any portion thereof. School includes the exterior structures and ground surfaces.
Subp. 38. Substrate.
"Substrate" means the building material directly beneath the painted surface out of which the building components are constructed, including, but not limited to, wood, drywall, plaster, concrete, brick, or metal.
Subp. 39. Vacuum blasting.
"Vacuum blasting" has the meaning given in part 7025.0020, subpart 14.
Subp. 40. Water blasting.
"Water blasting" means using pressurized water to remove a surface coating.
Subp. 41. Wet wipe.
"Wet wipe" means to clean surfaces within a work area by first wiping with detergent water and then with clean rinse water.
Subp. 42. Window sill.
"Window sill" means the interior horizontal ledge at the base of a window opening.
Subp. 43. Window trough.
"Window trough" means the horizontal surface on which the sash of a window sits when the window is closed.
Subp. 44. Work area.
"Work area" means an area established by the person performing lead hazard reduction that is restricted, by barrier tapes, fences, doors, or walls of plastic sheeting, to anyone who is not directly involved in the lead hazard reduction. There may be more than one work area in an affected property.
Subp. 45. X-ray fluorescence analyzer.
"X-ray fluorescence analyzer" means a device that uses gamma ray-induced fluorescence of lead atoms to measure a material's lead content.
Subp. 46. Zero-bedroom residence.
"Zero-bedroom residence" means a residential dwelling unit in which the living area is not separated from the sleeping area. Zero-bedroom residence includes efficiencies, studio apartments, dormitory housing, military barracks, and rental of individual rooms in a residential dwelling.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.9508
- History: 29 SR 531
Minn. R. 4761.2100 Applicability
Subpart 1. Persons affected.
Parts 4761.2000 to 4761.2700 apply to persons, including assessing agencies, that do regulated lead work in or for an affected property.
Subp. 2. Exceptions.
Parts 4761.2000 to 4761.2700 do not apply to:
A. work that is performed for any purpose other than the express purpose of regulated lead work as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.9501, subdivision 26a;
B. an emergency shelter home or emergency shelter service;
C. housing for the elderly or persons with disabilities unless at least one child resides or is expected to reside in the residence;
D. a zero-bedroom residence, unless occupied by a child with an elevated blood lead level for which a lead risk assessment is required;
E. a foster home occupied by a child for 90 days or less if an individual who is related, as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 245A.02, subdivision 13, provides the foster care;
F. a foster home occupied by a child for 30 days or less if the foster care is not provided by an individual who is related, as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 245A.02, subdivision 13;
G. a structure that is totally vacated within 30 days of the issuance of lead orders and that remains unoccupied until the structure is totally demolished. Demolition must be completed within two years of the date of the order; or
H. chemical testing with a kit for the on-site, qualitative detection of lead.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.9508
- History: 29 SR 531
Minn. R. 4761.2200 Certified Lead Firms
Subpart 1. General requirements.
A. A person who employs individuals to perform regulated lead work outside of the person's property must obtain certification as a lead firm according to Minnesota Statutes, section 144.9505, subdivisions 1 and 1g.
B. Persons exempt from certification, as specified in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.9505, subdivision 1, paragraph (d), must comply with parts 4761.2000 to 4761.2700.
C. A firm that is certified under this part and employs a subcontractor to perform regulated lead work must ensure that the subcontractor is licensed, certified, or registered under this chapter.
Subp. 2. Application.
An applicant for certification as a lead firm must submit to the commissioner:
A. a completed application on a form provided by the commissioner;
B. evidence of workers' compensation insurance as required by Minnesota Statutes, section 176.182, unless the applicant is not liable to pay workers' compensation under Minnesota Statutes, chapter 176. If the applicant is not liable to pay workers' compensation under Minnesota Statutes, chapter 176, the applicant must submit a letter to the commissioner, signed and dated, stating why the applicant is not liable. The Department of Health must be listed on the certificate of workers' compensation insurance as a certificate holder; and
C. a $100 nonrefundable fee payable to the Minnesota Department of Health.
Subp. 3. Expiration.
A certificate issued under this part is valid for 12 months. A lead firm's certificate must be current for the firm to continue conducting regulated lead work.
Subp. 4. Renewal.
A certified lead firm must renew its certification annually. Certification may be renewed by submitting the information required under subpart 2.
Subp. 5. Denial; conditions.
The commissioner shall deny an application for certification if the applicant fails to comply with all applicable requirements in this part. The commissioner may also deny an application or set conditions on a certification according to Minnesota Statutes, section 144.99, subdivision 8. If a certification application is denied, the applicant:
A. must be notified in writing of the denied certification application and the reasons for the denial; and
B. is not required to pay a second fee if the applicant submits a second application according to subpart 2 within 30 days of receiving the notice that the application was denied. Fees are required for all subsequent applications.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.9508
- History: 29 SR 531
Minn. R. 4761.2220 Qualified Individuals; Required Methods and Supervision
A. Individuals exempt from licensing requirements as provided under Minnesota Statutes, section 144.9505, subdivision 1, paragraph (d), must complete lead hazard awareness and lead safe work practices training. Otherwise, only individuals who are licensed, registered, or trained according to this chapter may perform regulated lead work.
B. Individuals who are exempt from the licensing requirements are not exempt from parts 4761.2580 to 4761.2680 and must perform lead hazard reduction according to the methods in parts 4761.2620 to 4761.2670.
C. An individual licensed as a lead worker or lead supervisor may perform all types of lead hazard reduction.
D. To conduct regulated lead work, a certified lead firm must employ:
E. A person that is licensed or registered under this chapter and employs a subcontractor to perform regulated lead work must ensure that the subcontractor is licensed, certified, or registered.
F. A licensed individual or certified lead firm must ensure that current lead licenses, registrations, or training diplomas are readily available at the work site for review by the commissioner's representative and the assessing agency with jurisdiction over the work site. Lead training course diplomas may be used in lieu of lead licenses only as provided in parts 4761.2240, subpart 5, item B; 4761.2260, subpart 6, item B; 4761.2280, subpart 5, item B; 4761.2300, subpart 6, item B; and 4761.2320, subpart 6, item B, for individuals engaged in regulated lead work.
G. A lead supervisor must be assigned to each lead hazard reduction project and must be present during work area preparation and final cleanup. At least one lead worker at the site must be able to immediately contact the lead supervisor. The lead supervisor must be present at the work site within two hours after being contacted.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.9508
- History: 29 SR 531
Minn. R. 4761.2240 Lead Worker License
Subpart 1. General requirements.
A. An individual who performs lead hazard reduction must be licensed as a lead worker under this part, unless the individual is licensed as a lead supervisor.
B. A lead worker must perform regulated lead work under the supervision of a lead supervisor.
C. A lead worker license is not transferable.
Subp. 2. Training requirements; initial license.
To be eligible for an initial license as a lead worker, an applicant must complete:
A. an initial lead worker training course for which the commissioner has issued a permit under part 4761.2370; or
B. an initial lead worker training course approved by the EPA or by a state or tribal lead training program authorized by the EPA and a lead worker refresher training course for which the commissioner has issued a permit under part 4761.2370.
Subp. 3. Expiration; renewal; retraining.
A. A lead worker license is valid for 12 months after the completion date on the training course diploma for the most recently completed training course. Regulated lead work may not be conducted after the license expires.
B. A lead worker license may be renewed upon completing a lead worker refresher training course for which a permit has been issued under part 4761.2370.
C. A lead worker refresher training course must be completed within 36 months after the date on the last issued training course diploma. A refresher training course taken more than 36 months after the date on the last issued training course diploma does not qualify the individual for a renewed license.
D. An individual who fails to take a refresher training course within 36 months after the date on the last issued training course diploma may not renew the license. The individual must successfully complete an initial lead worker training course to qualify for a new license.
Subp. 4. Application.
A. To apply for an initial license as a lead worker, an applicant must submit to the commissioner:
B. If applying from out of state, an applicant must submit:
Subp. 5. Renewal application.
A. An individual licensed as a lead worker must renew the license annually by submitting to the commissioner:
B. Until the commissioner issues the renewed license, the lead worker may continue to perform lead hazard reduction for up to 30 calendar days from the date of completing the lead worker refresher training course, provided the lead worker:
Subp. 6. Denial; conditions.
The commissioner shall deny an application for a lead worker license if the applicant fails to comply with all applicable requirements in this part. The commissioner may also deny an application or set conditions on a license according to Minnesota Statutes, section 144.99, subdivision 8. If a license application is denied, the applicant:
A. must be notified in writing of the denied license application and the reasons for the denial; and
B. is not required to pay a second fee if the applicant submits a second application according to subpart 4 or 5 within 30 days of receiving the notice that the application was denied. Fees are required for all subsequent applications.
Subp. 7. Duplicate license.
To replace a lost, destroyed, or mutilated lead worker license, the licensed lead worker must submit a completed application for a duplicate lead worker license.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.9508
- History: 29 SR 531
Minn. R. 4761.2260 Lead Supervisor License
Subpart 1. General requirements.
The individual who is responsible for supervising licensed lead workers on a lead hazard reduction project must be licensed as a lead supervisor under this part. A lead supervisor license is not transferable.
Subp. 2. Experience requirements.
To be eligible for a lead supervisor license, an applicant must have:
A. at least one year of experience as a licensed lead worker;
B. at least one year of experience in the childhood lead poisoning prevention program of a government agency; or
C. at least two years of experience in other environmental remediation or general commercial construction trades.
Subp. 3. Training requirements; initial license.
To be eligible for an initial license as a lead supervisor, an applicant must:
A. complete:
B. take an independent examination and have a passing score of 70 percent or better.
Subp. 4. Expiration; renewal; retraining.
A. A lead supervisor license is valid for 12 months after completing the lead supervisor independent examination or for 12 months after the completion date on the training course diploma for the most recently completed refresher training course. Regulated lead work may not be conducted after the license expires.
B. A lead supervisor license may be renewed upon completing a lead supervisor refresher training course for which a permit has been issued under part 4761.2370.
C. A lead supervisor refresher training course must be completed within 36 months after the date on the last issued training course diploma. A refresher training course taken more than 36 months after the date on the last issued training course diploma does not qualify the individual for a renewed license.
D. An individual who fails to take a refresher training course within 36 months after the date on the last issued training course diploma may not renew the license. The individual must successfully complete an initial lead supervisor training course and pass an independent examination as specified in subpart 3 to qualify for a new license.
Subp. 5. Application.
A. To apply for an initial license as a lead supervisor, an applicant must submit to the commissioner:
B. If applying from out of state, an applicant must submit:
Subp. 6. Renewal application.
A. An individual licensed as a lead supervisor must renew the license annually by submitting to the commissioner:
B. Until the commissioner issues the renewed license, the lead supervisor may continue to perform lead hazard reduction for up to 30 calendar days from the date of completing the lead supervisor refresher training course, provided the lead supervisor:
Subp. 7. Denial; conditions.
The commissioner shall deny an application for a lead supervisor license if the applicant fails to comply with all applicable requirements in this part. The commissioner may also deny an application or set conditions on a license according to Minnesota Statutes, section 144.99, subdivision 8. If a license application is denied, the applicant:
A. must be notified in writing of the denied license application and the reasons for the denial; and
B. is not required to pay a second fee if the applicant submits a second application according to subpart 5 or 6 within 30 days of receiving the notice that the application was denied. Fees are required for all subsequent applications.
Subp. 8. Duplicate license.
To replace a lost, destroyed, or mutilated lead supervisor license, the licensed lead supervisor must submit a completed application for a duplicate lead supervisor license.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.9508
- History: 29 SR 531
Minn. R. 4761.2280 Lead Inspector License
Subpart 1. General requirements.
An individual who performs a lead inspection, as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.9501, subdivision 18, must be licensed by the commissioner as a lead inspector or lead risk assessor. A lead inspector license is not transferable.
Subp. 2. Training requirements; initial license.
To be eligible for an initial license as a lead inspector, an applicant must:
A. complete:
B. take an independent examination and have a passing score of 70 percent or better.
Subp. 3. Expiration; renewal; retraining.
A. A lead inspector license is valid for 12 months after completing the lead inspector independent examination or for 12 months after the completion date on the training course diploma for the most recently completed refresher training course. Regulated lead work may not be conducted after the license expires.
B. A lead inspector license may be renewed upon completing a lead inspector refresher training course for which a permit has been issued under part 4761.2370.
C. A lead inspector refresher training course must be completed within 36 months after the date on the last issued training course diploma. A refresher training course taken more than 36 months after the date on the last issued training course diploma does not qualify the individual for a renewed license.
D. An individual who fails to take a refresher training course within 36 months after the date on the last issued training course diploma may not renew the license. The individual must successfully complete an initial lead inspector training course and pass an independent examination as specified in subpart 2 to qualify for a new license.
Subp. 4. Application.
A. To apply for an initial license as a lead inspector, an applicant must submit to the commissioner:
B. If applying from out of state, an applicant must submit:
Subp. 5. Renewal application.
A. An individual licensed as a lead inspector must renew the license annually by submitting to the commissioner:
B. Until the commissioner issues the renewed license, the lead inspector may continue performing regulated lead work for up to 30 calendar days from the date of completing the lead inspector refresher training course, provided the lead inspector:
Subp. 6. Denial; conditions.
The commissioner shall deny an application for a lead inspector license if the applicant fails to comply with all applicable requirements in this part. The commissioner may also deny an application or set conditions on a license according to Minnesota Statutes, section 144.99, subdivision 8. If a license application is denied, the applicant:
A. must be notified in writing of the denied license application and the reasons for the denial; and
B. is not required to pay a second fee if the applicant submits a second application according to subpart 4 or 5 within 30 days of receiving the notice that the application was denied. Fees are required for all subsequent applications.
Subp. 7. Duplicate license.
To replace a lost, destroyed, or mutilated lead inspector license, the licensed lead inspector must submit a completed application for a duplicate lead inspector license.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.9508
- History: 29 SR 531
Minn. R. 4761.2300 Lead Risk Assessor License
Subpart 1. General requirements.
An individual performing a lead risk assessment, as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.9501, subdivision 20b, must be licensed by the commissioner as a lead risk assessor. A lead risk assessor license is not transferable.
Subp. 2. Education and experience requirements.
To be eligible for a lead risk assessor license, an applicant must:
A. have a high school diploma and at least three years of experience in regulated lead work, asbestos abatement, environmental remediation, general construction, or a childhood lead poisoning prevention program of a government agency;
B. have an associate's degree and two years of experience in regulated lead work, asbestos abatement, environmental remediation, general construction, or a childhood lead poisoning prevention program of a government agency;
C. have a bachelor's degree and one year of experience in regulated lead work, asbestos abatement, environmental remediation, general construction, or a childhood lead poisoning prevention program of a government agency; or
D. be a certified industrial hygienist, registered professional engineer, registered architect, certified safety professional, or registered public health sanitarian.
Subp. 3. Training requirements; initial license.
To be eligible for an initial license as a lead risk assessor, an applicant must:
A. complete:
B. take the lead risk assessor independent examination and have a passing score of 70 percent or better.
Subp. 4. Expiration; renewal; retraining.
A. A lead risk assessor license is valid for 12 months after completing the lead risk assessor independent examination or 12 months after the completion date on the training course diploma for the most recently completed refresher training course. Regulated lead work may not be conducted after the license expires.
B. A lead risk assessor license may be renewed upon completing a lead risk assessor refresher training course for which a permit has been issued under part 4761.2370.
C. A lead risk assessor refresher training course must be completed within 36 months after the date on the last issued training course diploma. A refresher training course taken more than 36 months after the date on the last issued training course diploma does not qualify the individual for a renewed license.
D. An individual who fails to take a refresher training course within 36 months after the date on the last issued training course diploma may not renew the license. The individual must successfully complete initial lead inspector and lead risk assessor training courses and pass an independent examination as specified in subpart 3 to qualify for a new license.
Subp. 5. Application.
A. To apply for an initial license as a lead risk assessor, an applicant must submit to the commissioner:
B. If applying from out of state, an applicant must submit:
Subp. 6. Renewal application.
A. An individual licensed as a lead risk assessor must renew the license annually by submitting to the commissioner:
B. Until the commissioner issues the renewed license, the lead risk assessor may continue to perform regulated lead work for up to 30 calendar days from the date of completing the lead risk assessor refresher training course, provided the lead risk assessor:
Subp. 7. Denial; conditions.
The commissioner shall deny an application for a lead risk assessor license if the applicant fails to comply with all applicable requirements in this part. The commissioner may also deny an application or set conditions on a license according to Minnesota Statutes, section 144.99, subdivision 8. If a license application is denied, the applicant:
A. must be notified in writing of the denied license application and the reasons for the denial; and
B. is not required to pay a second fee if the applicant submits a second application according to subpart 5 or 6 within 30 days of receiving the notice that the application was denied. Fees are required for all subsequent applications.
Subp. 8. Duplicate license.
To replace a lost, destroyed, or mutilated lead risk assessor license, the licensed lead risk assessor must submit a completed application for a duplicate lead risk assessor license.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.9508
- History: 29 SR 531
Minn. R. 4761.2320 Lead Project Designer License
Subpart 1. General requirements.
An individual preparing a lead project design, as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.9501, subdivision 19a, must be licensed by the commissioner as a lead project designer. A lead project designer license is not transferable.
Subp. 2. Education and experience requirements.
To be eligible for a lead project designer license, an applicant must:
A. have a bachelor's degree in engineering, architecture, or an environmental or safety discipline and one year of experience in building construction, design, or a related field;
B. be a registered architect, registered professional engineer, certified industrial hygienist, certified safety professional, or a certified asbestos project designer;
C. have two years of experience in regulated lead work, asbestos-related work, asbestos management activities, or other environmental remediation; or
D. have four years of experience in building construction, design, or a related field.
Subp. 3. Training requirements; initial license.
To be eligible for an initial license as a lead project designer, an applicant must complete:
A. the initial lead supervisor and lead project designer training courses for which the commissioner has issued permits under part 4761.2370; or
B. the initial lead supervisor and lead project designer training courses that are approved by the EPA or by a state or tribal lead training program authorized by the EPA and a lead project designer refresher training course for which the commissioner has issued a permit under part 4761.2370.
Subp. 4. Expiration; renewal; retraining.
A. A lead project designer license is valid for 12 months after the completion date on the training course diploma for the most recently completed training course. Regulated lead work may not be conducted after the license expires.
B. A lead project designer license may be renewed upon completing a lead project designer refresher training course for which a permit has been issued under part 4761.2370.
C. A lead project designer refresher training course must be completed within 36 months after the date on the last issued training course diploma. A refresher training course taken more than 36 months after the date on the last issued training course diploma does not qualify the individual for a renewed license.
D. An individual who fails to take a refresher training course within 36 months after the date on the last issued training course diploma may not renew the license. The individual must successfully complete initial lead supervisor and lead project designer training courses to qualify for a new license.
Subp. 5. Application.
A. To apply for an initial license as a lead project designer, the applicant must submit to the commissioner:
B. If applying from out of state, an applicant must submit:
Subp. 6. Renewal application.
A. An individual licensed as a lead project designer must renew the license annually by submitting to the commissioner:
B. Until the commissioner issues the renewed license, the lead project designer may continue to perform regulated lead work for up to 30 calendar days from the date of completing the lead project designer refresher training course, provided the lead project designer:
Subp. 7. Denial; conditions.
The commissioner shall deny an application for a lead project designer license if the applicant fails to comply with all applicable requirements in this part. The commissioner may also deny an application or set conditions on a license according to Minnesota Statutes, section 144.99, subdivision 8. If a license application is denied, the applicant:
A. must be notified in writing of the denied license application and the reasons for the denial; and
B. is not required to pay a second fee if the applicant submits a second application according to subpart 5 or 6 within 30 days of receiving the notice that the application was denied. Fees are required for all subsequent applications.
Subp. 8. Duplicate license.
To replace a lost, destroyed, or mutilated lead project designer license, the licensed lead project designer must submit a completed application for a duplicate lead project designer license.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.9508
- History: 29 SR 531
Minn. R. 4761.2370 Training Course Permits
Subpart 1. General requirements.
A. This part applies to all training courses that are intended to qualify trainees for licensure under parts 4761.2240 to 4761.2320.
B. A training course provider must obtain a permit under this part before presenting a lead training course to qualify trainees for licensure.
C. An application must be submitted at least 60 days before the first course is presented.
D. A training course provider must employ a training manager who meets the requirements in part 4761.2380, subpart 2.
E. A training course provider must employ at least one principal instructor for each training course. The principal instructor must meet the requirements in part 4761.2380, subpart 4.
Subp. 2. Permit application.
A. To apply for a permit for either an initial or refresher training course, the training course provider must submit to the commissioner:
B. The commissioner shall review and approve an application or notify the applicant of any deficiencies. The commissioner shall reject a deficient application after 60 days unless the applicant corrects the deficiencies.
Subp. 3. Expiration; transfer.
A permit is valid for two years and is not transferable.
Subp. 4. Renewal application.
A renewal application must include:
A. a completed application on a form provided by the commissioner; and
B. a nonrefundable application fee as follows:
Subp. 5. Denial; conditions.
The commissioner shall deny an application for a training course permit if the applicant fails to comply with all applicable requirements in this part. The commissioner may also deny an application or set conditions on the permit according to Minnesota Statutes, section 144.99, subdivision 8. If a permit application is denied, the applicant:
A. must be notified in writing of the denied permit application and reasons for the denial; and
B. is not required to pay a second fee if the applicant submits a second application according to subpart 2 within 30 days of receiving the notice that the application was denied. Fees are required for all subsequent applications.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.9508
- History: 29 SR 531
Minn. R. 4761.2380 Required Training Course Personnel; Duties
Subpart 1. General requirements.
This part applies to all training courses for which the commissioner issues permits and the personnel who conduct training to qualify trainees for licensure under parts 4761.2240 to 4761.2320.
Subp. 2. Training manager.
A training course provider must designate a training manager who has experience, education, or training in the construction industry, including regulated lead work, asbestos-related work, asbestos management activities, painting, carpentry, renovation, remodeling, occupational safety and health, or industrial hygiene, and one of the following:
A. at least two years of experience, education, or training in teaching adults;
B. a bachelor's or graduate degree in building construction technology, engineering, industrial hygiene, safety, public health, education, business administration, program management, or a related field; or
C. at least two years of experience in managing a training program in environmental hazards.
Subp. 3. Training manager duties.
A training manager is responsible for ensuring that:
A. each training course is presented in the manner described in the application for which a permit was granted;
B. a quality control plan is developed and implemented for each training course. The plan is to maintain and improve the quality of the course by revising materials to include:
C. the competency, performance, and effectiveness of principal instructors are reviewed annually;
D. properly identified Department of Health staff is allowed to audit the course, including the testing and evaluation of trainees;
E. training in the use of an x-ray fluorescence analyzer complies with chapter 4730; and
F. a notice is submitted to the commissioner of any change in the course curriculum or course materials required under part 4761.2370, subpart 2, item A, subitem (3). The commissioner shall provide the notice form. The notice form and copies of the changed materials must be received by the commissioner at least 30 calendar days before the training course is conducted.
Subp. 4. Principal instructor.
A training course provider must designate a principal instructor for each training course. The principal instructor must:
A. have experience, education, or training in teaching adults, including using methods of evaluation to continually monitor the participants' progress;
B. successfully complete a Minnesota-permitted training course or any other lead-based paint activities training course approved by the EPA or by an EPA-authorized state or tribal program:
C. have experience, education, or training in lead or asbestos abatement, painting, carpentry, renovation, remodeling, occupational safety and health, or industrial hygiene; and
D. apply the methods of evaluation described in item A.
Subp. 5. Principal instructor duties.
The principal instructor is responsible for the organization of the course and the oversight of the teaching of all course materials. The principal instructor must:
A. be responsible for supervising the other instructors for the course;
B. ensure that each trainee is in attendance for the full duration of the course; and
C. ensure that the course examination and hands-on skills evaluation accurately reflect a trainee's understanding of the course material.
Subp. 6. Other training course instructors.
The commissioner shall approve all other instructors as part of any permit issued for the training course if the instructors:
A. have experience, education, or training in teaching adults, including using methods of evaluation to continually monitor the participants' progress;
B. have experience, education, or training in lead or asbestos abatement, painting, carpentry, renovation, remodeling, occupational safety and health, or industrial hygiene; and
C. apply the methods of evaluation described in item A.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.9508
- History: 29 SR 531
Minn. R. 4761.2400 Training Course Provider Requirements and Duties
Subpart 1. Instructor as trainee.
A training course provider may not allow an instructor to present information at a training course that the instructor intends to complete as a trainee to obtain or renew a license under parts 4761.2240 to 4761.2320.
Subp. 2. Diplomas.
If a training course is issued a permit under part 4761.2370, the training course provider must ensure that each trainee who successfully completes a training course, by passing the course examination, receives an original diploma. A diploma must include:
A. the name of the individual;
B. a unique identification number for the individual;
C. the name of the training course that the individual completed;
D. the location of the training course;
E. the course completion date;
F. the name, address, and telephone number of the training course provider; and
G. the following statement: "Approved by the State of Minnesota under Minnesota Rules, parts 4761.2000 to 4761.2700."
Subp. 3. Training course notification.
A training course provider must notify the commissioner before offering a training course. The provider must submit a completed notification on a form provided by the commissioner. The notification form must be:
A. received at least five calendar days before the training course begins; and
B. mailed, faxed, delivered, or submitted electronically to the commissioner.
Subp. 4. Amending notifications.
A. A training course provider must notify the commissioner according to this subpart of any change in the information on the notice required under subpart 3.
B. The commissioner must receive an amended notice at least three calendar days before the training course begins if the beginning date of the training course is made earlier.
C. The commissioner must receive an amended notice before a training course begins for any other change in the information contained in the original notice.
Subp. 5. Attendance requirements.
A. A training course provider must document that participants attended the entire training course as a condition of successfully completing the training course. A training course provider must:
B. The daily sign-in log must include:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.9508
- History: 29 SR 531
Minn. R. 4761.2420 Training Course Requirements
Subpart 1. Applicability.
This part applies to all lead training courses issued permits under part 4761.2370.
Subp. 2. Separation of training courses.
Training courses for lead workers, lead supervisors, lead inspectors, lead risk assessors, and lead project designers must be taught separately.
Subp. 3. Written examinations.
A. A training course must include a written examination according to this subpart.
B. Each training course must include a written examination that is given only at the end of the training course.
C. The training course provider must administer training course examinations unless other arrangements are reported in advance to the commissioner.
D. When the training course provider or an approved alternate administers the examination, the training course provider must:
E. Written examinations for initial and refresher training courses must incorporate questions about Minnesota statutes and rules related to lead and must comply with the requirements of Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, part 745, subpart L.
F. A score of at least 70 percent is required to pass an initial or refresher training course written examination.
G. The initial and refresher training course written examinations must consist of:
H. If a participant in a lead worker training course is unable to read the written examination, the training course provider may arrange to administer the examination in an alternative manner to the participant.
Subp. 4. Initial training course completion.
To successfully complete an initial training course, a participant must:
A. attend the entire training course;
B. demonstrate to the instructor the participant's proficiency during the hands-on portion of the course; and
C. pass a closed-book written examination that complies with subpart 3.
Subp. 5. Refresher training course completion.
To complete a refresher training course, a participant must:
A. attend the entire training course; and
B. pass a closed-book written examination that complies with subpart 3.
Subp. 6. Record retention and reporting.
A. For each training course, the training course provider must keep, at the address specified on the permit application, the following documentation for three years:
B. If the commissioner requests information regarding a training course from a training course provider, copies of the requested information must be made available at no charge to the commissioner.
C. A training course provider must notify the commissioner in writing within 30 days after changing the address specified on the provider's permit application under part 4761.2370, subpart 2, or after transferring records from that address. Before a training course provider ceases operations, the provider must deposit the provider's training records with a person who will maintain the records for the required time. The training course provider must provide the name and address of the person to the commissioner.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.9508
- History: 29 SR 531
Minn. R. 4761.2440 Course Content and Length
Subpart 1. General requirements.
For purposes of this part, a training hour equals 50 minutes of instruction. A training course must be completed within 30 calendar days.
Subp. 2. Lead workers.
A. An initial training course for lead workers must be at least 16 training hours in length, including at least eight training hours of hands-on instruction.
B. The initial training course for lead workers must cover:
C. Hands-on instruction must be provided for the topics under item B, subitems (5) to (9). The student-to-instructor ratio must not exceed eight-to-one for hands-on instruction.
D. A refresher training course for lead workers must be at least eight training hours in length.
E. A refresher training course for lead workers must review the topics of the corresponding initial training course and cover current and new:
Subp. 3. Lead supervisors.
A. An initial training course for lead supervisors must be at least 32 training hours in length, including at least eight training hours of hands-on instruction.
B. The initial training course for lead supervisors must cover:
C. Hands-on instruction must be provided for the topics under item B, subitems (6) to (13). The student-to-instructor ratio must not exceed eight-to-one for hands-on instruction under item B, subitems (9) to (13).
D. A refresher training course for lead supervisors must be at least eight training hours in length.
E. A refresher training course for lead supervisors must review the topics of the corresponding initial training course and cover current and new:
Subp. 4. Lead inspectors.
A. An initial training course for lead inspectors must be at least 24 training hours in length, including at least eight training hours of hands-on instruction.
B. An initial training course for lead inspectors must cover:
C. Hands-on instruction must be provided for topics under item B, subitems (5) to (8). The student-to-instructor ratio must not exceed eight-to-one for hands-on instruction under item B, subitems (5) and (6).
D. A refresher training course for lead inspectors must be at least eight training hours in length.
E. A refresher training course for lead inspectors must review the topics of the corresponding initial training course and cover current and new:
Subp. 5. Lead risk assessors.
A. An initial training course for lead risk assessors must be at least 16 training hours in length, including at least four training hours of hands-on instruction.
B. The initial training course for lead risk assessors must cover:
C. Hands-on instruction must be provided for the topics under item B, subitems (5) to (9). The student-to-instructor ratio must not exceed eight-to-one for hands-on instruction under item B, subitem (6).
D. A refresher training course for lead risk assessors must be at least eight training hours in length.
E. A refresher training course for lead risk assessors must review the topics of the corresponding initial training course and cover current and new:
Subp. 6. Lead project designers.
A. An initial training course for lead project designers must be at least eight training hours in length.
B. The initial training course for lead project designers must cover:
C. A refresher training course for lead project designers must be at least four training hours in length.
D. A refresher training course for lead project designers must review the topics of the corresponding initial training course and cover current and new:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.9508
- History: 29 SR 531
Minn. R. 4761.2460 Independent Testing Organizations; Permits
Subpart 1. Applicability.
This part applies to a person who seeks a permit to administer examinations that are independent of a training course as required under parts 4761.2260, subpart 3, item B; 4761.2280, subpart 2, item B; and 4761.2300, subpart 3, item B, and that are intended to qualify individuals to be licensed as lead supervisors, lead inspectors, or lead risk assessors.
Subp. 2. Application.
A permit application must be submitted on a form provided by the commissioner. The application must:
A. be submitted at least 60 days before a scheduled examination;
B. include all of the questions that may be used on the examination with the correct answer indicated for each question and with possible answers for multiple-choice questions. The questions must address the topics listed in part 4761.2440, subpart 3, 4, or 5, as applicable. The application must indicate the proportion of questions that will address each topic;
C. include documentation that the examination meets the validity standards for educational and psychological testing specified in American Psychological Association (APA), Standards for Educational and Psychological Testing (1999). This document is not required for an examination that was developed by or for the EPA. The APA standards are incorporated by reference, are not subject to frequent change, and are available through the Minitex interlibrary loan system through a local library;
D. include an assurance that each examination will consist of at least 75 questions and that a passing score will be at least 70 percent correct answers. An application must include documentation that the examination evaluates an individual's understanding of the topics in part 4761.2440, subpart 3, 4, or 5, as appropriate to each examination; and
E. describe how the security of the examination questions and answers will be maintained.
Subp. 3. Expiration; transfer.
A permit issued under this part is valid for two years and is not transferable.
Subp. 4. Renewal application.
A renewal application form, provided by the commissioner, must be completed and submitted to the commissioner.
Subp. 5. Approval; rejection.
The commissioner shall review and approve an application or notify the applicant of any deficiencies. The commissioner shall reject a deficient application after 60 days unless the applicant corrects the application.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.9508
- History: 29 SR 531
Minn. R. 4761.2480 Independent Testing Organization Requirements
Subpart 1. Examination notification.
A. An independent testing organization must notify the commissioner before administering an approved examination by submitting a completed notification on a form provided by the commissioner. If the examination is administered by the Department of Health, the notification requirement does not apply.
B. The commissioner must receive the notice at least five calendar days before the examination is administered.
C. Notices must be mailed, faxed, delivered, or submitted electronically to the commissioner.
Subp. 2. Amending notifications.
A. An independent testing organization must notify the commissioner according to this subpart of any change in the information required on the notice in subpart 1.
B. The commissioner must receive an amended notice at least three calendar days before the examination is administered if the date of the examination is made earlier.
C. The commissioner must receive an amended notice before the examination is administered for any other change in the information contained in the original notice.
Subp. 3. Examination administration.
An independent testing organization that has received a permit under part 4761.2460 must:
A. allow access to the commissioner to monitor an examination;
B. verify the identity of each individual by requiring picture identification at the time the individual takes the examination; and
C. verify that each individual has an original training course diploma for the course appropriate to the examination being taken.
Subp. 4. Record retention and reporting.
An independent testing organization that has received a permit under part 4761.2460 must:
A. report the following information to the commissioner, on a form provided by the commissioner, within five calendar days after completing the examination:
B. retain the information under item A for at least three years;
C. provide a report to the commissioner for the examinations that were not developed or approved by the EPA. The report must statistically evaluate the validity of the examinations administered during each calendar year; and
D. notify the commissioner in writing within 30 days after changing the address specified on its most recent permit application. Before an independent testing organization ceases operations, the records required in this subpart must be deposited with a person who will maintain the records for the required time. The independent testing organization must provide the name and address of the person to the commissioner.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.9508
- History: 29 SR 531
Minn. R. 4761.2510 Standards for Lead in Paint, Dust, Bare Soil, Drinking Water
Subpart 1. Paint.
Paint is lead-based if it:
A. contains lead in a concentration of at least one-half of one percent (5,000 parts per million) or more by dry weight as measured by atomic absorption spectrophotometry or by quantitative chemical analyses; or
B. registers at least one milligram of lead per square centimeter or more as measured by an x-ray fluorescence analyzer, unless atomic absorption spectrophotometry or quantitative chemical analyses shows that the lead content is less than one-half of one percent by dry weight.
Subp. 2. Dust.
Dust is lead-contaminated if atomic absorption spectrophotometry or quantitative chemical analyses determines that it contains at least:
A. ten micrograms of lead per square foot on an interior hard-surfaced floor or carpet;
B. 100 micrograms of lead per square foot on an interior window sill; or
C. 400 micrograms of lead per square foot in a window trough.
Subp. 3. Bare soil.
Bare soil on an affected property or on a play area is lead-contaminated if it contains lead in a concentration of at least 1/100 of one percent (100 parts per million) by weight.
Subp. 4. Drinking water.
Drinking water is lead-contaminated if it contains at least 15 micrograms of lead per liter of water.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.9508
- History: 29 SR 531; 47 SR 827
Minn. R. 4761.2540 Bare Soil Analyses Within an Urban Census Tract
Subpart 1. Multisite soil sampling.
An assessing agency may collect and analyze bare soil samples in an urbanized area to determine lead contamination. If performed according to the criteria in subpart 2, and if at least 25 percent of the soil samples have lead concentrations that exceed the standard in part 4761.2510, subpart 3, the assessing agency may issue lead orders for bare soil for any subsequent lead risk assessments in the area without further sampling and analyses of soil. If a property owner requests that soil sampling be performed before the issuance of a lead order, the assessing agency must comply with that request.
Subp. 2. Sampling criteria.
A. An assessing agency must collect and analyze bare soil samples for purposes of subpart 1 according to this subpart.
B. The area sampled must be in a standard metropolitan statistical area and must be no greater than a census tract.
C. A map of the area must be prepared that shows the location of residences, boulevards, streets, alleys, schools, play areas, and all areas of bare soil.
D. Twelve samples must be collected from within three feet of foundations. Separate composite samples must be collected from areas in residential yards in which children play.
E. A soil sample must be collected according to documented methodologies.
F. A standard soil sampling tube or a putty knife is an acceptable sampling tool. The sampling tool must be cleaned before each use.
G. Soil samples must be labeled so that the following information is provided for each sample:
H. An assessing agency must notify the commissioner within 30 days after determining an urban census tract meets the criteria in subpart 1.
I. An assessing agency must prepare a report describing how and where the samples were collected. The assessing agency must provide a copy of the report at no cost to the commissioner upon request. The assessing agency must retain the report for as long as it is the basis for issuing lead orders without additional soil sampling.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.9508
- History: 29 SR 531
Minn. R. 4761.2550 Lead Hazard Screen
Subpart 1. General requirements.
A. A person must allow the commissioner to have access to a work site, according to Minnesota Statutes, section 144.99, subdivision 2, while the person performs a lead hazard screen.
B. An individual conducting a lead hazard screen must be a lead risk assessor licensed under part 4761.2300 and must use the methods described in this part.
C. If a lead hazard screen identifies lead dust levels that exceed 20 micrograms per square foot for floors or 125 micrograms per square foot for window sills, the lead risk assessor must inform the property owner that a lead risk assessment is recommended by the commissioner of health.
D. Sodium rhodizonate and sodium sulfide must not be used to inspect paint for the presence of lead.
Subp. 2. Methodologies.
A. A lead hazard screen must be performed according to one of the documented methodologies that corresponds to the type of sampling and analysis that will be used to determine lead concentration.
B. To the extent that the documented methodologies contain numerical standards for the lead content of paint, dust, or drinking water that differ from the standards in part 4761.2510, the more stringent standard applies.
C. X-ray fluorescence analyzers, laboratory sample analyses, or a combination of both, may be used for on-site measurements of lead.
Subp. 3. Lead hazard screen requirements.
A lead hazard screen for an affected property must:
A. include background information regarding the physical characteristics of the affected property;
B. include background information regarding the occupant use patterns that may cause lead-based paint exposure to one or more children;
C. visually identify the location of any deteriorated paint;
D. test each surface with deteriorated paint that has a distinct painting history for the presence of lead. A surface with deteriorated paint must be determined using HUD's Guidelines for the Evaluation and Control of Lead-Based Paint Hazards in Housing, chapter 5 (1995). The guidelines are incorporated by reference under part 4761.2000, subpart 15, item H. Surfaces do not need to be tested if the lead risk assessor determines the building component was replaced after 1978 or does not contain lead-based paint. In lieu of testing under this item, the deteriorated paint may be assumed to be lead-based paint;
E. determine at least two dust sampling locations or assume the floor and window sill surfaces have lead-contaminated dust on them. If conducting dust sampling:
F. visually identify the presence and location of bare soil if the ground is not covered by snow at the time of the lead hazard screen.
Subp. 4. Reports.
Within 30 days of completing a lead hazard screen, the lead risk assessor must write a report containing the information described in part 4761.2680, subpart 1.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.9508
- History: 29 SR 531
Minn. R. 4761.2560 Lead Inspection
Subpart 1. General requirements.
A. A person must allow the commissioner to have access to a work site, according to Minnesota Statutes, section 144.99, subdivision 2, while the person performs a lead inspection.
B. An individual conducting a lead inspection must be licensed according to part 4761.2280 or 4761.2300 and must use the methods described in this part.
C. Sodium rhodizonate and sodium sulfide must not be used to inspect paint for the presence of lead.
Subp. 2. Methodologies.
A. A lead inspection must be performed according to one of the documented methodologies that corresponds to the type of sampling and analysis that will be used to determine lead concentration.
B. To the extent that the documented methodologies contain numerical standards for the lead content of paint, dust, or drinking water that differ from the standards in part 4761.2510, the more stringent standard applies.
C. X-ray fluorescence analyzers, laboratory sample analyses, or a combination of both, may be used for on-site measurements of lead.
Subp. 3. Lead inspection requirements.
A. A lead inspection for an affected property must:
B. Collecting and analyzing drinking water is not required but may be performed as part of a lead inspection.
Subp. 4. Reports.
Within 30 days of completing a lead inspection, the lead inspector or lead risk assessor must write a report containing the information described in part 4761.2680, subpart 1.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.9508
- History: 29 SR 531
Minn. R. 4761.2570 Lead Risk Assessment
Subpart 1. General requirements.
A. A person must allow the commissioner to have access to a work site, according to Minnesota Statutes, section 144.99, subdivision 2, while the person performs a lead risk assessment.
B. An individual conducting a lead risk assessment must be licensed according to part 4761.2300 and must use the methods described in this part.
C. An assessing agency that is required by Minnesota Statutes, section 144.9504, subdivision 2, to respond to reports of elevated blood lead levels in children and pregnant women must:
D. Sampling and analyzing building component paint in an affected property built after 1978 is not required during a lead risk assessment.
E. Sodium rhodizonate and sodium sulfide must not be used to inspect paint for the presence of lead.
Subp. 2. Methodologies.
A. A lead risk assessment must be performed according to one of the documented methodologies that corresponds to the type of sampling and analysis that will be used to determine lead concentration.
B. To the extent that the documented methodologies contain numerical standards for the lead content of paint, dust, bare soil, or drinking water that differ from the standards in part 4761.2510, the more stringent standard applies.
C. X-ray fluorescence analyzers, laboratory sample analyses, or a combination of both, may be used for on-site measurements of lead.
Subp. 3. Lead risk assessment requirements.
A. A lead risk assessment for an affected property must:
B. Except as provided in item C, collecting and analyzing drinking water is not required but may be performed as part of a lead risk assessment.
C. If the lead risk assessment fails to identify a source of lead exposure from the paint, dust, bare soil, or other sources for an elevated blood lead level case, water sampling must confirm that the drinking water does not exceed the standard in part 4761.2510, subpart 4. Water sampling must be conducted using documented methodologies.
Subp. 4. Reports.
Within 30 days of completing the lead risk assessment, the lead risk assessor must write a report containing the information described in part 4761.2680, subparts 1 and 2.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.9508
- History: 29 SR 531
Minn. R. 4761.2580 Lead Hazard Reduction Notification
Subpart 1. General requirements.
The certified lead firm or lead supervisor conducting lead hazard reduction, or a property owner who will personally perform lead hazard reduction in or on the owner's property, must notify the commissioner of each project to be performed in whole or in part by the certified lead firm, lead supervisor, or property owner.
Subp. 2. Notification requirements.
A. The commissioner must receive from the certified lead firm, lead supervisor, or property owner a completed notification on a form provided by the commissioner.
B. The notice must be received by the commissioner at least five calendar days before the beginning of a project, except as provided in part 4761.2600.
C. The notice must be mailed, faxed, delivered, or electronically submitted to the commissioner.
D. The notice must also be provided to the assessing agency if lead hazard reduction was ordered by an assessing agency other than the Department of Health.
Subp. 3. Work schedule.
A certified lead firm, lead supervisor, or property owner performing lead hazard reduction must ensure that work is performed only during dates and work shifts for which the commissioner was notified.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.9508
- History: 29 SR 531
Minn. R. 4761.2590 Amending Notifications
A. A certified lead firm, lead supervisor, or property owner performing lead hazard reduction must submit to the commissioner an amendment, on a form provided by the commissioner, for any change in the information reported to the commissioner on the original notice under part 4761.2580 or any subsequent amendment received after the original notice.
B. All amendments, except for changes in work shift times and dates, must be in writing, via mail, delivery, facsimile, or on an electronic format provided by the commissioner, with the changes clearly indicated.
C. Amendments to the work dates and shift times must be telephoned, faxed, mailed, delivered, or electronically submitted to the commissioner.
D. The commissioner must receive all amendments at the time it is determined the information on the notification will change.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.9508
- History: 29 SR 531
Minn. R. 4761.2600 Emergency Project Notice
Subpart 1. Notice requirement.
A. Except as otherwise provided in this part, an emergency project must be reported to the commissioner according to part 4761.2580.
B. For an emergency project that begins between 8:00 a.m. and 4:30 p.m. on the days the Department of Health is open, the commissioner must receive from the certified lead firm, lead supervisor, or property owner a completed notice before the project begins. The notice must be mailed, faxed, delivered, or submitted electronically.
C. For an emergency project that begins at a time other than that specified in item B, the commissioner must receive from the certified lead firm, lead supervisor, or property owner a completed notice as soon as possible, but no later than 4:30 p.m. the next day that the department is open. The notice must be mailed, faxed, delivered, or submitted electronically.
Subp. 2. Amending emergency project notices.
Amendments to an emergency project notice must be made according to part 4761.2590, items B to D.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.9508
- History: 29 SR 531
Minn. R. 4761.2610 Project Records
Subpart 1. On-site records.
A certified lead firm, lead supervisor, or property owner performing lead hazard reduction must ensure that the following records are readily available for review by the commissioner or the assessing agency with jurisdiction at the work site during the entire period of the project:
A. a daily sign-in and sign-out log that identifies individuals performing lead hazard reduction by name, license number, if applicable, and the time on and off site; and
B. a copy of the occupant protection plan as developed according to part 4761.2615.
Subp. 2. Record retention.
A certified lead firm, lead supervisor, or property owner must retain the records in subpart 1 for three years after completing the project.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.9508
- History: 29 SR 531
Minn. R. 4761.2615 Occupant Protection Plan and Warning Signs
A. A lead supervisor, lead project designer, or property owner performing lead hazard reduction must prepare an occupant protection plan to protect the building occupants from exposure to any lead-based paint hazards. The plan must be specific to the affected property where the project is occurring. An occupant protection plan is not required if an affected property is completely unoccupied while regulated lead work is performed.
B. The plan must include:
C. The lead supervisor or property owner must:
D. If any information changes during the project, the new information must be added to the occupant protection plan, as it becomes known.
E. The certified lead firm or the lead supervisor must provide copies of the plan to the person who contracted for the services.
F. Warning signs must plainly warn individuals that lead hazard reduction is in progress and not to enter. Signs must comply with Code of Federal Regulations, title 29, section 1926.62, paragraph (m).
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.9508
- History: 29 SR 531
Minn. R. 4761.2620 Prohibited Practices for Lead Hazard Reduction
The following work practices are prohibited during any lead hazard reduction:
A. open-flame burning or torching;
B. heat guns operating at more than 700 degrees Fahrenheit;
C. chemical strippers containing methylene chloride;
D. all powered-machine methods unless the resulting dust is immediately captured by HEPA filters;
E. dry scraping, dry sanding, and dry wire brushing, except for removing deteriorated paint around electrical outlets, electrical fixtures, or other areas totaling no more than:
F. dry sweeping;
G. dry vacuuming, unless a vacuum cleaner with a HEPA filter that is specifically designated for hazardous materials is used; and
H. wet/dry vacuum cleaners used for any purpose other than to collect wash and rinse water during lead hazard reduction within a containment.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.9508
- History: 29 SR 531
Minn. R. 4761.2625 Abrasive and Water Blasting Methods for Lead Hazard Reduction
A. Abrasive blasting and water blasting are prohibited except as provided in items B and C.
B. Exterior water blasting, abrasive blasting, wet abrasive blasting, modified-wet abrasive blasting, and vacuum blasting must be performed:
C. Interior abrasive blasting and modified-wet abrasive blasting are allowed only:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.9508
- History: 29 SR 531
Minn. R. 4761.2630 Methods for Removing Intact Building Components
Subpart 1. Applicability; general requirements.
The methods in this part must be used when performing lead hazard reduction to remove intact building components with intact lead-based paint. The removal methods must not disturb the paint or create paint chips or dust. Removing intact building components includes, but is not limited to, removing only a door or window sash from a door or window frame. All work must be completed in one working day.
Subp. 2. Access required.
A person must allow the commissioner to have access to a work site, according to Minnesota Statutes, section 144.99, subdivision 2, while the person performs regulated lead work.
Subp. 3. Work area preparation.
Before lead hazard reduction begins, the floor or ground surface must be cleaned using a vacuum with a HEPA filter to remove all visible paint chips that are present beneath the affected work surface and extending at least five feet beyond the affected surface in all directions.
Subp. 4. Residents.
If residents remain in the residence while work is ongoing, the residents must be provided with lead-safe passage to a bathroom, at least one living area, and an entry and egress route. Unless actually performing lead hazard reduction, residents must not be allowed in the work area until all work is completed, no visible dust or debris remains in the work area, the clearance inspection is passed, and clearance dust samples are collected. The residents must be informed to avoid the work area until clearance results are below the standards under part 4761.2510, subpart 2.
Subp. 5. Warning signs and barriers.
A. Warning signs as required under part 4761.2615, item F, must be placed at the entry to the rooms or work areas where lead hazard reduction is actually occurring.
B. Temporary fencing or barrier tape must be erected at a ten-foot perimeter around an exterior work area to keep out unauthorized persons. The barrier distance may be less if the distance to an adjacent building or sidewalk is less than ten feet.
Subp. 6. Decontamination procedures.
A. The certified lead firm, lead supervisor, or property owner performing lead hazard reduction must provide proper washing facilities for workers to thoroughly wash hands, face, and other exposed body surfaces.
B. If existing facilities are used at the work site to decontaminate, the certified lead firm, lead supervisor, or property owner must:
Subp. 7. Cleaning procedures and inspection.
When lead hazard reduction is completed, the certified lead firm, lead supervisor, or property owner must:
A. inspect all work surfaces where lead hazard reduction was conducted and visually determine that no suspect lead dust or debris remains in the work area;
B. clean all surfaces within the work area using a vacuum with a HEPA filter or using any other EPA-documented methodology under part 4761.2000, subpart 15, item K, and extend the cleaning beyond the perimeter of the work area if visible dust and debris exists from the lead hazard reduction;
C. clean all floors and ground surfaces in adjacent areas that were used for pathways to the work area and any areas used to store equipment and waste materials using a vacuum with a HEPA filter;
D. visually reinspect all areas referenced in items A to C. If visible dust or debris remains, the cleaning procedures required under items B and C must be repeated; and
E. conduct clearance inspections according to part 4761.2670.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.9508
- History: 29 SR 531
Minn. R. 4761.2640 Methods for Removing Interior Building Components and Small Areas of Deteriorated Paint
Subpart 1. Applicability.
The methods in this part must be used when all work is completed in one working day and when:
A. an assessing agency issues lead hazard reduction orders for an affected property for painted surfaces or for removing lead-contaminated dust on surfaces where the affected surfaces are no more than:
B. removing entire building components. Removing entire building components includes, but is not limited to, removing windows and doors and associated components.
Subp. 2. Access required.
A person must allow the commissioner to have access to a work site, according to Minnesota Statutes, section 144.99, subdivision 2, while the person performs regulated lead work.
Subp. 3. Work area preparation.
A. A work area must be prepared according to items B to E before lead hazard reduction begins.
B. The heating, ventilating, and air conditioning systems to an interior work area must be restricted.
C. All objects that are contaminated or suspected of being contaminated with lead-based paint chips or lead-contaminated dust must be either:
D. All movable objects that are within five feet of the affected work surface must be removed.
E. The floor or ground surface must first be cleaned using a vacuum with a HEPA filter to remove all visible paint chips that are present beneath the affected work surface. The cleaning of the floor or ground surface must extend at least five feet beyond the affected surface in all directions.
Subp. 4. Installing work area barriers.
A. Objects that cannot be removed from the work area and remain within five feet of the work area must be covered and secured with at least one layer of one-mil plastic sheeting.
B. Any air ducts or other openings within five feet of the work area must be sealed with at least one layer of one-mil plastic sheeting and secured to achieve an airtight seal.
C. At least one single layer of six-mil plastic sheeting must be placed beneath the affected work surface and extend at least five feet beyond the affected surface in all directions. The plastic sheeting must be secured to prevent movement.
D. If exterior windows or doors or associated components are to be treated or replaced from the interior, at least two layers of plastic sheeting must be attached to the exterior wall to cover the window or door opening. If the window or door being treated has an intact and operational storm window or door that will not be disturbed during the window or door treatment, no exterior plastic sheeting is required.
E. Temporary fencing or barrier tape must be erected at a ten-foot perimeter around an exterior work area to keep out unauthorized persons. The barrier distance may be less if the distance to an adjacent building or sidewalk is less than ten feet.
Subp. 5. Warning signs.
Warning signs as required under part 4761.2615, item F, must be placed at the entry to the rooms or work areas where lead hazard reduction is actually occurring.
Subp. 6. Residents.
If residents remain in the residence while work is ongoing, the residents must be provided with lead-safe passage to a bathroom, at least one living area, and an entry and egress route. Unless actually performing lead hazard reduction, residents must not be allowed in the work area until all work is completed, no visible dust or debris remains in the work area, the clearance inspection is passed, and clearance dust samples are collected. The residents must be informed to avoid the work area until clearance results are below the standards under part 4761.2510, subpart 2.
Subp. 7. Decontamination procedures.
A. The certified lead firm, lead supervisor, or property owner performing lead hazard reduction must provide proper washing facilities for workers to thoroughly wash hands, face, and other exposed body surfaces.
B. If existing facilities are used at the work site to decontaminate, the certified lead firm, lead supervisor, or property owner must:
Subp. 8. Cleaning procedures and inspection.
When lead hazard reduction is completed, the certified lead firm, lead supervisor, or property owner must:
A. inspect all work surfaces where lead hazard reduction was conducted and visually determine that no dust, debris, or deteriorated paint remains;
B. remove plastic sheeting beneath the work area and dispose of the plastic sheeting as lead-contaminated waste;
C. clean all interior surfaces within the work area using a vacuum with a HEPA filter, then wet wipe and clean a second time using a vacuum with a HEPA filter or clean using any other EPA-documented methodology under part 4761.2000, subpart 15, item K, and extend the cleaning beyond the perimeter of the work area if visible dust and debris exists from the lead hazard reduction;
D. clean all floors in adjacent areas used as pathways to the work area and any areas used to store equipment and waste materials. Cleaning must be conducted using a vacuum with a HEPA filter and wet wiping, or using any other EPA-documented methodology under part 4761.2000, subpart 15, item K;
E. clean all exterior surfaces within the work area using a vacuum with a HEPA filter and extend the cleaning beyond the perimeter of the work area in all directions in which visible dust and debris exists from the lead hazard reduction;
F. clean all exterior ground surfaces that were used for pathways to the work area and any areas used to store equipment and waste materials using a vacuum with a HEPA filter, if visible paint chips are observed;
G. reinspect all areas referenced in items A to F. If visible dust or debris remains, the cleaning procedures under items C to F must be repeated;
H. if surface coatings were removed from building components, paint or seal the surfaces;
I. remove plastic sheeting from vents, other openings, and immovable objects, dispose of the plastic sheeting as lead-contaminated waste, inspect the areas and items for dust and debris, and if dust or debris is observed, clean surfaces using a vacuum with a HEPA filter; and
J. conduct clearance inspections according to part 4761.2670.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.9508
- History: 29 SR 531
Minn. R. 4761.2645 Methods for Removing Large Areas of Interior Paint
Subpart 1. Applicability.
The methods in this part must be used when performing lead hazard reduction of interior painted surfaces greater than ten percent of the surface area when working on trim around doors, windows, or other small building components, or greater than two square feet per room when working on other surfaces.
Subp. 2. Access required.
A person must allow the commissioner to have access to a work site, according to Minnesota Statutes, section 144.99, subdivision 2, while the person performs regulated lead work.
Subp. 3. Containment preparation.
A. A containment must be prepared according to this subpart before lead hazard reduction begins.
B. The heating, ventilating, and air conditioning systems to the containment must be restricted.
C. All objects that are contaminated or suspected of being contaminated with lead-based paint chips or lead-contaminated dust must be:
D. All movable objects must be removed from the containment.
E. The floor of the containment must be cleaned using a vacuum with a HEPA filter to remove all visible paint chips.
Subp. 4. Installing containment barriers.
A. Objects that cannot be removed from the containment must be covered and secured with at least one layer of one-mil plastic sheeting.
B. At least one layer of six-mil plastic sheeting must be placed over the entire floor of the containment. Plastic sheeting must be sealed to the perimeter of the containment where the walls and floors meet to prevent lead contamination of the floor surface.
C. Temporary barriers of no less than six-mil plastic sheeting may divide a room to restrict the size of the room.
D. Any openings to the containment must be covered with at least one-mil plastic sheeting to prevent the escape of dust and debris unless the opening can be secured from inside the containment.
E. All heating, ventilating, and air conditioning vents within the containment must be sealed with an airtight seal of at least one-mil plastic sheeting.
F. If exterior windows, doors, or associated components are to be treated or replaced from the interior, two layers of plastic sheeting must be attached to the exterior wall to cover the window or door opening. If the window or door being treated has an intact and operational storm window or door that will not be disturbed during the window or door treatment, no exterior plastic is required.
Subp. 5. Residents.
A. Residents who are not personally performing lead hazard reduction must not be present in the residence while work is ongoing.
B. Residents may return to the residence for overnight occupancy when lead hazard reduction ceases for the day and cleanup is completed in the containment.
C. Returning residents must be provided with lead-safe passage to a bathroom, at least one living area, and an entry and egress route.
D. Residents must be restricted from gaining access to the containment until all work is completed, the clearance inspection is conducted according to part 4761.2670, and clearance dust sample results meet the standards under part 4761.2510, subpart 2.
Subp. 6. Warning signs.
Warning signs as required in part 4761.2615, item F, must be placed at all entries to the residence and all entries to containments within the residence. Signs must remain posted overnight if work is to continue the following day.
Subp. 7. Decontamination procedures.
A. The certified lead firm, lead supervisor, or property owner performing the lead hazard reduction must provide proper washing facilities for workers to thoroughly wash hands, face, and other exposed body surfaces.
B. If existing facilities are used at the work site to decontaminate, the certified lead firm, lead supervisor, or property owner must:
Subp. 8. Daily cleaning procedures.
A. This subpart applies if work is to resume the next day.
B. If plastic floor sheeting is left in place for the next day, it must be cleaned of visible dust and debris using a vacuum with a HEPA filter or using any other EPA-documented methodology under part 4761.2000, subpart 15, item K. Holes in the plastic must be sealed.
C. If plastic floor sheeting is removed, it must be removed in a way to contain all lead-contaminated dust and debris and discarded as lead-contaminated. The exposed floor surface must be cleaned using a vacuum with a HEPA filter or using any other EPA-documented methodology under part 4761.2000, subpart 15, item K.
D. All floors in adjacent areas, areas used as pathways to the containment, and any areas used to store equipment and waste materials must be cleaned using a vacuum with a HEPA filter and wet wiped or cleaned using any other EPA-documented methodology under part 4761.2000, subpart 15, item K.
Subp. 9. Final cleaning procedures and inspection.
A. When lead hazard reduction is completed, the certified lead firm, lead supervisor, or property owner must:
B. A wet/dry vacuum may be used instead of a vacuum with a HEPA filter under this subpart, but must be used only to collect wash and rinse water from hard-surface floors. A wet/dry vacuum may not be used to vacuum a dry floor surface, ground surface, or carpeting.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.9508
- History: 29 SR 531
Minn. R. 4761.2650 Methods for Removing Large Areas of Exterior Paint
Subpart 1. Applicability.
The methods in this part must be used when performing lead hazard reduction on exterior painted surfaces of greater than 20 square feet or greater than ten percent of the surface area on exterior trim around doors, windows, or other small building components.
Subp. 2. Access required.
A person must allow the commissioner to have access to a work site, according to Minnesota Statutes, section 144.99, subdivision 2, while the person performs regulated lead work.
Subp. 3. Work area preparation.
A. The work area must be prepared according to this subpart before lead hazard reduction begins.
B. If paint chips are present on the ground surface beneath the affected work surface, the ground surface must be cleaned using a vacuum with a HEPA filter to remove all visible paint chips. The cleaning of the ground surface must extend at least ten feet beyond the affected work surface in all directions.
C. All windows and doors in the affected property must be kept closed on the side where work is occurring until the final cleaning under subpart 9 is completed.
D. Residents of adjacent buildings that are within 20 feet of the work area must be notified of the lead hazard reduction to be done. Doors and windows of the adjacent buildings must be kept closed on the side that is adjacent to where the lead hazard reduction is occurring.
E. All movable objects that are within 20 feet of the work area must be moved.
Subp. 4. Installing work area barriers.
A. Objects that cannot be removed from the work area must be covered and secured with at least one-mil plastic sheeting.
B. At least one layer of six-mil plastic sheeting must be spread on the ground to extend at least ten feet in all directions from the surface being disturbed or extend at least 20 feet if the structure is more than one story in height, unless an adjacent building or other obstacle interferes. The plastic sheeting must be attached to the side of the building so that no gaps exist between the plastic and the building. The plastic sheeting must be secured in place. The edges of the plastic sheeting must be raised to form a catch basin to protect the ground surface from runoff in the event of precipitation. Ladder feet must not puncture the plastic sheeting unless it is necessary to ensure that the ladder is safely placed in a stable position.
C. If windows, doors, or associated components are to be treated or replaced from the outside, one layer of six-mil plastic sheeting must be attached to the interior wall to cover the window or door opening.
D. All bushes, shrubs, and other vegetation that are four feet tall or less and that are within 20 feet of the work area must be covered with at least one-mil plastic sheeting that is secured in place.
E. Temporary fencing or barrier tape must be erected at a 20-foot perimeter around the work area to keep out unauthorized persons. The barrier distance may be less if the distance to an adjacent building or other obstacle is less than 20 feet.
Subp. 5. Residents.
Residents must not be present in the work area. Residents may return to the work area after daily cleanup is completed.
Subp. 6. Warning signs.
Warning signs as specified in part 4761.2615, item F, must be posted on the building and at the 20-foot perimeter around the work area. The distance may be less if the distance to an adjacent building or other obstacle is less than 20 feet.
Subp. 7. Decontamination procedures.
A. The certified lead firm, lead supervisor, or property owner performing the lead hazard work must provide proper washing facilities for workers to thoroughly wash hands, face, and other exposed body surfaces.
B. If existing facilities are used at the work site to decontaminate, the certified lead firm, lead supervisor, or property owner must:
Subp. 8. Work condition restrictions.
A. Work may not start if wind speeds exceed 20 miles per hour or if it is raining.
B. Work must be discontinued and the work area cleaned according to subpart 9 if wind speeds start to exceed 20 miles per hour or when rain begins.
Subp. 9. Daily and final cleaning procedures.
At the end of each workday and when lead hazard reduction is completed, the certified lead firm, lead supervisor, or property owner must:
A. inspect all work surfaces where lead hazard reduction was conducted and visually determine that no deteriorated paint remains;
B. remove all plastic sheeting on the ground and covering immovable objects and bushes in such a manner as to contain all debris and dispose of the plastic sheeting as lead-contaminated waste. Plastic sheeting may not be reused or left out overnight;
C. if windows, doors, or associated components are treated or replaced and the interior plastic sheeting was breached, clean the interior side of the window or door and floor area using a vacuum with a HEPA filter and wet wipe, or clean using any other EPA-documented methodology under part 4761.2000, subpart 15, item K;
D. if the plastic sheeting on the ground is punctured or otherwise breached, clean the ground of all visible paint debris;
E. inspect all exterior building components with horizontal surfaces that may have been exposed to dust and debris from the lead hazard reduction and clean the surfaces of visible dust and debris using a vacuum with a HEPA filter and wet wipe or clean using any other EPA-documented methodology under part 4761.2000, subpart 15, item K;
F. inspect all ground surfaces on the property, the neighboring property, and any areas used to store equipment and waste materials for visible dust and debris generated by the lead hazard reduction and, if suspect dust and debris is observed, clean the ground surfaces; and
G. conduct clearance inspections according to part 4761.2670.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.9508
- History: 29 SR 531
Minn. R. 4761.2655 Encapsulation of Lead-Based Paint
A. Materials to be used for encapsulation of lead-based paint must meet all documented methodologies and have from the manufacturer of the encapsulant material:
B. Encapsulants must be applied as specified in documented methodologies.
C. A lead risk assessor or lead supervisor must verify that the surface to be encapsulated will successfully pass the patch and adhesion tests described in HUD's Guidelines for the Evaluation and Control of Lead-Based Paint Hazards in Housing (1995). The guidelines are incorporated by reference under part 4761.2000, subpart 15, item H. Preparation of a surface for the patch and adhesion tests does not constitute lead hazard reduction.
D. The property owner or lead supervisor is responsible for determining that the surface to be encapsulated:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.9508
- History: 29 SR 531
Minn. R. 4761.2660 Methods for Lead Hazard Reduction for Soil
A. Bare soil that contains lead in a concentration of at least 100 parts per million but less than 5,000 parts per million must be removed or covered as follows:
B. Bare soil that contains lead in a concentration of at least 5,000 parts per million must be:
C. The lead concentration in any replacement soil must not exceed 25 parts per million according to Minnesota Statutes, section 144.9508, subdivision 2, paragraph (c).
D. Erosion control methods must be used during all lead hazard reduction. The final surface must provide erosion control.
E. If soil is removed and left uncovered, the newly exposed soil must be sampled according to documented methodologies to determine that the lead concentration is below the soil standard under part 4761.2510, subpart 3.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.9508
- History: 29 SR 531
Minn. R. 4761.2665 Storage of Lead-Contaminated Debris
All lead-contaminated debris generated by regulated lead work must be stored as it is generated in a closed container or in sealed plastic bags or sheeting of at least six-mil or equivalent thickness. Containers for lead-contaminated debris that are left on site overnight may not be stored in the residence if occupied. Debris must be stored in a locked and covered dumpster where the cover is securely fastened or stored in a secure area at the end of each working day.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.9508
- History: 29 SR 531
Minn. R. 4761.2670 Clearance Inspections
Subpart 1. General requirements.
A. If lead hazard reduction was ordered by an assessing agency, the assessing agency's lead inspector or lead risk assessor must perform the final clearance inspection.
B. A lead inspector or lead risk assessor who is not directly involved with the lead hazard reduction must conduct all nonordered clearance inspections.
C. A lead sampling technician may do clearance inspections only as specified in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.9501, subdivision 22b.
D. The lead hazard reduction is successfully completed when a clearance inspection is performed according to subparts 2 and 3 and analyses of samples according to subpart 4 demonstrates that the lead levels in part 4761.2510 are not exceeded.
E. A clearance inspection consists of a visual inspection according to subpart 2 and clearance sampling according to subpart 3.
Subp. 2. Visual inspection.
A. A visual determination must be made to determine that no deteriorated paint remains in areas where interior or exterior lead hazard reduction was conducted.
B. After interior lead hazard reduction is complete, all surfaces within the work area, the containment, adjacent areas, areas used as pathways, areas used to store equipment and waste materials, and any area within the affected property that was used for worker decontamination must be free of visible dust, paint chips, and debris. If visible dust and debris is observed, the person performing the lead hazard reduction must be notified that surfaces must be recleaned according to part 4761.2630, subpart 7, items B and C; 4761.2640, subpart 8, items C to F; or 4761.2645, subpart 9. Cleaning must be conducted until no visible dust or debris remains in work areas, containments, adjacent areas, pathways, storage areas, or worker decontamination areas.
C. After exterior lead hazard reduction, the ground surface must be free of visible paint chips. All other above-grade horizontal building surfaces and any area within the affected property that was used for worker decontamination must also be free of visible dust and paint chips. If visible dust, paint chips, or debris is observed, the person performing the lead hazard reduction must be notified that surfaces must be recleaned as specified in part 4761.2650, subpart 9, items E and F.
Subp. 3. Clearance sampling.
A. All dust sampling for clearance purposes must follow documented methodologies.
B. Interior clearance samples must be collected at least one hour after the cleaning procedures in part 4761.2630, subpart 7; 4761.2640, subpart 8; or 4761.2645, subpart 9, are completed.
C. To perform clearance sampling in an affected property where work was conducted as specified in parts 4761.2630 and 4761.2640, dust samples must be collected in the following areas:
D. To perform clearance sampling in a residence where the work was conducted according to part 4761.2645, the dust samples must be collected in the following areas:
E. To perform clearance sampling in a multifamily residence, school, or child-occupied facility where the work was conducted according to part 4761.2630, 4761.2640, or 4761.2645, the dust samples must be collected:
F. To perform clearance sampling after exterior lead hazard reduction was conducted, a composite soil sample must be collected and analyzed from each area of bare soil:
Subp. 4. Clearance results.
A. Soil and single-surface dust sample results must be no greater than the lead levels for soil and dust under part 4761.2510, subparts 2 and 3.
B. Composite dust sample results must be no greater than the dust lead level under part 4761.2510, subpart 2, which is divided by one-half of the number of subsamples that make up the composite sample.
C. If sample results do not meet the standards according to items A and B, the building components or bare soil represented by the failed sample must be recleaned or additional soil removed and retested until clearance levels are met.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.9508
- History: 29 SR 531
Minn. R. 4761.2680 Content of Reports
Subpart 1. General requirements.
Lead inspection reports, lead hazard screen reports, lead risk assessment reports, and clearance inspection reports must contain the following information for the affected property:
A. the date that the lead inspection, lead hazard screen, lead risk assessment, or clearance inspection was performed;
B. the address of the affected property;
C. the date that the affected property was constructed;
D. the apartment or room numbers, if applicable;
E. the name, address, and telephone number of the owner of the affected property;
F. the name, signature, and license number, if applicable, of each lead inspector, lead risk assessor, or lead sampling technician who conducted the lead inspection, lead hazard screen, lead risk assessment, or clearance inspection;
G. if applicable, the name, address, telephone number, and certification number of the certified lead firm, agency, or company employing each lead inspector, lead risk assessor, or lead sampling technician;
H. a statement of the presence and location of any visible or assumed lead-contaminated dust and debris;
I. the testing methods and devices or sampling procedures employed for analyses of lead content, including quality control data and the brand, model, and serial number of the x-ray fluorescence analyzer, if used;
J. identify and specify the locations of each building component, dust, bare soil, and any other material tested for or assumed to contain lead in amounts equal to or greater than the amounts specified in part 4761.2510, subparts 1, 2, and 3;
K. all analytical results including the units of measurement;
L. the name, address, telephone number, and EPA identification number of each laboratory that conducted lead sample analyses;
M. the results of any other inspections or analyses that were used to determine the presence of lead hazards in the affected property and a description of the methods used; and
N. a statement that requires that the actual report or a summary of the report be provided to new purchasers and lessees or tenants as required in Code of Federal Regulations, title 24, section 35.88, and title 40, section 745.107.
Subp. 2. Lead risk assessment reports.
In addition to the information required under subpart 1, lead risk assessment reports must also contain:
A. a description of the location, type, and severity of actual or potential lead hazards;
B. a description of interim controls or abatement options for each actual or potential lead hazard with recommendations for prioritizing reduction of each lead hazard; and
C. a recommended schedule for maintenance and monitoring if using an encapsulant or enclosure. If the manufacturer of the encapsulant or enclosure provides a recommended schedule for maintenance and monitoring, a copy must be included with the report.
Subp. 3. Lead hazard reduction reports.
A lead supervisor or lead project designer, or a property owner who will personally perform lead hazard reduction in or on the owner's property, must prepare a written report for each lead hazard reduction project that includes:
A. the address of the affected property;
B. the start and completion dates of the lead hazard reduction;
C. the name, address, telephone number, and Minnesota certification number of the certified lead firm that participated in the lead hazard reduction project, if applicable;
D. the name of each lead supervisor assigned to the project or the name of the property owner, or adult relative, who performed lead hazard reduction in or on the owner's property;
E. the occupant protection plan;
F. a description of the lead hazard reduction methods used;
G. the location of the rooms or building components where lead hazard reduction occurred;
H. the reasons for selecting particular lead hazard reduction methods for each building component;
I. any suggested monitoring of encapsulants or enclosures;
J. a copy of the clearance inspection report;
K. the date and the signature of the lead supervisor, lead project designer, or property owner who completed the report; and
L. a photocopy of the lead license if a licensed lead supervisor or project designer completed the report.
Subp. 4. Report retention.
A. Reports required under this part must be retained for three years by the person completing the report.
B. The person must notify the commissioner in writing before ceasing operations. The notice must indicate where the reports will be maintained for the required retention time.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.9508
- History: 29 SR 531
Minn. R. 4761.2690 Enforcement
A. Property owners shall comply with lead orders issued under Minnesota Statutes, section 144.9504, subdivision 5, within 60 days of when the order is issued or within 60 days of when weather permits for exterior work. Property owners are subject to enforcement actions if compliance is not met.
B. Parts 4761.2000 to 4761.2700 are subject to the Health Enforcement Consolidation Act, Minnesota Statutes, sections 144.989 to 144.993.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.9508
- History: 29 SR 531
Minn. R. 4761.2700 Variances
The commissioner shall not grant a variance to parts 4761.2000, 4761.2100, 4761.2200, 4761.2220, and 4761.2510. Variances for the remaining rule parts shall be considered only according to the procedures and criteria in parts 4717.7000 to 4717.7050.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 144.9508
- History: 29 SR 531
Chapter 4762 RESPIRATORY CARE PRACTITIONERS
Minn. R. 4762.0010 [Repealed, L 1997 c 120 s 12]
[Repealed, L 1997 c 120 s 12]
Minn. R. 4762.0020 [Repealed, L 1997 c 120 s 12]
[Repealed, L 1997 c 120 s 12]
Minn. R. 4762.0030 [Repealed, L 1997 c 120 s 12]
[Repealed, L 1997 c 120 s 12]
Minn. R. 4762.0040 [Repealed, L 1997 c 120 s 12]
[Repealed, L 1997 c 120 s 12]
Minn. R. 4762.0050 [Repealed, L 1997 c 120 s 12]
[Repealed, L 1997 c 120 s 12]
Minn. R. 4762.0060 [Repealed, L 1997 c 120 s 12]
[Repealed, L 1997 c 120 s 12]
Minn. R. 4762.0065 [Repealed, L 1997 c 120 s 12]
[Repealed, L 1997 c 120 s 12]
Minn. R. 4762.0070 [Repealed, L 1997 c 120 s 12]
[Repealed, L 1997 c 120 s 12]
Minn. R. 4762.0080 [Repealed, L 1997 c 120 s 12]
[Repealed, L 1997 c 120 s 12]
Minn. R. 4762.0090 [Repealed, L 1997 c 120 s 12]
[Repealed, L 1997 c 120 s 12]
Minn. R. 4762.0100 [Repealed, L 1997 c 120 s 12]
[Repealed, L 1997 c 120 s 12]
Minn. R. 4762.0200 [Repealed, L 1997 c 120 s 12]
[Repealed, L 1997 c 120 s 12]
Minn. R. 4762.0300 [Repealed, L 1997 c 120 s 12]
[Repealed, L 1997 c 120 s 12]
Chapter 4763 MEDICAL EDUCATION ASSISTANCE PROGRAMS
Minn. R. 4763.0100 [Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
Minn. R. 4763.0110 [Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
Minn. R. 4763.0120 [Repealed, 25 SR 142]
[Repealed, 25 SR 142]
Minn. R. 4763.0125 [Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
Minn. R. 4763.0130 [Repealed, 25 SR 142]
[Repealed, 25 SR 142]
Minn. R. 4763.0135 [Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
Minn. R. 4763.0140 Repealed by subpart
Subpart 1.
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, 25 SR 142; L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
Subp. 3a.
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
Subp. 4.
[Repealed, 25 SR 142; L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
Subp. 5.
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
Subp. 6.
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
Minn. R. 4763.0150 [Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
Minn. R. 4763.0160 [Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
Minn. R. 4763.0170 [Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
Minn. R. 4763.0180 [Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
Minn. R. 4763.0190 Repealed by subpart
Subpart 1.
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
Subp. 1a.
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, 25 SR 142; L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
Subp. 4.
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
Subp. 4a.
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
Subp. 5.
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
Subp. 6.
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
Minn. R. 4763.0200 [Repealed, 25 SR 142]
[Repealed, 25 SR 142]
Minn. R. 4763.0205 [Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
Minn. R. 4763.0210 [Repealed, 25 SR 142]
[Repealed, 25 SR 142]
Minn. R. 4763.0215 [Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
Minn. R. 4763.0220 Repealed by subpart
Subpart 1.
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, 25 SR 142; L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
Subp. 3a.
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
Subp. 4.
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
Minn. R. 4763.0230 [Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
Minn. R. 4763.0240 [Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
Minn. R. 4763.0250 [Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
Minn. R. 4763.0260 [Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
Minn. R. 4763.0270 Repealed by subpart
Subpart 1.
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
Subp. 1a.
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, 25 SR 142; L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
Subp. 3a.
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
Subp. 4.
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
Subp. 5.
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
Minn. R. 4763.0280 [Repealed, 25 SR 142]
[Repealed, 25 SR 142]
Minn. R. 4763.0285 [Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
Minn. R. 4763.0290 [Repealed, 25 SR 142]
[Repealed, 25 SR 142]
Minn. R. 4763.0295 [Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
Minn. R. 4763.0300 Repealed by subpart
Subpart 1.
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, 25 SR 142; L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
Subp. 3a.
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
Subp. 4.
[Repealed, L 2003 1Sp14 art 7 s 89]
Minn. R. 4763.0310 [Repealed, 31 SR 35]
[Repealed, 31 SR 35]
Minn. R. 4763.0320 [Repealed, 31 SR 35]
[Repealed, 31 SR 35]
Minn. R. 4763.0330 [Repealed, 31 SR 35]
[Repealed, 31 SR 35]
Chapter 4764 HEALTH CARE HOMES
Minn. R. 4764.0010 Applicability and Purpose
Subpart 1. Applicability.
This chapter applies to an eligible provider seeking health care home certification or a certified health care home.
Subp. 2. Purpose.
This chapter establishes the foundational level standards and procedures for certification of health care homes. This chapter also establishes the level 2 and level 3 standards and procedures for certifying health care homes that meet requirements for advanced primary care functions beyond the foundational level.
A. The purpose of the foundational level standards is to require health care homes to deliver services that:
B. The purpose of the level 2 standard is to establish requirements for certified health care homes that choose to achieve certification for performance beyond the foundational level standards. Level 2 standards recognize a health care home's increasing capacity to:
C. The purpose of the level 3 standard is to establish requirements for certified health care homes that choose to achieve certification for performance beyond the foundational and level 2 standards. Level 3 standards recognize a health care home's increasing capacity to:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62U.03; 256B.0751; 256B.0752; 256B.0753
- History: 34 SR 591; 47 SR 338
Minn. R. 4764.0020 Definitions
Subpart 1. Scope.
The terms used in this chapter have the meanings given them in this part.
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, 47 SR 338]
Subp. 3. Care coordination.
"Care coordination" means a team approach that engages the patient, the personal clinician or local trade area clinician, and other members of the health care home team to enhance the patient's well-being by organizing timely access to resources and necessary care that results in continuity of care and builds trust.
Subp. 4.
[Repealed, 47 SR 338]
Subp. 5. Care coordinator.
"Care coordinator" means a person who has primary responsibility to organize and coordinate care with the patient and family in a health care home.
Subp. 6. Care plan.
"Care plan" means an individualized written document, including an electronic document, to guide a patient's care.
Subp. 7.
[Repealed, 47 SR 338]
Subp. 8. Clinic.
"Clinic" means an operational entity through which personal clinicians or local trade area clinicians deliver health care services under a common set of operating policies and procedures using shared staff for administration and support. The operational entity may be a department or unit of a larger organization as long as it is a recognizable subgroup.
Subp. 9. Commissioner.
"Commissioner" means the commissioner of health.
Subp. 10. Commissioners.
"Commissioners" means the commissioners of health and human services.
Subp. 11. Complex condition.
"Complex condition" means one or more medical conditions that require treatment or interventions across a broad scope of medical, social, or mental health services.
Subp. 12.
[Repealed, 47 SR 338]
Subp. 13. Continuous.
"Continuous" means 24 hours per day, seven days per week, 365 days per year.
Subp. 14. Cost-effectiveness.
"Cost-effectiveness" means the measure of a service or medical treatment against a specified health care goal based on quality and cost, including use of resources.
Subp. 15. Direct communication.
"Direct communication" means an exchange of information through the use of telephone, electronic mail, video conferencing, or face-to-face contact without the use of an intermediary. For purposes of this definition, an interpreter is not an intermediary.
Subp. 16. Eligible provider.
"Eligible provider" means a personal clinician, local trade area clinician, or clinic that provides primary care services.
Subp. 17. End-of-life care.
"End-of-life care" means palliative and supportive care and other services provided to terminally ill patients and their families to meet the physical, nutritional, emotional, social, spiritual, cultural, and special needs experienced during the final stages of illness, dying, and bereavement.
Subp. 18. Evidence-based practice.
"Evidence-based practice " means the integration of best research evidence with clinical expertise and patient values.
Subp. 19. External care plan.
"External care plan" means a care plan created for a patient by an entity outside of the health care home such as a school-based individualized education program, a case management plan, a behavioral health plan, or a hospice plan.
Subp. 20. Family.
A. For a patient who is 18 years of age or older, "family" means:
B. For a patient who is under the age of 18, "family" means:
Subp. 21. Health care home.
"Health care home" means a clinic, personal clinician, or local trade area clinician that is certified under this chapter.
Subp. 22. Health care home learning collaborative or collaborative.
A "health care home learning collaborative" or "collaborative" means an organization established under Minnesota Statutes, section 256B.0751, subdivision 5, in which health care home team members and patients and other organizations that provide health care and community-based services to work together in a structured way to improve the quality of their services by learning and sharing experiences.
Subp. 22a. Health care home services.
"Health care home services" means accessible, continuous, comprehensive, and coordinated care that is delivered in the context of family and community, and furthers patient-centered care.
Subp. 23. Health care home team or care team.
"Health care home team" or "care team" means a group of health care professionals who plan and deliver patient care in a coordinated way through a health care home in collaboration with a patient. The care team includes at least a personal clinician or local trade area clinician and the care coordinator and may include other members and health professionals based on the patient's needs.
Subp. 23a. Health disparities.
"Health disparities" means preventable differences in the burden of disease, injury, violence, or opportunities to achieve optimal health that are experienced by socially disadvantaged populations.
Subp. 23b. Health equity.
"Health equity" means achieving the conditions in which all people have the opportunity to attain their highest possible level of health.
Subp. 23c. Health inequities.
"Health inequities" are avoidable inequalities in health between groups of people within countries and between countries.
Subp. 23d. Health literacy.
"Health literacy" means the degree to which individuals have the capacity to obtain, process, and understand basic health information and services needed to make appropriate health decisions.
Subp. 23e. Integrated care.
"Integrated care" means a team-based model of care, based on the representatives of different disciplines and their expertise, to care for a shared population. The team collaborates with the patient and the patient's family to develop a shared plan of care that reflects patient-centered health outcomes and preferences.
Subp. 24. Local trade area clinician.
"Local trade area clinician" means a physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse who provides primary care services outside of Minnesota in the local trade area of a state health care program recipient and maintains compliance with the licensing and certification requirements of the state where the clinician is located. For purposes of this subpart, "local trade area" has the meaning given in part 9505.0175, subpart 22.
Subp. 24a. Minnesota statewide quality reporting and measurement system.
"Minnesota statewide quality reporting and measurement system" means a system created through chapter 4654 that requires physician clinics and hospitals to submit data on a set of quality measures and establishes a standardized set of quality measures for health care providers across the state.
Subp. 25. Outcome.
"Outcome" means a measurement of improvement, maintenance, or decline as it relates to patient health, patient experience, or measures of cost-effectiveness in a health care home.
Subp. 26. Patient.
"Patient" means a person and, where applicable, the person's family, who has elected to receive care through a health care home.
Subp. 27. Patient and family-centered care.
"Patient and family-centered care" means planning, delivering, and evaluating health care through patient-driven, shared decision-making that is based on participation, cooperation, trust, and respect of patient perspectives and choices. It also incorporates the patient's knowledge, values, beliefs, and cultural background into care planning and delivery. Patient and family-centered care applies to patients of all ages.
Subp. 27a. Patient engagement.
"Patient engagement" means a concept that combines a patient's knowledge, skills, ability, and willingness to manage the patient's care with interventions and strategies designed to promote active and competent participation.
Subp. 28. Personal clinician.
"Personal clinician" means a physician licensed under Minnesota Statutes, chapter 147, a physician assistant licensed and practicing under Minnesota Statutes, chapter 147A, or an advanced practice nurse licensed and registered to practice under Minnesota Statutes, chapter 148.
Subp. 28a. Population health.
"Population health" means the health outcomes of a group of individuals, including the distribution of health outcomes within the group.
Subp. 28b. Population health improvement.
"Population health improvement" means efforts to improve health, well-being, and equity for a defined population or a group of people who live in a geographically defined area such as a neighborhood, city, or county.
Subp. 29. Preventive care.
"Preventive care" means disease prevention and health maintenance. It includes screening, early identification, counseling, treatment, and education to prevent health problems.
Subp. 30.
[Repealed, 47 SR 338]
Subp. 31. Primary care.
"Primary care" means overall and ongoing medical responsibility for a patient's comprehensive care for preventive care and a full range of acute and chronic conditions, including end-of-life care when appropriate.
Subp. 32. Primary care services patient population.
"Primary care services patient population" means all of the patients who are receiving primary care services from the health care home.
Subp. 33.
[Repealed, 47 SR 338]
Subp. 34. Shared decision making.
"Shared decision making" means the mutual exchange of information between the patient and the provider or delegated care team member to assist with understanding the risks, benefits, and likely outcomes of available health care options so the patient and family or primary caregiver are able to actively participate in decision making.
Subp. 34a. Social determinants of health.
"Social determinants of health" are the conditions in which people are born, grow, live, work, and age. The distribution of money, power, and resources at global, national, and local levels shapes these circumstances. The social determinants of health are mostly responsible for health inequities, which are the unfair and avoidable differences in health status seen within and between countries.
Subp. 35. Specialist.
"Specialist" means a health care provider or other person with specialized health training who may be available on-site as part of the health care home care team or outside of the health care home. This includes traditional medical specialties and subspecialties. It also means individuals with special training such as chiropractic, mental health, nutrition, pharmacy, social work, health education, or other community-based services.
Subp. 36.
[Repealed, L 2022 c 55 art 1 s 187]
Subp. 37.
[Repealed, 47 SR 338]
Subp. 38. Variance.
"Variance" means a specified alternative or an exemption from compliance to a requirement in this chapter granted by the commissioner according to the requirements of part 4764.0050.
Subp. 39. Whole person care.
"Whole person care" means primary care focused on the patient's physical, emotional, psychological, and spiritual well-being, as well as cultural, linguistic, and social needs, including needs related to communities in which patients self-identify.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62U.03; 256B.0751; 256B.0752; 256B.0753
- History: 34 SR 591; L 2011 1Sp11 art 3 s 12; 47 SR 338; 47 SR 557
Minn. R. 4764.0030 Certification and Recertification Procedures
Subpart 1. Eligibility for certification.
A. An eligible provider, supported by a care team and systems according to the requirements in part 4764.0040, may apply for certification as a health care home.
B. A clinic will be certified only if all of the clinic's personal clinicians and local trade area clinicians meet the requirements for participation in the health care home. It is the clinic's responsibility to orient new clinicians and staff to the health care home's care delivery approach.
Subp. 2. Contents of application.
The eligible provider must submit the following to the commissioner:
A. a completed self-assessment prescribed by the commissioner and made available on the Department of Health website that describes how the eligible provider meets the requirements in part 4764.0040;
B. a completed application prescribed by the commissioner and made available on the Department of Health website; and
C. any other information required by the commissioner to show that the eligible provider meets the standards for certification or recertification.
Subp. 3. On-site review and additional documentation.
The commissioner may conduct an on-site review and may request additional documentation to determine whether the eligible provider or health care home complies with certification or recertification requirements.
Subp. 4. Completed application for certification.
An application for certification or recertification is complete when the commissioner has received all information in subpart 2; the on-site review, if any, has been completed; and the commissioner has received any additional documentation requested under subpart 3.
Subp. 5. How to seek recertification.
To retain certification, a health care home must indicate its intent to be recertified in the manner prescribed by the commissioner no later than 60 days before the three-year anniversary of its last certification or recertification and do the following:
A. continue to meet the requirements for initial certification;
B. meet the recertification requirements for each health care home standard in part 4764.0040, and the requirement that the health care home achieves outcomes in its primary care services patient population for patient health, patient experience, and cost-effectiveness as established by the commissioner under subpart 6; and
C. continue to meet the requirements for level 2 and level 3 certification, if applicable.
Subp. 5a. How to seek certification as a level 2 or level 3 health care home.
The eligible provider or health care home may indicate its intent to seek level 2 or level 3 certification at the time of certification or at any time following certification as a health care home in the manner prescribed by the commissioner. The eligible provider or health care home must demonstrate how they have met the level 2 or level 3 requirements according to part 4764.0040 and do the following:
A. meet all foundational level certification and recertification requirements;
B. address how the health care home is working to resolve any outstanding requirements and corrective action plans, if applicable; and
C. if requested, participate in an on-site review and provide additional information or documentation necessary for the commissioner to make the determination that the health care home should be certified at level 2 or level 3.
Subp. 6. Benchmarks.
The commissioner must announce benchmarks for patient health, patient experience, and cost-effectiveness annually. The benchmarks must be based on one or more of the following factors:
A. an improvement over time as reflected by a comparison of data measuring quality submitted by the health care home in the current year to data submitted in prior years;
B. a comparison of data measuring quality submitted by the health care home to data submitted by other health care homes;
C. standards established by state or federal law;
D. best practices recommended by a scientifically based outcomes development organization;
E. measures established by a national accrediting body or professional association; and
F. additional measures that improve the quality or enhance the use of data currently being collected.
Subp. 7. Notice of decision and timelines.
A. The commissioner must notify an eligible provider or health care home in writing regarding whether the eligible provider or health care home is certified or recertified as a health care home or certified at level 2 or level 3 within 90 days after receiving a completed application.
B. If the commissioner denies the application for certification or recertification, the commissioner must notify the eligible provider or health care home in writing of the reasons for the denial. The eligible provider or health care home may file an appeal under part 4764.0060.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62U.03; 256B.0751; 256B.0752; 256B.0753
- History: 34 SR 591; 47 SR 338
Minn. R. 4764.0040 Health Care Home Standards
Subpart 1. Access and communication standard; certification requirements.
The health care home must have a system in place to support effective communication among the members of the health care home team, the patient and family, other providers, and care team members. The health care home must do the following:
A. offer health care home services to all of the primary care services population that includes:
B. establish a system designed to ensure that:
C. collect information about patients' cultural background, racial heritage, and primary language and describe how the health care home will apply this information to improve care;
D. document that the health care home is using the patient's preferred means of communication, if that means of communication is available within the health care home's capability;
E. inform patients that the patient may choose a specialty care resource without regard to whether a specialist is a member of the same provider group or network as the patient's health care home, and that the patient is then responsible for determining whether specialty care resources are covered by the patient's insurance; and
F. maintain policies and procedures that establish privacy and security protections of health information and comply with applicable privacy and confidentiality laws.
Subp. 2. Access and communication standard; recertification requirements.
The health care home must demonstrate that the health care home encourages patients to take an active role in managing their health care, and must demonstrate patient involvement and communication by identifying and responding to one of the following: the patient's readiness for change, literacy level, or other barriers to learning.
Subp. 2a. Access and communication standard; level 2 certification requirements.
The health care home must demonstrate:
A. incorporating screening processes to assess whole person care needs and use this information to determine risk and manage patient care;
B. offering options beyond the traditional in-person office visit such as expanded hours of operation, electronic virtual visits, delivery of services in locations other than the clinic setting, and other efforts that increase patient access to the health care home team and that enhance the health care home's ability to meet the patient's preventative, acute, and chronic care needs;
C. implementing care delivery strategies responsive to the patient's social, cultural, and linguistic needs; and
D. implementing enhanced strategies to encourage patient engagement through interventions that support health literacy and help the patient manage chronic diseases, reduce risk factors, and address overall health and wellness.
Subp. 3. Patient registry and tracking patient care activity standard; certification requirements.
The health care home must use a searchable, electronic registry to record patient information and track patient care.
A. The registry must enable the health care home team to conduct systematic reviews of the health care home's patient population to manage health care services, provide appropriate follow-up, and identify any gaps in care.
B. The registry must contain:
C. The health care home must use the registry to identify gaps in care and implement remedies to prevent gaps in care.
Subp. 3a. Registry and tracking standard; level 2 certification requirements.
The health care home must demonstrate:
A. expanding registry criteria to identify needs related to social determinants of health and other whole person care data elements in the clinic population; and
B. planning and implementing interventions to address unmet needs identified by the expanded registry.
Subp. 4.
[Repealed, 47 SR 338]
Subp. 5. Care coordination standard; certification requirements.
The health care home must adopt a system of care coordination that promotes patient and family-centered care through the following steps:
A. collaboration within the health care home, including the patient, care coordinator, and personal clinician or local trade area clinician as follows:
B. uses health care home teams to provide and coordinate patient care, including communication and collaboration with specialists. If a health care home team includes more than one personal clinician or local trade area clinician, or more than one care coordinator, the health care home must identify one personal clinician or local trade area clinician and one care coordinator as the primary contact for each patient and inform the patient of this designation;
C. provides for direct communication in which routine, face-to-face discussions take place between the personal clinician or local trade area clinician and the care coordinator;
D. provides the care coordinator with dedicated time to perform care coordination responsibilities; and
E. documents the following elements of care coordination in the patient's chart or care plan:
Subp. 6. Care coordination standard; recertification requirements.
The health care home must enhance the health care home's care coordination system by adopting and implementing the following additional patient- and family-centered principles:
A. ensure that patients are given the opportunity to fully engage in care planning and shared decision-making regarding the patient's care, and that the health care home solicits and documents the patient's feedback regarding the patient's role in the patient's care;
B. identify and work with community-based organizations and public health resources such as disability and aging services, social services, transportation services, school-based services, and home health care services to facilitate the availability of appropriate resources for patients;
C. permit and encourage professionals within the health care home team to practice at a level that fully uses the professionals' training and skills; and
D. engage patients in planning for transitions among providers, and between life stages such as the transition from childhood to adulthood.
Subp. 6a. Care coordination standard; level 2 certification requirements.
For the primary care services patient population, the health care home must demonstrate:
A. providing and coordinating care using an integrated care team;
B. supporting ongoing coordination of care and follow-up with partners by sharing information; and
C. implementing processes to improve care transitions that reduce readmission, adverse events, and unnecessary emergency department utilization.
Subp. 7. Care plan standard; certification requirements.
The health care home must establish and implement policies and procedures to guide the health care home in the identification and use of care plan strategies to engage patients in their care and to support self-management. These strategies must include:
A. providing patients with information from their personal clinician or local trade area clinician visit that includes relevant clinical details, health maintenance and preventative care instructions, and chronic condition monitoring instructions, including indicated early intervention steps and plans for managing exacerbations, as applicable;
B. offering documentation of any collaboratively developed patient-centered goals and action steps, including resources and supports needed to achieve these goals, when applicable. Include pertinent information related to whole person care needs or other determinants of health;
C. using advanced care planning processes to discuss palliative care, end-of-life care, and complete health care directives, when applicable. This includes providing the care team with information about the presence of a health care directive and providing a copy for the patient and family; and
D. informing strategies with evidence-based practice guidelines when available.
Subp. 8. Care plan standard; recertification requirements.
The health care home must integrate pertinent medical, medical specialty, quality of life, behavioral health, social services, community-based services, and other external care plans into care planning strategies to meet unique needs and circumstances of the patient.
Subp. 9. Performance reporting and quality improvement standard; certification requirements.
The health care home must measure the health care home's performance and engage in a quality improvement process, focusing on patient experience, patient health, and measuring the cost-effectiveness of services, by doing the following:
A. establishing a health care home quality improvement team that reflects the structure of the clinic and includes, at a minimum, the following persons at the clinic level:
B. establishing procedures for the health care home quality improvement team to share their work and elicit feedback from health care home team members and other staff regarding quality improvement activities;
C. demonstrating capability in performance measurement by showing that the health care home has measured, analyzed, and tracked changes in at least one quality indicator selected by the health care home based upon the opportunity for improvement;
D. participating in the health care home learning collaborative through care team members that reflect the structure of the clinic and may include the following:
E. establishing procedures for representatives of the health care home to share information learned through the collaborative and elicit feedback from health care home team members and other staff regarding information.
Subp. 10. Performance reporting and quality improvement standard; recertification requirements.
The health care home must:
A. participate in the Minnesota statewide quality reporting and measurement system by submitting outcomes for the quality indicators identified and in the manner prescribed by the commissioner;
B. show that the health care home has selected at least one quality indicator from each of the following categories and has measured, analyzed, and tracked those indicators during the previous year:
C. submit health care homes data in the manner prescribed by the commissioner to fulfill the health care homes evaluation requirements in Minnesota Statutes, section 256B.0752, subdivision 2; and
D. achieve the benchmarks for patient health, patient experience, and cost-effectiveness established under part 4764.0030, subpart 6, for the health care home's outcomes in its primary care services patient population.
Subp. 11.
[Repealed, 47 SR 338]
Subp. 12. Performance reporting and quality improvement standard; level 2 certification requirements.
The health care home must demonstrate:
A. using information and population health data about the community served to inform organizational strategies and quality improvement plans;
B. measuring, analyzing, tracking, and addressing health disparities within the clinic population through continuous improvement processes;
C. establishing procedures for sharing work on health equity and eliciting feedback from the health care home team and other staff regarding these activities; and
D. recruiting, promoting, and supporting patient representation to the health care home quality improvement team that reflects the diversity of the patient population.
Subp. 13. Performance reporting and quality improvement standard; level 3 certification requirements.
The health care home must contribute to a coordinated community health needs assessment and population health improvement planning process by:
A. sharing aggregated information or de-identified data that describes health issues and inequities;
B. prioritizing population health issues in the community and planning for population health improvement in collaboration with community stakeholders;
C. implementing and monitoring progress of the population health improvement plan using shared goals and responsibility; and
D. sharing in the communication and dissemination of work on population health improvement and eliciting feedback from the community members and health care home staff regarding these activities.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62U.03; 256B.0751; 256B.0752; 256B.0753
- History: 34 SR 591; 47 SR 338; 47 SR 557
Minn. R. 4764.0050 Variance
Subpart 1. Criteria for variance.
At certification or recertification, the health care home may request a variance or the renewal of a variance from a requirement in parts 4764.0010 to 4764.0040. To request a variance, a health care home must submit a petition, according to the requirements of Minnesota Statutes, section 14.056, and demonstrate that the health care home meets the criteria in item A or B.
A. If the commissioner finds that the application of the requirements, as applied to the circumstances of the health care home, would not serve any of the rule's purposes, the commissioner must grant a variance.
B. If the commissioner finds that failure to grant the variance would result in hardship or injustice to the health care home, the variance would be consistent with the public interest, and the variance would not prejudice the substantial legal or economic rights of any person or entity, the commissioner may grant a variance.
Subp. 2. Conditions and duration.
The commissioner may impose conditions on the granting of a variance according to Minnesota Statutes, section 14.055. The commissioner may limit the duration of a variance and may renew a variance.
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, 47 SR 338]
Subp. 4. Variance for seeking better solutions and testing new methods.
The commissioner may grant a variance from one or more requirements to permit a health care home to offer health care home services of a type or in a manner that is innovative or to participate in a health care home research project that contributes to innovation and improvement of care if the commissioner finds that the variance does not impede the achievement of the criteria in Minnesota Statutes, section 256B.0751, subdivision 2, paragraph (a), and may improve the health care home services.
Subp. 5. Variance for justifiable failure to show measurable improvement.
The commissioner may grant a variance to a health care home seeking recertification that fails to show measurable improvement as required by parts 4764.0030, subpart 5, item B, and 4764.0040, subpart 10, if the health care home demonstrates the following:
A. a reasonable justification for the health care home's inability to show required measurable improvement; and
B. a plan to achieve measurable improvement in the following year or a shorter time period identified by the commissioner.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62U.03; 256B.0751; 256B.0752; 256B.0753
- History: 34 SR 591; 47 SR 338
Minn. R. 4764.0060 Appeals
Subpart 1. Denial of certification or recertification and time for appeal.
The commissioner must notify an eligible provider or health care home in writing of the reasons for denial of an application for certification or recertification. An eligible provider or health care home has 30 days from the date of receiving notice of the decision to appeal the decision.
Subp. 2. How to appeal.
The eligible provider or health care home may appeal by submitting either item A or B, or both:
A. a written statement of the eligible provider's or health care home's grounds for disputing the commissioner's decision; or
B. a corrective action plan that describes the following specific actions for improvement:
Subp. 3. Request for meeting.
Upon request, an eligible provider or health care home is entitled to a meeting with the commissioner's designee to discuss disputed facts and findings, present the eligible provider's or health care home's corrective action plan, or both.
Subp. 4. Notice of decision and timeline.
The commissioner must grant or deny the appeal and notify the eligible provider or health care home of the decision within 60 days after receipt of a completed appeal, or, if the eligible provider or health care home meets with the commissioner's designee, within 60 days after the meeting.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62U.03; 256B.0751; 256B.0752; 256B.0753
- History: 34 SR 591; 47 SR 338
Minn. R. 4764.0070 Revocation, Reinstatement, Surrender, Recognition of External Accrediting Bodies and Patient-Centered Medical Home Programs, and Provisional Certification and Recertification
Subpart 1. Revocation.
If the commissioner denies an appeal or a health care home fails to appeal the commissioner's decision to deny recertification, the provider will no longer be certified as a health care home.
Subp. 2. Reinstatement of revocation.
A provider whose certification as a health care home has been revoked may apply for reinstatement. If the provider was previously certified for three years or longer at the time of revocation, it must meet the recertification requirements to be reinstated. The provider may obtain technical or program assistance from the Minnesota Department of Health and through a health care home learning collaborative to assist the provider to regain certification. The provider also may choose to provisionally reinstate their certification as outlined in subpart 7.
Subp. 3. Surrender.
A health care home that surrenders the health care home certification must provide the commissioner and the health care home patients with written notice. After the written notice is provided, a provider that has surrendered health care home certification is no longer certified as a health care home.
Subp. 4. Reinstatement of surrendered certification.
A provider whose certification as a health care home has been surrendered may apply for reinstatement. Health care home certification must be reinstated upon receipt of the application and will be held in a provisional status until the health care home's recertification. The provider may choose to complete this recertification at any time within the recertification cycle to have their provisional status removed.
Subp. 5. Recognition of other certification programs or accrediting bodies.
The commissioner shall grant health care home certification to providers who have achieved certification or accreditation from other state or national bodies that is consistent with the certification standards in part 4764.0040.
Subp. 6. Provisional certification.
Clinics that are experiencing barriers or challenges to certification at the foundational level may request provisional certification. During the time of provisional certification that must not last longer than three years, the provider must work with the Department of Health to develop an action plan outlining a modified or "stepped" certification process. Upon completion of the modified or stepped certification process, the provisional status will be removed. The provider may obtain technical or program assistance from the Department of Health and through a health care home learning collaborative to assist the provider in gaining certification.
Subp. 7. Provisional recertification.
Clinics that are experiencing barriers or challenges to recertification may request provisional recertification. During the time of provisional recertification that must not last longer than three years, the provider must work with the Department of Health to develop an action plan outlining a modified or "stepped" recertification process. Upon completion of the modified or stepped recertification process, the provisional status shall be removed. The provider may obtain technical or program assistance from the Department of Health and through a health care home learning collaborative to assist the provider in gaining recertification.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62U.03; 256B.0751; 256B.0752; 256B.0753
- History: 34 SR 591; 47 SR 338; 47 SR 557
Chapter 4765 BASKETS OF CARE
Minn. R. 4765.0010 Applicability
This chapter applies to all providers and payers that voluntarily enter into an agreement to provide or purchase services under Minnesota Statutes, section 62U.05.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62U.05; 62U.06
- History: 34 SR 1259
Minn. R. 4765.0020 Definitions
Subpart 1. Scope.
For purposes of this chapter, the following terms have the meanings given them in this part.
Subp. 2. Health care provider.
"Health care provider" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 62U.01, subdivision 10.
Subp. 3. Payer.
"Payer" means a health plan company as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 62U.01, subdivision 8, an employer, an individual, or a third-party administrator, as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 60A.23, subdivision 13.
Subp. 4. State-designated basket of care; basket.
"State-designated basket of care" or "basket" means a collection of health care services identified in one of the eight appendices, A to H of the State-Designated Baskets of Care: Appendices to Minnesota Administrative Rules, Chapter 4765, in part 4765.0040, as incorporated by reference in part 4765.0040. The eight baskets of care are:
A. asthma care for children: ambulatory care of asthma in children ages five to 18 years;
B. diabetes: medically uncomplicated type 2 diabetes;
C. diabetes: prediabetes;
D. low back pain: acute episode of low back pain;
E. obstetric care: prenatal care;
F. preventive care for adults: preventive care assessment, recommendations, and referrals in adults;
G. preventive care for children ages two years and under; and
H. total knee replacement. A collection of services and outcomes may only be identified as a state-designated basket of care if it contains all of the health care services listed in appendices A to H of the State-Designated Baskets of Care: Appendices to Minnesota Administrative Rules, Chapter 4765, in part 4765.0040. A collection of services that includes additional services or outcomes not listed in appendices A to H must not be identified as a state-designated basket of care.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62U.05; 62U.06
- History: 34 SR 1259
Minn. R. 4765.0030 Duties of Providers That Offer State-Designated Baskets of Care
Subpart 1. Uniform pricing.
A. Beginning January 1, 2010, a health care provider or group of providers that has established a price for a state-designated basket of care must not vary the payment amount that the provider accepts as full payment for that basket based upon:
B. This subpart applies only to state-designated baskets of care provided in Minnesota to Minnesota residents or to non-Minnesota residents who obtain health insurance through a Minnesota employer.
C. This subpart does not:
Subp. 2. Registration and reports to commissioner.
A provider or group of providers that offers a state-designated basket of care must register with the commissioner or the commissioner's designee. The registration must include the uniform price for each basket that the provider or group of providers offers, and the name, address, telephone number, and email address of a contact person for each basket. The provider or group of providers must submit this information at least annually or whenever the uniform price changes, whichever occurs first.
Subp. 3. Baskets of care offered.
A provider or group of providers may offer one or more baskets of care listed in part 4765.0020, subpart 4.
Subp. 4. Quality reporting.
A provider or group of providers that offers a state-designated basket of care must submit to the commissioner or the commissioner's designee the quality measures as described in appendices A to H of the State-Designated Baskets of Care: Appendices to Minnesota Administrative Rules, Chapter 4765, in part 4765.0040, for each basket that it offers. Quality measures must be calculated only for those patients who participate in a basket. Quality measures submitted under this subpart must not include individually identifiable health information on the individuals accessing health care services through the baskets of care. Quality measures must be submitted on the same schedule in chapter 4654, unless otherwise required by appendices A to H.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62U.05; 62U.06
- History: 34 SR 1259
Minn. R. 4765.0040 Incorporation by Reference
State-Designated Baskets of Care: Appendices to Minnesota Administrative Rules, Chapter 4765, issued by the Minnesota Department of Health, March 2010, are incorporated by reference. They are available through the Minitex interlibrary loan system and the Minnesota Department of Health website at http://www.health.state.mn.us/healthreform/baskets/. They are not subject to frequent change.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 62U.05; 62U.06
- History: 34 SR 1259
Chapter 4770 MEDICAL CANNABIS
Minn. R. 4770.0100 Applicability and Purpose
Parts 4770.0200 to 4770.2700 establish the criteria and procedures to be used by the commissioner for the registration and oversight of a medical cannabis manufacturer.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389; 152.25; 152.26
- History: 39 SR 1080
Minn. R. 4770.0200 Definitions
Subpart 1. Scope.
The terms used in this chapter have the meanings given them in this part.
Subp. 2. Acceptable performance or acceptable results.
"Acceptable performance" or "acceptable results" means analytical test results generated by a laboratory using methods as specified in part 4770.2000 that are acceptable and allowed by the approved provider.
Subp. 3. Approval.
"Approval" means acknowledgment by the commissioner that a laboratory has the policies, personnel, validation procedures, and practices to produce reliable data in the analysis of analytes and contaminants described in part 4770.1900.
Subp. 4. Approved provider.
"Approved provider" means a provider of performance testing samples that the commissioner has determined:
A. provides an adequate volume of samples to perform statistically valid analyses;
B. calculates the number of standard deviations of the mean allowed using the results of all laboratories submitting test results after the exclusion of outlying values; and
C. allows a range of standard deviations of the mean no less stringent than the range allowed by the general requirements for the competency of reference material producers in ISO Guide 34.
Subp. 5. Audit.
"Audit" means a financial review by an independent certified public accountant that includes select scope engagement or other methods of review that analyze operational or compliance issues.
Subp. 5a. Audit sample.
"Audit sample" means a representative sample necessary to complete audit testing of plant material, a dried raw cannabis batch, or a dried raw cannabis finished good collected for audit testing under part 4770.3035.
Subp. 6. Batch.
A. "Batch" means a specific quantity of medical cannabis, including a set of plants of the same variety of medical cannabis that have been grown, harvested, and processed together and exposed to substantially similar conditions throughout cultivation and processing, that:
B. A batch of dried raw cannabis may not exceed 80 pounds.
Subp. 7. Batch number.
"Batch number" means a unique numeric or alphanumeric identifier assigned to a batch by a manufacturing facility when the batch is first planted. The batch number must contain the manufacturing facility number and a sequence to allow for inventory and traceability.
Subp. 7a. Batch sample.
"Batch sample" means a representative sample taken from a batch of dried raw cannabis prior to laboratory testing.
Subp. 8. Biosecurity.
"Biosecurity" means a set of preventative measures designed to reduce the risk of transmission of:
A. infectious diseases in crops;
B. quarantined pests;
C. invasive alien species; and
D. living modified organisms.
Subp. 8a. CBD.
"CBD" means the compound cannabidiol, CAS number 13956-29-1.
Subp. 8b. CBDA.
"CBDA" means cannabidiolic acid, CAS number 1244-58-2.
Subp. 9. Certified financial audit.
"Certified financial audit" means the annual financial audit required under Minnesota Statutes, section 152.37, subdivision 2.
Subp. 9a. Chemical composition.
"Chemical composition" means the distribution of individual components within a final formulation or finished good. This includes active ingredients, inactive ingredients, and other ingredients. Active ingredients include cannabinoids used to define a finished good in the registered products list. The concentration of each active ingredient may be given either in terms of milligram per milliliter (mg/mL) for liquids and milligram per gram (mg/g) for solids or in terms of mass fraction (weight percentage).
Subp. 10. Commissioner.
"Commissioner" means the commissioner of the Department of Health or the commissioner's designee.
Subp. 10a. Crop input.
"Crop input" means a substance other than water that is applied to or used in the cultivation of a cannabis plant for pest control, plant health, or growth management. Crop input includes pesticides, fungicides, plant regulators, fertilizers, and other agricultural chemicals regulated by the Minnesota Department of Agriculture.
Subp. 11. Disqualifying felony offense.
"Disqualifying felony offense" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 152.22, subdivision 3.
Subp. 12. Distribute or distribution.
"Distribute" or "distribution" means the delivery of medical cannabis to a patient, the patient's parent or legal guardian, or the patient's registered caregiver that is packaged in a suitable container appropriately labeled for subsequent administration to or use by a patient who is participating in the registry program and who is authorized to receive medical cannabis.
Subp. 13. Distribution facility.
"Distribution facility" means any building or grounds of a medical cannabis manufacturer where the sale and distribution of medical cannabis and medical cannabis products are authorized.
Subp. 14. Diversion.
"Diversion" means the intentional transfer of medical cannabis to a person other than a patient, the patient's designated registered caregiver, or the patient's parent or legal guardian if the parent or legal guardian is listed on the registry verification.
Subp. 14a. Dried raw cannabis.
"Dried raw cannabis" means the dried leaves and flowers of the mature cannabis plant. Dried raw cannabis includes pre-rolled cannabis as long as the pre-roll consists of only dried cannabis leaves and flowers, an unflavored rolling paper, and a filter or tip. Dried raw cannabis does not include the cannabis seeds, seedlings, stems, stalks, roots, or any part of the immature cannabis plant.
Subp. 15. Field of testing.
"Field of testing" means the combination of product type and analyte for which a laboratory has applied or received approval by the commissioner.
Subp. 16. Financial interest.
"Financial interest" means any actual or future right to ownership, investment, or compensation arrangement in a medical cannabis manufacturer with another person, either directly or indirectly, through business, investment, or spouse, parent, or child relationship. Financial interest does not include ownership of investment securities in a publicly held corporation that is traded on a national exchange or over-the-counter market, provided the investment securities held by the person or the person's spouse, parent, or child, in the aggregate, do not exceed one percent ownership in the medical cannabis manufacturer.
Subp. 16a. Finished good.
"Finished good" means either an extract formulation that has been packaged and labeled for delivery to a medical cannabis distribution facility for distribution to patients or dried raw cannabis that has been packaged and labeled for delivery to a medical cannabis distribution facility.
Subp. 16b. Flower.
"Flower" means the flower of the cannabis plant.
Subp. 17. Health care practitioner.
"Health care practitioner" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 152.22, subdivision 4.
Subp. 17a. Immature plant.
"Immature plant" means a nonflowering cannabis plant that is no taller than eight inches and no wider than eight inches produced from a cutting, clipping, or seedling and is in a cultivation container.
Subp. 18. Inspection.
"Inspection" means an on-site evaluation of laboratory facilities, records, personnel, equipment, methodology, and quality assurance practices by the commissioner for compliance with this chapter.
Subp. 19. International Standards Organization or ISO.
The "International Standards Organization" or "ISO" means an independent, nongovernmental membership organization and the largest developer of voluntary international standards.
Subp. 19a. Labeling.
"Labeling" means all labels and other written, printed, or graphic matter on a packaged finished good or any container or wrapper accompanying the packaged finished good.
Subp. 20. Laboratory managing agent.
"Laboratory managing agent" means a person, as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 326.71, subdivision 8, who is legally authorized to direct the activities of the laboratory and commit sufficient resources to comply with parts 4770.1900 to 4770.2400.
Subp. 21. Laboratory.
"Laboratory" means a fixed-based or mobile structure, a person, corporation, or other entity, including a government or tribal entity, that examines, analyzes, or tests samples.
Subp. 22. Laboratory owner.
"Laboratory owner" means a person who:
A. is a sole proprietor of a laboratory;
B. holds a partnership interest in a laboratory; or
C. owns five percent or more of the shares in a corporation that owns a laboratory.
Subp. 23. Laboratory technical manager.
"Laboratory technical manager" means a person who is scientifically responsible to ensure the achievement and maintenance of quality and analytical standards or practice and who is in a supervisory, lead worker, or similarly named position within an organization.
Subp. 24. Manufacturing or manufacture.
"Manufacturing" or "manufacture" means the planting, cultivation, growing, and harvesting of cannabis and the process of converting harvested cannabis plant material into medical cannabis.
Subp. 25. Manufacturing facility.
"Manufacturing facility" means any secured building, space, grounds, and physical structure of a medical cannabis manufacturer for the cultivation, harvesting, packaging, and processing of medical cannabis and where access is restricted to designated employees of a medical cannabis manufacturer and escorted visitors.
Subp. 26. Medical cannabis.
"Medical cannabis" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 152.22, subdivision 6.
Subp. 26a. Medical cannabis brand name.
"Medical cannabis brand name" means the name under which a medical cannabis concentrate, a medical cannabis concentrate formulation, or a dried raw cannabis product is marketed and distributed.
Subp. 26b. Medical cannabis concentrate.
"Medical cannabis concentrate" means a specific subset of medical cannabis that is produced by extracting cannabinoids from plant material. Categories of medical cannabis concentrate include products created using water-based, solvent-based, heat-based, or pressure-based extraction methods. Medical cannabis concentrate includes medical cannabis concentrate intended for use with a vaporizer delivery device or pressurized dose inhaler.
Subp. 26c. Medical cannabis concentrate formulation.
"Medical cannabis concentrate formulation" means a liquid, including oil, a pill, or any other formulation type approved by the commissioner under Minnesota Statutes, sections 152.22, subdivision 6, paragraph (a), and 152.27, subdivision 2, paragraph (b), infused with medical cannabis and other ingredients that will be packaged into a finished good without further change and is intended for use or consumption other than by smoking. Medical cannabis concentrate formulation includes oral suspensions, tinctures, lotions, ointments, and any other medical cannabis delivery method approved by the commissioner.
Subp. 27. Medical cannabis manufacturer or manufacturer.
"Medical cannabis manufacturer" or "manufacturer" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 152.22, subdivision 7.
Subp. 28. Medical cannabis product.
"Medical cannabis product" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 152.22, subdivision 8.
Subp. 29. Medical cannabis waste.
"Medical cannabis waste" means medical cannabis that is returned, damaged, defective, expired, or contaminated.
Subp. 30. Parent or legal guardian.
"Parent or legal guardian" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 152.27, subdivision 5.
Subp. 31. Patient.
"Patient" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 152.22, subdivision 9.
Subp. 32. Plant material.
"Plant material" means any cannabis plant, cutting, trimming, or clone that has roots or that is cultivated with the intention of growing roots.
Subp. 33. Plant material waste.
"Plant material waste" means plant material that is not used in the production of medical cannabis in a form allowable under Minnesota Statutes, section 152.22, subdivision 6.
Subp. 33a. Plant regulator.
"Plant regulator" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 18B.01, subdivision 20.
Subp. 33b. Pre-roll.
"Pre-roll" means any combination of flower, shake, or leaf rolled in unflavored paper and intended to be smoked.
Subp. 34. Production or produce.
"Production" or "produce" means:
A. cultivating or harvesting plant material;
B. processing or manufacturing; or
C. packaging of medical cannabis.
Subp. 35. Proficiency testing sample or PT sample.
"Proficiency testing sample" or "PT sample" means a sample obtained from an approved provider to evaluate the ability of a laboratory to produce an analytical test result meeting the definition of acceptable performance. The concentration of the analyte in the sample is unknown to the laboratory at the time of analysis.
Subp. 36. Registered designated caregiver.
"Registered designated caregiver" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 152.22, subdivision 11.
Subp. 36a. Registered finished goods list.
"Registered finished goods list" means the official list maintained by the commissioner of finished goods permitted to be dispensed within the registry. The manufacturer must provide the commissioner the finished good's chemical composition, the total volume or weight of each active ingredient, storage instructions, and estimated expiration date. If a finished good will be dispensed in an amount larger than one unit or dose, the manufacturer must specify the volume or weight and chemical composition that constitutes a single dose.
Subp. 37. Registry program.
"Registry program" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 152.22, subdivision 12.
Subp. 38. Registry verification.
"Registry verification" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 152.22, subdivision 13.
Subp. 38a. Remediation.
"Remediation" means any process that removes or reduces the level of contaminants in a batch of dried raw cannabis flower and trim, either through extraction of oils or other means.
Subp. 39. Restricted access area.
"Restricted access area" means a building, room, or other contiguous area on the premises where plant material is grown, cultivated, harvested, stored, packaged, or processed for sale under control of the medical cannabis manufacturer, and where no person under the age of 21 is permitted.
Subp. 39a. Rinsate.
"Rinsate" means a dilute mixture of a crop input or crop inputs with water, solvents, oils, commercial rinsing agents, or other substances that is produced by or results from the cleaning of crop input application equipment or containers.
Subp. 39b. Shake.
"Shake" means pieces of a cannabis flower that were once part of larger buds.
Subp. 40. Sufficient cause to believe.
"Sufficient cause to believe" means grounds asserted in good faith that are not arbitrary, irrational, unreasonable, or irrelevant and that make the proposition asserted more likely than not, provided the grounds are based on at least one of the following sources:
A. facts or statements supplied by a patient, the patient's parent or legal guardian, the patient's designated registered caregiver, or an employee or agent of a medical cannabis manufacturer;
B. reports from an approved laboratory that indicate concerns with the chemical or bacterial composition of the medical cannabis;
C. financial records of a medical cannabis manufacturer;
D. police records;
E. court documents; or
F. facts of which the commissioner or the commissioner's employees have personal knowledge.
Subp. 41. THC.
"THC" means tetrahydrocannabinol, CAS number 1972-08-3.
Subp. 42. THCA.
"THCA" means tetrahydrocannabinolic acid, CAS number 23978-85-0.
Subp. 43. Total cannabinoid content.
"Total cannabinoid content" means the combined target values by weight of all cannabinoids defining a finished good in the registered finished goods list, not including cannabinoids present only in trace amounts.
Subp. 44. Total CBD content.
"Total CBD content" means the sum of the amount of CBD and 87.7 percent of the detectable amount of CBDA present in the product or plant material.
Subp. 45. Total THC content.
"Total THC content" means the sum of the amount of THC and 87.7 percent of the detectable amount of THCA present in the product or plant material.
Subp. 46. Water activity.
"Water activity" or "aw" means a measure of the free moisture in usable cannabis and is the quotient of the water vapor pressure of the substance divided by the vapor pressure of pure water at the same temperature.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389; 152.25; 152.26; 152.261
- History: 39 SR 1080; 40 SR 1599; 46 SR 1011
Minn. R. 4770.0300 Duties of Commissioner
Subpart 1. Interagency agreements.
The commissioner may enter into any interagency agreements with other state agencies for technical services or other assistance related to the regulatory or inspection duties of a medical cannabis manufacturer and the registry program.
Subp. 2. Notice to law enforcement.
If the commissioner has sufficient cause to believe that there is a threat to public safety, then the commissioner must notify local law enforcement agencies of any conditions that pose a threat to public safety, including:
A. loss or theft of medical cannabis or plant material;
B. diversion or potential diversion of medical cannabis or plant material; or
C. unauthorized access to the patient registry.
Subp. 3. Inspection of medical cannabis manufacturer.
A medical cannabis manufacturer is subject to reasonable inspection by the commissioner under Minnesota Statutes, section 152.29, subdivision 1. For purposes of this part, "reasonable inspection" means unannounced inspections by the commissioner of all:
A. aspects of the business operations;
B. physical locations of the medical cannabis manufacturer, its manufacturing facility, and distribution facilities;
C. financial information and inventory documentation; and
D. physical and electronic security alarm systems.
Subp. 4. Fees.
Any fees collected by the commissioner under Minnesota Statutes, section 152.35, are not refundable.
Subp. 5. Patient costs; pricing.
A. A medical cannabis manufacturer must follow the requirements under Minnesota Statutes, section 152.35, paragraph (d), in establishing a reasonable fee.
B. The commissioner may annually review price costing by a medical cannabis manufacturer.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389; 152.25; 152.26
- History: 39 SR 1080
Minn. R. 4770.0400 Medical Cannabis Manufacturer; Operations
Subpart 1. Operating documents.
Under Minnesota Statutes, section 152.29, subdivision 1, the operating documents of a medical cannabis manufacturer must describe operational and management practices, including:
A. record keeping;
B. security measures to deter and prevent theft of medical cannabis;
C. unauthorized entrance into areas containing medical cannabis;
D. types and quantities of medical cannabis products that are produced at the manufacturing facility;
E. methods of planting, harvesting, drying, and storage of medical cannabis;
F. estimated quantity of all crop inputs used in production;
G. estimated quantity of waste material to be generated;
H. disposal methods for all waste materials;
I. employee training methods for the specific phases of production;
J. biosecurity measures used in production and in manufacturing;
K. strategies for reconciling discrepancies in plant material or medical cannabis;
L. sampling strategy and quality testing for labeling purposes;
M. medical cannabis packaging and labeling procedures;
N. procedures for the mandatory and voluntary recall of medical cannabis;
O. plans for responding to a security breach at a manufacturing or distribution facility, or while medical cannabis is in transit to a manufacturing or distribution facility;
P. business continuity plan;
Q. records relating to all transport activities; and
R. other information requested by the commissioner.
Subp. 2. Prohibited activities.
A. A person may not own and operate a manufacturing facility unless the person is registered as a medical cannabis manufacturer by the commissioner under Minnesota Statutes, section 152.25.
B. A medical cannabis manufacturer and its employees, agents, or owners may not:
Subp. 3. Criminal background checks.
A medical cannabis manufacturer is prohibited from employing any person who has a disqualifying felony offense as shown by a Minnesota criminal history background check or a federal criminal history background check performed by the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension under Minnesota Statutes, section 152.29, subdivision 1.
Subp. 4. Conflict of interest; health care practitioner activity restrictions.
A medical cannabis manufacturer may not:
A. permit a health care practitioner who certifies qualifying conditions for patients to:
B. accept or solicit any form of remuneration from a health care practitioner who certifies qualifying conditions for patients; or
C. offer any form of remuneration from a health care practitioner who certifies qualifying conditions for patients.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389; 152.25; 152.26
- History: 39 SR 1080; 46 SR 1011
Minn. R. 4770.0500 Medical Cannabis Manufacturer; Quality Control; Assurance Program
Subpart 1. Quality control program.
A medical cannabis manufacturer must develop and implement a written quality assurance program that assesses the chemical and microbiological composition of medical cannabis. Assessment includes a profile of the active ingredients, including shelf life, and the presence of inactive ingredients and contaminants. A medical cannabis manufacturer must use these testing results to determine appropriate storage conditions and expiration dates.
Subp. 2. Sampling protocols.
A medical cannabis manufacturer must develop and follow written procedures for sampling medical cannabis that require the manufacturer to:
A. conduct sample collection in a manner that provides analytically sound and representative samples;
B. document every sampling event and provide this documentation to the commissioner upon request;
C. describe all sampling and testing plans in written procedures that include the sampling method and the number of units per batch to be tested;
D. ensure that random samples from each batch are:
E. retain the results from the random samples for at least five years.
Subp. 3. Sampling; testing levels.
A medical cannabis manufacturer must:
A. develop acceptance criteria for all potential contaminants based on the levels of metals, microbes, or other contaminants that the manufacturer uses in cultivating and producing medical cannabis. The testing levels are subject to approval by the commissioner;
B. conduct sampling and testing using acceptance criteria that are protective of patient health. The sampling and testing results must ensure that batches of medical cannabis meet allowable health risk limits for contaminants;
C. reject a medical cannabis batch that fails to meet established standards, specifications, and any other relevant quality-control criteria;
D. develop and follow a written procedure for responding to results indicating contamination. The procedure must include destroying contaminated medical cannabis and determining the source of contamination; and
E. retain documentation of test results, assessment, and destruction of medical cannabis for at least five years.
Subp. 4. Quality assurance program; stability testing.
A. The quality assurance program must include procedures for performing stability testing of each product type produced to determine product shelf life that addresses:
B. Stability studies must include:
C. If shelf-life studies have not been completed before July 1, 2015, a medical cannabis manufacturer may assign a tentative expiration date, based on any available stability information. The manufacturer must concurrently conduct stability studies to determine the actual product expiration date.
D. After the manufacturer verifies the tentative expiration date, or determines the appropriate expiration date, the medical cannabis manufacturer must include that expiration date on each batch of medical cannabis.
E. Stability testing must be repeated if the manufacturing process or the product's chemical composition is changed.
Subp. 5. Reserve samples.
A. A medical cannabis manufacturer must retain a uniquely labeled reserve sample that represents each batch of medical cannabis and store it under conditions consistent with product labeling. The reserve sample must be stored in the same immediate container-closure system in which the medical cannabis is marketed, or in one that has similar characteristics. The reserve sample must consist of at least twice the quantity necessary to perform all the required tests.
B. A medical cannabis manufacturer must retain the reserve for at least one year following the batch's expiration date.
Subp. 6. Retesting.
If the commissioner deems that public health may be at risk, the commissioner may require the manufacturer to retest any sample of plant material or medical cannabis.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389; 152.25; 152.26
- History: 39 SR 1080
Minn. R. 4770.0600 Location; Distance from School
Under Minnesota Statutes, section 152.29, paragraph (j), a medical cannabis manufacturer may not operate within 1,000 feet of an existing public or private school. The medical cannabis manufacturer must measure the distance between the closest point of the manufacturing or distribution facility property lines to the closest point of the school's property lines.
For purposes of this part, "public or private school" means any property operated by a school district, charter school, or accredited nonpublic school for elementary, middle, or secondary school, or secondary vocation center purposes.
"Accredited nonpublic school" means any nonpublic school accredited by an accrediting agency recognized by the Minnesota nonpublic education council under Minnesota Statutes, section 123B.445, excluding home schools.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389; 152.25; 152.26
- History: 39 SR 1080
Minn. R. 4770.0700 Hours of Operation; Access
Subpart 1. Limiting hours of operation.
The commissioner may limit the hours of operation of a manufacturing facility if there is sufficient cause to believe that limiting the hours of operation protects public safety.
Subp. 2. Restricted access areas.
A medical cannabis manufacturer must use an electronic controlled access system to limit entrance to all restricted access areas of its manufacturing facility and its distribution facilities.
A. An electronic controlled access system must:
B. A medical cannabis manufacturer must immediately submit stored controlled-access-system data to the commissioner upon the commissioner's request.
C. Restricted access areas must be identified with a sign that states: "Do Not Enter -- Restricted Access Area -- Access Limited to Authorized Personnel Only."
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389; 152.25; 152.26
- History: 39 SR 1080
Minn. R. 4770.0800 Advertising and Marketing
Subpart 1. Permitted marketing and advertising activities.
A medical cannabis manufacturer may:
A. display the manufacturer's business name and logo on medical cannabis labels, signs, website, and informational material provided to patients. The name or logo must not include:
B. display signs on the manufacturing facility and distribution facility; and
C. maintain a business website that contains the following information:
Subp. 2. Marketing and advertising activities; commissioner approval required.
A. A medical cannabis manufacturer must request and receive the commissioner's written approval before beginning marketing or advertising activities that are not specified in subpart 1.
B. The commissioner has 30 calendar days to approve marketing and advertising activities submitted under this subpart.
Subp. 3. Inconspicuous display.
A medical cannabis manufacturer must arrange displays of merchandise, interior signs, and other exhibits to prevent public viewing from outside the manufacturing facility and distribution facility.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389; 152.25; 152.26
- History: 39 SR 1080
Minn. R. 4770.0850 Packaging and Labeling
Subpart 1. Medical cannabis packaging.
The medical cannabis manufacturer must package all medical cannabis intended for distribution according to the following standards:
A. In addition to the requirements in Minnesota Statutes, section 152.29, subdivision 3, paragraph (c), clause (5), medical cannabis containers must be:
B. Medical cannabis packaging must not bear a reasonable resemblance to any commercially available product.
C. Medical cannabis packaging must be packaged to minimize its appeal to children and must not depict images other than the medical cannabis manufacturer's business name or logo.
Subp. 2. Medical cannabis brand names.
The medical cannabis manufacturer's medical cannabis brand names must comply with the following standards and are subject to approval by the commissioner:
A. names that are limited to those that clearly reflect the product's medical cannabis nature;
B. any name that is identical to, or confusingly similar to, the name of an existing noncannabis product is prohibited;
C. any name that is identical to, or confusingly similar to, the name of an unlawful product or substance is prohibited;
D. any name that contains language that suggests using medical cannabis for recreational purposes or for a condition other than a qualifying medical condition is prohibited;
E. any name that is likely to be attractive to children; and
F. a brand name for dried raw cannabis may include the use of strain names. Brand names that include strain names that are likely to appeal to children may only be published or advertised on the manufacturer's website and in its distribution facilities.
Subp. 3. Labeling.
A. A medical cannabis manufacturer must ensure that all medical cannabis that is distributed is labeled with the following information:
B. Labeling text must not include any false or misleading statements regarding health or physical benefits to the patient.
C. A package may contain multiple labels if the information required by this part is not obstructed.
Subp. 4. Supplemental label information.
A. A manufacturer must include a supplemental label that contains information about each pesticide, including the manufacturer's name and brand name of the pesticide, that was applied to the cannabis plant or growth medium prior to or after harvest.
B. A manufacturer may include additional information, including:
C. The manufacturer may also provide the additional information required or permitted by this subpart on a product-specific page on the manufacturer's website, or through written material made available in its distribution facilities.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389; 152.25; 152.26; 152.261
- History: 39 SR 1080; 40 SR 1599; 46 SR 1011
Minn. R. 4770.0900 Monitoring and Surveillance Requirements
Subpart 1. 24-hour closed-circuit television.
A medical cannabis manufacturer must operate and maintain in good working order a closed-circuit television (CCTV) surveillance system on all of its premises, which must operate 24 hours per day, seven days per week, and visually record:
A. all phases of production;
B. all areas that might contain plant material and medical cannabis, including all safes and vaults;
C. all points of entry and exit, including sales areas;
D. the entrance to the video surveillance room; and
E. any parking lot, which must have appropriate lighting for the normal conditions of the area under surveillance.
Subp. 2. Camera specifications.
Cameras must:
A. capture clear and certain identification of any person entering or exiting a manufacturing facility or distribution facility;
B. have the ability to produce a clear, color, still photo either live or from a recording;
C. have an embedded date-and-time stamp on all recordings that must be synchronized and not obscure the picture; and
D. continue to operate during a power outage.
Subp. 3. Video recording specifications.
A. A video recording must export still images in an industry standard image format, including .jpg, .bmp, and .gif.
B. Exported video must be archived in a proprietary format that ensures authentication and guarantees that the recorded image has not been altered.
C. Exported video must also be saved in an industry standard file format that can be played on a standard computer operating system.
D. All recordings must be erased or destroyed before disposal.
Subp. 4. Additional requirements.
The manufacturer must maintain all security system equipment and recordings in a secure location to prevent theft, loss, destruction, corruption, and alterations.
Subp. 5. Retention.
The manufacturer must ensure that 24-hour recordings from all video cameras are:
A. available for viewing by the commissioner upon request;
B. retained for at least 90 calendar days;
C. maintained free of alteration or corruption; and
D. retained longer, as needed, if the manufacturer is given actual notice of a pending criminal, civil, or administrative investigation, or other legal proceeding for which the recording may contain relevant information.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389; 152.25; 152.26
- History: 39 SR 1080
Minn. R. 4770.1000 Alarm System Requirements
A. A medical cannabis manufacturer must install and maintain a professionally monitored security alarm system that provides intrusion and fire detection of all:
B. For purposes of this part, a security alarm system means a device or series of devices that summons law enforcement personnel during, or as a result of, an alarm condition. Devices may include:
C. A manufacturer's security alarm system and all devices must continue to operate during a power outage.
D. The commissioner must have the ability to access a medical cannabis manufacturer's security alarm system.
E. The manufacturer's security alarm system must be inspected and all devices tested annually by a qualified alarm vendor.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389; 152.25; 152.26
- History: 39 SR 1080
Minn. R. 4770.1100 Transportation of Medical Cannabis
Subpart 1. Transportation of medical cannabis and plant material; when authorized.
A. A medical cannabis manufacturer is authorized to transport medical cannabis:
B. A medical cannabis manufacturer is authorized to transport plant material waste:
Subp. 2. Transporting medical cannabis.
A. A medical cannabis manufacturer must use a manifest system, approved by the commissioner, to track shipping of medical cannabis. The manifest system must include a chain of custody that records:
B. Before transporting medical cannabis, a medical cannabis manufacturer must:
C. The manifest must be signed by:
D. An authorized employee at the facility receiving medical cannabis must:
E. A manufacturer must maintain all manifests for at least five years and make them available upon request of the commissioner.
Subp. 3. Transportation of medical cannabis; vehicle requirements.
A. A manufacturer must ensure that:
B. Manufacturer employees who are transporting medical cannabis, plant waste, or medical cannabis waste on public roadways must:
C. If an emergency requires stopping the vehicle, the employee must notify 911 and complete an incident report form provided by the commissioner.
D. Under no circumstance may any person other than a designated manufacturer employee have actual physical control of the motor vehicle that is transporting the medical cannabis.
E. A medical cannabis manufacturer must staff all motor vehicles with a minimum of two employees when transporting medical cannabis between a manufacturing facility and a distribution facility. At least one employee must remain with the motor vehicle at all times that the motor vehicle contains medical cannabis. A single employee may transport medical cannabis to an approved laboratory.
F. Each employee in a transport motor vehicle must have communication access with the medical cannabis manufacturer's personnel, and have the ability to contact law enforcement through the 911 emergency system at all times that the motor vehicle contains medical cannabis.
G. An employee must carry the employee's identification card at all times when transporting or delivering cannabis and, upon request, produce the identification card to the commissioner or to a law enforcement officer acting in the course of official duties.
H. A medical cannabis manufacturer must not leave a vehicle that is transporting medical cannabis unattended overnight.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389; 152.25; 152.26; 152.261
- History: 39 SR 1080; 40 SR 1599; 46 SR 1011
Minn. R. 4770.1200 Disposal of Medical Cannabis and Plant Material
Subpart 1. Medical cannabis take-back.
A medical cannabis manufacturer must accept at no charge unused, excess, or contaminated medical cannabis. A manufacturer must:
A. dispose of the returned medical cannabis as provided in subpart 2; and
B. maintain a written record of disposal that includes:
Subp. 2. Medical cannabis and plant material waste.
A medical cannabis manufacturer must store, secure, and manage medical cannabis waste and plant material waste in accordance with all applicable federal, state, and local regulations.
A. The manufacturer must dispose of medical cannabis waste by incineration at a waste-to-energy facility according to federal and state law.
B. The manufacturer must dispose of plant material by composting as follows:
C. Before transport, the manufacturer must render plant material waste unusable and unrecognizable by grinding and incorporating the waste with a greater quantity of nonconsumable, solid wastes including:
Subp. 3. Liquid and chemical waste disposal.
The medical cannabis manufacturer must dispose of all liquid and chemical product waste generated in the process of cultivating, manufacturing, and distributing medical cannabis in accordance with all applicable federal, state, and local regulations.
Subp. 4. Waste-tracking requirements.
The medical cannabis manufacturer must use forms provided by the commissioner to maintain accurate and comprehensive records regarding waste material that accounts for, reconciles, and evidences all waste activity related to the disposal of medical cannabis waste and plant material waste.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389; 152.25; 152.26
- History: 39 SR 1080
Minn. R. 4770.1300 Mandatory Signage
A. A medical cannabis manufacturer must post a sign in a conspicuous location at each entrance of the manufacturing facility that reads "PERSONS UNDER TWENTY-ONE YEARS OF AGE NOT PERMITTED IN RESTRICTED ACCESS AREAS."
B. A manufacturer must post a sign in a conspicuous location at every entrance to the manufacturing facility and each distribution facility that reads "THESE PREMISES ARE UNDER CONSTANT VIDEO SURVEILLANCE."
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389; 152.25; 152.26; 152.261
- History: 39 SR 1080; 40 SR 1599
Minn. R. 4770.1400 Personnel Identification System
Subpart 1. Identification system.
A medical cannabis manufacturer must use a personnel identification system that controls and monitors individual employee access to restricted access areas within the manufacturing facility and distribution facility and that meets the requirements of this part and part 4770.0700.
Subp. 2. Employee identification card requirement.
An employee identification card must contain:
A. the name of the cardholder;
B. the date of issuance and expiration;
C. an alphanumeric identification number that is unique to the cardholder; and
D. a photographic image of the cardholder.
Subp. 3. Visitor pass required.
A visitor must wear a visitor pass issued by the medical cannabis manufacturer that is visible at all times.
Subp. 4. Employee identification card on person and visible at all times.
A manufacturer's employee must keep the employee's identification card visible at all times when in a manufacturing facility, distribution facility, or vehicle transporting medical cannabis.
Subp. 5. Termination of employment.
Upon termination of an employee, a medical cannabis manufacturer must obtain and destroy the terminated employee's identification card.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389; 152.25; 152.26; 152.261
- History: 39 SR 1080; 40 SR 1599
Minn. R. 4770.1460 Renewal of Registration
Subpart 1. Application.
A registered manufacturer must submit an application to renew its registration with the commissioner at least six months before its registration term expires. The application must include:
A. any material change in its previous application materials;
B. information about each alleged incident involving theft, loss, or possible diversion of medical cannabis by an employee, agent, or contractor of the manufacturer;
C. the manufacturer's compliance with all relevant state and local laws;
D. information about the manufacturer's ability to continue manufacturing and distributing medical cannabis, including financial viability and ability to ensure adequate supply of medical cannabis; and
E. any other information requested by the commissioner.
Subp. 2. Criteria.
The commissioner must use criteria listed in Minnesota Statutes, section 152.25, subdivision 1, paragraph (c), when considering a manufacturer's application to renew its registration.
Subp. 3. Notification.
The commissioner must notify the manufacturer of the commissioner's decision to approve or deny the manufacturer's registration application at least 120 days before the expiration of the registration agreement.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 152.26; 152.261
- History: 40 SR 1599
Minn. R. 4770.1500 Closure of Operations; Deregistration
Subpart 1. Notice.
A medical cannabis manufacturer shall notify the commissioner at least six months before the closure of the manufacturing facility and its distribution facilities.
Subp. 2. Procedures.
If a medical cannabis manufacturer ceases operation, the commissioner must verify the remaining inventory of the manufacturer and seize all plant material, plant material waste, and medical cannabis. The commissioner must ensure that any plant material, plant material waste, and medical cannabis is destroyed by incineration at a waste-to-energy facility.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389; 152.25; 152.26
- History: 39 SR 1080
Minn. R. 4770.1600 Record Keeping; Requirements
A. A medical cannabis manufacturer must maintain for at least five years complete, legible, and current records, including:
B. A medical cannabis manufacturer must maintain records that reflect all financial transactions and the financial condition of the business. The following records must be maintained for at least five years and made available for review, upon request of the commissioner:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389; 152.25; 152.26
- History: 39 SR 1080
Minn. R. 4770.1700 Medical Cannabis Manufacturer; Production Requirements
Subpart 1. Cultivation and processing; generally.
A. Only a registered medical cannabis manufacturer is authorized to produce and manufacture medical cannabis.
B. All phases of production must take place in designated, restricted access areas that are monitored by a surveillance camera system in accordance with part 4770.0900.
C. All areas must be compartmentalized based on function, and employee access must be restricted between compartments.
D. The production process must be designed to limit contamination. Examples of contamination include mold, fungus, bacterial diseases, rot, pests, nonorganic pesticides, and mildew.
E. Each production area must have an open aisle for unobstructed access, observation, and inventory of each plant group.
F. Biosecurity measures must be in effect and documented according to part 4770.0400, subpart 1.
G. The manufacturer must maintain a record at the facility of all crop inputs for at least five years. The record must include the following:
H. At the time of planting, all plants must be tracked in a batch process with a unique batch number that must remain with the batch through final packaging.
I. A manufacturer must record any removal of plants from the batch on a record maintained at the manufacturing facility for at least five years.
J. The batch number must be displayed on the label of the medical cannabis.
Subp. 1a. Crop inputs used in cultivation of dried raw cannabis.
A. A manufacturer cultivating plants intended to become dried raw cannabis must follow practices and procedures that minimize the risk of chemical contamination or adulteration of the medical cannabis.
B. A manufacturer may only apply a pesticide in the cultivation of medical cannabis if the pesticide has been:
C. A manufacturer may use rooting hormones or cloning gels only during the propagation phase of the plant life cycle.
D. A manufacturer must store all crop input stocks in their original containers with their original labels intact. The manufacturer must ensure that packaged fertilizers and containers of diluted or prepared fertilizer remain labeled with information as required in Minnesota Statutes, section 18C.215, at all times.
E. The manufacturer must apply, store, and dispose of crop inputs, rinsate, and containers according to label instructions and all other applicable laws and regulations.
F. If an audit sample tested under part 4770.3035 shows the presence of a crop input not permitted under this subpart, the batch and any finished good produced from the batch are adulterated and must be disposed of as medical cannabis waste under part 4770.1200, subpart 2. The use of pesticides not permitted under this part is presumptively classified as a serious violation under Minnesota Statutes, sections 144.989 to 144.993.
Subp. 2. Production of medical cannabis.
A. The commissioner must approve the manufacturer's use of any hydrocarbon-based extraction process. Examples of a hydrocarbon-based extraction process include the use of butane, ethanol, hexane, and isopropyl alcohol.
B. Medical cannabis must be prepared, handled, and stored in compliance with the sanitation requirements in this part.
C. A manufacturer must maintain appropriate temperatures and conditions that will protect plant material and medical cannabis against physical, chemical, and microbial contamination or deterioration of the product or its container.
D. A manufacturer must ensure that the cannabinoid content of the medical cannabis it produces is homogenous.
E. Prior to distributing new finished goods to customers, a manufacturer must obtain the commissioner's approval. The commissioner shall:
F. The manufacturer must submit a definition of each finished good to the commissioner to include in the registered finished goods list before a batch sample may be tested.
G. Pre-rolls must not contain more than one gram of dried raw cannabis each.
Subp. 3. General sanitation requirements.
A manufacturer must take all reasonable measures and precautions to ensure that:
A. any employee who has a communicable disease does not perform any tasks that might contaminate plant material or medical cannabis;
B. hand-washing facilities are:
C. all employees working in direct contact with plant material and medical cannabis must use hygienic practices while on duty, including:
D. litter and waste are routinely removed and the operating systems for waste disposal are routinely inspected;
E. floors, walls, and ceilings are constructed with a surface that can be easily cleaned and maintained in good repair to inhibit microbial growth;
F. lighting is adequate in all areas where plant material and medical cannabis are processed, stored, or sold;
G. screening or other protection against the entry of pests is provided, including that rubbish is disposed of to minimize the development of odor and the potential for the waste becoming an attractant, harborage, or breeding place for pests;
H. any buildings, fixtures, and other facilities are maintained in a sanitary condition;
I. toxic cleaning compounds, sanitizing agents, and other potentially harmful chemicals are identified and stored in a separate location away from plant material and medical cannabis and in accordance with applicable local, state, or federal law;
J. all contact surfaces, utensils, and equipment used in the production of plant material and medical cannabis are maintained in a clean and sanitary condition;
K. the manufacturing facility water supply is sufficient for necessary operations;
L. plumbing size and design meets operational needs and all applicable state and local laws;
M. employees have accessible toilet facilities that are sanitary and in good repair; and
N. plant material and medical cannabis that could support the rapid growth of undesirable microorganisms are isolated to prevent the growth of those microorganisms.
Subp. 4. Storage.
A. A manufacturer must store plant material and medical cannabis during production, transport, and testing to prevent diversion, theft, or loss, including ensuring:
B. A manufacturer must store all plant material and medical cannabis during production, transport, and testing, and all saleable medical cannabis:
C. To prevent degradation, a manufacturer must store all plant material and medical cannabis in production, transport, and testing, and all saleable medical cannabis under conditions that will protect it against physical, chemical, and microbial contamination and deterioration of the product and its container.
D. A manufacturer must maintain a separate secure storage area for medical cannabis that is returned, including medical cannabis that is outdated, damaged, deteriorated, mislabeled, or contaminated, or whose containers or packaging have been opened or breached, until the returned medical cannabis is destroyed. For purposes of this part, a separate, secure storage area includes a container, closet, or room that can be locked or secured.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389; 152.25; 152.26; 152.261
- History: 39 SR 1080; 40 SR 1599; 46 SR 1011
Minn. R. 4770.1750 Medical Cannabis Distribution
Subpart 1. Distribution; identity verification.
A registered patient, designated caregiver, or the registered patient's parent or legal guardian, if the parent or legal guardian will be acting as a caregiver, must present a government-issued photo identification at the distribution site. Distribution site staff must verify the identity of the person and the patient's enrollment in the registry. In the case of a distribution that includes dried raw cannabis, the manufacturer must verify the age of the person and the age of the patient if someone other than the patient is making the transaction according to part 4770.1760.
Subp. 2. Distribution; consultation.
A. If required under Minnesota Statutes, section 152.29, subdivision 3, paragraph (c), clause (4), a pharmacist employed by a manufacturer to distribute medical cannabis must consult with the registered patient, designated caregiver, or the registered patient's parent or legal guardian, if the parent or legal guardian will be acting as a caregiver, before distributing medical cannabis to the recipient. The consultation must include:
B. To determine whether a consultation must be held under Minnesota Statutes, section 152.29, subdivision 3, paragraph (c), clause (4), dried raw cannabis finished goods listed in a chemical composition range may be treated as other dried raw cannabis finished goods listed in that range.
C. A dried raw cannabis finished good is classified into one of three chemical composition ranges as follows:
D. A pharmacist may consult with a patient or caregiver regardless of whether a consultation is required under Minnesota Statutes, section 152.29, subdivision 3, paragraph (c), clause (4).
Subp. 3. Distribution; dosage calculation.
After completing the consultation, the pharmacist will determine a recommended daily dosage and calculate an amount equal to a 90-day supply at maximum recommended dosage. If a 90-day supply of dried raw cannabis exceeds 450 grams, the approving pharmacist must file a written justification of the calculation with the commissioner.
Subp. 4. Purchasing limits.
A registered qualifying patient, registered designated caregiver, or a patient's registered parent or registered legal guardian may purchase medical cannabis in quantities less than or equal to the patient's 30-day supply determined under subpart 3 from any Minnesota distribution site at any time. The total quantity of medical cannabis purchased for a patient in a 23-day period must not exceed the patient's 30-day supply. A manufacturer must not distribute more than 450 grams of dried raw cannabis per visit to any person.
Subp. 5. Dried raw cannabis display sample jars.
A. In a distribution facility, a manufacturer may have dried raw cannabis packaged in a sample jar protected by a plastic or metal mesh screen to allow a patient or the patient's registered caregiver age 21 and older to see and smell the product before purchase. A display sample jar must:
B. The display sample jar and the dried raw cannabis within may not be distributed to a patient and must be returned to the manufacturer's production facility where the cannabis must be disposed of as plant waste.
C. A jar used to contain display samples must be cleaned and disinfected before reuse.
D. All display sample jars must be labeled with:
E. Outgoing and return samples and display sample jars are subject to the transportation requirements in part 4770.1100.
F. Dried raw cannabis used in sample jars must be accounted for in the manufacturer's inventory tracing under part 4770.1800. Dried raw cannabis used in sample jars must not be distributed for patients and must be disposed of as medical cannabis waste under part 4770.1200, subpart 2, item A.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389; 152.26; 152.261
- History: 39 SR 1760; 40 SR 1599; 46 SR 1011
Minn. R. 4770.1760 Distribution of Dried Raw Cannabis; Age Verification
Subpart 1. Sales only to those age 21 or older.
A manufacturer shall distribute dried raw cannabis only to persons age 21 or older and as part of a pharmacist-approved transaction.
Subp. 2. Attainment of age.
With respect to purchasing, possessing, consuming, and selling dried raw cannabis, a person is not 21 years of age until 8:00 a.m. on the day of that person's 21st birthday.
Subp. 3. Proof of age; defense.
A. Proof of age for purchasing dried raw cannabis may be established only by:
B. In an administrative enforcement action based on this part, the manufacturer may provide evidence that it reasonably and in good faith relied upon representations of proof of age authorized in item A in selling, dispensing, or distributing dried raw cannabis for an enrolled patient.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389
- History: 46 SR 1011
Minn. R. 4770.1800 Inventory
Subpart 1. Controls and procedures.
A medical cannabis manufacturer must establish inventory controls and procedures for conducting inventory reviews and comprehensive inventories of plant material and medical cannabis to prevent and detect any diversion, theft, or loss in a timely manner.
Subp. 2. Reliable and ongoing supply.
A medical cannabis manufacturer must provide a reliable and ongoing supply of medical cannabis as required by Minnesota Statutes, section 152.29, subdivision 2.
Subp. 3. Real-time inventory.
A medical cannabis manufacturer must maintain a real-time record of its inventory of plant material and medical cannabis to include:
A. the date and time of the inventory;
B. a summary of inventory findings, including:
C. the names of the employees or employee conducting the inventory; and
D. other information deemed necessary and requested by the commissioner.
Subp. 4. Waste inventory.
The medical cannabis manufacturer must maintain a real-time record of its inventory of all medical cannabis waste, including damaged, defective, expired, contaminated, recalled, or returned medical cannabis for disposal, and plant material waste for disposal.
Subp. 5. Reconciliation.
At the close of business each day, a medical cannabis manufacturer must reconcile by conducting a physical inventory of all:
A. plant material at the manufacturing facility and in transit; and
B. medical cannabis at the manufacturing facility, each distribution facility, and in transit.
Subp. 6. Scales.
All scales used to weigh usable plant material for purposes of this chapter must be certified in accordance with the International Organization for Standardization (ISO), ISO/IEC Standard 17025, which is incorporated by reference.
Subp. 7. Discrepancies.
If discrepancies are discovered outside of loss standard to the industry due to moisture loss and handling, the manufacturer must investigate the discrepancy and must submit a report of its investigation to the commissioner within seven days. If a discrepancy is due to suspected criminal activity, the manufacturer must notify the commissioner and appropriate law enforcement agencies in writing within 24 hours.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389; 152.25; 152.26
- History: 39 SR 1080; 46 SR 1011
Minn. R. 4770.1850 Recall Procedures
A. Each manufacturer must establish a procedure for recalling medical cannabis that has a reasonable probability of causing an unexpected or harmful response in a patient population, despite appropriate use, that outweighs the potential benefit of the medication. This procedure must include:
B. The commissioner may order a manufacturer to undertake a recall of a dried raw cannabis finished good. The commissioner's order must be based on a reasonable suspicion that the finished good presents a risk of causing a serious adverse incident. The commissioner must order the recall of a dried raw cannabis finished good if testing under part 4770.3035 indicates the presence of residues from a crop input prohibited under part 4770.1700 are present in the finished good. A manufacturer must comply and cooperate with any recalls ordered by the commissioner.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389; 152.26; 152.261
- History: 40 SR 1599; 46 SR 1011
Minn. R. 4770.1900 Medical Cannabis Laboratory Approval
Subpart 1. Commissioner's authority.
The commissioner must approve any medical cannabis laboratory that tests medical cannabis for a registered medical cannabis manufacturer under Minnesota Statutes, section 152.25, subdivision 1, paragraph (d). A medical cannabis laboratory may seek approval to use specific procedures to test the allowable product types and analytes according to parts 4770.1900 to 4770.2400, which specify the commissioner's requirements authorized by Minnesota Statutes, section 152.29, subdivision 1, paragraph (b).
Subp. 2. Eligibility.
The commissioner may only approve a medical cannabis laboratory that tests under a contract with a medical cannabis manufacturer that can demonstrate its eligibility under this subpart. The laboratory must:
A. operate using proper laboratory equipment under a quality assurance system and test product types for analytes listed in the commissioner's list in subpart 3;
B. test medical cannabis delivered in the product types specified in subpart 4;
C. test accurately for the following elements:
Subp. 3. Commissioner list of approved cannabis labs.
A. The commissioner must publish a list of approved cannabis laboratories in the State Register and on the department's medical cannabis program website at least annually.
B. The commissioner must provide the following information for each approved laboratory:
Subp. 4. Commissioner's approved medical cannabis product types.
The commissioner's approved product types include:
A. liquid, including in oil form;
B. pill;
C. vaporized delivery method using liquid or oil;
D. dried raw cannabis intended to be used or consumed by combustion; and
E. any other method approved by the commissioner under Minnesota Statutes, section 152.27, subdivision 2, paragraph (b).
Subp. 5. Commissioner's analyte list.
A. The commissioner must maintain a list of analytes that laboratories must be able to test for. The analyte categories include:
B. The commissioner must publish the analyte list in the State Register and on the department's medical cannabis program website.
C. The commissioner must review the analyte list and publish a notice of any analyte updates in the State Register and on the department's medical cannabis program website at least every six months.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389; 152.25; 152.26
- History: 39 SR 1080; 46 SR 1011
Minn. R. 4770.2000 Medical Cannabis Laboratory Approval; Application and Approval
Subpart 1. Application requirements.
A. A laboratory must apply for the commissioner's approval on a form provided by the commissioner.
B. A laboratory must also submit the following items:
C. A mobile laboratory is considered a separate laboratory and is subject to all requirements of parts 4770.1900 to 4770.2300. In addition to the requirements of subpart 1, a mobile laboratory must:
D. The following items are required and must be submitted to the commissioner before December 31, 2022:
Subp. 2. Application requirements; commissioner's evaluation.
A. The commissioner must evaluate completed applications using the following criteria.
B. The commissioner must approve or deny the application within 60 days of receiving the completed application and any applicable information required under part 4770.2000, subpart 1, and subpart 2.
C. No board member, officer, employee, or other person with a financial interest in a medical cannabis manufacturer may have an interest or voting rights in the laboratory.
D. The commissioner's decision on a laboratory's application is a final agency decision.
Subp. 3. Approval.
A. When granting approval, the commissioner must notify the laboratory and include the following documentation:
B. If a laboratory's scope of approval changes, the commissioner must issue a new document that specifies the revised scope of approval.
C. A laboratory's approval is valid for one year from the date of the commissioner's awarding approval or renewal of approval, unless the commissioner rescinds approval under part 4770.2100.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389; 152.25; 152.26; 152.261
- History: 39 SR 1080; 40 SR 1599; 46 SR 1011
Minn. R. 4770.2100 Medical Cannabis Laboratory Approval; Inspection and Compliance
Subpart 1. Laboratory inspection and reports.
A. The commissioner may inspect a lab without prior notice at any time during normal business hours to verify compliance with parts 4770.1900 to 4770.2200. The commissioner may inspect:
B. If the commissioner has sufficient cause to believe that a laboratory's proficiency, execution, or validation of analytical methodologies are deficient, the commissioner may require and a laboratory must obtain third-party validation and ongoing monitoring of the laboratory. The laboratory must pay for all costs associated with the commissioner-ordered third-party validation.
C. An approved laboratory must provide reports to the commissioner regarding chemical compositions, microbial compositions, dosages, and noncannabis drug interactions under Minnesota Statutes, section 152.25, as requested by the commissioner.
D. An approved laboratory must provide reports to the medical cannabis manufacturer on forms provided by the commissioner.
Subp. 2. Laboratory approval requirements.
A. An approved laboratory may not misrepresent its approval on any document or marketing material.
B. A laboratory must make its current approval documentation and corresponding scope of approval available upon the request of:
Subp. 3. Rescinding approval.
A. The commissioner may rescind an approved cannabis laboratory's approval if the commissioner determines the laboratory has failed to:
B. A laboratory must return its approval letter to the commissioner immediately if the commissioner rescinds the laboratory's approval.
C. The commissioner's decision to rescind approval of an approved medical cannabis laboratory is a final agency decision.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389; 152.25; 152.26
- History: 39 SR 1080
Minn. R. 4770.2200 Medical Cannabis Laboratory Approval; Duty to Notify
Subpart 1. Operational changes.
A. A laboratory must notify the commissioner in writing within 30 days of a change in:
B. A laboratory that notifies the commissioner of an operational change under item A must include in the notice written results of proficiency testing samples or demonstrations of capability analyzed after the reported change.
Subp. 2. Voluntary withdrawal.
A. If a laboratory chooses to withdraw its application for approval or its current approval in total or in part, the laboratory must:
B. By the effective date of the withdrawal of approval, in total or in part, the laboratory must:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389; 152.25; 152.26
- History: 39 SR 1080
Minn. R. 4770.2300 Medical Cannabis Laboratory Approval; Appeal of Administrative Decision
A. The commissioner must notify a laboratory in writing the reason for the decision to deny or rescind laboratory approval under part 4770.2100.
B. A laboratory has 30 days from the commissioner's notice of denial or notice of rescinded approval to appeal the decision. A request to appeal must:
C. The commissioner must notify a laboratory of the commissioner's acceptance or denial of an appeal request, in writing, within 60 days of receiving the request. The commissioner's decision is a final agency decision.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389; 152.25; 152.26
- History: 39 SR 1080
Minn. R. 4770.2400 Medical Cannabis Laboratory Approval; Variances
The commissioner may grant a variance from parts 4770.1900 to 4770.2200. To request a variance, a laboratory must indicate in writing:
A. the rule part and language for which the variance is sought;
B. reasons for the request;
C. alternate measures that the laboratory will take if the commissioner grants its request for variance;
D. the proposed length of time of the variance; and
E. data that the laboratory will provide to ensure analytical results of equal or better reliability, if applicable.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389; 152.25; 152.26
- History: 39 SR 1080
Minn. R. 4770.2700 Medical Cannabis Manufacturer; Financial Examinations; Pricing Reviews
A. A medical cannabis manufacturer must maintain financial records in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles and, upon request, must provide any financial records to the commissioner.
B. The commissioner shall request an additional audit of the medical cannabis manufacturer, of the same time period, if the commissioner finds one or more of the following:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389; 152.25; 152.26
- History: 39 SR 1080
Minn. R. 4770.2800 Incorporation by Reference
The International Organization for Standardization (ISO), ISO/IEC Standard 17025, is incorporated by reference, is not subject to frequent change, and is made a part of this rule where indicated. ISO/IEC Standard 17025 is published by the International Organization for Standardization, located at 1, ch. de la Voie-Creuse, CP 56, CH-1211 Geneva 20, Switzerland. ISO/IEC Standard 17025 is available in the office of the commissioner of health and can be found online at www.isoiec17025.com or www.iso.org.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389; 152.25; 152.26
- History: 39 SR 1080
Minn. R. 4770.3002 Testing Samples; Collection; Handling; Disposal
A. A batch sample of cured cannabis flower from each batch of dried raw cannabis must be sent to a testing laboratory for testing. The batch sample must pass all required tests before the dried raw cannabis may be packaged for distribution to patients.
B. The manufacturer must schedule with a testing laboratory with which it has a contract to test medical cannabis to collect the batch sample at least 48 hours before the batch sample is collected. An employee of the manufacturer must be present to observe the sample collection. The testing laboratory employee must minimize potential contamination when collecting a batch sample, such as using sterile gloves and equipment.
C. A batch sample must be composed of 15 grams of intact cannabis flowers from a single batch of dried raw cannabis, taken from different bulk containers, if applicable, and from different areas within the bulk container.
D. The testing laboratory employee or contractor collecting the batch sample must certify the batch number from which the sample is collected and the date and time of collection and document the bulk container or containers and the general locations within the containers from which the sample is collected. The manufacturer employee who observed the collection must certify that the batch sample collected is representative of the batch and that the collection followed procedures to minimize contamination of the batch sample.
E. Before the batch sample is transported to a testing laboratory, the batch sample must be placed in a transport container with a tamper-evident seal affixed by the testing laboratory employee or contractor who collected the sample.
F. The manufacturer must transport the batch sample to a testing laboratory for testing within 48 hours of the sample collection. The testing laboratory must certify upon receipt that the tamper-evident seal is intact and that the sample was collected less than 48 hours earlier. If the tamper-evident seal is broken or if the collection occurred more than 48 hours earlier, the testing laboratory must not accept the batch sample for testing.
G. The testing laboratory must grind the batch sample to create a representative composite batch sample for testing. The testing laboratory may also use a paddle blender on all or part of the batch sample to produce a homogenous composite batch sample. All required testing must be performed on the composite batch sample.
H. Within 30 calendar days after testing of a batch sample is complete, the manufacturer must retrieve from the testing laboratory the analyzed batch sample and the waste containing medical cannabis. The manufacturer must transport the waste material either to the manufacturer's production facility where it must be quarantined before disposal or directly to a waste-to-energy disposal site.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389
- History: 46 SR 1011
Minn. R. 4770.3010 Compliance Testing Requirements for Dried Raw Cannabis
A. A manufacturing facility must have each batch of dried raw cannabis tested for:
B. More than one testing laboratory may conduct the required tests on a batch but each required test must only be conducted by a single laboratory.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389
- History: 46 SR 1011
Minn. R. 4770.3011 Water Activity and Moisture Content Testing of Dried Raw Cannabis
Subpart 1. Requirement.
Before being packaged, each batch of dried raw cannabis must be tested for:
A. water activity; and
B. moisture content.
Subp. 2. Standards.
A batch of dried raw cannabis sample fails if it has:
A. a water activity rate of more than 0.65 aw; or
B. a moisture content of more than 15 percent.
Subp. 3. Remediation of failed samples.
If the batch of dried raw cannabis samples do not pass testing standards for water activity and moisture content, the batch from which the sample was taken may:
A. be used to make a medical cannabis concentrate which must comply with testing requirements; or
B. continue to dry or cure.
Subp. 4. Requirement.
A batch of dried raw cannabis sample must pass water activity and moisture content testing before other required tests may be performed on that sample. If a batch sample fails either water activity or moisture content testing, the testing laboratory must not conduct additional tests on that batch sample and must issue a certificate of analysis for the batch sample indicating the result and "NT" for other tests scheduled.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389
- History: 46 SR 1011
Minn. R. 4770.3020 Safety Testing Procedures
A. A batch of dried raw cannabis sample must pass safety testing at a testing laboratory before any finished goods produced from that batch are transported to a distribution facility.
B. A manufacturer must submit a minimum of 15 grams of dried raw cannabis to a testing laboratory for the full spectrum of safety testing. The testing laboratory must notify in writing both the manufacturer and the commissioner if the testing laboratory requires more than 15 grams of dried raw cannabis to conduct the testing.
C. A batch of dried raw cannabis sample must pass both microbiological and mycotoxins testing under part 4770.3021 and heavy metals testing under part 4770.3022 to pass safety testing.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389
- History: 46 SR 1011
Minn. R. 4770.3021 Microbiological and Mycotoxins Testing of Dried Raw Cannabis
Subpart 1. Testing required.
Before being packaged, a representative sample from each batch of dried raw cannabis must be tested for microbiological contaminants and mycotoxins using an AOAC-approved technology using appropriate aseptic techniques.
Subp. 2. Microbiological contaminant tests.
A dried raw cannabis sample passes the microbiological contaminant test if it meets the following standards for microbial and fungal limits in colony forming units per gram (CFU/g):
Subp. 3. Mycotoxin tests.
For purposes of the mycotoxin test, a dried raw cannabis sample passes if:
A. the total of aflatoxin B1, B2, G1, and G2 is less than 20 micrograms per kilogram of substance;
B. aflatoxin B1 does not exceed five micrograms per kilogram of substance; and
C. ochratoxin A is less than 20 micrograms per kilogram of substance.
Subp. 4. Remediation.
A manufacturer must comply with the requirements in this subpart when a sample fails to meet the standards for microbiological contaminant or mycotoxin testing.
A. If a sample from a batch of dried raw cannabis fails microbiological contaminant or mycotoxin testing, the manufacturer may attempt to remediate the batch one time and resubmit a batch sample for testing. If a batch of dried raw cannabis fails microbiological contaminant or mycotoxin testing after remediation, the manufacturer may:
B. A batch that is remediated in accordance with this subpart must be resampled and tested in accordance with this chapter.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389
- History: 46 SR 1011
Minn. R. 4770.3022 Heavy Metals Testing of Dried Raw Cannabis
Subpart 1. Requirement.
Before being packaged, a representative sample from each batch of dried raw cannabis must be tested for the presence of heavy metals.
Subp. 2. Standards.
A batch fails heavy metals testing if the presence of one of the following metals is above the following listed limit:
Subp. 3. Remediation.
A manufacturer must comply with the following requirements when a sample fails to meet the standards for heavy metals testing.
A. A batch of dried raw cannabis that fails heavy metals testing may be remediated using a processing method that effectively removes the heavy metals from the batch. If a batch of dried raw cannabis fails heavy metals testing after remediation, the manufacturer must dispose of the batch as medical cannabis waste under part 4770.1200, subpart 2, item A.
B. A batch that is remediated in accordance with this subpart must be sampled and tested in accordance with this chapter.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389
- History: 46 SR 1011
Minn. R. 4770.3030 Potency Testing of Dried Raw Cannabis
Subpart 1. Cannabinoid content.
A. Before being packaged, a representative sample from each batch of dried raw cannabis must be tested to establish the concentration of cannabinoid analytes, reported as the percentage content by weight for:
B. The commissioner must maintain a list on the Office of Medical Cannabis website (http://mn.gov/medicalcannabis) of all cannabinoids required to be analyzed by the testing laboratory. In addition to publication on the Office of Medical Cannabis website, updates to the list must be communicated by email to each registered manufacturer and to each approved laboratory.
C. In addition, the testing laboratory must calculate and report the total THC content and total CBD content:
Subp. 2. Triple preparation; sample potency.
A. The testing laboratory must use a triple preparation to determine the potency of the sample. If multiple preparations are used, the reported potency must be the mean value of the results. The relative standard deviation between the tested samples must be ten percent or less.
B. The testing laboratory must notify in writing both the manufacturer and the commissioner if it requires a sample of more than two grams of dried raw cannabis to conduct the testing before the testing begins.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389
- History: 46 SR 1011
Minn. R. 4770.3032 Terpene Analysis
A. A manufacturer may request a testing laboratory to analyze at minimum 0.5 grams of the batch sample to determine the terpenoid profile of the sample. A list of terpenes that may be tested will be published on the Office of Medical Cannabis website (http://mn.gov/medicalcannabis).
B. The testing laboratory must report the result of the terpenoid testing on the certificate of analysis both as a percentage and in either milligrams per gram (mg/g) if by weight or milligrams per milliliter (mg/mL) if by volume.
C. A manufacturer may include terpenoid profile information on the label of a container holding dried raw cannabis only when a terpene analysis is performed under this part.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389
- History: 46 SR 1011
Minn. R. 4770.3035 Audit Testing for Prohibited Pesticides and Compliance
A. The commissioner may require audit testing of plant materials, dried raw cannabis batch samples, or dried raw cannabis finished goods to ensure compliance with this chapter and any other applicable law, and to protect the public health and safety. The commissioner may either collect or require the manufacturer to submit up to five ten-gram samples per month for audit testing. The manufacturer must transport the audit sample or samples to a laboratory selected by the commissioner for testing.
B. The audit testing may test for:
C. A laboratory conducting audit testing under item A must report its findings to the commissioner in writing.
D. If an audit test finds the presence of a prohibited pesticide in a sample, the manufacturer must send another sample from the affected batch to a testing laboratory to conduct a quantitative analysis for the specific analytes indicated in the audit sample report.
E. Within 90 calendar days after the audit test report is complete, the manufacturer must retrieve from the laboratory the remaining sample material and waste containing medical cannabis. The manufacturer must transport the waste material either to the manufacturer's production facility where it must be quarantined before disposal or directly to a waste-to-energy disposal site.
F. The manufacturer must pay for all testing done under this part.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389
- History: 46 SR 1011
Minn. R. 4770.3040 Stability and Degradation Testing of Dried Raw Cannabis
A. The manufacturer must provide the third-party testing laboratory with an adequate number of dried raw cannabis samples in their final packaged form to create composite samples at the four distinct timepoints listed in item B. The stability samples must be stored according to label instructions.
B. The testing laboratory must test the potency of the stability samples at zero, three-, six-, and 12-month intervals to monitor changes in total THC content and total CBD content.
C. If the value at any of the subsequent timepoints changes by ten percent or more compared to T = 0 when tested in triplicate, the cured flower will be assigned an expiration period based upon the time it dropped below ten percent of T = 0.
D. Until data has been collected establishing evidence-based expiration dates, a dried raw cannabis product will have a six-month expiration date.
E. The testing laboratory must store each stability sample according to the product's label instructions. If there are no applicable label instructions, then the sample must be stored at room temperature and not in direct sunlight.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389
- History: 46 SR 1011
Minn. R. 4770.4000 Applicability and Purpose
Parts 4770.4000 to 4770.4018 establish the criteria and procedures to be used by the commissioner for establishing and overseeing the medical cannabis registry for enrolled patients and their designated caregivers.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389; 152.26
- History: 39 SR 1760
Minn. R. 4770.4002 Definitions
Subpart 1. Applicability.
The terms used in this chapter have the meanings given them in this part and in Minnesota Statutes, sections 152.22 to 152.37.
Subp. 1a. Adverse incident.
"Adverse incident" means any negative medical occurrence in a person after using medical cannabis, either physical or psychological, including any harmful reaction, symptom, or disease.
Subp. 2. DEA Registration Certificate.
"DEA Registration Certificate" means a certificate to prescribe controlled substances issued by the United States Department of Justice's Drug Enforcement Administration.
Subp. 3. Disqualifying felony offense.
"Disqualifying felony offense" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 152.22, subdivision 3.
Subp. 4. Diversion or diverting.
"Diversion" or "diverting" means the intentional transferring of medical cannabis to a person other than a patient, designated registered caregiver, or a parent or legal guardian of a patient if the parent or legal guardian of a patient is listed on the registry verification.
Subp. 4a. Diversion involving adverse incidents.
"Diversion involving adverse incidents" means any suspected incident of diversion that results in an adverse incident.
Subp. 5. Evidence-based medicine.
"Evidence-based medicine" means documentation of published, peer-reviewed best evidence on research related to the use of medical cannabis, which includes up-to-date information from relevant, valid research about the effects of medical cannabis on different forms of diseases and conditions, its use in health care, the potential for harm from exposure, a clinical assessment of the effectiveness of medical cannabis in an ongoing treatment paradigm, and any other relevant medical information.
Subp. 6. Financial interest.
"Financial interest" means any actual or future right to ownership, investment, or compensation arrangement with another person, either directly or indirectly, through business, investment, spouse, parent, or child in a medical cannabis manufacturer. Financial interest does not include ownership of investment securities in a publicly held corporation that is traded on a national exchange or over-the-counter market, provided the investment securities held by the person, the person's spouse, parent, or child, in the aggregate, do not exceed one percent ownership in the medical cannabis manufacturer.
Subp. 7. Good standing.
"Good standing" means a person has a license or registration with a licensing board and is not subject to any restriction or oversight by the licensing board beyond others in the same class.
Subp. 8. Health care practitioner.
"Health care practitioner" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 152.22, subdivision 4.
Subp. 9. Health record.
"Health record" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.291, subdivision 2, paragraph (c).
Subp. 10. Medical cannabis.
"Medical cannabis" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 152.22, subdivision 6.
Subp. 11. Medical cannabis manufacturer or manufacturer.
"Medical cannabis manufacturer" or "manufacturer" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 152.22, subdivision 7.
Subp. 12. Medical relationship.
"Medical relationship" means a treatment or counseling relationship, in the course of which the health care practitioner has completed a full assessment of the patient's medical history and current medical condition.
Subp. 13. Minor.
"Minor" means an applicant who is under 18 years of age.
Subp. 14. Parent or legal guardian.
"Parent or legal guardian" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 152.27, subdivision 5.
Subp. 15. Patient.
"Patient" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 152.22, subdivision 9.
Subp. 15a. Patient advocate.
"Patient advocate" means an individual with a knowledge of medical cannabis who promotes patient interests in safety, privacy, access, and affordability.
Subp. 15b. Peace officer.
"Peace officer" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 626.84, subdivision 1, paragraph (c).
Subp. 16. Person.
"Person" means an individual, corporation, partnership, firm, association, trust, estate, public or private institution, group, agency, state or political subdivision of a state, or a legal successor, representative, agent, or agency of the person. Person does not include federal government agencies.
Subp. 17. Qualifying medical condition.
"Qualifying medical condition" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 152.22, subdivision 14.
Subp. 18. Qualifying patient.
"Qualifying patient" means a resident of Minnesota who has been diagnosed by a health care practitioner as having a qualifying medical condition.
Subp. 19. Registered.
"Registered" means licensed, permitted, or otherwise certified by the commissioner.
Subp. 20. Registered designated caregiver.
"Registered designated caregiver" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 152.22, subdivision 11.
Subp. 21. Registry program.
"Registry program" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 152.22, subdivision 12.
Subp. 22. Registry verification.
"Registry verification" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 152.22, subdivision 13.
Subp. 22a. Serious adverse incident.
"Serious adverse incident" means any adverse incident that results in or would lead to one of these outcomes without medical intervention:
A. in-patient hospitalization or additional hospital time for a patient who is already hospitalized;
B. persistent or significant disability or incapacity;
C. a life-threatening situation; or
D. death.
Subp. 23. Telehealth.
"Telehealth" means the practice of medicine as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 147.081, subdivision 3, when the health care practitioner is not in the physical presence of the patient.
Subp. 24. Therapeutic use.
"Therapeutic use" means the acquisition, possession, preparation, use, delivery, transfer, or transportation of medical cannabis or paraphernalia relating to the administration of medical cannabis to treat or alleviate a qualifying patient's qualifying medical condition or symptoms or results of treatment associated with the qualifying patient's qualifying medical condition.
Subp. 25. Transport.
"Transport" means the movement of medical cannabis products from a manufacturer's distribution site to the residence of a registered qualified patient, or as otherwise provided by law.
Subp. 26. Written certification.
"Written certification" means a document signed by a health care practitioner, with whom the patient has established a patient-provider relationship, which states that the patient has a qualifying medical condition and identifies that condition and any other relevant information required by Minnesota Statutes, section 152.28, subdivision 1.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389; 152.26; 152.261
- History: 39 SR 1760; 40 SR 1599
Minn. R. 4770.4003 Process for Adding a Qualifying Medical Condition or Delivery Method
Subpart 1. Condition added by commissioner.
The commissioner may periodically revise the list of qualified medical conditions eligible for treatment with medical cannabis.
A. Revisions to the list must reflect:
B. In determining whether a condition qualifies, the commissioner must consider the adequacy of available evidence that medical cannabis will provide relief and the report of the Medical Cannabis Review Panel established in subpart 3.
Subp. 2. Requests for adding a condition.
Any person may request the commissioner to add a qualifying medical condition not listed in Minnesota Statutes, section 152.22, subdivision 14, to the list by applying on a form provided by the commissioner. Requests under this subpart will be accepted beginning June 1, 2016.
A. The commissioner shall only accept requests during June and July of each year and will dismiss requests received outside of this period.
B. The commissioner must post notice on the department's medical cannabis website by May 1 each year, announcing the open period for accepting requests and describing the procedure for submitting requests.
C. Each request must be limited to one proposed qualifying medical condition. The commissioner must dismiss a request if it contains multiple proposals.
D. The commissioner must dismiss a request to add a medical condition that has been previously considered and rejected by the commissioner, unless the request contains new scientific evidence or research or describes substantially different symptoms.
E. If the commissioner dismisses a timely request, the commissioner must notify the person making the request of the reason that the request was dismissed.
F. The commissioner must forward the request to the review panel for review unless the request is dismissed.
G. The commissioner must provide the review panel with a review of evidence-based medicine and other peer-reviewed research demonstrating treatment efficacy for the requested condition.
Subp. 3. The Medical Cannabis Review Panel.
A. The commissioner must appoint a Medical Cannabis Review Panel composed of seven members, including at least one medical cannabis patient advocate and two health care practitioners, one with expertise in pediatric medicine.
B. The Medical Cannabis Review Panel must review requests submitted under subpart 2 and report to the commissioner on the public health impacts, including therapeutic factors and known potential risks, of the proposed additional medical conditions.
C. Members serve a three-year term or until a successor is appointed and qualified. If a vacancy occurs, the commissioner must appoint a replacement to complete the original term created by the vacancy.
D. Members may serve multiple terms.
E. Members must not hold a direct or indirect economic interest in a registered medical cannabis manufacturer or serve on the board of directors or as an employee of a registered medical cannabis manufacturer.
F. Members must disclose all potential conflicts of interest having a direct bearing on any subject before the review panel.
Subp. 4. Review panel meetings.
A. The Medical Cannabis Review Panel must meet at least one time per year to:
B. The commissioner must post a notice on the department's medical cannabis website at least 30 calendar days before a review panel meeting. Notice must include the date, time, and location of the meeting, a brief description of the requests received, and information on how public comment will be received, including a deadline, if any.
C. The Medical Cannabis Review Panel must submit a written report to the commissioner by November 1 after conducting the public meeting. The written report must include potential public health benefits and risks of adding or rejecting the proposed qualifying medical condition.
Subp. 5. Commissioner review.
A. Upon receiving the Medical Cannabis Review Panel's report, the commissioner must render a decision by December 1 and must:
B. The commissioner must communicate the commissioner's decision to the requesting party along with the reasons for the decision and publish the decision on the department's medical cannabis website by December 1.
C. The commissioner must forward a newly approved qualifying medical condition to the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative policy committees having jurisdiction over health and public safety by January 15 as required by Minnesota Statutes, section 152.27, subdivision 2. If the legislature does not provide otherwise by law, the commissioner must publish the newly approved qualifying medical condition in the State Register and on the department's medical cannabis website before its August 1 effective date.
Subp. 6. Requests for adding a delivery method.
Any person may request that the commissioner add a delivery method not listed in Minnesota Statutes, section 152.22, subdivision 6, to the list by applying on a form provided by the commissioner. Requests under this subpart will be accepted beginning June 1, 2016.
A. The commissioner shall only accept requests during June and July of each year and will dismiss requests received outside of this period.
B. The commissioner must post notice on the department's medical cannabis website by May 1 each year, announcing the open period for accepting requests and describing the procedure for submitting requests.
C. The commissioner must post the request to add a delivery method, along with information about how to submit public comment on the department's medical cannabis website. The commissioner must allow at least 30 days for public comment.
D. Each request must be limited to one proposed delivery method. The commissioner must dismiss a request if it contains multiple proposals.
E. The commissioner must dismiss a request to add a delivery method that has been previously considered and rejected by the commissioner, unless the request contains new scientific evidence or research or describes substantially different therapeutic benefits.
F. If the commissioner dismisses a timely request, the commissioner must notify the person making the request of the reason that the request was dismissed.
G. The commissioner must consider the request and any written comments from the public. The commissioner must render a decision by December 1, and must:
H. The commissioner must communicate the commissioner's decision to the requesting party along with the reasons for the decision.
I. The commissioner must forward an approved delivery method to be added to the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative policy committees having jurisdiction over health and public safety by January 15 as required by Minnesota Statutes, section 152.27, subdivision 2, and if the legislature does not provide otherwise by law, publish the addition in the State Register and on the department's medical cannabis website.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389; 152.26; 152.261
- History: 39 SR 1760; 40 SR 1599
Minn. R. 4770.4004 Serious Adverse Incident Reporting
Subpart 1. Reporting requirements.
A. Persons who must report any serious adverse incident are:
B. Reporters named in item A must report to the manufacturer where the patient's medical cannabis was dispensed within five business days of the reporter's learning of the incident.
C. A peace officer must report any serious adverse incident relating to overdose and any case of diversion involving an adverse incident within five business days of the incident by calling the general telephone number of the Office of Medical Cannabis. If part of an ongoing investigation, the report must be made within 72 hours of the conclusion of the investigation.
Subp. 2. Manufacturer requirements.
A. Each manufacturer must:
B. Each manufacturer must follow up serious adverse incident reports and document all follow-up activities. The manufacturer must continue to follow up reports until the outcome has been established or the subject's condition is stabilized.
C. For adverse incident information collected, the manufacturer must:
Subp. 3. Manufacturer reports.
A. By the fifth day of every month, a medical cannabis manufacturer must compile and submit to the commissioner all adverse incident reports received in the prior calendar month.
B. Within ten business days of learning of an adverse incident, the manufacturer must report to the commissioner:
C. On August 1 of every year beginning in 2016, each manufacturer must submit to the commissioner a report that contains a summary and a critical analysis of all reported adverse incidents reported to the manufacturer over the past July 1 to June 30.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389; 152.26; 152.261
- History: 39 SR 1760; 40 SR 1599
Minn. R. 4770.4005 Registry Enrollment Application for Qualifying Patients
Subpart 1. Patient application.
A. A patient or the patient's parent or legal guardian must apply for the registry and sign a disclosure on forms provided by the commissioner that meet the requirements of Minnesota Statutes, section 152.27, subdivision 3.
B. A patient must provide proof of the patient's Minnesota residency. If the patient is a minor, the patient's parent or legal guardian must provide proof of the parent or legal guardian's Minnesota residency. Proof of Minnesota residency can be established with:
C. A patient or the patient's parent or legal guardian must submit the nonrefundable annual enrollment fee specified in Minnesota Statutes, section 152.35.
Subp. 2. Application approval.
A. The commissioner must approve an applicant and enroll the patient in the medical cannabis registry if the commissioner determines that the application is complete and no basis for denial exists under Minnesota Statutes, section 152.27, subdivision 6.
B. When a qualifying patient is enrolled in the registry program, the commissioner must:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389; 152.26
- History: 39 SR 1760
Minn. R. 4770.4007 Designated Caregiver Application
Subpart 1. Application.
The designated caregiver must apply for registration on the form provided by the commissioner and submit to a background check, as required by Minnesota Statutes, section 152.27, subdivision 4, paragraph (b).
Subp. 2. Application approval.
The commissioner must approve an applicant and register the designated caregiver if the commissioner determines that the application is complete and no basis for denial exists under Minnesota Statutes, section 152.27, subdivision 4.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389; 152.26
- History: 39 SR 1760
Minn. R. 4770.4008 Responsibilities of Designated Caregivers
A. A designated caregiver, or the patient's parent or legal guardian if the parent or legal guardian will be acting as a caregiver, must:
B. A designated caregiver, or the patient's parent or legal guardian if the parent or legal guardian will be acting as a caregiver, may:
C. A designated caregiver, or the patient's parent or legal guardian if the parent or legal guardian will be acting as a caregiver, may not:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389; 152.26
- History: 39 SR 1760
Minn. R. 4770.4009 Revocation or Suspension of a Qualifying Patient or Designated Caregiver Registration
Subpart 1. Revocation of qualifying patient enrollment.
The commissioner may revoke the registration certificate of a qualifying patient under the provisions of Minnesota Statutes, section 152.27, subdivision 6, paragraph (d).
Subp. 2. Suspension of qualifying patient enrollment.
The commissioner must suspend the registration of a qualifying patient under the following circumstances.
A. If the qualifying patient is incarcerated in a correctional institution or facility under the supervision of the Department of Corrections, the registration must be suspended for the term of incarceration.
B. If the qualifying patient provided false, misleading, or incorrect information to the commissioner, the patient's registration must be suspended until the information is corrected and the commissioner makes an eligibility determination.
C. If the qualifying patient, together with the qualifying patient's designated caregiver where applicable, obtains more than a 30-day supply of medical cannabis within a 23-day period and the commissioner has reason to believe the patient is abusing or diverting medical cannabis, the patient's registration must be suspended until the commissioner makes an eligibility determination.
Subp. 3. Designated caregivers.
The commissioner must revoke the registration of a designated caregiver under the following circumstances:
A. the designated caregiver has a disqualifying felony offense conviction as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 152.22, subdivision 3; or
B. the designated caregiver, together with the designated caregiver's patient, where applicable, obtains more than a 30-day supply of medical cannabis within a 23-day period and the commissioner has reason to believe the designated caregiver is abusing or diverting medical cannabis.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389; 152.26; 152.261
- History: 39 SR 1760; 40 SR 1599
Minn. R. 4770.4010 Unauthorized Possession of Medical Cannabis Reporting
A. A licensed peace officer must report to the commissioner any reasonable suspicion of an individual possessing medical cannabis who is not authorized to possess medical cannabis under Minnesota Statutes, sections 152.22 to 152.37. The officer must report the reasonable suspicion within 72 hours by completing a form on the department's medical cannabis website. If part of an ongoing investigation, the report must be made within 72 hours of the investigation's conclusion.
B. A licensed peace officer who reasonably suspects a person who is otherwise authorized to possess medical cannabis has violated a provision of Minnesota Statutes, section 152.23, must report the suspicion by completing a form on the department's medical cannabis website within 15 days of discovery of the occurrence.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389; 152.26; 152.261
- History: 39 SR 1760; 40 SR 1599
Minn. R. 4770.4011 [Renumbered 4770.1750]
[Renumbered 4770.1750]
Minn. R. 4770.4012 Disposal of Medical Cannabis by Qualifying Patients and Designated Caregivers
A. A qualifying patient or designated caregiver who is no longer registered with the medical cannabis patient registry must, within ten calendar days after the patient or caregiver ceases to be registered or eligible, dispose of any unused medical cannabis in their possession by one of the following methods by:
B. A qualifying patient or designated caregiver who is no longer registered with the medical cannabis patient registry must not transfer, share, give, sell, or deliver any unused medical cannabis in their possession to any other person, regardless of whether the person is participating in the medical cannabis patient registry program.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389; 152.26
- History: 39 SR 1760
Minn. R. 4770.4013 Annual Fees
Each patient application or renewal must be accompanied by the payment of an annual fee. Payment must be made by credit card, bank debit card, cashier's check, or personal check. Annual qualifying patient application fee and reduced fee for patients enrolled in the federal Social Security Disability Income (SSDI), the Supplemental Security Income (SSI) disability, or the medical assistance or MinnesotaCare programs are established in Minnesota Statutes, section 152.35. All fees are nonrefundable.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389; 152.26
- History: 39 SR 1760
Minn. R. 4770.4014 Health Care Practitioner Requirements
Subpart 1. Qualifications.
The commissioner must accept written certifications for the therapeutic use of medical cannabis only from health care practitioners who hold:
A. an active license, in good standing, under Minnesota Statutes, chapter 147, for physicians, under Minnesota Statutes, chapter 147A, for physician assistants, or Minnesota Statutes, sections 148.171 to 148.285, the Minnesota Nurse Practice Act, for advanced practice registered nurses; and
B. a DEA registration certificate.
Subp. 2. Requirements.
Before issuing a written certification of qualifying condition, a health care practitioner must:
A. have a medical relationship between the health care practitioner and patient with a qualifying condition;
B. assess the patient's medical history and current medical condition, which includes:
C. communicate, as appropriate, with subspecialists also treating the registered patient; and
D. certify that the patient has been diagnosed as having a qualifying medical condition, as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 152.22, subdivision 14.
Subp. 3. Duties.
When the certifying health care practitioner receives notice from the commissioner that a qualifying patient has been enrolled in the registry program, the certifying health care practitioner must:
A. participate in the patient registry reporting system as established by the commissioner for each patient for whom the practitioner has written a certification of qualifying condition. A health care practitioner must transmit patient data as required by Minnesota Statutes, section 152.28, subdivision 1, paragraph (b);
B. be available to provide continuing treatment of the patient's qualifying medical condition;
C. maintain health records under part 4770.4017 for all patients for whom the practitioner has issued a written certification that supports the certification of a qualifying medical condition;
D. report health record data as requested by the commissioner under Minnesota Statutes, section 152.28, subdivision 1, paragraph (b);
E. make a copy of the records that support the certification of a qualifying medical condition available to the commissioner, and otherwise provide information to the commissioner upon request about the patient's qualifying medical condition, course of treatment, and pathological outcomes to ensure compliance with the act;
F. annually assess whether the registered qualifying patient continues to suffer from a qualifying medical condition and, if so, issue the patient a new certificate of that diagnosis; and
G. notify the commissioner, in a manner prescribed by the commissioner, in writing within 14 calendar days of learning of the death of a registered patient whose medical condition was certified by the health care practitioner.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389; 152.26; 152.261
- History: 39 SR 1760; 40 SR 1599
Minn. R. 4770.4015 Written Certification of Qualifying Condition
A certifying health care practitioner must complete a written certification of a patient's qualifying medical condition on a form provided by the commissioner. The written certification must:
A. acknowledge that the qualifying patient is under the health care practitioner's care, either for the patient's primary care or for the qualifying medical condition;
B. confirm the patient's diagnosis of a qualifying medical condition, as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 152.22, subdivision 14;
C. state whether a patient is developmentally or physically disabled and, as a result of the disability, is unable to self-administer medication or acquire medical cannabis from a distribution facility and requires a designated caregiver;
D. include any additional information the commissioner requests to assess the effectiveness of medical cannabis in treating the medical condition or symptoms;
E. contain an affirmation that the health care practitioner has:
F. include the date the certification of a qualifying medical condition was made.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389; 152.26
- History: 39 SR 1760
Minn. R. 4770.4016 Health Care Practitioner Prohibitions
A health care practitioner who has issued or intends to issue a written certification must not:
A. examine a qualifying patient to issue a written certification at a location where medical cannabis is manufactured, sold, or dispensed;
B. refer a patient to a manufacturer or distributor of medical cannabis;
C. refer a patient to a designated caregiver;
D. issue a written certification for the health care practitioner;
E. hold a financial interest in an enterprise that provides or distributes medical cannabis;
F. directly or indirectly accept, solicit, or receive anything of value from a manufacturer, employee of a manufacturer, or any other person associated with a manufacturing facility;
G. offer a discount or any other thing of value to a qualifying patient who uses or agrees to use a particular designated caregiver, distribution facility, or medical cannabis product; or
H. directly or indirectly benefit from a patient obtaining a written certification. Such prohibition does not prohibit a health care practitioner from charging an appropriate fee for the patient visit.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389; 152.26
- History: 39 SR 1760
Minn. R. 4770.4017 Records Maintained by the Certifying Health Care Practitioner
Subpart 1. Health records maintained.
The health care practitioner must maintain a health record for each patient for whom the health care practitioner has certified a qualifying medical condition. These records need not be maintained separately from the health care practitioner's established records for the ongoing medical relationship with the patient.
Subp. 2. Contents.
The records must be legible, accurately reflect the patient's evaluation and treatment, and must include the following:
A. the patient's name and dates of visits and treatments;
B. the patient's case history as it relates to the qualifying condition;
C. the patient's health condition as determined by the health care practitioner's examination and assessment;
D. the results of all diagnostic tests and examinations as they relate to the qualifying condition; and any diagnosis resulting from the examination;
E. the patient's plan of care, which must state with specificity the patient's condition, functional level, treatment objectives, medical orders, plans for continuing care, and modifications to that plan; and
F. a list of drugs prescribed, administered and dispensed, and the quantity of the drugs.
Subp. 3. Retention.
The health care practitioner must keep records for each qualifying patient for at least three years after the last patient visit, or seven years, whichever is greater.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389; 152.26; 152.261
- History: 39 SR 1760; 40 SR 1599
Minn. R. 4770.4018 Reports
A participating health care practitioner must report health record data as requested by the commissioner under Minnesota Statutes, 152.28, subdivision 1, paragraph (b).
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 14.389; 152.26
- History: 39 SR 1760
Minn. R. 4770.4030 Health Care Facilities; Storage
Subpart 1. Storage policy.
A health care facility, as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 152.34, may adopt policies relating to the secure storage of a registered patient's medical cannabis. Policies may include:
A. secure storage with access limited to authorized personnel; or
B. allowing patients, patients' registered designated caregivers, or patients' parents or legal guardians if listed on the registry verification, to maintain direct possession of the medical cannabis.
Subp. 2. Return of items.
Upon discharge, transfer, or death of a patient registered to use medical cannabis, the health care facility must return all medical cannabis to the patient or another person authorized to possess it. If the health care facility is unable to return any remaining medical cannabis to the patient or other authorized person, it must destroy the medical cannabis in a manner consistent with instructions posted on the department's medical cannabis website. The transfer or destruction must be recorded in the patient's health record.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 152.26; 152.261
- History: 40 SR 1599
Chapter 9400 WATER TREATMENT CERTIFICATION
Minn. R. 9400.0100 Definitions
Subpart 1. Scope.
Terms used in this chapter that are defined in Minnesota Statutes, chapters 115 and 116, have the meanings given in statute. For purposes of this chapter, the terms defined in this part have the meanings given them.
Subp. 2. Agency.
"Agency" means the Minnesota Pollution Control Agency.
Subp. 2a. Contact hour.
"Contact hour" means 50 to 60 minutes of lecture, demonstration, workshop, or continuing education or training, excluding coffee breaks, registration, meals, and social activities.
Subp. 3. Department.
"Department" means the Minnesota Department of Health.
Subp. 3a. Direct responsibility.
"Direct responsibility" means the water or wastewater operator having full and active responsibility for the operation of a portion of, or all of, a system, facility, or wastewater collection system.
Subp. 4. Facility.
"Facility" means wastewater treatment facility as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 115.71.
Subp. 4a. Management.
"Management" means persons who direct or supervise the operation of a system or facility. Management also refers to shift operators who make operational decisions or operate systems or facilities without supervision from a supervisor.
Subp. 4b. Operation.
"Operation" means the routine performance of duties at a system or facility to achieve results that meet existing state laws and rules pertaining to water and wastewater.
Subp. 5.
[Repealed, 21 SR 1165]
Subp. 5a. Point-of-entry treatment device.
"Point-of-entry treatment device" means a treatment device applied to the drinking water entering a house or building for the purpose of reducing contaminants in the drinking water distributed throughout the house or building.
Subp. 5b. Point-of-use treatment device.
"Point-of-use treatment device" means a treatment device applied to a single tap used for the purpose of reducing contaminants in drinking water at that one tap.
Subp. 6.
[Repealed, 21 SR 1165]
Subp. 7. System.
"System" means a water supply system as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 115.71.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 115.72; 115.79
- History: 21 SR 1165; 25 SR 1633
Minn. R. 9400.0200 Scope
This chapter establishes the requirements for:
A. individuals to be certified as water or wastewater treatment operators; and
B. the classification of systems and facilities.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 115.72; 115.79
- History: 21 SR 1165
Minn. R. 9400.0300 [Repealed, 21 SR 1165]
[Repealed, 21 SR 1165]
Minn. R. 9400.0350 Certification
A. A water operator certificate to operate a community or nontransient noncommunity water system must be issued by the commissioner of health.
B. A wastewater operator certificate to operate a wastewater treatment facility must be issued by the commissioner of the Pollution Control Agency.
C. A city manager, superintendent of public works, or other administrative official is not eligible to be certified as an operator unless that person's duties include the operation of the system or facility.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 115.72
- History: 21 SR 1165; 25 SR 1633
Minn. R. 9400.0400 Classification of Systems
Subpart 1. Basis.
The classification of all systems must be based on the degree of hazard to the public health, together with the type and capacity of the system and the population affected.
Subp. 1a. Operator availability.
All systems must have a certified water supply system operator as specified in Minnesota Statutes, sections 115.71, subdivision 10, and 115.73. This person, or an operator certified at the same level or above, must be available on site or able to be contacted as needed to initiate an appropriate action in a timely manner.
Subp. 2. Rating values.
The classification of a system must be based on the following rating values:
A. water supply source:
B. treatment processes:
C. distribution storage capacity:
D. number of wells:
E. population affected:
Subp. 3. Accumulated value.
The accumulated point values for systems are as follows:
A. Class A, 76 or more points;
B. Class B, 56 to 75 points;
C. Class C, 31 to 55 points;
D. Class D, 30 or less points; and
E. Class E, regardless of point values, any system comprised of a groundwater source with no treatment other than point-of-entry or point-of-use treatment devices not used for compliance with the federal Safe Drinking Water Act, United States Code, title 42, sections 300f to 300j-26 (1996 and as subsequently amended), serving a maximum of 500 persons.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 115.72; 115.79
- History: 21 SR 1165; 25 SR 1633
Minn. R. 9400.0500 Classification of Facilities
Subpart 1. Basis.
The classification of all wastewater treatment facilities actually used or intended for use by the public and required to have permits under part 7080.0030, subpart 1a, for individual sewage treatment systems or chapter 7001, must be based on the degree of hazard to the public health, together with the type and loading of the facilities and the population served or the average population equivalent of the wastewater handled.
Subp. 2. Rating values.
Facility classification must be based on the following rating values:
A. size:
B. permit final effluent limitations:
C. variation in raw wastes based upon maximum month design values:
D. liquids handling:
E. solids handling:
F. laboratory monitoring:
Subp. 3. Accumulated values.
A. The accumulated point values for wastewater treatment facilities are as follows:
B. Notwithstanding item A, a facility that is given points for processes in subpart 2, item D, subitem (9), (10), (11), or (16), must be classified as a Class C facility or higher.
Subp. 4. Type S facility.
A type S treatment facility means a system of collection, pumping, and conveyance facilities distinctly separate in operation from a facility which treats, stabilizes, or disposes of the wastewater collected, pumped, or conveyed.
A. Where a type S facility is not distinctly separate, it is considered to be part of the treatment facility for which the designated operator is responsible.
B. A type S treatment facility must be subclassified as follows:
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 115.03; 115.55; 115.56; 115.72; 115.79
- History: 21 SR 1165; 24 SR 426; 25 SR 1633
Minn. R. 9400.0600 Reclassifying Systems or Facilities
Subpart 1. Reclassification.
When the accumulated point value necessitates a change in the classification of a system or facility, the commissioner of health shall modify the classification of a system or the commissioner of the pollution control agency shall modify the classification of a facility according to parts 9400.0400 and 9400.0500.
Subp. 2. Implementation.
Reclassification must be made:
A. after completion of a system sanitary survey by the commissioner of health; or
B. at the time of issuance or reissuance of a facility permit by the commissioner of the pollution control agency.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 115.72; 115.79
- History: 21 SR 1165; 25 SR 1633
Minn. R. 9400.0700 Certification of System and Facility Operators
Subpart 1.
[Repealed, 21 SR 1165]
Subp. 2. Certification in particular class.
An applicant who seeks certification must:
A. meet the qualifications for one of the classes specified in this part and take and pass an exam; or
B. meet the requirements for reciprocity under part 9400.1350.
Subp. 3. Class A certificate.
An applicant for a Class A certificate must:
A. have been certified as a Class B operator for at least two years; and
B. have:
Subp. 4. Class B certificate.
An applicant for a Class B certificate must:
A. have been certified as a Class C operator for at least one year; and
B. have:
Subp. 5. Class C certificate.
An applicant for a Class C certificate must have:
A. a high school diploma or equivalent, with at least three years experience in the operation of a Class A, B, C, or D system or facility, or similar industrial facility; or
B. a bachelor's degree from an accredited institution in chemical, civil, environmental, mechanical, or sanitary engineering or in a physical or biological science, and submit satisfactory evidence of at least one year experience in the operation of a Class A, B, C, or D system or facility, or similar industrial facility.
Subp. 6. Class D certificate.
An applicant for a Class D certificate must:
A. have a high school diploma or equivalent; and
B. have:
Subp. 6a. Class E certificate.
An applicant for a Class E certificate must:
A. have a high school diploma or equivalent; and
B. have:
Subp. 7. Type S certificate.
An applicant for a type S wastewater treatment certificate must possess the same education and experience required for a regular wastewater certificate in the same class, except experience must have been gained in a facility or type S facility and:
A. an applicant for an S-A type certificate must have been certified as an S-B or B facility operator for at least two years; or
B. an applicant for a type S-B certificate must have been certified as an S-C or C facility operator for at least one year.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 115.72; 115.79
- History: 21 SR 1165; 25 SR 1633
Minn. R. 9400.0800 Substitutions for Qualifications
Subpart 1. Experience in a system or type S facility substituted for experience in a facility.
When a person applies for a certificate to operate a facility, at least 50 percent of the experience required in part 9400.0700 for the class of certificate requested must have been obtained in a facility. The other 50 percent may be obtained in a type S facility or a system. The classification of the type S facility or system the applicant operated must not be more than one class below the class of certificate requested.
Subp. 1a. Experience in a facility substituted for experience in a system.
When a person applies for a certificate to operate a system, at least 50 percent of the experience required in part 9400.0700 for the class of certificate requested must have been obtained in a system. The other 50 percent may be obtained in a facility, but not in a type S facility. The classification of the facility the applicant operated must not be more than one class below the class of certificate requested.
Subp. 2. Education substituted for experience.
A person who applies for a Class A, S-A, B, S-B, C, or S-C certificate may substitute education for experience according to the formula in this subpart.
A. Except as noted in item B, the experience required in part 9400.0700, subparts 2 to 7, will be reduced by one month for the successful completion of 40 contact hours of correspondence courses or other courses relating to water supply or wastewater treatment from an accredited institution in chemical, civil, environmental, mechanical, or sanitary engineering or in the physical or biological sciences.
B. In no event shall such education be substituted for experience so as to reduce the experience requirement to:
Subp. 3. Experience substituted for education.
One year of experience in the operation of a system or facility may be considered as equivalent to one year of high school. Experience which is substituted for education cannot also be used to satisfy the experience requirements.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 115.72; 115.79
- History: 21 SR 1165; 25 SR 1633
Minn. R. 9400.0900 Application for Examination
Subpart 1. Form and time.
Application for examination must be made in writing to the commissioner of health for certification to operate a system or to the commissioner of the Pollution Control Agency for certification to operate a facility on a prescribed form issued by the department or agency administering the examination. The application for examination must be submitted at least 15 days before the date on which the examination will be given.
Subp. 2. Proof of attendance.
The applicant may be required to submit a copy of the school or college diploma, equivalency certificate, or other proof of school or college attendance or graduation if the applicant is substituting educational experience for operating experience.
Subp. 3. Examination fee.
A nonrefundable examination fee must accompany the application.
Subp. 4. Application for examination.
An applicant who applies for examination but fails to satisfy all the conditions prescribed in parts 9400.0100 to 9400.1500 may reapply for examination as described in subparts 1 to 3 when all conditions are satisfied.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 115.72; 115.79
- History: 21 SR 1165
Minn. R. 9400.1000 Examinations
Subpart 1. Preparation.
The respective commissioner shall prepare the examinations to be used in determining the knowledge, ability, and skills of operators.
Subp. 2. Examination.
Separate examinations must be prepared for each designated system and facility class to cover basic differences in the duties and responsibilities of operators, types of water and wastewater treatment, variations in water and wastewater characteristics, water distribution systems, and wastewater collection systems. The examination must test the applicant's knowledge in any one or more of the following areas, as they relate to either water or wastewater treatment: basic science, mathematics, operating procedures, treatment processes, equipment, equipment maintenance, management, and state law and rules relating to water and wastewater. The applicant is prohibited from using any resource materials during an examination.
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, 21 SR 1165]
Subp. 4.
[Repealed, 21 SR 1165]
Subp. 5. Passing.
A grade of 70 percent is considered a passing grade.
Subp. 6. Results; review.
The respective commissioner shall notify the applicant of the exam results. Examinations will not be returned to the applicant, but upon request within 60 days' notification of the results, the applicant may be allowed to review the examination.
Subp. 7. Reexamination.
An applicant who fails to pass the examination may not retake the same examination for a period of three months.
Subp. 8. Certificate fee.
The applicant must submit the certification fee within 90 days after written notification of positive results of the examination. If an applicant fails to submit the certification fee within 90 days, the applicant must apply for reexamination as in part 9400.0900.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 115.72; 115.79
- History: 21 SR 1165; 25 SR 1633
Minn. R. 9400.1100 Issuance of Certificates
Certificates shall be issued by the commissioner of health for water operator certificates, or the commissioner of the Pollution Control Agency for wastewater operator certificates, when all the conditions prescribed in parts 9400.0100 to 9400.1500 have been satisfied.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 115.72; 115.79
- History: 21 SR 1165
Minn. R. 9400.1200 Renewal of Certificates
Subpart 1. Minimum requirements.
A certificate in any given classification must be renewed within 30 days after its expiration date. A renewal certificate will be issued upon receipt of the application, renewal fee, and evidence of the fact that the operator has, during the preceding three years, obtained credit as described in subpart 4 or 5, for the number of hours specified in the following schedule:
A. Class A and S-A, 32 contact hours;
B. Class B and S-B, 24 contact hours;
C. Class C and S-C, 16 contact hours;
D. Class D and S-D, 8 contact hours; and
E. Class E, 4 contact hours.
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, 21 SR 1165]
Subp. 3. Accredited courses and activities.
The respective commissioner shall prepare and make available a list of accredited training courses and approved educational activities for which credit may be obtained.
Subp. 4. Water operator certificate renewal.
When a person applies to renew a water operator certificate, at least 50 percent of the contact hours required for renewal in subpart 1 must be from water-related courses approved by the commissioner of the department. The other 50 percent may be from wastewater or other related courses approved by the commissioner of the department, provided that the course or portion of the course has been approved by the commissioner of health.
Subp. 5. Wastewater operator certificate renewal.
When a person applies to renew a wastewater operator certificate, at least 50 percent of the contact hours required for renewal in subpart 1 must be from wastewater-related courses approved by the commissioner of the agency. The other 50 percent may be from water or other related courses approved by the commissioner of the agency, provided that the course or portion of the course has been approved by the commissioner of the Pollution Control Agency.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 115.72; 115.79
- History: 21 SR 1165; 25 SR 1633
Minn. R. 9400.1300 Reinstatement and Recertification
Subpart 1. Application.
A person whose certificate has expired may apply to the commissioner of health, for reinstatement of a water operator certificate, or to the commissioner of the Pollution Control Agency for reinstatement of a wastewater operator certificate. An applicant's certificate may only be reinstated to the class of the certificate which had expired. Before a certificate will be issued, such person must submit the following: the application for reinstatement; the nonrefundable fee for a reinstatement certificate; and evidence of the fact that the person has complied with the continuing education requirements imposed in part 9400.1200, subpart 1, during the entire time since the expired certificate was last issued or renewed.
Subp. 2. Denial.
A person who is denied reinstatement who wants to be recertified must follow the procedures for a new applicant specified in parts 9400.0900 and 9400.1000. The nonrefundable reinstatement fee shall be considered the fee for application of examination.
Subp. 3. Time.
A person may apply for reinstatement up to one year after expiration of the previous certificate. If more than one year has elapsed from the expiration of the certificate, a person must apply for the certificate as specified in parts 9400.0900 and 9400.1000.
Subp. 4. Reinstatement after suspension.
The commissioner of health or the commissioner of the Pollution Control Agency respectively will reinstate a suspended certificate if the individual whose certificate has been suspended fulfills the terms of the suspension order and meets all applicable requirements of the rules for obtaining a certificate.
Subp. 5. Revocation.
An individual whose certificate has been revoked according to Minnesota Statutes, section 144.99, subdivisions 8 to 10, may not apply for certification before the expiration date of the revocation order or for at least one year following the written notice of revocation.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 115.72; 115.79
- History: 21 SR 1165; 25 SR 1633
Minn. R. 9400.1350 Reciprocity
According to Minnesota Statutes, section 115.76, when a person who has a certificate in another state applies for certification as a water or wastewater operator, a determination will be made by the respective commissioner as to whether the applicant is eligible for certification and for what class of facility or system. The certification requirements of the other state must not be in conflict with Minnesota Statutes, sections 115.71 to 115.77, and must be of a standard not lower than those in this chapter.
A. If the certification requirements of the other state are not in conflict with Minnesota Statutes, sections 115.71 to 115.77, and are of a standard not lower than those in this chapter, the applicant must be granted a certificate.
B. If the certification requirements of the other state are in conflict with Minnesota Statutes, sections 115.71 to 115.77, and are of a standard lower than those in this chapter, the applicant must be notified in writing by the respective commissioner of those areas which were not equivalent and what, additionally, the applicant must do to meet the standards in this chapter.
C. The nonrefundable reciprocity fee shall be considered the fee for application of examination if the applicant is denied a certificate through reciprocity.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 115.72
- History: 21 SR 1165
Minn. R. 9400.1400 [Repealed, 21 SR 1165]
[Repealed, 21 SR 1165]
Minn. R. 9400.1500 Conditional Certificate
Subpart 1. Purpose and eligibility.
The purpose of the conditional certificate is to allow the current operator with direct responsibility of a system or facility time to gain necessary years of experience after passing all required examinations for the operator to achieve certification at the facility's higher class level. The operator of a system or facility that is reclassified to a higher class pursuant to part 9400.0600 shall be issued a conditional certificate in the higher class that is effective for three years from the date of issue when the following conditions are met:
A. the operator is a current operator with direct responsibility;
B. the operator has worked as the operator with direct responsibility at the same system or facility a minimum of 12 consecutive months prior to application for the conditional certificate; and
C. the applicant passes all exams required for the higher class in sequence (D, C, B, and A) and prior to startup of any system or facility upgrades that are related to the change in class.
Subp. 2.
[Repealed, 37 SR 327]
Subp. 3.
[Repealed, 25 SR 1633]
Subp. 4.
[Repealed, 37 SR 327]
Subp. 5. Issuance and renewal.
At the time of issuance, a conditional certificate must specify that the current operator with direct responsibility named therein is certified to operate only the system or facility for which the conditional certificate is issued. Before renewal of the conditional certificate is granted, an operator with a conditional certificate must provide proof of attendance at training applicable to the specified system or facility, in accordance with the training requirements in part 9400.1200.
Subp. 6. Conditional certificate with no alterations.
If there were no alterations to the system or facility upon reclassification, a conditional certificate shall be granted to the current operator for the specific system or facility upon application without examination. If an operator with direct responsibility ends employment serving the system or facility, the conditional certificate is no longer valid and the operator's certification reverts to the operator's original certificate level.
Subp. 7. Suspension or revocation of conditional certificate.
The agency or department may suspend, place conditions on, or revoke a conditional certificate according to Minnesota Statutes, section 144.99.
Subp. 8. Denial of or refusal to reissue conditional certificate.
The agency's or department's denial of or refusal to reissue a conditional certificate must comply with Minnesota Statutes, section 144.99.
History
- Statutory Authority: MS s 115.72; 115.79
- History: 21 SR 1165; 25 SR 1633; 37 SR 327
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